Lakshya

Lakshya NEET (2024)

NEET (2023)

SHORT PRACTICE TEST - 02

DURATION:: 60
DURATION 90Minutes
Minutes DATE : 21/05/2023 M.MARKS : 192

Topics Covered
Physics: Electric field due to line charge and charged sheet, Electrostatic potential and Capacitance: (Problems
on electric potential, potential energy, equatorial and general points, Dipole in external electric field.
Chemistry: Chemical kinetics.
Botany: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, Pollen-Pistil Interaction & Double Fertilisation, Post-
Fertilisation Events, Post-Fertilisation Events, Principles of Inheritance and Variation Introduction to
Genetics Mendel's Law of Inheritance
Zoology: Menstrual cycle (human reproduction).

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 60 minutes duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 48 questions. The maximum marks are 192.
4. All questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each questions.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
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completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

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Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

[1]
 PHYSICS
1. In which of the following cases is dipole in stable 5. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at
equilibrium? 220 V each They combine to form a bigger drop.
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
(1) 1320 V (2) 1520 V
(1) (2) (3) 1980 V (4) 660 V

6. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge

Q. The electric potential and the electric field at
(3) (4) the center of the sphere respectively are:
Q
(1) Zero and
4 0 R 2
2. Figure shows three points A, B and C in a region
Q
of uniform electric field E . The line AB is (2) and Zero
4 0 R
perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field lines.
Then which of the following holds good. Where Q Q
(3) and
VA, VB and VC represents the electric potential at 4 0 R 4 0 R 2
points A, B and C respectively
(4) Both are zero

7. Two infinite sheets of uniform charge density

+ and – are parallel to each other as shown
in figure. Electric field at the midpoint between
(1) VA = VB = VC (2) VA = VB > VC the sheets is
(3) VA = VB < VC (4) VA > VB = VC

3. Three charges are placed at the vertex of an

equilateral triangle as shown in figure. For what
value of Q the electrostatic potential energy of the
system is zero?

(1) Zero

(2) towards right
0

(1) –q (2)
q 
(3) towards left
2 0
−q
(3) –2q (4) 2
2 (4) towards right
0
4. Two infinitely long thin straight wires having
uniform linear charge densities 2λ and 3λ are 8. Three isolated equal charges are placed at the
arranged parallel to each other at a distance R three corners of an equilateral triangle as shown in
apart. The intensity at a point midway between figure. The statement which is true for net electric
them is potential V and net electric field intensity E at the
 centre of the triangle is
(1)
20 R

(2)
0 R
5
(3)
0 R
2
(4) (1) E = 0, V = 0 (2) V = 0, E  0
30 R
(3) V  0, E = 0 (4) V  0, E  0

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9. Four charges of same magnitude q are placed at 11. An electric dipole of dipole moment p is aligned
four comers of a square of side a. The value of parallel to a uniform electric field E. The energy
electric potential at the centre of the square will be required to rotate the dipole by 90° is
1 (1) pE2 (2) p2E
(Where k = )
4 0 (3) pE (4) Infinity
4kq kq
(1) (2) 4 2 12. Which of the following is not true?
a a
4 kq kq (1) For a point charge, the electrostatic potential
(3) (4) varies as 1/r
2a a 2
(2) For a dipole, the potential depends on the
position vector and dipole moment vector
10. Figure shows the variation of electric field
(3) The electric dipole potential varies as 1/r at
intensity E versus distance x. What is the potential
difference between the points at x = 2 m and at large distance
x = 6 m from O? (4) For a point charge, the electrostatic field
varies as 1/r2

(1) 30 V (2) 60 V
(3) 40 V (4) 80 V

CHEMISTRY
13. Half-life period of a first order reaction is 10 17. Units of specific reaction rate for second order
min. What percentage of the reaction will be reaction:
completed in 100 min? (1) s–1 (2) mol L–1 s–1
–2 –1
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) L mol s (4) L mol–1 s–1
(3) 99.9% (4) 75%
18. k represents the rate constant of a reaction when
log k is plotted against 1/T(T = temperature) the
14. In a zero-order reaction for every 10°C rise of
graph obtained is a
temperature, the rate is doubled. If the
temperature is increased from 10°C to 100°C, the (1) Curve
rate of the reaction will become: (2) A straight line with a constant positive slope
(1) 128 times (2) 256 times (3) A straight line with constant negative slope
(4) A straight line with no slope
(3) 512 times (4) 64 times
19. A → B is a first order reaction. The initial
15. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction concentration of A is 0.2 mol L–1. After 10 min,
X2 + Y2 → 2 XY is given below: the concentration of B is found to be 0.18 mol L–
(i) X2 ⇌ X + X (fast) 1
. The rate constant (in min–1) for the reaction is:
(ii) X + Y2 → XY + Y (slow) (1) 0.2303 (2) 2.303
(iii) X + Y → XY (fast) (3) 0.693 (4) 0.01
The overall order of the reaction will be
(1) 1.5 20. The potential energy diagram for a reaction
R → P is given below.
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0

16. Threshold energy is equal to:

(1) Activation energy
(2) Activation energy – energy of molecules
ΔH0 of the reaction corresponding to the energy:
(3) Activation energy + energy of molecules (1) a (2) b
(4) None of these (3) c (4) a + b

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21. In the presence of a catalyst, activation energy of 23. In a first order reaction, the concentration of the
a reaction is lowered by 2 kcal at 27°C. Hence, reactant, decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M in
rate will be: 15 minutes. The time taken for the concentration
(antilog1.447 = 27.98) to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is
(1) 20 times (1) 30 min (2) 60 min
(2) 28 times (3) 7.5 min (4) 15 min
(3) 14 times
(4) Remain same 24. The rates of a reaction at different times are
given below
22. The activation energy of a reaction at a given Time (in min) Rate
temperature is found to be 2.303RTJmol–1. 0 2.8 × 10–2
The ratio of rate constant (k) to the arrhenius 10 2.8 × 10–2
factor (A) is:
20 2.8 × 10–2
(1) 0.01
30 2.8 × 10–2
(2) 0.1
The order of the reaction is
(3) 0.02
(4) 0.001 (1) 2nd order (2) Zero order
rd
(3) 3 order (4) 1st order

BOTANY
25. Perisperm is 32. A true breeding plant is
(1) Persistent nucellus in seed (1) One that is able to breed on its own
(2) Ovule wall (2) Produced due to cross-pollination among
(3) Ovule coat unrelated plants
(4) Fossil of haustoria (3) Near homozygous and produces offspring of
its own kind
26. Removal of anther from the floral bud is called (4) Always homozygous recessive in its genetic
(1) Anthesis (2) Bagging constitution
(3) Emasculation (4) Antrectomy
33. Which of the following is not an example of
27. Stem tip in dicot embryo is known as – recessive gene?
(1) Terminal flower in pea plant
(1) Epicotyl (2) Hypocotyl
(2) White flower in pea plant
(3) Plumule (4) Radical (3) Red flower in Mirabilis
(4) Wrinkled seed in pea plant
28. Free nuclear division in an angiosperm takes place
during 34. Alleles are
(1) Gamete formation (1) Different molecular forms of a gene
(2) Endosperm formation (2) Heterozygotes
(3) Embryo sac formation (3) Different phenotype
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) True breeding homozygous
29. Type of embryo sac development in most 36. In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel
angiosperm is: did not use
(1) Monosporic (2) Bisporic (1) Seed shape (2) Flower position
(3) Orthotropous (4) Amphitropous (3) Seed colour (4) Pod length
30. Occasionally a single gene may express more than 36. According to Mendel’s principle of segregation,
one effect. This is gametes always receive
(1) Polygenic inheritance (1) One pair factor
(2) Pleiotropy (2) One quarter of the genes
(3) Multiple allelism (3) Both one factor of father and one factor of
(4) Co-dominance mother
(4) Only one factor
31. Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on
garden pea for
(1) 4 years (2) 5 years
(3) 6 years (4) 7 years

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 (ZOOLOGY)
37. Which of the following hormone levels will 43. About which day in a normal human menstrual
cause release of ovum (Ovulation) from the cycle does rapid secretion of LH (popularly
Graffian follicle? called LH surge) normally occurs?
(1) High concentration of Estrogen (1) 14th day (2) 20th day
th
(2) High concentration of Progesterone (3) 5 day (4) 11th day
(3) Low concentration LH
(4) Low concentration of FSH 44. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an
endocrine gland after ovulation?
38. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum (1) Stroma
is to produce (2) Germinal epithelium
(1) Estrogen only (3) Vitelline membrane
(2) Progesterone and estrogen (4) Corpus luteum
(3) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(4) Relaxin only 45. No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of
the menstrual cycle because
39. Match the items given in column I with those in (1) Follicles do not remain in the ovary after
column II and select the correct option given ovulation
below. (2) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase
Column I Column II (3) LH levels are high in the luteal phase
A. Proliferative (i) Breakdown of (4) Both FSH and LH levels are low in the
Phase endometrial lining luteal phase.
B. Secretory phase (ii) Follicular phase
C. Menstruation (iii) Luteal phase 46. In human beings, menopause occurs at the age of
A B C around____.
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (1) 30 years (2) 20 years
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (3) 50 years (4) 16 years
(3) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) 47. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option.
40. Select the incorrect statement. Statement I: Corpus luteum secretes very small
(1) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the amount of progesterone.
follicular phase. Statement II: Progesterone is essential for the
(2) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the maintenance of endometrium.
Leydig cells. (1) Both statements are correct
(3) FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells which help (2) Both statements are incorrect
in spermiogenesis. (3) Only statement II is correct
(4) LH triggers ovulation from ovary. (4) Only statement I is correct

41. After ovulation, Graafian follicle regresses into 48. The reproductive cycle in the female ___ is
(1) Corpus artesia called menstrual cycle.
(2) Corpus callosum (1) Human being
(3) Corpus luteum (2) Apes
(4) Corpus albicans (3) Monkey
(4) All of the above
42. The secretory phase in the human menstrual
cycle is also called
(1) Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
(2) Follicular phase and lasts for about 6 days
(3) Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
(4) Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days.

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