Q1.

Which of the following factors indicate most that detailed test conditions should be
specified for system testing? [K2]
a) Test basis is of low quality
b) Test basis is changing frequently
c) Domain experts are available for consultation during test design
d) Test conditions are used for management milestone presentations
e) Test design and test execution is outsourced
a,e
Q2. You are the Test Manager working on a project developing a tourist information
mobile
application. The project recently switched to an agile process and test driven
development. Each development cycle lasts 15 days, with daily builds beginning at day
7. After day 10, no new features are allowed to be added. The development team is
composed of very experienced team members, who are proud of their work, but not
tolerant of the testing team. The requirements are written down as coarse grained user
stories like the following one:

US 03-30: Search nearest matching hotel

As a casual user at an unfamiliar location I want to get information on the nearest hotel
matching my financial and comfort profile best.
Priority: High; Estimate: 7 (out of 10)

The software depends on existing web services, which are stubbed during
development. Unit testing is done by developers, while system and user acceptance
testing is the testing team's responsibility. System test in earlier development cycles
was often blocked due to severe failures of newly developed features. Analysis shows
that many of these failures could have been found during unit test. Analysis of issues
found during production show that 30% of performance problems were due to unreliable
web services delivered by 3rd party suppliers. Primary test objectives are to mitigate the
perceived performance risks and to increase the confidence that no failures with high
severity will occur in user stories with priority >= High. Moreover, upper management
demanded for closer cooperation of testers and developers.
Which of the following test activities and/or work products will achieve the test
objectives best? [K4]
a) Performance tests for user stories with priority = Very High done by developers
during unit
test before day no. 10
b) Metrics suite for unit testing defined by and reported to test management at day 7
c) Integration test level plan defined by test manager before each development cycle
and
handed over to developers on day 10
d) Automated performance testing of user stories with priority >= High done by testers
during
system test with test execution starting on day 10
e) Joint informal reviews of unit tests done by developers and testers before day 10
d,e
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Q3. Which of the following metrics are best suited to be included in a test progress
report for unit test executive? [K2]

a) Planned versus actual coverage achieved

b) Defect detection percentage (DDP) of unit test
c) Number of test conditions identified
d) Unit test time vs. integration test time
e) Planned versus actual defects reported
a,e
Q4. Which of the following is NOT a test level characteristic? [KI]
a) Test analysis
b) Test goals
c) Traceability to test basis
d) Developer techniques
e) Entry and Exit criteria
d
Q5. You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of
independent testing for banking applications. You are working on a project to implement
an integrated system that will use three off-the-shelf systems to manage a bank's
accounts-receivable system.
Identify all of the following that are test levels that you would expect to directly manage:
[K3]
a) Component testing for each system
b) Component integration testing for each system
c) System testing for each system
d) Contract acceptance testing for each system
e) System integration testing
d,e
Q6. Which of the following metrics can we use to measure the effectiveness of the test
process in achieving one of those objectives?
a) Average days from defect discovery to resolution
b) Lines of code written per developer per day
c) Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
d) Percentage of requirements coverage
d
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a metric related to software defects? [K2]
a) Mean time between failure
b) Failure arrival rate
c) Trends in the lag time
d) Cumulative number reported
e) Trends between failure
e
Q8. Assume that you are working for an ambitious start-up. They are creating a system
that will
provide customized loyalty and rewards programs for small- and medium-sized
businesses selling to customers on the web. These companies enroll themselves on the
system's web store. This allows the companies to create customized buttons, to be
placed on their websites, that let customers to enroll in the companies' loyalty and
rewards program. Each subsequent purchase earns points, and both companies and
their customers can manage the program; for example, to determine the number of
points required to receive a free product or service.
Your employer's marketing staff is heavily promoting the system, offering aggressive
discounts on the first year's fees to sign up inaugural companies. The marketing
materials state that the service will be highly reliable and extremely fast for companies
and their customers.
At this time. the requirements are complete, and development of the software has just
begun. The current schedule will allow companies and their customers to enroll starting
in three months. Your employer intends to use cloud computing resources to host this
service, and to have no hardware resources other than ordinary office computers for its
developers, testers, and other engineers and managers. Industry-standard web-based
application software components will be used to build the system.
You are following a risk-based testing strategy, where likelihood and impact are both
assessed on a five-point scale ranging from very low to very high. Consider the
following risk item that was
identified during the quality risk analysis process:
Customized enrollment buttons for a company's website are not assigned the correct
URL for that company's loyalty program.
Assume that technical project stakeholders have assessed the likelihood of this risk at a
medium level.
Given only the information above, which of the following statements is certainly true?

a) The test cases associated with this risk item must be run first in the test execution
period.
b) The test cases associated with this risk item must be run toward the middle of the
test
execution period.
c) A large number of test cases should be associated with this risk item, based on
impact.
d) This risk item should be assessed as a very high impact level risk.
d
Q9. Which of the followings are NOT a metrics related to a code?

a) Cyclomatic complexity
b) Component frequency
c) Number of function calls
d) Mean time failure arrival rate
e) Mean time between failures
b,d,e
Q10. Which of the following are proper ways to identify risks"' Choose all of possible
answer [K2]
a) Expert interviews
b) Independent assessments
c) Calling on future results
d) Use of risk templates
a,b,d
QI 1. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the way project management
work products affect testing? [K2]
a) The test manager should work with the project manager to develop the project
schedule
b) The tests should completely cover the requirements specification
c) Constraints in the project plan may constrain testing
d) The test manager should work with the technical support manager during test closure
c
Q12. Which of the following statements describes an appropriate approach to managing
nonfunctional testing? [K2]
a) Non-functional test implementation activities that take longer than a single iteration
should
be handled outside of the iterations
b) The test manager shall delegate the non-functional test planning to the technical test
analysts working on the project
c) Non-functional testing should be prioritized to follow functional testing and based on
perceived risks
d) Non-functional risks should be mitigated during early levels of testing or even during
development
a
Q13. Which of the following is a test document in which you would you expect to find
the precondition to start executing a level of testing? [1(1]
a) Project plan
b) Test log
c) Test result report
d) Test plan
e) Test design specification
d
Q14. You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of
independent testing for banking applications. You have just concluded a project to
implement an integrated system that will use three off-the-shelf systems to manage a
bank's accounts-receivable system. During the project, you found that one of the
vendor's systems, while comprising approximately the same amount of functionality and
of roughly the same complexity as the other two systems, had significantly more
defects. Making no assumption other than ones based on the information provided here,
which of the following is a reasonable improvement to the test process for subsequent
projects involving this
vendor? [1(.41
a) Impose retroactive financial penalties on this vendor for the number of bugs delivered
on
this project
b) Perform an acceptance test for all systems received, with particular rigor for this
vendor.
c) Cancel the contract with this vendor and put it on an industr∎ blacklist
d) Require the vendor's developers to attend training to improve their ability to write
quality
code.
b
Q15. Regarding of Business Value of Testing, there are quantifiable values and
Qualitative values. Which of the followings are categorized as Qualitative values? [1(3]
a) Smoothing releases
h) Find* deferrable defects
c) Increasing conlidetice
d) Reducing risk by running tests
e) Protecting from legal liability
a,c,e
Q16, In the !HEM test design specification. The test design specification describes a
collection of test cases and the test conditions they cover at a high level. Which of the
following sections is NOT included in the 1111:829 test design specification? [K2]
a) Features to he tested (in this suite, which should be a subset of the feature to he
tested from
test plan)
h) Approach refinements (where we elaborate on the approach described in the test
plan,
discussing the specific techniques, tools and so torth needed for this test suite)
c) Test identification (which traces to test cases in suite)
d) Feature pass/fail criteria (e.g,„ test oracle, test basic, legacy systems—)
e) Intercase dependencies (if needed to set up preconditions)
e
Q17. In the 1EEE829 test case specification which of the following sections is NOT
true? [K2]
a) Test case specification identifier
b) Test items (what is to be delivered and tested. which should be a subset of the test
items in
the test plan)
c) Input specification (user inputs, tiles, and so forth)
d) Actual results (including screens, files, timing and such)
e) Environmental (hardware, software, people. and props, again a subset of the test
plan's
environmental needs)
b
QI8. When doing Failure Mode and Effect Analysis, which of the following are NOT to
be a typical factors used to determine the risk priority number [K4]
a) Severity. This is an assessment of the impact of the failure mode on the system,
based on
the failure mode itself and the effects.
b) Priority. This is an assessment of the impact of the failure mode on users, customers,
the
business. stakeholders, the project, the product, and society, based on the effects,
c) Detection. This is an assessment of the likelihood of the problem existing in the
system and
escaping detection without any additional mitigation. This takes into consideration the
causes of the failure mode and the failure mode itself.
d) Urgency. This is an assessment of the impact of the timeline of the project.
e) Testability. This is an assessment of how the system is ready for testing
d,e
Q19. A critical element of test planning is the identification of test-to-project touch points
and hand-offs. In the following list are some examples of such touch points and hand-
offs. Which of
following is NOT correct? [K4]
a) Arranging for delivery of early, informal builds during test implementation to test the
test
cases, test procedures, test environments, and test tools
b) Coordinating the delivery of formal test releases, referred to in IEEE parlance as test
item
transmittal, In a regular, organized, reliable, efficient, and minimally disruptive fashion.
c) Ensuring that test releases have reliable, incrementally increasing, easily ascertained
revision numbering so that meaningful test results can be gathered and reported.
d) Analyze a target metrics and actual metrics by evaluating test result and adjust a
factors of
each metrics to meet the customer requirement.
e) Providing for reliable, timely, competent test environment support when the
complexity,
size, or criticality of the test environment is such that the test team should not support it
e
Q20. In test case Metrics, which of following aspect are NOT true statement? [K3]
a) Test Environment: Provides identifying information for the hardware, software, and
infrastructure used to run the test
b) Def RPN (or Defect Risk Priority Number): This is the defect risk rating, probably from
the
defect tracking system, analogous to the risk priority number in the quality risk analysis.
c) Test Effort: The number of person-hours planned for this test
d) Actual Effort: The number of person-hours ultimately expended on the test
e) Test Duration: The number of clock-hours required from start to end of test
b,e
Q21. Which of the following alternatives are typical project risks to be considered by the
test manager? [K2]
a) Delays and especially complex areas in the delivered product.
b) Low quality of requirements, design, code and tests, as well as failure-prone areas in
the
delivered product.
c) Potential failure areas in the software or system.
d) Supplier problems, organizational factors and the quality of design, code and tests
a,d
Q22. Which of the following alternatives are typical product risks to be considered by
the test manager? [K3]

a) Error-prone areas, the potential harm to the user, poor product characteristics
b) Low quality of requirements, design, code and tests as well as failure-prone areas
c) Political problems and delays in especially complex areas in the product.
d) Problem in defining the right requirements; potential failure areas in the software or
system.
a,d
Q23. Some proponents of session-based test management are use an acronym,
PROOF. Which of the followings are NOT true statement about PROOF? [K3]
a) Past: What happened during the session? What did you do, and what did you see?
b) Results: What was achieved during the session? What bugs did you find? What
worked?
c) Overviews: What still needs to be done? What subsequent test sessions should we
try?
d) Obstacles: What got in the way of good testing? What couldn't you do that you
wanted to?
e) Feelings: How do you feel about this test session?
c
Q24. As a test manager, you are participating in a meeting with other members of the
project management team. The agenda of the meeting is to discuss whether the project
can begin
acceptance testing based on the system test exit criteria, the acceptance test entry
criteria, and other business considerations. Which of the following statements is true?

a) The meeting is an audit, because the project management team is checking

compliance
against defined criteria by checking evidence.
b) The meeting is a management review, because the project management team is
checking to
ensure that progress is being made on the project.
c) The meeting is an audit, because the project management team is going to issue a
pass/fail
assessment against the criteria.
d) The meeting is a management review, because the project management team is
evaluating
the situation and determining the next steps.
d
Q25. Which of the following describes the application of the test strategy for a particular
project? [K 1 ]
a) Test plan
b) Test cases
c) Master test plan
d) Test policy
e) Test case
a
Q26. Regarding of Factors Affecting Estimation, some factors, the material factors, arise
from the nature of the project, the tools at hand, the resources available. Which of the
followings are categorized as a material factor? [K3]
a) An adequate, dedicated, and secure test environment.
b) Clearly defined hand-offs between testing and the rest of the organization.
c) Well-managed change control processes for project and test plans, product
requirements,
design, implementation, and testing
d) The chosen system development or maintenance lifecycle, including the maturity of
testing
and project processes within that life cycle
e) Existing assimilated, high-quality test and process automation and tools.
a,c,e
Q27. Need to define Exit Criteria for system and system integration test levels based on
which of the following? [K2]
a) SDLC lifecycle model rules
b) Residual level of risk
c) Resolution of known defects
d) Management acceptance of residual risk
a,b,d
Q28. Regarding of Factors Affecting Estimation, there are certain delaying factors that,
when present, always increase schedule and effort. Which of the following is NOT
categorized and delaying factor? [K3]
a) Separate, adequate development debugging environment
b) High complexity of the process, project, technology, organization, or test environment
c) Lots of stakeholders in the testing, the quality of the system. or the project itself.
d) The need to ramp up, train, and orient a growing test orproject team.
e) Fragile test data, such as for example, data that is time-sensitive.
a
Q29. Which of the followings are NOT technique for test estimation? [K2]
a) Testing standards and norms
b) Team estimation sessions
c) Work Breakdown Structures, such as Gantt charts and tools like Microsoft Project
d) Intuition, guesses, and past experience
e) Failure Mode and Effect Analysis
0 Mean time between Failure
e,f
Q30. Need to define Entry Criteria for system and system integration test levels based
on which of the following? [K2]
a) Readiness of testware, test environments, test team
b) Demonstrated quality of test items
c) Product quality using bug metrics
d) Completeness of testing using test case completion metrics
e) Testing efficiency using test hours metrics
a,b,c,d
Q31. As a Test manager, Calculating Risk priority is essential. This calculation is being
done in the formalized quality risk analysis session right after FMEA (Failure Mode and
Effect
Analysis) technique. Which of the followings are major factors in this Risk priority
calculation? [1(4]
a) Functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, and portability
b) Mitigation
c) Severity
d) Priority
e) Loss of a key contributor on the test team
c,d
Q32. You work for an international company producing hardware and software for
telecom
networks. Hardware and software development are done in separate business units.
You are the test manager of one product line of network router software.
In your product line there is a long tradition of creating tightly integrated products using
an incremental product lifecycle. The hardware business unit produces a new version
every six months. Your software product line aims to have a new version of the software
ready for each
new hardware version. The software is developed in two-month increments. The
business unit schedules are synchronized during design. Your team consists of 15
testers, who have been in the company for a minimum of two years, but mostly a lot
longer. New tests are developed by the most experienced testers using in-house
custom test scripts. Variations of tests and the regression test sets are run by the rest of
the team.
The company management requires monthly progress reports listing the number of
severe defects found and the status of test execution. There have also been efforts to
measure the efficiency of personnel in all business units. Your company has also
implemented CMMI on company level.

There have been problems to keep up with the hardware development schedule.
Your manager thinks that the project might find some defects more efficiently by having
testers review the business requirements.

Which three of the following metrics would be used best to prove this point during
review trial?

a) Number of defects found in dynamic testing

b) Test execution status
c) Review and dynamic testing hours
d) Number of defects found in reviews
e) Number of severe defects in dynamic testing
a,d,c
Q33. In terms of the residual level of quality risk, which of the following is the best
example of a technique for controlling test progress? [K3]

a) Counting the number of Mean Time Between Failure

b) Counting the number of tested risk items without known defects and the number of
tested
risk items with known defects
c) Counting the number of defects found and the number of defect resolved
d) Counting the number of test cases passed and the number of test case failed
e) Counting the number of requirements that work properly and the number of
requirements
with known defects
b
Q34. In Viet Nam, Assume you are a test manager in charge of integration testing,
system
testing, and acceptance testing for a bank. You are working on a project to upgrade an
existing automated teller machine system to allow customers to obtain cash advances
from supported credit cards. You have received a requirements specification that states
that the system should allow cash advances from 100,000 vnd to 10,000,000 vnd,
inclusively for all supported credit cards. The supported credit cards that can be used in
Viet Nam: American Express, Visa and MasterCard.
Which of the following statements best associates a key stakeholder with the kind of
input that stakeholder can provide during a quality risk analysis?
a) Test Manager provide input on the likelihood of a risk item.
b) A tester can provide input on the likelihood of a risk item.
c) A developer can provide input on the impact of a risk item.
d) A business analyst can provide input on the likelihood of a risk item.
e) A help desk staffer can provide input on the impact of a risk item
e
Q35. You are planning the testing for an integrated system that will use three off-the-
shelf
components to manage a bank's accounts-receivable system. You are conducting an
informal quality risk analysis session with project and system stakeholders to determine
what test conditions should be tested and how much each test condition should be
tested. Which of the following is a quality risk item that you might identify in this quality
risk analysis session?
a) Failure of a component vendor to conduct adequate component testing
b) Calculation of excessive late-payment penalties for invoices
e) On-time payment of all invoices for international vendors
d) Calculation of risk priority using likelihood and impact
b
Q36. As a test manager, we are often required to describes the organization's
philosophy toward testing. Which of follow is proper to be included? [K1]
a) Test plan
b) Test cases
c) Test Procedure
d) Test Policy
e) Test strategy
d
Q37. You are a test manager in charge of system testing on a project to update an
Online
registration for a Leaning Management system. The goal of the software update is to
make the registration more efficient.

You have written a first release of the system test plan based on the final requirements
specification. You receive an early draft of the design specification. Identify all of the
following statements that are true.

a) Due to lack of documentation, should consider to use experience based techniques.

b) Do not update the system test plan until the final version of the design specification is
available.
c) Produce a draft update of the system test plan based on this version of the design
specification.
d) Check this version of the design specification for inconsistencies with the
requirements
specification.
e) Participate in the final review of the design specification but not any preliminary
reviews of
the design specification.
f) Review the quality risk analysis to see if the design specification has identified
additional
risk items.
b,d,f
Q38. Assume you are a test manager working on a project to Shipping and Port
Operation System for "Sai gon port" which is located in Ho Chi Minh City. In addition to
the normal functions, the system also provide a function that each vessels (ship) send
its information to operator in the Saigon Port so that operator can download data to a
browser-based application that runs on PCs for further analysis.
During quality risk analysis, you identify compatibility problems between the browser-
based application and the different PC configurations that can host that application as a
quality risk item with a high level of likelihood. You plan to perform compatibility testing
to address this risk.
Which of the following is a way in which you might monitor the effect of testing on the
reduction of this risk during test execution? [K4]

a) Assign more time to cover compatibility than testers to cover functionality

b) Reduce the number of supported PC configurations.
c) Assign more testers to cover compatibility than testers to cover functionality.
d) Plan to test the most common PC configurations.
e) Analyze the number of defects found that relate to this risk item.
e
Q39. You are the test manager on a project where system testing is being performed on
software being provided by a third party. You have received a complaint from the third
party that the completeness of the defect data from your system testing is unacceptable.
The tbllow ing list of information items has been identified as potentially missing from
the defect reports being sent to the third party.
Which items do you think are MOST important to add to the defect reports?
a) The project activity occurring when the problem was detected
b) The lifecycle phases of introduction, detection, and removal for the defect
c) The priority to fix the problem
d) The test environment in which the defect was observed
e) Steps to reproduce the failure, along with the actual and expected results
c,d,e
Q40. You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of
independent
testing for banking applications. You are working on a project to implement an
integrated
system that will use three off-the-shelf systems to manage a bank's accounts-receivable
system. You are currently managing the execution of system integration testing.
Consider the following bug open/closed or convergence chart.

Which of the following interpretations of this chart provides a reason to not declare the
system integration testing complete? [K4]
a) The bug find rate has not leveled off.
b) Developers aren't fixing bugs fast enough.
c) The complete set of tests has not yet been run.
d) A number of unresolved bugs remain in the backlog
d
Q41, Which of the following represents a legal sequence of states for a defect report
that leads to a terminal state? Assume that "in progress" means one or more states
where developers or other project stakeholders are addressing the defect. [K2]

a) Initial, in progress, returned, cancelled

b) Initial, in progress, confirmation test, closed, deferred
c) Initial, in progress, returned, in progress, confirmation test
d) In progress, initial, confirmation test, closed
a
Q42. Which of the followings are experience-based technique? ...[K1]
a) Attacks
b) Error guessing
c) Unit testing
d) Exploratory testing
e) State-transition testing
a,b,d
Q43. Which of the followings are counted as a test level characteristic? [Kl]
a) Test goals
b) Traceability to test basis
c) Test score
d) Entry and Exit criteria
a,b,d
Q44, Which two of the following statements are the best examples of the importance of
improving the test process? [K1]
a) Since testing often accounts for a major part of the total project costs, more effective
testing
will lead to more effective projects
b) Test process improvement models help to reach a higher level of maturity and
professionalism.
c) Since Testing often accounts for a major part of the total project costs, much attention
is
given to the test process in software process improvement models, such as CMMI
d) When using test process improvement models, the Deming improvement cycle: Plan,
Do,Check, Act, is of no relevance when testers need to improve the testing process
e) Test process improvement is important because there exist well known and industry-
accepted test process improvement models, such that TMMi, TN Next, or CTP
a,b
Q45. Which of following essential roles and responsibilities should be included in a
formal review? [K2]
a) The Manager: The manager allocates resources, schedules reviews, and the like.
However,
they might not be allowed to attend based on the review type.
b) The moderator or leader: This is the chair of the reviewing meeting.
c) The author: The person who wrote the item under review. A review meeting done
properly,
should not be a sad or humiliating experience for the author
d) The reviewers: The people who review the item under review, possibly finding
defects in it.
Reviewers should not play specialized roles, based on their expertise.
e) The scribe or secretary or recorder: The person who writes down the findings.
a,b,c,e
Q46. In Viet Nam, Assume you are a test manager in charge of integration testing,
system
testing, and acceptance testing tbr a bank. You are working on a project to upgrade an
existing automated teller machine system to allow customers to obtain cash advances
from supported credit cards. You have received a requirements specification that states
that the system should allow cash advances from 100,000 vnd to 10,000,000 vnd,
inclusively for all supported credit cards. The supported credit cards that can be used in
Viet Nam: American Express, Visa and MasterCard.
The bank has given you the responsibility of organizing a review of the requirements
specification. Which of the following is a risk for this review?
a) You do not know the supported credit cards.
b) You do not include the proper stakeholders in the review.
c) You do not know which test levels to address.
d) You do not receive the requirements specification.
b
Q47. Typically, a review is related with which of the following type of testing? [K1]
a) Dynamic testing
b) White-box testing
c) Static testing
d) Ad-hoc testing
e) Black-box testing
c
Q48. Assume you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable
thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning
(HVAC) systems. In addition to the normal HVAC control functions, the thermostat has
the ability to download data to a browser-based application that runs on PCs for further
analysis. During quality risk analysis, you identify compatibility problems between the
browser-based application and the different PC configurations that can host that
application as a quality risk item with a high level of likelihood. Select all of the following
actions that should occur in the quality and test plans to best ensure that the project
team will minimize this risk upon release?
a) Collect test logs for Testing closure Activity and further usage
b) Carefully select the list of supported configurations.
c) Review the list of supported configurations with project stake—holders.
d) Support only a single browser based on technical attributes.
e) Test the supported PC configurations early in test execution.
b,c
Q49 Which of the followings are correct that Incident management deals with [K2]
a) Registration of problems, faults and failures
b) Showing product quality through use of metrics
c) Definition and implementation of new software requirements.
d) Development of proposals to correct faults
a,b,d
Q50. The IEEE 1044 describes a defect lifecycle. Which of follows is a NOT true about
the steps of defect life cycle? [K3)
a) Recognition: It occurs when we observe an anomaly (that observation being an
incident),
which indicates a potential defect. Recognition can occur in any phase of the software
lifecycle.
b) Investigation: After recognition, investigation of the incident occurs. Investigation can
reveal related issues and propose solutions. One solution is to conclude that the
incident does not arise from an actual defect
c) Action: The results of the investigation trigger the action step. We might decide to
resolve
the defect. Regression testing and confirmation testing must occur.
d) Disposition: With action concluded, the incident moves to disposition step. Here we
are
principally interested in capturing further information and moving the incident into a
terminal state.
e) Evaluation: As a results of the Disposition, next step is for evaluation. In this step,
gather all
the result and compare for evaluation so that the data can be used for next project.
e
Q51. According to ISTQB Syllabus, which of the follows describes below definition?
[1(41 Definition:
Any condition that deviates from expectation based on requirements specifications,
design documents, user documents, standards, etc... or from someone's perception or
experience.
a) Acceptance Criteria
b) Anomaly
c) Test Data
d) Incident
e) Test condition
f) Requirement
b
Q52. Assume you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable
thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning
(HVAC) systems. In addition to the normal HVAC control functions, the thermostat has
the ability to download data to a browser-based application that runs on PCs for further
analysis.
During quality risk analysis, you identify compatibility problems between the browser-
based application and the different PC configurations that can host that application as a
quality risk item with a high level of likelihood.
Your test team is currently executing compatibility tests. Consider the following excerpt
from the failure description of a compatibility bug report:
Steps:

1. Connect the thermostat to a Windows Vista PC.

2. Start the thermostat analysis application on the PC. Application starts normally and
recognizes connected thermostat.
3. Attempt to download the data from the thermostat.
4. Data does not download.
5. Attempt to download the data three times. Data will not down—load.
Based on this information alone, which of the following is a problem that exists with this
bug report?
a) Lack of screenshot and data dump to investigate
b) Lack of structured testing
c) Inadequate classification information
d) Insufficient isolation
e) Poorly documented steps to reproduce
d
Q53. You are leading a four person testing team on a project with a delivery date that is
only four weeks away, and your original test plan showed that the remaining testing
would take 200 days of effort.
Two new team members are due to start next week.
Which THREE of the following statements BEST describe skills you will be required to
demonstrate for the next few weeks?
a) Dealing with project schedule problems and expectation issues from customers and
management
b) Persuading team members that they are valued and that their input is a vital
contribution to
the team effort
c) Assimilating new members into the team quickly, while still providing adequate
supervision
and support
d) Ensuring no favoritism by treating all team members the same and sharing all tasks
across
the team
e) Showing your commitment by working in the testing team, delegating the handling of
external issues to a team member
f) Closely managing the test team, only assigning individuals new tasks when they finish
their
last one

g) Analyzing personality traits to identify new skills to be acquired to increase each

individual's
skills portfolio
a,b,c
Q54. The Systematic Test and Evaluation Process (STEP) model is non-prescriptive in
term of improvements. A STEP assessment involves both quantitative metrics and
qualitative
interviews. Which of the followings are qualitative interview? [K3]
a) Test status over time
b) Defined test process utilization
c) Test requirements or risk coverage
d) Defect introduction, detection, and removal phases
e) Customer satisfaction
b,e
Q55. When Improving the Test Process with Test Process Improvement, which of
following improvements should be made to move from Level I to Level 2 [I(.4]
a) Take the Test Specification Techniques process area to level A
b) Take the Defect Management process area to level A
c) Take the Test Process Management process area to level A
d) Take the Moment of Involvement process area to level A
e) Take the Communication process area to level A
d,e
Q56. An organization develops home-banking software for the local market, using an
agile
software development process. The software depends on external software
components from the open source domain. It also uses existing web services, which are
replaced by test stubs during development and integration. There are plans to
internationalize the home-banking software for
a globally operating bank.
Which ONE of the following is the BEST proposal to fit testing into the project?
a) Unit and component integration testing done by developers; system testing done by
the
independent internal test organization supported by developers; user acceptance
testing done by banking experts supported by the independent internal test
organization;
internationalization testing outsourced to external test specialists
b) Unit testing done by developers; component integration testing done by the
independent
internal test organization; system and user acceptance testing done by banking experts;
internationalization testing outsourced to external test specialists
c) Unit testing done by developers; system testing done by the independent internal test
organization; user acceptance and internationalization testing done by banking experts
supported by the independent internal test organization
d) Unit and component integration testing done by developers; system and user
acceptance
testing and internationalization testing done by banking experts supported by the
independent internal test organization
a
Q57. Assume you are a test manager and you have just concluded a project to a
programmable thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air
conditioning (HVAC) systems. After release, you find that quality risk analysis failed to
identify certain significant risk items, resulting in defects escaping to customers.
Assume you are using TPI Next to improve the test pr?cess. Which of the following is a
TPI
a) Life cycle modelext Process area that you would look at to address this problems?
b) Test policy and goalsc) Mom
ent of involvement
d) Estimating and planning
d
Q58. Regarding of Test automation costs, the cost can be divided to initial costs and
recurringcosts. Which of the followings are Recurring costs? 11(.31
a) Evaluating and selecting the right tb) ool

Purchasing the tool, or adapting

an open source tool or developing your own tool

c) Learning the tool and how to use it properly
d) Porting the tests to a new platform
e) Extending the coverage to new features and application
c,d,e
Q59. Regarding of risks for adopting testing tool, Which of the following is a risk
associated with test management tools? [K2]

a) Due to using a test script, required programming skill

b) Untrained staff misuse complex classification fields
c) False positives result when inappropriate tests are automated
d) Test managers gain insight into trends that span multiple projects
e) Programmers introduce new defects when modifying code to comply with coding
standards
c
Q60. Which of following describes a category of a tool used typically by programmers to
reproduce failures, investigate the state of programs, and find the corresponding
defect? [K2]
a) Fault seeding tool
b) Dynamic analysis tool
a) Performance testing tool
d) Debugging tool
e) Test execution tool
d
Q61. According to Syllabus, which of the following describes a source to determine
expected results to compare with the actual result of the software under test? [K1]
a) Test Policy
b) Test Estimation
c) Test Oracle
d) Test Strategy
e) Performance/Benchmarking test
f) Test Basic
c
Q62. Which of follows should be addressed in a test tool strategy document? [K2]
a) List of test data to putting into each function of the application
b) List of the programmers developing the application under test
c) Return on investment projections
d) Specific quality risk items for each application under test
e) Selection of pilot projects for particular tools
c,e
Q63 Which of the following describes Best the task partition between test manager and
tester? [K3]
a) The Test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed,
while the
tester chooses the tools and controls their use
b) The Test manager plans, organizes and controls the testing activities, while the tester
specifies, prioritizes and executes tests.
c) The test manager plans, monitors and controls the testing activities, while the tester
designs
and executes tests
d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while
the tester
prioritizes and executes the tests
c
Q64. You are a test manager in charge of system testing on a project to update a
cruise-control module for a new model of a car. The goal of the cruise-control software
update is to make the car more fuel efficient. Assume that management has granted
you the time, people, and
resources required for your test effort, based on your estimate. Which of the following is
an example of a motivational technique for testers that will work properly and is based
on the concept of adequate rewards as discussed in the Advance syllabus?
a) Criticism of individual testers at team meetings when someone makes a mistake
b) Bonuses for the test team based on detecting 90 percent of defects prior to release
c) Bonuses for the test team based on improving fuel efficiency by 20 percent or more
d) Bonuses for individual testers based on finding the largest number of defects
b
Q65. Assume you have just been hired as a test manager in charge of integration
testing, system testing, and acceptance testing for a bank. Most of the bank's systems
involve a mix of
mainframe center data repositories and services, Unix-based client-server applications
in the branches and back office, and browser-based banking access for customers.
Assume that you are in a position to hire two additional testers for your test team. In
addition, you have been given a budget to provide training for the team. Your manager
has asked you to submit a team development plan for the coming year. She has told
you that you may provide two training courses for your team. She has also told you that
you may hire two people, and you may use those new hires to cross-train your team.
Which of followings that you can draw from above situation?

a) Provide test training focused on automation skills

b) Provide test training covering broad testing topics
c) Provide business skills training focused on banking applications
d) Hire a tester with experience in testing banking applications
e) Hire a tester with experience in the underlying technologies.
f) Hire a tester with strong interpersonal skills
b,c,d,e