Electrostatics

ELECTROSTATICS
1. A parallel plate condenser is filled with two dielectrics as shown. Area of each
plate is meter and the separation is t metre. The dielectric constants are k1
and k2 respectively. Its capacitance in farad will be
K1 K2
0 A 2 0 A  0 A k1  k2  0 A k1  k2
(1)  k1  k2  (2)  k1  k2  (3) (4)
t t t 2 t 2
2. What is electric flux associated with one of faces of the cube, when a charge
(q) is enclosed in a cube?
6q 3q q q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
0 0 3 0 6 0
3. The point charges Q and -2Q are placed at some distance apart. If the
electric field at the location of Q is E, the electric field at the location of -2q
will be
3E E
(1)  (2)  (3) -E (4) -2E
2 2
4. An electron having charge ‘e’ and mass ‘m’ is moving in a uniform electric
field E. Its acceleration will be
e2 E 2e eE mE
(1) (2) (3) (4)
m m m e
5. A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm i8s charged with 10  C. Another
uncharged sphere of radius 20 cm is allowed to touch it for some time. After
that if the spheres are separated, then surface density of charges, on that
spheres will be on the ratio of
(1) 1:4 (2)1:3 (3) 2:1 (4) 1:1
6. In the given figure the capacitors of C1, C3, C4, C5 have a capacitance 4  F
each if the capacitor C2 has a capacitance 10  F, then effective capaci9tance
between A and B will be
(Figure)
(1) 2  F (2) 4  F (3) 6  F (4)8  F
7. An electric dipole placed in a non-uniform electric field experiences.
(1) only a force but no torque (2) only a torque but no net force
(3) both a torque and a net force (4) nor torque and no net force
8. A proton is about 1840 times heavier than an electron. When it is accelerated
by a potential difference of 1 kV, its kinetic energy will be
(1) 1840 keV (2) 1/1840 keV (3) 1 keV (4) 920 keV
9. Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’
as shown in the following figure. The force experienced by the charge placed
at the vertex A in a direction normal to BC is
A
+O
O +O
B a C
2 2
Q Q Q2
(1) (2)  (3) Zero (4)
(4 0 a 2 ) (4 0 a 2 ) (2 0 a 2 )
10. Shown below is a distribution of charges. The flux of electric field due to
these charges through the surface y is
(Figure)
3q 2q q
(1) (2) (3) (4) Zero
0 0 0
11. A 40  F capacitor in a defibrillator is charged to 3000V. The energy stored
in the capacitor is sent through the patient during a pulse of duration 2 ms.
The power delivered to the patient is
(1) 45 kW (2) 180 kW (3) 90kW (4) 360 kW
12. Equipotential surfaces associated with an electric field which is increasing in
magnitude along the x-direction are
(1) planes parallel to xy-plane
(2) planes parallel to yz-plane
(3) planes parallel to xz-plane
(4) coaxial cylinders of increasing radii around the x-axis
13. The electric field due to uniformly charged sphere of radius R as a function of
the distance from its centre is represented graphically by
(Figure)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
14. A 40  F capacitor in a defibrillator is charged to 3000V. The energy stored in
the capacitor is sent through the patient during a pulse of duration 2 ms. The
power delivered to the patient is
(1) 45kW (2) 90 kW (3) 180 kW (4) 360 kW
15. Four point +ve charges of same magnitude (Q) are placed at four corners of
a rigid square frame as shown in figure. The plane of the frame is
perpendicular to Z-axis. If a –ve point charge is placed at a distance z away
from the above frame (z<<L) then
Q Q
Z-axis
Q Q
(1) –ve charge oscillates along the Z-axis (2) it moves away from the frame
(3) it moves slowly towards the frame and stays in the plane of the frame
(4) it passes through the frame only once
16. Two infinitely long parallel conducting plates having surface charge densities
+  and -  respectively, are separated by a small distance. The medium
between the plates is vacuum. If  0 is the dielectric permittivity of vacuum,
then the electric field in the region between the plates

(1) 0 volts/meter (2) volts/meter
2 0
 2
(3) volts/meter (4) volts/meter
0 0
17. Two concentric conducing thin spherical shells A and B having radii rA and rB
(rB>rA) are charged to QA and QB  QB  QA  . The electrical field along a line
(passing through the centre) is
(Figure)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
18. Two parallel large thin metal sheets have equal surface charge densities ( 
=26.410-12 C/m2) of opposite signs. The electric field between these sheets
is
(1) 3 N/C (2) 1.510-10N/C (3)1.5 N/C (4) 310-10 N/C
19. Five capacitors, each of capacitance Value C are connected as shown in the
figure. The ratio of capacitance between F and R and the capacitance
between P and Q is
(Figure)
(1) 3:1 (2) 5:2 (3) 1:1 (4) 2:3
20. The spatial distribution of the electric field due to charges (A.B) is shown in
figure. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(Figure)
(1) A is –ve and B +ve; A  B (2) Both are +ve but A>B
(3) Both are –ve but A>B (4) A is +ve and B –ve and A  B
21.Three point charges +q,-2q and +q are placed at points
(x=0,y=a,z=o),(x=0,y=0,z=0) and (x=a,y=0,z=0), respectively. The
magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this charge
assembly are
(1) 2 qa along +y direction (2)qa along the line joining
points(x=0,y=0,z=0)(x=a,y=a,z=0) (3) 2 qa along the
line joining points(x=0,y=0.z=0)and (x=a,y=a.z=o) (4) 2 qa
along +x direction
22.A hollow cylinder has a charge qC within it. if  is the electric flux in unit of
voltmeter associated with the curved surface b, the flux linked with the plane
surface a in unit of voltmeter will be
C A
q q  1 q 
(1)  (2) (3) (4)  
0 2 0 3 2  2 0 
23.A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a battery and is
charged to a potential differences v. Another capacitor of capacitance 2C is
connected to another battery and is charged to potential differences 2V. The
charging batteries are now disconnected and the capacitors are connected to
the negative terminal of the other. The final energy of the configuration is.
2 2 2
25CV
(3) V (4) V
3C 9C
(1) Zero (2)
6 2 2
24.Four equal charges Q are placed at the four corners of a square of each side
is ‘a’. Work done in removing a charge –Q from its center to infinity is.
2 2 2
2Q 2Q Q
(1) 0 (2) (3) (4)
4 0 a  0 a 2 0 a
25.The plates of parallel plate capacitor are charged up to 100 v. A2 mm thick
plate is inserted between the plates . Then to maintain the same potential
differences, the distances between plates is increased by 1.6mm.The
dielectric constant of the plate is.
(1) 5 (2)1.25 (3)4 (4)2.5
26.Two points charged +8q and -2q are located at x=0 and x=L respectively.
The location of a point on the x-axis at which the net electric field due to
these two point charges is zero is
(1) 8L (2)4L (3)2L (4)L/4
27.A sphere of radius R has a uniform distribution of electric charge in its
volume. At a distance x from its center , for x<R, the electric field is directly
proportional to
1 1 2
(1) 2
(2) (3) x (4) x
x x
2
28.Three plates A,B,C each of area 50 cm have separation 3mm between A and
B and 3mm between B and C. The energy stored when the plates are fully
charged is
A
B
C 12V
9 9 9 9
(1) 1.6  10 J (2) 2.1 10 J (3) 5  10 J (4) 7  10 J
29.A positively charged particle moving along x-axis with a certain velocity
enters a uniform electric field directed along positive y-axis Then
(1) vertical velocity changes but horizontal velocity remains constant
(2)horizontal velocity changes but vertical velocity remains constant
(3)both vertical and horizontal velocities change
(4)neither vertical nor horizontal velocity changes
30.To form a composite 16  F ,1000 V capacitor from a supply of identical
capacitors marked 8  F ,250 V, we require a minimum number of capacitors
(1) 40 (2)32 (3)8 (4)2
31.Two point charges +q and –q are held fixed at (-d,0)and (d,0) respectively
of a (x,y) coordinates system. Then.
(1) Eat all points on the y-axis is along i
(2)the electric field E at all points on the x-axis has the same direction
(3)dipole moment is 2qd directed along i
(4)work has to be done in bringing a test charge from infinity to the origin
32.Three plates of common surface area A are connected as shown . the
effective capacitance will be
d
A B
d
0 A 3 0 A 3 0 A 2 0 A
(1) (2) (3) (4)
d d 2 d d
33.Three capacitors 2,3 and 6  F are joined in series with each other. What is
the minimum effective capacitance
1
(1) F (2)1  F (3)2  F (4)3  F
2
34.An electron falls through a small distance in a uniform electric field of
1
magnitude 2 
4
10 NC . The direction of the field is reversed keeping the
magnitude unchanged and a proton falls through the same distance. The time
of fall will be
(1) same in both cases (2)more in the case of an electron
(3)more in the case of proton (4)independent of charge
35.Two point charges –q and + q/2 are situated at the origin and at the point
(a,0,0) respectively. The point along the x-axis where the electric field
vanishes is.
a 2a
(1) x  (2) x  2a (3) x 
2 2 1
2a
(4) x 
2 1
36.In an adjoining figure are shown three capacitors c ,c1 2
and c 3
joining to a
battery . The correct condition will be (symbols have their usual meanings)
C2
V2 Q2
C1
V1 Q1
V3 Q3
C3
+ -
V
(1) Q  Q  Q andV  V  V  V
1 2 3 1 2 3
(2) Q  Q  Q andV  V V V 1 2 3
1 2 3
(3) Q  Q  Q andV  V V 1 2
(4) Q  Q andV  V 2 3
1 2 3 2 3
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

These questions consist of two statements each stated as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one
of the following options.
(a)If both the assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b)If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not correct
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d)If both the assertion and reason are false.
(e)If the assertion is false but reason is true.
37.Assertion: A metallic shield in form of a hollow shell may be built nto block an
electric field.
Reason: In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every
point
38.Assertion: If three capacitors of capacitance c  c c 1 2 3
are connected in
parallel then their equivalent capacitance c  c p s
1 1 1 1
Reason:   
c p c c c
1 2 3
39.Assertion: Electric lines of force never cross each other.
Reason: Electric field at a point superimpose to give one resultant electric

field.
40.Assertion: The coulomb force is the dominating force in the universe.
Reason: The coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational force.
41.Assertion: Electrons move away from a low potential to high potential region.
Reason: Because electrons have negative charges

42.Assertion: A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a
key. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is introduced between the
plates. The energy which is stored becomes K times
Reason: The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or

unchanged.
43.Assertion: If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and

dielectric constant is made three times, then the capacitor becomes 6 times.
Reason: Capacity of the capacitor does not depend upon the nature of the
material.
44. Assertion: A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a

key. A dielectric slab of constant k is introduced between the plates. The energy
which is stored becomes k times.
Reason: The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or

unchanged.
45. Assertion: Electric lines of force cross each other.
Reason: Electric field at a point superimpose to give one resultant electric

field.
46. Assertion: Work done in moving a charge between any two points in a
uniform electric field is independent of the path followed by the charge, between
these points.
Reason: Electrostatics forces are non conservative.
47. Assertion: If a proton and an electron are placed in the same uniform
electric field . They experience different acceleration.
Reason: Electric force on a test charge is independent of its mass.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. The internal resistance of a cell is the resistance of.

(a)Electrodes of the cell
(b)Vessel of the cell
(c) Electrolyte used in the cell
(d)Material used in the cell.
0
2. The temperature of the cold junction of a thermocouple is 0 C and the
0
temperature of the hot junction is 7 C. The relation for the thermo e.m.f is
1
given by, E  AT 
2
BT (When A= 16 AND B=0.08).The temperature of
2
inversion will be
0
(a) 500 C
0
(b) 400 C
0
(c) 600 C
0
(d) 460 C
3. The cell has an e.m.f of 2v and the internal resistance of this cell is 0.1 ,
It is connected to resistance of 3.9 , the voltage across the cell will be
(a) 1.5 V
(b) 2 V
(C) 1.95 V
(d) 1.8 V
4. An electric bulb, marked 40 W and 200 V, is used in a circuit of supply
voltage 100 V. Now
Its power is.
(a) 100 W
(b) 40 W
(c) 20 W
(d) 10 W
5. A moving coil galvanometer is converted into an ammeter reads up to
0.03 A by connecting a shunt of resistance 4r across it and ammeter reads up
to 0.06 A, When a shunt of resistance r is used. What is the maximum
current which can be sent through this galvanometer if no shunt is used?
(a) 0.03 A
(b) 0.04 A
(c) 0.02 A
(d) 0.01 A
6. A wire of length L is drawn such that its diameter is reduced to half of its
original diameter. If the initial resistance of the wire were 10  , its new
Resistance would be
(a) 40 
(b) 80 
(c) 160 
(d) 120 
7. Eels are able to generate current with biological cells called
electroplaques. The electroplaques in an eel are arranged in 100 rows, each
row stretching horizontal along the body of the fish containing 5000
electroplaques. The arrangement is suggestively shown below. each
electroplaques has an e.m.f 0.15 V and internal resistance of 0.25  .
The water surrounding the eel completes a circuit between the head and
its tail. If the water surrounding it has a resistance of 500  , the current
an eel can produce in water is about
(a) 1.5 A
(b) 3.0 A
(c) 15 A
(d) 30 A
8. The temperature (T) dependence of resistivity (p) of a semiconductor is represented by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9. For ensuring dissipation of same energy in all three resistors R R R 
1, 2, 3
Connected as shown in figure, their values must be related as

(a) 1
 2 3
R R R
(b) R  R and R  4R
2 3 1 2
1
(c) R  R and R
2 3 1

4 R2
(d) R  R  R
1 2 3
10. A heater coil is cut into two parts of equal length and one of them is used in the heater.
The ratio of the heat produced by this half coil top that by the original coil is.
(a)2:1
(b)1:2
(c)1:4
(d)4:1
11. The voltage of clouds is 4 
6
10 V with respect to ground. In a lighting strike lasting 100 ms,
a charge of 4 C is delivered to the ground. The power of lighting strike is:
(a) 20 MW
(b) 80 MW
(c) 160 MW
(d) 500 MW
12. If resistance of the filament increases with temperature, what will be power dissipated in a
220 V-100 W lamp when connected to 110 V power supply
(a)25 W
(b)<25 W
(c)>25 W
(d) None of these
13. The equivalent resistanc3e between the points P and Q in the network given here is equal to
3
( ( givenr  ) )
2
1
(a) 
2
(b) 1 
3
(c) 
2
(d) 2 
14. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an external resistance R. The internal resistance
of two sources are 1and 2( 2  1) . If the potential differences across the source having
R R R R
internal resistance R , is zero then 2
 (R  R )
(a) R  R 2 1 2
(R  R ) 2 1
(b) R  RR 1 2
(R  R ) 1 2
(c) R  R R 1 2
(R  R ) 2 1
(d) R  R  R 2 1
15. In the figure shown, the capacity of the condenser C is 2  F . The current in 2  resistor is
(a) 9A
(b)0.9 A
1
(c) A
9
1
(d) A
0.9
16. When the key K is presented at t=0, which of the following statements about the current I
in the resistor AB of the given circuit is true?
(a) I =2 mA at all t
(b) I oscillates between 1 mA and 2 mA
(c) At t=0, I =2 mA and with time it goes to 1 mA
(d) I =1 mA at all t.
17. A resistance of 4  and a wire of length 5 meters and resistance 5  are joined in series and
connected to a cell of e.m.f 10 V and internal resistance 1  . A parallel combination of two
identical cells is balanced across 300 cm of the wire. The e.m.f E of each cell is
(a)1.5 V
(b) 3.0V
(c)0.67V
(d)1.33V
18. In the circuit shown P  R , the reading of the galvanometer is same with switch S open or
closed. Then
(a) R  G
I I
(b) I  I p G
(c) I  I Q G
(d) I  I Q R
19. The equivalent resistance of the following infinite network of resistance is

(a)Less than 4 
(b) 4 
(c) more than 4  but less than 12 
(d)12 
20. Two identical electric lamps marked 500 W, 220 V are connected in series and then joined to
a 110 V line. The power consumed by each lamp is.
125
(a) W
4
25
(b) W
4
225
(c) W
4
(d)125 W
21. In the circuit shown, a meter bridge is in its balanced state. The meter bridge wire has a
resistance 0.1 ohm/cm. The value of unknown resistance X and the current drawn from the
battery of negligible resistance is.
(a)6  , 5 amp
(b)10  ,0.1amp
(c)4  ,1.0 amp
(d)12  , 0.5 amp
22. What is the current (i) in the circuit as shown in the figure?
(a)2 A
(b)1.2 A
(c)1A
(d) 0.5A
23. When a resistor of 11  is connected in series with an electric cell, the current flowing in it
is 0.5 A Instead, when a resistor of 5  is connected to the same electric cell in series, the
current increases by 0.4 A. The internal resistance of the cell is.
(a) 1.5 
(b) 2 
(c) 2.5 
(d) 3.5
24. Internal resistance is negligible. The resistance of the voltmeter is 80 ohm. The reading of the
voltmeter will be
(a)0.80 volt
(b) 1.60 volt
(c)1.33 volt
(d)2.00 volt.
25. A battery of internal resistance 4  is connected to the network of resistance as shown. In
order to give the maximum power to the network , the value of R (in  ) should be.
(a)4/9
(b)8/9
(c)2
(d)18
26. The graph which represents the relation between the total resistance R of a multi range
moving coil voltmeter and its full scale deflection V is
(a)(i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
27.The three resistances A, B and C have values 3R,6R and R respectively. When some potential
differences is applied across the network , the thermal powers dissipated by A, Band C are in the
ratio
(a) 2:3:4
(b) 2:4:3
(c)4:2:3
(d) 3:2:4
28. Consider the circuits shown in the figure both the circuits are taking same current from
battery but current through R in the second circuit. If R is 11  the value of 1 R
(a) 9.9 
(b) 11 
(c) 8.8 
(d) 7.7 
29. A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal divisions. Its current sensitivity is 10 divisions per
milliampere and voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions per millivolt. In order that each division reads 1
volt, the resistance in ohms needed to be connected in series with the coil will be
(a)99995
(b)9995
3
(c)10
5
(d) 10
These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four response:
(a) If both the assertion and reason are true and reason is a true explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason is false.
30. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the point of lowest potential is positive terminal of the
battery.
Reason: The current flows towards the points of the higher potential as it flows in such a circuit
From the negative to the positive terminal.
31. Assertion: The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature.
Reason: The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with larger amplitude at higher temperatures
thereby increasing its resistivity.
32. Assertion: The possibility of an electric bulb fusing is higher at the time of switching ON
and OFF.
Reason: Inductive effects produce a surge at the time of switch ON and OFF.
33. Assertion: A larger dry cell has higher emf.
Reason: The emf of a dry cell is proportional to its size.
34: Assertion: A laser beam 0.2 W power can drill holes through a metal sheet, whereas 1000 W
Torch-light cannot.
Reason: The frequency of laser lioght is much higher than that of torch light.
35. Assertion: Electric appliances with metallic body;e.g. heaters,presses etc, have three pin
connections, where as an electric bulb has a two pin connections.
Reasons: Three pin connections reduce heating of connecting cables.
36. Assertion: An electric bulb comes dim, when an electric heater in parallel circuit is switched
on.
Reason: Dimness decreases after sometime.
37. Assertion: In the following circuit e.m.f is 2 V and internal resistance of the voltmeter is 1 V.
Reason: V=E-ir where E=2 V, i=2/2=1A and R=1  .
38. Assertion: The electric bulbs glows immediately when switch is on .
Reason: The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire is very high.
39. Assertion: The e.m.f of the driver cell in the potentiometer should be greater than the e.m.f
of the cell to be determined.
Reason: The fall of potential across the potentiometer wire should not be less than the e.m.f of
the cell to be determined.
40. Assertion: In meter bridge experiment, a high resistance is always connected in series with a
galvanometer.
Reason: As resistance increases current through the circuit increases.
41. Assertion: The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire will decrease, if the temperature
of the wire is increased.
Reason: On increasing temperature, conductivity of metallic wire decreases.
GRAVITATION.
1. The escape velocity from the earth is 11.2 km/s.The escape velocity from
a planet having twice the radius and the same mean density as twice the
radius and the same mean density as the earth is
(a) 11.2km/s
(b) 15.00km/s
(c) 22.4km/s
(d) 5.8km/s
2. The radius of earth is about 6400 km and that of mars is about 3200 km.
The mass of the earth is about 10 times the mass of mars. An object
weights 200N on the earth’s surface, then its weight on the surface of
mars will be
(a)8 N
(b)80 N
(c)40 N
(d) 20 N
3. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of radius R around the earth,
While a second satellite is launched into an orbit of radius 1.01 R. The
period of the second satellite is longer than the first one by approximately
(a) 1.0%
(b) 3.0%
(c) 1.5%
(d) 0.7
4. The velocity with which a projectile must be fired so that it escapes

earth’s gravitation does not depend on
(a) mass of the earth
(b) radius of the projectile’s orbit
(c) mass of the projectile
(d) Gravitational constant.
5. The differences in the lengths of a mean solar day and a sidereal day is
about
(a)4 min
(b)1 min
(c)15 min
(d)56 min
6. The condition for a uniform spherical mass m of radius r to be a black hole

is[G=gravitational constant and g=acceleration due to gravity]
2𝐺𝑚 1/2
(a)( 𝑟
) ≤ 𝑐
2𝐺𝑚 1/2
(b) ( 𝑟
) ≥ 𝑐
2𝐺𝑚 1/2
(c) ( 𝑟
) = 𝑐
𝑔𝑚 1/2
(d) ( 𝑟
) ≥ 𝑐
7. The motion of planets in the solar system is an example of the

conservation of
(a) mass
(b) linear momentum
(c) energy
(d) angular momentum
8. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are initially at rest at infinite distance

apart. They are then allowed to move towards each other under mutual
gravitational attraction. Their relative velocity of approach at a separation
distance r between them is
(𝑚1− 𝑚2 ) 1/2
(a)[2𝐺 𝑟
]
𝑟
(b) [2𝐺(𝑚 ]1/2
1 𝑚2 )
2𝐺
(c) [ 𝑅 (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )]1/2
2𝐺
(d) [ 𝑟 (𝑚1 𝑚2 )]1/2
9. Acceleration due to gravity on moon is 1/6 of the acceleration due to

gravity on earth. If the ratio of densities of earth (𝜌𝑒 ) and moon(𝜌𝑚 )
𝜌𝑒 5
is( )= then the radius of moon 𝑅𝑚 in terms of 𝑅𝑒 will be
𝜌𝑚 3
5
(a) 18 𝑅𝑒
1
(b) 𝑅𝑒
6
3
(c) 𝑅𝑒
18
1
(d) 2√3 𝑅𝑒
10.The gravitational potential energy of a body of mass ‘m’ at the earth’s

surface −𝑚𝑔𝑅𝑒 .Its gravitational potential energy will be (here
𝑅𝑒 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑡ℎ)
(a) −2𝑚𝑔𝑅𝑒
(b) 2𝑚𝑔𝑅𝑒
1
(c)2 𝑚𝑔𝑅𝑒
1
(d)− 2
𝑚𝑔𝑅𝑒
11.The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit just above the
earth’s surface is 𝑣.For a satellite orbiting at an altitude of half of the
earth’s radius, the orbital velocity is
3
(a) 2 𝑣
3
(b)√2 𝑣
2
(c) √3 𝑣
2
(d) 𝑣
3
12.Given radius of earth 𝑅 and length of a day 𝑇 the height of a geostationary

satellite is [𝐺 − 𝐺𝑟𝑎𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡, 𝑀 − 𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑡ℎ]
4𝜋2 𝐺𝑀 1/3
(a)( )
𝑇2
4𝜋2 𝐺𝑀 1/3
(b) ( 𝑅2
) -𝑅
𝐺𝑀𝑇 2 1/3
(c) ( ) -R
𝜋2
𝐺𝑀𝑇 2 1/3
(d) ( 𝜋2
) +R

In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given
followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the
statements mark the correct answer as:
(a)If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct
(b)If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct
(c)If assertion is true but reason is false
(d)If both assertion and reason are false
13.Assertion: The length of the day is slowly increasing.
Reason: The dominant effect causing a slowdown in the rotation of the
earth is the gravitational pull of other planets in the solar system.
(a)1 (b)2 (c) 4 (d)3
14.Assertion: The value of acceleration due to gravity does not depend upon
mass of the body on which force is applied.
Reason: Acceleration due to gravity is a constant quantity.
15.Assertion: Two different planets have same escape velocity.
Reason: Value of escape velocity is a universal constant

ELASTICITY
1. If x longitudinal strain is produced in a wire of Young’s modulus Y, then
energy stored in the material of the wire per unit volume is
(a)𝑋𝑌 2
(b)2 𝑋𝑌 2
1
(c)2 𝑌 2 𝑋
1
(d) 2 𝑌𝑋 2
2. According to hook’s law of elasticity, if stress is increased, the ratio of
Stress to strain
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) becomes zero
(d) remains constant
3. The breaking stress of a wire depends upon
(a) length of the wire
(b) radius of the wire
(c) material of the wire
(d) shape of the cross section
4. The bulk modulus of a metal is 1010 N/m2 and poissons’s ratio 0.20. If
average distance between the molecules is 3 A then the inter atomic force
constant is
(a)30 N/m
(b)75 N/m
(c)7.5 N/m
(d)5.4 N/m
5. The value of poisson’s ratio lies between

1
(a)-1 to
2
3 1
(b)− 4
𝑡𝑜 − 2
1
(c) − 2 𝑡𝑜 1
(d)1 to 2
6. For a constant hydraulic stress on an object, the fractional change in the
object’s volume () and its bulk modulus (B) are related as

∆𝑉
(a) 𝑉 ∝ 𝐵
∆𝑉
(b) 𝑉
∝ 𝐵−2
∆𝑉
(c) 𝑉
∝ 𝐵2
∆𝑉 1
(d) ∝
𝑉 𝐵
7. The mass and length of a wire are M and L respectively. The density of the
material of the wire is d. On applying the force F on the wire, the increase
in length is l, then the young’s modulus of the material of the wire will be
𝐹𝑑𝑙
(a) 𝑀𝑙
𝐹𝐿
(b) 𝑀𝑑𝑙
𝐹𝑀𝑙
(c) 𝑑𝑙
𝐹𝑑𝐿2
(d) 𝑀𝑙
8. The adjacent graph shows the extension() of a wire of length 1 m
Suspended from the top of a root at one end with a load W connected to
the other end. If the cross section area to the wire is 10-6 m2, calculate
the Young’s modulus of the material of the wire.
(a) 3x10-12 N/m2
(b) 2x10-11 N/m2
(c) 2x1011 N/m2
(d) 2x10-13 N/m2
9. If a spring extends by x on loading, then the energy stored by the spring

is (if T is tension in the spring and K is spring constant )
𝑇2
(a) 2𝑋
𝑇2
(b)
2𝐾
2𝑋
(c) ) 𝑇 2
2𝑇 2
(d) ) 𝐾
10.When load of 5 kg is hung on a wire then extension of 3 m takes place ,
then work done will be
(a) 75 joule
(b) 60 joule
(c) 50 joule
(d) 100 joule
11. The diagram shows stress v/s strain curve for the materials A and B. from
The curves we infer that
(a)A is brittle but B is ductile
(b)A is ductile and B is brittle
(c)Both A and B are ductile
(d) Both A and B are brittle
12. A wire of length L and radius r is rigidly fixed at one end. On stretching
the other end of the wire with a force F, the increase in its length is l. If
another wire of same material but of length 2L and radius 2r is stretched
with a force of 2F, the increase in its length will be
(a)l
(b)2l
(c)l/2
(d)l/4

These questions consist two statement each, printed as Assertion and
Reason while answering these questions you are required to choose any
One of the following four responses:
(a)If both the assertion and reason are true and reason is a true
Explanation of the assertion.
(b)If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the
Correct explanation of assertion.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
13. Assertion: Steel is more elastic than rubber.
Reason: Under given deforming force, steel is deformed less than rubber
14. Assertion: Railway tracks are laid on small sized wooden sleepers.
Reason: Small sized wooden sleepers are used so that rails exert more
pressure on the railway track. Due to which rail does not leave the track.
15. Assertion: Bulk modulus of elasticity (K) represents incompressibility of
the material.
Reason: Bulk modulus of elasticity is proportional to change in pressure.
MOTION IN ONE DIMENSION
1. A body A starts from rest with an acceleration 𝑎1. After 2 seconds, another
body B starts from rest with an acceleration 𝑎2. If they travel equal distances
in the 5th second, after the start of A, Then the ratio 𝑎1 : 𝑎2 is equal to
(a)5:9
(b)5:7
(c)9:5
(d)9:7
2. The velocity of a bullet is reduced from 200 m/s to 100 m/s while traveling
through a wooden block of thickness 10 cm. The retardation, assuming it to
be uniform, will be
(a)10 × 104 𝑚/𝑠 2

(b)12× 104 𝑚/𝑠 2
(c)13.5× 104 𝑚/𝑠 2
(d)15× 104 𝑚/𝑠 2
3. A particle starts from rest, acceleration at 2 𝑚/𝑠 2 for 10 𝑠 and then goes for
constant speed for 30 𝑠 and then decorates at 4 𝑚/𝑠 2 till it stops. What is the
distance travelled by it.
(a) 750 m
(b) 800 m
(c) 700 m
(d) 850 m
4. Three different objects of masses 𝑚1, 𝑚2, and 𝑚3, are allowed to fall from rest
and from the same point ′𝑂′ along three different frictionless paths.
The speeds of the three objects, on reaching the ground, will be in the ratio of
(a)𝑚1 : 𝑚2 : 𝑚3
(b) 𝑚1 : 2𝑚2 : 3𝑚3
(c) 1: 1: 1
1 1 1
(d)
𝑚1 𝑚2 𝑚3
5. An object is moving with a uniform acceleration which is parallel to its
instantaneous direction of motion. The displacement (𝑠)-velocity(𝑣) graph of
this object
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the following plots represents the
Speed time graph of the ball during its height if the air resistance is not
ignored
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
7. Which of the following velocity- time graphs shows a realistic situation for a
body in motion
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8.When a ball is thrown up vertically with velocity 𝑉𝑜, it reaches a maximum

height of ′ℎ′. If one wishes to triple the maximum height then the ball should be
thrown with velocity
(a)√3𝑉𝑂
(b) 3𝑉𝑂
(c) 9𝑉𝑂
3
(d)2 𝑉𝑂
9.Two spheres of same size, one of mass 2 kg and another of mass 4 kg, are
dropped simultaneously from the top of Qutab Minar (height=72 m). When they
are 1 m above the ground, the two spheres have the same
(a)momentum
(b)Kinetic energy
(c)potential energy
(d)acceleration
10. Two cars are moving in the same direction with the same speed 30 km/hr.
They are separated by a distance of 5 km, the speed of a car moving in the
opposite direction if it meets these two cars at an interval of 4 minutes, will be
(a)40 km/hr
(b)45km/hr
(c)30 km/hr
(d)15 km/hr
11. Acceleration time graph of a shown. The corresponding velocity time graph
of the same body is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12. A body starts from rest with uniform acceleration. If its velocity after
𝑛 seconds is 𝑣, then its displacement in the last two seconds is
2𝑣(𝑛+1)
(a) 𝑛
𝑣(𝑛+1)
(b) 𝑛
𝑣(𝑛−1)
(c) ) 𝑛
2𝑣(𝑛−1)
(d) 𝑛
13. The variation of velocity of a particle with time moving along a straight line
is illustrated in the following figure. The distance travelled by the particle in four
seconds
(a) 60 m
(b) 55 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 30 m
14.A body is projected vertically up with a velocity and after some time it
returns to the point from which it was projected. The average velocity and
average speed of the body for the total time of flight are
⃗
𝑣 𝑣
(a)2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2
𝑣
(b)0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2
(c)0 and 0
⃗
𝑣
(d) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 0
2
These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any
time of the following four responses:
(a)If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the
(c)If the assertion is true but reason is false
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false

15. Assertion: Retardation is directly opposite top the velocity.
Reason: Retardation is equal to the time rate of decrease of speed
16. Assertion: A body having non-zero acceleration can have a constant velocity.
Reason: Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.
17. Assertion: Two balls of different masses are thrown vertically upward with
same speed. They will pass through their point of projection in the downward
direction with the same speed.
Reason: The maximum height and downward velocity attained at the point
of projection
18. Assertion: An object can have constant speed but variable velocity
Reason: Speed is a scalar but velocity is a vector quantity
19. Assertion: The slope of displacement time graph of a body moving with high
velocity is steeper than the slope of displacement time graph of a body with
low velocity
Reason: Slope of displacement time graph=Velocity of the body.
MOTION IN TWO DIMENSIONS
1. A stone tied to the end of string of 80 cm long is whirled in a horizontal

circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 25 revolution in 14 s.
Then magnitude of acceleration of the same will be
(a)650 cm/s2
(b)680 cm/s2
(c)750 cm/s2
(d)990 cm/s2
2. Two projects are projected with the same velocity. If one is projected at
an angle of 300 and the other at 600 to the horizontal. The ratio of maximum
heights reached, is
(a) 2:1
(b) 1:3
(c) 3:1
(d) 1:4
3. At the uppermost point of a projectile its velocity and acceleration are at
an angle of
(a) 1800
(b) 900
(c) 600
(d) 450
4. If the vectors 𝑝=𝑎𝑖̂+𝑎𝑗̂+3𝑘̂ and 𝑄

⃗ =𝑎𝑖̂-2𝑗̂-𝑘̂ are perpendicular to each other
then the positive value of a is
(a) zero
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 2
5. A particle is projected with a velocity v such that its range on the

horizontal plane is twice the greatest height attained by it. The range of the
projectile is (where g is acceleration due to gravity)
4𝑣 2
(a) 5𝑔
4𝑔
(b)
5𝑣 2
𝑣2
(c)
𝑔
4𝑣 2
(d) √5𝑔
6. The length of second’s hand in a watch is 1 cm. The change in velocity of

its tip in 15 seconds
(a)zero
𝜋
(b)30 𝑐𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐
√2
𝜋
(c) 30 𝑐𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐
𝜋√2
(d) 30
𝑐𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐
7. A car travels 6 km towards north at an angle of 450 to the east and then
travels distance of 4 km towards north at an angle 1350 to east. How far is
the point from the starting point? What angle does the straight line joining its
initial and final position makes with the east?
(a)√50 𝐾𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 tan−1 (5)
(b) 10 𝐾𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 tan−1 (√5)

(c)√52 𝐾𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 tan−1 5
(d)√52 𝐾𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 tan−1 √5
8. A stone projected with a velocity 𝑢 at an angle with the horizontal reaches

𝜋
maximum height 𝐻1 . When it is projected with velocity 𝑢 at an angle( 2 −
𝜃)with the horizontal, it reaches maximum height 𝐻2 . The relation between the
horizontal range R of the projectile, 𝐻1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐻2. is
(a)𝑅 = 4√𝐻1 𝐻2
(b)𝑅 = 4(𝐻1 − 𝐻2 )
(c)𝑅 = 4(𝐻1 + 𝐻2 )
𝐻2
(d)𝑅 = 𝐻12
2
9. A man sitting in a bus travelling in a direction from west to east with a

speed of 49 Km/h observes that the rain-drops are falling vertically down. To
the another man standing on ground the rain will appear
(a)To fall vertically down
(b)To fall at an angle going from west to east
(c)To fall at an angle going from east to west
(d)The information given is insufficient to decide the direction of rain
10.For a given velocity, a projectile has the same range R for two angles of
projection of t1 and t2 are the times of flight in the two cases then
1 1
(a) t1t2  R 2 (b) t1t2= R (c) t1t2  (d) t1t2 
R R2
Assertion and Reason Type Questions
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and

Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one
of the following four responses.
(a) If both the assertion and reason are true and reason is a true
11. Assertion: A tennis ball bounces higher on hills than in plains.
Reason: Acceleration due to gravity on the hill is greater than that on the
surface of earth.
12. Assertion: Minimum number of non-equal vectors in a plane required to
give zero resultant is three.
Reason: If A  B  C  0 , then they must be in one plane.
13. Assertion: When a body is dropped or thrown horizontally from the same
height, it would reach the ground at the same time.
Reason: Horizontal velocity has no effect on the vertical direction.
14. Assertion: The maximum horizontal range of projectile is proportional to

square of velocity.
Reason: The maximum horizontal range of projectile is equal to maximum

height attained by projectile.
16.Assertion: When the velocity of projection of a body is made n times, its

time of flight becomes n times.
Reason: Range of projectile does not depend on the initial velocity of a
body.
NEWTON’S LAWS OF MOTION
1. When the two surfaces are coated with the lubricant, then they will
(a) Roll upon each other (b) stick to each other
(c) slide upon each other (d) none of the above
2. A stone tied to a string is rotated with a uniform speed in a vertical plane.

If mass of the stone is m, the length of the string r and the linear speed of
the stone is v, when the stone is at its lowest point, then the tension in
the string will be
(g=acceleration due to gravity)
mv 2 mv mv 2
(a) mg (b)  mg (c) (d)  mg
r r r
3. If a ladder weighing 250 N is placed against a smooth vertical wall having
coefficient of friction between it and floor is 0.3, then what is the
maximum force of friction available at the point of contact between the
ladder and the floor
(a) 75N (b) 50 N (c) 35 N (d) 25 N
4. A block of mass 10kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface having
coefficient of friction µ=0.5. If a horizontal force of 100N is acting on it,
then acceleration of the block will be
(a) 0.5 m/s2 (b) 5 m/s2 (d) 10 m/s2 (d) 15 m/s2
5. A person is standing in an elevator. In which situation he finds his weight

less?
(a) when the elevator moves upward with constant acceleration
(b) when the elevator moves upward with uniform velocity
(c) when the elevator moves downward with constant acceleration
(d) when the elevator moves downward with uniform velocity
6. A person used force (F), shown in figure to move a load with constant
velocity on given surface.
(Figure)
Identify the correct surface profile.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7. A smooth block is released at rest on a 45-incline and then slides a
distance d. The time taken to slide is n tomes as much to slide on rough
incline than on a smooth incline. The coefficient of friction is
1 1 1 1
(a)  s  1  (b) t  1  (c) t  1  (d) s  1 
n2 n2 n2 n2
8. Figures I, II, III and IV depict variation of force with time.
(I) (II)
(II) (IV)
The impulse is highest in the case of situations depicted.
(a) I and II (b) III and I (c) III and IV (d) IV only
9. A body mass 2 kg has an initial velocity of 3m per second along OE and it
is subjected to a force of 4N in a direction perpendicular to OE. The
distance of the body from O after 4 sec will be
(a) 12 m (b) 20 m (c) 8 m (d) 48 m
10. A block of mass 2kg is kept on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is
0.4. If a force F of 2.5N is applied on the block as shown in the figure, the
frictional force between the block and the floor will be
(Figure)
(a) 2.5 N (b) 5N (c) 7.84 N (d) 10 N

Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of
the following four responses.
11. Assertion: A rocket moves forward by pushing the surrounding air
backwards.
Reason: It derives the necessary thrust to move forward according the
Newton’s third law of motion.
12. Assertion: The driver in a vehicle moving with a constant speed on a
straight road is in a non-inertial frame of reference.
Reason: A reference frame in which Newton’s laws of motion are
applicable is non-inertial.
13. Assertion: Use of ball bearings between two moving parts of machine is a
common practice.
Reason: Ball bearings reduce vibrations and provide good stability.
14.Assertion: A man in a dosed cabin falling freely does not experience
gravity.
Reason: Inertial and gravitational mass have equivalence.
15.Assertion: Two bodies of masses M and m(M>m) are allowed to fall from
the same height if the air resistance for each be the same then both the
bodies will reach the earth simultaneously.
Reason: For same air resistance, acceleration of both the bodies will be
same.
16. Assertion: Friction is a self-adjusting force.
Reason: Friction does not depend upon mass of the body.
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
1. A force of (3iˆ  4 ˆj ) Newton acts on a body and displaces it by (3iˆ  4 ˆj ) m . The
work done by the force is
(1) 10J (2) 12 J (3) 16J (4) 25J
2. The kinetic energy of a body becomes four times its initial value. The new
linear momentum will be
(1) Remain as the initial value (2) four times that of initial value
(3) twice of the initial value (4) eight times that of initial value
3. A bomb of mass 3.0 kg explodes in air into two pieces of masses 2.0 kg and
1.0 kg. The smaller mass goes at a speed of 80 m/s. The total energy
imparted to the two fragments is
(1) 1.07 kJ (2) 2.14 kJ (3) 2.4 kJ (4) 4.8 kJ
4. A block of mass 10 kg is moving in x-direction with a constant speed of 10
m/s. It is subjected to a retarding force F = -0.1 x 1/m during its travel from
x=20 m to x=30m. Its final kinetic energy will be
(1) 250 J (2) 450 J (3) 275 J (4) 475 J
5. A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on a table. A ball of mass m at
a height h above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the
spring, so that the spring is compressed to a distance d. The net work done
in the process is
1 1 2
(1) mg (h  d )  kd 2 (2) mg (h  d )  kd
2 2
1 2 1 2
(3) mg (h  d )  kd (4) mg (h  d )  kd
2 2
6. The potential energy of a body is given by U=A-Bx2 (where x is the
displacement). The magnitude of force acting on the particle is
(1) Constant (2) Proportional to x
(3) Proportional to x2 (4) Inversely proportional to x
7. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which is accelerated from rest to a

speed v in time t1 as a function of time t is given by
2
1 v v 1  mv  2 1 v2 2
(1) m t 2 (2) m t 2 (3)   t (4) m 2 t
2 t1 t1 2  t1  2 t1

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
8. Assertion: In an elastic collision of two billiard balls, the total KE is conserved
during the short time of collision of the balls (i.e. when they are in contact).
Reason: Energy spent against friction does not follow the law of
conservation of energy.
9. Assertion: Frictional forces are conservative forces.
Reason: Potential energy can be associated with frictional forces.
10. Assertion: According to law of conservation of mechanical energy change in
potential energy is equal and opposite to the change in kinetic energy.
Reason: Mechanical energy is not a conserved quantity.
11. Assertion: The instantaneous power of an agent is measured as the dot
product of instantaneous velocity and the force acting on it at that instant.
Reason: The unit of instantaneous power is watt.
OSCILLATION AND SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION
1. A simple pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion with a time period T.

If the length of the pendulum is increased by 21%, the percentage increase
in the time period of the pendulum of increased length is
(1) 10% (2) 21% (3) 30% (4) 50%
2. The frequency of oscillation of the springs shown in the figure will be
(Figure)
(1)
1 K
(2)
1  K1  K 2  m (3) 2
K
(4)
1 K1K2
2 m 2 K1 K 2 m 2 m( K1  K 2 )
3. A particle is performing simple harmonic motion along x-axis with amplitude
4cm and time period 1.2 sec. The minimum time taken by the particle to
move from x = 2cm to x=+4cm and back again is given by
(1) 0.6 sec (2) 0.4 sec (3) 0.3 sec (4) 0.2 sec
4. Two springs of force constants K and 2K are connected to a mass as shown
below. The frequency of oscillation of the mass is
(Figure)
 1  K  1   2K   1   3K   1  m
(1)     (2)     (3)     (4)    
 2   m   2   m   2   m   2   K 
5. Two springs are connected to a block of mass M placed on a frictionless
surface as shown below. If both the springs have a spring constant k, the
frequency of oscillation of block is
(Figure)
1 k 1 k 1 2k 1 M
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2M 2 M 2 M 2 k
6. Which of the following function represents a simple harmonic oscillation
(1) sin t  cos t (2) sin t
2
(3) sin t  sin 2t (4) sin t  sin 2t

7. A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible mass. The spring is pulled
a little and then released so that the mass executes SHM of time period T. If
the mass is increased by m, the time period becomes 5773. Then the ratio of
m/M is
5 3 25 16
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 5 9 9
8. A simple pendulum hangs from the ceiling of a car. If the car accelerates with
a uniform acceleration, the frequency of the simple pendulum will
(1) increase (2) decrease (3) become infinite (4) remain constant
9. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform which undergoes vertical simple
harmonic motion of angular frequency  . The amplitude of oscillation is
gradually increased. The coin will leave contact with the platform for the first
time
(1) at the mean position of the platform (2) for an amplitude of g 
2 2
(3) for an amplitude of g 

2
(4) at the highest position of the platform

10.The function sin 2 t  represents
(1) a periodic, but not simple harmonic with a period 2 
(2) a simple harmonic motion with a period 2 
(3) a simple harmonic motion with a period  
(4) a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion with a period  
11. A particle of mass m is executing oscillations about the origin on the x-axis.
Its potential energy is U(x)=k[x]3, where k is a positive constant. If the
amplitude of oscillation is a, then its time period T is
(1) Independent of a (2) Proportional to a
1
(3) proportional to a3/2 (4) Proportional to
a
12. A horizontal platform with an object placed on it is executing SHM in the
vertical direction. The amplitude of oscillation is 3.29×10-3 m. What must be
the least period of these oscillations, so that the object is not detached from
the platform
(1) 0.1256 sec (2) 0.1356 sec (3) 0.1456 sec (4) 0.1556 sec
13. A simple pendulum has time period T. The bob is given negative charge and
surface below it is given positive charge. The new time period will be
(1) less than T (2) greater than T (3) equal to T (4) infinite
14.A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible mass. The spring is pulled
a little and then released so that the mass executes simple harmonic
oscillations with a time period T. If the mass is increased by m then the time
5  m
period becomes  T  . The ratio of is
4  M
(1) 9/16 (2) 25/16 (3) 4/5 (4) 5/4
explanation of the assertion
correct explanation of assertion
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false
(d) If both the assertion and reason is false
15. Assertion: The amplitude of an oscillating pendulum decreases gradually
with time.
Reason: The frequency of the pendulum decreases with time.
16. Assertion: The periodic time of a hard spring is less as compared that of soft
spring.
Reason: The periodic time depends upon the spring constant and spring
constant is large for hard spring.
17. Assertion: Resonance is special case of forced vibration in which the natural
frequency of vibration of the body is the same as the impressed frequency of
external periodic force and the amplitude of forced vibration is maximum.
Reason: The amplitude of forced vibrations of a body increases with the
increase in the frequency of the externally impressed periodic force.
18. Assertion: In simple harmonic motion, the velocity is maximum when
acceleration is minimum.
Reason: Displacement and velocity of SHM differ is phase by  2 .
19. Assertion: The graph of total energy of a particle in SHM w.r.t. position is a
straight line with zero slope.
Reason: Total energy of particle in SHM remains constant throughout its
motion.
WAVES AND ACOUSTICS
1. A is singing a note and at the same time B is singing a note with exactly one-
eighth the frequency of the note of A. The energies of two sounds are equal,
the amplitude of the note of B is
(1) same that of A (2) twice as that of A
(3) four times as that of A (4) eight times as that of A
2. The tension in a piano wire is 10N. The tension in a piano wire to produce a
node of double frequency is
(1) 20 N (2) 120 N (3) 10 N (4) 40 N
3. In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a particular point to move from
maximum displacement to zero displacement is 0.170 second. The frequency
of the wave is
(1) 1.47 Hz (2) 0.36 Hz (3) 0.73 Hz (4) 2.94 Hz
4. Two sound waves having a phase difference of 60 have path difference of
0
(1) 2λ (2) λ/2 (3) λ/6 (4) λ/3

5. A siren emitting sound of frequency 800 Hz is going away from a static
listener with a speed of 30m/s. Frequency of sound to be heard by the
listener is (velocity of sound = 330 m/s)
(1) 481.2 Hz (2) 286.5 Hz (3) 733.3 Hz (4) 644.8 Hz
6. v1 and v2 are the velocities of sound at the same temperature in two
monoatomic gases of densities 1 and 2 respectively. If 1 2  1/ 4 then the
ratio of velocities v1 and v2 will be
(1) 1:2 (2) 4:1 (3) 2:1 (4) 1:4
7. The equation of a sound wave is
Y=0.0015 sin (62.4x+316 t)
The wavelength of this wave is
(1) 0.2 unit (2) 0.1 unit (3) 0.3 unit (4) cannot be calculated
8. A wave represented by the given equation y  a cos(kx  t ) is superposed

with another wave to form a stationary wave such that the point x=0 is a
node. The equation for the other wave is
(1) y  a sin(kx  t ) (2) y  a cos(kx  t )
(3) y  a cos(kx  t ) (4) y  a sin(kx  t )
9. A string in musical instrument is 50 cm long and its fundamental frequency is
800 Hz. If a frequency of 1000 Hz is to be produced then required length of
string is
(1) 62.5 cm (2) 50 cm (3) 40 cm (4) 37.5 cm
10. The diagram below shows the propagation of a wave. Which points are in
same phase
(Figure)
(1) F and G (2) C and E (3) B and G (4) B and F
11. Water waves are
(1) longitudinal (2) transverse
(3) both longitudinal and transverse (4) neither longitudinal nor transverse
12.An organ pipe is closed at one end has fundamental frequency of 1500 Hz.
The maximum number of overtones generated by this pipe which a normal
person can hear is
(1) 14 (2) 13 (3) 6 (4) 9
13. In the 5 overtone of an open organ pipe, these are (N-stands for nodes and
th
A-for antinodes)
(1) 2N, 3A (2) 3N, 4A (3) 4N, 5A (4) 5N, 4A
14. Two waves of propagating to the point P-along a straight line produced by
two sources A and B of simple harmonic and of equal frequency. The
amplitude of every wave at P is ‘a’ and the phase of A is ahead by π/3 than
that of B and the distance AP is greater than BP by 50 cm. Then the resultant
amplitude at the point P will be, if the wavelength is 1 meter
(1) 2a (2) a 3 ` (3) a 2 (4) a
15. An open pipe is suddenly closed at one end with the result that the
frequency of third harmonic of the closed pipe is found to be higher by 100
Hz, then the fundamental frequency of open pipe is
(1) 480 Hz (2) 300 Hz (3) 240 Hz (4) 200 Hz
16. A person speaking normally produces a sound intensity of 40 dB at a
distance of 1m. If the threshold intensity for reasonable audibility is 20dB,
the maximum distance at which he can be heard clearly is
(1) 10 m (2) 5 m (3) 4 m (4) 20 m
17.A closed organ pipe of length 1.2 m vibrates in its first overtone mode. The
pressure variation is maximum at
(1) 0.4 m for the open end (2) 0.4 m from the closed end
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) 0.8 m from the open end
18. The ratio of intensities between two coherent sound sources is 4:1. The
difference of loudness in decibels between maximum and minimum
intensities, when they interface in space is
(1) 10 log 2 (2) 20 log 3 (3) 10 log 3 (4) 201 log 2
19. A fork A has frequency 2% more than the standard fork and B has a
frequency 3% less than the frequency of same standard fork. The forks A and
B when sounded together produced 6 beats/s. The frequency of fork A is
(1) 116.4 Hz (2) 120 Hz (3) 122.4 Hz (4) 238.8 Hz
20.A source of sound S is moving with a velocity of m/s towards a stationary
observer. The observer measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz.
What will be the apparent frequency of the source when it is moving away
from the observer after crossing him? The velocity of the sound in the
medium is 350 m/s.
(1) 750 Hz (2) 857 Hz (3) 1143 Hz (4) 1333 Hz
21. The fundamental frequency of a closed pipe is 220 Hz. If ¼ of the pipe is
filled with water, the frequency of the first overtone of the pipe now is
(1) 220 Hz (2) 440 Hz (3) 880 Hz (4) 1760 H
22. A transverse sinusoidal wave of amplitude a , wave length  and frequency

n is travelling on a stretched string. The maximum speed of any point on the
3
string is v /10, where v is the speed of propagation of the wave. If a  10 m
1
and mv  10ms ,then  and n are given by
n  10
2 3
(1)   2  (2)   (4) n 
4
10 m 10 m (3) Hz 10 Hz
2
23.Three similar wires of frequency n n and n are joined to make one wires. Its
1 2 3
frequency will.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) n  n n n (2)𝑛 = 𝑛 + 𝑛 + 𝑛 (3) = + + (4)𝑛1 = 𝑛2 + 𝑛2 + 𝑛2
1 2 3 1 2 3 √𝑛 √𝑛1 √𝑛2 √𝑛3 1 2 3

the following four responses:
(a)If both the assertion and reason are true and reason is a true explanation of
the assertion
(b)If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
(c)If the assertion is true reason is false.
(d)If both the assertion and reason are false
24. Assertion: Soldiers are asked to break steps while crossing the bridge.
Reason: The frequency of marching may be equal to the natural frequency of

bridge and may lead to resonance which can break the bridge.
𝑊𝑎𝑣𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ
25. Assertion: Speed of wave 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑
Reason: Wavelength is the distance between two nearest particles in phase.
26. Assertion: The flash of lightening is seen before the sound of thunder is
heard
Reason: Speed of sound is greater than speed of light.
27. Assertion: When a beetle moves along the sand within a few tens of
centimeters of a sand scorpion, the scorpion immediately turn towards the
beetle and dashes to it.
Reason: When a beetle disturbs the sand, it sends pulses along the sand
surface, one set of pulses is longitudinal while other set is transverse
28. Assertion: Sound travels faster in solids than gases.
Reason: Solid possesses greater density than gases.

29. Assertion: The change in air pressure effects the speed of sound.
Reason: The speed of sound in gases is proportional to the square of pressure.
30. Assertion: The fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe increases as

the temperature is increased.
Reason: As the temperature increases, The velocity of sound increases, more

rapidly than length of the pipe
31. Assertion: In a stationary wave, there is no transfer of energy.
Reason: There is no outward motion of the disturbance from one particle to

adjoining particle in a stationary wave.
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVE, DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
1. Fraunhofer spectrum is a
(1) line absorption spectrum (2) band absorption spectrum
(3)line emission spectrum (4) band emission spectrum

10
2. The speed of an electron having wavelength of 10 m is
(1)4.24x106 m/s (2)5.25x 106m/s (3)7.25x106m/s (4)6.25x106m/s

0 0
3. Light of wavelength 4000 A A is incident on a metal plate whose work
functions is Ev. What is maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectron?
(1)2.0 eV (2)1.1 eV (3)0.5 eV (d)1.5 eV
4. A laser beam is used for carrying out surgery because it
(1)is highly monochromatic (2)is highly coherent (c)can be sharply

focused (4) is highly directional
5. A proton is about 1840 times heavier than an electron. When it is accelerated

by a potential difference of 1 KV, its kinetic energy will be
(1)1840 ke V (b)1 ke V (c)1/1840 ke V (d)920 ke V
6. If an electron and a photon propagate in the form of waves having the same
wavelength, it implies that they the same
(1)momentum (2)energy (3) velocity (4) angular momentum
7. A photon of energy 4 e V is incident on a metal surface whose work function

is 2 e V. The minimum reverse potential to be applied for stopping the
emission of electrons is
(1)6 V (2) 4 V (3) 2 V (4)8 V

8. We wish to see inside an atom. Assuming the atom to have a diameter of 100
pm, this means that one must be able to resolve a width of say 10 pm. If an
electron microscope is used, the minimum electron energy required is about
(1)15 ke V (2)1.5 ke V (3) 150 ke V (4) 1.5 Me V
9. Solid targets of different elements are bombarded by highly energetic

electron beams. The frequency ( f ) of the characteristic X-rays emitted from
different targets varies with atomic number Z as
(1)𝑓 ∝ √𝑍 (2)𝑓 ∝ 𝑍 2 (3)𝑓 ∝ 𝑍 (4)𝑓 ∝ 𝑍 3/2
10.The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic wave of intensity I (w/m2) on a

non-reflecting surface is [c is the velocity of light]
2 2
(1) I /c (2) I c (3) I c (4) I / c
11.Hard x-rays for the study of fractures in bones should have a minimum
wavelength of 10-11m. The accelerating voltage for electrons in x-ray machine
should be
(1)>124 KV (2) <124 KV (3)between 60 kV and 70 Kv
(4)=100 kV
12.In photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from metals if the incident
light has a certain minimum
(1)wavelength (2)frequency (3)amplitude (4)angle of incidence
13.If alpha beta and gamma rays carry same momentum, which has the longest
wavelength?
(1)None, all have same wavelength (2)Alpha rays (3)Beta rays
(2)Gamma rays
14.Flash light equipped with a new set of batteries. Produces bright white light.
As the batteries wear out
(1)the light intensity gets reduced with no change in its colour
(2)colour changes to red and also intensity gets reduced
(3)lightcolour changes first to yellow and then red with no change in
intensity
15.In a photoemissive cell with executing wavelength  , the fastest electron has
speed v .If the exciting wavelength is changed to 3 / 4 the speed of the
fastest emitted electron will be
3 4 4 4

(1) v   1/2 (2) v   1/2 (3)< v   (4)> v  
4 3 3 3
16.Penetrating power of x-rays depends on
(1)current flowing in the filament (2)applied potential difference
(3)nature of the target (4)all the above
17.Ultraviolet light of wavelength 300 nm and intensity 1.0 watt/m2 falls on the
surface of a photosensitive material. If 1% of the incident photons produce
photoelectrons, then the number of photoelectrons, then emitted from an
area of 1.0 cm2 of the surface is nearly.
(1) 9.6 ×1014 per sec (2) 4.12×1013 per sec
(3) 1.51×1012 per sec (4) 2.13×1011 per sec
18. The frequency of the incident light falling on a photosensitive metal plate is
doubled, the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons is
(1) Double the earlier value (2) Unchanged
(3) more than doubled (4) less than doubled
19. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is 5kV and the current
through it is 3.2mA. Then the number of electrons striking the target per
second is
(1) 2×1016 (2) 5×1016 (3) 1×1017 (4) 4×1015
20.According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of kinetic energy of
the emitted photoelectrons from a metal versus the frequency, of the incident
radiation gives a straight line whose slope
(1) Is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of
the radiation
(2) Depends on the intensity of the radiation
(3) Depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal
used
(4) Depends on the nature of the metals used
21. The wavelength of Ka line for an element of atomic number 43 is λ. Then the
wavelength of Ka line for an element of atomic number 29 is
43 42 9 4
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
29 28 4 9
22. When a point source of monochromatic light is at a distance of 0.2m from a
photoelectric cell, the cut-off voltage and the saturation current are 0.6 volt
and mA respectively. If the same source is placed 0.6 m away from the
photoelectric cell, then
(1) The stopping potential will be 0.2 V
(2) The stopping potential will be 0.6 V
(3) The saturation current will be 6 mA
(4) The saturation current will be 18 mA
23. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle moving with a velocity 2.25×108 m/s
is equal to the wavelength of photon. The ratio of kinetic energy of the
particle to the energy of the photon is (velocity of light is 3×108 m/s)
(1) 1/8 (2)3/8 (3) 5/8 (4) 7/8
24. A photo cell is receiving light from a source placed at a distance of 1m. If the
same source is to be placed at a distance of 2m, then the ejected electron
(1) moves with one-fourth energy as that of the initial energy
(2) moves with one-fourth of momentum as that of the initial momentum
(3) will be half in number
(4) will be one fourth in number
25. Light of wavelength λ strikes a photo-sensitive surface and electrons are
ejected with kinetic energy E. If the kinetic energy is to be increased to 2E,
the wavelength must be changed to λ, where
 
(1)   (2)   2 (3)     (4)   
2 2
`These questions consists of two statements each stated as Assertion and

the following options.
(a) If both the assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not correct
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false
26.Assertion: X-rays travel with the speed of light.
Reason: X-rays are electromagnetic rays.
27. Assertion: When the speed of an electron increases its specific charge
decreases
Reason: Specific charge is the ratio of the charge to mass
28. Assertion: In photoelectric effect, on increasing the intensity of light, both
the number of electrons emitted and kinetic energy of each of them get
increased but photoelectric current remains unchanged.
Reason: The photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.
29.Assertion: Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.
Reason: The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of
light.
30. Assertion: The energy (E) and momentum (p) of a photon are related by p =
E/c.
Reason: The photon behaves like a particle.
31. Assertion: Television signals are received through sky-wave propagation.
Reason: The ionosphere reflects electromagnetic waves of frequencies
greater than a certain critical frequency.
32. Assertion: The threshold frequency of photoelectric effect supports the
particle nature of sunlight.
33.Assertion: Displacement current goes through the gap between the plates of
a capacitor when the charge of the capacitor does not change
Reason: The displacement current arises in the region in which the electric
field and hence the electric flux does not change with time.
34.Assertion: Mass of moving photon varies inversely as the wavelength.
Reason: Energy of the particle = Mass × (Speed of light)
35. Assertion: Kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted by a photosensitive
surface depends upon the intensity of incident photon.
Reason: The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is possible with
frequency of intensity of incident photon.
36. Assertion: Separation of isotope is possible because of the difference in
electron numbers of isotope.
Reason: Isotope of an element can be separated by using a mass
spectrometer.
37. Assertion: The specific charge of positive rays is not constant.
Reason: The mass of ions varies with speed.
38. Assertion: Photosensitivity of a metal high if its work function is small.
Reason: Work function =hf0 where f0 is the threshold frequency.
39.Assertion: The de-Broglie wavelength of molecule varies inversely as the
square root of temperature.
Reason: The root mean square velocity of the molecule depends on the
temperature.
40. Assertion: X-rays can penetrate through the flesh but not through the bones.
Reason: The penetrating power of X-rays depends on voltage.
ATOMIC STRUCTURE AND NUCLEAR PHYSICS
1. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to

(1) increase the neutrons (2) slow down the neutrons
(3) stop the electrons (4) none of the above
2. Which one of the following has the highest neutrons ratio?
(1) 8 O16 (2) 2 He 4 (3) 92U 235 (4) 26 Fe56
3. When radioactive substance emits an α-particle, then its position in the
periodic table is lowered by
(1) three places (2) one place (3) five places (4) two places
4. In an atom bomb, the energy is released because of the
(1) chain reaction of neutrons and 92U 238
(2) chain reaction of neutrons and 92 U 236
5. The flux of α-particle at 20 is 1×106. The flux of α-particle at angle 600 is
(1) 5.5 (2) 2.5 (3) 0.5 (4) 1.5
6. A laser beam is used for carrying out surgery because it
(1) is highly monochromatic (2) is highly coherent
(3) can be sharply focused (4) is highly directional
7. A radioactive substance decays to 1/16th of its initial activity in 40 days. The
half-life of the radioactive substance expressed in days is
(1) 10 (2) 5 (3) 2.5 (4) 20
8. A neutron makes a head-on elastic collision with a stationary deuteron. The
fractional energy loss of the neutron in the collision is
(1) 16/81 (2) 2/3 (3) 8/27 (4) 8/9
9. The dependence of binding energy per nucleon, 𝐵𝑁 , on the mass number A, is
represented by
(1) (2) (3) (4)
10. The magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is based on the phenomenon of
(1)electron spin resonance (2) nuclear magnetic (3) electron paramagnetic

resonance (d) diamagnetism of human tissues
11. A nucleus of mass number A, originally at rest, emits an 𝛼 particle with
speed v. The daughter nucleus recoils with a speed
4v 4v 2v 2v
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A4 A 4 A 4 A4
12.When an electron-positron pair annihilates, the energy released is about
(1)0.8 x10-13J (2)3.2 X10-13J (3) 1.6X10-13J (4)4.8X10-13J
13. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 e V.What is the potential
energy of the electron in this state?

(1) zero (2) 2e V (3)1 e V (4)-27.2 eV
14. Solid targets of different elements are bombared by highly energetic electron
beams. The frequency ( f ) of the characteristic x-rays emitted from
different targets varies with atomic number Z as
(1)𝑓 ∝ √𝑍 (2)𝑓 ∝ 𝑍 (3)𝑓 ∝ 𝑧 2 (4)𝑓 ∝ 𝑧 3/2
15. A radiation material has life of 10 days. What fraction of the material would
remain after 30 days?
(1) 0.125 (2) 0.25 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.33
16. The operation of a nuclear reactor is said to be critical, if the multiplication
factor (k) has a value
(1)1 (2)1.5 (3)2.1 (4)2.5
17. 238
92𝑈 has 92 protons and 238 nucleons. It decays by emitting an alpha particle
and becomes
(1) 234
92𝑈 (2) 235
92𝑈 (3) 234
90𝑈 (4) 237
93𝑈
1
17.The fossil bone has a 14
C : 12C ratio, which is [16] of that in a living animal
bone . If the half- life of C is 5730 years, then the age of the fossil bone is
14
(1) 11460 years (2) 17190 years (3) 45840 years
(4)22920
19. Which one of the following is a possible nuclear reaction?
(1) 10
5𝐵 + 42𝐻𝑒 → 13
7𝑁 + 11𝐻
(2) 239
93𝑁𝑝 →
239
94𝑃𝑢 + 𝛽 − + 𝑣̅
(3) 23 1
11𝑁𝑎 + 1𝐻 →
20
10𝑁𝑒 + 42𝐻𝑒
(4) 117𝑁 + 11𝐻 → 12

6𝐶 + 𝛽− + 𝑣
20. Starting with a sample of pure Cu ,7/8 of it decays into Zn in 15 min. The
66
Corresponding half-life
1
(1)10 min (2) 5 min (3) 15 min (4)7 2
21. A radioactive material decays by simultaneous emission of ntwo particles

with respective half lives 1620 yr and 810 yr. The time (in years) after which
one- fourth of the material remains is
(1)4860 (2)2430 (3)3240 (4)1080

22. Hydrogen atom emits blue light when it changes from n=4 energy level to
the n=2 energy level. Which colour of light would the atom emit, when it
changes from the n=5 energy level to the n=2 energy level
(1)red (2) yellow (3) green (4)violet
23. 200 Me V of energy may be obtained per fission of 𝑈 235. A reactor is

generating 1000 Kw of power. The rate of nuclear fission in the reactor is
(1)1000 (2)2x108 (3)3.125x1016 (4)931
24. Energy of the electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is given by𝐸𝑛 =
13.6
− 𝑛2
𝑒 𝑉.The amount of energy needed to transfer electron from first orbit to
third is
(1)13.6 e V (2)3.4 e V (3)12.09 e V (d) 1.51 e V
25. In the reaction 21𝐻 + 31𝐻 → 42𝐻𝑒 + 10𝑛. If the tending energies of 2 3
1𝐻 , 1𝐻 𝑎𝑛𝑑 42𝐻 𝑒
are respectively a, b and c (in Me V) released in this reaction is
(1) c + a - b (2)c – a –b (3)a + b+ c (4) a + b - c
26. An electron changes its position from orbit n=4 to the orbit n= 2 of an atom.
The wavelength of the emitted radiations is (R= Rydberg’s constant)
16 16 16 16
(1) 𝑅
(2) 3𝑅
(3)5𝑅 (4)7𝑅
27. In a radioactive substance at t=0 the number of atoms is 8x 104. Its half life
period is 3 years. THE number of atoms 1x104 will remain after interval
(1) 9 years (2) 8 years (3)6 years (4) 24 years
28.As the electron in Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom passes from state n=2 to
n=1, the kinetic energy K and potential energy U change as
(1) K two-fold,U four-fold
(2)K four- fold , U two-fold
(3) K four-fold, U also four-fold
(4)K two-fold , U also two-fold
29. Which of the following transitions in a hydrogen atom emits photon of the
highest frequency
(1)n=1 to n=2 (2) n=2 to n=1 (3) n=2 to n=6 (4) n=6 to n=2
These questions consist of two statements each stated as Assertion and Reason.
While answering these questions you are required to chose any one of the
following
(a)If both the assertion and reason are true and is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(c)I f the assertion is true but the reaso9n is false.
(d)If both the assertion and reason are true
30. Assertion: Y A undergoes 2𝛼 − 𝑑𝑒𝑐𝑎𝑦𝑠, 2𝛽 − 𝑑𝑒𝑐𝑎𝑦𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝛾-decays and the

Z
daughter product is Y A-8

Z 2
Reason: In 𝛼- decay the mass number decreases by 4 and atomic number
decreases by 2. In 𝛽-decay the mass number remains unchanged. But
atomic number increases by 1 only.
31. Assertion: Radioactive nuclei emit 𝛽 −1 particles.
Reason: Electrons exist inside the nucleus.
32. Assertion: Bohr had to postulate that the electrons in stationary orbits
around the nucleus do not radiate.
33. Assertion: Neutrons penetrate matter more readily as compared to protons
Reason: Neutrons are slightly more massive than protons.
34. Assertion: Sr Sr Sr from the radioactive fall out from a nuclearbomb ends
90 90 90
up in the bones of human beings through the milk consumed by them. It causes
impairment of the production of red blood cells.
35. Assertion: Energy is released in nuclear fission.
Reason: Total binding energy of the fission fragments is larger than the total
binding energy of the parent nucleus.
36. Assertion: It is not possible to use CI as the fuel for fusion energy.
35
Reason: The binding energy of CI is too small.

35
37. Assertion: The binding energy per nucleon. For nuclei with atomic mass
number A>100, decreases with A
38. Assertion: Cobalt- 60 is useful in cancer therapy.
Reason: Cobalt – 60 is source of y-radiations capable of ki8lling cancerous

cell.
39. Assertion: Density of all the nucleus is same.
Reason: Radius of nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of mass

number.
40.Assertion: the electron in the hydrogen atom passes from energy level
n=4 to the n=1 level. The maximum and minimum number of photon that
can be emitted are six and one respectively.
Reason: The photons are emitted when electrons make a transition from
the higher energy state to the lower energy state.
41.Assertion: The ionizing power of 𝛽 − particle is less compared to 𝛼 − particles
but their penetrating power is more .
Reason: The mass of 𝛽 − particle is less than the mass of 𝛼 −particle.
42.Assertion: Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron but its emission
spectrum has many lines.
Reason: Only Lyman series is found in the absorption spectrum of hydrogen

atom whereas in the emission spectrum, all the series are found.
FLUID MECHANICS, SURFACE TENSION AND VISCOSITY
1. A spherical drop of water has 1 mm radius, If the surface tension of water
(1)35 Nm2
(2)14 N/m2
(3)140 N/m2
(4)none of these
2. Bernoulli’s principle is base3d on the law conservation of
(1)energy
(2)mass
(3)angular momentum
(4)linear momentum
3. Scent sprayer is based on
(1)Bernoulli’s theorem
(2)Charles’ law
(3)Boyle’s law
(4)Archimedes principle
4. A soap bubble in vacuum has a radius 3 cm and another soap bubble in

vacuum has radius 4 cm. If two bubbles coalesce under isothermal
condition, then the radius of the new bubble will be
(1)7 cm
(2)5 cm
(3)2.3 cm
(4)4.5 cm
5. Two small drops of mercury, each of radius R coalesce to form a single

large drop. The ratio of the surface energies defore and after the change
is
(1)1:21/3
(2)2:1
(3)21/3:1
(4)1:2
6. A lead shot of 1 mm diameter falls through a long velocity v. with

distance covered is represented by
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
7. In old age arteries carrying blood in the human body become narrow
resulting in an increase in the blood pressure. This follows from
(1)Pascal’s law
(2)Stokes law
(3)Archimedes principle
(4)Bernoulli’s principle
8. A sphere of mass M and radius R is falling in a viscous fluid. The terminal

velocity attained by the falling object will be proportional to
(1)R
(2)R2
(3)1/R
(4)1/R
9. A candle of diameter d is floating on a liquid in a cylindrical container of

diameter D(D>>d) as shown in figure. If it is burning at the rate of 2
cm/hour then the top of the candle will
(1)Remain at the same height
(2)Fall at the rate of 1 cm/hour
(3) Fall at the rate of 2 cvm/hour
(4) G o up the rate of 1 cm/hour

10.A given shaped glass tube having uniform cross section is filled with water
and is mounted on a rotatable shaft as shown in figure. If the tube is
rotated with a constant angular velocity 𝜔 then
(1)Water levels in both sections A and B go up
(2)Water level in section A goes up and that in B comes down
(3)Water level in section A comes down and that in B goes up
(4)Water levels remain same in both sections
11.B y sucking through a straw, a student can reduce the pressure in his
lungs to 750 mm of Hg(density-13.6 g/cm3). Using the straw, he can drink
water from a glass up to a maximum depth of
(1)10 cm
(2)75 cm
(3)1.36 cm
(4)13.6 cm
12.If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density=19.5 kg/m3), find the
terminal speed of a sphere of silver (density=10.5 kg/m3) of the same
size in the same liquid.
(1)0.1 m/s
(2)0.4 m/s
(3)0.133 m/s
(4)0.2 m/s
13.The work done in increasing the size of as soap film from 10 cm x 6 cm to

10 cm x 11 cm is 3x10-4 joule. The surface tension of the film is
(1)1.5 x 10-2N/m
(2)3.0 x 10-2N/m
(3)6.0 x 10-2N/m
(4)11.0 x 10-2N/m
14.If work done in increasing the size of a soap[ film from 10 cm x 6 cm to

10 cm x11 cm is 2x 10-4 J. then the surface tension is
(1)2 x 10-2Nm-1
(2)2 x 10-4 Nm-1
(3)2 x 10-6 Nm-1

(4)2 x 108 Nm-1
15. When the temperature is increased the angle of contact of a liquid
(1)Increase
(2)Decreases
(3)Remains the same
(4)First increases and then decreases
16. The surface tension of soap solution is 25 x 10-3 Nm-1. The excess
pressure inside a soap bubble of diameter 1 cm is
(1)10 pa
(2)20 pa
(3)5 pa
(4)none of the above
17. If the radius of a soap bubble is four times that of another, Then the
ratio of their pressures will
(1)1:4
(2)4:1
(3)16:1
(4)1:16
18. A spherical drop of water has radius 1 mm If surface tension of water
Is 70 x 10-3 N/m differences of pressures between inside and out side of
The spherical drop is
(1)35 N/m2
(2)70 N/m2
(3)140 N/m2
(4)zero
19. A concrete sphere of radius R has a cavity of radius r which is packed
with sawdust. The specific gravities of concrete and sawdust are
respectively 2.4 and 0.3 for this sphere to float with its entire volume
submerged under water. Ratio of mass of concrete to mass of sawdust
will be
(1)8
(2)4
(3)3
(4)zero

the following four responses
(a)If both the assertion and reason are true and reason is a explanation of
the assertion.
explanation of assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false
(d)If both the assertion and reason are false.
20. Assertion: The size of a hydrogen balloon increases as it rises in air.
Reason: The material of the balloon can be easily stretched
(1)2 (2)1 (3)3 (4)4
21. Assertion: In a pressure cooker the water is brought to boil. The cooker is
then removed from the stove. Now on removing the lid of the pressure
cooker, the water starts boiling again.
Reason: The impurities in water bring down its boiling point.
22.Assertion: Smaller drops of liquid resist deforming forces better than the
larger drops .
Reason: Excess pressure inside a drop is directly proportional to its surface

area.
23. Assertion: The melting point of ice decreases with increases of pressure.
Reason: Ice contracts on melting.
24. Assertion: For Reynold’s number 𝑅𝑒 >2000,the bflow of fluid is turbulent.
Reason: Inertial forces are dominant compared to the viscous forces at such
high Reynold’s numbers

25.Assertion: A thin stainless needle can lay floating on a still water surface
Reason: Any object floats when the buoyancy force balances the weight of
the object
26.Assertion: A bubble comes from the bottom of a lake to the top.
Reason: Its radius increases.
27.Assertion: A ship floats higher in the water on a high pressure day than on a
low pressure day .
Reason: Floating of ship in the water is not possible because of buoyancy

force which is present due to pressure differences.
THERMAL EXPANSION, CALORIMETRY AND TRANSMISSION OF HEAT
1. The colour of a star indicates is
(1)Temperature
(2)Velocity
(3)Size
(4)Length
2. Fraunhofer line of the solar system is an example of
(1)line of emission spectrum
(2)emission of band spectrum
(3)line absorption spectrum
(4)none of the above
3. A black body is heated from 270C to 1270C. The ratio of their energies of
radiation emitted will be
(1)81:256
(2)27:64
(3)9:16
(4)3:4
4. A metallic ball and highly stretched spring are made of same material and
have the same mass. They are heated so that they melt, the latent heat
required
(1)Are the same for both
(2)Is greater for the ball

(3)Is greater for the spring
(4) For the two may or may not be the same depending upon the metal
5. A black body is at a temperature 300 k. it emits energy at a rate, which is

proportional to
(1)(300)4
(2)(300)3
(3)300
(4)(300)2
6. The density of a substances at 00C is 10 g/cc and at 1000C.its density is 9.7

g/cc. The coefficient of linear expansion of the substances is
(1)102
(2)10-2
(3)10-3
(4)10-4
7. A black body at a temperature of 2270C,radiates heat at a 20 cal m-2 s-1.

When its temperature is raised to 7270C, the heat radiated by it in cal m-2 s-1will
be closer to
(1)320
(2)160
(3)40
(4)640
8. Shown below are the black body radiation curves at temperature

T andT (T T
1 2 2
 1) . Which of the following plots is correct ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
9. Suppose the sun expands so that its radius becomes 100 times its present
radius and its surface temperature becomes half of its present value.The total
energy emitted by it then will increase by a factor of
(1)625
(2)104
(3)256
(4)16
10. Three objects coloured black, and white can withstand hostile conditions up
to 28000C.These objects are thrown into a furnace where each of them attains a
temperature of 20000C.Which object will glow brightest?
(1)The white object
(2)All glow with equal brightness
(3)Gray object
(4)The black object
11.A bimetallic strip consists of metal X and Y. It is mounted rigidly at the base
as shown. The metal X has a higher coefficient of expansion compared to that
for metal Y. When bimetallic strip is placed in a cold bath:
(1)It will bend towards the right
(2)It will not bend but shrink
(3)It will bend towards the left
(4)It will neither bend nor shrink
12.A brass disc fits simply in a steel plate. The disc from the hole can be
loosened if the system
(1)First heated then cooled
(2)First cooled then heated
(3)Is heated
(4)Is cooled
13.On heating a liquid of coefficient of cubical expansion 𝛾 in a container having

coefficient of linear expansion 𝛾/3, the level of liquid in the container will
(1)Rise
(2)Fall
(3)Will remain almost stationary
(4)It is difficult to say
These questions consists of two statements each stated a Assertion and

the following options:
(a)If both the assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
(b)If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason are true but
the reason is not correct explanation of the assertion.
(c)If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d)If both the assertion is true but the reason is false
14. Assertion: Woolen clothes keep the body warm in winter
Reason: Air is a bad conductor of heat
15. Assertion: Blue star is at high temperature than red star.
Reason: Wein’s displacement law states that 𝑇 ∝ (1/  𝑚 )
16.Assertion : Temperature near the sea coast are moderate.
Reason: Water has a high thermal conductivity.
17.Assertion: It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on
the sides
Reason: Air surrounding the fire conducts more heat upwards.
18.Assertion: It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on
the sides
Reason: Ice contracts on melting.
19.Assertion: A body that is a good radiator is also a good absorber of
radiation at a given wavelength
Reason: According to Kirchoff’s law the absorptivity of a body is equal to
its emissivity at a given wavelength.
20.Assertion : For higher temperature, the peak emission wavelength of a
black body shifts to lower wavelengths.
Reason: Peak emission wavelength of a black body is proportional to the
fourth power of temperature
21.Assertion: Perspiration from human body helps in cooling the body
Reason: A thin layer of water on the skin enhances its emissivity.
22.Assertion: The equivalent thermal conductivity of two plates of same
thickness in contact (series) less than the smaller value of thermal
conductivity
Reason: For two plates of equal thickness in contact (series)the equivalent

1 1 1
thermal conductivity is given by 𝐾
=𝐾 +𝐾
1 1
23.Assertion: If the temperature of a star is doubled then rate of mloss of heat
from it becomes 16 times.
Reason: Specific heat varies with temperature
24.Assertion: Two bodies at different temperature, if brought in thermal contact

do not necessary settle to the mean temperature
Reason: The two bodies may have different thermal capacities.

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ELECTROSTATICS

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

39.Assertion: Electric lines of force never cross each other.

Reason: Electric field at a point superimpose to give one resultant electric

40.Assertion: The coulomb force is the dominating force in the universe.

Reason: The coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational force.

Reason: Because electrons have negative charges

Reason: The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or

43.Assertion: If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and

44. Assertion: A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a

Reason: The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or

45. Assertion: Electric lines of force cross each other.

Reason: Electric field at a point superimpose to give one resultant electric

Reason: Electrostatics forces are non conservative.

Reason: Electric force on a test charge is independent of its mass.

1. The internal resistance of a cell is the resistance of.

Connected as shown in figure, their values must be related as

19. The equivalent resistance of the following infinite network of resistance is

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

31. Assertion: The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature.

33. Assertion: A larger dry cell has higher emf.

Reason: The emf of a dry cell is proportional to its size.

Reasons: Three pin connections reduce heating of connecting cables.

Reason: Dimness decreases after sometime.

Reason: V=E-ir where E=2 V, i=2/2=1A and R=1  .

38. Assertion: The electric bulbs glows immediately when switch is on .

Reason: The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire is very high.

Reason: As resistance increases current through the circuit increases.

Reason: On increasing temperature, conductivity of metallic wire decreases.

4. The velocity with which a projectile must be fired so that it escapes

(a) mass of the earth

(b) radius of the projectile’s orbit

(c) mass of the projectile

(d) Gravitational constant.

6. The condition for a uniform spherical mass m of radius r to be a black hole

7. The motion of planets in the solar system is an example of the

(b) linear momentum

(d) angular momentum

8. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are initially at rest at infinite distance

9. Acceleration due to gravity on moon is 1/6 of the acceleration due to

10.The gravitational potential energy of a body of mass ‘m’ at the earth’s

12.Given radius of earth 𝑅 and length of a day 𝑇 the height of a geostationary

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

13.Assertion: The length of the day is slowly increasing.

Reason: The dominant effect causing a slowdown in the rotation of the

earth is the gravitational pull of other planets in the solar system.

(a)1 (b)2 (c) 4 (d)3

Reason: Acceleration due to gravity is a constant quantity.

15.Assertion: Two different planets have same escape velocity.

Reason: Value of escape velocity is a universal constant

1. If x longitudinal strain is produced in a wire of Young’s modulus Y, then

energy stored in the material of the wire per unit volume is

2. According to hook’s law of elasticity, if stress is increased, the ratio of

(c) becomes zero

(d) remains constant

3. The breaking stress of a wire depends upon

(a) length of the wire

(b) radius of the wire

(c) material of the wire