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Symbiosis National Aptitude Test

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5 Mock Tests &
Solved Papers
2019-2005
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PREFACE
Symbiosis National Aptitude (SNAP) Test is a relatively new umbrella examination for
admission to all the post-graduate institutes of Symbiosis International University
(SIU). Since 2007, candidates aspiring to join MBA programs offered by institutes of
Symbiosis International University have to take the common, mandatory SNAP Test.
SNAP is a mandatory written test for admission into any post-graduate programme
offered by the institutes under the aegis of Symbiosis International University (SIU),
established under Section 3 of the UGC Act, 1956, vide notification No.F.9.12/2001
U.3 of the Government of India. Subsequently, ten more institutes of Symbiosis have
been brought under the ambit of Symbiosis International University, vide
notification No.F.9. 12/2006-U.3(A)
SNAP score is valid for admission to all the post-graduate programmes of Symbiosis
International University. This book has been especially designed for the aspirants of
SNAP. The book contains last Thirteen years’ (2018-2005) Solved Papers to make the
candidates well aware of the trends and pattern of questions asked in recent years.
Furthermore Five Mock Test Papers have been provided in the book, exactly
designed as per the latest pattern of the SNAP, covering every possible type of
questions from each individual section. The book promises to sharpen the skills of
candidates to the level of perfection and will prove to be a confidence booster for
the aspirants.
I would like to convey my sincere thanks to Mr. T.K. Sinha and Mrs. Sangeeta Kedre
for their assistance during the entire project. I would like to thank Mr. Shiv Kumar
Kedre, Mr. Vivek Singh Meena, Mr. Sujit Kumar, Mr. N Kumar and Mr. B.B. Sinha for
their cooperation. I would also like to thank Mr. Mahendra Singh Rawat &
Mohd. Shahid Saifi for their kind cooperation and valuable suggestions during the
project. I would also like to offer my sincerest gratitude to Mr. Deepesh Jain without
whom this project would not have been possible.
Advice and suggestions for the improvement of this book will be welcomed.
WISHING ALL OF YOU BEST OF LUCK

RK Jha
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CONTENTS
SNAP SOLVED PAPERS (2019–2005)
Solved Paper 2019 1-16
SNAP MOCK PAPERS

Crack SNAP 1 3-11
Crack SNAP 2 15-24
Crack SNAP 3 27-37
Crack SNAP 4 41-52
Crack SNAP 5 55-68
Answers 73-74
Answers with Explanations 77-100
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OVERVIEW OF SNAP
Symbiosis National Aptitude (SNAP) Test is a relatively new umbrella examination for admission to all the post-
graduate institutes of Symbiosis International University (SIU). Since 2007, candidates aspiring to join MBA
programs offered by institutes of Symbiosis International University have to take the common, mandatory SNAP
Test. SNAP score is valid for admission to all the post-graduate programmes of Symbiosis International University.
SNAP is a mandatory written test for admission into any post-graduate programme offered by the institutes under
the aegis of Symbiosis International University (SIU), established under Section 3 of the UGC Act, 1956, vide
notification No.F.9.12/2001 U.3 of the Government of India. Subsequently, ten more institutes of Symbiosis have
been brought under the ambit of Symbiosis International University, vide notification No.F.9. 12/2006-U.3(A)
ELIGIBILITY
The candidate should be a graduate in any discipline from a recognised university with a minimum score of 50%.
For candidates belonging to SC/ST category, a minimum score of 45% in graduation is essential to apply for the
SNAP test. However, a final year candidate may also apply for the test, provisionally. Age should not be less
than 21 years.
Institute Associated with Symbiosis International University

Following are the Constituent Institutes of the Post-graduate Institutes of Symbiosis
International University
1. Symbiosis Institute of Business Management (SIBM), Pune
2. Symbiosis Institute of Computer Studies & Research (SICSR), Pune
3. Symbiosis Institute of Media & Communication (SIMC), Pune
4. Symbiosis Institute of International Business (SIIB), Pune
5. Symbiosis Institute of Management Studies (SIMS), Pune
6. Symbiosis Centre for Management & Human Resource Development (SCMHRD), Pune
7. Symbiosis Institute of Telecom Management (SITM), Pune
8. Symbiosis Centre for Information Technology (SCIT), Pune
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9. Symbiosis Institute of Business Management (SIBM), Bengaluru

10. Symbiosis Institute of Operations Management (SIOM), Nasik
11. Symbiosis Institute of Health Sciences (SIHS), Pune
12. Symbiosis School of Media and Communication (SSMC), Bengaluru
13. Symbiosis School of Banking and Finance (SSBF), Pune
14. Symbiosis Institute of Business Management (SIBM), Hyderabad
15. Symbiosis School of Sports Sciences (SSSS), Pune
SNAP TEST STRUCTURE

The duration of SNAP Test is 120 min. It is an objective type test in which the candidate has to choose an
appropriate response from the given options. Every wrong response accounts for 1/4 marks will be deducted.
The test is conducted in four sections, namely :
1. Analytical and Logical Reasoning
2. General English : Reading Comprehension, Verbal Ability and Verbal Reasoning
3. Quantitative Aptitude, Data Interpretation and Data Sufficiency
Number of Sections 3
Total Questions 110 (105 MCQs and 5 Non-MCQs)
Negative Marking 1/4th of Marks for the Question
SNAP PREVIOUS YEARS’ANALYSIS

No. of Questions Asked
Section
2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009
General Awareness -- 25 30 30 40 40 40 40 40 40 40
Analytical and Logical Reasoning 36 35 40 40 30 30 30 30 30 30 30
General English 34 35 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40
Quantitative Aptitude, Data Interpretation
and Data Sufficiency 40 35 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40
Total 110 130 150 150 150 150 150 150 150 150 150
SELECTION PROCEDURE
As per the process, the candidates securing the minimum score in the SNAP Test will be shortlisted for further
rounds. The later have to appear in the Group Exercise (GE), Personal Interview (PI) and Written Ability Test (WAT).
The final merit steps will be prepared on the basis of below mentioned weightage :
Snap Score Group Exercise Personal Interview Written Ability

(GE) (PI) Test (WAT) TOTAL
Out of 150
50 10 30 10 100
SNAP
SYMBIOSIS NATIONAL APTITUDE TEST
Solved Paper 2019*

Time : 2 hrs
INSTRUCTIONS
1. There are 110 questions in this paper.
2. There are three sections viz., Section A (General English, Reading Comprehension, Verbal Reasoning, Verbal
Ability) each question carry 1.5 mark, Section B (Analytical & Logical Reasoning) each question carry
1.5 mark and Section C (Quantitative Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency) each question carry 1 mark.
3. In Section C also contains 5 Special (Non-MCQs) Questions carry 2 marks each.
4. For each incorrect attempt 1/4th of marks allotted will be deducted.
SECTION A : GENERAL ENGLISH, READING COMPREHENSIOIN,

VERBAL REASONING, VERBAL ABILITY
1. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate 4. Choose the word closest in meaning to the
conjunction. given word.
You must start at once; ……… you will be late. Lingua franca
(a) otherwise (b) than (a) universal language (b) second language
(c) until (d) unless (c) common language (d) mother tongue
Sol. (a) In the given sentence, a suggestion is given to Sol. (c) Lingua franca refers to a language that is adopted
show the result that would come out if it is not as a common language between speakers whose
followed. Hence, otherwise will be the appropriate native languages are different. So, ‘Common
filler. language’ is its closest meaning word.
2. Choose the word closest in meaning to the 5. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the
given word. given word.
Abnegation Petulant
(a) sacrifice (b) renunciation (a) peevish (b) bad tempered
(c) praise (d) indulgence (c) amiable (d) impatient
Sol. (b) Abnegation means an act of renouncing or Sol. (c) Petulant means bad-tempered or grumpy. Therefore,
rejecting something. So, renunciation is its closest its antonym can be good-humoured or amiable.
meaning word.
6. Find the word that is the odd one out.
3. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the (a) Exacerbate (b) Alleviate
given word. (c) Mitigate (d) Assuage
Abjure Sol. (a) Out of the given options, option (b) (Alleviate),
(a) deny (b) profess (c) (Mitigate) and (d) (Assuage) means to make a
(c) reject (d) drop problemless severe. On the other hand Exacerbate
Sol. (b) Abjure means to reject or deny. Therefore, its means to make a problem worse. Hence, option (a)
antonym can be declare or profess. is odd one out.
2 SNAP ~Solved Paper 2019
7. Change the voice of the given sentence. 14. Find a correct match of grammatical function
I didn’t realise that somebody was watching me. with the usage of the word DOWN.
(a) I didn’t realise that I was being watched.
List I List II
(b) I didn’t realise that somebody had been watching me.
(c) I didn’t realise that somebody was watching. A. Noun 1. Some people can down a whole
chicken in a meal.
(d) I didn’t realise that I was being watched.
B. Verb 2. There is a down trend in the real
Sol. (a) I didn’t realise that I was being watched, is the estate market.
correct active voice sentence of the given sentence
C. Adjective 3. He was sent down to work in the
because the sentence is in past continuous and to
branch office.
change it in passive voice was/were + being + V3
should be used. D. Adverb 4. In southern England the downs are
so pretty.
8. Complete the meaning of the given sentence.
If you behaved well, your peers ……… you. A B C D A B C D
(a) will respect (b) should respect (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) can respect (d) would respect (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 2 3 1 4
Sol. (d) The filler ‘would respect’ makes the sentence Sol. (b) In sentence (1) the word down means to drink or
grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. to consume,. Hence, down is used as a verb.
In sentence (2), ‘down’ shows a characteristic quality
9. Choose the correct word from the given of a trend. Hence, here it is used as an adjective.
options.
In sentence (3), ‘down’ adds to the quality of the
The defence lawyer ……… there was verb. Hence, herein it is used as an adverb.
insufficient evidence to convict his client. In sentence (4), ‘down’ represents the low hills.
(a) negated (b) reiterated (c) renounce (d) exclaimed
Hence, it is used as a noun.
Sol. (b) The correct word is ‘reiterated’ to fill the given
blank which means repeated. 15. Choose the word closest in meaning to the
given word.
10. Choose the correct word from the given options. Diaphanous
The stars were ……… in the sky. (a) hard (b) opaque (c) thick (d) transparent
(a) scintillating (b) showering Sol. (d) Diaphanous means sheer, light, delicate and
(c) invisible (d) dimming transclucent. Hence, transparent/sheer can be its
Sol. (a) The correct word for the given blank is closest synonym.
‘scintillating’, which means shining.
16. Fill in the blanks with correct modal verb.
11. Choose the word NOT having a prefix. ……… you mind if I borrowed your car?
(a) Distemper (b) Dislike (a) should (b) will (c) would (d) can
(c) Dishonest (d) Disagree
Sol. (c) As the statement is a polite request, the most
Sol. (a) Out of the given option, the word distemper has appropriate modal verb to be used here is ‘would’.
no prefix. All other words have dis-as prefix to
become an antonym of the root word. 17. Change the voice of the given sentence.
Windowpanes are washed by cleaners.
12. Identify the correct figure of speech. (a) Cleaners work to wash windowpanes
I must have called out to you a thousand times. (b) Cleaners washed the windowpanes
(a) simile (b) repetition (c) Cleaners wash the windowpanes
(c) hyperbole (d) oxymoron (d) None of the above
Sol. (c) In the given sentence, there is an exaggeration of Sol. (c) The given sentence is in passive voice. To convert
a thought or idea. Therefore, it is a hyperbole it the subject and object would be interchanged and
wherein an exaggerated statement is presented. Ist form of verb should be used with subject.
13. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the Hence, the converted sentence would be ‘‘Cleaners
given word. wash windowpanes’’.
Servile 18. Identify the correct figure of speech.
(a) Imperious (b) Humorous
Neeta needed new notebooks.
(c) Helpful (d) Conspiratorial (a) Alliteration (b) Onomatopia
Sol. (a) Servile means someone who is extremely willing (c) Assonance (d) Paradox
to act to obeyed. Therefore, out of the given options, Sol. (a) In the given sentence, there is a repetition of a
Imperious is its correct antonym, as it means giving consonant sound ‘N’. Hence, such a repetition of
orders and expecting to be obeyed. sounds is a literary device called Alliteration.
SNAP ~Solved Paper 2019 3
19. Which part of speech is the given (bold) word? his idea of his surroundings. As long as the environment
is safe, the child learns with incredible speed. However,
This wood will make a good hiding place.
(a) Verb (b) Adverb (c) Adjective (d) Modal when the environment is scary or stressful, the child
unlearns past learning just as rapidly. In the early years
Sol. (c) The word ‘hiding’ in the given sentence presents of every child’s life, whenever there is shock, violence,
a characteristic quality of the place. So, it is
fear or pain, these intense emotions are imprinted
adjective.
deeply into memory. Whenever the same activity or
20. Choose the correct option of the following situation is repeated, the nervous system and body
incorrect sentence. subconsciously re-experience the memory of that
trauma. Any emotional situation that takes us out of the
No matter what that I do, I can’t make her
present and into the past means that whenever the same
happy.
(a) No matter what I do, I won’t make her happy. kind of emotion crops up later in our life we return to
(b) No matter what I do, I can’t make her happy. the past for our reference point. If that point was at age
(c) No matter what I do, that I won’t make her happy. three, we find ourselves behaving like a three-year-old.
(d) No matter whatever I do, I won’t ever make her happy. We feel childish and we behave childishly. Our feelings
are the cause of this ‘glitch’ in our learning process. We
Sol. (b) To make the given sentence grammatically know we should be able to make a positive change, but
correct and contextually meaningful, ‘that’ must be
that doesn’t change anything. The process of change
removed. Hence, option (b) is its correct answer.
need not be traumatic. We couldn’t have done any better
21. Fill in the blank with proper conditional. because we didn’t know how to. But we should realise
Suppose your car broke down in the middle of that was then and this is now! We can choose to choose
again. It’s up to us. It’s our movie!
nowhere, what ………… do?
(a) should you (b) will you (c) can you (d) would you 24. The ‘‘Frozen Feelings’’ being talked about are
Sol. (d) As the situation is conditional and asks what about
ones actions would be, ‘would you’ would be the (a) negative childhood experiences
most appropriate filler for the given blank. (b) childhood learning patterns
(c) inability to learn as an adult
22. Fill in the blank with appropriate option : (d) None of the above
I ………… anything from her in a long time. Sol. (a) According to the given stanza, the frozen feeling
(a) did not heard (b) should not have heard are those experiences of shock, violence, fear or pain
(c) haven’t heard (d) None of these that has a deep impact on the child. Such a negative
Sol. (c) As the sentence is in present perfect form, childhood experience is imprinted forever into the
‘haven’t heard’ is the most appropriate filler. child’s mind.
23. Read this sentence and answer the three 25. A ‘glitch’ is
questions to fill the blanks therein : (a) a ditch
(b) uneasy emotions
Construction : When the engineer visited the (c) sudden malfunction or breakdown
…………, the chaos of cement, steel and sand (d) learning patterns
was a horrible …………, so, he had no option
Sol. (c) According to the author, a glitch refers to an
but to ………… that in his report. unusual behaviour generally a sudden malfunction or
(a) site, sight, cite (b) cite, site, sight
breakdown that results due to the frozen feelings.
(c) cite, sight, site (d) sight, site, sight
Sol. (a) The correct order of the words to fill the blanks 26. Identify the correct sentence, based on the
are site, sight, cite, to make the sentence paragraph.
grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. (a) The process of change needs to be traumatic.
Site means a piece of land where a building was, is (b) We feel childish and we behave childishly.
or will be situated. Sight means able to see in the (c) Both sentences are incorrect.
way mentioned. Cite means to mention something as (d) Both the sentences are correct.
an example especially one that supports, proves or Sol. (b) As mentioned in the passage, there are glitches in
explains an idea or situation. ones behaviour due to frozen feelings. Due to these
glitches, one feel childish and behaves childlishly.
Directions (Q.Nos. 24-26) Read the passage carefully
and answer within the context. Directions (Q.Nos. 27-31) Read the following passage
‘‘A way to deal with frozen feelings’’ Every child and answer the questions :
experiences all that happens around him with total ‘‘There are several factors that contribute to wisdom. Of
awareness. In the first seven years the child’s brain is these I should put first a sense of proportion; the
like a sponge, taking in all sensory inputs and building capacity to take accounts of all the important factors in a
problem and to attach to each its due weight. This has have a larger intellectual element than has been
become more difficult than it used to be owing to the customary in what has been thought of as moral
extent and complexity of the specialised knowledge instruction. I think that the disastrous result of hatred
required of various kinds of technicians. Suppose, for and narrow mindedness to those who fed them can be
example, that you are engaged in research in scientific pointed out incidentally in the course of giving
medicine. The work is difficult and is likely to absorb the knowledge. Knowledge and morals ought not to be too
whole of your intellectual energy. You have no time to much separated. It is true that the kind of specialised
consider the effect which your discoveries or invention knowledge which is required for various kinds of skills
may have outside the field of medicine. You succeed (let has very little to do with wisdom. But it should be
us say), as modern medicine has succeeded, in enormously supplemented in education by wider surveys calculated
lowering the infant death-rate, not only in Europe and to put it in its place in the totality of human activities.
America, but also in Asia and Africa. This has the entirely Even the best technicians should also be good citizens,
unintended result of making the food supply inadequate i.e. citizens of the world and not of any one nation.
and lowering the standard of life in the most populous With every increase of knowledge and skill, wisdom
parts of the world. To take an even more spectacular becomes more necessary for every such increase
example, which is in everybody’s mind at the present augments our capacity of realising our purposes, and
time- you study the composition of the atom from a therefore augments our capacity for evil, if our
disinterested desire for knowledge and incidentally place purposes are unwise. The world needs wisdom as it has
in the hands of powerful lunatics the means of destroying never needed it before; and if knowledge continues to
the human race. In such ways the pursuit of knowledge increase, the world will need wisdom in the future even
may become harmful unless it is combined with wisdom; more than it does now.
and wisdom in the sense of comprehensive vision is not
necessarily present in specialists in the pursuit of
27. According to the author what results in
knowledge. Comprehensiveness alone, however, is not growth of wisdom?
(a) Widening knowledge and narrowing feelings
enough to constitute wisdom. There must be, also, certain
(b) Acquiring specialised knowledge which is required
awareness of ends of human life. This may be illustrated
for various kinds of skills
by the study of history. Many eminent historians have
(c) Viewing the world with complete impartiality
done more harm than good because they viewed facts
(d) None of the above
through the distorting medium of their own passions.
Hegel had a philosophy of history which did not suffer Sol. (c) According to the author, our impartiality results
from any lack of comprehensiveness, since it started from in the growth of wisdom.
earliest time and continued into an indefinite future. But 28. According to the author the essence of
the chief lesson of history which he sought to inculcate wisdom is …………
was that from the year A.D. 400 down to his own time, (a) Deliverance from the oppression of here and now
Germany had been the most important nation and the (b) Subduing from the oppression of here and now
standard bearer of progress in the world. Perhaps one (c) Captivity from the oppression of here and now
could stretch the comprehensiveness that constitutes (d) All of the above
wisdom to include not only intellect but also feeling. It is
Sol. (b) According to the author, the essence of wisdom
by no means uncommon to find men/women whose
is subduing from the oppression here and now. To
knowledge is wide but those feelings are narrow. Such
get emancipated or free from ‘‘the tyranny of the
men / women lack what I am calling wisdom. I think the here and the now’’.
essence of wisdom is emancipation, as far as possible,
from the tyranny of the here and the now. We cannot help 29. What according to the author is the
the egoism of our senses. Sight, sound and touch are relationship between knowledge and wisdom?
bound up with our own bodies and cannot be made (a) As human wisdom increases there is increase in
impersonal. Our emotions start similarly from ourselves. knowledge created
An infant feels hunger or discomfort; gradually with the (b) As knowledge keeps on increasing there is lesser
years his horizon widens, and, in proportion as his need of wisdom
thoughts and feelings become less personal and less (c) As knowledge keeps on increasing there is a
concerned with his own physical states, he achieves higher need for wisdom
growing wisdom. This is of course a matter of degree. No (d) As growth in wisdom stops, knowledge creation
one can view the world with complete impartiality; stagnates.
however, it is possible to make a continual approach Sol. (c) According to the author, as knowledge keeps on
towards impartiality, on the one hand, by knowing things increasing there is a higher need for wisdom.
somewhat remote in time or space, and, on the other
hand, by giving to such things their due weight in our 30. The example used by the author to explain
feelings. It is this approach towards impartiality that the ways in which the pursuit of knowledge
constitutes growth in wisdom. Perhaps in this sense the can be harmful, unless combined with
wisdom can be taught. I think that this teaching should wisdom, is
(a) the space mission

33. I. My cousin brother, who lives
(b) medicine that lowers infant mortality across the world
II. in Goa, is eager to visit us
(c) the progress of Germany
III. in Mumbai and aspires to have
IV. a glimpse of the city
Sol. (b) The example used by the author to explain the (a) Only I (b) Only II
ways in which the pursuit of knowledge can be (c) Only III (d) Only IV
harmful, unless combined will wisdom, is medicine
Sol. (a) In statement I, the punctuation (,) used after my
that lowers infant mortality across the world.
cousin brother must be removed to make the
31. What factors according to the author, sentence grammatically correct.
contribute to wisdom? 34. Match the following idiomatic references to
(a) A sense of proportion, giving knowledge, study of
history, emancipation
parts of the human anatomy.
(b) A sense of proportion, dignity, knowledge, skill List I List II
(c) Comprehensiveness, a sense of proportion, A. Palm 1. could not tolerate the insult.
awareness of the end of human life, emancipation B. Foot 2. to look at with energy and desire.
from the tyranny of the present
C. Eye 3. to put the blame on someone else
D. Stomach 4. forced to pay the bill.
Sol. (c) According to the author, comprehensiveness, a
sense of proportion, awareness of the end of human Codes
life, emacipation from tyranny of the present, A B C D A B C D
together contribute to wisdom. (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 4 1 3
Directions (Q.Nos. 32 and 33) Read each of the Sol. (c) Parts of human anatomy and their idiomatic
components of the given sentences and mark the phrases are :
component with grammatical error. 1. Palm is used when blame is put on someone else.
32. I. He is capable at 2. Foot is used when someone is forced to pay the bill.
II. twisting any fact 3. Eye is used to look at someone with envy and desire.
III. without any suspicion 4. Stomach is used to refer to the act of not
IV. at any time tolerating the insult.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III (d) Only IV Hence , (c) is the correct option.
Sol. (a) In statement I ‘at’ must be replaced by of to
make the sentence grammatically correct.
SECTION B : ANALYTICAL & LOGICAL REASONING

35. Choose the word that will complete the second 50
Number of males = × 120 = 60
pair in the same way as first pair 100
Royal Bengal Tiger : India :: Snow Leopard: 50
Number of females = × 120 = 60
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Bangladesh 100
(c) Pakistan (d) Afghanistan Now, 60 (M)
Sol. (c,d) Royal Bengal Tiger resides in India, same way
Snow Leopard which resides in cold areas is found 120 60 (M)
in Afghanistan as well as in Pakistan.
60 (F) 60 (M)
36. A new species lays exactly 120 eggs out of
60 (F)
which 50% are male and 50% are female.. The 60 (M)
each
female insect hatch and grow in a span of 20 female 60 (F)
days to lay eggs by themselves. On 1st April,
2018, an insect laid 120 eggs. Find how many 60 (F)
eggs will be hatched, (approx) by the end of Hence, total number of eggs hatched
may 2018. = 60 × 60 × 60 × 60 = 12960000
(a) 216000 (b) 25920000
(c) 432000 (d) None of these 37. A + B means A is sister of B, A/B means A is
Sol. (d) Eggs laid by insect on 1st April, 2018 are 120 son of B, A = B means A is brother of B, A @ B
eggs. means A is father of B.
Which of the following shows M is grandson of P? An unfolded dice is given above. Find the
Q correct answer which can be formed by folding
(a) P = (b) P @ B = S @ M
M the unfolded dice.
(c) P @ Q + M (d) P/Q/S + M
Sol. (b) P (+)
(f)
(a) (b)
(+) (+)
B (b) S (f)
M
From the given options, option (b) only fits for the
(c) (d)
solution. Although, in this option also it is not confirmed
whether M is grandson or granddaughter of P.
38. In a certain code language, if INDIA is written Sol. (c) The opposite faces of the dice will be
as 95491, then JAPAN is written as
(a) 81815 (b) 11614 (c) 11715 (d) 101614
=
Sol. (c) The alphabets from A to I are coded as numerals 1
to 9. The same trend starts from J to R and from S to Z.
A B C ………… I
1 2 3 ………… 9
=
J K L ………… R
1 2 3 ………… 9
S T U ………… Z
1 2 3 ………… 8
=
Hence, from the above codes,
I N D I A
9 5 4 9 1 Hence, the dice formed will be
Similarly,
J A P A N
1 1 7 1 5
39. If 1st June, 2013 is Saturday, then 1st June,

1981 is 41. Fill in the missing block logically
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
6 2 5 4
(c) Saturday (d) Thursday
4 1 3 2
Sol. (a) From 1st June, 2013 to 1st June, 1981 there are
32 yr. So, there are 32 odd days. 152 7 98 ?
The leap years between 1981 to 2013 are 1984, (a) 58 (b) 48 (c) 56 (d) 72
1988, 1992, 1996, 2000, 2004, 2008, 2012 Sol. (c) 6 − 4 = 216 − 64 = 152
3 3
∴ Total = 8 yr 23 − 13 = 8 − 1 = 7
Hence, the total number of odd days 53 − 33 = 125 − 27 = 98
= ( 32 + 8) ÷ 7 43 − 23 = 64 − 8 = 56
40
= days = 5 odd days
7 42. Vijay’s grandfather has an old cuckoo clock. It
As 1st June, 2013 is Saturday. takes 5s for the cuckoo clock to chime 5
1st June, 1981 will be 5 days behind Saturday that is cuckoos. How long will it take to chime 10
Monday. cuckoos?
(a) 10 s (b) 11 s (c) 10 : 25 s (d) 11 : 25 s
40. Sol. (d) It takes 5 s for the cuckoo clock to chime 5
cuckoos. i.e 1st cuckoo clock chimes at t = 0 s
5th cuckoo clock chimes at t = 5 s
5
Time interval = s = 125
. s
4
For the 9th chime = 9 × 1. 25 = 11. 25 seconds
Hence, the time taken to chime 10 cuckoos is
11 : 25 s.
43. A person wants a house such that all sides of 46. A clock gains 10 min a day. The clock was
the house face North he should build the house corrected at 6:00 am. what will be the correct
(a) on the South pole time when the clock shows 11:00 am, following
(b) on the North pole day?
(c) at the equator (a) 10 : 48 am (b) 11 : 00 am (c) 11 : 45 am (d) 10 : 30 am
(d) at an angle of 120° with the East direction
Sol. (a) Normal clock - in 24 h = 1440 min
Sol. (a) The house build at South pole has all its sides Defective clock - in 24 h = 1450 min
facing North. And the house build at North pole has
From today’s 6 am to the following day 11:00 am.
all its sides facing South.
So, it will be 29 hours.
44. In a shouting game, Rohit and Shiv responded For the defective clock the minutes will be
in the proportion of Ram and Shyam’s 29 × 60 = 1740 min
shouting. Now, following the ratio pattern,
Study the table and answer accordingly, what Normal clock − 1440 ?
will come at the place of question mark(?) Defective clock – 1450 1740
Ram Shyam Rohit Shiv 29 × 50 29 × 60
9:00 am 4 4 7 7 Ratio = 5 : 6
5 1440
9:15 am 3 6 2 4 Hence, =
6 ?
9:30 am 2 6 2 ? 1440 × 6
?= = 1728 min
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 2 5
Sol. (c) At 9:00 am the ratio of shouting of Ram and 1728 min = 28 h 48 min which will be 10:48 am.
Shyam is 1 : 1, hence the responding of Rohit and
Shiv is at a ratio of 1 : 1.
47. Vishal takes 3 pills with a gap of 30 min. What
is the minimum time by which Vishal will get
Similarly,
rid of his pain?
At 9 : 15 am the ratio is 1 : 2. (a) 90 min (b) 60 min (c) 58 min (d) 100 min
At 9 : 30 am the ratio is 1 : 3. Sol. (b) Let the time at which pill is taken be ‘t’. So, first
1 2
Hence, = pill taken at t1 = 0 min, 2nd pill taken at t 2 = 30 min
3 ? and 3rd pill taken at t 3 = 60 min
? =6 Hence, after 60 min Vishal will get rid of his pain.
45. A statement is followed by two Courses of 48. In a mobile manufacturing company 6 staff
action I and II. Assume everything in the members packed 6 mobiles in 6 min. The
statement to be true. Decide which of the two management wants 60 mobile to be packed in
given suggested courses of action logically 60 min. How many staff member in total are
follows for pursuing. required?
Statement Since 2018, the bulk of India’s (a) 60 (b) 360 (c) 600 (d) 6
population has comprised of young working MT M T
Sol. (d) 1 1 = 2 2 where, M = Number of mens
people, much more than the dependent W1 W2
population, children below 5 yr of age and old T = Time taken for doing the work, W = Work done
people above 65 yr of age. This trend will M1 = 6 M2 = x
continue for the next 55 yr.
T1 = 6 min T2 = 60 min
Courses of Action W1 = 6 mobiles W2 = 60 mobiles
I. There will be a huge increase in the GDP 6 × 6 x × 60
∴ =
of the country. 6 60
II. According to a report by UNFPA, this x = 6 staff members
population will be able to contribute Hence, 6 staff members in total are required to pack
effectively, if good health facilities, 60 mobiles in 60 min.
education and proper infrastructure are
provided to the whole population. 49. Choose the word that will complete the second
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows pair in the same way as first pair.
(c) Only II follows (d) Both I and II follow Ornithologist : Bird :: Herpetologist:
Sol. (c) Only II logically follows, as if good health (a) Snakes (b) Reptiles
facilities, education and proper infrastructure are (c) Mammals (d) None of these
provided to the whole population, the population Sol. (b) As ornithologist studies birds, similarly
will be of working people for the next coming years. herpetologist studies reptiles.
50. Amar consumed 100 laddoos from Monday to 54. Kishore says, “that man’s father is my father’s
Friday. Each day, he consumed 6 more laddoos son”. How is that man related to Kishore?
than the previous day. How many laddoos did (a) Uncle (b) Son
he consume on Wednesday? (c) Kishore himself (d) Cousin
(a) 12 laddoos (b) 20 laddoos (c) 24 laddoos (d) 8 laddoos Sol. (b) Father
Sol. (b) The total laddoos consumed in the 5 days from
Monday to Friday = 100 Kishore
Let laddoos consumed on Monday = a
There is an increase of 6 laddoos in consumption
from the previous day. (man)
Therefore. Kishore’s son
a + ( a + 6) + ( a + 12) + ( a + 18) + ( a + 24) = 100 Kishore’s father’s son will be either Kishore him self
5a + 60 = 100 or his brother. So, the man will be either Kishore’s
a =8 son or his nephew. From the given options, the man
Laddoo consumed on Monday is 8. Laddoos will be Kishore’s son.
consumed on Wednesday = 8 + 12 = 20 laddoos
55. How many times does the letter ‘A’ appear
51. Find the missing term in the following series from 0 to 100?
0, 1, 2, 5, 20, 25, ?, 157, (a) 2 (b) 5
(a) 35 (b) 150 (c) 145 (d) 40 (c) 1 (d) None of these
Sol. (b)0 + 1= 1 Sol. (d) The letter ‘A’ appears first time in the word
1× 2 = 2 ‘thousand’.
2+ 3=5 So, the answer will be (zero) ‘0’ which is not given
5 × 4 = 20 in the options. So, option (d) will be the answer.
20 + 5 = 25
25 × 6 = 150 56. Population of Timbaktoo (2 yr ago) was
150 + 7 = 157 125000. Due to natural calamities people
Hence, option (b) is the answer. started migrating. So, population decreased at
the rate of 4% per annum. How many migrated
52. Which of the answer figures given will from this town in past 2 yr?
complete the pattern of the question figure? (a) 115200 (b) 105000
(c) 9800 (d) None of these
Sol. (c) The population 2 yr ago = 125000
Decrease in population = 4% per annum
The present population of the town
96 96
= × × 125000 = 115200
(a) (b) 100 100
(c) (d)
People migrated from the town in past 2 yr
= 125000 − 115200 = 9800
Sol. (a) Clearly, option figure (a) completes the original
figure which looks like the figure as shown below. Directions (Q. Nos. 57-59) Read the given information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Five movies-Do Bigha Jameen, Sholay, 3 idiots, Chak
De, Aanand screening on Monday to Friday in any order.
Movie screened on Friday remains till Sunday.
Screening of Do Bigha Jameen and Chak De should not
be on first and last day. Chak De should be followed by
53. Find what will come at the place of question Aanand. Sholay is screened immediately after Do Bigha
mark(?). Jameen. There is only one movie screened between
Sholay and 3 idiots.
=9 =1 =?
57. Which movie was screened on Friday?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 16 (a) Aanand (b) Chak De
(c) 3 Idiots (d) Do Bigha Jameen
Sol. (a) The intersection points in the figure are taken as
the answer 58. Sholay was screened on which day?
(a) Monday (b) Friday
=9 =1 =4
(c) Wednesday (d) None of these
59. 3 idiots was screened on which day? Box O’s serial number is 19. The box which has serial
(a) Friday (b) Wednesday number as 17 is placed above the box which has serial
(c) Tuesday (d) Monday number as 34.
Solutions (Q. Nos. 57-59) 61. What is the serial number of Box H?
Mon - 3 idiots Tue - Do Bigha Jameen (a) 23 (b) 33 (c) 17 (d) 27
Wed - Sholay Thurs - Chak De
62. Which among the following combination is true?
Fri - Aanand (a) Box N - Brown - 21 - 1st rack
57. (a) The movie Aanand was screened on Friday. (b) Box M - Yellow - 34 - 3rd rack
58. (c) The movie Sholay was screened on Wednesday. (c) Box K - Blue - 31 - 5th rack
(d) Box O - Orange - 19 - 8th rack
59. (d) The movie 3 idiots was screened on Monday.
60. Rahul asked Shyam to find N such that N! > 10 N 63. In certain way Box O is related to serial
and must be the smallest integer. Shyam number 17, Box H is related to serial number
calculates and find N is between 10 to 15, but he 34 and in same way Box M is related to which
asks his friend Sohan who says it is between 16 of the following serial number?
(a) 21 (b) 23 (c) 37 (d) 27
to 20. Then, Shyam asks his neighbour Suresh
who says it is between 21 to 25. Then, he asks 64. Which of the following statement is true?
his cousin Sonal who says it is 15 between 26 to (a) Only two boxes are placed below Box M
31. Who is correct? (b) Box H is placed two boxes above the Red colored box
(a) Suresh (b) Sonal (c) Box L and Box K are placed adjacent to the box
(c) Shyam (d) None of them which has serial number 34
Sol. (a) From 1, 2, 3, 4 …………… 19, 20 (d) None of the above
it is not possible i.e N! >/ 10N 65. Three of the following four are alike in a
For 25! > 1025 certain way and hence form a group. Which of
It is possible. the following does not belong to the group?
Hence, Suresh was correct. (a) Box L - 34 (b) Box K - 23
(c) Box H - 19 (d) Box O - 17
Directions (Q.Nos. 61-65) Read the given information Solutions (Q.Nos. 61-65)
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Rack Box Color Serial Numer
Eight boxes namely H to O are placed in a rack one
above the other. The lowermost rack is numbered as 1 8 O Brown 19
and above is 2 and so on. Each of the boxes is having 7 J White 23
different colors among Blue, Green, Yellow, Red, White,
Orange, Indigo and Brown. Each of the boxes is having 6 H Indigo 17
different serial numbers among 19, 23, 17, 31, 34, 37, 27 5 K Blue 31
and 21. All the above information is not necessarily in
the same order. 4 M Yellow 34
There are three boxes placed between the box which 3 I Red 37
having serial number as 27 and the Indigo colored box. 2 L Green 27
Box J’s serial number is not 27. The Indigo colored box is
1 N Orange 21
placed adjacent to blue colored box. Box I’s serial
number is 37 and is not placed at the topmost rack. Box 61. (c) The serial number of Box H is 17.
M is yellow colored and placed adjacent to the Red
62. (c) Box K - Blue - 31 - 5th rack is the correct
colored box. Box H is placed in the even numbered rack combination.
above fourth and it is placed adjacent to box which has
−2
serial number as 31. Not more than five boxes are placed 63. (d) As, Box O → Serial number 17
above the Red colored box. Box J is placed in the seventh −2
and Box H → Serial number 34
rack and Box H is placed adjacent to Box J. Two boxes −2
are placed between the boxes having the serial number Similarly, Box M → Serial number 27
21 and 34. Box J is White colored. Maximum numbers of Box M is related to serial number 27.
boxes are placed between the Brown colored box and 64. (d) None of the given option is true. Hence, the
Orange colored box. Box H is not Brown colored. Box L is correct answer is option (d).
Green colored and it is placed adjacent to the Orange 65. (b) Following the common explanations, Box K is
colored box. Box N’s serial number is 21 and placed in placed in 5th rack and Box J (serial number 23) is
the lowermost rack. The box which has serial number as placed in 7th rack i.e. odd number combination.
23 is placed three boxes above the Yellow colored box. Hence, option (b) does not belong to the group.
Directions (Q.Nos. 66 and 67) In each group of 68. In a coded language LAUGH is written as 62 7
question below are two conclusions followed by five set of 107 37 42, then SMILE will be written as
statements. You have to choose the correct set of (Note Do not include spaces in your answer.)
statements that logically satisfies given conclusions. (a) 97 67 47 62 27 (b) 67 42 47 62 27
66. Conclusions (c) 97 65 45 62 28 (d) 97 67 47 61 27
Atleast some states are district. Sol. (a) LAUGH is written as 62 7 107 37 42
Some towns being district is a possibility. In the alphabetical series order.
L = 12 A=1 U = 21 G =7 H =8
Statements
The sequence is
I. All districts are states. Some states are
village. No town is district. (n × 5) + 2
II. No districts is states. Some states are 62 = (12 × 5) + 2
towns. No town is village. 7 = (1× 5) + 2
III. All districts are states. Some states are 107 = ( 21× 5) + 2
towns. No town is village. 37 = (7 × 5) + 2
IV. No districts is states. Some states are 42 = (8 × 5) + 2
towns. No town is village. Similarly, S M I L E
V. All districts are states. Some states are S = 19 M = 13
village. Some town are village. I =9 L = 12 E =5
(a) Only Statement I (b) Both Statements II and III (19 × 5) + 2 = 97
(c) Only Statement VI (d) Both Statements III and V (13 × 5) + 2 = 67
Sol. (d) (9 × 5) + 2 = 47
Statement V (12 × 5) + 2 = 62
S ( 5 × 5) + 2 = 27
D V T Hence, the code for SMILE will be
97 67 47 62 27
Statement III 69. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’ and ‘×’
S
means ‘−’, then what will be the value of
D T x V 16 ÷ 64 − 4 × 4 + 3 = ?
(a) 20 (b) 52 (c) 15 (d) 12
Sol. (a) 16 ÷ 64 − 4 × 4 + 3 = ?
Hence, both Statements III and V follow.
16 + 64 ÷ 4 − 4 × 3 = ?
67. Conclusions 16 + 16 − 4 × 3 = ?
No car is a bike. 32 − 12 = ?
? = 20
All bikes being vans is a possibility.
Statements 70. The question below is followed by two
I. All scooters are bikes. No bike is a moped. Arguments I and II. You have to decide which
All cars are bikes. All mopeds are vans of the argument is a ‘strong’ argument and
II. Some scooters are bikes. No bike is a van. which is a ‘weak’ argument?
All cars are mopeds. All mopeds are vans. Statement Should young entrepreneurs be
III. Some scooters are bikes. No bike is a encouraged?
moped. All cars are bikes . All mopeds are Arguments I. Yes, they will help in the
vans. industrial development of the country.
IV. All scooters are bikes. No bike is a van. All
cars are mopeds . All mopeds are vans. II. Yes, they will reduce the burden on the
V. All scooters are bikes. No bike is a moped. employment market.
(a) If only Argument I is strong
All cars are mopeds . All mopeds are vans
(b) If only Argument II is strong
(a) Only Statement V (b) Only Statement I
(c) If both I and II are strong
(c) Only Statement III (d) Both Statements III and IV
(d) If either I or II is strong
Sol. (a) Statement V
V Sol. (c) It is very clear that encouragement of the young
B M entrepreneur will open up the fields for setting up of
S x C new industries. Therefore, it will help in industrial
development. Consequently, more job opportunities
will be created. Thus, both the arguments are strong.
Hence, only Statement V follows.
SECTION C : QUANTATIVE DATA INTERPRETATION & SUFFICIENCY

4 4
3 1  −  4 
1 Area of shaded portion
 4  3 = Area of ∆ABC – Area of 3 sectors
71. Solve =?
2 2 π 2 3−π
3 1  −  4 
1 = 3− =
 4  3 2 2
(a) 7
7
(b) 6
5
(c) 5
5
(d) 9
7 73. Length of two trains is 150 m each. When they
12 12 12 12 are moving in opposite direction. They cross
a −b4 4
( a − b )( a + b )
2 2 2 2 each other in 20 s and when they are moving
Sol. (c) = in same direction. Then the faster train passed
a2 − b 2 ( a2 − b 2 )
slower train in 40 s. Then find the speed of
1 1
a=3 , b=4 [Q (a2 − b2 ) = ( a − b)( a + b)] faster train.
4 3 (a) 10.50 m/s (b) 11.25 m/s
1 2 1 2 (c) 30.75 m/s (d) 25 m/s
= a2 + b2 =  3  +  4 
 4  3 Sol. (b) Let speed of faster train = x m/s
1 1 Let speed of slower train = y m/s
a=3 , b=4
4 3 Distance = Speed × Time
13 2 13 2 Relative speed (in opposite direction) = ( x + y) m/s
=   +   = 13
1 1
+ Relative speed (in same direction) = ( x − y) m/s
 4  3 16 9
9 + 16 In opposite direction
25
= 13 × = 13 × 150 + 150
16 × 9 144 x+y= ⇒ x + y = 15 m/s …(i)
20
5 65 5
= 13 × = =5 In same direction,
12 12 12 150 + 150 300
x−y= =
72. What is the area of the shaded portion. 40 40
⇒ x − y = 7.5 …(ii)
1cm 1cm On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
x = 1125
. m/s
C B
74. Brigadier Rastogi travels from A to B at 40 km/h
1cm
on bike. He travels from B to C at 10 km/h on
cycle. The distance from A to B is equal to B to C.
A Then he travels from C to A via B at 24 km/h by
auto-rickshaw. Find his average speed.
(a) 20.5 km/h (b) 21 km/h
Sol.
(c) 18 km/h (d) 19.2 km/h
1cm 1cm
C B Sol. (d)
10 m 10 m A B C
Let distance from A to B LCM of 24, 10,
1cm 1cm 40 = 120 km
A 120
Time from A to B by bike = =3h
40
∆ABC is equilateral triangle of side 2 cm. Time from B to C by cycle =
120
= 12 h
3 10
Then, area of ∆ABC = × 2× 2= 3
4  Distance 
 3  Q Time = 
 Speed 
Area of equilateral triangle = × (side)2 
 4  240
Time from C to A by autorickshaw = = 10 h
Area of 3 sector of angle 60° each and radius 1 cm 24
each. Total distance 4 × 120
∴ Average Speed = =
θ Total time 3 + 12 + 10
= 3 × π (radius) 2 ×
360° 4 × 120
60° π =
= 3 × π (1) ×
2
= 25
360° 2
= 19.2 km/h
75. Rohan and Rahul are 144 km apart on point A 78. In an institute, MBA Exam is conducted and
and point B respectively. Rohan travels sectional cut off has been introduced into it.
constantly at 8 km/h. Rahul travels 4 km in Any candidate appearing for the exam cannot
first hour, 5 km in second hour, 6 km in third qualify unless he clears the sectional cut off. If
hour and so on. Find the point where they well there are 4 sections in the paper, then what is
meet. the number of ways on applicant may fail in
(a) 70 km from point A the exam.
(b) 74 km from point A Sol. There is two possibility pass (P) and Fail (F).
(c) 70 km from point B Then, possibility of 4 sections
(d) Exactly at midway between A and B
PPPF PPFP PFPP FPPP 
Sol. (d) Speed of Rohan = 8 km/h FFFP FFPF FPFF PFFF 
Speed of Rahul in start = 4 km/h =  = 16
PPFF PFFP FFPP FPPF 
and Rahul’s speed increases 1 km/h in ever hour. PFPF FPFP FFFF PPPP 
 
Relative speed in opposite direction AP series is
formed = 12, 13, 14 … = Cover distance per hour Total possibility = 16
Let they meet after n hour. The number of way on applicant may fail in the
According to the question, exam = (16 − 1) = 15
Distance between Rohan and Rahul 79. In how many ways letters of word POTICA can
= Cover distance in n hour be arranged such that vowel occupy at odd
) ] Q S n = [ 2a + (n − 1) d ]
n n positions?
144 = [ 2 × 12 + (n − 11
2  2  (a) 36 (b) 15 (c) 42 (d) 21
288 = n( 24 + n − 1) Sol. (a) POTICA has three vowel.

288 = n( 23 + n) Then, the required ways = 3! × 3! = 6 × 6 = 36
n2 + 23n + 288 = 0 80. Square, Circle, Hexagon and Octagon has
n2 − 9n + 32n + 288 = 0 equal perimeter. Which has maximum area?
(n − 9) (n + 32) = 0 (a) Square (b) Circle (c) Hexagon (d) Octagon
n = − 32 [it is not possible] Sol. (b) If the perimeter of figures is same then, area of
n =9 [it is possible] figure which has maximum number of sides is
So, after 9 h Rahul and Rohan meets, then distance maximum.
covered by Rohan = 9 × 8 = 72 km Then, circle has maximum area.
It means, they meet exactly at midway between A
and B.
81. In how many ways can one wrap 3 Kitkat, 2
Fivestar and 3 Bar one. If atleast one Kitkat
76. Find the unit’s place digit of has to be there in the gift pack and the gift
(1 !) 1! + (2 !) 2 ! + (3 !) 3! + … + (100 !) 100 ! pack has three chocolates.
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9 (a) 56 (b) 10 (c) 46 (d) 35
Sol. (c) 5! = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 Sol. (c) Number of ways of the gift pack = 8C 3 = 56
= 120 Number of ways of the gift pack without Kitkat
Unit digit for (5!, 6!, 7!, 8! … ∞) is zero. = 5C 3 = 10
Then, (1!)1! + ( 2!) 2 ! + ( 3!) 3 ! + ( 4 !) 4 ! Then, number of ways of the gift pack with Kitkat
= (1)1 + ( 2) 2 + (6) 6 + ( 24) 24 = 56 − 10 = 46
Unit place of these numbers = 1 + 4 + 6 + 6 = 17 82. The difference between compound and simple
∴ Required unit digit = 7. interest for a loan is `114 when invested for 2
yr. The rate of interest is 6% per annum. Find
77. In how many ways can 10 books on mechanics the loan amount.
and 8 books on quantum physics be placed in a
Sol. Difference between compound and simple interest for
row such that two books on quantum physics 2 years of a principal P with interest rate r% per annum
may not be together?
r 2
(a) 180 (b) 170 (c) 165 (d) 175 = P  
 100
11! 11!
Sol. (c) Required ways = C 8 = 11
=
6 2
8 ! × (11 − 8) ! 8 ! × 3! ∴ 114 = P  
 100
11 × 10 × 9 × 8 !
= = 165 114 × 100 × 100
8! × 3 × 2 × 1 ⇒ P= ≈ ` 31666.66
36
 a2  a 3  Sol. (b) Cosine rule

83. log a + log   + log  2  + … = ? b 2 + c2 − a2
 b b  cos 60° =
n/ 2 n/ 2 2bc
 an − 1   bn − 1  1
(a) log  n + 1  (b) log  n + 1  2 bc × = b 2 + c2 − a 2
b  a  2
 an + 1 
n/ 2
 bn + 1 
n/ 2
a2 = b2 + c2 − bc
(c) log  n − 1  (d) log  n − 1 
b  a  87. In a closed wooden box, length = 20 cm breadth
a  2
a  3 = 14 cm and height = 10 cm and thickness
Sol. (c) log a + log   + log  2  + K = 5 mm. If weight of empty box is 3.462 kg,
 
b b  then what is the weight of 1 cm 3 of wood?
 a 2 a3 a 4  Sol. Volume of cuboid = Length × Breath × Height
= log a1 × × × …
 b b2 b3 
0.5
[Q log ( abc ...) = log a + log b + log c + ... ]
 n ( n + 1)  n
a 2   an + 1  2
= log  n ( n − 1)  = log  n − 1 
0.5 0.5
b 2  b 
 
84. What is the coefficient of z 3 in −7 x y2 z 3 a2 b2 . 0.5

(a) − 7 (b) 7 a2b 2 (c) 7 xy 2 (d) − 7 xy 2 a2b 2
Volume of wood = External volume of box with
Sol. (d) Given, − 7x y 2 z 3 a2 b2 = ( −7xy 2 a2 b2 ) z 3 wood – Internal volume of box without wood
Coefficient of z 3 in ( −7xy 2 a2 b2 z 3 ) = 20 × 14 × 10 − 19 × 13 × 9
= − 7xy 2 a2 b2 = 2800 − 2223 = 577 cm 3
Total weight of wood = 3.462 kg
85. In a regular hexagon field, ropes are tied to
connect all vertices (digonal and side). What is Weight of 577 cm 3 of wood = 3462 gm
3462
the number of intersection points of ropes? Then, weight of 1 cm 3 of wood cm 3 = = 6 gm
(a) 13 (b) 19 (c) 15 (d) 18 577
Sol. (b) 14 15 88. Find the number of zeros at the end of
(5 !) 5 ! + (10 !) 10 ! + (50 !) 50 ! + (100 !) 100 !
3 (a) 120 (b) 60 (c) 240 (d) 480
2 4 5
1 Sol. (a) ( 5!) 5!
is add in the remaining numbers then only
6
19 16 we have to find number of zero in ( 5!) 5 !.
12 7
13 5! = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 120
11
10 8 Then, (120)120 has 120 zero.
9
18 17 89. Ritesh is twice as good as Mitesh. Ritesh takes
30 days less than Mitesh to finish a task. How
We can see that in above figure that there are 19 long will Ritesh and Mitesh take to complete
intersection points. the task together.
(a) 30 days (b) 20 days (c) 60 days (d) 15 days
86. In the given diagram, ∠CAB = 60° and
Sol. (a) Let efficiency of Ritesh = 2x
BC = a, AC = b and AB = c
and efficiency of Mitesh = x
C
Mitesh takes time to complete the task = 2x days
and, Ritesh taken time to complete the same task
= x days.
b a According to the question,
2x − x = 30
x = 30 days
60°
Mitesh’s time = 2 × 30 = 60 days
A c B Ritesh’s time = x = 30 days
∴ 1 day’s work Ritesh and Mitesh together
Then which of the following is correct? 1 1 2+ 1 1
(a) a2 + b 2 + c2 = abc (b) a2 = b 2 + c2 − bc = + = =
60 30 60 20
(c) c = a + b − ab
2 2 2
(d) b 2 = a2 + c2 − 2ac
∴ Ritesh and Mitesh complete the task in 20 days.
90. Mohan has a 200 L container. x L of milk is 95. How many qualified only DI section?
kept in the container. Mohan removes 6L milk (a) 10 (b) 25 (c) 20 (d) 17
and adds 6L water. He again replaces 6L of Solutions (Q. Nos. 92-95)
solution with water. Now milk and water are Maths DI
in the ratio 9 : 16. What is the value of x? 10 17
Sol. Add water = Initial quantity of substance ×
 Final substance  10
× 1 −  5 ×
 Final mixture  18 LR
 9  3 2x
6 = x 1 −  ⇒ 6 = x 1 −  ⇒6= = 15 litre 5 × × 10
 25  5 5
10 English
×
91. Indian express travels at 60 km/h and halts. For 25 ×
fixed time every hour. Due to halts, the average
speed become 50 km/h. Find the time of halt.
(a) 10 min (b) 20 min (c) 15 min (d) 12 min 92. (b) Qualified at least two section
= 10 + 5 + 5 + 25 + 10 = 55 aspirants
Sol. (a) Halt time
Speed of faster train − Speed of slower train 93. (a) Qualified in both Maths and LR = 10 aspirants
= × 60
Speed of faster train 94. (c) None of the student failed ie 0.
60 − 50 95. (d) Qualified only in DI = 17
= × 60 = 10 min
60
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-98)
Directions (Q. Nos. 92-95) Read the given Year
Quantity of Rice % Change over
information carefully and answer the given questions. (tonne) previous year
In 2015, 100 aspirants appeared for an exam. 20-21 134350 + 625

.
They had to answer four sections Maths, DI, LR and 30-31 1097172 + 12.5
English. 40-41 264280 + 1111
.
The number of students who qualified in Maths = 55. 50-51 127890 − 09.09
The number of students who qualified in LR= 38. 60-61 201924 + 20.00
The number of students who qualified in (Maths +
70-71 112325 − 16.66
English) = 30.
The number of students who qualified in (LR + English) 80-81 213465 − 25.00
= 15. 90-91 169368 + 33.33
The number of students who qualified in (Maths + LR) 00-01 100956 + 50.00
= 20.
10-11 23800 − 83.33
The number of students who qualified in (Maths + LR +
English) = 5.
96. What is the approx production of rice in year
The number of students who qualified in DI = 22. 1949-50?
The number of students who qualified in (DI + LR) = 5. (a) 132650 tonne (b) 160479 tonne
The number of students who qualified in (DI + Maths) (c) 140679 tonne (d) 120659 tonne
= 5. Sol. (c) Production of rice in year 1950-51= 127890 tonne
The number of students who qualified in (DI + Maths + Production of rice in year 1950-51 is 09.09% less
LR) = 5. than that of in year 1949-50
The number of students who qualified in English = 50. 1
Fraction of 09.09 =
Those who qualified in English, could not qualify in DI 11
section. Then, production of rice in 1949-50
11
= × production of rice in 1950-51
92. How many qualified atleast two sections? 10
(a) 60 (b) 55 (c) 50 (d) 20 11
= × 127890 = 140679 tonne
93. How many qualified in both Maths and LR, but 10
not in any other section? 97. What is the difference in the production of rice
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 5
in 1969-70 and 1979-80?
(a) 149830 tonnes (b) 125600 tonnes
94. How many did not qualify any section?
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 0 (d) 5 (c) 143980 tonnes (d) 162500 tonnes
Sol. (a) Required difference Then, the circuit board manufacture by Robot
= (Production of rice in 1979-80) 25
A = 100 × = 25x
− (Production of rice in 1969-70) 100
35
Fraction 25% = 1 , 16.66% = 1 Robot B = 100 × = 35x
 4 6 
100
40
4 6 Robot C = 100 × = 40x
= 213465 × − 112325 × 100
3 5
Number of faulty circuit boards by Robot
= 284620 − 134790 = 149830 tonne
5
A = 25x × = 125
. x
98. What is the the approx production in 1959-60? 100
(a) 168270 tonnes (b) 148070 tonnes Number of faulty circuit boards by Robot
(c) 157270 tonnes (d) 1382890 tonnes 4
B = 35x × = 14
. x
Sol. (a) Production of rice in 1960 -61= 201924 tonne 100
The production in 1959-60 Number of faulty circuit boards by Robot
5 2
= × 201924 = 168270 tonne C = 40x × = 0.8 x
6 100
99. What is the sum of integers from 113 to Total number of faulty circuit boards
113113, which are divisible by 7? = 125
. x + 14
. x + 0.8x = 3.45x
(a) 899235637 (b) 867265029 (c) 913952088 (d) 752643214 3.45x
∴ Required probability = = 0.034
Sol. (c) 119 + 126 + … + 113113 100x
This is the series of AP. 102. Average stipend of a group of students is
Let total number of terms be n. ` 50 per day. The difference between maximum
∴ l = a + (n − 1) d ⇒ 113113 = 119 + (n − 1) × 7 and minimum stipend is ` 45. If these 2
⇒ 112994 = (n − 1) × 7 ⇒ n − 1 = 16142 students are excluded, the average decreases
⇒ n = 16143 by ` 1. Minimum earning lie between ` 42 to `
Sum of the series 47 and the number of students is a prime
n 16143 number, where both the digit is also prime.
= (first term + last term) = (119 + 113113)
2 2 What is the number of students initially?
16143 (a) 47 (b) 43 (c) 31 (d) 37
= × 113132 = 913952088
2 Sol. (d) Let the minimum stipend = x
Then, the maximum stipend = x + 45
100. Robot is 4 m in length and placed at corner of Let number of students = n
16 m × 30 m field. The robot is facing
Then, total stipend of a group of students = 50 n …(i)
diagonally opposite corner and reaches the
diagonally opposite corner in 15 s. What is the New average = 49
speed (in m/s) of robot? Then, total stipend of a group of students
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c)D3 (d) 1 C = 49(n − 2) …(ii)
Sol. (b) ABCD is rectangle. By Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
The stipend of a two students
Then, ∠B = 90°
16m = 50n − 49(n − 2) = n + 98
AC 2 = AB 2 + BC 2
Then, n + 98 = x + x + 45
AC 2 = 162 + 302 A B
30m n + 98 = 2x + 45
AC = 196 + 900
Minimum earning lie between ` 42 to ` 47.
= 34m
n + 98 = 2( 45) + 45 [x = 45]
Length of robot 4 m.
n = 37
Then, it has to travel = 34 − 4 = 30 m
30 n prime possible when x = 45.
Speed of the robot = = 2 m/s
15 103. Valve A fills a bathtub in 10 h and Valve B fills
101. In a smart phone factory, Robot A, B, C the bathtub in 15 h. When A and B are opened
manufacture 25%, 35% and 40% circuit board together, later B closed after some time. Total
respectively. for each of the robot faulty circuit time taken to fill the bathtub is 8 h. When was
board = 5%, 4% and 2% respectively. What is B closed?
the probability that the printed circuit board is (a) 5 h (b) 3 h (c) 8 h (d) 6 h
defective if 1 circuit board is picked at random? Sol. (b) Valve A fills a bathtub = 10 h
(a) 0.034 (b) 0.027 (c) 0.091 (d) 0.030
Valve B fills the bathtub = 15 h
Sol. (a) Let total circuit board manufacture in factory = 100x Let B closed after x hours.
According to the question, Directions (Q. Nos. 106-109) The following pie chart
8 x 4 x shows the analysis of the result of an examination in
1= + ⇒ 1− = ⇒ x=3h
10 15 5 15 which 5 candidates have failed. Study the chart and
Directions (Q. Nos. 104 and 105) Refer to the answer the question given below.
pie-chart and answer the given questions.
Percentage of employees in different departments Failed candidates
of branch ‘XYZ’ in the year 2014 210°
15°
Passed male candidates
F A 135°
22% 15% Passed female candidates
E B
12% 16%
D
9%
C 106. The total number of examinees was
26% (a) 100 (b) 120 (c) 135 (d) 150
Total number of employees = 450 Sol. (b) Let total number of candidates be x.
15°
By pie chart, × x = 5 [failed students = 5, given]
104. In 2014, the number of female employees in 360°
department C was 5/13 of the total number of ∴ x = 24 × 5 = 120
employees in same department. If the number
of female employees in department F was 4
107. Percentage of passed female candidates with
respect to total examinees is
less than that in department C, what is the (a) 30 (b) 37. (c) 40 (d) 45
number of male employees department F?
(a) 41 (b) 42 (c) 58 (d) 54 Sol. (b) Number of passed female candidates
135°
Sol. (c) Total number of employees in department C = × 100% = 37.5%
26 360°
= 450 × = 117
100 108. Percentage of passed male candidates with
5
Female employees in department C = 117 × = 45 respect to total passed candidates is
13 (a) 60.8 (b) 56 (c) 71 (d) 58
Now, total number of employees in department F
Sol. (a) Percentage of passed male candidates
22
= 450 × = 99 210° 210°
100 = × 100% = × 100% = 60.8%
360° − 15° 345°
Female employees in department
F = 45 − 4 = 41 109. Ratio of passed male candidates to the
∴ Male employees in department F = 99 − 41 = 58 successful female candidates is
(a) 9 : 1 (b) 1 : 14
105. The number of employees in department E is
(c) 14 : 9 (d) 9 : 14
what per cent less than the number of
210°
employees in departments A and C together? Sol. (c) Required ratio = = 14 : 9
(a) 72 (b) 60 (c) 65 (d) 70 135°
Sol. (d) Total number of employees in department A 110. Find the value of m − n, if
15 135 9 n × 32 × ( 3 − n / 2 ) −2 − ( 27) n
= 450 × = =
1
100 2 3 ×2
3m 3
27
Total number of employees in department C
26 (a) 1 (b) −2 (c) −1 (d) 2
= 450 × = 117
100 9n × 32 × ( 3− n / 2 ) −2 − ( 27) n 1
Sol. (a) =
∴ Total number of employees in department (A + C) 33 m × 23 27
135 369
= + 117 = 32 n × 32 × 3n − 33 n 1
2 2 ⇒ =
and total number of employees in department E 33 m × 23 27
12 33 n + 2 − 33 n 1
= × 450 = 54 ⇒ =
100 33 m × 8 27
369 261
− 54 33 n ( 32 − 1) 1
∴ Required percentage = 2 × 100 = 2 × 100 =
369 369 33 m × 8 27
2 2 ⇒ ( 33 ) n − m = 3−3
261 29 n − m = − 1 or m − n = 1
= × 100 = × 100 = 70.73 ≈ 70%
369 41
SNAP
Solved Paper 2018*

Time : 2 hrs
INSTRUCTIONS
2. There are four parts. Part A (Analytical & Logical Reasoning), Part B (General Awareness),
Part C (Quantitative Aptitude) and Part D (General English).
3. Each Section contains 5 special (Non-MCQs) Questions.
4. Part A carries 40 marks, Part B carries 30 marks, Part C carries 40 marks and Part D carries 40 marks.
5. For each incorrect attempt 1/4th of marks allotted will be deducted.
SECTION A : ANALYTICAL & LOGICAL REASONING

1. Three lamps A, B and C are covered by clothes Now, if a person thinks he is going towards West
absorbing water, petrol and oil respectively. direction, then he is moving towards North direction
Which of the following alternatives best actually.
represent the situation. 3. There are three cartons, exactly one of which
(a) A-off, B-glows and C-off
(b) A-off, B-glows and C-glows
has money. On each box there is a statement,
(c) A-glows, B-glows and C-off
exactly one of which is true.
(d) All off Box 1 - The money is in this box.
Sol. (a) A-off, B-glows and C-off. Box 2 - The money is not in this box.
Box 3 - The money is not in Box 1.
2. A direction pole was situated on the crossing.
Due to an accident the pole turned in such a Which box has money?
(a) Box 1
manner that the pointer which was showing
(b) Box 2
East, started showing South. One traveler
(c) Box 3
went to wrong direction thinking to be West. In (d) Can’t be determined
what direction actually he was travelling?
(a) East (b) South-West (c) North (d) South Sol. (b) The money is in Box 2.
Box 1 - The money is in this box. (False)
Sol. (c) According to the given information,
Box 2 - The money is not in this box. (False)
W Box 3 - The money is not in Box 1. (True)
S-W N N-W
Hence, exactly one statement is true.
N-W N-E
4. In a row of boys facing North, A is 16th from
S W E N
the left and C is 16th from the right end. B,
S-W S-E
who is 4th to the right of A, is 5th to the left
S-E S N-E of C in the row. How many boys are there in
E the row?
* Memory Based
Sol. According to the given information, 8. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown
Row of boys ⇒ 15 boys 3 boys 4 boys 15 boys below in the question figures. From the given
A B C answer figures, indicate how it will appear
∴ Total number of boys in row when opened?
= 15 + 1 + 3 + 1 + 4 + 1 + 15 = 40 Question Figures
5. What will come in place of question mark (?) in
the given series?
5, 9, 16, 29, 54, ?
(a) 200 (b) 103 (c) 106 (d) 154
Sol. (b) The pattern of the series is,
5 9 16 29 54 103 Answer Figures
×2–1 ×2–2 ×2–3 ×2–4 ×2–5
6. Sunil is the son of Keshav. Simran, Keshav’s

sister, has a son Maruti and daughter Sita.
Prem is the maternal uncle of Maruti. How is (a) (b) (c) (d)
Sunil related to Maruti? Sol. (c)
(a) Cousin (b) Uncle (c) Brother (d) Nephew
Sol. (a) From the given information,
Sister Brother
Keshav Simran(–) Prem(+)
Dau
ght
Son Son er
Sunil(+) Maruti(+) Sita(–) 9. A total of 32 players participated in a single

Cousin tennis knockout tournament. What is the
Clearly, Sunil is cousin of Maruti. total number of matches played in the
tournament. No match ends in a tie (knockout
7. Three identical cones with base radius ‘r’ are means if a player loses, he is out of the
placed on their bases so that each one is touching tournament)?
the other two. The radius of circle whose boundary 32
touches the centre of these cones is Sol. First round = matches = 16 matches
2
(a) smaller than r (b) equal to r
Players left = 32 − 16 = 16
(c) greater than r
16
(d) depends on the height of cones. Second round = matches = 8 matches
2
Sol. (c) Let C1, C 2 and C 3 be the base of three cones, of
radius ‘r’. Let C be the centre of circle formed by
8
joining the centres of C1, C 2 and C 3 on its boundary. Third round = matches = 4 matches
2
X Y 4
C1 r r C2 Fourth round = = 2 matches
2
r C r Players left = 4 − 2 = 2
r r Final round = 1 match
∴ Total matches = 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 31
C3 Z
Direction (Q. No. 10) In the following question, two

Let radius of circle with centre C be R. statements are given below a question. You have to
Now, XYZ will be an equilateral triangle inscribed in decide whether the data given in the statement is
circle C. sufficient to answer the question.
Now, side of triangle XYZ = r + r = 2r Among six people A, B, C, D, E and F each having a
Side of triangle different height who is the second tallest?
We know that, radius of circumcircle =
3 I. Only two people are shorter than D. Only two
2r people are taller than A. E is shorter than C. D is
∴ R= = 1.156 r ⇒ R > r
3 taller than F.
II. Only three people are shorter than A. B is T lives on an odd numbered floor and Q lives on an even
shorter than D but not the shortest. C is numbered floor.
the tallest amongst them. From Statement III,
(a) The data in both Statements I and II T lives immediately above R’s floor. S lives on an odd
together are necessary to answer the numbered floor and two floors are between P and S.
question From Statements II and III
(b) The data in Statement II alone are
6 P
sufficient to answer the question while the
data in Statement I alone are not sufficient 5 T
to answer the question. 4 R
(c) The data even in both Statements I and II 3 S
together are not sufficient to answer the
2 Q
question
1 V
(d) The data either in Statement I alone or
Statement II alone are sufficient to answer Clearly, P lives on topmost floor.
the question Hence, Statements II and III are necessary.
Sol. (a) From Statement I,
12. Six lectures are scheduled in a week starting from
C > E, D > F
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.
and __ > __ > A > D > __ > __ Computer Science is not on Tuesday or Saturday.
From Statement II, Finance is immediately after Operations. Statistics is
D > B, B is not the shortest. not on Friday and there is one day gap between
and C > __ > A > __ > __ > __ Statistics and Marketing. One day prior to the
From Statements I and II, we get schedule of Economics there is no lecture (as that day
C > E > A > D > B > F is the off day) and Monday is not the off day. Which
Clearly, E is second tallest. lecture is scheduled on Monday.
(a) Operations
Hence, both the statements are required.
(b) Statistics
(c) Computer Science
Direction (Q. No.11) In the following question,
(d) Marketing
three statements are given below a question. You
have to decide whether the data given in the Sol. (a) From the given information,
statement is sufficient to answer the question. Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri Sat Sun
Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V, each lives Operations Finance Statistics Computer Marketing off day Economics
on a different floor of a six storey building Science
having its six floors numbered one to six (the
ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, Clearly, lecture on Operations is scheduled on Monday.
number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is 13. Ritika starts from her house and walks 30 km
numbered 6). Who lives on the topmost floor? Southwards, then travels 8 km to the right and then
I. There is only one floor between the floors 10 km towards the right, then again travels 20 km
on which R and Q live. P lives on an even towards right and then 36 km towards the left. How
numbered floor. far is she from her house and in which direction?
(a) 20 km, North-East
II. T does not live on an even numbered floor.
(b) 20 km, North
Q lives on an even numbered floor. Q does
(c) 20 km, East
not live on the topmost floor.
(d) 20 km, South-East
III. S lives on an odd numbered floor. There
Sol. (a) From the given information,
are two floors between the floors on which
S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately End point
F
above R’s floor.
(a) Statements I and II are sufficient
House A M
(b) Statements I and III are sufficient
36 km N
(c) Statements II and III are sufficient N-W N-E
30 km
(d) All the statements are necessary W E
Sol. (c) From Statement I, D S-W S-E
E
20 km S
P lives on an even numbered floor. 10 km
One floor is between floors of R and Q.
From Statement II, C 8 km B
Required distance, From Statement III,

AF = AM2 + MF2 A B E
N
= 122 + 162 N-W N-E
F W E
= 400 = 20 km S-W S-E
∴ She is 20 km away from her house towards S
North-East direction. D
14. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown Clearly, D is in South-East direction of B.
below in the question figures. From the given Hence, only Statement III is sufficient.
answer figures, indicate how it will appear
when opened. Direction (Q. No. 16) Study the diagram given below
to answer the question.
Question Figures
A Villages
G
E D
Educated C Unemployed
women F women
Answer Figures B
16. Educated unemployed women in villages are

represented by which letter?
Sol. E represents educated unemployed women who live
(a) (b) (c) (d) in villages.
Sol. (c) 17. What will come in place of question mark (?) in
the following series?
Z, Y, X, V, S, ?
(a) O (b) N
(c) P (d) M
Direction (Q. No. 15) In the following question, three Sol. (b) The pattern of the series is
statements are given below a question. You have to decide
whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to Z Y X V S N
answer the question.
–1 –1 –2 –3 –5
15. Point D is in which direction with respect to (–1) (–1+(–1)) (–2+(–1)) (–3+(–2))
point B? Here, the difference for the next term is obtained by
I. Point A is to the West of point B. Point C adding the difference of first two terms.
is to the North of point B. Point D is to
the South of point C. 18. Three pendulums of length 25cm, 36cm and
II. Point G is to the South of point D. 49cm are displaced from their equilibrium
Point G is 4 m from point B. Point D is position. Which of them will move slowest?
(a) with length 25 cm
9 m from point B.
(b) with length 36 cm
III. Point A is to the West of point B. Point B
(c) with length 49 cm
is exactly mid way between points A and
(d) All will move with same speed
E. Point F is to the South of point E.
Point D is to the South of point F. l
Sol. (c) For a pendulum, T = 2π
(a) Only I is sufficient (b) I and II are sufficient g
(c) Only III is sufficient (d) All are necessary
where, T = Time period and l = length of pendulum
Sol. (c) From Statement I, Q T∝l
C N ∴ The pendulum with longest length will move
slowest.
W E
19. What will come in place of question mark (?) in
S
A B the given series?
As, position of D is not clear, we cannot determine 16, ?, 68, 88
the position of D with respect to B. (a) 06 (b) 18
No conclusion can be drawn from Statement II (c) 63 (d) None of these
Sol. (a) To find the missing number, all the numbers must 24. The calendar for the year 1996 is same for
be rotated 180°. which year?
∴ Series become –1 (a) 2024 (b) 2017 (c) 2004 (d) 1998
91, 90, 89, 88 Sol. (a) Number of odd days in a leap year = 2
–1 –1 and number of odd days in an ordinary year = 1
∴ ? = 06 Also, 1996 is a leap year
∴ The required year which has the same calendar
20. If pig : farrow and lion : cub, then bear : ? as of 1996 must be a leap year.
(a) Kit (b) Squeaker (c) Shoat (d) Cub Now, odd days between 1996 and 2024 = 35
Sol. (d) As, young ones of pig are called farrow and young 35
⇒ = 0 odd days.
ones of lion are called cub. Similarly, young ones of 7
bear are called cub. ∴ 2024 will have same calendar as 1996.
21. What will come in place of question mark? 25. In a certain code language ‘January’ is
written as ‘10125’ and ‘June’ as ‘10605’. How
2 3 –5 2 –10 6
will July be written in same language?
11 5 –12 –2 ? –10 (a) 108735 (b) 101783 (c) 10673 (d) 10725
(a) −70 (b) −106 (c) −15 (d) −90 Sol. (d) Here, the code for each month is obtained as,
Sol. (a) As, 2 × 3 + 5 = 11
( −5) × ( 2) + ( −2) = − 12 January 10 1 25 First month
of year
Similarly, ( −10) × (6) × ( −10) = ?
∴ ? = − 60 − 10 = − 70
and
22. What will come in place of question mark? June 10 6 05 Sixth month
of year
5 12 7
3 242 7 11 502 13 ? 662 10 Similarly,
July 10 7 25 7th month
9 14 21 of year
Sol. Here the pattern is, 5 + 7 + 9 + 3 = 24 ⇒ 242

26. Count the number of triangles in the given
Here, the central number is obtained by placing ‘2’ at
figure.
the right side of the sum.
Similarly,
12 + 13 + 14 + 11 = 50 ⇒ 502
Now, 7 + 10 + 21+ ? = 66
⇒ ? = 66 − 38
∴ ? = 28 (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 18
23. In a certain code language ‘MASTER’ is coded as Sol. (b) Naming the figure,
‘79 7 115 121 31 109’. How will ‘LAUGH’ be A
coded using the same pattern. E
(a) 73 7 68 97 48 (b) 73 7 127 43 49
(c) 125 97 63 4 16 (d) 63 84 69 72 8 F
Sol. (b) As,

M A S T E R B C D
13 1 19 20 5 18 There are 12 triangles viz., ABF, BFC, CFD, DFE,
EFA, ABE, ABC, BFD, AFD, BED, ACD, and ABD.
×6+1 ×6+1 ×6+1 ×6+1 ×6+1 ×6+1
27. Five girls are sitting on a bench to be
photographed. Seema is to the left of Rani
79 7 115 121 31 109
and to the right of Bindu. Mary is to the right
Similarly, L A U G H of Rani. Reeta is between Rani and Mary.
12 1 21 7 8
Who is second from left in photograph?
Sol. From the given information, the arrangement is
×6+1 ×6+1 ×6+1 ×6+1 ×6+1
Bindu Seema Rani Reeta Mary
73 7 127 43 49 Clearly, Seema is second from left in photograph.
Directions (Q. Nos. 28-35) Study the given 30. Who among the following sits second to left of T?
information carefully and answer the following question. (a) S (b) P (c) R (d) Q
Ten persons are sitting in twelve seats in two parallel
rows containing five people each, in such a way that 31. Who among the following sit opposite to C?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In
Row 1, A, B, C, D and E are seated and all of them are 32. Who among the following likes cream colour?
facing South, and in Row 2, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
and all of them are facing North. One seat is vacant in
each row. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement 33. Who among the following is sitting between A
each member seated in a row faces another member of and D?
the other row. All of them like a different colour i.e. red, (a) E (b) C (c) B
blue, yellow, green, white, black, cream, pink, brown and (d) The one who likes pink colour
violet.
A sits second to left of person who likes red colour, the 34. Which of the following colour is liked by R?
(a) Yellow (b) White (c) Blue (d) Violet
one seat which is on the extreme end is adjacent to
either A or the person who likes red colour. T sits at 35. Who among the following sits second to the left
one of the extreme ends of the row. There are three of P?
persons sitting between T and S, who likes blue colour. (a) Vacant seat (b) Q (c) S (d) E
Immediate neighbour of T faces B. One of immediate Solutions (Q. Nos. 28-35) From the given information,
neighbour of B faces R, who likes yellow colour. There
E C A B D
are no vacant seats adjacent to R. C likes green colour Row 1
Vacant (Red) (Green) (Pink) (Cream) (Black)
and sits second to left of vacant seat. One of immediate
neighbour of R is Q and he likes white colour. One of
(Blue) (Brown) (Yellow) (White) (Violet)
immediate neighbour of Q faces D and he likes black Row 2
Vacant S P R Q T
colour. The one who likes cream colour sits to the
immediate left of the person who likes pink colour. The 28. (d) D, T sits on the extreme ends of row.
one who likes brown colour sits third to left of person 29. (d) T likes violet colour.
who likes violet colour. 30. (c) R sits second to the left of T.
28. Who among the following sits on the extreme 31. (a) P sits opposite to C.
ends of the row? 32. (b) B likes cream colour.
(a) E, Q (b) B, P (c) D, P (d) D, T 33. (c) B sits between A and D.
29. Who among the following likes violet colour? 34. (a) R likes yellow colour.
(a) P (b) R (c) Q (d) T 35. (a) No one sits second to the left of P.
SECTION B : GENERAL AWARENESS

36. Recently who among the following has been 38. Government of India allowed 100% FDI in
appointed as a Chief Technology and Product which sector?
Officer (CTPO) in chqbook.com? Sol. Government of India amended the 49% FDI cap in
(a) Sachin Arora (b) Parag Agrawal single brand retail and increased in to 100%. Now FDI in
(c) Dr. V Narayanan (d) Vineeth Joshi single brand retail will be permitted through automatic
Sol. (a) Chqbook.com is a financial planner in Gurugram. route and government approval will not be required.
It especially deals in home loans. Sachin Arora is Single brand retail trading means selling different product
recently appointed as the Chief Technology and under one brand name like Apple, Nike, Puma etc.
Product Officer (CTPO) at chqbook.com. Previously
he was working for Amazon.
39. The Statue of Unity, recently inaugrated in
State of Gujarat is related with which
37. Nobel Peace Prize of 2018 was presented to personality?
(a) Paul Romer and William Nordhaus (a) Deen Dyal Upadhyay (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Denis Mukwege and Nadia Murad (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) George Smith, Frances Arnold Cregwinter Sol. (c) India paid tribute to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel for
(d) James Pallison his uncomparable contribution in India’s development
Sol. (b) The Nobel prize is a set of annual international by Constructing Statue of Unity. The statue is the
award bestowed in several categories by Swedish and tallest in the world standing tall at a height of 182
Norwegian Institution. This year Noble Peace Prize m. He was the Ist Home Minister of Country and
was won by Denis Mukwege and Nadia Murad for played distinct role in unification and integration of
their effort to end the use of sexual violence as a India. He unified 562 Princely State to give India its
weapon of war and armed conflict. present day shape.
40. Who among the following is former and current Sol. (c) In a bid to build on its Augmented Reality (AR)
CEO and MD of IDBI bank respectively? ambitions, facebook has acquired German computer
(a) Mahesh Kumar Jain and B Sriram vision startup Fayteq. Fayteq is known of its
(b) Rana Kapoor and Arjit Basu video-editing technology that makes it possible to
(c) Shika Sharma and Shyamala Gopinath
add and remove objects from existing videos.
(d) Amitabh Chaudhary and Chanda Kochhar 45. Who won Champion of Earth award alongwith
Sol. (a) IDBI Bank was established in 1964 by Parliament the Emmanuel Macron?
for the development of the rising Indian Industry. Sol. The UNEP established Champion of Earth award in
Recently IDBI former CEO Mahesh Kumar Jain was 2005 as an annual award programme to recognise
appointed as a Deputy Governor of RBI. On the outstanding environmental leaders, from public and
place of Mahesh Kumar Jain, IDBI has appointed private sector. This year award was presented to
B. Sriram as Managing Director (MD) and Chief Narendra Modi and Emmanuel Macron for their
Executive Officer (CEO). initiative to establish International Solar Alliance to
reduce carbon emmission.
41. Under which Provision of RBI Act government
can issue direction to the RBI? 46. Name the political party established by Kamal
(a) Section 17 (b) Section 7 (c) Section 10 (d) Section 15 Haasan.
Sol. (b) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 was enacted to Sol. Superstar Kamal Hassan announced the name of his
constitute the Reserve Bank of India. Recently new political party Makkal Needhi Maiam (Peoples
Section 7 of the RBI Act has come into spotlight Justice Centre). He declared that his party will follow
amid the clash between Central and RBI. Over the centre approach and not toward left or right political
issue of RBIs autonomy. Exercising powers under this approach. Party, is launched in Madurai, which is
Section government can send letter to RBI for seen as the political capital of Tamil Nadu.
different purpose. Government has appointed
Shaktikanta Das as 25th RBI Governor. 47. Mobile food delivery market place Food Panda
is acquired by
42. Recently Assembly Election were held in which (a) Uber Eats (b) Zomato
state? (c) Swiggy (d) Ola
(a) Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Nagaland, Rajasthan
Sol. (d) In a strategic mere to capture the food ordering
and Telangana
market in India, online cab aggregator ola has
(b) Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh, Mizoram, Rajasthan acquired foodpande India, ola is committed for
and Andhra Pradesh
investment of $ 200 million into the food delivery
(c) Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Meghalaya, Gujarat business. Food panda fights bigger rivals like zomato
and Odisha and swiggy in the domestic market. Ola is competing
(d) Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Mizoram, Rajasthan with uber eats in food delivery market.
and Telangana
Sol. (d) Assembly Election were held in 5 state- 48. Biggest Health Sector Scheme launched by the
Chhattisgarh - Bhupesh Baghel GOI is
(a) Rastriya Swasth Bima Yojana
Madhya Pradesh - Kamal Nath
(b) Ayushman Bharat
Mizoram - PU Zoramthanga
(c) Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Scheme
Rajasthan - Ashok Gehlot
(d) National Organ Transplant Programme
Telangana - K. Chandrashekhar Rao
Sol. (b) Ayushman Bharat is National Health Protection
43. Which among the following is first Holographic Scheme. This will cover over 10 crore poor and
phone launched recently? vulnerable families. It will providing coverage upto 5
(a) Red Hydrogen One lakh rupee per family per year for secondary and
(b) Blue Hydrogen One tertiary care hospitalisation. The scheme is also
(c) Red Nitrogen One known as Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana. It is
(d) Black Nitrogen One world’s biggest Health Sector scheme on the basis of
Sol. (a) The first Holographic phone named ‘Red people covered under it.
Hydrogen One’ was launched by ‘‘AT&T’’ and 49. More Aditya Birla Group’s food and grocery
‘‘Verizon’’. The company has its roots in digital
retail chain will be acquired by
cameras for movie production. The Holographic (a) Flipkart (b) IKEA
phone can project 30 images that can be viewed (c) Samara and Amazon (d) Snapdeal
without special glasses.
Sol. (c) Private equity firm Samara Capital along with
44. Facebook acquired which of the following video Amazon.cominc., the world’s largest online retailer,
editing company? have agreed to buy Aditya Birla group’s food and
(a) Kyro digital (b) Spark house grocery retail chain. Aditya Birla Groups food and
(c) Fayteq (d) Spin creative grocery retail chain is known as ‘‘MORE’’.
50. Currently which company is the largest 56. Which city of Indonesia Hosted 2018 Asian
manufacturer of chip in the world? Games?
(a) Qualcomm (b) Toshiba (c) Intel (d) Samsung (a) Palembong and Makassar (b) Jakarta and Bondung
Sol. (d) Samsung, the Korean tech giants has ended reign (c) Bondung and Makassar (d) Jakarta and Palembong
of Intel as the world biggest seller of chipset. Chip is
short for microchip, complex tiny module that store Sol. (d) 18th Asian Games were hosted by Indonesia in
computer memory. city of Jakarta and Palembong.
Indias Performance - Rank 8th
51. At present who is Vice-Chairman of University Medal - 69th
Grants Commission? Gold - 15
Sol. The UGC is a statutory body established by the UGC Silver - 24
Act of 1956 under Ministry of HRD and is charged Bronze - 30
with co-ordination, determination and maintenance
19th Asian Games will be Hosted by China.
of standard of higher education. Recently Dr.
Bhushan Patwardhan was appointed as the 57. Krishi Kalyan Abhiyaan was launched by
Vice-Chairman of the UGC by Government of India. Ministry of Agriculture and farmers welfare in
Dr. Bhushan Patwardhan is a biomedical Scientist. ……
(a) 4th month of 2018 (b) 7th month of 2018
52. New SUV launched by Tata and Jaguar, Land
(c) 6th month of 2018 (d) 12th month of 2018
Rover is
(a) Creta (b) Harrier (c) Compass (d) XUV500 Sol. (c) With a vision of doubling farmers income by
Sol. (b) The Tata Harrier is a five seater SUV produced by
2022 Ministry launched Krishi Kalyan Abhiyaan from
Indian automaker Tata Motors. Harrier is based on a 1st June, 2018 till 31st July, 2018. It will aid assist
re-engineered version Jaguar, Land and Rover. and advice farmers on how to improve farming
techniques and raise their income.
53. Which bollywood actor has signed an
agreement to become Brand Ambassador of
58. What is India’s rank in UN World Happiness
Index?
Dish TV DTH Company?
(a) 133 (b) 122 (c) 110 (d) 100
(a) Ranveer Singh (b) Salman Khan
(c) Ayushman Khurana (d) Rajkumar Rao Sol. (a) The World Happiness Report is published by the
United Nation Sustainable Development Solution
Sol. (a) India’s first and largest DTH company has made
Network. India’s ranking Reduced from 122 in 2017
Ranveer Singh as its ambassador to woo the younger
to 133 in 2018. Finland was Happiest country and
audience. He is replaced by Shahrukh Khan. Ranveer
Burundi was last on the list. It covered 156 countries.
will lead the Dish TV’s new brand campaign ‘Dish
Nahi Dishkiyaon’. 59. How many seats Indian National Congress
won in Chhattisgarh Assembly Election?
54. Who won the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2018? (a) 58 (b) 61 (c) 65 (d) 68
Sol. Ramon Magsaysay award is named after, the
President of the Philippines. Prize is given to Asian Sol. (d) INC formed government in Chhattisgarh with
individual in different field such as Public Services, absolute majority by capturing 68 assembly seats.
Journalism, Literature etc. Bharat Vatwani is being Election result in other state
recognised for embracing mentally offlected destitute BJP INC
and Sonam Wangchuk for his contribution in MP 109 114
harnessing nature, culture and education for Rajasthan 73 199
community progress in Ladakh. Chhattisgarh 15 68
Mizoram 1 5 MNS - 26
55. Who has been appointed as a Chief Economic Telangana 1 119 TRS - 88
Advisor of India?
(a) N K Singh
60. 2018, Nobel Prize for economics was awarded
(b) Krishnamurti Subramaniam
to how many person?
(c) Mahesh Kumar Jain (d) Amitabh Kant (a) One (b) Three (c) Two (d) Four
Sol. (b) The government has appointed Krishnamurti Sol. (c) Nobel Economic Prize 2018 was shared by US
Subramaniam as a Chief Economic Advisor for three Economist William Nordhaus and Poul Romer for
years, Subramaniam was teacher at Indian School of integrating innovation and climate with economic
Business (ISB) before taking this post. Chief Economic growth. Nobel Economic Prize was Ist awarded in
Advisor is responsible for determining the governments 1969 all other Nobel Prize were established in 1895.
overall strategy in managing the economy and help The Nobel prize is bestowed by Swedish and
prepare the econimical survery of India. Norwegia Institution.
SECTION C : MATHEMATICS
61. The taxi in a city comprise of a fixed charge 63. How many six lettered words can be formed
together with the charge for the distance starting with M, from the word ‘CUSTOM’ ?
covered. For a journey of 10 km, the charges (a) 110 (b) 64 (c) 216 (d) 120
paid is `150 and for a journey of 15 km, the Sol. (d) Here, M is fixed at first position and the
charge paid is `220. What will a person have to remaining letters can change their position.
pay for travelling a distance of 25 km? ∴ Total number of ways = 5! = 120
(a) `400 (b) `360
(c) `280 (d) `500 64. Output is produced according to Q = ( a − 4 L)6,
Sol. (b) Let the fixed charge be `f and variable charge be where ‘L’ is the quantity of labour input and ‘a’
`v per km. is the quantity of capital input. Then, which of
According to the question, the following alternative is correct?
(a) Output decreases as labour increases
f + 10v = 150 …(i)
(b) Output increases as labour increases
f + 15v = 220 …(ii)
(c) Output decreases as capital increases
Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get (d) None of the above
f = 10 and v = 14
Sol. (a) Given, Q = ( a − 4 L) 6
∴ Charge for 25 km = f + 25v
= ` (10 + 25 × 14) Q Labour is combined with negative sign
= `360 ∴ Output decreases as labour increases.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
62. In the given figure, the boundary of shaded
region consists of four semi-circular arcs, three 65. Sonali and Meenal appear in an interview for
smallest being equal. If the diameter of the two vacancies in the same post. The probability
largest is 14 cm and that of the smallest is of Sonali’s selection is 1/7 and the probability
3.5 cm. Calculate the area of shaded region. of Meenal’s selection is 1/5. What is the
probability that only one of them is selected?
1 2
(a) (b)
7 7
3 4
(c) (d)
4 5
Sol. (b) Let A = Event that Sonali is selected
(a) 110.25 π cm 2 (b) 360 π cm 2 B = Event that Meenal is selected

(c) 26.275 π cm 2 (d) 22.97 π cm 2 1 1
∴ P( A) = and P( B) =
14 7 5
Sol. (d) Radius of bigger semi-circle = = 7 cm
2  1 6
and P( A) = 1 −  =
 7 7
and P( B) = 1 −  =
1 4
 5 5
∴ Required probability
= P( A and not B) + P( B and not A)
=  ×  +  × 
1 4 1 6
and radius of smaller semi-circle =
3.5
cm  7 5  5 7
2 4 6 10 2
= + = =
πr 2 35 35 35 7
Q Area of semi-circle =
2
∴ Area of shaded region
66. A cylinder of diameter 8 3 units is taken out
π (7) 2 π  3.5 2 π  3.5 2 π  3.5 2 from a cone of base diameter 16 3 units and
= +   −   −   2
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 height 30 units. If the height of cylinder is rd
49π 12.25π 196π − 12.25π 3
= − =
2 8 8 of the height of cone, then find the volume of
18375. the remaining part of cone.
= π
8 (a) 1920 π unit 3 (b) 1000 π unit 3
= 2297
. π cm 2 (c) 960 π unit 3 (d) 27000 π unit 3
8 3 69. A can complete a work in 10 days, B can do the

Sol. (c) Radius of cylinder = = 4 3 units
2 same piece of work in 15 days. If they both
16 √3 work together for 4 days, then fraction of work
8 √3 left is
1 2 2 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 7 3 7
20 units Sol. (a) A can complete a work in 10 days
1
So, 1 day work of A =
30 units 10
1
Similarly, 1 day work of B =
15
1 1
1 day work of both A and B = +
10 15
16 3 3+ 2 1
Radius of cone = = 8 3 units = =
2 30 6
Height of cone = 30 units 4 2
4 days work of A and B = =
2 6 3
Height of cylinder = × 30 = 20 units 2 1
3 Now, fraction of work left = 1 − =
1 3 3
Q Volume of cone = πr 2h
3 70. Simplify the given expression
and volume of cylinder = πr 2h 1 1 1
∴ Volume of remaining part of cone
1+ + 2 + 3 +…= ?
2 2 2
1 2n − 1 2n − 1 − 1
= π (8 3) 2 ( 30) − π ( 4 3) 2 ( 20) (a) (b)
3 2 n− 1
2n − 2
= 64 × 30 π − 960π 2n − 1
(c) 2 − 2n (d)
= 1920π − 960π 2n
= 960π unit 3 1 1 1
Sol. (a) Given, 1 + + 2 + 3…
67. In how many ways can the letters of word 2 2 2
‘‘ASTRONAUT’’ be arranged? The given series is a GP,
(a) 362880 (b) 10000 1
where a = 1 and r =
(c) 90720 (d) None of these 2
Sol. (c) Q There are 2A’s, and 2T’s, in the given word ∴ Sum of the n terms of GP
9! a(1 − r n )
∴ Total number of ways = = (Q r < 1)
2! × 2! 1− r
362880
11 − n 
1
= = 90720
4  2   2n − 1 2n − 1
= = 2 n  = n −1
1  2  2
68. In a 4 km race, Anu defeats Banu by 600 m. 1−
2
Banu give Caira a start of 200 m and then both
ends the race at the same time. How much 71. An elevator starts with 5 passengers and stops
start should Caira get from Anu to end the at 8 different floors of the building. Find out
race at the same time? the probability of all the 5 passengers alighting
(a) 800 m (b) 700 m (c) 500 m (d) 400 m at different floors.
101 105 107 109
Sol. (a) Total distance = 4000 m (Q 1 km = 1000 m) (a) (b) (c) (d)
512 512 512 512
Q Anu defeats Banu by 600 m 8!
∴ In same time, distance travelled by Anu = 4000 m Sol. (b) Favourable cases = 8P5 = = 6720
(8 − 5) !
and distance travelled by Banu
6720 6720 105
= 4000 m − 600 m = 3400 m ∴ Required probability = 5 = =
8 32768 512
Now, Banu give Caira a start of 200 m
∴ In same time, distance travelled by Banu = 3400 m 72. If ‘h’, ‘c’ and ‘v’ represents height of cone, curved
and distance travelled by Caira surface area of cone and volume of cone
= ( 3400 − 200) m = 3200 m respectively, then the value of 3 πvh 3 is
(a) c2 h 2 − 9 v 2 (b) c2 v 2 h 2
So, if Caira and Anu wants to finish the race together
Anu should give Caira a start of 800 m. (c) πc2 h 2 v (d) None of these
Sol. (a) Given, h = height of cone, v = volume of cone Sol. (b) Given, log10 11 = a ⇒ 10a = 11
and c = curved surface area of cone.  1 
log10 
1 
Now, = log10  
Let r = radius of base of cone 110 
11 × 10 
Now, 3πvh3
 1   1 
1 1
= 3π × πr 2h × h3 [Q volume of cone = πr 2h] = log10  a  = log10  a + 1 
3 3 10 × 10  10 
= π r h = (π r h ) × h
2 2 4 2 2 2 2
…(i) = log10 10− ( a + 1)
Now, we know that, c = πrl = − ( a + 1) × log10 10
⇒ c = πr ( r 2 + h2 ) (Q l 2 = r 2 + h2 ) = − ( a + 1)
⇒ c2 = π 2 r 2 ( r 2 + h2 ) 77. The price of corn increases by 20% also the
⇒ c2 = π 2 r 4 + π 2 r 2h2 expenditure to bring corn from to marked
∴ π 2 r 2h2 = c2 − π 2 r 4 increases by 5%. By how much per cent should
Putting the value in Eq. (i), we get a family decrease its consumption so as to keep
( c2 − π 2 r 4 )h2 = c2h2 − π 2 r 4h2 = c2h2 − 9v 2 their budget same?
1 1
(a) 11 % (b) 13% (c) 9 % (d) 25%
73. If 20% of x = y, then y% of 20 is equal to 9 9
(a) 20% of x (b) 16% of x (c) 10% of x (d) 4% of x Sol. (a) Let the original price of corn and expenditure to
20 bring it to market be `100 each
Sol. (d) Given, x=y 120
100 New price of corn = × 100 = `120
x 100
y= …(i) 105
5 New expenditure = × 100 = `105
y x 1 x 100
Now, × 20 = × =
100 5 5 25 New total cost = `(120 + 105) = `225
= 4% of x Decrease in consumption = `( 225 − 200) = `25
25 1
x+1 ∴ Required percentage = × 100 = 11 %
74. If f ( x) = , the ratio of x to f ( y), where 225 9
x−1
y = f ( x) is 78. The cost of a TV is 150% the cost of a fridge.
(a) x : y 2
(b) x : y 2
(c) 1 : 1 (d) ( x + 1 ) : ( x − 1 ) The cost of fridge is what per cent of the cost of
TV and fridge?
x+1 (a) 45% (b) 60% (c) 25% (d) 40%
Sol. (c) Given, f ( x) =
x −1 Sol. (d) Let the cost of fridge = `100
x+1 x + 1+ x − 1 150
+1 ∴ Cost of TV = × 100 = `150
2x
∴ f ( y) = x − 1 = x −1 = =x 100
x+1 x + 1− x + 1 2
−1 ∴ Cost of fridge and TV = `(100 + 150) = `250
x −1 x −1 100
∴
x x
= = 1: 1 Required percentage = × 100 = 40%
f ( y) x 250
79. 20 students collected `10000 each 50% of the
75. Find the value of amount is invested in riskless government
log tan 1° + log tan 2° + … + log tan 89 °. securities while the remaining in equities. The
1
(a) (b) 25 (c) 0 (d) 1 return on riskless government securities is
3
7.8% per annum. If the gain is equally divided
Sol. (c) Given, among them, then value of gain per student is
log tan 1° + log tan 2° + … + log tan 89° (a) `390 (b) `440 (c) `500 (d) `780
= log(tan 1° × tan 2° × … × tan 89°) Sol. (a) Total collection by students
= log (tan(90 − 1) ° × tan(90 − 2) ° … tan 45°…
= ` ( 20 × 10000) = `200000
tan 88°⋅ tan 89°)
= log (cot 89° cot 88° … tan 45° … tan 88°⋅ tan 89° ) ∴ Amount invested in rickless government securities
50
[Q tan(90 − θ) = cot θ ] = × 200000 = `100000
= log(1⋅ 1⋅ 1⋅ 1) [Q tan θ ⋅ cot θ = 1 and tan 45° = 1] 100
Return = 7.8% per annum
= log 1 = 0 7.8
∴ Gain = × 100000 = `7800
76. If log 10 11 = a, then log 10 
1  100
 is equal to
 110 ` 7800
∴ Gain per student = = `390
(a) a + 1 (b) − ( a + 1 ) (c) a (d) a − 1 20
r t
80. An umbrella is made by stitching 10 triangular Now, we know that, A = P 1 + 
pieces of cloth of two different colours, each  100
5 3
∴ Amount = 20000 1 +
piece measuring 20cm, 50cm and 50cm. How

much cloth of each colour is required for the  100
umbrella? 3
= 20000 
21
Sol. There are 10 triangles in the umbrella, 5 of each  20
colour.
= `23152.50
Now, area of each colour of cloth = 5 (area of 1
∴ Required sum = `23152.50
triangle)
Given, sides of triangle = a = 20 cm, b = 50 cm, 83. Given, 5 different green dyes, 4 different blue
c = 50 cm dyes and 3 different red dyes, the number of
Using Heron’s formula, combination of dyes which can be chosen
Area of triangle = s( s − a)( s − b)( s − c) taking at least one green and one blue dye is
(a) 3600 (b) 3720 (c) 3800 (d) 3600
a+ b+ c
where, s= Sol. (b) Given, number of green dyes = 5
2
20 + 50 + 50 Number of blue dyes = 4
∴ s= = 60 cm
2 Number of red dyes = 3
∴ Area of triangle Now, number of ways to choose at least one green
= 60(60 − 50)(60 − 50)(60 − 20) and one blue dye
= 60 × 10 × 10 × 40 = 240000 = ( 25 − 1)( 24 − 1)( 23 )
= 200 6 cm 2 = ( 32 − 1)(16 − 1)(8) = 31 × 15 × 8 = 3720
∴ Area of each colour = 5 × 200 6 = 1000 6 cm 2 84. Sumit has to multiply a certain number by 25,
81. The number of ways that 5 Marathi, 3 English but he multiplied it with 34 and the resultant
and 3 Tamil books be arranged if the books of is 405 more than the original result. Find the
each language are to be kept together is answer Sumit arrived at
(a) 5820 (b) 25920 (a) 1000 (b) 1125
(c) 29520 (d) 27840 (c) 1600 (d) 1530
Sol. (b) Number of ways of arranging Sol. (d) Let the number be ‘a’
5 Marathi books = 5! = 120 According to the question,
Number of ways of arranging 3 English books 34a − 25a = 405
= 3! = 6 ⇒ 9a = 405 or a = 45
and Number of ways of arranging 3 Tamil books ∴ Result obtained by Sumit
= 3! = 6 = 45 × 34 = 1530
Now, these 3 sets can be arranged in 3! ways i.e. 6
ways.
85. Excluding stoppages, the speed of the bus is
50 km/h and including stoppages, it is 40 km/h.
∴ Total number of ways = 120 × 6 × 6 × 6 = 25920
For how many minutes does the bus stop per
82. The difference between compound interest and hour?
simple interest for a certain sum of money for Sol. Distance travelled by bus in 1h if stoppages are
2 yr is `50, the rate of interest being 5% per excluded = 50 km
annum. If the same sum is invested for 3 yr at Q Original speed of bus = 50 km/h
5% per annum compound, it will become. Distance travelled by bus in 1h if stoppages are
(a) ` 22475.50 (b) ` 23750 (c) ` 24000 (d) ` 23152.50 included = 40 km
Sol. (d) Given, rate of interest = r = 5% per annum ∴ Difference in distance travelled = ( 50 − 40) km
Let Principal = ` P = 10 km
Distance
r 2 Q Time =
Q Difference between CI and SI for 2 yr = P   Speed
 100
10
5 2 ∴ Time taken to travel 10 km =
∴ 50 = P   50
 100
1
50 × 100 × 100 = h = 12 min
⇒ P= = `20000 5
25 Hence, the bus stops for 12 min every hour.
140°
86. If taxes are 125% of prices, then average of ∴ ∠ OAB = = 70°
taxes for given prices is ‘‘35, 34, 35.5, 37, 2
37.5 and 38’’. Now, l1 || l 2
(a) 36.17 (b) 40.20 (c) 45.20 (d) 43.17 ∴ ∠ XAB + ∠ ZBA = 180°
Sol. (c) Average price or ∠ ZBA = 180° − 140° = 40°
35 + 34 + 35.5 + 37 + 37.5 + 38 217 Also, OB is angle bisector of ∠ ZBA
= =
6 6 40°
∴ ∠ OBA = = 20°
125 2
Now, average taxes = × average price
100 Now, in ∆ OAB
125 217 ∠ OAB + ∠ OBA + ∠ AOB = 180°
= × = 45.20
100 6 ∴ ∠ AOB = 180° − 70° − 20° = 90°
87. If Rc = m ln 1 +
Rm  Now, x + x + ∠ AOB = 180° (Linear Pair)
, then value of Rm is
 m  ∴ x=
180° − 90°
= 45°
2
(a) m [ eR c /m − 1 ] (b) 0
(c) 1 (d)
Rc   1  
ln  
90. The sides of a rectangular field are in the ratio
m   m   2 : 7, also the perimeter of field is 360 m, then the
length and breadth of the field are
Rc = m ln 1 + m 
R
Sol. (a) Given, (a) 40, 140 m (b) 140, 20 m (c) 30, 210 m (d) 20, 140 m
 m 
Sol. (a) Let the length of rectangular field be ‘2a’m and its
ln 1 + m  = c
R R
⇒ breadth be ‘7a’m.
 m  m
Q Perimeter of rectangle = 2( l + b)
R R
⇒ 1 + m = eR c / m ⇒ m = eR c / m − 1 ∴ 2( 2a + 7a) = 360
m m
⇒ 9a = 180 or a = 20 m
∴ Rm = m[ eR c / m − 1]
∴ Length = 2a = 40m and
88. Simplify, ( a − b) 3 + ( b − c) 3 + ( c − a) 3 . breadth = 7a = 140 m
(a) 3( a − b )( b − c)( c − a) (b) 3abc 42 × 2n + 1 − 4 × 2n
(c) 0 (d) 1 91. Simplify, .
42 × 2n + 2 − 2 × 2n + 2
Sol. (a) Let a − b = x, b − c = y and c − a = z
42 × 2n + 1 − 4 × 2n
Now, x + y + z = a − b + b − c + c − a = 0 Sol. Given,
4 × 2n + 2 − 2 × 2n + 2
2
Now, we know that, if x + y + z = 0
then x 3 + y 3 + z 3 = 3xyz 24 × 2n + 1 − 22 × 2n 2n + 5 − 2n + 2
= n+ 2 n +2
=
∴( a − b) 3 + ( b − c) 3 + ( c − a) 3 = 3( a − b)( b − c)( c − a) 2 ×2
4
− 2× 2 2n + 6 − 2n + 3
n+ 2
2 ( 2 − 1)
3
8 −1 7
89. Given, l1 || l2 and ∠ XAB = 140° also, OA and = n+ 2
= = = 0.5
2 ( 2 − 2)
4
16 − 2 14
OB are angle bisector of ∠ XAB and ∠ ZBA
respectively, then find the value of x. 92. Find the area of the given figure.
t1 60 units
X A Y
l1
25 units 26 units
O
x x 77 units
l2
Z B N (a) 1600 unit 2 (b) 576 unit 2
(c) 1507 unit 2 (d) 1644 unit 2
Sol. Given, ∠ XAB = 140° Sol. (d) The given figure is a trapezium.
and OA is its bisector A 60 units B
t1
X A Y 25 units h h 26 units
l1
140º
O D E 77 units F C
x x
Let AE and BF be two perpendicular drawn on CD.
l2
Z B N ∴ AB = EF = 60 units.
Now, ∆AED + ∆BFC = ∆ADC Sol. (d) Given,

(A/B) ( p + q) 3 − ( p − q) 3 − 6q ( p2 − q2 ) and q = 1
∴ ( p + 1) 3 − ( p − 1) 3 − 6( p2 − 1)
⇒ p + 3 p2 + 3 p + 1 − p3 + 3 p2 − 3 p + 1 − 6 p2 + 6
3
25 units h 26 units [Q ( a + b) 3 = a3 + 3a2 b + 3ab2 + b3

and ( a − b) 3 = a3 − 3a2 b + 3ab2 − b3 ]
= 6 p2 + 2 − 6 p2 + 6 = 8
D (E/F) C
94. What will be the numerical value of MMXVIII
(77-60)=17 units
Sol. We know that, M = 1000, X = 10, V = 5 and I = 1
Using, Heron’s formula ∴ MMXVIII = 1000 + 1000 + 10 + 5 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 2018
∴ Area of triangle = s( s − a)( s − b)( s − c)
95. 250 boxes of each type of dimensions 25 × 20 × 5
1
=
× base × height and 15 × 12 × 5 are to be covered with wood. An
2
a+ b+ c additional 5% of total surface area is required
where, s= to cover the box with wood. If the cost of wood
2
25 + 26 + 17
is ` 4/m 2 , then total cost is
= = 34 units (a) ` 6640000 (b) ` 2084100 (c) ` 2184000 (d) ` 1247000
2
Sol. (c) Dimensions of 1st type of box = 25 × 20 × 5
⇒ 34( 34 − 25)( 34 − 26)( 34 − 17)
1 Dimensions of 2nd type of box = 15 × 12 × 5
= × 17 × h Q Total surface area of cuboid = 2( lb + bh + lh)
2
1 204 × 2 ∴ Total surface area of 1st type of box
⇒ 34 × 9 × 8 × 17 = × 17 × h ⇒ =h = 2( 25 × 20 + 20 × 5 + 25 × 5)
2 17
= 2( 500 + 100 + 125) = 1450 m 2
∴ h = 24 units and total surface area of 2nd type of box
Now, area of trapezium = 2(15 × 12 + 12 × 5 + 15 × 5)
1 = 2(180 + 60 + 75) = 630 m 2
ABCD = ( AB + CD) × ( AE)
2 ∴ Total surface area of all boxes
1
= (60 + 77)( 24) = 1644 units 2 = 250 × 1450 + 250 × 630
2 = 362500 + 157500 = 520000 m 2
Now, area of wood required
93. If q = 1, then 105
= × 520000 = 546000 m 2
( p + q) 3 − ( p − q) 3 − 6q ( p2 − q2 ) is equal to 100
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 6 (d) 8 ∴ Required cost = 546000 × 4 = `2184000
SECTION D : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Read the following existing people need to be retrained to manage change.
passage and answer the questions that follows. Dwelling further on our reluctance to change, Foster and
Since the collective culture of an organisation is an Kaplan referred to ‘Cultural lock-in’, the inability to
aggregate of what is common to all of its group and change the corporate culture even in the face of clear
individual mindsets, organisation transformation entails market threats. The heart of the problem is the formation
changing the minds of hundreds or thousands of people. of hidden sets of rules or ‘mental models’, that once
Consultants Lawson and Price, listed four conditions as formed are extremely difficult to change. ‘Mental models’
essential for changing mindsets, the employees must are the core concepts of the corporation, the beliefs and
believe in the overall purpose behind the change, assumption, the cause and effect relationships, the
reporting structures, operational processes and guidelines for interpreting language and signals, the
measurement procedures must be consistent with the stories repeated within the corporate walls. ‘Mental
behaviour that people are asked to embrace, employees models’ are invisible in the corporation, they are neither
need to be trained to adopt to new environment and explicit nor examined but they are pervasive. When well
apart from top management, ‘role models’ at every level crafted, ‘mental models’ allow management to anticipate
also need to embrace the new dogma. Considering the the future and solve problems.
difficulties in changing mindset of existing people, most But once constructed, ‘mental models’ become
Indian organisations have found it prudent to drop them self-reinforcing, self-sustaining and self-limiting.
under Voluntary Retirement Schemes (VRS) and recruit
new people with positive attitude to change. But this 96. According to the passage
cannot be a pattern to manage change, one day or other,
A. For an organisation to be successful, it is essential 99. What can be a suitable title of the passage?
to hire like minded people. (a) Essentials of changing mindset
B. The best way to deal with staff who refuse to (b) Changing mindset of employees - A difficult task
change their mindset is by not touting them as (c) Importance of mental models
role models for the organisation. (d) Collective culture of an organisation
Which of the statements given above is/are Sol. (b) ‘Changing mind, set of employees-A difficult task’
correct? can be a suitable title.
(a) Only A (b) Only B
100. What does the word ‘Dogma’ means as given in
(c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B the passage?
Sol. (d) According to the passage none of the statement (a) Conviction or belief (b) A law
given is correct. (c) Self-confidence (d) Virtues
97. On the basis of the passage, Sol. (a) The word ‘Dogma’ means a belief or set of
A. For an organisation to redefine itself, it has to first belief’s that people are expected to accept without
re-evaluate its employees. asking questions about them.
B. For an employee to become an integral part of an
organisation, he has to subscribe to the views and PASSAGE II
ideology of the organisation.
C. Top management executives are the sole drivers
Directions (Q. Nos. 101-106) Read the passage given
below and answer the question that follow.
for reinventing an organisation.
D. Now-a-days, employees can function without The cyber-world is ultimately ungovernable. This is
depending on a ‘key figure’ to emulate. alarming as well as convenient, sometimes, convenient
because alarming. Some Indian politicians use this to
Which of the statements given above is / are great advantage. When there is an obvious failure in
correct? governance during a crisis they deflect attention from
(a) Both A and B (b) Both C and D their own incompetence towards the ungovernable.
(c) Only B (d) Only C
So, having failed to prevent nervous citizens from fleeing
Sol. (a) Both statements A and B are correct. An their cities of work by assuring them of proper
organisation needs to re-evaluate its employees. protection, some national leaders are now busy trying to
Moreover, a successful employee has to subscribe to prove to one another and to panic-prone Indians, that a
the views and ideology of the organisation. mischievous neighbour has been using the internet and
98. Consider the following with regards to social networking sites to spread dangerous rumours.
resistance to change. And the centre’s automatic reaction is to start blocking
A. It is difficult for some people to think out of the these sites and begin elaborate and potentially endless
box. negotiations with Google, Twitter and Facebook about
B. Some people resist new information and prefer to access to information. If this is the official idea of
rely on past practices to conduct business. prompt action at a time of crisis among communities,
then Indians have more reason to fear their protectors
C. Their cultural background predisposes them to shy
than the nebulous mischief-makers of the cyber-world.
away from risks.
D. Radical thinkers are not rewarded in today’s Wasting time gathering proof, blocking vaguely
corporate culture. suspicious websites, hurling accusations across the
E. The Voluntary Retirement Scheme is used by some border and worrying about bilateral relation; are ways
organisations to breathe new life into the of keeping busy with inessentials because one does not
organisation. quite know what to do about the essentials of a
difficult situation. Besides, only a fifth of the 245
Which of the statements given above is/are websites blocked by the Centre mention the people of
correct? the North-East or the violence in Assam.
(a) A, B and E
And if a few morphed images and spurious texts can
(b) A, B, C, D and E
unsettle an entire nation, then there is something
(c) B, C and D
deeply wrong with the nation and with how it is being
(d) C, D and E
governed. This is what its leaders should be addressing
Sol. (a) Statement A, B and E are correct with regards to immediately, rather than making a wrong-headed
resistance to change. It is difficult for some people to display of their powers of censorship.
think out of box, some people also prefer not to take
It is just as absurd and part of the same syndrome, to
any new information and rely on past practices. VRS
is used by some organisations to breathe new life try to ban Twitter accounts that parody despatches
into the organisation. from the Prime Minister’s Office. To describe such
forms of humour and dissent as ‘misrepresenting’ the
PMO-as if Twitterers would take these parodies for 106. The author warns us against
genuine despatches from the PMO—makes the PMO (a) not playing false with the citizens
look more ridiculous than its parodists manage to using (b) dangers inherent in the cyber-world
the cyber world for flexing wrong muscles is essentially (c) not using the cyber-world judiciously
not funny. It might even prove to be quite dangerously (d) not protecting the citizens from dangerous politicians
distracting.
Sol. (c) The author, in this passage, warns us against not
101. According to the passage, the cyber world is using the cyber world judiciously.
(a) beyond the imagination of people
(b) outside the purview of common people
107. Choose the synonym of the word ‘Inexplicable’.
(a) Unconnected (b) Chaotic
(c) not to be governed
(c) Unaccountable (d) Confusing
(d) ungovernable
Sol. (c) Unaccountable is correct synonym of inexplicable.
Sol. (d) The author is of the view that the cyber world is Both words mean something that cannot be
ungovernable. (Line 1) explained or accountable why it happened.
102. The author is of the opinion that 108. Choose the synonym of the word, ‘Prerogative’.
(a) the centre should start negotiations with Google, (a) Privilege (b) Request (c) Desire (d) Command
Twitter and Facebook
(b) the centre should help the citizens evacuate their Sol. (a) Privilege is correct synonym of the word
city prerogative. Both mean advantage or birth right.
(c) the centre should not block the sites
(d) the centre should arrest the guilty Directions Q. Nos. (109 and 110) Choose the
appropriate antonyms of the given words.
Sol. (c) As per the passage, the author’s opinion is that
the Central Government should not block the sites. 109. Camouflage
(Read 1st line of Para 3) (a) Exhibit (b) Demonstrate
(c) Reveal (d) Parade
103. Which of the following is closest to the
Sol. (c) The word camouflage means to hide something.
meaning of ‘nebulous’?
(a) Confused (b) Vague Its antonym is to reveal which means to make
something known to everyone.
(c) Iridescent (d) Glowing
Sol. (b) Vague or hazy is closest to the meaning of 110. Scurrilous
nebulous. Nebulous means not developed or clear (a) Decent (b) Relevant
enough to describe. (c) Accurate (d) Useful
Sol. (a) The word scurrilous means derogatory or
104. The author’s seriousness regarding the offensive. Its antonym is decent which means
situation can best be described in the following acceptable or adequate.
sentences. Pick the odd one out.
(a) Our leaders should display their powers of
censorship when needed
Directions (Q. Nos. 111 and 112) In the given
questions, choose the odd word out of the given options.
(b) If this is the official idea of prompt action at a
time of crisis among communities, then Indians 111. (a) Bicker (b) Quarrel (c) Wrangle (d) Inveigle
have more reason to fear their protectors than the
Sol. (d) ‘Inveigle’ is odd one as the other three words are
nebulous mischief-maker of the cyber-world
related to quarrel but inveigle means to persuade
(c) The politicians deflect attention from their own
someone to do something.
incompetence
(d) If a few morphed images and spurious texts can 112. (a) Counsel (b) Direct (c) Suggest (d) Advise
unsettle an entire nation, then there is something
Sol. (b) Direct is odd one out as the other three words
deeply wrong with the nation
are associated with giving advise but the word direct
Sol. (a) Sentence in option (a) is the odd one out as it is means to control or be incharge of an activity,
no where mentioned in the paragraph that our organisation etc.
leaders should display their power of censorship.
105. Find the antonym of the word-‘wrong-headed’ Directions (Q. Nos. 113 and 114) Fill in the blanks
from the options given with the correct form of the verb given in brackets.
(a) Silly (b) Sane (c) Instable (d) Insensible 113. While she ………… (stroll) in the garden, she
Sol. (b) The word ‘wrong-headed’ means misguided or came across her old friend.
wrong in Judgement. Its antonym is sane which Sol. ‘Was strolling’ is the appropriate answer as it denotes
means a person who acts sensibly. an action going on or happening at that time.
114. I wish I ………… (study) sincerely to clear the 118. India has a vibrant space science programme
exam. ……………… . The growth of space industry
Sol. ‘Had studied’ should be used to fill the blank. ‘I wish’ in India.
suggests something of the past. So, we use Past Perfect (P) the Indian space science programme has been
Tense with it. working.
(Q) formulating an industrial participation policy
Direction (Q. No. 115) Improve the sentence by using towards
appropriate grammatical structure. (R) covering astronomy, astrophysics, and space
115. Unless efforts are made and the population science
growth had stabilised, environmentalists predict (S) with cooperative Indian industries and has been
(a) SQPR (b) PQRS (c) QPRS (d) RPSQ
a world wide starvation by 2020 AD.
(a) Efforts are made and the population growth is Sol. (d) The correct sequence of sentences for the blank
stabilised is option (d) RPSQ.
(b) Efforts are made and the population growth
stabilises Directions (Q. Nos. 119 and 120) Choose the correct
(c) Efforts is made and the population growth stabilises sentence in Indirect speech of the sentence in Direct
(d) Efforts are made and the population growth has speech.
stabilised
119. He said, ‘‘Garima wants to take up a job.’’
Sol. (b) Sentence in option (b) is correct as the correct (a) He said that Garima wants to take up a job.
improved sentence should be efforts are made and the (b) He told that Garima wanted to take up a job.
population growth stabilises as sentence is in Simple (c) He said that Garima wanted to take up a job.
Present Tense. (d) He said that Garima has wanted to take up a job.
Sol. (c) Option (c) is the correct sentence in indirect
Direction (Q. No. 116) Find the correct match of the speech as the whole sentence will be written in
grammatical function with the usage of the word round.
Simple Past Tense.
116. (i) The Earth is round.
120. He said, ‘‘Be quiet and listen to my words.’’
(ii) Will you come round to our house this (a) He urged them to be quiet and listen to his
evening. words.
(iii) The child’s eye rounded with excitement. (b) He said they should be quiet and listen to his
(iv) Indians won the first round of the Tennis words.
cup. (c) He requested them to be quiet and listen to my
(a) Preposition, Verb, Noun, Adjective words.
(b) Adjective, Preposition, Verb, Noun (d) He urged them and said be quiet and listen to
(c) Noun, Adjective, Verb, Preposition words.
(d) Verb, Noun, Adjective, Preposition
Sol. (a) Option (a) is the correct sentence in indirect
Sol. (b) In first sentence round is an adjective, in second speech. Sentence is imperative type.
sentence round is used as preposition. In third
sentence it is used as verb (past tense) and in fourth
sentence it has been used as noun. So, option (b) is
Directions (Q. Nos. 121 and 122) Identify the
meaning of the given idiom from the given options.
correct.
121. To cut the crackle
117. Rearrange the following sentence fragment (P, (a) to humiliate
Q, R and S) to make meaningful sentences. (b) to annoy someone
India has been a land ……………… than the (c) to act in a friendly way
warrior or the administrator. (d) to stop talking nonsense
(P) but in the sense that learning has always been very
Sol. (d) The idiom ‘to cut the crackle’ means to stop
highly valued.
talking nonsense.
(Q) not indeed in the sense that education has been
universal. e.g. The staff members were told to cut the crackle
(R) and the learned man has been held in higher and get back to work.
esteem. 122. A Jaundiced Eye
(S) of learning through the ages. (a) jealousy (b) a generous view
(a) PQSR (b) RQSP (c) angry (d) prejudiced view
(c) RSQP (d) SQRP
Sol. (d) Prejudiced or a biased view is the correct
Sol. (d) Option (c) is the correct sequence of sentence for answer of this idiom.
the blank is option (d) SQRP. e.g. She viewed politicians with a jaundiced eye.
Directions (Q. Nos. 123 and 124) Fill in the blanks Sol. (c) The plural of Blitz is made by adding ‘es’ to the
with appropriate part of speech - word. So, option (c) Blitzes is the correct answer.
123. You must comply ………… the rules laid down Direction (Q. No. 128) Identify the correct Proverb.
by the committee.
(a) at (b) in (c) with (d) for 128. (a) A rolling stone collects no moss
Sol. (c) ‘with’ is the correct word to be used here with (b) A rolling stone gathers no moisture
comply. The word means to act according to an (c) A rolling stone gathers no moss
order or set of rules. (d) A rolling stone creates no moss
124. Walk carefully ………… you should fall. Sol. (c) ‘A Rolling stone gathers no moss’ is the correct
(a) besides (b) nevertheless proverb. It means that a person who never settles down
(c) should (d) lest and keeps changing his Jobs will not succeed in life.
Sol. (d) ‘Lest’ is the correct word to be used here. 129. Choose the correct past participle of verb
forego.
Directions (Q. Nos. 125 and 126) Write one word for (a) forego
the given sentence. (b) foregone
(c) forgo
125. A person who constantly thinks he is sick is a (d) forewent
…………
Sol. (b) ‘Foregone’ is the correct past participle of the
Sol. hypochondriac. A hypochondriac is a person who
verb forego.
constantly thinks he is sick.
126. An orator’s speech which is high flown and 130. Rearrange the following words to make a
pretentious is called ……… . meaningful sentence.
Sol. Bombastic is suitable to fill the blank. The word is (1)/ a (2)/ tribute (3)/ children’s (4)/ day (5)/ to
means high-sounding but with little meaning. (6)/ childhood (7)/ celebration (8).
Sol. The correct sentence is ‘Children’s day celebration is
127. What will be the plural of Blitz. a tribute to childhood’.
(a) Blitxen (b) Blitzs (c) Blilzes (d) Blitze
SNAP
Solved Paper 2017*

Time : 3 hrs
INSTRUCTIONS
2. There are four parts. Part A (General Awareness), Part B (Analytical & Logical Reasoning),
Part C (General English) and Part D (Quantitative Aptitude).
4. For each incorrect attempt 1/4th mark will be deducted.
SECTION A 3. e-Nivaran is a new facility launched by

Government of India. What is its purpose?
General Awareness (a) To help the farmers to avail easy loans
(b) To help the RTI petitions
1. The Ex-German Chancellor who was credited (c) To submit and track Income Tax grievances
with Germany unification died in 2017. (d) To get help for health related issues
(a) Gerhard Schroeder (b) Angela Merkel Sol. (c) CBDT has launched the ambitious ‘e-Nivaran’
(c) Helmut Schmidt (d) Helmut Kohl facility for online redressal of taxpayers grievances
Sol. (d) Helmut Josef Michael Kohl was a German related to refunds, ITRs and PAN among others as part
statesman, who served as Chancellor of Germany of its initiative to reduce instances of harassment of
from 1982 to 1998 (of West Germany 1982-1990 the public when it comes to complaints related to the
and of the reunited Germany 1990-1998) and as IT Department.
the Chairman of the Christian Democratic Union An exclusive ‘e-Nivaran’ (electronic resolution) link
(CDU) from 1973 to 1998. From 1969 to 1976, has recently been activated on the e-filing portal of
Kohl was Minister President of the State the department where taxpayers can register their
Rhineland-Palatinate. complaints through their personal computer systems
and receive a special PIN number on their registered
2. Which of the following was detected in the year mobile and email, as their unique number to keep
2016 by scientists? track of the issue.
(a) Magnetic wave
(b) Levitational wave 4. The technology that shares the limelight of
(c) Electric wave Bitcoin by providing technological support to
(d) Gravitational wave the said Bitcoin is called
(a) Blockcurrency (b) Blockcash
Sol. (d) Scientists observed gravitational waves-ripples in
the fabric of space time-for the second time. The (c) Blockchain (d) Blockcipher
gravitational waves were detected by both of the Sol. (c) Blockchain is a continuously growing list of
twin Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave records, called blocks, which are linked and secured
Observatory (LIGO) detectors, located in Livingston, using cryptography. Each block typically contains a
Louisiana and Hanford, Washington, USA. cryptographic hash pointer as a link to a previous
Gravitational waves carry information about their block, a timestamp and transaction data. By design,
origins and about the nature of gravity that cannot blockchains are inherently resistant to modification of
otherwise be obtained. the data.
* Memory Based
This technology came about initially as a way to Sol. (b) The Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Colombia
verify bitcoin transactions online and to enable two President Juan Manuel Santos, ‘‘for his resolute efforts
parties to transact business without having to know to bring the country’s more than 50-years-long civil
or trust each other. war to an end.’’
Arguably the most notable accomplishment of
5. Who won the Hridayanath Mangeshkar award Santos’s presidency has been his success in bringing
in 2016? the leftist FARC (Revolutionary Armed Forces of
(a) Vishwanathan Anand (b) Amir Khan Colombia) to the bargaining table after decades of
(c) Javed Akhtar (d) Salman Khan conflict.
Sol. (a) Five-time world chess champion Vishwanathan
Anand (46) was honoured with the Hridayanath
9. Which is India’s longest tunnel?
(a) Chennai-Nashri tunnel (b) Jawahar tunnel
Mangeshkar award 2016 established in 2011 by
(c) Zoji-La tunnel (d) Banihal-Nashri tunnel
Mumbai- based socio-cultural organisation Hridayesh
Art in the honour of music composer and singer Sol. (a) Chennai-Nashri tunnel, India’s longest highway
Hridayanath Mangeshkar. The award felicitates and tunnel, is on the Jammu-Srinagar national highway.
recognises successful individuals across the country The length of the tunnel is 9.28 km. The world’s
from various walks of life. It carries Monetary award longest highway tunnel is 24.51 km and is in
of ` 2 lakh and a memento. The previous recipients of Norway. It will reduce the travel time and
the award include eminent personalities like Lata distance between Jammu and Srinagar by 2 hrs
Mangeshkar, Asha Bhosle, Amitabh Bachchan, and 30.11 km, which will help save fuel worth
Hariprasad Chaurasia and AR Rahman. In 2017, this ` 27 lakh daily.
award was presented to Javed Akhtar. 10. How many Men’s Single Wimbledon titles does
6. The last person to ‘walk the moon’ passed away Roger Federer have to his name including the
this year. He was 2017 title?
(a) Buzz Aldrin (b) Neil Armstrong (a) 9 (b) 7
(c) Yuri Gagrin (d) Eugene Cernan (c) 8 (d) 6
Sol. (d) Eugene Cernan was the last man to walk on the Sol. (c) Roger Federer has won 8 man’s single wimbledon
Moon. He visited the Moon’s neighborhood twice, titles till now. Roger Federer was born on 8th August,
aboard Apollo 10 and Apollo 17 and also did a 1981. He is a Swiss professional tennis player, who
is currently ranked world No 2 in men’s singles
challenging spacewalk aboard Gemini 9. While he
tennis by the Association of Tennis Professionals.
chose not to fly in the shuttle programme, Cernan
Federer has won 19 Grand Slam singles titles, the
remained involved in space as a motivational speaker
most in history for a male tennis player and has
and sometime television commentator, who worked
reached a record 29 Grand Slam finals, 42 semi-final
on ABC broadcasts about the space shuttle.
appearances and 51 quarter-final appearances.
7. In January 2017 ........ banned FM Broadcasting. 11. Sweden based furniture maker IKEA acquired
(a) France (b) Sweden (c) Denmark (d) Norway
this online (and mobile) market place for
Sol. (d) Norway became the first nation to start switching finding freelance labour to carry out local on
off its FM radio network, in a risky and unpopular demand day-to-day tasks.
leap to digital technology that will be closely watched (a) Handy Man (b) Urban Clap
by other countries considering whether to follow suit. (c) Man Friday (d) Task Rabbit
The shutdown of the FM (Frequency Modulation)
Sol. (d) IKEA agreed to acquire Silicon Valley startup Task
network, introduced in the 1950s, began in the
Rabbit. Task Rabbit is one of the best-known startups
Northern city of Bodoe on 11th January, 2017. By
in the so called ‘gig’ economy that links freelance
the end of the year, all national FM broadcasts will
workers with jobs, from handy men to movers to
be closed in favour of DAB, which backers say will
assistants. It has about 60 employees, but over 60000
carry less hiss and clearer sound for listeners in the
independent workers use its platform.
large nation cut by fjords and mountains.
12. Which of the following personalities is a
8. Columbia’s Juan Manuel Santos won the 2016 member of the committee of administrations of
Nobel Prize for peace. What was his
Indian Cricket during October 2017?
contribution that was recognised? (a) Anjum Chopra (b) Sonika Kaliraman
(a) For his efforts to bring an end to the exploitation
(c) Diana Edulji (d) Mithaly Raj
of agrlcultural labourers
(b) For his efforts to end the country’s civil war Sol. (c) Former Indian women’s cricket team captain
(c) For his efforts to bring peace between latin Diana Edulji was named in the Supreme Court
American countries appointed four member committee of administration
(d) For his efforts to eradicate the use of land mines to the affairs of the Board of Control for Cricket in
in war India (BCCI).
13. The Flipkart backed startup is into a social 18. Identify the leading business personality in the
network platform exclusively for new parents. picture.
(a) Newparents (b) Post9Months
(c) Tiny Step (d) Baby Step
Sol. (c) Founded by Suhail Abidi, Tiny Step is an app-first
social network for parents. Tiny Step, a platform that
connects parents with doctors, child service providers
and other parents, has raised an undisclosed amount
in its seed round of funding from Flipkart. The startup
plans to use this amount to develop the product,
enhance user experience and strengthen the team. (a) Alice Vaidyan-CMD General Insurance Company
14. Who are the last two (present and the (b) Aarthi Subramanian- Exec. Director (Global
Head-DEGC) TCS
immediate past) Attorney Generals?
(a) Goolam Vahanvati and Milon Banerji (c) Kaku Nakhate President and Country Head Bank of
(b) K K venugopal and Goolam Vahanvati America Merill Lynch
(c) Mukul Rohatgi and Milon Banerji (d) Chitra Ramakrishna, MD & CEO National Stock
Exchange
(d) K K Venugopal and Mukul Rohatgi
Sol. (d) Chitra Ramakrishna (born in 1963) was the first
Sol. (d) The Attorney General for India is the Indian
Government’s chief legal advisor and its primary woman managing director and chief executive officer
lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed of the National Stock Exchange (NSE), an institution
by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the founded in the early 1990s to reform the capital
Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of market in India and now ranked as the world's largest
the President. The 15th and current Attorney General exchange in cash market trades and as one of the
is K K Venugopal. He replaced the Former Attorney top three exchanges in index and stock derivatives.
General of India Mr. Mukul Rohatgi. He was formally 19. The Eurasia Tunnel that was opened for traffic
appointed as with effect from 30th June, 2017. in December 2016 connecting Europe and Asia
15. Walmart acquired Men’s fashion retailer ....... passes underneath the …… .
(a) Bosphorus strait (b) Dover strait
for $ 310 million in 2017.
(a) GAP (b) BONOBOS (c) ZARA (d) BEBE (c) Bering strait (d) Hormuz strait
Sol. (b) Walmart has agreed to acquire the men’s clothing Sol. (a) The Eurasia tunnel is a road tunnel in Istanbul,
company BONOBOS for $ 310 million. BONOBOS, Turkey, crossing underneath the Bosphorus strait. The
founded 10 years ago in New York, began by selling tunnel was officially opened on 20th December,
simple chino pants on the internet. In recent years, it has 2016 and opened to traffic on 22nd December,
expanded to offer shirts, suits and other men’s clothing. 2016. It crosses the Bosphorus beneath the seabed at
a maximum depth of 106 m.
16. Which of the following is the cyclone that hit
India in December 2016? 20. What was the name of the mascot in the
(a) Eona (b) Nada (c) Gloria (d) Ockhi recently concluded Asian Athletic
Sol. (b) Cyclone Nada originated in the form of
Championship 2017 held at Bhubaneshwar?
(a) Shera (b) Coby
depression in the Bay of Bengal and hit Tamil Nadu
(c) Olly (d) Vinicious
and Kerala, in December 2016. There was light to
moderate rainfall in both the states, with fishermen Sol. (c) Olly, the Olive Ridley sea turtle was the official
advised not to venture out into the sea because of mascot for the 22nd edition of the Asian Athletics
the rough sea. With NDMA and (National Disaster Championships held in Bhubaneshwar from 6th to
Response Force) NDRF prepared to tackle the 9th July, 2017.
cyclone, not much damage was reported.
21. One of Olympics longest official sponsors
17. The RP-Sanjiv Goenka Group has roped in .... recently ended its 41 years long sponsorship.
as the brand ambassador for its package This organisation was ...... .
snacking brand …… on a bid to scale up its (a) Pepsi (b) General Motors
FMCG business. (c) Adidas (d) McDonalds
(a) M S Dhoni, E-Vita (b) Virender Singh, Yummee Sol. (d) McDonalds has ended its 41-years-long Olympic
(c) P V Sindhu, Hungree (d) Virat Kohli, Too Yumm Games sponsorship deal three years early. The
Sol. (d) The RP-Sanjiv Goenka Group has roped in India fast-food giant had a contract running through the
cricket captain Virat Kohli as the brand ambassador 2020 Tokyo Summer Olympics. McDonalds has been
for its packaged snacking brand, Too Yumm, in a bid a sponsor since 1976 and is part of the 10Cs top
to scale up its FMCG business which is already sponsors programme that contributes more than
almost ` 100 crore in seven months of its launch. $1 billion in every four-year cycle for the games.
22. On 15th February, 2017, ISRO made history by Sol. (c) Disney on 14th December, 2017 announced the
launching 104 satellites through a single deal to acquire many parts of 21st century fox owned
by Rupert Murdoch for $ 52.4 Billion in shows.
rocket. What was the rocket?
(a) PSLV 3104 (b) GSLV-IRS-P3 26. The language creator who constructed artificial
(c) PSLV-C37 (d) GSLV-C38 language ‘Dothraki’ for the television series
Sol. (c) PSLV-C37 was the 39th Mission of the Indian Game of Thrones is ......
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) programme and (a) David Henchman (b) David Peterson
its 16th mission in the XL configuration. PSLV-C37 (c) Robert Peterson (d) Robert Henchman
successfully carried and deployed a record 104 Sol. (b) Martin’s fantasy novel series A Song of Ice and
satellites in sun-synchronous orbits. It was launched Fire and its television adaptation Game of Thrones,
on 15th February, 2017 by the Indian Space Research where it is spoken by the Dothraki, nomadic
Organisation (ISRO) from the Satish Dhawan Space inhabitants of the Dothraki Sea. The language was
Centre at Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh, it broke the developed for the TV series by the linguist David J
earlier record of launching 37 satellites by a Russian Peterson based on the Dothraki words and phrases in
Dnepr rocket on 19th June, 2014. Martin’s novels.
23. In the world of Information Technology, SMAC 27. The human organ was discovered in 2017 in
has become very popular. What does the A our digestive system.
stand for in the abbreviation? (a) Mesentery (b) Lacteal
(a) Advanced (b) Analytics (c) Enterocyte (d) Ileocecal valve
(c) Analysis (d) Artificial intelligence
Sol. (a) The mesentery, the new organ is found in our
Sol. (b) To highlight the incorporation of the digestive systems and was long thought to be made
aforementioned enablers of technology, the IT up of fragmented, separate structures. But recent
industry has come up with a new concept which has research has shown that it’s actually one, continuous
become the buzzword of today, ‘SMAC’- an acronym organ. However, its function is still unclear.
for Social, Mobile, Analytics and Cloud.
It develops an ecosystem that allows businesses to 28. This comic book company was acquired by
enhance their operations and maximise their reach to Netflix in 2017.
the customers with minimal overhead. (a) Millarworld (b) DC Comics
(c) Marvel (d) Doton
24. Who owns the recently launched New Channel Sol. (a) Netflix has acquired Millarworld, which is an
called Republic TV? independent comic publishing company founded by
(a) Anil Ambani
Mark Millar, a storied comic book creator who is
(b) Subramaniam Swami
behind a host of iconic characters and series,
(c) Rajeev Chandrashekhar
including Kick-Ass and Kingsman, as well as the
(d) Arnab Goswami creative force behind some of Marvel’s best story
Sol. (d) Republic TV is an Indian English-language news arcs, including The Ultimates and Old Man Logan.
television channel. It broadcasts from its studios in
Mumbai and Bengaluru. Created by former Times 29. The country was recently boycotted by a
Now Editor-in-Chief Arnab Goswami, it was launched majority of its neighbours.
on 6th May, 2017. It is owned by Rajeev (a) Oman (b) Qatar
Chandrasekhar, an entrepreneur and an Independent (c) Bahrain (d) Kuwait
politician and others including Goswami, along with Sol. (b) Saudi Arabia and three other Arab nations have
his wife Samyabrata Ray. severed diplomatic ties and cut off transport links
with Qatar in an extraordinary attempt to isolate the
25. In a move that will reverberate from Gulf state as they claim its regional policies fuel
Hollywood and Silicon Valley to TVs and extremism and terrorism. The unprecedented move
smartphones around the world, the …… said against Doha by Riyadh, Egypt, the United Arab
Thursday (14th December, 2017) that it had Emirates and Bahrain escalates a dispute over Qatar’s
reached a deal to buy most of the ...... the support for political lslamist groups and perceptions
empire controlled by ......, in an all-stock that it is open to closer ties with Iran, Saudi Arabia’s
transaction valued at approximately rival. Qatar, which shares borders with Saudi,
(a) Walt Disney Company, 20th Century Fox, Rupert Bahrain and the UAE, has also been expelled from a
Murdoch, $70 billion Saudi-led military coalition fighting in Yemen.
(b) Paramount Pictures, 20th Century Fox, Rupert
Murdoch, $50 billion
30. In January 2017, Japan launched its first ever
military communications satellite. It was
(c) Walt Disney Company, 21st Century Fox, Rupert
Murdoch, $50 billion called
(a) Fuji-1 (b) Kirameki-2
(d) Paramount Pictures, 21st Century Fox, Rupert
(c) Suzuki-1 (d) Takahiro-2
Murdoch, $70 billion
Sol. (b) Japan launched Kirameki-2 communications Sol. (d) Since, nothing is given about share of David.
satellite, which will enable it to quickly share Hence, answer cannot be determined.
information about ballistic missiles launched by
North Korea or videos of Japanese troops deployed 4. What numbers should replace the question
overseas. Japan has recently launched its first military marks?
communications satellite in a bid to provide the 7 8 12
much needed impetus to the broadband capacity of 2 21 8 35 3 ? ?
its Self-Defense Forces. The satellite Kirameki-2 was
4 11 7
launched from Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency’s
Tanegashima Space Centre, on board of H-2A rocket (a) 31 and 4 (b) 49 and 21
and successfully entered orbit. (c) 29 and 2
(d) None of the mentioned options are correct
SECTION B Sol. (b) Here, 4 − 2= 2
Analytical & Logical Reasoning and 8 −7 =1

∴ Middle number = 21
1. What is the missing number? 2961 3870 ? 9108 Also, 11− 8 = 3 and 8 − 3 = 5
(a) 1629 (b) 9018 (c) 5823 (d) 7830 ∴ Middle number = 35
Sol. (c) In the given series, consider each number Similarly, 7 − 3 = 4 and 21− 12 = 9
2961− 1692 = 1269 ⇒ 3870 − 783 = 3087 ∴ Middle number = 49
9108 − 8019 = 1089
5. Study the rules employed in the following
Similarly, 5823 − 3285 = 2538 example and answer the question.
Here, each number when subtracted from its reverse,
Input from 22 61 tea India east 55 74
gives a number which have same digits as that of
original number. Step I east from 22 61 tea lndia 55 74
Step II east 74 from 22 61 tea India 55
2. Four women P, Q, R, S and three men X, Y, Z
play bridge, a card game for four players. Step III east 74 tea from 22 61 lndia 55
The men and women consist of three married Step IV east 74 tea 61 from 22 India 55
couples and a widow. Step V east 74 tea 61 India from 22 55
The members of each married couple are never Step VI east 74 tea 61 India 55 from 22
partners in a game.
Identify the input if the result of Step II of an
No more than one married couple ever plays in input is
the same bridge game.
Money 56 to 11 66 people notes 24
One night they played four bridge games in (a) Money 56 To 15 66 people notes 24
which partners were as follows: (b) To 15 Money 56 66 people notes 24
Game 1 : P and X versus Q and Y (c) To 15 66 Money people notes 24 56
Game 2 : P and Z versus S and Y (d) Cannot be determined
Game 3 : Q and R versus Y and Z Sol. (d) We cannot find the input from Step II.
Game 4 : R and X versus S and Z
6. Mr. Golu, the farmer is desperate to make
Who is the widow? some money by selling his livestock. He has
(a) P (b) S (c) R (d) Q many animals and has a unique set of
Sol. (c) As per the given conditions, we have the customer requirements. The customers do not
following partners. want to buy animals with disabilities or
Z + ←→ Q− ⇒ X + ←→ S− , Y + ←→ P− strange features. Mr. Golu has a Stock of
∴ R is the widow. animals which include Monkeys with two tails,
Sheep with six legs, cows with two udders,
3. David pans a small tea estate in Assam, all of horses with two right hooves and chicken with
which is shared by him with Rahul and his two toes on each foot. Which animal will he be
friends. Rahul has a share of 3/5th of it and his able to sell?
friend Santosh has twice as much as John, who (a) Horse
is also a close friend of Rahul. What fraction of (b) Cow
the land belongs to John? (c) Monkey
(a) 2/15 (b) 2/5 (d) He will not be able to sell any animal.
(c) 2/10 (d) Cannot be determined Sol. (d) Golu will not be able to sell any animal.
7. Which of the following is the greatest? 12. A villager places a map of his farm in a gram
I. log (2 + 4) II. (log 2 + log 4) panchayat meeting for resolving his dispute.
III. log (6 − 3) IV. log 6 − log 3 He places the map in a way that South-East
(a) Only III (b) Only IV
becomes North and North-East becomes West.
(c) Only II (d) Both I and II The Sarpanch is confused. His assistant comes
to help and turns the anti-clockwise by 90°. If
Sol. (c) I. log ( 2 + 4) = log 6 = log ( 2 × 3)
the Sarpanch has to see the South side in the
= log 2 + log 3 map, which side will he look?
II. log 2 + log 4 = log 2 + 2log 2 = 3log 2 (a) North (b) South-West
III. log (6 − 3) = log 3 (c) South (d) West
IV. log 6 − log 3 = log ( 2 × 3) − log 3 = log 2 Sol. (b)

Now, log 2 + log 3 > log 2,log 3 SW NW
S W W N
Also, 3log 2 > log 2 + log 3
90° ACW
Hence, II is the greatest. SE NW SW NE
8. In a village located in remote part of the world E N S E

5% of the population have a birth defect and NE SE
hence have only one leg, and half of the others If he has to see south, then he has to look in South-
go barefoot as they never wear shoes. What is West direction.
the least number of shoes needed in the village
if the total population is 10000? 13. A, B and C played some card games.
(a) 5000 (b) 4750 Each game had exactly one winner.
(c) 9500 (d) 10000 No player won 2 game in succession.
Sol. (b) Required number of shoes When a player was the dealer for a game
95 % of 10000 he/she did not win the game.
=
2 The dealer position proceeded from A to B to C,
95 × 10 000 then this order was repeated until they
= = 4750
100 × 2 stopped.
9. At 12:00 noon, my watch was correct. However, The only player to win more than 2 games did
it then started to lose 18 minutes per hour. not win the first game.
Four hours ago, it stopped completely and is Who was the only player to win more than 2
now showing the time as 15 : 30. What is the games?
correct time? (a) A (b) B
(a) 17:00 (b) 21:00 (c) 20:33 (d) 19:00 (c) C (d) Cannot be determined
Sol. (b) Let the correct time at 15:30 be y o’clock Sol. (c)
Dealer A B C A B C A
18y 7 3y 7
Then, y − = ⇒ y− = Winner B C A C A B C
60 2 10 2
7y 7 ∴ C won more than two games.
⇒ = ⇒ y=5
10 2
∴ Correct time after 4 hours = 21:00 14. There are several aspirants who are made to
sit in single row for an entrance examination.
10. 3182596 is to 65283 and 6742835 is to 53476, Rajesh is fifteenth from the left and Mohan is
therefore 7496258 is to ....... ? eight from the right end. If there are four
(a) 98765 (b) 76574 aspirants between them and Mohan is to the
(c) 65987 (d) 85647 right of Rajesh, then the total number of
Sol. (d) As, 3182596 ends with 6 and 65283 starts with 6. aspirants sitting in the row are ....... .
And 6742835 ends with 5 and 53476 starts with 5. (a) 26
Similarly, 7496258 ends with 8 and 85647 starts with 8. (b) 28
(c) 27
11. If 645 = 10 and 316 = 12, then 765 = ? (d) None of the mentioned options are correct
(a) 18 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 210
Sol. (c)
Sol. (b) As, 645 = 10 ⇒ (6 − 4) × 5 = 10 Rajesh Mohan
Left Rignt
And 316 = 12 ⇒ ( 3 − 1) × 6 = 12 14
15 th 8 th
7
Similarly, 765 = (7 − 6) × 5 = 5 ∴ Total aspirants = 14 + 1+ 4 + 1+ 7 = 27
15. Study the following information and answer 18. Which of the following is true with respect to
the question. the given information?
In a recent performance approval done by (a) K faces one of the immediate neighbours of X.
Company X, more than 70% of the employees (b) V sits exactly between W and U.
were found to be underperforming. (c) J faces Z.
‘I think that the restructuring done by the (d) J is an immediate neighbour of K.
company in the previous year is responsible for
the under-performance of the employees’- HR
19. Which of the following is true regarding N?
(a) K sits second to right of N.
manager of Company X.
(b) V is an immediate neighbour of the person who
Which of the following statements weakens the faces N.
statement of HR Manager of Company X? (c) Both L and O are immediate neighbours of N.
(a) The incentives linked to performance were (d) Only one person sits between N and J.
abolished upon restructuring creating
dissatisfaction among employees. 20. Who amongst the following sits second to the
(b) After restructuring the decision making power was right of the person who faces L?
taken away from employees thus delaying the work
(a) V (b) Z
by long hours.
(c) W (d) Y
(c) The number of projects in Company X increased by
60% this year thereby increasing the burden on Solutions (Q. Nos. 16-20) As per the given information,
the existing employees this year. the arrangement is as follows.
(d) After restructuring the employees were required to
report to multiple bosses leading to ambiguity at O J L K N M
the work place.
W Z U V Y X
Sol. (c) All the options except (c) strenghten the
statement of HR manager of Company X.
16. (a) M, O, X, W are sitting at extreme ends of both the
Directions (Q.Nos. 16-20) Study the following rows.
information to answer the given question. 17. (d) K faces V.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows 18. (c) J faces Z is true.
containing six people each in such a way that there is 19. (c) V is an immediate neighbour of Y and Y faces N.
an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1-
20. (d) Y sits second to the right of U and U faces L.
J, K, L, M, N and O are seated (but not necessarily in
the same order) and all of facing South. In row 2- U, V, 21. If ‘4’ is subtracted from each odd digit and ‘1’ is
W, X, Y and Z are seated (but not necessarily in the added to each even digit in the number
same order) and all of then are facing North. Therefore,
9476582, which of the following numbers
in the given seating arrangement, each member seated
will appear twice in the new number thus
in a row faces another member of the other row.
formed?
M sits fourth to the left of J. The one facing J sits third (a) Only 2 (b) Both 1 and 7
to the left of Y. (c) Both 3 and 5 (d) None
Only one person sits between Y and U. U does not sit
Sol. (c) 9 4 7 6 5 8 2
at any of the extreme ends of the line.
The one facing Z sits second to the right of K. Z does 5 5 3 7 1 9 3
not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.
∴ Both 3 and 5 appear twice.
Only two people sit between K and O.
The one facing K sits second to the left of X. 22. Read the given information and answer the
V is not an immediate neighbour of Z. L is not question. The government of State D was
immediate neighbour of M. recently criticised for accepting a proposal as
per which schools in the State will not conduct
16. Which of the following groups of people exams up to standard nine.
represents the people sitting at extreme ends
of both the rows? Rather, schools will promote all the students
(a) M, O, X, W (b) M, K, V, W up to standard nine and from standard nine
(c) N, K, V, Y (d) J, N, U, V onwards the students would either be passed
or failed depending upon their marks in the
17. Who amongst the following faces V? exams.
(a) M (b) L (c) J (d) K
Which of the following may not be a reason for 26. Who amongst the following visits India?
the criticism of the government of State D for (a) S (b) T (c) P (d) G
accepting the proposal?
(a) Several parents have raised concern that students
27. As per the given arrangement, P is related to
would not be willing to pay attention in class and the one who visits Japan in a certain way and
retain the information because they do not have to V is related to the one who visits Nepal in the
write exams. same way. To which of the following is R
(b) Students learn to write exam papers in a stipulated related to in the same way?
period of time with practice of solving exam (a) The one who visits Australia
papers over the years and many students may not (b) The one who visits China
be able to grasp this directly in the standard nine. (c) The one who visits India
(c) Many teachers are of the opinion that students have (d) The one who visits Malaysia
become very competitive and are mainly focused on
acquiring marks rather than gaining knowledge. 28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
(d) Studies suggest that students become less prone to way and thus form a group as per the given
exam anxiety and exam fear when they get used to arrangement. Which of the following does not
passing exams over the years as compared to when
belong to that group?
they do not appear for an exam at all.
(a) U-Friday (b) Q-Thursday
Sol. (c) Since, in Today’s time students are only focussed (c) S-Saturday (d) V-Sunday
on acquiring marks rather than on having knowledge
and exposure. So, option (c) can be reason for Solutions (Q. Nos. 23-28)
government of State D to accept the proposal. Monday T Germany
Tuesday P Japan
Directions (Q.Nos. 23-28) Study the following Wednesday U Australia
information and answer the question. Thursday R China
Seven friends, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V visit seven Friday Q Malaysia
different countries namely Japan, Germany, China, India, Saturday V Nepal
Nepal, Australia and Malaysia, not necessarily in the
Sunday S India
same order, starting from Monday to Sunday (of the
same week). 23. (b) Q visits Malaysia.
R visits on Thursday. Only two people visit between R and 24. (d) U visits a country on Wednesday.
the one who visits Germany. Only four people visit 25. (a) T visits immediately before P.
between the one who visits Germany and V. The one who 26. (a) S visits India.
visits Malaysia visits immediately before V. Only two people
visit between the one who visits Malaysia and P. S visits on 27. (b) R is related to the one who visits china using the
one of the days after the one who visits Malaysia. given pattern.
U visit immediately after the one who visit Japan. U 28. (a) U-Friday is the odd one out.
does not visit Malaysia. Only three people visit
between the one who visits Japan and the one who Directions (Q.Nos. 29-32) Study the following
visits Nepal. The one who visits Australia visits information carefully and answer the given question.
immediately before the one who visits China. Q does When a word and number arrangement machine is
not visit on Monday. given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges
them following a particular rule. The following is an
23. Which of the following countries does Q visit? illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the
(a) China (b) Malaysia numbers are two digit numbers)
(c) Japan (d) Nepal
Input 23 kinetic amount 64 nature 71 58 opium verdict
24. On which of the following days does U visit a 96 elderly 15
country? Step I opium 23 kinetic amount 64 nature 71 verdict 96
(a) Friday (b) Saturday elderly 15 58
(c) Sunday (d) Wednesday Step II elderly opium 23 kinetic amount nature 71
verdict 96 15 58 64
25. Which of the following is true about T?
(a) T visits immediately before P Step III amount elderly opium 23 kinetic nature 71
(b) T visits on Friday verdict 15 58 64 96
(c) T visits China Step IV 15 amount elderly opium 23 kinetic nature 71 58
(d) All the given options are true 64 96 verdict
Step V 23 15 amount elderly opium kinetic 71 58 64 96 33. The question consists of information and two
verdict nature Statements numbered I and II given below it.
Step VI 71 23 15 amount elderly opium 58 64 96 verdict You have to decide which of the given statements
nature kinetic weakens or strengthens the information and
Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement and decide the appropriate answer.
as the intended arrangement is obtained. Information Due to increased cases of
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out kidnapping in its vicinity, school M has made
the appropriate steps for the given input. it compulsory for parents or guardians of the
Input adverb 59 36 salient 81 idioms bakery 14 launch students to give a duly signed authority letter
47 umpire 62 to the person picking up the students from
school.
29. Which elements come exactly between ‘59’ and I. Most working parents rely on their domestic
‘bakery’ in Step II of the given input? help, for picking up their children from school,
(a) Only launch (b) Only 62
who can easily coerced into forging or misusing
(c) Only idioms (d) Both 81 and salient
the authority letter for monetary plans.
30. Which of the following combinations represents II. There is no photograph on the authority letter
the first two and the last two element of the making it difficult to identify the person who
step VI of the given input? comes to pick up the child.
(a) 81, 59, launch, bakery (b) 81, 62, salient, launch (a) Both Statement I and Statement II strengthen the
(c) 50, 47, bakery, salient (d) 62, 14, idioms, umpire information.
(b) Statements I strengthens the information while
31. If in the step III, ‘idioms’ interchanges its Statement II weakens the information.
position with ‘81’ and ‘salient’ also (c) Both Statements I and II weaken the information.
interchanges its position with ‘14’, then which (d) Both Statements I and II are neutral are neutral
element will be third to the left of ‘47’? Statements.
(a) 14 (b) salient
(c) adverb (d) idioms
Sol. (c) Both Statements I and II weaken the given
statements as domestic helpers can easily coerced into
32. Which step are the elements ‘bakery launch 47 forging the authority letter. And no photograph on the
14’ found in the same order? letter can be a great drawback of the authority letter.
(a) Sixth (b) Third
(c) Fourth (d) Fifth
34. How many such pairs of letters are there in
the word ‘PAINTED’ each of which has as
Solutions (Q. Nos. 29-32) many letters between them in the word in both
Input adverb 59 36 salient 81 idioms bakery 14 forward and backward directions, as there are
launch 47 umpire 62. between them in the English alphabetical series?
Step I adverb 59 36 salient 81 idioms bakery launch (a) More than three (b) Two
47 umpire 62 14. (c) Three (d) None
Step II idioms adverb 59 salient 81 bakery launch 47 Sol. (c)

umpire 62 14 36 P A I N T E D
Step III umpire idioms adverb 59 salient 81 bakery ∴ There are three such pairs PT, AE and ED.
launch 47 14 36 62.
Step IV 47 umpire idioms adverb 59 81 bakery launch Directions (Q.Nos. 35-39) Study the given
14 36 62 salient. information carefully to answer the given question.
Step V 59 47 umpire idioms adverb 81 bakery 14 36 In a certain code language, ‘urban people prefer cars' is
62 salient launch. written as 've fm ab eg’ ‘profit for urban areas' is
Step VI 81 59 47 umpire idioms adverb 14 36 62 written as 'ab ep zi so’ ‘people demand for hike' is
salient launch bakery. written as 'zi qr cd ve’ ‘hike in profit margin' is written
as 'al jn ep cd’ (All codes are two letter codes only)
29. (d) Both 81 and salient come exactly between 59 and
Bakery. 35. What will be the possible code for ‘urban food
30. (a) First two elements of Step VI-81, 59 demand’ in the given code language?
Last two elements of Step VI-launch, bakery (a) qr ab zi (b) qr cr ab (c) nj qr cd (d) qr ab jn
31. (d) Idioms will be third to the left of 47. 36. What is the code for areas in the given code
32. (b) Step III have elements ‘bakery launch 47 14’ in the language?
same order. (a) ab (b) zi (c) ep (d) so
37. What does the code ‘jn’ stand for in the given SECTION C
code language?
(a) either ‘hike’ or ‘people’ (b) either ‘in’ or ‘margin’ General English
(c) profit (d) hike
1. Give synonym for
38. In the given code language, if ‘small’ is coded Artless
as ‘wy’, then how will ‘prefer small cars’ be (a) Pretentious (b) Innocent
coded as? (c) Devious (d) Hypocritical
(a) wy eg ab (b) fm ve wy
(c) eg wy fm (d) ab eg fm Sol. (b) ‘Artless’ means ‘Innocent’.
39. What will be the code for ‘hike’ in the given 2. Choose a word from the given alternative
code language? which is opposite in meaning to the word
(a) xl HIATUS
(b) zi (a) Sardonic (b) Pessimist
(c) qr (c) Sentimental (d) Continuation
(d) other than those given as options Sol. (d) ‘Hiatus’ means - a short pause or break. Hence,
Solutions (Q.Nos. 35-39) its opposite will be ‘Continuation’.
3. Choose the right meaning of the idiom.
urban people prefer cars – ve fm ab eg A pyrrhic victory
(a) A victory that is not worth winning
profit for urban areas – ab ep zi so (b) Joyous victory
(c) Undeserving victory
people demand for hike – zi qr cd ve (d) None of the mentioned options
Sol. (a) The Idiom ‘A pyrrhic victory’ means ‘A victory
hike in profit margin – al jn ep cd that is not worth winning’ because the winner has
lost a lot in the process of winning.
35. (b) urban → ab demand → qr
∴Possible code for ‘urban food demand’ is ‘qr cr ab’. 4. Choose the correct based on the sentence.
36. (d) areas → so Akhil fared poorly in the entrance test. He
found it.
37. (b) jn→in/margin (a) Fathomable (b) Esoteric
38. (c) small→wy prefer/cars→ fm/eg (c) Manifest (d) Coherent
∴prefer small cars → eg wy fm Sol. (b) Since, the performance has been poor that’s why
39. (d) hike → cd Akhil didn’t well do in the exams. So, this can be
said to be ‘esoteric’ which means ‘that can be
40. Read the given information and answer the understood by only a few’.
question. Long term usage of antibiotics causes
the disease ‘Cretosis’ as it decreases the 5. Choose one word from the options given, that
secretion of hormone X. While body can endure can fit in to all sentences.
the level of hormone X dropping to half the 1. You should not …… to his demands.
required number of micrograms in levels 2. Ravi needed a loan. However, he did not ……
dropping to 23- micrograms needs immediate to the loan agreement.
medical attention. 3. The state will …… to the union.
Which of the following can be concluded from 4. The Prince will …… to the throne.
(a) Accede (b) Precede (c) Recede (d) Secede
the given statement?
(a) A patient can be said to have Cretosis only if his/her Sol. (a) In all the blanks above, ‘accede’ is the correct
hormone ‘X’ levels are 23 micrograms or low. usage which means - ‘to agree’.
(b) Usage of antibiotics on a short term cannot cause
‘Cretosis’ ever to a minor extent.
6. Choose the correct word(s) for the underlined
word(s). You cannot trust a person who plays
(c) All micrograms is exactly half of the amount of
hormone X required daily by the body. false and loose with others.
(a) fastloose (b) false or loose
(d) In a patient with hormone X level of 21 microgram,
(c) fast or loose (d) fast and loose
if administered another 23 micrograms would bring
the level to absolute normal. Sol. (d) Idioms don’t change their structure at all. Hence,
Sol. (d) Only (d) can be deduced from the given
‘false and loose’ will be written as ‘fast and loose’. It
statement. means to behave irresponsibly or irrmorally.
7. Choose the correct meaning of the phrase. 13. Find a correct match of grammatical function
The team of doctors sent to the village to with the usage of the word REBEL.
investigate the epidemic were exasperated.
The conditions there were ‘a perfect storm’. Function Usage
(a) Torrential rains (b) A worst possible scenario A. Noun (i) Her rebellious moods are due to the
(c) A wonderful situation (d) A risky proposition side effects of prescription drugs.
Sol. (b) The phrase ‘a perfect storm’ means ‘a worst B. Adjective (ii) Most teenagers rebel against their
possible scenario’. elders.
C. Verb (iii) Armed rebels moved towards the city.
8. Choose the correct meaning of the phrase. D. Adverb (iv) His body shivering with anger, Kunal's
When playing the Clarinet, Jerry is ‘all eyes fixed rebelliously.
thumbs’.
(a) Perfunctory (b) Dancing Codes
(c) An expert (d) Clumsy A B C D A B C D
Sol. (d) Phrase ‘all thumbs’ means ‘clumsy’ or awkward. (a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
9. Identify the Compound Relative Adverb in the
sentence. Sol. (c) Noun - Rebels
I do not know the venue where the match will Adjective - Rebellious
be played. Verb - Rebel
(a) will be (b) where (c) know (d) played
Adverb - Rebellously
Sol. (b) ‘where’ is the relative adverb.
14. Choose a word from the given alternatives which
10. Choose one word from the options given, that is opposite in meaning to the word- SABLE.
can fit in to all sentences. (a) Ebony
1. I cannot ......... this principled man. (b) Chromatic
2. These religious songs will ......... you. (c) Swarthy
(d) Raven
3. Better suppress than ......... your desires.
4. Only delicious food can ......... my hunger. Sol. (b) ‘Sable’ means ‘black’. Hence, ‘chromatic’ is its
correct opposite.
(a) Gratify (b) Edify (c) Occupy (d) Glorify
Sol. (a) ‘gratify’ means ‘to satisfy’ which can be filled 15. From the given alternatives, choose the one
well in all the blanks. which best expresses the given sentence in
Passive voice.
11. Select the pair that best expresses the
Who ate the last piece?
relationship similar to that expressed in this
(a) The last piece was eaten by who?
pair.
(b) Who was eating the last piece?
convivial : jocund
(c) The last piece who ate?
(a) lyrical : prosaic (b) umbrage : happiness
(d) The last piece was eaten by whom?
(c) timid : brave (d) folly : silliness
Sol. (d) The principal analogy is synonymous in relation. Sol. (d) ‘The last piece was eaten by whom?’ is the
Hence, the answer will bear the same relation. correct passive voice of the given sentence.
‘Folly : Silliness’ is the correct choice. 16. Give antonym for Prevaricate (Antirignous,
12. Rearrange the sentences to make it a readable Deceive)
(a) Gubble
paragraph.
(b) Unambiguous
1. There is a difference between foreign equity (c) Equivocate
stakes and that of domestic promoters. (d) Tergiversate
2. Apart from it, many other differences exist.
Sol. (b) ‘Prevari cate’ means ‘ambiguous’. Hence, the
3. The hike in the former was important as a opposite word will be ‘unambiguous’.
signal.
4. These have to be treated at different levels. 17. Give anytonym for Dilatory
(a) Tardy (b) Remiss
5. A similar signal is not required in respect of
(c) Indolent (d) Diligent
domestic industry.
(a) 15234 (d) 14352 Sol. (d) ‘Dilatory’ means slow and likely to cause delay.
(c) 23145 (d) 43215 So, Diligent will be its opposite.
Sol. (b) 14352

18. Rearrange the sentences to make it a readable 22. In the following question, choose the word
paragraph. which best expresses the opposite meaning of
1. Rather, it is the consequence of passive public the word in capital.
policy. She was very INDUSTRIOUS by
2. It follows that the output of economy must grow. temperament.
3. High unemployment is not the inevitable (a) Assiduous (b) Off-the-cuff
result of the pace of technological change. (c) Indolent (d) Apathetic
4. This will prevent the unemployment rate from Sol. (c) ‘Industrious’ means ‘hard working’. Hence, its
rising. opposite will be ‘indolent’ which means ‘lazy’.
5. We can anticipate a moderate increase in 23. Give anyonym for Fleece
labour force, accompanied by a slow decline in (a) Satiate (b) Bilk
the working hours. (c) Mulct (d) Rook
(a) 35421 (b) 42351 Sol. (a) ‘Fleece’ is the state of a person when one steals
(c) 24351 (d) 31524 out of his greed to satisfy it. So, ‘satiate’ will be its
Sol. (d) 31524 opposite.
19. From the given alternatives, choose the one 24. Give synonym for Perfunctory
which best expresses the given sentence in (a) Precise (b) Conscientious
Active voice. (c) Deliberate (d) Negligent
Sugarcane is raised by some people in the Sol. (d) ‘Perfunctory’ means done quickly, without taking
Hinterland. care or interest. So, negligent is similar in meaning
(a) Some people in the Hinterland raised sugarcane. to it.
(b) Sugarcane is raised in the Hinterland by some people.
(c) In the Hinterland is raised sugarcane by some people.
25. Identify the Compound Relative Pronoun in
the sentence.
(d) Some people raise sugarcane in the Hinterland.
Whosoever diggeth a pit shall fall therein.
Sol. (d) ‘Some people raise sugarcane in the Hinterland’ (a) therein (b) fall
is the correct active voice of the given sentence. (c) diggeth (d) whosoever
20. Find a correct match of grammatical function Sol. (d) ‘Whosoever’ is the compound relative pronoun.
with the usage of the word: SHADE
Function Usage 26. Choose the correct word based on the sentence.
Rupert drained all his trust funds. He was a
A. Noun (i) He shaded his eyes and smiles.
…… .
B. Adjective (ii) She saw a shady garden. (a) Miser (b) Churl
C. Verb (iii) He slunk shadily in the shadows. (c) Scrooge (d) Wastrel
D. Adverb (iv) The shade of the tree is welcome. Sol. (d) ‘Wastrel’ is one who wastes his money without any
Codes planning. Hence, (d) is the correct choice.
A B C D A B C D
(a) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
27. Select the pair that best expresses the
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
relationship similar to that expressed in this
pair.
Sol. (a) Noun - Shade
vacillate : be indecisive
Adjective - Shady (a) vacuous : empty (b) vindictive : vague
Verb - Shaded (c) vigilant : sleepy (d) vociferous : silent
Adverb - Shadily
Sol. (a) The principal analogy has the relation of being
21. Choose the correct word based on the sentence. synonymous to each other. So, ‘vacuous : empty’ is
Raj, normally an amicable person, gets the right choice.
towards the unjust. 28. Choose the correct word(s) for the underlined
(a) Affable (b) Benign
(c) Belligerent (d) Genial
word(s).
If I was you, I would do it at once.
Sol. (c) If someone is an amicable person and he sees (a) am (b) should be
something unjust towards others then it is natural (c) would be (d) were
that he would be angry with him. So, ‘belligerent’ is
the correct word to be used. Sol. (d) For imaginary conditionals, we use the auxiliary
‘‘were’’. Hence, (d) is the suitable option.
Directions (Q.Nos. 29-40) Read the following there is common law right to privacy (claimed against
passages and answer the questions that follow. other individuals and entities); there was doubt as to
whether such a right could be claimed against
PASSAGE I government. Obviously, the Constitution does not use
the word ‘privacy’ or we wouldn’t be having these
The first thing to know when talking about privacy in
hearings. Where, then, does the right to privacy find a
India is that a majority of the population does not
place in the Constitution?
always understand what it means. It is at times
confused with shame. It's also confused with the To answer that it is necessary to go deep into what is
emotion we feel when we do something that does not meant by a Fundamental Right. At their core, such
meet our standards or our sense of what is right. rights can be said to be the lines drawn by the
Modern Indian languages do not seem to have an exact Constitution delineating boundaries for the
word which captures the meaning of privacy; they are government’s actions. Such boundaries necessarily
usually some variation of the words for isolation, imply, the petitioners’ counsels have argued, that the
intimacy or secret, once again hinting at a conceptual Constitution guarantees that individuals have a right to
confusion. This explains the reactions of many who be left alone by the state on matters of individual
wonder what's the big deal about privacy because they choice. They have argued that the earlier decisions in
have nothing to hide from the government anyway. MP Sharma v Satish Chandra (1954) and Kharak Singh v
State of UP (1962) were rendered relying in a narrow
Privacy, however, is not only about hiding something or
and pedantic interpretation of Fundamental Rights - an
keeping it secret. It is, at its core, the right to be left
approach that has been discarded by the Supreme
alone. It does not mean that one is withdrawing from
Court since the 1970s.
society. It is an expectation that society will not
interfere in the choices made by the person so long as The Union Government has argued that it does not think
they do not cause harm to others. It means that one's that the right to privacy is a Fundamental Right protected
right to eat whatever one chooses, the right to drink under the Constitution. Attorney General KK Venugopal
what one chooses, the right to love and marry whom has argued that while the right to privacy may be
one chooses, to wear what one chooses, among others, protected as a common law right or some element of it
are rights which the state cannot interfere with. part of a Fundamental Right, by itself, it could not per se
be guaranteed as a Fundamental Right. The arguments of
In a society, where adults do not necessarily exercise
the Union Government and State Government supporting
most of these choices of their own free will (either
it have been premised on an ‘originalistic’ interpretation of
because of family, caste or societal pressures), it is
the Constitution - that the framers never intended privacy
natural that the very concept of privacy seems
to be a Fundamental Right available to citizens. Given the
incomprehensible. If you have grown up in a society
Supreme Court's recent approach where it has not been
where everything is dictated by someone else and the
hesitant to depart from the narrow interpretation of the
cost of disobedience is high to have the freedom to
Constitution when the situation demands it (such as
choose what you, will in such important matters sounds
appointment of judges), perhaps this approach may not
like fantasy. But it is also a common misconception that
find much judicial favour. Far more worrisome is the
the non-well-off in India do not know or care about
argument that privacy is only the preserve of the
privacy. Millions of men and women push back daily
well-off and the elite and protecting it through law and
against the oppressive hold of their families and
legal institutions may stand in the way of ‘development’
communities and fight for the freedom to make their
and poverty alleviation.
own choices. They may not have the right word for it,
but they are creating space for themselves to exercise This not only misunderstands what the right to privacy
the right to privacy. means but underplays its role in allowing individuals to
make free choices. It is an argument of a paternalistic
It is in this context that one must understand the
and patriarchal state that knows what's good for you
hearings in the Supreme Court on the right to privacy.
and will not let you make your own choices. It also
Although, the nine-judge bench has been constituted to
clashes with the ethos of a limited government
decide whether there is a fundamental right to privacy
enshrined in the Constitution.
protected under the Constitution in the specific
context of the Aadhar case, privacy has many more A nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court holding that the
dimensions than just data protection or surveillance by Constitution guarantees a right to privacy will, however,
the state. A Fundamental Right to privacy, enshrined only settle one issue - that there is a right to privacy
and protected in the Constitution, would mean that all guaranteed against state intervention. To what extent this
persons have the right to be left alone by the state, right can be claimed and in what circumstances the state
unless such intrusion is necessitated by a just, may be allowed to intrude will have to be decided on a
reasonable and fair law. case by case basis. At most, the court's judgement may
outline the principles on the basis of which judicial review
The nine-judge bench was necessitated in the first
will be carried out, but it cannot be expected to prescribe
place because while multiple judgements have held that
an answer for every foreseeable situation.
Whatever the final judgement’, the implications will go

far beyond just the Aadhar scheme and law. The law PASSAGE II
laid down by the Supreme Court on privacy could Poor Elizabeth Beckford. She was 70 years old and her
affect the course of development of the law governing crime was stealing 12lb of Gloucester cheese. For that
reproductive rights, gay rights, beef bans, prohibition, she could have been hanged. Hundreds did in those
among a host of other issues that the Indian State and violent, vengeful days, dancing ‘the Tyburn frisk’ in the
society are grappling with. words of those who crammed around the gallows to
watch this favourite spectator sport of the 18th century.
29. According to the author, what is meant by a But the state, in its mercy, saved her life - and gave her
Fundamental Right? a punishment that some would see as worse than
(a) Fundamental rights can be said to be the lines
death. She was an unwilling passenger on a fleet of 11
drawn by the Constitution delineating boundaries
ships that set out from England in 1787, the first of the
for the government's actions
convoys of the criminal underclass -as the ruling elite
(b) Privacy is not a Fundamental Right
of Georgian England saw them - sent in chains to
(c) All the mentioned options are correct
colonise new and dangerous shores on the other side
(d) Fundamental Right is the preserve of the well-off
of the world.
and the elite
Sol. (a) According to the author, Fundamental Right
Those 736 sad souls on that pioneering voyage would
means it can be said to be the lines drawn by the establish a new world. Though she didn’t know it - and
constitution delineating boundaries for the the thought would have given her no consolation as she
government’s actions. lay crammed with others in cell-like spaces below
decks - Elizabeth was a founder member of a new
30. The tone of this passage is country, Australia.
(a) social (b) philosophical (c) moral (d) reflective On Thursday, more than 200 years later, those who
Sol. (d) The tone of the passage is reflective, which made those dreadful voyages - 163000 in all over the
reflects upon the idea and the concept of privacy as years to come - are feted. 21st century Australians
a Fundamental Right. celebrate their convict past, taking their lead from
premier John Howard, a descendant of transported folk
31. When the author says …… ‘‘to have the
on both sides of his family.
freedom to choose what you will, in such
matters, sounds like fantasy’’, he means. The shipping and court registers of the banished have
(a) To be able to do what you desire in essential long lain in the National Archive in London. Now, in the
matters is like a dream come true knowledge that two million of us in Britain probably
(b) You can do what you like and not pay for it have blood links with Australia’s criminal forebears, they
(c) To care two hoots for somebody have been put online for the hundreds of thousands of
(d) None of the mentioned options are correct amateur genealogists in this country, eager to find out
Sol. (a) The phrase : ‘‘to have ……’’ means that ‘‘to be more about their roots.
able to do what you desire in essential matters is like The history they hide may not be pleasant. Elizabeth,
a dream come true’’. incredibly, was not the oldest on that first ark of
despair. Dorothy Handland, a dealer in rags and old
32. The rights that the state cannot interfere with are clothes, was 82. How she was expected to contribute to
(a) The right to drink whatever one chooses
empire-building in a virgin land whose hardships could
(b) The right to wear what one chooses
only be guessed at is a mystery as great as the place
(c) The right to love and marry whom one chooses
she was being sent to. But nonetheless she was among
(d) All the mentioned options are correct
the waggon-loads of prisoners dragged down to the
Sol. (d) All the mentioned options are correct as the state docks in Portsmouth from the sunless ship hulks at
cannot interfere with any one of them. Woolwich where they had been held because the
33. The author says people usually confuse privacy prisons were all full. They were dressed in rags, their
with faces pale from imprisonment, louse-ridden and thin as
(a) emotion (b) shame (c) hatred (d) despondency rakes from the slops they had been forced to live on.
Sol. (d) The author says people usually confuse privacy Alongside the grannies were 120 other women, mostly
with despondency. young, like 22-years-old Elizabeth Powley. Penniless at
home in Norfolk she had raided someone’s kitchen for a
34. The most suitable title for this passage would be few shillings’ worth of bacon, flour and raisins and ‘24
(a) The Right to be Left Alone
ounces weight of butter valued 12d’. The death sentence
(b) Only the Elite can Enjoy Privacy
on this starving girl was commuted and, as Robert
(c) The Constitution
Hughes, historian of the transportations notes wryly in
(d) Aadhar Card
his book, The Fatal Shore, ‘she was sent to Australia,
Sol. (a) The most suitable title for this passage is ‘The never to eat butter again’.
Right to be Left Alone’.
At least the youngest of the ‘passengers’, John Hudson, 37. What was the crime of William Francis?
would never be pushed up another chimney. The (a) He stole some snuff
nine-years old sweep was condemned to seven years’ (b) He stole ribbon and silk stockings
exile for theft. All on board were small-time criminals (c) He stole a book
whose punishment, by the standards of later (d) He stole 12 lb of butter
generations, in no degree fitted the crime. James Grace,
Sol. (c) William Francis stole a book.
11, had taken some ribbon and a pair of silk stockings.
John Wisehammer, 15, snatched some snuff from a shop 38. Lady Penrhyn refers to
counter in Gloucester. (a) a surgeon (b) a judge
For that, they would never see home again. The most (c) a criminal (d) a ship
extraordinary crime was that of William Francis, who Sol. (d) Lady Penrhyn refers to a ship.
stole a book about ‘the flourishing state of the island of
Tobago’ from a gentleman in London. If he had had 39. On the basis of the passage, why was Australia
time to read it before he was caught, perhaps he had developed in 1787?
(a) To send ill people to a warmer island
an inkling of what now lay ahead of him in a British
(b) To serve as a penal colony
colony far rawer than the West Indies.
(c) To employ people
There were no political prisoners, however, no rabble (d) To serve as a military-colony
rousing, hay stack burning activists or trade unionists
Sol. (b) On the basis of the passage, Australia was
sentenced for their subversive activities, as some of
developed in 1787 to serve as a penal colony.
today’s anti-Pom Australians like to think. The women,
however, were treated poorly. They arrived at the 40. As per the passage, what does the word ‘Pom’
gangplank of their vessel, the Lady Penrhyn, ‘‘in a denote?
situation that stamps them with infamy’’, according to (a) Aboriginals (b) Australian
the officer in command of the expedition, Captain (c) Englishmen (d) Pomegranate
Arthur Phillip. He was appalled at their treatment by Sol. (b) The word ‘Pom’ denotes Australia.
the magistrates who had sentenced them and the jailers
who had held them. Whether he could guarantee them
better lives at the end of their nine-months voyage was SECTION D
yet to be seen. What they were about to embark on
was the longest journey ever attempted by such a large
Quantitative Aptitude
group of people.
1. Find out next number in the series 2, 7, 17, 34,
Where they were going might as well have been the 60, ...... .
Moon. Crewmen, let alone convicts, believed they would (a) 97 (b) 108 (c) 95 (d) 121
never see home or their loved ones again. ‘Oh my God,’
Sol. (a) 2, 7, 17, 34, 60, 97
wrote one officer of Marines in his journal, ‘‘all my
hopes are over of seeing my beloved wife and son.’’ +(22+1)+(32+1)+(42+1)+(52+1)+(62+1)
As for the country they were going to, almost nothing

was known except for the promise of Captain James 2. Kiran, Kumar and Kedar were watching
Cook, its discoverer, that this ‘New South Wales' as he cricket and eating groundnuts. They pop a
chose to call it, was now British. But, to some observers groundnut in their mouth every 40 seconds,
of the hang ‘em tendency, the thought that the felons 72 seconds and 108 seconds respectively and
might be better off than if they had languished in jail munch it. If all of them pop a groundnut
provoked bitter reproach. simultaneously at 8:20:00 hours, then at what
time will they again pop groundnuts again in
35. Why was Dorothy Handland sent to the ‘New their mouth simultaneously?
World’? (a) 8:22:20 hours (b) 8:27:12 hours
(a) She dealt in rags and old clothes (c) 8:38:00 hours (d) 8:25:15 hours
(b) She was a criminal
Sol. (c) They pop a groundnut simultaneously at 8 : 20 : 00 hr.
(c) She was old
(d) There is no clear reason LCM of 40 sec, 72 sec, 108 sec = 1080 sec
1080
Sol. (b) Dorothy Handland was sent to ‘‘New World’’ for = min = 18 min
she was a criminal. 60
Hence, they pop a groundnut simultaneously after
36. Who discovered Australia? 18 min i.e., at 8:38:00.
(a) John Howard (b) Arthur Phillip
(c) James Cook (d) Robert Hughes
3. Find the odd one in the series: 10, 16, 24, 28, 30
(a) 16 (b) 28
Sol. (c) Australia was discovered by James Cook. (c) 30 (d) 24
Sol. (a) 16 6. Two congruent triangles ∆ABC and ∆DEF each

10 18 24 28 30 with area 198 placed over each other as shown
+8 +6 +4 +2
in the figure. AB is parallel to DE and the
centres of both the triangles coincide with each
∴ 16 is the odd one in the series and it should be other. The area of region PQRSTU is .
replaced by 18. C
4. The probabilities that a student passes in T S
Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry are m, p D E
and c, respectively. Of these subjects the U R
student has 75% chance of passing in atleast
one, a 50% chance of passing in atleast two A B
P Q
and a 40% chance of passing in exactly, two, F
which of the following relations are true. 2
27 13 (a) 199 cm (b) 132 cm2
(a) p + m + c = (b) p + m + c =
20 20 (c) 198 cm2 (d) Cannot be determined
1
(c) pmc = (d) Both (a) and (c) Sol. (b) There are total 12 similar triangles each with
10 equal area. But a larger triangle ABC (or DEF) has
3 only 9 smaller triangles. Out of 9 triangles, only 6
Sol. (a) We have, P( A ∪ B ∪ C) =
4 triangles are common.
i.e., P( A) + P( B) + P(C) − P( A ∩ B) ∴ Area of common region
3 6
− P ( B ∩ C) − P( A ∩ C) + P( A ∪ B ∪ C) = = × 198 = 132 cm2
4 9
and P( A ∩ B) + P( B ∩ C) + P( A ∩ C) C
1
− 2P ( A ∩ B ∩ C) =
2 D E
and P( A ∩ B) + P( B ∩ C) + P( A ∩ C)
2
− 3P ( A ∩ B ∩ C) =
5 A B
Solving the above equations (last two), we get
F
1 2 1
P( A ∩ B ∩ C) = − =
2 5 10 7. An Olympic size swimming pool requires
1 1 6 hours to fill up to the brim when water is
P( A) P( B) P(C) = ⇒ pmc =
10 10 supplied simultaneously by three pipes A, B
So, P( A) + P( B) + P(C) − [P( A ∩ B) and C.
3
+ P( B ∩ C) + P( A ∩ C)] + P( A ∪ B ∪ C) = The pipes start filling at 12 o’clock in the night
4 but if pipe C is shut off at 3 am, the swimming
p+ m+ c− +  + 1 2 1
=
3 pool fill up to the brim at 7 am. The swimming
 2 10 10 4
pool is drained in the evening.
27
p+ m+ c= That night, if only pipe C is used to fill up the
20 swimming pool and the filling starts at 12
5. Mr. Murthy invested ` 25000 in a mutual fund o’clock in the night, what will be the time in
three years ago. The value of the amount the clock when the swimming pool will be filled
increased by 15% in the first year, it decreased up to the brim?
(a) 12 o’clock night (b) 9 am morning
by 15% in the second year and again increased
(c) 6 pm evening (d) 12 o’clock noon
by 10% during the third year. What is the
value of the investment at the end of the three Sol. (a) Part of swimming pool filled by pipes A, B and C
year period? in 1 hr.
(a) 26880 (b) 28890 1 1 1 1
⇒ + + =
(c) 27500 (d) 26500 A B C 6
Sol. (a) Value of investment at the end of 3 yr ∴Part of swimming pool filled by pipes A, B and C in 3 hr
= 25000 1+
15   15   10  3 1
 1−  1+  = =
 100  100  100 6 2
115 85 110
25000 × × × 3  + +  =
1 1 1 1
⇒ …(i)
100 100 100  A B C 2
= ` 26881.25 ≈ ` 26880
1 1
∴ Remaining part = 1− = 10. John was writing an entrance test. Every
2 2 question is as a multiple choice question with
Part filled by pipes A and B in 4 hr is half part of four probable answers and one correct answer.
pool. The probability that he knows the answer is
4  +  =
1 1 1 80%. If he correctly answered a question, then
∴
 A B 2 what is the probability that he was guessing?
1 1 1 (a) 1/5
⇒ + = …(ii) (b) 1/17
A B 8
(c) 1/27
Put the value of Eq.(ii) in Eq.(i), we get (d) None of the mentioned options are correct
3   + =
1 3 1 3 1 3 1
⇒ = − Sol. (a) Probability that the answer is correct =
 8 C 2 C 2 8 2
3 1 1
⇒ = ⇒ C = 24 hr Probability that the answer is wrong =
C 8 2
80 4
∴ Pipe C filled the pool in 24 hr. So, time in the Probability that he knows the answer = =
clock when the pool is filled will be 12 o’clock 100 5
night. 20 1
Probability that he don’t know the answer = =
100 5
8. In an international school, 80% of the students 1 1
know French, 85% know German and 75% ×
2 5 1 10 1
know both French and German. If 40 students Required probability = = × =
1 4 1 1 10 ( 4 + 1) 5
× + ×
don't know both, then find total number of 2 5 2 5
students.
(a) 400 (b) 350 11. In an India-Pakistan 20 over cricket match,
(c) 460 (d) 450 Pakistan played first and India had to chase a
Sol. (a) Let the total number of students be 100. high score. Rain created havoc and the average
Then, number of overs was reduced to 18, India
F G
needed 144 runs to win. In the initial 5 overs,
the average scoring rate was 6 but in next
5 75 10
5 overs it increased to 8. It then declined to 5
in next 5 overs. Now, what is the average
needed by India in the remaining overs to win
Therefore, total number of students who know either
French or German or both = 5 + 75 + 10 = 90
the match?
(a) 16.33 (b) 13.33 (c) 12.33 (d) 14.33
Hence, total number of students don’t know both
= 100 − 90 = 10 Sol. (a) Total runs scored in 15 overs = 5 × 6 + 5 × 8 + 5 × 5
For, 10 → 100 = 30 + 40 + 25 = 95
∴ 40 → 100 × 4 = 400 Total remaining runs to win the match = 144 − 95 = 49
Hence, total number of students = 400 Therefore, average required to win the match in
49
9. The price of an item was increased during remaining 3 overs = = 16.33
3
festival season by 10%. Later the new price
was decreased by 10%. If the latest price is 12. Ravi has three sons and his age is equal to the
1000, what was the approximate original sum of the ages of his sons. After 12 years, his
price? age will be equal to the sum of ages of his
(a) 1234.50 (b) 1020.50 eldest two sons. 4 years later, his age will be
(c) 1232.75 equal to sum of the age of the oldest and
youngest. Again, 4 years after that, his age will
Sol. (d) Let the Original Price of an item be ` x. be equal to sum of the ages of the two
110 90 youngest. Find the present age of Ravi and his
New price of an item = x × × sons.
100 100
(a) 44, 18, 16, 12 (b) 48, 18, 16, 10
According to the question, (c) 48, 20, 16, 12 (d) 48, 20, 12, 8
110 90
1000 = x × × Sol. (c) Let the present ages of Ravi and his three sons be
100 100
R, S1, S 2 and S 3 , respectively.
⇒ x = `1010.10 And, S1 < S 2 < S 3 (Ages)
⇒ x ≈ `1010 R = S1 + S 2 + S 3 (given) …(i)
After 12 years, of maximum possible area EFGP and CDQH.

R + 12 = S 2 + 12 + S 3 + 12 Then RC+ FS = …… .
R = S 2 + S 3 + 24 − 12 S R
⇒ R = S 2 + S 3 + 12 …(ii)
After (12 + 4) years, F E D C
R + 16 = S1 + 16 + S 3 + 16
A G P O Q H B
⇒ R = S1 + S 3 + 32 − 16
⇒ R = S1 + S 3 + 16 …(iii) (a) 2 / 5 (2r ) (b) 2 2 r / 3
r
After (12 + 4 + 4) years, (c) 2 / 5
R + 20 = S1 + 20 + S 2 + 20 (d) None of the mentioned options are correct
⇒ R = S1 + S 2 + 20 …(iv) Sol. (a) OR 2 = OQ2 + RQ2

On Adding Eqs. (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get OR 2 = 5OQ2 [Q RQ = 2OQ ]
3R = 2( S1 + S 2 + S 3 ) + 12 + 16 + 20 r
⇒ Radius ( r) = OQ 5, OQ =
⇒ 3R = 2(R) + 48 [Q S1 + S 2 + S 3 = R, Eq. (i)] 5
Again, OC = OH + HC
2 2 2
⇒ R = 48 years
r 2 = (OQ + QH) 2 + (QH) 2 (Q HQ = HC)
Present age of Ravi = 48 years 2
 r 
And, with the option we can see that only option (c) ⇒ r2 =  + QH + QH 2
is the correct option as in that sum of ages of son  5 
i.e., 20 + 16 + 12 = 48 years. ⇒ QH =
r
5
13. If log x y = 100 and log 3 x = 100, then the value of r RQ
y is ∴ HC = =
5 2
(a) 310000 (b) 3100 2 2
(c) 31000 (d) 310  r   r 
RC = RO2 + OC 2 =   +  
 5  5
Sol. (a) log x y = 100, log y x = 100
= r 2/ 5
Given, log 3 x = 100 ⇒ x = 3100
∴ RC + FS = 2r 2 / 5
Now, log x y = 100 ⇒ y = x100
⇒ y = ( 3100 )100 ⇒ y = 310000 16. In the given figure CD = 10 cm. CT is the
tangent at C, making an angle of π/ 4 with CD.
14. The population of a state is consistently O is the centre of the circle. The perimeter of
decreasing due to migration owing lack of
the shaded region is AOC is
opportunities in the state. It has been observed
that the population has decreased at a rate of
10 percent each year in the last few years. If A
today, the population of the state is 100 O D
million, what will be the population of the B
state after 3 years?
(a) 63 million
(b) 83 million C T
(c) 73 million (a) 27 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 13 cm
Sol. (b) ∠OCT = 90°, ∠DCT = 45°
Sol. (c) Population of the state after 3 years
∴ ∠OCB = 45° and ∠COB = 45°
= 100 1−
10   10   10 
 1−  1−  ∴ ∠AOC = 180° − 45° = 135°
 100  100  100
90 90 90 Now, CD = 10 ⇒ BC = 5 cm = OB
= 100 × × × = 729
. million
100 100 100 ⇒ OC = 5 2 cm = OA
≈ 73 million (approximately) Again, AC 2 = OA2 + OC 2 − 2OA ⋅ OC cos 135°
= 2(OA) 2 − 2(OA) 2 ⋅ cos 135°
15. In the figure given below, the semi-circle with  1 100
centre O has a diameter AB = 2 r. PQRS is a = 2( 5 2) 2 −2( 5 2) 2 ×  −  = 100 +
 2 2
square of maximum possible area. P and Q are
lie on the diameter AB. R and S are on the arc AC 2 = 170.70 ⇒ AC ≈ 13 cm
of the semi-circle. There are two more squares ∴ Perimeter of ∆OAC = OA + OC + AC
= 5 2 + 5 2 + 13 = 27 cm
17. In how many ways can we arrange the word 20. On her birthday, Vrinda gets a gift box which
CAPSTONE so that all the vowels come contains 6 chocolates and 8 cup cakes. She eats
together? 7 of them randomly. What is the probability
(a) 1440 (b) 4320 that she ate 3 chocolates and 4 cupcakes?
(c) 2160 (d) 3480 (a) 0.16231 approximately (b) 0.05655 approximately
Sol. (b) Required arrangements = 6 ! × 3! (c) 0.40792 approximately (d) 0.01165 approximately
= 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 × 3 × 2 = 4320 6
C 3 × 8C 4
Sol. (c) Required Probability = 14
C7
18. The area of minor segment PQ is
6! 8!
×
3! 3! 4 ! × 4 !
=
14 !
O
7 !× 7 !
10 10 cm
120° 20 × 70
= = 0.40792 approximately
P Q 3432
12cm
(a) 60.14 sq cm (b) 56.25 sq cm (c) 59.43 sq cm (d) 56.76 sq cm 21. To cross a man running at 9 km/hr in the
direction of train, a train takes 40 seconds and
θ
Sol. (d) Area of sector = OPQO = πr 2 × to cross another man running at 6 km/hr in
360°
same direction it takes 30 seconds. Find the
120 100π
= 100π × = sq cm speed of the train.
360° 3 (a) 20 km/hr
(b) 18 km/hr
(c) 14 km/hr
O (d) Cannot be determined
10 10
Sol. (b) Let the speed of the train be ‘x’ km/hr.
P Q According to the question,
6 R 6
40 30
( x − 9) × = ( x − 6) ×
Now, PR = RQ = 6 cm 3600 3600
[Q Perpendicular from centre to the chord bisects the ⇒ −36x + 4x = − 18 + 3x
chord] ⇒ − 4x + 3x = 18 − 36
∴ OR = 100 − 36 = 64 = 8 cm ⇒ − x = − 18
1 ⇒ x = 18 km/hr
Area of ∆POQ = × 12 × 8 = 48 sq cm
2
100 π 22. A library has 10 copies of book A, 3 copies each
Hence, Area of minor segment PQ = − 48 sq cm of books B and C, 2 copies each of books D, E, F
3
≈ 56.76 sq cm and a single copy of books G and H. The total
number of ways in which these books can be
19. A company employs 35 people whose average arranged on a shell is
age is 45 years. The 10 most aged people have (a) (12!)/(10!(3!) 2(2!) 2)
an average age that is 20% more than the (b) (24!)/101(3!) 2(2!) 3
average of all 35 people in the company. Three (c) (24!)/(10!(3!) 2(2!) 2)
new employees of aged 32, 35 and 30 joined the (d) None of the mentioned options are correct
company. Now, what is the difference in the 24 !
average age of the same 10 most aged people Sol. (b) Required number of ways =
10 !( 3!) 2 ( 2!) 3
and the average age of all the people in the
company? 23. What is the value of ( p − 1) q +1 , if pq = 169 and p
(a) 10 years (b) 9 years
(c) 12 years (d) 11 years and q are whole numbers?
(a) 1728 (b) 2187
Sol. (a) Total age of 35 people = 35 × 45 = 1575 years
(c) 169 (d) 144
120
Average age of 10 most aged people = 45 × = 54 Sol. (a) pq = 169
100
1575 + 32 + 35 + 30 since 132 = 169
Average age of all employees = ∴ p = 13 and q = 2
35 + 3
= 44 years Hence, ( p − 1) q+ 1 = (13 − 1) 2 + 1 = 123 = 1728
∴ Required difference = 54 − 44 = 10 years
24. The population of a city increased by 5% but If a person felt good after his/her first
decreases by 0.25% each year due to interview, what is the probability that he/she
emigration. Find the net increase in per cent in will receive a call for the second interview?
3 years? (a) Approximately 73% (b) Approximately 89%
(a) 11.24% (c) Approximately 53% (d) Approximately 63%
(b) 13.23% Sol. (c) Required probability
(c) 14.93% 90 % of 50%
= × 100
80 % of 50% + 90% of 50%
5 × 0.25 1 9
Sol. (c) Net increase each year = 5 − 0.25 − ×
100 2 10
= × 100
= 4.7375 % ≈ 4.75% 1 4 1 9
× + ×
Let initial population be 100. 2 5 2 10
104.75 3 9
∴ Population after 3 years = 100 ×   = 114.93 9
 100  = 20 × 100 = × 100 ≈ 53 %
8 9 17
Hence, net increase in per cent = 14.93% +
20 20
28. The sum of three numbers is 138. The ratio of
25. How many factors of 28★36★54★105 are first to the second number is 3 : 4 and that of
multiples of 120? second to the third is 8 : 9. The first number is
(a) 594 (b) 660 (a) 48 (b) 36 (c) 54 (d) 42
(c) 540
Sol. (b) Let the three numbers be x , y and z.
x + y + z = 138 …(i)
Sol. (d) The prime factoriation of x 3
= ⇒ 4x = 3y …(ii)
28 × 36 × 54 × 105 is 213 × 36 × 59 y 4
120 can be prime factorised as 23 × 3 × 5 y 8
= ⇒ 9y = 8z …(iii)
z 9
All factors of 213 × 36 × 59 than can be written as
Put the value of Eqs. (ii) and (iii) in Eq. (i), we get
multiples of 120 will be of the form 23 × 3 × 5 × k.
x + y + z = 138
∴ 213 × 36 × 59 = 23 × 3 × 5 × k 3y 9y
⇒ +y+ = 138
⇒ k = 210 × 35 × 58 4 8
∴ Number of factors of k = (10 + 1) ( 5 + 1) (8 + 1) 6y + 8y + 9y
⇒ = 138
= 11× 6 × 9 = 594 8
⇒ 23y = 138 × 8 ⇒ y = 48
26. The remainder obtained when 297 is divided by 3 × 48
∴ First number, x = = 36
97 is 4
(a) 2 29. If A is the set of odd integers less than 50 and
(b) 0 B is the set of the squares of integers in A, how
(c) 97
many elements does the intersection of A and
B contain?
Sol. (a) 297 = 296 ⋅ 2 (a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 3 (d) Cannot be determined
R ( 296 ÷ 97) = 1
[If p is a prime number and a is an integar, then ap−1 Sol. (a) A = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11… 49}, B = {1, 9, 25, 49,... , 2401}
divided by p gives 1 as remainder] A ∩ B = {1, 9, 25, 49}
 296 ⋅ 2 ∴ A ∩ B contains 4 element.
∴ R  = 1⋅ 2 = 2
 97  30. A Bank lent a certain sum of money at a
certain rate of simple interest for 2 years to
27. Out of all the MBA aspirants interviewed, 50% David. He lent this sum at the same rate of
of those who attended the first interview
interest but compounded annually for the same
received the call for second interview. 90% of
period to Pankaj, who has a bad credit history.
the people who got a call for second interview
At the end of two years, David received ` 2400
felt good about their first interview. 80% of
as compound interest but paid ` 2000 only as
people who did not receive a call for second
simple interest. Find the rate of interest.
interview also felt good about their first (a) 20% (b) 10% (c) 30%
interview. (d) None of the mentioned options are correct
Sol. (d) Let the Rate of interest be R% Sol. (a) Let CP of 1st and 2nd radio be `x and `y,
CI − SI = SI 
R  respectively.

 200 80 4
SPI = ( 200 + x) = 160 + x
⇒ 2400 − 2000 = 2000 
R  100 5

 200 4 105x
400 ∴ 160 + x=
⇒ = R ⇒ R = 40 % 5 100
10 105x 4x 105x − 80x
⇒ 160 = − =
31. A fish observes a submarine from the bottom of 100 5 100
ocean, when the submarine starts moving up 16000
∴ x= = `640
vertically. The angle of elevation of the 25
submarine changes from 25 , degrees to 60 80
Hence, SPI = ( 200 + 640) × = `672
degrees in 2 minutes. The point of observation 100
of the fish is situated 300 metres 150y
(displacement) away from the takeoff point. If Again, SPII = − 160
100
the submarine is going up in straight line at a 150y 115
constant speed, what is the speed of the ∴672 + − 160 = ( y + 640)
100 100
submarine? (Here, tan 25° = 0.466)
3y 115y
(a) 4.16 m/s (b) 2.22 m/s ⇒ 512 + = + 736
(c) 5.22 m/s (d) 3.16 m/s 2 100
BC 35y
Sol. (d) tan 25° = ⇒ 224 =
300 100
⇒ BC = 300 × 0.466 = 139.8 m 22400
⇒ y= = ` 640
35
Final position
A ∴ SPII = `800
800 − 640
Hence, required profit = × 100 =25%
640
Submarine C
initial position 33. A factory has 900 employees, 25% of whom are
6 0° men. The factory has to hire 200 additional
25 employees to increase production. What
B F
300 Fish percentage of the additional employees hired
must be men in order to raise the percentage of
AB
tan 60° = men employees in the factory to 35%? (Assume
300 transgender for this situation.)
⇒ 300 3 = AB (a) 70% (b) 90%
⇒ AC + BC = 300 3 (c) 75% (d) 80%
⇒ AC = 519.6 − 139.8 Sol. (d) Total number of men employee in company
⇒ AC = 379.8 m before hiring
25
∴ Speed of submarine =
AC
=
379.8 = 900 × = 225
2min 2 × 60 100
Let x men are hired to raise the percentage of men
= 316
. m/s to 35%.
32. Gopal is planning to sell two radios. The first  225 + x 
∴   × 100 = 35
radio is marked ` 200 over and above the cost  900 + 200
price and is sold at a discount of 20% on it. The
( 225 + x)
other radio is marked 50% over and above the ⇒ × 100 = 35
cost price and sold at discount of ` 160. 1100
⇒ x = 385 − 225
If his profit is 15% on both radios combined
and 5 % on the first alone, what is the ⇒ x = 160
percentage of profit on the second radio? Thus, percentage of additional hired men employees
(a) 25% (b) 10% 160
= × 100% = 80%
(c) 7% (d) Cannot be determined 200
Directions (Q.Nos. 34-35) Following bar-graph 36. What percent of wage earners in the city re
shows the number of TV models, M1 and M2 produced by engaged in Marine Engineering?
a company in different years and the line-graph shows (a) 13.6 (b) 19.6
the percentage of sale of these models in different years. (c) 23.6 (d) 8.6
90
M1 M2 81 Sol. (c) Required percentage
TV produced (in thousand)
80 76
85
70 = × 100
60 62 85 + 60 + 35 + 115 + 40 + 25
60 54 54 85
50 48 48 51 = × 100 = 23.6%
40 360
40 36
32
30 37. If the number of persons engaged in painting is
20 2160, the number of persons engaged as
10 technicians would be
0 (a) 1456 (b) 3456
2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 (c) 2458 (d) 3458
M1 M2 Sol. (b) Given, 25° = 2160
100
84 2160
72 78 ⇒ 40° = × 40 = 3456
80 25
Percentage of Sale
65
62
57
60 67 63 38. If the total earnings from carpainters is twice
56
40
54 52 48
that from technicians, the ratio of average
wages in these occupations is
20 (a) 23 :8 (b) 5 : 4
(c) 16 : 23 (d) 23 : 16
0
115 115
2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Sol. (d) Required ratio = = = 23 : 16
34. What is the total number of TV models M1 and 2 × 40 80
M2 sold in the year 2005? 39. If the average earning of a wage earner from
(a) 44800 (b) 48840 (c) 48480 (d) 48440
painters category was twice that from
Sol. (c) Sale M1 = 48000 × 0.65 = 31200 technicians, the ratio of the total earnings from
Sale M2 = 32000 × 0.54 = 17280 these occupations is
∴ Total = 31200+17280 = 48480 (a) 4 : 3 (b) 5 : 4
35. What is the ratio of the total number of TVs of (c) 4 : 5 (d) 3 : 4
model M2 unsold in the year 2006 to the total 25 × 2 50
Sol. (b) Required ratio = = = 5: 4
number of TVs of model M2 produced in 2007? 40 40
(a) 32 : 47 (b) 41 : 60 (c) 43 : 60 (d) 47 : 60
(100 − 57) 40. If the total number of wage earners increases
Sol. (d) In 2006, unsold M2 = 60000 × = 25800 by 10% and the number of wage earners
100
In 2007, production M2 = 36000 engaged in carpentry increases by 15% in the
25800 43 next year, the nearest central angle of
∴ Ratio = = carpenters in pie chart for that year will be
36000 60
(a) 120°
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) (b) 125°
Data in the pie chart describes the population (c) 130°
engaged in various occupations in a German city for (d) None of the mentioned options are correct
a year Based on the information answer questions. 100
Sol. (c) 115° = × 115% = 3195
. %
Public Servants, 35 360
It is given that number of wage earners in carpentry
Other
increases by 15%.
occupation,60
. × 115
3195
∴ Increased carpenters =
100
Carpenters,115
Marine, 85 = 36.73%
360
Hence, required angle = × 36.73
100
Technicians,40
Painters, 25 ≈ 136°
SNAP
Solved Paper 2016*

Time : 3 hrs
INSTRUCTIONS
2. There are four parts. Part A (General Awareness), Part B (Analytical & Logical Reasoning), Part C (General
English) and Part D (Quantitative aptitude).
Sol. (b) Saint Jnaneshvara, introduced Varkari Movement

SECTION A (Vitthala Sampradaya) of Pandherpur. He was
associated with Krishna Margi Sect. He was the
GENERAL AWARENESS founder of Marathi Language and literature, also
SECTION wrote commentaries on Bhagwad Gita called
Gyaneshwari or Bhavarthadipka. Saint Jnaneshwar
1. A national political party is’ one which received was a 3rd century Maharashtrian Hindu Saint, Poet,
6% of the total votes polled in Philosopher and Yadi of the Nath Tradition.
(a) two or more states (b) the capital city
(c) four or more states (d) in all the states 3. Government securities are considered liquid
because they are
Sol. (c) If a political party is treated as‘ a recognised
(a) backed by the government treasury
political party in four or more states, it shall be
(b) convertible into other types of saving deposits
known as a ‘National Party, of India, but only so
(c) quickly and easily marketable
long as that political party continues to fulfill
(d) stable in value
thereafter the conditions for recognition in four or
more states on the results of any subsequent general Sol. (c) Liquid assets are those asset which can be easily
election either to the House of the people or to the convertible and with minimal impact to the price
Legislative Assembly of any state or if it wins 2% of received. Assets can be easily converted without
seats in the Lok Sabha at a General Election and considerable price fluctuation in a liquid market and
these candidates are elected from three states or if it with a minimal decline in worth.
is recognised as a state party in four states. A liquid market is a type of market that posses a
high level of stability and low spreads between
2. The Bhakti cult spread in Maharashtra with asking and selling prices securities issued by
the teaching of considered risk free and their yields are often used as
(a) Saint Tukaram (b) Saint Jnaneshvara the benchmarks for fixed income. Securities with the
(c) Samarth Guru Ramadas (d) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu same maturity.
* Memory Based
4. Bull and Bear are related to which 9. In which of the following countries long staple
commercial activity? type of cotton is mainly grown?
(a) Banking (b) E-commerce (a) India (b) Egypt (c) Greece (d) China
(c) International trade (d) Stock market Sol. (b) Long-staple cotton is any cotton with fibers from
Sol. (d) Both the terms are related to stock market. 1 1/8" to 2 1/2" long.
Investors who take a bull approach purchase Outstanding types of this cotton are Pima, Egyptian
securities under the assumption that they can be and Sea Island cotton. Egyptian cotton is a type of
sold later at a higher price. long-staple cotton, which is largely grown in the Nile
A ‘bear’ is considered to be the opposite of a bull. river valley.
Bear investors believe that the value of a specific This plant contains the chemical gossypol, which
security or an industry is likely to decline in the reduces its susceptibility to insect and fungal damage.
future. It is also called gossypium barbaderse.
5. The first to come and last to leave India were 10. Which party provided two Prime Ministers in 2
(a) The Portuguese (b) The French years time?
(c) The English (d) The Dutch (a) BJP (b) Janata Party
Sol. (a) The Portuguese can be said to have visited India (c) Janata Dal (d) Samajwadi Janata Party
in 1498, when Vasco da Gama set his foot on Sol. (b) The Janata Party (People’s Party) was an amalgam
calicut (Malabar Coast). of Indian political parties opposed to the State of
The Portuquese State of India was established in Emergency that was imposed between 1975 and 1977
1505. It was in 1954, that portugal cost the enclaves by the Government of Indira Gandhi and her party,
of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and those of Goa and the Indian National Congress (R).
Daman and Diu in December, 1961. Morarji Desai became the fourth Prime Minister of
6. Buddha gave his first religious message at India from 1977 to 1979. In 1979, Raj Narain and
(a) Rajagriha (b) Pataliputra Charan Singh pulled out of the Janata party forcing
(c) Gaya (d) Sarnath
Desai to resign from his office. Charan Singh was the
fifth of the Republic of India, serving from 28th July,
Sol. (d) Sarnath has the deer park where Gautama 1979 until 14th January, 1980.
Buddha first taught the dhamma and where the
Buddhist Sangha came into existence through the 11. The longest river in Asia is
enlightenment of Kondanna. It is located to the (a) river Indus (b) river Yangtze
North-East of Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh. Sarnath is (e) river Hwang Ho (d) river Ganga
also the site of Buddha’s ‘Dharmachakra parivartan’ Sol. (b) The Yangtze river is known in China as the Chang
which was Buddha’s first teaching after attainment of Jiang or Yangtze, is the longest river in Asia and the
enlightenment. third-longest in the world. It flows for 6300 km (3915
m) from the glaciers on the Qinghai-Tibet Plateau in
7. A firm practising price discrimination will be Qinghai, eastward across South-West, Central and
(a) charging different prices for different qualities of
Eastern China before emptying into the East China sea
a product
at Shanghai. The river is the longest in' the world to
(b) buying from the cheapest and selling in the
dearest markets
flow entirely within one country.
(c) charging different prices in different markets for a 12. The split between the ‘Extremists’ and
product ‘Moderates’ came up in the open at the Surat
(d) buying only from firms selling in bulk at a Congress Session in the year
distance.
(a) 1905 (b) 1906 (c) 1907 (d) 1910
Sol. (c) Price discrimination is a pricing strategy where
Sol. (c) At the Surat Session in 1907, Congress leaders
identical goods or services are transacted at different
split into two groups moderates and extremists. In
prices by same provider firm in different markets.
Surat, extremists tried to push the candidature of Lala
8. The practice of selling goods in a foreign Lajpat Rai for Presidentship of Congress and
country at a price below their domestic selling Moderates, Dr Rashbehari Ghosh to be the President.
price is called The situation was saved by Lala Lajpat Rai by
(a) ‘diplomacy’ (b) ‘discrimination’ stepping down and Dr Rashbehari Ghosh became the
(c) ‘dumping‘ (d) ‘double pricing’ President. Real trouble started when the moderates
tried to repudiate the resolution on boycott, swadeshi
Sol. (c) Dumping is the policy of charging lower price in
and national education which has been adopted in
the foreign market then in the domestic market the
1906. This was not acceptable to the extremists. Both
main aim is to establish themselves in the the factions of INC-moderates and extremists came
international market. together in Lucknow session of 1916.
13. Humayun had to run away from India after he 18. Which among the following is the fundamental
was defeated in the battle of quantity?
(a) Panipat (b) Gogra (a) Volume (b) Time (c) Velocity (d) Force
(e) Khanwa (d) Kannauj Sol. (b) The physical quantities which do not depend or
Sol. (d) Humayun and his brother Kamran decided to derive from the other physical quantities are known
fight Sher Shah but due to the differences between as the fundamental physical quantities.
the brothers, Humayun fought the Battle of Kannauj The fundamental quantities are mass, length, time,
in 1540 alone and lost. luminous intensity and amount of substance, electric
Humayun became a fugitive and Sher Shah became current and temperature. All the physical quantities
the ruler of Agra and Delhi, thus established the Sur which are not the fundamental physical quantities
empire in India. but are derived from it are known as the derived
physical quantities.
14. The highest grade and best quality coal is
(a) lignite (b) peat 19. Which country launched the world's first
(c) bituminous (d) anthracite satellite dedicated to monitoring Greenhouse
Sol. (d) Anthracite is usually considered to be the highest gas emission in 2009?
grade of coal and is actually considered to be (a) Japan (b) Brazil (c) India (d) USA
metamorphic. It contains about 90% carbon with Sol. (a) The first satellite dedicated to monitor the
practically no volatile matter. It is largely used for greenhouse gas emissions as a part of global efforts
heating domestically as it burns with little smoke. to combat climate change was launched into space
from Japan which monitors the level of greenhouse
15. IBRD is also known as gases like carbon-dioxide and methane.
(a) International Bank
(b) World Bank 20. Who among the following was elected as the
(c) Asian Development Bank Chairman of world's biggest commercial
(d) Bank of America organisation the International Chamber of
Sol. (b) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Commerce in June 2016?
Development (IBRD) is the first of five member (a) Mukesh Ambani (b) Adi Godrej
institutions, which compose the World Bank Group (c) Lakshmi Narain Mittal (d) Sunil Bharti Mittal
and is headquartered in Washington DC, United Sol. (d) Airtel supremo Sunil Bharti Mittal was appointed
States. as the Chairman of world's biggest commercial
Together, the International Bank for Reconstruction organisation, the International Chamber of Commerce
and Development and its concessional lending arm, in June, 2016.
the International Development Association, are
collectively known as the World Bank. 21. The ‘Goods and Services Tax’ was proposed by
a task force whose President was
16. In May, 2016, Rodrigo Duterte was elected as (a) Vijay Kelkar (b) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
the President of which country? (c) Arun Jaitley (d) Narsimham
(a) Thailand (b) Switzerland
Sol. (a) Goods and Service Tax (GST) is a proposed
(c) Mexico (d) Philippines
system of indirect taxation. It was introduced in the
Sol. (d) Rodrigo Duterte, also known as Digong, is a Constitution as (One Hundred and First Amendment)
Filipino politician and jurist, who is the 16th and Act, 2016. The GST is administered and governed by
current President of the Philippines. He is the first GST council and its chairman is Union Finance
Mindanaoan to hold the office, and the fourth of Minister of India, Arun Jaitley.
Visayan descent. He won the elections in May, 2016.
22. These waves cannot be transmitted through
17. The resources which can be used continuously, vaccum
year-after are called (a) light (b) sound
(a) biotic (c) heat (d) electromagnetic
(b) abiotic
Sol. (b) Sound is basically a form of kinetic energy which
(c) non-renewable
is transmitted when a particle in a medium gets a bit
(d) renewable
of energy by being bumped by a neighbouring
Sol. (d) A renewable resource is a natural resource with particle and passes same or all of this energy a long
the ability to reproduce through biological or natural by bumping the another particle.
processes and replenished with the passage of time. If there is no medium then there are no particles to
Renewable resources are part of our natural bump or to be bumped and thus there would be no
environment and form our ecosystem. any sound.
23. In which of the following countries, a woman 29. Who administered the oath of the Chief
became the president for the first time in May, Minister of West Bengal to Mamata
2016? Banerjee on May 27, 2016?
(a) Taiwan (b) Myanmar (a) Ram Naik (b) Keshari Nath Tripathi
(c) Angola (d) Namibia (c) TS Thakur (d) P. Sathasivam
Sol. (a) Democratic Progressive Party (DPP) Chairman Tsai Sol. (b) The oath of Chief Minister was administered
Ing-wen made history on May 20, 2016 as the first by the Governor Keshari Nath Tripathi.
woman to become the President of Taiwan. The 59 year
old lady elected into power on January 16, winning 56
30. In which of the following State, Bharatiya
seats, 12% of more than 12 million votes cast. Janata Party formed government for the
first time in 2016?
24. A passenger standing in a bus is thrown outward (a) Assam (b) Rajasthan
when the bus takes a sudden turn. This happens (c) Kerala (d) Odisha
due to Sol. (a) The BJP led National Democratic Alliance won
(a) outward pull on him (b) inertia of motion the majority seats in Assam making its first
(c) change in momentum (d) change in acceleration government in the state.
Sol. (b) Newton’s first law of motion gives the concept of
inertia which is of three types, inertia of rest, inertia of
motion and inertia of direction.
SECTION B
25. USB refers to ANALYTICAL AND LOGICAL
(a) a storage device (b) a processor
(c) a port type (d) a serial bus standard REASONING
3.001
Sol. (c) Universal Serial Bus (USB) is designed to standardise 1. Find the approximate value : 10000 +
the connection of computer peripherals (including 4.987
keyboards, pointing devices, digital cameras, printers, of 1891 .992 = ?
portable media players, disk drives and network (a) 2500 (b) 1230 (c) 1640 (d) 1525
adapters) to personal computers, both to communicate 3001
.
Sol. (b) 10000 + of 1891. 992 = ?
and to supply Electric Power. 4.987
26. In which post was the former Police Commissioner 3
⇒ ? ≈ 100 + × 1900
of Delhi, BS Bassi appointed in May, 2016? 5
(a) The Chairman of Union Public Service Commission = 100 + 1140 ≈ 1240 ≈ 1230
(b) The Governor of Meghalaya
(c) The Director General of Border Security Force
2. The sum of the digits of a three-digit number
(d) The Member of Union Public Service Commission
is 16. If the ten’s digit of the number is three
times the unit’s digit and the unit’s digit is
Sol. (d) BS Bassi, who was Commissioner of Police of Delhi,
one-fourth of the hundredth digit, then what
was appointed as the Member of Union Public Service
is the number?
Commission (UPSC). He was 1977 Batch IPS officer.
(a) 446 (b) 561 (c) 682 (d) 862
27. Which of the following is a better measurement of Sol. (d) Let x , y and z be the digits at the hundredth
economic development? place, ten's place and unit's place, respectively.
(a) GDP (b) Disposable income
∴ x + y + z = 16 …(i)
(c) NNP (d) Per capita income
y = 3z …(ii)
Sol. (d) Per capita national income is the most widely used 1
measure of the extent of a country’s economic z= x …(iii)
4
development and it indicates the actual wellbeing or
financial condition of the people of that country. From (ii) and (iii),
3
28. Who, out of the following, was the first recipient ∴ y= x …(iv)
4
of Bharat Ratna Award?
Using Eqs. (iii) and (iv) in (i), we get
(a) BC Roy (b) S Chandrasekhar
3 1
(c) CV Raman (d) Gobind Ballabh Pant x + x + x = 16
4 4
Sol. (c) CV Raman : 1954; Govind Ballabh Pant: 1957;
⇒ x =8
Bidhan Chandra Roy: 1961 and S Chandrashekhar: he
has not won the award. CV Raman has also received ∴ y = 6, z = 2
Nobel Prize for Physics. Hence the number is 862.
3. In a certain code language ‘123’ stands for ‘I Direction (Q. Nos. 7-9) Study the following
am servant’, ‘279’ stands for ‘servant always information to answer the given questions.
miserable’, and ‘684’ stands for ‘poverty is P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line
curse’. Then, ‘miserable’ stands for which facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either
numeric? sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the
(a) 2 (b) 7 right end of the line. S sits second to right of R. R is
(c) 9 (d) Cannot be determined not an immediate neighbour of V. T and Q are
Sol. (d) 1 2 3 → I am servant …(i) immediate neighbours of each other but neither T nor
2 7 9 → servant always miserable …(ii) Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits
between T and X. X does sit at the extreme end of the
6 8 4 → poverty is curse …(iii)
line.
From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
2 ⇒ servant 7. What is the position of Q with respect to P?
(a)Fifth to the right
1 ⇒ I/am
(b) Immediate neighbour
3 ⇒ I/am (c) Second to the right
7 ⇒ always/miserable (d) Third to the left
9 ⇒ always/miserable 8. Which of the following represents persons
∴ miserable ⇒ 7 or 9 seated at the two extreme ends of the line?
Clearly, it cannot be definitely said how will (a) P, V (b) Y, S (c) R, V (d) R, Y
‘miserable’ be written.
9. How many persons are seated between R and
Direction (Q. Nos. 4-6) Find the mising number in T?
the series given below. (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
Solutions (7-9) According to the given information, the
4. 3, 22, ? 673, 2696, 8093
final arrangement is as follows.
(a) 133 (b) 155 (c) 156 (d) 134
Sol. (d) The pattern is as follows Facing North
R P S Q T V X Y
3 22 134 673 2696 8093
7. (c) Q is second to the right of P.
×7+1 ×6+2 ×5+3 ×4+4 ×3+5
8. (d) R and Y are sitting on the extreme ends of line.
∴ ? = 134 9. (c) Three persons P, S and Q are seated between R
5. 2, 8, 18, 32, 50, ? and T.
10. 7 + ÷ of − × 2 ÷ 1 of 1 − 1   = ?

(a) 64 (b) 72 (c) 70 (d) 68 1 1 1 1 2 1 7 2 1
Sol. (b) The pattern is as follows  2 2 2 4 5 3 8  5 3 
1 + 1 = 1 + 1 = 2;
2 2 1 1
(a) 3 (b) 2
5 24
22 + 22 = 4 + 4 = 8; 1
32 + 32 = 9 + 9 = 18; 30
42 + 42 = 16 + 16 = 32; Sol. (c) Given expression,
52 + 52 = 25 + 25 = 50; 15 1 1 2 7 15  7 − 4
= + ÷ − × ÷ of 
62 + 62 = 36 + 36 = 72 2 2 8 5 3 8 5 3
∴ ? = 72 15 2 7 15 1
= + 4− × ÷ of
2 5 3 8 15
6. 2, 29, 38, 47, ? 15 2 7 15 1
(a) 59 (b) 56 (c) 52 (d) 58 = + 4− × ÷ ×
2 5 3 8 15
Sol. (b) The pattern is as follows
15 2 7 1
+1 +1 +1 = + 4− × ÷
2 5 3 8
15 112 23 112
2 29 38 47 56 = + 4− = −
2 15 2 15
–1 –1 –1 121 1
= =4
∴ ? = 56 30 30
11. A person travels from X to the Y at a speed of Sol. (d) Through O, draw a line l parallel to both AB
40 kmph and returns by increasing his speed by and CD.
50%. What is his average speed for both the Then,
trips? ∠ 1 = 45° (alt. ∠S)
(a) 36 kmph ∠ 2 = 30° (alt. ∠S)
(b) 45 kmph
(c) 48 kmph A 45° B
(d) 50 kmph O
l X° 1
Sol. (c) Let the distance between X and Y be x km.
2
x
∴ Time taken from X to Y @ 40 km/h = h. D 30° C
40
Q Speed of person while returning from Y to X
∆BOC = ∠ 1 + ∠ 2
150
= 40 × = 60 km/h ∴ = 45° + 30° = 75°
100
x So, X = 360° − ∠BOC
Time taken from Y to X @ 60 km/h = h = 360° − 75° = 285°
60
2x ∴ X = 285°
∴ Average speed = = 48 km/h
x x
+ 15. If John celebrated his victory day on Tuesday,
40 60
January 5, 1965, when will he celebrate his
12. How many M’s occur in the following series such next victory day on the same day?
that it is preceded by W and followed by V? (a) January 5, 1970 (b) January 5, 1971
(c) Januray 5, 1973 (d) January 5, 1974
XUVMRSTMWNVMWOPMWUVM
Sol. (b) 5th January 1965 ⇒ Tuesday
WACWMVHPNVWMWTUN
(a) 3 (b) 2 5th January 1966 ⇒ Wednesday
(c) 1 (d) 5 5th January 1967 ⇒ Thursday
Sol. (c) X U V M R S T M W N V M W O P M W U V M 5th January 1968 ⇒ Friday
W A C W M V H P N V W M W T U N 5th January 1969 ⇒ Sunday
Clearly, there is one which is preceded by W and Since, 1968 is a leap year.
followed by V.
5th January 1970 ⇒ Monday
13. In a class, the number of girls is one less than 5th January 1971 ⇒ Tuesday
the number of the boys. If the product of the
number of boys and that of girls is 272, then the Direction (Q. Nos. 16-18) Read the following
number of girls in the class is information carefully and answer the questions that
(a) 15 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 17 follow.
Sol. (c) Let the number of girls and boys be x and y, Seven friends A , B , C , D, E , F and G are sitting around a
respectively. circular table facing either the centre or outside. Each
Then x + 1= y one of them belongs to a different department viz.
Finance, Marketing, Sales, HR, Corporate Finance,
and xy = 272
Investment Banking and Operations but not
⇒ x ( x + 1) = 272
necessarily in the same order.
⇒ x 2 + x − 272 = 0
C sits third to the right of G. G faces the centre. Only
⇒ ( x + 17) ( x − 16) = 0 one person sits between C and the person working in
∴ x = 16 the HR department. Immediate neighbours of C face
14. In the given figure, AB||CD. Then, X is equal to outside. Only one person sits between F and D. Both F
and D face the centre. F works in the HR department.
A 45° B A works in the investment B banking department. A
O faces the centre. Two people sit between the persons,
X° who work in investment, banking and marketing
departments. The person, who works in corporate
D 30° C finance sits to the immediate left of E. C faces same
direction as E. The person, who works for sales
(a) 290° (b) 300°
department sits to the immediate left of the person,
(c) 280° (d)285°
who works for operations department.
16. For which of the following departments does B 20. F I

work? D 21 18 K
(a) Finance (b) Marketing 23 16
(c) HR (d) Corporate Finance 6 13
U 8 ? N
17. What is position of B with respect to the person, S ?
who works for sales department? (a) 9, R (b) 11, P (c) 13, Q (d) 10, V
(a) Immediate right
Sol. (b) The letters progress in clockwise direction
(b) Third to the left
starting from D and the next letter is obtained by
(c) Second to the right
following the below skipping pattern.
(d) Second to the left
D(E)F(GH)I(J)K(LM)N(O)P(QR)S(T)U:
18. Who sits to the immediate right of E? The numbers follows the pattern given below:
(a) The person who works for marketing department
23 21 18 16 13 11 8 6
(b) C
(c) B –2 –3 –2 –3 –2 –3 –2
(d) The person who works for HR department
∴ ? = 11 and ? = P
Solutions (16-18) According to the given information,
seating arrangement of all the seven friends is given below. 21.
2 9 11 7
(Corporate
Finance)
8 5 13 -3
(Finance) C (Marketing)
B E 7 ? 10 -4
(Investment
Banking) 6 4 10 ?
A F
(HR)
(a) 3 and ( −2) (b) ( −3) and ( −2)
D G
(Sales) (Operations)
(c) 3 and 2 (d) ( −3) and 2
Sol. (a) 2 + 9 = 11
16. (a) B works in finance department.
9 − 2=7
17. (d) The person working in sales department is D and B
Also, 8 + 5 = 13
is second to the left of D.
5−8 = −3
18. (d) The person who sits to the immediate right of E is F,
who works in HR department. Now, 7 + ? = 10
? = 10 − 7 = 3
Direction (Q. Nos. 19-21) In each of the following Also, 4 −6 =?
questions. Choose the missing terms out of the given ? = −2
alternatives.
22. After 9 o’ clock at what time between 9 p.m.
19. and 10 p.m. will the hour and minute hands
29 38 55
of a clock point in opposite direction?
16 13 21 17 30 25
(a) 15 min past 9 (b) 16 min past 9
27 9 33 35 16 43 ? ? ? 4 1
(c) 16 min past 9 (d) 17 % min past 9
11 11
(a) 65, 36, 63 (b) 53, 24, 63
Sol. (c) At 9 o’ clock, the minute hand is 9 × 5
(c) 49, 32, 53 (d) 51, 25, 61
= 45 mins space behind the hour hand. Hence, the
Sol. (d) Here, the pattern is minute hand will have to gain 45 − 30 = 15 min.
a Therefore, 60 min is equal to the gain of 55 min
c
spaces.
b
Hence, gain of 15 min spaces equals
(2×c)+1 (b–c)2 (2×b)+1
60 180 4
= × 15 = = 16
55 11 11
∴ First number = ( 25 × 2) + 1 = 51
Therefore, hour and minute hands of a clock point
Second number = ( 30 − 25) 2 = 25 4
in opposite direction after 9 o’ clock at 16 min
and third number = ( 30 × 2) + 1 = 61 11
Hence, 51, 25 and 61 are the three missing terms. past 9.
1 1 Direction (Q. Nos. 27-30) Study the following

−2 2
1
23. Simplify 7 2 ÷ information carefully and answer the given questions. A
1 1 1 word and number arrangement machine when given an
2 +1 2+ input line of words and numbers rearranges them
4 7 1
2+ following a particular rule in each step. The following
1
2− is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
2
−1 1 1 1 Input ‘sale data 18 23 for 95 then 38’
(a) (b) − (c) − (d)−
2 8 6 4 Step I data sale 18 23 for 95 then 38
Sol. (d) Given expression, Step II data 95 sale 18 23 for then 38
15 5
− Step III data 95 for sale 18 23 then 38
1
= 7 2÷
Step IV data 95 for 38 sale 18 23 then
9 8 1
+ 2+
4 7 2 Step V data 95 for 38 sale 23 18 then
2+
3 Step VI data 95 for 38 sale 23 then 18
−5 28 1 −2 8 −2 19 1
= × ÷ = ÷ = × =− and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of
14 95 2 + 3 19 19 19 8 4
the above input.
8
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out
Direction (Q. Nos. 24-25) Study the given information in each of the following questions the appropriate
carefully and answer the given questions. step for the given input.
A is the mother of B. B is the sister of C. D is the son of 27. Input ‘year 39 stake 47 house full 94 55’. How
C. E is the brother of D. F is the mother of E. G is the many steps will be required to complete the
granddaughter of A. H has only two children B and C. rearrangement?
(a) Five (b) Six
24. How is F related to H?
(c) Four (d) Seven
(a) Son-in-law (b) Daughter-in-law
(c) Father-in-law (d) Granddaughter 28. Step II of an input is ‘car 83 lost ever 32 46 74
25. How is C related to E? now’. How many more steps will be required
(a) Father (b) Son (c) Mother (d) Cousin
to complete the rearrangement?
(a) Three (b) Four
Solutions (24-25) According to the given information, we (c) Five (d) Six
can draw the following family tree.
s r 29. Step III of an input is ‘and 79 code 27 18 new
Couple
A H goal 34’. Which of the following will definitely
be the input?
Mother (a) code and 79 27 18 new goal 34
r
s Sister Couple s (b) code 27 18 new goal 34 and 79
B C F
(c) code 27 and 18 79 new goal 34
Son Mother (d) cannot be determined
s r r
Brother
G D E 30. Input ‘water full never 35 78 16 height 28’
Which of the following steps will be the last?
24. (b) F is the daughter-in-law of H. (a) VI (b) VII (c) VIII (d) IX
25. (a) C is the father of E. Solution (27-30)
26. In the given series, only one number is wrong. In the step I, the word coming first alphabetically
Find out the wrong number comes at the 1st place from left pushing the remaining
line right word; in step II, largest number comes at
2, 3, 6, 15, 37.5, 157.5, 630 the 2nd position from left pushing the remaining line
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 15 (d) 37.5 rightward; in Step III, the word coming second
Sol. (d) The pattern is as follows alphabetically comes at the 3rd place from left
45 pushing the remaining line rightward; In step IV, the
2 3 6 15 37.5 157.5 630
2nd largest number comes at the 4th position from
×1.5 ×2 ×2.5 ×3 ×3.5 ×4
left pushing the remaining line right ward. Thus, word
and number get arranged alternately till the words are
Hence, number 37.5 is wrong and should be replaced in forward alphabetical order and the number in
by 45. decreasing order.
27. (b) Input ‘year 39 stake 47 house full 94 55’ Sol. (d) As,
Step I Full year 39 stake 47 house 94 55 20 18 15 21 16 22 16 17 19 18
T R O U P V P Q S R
Step II Full 94 year 39 stake 47 house 55 +2
Step III Full 94 house year 39 stake 47 55 –2
+2
Step IV Full 94 house 55 year 39 stake 47 –2
Step V Full 94 house 55 stake year 39 47 +2
Step VI Full 94 house 55 stake 47 year 39

Similarly,
∴Required steps = Six
19 9 7 8 20 21 7 9 6 22
28. (b) Step II Car 83 lost ever 32 46 74 now S I G H T U G I F V
Step III Car 83 ever lost 32 46 74 now +2
–2
Step IV Car 83 ever 74 lost 32 46 now +2
Step V Car 83 ever 74 lost 46 32 now –2
+2
Step VI Car 83 ever 74 lost 46 now 32
∴Required more steps = Four ∴ SIGHT ⇒ UGIFV
29. (d) In arrangement problem, previous steps cannot
33. Statement Researchers are feeling agitated as
be determined.
libraries are not well equipped to provide the
30. (a) Input Water full never 35 78 16 height 28 right information to the right users at the right
Step I Full water never 35 78 16 height 28 time in the required format. Even the users are
Step II Full 78 water never 35 16 height 28 not aware about the various services available
Step III Full 78 height water never 35 16 28 for them.
Step IV Full 78 height 35 water never 16 28
Courses of Action
Step V Full 78 height 35 never water 16 28
I. All the information available in the libraries
Step VI Full 78 height 35 never 28 water 16
should be computerised to provide faster
∴Last step = Step VI
services to the users.
31. In a class of 50 students, 23 speak English, 15 II. Library staff should be trained in computer
speak Hindi and 18 speak Punjabi. 3 speak operations.
only English and Hindi, 6 speak only Hindi (a) None follows (b) Only II follows
and Punjabi and 6 speak only English and (c) Both I and II follow (d) All follow
Punjabi. If 9 can speak only English, then Sol. (c) Computerisation will definitely help the users to
how many students speak all the three take best available information available in the library.
languages? Also, training to the staff in computer operations can
(a) 1 (b) 2 further add to betterment of services to the users.
(c) 3 (d) 5 Hence, both are feasible and therefore right courses of
Sol. (d) Given b + c + g + d = 23 …(i) action.
H E Direction (Q. Nos. 34-36) Read the following passage

b
a c and answer the questions that follow.
g
e d In an engineering college, five students from five
f different cities were elected as Secretaries by the
P students to perform different student activities. Each
student studies in a different branch of engineering.
Given, b = 3, d = 6 and c = 9 Additionally, the following information is provided.
∴ g = 23 − ( 3 + 6 + 9) = 23 − 18 = 5 I. Abhishek does not stay in the Aravalli hostel, where
32. If in a certain code language ‘TROUP’ is the student from Nagpur stays.
written as ‘VPQSR’, then how will SIGHT be II. The student, whose name is not Abhishek and does
written in that not study in Metallurgy, stays in Satpura hostel. He
(a) UGVIF is the only student among the five to stay at
(b) UIGVF Satpura hostel.
(c) UGIVF III. Hardeep neither belongs to Jodhpur nor does he
(d) UGIFV study Mechanical Engineering.
IV. The student-in-charge of Cultural Activity stays in 36. The student who belongs to Allahabad is
the Aravalli hostel where Civil Engineering student studying in
does not stay. (a) Metallurgy
V. Sanjay and the student, who studies Metallurgy, (b) Mechanical Engineering
both stay in the same hostel. (c) Civil Engineering
VI. The student who belong to Allahabad does not
stay with the student-in-charge of the Sports Solutions (34-36) The given information can be tabulise
activity staying at Aravalli hostel. as
VII. Sanjay is not the student-in-charge of the Cultural Name Activity Hostel Discipline Cities
activity. Ravi Mess Satpura Computer Jodhpur
Science
VIII. Ravi, the student-in-charge of Mess activity, stays
at Satpura hostel. Sanjay Sports Aravalli Mechanical Nagpur
Engineering
IX. The student from Patna and the student, who
studies Mechanical Engineering, both stay at Hardeep Cultural Aravalli Metallurgy Patna
Aravalli hostel. They are the only two among the Abhishe Student Body Vindhya Civil Engineering Kochi
five students to stay at this hostel. k
X. The student, who stays at Satpura hostel, studies Hemant Placement Vindhya Chemical Allahabad
Computer Sciences. Engineering
XI. Hemant, who does not belong to Kochi, studies 34. (b) From the above table, we can see that the
Chemical Engineering. He is not the General Chemical engineering student stays in Vindhya hostel
Secretary of the Student Body. while cultural activity students stay in Aravalli hostel.
XII. Sanjay does not belong to Allahabad. So, Statement I is incorrect. Statement II is also
incorrect because the student in charge of Placement
XIII. The student from Kochi and the
activity is studying Chemical Engineering.
student-in-charge of Placement activity, both stay
at the Vindhya Hostel. 35. (c) From above table, it is clear that student belongs to
Patna is studying Metallurgy.
34. Which of the following statements is/are 36. (d) From above table, it is clear that the student from
incorrect? Allahabad is studying Chemical Engineering.
I. The Chemical Engineering student and the
student-in-charge of Cultural activity, both Direction (Q. Nos. 37-39) The second figure in the
stay in the same hostel. first part of the problem figures bears a certain
II. The student-in-charge of Placement activity relationship to the first figure. Similarly, one of the
is studying Metallurgy. figures in answer figures bears the same relationship to
the first figure in the second part. You have to select the
III. The student who belongs to Nagpur is the figure from the set of answer figures which would replace
student-in-charge of Sport's activity. the sign of question mark (?).
IV. Ravi belongs to Jodhpur.
37. Problem Figures
(a) Only I (b) I and II
(c) I, II and Ill (d) None of these
35. Which of the following statements is/are ?

correct?
I. Sanjay and Abhishek stay at the same 1 2 3 4
hostel. Answer Figures
II. The General Secretary of the student Body
studies Mechanical Engineering.
III. The student who belongs to Patna is
studying Metallurgy.
IV. The student who belongs to Kochi is studying (a) (b) (c) (d)
Computer Science. Sol. (c) From the first figure to the second figure, all the
(a) Only I (b) Only II four smaller designs move in one sector in
(c) Only III (d) None of these anti-clockwise direction.
38. Problem Figures

II. Earlier students did not have the choice of
continuing their education without taking
these subjects.
? Sol. (d) Both the conclusions follow. Since, the option is
available from next year, it implies that this option
1 2 3 4 was not available earlier. Secondly, students who are
Answer Figures weak in Mathematics and Science will be benefitted.
SECTION C
(a) (b) (c) (d)
GENERAL ENGLISH
1. ‘‘To make clean breast of ’’
Sol. (a) From first figure to second figure, one similar means………………..
figure is added in a set pattern. (a) To gain prominence
39. Problem Figures (b) To praise oneself
(c) To confess without being reserve
(d) To destroy before it blooms
? Sol. (c) Idiom ‘‘To make clean breast of’’ means ‘‘To
confess without being reserve’’.
1 2 3 4 2. Fate smiles ...... those who untiringly grapple
Answer Figures
with stark realities of life.
(a) with (b) over
(c) on (d) round
Sol. (c) The correct word to be used here in the gap is
(a) (b) (c) (d) ‘on’ which has the correct context.
Sol. (a) From first figure to second figure, the circles of 3. ‘‘Life is like a game where we are the players’’
upper row move one block in anti-clockwise is a—
direction and two circles are added in the middle (a) Simile (b) Metaphor
row. In similar way, the two crosses of upper row (c) Assonance (d) Alliteration
move one block in anti-clockwise direction and two Sol. (a) Usage of ‘like’ shows simile.
crosses are added in the middle row.
4. ‘‘All the world’s a stage and all the men and
Direction (Q. Nos. 40) In the question below is given a women merely players; They have their exits
statement followed by two conclusion numbered I and II. and their entrances;’’ is a—
You have to assume everything in the statement to be (a) Simile (b) Metaphor
true, then consider the two conclusions together and (c) Personification (d) Pun
decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable
doubt from the information given in the statement. Sol. (b) When the comparison is employed without the
use of ‘Like’ then it is metaphor.
Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I follows 5. ‘‘Death lays its icy hands on kings’’ is a—
(b) if only conclusion II follows (a) Simile (b) Metaphor
(c) if neither conclusion I nor II follows (c) Personification (d) Alliteration
(d) if both conclusion I and II follows Sol. (c) When a non living object is treated as a living
40. Statement From the next academic year, object then it is personification.
students will have the option of dropping 6. Shepherd is a word of German origin. This
Mathematics and Science for their school word can also be replaced by which of the
leaving certificate examination. following?
(a) Sceaphierde (b) Herder
Conclusions
(c) Sheepish (d) None of the above
I. Students, who are weak in Science and
Mathematics, will be benefitted. Sol. (a) Shepherd can also be replaced by Sceaphierde.
7. Cotton is a word of English origin. Which of the 16. Idiom ‘‘To catch a tartar’’ means …………..
following can replace this word? (a) To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty
(a) Cotone (b) Cottony (b) To catch a dangerous person
(c) Coutons (d) None of the above (c) To meet with disaster
Sol. (a) Cotton can also be replaced by Cotone. (d) To deal with a person who is more than one’s
match
8. Plural of ‘Formula’ is Sol. (b) Idiom ‘‘To catch a tartar’’ means ‘‘to catch a
(a) Formulas (b) Formulaes dangerous person’’.
(c) Formulae (d) None of the above
Sol. (c) The plural of ‘formula’ is ‘formulae’. 17. Choose the correct option:-
(a) You don’t need to come unless you want to
9. The ‘accommodation’ in British English is known (b) You come only when you want to
as ……….. in American english. (c) You come unless you don’t want to
(a) Accommodations (b) Acomodation (d) You needn’t come until you don’t want to
(c) Accommodatione (d) Acommodatione Sol. (a) The correct statement is “You don’t need to
Sol. (a) It is ‘accommodations’ in American English. come unless you want to”.
10. The ‘aeroplane’ in British English is known as 18. Choose the correct option:-
……….. in American english. (a) This is one of the most important inventions
(a) Aeroplain (b) Aerroplane of this century.
(c) Airplane (d) Aeroplanee (b) This is one of the most important invention of
this century.
Sol. (c) It is ‘airplane’ in American English.
(c) This is one of the most important invention of
11. The ‘bank holiday’ in British English is known as these century.
……….. in American english. (d) This is one of the most important invention of
(a) holiday (b) legal holiday centuries.
(c) vacation (d) leave Sol. (a) The correct statement is ‘‘This is one of the
Sol. (b) It is ‘legal holiday’ in American English. most important inventions of this century’’.
Direction (Q. Nos. 12-14) Complete the collocation words. Direction (Q. Nos. 19-21) Read each sentence to
12. My grandfather was a …………………. smoker, so find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
few people were surprised when he died of oral The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence.
The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no
cancer. error, the answer is ‘D’. (Ignore the errors of
(a) serial (b) heavy punctuation, if any).
(c) big (d) continuous
Sol. (b) The correct collocation is a heavy smoker. 19. (a) We discussed about the problem so thoroughly
(b) on the eve of the examination
13. She was a/an ……………………. wife who loved her (c) that I found it very easy to work it out
husband more than anything else in the whole (d) No error
universe. Sol. (a) We should not use ‘about’ with ‘discuss’ as it
(a) devoted (b) sincere (c) intelligent (d) cool is superfluous.
Sol. (a) The correct collocation is a devoted wife.
20. (a) An Indian ship
14. I always avoid his company because he is a (b) laden with merchandise
crashing …………………….. (c) got drowned in the Pacific Ocean
(a) bore (b) nuisance (c) guy (d) sound (d) No error
Sol. (a) The correct collocation is a crashing bore. Sol. (c) It is wrong to use ‘drowned’. When a person
is involved then we should use ‘‘sank’’.
15. Idiom ‘‘To keeps one’s temper’’
means………………………. 21. (a) I could not put up in a hotel
(a) To become hungry (b) To be in good mood (b) because the boarding and lodging charges
(c) To preserve ones energy (d) To be aloof from (c) were exorbitant
(d) No error
Sol. (b) Idiom ‘‘To keeps one’s temper’’ means ‘‘to be in good
mood’’. Sol. (a) ‘Put up’ is followed by ‘at’ not by ‘in’.
Direction (Q. Nos. 22-27) Read the following passage and legislative space for states. And two, by a happy
carefully and answer the questions given below it. coincidence, the chairman and members of the 14th
Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them Finance Commission believe in genuine federalism
while answering some of the questions. themselves.
With Finance Commission recommendations, Moreover, they have recognised the opportunity offered
centre-state relations set to undergo dramatic change. by a Prime Minister at the helm who truly believes in
Any big change requires big ideas, decisive leadership the power of states and their leaders. Accordingly, they
and happy coincidence of circumstances. Nothing have recommended that starting 2015-16, states be
illustrates this better than the unfolding story of awarded 42% of the divisible pool of tax revenues. This
cooperative federalism in India. is a gigantic and unprecedented 10% jump in devolution.
As Chief Minister of Gujarat, Narendra Modi had often Predictably, the Prime Minister and his Cabinet have
argued that the central government implemented accepted this bold recommendation of the 14th Finance
schemes were at odds with the state’s needs and Commission. What implications does this change have?
priorities. For example, schemes that provided funds for For starters, with larger transfers coming as untied
electrification were at best of limited value to Gujarat funds, states also have greater responsibility in
since it had already achieved near 100% electrification. discharging their duties. It is likely that they will now
This state could have spent the money provided for have to take greater responsibility in areas that have
such a scheme more productively if allowed to use it been hitherto covered by the Centre, especially those
for other purposes. falling on the state list. States will also have to do this
In advancing this view, Modi was joined by other Chief in ways that are more consistent with their priorities
Ministers such as Vasundhara Raje of Rajasthan who and not according to ‘‘one size fits all’’ schemes. By the
argued that the vast numbers of central schemes same token, with a lower share in the divisible pool the
further restricted their fiscal space because many of centre’s fiscal space will shrink, requiring a rethink of
them required matching contributions by them from central and centrally sponsored schemes.
their otherwise untied funds. Once these matching funds One might ask where does Niti Aayog fit into this
were committed to access central schemes, states were story? I am tempted to say that in replacing the
left with very limited funds for even the most important Planning Commission by Niti Aayog, Prime Minister
expenditure items such as enforcement of law and order. Narendra Modi may have anticipated the 14th Finance
Nevertheless, this system has remained entrenched in Commission. Under the previous regime, the centre
one form or another in the last several decades on was often seen as ‘giver’ and states as ‘recipients’
account of coincidence of three factors. First, outside of thereby making the latter feel that they were less than
state leaders and a few economists and policy analysts, equal partners. In replacing the Planning Commission
advocates of the view that true federalism means giving by Niti Aayog, the Prime Minister sought to change
greater fiscal space to states and trusting them in that equation and forge an equal relationship between
setting their own priorities have been few and far the two sides. As such this change represents a step
between. towards cooperative federalism.
Second, the Finance Commission appointed once every We will have a more complete picture of the emerging
five years plays a key role in the division of tax centre-state relations, when the finance minister
revenues between centre and states. Consistent with presents the budget. But even with what we now know,
the first point, successive Finance Commissions held one thing is clear: in the years to come, Niti Aayog will
untied funds to the states at or below 30% of the have to play a much greater role in the knowledge
divisible tax pool. Only the 13th Finance Commission space. Greater fiscal freedom combined with greater
exceeded this mark, setting states share at 32%. legislative freedom in the areas covered by the
Finally, successive central governments have chosen to concurrent list of the Constitution means that states
transfer the bulk of the remaining funds to the states will need to play a more active role in designing their
via central and centrally sponsored schemes. With own programmes and policies.
nearly 8% growth over an entire decade, tax revenues As they do so, they will need to reach out to data,
have significantly expanded. Alongside, central and analysis and expert advice.The design of Niti Aayog as
centrally sponsored schemes and the revenue resources per the Cabinet Note of 1 January 2015 positions it well
they absorb have expanded dramatically as well. to provide these services. By the same token, those of
Two key factors have come together to dramatically us at Niti Aayog have to work hard in the months to
alter this equilibrium. One, India now has a prime come to build new strengths so that we do not
minister who was once a chief minister and strongly disappoint the states that reach out to us for advice
feels that cooperative federalism means greater fiscal and assistance. We shall see.
22. As the Chief Minister of Gujarat, why Narendra (b) Previously, the schemes were more transparent
Modi argued that the Central Government and object oriented.
implemented schemes are at odds for the state (c) Planning Commission were making schemes
without considering the crucial scenario in the
government?
states.
(a) Because the Central Government was not paying
(d) Planning Commission was making more precise
the equal amount of funds for all the states.
schemes, so as to address the actual needs of the
(b) Because, he being from the opposition, want to
states.
criticise the steps taken by the Central Government
and leave an impression on the general public mind Sol. (c) Writer meant by “one size fits all” schemes that
that what a crook central government is. planning Commission were making schemes without
(c) Because Central Government doesn’t take in the considering the crucial scenario in the states.
picture all the perspective while allocating the
funds.
26. Why the Government did a 10% increase in
(d) Because he wanted more funds for filling his and
devolution?
his cabinet minister’s pocket. (a) To transfer the funds in the hands of state.
(b) Shed of the extra responsibility of the state
Sol. (c) As the Chief Minister of Gujarat, Narendra Modi sponsored schemes.
argued that the Central Government implemented (c) To make state more self dependent.
schemes are at odds for the state government because (d) To increase the extent of authority on states.
Central Government doesn’t take in the picture all the
perspective while allocating the funds. Sol. (a) Government did a 10% increase in devolution to
transfer the funds in the hands of state.
23. Why Vasundhara Raje decided to join the views
of Narendra Modi? 27. What is the drastic change in the policy of NITI
(a) Being from the same party, she had no choice but
Ayog from that was in Planning Commission?
to join hand in hand with her party leader. (a) Now states will have equal equation with the centre.
(b) Vasundhra Raje and Narendra Modi had a hidden (b) States will have more financial freedom
plan of going against any of the good initiatives (c) Centre has given the responsibility to states to
taken by the Central Government. draft every scheme
(c) Vasundhra Raje was also facing the atrocities of (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Central Government and want to raise her voice Sol. (d) The drastic change of the policy in NITI Ayog
with Narendra Modi. from that was in Planning Commission is that now
(d) Vasundhra Raje, being a Chief Minister of a state of states will have equal equation with the centre and
India, where central schemes are restricted, the states will have more financial freedom.
fiscal space of the state government, feels that it is
injustice on the part of Central Government.
Direction (Q. Nos. 28-31) Each question consists of
Sol. (d) Vasundhara Raje decided to join the views of two words which have a certain relationship with each
Narendra Modi because being a Chief Minister of a other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the
state of India, where central schemes are restricted pair which has the same relationship.
the fiscal space of the state government, feels that it
is injustice on the part of Central Government.
28. DIVA:OPERA
(a) producer:theatre (b) director:drama
24. The writer referred the PM’s view of (c) conductor:bus (d) thespian:play
cooperative federalism, what do you Sol. (d) DIVA:OPERA is analogous to thespian:play.
understand by cooperative federalism?
(a) It means a more prominent role for the Centre, 29. GRAIN:SALT
than states. (a) shard:pottery (b) shred:wood
(b) It means the competitiveness between the Centre (c) blades:grass (d) chip:glass
and the state. Sol. (d) GRAIN:SALT is analogous to chip:glass.
(c) It means more competitiveness among states
(d) It means a sync in relation among the states and 30. THRUST:SPEAR
the centre. (a) mangle:iron (b) scabbard:sword
(c) bow:arrow (d) fence:epee
Sol. (d) The writer referred the PM’s view of cooperative
federalism, which means a sync in relation among the Sol. (d) THRUST:SPEAR is analogous to fence:epee.
states and the centre. 31. PAIN:SEDATIVE
25. What does writer meant by “one size fits all” (a) comfort:stimulant (b) grief:consolation
schemes? (c) trance:narcotic (d) ache:extraction
(a) NITI Ayog will make schemes that would be Sol. (b) PAIN:SEDATIVE is analogous to grief:consolation.
equally beneficial for all.
Direction (Q. Nos. 32-35) In the following questions

choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the SECTION D
given word.
32. BRIEF QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
(a) Limited (b) Small (c) Little (d) Short 1. In a 4-digit number, the sum of the first
Sol. (d) Brief and short are synonymous. two digits is equal to that of the last two
33. EMBEZZLE digits. The sum of the first and last digits
(a) Misappropriate (b) Balance is equal to the third digit. Finally, the sum
(c) Remunerate (d) Clear of the second and fourth digits is twice the
sum of the other two digits. What is the
Sol. (a) Embezzle means the misappropriation of money.
Hence, misappropriate is correct.
third digit of the number?
(a) 5 (b) 8
34. VENT (c) 1 (d) 4
(a) Opening (b) Stodge Sol. (a) Let the 4-digit number be abcd. Then,
(c) End (d) Past tense of go
a+ b=c+ d …(i)
Sol. (a) Vent is synonymous to opening.
b + d = 2 ( a + c) …(ii)
35. AUGUST and a + d = c
(a) Common (b) Ridiculous …(iii)
(c) Dignified (d) Petty From Eqs. (i) and (iii), b = 2d.
Sol. (c) August means dignified. From Eqs. (i) and (ii), 3b = 4c + d
⇒ 3( 2d) = 4c + d
Direction (Q. Nos. 36-40) In the following the questions
choose the word which best expresses the opposite to the ⇒ 5d = 4c
meaning of the given word. 5
⇒ c= d
4
36. ENORMOUS Now, d can be 4 or 8. But if d = 8, then c = 10
(a) Soft (b) Average (c) Tiny (d) Weak
is not possible. So, d = 4 which gives c = 5.
Sol. (c) ‘Enormous’ means huge. So, its antonym will be
‘tiny’. 2. A simple mechanical device has four gears
A, B, C and D such that they mesh in the
37. COMMISSIONED order A—B—C—D. The number of teeth in
(a) Started (b) Closed these gears are 10, 21, 12, 17, respectively.
(c) Finished (d) Terminated
If we start the mechanism from rest, how
Sol. (d) ‘Commissioned’ means ‘to continue’. Hence, may revolutions will the largest gear have
‘terminated’ will be its correct antonym. to turn before one full cycle is completed
38. ARTIFICIAL and the gears are in the position from
(a) Red (b) Natural (c) Truthful (d) Solid where they started?
(a) 270
Sol. (b) ‘Artificial’ means ‘man made’. So, its antonym will be
(b) 340
‘natural’.
(c) 7140
39. EXODUS (d) 285
(a) Influx (b) Home-coming Sol. (b) Let n be the minimum number of teeth
(c) Return (d) Restoration advanced before all the wheels are in starting
Sol. (a) ‘Exodus’ means ‘to exclude’. So, the correct antonym position again.
will be ‘influx’ which means ‘to include’. Hence, n must be divisible by 10, 21, 12 and
17.
40. RELINQUISH
(a) Abdicate (b) Renounce (c) Possess (d) Deny Hence, n = LCM = 7140.
Sol. (c) ‘Relinquish’ means ‘to let go’. Hence, the correct So, the required number of revolutions in the
antonym will be ‘possess’. largest gear = 7140 / 21 = 340
5+1 5−1 5. An astronomical clock has its dial divided into

3. If a = and b = , then the value of
5−1 5+1 24 divisions instead of 12, and the small hand
 a + ab + b2 
2 goes round in 24 h. The large hand goes round
 2 2
would be once every hour. If 24th hour is noon, then when
 a − ab + b  are the hands at right angles between 24 and 1?
(a) 3/4 (b) 4/3 2 23
(a) 23 mins past 24 (b) 2 mins past 24
(c) 3/5 (d) 5/3 15 15
5 + 1 ( 5 + 1) 2 15 11
(c) 15 mins past 24 (d) 15 mins past 24
Sol. (b) a = = 23 23
5 −1 4
Sol. (c) Here, angle covered by the large hand in 60 min
[rationalising the denominator]
= 360° and angle covered by the small hand in
6 + 2 5 3+ 5 360°
= = 60 min = = 15°. Required time when the hands
4 2 24
5 − 1 ( 5 − 1) 2 are at right angles between 24 and 1.
b= =
5+1 4 60
= × 90 mins past 24
( 360 − 15)
6−2 5 3− 5
= = 60
4 2 = × 90 mins past 24
2 345
 3 + 5 14 + 6 5 360
a2 =   = = mins past 24
 2  4 23
 3 − 5
2 15
14 − 6 5 = 15 mins past 24
b2 =   = 23
 2  4
 5 + 1  5 − 1 1
6. The unit digit in the sum (124) 372 + (124) 373 is
ab =     = =1 (a) 5 (b) 4
 5 − 1  5 + 1 1
(c) 2 (d) 0
a2 + ab + b2 32 4 Sol. (d) 41 = 4; 42 = 16; 43 = 64; 44 = 256; 45 = 1024
∴ = =
a2 − ab + b2 24 3 On dividing 372 by 4, the remainder = 0
4. Three shepherds A, B and C rented a pasture On dividing 373 by 4, the remainder = 1
for a year. A grazed 22 sheeps for 4 months, B So, required unit digit
grazed 16 sheeps for 8 months and C grazed = unit’s digit of the sum of (6 + 4) = 0
32 sheeps for 6 months. If C′s share of rent is
7. Find the G.C.D. of the polynomials 36x2 − 49
` 600, the total rent for the year was
(a) ` 3550 (b) ` 200 and 6x2 − 25x + 21
(c) ` 1275 (d) ` 675 (a) 8x − 9 (b) 9x − 5
(c) 6x − 7 (d) None of these
Sol. (c) A′ s monthly equivalent rent = 22 × 4
Sol. (c) p ( x) = 36x 2 − 49
B′ s monthly equivalent rent = 16 × 8
= (6x) 2 − (7) 2 = (6x + 7) (6x − 7)
C′ s monthly equivalent rent = 32 × 6
B′ s monthly equivalent rent q ( x) = 6x 2 − 25x + 21
C′ s monthly equivalent rent = 6x 2 − 18x − 7x + 21
Rent paid by B = 6x ( x − 3) − 7 ( x − 3)
= = (6x − 7) ( x − 3);
Rent paid by C
∴ GCD = (6x − 7)
16 × 8 Rent paid by B
∴ =
32 × 6 600 8. Find the unit digit in the product
16 × 8 × 600 ( 4387) 245 × (621) 72
∴ Rent paid by B = = ` 400 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 7
32 × 6
Sol. (d) 71 = 7; 72 = 49; 73 = 343; 74 = 2401; 75 = 16809 i. e. ,
Similarly, rent paid by The digit at unit place repeats itself after power 4.
22 × 4 × 60
A= = ` 275 Therefore, unit’s digit in the product of ( 4387) 245 × (621)72
32 × 6 Units’s digits in the product of [( 4387)1 × (621)]
∴ Total rent = 400 + 600 + 275 = ` 1275 = 7 × 1= 7
9. The minute and the hour hand of a watch Let the minimum possible voter be 50, then
meet every 65 min. How much does the watch 2 × 50
=1
lose or gain time? 100
(a) 25 sec (b) 27 sec Hence, the minimum possible margin of votes = 1
(c) 27.16 sec (d) 30 sec
12. The sum of first three terms of a GP is to the
Sol. (a) In 60 min, the hour hand moves through an
sum of the first six terms is 125 : 152. Find the
angle of 30°.
common ratio of the GP.
∴ In 65 min, the hour hand will move through an (a) 3/5 (b) 3 (c) 2/5 (d) 5/8
30
angle of × 65 = 32.5° a ( r 3 − 1)
60
In 60 min, the minute hand moves through an angle S 125 ( r − 1) r3 − 1
Sol. (a) 3 = = = 6
of 360°. S 6 152 a ( r − 1) r − 1
6
∴ In 65 min, the minute hand moves through an ( r − 1)

360
angle of × 65 = 390° = 360° + 30° r3 − 1 125
60 ⇒ =
( r 3) 2 − 1 152
⇒ Difference of the angles made by the hour hand
and the minute hand = 2. 5 (In 65 min) ( r 3 − 1) 125
⇒ =
Now, an angle of 30° is made by the hour hand and ( r + 1) ( r 3 − 1)
3
152
the minute hand in 5 min.
1 125
∴ An angle of 2.5° is made by the minute hand in ⇒ =
5 2.5 r 3 + 1 152
× 2. 5 min, i.e. min, i.e. 25 sec. 152
30 6 ⇒ r3 + 1 =
125
10. How much Pepsi at ` 6 a L is added to 15 L of 27
‘dew’ at ` 10 a L, so that the price of the ⇒ r =
3
125
mixture be ` 9 a L? 3
(a) 5 (b) 8 ∴ r=
5
Sol. (a) Let x L pepsi is requied 13. In the adjoining figure O is the centre of the
6 10 circle. ∠AOD = 120°. If the radius of the circle
9
be ‘r’, then find the sum of the areas of
x quadrilaterals AODP and OBQC.
15
(10–9)=1 : 3=(9–6)
A C
x 1
Therefore, = 90° 90°
15 3 P
R
Q
O S
⇒ x=5L
D B
11. In a village three people contested for the post
of village pradhan. Due to their own interest,
3 2
all the voters voted and no vote was invalid. (a) r (b) 3 3r 2
2
The losing candidate got 30% votes. What
(c) 3r 2 (d) None of these
could be the minimum absolute margin of
votes by which the winning candidate led by Sol. (c) OQ = OB = OC = r (say)
the nearest rival, if each candidate got an [vertically opposite angles]
integral per cent of votes? ∠AOD = ∠BOC = 120° [By sss criterion]
(a) 4 (b) 2 ∴ ∠BOQ = ∠COQ = 60°
SB 3
Sol. (c) Losing candidate = 0.3 x Q = sin 60° =
OB 2
∴ Other two candidates = 0.7 x r 3
⇒ SB =
The share of winning candidate = 0.36 x 2
and the second ranker = 0.34 x ∴ BC = 258 = r 3
∴ Margin (min. possible) = 0.02 x [a perpendicular from centre to the chord bisects the
⇒ 2% of x chord]
C Sol. (b) If a number is divisible by 30 and 35, it is

divisible by LCM (30, 35) i.e. 210.
If a number is divisible by 210 but not by 140, then
O Q
it is not divisible by LCM (210, 140) i.e. 420. So, the
S number is divisible by 210 but not by 420. The least
and the greatest four digit multiples of 210 are 1050
and 9870, respectively.
B ∴ The number of multiples of four-digit multiples of
9870 − 1050 8820
∴ Area of quadrilateral BQCO 210 are + 1= + 1 = 43
210 210
1
= × BC × OQ Similarly, the number of four-digit multiples of 420
2 9660 + 1260 + 1
1 r2 3 are = 21.
= ×r 3×r= cm 2 420
2 2 ∴ The number of multiples of 210 which are not
 r 2 3 divisible by 420 are 43 − 21 = 22
∴ Area of both the quadrilateral = 2   = 3r cm
2
 2 
16. A covers 1/4th of his journey at 20 km/h and
14. An AP whose first term is unity and in which 1/3rd of the rest at 25 km/h and half of the rest
the sum of the first half of any even number of at 30 km/h and rest at the speed of 40 km/h.
terms to that of the second half of the same What is the average speed of A?
78
number of terms is in constant ratio, the (a) 13 km/h (b) 12 km/h
89
common different ‘d’ is given by 86
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 26 km/h (d) 28 km/h
89
Sol. (b) Let us consider d = 1, then the AP is
Sol. (c) Suppose, the total distance equals to 4 times the
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 LCM of the speeds.
∴ 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10 ∴ Total distance = 2400 km
and 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 = 26 600 600 600 600
∴ Total times = + + +
Again 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 12 20 25 30 40
∴ 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 = 21 = 30 + 24 + 20 + 15 = 89 h
2400 86
and 7 + 8 + 9 + 10 + 11 + 12 = 57 ∴ Average speed = = 26 km/h
89 89
10 21
Q ≠
26 57 17. Abhinav leaves Mumbai at 6 am and reaches
Hence d ≠1 Bangalore at 10 am. Praveen leaves Bangalore
Now, consider d = 2, then the AP is at 8 am and reaches Mumbai at 11 : 30 am. At
what time do they cross each other?
1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15
(a) 10 am (b) 8 : 32 am (c) 8 : 56 am (d) 9 : 20 am
∴ 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 = 16
Sol. (c) Time taken by Abhinav = 4 h
and 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 = 48
Time taken by Praveen = 3. 5 h
Again 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23
For convenience take the product of time taken by
∴ 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 = 36 both as a distance.
and 13 + 15 + 17 + 19 + 21 + 23 = 108 Then, the distance = 14 km
16 36 1 1
Q = ⇒ = Since, Abhinav covers half of the distance in 2 hr
48 108 3 3 (i.e. at 8 am)
Hence, d = 2 is the correct answer. Now, the rest half ( i.e. 7 km) will be covered by
15. Find the number of four digit number that are both Praveen and Abhinav.
divisible by 30 and 35 but not by 140. 7
Time taken by them = = 56 min
(a) 21 (b) 22 7. 5
(c) 43 (d) 44 Thus, they will cross each other at 8 : 56 am.
18. In the given figure ABCD is a cyclic 100

Sol. (b) Efficiency of A = = 10%
quadrilateral DO = 8 cm and CO = 4 cm. AC is 10
the angle bisector of ∠BAD. The length of AD Efficiency of B =
100
= 8.33%
is equal to the length of AB. DB intersects 12
diagonal AC at O, then what is the length of 100
Efficiency of C = = 6.66%
the diagonal AC ? 15
A Combined efficiency of A, B and
B
C = 10 + 8.33 + 6.66 = 25%
∴ Required number of days, when A, B and C worked
O 100
C
together = = 4 days
D 25
(a) 20 cm (b) 24 cm 21. A balance of a trader weighs 10% less than it

(c) 16 cm (d) None of these should be. Still the trader marks-up his goods
AD DO to get the overall profit of 20%.
Sol. (a) = =1 [By sss similarity]
AB BO What is the markup on the cost price?
⇒ OB = OD = 8 cm (a) 40% (b) 8%
ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral (c) 25% (d) 16.66%
∴ DO × BO = CO × AO Sol. (b) Let the CP be ` 1 per g.

⇒ AO = 16 cm But he weighs 900 g for every 1000 g
∴ AC = 16 + 4 = 20 cm ∴ Value of good sold = 900
Now, let the markup be x%.
19. A stamp collector likes to arrange and 1000x
rearrange his collection in a symmetrical ∴ MP = 1000 + = (1000 + 10x)
100
order. Sometimes he lines his stamps up in
pairs, sometimes in threes, sometimes in fours, But, MP = SP, ∴ SP = (1000 + 10x)
(1000 + 10x) − 900
occasionally in fives, and once in a while in Hence, profit = × 100 = 20
groups of six. After arranging them in any of 900
these groups, he invariably has one stamp left ⇒ x =8
over. When he arranges his stamps in groups Thus, the markup = 8%
of seven, he finds that there is not a single
stamp to spare. How many stamps will be left
22. If a, b, c be respectively the sum of first p, q, r
over if he arranges them in groups of 8? terms of an AP, then
a b c
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7 ( q − r) + ( r − p) + ( p − q) equal
p q r
Sol. (a) Number of tickets with the collector
(a) pqr (b) ap + bq + cr
= LCM (3, 4, 5, 6) + 1, i.e. 60 + 1 = 61
(c) 0 (d) p + q + r
or one more than the multiple of 60 i.e. 61, 121,
Sol. (c) Let an AP be 2, 5, 8, 11, 14, 17, 20, 23,...
181, 241, 301 etc.
and let p = 3, q = 5, r = 6
Since, it must be exactly divisible by 7, so the
collector has 301 stamps and when stamps are and S p = a = ( 2 + 5 + 8) = 15
arranged in groups of 8, he will have 5 stamps left and S q = b = ( 2 + 5 + 8 + 11 + 14) = 40
over. and S r = c = ( 2 + 5 + ...+14 + 17) = 57
20. A can do a piece of work in 10 days, B can do it ∴
a b c
( q − r) + ( r − p) + ( p − q)
in 12 days and C can do it in 15 days. In how p q r
many days they can complete the work, 15 40 57
= ( 5 − 6) + (6 − 3) + ( 3 − 5)
working together? 3 5 6
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10
= − 5 + 24 − 19 = 0
Direction (Q. Nos. 23-24) A survey that 41%, 35% and ⇒ x + y + z = 9 cm

60% of the people read ‘‘Times of India’’, ‘‘Hindustan Now, x = ( x + y + z) − ( y + z) = 9 − 6 = 3 cm
Times’’ and ‘‘Deccan Herald’’ respectively. 27% people read
⇒ y = 5 − x = 5 − 3 = 2 cm
exactly two of the three newspapers and 3% read none.
⇒ z = 6 − y = 6 − 2 = 4 cm
23. What percentage of people read all the three ∴ x = 3 cm, y = 2 cm and z = 4
newspaper?
(a) 40% (b) 6% (c) 9% (d) 12% 26. If a, b, c be the p th, q th and r th terms of an
24. If another survey indicates that 16% of the AP. Then, p ( b − c) + q ( c − a) + r ( a − b) equals
people read Times of India and Deccan Herald, to
abc
and 14% read Hindustan Times and Deccan (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d)
pqr
Herald, then what percentage of the people read
only Hindustan Times (Use the data from the Sol. (a) Let an AP be 3, 7, 11, 15, 19, 23 27,..... and
previous question, if necessary) Let p = 2, q = 3, r = 7
(a) 10% (b) 8% (c) 12% (d) 15% Then, Tp = a = 7, Tq = b = 11 , Tr = c = 27
Solutions (23-24) ∴ p ( b − c) + q ( c − a) + r ( a − b)
= 2 (11 − 27) + 3( 27 − 7) + 7(7 − 11)
TOI HT
a x b = − 32 + 60 − 28 = 0
41 k 35
z y Hence, (a) is true.
c 27. A company instead of raising the mark up by
60 DH 20% discounted the cost price by 20% while
23. (b) x + y + z = 27% stiching the price tag on its project. Further
the company offers a discount of 6.25% to its
a + b + c + x + y + z + k = 97% customer. In this process company incurs a
⇒ a + b + c + k = 70% loss of ` 37.5 on a single article. What is the
Now, a + b + c + 2( x + y + z) + 3k selling price of that article?
= 41+ 35 + 60 = 136% (a) 417.5 (b) 112.5
(c) 365.5 (d) None of these
⇒ a + b + c + 3k = 136 − 54 = 82%
Sol. (b) Let CP = 100 , then
And a + b + c + k = 70%
Tag price = 80
∴ 2k = 12%
SP, after discount = 75
⇒ k = 6%
Total loss = 25
24. (c) z + k = 16
Q ` 25 are being less at CP of ` 100.
⇒ z = 10 [Q k = 6] 100
∴ ` 37.5 are being less at CP of ` × 37.5 = 150
⇒ y + k = 14 ⇒ y = 8 25
⇒ x =9 [Q x + y z = 27] Hence, SP = 150 − 37. 5 = 112. 5
∴ b = 35 − ( x + k + y) = 35 − (9 + 6 + 8) = 12% 28. If (5x2 + 14 x + 2) 2 − ( 4 x2 − 5x + 7) 2 is divided
25. Three circles touch each other externally. The by ( x2 + x + 1) then, quotient ‘q’ and remainder
distance between their centre is 5 cm, 6 cm and ‘r’ are given by
7 cm. Find the radii of the circles. (a) q = ( x2 + 19x), r = 0 (b) q = 9 ( x2 + 19x − 5), r = 0
(a) 2 cm, 3 cm, 4 cm (b) 3 cm, 4 cm, 1 cm (c) q = ( x + 19x − 5), r = 1
2
(d) q = 9( x2 + 19x − 5), r = 1
(c) 1 cm, 2.5 cm, 3.5 cm (d) 1 cm, 2 cm, 4 cm
Sol. (b) Q A2 − B 2 = ( A + B) ⋅ ( A − B)
Sol. (a)
∴( 5x 2 + 14x + 2) 2 − ( 4x 2 − 5x + 7) 2
A
x = [( 5x 2 + 14x + 2) + ( 4x 2 − 5x + 7)]
z × [( 5x 2 + 14x + 2) − ( 4x 2 + 5x − 7)]
B C
y
= 9 ( x 2 + 19x − 5) ( x 2 + x + 1)
( 5x + 14x + 2) 2 − ( 4x 2 − 5x + 7) 2
2
AB = 5 cm = x + y ∴
( x 2 + x + 1)
BC = 6 cm = y + z
= 9 ( x 2 + 19x − 5)
AC = 7 cm = z + x
∴ q = 9 ( x 2 + 19x − 5) and r = 0
∴ 2( x + y + z) = 5 + 6 + 7 = 18 cm
29. If log 10 x2 − log 10 y = 1, find the value of y, 31. What is the difference between the number of
when x = 2 qualified candidates of institute ‘C’ and those
(a) 2/9 (b) 4/25 of ‘E ’ ?
(c) 25/4 (d) 4/9 (a) 2040 (b) 2140 (c) 2144 (d) 2120
Sol. (b) log10 x − log10

2
y =1 32. What is the average number of appeared
x  2 candidates from institutes A, E and G
⇒ log10   = log10 10 together?
 y
(a) 25200 (b) 12600
x2 4 (c) 8400 (d) 8600
⇒ = 10 ⇒ = 10
y y
33. What is the percentage of qualified candidates
4 2
⇒ y = = from institutes ‘A’ and ‘C’ taken together?
10 5 (rounded to two decimal places)
4
⇒ y= (a) 21.32 (b) 22. 42 (c) 22.32 (d) 21.42
25
Solutions (31-33)
30. Let a function
−x
is defined as 31. (a) Required difference = ( 24 − 7)% of 12000
x
a +a
f ( x) = ; a > 0, what is the value of = 17% of 12000
2
f ( x + y) + f ( x − y) ? = 2040
(a) f ( x) + f ( y ) (b) f ( x) f ( y ) 32. (c) Total appeared candidates from A, E and G
(c) 2 f ( x) f ( y ) (d) 4 f ( x) f ( y ) 14 + 21 + 10
= 56000 × = 560 × 45
ax + a− x ay + a − y 100
Sol. (c) f ( x) = , f ( y) =
2 2 560 × 45
∴Required average = = 8400
x + y −( x + y ) 3
+a
a
∴ f ( x + y) = …(i) 33. (d) Required percentage
2
x −y 12000 × (18 + 24)%
a + a− x + y = × 100 = 21. 42%
and f ( x − y) = …(ii) 56000 × (14 + 28)%
2
Adding (i) and (ii), we get
Direction (Q. Nos. 34-36) Study the following table
ax + y + a− x − y ax − y + a− x + y
f ( x + y) + f ( x − y) = + carefully to answer the questions given below it.
2 2
1 x y Terrorists killed in Poonch district in
= [ a ( a + a ) + a ( ay + a− y )]
−y −x
J & K over the years 2014 to 2016
2
1
= ( ax + a− x ) ( ay + a− y ) Year Location Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug
2
2014 On LoC 6 1 0 3 26 22 18 6
= 2f ( x) f ( y)
In Depth 9 21 22 21 22 52 42 14
Direction (Q. nos. 31-33) These questions are based 2015 On LoC 7 9 0 6 12 4 8 10
on the following pie-charts' informations.
In Depth 28 17 16 35 21 20 12 21
Classification of appeared candidates in a competitive
test from different institutes and qualified candidates 2016 On LoC 5 14 2 4 8 8 0 10
from those institutes.
In Depth 9 6 7 34 16 16 9 7
7% 12% 15%
10%
21% F G 7% F
E G 18% 34. What is the difference between the average
E A 14% number of terrorists killed on ‘LoC’ in 2015
A
D 15% D
12% C B C B
9%
and average number of terrorists killed in
8%
‘Depth’ location in 2016? (only for the given
28% 24%
months)
Appeared candidates = 56000 Qualified = 12000 (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 15
35. Approximately, what is the ratio between total Sol. (c) Given, x = 12, y = 16, z = 18, k = 5
killings in ‘In depth’ location in 2015 and According to the formula,
killings on ‘LoC’ in that year? Required number = (LCM of x , y and z) + k
(a) 7 : 2 (b) 3: 1 (c) 17 : 8 (d) 9 : 4
= (LCM of 12, 16, 18) + 5
36. Which of the following month-and-year LCM of 12, 16, 18 is
combination has seen maximum terrorist
killings? 2 12, 16, 18
(a) May 2015 (b) May 2014 2 6, 8, 9
(c) April 2016 (d) June 2014
3 3, 4, 9
Solutions (34-36)
1, 4, 3
34. (a) Terrorists killed on ‘LoC’ in 2015
= 7 + 9 + 0 + 6 + 12 + 4 + 8 + 10 = 56 ∴ LCM = 2 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 3 = 144
Killed in ‘Depth’ location in 2016. Required number = 144 + 5 = 149
= 9 + 6 + 7 + 34 + 16 + 16 + 9 + 7 = 104 39. If area of regular pentagon is 125 3 cm, how
104 − 56
∴ Required difference = =6 long is its each side?
8 (a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 16 cm (d) 25 cm
35. (b) Required ratio Sol. (a) We know that,
28 + 17 + 16 + 35 + 21 + 20 + 12 + 21
= Area of regular pentagon = 5a2
3
[a = side]
7 + 9 + 0 + 6 + 12 + 4 + 8 + 10 4
170 According to the question,
= ≈ 3:1
56 5a2 3 125 3 × 4
36. (d) In June 2014, total killings were ( 22 + 52) = 74, = 125 3 ⇒ a2 = = 100
4 5 3
which is the highest among the given combination. ∴ a = 10 cm
30 − x
37. If < 4, then find x 40. The first 100 multiples of 10 are multiplied
5 together. How many zeros will be there at the
(a) < 6 < x < 6 (b) 10 < x < 50 end of the product?
(c) x > 10 (d) None of these (a) 100 (b) 24
30 − x (c) 124 (d) 125
Sol. (b) <4
5 Sol. (c) First 100 multiples of10 = 10, 20, 30, 40 ,...990,
⇒ |30 − x | < 20 1000
⇒ −20 < ( 30 − x) < 20 We have to find out the number of zeros in
⇒ −20 < 30 − x < 20 10 × 20 × 30 ×...× 990 × 1000.
⇒ −50 < − x < − 10 Which can be written as
⇒ 50 > x > 10 10100 (1 × 2 × 3 × 4 ×...×99 × 100)
⇒ 10 < x < 50 = 10100 (100 !)
Now, the number of zeros is non factorial part
38. The least number which when divided by 12, 100 100
16 and 18 leaves 5 as remainder in each case. = +
5 25
Find the number.
(a) 139 (b) 144 = 20 + 4 = 24
(c) 149 (d) 154 ∴ Total number of zeros = 100 + 24 = 124
Solved Paper 2014
Symbiosis
SNAP National
Aptitude
Test
Time : 120 min Marks : 180
Instructions
1. There are total 150 questions in this solved paper.
2. There are four parts. Part A (General English), Part B (Quantitative, Data Interpretation and Data
Sufficiency), Part C (General Awareness) and Part D (Analytical & Logical Reasoning)
3. Part A carries 40 marks, Part B carries 40 marks, Part C carries 40 marks and Part D carries 60
marks.
Part A General English

1. Which of these is not a compound word? Directions (Q. Nos. 5-9) Fill in the blanks with proper
answers.
(a) Hard-wired (b) Run-of-the-mill
(c) Bottleneck (d) Minestrone 5. ……… the stable door after the horse has bolted.
Sol. (d) ‘Minestrone’ is not a compound word. It means the (a) Lock (b) Shut
soup made out of the green vegetables. (c) Close (d) Open
Sol. (a) ‘Lock’ is appropriate filler. It gives the idea to close
2. Find the antonym of ‘Native’. the door with a device which is operated by a key.
(a) Tarnished (b) Characteristic
(c) Intrinsic (d) Exotic 6. There were ……… viewers than expected.
Sol. (d) ‘Native’ means ‘belonging to a place from the birth’. (a) fewer
‘Exotic’ means ‘of foreign origin’. So, it is correct (b) less
antonym. (c) many
(d) lesser
3. A shortfall in supplies would knock the bottom out
Sol. (a) Here, comparative degree will be used. ‘Less’,
of the engineering industry. What does ‘ knock the ‘lesser’ are comparative, but used when amount is
bottom out of ’ stand for? referred which is uncountable. ‘Many’ is positive degree.
(a) Make it baseless So, ‘fewer’ is appropriate.
(b) Shake its foundation
(c) Cause it to collapse 7. ……… when, after waiting for hours, we were told
(d) None of the above the tickets were sold out.
Sol. (c) Idiom ‘knock the bottom out of something’ means (a) We were at the end of our tether
‘to cause a severe collapse or damage’. (b) We were on edge
(c) Tempers frayed
4. Choose the word with correct spelling. (d) Nerves frayed
(a) Demurrage (b) Demurage Sol. (c) The sentence gives the idea that the people
(b) Demmurrage (d) Demurragge became angry when they waited for hours and didn’t get
Sol. (a) ‘Demurrage’ is the correct spelling that means the tickets. ‘Tempers frayed’ is used as an idiom that
‘paying the late fine’. means the same.
2 Solved Paper 2014
8. Your proficiency in the French language depends 13. Choose the correct synonym for ‘Attenuate’.
on how hard you work. ……… if you live in the (a) Enervate (b) Attention
culture of your target language, you will learn even (c) Awaken (d) Trigger
more quickly. Sol. (a) ‘Attenuate’ and ‘Enervate’ both have similar
(a) Likewise (b) Hence meaning i.e. ‘to weaken something’.
(c) Furthermore (d) In fact
Sol. (d) ‘Hence’ and ‘In fact’ are closely related, but ‘in 14. Choose the antonym for ‘Cajole’.
fact’ is used in the sense of showing something of a (a) Dissuade (b) Beguile
practical experience. (c) Flatter (d) Blandish
Sol. (a) ‘Cajole’ means ‘to flatter’ while ‘Dissuade’ means
9. The government is planning to sell PSUs ……… ‘to counsel’.
BHEL, SAIL and NTPC ……… first wants a
regulatory agency ……… the IRDA to assess their 15. Choose the correct synonym for ‘Consanguinity’.
worth. (a) Affinity (b) Corpulent
(a) like/and/like (b) like/but/such as (c) Estrangement (d) Anarchy
(c) such as/so/like (d) such as/but/like
Sol. (a) ‘Consanguinity’ and ‘Affinity’ both have similar
Sol. (b) meaning i.e. ‘family relationship’ and hence, they are
synonyms.
10. Choose the sentence which is grammatically
correct.
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-22) Fill in the blanks with
(a) I was struck in traffic jam proper answers.
(b) I struck in traffic jam
(c) I was struck up in traffic jam 16. Autotomy is the ability of an animal to ……… a
(d) I was struck upon traffic jam part of its body at will to save itself from predators
Sol. (a) ‘I was struck in traffic jam’ is the correct sentence and attackers.
grammatically. (a) cast off
(b) cast away
11. Choose the option having correct word order in the (c) cut off
following statements. (d) cut down
(a) Immigrant communities in the US have Sol. (a) ‘Autotomy’ is the process of ‘casting off’ i.e. to
brought renewed pressure after the separate a part, of one’s body to escape from predation
catastrophic terrorist attacks on the World or attacks.
Trade Centre in New York in 2001
(b) The aftermath of the catastrophic terrorist 17. They all started ……… as the door of the
attacks on the World Trade Centre in New dilapidated house swung open.
York in 2001 has brought renewed pressure (a) with bated breath
on immigrant communities in the US (b) in beeline
(c) The World Trade Centre, after the (c) in the same boat
catastrophic terrorist attacks in New York in (d) a bone of contention
2001, has brought renewed pressures on
immigrant communities in the US Sol. (a) ‘Staring with bated breath’ means ‘to look
(d) In 2001, the aftermath of the catastrophic something in anticipation or with suspense’. As the
terrorist attacks on the World Trade Centre house has been in a dilapidated situation so such type
in New York has brought renewed pressures of anticipation is obvious.
on immigrant communities in the US
18. But at a time when business values are falling,
Sol. (b) The sentence is depicting the consequence of the stakeholders tend not to take kindly to ……… at a
terrorist attack on World Trade Centre in New York and
knock-down price.
its aftermath on the immigrant communities. So, option
(b) is the correct word order statement. (a) selling the family silver
(b) selling one’s soul
12. The football team travelled ……… train. (c) selling yourself short
(a) in (b) by (c) from (d) on (d) selling someone a pup
Sol. (b) Preposition ‘by’ is appropriate usage. Sol. (b) Idiom ‘to sell one’s soul’ means ‘to do some
dishonest practices for the sake of money’.
Solved Paper 2014 3
19. Although this political party has reputation for Directions (Q. Nos. 24-26) Read the given passage
………, its behaviour towards the public has and answer the questions.
always been ………, suggesting it may not be as Read not to contradict and confute, nor to
insolent as has been projected by its competitors. believe and take for granted, nor to find talk and
(a) vendibility; impertinent discourse, but to weigh and consider. Some
(b) secrecy; uniform books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed,
(c) temerity; courteous and some few to be chewed and digested; that is,
(d) nepotism; varied some books are to be read only in parts; others
to be read, but not curiously; and some few to be
Sol. (d) ‘Nepotism’ is the favouritism shown on the basis
read wholly, and with diligence and attention.
of family relationship. It is often seen in case of political
Some books may also be read by deputy, and
parties.
extracts made of them by others; but that would
20. The company believes in getting value for money be only in the less important arguments and the
and it is wrong of the employees to view its ……… meaner sort of books; else distilled books are
like common distilled waters, flashy things.
as ……… .
Reading makes a full man, conference a ready
(a) fore-handedness; stinginess
man and writing an exact man. And therefore, if
(b) reserve; levity
a man write little, he had need have a good
(c) insolence; shortage
memory; if he confer little, he had need have a
(d) indolence; destitution
present wit; and if he read little, he had need
Sol. (b) ‘Reserve’ stands for the resources that a have much cunning to seem to know that he
person/firm has. ‘Levity’ is reflection of silliness. Often doth not. Histories make men wise, poets witty,
we know that a firm keeps the reserve with it what the mathematics subtle, natural philosophy
others take it to be its silliness. deep, moral grave, logic and rhetoric able to
contend. (Source-Of Studies-Francis Bacon)
21. In the midst of radiantly beautiful women, this
homely woman looked strikingly ……… but it 24. What should be the real object of reading?
transpired later that she was an arbitrator and not (a) To distill the contents
……… . (b) To understand author’s views and their
(a) unattractive; an adjudicator application in day-to-day life
(b) incongruous; a contestant (c) To have a good memory
(c) dejected; a raconteuse (d) To weigh and consider
(d) personable; an audience Sol. (d) Real object of reading according to the passage
Sol. (b) An arbitrator cannot be justified as being dejected should be to weigh and consider.
or personable. As the sentence suggests she may be
looking absurd. Hence, incongruous is an appropriate 25. The word ‘confute’ in the passage means
usage. Moreover, as she was a judge so she must not (a) to argue
be a contestant. (b) to refuse
(c) to disapprove
22. This author is not outspoken on political issues and (d) to doubt
her writings are more famous for their aesthetic
qualities than for their ……… ones. Sol. (c) Here, ‘confute’ gives us the sense of ‘disapproval’.
(a) polemical (b) commercial 26. What can be done with regard to the ‘meaner’ sort
(c) contemporary (d) dramatic of books?
Sol. (a) A political issues are often gone controversial, so (a) To be read but not to contradict and confute
use of ‘polemical’ is appropriate. (b) To be read curiously
(c) To be read but not curiously
23. Choose the word with correct spelling. (d) They can be ‘read by deputy and extracts
(a) Perniceous (b) Pernicious made of them by others’
(c) Perniciuos (d) Pernecious
Sol. (d) ‘Meaner’ sorts of books can be read by deputy
Sol. (b) ‘Pernicious’ is the correct spelling that means ‘bad and extracts made of them by others.
or hurtful’.
4 Solved Paper 2014
Directions (Q. Nos. 27-32) Read the given passage and answer the questions.
Many firms fail because when they begin exporting, they have not researched the target markets or have not
developed an international marketing plan to be successful. A firm must clearly define goals objectives and
potential problems. Secondly, it must develop a definitive plan to accomplish its objective regardless of
problems involved. Unless the firm is fortunate enough to possess a staff with considerable expertise, it may
not be able to take this crucial first step without qualified outside guidance.
Often top management is not committed enough to overcome the initial difficulties and financial requirements
of exporting. It can often take more time and effort to establish a firm in a foreign market than in domestic
one. Although, the early delays and costs involved in exporting may seem difficult to justify when compared to
established domestic trade the exporter should take a more objective view of this process and carefully monitor
international marketing efforts through these early difficulties. If a good foundation is laid for export business,
the benefits derived should eventually out-weigh the investment.
Another problem area is in the selection of foreign distributor. The complications involved in overseas
communications and transportation require international distributors to act with greater independence than
their domestic counterparts also since a new exporter’s trademarks and reputation is usually unknown in the
foreign market. Foreign customers may buy on the strength of distributing agent’s reputation. A firm should
therefore conduct a thorough evaluation of the distributor’s facilities, the personnel handling its account and
managements methods employed.
Another common difficulty for new exporter is the neglect of the export market once the domestic one booms :
too many companies only concentrate on exporting when there is recession. Others may refuse to modify
products to meet the regulations or cultural preferences of other countries. Local safety regulations cannot be
ignored by exporters. If necessary modifications are not made at the factory the distributor must make them,
this is usually at a greater cost and probably not as satisfactory is it should be. It should also be noted that the
resulting smaller profit margin makes the account less attractive.
If exporters expect distributing agents to actively promote their accounts, they must be trained and their
performance must be continually monitored. This requires a company’s marketing executive to be located
permanently in the distributor’s geographical areas until there is sufficient business to support the
representative. The distributor should also be treated on an equal basis with domestic counterparts, for
example, special discount offers, sales incentive programmes and special credit terms should be available.
Considering a joint venture or licensing agreement is another option for new exporters. However, many
companies still dismiss international marketing as unviable. There are a number of reasons for this. There
may be import restrictions in the target market. The company may lack sufficient financial resources or its
product line may be too limited. Yet many products that can compete on a national basis can be successful in
the majority of world markets. In general, all that is needed for success is flexibility in using the proper
combinations of marketing techniques.
27. In the first paragraph, the writer suggest that firms 29. An exporter should choose a distributor who
thinking about exporting should (a) has experienced personnel
(a) get professional advice (b) has good communication skills
(b) study international marketing (c) is well established in the target market
(c) identify the most profitable markets (d) is not financially dependent on import
(d) have different objectives to other exporters business
Sol. (b) The firms that are thinking about the exporting Sol. (c) If the distributor of the exporter is well
business must study and research the international established in the target market, then exporter would
marketing. be benefitted.
28. The writer believes that if sufficient preparation is 30. New exporters often make the mistake of
undertaken ignoring the export market, when
(a) initial difficulties can be easily avoided (a) distribution costs are too high
(b) the costs can be recovered quite quickly (b) their product is selling well at home
(c) management will become more committed (c) there is a global economic recession
(d) the exporter will be successful in the long term (d) distributors cannot make safety
Sol. (d) The writer believes that if sufficient preparation is modifications
undertaken then the exporter will be successful in the long Sol. (b) Exporters often ignore the exporting business,
term. when there is a boom in domestic market.
Solved Paper 2014 5
31. For a distributor to be successful, the exporter 36. Vodafone ……… and initiated a fresh style in
must television advertising.
(a) focus on one particular region (a) broke new ground (b) cut the ground
(b) finance local advertising campaigns (c) cut corners (d) prepared the ground
(c) give the same support as to domestic agents Sol. (a) Idiom ‘breaking new ground’ means ‘innovating
(d) make sure there are sufficient marketing staff act for the very first time ever’.
locally
Sol. (c) An exporter must give the same support as to 37. He took to ……… his impatience indiscriminately,
domestic agents, so that his distributor becomes on whoever happened to be at hand.
successful. (a) giving free rein to (b) airing
(c) venting (d) All of these
32. The writer states that some companies are
Sol. (b) ‘Airing’ means ‘making something viral or public’.
reluctant to export because The sentence suggests that the person has made his
(a) there is little demand for their products impatience got aired.
(b) the importation of certain goods is controlled
(c) they do not have good marketing techniques 38. He provides a ……… sketch of the political values,
(d) they are not able to compete with local strategy and practices of these diverse
business civilisations.
Sol. (c) Some companies are reluctant to export because (a) thumbnail (b) thumbling
they do not have good marketing techniques. (c) thumbprint (d) None of the above
Sol. (a) ‘Thumbnail’ means ‘giving an idea that is concise
33. The kids were all coming to the pool. The pool
and brief’. Subject of the sentence has given all the
attracted kids like briefs about different attributes, hence it is the correct
(a) rain to the desert sands usage.
(b) elephants to water
(c) a balloons to helium 39. ‘This desk is more square than that one’ is an
(d) flies to honey erroneous statement, the correct statement would
Sol. (d) The best attraction is shown by the use of ‘flies’ to be
honey’ as it is more natural to take place. (a) This desk is squarer than that one
(b) This desk is more nearly square than that
34. If thieves ……… our house, I ……… frightened to one
death. (c) This desk is most square than that one
(a) will enter, would be (d) This desk is much more square than that one
(b) enter, would be Sol. (a) ‘More square’ can well be replaced by ‘squarer’.
(c) would enter, would be
(d) enter, would have been 40. ‘Half a loaf is better than no bread’ means
Sol. (b) (a) God helps those who help themselves
(b) When a bad thing happens, there is always a
35. The enemy turned ……… and ran away as soon as positive side to it
it saw the brave warrior. (c) You should be happy with what you have
(a) back even, if it is less than what you want
(b) tail (d) Don’t be upset by trivialities
(c) face Sol. (c) This phrase has the meaning same as to
(d) feet ‘something is better than nothing’. So, it also implies
Sol. (b) Idiom ‘turn a tail’ means getting frightened and equally to ‘You should be happy with what you have
running away from the spot. even, if it is less than what you want’.
6 Solved Paper 2014
Part B Quantitative, Data Interpretation and Data Sufficiency

41. The line joining the points (5, 2) and (6, –15) 45. Find the domain of the expression Y = sin x + log x.
subtends a right angle at the point (a) ( − ∞, ∞ )
(a) ( − 1, 2) (b) (0, 7) (b) ( − ∞, 0)
(c) (0, 0) (d) Insufficient data (c) (0, ∞ )
Sol. (d) Let the point be x and y, (d) (0, 1)
Since, AB ⊥ BC Sol. (c) Q Domain of sin x = (− ∞, ∞ )
A (5, 2)
and domain of log x = (0, ∞ )
∴ Domain of (sin x + log x ) = (− ∞, ∞ ) ∩ (0, ∞ ) = (0, ∞ )
(6, –15) 46. The expression x4 + 5x2 + 36 can be factorised as

B C
(x, y) (a) ( x 2 + x + 1) ( x 2 − x + 36)
∴ Slope of AB × Slope of BC = − 1 (b) ( x 2 − x + 6) ( x 2 + 4x + 6)
 y + 15   y − 2  (c) ( x 2 − x + 6) ( x 2 + x + 6)
⇒   ×  = −1
 x − 6   x − 5 (d) None of the above
Since, the data is not sufficient. Sol. (d) Here, x 4 + 5x 2 + 36 will remain x 4 + 5x 2 + 36.
∴ We cannot find the value of points x and y. So, it cannot be factorised.
42. Find the least positive integer, which when divided 47. There are 4 members in a committee. If one of them
by 2 gives remainder 1, when divided by 3 gives is replaced by a younger member such that the
remainder 2, when divided by 4 gives remainder 3 average age of the committee is as it was 6 yr ago.
and when divided by 5 gives remainder 4, what The new member is how many years younger than
would the integer be? the member replaced?
(a) 33 (b) 59 (c) 61 (d) 49 (a) 42 yr
Sol. (b) (b) 24 yr
(c) 6 yr
43. How many numbers exist between 100 and 1000, (d) None of the above
which are divisible by 7? Sol. (b) Let the age of four members be x1, x 2 , x 3 and x 4 .
(a) 142 (b) 138 (c) 60 (d) 128 Average age of four members
Sol. (d) The numbers, which are divisible by 7 between x + x2 + x3 + x4
= 1
100 to 1000 are 105, 112, 119, …, 994. 4
Here, we apply the formula, to find the total number, Let the age of new member be x 5 .
l = a + (n − 1) d Now, according to the question
⇒ 994 = 105 + (n − 1) 7 ⇒ 7 n = 896 x1 + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 − x 4 + x 5
∴ n = 128 4
x − 6 + x2 − 6 + x3 − 6 + x4 − 6
= 1
44. Two athletes A and B are running on a 900 m long 4
track from opposite ends, their speeds are in the x1 + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 − 24
=
ratio of 4 : 5, when will they cross each other 4
(a) 500 m from A’s end ⇒ x1 + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 − x 4 + x 5
(b) 400 m from B’s end = x1 + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 − 24
(c) 400 m from A’s end ⇒ x 5 = x 4 − 24
(d) 100 m from A’s end i.e. new member is 24 yr younger than the member
replaced.
Sol. (c) Let the speeds of A and B be 4x and 5x ,
respectively. 48. The probability that a builder will get a
Length of the tracks AB = 900 m construction contract is 3 / 4 and the probability
Suppose, they cross each other at point C time = t that he will not get the electrical contract is 7 / 9. If
x (900 – x) the probability of getting atleast one contract is 5/ 6,
A B
C what is the probability that he will get both?
4x x 4 x 5 5
Then, = ⇒ = (a) (b)
5x (900 − x ) 5 (900 − x ) 36 6
⇒ 3600 − 4x = 5x 5
(c) (d) None of these
⇒ 9x = 3600 ⇒ x = 400 9
So, they cross each other 400 m from A’s end.
Solved Paper 2014 7
Sol. (a) Let A = Builder will get a construction

51. A solid metal cylinder of radius 5 cm and height 12 cm is
contract melted to make solid balls of radius 1 mm. How many
and B = Builder will get an electrical contract such balls are produced (in lakh)?
3 7
∴ P ( A) = and P (B ) = (a) 2.5 (b) 2.25
4 9 (c) 1.5 (d) None of these
2
⇒ P (B) = Sol. (b) A solid metal cylinder of radius (r1 ) = 5 cm and height
9
5 (h) = 12cm.
Also, P ( A ∪ B) =
6 It is melted to make a solid balls of radius r2 = 1 mm
Q P ( A ∪ B) = P ( A) + P (B) − P ( A ∩ B) = 01. cm.
5 3 2 Then, number of balls produced
⇒ = + − P ( A ∩ B)
6 4 9 Volume of cylinder πr12 h
3 2 5 = =
∴ P ( A ∩ B) = + − Volume of sphere (ball) 4 3
4 9 6 π r2
3
27 + 8 − 30 5 5 × 5 × 12 × 3
= = =
36 36 4 × 01
. × 01
. × 01
.
49. In how many ways can 21 books on literature = 225000 = 2.25 lakh
and 19 books on nature be placed in a row on a
shelf, so that two books on nature may not be 52. The value of log (−1/ 4) 256 is equal to
together? (a) 64 (b) 16 (c) − 4 (d) 128
(a) 4620 (b) 3672 Sol. (c) Let log( −1/ 4 ) 256 = x
(c) 1540 (d) None of these x
⇒  − 1  = 256
Sol. (c) In order that, two books on nature and never  
 4
together we must place all these books as under x
X L X L X …… X L X, ⇒  − 1  = (4)4
 
where L denotes the position of literature and X that  4
[Q (4)4 = (−4)4 ]
x
of a nature book.
⇒  − 1  = (−4)4
 
Since, there are 21 books on literature, so the  4
number of places marked X are 22. x −4
⇒  − 1 =  − 1
Now, 19 places out of 22 can be chosen in 22 C19    
 4  4
22 × 21 × 20
= 22C 3 = ∴ x = −4
3×2 ×1
∴ Required number of ways = 22C 3 = 1540 53. A salesman’s commission is 6% on all sales upto ` 15000
and 4% on all sales exceeding this amount. He remits `
50. A sphere of radius 4 cm is dropped into a 30000 to his parent company after deducting his
cylindrical vessel partly filled with water. The commission. Find the total sales.
radius of the vessel is 8 cm. If the sphere is (a) ` 31562.5
submerged completely, by how much will the (b) ` 31500.5
surface of the water be raised? (c) ` 32570.5
3 4 (d) None of the above
(a) units (b) units
4 3 Sol. (a) Let total sales be x.
1 So, we get his commission,
(c) units (d) None of these
4
 6 × 15000 + (x − 15000) 4
Sol. (b) Here, radius of the sphere = 4 cm  
 100  100
and radius of the vessel = 8 cm = 900 +
1
x − 600 = 300 +
1
x
4 3 4 22
∴Volume of the sphere = πr = × ×4×4×4 25 25
3 3 7 According to the question,
Increase in the volume of water = Volume of sphere
x −  300 +
x
⇒
22
×8×8×h= ×
4 22
×4×4×4  = 30000
 25 
7 3 7
⇒  x −  − 300 = 30000
4×4×4×4 1x
∴ h= 
8×8×3 25 
24
=
4 ⇒ x = 30300
3 25
30300 × 25
4
So, the surface of water will be raised by units. ∴ x= = ` 31562.5
3 24
Hence, the total sales is ` 31562.5.
8 Solved Paper 2014
Now, let after x sec of this time, both time will be same
54. If 60% of ( x − y) = 40% of ( x + y), then what per cent of i.e. 27 + x = 24 + 12 x
x is y? ⇒ 11x = 3
3
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 22% (d) 24% ⇒ x=
11
Sol. (b) Given that, 60% of (x − y) = 40% of (x + y) 3
Hence, the required time is 7 : 05 : 27
60 (x − y) 40 (x + y) 11
⇒ =
100 100 5
i.e. 7 min past 7.
On solving above equation, we get (x − 4 y) 11
So, y is 25% of x. x y z
57. If x + y + z = π, then cot + cot + cot will be
55. The investments of A and B in a business is in ratio 4 : 2 2 2
5 and the period of their investments is in the ratio 9 : equal to
x y z x y z
8. Their profit will be in the ratio (a) tan × tan × tan (b) cos × cos × cos
(a) 9 : 10 (b) 9 : 8 2 2 2 2 2 2
x y z
(c) 8 : 11 (d) None of these (c) cot × cot × cot (d) None of the above
2 2 2
Sol. (a) Let investments of A and B be 4x, 5x and period of
investment is 9y, 8y, respectively. Sol. (c) Given, x + y + z = π
Then, ratio of profit = 4x × 9 y : 5x × 8 y = 36xy : 40xy x y z
Then, cot + cot + cot = ?
∴ Ratio of the profit = 9 : 10 2 2 2
Taking two terms, we have
56. A new watch was purchased and it was showing cos
x
cos
y
6 O’clock. The purchaser was soon informed that the x y
cot + cot = 2 + 2
hour hand and minute hand had been interchanged 2 2 x y
sin sin
and attached to the wrong axes. This resulted in the 2 2
hour hand to move with a speed, which is twelve  cos x ⋅ sin y + cos y ⋅ sin x 
 
 2 2 2 2
times higher than the minute hand. =
x y
sin ⋅ sin
Hence, the watch was taken to the mechanic for 2 2
repair, at that moment the watch showed the right As, x + y+ z= π ⇒ x + y= π− z
(x + y)
= cos  
time! If the clock started at 6 O’clock in the correct z
So, sin
position, then what was the first moment that the 2 2
watch showed the correct time? z z
5 5 cos cos
z
(a) 6 min past 9 (b) 5 min past 7 LHS = cos = 2 + 2
11 11 2 sin x sin y sin
z
5 2 2 2
(c) 7 min past 7 (d) None of the above  
11
z  1 1 
= cos ⋅  +
2  sin x ⋅ sin y sin z 
Sol. (c) According to the question, the clock shows twelve
times faster time than the original time i.e. in 1 h, this clock
 2 2 2 
will cover 12 h; in 1 min, the clock will cover 12 min; in 5
sin z + sin x ⋅ sin y 
min, the clock will cover 60 min or 1 h etc.
z  2 
Now, look at the following table : = cos ⋅  2 2
2 x y z
sin ⋅ sin ⋅ sin
Original time Clock’s time 2 2 2
sin z + sin x sin y 
6 : 00 : 00 6 : 00 : 00
z  2 
= cot ⋅  2 2 …(i)
7 : 00 : 00 6 : 00 : 00 2 x y
sin sin
(this 6 : 00 is 12 h after the above 6 : 00) 2 2
z x y
7 : 05 : 00 7 : 00 : 00 Now, sin + sin ⋅ sin
2 2 2
7 : 05 : 01 7 : 00 : 12
= cos  +  + sin sin
x y x y
7 : 05 : 02 7 : 00 : 24 2 2 2 2
x y π z
7 : 05 : 05 7 : 01 : 00 As, + = −
2 2 2 2
7 : 05 : 25 7 : 05 : 00 x y x y x y
= cos cos − sin sin + sin ⋅ sin
7 : 05 : 26 7 : 05 : 12 2 2 2 2 2 2
x y
7 : 05 : 27 7 : 05 : 24 = cos cos
2 2
Solved Paper 2014 9
Putting the above value in Eq. (i), we get Sol. (d) Q Viewership of National Geographic, 35° ≡ 70000
z x y
cot cos cos ∴ Viewership of Discovery,
LHS = 2 2 z = cot z ⋅ cot x ⋅ cot y
70000
x
sin ⋅ sin
y 2 2 2 100° ≡ × 100 = 200000
2 2 35
x y z and viewership of History,
= cot ⋅ cot ⋅ cot
2 2 2 70000 × 25
25° ≡ = 50000
35
58. If y2 + 7 ay + 40 = 0 and y2 + 2ay − 60 = 0 have a Hence, required number of people
common root, then the value of a is = 200000 − 50000 = 150000
(a) ± 4 (b) ± 2
(c) ± 5 (d) ± 6 61. If the veiwership of TLC on an average was 55000
Sol. (b) Let b be the common root. per day, then what was the viewership for all the
Then, b 2 + 7 ab + 40 = 0 and b 2 + 2 ab − 60 = 0
channels on an average per day?
(a) 360000 (b) 540000
Also, b + 7 ab + 40 = b + 2 ab − 60
2 2
⇒ 5ab = − 100 ⇒ ab = − 20
±2 Sol. (a) Q Viewership of TLC, 55° ≡ 55000
±4 ∴ Viewership of all the channels 360°
55000
a = × 360 = 360000
±5 55
±6
Hence, only ± 2 satisfy the above. 62. If the viewership of Discovery Kids channel for the
first half of December is half of that of the second
half of December, then what is the ratio of
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-63) These questions are based
on the following pie chart, which shows the viewership of viewership of Discovery Kids for the second half to
different knowledge based channels (in degrees) in the that of TLC for the whole month?
month of December, 2013. There are no overlaps in (a) 8 : 9 (b) 10 : 11
viewership of channels. (c) 9 : 10 (d) None of these
National Sol. (b) Let the viewership of Discovery Kids for the first
TLC Geographic and the second half of December be x and 2x,
55 35 respectively.
Animal Then, x + 2 x ≡ 75°
Planet ⇒ 3x ≡ 75°
70
⇒ x = 25°
History ∴ Viewership of second half of December = 2 x ≡ 50°
25 Discovery Also, viewership of TLC ≡ 55°
Discovery
100 Hence, required ratio = 50° : 55° = 10 : 11
Kids
75 63. By mistake the viewership of Discovery Kids has
been under quoted by 25%. If this mistake is
59. During the given period for how many channels is corrected, then what is the correct share of
the viewership more than 25% of the total viewership of Discovery?
viewership? (a) 45% (b) 41.55%
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 39.15% (d) None of these
(c) 3 (d) None of these Sol. (d) Let the correct share of viewership of Discovery be
Sol. (d) Given, total viewership = 360 x.
∴ 25% of total viewership = 25% of 360° = 90° Then, 75% of x ≡ 75°
Clearly, no channel has the viewership more than 90° 100
∴ x ≡ 75 + 25 = × 100% = 27.77%
more than 25% of the total viewership. 360
60. If 70000 people watched National Geographic on 64. How many three digit positive integers exist that
an average per day in December, 2013, then how when divided by 6 leave a reminder of 4?
many more people watched Discovery than (a) 149 (b) 150 (c) 151 (d) 152
History on an average per day for the same
Sol. (a) The smallest 3-digit positive integer that when
period? divided by 6 leaves a remainder of 4 is 106.
(a) 360000 (b) 36000 The largest 3-digit positive integer that when divided by 7
(c) 270000 (d) None of these leaves a remainder of 4 is 994.
10 Solved Paper 2014
So, the series 106, 112, 18, …, 994. Sol. (d) In the figure, ∆ABC and ∆ADC are equilateral
Q l = a + (n − 1) d triangles, which radius of each circle = 7 3.
⇒ 994 = 106 + (n − 1) 6
⇒ 994 = 106 + 6n − 6
⇒ 994 − 106 = 6n − 6 B
⇒ 888 = 6 (n − 1)
⇒ 148 = n − 1
∴ n = 149
14
√3
65. A person grows sunflowers in his square shaped A
60° 60°
C
farm. One sunflower takes 1 sq ft of area in his farm. 60° 60°
√3
This year he has increased his output by
14
241 sunflowers as compared to last year. The shape
of the farm used for growing the sunflowers has
remained the same, both the years. How many D
sunflowers did he in total produce this year?
(a) 12544 (b) 12996 (c) 14641 (d) 15876
Sol. (c) Let the new side of the farm be x m 3 2
∴ Area of ∆ABC = a
∴ Area = x 2 4
x2 3
∴ Number of flowers = sq ft = x 2 = 14 3 × 14 3
1 4
Old side of the farm be y m [where, a = 14 3
∴ Area of the farm is y2 units]
3×
3 × 98
∴ According to the question, =
x 2 − y2 = 241 2
294 3
⇒ (x − y) (x + y) = 241 × 1 = = 147 3 sq units
2
⇒ x + y = 241
Area of ABCD = 2 × Area of ∆ABC
And x − y=1
= 2 × 147 3
⇒ 2 x = 242
= 294 3 sq units
⇒ x = 121
Area of shaded part
∴ Number of flowers grown = (121)2 = 14641
= Area of ABCD − Area of circle
66. A box contains 11 cards with 1 to 11 consecutive = 294 3 − π (7 3 )2
numbers. If we take 5 cards in random without
= 294 3 − π × 49 × 3
replacement from this box, what is the probability
that the median of the numbers selected is 3? = 294 3 − π 147
π
= 294  3 −  sq units
13 11
(a) (b)
189 128  2
14
(c) (d) None of these 68. Instead of dividing ` 180 among A, B, C in the
231
1 1 1
Sol. (d) ratio : : respectively, it was divided in the
3 4 6
67. In the given figure, if A, B, C, D are centres of the ratio 3 : 4 : 6 by mistake. Who gained in this
circles and the radius of each circle is 7 3 units then transaction?
what is the area of the shaded region? (a) Only A
(b) Only B
B (c) Only C
(d) B and C
1 1 1
A C Sol. (c) Previous ratio = : :
3 4 6
= 4: 3:2 [given]
D
So, the division of money among A, B and C is 80, 60
and 40, respectively.
π π
(a) 74  3 −  (b) 49  3 −  ∴ New ratio = 3 : 4 : 6
 2  2 So, the division of money among A, B and C according
π π
(c) 300  3 −  (d) 294  3 − 
to new ratio is 41.5, 55.38 and 83.07, respectively.
 2  2 Hence, only C has gained.
Solved Paper 2014 11
69. The sum of ages of mother and daughter is 42 yr. 73. If log 2 = 0. 30103 and log 3 = 0.4771, then number of
After three years, the age of mother will be three digits in (10368) 6 will be approximately equal to
times that of the daughter. Then, the mother’s age (a) 15 digits (b) 25 digits
after three years will be (c) 30 digits (d) 40 digits
(a) 28 yr (b) 33 yr
Sol. (b) Let x = (10368)6
(c) 36 yr (d) 38 yr
∴ log x = 6 log 10368
Sol. (c) Let the age of mother = x yr
= 6 log (2 7 × 34 )
and the age of daughter = y yr
= 6 (7 log 2 + 4 log 3)
Now, according to question,
= 6 (7 × 0.30103 + 4 × 0.4771)
x + y = 42 …(i)
= 6 (2.10721 + 1.9084)
and (x + 3) = 3 ( y + 3) …(ii)
= 6 × 4.01561 = 24.09366
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Since, the characteristic of log x is 24. It follows that x is
y = 9 and x = 33 a 25-digits number.
∴ Mother’s age after 3 yr
= 33 + 3 = 36 yr 74. What is the measure of the angle between the
hands of the clock at 8 : 24 pm?
70. Find the missing number in the series
(a) 100° (b) 102°
2, 5, 11, 20, 32, 47, …, 86. (c) 106° (d) 108°
(a) 60 (b) 65
Sol. (d) Required angle = 240 − 24 
11
(c) 58 (d) 62 
2
Sol. (b) The pattern of the series is as follows: = 240 − 132
2 5 11 20 32 47 65 86 = 108°
+3 +6
So, the missing term will be 65.
+9 +12 +15 +18 +21
75. A train after travelling for a certain distance
develops a problem and decreases its speed to half
71. One number in the following series is wrong. Find its original speed and reaches its destination
out the wrong one. 45 min late. Had the problem occurred 30 km
further on, it would have reached its destination
91, 74, 59, 47, 35, 26, 19 15 min earlier? What is the speed of the train?
(a) 47 (b) 35
(a) 30 km/h (b) 90 km/h
(c) 26 (d) 19
(c) 120 km/h (d) 150 km/h
Sol. (a) The pattern of the series is as follows: x y
Sol. (a) Let the speed of train be a km/h and + be the
46 a b
91 74 59 47 35 26 19
time taken in condition I.
–17 –15 –13 –11 –9 –7 Also,
Hence, 47 is wrong term, here 46 is the correct term. x + 30 y – 30
Then, time taken

x + 30 y − 30
= +
72. A player can take a maximum of 4 chances to hit a a b
bottle with a flying disc. The probability of hitting According to the question,
the bottle at the first, second, third and fourth x y 45 x + 30 y − 30 15
+ − = + +
shots are 0.1, 0.2, 0.35 and 0.45, respectively. What a b 60 a b 60
is the probability that the player hits the bottle −30 30
⇒ + =1
with the flying disc? a b
(a) 0.6573 (b) 0.2574 ⇒ 30 (a − b ) = ab [we know that, a = 2 b]
(c) 0.7426 (d) None of these ⇒ 30 b = 2 b × b
Sol. (c) Probability of not hitting the bottle at first shot = ∴ a = 30 km/h
P (I) = 0.9
Not hitting at second shot = P (II) = 0.8
76. A manufacturer sells a good to a wholesale dealer
at a profit of 18%. The wholesaler sells the same to
Not hitting at third shot = P (III) = 0.65
a retailer at a profit of 20%. The retailer in turn,
Not hitting at fourth shot = P (IV) = 0.55
Then, probability of player hits the bottle with the
sells it to the customer for ` 30.09 thereby earning
flying disc profit of 25%. What is the cost of the manufacturer?
= (1 − 0.9 × 0.8 × 0.65 × 0.55) (a) ` 15.30 (b) ` 17
= (1 − 02574
. ) = 0.7426 (c) ` 20 (d) ` 22
Sol. (b) Let the cost of manufacturer be ` x. Also, time taken by pipe P to fill tank A = 10 h
According to the question and time taken by pipe Q to fill tank A = 12 h
118 120 125 According to the question,
x× × × = 30.09
1 1 1
100 100 100 ∴ Total time taken = + −
3009 × 100 × 100 × 100 10 12 20
∴ x= = ` 17
118 × 120 × 125 × 100 6+ 5−3 8
= =
60 60
15
77. If ` 1000 is invested at an interest rate of 5% and = h = 7 h and 30 min
the interest earned is added to the principal every 2
10 yr, then after how many years will the amount
become ` 2000?
79. ABCD is a trapezium and AB is parallel to CD. AB
has a length, which is two times the length of CD. If
20 50
(a) (b) the diagonals of the trapezium intersect at O, then
3 3 the ratio of ∆AOB and ∆COD is
25
(c) (d) None of these (a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
4
Sol. (b) In trapezium ABCD,
Sol. (b) Let P1 = ` 1000, r = 5%, t 1 = 10 yr x
D C
Simple interest after 10 yr,
P × r × t 1 1000 × 5 × 10
SI = 1 = = ` 500
100 100
Amount = P1 + SI A
2x
B
= 1000 + 500 = ` 1500
DC = x , AB = 2 x
Let after t 2 yr, the amount become ` 2000.
Ratio of ∆ AOB : ∆ DOC = (2 x )2 : (x )2 = 4x 2 : x 2 = 4 : 1
∴ SI for t 2 yr = 2000 − 1500 = 500
1500 × 5 × t 2
= 80. The MRP of a chocolate is ` 65. A customer
100
20 purchased the chocolate for ` 56.16. He got two
=
3 successive discounts of which one is 10%. Find the
∴ Total time = t 1 + t 2 = 10 +
20 50
= yr other discount of the scheme that was given by the
3 3 seller.
(a) 3%
78. Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank A in 10 h and 12 h, (b) 4%
respectively. A third pipe R can empty a tank B in (c) 5%
40 h. Tank B is two times in volume compared to (d) None of the above
tank A.If P and Q are kept open to fill tank A, if R is Sol. (b) Let the other discount be of d %.
connected to empty tank A, at the same time such Then, according to the question,
that all the pipes operate simultaneously, how long 100 − 10   100 − d 
will take for the tank A to be fully filled? 65 ×   ×  = 56.16
 100   100 
(a) 6 h 40 min 90  100 − d 
(b) 8 h 30 min ⇒ 65 × ×  = 56.16
100  100 
(c) 7 h 30 min 5616 × 100
(d) None of the above ⇒ 100 − d =
65 × 90
Sol. (c) Time taken by pipe R to empty tank B = 40 h ⇒ 100 − d = 96
Now, volume of tank B = 2 × Volume of tank A ∴ d = 4%
∴ Time taken by pipe R to empty tank A = 20 h
Part C General Awareness

81. What is the full form of RSVP? 86. In the fifth meeting of SAARC Energy Ministers,
(a) Rigorous Session of Voice Protocol which from the following has been the key area of
(b) Repondez S’ilvous Plait discussion?
(c) Repondez Sans Vous Plaint (a) Telecom (b) Environment
(d) Response Sought Vous Plaint (c) Power Grid (d) Education
Sol. (b) RSVP stands for Repondez S’ilvous Plait. In the Sol. (c) The fifth meeting of the South Asian Association
context of social invitations, RSVP is a request for a for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) Energy Ministers was
response from the invited person or people. It is derived held on 16th and 17th October, 2014 in New Delhi, with
from the French phrase which means ‘reply if you an aim of establishing inter-regional Power Grid Project
please’ or ‘reply please’. for enhancing energy cooperation and inter-connectivity
among the eight nations comprising the SAARC.
82. The Callanish Stones, which are considered to be
petrified giants, as per a folklore, who did not 87. Malaysian Airlines Flight MH17 was a scheduled
convert to Christianity are located in which international passenger flight, presumed to have
country? been shot down, crashed on 17th July, 2014 killing
(a) Norway (b) Wales (c) Scotland (d) Ireland all 283 passengers and 15 crew on board was
flying, from
Sol. (c) The Callanish Stones are located in Scotland, near
the village of Callanish on the West coast of Lewis. They (a) Amsterdam to Kuala Lumpur
are an arrangement of standing stones placed in a (b) Kuala Lumpur International Airport to
cruciform pattern with a central stone circle and are Beijing Capital International Airport
considered to be petrified giants, as per a folklore, who (c) Kuala Lumpur to Amsterdam
did not convert to Christianity. (d) Beijing Capital International Airport to Kuala
Lumpur International Airport
83. Which of the following sites or monuments is not in Sol. (a) Malaysia Airline Flight MH17 was a scheduled
the UNESCO list of World Heritage Sites? international passenger flight from Amsterdam to Kuala
(a) Humayun’s Tomb at Delhi Lumpur that crashed on 17th July, 2014, presumed to
(b) Kaziranga National Park in Asom have been shot down, killing all 283 passengers and 15
(c) Tirupati Temple crew on board.
(d) Agra Fort
88. Ukraine has been in news recently on account of
Sol. (c) Tirumala Venkateswara Temple located near conflict with Russia. The name of the Ukrainian
Tirupati in Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh, is a
President is
famous Vedic temple in the hill town of Tirumala. It is
not in the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites. (a) Petro Poroshenko (b) Viktor Yushebenko
(c) Yulia Timoshenko (d) None of the above
84. Mr. Ramon Magsaysay, in whose name the Sol. (a) Presidential elections were held in Ukraine on 25th
prestigious Magsaysay Award is given, belonged to May, 2014, resulting in Petro Poroshenko being elected
(a) Malaysia (b) Thailand President of Ukrain.
(c) Philippines (d) Indonesia
Sol. (c) Ramon del Fierro Magsaysay simply known as
89. Oldest brand of the Tata Group is
Mr Magsaysay was the seventh President of the (a) the Taj Palace and Tower
Republic of the Philippines, serving from December 30, (b) Ginger
1953 until his death in a aircraft disaster in 1957. The (c) Taj Cape Town
Magsaysay award was established in April 1957. (d) Quilon
Sol. (a) The Taj Mahal Palace and Tower, built in 1903, is
85. Indian musician noted for his exemplary skills at the oldest brand of the Tata Group.
playing mandolin who died in 2014.
(a) Uppalapu Srinivas (b) Amjad Ali Khan 90. ‘Gold fixing’ refers to setting the price of gold.
(c) Zarin Daruwalla (d) Ustad Usman Khan Where is the value of gold set?
Sol. (a) Uppalapu Srinivas was an Indian mandolin (a) New York (b) London
maestro belonging to the classical carnatic musical (c) Tokyo (d) Singapore
tradition of Southern India. He passed away on Sol. (b) The Gold Fixing (or London Gold Fix) is the setting
19th September, 2014. Srinivas pioneered the of the price of gold by the members of the London Gold
introduction of the mandolin, a Western instrument, into Market Fixing Limited. The Gold Fixing also provides a
classical carnatic music. published benchmark price that is widely used as a
pricing medium by producers, consumers, investors and
central banks.
91. Which of the following nations has declared 96. Auto didacticism is a form of education where
issuance of digital currency? (a) one automatically learns from experience of
(a) Ecuador peers
(b) Estonia (b) a set of logical deductions are taught by the
(c) United States of America teacher
(d) United Kingdom (c) one teaches oneself about a subject
Sol. (a) Ecuador is the first country to create the world’s (d) one learns automatically from elders
first digital currency issued by the country’s central Sol. (c) Auto didacticism or self-education is the act of
bank, in an attempt to abandon the dependence on the teaching oneself about a subject or subjects in which
US dollar. The new currency is expected to co-exist with one has had little to no formal education. Many
the US dollar in Ecuador’s economy. autodidacts seek instruction and guidance from experts,
friends, teachers, parents, siblings and community.
92. What is the significance of EPS in the stock market
parlance? 97. The author of the book ‘An Inquiry into the Nature
(a) Equilibrium of Private Securities and Causes of the Wealth of Nations’ is
(b) Earning Per Share (a) Adam Smith
(c) Elongated Period of Settlement (b) Karl Marx
(d) Equity Per Share (c) Amartya Sen
Sol. (b) The term Earnings Per Share (EPS) represents the (d) Alfred Marshall
portion of a company’s earnings, net of taxes and Sol. (a) ‘An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the
preferred stock dividends. Wealth of Nations’, generally referred to by its shortened
title ‘The Wealth of Nations’, by Adam Smith. It was first
93. Which committee was appointed by RBI to provide published in 1776.
recommendations on financial services for small
businesses and low income households in the year 98. The universities of Bombay, Madras and Calcutta
2013? were set-up in the same year. Which was the year?
(a) Nachiket Mor Committee (a) 1818 (b) 1857
(b) Bimal Jalan Committee (c) 1947 (d) 1860
(c) Tarapore Committee Sol. (b) The universities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
(d) Damodaran Committee were established in 1857. Lord Canning was Governor
Sol. (a) Dr Nachiket Mor Committee was appointed by the General at the time of establishment of these
RBI to provide recommendations on comprehensive universities. These were the first three universities
financial services for small businesses and low income established by the British in the country.
households in year 2013.
99. ‘Shaurya-Dridata-Karmanishtha’ is the motto of
94. Dadabhai Naoroji, in his book ‘Poverty and (a) Border Security Force
Un-British Rule in India’ in 1867 explained about (b) Indian Coast Guard
(a) Brain Drain Theory (c) Indo-Tibetan Border Police
(b) Economic Drain Theory (d) National Security Guard
(c) Wants and Means of India Sol. (c) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) is one of the
(d) Benefits of British Rule eight Central Armed Police Forces of India. The motto of
Sol. (b) Economic Drain Theory during the British colonial ITBP is Shauray-Dridata-Karmanishtha.
rule in India is the subject matter of Dadabhai Naoroji’s
book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’ published in 100. The following is the logo of
1867. He found out that there was always a positive
balance of trade for India, the surplus being
appropriated by the British for their own benefit.
95. He is a famous playwright, socialist and one of the (a) Cannes International Film Festival
co-founders of London School of Economics, name (b) Berlin International Film Festival
the person. (c) London Film Festival
(a) Beatrice Webb (b) George Bernard Shaw (d) Amnesty International Film Festival
(c) Arnold Bennett (d) Richard Brome Sol. (a) The logo is related to Cannes International Film
Sol. (b) George Bernard Shaw was an Irish playwright, Festival, one of the most prestigious and published film
socialist and a co-founder of the London School of festivals of the world. It was founded in 1946. The
Economics (1895). He was also an essayist, novelist festival is an annual film festival held in Cannes, France.
and short story writer.
101. The Giant Panda, world’s most threatened species, is 106. Comiket, the world’s largest comic festival, is
a symbol of held in which country?
(a) IFAW (b) WWF (c) CEE (d) UNEP (a) Japan (b) France
Sol. (b) The Giant Panda has been the WWF’s logo since (c) Korea (d) Germany
the organisation was formed. The World Wide Fund for Sol. (a) Comiket, otherwise known as the Comic Market,
Nature (WWF) is an international non-governmental is the world’s largest comic festival, held twice a year
organisation founded on April 29, 1961. It is working on in Tokyo, Japan. The first Comiket was held on 21st
issues regarding the conservation, research and December, 1975, with only about 32 participating
restoration of the environment. circles and an estimated 600 attendees.
102. Acid rain is caused mainly due to the emissions of 107. In ………, Infosys was listed in NASDAQ and in
(a) calcium oxide and sulphur dioxide ………, Infosys became a part of NASDAQ 100.
(b) nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide (a) 1998; 2009 (b) 1997; 2008
(c) sodium oxide and nitrogen oxide (c) 1999; 2006 (d) None of these
(d) calcium oxide and carbon dioxide Sol. (c) In 1999, Infosys generated revenues of $100
Sol. (b) Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction that million and was listed in NASDAQ. Later in the year
begins when compounds like sulphur dioxide and nitrogen 2006, the company became part of NASDAQ-100, it
oxides are released into the air. These substances can rise was first Indian and only the company to be part of
very high into the atmosphere, where they mix and react any of the major global indices.
with water, oxygen and other chemicals to form more
acidic pollutants, known as acid rain. 108. The Indian team finished with 8th position in the
recent Asian Games 2014 held at South Korea
103. Which of the given rivers does not flow into river with a total ……… tally of medals.
Ganga? (a) 57 (b) 37
(a) Brahmaputra (b) Gomti (c) 56 (d) 58
(c) Gandak (d) Tapti Sol. (a) India ended the 17th Asian Games 2014 with a
Sol. (d) Brahmaputra, Gomti and Gandak all are East flowing total of 57 medals, including 11 gold, 9 silver, and 37
rivers and flow into river Ganga at different point. Whereas bronze, which is 8 less than the 65 medals (14 gold, 17
Tapti flows Westward and emptying into the Gulf of Cambay silver and 34 bronze). India won at the Guangzhou
of the Arabian Sea, in the Surat district of Gujarat. Games four years ago.
104. The international agreement for control of Green 109. A full Moon occurs once every
House Gas (GHG) emissions is named (a) 14 days (b) 30 days
(a) Adelaide Agreement (c) 21 days (d) 15 days
(b) Kyoto Protocol Sol. (b) A full moon is the lunar phase that occurs when
(c) Manila Convention the moon is completely illuminated as seen from the
(d) Kuala Lumpur Treaty Earth. A full moon occurs once every 30 days (29.53
Sol. (b) The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement days).
setting targets for industrialised nations to cut their Green
House Gas (GHG) emissions. The protocol was agreed to 110. The river Danube empties in the
in 1997 in Kyoto in Japan, based on principles set out by (a) Dead sea (b) Mediterranean sea
UNFCCC. (c) Black sea (d) Red sea
Sol. (c) Stretching over 2000 mills and flowing through
105. The International Standard which checks the
ten countries, the Danube is the longest river in the
compliance of the environmental practices of an European Union. Starting in the German Black Forest,
organisation against the best practices followed in it empties into the Black Sea.
the industry is
(a) ISO 9001 111. Cartography is the study of
(b) TS 16949 (a) cartilages and bones (b) cartoons
(c) ISO 14001 (c) maps (d) carrots
(d) ISO 9002
Sol. (c) Cartography, the art and science of graphically
Sol. (c) ISO 14001 International Standard checks the representing a geographical area, usually on a flat
compliance of the environmental practices of an surface such as a map or chart; it may involve the
organisation. The major objective of ISO 14001 series is to superimposition of political, cultural or other
promote effective and efficient environment management in non-geographical divisions onto the representation of
an organisation. a geographical area.
112. Regional Rural Banks are jointly owned by 116. ‘Bachpan Bachao Andolan’ was initiated by
(a) Central Government, a Commercial Bank (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Kailash Satyarthi
and Central bank of a country (c) Malala Yousafzai (d) Benazir Bhutto
(b) Central Government, a Commercial Bank Sol. (b) Kailash Satyarthi is an Indian Children’s rights
and a State Government advocate and an activist againsts child labour. He
(c) Central Government, Central Bank and a founded the Bachpan Bachao Andolan in 1980, and has
State Government acted to protect the rights of more than 83000 children
(d) a Commercial Bank, Central Bank of a from 144 countries.
country and a State Government
Sol. (d) Regional Rural Banks are local level banking 117. Dr Ram Manohar Lohia, the great freedom fighter
organisations operating in different states of India. They and thinker, established a political party named
have been created with a view to serve primarily the (a) Samajwadi Party
rural areas of India with basic banking and financial (b) Samyukta Socialist Party
services. It is jointly owned by a Commercial Bank,
(c) Janata Party
Central Bank of a country and a State Government.
(d) Praja Socialist Party
113. The famous Meenakshi Temple in Madurai was Sol. (d) The Praja Socialist Party was an Indian political party
built by ……… and beautified by the .......... . in existence from 1952 to 1972. Lohia was a socialist and
(a) Vakatakas, Nayaks wanted to unite all the socialists in the world to form a
potent platform. He was the founder of ‘Praja Socialist
(b) Chalukyas, Cholas
Party.
(c) Satavahanas, Cholas
(d) Pandyas, Nayaks
118. The Nobel Prize in Physics 2014 was awarded jointly
Sol. (d) The famous Meenakshi Temple in Madurai was to three scientists “for the invention of efficient blue
built by Pandyas and later on beautified by the Nayaks. light-emitting diodes which has enabled bright and
Meenakshi Amman Temple also known as Meenakshi
energy-saving white light sources”. Who among the
Sundareswarar Temple is located in the city of Madurai
on the Southern bank of river Vaigai. given four names was not in the team?
(a) Isamu Akasaki (b) Hiroshi Amano
114. Which of the given statements is not correct as (c) Shuji Nakamura (d) Takada Ekimano
per Indian Constitution? Sol. (d) The Royal Swedish Acdemy of Sciences had
(a) There can be a single person as the decided to award the Nobel Prize in Physics for 2014 to
Governor for two or more states Isamu Akasaki (Nagoya University, Japan), Hiroshi Amano
(b) Governor is the constitutional or nominal (Nagoya University, Japan and Shuji Nakamura (University
head of the State Executive and is bound by of California, USA).
the advice of the State Council of Ministers
(c) All executive actions of the state shall be 119. Chandrashekhar Venkat (CV) Raman was awarded
expressed to be taken in the name of the the Nobel Prize for investigation into ‘Raman Effect’,
Chief Minister a phenomenon that deals with
(d) The President of India consults the
Governor on appointment of the High Court (a) change in the speed of light as it passes
judges through a transparent medium
(b) change in the atomic structure of the medium
Sol. (c) As per the Article166 of Indian Constitution, all impacted by light
executive action of the government of a state shall be
(c) change in the wavelength of the light as it
expressed to be taken in the name of the Governor.
passes through a transparent medium
(d) change of light in liquid crystals alone
115. Kwan Yin has a special place in Buddhist
tradition and is known Sol. (c) Raman Effect, change in the wavelength of light that
occurs when a light beam is deflected by molecules as it
(a) to represent healing nature
passes through a transparent medium.
(b) to bring in good luck charm
(c) as a Goddess of compassion
(d) as related to higher psychological- scientific
120. ‘Working towards a world free of poverty’ is a motto
of one of these international organisations.
teachings from Buddha
(a) UNESCO (b) UNICEF
Sol. (c) One of the deities most frequently seen on altars (c) World Bank (d) UNCTAD
in China’s temple is Quan Yin, in sanskrit, her name is
‘Padma-pani’. Quan Yin, along among buddhist Gods, Sol. (c) ‘Working towards a world free of poverty’ is a motto
is loved rather than feared. Regarded by the Chinese of World Bank. The World Bank is a United Nations
as the Goddess of compassion and mercy. international financial institution that provides loans to
developing countries for capital programmes.
Part D Analytical & Logical Reasoning

121. Vertex : Pyramid : ? (a) Now-a-days nobody is good
(b) Now-a-days everybody is corrupt and criminal
(a) Strand : Hair (b) Rung : Ladder
(c) Value based education can save the society
(c) Summit : Mountain (d) Frame : Picture
from crime and corruption
Sol. (c) Vertex is a highest point of pyramid. Similarly, (d) It is not possible to fight against corruption
summit is the highest point of mountain. as everybody is corrupt
Sol. (c) By reading the paragraph, we can clearly
122. Piety : Pilgrim : Curiosity : ?
conclude that value based education can save the
(a) Explorer (b) Pinchpenny society. So, option (c) is best choice.
(c) Gamester (d) Monk
Sol. (a) Piety reflects the religiosity, which is the main 125. If X + Y means ‘X is the mother of Y’; X − Y means
quality of Pilgrim. Similarly, Curiosity demands Explorer. ‘X is the brother of Y’; X % Y means ‘X is the father
of Y’ and X × Y means ‘X is the sister of Y’, then
Directions (Q. Nos. 123-124) Read the paragraphs which of the following shows that P is the maternal
carefully and determine the main point the author is uncle of Q?
trying to make. What conclusion can be drawn from the (a) Q − N + M × P (b) P + S × N − Q
argument? Each paragraph is followed by four statements. (c) P − M + N × Q (d) Q − S % P
One statement supports the author’s argument better than Sol. (c) Let consider option (c), P − M + N × Q
the others do.
From the given information
123. Now-a-days, people are so busy in their work that P − M ⇒ ‘P is the brother of M’.
M + N ⇒ ‘M is the mother of N’.
they do not take care of their health. A lot of
N × Q ⇒ ‘N is the sister of Q’.
diseases like diabetes, arthritis, heart attack,
Therefore,
blood pressure are increasing due to unhealthy + – –
P – M + N × Q
lifestyle. People do not find time to exercise. Stress
is continuously increasing. The fast food is quick, Brother Mother Sister
easy and tastes better, but it is not healthy. Habits So, ‘P is the maternal uncle of Q’.
like smoking and drinking alcohol have many side
effects. Polluted city environment has also 126. In the following question, three statements
negative impact on the health of citizens. To live numbered I, II and III and four conclusions are
happy and healthy life; it is important to take care given. Select the correct answer from the options
of oneself. given.
(a) Now-a-days everybody smokes and drinks Statements
(b) Diseases are increasing only because of I. Some newspapers are ACs.
pollution
II. Some ACs are trees.
(c) People are happy and stress free because
their life is too busy III. All books are ACs.
(d) Current city environment, life style and Conclusions
habits are affecting health of citizens 1. Some books are newspapers.
Sol. (d) The conclusion that can be drawn from the 2. All books are trees.
paragraph most appropriately and correct is option (d). 3. All trees are books.
4. Some books are not newspapers.
124. Diwali is a festival of lights; which signifies that
good will always be better than evil. In the present (a) Only 1 follows
day, many people have developed a lot of negativity (b) 1 or 3 follows
in their minds and hearts, which has led to high (c) Either 1 or 4 follows
corruption and higher crime rates. Value based (d) 2 and 3 follow
education is the need of the day to eliminate Sol. (c) ACs
darkness of cruelty, selfishness and greed and News-
papers Books Tree
bring the light of wisdom, peace, kindness,
truthfulness, right attitude, hard work and
cooperation. Mahatma Gandhi also said that we
should eradicate sins from hearts not the sinners. Conclusion 1 do not follow. Conclusion 4 also do not
follow, but these two conclusions forms a complementary
If a society has people with good heart, it will
pair. Therefore, either 1 or 4 follows.
definitely flourish.
Directions (Q. Nos. 127-128) A statement is given German language to English and none of them does
followed by several assumptions. An assumption is the vice-versa, unless so stated. A5 and A6 sit adjacent
something assumed or taken for granted. Read the to each other. Similarly, G1 sits opposite to G4; G6 sits
statement carefully and decide which of the assumptions opposite to G3 and G5 sits to the right of G6. G2 and
are implicit in the statement. G4 sit adjacent to G3. On the table, any person can
talk to another person, only as stated below. The only
127. Statement “I think that she has gone mad. Last conversations that took place are as given below :
night I saw her barking like a dog.”– A tells B about
A1 spoke to A2; A2 to G6; G6 to A3; G6 to G5; G5 to
Madhu.
G4; G4 to G3; G3 to G2; G2 to G1; A3 to A4; A4 to A5;
Assumptions A6 to A1; G1 to G6 and A5 to A6.
I. Madhu is a friend of A. The conversations are one-sided i.e. A1 spoke to A2
II. B knows Madhu. implies that A1 is the speaker and A2 is the listener
III. Some people do not bark like dogs. and not vice-versa.
(a) I and II are implicit 130. If the person to the right of A1 wants to send a
(b) II and III are implicit
message to the person sitting to the left of G2, then
(c) I and III are implicit
the message has to pass through how many
(d) All are implicit
persons? (excluding the first and the last)
Sol. (a) From the given Statement, it is clear that Madhu is (a) 7 (b) 5
a friend of A, because A tells B about Madhu. So, it is
clear that B knows Madhu.
Therefore, Statements I and II are implicit. 131. If A3 wants to send a message to G1, then how
many person must the message pass through?
128. Statement “The Prime Minister is expected to (excluding the first and the last)
announce an expansion in his Ministry shortly.”–
(a) 6 (b) 4
A newspaper report.
Assumptions
I. The newspaper has quoted authentic
132. If the person sitting to the right of A2 wants to send
a message to the person sitting two places to the
sources.
left of A4, then what is the minimum number of
II. The newspaper has reliable sources for the
people involved between them? (excluding the two
news.
people)
III. The Prime Minister has the power to
(a) 6 (b) 10
expand his cabinet.
(a) I and II are implicit
(b) II and III are implicit 133. If every person is allowed to speak to the person
(c) I and III are implicit who sits opposite to him directly, then what is the
(d) All are implicit least number of person involved in passing a
Sol. (b) The newspaper has not quoted authentic sources, message from A3 to G1? (excluding the two people)
so I is not implicit; but II and III are implicit. (a) 3 (b) 6
129. How many times in a day, do the hands of a clock
coincide with each other? 134. If the order of conveying messages is reversed at
(a) 12 (b) 24 both the tables i.e. ‘A1 speaks to A2’ (now becomes
(c) 22 (d) 44 ‘A2 speaks to A1’ and so on) and also A2 and A3
exchange their interpreting skills, then which of
Sol. (c) The hands coincide 11 times in every 12 hours.
the following must be true?
So, in a day, the hands coincide 22 times.
(a) A1 can send a message to G5 involving only 2
persons
Directions (Q. Nos. 130-134) These questions are (b) The person sitting to the right of A6 can send
based on the data given below. a message to the person sitting to the left of
There are two circular tables in a room. Six G2, by involving only five persons
Americans–A1, A2, A3, A4, A5 and A6 are sitting at (c) The person sitting to the right of A3, on the
one table and six Germans–G1, G2, G3, G4, G5 and G6 same table, can translate English to German
are sitting at the other table. A1 and A4 are sitting language
opposite to each other. A2 and A5 are also sitting (d) The maximum number of persons involved in
opposite to each other. A3 sits to the right of A4. A2 is the longest message in this new arrangement
the only person who can translate English to German is more than that in the previous arrangement
language; A3 is the only person who can translate
Solutions (Q. Nos. 130-134) The sitting arrangement and

pattern of conversation is as follow: 136. Who is exactly in the middle?
(a) A (b) F
A1 G1
A6 G6 (c) E (d) None of these
A2 G2
Solutions (Q. Nos. 135-136) Standing pattern in a straight line

A5 A3 G5 G3 is as follows :
A4 G4
G D A F E C B
130. (b) A 6 is the person to the right of A1 and G 3 is the
135. (a)
person sitting to the left of G 2 . So, route of send a
message from A 6 to G 3 is as : 136. (b)
Exclude Exclude
A6 A1 A2 G6 G5 G4 G3
137. Look carefully at the sequence of letters and
symbols to find the pattern. Select correct pattern.
After excluding the first and last person i.e. A 6 and G 3 , N2 WF LT 3G JQH4 … FK 6 J
the message has to pass through 5 persons.
(a) H 5 NI (b) H 5 SI
131. (c) Route of send a message from A 3 to G1 is as : (c) HR 2 I 3 (d) H 5 NJ
Exclude Sol. (a) The pattern is as follows
A3 A4 A5 A6 A1 A2 G6 +1 +1 +1 +1
N2WF LT3G JQH4 H5NI FK6J

G1 G2 G3 G4 G5
Exclude –2 –2 –2 –2
–3 –3 –3 –3
After excluding the first and last person, the message
pass through 10 persons.
132. (b) A1 is the person sitting to the right of A 2 and A 6 is Directions (Q. Nos. 138-141) Answer the questions
the person sitting two places to the left of A 4 . based on the details given in the paragraph.
So, the route of send a message from A1 to A 6 is as : There were 200 students who gave a competitive exam.
A1 A2 G6 G5 G4 G3 G2 The exam had three sections English, Mathematics
and General Knowledge (GK). Ten students could not
A6 A5 A4 A3 G6 G1 pass in any of the subjects. Number of students passed
in English was 125, Mathematics was 95 and General
As G 6 comes two times, but we count only once. Knowledge was 95. 55 students passed in English and
According to question, after excluding the two people,
Mathematics. 45 students passed in GK and
there are 10 minimum persons.
Mathematics and 60 students passed in GK and
133. (d) According to the question, A 3 direct speak to A 6 .
English. 20 students passed in English and
Now, the route of passing a message from A 3 to G1 is Mathematics but failed in GK.
as :
A3 A6 A1 A2 G6 G5 G4 138. How many students passed in GK and
Mathematics, but failed in English?
G1 G2 G3 (a) 30 (b) 60 (c) 45 (d) 10
After excluding the two people, there are 8 persons 139. How many students passed in English and GK, but
involved in passing a message from A 3 to G1. failed in Mathematics?
134. (c) A 2 sitting to the right of A 3 and from the question it (a) 60 (b) 25 (c) 20 (d) 35
is clear that, A 2 is the only person who can translate
English to German language. 140. How many students passed only in Mathematics?
(a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 35
Directions (Q. Nos. 135-136) Read the following 141. How many students passed in all three subjects?
information carefully and answer the questions that follow
(a) 25 (b) 35 (c) 15 (d) 20
There are 3 females A, B and E and 4 males C, D, F
and G standing in a straight line. No two females are Solutions (Q. Nos. 138-141)
together. B is to right of C, F and D are not together as Given, P (E ) = 125, P (M ) = 95, P (G ) = 95, P (E ∩ M ) = 55,
A is placed between them. G is not near B or E but E P (G ∩ M ) = 45 and P (G ∩ E ) = 35
and F are together. D is not to the right of B.
P(E ∪ M ∩ G ) = 200 − 10 = 190
135. Who is in the extreme end? ∴ P (E ∩ M ∩ G ) = P (E ∪ M ∪ G ) − P(E ) − P(M ) − P(G )
+ P(E ∩ M ) + P(G ∩ M ) + P(G ∩ E )
(a) G and B (b) C and F
= 190 − 55 = 35
(c) B and D (d) None of these
M D has nothing to do in Sales or Pharma. Cinema

has not given a chance to B or D nor E is a bank
30 employee. C is not in Sales nor B is in Jewellery.
20 10
35
Which of the following is correct?
E G (a) A-Cinema; B-Sales; C-Jewellery; D-Pharma;
25
E-Bank
(b) A-Cinema; B-Sales; C-Pharma; D-Bank;
138. (c) 139. (b) E-Jewellery
140. (a) 141. (b) (c) A-Cinema; B-Sales; C-Jewellery; D-Bank;
E-Pharma
142. Answer the question based on the details given in (d) A-Cinema; B-Pharma; C-Jewellery; D-Bank;
the paragraph. E-Sales
In a family of six, there are three men A, B and Sol. (d) The given information can be summarised as
C and three women R, S and T. The six persons Friends
are Architect, Lawyer, CA, Professor, Doctor and A B C D E
Jobs
Engineer by profession, but not in the same
order. There are two married couples and two Bank û û û ü û
unmarried persons. C is not R’s husband. The Cinema ü û û û û
Doctor is married to a Lawyer. R’s grandfather is
a Professor. B is neither A’s son, nor he is an Pharma û ü û û û
Architect or a Professor. The Lawyer is T’s Sales û û û û ü
daughter-in-law. C is T’s son and the Engineer’s
Jewellery û û ü û û
father. A is married to the CA.
Which among the following is the correct pair of Hence, option (d) is correct.
married couples?
(a) AS and CR
144. In the following question, a statement or two are
followed by two conclusions.
(b) AC and SR
(c) AT and CS Statement Of all the television sets
(d) AT and RB manufactured in India, the ‘Solar’ brand as the
Sol. (c) The family diagram can be drawn as: largest sale.
A (Professor)
Wife
T (CA) Conclusions
r
I. The volume of sales of all the brands of

the
dfa
Daughter-in-law television sets manufactured in India is

Son
an
known.
Gr
C (Doctor)
Wife
S (Lawyer)
II. The production of no other television set in
India is as large as that of ‘Solar’.
(a) Conclusion I follows
R B (b) Conclusion II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
Hence, the correct pair of married couples are AT and
(d) Either I or II follows
CS.
Sol. (c) As given in statement that, the solar brand has the
143. Five friends A, B, C, D and E have different jobs. largest sale. So, it is clear that the volume of sales of all
They work with either Bank or Cinema or Pharma the brands of television sets manufactured in India is
or Sales or Jewellery. Pick the right job in which known. So, Conclusion I follows, because sale of solar
they are employed if B is neither concerned with brand is largest. So, production of no other television
Bank nor with Sales. E has nothing to do with set in India is as large as that of ‘solar’.
Cinema or Jewellery. C is not in Bank or Cinema. So, Conclusion II follows.
Directions (Q. Nos. 145-148) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Radhika, Neha, Rupa, Mahima, Sayali and Shobha joined six different renowned MBA institutes A, B, C, D, E and F
and opted for six different specialisations in Management—Finance, IT, Operations, HR, Marketing and General
Management. Each of them has a different educational qualification out of BCA, B.Com., CA, BBM, B.Sc. and
B.Tech.
The following information is available about them
(i) Mahima joined institute B and did not take up Marketing or IT and is not a B.Tech.
(ii) The person who joined institute E opted for HR and is not a CA or a B.Sc.
(iii) The person, who is a BCA graduate, joined the institute D and took IT. Whereas, the person, who is
B.Com graduate, took up General Management.
(iv) Shobha is a CA and has taken Finance.
(v) The person, who is a B.Tech. graduate has taken Operations Management and did not join institute A or
C.
(vi) Radhika joined institute F, Rupa is a BCA graduate and Neha took up HR.
145. What is the educational qualification of Mahima 147. The educational qualification of Sayali is
and what is the course she opted for? (a) B.Sc.
(a) B.Sc. and Finance (b) BCA
(b) B.Com. and General Management (c) BBM
(c) BBM and HR (d) CA
148. If Shobha joined the institute C, then the student
146. Which institute did the B.Tech. Graduate join? who joined the institute A opted for
(a) F (a) Finance
(b) D (b) Marketing
(c) A (c) General Marketing
(d) None of the above (d) HR
Solutions (Q. Nos. 145-148)

Management
Operations
Marketing
Finance
General
A B C D E F IT HR BCA B.Com. CA BBM B.Sc. B.Tech.
Radhika û û û û û ü û û ü û û û û û û û û ü
Neha û û û û ü û û û û ü û û û û û ü û û
Rupa û û û ü û û û ü û û û û ü û û û û û
Mahima û ü û û û û û û û û û ü û ü û û û û
Sayali — û — û û û û û û û ü û û û û û ü û
Shobha — û — û û û ü û û û û û û û ü û û û
145. (b) The educational qualification of Mahima is B.Com. and the course is General Management.
146. (a)
147. (a)
148. (b)
Directions (Q. No. 149-150) Read following the information carefully and answer the given questions.
In a village, there used live three types of tribes SIM, LIM and JIM. SIM always tells the truth, JIM always lie and
LIM tell the truth and lie alternating. (They can tell truth and lie in any sequence). Three persons (of different
tribes) from the village gave following statements :
NICE says “RICE is of SIM tribe; I am of JIM tribe”.
MICE says “NICE is of JIM tribe; I am of SIM tribe”.
RICE says “MICE is of JIM tribe; I am of LIM tribe”.
149. Who is telling the truth always? 150. Who is always speaking false?
(a) NICE (a) NICE
(b) MICE (b) RICE
(c) RICE (c) MICE
(d) None of the above (d) None of the above
Solutions (Q. Nos. 149-150) From the given information, it can be concluded
MICE is of SIM tribe, therefore is always true.
NICE is of JIM tribe, therefore is always false
RICE is of LIM tribe, therefore tells truth and lies alternatively.
149. (b) 150. (a)
SNAP
Solved Paper 2013

Section A
(Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency)
For all questions in this section, each correct answer carries 1 mark.
1. Dinesh can do a piece of work in 15 days and 1100 × 3
Q Number of male illiterate = = 33
Harish can do it in 12 days. If Dinesh, Harish and 100
Subodh together can do it in 4 days, in how many ∴ Literate = 1100 − 33 = 1067
days can Subodh alone do this work? Overall literacy rate = 95 %
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 8 Let women literacy rate = x
Ê (c) Dinesh can do a piece of work in 1 day = 1 work Now, according to the question,
15 95 900 × x
⇒ 2000 × = 1067 +
1 100 100
Harish can do a piece of work in 1 day = work
12 ⇒ 20 × 95 = 1067 + 9x
Now, according to the question, ⇒ 9x = 1900 − 1067 ⇒ 9x = 833
Dinesh, Harish and Subodh together can do in 1 day 833
Q x= = 92.55%
1 9
= work
4
1 1 1 1
3. A sum of money is sufficient to pay Ravi’s wages for
So, + + = 18 days or Ajit’s wages for 12 days. The same
15 12 Subodh 4
money is sufficient to pay the wages of both for how
1  1  5 + 4 1
= − 
1 1 1 9
⇒ + = − = − many days?
Subodh 4  12 15  4  60  4 60
(a) 9 days (b) 8.5 days
1 15 − 9 6 1
⇒ = = = work (c) 7.2 days (d) 5.5 days
Subodh 60 60 10
Ê (c) Let Ravi’s wages be ` x.
So, Subodh can alone do this work in 10 days.
Now, Ravi’s wages ` x for 1 work in 18 days.
2. A village has 2000 people, out of which 1100 are 1
male and 900 are female. The overall literacy rate So, Ravi’s wages ` x for 1 day = work
18
is 95%, while only 3% male are not literate. What 1
percentage of the female population is literate? Similarly, Ajit's wages ` x for 1 day = work
12
(a) 92.55% (b) 93.65% Now, taken together Ravi’s and Ajit’s wages ` x for 1 day
(c) 94% (d) None of these 1 1 5
= + = work
Ê (a) In village, total number of people = 2000 18 12 36
Number of males = 1100 Q Ravi’s and Ajit’s wages `x x for 1 work
Number of females = 900 =
36
days = 7.2 days
5
2 SNAP • Solved Paper 2013
4. What is the number to be added to 1/4th of 30% of Now, total number of work = 60
120, so that it is 50% more than 25% of 40? X works for 5 days.
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 4 So, his work = 5 × 4 = 20
Ê (a) Let the number to be added = x Remaining work = 60 − 20 = 40
Now, according to the question, X and Y together work for three days = (4 + 3) × 3 = 21
1 30% × 120 50% × 25% × 40 25 × 40 Again, remaining work = 40 − 21= 19
x+ × = +
4 100 100 × 100 100 X leave work means remaining work is completed by Y.
⇒ x + 9 = 5 + 10 ⇒ x = 15 − 9 19
So, Y can complete remaining work = = 6.3 days
∴ x=6 3
5. 10 yr ago the average age of all 25 teachers of a 7. Find out the value of
school was 45 yr andr 4 yr, ago 1 teacher retired [(2 .093 + 0089
. )2 − (2 .093 − 0089
. )2 ]
from her post at the age of 58. After 1 yr a new .
[(2 .093) (0089
. )]
teacher whose age was 54 yr was recruited from
outside. The present average age of all the (a) 4 (b) 3.79 (c) 4.12 (d) 2.09
teachers is
Ê (a) [(2. 093 + 0.089)2 − (2. 093 − 0.089)2 ]
17 4 18 1
(a) 55 yr (b) 55 yr (c) 54 yr (d) 49 yr [(2. 093)(0.089)]
25 5 25 2
As we know that, a2 − b 2 = (a + b )(a − b )
Ê (c) 10 yr ago, average age of 25 teachers
(2 . 093 + 0.089 − 2 . 093 + 0.089)(2 . 093
(x 1 − 10) + (x 2 − 10) + L + (x 25 − 10)
⇒ = 45 + 0.089 + 2 . 093 − 0.089)
25 =
x 1 + x 2 + L + x 25 250 2 . 093 × 0.089
⇒ − = 45
25 25 (0.089 + 0.089) × (2 . 093 + 2 . 093)
=
x 1 + x 2 + L + x 25 2. 093 × 0.089
⇒ = 45 + 10 = 55
25 2 × (0.089) × 2 × (2.093) 4 × 0.089 × 2. 093
= = =4
According to the question, age of one teacher 2.093 × 0.089 2 . 093 × 0.089
x − 4 = 58 ∴ x = 58 + 4 = 62
8. In a ∆ ABC, the measure of ∠ A is 50° and the
x 1 + L + x 24 + 62
= 55 external bisectors of ∠ B and ∠ C meet at O. The
25
measure of ∠BOC is
x 1 + L + x 24
⇒ = 55 − 2. 58 (a) 140° (b) 40°
24
(c) 105° (d) 65°
x 1 + L + x24
⇒ = 52. 42
24 Ê (d) A
Again, according to the question, new teacher’s age 50°
x − 4 + 1 = 54
B C
∴ x = 57
x 1 + L + x 24 + 57 57
So, = 52 . 42 + ?
25 25
x 1 + L + x 24 + 57 O
⇒ = 547.
25 180 − ∠ABC
Here, ∠CBO = ... (i)
6. X can complete a task in 15 days and Y can 2
complete the same task in 20 days. X started the 180 − ∠ACB
Similarly, ∠BCO = ... (ii)
task alone and after 5 days Y joined X. After 2
working together for 3 days, X had to leave the According to the question,
work. How long did it take for Y to complete the ∠CBO and ∠BCO are angle bisectors of external angles
remaining work? Now, adding Eqs. (i) and (ii)
(a) 4.5 days (b) 5 .3 days 360° − ∠ABC − ∠ACB
∠CBO + ∠BCO = …(iii)
(c) 2.5 days (d) 6.3 days 2
Ê (d) X – 15 4 Here, ABC is triangle in which ∠A = 50°.
60 Bisector of angle B and C meet at O (external bisector).
Y – 20 3 As we know that,
X can do in 15 days and Y can do in 20 days. ∠BAC + ∠ABC + ∠ACB = 180°
LCM of 15 and 20 = 60 days. ∴ ∠ABC + ∠ACB = 180 − ∠A ...(iv)
SNAP • Solved Paper 2013 3
Again, in ∆BOC 21x + 50 y 2

=
∠CBO + ∠BOC + ∠OCB = 180° 49x + 20 y 3
Now, from Eq. (iii), ⇒ 63x + 150 y = 98x + 40 y
360° − ∠ACB − ∠ABC 110 y= 35x
+ ∠BOC = 180°
2 x 110 22
= =
⇒ 360° − (∠ACB + ∠ABC ) + 2 ∠BOC = 360° y 35 7
⇒ ∠ACB + ∠ABC = 2 ∠BOC 11. A truck carrying goods has travelled for 3 days.
Again, from Eq. (iv), The 1st day it travelled for 12h at an average speed
180° − ∠A = 2 ∠BOC of 40 km/h, the 2nd day it travelled for 10 h at an
180 − ∠A ∠A average speed of 50 km/h, the third day it
∴ ∠BOC = = 90 −
2 2 completed 360 km travelling for 8 h. The average
50 speed of the truck (in km/h) for all the three days is
= 90 − = 90 − 25 = 65°
2 (a) 45.22 (b) 49.58 (c) 43.73 (d) 44.66
9. The average salary of all the 60 employees in an Ê (d) 1st day 12 h with average speed = 40 km/h
office isi `12000 per month. If the number of Q 1st day covers total distance = 40 × 12 = 480 km
executives is twice the number of non-executive Similarly, 2nd day covers total distance
employees, then the average salary of all the
= 10 × 50 = 500km
non-executive employees is
Q 3rd day covers total distance = 360 km
(a) ` 9000 (b) ` 8000
Total distance of three days
(c) ` 6000 (d) Cannot be determined Average speed =
Total time in three days
Ê (d) Let the number of employees is 60. 480 + 500 + 360
=
So, average salary of employees 12 + 10 + 8
x 1 + x 2 + x 3 + L + x 60
= 12000 1340 134
12 = = = 44.66 km/h
30 3
Now, according to the question
Number of non-executives = x 12. The HCF of two numbers is 8 and their LCM is 96.
If one of the numbers is 32, then the other is
Number of executives = 2x
(a) 24 (b) 42
So, 20 employees are non-executive and 40 employees
are executive but for finding the average salary of
non-executive employees it must be given the salary of Ê (a) According to the formula,
only one class otherwise it will not be possible to find HCF × LCM = First number × Second number
average salary. Given, HCF = 8 and LCM = 96
10. Two pots A and B contain syrup and water in the One of the numbers = 32
ratio 3 : 7 and 5 : 2, respectively. Find the ratio in ⇒ 8 × 96 = 32 × Second number
which these mixtures could be mixed to get a new 8 × 96
∴Second number = = 24
mixture containing syrup and water in the ratio 32
of 2 : 3.
13. The ratio between present ages of A and B is 3 : 4.
(a) 22 : 7 (b) 4 : 3
The present age of B is 10 yr more than the age of A
(c) 16 : 9 (d) None of these
5 yr ago. Find out the present age of B.
Ê (a) Let them be mixed in ratio x : y. (a) 12 yr (b) 17yr
3x (c) 20 yr (d) None of these
In 1st mixture Syrup =
10
Ê (c) Ratio of present ages of A and B = 3
7x
Water = 4
10
Let present age of A = x
5y
In 2nd mixture Syrup = 5 yr before, A’s age = x − 5
7
2y According to the question,
Water =
7 B ’s present age = x − 5 + 10 = x + 5
3 x
Now, according to the question, Now, =
3x 5 y 7 x 2 y 2 4 x+ 5
+ : + =
10 7 10 7 3 ⇒ 3x + 15 = 4x ⇒ x = 15 yr
21x + 50 y 49x + 20 y 2 ∴Present age of B = 5 + 15 = 20yr
⇒ : =
70 70 3
14. The circumference of the front wheels of a vehicle 70

Ê (c) Number of students selected History = 80 × = 56
is 3.5 m and that of the back wheels is 3.0 m. If the 100
vehicle is moving at a speed of 54 km/h, the Number of students selected Geography
shortest time in which both the wheels will make a = (80 × 45)/ 100 = 36
whole number of turns is Number of students who selected History and
(a) 6.4 s (b) 4 s (c) 2.1 s (d) 1.4 s Geography both = 24
Ê (d) The circumference of front wheels and back wheels Percentage of students who selected History and
are 3.5 m and 3.0 m. 24 × 100
Geography both subjects = = 30 %
35 80
Front wheels = 3.5m = m.
10
30
18. A boy lying on the ground 1000 ft away from a
Back wheels = 3.0 m = m. multistored building, can see the top of the
10
building exactly in line with the top of a 10 ft tall
Now, LCM of front wheels and back wheels
210 flag post. If the flag post is 20 ft away from the boy,
circumference is = = 21m . what is the height of the building?
10
5 (a) 500 ft (b) 600 ft (c) 800 ft (d) 1000 ft
So, Speed = 54 km/ h = 54 × m/sec.
18 Ê (a) B
Distance
Time =
Speed
E
21 m 21 × 18 7
Time = = = =1. 4 sec
m/sec 54 × 5 5
5
54 × 10 ft
16
A θ
15. If p is 81% of q, then what percentage of p is q? D 20 ft
C
(a) 81% (b) 101.9% (c) 112.3% (d) 123.45% 1000 ft
Ê (d) p AB AB
q In ∆ABC, tanθ = = ...(i)
81 100 AC 1000
DE 10 1
∴Percentage of p is q% =
100
× 100 Again, in ∆DEC tanθ = ⇒ tanθ = = ...(ii)
81 DC 20 2
100 × 100 AB 1
= = 123.45% From Eqs. (i) and (ii), =
81 1000 2
∴ AB = 500 ft
16. The length of a rectangular plot is 15m more than
its breadth. If the cost of fencing the plot is ` 2700 19. 21 boys turn out for an NCC parade. Out of these,
at the rate ` 30 per metre, what is the length 19 are wearing NCC caps and 11 are wearing NCC
(in metre) of the plot? shoes. There are no boys without one or the other.
(a) 25 (b) 35 How many boys are wearing the full uniform?
(c) 30 (d) None of these (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 10
Ê (c) A B Ê (c) Total number of boys = 21
Number of boys wearing Wear NCC caps = 19
Number of boys wearing NCC shoes = 11
D C ∴Full uniform boys = ( 19 + 11) − 21= 9
Let the breadth of a rectangular plot be x m. 20. A number is increased by 20% and then is reduced
Length = (x + 15) m by 20%. The number
Perimeter of rectangular plot = 2(l + b ) (a) does not change (b) decreases by 4%
So, 2(x + x + 15) × 30 = 2700 ⇒2(2 x + 15) × 30 = 2700 (c) increases by 4% (d) increases by 8%
⇒ 4x + 30 = 90 ⇒ 4x = 60 ⇒ x = 15m Ê (b) By formula , x + y + x y
So, length of plot = 15 + 15 = 30 m 100
17. In a class, 70% of the students opted for History, Here, x = + 20 and y = − 20
45% of the students opted for Geography and 20% 20 × (− 20)
= + 20 − 20 + = − 4%
opted for neither History nor Geography. What 100
percentage of the class opted for both the subjects? So the number is decreased by 4%.
(a) 35% (a) 25% (c) 30% (d) 20%
21. In a class of 42, there are 22 boys and 20 girls. The Ê (d) A soap’s marked price = ` 30
class teacher has to appoint a girl monitor and a Let the cost price per soap be ` x.
boy monitor. In how many ways can the selection According to the question,
be made? (100 − 15) 120
30 × − 15
. =x×
(a) 22 (b) 420 (c) 42 (d) 440. 100 100
Ê (c) 22 Boys 85 12 17 6
42 ⇒ 30 × − 15
. =x× ⇒ 30 × − 15
. =x×
100 10 20 5
20 Girls 51 6x 6x
22 20 ⇒ − 15. = ⇒ 25.5 − 15
. =
Selection of monitor = C1 + C 1 = 22 + 20 = 42 2 5 5
6x
22. Arvind and Mohan are 20 km apart. If they travel ⇒ 24 =
5
in opposite directions, they meet each other after
half an hour. If they travel in the same direction, ∴ x = 20
they meet after 2 h. If Arvind travels faster than 25. Which one of the following is correct?
Mohan, his speed is (a) log ( m + n ) = log m + log n
(a) 15 km/h (b) 20 km/h (b) log ( m − n ) = log m − log n
(c) 25 km/h (d) 30 km/h (c) log ( m × n ) = log m + log n
Ê (a) (d) log mn = (log m)n
Arvind Mohan
Ê (c) log(m × n) = log m + log n
20 km
26. The sum of two numbers is 15, their product is 30.
Both travel in opposite direction The sum of their reciprocals is
A B 1 1 4
(a) 2 (b) (c) (d)
3 2 15
20 km
Ê (c) Let α and β be the two numbers.
Relative velocity = V1 + V2 1 1
So that, their reciprocals are and .
Here, V1 = 10 α β
x 20 According to the question,
Velocity of B, V1 + V2 = = ⇒ V1 + V2 = 40 …(i)
t 1/ 2 α + β = 15 …(i)
Again, they both travel in same direction and meet each and αβ = 30 ...(ii)
other after 2 h 1 1 α + β 15 1
Then, + = = =
So, V1 − V2 =
20
= 10 …(ii) α β αβ 30 2
2
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii),
27. Three persons Amar, Akbar and Anthony agree to
50
pay their hotel bills in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. Amar
⇒ V1 = = 25 km/h pays the first day’s bill which amounts to ` 26.85.
2
Akbar pays the second day’s bill which amounts to
Now, put the value of V1 in Eq. (i) ` 42.75 and Anthony pays the third day’s bill which
25 + V2 = 40 ⇒ V2 = 40 − 25 = 15 km / h amounts to ` 53. When they settle their accounts,
Arvind's speed = 15 km/h which of the following happens?
23. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} (a) Amar gives ` 3 to Anthony
(b) Akbar gives ` 2 to Amar
How many subsets of A can be formed with just two (c) Amar gives Akbar ` 1.95 and ` 2 to Anthony
elements, one even and one odd? (d) None of the above
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10
Ê (c) Amar : Akbar : Anthony
Ê (c) A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} 3 : 4 : 5
Set of even and odd numbers Total amount paid by these three persons
= (2, 1) (2, 3) (2, 5) (4, 1) (4, 5) (4, 3) (6, 1) (6, 3) (6, 5) = 26. 85 + 42 .75 + 53 = 122 . 6
= Total number of subsets 9. 4
Akbar paid amount = × 122 . 6 = ` 40.86
24. A grocer sells a soap marked ` 30 at 15% discount 12
3
and gives a shampoo sachet costing ` 1.5 free with Amar paid amount = × 122 . 6 = ` 30.65
each soap. He, then makes 20% profit. His cost 12
price per soap is 5
Anthony paid amount = × 122 . 6 = ` 51.08
12
(a) ` 15 (b) ` 16 (c) ` 18 (d) ` 20
So, the option (c) is correct.
28. Inspired by the ‘Golden quadrilateral project’, the ⇒ x2 − 250x + 15000 = 2 x2 −500x
UP Government recently accomplished a diamond ⇒ x2 − 250 x − 15000 = 0
triangular project. Under this project, the State
⇒ x2 − 300x + 50x − 15000 = 0
Government laid down 6 lane roads connecting
three cities Ayodhya, Banaras and Chitrakoot, ⇒ x2 (x − 300) + 50(x − 300) = 0
which are equally separated from each other i.e., in ⇒ (x − 300)(x + 50) = 0
terms of geometry they form an equilateral
⇒ x = 300, x ≠ −50
triangle. Angad and Bajrang start simultaneously
from Ayodhya and Banaras respectively, towards So, distance between Ayodhya and Chitrakoot is 300 km.
Chitrakoot. When Angad covers 100 km, Bajrang x
29. If (1−1/2) (1−1/3) (1−1/4) (1−1/5)...(1−1/40) = ,
covers such a distance that the distance between 40
Angad and Bajrang makes 90° angle with the road then what is the value of x ?
joining Banaras to Chitrakoot. When Bajrang (a) 13 (b) 39 (c) 21 (d) 1
reaches Chitrakoot, Angad is still 150 km away Ê (d)  1 − 1   1 − 1   1 − 1   1 − 1  ....  1 − 1  = x
      
from Chitrakoot.  2 3  4  5   40  40
What is the distance between Ayodhya and 1 2 3 4 5 39 x 1 x
⇒ × × × × ×L× = ⇒ =
Chitrakoot? 2 3 4 5 6 40 40 40 40
(a) 250 km (b) 450 km ∴ x=1
(c) 300 km (d) None of these
30. The smallest number which when divided by 12,
Ê (c) According to the question, 16, 18 gives 7 as remainder in each case, is
Ayodhya (a) 103 (b) 135 (c) 151 (d) 187
Ê (c) 151 is the smallest number which when divided by 12,
60° 16 and 18, gives remainder 7.
Angad 2x − 3 x−9
 b
If  
a
31. =  , then x is equal to
 b  a
30
x–100 (a) − 6 (b) − 2 (c) 12 (d) 4

°
150 Ê (d)  a  2x − 3  b  x − 9
60° 60°   = 
 b  a
Banaras Bajrang Chitrakoot x −x
 1 
As we know that,  
a
2
x – 250x km = 
 b  b / a
x – 150
2x − 3 x−9 2x − 3 −( x − 9)
 1 
⇒   ⇒   =  
a a a
Ayodhya, Banaras and Chitrakoot made equilateral = 
 b  a / b  b  b
triangle and distance between them is equal. Let the
distance be x km. Both having same base, so
(2 x − 3) = − (x − 9) ⇒ 2 x − 3 = − x + 9 ⇒ 3x = 12
Now,
∴ x=4
When Bajrang reaches Chitrakoot, then Angad is 150 km
away from Chitrakoot. 32. The population of vultures in a locality decreases
distance travelled by Bajrang when Angad travells 100km
by a certain rate (compounded annually). If the
100x current population of vultures is 29160 and the
= ratio of the decrease in population for the second
x − 150
year and the third year be 10: 9, then what was the
100x x2 − 250x
Rest distance of Bajrang = x − = population of vultures 3 yr ago?
x − 150 x − 150
(a) 30000 (b) 35000 (c) 40000 (d) 50000
In ∆ DOC
Ê (c) Given Ratios
DC b 1 x2 − 250 x
cos 60° = = ⇒ = ⇒
Decrease in population in 2nd yr 10
=
OC h 2 x − 150
Decrease in population in 3 rd yr 9
(x − 100)
100 10
So, = ⇒ 900 = 1000 − 10 r
1 x2 − 250 x 100 − r 9
⇒ =
2 (x − 150)(x − 100) ⇒ 10r = 1000 − 900 ⇒ 10r = 100
⇒ 2 2
x − 150 x − 100x + 15000 = 2 x − 500 x Q r =10%
2
Area of circle = πr 2 = π 
Now, Formula for 3 yr when compounded annually 4a

decrease  2 π
3
29160 = Present population  1 −
10  16 a2 16 a2 4 a2 28 2
⇒  Put the value of r =
4a
= π = = = a
 100  2π 4π π
4 π2 22
3
29160 = Present population 
90  Area of square = a2
⇒ 
 100 
On comparing, area of square with area of circle, we find
29160 × 100 × 100 × 100
Q Present population = = 40000 The area of circle is greater than the area of square.
90 × 90 × 90
So, 3 yr ago population of vultures was 40000 35. Two taps A and B can fill a cistern in 15 h and 10 h,
respectively. Tap C can empty full cistern in 30 h.
33. Anna sold his car to Boney at a profit of 20% and All the three taps were opened for 2 h, when it was
Boney sold it to Chakori at a profit of 10 %. Chakori remembered that the emptying tap had been left
sold it to a mechanic at a loss of 9.09%. The open, it was then closed. How many more hours
mechanic spent 10% of his purchase price on would it take for the cistern to be filled?
repairs and then sold it at a profit of 8.33% to Anna
(a) 30 min (b) 1.2 h (c) 24 min (d) 35 min
once again.
(a) Anna’s loss is 23% (b) Anna’s loss is 29% Ê (b) A and B fill a cistern in 15 h and 10 h respectively but C
(c) Anna’s gain is 5% (d) Anna’s gain is 4% can empty it in 30 h. So, LCM of A, B and C is 30.
A — 15 +2
+ 20% + 10% − 9. 09%
Ê (a) Anna   → Boney   → Chakori   → +3
− 10% B — 10 30
Mechanic   → Anna (again) –1
+ 8. 33%
C — 30
Suppose, Anna’s cost of his car = 100
120 Now, A, B and C all these three taps are open for
Then, Anna takes profit of 20% = 100 × = 120
100 2 h = (2 + 2 ) + (3 + 3) + (− 1 − 1) = 4 + 6 − 2 = 8L
Boney takes profit of 10% = 120 ×
110
= 132 Remaining to fill up = 30 − 8 = 22 L
100 Now, tap C is closed, then taps A and Bare open to fill the
Chakori takes loss of 9. 09% tap cistern 1 h = 2 + 3 = 5 L
132 × (100 − 9.09) 22
= = 120.0012 Time taken by taps A and B = = 4.4 h
100 5
Now,mechanic spents 10% on car’s maintenance.
36. At Atharva Prakashan every book goes through 3
110
∴Car’s price for mechanic = 120.0012 × = 132. 00132 phases-typing, composing and binding. There are
100 16 typists, 10 composers and 15 binders. A typist
Again, mechanic takes profit of 8.33% can type 8 books in each hour, a composer can
108.33 compose 12 books in each hour and a binder can
= 132. 00132 × = ` 142.9978
100 bind 12 books in each hour. All the people at
Anna’s loss = 142.99 − 120 =22 .99 Atharva Prakashan work for 10 h per day and each
Since, Anna sells the car at `120.50. person is trained to do only one type of job. How
Anna having money from this car is ` 120 many books can be prepared in each day?
= 22. 99 = 23%(loss) (a) 1500 (b) 1200 (c) 1440 (d) 1380
34. A circle and a square have the same perimeter. Ê (b) At Atharva Prakashan
Then, Every employee work for 10 h and each employee is
trained to do one type of job.
(a) the area of the circle is greater
(b) the area of the square is 1/π times that of the circle So, 16 typists type books in 1 h = 16 × 8
(c) the area of the square is greater than that of a 16 typists type books in 10 h = 16 × 8 × 10 = 1280
circle Composer
(d) the areas are equal 10 composers compose books in 1 h = 10 × 12
Ê (a) Suppose a circle having radius = r and square having 10 composers compose books in 10 h = 10 × 12 × 10
sides a. = 1200
From the question, both circle and square have equal Similarly, Binding
perimeter, then 15 binders bind books in 1 h = 15 × 12
4a
2 πr = 4 a ⇒ r = …(i) 15 binders bind books in 10 h = 15 × 12 × 10 = 1800
2π
2 πr πr In one day a book passes through three processes so,
∴ a= = ...(ii) only 1200 books are prepared.
4 2
37. A contractor employed a certain number of 77 100

(a) % (b) %
workers to finish constructing a road in a certain 9 7
scheduled time. Some time later, when a part of (c) 20% (d) None of these
work had been completed, he realised that the 3
m2 × d 2(t + t)
work delayed by three-fourth of the scheduled m1d 1t 1 m2 d 2 t 2 x × dt 4
Ê (d) = ⇒ =
time. So, he at once doubled the number of workers w1 w2 w1 w2
and thus he managed to finish the road on the 3/ 4t
∴Total work increase = × 100 = 75 %
scheduled time. How much work had been t
completed before increasing the number of
workers?
Directions (Q. Nos. 38-40) Read the information carefully to answer the questions that follow.
A train enters into a tunnel AB at A and exits at B. A jackal is sitting at O in another by-pass tunnel AOB, which is connected to AB
at A and B, where OA is perpendicular to OB. A cat is sitting at P inside the tunnel AB making the shortest possible distance
between O and P, such that AO : PB = 30 : 32 . A train before entering into the tunnel AB blows the whistle (or siren) somewhere
before A. On hearing the whistle, if the jackal and the cat run towards A, they would meet with an accident with the train exactly
at A, the entrance to the tunnel. Further, if the jackal moves towards B instead of A (on hearing the whistle) it would again meet
with an accident exactly at B, the exit of the tunnel, with the same train coming from the same direction.
38. What is the ratio of speeds of the jackal and the 38. (a) Speed of jackal
cat? Speed of cat
(a) 4 : 3 (b) 5 : 3 Distance covered by jackal time
=
(c) 1 : 1 (d) None of these Distance covered by cat time
30
39. The ratio of speed of the jackal to the speed of train
30 5
is = t = =
18 18 3
(a) 5 : 1 (b) 3 : 5 t
(c) 1 : 5 (d) None of these
∴Ratio = 5: 3
40. If the tunnels were to be connected from O to P and
the jackal moves from O to A through P, it will 39. (d) Speed of jackal = Po 2 + (18)2 = (30)2
Speed of cat
meet with train at M1. Then, AM1 is
Pr 2 = 900 − 324
(a) 20 km (b) 16 km
(c) 10 km (d) None of these ⇒ Pr 2 = 576
Hint (Q. Nos. 38–40) AB is tunnel, let AP = 10x, then ⇒ Po = 24
A Speed of jackal Distance covered by jackal time
=
x Speed of train Distance covered by train time
p 40
30 km
t 40 1
32 = = =
km 150 + 50 200 5
r
2r
–
t
k
Speed of jackal 1
B ⇒ = = 1: 5
O Speed of train 5
∆APO and ∆POBare similar, then 40. (c) Since, when the train arrives at A, the jackal can move
AO 2 (30)2 30km. So, at the time when train is at A the jackal will
AP = ⇒ x= ⇒ (32 + x) x = 900 cover 6km from P on PA in addition to 24 km at OP.
AB 32 + x
Now, the rest distance at AP is 12 km, this remaining
⇒ 32 x + x2 = 900 ⇒ x2 + 32 x − 900 = 0 distance will be covered by train and jackal accending
−32 ± 1024 − 4 × (−900)
−32 ± 1024 + 3600 to their respective speeds.
∴x = = Here, speeds of jackal to train = 1:5
2 2
5
−32 ± 4624 −32 ± 68 −32 + 68 −32 − 68 So, distance covered by train = 12 × = 10 km. and
= = = and 6
2 2 2 2 1
−100 distance covered by jackal = 12 × = 2 km.
(Q x ≠ , it is negative) 6
2
So, jackal will meet train at M1 whcih is 10km away from A.
= 36/2 = 18
Section B
(General English)
Directions (Q. Nos. 41–44) Choose the correct Direction (Q. No. 46) The sentence given below is
synonym of the word in capital letters from the four jumbled and each part is numbered. You are required to
options given below. arrange it in the most logical and grammatically
41. ENTRENCHED
acceptable sequence.
(a) Filled up (b) Fortified 46. a path/(a) put up a notice/(b) to another/(c) from
(c) Followed by (d) Kept down one place/(d) the public/(e) Halton Borough
Council/(f) about its/(g) plans to move/(h) to tell/(i)
Ê (b) ‘Entrenched’ means ‘to put in a position of strength’.
So, its correct synonym would be ‘fortified’ which also (a) e,b,i ,f ,g,h ,a ,d ,c (b) f,h ,a ,d ,c ,b ,i ,g ,e
means ‘to protect by strength’. (c) e,h ,a ,d ,c ,b ,i ,g ,f (d) f,b ,i ,e ,g ,h ,a ,d ,c
42. RECTITUDE Ê (d) The correct sentence order is

(a) renew (b) resort ‘Subject + Verb + Infinitive + Object + Complement.’
(c) integrity (d) liberate
Ê (c) ‘Rectitude’ means ‘having a strong moral virtue’. So,
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-48) Choose the correct
the correct synonym would be ‘integrity’ which too spelling
means the ‘unity with a moral principle’. 47. Disgraphia is a deficiency in the ability to write,
43. INVIDIOUS spell or put down thoughts on paper. The
(a) unacceptable (b) enticing underlined word is spelled incorrectly. Which of
(c) breathtaking (d) inverted the following is the correct spelling?
(a) Disgrephia (b) Disgruphia
Ê (a) ‘Invidious’ means ‘being hateful’. So, the correct (c) Dysgraphya (d) Dysgraphia
synonym would be ‘unacceptable’ which also means
‘not being loved’. Ê (d) Deficiency in the ability to write, spell or putting on
thoughts is called ‘Dysgraphia‘. So, it is correct
44. AFICIONADO spelling.
(a) affection (b) good friend
(c) tour guide (d) ardent fan 48. PANGERYRIC means ‘to pay tribute to'. The
underlined word is spelt incorrectly. Mark the
Ê (d) ‘Aficionado’ means ‘someone who is deeply devoted correct spelling.
to someone/something.’ Correct synonym, therefore
(a) Panegyric (b) Penagyric
would be ‘ardent fan’ which has similar meaning.
(c) Penagiryc (d) None of these
Direction (Q. No. 45) Choose the correct alternative Ê (a) ‘Paying tribute’ is panegyric. So, it is correct spelling.
for the following sentence.
Directions (Q. Nos. 49-50) Identify two most
45. Despite immense development in almost all the appropriate options from those given below that can
fields, human still cannot control nature and complete the sentence without changing the meaning
……… to do so.
(a) probably not be able 49. I ……… scorpions, they are diabolic.
(b) probably will never able 1. hate 2. scare 3. loath
(c) probably will never be able 4. wary 5. cagey
(d) perhaps be never having ability
(a) 1, 5 (b) 5, 3 (c) 1, 3 (d) 2, 4
Ê (a) Among all the given option, (a) is the most appropriate
Ê (d) Since, scorpions are dangerous, so people are scared
choice.
of them.
50. To fully understand (A) ……… work such as Direction (Q. No. 52) Choose the word nearest in the
George Orwell’s Animal Farm, one must be able meaning to the word underlined.
to differentiate (B) ……… events of the plot
from the abundant extended metaphors.
52. A rapier is a
(a) baton (b) rascal
Blank ‘A’ Blank ‘B’ (c) quick sharp hit (d) long thin light sword
1. an allegorical 4. literal Ê (d) ‘Rapier’ is a long thin light sword.
2. a tragic 5. superficial
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-54) Choose the correct alterna
3. a parabolic 6. figurative
tives for the following idioms.
(a) 2, 4 (b) 1, 4 (c) 3, 4 (d) 1, 5 53. Raise cain
Ê (d) ‘Animal farm’ is an allegorical writing. The (a) re-incarnate (b) cause trouble
characters in it are all superficial, so option (d) (c) bring up (d) look after
gives the right combination.
Ê (b) Idiom ‘raise cain’ means ‘to create or to cause a trouble’.
Look at the sentence: Terrorists must stop raising cains in
Direction (Q. No. 51) Find out the two words that our country.
are nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate
54. Go to seed
the correct combination provided in the four options
(a) harvesting (b) planting
51. 1. Attenuate 2. Repent 3. Make thin 4. Fore (c) become unfit and down (d) financial ruin
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 and 2 Ê (c) Idiom ‘going to seed’ means becoming ‘unfit and run
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 down’. It has a meaning closer to ‘get or become
Ê (a) ‘Attenuate’ means ‘to make something weak‘. On uncaring’.
the other hand, ‘Making thin’ also has similarity with e.g., All his labour and hard work has gone to seed as he
‘weakening’. So, ‘1and 3‘ is the right combination. couldn’t pass the exam.
Directions (Q. Nos. 55-58) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
The next ingredient is a very remarkable one: Good Temper. ‘Love is not easily provoked’. Nothing could be more striking than
to find this here. We are inclined to look upon bad temper as a very harmless weakness. We speak of it as a mere infirmity of
nature, a family failing, a matter of temperament, not a thing to take into very serious account in estimating a man’s character
and yet here, right in the heart of this analysis of love, it finds a place and the Bible again and again returns to condemn it as one
of the most destructive elements in human nature. The peculiarity of ill temper is that it is the vice of the virtuous. It is often
the one blot on an otherwise noble character. You know men who are all but perfect and women who would be entirely perfect
but for an easily ruffled quick-temper or ‘touchy’ disposition. This compatibility of ill temper with high moral character is one of
the strongest and saddest problems of ethics. The truth is there are two great classes of sins—sins of the Body, and sins of
disposition. The prodigal sin may be taken as a type of the first, the Elder Brother of the second. Now, society has no doubt
whatever as to which of these is the worse. Its brand falls, without a challenge, upon the Prodigal. But are we right? We have no
balance to weigh one another’s sins and coarser and finer are but human words; but faults in the higher nature may be less
venial than those in the lower, and to the eye of him who is love, a sin against love may seem a hundred times more base. No
form of vice, not worldliness, not greed of gold, not drunkenness itself does more to un-christianise society than evil temper.
For embittering life, for breaking up communities, for destroying the most sacred relationship, for devastating homes, for
withering up men and women, for taking the bloom off childhood,in short for sheer gratuitous misery-producing power, this
influence stands alone. Jealousy, anger, pride, uncharity, cruelty, self-righteousness, touchiness, doggedness, sullenness-in
varying properties these are the ingredients of all ill temper. Judge, if such sins of disposition are not worse to live in, and for
others to live with than sins of the body. There is really no place in Heaven for a disposition like this. A man with such a mood
could only make Heaven miserable for all the people in it. Excerpts from passages by Henry Drummond.
55. What is the popular notion about bad temper? 56. What does the word ‘venial’ mean?
(a) It is a serious malady (a) forgivable sin or mistake
(b) It is a harmless weakness (b) deer meat
(c) It is a peculiarity (c) wicked
(d) It shows strength of character (d) insect
Ê (b) ‘Bad temper is a harmless weakness’. The answer Ê (a) ‘Venial’ has a similar meaning to that of ‘forgivable sin or
can be inferred better from the 2nd and 3rd lines of mistake’.
the passage. e.g., Murder is not a venial act.
57. The Bible condemns which of the following as Direction (Q. No.63) Which of the following does not
one of the most destructive elements in human denote the underlined word?
nature?
63. The festival of Christmas.
(a) Anger (a) Laziness
(a) Noel (b) Yule (c) Crimbo (d) Halloween
(c) Procrastination (d) Splurging
Ê (d) Christmas is known as Noel, Yule, Crimbo but it is not
Ê (a) Bible condemns ‘anger’ as the most destructive
known as to be ‘Halloween’.
elements in human nature.
58. Find the exact word in the passage which
64. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank with the
correct grammatical usage.
means easily or quickly offended.
(a) Uncharity He has his finger ........... the pulse of the nation.
(b) Self righteousness (a) in (b) below (c) on (d) over
(c) Touchiness
Ê (c) ‘Having a finger on the pulse’ means being aware of the
(d) Pride
recent development.
Ê (c) Passage has the word ‘touchiness’ which means e.g., The manager of the company has a finger on the pulse
easily or quickly offended. of the issues related to its growth and development.
65. Identify the error in the following sentence by
Direction (Q. No. 59) Fill in the blank with the choosing from the given alternatives
correct option.
‘Where do you live’ asked the stranger?
59. ‘If you are morose’ you feel __. (a) an exclamation should be used instead of a question mark
(a) excited (b) sleepy (b) the question mark should be used inside the quotation
(c) peaceful (d) gloomy marks
(c) the question mark should be used outside the
Ê (d) When someone is ‘morose’ he is in a sad, dejected
quotation marks
and gloomy state.
Directions (Q. Nos. 60-61) Name the part of Ê (b) ‘Where do you live?’ asked the stranger. This is the correct
speech of the underlined word in the following way to explain it.
sentences. Directions (Q. Nos. 66-67) In each of the following
60. We scored as many goals as them. questions the part of the sentence which is in capitals and
(a) Conjunction (b) Pronoun has been underlined may have an error. Correct the error.
(c) Adverb (d) Preposition 66. Unless he DOES NOT GIVE UP smoking, we cannot
Ê (b) ‘Them’ is personal pronoun of third person and it is be sure of any improvement in his health.
in objective case. (a) has not given up (b) gives up
e.g., We love them very much. (c) did not give up (d) no improvement
61. There is more evidence yet to be offered. Ê (b) The correct syntax is
[Unless/until + Simple Present + Subject + Verb +
(a) Verb (b) Adverb
Complement]
(c) Preposition (d) None of these
e.g., Unless he comes we have to wait here.
Ê (b) ‘Yet’ is an adverb meaning ‘until now’. Look at the
sentence. We have, gone too far yet a lot has to be 67. A recently carried out meta-analysis of two decades of
covered. published research DOES NOT SUGGEST THAT
SHOULD BE AN ASSOCIATION BETWEEN
Direction (Q. No. 62) Identify a synonym to COFFEE DRINKING AND CORONARY
replace the underlined word(s). AILMENTS.
(a) suggests that there is no association between coffee
62. The baby is in the carrying basket. drinking and coronary ailments
(a) bassinet (b) tub (b) any association between and coronary ailments is not
(c) baby bag (d) preambulator suggested
(c) shows that coffee drinking should not be suggested to
Ê (d) Bassinet — A bed for baby. have an association with coronary ailments
Tub — An object in which one takes bath. (d) suggests the association between coffee drinking and
Baby bag — A bag that a mother has over her back or coronary ailments on a macro level
front in which she carries her baby. Ê (a) Sentence that has ‘does not’ in a negative sense is a
Preambulator — It is the carriage basket in which confusing one when there is a complex sentence.
baby is taken forward. It has wheels. Moreover use of ‘should’ is also inappropriate.
68. In the following sentences, the order of the A. Fruits from Madhavs’ garden were stolen.
sentences has been jumbled up. Make the best B. Fruit’s are sold here.
choice to find out the correct sequence so as to form C. All the students of the students’ council agreed to
a meaningful paragraph. raise funds.
A. The following represents a condensed statement of D. The dress’s texture was coarse.
what we think we now know about the (a) A and B (b) A and C (c) Only C (d) B and D
relationship between education and employment
Ê (c) Madhavs’ → Error of apostrophe.
B. Although the linkages between education and
employment are complex and in the past, often Fruit’s → It should be ‘fruits.’
analysed with simplistic notions of casualty, Dress’s → No ‘s’ is needed.
recent research results have yielded new insights So, only option (c) is correct.
about the nature of these linkages.
C. In the interests of brevity, the argument is put 70. Choose the odd word out.
forward as a series of major propositions and (a) Esoteric (b) Exigent (c) Occult (d) Mystical
derivatives strategies relating to the education Ê (b) Exigent is the odd word. Esoteric, occult, mystical all
employment nexus. have similar meaning in the question as ‘mysterious’
D. Intensive research efforts are currently being but ‘exigent‘ means ‘urgent.
supported through the developing world both by
national governments and international donor 71. Choose the word or phrase that best completes the
agencies in the hope of improving, understanding sentence.
of the nature and causes of rising unemployment. The rebels sought to overcome the ……… strength
E. The massive problems of widespread and chronic of the police forces by engaging in ……… tactics.
unemployment and underemployment in less
(a) lack of ……… diversionary
developed nations will remain among the most
(b) augmented ……… peaceful
serious challenges to the development policy
(c) preponderant ……… guerilla
during the next several decades.
(d) power ……… foolish
(a) ACBDE (b) BACDE (c) CABDE (d) DBEAC
Ê (c) ‘Preponderant’ means ‘dominating’. The ‘guerilla
Ê (a) ACBDE is the correct order. tactics’ reflects the idea of a warfare where fight takes
69. Given below are four sentences, each of which may the unconventional way. Here, rebels (the opponents)
or may not have an error. Following them are four have demanded to overcome the preponderant
(dominant) strength that police have by the (guerilla)
options. Select the option indicating the error free
tactics.
statement (s).
Directions (Q. Nos. 72–74) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
My new mistress proved to be all she appeared when I first met her at the door, a woman of the kindest heart and feelings. She
had never had a slave under her control previously and prior to her marriage she had been dependent upon her own industry for
a living. She was by trade a weaver and by constant application to her business, she had been in a good degree preserved from
the lighting and dehumanising effects of slavery. I was utterly astonished at her goodness. I scarcely knew how to behave
towards her. My early instruction was all out of place. The crouching servility, usually so acceptable a quality in a slave, did not
answer when manifested toward her. Her favor was not gained by it; she seemed to be disturbed by it. She did not deem it to be
impudent or unmannerly for a slave to look in the face. The meanest slave was put fully at ease in her presence and none left
without feeling better for having seen her. But alas! This kind heart had but a short time to remain such. The fatal poison of
irresponsible power was already in her hands and soon commenced its internal work.
Very soon I went to live with Mr and Mrs Auld; she very kindly commenced to teach me the A, B, C. After I had learnt this, she
assisted me in learning to spell words of three and four letters. Just at this point of my progress, Mr Auld found out what was
going on and at once forbade Mrs. Auld to instruct me further, telling her that it was unlawful, as well as unsafe, to teach a slave
to read. Further he said, ‘If you give a slave an inch, he will take a mile. A slave should know nothing but to obey his master-to do
as he is told to do. Learning would spoil the best slave in this world ‘Now,’ said he ‘‘If you teach that boy (speaking of myself) how
to read, there would be no keeping him. It would forever unfit him to be a slave. He would at once become unmanageable, and of
no value to his master. As to him, it could do him no good but a great deal of harm. It would make him discontented and unhappy.
‘These words sank deep into my heart, stirred up sentiments within that lay slumbering and called into existence an entirely
new train of thought. I now understood what had been to me a most perplexing difficulty-the white man’s power to enslave the
black man. From that moment, I understood that pathway from slavery to freedom. Though conscious of the difficulty of
learning without a teacher, I set out with high hope, and a fixed purpose, at whatever cost of trouble, to learn how to read. The
very decided manner with which my master spoke, and strove to impress his wife with the evil consequences of giving me
instruction, served to convince me that he was deeply sensible of the truths he was uttering. It gave me the best assurance that I
might rely with the utmost confidence on the results which, he said, would flow from teaching me to read. What he most dreaded
that I most desired. What he most loved, that I most hated. That which to him was great evil, to be carefully shunned, was to me
a great good, to be diligently sought; and the argument which he so warmly urged, against my learning to read, only served to
inspire me with a desire and determination to learn. In learning to read, I owe almost as much to the bitter opposition of my
master, as to the kindly aid of my mistress. I acknowledge the benefit of both.
72. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to Ê (b) Daring is not properly formed. It should be ‘dared.’
(a) describe a disagreement between a woman and Ventured means to take risk.When ventured is combined
her husband with peremptory, it gives the idea that there has been a
very commanding way of telling something and since the
(b) analyse the reason for the education of slaves
person is not very much familiar with the man he is talking
(c) describe a slave’s literacy as a means of freedom
to, he has risked it. So, option (b) is correct.
(d) dramatise a slave’s change in attitude towards
his mistress 77. The ……… of Agatha Christie’s argument is that
human nature remains the same, wherever you are.
Ê (c) The passage describes the ways how a slave can
use literacy as a means of freedom for himself. (a) acne (b) pinnacle (c) nadir (d) crux
73. For which of the following reasons does Mr Auld Ê (d) ‘Crux’ means ‘the most vital or important part.
forbid his wife to educate the slave? 78. The ……… play caused me to squirm in my seat, but
1. Providing slaves with an education violates the she began to ……… her eyes in a way that irritated
law. me.
2. He believes slaves lack the capacity for education. (a) delirious ……… spot (b) grin ……… wet
3. He fears education would leave the slave less (c) disastrous ……… damp (d) maudlin ……… daub
submissive.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 3 Ê (a) ‘Delirious’ means something that is ‘in an imbalanced
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 state’ mentally and ‘spot’ means ‘to mark.’
Ê (d) Mr Auld forbade his wife to teach the slave as it was

unlawful and the slave would be unmanageable.
Directions (Q. Nos. 79-80) Select the choice that best
So,option (d) is correct. replaces the underlined part of the sentence given in the
question
74. The tone of author in acknowledging his debt to
his master can be best described as 79. There they stood on the top shelf, all 20 volumes,
(a) sentimental and nostalgic their red binding and gold lettering undoubtedly
(b) cutting and ironic making them the most attractive between all the
(c) petulant and self-righteous books’ on the bookshelf
(d) resigned but wistful (a) their red binding and gold lettering undoubtedly making
Ê (a) The author has acclaimed that he had got the them the most attractive between all the books on
benefit from the statements of his master. He (b) their red binding and gold lettering undoubtedly making
remembers it after a very long time. So, he is them the most attractive among all the books on
sentimental as well as nostalgic. (c) their red binding and gold lettering undoubtedly made
them the most attractive among the books in
75. Replace the underlined phrase with the one (d) their red binding and gold lettering undoubtedly
which is closest to it in meaning. I DROPPED A making them seem the most attractive among all the
CLANGER when I mentioned her ex- husband. books on
(a) Inadvertently caused embarrassment
Ê (b) Option (a) has used ‘between’ which is wrong as there are
(b) Let go of a clanger
a lot of books. Option (c) has used ‘made’ which is
(c) Toppled a lampshade
inappropriate. Option (d) has used ‘seem’ which does not
(d) None of the above suit the frame of sentence. But option (b) is the most
Ê (a) ‘Dropping a clanger’ means ‘causing inadvertent appropriate one.
embarrassment.‘ Look at the sentence.
80. Everything in the world decays, it comes to an end
Directions (Q. Nos. 76-78) Fill in the blanks in and also dies inevitably.
the sentences with the appropriate choices. (a) decays, it comes to an end and also dies inevitably
76. I should not have ……… to talk in such a ……… (b) decays, comes to an end and dies inevitably
strain especially when I had not studied the (c) decays and as it comes to an end it also dies inevitably
man to whom I was talking. (d) decay, they an end,’ and then they die inevitably
(a) daring ……… commanding Ê (b) When verbs of the same form are being used
(b) tried ……… bold consecutively, then ‘it’ should not be used; ‘also’ should
(c) ventured ……… peremptory be avoided. So, the correct sequence should be [decays,
(d) emboldened ……… reckless comes to an end and dies].
Section C
(Analytical and Logical Reasoning)
For all questions in this section, each correct answer carries 2 marks.
81. What will be the measurement of the angle made by OA = 4 ⇒ OD = 3
the hands of a clock when the time is 8 : 35? So,( AD)2 = (OA)2 + (OD)2 = (4)2 + (3)2 = 16 + 9= 25
(a) 45° (b) 32.5° (c) 47.5° (d) 30° ∴ AD = 5 km
35 7
Ê (a) 35 min 8 past = 8 + =
60 2
17 Directions (Q.Nos.84-85) Read the following
Angle traced by hour hand (points to the 8) in h information carefully and answer the questions.
2
360 17 Six students A, B, C, D, E and F participated in a dancing
× = 255 12
120 2 11 1 competition wherein they won prizes 12000, 10000,
10 2 8000, 6000, 4000, 2000 according to the position
Angle traced by minute hand (points to the
9 3 secured. The following information is known to us:
7) in 35 min
8 4
360 7 6 5
= × 35 = 210 (a) A won less money than B
60
(b) The difference between the winning of C and F
∴Required angle = 255 − 210 = 45°
was ` 2000
82. Find the odd man out. (c) The difference between the winning of D and F
(a) DIRAMLOG (b) ERENIGEN was at least ` 4000
(c) UIHCSSBI (d) AFOLDFID
(d) E won the ` 8000 prize
Ê (b) According to the given information,
84. Which of the following could be the ranking
(a) DIRAMLOG - MARIGOLD from first place to sixth place of students?
(b) ERENIGEN - ERENIGEN (a) A, D, E, B, F, C (b) B, A, E, C , F, D
(c) UIHCSSBI - HIBISCUS (c) F, B ,E ,A ,C ,D (d) B, A, E,D,C, F
(d) AFOLDFID - DAFFODIL
Ê (d) On the basis of given information in the question,
All the terms or optionals except ‘ERENIGEN’ are related to the ranking from first place to sixth place of
the ‘flowers’. students could be
B − 12000
83. Raghu is at point A. He walks 3 km to the North and (A won less money thanB )
then turns to his left. He walks 4 km in this direction. A − 10000
He turns left again and walks 6 km. If he wishes to E − 8000
(E won ` 80000 Prize)
reach point A again, in which direction should he be D − 6000
walking and what distance will he have to cover? C − 4000 and the difference between winning of C
(a) South-East,5 km (b) South-East,4 km and F was ` 2000.
(c) North-East,5 km (d) North-East,4 km
F − 2000 and the difference between winning of D
Ê (c) Raghu’s starting point is A. He walked 3 km to North and and F was at least ` 4000.
turned his left in the direction of West and walked 4 km. He
turned left again in the direction of South and walked 6 km 85. If A won ` 4000, how much in total did C and F
and finally he turned in the direction of North-East to reach win?
point A. The distance from point D to point A is 5 km. (a) ` 6000 (b) ` 10000
C 4 km (c) ` 22000 (d) ` 18000
B
Ê (c) If A won ` 4000, then total of C and F win.
3 km 3 km According to the given information,
C − 12000
4 km (Difference between was at least ` 4000)
Total = 6km O A F − 10000
E − 8000
3 km B − 6000 (A won less money than B)
A − 4000
D D − 2000
Note that, CB = OA is 4 km. The total of C and F = 12000 + 10000 = ` 22000
86. Where should the number 17 be placed to fit into 88. Insert the missing letter
the sequence?
A F K
18,11,15,14,19,16,10,12,20
H M R
(a) Between 14 and 19 (b) Between 18 and 11
(c) Between 19 and 16 (d) Between 12 and 20 T Y
Ê (a) Given, 18 11 15 14 19 16 10 12 20 (a) O (b) P (c) Q (d) R
We put 17 in between 14 and 19 and the following pattern
Ê (a) The letters in each column follow this pattern,
as below
A F K
18 11 15 14 17 19 16 10 12 20 +8 +8 +8
–4 +2 +4 H M R
+8 +8 +8
18 11 15 14 17 19 16 10 12 20
O T Y
–4 –5
18 11 15 14 17 19 16 10 12 20 Direction (Q. No. 89 ) Six statements are followed
by options consisting of three statements put together
+6 –7 in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a
valid argument, that is, the third argument is a
87. There are three facts and you are given three more conclusion drawn from the earlier two statements.
statements. You have to determine which of these,
if any is also a fact. A. Amar is unhappy
Fact 1. All kids like to play. B. Amar is honest
Fact 2. Some kids like ice-cream. C. Some magicians are honest
Fact 3. Some kids look like their mothersr D. No honest man is a magician
Statement 1. All kids who like ice-cream look like E. No magician is happy
their mothers. F. Amar is not a magician
Statement 2. Kids who like ice-cream also like to (a) FED (b) BFA (c) AEF (d) BDF
play. Ê (d) On the basis of given information, the arguments as
Statement 3. Kids who like to play do not look like below
their mothers, From option (a),
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 F → Amar is not a magician.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None can be a fact
E → No magician is happy.
Ê (b) D → No honest man is a magician.
Play Play
Ice- From option (b),
cream
Kids or Kids B → Amar is honest.
Ice-
cream Mother F → Amar is not a magician.
Mother
A → Amar is unhappy.
(I) (ii) From option (c),
A → Amar is unhappy.
The above two figures show the facts which are given in
E → No magician is happy.
the information. Statement 1 ‘All kids who like
F → Amar is not a magician.
ice-cream look like their mothers’ is true from figure (II)
but not valid with figure (I). From option (d),
Statement 2 ‘Kids who like ice-cream also like to play,’ is B → Amar is honest.
valid from both the figures. D → No honest man is a magician.
Statement 3 ‘Kids who like to play do not look like their F → Amar is not a magician.
mothers’ is valid from figure (I) but not with figure (II). It is clear from the above options that BDF is the correct
So, option (b) is correct. or valid argument.
Directions (Q. Nos. 90-91) The table below 93. A set of symbols is given indicating the terms for
presents data on Gross National Product (GNP)and Net which they will be used in the questions following
National Product (NNP) for India for six years, Answer them.
questions based on these data. Θ = equal to, ϕ = not equal to, ∆ = greater than, x=
Gross National Product and Net National Product less than, + = not greater than, $ = not less than A
∆ B ∆ C does not imply which of the following
GNP (in ` crore) NNP (in ` crore) options?
1988-89 348210 309289. (a) A $ B ∆ C (b) C + B x A (c) A x B × C (d) C + B ϕ A
1989-90 402931 357285 Ê (d) After interchanging the symbols of the given
1990-91 470252 418057 information, the options are as follows
1991-92 541593 479001 (a) A $ B D C → A > B > C
1992-93 615831 543566 (b) C + B × A → C < B < A
1993-94 695342 615273 (c) A × B H C → A < B = C
(d) C + B Q C → C < B ≠ A
90. The year during which both GNP and NNP have
A D B D C → A > B > C, already given in the question.
shown almost equal rate of growth-
According to this statement, only option (d) does not
(a) 1989-90 (b) 1990-91 imply the following options.
(c) 1991-92 (d) 1992-93
Ê (a) The year during both GNP and NNP have shown
94. Given below are 4 pictures of a cube
almost equal rate of growth is 1989-90. This is
5 3 2 4
because of the less difference between them.
4 6 6 5 1 4 1 5
Year GNP NNP Difference
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
1989-90 402931 357285 45646
Which number is on the face opposite to 3?
1990-91 470252 418057 52195
(a) 1 (a) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5
1991-92 541593 479001 62592
Ê (c) From figures (i),(ii) and (iii),we conclude that 5, 6, 1
1992-93 615831 543566 72265 and 2 lie adjacent to 4. Hence, 3 must lie opposite 4
and vice-versa.
The year 1989-90 having less difference. From figures (i) and (iv), we find that 1 is opposite to 6, 2
91. Which of the following statements could be stated is opposite to 5 and 4 is opposite to 3.
to be true?
(a) GNP has been growing during the period under Directions (Q. Nos. 95–96)
review
(b) NNP has been growing during the period under H
review G
I J
(c) The growth pattern has been different for both E F
indicators during period under review B
(d) None of the above O D A
L K M
Ê (c) It is clear from the given table that the growth pattern C
has been different for both indicators during period N
under review. Reason behind this-The GNP and NNP P
both have been growing during the period under
review but in a different pattern. Rectangle indicates Faculty members, Square indicates
92. If PEACE is coded as RGCEG, then how is MICKY Research scholars, Circle indicates Indians and Triangle
indicates Americans.
coded in that code? ‘
(a) MOUSE (b) OKEMA (c) LHBJX (d) JDLJ 95. In the given figure show the area which indicates
Ê (b) Basic Word P E A C E faculty members who are research scholars but are
+2 +2 +2 +2 +2 neither Americans nor Indians.
Coded Word R G C E G (a) L (b) N
(c) K (d) G
Similarly,
Basic Word M I C K Y Ê (c) The area which indicates faculty members who are
+2 +2 +2 +2 +2
research scholars but are neither American nor Indians
is ‘K’.
Coded Word O K E M A
96. In the given figure show the area which indicates Directions (Q. Nos. 99-100) Five girls Rama, Sudha,
Indian Americans who are faculty members but Tara, Uma and Veena share an apartment and have
not research scholars. distributed the task as one girl making breakfast per day,
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) F Monday through Friday, one of the five dishes upama,
Ê (c) The area ‘C’ indicates Indian - Americans who are dosa, idli, uttapa and paratha.
faculty members but not research scholars. Veena does not make uttapa and does not cook on
97. While facing East you turn to your left and walk 10 Tuesday.
yards. Then, turn to your left and walk 10 yards Sudha makes parathas but not on Monday or Friday.
and now turn 45° to your right and go straight to Upama is made on Thursday.
cover 50 yards. Now, in what direction are you Tara makes her dish which is not uttapa on Wednesday.
with respect to the starting point? Idli is made on Friday but not by Uma.
(a) North-East (b) North
Rama cooks on Monday
(c) South-East (d) North-West
99. What does Tara cook on Wednesday?
Ê (d) Let A is the initial point of a man. He faces East and
(a) Upama (b) Paratha
turned his left in the direction of North and walked
(c) Idli (d) Dosa
10 yards.
D 100. What day does Uma prepare her dish?
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
50 y (c) Thursday (d) Friday
45°
10 y
B Solutions (Q. Nos. 99-100)
C On the basis of given
information, the table as below
10 y Days
Girls Upma Dosa Idli Uttapa Paratha

A
Rama 5 5 5 3 5 Monday
Then, turned his left in the direction of West and walked
10 yards. Now, he turned 45° to his right and walked Sudha 5 5 5 5 3 Tuesday
50 yards straight in the same direction. Now, the direction
Tara 5 3 5 5 5 Wednesday
of a man with respect to his starting point is North-West.
Uma 3 5 5 5 5 Thursday
98. If P− Q means Q is son of P, P × Q means P is brother
of Q, P ÷ Q means Q is sister of P and P + Q means P Veena 5 3 5 5 5 Friday
is mother of Q, which of the following is definitely
true about N × K − M ÷ L? Ê (d) Tara cooks dosa on Wednesday.
(a) K is father of L and M Ê (c) Uma prepares dish on Thursday.
(b) L is daughter of K and niece of uncle N
(c) K is father of L and M-his son and daughter
respectively
Direction (Q. No. 101) Answer the following
(d) M is uncle of K’s brother N question on the basis of the following data
Ê (a) N × K− M ÷ L, according to the given information, Kunal, Rahul, Mohit and Charan are constables on duty in
Delhi, and they are trying to recollect who amongst them
M L
(Brother) Sister (daughter) has been working the most number of days without leave.
son Here, are the facts : Kunal has put in more days of
consecutive duty than has Rahul, who has got in five days of
N K (Father) consecutive duty. Mohit has gone fifteen days straight
(Brother)
without leave, more than Kunal and Rahul combined)
From the figure above, it is clear that K is the father of L Charan has put in eight consecutive days of duty, which is
and M. less than what Kunal has done.
101. How many days has Kunal gone without leave? 105. If 7 is coded as CBRT343, then 9 is
(a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 4 (a) CBRT27 (b) SQRT81
(c) CBRT729 (d) CBRT6561
Ê (b) On the basis of given information,
Rahul’s consecutive duty—5 days Ê (c) 7 is coded as C B R T 343
Mohit’s gone straight without leave—15 days 343 is the cube of 7 i.e., (7 3 = 343)
Charan’s consecutive duty—8 days Similarly, 9 is coded as C B R T 729
According to the given information, 729 is the cube of 9 i.e., (93 = 729)
Kunal has put more than Rahul
106. If HELLO is coded as 15|12|12|5|8, then WHERE
and Charan has put less days duty than Kunal.
is coaded as
It is clear from the option (b) i.e., Kunal’s number of days
(a) 16|13|I3|6|9 (b) 5|18|5|8|23
= 9 and Rahul’s number of days = 5 (c) 5|5|18|23|8 (d) 5|5|18|8|23
Rahul + Kunal = 5 + 9 = 14
Ê (b) Basic word H E L L O
Kunal’s number of days is more than Rahul and less than
Charan’s number of days and total of Rahul and Kunal is
less than Mohit’s number of days. Coded word 15 12 12 5 8
‘H’ has 8th position in the alphabetical order and ‘O’ has
Directions (Q. Nos. 102-104) Five hundred school 15th position as in the alphabetical order. Both the
children were asked about cricketers they liked. 80 said positions of numeric form are interchanged as shown in
they like Sachin Tendulkar, 60 said they liked Sourav the above figure. Similarly. ‘L’ has 12th position which is
interchanged with ‘E’’s position i.e., ‘5’ and so on.
Ganguly,
In the same way,
90 said they liked Mahendra Singh Dhoni.
Basic word W H E R E
10 said they liked all them 40 said they liked
Sachin and Sourav, 50 liked Sachin and Dhoni, while 30
said they liked Sourav and Dhoni. Coded word 5 18 5 8 23
102. How many, out of the 500, didn’t choose Sachin, 107. Complete the following series 3 10 59.
Sourav or Dhoni? (a) 402 (b) 403 (c) 404 (d) 405
(a) 280 (b) 380 Ê (a) 3, 10, 59.
(c) 180 (d) 480
This series is based on the following pattern
103. How many like Sourav but not Tendulkar? 10 − 3 = 7 = 7
(a) 21 (b) 22 59 − 10 = 49 = 7 × 7 ⇒7 2
402 − 59 = 343 = 7 × 7 × 7 ⇒7 3
104. How many like fewer than two cricketers?
(a) 410 (b) 400 108. If WOOD is coded as 23|225|4, then MEET is coded
(c) 390 (d) 395 as
(a) |3|5|5|20 (b) 13|10|20
Solutions (Q. Nos. 102-104) (c) 13|25|20 (d) None of these
Sachin = b + g + d = 30 + 10 + 40 = 80 (15)2
Sourav = b + g + f = 30 + 10 + 20 = 60 Ê (c) Basic Word W O O D
Dhoni = d + g + f + e = 40 + 10 + 20 + + 20 = 90
All cricketers = 10 Sachin + Sourav Coded Word 23 225 4
= b + g = 40 (30 + 10) In this ‘W’ has 23rd position in the alphabetical order, ‘D’
Sachin + Dhoni = g + d = 10 + 40 = 50 has ‘4’ position, ‘O’ has 15th position in the alphabetical
Sourav + Dhoni = g + e = 10 + 20 = 30 order, letter ‘O’ has 15th position and 225 is the square of
15th number.
Ê (b) Total = 500
Similarly,
Who didn’t choose Sachin, Sourav or Dhoni
(5)2
= (10 + 40 + 20 + 30 + 20 + 0 + 0 = 120)
Basic word M E E T
out of 500 is 500 − 120 = 380
Ê (d) None of the options is true according to the question.
Coded word 13 25 20
Ê (b) 400 like fewer than two cricketers. It is clearly shown by ‘M’ has 13th position, ‘T’ has 20th position and ‘E’ has 5th
380 + 20 = 400 position and 25 is the square of number 5.
Directions (Q. Nos. 109-110) Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives data about
certain coffee producers in India.
S. Production Capacity Sales Total sales value
Brands
No. (‘000 tonnes) utilisation (%) (‘000 tonnes) (` in crore)
1. Brooke Bond 2.97 76.50 2.55 31.15
2. Nestle 2.48 71.20 2.03 26.75
3. Lipton 1.64 64.80 1.26 15.25
4. MAC 1.54 59.35 1.47 17.45
Total (including others) 11.60 61.30 10.67 132.80
109. What is the maximum production capacity (in ‘000 110. What percent of the total market shares (by
tonnes) of Liption for coffee? sales value) is controlled by others ?
(a) 2.53 (b) 2.85 (a) 60% (b) 32%
(c) 2.24 (d) 2.07 (c) 67% (d) Data insufficient
Ê (a) The production capacity for lipton = 64.80% for 164
. Ê (b) Sales of coffee (other)
thousand tonne = 132.80(3115
. + 2675
. + 15.25 + 17.45)
maximum capacity is 100%
= 132.80 − 90.6 = 42.2
For 100% it would be =  . 
100
× 164 42.2
 64.8  ∴ Required per cent = × 100 = 32%
= 2.53 thousand tonne 13.2
approximately
Section-D
(General Awareness)
111. The economically diverse region of MENA nations 113. The agency that estimates national income in
refers to the countries in India is
(a) Middle East and North African Countries (a) RBI
(b) Middle East and North American Countries (b) Planning Commission
(c) Mediterranean Europe and North Atlantic Countries (c) Central Statistics Organisation
(d) None of the above (d) None of the above
Ê (a) A region encompassing approximately 22 countries in the Ê (c) The Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) was
Middle East and North Africa (MENA). The MENA region set up in the cabinet secretariat on 2nd May,
accounts for approximately 6% of the world’s population, 1951. CSO is responsible for coordination of
60% of the world’s oil reserves and 45% of the world’s statistical activities in India and evolving and
natural gas reserves. Due to the region’s substantial maintaining statistical standards. It is located in
petroleum and natural gas reserves, MENA is an important Delhi.
source of global economic stability.
114. Panchatantra was written by
112. Open market operations refer to the sale and purchase (a) Brahmbhatt
by the RBI of (b) Vishnu Sharma
(a) Foreign currency (b) Gold (c) Jaya Deva
(c) Government bonds (d) All of these (d) None of these
Ê (c) An Open Market Operation (also known as OMO) is an Ê (b) The Panchatantra is an ancient Indian inter-related
activity by a central bank to buy or sale Government bonds in collection of animal fables in verse and prose, in a
the open market. A central bank uses them as the primary frame story format. It was written by Vishnu
means of implementing monetary policy. Sharma.
115. IRDA is the Indian regulator for the 120. Which NATO country’s parliament was the first
(a) Banking sector (b) Mutual funds to vote in favour of the move to make military
(c) Rural Development (d) None of these service compulsory for women?
Ê (d) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) (a) Italy (b) Germany
is an autonomous apex statutory body which regulates (c) Norway (d) None of these
and develops the insurance industry in India. It was Ê (c) Norway’s parliament, in June 2013, has voted
constituted by a Parliament of India Act called Insurance overwhelmingly to conscript women into its armed
Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 and forces, becoming the first European and first NATO
duly passed by the Government of India. country to make military service compulsory for both
genders.
116. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) Members of Lok Sabha 121. The market for government securities is also
(b) President of India referred to as
(c) Leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha (a) Bullion market (b) Gilt-edge market
(d) None of the above (c) Secondary market (d) Money market
Ê (c) In the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Indian Ê (b) Gilt-edged securities are bonds issued by certain
Parliament, both presiding officers- the Speaker and the national governments. The term is of British origin and
Deputy Speaker are elected from among its members originally referred to the debt securities issued by the
by a simple majority of members present and voting in bank of England, which had a gilt (or gilded) edge.
the house. As such, no specific qualifications are Hence, known as gilt-edged securities or gilts for
prescribed for being elected the Speaker. The short.
Constitution only requires that Speaker should be a
member of the house. 122. From April 2010 the savings bank interest is
calculated
117. The Finance Minister’s Budget speech presented to
the Indian parliament every year usually has two (a) at 4% per annum
parts. What does the Part A relate to ? (b) on daily balance method based on the closing
balance maintained every day
(a) Taxation Proposals (b) General Economic Survey (c) lowest balance available between 10th and the
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above final day of the month
Ê (b) The budget speech of the finance minister is usually in (d) None of the above
two parts. Part A deals with general economic survey of Ê (b) From 1st April, 2010, interest on all saving bank
the country while part B relates to taxation proposals. account deposits is being calculated on a daily
118. Which two institutions are popularly referred to as basis, thereby earning account holders higher
interest income. This is due to the fact that the RBI
the ‘Bretton Woods Twins’?
has instructed banks to change the mechanism of
(a) International Monetary Fund and World Bank interest income calculation. The calculation is done
(b) World Bank and Asian Development Bank on the ‘daily balance method’, with the rate of interest
(c) Asian Development Bank and International Monetary remaining the same at 3.5% per annum.
Fund
(d) United Nations and World Trade Organisation 123. Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
is an Inter-governmental Body established in
Ê (a) The Bretton Woods Twins refers to the two multilateral
organisations created at the Bretton Woods conference
1989. It is concerned with
in 1944. They are the World Bank and the International (a) Money laundering
Monetary Fund. (b) Stock markets
(c) Foreign Direct Investment
119. Based on the statements given below, Special (d) Foreign Institutional Investors
Drawing Rights is best described to include which of
the following statements? Ê (a) The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an
intergovernmental organisation founded in 1989 on
1. It is a basket of currencies reviewed every 5 yr. the initiative of the G7. The purpose of the FATF is to
2. It was created to reduce the dependencies on develop policies to combat money laundering and
gold and US dollar. terrorism financing.
3. It is a supplementary foreign exchange reserve
assets maintained by IMF. 124. Which of the following sectors in India was not
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 3 nationalised by Government at any point of time?
Ê (c) Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) are supplementary (a) Banking (a) Insurance
foreign exchange reserve assets defined and (c) Coal (d) None of these
maintained by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). Ê (d)
125. Which of the following is not a Palindrome? (a) Elzie Crisler Segar-Popeye
(a) A car, a man, a maraca (b) Dan Yaccarino-Oswald the Octopus
(b) A man, a plan, a canal, Panama (c) William Hanna-Richie Rich
(c) As you sow, so you reap (d) Walt Disney-Donald Duck
(d) None of the above Ê (c) William Hanna was an American animator, director,
Ê (c) A palindrome is a word, phrase, number or other producer, voice actor and cartoon artist. Richie Rich is
sequence of symbols or elements, whose meaning a fictional character in the Harvery comics universe. It
may be interpreted the same way in either forward or was created by Alfred Harvey and Warren Kremer.
reverse direction. Famous examples include ‘Amor 132. The goals of monetary policy do not include
Roma’, ‘A man, a plan, a canal, Panama’.
(a) full employment (b) price stability
126. The movie ‘Life of Pi’ is based on an award winning (c) maximising tax revenue (d) None of these
novel written by Ê (d) Monetary policy is the process by which monetary
(a) Peter Carey (b) Alan Hollinghurst authority of a country, generally a central bank (or RBI)
(c) Yann Martel (d) None of these controls the supply of money in the economy by
exercising its control over interest rates in order to
Ê (c) ‘Life of Pi is a 2012 American 3D live-action maintain price stability and achieve high economic
computer-animated adventure drama film based on growth.
Yann Martel’s 2001 novel of the same name.
133. The Corporate Head Quarters of Tata Group is
127. LIDL, Walgreen, ASDA and Kroger are
(a) Bombay House (b) Tata Towers
(a) Automobile companies (c) JRD Centre (d) None of these
(b) Retailers
(c) Electronic product manufacturers Ê (a) Bombay House is a historic privately owned building in
(d) None of the above Mumbai that serves as the head office of the Tata
Group.
Ê (b)
134. Dronacharya Award for Coaching for the year 2013
128. Which bank was the first to introduce the was received by Narinder Singh Saini for ‘ which
Automated Teller Machine (ATM)in India? discipline?
(a) Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corporation (HSBC) (a) Archery (b) Boxing
(b) Citibank (c) Hockey (d) None of these
(c) Standard Chartered Bank
(d) HDFC Bank Ê (c)
Ê (a) Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corporation (HSBC) 135. This company signed an agreement with the
introduced ATM concept in India, first time in 1987. Government of India for the Passport Seva Project
129. The Three Gorges Dam, is the world’s largest in 2008.
hydropower project and is located in (a) Infosys Technologies
(b) Mahindra Satyam
(a) China (a) Brazil
(c) Tata Consultancy Services
(c) Russia (d) None of these
(d) Wipro
Ê (a) The three Gorges Dam is a hydroelectric dam that
Ê (c)
spans the Yangtze River by the town of Sandouping,
located in Yiling district, Yichang, Hubei Province, 136. Recommendations of which committee led to the
China. The Three Gorges Dam is the world’s largest reforms in the banking sector in India in the
power station in terms of installed capacity nineties?
(22500 MW).
(a) Malhotra Committee
130. India signed the Kyoto Protocol in the year (b) Narasimham Committee
(a) 2000 (b) 1998 (c) Mayaram Committee
(c) 2002 (d) 1995 (d) Damodaran Committee
Ê (c) The Kyoto Protocol to the United Nations Framework Ê (b) Narasimham Committee-I was formed in 1991 and
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCC) is an Narasimham Committee-II was formed in 1998 and
international treaty that sets binding obligations on both were related to banking sector reforms.
industrialised countries to reduce emissions of 137. Which country is the largest producer of
greenhouse gases. India signed the Kyoto Protocol in
newsprint?
the year, 2002.
(a) Indonesia (b) Finland
131. Given below are the creators of some well-known (c) Canada (d) None of these
cartoon characters. Identify the creator cartoon
Ê (c)
pair that does not match.
138. India’s Direct Cash Transfer Scheme draws 144. Who among the following sports persons are
similarities from models of which country? twins?
(a) Brazil (b) Germany (a) Serena Williams and Venus Williams
(c) Australia (d) Sri Lanka (b) Mark Waugh and Steve Waugh
(c) Irfan Pathan and Yusuf Pathan
Ê (a) Direct Benefit Transfer or DBT is an anti-poverty
programme launched by the Government of India on
1st January, 2013. This programme aims to transfer Ê (b) Mark Waugh and Steve Waugh, a set of twins who
subsidies directly to the people living below poverty played test and ODI cricket for Australia from the
line. 1980s to the 2000s.
139. Who put forth the theory of ‘Zero Defects’ ? 145. Individuals with this blood type are universal red
(a) W Edward Deming cell donors
(b) Philip Crosby (a) A − (b) B+ (c) AB (d) O−
(c) Joseph Juran
(d) Martin Hall Ê (d) The universal red cell donor has type O– blood type.
Blood group AB + is called universal receptor, which
Ê (b) Zero Defects was a management-led programne to can receive any blood type.
eliminate defects in industrial production that enjoyed
brief popularity in American industry in the late 1960s 146. ‘Relationship beyond banking’ is the tag line of
and early 1970s. It was given by Philip Crosby. (a) State Bank of India (b) Central Bank of India
(c) Bank of India (d) Bank of Maharashtra
140. Logic of induction is very close to
(a) the logic of observation Ê (c)
(b) the logic of sampling 147. Find the odd man out.
(c) the logic of the controlled variables
(d) None of the above (a) Sarod (a) Sitar (c) Shehnai (d) Santoor
Ê (b) Ê (c) Sarod, Sitar and Santoor are played with hand but
Shehnai is played with mouth.
141. How many pairs of chromosomes exist in a human
cell?
148. Which instrument measures Blood Pressure?
(a) Sphygmomanometer (a) Hygrometer
(a) 12 (b) 23
(c) Saccharimeter (d) Spherometer
(c) 34 (d) 45
Ê (a) A Sphygmomanometer or blood pressure meter is a
Ê (b) In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of
device used to measure blood pressure, composed of
chromosomes, for a total of 46.
an inflatable cuff to restrict blood flow and a mercury or
142. International Date Line roughly follows the mechanical manometer to measure the pressure.
longitude of 149. Find the odd person out.
(a) 180 degrees (b) 90 degrees (a) Shikha Sharma (b) Chanda Kochhar
(c) 360 degrees (d) None of these (c) Shubhalakshmi Panse (d) Kiran Mazumdar Shaw
Ê (a) International Date Line (IDL) passes through the Ê (d) Shikha Sharma − MD and CEO of Axis Bank
middle of the Pacific ocean, roughly following the 180°
longitude but it deviates to pass around some Chanda Kochhar − MD and CEO of ICICI Bank
territories and Island groups. Shubhalakshmi Panse − MD of Allahabad Bank
143. Daylight Saving Time (DST) implies adjusting the Kiran Mazumdar Shaw − MD of Biocon Limited
clock by 1h 150. Extradition is a process whereby
(a) forward near the start of spring and backward in (a) one country transfers a suspected or convicted
autumn criminal to another country
(b) forward near the start of autumn and backward in (b) olden traditions are rejuvenated as a part of
spring cultural events
(c) forward near the start of spring and forward in (c) additional diction efforts are taken for language
autumn improvisation
(d) backward near the start of autumn and backward (d) extraction of the tar is carried out from the mines
spring
Ê (a) Extradition is the official process whereby one country
Ê (a) Daylight Saving Time (DST) is the practice of transfers a suspected or convicted criminal to another
advancing clocks during the lighter months so that country. Between countries, extradition is normally
evenings have more daylight and mornings have less. regulated by treaties, where extradition is compelled
Typically clocks are adjusted forward one hour near the by laws, such as among subnational jurisdiction, the
start of spring and are adjusted backward in the concept may be known more generally as rendition.
autumn.
SNAP
Solved Paper 2012
Max. Marks : 180 Time Alloted : 120 Min.
Section I Quantitative and Data Interpretation and Sufficiency

1. A dice is rolled three times and sum of three numbers 9. The radius of a circle is so increased that its circumference
appearing on the uppermost face is 15. The chance that the increased by 5%. The area of the circle then increases by
first roll was a four is (a) 12.5% (b) 10.25% (c) 10.5% (d) 11.25%
(a) 2/5 (b) 1/5 10. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘ABACUS’ be
(c) 1/6 (d) None of these rearranged such that the vowels always appear together?
2. A boat covers a distance of 30 km downstream in 2 h while it (a) 6! / 2! (b) 3! . 3!
takes 6 h to cover the same distance upstream. What is the (c) (3! . 3!)/2! (d) (4! . 3!)/2!
speed of the boat (in km/h)?
11. In 4 yr, ` 6000 amounts to ` 8000. In what time at the same
(a) 5 (b) 7.5 rate will ` 525 amount to ` 700?
(a) 2 yr (b) 3 yr
3. A five-digit numbers is formed by using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 (c) 4 yr (d) 5 yr
and 5 without repetitions. What is the probability that the
number is divisible by 4? Directions (Q. Nos. 12-14) Study the following information to
(a) 1/5 (b) 5/6 answer the given questions.
(c) 4/5 (d) None of these At the start of a game of cards, J and B together had four times
4. If the algebraic sum of deviations of 20 observations as much money as T, while T and B together had three times as
measured from 23 is 70, mean of these observations would much as J. At the end of the evening, J and B together had three
be times as much money as T, while T and B together had twice as
much as J. B lost ` 200.
(a) 24 (b) 25
(c) 26 (d) None of these 12. What fraction of the total money did T have at the beginning
5. An alloy of gold and silver weighs 50 g. It contains 80% of the game?
gold. How much gold should be added to the alloy, so that (a) 1/3 (b) 1/8 (c) 2/9 (d) 1/5
percentage of gold is increased to 90? 13. What fraction of the total money did J win/lose?
(a) 50 g (b) 60 g (c) 30 g (d) 40 g (a) Won 1/12 (b) Lost 1/6
6. Weekly incomes of two persons are in the ratio of 7 : 3 and (c) Lost 1/3 (d) Won 1/5
their weekly expenses are in the ratio of 5 : 2. If each of them 14. What amount did B start with?
saves ` 300 per week, then the weekly income of the first (a) ` 575 (b) ` 375 (c) ` 825 (d) ` 275
person is
(a) ` 7500 (b) ` 4500 (c) ` 6300 (d) ` 5400 15. If a and b are negative and c is positive, which of the
following statement/s is/are true?
7. Wheat is now being sold at ` 27 per kg. During last month I. a − b < a − c
its cost was ` 24 per kg. Find by how much per cent a family II. If a < b, then a/c < b/c
reduces its consumption, so as to keep the expenditure III. 1 / b < 1 / c
fixed? Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 10.2% (b) 12.1% (c) 12.3% (d) 11.1% (a) Only I (b) Only II
8. There are 10 stations on a railway line. The number of (c) Only III (d) II and III
different journey tickets that are required by the authorities 16. The diagonal of a square is 4 2 cm. The diagonal of another
is square whose area is double that of the first square is
(a) 92 (b) 90 (a) 8 cm (b) 8 2 cm
(c) 91 (d) None of these (c) 4 2 cm (d) 16 cm
2 | SNAP (Symbiosis National Aptitude Test) • Solved Paper 2012
+ c T
17. The maximum length of a pencil that can be kept in a 25. What image from bottom row should
rectangular box of dimensions 8 cm × 6 cm × 2 cm, is replace the question mark? c T +
(a) 2 13 cm (b) 2 14 cm (a) 4

T +
(c) 2 26 cm (d)10 2 cm (b) 6 ?
(c) 1 T c + T T c
Directions (Q. Nos. 18-19) These question are based on (d) None of the above
1 2 3 4 5 6
the information given below 26. A five-digit numbers divisible by 3 is to be formed using
The Venn diagram given below shows the estimated readership numerical 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetition. The total
of 3 daily newspapers (X, Y and Z) in a city. The total readership number of ways this can be done is
and advertising cost for each of these papers is as below. (a) 122 (b) 210 (c) 216 (d) 217
Readership Advertising cost 27. A contract is to be completed in 50 days and 105 men were
Newspaper (in lakh) (` per sq cm)
set to work, each working 8 h a day. After 25 days, 2/5th of
X 8.7 6000
the work is finished. How many additional men be
Y 9.1 6500
employed, so that the work may be completed on time, each
Z 5.6 5000
man now working 9 h per day?
The total population of the city is estimated to be 14 million. The (a) 34 (b) 36 (c) 35 (d) 37
common readership (in lakh) is indicated in the given Venn
diagram. 28. A can build up a structure in 8 days and B can break it in
3 days. A has worked for 4 days and then B joined to work
with A for another 2 days only. In how many days will A
Y
X
2.5 alone build up the remaining part of the structure?
0.5
(a) 10 days (b) 9 days
1.5 (c) 12 days (d) None of these
1.0
Z
29. The first two terms of a geometric progression add up to 12.
The sum of the third and the fourth terms is 48. If the terms
of the geometric progression are alternately positive and
18. The number of people (in lakh) who read atleast one negative, then the first term is
newspaper is (a) − 2 (b) − 4 (c) − 12 (d) 8
(a) 4.7 (b) 11.9 (c) 17.4 (d) 23.4 30. The mean of the numbers a, b, 8, 5, 10 is 6 and the variance
19. The number of people (in lakh) who read only one is 6.80. Then, which one of the following gives possible
newspaper is values of a and b?
(a) 4.7 (b) 11.9 (c) 17.4 (d) 23.4 (a) a = 0, b = 7 (b) a = 5, b = 2
(c) a = 3, b = 4 (d) a = 2, b = 4
20. Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance
policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in shopping 31. An agent sells goods of value of ` 15000. The commission
1
and on household expenses. She saves the remaining which he receives at the ratio of 12 % is
amount at ` 12750. What is Sonali’s monthly income? 2
(a) ` 42500 (b) ` 38800 (c) ` 40000 (d) ` 35500 (a) ` 1875 (b) ` 2125 (c) ` 2000 (d) ` 2700
21. How many kg of tea worth ` 25 per kg must be blended with 32. 110.25 × 0. 01 ÷ 0. 0025 − 420.25 is equal to
30 kg of tea worth ` 30 per kg, so that by selling the blended (a) 0.75 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.64 (d) 0.73
variety at ` 30 per kg, there should be a gain of 10%?
(a) 36 kg (b) 40 kg (c) 32 kg (d) 42 kg Directions (Q. Nos. 33-35) Study the following information
to answer the given questions.
22. In an examination, out of 480 students 85% of the girls and The table below shows the number of people who responded to
70% of the boys passed. How many boys appeared in the a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information
examination, if total pass percentage was 75%? to answer the following questions to the nearest whole
(a) 370 (b) 340 percentage.
(c) 320 (d) 360
23. 300 g of salt solution has 40% salt in it. How much salt Age 15-20 21-30 31+
should be added to make it 50% in the solution? Style of Music
(a) 40 g (b) 60 g Classical 6 4 17
(c) 70 g (d) 80 g Pop 7 5 5
24. What number should replace the question mark in the Rock 6 12 14
image below? Jazz 1 4 11
Blues 2 3 15
6 12 ?
48 96 192 Hip-Hop 9 3 4
Ambient 2 2 2
(a) 18 (b) 20
33 33 68
(c) 22 (d) 24
Solved Paper 2012 • SNAP (Symbiosis National Aptitude Test) |3
Australian 4
33. What percentage of respondents under 31 indicated that African 2
Blues is their favourite style of music? Asian 6
(a) 7.1% (b) 7.6% (c) 8.3% (d)14.1%
34. What percentage of respondents aged 21-30 indicated a European 21
favourite style other than Rock music?
South
(a) 64% (b) 60% (c) 75% (d) 36%
American
35. What percentage of the total sample indicated that Jazz is 79
their favourite style of music? Arts Students (non-US)
(a) 6% (b) 8% 36. What percentage of students in the Arts faculty are non-US
(c) 22% (d) 12% students?
(a) 14% (b) 9%
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) Study the following information (c) 30% (d) 11%
The pie charts below show the percentage of students in each 37. How many students are there in the Engineering faculty?
faculty at North-West University and the number of non-US (a) 420 (b) 410
students in the Arts faculty. These percentages have been (c) 390 (d) 440
rounded to the nearest whole number. There are a total of 1049 38. How many students are there at the university?
students in Arts faculty. Use this information to answer the (a) 4650 (b) 4560
following questions (c) 4640 (d) 4450
Engineering Arts
9% 39. If 6% of Science students are Asian, how many Asian
23%
students are studying Science?
Science (a) 48 (b) 66
21%
(c) 120 (d) 57
Medicine
Business
40. There are 34 European medical students. What percentage
5% of the faculty does this represent?
14%
Law (a) 14% (b) 18%
6% Computing
(c) 16% (d) 15%
22%
Students by Faculty
Section II Analytical and Logical Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-43) Study the following information even, if Lou’s promises are true, his argument is fallaciou.
to answer the given questions. and therefore she adds, the manager will not arrive on time
after all.
‘time and money’ is written as ‘ma jo ki’,
‘manage time well’ is written as ‘pa ru jo’,
Which of the following is the strongest thing that we can
‘earn more money’ is written as ‘zi ha ma’ and
properly say about this discussion?
‘earn well enough’ is written as ‘si ru ha’. (a) Evelyn is mistaken in thinking Lou’s argument to be
fallacious and so her own conclusion is unwarranted.
time and money ma jo ki (b) Evelyn is right about Lou’s argument but nevertheless
her own conclusion is unwarranted.
manage time well pa ru jo
(c) Since, Evelyn is right about Lou’s argument, her own
earn more money zi ha ma conclusion is well supported.
earn well enough si ru ha (d) Since, Evelyn is mistaken about Lou’s argument, her
own conclusion must be false.
41. What is the code for ‘earn’? 45. Cars are safer than planes. 50% of plane accidents result in
(a) si (b) ru death, while only one per cent of car accidents result in
(c) ha (d) Cannot determined
death.
42. Which of the following represents ‘more time’? Which of the following, if true, would most seriously
(1) pa jo (2) zi ki (3) ma ki (d) jo zi weaken the argument above?
43. What is the code for ‘manage’? (a) Planes are inspected more often than cars.
(a) ru (b) pa (b) The number of car accidents is several hundred
(c) jo (c) ha thousand times higher than the number of plane
accidents.
44. Lou observes that, if flight 409 is cancelled, then the (c) Pilots never fly under the influence of alcohol, while car
manager could not possibly arrive in time for the meeting. drivers often do.
But the flight was not cancelled. Therefore, Lou concludes, (d) Plane accidents are usually the fault of air traffic
the manager will certainly be on time. Evelyn replies that controllers not pilots.
Element Primary user 54. How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a
(% Production) Industry (% used) particular year, if the month ends on Wednesday?
1-10% P-15% (a) 4 (b) 5
Q-15% (c) 3 (d) Cannot be determined
A R-15%
2-10%
Directions (Q. Nos. 55-56) There are two rows of numbers
3-10%
in each question. The upper row is complete and in the
S-15%
4-25% B lower row one number is missing. Find a suitable
T-5% number to fill the blank space, so that the symmetry with
5-40% the upper row is maintained.
C U-15%
6-50% V-10% 55. 17 102 12
W-10% 15 ? 10
100% = 100000 tonnes Total -100% (a) 211 (b) 75 (c) 125 (d) 117
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-48) Refer to the chart below showing 56. 12 336 14
annual production and answer the questions that follow. 15 ? 16
46. Which industry/industries contribute/ to company S? (a) 220 (b) 480 (c) 125 (d) 450
(a) Industries A and B (b) B and C
(c) A and C (d) Only B Directions (Q. Nos. 57-58) Study the following information
47. Industry B processes what percentage of the total
Seven People A, B, C, D, E, F and G are planning to enjoy
production of listed elements? boating.There are only two boats and the following conditions
(a) 25% (b) 65% are to be kept in mind.
(c) 40% (d) Cannot be determined I. A will go in the same boat in which E is to go.
48. Of the listed elements processed by the industry A, how II. F cannot go in the boat in which C is, unless D is also
accompanying.
many tonnes are produced annually?
III. Neither B nor C can be given the boat in which G is.
(a) 30000 (b) 50000 IV. The maximum number of persons in one boat can be four
(c) 100000 (d) None of these only.
Directions (Q. Nos. 49-52) In each of the following 57. If F and B are in one boat, which of the following statements
questions there are two blanks marked I and II. is true?
(a) G is in the other boat
The words to fill in these blanks are given against I as (A), (B),
(b) D is in the other boat
(C), (D) and II as (P), (Q), (R), (S) respectively. The right words to
(c) C is in the other boat
fill in these blanks are given as four alternatives. The words on
either side of the sign (::) have a similar relationship. That (d) E is with F and B in one boat
alternative which signifies this relationship is your answer. 58. If E gets the boat with F, which of the following is the
49. I. : Increase :: Descend : II complete and accurate list of the people, who must be sitting
in other boat?
I. (A) Grow (B) Ascend (C) Rise (D) Price
(a) F and E (b) G and A
II. (P) Reduce (Q) Down (R) Decrease (S) Mountain
(c) D and A (d) C, D and B
(a) AR (b) RB
(c) CP (d) DQ
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) A series of figures has been
50. Modern : I :: II : Old shown on the left. Find the figure in the place of ‘?’ from
I. (A) Ancient (B) Death (C) Famous (D) Civilization the figures on the right.
II. (P) Industrialisation (Q) Young (R) Fashion (S) Western 59.
(a) AQ (b) AS (c) BP (d) CR
?
51. Part : I :: Class : II
I. (A) Section (B) Whole (C) School (D) Students
II. (P) Student (Q) School (R) Teachers (S) Rooms
(a) AR (b) BQ (c) CP (d) DS
52. Summit : Apex :: I : II (a) (b) (c) (d)
I. (A) beautiful (B) Picture (C) Attractive (D) Enchanting
II. (P) Comfortable (Q) Pretty (R) Healthy (S) Brave 60.
(a) AQ (b) BP ?
(c) DS (d) CR
53. If in a certain code, ‘BEAUTIFUL’ is coded as ‘573041208’,
‘BUTTER’ as ‘504479’, how is ‘FUTURE’ coded in that code?
(a) 201497 (b) 204097
(c) 704092 (d) 204079
(a) (b) (c) (d)
61. Complete the following series. 65. A person makes 12 min of ISD calls in a month. If 80% of his
GMSY, IOUA, KQWC, ? ISD bill came from calling the rest of the world, then the ISD
(a) MSYE (b) NSYE (c) MYTE (d) MSYF calls for the minimum duration were made to which of the
following group of countries?
Directions (Q. Nos. 62-65) Following is a new plan called (a) USA, Canada, Europe (Fixed Line)
‘Airtel One’, Introduced by Airtel (GSM Service Provider) (b) Gulf, Europe (Mobile), SAARC
for its post-paid customers. (c) Rest of the world
(d) Cannot be determined
Pulse Rate 60 s
Price of Plan ` 99
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-67) These questions are based on
Free Airtime on Plan Nil the graph which shows the demand and production
Incoming Calls( `) Free statistics of 5 TV companies.
Outgoing Calls `/minute Airtel GSM / Landline / WLL
CDMA 66. What is the difference between the average demand and
Local rates `1 `1 `2
Demand Production
3300
STD rates
3000
3500
50-200 km ` 1.50 ` 1.50 `2
2700
2500
200-500 km ` 1.50 ` 2.50 ` 2.50 3000
2200
500 + km ` 1.50 ` 3.00 ` 3.50 2500
1800
2000
1500
ISD
1200
1000
USA, Canada, `7 1500
Europe (Fixed Line) 1000
600
Gulf, Europe ` 10
500
(Mobile) SAARC
0
Rest of the world ` 40 A B C D E
SMS
Local ` 1.50 the average production of the five companies taken
National ` 2.00 together?
International ` 5.00 (a) 1400 (b) 400 (c) 280 (d) 138
Value Added ` 3.00 and ` 6.00 67. The production of the company D is how many times of the
Service (`) Depending on the service production of the company A?
Monthly bill = Call Charges + SMS Charges + Price of Plan (a) 1.8 (b) 1.5 (c) 2.5 (d) 1.11
62. If Mohan made STD calls (within 100 km) for 30 min and
spent 100 min on local calls with 30% on landline, 40% on
Directions (Q. Nos. 68-69) The following questions are
based on the pie chart given below which gives the
GSM and 30% on Airtel and Rohan spent 18 min on STD
expenditure incurred in printing a magazine.
within 150 km and spent 120 min on local calls with 30%,
Miscellaneous
40% and 30% on GSM, Iandline and Airtel respectively,
2%
then who spent more? Transportation Paper cost
(a) Mohan 4% 10%
(b) Rohan Binding
(c) Both spent the same amount 12%
(d) Cannot be determined Printing
24%
63. A new SMS scheme was introduced at 60 paise/local SMS,
with an additional monthly charge of ` 35. Who will not Promotion cost
benefit from the scheme? A person sending 18%
(a) 38 local SMS a month Editorial Content
(b) 40 local SMS a month development
30%
(c) 60 local SMS a month
(d) 59 local SMS a month
68. What is the angle for the sector representing paper cost?
64. A bill of ` 199 per month is definitely not possible when you (a) 10° (b) 36° (c) 23.5° (d) 45°
make only
(a) 30 calls to Airtel on STD (500 + km) and 55 local calls
69. For a given issue of the magazine, the 2% of the cost is
` 2000 and the print-run is 12500 copies. What should be
in a month
the sale price if the publisher desires a profit of 5%?
(b) 16 calls to Airtel on STD (15 km and 76 local calls in a
(a) ` 5 (b) ` 7.5 (c) ` 8 (d) ` 8.40
month)
(c) 10 STD calls (250 km) each to Airtel, GSM and landline 70. If ‘water’ is called ‘food’, ‘food’ is called ‘tree’, ‘tree’ is called
respectively and 30 locals in a month ‘sky’, ‘sky’ is called ‘wall’, on which of the following does a
(d) 8,4 and 7 calls to Airtel, GSM and landline respectively ‘fruit’ grow?
on STD ( 500 + Kms) and 55 local calls in a month (a) Water (b) Food (c) Tree (d) Sky
Section III General English

Direction (Q.Nos. 71-72) Choose the correct option to fill the 85. I racked my brains to solve this difficult problem.
blank for correct grammatical use. (a) I read a large number of books
(b) I consulted several people
71. She is a close friend of mine.
(c) I used my commonsense
(a) my (b) I (c) me (d) mine
(d) I subject my mind to hard thinking
72. He took care of her before she was restored to health.
(a) when (b) before (c) after (d) till Directions (Q. Nos. 86-87) Select the most appropriate
73. Choose the correct option. meaning of the underlined idiomatic phrase.
The man .......... his appearance completely since then. 86. I was supposed to give a speech to my English class, but I got
(a) is changing (b) changed cold feet and I didn’t go.
(c) has changed (d) is changed (a) My English class-room makes my feet feel too cold
74. From the options below, choose the word with the incorrect (b) My feet got cold so I didn’t go
spelling. (c) I got too nervous and I didn’t go
(a) Diarrhea (b) Diaper (c) Dichotomy (d) Dias (d) It was winter time and I had no socks for my feet
75. Choose the word spelt correctly 87. Take care of what you say! You will have to eat your words!
(a) superintentent (b) seive (a) You have no food to eat
(c) alloted (d) dissipatc (b) You will have to take back what you have said
(c) You are not good with your language
Direction (Q. Nos. 76-79) Fill in the blanks with the correct (d) None of the above
pair of words. 88. Which two sentences convey the same idea?
76. He lives .......... Bengaluru .......... 115, Richmond Road. 1. Shouldn’t they have checked your tickets?
(a) at, in (b) in, at (c) at, on (d) in, on 2. I wonder, if they should have checked your tickets.
77. ‘Aurally challenged’ is a .......... for the ............ 3. I want to know, if they checked your tickets.
(a) metaphor, blind (b) euphemism, deaf 4. They should have checked your tickets.
(c) smile, disabled (d) synonym, dumb (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
78. If error is a ..........., fault is .............
(a) defect, a mistake (b) mistake, a defect Directions (Q. Nos. 89-90) Choose a single word, which is
(c) slip, an inaccuracy (d) blunder, to blame opposed to the meaning contained in the sentence.
79. The man has ............ the rules of ethical conduct; he is 89. He was magnanimous and his benevolence made him give
.......... a beast. to charity.
(a) flaunted, literally (b) ignored, basically (a) mean (b) cruel (c) snobbish (d) tyrannical
(c) broken, as (d) flouted, virtually 90. Biannual is
(a) once is two years (b) every year
Directions (Q. Nos. 80-81) Which punctuation mark is (c) twice a year (d) after every two years
missing in the following sentences?
(a) inverted commas (b) semicolon 91. Choose the odd one out
(c) comma (d) hyphen (a) temporal (b) ephemeral
(c) transient (d) eternal
80. Part of Australia is known to the natives as The Outback.
81. I know, that you want to learn to drive Rima but you are too 92. Choose the correct option If ‘inter’ mean; between as in
interstate, ‘intra’ as in intravenous means
young.
(a) into (b) onto
Directions (Q. Nos. 82-83) Select as option the word (c) with in (d) without
closest in meaning to the given word. 93. Match the List-I (parts of speach) to List-I (thier usage)
82. Veracious List I List II
(a) False (b) Varied (c) Image (d) Truthful (Parts of speach) (Their usage)
83. Perturb A. Adjective 1. The fire engine come rushing down the hill.
B. Preposition 2. He was seen the ups and downs of life.
(a) Stipulate (b) Turn around 3. Down with the tyrant.
C. Noun
(c) Disturb greatly (d) Compatible C. Verb 4. The porter was hit by the down train
Direction (Q. Nos. 84-85) Choose the option that is the Codes
closest in meaning to the phrases in bold. A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
84. He was a king, who ruled his subject with a high hand.
(b) 2 1 4 3
(a) sympathetically (b) oppressively
(c) democratically (d) generously
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 1 3 2 4
Directions (Q. Nos. 94-95) Choose the segment with the 102. Re-arrange the scrambled segments in logical order to make
error. If there is no error, choose ‘d’. a complete sentence
1. to places, where more opportunities are available
94. Match the items in List I with those in List II
2. and so there is a great demand for English
List I List II 3. for professional and economic growth
A. As deaf as 1. gall
B. As bitter 2. an eel
4. because it takes one outside one’s own community
C. As unpredictable as 3. a post 5. English is the language of opportunities
D. As slippery as 4. The weather (a) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 (b) 5, 4, 1, 3, 2
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 (d) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
Codes
A B C D A B C D 103. Choose the best construction
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 3 1 4 2 (a) If you would have taken care you wouldn’t have got
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 1 3 2 4 typhoid.
(b) If you took care you wouldn’t have got typhoid.
95. Match the List I (Parts of spech) to List II (their usage).
(c) If you take care you wouldn’t have got typhoid.
List I (Parts of speech) List II (Their usage) (d) If you had taken care you wouldn’t have got typhoid.
A. Adjective 1. Rain comes from above
B. Preposition 2. His conduct is above suspicion.
C. Noun 3. Look above the mantel piece.
Directions (Q. Nos. 104-105) Choose the correct option.
D. Verb 4. The above information is for public 104. At times, we are all .......... to be mistaken.
Codes (a) apt (b) likely
A B C D A B C D (c) considered (d) able
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 2 1 4 105. He hardly cares, .............?
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 (a) does he (b) doesn’t he (c) will he (d) won't he
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-97) Choose the segment with the Directions (Q. Nos. 106-107) Identify the figures of speech in
error. If there is no error, choose ‘d’. the following sentences.
96. Idli and Sambar make the breakfast in the South. No error 106. As proud as a peacock.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) Metaphor (b) Simile
97. Your account should have been credited (c) Apostrophe (d) Epigram
(a) (b) 107. Death lays his icy hand on kings.
with three months interest. No error (a) Personification (b) Exclamation
(c) (d) (c) Simile (d) Anticlimax
98. Choose the sentence where the underlined word is used Direction (Q. Nos. 108-110) Read the passage carefully and
appropriately
answer within the context.
(a) Who's car are you planning to borrow?
(b) Whose planning to have a birthday party? A Way to Deal with Frozen Feelings
(c) He is the person who you met at the junction.
Every child experiences all that happens around him with total
(d) Does he know whom to call about the hoted
awareness. In the first seven years, the child’s brain is like a
reservations? sponge, taking in all sensory inputs and building his idea of his
surroundings. As long as the environment is safe, the child
Directions (Q. Nos. 99-100) Choose the segment with the learns with incredible speed. However, when the environment is
error. If there is no error, choose ‘d’. scary or stressful, the unlearns past learning just as rapidly. In
(a) if the first sentence is correct. the early years of every child’s life, whenever there is shock,
(b) if the second sentence is correct. violence, fear or pain, these intense emotions are imprinted
deeply into memory. Whenever the same activity or situation is
(c) if both sentences are correct. repeated, the nervous system and body subconsciously
(d) if both sentences are wrong. re-experience the memory of that trauma.
99. 1. Can you imagine his forgetting his own birthday? An emotional situation that takes us out of the present and into
2. Can you imagine him forgetting his own birthday? the past means that whenever the same kind of emotion crops
100. 1. Recently, I read about a unique wedding that took place up later in our life, we return to the past for our reference point. If
that point was at age three, we find ourselves behaving like a
in the newspaper. three-years-old. We feel childish and we behave childishly. Our
2. Recently, I read in the newspaper about a unique feelings are the cause of this ‘glitch’ in our learning process. We
wedding that took place. know we should be able to make a positive change, but that
101. Complete the given sentence by choosing the correct phrase doesn’t change anything.
You cannot succeed unless The process of change need not be traumatic. We couldn’t have
(a) you do not work hard (b) you shall not work hard done any better because we didn’t know to. But we should
(c) You will work hard (d) you work hard realise that was then and this is now! We can choose to choose
again. It’s up to us. It’s our movie!
108. The “Frozen Feelings” being talked about are about. (c) sudden malfunction or breakdown
(a) negative childhood experiences (d) learning patterns
(b) Childhood learning patterns 110. Identify the correct statement, based on the paragraph.
(c) Inability to learn as an adult
(d) none of the above (a) The process of change needs to be traumatic
(b) We feel childish and we behave childishly
109. A ‘glitch’ is (c) Both sentences are incorrect
(a) a ditch (d) Both the sentences are correct
(b) uneasy emotions
Section IV General Awareness

111. Dendrochronology is 120. What is the nickname of New York City?
(a) The method of scientific dating based on the analysis of (a) Big Sweet Lime (b) Big Apple
tree-ring growth patterns. (c) Big Grape (d) None of these
(b) a core sample from the accumulation of snow and ice 121. Which was the first Indian company to be listed on
over many years that have re-crystallised and have NASDAQ?
trapped air bubbles from previous time periods. (a) TCS (b) Wipro
(c) is the study of glaciers, or more generally ice and (c) Infosys (d) Cognizant
natural phenomena that involve ice.
(d) the scientific study of landforms and the processes that 122. ‘TAREGNA’ a village in Bihar was in the news because of
shape them. (a) Rahul Gandhi’s election campaign
(b) Viewing of the solar eclipse
112. Which company launched the first mobile phone operation (c) A visit by Hillary Clinton
in India?
(d) The Naxal massacre of tribals
(a) Bharti Airtel (b) Essar
(c) Max Touch (d) Modi Telstra 123. The driver for Formula One’s Force India Team is
(a) Mark Webber (b) Adrian Sutil
113. Which is the longest running English language TV cartoon in (c) Felipe Massa (d) Jensen Button
history, first launched by Warner Brothers in 1969
124. (MDRT)—Million Dollar Round Table consists of
exclusively for television and is now a popular fare on the
(a) World’s richest industrialists
Cartoon Network?
(b) World’s most powerful golfers
(a) Scooby-Doo (b) Tom and Jerry
(c) Global Association of Life Insurance professionals
(c) Popeye (d) Johnny Bravo
(d) World’s richest sportpersons
114. The expansion for BIFR, in the context of the Indian
Industry is
125. Who declares the ‘Credit Policy’ of India?
(a) The Finance Ministry
(a) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (b) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Bureau for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (c) The Commerce Ministry
(c) Board for Investment and Financial Reconstruction (d) The Indian Banks’ Association (IBA)
(d) Bureau for Investment and Financial Reconstruction
126. Name of the body which regulates the Stock Exchanges in
115. What is Ekistics? India is
(a) The water sports related study (a) CBI (b) CID
(b) The Science of body mass (c) SHCIL (d) SEBI
(c) The art of card tricks
127. Rafflesia arnoldii is its botanical name and it holds a world
(d) The Science of human settlements
record in the plant world. What’s the record?
116. What is Red Herring in an IPO? (a) Tallest cacti
(a) Prospectus (b) Largest bloom
(b) Submission of Form (c) Longest surviving tree
(c) Funds Generated during IPO (d) Smallest plant
(d) Minimum Offer Per Share 128. Temujin was a famous historical character of the world, but
117. Eight O’clock coffee, a US based coffee marketer, is a group we know him by a different name. Which one?
company of (a) Babur (b) Genghis Khan
(a) Tata (b) ITC (c) Britannia (d) Unilever (c) Kublai Khan (d) Emperor Nero
118. Bio-diesel is extracted from the following plant 129. What is Short Selling in stock market lingo?
(a) Hibiscus (b) Aloe Vera (a) Selling the shares which you do not own.
(c) Jatropha (d) Chamomile (b) Selling a share after owning it for a short period of time.
(c) Selling all the shares in your booty, which are not
119. Which woman tennis player won the maximum number of productive.
Grand Slam singles titles in the history of tennis? (d) Selling of shares-which are quoted for a short period of
(a) Steffi Graf (b) Martina Navratilova time.
(c) Billi Jean King (d) Margaret Court
130. Mahatma Gandhi was nominated for Nobel Peace prize for 140. Who won the 2009 French Open tennis ladies title?
the first time in the year 1937 and last time in the year 1948. (a) Svetlana Kuznetsova (b) Kristina Mladenovic
How many times in between these two years was he (c) Maria Sharapova (d) Venus Williams
nominated? 141. Who invented the microchip?
(a) 1 (b) 3
(a) Robert Noyce and Jack Kilby
(c) 2 (d) 0
(b) Larry Page and Sergey Brin
131. Who among the following has been awarded with Rajiv (c) Sabeer Bhatia
Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2012? (d) Gordon Moore and Robert Noyce
(a) Vijay kumar (b) Yogeshwar Dutt 142. Which is the largest landlocked country in the world?
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Sushil Kumar
(a) Switzerland (b) China
132. Who has won Women’s Single Title US Open, 2012? (c) Kazakhstan (d) Mongolia
(a) Victoria Azarneka (b) Serena Williams 143. Which country makes Panama Huts?
(c) Sara Errani (d) Roberta Vinci (a) Ecuador (b) Panama (c) Cuba (d) Bolivia
133. Which bank has launched Click-2-Card Service on August 144. Who was the Prime Minister of India when the 42nd
28, 2012? Amendment Bill bringing in the changes in the Constitution
(a) PNB (b) SBI was passed?
(c) ICICI (d) HDFC
(a) Rajiv Gandhi (b) VP Singh
134. Who has been elected as the President of Somalia by the (c) Indira Gandhi (d) Morarji Desai
country’s Parliament on September 11, 2012? 145. Which one of the following planets lost its planet status
(a) Mohammed Osman Jawari recently?
(b) Muse Hussan Abdulle (a) Moon (b) Neptune (c) Pluto (d) Saturn
(c) Sharif Sheikh Ahmed
(d) Hassan Sheikh Mahmood 146. One barrel of oil is approximately equivalent to how many
litres?
135. Who has been appointed as the chairman of National Book (a) 200 (b) 150 (c) 120 (d) 160
Trust (NBT) on September 6, 2012?
(a) Sukumar Azhikode (b) A Sethumadhavan 147. Five Year Plans in India are finally approved by the
(c) KN Tilak Kumar (d) None of these (a) Union Cabinet
(b) President on the Advice of Prime Minister
136. Who has Written the book ‘Still Counting The Dead’? (c) National Development Council
(a) Frances Harrison (b) Faisal Devji (d) Planning Commission
(c) JK Rowling (d) None of these
148. Many a times we read in the newspapers about Southern
137. How many scientists has been selected for Shanti Swarup Cone of South America; which includes Argentina, Chile,
Bhatnagar Prize 2012?
Paraguay, Uruguay and Peru. Which is the most spoken
(a) 11 (b) 10 language of this geographical area?
(c) 12 (d) 13
(a) Portugese (b) Spanish
138. Who were the first twins to play test cricket? (c) French (d) English
(a) Merv and Kim Hughes
(b) Ian and Greg Chappel
149. Which one of the following is not a member of the
(c) Surinder and Mohinder Amarnath
Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)?
(d) Steve and Mark Waughs
(a) Algeria (b) Brazil (c) Ecuador (d) Nigeria
139. Which country has the largest rail network in the world? 150. Who invented ‘computer laptop’?
(a) India (b) China (a) Arthur Wynna - USA (b) Q Daimler - Germany
(c) USA (d) UK (c) Sinclair - Britain (d) None of these
Answer with Explanations
1. (d) Total number of favourable outcomes, n(S) = 63 = 216 300(2 − 5) 300 × − 3 × 7
= ×7= = ` 6300
14 − 15 −1
Combinations of outcomes for getting sum of 15 on uppermost
face = (4,5,6), (5,4,6), (6,5,4), (5,6,4), (4,6,5), (6,4,5), (5,5,5), 7. (d) Old price of rice = ` 24 per kg
(6,6,3), (6,3,6), (3,6,6) New price of rice = ` 27 per kg
Now, outcomes on which first roll was a four, n(E) ∴ Increase in price of rice
= (4,5,6), (4,6,5) = New price − Old price
n(E ) 2 1
∴ P(E) = = = = 27 − 24 = ` 3 per kg
n(S ) 216 108 3 1
∴Increased percentage in price = ×100 =12 %
2. (d) Speed of boat downstream = Distance covered 24 2
Time taken Now, reduction in consumption, so as to keep the expenditure
30 fixed.
= =15 km/h
2 According to the formula,
Distance covered  a   12.5 
Now, speed of boat downstream = = ×100 % =  ×100 % =111
.%
Time taken
 100 + a   100 + 12. 5 
30
= = 5 km/h
6 8. (b) There are 10 stations on railway line.
Speed downstream + Speed upstream So, the number of different journey tickets between two
∴ Speed of boat =
2 stations from given 10 stations from one side,
15 + 5 20 10 × 9
= = =10 km/h
10
C2 = = 45
2 2 2
3. (d) Number of five-digit numbers which can be formed with 1, Similarly, number of different journey tickets from other side
2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetition, = 45
∴Total number of tickets to be generated by authorities
n(S) = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 ×1 =120
= 45 + 45 = 90
Number of five-digit numbers which are formed with 1, 2, 3, 4
and 5 are divisible by 4 9. (a) Increase in circumference of circle = 5%
= 2(3 × 2) ∴ Increase in radius is also 5%.
n(E) = 12 Now, increase in area of circle is given by the following formula
As last two digit must be 12 or 24.  a2 
=  2a + %
P(E )=
n(E ) 12 1
= =  100 
n(S ) 120 10 5 × 5
where, a = Increase in radius =  2 × 5 +  % = 12. 5%
4. (d) Mean = Sum of observation  100 
Number of observation
10. (d) There are 6 letters in ‘ABACUS’
Sum of observation is given as =70
∴Number of vowels = 3 (A, A, U)
Number of observation = 20
70 As these 3 vowels has to be together, then we have to arrange 4
Mean = = 3.5 letters.
20
∴ Ways of arranging 4 letters = 4!
But here observation starts from 23. 3!
So, mean is 23 + 3.5 = 26.5 Ways of arranging 3 vowels =
2!
5. (a) Gold in 50 g of alloy = 80 × 50 = 40 g (since, there are 2 A, so it is divided by 2)
100 3!
Now, according to question, Now, possible number of combinations are 4!× .
2!
40 + x 90
⇒ =
50 + x 100 11. (c) Amount = ` 8000, Time (T) = 4 yr, Principal (P) = ` 6000,
Rate (R%) = ?
⇒ 100(40 + x )= 90(50 + x )
Simple Interest (SI) = ( A − P )
⇒ 10(40 + x )= 9(50 + x )
= Amount − Principle = 8000 − 6000 = ` 2000
⇒ 400 + 10 x = 450 + 9 x
According to the formula of simple interest,
x = 450 − 400 = 50 g P×R×T
Thus, 50 g of gold must be added to make it 90%. SI =
100
6. (c) Ratio of income =7 : 3 6000 × R × 4
2000 =
and ratio of expenses = 5: 2 100
2000 ×100 25
So, a=7, b = 3, c = 5, d= 2, x = ` 300 R= = %
x (d − c ) . 6000 × 4 3
∴ Income of 1st person = a
(ad − bc )
Solved Paper 2012 • SNAP (Symbiosis National Aptitude Test) | 11
Now, again Now, their ratio of money at the end of the day
Amount (A) = ` 700 4 5
= z1 : z1 : z1 = 4 : 5 : 3
Principal (P) = ` 525, Time (T) = ? 3 3
25
Rate (R) = % Now, J’s share in the evening was =
4 1
3 12 3
Simple Interest = A − P = ` (700 − 525) = ` 175 5 1
J’s share in the morning was =
Using formula, 20 4
25
525 × × T So, J’s share increases, hence he win.
P×R×T 3
SI = ⇒ 175 = Now, winning share = − =
1 1 1
100 100 3 4 12
175 ×100 × 3
∴ T= = 4 yr 14. (c) Now, let total money is a.
525 × 25
Then, by condition given in question for B,
12. (d) Let the money with J = x 11 5
a − a = 200
The money with B = y 20 12
The money with T = z As B lost ` 200.
66 a − 50 a
According to the question, = 200
x + y = 4z ...(i) 120
and z + y = 3x ...(ii) a = 1500
11
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii) we get Now, B’s amount in starting = × 1500 = ` 825
x + y = 4z 20
z + y = 3x 15. (c) By given condition
( −) – –
a and b = − ve
x − z = 4z − 3x c = + ve
⇒ x + 3x = 4z + z ⇒ 4x = 5z 1
5 Then, = − ve
∴ x= z b
4 1
= + ve
On putting value of x in Eq. (i), we get c
5 1 1
z + y = 4z So, <
4 b c
5 16 z − 5 z 11
y = 4z − z = = z 16. (a) Diagonal of square = 2 a
4 4 4
where a = Side of square 4 2 = 2 a,
Now, ratio of money with J, B and T, respectively J : B : T
5 11 5 11 a = 4 cm
z : z : z ⇒ : : 1 ⇒ 5 : 11 : 4
4 4 4 4 Now, area of square = a2 = (4)2 = 16
4 4 1 Side of a square whose area is 2 × 16.
Now, T’s share in total money = = =
5 + 11 + 4 20 5 ∴ a12 = 32; a1 = 32; a1 = 4 2
13. (a) Using 2nd condition, Now, diagonal of new square = 2 a = 2 × 4 2 = 8 cm
Let the money with J in end = x1 17. (c) Length of largest pencil that can be kept in a box
The money with B in end = y1
The money with T in end = z1 = l2 + b2 + h 2
According to the condition given in question,
where, l= 8 cm, b = 6 cm, h = 2 cm
x1 + y1 = 3z1 ...(iii)
and z1 + y1 = 2 x1 ...(iv) = 64 + 36 + 4 = 104 = 2 26 cm
On subtracting Eq. (iv) from Eq. (iii), we get 18. (c) Venn diagram can be rearranged as
x1 + y1 = 3z1
z1 + y1 = 2 x1 Y
2.5
(–) – – X 4.6
4.7
x1 − z1 = 3 z1 − 2 x1 0.5
1.0 1.5
⇒ 3 x1 = 4 z1
4
∴ x1 = z1 Z 2.6
3
On putting value of x1 in Eq. (iii), we get
4 So, total number of reader who read atleast one newspaper
z1 + y1 = 3 z1 = 4.7 + 4.6 + 2.6 + 0.5 + 1.0 + 1.5 + 2.5 = 17.4 (in lakh)
3
4 9 z − 4 z1 5 19. (b) Number of reader who read only one newspaper
y1 = 3 z1 − z1 = 1 = z1
3 3 3 = 4.7 + 4. 6 + 2. 6 = 11.9 lakh
20. (a) Total salary spent on insurance, shopping and household 26. (c) A five digit which divisible by 3 is formed when sum of digits
expenses = 15 + 55 = 70% is also divisible by 3.
∴ Saving = 100 − 70 = 30% So, combination formed using six digits, which are divisible by 3
Let the total salary be x. = 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15
∴ 30% of x = ` 12750 = 5 + 4 + 2 + 1 + 0 = 12
30 × x 12750 × 100 So, set of numbers are ( 5, 4, 3, 2, 1) and (5, 4, 2, 1, 0).
⇒ = 12750 ⇒ x = = ` 42500
100 30 Number formed by using 1st set = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 120
21. (a) Let the quantity of tea worth ` 25 = x Similarly, using 2nd set = 4 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 96
Hence, using 2nd set underlined place cannot be filled by 0
Then, by condition given in question,
otherwise it will become a four digit numbers.
110
(25 x + 30 × 30) × = 30 (30 + x ) ∴ Total numbers = 120 + 96 = 216
100
⇒ (25 x + 900)11 = 10 (900 + 30 x ) 27. (c) Using formula,
⇒ 275 x + 9900 = 9000 + 300 x M1 D1 H1 M 2 D2 H 2
=
⇒ 300 x − 275 x = 900 W1 W2
900 2
x= = 36 kg Here, M1 = 105, D1 = 25 , H1 = 8, W1 =
25 5
22. (c) Total number of students = 480 Now, let the additional men be x.
2 3
Percentage of total student passed Then, M 2 = 105 + x, D2 = 25 , H 2 = 9, W2 = 1 − =
75 5 5
=75% of total student = × 480 = 360 students On putting these values in the above formula, we get
100
105 × 25 × 8 (105 + x ) × 25 × 9
Now, using the condition from the question, let the number of =
2/ 5 3/ 5
boys be x.
105 × 8 (105 + x ) × 9
Then, ⇒ =
2 3
70% of x + 85% of (480 − x ) = 360
⇒ 105 × 4 = (105 + x ) × 3
70 × x 85 × (480 − x )
⇒ + = 360 ⇒ 105 × 4 = 105 × 3 + 3 x ⇒ 3 x = 105
100 100
∴ x = 35 men
⇒ 70 x − 85 x + 40800 = 36000
⇒ 40800 − 36000 = 85 x − 70 x ⇒ 4800 = 15 x 28. (d) A’s one day work = 1
4800 8
∴ x= = 320 1
15 B’s one day work in breaking the building =
∴ There are 320 boys who appeared for the examination. 3
Now, according to the question, A’s four days work
∴ (120 + x ) 2 = 300 + x 1 1
∴ 240 + 2 x = 300 + x =4 × =
8 2
x = 60 g − 5 −10
Now, A’s and B’s two days work = 2  −  = 2 ×
1 1
=
23. (b) 40% is salt in 300 g of salt solution.  8 3 24 24
40 × 300
The quantity of salt = = 120 g 1  −10  12 −10 2 1
100 +
Total work done in 6 days = = = =
120 + x 50 2  24  24 24 12
Now, by the condition in the question, = 1 11
300 + x 100 ∴Remaining work =1 − =
12 12
24. (d) Series is given as
Now, A has to complete the work, so A can complete in
6 × 2 → 12 × 2→ 24
x days.
48 × 2 → 96 × 2 → 192 1 11
∴ × x=
25. (b) In the given arrangement transition takes place as follows 8 12
11 × 8 11 × 2 1
1
+
2
c
3
T
x= = = 7 days
12 3 3
29. (c) Let the first term of GP = a and common ratio = r
c T + So, series is as follows a , ar, ar 2 and ar 3 .
Now, conditions given in question are
T a + ar =12 ...(i)
+ c
ar 2 + ar 3 = 48 ...(ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
Also, the unshaded figure follow the pattern of change from r 2 (a + ar )= 48
3→1→ 2→ 3→1 r 2 (12)= 48
On putting value of (a + ar ) from Eq, (i), we get 35. (d) Total respondent who’s favourite style of music is Jazz
48 = (1 + 4 + 11)=16
r2 =
12 Total respondent = (33 + 33 + 68)=134
r2 = 4 16
∴ Percentage of respondent = ×100 ≈12%
r = − 2, 2 134
As given in the question terms alternate as positive and 36. (c) Total non-US arts faculty = 21 + 6 + 2 + 4 = 33
negative, so taking r = − 2 and putting value in Eq. (i), Total arts faculty = 21 + 6 + 2 + 4 + 79 =112
a + a(− 2)=12 ∴ Percentage of non-US arts faculty
⇒ a − 2a =12 ⇒ − a =12 33
= ×100 ≈ 30%
∴ a= −12 112
Sum of observations
30. (c) Mean = 37. (b) As their are 1049 students in arts which constitutes 23% of
Number of observations total students by faculty
a + b + 8 + 5 + 10 23 × x
6= So, =1049
5 100
30 = a + b + 23 1049 ×100
∴ x= = 4560 students
a + b =7 …(i) 23
Now, a=7 − b Total students = 4560
(a − 6)2 + (b − 6)2 + (8 − 6)2  Percentage of Engineering student = 9%
  9 × 4560
 + (5 − 6) + (10 − 6) 
2 2
Total number of Engineering student = = 410students
Variance =  100
5
= 6.80 × 5 = (a − 6)2 + (b − 6)2 + (2)2 + (−1)2 + (4)2 38. (b) Total number of students = 4560
On putting value of a from Eq. (i), we get Calculated in question number 37.
34 = (7 − b − 6)2 + b2 + 36 −12 b + 4 + 1 + 16 39. (d) Total number of Science students
⇒ 34 = (1 − b)2 + b2 −12 b + 57 21 × 4560
= 21% of total students = ≈ 958 students
⇒ 34 = b2 − 2 b + 1 + b2 −12 b + 57 100
2 b2 −14 b + 24 = 0 …(ii) Now, there are 6% Asian students
On solving above equations, we get ∴ Total Asian students = 6% of total Science students
b = 3, 4 and a= 4, 3 6 × 958
= ≈ 57 students
Now, only option (c) match the above with a= 3 and b = 4. 100
31. (a) Agent receives commission in the ratio = 12 1 % 40. (d) Total number of Medical students = 5% of total students
2 5 × 4560
= ≈ 228 students
Total value of goods sold = ` 15000 100
1
∴ Agents commission =12 % of 15000 Percentage of medical student who are European 34% of 228
2 34 × 228
25 15000 = ≈15%
= × = ` 1875 100
2 100
41. (c) Code for ‘earn’ is ‘ha’.
32. (b) 110.25 × 0.01 ÷ 0.0025 − 420.25
42. (d) more time → jo zi
⇒ 10.5 ×10.5 × 01 . × 01
. ÷ 0.05 × 0.05 − 20.5 × 20.5
43. (b) Code for ‘manage’ → pa
⇒ 10.5 × 01
. ÷ 0.05 − 20.5 =10.5 × 2 − 20.5
44. (b) As Lou’s arguement are not fallacious. He has reasons to
= 21.0 − 20.5 = 0.50
support his arguement but Evelyn statement does not have any
33. (b) Number of respondents under 31 who’s favourite style of reason to support his arguement.
music is blues 45. (b) In the statement, it is concluded that cars are safer than
= 2+ 3  2 from age group of 15-20 plane and 50% plane accident results in death but number of

=5 3 from age group of 21-30 car accident are several hundred thousand times more, so this
result in more deaths in car accidents. So, this statement
Total respondents below 31 = 33 + 33 = 66
seriously weaken the above statement.
5
∴ Percentage of respondents = ×100 = 7.57% ≈ 7.6% 46. (b) Company’s is contributed by B and C.
66
34. (a) Total respondents between 21-30 who’s favourite style is 47. (d) Industry B’s production cannot be determined as it is not
other than rock = (4 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 3 + 2)= 21 and total clear from the figure.
respondents = 33 48. (d) A’s contribution to primary users = Usage of (P + Q + R )
∴ Per cent of respondents who’s favourite style is other than rock together
21 Now, (P + Q + R )’s consumption = (15 + 15 + 15) = 45 %
= × 100
33 Now, here100% of manufacture accounts to 100000 tonnes.
≈ 64% So, production of A will be 45% of total production.
As we cannot calculate percentage of elements given to Industry 60. (c) In the arrangement given, the change from figure 1 is that
A for production from different elements. black dots remain at the same place and rest is rotated 180°.
∴ A’s annual production is 45% of 100000 Similarly, for answer figure dots will remain at their places and
45 ×100000 rest is rotated by 180°.
= = 45000 tonnes
100 So, answer figure is given in option (c).
49. (b) Decrease is opposite of Increase similarly opposite of 61. (a)
GM S Y
descend is ascend. +2 +2 +2 +2
50. (a) Opposite to modern is ancient and in the same way young is I O U A
opposite of old. +2 +2 +2 +2
51. (b) By combining parts, it become complete or as a whole and in K Q W C

+2 +2 +2 +2
the same way combining classes it become a school.
M S Y E
52. (a) Summit and apex are same in meaning i.e., on the top
similarly beautiful and pretty are also save meaning. 62. (b) Spending of Mohan is calculated below 30 min STD (within
53. (b) 100 km)
B E A U T I F UL B UT T E R = 30 ×1.5 = ` 45
30 ×100 
30% of 100 min in local landline =   × 2 = ` 60
5 7 3 0 4 12 0 8 5 0 4 4 7 9  100 
30 ×100 
So, code of FUTURE is F UT URE 30% of 100 min on Airtel local =   ×1 = ` 30
 100 
2 0 4 0 9 7 40 ×100 
40% of 100 min on GSM local =   ×1 = ` 40
54. (d) There are months of 30, 31 and 28 days and last day of  100 
month is Wednesday. Total spending = (45 + 60 + 40 + 30)= ` 175
So, using 30 days, there are 4 Mondays. Total spending of Rohan is
Using 31 days, there are 5 Mondays. 18 min of STD within 150 km =18 ×1.50 = ` 27
30 ×120 
So, it cannot be defermined. 30% of 120 min of GSM local =   ×1 = ` 36
55. (b) For 1st condition  100 
30 ×120 
17 ×
12
=102 30% of 120 min of Airtel local =   ×1 = ` 36
2  100 
40 ×120 
40% of 120 min of landline local = 
10
Similarly, 15 × = ?  × 2 = ` 96
2  100 
?=75 Total spendings = (27 + 36 + 36 + 96) = ` 195
56. (b) For 1st condition, ∴ Rohan spends more than Mohan.
 12 × 4 ×  14 × 3 = 336 63. (a) Person sending 38 local SMS a month is not benefitted as
   
 3   2  Using old scheme cost of 38 local scheme
 15 × 4 ×  16 × 3 = ? = 38 × 1.5 = ` 57
   
 3   2  Using new scheme total cost is
?= 480 = 38 × 0.6 + 35 = 22.8 × 35 = ` 57.8
57. (a) Using the conditions given in question. So, using new scheme he had a loss of 80 paise in all.
Data can be arranged as 64. (a) By making 30 calls to Airtel on STD (500 + km) amounts to
A C = 30 ×1.5 = ` 45
D 55 local calls, let these all local calls on landline.
Boat –1⇒ E F ⇐ Boat –2
110
B Then, this amounts to = 55 × 2 = `
G 155
So, when F and B are on same boat, then G is in the other boat. So, bill of ` 199 is not possible in condition (a).
58. (d) By rearranging above data using condition from the 65. (d) As it is not cleard from the statement that how much was
question. Data is arranged as the bill, so we cannot determine the duration of minimum ISD
calls made to any countries.
C F
E
66. (c) Total demand of all the company
Boat 1⇒ B G ⇐ Boat 2 = 3000 + 600 + 2500 + 1200 + 3300 =10600
A Total demand 10600
D Average = = = 2120
Number of company 5
∴ It is clear from figure C, B and D are on same boat. Similarly, total production of all companies
59. (c) In the given arrangement, one line from vertical and one = (1500 + 1800 + 1000 + 2700 + 2200) = 9200
from horizontal is removed to form next figure. Total production 9200
Average = = =1840
So, next figure will be given in option (c). Number of company 5
∴ Difference in average demand and average production is 86. (c) I got too nervous and I didn’t go. (Suddenly become too
= 2120 −1840 = 280 frightened to do something one had planned to do).
67. (a) Production of company D = 2700 87. (b) You will have to take back what you have said. (Force to
and production of company A =1500 admit that he said before was wrong).
Production of company D 2700 88. (c) 1, 4
∴Ratio of production = = = 1.8
Production of company A 1500 89. (b) magnamious means greatness of mind benevolence means
So, Production of company D is higher by 1.8 tonnes than generous of charitable antonym of it is cruel, which means hard
production of company A. hearted painful or sagafe.
68. (b)10% of is the paper cost of total. 90. (c) twice a year
x °
and this must be equal to 
10 91. (d) (a) temporal means penetrating to time
So, It is equal to  .
100  360  (b) ephemeral means short lived.
10 x° (c) Transient means short duration
=
100 360° (d) eternal-everlasteng.
⇒ x = 36°
In all the option, wer found they are bounded except (d)
eternal so its the odd one.
69. (d) When 2% of cost is ` 2000.
92. (c) ‘intra’ means ‘within’
Then, 100% of cost is ` 100000.
93. (b) 94. (b)
The publisher wants 5% profit on whole.
5 95. (d) His conduct is above suspicious (Adjective)
So, 5% of total cost = ×100000 = ` 5000
100 The above the mantel piece (Preposition)
The above information is for the public. (adverb)
Total amount or SP of magazine
Rain comes from above (noun).
=100000 + 5000 = ` 105000
Total prints published = ` 12500 96. (c) Replace in with ‘of’ (of is used for the location).
∴ Cost of one magazine 97. (c) credited ‘by’ three months interst. (By is usually implies
SP of Magazine 105000 before time or date).
= = = ` 8.40
Total Magazine 12500 98. (d) ‘Whose’ car are you planning to borrow?
70. (d) Fruit grows on tree and here tree is called as sky. who is planning to have a birthday party? He is the peson
So, Fruit grow on sky. whom you met at the Junction.
71. (d) mine 99. (b) 100. (b)
72. (b) ‘before’, she restored to health restored means to ring back 101. (c) You will work hard (will is used with uneles)
to its original condition. (Before is used in reference to two 102. (b) 5, 4, 1, 3, 2
event).
103. (a)
73. (c) ‘has changed’ (Since is often used with present perfect or 104. (b) Likely (Probability was there to be mistaken).
past perfect time).
105. (b) Doesn’t he?
74. (d) Dias — ‘dais’
106. (b) Simile (Comparision is made).
75. (d) dissipate
107. (a)personification (death is represanted as a person).
76. (b) He lives in Bengaluru at 115, Richmond. (‘in’ is used for big
place, town city or country ‘At’ is used for a point). 108. (a) The ‘frozen feelings’ being talked about the negative
childhood experiences’’. The passage is talking about the
77. (b) euphemism, deaf (hearing disorder). negative experiences of the life, which a child faced in his past,
78. (b) If error is a mistake fault is a defect. which has been deep frozen or settled in his mind, which
79. (d) The man has flouted the rules of ethical conduct, he is effected his whole life. He never been able to forget the trauma,
virtually a beast flouted. (Means to show contempt for or to he had passed through in his childhood. ‘In the early years
mock). (Ethical is related to morals) .......... deeply into the memory.’’
80. (a) Pat of Australia is known to the natives, as ‘The outback’ 109. (c) Glitch means sudden malfunction or breakdown or same
(Specific name of a place). irregularity.
81. (c) I know that you want to learn to drive Rima but, you are to 110. (a) According to passage, ‘‘The process of change needs to be
young. traumatic’’ this is a correct statement, if one try to overcome
from his weakness and fear, he can do it, one should try to
82. (d) Veracious means truthful (one, who observes truth). understand that which had happrmrf in his childhood, it was
83. (c) Perturb means to disturb greatly (to agitate, to throw into his past, now he should try to live in his present and we must
confusion). struggle to save our future its totally in our hands.
84. (b) With a high hand means oppressively or violently. Although option (b) is also confirmed in the second last
paragraph of a passage, but it shows the malfunctioning of our
85. (d) I subjected my mind to hard thinking. (To think very hard behaviour.
usually in order to remember or to find the solution to a
problem).
111. (a) Dendrochronology or tree-ring dating is the scientific 128. (b)

method of dating based on the analysis of patterns of tree rings, 129. (a) Short selling is the selling of a stock that the seller doesn’t
also known as growth rings. Dendrochronology can date the own. More, a short sale is the sale of a security that isn’t owned
time at which tree rings were formed in many types of wood to by the seller, but that is promised to be delivered.
the exact calendar year.
130. (b) Mahatma Gandhi was nominated five times for the Nobel
112. (d) Modi Telstra company (on July 31, 1995) launched the first peace prize in 1937, 1938, 1939, 1947 and 1948.
mobile phone operation in India. The company was a joint
venture between India’s Modi Group and Australian Telecom 131. (c) Vijay Kumar (shooting) and Yogeshwar Dutt (wrestling)
Gaint Telstra. At present, the company has been acquired by have been awarded with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2012
BHARTI Group and is part of the AIRTEL brand. on August 29, 2012 by President of India.
113. (a) Scooby-Doo, the longest-running TV cartoon in the past. It 132. (b) Serena Williams has won women’s Single Title US Open
was launched in 1969. The series was created for 2012 by defeating Victoria Azarneka.
Hanna-Barbera productions which was later absorbed by 133. (b) SBI has launched Click-2-Card service which is a new online
warner Bros. application service, aimed at netting about 3000 customers in
114. (a) The Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction the next four months.
(BIFR) is an agency of the Government of India, part of the 134. (d) Hassan Sheikh Mahmood replaced the Former President of
Department of Financial Services of the Ministry of Finance. the Transational Federal Government, Sheikh Sharif Sheikh
Its objective is to determine of industrial companies and to Mohammed.
assist in reviving those that may be viable and shutting down
the others. It was established in 1982. 135. (b) A Sethumadhavan, Veteran Malayalam frictional writer, has
been appointed as the Chairman of NBT. It is the first time a
115. (d) The term Ekistics (coined by Konstontions Apostolos Malayalam writer is given the post after late Sukumar Azhikode.
Doxiadis in 1942) applies to the Science of human settlements.
It includes regional, city community planning and dwelling 136. (a) Still counting the dead describes the decades of civil war
design. between the Tamil Tiger Guerrillas and the Government
reached its bloody climax.
116. (a) A red herring prospectus, as a first or preliminary
prospectus, is a document submitted by a company (issuer) as 137. (a) 11 scientists have been selected for Shanti Swarup
part of a public offering of securities (either stocks or bonds). Bhatnagar prize 2012, India’s premier awards in the field of
Science and Technology.
117. (a) Eight O’Clock coffee is the brand name of the light roast of
coffee introduced by the American Supermarket Chain A and P 138. (d) Mark Waughs and Steve Waughs are the first twin to play
in 1859. International Cricket.
118. (c) Jatropha is a genus of flowering plants in the spurge family, 139. (c) The US has the largest railway system in the world-about
Euphorbiaceae. It contains approximately 170 species of 240000 km connecting 48 continental states. That is enough
succulent plants, shrubs and trees. track to circle the earth five times.
119. (d) Margaret Court also known as Margaret Smith Court, is a 140. (a) Svetlana Kuznetsova won the 2009 French Open tennis
retired world number 1 tennis player and Christian minister ladies title.
from Australia. She won 66 Grand Slams in her life. 141. (a) The integrated chip circuit also known as ‘The chip’ or
120. (b) ‘The Big Apple’ is a nickname for New York City. It was first microchip was invented by both Jack kilby and Robert Noyce.
popularised in the 1920s by John J Fitz Gerald, a sports writer 142. (c) A landlocked country is a country that has no access to the
for the New York morning Telegraph. ocean at its borders. Kazakhstan is the world’s ninth largest
121. (c) Infosys, India’s second largest outsourcer, become the first country and is also the world’s largest landlocked country.
Indian company to be listed on the Nasdaq in 1999. 143. (b) 144. (c)
122. (b) TAREGNA in Bihar has been chosen as the best place in 145. (c) Pluto orbits beyond the orbit of Neptune. It is much smaller
India to watch a total solar eclipse on 22 July. than any of the official planets and now classified as a ‘dwarf
123. (b) Adrian Sutil is a German racing driver, who has raced in planet’.
Formula one. He continued to race with the team under their 146. (d) One barrel = 42 US gallons
new guise Force India in 2008, where he remained until 2011. = 158.987 L = 160 L
124. (c) The Million Dollar Round Table (MDRT) described itself as 147. (d) The economy of India is based in part on planning through
the premier Association of Financial Professionals. It was its Five Year Plans which are developed, executed and
formed in 1927 to help insurance salespeople. monitored by the Planning Commission.
125. (b) RBI declares the ‘Credit Policy’ of India. 148. (b)
126. (d) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is a board 149. (b) The Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries
(autonomous body) created by the Government of India in (OPEC) is an inter-governmental organisation of twelve oil
1988 and given statutory form in 1992 with the SEBI Act 1992, producing made up of Algeria, Angola, Ecuador, Iran, Iraq,
with its head office at Mumbai. It is the regulator of securities Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab
markets in India. Emirates and Venezuela.
127. (b) The flower with the world’s largest bloom as the Rafflesia 150. (d) The computer laptop was invented by Adam Osborne in 1981.
arnoldii. This rare flower is found in the rainforests of
Indonesia.
SNAP
Solved Paper 2011
Time : 120 min Marks : 180
Section I General Awareness

For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 4. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign
mark each. Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a
country. Which one of the following statements best
1. ‘Swayamsiddha’ is a scheme launched by the Government of
represents an important difference between the two?
India to help
(1) FII helps bring better management skills and technology
(1) school children only while FDI only bring capital.
(2) health workers only (2) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general,
(3) senior citizens without any regular income while FDI only targets specific sectors.
(4) women only (3) FDI flows only into secondary markets while FII targets
2. What is ‘Share swap’? primary markets.
I. A business takeover in which acquiring company uses its (4) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI.
own stock to pay for the acquired company. 5. In context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently
II. When a company uses its own share to get some short referred to in the news.
term loan for working capital requirement. What does this term imply?
III. When companies are require to float a new issue to earn I. It is a major classification of crude oil.
capital for their expansion programmes, each II. It is sourced from North sea.
shareholder gets some additional preferential share. III. It does not contain sulphur.
The process is known as ‘share swap’. Which of the statement(s) given above is /are correct?
(1) I only (2) I and II (1) II only (2) I and II
(3) III only (4) None of these (3) I and III (4) I, II and III
3. Regarding “carbon credits” which of the following 6. With reference to “Look East Policy” of India, consider the
statements is not correct? following statements :
(1) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction I. India wants to establish itself as an important regional
with Kyoto Protocol. player in the East Asian affairs.
(2) Carbon credits are awarded to those countries or groups II. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the
who have reduced the green house gases below their termination of Cold War.
emission quota. III. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties
(3) The goal of carbon credit system is to reduce carbon with its neighbours in South-East and East Asia.
dioxide emission. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(4) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to (1) I only (2) I and III
time by the United Environment Programme. (3) III only (4) I, II and III
7. Recently ‘oilzapper’ was in news. What is it? 16. Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by
(1) It is eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily commercial banks to provide credit to the government?
sludge and oil spills. (1) Cash Credit Ratio
(2) It is the latest technology developed under sea oil (2) Debit Service Obligation
exploration. (3) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(3) It is genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize (4) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
variety.
17. Who among the following was not part of the drafting
(4) It is the latest technology to control accidentally caused committee of the Lokpal Bill?
flames from oil wells.
(1) Salman Khurshid (2) Anna Hazare
8. Why is the offering of ‘teaser loans’ by commercial banks a (3) Arvind Kejriwal (4) Kiran Bedi
cause of economic concern?
18. Criminal procedure is a subject of which of the following
I. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of
lists?
sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk
(1) State list (2) Concurrent list
of defaulters in future.
(3) Union list (4) Both (1) and (3)
II. The teaser loans are given to inexperienced
entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units. 19. One of the world’s biggest uranium resources was recently
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? found in
(1) I only (2) II only (1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Maharashtra
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II (3) Jharkhand (4) Uttarakhand
9. Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the 20. Which of the following was the first venture of Kishore
Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)? Biyani?
I. The government intends to use the revenue earned from (1) Pantaloons (2) Big Bazaar
disinvestment mainly to pay the external debt. (3) Central (4) Future Capital Holdings
II. The government no longer intends to retain the 21. Who among the following is often referred to as “Father of
management control of CPSEs. India’s Green Revolution”?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (1) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(1) I only (2) II only (2) Dr. Amrita Patel
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II (3) MS Swaminathan
10. The book ‘Unto this Last’ which influenced Gandhiji, was (4) Gurudev Khush
authored by 22. Who among the following directed the movie ‘Peepli Live’?
(1) Boris Yeltsin (2) Pushkin (1) Ashutosh Gowarikar (2) Kiran Rao
(3) Ruskin Bond (4) John Ruskin (3) Anusha Rizvi (4) Seema Chisti
11. Besides the USA, India has signed, with which of the 23. The point at which solid, liquid and gaseous forms of a
following countries, the agreement being named as
substance co-exist is called
“Cooperation Agreement on the Development of Peaceful
Uses of Nuclear Energy”? (1) sublimation (2) distillation point
(1) Italy (2) Germany (3) France (4) Australia (3) triple point (4) melting point
12. Which of the following country is not a member of the 24. The limit beyond which the stars suffer internal collapse is
Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)? called the
(1) Russia (2) USA (3) Italy (4) Iran (1) Raman Effect (2) Chandrashekhar Limit
13. Many times we read in the newspapers that several (3) Aurora Borealis (4) Quasan Zone
companies are adopting the FCCBs route to raise capital. 25. UNDP reports publishes every year the Human
What is the full form of FCCB? Development Index. Which of the following is not a criteria
(1) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds used to measure the Human Development Index?
(2) Foreign Convertible Credit Bonds (1) Health (2) Education
(3) Financial Consortium and Credit Bureau (3) Living Standards (4) Human Rights
(4) None of the above
26. The software company I-flex Solutions was originally a
14. As per the reports published in various newspapers, RBI has division of which famous financial services company?
asked banks to make plan to provide banking services in (1) Citicorp (2) ICICI
villages having population of 2000. This directive issued by
the RBI will fall in which of the following categories? (3) HSBC (4) ABN Amro Bank
(1) Plan for financial inclusion. 27. Which of the following is not a member of SAARC?
(2) Efforts to meet priority sector lending. (1) Bhutan (2) Bangladesh
(3) Extension of Internet and branchless banking. (3) Burma (4) Maldives
(4) None of the above 28. Which article of the Indian Constitution recognizes Hindi in
15. Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency? Devanagari Script as the official language of India?
(1) ADR (2) GDR (1) Article 345 (2) Article 343
(3) Both (1) and (3) (4) SDR (3) Article 348 (4) Article 334
29. India has finally woken up to the needs of the country’s beneficiaries on petroleum working gas and fertilizers. The
elderly. With the number of people in the 60-plus age group task force will be headed by
in India expected to increase to 100 million in 2013 and to (1) Nandan Nilekani (2) Apoorva Sinha
198 million in 2030, the Health Ministry is all set to roll out (3) Sangam Chitra (4) All of these
the
(1) National Programme for Health Care of the Elderly 35. Which of these countries has been added in the ‘BRIC’
(2) National Programme for Senior Citizens (Brazil-Russia-India-China) group in of emerging
economies?
(3) National Programme for Old Aged
(1) South Korea (2) Venezuela
(4) Rashtriya Vriddha Swasthya Yojana
(3) South Africa (4) Malaysia
30. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
36. Which of the following countries was the host of First Asian
I. Non-resident Indians (NRIs) can now cast votes in their
Yoga Championship held recently?
home constituencies in India.
(1) Thailand (2) Cambodia (3) Vietnam (4) Laos
II. The NRI can cast his vote by postal balloting.
(1) I only (2) II only 37. Who among the following has been defeated by Saina
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II Nehwal, who has won the Swiss Open Grand Prix Gold Title
recently, becoming the first Indian to do so?
31. In a landmark move, which of these State Governments has (1) Ji Hyun Sung (2) Wang Lin
set up a Savarna Aayog, a commission to identify the (3) Kamilla Rytter Juhl (4) Shinta Mulia Sari
deprived and underprivileged families among upper castes?
38. On March 6, 2011, the Supreme Court held that has ample
(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Bihar
powers to enact legislation with respect to extra-territorial
(3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Rajasthan
aspects for the security of India?
32. Which of these countries has announced one billion US dollar (1) President (2) Prime Minister
aid for the reconstruction of Nalanda University? (3) Supreme Court (4) Parliament
(1) Japan (2) Singapore (3) Malaysia (4) China
39. Which country has appointed Brigadier General Ravinder
33. What is the name of the in-house magazine to be published Singh as its next Army chief, the first Sikh in nearly 30 years
by the Indian Railways, to be distributed to the passengers to be given the force’s batton?
on high end trains? (1) Thailand (2) Singapore (3) Malaysia (4) Indonesia
(1) Rail Vishwa (2) Rail Bandhu 40. Anant Pai, better known as ‘Uncle Pai’, who recently died,
(3) Rail Mail (4) Rail Patra was the creator of which among the following comic series?
34. The government, in February 2011, set up a task force to (1) Chacha Chaudhary (2) Chandamama
create a way to provide direct subsidies to the ultimate (3) Indrajaal (4) Amar Chitra Katha
Section II Analytical & Logical Reasoning

For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 2 (1) C, D, F, G and H (2) G, F, D, B and H
mark each. (3) E, F, G, H and B (4) None of these
42. A. If Kumar sings, then the audiences sleep.
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-42) Each question consists
B. If Kumar sings, then the audiences dance.
of a set of statements. Assume that each one of these
C. Unless audience do not dance, the concert will be
statements is individually true. Each of the four choices
successful.
consists of a subset of these statements. Choose the subset
D. Only if the audience dance, the concert will be
as your answer where the statements therein are logically
successful.
consistent among themselves:
E. If Vina dances, then Kumar sings.
41. A. Only if the water level in the coastal areas rises, then the F. Kumar sings only if Vina dances.
people change their lifestyle. G. Vina dances
B. People change their lifestyle only if they are rewarded. H. The concert is successful.
C. If people are rewarded, then they will not change their (1) C, F, G, B and H (2) A, C, F, G and H
lifestyle. (3) E, C, G, B and H (4) Both (2) and (3)
D. If the temperature rises, then the water level in the
coastal areas rises. Directions (Q. Nos. 43-45) These questions are
E. Whenever the water level in the coastal area rises, then based on the data given below.
the temperature rises. There are only four members of a family viz., A, B, C and D
F. Unless the people change their lifestyle, temperature and there is only one couple among them. When asked
rises. about their relationships, following were their replies :
G. People are rewarded. I. A → B is my son. D is my mother.
H. Water level in the coastal areas does not rise. II. B → C is my wife. D is my father.
III. C → D is my mother-in-law. A is my daughter. 53. In the above question (51), what is the final value of Y ?
IV. D → A is my grand-daughter. B is my daughter-in-law. (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 20
43. Who always speaks the truth? 54. If the value of N is changed to 500, what would be the final
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D value of X ?
(1) 360 (2) 500 (3) 560 (4) 2160
44. How is B related to C?
(1) Father (2) Mother 55. If X = 2 and Y = 3, what should be the minimum value of N
(3) Wife (4) Husband such that final value of Y is 7?
(1) 300 (2) 360 (3) 720 (4) 860
45. Which of the following statements must be true?
(1) A’s grandmother alternates between the truth and lie. Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) Refer to the following
(2) C’s wife always speaks the truth. statements and answer the questions:
(3) A’s grandfather always speaks the truth. Seven students Priya, Ankit, Raman, Sunil, Tony, Deepak
(4) B’s daughter always tells lie. and Vicky take a series of tests. No two students get similar
marks. Vicky always scores more than Priya. Priya always
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-48) These questions are scores more than Ankit. Each time either Raman scores the
based on the following information. highest and Tony gets the least, or alternatively Sunil
A cube of 7cm × 7cm × 7cm is kept in the corner of a room scores the highest and Deepak or Ankit scores the least.
and painted in three different colours, each face in one 56. If Sunil is ranked sixth and Ankit is ranked fifth, which of the
colour. The cube is cut into 343 smaller but identical following can be true?
cubes. (1) Vicky is ranked first or fourth
46. How many smaller cubes do not have any face painted? (2) Raman is ranked second or third
(1) 125 (2) 180 (3) 144 (4) 216 (3) Tony is ranked fourth or fifth
47. How many smaller cubes have exactly one colour on them? (4) Deepak is ranked third or fourth
(1) 108 (2) 72 (3) 36 (4) 24 57. If Raman gets the highest, Vicky should be ranked not lower
48. How many smaller cubes have at the most two faces than
painted? (1) second (2) third (3) fourth (4) fifth
(1) 343 (2) 342 (3) 256 (4) 282 58. If Raman is ranked second and Ankit is ranked first, which
of the following must be true?
Directions (Q. Nos. 49-50) These questions are (1) Sunil is ranked third (2) Tony is ranked third
based on the following information. (3) Priya is ranked sixth (4) None of these
Amit was driving in New Town, where all roads either 59. If Sunil is ranked second, which of the following can be
North-South or East-West forming a grid. Roads were at a true?
distance of 1 km from each other in parallel. (1) Deepak gets more than Vicky
49. Amit started at the intersection of streets no. 7 and 8. He (2) Vicky gets more than Sunil
drove 3 km North, 3 km West and 4 km South. Which (3) Priya gets more than Raman
further route could bring him back to his starting point? (4) Priya gets more than Vicky
I. 3 km East, then 2 km South 60. If Vicky is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true?
II. 1 km North, then 3 km East (1) Sunil scores the highest (2) Raman is ranked second
III. 1 km North, then 2 km West (3) Tony is ranked third (4) Ankit is ranked second
(1) I only (2) II only
61. In 2002, according to a news poll, 36% of the voters had
(3) I and II (4) II and III
leaning towards party “Y”. In 2004, this figure rose to 46%.
50. After driving as stated in question no. 49 above, Amit did But in another survey the percentage was down to 40%.
not return to his starting point, but instead drove 4 km Therefore, the party “Z” is likely to win the next election.
East and 1 km North. How far is he from his starting Which of the following, if true, would seriously weaken the
point? above conclusion?
(1) 5 km (2) 4 km (3) 1 km (4) 7 km (1) People tend to switch their votes at the last minute
(2) It has been showed that 85% of the voters belonging to
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Refer to the following the party “Y” vote in an election as compared to 80% of
data and answer the questions that follow: the voters belonging to party ‘‘Z’’
A numerical machine accepts two values X and Y. Then, it (3) 35% of people favour party “Z”
updates these values as X = XY and Y = Y + 1 in every (4) No one can predict how people will vote
step. The machine stops at X ≥ N. 62. Inflation rose by 5% over the second quarter, by 4% during
51. For X = 3, Y = 2 and N = 100, how many steps are the first quarter and higher than 3% recorded during the
performed before the machine stops? same time last year. However, the higher price index did not
seem to alarm National Stock Index as stock prices remain
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
steady.
52. In the above question (51), what is the final value of X ? Which of the following, if true, could explain the reaction of
(1) 6 (2) 20 (3) 72 (4) 360 National Stock Index?
(1) RBI announced that it will take necessary corrective 67. Many people argue that the death penalty deters murder.
measures. However, the notorious killer Tom Hanks deliberately
(2) Stock prices were steady because of a fear that inflation moved to a state that imposes the death penalty just before
would continue. embarking on a series of ferocious murders. Thus, it seems
(3) Economists warned that inflation would continue. clear that the existence of the death penalty does not serve
(4) Much of the quarterly increase in the price level was due as a deterrent to murder.
to a summer drought effect on food price. The argument above may best be characterized as
(1) an appeal to emotion
Direction (Q. No. 63) Pick up the appropriate (2) a flawed analogy
analogy.
(3) a general conclusion based on a specific example
63. Birth : Dirge (4) circular reasoning
(1) Sunset : Sunrise 68. What number should replace the question mark?
(2) Security Check : Arrival
(3) Marriage : Alimony 4 3 2
(4) Welcome Address : Vote of Thanks
5 3 5 1 1
64. Beautiful beaches attract people, no doubt about it. Just
look at this city’s beautiful beaches, which are among the 6 1 2 8 3 3 1
most overcrowded beaches in the state.
Which of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning most 7 2 8 4 3
similar to the one exhibited in the argument above?
(1) Moose and bear usually appear at the same drinking 9 ? 3
hole at the same time of day. Therefore, moose and bear
must grow thirsty at about the same time. (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 12 (4) 6
(2) Children who are scolded severely tend to misbehave 69. The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal
more often than other children. Hence, if a child is not services, the more lawyers there are who advertise their
scolded severely that child is less likely to misbehave. services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service
(3) This software programme helps increase the work usually charge less for that service than lawyers who do not
efficiency of its users. As a result, these users have more advertise. Therefore, if the state removes any of its current
free time for other activities. restrictions, such as the one against advertisements that do
(4) During weather my dog suffers from fleas more than not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs
during cooler weather. Therefore, fleas must thrive in a will be lower than, if the state retains its current restrictions.
warm environment. If the statements above are true, which of the following
65. No national productivity measures are available for must be true?
underground industries that may exist but remain (1) Some lawyers who now advertise will charge more for
unreported. On the other hand, at least some industries that specific services if they do not have to specify fee
are run entirely by self-employed industrialists are included arrangements in the advertisements.
in national productivity measures. (2) More consumers will use legal services if there are fewer
From the information given above, it can be validly restrictions on the advertising of legal services.
concluded that (3) If the restrictions against advertisements that do not
(1) there are at least some industries run entirely by self specify fee arrangements is removed, more lawyers will
employed industrialists that are underground industries advertise their services.
(2) no industries that are run entirely by self employed (4) If more lawyers advertise lower prices for specific
industrialists operate underground services, some lawyers who do not advertise will also
(3) there are at least some industries other than those run charge less than they currently charge for those services.
entirely by self-employed industrialists that are 70. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously
underground industries weaken the argument concerning overall consumer legal
(4) there are at least some industries run entirely by self costs?
employed industrialists that are not underground
(1) The state is unlikely to remove all of the restrictions that
industries
apply solely to the advertising of legal services.
66. Nilu has never received a violation from the Federal (2) Lawyers who do not advertise generally provide legal
Aviation Administration during her 16 yr flying career. Nilu services of the same quality as those provided by
must be a great pilot. lawyers who do advertise.
Which of the following can be said about the reasoning (3) Most lawyers who now specify fee arrangements in their
above? advertisements would continue to do so even in the
(1) The definitions of the terms create ambiguity. specification were not required.
(2) The argument uses circular reasoning. (4) Most lawyers who advertise specific services do not
(3) The argument is built upon hidden assumptions. lower their fees for those services when they begin to
(4) The argument works by analogy. advertise.
Section III Quantitative Aptitude

For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 82. Amit can do a work in 12 days and Sagar in 15 days. If they
mark each. work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work
that is left, is
71. A train travelling at 36 km/h crosses a platform in 20 s and a
(1) 3/20 (2) 3/5
man standing on the platform in 10 s. What is the length of
(3) 2/5 (4) 2/20
the platform in metres?
(1) 240 m (2) 100 m 83. A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m wide has two
(3) 200 m (4) 300 m concrete crossroads running in the middle of the park and
rest of the park has been used as a lawn. If the area of the
72. By walking at 4/5th of his usual speed, a man reaches office
lawn is 2109 sq m, then what is the width of the road?
10 min later than usual. What is his usual time?
(1) 2.91 m (2) 3 m
(1) 20 min (2) 40 min
(3) 30 min (4) 50 min (3) 5.82 m (4) None of these
73. A man and a woman 81 miles apart from each other, start 84. A bag contains 5 white and 3 black balls; another bag
travelling towards each other at the same time. If the man contains 4 white and 5 black balls. From any one of these
covers 5 miles/h to the women’s 4 mile/h, how far will the bags a single draw of two balls is made. Find the probability
woman have travelled when they meet? that one of them would be white and other black ball.
(1) 27 (2) 36 (1) 275/504 (2) 5/18
(3) 45 (4) None of these (3) 5/9 (4) None of these
74. Two people were walking in opposite directions. Both of Directions (Q. Nos. 85-88) Answer the questions
them walked 6 miles forward, then took right and walked on the basis of the information given below.
8 miles. How far is each from starting positions?
The following bar graph gives the production, exports and
(1) 14 miles and 14 miles (2) 10 miles and 10 miles
per capita consumption of rice in country A, for the five
(3) 6 miles and 6 miles (4) 12 miles and 12 miles
years from 2006 to 2010.
75. Four men and three women can do a job in 6 days. When
5 men and 6 women work on the same job, the work gets 250
completed in 4 days. How long will 2 women and 3 men
take to do the job?
(1) 18 (2) 10 (3) 8.3 (4) 12 200
76. Ram completes 60% of a task in 15 days and then takes
the help of Rahim and Rachel. Rahim is 50% as efficient as 150
Ram is and Rachel is 50% as efficient as Rahim is. In how
many more days will they complete the work?
121 51 40 65 100
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 7 7 7
77. A and B can do a piece of work in 21 and 24 days, 50
respectively. They start the work together and after some
days A leaves the work and B completes the remaining work
in 9 days. After how many days did A leave? 0
2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 6
78. A trader makes a profit equal to the selling price of Production (in million kg) Exports (in million kg)
75 articles when he sold 100 of the articles. What % profit Per capita (in kg)
did he make in the transaction?
(1) 33.33% (2) 75% (3) 300% (4) 150%
Consumption = Production – Exports
79. In a 100 m race, if A gives B a start of 20 m, then A wins the Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption) ÷ (Population)
race by 5 s. Alternatively, if A gives B a start of 40 m the race
ends in a dead heat. How long does A take to run 200 m? 85. In which year was the percentage increase in the
(1) 10 s (2) 20 s (3) 30 s (4) 40 s consumption of rice over the previous year, the highest?
(1) 2007 (2) 2008 (3) 2009 (4) 2010
80. A 4 cm cube is cut into 1cm cubes. What is the percentage
increase in the surface area after such cutting? 86. What is the population of country A in the year 2008 (in
(1) 4% (2) 300% (3) 75% (4) 400% million)?
(1) 2.64 million (2) 2.72 million
81. A number G236G0 can be divided by 36, if G is
(1) 8 (3) 2.79 million (4) 2.85 million
(2) 6 87. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was
(3) 1 the highest in the year
(4) More than one values are possible. (1) 2006 (2) 2007 (3) 2008 (4) 2009
88. In which of the given years was the population of country A, 96. The sum of a number and its reciprocal is thrice the
the highest? difference of the number and its reciprocal. The number is
(1) 2007 (2) 2008 (3) 2009 (4) 2010 1 1
(1) ± 2 (2) ± (3) ± (4) ± 3
2 3
Directions (Q. Nos. 89-93) The following pie chart
shows the hourly distribution (in degrees) of all the major 97. The total number of natural numbers that lie between
activities of a student. 10 and 300 and are divisible by 9 is
(1) 32 (2) 30 (3) 33 (4) 34
98. If nC x = 56 and n Px = 336, find n and x.
Games Home (1) 7, 3 (2) 8, 4 (3) 8, 3 (4) 9, 6
30º work 45º
99. One side of an equilateral triangle is 24 cm. The mid-points
of its sides are joined to form another triangle whose
mid-points are in turn joined to form still another triangle.
Sleeping School
120º 105º This process continues indefinitely. Find the sum of the
perimeters of all the triangles.
(1) 144 cm (2) 72 cm (3) 536 cm (4) 676 cm
Others
60º 100. The probability that a leap year selected at random contains
either 53 Sundays or 53 Mondays, is
(1) 17/53 (2) 1/53
89. The percentage of time, which he spends in school, is (3) 3/7 (4) None of these
(1) 38% (2) 30% 101. Find the intercepts made by the line 3x + 4 y − 12 = 0 on the
(3) 40% (4) 25% axes
90. How much time (in percent) does he spend in games in (1) 2 and 3 (2) 4 and 3
comparison to sleeping? (3) 3 and 5 (4) None of these
(1) 30% (2) 40% 102. The average of 4 distinct prime numbers a, b, c, d is 35, where a
(3) 25% (4) None of these < b < c < d. a and d are equidistant from 36 and b and c are
91. If he spends the time in games equal to the homework and equidistant from 34 and a, b are equidistant from 30 and c
remains constant in other activities, then the percentage and d are equidistant from 40. The difference between a and
decrease in time of sleeping is d is
(1) 15% (2) 12.5% (1) 30 (2) 14
(3) 20% (4) None of these (3) 21 (4) Cannot be determined
92. What is the difference in time (in hours) spent in school and 103. Ramsukh Bhai sells rasgulla (a favourite Indian sweets) at
in homework? ` 15 per kg. A rasgulla is made up of flour and sugar in the
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 8 ratio 5 : 3. The ratio of price of sugar and flour is 7 : 3 (per
kg). Thus, he earns 66 2/3 profit. What is the cost price of
93. If he spends 1/3rd time of homework in Mathematics, then sugar?
the number of hours he spends in rest of the subjects in (1) ` 10/kg (2) ` 9/kg (3) ` 18/kg (4) ` 14/kg
homework is
104. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a person to
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
purchase 6 kg more for ` 240. What is the original price per
94. Three parallel lines are cut by two transversals as shown in kg of sugar?
the given figure. If AB = 2 cm, BC = 4 cm and DE = 1.5 cm, (1) ` 10/kg (2) ` 8/kg (3) ` 6/kg (4) ` 5/kg
then the length of EF is 105. A solid sphere is melted and recast into a right circular cone
with a base radius equal to the radius of the sphere. What is
D
A the ratio of the height and radius of the cone so formed?
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 2 : 3
2 B E (3) 3 : 4 (4) None of these
1.5
106. The speed of scooter, car and train are in the ratio of
4 1 : 4 : 16. If all of them cover equal distance, then the ratio of
time taken/velocity for each of the vehicle, is
C F (1) 256 : 16 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 : 16
(3) 16 : 4 : 1 (4) 16 : 1 : 4
(1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm 107. B is twice efficient as A and A can do a piece of work in
(3) 3.5 cm (4) 4 cm 15 days. A started the work and after a few days B joined
95. log10 10 + log10 102 + . . . + log10 10n him. They completed the work in 11 days, from the
(1) n2 + 1 (2) n2 − 1 starting. For how many days did they work together?
(n + n) n(n + 1)
2
n2 + n (1) 1 day (2) 2 days
(3) ⋅ (4)
2 3 2 (3) 6 days (4) 5 days
108. A, B, C and D purchased a restaurant for ` 56 lakhs. The salary of Saroj, respectively. By what percent is the salary of
contribution of B, C and D together is 460% that of A, alone. Raju more than the salary of Ram?
The contribution of A, C and D together is 366.66% that of (1) 33.33% (2) 50% (3) 15.18% (4) 14.28%
B’s contribution and the contribution of C is 40% that of A, B 110. The radius of a wire is decreased to one-third and its volume
and D together. The amount contributed by D is remains the same. The new length is how many times the
(1) 10 lakhs (2) 12 lakhs (3) 16 lakhs (4) 18 lakhs original length?
109. The salary of Raju and Ram is 20% and 30% less than the (1) 2 times (2) 4 times (3) 5 times (4) 9 times
Section IV General English

For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 Directions (Q. Nos. 117-119) Choose the correct
mark each. option.
Directions (Q. Nos. 111-116) Read the following 117. The repetition of messages or the use of superfluous
passage and answer the questions that follow. expressions is called …… .
(1) redundancy (2) hyperbole (3) alliteration (4) allegory
DH Lawrence-1885-1930 : The Supreme Triumph
118. Ink : Pen : Paper
For man, the vast marvel is to be alive. For man as
for flower and beast and bird, the supreme (1) Watch : Dial : Strap (2) Book : Paper : Words
triumph is to be most vividly, most perfectly alive. (3) Farmer : Plough : Field (4) Colour : Brush : Canvas
Whatever the unborn and the dead may know, 119. Realia
they cannot know the beauty, the marvel of being (1) Theoretical constructs (2) Fabricated examples
alive in the flesh. The dead may look after the
afterwards. But the magnificent here and now of (3) Objects from real life (4) Based on reality
life in the flesh is ours, and ours alone, and ours
only for a time. We ought to dance with rapture, Directions (Q. Nos. 120-125) Choose the
that we should be alive and in the flesh, and part of grammatically correct option from the following.
the living, incarnate cosmos. I am part of the sun 120. (1) ‘Are these gloves belonging to you?’ she asked.
as my eye is the part of me. That I am part of the (2) ‘Does this gloves belong to you?’ she asked.
Earth my feet below know the perfectly, and my (3) ‘Do these gloves belongs to you?’ she asked.
blood is part of the sea. My soul knows that I am a (4) ‘Do these gloves belong to you?’ she asked.
part of the human race, my soul is an inorganic
part of the great human soul, as my spirit is a part 121. (1) I live in a house in a street in the countryside. The street
of my nation. In my own very self, I am part of my is called “Bear Street” and the house is old—more than
family. There is nothing of me that is alone and 100 years old!
absolute except my mind, and we shall find that (2) I live in the house in the street countryside. The street is
the mind has no existence by itself, it is only the called “Bear Street” and the house is old—more than
glitter of the sun on the surface of the 100 years old!
waters-Apocalypse, 1931. (3) I live in a house in the street in the countryside. The
111. By ‘triumph’ the author means street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old—more
(1) sin (2) loss (3) sorrow (4) victory than 100 years old!
(4) I live in a house in a street in the countryside. The street
112. When the dead look after the afterwards the living should
is called “Bear Street” and a house is old—more than
look at life
100 years old!
(1) forever (2) for some months
(3) for only a short while (4) in the past 122. (1) The teachers will be able to visit our schools and
compare our teaching methods to their own.
113. By ‘rapture’ the author means an emotion involving great (2) The teachers will be able to pay a visit to our schools and
(1) trepidation (2) thrill (3) fear (4) joy compare teaching methods for their own.
114. By the last line “It .........waters”, the author means that the (3) The teachers will be able to visit our schools and
mind is only compare our teaching methods with their own.
(1) a mirage (2) an illusion (3) magic (4) a reflection (4) The teachers will be able to visit our school and compare
115. The tone of this passage is their teaching method with their own.
(1) social (2) moral 123. (1) Could you give me the amount that you filled out in the
(3) reflective (4) philosophical check which was sent?
(2) Could you give me the amount what you filled out in the
116. The most suitable title for this passage would be
check you sent?
(1) The Surface of the Waters
(3) Could you give me the amount for which you filled out
(2) My Mind in the check you sent?
(3) The Human Race (4) Could you give me the amount wherein you filled out in
(4) Alive and Kicking the check you sent?
124. (1) I have completed the work yesterday. 132. I know you must not see eye to eye with the philosophy of
(2) I did completed the work yesterday. Ramkrishna but you must admit that he had had
(3) I have had completed the work yesterday. tremendous influence over a great many followers.
(4) I completed the work yesterday. (1) see eye to eye (2) had had
(3) influence over (4) No error
125. (1) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed with the
truck. 133. The Principal inquired with the students, if they would like
their teacher to repeat the lesson again.
(2) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed into the
truck. (1) inquired with (2) to repeat
(3) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed against the (3) again (4) No error
truck. 134. One of the security guards rushed forward; unlocked the
(4) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed before the gate and asked whether I had anything objectionable.
truck. (1) security guards (2) forward
(3) objectionable (4) No error
Directions (Q. Nos. 126-130) Choose the correct
synonymous word or description for each italicized word. Directions (Q. Nos. 135-136) Rearrange the
following sentence fragments (P, Q, R and S) to make
The Jan Lokpal Bill, also referred to (126) as the meaningful sentences.
citizens’ ombudsman bill, is a proposed 135. I always told them ......... and consideration for me.
independent (127) anti-corruption law in India. P. How for me she
Anti-corruption social activists proposed it as a Q. Always exuded warmth
more effective improvement on the original
R. Was like a family’s
Lokpal Bill, which is currently being proposed by
S. Elder and how she has
the Government of India. The Jan Lokpal Bill aims
(1) PRSQ (2) PQSR (3) PRQS (4) SQPR
to effectively deter (128) corruption, redress
grievances (129) of citizens, and protect 136. A year or .......... foreign languages
whistle-blowers. If made into law, the bill would P. I picked up a liking for learning
create an independent ombudsman (130) body Q. the largest urban area and primary
called the Lokpal. It would be empowered to R. so after leaving Bangkok
register and investigate complaints of corruption S. city of Thailand and a place of unique beauty
against politicians and bureaucrats without prior (1) RPQS (2) RQSP (3) RSPQ (4) SPQR
government approval. Directions (Q. Nos. 137-139) Choose the correct
126. (1) described as (2) included in option.
(3) supported for (4) reformed as
137. This book ....... five sections.
127. (1) self-centered (2) impartial (1) comprises of (2) comprises
(3) self-seeking (4) self-possessed (3) consists (4) comprises to
128. (1) swell (2) prevent 138. My grandfather left most of his money to an NGO; the rest
(3) propel (4) lucubrate went directly to my daughter and ....... .
(1) I (2) me (3) myself (4) myself too
129. (1) complaints (2) dishonesty
(3) committees (4) opinions 139. Parts of a country behind the coast or a river’s banks.
(1) Isthumus (2) Archipelago
130. (1) a government appointee who investigates complaints by (3) Hinterland (4) Swamp
private persons against bureaucrats and/or politicians.
(2) a government appointee who investigates complaints by Directions (Q. Nos. 140-141) In the questions
government against common citizens. below, the sentences have been given in active/passive
(3) a government appointee who investigates complaints by voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which
citizens against citizens. best expresses the given sentence in passive/active voice.
(4) a government appointee who investigates complaints by 140. Who is creating this mess?
government against government officials. (1) Who has been created this mess?
Directions (Q. Nos. 131-134) In the following (2) By whom has this mess been created?
sentences, one word or a phrase is used wrongly. Choose (3) By whom this mess is being created?
the word that must be changed or modified or deleted to (4) By whom is this mess being created?
make the sentence correct. There are sentences without 141. You should open the wine about three hours before you use it.
any errors too. (1) Wine should be opened about three hours before use.
131. The committee came to a decision to discuss in detail (2) Wine should be opened by you three hours before use.
about assorted problems that people have been facing for a (3) Wine should be opened about three hours before you
long time. use it.
(1) came to (2) to discuss (4) Wine should be opened about three hours before it is
(3) about (4) a long time used.
Direction (Q. Nos. 142) In the question below, the 146. EQUANIMITY
passage consist of six sentences. The first and the sixth (1) Resentment (2) Dubiousness
sentences are given. (S1, S6) The middle four sentences in (3) Duplicity (4) Excitement
each have been removed and jumbled up. These are
labeled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the Direction (Q. Nos. 147) Find the odd one out from
four sentences. the group of words.
142. S1 Metals are today being replaced by polymers in many 147. (1) Bludgeon (2) Dragon
applications.
(3) Black Jack (4) Order
P. Above all, they are cheaper and easier to process making
them a viable alternative to metals.
Direction (Q. Nos. 148) Each pair of capitalized
Q. Polymers are essentially a long chains of hydrocarbons
words given is followed by four pair of words. Select the
molecules.
pair that does not express a relationship similar to that
R. Today polymers as strong as metals have been
developed. expressed by the capitalized pair.
S. These have replaced the traditional chromium plated 148. KERNAL : SHELL
metallic bumpers in cars. (1) Caterpillar : Pupa
S6 Many Indian Institutes of Science and Technology run (2) Larva : Cacoon
special programmes on polymer science.
(3) Lassitude : Syncope
The proper sequence should be
(1) QRSP (2) RSQP (3) RQSP (4) QRPS (4) Passenger : Car
149. Both of them ...... since their childhood.
Directions (Q. Nos. 143-144) Choose the word
(1) are working here
which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
(2) work here
143. FRUGALITY (3) have been working
(1) Foolishness (2) Extremity (3) Enthusiasm (4) Economy
(4) are liking to work
144. HARBINGER
150. Although initial investigations pointed towards him ....... .
(1) Massenger (2) Steward (3) Forerunner (4) Pilot
(1) the preceding events corroborated his involvement in
Directions (Q. Nos. 145-146) Choose the word the crime
which is the exact opposite of the given words. (2) the additional information confirmed his guilt
145. EXODUS (3) the subsequent events established that he was guilty
(1) Influx (2) Home-coming (3) Return (4) Restoration (4) the subsequent events proved that he was innocent
Answers with Solutions

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (4)
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (4) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (1)
21. (3) 22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (2) 29. (1) 30. (1)
31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (3) 36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (4)
41. (3) We can choose the true subset by taking each statement. B: People change their lifestyle only if they are rewarded.
G: People are rewarded. This means that if people have changed their lifestyle,
C: If people are rewarded, then they will not change their then they have been rewarded.
lifestyle. Note that if people are rewarded, they may or may not
F: Unless people change their lifestyle, temperature rises. have changed their lifestyle.
This can also be put in the following manner. G: People are rewarded.
If people do not change their lifestyle, then temperature From B and G, we don’t know whether people have
rises. changed their lifestyle or not.
Thus, if the temperature doesn’t rise, then people change F: Unless the people change their lifestyle, temperature
their lifestyle. rises.
Here, according to G and C, people do not change their This can also be put as – If the people don’t change their
lifestyle and so temperature rises. lifestyle, then temperature rises.
D: If temperature rises, then water level in the coastal area But as we don’t know whether people have changed their
rises. lifestyle or not, we cannot conclude whether temperature
H: Water level in the coastal area doesn’t rise. has risen or not.
Here, D is in accordance with G, C and F but H is not. D: If temperature rises, then water level in the coastal area
So, option 1 is incorrect. rises.
H: Water level in the coastal area doesn’t rise. Observing B B is C’s husband and D is B’s father. However,
As we don’t know whether temperature has risen or not, there is no information on A. A could be B and C’s child or B’s
H cannot be concluded using D. sibling. Therefore, both of B’s statements cannot be true.
Hence, option 2 is also incorrect. Consider C D is C’s mother-in-law and A is C’s daughter. Since,
E: Whenever the water level in the coastal areas rises, then the family has only four members, B has to be C’s spouse.
the temperature rises. Thus, the overall relationship between the four members is
known. It is also known that B and C are a couple. However, it
H: Water level in the coastal area doesn’t rise. cannot be said whether B is the husband or wife of C.
Thus, from these two statements the temperature may or Therefore, both of C’s statements also cannot be considered
may not rise. true.
While discussing the previous option, we have proved Observing D A is D’s grand-daughter and B is D’s
that from statements B, F and G we also come to the same daughter-in-law. Again, since there are only 4 members in the
conclusion that the temperature may or may not rise. family, C should be B’s husband, D’s son and A’s father.
Hence, statements E, F,G, H and B are logically consistent Thus, D is the grand-parent, B and C are the couple where C is
among themselves. the husband and A is the grand-daughter. Thus, D’s
42. (3) From option 2, statement A says – If Kumar sings, then the statements give the overall relationships as well as the
audiences sleep. specific relationship between B and C. Therefore, D is the
Out of the other 4 statements C, F, G and H, none of the person who always speaks the truth.
statements mention anything about sleep and hence option 2 44. (3) Observing the solution of Q. 42, we can conclude that B is
is incorrect. C’s wife.
If option 2 is incorrect, option 4 is also incorrect as it 45. (4) Observing each option.
mentions both (2) and (3). D is either A’s grandfather or grandmother. Since, D always
C: Unless audience does not dance, the concert will be speaks the truth, option 3 may or may not be true (depending
successful. on the gender of D) while option 1 is definitely false.
This can also be put as – If the audience dance, the concert B is C’s wife. Based on the fact that both of D’s statements are
will be successful. true, both of B’s statements turn out to be false. Therefore,
F: Kumar sings, only if Vina dances. option 2 is also false.
This means that – If Kumar has sung, then Vina has A is B’s daughter. Based on the fact that both of D’s statements
danced. are true, both of A’s statements turn out to be false.
But if Vina has danced, Kumar may or may not have sung. Thus, B’s daughter always tells lies.
B: If Kumar sings, then the audience dances.
46. (4) Observing the information given in question that the cube
We don’t know whether Kumar has sung or not and so we is kept in the corner of the room. Assume that opposite faces
don’t know whether the audience have danced or not. are painted red, blue and green. Since the cube is in the
Hence, we cannot conclude that the concert is successful corner, one red, blue and green face each will be adjacent to
as given in statement H. the two walls and floor and will not be painted. So, there are
So, option 1 is also logically incorrect. only three faces that are painted. Since, the cube is cut into
E: If Vina dances, then Kumar sings. 343 identical cubes, it means that each face is cut into 7 equal
G: Vina dances. layers along each dimension. Thus, there are 7 similar layers
Thus, from these two statements we know that Kumar along the length, breadth as well as height. Since only one face
sings. is painted along each dimension, if we remove one layer each
B: If Kumar sings, then audiences dance. along the length, breadth as well as height, the remaining 6
Thus, audiences have danced. layers in each dimension will be unpainted.
C: Unless audience does not dance, the concert will be Hence, number of cubes that have no face painted
successful. 63 = 216
This can also be put as – If the audience dance, the concert 47. (1) Consider the 3 faces that are painted. Let us first consider
will be successful. the number of cubes that have at least one colour painted on
Thus, the concert is successful as mentioned in statement them.
H. Consider the top face. Assume it is painted blue. It will have
Hence, statements E, C, G, B and H are logically consistent 72 = 49 cubes with at least one colour on them.
among themselves. Now, consider the front face. Assume it is painted red. It will
also have 49 cubes with at least one colour. However, the top
43. (4) The person with both statements true will be the one
7 cubes on this face are also common to the top face and have
whose statements help to establish the relationships among
been counted once.
all 4 members and especially between B and C. This is because
one of the questions explicitly asks for the relationship ∴ Number of cubes to be considered from front face
between B and C and there is no answer option such as “None = 7 × 6 = 42
of the above” or “Data Insufficient”. Finally, consider the side face which will be painted green and
Observing A B is A’s son and D is A’s mother. However, there which will also have 49 cubes with at least one colour.
is no information about C. Therefore, the relationship However, it also has 7 cubes common to the top face, 7 cubes
between B and C cannot be established. Therefore, both of A’s common with the front face and 1 cube common to both the
statements cannot be true. top and front face.
∴ Number of cubes to be considered from side face 55. (1) Input : X = 2, Y = 3
= 49 − (7 + 7 − 1) = 36 Step 1 : X =2 × 3 = 6, Y = 4
∴ Number of cubes with at least one colour on them Step 2 : X = 6 × 4 = 24, Y = 5
= 49 + 42 + 36 = 127 Step 3 : X = 24 × 5 = 120, Y = 6.
Now, there are 7 cubes common to the top and front face.
Similarly, there are 7 cubes common to the front and side face Thus, for any value of N greater than 120, the value of Y will
as well as 7 cubes common to the top and side face. Here, the become 7.
cube at the intersection of all three faces will have red, blue as The correct answer should be 121.
well as green colour, while the remaining 6 faces in each case Hence, nearest value of 121 here is 300.
will have a red-blue or red-green or blue-green combination.
Solutions (Q. Nos. 56-60)
Thus, there is only 1 cube that is painted in 3 colours while
Vicky always scores more than Priya and Priya always scores
there are 6 × 3 i.e., 18 cubes that are painted in exactly 2
more than Ankit. Thus, Vicky’s rank is always numerically
colours.
lower than Priya’s and Priya’s rank is always numerically
Hence, number of cubes that have exactly one colour on them
lower than Ankit’s.
= 127 − (1 + 18) = 108
Either of the following two situations take place.
48. (2) Number of cubes that have at the most 2 faces painted If Raman scores the highest, then Tony scores the least or if
= Total number of cubes Sunil scores the highest, then Deepak or Ankit scores the
– Number of cubes that have 3 faces painted. least. Thus, if Raman is ranked 1st, then Tony is ranked 7th
From the solution of Q. 47, number of cubes that have at the and if Sunil is ranked 1st, then either Deepak of Ankit is
most 2 faces painted = 343 – 1 = 342 ranked 7th.
49. (2) After driving 3 km North, 3 km West and 4 km South, Amit 56. (4) The question states that Sunil is ranked 6th and Ankit is
is 1 km to the South and 3 km to the West of his starting point. ranked 5th.
So, he will have to move 1 km North and 3 km East to reach Thus, Raman is ranked 1st and Tony is ranked 7th.
the point from where he started. So, the following situations are possible for ranks 2, 3 and 4.
3 km
N 2 – Vicky, 3 – Priya, 4 – Deepak
or 2 – Vicky, 3 – Deepak, 4 – Priya
3 km
or 2 – Deepak, 3 – Vicky, 4 – Priya.

4 km
W E
Vicky can never be 1st, Raman will never be 2nd or 3rd, Tony
S is ranked 7th and hence cannot be 4th or 5th.
Starting point
Deepak can be 3rd or 4th according to the above obtained
End point
conditions.
Hence, Amit will have to move 1 km North and 3 km East to
reach the starting point. 57. (3) If Raman gets the highest, he will be ranked 1st.
Accordingly, Tony will be ranked 7th.
50. (3) Driving as stated in 3 km Now, Priya and Ankit are always ranked numerically higher
the solution of Q. 49, Amit than Vicky.
will reach the starting
Hence, Vicky can never be ranked lower than 4th as if he is
3 km
point if he moves 1 km
4 km
ranked 5th, then there will not be enough positions to

North and 3 km East. If he
End point accommodate both Ankit and Priya.
moves 1 km North and 4
km East, he will be 1 km Starting point 58. (4) The question states that Ankit’s rank is 1st.
1 km
West from his starting This is not possible because he always scores less than Vicky
point. 4 km and Priya.
51. (3) X = XY and Y = Y + 1 is the process that takes place in every 59. (1) If Sunil’s rank is 2nd, then Raman’s rank is 1st and Tony’s
step and the machine stops at X ≥ N. rank is 7th.
Input : X = 3, Y = 2 and N = 100. Vicky’s lowest numerical rank will be 3rd and so he will
Step 1 : X =3 × 2 = 6, Y = 3 always get less than Sunil.
Raman is ranked 1st and so Priya will always get less than
Step 2 : X = 6 × 3 = 18, Y = 4
Raman.
Step 3 : X =18 × 4 = 72, Y = 5 Vicky scores more than Priya is given in the question data.
Step 4 : X =72 × 5 = 360, Y = 6 Hence, by eliminating the options, we can conclude that it is
Hence, 4 steps are performed before the machine stops. possible for Deepak to get more than Vicky.
52. (4) In Q. 51, the final value of X = 360. 60. (1) If Vicky’s rank is 5th, then Priya’s rank is 6th and Ankit’s
rank is 7th. Hence, Sunil’s rank is highest or Sunil scores the
53. (3) In Q. 51, the final value of Y = 6. highest.
54. (4) If N = 500, then by using the solution of question 51, we 61. (3) The conclusion is that Party Z is likely to win the next
can further calculate step 5 as follows : election. A weakening statement would have to show party Y
Step 5 : X =360 × 6 = 2160, Y = 7. having a favourable advantage or party Z having a clear
Hence, the value of X = 2160. disadvantage.
Option 1 is loose and does not provide anything concrete. 70. (4) The information clearly mentions that those lawyers who
Option 2 shows the percentage of people voting from each advertise for their services charge lesser than those who do
party but fails to bring out the vantage point of a single party. not advertise. Hence, option (4) seriously weakens the
Option 4 does not weaken the conclusion. argument concerning consumer legal costs.
Option 3 clearly states a percentage of people in favour of 71. (2) Speed of train = 36 km/h = 36 × 5 /18 m/s = 10 m/s
party Z, which is less than 50%. Let the length of the platform be P and length of the train be T.
62. (4) The information given to us is about inflation rising in Now, the train crosses the platform in 20 s and the man in 10s
quarters of a year. .
Option 1 talks about the RBI taking “necessary measures” Hence, the train travelled, (P + T) in 20 s and the distance T in
which is ambiguous. 10 s.
Option 2 and 3 do not provide a strong explanation for the Hence, it travelled P distance in 20 – 10 = 10 s.
statement.
Hence, P = 10 × 10 = 100 m.
Option 4 is the right explanation. It talks about the quarterly
increase in inflation and is in line with the information given. 72. (2) Let t be the usual time taken by the man.
Now, if he travels at 4/5th of his usual speed ,then time taken
63. (3) Birth - The act or process of bearing young;
by him will be 5/4 × t.
Dirge - A funeral hymn or lament.
Similarly : Marriage - is a social union or legal contract; Hence, 5/4 × t = t + 10
alimony - allowance made to a wife out of her husband’s Hence, t = 40 min
estate or income for her support, upon her divorce. 73. (2) Relative speed of man and woman is (4 + 5) = 9 miles/h
64. (4) The reasoning in the main statement is that, ‘because Hence, time required to cover 81 miles = 81/9 = 9 h
beaches are beautiful, they are crowded’. In 9 h, the woman will travel 9 × 4 = 36 miles.
Option 1 only states that Moose and bear grow thirsty at the 74. (2) Assume that one of them walked 6 miles towards East and
same time, it does not give a reason for this. then 8 miles South.
Option 2 shows an ‘If not A then B’ type of relationship. Hence, he is 6 miles East and 8 miles South of the original
Option 3 does not show a relationship between two variables. position.
Option 4, shows a similar relation to the one described in the
Hence, he is ( 62 + 82 ) = 10 miles from his original position.
main statement.
Similarly, we can prove that the other person is also 10 miles
65. (4) Option 1 is false as there is no available measure for
from his original position.
underground industries.
Option 2 assumes that all self-employed industries are not 75. (3) Let a man takes m days and a woman takes w days to
underground, which is erroneous. complete the work.
Option 3 states that industries ‘except for self-employed Therefore, according to the question,
ones’ may be running underground. This is a wrong 4 3 1
+ = ...(i)
conclusion. m w 6
Option 4 is correct. The latter statement states that some 5 6 1
+ = ...(ii)
self-employed industries are included in national m w 4
productivity measures and only non-underground industries Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get,
are included in national productivity measures.
m = 36 and w = 54
66. (3) This statement has an underlying assumption that Hence, (2 women and 3 men)’s 1 day work
‘receiving a violation from the FAA is a hindrance to an
2/54 + 3/36 = 13/108
excellent performance record’.
Hence, they will complete the work in 108/13 = 8.3 days
67. (3) The example of Tom Hanks is specific. It is just one case Note: In actual paper, all the options were incorrect. Hence, we
upon which the broad conclusion of ‘death penalty not have changed one of the options to include the correct answer.
serving as a deterrent to murder’ has been made.
76. (3) Since, Ram completes 60% of the work in 15 days.
68. (4) Starting from upper row (the number at the center of each Therefore, he will complete 100% of the work in
row is the sum of the other numbers divided by 2) 15
1st row → ( 4 + 2) ÷ 2 = 3 × 100 = 25 days
60
2nd row → (5 + 3 + 1 + 1) ÷ 2 = 5
Now, since Rahim is 50% as efficient as Ram.
3rd row → (6 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 1) ÷ 2 = 8
Therefore, time taken by Rahim to complete the work =50
4th row → (7 + 2 + 4 + 3) ÷ 2 = 8
And since Rachel is 50% as efficient as Rahim,
5th row → (9 + 3) ÷ 2 = 6
Therefore, time taken by Rachel to complete the work = 100
69. (3) The latter part of the information states that removal of Hence, Ram, Rahim and Rachel together will complete
restrictions such as the ones including fee arrangements for 1 1 1 7
advertisements will cause reduction in overall consumer + + = of the work in one day.
25 50 100 100
legal costs and the former part of the information states that
fewer restrictions on advertising will lead to an increase in Hence, they will complete the work in 100/7 days.
lawyers advertising for their services. Hence, they can complete the remaining 40% work in
Hence, option (3) is true if the given statements information 100 40
0.4 × = days
is true. 7 7
Note: In actual paper, all the options were incorrect. Hence, we 84. (1) Probability of choosing either bag is 1/2.
have changed one of the options to include the correct answer. Now, from the first bag, we can choose one white and one
77. (2) In 9 days, B will do 9/24 = 3/8 of the work. black ball in 5 × 3 = 15 ways.
Hence, A and B together did 1 – 3/8 = 5/8 of the work While, two balls can be selected in 8C2 = 28 ways
together. Hence, probability that the two balls chosen are of different
1 1 5 colour = 15/28
Now, A and B can complete + = of the work in one
21 24 56 Similarly, we can prove that the probability that two balls
day chosen from the second bag are of different colour = 20/36
5 56 Hence, the required probability
Hence, they will complete 5/8 of the work in × = 7 days
8 5 1 15 1 20 275
= × + × =
2 28 2 36 504
78. (3) Let selling price of each article be ` 1.
∴ Selling price of 100 article = ` 100 Solutions (Q. Nos. 85-88)
∴ Profit = ` 75 Consumption = Production – Exports
∴ Cost price = 100 – 75 = 25 Per Capita Consumption = Consumption/Population
Hence, profit percentage = 75/25 × 100% = 300% ∴ Population = Consumption/Per Capita Consumption
Thus, the consumption and population for each year can be
79. (3) Let Va and Vb be the speeds of A and B, respectively.
Va 80 calculated as shown in the table below:
∴ +5= ...(i)
100 Vb %
Per
Va 60 Increase Export/
= ...(ii) Year Prod- Exports Consu- Capita Popu-
in Consu-
100 Vb uction mption Consu- lation
Consu- mption
mption
Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get mption
Vb = 4, Va = 100/15 2006 186.5 114 72.5 36.25 2.00 1.57
200
Hence, A will takes = 30 s 2007 202 114 88 35.2 2.50 21.38 1.30
100
15 2008 238 130 108 38.7 2.79 22.73 1.20
80. (2) Surface area of the original cube 2009 221 116 105 40.5 2.59 – 2.78 1.10
= 2( 4 × 4 + 4 × 4 + 4 × 4) 2010 215 88 127 42 3.02 20.95 0.69
= 2 × 3 × 16 = 6 × 16 cm2
85. (2) The percentage increase in the consumption of rice was
Now, there will 64 new cubes of side 1 cm.
the highest in 2008.
Q Surface area of a cube
= 2(1 × 1 + 1 × 1 + 1 × 1) 86. (3) From the table, the population of country A in 2008 was
2.79 million.
= 2 × 3 = 6 cm2
∴ surface area of these 64 cubes = 64 × 6 cm2 87. (1) From the table, the ratio of consumption to exports in the
Hence, percentage increase in surface area is given period was the highest in 2006 (1.57).
64 × 6 − 16 × 6 88. (4) From the table, the population of country A was the
= × 100% = 300%
16 × 6 highest in the year 2010 (3.02 million).
81. (1) G236G0 is divisible by 36 i.e., by 9 and 4 89. (2) The percentage of time spent in school
105
Therefore, G + 2 + 3 + 6 + G + 0 = 2G + 11 is divisible by 9. Also, = × 100% = 29.17% ≈ 30%
G should be an ever number. 360
Only G = 8 satisfies the given condition. 90. (3) Since, the angle subtended by “games” is 30° while that
1 1 3 subtended by “sleeping” is 120° , therefore the required
82. (3) In one day, Amit and Sagar can do + = of the percentage is (30/120) × 100% i.e., 25%.
12 15 20
work. 91. (2) Since, the student spends an equal time in games and
3 home work, he can either increase the time spent on games or
∴In 4 days, they will complete × 4 =3/5 of the work.
20 decrease the time spent on home work.
3 2 It is also given that the time spent on other activities remains
Hence, fraction of the work remaining after 4 days = 1 − = constant while the decrease in time spent on sleeping is to be
5 5
found.
83. (2) Let the width of the road be d. d This can be happen only if the time spent on games is
Hence, Area of lawn = Area of park – Area increased.
of road
So, the angle subtended for games should increase from 30°
40 m
= 2400 – (40d + 60d – d2) to 45° . If this happens, the angle subtended for sleeping will
⇒ 2109 = 2400 – 100d + d2 decrease from 120° to 105°.
⇒ d2 – 100d + 297 = 0 (120 − 105)
∴ Percentage decrease = × 100% =12.5%
⇒ d = 97 or d = 3. 60 m 120
92. (3) Difference in time spent in school and home work is (Sun, Mon), (Mon, Tue), (Tue, Wed), (Wed, Thur), (Thur, Fri),
(105 − 45) (Fri, Sat) or (Sat, Sun)
× 24 = 4 h
360 Probability that the leap year has 53 Sundays or 53 Mondays
45 P(S ∪ M) = P(S) + P(M) − P(S ∩ M)
93. (2) Time spent on home work = × 24 = 3 h 2 2 1 3
360 = + − =
Out of this, one-third i.e., one hour is spent on Mathematics. 7 7 7 7
So, the remaining two hours are spent on the rest of the 101. (2) We have, 3x + 4y = 12
subjects. ⇒ x / 4 + y /3 = 12
94. (2) Since, the given three lines are paralled and cut by two This is nothing but the intercept form of the equation of the
transversals. Therefore, given line.
AB DE Hence, intercepts on x and y axes are 4 and 3, respectively.
=
BC EF 102. (2) Given, a and d are equidistant from 36.
Substituting value of AB, BC and DE, we get This implies that average of a and d is 36.
EF = 2 × 1.5 = 3 Therefore, a + d =72
95. (4) log 10 + log 102 + … + log 10 n Similarly, we have,
log10 10 + 2 log10 10 + ...+ n log10 10 b + c = 68, a + b = 60
= 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n and c + d = 80
= n(n + 1)/2 Now, a < b and a + b = 60
96. (1) Let a be the required number. Hence, a < 30 and b > 30
 1  1 Similarly, b < 34 and c > 34
Therefore, a +  = 3 a − 
 a  a And c < 40 and d > 40
1 3 Now, only primes which satisfy these conditions are
a + = 3a −
a a a = 29, b = 31, c = 37 and d = 43
⇒ a2 = 2 ⇒ a = ± 2 Hence, d – a = 43 – 29 = 14
97. (1) Smallest and largest numbers, in the given region, which 103. (4) After selling at ` 15 per kg, Ramsukh earns a profit of
are divisible by 9 are 18 and 297, respectively. 66.66%.
Hence, the required number Therefore, cost price of rasgulla is ` 9/kg.
= (297 – 18)/9 + 1 Now, ratio of flour and sugar is 5 : 3.
= 31 + 1 = 32 Therefore, 1 kg of rasgulla is made up of 5/8 kg of flour and
n ! 3/8 kg of sugar.
98. (3) nC x = = 56 ...(i) Let price of 1 kg of flour = 3k
x !(n − x)!
n! and price of 1 kg of sugar = 7k
n
Px = = 336 ...(ii) Hence, price of 1 kg of rasgulla
(n − x)! 3 5
Dividing Eq (ii) by Eq. (i), we get × 7k + × 3k = 9 ⇒ k =2
8 8
x!=6 Hence, cost price of sugar = 7k = 7 × 2 =` 14/kg
x =3
104. (1) Let cost price of sugar be ` x per kg.
Then, from Eq (ii), Therefore, reduced cost price = 0.8x
n!
= 336 According to the question,
(n − 3)!
240/x + 6 = 240/0.8x
⇒n(n − 1)(n − 2) = 6 × 7 × 8 ⇒n =8 ⇒ 300/x = 240/x + 6
99. (1) Perimeter of the largest equilateral triangle ⇒ 60/x = 6
= 3 × 24 = 72 cm ⇒ x =`10 per kg
Now, triangle formed by joining the mid-points will have
4πr 3
perimeter half of that of original triangle. 105. (4) Volume of a solid sphere is given as , where r is the
3
Hence, the required sum = 72 + 36 + 18 + … upto infinite
radius of the sphere.
terms
πr 2h
This is nothing but an infinite GP, with first term (a) =72 and Volume of a right circular cone is , wherer is the radius of
1 3
common ratio (r) = the base of the cone and h is the height of the cone. The solid
2
sphere is recast into a right circular cone with base radius
  equal to the radius of the sphere.
a  72 
Hence, the required sum = =  = 144 cm 4 πr 3 πr 2h
1−r 1−1 ∴ = ⇒ h= 4r
3 3
 2
h 4
⇒ =
100. (3) A leap year contains 52 weeks and 2 extra days. r 1
These two days can be either of Thus, the ratio of the height to the radius is 4 : 1.
106. (1) Assume that the scooter, the car and the train travel 16 km. A wire is cylindrical in nature where the length is considered
Let their speeds be 1 km/h, 4 km/h and 16 km/h, to be its height.
respectively. Therefore, volume of this wire is πr 2l .
Thus, time taken by the scooter, the car and the train are 16 h, Let new radius and new length of the wire be r ′ and l′,
4 h and 1 h, respectively. respectively
Ratio of time taken to the velocity of each vehicle will be ∴ r ′ = r /3
(16/1) : (4/4) : (1/16) = 16 : 1 : (1/16) = 256 : 16 : 1 Now, as the volume remains constant,
2
107. (2) A can do a piece of work in 15 days. r 
πr 2l = π   l′
B is twice as efficient as A.  3
So, B can do the same piece of work in 7.5 days. ⇒ l′ = 9l
Assume that there is 15 units of work to be done. Thus, new length is 9 times the original length.
A does 1 unit per day and B does 2 units per day.
111. (4) The synonym of ‘triumph’ here in this passage, is ‘victory’.
For the first x days, A worked alone and hence work done is
1 × x = x units. 112. (3) Refer to the fourth sentence of the passage.
For the next (11 – x) days, A and B worked together. In 1 day, 113. (4) ‘Rapture’ means ‘a feeling of great joy’.
they do (1 + 2) = 3 units.
114. (4) Here in this phrase, ‘glitter’ means ‘reflection’.
So, in 11 − x days, they do 33 − 3x units.
115. (4) The passage is from the beginning to the end is talking
∴ 33 − 3x + x = 15
about the philosophy of life.
⇒ 2x = 18 and x = 9.
Thus, A worked alone for 9 days the A and B worked together 116. (4) The first sentence in itself indicates the theory so it must
for 2 days. be the title of the passage.
108. (4) Let the contributions of A, B, C and D in purchasing a 117. (1) Repetition of anything is termed ‘redundancy’.
restaurant be a , b, c and d, respectively. 118. (4) In this analogy, the relationship is in between material
Then, according to the question, and object. So, this is the right choice.
a + b + c + d = 5600000 …(i) 119. (3) ‘Realia’ clearly expresses ‘the things or objects from the
b + c + d = 4.6a …(ii) real life’.
a + c + d = 3.666 b ...(iii) 120. (4) No other sentence is grammatically correct.
0.4 (a + b + d ) = c
121. (1) No other sentence is structurally proper.
a + b + d = 2.5c …(iv)
Using Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 122. (3) All other sentences have error of prepositional use and
a = 5600000/5.6 = 1000000 …(v) the placement of pronoun.
Using Eqs. (i) and (iii), we get 123. (1) All other sentences are grammatically unacceptable.
b = 5600000/4.66 124. (4) All other sentences have error in the usage of tense.
= 1201716.73 …(vi) 125. (2) The correct phrase is ‘crashed into’.
Using Eqs. (i) and (iv), we get
126. (1) 127. (2) 128. (2) 129. (1) 130. (1)
c =5600000/3.5 =1600000 …(vii)
Using Eqs. (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get d ≈ 1800000 131. (3) This sentence doesn’t need ‘about’.
109. (4) Let the salary of Saroj be ` 100. 132. (2) It should be ‘‘It had ..... ’’ in place of ‘‘It had had ....... ’’.
Given that salary of Raju and Ram is 20% and 30% less than 133. (3) After the use of 'repeat’, the use of ‘again’ is uncalled for.
Saroj’s salary.
134. (4) 135. (1) 136. (2) 137. (2) 138. (2)
Hence, Raju’s salary =80% of 100
139. (1) 140. (4) 141. (4) 142. (1) 143. (4)
=` 80
and Ram’s salary = 70% of 100 =` 70 144. (3) 145. (1) 146. (4) 147. (4) 148. (4)
80 − 70 149. (3) The word ‘since’ indicates that it is a sentence of Present
Thus, required percentage = × 100%
70 Perfect Continuous.
=14.28% 150. (4) The word ‘Although’ is the indicator of the right option for
110. (4) Let the radius of the wire be r and its length be l. the answer.
SNAP 2009
Symbiosis National Aptitude Test Solved Paper
■ Quantitative and Data Interpretation & Data 8. There are 10 stations on a railway line. The number of
different journey tickets that are required by the authorities
Sufﬁciency Section is
For all questions in this section, correct answers carry (1) 92 (2) 90
1 mark each. (3) 91 (4) None of these
1. A dice is rolled three times and sum of three numbers 9. The radius of circle is so increased that its circumference
appearing on the uppermost face is 15. The chance that increased by 5%. The area of the circle then increases
the first roll was a four is by
(1) 2/5 (2) 1/5 (1) 12.5% (2) 10.25%
(3) 1/6 (4) None of these (3) 10.5% (4) 11.25%
2. A boat covers a distance of 30 km downstream in 2 h while 10 In how many ways can the letters of the word ABACUS
it takes 6 h to cover the same distance upstream. What is be rearranged such that the vowels always appear
the speed of the boat in kms per hour? together?
(1) 5 (2) 7.5 (1) 6!/2! (2) 3!×3!
(3) 13 (4) 18 (3) (3!×3!)/2! (4) (4!×3!)/2!
3. A five digit number is formed by using the digits 1,2,3,4 11. In 4 yr, Rs 6000 amounts to Rs 8000. In what time at the
and 5 with without repetitions. What is the probability same rate will Rs 525 amount to Rs 700?
that the number is divisible by 4? (1) 2 yr (2) 3 yr
(1) 1/5 (2) 5/6 (3) 4 yr (4) 5 yr
(3) 4/5 (4) None of these
Directions (Q. 12-14): At the start of a game of cards, J
4. If the algebraic sum of deviations of 20 observations
and B together had four times as much money as T, while T
measured from 23 is 70,mean of these observations would
and B together had three times as much as J.
be At the end of the evening, J and B together had three times as
(1) 24 (2) 25 much money as T, while T and B together had twice as much
(3) 26 (4) None of these as J. B lost Rs 200.
5. An alloy of gold and silver weighs 50 g. It contains 80%
gold. How much gold should be added to the alloy so that 12. What fraction of the total money did T have at the
percentage of gold is increased to 90? beginning of the game?
(1) 50 g (2) 60 g (1) 1/3 (2) 1/8
(3) 30 g (4) 40 g (3) 2/9 (4) 1/5
6. Weekly incomes of two persons are in the ratio of 7 : 3 and 13. What fraction of the total money did J win/lose?
their weekly expenses are in the ratio of 5 : 2. If each of (1) Won 1/12 (2) Lost 1/6
them saves Rs 300 per week, then the weekly income of (3) Lost 1/3 (4) Won 1/5
the first person is 14. What amount did B start with?
(1) Rs 7500 (2) Rs 4500 (1) Rs 575 (2) Rs 375
(3) Rs 6300 (4) Rs 5400 (3) Rs 825 (4) Rs 275
7. Wheat is now being sold at Rs 27 per kg. During last 15. If a and b are negative, and c is positive, which of the
month its cost was Rs 24 per kg. Find by how much per following statement/s is /are true?
cent a family reduces its consumption so as to keep the (I) a – b<a – c (II) if a<b, then a/c<b/c
expenditure fixed. (III) a/b<a/c
(1) 10.2% (2) 12.1% (1) I only (2) II only
(3) 12.3% (4) 11.1% (3) III only (4) II and III only
1
2 SNAP Solved Paper 2009
16. The diagonal of a square is 4 2 cm. The diagonal of 22. In an examination, out of 480 students 85% of the girls
another square whose area is double that of the first and 70% of the boys passed. How many boys appeared in
square is the examination if total pass percentage was 75%?
(1) 8 cm (2) 8 2 cm (1) 370 (2) 340
(3) 4 2 cm (4) 16 cm (3) 320 (4) 360
17. The maximum length of a pencil that can be kept in a 23. 300 g of salt solution has 40% salt in it. How much salt
rectangular box of dimensions 8 cm × 6 cm × 2 cm, is should be added to make it 50% in the solution?
(1) 40 kg (2) 60 kg
(1) 2 13 cm (2) 2 14 cm
(3) 70 kg (4) 80 kg
(3) 2 26 cm (4) 10 2 cm
24. What number should replace the question mark in the
Directions (Q. 18-19): Questions are based on the image below?
information given below. 6 12 ?
The Venn diagram given below shows the estimated 48 96 192
readership of 3 daily newspapers (X,Y & Z) in a city. The (1) 18 (2) 20
total readership and advertising cost for each of these (3) 22 (4) 24
papers is as below. 25. What image from bottom row should replace the question
mark?
Newspapers Readership Advertising cost
(lakhs) (Rs per sq cm) + C T
X 8.7 6000
Y 9.1 6500
Z 5.6 5000
The total population of the city is estimated to be 14 C T +

million. The common readership (in lakhs) is indicated in
the given Venn diagram.
T +
X Y
2.5
?
0.5
1.0 1.5 T C + T T C
1 2 3 4 5 6
18. The number of people (in lakhs) who read at least one
newspaper is (1) 4 (2) 6
(1) 4.7 (2) 11.9 (3) 1 (4) None of these
(3) 17.4 (4) 23.4 26. A five-digit number divisible by 3 is to be formed using
19. The number of people (in lakhs) who read only one digits 0,1,2,3,4 and 5 without repetition. The total number
newspaper is of ways this can be done is
(1) 4.7 (2) 11.9 (1) 122 (2) 210
(3) 17.4 (4) 23.4 (3) 216 (4) 217
20 Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance 27. A contract is to be completed in 50 days and 105 men
policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in were set to work, each working 8 h a day. After 25 days,
shopping and on household expenses. She saves the 2/5 of the work is finished. How many additional men be
remaining amount of Rs 12750. What is Sonali’s monthly employed so that the work may be completed on time,
income? each man now working 9 h a day?
(1) Rs 42500 (2) Rs 38800 (1) 34 (2) 36
(3) Rs 40000 (4) Rs 35500 (3) 35 (4) 37
21. How many kg of tea worth Rs 25 per kg must be blended 28. A can built up a structure in 8 days and B can break it in 3
with 30 kg of tea worth Rs 30 per kg so that by selling days. A has worked for 4 days and then B joined to work
the blended variety at Rs 30 kg there should be a gain of with A for another 2 days only. In how many days will A
10%? alone built up the remaining part of the structure?
(1) 36 kg (2) 40 kg (1) 10 days (2) 9 days
(3) 32 kg (4) 42 kg (3) 12 days (4) None of these
Solved Paper 2009 SNAP 3
29. The first two terms of a geometric progression add up to in Arts faculty. Use this information to answer the
12. The sum of the third and the fourth terms is 48.If the following questions.
terms of the geometric progression are alternately positive
and negative, then the first term is Engineering
9%
(1) – 2
(2) – 4 Arts 23%
Science
(3) – 12
21%
(4) 8
30. The mean of the numbers a, b, 8, 5, 10 is 6 and the
variance is 6.80. Then which one of the following gives Business
Medicine 14%
possible values of a and b ? 5%
(1) a = 0, b = 7
(2) a = 5, b = 2 Law 6%
Computing
(3) a = 3, b = 4 22%
(4) a = 2, b = 4 Students by Faculty
31. An agent sells goods of value of Rs 15000. The commission Australian
1 African 2 4
which he receives at the ratio of 12 % is
2 Asian 6
(1) Rs 1875
(2) Rs 2125 European
(3) Rs 2000 21
(4) Rs 2700
South
32. 110.25 × 0.01 ÷ 0.00025 – 420.25 equal to American
79
(1) 0.75 (2) 0.50
Arts Students (Non-US)
(3) 0.64 (4) 0.73
36. What percentage of students in the Arts faculty are
Directions (Q. 33-35): The table below shows the number non-US students?
of people who responded to a survey about their favourite (1) 14% (2) 9%
style of music. Use this information to answer the following (3) 30% (4) 11%
questions to the nearest whole percentage.
37. How many students are there in the Engineering faculty?
(1) 420 (2) 410
Age 15-20 21-30 31+
(3) 390 (4) 440
Classical 6 4 17
Pop 7 5 5 38. How many students are there at the University?
Rock 6 12 14 (1) 4650 (2) 4560
Jazz 1 4 11 (3) 4640 (4) 4450
Blues 2 3 15 39. If six per cent of Science students are Asian. How many
Hip – Hop 9 3 4 Asian students are studying Science?
Ambient 2 2 2 (1) 48% (2) 66%
33 33 68 (3) 120% (4) 57%
33. What percentage of respondents under 31 indicated that 40. There are 34 European medical students. What percentage
Blues is their favourite style of music? of the faculty does this represent?
(1) 7.1 (2) 7.6 (1) 14% (2) 18%
(3) 8.3 (4) 14.1 (3) 16% (4) 15%
34. What percentage of respondents aged 21-30 indicated a
favourite style other than Rock music?
■ Analytical & Logical Reasoning Section
(1) 64% (2) 60% For all questions in this section, correct answers carry
(3) 75% (4) 36% 2 marks each.
35. What percentage of the total sample indicated that Jazz is 41. There are 3 societies A, B, C having some tractors each.
their favourite style of music? A gives B and C as many tractors as they already have.
(1) 6% (2) 8% After some days B gives A and C as many tractors as they
(3) 22% (4) 12% have.
After some days C gives A and B as many tractors as they
Directions (Q. 36-40): The pie charts below show the have.
percentage of students in each faculty at North West Finally each has 24 tractors. What is the original number
University and the number of non-US students in the of tractors each had in the beginning?
Arts faculty. These percentages have been rounded to the (1) A-29, B-21, C-12 (2) A-39, B-21, C-12
nearest whole number. There are a total of 1049 students (3) A-29, B-12, C-29 (4) A-21, B-12, C-39
42. Although most of the fastest growing jobs in today’s (3) Since Evelyn is right about Lou’s argument, her own
economy will require a college degree, many of the new conclusion is well supported.
jobs being created from home health aide to desktop (4) Since Evelyn is mistaken about Lou’s argument, her
publisher require knowledge other than gained from own conclusion must be false.
earning a degree. For workers in those jobs, good basic 45. Cars are safer than planes. Fifty per cent of plane accidents
skills in reading, communication and mathematics play result in death, while only one per cent of car accidents
an important role in getting a job and developing a result in death.
career. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously
From the information given above it can be validly weaken the argument above?
concluded that, in today’s economy (1) Planes are inspected more often than cars.
(1) skills in reading, communication and mathematics (2) The number of car accidents is several hundred
play an important role in developing a career as a thousand times higher than the number of plane
desktop publisher. accidents.
(2) the majority of the new jobs being created require (3) Pilots never fly under the influence of alcohol, while
knowledge other than that gained from earning a car drivers often do.
college degree (4) Plane accidents are usually the fault of air traffic
(3) a job as a home health aide will rely more on controllers, not pilots.
communications skills than on a basic skills in reading
and mathematics. Directions (Q. 46-48): Refer to the chart below showing
(4) if a job is one of the fastest growing jobs, it will require annual production and answer the questions that follow.
a college degree
Element (% Production) Industry Primary Use (% used)
43. According to the National Agricultural Aviation Society
(NAAS), without the use of crop protection products
to control insects, weeds, and diseases, crop yields
per acre will drop by more than 50% . The first aerial 1-10% P-15%
application of insecticide occurred in 1921 and it was A Q-15%
2-10%
huge success. By contrast, in today’s economy all aircraft
that are classified as aerial applicators do more than just R-15%
apply insecticide; today, they also spread seeds and apply
fertilizer. 3-10%
From the information given above it CANNOT be validly
conclude that
4-25%
(1) according to the NAAS, if crop yields per acre
never drop by more than 50%, then crop protection S-15%
products have been used to control insects, weeds,
and diseases. B
T-5%
(2) in today’s economy any aircraft that cannot be used
to apply fertilizer cannot be classified as an aerial 5-40%
applicator
U-15%
(3) in today’s economy, if an aerial applicator is used, then
it will be able to spread seed and to apply fertilizer 6-5% C V-10%
(4) according to NAAS, if crop yields per acre drop by W-10%
more than 50%, then crop protection products
have not been used to control insects, weeds, and
diseases. 100% = 100000 tons Total - 100%
44. Lou observes that if flight 409 is cancelled, then the
46. Which industry/industries contribute/contributes to company
manager could not possibly arrive in time for the meeting.
S?
But the flight was not cancelled. Therefore, Lou concludes,
(1) industry A and B only (2) B and C only
the manager will certainly be on time.Evelyn replies that
(3) A and C only (4) Smallest plant
even if Lou’s premises true, his argument is fallacious. And
therefore, she adds, the manager will not arrive on time 47. Industry B processes what percentage of the total
after all. production of listed elements?
Which of the following is the strongest thing that we can (1) 25% (2) 65%
properly say about this discussion? (3) 40% (4) Cannot be determined
(1) Evelyn is mistaken in thinking Lou’s argument to be 48. Of the listed elements processed by the Industry A, how
fallacious, and so her own conclusion is unwarranted. many tons are produced annually?
(2) Evelyn is right about Lou’s argument, but nevertheless (1) 30000 (2) 50000
her own conclusion is unwarranted. (3) 100000 (4) 55000
Directions (Q. 49-52): In each of the following questions 56. 12 336 14

there are two blanks marked I & II. The words to fill in 15 ? 16
these blanks are given against I as (A, B, C, D) and II (1) 220 (2) 480
as (P, Q, R, S) RESPECTIVELY. The right words to fill in
(3) 125 (4) 450
these blanks are given as four alternatives. The words on
either side of the sign (: :) have a similar relationship. Directions (Q. 57-58): Seven People A, B, C, D, E, F, G are
That alternative which signifies this relationship is your planning to enjoy boating. There are only two boats, and the
answer. following conditions are to be kept in mind.
49. I : Increase : : Descend : II (i) A will go in the same boat in which E is to go.
I. (A) Grow (B) Ascend (ii) F cannot go in the same boat in which C is, unless D is
(C) Rise (D) Price also accompanying.
II. (P) Reduce (Q) Down (iii) Neither B nor C can be given the boat in which G
(R) Decrease (S) Mountain is.
(1) AR (2) RB (iv) The maximum number of persons in one boat can be
(3) CP (4) DQ four only.
50. Modern : I : : II : Old 57. If F and B are in one boat, which of the following statements
I. (A) Ancient (B) Death is true ?
(C) Famous (D) Civilization (1) G is in the other boat
II. (P) Industrialisation (Q) Young (2) D is in the other boat
(R) Fashion (S) Western (3) C is in the other boat
(1) AQ (2) AS (4) E is with F and B in one boat
(3) BP (4) CR
58. If E gets the boat with F, which of the following is the
51. Part : I : : Class : II
complete and accurate list of the people who must be
I. (A) Section (B) Whole sitting in one boat ?
(C) School (D) Students (1) F and E (2) G and A
II. (P) Student (Q) Shchool (3) D and A (4) C, D and B
(R) Teachers (S) Room
(1) AR (2) BQ Directions (Q. 59-60): A series of figures has been shown.
(3) CP (4) DS Find the figure in the place of ? from the figures given below.
52. Summit : Apex : I : II
I. (A) Beautiful (B) Picture
(C) Attractive (D) Enhancing 59. ?
II. (P) Comfortable (B) Pretty
(C) Healthy (D) Brave
(1) AQ (2) BP
(3) DS (4) CR
53. If in a certain code BEAUTIFUL is coded as 573041208, (1) (2) (3) (4)
BUTTER as 504479, how is FUTURE coded in that code?
(1) 201497 (2) 204097
(3) 704092 (4) 204079
60. ?
54. How many Mondays are there in particular month of a
particular year if the month ends on Wednesday ?
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) Cannot be specified
Directions (Q. 55-56): There are two rows of numbers in (1) (2) (3) (4)
each question. The upper row is complete and in the lower
one number is missing. Find a suitable number to fill the 61. Complete the following series.
blank space so that the symmetry with the upper row is (GMSY, IOUA, KQWC, ?)
maintained. (1) MSYE (2) NSYE
(3) MYTE (4) MSYF
55. 17 102 12
15 ? 10 Directions (Q. 62-65): Following is a new plan called
(1) 211 (2) 75 ‘Airtel one’ introduced by Airtel (GSM service Provider) for
(3) 125 (4) 117 its post-paid customers.
Pulse Rate 60 Secs (1) USA, Canada, Europe (Fixed Line)

Price of Plan Rs 99 (2) Gulf, Europe (Mobile), SAARC
Free Airtime on Plan Nill (3) Rest of the World
Incoming Calls (Rs) Free (4) Cannot be determined
Outgoing Calls (Rs/min.) Airtel GSM/CDMA Landline/
WLL Directions (Q. 66-67): These questions are based on the
graph which shows the demand and production statistics of
(10 Digit)
5 TV companies.
LOCAL RATES Re 1 Re 1 Rs 2
STD RATES Demand Production
50-200 km Rs 1.50 Rs 1.50 Rs 2
200-500 km Rs 1.50 Rs 2.50 Rs 2.50 3500 3300
500 + km Rs 1.50 Rs 3.00 Rs 3.50 3000
2700
3000
ISD 2500
USA, Canada, Europe Rs 7 2500 2200
(Fixed Line)
2000 1800
Gulf, Europe (Mobile) Rs 10
1500
SAARC 1500 1200
Rest of the world Rs 40 1000
SMS 1000
600
Local Rs 1.50 500
National Rs 2.00
International Rs 5.00 0
A B C D E
Value Added Service (Rs) Rs 3.00 and Rs 6.00
Depending on the service 66. What is the difference between the average demand
and the average production of the five companies taken
together?
Monthly bill = Call charges + SMS charges + Price of Plan (1) 1400 (2) 400
(3) 280 (4) 138
62. If Mohan made STD calls (within 100 km) for 30 min and
67. The production of the company D is how many times of
spent 100 min on local calls with 30% on landline. 40% in
the production of the company A?
GSM and 30% on Airtel, and Rohan spent 18 min on STD
(1) 1.8 (2) 1.5
within 150 km and spent 120 min on local calls with 30%,
40% and 30% on GSM, landline and Airtel respectively, (3) 2.5 (4) 1.11
then who spent more? Directions (Q. 68-69): The following questions are based
(1) Mohan on the pie-chart given below which gives the expenditure
(2) Rohan incurred in printing a magazine.
(3) Both spent the same amount
(4) Cannot be determined Miscellaneous
2%
63. A new SMS scheme was introduced @60p/local SMS,
with an additional monthly charge of Rs 35. Who will not Transportation
benefit from the scheme ? A person sending 4%
(1) 38 local SMS a month Paper Cost
(2) 40 local SMS a month 10%
(3) 60 local SMS a month Binding
(4) 59 local SMS a month 12%
64. A bill of Rs 199/Month is definitely not possible when you
make only
(1) 30 calls to Airtel on STD (500 + km) and 55 local calls Printing
in a month 24%
(2) 16 calls to Airtel on STD (150 km) and 76 local calls
Promotion cost
in a month 18%
(3) 10 STD calls (250 km) each to Airtel, GSM and
landline respectively and 30 local calls in a month
(4) 8, 4 and 7 calls to Airtel, GSM and landline respectively
on STD (500 + km) and 55 local calls in a month
65. A person makes 12 min of ISD calls in a month. If 80% of
his ISD bill from calling the rest of the world, then the ISD
calls for the minimum duration were made to which of the Editorial content
development
following group of countries? 30%
68. What is the angle for the sector representing paper cost? Directions (Q. 80-81): Which punctuation mark is missing
(1) 10 degrees (2) 36 degrees in the following sentences?
(3) 23.5 degrees (4) 45 degrees
69. For a given issue of the magazine, the 2% of the cost is (1) inverted commas (2) semicolon
Rs 2000 and the print-run is 12500 copies. What should be (3) comma (4) hypen
the sale price if the publisher desires a profit of 5%? 80. Part of Australia is known to the natives as The Outback.
(1) Rs 5 (2) Rs 7.5 81. I know that you want to learn to drive Rima but you are
(3) Rs 8 (4) Rs 8.40 too young.
70. If ‘water’ is called ‘food’ , ‘food’ is called ‘tree’, ‘tree’ is
called ‘sky’, ‘sky’ is called ‘wall’, on which of the following Directions (Q. 82-83): Select as option the word closest in
meaning to the given word.
does a ‘fruit’ grow ?
(1) Water (2) Food 82. Veracious
(3) Tree (4) Sky (1) False (2) Varied
(3) Image (4) Truthful
■ General English Section 83. Perturb
For all questions in this section, correct answers carry (1) Stipulate (2) Turn around
1 mark each. (3) Disturb greatly (4) Compatible
Directions (Q. 71-72): Choose the correct option to fill the Directions (Q. 84-85): Choose the option that is the closest
blank for correct grammatical use. in meaning to the phrases in bold.
71. She is a close friend of .
84. He was a king who ruled his subjects with a high hand.
(1) my (2) I
(1) sympathetically (2) oppressively
(3) me (4) mine
(3) democratically (4) generously
72. He took care of her she was restored to 85. I racked my brains to solve this difficult problem.
health. (1) I read a large number of books.
(1) when (2) before (2) I consulted several people.
(3) after (4) till (3) I used my commonsense.
73. Choose the correct option: The man his (4) I subjected my mind to hard thinking.
appearance completely since then.
(1) is changing (2) changed Directions (Q. 86-87): Select the most appropriate
(3) has changed (4) is changed meaning of the underlined idiomatic phrase.
74. From the options below, choose the word with the incorrect
spelling 86. I was supposed to give a speech to my English class, but I
(1) Diarrhea (2) Diaper got cold feet and I didn’t go.
(3) Dichotomy (4) Dias (1) My English class-room makes my feet feel too cold.
(2) My feet got cold so I didn’t go.
75. Choose the word spelt correctly
(3) I got too nervous and I didn’t go.
(1) superintendant (2) sieve
(4) It was winter time and I had no snacks for my feet.
(3) allotted (4) dissipate
87. Take care of what u say! You will have to eat your words!
Directions (Q. 76-79): Fill in the blanks with the correct (1) You have no food to eat.
pair of words. (2) You will have to take back what you have said.
(3) You are not good with your language.
76. He lives Bangaluru 115, Richmond
Road.
(1) at in (2) in at 88. Which two sentences convey the same idea?
(3) at on (4) in on 1. Shouldn’t they have checked your tickets?
2. I wonder if they should have checked your tickets.
77. ‘Aurally challenged’ is a for the .
3. I want to know if they checked your tickets.
(1) metaphor blind
4. They should have checked your tickets.
(2) euphemism deaf
(1) 2, 3 (2) 1, 2
(3) simile disable
(3) 1, 4 (4) 2, 4
(4) synonym dump
78. If error is a fault is . Directions (Q. 89-90): Choose a single word which is
(1) defect – a mistake (2) mistake – a defect opposed to the meaning contained in the sentence.
(3) slip – an inaccuracy (4) blunder – to blame
79. The man has the rules of ethical conduct; he 89. He was magnanimous and his benevolence made him give
is a beast. to charity.
(1) flaunted – literally (2) ignored - basically (1) mean (2) cruel
(3) broken - as (4) flouted – virtually (3) snobbish (4) tyrannical
90. Biannual is 97. Your account should have been credited with three
(1) once in two years (2) every year (1) (2) (3)
(3) twice a year (4) after every two years month’s interest
91. Choose the odd one out (4)
(1) temporal (2) ephemeral 98. Choose the sentence where the underlined word is used
(3) transient (4) eternal appropriately.
92. Choose the correct option (1) Who’s car are you planning to borrow?
If ‘inter’ means between as in interstate, ‘intra’ as in (2) Whose planning to have a birthday party?
intravenous means . (3) He is the person who you met at the junction.
(1) Into (2) onto (4) Does the know whom to about the hotel reservations?
(3) within (4) without
93. Match the part of speech (in bold) to their usage (down) Directions (Q. 99-100): Choose
1. Adjective 5. The fire engine came rushing (1) if the first sentence is correct
down the hill. (2) if the second sentence is correct
2. Preposition 6. He has seen the ups and downs (3) if both sentences are correct
(4) if both sentences are wrong
of life.
3. Noun 7. Down with the tyrant!
99. 1. Can you imagine his forgetting his own birthday?
4. Verb 8. The porter was hit by the down
2. Can you imagine him forgetting his own birthday?
train.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 1-8, 2-5, 3-6, 4-7 (2) 1-6, 2-5, 3-8, 4-7
(3) 1-5, 2-6, 3-7, 4-8 (4) 1-5, 2-7, 3-6, 4-8 100. 1. Recently I read about a unique wedding that took place
in the newspaper.
Directions (Q. 94): Match the items in the column I with 2. Recently I read in the newspaper about a unique
those in column II. Choose the correct answer combination wedding that took place.
given below. (1) (2) (3) (4)
101. Complete the given sentence by choosing the correct
94. I II
phrase.
1. As deaf as 5. gall
You cannot succeed unless
2. As bitter as 6. an eel
(1) You do not work hard.
3. As unpredictable as 7. a post
(2) You shall not work hard.
4. As slippery as 8. the weather
(3) You will work hard.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (4) You work hard.
1-7 1-7 1-8 1-5 102. Re-arrange the scrambled segments in logical order to
2-6 2-8 2-5 2-7 make a complete sentence.
3-8 3-8 3-5 3-6 1. to place where more opportunities are available
4-5 4-6 4-7 4-8 2. and so there is a great demand for English
3. for professional and economic growth
Directions (Q. 95): Match the part of speech (in bold) to 4. because it takes one outside one’s own community
their usage. 5. English is language of opportunities
(1) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 (2) 5, 4, 1, 3, 2
95. ABOVE (3) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 (4) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
1. Adjective 5. Rain comes from above. 103. Choose the best construction
2. Adverb 6. His conduct is above suspicious. (1) If you would have taken care you wouldn’t have got
3. Noun 7. Look above the mantel piece. typhoid.
4. Preposition 8. The above information is for the (2) If you took care you wouldn’t have got typhoid.
public. (3) If you take care you wouldn’t have got typhoid.
(4) If you had taken care you wouldn’t have got
(1) (2) (3) (4)
typhoid.
1-8 1-7 1-8 1-6
2-7 2-6 2-5 2-8 Directions (Q. 104-105): Choose the correct option.
3-5 3-5 3-6 3-5
4-6 4-8 4-7 4-7 104. At times, we are all to be mistaken.
(1) apt (2) likely
Directions (Q. 96-97): Choose the segment with error. If (3) considered (4) able
there is no error, choose ‘4’. 105. He hardly cares, ?
(1) does he (2) doesn’t he
96. Idli and Sambar make the breakfast in the south. (3) will he (4) won’t he
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Directions (Q. 106-107): Identify the figures of speech in 111. Dendrochronology is

the following sentences. (1) The method of scientific dating based on the analysis
of tree-ring growth patterns.
106. As proud as a peacock. (2) A core sample from the accumulation of snow and ice
(1) Metaphor (2) Simile over many years that have re-crystallized and have
(3) Apostrophe (4) Epigram trapped air bubbles from previous time periods.
107. Death lays his icy hand on kings. (3) is the study of glaciers or more generally ice and
(1) Personification (2) Exclamation natural phenomena that involve ice.
(3) Simile (4) Anticlimax (4) The scientific study of landforms and the processes
that shape them.
Directions (Q. 108-110): Read the passage carefully and 112. Which company launched the first mobile phone operation
answer within the context. in India?
“A way to deal with frozen feelings” (1) Bharti Airtel (2) Essar
Every child experiences all that happens around him with (3) Max touch (4) Modi Telstra
total awareness. In the first seven years the child’s brain 113. Which is the longest running English language TV cartoon
is like a sponge, taking in all sensory inputs and building in history, first launched by Warner Brothers in 1969
his idea of his surroundings. As long as the environment exclusively for television, and in now popular fare on the
is safe, the child learns with incredible speed. However, cartoon Network?
when the environment is scary or stressful, the child (1) Scooby Doo (2) Tom and Jerry
unlearns past learning just as rapidly. (3) Popeye (4) Johnny Bravo
In the early years of every child’s life, whenever there 114. The expansion for BIFR, in the context of the Indian
is shock, violence, fear or pain, these intense emotions Industry is
are imprinted deeply into memory. Whenever the same (1) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
activity or situation is repeated, the nervous system and (2) Bureau for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
body subconsciously re-experience the memory of that (3) Board for Investment and Financial Reconstruction
trauma. (4) Bureau for Investment and Financial Reconstruction
Any emotional situation that takes us out of the present 115. What is Ekistics?
and into the past means that whenever the same kind of (1) The water sports related study
emotion crops up later in our life we return to the past for (2) The science of Body Mass
our reference point. If that point was at age three, we find (3) The art of card tricks
ourselves behaving like a three-year-old. We feel childish (4) The science of human settlements
and we behave childishly. Our feelings are the cause of 116. What is Red Herring in an IPO?
this ‘glitch’ in our learning process. We know we should (1) Prospectus
be able to make a positive change, but that doesn’t change (2) Submission of Form
anything. (3) Funds Generated during IPO
The process of change need not be traumatic. We couldn’t (4) Minimum offer per share
have done any better because we didn’t know how to. But 117. Eight O’clock coffee, a US based coffee marketer, is a
we should realize that was then and this is now! We can group company of
choose to choose again. It’s up to us. It’s our movie! (1) Tata (2) ITC
108. The “Frozen Feelings” being talked about are about (3) Britannia (4) Unilever
(1) negative childhood experiences 118. Bio-diesel is extracted from the following plant
(2) childhood learning patterns (1) Hibiscus (2) Aloe vera
(3) inability to learn as an adult (3) Jatropha (4) Chamomile
119. Which woman tennis player won the maximum number of
109. A ‘glitch’ is Grand Slam singles titles in the history of tennis?
(1) a ditch (2) uneasy emotions (1) Steffi Graf (2) Martina Navratilova
(3) sudden malfunction or breakdown (3) Billi Jean King (4) Margaret court
(4) learning patterns
120. What is the nickname of New York city?
110. Identify the correct sentence, based on the paragraph
(1) Big Sweet Lime (2) Big Apple
(1) The process of change needs to be traumatic.
(3) Big Grape (4) None of these
(2) We feel childish and we behave childishly.
(3) Both sentences are incorrect. 121. Which was the first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ?
(4) Both the sentences are correct. (1) TCS (2) Wipro
(3) Infosys (4) Cognizant
■ General Awareness : General Knowledge, Current 122. ‘TAREGNA’- a village in Bihar was in the news because of
(1) Rahul Gandhi’s election campaign
Affairs, Business Scenario (2) Viewing of the solar eclipse
For all questions in this section, correct answers carry (3) A visit by Hillary Clinton
1 mark each. (4) The Naxal massacre of tribals
123. The driver for Formula One’s Force India Team is 134. As a practice, all major states capitals have offices of
(1) Mark Webber (2) Adrian Sutil Reserve Bank of India with only one exception. Which city
(3) Felipe Massa (4) Jensen Button of India has an office of RBI without being a state capital?
124. (MDRT)- Million Dollar Round Table consists of (1) Pune (2) Allahabad
(1) World’s richest industrialists (3) Baroda (4) Nagpur
(2) World’s most powerful golfers 135. This distinguished Indian was born on 28 December 1937
(3) Global Association of Life Insurance professionals in Surat. He has completed the Advanced Management
(4) World’s richest sports persons Program at Harvard Business School, USA. He turned down
a job offer from IBM to join his family business and today he
125. Who declares the ‘Credit Policy’ of India?
is one the top business leaders of India. Name the tycoon.
(1) The Finance Ministry
(1) Ratan Tata (2) Anil Ambani
(2) Reserve Bank of India
(3) Azim Premji (4) Anand Mahindra
(3) The Commerce Ministry
(4) The Indian Bank’s Association 136. It’s known to be used in Egypt in 3000 BC, but its name
had been derived from old French expression. It is made
126. Name of the body which regulates the stock Exchanges in
from the fermentation of ethanol in a process that yields
India is
its key ingredient, ethanoic acid. What is it?
(1) CBI (2) CID
(1) Tobasco Sauce (2) Phenol
(3) SHCIL (4) SEBI
(3) Vinegar (4) Soya Sauce
127. Rafflesia arnoldii is its botanical name and it holds a world 137. The name of this Japanese company literally means ‘three
record in the plant world. What’s the record? diamonds’. Which one?
(1) Tallest cacti (2) Largest bloom (1) Sanyo (2) Mutsuhito
(3) Longest surviving tree (4) Smallest plant (3) Mitsubishi (4) Suzuki
128. Temujin was a famous historical character of the world, 138. Who were the first twins to play test cricket?
but we know him by a different name, which one? (1) Merv and Kim Hughes
(1) Babur (2) Genghis Khan (2) Ian and Greg Chappel
(3) Kublai Khan (4) Empereor Nero (3) Surinder and Mohinder Amarnath
129. What is short selling in stock market lingo? (4) Steve and Mark Waugh
(1) Selling the shares which you do not own. 139. Which country has the largest rail network in the world?
(2) Selling a share after owning it for a short period of (1) India (2) China
time. (3) USA (4) UK
(3) Selling all the shares in your booty which are not 140. Who won the 2009 French open tennis ladies tittle?
productive. (1) Svetlana Kuznetsova (2) Kristina Mladenovic
(4) Selling of shares which are quoted for a short period (3) Maria Sharapova (4) Venus Williams
of time.
141. Who invented the microchip?
130. Mahatma Gandhi was nominated for Nobel Peace prize (1) Robert Noyce and Jack Kilby
for the first time in the year 1937 and last time in the year (2) Larry Page and Sergey Brin
1948. How many times in between these two years was he (3) Saber Bhatia
nominated? (4) Gordon Moore & Robert Noyce
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 0 142. Which is the largest landlocked country in the world?
(1) Switzerland (2) China
131. Which organization instituted the Nobel Prize in
(3) Kazakhstan (4) Mongolia
Economics?
(1) Svenska Handelsbanken 143. Which country makes Panama hats?
(2) International Monetary Fund (1) Ecuador (2) Panama
(3) Economics Department of Oxford University (3) Cuba (4) Bolivia
(4) Sveriges Riksbank 144. Who was the Prime Minister of India when the 42nd
132. Film stars have been endorsing Lux beauty soap since Amendment Bill bringing in the changes in the constitution
ages. Who was the first actress of Bollywood to do so? was passed?
(1) Madhubala (2) Leela Naidu (1) Rajiv Gandhi (2) VP Singh
(3) Suraiya (4) Leela Chitnis (3) Indira Gandhi (4) Morarji Desai
133. India’s interstate cricket tournament is named after 145. Which one of the following planets lost its planet status
Kumar Shri Ranjitsinghji Vibhaji Jadeja or in short recently?
Ranji, the great cricket legend. He played his cricket (1) Moon (2) Neptune
in England and also played for English national team. (3) Pluto (4) Saturn
Which country he used to play for in the league cricket 146. One barrel of oil is approximately equivalent to how many
of England? litres?
(1) Sussex (2) Essex (1) 200 (2) 150
(3) Somerset (4) Surrey (3) 120 (4) 160
147. Five year plans in India are finally approved by the 149. Which one of the following is not a member of the
(1) Union Cabinet Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)?
(2) President on the advice of prime minister (1) Algeria (2) Brazil
(3) National Development Council (3) Ecuador (4) Nigeria
(4) Planning commission 150. Who invented ‘computer laptop’?
148. Many a time we read in the newspapers about Southern (1) Arthur Wynna-USA
Cone of South America which includes Argentina, Chile, (2) Q. Daimler-Germany
Paraguay, Uruguay and Peru. Which is the most spoken (3) Sinclair-Britain
language of this geographical area? (4) None of these
(1) Portuguese (2) Spanish
(3) French (4) English
Answers
1. (2) 2. (*) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (4) 29. (3) 30. (3)
31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (4) 36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (4)
41. (2) 42. (1) 43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (2) 50. (1)
51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (4) 55. (2) 56. (2) 57. (1) 58. (4) 59. (3) 60. (3)
61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (1) 64. (4) 65. (4) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (2) 69. (4) 70. (4)
71. (4) 72. (4) 73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (2) 77. (2) 78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (1)
81. (3) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (2) 85. (4) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (3) 89. (1) 90. (3)
91. (4) 92. (3) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (1) 96. (2) 97. (4) 98. (4) 99. (2) 100. (2)
101. (4) 102. (2) 103. (4) 104. (2) 105. (1) 106. (2) 107. (1) 108. (1) 109. (3) 110. (2)
111. (1) 112. (4) 113. (*) 114. (1) 115. (4) 116. (1) 117. (1) 118. (3) 119. (4) 120. (2)
121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (2) 124. (3) 125. (2) 126. (4) 127. (2) 128. (2) 129. (1) 130. (2)
131. (4) 132. (4) 133. (1) 134. (4) 135. (1) 136. (3) 137. (3) 138. (4) 139. (3) 140. (1)
141. (1) 142. (3) 143. (1) 144. (3) 145. (3) 146. (4) 147. (4) 148. (2) 149. (2) 150. (4)
Note: ‘*’ No option is correct
Answers with Explanations

1. (2) The sum of three numbers can be 15 in the following 2. (*) Let x and y be the speed of boat and stream
three ways. respectively.
(i) 15 = 3 + 6 + 6 When boat goes downstream
The first, second and third throws can be (3, 6, 6), 30
=2 …(i)
(6, 3, 6) and (6, 6, 3) respectively. x+ y
∴ Total number of ways in which 3, 6 and 6 can and when boat goes upstream
be obtained is 3. 30
(ii) 15 = 4 + 5 + 6 =6 …(ii)
x– y
The first, second and third throws can be either
of 4, 5 and 6. Dividing Eq.(i) by Eq. (ii),
∴ Total number of ways in which 4, 5 and 6 can x– y 1
=
be obtained is 6. x+ y 3
(iii) 15 = 5 + 5 + 5 ∴ x=2y
The first, second and third throws can be 5, 5 Substituting the value of x in Eq. (i)
and 5. 30
=2
∴ Total number of ways in which 5, 5 and 5 can 2y + y
be obtained is 1. ∴ y = 5 km/h
∴The total number of ways in which the sum of ∴ x = 10 km/h
throws can be 15 is 3 + 6 + 1 = 10 The correct answer is not there in the options.
The total number of ways in which the first roll 3. (1) A number divisible by 4 formed using the digits 1, 2,
will be a 4 is 2 3, 4 and 5 should have the last two digits 12, 24, 32
2 1
∴ Required chance = = or 52.
10 5
In each of these cases, the five digit number can be 10. (4) The three vowels in ABACUS are A, A and U. These
formed using the remaining 3 digits in 3 × 2 × 1 = three can be arranged among themselves in 3!/2!
6 ways. ways.
∴ A number divisible by 4 can be formed in 6 × 4 = As the three vowels are to appear together, we consider
24 ways. them as one letter. Thus, we have four letters; (AAU),
Total numbers that can be formed using the digits 1, B, C and S.
2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetitions = 5! = 120 This can be done in 4! ways.
4! × 3!
24 1 ∴ Required number of ways =
∴ Required probability = = 2!
120 5
8000 700 4
11. (3) We can see that = =
No. of observations × deviation from 6000 525 3
Fixed value + Sum of deviation ∴ The time that 525 requires to grow to 700 will be the
4.(4) Mean = same as the time that 6000 requires to grow to 8000.
No.of observations
∴ Required time = 4 yr
20 × 23 + 70 For (Q. 12-14) At the start of the game J and B together had
= = 26.5
20 4 times as much money as T had.
5.(1) Let x g of gold should be added to the alloy to increase Let the money that J, B and T had be j, b and t
the percentage of gold in it to 90%. respectively.
80% of 50 + x 90 Then, j + b + t = 4t + t = 5t
∴ = ∴ The total money is divisible by 5.
50 + x 100
Similarly, from the other three statements in the data,
40 + x 9
⇒ = we find that the total money is divisible by 4 and 3
50 + x 10 as well.
⇒ 400 + 10x = 450 + 9x ∴ The total money is divisible by LCM of 3,4 and
∴ x = 50 g 5=60.
6. (3) Let their incomes be Rs 7x and Rs 3x and let the Let the total money be 60x.
expenses be Rs 5y and Rs 2y. At the start of the game,
∴ 7x – 5y = 300 …(i) j + b = 4t
and 3x – 2y = 300 …(ii) ∴ j + b + t = 5t = 60x
From Eqs. (i) and (ii) ∴ t = 12 x
x = 900 and y = 1200 ∴ j + b = 48x …(i)
Income of first person = 7x = 7 × 900 t + b = 3j
= Rs 6300 ∴ t+b+r = 60x
⇒ 4j = 60x
7. (4) Last month suppose the family consumption was 1 kg. ∴ j = 15x …(ii)
To keep expenditure at Rs 24, its new consumption From Eqs. (i) and (ii)
24 8
should be = kg. 15x + b = 48x
27 9 ∴ b = 33x
∴ Percentage decrease in consumption ∴ The amounts with J, B and T at the start of the
game were 15x, 33x and 12x respectively.
⎛ 8⎞
⎜⎝1 – ⎟⎠ Now, at the end of the game,
9
= × 100 j + b = 3t
1 ∴ 4t = 60x
= 11.1% ∴ t = 15x
8. (2) From a certain station, there will be a ticket for other ∴ j + b = 45x …(iii)
9 stations and there are 10 stations on this railway Also, t + b = 2j
line. ∴ 3j = 60x
∴ The number of different journey tickets = 9 × 10 ∴ j = 20x …(iv)
= 90 From Eqs. (iii) and (iv)
9.(2) Circumference of a circle= 2πr, where r is the b = 25x
radius,of the circle. ∴ The amounts with J, B and T at the end were 20x,
When circumference increases by 5%, the radius also 25x and 15x respectively.
increases by 5%. 12. (4) The fraction of total money that T had at the beginning
∴ New radius = 1.05r was
∴ As area ∝ (radius)2 12 x 1
=
∴ New area = (1.05)2 × old area 60 x 5
= 1.1025 × old area 13. (1) J won 20x – 15x = 5x
∴ Increase in area = 0.1025 of old area 5x 1
∴ Percentage increase in area = 10. 25% ∴ Required fraction = =
60 x 12
14. (3) As B lost Rs 200, X Y

∴ 33x – 25x = 200 4.7 2.5 4.6
∴ 8x = 200
0.5
∴ x = 25 1.0 1.5
∴ 33x = 825
∴ B started with Rs 825. 2.6
15. (4) Here a and b are negative and c is positive. Z

Let a = – 6, b = – 4 and c = 2
(I) a – b = – 6 + 4= – 2 18. (3) Number of people who read at least one paper
and a–c=–6–2=–8 = 4.7 + 4.6 + 2.6 + 1 + 1.5 + 2.5 + 0.5 = 17.4
So, a–b>a–c 19. (2) From the above venn diagram
So, I is not true. Number of people who read only one newspaper
(II) Taking the same values of a, b and c, = 4.6 + 4.7 + 2.6 = 11.9
we have a/c = – 6/2 = – 3 20. (1) Percentage of Sonali’s salary invested in insurance
b/c = – 4/2 = – 2 policies = 15%
Since, – 3 < – 2, a/c < b/c Percentage of salary spent in shopping and household
So, II is true. expenses = 55%
(III) For any value of b and c, ∴ Percentage of her salary saved = 100 – (15 + 55)
1/b < 1/c, since b is negative and c is positive. = 30%
So, III is true. Let Sonali’s monthly salary be Rs x.
So, statements II and III are true. ∴ 30% of x = 12750
16. (1) Let the length of the side of first square be x. 12750 × 100
x= = Rs 42500
2 2 30
Then, the length of the diagonal = x + x = 4 2
2 21. (1) There are two varieties of tea, one worth Rs 25 per kg
∴ 2x = 32
and the other worth Rs 30 per kg.
∴ x2 = 16
Now, by selling the blended variety at Rs 30 kg, profit
∴ x=4
should be 10%.
Now, the area of the an other square is twice that of
the first square. So, the cost price of the blended tea should be
So, the area of the second square = 2x2 = 32 30 300
= Rs per kg
If the length of the second square is y, then y2 = 32 1.1 11
This problem can be depicted through alligation as
∴ Length of the diagonal of this square = 2 y2
below
= 64
25 30
= 8 cm
17. (3) Formula If the length, breadth and height of the
300
rectangular box are l, b and h respectively, then the 11
maximum length of the pencil that can be kept in the
box will be equal to the length of
its greatest diagonal, 30 25
11 11
This length is given as l2 + b2 + h2
Dimensions of the box are given as 8 × 6 × 2. ∴ Ratio in which the tea worth Rs 25 per kg must be
So, the maximum length of the pencil that can be kept 30
blended with tea worth Rs 30 per kg =
in the box 25
∴ When tea worth Rs 30 per kg is 30 kg. Then,
= 82 + 62 + 22 = 104 = 2 26 cm
30
quantity of tea worth Rs 25 per kg = × 30 = 36 kg
For (Q. 18-19) 25
Total readership of X is 8.7 lakhs. 22. (3) Of the 480 students, let there be x boys and y girls.
∴ X + 2.5 + 0.5 + 1 = 8.7 ∴ x + y = 480 …(i)
∴ People who read only newspaper X = 4.7 lakhs. Total pass percentage was 75%.
Total readership of Y is 9.1 lakhs So, number of students who passed
∴ 2.5 + 0.5 + 1.5 + Y = 9.1 = 0.75 × 480 = 360
∴ People who read only newspaper Y = 4.6 lakhs. Now, it is given that 85% of the girls and 70% of the
Also, total readership of Z is 5.6 lakhs boys passed.
∴ Z + 1 + 0.5 + 1.5 = 5.6 ∴ 0.7x + 0.85y = 360 …(ii)
People who read only newspaper Z = 2.6 lakhs Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Therefore,we have x = 320 and y = 160
23. (2) 300 g solution has 40% salt in it. 1

In 1 day B can break = part of structure
40 × 300 3
So, the amount of salt in it = = 120g
100 Amount of work done by A in 4 days = 4/8 = 1/2
For the salt percentage to be 50%,let x g of salt should Work done by A and B working togethor in 2 days.
be added ⎛ 1 1 ⎞ 2 × (–5) –5
120 + x 50 1 =2⎜ – ⎟ = =
= = ⎝8 3⎠ 25 12
300 + x 100 2 Fraction of structure still to be built
∴ 240 + 2x = 300 + x 1 5 11
∴ x = 60 g = + =
2 12 12
24. (4) In the second row each number is obtained by Let A will build up the remaining structure, in x days.
multiplying the corresponding number in the first row Then,
by 8.
x 11
∴ The number that should replace the question mark =
8 12
= 192/8 = 24
22
25. (2) The rectangle, triangle and the circle each move ∴ x=
3
one step to the left in every subsequent row and the
29. (3) Let the first term and the common ratio of the
colour of two figures is changed. Thus, the rightmost
Geometric Progression be a and r respectively.
figure in the third row is the triangle. We can also
∴ a + ar = 12
see that both the colours, white and grey are present
∴ a(1 + r) = 12 … (i)
in each row. So, the third row should have a grey
and ar2 + ar3 = 48
triangle. In the first and second rows, the rectangle
∴ ar2(1 + r) = 48 …(ii)
is labeled ‘+’, the triangle ‘C’ and the circle ‘T’. Thus,
Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i),
the grey triangle in row three should also be labeled
‘C’. ar 2(1 + r ) 48
= =4
26. (3) Using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, five digit numbers a(1 + r ) 12
divisible by 3, can be formed when the sum of all the ∴ r2 = 4
digits is divisible by 3. ∴ r = +_ 4 = +_ 2
There are two possible combinations. Since, the terms of the Geometric Progression are
(i) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 alternately positive and negative, so r = −2
Total number of numbers formed using these ∴ From Eq. (i), a(1 − 2) = 12
digits = 5! = 120 ∴ a = −12
(ii) 0, 1, 2, 4, 5
a + b + 8 + 5 + 10
Total number of numbers formed using these 30. (3) Mean of the given numbers = =6
5
digits = 4 × 4 × 3 × 2 = 96
Thus, total numbers = 120 + 96 ∴ a + b = 30 – 23 = 7
= 216 So, option 4 can be eliminated.
2 Now, variance
27. (3) Since, th of the work is completed in the 25 days,
5 1
∴ = [(a – 6)2 + (b – 6)2 + (5 – 6)2 + (10 – 6)2 + (8 – 6)2 ]
3 5
remaining th of the work is to be completed in 25 1
5 [(a – 6)2 + (b – 6)2 + 21] = 6.8
∴ 5
days.
∴ (a − 6)2 + (b − 6)2 + 21 = 34
3
Let x men should work for 25 days to complete th ∴ (a − 6)2 + (b − 6)2 = 13
5
of the work. Only option 3 fits into the above equation.
31. (1) Value of goods = Rs 15000
M1 D1 H1 M2 D2 H2
= 1
W1 W2 Commission he receives = 12 %
2
105 × 25 × 8 × 5 x × 25 × 9 × 5 12.5 × 15000
∴ = ∴ Total commission received =
2 3 100
105 × 25 × 8 × 5 × 3
∴ x= = 140 =Rs 1875
25 × 9 × 5 × 2
32. (2) 110.25 × 0.01 ÷ 0.0025 – 420.25
∴ Additional men be employed = 140 − 105
=10.5 × 0.1 ÷ 0.05 – 20.5
= 35
0.1
28. (4) A can build the structure in 8 days. = 10.5 × – 20.5
0.05
1
In 1 day A can built = part of structure = 10.5 × 2 – 20.5
8
= 21 – 20.5 = 0.5
33. (2) The total number of respondents under 31 = 33 + 33 41. (2) From (i) statement A gives B and C as many tractors
= 66 that they already have.
The number of respondents under 31 who said that ∴ Number of tractors with A > Number of tractors
Blues is their favourite style of music = 2 + 3 = 5 with B and C together.
5 42. (1) Option 2 can be eliminated as ‘many’ and ‘majority’
∴ The required percentage = × 100 ≈ 7.5%
66 are not same.
34. (1) There were 33 respondents in all in the 21-30 age The passage states that “... good basic skills in reading,
group. communication and mathematics play an important
There were 12 respondents in this group whose role …” and not reliance on communication skills
favourite style was Rock music. over basic skills in reading and mathematics. Option
∴ There were 33 – 12 = 21 respondents whose 3 can be eliminated.
favourite style was other than Rock music. The passage states ‘most’ of the fastest growing jobs.
21 Option 4 implies ‘all’ the fastest growing jobs. Option
∴The required percentage = × 100 ≈ 64%
33 4 can be eliminated.
35. (4) The total number of respondents = 33 + 33 + 68 = The passage mentions that good basic skills in reading,
134 communication and mathematics are important
The number of respondents who said that Jazz is their prerequisites for jobs that do not require a college
favourite style of music = 1 + 4 + 11 = 16 degree-jobs such as that of a desktop publisher, as
16 mentioned in option 1.
∴ The required percentage = × 100 ≈ 12%
134 43. (4) Options 1, 2 and 3 can be concluded from the data
given in the passage.
36. (4) The total number of students in the Arts faculty =
The passage states that “If there are no crop protection
1049
products, then crop yield per acre will drop by more
The total number of non-US students in the Arts
than 50%.”
faculty = 79 + 21 + 6 + 2 + 4 = 112
Option 4 states if crop yield per acre drops by more
∴ The required percentage = 112 × 100 ≈ 10.67% than 50%, then crop protection products have not
1049 been used.
≈ 11% Hence, the conclusion in option 4 cannot be concluded
37. (2) Let the number of total students in the University be x. because drop can be due to other reasons.
23% of the total students = 1049 44. (2) If flight 409 is cancelled, then the manager cannot
⇒ 0.23x = 1049 arrive on time.
The number of students in the Engineering faculty is The other valid conclusion would be the manager can
9% of the total students. arrive on time, therefore flight 409 is not cancelled.
∴ The total number of Engineering students There are other two conclusions that may or may
9 1049 not be valid- they may or may not be sufficient
= × ≈ 410 students
100 0.23 conditions.
The manager cannot arrive on time, therefore flight
38. (2) From the previous solution, if there are total x
409 is cancelled.
students.
Flight 409 is not cancelled, therefore the manager can
Then, 0.23x = 1049
arrive on time.
1049
x= = 4560 Evelyn states that the manager will not arrive at time-
0.23 there is no possibility that the manager can arrive on
39. (4) The Science students are 21% of the total number of time. But, based on data, if flight 409 is not cancelled,
students. then the manager can arrive on time may or may not
6% of Science students are Asians. happen. Hence, Evelyn’s conclusion that the manager
The total number of students in the University = will not arrive on time is unwarranted.
4560 45. (2) The passage assumes that a higher percentage of
∴ The number of Asian students studying Science accident related deaths in planes compared to cars
6 21 implies cars are safer.
= × × 4560 ≈ 57
100 100 We need an argument that attacks the premise that
40. (4) Medical students are 5% of the total students. percentage is the only way to determine safety; or we
need an argument that brings in another element that
∴ The total number of medical students shows cars are not as safe as percentages make them
5 to be.
= × 4560 = 228
100 Options 1, 3 and 4 are not related to the main
Out of these, 34 are European. statement.
34 If the number of car accidents is several hundred
This represents × 100 = 14.9% ≈ 15% of this
faculty. 228 thousand times higher than the number of plane
accidents, it nullifies the premise of percentages In the following figures both the vertical and horizontal
being the deciding factor as well as presents data that lines reduce by 1.
supports that cars are not as safe as they are made out ∴ In the fourth figure there will be only one vertical line.
to be vis-a-vis planes. 60. (3) In the first figure there are 3 black circles on 3 lines.
46. (2) From the chart, it is clear that only Industry B and C In the second figure the black circles remain in the
contribute to company S. same places and the lines are turned in the opposite
47. (4) Observe that Industry B processes element 4 and 5. direction.
But elements 4 and 5 are also processed by Industry In second figure there are 2 black circles on two lines.
A and C. ∴ In the fourth figure the lines are turned in the
opposite direction and circles remain in the same
Hence, the proportion of element 4 that gets processed
places.
in Industry B is unknown.
Similarly, the proportion of element 5 that gets 61. (1)
processed in Industry B is unknown. +2
+2
So, the percentage of total production of listed elements
+2
processed by Industry B cannot be determined. +2
48. (3) Industry A processes all the listed elements, ie, G M S Y I O U A K Q W C M S Y E
Element 1,2,3,4 and 5. +2 +2
The total annual production of all these elements is +2 +2
100000 tons. +2 +2
+2 +2
49. (2). RB shows the same relationship as opposite of decrease
is increase and opposite of descend is ascend. 62. (2) Mohan spent 30% on landline, 40% on GSM and 30%
∴ Decrease : Increase :: Descend : Ascend on Airtel and spent 30 min and 100 min on STD calls
50. (1) Opposite of modern is ancient and opposite of young and landline calls respectively.
is old. This data can be arranged in a tabular manner.
So, Modern : Ancient :: Young : Old Mohan Airtel GSM Landline
∴ AQ will be the correct pair. STD (minutes) 9 12 9
51. (2) As superset of part is whole. Local (minutes) 30 40 30
Similarly, superset of class is school.
Mohan made STD calls in the range of 50-200 km.
So, Part : Whole :: Class : School
Hence, Mohan’s STD calls cost is (9 × 1.5) + (12 ×
∴ BQ will be the correct pair.
1.5) + (9 × 2) = 13.5 + 18 + 18 = Rs 49.50
52. (1) Summit and Apex are synonyms. The only option His local calls cost is (30 × 1) + (40 × 1) + (30 × 2)
which is close of being a synonym is AQ. = Rs 130
Beautiful : Pretty. Price of plan = Rs 99
B E A U T I F U L B U T T E R Hence, Mohan’s total cost = (49.50 + 130) + 99
53. (2) ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ and ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ = Rs 278.50
5 7 3 0 4 1 2 0 8 5 0 4 4 7 9 Rohan spent 40% on landline, 30% on GSM and 30%
Based on this coding system, the code for FUTURE is on Airtel and spent 18 min and 120 min on STD calls
204097. and landline calls respectively.
This data can be arranged in a tabular manner.
54. (4) If the month that ends on Wednesday have 31 days,
there will be 5 Mondays otherwise will have 4 Rohan Airtel GSM Landline
Mondays. So, cannot be specified. STD (minutes) 5.4 5.4 7.2
55. (2) From the first row, (17 × 12)/2 = 102 Local (minutes) 36 36 48
Similarly, from the second row, (15 × 10)/2 = 75
Rohan made STD calls in the range of 50-200 km.
56. (2) From the first row, 12 × 14 × 2 = 336 Hence, Rohan’s STD calls cost is (5.4 × 1.5) + (5.4 ×
Similarly, from the second row, 15 × 16 × 2 = 480 1.5) + (7.2 × 2) = 8.1 + 8.1 + 14.4 = Rs 30.60
57. (1) From statement (III), B and G must be on different His local calls cost is (36 × 1) + (36 × 1) + (48 × 2)
boats. = Rs 168
∴ If F and B are in one boat, G is in the other boat. Price of plan = Rs 99
58. (4) From statement (IV), the maximum number of persons Hence, Rohan’s total cost = (30.60 + 168) + 99
in one boat can be four only. = Rs 297.60
∴ There must be at least three people in the complete Hence, Rohan spent more.
list of people who must be sitting in either boat. Only 63. (1) Solve this problem by comparing the charges
option (4) has 3 persons. incurred while sending 38, 40, 60 and 59 local SMS
59. (3) In the first figure there are 4 vertical and 3 horizontal respectively under the old scheme and the new
lines. scheme.
Old Scheme New Scheme 67. (1) Production of company D = 2700

Production of company A = 1500
Number Rate Total Monthly Rate Total
of SMS Cost Charge Cost Production of company D 2700
= = 1.8
38 1.5 57 35 0.6 57.8 Production of company A 1500
40 1.5 60 35 0.6 59 ∴ Production of the company D is 1.8 times of the
60 1.5 90 35 0.6 71 production of the company A.
59 1.5 88.5 35 0.6 70.4 68. (2) Paper cost is 10% of the total cost.
Thus, a person sending 38 local SMS per month will ∴ Angle for the sector representing paper cost
not benefit from the scheme. = (10/100) × 360 degrees = 36 degrees.
64. (4) To answer this question we have to consider all the 69. (4) 2% of the cost is Rs 2000 for 12500 copies.
options. 100
The total cost = 2000 × = Rs 100000
(1) Cost of 30 STD (500 + km ) calls on Airtel 2
= 30 × 1.5= Rs 45 ∴ Cost for 1 copy = (100000/12500) = Rs 8
Cost of 55 local calls on Airtel or GSM/CDMA For a profit of 5% SP of a copy
= Rs 55 = 8 × 1.05 = Rs 8.40.
Total bill = 45+ 55+ 99 = 199 70. (4) we know that ‘Fruit’ grows on ‘Tree’ and ‘Tree’ is called
(2) Cost of 16 STD (150 km) calls on Airtel = 16× 1.5 ‘Sky’. So, ‘Fruit grow on ‘Sky’.
= Rs 24 71. (4) The blank requires a nominative possessive pronoun in
Cost of 76 local calls on Airtel or GSM/CDMA the first person. Therefore, the correct word is ‘mine’.
= Rs 76 When the possessive comes before the noun, ‘my’ is
Total bill = 24 + 76 + 99 = Rs 199 used (eg, My close friend). When the possessive comes
(3) Cost of 10 STD (250 km) call each after the noun, ‘mine’ is used (eg, A close friend of
= 10× (1.5 + 2.5 + 2.5)=Rs 65 mine).
Out of 30 local calls if 25 are on Airtel and 5 on
72. (4) Logically, options 1 and 3 can be eliminated, since he
landline. would not take care of her ‘when’ or ‘after’ she was
The cost = 25 × 1 + 5 × 2 = Rs 35 restored to health. Although ‘before’ may fit in the
Total bill = 65 + 35 + 99 = Rs 199 context of the sentence, ‘till’ is the best word to bring
(4) Cost of STD (500 + km) out the meaning that he took care of her till she was
= 8 × 1.5 + 4 × 3 + 7 × 3.5 = Rs 48.50 restored to health.
Cost of 55 local calls = Rs 55
73. (3) The words ‘since then’ in the given sentence necessitate
Total bill = 48.50 + 55 + 99 = Rs 202.50
the use of the present perfect tense.
65. (4) 80% of the ISD bill came from calling the rest of the Therefore, the verb should be ‘has changed’.
world. 74. (4) The word ‘diarrhoea’ may seem to be incorrectly spelt
Hence, 20% of the bill came from the other regions. for users of British English; however, it is correctly
The total time spent on ISD calling was 12 min. spelt as ‘diarrhea’ according to US English.
Since, the ISD rates for each region vary, the 12 min ‘Diaper’ and ‘dichotomy’ have been spelt correctly.
cannot be proportionately divided based on the bill. The word ‘dais’, meaning a raised platform usually at
So, it is not possible to find out the calling duration the front of a room for the purpose of a lectern or a
for the other two regions. seat of honour, has been incorrectly spelt as ‘dias’.
Hence, the answer cannot be determined.
75. (4) The word ‘dissipate’ has been spelt correctly. The
66. (3) Total demand = 3000 + 600 + 2500 + 1200 + 3300 correct spelling of the other words is ‘superintendent’,
= 10600 unit ‘sieve’ and ‘allotted’.
Total demand 76. (2) The correct preposition in the first blank should be
Average demand = ‘in’, since one stays ‘in’ a city. This eliminates options
Number of TV companies
1 and 3. In the second blank, the correct preposition
10600
= = 2120 unit is ‘at’, since one stays ‘at’ an address.
5
77. (2) ‘Aural’ means ‘of or pertaining to the ear or the sense
Total production = 1500 + 1800 + 1000 + 2700 +
of hearing’.
2200 = 9200 unit.
‘Aurally challenged’ is a term used to refer to people
Average production
who are deaf or hearing impaired.
Total production 9200 A ‘euphemism’ is a figure of speech involving ‘the
= = = 1840 unit
Number of TV companies 5 substitution of a mild, indirect, or vague expression
Difference between the average demand and the for one thought to be offensive, harsh or blunt’.
average production Therefore, the use of the term ‘aurally challenged’ is a
= 2120 − 1840 ‘euphemism’, since it is a mild term substituted for the
= 280 harsher word ‘deaf’.
78. (2) An error could be a mistake, slip or blunder, but not a not know whether the tickets were checked or not,
defect. Therefore, option 1 can be eliminated. but is asking about it. There is no opinion expressed
‘Blunder’ is ‘a gross, stupid, or careless mistake’ and is here.
a higher degree than the others; therefore, option 4 The fourth sentence is a definite opinion that “They
can also be eliminated. should have checked...” This sentence conveys the
A ‘fault’ is defined as ‘a defect or imperfection’. same idea as expressed in the first sentence.
79. (4) ‘Flaunt’ means ‘to display conspicuously’. This logically 89. (1) ‘Magnanimous’ means ‘generous’ and ‘benevolence’
contradicts the sentence, since a man who ‘flaunts’ means ‘charitableness’. At first glance, none of the
the rules of ethical conduct would not be considered options seem to be the exact opposite of the meaning
a beast. This eliminates option 1. given in the sentence.
Similarly, a man who ‘ignores’ the rules of ethical ‘Cruel’ means ‘wilfully causing pain to others’;
conduct would also not be considered a beast. This ‘snobbish’ means ‘condescending or overbearing
eliminates option 2. to others’; ‘tyrannical’ means ‘unjustly cruel, harsh
A beast would be one who ‘breaks’ or ‘flouts’ the rules. or severe’. Therefore, options 2, 3 and 4 can be
‘Flout’ means ‘to treat with disdain, scorn or contempt’ eliminated.
and fits the context perfectly. Although the common meaning of being ‘mean’ is
In the second blank, the word ‘as’ does not fit the being ‘nasty or unkind’, when used with reference
sentence grammatically. This eliminates option 3. to money, being mean refers to being ‘stingy or
miserly’.
80. (1) Inverted commas, also known as quotation marks, are
90. (3) Biannual has two meanings. Firstly, it means
used either to enclose the exact words of a speaker or
occurring twice a year, which is also referred to as
to denote words as titles or when a special meaning is
semiannual. Secondly, it also means occurring every
conferred upon them.
two years, which is also called ‘biennial’. Since, the
The correct sentence should be: Part of Australia is
word ‘biennial’ is specifically used for an event that
known to the natives as ‘The Outback’.
occurs every two years or even something that lasts
81. (3) Commas are used to mark off words used in for two years, biannual is more commonly used to
addressing people and also before certain coordinative refer to something that occurs twice a year.
conjunctions.
91. (4) ‘Temporal’, ‘ephemeral’ and ‘transient’ mean ‘lasting
The correct sentence should be: I know that you want
a very short time; short-lived; transitory’. This is the
to learn to drive, Rima, but you are too young.
exact opposite of ‘eternal’.
82. (4) ‘Veracious’ means ‘truthful or honest’. 92. (3) ‘Intravenous’ means ‘within a vein’.
83. (3) ‘Perturb’ means ‘to disturb or disquiet greatly in 93. (1) Sentence 8 has used ‘down’ as an adjective as it tells
mind’. something more about the train (noun).
84. (2) The phrase ‘with a high hand’ means ‘in an arrogant This eliminates options 2, 3 and 4.
or dictatorial manner’. 94. (2) The third fragment ‘as unpredictable as’ is used only in
The words sympathetically, democratically and reference to the ‘weather’. This establishes the 3-8 link.
generously do not fit in this context. The fourth fragment ‘as slippery as’ is used only in
The word closest in meaning is “oppressively”, which reference to ‘an eel’. This establishes the 4-6 link.
means ‘unjustly harsh or tyrannical’. This eliminates option 1.
85. (4) To “rack one’s brains” means ‘to try very hard to think 95. (1) The word ‘above’ in sentence 8 is an adjective as it
or to remember something’. tells us more about ‘information’ (noun).
86. (3) The noun phrase ‘cold feet’ refers to ‘a loss of This establishes the 1-8 link, eliminating options 2
confidence, or a sudden onset of uncertainty, fear and 4.
or nervousness’. It is in no way related to the literal The word ‘above’ in sentence 5 is a noun. This
meaning of the temperature of one’s feet. eliminates option 3.
87. (2) “To eat one’s words” is an idiom meaning ‘to retract 96. (2) There is an error in fragment 2 of the sentence. The
one’s statement, especially with humility’. article ‘the’ has been incorrectly placed.
The most appropriate meaning from the given options 97. (4) There is no error in this sentence.
is ‘to take back what you have said’. 98. (4) Option 1 should read, ‘whose car’.
88. (3) The first sentence is in the form of a question, Option 2 should read, ‘who is’.
“Shouldn’t they have checked your tickets?” expressing Option 3 should read, ‘whom’.
the speaker’s opinion that ‘I think they should have 99. (2) The word ‘him’ is the object of the word ‘imagine’ and
checked your tickets’. ‘forgetting his own birthday’ is a participial phrase
The second sentence starts with “I wonder if they describing ‘him’.
should have...” The word ‘wonder’ brings in an If we use ‘his forgetting’, then the gerund ‘forgetting’
element of doubt or speculation. links to the word ‘his’. In this case the whole phrase
The third sentence starts with “I want to know if ‘his forgetting his own birthday’ becomes the object,
they checked...” This indicates that the speaker does which is not appropriate.
100. (2) Sentence 1 is incorrect as it gives the impression A ‘simile’ is a stated comparison between two
that the wedding was held in a newspaper. It has a fundamentally dissimilar things that have at least one
modifying error. point in common. A simile is usually introduced by
Sentence 2 has no grammatical errors. ‘like’, ‘as’ or ‘so’.
101. (4) Options 1 and 2 are incorrect as two negations make ‘Anticlimax’ is the opposite of climax, a sudden descent
the sentence incorrect. The given sentence requires a from higher to lower. It is chiefly used for the purpose
positive conclusion. of satire or ridicule.
The sentence also needs to be in the present tense and Here the sentence provided is a ‘personification’
not the future tense. This eliminates option 3. as death, an inanimate object, is endowed with the
102. (2) The logical start of the sentence is fragment 5 as it human quality of laying hands.
introduces the subject under consideration – English. 108. (1) The passage is titled, “A way to deal with frozen
This eliminates options 1, 3 and 4. feelings.” The passage highlights the effects of shock,
103. (4) Option 1 is incorrect as it has a tense error. The words violence, fear or pain that every child experiences
‘would have’ cannot be repeated twice in a single in the early years. The emotions mentioned in the
sentence. passage are negative. No positive emotions have been
Options 2 and 3 are incorrect as they are both tense mentioned in the passage. Therefore, we can come
errors. to the conclusion that ‘Frozen feelings’ are about
Sentence 4 has no such errors. negative childhood experiences.
Options 2 and 3 are incorrect as they are an outcome
104. (2) Option 1 is incorrect because ‘apt’ means ‘inclined,
of frozen feelings.
disposed’. People cannot be inclined to be mistaken.
Options 3 and 4 are also incorrect as a person cannot 109. (3) A ‘glitch’ is ‘a defect or malfunction that occurs in
be ‘considered’ to be mistaken or be ‘able’ to be a machine or plan’. The passage mentions, “Our
mistaken. feelings are the cause of this ‘glitch’ in our learning
In the given context ‘likely’ fits in the best. process.” What is this “glitch” in the context of the
passage? The passage mentions that “whenever
105. (1) When using question tags, if the first part of the
the same kind of emotion crops up later in our life
sentence has a negation, then the question tag would
we return to the past for our reference point.” This
be positive. Here ‘hardly’ signifies negation, hence the
means that there occurs some kind of malfunction
tag needs to positive. This eliminates options 2 and
or breakdown which interferes with the learning
4.
process.
Option 3 is incorrect as ‘will he’ signifies future while
the action is taking place in the present. 110. (2) Option 1 is incorrect as the passage states “The process
Therefore, only a question tag in the present tense of change need not be traumatic”.
will fit in correctly. Option 2 is correct and is mentioned in the following
extract from the passage, “We feel childish and we
106. (2) A metaphor is an implied comparison.
behave childishly.”
A simile is a stated comparison between two
fundamentally dissimilar things that have at least one 111. (1) Dendrochronology is the method of scientific dating
point in common. A simile is usually introduced by based on the analysis of tree-ring growth patterns.
‘like’, ‘as’ or ‘so’. 112. (4) Modi Telstra launched the first mobile phone operation
Apostrophe is a direct address to the dead, to the in India.
absent, or to a personified object or idea. This 113. (*) The correct answer for this question is not given in the
figure of speech is a special form of personification. options.
Although in apostrophe, certain human qualities such 114. (1) The expansion of BIFR, in the context of the Indian
as understanding are implied when the direct address Industry is Board for Industrial and Financial
is made as if addressing a person present. Reconstruction.
An epigram is a statement or any brief saying in 115. (4) Ekistics is the science of human settlements.
prose or poetry, in which there is an apparent
116. (1) Red Herring is a Prospectus in an IPO.
contradiction.
117. (1) Eight O’clock Coffee, a US based coffee marketer, is a
Here the sentence provided is a simile as there is a
group company of Tata.
comparison between someone and a peacock.
118. (3) Bio-diesel is extracted from Jatropha.
107. (1) A ‘personification’ is a figure of speech in which an
inanimate object or abstraction is endowed with 119. (4) Margaret Court is the woman tennis player who won
human qualities or abilities. the maximum number of Grand Slam singles titles in
An ‘exclamation’ is a figure of speech in which the the history of tennis.
exclamatory form is used to draw greater attention to 120. (2) ‘Big Apple’ is the nickname of New York city.
a point than a mere statement. Exclamation is little 121. (3) Infosys was the first Indian company to be listed on
more than a cry, a sudden expression for a range of NASDAQ.
emotions such as surprise, pleasure, anger, disgust, or 122. (2) ‘TARENGA’ - a village in Bihar was in the news because
pain. of viewing of the solar eclipse.
123. (2) The driver for Formula One’s Force India Team is of ethanol in a process that yields its key ingredient,
Adrian Sutil. ethanoic acid.
124. (3) (MDRT) - Million Dollar Round Table consists of 137. (3) The name of the Japanese company which literally
Global Association of Life Insurance professionals. means ‘three diamonds’ is Mitsubishi.
125. (2) Reserve Bank of India declares the ‘Credit Policy’ of 138. (4) Steve and Mark Waugh were the first twins to play
India. test cricket.
126. (4) SEBI is the body which regulates the Stock Exchanges 139. (3) USA has the largest rail network in the world.
in India. 140. (1) Svetlana Kuznetsova won the 2009 French open
127. (2) Rafflesia arnoldii holds a world record in the plant tennis ladies title.
world for being the largest bloom.
141. (1) Robert Noyce and Jack Kilby invented the microchip.
128. (2) Temujin, a famous historical character of the world
142. (3) Kazakhstan is the largest landlocked country in the
was Genghis Khan.
world.
129. (1) Short selling in the stock market lingo is selling the
143. (1) Ecuador makes Panama hats.
shares which you do not own.
144. (3) Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India when
130. (2) Mahatma Gandhi was nominated for Nobel Peace
the 42nd Amendment Bill bringing the changes in the
prize for the first time in the year 1937 and last time
Constitution was passed.
in the year 1948. He was nominated 3 times (1938,
1939 and 1947) in between these two years. 145. (3) Pluto lost its planet status recently.
131. (4) Sveriges Riksbank instituted the Nobel Prize in 146. (4) One barrel of oil is approximately equivalent to 160
Economics. litres.
132. (4) The first actress of Bollywood to endorse Lux beauty 147. (4) Five year plans in India are finally approved by the
soap was Leela Chitnis. Planning commission.
133. (1) Kumar Shri Ranjitsinghji Vibhaji Jadeja played for 148. (2) The most spoken language in the Southern Cone
Sussex in the league cricket of England. of South America which includes Argentina, Chile,
134. (4) Nagpur is the city which has an office of RBI without Paraguay, Uruguay and Peru is Spanish.
being a state capital. 149. (2) Brazil is not a member of the organization of petroleum
135. (1) The tycoon described in the question is Ratan Tata. exporting countries (OPEC).
136. (3) Vinegar is the substance which derived its name from 150. (4) Adam Osborne invented ‘computer laptop’. This
old French expression and made from the fermentation answer is not mentioned in the options.
SNAP 2008
< General English

For the following 5 questions in this section, correct (1) 1-8, 2-5, 3-7, 4-7 (2) 1-6, 2-5, 3-8, 4-7
answers carry 2 marks each. (3) 1-7, 2-5, 3-6, 4-8 (4) 1-8, 2-7, 3-6, 4-5
1. Match the following idiomatic references to parts of the 5. We can never make our beliefs regarding the world certain.
human anatomy Even scientific theory of a most rigorous and
(1) palm (2) foot well-confirmed nature is likely to change over a decade or
(3) eye (4) stomach even tomorrow. If we refuse to even try to understand, then
(5) could not tolerate the insult it is like resigning from the human race. Undoubtedly life of
(6) to look at with envy and desire an unexamined kind is worth living in other respects—as it
(7) to put the blame on someone else is no mean thing to be a vegetable or an animal. It is also
(8) forced to pay the bill true that a man wishes to see this speculative domain
(1) 1-8, 2-6, 3-5, 4-7 (2) 1-5, 2-7, 3-6, 4-8 beyond his next dinner.
(3) 1-7, 2-8, 3-6, 4-5 (4) 1-6, 2-8, 3-5, 4-7 From the above passage it is clear that the author believes
2. Find the maximum number of times any one of the given that
words fits the set of sentences (1) men would do well not to speculate
RAISE ARISE AROSE RISE (2) progress in the scientific field is impossible
(i) Opportunities will …… and you must grab them. (3) one should live life with the dictum ‘what will be will
(ii) A hot wind …… from the desert. be’
(iii) I …… at dawn on most days. (4) men are different from animals as far as their reasoning
(iv) A mood of optimism …… among the people.
abilities are concerned
(1) in all four sentences (2) in 3 sentences
For the following questions in this section, correct
(3) in 2 sentences (4) in 1 sentence
answers carry 1 mark each.
3. Which two sentences in the following convey the same
idea ? Choose from the combinations listed below : Directions (Q. 6-11) Read the passage and answer within
(1) He is in a fool’s paradise. its context.
(2) He can’t see the wood for the trees. Rajendra K. Pachauri, head of the Intergovernmental Panel
(3) He can’t distinguish between reality and fancy. on Climate Change, is getting nightmares because of the Nano,
(4) He is unable to separate unimportant details from the Tata’s soon-to-be-launched Rs One lakh car. Sunita Narain of the
really important ones. Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) says that it is not the
(1) 2, 3 (2) 2, 4 Nano by itself but cars overall that give her nightmares. The
(3) 1, 4 (4) 1, 3 villains in my nightmares are neither the Nano nor cars overall,
4. Find the correct match of grammatical function with usage but stupid government policies that subsidize and encourage
for the word ‘THEN’. pollution, adulteration and congestion.
Function Usage Sanctimonious greens call the Nano disastrous because of
its affordability-millions more will now clog roads and consume
(1) Noun (5) He was the then King of Nepal. more fossil fuel. This is elitism parading as virtue. Elite greens own
(2) Adjective (6) I have not heard about him since cars, but cannot stand the poorer masses becoming mobile, since
then. the consequent congestion will eat into the time of the elite!
(3) Adverb (7) He is not feeling well then how can More logical would be a protest against big cars that use
he possibly go for the picnic.
more space and fuel, or highly polluting old cars. Instead, green
(4) Conjunction (8) He was not a graduate then.
hypocrites aim at a new car with the lowest cost, best mileage and
2 SNAP Solved Paper 2008s
least emissions. The Nano will not burden us with too many cars. the throats of poor people living on the pavements were far worse
India has very few cars per person by world standards. London affected by fumes, and might get relief if some fumes were
and New York have ultra-high car densities, yet have clearer air diverted to a higher level. What elitism!
than Delhi. Our problem is too many bad policies, not too many Next, some medicine that will be really bitter, politically.
cars. The excise duty on all automotive vehicles should be raised to
We subsidize vehicles on a gargantuan scale invisible to lay reflect their social costs. Fuel subsidies should be abolished. Price
folk. Roads and flyovers cost crores to build and maintain, yet differentials between petrol, diesel and kerosene should be
road use is free (save on a few toll roads). Traffic police and lights removed, ending incentives for adulteration. Diesel cars should
are costly, yet are provided free. These invisible subsidies starve bear a heavy additional cess to finance improved healthcare for
cities of funds to expand roads and public transport. those affected by their emission of harmful particulate matter.
Land in cities now costs lakhs per square metre. Yet parking That is a long, politically difficult agenda. Only part of it
is free in the suburbs, and often costs just Rs. 10 per day in city will ever be achieved. Yet that is the way to go, rather than agitate
centres. A single parking space of 23 square meters occupies land the Nano.
worth Rs. 40 lakhs. A car occupies more space than an office desk, 6. By ‘Sanctimonious greens’ the writer refers to
yet the desk space pays full commercial rent while parking space (1) aristocratic environmentalists
costs just about Rs. 10 per day. (2) the rich
Daily parking charges range from $30 (Rs 630) in (3) environmentalists with a ‘holier than thou’ attitude
Washington to $60 (Rs 1260) in New York. CSE launched a (4) those who decry deforestation
sensible campaign to raise parking fees in Delhi to Rs 120 per day, 7. The elite are
but was foiled. So, parking space now exceeds green space, a (1) jealous of Nano owners
scathing comment on priorities. (2) afraid of traffic jams and depletion of fossil fuel
The world price of crude oil has risen 13 fold since 1998 to (3) afraid of reaching their destinations late
over $ 130 per barrel, but Indian petrol prices have barely (4) full of disdain that the poor can afford cars
doubled. Left Front politicians, who once wanted to soak the rich,
8. The paradox of the situation is that
now want to subsidize them. Under-recoveries of oil companies’
(1) bigger cars mean more fuel, more space and more
total may be Rs. 2,00,000 crore, even after a recent price hike.
pollution
This is far more than the cost of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (education
(2) though India has fewer cars the Nano will bring more
for all) and the Employment Guarantee Scheme put together.
pollution
We sanctimoniously lecture rich countries to reduce their
(3) London and New York have more cars and less
green house emissions, yet subsidize our own. Diesel is subsidized
pollution
to be cheaper than petrol. So, Indian car makers produce the
(4) though India is smaller than the US its cars cause more
highest proportion of diesel cars in the world. Diesel fumes
pollution
contain suspended particles that are highly toxic. This subsidy
kills. 9. In saying 23 square meters of parking space costs 40 lakhs,
So does kerosene provided at throwaway prices, ostensibly the writer is
to benefit poor villagers. One third of all kerosene is used to (1) caustic (2) exaggerating
adulterate petrol and diesel. That causes horrendous pollution (3) sarcastic (4) ironical
even in the greenest of cars. 10. The writer blames India for
What’s the way forward ? We must abolish subsidies and (1) subsidizing kerosene whereby greenhouse emissions
raise taxes on vehicles and fuels to reflect their full social cost. The are indirectly subsidized
biggest but least visible subsidy is for parking, and we should start (2) subsidizing diesel
there. (3) for increasing the cost of parking by the hour
Many car owners in the West take public transport to work (4) for not making it mandatory for car owners to own
since parking space downtown is costly and scarce. We should parking space
levy parking fees on an hourly, not daily, basis. Rs. 10 per hour 11. The most suitable title for this passage is
could be a starting point in the metros. (1) Polluting Politics
In parts of Tokyo, you cannot own a car unless you own a (2) No No Nano
private parking space. This is too extreme for India, but indicates (3) Submerge Subsidies
the future path. If we charge owners the full social cost of parking, (4) More Cars, Less Pollution
people will buy smaller and perhaps fewer vehicles, and fewer still 12. The plural of Virus is
will take them to work. That will slash congestion and pollution. (1) Viruses (2) Virae
Cities should levy stiff annual taxes on vehicles, not a (3) Virii (4) Virus
one-time tax, and use the revenue to constantly expand public 13. If the following segments of a sentence are to be rearranged
transport and roads. This will create economic synergy : Private in logical order as A, B, C, D where would ‘3’ be placed
transport will finance public transport. London and New York (1) to see that students do not altogether forget to write
have high density public transport as well as high car density. especially during exam time
Apart from underground rail, cities need elevated roads to (2) the education groups are now asking for hand writing
ease congestion and pollution. Lata Mangeshkar helped kill a classes
proposal for an elevated road near her Mumbai flat; perhaps she (3) thanks to mobile testing and computer literacy
felt her throat and singing would be affected. She did not care that (4) writing in long hand is becoming a vanishing art
sSolved Paper 2008 SNAP 3
(1) A (2) B Now it is the census taker that does the traveling in the fond hope
(c) C (4) D that a highly mobile population will stay put long enough to get a
14. If leaf is to leaves and knife is to knives, then belief is to good sampling. Methods of gathering, recording and evaluating
…… information have presumably been improved a great deal. And
(1) beliefs (2) believes where then it was the modest purpose of Rome to obtain a simple
(3) belief (4) believing head count as an adequate basis for levying taxes, now batteries of
15. Choose the sentence where the underlined word is used complicated statistical series furnished by governmental agencies
correctly and private organizations are eagerly scanned and interpreted by
(1) This latest novel is a pedestrian story about spies. sages and seers to get a clue for future events.
(2) The exam paper is not pedestrian but difficult. The Bible does not tell us how the Roman census takers
(3) This is the pedestrian highway. made out, and as regards our more immediate concern, the
reliability of present day economic forecasting, there are
(4) Every week we are forced to listen to a pedestrian
lecture. considerable differences of opinion. They were aired at the
celebration of the 125th anniversary of the American Statistical
16. When the fire alarm rang …… left the building
Association. There was the thought that business forecasting
immediately.
might well be on its way from an art to a science, and some
(1) all (2) everyone
speakers talked about new-fangled computers and high-faulting
(3) all the people (4) every person
mathematical systems in terms of excitement and endearment,
17. In the following sentence choose the erroneous segment(s). which we, at least in our younger years when these things
He is one of those people (A)/who thinks (B)/he owns the
mattered, would have associated more readily with the
world. (C)
description of a fair maiden.
(1) error in segment A
But others pointed to a deplorable record of highly
(2) error in segment B
esteemed forecasts and forecasters with a batting average below
(3) error in segment A and C
that of the Mets and the President-elect of the Association
(4) error in segment B and C
cautioned that “high-powered statistical methods are usually in
18. Choose the correct meaning for the word order where the facts are crude and inadequate, statisticians
cynic—
assume.”
(1) the person who is selfish. We left his birthday party somewhere between hope and
(2) the person who is concerned about others. despair and with the conviction, not really newly acquired, that
(3) the person who isn’t misanthropic. proper statistical methods applied to ascertainable facts have their
(4) the person who believes that people always act from
merits in economic forecasting as long as neither forecaster nor
selfish motives.
public is deluded into mistaking the delineation of probabilities
19. Choose the word with correct spelling and trends for a prediction of certainties of mathematical
(1) catagories (2) diarrhoea exactitude.
(3) ommission (4) inaugarate
22. According to the passage, taxation in Roman times was
20. Pick out the right sentences. based on
(1) I will go with you. (1) mobility (2) wealth
(2) There was nobody I could go with. (3) population (4) census takers
(3) I have a glass with painting on it.
23. The author refers to the Mets primarily in order to
(4) The curtains do not match with the furniture.
(1) show that sports do not depend on statistics
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3
(2) contrast verifiable and unverifiable methods of record
(3) 1 and 4 (4) All
keeping
21. About the following pair of phrases, choose the correct (3) indicate the changes in attitudes from Roman days to
option. the present
(i) A two days’ visit (4) illustrate the failure of statistical predictions
(ii) A two day’s visit
24. The author’s tone can best be described as
(1) The first phrase is erroneous
(1) jocular (2) scornful
(2) The second phrase is erroneous
(3) pessimistic (4) humanistic
(3) Both phrases are erroneous
(4) Both phrases are correct 25. Disinterested is closest in meaning to
(1) bored (2) unbiased
Directions (Q. 22-24) Read the following passage and (3) not interested (4) indifferent
answer within its context.
26. Choose the option which is the nearly opposite in meaning
Nearly two thousand years have passed since a census to BERATE
decreed by Caesar Augustus became part of the greatest story ever (1) grant (2) praise
told. Many things have changed in the intervening years. The (3) refer (4) purchase
hotel industry worries more about overbuilding than 27. Arrange the following in the right order to make a complete
overcrowding, and if they had to meet an unexpected influx, few sentence
inns would have managed to accommodate the weary guests. (i) with interconnected vibrating balls and springs
(ii) in a naive sense, a field in physics may be envisioned as the drop produced a panic. They had all their money tied up in the
if space were filled market, and they were pressed to sell before the prices fell even
(iii) as the displacement of a ball from its rest position lower. Sell orders were coming in so fast that the ticker tape at the
(iv) and the strength of the field can be visualized New York Stock Exchange could not accommodate all the
(1) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (2) (i),(ii), (iii), (iv) transactions.
(3) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (4) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) To try to reestablish confidence in the market, a powerful
28. Find the odd one out group of New York bankers agreed to pool their funds and
(1) latent (2) natural purchase stock above current market values. Although the buy
(3) inborn (4) inherent orders were minimal, they were counting on their reputations to
29. He told the teacher that …… . restore confidence on the part of the smaller investors, thereby
(1) he was liked by the whole class affecting the number of sell orders. On Thursday, October 24,
(2) you are liked by the whole class Richard Whitney, the Vice President of the New York Stock
(3) he is liked by the whole class Exchange and a broker for the J.P. Morgan Company, made the
(4) you were liked by the whole class effort on their behalf. Initially it appeared to have been successful,
then, on the following Tuesday, the crash began again and
30. Match the several meanings of the word COMPLEX with
accelerated. By 1932, stocks were worth only twenty percent of
their appropriate usages.
their value at the 1929 high. The results of the crash had extended
Meaning Usage into every aspect of the economy, causing a long and painful
(1) complicated (5) A new sports complex is depression, referred to in American history as the Great
coming up for the Common Depression.
Wealth Games. 32. The New York bankers conted on
(2) abnormal state of (6) Culture is a complex whole of (1) Current market values
mind many things. (2) The number of sell orders
(3) group of structures (7) She has a complex about (3) Confidence
being overweight.
(4) Their reputation
(4) mixture (8) His motives in carrying out the
crime were complex. 33. The cause of downfall of share market was
(1) Inexperienced investors
(1) 1-6, 2-8, 3-7, 4-5 (2) 1-8, 2-7, 3-5, 4-6 (2) Phenomenal decrease
(3) 1-5, 2-7, 3-6, 4-8 (4) 1-8, 2-5, 3-6, 4-7 (3) Lack of confidence in stock market’s ability
31. Which does not make a sensible word/phrase when added (4) Panic amongst investors
to the word 34. Choose the word in the passage that is an antonym of
Honey ‘‘minimal’’
(1) pot (2) suckle (1) negligible (2) minimum
(3) comb (4) taste (3) maximal (4) significant
Directions (Q. 32-35) Read the passage carefully and 35. Identify the correct sentence
answer within the context. (1) The office is opposite to the bank.
In September of 1929, traders experienced a lack of (2) The office is opposite the bank.
confidence in the stock market’s ability to continue its (3) The office is opposite from the bank.
phenomenal rise. Prices fell. For many inexperienced investors, (4) The office is opposite of the bank.
< Analytical and Logical Reasoning

For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 37. In a certain language, (A) ‘Sun shines brightly’ is written as
2 marks each. ‘ba lo sul’; (B) ‘Houses are brightly lit’ as ‘kado udo ari ba’;
36. A band passes around all the wheels so that they can all be and (C) ‘Light comes from sun’ as ‘dapi kup lo nro’. What
turned by the driving wheel. When the driving wheel turns words will be written for ‘sun’ and ‘brightly’ ?
in the direction shown. Which way will the wheel B turn ? (1) lo, ba (2) ba, lo
A (3) snl, lo (4) ba, sul
38. Given are the following three equations
B
(1) =
C
(2) =
(3) =
D
E G How many circles are equivalent to a square, as per the
F
(1) Clockwise (2) Cannot move ratios in the three given equations ?
(3) Anti-clockwise (4) Either way
(1) = Column A contains no odd digits.
Cell C3 minus Cell C2 equals 4.
(2) = The sum of three digits in Row 1 is 17.
Number 7 is in column B; its left hand neighbor is not 4.
(3) = The digits of column C add upto 14.
2 is not in the same horizontal row as 8; and 9 is not
(4) =
immediately below 3.
39. Each child in a family has at least 4 brothers and 3 sisters. 45. Which cell holds the number 9 ?
What is the smallest number of children the family might A B C
have ?
(1) 7 (2) 8 1
(3) 9 (4) 10 2
40. In the following question two statements are followed by 3
two conclusions numbered I and II. (1) B1 (2) B3
Assume the two statements are true even if they are at (3) C2 (4) C1
variance with commonly known facts. Then pick the correct
46. Replace the questions mark with the right option.
answer from the choices given below.
4, 32, 288, ?, 31680
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows (1) 25600 (2) 2880
C. Both conclusions I and II follow (3) 7420 (4) 10000
D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows 47. In the Sunday bazzar, Jamuna sells her lemons at Rs 0.50
Statements Some doctors are fools. Joshi is a doctor. for two. Her neighbor Seema has a little smaller lemons;
Conclusions I. Joshi is a fool. she sells hers at Rs 0.50 for three. After a while, when both
II. Some fools are doctors. ladies have the same number of lemons left, Seema is called
(1) A (2) B away. She asks her neighbour to take care of her goods. To
(3) C (4) D make things simple, Jamuna puts all lemons in one big pile,
41. Debu walks towards East then towards North and turning and starts sellings five lemons per one rupee. When Seema
45° right walks for a while and lastly turns towards left. In returns, at the end of the day, all lemons have been sold.
which direction is he walking now ? But when they start dividing the money, there appears to be
(1) North (2) East a shortage of Rs 3.50. Supposing they divide the money
(3) South-East (4) North-West equally, how much does Jamuna lose with this deal ?
(1) Rs 10.50 (2) Rs 11.50
Directions (Q. 42-44) Read the following instructions and
answer. (3) Rs 42.00 (4) Rs 52.50
48. There are two cups, one containing orange juice and one
I.
There is a rectangular wooden block of length 4 cm,
containing an equal amount of lemonade. One teaspoon of
height 3 cm and breadth 3 cm.
the orange juice is taken and mixed with the
II. The two opposite surfaces of 4 cm × 3 cm are painted
lemonade.Then a teaspoon of this mixture is mixed back
yellow on the outside.
into the orange juice. Is there more lemonade in the orange
III. The other two opposite surfaces of 4 cm × 3 cm are
painted red on the outside. juice or more orange juice in the lemonade ?
IV. The remaining two surfaces of 3 cm × 3cm are painted (1) More orange juice in the lemonade
green on the outside. (2) More lemonade in the orange juice
V. Now, the block is cut in such a way that cubes of (3) Equal amount of each juice between the two cups
1 cm × 1 cm × 1 cm are created. (4) None of the above
42. How many cubes will have only one colour ? 49. Consider the statement and decide which of the
(1) 10 (2) 12 assumptions are implicit
(3) 14 (4) 18 “In the present period of economic hardships, education
43. How many cubes will have no colour ? and small family norm may lead the nation to progress and
(1) 1 (2) 2 prosperity”.
(3) 4 (4) 8 Assumptions
44. How many cubes will have any two colours ? A. Education and small family norms are directly related to
(1) 32 (2) 24 nations progress.
(3) 16 (4) 12 B. Big families find it difficult to bear the cost of education.
(1) Only A is implicit
Direction (Q. 45) Read the following about the grid given
(2) Only B is implicit
below and answer.
(3) Both A and B are implicit
The cells in this grid contain the digits 1 to 9 in random (4) Neither A nor B is implicit
order.
50. Fill in the blanks to find two words that are synonyms B C
N
T I T I
• M • N
A D
E • E •
(1) A and B occupy the same position
D O C E (2) C and D occupy the same position
(3) D and B are in their original positions
(4) B and C are in diagonally opposite positions
(1) KS, ST (2) MS, NT
55. A gambler bet on a horse race, but the bookee would not tell
(3) ST, DN (4) MS, DN
him the results of the race. The bookee gave clues as to how
51. Beautiful beaches attract people, no doubt about that. Just the five horses finished which may have included some tie
look at the city’s most beautiful beaches, which are amongst and would not pay the gambler off unless the gambler could
the most overcrowded places in the state. determine how the five horses finished based on the
Which of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning following clues
similar to the one exhibited in the argument above ? • Penn Fe finished before Night Marvel and after Wish
(1) Moose and bear usually appear at the same drinking Bones.
hole at the same time of day. Therefore, moose and • Wish Bones tied with Penn Fe if and only if Hallelujah
bear must be feeling thirsty at about the same time. did not tie with Sundae.
(2) Children who are scolded severely tend to misbehave • Penn Fe finished as many places after Sundae as Sundae
more often than other children. Hence if a child is not finished after Wish Bones if and only if Wish Bones
scolded severely, that child is less likely to misbehave finished before Night Marvel.
(3) During warm weather my dog suffers more fleas than The gambler thought for a moment, then answered
during cool weather. Therefore, fleas must thrive in a correctly. How did the five horses finish the race ?
warm environment (1) Sundae came in first. Wish Bones and Hallelujah tied
for second place. Penn Fe came in fourth. Night Marvel
(4) Tally accounting software helps increase the work
came in fifth.
efficiency of its users. As a result, these users have more
(2) Wish Bones came in first. Sundae and Penn Fe tied for
time for other activities
second place. Hallelujah came in fourth. Night Marvel
52. Abdul, Mala, and Chetan went bird watching. Each of them came in fifth.
saw one bird that none of the others did. Each pair saw one (3) Wish Bones came in first. Sundae and Hallelujah tied
bird that the third did not and one bird was seen by all for second place. Penn Fe came in fourth. Night Marvel
three. Of the birds Abdul saw, two were yellow. Of the birds came in fifth.
Mala saw, three were yellow. Of the birds Chetan saw, four (4) Penn Fe came in first. Night Marvel and Hallelujah tied
were yellow. How many yellow birds were seen in all ? How for second place. Wish Bones came in fourth. Sundae
many non-yellow birds were seen in all ? came in fifth.
(1) 7 yellow birds and 3 non yellow birds 56. In a school drill, a number of children are asked to stand in
(2) 5 yellow birds and 2 non yellow birds a circle. They are evenly spaced and the 6th child is
(3) 4 yellow birds and 2 non yellow birds diametrically opposite the 16th child. How many children
(4) 3 yellow birds and 2 non yellow birds are made to stand in the circle ?
53. In each of the following two sets I and II, find the word or (1) 16 (2) 20
(3) 22 (4) None of these
pair of words different from the other three words or pair of
words 57. In this question insert the missing number at the sign of
I. J. Lake K. Brook L. Stream M. River interrogation.
II. J. Weighty-Heavy K. Broad-Wide 8 4 9 5
L. Big-Large M. Tiny-Small 5 7 3 4
(1) I-J, II-J (2) I-K, II-M
3 4 5 8
(3) I-K, II-J (4) I-J, II-K
39 44 60 ?
54. A, B, C and D are standing on the four corners of a square
field as shown in the figure. From the positions shown in (1) 62 (2) 72
the figure. A walks to the North position and B walks to the (3) 60 (4) 70
East position while C decides to walk two sides in 58. Steel cylinders are made so that each one has a large and
anti-clockwise direction. B walks to North and then changes small hole through the middle. In the drawing six cylinders
his mind to take the previous position. Identify the choice have been stacked on top of each other. To stop the
with correct positions. cylinders from rolling on the smooth floor they are wedged
by heavy blocks at each side of bottom row. If the heavy
blocks are removed what would be the position of cylinders 62. Which among the following statements is contradictory to
when they stopped rolling ? the above premises ?
(1) P is the father of M
(2) O has three children
(3) M has one brother
(4) M is the granddaughter of O
63. The drawing shows a cross section where the land meets
the sea. The section covered is 5 km. On a hot day, in which
direction, indicated by four arrows, is the wind most likely
to blow ?
A B
A B C D D
Land Sea
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
Directions (Q. 59-61) Use the information given below to (1) A (2) B
answer. (3) C (4) D
(i) There is a group of 5 persons A, B, C, D and E. Directions (Q. 64-65) In the diagram below, the circle
(ii) In the group there is one badminton player, one chess stands for ‘educated’, square stands for ‘hard working’,
player and one tennis player. triangle for ‘urban people’ and rectangle for ‘honest’. The
(iii) A and D are unmarried ladies and do not play any different regions of the diagram are numbered from 1 to 12.
games. Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions.
(iv) No lady is a chess player or a badmintor player.
(v) There is a married couple in the group of which E is the
husband. 5
(vi) B is the brother of C and is neither a chess player nor a 3
tennis player. 1 2 6 7
59. Which of the groups has only ladies ? 11 4
(1) ABC (2) BCD 9
12 8
(3) CDE (4) None of these
10
60. Who is the tennis player ?
(1) B (2) C
(3) D (4) E 64. Uneducated urban, hard working and honest people are
61. Who is the wife of E ? indicated by
(1) A (2) B (1) 3 (2) 11
(3) D (4) None of these (3) 9 (4) 4
65. Non-urban educated people who are neither hard working
Direction (Q. 62) Consider the following statements and
answer the question. nor honest are indicated by
(1) 5 (2) 7
M, N, O and P are all different individuals. (3) 10 (4) 11
M is the daughter of N.
N is the son of O.
O is the father of P.
< General Awareness Section

Directions (Q. 66-70) For the following 5 questions in this (3) The legendary Dean of Stanford who revolutionized
section, correct answers carry 2 marks each. the computer education in the US
66. A. M. Touring award is considered as the Nobel Prize in the (4) An US cognitive scientist in the field of artificial
field of computers, given annually by Association for intelligence (AI) and co-founder of Massachusetts
Computing Machinery co-sponsored by Intel and Google. Institute of Technology’s AI laboratory
Who was A M Touring in whose memory the award was 67. Find the most accurate description of ‘Bt cotton’.
instituted ? (1) A variety of cotton that grows fast
(1) First Chairman of Intel (2) A genetically modified crop of cotton whose DNA has
(2) A British Mathematician been altered by introducing an extra gene
(3) A variety of cotton that is immune to diseases (1) Verna IT/ITeS SEZ in Goa
(4) A genetically modified crop of cotton whose DNA has (2) Haryana for Reliance Haryana SEZ
been designed in the lab (3) Pen, Maharashtra
68. Las Vegas, US-based tour operator AMX Company has filed (4) POSCO India, Steel SEZ Phase II, Orissa
a trademark patent for which of the following Tagline ? 79. A1 Ahram is
(1) “God’s Own Country” (1) a university in Damascus
(2) “Heaven on Earth’ (2) a newspaper in Cairo
(3) “Discover Incredible India’’ (3) a mosque in Riyadh
(4) “Come Alive with India” (4) a small mountain range in Jordan
69. Which out of the following holds the highest number of 80. India’s largest and first multi-national pharmaceutical giant
shares of ICICI Bank ? Ranbaxy is being bought over by
(1) Banks Financial Institutes and Insurance (1) Matrix Pharma (2) GVK Bio-sciences
(2) FIIs (3) Merck (4) None of these
(3) General public
81. Find the odd product out of the following
(4) Private Corporate Bodies
(1) Pamper (2) Dove
70. Indian Standard Time is based on the longitude of 82.5 (3) Tide (4) Pantene
degrees passing through which of the following places ?
82. In the internet sphere, ‘Opera’ is the name of a
(1) Mirzapur, U.P.
(1) web conference site
(2) Jabalpur, M.P.
(2) web advertising firm
(3) Nagpur, Maharashtra
(3) software for webinars
(4) Jaipur, Rajasthan
(4) web browser
Directions (Q. 71-100) : For the following questions in this 83. Which of the following pair is not correct ?
section, correct answers carry 1 mark each.
(1) Shahid Parvez : Sitar
71. The Black Box of an aircraft is an important part as all the (2) Rashid Khan : Vocal Music
conversations and data are recorded therein. Although it is (3) Ayaan Ali Khan : Sarod
named black box, but its colour is not black. What is the (4) Romu Muzumdar : Guitar
colour of the black box in a commercial airplane ? 84. At what frequency SENSEX calculation is carried out ?
(1) Brown (2) Yellow (1) Every half an hour (2) Every hour
(3) Red (4) Orange (3) Real time (4) 6 times a day
72. Find the person who plays the odd sport out of the 85. The second largest manufacturer of CD’s, DVD’s and other
following optical media in the world is
(1) Navaratilova (2) Michael Phelps (1) Sony (2) Intel
(3) David Beckham (4) Prakash Padukone
(3) Philips (4) Moser Baer
73. Sariska and Ranthambore are the reserves for which of the
86. Which of the following is a legal right and not a
following animals ?
fundamental right ?
(1) Lion (2) Deer
(1) Right to liberty of thought and expression
(3) Tiger (4) Bear
(2) Right against exploitation
74. March, 2008 witnessed a turning point in the history of (3) Right to property
which of the following Himalayan Kingdoms when (4) Right to practice religion
democracy was ushered in replacing monarchy ?
87. The term Net Shot is associated with
(1) Bhutan (2) Nepal
(1) Badminton (2) Tennis
(3) Sikkim (4) None of these
(3) Table Tennis (4) Volley Ball
75. Neil Armstrong brought back a rock from the moon. On
earth 88. What is Dry Ice ?
(1) the mass of the rock will change (1) Solidified Carbon Dioxide
(2) the weight of the rock will change (2) Transparent plastic decoy which looks like Ice
(3) mass and weight will change (3) Sulfur dioxide at –57° Celsius
(4) none of the above (4) Chemically treated Ice to make it dry
76. Milk, Cheese and Eggs are the source of 89. The rail-based mass rapid transit system in Mumbai has
(1) Vitamin C and A (2) Vitamin A and D been awarded to a consortium of companies led by
(3) Vitamin C and D (4) Vitamin B and C (1) Reliance Infrastructure
(2) Reliance Industries
77. In August 2008, India’s longest runway for passenger
(3) GMR Infrastructure
aircraft was commissioned in
(1) Mumbai (2) New Delhi (4) Lanco Infrastructure
(3) Hyderabad (4) Bengaluru 90. If bilirubin is high in a human body, which organ is most
78. The first ever public hearing in India, almost like a affected ?
referendum, on the fate of SEZ was held during the month (1) Pancreas (2) Liver
of September 2008 in/at (3) Kidney (4) Large intestine
91. Who of the following is one of the most celebrated Photo (1) UNDP (2) GATT
Journalists in India ? (3) WTO (4) World Bank
(1) Gautam Rajadhyaksha 96. Siebel is a software firm that is now taken over by
(2) Raghu Rai (1) IBM (2) Accenture
(3) Anjii Reddy (3) Gartner (4) Oracle
(4) Sudhir Dar 97. First Indian motion picture insured by a General Insurance
92. Inflation implies company is
(1) rise in budget deficit (1) Hum Apke Hain Kaun
(2) rise in general price index (2) Taal
(3) rise in price of consumer goods (3) Dil se
(4) rise inmoney supply (4) Ashoka
93. The India-US Nuclear Deal is called 123 Agreement. What 98. India’s first coalition government in New Delhi was formed
does 123 denote ? under the leadership of
(1) The deal is governed by the clause number 123 of (1) V.P. Singh
International Atomic Energy Agency, in the context of (2) P.V. Narasimharao
peaceful use of atomic energy (3) Morarji Desai
(2) This number denotes a cluster of clauses of Hyde Act of (4) Atal Behari Vajpayee
US Government 99. WiMax stands for
(3) This is the simple number related to chain reaction for (1) Wireless internet for microwave access
creation atomic energy (2) Wireless inter-operability for microwave access
(4) Section 123 of the US Atomic Energy Act (3) Worldwide internet for microwave access
94. In the United States of America, the President is elected (4) Worldwide inter-operability for microwave access
(1) By the electorate 100. El Nino is
(2) By the electoral college (1) A sea storm
(3) By the two national political parties (2) A war ocean current
(4) By the US Congress (3) A tropical disturbance
95. The term ‘Uruguay Round’ is associated with an important (4) Another name of typhoon
world organization. Which one ?
< Quantitative and Data Interpretation and Sufficiency Section

Directions (Q. 101-105) For the following 5 questions in (3) Only B question can be answered
this section, correct answers carry 2 marks each. (4) Neither question can be answered
101. A factory is to commission two production lines. Production 102. From a book, a number of consecutive pages are missing.
line 1 is to use existing technology. Production line 2 is to The sum of the page numbers of these pages is 9808. Which
use the latest innovations in technology and, while pages are missing ?
promising to achieve considerable advances in (1) The page 9808 is missing.
productivity, it will take longer to start and is likely to (2) The pages 291 up to 322 are missing.
experience teething problems. Graph indicates the (3) The pages 291 up to and including 322 are missing.
productive record of each product line. Refer to graph to (4) Either 1 or 3.
answer the following. 103. In the following series, find the one number that is wrong
2, 3, 13, 37, 86, 167, 288.
Unit of Production in ’000s
(1) 3 (2) 13
F (3) 37 (4) 86
E 104. Two sea trawlers left a sea port simultaneously in two
mutually perpendicular directions. Half an hour later, the
D
shortest distance between them was 17 km and another 15
Production C min later one sea trawler was 10.5 km farther from the
line 1
B origin than the other. Find the speed of each sea trawler.
A Production line 2 (1) 16 km/h, 30 km/h
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 (2) 18 km/h, 24 km/h
Months (3) 20 km/h ,22 km/h
A. Can the duration of reported breakdown be (4) 18 km/h, 36 km/h
established ? 105. The image below indicates the number of residents at
B. Can the loss of production be quatified ? 5 hotels on 1 Feb and 1 July 1998. Which hotel had the
(1) Both questions A and B can be answered greatest increase in the total number of adult residents on
(2) Only A question can be answered 1 July 1998 compared with 1 Feb of that year ?
01-Feb-98 City I II
Female Female Male A 60 2400
Hotel Male Adults
Adults Children Children
B 20 3000
V 32 64 8 11
C 85 2400
W 11 28 3 2
D 55 2700
X 47 84 14 7
E 75 8000
Y 22 42 5 6
Z 63 104 18 23 109. How many viewers in city C watch less one movie a week ?
(1) 2040 (2) 13600
01-July-98
(3) 16000 (4) 3600
Female Female Male 110. Which city has the highest number of viewers who watch
Hotel Male Adults
Adults Children Children
less than one movie a week ?
V 41 73 16 14 (1) City E (2) City D
W 18 37 7 6 (3) City B (4) City C
111. A city with the second lowest number of movie watchers is
X 47 92 12 17
(1) City E (2) City D
Y 37 59 19 13 (3) City B (4) City C
Z 71 112 26 20 112. The total number of all movie goers in the five cities who
watch less than one movie per week is
(1) V (2) W
(1) 50000 (2) 36000
(3) Y (4) Z (3) 18500 (4) 45250
For the following questions in this section, correct 113. The 288th term of the sequence a, b, b, c, c, c, d, d, d, d, .....
answers carry 1 mark each. is
106. This question consists of a question and two statements (1) u (2) v
numbered I and II. Decide whether the data given in the (3) w (4) x
statements are sufficient to answer the question. 114. The inequalilty of p2 + 5 < 5p + 14 can be satisfied if
What is the 57th number in the series of numbers. (1) p ≤ 6, p = −1 (2) p = 6, p = −2
I. Each number in the series is three more than the (3) p ≤ 6, p ≤ 1 (4) p ≥ 6, p = 1
preceding number. 115. Answer the question based on the following table.
II. The ten number in the series is 29.
Relative Sweeteners of Different Substances
(1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question while the data in Statement II alone is not Lactose 0.16 Maltose 0.32
sufficient to answer the question. Glucose 0.74 Sucrose 1.00
(2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer Saccharin 675.00
the question, while the data in statement I alone is not What is the ratio of glucose to lactose in a mixture as sweet
sufficient to answer the question. as maltose ?
(3) If the data either in statements I and II alone are (1) 8 : 21 (2) 1 : 3
sufficient to answer the question. (3) 3 : 2 (4) 16 : 9
(4) If the data in both statements I and II together are
116. A colourless cube is painted blue and then cut parallel to
necessary to answer the question. sides to form two rectangles solids of equal volume. What
107. The cost of levelling and turfing a square field at Rs 160 per percentage of surface area of each of new solids is not
hectare is Rs 2624.46. The cost of surrounding it with a painted blue ?
railing costing 25 paise per metre is (1) 25 (2) 16
(1) Rs 350 (2) Rs 375 (3) 20 (4) 18
(3) Rs 400 (4) Rs 405 117. There are 10 stations on a railway line.The number of
108. When the Sun rays inclination increases from 30° to 60°, different journey tickets that are required by the authorities
the length of the shadow of a tower decreases by 60 m. Find is
the height of the tower. (1) 10! (2) 90
(1) 50.9 m (2) 51.96 m (3) 81 (4) 10
(3) 48.8 m (4) None of these 118. A and B throw one dice for a stake of Rs 11, which is to be
Directions (Q. 109-112) A survey of movie goers from five won by the player who first throws a six. The game ends
cities A, B, C, D and E is summarized below. The first column when the stake is won by A or B. If A has the first throw,
gives the percentage of viewers in each city who watch less what are their respective expectations ?
than one movie in a week. The second column gives the total (1) 5 and 6 (2) 6 and 5
number of viewers who view one or more movies per week. (3) 11 and 0 (4) 10 and 1
119. Which investment gives a better return, assuming the face 127. A person buys 18 local tickets for Rs 110. Each first class
value of shares to be Rs 10 ? ticket costs Rs 10 and each second class ticket costs Rs 4.
A. 5% stock at 75, subject to 30% income tax. What will another lot of 18 tickets in which the number of
B. 4% stock at 90, tax free. first class and second class tickets are interchanged cost ?
(1) B (2) A (1) 112 (2) 118
(3) Both A and B (4) None of these (3) 121 (4) 124
120. Four stacks containing equal number of chips are to be 128. A clock loses 12 min every 24 h. It is set right at 7 : 25 pm on
made from 11 orange, 9 white, 13 black and 7 yellow chips. Monday. What will be the time when the clock shows 1 : 45
If all these chips are used and each stack contains at least pm the following day ?
one chip of each colour, what is the maximum number of (1) 1 : 20 : 35 pm (2) 1 : 35 : 50 pm
white chips in any one stack ? (3) 1 : 25 : 35 pm (4) None of these
(1) 3 (2) 4 129. In a row at a bus stop, A is 7 from the left and B is 9 from the
(3) 5 (4) 6 right. They both interchange their pesitions. A becomes 11
121. A 14.4 kg gas cylinger runs for 104 h when the smaller from the left. How many peoples are there in the row ?
burner on the gas stove is fully opened while it runs for 80 h (1) 18 (2) 19
when the larger burner on the gas stove is fully opened. (3) 20 (4) 21
Which of these values are the closest to the percentage 130. A merchant wants to make profit by selling food grains.
difference in the usage of gas per hour, of the smaller Which of the following would maximize his profit ?
burner over the larger burner ? I. Sell product at 30% profit
(1) 26.23% (2) 30% II. Increase the price by 15% over the cost price and
(3) 32.23% (4) 23.07% reduce weight by 15%
122. Study the question and the statements given below. Decide III. Use 700 g of weight instead of 1 kg.
whether any information provided in the statement(s) is IV. Mix 30% impurities in grains and sell it at cost price
redundant and/or can be dispensed with, to answer it. (1) III
It 7 is added to numerator and denominator each of (2) II and I
fraction a/b, will the new fraction be less than the original (3) II
one ? (4) All give the same profit
Statement I a = 73, b = 103 Directions (Q. 131-134) Study the following chart carefully
Statement II The average of a and b is less than b and answer.
Statement III a − 5 is greater than b − 5
(1) II and either I or III Failure Rates of Electronic Components
45
(2) Only I or II 40
40
(3) Any two of them
Number per Thousand
33
35
(4) Any one of them 30
30
123. Coefficient of variation is useful for studying 25

20
(1) Risk (2) Disparity 20
15 16
(3) Consistency (4) All of these 15
124. A cyclist drove 1 km, with the wind in his back, is 3 min and 10
5
drove the same way back, against the wind in 4 min. If we
0
assume that the cyclist always puts constant force on the Picture Signal Capaci- Integrated Printed Hybrid
pedals, how much time would it take him to drive 1 km Tubes Devices tators Circuits Circuit Micro
Boards Circuits
without wind ?
1 3
(1) 2 min (2) 3 min 131. From the failure data of electronics components presented
3 7
3 7 here, which statement is true ?
(3) 2 min (4) 3 min (1) Integrated circuits and Printed circuit boards are more
7 12
reliable.
125. A, B and C started a business by investing 1/2, 1/3 and 1/6 (2) Capacitors are more reliable than Picture tubes.
of the capital respectively. After 1/3 of the total time, A (3) Higher number of component failures is likely to be
withdrew his capital completely and after 1/4 of the total due to Picture tubes.
time B withdrew his capital. C kept his capital for the full (4) The least reliable component is Hybrid micro circuits.
period. The ratio in which total profit is to be divided 132. Which of the following components has a failure rate 25%
amongst the partners is more than that of signal devices ?
(1) 1 : 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 : 4 (1) Picture tubes
(3) 2 : 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 2 : 2 (2) Capacitors
126. A number lock consists of 3 rings each marked with 10 (3) Integrated circuits
different numbers. In how many cases the lock cannot be (4) Printed circuit boards
opened ? 133. Lowest priority for investing in any changes or additions to
(1) 310 (2) 103 the component manufacturing units, in the company’s
(3) 30 (4) 999 investment plans, may be given to the following
(1) Printed circuit boards and Hybrid micro circuits (1) 12, 4, 3 (2) 12, 5, 4
(2) Capacitors and Integrated circuits (3) 5, 12, 4 (4) 12, 4, 4
(3) Picture tubes and signal devices 135. The water from a roof, 9 sq m in area, flows down to a
(4) Signal devices and Capacitors cylindrical container of 900 cm 2 base. To what height will
134. For the equipments using Integrated circuit boards : 400, the water rise in cylinder if there is a rainfall of 0.1 mm ?
Capacitors : 240 and Printed circuit boards : 120 to run with (1) 0.1 cm (2) 0.1 m
minimum downtime, how many spares should be kept in (3) 0.11 cm (4) 1 cm
the store respectively ?
Answers
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (4) 8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (1)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (2)
31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (2) 36. (4) 37. (1) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (2)
41. (4) 42. (1) 43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (1) 50. (4)
51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (2) 57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (4) 60. (2)
61. (4) 62. (4) 63. (4) 64. (4) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (2) 69. (1) 70. (1)
71. (4) 72. (4) 73. (3) 74. (1) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (4) 78. (1) 79. (3) 80. (4)
81. (1) 82. (1) 83. (3) 84. (3) 85. (4) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (1) 89. (4) 90. (2)
91. (2) 92. (4) 93. (4) 94. (2) 95. (3) 96. (4) 97. (2) 98. (3) 99. (2) 100. (2)
101. (1) 102. (2) 103. (2) 104. (1) 105. (3) 106. (3) 107. (4) 108. (2) 109. (2) 110. (1)
111. (2) 112. (4) 113. (4) 114. (1) 115. (1) 116. (3) 117. (2) 118. (2) 119. (1) 120. (4)
121. (2) 122. (3) 123. (4) 124. (2) 125. (3) 126. (4) 127. (4) 128. (2) 129. (2) 130. (1)
131. (4) 132. (2) 133. (3) 134. (2) 135. (4)

36. (4) In first rotation it will move anti-clockwise while in N
alternate rotation it will move in clockwise direction. N
37. (1) From (A) and (C) sun is written as ‘lo’ and from (A) and
(B) brightly is written as ‘ba’. W E
38. (1) From 2. W
S
=
∴ = 42. (1) Red = 2 × 2 = 4,

Yellow = 2 × 2 = 4
= Green = 1 × 2 = 2,
Total = 10
=
4 cm
∴ =
3 cm
Yellow
39. (3) For having at least 4 brothers, the number of male child Green
should be 5 at least and for having 3 sisters at least, the
number of female child should be 4 at least. So, the
smallest number of children in the family might be
5 + 4 = 9. 3 cm Red
40. (2) Conversion of statement ‘I’ to ‘I’.
41. (4) North-West
4 cm
43. (2) 2 (two) 56. (2) The total number of students in the circle
44. (3) Red + Yellow = 2 × 4 = 8 = 6 + 16 − 2 = 20
Red + Green = 1 × 4 = 4 57. (2) (8 + 5) × 3 = 39
Yellow + Green = 1 × 4 = 4 (4 + 7 ) × 4 = 44
Total = 16
(9 + 3) × 5 = 60
45. (2) According to the given information the grid willl be as
∴ (5 + 4) × 8 = 72
B3 will hold the number 9.
For (Q. 59-61) A( F ) — Do not play any game.
S. No. A B C B( M ) — Badminton player
1 6 3 8 C ( F ) — Tennis player
2 2 7 1 D( F ) — Do not play any game.
3 4 9 5 E( M ) — Chess player
62. (4) O(M)
46. (2) 4 × 8 = 32
32 × 9 = 288 P N(M)
288 × 10 = 2880
M(F)
2880 × 11 = 31680
Obvious M is the granddaughter of ‘O’.
47. (1) According to the question, 101. (1) Loss of production cannot be quantified from the given
When Seema is called away then both of them have 13 graph as selling price of the unit and the cost of
lemon left (ie, LCM of 2, 3, 5). production has not been given.
If both of them sell these lemons individually then they
30 30 102. (2) Sum of the page numbers from 291 to 322
will get = Rs 7.50 and = Rs 5ie, a total of Rs 7.50 = (1 + 2 + 3 + K + 322) − (1 + 2 + 3 + K + 290)
4 6
322 × 323 290 × 291
+ Rs 5 = Rs 12.50. = −
65 2 2
But Jamuna gets = = Rs 12 ie, she looses 50 p. But in
5 = 52003 − 42195 = 9808
the question it has been given that she looses Rs 3.50.
Hence, number of lemons 103. (2) 2 ↔ 3 ↔ 13 ↔ 37 ↔ 86 ↔ 167 ↔ 288
1 10 24 49 81 121
210 1 420
∴ Loss of Jamuna = − × 12 should come in place of 13 as the difference
4 2 5
between two numbers is the square of odd numbers in
= 52.50 − 42 = 10.50 the increasing order.
48. (1) Obviously more orange juice in the lemonade.
ie, (1)2 = 1, (3)2 = 9, (5)2 = 25 and so on.
49. (1) Only A is Implicit.
104. (1) 17 2 = 82 + 152 A
50. (4) IMMODEST — INDECENT
51. (3) Exhibits the similar pattern of reasoning. We can get the speed of each 17
sea trawler, by using the first 8
52. (2)
part of the information.
B C
Abdul Mala Chetan AM MC CA AMC 15
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 105. (3) Total number of adult residents is equal to the sum of
Y Y Y Y Y female adults and male adults.
Abdul → 2 yellow = AM + AMC 1st Feb, 1998 1 July, 1998 Increase

Mala → 3 yellow = AM + MC + AMC V 32 + 64 = 96 41 + 73 = 114 18
Chetan → 4 yellow = MC + CA + AMC + C W 11 + 28 = 39 18 + 37 = 55 16
∴ 5 yellow birds and 2 non-yellow birds. X 47 + 84 = 131 47 + 92 = 139 8
53. (2) I-K, II-M Y 22 + 42 = 64 37 + 59 = 96 32
A B
Z 63 + 104 = 167 81 + 112 = 193 26
54. (4) According to the information
given obviously from the figure B 106. (3) Since, number is preceded by 3
and C are in diagonally opposite ∴ Common difference = 3
position. Again, t10 = 29
C D
∴ a + 9d = 29
55. (3) According to the information given a=2
1 Wish Bones ∴ Both statements are together required.
2/3 Tied Sundae and Halleujah tied for second place 2624. 46
107. (4) Area of field = = 1604025 hectare
4 Penn Fe 160
= 40. 53102 Acare
5 Night Marvel.
= 164150. 64 m2
Side = 164150.64 = 405.15 0.74 + 0.48 = 0.32 × 4
Cost = 405.15 × 0.25 = Rs 405.15 ≈ Rs 405 1.22 = 1.28
108. (2) Let height of town = x (3) 0.74 × 3 + 0.16 × 2 = 0.32 (3 + 2)
tan 60° =
x 2.22 + 0.32 = 0.32 × 5
y 2.54 = 1.60
A
y=
x (4) 0.74 × 16 + 0.16 × 9 = 0.32 (16 + 9)
3 11.84 + 1.44 = 0.32 × 25
tan 30° =
x x 13.28 = 8.00
y + 60 So, in option (1) we see that the ratio of glucose and
3x = y + 60 60° 30° lactose given results in a mixture as sweet as maltose.
B D
x y C 60 116. (3) Area of painted portion is 10 x 2. If side of cube is 2 x.
⇒ 3x − = 60°
3 Area which is not painted = 4 x 2
x = 30 3 = 51.96 m
2x 2 × 100
109. (2) In City C the number of viewers who watch more than ∴Required percentage = = 20
one movie a week is 2400 which is 15% of the total 10 x 2
number of veiwers. 117. (2) Total number of tickets from one station = 9C1 = 9
Q 15% = 2400 But it can be reapet by 10 station.
∴ 85% = 13600 ∴ Total number of tickets = 10 × 9 = 90
110. (1) Those city have the highest number of viewers who have 5
119. (1) Return on investment A = 75 × = 3.75
maximum percentage of viewers who watch less thanone 100
movie in a week and also has the maximum number of Tax given (@ 30%) on investment A
viewers who view one or more movies per week.
30
For city E the required number of viewers = 3.75 × = 1.125
100
25% = 8000
Net return on investment A = 3.75 − 1.125 = 2.625
∴ 75% = 24000
4
111. (2) City I II Return on investment B = 90 × = 3.6
100
A 60% 2400
(3600) (40%) (Investment B is tax free)
B 20% 3000 ∴ Investment B gives a better return.
(750) (80%) 120. (4) Each colour is compulsory in each stack. We have 9
C 85% 2400 white chips. These chips have to be distributed in all
(13600) (15%) the 4 stacks. Considering maximum number of white
D 55% 2700 chips in any one stack, the chips may be distributed as
(3300) (45%) 6, 1, 1, 1 in each stack. Hence, maximum number of
E 75% 8000 white chips in any one stack can be 6.
(24000) (25%) 14.4
112. (4) Total number of all movie goers in the five cities who 121. (2) Uses by smaller burner = = 0.1384
104
watch less than one movie per week 14.4
= 3600 + 750 + 13600 + 3300 + 24000 Uses by larger burrer = = 0.18
80
(Data from solution of Q. no. 111) ∴ Difference = 0.18 − 0.1384 = 0.0416
= 45250 0.0416 × 100
Percentage = = 30.05 ≈ 30%
113. (4) Here, given sequence are in AP whose a = 1, d = 1 0.1384
Sn = 288 124. (2) Let his speed is x and y is speed of wind.
∴ 24th term of alphabat will be the answer 1 3
∴ = ⇒ x + y = 20
ie, =x x + y 60
1 4
115. (1) In the given question, we have to get a mixture of the = ⇒ x − y = 15
ratio of glucose to lactose which will be as sweet as x − y 60
maltose. Now, after solving the given ratio. 35
x= km/L
(1) 0.74 × 8 + 0.16 × 21 = 0.32 × 29 (8 + 21) 2
5.92 + 3.36 = 9.28 1 2
∴ Time = = h
9.28 = 9. 28 35 / 2 35
2 3
(2) 0.74 × 1 + 0.16 × 3 = 0.32 (1 + 3) = × 60 = 3 min
35 7
1 1 1 1 1 130. (1) He will gain maximum profit when he use 700g weight.
125. (3) Required ratio = × : × :
2 3 3 4 6 300
ie, = × 100 = 42.85%
1 1 1 700
= : : = 2: 1 : 2
6 12 6 125
132. (2) 25% more of signal devices are = 16 ×
126. (4) Total number of ways of lock = 103 = 1000 100
= 20 Capacitors
∴ Since, one case it will open.
30
∴ No. of case when it will not open = 1000 − 1 = 999 134. (2) Number of Integrated circuit Boards = × 400 = 12
1000
127. (4) Let number of first class ticket = x 20
Number of capacitor = × 240 = 4.8 ≈ 5
∴ Number second class tickets = 18 − x 1000
10 x + 3(18 − x ) = 110 Number of printed circuit board
∴ x=8 33
= × 120 = 3.96 ≈ 4
∴ Second class tickets = 10 1000
∴ Now, cost = 10 × 10 + 3 × 8 = 124 135. (4) Volume of rain = Volume of container
0.1
128. (2) After 18 h 20 min it will lose more than 9 min. 90000 × = 900 × h
∴ Correct time is 1 : 35 : 50 pm 10
900 = 900h
129. (2) Total number of people is = 7 + 4 + 8 = 19
h = 1 cm
SNAP 2007
< Quantitative and Data Interpretation and Sufficiency

1. Thirty days are in September, April, June and November.
Some months are of thirty one days. A month is chosen at Time Speed at given time
random. Then its probability of having exactly three days (minutes) (in km/h)
less than maximum of 31 is 0 40
(1) 15/16 (2) 1 30 45
(3) 3/48 (4) None of these 45 47.5
2. In 4 yr, the simple interest on a certain sum of money is 60 50
7/25 of the principal. The annual rate of interest is 90 55
(1) 4% (2) 4.5% 120 60
(3) 7% (4) 9%
150 65
3. Inside a triangular park, there is a flower bed forming a 180 70
similar triangle. Around the flower bed runs a uniform path
of such a width that the sides of the park are exactly double 6. How fast was the train travelling 2 1 h after the beginning of
2
the corresponding sides of the flower bed. The ratio of areas
the time period ?
of the path to the flower bed is
(1) 50 km/h (2) 55 km/h
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 60 km/h (4) 65 km/h
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
4. The intersection of two cubes cannot be 7. During the three-hour period shown in the table, the speed
(1) cube of the train increased by
(2) triangle (1) 25% (2) 100%
(3) a rectangle (3) 75% (4) 125%
(4) None of the above 8. At time t, measured in minutes after the beginning of the
5. The table below shows the temperatures in degrees time period, which of the following gives the speed of the
Fahrenheit in a city over one week. train in accordance with the table ?
(1) t/6 (2) 6t
Noontime Temperatures
(3) 40 + t (4) 40 + t/6
Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri Sat Sun
9. A ladder is lying against a wall which is 5 m high. If the
66 78 75 69 78 77 70 ladder slips 2 m away from the wall, the top of the ladder
If m represents the median temperature, f represents the touches the foot of the wall. The length of the ladder is
temperature that occurs most often, and a represents the (1) 5 m (2) 5.25 m
average (arithmetic mean) of the seven temperatures, (3) 7.25 m (4) 4 m
which of the following is the correct order of m, f and a ? 10. The profits of Biscuits India Ltd. soared by 32% in the year
(1) a < m < f (2) a < f < m 2006–07 as compared to year 2005–06. By what per cent
(3) m < a < f (4) m < f < a did Biscuits India’s Sales increase in 2006–07 compared to
Directions (Q. 6-8) Use the table about the speed of a train the previous year ? (Assume : Profit = Sales − Expenses)
over a 3 h period. The time count does not begin from starting Decide whether the information given in the two
of train. statements is sufficient to solve the problem.
Statement (A) Expenses in 2006–07 were Rs 1400 crores, 19. A man earns 6% SI on his deposits in Bank A while he earns
as compared to Rs 1220 crore in 2005–06. 8% simple interest on his deposits in Bank B. If the total
Statement (B) Sales in 2006–07 were Rs 4300 crore. interest he earns is Rs 1800 in three years on an investment
(1) Any one of the two statements (A) or (B) taken alone, of Rs 9000, what is the amount invested at 6% ?
is sufficient to answer the question (1) 3000 (2) 6000
(2) Each of the statement (A) or (B) taken alone, is (3) 4000 (4) 4500
sufficient to answer the question
20. Bags I, II and III together have ten balls. If each bag contains
(3) Both statements, taken together, are sufficient to
at least one ball, how many balls does each bag have ?
answer the question, but neither of them alone is
Decide whether the data given in the statements are
sufficient
sufficient to answer the question.
(4) Both the statements together are insufficient to answer
the question Statement (A) Bag I contains five balls more than
11. Two identical trains A and B running in opposite directions bag III.
at same speed take 2 min to cross each other completely. Statement (B) Bag II contains half as many balls as
The number of bogies of A are increased from 12 to 16. bag I.
How much more time would they now require to cross each (1) Statement (A) alone is sufficient, but statement (B)
other ? alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked
(1) 40 s (2) 50 s (2) Statement (B) Alone is sufficient, but statement (A)
(3) 60 s (4) 20 s alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked
12. The average of nine numbers is M and the average of three (3) Both statements (A) and (B) together are sufficient to
of these is P. If the average of remaining numbers is N, then answer the question asked, but neither statement alone
(1) M = N + P (2) 2 M = N + P is sufficient to answer the question asked
(3) 3M = 2 N + P (4) 3M = 2 P + N (4) Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the
13. A special lottery is to be held to select a student who will question asked
live in the only deluxe room in a hostel. There are 21. The number 311311311311311311311 is
100 Year-III, 150 Year-II, and 200 Year-I students who (1) divisible by 3 but not by 11
applied. Each Year-III’s name is placed in the lottery (2) divisible by 11 but not by 3
3 times; each Year-II’s name, 2 times; and each Year-I’s (3) divisible by both 3 and 11
name,1 time. What is the probability that a Year-III’s name (4) neither divisible by 3 nor by 11
will be chosen ?
22. Two persons are climbing up on two moving escalators
(1) 1/8 (2) 2/9
which have 120 steps. The ratio of 1st person’s speed to that
(3) 2/7 (4) 3/8
of 1st escalator is 2 : 3 (steps). The ratio of 2nd person’s
14. How many arrangements can be formed out of the letters of speed to that of 2nd escalator is 3:5 (steps). Find the total
the word EXAMINATION so that vowels always occupy odd
number of steps they both have taken together.
places ?
(1) 85 (2) 93
(1) 72000 (2) 86400
(3) 80 (4) 75
(3) 51600 (4) 64000
23. A rainy day occurs once in every 10 days. Half of the rainy
15. Area of a square natural lake is 50 sq km. A diver wishing to
cross the lake diagonally, will have to swim a distance of days produce rainbows. What percent of all the days do not
(1) 10 miles (2) 12 miles produce rainbow ?
(3) 15 miles (4) None of these (1) 95% (2) 10%
(3) 50% (4) 5%
16. In a school drill, a number of children are asked to stand in
a circle. They are evenly spaced and the 6th child is 24. If n = 1 + x, where x is the product of 4 consecutive positive
diametrically opposite the 16th child. How many children integers, then which of the following is/are true ?
are made to stand in the circle ? I. n is odd.
(1) 16 (2) 20 II. n is prime.
(3) 22 (4) None of these III. n is a perfect square.
17. A man purchased 40 fruits; apples and oranges for Rs 17. (1) I and III only
Had he purchased as many oranges as apples and as many (2) I and II only
apples as oranges, he would have paid Rs 15. Find the cost (3) I only
of one pair of an apple and an orange. (4) None of the above
(1) 70 paise (2) 60 paise 25. In a factory, each day the expected number of accidents is
(3) 80 paise (4) 1 rupee related to the number of overtime hour by a linear
18. Consider the following piecewise definition of the function equation. Suppose that on one day there were 1000
f. overtime hours logged and 8 accidents reported and on
3 − x, if x < 0 another day there were 400 overtime hours logged and 5
f (x) =  2 accidents. What is the expected number of accidents when
 x + 2, if x ≥ 0
no overtime hours are logged ?
Evaluate f (−3). (1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 6 (2) 0 (3) 4 (4) 5
(3) 11 (4) –7
Directions (Q. 26-28) The following line graph shows the 32. If the average monthly salary of employees in
ratio of the wheat production to rice production of a state in administration was Rs 12000 in 2005, what was the
India over a period 7 yr from 1998-2006. Answer the approximate total salary expense of administration in
questions based on this data. 2005 ?
1.6 (1) Rs 57 lakh (2) Rs 57 crore
1.4 (3) Rs 66 crore (4) Rs 66 lakh
1.2
Directions (Q. 33-35) : The following table gives cost data
1.0
of select stock prices on 3rd Dec 2003 in two markets, BSE of
0.8 India and NQE of Kya Kya island. Closing stock refers to the
0.6 price at the close of trading hours and opening stock to the
0.4 price at the beginning of the day. The currency of Kya Kya is #
0.2 and the exchange rate is # = Rs 11.
0
1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 3rd Dec 2003
26. In how many years wheat production was more than the Closing Opening
rice production ? BSE (Rs) NQE (in #) BSE (Rs) NQE (in #)
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5 SIFY 247 22 232 21
27. If the total annual grain requirement (wheat and rice INFY 115 10.5 105 9.5
together) of the state is 5 lakh ton and if the rice production Wipro 65 6.5 60 5.5
during 2001 was 3 lakh ton, how much grain had to be TCS 444 40 450 40.5
imported from the other state of India to fulfill the 33. Which share and which market showed the highest
requirement ? percentage increase on 3rd Dec 2003 ?
(1) 2.00 lakh ton (2) 1.55 lakh ton (1) SIFY on BSE (2) INFY on NQE
(3) 1.05 lakh ton (4) 0.65 lakh ton (3) Wipro on NQE (4) TCS on NQE
28. If the rice production in 2003 was 4 lakh ton what was its 34. Arbitrage means buying in one market and selling
wheat production during 2003 ? simultaneously in another market. If Mr. Ghosh Babu were
(1) 1.2 lakh ton (2) 3.6 lakh ton to buy a share at the opening price on one exchange and be
(3) 4.8 lakh ton (4) 5.0 lakh ton able to sell it at the opening price on the other exchange, on
Directions (Q. 29-32) The following pie charts give the which share does he make maximum percentage profit ?
percentage distribution of employees in different. (1) SIFY (2) INFY
Departments in XYZ Company Ltd. during the years 2005 and (3) Wipro (4) TCS
2006. Answer the questions using this data.
35. In an M and A deal SIFY is purchased by its parent company
2005 2006
SATYAM which purchases 15% of SIFY’s equity shares.
(No. of Employees → 18,000) (No. of Employees → 20,000)
Total SIFY’s equity shares is 1 million. How much does
E E Satyam pay in Rs for the stake if 50% of its purchases were
8% D 10% on BSE’s operating price and balance on BSE’s closing
D 20%
29% A price ?
A
22%
24% (1) 36 million (2) 3.5 million
C (3) 363 million (4) 217 million
20%
C B B 36. In March 2007, Computers Ltd. made a bundled offer of its
18% 23% 26% laptops together with deskjet printers to boost sales, though
both the laptop and the printer were also available
individually.
A-Administration; B-Operations; C-Sales and Marketing; What is the price of the printer, if purchased separately ?
D-Finance and Accounts; E-Corporate HQ Decide whether the information given in the two
29. In which Dept is the variation in strength the maximum in statements is sufficient to solve the problem.
2006 ? Statement (A) The bundled offer price was Rs 42,600.
(1) A (2) B Statement (B) The Laptop, without the bundle offer was
(3) D (4) E priced at Rs 39,400.
30. If 300 employees left operations at the end of 2005, how (1) Any one of the two statements (A) or (B) is sufficient to
many joined in 2006 ? answer the question
(1) 480 (2) 960 (2) Each of the statements (A) or (B) taken alone, is
sufficient to answer the question
(3) Both statements, taken together, are sufficient to
31. What is the percentage increase in number of employees in answer the question, but neither of them alone is
sales and marketing ? sufficient
(1) 2% (2) 2.34% (4) Both the statements together are insufficient to answer
(3) 23.45% (4) None of these the question
Directions (Q. 37-40) The following chart presents the data than for Technical category in 2005.
collected for an online job portal Infinite jobs.com. For each Statement B The success rate of candidates getting
question, there are two statements, each of which could be shortlisted based on CV’s is better for Managerial category
either true or false. Choose one of the following options as an in 2005 than in 2004.
answer.
38. Statement A In 2004, the number of candidates offered
(1) Only [A] is true jobs as a proportion of the number of CVs posted was higher
(2) Only [B] is true for Technical than for Managerial candidates.
(3) Both [A] and [B] are true Statement B In 2004, among those short-listed by
(4) Neither [A] nor [B] is true Employers, the Technical category had a higher success rate
Years Category Number Number Number Number in securing jobs than the Managerial category.
of of Candi- of Candi- of 39. Statement A The percentage of drop outs (from
Regist- dates who dates offered Registration state to posting CVs) had decreased from 2004
rations posted short- Jobs
to 2005 for Managerial category.
their CVs listed by
Employers Statement B The percentage of drop-outs was higher for
Technical than for Managerial category in 2005.
2004 Technical 61,205 59,981 684 181
40. Statement X The percentage increase in number of
Managerial 19,236 15,389 138 48 Registrations from 2004 to 2005 is higher for Managerial
2005 Technical 63,298 60,133 637 115 candidates than for Technical condidates.
Managerial 45,292 40,763 399 84 Statement Y The overall registrations have grown by more
than 25%.
37. Statement A The success rate of candidates getting
shortlisted based on CVs is higher for Managerial category
< General English

Directions (Q. 41-46) Read the following passage and is not the primary function of the scholar, for the consequences
answer within its context. are usually subordinate to the satisfaction of curiosity.
The world dismisses curiosity by calling it idle, or mere idle 41. Common people consider some of the questions asked by
curiosity—even though curious persons are seldom idle. Parents scholars as unimportant
do their best to extinguish curiosity in their children because it (1) since they are not worth asking or answering
makes life difficult to be faced every day with a string of (2) because the question is related to new machines and
answerable questions about what makes fire hot or why grass gadgets
grows. Children whose curiosity survives parental discipline are (3) because the common man doesn’t understand
invited to join our university. Within the university, they go on questions without years of explanations
asking their questions and trying to find the answers. In the eyes (4) scholars ask very minute, specialized questions beyond
of a scholar, that is mainly what a university is for. Some of the the comprehension of the common man
questions that scholars ask seem to the world to be scarcely worth 42. In the statement ‘that is mainly what a university is for ’
asking let alone answering. They ask questions too minute and ‘that’ refers to
specialized for you and me to understand without years of (1) parents refusal to answer questions
explanation. If the world inquires of one of them why he wants to (2) children’s curiosity that survives parents strictures
know the answer to a particular question he may say, especially if (3) questions not worth answering
he is a scientist, that the answer will in some obscure way make (4) the aim and scope of the university to provide an
possible a new machine or weapon or gadget. He talks that way opportunity to curious minds to find out the answers to
because he knows that the world understands and respects utility. their questions
But to you who are now part of the university, he will say that he 43. According to the passage the general public respects
wants to know the answer simply because he does not know it. (1) new inventions
The way a mountain climber wants to climb a mountain simply (2) any useful invention
because it is there. Similarly a historian when asked by outsiders (3) any invention that makes life easier for them
why he studies history may come out with argument that he has (4) a scientist who invents gadgets and machines for them
learnt to repeat on such occasions, something about knowledge of 44. The writer compares the scientist to
the past making it possible to understand the present and mould (1) a historian and mountain climber
the future. But if you really want to know why a historian studies (2) a historian
the past, the answer is much simpler : something happened, and
(3) a mountain climber
he would like to know what. All this does not mean that the
(4) a scholar
answers which scholars find to their questions have no
consequences. They may have enormous consequences but these 45. The primary function of a scholar is different from the
seldom from the reason for asking the question or pursuing the search for a cure for cancer because
answers. It is true that scholars can be put to work answering (1) the answers to the scholar’s question have no
questions for the sake of the consequences as thousands are consequence unlike the results of the research
working now, for example, in search of a cure for cancer. But this involving a cure for cancer
(2) the answer sought by the scholar is selfish unlike the regrowing skin cells and bone tissues, but those procedures
consequences of cancer research which are for the remain experimental. “A number of programs around the world
common weal have tried to perfect this treatment, but they have had bad
(3) the primary function of a scholar is satisfaction of his outcomes,” says University of Cincinnati eye surgeon and stem cell
mental curiosity, while research involving a cure for specialist Edward Holland. “It is impressive what they are doing at
cancer demands a constant, systematic and planned Prasad.” In addition to the Hyderabad project, only Holland’s
pursuit by several scholars program and a half-dozen others in the world conduct operations
(4) several scholars work for a cancer cure while a single using corneas grown from stem cells.
scholar works with a selfish motive The treatment uses stem cells harvested from the limbus,
46. Idle curiosity means located where the cornea touches the white of the eye. For those
(1) curiosity is lazy with damaged corneas, these cells called “limbic” and
(2) idle people are curious “conjunctiva” are harvested from a patients good eye, if he has
one, or from a close relative. They are placed in a petri dish and
(3) curiosity is apt
chemically tweaked to grow into the lower layer of a cornea,
(4) casual curiosity
called epithelium. It is then transplanted into the eye of the
47. Find the correct match of definition/meaning with usage patient where in most cases it takes hold and grows. In 56% of the
for the word : WOULD cases at the Prasad institute, patient could still see clearly after 40
Definition/meaning Usage months later.
Indians are well known for reverse engineering, meaning
(1) willingness (5) He would get for a walk
they can deduce how drugs are made in order to produce generic
even it was raining
versions. But in this case, Sangwan and Vemuganti, a pathologist,
(2) obstinacy persistence (6) He would do as you say
developed the technique on their own from reading papers and
(3) determination (7) He beat the ox, but it running experiments in the lab. Sangwan says he had a number of
wouln’t move
patients with burned eyes who could not be helped with standard
(4) improbable or real (8) If you came across a snake corneal transplants from cadavers, so he persuaded Vemuganti to
condition what would you do ?
try growing corneas in her lab. “You know how to grow cells, and I
(1) 1-8, 2-5, 3-6, 4-7 (2) 1-6, 2-7, 3-5, 4-8 know how to do the transplant surgery,” Vemuganti recalls him
(3) 1-5, 2-7, 3-8, 4-6 (4) 1-7, 2-5, 3-6, 4-8 saying. “Why don’t we work together?” She smiles and shakes her
head. “I had no clue if this was going to work.”
48. Choose the most appropriate passive construction of the
Vemuganti’s major innovation was developing a platform
sentence: ‘He is doing his job well’.
on which to grow corneas. First she designed a circular glass tube
(1) His job is done well by him
about the size of a stack of coins. Then she overlaid the glass with
(2) His job is being done well
tissue from a human placenta which is “a good surface to grow
(3) He has been doing his job well
corneas on.” She says. After that she placed stem cells in four
(4) His job is being well done
places around a circle, added a growth medium, and watched the
49. There are three underlined words below, followed by their corneas begin to grow.
usages. Determine the sentences, in which the use of words Commercial interests among stem cell companies for the
is correct or appropriate. procedure has been scant because of the perceived small volume
Pray, Prey, Prying of patients, says venture capitalist Antoun Nabhan of Bay Capital,
(A) If you pray with faith, they say, it will be answered. who sits on the board of Cellerant, a leading stem cell company in
(B) He has fallen a prey to cheats. San Carlos, Calif. But corneal stem cell treatment may have wider
(C) Prying into the affairs of others is bad. applications, say ophthalmologist Ivan Schwab of University of
(1) A and B (2) A and C California at Davis. “These stem cells are similar to others in the
(3) A, B and C (4) B and C body that make mucous membrane,” he says. “These techniques
Directions (Q. 50-54) The following is an excerpt from a of growing stem cells might one day be used to treat
recent article by David Ewing Duncan. Read the passage and mucous-membrane tissue in the sinuses, bladder, and other
answer the questions within its context. organs.”
Eye surgeon Virendar Sangwan has perfected a procedure 50. According to the article Sangwan-Vemuganti team’s cutting
so cutting-edge that most who have tried it have failed. In an edge procedure of implanting cornea grown from stem cells
operating theatre in the central Indian city of Hyderabad, he is considered a major advancement by the experts because
surgically implants corneas grown in a petri dish from stem cells (1) they derive stems cells from embryos
by his colleague Geeta Vemuganti in patients with damaged eyes. (2) their labs are customised to grow stem cells
Together they perform about 80 corneal regeneration procedures (3) they regrow cells in hearts, brains, livers with stems
a year, making the L.V. Prasad Eye Institute, where they work, one cells from tissues of living adults
of the most prolific facilities in the world using stem cells to (4) they derive stem cells from tissues of living adults and
regenerate tissues of any kind. grow cells in labs
The Sangwan-Vemuganti team uses stem cells found in the 51. Sangwan-Vemuganti procedure is carried out on
tissues of living adults, not ones derived from embryos. Teams all (1) patents requiring any corneal transplant
over the world are working with adult stem cells, trying to coax (2) patients with damaged corneas
them to regrow cells in hearts, brains, livers and other organs, but (3) patients with damaged eyes of any kind
progress is slow. Besides corneas, scientists have had some success (4) None of the above
52. The world recognizes this Indian innovation because Indian While the 1992 Earth Summit and the 1993 convention on
scientists are normally known bio-diversity (CBD) focused on ‘diversity’ as being fundamental to
(1) to be good at analysing and finding out a method of sustain life and development, TRIPs and WTO are pushing for
how an existing drug is made ‘conformity’ to international standardized norms on patents,
(2) as they are good researchers of drugs services, labour, investment and what not irrespective of their
(3) as they are good at carrying out experiments to create history, ecology, level of economic development, etc. But despite
generic drugs their diametrically opposed viewpoints, 170 countries signed CBD
(4) as they are able to carry out drug trials on large upholding the need for diversity, and 50 countries signed the
samples TRIPs agreement in 1994 claiming the urgency of uniformity, with
53. The pathologist, Vemuganti, started growing cornea in a a very large element of common names (130) in both.
petri dish The convention on bio-diversity (CBD) in its Article 16.5
(1) by following procedures published in research papers specifically asserts that intellectual property right must not be in
(2) by inventing a totally new procedure conflict with conservation and sustainable use of bio-diversity, a
(3) by experimenting with procedures published in provision that has been totally ignored by those who composed
journals the TRIPs agreement. While in case of agriculture the higher yield
(4) by following the instructions of the transplant surgeon of patented products induces the farmers to switch form a more
54. In the context of the passage choose the correct set of varied production pattern, the resulting narrowing of genetic base
meanings for the words: ‘platform’ and ‘generic’ makes the economy and society more vulnerable to plant diseases
(1) lab table; related to genes and epidemics. It is true that the move towards cultivation of a
(2) method; related to genes smaller number of higher yielding varieties and the uniform
(3) lab experiments; without a brand name spread of the same variety over a large space predates the present
(4) methodology; without a brand name debate on patent, particularly since the introduction of the green
revolution technology in the mid-sixties, but there can be no
55. Choose the option which is closest in meaning to the word
doubt that the latter has brought about a qualitative change in the
SUBTLE
scenario and has created possibility of a vast quantitative change
(1) Innocent (2) Elusive
too in that direction. So far, no attempt has been made to
(3) Dangerous (4) Insidious
reconcile the two conflicting approaches of CBD and TRIPs. If
56. The following sentence has a missing punctuation mark, diversity is so important for sustaining life, how can WTO demand
choose the right answer. conformity to standardised global formats ?
My mother who is from the village is very superstitious.
58. The author points out that intellectual property rights and
(1) Brackets (2) Comma
their administration mechanism
(3) Semicolon (4) Apostrophe
(1) is throttling the interest of global bio-diversity
57. For the pair of sentences below choose the right option (2) is working to help sustain golbal bio-diversity
(A) Those are them (3) is being sustained by golbal bio-diversity
(B) Those are they (4) is what the global bio-diversity needs
(1) The first sentence has an error
59. Which of the following has been said by the author in the
(2) The second sentence is erroneous
passage ?
(3) Both sentences are incorrect
(1) A high number of countries have signed both CBD and
(4) Both sentences are correct
TRIPs, two conflicting treaties
Directions (Q. 58-62) Read the following passage and (2) A narrow genetic base, if stuck to for ling, is fraught
answer within its context. with danger
(3) Although a nondiscriminatory approach has been
TRIPs agreement provides a comprehensive set of global
followed in the applicability of TRIPs, there has been a
trade rules for the protection of copyright patents, trademarks,
confessional attitude in prescribing a timeframe for
industrial designs, trade secrets, semiconductor lay out designs,
Transition, as per needs of the respective countries
and geographical indications, that apply to all the
(4) The author is supportive of international conventions
number-countries irrespective of their levels of development,
and treaties such as TRIPs, CBD etc.
natural and human endowments and history. Every member-
country has been asked by the WTO to amend its national patent 60. Out of the countries that signed CBD, the percentage of
law to conform to that universal globalized format for legislation those that signed the TRIPs also, is
relating to pharmaceutical, agrochemical, food, alloys, etc. (1) 76.5 (2) 74.5
Under Article 65, the developed countries have been asked (3) 78.5 (4) 80.2
to change their laws within another five years, and the less 61. According to the author, a higher-yield seed variety is not
developed countries within an additional five years. The least always welcome as it also ultimately leads to
developed countries have been asked to make those changes by (1) diseases among the consumers
2005 AD. (2) diseases among the plants
This attempt at global standardisation and uniformity by (3) monopoly of developed countries
way of TRIPs agreement is in conflict with the main thrust of the (4) monopoly of developed countries
Rio Earth Summit of 1992 that set out the conditions for 62. As per the TRIPs agreement not much differentiation is
sustainable development. These two reveal two contrasting types made between a developed country such as the USA and an
of international approaches and norms. undeveloped country such as Sudan. This is
(1) definitely true (2) probably true the four combinations make a meaningful sentence.
(3) probably false (4) definitely false I. We all value having the freedom
63. A single word equivalent for the statement ‘Speak falsely 1. Which many of us fail to honour
with deliberate intent’ is 2. to make the choices we want in our careers
(1) repudiate (2) prevaricate 3. but with great freedom comes great responsibility
(3) disparage (4) equivocate 4. so most companies fall prey to the policies which
become rigid
64. Choose the word with the correct spelling
II. and that’s probably one reason we find most companies
(1) paraphrenalia (2) progarmme
not following what they preach
(3) pediatrics (4) beserk
(1) 1, 3, 4, 2 (2) 2, 3, 1, 4
65. Which two sentences in the following convey the same (3) 1, 4, 2, 3 (4) 3, 2, 1, 4
idea ? Choose from the combinations listed below
(i) Wasn’t there any checking at the ariport ? Directions (Q. 72-74) Read the edited excerpt of an article
by NELSON VINOD MOSES and answer the questions in this
(ii) I want to know if there was any checking at the airport.
context.
(iii) I wonder if there should have been any checking at the
airport. A successful non-resident Indian employed in the United
(iv) There should have been checking at the airport. States returns to a backward Indian village and transforms the
(1) (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iv) lives of the villagers. Sounds familiar ? At 31, Ashwin Naik is
(3) (iii), (iv) (4) (ii), (iv) pacing through the path Shah Rukh Khan traced in his off beat
66. Choose the most appropriate sentence from the following Bollywood movie, Swades. Naik had just quit his cushy job in a
(1) You should at once report it to the concerned authority genomics firm in the US to join MIT Sloan School of Business.
(2) You should report it at once, to the authority concerned With a month in hand, he headed home a travelled through the
(3) You should report it at once, to the concerned authority remote areas of Bagalkot district in Karnataka. The woeful social
(4) You should at once report it to the authority concerned conditions he saw moved him. Naik chucked the MBA course and
in six months set up Vaatsalya Healthcare, a rural healthcare
67. Find the correct match of grammatical function with usage
delivery system.
for the word
In February 2005, Vaatsalya’s first hospital opened in Hubli.
AFTER
Two more centrs were opened in Gadag and Karwar to offer
Grammatical function Usage specialist services of surgeons and facilities such as physiotherapy
1. adjective 5. You may go after for children suffering from cerebral palsy. “We introduced
having your lunch. paediatric surgery for infants below six months,” says Naik. ‘‘Else,
2. adverb 6. It appears to be the patients would have to be taken to distant cities of Hubli or
after of the disease. Bangalore.’’ Naik plans 100 more units in five states in the next
3. conjunction 7. Many graduates are three years. Mere charity by an affluent, middle-class
hankering after jobs. professional ? Far from it, Vaatsalya is one among rapidly
4. preposition 8. He came soon after. spreading ‘for profit’ social enterprises that serves the poor and
brings in profit. Mumbai-based Ziqitza, an imbalance serives
(1) 1-8, 2-5, 3-6, 4-7 (2) 1-6, 2-5, 3-8, 4-7 company, is another. It never refuses a patient for money, and
(3) 1-5, 2-8, 3-7, 4-6 (4) 1-6, 2-8, 3-5, 4-7 charges Rs 50 to Rs 200.
68. ‘Neophyte’ is the opposite of Done fleetingly in India and elsewhere till now,
(1) student (2) clown entrepreneurial minds with a social conscience are methodically
(3) veteran (4) professional creating such models at a greater pace. There has been a boom in
69. Find the maximum number of times that any one of the the past two years, “says Varun Sahni, country director of Acumen
given words fits the set of sentences Fund, a US-based social fund that invests in companies that target
disabled flimsy crippled lame low income communities. “Currently, there are about 1,000 in
1. Don’t make _____ excuses. India.”
2. Liberalization may have _____ smaller manufacturers. The timing seems perfect. There is a wide market
3. Being a defaulter at the stock exchange makes him a acceptance and funding has been coming in easily. These
_____ duck. enterprises work across a swathe of areas including healthcare,
4. A _____ person may limp. education, rural energy, agriculture, arts and crafts, banking and
(1) in all the four sentences more. ‘For profit’ entrepreneurs are obsessed with social and
(2) in three sentences environmental impact in addition to the financial returns. Since
(3) in two sentences they are answerable to the investors, they try expanding the
(4) in only one business rapidly. SKS Microfinance, for instance, started in 1998
70. Which of the following does not make a sensible and has now over 900,000 customers, 440 branches and an
word/phrase when added to the given word ? outstanding loan disbursement of over Rs 452 crore as of August
FIRE 2007.
(1) fly (2) engine 72. Identify the appropriate business model of the kind of
(3) stick (4) escape enterprise described by the author.
71. Arrange the sentence 1, 2, 3, 4 to form a logical sequence (1) Servicing societies at no profit
between sentences I and II. Choose the alternative where (2) Profiting from poor people
(3) Setting up enterprises for masses of low-income groups C. by various Indian wives, all of whom were all that
on experimental basis moment engaged in flghting on the rebel side in Avadh,
(4) Setting up enterprises for social causes for profit and where they took an active part in besieging the British
expand rapidly Residency in Lucknow
73. Which of the following companies does not illustrate the D. These included James Rotton who could not speak
idea explained by the author ? English and the twenty two Muslim sons of his convert
(1) SKS Microfinance cousin, Felix Rotton
(2) Acumen Fund (1) A, B, C, D (2) B, A, D, C
(3) Ziqitza (3) A, D, B, C (4) B, D, A, C
(4) Vaatsalya Healthcare 77. Choose the sentence in which the given word is used
74. According to the author, which of the following options correctly (grammatically and semantically)
describes ‘for profit’ entrepreneurs most appropriately ? ALMOST
(1) NRI’s paying back to their motherland (1) As I crossed the road a scooterist almost hit me
(2) Those affluent, middle-class professionals treating it as (2) Crossing the road a scooterist hit me almost
charity (3) A scooterist across the road almost hit me
(3) Those who work towards getting financial returns on (4) A scooterist almost hit me crosing the road
social business by expanding quickly 78. In the following sentence choose the erroneous segment
(4) Those who have sympathetic investors for their A B C
business ideas for poor We took a taxi so we would be on time for the meeting
75. A contextual usage is provided for the world below. Pick the (1) Error in segment A
word that is most inappropriate. MALINGER : The young (2) Error in segment B
man made it a point to malinger inspite of the assigned (3) Error in segment C
work load. (4) No error
(1) Wander (2) Laze 79. Find the ODD one out from the group of words which are
(3) Evade (4) Argue related in some way or the other
76. The following is a scrambled sentence with the segments (1) din (2) cacophony
marked 1, 2, 3 and 4. Choose the alternative with the order (3) racket (4) cadence
segments that best reconstruct the sentence 80. Fill in the blanks with the correct alternative
A. For all the padre’s rhetoric about the English as God’s Caw is to crows as ___ is to cows.
Chosen People, the padre had a whole tribe of Anglo- (1) bleat (2) snort
Indian first cousins (3) low (4) bellow
B. Padre Rotton was an even more striking case
< General Awareness

81. A new coin called ‘Rupiya’ was issued for the first time by (1) Cipla (2) Cadila
(1) Sher Shah Suri (3) Glaxo (4) Monsanto
(2) Akbar 86. Nand Lal Bose, Manjit Bawa, Tyeb Mehta are
(3) Ala-ud-din Khalji (1) classical singers (2) english poets
(4) Mohammed Shah Tughlaq (3) photographers (4) painters
82. Monsoon is caused by 87. What is Phishing ?
(1) impact of summer temperatures on the seas (1) A Govt. plan
(2) movement of clouds (2) A stem cell
(3) seasonal reversal of winds (3) Fraudulent way of acquiring PIN and bank passwords
(4) rise in temperature using email
83. In the world of sports, the sobriquet ‘Indo-Pak Express’ is (4) None of the above
applied to 88. The Indian company that manufactures automobiles for
(1) Shree Santh and Shoaib Akhtar Mitsubishi is
(2) Rohan Bopanna and Aisam-Ul-Haq Quareshi (1) Tata Motors (2) Bajaj Tempo
(3) Sania Mirza and Shahar Peer (3) Mahindra (4) Hindustan Motors
(4) Rohan Bopanna and Shahar Peer 89. Which of these is not a film directed by Mira Nair ?
84. The world’s busiest port today (1) Earth (2) Monsoon Wedding
(1) Port of Rotterdam (3) Kamasutra (4) Salaam Bombay
(2) Port of Shanghai 90. The major US Toy manufacturer that recently suffered a
(3) Port of Singapore breakdown in supply chain from China on account of
(4) Port of Dubai legally unacceptable toxic substances in its products is
85. Which Company owns ‘Sugar Free’, the leading brand of (1) Leo Toys (2) Mattel Toys
artificial sweetener in India ? (3) Universal Toys (4) Funskool Toys
91. Some of the large deals entered into by IT majors in India (3) USA, China and Germany
are listed here as options. They are all billion dollar deals (4) USA, UK and France
except one. Which one ? 105. The nunner-up in the recent Vice-President election was
(1) TCS-Nielson (2) Tech Mahindra-BT (1) Mr. Bhairon Singh Shekhawat
(3) Infosys-ABN AMRO (4) IBM-Bharti (2) Dr. Najma Heptullah
92. A suicide car bomb caused havoc in England in July 2007 at (3) Mr. Praful Patel
the following airport (4) Mr. Hameed Ansari
(1) Glasgow (2) Heathrow 106. Egg is a rich source of nutrients except
(3) Burmingham (4) Nottingham (1) Vitamin C (2) Protein
93. Pakistan signed Free Trade Agreement (FTA) and a five (3) Vitamin D (4) None of these
year investment package with 107. In banking terminology, CRR mean
(1) USA (2) European Union (1) Credit Reserve Ratio
(3) China (4) Russia (2) Cash Reserve Ratio
94. Major oil finds are recently reported in (3) Credit Rating Ratio
(1) Krishna Godavari Basin (4) Cash Rating Ratio
(2) Cauvery Basin 108. “Bollywood” name has been granted as a trademark to
(3) Rajasthan Desert which US based Media and Entertainment company by
(4) Lower Assam Valley Indian Trademark Registry ?
95. The propagation of radio signals is greatly influenced by (1) Viacom (2) Universal Studios
(1) troposphere (2) ionosphere (3) Disney Enterprises (4) Miramax
(3) exosphere (4) thermosphere 109. Lakshmi Mittal, the famous NRI industrialist, is partnering
96. According to Dun and Bradsstreet which one of the with Govt. of India for the following big project
following is the largest employer among Indian ITES and (1) Oil Refinery
BPO companies ? (2) Atomic Power Plant
(1) Genpact (2) Accenture Services (3) Biotechnology
(3) Wipro BPO (4) IBM Daksh (4) Mining
97. “In God we trust, the rest have to bring data on the table.” 110. Which of the following allows one to start and continue to
This statement was made by the famous industrialist share regularly any of his/her own personal experience,
knowledge, opinion or thought with the internet
(1) J.R.D. Tata (2) Aditya Birla
community ?
(3) Dhirubhai Ambani (4) Narayan Murthy
(1) Portal (2) Email
98. Following options are a list of forex rates for US Dollar on a (3) Blog (4) Chat
day recently. Identify the entry that is reversed
111. Zapak Digital Entertainment is an online gaming venture
(1) 1 US $ = Rs 39.35 (2) 1 US $ = €1.42
promoted by
(3) 1 US $ = £0.48 (4) 1 US $ = Y 114
(1) UTV
99. Which of the following is not provided in the Constitution ? (2) Balaji Telefilm
(1) Election Commission (3) Zee TV
(2) Planning Commission (4) Anil Dhirubhai Ambani Enterprises
(3) Public Service Commission 112. In August 2007, Chennai High Court passed a landmark
(4) Finance Commission judgment that may have far reaching consequences on
100. When did Governor General’s rule end in India ? pharmaceuticals industry, dismissing a writ petition filed by
(1) 15th August, 1947 (2) 9th August, 1948 (1) Ranbaxy (2) Sandoz
(3) 26th January, 1950 (4) 2nd October, 1950 (3) Novartis (4) Glaxo
101. The newspaper which was recently voted as the largest 113. Koneru Humpy plays
selling newspaper in the world is (1) Badminton (2) Circket
(1) The Los Angeles Times (3) Chess (4) Weight Lifting
(2) The Times of India 114. Inrecent months the monks of Myanmar marched the
(3) The London Times streets of Yangon in hundreds
(4) The New York Times (1) to spread the message of peace
102. Which of the following countries is the top source of FDI (2) to celebrate Buddha Purnima
inflows into India at present ? (3) to protest against the ruling government
(1) Singapore (2) USA (4) to take the normal route for alms
(3) UK (4) Mauritius 115. To recover the national loss suffered by small investors in
103. The human cell contains the IPO allotment scam from the National Securities
(1) 44 chromosomes (2) 48 chromosomes Depository Services Ltd and Central Depository Services
(3) 46 chromosomes (4) 23 chromosomes Ltd. and eight depository participants, a second interim
104. In 2006, the three largest economies in the world were order was passed by
(1) USA, Japan and Germany (1) SEBI (2) RBI
(2) USA, China and Japan (3) AFMI (4) Supreme Court
116. Indian Broadcasting Service was renamed in 1936 as (3) Johann
(1) Akashwani (2) Nabhowani (4) Handel
(3) Doorwani (4) All India Radio 119. During the year 2006–07, Indian Railways earned a profit
117. Which of the following is not a principal organ of the UNO ? of approximately
(1) General Assembly (1) Rs 20,000 crore (2) Rs 14,000 crore
(2) Trusteeship Council (3) Rs 18,000 crore (4) Rs 16,500 crore
(3) Security Council 120. Starbucks, the coffee chain retailer’s name is inspired from
(4) World Health Organization which book ?
118. Who was the composer of the classical composition (1) The Scarlet Letter
‘Moonlight Sonata’ ? (2) Mobydick
(1) Ludwig Van Beethoven (3) Uncle Tom’s Cabin
(2) Joseph Haydn (4) None of the above
< Analytical and Logical Reasoning Section

Directions (Q. 121-123) Read the following passage and (1) 0 (2) 1
answer the questions. (3) 2 (4) Cannot deduce
An employee has been assigned the task of allotting offices 125. How many minutes before 12 noon is it when it is 27 min
to six of the staff members. The offices are numbered 1-6. The past 10 am ?
offices are arranged in a row and they are separated from each (1) 39 (2) 93
other by six foot high dividers. Hence voices, sounds and cigarette (3) 49 (4) 94
smoke flow easily from one office to another. 126. Shankar and Jwala are both members of a Youth club,
Miss Ruby needs to use the telephone quite often though they are not speaking to each other and refuse to
throughout the day. Mr. Minhas and Mr. Brar need adjacent work with each other. Chaya, the club president, is
offices as they need to consult each other often while working. appointing members to the fundraising committee, but she
Miss Harsha is a senior employee and has to be allotted the office has resolved that she will not appoint anyone without his or
number 5 having the biggest window. her explicit consent. Shankar tells Chaya, “I will not consent
Mr. Dongre requires silence in the offices next to his. Mr. to appointment on that committee unless I know whether
Tanjore, Mr. Minhas and Mr. Dongre are all smokers. Miss Harsha Jwala is to be a member of it.” And Jwala says, “I will not
finds tobacco smoke allergic and consequently the offices next to consent to be a member of that committee unless I know
hers are to be occupied by non-smokers. whether Shankar will be appointed to it.” If all three of
Unless specifically stated all the employees maintain an these people stick by these resolutions. then
atmosphere of silence during office hours. (1) Neither of them can be appointed to the committee
121. The ideal candidate to occupy the office furthest from Mr. (2) They must either both be appointed or both be left out
Brar would be (3) The committee may finally have one of them, both of
(1) Miss Harsha (2) Mr. Minhas them, or neither of them as members
(3) Mr. Tanjore (4) Mr. Dongre (4) Either one of them can be appointed, but not both
122. The three employees who are smokers should be seated in 127. A bank customer had Rs 1000 in his account. He then made
the offices 6 withdrawals, totaling Rs 100. He kept a record of these
(1) 1, 2 and 4 (2) 2, 3 and 6 withdrawals, and the balance remaining in the account, as
(3) 1, 2 and 6 (4) 1, 2, and 3 follows
123. In the event of what occurrence, within a period of one Withdrawals Balance left
month since the assignment of the offices, would a request Rs 50 Rs 50
for a change in office be put forth by one or more employees Rs 25 Rs 25
(1) Mr. Dongre quitting smoking Rs 10 Rs 15
(2) The installation of a noisy teletype machine by Miss Rs 8 Rs 7
Harsha in her office Rs 5 Rs 2
(3) Miss Ruby needs silence in the office(s) next to her own Rs 2 Rs 0
(4) Mr. Tanjore taking over the duties formerly taken care Rs 100 Rs 99
of by Miss. Ruby
124. You have three chests in front of you. The first chest is So, why are the totals not exactly right ?
labeled “GOLD”, the second is labeled “SILVER” and the (1) There is a mistake in the total of withdrawals
third is labeled “GOLD OR SILVER”. You have been told (2) There is a mistake in the total of the balance
that all the labels are on the wrong chests and that one (3) The two totals need not be equal
chest contain gold coins, one contains silver coins and one (4) The bank has cheated the customer
contains bronze coins. How many chests do you need to 128. Which pattern from the bottom line (A, B C, D or E) is
open to deduce which label goes on which chest ? missing from the top line ?
What was the actual placing of the three contestants ?
(1) Snehal, Waman, Tanmay
(2) Snehal, Tanmay, Waman
(3) Waman, Snehal, Tanmay
(4) Tanmay, Waman, Snehal
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 135.

(1) A (2) B AS IS TO
IS TO
(3) D (4) E
Directions (Q. 129-131) During their school Silver Jubilee
Reunion, four alumni were discussing their starting annual
salaries back in 1981. The salaries in question were Rupees
40, 50, 60 and 70 thousand per year. Of course the present
MD of a private company earned the most. Arvind earned more (A) (B) (C) (D)
than Biswajeet, and the doctor earned more than Dhruv the
engineer. Chinmay could not remember what he started on. (1) A (2) B
Biswajeet the lawyer did not start on Rs 50,000, nor did Dhruv. (3) C (4) D
129. What is Chinmay’s current profession ? 136. It is possible to arrange eight of nine numbers 2, 3, 4, 5, 7,
(1) MD (2) Lawyer 10, 11, 12, 13 in the vacant squares of the 3 by 4 array
(3) Doctor (4) Engineer shown below so that the arithmetic average of the numbers
in each row and column is the same integer.
130. What was the Lawyer’s starting salary ?
(1) 40,000 (2) 50,000 1 15
(3) 60,000 (4) 70,000 9
131. Who received the highest starting salary ? 14
(1) Arvind (2) Biswajeet
(3) Chinmay (4) Dhruv Which of the nine numbers must be left out when
132. Which image from the bottom row should replace the completing the array ?
question mark ? (1) 4 (2) 10
(3) 15 (4) 7
137. At a family reunion were the following people: one
grandfather, one grandmother, two fathers, two mothers,
four children, three grandchildren, one brother, two sisters,
two sons, two daughters, one father-in-law, one
mother-in-law, and one daughter-in-law. But not as many
people attended as it sounds. How many were there ?
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 15 (4) 7
138. A census taker approaches a house and asks the woman
who answers the door. “How many children do you have,
and what are their ages?”
Woman : “I have three children, the product of their ages is
36, the sum of their ages is equal to the address of the house
next door.”
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) The census taker walks next door, comes back and says, “I
(1) C (2) D need more information.”
(3) B (4) E The woman replies, “I have to go, my oldest child is
133. A man has a job which requires him to work 8 straight days sleeping upstairs.”
and rest on the ninth day. If he started work on a Monday, Census taker : “Thank you, I now have everything I need.”
the 12th time he rests will be on what day of the week ? What are the ages of each of the three children ?
(1) Sunday (2) Wednesday (1) 9, 2, 2 (2) 6, 6, 1
(3) Tuesday (4) Friday (3) 12, 3, 1 (4) 6, 3, 2
134. Babloo and Bunty were excitedly describing the result of 139. What number will replace the question mark ?
the First Annual Running Race at Damapur High School.
Snehal, Tanmay and Waman had been three contestants,
6 8 12 5 6 6 3 12 ?
“Tanmay won the race; Waman was in second place,”
reported Babloo. Bunty disagreed, “It was Snehal who won. 8 10 4
Tanmay came second.” In fact, neither Babloo nor Bunty (1) 40 (2) 18
had given a correct version of the result as each had made (3) 19 (4) 24
one true and one false statement.
140. An ingredient in coffee, known as RTC, has been found to (1) A (2) B
inactivate common cold viruses in experiments. In previous (3) C (4) D
experiments, researchers found that inactivated common 146. From the image below (A-G) find 3 odd ones out.
cold viruses can convert healthy cells into cancer cells. It
can be concluded that the use of coffee can cause cancer.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens
the argument ?
(1) Several teams of scientists performed the various
(A) (B) (C) (D)
experiments, and all of the teams had similar results
(2) The carcinogenic effect of RTC could be neutralized by
the other ingredients found in coffee
(3) When RTC kills common cold viruses it weakens the
immune system, and it might thus diminish the body’s (E) (F) (G)
ability to fight other viruses, including viruses linked to (1) A, B, C (2) B, C, G
cancers (3) C, G, D (4) D, A, F
(4) If chemists modify the structure of RTC, RTC can be
safely incorporated into medications to prevent the 147. On the counter are six squares marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
common cold Players are invited to place as much money as they wish on
any one square. Three dice are then thrown.
141. Jaideep was given some money by his mother on his l If your number appears on one dice only, you get your
birthday. Jaideep spent all of it in five stores. In each store
money back plus the same amount.
he spent one rupee more than half of what he had when he
l If two dice show your number, you get your money back
came in. How much did he get from his mother ?
(1) Rs 25 (2) Rs 30 plus twice the amount you placed on the square.
l If your number appears on all three dice, you get your
(3) Rs 46 (4) Rs 52
money back plus three times the amount.
Directions (Q. 142-144) Use the data given below to l If the number is not on any of the dice, the operator gets
answer the questions.
your money.
The following are the results of a survey conducted on a For example, suppose that you bet one Rupee on square No.
small cross section of students from Symbiosis Group of Institutes, 6. If one dice shows a 6, you get your Rupee back plus
to determine the readership of three Magazines. This survey was another Rupee. If two dice show 6, you get back your Rupee
conducted in Dec. 2006. plus two Rupees. If three dice show 6, you get your Rupee
— Number of students who read only Business India was back plus three Rupees.
40 From a player’s point of view, the chance of his number
— 60 students read only Outlook showing on one dice is, 1/6, but since there are three dice,
— 110 students read only India Today the chances must be 3/6 or 1/2, therefore the game is a fair
— 30 students read all three magazines one. Of course this is the way the operator of the game
— 20 read Business India and India Today, but not Outlook wants everyone to reason, for it is quite fallacious.
— 50 read Business India and Outlook, but not India Today What is the probable story ?
— 40 read Outlook and India Today, but not Business India (1) Operator gets a profit of 6% on each Rupee bet
142. What was the total number of students surveyed ? (2) Operator suffers a loss of 7.8% on each Rupee bet
(1) 210 (2) 350 (3) Operator gets a profit of 7.8% on each Rupee bet
(3) 390 (4) None of these (4) The player suffers a loss of 6% on each Rupee bet
143. How many students did not read Business India ? 148. Consider the following two statements to be true if they
(1) 40 (2) 170 seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Then
(3) 240 (4) None of these decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from
144. When another survey was conducted in May 2007 with the two given statements. Select the correct alternative.
same set of students, their tastes had changed and the Statements All Lawyers are extrovert.
findings were different. All of them read India Today. 120 Some wise men are extrovert.
read Outlook, and no one read Business India. Hence, in Conclusions
May 2007, how many students read only India Today ? (ja) All lawyers are wisemen
(1) 60 (2) 110 (jb) All wisemen are lawyers.
(3) 230 (4) None of these (jc) Some extrovert are wisemen.
(jd) All extrovert are lawyers.
145. Find the circle, which does not include a word using all
(1) Only (ja) follows
letters.
(2) Only (jb) and (jc) follow
A C (3) Only (ja) and (jc) follow
A T T A
R E (4) Only (jc) follows
N S S
AS C S Y A C E 149. Where should the letter ‘W’ be placed ?
C B C D E J K L P
B C N H
A H M T U V
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) Above (2) Below (1) 5 (2) 6
(3) Both (4) None (3) 9 (4) 12
150. What is the number of routes from P to Q ?
1 4
P 2 Q
3 5
Answers
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (3)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (*) 15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (3)
21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (3) 29. (3) 30. (3)
31. (3) 32. (*) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (1) 36. (4) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (3)
41. (1) 42. (4) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (3) 50. (4)
51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (4) 55. (2) 56. (2) 57. (3) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (1)
61. (2) 62. (1) 63. (1) 64. (3) 65. (2) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (1)
71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (1) 76. (2) 77. (1) 78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (4)
81. (1) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (4) 85. (2) 86. (4) 87. (3) 88. (4) 89. (1) 90. (2)
91. (3) 92. (1) 93. (3) 94. (1) 95. (2) 96. (1) 97. (4) 98. (2) 99. (2) 100. (3)
101. (2) 102. (4) 103. (3) 104. (1) 105. (2) 106. (1) 107. (2) 108. (3) 109. (1) 110. (3)
111. (4) 112. (3) 113. (3) 114. (3) 115. (1) 116. (4) 117. (4) 118. (1) 119. (1) 120. (2)
121. (4) 122. (4) 123. (4) 124. (2) 125. (2) 126. (4) 127. (3) 128. (3) 129. (3) 130. (3)
131. (1) 132. (4) 133. (2) 134. (1) 135. (3) 136. (4) 137. (4) 138. (*) 139. (2) 140. (2)
141. (2) 142. (2) 143. (4) 144. (3) 145. (1) 146. (2) 147. (3) 148. (4) 149. (2) 150. (2)
NOTE * No option is correct.

1. (4) The month having exactly three days less than 1 b h bh
Area of flower bed = × × =
maximum of 31 will be the month having 28 days. 2 2 2 8
February is the only month that has 28 days. 1 1 3
∴ Area of the path = bh − bh = bh
1 2 8 8
∴ Probability (E ) =
12 3
bh
2. (3) Let the principal be x. Area of the path 8
∴ = = 3: 1
7 Area of the flower bed bh
Simple interest = x
25 8
PRT 4. (1) The intersection of a three dimensional figure cannot
SI =
100 be three dimensional. It will be two dimensional. So it
7 x×R ×4 cannot be a cube.
x=
25 100 5. (1) m is the median temperature. By arranging all tempe-
7×4 ratures in ascendng order 66, 69, 70, 75, 77, 78, 78.
∴ R= = 7% Middle number is 75. So, m = 75
4
f is the temperature that most often 78 has occured
3. (4) Let the triangle be a right angled triangle and the base
two times. f = 78
and the perpendicular of the triangle be b and h
a is the averge of the seven temperature
respectively.
66 + 78 + 75 + 69 + 78 + 77 + 70
1 =
∴ Area = × b × h 7
2
=
513
= 73.2 Number of consonants = 5 ie. X , M , N , N , T
7 6! 5!
∴ Number of arrangements = ×
a = 73.2, m = 75, f = 78 2! × 2! 2!
a<m< f = 180 × 60 = 10800
1 5
6. (4) After 2 h = × 60 min = 150 min. It is clear from the 15. (4) Area = 50 km2
2 2
given table that the speed of the train was 65 km/h. Side = 50 = 5 2 km
7. (3) Percentage increase in speed during the three hour ∴ Diagonal length = 2 ⋅ 5 2 = 10 km
period = 10 × 1. 6 = 16 mile
70 − 40 16. (2) The number of children between 6th and 16th children
= × 100 = 75% = 9.
40
2.5t t ∴ Total number of children = 9 + 9 + 2 = 20
8. (4) 40 + = 40 +
15 6 17. (3) Let the number of apples and oranges be x and y
9. (3) Let the length of the respectively.
ladder be l metre and ∴ x + y = 40
distance of the ladder Let the price of one apple be aand that of an orange be b.
l
from the wall x metres. 5m ∴ ax + by = 17 …(i)
∴ l2 = 52 + x 2 Again according to question
bx + ay = 15 …(ii)
Again, l = ( x + 2) m x 2m
(i) and (ii), (a + b)( x + y ) = 32
∴ 52 + x 2 = ( x + 2)2 32
a+ b= = Re 0. 80
or 25 + x/ 2 = x/ 2 + 4 + 4 x 40
4 x = 21 = 80 paise
21 18. (1) f (−3) = 3 − (−3) = 6 [Q −3 < 0]
x= m
4 19. (2) Method I
21 Let the sum invested in Bank A be x and in Bank B be y.
∴ l= x + 2= + 2 = 7. 25 m
4 ∴ x + y = 9000 × 24.
10. (3) Data given; in statement I. 2 × , 18 + y × 24 = 1800 × 100 × 1
Expense in 2005–06 = Rs 1220 6 x = 216000 − 18000
Expense in 2006–07 = Rs 1400 crores = 36000
and in statement II.
x = 6000
Sale in 2006–07 = Rs 4300
Method II
Profit in 2006–07 = Rs 4300 − 1400 crores 18% 24%
= Rs 2900 crores
Profit in 2006–07 increased by 32% 20%
2900
∴ Profit in 2005–06 = ≈ 2196. 97
1. 32
4 2
∴ Sale in 2005–06 = 1220 + 2196. 97 2 : 1
= 3216. 97
2
Thus, the percentage increase in sale may be calculated Amount invested at 6% = 9000 × = 6000
using both the statement. 3
11. (4) Running in opposite direction they cross each other in 20. (3) Bag-I → 6 

120 s. When they have 12 + 12 = 24 boggies attatched Bag-II → 3  10 balls
but now they have 12 + 16 = 28 boggies attatched. Bag-III → 1 
120
They will take × 28 = 140 s 21. (4) The sum of the digits = 35
24 ∴ The number is not divisible by 3.
ie, 20 s more. The sum of the digits of odd places = 19
12. (3) 9M = 3P + 6N and sum of the digits of even places = 16
or 3M = P + 2 N Difference = 3
13. (4) Total number of names in the lottery. ∴ The number is not divisible by 11.
100 × 3 + 150 × 2 + 200 × 1 = 800
22. (2) 1st person moves only 2 steps in climbing up 5 steps.
Number of year-III names = 150 × 2 = 300
2
300
C1 300 3 ∴ He takes × 120 = 48 steps
∴ P (E ) =
800
= = 5
C1 800 8 3
While 2nd person takes × 120 = 45 steps
14. (*) Number of letters in the word EXAMINATION = 11 8
Number of vowels = 6 ie. E , A, I, A, I, O Total steps taken by both = 48 + 45 = 93 steps
23. (1) The rainbow occurs once in 20 days. Number of employees in 2006 = 26 × 200 = 5200
∴ Percentage of days that do not produce rainbow Number of employees who joined operations in 2006
19 = 5200 − 3840 = 1360
= × 100 = 95%
20 20 × 200 − 18 × 180
31. (3) Required % increase = × 100
24. (1) The product of four consecutive numbers is always an 18 × 180
even number. = 23.45%
∴ n = 1 + x is an odd number 32. (*) Total salary of administrative employees
Let the four consecutive numbers be k − 1, k, k + 1, 22
k + 2. = 12000 × 18000 ×
100
∴ n = 1 + (k − 1)k(k + 1)(k + 2)
= 12 × 18 × 22 × 104
= 1 + (k − 1)(k + 2)k(k + 1)
= 1 + (k 2 + k − 2)(k 2 + k ) = 4752 × 104 = 4.752 crore
Let k2 + k = x = 4.7 crore (approx.)

33. (3) It is quite obvious by a look that Wipro showed highest
∴ n = 1 + ( x − 2)( x ) = x 2 − 2x + 1
percentage increase on NQE.
= ( x − 1)2 = (k 2 + k − 1)2 34. (4) Obvious by a look it is TCS.
∴ n = x + 1 is definitely a perfect square. There is only increases.
25. (2) Let the number of accidents be n and the number of 35. (1) Total price paid by Satyam
overtimes logged be a. 15 × 106 15 × 106
= × 232 + × 247
∴ n = x + ay 200 200
∴ 8 = x + 1000 y …(i) 15
= 479 × × 104 = 479 × 75 × 103
and 5 = x + 400 y …(ii) 2
⇒ 8 − 1000 y = 5 − 400 y = 36 million (approx.)
3 = 600 y
36. (4) Both are insufficient.
1
y= 37. (2) For statement (A)
200
399 637
Putting the value of y in Eq. (i), > is not true.
1 40763 60133
∴ 8 = x + 1000 × As per (B)
200
∴ x=3 399 138
> which is true only Y is ture.
For y = 0 40763 15333
From the equation n = x + ay 38. (4) For statement (A)
n= x=3 181 48
> not true
26. (2) In three years 2003, 2004 and 2006 the wheat 59981 15389
production is higher than rice because the ratio of the For statement (B)
wheat production to rice production is greater than 1. 181 48
> not true
27. (4) Ratio of production of wheat to rice 684 138
45 9 39. (1) For statement (A),
0.45 = =
100 20 19236 − 15389 45292 − 40763
>
9 15389 45292
∴ The production of wheat = × 3 = 1.35 lakh ton
20 3847 4529
or > which is true.
∴ Grain to be imported = 5 − 3 − 1.35 15389 45292
= 0.65 lakh ton. For statement (B),
6 63298 − 60133 45292 − 40763
28. (3) Ratio in 2003 = >
5 63298 45292
Rice production = 4 lakh ton. 3165 4529
or >
4 63298 45292
∴ Wheat production × 6 = 4.8 lakh ton
5 which is not true.
29. (3) It is obvious from the pie chart given 40. (3) For statement (A),
= 29 × 180 − 20 × 200 45292 − 19236 63298 − 61205
> correct
= 5220 − 4000 = 1220 45292 63298
30. (3) Number of employees left in 2005 = 23 × 180 − 300 For statement (B),
= 4140 − 300  26066 2093 
 +  × 100 > 25 correct
= 3840  45292 63298
41. (1) Common people consider the questions asked by 54. (4) Platform means the material of glass on which cells
curious scholars un-important because they think their were grown, and ‘generic’ means the genra of the
answers to be too obvious to ask. This is so because the chemical instead of its brand name chosen for marketing.
common people lack deep analytical thinking vis-a-vis 55. (2) Subtle means too delicate to be felt or perceived that is,
learned scholars. it is too elusive to be perceived. Incidious is also
42. (4) Since curiosity of young children may not be satisfied meaning un-noticed but is used for harmful effects.
reasonably at home by their parents limitation of So, the difference in shades of a colour may be subtle
knowledge, the university—the vast seat of and so difficult to make distinction as it may be elusive
disseminating variety of disciplines of knowledge is to someone’s power of distinguishing.
the right place to extinguish thirst for knowledge for But, an insidious disease eludes the doctor’s diagnosis
which young ones are curious to know. as it is silently harming the patient.
43. (2) General people respects scholars, especially scientists, 56. (2) My mother, who is from the village, is very
who explore curiosity and translate it into new superstitious.
invention which turns out to be useful for general 57. (3) Both sentences are incorrect.
people. 58. (1) Intellectual property rights works contrary to the
44. (1) A scientist has been compared to a historian, and a interest of global bio-diversity.
mountain climber because each of them does 59. (3) The article says that TRIP rules apply to all countries
something out of curiosity to know about it without irrespective of levels of developments; but article 65
hoping to get benefited in the first place. asks developed country to change existing laws within
45. (3) Even if the answer found by a scholar to a question 5 years but allows underdeveloped country a time
arising out of his curiosity to know turns out to have frame of 10 years.
immense useful consequence akin to that found by 60. (1) 130 is 76.5% of 170.
scholars viz. cure for cancer, the primary objective was
61. (2) High-yield seed variety oftenly leads to plants diseases.
simply satisfying curiosity to know about unexplored
field of knowledge. 62. (1) The very first paragraph mentioned that TRIPs rules
are applicable to all countries irrespective of level of
46. (4) The literal meaning of ‘idle’ is ‘without purpose’. So the
development.
‘idle curiosity’ means eagerness to know something
without any intended purpose—that is, just in casual 63. (1) Repudiate means disown or deny something.
manner. Prevaricate means speak so to evade the truth
Disparage means speak so to defame someone.
47. (2) 1. 6 (He is willing to do as you say) Equivocate means to speak so to carry two differing
2. 7 (The ox is too obstinate to move even if it is meanings.
beaten)
64. (2) Correct spelling of (1) is paraphernalia
3. 5 (The determination to go on walk is (3) is paediatrics
undaunted by rains) (4) is berserk
4. 8 (Coming across a snake presents a real 65. (2) (1) is a sentence to ascertain whether expected
condition which warrants taking a prompt checking did take place at the airport (4) or not.
decision as what is to be done to save
66. (2) ‘at once’ is adverb which should come after the verb.
oneself)
‘concerned’ should come after authority, as concerned
48. (2) The present continuous sentence is changed to ‘is being authority means the authority who is concerned ie,
....... while present perfect sentence is changed to “has worried.
been .......” in passive form (4) is not correct because
67. (4) After is adjective in “after of he disease (6), after is
there is a difference between ‘done well’ and ‘well
adverb in (8) as it qualifies verb ‘came’.
done’. The first case means a job done correctly, while
After is conjunction in (5); and it is preposition viz to
the latter means expression of exclamation for
hanker after.
something done well.
68. (3) Neophyte means new, untrained, callow, fledgeling all
49. (3) Pray is to say prayer. Prey is the one, who is victim of a
meaning inexperienced which is opposite to veteran,
predator. Pry is to peek into something inquisitively.
expert.
50. (4) The Sangwan-Vemuganti team uses cells found in the
69. (2) ‘Lame’ comes in three sentences, viz.;
tissues of living adults instead of embryos.
Lame excuse
51. (2) Harvested corneas are implanted in patients with Lame duck
damaged cornea. Lame person
52. (1) Indians are reputed to deduce drugs to produce generic 70. (1) Fire engine — which extinguishes fire
versions. Fire stick — a stick with flame of fire
53. (3) Sangwan and Vemuganti developed technique on their Fire escape — escape route in case of a building on
own experiments in the laboratory. fire
71. (2) We all value having the freedom (so) to make choices 124. (2) According to the question, we know that all the labels
we want in our careers, (remember) that with freedom have been given on the wrong chests. So, it is clear that
comes responsibility, but of as fail to do so; therefore, if a chest is labeled with ‘GOLD’ then it does not have
many companies are rigid in treating employees despite gold coins in it. Similarly, the chest which have been
‘proclaiming that they give freedom to employees.’ labeled with ‘SILVER’ and ‘GOLD or SILVER’ will not
72. (4) Vaatsalya is based on profit with humanitarian approach. have silver and bronze coins in them. So, if we open
any of the chest labeled with gold and find silver coins
73. (2) All others are engaged in profit-making enterprise with
in it, it implies that the chest labled with ‘GOLD or
social objective. But Acumen Fund is investment SILVER’ must have gold coin and the chest labeled with
company targetting low-income people. SILVER must have the bronze coin.
74. (3) Entrepreneours with empathy for poor are fast 125. (2) After 10 : 27, if required 93 min to be 12 noon.
expanding now their social business with financial
126. (4) Since, Shankar and Jwala do not speak to each other
returns.
and refuse to work with each other. Either of them can
75. (1) Malinger means evade to do something by feigning be appointed, but not both.
illness. One may do so by lying lazy, by arguing also. 128. (3) Each time the figure moves at 90° in the clockwise
But, wander is most inappropriate as it means to go off direction.
the right course, and move around aimlessly. For (Q. 129-131) On the basis of the data given in the
76. (2) Padre Rotton case was peculiar in the fact that despite question, we get the chart of those alumni with their income as;
his claim of English people being the God’s blessed Profession MD Lawyer Engineer Doctor
people ie, the most superior race, Padre had a large
Alumni Arvind Biswajeet Dhruv Chinmay
number of mixed race relatives including James
Starting 70000 60000 40000 50000
Rotton, Anglo-Indian race, who even did not know the
Salary
language of English people and had cousin Fetix (in Rs)
Rotton who was a Muslim convert and had 22 sons
from various Indian wives …... . 129. (3)
Chinmay is a doctor.
77. (1) Almost = just short of, just about to do something; and 130. (3)
Lawyer’s (Biswajeet) starting salary is 60000.
is adverb—so placed before the verb. 131. (1)
Arvind received the highest starting salary.
78. (2) It should be “so that…” 132. (4)
In each row, a figure having the head of a straight line
79. (4) Cadence is related to musical notes. Din, cacophony, (pin) is used. Since, in the third row neither 1st nor
Racket all mean noise. 2nd figure is such. Hence, the third figure will be
exactly that (having the head of a straight pin).
80. (4) Cows ‘bellow’.
134. (1) According to Babloo, if 1st statement is true,
For (Q. 121-123) Tanmay won the race. That will mean that either
Miss Harsha occupies office number 5. Since, she finds Snehal on waman was second. And like this none of
tobacco smoke allergic, her office cannot be with that of Mr. Bunty’s statement proves right. Hence, the first
Tanjore, Mr. Minhas or Mr. Dongre (Smokers). Hence, office statement of Babloo is false. Hence, it is true to say
number 4 and 6 are to be alloted to Mr. Brar and Miss Ruby. that, waman was in second place. And also, Snehal
Now, Mr. Minhas and Mr. Brar need adjacent offices. won the race. Hence, Tanmay was in the third place.
Hence, Mr. Brar will occupy office number 4 while Mr. Minhas will 135. (3) In the second figure, a figure having one more side is
occupy office number 3. And also, Miss ruby will occupy the office used. That means, the fourth figure will be of five sides.
number 6.
Mr. Dongre requires silence. Hence, he will occupy office 136. (4) 1 13 3 15
number 1. 11 9 7 5
And finally Mr. Tanjore will occupy office number 2. Hence, 12 2 14 4
the arrangement is as
Here, the arithmetic average of numbers in each row
1 2 3 4 5 6 and column is 8.
Mr. Mr. Mr. Mr. Miss Miss 137. (4) A(+) B( − ) ← 1st generation
Dongre Tanjore Minhas Brar Harsha Ruby
Grand father Grand mother
121. (4) Mr. Dongre is the ideal candidate to occupy the C (+) D( − ) ← 2nd generation
furthest office from Mr. Brar.
Father Mother
122. (4) First three offices are occupied by those three smokers.
E( + ) F( − ) G ( −) ↔ 3rd generation
123. (4) If Mr. Tanjore needs to use the telephone quite often
throughout the day, Mr. Dongre would put forth a Now, A was grandfather, B was grandmother, A and C
request for a change in office because he requires were fathers, D and B were mothers, C, E and F were
silence in the office next to his. children, E, F and G were grandchildren, E was the
brother, F and G were sisters, C and E were sons, F and 144. (3) Total number of students who read only India Today
G were daughters, A was father-in-law, B was = 350 − 120 = 230
mother-in-law and D was daughter-in-law. 146. (2) All other figures can be obtained by moving any one of
Hence, there were only seven persons. rest four.
138. (*) Cannot be determined. 148. (4) All lawyers are extroverst
139. (2) The product of two numbers from the right side is Some wisemen are extrovert NO conclusion.
double than the product of the rest two numbers in or some extroverts are wisemen.
each case. Conclusions
12 × 8 = 96 and (6 × 8) × 2 = 96 (ja) All lawyers are wisemen → does not follow.
6 × 10 = 60 and (6 × 5) × 2 = 60 (jb) All wisemen are lawyers → does not follow.
18 × 4 = 72 and (3 × 12) × 2 = 72 (jc) Some extrovert are wisemen → By converting second
statement we can get this conclusion.
142. (2) Total number of students surveyed
(jd) All extrovert are lawyers → does not follow.
= 40 + 60 + 110 + 30 + 20 + 50 + 40 = 350.
150. (2) Possible routes are
143. (4) Total number students who did not read Business India
P-1-4-Q, P-2-5-Q, P-2-4-Q, P-3-5-Q, P-1-5-Q, P-3-4-Q,
= 60 + 110 + 40 = 210
SNAP 2006
< General English

Directions (Q. 1-10) Select the correct answer from the A. devout B. sacred
given choices to fill the blank appropriately. C. atheist D. minister
1. ________ is to Constitution as prologue is to ________ . (1) 4C (2) 4B
1. Independence 2. Law (3) 1C (4) 4A
3. Preamble 4. Amendment 7. ________ is to bird as shedding is to ________.
A. eulogy B. write 1. Calling 2. Flying
C. play D. epilogue 3. Migrating 4. Moulting
(1) 3C (2) 1D A. barn B. dog
(3) 4A (4) 4D C. hay D. farm
2. ________ is to horse as bray is to ________ . (1) 4A (2) 4B
1. Drive 2. Hoof (3) 2C (4) 2A
3. Neigh 4. Saddle 8. ________ is to England as Lira is to________.
A. relay B. pony 1. London 2. Pound
C. wagon D. donkey 3. King 4. Colony
(1) 1D (2) 1A A. Italy B. Mexico
(3) 3C (4) 3D
C. Mandolin D. Money
3. ________ is to distance as kilogram is to ________ . (1) 1A (2) 1B
1. Far 2. Metre (3) 1D (4) 2A
3. Europe 4. Travel
A. heavy B. ounce 9. ________ is to Canada as Rangoon is to ________.
C. weight D. noise 1. Detroit 2. Florida
(1) 2A (2) 2B 3. Toronto 4. Alberta
(3) 2C (4) 1A A. Indonesia B. Burma
4. ________ is to never as all is to ________ . C. East Pakistan D. Ceylon
1. Always 2. Usually (1) 2B (2) 3B
3. Seldom 4. Often (3) 3D (4) 3A
A. none B. whole 10. ________ is to all as part is to ________.
C. every D. total 1. Each 2. Righ
(1) 1A (2) 4H 3. None 4. Full
(3) 2B (4) 4A A. whole B. separate
5. ________ is to rain as dam is to ________. C. role D. many
1. Cloud 2. Fog (1) 1A (2) 4B
3. Water 4. Umbrella (3) 1D (4) 4D
A. electricity B. flood
Directions (Q. 11-15) Select two words which are most
C. high D. spillway
nearly the same in meaning, or opposite in meaning.
(1) 3B (2) 1B
(3) 4B (4) 1A 11. A. comical B. pretentious
6. ________ is to pacifist as religion is to ________. C. tragedy D. climatic
1. War 2. Atlantis (1) AC (2) BC
3. Object 4. Conscience (3) AB (4) DA
12. A. deliberate B. increasing been advocacy of more equality of income — the results
C. involuntary D. incorrigible after taxes of what a person gets for his efforts and the yield
(1) DC (2) BD of his property. Many western politicians believe this
(3) AC (4) CD concept of equality should be implemented in developing
13. A. sagacious B. extravagant countries in order to speed economic development.
C. fastidious D. meticulous Which of the following, if true, could weaken the argument
(1) CD (2) DB above ?
(3) BC (4) AC A. In a poor society, total income is so low that if it were
distributed equally, no one could save enough to
14. A. dilatory B. querulous
provide resources for investment.
C. compatible D. omnivorous
B. The marginal dollars in the hands of people with large
(1) AC (2) BD
incomes provide less utility than those with lower
(3) DC (4) CB
income.
15. A. extravagance B. prodigality C. High achievement in many societies is due to equality of
C. edification D. acrimony incomes.
(1) DC (2) AB D. Equality of opportunity is not necessarily synonymous
(3) BC (4) CA with equality of income.
Directions (Q. 16-21) Choose the best answer among the (1) D (2) B
listed alternatives. (3) A (4) C
16. One major obligation of the social psychologist is to provide 19. In 1985 there were 20 deaths from automobile accidents
his own discipline, the other social sciences and interested per 1,000 miles travelled. A total of 20,000 miles were
laymen with conceptual tools that will increase the range travelled via automobiles in 1985. In the same year, 800
and the reliability of their understanding to social people died in airplane crashes and 400 people were killed
phenomena. Beyond that, responsible government officials in train disasters. A statistician concluded that it was more
are today turning more frequently to the social scientist for dangerous to travel by plane, train and automobile, in that
order.
insights into the nature and solution of the problems with
Which of the following refutes the statistician’s conclusions
which they are confronted.
?
The above argument assumes that
A. There is no common denominator by which to compare
A. Social psychologists must have a strong background in
the number of deaths resulting from each mode of
other sciences as well as their own.
travel.
B. The social scientist has an obligation to provide the
B. One year is insufficient to reach such a conclusion.
means by which social phenomena may be understood
C. More people travel by car than any other mode of
by others.
transport, therefore, the probability of a car accident is
C. Social phenomena are little understood by those outside
greater.
the field of social psychology.
D. The probability of being killed in a train disaster and as a
D. A good social psychologist is obligated principally by the result of a car crash is the same.
need to solve inter-disciplinary problems. (1) A (2) B
(1) B (2) C (3) C (4) D
(3) A (4) D
20. Product shipments of household appliances are expected to
17. Once a company has established an extensive sales network rise to $ 17 billion next year, an average annual increase of
in a foreign market and therefore has achieved substantial 8.0 per cent over the past five years. The real growth rate,
sales, it seems that these markets should be treated in a very after allowing for probable price increases, is expected to be
similar fashion to those in one’s own country. It is therefore about 4.3 per cent each year, resulting in shipments this
in those countries where only initial sales and year of $ 14 billion in 1987 dollars.
representation have been developed where marketing Each of the following, if true, could help to account for this
methods will have to differ from domestic activities. trend except :
The above statement assumes that A. Increased consumer spending for durable products.
A. Sales network can be the same in both foreign and B. Consumer disposable income has increased.
domestic markets. C. The consumer price of electricity has decreased.
B. Extensive sales networks are preferable to less D. Individual tax advantages have decreased.
developed ones. (1) C (2) A
C. Larger markets abroad are more adaptable to domestic (3) D (4) B
marketing methods. 21. Each year’s increase or decrease in the trade deficit
D. A study of marketing should consider the adaptability of (merchandise imports greater than exports) is calculated in
advertising campaigns in different countries. relation to the previous year’s. In 1976, imports of private
(1) A (2) B vehicles were 10 percent higher than in 1975, while
(3) C (4) D imports of vehicles including commercial vans was 15 per
18. Equality of opportunity has long been prominent as a goal cent higher than in 1975. That 15 per cent increase was one
in many countries. In Europe and America there has also and half times the increase recorded in 1975.
If the formation above is accurate, which of the following (1) Isn’t it (2) Wasn’t it
must be true ? (3) Didn’t he (4) Didn’t they
A. In 1976, the increase, if any, of commercial vehicle 23. ________ fast.
imports was smaller than the increase in imports of (1) News travels (2) News travel
private vehicles. (3) A news travels (4) The news travel
B. In 1976, the increase, if any, of commercial vehicle
24. She ________ in the morning because she gets up late.
imports was greater than the increase in imports of
(1) always has to hurry
private vehicles.
(2) has always to hurry
C. In 1975, more commercial vehicles were imported than
(3) has to always hurry
private vehicles.
(4) has to hurry always
D. The average number of private vehicles imported in
1975 declined. 25. There is ________ .
(1) A (2) C (1) hair in the soup
(3) B (4) D (2) hair in soup
(3) a hair in soup
Directions (Q. 22-25) Choose the correct alternative. (4) a hair in the soup
22. Somebody told you, ________ ?
< Quantitative Aptitude

26. There are 6 balls of different colours and 3 boxes of 33. The number of ways in which the digits of the number
different sizes. Each box can hold all the 6 balls. The balls 125453752 can be arranged such that no all 5’s come
are put in the boxes so that no box remains empty. The together is
number of ways in which this can be done is (1) 9! 3! 2! (2) 7! 3! 2!
(1) 534 (2) 543 (3) 6! 2! (4) None of these
(3) 540 (4) 528 34. If 2 x − 1 + 2x + 1 = 320, then the value of x is
x y z 2
27. If a = b = c and b = ac, then y equals (1) 4 (2) 5
xz xz (3) 6 (4) 7
(1) (2)
x+z 2( x − z ) 35. After typist had written a ten letters and had addressed the
xz 2xz ten corresponding envelops, a careless mailing clerk
(3) (4)
2(z − x ) ( x + z) inserted the letters in the envelopes at random, one letter
per envelop. What is the probability that exactly nine letters
28. If the total numbers of relations from set A to set B is 1024, were inserted in the proper envelop ?
and n( A ) > 1, n(B ) > 1, then (1) 3 (2) 1
(1) n( A ) = 2, n(B ) = 5 (2) n( A ) = 5, n(B ) = 1 (3) 0 (4) 9
(3) n( A ) = 10, n(B ) = 1 (4) n( A ) = 1, n(B ) = 10
36. On a 26 questions test, five points were deducated for each
29. On a railway there are 10 stations. The number of types of wrong answer and eight points were credited for each
tickets required in order that it may be possible to book a correct answer. If all the questions were answered how
passenger from every station to every other is many were correct if the score was zero ?
10 !
(1) (2) 10 ! × 2! (1) 13 (2) 6
2! (3) 9 (4) 10
10 ! 10 !
(3) (4) 37. There are n players in an elimination type singles
8! 2! 8 ! tournament. How many matches must be played
30. The number of ways in which the letters of the word (or defaulted) to determine the winner ?
‘ARGUMENT’ can be arranged so that only consonants (1) n + 1 (2) n − 1
occur at both the ends is (3) n − 2 (4) n + 2
(1) 3! × 5! (2) 14400 38. If −1 ≤ x ≤ 2 and 1 ≤ y ≤ 3, then least possible value of
(3) 41000 (4) None of these (2y − 3x ) is
31. If U r denotes the number of one-one functions from (1) 0 (2) – 3
( X1 , X 2, . . . , X r ) to (Y1 , Y2, . . . , Yr ) such that f ( x i ) ≠ Yi for (3) – 4 (4) – 5
i = 1, 2, 3, . . . , r, then U 4 = ? 39. When n is divided by 4, the remainder is 3. What is the
(1) 9 (2) 44 remainder when 2 n is divided by 4 ?
(3) 265 (4) None of these (1) 1 (2) 2
a 4 3a + 2 b (3) 3 (4) 6
32. If = , then would be equal to
b 3 3a − 2 b 40. Ten turns of wire are helically wrapped around a cylindrical
tube with outside circumference 4" and length 9". The ends
(1) –1 (2) 3
of the wire coincide with the ends of the same cylindrical
(3) 5 (4) 6
element. Find the length of the wire.
(1) 27" (2) 36" 48. Which pair from below will not satisfy the equation
(3) 41" (4) 43" 187 x − 104 y = 41 ?
41. Multiply 5746320819 by 125 (1) x = 3, y = 5 (2) x = 107, y = 192
(1) 748,290,103,375 (2) 728,490,301,375 (3) x = 211, y = 379 (4) x = 314, y = 565
(3) 718,90,102,375 (4) 798,290,102,975 116, 690,151
49. The simplest reduction to the lowest terms of
427, 863, 887
42. A company offered its 350 employees a bonus of Rs 10 to
each male and Rs 8.15 to each female. All the females but is
11 7
certain percentage of males refused to accept. The total (1) (2)
3 11
bonus paid was not dependent upon the number of new 3
employees. What was the total amount paid to the (3) (4) None of these
11
women ?
(1) Rs 2425 (2) Rs 1222.50 50. If 1.125 × 10k = 0. 001125, then the value of k is
(3) Rs 1262.50 (4) Rs 2525 (1) – 4 (2) – 3
43. Which are two numbers whose difference and whose (3) – 2 (4) –1
quotient are each equal to 5 ? 51. 3 truck drivers went to roadside cafe. 1st purchased 4
5 25 15 30 sandwiches, 1 coffee, 10 biscuits and paid Rs 1.69 paise.
(1) and (2) and 2nd purchased 3 sandwiches, 1 coffee, 7 biscuits and paid
4 4 2 2
(3) 11 and 16 (4) 7 and 12 Rs 1.26. What did 3rd truck driver pay for a sandwich, a cup
of coffee, and one biscuit ?
44. A series of books was published at seven years’ interval.
(1) 35 paise (2) 89 paise
When the seventh book was issued, the sum of the
(3) 68 paise (4) 40 paise
publication years was 13,524. When was the first book
52. 10 people start a club. If there had been five more in the
published ?
group, the initial expenses to each would have been Rs 100
(1) 1932 (2) 1942
less. What was initial cost per person ?
(3) 1911 (4) 1917
(1) 250 (2) 300
45. In a given period of days, it was observed that when it (3) 500 (4) 400
rained in afternoon, it had been clear in the morning, and
53. A 27 quartz capacity car radiator is filled with 18% alcohol
when it rained in the morning, it was clear in the afternoon. solution. How many quartz be drained and then be
It rained on 9 days and was clear on 6 afternoons and 7 replaced by a 90% alcohol solution for resulting solution to
mornings. How long was the period ? contain 42% alcohol ?
(1) 21 (2) 17 (1) 19 quartz (2) 9 quartz
(3) 13 (4) 11 (3) 11 quartz (4) 14 quartz
46. The traffic lights at three different road crossings change 54. If 70% of adult males of a community have brown eyes,
after every 48 s, 72 s and 108 s respectively. If they all 75% have dark hair, 85% are over 5′ 8′′ tall and 90% weight
change simultaneously at 8 : 20 : 00 h, then they will again more than 140 pounds, what per cent at least have all four
change simultaneously at characteristics ?
(1) 8 : 27 : 12 h (2) 8 : 27 : 24 h (1) 60% (2) 45%
(3) 8 : 27 : 36 h (4) 8 : 27 : 48 h (3) 20% (4) 48%
1 1 55. Henry started a trip into the country between 8 am and
47. If of 20 is 6, then of 10 is
4 5 9 am when the hands of clock were together. He arrived at
(1) 3 (2) 4 his destination between 2 pm and 3 pm when the hands of
22 21 the clock were exactly 180° apart. How long did he travel ?
(3) (4)
5 2 (1) 6 h (2) 7 h
(3) 9 h (4) 11 h
< Data Interpretation and Data Sufficiency

Directions (Q. 56-59) Refer to the following table. Given 56. If a win carries an award of Rs 1500 and a loss of Rs 1000,
below are the win-loss histories of four tennis players in three what is the largest difference in prize money earned among
set matches. the four ?
Number of Matches Played (1) Rs 7000 (2) Rs 14000
(3) Rs 5000 (4) Rs 9000
P Q R S
57. As in the case above what is the lowest average prize money
Won 2-0 23 18 10 16 won per match by any player ?
Won 2-1 13 16 13 14 (1) 1135 (2) 1300
Lost 0-2 8 13 16 13 (3) 1195 (4) 1160
Lost 1-2 6 8 20 17
58. As in the case above what is the highest average prize highest in C segment. Which vehicle will be selected by
money won per match by any player ? Keshav ?
(1) 1495 (2) 1360 A. Keshav is looking for a car which is average
(3) 1460 (4) 1410 representation of C segment.
59. Who has lost the maximum per cent of matches played ? B. Keshav’s budget is around Rs 5.5 lac.
(1) P (2) Q Directions (Q. 68-73) Questions are based on the
(3) R (4) S following graph of buyers.
Directions (Q. 60-67) Follow the given instructions. Buyers by Age
Each item has a question followed by two statements 10-20 yr 20-40 yr 40 yr
80
Mark (1) if the question can be answered with the help of
Percentage of total buyers

statement A alone. 70
Mark (2) if the question can be answered with the help of 60
statement B alone. 50
Mark (3) if the question can be answered with the help of
40
both the statements but not with the help of either
statement itself. 30
Mark (4) if the question can not be answered even with 20
the help of both the statements. 10
60. The average of three quotations for a particular item is
0
Rs 120. Is the highest quotation less than or equal to 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Rs 139 ? Years
A. The lowest quotation is Rs 90.
68. By how many has the per cent number of buyers in the age
B. One of the quotations is Rs 125.
20-40 yr age group has declined from year 1995 to 1999 ?
61. How many people, read both Economic Times and
(1) 26.6 (2) 73.4
Financial Express ?
(3) 44 (4) 20
A. Out of 300 readers, 200 read Financial Express,
220 read Economic Times and 50 read Indian Express. 69. If the total number of peoples surveyed is 2000 in each of
B. Out of total 300 readers, 200 read Financial Express, the five years given, the number of peoples who buy in the
220 read Economic Times and 50 read Neither. age group 10-20 yr has changed from year 1995 to 1999 ?
62. A bus started from bus stop P, developed engine trouble (1) 800 (2) 600
and reached bus stop Q, 40 min late. What is the distance (3) 1200 (4) 1400
between bus stops P and Q ? 70. Which of the following age groups shows a declining trend
A. The engine trouble developed after travelling 40 km in the purchase in the given five years ?
from bus stop P and the speed reduced to 1/4th of the (1) 10-20 yr
original speed. (2) 20-40 yr
B. The engine trouble developed after travelling 40 km (3) 40 yr and above
from bus stop P in two hours and the speed reduced
(4) No particular trend in any group
1/4th of the original speed.
71. By how many has the per cent number of buyers in the
63. What is the value of prime number X ?
10-20 yr age group has increased from year 1997 to 1999 ?
A. X + Y is a two digit number > 50.
B. Y is a two digit number. (1) 13.6 (2) 15
(3) 16.7 (4) 10
64. What is the time difference in Nairobi and Mumbai ?
A. The departure time at Nairobi is exactly 6 pm local time 72. Which of the age group show no particular trend ?
and the arrival time at Mumbai is next day 3 am local (1) 10-20 yr
time. (2) 20-40 yr
B. The flight time is 6 h. (3) 40 yr and above
65. Sujata is the eldest daughter. What is the current age of her (4) No particular age group
father ? 73. The regain strategy should focus on which age group ?
A. Current age of Sujata is 25 yr and current age of her (1) 10-20 yr
sister Sangeeta is 20 yr. (2) 20-40 yr
B. Sangeeta’s current age is one-third of father’s age five (3) 40 yr and above
years before. (4) No particular age group
66. Alka has 2 sisters and 1 brother. How many sisters Sandhya
Directions (Q. 74-81) Questions are based on the data
have ? given in the following table.
A. Alka and Sandhya are sisters.
B. Sandhya has one brother. There are Eight major locations in a zoo at Mysore. A survey
67. Madhav likes car X because its cost is Rs 5 lac cheapest in C was conducted to find out the movement of the people within the
segment and Makarand likes car Y because it costs Rs 7 lac zoo. Following results were obtained.
To 82. If in Year 3 out of money spent by the advertisers and
A B C D E F G H viewers 12% had been spent on contingent expenses, what
From A 48 46 66 24 4 68 64 was the amount spent on contingent expenses
B 20 64 152 64 90 108 86
(Rs in crore) ?
(1) 2.4 (2) 2.1
C 28 108 88 86 46 130 130
(3) 2.5 (4) 2.6
D 54 92 66 42 82 20 4
83. The expenses of which year added to one-fourth the
E 70 48 50 110 26 46 22 expenses of another year equal the expenses of each of two
F 24 74 92 68 112 120 60 other years ?
G 28 32 134 152 6 86 26 (1) 4 (2) 3
H 50 70 90 108 68 110 86 (3) 2 (4) 1
84. In how many years from Year 2 has the expenditure risen by
74. The least number of peoples go to which location ?
the around 15% ?
(1) G (2) D
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) B (4) A
(3) 2 (4) Insufficient data
75. What is the total number of peoples visiting the zoo ?
(1) 3868 (2) 5000 85. The difference in the expenditure between which two years
(3) 4000 (4) Cannot be determined equals the difference between the expenditure in Year 2 to
Year 1 ?
76. What percentage of total visiting E comes from D ?
(1) 10 (2) 20 (1) Year 5 and Year 3 (2) Year 4 and Year 3
(3) 40 (4) 30 (3) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’ (4) Neither ‘1’ nor ‘2’
77. What is the difference between the number of peoples 86. If in Year 6 the expenses increase at the same rate as they
going from B to F and G; and D to F and G ? did from Year 3 to Year 5. What will be the expenditure in
(1) 48 (2) 96 Year 6 (Rs in crore) ?
(3) 72 (4) 84 (1) 28.2 (2) 24.2
78. The least number of peoples leave from which place ? (3) 25.2 (4) 23.2
(1) H (2) G 87. If in Year 4 out of the money spent by the advertisers and
(3) A (4) E viewers, 10% spent on disaster recovery expenses, what
79. The number of peoples leaving F for C is ________ the was the amount spent on disaster recovery expenses ?
number of peoples leaving C for F. (1) 2.2 (2) 2.6
(1) greater than (3) 2.3 (4) 2.4
(2) less than
Directions (Q. 88-95) Questions are based on the
(3) equal to following table.
(4) Cannot say with certainty
80. The number of peoples going to A from B and C is equal to The XYZ manufacturing company produces a product
the number of peoples going to from ________ and which has a six month demand cycle as below.
________. Months Demand in Units Working Days/Month
(1) E, A and C (2) E, D and C
January 300 22
(3) F, A and C (4) H, E and G
February 500 19
81. The highest number of peoples leave from which place ?
(1) C (2) D March 400 21
(3) H (4) F April 100 21
May 200 22
Directions (Q. 82-87) Questions are based on the
following graph. June 300 20
Spending by Advertisers and Viewers If company’s policy is to retain safety stock of 20% of
25 monthly demand and each month’s safety stock becomes the
22 22 opening stock for the next month and opening stock for January is
19 20
Percentage expenses
20 50 unit. Each unit requires 10 labour hours and company works 8

17 h/day.
15 88. What is the opening stock for June month ?
(1) 20 (2) 40
10 (3) 60 (4) 100
89. What is production requirement for March ?
5 (1) 220 (2) 310
(3) 380 (4) 320
0 90. In which month production requirement is highest ?
1 2 3 4 5
Years (1) February (2) March
Total for all five years = Rs 100 crore (3) January (4) June
91. In which month opening stock is lowest ? many workers need to be hired in February month ?
(1) February (2) March (1) 18 (2) 16
(3) January (4) May (3) 14 (4) 22
92. If there are currently 20 workers are employed and how 94. If constant workforce of 20 is retained, how many hours
many workers need to be laid off in January to workers sit idle in January month ?
accommodate demand ? (1) 300 h (2) 420 h
(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 240 h (4) 200 h
(3) 3 (4) 5 95. If constant workforce of 20 is retained, how many hours
93. If there are currently 20 workers are employed, and workers do overtime in February month ?
number of workers need to be laid off in January (1) 2000 h (2) 3000 h
(in previous question) to accommodate demand. How (3) 2360 h (4) 3360 h
< Business Awareness

96. The first animal tamed by man of middle stone age was 106. The polymer of isoprene is called
(1) dog (2) bullock (1) natural rubber (2) polyethylene
(3) horse (4) camel (3) neoprene (4) monoprene
97. The planning commission started functioning on 107. The lightest metal is
(1) 1948 (2) 1949 (1) K (2) Li
(3) 1950 (4) 1951 (3) Ca (4) Mg
98. The age of earth is believed to be 108. Cinnabar is ore of
(1) 10 million yr (2) 100 million yr (1) Ng (2) Cu
(3) 1000 million yr (4) 4000 million yr (3) Pb (4) Zn
99. Indian Consitution was prepared in 109. A current of 4 amp from 250 V source flows through an
(1) 2 yr 11 months electric iron for 2 h. The energy consumed will be
(2) 2 yr 18 days (1) 1 kWh (2) 4 kWh
(3) 2 yr 18 months (3) 1.5 kWh (4) 2 kWh
(4) 2 yr 11 months 18 days 110. A coin is dropped at refractive index of 4/3. The real depth
100. In the event of breakdown of Constitution machinery of any of coin is 28 cm. The coin would be apparently appear to be
state, under which one of the following articles can at the depth of
President Rule by imposed (1) 80 cms (2) 25 cms
(1) 352 (2) 356 (3) 20 cms (4) 21 cms
(3) 360 (4) 370 111. An aircraft takes off at the speed of 100 km/h at an angle of
101. FERA has been replaced by 30° runway. What is the velocity of the aircraft along the
(1) Competitive Bill (2) Finance Bill runway ?
(3) FEMA (4) No replacement (1) 86.6 km/hr (2) 76 km/hr
102. The measurement of poverty line is based on criteria of (3) 70 km/hr (4) 50 km/hr
(1) dwelling houses 112. The gas primarily responsible for the yellowing of the Taj is
(2) caloric consumption (1) Nitric Oxide (2) Carbon Dioxide
(3) the nature of employment (3) Ozone (4) Sulphur dioxide
(4) the level of eduction 113. What annual payment will discharge a debt of Rs 5040 due
103. Largest flower in the world is in 2 yr at 10% per annum compounded annually ?
(1) Cuscula (2) Nelumbo (1) 2000 (2) 2850
(3) Rafflesia (4) Deosera (3) 2575 (4) 2904
104. In case of myopia the correct statement is/are 2
114. The base radius of a cylinder is 1 times its height. The cost
(a) behind the retina 3
(b) infront of the retina of painting is CSA at 20 paise/cm 2 is Rs 92.40. The volume
(c) can be collected by concave lens of cylinder is
(d) can be collected by convex lens (1) 80850 cm 3 (2) 80580 cm 3
(1) a and d (2) b and d (3) 80508 cm 3
(4) None of these
(3) b and c (4) a, b and d
115. When a metallic wire is connected to a battery
105. The four most common elements in living organisms in (1) current is taken to be flowing from negative terminal to
order are positive terminal
(1) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen (2) electrons flow from negative terminal to positive terminal
(2) hydrogen, oxygen, carbon, nitrogen (3) electrons flow from positive terminal to negative terminal
(3) hydrogen, carbon, oxygen, nitrogen (4) current is taken to be flowing from negative to negative
(4) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen and positive to positive terminal
116. In man, the absence of a Y chromosome in a fertilised egg (2) American Pacific Fleet, 1942
causes it to develop into (3) Winston Churchill
(1) Male (4) Stalin
(2) Female 119. Who wrote the book ‘‘Selling the Dream’’ ?
(3) Inter sex (1) Steve Jobs (2) Guy Kawasaki
(4) Dead chromosome (3) Shiv Khera (4) Philip Goldberg
117. Synecology is the study of 120. The Bombay dabawala have achieved international
(1) Individuals reputation because of
(2) Relation between plant and animal community (1) timely daba delivery
(3) Study of environment (2) organised team work
(4) None of the above (3) six sigma based operation
118. “No part of the enemy’s body may be used as a souvenir”, (4) excellence service for last 50 yr and beyond
was said by
(1) General Kamikaze
< Logical Reasoning

121. In a beauty contest the order of contestants was to be 128. Fill in the circle
reported. 25 4 9
I. The editor was asked, “Is the order A-B-C-D-E” The
Editor said, “None are in their true position ” and not a 16 361 1 64 289 16 1 ? 81
single one follow her immediate predecessor.’’
II. The editor was then asked, “Is it D-A-E-C-B ?” The 81 9 25
editor replied, “You have two in position and you have (1) 269 (2) 260
two following correctly their immediate predecessors.” (3) 324 (4) 429
III. The editor was asked for the third time, “Is this the 129. Fill the missing numbers
order ?” The editor said, “You are right.”
Which is this order ? 52 43 34 25
(1) B-E-C-D-A (2) E-D-A-C-B 42 33 ? 15
(3) C-A-E-D-B (4) A-D-B-E-C 45 ? 27 18
? 45 36 27
122. On the blackboard, the Mathematics professor wrote a
polynomial f ( x ) with integer coefficients and said, “Today (1) 64, 25, 61 (2) 18, 26, 37
is my son’s birthday. When his age A is substituted for x, (3) 24, 36, 54 (4) 21, 46, 24
then f ( A ) = A. You will note also that f (O ) = P and that P is 130. Fill the missing number
prime number greater than A.” How old is professor’s son ? 4C 2B 3A
(1) 4 (2) 1 28A ? 45B
(3) 3 (4) 2
7C 5A 15B
123. Select the sequence to be inserted into boxes,
(1) 10A (2) 10C
CABAY ECDY XGE WU (3) 13C (4) 7C
(1) ZWVF (2) ZVWF 131. If number 4 is placed on the bottom which number will be
(3) ZVFW (4) ZWFV on top ?
124. Fill in the gaps : SL_Bs_bc_L_dSL_e
(1) AIScD (2) LAScD
(3) ALScd (4) AlSCd
125. Fill in the blanks : 1, 4, 27, 16, ...., 36, 343
(1) 87 (2) 120
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 25 (4) 125
(3) 5 (4) 6
126. Which is the odd one ?
132. If you start your journey on 22nd June 2003, what will be
(1) ADBEC (2) FIGJH the day of the week after 7 days of your departure ?
(3) KNLOM (4) PRTSQ (1) Saturday
127. Which is the odd one ? (2) Monday
(1) ZZXAY (2) BBLAM (3) Friday
(3) KKUAV (4) LLSMM (4) Sunday
133. Fill in the Gap 141. Problem figures
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) C (2) A
(1) B (2) C
(3) D (4) B
(3) A (4) D
142. Problem figures
Directions (Q. 134-138) Solve the questions if the symbols
are as given below.
*=+ +=/ –=*
/=– →= square ← = cube
134. 65* 89754 − 9856 + 785 / 8647
(1) 1118316.629 (2) 1129316.629 Answer figures
(3) 1119376.629 (4) 1128376.629
135. 89765 / 897 − 6789 + 89 →
(1) 455839620.7 (2) 45483532.6
(3) 455439719.7 (4) 455440719.7
136. 1234 / 90 * 8978 − 234 ← (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) 92887128772529 (2) 92874321872529
(3) 98284321772529 (4) 92874581932529 (1) C (2) A
(3) B (4) D
137. 980 − 320 + 56 / 220 →
(1) 28944400 (2) 28934500 143. Problem figures
(3) 28876700 (4) 27868458
138. 8765* 789654 − 456 * 4356 + 660 / 34532
(1) 340056463.6 (2) 360056552.6
(3) 360056463.6 (4) 360090996
Directions (Q. 139-140) Rectangle, square, circle and Answer figures
triangle represents the regions of wheat, gram, maize and rice
cultivation. Based on the below diagram answer the questions.
3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 8 2
5 (1) A (2) B
7 9 1 (3) C (4) D
6 10
144. Problem figures
11
139. Which is area for wheat and maize ?

(1) 8 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 4 Answer figures
140. Which is the area for maize only ?
(1) 10 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
Directions (Q. 141-146) The following questions have two
section problem figures and answer figures. Problem figures (A) (B) (C) (D)
have four designs in series. Answer figures have the fifth one
(1) C (2) B
which should it be ?
(3) A (4) D
145. Problem figures 151. If South-East becomes North. North-East becomes West and
so on, what will West become ?
(1) North-East (2) North-West
(3) South-East (4) South
152. A and B are standing at the same point. They decide to
Answer figures move exactly in the opposite directions in each other. A
goes 5 km East, then goes 7 km North, then goes 5 km West,
and finally goes 7 km North. What is the shortest distance
between A and B ?
(1) 48 km (2) 38 km
(3) 28 km (4) 118 km
(A) (B) (C) (D)
153. X, Y and Z together can do a piece of work in 8 days. While
(1) A (2) B X and Z together can do it in 12 days. Y alone will do the
(3) C (4) D
same work in how many days ?
146. Problem figures (1) 16 days (2) 20 days
(3) 24 days (4) 28 days
154. If using each letter, meaningful word beginning with B can
be formed from ‘HACEB’, then the fourth letter of that word
is your answer. If no such word can be formed then your
Answer figures answer is ‘5’ ie, none of these
(1) A (2) C
(3) E (4) H
155. How many meaningful English words can be formed by
using any two letters of the word ‘NOT’ ?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) More than three
(1) C (2) D
(3) A (4) B Direction (Q. 156) The conversation given below are
followed by one question each, to which there are four
147. Statement Some wise men lies. Whoever lies should be
imitated. possible answers. Choose the best answer.
Conditions 156. Host So here you are at last.
X. Some wise men deserves to be imitated. Guest Hope, I am not too late.
Y. Some fools should not be imitated. What does the guest want to convey ?
(1) X is valid (1) He wanted to reach late
(2) Y is valid (2) He knows it doesn’t matter even if he is late
(3) X and Y are valid (3) He hopes he is on time
(4) X and Y are invalid (4) He knows the host doesn’t like his coming late
148. A is a son of C. C is sister of Z, Z is the mother of Q. P is the 157. Choose the part of the words having similar relationship to
son of Z. Which one of the following is correct ? each other as the two words Tadpole : Frog.
(1) P and A are cousins (1) Frog : Fish
(2) P is the maternal uncle of A (2) Cat : Feline
(3) Q is the grandfather of A (3) Caterpillar : Butterfly
(4) C and P are sisters
(4) Flower : Tulip
149. If ‘MACHINE’ is coded as 19-7-9-14-15-20-11, how will you
158. What is the synonym of ‘Wary’ ?
code ‘DANCER’ ?
(1) Apprehensive (2) Attentive
(1) 13-7-20-10-11-25
(3) Alert (4) Cautious
(2) 11-7-20-16-11-24
(3) 10-7-20-13-11-24 159. A tank in which fish or water plants are kept is known as
(4) 13-7-20-9-11-25 (1) aviary (2) aquarium
(3) nursery (4) apiary
150. In a certain code ‘FAVOUR’ is written as ‘EBUPTS’. How is
‘DAGGER’ written in that code ? 160. This is defect which a boy had even at the time of his birth
(1) EBHHFS (2) CBFHDS (1) genetic (2) genial
(3) CBFFDS (4) EBFHDS (3) congenital (4) biological
Answers
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (4) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (3)
21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (4) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (1) 29. (4) 30. (2)
31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (3) 36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (2)
41. (3) 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (3) 50. (2)
51. (4) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (1) 57. (4) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (3)
61. (2) 62. (2) 63. (4) 64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (1) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (1) 70. (4)
71. (3) 72. (4) 73. (1) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (1) 77. (2) 78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (4)
81. (1) 82. (1) 83. (4) 84. (3) 85. (3) 86. (2) 87. (1) 88. (2) 89. (3) 90. (1)
91. (4) 92. (2) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (3) 96. (1) 97. (4) 98. (4) 99. (4) 100. (2)
101. (3) 102. (2) 103. (3) 104. (3) 105. (1) 106. (1) 107. (2) 108. (3) 109. (4) 110. (4)
111. (4) 112. (4) 113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (3) 116. (2) 117. (1) 118. (3) 119. (2) 120. (2)
121. (2) 122. (4) 123. (4) 124. (4) 125. (4) 126. (4) 127. (4) 128. (3) 129. (3) 130. (2)
131. (2) 132. (4) 133. (4) 134. (1) 135. (3) 136. (4) 137. (1) 138. (3) 139. (4) 140. (3)
141. (1) 142. (4) 143. (1) 144. (3) 145. (4) 146. (4) 147. (1) 148. (1) 149. (3) 150. (2)
151. (3) 152. (3) 153. (3) 154. (2) 155. (3) 156. (3) 157. (3) 158. (4) 159. (2) 160. (3)

1. (1) Preamble is introductory part of Constitution and 13. (1) Words ‘Fastidious’ and ‘Meticulous’ both are synonyms
prologue is that of play. of each other, and mean ‘caring for minor details’ in
2. (4) The sound produced by an animal is to be considered. doing work.
As a horse neighes, a donkey brays. 14. (4) Words ‘Querulous’ and ‘Compatible’ both are antonyms
3. (3) Here, the unit of measurement is to be considered. As of each other. Querulous means complaining and
distance is measured in metre, weight is measured in compatible means harmonious.
kilogram. 15. (2) Words ‘Extravagance’ and ‘Prodigality’ both are
4. (1) Here, the relation of antonyms (opposite words) takes synonyms of each other and mean spending wastefully.
place. The word ‘Always’ is the antonym of the word 16. (1) The first line of the given information makes us assume
‘never’, whereas the word ‘all’ is the antonym of ‘none’. that ‘the social scientist has an obligation to provide the
means by which social phenomena may be understood
5. (3) An Umbrella protects us from rain, whereas a dam
by others’.
protects us from flood.
17. (3) The second half of the first sentence of the given
6. (3) Here, the quality (adjective) and person (noun)
information makes us assume that ‘larger markets
relationship is to be considered. A pacifist does not
abroad are more adaptable to domestic marketing
believe in war whereas an atheist does not believe in methods’.
religion or God.
21. (3) The increase in percentage indicates the increase in
7. (2) When a bird sheds its feathers, it is called moulting. number also.
Moulting is also a natural process in birds. Similarly,
22. (1) Here, we’ll fill the ‘question-tag’ of the given sentence.
when a dog or any animal sheds it skin, it means that
Somebody told you, is not it ?
they lose the skin naturally.
23. (1) Word ‘News’ is used as singular and hence, it will take a
8. (4) Currency of England is known as Pound whereas Lira singular verb also which is travels.
is the currency of Italy.
24. (1) This follows the pattern of using the adverbs.
9. (2) Capital of Canada is Toronto whereas Rangoon is the
26. (3) There are three ways in which 6 balls can be arranged
capital of Burma.
in three different boxes.
10. (1) As each is the one of ‘all’, part is one of the whole. ie, (1, 2, 3), (1, 1, 4) and (2, 2, 2).
11. (1) Here, words comic and tragedy are the antonyms of But these arrangements can interchange among
each other. themselves.
12. (3) Deliberate and voluntary are synonyms of each other Hence, number of ways of arrangement.
3! 6
and mean “Wilfully” something. Involuntary means = 3!(6 C1 × 5C 2 × 3C 3 ) + ( C1 × 5C1 × 4C 4 )
‘against the will’. Hence, Deliberate and involuntary 2
are the antonyms of each other. + 6C 2 × 4C 2 × 2C 2
= 6(6 × 10 × 1) + 3(6 × 5 × 1) + 15 × 6 × 1 34. (4) 2 x − 1 + 2 x + 1 = 320
= 360 + 90 + 90 = 540 Let 2x = y
27. (4) Let ax = b y = cz = k y
1/ x 1/ y 1/ z
⇒ + 2y = 320
∴a=k ,b=k ,c=k 2
According to question, or y + 4 y = 640
2
b = ac or 5y = 640
∴ y = 128
⇒ k 2/ y = k1 / x ⋅ k1 / z
⇒ 2 x = 128 = 27
2 1 1
⇒ = + ∴ x =7
y x z
2 xz 35. (3) It is never possible to kept one letter in wrong envelop
⇒ y= when already 9 letters are kept in right envelop.
x+z
36. (4) Let number of correct attempt = x
28. (1) If n( A ) = m and n(B ) = n, then we know from formula,
Then number of wrong attempt = 26 − x
total no. of relations from set A to set B is given by 2 mn.
According to question,
In the question, 2mn = 210
8 x + (−5)(26 − x ) = 0
⇒ mn = 10 ⇒ 8 x − 130 + 5x = 0
Clearly, only option (1) satisfy the condition. ⇒ 13x = 130
29. (4) We require a single ticket for a group of any two ∴ x = 10
stations. Here, number of stations is 10.
37. (2) Since, in an elimination type of tournament total
∴ Number of total groups of any two stations = 10C 2 number of matches should be one less than the total
10 ! number of players to determine the winner.
∴ Required number of tickets = 10C 2 =
2! 8 ! Hence for n player, n − 1 matches were played.
30. (2) The given word is ARGUMENT 38. (3) Given, −1 ≤ x ≤ 2 and 1 ≤ y ≤ 3
Number of consonants in ‘ARGUMENT’ = 5 −3 ≤ 3x ≤ 6 and 2 ≤ 2y ≤ 6
Hence, required number of ways ⇒ −6 ≤ − 3 x ≤ 3
∴ Least value of 2y − 3x = 2 − 6 = − 4
= 5C 2 × 2 × 6 ! = 14400
39. (2) When n is divided by 4, the remainder is 3. Then n will
Since, at two end two letters can be chosen from five
be 7. [Assume quotient is 1]
consonants and then it can also be interchanged hence
5 ∴ Value of 2 n = 14
C 2 × 2. Moreover remaining 6 letters can be arranged
∴ Required remainder = 2
in 6! ways.
40. (2) In wrapping 10 turns, total number of complete round
31. (4) If set A has m elements and set B has n elements then
circumference = 9
number of one-one functions from set A to set B is nm .
Circumference of cylinder = 4′′
Hence, in this case number of one-one functions = rr
Hence, total length of wire = 4′′ × 9 = 36′′.
∴ U 4 = 44 = 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 = 256 41. (3) [100 + 10 + 10 + 5] 5746320819
32. (2)
a 4
= ⇒ 3a = 4b. = 57463281900 + 57463208190
b 3 + 57463208190 + 28731604095
3a + 2 b 4b + 2 b 6b
⇒ = = =3 = 71890102375
3a − 2 b 4b − 2 b 2 b
42. (2) Amount paid to each woman = Rs 8.15
33. (4) Given, 125453752 So, by hit and trial method we can reject the options 1,
9! 3 and 4 as they are not divisible by 8.15.
Total number of arrangements =
3! 2! Hence, (2) will be the answer.
Since, 2 comes twice and 5 comes thrice. 43. (1) Let one number be x.
∴ Total number of arrangements in which 5 comes Then other number must be ( x + 5).
7! According to question,
together =
2! x+5
=5
Hence, required number of arrangements in which x
9 ! 7 ! 9 ! − 6 ⋅7 !
number 5 comes together = − = ⇒ x + 5 = 5x ⇒ 4x = 5
12 2 12
5 Subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get
∴ x=
4 x + 3z = 43 …(iii)
5 25
x + 5= + 5= From Eqs. (ii) and (iii)
4 4
x + y + z + 2x + 6z = 126
44. (3) Let first publication year be x, then
or ( x + y + z ) + 2( x + 3z ) = 126
x + ( x + 7 ) + ( x + 14) + ( x + 21) + . . . ( x + 42)
( x + y + z ) + 2 × 43 = 126
= 13524
∴ x + y + z = 126 − 86 = 40
6 
⇒ 7x + ( 7 + 42) = 13524 Hence, cost of one sandwitch, 1 coffee and 1 biscuit
 2 
= 40 paise.
⇒ 7 x = 13524 − (3 × 49) = 13524 − 147 52. (2) Let initial cost per person be Rs x.
⇒ 7 x = 13377 Hence, total expenses = Rs 10x
∴ x = 1911 Then new cost per person be Rs ( x − 100).
45. (4) Given Now, total expenses = 15( x − 100)
Rainy afternoon → Clear morning So, 10 x = 15( x − 100) = 15x − 1500
Rainy morning → Clear afternoon ⇒ 5x = 1500
Clear morning + Rainy afternoon = 7 …(i) ∴ x = 300
Rainy morning + Clear afternoon = 6 …(ii) 53. (2) 90 18
ie, No rain + Rainy afternoon = 7 ↓ 42 ↓ [Alligation formula]
24 48
and Rainy morning + No rain = 6 1 : 2
Hence, Rain afternoon − Rain morning
Amount of 18% = 2/3
=7 − 6 =1 …(iii)
Amount of 90% = 1/3
Rain afternoon + Rain morning = 9
∴ Number of quartz which should be replaced
From Eqs. (ii) and (iii) 1
Rain afternoon = 5 = × 27 = 9
3
and Rain morning = 4 54. (3) Percentage of people who do not have any of four
∴ No rain = 2 quality
Total number of days = 5 + 4 + 2 = 11 days = (100 − 70)% + (100 − 75)% + (100 − 85)%
46. (1) LCM of 48, 72, 108 = 432 s + (100 − 90)%
= 7 min 12 s = 30% + 25% + 15% + 10% = 80%
Hence, light will change again after 7 min 12 s ie, at Hence, percentage of people who have all the four
8 : 27 : 12. quality = (100 − 80)% = 20%
1  1 
47. (1) of 20 = 6 = 5 + 1 × 20 = 5 55. (1) We can easily calculate the time for both cases ie, when
 4 
Q
4
Henry started his trip and also when he arrived at his
1 1
∴ of 10 = × 10 + 1 = 2 + 1 = 3 destination by using the following formula
5 5 Between x and ( x + 1) O’ clock
48. (4) 187 x − 104 y = 41 60
Putting the value of x and y from given options we find Required time = (5x ± t ) × min past x
55
that x = 314 and y = 565does not satisfy the equation.
where t is the distance between hour hand and minute
So, we have to apply hit and trial method here to solve
hand in terms of minute spaces.
the problem.
116690151 3 We generally use the negative sign when minute hand
49. (3) = is behind the hour hand and use the positive sign when
427863887 11
hour hand is behind the minute hand.
Here, common factor is 3896717.
In case of coincidence, t = 0
50. (2) Given
∴ Required time when Henry started his trip
1.125 × 10k = 0.001125 = 1.125 × 10−3 60
= (5 × 8 ± 0) × min past 8
∴ k=−3 55
51. (4) If x represents sandwich, y represents coffee and z 12
= 40 × min past 8
represents biscuits. 11
Then, 4 x + y + 10z = 169 …(i) = 43
7
min past 8
3x + y + 7 z = 126 …(ii) 11
Required time when Henry arrived at his destination 60. (3) Q Average money = Rs 120
60 ∴ The sum of all three quotations = Rs 360
= (5 × 2 + 30) × min past 2
55 Lowest among three is 90.
[Here, t = 30] [According to statement I]
12 ∴ Sum of remaining two = Rs (360 − 90) = Rs 270
= 40 × min past 2
11 If one of them is Rs 125.
7
= 43 min past 2 [According to statement II]
11
Highest quotations = Rs 145
∴ Required difference between these two times
So, both statements are necessary to give the answer.
=6h
61. (2) By applying the formula
For (Q. 56-59)
n( A ∩ B ) = n( A ) + n(B ) − n( A ∪ B )
For P
we get required number is 170.
Number of win = 23 + 13 = 36
Hence, only statement B is sufficient to give answer.
Amount of award = 36 × 1500 = Rs 54000
40 km 40 min late
Number of loss = 8 + 6 = 14 62. (2)
P 3v Q
Amount lost = Rs (14 × 1000) = Rs 14000 v
4
Total amount = Rs 68000 3
Ratio of speed = v : v= 4: 3
68000 4
Average amount = = 1360
50 ∴ Ratio of time = 3 : 4
For Q Delay in terms of ratio = 1
Number of win = 18 + 16 = 34 ∴ Actual time [If bus travels smoothly]
Amount of win = Rs (34 × 1500) = Rs 51000
= 3 × 40 min
Number of loss = 13 + 8 = 21
= 120 min = 2 h
Amount lost = Rs (21 × 1000) = Rs 21000
From statement B, distance coverd in 2 h = 40 km
Total amount = Rs 72000
∴ Total distance = 40 + 40 = 80 km
72000
Average amount = Rs = Rs 1310 63. (4) Both statements are unable to give answer.
55
64. (3) Total time taken by flight = 6 h
For R
Since, flight reach at 3 am local time of Mumbai.
Number of win = 10 + 13 = 23
It means flight take off at 9 pm of local time of Mumbai.
Amount of award = 23 × 1500 = Rs 34500 Hence, time difference = 6 h
Number of loss = 16 + 20 = 36 So, here both statements are simultaneously needed.
Amount lost = 36 × 1000 = Rs 36000 65. (3) Sangeeta’s current age = 20 yr
Total amount = Rs 70500 ∴ Here, father’s age five year before = 60 yr
70500
Average amount = Rs ≈ 1160 ∴ Current age of her father = 60 + 5 = 65 yr
59
66. (1) By interpretening only one statement ie, A. We are able
For S to say that Sandhya has 2 sisters.
Number of win = 16 + 14 = 30
67. (4) We cannot say anything even by using both statements.
Amount of award = Rs (30 × 1500) = Rs 45000
68. (2) In 1995 percentage of buyers in the age group 20-40 yr
Number of loss = 13 + 17 = 30 = 60
Amount lost = Rs (30 × 1000) = Rs 30000 In 1999 percentage of buyers in the age group 20-40 yr
Total amount = Rs 75000 = 16
75000 (60 − 16) × 100
Average amount = Rs = Rs 1250 Percentage of decline = = 73. 33%
60 60
Hence, by observing the calculated data carefully. 69. (1) Total number of peoples = 2000
56. (1) Highest difference in amount = Rs 75000 – 68000 Percentage increase during 1995-99
= Rs 7000 = (70 − 30)% = 40%
57. (4) Lowest average prize money = Rs 1160 [For R] 2000 × 40
Hence, number of peoples increased =
58. (2) Highest average prize = Rs 1360 [For Q] 100
59. (3) Out of 59 matches R lost 36. Hence, R lost maximum = 800
percentage of match. 70. (4) No particular trend is observed in any group.
71. (3) In 1997, percentage of byers in 10-20 yr group = 60 Similarly, after checking all options we find the
In 1999, percentage of byers in 10-20 yr group = 70 number of peoples going to H from E and G is also
(70 − 60) × 100 equal to 48.
Percentage of increase = 81. (1)
60 The highest number of peoples leave from C ie, 616
100 which is comparatively highest.
= = 16.7%
6 82. (1) Percentate of contigent expense = 12
72. (4) By visual interpretation, we can say that there is no Percentage of total expense = 20
particular trend is noticed. 20 × 12
∴ Amount of contigent expense =
73. (1) 10-20 yr age group increases for Ist three years but fall 100
24
in 4th year but it regain in 1999 ie, in 5th year. = = 2.4 crore
10
74. (4) By visual interpretation it is clear that least people visit
1
A ie, 274 which is least in comparision to other. 83. (4) Expense of 1st year + th of expense of 3rd year
4
75. (4) The given data only clears the number of people
visiting different locations. So, here given people may = expense of 4th year
visit one or more locations. Hence, we cannot find the = expense of 5th year
total number of visitors. 84. (3) Expenditure in 4th year = 22
76. (1) Total number of peoples visiting E from D = 42 Expenditure in 2nd year = 19
Total number of peoples visiting at E from Increasement = (22 − 19) = 3
different locations = 402 3 × 100
∴ Per cent increase = ≈ 15%
Percentage of people visiting E from D 19
42 × 100 85. (3) From the graph it is clear that the difference between
= ≈ 10%
402 the expenditure in Year 2 to Year 1 is equal to 2.
Again, it is also clear, the difference between the
77. (2) Number of people going from B to F and G
expenditure in Year 5 and Year 3 and as well as in Year
= 90 + 108 = 198 4 and Year 3 is also 2.
Number of people going from D to F and G Hence, both options (1) and (2).
= 82 + 20 = 102 2 × 100
86. (2) Rate of increasement of expenditure = = 10
Hence, required difference = 198 − 102 = 96 20
110 242
78. (3) The least number of peoples leave from A which is So, expenditure in Year 6 = 22 × =
equal to 320 which is compartively low. 100 10
79. (1) The number of peoples leaving F for C is 92 which is = 24.2 crore
greater than the number of peoples leaving C for F. 87. (1) Percentage of expense on disaster recovery = 10
10 × 22
80. (4) The number of peoples going to A from B and ∴ Amount = = 2.2 crore
C = 20 + 28 = 48 100
For (Q. 88-95)
Safety Stock Production = Demand + Safety stock

Months Opening Stock Demand in Units Working Days
20% – Opening stock
January 50 300 60 300 + (60 − 50 ) = 310 22
February 60 500 100 500 + (100 − 60 ) = 540 19
March 100 400 80 400 + ( 80 − 100 ) = 380 21
April 80 100 20 100 + (20 − 80 ) = 40 21
May 20 200 40 200 + ( 40 − 20 ) = 220 22
June 40 300 60 300 + (60 − 90 ) = 320 20
88. (2) Safety stock of month May becomes the opening stock It means 18 workers required.
of month June which is 40. Hence, number of workers laid off = 20 − 18 = 2
92. (2) Q We have, 22 working days in January. 93. (1) In February demand units = 540
∴ Total number of working hours for a single labour
Number of labour hours = 540 × 10 = 5400
= 22 × 8 = 176 h.
Number of working days in February = 19
Total man hours required in January to accommodate
Total number of labour hours for a single worker in
demand = 310 × 10 = 3100 men labours
3100 February = 19 × 8 = 152
Hence, number of workers = = 17. 6 5400
176 Number of worker = ≈ 36
152
Q 17 < 17. 6 < 18
Hence, number of worker required to be hired 462 × 7
∴ h2 =
= 36 − 18 = 18 3 × 22
94. (2) In January month required labour hours = 3100 ⇒ h =7
Provided labour hours by 20 workers ∴ Readius = 10. 5
= 22 × 20 × 8
∴ Required volume = πr2h
= 3520 labour hours
22
Hence, sitting hours = (3520 − 3100) = 420 h = × 10.5 × 10.5 × 7
7
95. (3) In February month required labour hours
= 2425.5 cm3
= 5400 h
Labour hours provided by 20 workers = 20 × 8 × 19 121. (2) Here in the statement (2), it is told that the order
= 3040 h “D-A-E-C-B” contains two contestants in their correct
Overtime hours = (5400 − 3040) h = 2360 h positions. Hence, in the correct order also two of these
five must be in the same positions.
 Real depth 
110. (4) Refractive index = Now, among the given options, we can see that only
 Apparent depth 
option (2) has such an order where two are in the same
v positions as they are in the order “D-A-E-C-B”. Hence,
111. (4) sin θ =
100 the only possible order is (2).
v
⇒ sin 30° = 122. (4) f ( x ) = 2x − 2
100 100 km/h
∴ f ( p) = 2p − 2
∴ v = 50 km/h
Putting p = 2, we get
113. (4) Let the annual payment = Rs x θ
f (2) = 4 − 2 = 2
Again, assume p1 and p2 are the part of thev sum that
will be cleared in the first and second year respectively. 123. (4) Here, the sequence will be as
x C-AB-A-Y Z -E-CD-Y- W X-G-E F -W-U V .
Then, p1 =
 10  Here, we can see that after a particular letter, two
1 + 
 100 consecutive letters of alphabet are written in the
x sequence. By doing so, we get the letters ‘ZWFV’ to be
and p2 =
2 filled in the boxes.
 10 
1 + 
 100 124. (4) Here, the series continues as
According to question, SL-AB-sl-bc-SL-CD-sl-de
Hence, we can see that, letters ‘AlSCd’ are to be filled in
p1 + p2 = 5040
the blanks.
x x
+ = 5040 125. (4) Here, the series progresses as
11  11 2
10  10 1 4 27 16 125 36 343
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
10 x 100 x
⇒ + = 5040 13 22 33 42 53 62 73
11 121
Hence, ‘125’ is to be filled in the blank.
110 x + 100 x
⇒ = 5040 126. (4) Here, we shall consider each option one by one.
121
5040 × 121
⇒ x= = Rs 2904 1. A D B E C 2. F I G J H
210
114. (4) Let height is h.
3
∴ Radius = h
2 3. K N L O M 4. P R T S Q
∴ Curve surface area = 2πrh
3 Hence, option (4) is the odd option.
= 2π × h×h
2 127. (4) Here, among all the given options, only option (4)
= 3πh 2 contains the two repeating letters while others contain
Since, cost of painting at 20 paise/cm 2 is Rs 92.40. only one such pair. Hence, option (4) is the odd option.
92.40 128. (3) Here, the central number is written by adding the
∴ Curve surface area = = 462 square roots of the numbers being out of the circle and
0.20
then squaring the resultant.
⇒ 3πh 2 = 462
25
⇒ (1144 + 2100852)2
2 2
16 361 1 25 1 81 16 = (5 + 6 +9 +4) ⇒ (2101996)2 = 44183872184016
2
= 19 = 361
137. (1) 980 − 320 + 56 / 220 →
81
⇒ (980 × 320 ÷ 56 − 220)2
4
2 2
⇒ (980 × 5.7142 − 220)2
64 289 16 4 16 9 64 = (2 + 4 + 3 + 8)
2
= (17) = 289 = (5600 − 220)2
9 = (5380)2 = 28944400
9 138. (3) 8765 * 789654 − 456 * 4356 + 660 / 34532
9 81 25 1
2
= (3 + 9 + 5 + 1) 2 ⇒ 8765 + (789654 × 456) + (4356 ÷ 660) − 34532
1 324 81
2
= (18) = 324 ⇒ 8765 + 360082224 + 6. 6 − 34532
25 ⇒ 360090995. 6 − 34532 = 360056463. 6
Hence, 324 will be filled in the circle. 139. (4) Rectangle represents the wheat cultivation area while
129. (3) Here, the numbers of each row are written as circle represents the maize cultivation area. Hence, we
have to find the number which is only in the rectangle
52 43 34 25
–9 –9 –9 and the circle. Hence, the number is ‘4’.
42 33 24 15 140. (3) The circle represents the region for maize. Hence, we
–9 –9 –9 have to look for the number which is in the circle only
45 36 27 18 and that number is ‘3’.
–9 –9 –9
141. (1) Once both upward and downward lines go to the
54 45 36 27
–9 –9 –9 opposite sides of the main line and then it comes more
Hence, “24, 36, 54” are to be filled in the blanks. closer in the next figure. The process continues.
142. (4) The fifth figure must contain eight items. Hence, the
130. (2) Here, in each row, A, B and C are written by
only possible answer can be ‘D’.
interchanging their positions among themselves. Also,
in each column the upper and the lower is multiplied 143. (1) One line is increasing in second figure and same line is
and then the resultant is written in the middle column. repeated in third figure and hence, the fifth figure must
contain five designs.
In the middle box of the chart, letter ‘C’ will be written
and the number will be 144. (3) The number of some designs is decreasing one by one
while the number of circles is increasing one by one.
2 × 5 = 10
146. (4) Every time a line (side) of the upper design comes
131. (2) From first figure, we can say that 1 and 2 cannot be
down and complete the lower design.
opposite to number ‘4’. Similarly from second figure we
147. (1) We can infer that wise men should be imitated.
can say that 5 and 6 cannot be opposite to number 4.
Hence, among the given options, only number ‘3’ is the 149. (3) M A C H I N E
(13) (1) (3) (8) (9) (14) (5)
possible number that can be on the top. +6
132. (4) It was Sunday on 22nd July 2003 and after 7 days it 19 –7 –9 –14 –15 –20 –11
will be Sunday again. Hence,
D A N G E R
134. (1) 65 * 89754 − 9856 + 785 / 8647 (4) (1) (14) (7) (5) (18)
⇒ 65 + 89754 × 9856 ÷ 785 − 8647 +6
⇒ 65 + {89754 × (9856 ÷ 785)} − 8647 10 –7 –20 –13 –11 –24
⇒ 65 + {89754 × 12.555} − 8647 150. (2) F A V O U R E B U P T S
⇒ 65 + 1126898.6 − 8647 –1
+1
⇒ 1126963. 6 − 8647 = 1118316. 6 –1
135. (3) 89765 / 897 − 6789 + 89 → +1
–1
⇒ (89765 − 897 × 6789 ÷ 89)2
+1
⇒ (89765 − 897 × 76. 280899)2 Hence, D A G G E R C B F H D S
⇒ (89765 − 68423. 966)2 –1
+1
⇒ (21341. 034)2 = 455439719.7 –1
136. (4) 1234 / 90 * 8978 − 234 → +1
–1
⇒ (1234 − 90 + 8978 × 234)2 +1
North
151. (3) N-W N-E South West Here, the shortest distance of A from the starting point
is
West East OS =OR + RS = PQ + RS =(7 + 7) km = 14 km
S-E
The same distance has been covered by B also. Hence,
S-W S-E East North
South the shortest distance between A and
Hence, ‘West’ becomes ‘South-East’. = 14 + 14 = 28 km
152. (3) S (A's final position) 154. (2) The only possible word starting from B is ‘BEACH’. Its
fourth letter is ‘C’.
7 km 155. (3) We can make three words ‘NO’, ‘ON’ and ‘TO’.
R Q
5 km
7 km
O P
(Starting 5 km
point)
SNAP 2005
1. Milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4 : 3 The jars will, then be shaken and you will be asked to pick
and 2 : 3 respectively. In what ratio the liquids in both the one marble from either jar. How would you distribute the
vessels should be mixed to obtain a new mixture in vessel C, marbles in two jars to maximize the possibility of picking a
containing half milk and half water? white marble blind folded?
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 7 : 5 (1) 25 white and 25 black in each
(3) 2 : 4 (4) 1 : 3 (2) One white in one and rest 99 in the other
2. A picture was bought at a certain sum, which was the price (3) 50 white in one and 50 black in the other
paid for its frame. Had the frame cost Rs 100 less and the (4) All hundred in one
picture Rs 75 more, the price for the frame would have been 9. The number plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number
only half of that of the picture. What is the price of the was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the
frame? plate was turned upside down. The bus company had only
(1) 75 (2) 100 five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the
(3) 175 (4) 275 number?
3. What is the closest time between 7 and 8 when the hands of (1) 169 (2) 36
your watch are exactly opposite each other? (3) 196 (4) Cannot say
(1) 7 h 5 min (2) 7 h 5.5 min 10. If 5 spiders can catch five flies in 5 min. How many flies can
(3) 7 h 6 min (4) 7 h 6.5 min hundred spiders catch in 100 min?
4. There are 6 tickets to the theater, four of which are for seats (1) 100 (2) 1000
in the front row. 3 tickets are selected at random. What is (3) 500 (4) 2000
the probability that two of them are for the front row? 11. Recently my brother and I played chess form chocolates.
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.7 Who ever lost the game gave the other a chocolate. After
(3) 0.9 (4) 1/3 the last game we counted the chocolates. I had 20 more
5. When 75% of a number is added to 75, the result is the chocolates than I started with, although he won 7 games.
same number. The number is There is no draw. How many games did we play?
(1) 150 (2) 300 (1) 27 (2) 34
(3) 100 (4) 450 (3) 37 (4) 54
6. Anne travelled 4/7th as many miles on foot as by water and 12. Study the series carefully ‘B 8 4 C R M 9 P D K W F A 2 E J 7
2/5th as many miles on horse back as by water. If she X U Q H L T Y 6 G S’. If it is possible to make a meaningful
covered a total of 3036 miles, how many miles did she word with the ninth, the sixteenth, the twenty-fourth and
travel in each manner : water, foot and horseback? the twenty-seventh letters from the left in the above series,
(1) 1540,880,616 (2) 616,880,1540 which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If
(3) 1540,880,616 (4) 880,1540,616 no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer. If more
7. A family has seven children. Each boy in the family has as than one such word can be made, give ‘M’ as the answer
many sisters as brothers both. Each girl has twice as many (1) X (2) M
brothers as sisters. How many brother and sisters are there (3) J (4) Y
in the family? 13. The value of 51 / 4 × (125)0.25
(1) 3 Brothers, 4 Sisters (2) 4 Brothers, 4 Sisters (1) 5 (2) 25
(3) 4 Brothers, 3 Sisters (4) Cannot say (3) 50 (4) 10
8. You are given 50 white marbles, 50 black marbles and two 14. Imagine you have two large pitchers, A and B. A contains
jars. You need to put 100 marbles in any of these two jars. 10 L of wine and B contains 10 L of water. One litre of water
is removed from B and poured into A. The liquid is mixed 24. Symbiosis runs a Corporate Training Programme. At the
very well. Then one litre of the mixture from A is poured end of running the first programme its total takings were
into B. Which of the following statements is true? Rs 38950. There were more than 45 but less than 100
(1) The water contents in A is more than the wine contents particulars. What was the participant fee the programme?
in B (1) Rs 410 (2) Rs 450
(2) The water contents in A is less than the wine contents (3) Rs 500 (4) Rs 510
in B 25. Complete the series 1, 6, 6, 36, 216, ……
(3) The water contents in A is same as the wine contents in (1) 7775 (2) 7776
B (3) 7777 (4) 7778
(4) None of the above 26. Three friends had a dinner at a restaurant. When the bill
15. Anand, Binoy, Chetan and Dharma together have Rs 47 was received Amita paid 2/3 as much as Veena paid and
with them. Anand and Binoy together have Rs 27; Chetan Veena paid 1/2 as much as Tanya paid. What fraction of the
and Anand have Rs 25 and Dharma and Anand have Rs 23. bill did Veena pay?
How much money does Binoy have? (1) 1/3 (2) 3/11
(1) Rs 9 (2) Rs 11 (3) 12/31 (4) 5/8
(3) Rs 13 (4) Rs 28 27. 128 players start in the men’s singles at a tennis
16. David gets on the elevator at the 11th floor of a building tournament, where this number reduces to half on every
and rides up at the rate of 57 floors per minute. At the same succeeding round. How many matches are played totally in
time Albert gets on an elevator at the 51 it floor of the same the event?
building and rides down at the rate of 63 floors per minute. (1) 63 (2) 48
If they continue traveling at these rates, then at which floor (3) 127 (4) 144
will their elevators meet? 28. A crew can row 10 miles in 5/6th of an hour down-stream
(1) 19 (2) 30 and 12 miles upstream in 90 min. Find the current’s rale
(3) 28 (4) 37 and crew’s rate in still water
17. The average of 5 consecutive numbers is n. If the next two (1) 12 miles/h, 4 miles/h (2) 10 miles/h, 2 miles/h
numbers are also included the average will (3) 8 miles/h, 4 miles/h (4) 12 miles/h, 2 miles/h
(1) remain the same (2) increase by 1 29. If Swamy has two children and he truthfully answers yes to
(3) increase by 1.4 (4) increase by 2 the question “Is at least one of your children a girl?” What is
18. Which is the wrong term in the following sequence? the probability that both his children are girls?
52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16 (1) 1/2 (2) 1/3
(1) 27 (2) 34 (3) 1 (4) 0
(3) 43 (4) 48 30. Starting from his house one day, a student walks at a speed
19. P is six times as large as Q. By what per cent is Q less than P? 1
of 2 km/h and reaches his school 6 min late. Next day he
2 2
(1) 16 % (2) 60%
3 increases his speed by 1 km/h and reaches his school 6 min
1 early. How far is the school from the house?
(3) 83 % (4) 90% 1
3 (1) 1 km (2) 1 km
20. When a heap of pebbles is grouped in 32, 40 or 72 it is left 2
3
with remainders of 10, 18 or 50 respectively. What is the (3) 1 km (4) 2 km
minimum number of pebbles that the heap contains? 4
(1) 1416 (2) 1418 31. What year comes next in the sequence 1973, 1979, 1987,
(3) 1412 (4) 1420 1993, 1997, 1999, ……?
21. Each of the series S1 = 2 + 4 + 6 + . . . . . and (1) 2001 (2) 2003
S2 = 3 + 6 + 9 + . . . . . . is continued to 100 terms. Find how (3) 2005 (4) 2007
many terms are identical? 32. The numbers of students studying Physics, Chemistry and
(1) 34 (2) 33 Zoology in a college were in the ratio 4 : 3 : 5 respectively.
(3) 32 (4) None of these If the number in these three disciplines increased by 50%,
25% and 10% respectively in the next year, then what was
22. Ram Singh goes to Pushkar Mela with Rs 10000 to buy
the new respective ratio?
exactly 100 animals. He finds that cows are sold at Rs 1000,
(1) 24 : 15 : 22
horses at Rs 300 and chicken at Rs 50. How many chicken
(2) 18 : 11 : 13
should be buy to meet his target of 100 animals?
(3) 24 :13 : 17
(1) 92 (2) 94
(4) Cannot be determined
(3) 90 (4) 88
33. A man earns Rs 20 on the first day and spends Rs 15 on the
23. Fill in ‘+’ or ‘–’ sign in between these numbers so that they
next day. He again earns Rs 20 on the third day and spends
give the correct answer.
Rs 15 on the fourth day. If he continues to save like this,
1 23 33 1 43 = 31 how soon will he have Rs 60 in hand?
(1) + + – – (2) + + + – (1) On 17th day (2) On 27th day
(3) – – + + (4) – – – + (3) On 24th day (4) On 30th day
34. A game of football with 11 players lasts for exactly 90 min. Consumer goods 47880 6.1
There are four substitutes that alternate equally. If each Chemicals 35510 4.5
player plays for the same length of time, what is the Communications
duration? and information
(1) 22.5 min (2) 18 min systems 148160 18.9
(3) 66 min (4) None of these Services 78950 10.1
35. A, B and C start a business each investing Rs 20000. After Total 782750
5 months A withdrew Rs 5000, B Rs 4000 and C invested
Rs 6000 more. At the end of the year a total profit of lSales turnover at US$ 17.4 billion (Rs 78274 crore)
Rs 69900 was recorded. What is the share of B? representing a year-on-year growth of 30.3% in dollar
(1) Rs 20500 (2) Rs 21200 terms and 27.4% in rupee terms.
(3) Rs 28200 (4) Rs 27300 l Sales figures shown are net of excise duty.
36. The current birth rate per thousand is 32, whereas 41. This group of companies operates in multiple sectors. The
corresponding death rate is 11 per thousand. The growth holding company has decided to closely monitor minimum
rate in terms of population increase in per cent is given by number of sectors (not exceeding 5) contributing together a
(1) 0.021% (2) 0.21% major part (at least 80%) of sales of the group. Identify the
(3) 2.1% (4) 21% correct set of sectors.
37. The difference between two numbers is 1365. When larger (1) Engineering, Services, CIS and Consumer Goods
number is divided by the smaller one, the quotient is 6 and (2) Engineering, Services, CIS, Energy and Consumer
the remainder is 15. What is the smaller number? Goods
(1) 240 (2) 360 (3) Engineering, Material, Services and CIS
(3) 270 (4) 295 (4) Engineering, Material, CIS and Energy
38. Two vertical poles are 40 m apart and the height of one is 42. The average profit against the sales across the sectors is
double that of the other. From the middle point of the line
10% while the profit margin of engineering is 12% and CIS,
joining their feet, an observer finds the angular elevations
20%. What is the average profit across the remaining
of their tops to be complementary. Find their heights.
sectors?
(1) 14.14 m, 28.28 m (2) 12 m, 22 m
(1) 5.87% (2) 7.6%
(3) 12.12 m, 24.24 m (4) None of these
(3) 4.94% (4) 8.9%
39. Meera and Sameera start moving from the same point.
Meera goes 4 km West followed by 3 km North. Sameera Directions (Q. 43-46) Each question given below is
goes 4 km East and then a right turn and keeps going for followed by three statements. Study the question and the
3 km. What is the shortest distance between the two of statements. Identify which option is necessary to answer the
them? question.
(1) 10 km (2) 12 km 43. The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 37
(3) 8 km (4) 14 km degree Celsius and of Tuesday to Thursday was 34 degree
40. A boy was asked to multiply a certain number by 53. He Celsius. What was the temperature on Thursday?
multiplied it by 35 and got his answer less than the correct I. The temperature on Thursday was 4/5th that of
one by 1206. Find number to be multiplied. Monday.
(1) 68 (2) 67 II. The mean temperature of Monday and Thursday was
(3) 77 (4) None of these 40.5 degree Celsius.
Directions (Q. 41-42) Study the sectorwise sales of a III. The difference between the temperature on Monday
group of companies for the financial year 2004-2005 and and that on Thursday was 9 degree Celsius.
answer the following questions. (1) I only (2) Either I or II
(3) Either I or II or III (4) None of these
Sectorwise Sales 2004-2005
Services 44. What will be the sum of two numbers?
10% Materials I. Among the two numbers, the bigger number is greater
21% than the smaller number by 6.
II. 40 % of the smaller number is equal to 30 % of the
CIS bigger number.
19%
III. The ratio of half of the bigger number to one third of
Chemicals the smaller number is 2 : 1.
Engineering
5% (1) I or II (2) II or III
o ds 31%
e r go (3) I or II or III (4) Any two of the three
m
nsu 6% Energy 45. A tank is fitted with two taps A and B. In how much time
Co 8% will the tank be full if both the taps are opened together?
I. A is 50% more efficient than B
Sectors (Rs million) Per cent share
II. A alone takes 16 h to fill the tank
Materials 164430 21.0 III. B alone takes 24 h to fill the tank
Engineering 244830 31.2 (1) I and II or III only (2) I, II and III
Energy 62990 8.0 (3) I and II only (4) I and III only
46. What is the principal sum? 50. If you purchased 100 shares on 31/8/2005 and sold them
I. The interest amount after 30 months is half the interest on 10/10/2005 what will be your gains?
amount after 5 yr. (1) Rs 7700 (2) Rs 8800
II. The sum amounts to Rs 750 in a five years at simple (3) Rs 9900 (4) Rs 6600
interest rate. Directions (Q. 51-54) Each question consists of a
III.The rate of interest is 8% per annum. statement and/or a question followed by two statements I and
(1) I and III only II. Identify an option which provides sufficient data to answer
(2) II and III only the given question.
(3) I and II only Mark your answer as
(4) I and III only, or II and III only
(1) if the data in statement I is sufficient and II is not
Directions (Q. 47-50) Study the weekly data table and required;
daily data graph for Toya Motors share prices at the National (2) if the data in statement II is sufficient and I is not
Stock Exchange and answer the following questions. required;
Toya Motors NSE Share Prices for 3 Months (3) if the data in both statements is necessary;
(4) if the data in both statements is not sufficient to answer
10/8 22/8 31/8 12/9 21/9 29/9 10/10 20/10 31/10 10/11
the question.
483 475 461 513 516 535 538 500 461 498
51. The total of the present ages of A, B, C and D is 96 yr. What
571 is B’s present age?
I. The average age of A, B and D is 20 yr.
549 II. The average age of C and D is 25 yr.
527 52. Deepak’s marks in Hindi are 15 more than the average
505 marks obtained by him in Hindi, Economics, Sociology and
Philosophy. What are his marks in Philosophy?
483
I. The total marks obtained by him in Hindi and
Philosophy together is 112.
10/8/2005 22/8 31/8 12/9 21/9 29/9 10/10 20/10 31/10 10/11/2005 II. The difference between the marks obtained by him in
47. What is the average share price for 10/8/2005 to Sociology and Economics is 12.
12/9/2005? 53. What was the cost price of the suitcase purchased by
(1) 527 (2) 505 Richard?
(3) 483 (4) 461 I. Richard got 20% concession on the labelled price.
48. The drop in the sales price during October 2005 is II. Richard sold the suitcase for Rs 2000 with 25% profit on
approximately the labelled price.
(1) 19% (2) 10% 54. B alone can complete a work in 12 days. How many days
(3) 50% (4) 5% will A, B and C together takes to complete the work?
49. How many times during this 3 month period the share price I. A and B together can complete the work in 3 days.
dropped in the graph? II. B and C together can complete the work in 6 days.
(1) 6 (2) 17 (3) 15 (4) 10
Directions (Q. 55-60) Study the following two tables of data on Agriculture Import and Export of India during1998-2001and answer
the following questions.
India’s Export of Principal Agricultural Products

Products 1998-1999 Percentage of 1999-2000 Percentage of 2000-2001 Percentage of
Agri. Export Agri. Export Agri. Export
1. Tea 538 8.9 412 7.3 433 7.2
2. Coffee 411 6.8 331 5.9 259 4.3
3. Cereals 1495 24.8 724 12.9 744 12.4
4. Tobacco 181 3 233 4.2 191 3.2
5. Spices 388 6.4 408 7.3 354 5.9
6. Cashew 387 6.4 567 10.1 411 6.8
7. Sesame and Niger Seeds 78 1.3 86 1.5 131 2.2
8. Guargum Meal 173 2.9 188 3.4 132 2.2
9. Oil Meals 462 7.7 378 6.7 448 7.5
10. Fruits and Vegetables 184 3 209 3.7 248 4.1
11. Processed Fruit and Vegetables 69 1.1 86 1.5 122 2
12. Meat and Meat Preparations 187 3.1 189 3.4 322 5.4
13. Marine Products 1038 17.2 1183 21.1 1394 23.2
14. Others 446 7.4 614 11 815 13.6
Agri. Exports 6037 100 5608 100 6004 100
Percentage of Agri. to Total Exports 18.2 15.2 13.5
Total Exports 33218 36822 44560
India’s Agricultural Imports

Commodity 1998-1999 Percentage of 1999-2000 Percentage of 2000-2001 Percentage of
Agri. Imports Agri. Imports Agri. Imports
1. Cereal 288 9.9 222 7.8 19 1
2. Pulses 169 5.8 82 2.9 109 5.9
3. Milk and Cream 3 0.1 25 0.9 2 0.1
4. Cashew nuts 230 7.9 276 9.7 211 11.3
5. Nuts and Fruits 159 5.5 136 4.8 175 9.4
6. Sugar 264 9 256 9 7 0.4
7. Oil seeds 2 0.1 4 0.1 2 0.1
8. Veg. oils 1804 61.8 1857 65 1334 71.8
Total Agri. Imports 2919 100 2858 100 1858 100
Percentage of Agri. to Total 6.9 5.8 3.7
Imports
Total Imports 42389 49671 50536
55. Which was the single largest contributor to the total Agri. (4) The concerns were not justified because the total
exports in 2000-01? If the total Agri. exports were valued at exports in aggregate terms were higher than the total
US $ 6 billion, what is its contribution in dollar terms? imports in aggregate terms.
(1) Cereal, US $ 1.49 billion 60. Over the period under study both percentages of the total
(2) Marine Products, US $ 1.27 billion Agri. exports to the total exports and that of the total Agri.
(3) Marine Products, US $ 1.39 billion imports to the total imports show a downward trend. This
(4) Cereal, US $1.03 billion indicates that
56. Which product has shown strong growth in exports during (1) India should not get into export of Agri. products and
the 3 yr period? concentrate on other sectors.
(1) Meat and Meat Preparations (2) India should find ways and means of increasing
(2) Fruits and Vegetables imports.
(3) Processed Fruits and Vegetables (3) India should restrict its imports and exports only to a
(4) None of the above limited number of commodities and products.
57. Which was the dominant import commodity in 2000-2001 (4) India should work on strategies to enhance export and
after the vegetable oil? reduce imports.
(1) Pulses (2) Cereals
61. Nalini, her brother, her daughter and her son are tennis
(3) Cashew nuts (4) Nuts and Fruits
players and are playing game of doubles. Their positions on
58. From the import data about Sugar and Cereals it can be said the court are as follows
that Nalini’s brother is directly across the net from her daughter.
(1) India has raised its domestic production of these Her son is diagonally across the net from the worst player’s
commodities. sibling.
(2) India’s demand for these commodities has gone down. The best player and the worst players are on the same side
(3) India’s gap in production and requirement of these
of the net.
commodities has gone down.
Who is the best players?
(4) India’s population consuming these commodities has
(1) Nalini (2) Nalini’s brother
gone down.
(3) Nalini’s daughter (4) None of these
59. In some circles concerns were expressed that liberalization
62. In certain code language ‘PROMOTION’ is written as
of imports, resulting from lifting of quantitative restrictions
‘QSP89’. How will you write ‘DEMOTION’?
on agri products, would lead to surge of Agri. imports
affecting the Indian farmers. What does the data depict? (1) DE98 (2) EF98
(1) The concerns were justified because India continued to (3) EF89 (4) EG89
import Agri. commodities. 63. Study this matrix.
(2) The concerns were not justified because the value of
6 2 5 1
Agri. imports in aggregate terms has come down
3 1 4 7
during the period.
(3) The concerns were justified because vegetable oil and 4 1 9 5
pulses formed a major component of the imports. 3 1 2 4
In this game there are two players. The first player can split (1) 96 (2) 53
the matrix vertically into two equal halves and choose one (3) 43 (4) None of these
half for further play. The next move on this half is by the 70. An enterprising businessman earns an income of Rs 1 on the
other player who will split it only horizontally and choose first day of his business. On every subsequent day, he earns
one half for further play. The game will continue in this an income which is just double of that made on the previous
manner. At the end, the last number left is the first player’s day. On the 10th day of business, his income is
gain. (1) Rs 29 (2) Rs 210
If you start the game, retain the right half and again right (3) Rs 10 2
(4) Rs 10
half after your opponent’s move, then how should your
71. One night three naughty boys stole a basketful of apples
opponent play to minimize your gain?
from the garden, hid the loot and went to sleep. Before
(1) Retain upper, retain lower
retiring they did some quick counting and found that the
(2) Retain upper, retain upper
fruits were less than a hundred in number. During the night
(3) Retain lower, retain upper
one boy awoke, counted the apples and found that he could
(4) Retain lower, retain lower
divide the apples into three equal parts if he first took one
64. What is the next letter in the series? for himself. He, then took one apple, ate it up and took 1/3
U, F, Q, J, M, N of the rest, hid them separately and went back to sleep.
(1) I (2) T Shortly thereafter another boy awoke, counted the apple
(3) O (4) M and he again found that if he took one for himself (he loot
65. Sonal, a mathematician, defines a number as ‘connected by could be divided in to three equal parts. He ate up one
6’ if it is divisible by 6, or if the sum of its digits is 6, or if 6 is apple, bagged 1/3 of the remainder, hid them separately
one of the digits of the number. Other numbers are all ‘not and went back to sleep. The third boy also awoke after
connected with 6’. As per this definition, the number of some time, did the same and went back to sleep. In the
integers, from 1 to 60 (both inclusive) which are not morning when all woke up, and counted apples, they found
connected with 6 is that the remaining apples again totaled I more than could
(1) 18 (2) 43 be divided into three equal parts. How many apples did the
(3) 22 (4) 42 boys steel?
66. Leena, Nitin, Arun and Mohan crossed a lake in a canoe that (1) 67 (2) 79
could hold only two persons. The Canoe held two persons (3) 85 (4) None of these
on each of three forward trips across the lake and one Directions (Q. 72-73) Choose from these four diagrams
person on each of two return trips. Leena was unable to the one that best illustrates the relationship among three given
paddle when someone else was in the canoe with her. Nitin classes.
was unable to paddle when anyone else except Arun was in
the canoe with him. Each person paddle continuously for at
least one trip. Who paddled twice?
(1) Leena (2) Nitin
(3) Mohan (4) Arun
(1) (2) (3) (4)
67. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are the members of a family consisting
of 4 adults and 3 children, two of whom, F and G are girls, A 72. Chilli, Salt, Vegetables.
and D are brothers and A is doctor. E is an engineer married 73. Student of Law, Students of Science, Men.
to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to
D and G is their child. Who is C? Directions (Q. 74–78) Study the following example and
answer the questions.
(1) G’s father (2) F’s father
(3) E’s daughter (4) A’s son An electronic device rearranges numbers step-by-step in a
68. If every alternative letter of English Alphabet from B particular order according to a set of rules. The device stops when
onwards (including B) is written in lower case (small the final result is obtained. In this case the device stops at Step V?
letters) and the remaining letters are capitalized, then. Input : 85 16 36 04 19 97 63 09
How will be the first month of the second half of the year be Step I 97 85 16 36 04 19 63 09
written? Step II 97 85 63 16 36 04 19 09
(1) AuGuSt (2) JuLy Step III 97 85 63 36 16 04 19 09
(3) jUlY (4) AugUSt
Step IV 97 85 63 36 19 16 04 09
69. A rich merchant had collected many gold coins. He did not Step V 97 85 63 36 19 16 09 04
want anybody to know about them. One day, his wife
asked, “How many gold coins do we have?” After pausing a 74. Which of the following will be Step III for the input below?
moment, he replied, “Well! If I divide the coins into two Input : 09 25 16 30 32 18 17 06
unequal numbers, then 48 times the difference between the (1) 32 09 25 16 30 18 17 06
two numbers equals the difference between the squares of
(2) 32 30 09 25 16 19 17 06
the two numbers.” The wife looked puzzled. Can you help
the merchant’s wife by finding out how many gold coins the (3) 32 30 09 25 16 18 17 06
merchant has? (4) 32 30 25 09 16 18 17 06
75. What is last step for the input below? Such efforts required a degree of cooperation among large
Input : 16 09 25 27 06 05 numbers of people that had not previously existed. The individual
(1) Step II (2) Step III village, containing only a dozen or so houses and families, was
(3) Step IV (4) None of these economically vulnerable; but when several villages, probably
76. What is the output of Step V for the input below? under the direction of a council of elders, learned to share their
human resources in the building of a coordinated network of
Input : 25 08 35 11 88 67 23 water-control systems, the safety, stability, and prosperity of all
(1) 88 67 35 25 23 11 08 improved. In this new cooperation, the seeds of the great
(2) 88 67 35 25 23 08 11 Mesopotamian civilizations were being sown.
(3) 08 11 23 25 35 67 88 Technological and mathematical invention, too, were
stimulated by life along rivers. Such devices as the noria
(4) None of the above (a primitive waterwheel) and the Archimedean screw (a device
77. Which one of the following would be last step for the input for raising water from the low riverbanks to the high ground
below? where it was needed), two forerunners of many more varied and
Input : 03 31 43 22 11 09 complex machines, were first developed here for use in irrigation
(1) Step II (2) Step III systems. Similarly, the earliest methods of measurement and
(3) Step IV (4) None of these computation and the first developments in geometry were
78. If the output of Step IV is as given below, what was the stimulated by the need to keep track of land holdings and
input? boundaries in fields that were periodically inundated.
Step IV 92 86 71 69 15 19 06 63 58 The rivers served as high roads of the earlist commerce.
Traders used boats made of boundles of rushes to transport grains,
(1) 86 92 69 71 15 19 06 63 58
fruits, nuts, fibers and textiles from one village to another,
(2) 15 86 19 92 06 69 63 58 71 transforming the rivers into the central spines of nascent
(3) 15 19 06 63 58 86 92 69 71 commercial kingdoms. Trade expanded surprisingly widely; we
(4) None of the above have evidence suggesting that, even before the establishment of
the first Egyptian dynasty, goods were being exchanged between
Directions (Q. 79-80) Read the following information villagers in Egypt and others as far away as Iran.
carefully and then answer the questions given below : Similar developments were occuring at much the same time
P # Q means P is the father of Q. along the great river valleys in other parts of the world - for
P + Q means P is the mother of Q. example, along the Indus in India and the Hwang Ho in China.
P − Q means P is the brother of Q. The history of early civilization has been shaped to a remarkable
P * Q means P is the sister of Q. degree by the relation of humans and rivers.
79. If A + B # C − D, then A is D’s 81. This passage basically explains
(1) Sister (2) Grandfather (1) the similarities and differences among several ancient
(3) Grandmother (4) Father societies
(2) the influence of river settlements on the growth of
80. Which of the following shows that A is the Aunt of E?
early civilizations
(1) A − B + C # D * E (2) A * B # C * D − E
(3) how climatic changes led to the founding of the earliest
(3) A # B * C + D − E (4) A + B − C * D # E recorded cities
Directions (Q. 81-87) Read the following passage and (4) the development of primitive technologies in the
answer the 7 questions following the same. ancient Middle East
As the climate in the Middle East changed beginning 82. According to the passage, the increasing aridity of formally
fertile grasslands in Egypt and Mesopotamia caused the
around 7000 B.C.E., conditions emerged that were conducive to a
settlement patterns in those regions to become
more complex and advanced form of civilization in both Egypt and
(1) less nomadic (2) less stable
Mesopotamia. The process began when the swampy valleys of the
(3) more concentrated (4) more sparse
Nile in Egypt and of the Tigris and Euphrates Rivers in
Mesopotamia became driver, producing reverine lands that were 83. The passage implies that the earliest geometry was
both habitable and fertile, and attracting settlers armed with the practiced primarily by
newly developed techniques of agriculture. This migration was (1) farm workers
further encouraged by the gradual transformation of the (2) land owners
once-hospitable grasslands of these regions into deserts. Human (3) traders and merchants
population became increasingly concentrated into pockets of (4) mechanical artisans
settlement scattered along the banks of the great rivers. 84. The passage indicates that the social effects of the
These rivers profoundly shaped the way of life along their unpredictability of water supplies in Mesopotamia was
banks. In Mesopotamia, the management of water in conditions of (1) to encourage cooperation in the creation of water
upredictable drought, flood and storm became the central management systems
economic and social challenge. Villagers began early to build (2) to drive farmers to settle in fertile grasslands far from
simple earthworks, dikes, canals, and ditches to control the waters the uncontrollable rivers
and reduce the opposing dangers of drought during the dry season (3) to cause warfare over water rights among rival villages
(usually the spring) and flooding at harvest time. (4) None of the above
85. The passage refers to the earliest trade routes in the Middle you’ll also find health clinics, beauty salons, grocery stores, bars,
East restaurants, tailors, clothiers, churches and schools. In the midst
(1) between various centrally ruled commercial kingdoms of squalor and open sewage, business is booming.
(2) between linked villages in Egypt with others in Iran Indeed, Kiebera’s underground economy is so vibrant that it
(3) between connected villages that were scattered along has produced its own squatter millionaire, someone I have known
the banks of the same river for years. From his start a generation ago selling cigarettes and
(4) between the inhabitants of small villages and the biscuits from the window of his hut, this Kenyan (he asked to
dynastic kings who ruled them remain unnamed) has assembled an empire that includes
86. The passage implies that the emergence of complex pharmacies, groceries, bars, beverage-distribution outlets,
civilizations in the Middle East was dependent upon the transportation and manufacturing firms and even real estate.
previous development of Families flock to Kiebera for the same reason country folk
(1) a system of centralized government have always migrated to the city-in search of oppurtunity. In the
(2) symbolic systems for writing and mathematical city they find work but not a place to live. So they build illegally on
computation land they don’t own. There are a billion squatters in the world
(3) a method of storing and transferring wealth today, almost one in six people on the planet. And their numbers
(4) basic techniques of agriculture are on the rise. Current projections are that by 2030 there will be
87. By referring to emerging civilizations in India and China the two billion squatters and by 2050, three billion, better than one in
author wants to emphasize the three people on the planet.
(1) relatively advanced position enjoyed by the Middle In itself, it is nothing to worry about, for squatting has long
East in comparison to other regions had a positive role in urban development. Many urban
(2) rapidity with which social systems developed in the neighbourhoods in Europe and North America began as squatter
Middle East spread to other places outposts. London and Paris boasted huge swaths of mud and stick
(3) crucial role played by rivers in the development of homes, even during the glory years of the British and French
human cultures around the world monarchies. Squatters were a significant force in most U.S. cities
(4) importance of water transportation in the growth of too. It would no doubt surprise residents paying millions for coop
early trade apartments on Manhattens’ Upper East and West Sides to know
Directions (Q. 88-89) Choose the alternative closest in that squatters occupied much of the turf under their buildings
meaning to the given word. until the start of the 20th century.............. from an article by
Robert Neuwirth.
88. Askance
93. The author argues that Kiebera becoming the shantytown is
(1) side glance (2) quizzical expression
(3) request (4) curious look not unusual because
(1) Kiebera has many poor people who have come to earn
89. Virtuoso
but have no land to live on
(1) skilled performer (2) amateur
(2) Researchers have predicted that squatters will
(3) good person (4) professional
continue to grow in numbers
Directions (Q. 90-92) Each question below consists of a (3) Squatting has long had a positive role in urban
related pair of words or phrases, followed by four pairs of development
words or phrases labelel (1) through (4). Select the pair that (4) All of the above
best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the
original pair. 94. The prosperity of Kierbera’s underground economy is
described by the author through
90. Nuance : Subtle (1) The description of Kiebera
(1) Pun : Sarcastic (2) Fit : Honest (2) The description of his friends businesses
(3) Inquiry : Discreet (4) Hint : Indirect (3) The comparison with coop apartments of Manhatten
91. Arena : Conflict (4) The history of London and Paris
(1) Mirage : Reality (2) Forum : Discussion
95. The author puts forward the thesis that
(3) Asylum : Pursuit (4) Utopia : Place
(1) Squatters will continue to rise in numbers in the
92. Hierarchy : Ranked coming years irrespective of whether they are from
(1) Equation : Solved
poor countries or not
(2) Critique : Biased
(2) There is nothing wrong in squatting on the land of a
(3) Chronology : Sequential
stranger
(4) Infinity : Fixed
(3) London and Paris too are shantytowns
Directions (Q. 93-96) Read the following passage and (4) Even today squatters live under the Manhattan’s coop
answer the next 4 questions. apartments
Come with me to Kiebera : the largest shantytown in 96. What is the most appropriate title for this passage?
sub-Saharan Africa. More than 500,000 people live in this vast (1) Kiebera-Squatters’ Paradise of Nairobi
illegal section of Nairobi, in mud huts on mud streets, with no (2) Squatters of the World
fresh water or sanitation. Walk down Kiebera’s sodden pathways (3) Squatter Cities
and you’ll see a great deal of hunger, poverty and disease. But (4) Future of Squatters
Directions (Q. 97-99) Choose the correct alternative to (1) the first sentence is wrong
complete the meaning of the given sentence. (2) the second sentence is wrong
97. The ________ managed to deceive the entire village. (3) both are correct
(4) both are wrong
(1) renegade (2) sycophant
(3) charlatan (4) actor Directions (Q. 109-110) Choose erroneous underlined
98. She ordered the taxi driver, ‘Drive faster, ________ ?’ segment or option (4) if no error.
(1) won’t you (2) will you 109. He carried his clothes in a black heavy steel trunk.
(3) you must (4) can’t you (1) (2) (3) (4)
99. Her written statements failed to be consistent ________ 110. The corpse had been dead for five days.
what she had said earlier (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) on (2) with 111. Identify the odd one.
(3) in (4) to (1) Ashoka was one of the greatest kings.
100. Choose the antonym nearest in meaning to the word. (2) Ashoka was greater than many other kings.
Facetious (3) Ashoka was the greatest king.
(1) serious (2) uneasy (4) Very few kings were as great as Ashoka.
(3) pleasant (4) cross 112. Identify the incorrect one.
101. Which one of the following alternatives is spelt correctly? (1) The coach together with his team was praised.
(1) extacy (2) ecstasy (2) Many a boy is tempted to sing.
(3) ecstacy (4) extasy (3) The king with all his sons were imprisoned.
102. Choose the correct alternative that best explains the (4) Neither James nor his lawyers were there.
following idiom. Writing on the wall. 113. Identify the sentence that gives the same meaning as the
(1) graffiti (2) obvious truth following. He said, “Yes, I’ll come and see you.”
(3) foreboding (4) prediction (1) He accepted that he will come and see me.
(2) He said that he will come and see me.
103. Choose the correct set of alternatives to fill in the blanks.
(3) He agreed that he will come and see me.
Although many of the members were ___ about the
(4) He said that he would come and see me.
impending deal, others were ___ about the benefits it
would bring. Directions (Q. 114-117) Choose one option to fill in the
(1) euphoric ______ confident blanks in the following sentences.
(2) optimistic ______ dubious (1) a (2) an
(3) angry ______ skeptical (3) then (4) none
(4) confused ______ pleased 114. I had met him _____ year ago.
104. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship 115. Can you see ______ moon?
similar to that expressed by the original pair. 116. He is _____ honourable man.
BROOK : RIVER
117. ______ people with little patience rarely succeed.
(1) vein artery (2) path highway
(3) yard alley (4) pen paper 118. Choose the correct arrangement of the following jumbled
sentence of a paragraph to make it coherent. The first
105. ‘But for cancer I would not have given up smoking’. ‘But’ in
sentence is
this sentence is Barely a year had elapsed before the Pritzker clan began to
(1) an adverb (2) a preposition squabble.
(3) an adjective (4) a verb L. Under the plan he has until 2011 to distribute the assets
106. Here is my list oranges, potatoes, garbage bags and a tooth among the heirs.
brush. M. The family was no longer cohesive whole, they wrote,
After the word ‘list’ identify which one of the following is and therefore the business needed the kind of
required. transparency a public corporation might have.
(1) colon (2) quotation marks N. A year later the family agreed on a giverning structure
(3) semicolon (4) None of these for the Pritzker Organisation, requiring Tom to open the
107. Identify the grammatical error in the sentence below by books, hold annual meetings of family share holders and
issue regular financial reports.
choosing one of the alternatives.
O. In summer 2000, Tom’s two brothers and a handful of
My main reason for learning pharmacy was that my brother
his cousins sent a letter asking him to restructure the
was one.
holdings.
(1) dangling modifier
(1) NMOL (2) MLON
(2) faulty parallelism (3) OMNL (4) ONML
(3) faulty reference by pronoun
119. “Time to bust some myths about the EPF Organisation.
(4) the sentence is correct
India’s only social security fund manager for
108. For the following pair a sentences choose the correct option non-government workers, though what follows is not
I. The team quickly took their positions on the field. published on a regular basis. Active membership is just
II. The team quickly took its position on the field. about 5 per cent and only 17 per cent of the members
account for 84 per cent of the balances. That’s only (1) the signals become weak with distance
Rs 20000 each! Less than 7 per cent have a deposit amount (2) there is inteference from other signals
more than 5 lacs!” Choose the statement closest to the idea (3) of the Earth’s curvature
expressed in this paragraph. (4) the atmosphere absorbs the signals
(1) EPF is an efficiently managed organisation about 128. Who is the Author of ‘‘Food, Nutrition and Poverty in
which no one knows correctly. India’’?
(2) EPF is an inefficient organisation. (1) V K R V Rao (2) T S Eliot
(3) EPF Organisation takes care of future fund (3) Mark Twain (4) Evelyn Wauh
requirements of investors adequately.
129. Internet is controlled by
(4) EPF Organisation does, not have enough funds to take
(1) The USA (2) The UK
care of secure future.
(3) Switzerland (4) None of these
120. “Two recent World Bank studies on India’ rapidly depleting
130. Identify the incorrect statement
water resources have caused quite a stir. More interesting is
(1) A tsunami is a series of waves generated when water in
how water seems to have become the new focus area for
a lake or the sea is rapidly displaced on a massive scale.
Bank assistance : at $3.2 billion in 2005-08 from a mere
(2) A tsunami is an after-effect of an earthquake on the
$700 million in 1999-04. Within water again, more money
seabed.
is going to rural water, large hydropower projects and
(3) A tsunami has smaller amplitude (wave height)
water resource management in poorer states.”
offshore and a very long wavelength.
Choose the statement that summarises the above paragraph
best
(1) India’s water resources are depleting. 131. The largest chunk of revenue for the Union Government
(2) The two World Bank studies on India have caused a comes from
stir. (1) Income Tax (2) Central Excise
(3) The World Bank assistance to India for developing (3) Corporation Tax (4) Customs Duty
water resources has increased more than 4 times for 132. India test-fired three medium range surface-to-air missiles
2005-08 as compared to the prior period. in October 2005. Name the missile
(4) Poorer states of India require water resource (1) Trishul (2) Nag
management projects such as rural water, large (3) Dhanush (4) Akash
hydropower projects. 133. How many calories are there in one litre of water?
121. The International Date Line is located (1) 1000 calories (2) 100 calories
(1) On the Equator (3) I calorie (4) None of these
(2) Along 0 degree Longitude 134. The city closest to the epicenter of the devastating
(3) Along 180 degree Longitude earthquake that hit Pakistan and India in October 2005 is
(4) At Greenwich in UK (1) Srinagar (2) Balakot
122. The Roman Magsaysay award is named after the former (3) Muzaffarabad (4) Islamabad
President of 135. The CDMA mobile services from BSNL is
(1) Thailand (2) Philippines (1) Tarang (2) Cell One
(3) Indonesia (4) None of these (3) Idea (4) Orange
123. What level of noise is considered permissible in human 136. The highest ranking country for 2005-2006 in “Global
habitats? Competitiveness Report” of the World Economic Forum is
(1) Upto 50 decibels (1) Finland (2) USA
(2) Less than 40 decibels (3) Singapore (4) UK
(3) Upto 30 decibels 137. Which two independent nations does the 17th Parallel
(4) Less than 20 decibels separate?
124. The Indian city which has a natural harbour and is also one (1) North and South Korea
of the largest Indian ports is (2) North and South Vietnam
(1) Mumbai (2) Kolkata-Haldia (3) East and West Germany
(3) Cochin (4) Vishakhapatnam (4) Mexico and Panama
125. If saccharine, an artificial sweetener which is 70 times 138. In the “One by Six” rule of Income Tax, it is mandatory to
sweeter than sugar, is kept in the open, which one of these file Income Tax Returns if you possess
insects will it atlract first (1) Television (2) Gold
(1) Ants (2) Bees (3) Credit card (4) Passport
(3) House-flies (4) None of these 139. The Kyoto Protocol pertains to
126. When a Pepsi bottle is opened, the gas fizzes out because it (1) banning the hunting of whales
obeys (2) reducing greenhouse gas emissions
(1) Hess’s Law (2) Henry’s Law (3) securing the release of circus animals
(3) Kohlarsh’s Law (4) None of these (4) disallowing civilian airports for military use
127. Television signals from transmission towers are restricted 140. The riots spreading across France in 2005 were caused by
to a limited area because (1) Al Qaeda
(2) French Nationalists 146. Which one is listed in the first place among the largest
(3) Racial tensions among Paris’ immigrants global corporations in 2005 by the Fortune magazine?
(4) France’s position in European Union (1) Exxon mobile (2) Toyota motors
141. One of the UK’s leading telecom company and sponsor of (3) General motors (4) Walmart
the England cricket team is 147. Recently VAT was introduced in India. Choose the correct
(1) British Telecom (2) Airtel statement.
(3) AT&T (4) Vodafone (1) VAT has replaced Sale Tax in all states of India.
142. The price of any currency in the international market is (2) VAT is charged in place of Sales Tax only in some states
determined by of India.
(1) The World Bank (3) VAT is charged in addition to Sales Tax in all states of
(2) The demand for goods and services provided by the India
country (4) VAT is charged in addition to Sales Tax in some states
(3) The amount of gold that country has in reserve of India.
(4) The economic stability of that country 148. Parachute is brand of
143. The “Whistle Blower Bill” was passed due to the pressure (1) Hindustan Lever (2) Proctor and Gamble
created by the murder of (3) Marico (4) Dabur
(1) Madhumita Shukla (2) Satyadev Dubey 149. Tamiflu is
(3) Naina Sharma (4) None of these (1) A type of influenza originating in Tamil Nadu
144. The alleged corruption scam of UN’s $64 billion in Iraq (2) A contagious disease of animals
disclosed in Nov., 2005 is related to (3) A form of Birdflu
(1) Iraq war crimes (4) An effective medicine for Birdflu
(2) Iraqi WMD 150. Earlier this year, President Bush revoked a trade embargo
(3) Saddam Hussein against a country that had been declared a terrorist state
(4) Food-for-oil programme. earlier. This allows US companies to invest in that country
145. The Reserve Bank of India Governor is for the first time since 1986. Which is the country ?
(1) Bimal Jain (2) YV Reddy (1) Egypt (2) Sudan
(3) Deepal Parekh (4) Naresh Chandra (3) Nigeria (4) Libya
Answers
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (2)
21. (2) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (2) 29. (1) 30. (3)
31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (2) 36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (1) 39. (1) 40. (2)
41. (3) 42. (2) 43. (2) 44. (4) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (2) 50. (1)
51. (4) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (3) 57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (2) 60. (4)
61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (1) 64. (1) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (4) 70. (1)
71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (1) 76. (1) 77. (4) 78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (2)
81. (2) 82. (2) 83. (2) 84. (1) 85. (2) 86. (4) 87. (3) 88. (4) 89. (1) 90. (1)
91. (2) 92. (3) 93. (4) 94. (2) 95. (1) 96. (1) 97. (3) 98. (4) 99. (2) 100. (1)
101. (2) 102. (2) 103. (2) 104. (2) 105. (2) 106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (1) 109. (2) 110. (2)
111. (3) 112. (4) 113. (4) 114. (1) 115. (3) 116. (2) 117. (4) 118. (4) 119. (2) 120. (4)
121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (1) 124. (1) 125. (3) 126. (4) 127. (3) 128. (1) 129. (4) 130. (4)
131. (2) 132. (4) 133. (4) 134. (3) 135. (1) 136. (3) 137. (2) 138. (3) 139. (2) 140. (3)
141. (4) 142. (4) 143. (2) 144. (4) 145. (2) 146. (3) 147. (2) 148. (3) 149. (4) 150. (4)

1. (2) Let the CP of milk be Re 1 per litre. 1
Milk in 1 L mixture of C = L
4 2
Milk in 1 L mixture of A = L
7 4
∴ CP of 1 L mixture in A = Re
2 7
Milk in 1 L mixture of B = L
5
2 2 2
CP of 1 L mixture in B = Re x = × 1540
5 5 5
Mean price = Re
1 = 616 miles on horse back.
2 7. (3) These type of questions can be easily solved through
By the rule of alligation, we have the given options.
CP of 1 L mixture in A CP of 1 L mixture in B Option (3) satisfies both the conditions.
 4  2 Each boy has equal number of brothers and sisters.
    Each girl has twice as many brothers as the number of
7  5
sisters.
 1 1
 
 2 8. (2) Probability of picking a white marble blind folded is
2
1 2 5− 4 1   4 1 8 −7 1 in each of the given options except option (2).
 − = =   − = = 
2 5 10 10 7 2 14 14 1 1 49
The probability in option (2) is, × 1 + × , which is
1 1 2 2 99
∴Required ratio = : =7:5 greater than half.
10 14
2. (4) According to question, 9. (1) Consider the given options.
In option number (1), 169 is a perfect square of 13.
P + 75 = (P − 100) 2
When the number 169 is turned upside down it
⇒ P + 75 = 2P − 200 becomes 961 which is also a perfect square of 31.
⇒ 2P − P = 200 + 75 So, it satisfies the given condition.
∴ P = Rs 275 No other option satisfy the given conditions except
3. (2) The closest time when the hands of the watch will be option number (1).
exactly opposite each other ie, in a straight line. So, option (1) is the answer.
The time will be sometimes after 7 : 05. 10. (4) According to question,
5 spiders can catch 5 flies in 5 min.
The time will be shown by
So, 1 spider can catch 1 fly in 5 min.
60 5
5× =5 min ∴100 spiders can catch 100 flies in 5 min.
55 11 ∴The number of flies caught by 100 spiders in 100 min
4. (1) Probability of selecting two seats in the front row and is x.
one seat behind 100 × 100 100 × x
4 ⇒ =
C 2 × 2C1 12 5 100
= = = 0. 6
6 20 ∴ x = 100 × 20
C3
5. (2) Let the number be x. = 2000 flies
Now, according to question, 11. (2) According to question,
x = 75% of x + 75 My brother won 7 games.
75 So, he will have 7 chocolates.
⇒ x= x + 75
100 Now, if have 20 additional chocolates than my brother.
75 So, I have 20 + 7 = 27 chocolates.
⇒ x− x = 75
100 Thus, I won 27 games.
100 x − 75x ∴ Total number of games = 27 + 7 = 34
⇒ = 75
100 12. (1) According to question, the letters are DJYS.
⇒ 25x = 75 × 100 It is not possible to make a meaningful word from these
∴ x = 300 letters. So, ‘ X ’ is the the answer.
6. (1) Let the distance travelled by 13. (1) 51 / 4 × (125)0.25 = 51 / 4 × (53 )1 / 4
Anne by water = x miles = 51 / 4 × 53 / 4
According to question,  1 3
 + 
= 5 4 4
4 2
x + x + x = 3036 = 51 = 5
7 5
35x + 20 x + 14 x 14. (3) In these type of questions, the liquid content in one
⇒ = 3036 container ie, water is always equal to the liquid content
35
in another container ie, wine.
⇒ 69 x = 3036 × 35
15. (3) According to question,
∴ x = 1540 miles
A + B + C + D = 47 …(i)
4 4
Now, x = × 1540 A + B = 27 …(ii)
7 7
C + A = 25 …(iii)
= 880 miles on foot.
D + A = 23 …(iv)
Adding Eqs. (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get 40 − 18 = 22
3A + B + C + D = 75 …(v) 72 − 50 = 22
Subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (v), we get ∴ The minimum number of pebbles that the heap
3A + B + C + D = 75 contains = 1440 − 22 = 1418
− A + B + C + D = −47 21. (2) S1 = 2 + 4 + 6 + . . . . . . . . + 200
2A = 28 S2 = 3 + 6 + 9 + . . . . . . . + 300
A = 14 So, in S2, 6 and the multiples of 6 upto 200 will be
Putting the value of A in Eq. (ii), we get identical to the terms in S1 .
A + B = 27 Identical terms = 6 + 12 + 18 . . . . . . + 198
198
⇒ 14 + B = 27 ∴ Number of terms = = 33
6
∴ B = 27 − 14 = 13
22. (2) By hit and trial method, in option (2) we find that if he
So, Binoy has Rs 13.
buys 94 chickens, 2 horse and 5 cows, he meets the
16. (2) Relative velocity of the elevators
target of 100 animals and spends Rs 10000 also.
= 57 + 63 = 120 floors/min
Number of animals,
Distance to be covered
94 chickens + 1 horse + 5 cows = 100 animals
= 51 − 11 = 40 floors
Money spent,
40
Time required = 94 × 50 + 1 × 300 + 5 × 1000
120
= 4700 + 300 + 5000 = Rs 10000
∴ Number of floors travelled by David
40 23. (3) By hit and trial method, we see that option (3) gives
= × 57 = 19 floors the correct answer 31.
120
∴The elevators will meet at, 1 − 23 − 33 + 1 + 43 = 31
11 + 19 = 30th floor or 1 − 8 − 27 + 1 + 64 = 31
17. (2) Let the five consecutive numbers be ∴ 31 = 31
x, x + 1, x + 2, x + 3 and x + 4 24. (1) By hit and trial method, we see that Rs 38950 is exactly
5x + 10 divisible by Rs 410 only ie, option (1). So, Rs 410 is the
The average of these numbers = = x+2 participant fee of the programme.
5
Now, average of seven consecutive number 25. (2) In this series, a number is the product of previous two
x + ( x + 1) + ( x + 2) + ( x + 3) + ( x + 4) + ( x + 5) + ( x + 6) numbers.
= 1×6 = 6
7
7 x + 21 6 × 6 = 36
= = x+3
7 6 × 36 = 216
So, the average increases by 1. ∴ 36 × 216 = 7776
18. (2) The given series 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16 26. (2) Total Bill = Tanya + Veena + Amita
Difference, 52 − 51 = 1 1 1 2
So, T +T × +T × × =1
51 − 48 = 3 2 2 3
48 − 43 = 5 T T
⇒ T + + =1
2 3
43 − 34 = 9 ⇒ 43 − 36 = 7
6T + 3T + 2T
34 − 27 = 7 ⇒ 36 − 27 = 9 ⇒ =1
6
27 − 16 = 1
⇒ 11 T = 6
The decrease in numbers is made by consecutive odd
6
numbers. So, 36 will come in place of 34. ∴ T =
11
19. (3) P = 6Q
6
So, Q is less than P by 5Q. So, Tanya paid part of the bill.
11
 5Q 
∴ Required percentage =  × 100 % 1
 P  ∴ Part of Bill paid by Veena = T ×
2
 5Q  6 1 3
= × 100 % = × = part
 6Q  11 2 11
1 1 2
= 83 % and part of Bill paid by Amita = T × ×
3 2 3
20. (2) LCM of 32, 40 and 72 = 1440 =
6 1 2 2
× × = part
Remainders, 32 − 10 = 22 11 2 3 11
27. (3) As, this is a men’s singles tournament, so two players 15 11
∴ New ratio = 6 x : x: x
will play a match. Therefore, the number of matches 4 2
will be exactly half of the total number of players in = 24 x : 15x : 22x
each round. = 24 : 15 : 22
So, 1st round : 128 players = 64 matches 33. (1) According to question,
2nd round : 64 players = 32 matches a man earns Rs 20 on the first day and spends Rs 15 on
3rd round : 32 players = 16 matches the next day.
So, he earns Rs 5 in two days.
4th round : 16 players = 8 matches
∴ he will earn Rs 5 × 8 = Rs 40 or 2 × 8 = 16th day
5th round : 8 players = 4 matches On the 17th day be will earn Rs 20 more.
6th round : 4 players = 2 matches So, he will have Rs 40 + Rs 20 = Rs 60 in hand on the
7th round : 2 players = 1 match 17th day.
∴ Total number of matches played during the whole 34. (1) According to question,
event Four substitutes alternate for equal time
= 64 + 32 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 = 1 The game lasts for 90 min
90
= 127 matches ∴ Duration per player = = 22.5 min
4
5
28. (2) Speed downstream = 10 miles in th of an hour 35. (2) Ratio of the capital invested by A, B and C
6
= 20000 × 5 + 15000 × 7 : 20000 × 5 + 16000 × 7
= 12 miles/h
: 20000 × 5 + 26000 × 7
Speed upstream = 12 miles in 90 min
= 205 : 212 : 282
= 8 miles/h
212
12 + 8 ∴ B’s share in total profit = 69900 × = Rs 21200
Rate of current = 699
2
36. (3) Growth rate per thousand = 32 − 11 = 21
= 10 miles/h Growth rate in terms of population increase in per cent
12 − 8
Crew’s rate in still water =  21 
2 = × 100 % = 2.1%
 1000 
= 2 miles/h
37. (3) Since, the difference between two numbers is 1365.
Let the number be x and ( x + 1365).
We know that one of Swamy’s children is a girl.
Then, x + 1365 = 6 x + 15
So, probability of both of Swamy’s children being girls
1 ⇒ 6 x − x = 1365 − 15
=
2 ⇒ 5x = 1350
30. (3) Let the distance of the school from the house be x km. ∴ x = 270
Different in timings = 6 + 6 = 12 min 38. (1) E
12 1
= h= h
60 5
2x 2x 1 A
∴ − =
5 7 5
θ
14 x − 10 x 1
⇒ =
35 5
⇒ 14 x − 10 x = 7 θ
B C D
7 3
⇒ x = = 1 km 20 m 20 m
4 4 40 m
31. (2) The sequence consists of those years that are prime 20
number. So, 2003 is the answer as it is the next prime In ∆ABC, tan θ =
AB
number. 2AB
In ∆CDE, tan θ =
32. (1) Let the number of students studying Physics, Chemistry 20
and Zoology be 4 x, 3x and 5x respectively. 2AB
Increased number in these three disciplines are (150% ⇒ tan θ =
20
of 4 x), (125% of 3x) and (110% of 5x) 20 2AB
 150   125   110  ∴ =
ie,  × 4 x ,  × 3x and  × 5x AB 20
 100   100   100 
⇒ 2AB 2 = 400
15 11
ie, 6 x,
4
x and
2
x ⇒ AB 2 = 200
∴ AB = 200 5 M − 4M
⇒ =9
= 10 2 = 14.14 m 5
∴ 2AB = 2 × 14.14 ∴ M = 45
= 28. 28 m 4
So, Th = × 45 = 36
Height of the two vertical poles are 14.14 m and 5
28.28 m. From Statement II,
39. (1) Meera A M − Th = 9 [from Eq. (i)]
M + Th = 81 …(iii)
3 km 2M = 90
M = 45
C Putting the value of M in Eq. (iii)
B D
4 km 4 km
M + Th = 81
Initial point 3 km ∴ Th = 81 − 45 = 36
Statement III is not sufficient to answer the question
E Sameera because it tells us the difference of temperature on
Monday and Thursday but it not clear from the given
The shortest distance between Meera and Sameera is
statement as to which of the day’s temperature is
AE = AC + CE greater.
= AB 2 + BC 2 + DE 2 + CD 2 44. (4) Let the numbers be x and y.
2 2 2 2 x + y =?
= 3 +4 + 3 +4
Statement I Let x is the greater number
= 9 + 16 + 9 + 16
x−y=6
= 25 + 25 = 5 + 5 Statement II 40% of y = 30% of x
= 10 km 1 1
Statement III x : y = 2: 1
40. (2) Let the number be x. 2 3
According to question, Any two statements will give equations which will be
53x − 35x = 1206 sufficient to solve the question.
⇒ 18 x = 1206 45. (1) Time taken to fill the tank fitted with taps A and B.
∴ x = 67 Statement I Tells the relative efficiency of both the
41. (3) Option (1)= 31 + 10 + 19 + 6 = 66% taps.
Statement II Time taken by A to fill the tank.
Option (2) = 31 + 10 + 19 + 8 + 6 = 74%
Statement III Time taken by B to fill the tank.
Option (3) = 31 + 21 + 10 + 19 = 81% So, statement I and either II or III only can tell the time
Option (4) = 31 + 21 + 19 + 8 = 79% taken by A and B taps to fill the tank. Therefore, option
42. (2) Total number of sectors = 7 (1) is the best answer.
Total profit against the sales across the sectors 46. (2) We have to determine the principal.
= Average profit × 7 Statement I Interest amount after 2 yr
1
= 10 × 7 = 70% 2
1
Profit margin of engineering and CIS = (Interest amount after 5 yr)
= 12 + 20 = 32% 2
Average profit across the remaining sectors Statement II A = P + I
70 − 32 38 PRT
= = = 7 . 6% A=P +
5 5 100
P ×R ×5
43. (2) The temperature on Thursday can be obtained either 750 = P +
statement I or II. 100
From Statement I, Statement III Rate % = 8% per annum
M + Tu + W = 111 The percentage rate given in statement III when put in
statement II answers the question.
Tu + W + Tu = 102
So, II and III only is the answer.
M − Th = 9 …(i) 483 + 475 + 461 + 513
4 47. (3) Average share price = = 483
Th = M …(ii) 4
5
48. (2) Price on last day of September = 535
Putting the value of Th in Eq. (i)
Price on last day of October = 461
4
M− M=9 74 × 100
5 ∴ Drop in sales = = 13. 83%
535
49. (2) It is evident from the graph itself. 1
Statement II (B + C )’s 1 day’s work =
50. (1) Price of 100 shares on 31/8/2005 = 461 × 100 6
= Rs 46100 1 1 2−1 1
C’s 1 day’s work =
− = =
Price of 100 shares on 10/10/2005 6 12 12 12
1 1 1
= 538 × 100 = Rs 53800 ∴ ( A + B + C )’s 1 day’s work = + +
4 12 12
∴ Gain = 53800 − 46100 = Rs 7700 3+ 1 + 1 5
51. (4) According to question, = =
12 12
A + B + C + D = 96 yr 12
( A + B + C ) will complete the work in days.
B’s present age = ? 5
Statement I A + B + D = 20 × 3 = 60 yr So, the data in both the statement’s is necessary to
So, C = 96 − 60 = 36 yr answer the question.
Statement II C + D = 25 × 2 = 50 yr 55. (3) Marine products was the single largest contributor
From (I), C = 36 yr with 23.2%.
D = 50 − 36 = 14 yr 23.2% of $ 6 billion = 1. 392 billion
From the data given in both statements the age of C , D 56. (3) It is roughly evident from the chart that processed
and ( A + B ) can only be determined. fruits and vegetables have shown strong growth in
So, both statements together are not sufficient to exports during the 3 yr period.
answer the question. By calculation,
52. (4) According to question, From 69 to 86, from 1998–99 to 1999–2000
Deepak’s marks in Hindi 69 → 17
 Hindi + Economics + Sociology + Philosophy  17 × 100
=  + 15 100 → = 24. 64%
 4  69
Deepak’s marks in Philosophy = ? From 86 to 122, from 1999–2000 to 2000–01
Statement I Hindi + Philosophy = 112 86 → 36
36 × 100
Statement II Sociology − Economics = 12 100 → = 41. 86%
86
So, both statements together are not sufficient to
determine Deepak’s marks in Philosophy. 57. (3) Cashow nuts → The answer is evident from the table
itself.
58. (3) Import of sugar and cereals has decreased yearwise
CP of suitcase purchased by Richard = ?
because India’s gap in production and requirement of
Statement I Richard got 20% concession on the these commodities has gone down.
Labelled price. 61. (2) Nalini’s brother Nalini
Statement II SP of suitcase = Rs 2000
Nalini’s son Nalini’s daughter
He sold the suitcase with 25% profit on labelled price.
62. (3) P R O M O T I O N
Labelled price ⇒ 125% = 2000 +1 +1 +1
2000 × 100
100% = = 1600 Q S P 89
125
Rs 1600 is the labelled price. D E M O T I O N
+1 +1
So, Richard’s cost price after 20% concession
E F 89
= 80% of 1600
80 63. (1) 6 1 → Player 1 1 → Player 2
= × 1600 = Rs 1280 2 5 6 2 5
100
3 1 4 7 → Player 2 3 1 4 7 → Player 1
So, the data in both the statement’s is necessary to
4 1 9 5 4 1 9 5
answer the question.
54. (3) According to question, 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 4
1 (1) (2)
B’s 1 day’s work =
12 6 2 5 1 6 2 5 1
Time taken by ( A + B + C ) to complete the work = ?
3 1 4 7 3 1 4 7
1
Statement I ( A + B )’s 1 day’s work = 4 1 9 5 → Player 2 4 1 9 5 → Player 1
3
1 1 3 1 2 4 → Player 1 3 1 2 4 → Player 2
A’s 1 day’s work = −
3 12 (3) (4)
4 −1 3 1 The opponent should retain upper, retain lower to
= = =
12 12 4 minimize the gain.
–4 –4 –4
64. (1) 71. (2) This question can be solved by hit and trial method.
Solving option (2), we get
U F Q J M N I
79 − 1 = 78 ⇒ 78 ÷ 3 = 26
26 apples were taken by the 1st boy.
+4 +4
78 − 26 = 52 apples are left.
So, the next letter is I.
52 − 1 = 51 ⇒ 51 ÷ 3 = 17
65. (2) Numbers divisible by 6
17 apples were taken by the 2nd boy.
= 6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, 48, 54, 60 = 10
51 − 17 = 34 apples are left.
Numbers with 6 as one of the digit
34 − 1 = 33 ⇒ 33 ÷ 3 = 11
= 6 , 16, 26, 36 , 46, 56 = 4
11 apples were taken by the 3rd boy.
Numbers with 6 as the sum of its digits 33 − 11 = 22 apples are left.
= 6 , 15, 24 , 33, 42 , 51, 60 = 3 22 − 1 = 21 which is again divisible by 3.
Total of these numbers = 10 + 4 + 3 = 17 72. (3) All chilli are vegetables. Salt belongs to a different
∴ Number of integers which are not connected with 6 category.
= 60 − 17 = 43
66. (3) Leena paddled only once on the return trip, when she
was alone. Nitin paddled once with Arun and Arun
paddled once when he was with somebody else than
73. (2) Students of Law and students of Science belong to
Nitin. So, only Mohan is the person left. He paddled
different category. But both of them are men.
twice.
67. (4) A(M) + F(F) D(M) + B(F)
Doctor Engineer Doctor Engineer

Q. (74–78)
The given numbers are arranged in descending order.
C(Boy) + F(Girl) G(Girl)
G’s father is D. F’s father is A. 74. (4) Input : 09 25 16 30 32 18 17 06
E’s daughter is F. Step I : 32 09 25 16 30 18 17 06
So, C is A’s son. Step II : 32 30 09 25 16 18 17 06
68. (3) The first month of second half of the year is July. Step III : 32 30 25 09 16 18 17 06
According to question, 75. (1) Input : 16 09 25 27 06 05
Every letter placed at even number
Step I : 27 16 09 25 06 05
ie, 2, 4, 6, 8, …… in the English alphabet is written in
Step II : 27 25 16 09 06 05
lower case.
So, step II is the last step of this Input.
j U l Y
76. (1) Input : 25 08 35 11 88 67 23
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ Step I : 88 25 08 35 11 67 23
10 21 12 25 Step II : 88 67 25 08 35 11 23
⇒ jUlY Step III : 88 67 35 25 08 11 23
69. (4) Let the two unequal number of coins be x and y. Step IV : 88 67 35 25 23 08 11
Then, according to question, Step V : 88 67 35 25 23 11 08
48 ( x − y ) = x 2 − y 2 77. (4) Input : 03 31 43 22 11 09
48 ( x − y ) = ( x + y )( x − y ) Step I : 43 03 31 22 11 09
( x − y )( x + y ) − 48 ( x − y ) = 0 Step II : 43 31 03 22 11 09
( x − y )( x + y − 48) = 0 Step III : 43 31 22 03 11 09
But x−y≠0 (Since, x ≠ y ) Step IV : 43 31 22 11 03 09
∴ x + y − 48 = 0 Step V : 43 31 22 11 09 03
∴ x + y = 48 Step V will be the last step for the input below.
So, the merchant has 48 gold coins. 78. (4) The previous step or input cannot be determined in
70. (1) The businessman earns Re 1 on day 1. these type of questions.
Day 1 → Re 1 79. (3) A + B ≠ C − D
Day 2 → Rs 2 A is the mother of B.
Day 3 → Rs 22 B is the father of C.
∴ Day 10 → Rs 29 C is the brother of D.
A(F) Pun is the clever or humorous use of a word that has
↓ more than one meaning or of words that have different
B(M) meanings but sound the same. Sarcastic is an
↓ expression or way of using words that are opposite of
C (M) ↔ D(M / F) what you mean in order to be unpleasant to somebody.
So, option (1) expresses the same relationship as the
So, A is D’s Grandmother.
original pair.
80. (2) By hit and trial method,
91. (2) Arena is an area of activity that concerns the public,
A * B#C * D − E especially one where there is a lot of opposition or
A is the sister of B. conflict. Forum is a place where discussion takes place
B is the father of C. and people can exchange opinion or ideas. So, option
C is the sister of D. (2) expresses the same relationship.
D is the brother of E. 92. (3) Hierarchy is a system in which people are ranked into
A(F) ←→ B(M) different levels of importance from highest to lowest.
Similarly, chronology is the order in which a series of
↓
events happen.
C (F) ←→ D(M) ←→ E(M / F)
93. (4) The third paragraph of the passage refers to option (1)
So, A is the aunt of E.
and (2) whereas the fourth paragraph refers to option
81. (2) The beginning of the second paragraph and the (3).
concluding sentence given in the last paragraph of the
94. (2) The first sentence of the second paragraph clearly
passage clearly tells us that this passage explains the
indicates that option (2) is the correct answers.
influence of river settlements on the growth of early
civilizations. 95. (1) The third paragraph clearly tells us about the thesis put
forward by the author regarding squatters.
82. (2) As the passage tells us that the rivers became the
driving force because they produced fertile lands and 96. (1) The major portion of the passage is about the squatters
attracted settlers armed with new techniques of of Kiebera. So, option (2) and (3) cannot be the
agriculture. The passage also tells us that migration appropriate title. Only one paragraph talks about the
was further encouraged by the transformation of future of squatters but it doesn’t talk about their
grasslands into desert. socio-economic condition in future. So, (1) is the most
So, option (2) is the answer. appropriate title for the passage.
83. (2) This has been mentioned in the last part of fourth 97. (3) Charlatan is a person who claims to have knowledge or
paragraph in the given passage. skills that he doesn’t possess. So he deceives others.
84. (1) The last part of the second paragraph and the Renegade is a person who opposes and lives outside a
beginning of the third paragraph clearly tells that group or society that he used to belong to. Sycophant is
option (1) is the correct answer. a person who praises important or powerful people in a
way that is not sincere, to get something from them.
85. (2) The fifth paragraph of the passage tells us that option
(2) is the correct answer. 98. (4) Option (2) and (3) are positive options, so they cannot
be the answer. The sentence is given in past tense, so
86. (4) As the passage discusses about the techniques of
option (1) cannot be the answer.
agriculture and other aspects related to it. So, the
emergence of complex civilizations in the Middle East 99. (2) ‘Consistent with’ is the correct use.
was dependent upon the previous development of 100. (1) Facetious means trying to appear amusing and
basic techniques of agriculture according to passage. intelligent at a time when other people do not think
87. (3) The last paragraph of the passage clearly tells that that it is appropriate and when it would be better to be
option (3) is the correct answers. serious.
So, serious is the correct antonym of the given word.
88. (4) Askance means to look at or react to somebody/
something with suspicion or doubt or in a critical way. 102. (2) Writing on the wall is an idiom used for an obvious
So, option (1) and (3) cannot be corelated to the truth.
meaning. Quizzical expressions shows that a person is 103. (2) As the sentence beings with although, so it will have
slightly surprised or amused. So, option (2) is also not words that are contrary to each other. So, (2) is the
related. Therefore, option (4) is the answer. correct answer because (1) and (3) are not contrary
89. (1) Virtuoso is a person who is extremely skilful at doing words. In option (4) confused is not exactly contrary to
something, especially playing a musical instrument. So the word pleased.
he is a skilled performer. Amateur is a person who is 104. (2) Brook is a small river. Similarly, path is the smaller
not skilled. Profession is a person who does something form of a highway.
as a paid job rather than as a hobby. 105. (2) An adverb modifies the meaning of a verb or adjective
90. (1) Nuance is a very slight difference in meaning, sound or another adverb. An adjective modifies a noun or a
colour or somebody’s feeling that is not usually very pronoun.
obvious. Subtle is also not very noticeable or obvious. So, ‘But’ in this sentence is a preposition.
106. (2) Quotation mark will be used to list the items together. 114. (1) “a year” is the correct use, inspite of the first sound of
107. (3) “For becoming pharmacist” would have been the pronunciation of the word ‘year’ being a vowel.
correct use. “……… my brother was one” is a faulty 115. (3) ‘The’ is used before such common nouns that are
reference by pronoun. names of things and are unique. For Ex.—the sun, the
108. (1) “The team” is a singular term. Hence, the first sentence moon, the sky, the earth etc.
is wrong and the second sentence is correct. 116. (2) The word ‘honourable’ starts with a consonant but its
first sound of pronunciation is a vowel. So, an is used.
109. (2) “Heavy black” should be used in place of “black heavy”.
117. (4) Article is not used before abstract nouns that express
110. (2) “Had been dead” is a wrong use for corpse because it
qualities, state, feeling, actions.
implies that it would come alive. The correct use
should be “had been lying” or “had been there”. 118. (4) “In summer 2000 ………” is an ideal introductory
sentence. “A year later ………” clearly succeeds the
111. (3) Except sentence (3), there is some sort of comparison matter discussed in sentence ‘0’. “Plan until 2011
in all other sentences. ………” is the concluding sentence.
112. (4) As James is a subject, so verb in singular number. The 119. (2) The paragraph clearly expresses the idea that EPF is an
correct sentence is — Neither James nor his lawyers inefficient organisation.
was there. 120. (4) The above paragraph clearly summarises that more
113. (4) When a sentence is written in indirect speech, the money is going to water resource management projects
reported speech’s verb should be in past tense. of poorer states as it is their requirement.
Crack SNAP 1
ENTRANCE PATTERN
The duration for making answers will be 2 hours. Normally the pattern of written test is as follows.
Sections
I. General English II. Quantitative Aptitude, Data Interpretation & Sufficiency
III. Analytical and Logical Reasoning IV. General Awareness
Important Instructions
1. Calculator/Watch calculator will not be allowed in the examination Hall.
2. Use only HB Pencils for darkening the ovals.
3. Correct method of Marking Answers
Each questions is followed by four answer choices which are marked a, b, c, d on the answer sheet. Using HB Pencil, darken the oval bearing the correct
answer against the serial number of the question.
For example : If the answer to question number 2 is (4), you should mark as shown below
Q. 2. (1) (2) (3) (4)
< General English

Directions (Q. 1-5) In the following questions, each word in 6. NEBULOUS
capital letters is followed by four words or phrases. Choose the (1) Concrete (2) Unkind
one which is similiar in meaning to the word. (3) Undramatic (4) Uninteresting
1. ACCOUTREMENTS 7. PENCHANT
(1) Relatives (2) Companions (1) Disinclination (2) Lone
(3) Blemishes (4) Belongings (3) Directness (4) Lack of skill
2. AZURE 8. PERFUNCTORY
(1) Blue (2) Green (1) Quick (2) Slow
(3) Brown (4) Round and big (3) Careful (4) Loud
3. DEFILE 9. TRANSIENT
(1) Pollute (2) Disapprove (1) Urgent (2) Youthful
(3) Delay (4) Reveal (3) Original (4) Eternal
4. HIATUS 10. SUBLIME
(1) Atrocious (2) Gap (1) Base (2) Concise
(3) Dominance (4) Obscure (3) Partial (4) Insist
5. ZEAL
Directions (Q. 11-15) Fill in the blanks with suitable words.
(1) Initiative (2) Coarseness
(3) Pedagogy (4) Indolence 11. The scholar was so ………… in his field that many of our
Directions (Q. 6-10) In the following questions, words in professors became nervous in his presence.
capital letters are followed by four words. Choose the word (1) eminent (2) pathological
that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the given words. (3) petulant (4) amiable
4 SNAP Mock Test 1
12. If you do not …………, all your monthly expenses would 22. For years, nuclear-power advocates have claimed that
exceed your income. nuclear power is the most .............. form of energy
(1) economise (2) spend available, but in light of a few facts, one begins to ..............
(3) save (4) splurge this claim.
13. The cost of this operation has ………… our small store of (1) cheap, support
(2) useful, question
money.
(3) expensive, contest
(1) destroyed (2) damaged
(4) economical, doubt
(3) depleted (4) affected
14. He had taken the shocking news quietly, neither ………… Directions (Q. 23-25) In the following sentences, parts of
the sentences are left blank, choose the best answer among
fate nor uttering any word of bitterness.
the four given option.
(1) submitting to (2) railing against
(3) conspiring with (4) dissenting from 23. The interest generated by the soccer world cup is (1)
15. Criticism that tears down without suggesting areas of compared to the way cricket (2) the nation.
improvement is not ………… and should be avoided if (1) milder, fascinates
possible. (2) lukewarm, electrifies
(3) tepid, inspires
(1) constructive (2) mandatory
(4) milder, gripes
(3) pertinent (4) sagacious
24. The telephone symbolises that awkward (1) in all
Directions (Q. 16-18) The questions given below have an communication technologies; while it (2) to bring us
idiomatic expression followed by four options. Choose the
together it keeps us apart.
option that is closest in meaning to the given idiomatic
expressions. (1) paradox, needs (2) irony, intends
(3) paradox, tries (4) irony, wishes
16. To smell a rat
25. The argument that the need for a looser fiscal policy to (1)
(1) Signs of plague epidemic
demand outweights the need to (2) budget deficits is
(2) Bad smell
persuasive.
(3) Suspect foul dealings
(1) assess, minimise (2) stimulate, control
(4) To be in a bad mood
(3) outtrip, eliminate (4) increase, hide
17. Right-hand man
(1) An honest person Direction (Q. 26) Identify the grammatically INCORRECT
(2) Most efficient assistant option.
(3) One who cannot use his left hand 26. (1) The meeting has been preponed by a week.
(4) A foolish person (2) Either you or Ram is going to look after it.
18. Bad blood (3) The argument explains neither what went wrong nor
(1) Infected blood (2) Ill-feeling how it should be put right.
(3) Unfaithful (4) Suspicion (4) Customers want not only good service but also
Directions (Q. 19-20) Select the pair of words from the courtesy.
given options that best expresses a relationship SIMILAR to the Directions (Q. 27-30) Choose the word from the following
pair in CAPITAL letters. that does NOT match with two given words.
19. Objurgate : Obsecrate 27. Wonderful, Fabulous
(1) abdicate : abrogate (1) Superb (2) Superlative
(2) renegade : relegate (3) Great (4) Splendid
(3) chide : supplicate 28. Inordinate, Huge
(4) obfuscate : obligate (1) Excessive (2) Considerable
20. Restless : Restive (3) Insatiable (4) Enormous
(1) flammable : inflammable 29. Laconic, Succinct
(2) imminent : eminent (1) Terse (2) Brief
(3) haunted : hunted (3) Concise (4) Abrupt
(4) oculist : occultist
30. Obtuse, Unintelligent
Directions (Q. 21-22) Fill in the blanks with the option that (1) Developmentally disabled person
has the MOST APPROPRIATE set of words. (2) An illogical argument
(3) A careless calculation
21. Children whose .............. survives parental discipline and
(4) An unreasonable demand
who manage to grow up before they blow up are invited to
.............. the university faculty. Directions (Q. 31-35) Read the following passage and
(1) inquisitiveness, visit answer the following questions.
(2) interest, address I met a traveller from an antique land who said : “Two vast
(3) curiosity, join and trunkless legs of stone stand in the desert. Near them on the
(4) inquiry, join sand, Half sunk, a shattered visage lies, whose frown and wrinkled
Mock Test 1 SNAP 5
lip and sneer of cold command tell that its sculptor well those 35. The term visage implies
passions read which yet survive, stamped on those lifeless things, (1) image (2) vision
The band that mocked them and heart that fed and on the (3) sculptor (4) face
pedestral these words appear : Directions (Q. 36-40) In these sentence, each sentence has
‘My name is Ozymandias, king of kings : four underlined words or phrases marked with A, B, C and D.
Lock on my words, yet mighty, and despair!’ Choose one word or phrase that must be changed for the
Nothing beside remains, Round the decay. Of that colossal sentence to be correct.
wreck, boundless and bare, The lone and level sand stretch far 36. Bangalore is a beautiful city (A) which in (B) people have
away.” successfully blended (C) the modern with (D) the
31. From the poem, one can infer that Ozymandias was traditional.
(1) A tyrant (2) A megalomaniac (1) A (2) B
(3) A benign ruler (4) An egoist (3) C (4) D
32. Which of the following expressions could be considered as 37. The ways of (A) travelling has changed (B) dramatically
the central theme of the poem ? since (C) the late nineteenth century (D).
(1) Pride goes before a fall (1) A (2) B
(2) Time and tide wait for no men (3) C (4) D
(3) Ashes to Ashes dust to dust 38. Usually (A) the climate in mountainous areas becomes
(4) None of the above much (B) windy (C) at higher (D) altitudes.
(1) A (2) B
33. The attitude of the traveller towards Ozymandias is one of
(3) C (4) D
(1) Pity (2) Defence
(3) Indifference (4) Derision 39. Schools in India can be supported (A) either by government
budgets (B) and (C) by private foundations (D).
34. Why are Ozymandias works no longer there for all to see ? (1) A (2) B
(1) He never constructed any great monuments or (3) C (4) D
structures
40. No sooner had he (A) come from Mumbai when (B) he was
(2) Construction in a desert is never permanent
asked (C) to proceed to (D) Delhi.
(3) His works could not stand the vagaries of time (1) A (2) B
(4) None of the above (3) C (4) D
< Quantitative Aptitude, Data Interpretation and Sufficiency

41. Dimensions of a cuboid are 25 cm × 20 cm × 4 cm. The 45. If a and b are the roots of the equation x 2 − 6 x + 6 = 0,
volume of a cube is half the volume of the cuboid. Then,
then the value of a2 + b2 is
total surface of such a cube is
(1) 400 cm 2 (2) 600 cm 2 (1) 36 (2) 24
2 (3) 12 (4) 6
(3) 800 cm (4) 1200 cm 2
46. There are 6 parallel vertical lines and 7 parallel horizontal
42. A tree 6 m tall casts a 4 m long shadow. At the same time, a
flag pole casts a shadow 50 m long. How long is the flag lines. These two groups of parallel lines intersect each
pole ? other. How many parallelograms will be formed ?
(1) 75 m (2) 100 m (1) 294 (2) 42
(3) 150 m (4) 50 m (3) 315 (4) None of these
43. If P is a number between 0 and 1, which one of the 47. What is the missing figure in the expression given below ?
following is true ? 16 16 * 9 9 9
× − × + × =1
1 7 7 7 7 7 7
(1) P > P (2) > P
P2 (1) 1 (2) 7
1
(3) P < (4) P 3 > P 2 (3) 4.57 (4) 32
P
48. If P is a prime number greater than 3, then (P 2 − 1) is
44. How can the relationship between x and y be best defined,
always divisible by
if values of x and y are as follows ?
(1) 6 but not 12 (2) 24
x 2 3 4 5 6 (3) 12 but not 24 (4) None of these
y 0 2 6 12 20 49. Pintoo gave some cards to Mintoo and himself from a full
pack of playing cards and laid the rest aside. Pintoo then
(1) y = 2 x − 4
said to Mintoo “If you give me a certain number of your
(2) y = x 2 − 3x + 2
cards, I will have 4 times as many cards as you have. If I give
(3) y = x 2 − 4 x you the same number of cards, I will have thrice as many
(4) y = x 2 − 4 cards you have”. How many cards Pintoo has ?
6 SNAP Mock Test 1
(1) 31 (2) 32 59. What is the area of the region in the cartesian plane whose
(3) 29 (4) 30 points ( x, y ) satisfy| x | + | y | + | x + y | ≤ 2 ?
50. A number of points are marked on a plane and are (1) 2.5 sq unit (2) 3 sq unit
connected pairwise by line segment. If the total number of (3) 2 sq unit (4) 4 sq unit
line segment is 10, how many points are marked on the 60. In a triangle ABC, the length of the sides AB, AC and BC are
plane ? 3, 5 and 6 cm respectively. If a point D on BC is drawn such
(1) 4 (2) 10 that the line AD bisects the angle A internally, then what is
(3) 5 (4) 9 the length of BD ?
51. A sum of money becomes eight times in 3 years, if the rate is (1) 2 cm (2) 2.25 cm
compounded annually. In how much time the same amount (3) 2.5 cm (4) 3 cm
at the same compound interest will become sixteen times ? 61. The length of a string between a kite and a point on the
(1) 6 yr (2) 4 yr ground is 85 m. If the string makes an angle θ with the level
(3) 8 yr (4) 5 yr ground such that tan θ = 15/8, then how much high is the
P +Q P kite ?
52. What is the value of , if = 7 ?
P −Q Q (1) 78.05 m (2) 75 m
4 2 (3) 316 m (4) 226 m
(1) (2)
3 3 62. A sequence is generated by the rule that the xth term is
2 7 x 2 + 1 for each positive integer x. In this sequence, for any
(3) (4)
6 8 value x > 1, the value of ( x + 1)th term less than the value
53. The dimension of a rectangular room when increased by 4 of xth term is
m are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and when decreased by 4 m are in (1) 2 x 2 + 1 (2) x 2 + 1
the ratio of 2 : 1. The dimensions of the room are (3) 2 x + 1 (4) x + 2
(1) 6 m and 4 m (2) 12 m and 8 m
63. The areas of three adjacent faces of a cuboid are a , b and c.
(3) 16 m and 12 m (4) 24 m and 16 m
If the volume of the cuboid is V, then V 2 is equal to
54. Two trains each of 120 m length, run in opposite directions (1) abc (2) (ab + bc + ca)
with a velocity of 40 m/s and 20 m/s. How long will it take (3) c / ab (4) None of these
for the tail end of the two trains to meet each other during
64. A batsman makes a scores of 98 runs in the 19th innings
the course of travel ?
and thus increases his average by 4. What is his average
(1) 2 s (2) 3 s
after 19th innings ?
(3) 4 s (4) 5 s
(1) 22 (2) 24
55. ‘A’ can do a piece of work in 25 days, ‘B’ in 20 days. They (3) 28 (4) 26
work together for 5 days and then ‘A’ goes away. In how
65. Three partners altogether invested Rs 114000 in a business.
many days will ‘B’ finish the remaining work ? At the end of the year, one got Rs 337.50, the second Rs
(1) 17 days (2) 11 days 1125.00 and the third Rs 675. What is the percentage of
(3) 10 days (4) None of these profit ?
56. P , Q and R are the three towns on a river which flows (1) 4.8% (2) 3.8%
uniformly. Q is equidistant from P and R . I row from P to Q (3) 1.8% (4) 2.8%
and back in 10 hours and I can row from P to R in 4 hours.
Directions (Q. 66-67) The table given below shows the
Compare the speed of my boat in still water that of the river thermal and hydel generation from the period 2004-2008 in
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 5 : 3 terms of kWh per kW of installed capacity
(3) 6 : 5 (4) 7 : 3
Year Thermal Hydel
4
57. If G = H + , then L equals 2004 4000 4240
L
2005 4200 4010
4
(1) (2) 4(G − H )2 2006 4020 4160
(G − H )2
2007 4050 3700
4
(3) (4) 4(G 2 − H 2 ) 2008 4040 3930
(G 2 − H 2 )
66. The ratio of thermal and hydel installed capacity over the
58. The average score of boys in an examination of a school is period 2004–2008 is nearly
71 and that of the girls is 73. The average score of the (1) 1 : 1 (2) 203 : 200
school in that examination is 71.8, find the ratio of the (3) 20 : 21 (4) 10 : 11
number of boys to the number of girls that appeared in the 67. The average kWh generated per kW of installed capacity for
examination hydel power generation was approximately
(1) 4 : 5 (2) 3 : 2 (1) 4100 (2) 3820
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 5 : 2 (3) 4000 (4) 4050
Mock Test 1 SNAP 7
Directions (Q. 68-71) Answer these questions from the
Index of Sales, Cost and Profit (1990 = 100)
data presented in the figure below. 200
190
FEI for a country in a year is the ratio of its foreign equity 188 188
180
inflows to its GDP. The following figure shows the FEI for select 162 173
Asian countries for the years 2007 and 2008. 152 154 173 166
160
153 143 163
10.67 136
12 9.92 140
125 125 124 143
134 130
10 131
120
120 121 110 110
100 105 115
8 9.95 5.82 100 110
100
5.09 100
6 4.8 98 95 95
80
2.5 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000
4 1.71 2.16
0.72 Sales Cost Profit
2
Profit = Sales – Cost –Tax Gross Profit = Sales – Cost
0
India China Malaysia S. Korea Thailand
72. If the profit was Rs 600 in 1993, then what was the profit in
68. The country with the largest change in FEI in 2008 relative 1990 ?
(1) Rs 441 (2) Rs 395
to its FEI in 2007 is
(3) Rs 480 (4) Rs 545
(1) India (2) China
73. If base of the profit index is changed to 1993 = 100, then
(3) Malaysia (4) Thailand
what would be the index of profit for the year 2000 ?
69. Based on the data provided, it can be concluded that (1) 104 (2) 100
(1) absolute value of foreign equity inflows in 2008 was (3) 109 (4) None of these
higher than that in 2007 for both Thailand and South 74. If sales were Rs 1200 crore in 1990, then what were the
Korea. total sales in the period 1990 –1995 ?
(2) absolute value of foreign equity inflows was higher in (1) Rs 8628 crore (2) Rs 9828 crore
2008 for Thailand and lower for China than the (3) Rs 9156 crore (4) Rs 8136 crore
corresponding values in 2007. 75. What was the difference between the average sales index
(3) absolute value of foreign equity flows was lower in and average cost index ?
2008 for both India and China than the corresponding (1) 7.3 (2) 7.7
values in 2007. (3) 7.5 (4) 7.9
(4) None of the above can be inferred. Directions (Q. 76-80) Study the following Pie-chart
70. It is known that China’s GDP in 2008 was 7% higher than its carefully and answer the questions given below.
value in 2007, while India’s GDP grew by 2% during the Survey conducted on 10500 people find out Various
same period. The GDP of South Korea, on the other hand, Professionals in the town and percentage of Female Professionals
fell by 5%. Justify the correct statement from the following amongst them
I. Foreign equity inflows to China were higher in 2008 Various Professionals = 10500
than in 2007.
II. Foreign equity inflows to China were lower in 2008
than in 2007. Designers
Engineers
16%
III. Foreign equity inflows to South Korea increased in 18%
2008 relative to 2007. Doctors
(1) I, II, III (2) I, II 21%
(3) I, III (4) II, III rs
he
71. China’s foreign equity inflows in 2008 were 10 times than ac
Te %
into India. It can be concluded that 15
(1) China’s GDP in 2008 was 40% higher than that of
India. Percentage of Female Professionals
(2) China’s GDP in 2008 was 70% higher than that of Doctors 20% Architects 40% Lawyers 40%
India. Engineers 60% Teachers 80% Designers 35%
(3) China’s GDP in 2008 was 50% higher than that of
India. 76. What is the ratio of the male Engineers and Designers to the
(4) None of the above same occupation female professionals in the town ?
Directions (Q. 72-75) Study the following graph to answer (1) 41 : 44 (2) 44 : 41
these questions. (3) 35 : 44 (4) 44 : 35
8 SNAP Mock Test 1
77. The total number of Lawyers in town is approximately what 79. Female Doctors are what per cent of the female Teachers in
per cent of the total number of Doctors in the town ? the town ?
(1) 95 (2) 98 (1) 42 (2) 28
(3) 90 (4) 85 (3) 15 (4) 35
78. What is the difference between the total number of male 80. What is the ratio of the number of male Architects to the
and female professionals in the town ? number of male Teachers in the town ?
(1) 1284 (2) 1134 (1) 11 : 5 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 1054 (4) 1164 (3) 5 : 11 (4) 2 : 3

81. How many meaningful words can be formed with the 89. If B and C are chosen, which one is true ?
letters EAML ? P : A is chosen.
(1) 1 (2) 3 Q : D is chosen.
(3) 4 (4) 2 R : Either F or G is choose.
82. If ‘light’ is called ‘morning’, ‘morning’ is called ‘dark’, ‘dark’ (1) P only (2) Q only
is called ‘night’, ‘night’ is called ‘sunshine’ and ‘sunshine’ is (3) R only (4) Q and R only
called ‘dusk’, when do we sleep ? 90. If G is rejected, which other member could not work with
(1) Dusk (2) Dark the group ?
(3) Night (4) Sunshine (1) A (2) B
83. If ‘CIGARETTE’ is coded as ‘GICERAETT’, then ‘DIRECTION’ (3) D (4) F
will be coded in 91. If B is chosen, who else would have to be in the group ?
(1) IRDCTIONE (2) NOIETCRID (1) F (2) G
(3) RIDTCENOI (4) NORTECDII (3) A (4) C
84. If ‘SMOOTH’ is coded as ‘135579’, ‘ROUGH’ as ‘975531’ and Directions (Q. 92-94) Choose the exact number for the
‘HARD’ as 9498, then ‘SOFT’ will be coded as question mark quadrant.
(1) 1527 (2) 1347
(3) 4998 (4) 8949 7 2 9 1 5 –2
85. A man travels 3 km to the West, turns left and goes 3 km, 92.
turns right and goes 1 km, again turns right and goes 3 km. 42 3 18 2 ? –3
How far is he from the starting point ?
(1) 7 km (2) 6 km (1) 13 (2) 18
(3) 5 km (4) 4 km (3) 30 (4) –30
86. A’s mother is sister of ‘B’ and has a daughter ‘C’. How can ‘A’
be related to ‘B’ from among the following ? 2 3 5 1 4 3
(1) Niece (2) Uncle 93.
(3) Daughter (4) Father 30 5 –5 –1 ? –1
87. Showing a lady in the park, Vineet said; ‘‘She is the
daughter of my grandfather’s only son’’. How is Vineet (1) 7 (2) –12
related to that lady ? (3) 12 (4) 9
(1) Father (2) Son
(3) Brother (4) Mother
–1 1 3 2 4 3
88. In a row at a bus stop, A is the 7th from the left and B is 9th 94.
from the right. Both of them interchange their position and –1 0 6 5 12 ?
so, A becomes 11th from the left. Find the number of
peoples in that row. (1) 8 (2) 11
(1) 18 (2) 19 (3) 7 (4) 9
(3) 20 (4) 21 95. Which of the following diagrams shows the last relation
Directions (Q. 89-91) The below 3 questions are to be between anti-social elements, pick pockets and black
solve on the basis of following informations. marketer ?
A five member research group is to be chosen from
mathematicians A, B, C and D and the physicists E, F, G and H. It is (1) (2)
declared that group must has 3 mathematicians. However,
A refuses to work with D.
B refuses to work with E.
F refuses to work with G. (3) (4)
D refuses to work with F.
Mock Test 1 SNAP 9
Directions (Q. 96-99) : In the following four questions, 105. T S
identify the one which is out of place. W D
3 15
96. 10 ?
J P
(1) (2) (3) (4) T G
(1) 11 (2) 5
(3) 9 (4) 13
97. 106. F G
P N
(1) (2) (3) (4) 22 21
15 ?
J P
98. E K
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) 7 (2) 27

(3) 16 (4) 26
Directions (Q. 107-109) In an imaginary language, the
digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 are substituted by a, b, c,
99. d, e, f, g, h, i and j. If 10 is written as ba, then find the value in
the questions given below.
(1) (2) (3) (4) 107. (cd + ef ) × bc is equal to
(1) 684 (2) 816
100. Five newly born babies were weighed by doctor. She (3) 916 (4) 1564
noticed that child A is lighter than child B. Child C is lighter 108. (dc × f ) − (bf − d ) × d is equal to
than D. Child B is lighter than child D, but heavier than (1) bce (2) bcf
child E. Which child is the heaviest one ? (3) abe (4) abb
(1) E (2) C 109. baf ÷ bf × d is equal to
(3) D (4) A (1) dc (2) be
101. Among four friends, Senthill is twice the age of Karthik (3) cb (4) df
Gopi is one and a half times younger than Karthik. Bala is 110. Three views of the same cube are shown below :
six years elder to Karthik, but six years younger to Senthil.
Who is the eldest ? ?
(1) Senthil (2) Karthik
(3) Bala (4) Gopi The figure on the face opposite the triangle is
Directions (Q. 102-103) From the sets of number in the (1) Pentagon (2) Circle
four alternatives given below, which is the most similiar to the (3) Question mark (4) Rectangle
given set. Directions (Q. 111-113) In these questions, select the odd
102. Given set : (6, 15, 28) one out.
(1) (50, 59, 71) (2) (46, 56, 66)
(3) (60, 69, 72) (4) (60, 69, 82) 111.
103. Given set : (81, 77, 69)
(1) (56, 52, 44) (2) (64, 61, 53) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(3) (92, 88, 79) (4) (75, 71, 60) (1) B (2) A
104. In a certain coding system, RBM STD BRO PUS means ‘the (3) D (4) C
cat is beautiful’. TNH PUS DIM STD means ‘the dog is
brown’. PUS DIM BRO PUS CUS means ‘the dog has the cat’. 112.
What is the code for ‘has’ ?
(1) CUS (2) BRO (A) (B) (C) (D)
(3) DIM (4) STD (1) C (2) D
Directions (Q. 105-106) Find out the missing number in (3) B (4) A
place of ?
113.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

10 SNAP Mock Test 1
(1) C (2) A is sister of B who is son of C and belongs to family Y. G is father of
(3) B (4) D H and husband of K. D is father of B. A and K travel in Car I only
Directions (Q. 114-115) Read the statement and answer with H. E and B do not travel in the same car. G and C travel in Car
the questions. II. B does not travel with D or F. J does not travel with F.
116. Which of the following group of people represent one
A cube is coloured green on all sides. It is cut into 125
complete family ?
smaller cubes of equal size.
(1) GJF (2) GKF
114. How many cubes are not coloured on any face ? (3) GKH (4) AJH
(1) 30 (2) 23
117. How is J related to F ?
(3) 27 (4) 35
(1) Father (2) Brother
115. How many cubes are coloured on three faces ? (3) Son (4) Cannot be determined
(1) 12 (2) 8
118. How is H related to K ?
(3) 16 (4) 18
(1) Daughter (2) Son
Directions (Q. 116-120) Study the following information (3) Mother (4) Cannot be determined
carefully to answer these questions. 119. Four members travel in which Car ?
Three families X, Y and Z comprising of ten members A, B, (1) Car I (2) Car II
C, D, E, F, G, H, J and K. Each family has at least three members (3) Car III (4) Car I or II
with at least one male and one female. They travel in three cars I, 120. Which of the following combination of family and its
II and III in such a way that at least three members travel in each members is correct ?
car and all the members of any of the families do not travel (1) X-A, F, H (2) Y-G, K, H
together. At least one female and one male travel in each car. (3) Z-A, J, F (4) Y-C, D, E, B
A is wife of J and mother of F and they belong to family X, E
< General Awareness

121. Who of the following wrote the book ‘‘PRECEPTS OF 127. The Civil Disobedience Movement started with which of the
JESUS’’ ? following ?
(1) Raja Rammohan Roy (1) No-tax in Barodoli district
(2) Devendranath Tagore (2) Demonstration of Akali Sikhs at Nabha
(3) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar (3) Demonstration against the Simon Commission
(4) Keshab Chandra Sen (4) Dandi March
122. In the middle of the year 2008 the Parliament of which one 128. Who was the Governor-General of the East India Company
of the following countries became the first in the world to when the Revolt of 1857 took place ?
enact a climate Act by passing ‘‘The Climate Change (1) Lord Bentinck (2) Lord Hastings
(3) Lord Dalhousie (4) Lord Canning
Accountability Bill’’.
(1) Australia (2) Canada 129. Which of the following in human body manufacture the
(3) Germany (4) Japan antibodies that are responsible for immunity ?
(1) Muscle cells (2) Nerve cells
123. Among the following, who was not a co-founder of NAM ?
(3) Red blood cells (4) White blood cells
(1) Gamal Abodel Nasser
130. Which of the following enzymes is produced by the salivary
(2) Josip Broz Tito
glands ?
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru
(1) Pepsin (2) Ptyalin
(4) Yasser Arafat
(3) Rennin (4) Trypsin
124. Where shall the 16th Asian Games, 2010 be held ? 131. Which one of the following locations does not have a steel
(1) Kuala Lumpur (2) Guangzhou plant of SAIL ?
(3) Hanoi (4) Ho Chi Minh City (1) Bhilai (2) Bokaro
125. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer (3) Rourkela (4) Visakhapatnam
of petroleum in South America ? 132. Which one of the following is not a member of ASEAN ?
(1) Brazil (2) Venezuela (1) Brunei Darussalam (2) East Timor
(3) Columbia (4) Argentina (3) Laos (4) Myanmar
126. What was the name of the party formed by Subhash 133. Which one of the following countries produces phalcon
Chandra Bose after leaving Indian National Congress ? airborne warning and control systems (AWACS) ?
(1) Congress Socialist Party (1) India (2) Israel
(2) Forward Bloc (3) Russia (4) USA
(3) Indian National Conference 134. How is international personality Zadie Smith well-known
(4) Swaraj Party as ?
Mock Test 1 SNAP 11
(1) Environmentalist 149. The ‘Manu Smriti’ mainly deals with
(2) Human Rights activist (1) Social order (2) Laws
(3) Litterateur (3) Economics (4) State-Craft
(4) Musician 150. Who sent ‘Hieun Tsang’ as an envoy to Harsh’s Court ?
135. For which one of the following States, is Guwahati High (1) Tai Tsung (2) Tung-Khan
court not its high court ? (3) Ku Yen-Wu (4) None of these
(1) Arunachal Pradesh (2) Meghalaya 151. Lord Macaulay is associated with
(3) Mizoram (4) Sikkim (1) Reforms in Army
136. Which of the following has/have velocity equal to that of (2) Abolition of Sati system
light ? (3) English education
(1) X-ray (2) γ-ray (4) Permanent Settlement
(3) Ultraviolet (4) All of these
152. Who were directly related to the Poona Pact of 1932 ?
137. The Narmada and Tapti rivers flank (1) Indian women
(1) Vindhyan Mountains (2) Satpura Ranges (2) Indian Labour class
(3) Rajmahal Hills (4) Aravalli Hills
(3) Indian farmers
138. Silvassa is the capital of (4) Indian depressed classes
(1) Daman and Diu
153. At present in the Constitution of India ‘Right to Property’
(2) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
is a
(3) Lakshadweep
(1) Fundamental right
(4) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Legal right
139. Special Economic Zone Act was passed in (3) Moral right
(1) May 2005 (2) February 2005
(3) May 2006 (4) February 2006
154. Who was the Nationalist Leader to be elected as Speaker of
140. Jaduguda is famous for
the Legislative Assembly in 1925 ?
(1) Iron ore (2) Manganese
(1) Motilal Nehru
(3) Gold (4) Uranium
(2) Vitthal Bhai Patel
141. Which one of the following is not a Natural port in India ? (3) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(1) Kandla (2) Chennai (4) C.R. Das
(3) Paradeep (4) Mumbai
155. Who was the Ist Lady President of All India Congress ?
142. What is Jarvik-7 ?
(1) Smt. Annie Besant
(1) Electronic leg (2) Pace-maker
(2) Smt. Sarojini Naidu
(3) Artificial heart (4) Artificial eye
(3) Smt. Nelli Sengupta
143. The first computer was made by (4) Aruna Asaf Ali
(1) Bill Gates (2) Bill Clinton
156. Who decides whether a bill is a Money bill or not ?
(3) Charles Babbage (4) Marconi
(1) The President
144. The temperature of a normal human body is
(2) The Speaker
(1) 98.4°F (2) 98°F
(3) The Finance Secretary
(3) 98.8°F (4) None of these
(4) The Finance Minister
145. Which of the following is the most common element in the
157. ‘Charkula’ is famous folk dance of
Universe ?
(1) Bundelkhand (2) Brij Bhumi
(1) Hydrogen (2) Oxygen
(3) Avadh (4) None of these
(3) Nitrogen (4) Carbon
146. Shortage of which element causes Goitre disease ? 158. IRDA regulates
(1) Nitrogen (2) Calcium (1) Banking Companies
(3) Iodine (4) Phosphorus (2) Insurance Companies
(3) Retail Trade
147. Miniaturization of present day computers had been
possible due to the use of
(1) Transistors 159. The decadal growth of Urban Population (in per cent) was
(2) Integrated Circuit Chips highest in India during
(3) Nano-materials (1) 1961-71 (2) 1971-81
(4) Super Conductors (3) 1981-91 (4) 1991-2001
148. Who declared “Every blow that is hurled on my back will be 160. The benefit of which one of the following River valley
a nail in the coffin of the British Empire’’ ? projects is shared by more than one State ?
(1) Lala Lajpat Rai (1) Chambal Valley Project
(2) Bhagat Singh (2) Mayurakshi Project
(3) Chandrashekhar Azad (3) Sharavati Project
(4) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (4) Hirakund Project
Crack SNAP 2
ENTRANCE PATTERN
Sections
Q. 2. (1) (2) (3) (4)
< General English

1. Which of the following does not make sensible combination Directions (Q. 6-9) Read the following passage and answer
with the word ‘Red’ ? the questions given below.
(1) Carpet (2) Rag
Everyone seems to be talking about carbon tax. The idea is
(3) Faced (4) Blood
to tax environment’s polluters which should be commensurate
2. A single word for ‘going back on one’s promise’ is with the carbon emission. It would act as deterrent and result in
(1) Prevaricate (2) Retrospect
less carbon emissions. No wonder, people from both sides of the
(3) Renege (4) Repudiate
political divide have come out in support of it. Denmark, Finland,
3. Find the sentences in which following words have been Norway and Sweden have already had carbon tax in place since
correctly used.
90’s, but the tax has not led to large decline in emission in most of
incise, excise, precise
these countries. In case of Norway, emission has actually
(a) The surgeon incised into the patient’s limb.
(b) The diseased gall bladder has to be excised. increased by 43% per capita. An economist might say this is fine,
(c) He made a very precise guess. as long as the cost of polluting the environment is exacted which
(d) He excised the flower plant from the pot. otherwise also might have been done with impunity.
(1) a and b (2) b and c 6. What do you understand from carbon tax ?
(3) a, c and d (4) a, b and c (1) It is penalty tax for polluting environment by burning
4. Find the word with incorrect spelling. organic fossils.
(1) Embarass (2) Harass (2) It is tax for producing coal.
(3) Immerse (4) Emerge (3) It is tax for causing vehicles emitting fumes.
5. Identify the odd one out of the following. (4) It is tax for using coal.
(1) Trail (2) Rut 7. Why do people in the Government as well as in opposition
(3) Spoor (4) Groove support it ?
16 SNAP Mock Test 2
(1) Because it was expected to generate revenue. (3) symbolises quiet state of affairs
(2) Because offenders have been polluting environment (4) symbolises passion for luxurious things
with impunity. 15. What is the synonym of ‘icon’ ?
(3) Because it was expected to act as a measure to make (1) Idol (2) Image
people desist from using materials responsible for (3) Symbol (4) Graphics
environment pollution.
16. What is the meaning of ‘Irony’ ?
(4) Because the tax was to be levied in proportion to the
(1) Resembling iron
quantum of emissions.
(2) Toughness
8. Choose the expression/word which is most inappropriate in (3) Expression using words opposite to what is meant
meaning for ‘commensurate’. (4) Act of ridiculing
(1) unequal in quantum
(2) in measure with something Directions (Q. 17-20) Read the following passage and
answer the questions given below.
(3) unjust
(4) unequal in measurement Good business schools boost your self-confidence by
9. Which one of the following sentences has used the word providing you with excellent business tools—discounted cash
‘Impunity’ appropriately ? flows, game theory, organisational behaviour, financial
(1) The VIP’s have been granted impunity from accounting and so on—all of which can help you manage and
punishment. understand diverse work situations.
(2) The vaccine gives children impunity from polio. So when I finished business school, I was filled with the
(3) The hardened criminal perpetrates crime with impunity. confidence of being able to handle the toughest problems and
(4) Vitamin ‘C’ is supposed to give impunity to people always emerge a winner. After all, we had cracked every
suffering from cold and cough. case-study thrown at us. We understood the mistakes made along
10. In how many ways the word ‘Address’ may be used ? the way and learnt the best practices of successful corporates
(a) The particulars/details where one used to live/stay. around the globe. Thus armed, I returned to India with the
(b) Speech made on formal occasions. adjective of running my own company and a vow : never to be an
(c) Give attention to a problem in order to solve it. employee again.
(d) Send a letter to someone. I had decided to start a venture in manufacturing diamond
(1) a and b (2) b and c jewellery for export. No sooner than we started, the Government
(3) c and d (4) a, b and c of India banned the export of jewellery containing gold. And that
11. Choose the odd one out of the followings was it!
(1) Junket (2) Jaunt All the case-studies had not prepared me for such an
(3) Voyage (4) Sojourn eventuality. Naturally, the venture failed. Education assumes
12. Identify the various grammatical inflections of the word optimistic outcomes, starting with passing out from college, so we
‘Aesthete’ had not been taught how to handle failure.
1. Noun A. Aestheticize So there I was, a young 30-year-old, newly married, fresh
2. Adjective B. Aesthetic out of a premier B-school, with the rug pulled from under my feet.
3. Adverb C. Aesthete There was little capital left, except for a roof over our head, which
4. Verb D. Aesthetically was courtesy my dad. So what’s next ? Should I give up and take
(1) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (2) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A up a job, or try again ?
(3) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A (4) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C Let me share a framework that worked for me. First, I took a
break with my wife, just to get away from the ‘‘scene of the crime’’,
Directions (Q. 13-16) Read the following passage and
so to speak. It allowed me to clear my mind. Then I resisted the
pressure to take the first thing that came along by allowing some
So what if the Kohinoor diamond—the ultimate symbol of time to think about why things happened as they did. It also gave
India’s wealth and grandeur, now resides with the Queen of me an opportunity to talk with friends and well-wishers who had
England ? Now the icon of British luxury rides—Jaguar and Land nothing to do with the business. I could deliberate on what I did
Rover, passed into Tata’s Indian hands. The irony of it all was not wrong, and what I did right, allowing me to answer the key
lost in either India or the UK—a company from former colonial question ‘‘am I a failure as an entrepreneur or can I succeed ?’’
country took over a company of its coloniser country. In contrast When I resolved that my fundamental approach to being an
to the high drama that preceded Tata Steel’s acquisition of Corus entrepreneur was valid, I could move ahead with confidence in
Steel last year, this transaction was a quiet affair. myself and in my ability to succeed.
13. The acquisition of Land Rover is the It was very important to treat the business failure as a
(1) maiden take-over of Tata’s overseas lesson, as a step in the game of life, to be able to persist with my
(2) second take-over of Tata’s overseas objectives, with a determination that drew from the inner strength
(3) the most controversial take-over of deep introspection.
(4) costliest take-over So when faced with a ‘game changing’ failure, whether as
14. The new-age take-over of foreign businesses an entrepreneur or as a manager, one needs to take a break, think
(1) symbolises revanchist turn around of subjugation era through one’s objectives and lessons learnt, before moving onto
(2) symbolises return of Indian grandeur of possessing the next phase, with persistence and a renewed determination to
Kohinoor diamond succeed.
Mock Test 2 SNAP 17
17. The best recipe to succeed in business is to 27. Which of the following means ‘a huge waterfall’ ?
(1) earn a management degree from premier business (1) Cascade (2) Cataract
school (3) Catarrah (4) Connecticut
(2) acquire the confidence of being able to handle the Directions (Q. 28-35) Read the following passage and
toughest problems and emerge a winner answer the questions given below.
(3) learn lessons from failures and move ahead with clear
vision of objective and confidence in ability to succeed Oedipus was born to a king. An oracle prophesied that this
(4) consult friends and well-wishers who have nothing to child was doomed to be the killer of his father, and that he would
do with business ignorantly marry his mother. The king got his son nailed by his
feet on a hill top and abandoned. A passer-by picked injured child
18. The weakness of management schools is
up from there, and took him to his king—who was the king of
(1) its failure to train students to handle failures and
another kingdom, who became foster father of the child—later
contingent adverse situations
christened as Oedipus which meant ‘‘swollen fact’’.
(2) its failure to educate students on governmental policies
When he grew up and learnt of his destiny, he left his home
controlling business
in wandering. He was buffeted into the kingdom of his real father
(3) its failure to prepare students to handle diverse work
by fate. One day the real father-king was on a journey with his
situations entourage. The bodyguards ordered Oedipus to steer clear of the
(4) its failure to train students to take optimistic view of a king’s route. The brave Oedipus challenged them and killed the
business king in the fight that ensued. Thus the first part of oracle’s
19. Choose the opposite of ‘Fill’. prophecy came true.
(1) Deplete (2) Evacuate It was proclaimed that the throne of the slain king would be
(3) Vacate (4) Exhaust offered to a wise man who would solve series of riddles. Oedipus
20. Choose the synonym of ‘Emerge’. did solve them though he did not know he himself had killed the
(1) Submerge (2) Peer same king. Thus Oedipus became the king, and his mother
(3) Plop (4) Immerse became his queen. The second part of prophecy too came true.
21. Choose the odd one out. The new king, Oedipus, ordered an enquiry into the king’s killing,
(1) Catechize (2) Crib which eventually revealed that it was he himself who had killed
(3) Dressage (4) Preach the predecessor.
The psychological phenomenon of a child harbouring
22. Choose the incorrect use of phrase/idiom.
subconcious sexual attachment to the parent of opposite sex has
(1) He is living in fool’s paradise.
been assigned the name, ‘‘Oedipus Complex’’.
(2) He is living in paradise of fools.
(3) He used to talk Turkey. 28. One who pronounces divine wish is known as
(4) He made a tongue-in-check remark. (1) Sage (2) Oracle
(3) Recluse (4) Hermit
23. Mark the words with incorrect spellings.
(a) Impliment (b) Quietitude 29. What is the one word for ‘Cursed by fate to suffer’ ?
(c) Quintessence (d) Quarrantine (1) Doomed (2) Punished
(1) a and b (2) b, c and d (3) Ordained (4) Destined
(3) d, a and b (4) c and d 30. The situation which a person is assigned by his fate or the
24. Choose correct combination/combination of words with divine wish is called
‘Fly’ (1) destination (2) destiny
(a) Fly ash (b) Fly in the face (3) limbo (4) abyss
(c) Fly by night (d) Fly freely 31. What is the synonym of ‘‘Christen’’ ?
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c (1) To adopt Christianity
(3) a, b, c and d (4) only d (2) To make the symbol of cross
25. There are some underlined words below followed by their (3) To baptize
uses in sentences. Find out, the wrong sentence if any (4) Crucify
Factious Factitious Fictitious Facetious 32. Choose the most appropriate word which is opposite in
meaning of ‘Reveal’.
(a) Factious quarrels destroyed the party.
(1) Hide (2) Unveil
(b) He showed factitious affection.
(3) Disclose (4) Conceal
(c) He narrated fictitious story.
(d) He made facetious remark. 33. Choose the synonym of ‘Riddle’.
(1) only d (2) b and c (1) Conundrum (2) Secret
(3) only a (4) None of these (3) Problem (4) Ridicule
26. The following words are expected to be related to one 34. What is the synonym of ‘harbour’ ?
thing. Choose one, if any, which is not related. (1) to shelter (2) sea port
(a) Physiognomy (b) Profile (3) to ensconce (4) support
(c) Facet (d) Visage 35. Choose the opposite of ‘Predecessor’.
(1) None (2) only a (1) Incumbent (2) Successor
(3) only c (4) only d (3) Heir (4) Progeny
18 SNAP Mock Test 2
Directions (Q. 36-40) In each question below, a sentence (4) No correction required
is given with a part of it printed in bold type. That part may 38. His works of art rank high in the appraisal for competent
contain a grammatical error. Each sentence is followed by
critics
phrases (1), (2) and (3). Find out which phrase should replace
the phrase given in bold to correct the error, if there is any, and (1) are ranking high with the appraisal of
to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. (2) rank high in the appraisal of
If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, (3) rank high by the appraisal of
mark (4) as the answer. (4) No correction required
36. Many public servants can become untrusworthy and 39. Blessed with much intelligence, he saw very few meanings
corruption. in religious rites that are performed as mere rituals.
(1) untrustful and corruption (1) saw quite a few meanings
(2) untrusting and corruptive (2) looked for very few meanings
(3) untrustworthy and corrupt (3) saw little meaning
(4) No correction required (4) No correction required
37. Mere being equipped by more programming does not 40. He was devoted his time meticulously for the good of his
mean we practice moral behaviour. people.
(1) Mere being equipped with (1) was meticulous to be devoted his time
(2) Merely being equipped with (2) devoted his time meticulously
(3) Merely being equipped for (3) was meticulous in his time to devote
(4) No correction required

41. There are 10 points in a plane out of which 4 are collinear. 48. A gentleman has 6 friends to invite. In how many ways can
Find the number of straight lines formed by joining them. he send invitation cards to them if he has 3 servants to carry
(1) 30 (2) 45 the cards ?
(3) 6 (4) 40 (1) 216 (2) 729
42. A man’s income increases by 10%, then decreases by 10%. (3) 6 P3 (4) None of these
Calculate the percentage change in his income. 49. In what time will the interest of Rs 10000 be Rs 1576.25 at
(1) 1% decrease (2) 2% decrease 5% per annum compound rate of interest ?
(3) 3% increase (4) None of these (1) 2 yr (2) 3 yr
43. What sum at compound interest will amount to Rs 650 at 1
(3) 2 yr (4) None of these
the end of the 1st year and Rs 676 at the end of the second 2
year ? 50. If Peter can do a piece of work in 12 days. Mohan is found to
(1) 620 (2) 625 be 50% more efficient than Peter. If Mohan is given the
(3) 650 (4) None of these same piece of work, how long will he take to do it ?
44. The sum deviation of n variable from mean n will be (1) 7 days (2) 12 days
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 8 days (4) None of these
(3) n (4) None of these 51. A can do a work in 32 days and B in 40 days. They worked
45. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the together for 10 days and then B leaves. In how many days
probability of obtaining a total score of 7 ? will A finish the remaining work ?
1 (1) 10 days (2) 14 days
(1) 1 (2)
6 (3) 7 days (4) None of these
1
(3) (4) None of these a 4 a + 2b
4 52. If = , then value of will be
b 3 b
46. A coin is tossed, successively three times. Find the 5 2
probability of getting exactly one head or two heads. (1) (2) 1
3 3
3 1
(1) (2) (3) 3 (4) None of these
4 2 ( a + b) (b + c) c+a
3  x a  x b  xc 
(3) (4) None of these 53.   ⋅  c  ⋅  a  is equal to
7 b
x  x  x 
47. Form a well shuffled deck of 52 cards, a card is drawn at (1) 1 (2) 2
random. Find the probability that the card drawn is red and (3) 0 (4) None of these
a king.
1 1 54. Find the smallest number which when increased by 8 is
(1) (2) exactly divisible by 30, 45, 65 and 78.
13 26
3 (1) 1170 (2) 1162
(3) (4) None of these (3) 162 (4) None of these
13
Mock Test 2 SNAP 19
55. Find the least number of square tiles required to pave the 2
(1) 6% (2) 6 %
floor of a room 15 m 17 cm in length and 9 m 2 cm breadth. 3
(1) 14 (2) 89 2
(3) 5 % (4) None of these
(3) 814 (4) None of these 3
1 Directions (Q. 66-70) Study the table given below and
56. Find the value of .
1 answer the questions.
2+
1
2+ Percentage of income generated by the sale of different
1
2− types of food grains produced by six different farmers out of their
2 total income in a year.
(1) 19/8 (2) 8/19
(3) 7/19 (4) None of these Farmer Total Percentage of income generated
income
57. The average age of 30 children in a class is 9 years. If the Wheat Rice Bajra Jowar Maize
teacher’s age is included, the average age becomes J 2.55 28 36 12 15 9
10 years. Find the teacher’s age. K 2.00 27 26 16 13 18
(1) 30 (2) 35 L 1.85 19 32 18 18 13
M 1.75 23 29 21 17 10
58. If ax = b, b y = c and cz = a, then xyz is equal to N 2.15 14 19 26 23 18
1 O 2.40 16 14 27 21 22
(1) abc (2)
abc
(3) 1 (4) None of these 66. Which farmer has generated the maximum amount of
1 3 income from the sale of rice ?
59. Find a fraction which bears the same ratio to that does (1) K (2) L
27 7
5 (3) M (4) None of these
to ⋅
9 67. Income generated by farmer M from the sale of bajra is
(1) 1/35 (2) 35 approximately what per cent of the total income generated
(3) 1/27 (4) 5/9 by all farmers together from the same food grain ?
(0. 623)3 + (0. 377 )3 (1) 26% (2) 8%
60. = x, then x will be (3) 21% (4) 15%
(0. 623) − (0. 623 × 0. 377 ) + (0. 377 )2
2
68. What is the respective ratio of income generated from the
(1) 0 (2) 1 sale of jowar by farmer N to that by farmer O ?
(3) 2.25 (4) None of these
(1) 989 : 1008 (2) 873 : 967
61. If 5% of men and 0.25% of women have grey hair. A grey (3) 967 : 873 (4) 1008 : 989
haired person is selected. Assuming that there are equal
69. What is the income generated by farmer K from the sale of
number of males and females the probability of the person
wheat and rice together ?
being male is
21 20 (1) Rs 98900 (2) Rs 115000
(1) (2) (3) Rs 106000 (4) Rs 110500
20 21
1 70. What is the total income generated by the sale of maize by
(3) (4) None of these
400 all farmers together ?
62. 3 men and 2 boys can complete a work in 6 days. The same (1) Rs 154000 (2) Rs 192000
work was done by 5 men and 7 boys in 3 days. If so, how (3) Rs 180600 (4) Rs 167500
many days will 2 men and 5 boys require to complete the Directions (Q. 71-75) Study the table carefully to answer
same work ? the following questions.
(1) 6 days (2) 3 days
Price per kilo (in Rs) at which different farmers sell six
(3) 4 days (4) None of these
different products.
63. In a 35 lbs mixture, the percentage of quinine is 60. How
much pure quinine should be added to the mixture so that Produce → Wheat Rice Gram Sugar Jowar Bajra
Farmer ↓
the adulteration is 35% of total ?
(1) 14 lbs (2) 5 lbs L 3 8 10.5 4 7 3
(3) 20 lbs (4) None of these M 3.9 7.5 12 2.5 6.5 4
N 4.6 5 9.75 4 4.5 4.5
64. A dealer desires to gain 15% after allowing a discount of
O 2.5 6.5 9 6.5 5 5
5%. How does should be the marked price of the article
P 6.5 4 8.25 5 5.5 6.5
costing Rs 7.20 ?
Q 5.5 9 11 3.5 8 4
(1) Rs 8.72 (2) Rs 8
(3) Rs 7.82 (4) None of these 71. If farmer O sells 40 kilos of each of the six produces, what is
65. An agent by selling a bicycle gets Rs 4500 but he remits to the total money earned by him ?
his principal Rs 4200 only and keep the balance with him as (1) Rs 1260 (2) Rs 1540
commission, find the rate of commission. (3) Rs 1360 (4) Rs 1380
20 SNAP Mock Test 2
72. Which produce has the lowest average selling price ? 76. What is the amount spent by the family on Commuting ?
(1) Wheat (2) Sugar (1) Rs 10,076 (2) Rs 10,534
(3) Jowar (4) Bajra (3) Rs 6,870 (4) Rs 8,702
73. If each farmer sells 250 kilos fo Wheat and 150 kilos of 77. What is the respective ratio of amount spent by family on
Gram, which farmer earns the maximum money ? Medicine to the amount spent on Groceries ?
(1) M (2) P (1) 1 : 2 (2) 13 : 21
(3) Q (4) None of these (3) 3 : 5 (4) 11 : 23
74. Farmer M sells 170 kilos of Jowar and 120 kilos of Bajra. 78. What is the total amount spent by the family on
Farmer L sells 120 kilos of Jowar and 170 kilos of Bajra. Entertainment and Shopping together ?
What is the difference between the total money earned by
(1) Rs 9,618 (2) Rs 13,282
each farmer from both produces together ?
(3) Rs 13,740 (4) Rs 11,908
(1) Rs 235 (2) Rs 195
(3) Rs 260 (4) Rs 315 79. Total amount spent by the family on Groceries, Entertainment
75. Average selling price of sugar is approximately what per and Investment together forms approximately what per cent
cent of average selling price of Rice ? of amount spent on commuting ?
(1) 64% (2) 76% (1) 209 (2) 76
(3) 52% (4) 48% (3) 154 (4) 218
80. Amount spent by the family on Medicine forms what
Directions (Q. 76-80) Study the following pie-chart
carefully to answer these questions. per cent of amount spent on Shopping ? (Rounded off to
two digits after decimal)
Degree wise break-up of expenditure of a family in a month. (1) 43.67 (2) 49.52
Total amount spent in a month is Rs 45,800%. (3) 57.89 (4) 61.89
Investments
54°
Commuting
79.2°
Entertainment
36°
Shopping
68.4°
Medicine
39.6°

Directions (Q. 81-83) Read the following information and ie, 1, 2, 3, ... Sum of all the house numbers on the left side of my
answer the questions based on them. house is equal to sum of all the house numbers on the right side of
There are five teams P, Q, R, S and T playing in a my house. There are more than 100 but less than 3000 houses on
tournament where each team plays against every other team. the right side of my house.
Each match can result in a draw where each team gets ‘2’ points or 84. What is my house number ?
a team winning where it gets ‘3’ points and the other team gets ‘1’ (1) 204 (2) 6929
point. (3) 288 (4) 7014
81. If P has won all the matches and T has lost all the matches 85. How many houses are there in the lane ?
and all the remaining three teams get equal points, how (1) 9885 (2) 288
many points each of three got ? (3) 9801 (4) Data inademate
(1) 5 (2) 7
Directions (Q. 86-88) : Refer to the data below and answer
(3) 8 (4) 5 or 7
the questions that follow.
82. What is the sum of the points achieved by all the five teams
in the tournaments ? There are three farmers A, B and C. All the three kept cows,
(1) 43 (2) 40 hens and goats. Each farmer has a different number (either 1 or 2
(3) Data insufficient (4) None of these or 3) of each type of animals. A had more goats, but fewer hens,
than B, both of them had more than one cow. The farmer with two
83. What is the number of points scored by each team, if all the
cows had three hens.
five teams have an equal score ?
(1) 7 (2) 8 86. The number of cows and goats owned by ‘A’ is
(3) Not possible (4) None of these (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
Directions (Q. 84-85) Read the following information and
answer the questions based on them. 87. B own ..... cows ..... hens and ..... goats.
(1) 1 .... 2 .... 3 (2) 3 .... 2 .... 1
The house number in my lane starts with natural numbers (3) 2 .... 3 .... 1 (4) 1 .... 3 .... 2
Mock Test 2 SNAP 21
88. C owns ..... cows, ..... hens and ..... goats. 122 in favour of B or C but not A
(1) 1 .... 2 ..... 3 (2) 3 .... 2 .... 1 64 in favour of C but not A or B
(3) 2 .... 3 .... 1 (4) 1 .... 3 ..... 2 14 in favour of A and C but not B
89. Choose the correct alternative complete the series 97. How many voters were in favour of all the three
EFONIJKJMN.... candidates ?
(1) FE (2) KL (1) 14 (2) 8
(3) OP (4) GF (3) 20 (4) 16
Directions (Q. 90-92) Answer the question on the basis of 98. How many voters were in favour of A irrespective of B or
the information given below. C?
There are 12 members in the three generation of a family (1) 78 (2) 36
Rahul has three married children and four grand children. Out of (3) 42 (4) None of these
these four grand children three are males and one is a female. 99. How many voters were in favour of B irrespective of A or
Karan, who is from second generation is married to Ravi’s only C?
sister. There are four couples in the family. Neha is a female from (1) 36 (2) 78
3rd generation and has an uncle Aashu. Aakash is Ravati’s grand
(3) 42 (4) 86
son who has only one male sibling and two cousins. Ravi is
married but does not have any children. 100. How many voters where in favour of only one of the
candidates ?
90. Who are the children of Aashu if Aadi and Vicky are the two
more male members of the family ? (1) 58 (2) 78
(1) Aakash and Neha (3) 106 (4) 142
(2) Vicky and Aadi 101. How many voters were in favour of A and C but not B ?
(3) Aadi and Aakash (1) 16 (2) 14
(4) Cannot be determined (3) 36 (4) 42
91. Karan is Aakash’s 102. There are twenty people working in an office. The first
(1) father (2) uncle group of five works between 8:00 am and 2:00 pm. The
(3) brother-in-law (4) None of these second group of ten works between 10:00 am and 4:00 pm
92. If Kanchan is Revati’s daughter then who is Kanchan’s and the third group of five works between 12:00 noon and
husband ? 6:00 pm. There are three computers in the office which all
(1) Ravi the employees frequently use. During which of the
(2) Aashu following hours the computers are likely to be used most
(3) Karan (1) 10:00 am-12:00 Noon
(2) 12:00 Noon-2:00 pm
Directions (Q. 93-96) Choose the correct alternative. (3) 1:00 pm-3:00 pm
93. In a code language if TEARS is coded as VWXYZ and MAN is (4) None of the above
coded as 123. Then how could you code RESENTMENT in Directions (Q. 103-104) From a same point K, Indu and
that language ? Soumya walked in opposite directions. After walking 5 km,
(1) YWZW3V1W3Y (2) YWZ3WV1W3Y Indu turned right and walked 3 km. She again turned right and
(3) YWZW3V1WY3 (4) YWZW3V1W3V walked 5 km. From the starting point Soumaya walked 4 km
94. COOLER is coded as HTTQJW, what is the code for and turned left.
SUNDAY ? 103. At this point, if Indu was facing East, Soumya would be
(1) XZSIFD (2) XSIZFD facing which direction ?
(3) YATJGE (4) WYRHEC (1) North (2) South
95. If KITCHEN is coded as 5263417 what is CHICKEN coded (3) East (4) North-West
as ?
104. How far is Indu from the starting point ?
(1) 4321753 (2) 3423517
(3) 2435317 (4) 3423571 (1) 1 km (2) 2 km
(3) 3 km (4) 4 km
96. If MONEY is coded as NNODZ and if NAVY is coded as
OZWX what is the code for MEAN ? 105. If 2 is subtracted from the middle digit of the following
(1) NDZO (2) NFZM numbers and then the positions of the digits are reversed.
(3) NDBM (4) None of these Which of the following will be the last digit of the middle
Directions (Q. 97-101) Read the following information number after they are arranged in descending order ?
carefully to answer these questions. 489, 362, 154, 271, 542
(1) 5 (2) 4
A sample poll of 200 votes revealed the following (3) 2 (4) 3
information concerning three candidates A, B and C of a party
who were running for three different offices. Directions (Q. 106-107) Determine which sets of
28 in favour of both A and B sentences are logically related that is the third statement
98 in favour of A or B but not C follows logically from the first two.
42 in favour of B but not A or C
22 SNAP Mock Test 2
106. (A) Many singers are not writers. All poets are singers. 112. Statement I The Government has to be ready with the
Some poets are not writers. disaster management plan to handle the natural calamities
(B) Giants climb beanstalks. Some chicken donot climb like Tsunami or Hurricane.
beanstalks. Some chickens are not giants. Blank space : ....................................................
(C) All explorers live in snowdrifts. Some Penguins live in Conclusion It will be possible to avoid the damage to life
snowdrifts. Some penguins are explorers. and property if the Government is ready with a strategy in
(D) Amar is taller than Akbar. Anthony is shorter than place.
Amar. Akbar is shorter than Anthony. (A) Statement II One has to know how to handle the
(1) A only (2) B only
natural calamities.
(3) B and C (4) D only
(B) Statement II It is not possible for the public to handle
107. (A) No sun is not white. All moon is sun. All moon is white. the situation arising due to natural calamities without
(B) All windows are open. No open space is allocated. All help from the Government.
window is closed space.
(C) Statement II Planning is most important aspect in
(C) No German can fire. All Americans bombard. Both
handling any unforeseen situation.
Germans and Americans can fight.
(1) Only A
(D) Aishwarya is an actress. Some actresses are beautiful.
(2) Only B
Aishwarya is beautiful.
(1) A only (2) B only (3) Only C
(3) C only (4) D only (4) No additional statement is required to draw the
Conclusion.
108. A bird shooter was asked how many birds he had in the
bag ? He replied there were all sparrows but six all pigeons 113. Statement I The Government has decided to award only
but six and all ducks but six. How many birds he had in the grades and not marks to the students up to tenth class.
bag in all ? Blank space : ....................................................
(1) 9 (2) 18 Conclusion High scorers are unhappy because there will
(3) 27 (4) 36 be no difference between the high scores and the
Directions (Q. 109-110) Indicate the answer choice to the moderately high scores.
question mark. (A) Statement II There are mixed reactions from different
groups of students and parents.
109. CIRCLE : RICELC :: SQUARE : ?
(1) QSUERA (2) QUSERA (B) Statement II This was necessary since our
(3) UQSAER (4) UQSERA examination system puts a lot of pressure on students.
110. BUCKET : ACTVBDILDFSU : BONUS : ? (C) Statement II The practicle is being followed by some
(1) ACMNMOTVRT of the foreign universities.
(2) ACNPMOTURT (1) Only A
(3) ACNPMOTVRT (2) Only B
(4) ACMNMOTURT (3) Only C
111. Statement If betting and match fixing play a vital role in (4) No additional statement is required to draw the
cricket, which makes the game ungentlemanly and ugly, conclusion.
there is absolutely no use of wasting precious time to watch Directions (Q. 114-115) Arrange the following in a
the game of cricket which cheats the innocent ? meaningful words.
Assumptions 114. (A) Fruit (B) Flower (C) Seed
I. The contagious disease may spray to other games. (D) Pollination (E) Bud
II. Cricketers indulge in betting and match fixing and are (1) A, B, C, D, E (2) D, B, E, C, A
exploiting innocent public feelings. (3) E, B, D, C, A (4) E, B, D, A, C
(1) Only I is implicit
115. (A) Accident (B) Judge (C) Doctor
(2) Only II is implicit
(D) Lawyer (E) Police
(3) Neither I nor II is implicit
(1) A, C, D, B, E (2) A, C, E, D, B
(4) Both I and II are implicit
(3) A, B, C, D, E (4) A, B, E, D, C
Directions (Q. 112-113) In each question below one 116. If Ist May, 2000 was Monday than what was the day on 31st
statement is followed by a blank space which is followed by a
conclusion which can be drawn from either the statement July of the same year ?
given in the question or from the statement given in the (1) Sunday (2) Monday
question and an additional statement which may list in the (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday
blank space.
Mock Test 2 SNAP 23
117. Find the value of x in the given question. Directions (Q. 118-119) In each of the following letter
series some of the letters are missing which are given, in that
15 4 order as one of the alternative below it. Choose the correct
alternatives.
33 2
118. c...ac...aa...aa...bc...bcc
27 2 (1) cabba (2) ccbbb
36 8 (3) bbbbb (4) aabba
119. gfe...ig...eii...fei...gf...ii
32 x
(1) eifgi (2) figie
18 9 (3) ifgie (4) None of these
22 11 120. A is the brother of B. C is married to D. If C is the nephew of
B. How is A related to D ?
12 3 (1) Father-in-law
(2) Mother-in-law
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) Son-in-law
(3) 8 (4) 12
< General Awareness

121. Which State of India has the largest number of child (1) Khan market
labourers ? (2) Bandrakurla complex
(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Bihar (3) Connaught place
(3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Uttar Pradesh (4) Crawford market
122. Now-a-days, what is the approximate number of domestic 130. A JV of Arcelor-mittal is to open a metal cladding unit in
tourists visiting different parts of the country ? India at
(1) 200 million (2) 250 million (1) Raipur (2) Alwar
(3) 320 million (4) 380 million (3) Indore (4) Chennai
123. India has recently signed a MOU for agricultural 131. Which company has been awarded the Golden Peacock
cooperation with Global Award for corporate social responsibility ?
(1) China (2) Nigeria (1) Pepsico India (2) Coca-Cola India
(3) Hungary (4) South Africa (3) BHEL (4) L & T
124. According to the regular Budget 2009-10, outlays for 132. The Direct to Home (DTH) service ‘Big TV’ has been
Commonwealth Games, 2010 has been stepped up from launched by
Rs 2112 crore in Interim Budget 2009-10 to ........ (1) Aditya Birla (2) Reliance Com
(1) Rs 3100 crore (2) Rs 3112 crore (3) Star India (4) Sony Entertainment
(3) Rs 3472 crore (4) Rs 4211 crore
133. Where is the headquarters of Asian Development Bank ?
125. According to the Union Budget 2009-10, revenue deficit
(1) Jakarta (2) Manila
has been projected at ........... of Gross Domestic Product
(3) Singapore (4) Bangkok
(GDP) compared to 1 per cent in 2008-09 and 4.6 per cent
as per provisional accounts of 2008-09. 134. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘‘My
(1) 4.2 per cent (2) 4.3 per cent Country, My Life’’ ?
(3) 4.8 per cent (4) 5.2 per cent (1) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (2) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
126. Government of India has decided to set up two more All (3) L.K. Advani (4) Shashi Tharoor
India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) like institutes in 135. According to Rail Budget, a new rail coach factory will be
near future. These new institutions would be established at set up in
(1) West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh (1) Kerala (2) Tamil Nadu
(2) Haryana and Punjab (3) Karnataka (4) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Punjab and Tamil Nadu 136. Which of the following was the theme of the Olympic
(4) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh Torch ?
127. In UK, India is the second largest investor, second only to (1) Journey of Harmony
(1) S Korea (2) US (2) Journey of Peace
(3) Japan (4) China (3) Green World Clean World
128. In 2008, India’s trade with EU would be about (4) Journey for Hunger-free World
(1) $ 111 billion (2) $ 150 billion 137. The construction of railway line in Kashmir valley is
(3) $ 170 billion (4) $ 200 billion planned to be completed by
129. Identify the most expensive office markets among them, (1) 2008 (2) 2009
according to a recent survey (3) 2010 (4) 2011
24 SNAP Mock Test 2
138. Delimitation commission has made a recommendation that (1) Bulgaria and Romania
next Census should be Panchayat-wise. When is the next (2) Bulgaria and Belgium
census due ? (3) Romania and Slovenia
(1) 2010 (2) 2011 (4) Hungary and Croatia
(3) 2015 (4) 2012 150. In the human body, which structure is the appendix
139. Who has been appointed the new Prime Minister of attached to ?
Malaysia ? (1) The large intestine (2) The small intestine
(1) Najeeb Abdul Razaaq (2) P.M. Sayed (3) The gall bladder (4) The stomach
(3) Ahmed Abideen (4) Jainul Badavi
151. Which one among the following rivers is the longest ?
140. Who is the Present Attorney General of India ?
(1) Amazon (2) Amur
(1) Milon Benerjee (2) Pramod Batra
(3) Congo (4) Lena
(3) Divaker Pandey (4) Shambhu Shiva
152. Which one of the following rivers originates at
141. Which of the following countries signed the Tshwane
Amarkantak ?
Declaration in October, 2006 ?
(1) China and South Africa (1) Damodar (2) Mahanadi
(2) India and South Africa (3) Narmada (4) Tapti
(3) South Africa and Botswana 153. Production of which one of the following is a function of the
(4) Saudi Arabia and South Africa liver ?
142. Which one of the following Himalayan passes was (1) Lipase (2) Urea
reopened around in the middle of the year 2006 to facilitate (3) Mucus (4) Hydrocloric acid
trade between India and China ? 154. Which one of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the
(1) Chang La (2) Jara La human system ?
(3) Nathu La (4) Shipki La (1) Trypsin (2) Gastrin
143. Basel II relates to which one of the following ? (3) Ptyalin (4) Pepsin
(1) International standards for safety in civil aviation 155. Which of the following types of light are strongly absorbed
(2) Measures against cyber crimes by plants ?
(3) Measures against drug abuse by sportspersons (1) Violet and Orange (2) Blue and Red
(4) International standards for measuring the adequacy of (3) Indigo and Yellow (4) Yellow and Violet
a bank’s capital 156. White Coal is
144. NASA’s Deep Impact Space Mission was employed to take (1) Uranium (2) Hydro-electricity
detailed pictures of which comet nucleus ? (3) Diamond (4) Ice
(1) Halley’s comet (2) Hale-Bopp 157. Who among the following started the newspaper ‘Shome
(3) Hyakutake (4) Tempel I Prakash’ ?
145. Where was the G-20 Summit held recently ? (1) Dayanand Saraswati
(1) London (2) Rome (2) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(3) New York (4) Paris (3) Raja Rammohan Roy
146. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the (4) Surendranath Benerjee
following ? 158. The ruler of which one of the following States was removed
(1) Environmental protection from power by the British on the pretext of
(2) Olympic games misgovernance ?
(3) Journalism (1) Awadh (2) Jhansi
(4) Civil Aviation (3) Nagpur (4) Satara
147. Who among the following served as the Chief Economist of 159. Who among the following Europeans were the last to come
the International Monetary Fund ? to pre-independence India as traders ?
(1) Ashok Lahiri (1) Dutch (2) English
(2) Sumantra Ghoshal (3) French (4) Portuguese
(3) Saumitra Chaudhari 160. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the
(4) Raghuram Rajan order of decreasing length of the three structure parts given
148. Where are Shevaroy Hills loated ? below of small intestine in the human body ?
(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Karnataka (1) Jejunum-Duodenum-Ileum
(3) Kerala (4) Tamil Nadu (2) Ileum-Duodenum-Jejunum
149. Which one of the following pairs of countries joined the (3) Jejunum-Ileum-Duodenum
European Union in January, 2007 ? (4) Ileum-Jejunum-Duodenum
Crack SNAP 3
ENTRANCE PATTERN
Sections
Q. 2. (1) (2) (3) (4)
< General English

1. The following words have been used in sentences. 4. Find the incorrectly spelt word among the following.
Determine the sentences in which uses of words are correct (1) Heir (2) Heirarchy
or appropriate. (3) Hieroglyphic (4) Hierolatry
Red, Green, Blue 5. Identify the odd one out.
A. The arrival of police at the site of the accident proved (1) Tolerate (2) Brook
red herring to the mob assembled there. (3) Countenance (4) Persevere
B. He has green fingers.
C. He claims descendancy from blue blood. Directions (Q. 6-8) Read the passage and answer the
(1) A and B (2) A and C questions given below.
(3) A, B and C (4) B and C When television meant black and white pictures, and there
2. A single word for “be thin and worn out in memory of was a two-year waiting period for a simple telephone connection,
someone loved” is and a computer was an object to wonder at, Arther Clark’s house
(1) pine (2) lament boasted things like privately owned satellite dish antenna. He
(3) emaciate (4) grieve showed me amazing number of channels brought to his television.
3. Find the sentence in which the following words have been He told, “Time will come when every home will have these things.
wrongly used Every one will have a portable telephone, and entire house will be
enabled, unabled, disabled, crippled controlled by a computer.” I thought to myself, ‘‘What planet this
A. He is crippled with disease .
guy is living on ?’’ I remember Arther Clark today everytime I
B. He is physically disabled child.
switch on my cable TV, use my mobile phone, or log on to internet.
C. He has computer enabled work experience.
How prophetic was he ? He used to say that we always
D. He is mentally unabled child.
(1) A and B (2) A and C over-estimated the change that would take place in the next
(3) B and D (4) D only decade.
28 SNAP Mock Test 3
6. The passage seeks to convey that April 2006 and February 2007 were 22 per cent higher than that
(1) change in life-style is more dynamic than we foresee to disbursed in the corresponding period of the previous year. This is
happen in near-future a sure sign that the economy is cooling, not overheating. If
(2) the change in life-style is more dynamic than we inflation is on a march, it is because of high commodity and food
foresee to happen in distant future prices. Food, particularly cereals, has turned expensive all over
(3) change in life-style takes place due to television, the world, because of supply-side constraints rather than a sudden
mobile phone, etc increase in demand. While diversion of cropland to biofuels in the
(4) change in life-style has taken place due to US has led to high wheat and corn prices all over the world, wheat
computer-controlling of all facilities and rice yields have hit a plateau in India. Producers need
7. Arther Clark was a man of incentives, including credit, as opposed to a credit squeeze that
(1) clairvoyant vision will hurt both demand and supply without bridging the gap.
(2) prophetic ability Commodity prices could taper off, as China completes its
(3) having all modern gadgets when these were rarely preparations for the Olympics and the US leads the rest of the
available
world into a slowdown. The government should wait and watch.
(4) having great liking for modern gadgets
It need not have come down heavily on commodity and farm
8. Why did the author of the passage remember Arther Clark exports. That could send wrong signals to commodity and farm
oftenly today ? producers, with the possibility of prices taking a turn for the
(1) Because he was enjoying several modern facilities his
worse. While the government’s concern over inflation is
house was equipped with
understandable in an election year, its populism should be geared
(2) Because modern gadgets were scarcely available in
towards improving agriculture output. Turning the screws on
those days when he had met Arther Clark
(3) Because of the prophecy of Arther Clark which has credit makes sense when the productive capacities of an economy
since come true are close to being fully utilised. India is nowhere near that stage.
(4) Because Arther Clark was a respected person It should increasingly seek supply-side solutions by
producing goods and services that are consumed by large sections
9. Match the given word’s various uses with correct
applications in sentences. of our population, while promoting demand through fiscal
Hail measures such as tax cuts. Inflation points to deficiencies in our
production process, rather than an increase in demand. In fact,
A. to call out (i) The govt’s decision was hailed. there is plenty of room for demand to rise in an economy where 22
B. to praise (ii) Hail Hitler! the Germans used to per cent live below the poverty line. The solution is to free up
cry of welcome. supply in ever new areas by extending credit, not by denying it.
C. to exclaim (iii) He hailed a taxi for going to the 12. According to the passage the sudden crisis in economy has
station. been caused by
(1) A–(ii) B–(i) C–(iii) (2) A–(iii) B–(i) C–(ii) (1) high rate of interests on bank credit
(3) A–(i) B–(ii) C–(iii) (4) A–(i) B–(iii) C–(ii) (2) glut in industrial products
(3) slow-down of economy growth
10. What is the one word used to describe supposed
(4) inordinate increase in inflation rate
transmigration of soul from the body of a living person after
he dies ? 13. The suggested remedial measures are
(1) Re-incarnation (2) Transcension A. increase in production of goods
(3) Metempsychosis (4) Emigration B. increase in services which are needed by people
11. What is the closest meaning of the word ‘‘Behest’’ ? C. easy access to credits
(1) Diktat (2) Edict D. controlling bank credits
(3) Order (4) Verdict (1) A and B (2) B and D
(3) A, B and C (4) A, B, C and D
Directions (Q. 12-15) Read the following passage and
14. What could send wrong signals to food producers ?
(1) Prices taking a turn for the worse
Within a matter of months, we have moved from a situation (2) Turning screw tight on credit policy
of high growth and moderate inflation to slower growth and (3) Controlling/curbing exports of farm products
spiralling inflation. Wholesale prices rose 6.68 per cent for the (4) Slow-down in production of farm products
week ended March 15, its highest rate of increase over 13 months. 15. What, according to this article, is feared to spell disaster for
However, unlike February 2007, the price rise this time is not the economy already hit by declining industrial growth ?
driven entirely by foodstuffs. Inflation in manufactured goods (1) Hike in interest rates
touched a one-year high of 6.27 per cent for the week ended (2) Further decline in industrial growth
March 15. Lower interest rates are virtually ruled out when the (3) Decline in growth of bank credits
Reserve Bank makes its next policy announcement in April. (4) Very high rate of inflation
One hopes RBI does not press the panic button and hike
interest rates.That would spell disaster for an economy that is Directions (Q. 16-17) Choose the word which carries the
same meaning of the words given under.
faced with declining industrial growth over the last quarter. There
has also been a decline in the growth of bank credit. Bank credit 16. Inflation
for the period April 2007-February 2008 was up 16.7 per cent over (1) Deflation (2) Stagflation
the same period last year. However, the loans given out between (3) Conflagration (4) Spiralation
Mock Test 3 SNAP 29
17. Disaster customer requirements, they have opportunities to command
(1) Cataclysm (2) Distraction premium pricing. According to Professor Shoji Shiba, an expert in
(3) Disruption (4) Epiphany breakthrough management, to develop successful new products,
Directions (Q. 18-22) How many options carry the it is important to have the Big M perspective, where, M refers to
meaning of the given words ? manufacturing. The Big M perspective includes societal change,
environment change, technology change, regulatory change,
18. Brook supply chain, feedback from customer, after sales service,
(a) Waterfall (b) Tolerate
suppliers and so on.
(c) Mangrove (d) Ravine
I believe that Indian companies need to expand their
(1) a and b (2) a and c
risk-taking appetite in order to come out with new products that
(3) a and d (4) b and c
can help to expand their markets and bring new customers into
19. Credit their fold.
(a) Credence
Therefore, it becomes imperative for the R and D team or
(b) Honour
the product design team to interact closely with the
(c) Loan
customer-facing team and the customers themselves. It is also the
(d) Acknowledgement of achievement
responsibility of other functions in the organisation to observe and
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c
(3) a, c and d (4) b, c and d absorb the weak signals from the environment and provide inputs
to the product development team. In this sense, an organisation
20. Fiscal
would do well to have a cross-functional team working on a new
(a) Of government treasury or taxes
product design.
(b) Of financial matters
Taking inputs from these functions can help define latent
(c) Of financial accounting year
(d) Of monetary management customer needs—needs that the customer himself does not know
(1) a, b and c (2) a, b and d exist. The product design team must focus on developing products
(3) b, c and d (4) a, c and d to meet these latent needs.
What is most important is creating products based on a
21. Orient
deep understanding of the customer. You have to begin with
(a) East (b) To align
(c) Mystique (d) West understanding what would be most relevant, useful or appealing
(1) a and d (2) b and c to the customer. How can you arrive at an understanding of the
(3) a and b (4) c and d “most relevant” when, at times, the customer himself may not
know what would meet his need ?
22. Exact
This can be achieved by what Shiba calls the “Jumping into
(a) Precise (b) Approximate
(c) Appropriate (d) Inflict the Fishbowl” methodology. You must jump into the fishbowl and
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c swim with the fish to make observations. It implies that the
(3) b and c (4) a and d manager must visit customers where the product or service is
being used. He must experience the environment in which the
Directions (Q. 23-29) Read the following passage and product is used and then chart out the future course with the
insights gained. Sometimes the insights gained may lead the
Given the dynamic, borderless world, with an extremely organisation to develop a completely new business, or realise a
discerning customer at every level, product design and new customer group or market—it may not mean just a new
development is assuming an ever more important role in the product.
future success of companies. At present, customers demand This exploration of new markets is what will lead to
greater product variety and quickly shift to new, innovative sustainable businesses. We need to change our mindsets about
products. Their purchase decisions are based on factors that are product design to include “new features” to a much larger picture
affected by product design. Earlier, customers made purchase of satisfying latent customer needs and finding new customers.
decisions based primarily on product price and/or quality. 23. What is the opposite word of ‘Dynamic’ ?
While these factors are still important, customers are (1) Unmoving (2) Unchanging
looking at other dimensions, too, such as customisability, (3) Static (4) Sluggish
order-to-delivery time, product safety and ease and cost of 24. Which synonym best explains the word ‘Discerning’ ?
maintenance. Especially in India, the business scenario has (1) Not concerned
undergone a 10X change. Five years ago, industrial customers (2) Analytical
expected delivery once a day; now they demand 20 shipments a (3) Deciding suitably
day. Earlier, they expected six new products to be developed in a (4) Differing from others
year; today they expect 11.
25. Which one is closest in meaning to the word ‘Scenario’ ?
Environmental concerns have grown to include impacts
(1) Scene
during production, during the product’s operating life, and also at
(2) Scenery
the end of its life (recycle-ability). In addition, customers demand
(3) Site
greater protection from defective products, which leads to lower
(4) Setting of various situations
product liability losses.
While these seem like too many aspects to consider, when 26. Which of the options closely explains the meaning of the
firms are able to develop distinctive products that meet these word ‘‘Perspective’’ ?
30 SNAP Mock Test 3
(1) Ability of looking through something clearly and west and north India. He says, “We expect to garner 20 percent
closely growth per store and will have professional gaming experts to
(2) Manner of doing something help players.”
(3) Manner or way of thinking about something The Oxford Institute of Ageing estimates that in India,
(4) Correctness of situation people over 60 give over 1.3 billion voluntary hours per year,
27. According to the above passage, the success of a new launch worth around Rs 15.8 billion to the economy. Minoo Shroff, a
in the market depends upon retired professor, spends close to Rs 500 each weekend, trying her
(1) the correct appreciation of the relevance of the product hand at the local bowling alley along with a group of like-minded
to the potential customers seniors. “I don’t expect my NRI son or my daughter to look after
(2) exploration of market me,” she says confidently, adding “I am independent, they are
(3) finding new customers independent.” Shroff and her buddies carefully plan their
(4) design of the product weekends in advance, allocating money to various outdoor
activities, from gaming to yoga classes.
28. Customers turn to the products available in the market on
Shroff’s neighbour in Navi Mumbai, the 60-year-old Uma
the basis of
Paranjpe, has been practicing Tai Chi and now takes classes for the
(1) price of the product elderly. “It’s an alternative to a more dynamic workout. Similar to
(2) quality of the product martial arts, such as karate, the movements of Tai Chi are rooted in
(3) innovative/attractive design of the product a warrior stance. However, like yoga, Tai Chi combines the
(4) after-sale service concentration of breath and movement to encourage the body to
29. The manufacturer gets premium price of the product, if increase efficiency and relieve the mind of stress.”
A. design is attractive Looks like some people never retire; they just change
B. made to suit individual demand careers.
C. reduced order-to- delivery time 30. How many of the options are valid to mean ‘Frequent’ ?
(1) A, B and C (2) B and C (a) Often (b) Sporadic
(3) A and B (4) A and D (c) Continual (d) Visit regularly
Directions (Q. 30-33) Read the following passage and (1) a and b (2) b and c
answer the questions given below. (3) c and d (4) a and d
31. Which of the options most closely resemble in meaning
For the 59-year-old Ehsaan Qureshi and his wife Mehraam,
with ‘Manoeuvre ?
gaming parlours were places where their children frequented.
(1) Drive (2) Manipulate
Today, the retired banker spends his evenings, with his better half, (3) Guide (4) Handle skilfully
at the nearest entertainment centre in a multiplex trying his hand
32. Contemporary elderly persons expect
in “bumper cars” and “an electronic racing game.” Qureshi is not
(1) that their son or daughter should look after them
alone. Gone are the days when grannies and grandpas spent their
(2) to join fun and dance clubs
evenings taking a walk in a park of playing bridge with their
(3) to live peacefully post retirement
cronies.
(4) to live independent life
It is more likely that you would find them gliding on a dance
floor or manoeuvering gaming equipment at the nearest 33. Now the present-day elderly people want to
multiplex. “I would recommend salsa or ballroom dancing for (1) spend time peacefully taking evening walk and play
every couple that wants to pursue an activity together”, beams the cards with peers
54-year-old Mumbai-based Jagjeevan Pathare,who, along with his (2) enjoy high-energy activities defying age
(3) join dance school or learn martial art
wife, joined a salsa training class in the evening. “I read about the
(4) drive sports cars
salsa classes on the notice board of our community centre and
asked my wife to accompany me to the initial sessions,” he says. 34. The under-mentioned word carries meaning in which
The Pathares are now hooked to dancing and having discovered option ?
the charm of salsa they are now planning to enrol in ballroom STANCE
dancing too. Mihir Shah, a professional salsa trainer, admits that (1) Tack (2) Trait
there has been a rise in the number of elderly taking up dancing as (3) Posture (4) Gait
a serious hobby. He says, “It helps them in socialising and also 35. Which branch of medicine/medical study is related to
provides easy exercise. Some enthusiasts even enter ballroom and elderly persons ?
salsa dance competitions.” (1) Paediatrics (2) Geriatrics
India is home to over 80 million elderly, according to a (3) Orthopaedics (4) Laryngities
report by Help Age India, expected to increase to 177 million by 36. Choose the odd one out.
2025. Arguably, this is a new market waiting to be tapped. (1) Look (2) Behold
Nandan Piramal, executive vice-chairman, Piramyd Retail, has (3) Ogle (4) Notice
launched its sixth family entertainment centre—Jammin—that is 37. Which one is a wrong pair out of the following pairs given
aimed at senior members in the family. “We are targeting below ?
grown-ups and senior members in a family with our (1) Alumnus — Alumna
entertainment centres. For this, we have kept the whole look and (2) Baker — Baxter
feel of the games a little mature,” he adds. Piramal is looking at (3) Confidant — Confidante
launching another six family entertainment centres, primarily in (4) Master — Miss
Mock Test 3 SNAP 31
38. Which of the verb is wrongly paired with its noun form ? (c) Diner (d) Emmigrate
(1) Expunge — Expunction (1) a and c (2) a and d
(2) Breathe — Breath (3) d only (4) c and d
(3) Denounce — Denunciation 40. Pick out the wrong combination of word with ‘white’.
(4) Assend — Assention (1) white collar (2) white elephant
39. Pick up the words with wrong spelling (3) white lie (4) white weather
(a) Beatify (b) Dinner

41. If f ( x ) = x +
1
, then [ f ( x )]3 is equal to (1) 2 (2) − 2
x (3) 4 (4) None of these
(1) f ( x 3 ) + 3 f  
1
(2) f ( x 3 ) + 2 f ( x ) 51. Two urns contains 1 white, 6 red and 4 white, 8 red balls.
 x One of the urn is selected at random and a ball is drawn
(3) f ( x 3 ) + f  
1 from it. Find the probability of drawing a white ball.
(4) None of these
 x 5 3
(1) (2)
42. If a function f : R → R is defined as f ( x ) = x 2 + 1, then find 14 17
1
f −1 (26), where R is the set of rational number. (3)
14
(4) None of these
(1) {2, − 2} (2) {5, 5} 52. Two balls are drawn at random with replacement from a
(3) {− 5, 5} (4) None of these box containing 10 black and 8 red balls. Find the
43. Find the capacity of a 24 cm high cone having covered probability that both balls are red.
surface area 550 cm2 ? (1)
4
(2)
16
(1) 1232 cm 3 (2) 4826 cm 3 5 81
1
(3) 2469 cm 3 (4) None of these (3) (4) None of these
4
44. The area of lateral faces of a cuboid is 9 cm2, 25 cm2 and
53. A wine dealer has two kinds of mixture of wine. The first
16 cm2. Then its volume will be mixture contains 40% water and the second 20%. The
(1) 30 cm3 (2) 60 cm3 dealer mixes 90 gallons of the first mixture with 210 gallons
(3) 3600 cm3 (4) None of these of the second. What is the percentage of water in the final
mixture ?
n n− 3
45. Find n, if C 6 : C 3 = 33 : 4. (1) 20% (2) 25%
(1) 12 (2) 11 (3) 26% (4) None of these
(3) 10 (4) None of these 54. A man can row 5 km/h in still water. If the river is running
46. Find the number of ways in which 20 different beads can be at 1.5 km/h, it takes him 1 hour to row to a place and back.
arranged to form a necklace. How far is the place ?
(1) 20! (2) 13! (1) 2.275 km (2) 22.75 km
1 (3) 2 km (4) None of these
(3) ⋅ 19 ! (4) None of these
2 55. A man can row downstream at the rate of 14 km/h and
47. In how many ways can 5 Indian and 5 Englishmen be seated upstream at the rate of 5 km/h. Find man’s rate in still
along a circle so that they can sit alternate to each other ? water and the rate of current.
(1) 5! (2) 4! (1) 9.5 km/h and 4.5 km/h
(3) 5! 4! (4) None of these (2) 3 km/h and 2 km/h
48. A telegraph pole has 5 arms and each arm is capable of 4 (3) 1.5 km/h and 1.5 km/h
distinct positions including the position of rest. What is the (4) None of the above
number of signals that can be made ? 56. If α and β are roots of the equation 2 x 2 − 4 x + 9 = 0, then
(1) 1024 (2) 1023
value of α 3 + β 3 will be
(1) 19 (2) − 19
a 4 b 15 c2 − a2
49. If = and = , then 2 would be (3) 17 (4) None of these
b 5 c 16 c + a2
57. If 16th term of AP is 24 and 24th term of AP is 16, then 40th
1 7
(1) (2) term of AP will be
7 25 (1) 0 (2) 24
3
(3) (4) None of these (3) 40 (4) None of these
4
a 4 9a2 + 4b2
1
50. If x + = 2, then x 4 +
1
= ? 58. If = , then find the value of 2 ⋅
x x4
b 9 9a − 4b2
32 SNAP Mock Test 3
(1) 13 (2) 1 67. What is the difference in the amount of revenue earned
13 from other products during the two years ?
(3) − (4) None of these
5 (1) 3.8 crore (2) 4.8 crore
59. If 41 + x + 41 − x = 10, then x will be (3) 3.2 crore (4) None of these
1 1 1 68. What is the ratio of revenue received from other products
(1) 2, (2) , −
2 2 2 during the two years ?
1 (1) 5 : 4 (2) 2 : 3
(3) − 2, (4) None of these
2 (3) 1 : 3 (4) None of these
60. In how many ways can 10 examination papers be arranged 69. Least change in percent revenue occurs in which of the
so that the best and the worst paper never come together ? following sector ?
(1) 8 ⋅ 9 ! (2) 8 ! (1) Cement (2) Textile
(3) 9 ! (4) None of these (3) Soda (4) None of these
61. If x, y, z are positive real numbers, then 70. What is the ratio of revenue earned from other sector to
x −1 y ⋅ y −1 z ⋅ z −1 ⋅ x is equal to that of cement in 2008 ?
(1) 1 (2) 0 (1) 1 : 9 (2) 2 : 7
(3) xyz (4) None of these (3) 2 : 9 (4) None of these
62. A, B and C became partners in a trade. A and B invested Rs Directions (Q. 71-75) Study the graph carefully to answer
700 and Rs 840 respectively. Out of a total profit of the following questions.
Rs 1520, if C got Rs 640, then what was the investment of Per cent profit earned by two Potters
C? over the years.
(1) 1120 (2) 120 Potter A Potter B
(3) 1570 (4) None of these 70
63. The ages of Madhu and Seema are in the ratio of 5 : 2 60
respectively. After 7 yr the ratio of their ages will be 4 : 3. Per cent Profit
50
What is the age of Madhu ? 40
(1) 10 yr (2) 5 yr
30
(3) 6 yr (4) 12 yr
20
64. A job is completed by 10 men in 20 days and by 20 women 10
in 15 days. How many days will it take for 5 men and 10
0
women to finish that work ? 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001
1 1 Years
(1) 17 (2) 17
2 7
Selling Price − Cost Price
(3) 17 (4) 17
1 Per cent Profit = × 100
120 Cost Price
65. A trader earns 20% profit on selling price. He reduces the 71. If Potter A sold 3,650 pots in the year 1999 at the price of
price by 10%. Calculate his net profit per cent on cost price. Rs 12 per pot, what is the cost price of all the pots
1 together ?
(1) 12 (2) 10%
2 (1) Rs 22,600 (2) Rs 28,500
(3) 16% (4) None of these (3) Rs 25,300 (4) Rs 29,200
Directions (Q. 66–70) The percentage of revenue that 72. If the amount of profit earned by Potter B in the year 1996 is
comes from the four different product segments for a Rs 40500, what was the selling price of all the pots in that
diversified manufacturing company are shown in the following year ?
pie-chart. Total sale in 2007 was 120 crore and in 2008 was (1) Rs 1,30,500 (2) Rs 2,06,200
150 crore. Answer the questions on the basis of the pie-chart
given below. (3) Rs 1,44,500 (4) Rs 1,87,500
73. If in the year 2000, the total selling price of Potter B is equal
Other to the total cost price of Potter A, what is the respective
Other
Cement 8% ratio of their selling prices ?
16%
25% Cement (1) 7 : 8 (2) 5 : 8
Textile 36% (3) 5 : 7 (4) 7 : 9
Textile 31%
28% Soda 74. Which of the following statement(s) is/are definitely true ?
31% Soda
(1) Amount of profit earned by Potter B in the year 1999
25%
and 2000 is the same.
(2) Potter A earned the highest amount of profit in the year
2007 2008
2000.
66. Ratio of the sale of other products in the two years will be (3) Amount of profit earned by Potter A and B is the same
(1) 3 : 5 (2) 8 : 5 in the year 1997.
(3) 1 : 5 (4) None of these (4) None of the above
Mock Test 3 SNAP 33
75. What is the approximate per cent rise in per cent profit of 76. What is the difference between the total number of students
Potter B in the year 2001 from the previous year ? studying in college M and those studying in college P ?
(1) 16% (2) 4% (1) 16100 (2) 15800
(3) 9% (4) 19% (3) 16300 (4) 16700
Directions (Q. 76-80) Study the following graph carefully 77. What is the total number of students studying in all the
and answer the questions given below it. colleges together ?
Number of Students Studying in Various Colleges (1) 520900 (2) 520700
from Various Faculties (3) 610200 (4) 510800
(Number in thousands) 78. What is the respective ratio of the students from the faculty
Arts of Science from colleges M and N together to the students
80 Science
from the same faculty from colleges O and P together ?
70 Commerce
(1) 43 : 45 (2) 41 : 43
Number of Students
65 60
60 56
(3) 45 : 43 (4) 43 : 41
50
50 51.2
79. The number of students from the faculty of Science from
44
40
40 36.5
33 college N are approximately, what per cent of the total
30 30
30 25 number of students studying in that college ?
20 (1) 34 (2) 37
(3) 29 (4) 31
10
80. What is the average number of students from the faculty of
0
M N O P commerce from all the colleges together ?
(1) 36825 (2) 38655
(3) 38625 (4) 36585

Directions (Q. 81–83) Study the following information Asha and Madhu are good in Computer Science and Physics.
carefully and answer the questions given below. Asha, Pratibha and Namita are good in Physics and History.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight friends sitting along the Namita and Asha are good in Physics and Mathematics.
length and the breath of the rectangular table as shown below. Pratibha and Shivani are good in Dramatics and Computer
A, H and D are sitting on the same side of the table. A is Science each. One person is not good in Physics and History each.
sitting between H and D. B is sitting adjacent to G, F is sitting Two persons are not good in Mathematics.
opposite E. A is sitting opposite G, F and H and are not sitting on 84. Who is good in Physics, History and Mathematics, but not in
the same side but H is sitting on the right of F. Computer Science ?
(1) Pratibha (2) Asha
(3) Madhu (4) Namita
85. Who is good in History, Physics, Computer Science and
Mathematics ?
(1) Namita (2) Asha
(3) Madhu (4) None of these
86. Who is good in Physics, History and Dramatics ?
(1) Pratibha (2) Madhu
(3) Shivani (4) Asha
87. After a get together every person present shakes the hand of
81. Who is sitting on the immediate right of G ?
every other person. If there were 105 hand shakes in all.
(1) B (2) C
(3) B or C (4) Data inadequate How many persons were present in the party ?
(1) 14 (2) 13
82. Who is sitting opposite C ?
(3) 15 (4) 16
(1) H (2) D
(3) H or D (4) None of these 88. There are eight poets A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. A, B, C and D
83. According to the positions of the persons three of the are Medieval Poets whereas E, F, G and H are Modern
following four pairs are alike and hence form a group. Poets. Questions on Modern Poets and Medieval Poets are
Which of the following does not belong to that group ? set in the question paper every alternate year. Among the
(1) HF (2) DA Modern Poets, question setters who like E also like F and
(3) ED (4) FB those who like G also like H. The question-setter has written
a book on F and so he does not like to ask any question on F.
Directions (Q. 84–86) These questions are based on the
Last year there was a question on A. On which poet will be
statements given below.
the probable question this year ?
Madhu and Shivani are good in Dramatics and Computer (1) F (2) E
Science. (3) D (4) C
34 SNAP Mock Test 3
89. A one rupee coin is placed on a plain paper. How many persons were there in the party ?
coins of the same size can be placed round it so that each (1) 20 (2) 15
one touches the central and adjacent coins ? (3) 10 (4) 25
(1) 3 (2) 4 98. In a get together, every person present shakes hand with
(3) 7 (4) 6 every other person. If there were 105 handshakes in all,
90. 40 # 18 @ 2 ∆ 10 • 130 = 0, how many persons were present in the party ?
then which of the following shows the correct meaning of #, (1) 15 (2) 14
@ ∆ and • ? (3) 13 (4) 16
(1) + − × ÷ (2) − + ÷ × 99. In a class of 35 students, Kiran is placed 7th from the
(3) × − + ÷ (4) + ÷ × − bottom whereas Mohan is placed 9th from the top. Sohan is
Directions (Q. 91–95) Study the following information placed exactly in between Kiran and Mohan. What is Kiran’s
carefully and answer the questions given below. position from Sohan ?
(1) 13th (2) 11th
A, B, C, D, E and F are six persons. They study in different
(3) 10th (4) 9th
colleges. These colleges are P, Q, R, S, T and U. They belong to
different states J, K, L, M, N and O. 100. The letters skipped between adjacent letters is in the order
(i) A, E and the person who studies in the college ‘P’ are of 1, 2, 3, 4, … . Which alternative follows this rule ?
vegetarians, whereas the persons who belong to states (1) DEIMR (2) DFINR
K and N and the person who studies in the college R are (3) DFIMR (4) DFIMS
non-vegetarians. Directions (Q. 101–102) Refer the data below and answer
(ii) Neither A nor E belongs to state J or L. Neither B nor C the questions that follows.
studies in the college P or R.
Recardo buys 800 bags of sand. All bags weigh 10 gms
(iii) One who belongs to the state K studies in the college Q,
except one bag. To determine the bag with lesser weight he uses a
B and the person who studies in the college S are
two pan balance.
friends.
Jason buys 80 bags of sand. All bags except one weighs
(iv) A does not study in the college T, the person who
100 gms. To determine the bag with lesser weight he uses a spring
belong to the state M does not study in the college U.
balance.
One who belong to state N studies in the college S.
101. What is the minimum number of weighings that Recardo
91. D belongs to which of the following states ?
requires to determine the faulty bag ?
(1) J (2) L
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) either J or L (4) eitehr J or K
(3) 8 (4) 10
92. Who among the following persons is studying in the college
102. What is the minimum number of weighings that Jason
R?
requires to determine the faulty bag ?
(1) D (2) F
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) B (4) Data inadequate
(3) 9 (4) 16
93. Who among the following persons is associated with the
state N ? Directions (Q. 103–107) Choose the venn diagram which
best illustrates the three given classes in each question.
(1) B (2) C
(3) A (4) E
94. Which of the following statements is definitely false ?
I. D belongs to state J.
II. F belongs to state L. (1) (2) (3) (4)
III. B belongs to state N.
(1) All I, II and III (2) Only I and II 103. Girl, Athlete, Singer
(3) Only I and III (4) Only III 104. Window, Room, Wall
95. Which of the following statements is definitely true ? 105. State, Country, City
I. A and E study in the colleges U and T respectively. 106. Copper, Paper, Wire
II. D and F study in the colleges P and R respectively. 107. Teacher, Graduate, Player
III. B and C study in the colleges Q and S respectively. 108. Count the number of triangles in the following figure.
(1) All I, II and III (2) Only I and II
(3) Only I and III (4) Only II and III
96. In a month of 31 days, the third Wednesday falls on the
15th. Which will be the last day of that month ?
(1) Fifth Thursday (2) Fifth Wednesday
(3) Fourth Sunday (4) Fifth Friday
97. In a party every one gave gift to every one else. If the total (1) 15 (2) 16
number of gifts exchanged in the party was 600. How many (3) 17 (4) 18
Mock Test 3 SNAP 35
109. Find the missing character in the given questions. (3) If a device that is only a mechanical pump is used as an
artificial heart, it will not perform all the functions of
BD3 CE5 DF15
the human heart.
(4) The effects of a small amount of the heart hormone will
EG2 FH4 GI8
be long-lasting in the body.
HJ4 IK6 ? 116. Recent surveys show that many people who seek medical
help are under a great deal of stress. Medical research also
(1) JL 24 (2) IJ18 shows that stress can adversely affect an individual’s
(3) JK18 (4) JL12 immune system which is responsible for combating many
110. Nimmi returned home three days earlier than the time she infections. Thus when a person is under stress, she or he is
had told her mother. Nimmi’s sister Vimmi reached five days more likely to be come ill. Which of the following, if true,
later than the day Nimmi was supposed to return. If Nimmi would most strengthen the conclusion above ?
returned on Thursday on what day did Vimmi return ? (1) Most people report that being in a hospital is a stressful
(1) Tuesday (2) Wednesday situation.
(3) Saturday (4) Friday (2) Many businesses that provide health insurance for
111. What should be the number opposite 3 ? their employees also provide seminars on Stress
Management.
2 3 4 (3) There is a marked increase in the number of illness
1 3 1 5 2 3 treated at college infirmaries around the time of
examinations.
(i) (ii) (iii)
(4) There is a marked decrease in the number of
(1) 1 (2) 6 complaints presented at college infirmaries during
(3) 5 (4) 4 vacation times.
112. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 117. Pointing to Kedar, Veena said, his mother’s brother is the
148958799 each of which has as many digits between them father of my son Nitin. How is kedar related to Veena ?
in the number as in the given number sequence ? (1) Niece (2) Aunt
(1) Less than 5 (2) 5 (3) Nephew (4) None of these
(3) 6 (4) More than 7
Directions (Q. 118–119) A paper sheet has been folded in
113. Three of the following five are alike in a certain way and the manner as shown in X, Y and Z respectively and punched.
hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong You have to choose from the alternatives how it will look when
to that group ? unfolded ?
(1) Paddy (2) Pea
(3) Grain (4) Floor
114. Mr. ‘X’ started walking towards North form a point P. After 118.
walking 20 m he turned right and walked 24 m. Again he X Y Z
turned right and walked 15 m. Again he turned right and
walked 20 m. Again he turned left and walked 40 m. Again
he turned left and walked 20 m. Again, he turned left and
walked 10 m and reached a point Q. Assume that every time
he walked in a straight line. Approximetly what is the (1) (2) (3) (4)
shortest distance between the two points P and Q ?
(1) 26 m (2) 31.8 m
(3) 34.65 m (4) 48.9 m 119.
115. As a part of a delicately balanced system the human heart
secretes a hormone, a substance that controls the amount of X Y Z
salt in the blood and the volume of blood circulating within
the body. Only very small quantities of the hormone are
required. The hormone is extremely important in
regulating blood pressure and is found in large amounts in
the blood of those suffering a heart attack. (1) (2) (3) (4)
If the statements above are true, then it must also be true 120. In the question given below, figure (X) is in one of the
that. following figures. Find out the correct alternative.
(1) Any drug that regulates blood pressure will have its
effect by influencing the amount of the heart hormone 120.
secreted.
(2) It is large quantities of the heart hormone that cause
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
heart attacks to occur.
36 SNAP Mock Test 3
< General Awareness
121. Nand Lal Bose, Manjit Bawa, Tyeb Mehta are 133. The 2009 SEED Awards have been recognised in the field of
(1) Classical singers (2) English poets (1) Communication (2) Entrepreneurship
(3) Photographers (4) Painters (3) Energy (4) None of these
122. Major oil fields have been reported in 134. As per revised estimates for the year 2008-09, released by
(1) Krishna-Godavari Basin CSO, GDP registers growth of
(2) Cauvery Basin (1) 6.4% (2) 6.5%
(3) Rajasthan Desert (3) 6.7% (4) 6.9%
(4) Lower Assam Valley 135. In which year was ‘‘Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran
123. When did Governor General’s rule end in India ? Yojana’’ launched ?
(1) 15th August 1947 (2) 9th August 1948 (1) 2004 (2) 2005
(3) 26th January 1950 (4) 2nd October 1950 (3) 2006 (4) 2007
124. Who amongst the following is the winner of Ramon 136. Which of the following countries has the second-largest rail
Magsaysay Award 2008 ? networks in the world ?
(1) Dr. Prakash and Mandakini Amte (1) China (2) India
(2) Dr. Amartya Sen (3) USA (4) Russia
(3) Ms. Barkha Dutt 137. Position of India in world telecommunication network is
(4) None of the above (1) First (2) Second
125. What is the official language of Argentina ? (3) Third (4) Fourth
(1) Portguese (2) Spanish 138. What is the budget allocation for Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan ?
(3) Italian (4) German (1) Rs 8000 crore (2) Rs 13100 crore
126. The function of DNA in the body is (3) Rs 4554 crore (4) Rs 16534 crore
(1) to help in the synthesis of proteins 139. The Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana for every worker of
(2) to control the heredity unorganised sector will be launched in
(3) to assist in the release of energy (1) Delhi (2) Haryana
(4) None of the above (3) Rajasthan (4) All of these
127. A ‘bear’ on the Stock Exchange in a speculator 140. The national programme for the elderly will be started in
(1) who sells shares which he does not possess 2008-09 with a plan outlay of
(2) who applies for new issues of shares in the hope that (1) Rs 500 crore (2) Rs 300 crore
the price will go up (3) Rs 400 crore (4) Rs 200 crore
(3) whose holding of the shares in a company is so large 141. Centre of DNA fingerprinting is located at
that sellng them could affect the market price (1) Bengaluru (2) New Delhi
(4) who buys shares in the hope that price will go up (2) Pune (4) Hyderabad
128. Who was the composer of the classical composition 142. Cryogenic engines are used in
‘Moonlight Sonata’ ? (1) Atomic reactors
(1) Ludwig Van Beethoven (2) Rockets
(2) Joseph Haydn (3) Defrost refrigerators
(3) Johann Bach (4) Doing research connected with superconductivity
(4) Handel 143. Threat of Global Warming is increasing due to increasing
129. The ‘Interest Rate Policy’ is a component of concentration of
(1) Direct control (2) Fiscal policy (1) Nitrous oxide (2) Ozone
(3) Trade policy (4) Monetary policy (3) Sulphur Dioxide (3) Carbon dioxide
130. Starbucks, the coffee chain retailer’s name is inspired from 144. The beneficiary states of Sardar Sarovar Project are
which book (1) Gujarat, M.P., A.P. and Maharashtra
(1) The Scarlet letter (2) Modydick (2) A.P., M.P., Gujarat and U.P.
(3) Uncle Tom’s cabin (4) None of these (3) M.P., Gujarat, Karnataka and Maharashtra
131. Who has been appointed as chairman and managing (4) Orissa, M.P., Gujarat and Maharashtra
director of Rural Electrification Corporation ? 145. EI Nino is
(1) R.P. Singh (2) G.N. Bajpai (1) A sea storm
(3) P. Uma Shankar (3) None of these (2) A warm ocean current
132. Senior Advocate who, on June 15, 2009 was appointed (3) A tropical disturbance
Solicitor General by the Union Government is (4) Another name of typhoon
(1) Abhishek Solanki 146. The World Trade Organization (WTO) was earlier known
(2) Subrata Dey as
(3) Gopal Subramaniam (1) UNICEF (2) GATT
(4) Manohar Singh (3) UNCTAD (4) FAO
Mock Test 3 SNAP 37
147. The outcome of ‘devaluation of currency’ is (2) Planning Commission
(1) increased export and foreign reserve deficiency (3) Indian Statistical Institute
(2) increased export and improvement in balance of (4) National Sample Survey Organisation
payments 154. ‘Peace Mission 2007’ was the anti-terrorism exercise of
(3) increased import and improvement in balance of (1) NATO
payments (2) Shanghai Coop. Organisation
(4) increased export and import (3) EU
148. The common currency which has been introduced among (4) BRIC
11 European Nations is known as 155. Who among the following became the first Prime Minister
(1) Euro (2) Euro Pound of Nepal after it got the status of a democratic republic
(3) Euro Dollar (4) None of these nation ?
149. Nuclear reactors used to produce electricity are based on (1) Ram Baran Yadav
(1) Nuclear fusion (2) Subhash Nembang
(2) Nuclear fission (3) Pushpa Kamal Dahal (Prachanda)
(3) Cold fusion (4) G.P. Koirala
(4) Superconductivity
156. Which of the following airlines has entered into a deal with
150. Which bank has launched a new health cover scheme under BCCI
the name of ‘Arogya Shree’ ? (1) Air India (2) Spice jet
(1) PNB (2) SBI (3) Kingfisher (4) Jet Airways
(3) Andhra Bank (4) OBC
157. Which BPO company of Indian has been recently listed on
151. ASEAN, the major trade block of the world, consists of the New York Stock Exchange ?
following nations
(1) Genpact (2) Progeon
(1) Indonesia, Malaysia, Thailand, Philippines and
(3) Nipun (4) Convergys
Singapore
(2) India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Pakistan 158. ONGC-Mittal has recently won a gas block in
(3) Indonesia, India, Thailand, Malaysia and Singapore (1) Russia (2) Venezuela
(4) Vietnam, Thailand, Mauritius, Singapore and (3) Trinidad and Tobago (4) Libya
Philippines 159. Which IT company will provide event management system
152. The states through which the Cauvery river flows is to FIFA ?
(1) Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (1) Infosys (2) Satyam
(2) Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (3) Microsoft (4) TCS
(3) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu 160. A third petroleum refinery is being built at ‘Ceyhan’, which
(4) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu is in
153. In India, National Income is estimated by (1) Libya (2) Iran
(1) Central Statistical Organisation (3) Turkey (4) UAE
Crack SNAP 4
ENTRANCE PATTERN
Sections
For example : If the answer to question number 2 is (4), you should mark as shown below.
Q. 2. (1) (2) (3) (4)
< General English

Directions (Q. 1-8) Read the passage and answer the brings force and violence into the propagation of a religion is
questions given below. bound to falsify it.
Salman Rushdie has now revealed what many had That’s why those who drive painters like M F Husain or
suspected. He had only pretended to embrace Islam in 1990 in writers like Taslima Nasreen out of India do a disservice to any
order to defuse the ‘Satanic Verses’ controversy that was raging at religion they claim to be defending. Compared to today’s religious
the time. In the preceding year Ayatollah Ruhollah Khomeini, fundamentalists India’s Mughal rulers had a canny sense of the
supreme ruler of Iran, had issued a fatwa to kill Rushdie as well as benefits of freely chosen faith, which is why they didn’t try to get
the publishers of ‘Satanic Verses’. Hitoshi Igarashi, the Japanese the majority of their subjects to follow their faith even when they
translator of the book, was stabbed to death. Its Italian translator had the power to do so. Akbar, for example, issued an edict that a
and Norwegian publisher were grievously injured in separate Hindu who had been made a Muslim against his will should be
assassination attempts. allowed to go back to his former religion.
There is no doubt that Rushdie’s profession of belief was Hindu fundamentalists like to point to Aurangzeb, the
extracted under duress. In a globally interconnected world, exception who proves the rule of Mughal tolerance. Aurangzeb, it
however, everyone is bound to have exposure to faiths other than must not be forgotten, is a usurper in the Mughal tradition. He
his own, or even non-faith. In this context the best way to protect killed his elder brother Dara Shikoh, who was in the line of
faith has to be through freely chosen belief rather than coerced succession for the throne as well as a connoisseur of Hindu
conformity, whose negative effects are many. The commitment of scriptures. Aurangzeb also placed his father, Shah Jahan, under
those who have freely chosen a faith will be many times that of life imprisonment. That Aurangzeb presided over the demise of
people who have no option. In a world where no one faith is the Mughal empire reinforces the point about the superiority of
dominant, such coercion can also invite a backlash. For a peaceful freely chosen faith. Iran’s ayatollahs may have a thing or two to
world, religious pluralism is the best option. But more learn from India’s Mughal emperors who preceded Aurangzeb.
fundamentally religion belongs to the spiritual domain. Whoever
42 SNAP Mock Test 4
1. What does the following sentence as contained in the Directions (Q. 9-10) Arrange the following jumbled
passage convey ? sentences into meaningful passages.
Rushdie embraced Islam in 1990 in order to defuse ‘Satanic 9. A. India and Africa wrongly preferred industries at the
Verses’ controversy that was raging at that time. cost of agriculture.
(1) Rushdie became a Muslim only to explode public ire to B. Fertile soils of India and Africa are favourable for
boost sale of his book on the controversy bandwagon. cultivation of every important crop.
(2) Rushdie embraced Islam hoping to blunt the ire of the C. These countries are struggling to fight the menace of
Muslims over controversial contents written in the food shortage and spiralling prices of foodgrains.
book. D. India and Africa have the potential of becoming
(3) Rushdie embraced Islam to end the controversy, which granaries of the world.
led to the burning of his book, ‘Satanic Verses’ by the E. Both India and African nations must undergo a
muslim mob. paradigm shift in thinking about agriculture.
(1) A, B, D, C, E (2) A, B, C, D, E
(4) Rushdie changed his faith to Islam because he wrote
(3) E, A, C, B, D (4) D, B, A, C, E
the controversial book, ‘Satanic Verses’.
10. A. The guest invited to the party got the perk of being
2. What does the following sentence in the passage mean ? punctual.
There was no doubt that Rushdie’s profession of belief was B. The invitation card mentioned 8 a.m. as the time of the
extracted under duress. party.
(1) The changing belief in religion is the profession of C. Those who reached on time found things were not
Rushdie. quite as expected.
(2) Rushdie was coerced into changing his religious D. A few busy-for-nothing people were darting in and out
profession. of the hall.
(3) No doubt, Rushdie pretended to believe in Islam due to E. Joyous laughter of those who came late made punctual
public threat. guests feel being stupid.
(4) No doubt, public forced Rushdie to embrace Islam. (1) BCDEA (2) BDACE
(3) ECDBA (4) ECBDA
3. In the present era of religious plurality, faith in a religion
forced upon someone is fraught with 11. Find out the sentence/sentences below which has used the
(1) his exposure to another religion word “COMMIT” incorrectly.
A. He has committed unpardonable crime.
(2) his turning atheist
B. The passengers commit their luggages to the cloak
(3) many negative effects
room on railway stations.
(4) forced conformity C. He is a committed Christian.
4. Superiority of freely chosen religious faith manifests itself D. The case was committed to sessions court.
in (1) B only (2) B and C
(1) Emperor Akbar allowing Hindus, who were forcibly (3) B and D (4) None of these
converted into Islam, to return to their faith. 12. Match the words with their correct use in sentences.
(2) the fall of Mughal empire during Aurangzeb regime.
1. Rash (i) The grains of wheat are—out of husk.
(3) spontaneous and unflinchising commitment of
2. Trash (ii) He was censured for—action.
adherents.
3. Thrash (iii) The police—the thief.
(4) plurality of religions.
4. Thresh (iv) Litters were thrown in—can.
5. Overzealous vigilantes of a religion do a great disservice to
the cause by (1) 1–(i), 2–(iv), 3–(ii), 4–(iii)
(1) driving MF Hussain and his likes out of the country (2) 1–(ii), 2–(iv), 3–(iii), 4–(i)
(2) showing and indulging in acts of intolerance to (3) 1–(iv), 2–(i), 3–(ii), 4–(iii)
non-conformists (4) 1–(ii), 2–(i), 3–(iv), 4–(iii)
(3) indulging in hooliganism Directions (Q. 13-16) Read the following passage and
(4) denying religion its spiritual domain answer the questions given below.
6. Choose the word having close resemblance in meaning with Of all the possible economic crisis, inflation is perhaps the
the word one which receives the most public attention. And why not ? If
CONFORM prices keep on rising continuously over several weeks, then every
(1) Comply (2) Confound household except the fortunate few has a significantly harder time
(3) Obey (4) Resemble balancing its monthly budget. Quite inevitably, all the parties
7. Choose the synonym of the word outside the government, ranging from the BJP to the CPM,have
OPTION found the current bout of inflation a convenient stick with which
to beat up the government.
(1) Alternative (2) Choice
The rate of inflation has just touched 7 per cent, which is
(3) Selection (4) Freedom
the highest it has been in the last 40 months. The biggest
8. What is the antonym of contributory factor has been the huge increase in prices of
CONNOISSEUR minerals. Cement and metals prices have also shot through the
(1) Reconnoitre (2) Coiffeuse roof. Fortunately, these items do not enter household budgets
(3) Laity (4) Gourmet directly, and so do not affect their welfare at least in the short run.
Mock Test 4 SNAP 43
Unfortunately, there has also been a very large increase in the available supply of these commodities away from domestic
prices of staples such as vegetables, rice, wheat and edible oils. households. The failure of the wheat crop in Australia—a major
With several state elections just around the corner and supplier to the rest of the world—has exacerbated the global
perhaps even the general elections not very far away, the parties shortage of wheat.
constituting the UPA ministry find themselves with a noose The intense political pressure may force the government to
around their collective necks. And the noose is tighter because it take steps that it should not adopt in a hurry. In particular, the RBI
seems that there is very little that the government can do to bring may well step in before very long and raise the structure of interest
down prices in a hurry. rates to reduce money supply. This will undoubtedly help to curb
Prices rise when there is an excess of overall demand over inflationary pressures to some extent, although at the cost of a
supply in the economy. If the economy has been growing very possibly lower rate of growth. Prudence demands that the
rapidly over long periods of time then it makes sense to restrict government wait for a little while longer before it adopts this
inflationary pressures by reducing aggregate demand. In such extreme step. After all, there will be some improvement in the
situations, the government or central bank of a country can use a domestic supply of foodgrains once the output from the rabi
range of monetary and fiscal instruments to curtail aggregate harvest reaches the markets.
demand. For instance, a higher interest rate regime and other 13. The household budget in middle class families is in turmoil
actions to restrict money supply can choke off demand. because of
Of course, such efforts to cool the economy can have (1) inordinate price-rise of steel, cement, and minerals
potentially deleterious effects on the economy. In particular, if the (2) inordinate price-rise of food items
government “overshoots” and implements its anti-inflationary (3) inordinate price-rise of sundry necessities of common
policies too enthusiastically, then the economy can actually slow man
down much more than is desirable. Or the economy may already (4) inordinate price-rise has adversely affected people’s
have started to slow down and then it becomes even more of a purchasing potential
danger to restrict demand. 14. The government can do very little to contain inflation
There are now clear signs that the Indian economy and because
indeed economies all over the world are slowing down. Despite (1) economy is growing at a fast pace of around 8 to 9 per
growth elsewhere in the world, the US economy still retains its cent
overwhelming global presence. The subprime crisis, the turmoil in (2) harsh economic regime may have negative effects on
US financial markets and the threat that its economy is slipping economy
into a recession, have cast a shadow all over the world. Not (3) government cannot further enhance interest rates to
surprisingly, even the normally proactive Reserve Bank has not yet cut demand
taken any steps to curb the current inflationary pressures. (4) government do not possess any magic wand to change
This leaves the government with only one option—it has to the situation in a trice
take steps to increase the availability of commodities at 15. The age-old practice of importing scarce commodities to
reasonable prices. In the short run, this is easier said than done. contain price-rise in not likely to work this time because
Obviously, the government does not possess any magic wand that (1) the government is not willing to reduce import duties
it can wave over the economy and achieve an instantaneous on commodities
increase in agricultural production. (2) the prices of essential commodities in international
We are sitting on a huge pile of foreign exchange reserves. market are higher than in local market
Since foreign exchange is no longer a constraint, it is natural to (3) the commodities are scarce in international markets
wonder whether it is possible to augment the domestic availability too
of essential commodities by large-scale imports. To a large extent, (4) the government is unable to meet foreign currencies
this is the thrust of the recent policy measures announced by the needed to import such commodities
government. It has slashed import duties on a large number of 16. What is the author’s prescription to government to combat
commodities such as wheat and edible oils, in the hope that the current price-rise menace ?
reduced import duties will bring about a reduction in the final (1) Reduce import duties
price of imported food items. (2) Import food items
There are times when this strategy can work. (3) Enhance interest rates on bank deposits to reduce
Unfortunately, the prevailing conditions in the rest of the world money supply
mean that this strategy is doomed to failure today. This is because (4) To wait and watch in the hope of abundant arrival of
world prices of most essential goods are appreciably higher than fresh harvest in the market
domestic prices in India. For instance, the price of wheat in global
markets is almost twice that in India. Similarly, edible oil prices Directions (Q. 17-20) Choose the appropriate conjunction
are also significantly higher than those in India. So, even the to join the given sentences.
complete absence of import duties will not really make imported 17. He was reading newspaper.
food affordable. He was taking his meals too.
And there are reasons to believe that the upward pressure (1) Even as he was taking his meals, he was reading
on world prices is not likely to ease up in the near future. The huge newspaper.
increase in crude oil prices have forced western countries to look (2) He was reading newspaper and taking his meals
for alternative sources of energy. European countries have been simultaneously.
blending vegetable oils with diesel, while maize and wheat are (3) He was reading newspaper and taking his meals at the
being used in the US to make bio-ethanol. These alternative same time.
sources of demand mean a rather large-scale diversion of the (4) He was reading newspaper as he was taking his meals.
44 SNAP Mock Test 4
18. He is a teacher. 35 to 20 and has prescribed a minimum qualification at the entry
He is a musician as well. level. It may be recalled that the Fifth Pay Commission had
(1) He is a teacher and a musician. reduced the number of scales from 51 to 35. The extent of increase
(2) He is a teacher and a musician to boot. seems to be more for higher scales of pay, partly to reflect the
(3) He is a teacher and musician. public-private sector differentials in the pay.
(4) He is a teacher and a musician as well. What are the fiscal implications of pay revision on state
finances ? Although not mandatory, most state governments
19. He is a student studying regularly.
follow the central lead and implement the Central Pay
His regular studies will keep him in advantageous position
Commission recommendations for their employees. In fact,
at the time of exams. following the central pay revision in 1997-98, 20 state
(1) Regular studies will keep a student in advantageous governments besides the Union Territories implemented the
position at the time of exams. Central Pay Commission recommendations to create an additional
(2) Regular studies will stand a student in good stead at revenue and fiscal deficit to the tune of 1.5 percent of GDP. As a
the time of exams. ratio of revenue expenditures, the expenditures on salaries in the
(3) Regular studies is a must to be in advantageous states increased from 35 per cent in 1996-97 to 41.3 per cent in
position at the time of exams. 1999-00. With at least 11 state governments going for elections in
(4) Regular studies will help a student in exams. the next one year and with political parties indulging in
20. Tread carefully. competitive populism, there is a strong likelihood that more states
You may trample on my toes. will follow the Centre in implementing the pay revision. There are
(1) Tread carefully unless you want to trample on my toes. over 8.5 million employees at the state level and in addition, there
(2) Tread carefully, otherwise you will trample on my toes. are aided institutions and some states pay the salaries of private
(3) Tread carefully lest you may trample on my toes. school teachers as well.
(4) Tread carefully to avoid trampling on my toes. Fortunately, even if all the states adopt Central pay scales, it
is not likely to create severe fiscal stress in the states for a variety
Directions (Q. 21-25) Read the passage and answer the of reasons. First, the burden of pay commission recommendations
questions given below. is not likely to exceed 0.5 per cent of GDP, unlike in the earlier
The Report of the Justice Srikrishna Commission on the case where it increased by over 1.5 per cent of GDP. Second, the
revision of pay scales of Central Government employees has revision of pay scales comes in the background of a much healthier
allayed apprehensions of a severe fiscal burden. By all accounts, state finances. The last pay revision was undertaken when the
additional fiscal stress from the revision is expected to be much states were in a stressed situation. First, the central transfers were
lower than what was feared. There are 3.39 million Union declining in the wake of declining tax revenues of the Centre
Government employees and an unspecified number of defence whereas both central tax revenues and transfers to states continue
personnel. The pay revision for them is expected to entail an to show remarkable buoyancy now. It may be recalled that the
additional annual burden of Rs 7,975 crore and arrears of gross tax revenues of the Centre relative to GDP declined from
Rs 18,060 crore on government finances. However, in 10.2 per cent in 1991-92 to 8.2 per cent in 2001-02 following the
combination with other unfunded commitments such as loan decline in customs and excise duties relative to GDP. In contrast,
waiver and underfunded fertiliser and food subsidies, it is likely to Central tax revenues have grown at over 20 per cent per annum
add to the fiscal stress at a time when the need of the hour is during the last six years. Second, unlike the last time, when the
austerity. states own revenues were stagnant, the recent buoyancy in their
There is nothing wrong with increasing the pay scales of revenues will provide the needed cushion. The states revenues
government employees. Surely, if you pay peanuts, you will only relative to GDP have increased by over 1 per cent during the last
get monkeys. A measure of parity with private sector pay is three years mainly due to the VAT-related reforms, better
necessary to attract talent to government service. A World Bank collections from stamp duties and registration fees and state
study in 2005 showed that in 1999-2000, public sector employees excise duties. Moreover, in the earlier case the states were faced
received higher than formal private sector wages for different with much higher effective rates of interest on their borrowings
categories of employees by 62 to 102 per cent and it was higher whereas, now thanks to the debt swap scheme, lower interest
than informal private sector employees by 164 to 259 per cent. rates and the relief given by the Twelfth Finance Commission, the
Notably, governments are bottom-heavy and employees at the effective rates of interest are much lower. Above all, the severely
bottom of the pyramid receive much higher salaries than stressed fiscal situation in the states during the past decade has led
comparable employees in the private sector. Unfortunately, the to many states applying a freeze on the employment, particularly
governments do not believe in slimming (and remain ugly) and at lower levels, and the benefits of that can be reaped now in
increases in pay scales do not make them more efficient in service terms of fewer employees relative to population, although the
delivery. However, in respect of senior cadres, comparable private improved fiscal situation in the last couple of years has led to
sector officials receive multiple times the salary of government relaxation on this front.
officials and during the last eight years, the increase in organised Thus, the states are in a much better situation to face pay
private sector pay has been phenomenal and the differences have revision today than a decade ago. In fact, except for Sikkim and
been increasing. West Bengal, all the states are signatories to fiscal responsibility
Unlike the Fifth, the Sixth Pay Commission does not seem legislation and except for Kerala, West Bengal and to some extent
to have put forth much of a slimming plan, probably because the Punjab, all the states are well on their way to achieving the fiscal
Government never bothered to implement that part of the restructuring targets. In fact, the budget estimates for 2007-08
recommendations anyway. However, it has continued the plan of show that in the aggregate the states would have a small revenue
rationalising the pay scales by reducing the number of scales from surplus and exceed their fiscal deficit reduction target. Of course,
Mock Test 4 SNAP 45
the impact will differ from state to state and some states will have (3) With at least 11 states going in election in next one
difficult times. Surely, the open and hidden deficits will continue year, political parties indulge in one-up-manship in
to be a cause of concern, but for the fiscal stress, Pay Commission supporting such cheap issues as are appealing to
report can not be blamed this time. people’s interest.
21. The steep hike in central government employees’ pay as (4) With at least 11 states going in election in next one
recommended by 6th Pay Commission is likely to year, political parties indulge in competition to make
(1) put unbearable burden on states which have to more people join the ranks of their party.
willy-nilly follow the suit for their employees too. Directions (Q. 26-32) Read the passage and answer the
(2) put states in unviable position to straightaway deny questions given below.
their employees, any such hike in salary.
(3) be implemented in states without a fuss as the increase One of the biggest social problems today is child nutrition.
in burden would be one-third to that of 5th Pay All the much hyped strides taken by our country notwithstanding,
Commission implementation. this problem of child malnutrition has not shown any sign of
(4) be implemented in states which are now getting abating. There has been rhetorics, but not determined action to
increased revenue shares from the Centre as well as combat this menace which casts its shadow on future potential of
increase in own revenues. human resource.
22. The Central Government is likely to face fiscal stress due to The problem of child malnutrition begins to affect them in
wage revision because of foetal stage. Early marriage of women, and their ignorance about
(1) loan waiver and funding food and other subsidies as nutritional demands during pregnancy make the matter worse.
other commitments The lack of girls’ education keeps them unaware of the
(2) compulsion to make wage parity of its employees with importance of preventing infections by innoculations, inculcating
private sector employees in order to attract talent to good hygiene in kids, and balanced diets in warding off
government service malnutrition.
(3) the government have to bear the burden of 26. What does ‘Malnutrition’ mean ?
bottom-heavy lethargic non-performing lower rank (1) Bad nutrition
staff who are already getting much higher salary than (2) Improper balance in diet
their counterpart in private sector (3) Lack of nourishment in body
(4) the unwillingness of the government to prune the (4) Unhygienic food
strength of redundant lower-rank employees
27. The problem of child malnutrition has continued to affect
Directions (Q. 23-25) What does the undermentioned the children on large scale because
sentences mean in the context of the passage ? (1) the country has taken long strides in economy
23. The hike in salary in organised private sector, during the (2) economic growth in the country has not addressed this
last decade, has been phenomenal. problem
(1) The hike in salary in organised private sector, during (3) there has been rhetorics only sans efforts
the last decade, has been prodigious. (4) the problem has not yet abated
(2) The hike in salary in organised private sector, during 28. What, according to the passage, is the possible disastrous
the last decade, has been extraordinary. effect of child malnutrition ?
(3) The hike in salary in organised private sector, during (1) Country turning into a nation of diseased people
the last decade, has been perceptible to the senses. (2) Country spending stupendous amount of resources on
(4) The hike in salary in organised private sector, during medicines
the last decade, has been stupendous. (3) Country having dearth of healthy and intelligent
24. However, it has continued the plan of rationalising the pay work-force
scales by reducing from 35 to 20. (4) Country facing problem of disbalanced ratio of child
(1) However, it has continued the plan of justifying the population to grown-up people
action/decision of reducing pay scales from 35 to 20. 29. What, according to the passage, step or steps are needed to
(2) However, it has continued the plan of reorganizing to combat this menace ?
make reducing pay scales from 35 to 20 more logical. (1) Potential mothers’ inculcating good hygiene in kids
(3) However, it has continued the plan of making more (2) Running innoculation drive viz. polio eradication
efficient by dispensing with the pay scales from 35 to programme
20.
(3) Whole-hearted effort to provide eduction to girl child
(4) However, it has continued the plan of betterment of
as par with male-child, and parents giving them equal
pay scales by reducing from 35 to 20.
importance in every respect
25. With at least 11 states going in election in next one year, (4) Stopping early marriage of girls
political parties indulge in competitive populism.
30. What is the meaning of the word ‘HYPE’ ?
(1) With at least 11 states going in election in next one
(1) Publicity (2) Hoax
year, political parties indulge in competition to become
popular. (3) Excite (4) Stimulate
(2) With at least 11 states going in election in next one 31. Which of the options does not mean ‘notwithstanding’ ?
year, political parties indulge in competition to make (1) Nevertheless (2) Not standing with
own leader popular. (3) In spite of (4) Although
46 SNAP Mock Test 4
32. Which one is the closest in meaning of ‘Rhetoric’ ? (1) fortuitous, fosters
(1) Repetition of speech (2) High-flown speech (2) corrupt, generates
(3) Roundabout speech (4) Insincere speech (3) despicable, legitimises
Directions (Q. 33-40) Each sentence below has one or two (4) inopportune, encourages
blanks, each blank indicating that something has been 37. Although Shakespeare received little formal education,
omitted. Beneath the sentence are four numbered words or scholars have in recent years.............the view that he
sets of words. Choose the word or set of words for each blank was.............the work of classical authors.
that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. (1) questioned, influenced by
33. The notion that a parasite can alter the behaviour of a host (2) supported, oblivious to
organism is not mere fiction; indeed, the phenomenon is (3) substantiated, unimpressed by
not even............. . (4) undermined, unfamiliar with
(1) observable (2) comprehended 38. Borrowing a copyrighted book from a library amounts to a
(3) imaginable (4) rare form of theft.............by entrenched custom; the copyright
34. That many of the important laws of science were discovered owner’s property, the book, is used repeatedly without
during experiments designed to.............other phenomena .............for such use.
suggests their experimental results are the.............of (1) perpetrated, permission
inevitable natural forces rather than of planning. (2) provoked, adjustment
(1) alter, adjuncts (3) anticipated, acknowledgement
(2) verify, essence (4) sanctioned, compensation
(3) illuminate, consequence 39. Although in eighteenth century England an active cultural
(4) analyse, foundation life accompanied the beginnings of middle class
35. Darwin’s method did not really.............the idea of race as consumerism, the.............of literacy was.............with the
an important conceptual category; even the much more rise of such consumerism in the different areas of the
central idea of species was little more than a theoretical country.
............. . (1) degree, uncorrelated
(1) subsume, validation (2) spread, compatible
(2) exclude, practice (3) promotion, combined
(3) require, convenience (4) renewal, inconsistent
(4) reject, fact 40. The trainees were given copies of a finished manual to see
36. People frequently denigrate books about recent whether they could themselves begin to.............the
catastrophes as morally.............attempts to profit from inflexible, though tacit, rules for composing more of such
misforture, but in my view our desire for such books, instructional materials.
together with the venerable tradition to which they belong, (1) derive (2) design
.............them. (3) revise (4) standardise

41. How many words can be formed by rearranging the letters 46. Two radio sets were purchased for Rs 624 and one was sold
of the word ‘NEERAJ’ ? of 14% profit and the other at 14% loss. If both the SP was
(1) 790 (2) 1440 same, then calculate profit or loss per cent
(3) 60 (4) None of these (1) 1.96% profit (2) 1.96% loss
42. If radius of circle become 2 times, then the ratio of area will (3) 2% loss (4) None of these
be 47. If tan θ = 2 − 1, then the value of sin θ ⋅ cos θ will be
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1 1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) None of these (1) 2 (2)
2
43. A bucket having radii 28 cm and 7 cm and its height 45 cm. 1
Then its volume will be (3) (4) None of these
2 2
(1) 4850 cm 3 (2) 48500 cm 3
3 48. If sin θ − cos θ = 1, then the value of sin θ + cos θ will be
(3) 48510 cm (4) None of these
(1) –1 (2) 1
44. If the cost of 2 goats and 3 cows is Rs 550 and cost of 3 goats
(3) ±1 (4) None of these
and 2 cows is Rs 450. The cost of 3 goats and 3 cows will be
(1) 200 (2) 400 49. A sum was lent out at simple interest and compound
(3) 600 (4) None of these interest. After 2 yr, simple interest was Rs 200 and
45. If 41 + x + 41 − x = 10, then the value of x 2 will be compound interest was Rs 210. Then find the rate of
1 interest
(1) (2) 4 (1) 5% (2) 10%
4
(3) –9 (4) None of these (3) 15% (4) None of these
Mock Test 4 SNAP 47
50. Given that E and F are event such that P (E ) 0.4 P (F ) = 0.5 (1) 12% (2) 20%
and P (E ∩ F ) = 0.3, find P (E / F ), P (F / E ) (3) 16% (4) None of these
3 3 1 1 62. A trader marks his goods with two prices, one for ready
(1) , (2) ,
5 4 3 4 money and the other for 6 month’s credit. What ratio
2 3 should the two prices bear to each other if 5% simple
(3) , (4) None of these
5 4 interest is taken on 6 months credit.
51. Puja and Sony lent out Rs 1682 on compund interest. A sum (1) 40 : 41 (2) 2 : 3
received by Puja in 3 yr is equal to sum received by Sony in (3) 4 : 1 (4) None of these
5 yr, then if the share of Puja is x where rate of interest is 63. The true discount on a certain sum of money due 3 yr hence
5% per annum then x is equal to in Rs 100 and the simple interest on the same sum for the
(1) 800 (2) 441 same time and at the same rate is Rs 120. Find the sum
(3) 882 (4) None of these (1) 256 (2) 600
52. If 8 men and 12 boys can do a piece of work in 16 days, in (3) 360 (4) None of these
how many days 20 men and 6 boys would finish that work ? 2x + 3 f (10)
1 1 64. If f ( x ) = , x ≠ 2, x ∈ R , then is equal to
(1) 5 days (2) 5 days x−2  1
f  
3 2  2
1
(3) 4 days (4) None of these 1 69
3 (1) (2) −
4 64
53. A trader sells his goods at 10% discount. What price should (3) 69 (4) None of these
he mark on an article that costs him Rs 1200, to gain
65. If log 2x + 3 = log 64, then find x
12.5% ?
1
(1) 1000 (2) 1200 (1) 3 (2)
(3) 1500 (4) None of these 3
(3) – 3 (4) None of these
54. How many litres of water flows out of a pipe of cross section
area 5 cm 2 in 1 min, if the speed of the water in the pipe is Directions (Q. 66-70) Study the graph carefully to answer
30 cm/s ? the questions that follow.
(1) 9 L (2) 8 L Income (in lakhs) of three companies over the year
(3) 5 L (4) None of these Income − Expenditure
x 2 7 x + 2y Per cent profit = × 100
55. If = , then find the value of . Expenditure
y 7 7 x − 3y
Company A Company B Company C
(1) 4 (2) – 4
(3) 8 (4) None of these 4
Income (in Rs lakhs)
56. Divide Rs 560 between A and B so that A gets twice the 3.5
money and Rs 80 more that B gets. 3
(1) 60, 40 (2) 100, 20 2.5
(3) 180, 80 (4) 400, 160 2
57. If 75 workers working 8 h a day earn Rs 800 in 15 days, 1.5
then how much will 24 workers earn in 9 days working 10 h 1
a day ? 0.5
(1) 92 (2) 292 0
(3) 192 (4) None of these 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
Year
58. In a 1500 m race x beats y by 100 m, y beats z by 120 m, by
how much metres does x beat z ? 66. If the expenditure of company C in 2003 was Rs 1.75 lakh,
(1) 212 (2) 220 what was its per cent profit in that year ? (Rounded off to
(3) 156 (4) None of these two digits after decimal)
59. What is the total number of candidates at an examination if (1) 38.29 (2) 42.86
31% fail and the number of those who pass exceeds the (3) 53.41 (4) 58.64
number of those who fail by 247 ? 67. What is the average income of company A over the years ?
(1) 650 (2) 800 (1) Rs 275000 (2) Rs 3000000
(3) 700 (4) None of these (3) Rs 300000 (4) Rs 30000
60. How many bottles of hair oil a sales girl needs to sell at 68. What is the approximate per cent increase in income of
Rs 9.55 per bottle to earn a commission of Rs 95.50. company B in the year 2006 from the previous year ?
Considering the rate of commission to be 5%. (1) 28 (2) 11
(1) 20 (2) 200 (3) 17 (4) 22
(3) 250 (4) None of these 69. If the per cent profit of company A in the year 2002 was 20,
61. It is decided that a loan of Rs 10000 will be paid of @ what was its expenditure in that year ?
Rs 800 per month in 15 equal instalments. Find out the rate (1) Rs 250000 (2) Rs 275000
of interest taken on the loan. (3) Rs 175000 (4) Rs 150000
48 SNAP Mock Test 4
70. Per cent increase/decrease in income of company C was (1) 222 (2) 198
highest for which year ? (3) 216 (4) 208
(1) 2004 (2) 2006 75. What is the ratio of the number of buildings demolished in
(3) 2003 (4) 2002 city E to the number of buildings redeveloped in city A ?
Directions (Q. 71-75) Study the following graph carefully (1) 7 : 12 (2) 3 : 5
and answer the questions given below. (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 2
Number of buildings constructed, demolished and

Directions (Q. 76-80) Study the information carefully to
redeveloped across various cities in a year.
answer the questions that follow.
Constructed Demolished Redeveloped In a school of 2,500 students, the students are taught four
different languages viz., English, Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit. The
350
ratio of girls to boys in the school is 3 : 2 respectively. 16% of the
Number of Buildings
300
boys learn only Marathi. 23% of the girls learn only Marathi and
250
Hindi. 14% of the total number of students learn only English.
200 Boys learning only Marathi and Hindi are 120% of the girls
150 learning the same. One-tenth of the boys learn only Sanskrit. Girls
100 learning only Marathi are 130% of the boys learning the same.
50 19% of the boys learn only English. Remaining boys learn only
0 Sanskrit, Hindi and English. 32% of the girls learn only Hindi and
Sanskrit. Remaining girls learn only Hindi, English and Sanskrit.
A B C D E
76. What is the total number of girls learning English and
71. What is the difference between the total constructions Sanskrit ?
(constructed, demolished and redeveloped) in city B and (1) 787 (2) 867
city E ? (3) 947 (4) 897
(1) 125 (2) 180 77. What is the total number of students learning Marathi ?
(3) 175 (4) 200 (1) 1017 (2) 1464
72. What is the average number of buildings demolished across (3) 1024 (4) 1127
the cities ? 78. How many students study at least two languages at a time ?
(1) 100 (2) 125 (1) 1682 (2) 1462
(3) 132 (4) 115 (3) 1670 (4) 1550
73. The total number of buildings constructed across the cities 79. What is the total number of boys learning Hindi ?
is approximately what per cent of the total number of (1) 480 (2) 550
buildings redeveloped across the cities ? (3) 620 (4) 650
(1) 73 (2) 74 80. How many girls do not learn Hindi ?
(3) 85 (4) 79 (1) 368 (2) 416
74. What is the approximate average number of constructions (3) 346 (4) 428
(constructions, demolished and redeveloped) in the city C ?

Directions (Q. 81-83) Refer to the data below and answer Directions (Q. 84-87) Each question is followed by two
the questions that follow. statements I and II.
A ∆ B means A > B; A ~ B means A < B; A O B means A = B Mark (1) If the question can be answered by using one of
81. If P ∆ Q, O R and Q ∆ S, then which of the following are the statements alone but cannot be answered using the other
statement alone.
true ?
Mark (2) If the question can be answered by using both
I. P O Q II. P ∆ R III. R ∆ S
statements together but cannot be answered using the other
(1) II only (2) III only statement alone.
(3) I and II only (4) II and III only Mark (3) If the question can be answered by using either
82. If V O W, W ~ X and X ∆ Y, then which of the following is of the statements alone.
true ? Mark (4) If the question cannot be answered even by
(1) V O Y (2) W O Y both statements together.
(3) W ~ Y (4) V ~ X 84. Which is the heaviest out of iron, aluminium and gold ?
83. If I O J, J ~ K, K ∆ L which of the following will necessarily Statement I Gold is very costly.
yield positive result ? Statement II Aluminium is lightest of all three.
I. I – J II. K – J III. K – L 85. Who is the shortest among Aditya, Srinivas and Kalyani ?
(1) I only (2) II only Statement I Kalyani is shorter than Aditya but taller than
Srinivas.
(3) III only (4) II and III only
Statement II Srinivas is shorter than Aditya.
Mock Test 4 SNAP 49
86. Out of Vidya, Vinod and Ashish, who is married ? displayed by the university but roll number of Somu was
Statement I Ashish has one child whose name is Amar. not displayed. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
Statement II Vinod and Vidya are husband and wife. not valid ?
87. Is Patna a metropolitan city ? I. Ranu had failed.
Statement I A metropolitan city must have a population II. Somu had failed.
over 20 lakhs. (1) I only (2) II only
Statement II This year Patna’s population exceeded (3) I and II (4) Neither I nor II
20 lakhs. Directions (Q. 94-98) Given an input line the machine
Directions (Q. 88-90) Refer to the data below and answer arranges the words and numbers step by step in a systematic
the questions that follow. manner as illustrated below.
The following figure represents university area. Circle Input : subsidy 76 48 follow 35 next 63 must
stands for departments area, triangle for hostels region, rectangle Step I : 35 subsidy 76 48 follow next 63 must
for classroom and square for staff quarters. Step II : 35 subsidy 48 76 follow next 63 must
Step III : 35 subsidy 48 next 76 follow 63 must
Step IV : 35 subsidy 48 next 63 76 follow must
Step V : 35 subsidy 48 next 63 must 76 follow
Output in Step V is the final output and Step VI is the last
2 4
step.
1 3
5 As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each
6 of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
10 94. If the second step of an input is ‘‘21 white direct 72 status
8 7 front 37 69’’, how many more steps are required to
9 complete the arrangement ?
(1) Three (2) Four
88. Which number represents the region that has departments, (3) Five (4) Six
hostels and classrooms ?
95. What will be the third step for the input ‘‘17 85 pearls
(1) 3 (2) 3 and 10
garland 67 93 restriction judgement’’ ?
(3) 2, 4, 5 (4) 10
(1) 17 restriction 67 pearls garland 85 93 judgement
89. Which number shows the part of departments area that has (2) 17 restriction 67 pearls garland 85 judgement
classroom, but not hostels ?
(3) 17 restriction 85 pearls 67 garland 93 judgement
(1) 3 (2) 5
(4) 17 restriction 67 pearls 85 garland 93 judgement
(3) 10 (4) 3, 5 and 10
96. If the fourth step of an input is ‘‘35 wealth 52 task 72 57
90. Which number represents staff members that live in
jogging playground’’. What will definitely be the first step ?
department area ?
(1) 7 (2) 9 (1) task wealth 35 52 57 jogging 72 playground
(3) 10 (4) 7 and 10 (2) wealth task 35 52 57 jogging 72 playground
(3) wealth task 35 52 jogging 57 72 playground
91. Once a thief was charged with stealing a vehicle. Five
witnesses swore that they had seen him while stealing. But
the thief argued that he could prove his innocence by 97. If the second step of an input is ‘‘26 shop finance 48 game
presenting fifty persons who could swear that they did not music 63 37’’; what will be the fifth step ?
see him while stealing the vehicle. The thiefs argument is (1) 26 shop 37 music 48 finance game 63
not acceptable because (2) 26 shop 37 music finance 48 game 63
(1) five witnesses are enough (3) 26 shop 37 music 48 game finance 63
(2) defence witnesses do not always speak the truth (4) There is no fifth step
(3) those who did not see him were not there and 98. How many steps are required to complete the arrangement
therefore, their statement has little merit for the input ‘‘56 punish 48 find design 23 lavish 36’’ ?
(4) a thief will steal the vehicle despite many people (1) Seven (2) Five
watching him (3) Six (4) Eight
92. If according to a certain code 99. If ACRIMONY is written as CASJOMOZ in a certain code,
I. ‘tow low sow bow’ means Prasad likes personal how will NAXALITE be written in the same code ?
computer. (1) ANYBILUF (2) ANWBLIUF
II. ‘dow pow row low’ means computer is expensive gift.
(3) PYYBILUF (4) PYWBLIUF
III. ‘pow fow gow tow’ means Murthy likes expensive
hardware. Directions (Q. 100-104) Refer to the data below and
IV. ‘your dow bow fow’ means Prasad gave Murthy gift. answer the questions that follow.
What is the code word for ‘is’ ?. Mr. P of ABC Co. is recruiting five persons to do wiring and
(1) dow (2) pow plumbing on a site. He must have a minimum of two electricians.
(3) row (4) low Nine persons are sent by employment exchange M, N, O are
93. Roll numbers of those candidates were not displayed by the electricians while R, S, T, U, V and W are plumbers. Mr. P knows
university who did not fail. Roll number of Ranu was that U and V fight all the time.
50 SNAP Mock Test 4
S and T are friends and will work together. O would not Directions (Q. 111-112) In each of the following questions
work with R. a matrix of certain characters is given these characters follow a
certain trend, row wise or columnwise. Find out this tread and
100. If M, N, O are recruited, the team of plumbers can consist of
choose the missing character according.
(1) S and T only
(2) S and T or U and V
111. 18 24 32
(3) U and W or V and W
(4) S and T or U and W or V and W 12 14 16
101. Mr. P has the greatest number of choices for recruiting 3 ? 4
plumber if the electricians he chooses are
72 112 128
(1) M, N and O (2) M and N
(3) M and O (4) N and O (1) 2 (2) 3
102. If R is recruited, the other persons hired must be (3) 4 (4) 5
(1) M, N, S and T
(2) M, N, O and either U, V or W 112. 3 6 8
(3) M and N together with either S and T or U and W 5 8 4
(4) M and N together with either U and V or V and W 4 7 ?
103. Mr. P can put together the rest of his crew in the greatest
number of ways if he recruits (1) 6 (2) 7
(1) S and T (2) O (3) 8 (4) 9
(3) U (4) W 113. Not only do major diseases afflict the elderly in particular of
104. If M is recruited and N is not, which of the following which these are more—they are generally very expensive
statement must be true ? diseases to treat which one of the following options. If true
I. S and T are recruited. most strengthens this statement ?
II. Either U or V is recruited, but not both. (1) Studies reveal that 60% of elderly people suffer from
(1) I only cataract
(2) II only (2) A dentists major income comes from fixing artificial
(3) Either I or II but not both teeth for elderly patients
(4) Neither I nor II (3) Insurance companies do not cover parkin. Son’s
105. ‘Teacher’ is related to ‘Students’ in the same way as ‘Coach’ disease because of the expenses involved
is related to (4) Private nursing homes have reported that cancer
(1) Team (2) Player
accerents for 50% of prolonged hospitalisation of the
(3) Sport (4) Play
elderly
106. Pointing to Raju Ayesha says, ‘‘he is the son of my mother’s
brother’s wife’’. How is Ayesha related to Raju ? Directions (Q. 114-118) Study the following information
(1) Sister (2) Niece carefully and answer the questions given below.
(3) Cousin sister (4) Data inadequate
P, Q, R, S, T and U are six teachers. They teach different
107. Tom walked 10 miles from point P towards the East. He, subjects. Those subjects are Hindi, English, Mathematics,
then took right turn and walked 5 mile and taking another
Sanskrit, General studies and Science. Also all the teachers teach
right turn walked again for another 5 mile. In which
in different schools. The schools are I, J, K, L, M and N. The name
direction is point P from where Tom is standing now ?
(1) West (2) North-West of the subjects and schools are not necessarily in the same order as
(3) North-East (4) One of these the names of the teachers.
P teaches in the school L. Hindi is taught in the school N. Q
108. How many such digits are there in the number 724513 each
of which is as for away from the beginning in the number as teaches Science in the school I. R does not teach in the school J or
when they are arranged in ascending order starting from K. General studies is not taught by P, S, T or U. S does not teach in
left ? the school N or K. Neither English nor Mathematics is taught in the
(1) More than 3 (2) One school J.
(3) Two (4) None of these 114. Mathematics is taught by
109. If each of the odd digits in the number 54638 is decreased (1) P (2) T
by ‘1’ and each of the even digits is increased by ‘1’ which of (3) U (4) Data inadequate
the following will be the sum of the digits of the new 115. R teaches in the school
number ?
(1) J (2) K
(1) 26 (2) 29
(3) M (4) None of these
110. Five friends M, K, T, P and N are sitting around a circle 116. Who among the following teaches in the school N ?
facing towards the centre K is sitting between M and P, N is (1) T (2) U
to the immediate right of M. Who is to the immediate right (3) S (4) Either T or U
of T ? 117. In which school does S teach ?
(1) K (2) P (1) J (2) L
(3) N (4) Data inadequate (3) M (4) I
Mock Test 4 SNAP 51
118. Which of the following is/are definitely false ? (1) 10 yr (2) 39 yr
I. U teaches in the school N. (3) 38 yr (4) 64 yr
II. T teaches Hindi. 120. An office has a many four legged chairs and as many four
III. J teaches English. legged tables as workers, and as many three legged stools
(1) Only III (2) Only II and III as four legged almirahs. If the number of stools be one more
(3) Any one of the three (4) All I, II and III than the number of workers and the total number of legs be
119. Ram’s age was square of number last year and it will be 585. The number of workers in the office is
cube of a number next year. How long must he wait before (1) 17 (2) 34
his age be again the cube of a number ? (3) 16 (4) Cannot be determined
< General Awareness

121. India opted for ‘Mixed Economy’ in 130. Green Revolution in India has so far been most successful in
(1) Framing of the Constitution case of
(2) Second Five Year Plan (1) Sugarcane (2) Coarse grains
(3) Industrial Policy of 1948 (3) Wheat (4) Rice
(4) None of the above 131. Which city is referred to as the ‘Silicon Valley of India’ ?
122. Which industry in India was worst affected because of the (1) Mumbai (2) Chennai
partition ? (3) Hyderabad (4) Bangaluru
(1) Paper and Iron 132. The name of the first cloned sheep was
(2) Jute and Cotton (1) Molly (2) Dolly
(3) Cotton and Sugar (3) Jolly (4) Roly
(4) Engineering and Cement 133. In India, the First Municipal Corporation was set up in
123. In ancient peninsular India, who of the following assumed which place among the following ?
the title ‘Vatapikonda’ ? (1) Calcutta (2) Madras
(1) Mayurasharman (2) Narasimhavarman (3) Bombay (4) Delhi
(3) Pulakeshin II (4) Vikramaditya II 134. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments
124. ‘Indian cotton merchant; banker; Congressman and a close states that the total number of Ministers including the
associate of Mahatma Gandhi’. This description fits Prime Minister in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed
fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House
(1) Jamnalal Bajaj
of the People ?
(2) G.D. Birla
(1) 90th (2) 91st
(3) V.S. Srinivasa Shastri
(3) 92nd (4) 93rd
(4) M.R. Jayakar
135. The first conqueror of Mt. Everest alongwith Tenzing
125. The Gutenberg discontinuity is between Norgya, Sir Edmund Hillary, has died. He belonged to
(1) the crust and the mantle (1) New Zealand (2) US
(2) the upper and lower mantles (3) Australia (4) UK
(3) the outer core and the lower mantle
136. Service Tax was introduced in India for the first time in the
(4) the inner and outer cores
year
126. Who was the first speaker of Independent India’s Lok (1) 1990-91 (2) 1991-92
Sabha ? (3) 1994-95 (4) 1980-81
(1) Hukam Singh (2) Bali Ram Bhagat 137. Which of the following has now become the third largest
(3) Rabi Ray (4) G.V. Mavalankar economy of the world ?
127. Which of the following awards is instituted by the (1) Brazil (2) India
UNESCO ? (3) China (4) Japan
(1) Nehru award for International understanding 138. Which country is the largest investor in India ?
(2) Kalinga prize (1) USA (2) UK
(3) Arjuna award (3) China (4) Japan
(4) Nobel prize 139. Which one among the following has the highest energy ?
128. Greenhouse effect is caused by (1) Blue light (2) Green light
(1) nitrogen (3) Red light (4) Yellow light
(2) carbon dioxide 140. Which of the following rivers in popularly called ‘Dakshin
(3) carbon monoxide Ganga’ ?
(4) nitrogen dioxide (1) Cauvery (2) Krishna
129. Which of the following is not in the infrastructure sector ? (3) Godavari (4) Tungabhadra
(1) Power generation 141. Which group has recently launched its mobile services into
(2) Construction of roads the European market ?
(3) Food production (1) Tata group (2) Bharti group
(4) Expansion of airports (3) Idea cellular (4) Hutch
52 SNAP Mock Test 4
142. Where is Rail-Wheel factory situated ? 151. “Bravia” is a new LCD TV from
(1) Mysore (2) Hubli (1) Sony (2) Samsung
(3) Bidar (4) Yelahanka (3) Philips (4) None of these
143. Navratna status has been conferred on 152. The name Hang Sang is associated with
(1) HAL (2) BEL (1) Stock exchange
(3) PFC (4) All of these (2) Textile industry
144. G-8 group of nations consists of ……… nations of the (3) Fast food
world. (4) IT Software solutions
(1) developing (2) most industrialised 153. Blue Chip companies are the ones who have
(3) poor nations (4) populous (1) Maximum sales
145. The baseline ‘Because life insurance is also about other (2) Maximum Branches
people’s lives’ belongs to (3) Minimum fluctuation or minimum risk in shares
(1) TATA-AIG (2) HDFC
(3) ICICI Pru. Life (4) Birla Sunlife 154. True value is to Maruti, so is advantage to
(1) Ford (2) Tata
146. Which is not a product of Bajaj ?
(3) Mahindra (4) Hyundai
(1) Blaze (2) Platina
(3) Sapphire (4) Brave 155. Hritik Roshan does not endorse the following tires
(1) Coke (2) John Player
147. Which country owns Silk Airlines ?
(3) Parle-Hide and Seek (4) Pulsar
(1) Indonesia (2) Singapore
(3) Bangladesh (4) Bhutan 156. The name Adlabs is associated with
(1) Lintas (2) O and M
148. The Chairman of the National Development Council (NDC)
(3) Reliance Industries (4) Nexus
is the
157. “Har Jeb Mein Rang” is a punchline associated with
(1) Minister of Information Technology
(1) Asian Paints (2) Berger Paints
(2) Finance Minister
(3) Jenson Nicholson (4) None of these
(3) Prime Minister
(4) Speaker of Lok Sabha 158. Kishore Biyani is the promoter of
(1) Manager (2) Reliance Fresh
149. BILT means
(3) Amartex (4) Future Group
(1) Ballarpur Industries Ltd
(2) Bombay International Ltd 159. ‘‘Centurion Bank of Punjab’’ has recently been merged with
(3) British International Technologies (1) ICICI (2) SBI
(4) None of the above (3) HDFC (4) IDBI
150. The brand D.Dams is associated with 160. French Car Maker ‘‘Renault’’ is setting up a new plant near
(1) Chennai (2) Kochi
(1) Retail chain (2) Diamonds
(3) Vijaywada (4) Hyderabad
(3) Gold (4) Textiles
Crack SNAP 5
ENTRANCE PATTERN
Sections
Q. 2. (1) (2) (3) (4)
< General English

Directions (Q. 1-5) Read the passage and answer the Most of these dilemmas are unavoidable, not just for India,
questions that follow. but for virtually every energy importing country. After all, isn’t
There is a good deal of ambivalence in the current debates energy too strategic and vital a commodity to escape the ominous
on energy security. Can energy security be left entirely to markets cloud of geopolitics ? Commercial energy—its availability and
or is it too strategic a commodity that warrants state affordability—is not only essential for the well-being of the
intervention ? Is overseas oil equity a commercial investment citizens, but is often linked to the legitimacy of political regimes.
decision that does not necessarily enhance energy security ? Not even the most ardent champion of markets can afford to
Should we, in India, compete with China for access to overseas recommend total reliance on markets to deliver energy.
energy assets or is our objective better achieved through a The United States, the largest oil consumer in the world,
cooperative, or better still, collaborative approach ? Should we go professes supreme faith in markets. Yet, throughout its history, it
for vertical integration of our national oil companies so that they has frequently, and with impunity, wielded both the carrot and
acquire the scale to compete in the global market place or should stick to protect its own energy interests. Many believe the war on
they remain focused on their core competencies ? Iraq is one such manoeuvre. The EU, for its part, may have
Should we diversify our sources of supply ? Should we networked and synchronised its gas and electricity markets, but
prioritise fuel use on the basis of our developmental goals or has been unable to do so for the energy policies of its members.
should we let market decide who gets which fuel ? Should we go Even as other EU members are fretting over the momentary
all out to develop renewables even if they require huge subsidies disruption of Russian gas supplies to Ukraine, the German
and incentives ? Should we focus all our efforts on gas pipelines chancellor went ahead and signed energy supply agreements with
from the neighbourhood ? Can nuclear energy bridge the Russia. Now the others are breaking ranks as well. Asian countries
ever-widening gap between electricity demand and supply ? are no saints either. Japan’s quest for overseas oil assets seems to
Should we pass on the burden of higher crude prices to consumers have inspired China which has now excelled in this game,
or should we avoid inflation at all costs ? snapping up assets whatever the price or location.
56 SNAP Mock Test 5
As for India, we seem to be clutching at every straw to 3. It is suggested that
ensure that we do not drown under the weight of our own (1) India should encourage growth in motor vehicles in the
impressive, but energy-intensive growth. With crude prices country for people’s transport needs.
hovering around $90 a barrel, with oil consumption galloping out (2) India should discourage growth in moter vehicles in
of control—spurred by a phenomenal rise in vehicles on Indian the country for transport needs.
roads—with domestic reserves dwindling and no significant new (3) India should find means to increase oil production
discoveries on the horizon yet, the desperation to clutch at every which is ever dwindling.
straw is understandable. Yet, it is time we prioritised the various (4) India should judiciously use oil instead of wasting it
options available to us instead of frittering away our energy and unnecessarily by adopting various initiatives.
effort on multiple and diffuse initiatives. A SWOT analysis is the 4. The article suggests that
starting point. Acknowledging and assessing our weaknesses is as (1) India should not rely on alternative source of energy
critical as identifying and building on our strengths. (2) India is spending hugely on development of renewable
The Planning Commission’s integrated energy policy (IEP) source of energy for ensuring future demands
does precisely that. It is a comprehensive document that examines (3) Investments in developing renewable sources of
the country’s strengths and weaknesses and charts the way energy for ensuring gains in long run will be a correct
forward. After outlining and discussing various energy scenarios, option
IEP settles on a coaldominant energy paradigm as the most likely (4) India should assess and acknowledge its weaknesses
and feasible one. We may or may not agree with the approach 5. Which of the given options is the closest in meaning of
suggested by the document, but at least it is decisive and monoeuvre ?
purposeful and makes a good starting point. (1) Strategy (2) Manipulation
Deliberate, focused, purposeful and implementable energy (3) Tactic (4) Planning
policy is imperative if we are to deal effectively with our energy
Given sentences carries an underlined word. Which of the
vulnerability. If we conclude that energy is too strategic a
options is the opposite in meaning of it ?
commodity to be left to markets, we would do well to define
clearly the areas that are best left to market forces and those that 6. The flying crow dropped the meat in its beak, and a chasing
call for state intervention. Then comes the task of defining the eagle dived towards the meat that had fallen on the ground
nature, context and scope of state intervention. (1) plummeted (2) swooped
An ambivalent approach or even inordinate delay in (3) plunged (4) soared
making up our minds can do more harm than good. Similarly, if 7. The workers did their job perfunctorily.
overseas oil assets are deemed necessary or desirable, it might be (1) Routinely (2) Meticulously
worthwhile to identify the assets that might interest us and (3) Strenuously (4) Hesitatingly
undertake a credible political risk analysis. India’s going out Choose the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word
strategy should be informed by long-term vision backed by in the given sentences out of the given options.
political, diplomatic, commercial and strategic support. This will 8. He made overtures to befriend his new neighbour
improve our success rate enormously. Presently, our staggering oil (1) advances (2) attempts
import bill dwarfs and pre-empts investments in renewable (3) tenders (4) moves
technologies. But if only we can conquer our myopic obsession
9. Doctor’s prognosis of my disease was ominous
with the present and factor in long-term benefits, we might
(1) diagnosis (2) forecast
reverse the trend sooner rather than later.
(3) prescription (4) identification
While there are many energy conundrums that are not
within our power to resolve, we must resolutely address those that 10. The party spokesperson was quick to rejoin.
are. After all, in a country of billion-plus population, the stakes of (1) retort (2) riposte
indecision are very high. (3) clarify (4) retaliate
1. The article suggests that Directions (Q. 11-14) Read the passage and answer the
(1) energy is too strategic to be subjected to state control questions that follow.
(2) energy policy needs strategic state intervention Here’s something for critics of globalisation to chew on.
depending upon identifying nature and scope of Enrolment in English-medium schools in India has gone up
intervention sharply in just two years, from 4.3 per cent of total enrolment in
(3) energy is the subject which must be put under state 2003-04 to 6.3 per cent in 2005-06. The surge in English
control in order to prioritise the use of this scarce enrolment propels it to third place after Hindi and Marathi, in
resource terms of total number of Indian children being instructed in that
(4) energy problem should be left to take its own course language. This shows that despite what parochially-minded
2. Which one is true ? politicians would have us believe about the allegedly elitist
(1) USA advocates free market policy in the matter of trappings of English language teaching, there’s actually a
energy resources. grass-roots movement favouring it.
(2) USA goes all out to secure its stranglehold or oil rich Increasing enrolment in English language schools in India is
countries whatever be its political cost. in line with international trends, where English is establishing
(3) USA advocates free oil market but does not practise itself as the language of global commerce. The world’s top
itself. business schools and universities, for example, are increasingly
(4) USA does not believe in free market policy. moving towards adopting English as the language of instruction.
Mock Test 5 SNAP 57
According to premier linguistic expert David Crystal there is no 14. The parochial political leaders’ antagonism of English as
historical precedent for today’s situation, where there’s a language medium of instruction did not find favour with people at
that’s spoken in every country of the world : English. large because
Within India states like Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and (1) people have lost faith in leaders
Maharashtra are leading the surge towards English, with the (2) knowledge of English has elitist trappings
number of students enrolled in English-medium schools actually (3) people donot want to miss out opportunities requiring
doubling within two years in AP. There has been no comparable skill in English language
increase in Hindi-speaking states like UP, Bihar and MP. That’s not (4) knowledge of English engenders unity in diversity
because people living in the southern states are less proud of their amongst people of different cultures and languages
culture than those in the Hindi heartland. That’s caused, rather, by Directions (Q. 15-18) Choose appropriate word or words
the wide availability of globalisationdriven jobs, such as in the IT to fill in the blanks in the sentences from the given options.
or BPO sectors, in the southern states. Since candidates knowing
English are at an advantage when applying for those jobs, it’s 15. The …… of the bollywood attended the film award
natural that there should be a demand for English inschools. The ceremony.
economic figures for states such as UP or Bihar suggest, on the (1) literati (2) glitterati
other hand, that they are missing out on a lot of job opportunities. (3) litterateurs (4) pedant
Rapidly rising enrolment in English-medium schools 16. …… sale of the property yielded less return.
despite official discouragement, suggests that more room ought to (1) Immediate (2) Unpublicised
be made for English in school curricula. Apart from being a link (3) Distress (4) Publicized
language to the world, English is also an indispensable link 17. His mood swings from …… to …… at the slightest
language between Indian states. Studies have shown that provocation.
knowledge of English can break down caste and gender (1) elation, exasperation
inequalities while allowing the hitherto underprivileged to break (2) happy, fury
into whitecollar professions. It’s the highway not just to jobs but (3) jovial, erascible
political modernity as well. In Maharashtra, NCP ministers have (4) arrogance, haughty
been urging the reservation of 80 per cent jobs for locals. That’s
18. The boy …… at the story-book with …… attention.
not only unconstitutional, it shows the harm that can be done by
(1) looked, engrossed (2) stared, rapt
the forces of cultural chauvinism. English, which breaks down
(3) pored, rapt (4) saw, serious
barriers between states, can act as an effective antidote.
11. The demand of NCP ministers in Maharashtra for reserving Directions (Q. 19-23) Unscramble the following sentences
80% jobs for locals is a reflection of in meaningful and logical sequence
(1) their love for Marathi language 19. 1. Bihar’s development commissioner S. Vijay Raghavan
(2) their belief that Maharashtrians are having edge over gave a power-point presentation on investment
others so far as knowledge of English is concerned potential in Bihar.
(3) their parochial and populist mentality 2. Stressing on public-private ventures in agro-processing
(4) their belief that this would provide locals opportunities sector, the Chief Minister pointed out that Bihar had a
in global job market large consumer market which makes it ideal for
12. The students enrollment in schools is ever-increasing where investment.
medium of teaching is English, because 3. Mittal described the change in Bihar as impressive
(1) English has come to be recognized as link language 4. Bihar C.M. and Bharti Chief Mittal identified agriculture
between states with various local languages and tourism as key sector for private investment in the
(2) People have lost interest in own languages and state.
developed liking for English language 5. The two met at an interactive session organized by Bihar
(3) Knowledge of English as medium of communications State Council of the CII.
has opened opportunities in job markets on global (1) 5-1-4-2-3 (2) 1-5-2-3-4
scale (3) 3-2-4-1-5 (4) 1-3-5-4-2
(4) English language knowing is a sign of modernity
20. 1. Turkey has the chance to bhaze the trail for the Muslim
13. Students in southern states viz Tamil Nadu, Andhra world.
Pradesh, etc. are leading the surge in enrollments in 2. Islamic governments must respect individual freedom
English-medium schools as compared to that in Hindi belt
and equality of all citizens.
because
3. The west does not know quite what to think of Turkey’s
(1) students in Hindi belt have more affinity towards own
proposed ban on wearing headscarf on university
language
campus.
(2) the availablity of globalization driven jobs in IT, BPO
4. This had pervers initial effect on devout women staying
sectors in southern states has spurred students to get
away from higher education.
educated through English medium
5. Turkey is to continue its integration into European
(3) students in Hindi belt are getting more jobs in their
states with knowledge of local language civilization by adopting liberal values.
(4) people in Hindi belt donot like that English knowledge (1) 3-4-1-2-5 (2) 1-2-5-4-3
break the caste-based society (3) 3-1-4-2-5 (4) 5-4-1-2-3
58 SNAP Mock Test 5
21. 1. Norms and standards of various teacher-training Directions (Q. 26-30) Read the passage and answer the
courses were revised and notified. questions.
2. It was decided to consolidate these regulations under When the Communist states of Eastern Europe collapsed in
one notification for clarity. the early-1990s, there were anxious debates in Marxist circles
3. Regulations laying down the procedure for grant of over what had gone wrong. The common sense explanation was
recognition to teachers’ programmes were promulgated pretty simple : the dictatorship of the party was tyrannical,
by the National Council for Teachers Education (NCTE) opaque, excessively bureaucratic and plain inefficient. The system
on 13.1.2006. violated human nature. For those who felt history was on their
4. Regulations listed in para 12 of these regulations were side, the collapse lent itself to a curious explanation. The socialist
superseded in exercise of the powers conferred under
bloc, they argued, had crumbled because it had deviated from the
section 32(C) of the NCTE Act, 1993.
true path.
5. The NCTE consequently makes the following
Dogmatists and ideologues hate admitting they were ever
regulations.
wrong. Disaster is never attributed to a had idea but to human
(1) 4-5-3-2-1 (2) 4-2-1-5-3
foibles. The remedy is never to abandon flawed beliefs but to cling
(3) 1-2-4-5-3 (4) 5-4-2-3-1
to it more tenaciously.
22. 1. Reservations for SC/ST/OBC categories in the As Budget Day approaches, the dogmatists have mounted a
appointments shall be made as per government norms. campaign to elevate a failed idea into a national catastrophe.
2. Management of the institution shall abide by statutory There is pressure on the government to widen the scope of the
regulations on PF, Gratuity, etc for its employees. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, now operational in
3. All the appointments are to be made on full-time basis.
330 districts, nationally. Last year, the NREG Programme
4. Appointments shall be made on the basis of
devoured Rs 12,000 crore of taxpayers’ money; this year, its
recommendation of the selection committee constituted
drum-beaters want double that amount.
as per the policy of UGC/affiliating university.
There is nothing wrong per se in the idea that all citizens
5. The academic staff of the institution shall be paid salary
should be able to get a guaranteed 100 days of paid work. It has
as per prescribed pay scales.
more self-respect than queuing up for a dole. A spurt in rural
(1) 4-3-1-5-2 (2) 1-3-4-2-5
employment can contribute to greater liquidity and increased
(3) 3-4-1-5-2 (4) 1-2-3-4-5
consumption which, in turn, is good for the economy.
23. 1. General Body Meeting of a society may be called The problem arises in how work is defined. By getting
anytime if one-third of its members so desired by giving people to dig a great big pit one day and filling it up the next, a lot
30 days advance notice to the chairman.
of man hours will be generated. The job cards will be dutifully
2. Annual General Body Meeting is called by the chairman
ticked. However, manual work that does not have a productive
once every year to discuss society’s affairs.
outcome—in this case, creating assets—is a national drain. It’s
3. Managing Committee of the Society meets quarterly to
also a crime when you consider the opportunity costs.
discuss pre-circulated agenda.
The NREGA deems that 60% of any approved project must
4. The chairman may call managing committee meeting
comprise labour costs. The other 40% can include material and
anytime on written request by at least one-third
skilled labour. It’s an absurd stipulation that virtually rules out the
members of this committee.
meaningful use of bricks and mortar. It has meant that a huge
5. Chairman will have the right to nominate against any
amount of manpower has been expended in the creation of
vacancy arising out of long absence of any of its office
bearers. non-tangible assets such as kuccha roads which will be washed
(1) 1-2-3-4-5 (2) 2-3-1-4-5 away during the rains. True, the first year has also witnessed the
(3) 2-1-3-4-5 (4) 3-4-2-1-5 cleaning of many village ponds and the creation of other water
bodies. But you can’t keep doing this year after year.
Directions (Q. 24-25) Transform the following sentences in Secondly, as those with a stake in India would have
shorter ones using one word for a number of words.
predicted, an incompetent state machinery, riddled with
24. The government wants to suppress the facts from the corruption, is incapable of implementing a programme of this
people if these are not welcome. magnitude with sincerity. A draft report by the Comptroller and
(1) The government must suppress uncomfortable facts. Auditor General reveals that only 3.2% of the registered
(2) The government keeps unwelcome facts out of people’s households could avail of 100 days ‘guaranteed’ work. The
notice. average employment under NREGP was just 18 days. Rahul
(3) The government is unwilling to suppress facts. Gandhi says that only 5% of the money reaches the beneficiaries.
(4) The government is adept in suppressio veri. Yet, the Centre persists with the fiction that nearly all the 2.73
25. The students who do regular studies all through the year crore households seeking work have got it.
find themselves in comfortable position at the time of final A report on the NREGA website says that in the six chosen
examination. districts of Karnataka only 13 households were provided 50
(1) Regular students feel comfortable in final examination. mandays employment in seven months. This ‘achievement’ cost Rs
(2) Regular studies help students in final exams. 1.47 crore in wages, Rs 1.65 crore on material and Rs 2.84 crore
(3) Regular studies stand students in good stead at the on ‘contingencies’!
time of exams. To correct the follies, the fanatics want a dedicated
(4) Regular studies throughout the year is a must. babudom to run NREGP—a remedy worse than the ailment.
Mock Test 5 SNAP 59
A normal world is impatient with dogmatic adventurism. In expressions of multifaceted truths by realised souls, the rishis.
the Indian Wonderland where nothing succeeds like failure, These verses are full of ecstatic glimpses into the divine, about
ideological loonies have acquired the right to blow up public Self-realisation.
money. They were clever : they just gifted the copy-right of a bad One short piece, the Wisdom of Shandilya, from the
idea to Sonia Gandhi. Chandogya Upanishad brings out the essence of Self-realisation :
26. The mentioned title of the article may be replaced with “This universe comes forth from Brahmn and will return to
(1) Unproductive Scheme of Employment Guaranty Brahmn. Verily, all is Brahmn”.
(2) Symbol of Beaurocratic Inefficiency It goes on to say : “A person is what his deep desire is. It is
(3) Marxist Dogmatism our deepest desire in this life that shapes the life to come. So let us
(4) Squandering Public Money direct our deepest desires to realise the Self”.
The Self, that can be realised by the pure in heart, is life,
27. The communism failed in Eastern Europe in 1990’s because
light, space, gives rise to all works, desires, odours and all tastes, is
(1) it was contrary to human nature
beyond words, is joy abiding. This is the Self dwelling in my heart.
(2) it had deviated from true path
“Smaller than a grain of rice, smaller than a grain of barley,
(3) communist Party’s dictatorship was tyrannical
smaller than a mustard seed, smaller than a grain of millet,
(4) the policy itself was flawed and inefficient
smaller even than the kernel of a grain of a millet is the Self. This is
28. The demand to double the budget for employment the Self dwelling in my heart, greater than the earth, greater than
guaranty scheme is based on the sky, greater than all the worlds.
(1) the fact that a sum of Rs 12000 crore has been spent “This Self that gives rise to all works, desires, odours, and
this year on this scheme all tastes, pervades the universe, is beyond words, is joy abiding, is
(2) there is no dearth of people seeking employment under ever present in my heart, is Brahmn indeed. To him I shall attain
this scheme when my ego dies. So said Shandilya, so said Shandilya”.
(3) it is an economically productive and assets generating As the Self resides in all beings, there is really no scope in
sheme Vedanta for discrimination on the basis of birthplace, religion,
(4) popular demand of the public caste, class, gender or economic status. True, such discrimination
29. The failure of this scheme is attributed to based on an inequitable caste hierarchy has been part of Hindu
(1) the fact that only 3.2% households could get the work society for centuries, but all Hindu reformers and spiritual leaders
this year have roundly condemned such restrictive practice. Whether it was
(2) the fact that all households were given work Raja Rammohun Roy in Bengal. Ranade and Bhandarkar in
(3) the fact that the average employment under this Maharashtra, or Swami Dayananda Saraswati in Punjab, they all
scheme was only for 18 days instead of proposed 100 sought to remove the restrictive aspects of Hindu society to return
days in a year to the principles of Vedanta.
(4) incompetent state machinery which is entrusted with Vivekananda and his brother monks Ramana Maharshi and
implementation of the scheme Aurobindo had no room in their soaring philosophies for the
30. This scheme was a remedy worse than the ailment because ridiculous taboos based on caste discrimination. Indeed, in the
(1) it costed 1.47 crore in wage, Rs 1.65 crore on material global society towards which we are hurtling astride the
purchasing, and Rs 2.85 crore on contingencies irreversible arrow of time, what is needed is an inclusive
(2) it squandered public money on wasteful expenditures philosophy that cuts across all the artificial barriers that divide
(3) it costed exchequer heavily human beings and prevent them from becoming what the Vedanta
(4) the officials rightfully blew up public money calls the world as family — “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam”.
Directions (Q. 31-36) Read the passage and answer the 31. “Vedanta is the crest jewel of Hindu philosopy”. Does it
questions. mean ?
(1) Vedanta is the jewel of Hinduism
In Vedanta, which is the crest jewel of Hindu philosopy the (2) Vedanta is the most important Hindu philosophy
highest ideal is Self-realisation. This involves joining the spark of (3) Vedanta is most attractive philosophy of Hinduism
divinity within us, the Atman, with the divinity that pervades the (4) Vedanta is the quintessence of Hindu philosophy
entire universe, the Brahmn.
There are many methodologies for achieving this, classed 32. According to this article, the word ‘yoga’ is a means to
under the generic term yoga, a word from the same root as the achieve
English word yoke, and involves joining the atman and the (1) transcendental meditation
Brahmn or, in Semitic terms, God Immanent and God (2) spiritual state of atman
Transcendent. (3) hitching one’s immanent atman to the universe
There are four main paths of yoga—jnana yoga, the way of (4) self realisation of one’s inner strength
wisdom; bhakti yoga, the way of devotion; karma yoga, the way of 33. The self is to …… as the heart is to ……
dedicated work and raja yoga, the way of psycho-spiritual (1) desire, realise the goal of life
practices. (2) atman, Brahman
While there are hundreds of different paths to the divine, (3) a tiny object, vast expanse
the Rig Veda says : “The truth is one, the wise call it by many (4) spirituality, desire
names”. The Upanishads in particular are the pre-eminent 34. The Vedanta philosphy is contradictory to discrimination
structures in Hinduism because they contain illuminating on the basis of caste, creed, birth, or gender because
60 SNAP Mock Test 5
(1)
it is contrary to self realisation Only little Timothy Mouse befriends him, and devises a to
(2)
hinders achieving goal of divinity make lonely little Dumbo a star. He gets a crafty crow to inform
(3)
it is inequitous practice Dumbo that magic flying feathers are what really make crows able
(4)the self is immanent in all beings irrespective of their to fly, and if Dumbo had just one such magic feather, then he
social milieu would be able to fly too.
35. Noted social reformers have done their best to emancipate Plucking a feather out of a friend’s tail and giving it to
society from the yoke of discrimination because Dumbo, he says, “This is a magic flying feather for you”. And
(1) it was riduculous taboo wonder of wonders—Dumbo flies on his first try, and because of
(2) it was not in tune with the philosophy of the world this, is made part of a more daring performance, where he has to
being a single family leap from a high platform as part of the clown’s fire rescue act.
(3) the discrimination in society was a hinderance to self All goes well till one day, about to dive off the high platform
realisation in the middle of the act, Dumbo somehow loses the magic feather.
(4) it was contrary to the principle of equality Timothy Mouse, terrified, immediately yells and convinces him,
36. The movement of society to the desired goal of global “it isn’t really magic. You can fly on your own”. And Dumbo,
society is taking place flapping his enormous ears madly, discovers in that moment that
(1) despite the social taboo of discrimination it was not the feather at all which had the power of flight, but
(2) slowly but surely Dumbo himself.
(3) sitting on the horse of fast running time The feather was only a bridge to put him in touch with a gift
(4) not as fast as it should have that was his all along. In our lives, we are in need of magic
Directions (Q. 37-41) Read the passage and answer the feathers in the form of talismans or beliefs that can help us reach
questions. new heights. Our lesson is to utilise them for as long as we need
them, but recognising them for the temporary gift they are, we are
A businessman approached the Wise One, “All my decisions
challenged to transcend the need for an outer reminder of what
seem wrong, I never make enough money… you must help me”.
has been ours all along.
The Wise One simply gave him a tiny locked treasure chest
cham, and said, “Take this with you everywhere, and shake it 37. On being given a magic box of treasure, the businessman
three times whenever you enter a new space or meet someone for felt sceptical—that is
the first time”. Somewhat sceptical, he looked at the tiny charm. (1) happy (2) lucky
“Oh well”, he thought, “maybe the magic object inside will bring (3) satisfied (4) suspicious
me luck; no harm in trying it out”. 38. The Wise One who gave the businessman a magic box was
He carried the little charm everywhere, and in the space (1) a fairy (2) magician
that he shook it thrice, waited, and paid attention, he noticed an (3) oracle (4) wise man
opportunity here, a danger or pitfall there. A year went by and his 39. What do you think a talisman is ?
luck had totally changed. (1) It is a device to make one capable of achieving what is
He went back to the Wise One and excitedly asked for the desired
key. At first she refused, but he persisted, and she reluctantly (2) It is an inanimate object with magical power
opened the tiny little treasure chest. The man reached out and (3) It is a device which makes one get money
almost snatched it from her. He looked inside.
(4) The circus elephant’s device to help it fly in the air
“Why… there’s nothing inside!” he exclaimed in shock. “But
there is on the outside”, she smiled. 40. The circus elephant was the butt of ridicule because
The power of talismans to open us to our own capacities (1) it was capable of flying
needs to be better understood, and this lesson is best (2) a little mouse, ‘Timothy’ was its friend
communicated through story, as in this beautiful traditional (3) it was performing with clowns in the circus
one—but modern tales too have had much the same point to make (4) it had had large-size ears
to a rather different audience, as in the story of Dumbo, the Flying 41. The little elephant, Dumbo, was able to fly in a daring circus
Elephant. act because
Born into a circus, a baby elephant is rejected by the others (1) a crow gave him a magical flying feather
because of his unusually big ears. Jeered at by children, rejected (2) it could fly on its own without crow’s feather
by the other performers, poor Dumbo is demoted to appearing as a (3) it could fly with its flapping big ears
clumsy, bumbling creature in an act with the clowns. (4) it thought it could do so

42. Munna Bhai deals in second hand cars. His associate 27000 on repair of the Esteem and Rs 18000 on repair of
“Circuit Kumar” specializes in identifying cars with a good the Zen. According to the income tax guidelines, Munna
resale value. Munna Bhai bought 2 cars : an Esteem for Rs Bhai could charge depreciation proportional to the cost of
270000, and a Zen for Rs 180000. After one year Munna the asset (in this case the assets were cars). Thus, the value
Bhai wanted to sell both the cars to his favourite customer 1
of any car could decrease by a maximum of 9 % each
Lucky Singh. The Esteem bought by Munna Bhai was 11
manufactured 5 years back and Zen bought by Munna Bhai 1
year. Munna Bhai also wanted to earn a profit 11 % on the
was manufactured 4 years back. Munna Bhai also spent Rs 9
Mock Test 5 SNAP 61
sale of both the cars. Find the approximate best price B E
C
(combined) at which he should sell both the cars ? (Assume
that the profit percentage is calculated on the Book value of
the assets) H
NOTE Best price is lowest price at which Lucky Singh would sell.
(1) 488889 (2) 500000

(3) 480000 (4) 540000 F
A G D
43. I (N) represents the integer value of a given number. If
1 1 1 (1) 3 : 22 (2) 1 : 6
N = + +... + . What is the value of I(N) ? (3) 1 : 5 (4) 3 : 20
2 3 10000
(1) 197 (2) 196 x2 − 1
50. If g( x ) = 1 − x 2 and f [ g( x )] = , when x ≠ 0, then
(3) 296 (4) 297 x2
44. 10 lines are drawn in a plane. Which of the following  1
f   =?
numbers cannot be the number of points of intersections  2
that can be generated (by these 10 lines) ? (1) 3 (2) 3/4
(1) 0 (2) 44 (3) 1 (4) None of these
51. Chantu and Bantu bet on reaching the top of a 30 5 m high
45. In an Antakshari tournament there are 3 categories of building first. Chantu has to reach by pole to a height equal
teams. They are named as Deewane, Parwane and Mastane.
to the height of the building while Bantu along a spiral
There are 3 teams from the Deewane category, coded as
staircase of the same height. The radius of the spiral is 7 m
D1 , D 2, D 3 . Each team from Deewane category plays exactly
and there are 5 complete spirals in the staircase. If the bet
4 games of Antakshari. Similarly there are 5 and 2 teams
ended in a tie, what was the ratio of the speeds of Chantu
respectively in Parwane and Mastane category. These
and Bantu respectively ?
teams are coded as P1 , P2, P3 , P4 and P5; and M1 and M 2
(1) 4 5 : 23 (2) 5 3 : 23
respectively. The rules of the tournament allow any team
from any category to play a game of Antakshari against any (3) 3 5 : 23 (4) 5 3 : 23
other team from either their own category or a different 52. If n = 3(1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5) + 4(2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6)
category. The number of teams that participate in each + 5(3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 ) + 6(4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8) + upto 18
game are two. Further, each of the 5 teams in the Parwane terms, what is the value of n ?
category played exactly 3 games. Which of the following (1) 14375 (2) 10545
could be the exact number of games played by each team of (3) 14325 (4) 10525
Mastane category ? 53. Find the term independent of x in the expansion of
(1) 1 (2) 5  1 −1  8
(3) 3 (4) None of these 1 x 3 − x 5  .
46. There are ‘n’ baskets in the Reliance Fresh outlet at Bhopal. 2 
 
Each basket contains a different number of oranges. One
basket was counted at random by the store manager and (1) 7 (2) 8
there were 100 oranges found in that basket. Further, his (3) 15 (4) None of these
deputy who was a fresh MBA, noted that if the bakset with 54. A woman can complete a certain job in 8 days. She works
100 oranges were taken away, then the average number of for a day and then is replaced by a woman who can do the
oranges per basket drops by 1%. Find the largest possible same job in 7 days. Then next day, this woman is also
number of oranges in any basket if the initial average of replaced by a woman who can do this job in 6 days and so
oranges per basket was 80. on. On which day is the job completed ?
(1) 1680 (2) 1800 (1) Fourth (2) Seventh
(3) 1755 (4) 1825 (3) Sixth (4) Fifth
47. Let n(> 1) be a positive integer. Then the largest integer ‘ m’ 55. The number of integer solutions of the equation
such that [ nm ] divides (1 + n + n2 + . . . + n127 ) is (given y 2 = 1 + x + x 2 are
[ nm ] represents the least integer greater than nm ) (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 127 (2) 63 (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 64 (4) 32 56. A group of masons, all of equal capacities, were hired to
48. The value of log 3 2⋅ log 4 3⋅ . . . ⋅ log10 9 ⋅ log11 10 is work for Rs 10000. From this group one mason started the
(1) log11 2 (2) log10 3 work, second day one more mason joined him and like this
(3) log 4 5 (4) log 2 11 every day one more mason joined the group. If every mason
49. E and G are the mid points of sides BC and AD respectively worked at half of their own efficiency then the work was
4 completed in exactly 15 days. Find the maximum amount
of rectangle ABCD. AEF is a right angle and AF = AD.
3 earned by any mason in the group
What is the ratio of the areas of triangle ECH and rectangle (1) Rs 750 (2) Rs 1250
ABCD ? (3) Rs 1500 (4) Rs 1300
62 SNAP Mock Test 5
57. Ram Lal professes to sell 2 kg of Kajoo at a loss of 20%, Now comrade arrived in 21 min after he did. Find the speed of
to avoid the loss, he uses two weighing stones, each of the faster boy on foot if they both did 20 km/h cycling and
which is marked 1 kg, but weighs less. By doing so he gains on foot, the first takes 3 min less to cover each kilometre
2 then the second
6 % on selling evey 2 kg of Kajoo. If it is given that one of
3 (1) 3 km/h (2) 4 km/h
the stones weights only 750 g, then how much does the (3) 5 km/h (4) 6 km/h
second stone weight ? 63. The percentages (by weight) of alcohol in three solutions
(1) 900 g (2) 850 g form a geometric progression. If we mixture the first,
1 second and third solutions in the weight ratio of 2 : 3 : 4, we
(3) 750 g (4) 583 g
3 obtain a solution containing 32% alcohol. If we mixture
58. Amitabh, Aishwarya, Abhishek, Nana and Madhuri are them in the weight ratio 3 : 2 : 1, we obtain a solution
among 7 film celebrities invited at TISS to speak on containing 22% alcohol. What is the percentage of alcohol
different subjects in psychology. Abhishek says he must in each solution ?
speak after Aishwarya and Nana says he must speak before (1) 6%, 12%, 24% (2) 9%, 18%, 36%
Amitabh, who in turn requested the college management to (3) 8%, 12%, 18% (4) 12%, 24%, 48%
schedule his speech before Aishwarya. How many different 64. What is the total number of triangles in the following figure ?
orders of speakers are possible [given the above
constrainsts] ?
(1) 5040 (2) 1260
(3) 210 (4) 420
x
59. If P = Σ x i. Further it is known that
i =1
x1 = x 2 = x 3 = x i = . . . = x x = x. where x is a natural
number which of the following is a possible value of P ?
(1) 3473569949 (2) 5775794629 (1) 26 (2) 36
(3) 5773416289 (4) 32296449 (3) 60 (4) 48
60. M is the mid point of the hypotenuse AC of a right angled 65. Four of my friends love collecting books. Last year, they
triangle ABC. The perpendicular MP to AC meet AB purchased a total of 70 books. When I saw their purchases, I
produced at P and intersects BC at N. MN = 3 cm and noted that each of them had purchased a different number
PN = 9 cm. Find the length of the hypotenuse AC. of books and the number of books purchased by each was
an integral multiple of purchases of every other friend who
A
purchased less books than him. What is the least number of
M books purchased by the friend who had purchased the most
books ?
B 90° (1) 56 (2) 64
90° N (3) 24 (4) 48
C 66. Cost of 15 sets, each set consisting of a ball pen, a gel pen,
and a fountain pen is Rs 165. Shobhna was given Rs 65 by
her father so that she could buy 5 ball pens, 6 gel pens, and
P 7 fountain pens. However, if Shobhna wanted to buy 5
(1) 10 cm (2) 15 cm fountain pens, 6 gel pens and 7 ball pens, how much more
(3) 12 cm (4) 18 cm money would she require ?
(1) Rs 2 (2) Rs 4
61. ABC is a triangle ∠ A = 30° , ∠ B = 60° and AB = 10 cm.
(3) Rs 5 (4) Rs 10
Find the length of the shorter trisector of ∠C.
(1) 2.5 3 cm (2) 3 2 cm Directions (Q. 67-70) Onthe basis of the information given
(3) 2 5 cm (4) 4 cm below.
62. Two boys with one bicycle between them set out from A in Ali and Sonali live in Detroit and Cincinnati respectively
the direction of B, one by bicycle and the other on foot. At a and during weekends one of them drives down to the other’s city
certain distance from A the one riding the bicycle left it by so as to spend time together. However at one of the weekends,
the road and continued towards B on foot. The one who had there was some confusion resulting in both of them starting at the
started out on foot reached the bicycle and rode the rest of same time (6 pm on Friday).
the distance. Both reached B at the same time. On the The line chart below shows time and distance (km)
return trip from B to A, they did as before, but this time the between Ali and Sonali when Ali reached town A, B, C, etc on his
first cyclist rode 1 km more than the first time and so his way.
Mock Test 5 SNAP 63
800 4.5
700 720 4 4
600 560 3.5
Distance (km)
3
Time (hours)
500 2.8 2.5
420
400 384 2
300 1.6 2 1.5
240
200 1
100 0.67 0.5
0 0
0 0
Detroit A B C D E
Ali’s Position
Distance Time
Traffic faced by Ali was quite dense initially and he could drive at uniform 60 km/h only till 8 pm. From 8 pm, Ali uniformly raised
his speed to 180 km/h for next 40 min and kept constant at that speed for another 40 min. Then till 10 pm, he uniformaly reduced his
speed to 120 km/h to reach town E.
67. What is the distance, by road, of town D from Cincinnati ? Number of literates in the city
Literacy rate of city =
(1) 196 km (2) 224 km Total population of the city
(3) 256 km (4) 496 km Minimum population of at least one of Bhopal and Chttour
68. Between 6 pm and 10 pm, average speed of Ali and average is 30% of total population. Population of none of the cities is less
speed of Sonali were in the ratio than 10% of total population.
(1) 8 : 7 (2) 7 : 5 Minimum number of literates in each of the cities, Agra and
(3) 5 : 3 (4) 3 : 2 Bhopal, is not less than 30% of total literates.
69. During the above period, what maximum speed did Sonali 71. If number of literates in Chittour is 80000, then minimum
assume ? rate of literacy in Agra could be
(1) 90 km/h (2) 120 km/h (1) 33.33 % (2) 66.67%
(3) 180 km/h (4) Can’t be determined (3) 40 % (4) Indeterminate
70. Ali’s speed bore maximum ratio to Sonali’s average in the 72. If number of literates in Agra is 100000, then the minimum
corresponding interval speed at the same time when Ali possible rate of literacy in Bhopal is appoximately
was driving between (1) 17% (2) 12%
(1) Towns A and B (2) Towns B and C (3) 20% (4) 23%
(3) Towns C and D (4) Towns D and E 73. Number of literate males in which of the cities can be the
Directions (Q. 71-74) These questions on the basis of highest of the three cities ?
following information. (1) Agra or Bhopal or Chittour
(2) Bhopal
Agra (3) Agra or Bhopal
10%–30% Agra (4) Agra
74. If the population distribution is Bhopal 30%, Chittour 60%,
the then maximum number of literate females in Agra city is
Bhopal Bhopal
Chittour Chittour approximately
20%–40% (1) 30000 (2) Data inconsistent
(3) 20000 (4) 25000
Directions (Q. 75-76) On the basis of following information.
Total population : 5 lakh No. of literates : 2 lakh
Range of ratio of male literates to female literates A geneticist carried out a survey in Hamburg among
newborns. It was revealed in her survey that at least 65% of
120% Agra
newborns had their eyes dissimilar to their mother’s, at least 75%
100% Bhopal newborns had their nose dissimilar to their mother’s and at least
80%
85% newborns had their fingers dissimilar to their mother’s.
Chittour
NOTE Throughout this passage and in questions figures for newborn
66.66% refer to live births only.
50%
75. Assuming, 1200 live births took place in January in
Hamburg which of the following statements does not
disagree with survey results ?
64 SNAP Mock Test 5
(1) 200 newborns had their eyes, nose as well as fingers 77. What is the amount of expenditure incurred by P on
similar to their mother’s machinery ?
(2) 950 newborns had their eyes, and nose dissimilar to (1) Rs 100000 (2) Rs 150000
their mother’s but not fingers (3) Rs 200000 (4) Rs 2500000
(3) 300 newborns had their eyes, nose as well as fingers 78. The amount of expenditure incurred by L on pesticides is
dissimilar to their parents what per cent of the amount of expenditure incurred by Q
(4) 450 newborns had all of eyes, nose and fingers on pesticides ?
dissimilar to their mother’s (1) 75 (2) 60
76. Assuming survey results to be true and considering data of (3) 50 (4) 85
Q. 75, if every newborn is dissimilar to its mother in either 79. What is the total amount of expenditure incurred on labour
its nose, or eyes or fingers and exactly 15% newborns are by all landowners together ?
dissimilar to their mother in respect of just one of these at (1) Rs 12000 (2) Rs 120000
least how many new borns are dissmilar to their mother in
(3) Rs 1200000 (4) Rs 1200
respect of all of these ?
(1) 120 (2) Indeterminate 80. Expenditure on seeds by Q is approximately what percent
(3) 360 (4) 480 of its total expenditure ?
(1) 12 (2) 8
Directions (Q. 77-81) Study the graph carefully to answer (3) 3 (4) 7
the following questions. Expenditure (in Rs ‘000’) incurred by
six Landowners in a year on the cultivation of their lands. 81. Miscellaneous expenditure incurred by all landowners
together is approximately what per cent of the total
Seeds Pesticides Labour expenditure incurred on all items together by all
Machinery Miscellaneous landowners ?
900 (1) 6 (2) 10
Expenditure (Rs in ‘000)
800 (3) 15 (4) 20

700
600
500
400
300
200
100
0
L M N O P Q
Landowner

Directions (Q. 82-83) In an institute there are five identical 83. If it is known that room named Purna chandra does not
rooms having different items in it. Every identical looking room contain either any printer or any computer, the room
has a name indicating its contents. The details of the contents named Pashupatti does not contain any printer and room
and the name of each room are as given below. named Chandrachud contains one computer and one bag
Contents Name of Rooms which of the following will definitely be true if only one of
the remaining rooms is opened ?
Two Printers Pashupatti (1) It will have at least one computer and printer
Two Computers Chandrachud (2) It will have two printers
Two Bags Bagbahadur (3) It will have at least one computer
One Printer and One Computer Purnachandra (4) It will have at least one printer
One Bag and One Computer Biswachakra Directions (Q. 84-87) Study the following information
corefully and answer the questions that follow.
One day somebody in the institute changed the name plate
of every room such that no room contains the name correctly Mr. Bashu recently redecorated his house by coordinating
explaining contents. orange and three other colours for the walls, carpets and curtains
of four different rooms from the information below. Determine
82. If supervisor of the institute opened a room named
the colours of the carpet, walls and curtains for each of the room
Biswachakra and found that one item was a bag. Which of
and answer the following questions.
the following would difinitely be correct ?
(i) Yellow was the only colour used in all the four rooms. It
(1) The other item will be a bag
was used at least once for walls, carpets and curtains.
(2) The other item will not be bag (ii) Three different colours were used in each room but
(3) The other room named bagbahadur will contain a bag only the dining-room and the bed-room were
(4) The other item is a computer decorated in the same three colours.
Mock Test 5 SNAP 65
(iii) The same colour was chosen for the curtains in the Represents
bed-room, the carpet in the living-room and the walls (i) Rectangle → mates
in the dining-room. That colour was not used at all in (ii) Triangle → educated
the study-room. (iii) Circle → urban
(iv) The only room with both green and grey in its colour (iv) Square → civil servants
scheme had carpet of the same colour as in the 93. Who among the following is only a civil servant but not a
dining-room. male nor urban oriented and uneducated ?
(v) Grey was the only colour used exactly twice both times (1) 7 (2) 8
for curtains. (3) 9 (4) 11
(vi) The study-room walls were painted the same colour as
the living-room walls. 94. Who among the following is a male, urban oriented and
also a civil servant but not educated ?
84. Which of the following rooms had orange curtains and
(1) 13 (2) 12
green walls ?
(3) 6 (4) 7
(1) Dining-room (2) Living-room
(3) Bed-room (4) Study-room 95. Who among the following is a female, urban resident and
also a civil servant ?
85. Which of the two rooms had green carpets ?
(1) 6 (2) 7
(1) Dining-room and bed-room
(2) Study-room and living-room (3) 10 (4) 12
(3) Living-room and dining-room 96. P is father of G, A is sister of C. D is uncle of A, C is brother of
(4) Study-room and dining-room G and G is father of B, who is uncle of B ?
86. Which room did not use grey colour at all ? (1) D (2) P
(1) Dining-room (2) Study-room (3) C (4) None of these
(3) Cannot say (4) Living-room 97. If the order of letters of each of the following words is
87. The dining-room has …… curtains. reversed then which of the following will be a meaningful
(1) green (2) yellow word thus formed ? If more than one such word can be
(3) orange (4) grey formed mark ‘S’ as the answer and if no such word can be
formed mark ‘X’ as the answer
Directions (Q. 88-92) It being given that + dinotes greater
than – dinotes ‘Les than’. × denotes not ‘greater than’ : ÷ NAIL, PAIL, RAIL, MADAM, REST
denotes not less than ~ denotes ‘not’ equal to and ∆ denotes (1) RAIL (2) MADAM
equal to (3) S (4) X
88. a ~ b ÷ implies that 98. If REQUEST is written as S2R52TU, how will ACID be
(1) b − c + a (2) b × c ∆ a written ?
(3) c ~ a + b (4) a ÷ b − c (1) BDJE (2) B3J4
(3) IC94 (4) None of these
89. a ∆ b ~ c implies that
(1) c − a × b (2) b + a + c Directions (Q. 99-103) Study the following information
(3) b × c − a (4) c + b ÷ a corefully and answer the question given below.
90. c ~ b ÷ a implies Gautam passes through seven lanes to reach his school. He
(1) a − c ∆ b (2) a ∆c + b finds that ‘Yellow Lane’ is between his house and ‘Kama Lane’. The
(3) c ∆ a − b (4) b + c − a third lane from his school is ‘Apple Lane’ and ‘Peacock lane’ is
91. a + b + c does not imply immediately before the ‘Park Lane’. He passes ‘Ash Lane’ at the
(1) b − a + c (2) b − a − c end ‘Kama Lane’ is between ‘Yellow lane’ and ‘Peacock Lane’. The
(3) c − b − a (4) c − a + b sixth lane from his house is ‘Rao Lane’.
92. a ÷ b × c does not imply 99. How many lanes are there between ‘Kama Lane’ and
(1) b − c ∆ a (2) c + b × a ‘Rao Lane’ ?
(3) a ∆ b − c (4) c × a ∆ b (1) One (2) Two
Directions (Q. 93-95) The following questions are based (3) Three (4) Four
on the diagram given below. 100. After passing the ‘Park Lane’, how many lanes does Gautam
cross to reach the school ?
7 (1) Four (2) Three
3
(3) Two (4) One
10
101. After passing the ‘Yellow Lane’, how many lanes does
8 12 6 Gautam cross to reach the school ?
4 13
(1) Four (2) Six
9 11 14 (3) Two (4) One
102. Which lane is between ‘Park Lane’ and ‘Rao Lane’ ?
5
(1) Yellow Lane (2) Kama Lane
(3) Apple Lane (4) Peacock Lane
66 SNAP Mock Test 5
103. If the house of Gautam, each lane and his school are (iii) T and U should be on different shelves
equidistant and he takes two minutes to pass one lane then (iv) V is to be either on one shelf or two shelves above the
how much time will he take to reach school from his house ? shelf where X is placed.
(1) 18 min (2) 16 min (v) W is to be either on one shelf or two shelves above the
(3) 14 min (4) 12 min shelf that X is placed.
104. Shailendra takes casual leave on the first working day of 110. If V and W are the only two objects on one of the shelves
every month. The office remains closed on every saturday and four objects are on the middle shelf which of the
and sunday. If the first working day of a 30 day month is following must be true ?
Tuesday, then his next. Casual leave will be on which of the (1) Y is on the top shelf
following days ? (2) U is on the bottom shelf
(1) Wednesday (2) Thursday (3) T is on the middle shelf
(3) Friday (4) None of these (4) Z is on the middle shelf
105. If it is possible to make a nunber which is perfect square of a 111. If all the seven objects are on two shelves. Which of the
two digit odd number with the second. The sixth and ninth following must be true ?
digits of the number 187642539, which of the following is (1) T, V and W are on the top shelf
the digit in the unit’s place of that two digit odd number ? (2) No more than three objects are on the middle shelf
(1) 1 (3) At least three objects are on the top shelf
(2) 7 (4) U is on the top shelf
(3) 9 112. If V and T are the only objects on one of the shelves, which
(4) No such number can be made of the following must be true ?
106. Sitting at a square table are a smuggler, a mafia boss, a (1) U is either on the middle or top shelf
bootlegger and a contract killer. Only two of these men, (2) X is on the bottom shelf
(3) W is on the top shelf
mama and kalia are genuine criminals. The other two are
(4) if Y is on the bottom shelf, Z is on the middle shelf
CID officers posing as criminals. Mama is sitting opposite
the mafia boses the junior CID officer is sitting to the left of Directions (Q. 113-114) In each of the following question,
the smuggler and the senior CID officer is sitting opposite a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters follow
the bootlegger. The junior officer as a certain trend row wise or column wise. Find out this trend
(1) smuggler (2) mafia boss and choose the missing character.
(3) bootlegger (4) contract killer
113. 6 6 8
Directions (Q. 107-109) Following questions are based on 5 7 5
the five three digit numbers given below.
4 3 ?
518 725 849 387 634 120 126 320
107. If the positions of the first and the third digits in each of the
numbers are interchanged. Which of the following will be (1) 12 (2) 8
the lowest after the rearrangement ? (3) 4 (4) 16
(1) 518 (2) 725
114. 7B 5C 6B
3C 9B 19A
108. If the positions of the first and the second digits in each of
the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will 15A 17A ?
be the third from the top when they are arranged in (1) 14B (2) 12C
descending order after the rearrangement ? (3) 10C (4) 16C
(1) 518 (2) 725
Directions (Q. 115-116) The following questions are
(3) 849 (4) None of these based on the information given below.
109. If the positions of the second and the third digits in each
number are interchanged which of the following will be the The following are the data on 500 students who appeared
for examination in Geography, Economics and Commerce.
difference between the highest and the lowest number after
the rearrangement ? Passed in all three subjects 191
(1) 518 (2) 725 Passed in Geography only 72
(3) 849 (4) 516 Passed in Economics only 61
Directions (Q. 110-112) Refer to the following data and Passed in Commerce only 59
answer the questions that follow. Failed in Geography 199
There is an empty three shelf bookcase. T, U, V, W, X, Y and Failed in Economics 206
Z are seven objects to be placed either on the bottom, middle or Failed in Commerce 201
top shelf of the bookcase with the following conditions. Failed in all the three subjects 70
(i) At least two objects should be on the top shelf 115. How many have passed in exactly two subjects ?
(ii) Three should be no more than four subjects on any (1) 152 (2) 144
shelf. (3) 47 (4) 56
Mock Test 5 SNAP 67
116. How many have passed in at least one subject ? 119. The initial amount possessed by C was
(1) 430 (2) 390 (1) Rs 80
(3) 427 (4) 327 (2) Cannot be determined
(3) Rs 50
Directions (Q. 117-119) A, B, C, D and E are five persons
holding certain amount of money each (all different) when B, (4) Rs 70
C, D and E exchanged their amounts amongst themselves so 120. Should it be made compulsory for all the private sector
that no one had their original amount, it is observed that organisation to be reserve quota for socially backward
classes ?
I. B possesses the highest amount amongst all persons.
Arguments
II. D possesses the lowest amount amongst all persons, I. No, the private sector should not be governed by the
which is Rs 20 lessthan what A has. government rules.
III. E and C possess Rs 50 and Rs 70 respectively. II. Yes, private sector organisation should also contribute
When A, C, D and E exchanged their initial amounts in upliftment of socially backward classes.
amongst themselves so that no one had their original amount it is (1) Only I is strong
observed that (2) Only II is strong
I. A has the highest amount amongst all persons which is (3) Both I and II are strong
Rs 40 more than what B has (4) None of the above
II. C has Rs 30 less than what A has 121. Should the women be advised not to travel alone at night
III. E has Rs 10 less than what D has inview of the increasing incidence of rape and sixual
117. The initial amount possessed by A was abuse ?
(1) Rs 80 Arguments
(2) Cannot be determined I. No, instead the government should take measures to
(3) 40 control such incidences.
(4) 60 II. Yes, it is difficult even for the police department to
118. The initial amount possessed by B was control such cases.
(1) Rs 60 (1) Only I is strong
(2) Cannot be determined (2) Only II is strong
(3) Rs 40 (3) Both I and II are strong
(4) Rs 50 (4) None of the above
< General Awareness

122. Which right in India is a constitutional right but not a (1) Mirage F-2000 (2) MIG 21
fundamental right ? (3) MIG 23-BDI (4) MIG 27
(1) Right to Freedom of Religion 129. Which of the following is the largest power distribution
(2) Cultural and Educational Rights company in India ?
(3) Right against Exploitation (1) Torrent power (2) Tata power
(4) Right to Property (3) BSES (4) Reliance power
123. The book ‘The Shape of the Beast’ is written by 130. Who tops the above ranking of the world’s most attractive
(1) Khushwant Singh (2) Kuldeep Nayeir
tourist destinations ?
(3) Arundhati Roy (4) Shabana Azami
(1) Switzerland (2) South Africa
124. Who is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India ? (3) Singapore (4) Mauritius
(1) Y.V. Reddy (2) D. Subbarao
131. Who has recently been appointed the first ever Director
(3) Montek Singh (4) None of these
General (administration) of the Indian Airforce ?
125. Who has become the India’s first women basketball player
(1) Air Vice-Marshal T. Kumaran
to play in a foreign league ?
(2) Air Marshal Naresh Verma
(1) Dola Banerjee (2) Gethu Annajore
(3) Air Marshal K. S. Gahlot
(3) Divya Singh (4) Jhoolan Goswami
(4) Air Commodore V.K. Puri
126. Who has been appointed as the chairman of Prasar Bharti ?
(1) K.V. Kamath (2) Rahul Bos 132. Which of the following insurance companies has tied up
(3) Nrimal Pandey (4) Arun Bhatnagar with India post to collect the insurance premium through
post offices ?
127. What name has Michael Jackson given to his forth coming
(1) LIC India (2) Birla Sunlife
tour of concerts termed by him as his final tour ?
(3) HDFC Standard (4) ICICI Prudential
(1) Final Curtain Calls
(2) That’s Folks 133. Bill Gates has replaced Worren Buffettas as the richest man
(3) The Final cerentdown in the world in the Forbes 2009 list of the world’s
(4) The Final Stage is Beckoning Billionaries. Who among these is at No. 3 ?
128. Which of the following aircraft retired from IAF service in (1) Callos Slim Helu (2) Lawrence Ellison
March 2008 ? (3) Karl Abrecht (4) Mukesh Ambani
68 SNAP Mock Test 5
134. Olympic Games 2012 will be held in (3) Default of three instalments
(1) London (2) Paris (4) Default of six instalments
(3) Washington (4) Tokyo 146. Which of these noted Indian origin writer and actor has
135. Who has been appointed as the next chief of the India Air been appointed chancellor of the University of Sussex in
Force (IAF) ? UK ?
(1) S. Subramanium (1) Amit Chaudhary
(2) Virendra Rana (2) Sanjeev Bhaskar
(3) Yashwant Singh (3) Sayyed Jaffrey
(4) Pradeep Vasant Naik (4) None of the above
147. Who has been appointed the Director of the All India
136. In which one of the following states has India’s largest
Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) for the next 5 years ?
private sector sea part been commissioned recently ?
(1) Dr. Rakesh Mittal (2) Dr. Girish Ahuja
(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Karnataka
(3) Dr. Krishna Aiyar (4) Dr. KC Deka
(3) Kerala (4) Tamil Nadu
148. Rain water harvesting has become compulsory in which of
137. Which of the following companies is the latest to get the
the following cities ?
license for operating NLD and ILD services in India ? (1) Bengaluru (2) Chennai
(1) AT and T (2) Singtel (3) Mumbai (4) Chandigarh
(3) Orange Buginess (4) Verizon
149. India’s first Independent maintenance Repair and overhaul
138. The company in the question above has a joint venture with (MRO) unit of aircrafts is to the set up at
(1) Bharti Enterprises (2) Lee la group (1) Bangaluru (2) Ahmedabad
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these (3) Delhi (4) Nagpur
139. BMW pushed Mercedez Benz to the second spot in terms of 150. …… is the world’s biggest producer of solar power.
numbers sold in the Indian luxary car market. Which of the (1) Russia (2) Germany
third company currently operating in this segment in India ? (3) USA (4) UK
(1) Audi (2) GM Cadila 151. The world’s biggest pharmaceutical company is
(3) Toyota Lexus (4) Honda Acura (1) Novartis (2) Glaxo
140. Which is the third European country to ligalise euthansia (3) Pfizer (4) Daiche
after the Hether Lands and Belgium ? 152. Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(1) France (2) Spain A. HDFC Bank has pipped ICICI Bank interms of number
(3) Norway (4) Luxemburg of branchess.
141. Recently, the Earth Hour was celebrated across the globe B. ICICI Bank is the largest private sector bank in terms of
on assests and market capitalization.
(1) March 22 (2) March 30 (1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) March 25 (4) March 28 (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
142. The winner of the Magistral Ciudael De Linaares chess 153. Italian Motorbike giant Dukati has entered into a
tournament 2009 is multi-million dollar agreement with which Indian IT
(1) Viswanathan Anand company ?
(2) Levon Aronias (1) Educamp (2) Wipro
(3) Alexander Grischuk (3) TCS (4) HCL
(4) Veselin Topalov
154. National Highway No. 3 runs from
143. Which country has become the first nation ever to win all (1) Delhi to Chennai
five titles in the open era at the All-England Championship ?
(2) Amritsar to Kolkata
(1) China (2) Malaysia
(3) Delhi to Ahemdabad
(3) Indonesia (4) Denmark
(4) Agra to Mumbai
144. Mark H. Mc Cormack Award is given to a sportsperson of
155. According to ‘WHO’ which disease will be the world’s top
which sport ?
killer by 2010 ?
(1) Athletics (2) Football
(1) AIDS (2) Cancer
(3) Hockey (4) Golf
(3) Cardiac (4) Hepatities
145. As per RBI guidelines, what is the period of default after
156. Which country recently launched Yaogan ‘5’ a remote
which a lender can recall back the entire dues in a home
sensing satellite ?
loan extended to a borrower ?
(1) Japan (2) China
(1) Two irregular instalments paying
(3) South Korea (4) North Korea
(2) Default of two instalments
Mock Test Answers SNAP
Answers
< Mock Test 1
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (4) 30. (2)
31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (4) 36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (2)
41. (2) 42. (1) 43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (1) 50. (3)
51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (2) 56. (3) 57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (2)
61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (1) 64. (4) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (1) 69. (4) 70. (4)
71. (3) 72. (4) 73. (1) 74. (2) 75. (3) 76. (2) 77. (3) 78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (1)
81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (4) 85. (4) 86. (1) 87. (3) 88. (2) 89. (3) 90. (3)
91. (2) 92. (3) 93. (2) 94. (3) 95. (1) 96. (3) 97. (3) 98. (2) 99. (1) 100. (3)
101. (1) 102. (4) 103. (1) 104. (1) 105. (3) 106. (2) 107. (2) 108. (1) 109. (3) 110. (3)
111. (3) 112. (1) 113. (3) 114. (3) 115. (2) 116. (3) 117. (1) 118. (2) 119. (3) 120. (4)
121. (1) 122. (2) 123. (4) 124. (2) 125. (2) 126. (2) 127. (4) 128. (4) 129. (4) 130. (2)
131. (4) 132. (2) 133. (2) 134. (3) 135. (4) 136. (2) 137. (2) 138. (2) 139. (1) 140. (4)
141. (3) 142. (3) 143. (3) 144. (1) 145. (3) 146. (3) 147. (2) 148. (1) 149. (1) 150. (1)
151. (3) 152. (4) 153. (2) 154. (4) 155. (1) 156. (2) 157. (2) 158. (2) 159. (3) 160. (1)
< Mock Test 2

1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (2) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (2) 29. (1) 30. (2)
31. (3) 32. (4) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (2) 36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (2)
41. (4) 42. (1) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (2) 50. (3)
51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (1) 54. (2) 55. (3) 56. (2) 57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (1) 60. (2)
61. (2) 62. (1) 63. (2) 64. (1) 65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (4) 68. (1) 69. (3) 70. (2)
71. (4) 72. (1) 73. (3) 74. (1) 75. (1) 76. (1) 77. (4) 78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (3)
81. (3) 82. (2) 83. (2) 84. (2) 85. (3) 86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (1) 89. (4) 90. (4)
91. (2) 92. (3) 93. (4) 94. (1) 95. (2) 96. (3) 97. (2) 98. (1) 99. (4) 100. (4)
101. (2) 102. (2) 103. (1) 104. (3) 105. (4) 106. (2) 107. (1) 108. (1) 109. (4) 110. (3)
111. (2) 112. (4) 113. (1) 114. (3) 115. (2) 116. (2) 117. (2) 118. (2) 119. (3) 120. (1)
121. (4) 122. (4) 123. (4) 124. (3) 125. (3) 126. (1) 127. (2) 128. (1) 129. (2) 130. (3)
131. (2) 132. (2) 133. (2) 134. (3) 135. (1) 136. (1) 137. (2) 138. (2) 139. (1) 140. (1)
141. (2) 142. (3) 143. (4) 144. (4) 145. (1) 146. (3) 147. (4) 148. (4) 149. (1) 150. (1)
151. (1) 152. (3) 153. (2) 154. (2) 155. (2) 156. (2) 157. (2) 158. (1) 159. (3) 160. (4)
< Mock Test 3

1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (1)
21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (3) 29. (1) 30. (4)
31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (2) 36. (4) 37. (4) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (4)
41. (1) 42. (3) 43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (2) 50. (1)
51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (2) 57. (1) 58. (3) 59. (2) 60. (1)
61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (2) 64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (2) 70. (3)
71. (4) 72. (1) 73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (3) 76. (4) 77. (2) 78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (3)
81. (3) 82. (3) 83. (4) 84. (4) 85. (2) 86. (1) 87. (3) 88. (2) 89. (4) 90. (4)
91. (3) 92. (4) 93. (2) 94. (4) 95. (3) 96. (4) 97. (4) 98. (1) 99. (3) 100. (3)
101. (2) 102. (2) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (1) 106. (4) 107. (3) 108. (2) 109. (1) 110. (4)
111. (2) 112. (4) 113. (4) 114. (3) 115. (2) 116. (3) 117. (3) 118. (1) 119. (1) 120. (2)
121. (4) 122. (1) 123. (3) 124. (1) 125. (2) 126. (1) 127. (1) 128. (1) 129. (4) 130. (2)
131. (3) 132. (3) 133. (2) 134. (3) 135. (2) 136. (2) 137. (3) 138. (2) 139. (4) 140. (3)
141. (4) 142. (2) 143. (4) 144. (1) 145. (2) 146. (2) 147. (2) 148. (1) 149. (3) 150. (1)
151. (1) 152. (1) 153. (1) 154. (1) 155. (3) 156. (4) 157. (1) 158. (3) 159. (2) 160. (3)
74 SNAP Mock Test Answers
< Mock Test 4

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (3)
21. (4) 22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (3) 29. (3) 30. (1)
31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (3) 36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (1)
41. (4) 42. (1) 43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (3) 49. (2) 50. (1)
51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (4) 57. (3) 58. (1) 59. (1) 60. (2)
61. (3) 62. (1) 63. (2) 64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (4)
71. (3) 72. (2) 73. (4) 74. (4) 75. (1) 76. (3) 77. (4) 78. (1) 79. (2) 80. (1)
81. (4) 82. (4) 83. (4) 84. (4) 85. (1) 86. (1) 87. (2) 88. (1) 89. (2) 90. (4)
91. (3) 92. (3) 93. (2) 94. (3) 95. (4) 96. (4) 97. (1) 98. (3) 99. (1) 100. (1)
101. (2) 102. (2) 103. (4) 104. (4) 105. (2) 106. (4) 107. (2) 108. (2) 109. (4) 110. (2)
111. (3) 112. (1) 113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (3) 116. (4) 117. (1) 118. (1) 119. (3) 120. (2)
121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (2) 124. (2) 125. (3) 126. (4) 127. (2) 128. (2) 129. (3) 130. (3)
131. (4) 132. (2) 133. (2) 134. (2) 135. (1) 136. (3) 137. (2) 138. (2) 139. (1) 140. (3)
141. (2) 142. (4) 143. (2) 144. (2) 145. (4) 146. (1) 147. (2) 148. (3) 149. (1) 150. (2)
151. (1) 152. (1) 153. (4) 154. (4) 155. (4) 156. (3) 157. (4) 158. (4) 159. (3) 160. (1)
< Mock Test 5

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (4) 28. (4) 29. (3) 30. (2)
31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (2) 36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (1) 39. (2) 40. (4)
41. (3) 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (4) 45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (3) 48. (1) 49. (4) 50. (4)
51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (2) 57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (3) 60. (3)
61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (4) 64. (4) 65. (4) 66. (1) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (4) 70. (4)
71. (3) 72. (1) 73. (1) 74. (2) 75. (4) 76. (4) 77. (2) 78. (1) 79. (3) 80. (4)
81. (3) 82. (1) 83. (4) 84. (3) 85. (4) 86. (1) 87. (2) 88. (3) 89. (1) 90. (2)
91. (3) 92. (3) 93. (1) 94. (3) 95. (3) 96. (3) 97. (4) 98. (4) 99. (3) 100. (2)
101. (2) 102. (3) 103. (2) 104. (2) 105. (2) 106. (2) 107. (4) 108. (4) 109. (4) 110. (4)
111. (3) 112. (2) 113. (2) 114. (4) 115. (3) 116. (1) 117. (4) 118. (3) 119. (1) 120. (2)
121. (4) 122. (4) 123. (3) 124. (2) 125. (2) 126. (4) 127. (1) 128. (3) 129. (1) 130. (1)
131. (2) 132. (4) 133. (3) 134. (1) 135. (4) 136. (1) 137. (2) 138. (3) 139. (1) 140. (4)
141. (4) 142. (3) 143. (1) 144. (4) 145. (2) 146. (2) 147. (4) 148. (1) 149. (4) 150. (2)
151. (3) 152. (3) 153. (3) 154. (4) 155. (2) 156. (2)
< Mock Test 1
1. (4) Accoutrements means extra items necessary for a dress 29. (4) All the words except (4) means brief in size or content.
etc. Belongings means movable things. Blemish is a Abrupt means sudden.
spot or scar that spoils beauty. 30. (2) Obtuse is intellectually dull and illogical in speaking or
2. (1) Azure means bright blue in colour like the sky. understanding.
3. (1) Defile means to make dirty or to corrupt. Disapprove 36. (2) ‘where’ will be used in place of ‘which’.
means to reject.
37. (2) ‘have changed’ will be used in place of ‘has changed’.
4. (2) Hiatus means a break or gap in a series of something.
38. (2) Comparative; so ‘more’ will be used.
Atrocious means cruel or bad. Obscure is not distinct
and Dominance stands for overwhelming influence. 39. (3) ‘or’ will be used with ‘either’ in place of ‘and’
5. (1) Zeal means enthusiasm and one can take initiative only 40. (2) No sooner-than is the correct use.
when one is enthusiastic about something. Indolence is 41. (2) Volume of a cuboid = 25 × 20 × 4 = 2000 cm3
laziness; Coarseness is roughness or unrefinement in
2000
behaviour or composition. Pedagogy is concerned with So, volume of a cube =
teaching. 2
6. (1) Nebulous is without a definite shape and concrete is = 1000 cm 3 or (Side) 3
solid and definite. = 1000 cm 3
7. (1) Penchant means a tendency or liking or inclination for
something. ∴ Side = 10 cm
8. (3) Perfunctory means done carelessly as a duty only. ∴ Total surface area of the cube = 6 ⋅ (10)2
9. (4) Transient means temporary. Eternal is permanent or = 6 × 100 = 600 cm2
without end.
42. (1) According to the question, 6 : 4 = h : 50
10. (1) Sublime is lofty and noble and base means low and
50 × 6
mean. ⇒ h= = 75 m
4
11. (1) Eminent means famous in one’s profession. Petulant
1
means peevish or bad-tempered. Amiable means 43. (3) Clearly, if 0 < P < 1 say 0.5, then 0.5 <
friendly. 0.5
1
12. (1) Economise means to control one’s expenditure. ∴ P<
Splurge means to spend money freely. P
13. (3) When a stock of something is made thinner it is called 44. (2) Putting x = 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 in the equation
depleted. y = x 2 − 3x + 2
14. (2) To rail is to curse heavily or complain about something.
We get y = 0 , 2, 6, 12, 20.
Dissent means to disagree.
45. (2) Sum of roots = a + b = 6
15. (1) Mandatory = Necessary by rules, Pertinent = relevant,
Sagacious = showing good decision. Product of roots = a × b = 6
18. (2) It means a feeling of animosity. a2 + b2 = (a + b)2 − 2 ab
19. (3) The given two words have the relationship of antonym. = (6)2 − 2⋅ 6
Only chide and supplicate have the relationship of
antonym. = 36 − 12 = 24
20. (1) The given two words have the relationship of synonym. 46. (3) To form a parallelogram, we need 2 parallel vertical
Only flammable and inflammable have the relationship and 2 horizontal lines.
of synonym. ∴ Total number of parallelogram
26. (2) If the words that follow neither or either is singular, = 6C 2 × 7 C 2
then the verb needs to be singular. If one or both of the
words is plural, then the verb needs to be plural. = 15 × 21 = 315
Therefore, the verb should have been ‘are’ instead of 256 * × 9 81
47. (4) − + =1
‘is’. 49 49 49
27. (2) Superlative cannot give a sense of comparison and it ⇒ 256 − * × 9 + 81 = 49
means the highest degree of something or highest ⇒ − * × 9 = 49 − 256 − 81
quality among many things.
⇒ − * × 9 = − 288
28. (3) Insatiable means that cannot be satiated or placated. 288
Always wanting more of something. ∴ * will be replaced by = 32
9
78 SNAP Answers with Explanations
48. (2) Let P = 5, 7, 11 , 13, . . . v1 + v2 6 2v1 10 v1
⇒ = = = = = 5: 1
2
for P = 5, (P − 1) = 24 v1 − v2 4 2v2 2 v2
for P = 7, (P 2 − 1) = 48 Required ratio = (5 + 1): 5 = 6 : 5

4
for P = 11, (P 2 − 1) = 120 57. (1) G = H +
L
for P = 13, (P 2 − 1) = 168 4
⇒ (G − H ) =
Clearly, all above numbers are divisible by 24. L
49. (1) ( p + n) = 4(m − n) ⇒ p − 4m = − 5n …(i) 2 4
⇒ (G − H ) =
and ( p − n) = 3(m + n) ⇒ p − 3m = 4n …(ii) L
Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 4
⇒ L=
m = 9n and p = 31n (G − H )2
Put n = 1, we get p = 31 58. (2) 71 73
50. (3) Let there be in points marked on a plane.
∴ Total number of line segments = nC 2 = 10 71.8
n(n − 1)
⇒ = 10
2 1.2 0.8
⇒ 2
n − n − 20 = 0 Required ratio = 1.2 : 0. 8 = 3 : 2
⇒ (n − 5)(n + 4) = 0 59. (3) The region given by the inequality is shown by the
graph
⇒ n=5
y
51. (2) Let the sum of money be Rs x.
B (0, 1)
3
 r 
8 x = x 1 + 
 100 x x'
3 A (0, 1)
 r  3 (–1, 0)C
⇒ 1 +  = (2)
 100
D (0, –1)
r
⇒ 1+ =2 y'
100
Again, let the sum become 16 times in n years, then 1 1
Area of one triangle = × 1 × 1 = sq unit
n 2 2
 r 
16 x = x 1 +  1
 100 Total area = 4 × = 2 sq unit
2
⇒ 16 = 2n ⇒ 24 = 2n ⇒ n = 4 yr 60. (2) A
P + Q P /Q + 1 7 + 1 8 4
52. (1) = = = =
P −Q P /Q −1 7 −1 6 3 5
3
L+4 4
53. (2) = ⇒ 3L + 12 = 4B + 16
B+4 3
B C
D 6
or 3L − 4B = 4 …(i)
L−4 2 BD 3
= ⇒ L − 4 = 2B − 8 ∴ =
B−4 1 DC 5
(Since, AD bisects angle A internally)
or L − 2B = − 4 …(ii)
∴ BD : DC = 3 : 5
Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
3 18 9
L = 12 m and B = 8 m Now, BD = ×6= = = 2.25 cm
(3 + 5) 8 4
54. (3) Relative speed = (40 + 20) = 60 m/s
Distance = (120 + 120) = 240 m 61. (2) Given, let PQ = 15x and QR = 8 x
240
∴ Time taken by trains to cross each other = =4s
P
60
1 1 45 9 85
55. (2) ( A + B )’s 5’ day’s work = 5  +  = = m
15x
 25 20 100 20
 9  11
Remaining 1 −  = of work will be finished by B
 20 20 θ
R
in 11 days. Q 8x
d d
56. (3) = 4 and =6 (PR )2 = (PQ )2 + (QR )2
v1 + v2 v1 + v2
Answers with Explanations SNAP 79
(85)2 = (15x )2 + (8 x )2 If sales of Rs 100 becomes Rs 1200 crore, then sale of
2 2 2 Rs 819 becomes Rs 9828 crore.
(85) = 225x + 64 x
75. (3) Average sales index
⇒ x 2 = 25 or x=5 100 + 120 + 131 + 152 + 162 + 154
=
∴ Height of the kite = 15 × 5 = 75 m 11
62. (3) ( x + 1)th term − xth term 143 + 134 + 163 + 173 + 188
+
= ( x + 1)2 + 1 − ( x 2 + 1) 11
1620
= x2 + 2 x + 1 + 1 − x2 − 1 = = 147.27
121
= 2x + 1 Average cost index
63. (1) The area of three faces are a , b and c. 100 + 98 + 95 + 110 + 121 + 153
=
11
143 + 173 + 188 + 190 + 166
+
11
1537
= = 139.73
11
∴ Sides are a, b and c.
Required difference = 147.27 − 139.73 = 7.54
Hence, Volume, V = abc
= 7.5
and (V )2 = abc
76. (2) Male Engineers + Male Designers
64. (4) Let the average of 19 innings be x, then = 40% of (18% of 10500) + 65% of (16% of 10500)
18 x + 98 Female Engineers + Female Designers
=x+4
19 = 60% of (18% of 10500) + 35% of (16% of 10500)
⇒ 18 x + 98 = 19 x + 76 ∴ Required ratio
⇒ x = 22 = (40 × 18) + (65 × 16): (60 × 18 + 35 × 16)
Thus, average after 19th innings = (720 + 1040 : 1080 + 560)
= x + 4 = 22 + 4 = 26 = 1760 : 1640 = 44 : 41
65. (3) Total profit = 337. 50 + 1125.00 + 675 19
77. (3) Required percentage = × 100 = 90%
= Rs 2137.50 21
2137.50 78. (2) Percentage of Female Professionals
∴ Required percentage = × 100 = 1.8%
114000 = [20% of 21% + 60% of 18% + 40% of 11%
66. (2) Required ratio = 20310 : 30040 = 203 : 200 + 80% of 15% + 40% of 19% + 35 of 16%]
67. (3) Required average 1
= [ 420 + 1080 + 440 + 1200 + 760 + 560]%
4240 + 4010 + 4160 + 3700 + 3930 100
= 4460
5 = % = 44. 6%
20040 100
= = 4008 ≈ 4000
5 ∴ Percentage of Male Professionals
68. (1) Visual question : See the gap between the two bars for = 100% − 44.6% = 55.4%
each country. ∴ Required Difference = (55.4 − 44.6)% of 10500
69. (4) We can say nothing about absolute values in the = 10.8% of 10500
absence of data. = 10.8 × 105 = 1134
70. (4) Though China’s GDP has increased, EFI has fallen, 79. (4) Required percentage
South Korea’s inflow increased. 20% of 21 20 × 21
× 100% = × 100%
71. (3) We have to compare 4.80/10 and 0.72/1. 89% of 15 80 × 15
72. (4) In the year 1993, cost = 110 420
= 35%
profit = Rs 600 12
In 1990, profit was Rs 100 60 × 11
80. (1) Required ratio = = 11 : 5
If profit in 1993 was Rs 600 20 × 15
600 81. (2) Three meaningful words Meal, Lame and Male can be
Then, profit in 1990 = × 100 = Rs 545
110 formed.
73. (1) Index of profit for the year, 2000 82. (4) We sleep at night. Night is called sunshine. Hence, we
100 sleep in sunshine.
= × 130 = Rs 104
125 83. (3) ‘CIG’ is coded as ‘GIC’, ‘ARE’ is coded as ‘ERA’ and ‘TTE’
74. (2) Total sales during the period 1990 − 1995 is coded as ‘ETT’. Therefore, ‘DIRECTION’ is coded as
= 100 + 120 + 131 + 152 + 162 + 154 = 819 ‘RIDTCENOI’.
84. (4) The antonym of Smooth is Rough. So, the given 98. (2) Construction of all other figures are clockwise.
number is written in reverse order in the code of 99. (1) Among all, other figures has one angle as a right angle.
Rough. Similarly, the code of Soft will be 8949. 101. (1) Age wise order of all the four persons in ascending
86. (1) Clearly, A is niece of B. order is given below
Mother B Gopi, Karthik, Bala, Senthill
Hence, Senthill is eldest.
A C
102. (4) 6 + 9 = 15, 15 + 13 = 28
87. (3) The only son of Vineet’s grandfather is Vineet’s father. 60 + 9 = 69, 69 + 13 = 82
The lady is the daughter of Vineet’s father. Thus, Vineet 103. (1) 81 − 4 = 77, 77 − 8 = 69
is brother of that lady.
56 − 4 = 52, 52 − 8 = 44.
88. (2) Total number of peoples in the row
104. (1) The code for ‘has’ is CUS.
= (9 + 11) − 1 = 19
105. (3) W − T = 23 − 20 = 3
89. (3) If A is chosen, then mathematician chosen are ABC and
S − D = 19 − 4 = 15
physicists chosen are F and H or G and H. If D is chosen
mathematician chosen are B, C, and D and Physicist T − J = 20 − 10 = 10
chosen are GH. P − G = 16 − 7 = 9
From the above two cases it is clear that whether A is 106. (2) P + F = 16 + 6 = 22
chosen or D is chosen either F or G is chosen. G + N = 7 + 14 = 21
90. (3) If G is rejected then, the member selected would be J + E = 10 + 5 = 15
ABC-FH. K + P = 11 + 16 = 27
Hence, if G is rejected D cannot be in the group.
107. (2) (cd + ef ) × bc = (23 + 45) × 12 = 816
91. (2) Keeping in view all the conditions given, B is chosen in
108. (1) (dc × f ) − (bf − d ) × d = (32 × 5) − (15 − 3) × 3
two ways.
Mathematician Physicists = 160 − 12 × 3 = 124 = bce
(i) ABC FH or GH 109. (3) baf ÷ bf × d = 105 ÷ 15 × 3
(ii) BCD GH = 7 × 3 = 21 = cb
From (i) Two physicists are FH and GH. 110. (3) The symbols which are adjacent to triangle will not be
From (ii) Only one way of choosing Physicist exists. on the opposite face.
Hence, If ‘B’ is chosen, then‘ G’ will also be chosen. Hence, the remaining symbol ie, question mark will be
92. (3) 2 × 3 = 6 and 7 × 6 = 42, 1 × 2 = 2 and 9 × 2 = 18 opposite to triangle.
∴ −2 × − 3 = 6 and 5 × 6 = 30 111. (3) All other figure have one arrow and one line while
∴ 30 will comes in place of ‘?’. figure (C) has two lines and one arrow.
93. (2) 2 × 5 = 10 and 3 × 10 = 30, 112. (1) In all other figures all the four figures are identical.
−1 × 5 = − 5 and −5 × 1 = 5 113. (3) Except (3) all other figures are five sided. Figure (3) is
∴ −4 × 1 = − 4 and 3 × − 4 = − 12 hexagon.
∴ −12 will comes in place of ‘?’. 114. (3) The inner 3 × 3 cubes will not have any coloured face
So, 27 cubes will not be coloured.
94. (3) 1 + (−1) = 0, 3 + 2 = 5 and 4 + 3 = 7
115. (2) 8 corners are there in a cube.
∴ 7 will comes in place of ‘?’.
All the corner cube will have 3 faces coloured.
95. (1) Both pickpockets and black marketer are anti-social
116. (3) GKH represents one complete family.
elements.
117. (1) J is father of F.
96. (3) All the figures except (3) are concave. Figure (3) is
convex. 118. (2) H is son of K.
97. (3) In all other figures lines are attached to the adjacent 119. (3) Car III
vertices. 120. (4) Y → C, D, B, E.
< Mock Test 2

1. (4) Red carpet, Red rag, and Red faced are phrases 3. (4) incise = cut into in surgery
meaning accord welcome to a distinguished guest by excise = cut to remove in surgery
spreading red carpet for him to walk on; a red coloured precise = exact, accurate
cloth-piece used to enrage a bull by a matador in the 4. (1) Correct spelling is Embarrass
game of bull-fighting; and having a face red by anger or 5. (1) Rest three mean a mark made by something which
shame. others follow to reach someone or something viz,
2. (3) Prevaricate = to speak elusively so as to conceal fact police followed the trail of blood on ground left by an
injured culprit; mark left by a passing vehicle’s tyres on
Retrospect = to consider/think about past events
the ground; and the mark left by a fleeing animal’s
Repudiate = to refuse to accept scent or pug.
6. (1) Carbon tax means penal tax for producing carbon 35. (2) Incumbent = holder of a post at present
dioxide gas which pollutes environment. Predecessor = holder of a post before the incumbent
7. (3) Read sentences 3 and 4 of the passage. Successor = holder of a post after the incumbent has left
8. (4) Commensure ⇒ com = with, mensura = measure 41. (4) Since out of 10 points 4 are collinear.
9. (3) In rest of the sentences, ‘immunity’ is the correct word ∴ Number of straight lines formed = 10C 2 − 4C 2 + 1
which means protection from something harmful,
= 45 − 6 + 1
whereas ‘impurity’ means disregard of any fear/danger
of getting punishment for doing something wrong. = 40
10. (4) (a), (b) and (c) all mean journey. P 2 102
42. (1) Decrease percent = = = 1%
11. (4) Junket = journey made on public cost for pleasure 100 100
Jaunt = short distance journey for pleasure NOTE Income will always decrease in such a case.
Voyage = journey by sea-route 43. (2) P I
but, Sojourn = a temporary stay in a distant place 650 26
13. (2) First one was take-over of steel industry, Corus. 26 × 100
∴ r= = 4%
14. (1) revanchist = of revenge, so, it is like taking revenge on 5650 × 1
UK for colonising India in the past.
∴ Rate = 4%
15. (3) Icon means symbol of particular field
∴ Amount at the end of one year = 100
whereas Idol = image of god which is worshipped A P
17. (3) See last-but-one para.
∴ 104 100
18. (1) The last line of 4th para.
650 y
19. (1) deplete = remove a part of stored quantity
650 × 100
evacuate = a place occupied ∴ y= = 625
104
vacate = a room/house occupied
Σ dx Σ dx
exhaust = remove something completely by consuming 44. (1) X = a + X =X +
n n
20. (2) emerge = come out of something viz water, house Σ dx
submerge = go under something viz water 0= ∴ Σ dx = 0
n
immerse = to drown something under water
peer = to become visible 45. (2) Here, n(S ) = 6 × 6 = 36
plop = sound produced by falling on a liquid surface n(E ) = {(1, 6); (6, 1); (2, 5); (5, 2); (4, 3); (3, 4)} = 6
21. (2) Rest are the words of teaching methods. 6 1
∴ P (E ) = =
22. (2) Wrong use of phrase, ‘fool’s paradise’. 36 6
23. (3) Corrects spellings are Implement, Quetude, Qurantine 46. (1) Here, n(E ) = 6 and n(S ) = 8
24. (2) Fly ash = ask remanant of burnt coal which floats in air ∴ P (E ) =
n(E ) 6 3
= =
Fly in the face = be visible/experienced what is n(S ) 8 4
unexpected 47. (2) Here, n(S ) = 52 n(E ) = 2
Fly by right = untrust worthy (business, financial
2 1
venture) ∴ P (Setting a red king) ==
52 26
25. (4) Factious = related to faction; Factitious = falsely made;
Fictitious = of imagined, fiction; Facetious = 48. (2) Since, any of the servant can carry invitation card of
inappropriate any of the 6 friends.
26. (3) Physiognomy = face indicating race viz. mongoloid ∴ Required number = 36 = 729
physiognomy  r 
n 
Profile = face as seen from one side of it 49. (2) I = P 1 +  − 1
Visage = face with particular expression viz. Happy  100 
visage  5 
n 
Facet = one side of many-sided object viz. many faceted 1576. 25 = 10000 1 +  − 1
gem   100  
29. (1) destined = pre determined destination in life  5 
n
1576. 25
ordained = as ordered by divine wish or 1 +  =1 +
 100 10000
31. (3) to give child name in religious ceremony
n
32. (4) Reveal = make known something hitherto unknown to  21 11576. 25
  =
general people  20 10000
Disclose = make known a secret n 3
 21 9261  21
Unveil = to keep something away from other’s view or   = = 
 20 8000  20
Conceal = to keep a matter/news from getting known
to others. n = 3 yr
1 59. (1) Let the number be x.
50. (3) Peter’s 1 day’s work =
12 1 3 5
x: = :
1 1 27 7 9
Mohan’s 1 day work = + 50% of
12 12 or 27 x : 1 = 27 : 35
1 50 1 1 × 27 1
= + × ∴ x= =
12 100 12 27 × 35 35
1 1 2+ 1 1
= + = = a3 + b3
12 24 24 8 60. (2) = (a + b)
a − ab + b2
2
∴ Mohan will take 8 days.
1 1 where a = 0. 623, b = 0. 377
51. (2) Since, A’s 1 day work = and B’s is ⋅
32 40 ∴ a + b = (0. 623 + 0. 377 ) = 1
1 1 9 1
∴ ( A + B )’ s 1 day work = + = 61. (2) P (E1 ) = P (E 2 ) =
32 40 160 2
9 × 10 9 ∴ P (E / E1 ) =
5
P (E / E 2 ) =
0. 25
=
1
⇒ ( A + B )’s 10 days work = =
160 16 100 100 400
9 7 ∴ Required probability
Remaining work = 1 − =
16 16 P (E1 )⋅ P (E / E1 )
=
7 P (E1 )⋅ P (E / E1 ) + P (E 2 )⋅ P (E / E 2 )
16 7 1 5
∴ A will finish in = × 32 = 14 days ×
1 16 2 100
=
32 1 5 1 1
× + ×
52. (1) By putting the value of a and b 2 100 2 400
a + 2b 2 + 3 5 5 20
= = = =
b 3 3 1 21
5+
a+ b b+ c c+a 4
 x a  x b  xc 
53. (1)   ⋅   ⋅   62. (1) 3 men and 2 boys can complete a work in 6 days.
b c a
x  x  x  ∴ 5 men and 7 boys can complete the same work in 3
days
= xa − b ⋅ xb − c ⋅ xc − a
2 2 2 2 2 2
1
= x0 = 1 ∴ 2 men and 5 boys can complete of work in 3 days.
2
54. (2) The required number = (LCM of 30, 45, 65, 78) − 8} ∴ 2 men and 5 boys can complete the work in 6 days.
= (5 × 3 × 13 × 2 × 3) − 8 63. (2) Total amount of mixture = 35 lbs
= 1170 − 8 = 1162 35 × 60
Amount of quinine = = 21 lbs
55. (3) HCF of 1517 and 902 is 41. 100
1517 × 902 35 × 40
∴ Number of tiles = = 814 Amount of adulteration = = 14 lbs
41 × 41 100
1 ∴ 21 + x : 65 :: 14 : 35
56. (2) The value of is 65 × 14
1 ∴ 21 + x = = 26
2+ 35
1
2+ ∴ x = 26 − 21 = 5 lbs
1
2−
2 64. (1) CP SP MP
1 1 1 8 100 115 y
= = = = 95 100
1 1 19 19
2+ 2+
2 8 8 ∴ An article having cost Rs 7.20.
2+
3 3 115 × 100 × 7. 20
MP =
57. (3) Average age of 30 children = 9 yr 100 × 95
Total age of children = 9 × 30 = 270 =
165. 60
= Rs 8.72
Average age of 30 children and 1 teacher = 10 yr 19
Sum of ages = 10 × 31 = 310 65. (2) Amount obtained by sale = Rs 4500
∴ Teacher’s age = 310 − 270 = 40 yr Amount sent for owner = Rs 4200
58. (3) cz = a Commission = Rs 300
100 × 300 2
(b y )z = a or (ax )yz = a1 ∴ R% = =6 %
4500 3
axyz = a1 66. (4) Farmer J generated maximum amount of income and
∴ xyz = 1 sale of rice has the largest share.
67. (4) Total income from bajra 78. (2) Total amount spent on Entertainment and Shopping
2.55 × 12 + 2 × 16 + 1.85 × 18 + 1.75 × 21 + 2.15 36 + 68.4
= × 45800 = Rs 13282
× 26 + 2.4 × 27 360
= 82.8 + 36 + 54
100 79. (4) Required percentage = × 400
30 + 32 + 34 + 35 + 57 + 65 79.2
= ≈ 2.52 lakh = 218.2 = 218%
100
1.75 × 21 39.6
Percentage of M’s income = × 100 ≈ 15% 80. (3) Required percentage = × 100 = 57.89%
100 × 2.52 68.4
81. (3) P has won all matches and T none. Each Q, R and S
2.15 × 23 989
68. (1) Ratio = = scores 3 points against T and 1 point against P. Of the
2.40 × 21 1008 two matches that Q, R and S play against each other,
27 + 26 they have to win one match and lose one in this case
69. (3) Income = × 2 = 1. 06 lakh = Rs 106000
100 the points will be 3 + 1 = 4 or all the matches will end
70. (2) Total income in draw in this case the points will be 2 + 2 = 4. Hence,
9 × 2.59 + 18 × 2 + 13 × 1. 85 + 10 × 1.75 the total points = 3 + 1 + 4 = 8
Alternatively
+ 18 × 2.15 + 22 × 2.40
= P has won all and T none
100 ∴ P got 12 and T got 4 points in all 10 matches that
22.95 + 36 + 24.05 + 17. 5 + 38.7 + 52.8 were played, therefore out of 10 × 4 = 40 points, three
=
100 remaining teams got (40 − 60) = 24 points. Hence,
192 each gets 24 / 3 = 8 points
= = 1. 92 lakh = Rs 192000
100 82. (2) They all play in all 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10 matches
If a match is not a draw, winning team gets 3 points
71. (4) Average price per kilo of the six produces
and loser team gets 1.
2.5+ 6.5+ 9 + 6.5+ 5+ 5 34.5
= = Hence, total points scored for a match = 4 and if the
6 6 match ends in a draw, each of the team gets 2 points. In
Total money earned by Farmer O both the cases total points scored remain the same.
34.5 Hence, total points scored in the tournament
= × 240 = Rs 1380
6 = 10 × 4 = 40
72. (1) Lowest average selling price = Lowest sum of selling 83. (2) It is given that each team plays 4 matches.
price by each of the six farmers. From the given data Hence, for the scores of all the teams to be equal. Every
team has to win two games and lose two or all the four
we can conclude that wheat has the lowest average
games should end in a draw. In both the cases the
selling price.
points scored will be 8
73. (3) Quantity of Wheat : Quantity of Gram
Q 2× 4 = 8 = 3× 2+ 1 × 2
250 : 150 = 5 : 3 84. (2) Suppose there are n houses in the left side and the total
Now, each farmers earning from the sale of Wheat and number of houses in the lane is m.
Gram. Then my house number will be (n + 1), now
L = 3 × 5 + 10.5 × 3 = 15 + 31.5 = Rs 46.50 n(n + 1) m(m + 1) (n + 1) + (n + 2)
= −
M = 3.9 × 5 + 12 × 3 = 19.5 + 36 = Rs 55.50 2 2  2 
N = 4.6 × 5 + 9.75 × 3 = 23.0 + 29.25 = Rs 52.25 m − n −1
= (m + n + 2)
O = 2.5 × 5 + 9 × 3 = 12.5 + 27 = Rs 39.50 2
P = 6.5 × 5 + 8.25 × 3 = 32.5 + 24.75 = Rs 57.25 There are many pairs of n and m that satisfy the
equation but n = 6929 and m = 9801 is the only pair
Q = 5.5 × 5 + 11 × 3 = 27.5 + 33 = Rs 60.50 from which we shall get more than 100 but less than
∴ It is clear that farmer Q earns Rs 60.50 ie, the 3000 houses on the right side of my house.
maximum money. For (Q. 86-88)
74. (1) Required difference Neither A nor B had the single cow, so C must have had it.
Therefore, C cannot, has a single hen or goat. Since, A has fewer
= (170 × 6.5 + 120 × 4) − (120 × 7 + 170 × 3)
hens than B, A must has only 1 hen. By the same logic since A have
= 1585 − 1350 = Rs 235 more goats than B, B has only 1 goat. Since the farmer with 2 cows
Average SP of Sugar 25.5/ 6 and 3 hens can be neither C nor A, it must be B.
75. (1) × 100 = × 100 = 64%
Average SP of Rice 40 / 6 Therefore, A has 3 cows, 1 hen and 2 goats, C has 1 cow, 2
hens and 2 goats.
76. (1) Amount spent by the family on commuting
79.2 89. (4) Two series alternated
= × 45800 = Rs 10076 (i) EF (+ 2) IJ (+ 2) MN
360
39.6 11 (ii) ON (− 2) KJ (− 2) GF (reverse)
77. (4) Required ratio = = = 11 : 23
82.8 23 Hence option (4).
For (Q. 90-92) 98. (1) The number of voters in favour of A irrespective of B or
Rahul has three children and four grand children which C = 36 + 20 + 8 + 14 = 78
means Rahul is from the first generation. So is Revati and they are 99. (4) Number of voters in favour of B irrespective of A and C
married. Ravi and Karan are from the second generation so is = 42 + 20 + 16 + 8 = 86
Aashu. Aakash and Neha are from the third generation and are 100. (4) The number of voters in favour of only one of the
cousins as Aakash has a male sibling. Also Aashu is Neha’s uncle candidates = 36 + 42 + 64 = 142
and Ravi has no child. So, Neha is Karan’s daughter and Aakash is
101. (2) Number of voters in favour of A and C but not B = 14
Aashu’s son. Hence, the following family tree can be shown.
Rahul = Revati 102. (2) Clearly, the computers would be used most when all
the three groups are working simultaneously and this
happens during the period 12 noon to 2 pm.
For (Q. 103-104)
Aashu = Ravi = = Karan 5 km
3 km 3 km
Aakash Neha
5 km 4 km
Indu Soumya
90. (4) Among Vicky and Aadi one can be the son of Aashu.
Therefore, the answer cannot be determined from the 103. (1) North
given information. 104. (3) 3 km
91. (2) Karan is Aakash’s uncle. Hence option (2). 105. (4) As same number is subtracted from them it will not
92. (3) Kanchan being Revati’s daughter is the only sister of change their relative positives when they are arranged
Ravi who is married to Karan. Hence, Karan is in descending order. So, only reversing them and
Kanchan’s husband. Hence option (3). arranging as directed we get 984, 451, 263, 245, 172.
93. (4) This question is of direct substitution method. 107. (1) All moon is sun + [conversion of number sun is not
RESENTMENT → YWZW3V1W3V white = ] All suns are white A + A = A = All moon is
94. (1) Every letter is substituted by the fifth letter succeding white.
in the English Alphabet 108. (1) There were 9 birds in all – 3 sparrows + 3 pigeons + 3
COOLER → HTTQJW (+ 5) ducks.
SUNDAY → XZSIFD (+ 5)
109. (4) The word is divided into two-halves of three letters
95. (2) Every letter is equated to the corresponding digit just each and then each half is written in reverse order.
as is given
110. (3) Each letter in the word is written as letters preceding
KITCHEN → 5263417
CHICKEN → 3423517 and following it in the alphabet.
C = 3, H = 4, I = 2, K = 5, E = 1, N = 7 111. (2) Statement I is not implicit. The statement has no
relationship to other games. Statement II is implicit
96. (3) M + 1 = N N + 1 =O
because the speaker talks about the consequence only
O −1 = N A −1 =Z alter assuming this.
N + 1 =O V +1=W 113. (1) Statement I mentions only the decison of the
E−1 = D Y −1 = X government. It does not mention the reaction of any
Y + 1 =Z group of people. Hence, it is clear that statement I
Thus, M + 1 = N, E − 1 = D, needs additional statement. Now look at the given
A + 1 = B, N − 1 = M options. According to the given options only one
additional statement is needed to get the conclusion.
For (Q. 97-101)
Among the given three statements (A) is the additional
On the basis of information given in question following
statement that brings us to the given conclusion.
venn diagram can be prepared.
114. (3) A bud develops into flower. After that pollination take
place which helps flower develop into a fruit and
36 20 42 formation of seeds takes place when a fruit ripens.
A B
8 115. (2) An accident is followed by visit to a doctor which is
14 16 followed by registration of a case by the police. This is
followed by lawyer’s plea and the matter comes to a
64
halt after a verdict by the Judge.
C 116. (2) Total odd days = 30 (May) + 30 (June) + 31 (July)
= 91
97. (2) 8 votes were in favour of all the three candidates A, B
When 91 is divided by 7 it leaves no remainder. Hence,
and C.
zero odd days implies that it was Monday.
117. (2) The top left hand number is obtained by adding the 118. (2) The series is ccacc/aabaa/bbcbb/cc.
bottom two numbers. The top right hand number is the 119. (3) The series is gfeii/gfeii/gfeii/gfeii. Thus, the pattern
result of dividing the bottom two numbers. gfeii is repeated.
Thus, 12 + 3 = 15, 12 ÷ 3 = 4 120. (1) A B
(+)
22 + 11 = 33, 22 ÷ 11 = 2 Nephew
18 + 9 = 27, 18 ÷ 9 = 2 C⇔D
(+) (–)
So, 32 + x = 36 and 32 ÷ x = 8
or x=4
< Mock Test 3

1. (3) Red herring means distraction of attention. Scene means the thing presented before eyes viz gory
Green fingers means ability to grow plants, vegetables scene.
abundantly. Scenery means picturesque presentation of view.
Blue blood means nobility, aristocrat family. 26. (1) Perspective ⇒ per = through + spect (ive) = to see.
3. (4) It should be disabled/challenged. 30. (4) He goes there frequently/He makes frequent visit there
4. (2) Correct word is Hierarchy. and He frequents hill stations for vacations.
5. (4) It means, to continue in one’s efforts despite 31. (4) He manoeuvred the car through crowded traffic.
failures/difficulty. 34. (3) Stance = posture of body taken deliberately
6. (2) As mentioned in last sentence of paragraph. He took a tough stance.
7. (2) Prophesy means make prediction of future like a saint Tack = manner of dealing with something
does. Trait = distinguishing quality in a person
Clairvoyant means one who has super-natural ability to Gait = manner of walking
see something what ordinary people cannot see. 35. (2) Paediatrics — concerns children
8. (3) We can arrive at the answer from the last part of para 1. Orthopaedics — concerns bones
Laryngitis means inflammation of larynx
10. (3) Re-incarnation means coming into physical form again
of God. 36. (4) Behold = to hold eyes on something
Transcension means the ascending beyond physical Ogle = to look with eyes wide open
feeling. Notice = to give attention
Emigration means going to another country for living. 37. (4) These are masculine–feminine pairs. But,
11. (3) Diktat means order imposed on someone unfairly. Master = title of a child and
Edict means official order. Miss = of an unmarried woman
At somebody’s behest means because somebody has 38. (4) Correct word is Ascension.
ordered or requested it. 39. (3) Correct word is Emigrate.
Verdict means a decision that is made by a jury in 3
41. (1) [ f ( x )]3 =  x + 
1
court.
 x
12. (4) See 1st line of the paragraph.
= x 3 + 3 + 3  x + 
1 1
13. (3) See last para.
x  x
14. (3) See para number 3.
= f ( x 3 ) + 3 f  
1
15. (1) 2nd sentence of 2nd para.
 x
16. (2) Stagflation = stagnant inflation
42. (3) Let f −1 (26) = x
Deflation = opposite of inflation
Conflagration = raging fire causing great destruction ∴ 26 = f ( x )
17. (1) Cataclysm = violent disaster (destruction) ⇒ 26 = x 2 + 1
Distraction = diversion of attention ⇒ x=±5
Disruption = hinderance, breakage in process −1
∴ f (26) = {− 5, 5}
Epiphany = revelation of God’s existence/
manifestation. 43. (1) πrl = 550
20. (1) Fiscal = connected with government or public money, 22
× r 242 + r2 = 550
especially taxes and so matters related to it. 7
550 × 7
21. (3) Countries lying in the East of the world, orient ⇒ r 242 + r2 =
something in right direction. 22
22. (4) Exact amount and exact punishment on culprit. ⇒ r2 (242 + r2 ) = 625 × 49
25. (4) Present economic scenario in the country is not Good. ∴ r4 + 576r2 − 625 × 49 = 0
∴ r4 + 625r2 − 49r2 − 625 × 49 = 0 51. (1) P (E1 ) =
1
, P (E 2 ) =
1
7 2
r2(r2 + 625) − 49 (r2 + 625) = 0
∴ P ( A ) =  × + ×  =
1 1 1 4 5
(r2 + 625)(r2 − 49) = 0  2 7 2 7  14
r2 = 49 52. (2) Number of red balls = 8
⇒ r = 7 cm Total ball = 10 + 8 = 18
1 2 1 27 4 4 16
v = πr h = × × 7 × 7 × 24 ∴ Required probability = × =
3 3 7 9 9 81
= 1232 cm3 53. (3) Total mixture = 90 + 210 = 300
90 × 40
44. (2) V 2 = Product of area of faces Amount of water in 1st gallon = = 36
100
V 2 = 9 × 25 × 16 210 × 20
Amount of water in 2nd gallon = = 42
V = 9 × 25 × 16 = 3 × 5 × 4 = 60 cm3 100
n! 3!(n − 3 − 3)! 33 Amount of water in final mixture = 36 + 42 = 78
45. (2) × = 100 × 78
6 !(n − 6)! (n − 3)! 4 Percentage = = 26% water
300
n! 3! 33
∴ ⋅ = 54. (1) Man’s rate downstream = 5 + 1. 5 = 6. 5 km/ h
(n − 3)! 6 ! 4
Man’s rate upstream = (5 − 1. 5) = 3.5 km/h
or n (n − 1)(n − 2) = 6 × 5 × 33
Let distance be x km.
n (n − 1)(n − 2) = 11 × 10 × 9
Total time taken to row x km and back = 
x x
∴ n = 11 + 
 6. 5 3. 5
46. (3) Q Since necklace is in circular form and anti- clockwise
x x 2x 2x
and clockwise arrangement are not different. ∴ + = 1 or + =1
1 6. 5 3. 5 13 7
∴ Required number = (n − 1)! ∴ x = 2.275 km
2
1 1 1
= (20 − 1)! = ⋅ 19 ! 55. (1) Rate in still water = (14 + 5) = 9. 5 km/h
2 2 2
1
47. (3) 5 Indian can be seated along a circle Rate of current = (14 − 5) = 4. 5 km/h
2
= (5 − 1)! = 4 ! ways
Now, 5 Englishmen can seat at 5 places in 5! ways. 56. (2) α 3 + β 3 = (α + β )3 − 3αβ (α + β )
3
∴ Required number = 4 ! 5!
=  
4 9 4
− 3× ×
48. (2) Each of the 5 arms can have any one of the 4 positions  2 2 2
in 4 ways. But all the 5 arms will be in rest position in
= 8 − 27 = − 19
1 × 1 × 1 × 1 × 1 = 1 way.
57. (1) If pth term is q and qth term is p.
∴ Total number of signals = 45 − 1 = 1023
Then, ( p + q)th term will be zero.
a 4 b 15
49. (2) = and = ∴ 16 th + 24 th = 40 th term will be zero.
b 5 c 16 a 4 3a 3 × 4 12 2
a b 4 15 3 58. (3) = ∴ = = =
× = × = b 9 2b 2 × 9 18 3
b c 5 16 4
a 3 c 4 (3a)2 (2)2
= ⇒ = ∴ =
c 4 a 3 (2 b)2 (3)2
c2 16 9a2 4
2
= ∴ =
a 9 4b2 9
c2 + a2 16 + 9 25 9a2 + 4b2 4+ 9 13
∴ = = ⇒ = =−
c −a2 2 16 − 9 7 9a2 − 4b2 4−9 5
c2 − a2 7 59. (2) 41 + x + 41 − x = 10
=
2 2
c +a 25 4
4 × 4x + = 10
1 4x
50. (1) x + =2
x Let 4x = a
2 1
⇒ x + =4−2 4
x2 4a + = 10
a
1
x4 + = (2)2 − 2 = 2 2
x4 2a + = 5
a
2a2 − 5a + 2 = 0 65. (1) Let SP = Rs 100
(2a − 1)(a − 2) = 0 CP = Rs 80
1 New, SP = Rs 90
a= a=2 (90 − 80) × 100 10 × 100 1
2 Profit = = = 12 %
80 80 2
4x = 2−1 , 4x = 21
16
120 ×
22x = 2−1 , 22x = 21 100 = 8 = 8 : 5
66. (2) Required ratio =
1 1 8 5
∴ x=− , x= 150 ×
2 2 100
16
60. (1) Ten papers can be arranged in 10 ! ways. 67. (2) In 2004 sale = 120 × = 19. 2 crore
When the best and worst paper come together 100
considering two as one paper, we have only 9 paper. 8
In 2005 sale = 150 × = 24 crore
∴ 9 papers can be arranged in 9 ! ways. 100
∴ Number of arrangements when best and worst Difference = 24 − 19. 2 = 4. 8 crore
papers come together is 10 ! − 9 ! 2! = 8.9 ! 24 5
68. (1) Required ratio = = = 5: 4
61. (1) x −1 y ⋅ y −1 z ⋅ z −1 x 19. 2 4
69. (2) Textile changes by the least percentage ie, 3%.
= ( x −1 y )1 / 2 ⋅ ( y −1 z )1 / 2 ⋅ (z −1 x )1 / 2 8% 2
−1 1 −1 1 −1 1 70. (3) Required ratio = = = 2: 9
+ + + 36% 9
= x 2 2⋅ y 2 2 ⋅z 2 2 71. (4) Total selling price of Potter A in the year 1999
0 0 0
= x ⋅ y ⋅ z = 1 ⋅1 ⋅1 = 1 = Rs (3650 × 12) = Rs 43800
62. (1) Total investment of A and B = 700 + 840 = Rs 1540 Percent profit in the year 1999 = 50%(From the graph)
Let the cost price of all pots together be Rs x.
Total profit = 1520
From the formula given in the question we have,
Profit Investment 43800 − x
880 1540 50 = × 100
x
640 ?
640 × 1540 or 50 x = 4380000 − 100 x
∴ ?= = Rs 1120 4380000
880 ∴ x= = 29200
150
63. (2) Let the ages of Madhu and Seema be 5x and 2 x years
∴ Cost Price = Rs 29200
respectively.
Now, according to the question 72. (1) Amount of profit earned by the Potter B in the year
5x + 7 4 1999 = Rs 40500.
= Percent profit earned by the Potter B in the year 1999
2x + 7 3
= 45 percent (from the graph)
or 15x + 21 = 8 x + 28 Now, from the formula
or 15x − 8 x = 28 − 21 40500
45 = × 100
or 7x =7 Cost Price
or x =1 40500 × 100
∴ Cost Price = = Rs 90000
∴ Age of Madhu = 5x = 5 × 1 = 5 yr 45
64. (2) According to question, Selling Price = Cost Price + Profit
10M × 20D = 20W × 15D = Rs 90000 + Rs 40500 = 130500
or 200M = 300W 73. (2) In the year 2000,
The total Selling Price of Potter B
or 2M = 3W
3 = Total Price of Potter A
∴ M = W Percent profit earned by the Potter B and Potter A are
2
3 55% and 60% respectively.
Now, 5M + 10W = 5 × W + 10W Now, Cost Price (in Rs) Selling Price (in Rs)
2
15 Potter A 100 (100 + 55) = 155
= W + 10W 100 + 60
2 Potter B 155 155  
 100 
= 17.5W
155 × 160
Number of days taken by them to complete the work = = 248
100
⇒ 20 W = 15 D
155
20 × 15 1 ∴ Required ratio = = 5: 8
∴ 17.5W = = 17 days 248
17.5 7
75. (3) Per cent profit of Potter B in the year 2001 = 60 ∴ x = 15
Per cent profit of Potter B in the year 2000 = 55 2 × 2πr
60 − 55 89. (4) Number of coins = = 2π = 6
Per cent rise in per cent profit = × 100 2r
55
90. (4) 40 # 18 @ 2 ∆10 • 130
5 100
= × 100 = 40 + 18 ÷ 2 × 10 − 130
55 11
1 40 + 90 − 130 = 0
=9 = 9% For (Q. 91-95)
11
76. (4) Required difference S. No. Persons College State
= [(51.2 + 40 + 36.5) − (30 + 56 + 25)] thousand 1. A U O
= (127.7 − 111) thousand 2. E T M
= 16.7 thousand 3. D/F P J/L
= 16700 4. B Q K
77. (2) Total number of students 5. C S N
= (51.2 + 40 + 36.5 + 65 + 50 + 33 + 44 + 30 + 60 6. F/D R L/J
+ 30 + 56 + 25) thousand 96. (4) Third Wednesday falls on 15th of the month.
= (127.7 + 148 + 134 + 111) thousand Fourth Wednesday will fall on 22nd of the month.
= 520.7 thousand Fifth Wednesday will fall on 29th of the month.
= 520700 Fifth Friday will fall on 31st of the month.
(40 + 50) 90 97. (4) n (n − 1) = 600
78. (3) Required ratio = = = 45 : 43
(30 + 56) 86 ∴ n = 25
50 × 100 x ( x − 1)
79. (1) Required percentage = % = 33.78% 98. (1) Here, = 105
148 2
= 34% (appox.) ∴ x = 15
80. (3) Required average number 99. (3) Mohan’s position = 9th from the top
36.5 + 33 + 60 + 25 Kiran’s position = (35 − 7 + 1) = 29th from the top
=   thousand 9 + 29
 4  Sohan’s position = = 19th from the top
2
= 
154.5
 thousand
 4  Hence, Kiran’s position is 10th from Sohan’s position.
= 38625 100. (3) D F I M R
For (Q. 81-83) E GH JKL NOPQ
101. (2) 800 bags can be divided as group of
C/B G B/C → 26∃ 26∃ 266
→ 89 89 29
→ 30 30 29
F E
→ 10 10 10
→3 3 4
→ 111 →22
→11
H A D Thus, 7 weightings are required.
102. (2) The 80 bags can be distributed in 2 groups of
For (Q. 84-86) * 40 40
Persons Dramatics Computer Physics History Mathe * 20 20
Science matics * 10 10
* 5 5
Madhu Yes Yes Yes No Yes
* 221
Shivani Yes Yes X Yes No
At the last step 3 weightings are required as a spring
Asha No Yes Yes Yes Yes
balance is used.
Pratibha Yes No Yes Yes No
∴ Minimum number of weightings = 7
Namita No No Yes Yes Yes
103. (3) Some girls can be athletes. Some athletes can be
87. (3) Suppose, the total number of persons in the group was singers. Some girls can be singers.
x. Then, we have
x ( x − 1) Girls Athletes
= 105
2
Singer
or x ( x − 1) = 210
104. (2) Both wall and windows are parts of a room. But wall 112. (4)
and window are entirely different
1 4 8 9 5 8 7 9 9
Room
Window 113. (4) Others are found in natural form.

Wall 114. (3) 24m
105. (1) A city lies within a state which lies within a country
Country 20m 15m
State
City D 20m
40m
R Q
106. (4) Some wires are made of copper, but paper is entirly
different. 10m
107. (3) All three items are partly related to each other.
20m
Teacher Graduate
Here, PR = 40 + 15 − (10 + 20) = 25 m
Player QR = 24 m
108. (2) C
∴ PQ = PR 2 + QR 2 = 252 + 242
E
= 625 + 576 = 1201
= 34. 65 m
A H
F G 115. (2) 1 is not necessarily true because it is possible that the
drug does not influence the amount of the hormone
B D secreted but cerenters its ill-effect independently 2 is
First count triangles are true it does not seem to be a mere co-incidence as the
AFC, AFB, BGF, CGF, CGE, BGD, DHG, ABC, ACG, CGB, passage projects the role of the harmone as Nital.
ABG, GDE, BCD, CEB, EDC, EDB. 116. (3) We need a situation where stress loads to illness but in
Thus, there are 16 triangles. 1. It is the other way round. 4 may happen simply
109. (1) The number in the third column in each row is because there are lesser number of students present
obtained by multiplying the numbers in the first and during vacation times 2 may streng, then the argument
second column in the same row. So, in the first row, bus is mere of a conclusion from the given situation. 3
3 × 5 = 15 and in second row, 2 × 4 = 8 strengthens the conclusion examinations are times of
stress and therefore increase the number of illness
∴ Number to be filled in blank spaces = 4 × 6 = 24
cases.
JL 24 • • • Veens
110. (4) Nimmi returned home on Thursday. Nimmi was 117. (3) (−) − (+ ) ⇔ (−)
supposed to return three days later ie, on Sunday. | |
Vimmi returned five days later from Sunday ie, Friday. Kedar(+ ) Nitin
111. (2) Clearly, the number adjacent 3 are 1, 2, 5 and 4. Hence, Kedar is Veena’s nephew.
So, the number opposite 3 is 6.
< Mock Test 4

1. (2) See the second sentence of the passage. 12. (2) Rash = hasty; Trash = litters; Thrash = to beat
2. (3) ‘Profess’ has been used in the passage to mean “pretend severely; Thresh = beat grains to remove husk from.
by speaking false”. 13. (4) See 1st para.
3. (3) It is contained in 2nd para. 14. (2) 1st line of 5th para says so.
4. (3) See 2nd para. 15. (2) See 4th para.
5. (2) Opening sentence in 3rd para says so. 16. (4) See last para.
7. (2) Alternative is another (alter) possibility instead of one. 18. (3) Only first article ‘a’ is used to show both the qualities in
8. (3) Laity = ignorant person. one person.
Connoisseur = person knowing intricate art. 19. (2) Stand someone in good stead is a phrase.
11. (4) Commit = 1. to do wrong act 2. give to someone for 20. (3) Lest in order to prevent something from happening.
safe keeping, 3. having allegiance 4. send/refer to 21. (4) See para 5.
higher authority.
22. (3) See para 2. 45. (1) 41 + x + 41 − x = 10
23. (1) Phenomenal = Prodigious. 4
4 × 4x + = 10
24. (2) Rationalise = to make something justified, logical, or 4x
efficient.
Let 4x = a
25. (3) Populism = action appealing to the masses/people.
4
27. (4) See para 1. or 4a + = 10
a
28. (3) See last line of para 1.
29. (3) See last para. or 2 a2 + 2 = 5a
30. (1) Hype = intensive publicity to create undue public or 2 a2 − 5a + 2 = 0
interest. 1
41. (4) Here given letters are 6 in which 2 are similar. ∴ a = 2 or
2
6 ! 720
∴ Required number = = = 360. 4x = 21 or 4x = 2−1
2! 2
42. (1) Since, if radius becomes n time, area becomes n2 times. 22x = 21 or 22x = 2−1
1 1 −1
∴ Ratio of area will be ⋅ x= x=
4 2 2
45 + x 28 2 1
43. (3) = ∴ x =
x 7 4
x = 15 P 2 (14)2
46. (2) Loss P% = = = 1.96%
Total height of cone = 45 + 60 100 100
47. (3) tan θ = 2 − 1
2r
h = ( 2 − 1)2 + (1)2
= 2+ 1 − 2 2 + 1
r = 2 2( 2 − 1)
l 2 −1
x or tan θ = =
b 1
∴ h = ( 2 − 1)2 + 12
= 2+ 1 − 2 2 + 1
1 1
∴ Volume = πR 2H − πr2h = 4−2 2
3 3
1 22
= ×
1 22
× 28 × 28 × 60 − × × 7 × 7 × 15 = 2 2( 2 − 1)
3 7 3 7 p b pb
1 22 ∴ sin θ ⋅ cos θ = × =
= × × 7 × 7 × 15(4 × 4 × 4 − 1) h h h2
3 7
2 −1 1
= 48510 cm 3 = =
2 2( 2 − 1) 2 2
IInd Method
48. (3) sin θ − cos θ = 1
πh 2
Volume = (R + r2 + rR ) sin θ + cos θ = x
3
22 sin 2 θ + cos2 θ + 2 sin θ ⋅ cos θ
= × 14 [784 + 49 + 28 × 7]
7×3 − 2 sin θ ⋅ cos θ + sin 2 θ + cos2 θ = 1 + x 2
22 × 15
= × 1029 ∴ x2 = 2− 1
7
x2 = 1
= 330 × 147 = 48510 cm3
x = ±1
44. (3) 2x + 3y = 550
3x + 2y = 450 IInd Method
5x + 5y = 1000 Q sin θ − cos θ = 1
x + y = 200 ∴ (sin θ − cos θ )2 = 12
Cost of 3 goats and 3 cows = 3( x + y ) = 3 × 200 sin 2 θ + cos2 θ − 2 sin θ ⋅ cos θ = 1
= 600 1 − 1 = 2 sin θ cos θ = 0
Q (sin θ + cos θ )2 = (sin θ − cos θ )2 + 4 sin θ ⋅ cos θ Given 8 men = 12 boys
12
sin θ + cos θ = 1 + 2 × 0 = 1 = ± 1 20 men = × 20 = 30 boys
P × R ×T 8
49. (2) SI = 12 boys can do the work in 16 days
100
P ×R ×2 16 × 12 1
200 = …(i) 36 boys can do the work in = 5 days
100 36 3
53. (3) CP = 1200 and gain = 12.5%
 n 
CI = P 1 +
r 
 − 1 112.5
 100  ∴ SP = × 1200 = 1350
  100
 100 + r 2  Let MP be Rs x
210 = P   − 1 …(ii)
x 1 −
  10 
 100   = 1350
 100
Dividing Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get
x = 1500
P[10000 + R 2 + 200R − 10000] M × 0. 9 = C × 1.125
210 10000
= C 900
200 R ×2 =
P× M 1125
100
1125
21 R (R + 200) ∴ MP = × 1200 = 1500
= 900
20 200R
54. (1) Volume of water flowing in 1 s = 5 × 30
210 = R + 200
= 150 cm3
R = 10%
IInd Method Volume of water flowing in 1 min = 150 × 60
SI = 200 Rs = 9000 cm3
CI = 210 Rs =9L
100 x 2
55. (2) Given, = ⇒ 7 x = 2y
100 10 y 7
10 7 x + 2y 2y + 2y 4 y
Rate = × 100 = 10% ∴ = = = −4
100 7 x − 3y 2y − 3y − y
50. (1) P   P   =
E 0.3 3 F 0. 3 3 56. (4) Let B receives Rs x.
= = =
F 0.5 5  E  0. 4 4 ∴ Share of A = 2x + 80
51. (3) Let share of Puja = x Now, 560 − 80 = 480
Sony = 1682 − x ∴ 2x : x = 2 : 1
3 5 2
x 1 +
5 
= (1682 − x ) 1 +
5  ∴ Share of A = 480 × = 320 + 80 = 400
  3
 100  100
1
441 Share of B = 480 × = 160
x = (1682 − x ) × 3
400
57. (3) Labour Hour Day Earning
441 x + 400 x = 1682 × 441
75 8 15 800
1682 × 441
x= = 882 24 10 9 x
841 24 × 10 × 9 × 800
IInd Method ∴ x= = 192
75 × 8 × 15
3 5
 100   100  x 1500
P1 : P2 =   :  58. (1) x : y :: 1500 : 100 or =
 100 + 5  100 + 5 y 1400
400 y 1500
P1 : P2 = 1 : = 441 : 400 =
y : z :: 1500 : 1380 or
441 z 1380
841 unit = 1682 x y x 1500 1500 1500
∴ × = = × =
1 unit = 2 y z z 1400 1380 1288
∴ 441 = 441 × 2 = 882 ∴ He will defeated by 1500 − 1288 = 212 m
52. (1) In the first case either 8 men or 12 boys are taken when 59. (1) Percentage of candidates who fail in the examination
in the second case 20 men and 6 boys are taken. So first = 31%
of all, we shall find that 20 men and 6 boys are ∴ Percentage of candidates who pass in the examination
equivalent to how many men or how many boys. = (100 − 31)% = 69%
According to question, 67. (3) Required average
Number of candidates who pass exceeds the number of 1
those who fail by 247. = (2.75 + 3 + 3.5 + 3 + 2.5 + 3.25) lakh
6
∴ 69% − 31% = 247 18
= lakh = Rs 300000 = 3 lakh
⇒ 38% = 247 6
So, the total number of candidates. 68. (3) Percentage increase in income of company B in year
⇒ 38% = 247 2006
247 × 100 3.5 − 3 50
∴ 100% = = 650 = × 100 = = 17
38 3 3
60. (2) Let SP = 100 69. (1) Income of A in 2002 = Rs 300000
∴ Commission = 5 Suppose expenditure of A in 2002 = Rs x
100 5
x 
120 
x 95.50 Then,  = 300000
100 
100 × 95.50
∴ x= = 1910 Expenditure = x
5
1910 × 100 300000 × 100
∴ Number of bottle = = 200 = = Rs 250000
955 120
61. (3) Number of instalment = 15 70. (4) Percentage change in income of company C was the
highest for year 2002. We see that from 2001 to 2002
Monthly payment = 800
the percentage change is 33% (from 3 to 2). In other
∴ Total paid amount = 800 × 15 = 12000
years percentage change is less than 33%.
Interest = 12000 − 10000 = 2000
71. (3) Total construction in B = 100 + 175 + 275 = 550
100 × 2000 × 1 × 4
∴ Rate = = 16% Total construction in E = 175 + 250 + 300 = 725
10000 × 5
∴ Required difference = 175
62. (1) Let cash value Rs 100
50 + 175 + 150 + 75 + 175
Credit value = 100 + Interest 72. (2) Required average =
5
61 5 1
Interest = 100 × × =2 625
2 100 2 = = 125
5
1 1
Credit value = 100 + 2 = 102 1100
2 2 73. (4) Required percentage = × 100 = 79
1400
1
Now, Cash value : Credit value = 100 : 102 150 + 225 + 250
2 74. (4) Required approximate average =
3
= 200 : 205 625
= 40 : 41 = = 208
3
SI × TD 120 × 100
63. (2) Sum due = = = Rs 600 75. (1) Required ratio = 175 : 300 = 7 : 12
SI − TD 20
For (Q. 76-80)
2 × 10 + 3
Total number of students in the school = 2500
f (10) 10 − 2 69
64. (2) = =− Total number of girls =
2500
× 3 = 1500
 1 1 64
f  2× + 3 3+ 2
 2 2
1 2500
−2 Total number of boys = × 2 = 1000
2 3+ 2
65. (1) If log 2x + 3 = log 64 Number of boys learning only Marathi
∴ log 2x+3 6
= log 2 = 16% of the boys
16
x + 3= 6 = × 1000 = 160
100
∴ x = 6 − 3= 3
Number of girls learning only Marathi and Hindi
66. (2) Percentage profit of company C in 2003
= 23% of the girls
2.5 − 1.75
= × 100 23
1.75 = × 1500 = 345
100
0.75 × 100 7500 300
= = = Number of students learning only English
1.75 175 7
= 42.857 = 42.86 = 14% of the total number of students
2500 × 14
= = 350
100
Number of boys learning only Marathi and Hindi 85. (1)
= 120% of the number of girls learning only Marathi (i) Kalyani < Aditya and Kalyani > Srinivas. Thus,
and Hindi Srinivas will be shorter than Aditya. Hence, Srinivas is
120 × 345 the shortest.
= = 414
100 (ii) Srinivas < Aditya but we cannot say whether Kalyani is
Number of boys learning only Sanskrit shorter than Srinivas or not. Hence, we cannot come to
1 the answer.
= × 1000 = 100
10 86. (1)
Number of girls learning only Marathi (i) We cannot assume that Ashish is married. He may have
adopted the child whose name is Amar.
= 130% of the number of boys learning only Marathi
(ii) Vinod and Vidya are married as they are husband and
130 × 160
= = 208 wife.
100
87. (2)
Number of boys learning only English
(i) This statement sets a condition about when a city can
19
= 19% of 1000 = × 1000 = 190 be called metropolitan. But we do not know anything
100 about Patna’s population.
Number of boys learning only Sanskrit, Hindi and English (ii) This statement gives Patna’s population but does not
= 1000 − (160 + 414 + 100 + 190) = 136 given as the condition about when a city can be
Number of girls learning only Hindi and Sanskrit classified metropolitan.
32 Combining both (i) and (ii) we can say that Patna is a
= 32% of 1500 = × 1500 = 480
100 metropolitan city.
Number of girls learning only Hindi, English and Sanskrit 92. (3) From first two sentences the common word computer
= 1500 − (345 + 208 + 480 + 160) = 307 ↔ low
76. (3) Total number of girls learning English and Sanskrit From second and third sentences the common word
expensive ↔ pow
= 480 + 307 + 160 = 947
From first and fourth sentences the common word
77. (4) Total number of student learning Marathi Prasad ↔ bow
= 160 + 414 + 345 + 208 = 1127 From second and fourth sentences the common word
78. (1) Number of students studying two languages at a time Prasad ↔ bow
= 414 + 136 + 345 + 480 + 307 = 1682 From second and fourth sentences the common word
79. (2) Total number of boys learning Hindi gift ↔ dow
= 414 + 136 = 550 ∴ is ↔ row.
80. (1) Number of girls who do not learn Hindi 93. (2) I. Ranu had failed is ‘true’ is valid.
= (208 + 160) = 368 II. Somu had failed is ‘not true’ is not valid.
81. (4) P ∆ Q means P > Q, Q O R means Q = R and Q ∆ S For (Q. 94-98)
means Q > S Numbers and words are arranged alternately starting with
numbers. All the numbers are arranged in ascending order
∴ We get P > Q = R > S
whereas all the words are arranged in a pattern opposite to
∴ P O Q means P = is not true.
dictionary. (The words coming last in the dictionary are arranged
P ∆ R means P > R true R ∆ S means R > S true. first).
Hence, option (4) is correct.
94. (3) Step II : 21 white direct 72 status front 37 69.
82. (4) V O W means V = W, W ~ X means W < X, Step III : 21 white 37 direct 72 status front 69.
W ∆ Y means W > Y
Step IV : 21 white 37 status direct 72 front 69.
∴ V = W < X and Y < X Step V : 21 white 37 status 69 direct 72 front.
∴ V < X ie, V ~ X is true. Step VI : 21 white 37 status 69 front direct 72.
Hence, option (4) is correct. Step VII : 21 white 37 status 69 front 72 direct.
83. (4) As I O J means Step VII is the final step.
I = J ⇒ I − J =O 95. (4) Input : 17 85 pearls garland 67 93 restriction
J ~ K means J < K ⇒ K − J > O judgement.
K ∆ L means K > L ⇒ K − L > O Step I : 17 restriction 85 pearls garland 69 93
judgement.
Hence, option (4) is correct.
Step II : 17 restriction 67 85 pearls garland 93
84. (4) judgement.
(i) This statement is irrelevent as it is not discussing the
Step III : 17 restriction 67 pearls 85 garland 93
weights of the three items.
judgement.
(ii) This also does not gives any information about which is
th eheaviest. We can only say that either of iron or gold 96. (4) We cannot determine the previous steps definitely in
is the heaviest. such an arrangement.
97. (1) Step II : 26 shop finance 48 game music 63 37. number 2 which is as far away from the beginning in
Step III : 26 shop 37 finance 48 game music 63. the number as when they are arranged in ascending
Step IV : 26 shop 37 music finance 48 game 63. order starting from left.
Step V : 26 shop 37 music 48 finance game 63. 109. (4) 5 4 6 3 8
98. (3) Input : 56 punish 48 find design 23 lavish 36. ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
Step I : 23 56 punish 48 find design lavish 36. 4 5 7 2 9 = 27
Step II : 23 punish 56 48 find design lavish 36. 110. (2) Sitting arrangement is given below.
Step III : 23 punish 36 56 48 find design lavish.
P
Step IV : 23 punish 36 lavish 56 48 find design.
Step V : 23 punish 36 lavish 48 56 find design.
Step VI : 23 punish 36 lavish 48 find 56 design. K T
Step VI is the final step. Right Left
99. (1) A C R I M O N Y
+1 +1 +1 +1
C A S J O M O Z M N
Similarly, P is to the immediate right of T.
N A X A L I T E
111. (3) In column (1) and column (3), we have 12 × 2 ÷ 72 = 3
+1 +1 +1 +1
and 16 × 2 ÷ 128 = 4, similarly in column (2) we have
A N Y B I L U F 14 × 2 ÷ 112 = 4
100. (1) (3), (4) and (2) are obviously not true. 112. (1) In column (1) and column (2) we have (3 + 5) ÷ 2 = 4
101. (2) Since by omitting O, R can be included. and (6 + 8) ÷ 2 = 7, similarly in column (3) we have
102. (2) Cannot be chosen and 2 more plumbers are to be (8 + 4) ÷ 2 = 6
chosen. For (Q. 114-118)
103. (4) Since no condition is attached to W.
School Teacher Subject
104. (4) Since neither I nor II is compulsory.
I Q Science
105. (2) ‘Teachers’ train ‘Students’. Similarly ‘Coach’ trains
players. J S Sanskrit
106. (4) Mother’s brother’s wife means maternal uncle’s wife ie, K T/U English/Mathematics
Raju is the only son of Ayesha’s maternal uncle’s wife. L P Mathematics or English
Therefore, Raju is the cousin brother of Ayesha. The M R General Science
sex of Ayesha is not given.
N U/T Hindi
107. (2) It is clear from the diagram that point P is in North.
10 mile 119. (3) Ram’s present age is 26 yr [Q 25 = 52 and 27 = 33 ]
When Ram will be 64 yr old than his age will be the
5 mile cube of 4.
Hence, required time = 64 − 26 = 38 yr.
5 mile 120. (2) Through options = 34(4 + 4 + 2) + (34 + 1)(3 + 4)
= 34 × 10 + 35 × 7
108. (2) Given number is 724513 number when arranged in
ascending order = 123457, clearly there is only one = 340 + 245 = 585
< Mock Test 5

1. (3) The matter needs to be a mixed bag of free enterprise 6. (4) Plummet and Plunge mean to fall down headlong.
as well as state control whereever it is in the public Swoop means descend down fast. Soar means to
interest. ascend upward.
2. (2) It is evident from USA policy on Iran, Afganistan, etc. 7. (2) Perfunctory means with serious attention.
3. (4) India needs more and more energy in proportion to Meticulously means giving great care to perfection.
increasing population, dwindling oil stock is also a 8. (3) Tenders means “indicative actions to show one’s
reality. intention”.
4. (3) India can’t cope up with ever-growing demand of 9. (2) Prognosis means forecast about the future course of
energy with just fossil fuel. progress of the disease.
5. (2) Strategy and Tactic are related to plans to gain 10. (1) Rejoin means retort an accusation.
advantage. Manoeuvre and manipulation mean clever 15. (2) It means glittering/glamorous people of film world.
handling of something. 16. (3) It means panic leading to desperation.
17. (1) Elation and exasperation are indicative of someone’s ∴ For k = 2
mood. 1
< 2( 2 − 1 )
21. (2) Earlier regulations are superseded, if found unsuitable 2
(4) which were done for consolidation under one Similarly,
notification (2), for revising norms (1) as were 1
mentioned (5) pertaining to training programmes (3). < 2 ( 3 − 2)
3
24. (4) It means “expert in concealing facts/truth.” 1
25. (3) It means help someone by putting him in advantageous < 2 ( 4 − 3)
4
position. 1
26. (1) The scheme was flawed, because the money spent on it < 2( 10000 − 9999 )
10000
did not generate wealth for future.
Adding all of the above, we get
30. (2) The given expenditure explains squandering of funds
1 1 1 1
in the name of the scheme which least benefitted N = + + +... < 2( 10000 − 1)
targeted poor people. 2 3 4 10000
31. (4) The crest jewel does not import literary meaning here ∴ N < 198
and hence is not something like ornament adorning the Similarly, we have
Hindu philosophy. It is indeed the pithy part ie, 1 2 2
= >
quintessence, core of the philosophy. k k+ k k+1+ k
32. (3) ‘Yoga’ is the same in origin as yoke—it means to = 2( k + 1) − k)
harness, attach—here attach self to the Brahm ie,
Hence, N > 2( 10001 − 2)
universe.
∴ N > 197
33. (3) The article says that Self is as small as a tiny grain
Therefore, the value of I (N ) = 197
which is situated in a vast space—larger than the
whole universe—of heart. 44. (4) All the above points possible of intersection are possible.
44 points of intersection are possible if their are 2 lines
34. (4) God is imminent—present inside—in every creature,
parallel out of 10 lines, thus the points of intersection
and therefore, God can’t be discriminated against God. 10
C 2 − 2 C 2 = 44, zero points of intersection are possible
35. (2) The philosophy of Vedanta teaches us the lesson of
“Vashudhaiva Kutumbkam”. Hence discriminating one with all lines parallel to each other.
Similarly, with 3 out of 10 lines parallel and none of the
from another in a family is a wrong practice and society
lines parallel we can have 42 and 45 points of
needs to get rid of it.
intersection respectively.
36. (3) Time is the fastest moving vehicle of change. The
45. (4) Assume the teams to be nodes of a graph as shown in
society too is moving fast towards the goal of global
family with the passage of time. the figure below
37. (4) It is the synonym of given word ‘sceptical’. P3
38. (1) A woman, as pronoun ‘she’ has been used in the
passage for ‘Wise One’.
P4 D1
42. (2) Combined cost of both the cars P2
= 270000 + 27000 + 180000 + 18000 D2
= 495000. D3
1
Depreciation for 1 year = 9 % P1
11
Cost of both the cars after deducting depreciation P5 M1
M2
= 495000 − 45000 = Rs 450000
1 Thus, a match between 2 teams is represented by a line
For a profit of 11 % the selling price combined must
9 drawn between the 2 nodes, eg, line drawn from node
10
be = 450000 × = Rs 500000. (D1 ) to node (P3 ) represents the game between team D1
9 and P3 . From the above graph, we can easily see that
43. (1)
1
=
2
<
2 total of games played by all the teams must be 2 × [the
k k+ k k + k −1 number of lines connecting the nodes]. Thus, we
1 1 conclude that the total no. of games played by all the
∴ < teams must be an even number.
k k+ k −1
In this question, the total games played by Deewane,
On multiplying and dividing RHS by k − k − 1, we Parwane, Mastane is (3 × 4 + 5 × 3 + (2)x ) where ‘x’
have represents the number of games exactly played by each
1 team from category Mastane. We can very clearly see
< 2( k − k − 1 )
k that the above total can never be even for any value of ‘
x’.
46. (1) 80n − 100 = 79.2(n − 1) 1
−
f   =
1 2 = −1
0.8n = 20.8 ⇒
 2 1
n = 26 1−
2
Thus, the total number of oranges are 26 × 80 = 2080. 51. (3) Since, time for both is same so ratio of speed is the
One of the baskets contains 100 and the other 24 same as ratio of distance travelled.
baskets could contain 1, 2, 3, . . . , 24 oranges Distance of Chantu = 30 5 m. Distance travelled by
respectively. So, largest number of oranges. Bantu is equal the length of one spiral × the number of
24 spirals. Length of each spiral is calculated below.
= 2080 − 100 (1 + 24) = 1680
2 A
47. (3) The least integer greater than[ nm ] is nm + 1. Thus, the
question reduces to identifying for which values of
m(largest) shall nm + 1 divide
h1
[1 + n + n2 + . . . + n127 ].
1(n128 − 1)
1 + n + n2 + . . . + n127 =
(n − 1) B C
x
[By applying the formula for sum of GP]
Let l be the length of 1 spiral staircase, then
(n64 − 1)(n64 + 1)
= . In ∆ABC
(n − 1)
30 5
h1 = =6 5
Thus, the greatest value of m = 64. 5
log11 2 log11 3 x = circumference of circle = 2πr
48. (1) log 3 2 = , log 4 3 =
log11 3 log11 4 22
= 2× × 7 = 44
[By basic properties] 7
Thus, on substituting the value of log 3 2⋅ log 4 3 and so Using Pythagoras theorem
we get l = (h1 )2 + x 2 = (6 5)2 + (44)2 = 46 m
log 3 2 ⋅ log 4 3⋅ . . . ⋅ log10 9 ⋅ log11 10 Ratio of speeds of Chantu and Bantu
log11 2 log11 3 = 30 5 : 5 × 46
= × × . . . × log11 10
log11 3 log11 4 = 3 5 : 23
= log11 2 52. (3) We can observe that the nth term of the series is (n + 2)
Hence, option (1) is correct. [ n + (n + 1) + (n + 2) + (n + 3) + (n + 4)]
49. (4) From similar triangles EGF and HDF, = (n + 2)[ 5(n + 2)] = 5(n + 2)2
 4 − 1 AD 5 [It may be noted that the terms in the bracket are in AP
EG GF  3 2 5 and their sum is middle term x number of terms.]
= = = 6 =
HD DF  4
 − 1 AD
1 2 ∴ Sum of the first 18 terms
3  3 = 5[ 32 + 42 + . . . + 202]
2 3 3
HD = EG ⇒ CH = EG = AB = 5[(12 + 22 + . . . + 202 ) − (12 + 22 )]
5 5 5
20 × 21 × 41
1 = 5 − 5
Area of triangle ECH = × EC × CH  6 
2
= 5[ 2870 − 5] = 14325
= ×  BC  × AB
1 1 3
2  2  5 53. (4) In the expansion of ( x − a)n, the (r + 1) th term
Area of rectangle ABCD = AB × BC Tr + 1 = (−1)r nC r x n − 1 ar

The ratio of their areas is −1  8
 1
1 1 3 3  x −x 5
1 3
× × = = 3 : 20 For
2 
2 2 5 20  
50. (4) g( x ) = 1 − x 2 8−r 8−r r
−
Tr + 1 = (−1)r 8C r  
1
2
x −1 =x 3 5
f (1 − x 2 ) =  2
x2 For term independent of x, power of x has to be zero.
−x 8−r r
f (x) = − = 0 ⇒ r = 5; 6th term is independent of x
1− x 3 5
8−5 58. (3) The relative order of the speakers is Nana, Amitabh.
T6 = (−1)5 8C 5  
1
∴
 2 Aishwarya, Abhishek. For other speakers there is no
8 ×7 × 6 1 constraint. Hence, the number of possible arrangement
=− × = −7 7!
3× 2×1 8 of speakers shall be = 210.
4!
1
54. (3) The first woman completes th of the job in a day. 59. (3) The above definition tells us that P must be square of a
8
1 natural number x. Therefore, the problem boils down
Thus, on the first day th of the work is done. to identifying which of these number might be a
8
square, since ‘none of these’ is not one of the options.
 1 1
On the second day  +  , ie,
15
th of the work is Hence one of the options must be a square. Option (1)
 8 7 56 cannot be a square, since they are not in the form 9k or
done. 3k + 1. Similarly, option (2) cannot be the answer as it
On the third day  + +  , ie,
1 1 1 73
th of the work is is not in the form 8k + 1.
 8 7 6 168
60. (3) ∆ MNC and ∆ MAP are similar.
done.
For PC subtends right angles at B, M and hence B, M, C,
On the fourth day  + + +  , ie,
1 1 1 1 533
th of the
 8 7 6 5 840 P are concyclic and hence
work is done. A
On the fifth day  + + . . . +  , ie,

1 1 1 743
th of the
8 7 4 840 M
work is done. 90°
On the sixth day  + + . . . +  , ie,
1 1 1 341 90°
th of the
8 7 3 280 C
N
B
work is done.
341
Now, as > 1, the work is completed.
280
Thus, the job is completed on the 6th day.
55. (4) If x > 0, then x 2 < x 2 + 1 + x < x 2 + 2x + 1 or P
( x + 1)2, therefore x 2 + x + 1 lies between 2 ∠ MCN = ∠ MPB = ∠ MPA

consecutive square integers and hence, cannot be a and ∠ NMC = 90° = ∠ AMP
perfect square. If x = 0, y 2 = 1 + 0 + 0 = 1 is a square ∴
MN MA
=
number. Thus the solutions in this case are (0, 1) and MC MP
(0, –1). Again, if x < − 1, then [Since M is the mid point of AC , MC = MA]
x 2 > x 2 + x + 1 > x 2 + 2x + 1 and hence, there exists ⇒ MC ⋅ MA = MC 2 = MN ⋅ MP = 3(3 + 9) = 36
no solution. For x = − 1, we have
⇒ MC = MA = 6 and AC = 12
y 2 = 1 − 1 + (−1)2 = 1
61. (1) In the figure CE and CD are trisectors of
∴ y±1 ∠C , ∠CED = 90° and hence CE < CD. (In ∆CED, CD is
Thus, 2 more solutions exist (1, 1), (1, –1). Therefore, the hypotenuse).
there are 4 solutions in all. B
56. (2) Here, each mason works at the same rate finally.
Therefore, only the number of days worked by any 60°
person is relevant for finding the wage share of that E
person.
So, maximum possible share is of the person who D
started ie,
15 30°
= × 10000 30°
15 + 14 + . . . + 2 + 1 30° 30°
15 × 2 C A
= × 10000 = Rs 1250
15 × 16 Thus, it is required to find the length of CE.
57. (3) Let the CP of 2 kg of Kajoo = Rs 100 AB = 10 cm, ∠ B = 60° , ∠ A = 30°
SP = Rs 80 (for 20% loss claimed by Ramlal) ⇒ BC = 5 cm and AC = 5 3 cm
2
For a gain of 6 % the SP of 2 kg of Kajoo must be Again in ∆ BCE,
3 ∠CEB = 90° , BC = 5 cm, CE = 5 cos 30°
80 × 2 = Rs 160 and therefore the cost price must be Rs
⇒ CE =
5
3 cm  BE = 5
150. This can happen if and only if the other stone
2  2
weighed 750 g as well.
[CD can also be calculated from the right angled ∆ ECD, (z cannot assume higher values; 3, 4 do not divide 70
5 while z = 5 gives a higher sum).
∠CED = 90°, ∠ECD = 30°, CE = 3 cm, CD = 5 cm
2 Thus, minimum number of books purchased by the one
5 5 purchasing most books = 3 × 4 × 2 × 2 = 48
= DA. Thus, BE = ED = cm, DA = 5 cm, CE = 3
2 2 66. (1) B + G + F = 165 ÷ 11 …(i)
5
cm, CD = 5 cm and clearly 3 < 5 and the shorter It is also given that
2 5 B + 6 G + 7 F = 65 …(ii)
5
trisector has a length of 3 cm] She required 7 B + 6G + 5 F
2
we have,
62. (3) Let S be the distance between A and B. v km/h for the
rate on foot of the first boy and w km/h be the rate on 12 B + 12G + 12 F = 12 × 11 = 132 …(iii)
foot of the second boy. Let akm be the distance that the Subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (iii), we get
first boy cycled from A to B. (He thus left his cycle a km 7 B + 6 G + 5 F = 67.
from A and covered the rest of the distance on foot). So she requires Rs 2 more.
a s−a a s−a For (Q. 67-70)
+ = + …(i)
20 v w 20
Dist.
For the return from B to A, we have Ali’s Time Ali’s Sonali
Moved
a+ 1 s − a−1 a+ 1 s − a−1 7
+ = + =− …(ii) Movement
(Ali +
Speed
Dist. Dist.
20 v w 20 20 Sonali) Moved Moved
1 Detroit–A 0–0.67 160 60 40 120
Since, the first boy’s spends hours/km and second
v A–B 0.67–1.6 140 60 56 84
1
boy spent hours/km, we get B–C 1.6–2.0 36 60 24 12
w
C–D 2.0–2.8 144 9–2.67 80 40
1 1 1 hr –120
− =
w v 20 D–E 2.8–4.0 240 2.8–3.33 96 44
On subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (ii), we get hr –180
1 1 9 3.33–4.0 100
+ = hr–150
w v 20
Thus, we get v = 5 km/h and w = 4 km/h. 67. (4) Total distance moved by Ali from detroit to Town
63. (4) Just substitute the values from the options and the D = 40 + 56 + 24 + (80 + 24) = 224 km
answer can be obtained very easily. ∴ Distance from Cincinnati to Town D
64. (4) 25 + 13 + 6 + 3 + 1 = 48 = 720 − 224 = 496 km
The above value represents triangles of different sizes 68. (2) Distance moved by Ali in the given time period
that can be verified by counting. = 40 + 56 + 24 + (80 + 24) + (96 + 100)
65. (4) Let the number of books be z, yz, xyz, wxyz. = 420 km
Then, z + yz + xyz + wxyz = 70 …(i) Distance moved by Sonali in the same period
⇒ z(1 + y + xy + wxy ) = 70 = 1 × 2 × 5 × 7 = 720 − 420 = 300 km
If z = 1, y + xy + wxy = 69 Required ratio =
420
=7 : 5
⇒ y (1 + x + wx ) = 3 × 23 300
Since, y ≠ 1 (number with each friend different) or 69. (4) Only average speed of Sonali during different periods
y ≠ 23 hence the sum cannot be equal to 70, y = 3 can be calculated and not the maximum speed.
Then, x + wx = 22 70. (4) Between D and E, distance moved by Ali = 196 and
⇒ x(1 + w ) = 2 × 11 distance moved by Sonali at the same time = 44 km
Since, x cannot be 11, x = 2, w = 10 hence the required ratio is the maximum.
Thus in Eq. (i), we have 71. (3) Minimum literates in Agra = 30% of 2 lakh = 60000
1 + (3 × 1) + (2 × 3 × 1) + (10 × 2 × 3 × 1) = 70 For literacy rate of Agra to be minimum, its population
If z = 2, must be highest. It will be 30% of 5 lakh, ie, 1.5 lakh.
60000
y + xy + wxy = (70 ÷ 2) − 1 = 34 Required literacy rate = × 100 = 40%.
or y(1 + x + wx ) = 2 × 17 150000
Since, y ≠ 17 hence sum would exceed 70, y = 2 72. (1) Share of Agra in total literates = 50%
∴ x + wx = 16 ⇒ x(1 + w ) = 16 Minimum possible number of literates at Bhopal = 30%
of 2 lakh = 60000. For minimum rate of literacy, its
x has to be 2 or 4 ⇒ w = 7 or 3
population must be the highest possible. Agra city
∴ In Eq. (i), we get
cannot have less than 100000 population (otherwise
2 + (2 × 2) + (2 × 2 × 2) + (7 × 2 × 2 × 2) = 70 literacy rate will be > 100%). So, minimum possible
or 2 + (2 × 2) + (4 × 2 × 2) + (3 × 4 × 2 × 2) = 70 population of Agra city is 20% of total population
(100000). Similarly, population of Chittour can’t be 81. (3) Miscellaneous expenditure incurred by all Landowners
less than 50000 (10% of 5 lakh). Minimum population together
of (Chittour + Agra) = 150000. So, maximum = Rs (150 + 100 + 50 + 100 + 200 + 50) thousand
population of Bhopal can be 350000.
= Rs 650000
60000
Required literacy rate = × 100 ≅ 17% Total expenditure incurred on all items together by all
350000
landowners
73. (1) Agra Bhopal Chittour = Rs (850 + 700 + 900 + 800 + 750 + 700) thousand
Maximum number 100000 100000 80000 = Rs 4700000
of literates 650000
∴ Required percent = × 100 = 15%
Maximum number 50000 54545 40000 4700000
of male literates 82. (1) The only other room except Biswachakra having a bag
Minimum number 60000 60000 40000 is Bagbahadur. Bagbahadur has two bags. So if one
of literates item is a bag the other item will also be a bag.
Minimum number 24000 26666 13333 83. (4) If room Purnachandra does not contain either any
of male literates printer or any computer, it must contain two bags.
Thus, any city can have highest number of literates Room Chandrachud contains one computer and one
(when corresponding numbers for other two cities are bag. So, if room Pashupatti does not contain any
minimum). printer, it must contain two computers. So, rooms
having two printers and the room having one computer
74. (2) Population of Agra = 50000
and one printer is left. In this case it will have at least
But minimum number of literates in Agra = 60000
which is not possible. one printer if any one of the remaining two rooms is
For (Q. 75-76) opened.
For (Q. 84-87)
65 + 75 + 85 = 225
Thus, at least 25% had all three (eyes, nose and fingers) Rooms Walls Carpets Curtains
dissimilar to their mother’s. For a population of 1200, at least 300 Bed-room Green Yellow Orange
had eyes, nose as well as fingers dissimilar to their mother’s. Also, Living-room Yellow Orange Grey
at least 85 × 12 = 1020 newborns had at least one of eyes, nose Dining-room Orange Green Yellow
and fingers dissimilar. Study-room Yellow Green Grey
75. (4) Choice (1) and (2) are in disagreement with above 88. (3) a # b ≥ c or c # a > b
conclusions. Choice (3) also cannot be said to agree 89. (1) a = b # c or c < a ≤ b
since survey is not about dissimilarity with parents.
90. (2) c ≠ b ≥ a or a = c > b
Then, choice (4) is the correct answer.
91. (3) a > b > c or c < b < a
76. (4) 100 newborns have at least 225 similarities, out of
which 15 have only 15 dissimilarities. So, 85 newborns 92. (3) a ≥ b ≤ c or a = b < c
Uncle
have at least 210 dissimilarities 210 = 85 × 2 + 40. So, Father Brother
96. (3) P ← G → C → A → D
Sister
at least 40% have all the 3 dissimilarities with their
↑ Father
mothers.
B
77. (2) Amount of expenditure incurred by P on Machinery
So, C is uncle of B because G is B’s father and C is G’s
= Rs 150 thousand = Rs 150000 brother.
78. (1) Amount of expenditure incurred by L on Pesticides 97. (4) When order of the letter of the words are reversed they
= Rs 150 thousand = Rs 150000 become as follows.
Amount of expenditure incurred by Q on Pesticides 1. LIAN 2. LIAP 3. LIAR
= Rs 200 thousand = Rs 200000 4. MADAM 5. TSER
150000
∴ Required percent = × 100 = 75% Among the above five LIAR and MADAM are
200000 meaningful words.
79. (3) Total amount of expenditure incurred on Labour by all
Landowners together 98. (4) R E Q U E S T
+1 +1 +1 +1
= Rs (250 + 150 + 200 + 100 + 300 + 200) thousand
S 2 R 5 2 T U
= Rs 1200000
80. (4) Expenditure on Seeds by Q = Rs 50000 The logic used here is very simple. Vowels have been
coded as the xth vowel from the left end of English
Total expenditure by Q = Rs 700000
Alphabet whereas the consonants have been coded as
50000
∴ Required percent = × 100 = 7% the next letter.
700000
Therefore, Hence, the difference between the highest and the
lowest number
A C I D
894 − 378 = 516
↓ ↓+1 ↓ ↓+1
110. (4) Z is on the middle shelf.
1 D 3 E
111. (3) At least three objects are on the top shelf.
For (Q. 99-103)
112. (2) X is on the bottom shelf.
HOUSE
113. (2) The trend is
1. Yellow Lane 6 × 5 × 4 = 120
2. Kama Lane
6 × 7 × 3 = 126
3. Peacock Lane
8 × 5 × 8 = 320
4. Park Lane
5. Apple Lane 114. (4) In each column, the sum of the top and bottom digits is
6. Rao Lane 22 and in each column three letters A, B and C must be
present. Hence, option (4) is the correct answer.
7. Ash Lane
For (Q. 115-116)
SCHOOL Geography
104. (2) If first working day of a month is Tuesday then the last
working day of the ongoing Month (30 days) will be
72 61
Wednesday. Therefore, the first working day in the X Economics
coming month will be Thursday.
191
105. (2) The specified digits are 8, 2 and 9. Now, we know a Y Z
perfect square number does not have 8 and 2 at unit’s
place. Therefore, we can make only two three digit 59
number from it ie, 829 and 289. Among these two
numbers 289 is a perfect square number ie, square of
17. Thus, unit digits is 7 and ten’s digit is 1. Commerce
106. (2) Smuggler (Sr CID) 116. (1) As given above, 70 students failed in all three subjects.
Hence,
Number of students passed in at least one subject
Killer (Mama) Mafia (Jr CID) = 500 − 70 = 430
Students who failed in one subject only means students
who passed in two subjects only. Number of students
Bootlegger (Kalia) who passed in two subjects only
107. (4) After interchanging the positions of the first and the =X+Y+Z
third digits in each number, we get a new set of X + Y + Z = 450 − (72 + 61 + 59 + 191)
numbers as given below. 430 − 383 = 47
815 527 948 783 436 For (Q. 117-119)
Hence, the lowest number is 436 which is the new form
Persons After Ist After 2nd Initial
of 634. Exchange Exchange Amount
108. (4) After interchanging the positions of the first and the A 60 80 60
second digits in each number we get a new set of B 80 40 40
numbers as given below. C 70 50 80
158 275 489 837 364 D 40 70 50
Hence, the third number from the top is 364 which is E 50 60 70
the new form of 634.
120. (2) I is not the right way of arguing. Hence, I is not strong.
109. (4) After interchanging the positions of the second and the Upliftment of socially backward classes is necessary.
third digits in each number we get a new set of Hence, II is strong.
numbers as given below 121. (4) Neither I nor II is strong to argue as the best
581 752 894 378 643 Arguments.

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