PHY008

Problem Class Questions for PHY008 Atomic and Nuclear Physics

The following pages contain a large number of questions to help understand the topics covered in
each of the chapters. Some questions have fully worked answers and others, which should be
attempted in the problems classes, do not.

Chapter 1
Q1. A small drop of oil of mass m which carries a charge Q may be held stationary in a vertical
electric field of intensity E.
a) Write down the expression for the forces on the drop which are then in balance (you can
neglect up-thrust from the surrounding air).
b) Describe how this apparatus can be used to measure Q.
c) Explain how the results of such an experiment indicate that all charges consist of an integral
number of basic units of charge, e.
Answer to part (a) is

A1. a) The force due to gravity where m is the mass of the droplet and g is acceleration
due to gravity. The force due to the electric field where q is the charge on the droplet and E
is the electric field. If the oil droplet is stationary then these forces must balance. So we say
.

b) Initially the oil drops are allowed to fall between the plates with the electric field turned off.
They very quickly reach a terminal velocity at which point the gravitational force is balanced by the
frictional force due to air resistance. A single oil droplet is selected and its terminal velocity v1 is
measured. The drag force acting on the drop can be worked out using Stokes' law:
where v1 is the terminal velocity of the falling drop, η is the viscosity of the air, and r is the radius
of the drop.
The volume of the droplet is simply and the density is and so the mass of the

droplet is and the weight is .

Since when the droplet is at terminal velocity we can write:

and by rearranging we can say: . Once r is calculated, W can easily be determined.

Now the electric field is turned on and the droplet experiences a force due to the electric field of
where q is the charge on the oil droplet and E is the electric field between the plates.
The electric field is then adjusted until the oil droplet remains steady, meaning that the force due to
the electric field is equal to the weight of the droplet. So and therefore .
Since the weight of the droplet has already been found, the charge can be calculated.
c) Doing this for a huge number of droplets we find that the values calculated for the charge q on
each droplet are all integer multiples of -1.60×10-19 C. We therefore state that this is the charge of
the electron and that the droplets contain multiple numbers of electrons, i.e. q = n×(electron charge)
with n an integer number of electrons.

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Q2. A charged plastic sphere of mass 3 × 1015 kg is held at rest between two horizontal parallel
metal plates as shown in the diagram. The distance between the plates is 5 × 10-3 m and a potential
difference of 310 V is applied across them.
a) What is the electric field between the plates?
b) Calculate the charge on the sphere?
c) If the polarity is suddenly reversed, calculate the
initial acceleration of the sphere?
Answers are (a) 62 KVm-1 (b) 4.8 × 10-19 C and (c) 19.6 ms-2

Q3. Electrons (mass ) are emitted

from the cathode in an evacuated tube. The
electrons start from rest and are accelerated through
a potential difference of 1150V. Some of the
electrons pass through the anode into a region
where the electric field is perpendicular to their
velocity as shown.
Calculate:
a) The speed of the electrons when then arrive at
the anode?
b) The deflection y that they undergo after passing between two parallel plates which are 2 × 10-2 m
long and 1 × 10-2 m apart, and between which a potential difference of 250V is maintained.
Answers (a) 2 × 107 ms-1 and (b) 2.2 × 10-3 m.

Q4. An electron beam, in which the electrons are travelling at 1 × 107 ms-1, enters a magnetic field
in a direction perpendicular to the field direction. It is found that the beam can pass through without
change of speed or direction if an electric field of strength 1.1 × 104 Vm-1 is applied in the same
region at a suitable orientation. Calculate:
a) The strength of the magnetic field?
b) If the electric field were to be switched off, what would be the radius of curvature of the electron
path?
(electron charge is 1.6 × 10-19 C and electron mass is 9.1 × 10-31 kg).
Answers are (a) 1.1 × 10-3 T and (b) 0.051m.

Q5. A scientist wishes to make a measurement of the electron charge using Millikan’s oil droplet
method. His experiment consists of two parts:
Part 1: With no electric field present, a drop of oil of mass 10-14 kg is observed to fall with constant
velocity 400 µms-1.
Part 2: A potential difference of 1.5 kV is applied between horizontal parallel plates 12 mm apart.
When the field is switched on, the droplet rises with constant velocity 80 µms-1.
a) Draw two diagrams showing all forces on the droplet once it is in dynamic equilibrium (i.e. has
achieved a constant velocity) for experiment parts 1 and 2. (Numerical values for the forces are not
required, but you should clearly label the origin of the force).

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b) How many electron charges are there on the droplet? (You may assume that the drag force due to
air resistance is proportional to the velocity of the droplet and that the air buoyancy may be
neglected).
Answer is 6 electron charges.
A5. a)

b) In experiment part 1: At constant velocity the forces between gravity and air resistance must
balance. If the drag force due to air resistance is proportional to the velocity then we can say that
where m is the mass, g is the acceleration due to gravity, v is the velocity and k is the
constant of proportionality. Since we are told the velocity and the mass then:
so
In experiment part 2: Again at constant velocity the forces must be equal and since the electric field
is now present and the droplet is travelling upwards we must write where q is the
charge on the droplet and E is the electric field. Electric field .

If then .

So C and so the droplet has a charge of electrons.

Q6. In Millikan’s experiment an oil droplet of mass 1.92 × 10-14 kg is stationary in the space
between the two horizontal plates which are 20mm apart, the upper plate being earthed and the
lower one at a potential of - 6 KV.
a) State, giving a reason, the sign of the electric charge on the droplet
b) Calculate the magnitude of the charge? (You may neglect the buoyancy of air).
c) With no change in the potentials of the plates, the drop suddenly moves upwards and attains a
uniform velocity. Explain why (i) the drop moves, and (ii) the velocity becomes uniform?

Answers are (a) negative, (b) 6.28 × 10-19 C

A6. a) The droplet is repelled from the negative plate so the charge must be negative.
b) Electric field . When forces balance and so

C.
c) (i) Before the droplet moved, the forces due to gravity and electric field balanced. The droplet
moves upwards without any change to the electric field. Therefore either the charge on the droplet

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has increased or the weight of the droplet has decreased. (Both would most likely have occurred
during a collision with another droplet). NB. A pure collision with another droplet in which there
was no loss of mass or increase in charge would certainly make the droplet move. However it would
not attain constant velocity, but rather would slow down due to air drag.
(ii) The velocity only becomes uniform when forces balance. The forces involved are gravity
(down), air resistance (down), electrostatic attraction (up). The loss of mass or the gain of charge
created an imbalance of forces and therefore an initial vertical acceleration. As the velocity
increased the force due to air resistance opposing the motion also increased until the sum of this
force combined with the force due to gravity were of equal magnitude to the electrostatic force. At
this point the droplet velocity remained constant.

Q7. A charged oil droplet remains stationary when situated between two parallel horizontal metal
plates 25 mm apart if a potential difference of 1000 V is applied to the plates.
a) Calculate the electric field present.
b) Find the charge on the droplet if it has a mass of 5 × 10-15 kg (assume g = 9.81 ms-2).
Answers are (a) (b) 1.23 × 10-18 C.

Q8. a) Calculate the radius of a droplet of oil, density 900 kg m-3 which falls with a terminal
velocity 2.9 × 10-4 ms-1, through air of viscosity 1.8 × 10-5 N s m-2, ignoring the density of air and
taking the drag force as where is the viscosity, is the radius of the droplet, and v is
the velocity?
b) If the charge on the drop is -3e, where e is 1.6 × 10-19 C, what potential difference must be
applied between two parallel horizontal plates 5 mm apart positioned on either side of the droplet in
order to render the droplet stationary?

Answers (a) 1.63 × 10-6 m and (b) 1672V.

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Chapter 2
Q9. An electron of mass m travelling with speed u collides with an atom and its speed is reduced to
v. The speed of the atom is unaltered, but one of its electrons is excited to a higher energy level and
then returns to its original state, emitting a photon of light. Show that the frequency of this photon is
given by .

Q10. In the photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons depends on
which of the following variables….work function of the metal, photon energy, light intensity? (you
can choose more than one).
A10. and so the kinetic energy depends only on the work function and the
photon energy.

Q11. When light of frequency 5.4 × 1014 Hz is shone on a metal surface the maximum energy of the
electrons emitted is 1.2 × 10-19 J. If the same surface is illuminated with light of frequency 6.6 ×
1014 Hz the maximum energy of the electrons emitted is 2.0 × 10-19 J. Use this information to
calculate a value for h Plank’s constant.
Answer is 6.626 × 10-34 Js.

Q12. Draw a sketch showing the energy levels of the electron in the hydrogen atom. Indicate on
your diagram the ground state of the atom, the first excited state, and the ionisation energy?

Q13. A photo-emissive metal will only emit electrons if the frequency of the incident light exceeds
5 × 1014 Hz.
a) What is the value of the work function of the metal?
b) What would be the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons if the incident light were of
wavelength 330nm?
Answers are (a) 3.3 × 10-19 J and (b) 2.7 × 10-19 J

Q14. a) Light of wavelength 500nm incident on a metal surface ejects electrons with kinetic
energies up to a maximum value of 2 × 10-19 J. What is the energy required to remove an electron
from the metal in eV?
b) If a beam of light causes no electrons to be ejected, however great its intensity, what can be said
about its wavelength?
Answers are (a) 1.23 eV (b) > 1 × 10-6 m.

Q15. A clean surface of potassium in a vacuum is irradiated with light of wavelength 5.5 × 10-7 m
and electrons are found to just emerge, but when light of wavelength 5 × 10-7 m is incident,
electrons emerge, each with energy 3.62 × 10-20 J. Estimate the value for Plank’s constant h?
Answer is 6.626 × 10-34 Js.

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Q16. Deduce the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from (a) a copper surface and (b) a
caesium surface, when irradiated by light of wavelength 5 × 10-7 m given that the work functions of
copper and caesium are, respectively, 6.4 × 10-19 J and 3.2 × 10-19 J?
Answers are (a) no emission (b) 7.76 × 10-20 J.

Q17. Light of photon energy 3.5 eV is incident on a photocathode of work function 2.5 V. Find the
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from the cathode expressing your answer in eV?
Answer is 1eV.
A17. so if work function and photon energy are quoted in eV then we
can say straight away that eV.

Q18. Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of an electron which has been accelerated from rest
through a potential difference of 10,000V?
Answer is 1.23 × 10-11 m.

Q19. The atomic nucleus may be considered to be a sphere of positive charge with a diameter very
much less than that of the atom. Discuss the experimental evidence that supports this view. Discuss
briefly how this experimental evidence has been obtained?

A19. Atoms are electrically neutral, so if they contain electrons they must also contain some
positive charge, but where? Thomson assumed that this was uniformly distributed like a soup
throughout the atom but this was only conjecture. To find out, in 1909 Rutherford fired positively
charged helium (He2+) ions with high energy at gold atoms in a thin gold film. Based on the theory
that positive and negative charges were spread evenly within the atom and that therefore only weak
electric forces would be exerted on the high energy ions passing through the thin foil, he expected
to find that most of the ions travelled straight through the foil with little deviation.
What he found, to great surprise, was that whilst most passed straight through the foil, a small
percentage (about 1 in 10000) were deflected at very large angles and some even bounced back
toward the ion source. Because helium ions are about 8000 times the mass of an electron and
impacted the foil at very high velocities, it was clear that very strong forces were necessary to
deflect these particles. (Imagine firing bullets at soup. Even if just one ricocheted back it would be
surprising!!)

The He2+ positive ions had clearly been repelled by an incredibly large positive charge within the
atom, this charge concentrated in a dense region also containing most of the mass. This work led in
1913 to Rutherford declaring the atom to contain a very small nucleus of high positive charge
(equal to the number of electrons in order to maintain neutrality) and to the ‘solar-system-like’
model of the atom, in which a positively charged nucleus is surrounded by an equal number of
electrons in orbital shells.
From purely energetic considerations of how far helium ions of positive charge and known velocity
would be able to penetrate toward the central positive charge of the gold nucleus, Rutherford was
able to calculate that the radius of the gold nucleus would need to be less than 3.4 x 10-14 metres
(the modern value is only about a fifth of this). The radius of the entire gold atom was known at the
time from diffraction measurements to be 10-10 metres or so in radius. This then implied that the

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diameter of the nucleus, containing all the positive charge and almost all of the mass, was less than
1/3000th the diameter of the atom.
Detailed analysis of scattering data for various elements has since found the diameter of the nucleus
to range from 2 to 9 × 10-15 m from hydrogen to uranium, and the diameter of the nucleus to be
almost 10-5 the diameter of the atom. We now also know the nucleus contains both protons
(positively charged) and neutrons (electrically neutral) particles of almost the same mass. Scientists
at this time had no idea about the existence of neutrons.

Q20. The work function for caesium is 1.35 eV.

a) What is the longest wavelength that can cause photo-emission from a caesium surface?
b) What is the maximum velocity with which photoelectrons will be emitted from the caesium
surface illuminated with light of wavelength 4 × 10-7 m? (mass of electron is kg).
Answer (a) 9.2 × 10-7 m (b) 7.9 × 105 ms-1 .

A20. a) . But if the frequency is too low so that then no electrons will be

ejected. The minimum frequency is but and so

m.

b) and and so but and so

Therefore joules.

ms-1.

Q21. The diagram shows three energy levels for the

atom of a particular substance, the energies being in
electron-volts (eV). A beam of electrons passing
through this substance may excite electrons from the
various energy levels.
a) What is the minimum potential difference through
which the beam of electrons must be accelerated from
rest to cause any excitation between two of these energy levels?
b) At what speed would these electrons be travelling?

Answers are (a) 2V (b) 8.4 × 105 ms-1

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Chapter 3
Q22. Given that the atomic mass of is 14.003074u and that the sum of the atomic masses of
and is 14.011179u, will the reaction result in emission of energy and if so,
-27
how much? (Give your answer is MeV) (1u = 1.66 × 10 kg)
Answers are YES and 7.55 MeV.

Q23. When a deuteron ( ) of mass 2.0141u and negligible kinetic energy is absorbed by a lithium
nucleus ( ) of mass 6.0155u, the product disintegrates spontaneously into two alpha-particles,
each of mass 4.0026u. Calculate the energy, in joules, given to each alpha particle (1u = 1.66 × 10-
27
kg).
Answer is 1.825 × 10-12 J

Q24. Calculate the binding energy per nucleon for and ? (Mass of = 1.00783u, mass
of = 1.00867u, mass of = 3.01664u, mass of = 4.00387u, 1u = 931.5 MeV).
Answers are 6.8MeV for helium-4 and 2.4MeV for helium-3.

Q25. Calculate the energy released when the nucleus undergoes negative beta decay to ?
(atomic mass of = 63.92976u, atomic mass of = 63.92914u, neglecting the mass of the
electron, and 1u corresponding to 931.5MeV).
Answer is 0.58MeV.

Q26. a) Draw a graph of a typical X-ray spectrum and explain how the characteristic and
continuous parts of the spectrum are formed?
b) Why is there a definite minimum wavelength of the X-rays produced?
c) Calculate the value of the minimum wavelength if the electrons are accelerated through a
potential difference of 12 kV?
Answer (c) 1.04 × 10-10 m.

Q27. A beam of protons is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 2 kV and then
enters a uniform magnetic field which is perpendicular to the direction of the proton beam. If the
flux density is 0.2 T calculate the radius of the path which the beam describes? (Mass of proton is
1.673 × 10-27 kg).
Answer is 3.3cm.

Q28. Electrons, accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 3 kV, enter a region of
uniform magnetic field, the direction of the field being at right angles to the motion of the electrons.
If the flux density is 0.01 T, calculate the radius of the electron orbit? (mass of electron is
kg).
Answer is 1.8cm.

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A28. The charge on an electron is 1.6 × 10-19 C. When the electrons are accelerated by 3kV, since

then velocity is ms-1

The force they experience due to the magnetic field is directed towards
the centre of the curve and is given by :
As they start to curve they also feel a centrifugal force directed in the
opposite direction given by: . Travelling in a circle of
constant radius R, these two forces must balance and so we can say :
and therefore .

Q29. a) Explain the meaning of the term mass difference and state the relationship between the
mass difference and the binding energy of the nucleus?
b) Sketch a graph of nuclear binding energy per nucleon versus mass number for the naturally
occurring isotopes and show how it may be used to account for the possibility of energy release by
nuclear fission?

A29. a) According to special relativity, a mass m is equivalent to an amount of energy E where:

where c is the speed of light. It follows that whenever a reaction results in the release of energy,
there must have been as associated decrease in the mass of the products. The relative atomic mass is
defined as:

The atomic mass unit is defined such that the mass of a atom is 12u exactly. It follows that the
mass of an atom expressed in u is numerically equal to its relative atomic mass. The unified atomic
mass unit has a mass of:
kg
And this can be converted into an energy of . If this
energy is written in electron-volts we can state:

The mass of a nucleus is always less than the total mass of its constituent protons and neutrons, the
difference in mass called the mass defect.

The reduction in mass arises because the act of combining the nucleons to form the nucleus causes
some of their mass to be released as energy in the form of gamma rays. This has the effect of
binding the nucleons together since any attempt to separate them would require energy to be
supplied. This energy (the added energy needed to take a nucleus apart into its constituent protons
and neutrons, or conversely the energy released when all the nucleons come together) is called the
binding energy of the nucleus.

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b) The rising of the binding energy curve at low mass numbers, tells us that energy will be released
if two nuclides of small mass number combine to form a single middle-mass nuclide. This process
is called nuclear fusion. The eventual dropping of the binding energy curve at high mass numbers
tells us on the other hand, that nucleons are more tightly bound when they are assembled into two
middle-mass nuclides rather than into a single high-mass nuclide. In other words, energy can be
released by the nuclear fission, or splitting, of a single massive nucleus into two smaller fragments.

Q30. A typical fission reaction is:

Calculate the total energy released in joules by 1 g of undergoing fission by the reaction
above, neglecting the masses of the electrons.
(mass of neutron is 1.009u mass of is 94.906u mass of is 138.906u

mass of is 235.044u 1u has a mass of 1.66 × 10-27 kg 6 × 1023 atoms per mole).
Answer is 8.5 × 1010 J.

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Chapter 4
Q31. The half life of a certain radioactive element is such that of a given quantity decays in 12
days. What fraction remains undecayed after 24 days? (show your working)
Answer is 1/64.

Q32. Two radioactive isotopes P and Q have half-lives of 10 minutes and 15 minutes respectively.
Freshly prepared samples of each isotope initially contain the same number of atoms as one another.
After 30 minutes what is the ratio of ?

Answer is 0.5.

Q33. A radioactive isotope decays by alpha and β- particle emission. Over a number of decays the
nucleon number decreases by 4 while the proton number is unchanged. How many alpha and β-
particles have been emitted?
Answer is 1alpha and 2betas

Q34. Here is some information about a radioactive isotope which might be used as a fuel in nuclear
power stations:
Name Particle emitted Half-life in years Particle energy
Strontium-90 Beta 27 0.54 MeV
(a) A sample of Strontium-90 has an initial activity of 400 curies (1 curie corresponds to 3.7 × 1010
decays per second). Calculate the maximum theoretical power output of this source giving your
answer in watts?
(b) What is the maximum theoretical power output of the source after 54 years?
Answers are (a) 1.29 watts per decaying atom, (b) 0.32 watts

Q35. Sketch a graph showing how the number of neutrons N varies with the number of protons Z
for stable nuclei. Draw the line N = Z and indicate approximate numerical values of N and Z on the
axes. What can be deduced from the graph concerning the numbers of neutrons and protons in
stable nuclei?
A35. If we plot the number of neutrons against the number of protons for stable nuclei only, it is
evident that heavy elements have more neutrons than protons. Small nuclei require approximately
equal numbers of neutrons and protons for stability. When we look at larger and larger nuclides
having more and more positive charge within the nucleus, we see that a higher percentage of
neutrons are needed to shield the repulsive positive charges from one another. Finally, there comes
a point where no amount of neutrons can make the nuclide stable. There are just too many positive
charges. There is no element with an atomic number Z > 82 (lead) which has any stable isotopes.
is the heaviest stable isotope. Based on its position on the plot, it is possible to predict the
most likely form of radioactive decay for an isotope in order for it to become more stable, as shown
on the figure. We will now describe the four types of radioactive decay.

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Q36. A radioactive isotope decays at a rate of 200 counts per second at 1 p.m. in the afternoon. If
the decay rate has reduced to 50 counts per second at 5 p.m. in the same day, what is the half-life of
the isotope?
Answer is 2 hours
A36. If we start with 200 counts per second and this drops to 50 counts per second in 4 hours then
we can say that in 2 hours it will have dropped to 100 and in another 2 hour it will have dropped to
50 counts per second. So the half life is 2 hours.

Q37. An alpha particle is emitted when a nucleus of polonium Po disintegrates to form a lead
nucleus Pb, according to the relation,

Deduce the atomic number and mass number of the lead created?

Q38. The reading of a detector of radiation falls from an average of 1600 counts per minute to an
average of 400 counts per minute in a period of 30 minutes.
a) What is the half-life of the radioactive source?
b) In what further period of time would the count rate fall to 100 counts per minute?
Answers are (a) 15 minutes (b) 30 minutes.

A38. a) Half life means that the decay rate drops to half its present value in this time. In the
question the rate has dropped to ¼ of its original value. We could use the familiar equations
and but it’s quicker to say that the half life must be 15 minutes
to account for the decay rate dropping to 800 and then to 400 in a 30 minute period.
b) This would correspond to another 2 half-lives as we would need the rate to be ¼ of the rate at
that time. Therefore it would have dropped after a further 15 × 2 = 30 minutes.

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Q39. Explain the liberation of energy produced by fission?

A39. Nucleons are more tightly bound when they are assembled into two middle-mass nuclides
rather than into a single high-mass nuclide. In other words, energy can be released by the nuclear
fission, or splitting, of a single massive nucleus into two smaller fragments. The fission process
releases energy because of the difference between the binding energies of different nuclei which can
be either positive or negative depending on the reaction.
Fission can be spontaneous, but only for very heavy nuclei such as uranium-238, and even then, the
rate is very low. Fission of a heavy nucleus such as uranium-235 can alternatively be
induced for example by the absorption of a neutron, producing krypton-92, barium-141, three
neutrons, and 174 MeV of energy:

Following absorption of the initial neutron, the uranium-236 nucleus splits into two daughter
products and releases three additional neutrons. These neutrons quickly cause the fission of other
uranium-235 atoms, thereby releasing additional neutrons and initiating a self-sustaining series of
nuclear fissions, or a chain reaction shown below, which results in continuous release of nuclear
energy. For the same mass, a single nuclear fission reaction releases 10 million times as much
energy as is released in the burning of fossil fuels.

Q40. In a radioactive decay series there are several examples in which a nucleus emits an alpha
particle followed by two β- particles.
a) Show that the final nucleus is an isotope of the original one?
b) What is the change in mass number between the original and final nuclei?
Answer (b) four fewer nucleons.

Q41. A radioactive source has a half-life of 20 days. Calculate the activity of the source after 70
days have elapsed if its initial activity is 1010 decays per second?
Answer is 8.8 × 108 counts per second

Q42. The radioactive isotope carbon-14 is absorbed by all living material such as plants in the form
of carbon dioxide. Experiments show that the decay rate of carbon -14 in living plants is 19 counts
per minute per gram. The half life of the isotope is 5600 years. When a plant dies, no more of the
isotope is absorbed. Measuring the current decay rate can provide information about its age.
Suppose the current decay rate in a piece of ancient wood is 14 counts per minute per gram.
a) Deduce the decay constant λ for carbon-14 ?
b) Calculate the age of the wood ?
Answers are (a) 3.924 × 10-12 second-1 (b) 2467 years

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Summary questions covering entire course

Q43. By considering its energy, show that an electron accelerated through a potential difference of
V volts is travelling at a velocity u given by:

where e is the electron charge and me the electron mass.

An electron of mass kg is accelerated through 25 kV. How fast is it going?

Answer is 9.4×107 ms-1

Q44. Show that an electron travelling at velocity u at right angles to a magnetic field B moves is a
circle radius R given by:
.
What value of B causes an orbit radius of 450 mm if u = 3.0×107 m s-1 and the mass of an electron
is kg?

Answer is 3.8×10-4 T.

Q45. Light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a metal which has a work function of 1.5 eV. What is
the maximum energy in joules of the emitted photoelectron?

[c = 3×108 m s-1, h = 6.626×10-34 Js]

Answer is 1.6×10-19 joules.

Q46. Molecules, each with an atomic weight of 133.6×10-27 kg and carrying a charge of 1.60×10-19
C are accelerated through 150 V. What:

a) is their velocity;

b) their momentum;

c) their wavelength?

Answers are 19000 ms-1, 2.53×10-21 kg m s-1, 2.6×10-13 m.

Q47. An electron with energy -5×10-19 J moves around an atomic nucleus in a circular orbit.

a) What is its wavelength, and

b) what is the radius of the orbit into which just two wavelengths fit?

Answers are (a) 0.692 nm and (b) 0.22 nm.

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