Digest Jan-Mar 07
Digest Jan-Mar 07
Digest Jan-Mar 07
Restricted circulation
Quarterly Digest
CONSTITUTIONAL, CIVIL, CRIMINAL & REVENUE LAWS
(Covering important judgments of Supreme Court and Allahabad High Court)
EDITOR-IN-CHARGE
S.P. SRIVASTAVA
Additional Director (Research)
EDITORS
H.S. YADAV, Additional Director
A.K. AGARWAL, Additional Director (Administration)
VIJAI VARMA, Additional Director (Training)
GYANESH KUMAR, DY. Director
Ms. REKHA AGNIHOTRI, DY. Director
Mrs. KIRAN BALA, Assistant Director
FINANCIAL ADVISOR
AWADHESH KUMAR
Additional Director (Finance)
ASSOCIATES
SABIHA AKHTAR, Training Officer
B.K. MISHRA, Research Officer
ASSISTANCE
Nagendra Kumar Shukla,
K.S. Bajpayee
SUBJECT INDEX
Sl.No. Subject
=====
LIST OF CASES COVERED IN THIS ISSUE
equated with the preventive detention under Special Act. Broadly speaking,
under preventive Act and no atrocity is shown to have been heaped upon
incontrovertible. But it may not award the same where there is no evidence
of custodial torture. The Apex Court held that cases where violation of
Article 21 involving custodial death or torture is established or is
torture, now any mark/scar it may not be prudent to accept claims of human
awarding compensation. That may open the floodgates for false claims. The
also stand guard against false, motivated and frivolous claims in the
interests of the society and to enable the police to discharge their duties
District Jail, Budaun & Ors.; 2007 (1) ALJ 269 (DB)
Art. 31(b) & 9th Schedule – After 24.4.1973 (the date when basic feature
doctrine was propounded by Supreme Court in Keshvananda Bhati‟s case)
the law included in 9th Schedule would not enjoy absolute immunity from
judicial review – Article 31(b) cannot go beyond the limits of amending
power as contained in Article 368.
Judicial Review is an essential feature of the Constitution. It
gives practical content to the objectives of the Constitution embodied in
Part III and other parts of the Constitution. It may be noted that the
mere fact that equality which is a part of the basic structure can be
excluded for a limited purpose, to protect certain kinds of laws, does
not prevent it from being part of the basic structure. Therefore, it
follows that in considering whether any particular feature of the
Constitution is part of the basic structure – rule of law, separation of
power – the fact that limited exceptions are made for limited not mean
that it is not part of the basic structure.
Every amendment to the Constitution whether it be in the form
of amendment of any Article or amendment by insertion of an Act in
the Ninth Schedule has to be tested by reference to the doctrine of basic
structure which includes reference to Article 21 read with Article 14,
Article 15 etc. As stated, laws included in the Ninth Schedule do not
become part of the Constitution, they derive their validity on account
of the exercise undertaken by the Parliament to include them in the
Ninth Schedule. That exercise has to be tested every time it is
undertaken. In respect of that exercise the principle of compatibility
will come in. One has to see the effect of the impugned law on one hand
and the exclusion of Part III in its entirety at the will of the Parliament.
The doctrine of basic structure contemplates that there are
certain parts or aspects of the Constitution including Article 15, Article
21 read with Article 14 and 19 which constitute the core values which if
allowed to be abrogated would change completely the nature of the
Constitution. Exclusion of fundamental rights would result in
nullification of the basic structure doctrine, the object of which is to
protect basic feature of the Constitution as indicated by the synoptic
view of the rights in Part III.
The doctrine of basic structure as a principle has now become an
axiom. It is premised on the basis that invasion of certain freedoms
needs to be justified. It is the invasion which attracts the basic
structure doctrine. Certain freedoms may justifiably be interfered
with. If freedom, for example, is interfered in cases relating to
terrorism, it does not follow that the same test can be applied to all the
offences. The point to be noted is that the application of a standard is
an important exercise required to be undertaken by the Court in
applying the basic structure doctrine and that has to be done by the
Courts and not by prescribed authority under Article 368. The
existence of the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution at will,
with requisite voting strength, so as to make any kind of laws that
excludes Part III including power of judicial review under Article 32 is
incompatible with the basic structure doctrine. Therefore, such an
exercise if challenged, has to be tested on the touchstone of basic
structure as reflected in Article 21 read with Article 14 and Article 19,
Article 15 and the principles thereunder.
In conclusion, we hold that:
(i) A law that abrogates or abridges rights guaranteed by
Part III of the Constitution may violate the basic structure
doctrine or it may not. If former is the consequence of
law, whether by amendment of any Article of Part III or
by an insertion in the Ninth Schedule, such law will have
to be invalidated in exercise of judicial review power of
the Court. The validity or invalidity would be tested on
the principles laid down in this judgment.
(ii) The majority judgment in Kesavananda Bharati’s case,
requires the validity of each new constitutional
amendment to be judged on its own merits. The actual
effect and impact of the law on the rights guaranteed
under Part III has to be taken into account for
determining whether or not it destroys basic structure.
The impact test would determine the validity of the
challenge.
(iii) All amendments to the Constitution made on or after 24th
April, 1973 by which the Ninth Schedule is amended by
inclusion of various laws therein shall have to be tested on
the touchstone of the basic or essential features of the
Constitution as reflected in Article 21 read with Article
14, Article 19, and the principles underlying them. To put
it differently even though an Act is put in the Ninth
Schedule by a constitutional amendment, its provisions
would be open to attack on the ground that they destroy
or damage the basic structure if the fundamental right or
rights taken away or abrogated pertains or pertain to the
basic structure.
(iv) Justification for conferring protection, not blanket
protection, on the laws included in the Ninth Schedule by
Constitutional Amendments shall be a matter of
Constitutional adjudication by examining the nature and
extent of infraction of a Fundamental Right by a statute,
sought to be Constitutionally protected, and on the
touchstone of the basic structure doctrine as reflected in
Article 21 read with Article 14 and Article 19 by
application of the “rights test” and the “essence of the
right” test taking the synoptic view of the Articles in Part
III as held in Indira Gandhi’s case. Applying the above
tests to the Ninth Schedule laws, if the infraction affects
the basic structure then such a law(s) will not get the
protection of the Ninth Schedule. This is our answer to the
question referred to us vide Order dated 14th September,
1999 in L.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu; [(1999) 7 SCC
580].
(v) If the validity of any Ninth Schedule law has already been
upheld by this Court, it would not be open to challenge
such law again on the principles declared by this
judgment. However, if a law held to be violative of any
rights in Part III is subsequently incorporated in the
Ninth Schedule after 24th April, 1973, such a
violation/infraction shall be open to challenge on the
ground that it destroys or damages the basic structure as
indicated in Article 21 read with Article 14, Article 19 and
the principles underlying thereunder.
(vi) Action taken and transaction finalized as a result of the
impugned Acts shall not be open to challenge.
(I.R. Coelho (Dead) by L.Rs. v. State of Tamil Nadu; 2007 (1) Supreme
137)
Art. 105, 122 & 194 – Parliament‟s power to expel a Member is to be
found in Article 105(3) – Scope of judicial review in Parliamentary
proceedings is very limited and restricted.
Conscious of the high status of these bodies, the Constitution
accorded certain powers, privileges and immunities to the Parliament
and State Legislatures and their respective members. For this purpose,
specific provisions were included in the Constitution in Articles 105.
For the present, it may only be noticed that sub-Article (1) of Article
105 and Article 194 respectively confers on the Members of Parliament
and the State Legislatures respectively “freedom of speech” in the
Legislature, though “subject to the provisions” of the Constitution and
“subject to the rules and orders regulating the procedure” of
Parliament or of the Legislatures, as the case may be.
There was virtually a consensus amongst the learned counsel
that it lies within the powers and jurisdiction of this Court to examine
and determine the extent of power and privileges to find out whether
actually power of expulsion is available under Article 105(3) or not.
Whenever Parliament, or for the matter any State legislature,
claims any power or privilege in terms of the provisions contained in
Article 105(3), or Article 194(3) as the case may be, it is the court which
has the authority and the jurisdiction to examine, on grievance being
brought before it, to find out if the particular power or privilege that
has been claimed or asserted by the legislature is one that was
contemplated by the said constitutional provisions or, to put it simply,
if it was such a power or privilege as can be said to have been vested in
the House of Commons of the Parliament of United Kingdom as on the
date of commencement of the Constitution of India so as to become
available to the Indian legislatures. (Raja Ram Pal v. The Hon‟ble
Speaker, Lok Sabha & Ors.; 2007 (1) Supreme 245)
Art. 141 – Precedent – Mere direction by Supreme Court without laying
down any principle is not precedent.
It is well settled that a mere direction of the Supreme Court without
laying down any principle of law is not a precedent. It is only where the
Supreme Court lays down a principle of law that it will amount to a
precedent. Often the Supreme Court issues directions without laying down
any principle of law, in which case, it is not a precedent. For instance, the
Supreme Court often directs appointment of someone or regularization of a
temporary employee or payment of salary, etc. without laying down any
principle of law. This is often done on humanitarian considerations, but this
will not operate as a precedent binding on the High Court. For instance, if
the Supreme Court directs regularization of service of an employee who
had put in 3 years‟ service, this does not mean that all employees who had
put in 3 years‟ service must be regularized. Hence, such a direction is not a
precedent. (Indian Drugs & Pharmaceuticals Ltd. V. Workman, Indian
Drugs & Pharmaceuticals Ltd.; 2007 (1) ALJ 505)
Art. 311 – Civil Services Regulation (1920), Regn. 371-A –
Departmental enquiry against retired government servants under CCA
Rules – Cannot be conducted.
Departmental enquiry under the CCA rule cannot be conducted
against a retired Government servant. Action can be taken against a retired
Government servant only in accordance with the relevant rules, which are
applicable. In the instant case petitioner was not been dealt with by the
relevant rules i.e. Civil Service Regulations (CSR). In this case, no
departmental enquiry could have proceeded against the petitioner under the
CCA rules as he had already retired on attaining the age of superannuation.
The petitioner had ceased to be an active Government servant. The whole
exercise by the opposite parties in conducting the enquiry under CCA Rules
was illegal, unjust and improper and the consequential order ought not have
been passed. (Prabhat Narain Srivastava v. State of U.P. & Ors.; 2007
(1) ALJ 758)
Article 311 – Civil Services (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules,
R. 55 – Penalty of withholding one or two or more increments on
permanent basis – Is major punishment and it can‟t be imposed without
full-fledged disciplinary enquiry.
Penalty of withholding of one or two or three or more
increments of Government employee on permanent basis tantamounts
to reduction in rank, as reduction to a lower stage in time scale and as
one of the major penalties, therefore, such penalties could not be
imposed upon the Government servants governed by Rules of 1930
without holding full-fledged disciplinary inquiry as contemplated by R.
55 of 1930 Rules against such Government servants. Since in the
instant case, the petitioner‟s three increments have been stopped
permanently without holding full-fledged disciplinary inquiry against
him as contemplated under R. 55 of 1930 Rules rather admittedly
aforesaid punishments have been awarded to him merely by following
the procedure prescribed under R. 55-B of 1930 Rules, therefore, the
impugned order is per se illegal and cannot be sustained. (Shravan
Kumar Purwar v. Inspector General (Registration), U.P., Allahabad & Ors.;
2007 (2) ALJ 119 (DB))
Art. 324 – Powers of returning officer – Returning officer shall not have
power to review or recall the said order to disqualifying convict for future
period since he becomes functus officio after declaration of result of
elections.
Disqualification is by operation of law. In case the appeal of the
petitioner is allowed and conviction is set aside, the Returning Officer shall
not have a power to review or recall the order impugned herein
disqualifying the petitioner for a further period, for the simple reason that
the Returning Officer becomes functus officio, after declaration of the
result of the election. The statute has not conferred any power of review
upon him. (Angad Yadava v. Election Commission of India & Ors.;
2007 (1) ALJ 562)
Contempt of Courts Act
S. 19 – Order merely calling upon a party to show cause as to why
matter be not referred for initiation of criminal contempt – An appeal
would not be maintainable against such order.
In the case in hand, the very opening line of the order under appeal
says that show cause is to be filed as to why reference be not made for
initiation of criminal contempt and thus, it cannot be said to be an order of
decision of the Court issued in exercise of its jurisdiction to punish the
appellant for contempt.
In the case in hand, it is not the case of the appellant that he has been
punished in exercise of the jurisdiction under the Contempt of Courts Act.
Therefore, appeal under S. 19 of the Act is not maintainable. (Smt. Kamal
Kumari Singh v. State of U.P. through the Secretary, Secondary
Education& Ors.; 2007 (1) ALJ 389 (DB)
Contract Act
S. 11 – Competences of party to enter into contract of marriage –
Parties were Muslim governed by Shariat Law – Under Muslim Law
she had no right to enter into contract of marriage on her own free
will.
On the basis of the two medical reports produced by respondents it
cannot be said that Shabnoor is a major and at the time of her marriage she
had attained the age of majority. Contrary to it the case of the father is
consistent and more probable. Hence I am of the view that Km. Shabnoor is
not major and she had no right to enter into wedlock with Rizwan,
respondent No. 4. Her marriage is against the mandate of Muslim law as is
spelt out herein before. It is the moral duty of every Muslim to follow the
teachings of Islam. She being minor would have been given in marriage
only by her father or guardian and she had no right to contract the same on
her own free will. She is declared to be a minor. (Kumari Shabnoor
Mohammad Tahseen v. State of U.P. through Chief Secretary (Home),
Lucknow & Ors.; 2007 (1) ALJ 183)
Ss. 17 and 18 – Cancellation of sale-deed – Failure on the part of the
plaintiff to rebut the presumption of correctness of registered document by
not calling either of the two attesting witnesses of the sale deed –
Cancellation of sale deed would still be proper if the allegations of plaintiff
is not controverted by the defendant.
It would be in fitness of the things, to mention that the proviso
requires the attendance of attesting witnesses in the Court to give his
evidence in the cases when the disputed instrument is alleged to be a valid
document duly and properly executed between the parties. It does, not
impose any burden upon the parties, which dispute the correctness and
validity of such document. The plaintiff respondent in the present case
actually challenges the validity of the impugned sale deed and he was not
obliged under the aforesaid proviso of Section 68 of Indian Evidence Act to
produce the attesting witnesses to rebut the correctness of this document in
as much as the challenge made by the plaintiff in the pleadings against the
sale deed in question, has been left uncontroverted by not filing some
counter pleading. Actually law is very clear on this point that if there is
certain pleadings made by one party and the same is not controverted or
disputed in the pleadings of the other party, the fact asserted in that
pleadings should be taken to be correct and no proof for the same is
required to be produced in the Court. In the present case the plaintiff in-
spite of the fact that his pleadings had been left unchallenged from the side
of the defendant, did also file the evidence through an affidavit in support
of his case and that has been rightly found to be sufficient by the lower
appellate Court to prove his case. (Markande v. Sudama Chaubey; 2007
(1) ALJ 556)
Co-operative Societies Act
S. 117 – Issuance of notice in writing to Registrar of Cooperative
Society is mandatory in order bringing suit against cooperative society.
A perusal of Section 117 of the Cooperative Societies Act makes
it more than obvious that its requirements are mandatory for the
plaintiff and notice to the defendant Society through the Registrar of
Co-operative Society is a must before a suit against it is filed.
The aforesaid provision requires the plaintiff that before he goes
in a suit and present his claim in a Court in respect of a dispute
relating to an act involving constitution management or business of the
society, prior notice of two months must be given by the plaintiff by
delivering it to the Registrar which should specifically state the cause
of action, name, description of place of residence of the plaintiff and
the relief which he claims and the plaint shall also contain statement
that such notice has been so delivered or left with the Registrar.
Admittedly, in the present case no such notice has been given. There is
also no statement of such fact contained in the pleadings of the plaint.
The requirement of such notice as per the aforesaid language of the
Section, appears to be mandatory and it cannot be said that it is just
directory in the nature as has been submitted by the learned counsel
for the appellant. Therefore, if for want of such notice the Courts
below have found the suit as barred for cognizance. (Ram Shanker v.
State of U.P. & Ors.; 2007 (2)ALJ 35)
Court-fees.
A decision on the question whether the suit falls under Section 7(iv-A)
mind, the Supreme Court in Nemi Chand case (AIR 1953 SC 28)
(supra) held that the finality declared by Section 12 is limited only to the
question of valuation pure and simple and does not relate to the category
had been in police custody for a period of 16 days. The first confession was
its satisfaction that the confession was voluntary in nature, truthful and free
the confession of the appellant in the second case soon thereafter. Both the
cases involved serious offences. They resulted in the extreme penalty. The
learned magistrate, therefore, should have allowed some more time to the
accused was not provided any legal aid. Moreover two inconsistencies
the brother of the deceased categorically shows that the offence was
that the offence was committed around 12 O‟ Clock in the night. The
prosecution case proved that not only the complainant but also other family
members were sleeping in the same shed, the purport of the confession goes
to show that the deceased was sleeping alone in the shed. Apart from the
Ss. 178(c) and 406 – Place of inquiry and trial – Continuing offence
parents – The place of trial and enquiry would be the place where ill-
U/s. 406 and 307 IPC also made out – The proper stage to consider
of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (in short the „IPC‟) read with Sections 3 and
4 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 (in short „Dowry Act‟) was
registered. After investigation charge sheet was filed against the appellants.
The magistrate took cognizance of the offences and issued summons to the
accused persons. The offences are triable by Magistrate, First Class. The
cognizance ought to have been taken for offence punishable under Sections
406 and 307 IPC. The magistrate was of the view that after evidence is
adduced, commission of the offence punishable under Sections 406 and 307
IPC is made out, then the prayer of the informant could be considered.
Respondent no. 2 filed a petition before the High Court stating that the
materials collected by the investigating officer and contained in the case
diary itself justified trial under Sections 307 and 406 IPC.
necessity for further observations and/or directions. It rightly held that the
police report. That being so, the ultimate directions of the High Court
the case is triable by the Court of Sessions. (Anuran Rastogi & Ors. V.
Ss. 221, 251 & 364 – Charge framed U/s. 364 IPC – Conviction U/s.
364-A are different. Whereas the intention to kidnap in order that he may
satisfies the requirements of Section 364 of the Indian Penal Code, for
has taken place but thereafter the accused threatened to cause death or hurt
that such person may be put to death or hurt or causes hurt or death to such
abstain from doing any act or to pay a ransom. It was, thus, obligatory on
the part of the learned Sessions Judge, Daman to frame a charge, which
would answer the description of the offence, envisaged under Section 364-
A of the Indian Penal Code. It may be true that the kidnapping was done
with a view to get ransom but the same should have been put to the
as the ingredients of a higher offence had not been put to him while framing
Ss. 227, 228 & 240 – No reason need be recorded for framing of charge
– However, in case of discharge order it is imperative to record reasons.
The question relating to forming of an opinion at the time of
framing of charge is different from a case of recording of reasons on
the basis of which an order of discharge of the accused may be passed.
The moment the order of discharge is passed it is imperative to record
the reasons. But for framing of charge the court is required to form an
opinion that there is ground for presuming that the accused has
committed the offence. In case of discharge of the accused the use of
the expression “reasons” has been inserted in Sections 227, 239 and 245
Cr.P.C. At the stage of framing of charge the expression used is
“opinion”. The reason is obvious. If the reasons are recorded in case of
framing of charge, there is likelihood of prejudicing the case of the
accused put on trial. The Judge is required to record reasons only if he
decides to discharge the accused. But if he is to frame the charge he
may do so without recording his reasons for showing why he framed
the charge. But where the question of jurisdiction is raised and the trial
court is required to adjudicate that issue, it cannot be said that reasons
are not to be recorded. In such a case reasons relate to question of
jurisdiction and not necessarily to the issue relating to framing of
charge. In such a case reasons dealing with a plea relating to
jurisdiction have to be recorded. (Lalu Prasad v. State of Bihar; (2007) 1
SCC 49)
S. 340 – Enquiry for offence U/s. 195
Section 195(3) broadly divides the Courts into Civil, Revenue or
State Act. If a statute constitutes such Tribunal and declares it, to be a Court
for the purport of the said Section, Section 195 of the Criminal Procedure
Code shall apply. It is, thus, the presiding officers of those forums only,
which are specified under sub-section (3) of Section 195 of the Criminal
procedure Code, may file a complaint petition in the relation to the offences
Section 195 of the Criminal Procedure Code. It is only for that purpose a
legal fiction has been created, stating that the Court shall be deemed to be
exclusively lies to the High Court, the Court of Land Acquisition Judge
shall be subordinate to the High Court and not the Principal Civil Court,
although appeal may lie before the latter from the judgments and decrees
“Ordinarily” may not mean “solely” or “in the name”, and thus, if under no
circumstance an appeal would lie to the Principal District Judge, the Court
would not be subordinate to it. When in a common parlance the expression
Acquisition Act, the procedures laid down under the Civil Procedure Code
would apply but the same is subject to the exceptions specified therein, viz.,
specified in S. 3 of Civil Procedure Code, is only for the purpose of the said
Code and not for the purpose of a special Act, although the provisions
thereof may be applicable to a case arising there under. It is one thing to say
that an appeal, depending upon the valuation, would lie before different
forums, but if under the provisions of a special statute an appeal shall lie
only before the High Court and to no other, the District Court would not be
a Court where an appeal would ordinarily lie from a judgment of the Land
Acquisition Judge. Land Acquisition Act being self contained Code; in
relation to the matters falling within the purview of the Land Acquisition
suit filed before it, they do so under various special statutes. The hierarchy
of the Courts for the purpose of Sec. 195 of the Criminal Procedure Code,
entirety and not in isolation. (State of A.P. v. V. Sarma Rao; AIR 2007
SC 137)
against under Section 389 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. But
under Section 389 to order that pending an appeal by a convicted person the
the Code extends to conferring power on the Appellate Court to stay the
a narrow meaning to Section 389(1) of the Code to debar the court from
granting an order to that effect in a fit case. The appeal under Section 374 is
374 of the Code the appeal is against both the conviction and sentence and
therefore, we see no reason to place a narrow interpretation on Section
S. Bagali reported in [2006 (12) SCALE 295] has clearly held that the Court
upon the facts of a case. Where the execution of the sentence is stayed, the
the effect is that the conviction will not be operative from the date of stay.
An order of stay, of course, does not render the conviction non-existent, but
is, the appellant would incur disqualification to contest the election. The
High Court after considering the special areas on, granted the order staying
Criminal Trial
Appreciation of Evidence – Falsus in uno falsus in omnibus rule
India and the witness or witnesses cannot be branded as liar(s). The maxim
“falsus in uno falsus in omnibus” has not received general acceptance nor
has this maxim come to occupy the status of the rule of law. It is merely a
rule of caution. All that it amounts to is that in such cases testimony may be
Where chaff can be separated from grain, it would be open to the court to
convict an accused notwithstanding the fact that evidence has been found to
be deficient, or to be not wholly credible. Falsity of material particular
accused who had been acquitted from those who were convicted where
just cannot help in giving embroidery to a story, however, true in the main.
disregarded in all respect as well. The evidence has to be sifted with care.
The aforesaid dictum is not a sound rule for the reason that one hardly
comes across a witness whose evidence does not contain a grain of untruth
to be made to separate grain from the chaff, truth from falsehood. Where it
is not feasible to separate truth from falsehood, because grain and chaff are
prosecution completely from the context and the background against which
they are made, the only available course to be made is to discard the
evidence in toto. (Syed Ibrahim v. State of A.P.; (2007) 1 SCC (Cri) 34)
matter. While allowing the appeals filed by the accused and in extending
benefit of doubt, the High Court was rather harsh in making certain
appreciate that in such circumstances, the Court may be on its guard and
consider the evidence carefully. The High Court, however, observed that
incorrect ones‟.
In our considered view, the above comment was neither called for
nor justified. In view of conflicting statements, the Court may not believe a
version against the accused. But it does not necessarily mean that the other
Again, some of the witnesses stated that they heard that the accused
were arrested after few days. But the evidence of investigating Officer was
that the accused were arrested on December 21/22, 1987. The Court, in the
light of the above facts, may not rely on such evidence but to hold that the
accused were arrested and were detained but such detention was not shown
According to the High Court, though the Magistrate had stated that he had
taken all steps after the recovery of ornaments and had sent one of the
clerks of the Court with a direction to bring similar ornaments from the
statement of the Magistrate could not be believed. The High Court stated;
“How did the Magistrate know that the clerk who had gone with those
ornaments, to fetch similar type of ornaments, did not show those
In our considered opinion, the above remark was uncalled for, to say
the least. There is nothing on record to show that the ornaments were
too much to impute motive either in the Magistrate or in the clerk of the
of Law may comment on the conduct of parties or witnesses and may also
them. It is also true that the Judges are flesh and blood mortals with likes
Thomas Reed Powell once said; “Judges have preferences for social
policies as you and I. They form their judgments after the varying fashions
in which you and I form ours. They have hands, organs, dimensions,
senses, affections, and passions. They are warmed by the same winter and
common growth of the Mother Earth‟ – even those of us who wear the long
One must always keep in view golden advice given by S.K. Das, J in State
sweeping generalizations defeat the very purpose for which they are made.
the remarks; and (c) whether it is necessary for the decision of the case, as
(emphasis supplied)
view, neither the remarks made by the High Court against prosecution
witnesses were justified nor the language used was called for. The
Evidence Act
S. 106 – Evidence of last scene – The burden is on accused to prove
what happened thereafter since these facts are especially within the
knowledge of accused.
that in the facts of this case as well it should be held that the respondent
having been seen last with the deceased, the burden was upon him to prove
what happened thereafter, since those facts were within his special
failed to discharge the burden cast upon him by Section 106 of the
the chain of circumstances which prove his guilt beyond reasonable doubt.
In the instant case the accused was not on cordial terms with his
wife. On the evening of February 2, 1998 he was seen in his house with his
wife 9deceased). The house of the respondent was found locked on the 4th,
5th and 6th February, 1998. On February 6, 1998 when his house was
opened the dead bodies of his wife and daughters were found, and the
medical evidence established that they had been strangulated to death, the
cause of death being asphyxia. Since the respondent was not traceable the
investigation the respondent never appeared at any stage, and for the first
time he appeared on the scene when he was arrested on February 17, 1998.
Even after his arrest he did not offer any explanation as to when he parted
company with his wife nor did he offer any exculpatory explanation to
discharge the burden under S. 106 of the Evidence Act. These above said
with his wife on the evening of February 3, 1998, he should have explained
explanation exculpating him. The respondent has not pleaded alibi, nor has
be given an explanation which may support his innocence. The High Court
has ignored important clinching evidence which proved the case of the
prosecution. Therefore the order of acquittal of accused passed by the High
Family Law
Transfer of Property by way of will – Muslim Law does not prohibit a
will by Muslim in favour of non-Muslim.
A Mahomedan may appoint a Christian, a Hindu, or any non-
Mahomedan to be his executor. Mahomedan law does not prohibit a Will
by Mahomedan in favour of non-Mahomedan and that Mahomedan may
appoint a person of any other religion to be his executor. The issue No. 8 is
decided accordingly. However, it does not help Shri Bhai Lal Shukla, the
plaintiff, as the Will is not proved. (In the matter of: Estate of Late Sri
Muslim Siddiqui, Bhai Lal Shukla; 2007 (1) ALJ 567)
Guardians and Wards Act
S. 30 – Transfer of immovable property of Ward by Guardian – Transfer
would be voidable if previous permission of court has not taken.
In the plaint, allegations were that mother of the plaintiff was
appointed as guardian by the District Judge. Under S. 29 of Guardians
and Wards Act, 1890, a guardian appointed or declared by the Court
shall not without the previous permission of the Court, transfer
immovable property of his ward. However, under S. 30 of the said Act,
it is provided as under:
“A disposal of immovable property by a guardian in
contravention of either of the two last foregoing sections is
voidable at the instance of any other person affected
thereby.”
Accordingly, if the plaint allegations are proved then sale deeds
will be voidable.
In view of the above, it is only the Civil Court, which has got the
jurisdiction to try the suits. (Abdul Qayyum v. IInd Additional District
Judge, Meerut & Ors.; 2007 (2) ALJ 332)
Hindu Marriage Act
S. 5 & 11 – Void marriage – Husband had living spouse at time of
his marriage with respondent and not sought divorce from her – His
marriage with respondent would be null and void.
In view of Sections 5, 11 and 17 of the Hindu Marriage Act it is
abundantly clear that the marriage between the petitioner Manoj Kumar
Gupta and Smt. Asha Gupta was null and void because petitioner Manoj
Kumar Gupta had a living spouse Teena Gurang to whom he had married
just three months prior to the solemnization of marriage with respondent
No. 6 Asha Gupta and he had not sought any divorce from her. This was in
the breach of condition (i) of Section 5 of Hindu Marriage Act. Once the
marriage of Manoj Kumar Gupta, the petitioner, with respondent No. 6
Asha Gupta is null and void, he cannot be considered to be a legally
wedded husband of respondent No. 6. A marriage, which is null and void,
does not confer any right on any of the spouses as husband and wife. The
term „null and void‟ means and in essence have got the effect of no
marriage at all. The word Avoid literary means „state of non-existence‟.
Thus, the marriage of the petitioner with respondent No. 6 never existed in
the eyes of law. (Manoj Kumar Gupta v. State of U.P. & Ors.; 2007 (1)
ALJ 339)
S. 13 – Dissolution of marriage – Settlement between parties to end
their marriage cannot be accepted as a decree or a valid dissolution.
The present petitioner Shri Vishnu Kumar could not claim the status
of a husband because as per the admitted facts, there was no valid divorce
between Smt. Geeta Tewari and her first husband. It could not be said by
any stretch of imagination that a valid Hindu Marriage can be brought to an
end by way of a settlement or compromise between the parties until it has
the due sanction of law. Under the Hindu Marriage Act the settlement dated
25.1.2000 cannot be accepted as a decree or a valid dissolution that took
place between Geeta Tewari and her husband Shri Ashok Kumar.
The entire claim of the petitioner rests on the document-dated
25.1.2000, which cannot be held to be a valid dissolution of a marriage.
(Vishnu Kumar v. State of U.P. & Ors.; 2007 (1) ALJ 152)
S. 24, 12 – Application for maintenance pendent lite and litigation
expenses – filed during pendency of petition for declaration of marriage as
void would be maintainable.
The principle on which S. 24 has been enacted is to provide
necessary finances to the needy spouse so that she may be able to
maintain herself and contest the case during their pendency of the
proceedings. Grant of maintenance U/s. 24 of the Act is not connected
with the main proceeding U/s. 12 for declaration of marriage as null
and void. The scope of proceedings under S. 12 and 24 of the Act are
different. Unless the marriage is held to be void by a competent Court
of law the relationship of husband and wife would continue and the
spouse who does not have sufficient source of income would, normally,
be entitled for interim maintenance as well as litigation expenses. Thus
application filed by the appellant wife U/s. 24 of the Act during
pendency of the petition U/s. 12 of the Act filed by the respondent
husband would be maintainable and would be liable to be decided by
the Family Court on merit. (Subhas Gupta v. Smt. Kabita Gupta; 2007 (2)
ALJ 83 (DB))
definitions of any law in force for the time being by which offences are
defined or punished, or
Where several acts, of which one or more than one would by itself or
themselves constitute an offence, constitute, when combined, a different
offence, the offender shall not be punished with a more severe punishment
than the court which tries him could award for any one of such offences.”
The positions further crystallized in Section 220 of the Cr.P.C. Same
reads as follows:
“220. Trial for more than one offence.-(1) If, in one series of acts so
connected together as to form the same transaction, more offences than one
are committed by the same person, he may be charged with, and tried at one
trial for, every such offence.
(2) When a person charged with one or more offences of criminal
breach of trust or dishonest misappropriation of property as provided in
sub-section (2) of section 212 or in sub-section (1) of section 219, is
accused of committing, for the purpose of facilitating or concealing the
commission of that offence or those offences, one or more of fences of
falsification of accounts, he may be charged with, and tried at one trial for
every such offence.
(3) If the acts alleged constitute an offence falling within two or
more separate definitions of any law in force for the time being by which
offences are defined or punished, the person accused of them may be
charged with, and tried at one trial for, each of such offences.
(4) If several acts, of which one or more than one would by itself or
themselves constitute an offence, constitute where combined a different
offence, the person accused of them may be charged with, and tried at one
trial for the offence constituted by such acts when combined, and for any
offence constituted by any one, or more, or such acts.
(5) Nothing contained in this section shall affect section 71 of the
Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860).”
The crucial question is whether the alleged act is an offence and if
the answer is in the affirmative, whether it is capable of being construed as
offence under one or more provisions. That is the essence of Section 71
IPC, in the backdrop of Section 220 Cr.P.C.
Every acceptance of illegal gratification whether preceded by a
demand or not, would be covered by Section 7 of the Act. But if the
acceptance of an illegal gratification is in pursuance of a demand by the
public servant, then it would also fall under section 13(1)(d) of the Act. The
act alleged against the respondent, of demanding and receiving illegal
gratification constitutes an offence both under Section 7 and under Section
13(1)(d) of the Act. The offence being a single transaction, but falling
under two different Sections, the offender cannot be liable for double
penalty. But the High Court committed an error in holding that a single act
of receiving an illegal gratification, where there was demand and
acceptance, cannot be an offence both under Section 7 and under Section
13(1)(d) of the Act. As the offence is one which falls under two different
sections providing different punishments, the offender should not be
punished with a more severe punishment than the court could award to the
person for any one of the two offences. In this case, minimum punishment
under Section 7 is six months and the minimum punishment under Section
13(1)(d) is one year. If an offence falls under both Sections 7 and 13(1)(d)
and the court wants to award only the minimum punishment, then the
punishment would be one year. (State v. A. Parthiban; AIR 2007 SC 51)
S. 304(B) – Burden of proof is lighter in character where offence is
committed in secrecy inside a house – In view of S. 106 of Evidence Act
there is also a corresponding burden on the inmates of the house to
give explanation as to how the death was caused – They can‟t get away
by keeping quite.
The demand for dowry or money from the parents of the bride has
shown a phenomenal increase in the last few years. Cases are frequently
coming before the courts, where the husband or in-laws have gone to the
extent of killing the bride if the demand is not met. These crimes are
very difficult for the prosecution to lead evidence. If an offence takes place
inside the privacy of a house and in such circumstances where the assailants
have all the opportunity to plan and commit the offence at the time and in
prosecution to lead evidence to establish the guilt of the accused if the strict
does not preside over a criminal trial merely to see that no innocent man is
punished. A judge also presides to see that a guilty man does not escape.
The law does not enjoin a duty on the prosecution to lead evidence of such
Evidence Act which says that when any fact is especially within the
knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon him.
Illustration (b) appended to this section throws some light on the content
certificate.
From a perusal of the aforesaid, it is clear that a succession
Supreme Court held that the Succession Certificate as “envisaged under the
under the Motor Vehicles Act was not a debt nor a succession certificate
In Resilikutty Chacko v. State of Kerala; AIR 1999 Ker 56, the Court
held that a succession certificate was not required to be filed by the heirs of
view of the aforesaid, it can clearly be held that the compensation awarded
under the Land Acquisition Act is not a debt as contemplated under Section
214 of the Indian Succession Act and therefore, the claimants are not
The writ petition is allowed. (Ramkali v. State of U.P.; AIR 2007 All 8)
Ss. 273 & 278 – Will – Proof of – Propounder of the Will has to prove
the due and valid execution of will.
The law relating to proof of due execution of the Will by the
propounder, where the will is attacked on the ground that the testator
did not possess free and disposing mind, is fairly well settled. In H.
Venkatachala Iyengar v. B.N. Thimmajamma, the Supreme Court laid
down the principles of onus of proof of the will as follows:
“It may, however, be stated generally that a propounder of the
Will has to prove the due and valid execution of the Will and that if
there are any suspicious circumstances surrounding the execution of
the Will the propounder must remove the said suspicions from the
mind of the Court by cogent and satisfactory evidence. It is hardly
necessary to add that the result of the application of these two general
and broad principles would always depend upon the facts and
circumstances of each case and on the nature and quality of the
evidence adduced by the parties.”
It is no doubt true that on the proof of the signature of the
deceased or his acknowledgement that he has signed the Will he will be
presumed to have known the provisions of the instrument he has
signed; but the said presumption is liable to be rebutted by proof of
suspicious circumstances. What circumstances would be regarded as
suspicious cannot be precisely defined or exhaustively enumerated.
(Estate of Late Ambika Prasad Singh As Bequathed to Smt. Lalti Devi;
2007 (102) Rd 33)
Industrial Disputes Act
S. 2(oo) – Retrenchment – Order in terms of clause in appointment letter
is not bad for want of prior notice to retrenched employee.
With regard to the contention of the respondents that in the present
fact scenario retrenchment is bad under law as conditions under section 6-
N, which talks about a reasonable notice to be served on an employee
before his/her retrenchment, is not complied with; we are of the view that
an even under Section 6-N, proviso states that „no such notice shall be
necessary if the retrenchment is under an agreement which specifies a date
for the termination of service.” In the present case on the perusal of the
appointment letter it is clear that no such notice needs to be issued to
respondent No. 1. (Muir Mills Unit of N.T.C. (U.P.) Ltd. V. Swayam
Prakash Srivastava & Anr.; 2007 (1) ALJ 708)
Interpretation of Statutes
Rule of Interpretation of constitutional entries – To give them widest
meaning that is reasonably possible.
The well-settled rule of interpretation of constitutional entries is
to give them the widest meaning that is reasonably possible. It is clear
that the U.P. Agricultural Credit Act is a legislation on the subject of
„agriculture‟ included in Entry 14, „agricultural loan‟ included in
Entry 18 and „money lending‟ included in Entry 30 of List – II.
Counsel for the respondents submitted that the subject of agricultural
loan included in Entry 18 of List – II would include the recovery of
agricultural loans and therefore this area of legislation falls within the
exclusive domain of the State legislature and Entry 45 of List – I
„Banking‟ should be reconciled to give effect to Entry 18. It is true that
in case reconciliation is possible both the legislations will operate in
their respective field within the State. If the subject of Banking under
Entry 45 can be reconciled to carve out a territory, which is wholly
different from the territory carved out by Entries 14, 18 and 30 of the
State List the reconciliation would be possible and the State Act would
prevail. That a constitutional entry has to be given the widest meaning
is the normal rule of interpretation but when competing entries have to
be interpreted the normal rule does not apply if there would be a clash.
In such a case the two entries have to be read together and if necessary
in the process of interpretation the language of one may be modified by
the other so that effect can be given to both. Moreover a general power
cannot be interpreted in a manner to make a nullity of a particular
power conferred by the same Act and operating in the same field and
that in such a case the Rule of interpretation is to restrict the meaning
of the general power so as to give effect to the particular power in its
plain meaning. (Jujhar Singh v. State of U.P. Through Secretary Revenue,
Lucknow and Others; 2007 (102) RD 324)
Use of punctuation in Statute – When Statute is carefully punctuated and
there is doubt about its meaning – Weight should be given to punctuation.
There is a coma before the words „of places for the manufacture‟
in S. 239(2)(D)(d) and there is also a coma after the aforesaid words. It
means that whatever the industry it manufactures some items, the Zila
Parishad can levy the licence fees on these industries. When a statute is
carefully punctuated and there is doubt about its meaning, a weight
should undoubtedly be given to punctuation. The punctuation may
have its uses in some cases but it cannot certainly be regarded as a
controlling element and cannot be allowed to control the plaint
meaning of a text. (M/s. Shriram Honda Equipment Ltd. V. State of Uttar
Pradesh & Ors.; 2007 (2) ALJ 323 (DB))
Land Acquisition Act
S. 22, 23, 24 & 18 – Purpose for which the land is acquired must also
be taken into consideration for fixing the market value and deduction
of development charges.
Both the Special Land Acquisition Officer, the District Judge and of
the High Court have failed to notice that the purpose of acquisition is for
Railways and that the purpose is a relevant factor to be taken into
consideration for fixing the compensation. This Court held that the purpose
for which the land is acquired must also be taken into consideration in
fixing the market value and the deduction of development charges.
We are not, however, oblivious of the fact that normally 1/3
deduction of further amount of compensation has been directed in some
cases. However, the purpose for which the land acquired must also be taken
into consideration. In the instant case, the land was acquired for the
construction of new BG line for the Konkan Railways. Where lands are
acquired for specific purposes deduction by way of development charges is
permissible. In the instant case, acquisition is for laying a railway line.
Therefore, the question of development thereof would not arise. Therefore,
the order passed by the High Court is liable to be set aside and in view of
the availability of basic civic amenities such as school, bank, police station,
water supply, electricity, high way, transport, post, petrol pump, industry,
telecommunication and other businesses, the claim of compensation should
reasonably be fixed @ Rs. 250/- per sq. mtr. With the deduction of 20%.
The appellant shall be entitled to all other statutory benefits such as
solatium, interest etc. etc. The appellants also will be entitled to
compensation for the trees standing on the said land in a sum of Rs. 59, 192
as fixed. (Nelson Fernandes and Ors. V. Spl. L.A.O. South Goa & Ors.;
2007 (2) Supreme 800)
Limitation Act
S. 5 – Condonation of delay in case relating to civil right or property –
Court should be liberal while considering application for condonation of
delay so that person may not be deprived from his property for all time to
come.
Whenever an application for condonation of delay is moved in the
Courts then it shall be incumbent upon the Courts to discuss the pleadings
on record raised by the parties for the purposes of condonation of delay.
Moreover, in case the controversy relates to civil right or property then the
Courts should be liberal while considering the application for condonation
of delay so that a person may not be deprived from his property for all time
to come. Otherwise also in case on merit it appears that substantial ground
exists from interference and the finding recorded by the trial Court seems to
suffer from substantial illegality or in case judgment or order appears to be
outcome of fraud then also liberal approach should be adopted by the
Courts while considering the application for condonation of delay. (Anwar
v. Distt. D.D.C. Officer, Hardoi & Ors.; 2007 (1) ALJ 744)
S. 5 – Condonation of Delay – An appeal filed beyond time by 18 days
and Medical Certificate has also submitted in proof of illness – Refusal to
condone delay – Order impugned is unsustainable and liable to be set aside.
Perusal of the impugned order indicates that the Court below
has recorded that there was no occasion for the petitioner to wait up to
the last date for filing the appeal and that the medical certificate is not
very satisfactory. It also found that since no affidavit was filed by the
petitioner in support of his application at the very first instance,
therefore, filing of an affidavit in support of the application at a later
date was not acceptable.
A medical certificate is the only best evidence, which a party can
produce before the Court with respect to his illness. A certificate issued
by registered medical practitioner is sufficient proof unless the
certificate is proved to be forged or otherwise. Such an objection was
not taken by the respondents before the Court below. There is nothing
mentioned in the impugned order as to why the medical certificate was
not believed by the Court. The only reason appears to be is that the
certificate is not very authentic because no affidavit was filed initially.
This cannot be a ground to disbelieve a medical certificate. The
impugned order therefore, cannot be sustain in the eyes of law. It is
accordingly set aside. (Iqbal Bahadur Saksena v. District Judge, Pilibhit
and Others; (2007 (102) RD 345)
in the policy whereby the right of third party is taken away would be
void but this principle would not apply to owner of offending vehicle.
that the principles laid down by this Court in National Insurance Co. Ltd.
V. Swaran Singh; (2004) (3) SCC 297) is applicable even to claims other
risk. The corresponding provision in the Old Act is Section 96. Section 166
Section 110-A of the Old Act. Section 168 of the Act relates to award of the
Swaran Singh’s case (supra) on which learned counsel for the parties
have placed reliance undisputedly related to a case under Section 149 of the
Act. This Court elaborately dealt with the scope and ambit of Sections 147
and 149 of the Act and after tracing the history of compulsory insurance
and the rights of the third parties, held that the concerned cases were mainly
concerned with third party rights under the policy. It was held in that
context that any condition in the policy whereby the right of the third party
provisions, the Courts should keep in mind the objectives or purpose for
which statute has been enacted. Justice Frankfurter of U.S. Supreme Court
drawn, like nitrogen, out of the air; it is evidenced in the language of the
Singh’s case (supra) has no application to own damage cases. The effect of
fake license has to be considered in the light of what has been stated by this
Court in New India Assurance Co., Shimla v. Kamla and Ors.; (2001) (4)
SCC 342). Once the license is a fake one the renewal cannot take away the
licence cannot get its forgery outfit stripped off merely on account of some
licence issued under the provisions of this Act with effect from the date of
its expiry”. No Licensing Authority has the power to renew a fake licence
that other persons including some statutory authorities would have acted on
and own damage cases has to be kept in view. Initially, the burden is on the
insurer to prove that the license was a fake one. Once it is established the
721)
choice of the multiplier is determined by the age of the deceased (or that of
should also be had to the fact that ultimately the capital sum should also be
consumed-up over the period for which the dependency is expected to last.
In both G.M., Kerala SRTC v. Susamma Thomas (1994 (2) SCC 176)
and U.P. State Road Transport Corpn v.Trilok Chandra (199 (4) SCC 362)
the multiplier appears to have been adopted taking note of the prevalent
that the normal rate of interest was about 10% and accordingly the
multiplier was worked out. As the interest rate is on the decline, the
Second Schedule to the Act, it was noticed that the same suffers from many
defects. It was pointed out that the same is to serve as a guide, but cannot
multiplier was held to be 18. The highest multiplier has to be for the age
age group of 60 to 70, as the former is the normal retirement age. (See: New
India Assurance Co. Ltd. V. Charlie and Another [2005 (10) SCC 720].
multiplier at 13. The MACT itself found that the income was not
established. At some point of time it was stated that the income of the
deceased was Rs. 6,000/- per month. In the absence of any definite material
about the income, monthly contribution to the family, after deduction for
personal expenses is fixed at Rs. 3,000/- per month i.e. annually Rs.
36,000/-. Applying the multiplier of 13, the compensation works out to Rs.
4,68,000/-. The same shall carry interest @ 6% p.a. from the date of claim
till the date of actual payment. It is stated that a sum of rupees four lakhs
has been deposited pursuant to the order-dated 4.4.2005. Balance shall be
deposited along with interest within two months from today. Out of the
before the expiry of period. However, monthly interest shall be paid to the
A sum of Rs. 15,000/- was claimed allegedly spent over his relatives
and friends who came to see him during the treatment. On the facts as
found by the Tribunal, I find that it was legally justified to disallow the
normal feature to visit relatives and friends who had suffered accident.
Therefore, no fault can be found on the above score in the order of the
Tribunal. (Gauri Shanker Paliwal v. J.N. Nigam & Ors.; 2007 (1) ALJ
774)
Municipalities
S. 173-A – Direction to recover amount from President of Nagar
Panchayat as arrears of land revenue cannot be made unless and until a
responsibilities to that effect was fixed against President of Nagar Parishad.
There is no dispute to this effect that the petitioner being a President
for certain period, if any appointment was made and the salary has been
paid unless and until a responsibility to that effect was fixed, no recovery
can be made against the petitioner. Even in view of the well settled
principle of law if it is presumed that there is any responsibility of the
petitioner the same cannot be recovered as arrears of land revenue as held
by the two judgments of the Division Benches of this Court. (Samsussalam
Quddusi v. State of U.P. and Ors.; 2007 (1) ALJ 601)
NDPS Act
S. 50 – The accused must be told of his right to be searched in the
172] it is clear that it is not enough that the accused be told that whether he
Section 50 of the NDPS Act only indicates that only in cases where the
that the option is for the searching officer to take him either to the gazetted
also observed that it is not necessary that in the search memo or in the
accused suspect was apprised of his right under Section 50(1) of the NDPS
Act. It has been so held that it is enough that the officer, who conducts the
search, gives oral evidence to the effect that the accused was informed of
Thus, in a way, it all depends on the oral evidence of the officer who
the large number of cases coming up under the provisions of the NDPS Act
laid down by the Constitution bench in Baldev Singh case we have noticed
that conflicting decisions have been rendered by this Court. We feel that the
before the Hon‟ble Chief Justice of India for taking further action in this
regard. (Vijay Singh Chandubhai Jadeja v. State of Gujarat; (2007) 1
having abused one and from which he is removed but continues to hold the
other which is neither alleged to have been used (sic misused) nor abused,
a frivolous prosecution and criminal waste of his time in law courts keeping
him away from discharging public duty, are the objects underlying Section
6, the same would be defeated if it is held that the sanction of the latter
authority is not necessary. The submission does not commend to us. We fail
to see how the competent authority entitled to remove the public servant
from an office which is neither alleged to have been used (sic misused) or
who is indisputably a public servant greased his palms by abusing his office
as Minister, and then ceased to hold the office before the court was called
upon to take cognizance of the offence against him and therefore, sanction
committing the offence and before the date of taking of cognizance of the
public servant under the relevant Municipal law, and was holding that
office on the date on which court proceeded to take cognizance of the
that too of that authority competent to remove him from the office of the
illustration would show that such cannot be the law. Such an interpretation
Someone interested in protecting may shift him from one office of public
servant to another and thereby defeat the process of law. One can
different offices, each one clothing him with the status of a public servant
under Section 21 IPC and even if he has abused only one office for which
that office by the time court was called upon to take cognizance, yet on this
necessary before the court can take cognizance of the offence committed by
such public servant, while abusing one office which he may have ceased to
deposit of half of the decretal as per the order of the Court – Held
In the case of Kedar Nath (supra), Hon‟ble Supreme Court has laid
Court.”
where the applicant praying for setting aside a decree passed ex parte is
time of presenting his application of as the Court may have directed. There
has not been compliance by the petitioners even upon a direction issued by
the Court. Rejection of the application under Order IX, Rule 13, Civil
Procedure Code by the court below therefore, does not suffer from any
of the Provincial Small Cause Courts Act, is quite limited and since the
order of the trial court was in accordance with law, the revision of the
plaintiff.
dispute. The fact that the appellant intended to convey his right, title and
self-same property and took advances in respect thereof from more than one
person.
shows that there had been negotiations between the parties as a result
whereof the respondent herein had offered to buy and the appellant had
agreed to sell the said property for a sum of Rs. 45,000/-. The terms and
agreement for sale with others also. He had, even after 11.5.1979, received
a sum of Rs. 5,000/- from the respondent. He with a view to defeat the
son-in-law who had never claimed any right there under or filed a suit for
arrived at a finding that the said contention of the appellant was not
Supreme 641)
claimed in the suit for specific performance of the Contract for sale.
The Supreme Court in Babu Lal v. Hazari Lal Kishori Lal; AIR 1982
SC 818 has explained the provisions of S. 22 of the Specific Relief Act, and
in particular the words “in an appropriate case” the Supreme Court held –
that the cause of action for claiming relief for partition and
contract for sale was not based on the same cause of action as
the relief for partition and possession, the two reliefs could
admits.
be specifically pleaded.”
The Supreme Court further held “that the expression only indicates
contract for the transfer of the immovable property. That has to be done
the contract of sale embraced within its ambit not only in the execution of
the sale deed but also possession over the property conveyed under the sale
deed. It may not always be necessary for the plaintiff to specifically claim
possession over the property, the relief of possession being inherent in the
relief for specific performance of the contract of sale. Besides, the proviso
the proceedings.‟
contract for sale, even though no relief for possession is claimed and
(Jafar Mian S/o Sadaq Mian v. Smt. Qaiser Jahan Begum & Ors.; AIR
2007 All 5)
S. 31 – Power of Court U/s. 31.
Under section 31 of the Specific Relief Act the Court may, in its
discretion, so adjudge it and order a document to be delivered up and
cancel and have it declared void and voidable against any person, who
has reasonable apprehension that such instrument if left outstanding
may cause him serious injury and in such case the Court has a
discretion to declare the status of right of such person. (Smt. Kailasho
and Another v. Smt. Anandi Devi and Others; (2007 (102) RD 370)
Stamp Act
S. 47-A (as existed in State of U.P. prior to 1991 Amended) – U.P.
Stamp Rules, Rule 341 – Stamp duty is chargeable on basis of market
value of property conveyed by instrument and not on basis of amount
mentioned in Civil Court‟s decree.
Section 47-A of Stamp Act uses the words – “minimum value
determined in accordance with any rules made under the Act”. Rule 341 for
the purpose of payment of stamp duty prescribes the mode to determine the
minimum market value of immovable property forming subject of
instrument of conveyance, exchange, gift etc. The emphasis in the case of
deed of conveyance is on the market value of any property covered under
the instrument of conveyance etc. Section 47-A confers ample power on
registering authority to refer the instrument to the Collector for
determination of market value of the property covered by the deed of
conveyance, if market value has not been correctly disclosed and is less
than even the minimum value determined in accordance with Act. The
Stamp Act thus, operates in exclusion of the area, not occupied by the
Court-fees Act or Suits Valuation Act. Therefore, the stamp duty is
chargeable on the basis of market value of the property conveyed by the
instrument of conveyance and the fact that in the instrument executed by
Civil Court is of no relevance for the purposes of invoking power under
Section 67-A of the Act. (Ramesh Chandra Srivastava v. State of U.P.
and Ors.; 2007 (1) ALJ 90)
Transfer of Property
Act
S. 53(A) – Conditions for application of S. 53-A.
Section 53-A postulates certain conditions for its application in
favour of a transferee which are: (i) existence of a contract for the
transfer of immovable property, (ii) which should be in writing signed
by the other party and the terms thereof should be ascertainable with
reasonable certainty, (iii) the transferee in part performance of the
contract should have either taken possession or continued in possession
or have done some other act in furtherance of the contract, (iv) the
transferee should perform or be willing to perform his part of the
bargain act down in the writing, though, (v) the doctrine would not be
attracted against another transferee without notice of the contract or
its part performance. (Munna Lal v. Kaishav Prasad Dass and Another;
(2007 (102) RD 364)
S. 106 – Necessity of notice of determination of Lease – No material
available on record to indicate that petitioner sought consent of landlady for
continuance of tenancy after expiry of prescribed period – Lease would
expire - Service of notice U/s. 106 not necessary for determination of such
lease.
A bare perusal of agreement dated 1.7.1999 shows that the lease was
for a fixed term of five years, which was to expire on 30.6.2004. Clause 14
of the agreement clearly stipulated that the extension of lease could be
granted by mutual agreement between the parties. There is no material
available on record indicating that the petitioners sought consent of the
landlady for continuance of tenancy after expiry of period of five years.
Hon‟ble the Apex Court in Smt. Shanti Devi v. Amal Kumar Banerjee, AIR
1981 SC 1550 has held that where a lease is for a definite term, it expires
by efflux of time by reason of Section 111(a) of the Transfer of Property
Act, as such, service of a notice under Section 106 of the said Act is not
necessary for determination of lease. (Union of India & Anr. V. Smt.
Jagdish Kaur; 2007 (1) ALJ 548)
Sale Deed – Challenge of – A person having no interest in the property
had no locus standi to challenge the sale.
Once it is held that plaintiff Smt. Anandi did not have any title
or any interest under section 31 of the Specific Relief Act to challenge
the sale deed, the enquiry whether the sale deed was a sham
transaction and whether any sale consideration was paid was not
relevant. A person having no interest in the property had no locus
standi to challenge the sale. (Smt. Kailasho and Another v. Smt. Anandi
Devi and Others; (2007 (102) RD 370)
U.P. Consolidation of
Holdings Act
S. 9-A – Controversy settled in terms of compromise and provisions of
R. 25 not complied with – Alleged compromise or conciliation proceedings
held suffers from substantial illegality.
In the present case no finding has been recorded by all the three
Courts below that provisions contained in Rule 25-A of the Rules have
been complied with. The certified copy of the conciliation memo filed with
the present writ petition also does not indicate that rules have been
followed. The judgment of Consolidation Officer dated 14.10.1980 is also
silent relating to compliance of Rule 25-A of the rules. Neither the
appellate Court nor the revisional Court had recorded a finding relating to
applicability of Sections 9-A and 9-B of the U.P.C.H. Act read with Rule
25-A of the Rules.
From the perusal of the impugned orders as well as evidence on
record it appears that the provisions contained in Rule 25-A of the
Consolidation of Holdings Rules have not been complied with while
relying upon the compromise in question. Accordingly, the alleged
compromise or conciliation proceeding suffers from substantial illegality.
(Anwar v. Distt. D.D.C. Officer, Hardoi & Ors.; 2007 (1) ALJ 744)
S. 19 – Chak allotment – Guidelines to be followed.
Due to wide discretion in respect of carvation of chaks given to
the consolidation authorities, drastic changes may be made by all the
three authorities, CO, SOC and DDC. This gives rise to lot of
confusion, heart burning, adventurism and allegations of all sorts. In
such situation the best course is to make all possible qefforts within the
framework of section 19 to leave original holdings with the tenure
holders of their maximum part. This will avoid all the above negative
aspects of consolidation. It must also be born in mind that villagers
particularly those who have got small pieces of agricultural land
inherited from their ancestors have got a sort of attachment with their
lands, which may not be ascertained in terms of valuation. This feeling
of attachment will also be satisfied if maximum effort is made to leave
with the tenure holder his original holding/holdings. (Fateh Chand
Chaturvedi and Another v. Joint Director of Consolidation, Allahabad and
Another; (2007 (102) RD 171)
S. 48 – Maintainability of revision against order condoning the delay –
Order condoning delay is an interlocutory order against which no revision
is maintainable.
A bare perusal of the aforesaid section goes to show that an
interlocutory order passed by the subordinate consolidation authorities
is not open to challenge in revision before the Deputy Director of
Consolidation. An order allowing delay condonation application is in
the nature of interlocutory order since it does not touch merits of the
case. In the case of Paras Nath v. Deputy Director of Consolidation, Basti
and Others (supra) a learned single Judge of this Court has held that an
order condoning delay is an interlocutory order, against which no
revision is maintainable under S. 48 of the Act. I am in respectful
agreement with the view taken by the learned single Judge. (Anshuman
Khetan v. State of U.P. and Others; 2007 (102) RD 27)
S. 48 – Revisional Court is competent to decide the questions of fact and
also to appreciate the evidence.
The second submission of Sri R.S. Misra that the Deputy
Director of Consolidation could have decided the matter himself and
also taken additional evidence does appear to have merit. The case is
pending before the Consolidation Court since the year 1976. It is
therefore appropriate that the matter may be decided without any
further delay by the Deputy Director of Consolidation himself. After
the amendment in section 48 of the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act,
the Deputy Director of Consolidation is entitled to decide questions of
fact and also appreciate the evidence. As Counsel for the both the
parties agree that the matter may be decided by the Deputy Director of
Consolidation, the order of the Deputy Director of Consolidation in so
far it directs the remand of the case to the Consolidation Officer is set
aside. He may decide the case himself. (Sita Ram v. Dy. Director of
Consolidation; 2007 (102) RD 113)
Ss. 48 & 9-A (2) – Proof of Will – Mere registration of will not
sufficient for its proof.
Neither the Deputy Director of Consolidation nor the Settlement
Officer Consolidation however have considered the reasons given by
the Consolidation Officer in arriving at the finding about the date of
death of Sukhai and Bhoj and about the Will. As the findings of the
Consolidation Officer were being reversed the material evidence
referred to in the Consolidation Officer‟s order and the reasons given
by him ought to have been considered and met. One of the
circumstances relief upon by the Consolidation Officer in support of
his finding that the Will dated 6.6.1978 could not be relied upon is that
on the same day on which it is alleged to have been executed there was
an order of mutation of the name of the respondents 3 and 4, which
was not possible. Moreover, Smt. Phoolmani was the sister of Bhoj and
Sukhai. The Deputy Director of Consolidation and Settlement Officer
Consolidation have not considered whether there were circumstances
on account of which she may have been excluded by Sukhai to
bequeath the property to the respondents. It is a settled principle of
law that the burden to prove a Will lies upon the propounder. The
Settlement Officer Consolidation, however, erroneously placed the
burden of proof upon the petitioner. The Deputy Director of
Consolidation also erred in not considering the evidence regarding the
proof of the Will. The mere fact that a Will is a registered one is not
sufficient for its proof. The Deputy Director was, therefore, required to
consider the evidence. (Smt. Phoolman v. Deputy Director of
Consolidation, Deoria and Others; 2007 (102) RD 128)
S. 49 – Bar of – Declaration of title barred by S. 49 of the Act and bar of
S. 49 could be decided as preliminary issue.
Question of bar of section 49 of the Act need not be decided in
every case as preliminary issue. However, in appropriate cases bar of
jurisdiction of section 49 of the Act may be decided as preliminary
issue. There is no absolute bar in that regard. (Smt. Manjhari (Dead)
Through LRs. V. Second Addl. District Judge, Jaunpur and Others; (2007
(102) RD 293)
U.P. Imposition of
Ceiling on Land
Holdings Act
S. 5(6) – Determining the ceiling area – Transfer made after
24.1.1971 to be ignored.
Sub-section (6) of section 5 of the Act provides that in determining
the ceiling area applicable to a tenure holder, any transfer of land made
after 24.1.1971, which but for the transfer would have been declared
surplus under this Act, shall be ignored and not taken into account. (Vishnu
Kant v. Upper Ayukt Chitrakut Dham Mandal, Banda and Others;
2007 (102) RD 141)
Ss. 10, 13 and 3(17) – “Tenor-Holder” – Does not include a minor child
whose mother or father is a tenor-holder.
Even though through gift deed land in dispute had been
transferred to the minor petitioners through their mother as guardian,
however, in the normal course father is the guardian.
Irrespective of validity of the gift deed, the land of the minor
petitioners was liable to be clubbed with the land of their father by
virtue of section 3(17) of the Ceiling Act which defines „tenure-holder‟
to be a person who is the holder of a holding but does not include a
minor child whose mother or father is a tenure-holder. (Krishna Murari
Lal and Another v. 2nd Addl. Distt. Judge, Aligarh; (2007 (102) RD 366)
Learned counsel for the petitioner relied upon a decision of the Apex
Court in Smt. Raj Rani Mehrotra v. IInd Additional District Judge and
Others, 1980 ARC 311, wherein the Apex Court has held as under:-
any of them. When the plea under the said rule was pressed
its turn remand the matter back to the trial court, which will
evidence.”
(Nand Kishore Awasthi v. A.D.J., Court No. 16, Kanpur Nagar, and