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1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue or Black Ball Point Pen. To
mark answers on the OMR Sheet, use Blue or Black ball point pen only.
2. The Test Booklet consists of 200 questions. There are questions of FOUR subjects in the paper namely
Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology. Questions of each subject are divided into two sections.
Section-A contains 35 Questions of a Subject all of which must be attempted.
Section-B contains 15 Questions of which any 10 can be attempted.
3. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. For each wrong answer, 1 (One) mark
will be deducted. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an
item in the answer sheet. Maximum marks of the paper are 720.
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question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 3 above.
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device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
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conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of the Examination body.

SUBJECT SYLLABUS COVERED

PHYSICS Module Test-I/IV

CHEMISTRY Module Test-I/IV

BOTANY Module Test-I/IV

ZOOLOGY Module Test-I/IV

 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - A PHYSICS 140 MARKS
1. We have four identical balls A, B, C and D. Ball
A attracts ball B and ball C, but repels ball D, Ball
C is attracted by both ball B and ball D. If ball B (1) (2)
is negatively charged then ball C is:
(1) Positively charged
(2) Neutral
(3) Negatively charged
(3) (4)
(4) None of these
2. Which of the following charges cannot exist in
7. An infinite number of electric charges each equal
nature?
(1) 1.6 × 10–18 C (2) 3.2 × 10–19 C to 5 nano – coulomb (magnitude) are placed
(3) 1.6 × 102 C (4) 3.2 × 10–21 C along x -axis at x = 1 cm, x = 2 cm, x = 4 cm,
3. Three-point charges +q, +q and –q are placed at x = 8 cm …. and so on. In the setup if the alternate
the corners of an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’. charges have opposite sign, then the electric field
Another charge +Q is kept at the centroid. Force in Newton/coulomb at x = 0 is:
exerted on Q is: (1) 12 × 104 (2) 24 × 104
1 2qQ (3) 36 × 104 (4) 48 × 104
(1)
4 0 a 2
8. Electric field at centre O of semicircle of radius a
1 6qQ
(2) having linear charge density  is given as:
4 0 a 2
2
(1)
(3)
1 8qQ 0 a +
4 0 a 2

1 12 qQ (2)
(4) 0 a a
4 0 a 2 O

4. The ratio of the forces between two small spheres (3)
2 0 a 
with constant charge (A) in air (B) in a medium

+
of dielectric constant K is: (4)
(1) 1 : K (2) K : 1  0 a
2
(3) 1 : K (4) K2 : 1 9. A point charge 6C having mass 18 gm is
5. An electron is moving round the nucleus of a projecting with speed 40 cm/s perpendicular to a
hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The uniform electric field 300V/m at t = 0s. Its speed
coulomb force F on the electron: ( r is radially at t = 3s is:
outwards unit vector) (1) 50 cm/s (2) 70 cm/s
e2 e2 (3) 100 cm/s (4) 120 cm/s
(1) k rˆ (2) –k rˆ
r2 r2
10. The electric field at a point on equatorial line of a
e2 e2
(3) – k 3 rˆ (4) k 3 rˆ dipole and direction of the dipole moment:
r r
(1) will be parallel
6. Three positive charge of equal charge q are
(2) will be in opposite directions
placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle.
The resulting lines of force should be sketched as (3) will be perpendicular
in: (4) Are not related

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 Vidyamandir Classes
11. Electric field on the axis of a small electric dipole 15. Assertion: Half of the ring is uniformly
at a distance r is E1 and electric field a distance positively charged and other half uniformly
of 2r on perpendicular bisector is E2 . Then: negatively charged. Then, electric field is zero at
– E1 E1 center.
(1) E2 = (2) E2 = –
8 16 Reason: At the centre of uniformly charged ring,
E1 E2 electric field is zero
(3) E2 = – (4) E1 = –
4 16
12. In figure, +Q charge is
located at one of the
edges of the cube as
shown in figure, Then
electric flux through
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
cube due to +Q charge
reason is the correct explanation of assertion
is given as:
+Q +Q
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but the
(1) (2) reason is not the correct explanation of the
0 2 0
+Q +Q
assertion
(3) (4) (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4 0 8 0
13. A point charge +Q is (4) If both assertion and reason are false
positioned at the centre of 16. Following figure shows for Gaussian surface and
the base of square S1, S2, S3 and S4.
pyramid as shown. The Now, match the following columns and mark the
flux through one of the correct code given below.
four identical upper faces
of the pyramid is:
Q Q
(1) (2)
16 0 4 0
Q
(3) (4) None of these
8 0 Column – I Column – II
14. The electric field due to a uniformly charged solid i. S1 p.
+
Q
sphere of radius R as a function of the distance 0
from its centre is represented graphically by: ii. S2 q. 0
iii. S3 r.
–
Q
0
(1) (2)
iv. S4 s.
–
2Q
0
E Codes:
E
(1) i - s, ii - q, iii - r, iv - p
(3) (4) (2) i - q, ii - s, iii - r, iv - p
R r O R r (3) i - q, ii - r, iii - s, iv - p
(4) i - r, ii - s, iii - p, iv – q

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 Vidyamandir Classes
17. Two point charges –q and +q are placed at a
distance of L, as shown in the figure.

The magnitude of electric intensity at a distance

R(R≫L) varies as: (1) 1 Qq (2) 1 Qq
1 1 0 l 0 l 2
(1) 3
(2)
R R4 (3) 1
Qql (4) Zero
1 1 0
(3) 6
(4)
R R2 21. In the electric field of a point charge q, a certain
18. A positive charge (+q) and a negative charge (-q) charge is carried from point A to B, C, D and E
are placed at x = –a and x = +a, respectively. the work done:
Then, the graph of V along the x-axis is:

(1) (2)

(1) is least along the path AB

(3) (4) (2) is least along the path AD
(3) is same (W = 0) along the paths
(4) is least along AE
22. An electric dipole is in instable equilibrium in the
19. Eight charges having the values as shown are
uniform field. The angle between its dipole
arranged symmetrically on a circle of radius
0.4 m in air. Potential at centre will be: moment and the electric field is:
(1) 90° (2) 120°
(3) 0° (4) 180°
23. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and
b (b > a) are placed concentrically in air. B is
given a charge +Q and A is earthed. The
equivalent capacitance of the system is:

(1) 63 × 104 volt (2) 63 × 1010 volt

(3) 63 × 106 volt (4) Zero
20. A charge (-q) and another (+Q) are kept at two
(2) 40 ( a + b )
points A and B respectively, keeping the charge  ab 
(1) 40  
(+Q) fixed at B, the charge (-q) at A is moved to b−a
another point C such that ABC forms an  b2 
(4) 40 
 b − a 
equilateral triangle of side l. The network done in (3) 40
moving the charge (-q) is:  

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 Vidyamandir Classes
24. The variation of potential with distance x from a 27. A parallel plate capacitor of area A, plate
fixed point is shown in figure. The electric field separation d and capacitance C is filled with three
at x = 13 m is: different dielectric materials having constants K1,
K2 and K3 as shown in figure. If a single electric
material is to be used to have same capacitance C
in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant K is

(1) 7.5 volt/meter (2) –7.5 volt/meter

(3) 5 volt/meter (4) –5 volt/meter 1 1 1 1
25. The diagram below show regions of
(1) = + +
K K1 K 2 2 K3
equipotential.
1 1 1
(2) = +
K K1 + K2 2K3

(3) K = K1K2 2K3

K1 + K2
(4) K = K1 + K2 + 2K3
28. In the following circuit, the resultant capacitance
between A and B is 1 µF. Then value of C is:
A positive charge is moved from A to B in each
diagram. Then:
(1) the maximum work is required to move q in
figure (iii)
(2) in all four cases, the work done in the same
(3) the minimum work is required to move q in
the figure (i) 32
(4) the maximum work is required to move q in (1) F (2) 40 µF
11
figure (ii)
32
26. Separation between the plates of a parallel plate (3) 80 µF (4) F
23
capacitor is d and the area of each plate is A.
29. In the figure a potential of +1200 V is given to
When a slab of material of dielectric constant k
point A and point B is earthed, what is the
and thickness t (t < d) is introduced between the
potential at the point P:
plates, its capacitance becomes:
0 A 0 A
(1) (2)
 1  1
d + t 1 −  d + t 1 + 
 k  k
0 A 0 A
(3) (4)
 1  1 (1) 100 V (2) 200 V
d − t 1 −  d − t 1 + 
 k  k (3) 400 V (4) 600 V

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 Vidyamandir Classes
30. If potential of A is 10 V, then potential of B is 33. Two wires A and B of the same material, having
radii in the ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the
ratio 4 : 1. The ratio of drift speeds of electrons in
A and B is:
(1) 16 : 1 (2) 1 : 16
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
25 50 34. Two wires of resistance R1 and R2 have
(1) V (2) V
3 3 temperature coefficient of resistance 1 and 2
100 respectively. These are joined in series. The
(3) V (4) 50 V
3 effective temperature coefficient of combination
31. A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric is:
field E(V/m) in the space between the plates. If 1 +  2
(1) (2) 1 2
the distance between the plate is d(m) and the area 2
of each plate is A(m2), the energy (joule) stored R1R2 1 2
(3) 1R1 + 2 R2 (4)
in the condenser is: R1 + R2 R12 + R22
1
(1) 0 E 2 (2) 0 EAd 35. What will be the equivalent resistance of circuit
2
shown in figure between points A and D is:
1 E 2 Ad
(3) 0 E 2 Ad (4)
2 0
32. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube
is 5 kV and the current through it is 3. 2 mA. Then
the number of electrons striking the target per
second is:
(1) 10 Ω (2) 20 Ω
(1) 2 × 1016 (2) 5 × 1016
(3) 30 Ω (4) 40 Ω
(3) 1 × 1017 (4) 4 × 1015

SECTION – B PHYSICS 40 MARKS

36. If each resistance in the figure is of 9 Ω then R R
(1) (2) 2
reading of ammeter is: n n
(3) nR (4) n 2 R
38. Two resistance R1 and R2 are made of different
materials. The temperature coefficient of the
material of R1 is  and that of the material of R2
is -. The resistance of the series combination of
(1) 5 A (2) 8 A R1 and R2 does not change with temperature, then
the ratio of resistance of the two wires at 0°C will
(3) 2 A (4) 9 A be:
37. The resultant resistance of n wires each of  +
(1) (2)
resistance r ohms is R, when they are connected   −
in parallel. When these n resistance are connected  2 + 2 
(3) (4)
in series, the resultant resistance will be?  

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 Vidyamandir Classes
39. To get maximum current in a resistance of 3  (1) 1  (2) 2 
one can use n rows of m cells connected in (3) 3  (4) 4 
parallel. If the total number of cells is 24 and the
44. The figure shows a network of currents. The
internal resistance of a cell is 0.5  then:
(1) m = 12, n = 2 (2) m = 8, n = 4 magnitude of current is shown here. The current i
(3) m = 6, n = 4 (4) m = 2, n = 12 will be:
40. In the adjoining circuit, the battery E1 has as emf
of 12 volt and zero internal resistance, while the
battery E has an emf of 2 volts. If the
galvanometer reads zero, then the value of
resistance X ohm is:

(1) 3 A (2) 13 A
(3) 23 A (4) – 3 A
45. Thirteen resistance each of resistance R Ω are

(1) 10 (2) 100 connected in the circuit as shown in the figure.

(3) 500 (4) 200 The effective resistance between A and B is:
41. Two cells X and Y are connected to a resistance
of 10 Ω as shown in the figure. The terminal
voltage of cell Y is:

4R
(1) Zero (2) 2 V (1)  (2) 2 R
(3) 4 V (4) 10 V 3
42. In the following circuit if VA – VB = 4 V, then the 2R
value of resistance X in the ohms will be: (3) R (4) 
3
46. In a typical Wheatstone bridge the resistance in
cyclic order are A = 10 Ω, B = 5 Ω, C = 4 Ω and
D = 4 Ω. For the bridge to be balanced:
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 15 (4) 20
43. In the network shown in the figure each of
resistance equal to 2 . The resistance between A
and B is:
(1) 10 Ω should be connected in parallel with A
(2) 10 Ω should be connected in series with A
(3) 5 Ω should be connected in parallel with A
(4) 5 Ω should be connected in series with A

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 Vidyamandir Classes
47. An electric bulb is designed to draw a power P0 at
voltage V0. If the voltage is V, it draws a power
P, then:
V 
(1) P =   P0
 V0 
(2) P =  V0  P0
V 
2 (1) 0.25  (2) 0.8 
V  (3) 0.2  (4) 0.16 
(3) P =  0  P0
V  50. Assertion : Drift speed vd is the average speed
2
V  between two successive collisions.
(4) P =   P0
 V0  Reason: If l is the average distance moved
48. 25 W, 200 V and 100 W, 200 V bulbs are between two collision and t is the corresponding
connected in series to source of 400 volts. Which l
time, then vd = lim .
bulb will fuse? t →0 t
(1) 25 W (1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
(2) 100 W is a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Both will fuse at the same time (2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
(4) None of the bulbs will fuse is not a correct explanation for assertion
49. In the metre bridge, the balancing length (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
AB = 20 cm. The unknown resistance X is equal (4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
to:

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 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - A CHEMISTRY 140 MARKS
51. In aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dihydrate 57. For an ideal solution containing a nonvolatile
is made up to 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH solute, which of the following expression is
required to completely neutralize of 10 ml this correctly represented?
solution is (1) − Tf = Kfm with Kf = M1RTf*2/fusHm
(1) 40 ml (2) 20 ml (2) − Tf = Kfm with Kf = RTf*2/M1fusHm
(3) 10 ml (4) 4 ml (3) − Tf = Kfm with Kf = M1Tf*2/RfusHm
52. The density of a 10.0% by mass KCl solution in (4) − Tf = Kfm with Kf = fusHm/ M1RTf*2
water is 1.06 g cm–3. Its molarity is 58. Isotonic solutions are the solutions having the
(1) 2.489 M (2) 1.420 M same osmotic pressure. A 10%(w/v) urea solution
(3) 1.420 mol kg -1
(4) 1.489 mol kg-1 is isotonic with a 20%(w/v) solution of a non –
53. The partial pressure of ethane over a saturated volatile solute, at the same temperature. Calculate
solution containing 0.0656 g of ethane is 1 bar. If the molecular weight of the solute.
the solution 0.0500 g of ethane, then what should (1) 30 (2) 60
be the partial pressure of the gas? (3) 90 (4) 120
0.0656 59. Which of the following solution will show
(1) 1 (2) 0.05
minimum osmotic effect?
0.05
(3) 0.0656
(4) 7.62 (1) 0.1 KCl solution (2) 0.1 Glucose solution
54. The vapor pressure of an ideal solution made by (3) 0.1 CaCl2 solution (4) 0.1 Na3PO4 solution
mixing the liquids A and B can be expressed as 60. FeCl3 solution (solid X) on reaction with
P[/bar] = 0.45 – 0.21x, where x is the mole K2[Fe(CN)6] (side Y) in aqueous solution gives
fraction of A in the solution. Determine the vapor blue colour. These are separated by a
pressures of pure liquids A and B, at this semipermeable membrane as shown. Due to
temperature, respectively osmosis there is
(1) 0.45 torr, 0.24 torr
(2) 0.45 torr, 0.45 torr
(3) 0.24 torr, 0.24 torr
(4) 0.24 torr, 0.45 torr
(1) blue colour formation in side X
55. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at 88ºC is
(2) blue colour formation in side Y
960 mm and that of toluene at the same
(3) blue colour formation in both side X and Y
temperature is 380 mm of benzene. At what mole
(4) no blue colour formation
– fraction of benzene, the mixture will boil at
61. In KI solution, if mercuric iodide is added, the
88ºC?
osmotic pressure of resultant solution will
(1) 0.345 (2) 0.655
(1) increase
(3) 0.435 (4) 0.565
(2) decrease
56. An aqueous solution of a weak monobasic acid
(3) remains unchanged
containing 0.1 g in 21.7 g of water freezes at (4) cannot be predicted
272.817K. If the value of K f for water is 1.86 K 62. The Vant Hoff factor i for a dilute solution of
kg mol−1 , the molecular mass of the acid is K 3 [Fe(CN)6 ]is [Complete dissociation]
(1) 146.0 (2) 248.6 (1) 10 (2) 4
(3) 148.8 (4) 46.8 (3) 5 (4) 0.25

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 Vidyamandir Classes
63. Which of the following will have highest freezing 70. The standard electrode potentials of the two half
point calls are given below
(1) 0.1 M KCl (2) 0.1 M BaCl2
Ni 2+ + 2e− ⇌ Ni ; E
0
= −0.25 volt ;
(3) 0.1 M FeCl3 (4) 0.1M Fe2(SO4)3
64. The expression relating molarity (M) and Zn2+ + 2e− ⇌ Zn ; E 0 = −0.77 volt
molality (m) of a solution is
(M1 = Molar mass of solvent, M2 = Molar mass of solute) The voltage of cell formed by combining the two
M M half - cells would be
(1) m =  + MM2
(2) m =  − M M2
 + MM2  − MM1
(1) – 1.02 V (2) + 0.52 V
(3) m = (4) m = (3) + 1.02 V (4) – 0.52 V
M M2
65. How much is the charge required to decompose 71. In Cu - Zn cell
36 g of water? (1) Reduction occurs at the copper cathode
(1) 4 F (2) 3 F (2) Oxidation occurs at the copper cathode
(3) 2 F (4) 1 F
(3) Reduction occurs at the anode
66. The cell constant of a given cell is 0.47 cm −1 . The
resistance of a solution placed in this cell is (4) Chemical energy is converted to light energy
measured to be 31.6 Ohm. The conductivity of the 72. The cell reaction of a cell is:
−1 Mg (s) + Cu2+ (aq.) ⇌ Cu(s) + Mg2+(aq.)
solution (in S cm where S has usual meaning) is
If the standard reduction potential of Mg and Cu
(1) 0.15 (2) 1.5
are -2.37 and +0.34 V respectively. The emf. of
(3) 0.015 (4) 150
67. If X is the specific resistance of the solution and the cell is:
M is the molarity of the solution, the molar (1) 2.03 V (2) -2.03 V
conductivity of the solution is given by (3) +2.71 V (4) -2.71 V
1000 X 1000 73. Which of the following statements about the
(1) (2)
M MX spontaneous reaction occurring in a Galvanic cell
1000 M MX is always true
(3) (4)
X 1000 (1) Ecell
0
 0, G 0  0, and Q  K eq
68. The equivalent conductivity of 0.1 M weak acid
(2) Ecell
0
 0, G 0  0, and Q  K eq
is 100 times less than that at infinite dilution. The
degree of dissociation is (3) Ecell
0
 0, G 0  0, and Q  K eq
(1) 100 (2) 10
(3) 0.01 (4) 0.001 (4) Ecell  0, G  0, and Q  Keq
69. Given Limiting ionic conductance of H+ ion: 74. What will be the e.m.f. of the given cell?
H+ = 350 S cm equi and SO4 ion: SO2−
2 -1 2− 
4
= 80 Pt / H2(P1) | H+(aq) | H2(P2) / Pt
2 -1
S cm equi Thus, for H2SO4, limiting values of 𝑅𝑇 𝑃 𝑅𝑇 𝑃
(1) 𝑙𝑛 𝑃2 (2) 𝑙𝑛 𝑃1
molar conductance and equivalent conductance 𝐹 1 2𝐹 2
are 𝑅𝑇 𝑃2
(3) 2𝐹
𝑙𝑛 𝑃1
(4) None of these
Molar Equivalent
conductance conductance 75. The molar conductivities of KCl, NaCl and KNO3
are 152, 128 and 111 S cm2 mol-1 respectively.
(S cm2 mol-1) (S cm2 equi-1)
What is the molar conductivity of NaNO3?
(1) 430 430
(1) 101 S cm2 mol-1
(2) 860 430
(2) 87 S cm2 mol-1
(3) 215 430 (3) -101 S cm2 mol-1
(4) 430 860 (4) -391 S cm2 mol-1

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76. Column I lists Cations and Column II have (2) Specific conductance increases while
limiting molar conductivity of ions in S cm2 mol–1. equivalent conductance decreases on
Match the cation & their respective limiting increasing dilution.
molar conductivity (3) The maximum value of equivalent
Column-I Column-II conductance for weak electrolyte cannot be
(A) H +
(i) 350 determined by extrapolation of curve in
(B) Na+ (ii) 50 between ∧eq and concentration.
(C) Li+ (iii) 39 (4) The conductivity of metal is due to mobility
(D) Cs +
(iv) 77 of electrons
0 0 0
(1) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D –(i) 81. If EFe2+/Fe is x1 EFe 3+ /Fe is x2 then EFe3+ /Fe2+

(2) A – (i), B – (iv), C – (ii), D –(iv) will be

(3) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D –(iv) (1) 3x2 – 2x1 (2) x2 – x1
(4) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (ii), D –(iv) (3) x2 + x1 (4) 2x1 + 3x2
77. Which of the following is not concentration cells? 82. For the reaction 2A + 3B → 4C the rate of
(1) Pt|H2 (g)|HCl|H2 (g)|Pt reaction may be represented as
d[A] d[B] d[C]
P1 P2 (1) r = −2 = −3 = 4 dt
2+ dt dt
(2) Cd, (Hg)| Cd |(Hg),Cd d[A] d[B] d[C]
a1 (c) a2 (2) r = −6 = −4 =3
dt dt dt
1 d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C]
(3) Zn(s)| Zn2+ ||Cu2+|Cu (3) r = − = =
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt
c1 c2 1 d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C]
(4) Ag|AgCl|Cl (aq)|| Br2− (aq)|AgBr|Ag
− (4) r = − 2 dt = − 3 dt = 4 dt
c1 c2 83. The order of a reaction is
78. Among the following, the reaction/s that can be (1) never zero
classified as oxidation-reduction is/are (2) never fraction
7 (aq) + 2OH (aq) → 2CrO4 + H2 O(1)
−
I. Cr2 O2− 2− (3) always equal to the total stoichiometric
II. SiCl4(1) + 2Mg(s) → 2MgCl2(1) + Si(s) number of reactants
III. 6Cl2(1) + 12KOH(1) → 2KClO3 (s) + 10 KCl + 6H2O (1) (4) is an experimentally determined quantity
IV. 2H2O2 → 2H2O (1) + O2 (g) 84. For the reaction A + B → products, what will be
(1) I and IV (2) I, II and III the order of reaction with respect to A and B?
Exp. [𝐀](mol L-1) [𝐁](mol L-1) Initial rate
(3) II, III and IV (4) IV only
(mol L-1s-1)
79. The conductivity of a metal decreases with
1. 2.5  10-4 3  10-5 5  10-4
increase in temperature because –
2. 2.5  10-4 6  10-5 10  10-4
(1) The kinetic energy of the electrons increases
3. 1  10-3 6  10-5 8  10-3
(2) The movement of electrons becomes
(1) 1 with respect to A and 2 with respect to B
haphazard
(2) 2 with respect to A and 1 with respect to B
(3) The ions start vibrating
(3) 1 with respect to A and 1 with respect to B
(4) The metal becomes hot and starts emitting
(4) 2 with respect to A and 2 with respect to B
radiation
85. For a first-order reaction A → B, the ratio of times
80. Which of the following statement is wrong?
to complete 99.9% and half of the reaction is
(1) Specific conductance is the conductance of
(1) 8 (2) 9
1 cm3 electrolyte solution
(3) 10 (4) 12

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 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION – B CHEMISTRY 40 MARKS
86. A first order reaction is 20% complete in 10 min. 92. For an exothermic chemical process occuring in
The rate constant of the reaction A → B, is two steps as
(1) 0.223 min-1 (2) 0.0223 min-1 (i) A + B → X (slow) ;
(3) 2.23 min-1 (4) 22.3 min-1 (ii) X → AB (fast)
87. What will be the order of reaction and rate
The progress of the reaction can be best described
constant for a chemical change having
by
log t 50% vs log concentration of (A) curves as :

log t 50%
(1)
45°
log a
(1) 0, 1/2 (2) 1, 1
(3) 2, 2 (4) 3, 1
88. The plot of log k versus 1/T of a reaction is linear
with a (2)
(1) positive slope and zero intercept
(2) positive slope and nonzero intercept
(3) negative slope and zero intercept
(4) negative slope and nonzero intercept
89. The rate constant, the activation energy and the
Arrhenius parameters of a chemical reaction at (3)
25°C are 2.0  10-5 s-1, 100 kJ mol-1 and 6 × 1014s–1,
respectively. The value of rate constant at very
high temperature approaches (4) All are correct
(1) 2.0  10-5 s-1 (2) infinity 93. The half life period of a radioactive element is
(3) 6.0  10 s14 -1
(4) 12  10-9 s-1 140 day. After 560 day, 1 g of the element is
90. The rate of reaction becomes 2 times for every reduced by
10°C rise in temperature. How the rate of reaction 1 1
(1) g (2) g
will increases when temperature is increased 6 8
7 15
from 30°C to 80°C (3) g (4) g
8 16
(1) 16 (2) 32 94. A hydrogenation reaction is carried out at 500 K.
(3) 64 (4) 128
If the same reaction is carried out in the presence
91. A catalyst is a substance which
of a catalyst at the same rate, the temperature
(1) increases the equilibrium constant of the
required is 400 K. Calculate the activation energy
reaction
of the reaction if the catalyst lowers the activation
(2) increases the equilibrium concentrations of
the products energy by 20 kJ/mol.
(3) does not alter the reaction mechanism (1) 50 KJ mol−1 (2) 100 KJ mol−1
(4) changes the activation energy of the reaction (3) 150 KJ mol−1 (4) 200 KJ mol−1

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95. Assertion: Precipitation of silver chloride occurs 98. Given below are two statements:
instantaneously by mixing of aqueous solutions of Statement I: A dry cell becomes dead after a
silver nitrate and sodium chloride. long time even if it has not been used.
Reason: Ionic reactions occur very fast. Statement II: The NH4CI slowly and gradually
(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and the corrodes the zinc container in dry cell.
reason is the correct explanation for the In the light of the above statements, choose the
assertion. correct answer from the option given below
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but the (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
reason is not the correct explanation for the (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
assertion. incorrect
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Both Assertion and reason are false. correct
96. Assertion: For a complex reaction, order is given (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
by the slowest step of the reaction. incorrect
Reason: Molecularity of the slowest step is same 99. Assertion : Elevation in boiling point is a
as the order of the overall reaction. colligative property.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and the Reason : Elevation in boiling point is directly
reason is the correct explanation for the proportional to molality.
assertion. (1) Both assertion and reason are true, and the
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is the correct explanation for the
reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion.
assertion. (2) Both assertion and reason are true, but the
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. reason is not the correct explanation for the
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true. assertion.
97. Assertion: A solution of Ni(NO3)2 is electrolysed (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
between platinum electrodes using current of 5 A (4) Assertion is false but reason is true
for 20 minute. The weight of Ni deposited is 100. Assertion : Electrolytic cell uses electrical
1.825 g. (At. wt. of Ni = 58.69) energy to carry non-spontaneous chemical
Reason: The mass of substance deposited during reactions.
the electrolysis of an electrolyte is inversely Reason : Chemical energy of a spontaneous
proportional to the quantity of electricity passed redox reaction can be converted into electrical
through the electrolyte. energy.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and the (1) Both assertion and reason are true, and the
reason is the correct explanation for the reason is the correct explanation for the
assertion. assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but the (2) Both assertion and reason are true, but the
reason is not the correct explanation for the reason is not the correct explanation for the
assertion. assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true. (4) Assertion is false but reason is true

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SECTION – A BOTANY 140 MARKS
101. Select the correct statement w.r.t. seeds of (c) Nourishes developing egg
angiosperms. (d) Helps in dehiscence of anther due to its
(1) It can be the product of sexual reproduction hygroscopic nature
or apomixis (e) Is polyploid
(2) Phoenix dactylifera seed remains viable for The correct one(s) is/are
few hours only (1) (a), (d) & (e) (2) (a), (b) & (e)
(3) Mature seeds always have endosperms (3) All except (b) (4) Only (a)
(4) Endosperm gives protection to the seeds 107. Cryopreservation is the
102. After culturing the anther of a plant, few diploid (a) Storage of pollen grains in dry ice.
plants were found along with haploid plants. The (b) Fossilization of pollen grains.
diploid plants could have developed from (c) Storage of pollen grains in liquid N2 for
(1) Generative cell of pollen various artificial plant breeding programmes.
(2) Cells of anther wall (1) Only (a) is correct
(3) Vegetative cell of pollen (2) (b) & (c) are correct
(4) Exine of pollen wall
(3) (a) & (c) are correct
103. During embryogeny in dicot plants, the zygote
first divides into two unequal cells in which (4) Only (c) is correct
(1) Larger suspensor cell lies towards micropyle 108. In angiosperms, for the formation of 12 three-
(2) Smaller suspensor cell lies towards celled male gametophytes from microspore
micropyle mother cells, how many meiotic and mitotic
(3) Larger embryonal cell lies towards antipodal divisions are required respectively?
region (1) 3 and 24 (2) 5 and 12
(4) Larger suspensor cells lies towards antipodal
(3) 3 and 1 (4) 5 and 20
region
104. Match the following columns and select the 109. The most common type of ovule found in
correct option. flowering plants is
Column-I Column-II (1) Orthotropous (2) Amphitropus
(a) Bombax (i) Entomophily (3) Anatropous (4) Hemianatropous
(b) Calotropis (ii) Ornithophily 110. In angiosperms, the megaspore mother cell is
(c) Santalum (iii) Hypohydrophily generally differentiated from
(1) Haploid cell of hilum
(d) Zostera (iv) Ophiophily
(2) Diploid cell of nucellus
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (3) Diploid cell of stigma
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) Haploid cell of nucellus
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 111. Select the incorrect match.
105. Select the odd one w.r.t. post-fertilization (1) Cotton - Free nuclear endosperm development
changes. (2) Barley - Albuminous seed
(1) Ovule → Seed (3) Rice - Cellulosic endosperm
(2) Integument → Seed coat
(4) Areca nut - Stony endosperm
(3) Megaspore → Embryo sac
(4) Zygote → Embryo 112. Both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented
106. Middle layer of anther wall by an outbreeding device in
(a) Degenerates at maturity (1) Maize (2) Coconut
(b) Has water resistant fibrous bands (3) Papaya (4) Castor

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113. In an angiospermic ovule, central cell of the 120. Seeds of black pepper and beet
embryo sac, prior to the entry of pollen tube, (1) Lack seed coat
contains (2) Have persistent nucellus
(1) A single haploid nucleus (3) Lack embryo
(2) One diploid and one haploid nuclei (4) Are not covered within fruit wall
(3) Two haploid polar nuclei 121. In the seeds of some grasses, there are remains of
(4) One diploid secondary nuclei second cotyledon. It is called
114. Nature of endosperm in castor seeds is (1) Coleorhiza (2) Epiblast
(1) Starchy (2) Oily
(3) Coleoptile (4) Radicle
(3) Cellulosic (4) Hemicellulosic
122. Male gametes in angiosperms are released from
115. Which of the following statements about
pollen grains
sporopollenin is false?
(1) By breaking the outer walls
(1) Produced by tapetum and it constitutes exine
layer (2) After dissolving the outer walls
(2) It is one of the resistant organic materials (3) By making pores in the cell wall
(3) Exine has apertures called germpores where (4) Into pollen tube through germ pore
sporopollenin is present 123. How many of the following characteristics of
(4) It can withstand high temperatures and flowers favour pollination by insects?
strong acids Bright colour, Presence of nectaries, Non-sticky
116. Find odd one w.r.t. exalbuminous seeds. pollen grains, Foul-odour, Large flowers
(1) Groundnut (2) Pea (1) Three (2) Two
(3) Bean (4) Wheat (3) Four (4) Five
117. The hilum is a scar on the 124. The pea plants heterozygous for round seed shape
(1) Fruit where it was attached to pedicle
and yellow seed colour were selfed and total 800
(2) Fruit where style was present
seeds are collected. What is the total number of
(3) Seed where micropyle was present
seeds with both recessive traits?
(4) Seed where funicle was attached
(1) 200 (2) 50
118. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Mango – Sporophytic budding (3) 100 (4) 400
(2) Cashewnut – False fruit 125. A disorder due to trisomy of an autosome is
(3) Banana – Parthenocarpic fruit (1) Colourblindness (2) Sickle cell anaemia
(4) Strawberry – True fruit (3) Down’s syndrome (4) Turner’s syndrome
119. Identify the following as true(T) or false(F) and 126. Point mutation is a change in
select the option accordingly. (1) A single base pair of DNA
A. Apple fruits develop without the process of (2) Entire sequence of base pairs in a mRNA
fertilization. (3) Three base pairs of DNA due to deletion
B. The wall of ovary forms the wall of seed (4) Two base pairs of DNA due to addition
C. False fruits do not have seeds. 127. Individuals inflicted with Klinefelter’s syndrome
A B C (1) Have 44 + XO type of chromosome
(1) F T T complement
(2) F F F (2) Show male type pubic hair pattern
(3) F F T (3) Have short stature
(4) T T F (4) Are sterile males with Gynaecomastia

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128. There are seven phenotypes of skin colour in 132. A single gene showing multiple phenotypic
man. Which phenotype is more frequent than effects is called
others? (1) Pleiotropy
(1) Fairly dark (2) Light (2) Multiple allelism
(3) Mulatto (4) Dark (3) Epistasis
129. How many linkage groups are present in human (4) Codominance
male? 133. Starch synthesis in pea seeds shows
(1) 22 (2) 23 (1) Complete dominance
(3) 24 (4) 46 (2) Co-dominance
130. All the given traits of pea plant can express (3) Incomplete dominance
themselves in heterozygous condition, except (4) Multiple allelism
(1) Inflated pod shape 134. The first child of a couple has AB blood group.
(2) Green pod colour Which of the following types of parental cross is
(3) Axial flower position not possible for it?
(4) Green seed colour (1) IA IA × IB IB (2) IA IO × IB IB
A O O O
131. If a cross between violet flowered pea plant and (3) I I × I I (4) IA IO × IB IO
white flowered pea plant produces 50% offspring 135. Which of the following is sex influenced trait?
with dominant character and 50% offspring with (1) Milk glands in females
recessive characters, the genotypes of parents are (2) Short index finger in males
(1) Aa × aa (2) Aa × Aa (3) Antlers in male deer
(3) AA × aa (4) AA × Aa (4) Brilliant plumage in pea-cock
SECTION – B BOTANY 40 MARKS
136. In which of the following organism the female (2) They have undergone continuous self
will determine the sex of the progeny? pollination
(1) Grasshopper (2) Drosophila (3) Only green pod colour is expressed in this
(3) Birds (4) Dioscorea breeding lines
137. If mother has blood group AB and father is (4) Cross pollinated pea plants do not form true
heterozygous for blood group A, then which of breeding lines
the following blood group is not possible in their 140. The distance between genes for eye colour and
children? wings in Drosophila is
(1) A (2) B (1) 1.3% (2) 62.8%
(3) AB (4) O
(3) 37.2% (4) 98.7%
138. The result of the F2 generations of four dihybrid
141. Which of the following cross(es) shall give
test crosses are given below. Which demonstrates
phenotypic ratio 1 : 1 : 1 : 1?
the principle of independent assortment?
(1) A tall (Tt) pea plant crossed with dwarf (tt)
Parental Recombinants
plant
(1) 50% 50%
(2) A tall pea plant with round seed shape (TtRr)
(2) 60% 40%
(3) 80% 20% crossed with dwarf plant with wrinkled seed
(4) 75% 25% shape (ttrr)
139. Choose the incorrect statement for true breeding (3) A wheat plant (AaBb) crossed with another
lines in pea. wheat plant (aabb) for kernel colour
(1) They show stable trait inheritance (4) Both (2) and (3)

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 Vidyamandir Classes
142. Select the correct statement w.r.t pollen grain 147. Pollen tablets are used
(1) Exine is rich in pectocellulose (1) In artificial breeding
(2) Viability of pollen grains of wheat and rice (2) In ‘in vitro’ fertilization
is of many years (3) For cryopreservation
(3) Pollen kit is present in pollen grains of (4) As food supplements
entomophilous plants
148. How many true breeding pea plant varieties were
(4) Vegetative cell floats in the cytoplasm of
selected by Mendel?
generative cell.
(1) 7
143. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross for seed shape and
(2) 4
seed colour the F2 progeny produced with
genotype RrYy : rrYy : Rryy : rryy are respectively (3) 14
(1) 4 : 2 : 2 : 1 (2) 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 (4) 21
(3) 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 149. When a single gene product produce more than
144. Mark the odd one out w.r.t. autosomal recessive one effect, the phenomenon is known as
disorders. (1) Incomplete dominance
(1) Hemophilia (2) Pleiotropy
(2) Cystic fibrosis (3) Multiple allelism
(3) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Colorblindness (4) Euploidy
145. Which of the following is not a characteristic 150. Both male and female individuals have same
feature of water pollinated flowers? number of chromosomes in which sex
(1) Mucilaginous covering on pollen grains determination is
(2) Long, sticky unwettable stigma (a) XY type
(3) Presence of nectaries and fragrance (b) XO type
(4) Light and unwettable pollen grains (c) ZW type
146. Double fertilization involves
(d) ZO type
(1) One male gamete, two female gametes and
The correct ones are
two polar nuclei
(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Two male gametes, two female gametes and
(2) Only (a) and (c)
one polar nuclei
(3) One male gamete and two polar nuclei only (3) Only (a) and (d)
(4) Two male gametes, two polar nuclei and one (4) All, except (d)
female gamete

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SECTION – A ZOOLOGY 140 MARKS
151. Select the correct match w.r.t. homologous Column-I Column-II
organ. (a) Human heart is (i) During 5th
(1) Labia majora : Homologous to scrotum formed month
(2) Labia minora : Homologous to Prostate gland (b) Developed of (ii) After one
limbs and digits month of
(3) Clitoris: Homologous to urethra.
pregnancy
(4) Bartholin gland: Homologous to Seminal vesicle
(c) First movement (iii) By the end of
152. Which of the following hormones are secreted by
of foetus in 2nd month of
placenta? observed pregnancy
(A) hCG (B) hpL (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
(C) Estrogen (D) progesterone (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(1) A only (2) A and B 157. Assertion: During lactation period, menstrual
(3) A, B and C (4) A, B, C and D cycle doesn’t occur usually upto 12 months.
153. Which of the following structures are involved in Reason: Inhibitory effect of prolactin on GnRH
eventually leads to decline in the release of FSH
formation birth canal in females?
and LH, hence prevent parturition.
(1) Uterus
(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is
(2) Cervical canal
the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Vagina (2) Assertion and reason are true but reason is
(4) Both (2) & (3) not the correct explanation of assertion
154. Select the incorrect match. (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(1) Semen: Rich in fructose, calcium and certain (4) Both assertion and reason are false
enzymes. 158. Which of following is a incorrect match between
(2) Antrum: Present in secondary follicle. the type contraception and its function?
(1) OCP - Inhibit ovulation
(3) Blastocyst: Get attached to endometrium
(2) LNG 20 - Prevent implantation
during implantation.
(3) Rhythm - Avoid chances of ovum
(4) Blastocyst: Derived from morula within method and sperm meeting
uterine cavity. (4) Terminal - Prevent gametogenesis
155. Which of the following embryonic stage is 159. All of the given veneral diseases can be treated by
transferred into uterus in the intra uterine transfer the use of antibacterial drugs except.
(IUT) to complete its further development? (1) Gonorrhea (2) Syphilis
(1) Zygote (3) Chancroid (4) Genital warts
160. Which of the following gland lies at the base of
(2) Upto 8 blastomere
the urinary bladder and surrounds the first part of
(3) More than 8 blastomere
the urethra?
(4) Transient 3 celled stage (1) Prostate gland
156. Match the following column A and B w.r.t. (2) Seminal vesicle
embryonic development and select the correct (3) Bulbourethral gland
option. (4) Cowper’s gland

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161. The MTP act, 2017 was enacted by the (1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii)
government of India with the intension of all of (2) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii)
the following except. (3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i)
(1) Reducing the incidence of illegal abortion (4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i)
(2) Reducing maternal mortality 167. Select the odd one w.r.t paired structure.
(3) Reducing maternal morbidity
(1) Bulbourethral gland
(4) Reducing maternal natality
(2) Seminal vesicle
162. Read the following statement and select the
correct option. (3) Prostate
Statement I: RU486 is an anti-progesterone (4) Vas deferens
drug. 168. Complete the analogy.
Statement II: If the pregnancy has lasted more FSH : Nurse cell :: LH : _________
than 12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks, than for (1) Mammary duct (2) Leydig cell
MTP, the opinion of 2 registered medical (3) Sustancular cell (4) Placenta.
practitioner is required for MTP. 169. Identify A, B, C and D in given below figure
(1) Only statement I is incorrect
(2) Only statement I is correct
(3) Only statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and II are correct
163. In vasectomy, a small part of _______ is cut or
tied up through a small incision on the scrotum.
Select the option to fill the blank
correctly.
(1) Epididymis (2) Vasa efferentia
(3) Vas deferens (4) Ejaculatory duct
A B C D
164. Select the correct match between hormone,
(1) Primary Tertiary Graafian Corpus
source and its target.
follicle follicle follicle luteum
Hormone Source Target
with
(1) Gonadotropin Hypothalamus Ovary
antrum
(2) Progesterone Corpus luteum Uterus
(2) Secondary Tertiary Graafian Corpus
(3) Oxytocin Pituitary gland Fallopian
follicle follicle follicle albicans
tube
with
(4) Relaxin Ovary Placenta
antrum
165. Which of the following contraceptive devices is
(3) Secondary Tertiary Graafian Corpus
inserted by doctor or nurse in the uterus through follicle follicle follicle luteum
the vagina? with
(1) Femshield (2) Nirodh antrum
(3) Cu-T (4) Diaphragm
(4) Primary Secondary Graafian Corpus
166. Match the column-I with column-II and select the
follicle follicle follicle luteum
correct option.
170. In human female, Meiosis II is completed in:
Year Population
(1) Ovary
(a) 1900 (i) India population : 1.2
(2) Uterus
(b) 2011 (ii) World population : 2 billion
(3) Oviduct
(c) 2000 (iii) World population : 6 billion (4) Cervix

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171. During a coitus, the volume of semen in an 177. Read the following statements and select the
ejaculate is ___(A)___ with a sperm count of correct option.
___(B)___. Select the option to fill the blank Statement A: In amniocentesis, amniotic fluid is
correctly. taken to analyze foetal cells for detection of
(A) (B) genetic disorders.
(1) 200 ml 60000 sperm Statement B: Amniocentesis is carried out so
(2) 7.5 ml 1 lakh sperm that MMR can be increased.
(3) 2.5 – 5 ml 200 – 300 million sperm (1) Only statement A is correct.
(4) 60 ml 72 million sperm (2) Only statement B is correct.
172. Which of the following is incorrect for the given (3) Both Statements A and B are correct.
figure? (4) Both Statements A and B are incorrect.
178. Which of the following barrier method has
additional advantage of protecting the user from
STDs and Hepatitis B?
(1) Nirodh (2) Vaults
(3) Diaphragm (4) Jelly
(1) It is a barrier method of contraception 179. How many seminiferous tubules are in each
(2) Available for both male and female testicular lobule?
(3) This is disposable and self inserted (1) 2-5 (2) 1-6
(4) It prevents physical meeting of the sperms (3) 1-3 (4) 5-7
and ova 180. Read the following statements carefully:
173. Sterilisation process in the male is called (a) Diaphragms are barrier contraceptive
________. Select the option which fill the blank method which is used to cover the vagina.
correctly. (b) According to 2011 census report, the
(1) Orchidectomy (2) Tubectomy population growth rate was more than 2% in
(3) Castration (4) Vasectomy India.
174. Luteal phase extends from ______ of menstrual (c) Test tube baby programme involve
cycle in a normal human female at the age of technique with in-vitro fertilization like
18 years. Select the option which fill the blank
ZIFT and IUT.
correctly.
(d) Person of 15 – 24 years of age group have
(1) 11th to 20th day (2) 5th to 14th day
high risk of STI.
(3) 8th to 17th day (4) 15th to 28th day
How many of the above statement are true?
175. In a healthy women, the duration of periodic
(1) One (2) Two
abstinence lies between _______ of menstrual
(3) Three (4) Four
cycle. Select the option which fill the blank
181. The secretion of Cowper’s gland help in
correctly.
lubrication of _____ . Select the option to fill the
(1) 1st – 7th days (2) 10th – 17th days
blanks correctly.
(3) 7th – 15th days (4) 3rd – 21st days
(1) Epididymis (2) Cervix
176. The nutritive cell found in seminiferous tubule of
(3) Uterus (4) Penis
testis are:
182. In which of the following contraceptive method
(1) Meiocytes
side effects are almost nil?
(2) Sertoli cell
(1) Pills (2) IUD
(3) Interstitial cell
(3) Diaphragm (4) Coitus interruptus
(4) Secondary spermatocytes

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183. Select the incorrect match. (1) Nebenkern (2) Distal centriole
(1) ZIFT : Zygote intra fallopian transfer (3) Axial filament (4) Acrosome
(2) IUI : Interuterine insemination 185. All of the following events occur in female’s
(3) AI : Artificial insemination reproductive accessory duct except:
(4) IVF : In-vitro fertilization (1) Capacitation (2) Fertilization
184. Spiral mitochondria present in middle piece of (3) Implantation (4) Ovulation
human sperm is:
SECTION – B ZOOLOGY 40 MARKS
186. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus (1) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
occurs. the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) After entry of sperm nucleus but before (2) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
completion of fertilization. not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) After completion of fertilization (3) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(3) Before entry of sperm (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Due to attachment of sperm membrane with 190. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. STI and its
ovum. causative agent
187. Mark the incorrect statement. STI Causative agent
(1) Implants implanted subdermally for (1) Hepatitis B Hepatitis B Virus
providing short term contraception (2) AIDS HIV
(3) Trichomoniasis Haemophilus
(2) An injectable can inhibit ovulation and make
(4) Genital herpes Herpes simplex virus
uterus unsuitable for implantation
191. Which of the following reproductive tract
(3) Saheli, non steroidal preparation, develop at
infection are not curable?
CDRI
(1) Hepatitis B, Genital herpes, Syphilis
(4) Copper T, has ionised copper which slowly
(2) Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Genital warts
diffuses at the rate of some (3) HIV, Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis
50 g/day (4) Genital Herpes, Hepatities B, HIV infection
188. Match the Column I and Column II and select the 192. Identify statements as true (T) and false (F).
correct match w.r.t. sperm part and its function. (a) Family planning programme was initiated in
Column-I Column-II India in 1961 and were periodically assessed
(A) Head (i) Hyaluronidase over the past decades.
(B) Middle piece (ii) Energy (b) A rapid decline in MMR, IMR, death rate as
(C) Acrosome (iii) First cleavage well as decrease in number of people in
division reproducible age are responsible for increase
(D) Proximal (iv) Genetic in the population growth.
centriole material (c) Nearly 45 to 50 million MTP are performed
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) in a year all over the world which accounts
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) to 1/6th of the total number of conceiving
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) pregnancies in a year.
(a) (b) (c)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) T T T
189. Assertion: Abortion can be induced by
(2) T F F
mifepristone drug.
(3) F T F
Reason: Mifepristone is progesterone antagonist.
(4) F F F

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193. Inability to conceive or produce children even 198. Assertion: The main function of corpus luteum is
after two years of unprotected sexual cohabitation to produce progesterone.
is called _______. Select the option which fill the Reason: hCT stimulates the secretion of
blank correctly. progesterone from corpus luteum of pregnancy as
(1) STI (2) Genital warts well as placenta.
(3) Sterility (4) Infertility (1) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
194. Read the following statements: the correct explanation of Assertion.
Statement A: Statutory decrease of marriageable (2) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
age of the males to 18 years can help to check not the correct explanation of Assertion.
population growth rate. (3) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
Statement B: An alarming decline in population (4) Assertion and Reason are false
growth rate could lead to an absolute scarcity of 199. Identify A, B, C and D in given below diagram
basic requirements i.e. food, shelter etc.
Choose the option which describes the above
statements correctly.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statement A and B are incorrect
(4) Both statement A and B are correct
195. During cleavage, there is increase in all the
following except:
(1) Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio
(2) DNA content
(3) Mass of cytoplasm
(4) Number of blastomere A B C D
196. Match the column-I with column-II and select the (1) Chorionic Embryo Yolk sac Umbilical
correct option villi cord
Column-I Column-II (2) Chorionic Amniotic Embryo Placenta
(a) Non-medicated (i) LNG-20 villi sac
IUD (3) Placental Yolk sac Embryo Umbilical
(b) Hormone (ii) Multiload villi cord
releasing IUD 375 (4) Placental Amniotic Embryo Umbilical
villi sac cord
(c) Copper (iii) Lippes loop
200. Which of following option is correct w.r.t.
releasing IUD
spermiation?
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i)
(1) Transformation of spermatids to sperm
(2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii)
(2) Transformation of secondary spermatocytes
(3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i)
to spermatid
(4) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii)
(3) Release of sperm from lumen of
197. Menstrual cycle doesn’t occur in:
seminiferous tubules.
(1) Human (2) Ape
(4) Maturation of sperm in female reproductive
(3) Monkey (4) Dog
tract.
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   End of VMC MEDICAL MODUEL TEST-1| NEET-2025   

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