Actualtest CCIE RS v5

Cisco 400-101
CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)

Version: 6.0
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Topic 1, Volume A
QUESTION NO: 1
Refer to the exhibit.
If you change the Spanning Tree Protocol from pvst to rapid-pvst, what is the effect on the
interface Fa0/1 port state?
A. It transitions to the listening state, and then the forwarding state.
B. It transitions to the learning state and then the forwarding state.
C. It transitions to the blocking state, then the learning state, and then the forwarding state.
D. It transitions to the blocking state and then the forwarding state.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which configuration is missing that would enable SSH access on a router that is running Cisco
IOS XE Software?
A. int Gig0/0/0
management-interface
B. class-map ssh-class
match access-group protect-ssh
policy-map control-plane-in
class ssh-class
police 80000 conform transmit exceed drop
control-plane
service-policy input control-plane-in
C. control-plane host
management-interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0 allow ssh
D. interface Gig0/0/0
ip access-group protect-ssh in
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which two options are causes of out-of-order packets? (Choose two.)
A. a routing loop
B. a router in the packet flow path that is intermittently dropping packets
C. high latency
D. packets in a flow traversing multiple paths through the network
Cisco 400-101 Exam

E. some packets in a flow being process-switched and others being interrupt-switched on a transit
router
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
A TCP/IP host is able to transmit small amounts of data (typically less than 1500 bytes), but
attempts to transmit larger amounts of data hang and then time out. What is the cause of this
problem?
A. A link is flapping between two intermediate devices.
B. The processor of an intermediate router is averaging 90 percent utilization.
C. A port on the switch that is connected to the TCP/IP host is duplicating traffic and sending it to a
port that has a sniffer attached.
D. There is a PMTUD failure in the network path.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What is the
Cisco 400-101 Exam

problem?
A. The ICMP payload is malformed.
B. The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
C. The negotiation of the connection failed.
D. The packet is dropped at the next hop.
E. The link is congested.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Which statement is true?

A. It is impossible for the destination interface to equal the source interface.
B. NAT on a stick is performed on interface Et0/0.
C. There is a potential routing loop.
D. This output represents a UDP flow or a TCP flow.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Which three conditions can cause excessive unicast flooding? (Choose three.)
A. Asymmetric routing
B. Repeated TCNs
C. The use of HSRP
D. Frames sent to FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
E. MAC forwarding table overflow
F. The use of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Which congestion-avoidance or congestion-management technique can cause global
synchronization?
A. Tail drop
B. Random early detection
C. Weighted random early detection
D. Weighted fair queuing
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which two options are reasons for TCP starvation? (Choose two.)
A. The use of tail drop
B. The use of WRED
C. Mixing TCP and UDP traffic in the same traffic class
D. The use of TCP congestion control
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which type of port would have root guard enabled on it?
A. A root port
B. An alternate port
C. A blocked port
D. A designated port
Answer: D
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Which action will solve the error state of this interface when connecting a host behind a Cisco IP
phone?
A. Configure dot1x-port control auto on this interface
B. Enable errdisable recovery for security violation errors
C. Enable port security on this interface
D. Configure multidomain authentication on this interface
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
While troubleshooting high CPU utilization on one of your Cisco Catalyst switches, you find that
the issue is due to excessive flooding that is caused by STP. What can you do to prevent this
issue from happening again?
Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. Disable STP completely on the switch.
B. Change the STP version to RSTP.
C. Configure PortFast on port-channel 1.
D. Configure UplinkFast on the switch.
E. Configure PortFast on interface Gi0/15.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
While troubleshooting high CPU utilization of a Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switch, you notice the
error message that is shown in the exhibit in the log file.
What can be the cause of this issue, and how can it be prevented?
A. The hardware routing table is full. Redistribute from BGP into IGP.
B. The software routing table is full. Redistribute from BGP into IGP.
C. The hardware routing table is full. Reduce the number of routes in the routing table.
D. The software routing table is full. Reduce the number of routes in the routing table.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Cisco 400-101 Exam
All switches have default bridge priorities, and originate BPDUs with MAC addresses as indicated.
The numbers shown are STP link metrics. Which two ports are forwarding traffic after STP
converges? (Choose two.)
A. The port connecting switch SWD with switch SWE
B. The port connecting switch SWG with switch SWF
C. The port connecting switch SWC with switch SWE
D. The port connecting switch SWB with switch SWC
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which three statements about the output are true? (Choose three.)
A. An mrouter port can be learned by receiving a PIM hello packet from a multicast router.
B. This switch is configured as a multicast router.
C. Gi2/0/1 is a trunk link that connects to a multicast router.
D. An mrouter port is learned when a multicast data stream is received on that port from a
multicast router.
E. This switch is not configured as a multicast router. It is configured only for IGMP snooping.
F. IGMP reports are received only on Gi2/0/1 and are never transmitted out Gi2/0/1 for VLANs 10
and 20.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
If a port is configured as shown and receives an untagged frame, of which VLAN will the untagged
frame be a member?
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 2
C. VLAN 3
D. VLAN 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which statement describes the effect on the network if FastEthernet0/1 goes down temporarily?
A. FastEthernet0/2 forwards traffic only until FastEthernet0/1 comes back up.
B. FastEthernet0/2 stops forwarding traffic until FastEthernet0/1 comes back up.
C. FastEthernet0/2 forwards traffic indefinitely.
D. FastEthernet0/1 goes into standby.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Which technology does the use of bi-directional BPDUs on all ports in the topology support?
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. RSTP
B. MST
C. Bridge Assurance
D. Loop Guard
E. Root Guard
F. UDLD
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which three statements are true about PPP CHAP authentication? (Choose three.)
A. PPP encapsulation must be enabled globally.
B. The LCP phase must be complete and in closed state.
C. The hostname used by a router for CHAP authentication cannot be changed.
D. PPP encapsulation must be enabled on the interface.
E. The LCP phase must be complete and in open state.
F. By default, the router uses its hostname to identify itself to the peer.
Answer: D,E,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
Which two statements are true about an EPL? (Choose two.)
A. It is a point-to-point Ethernet connection between a pair of NNIs.
B. It allows for service multiplexing.
C. It has a high degree of transparency.
D. The EPL service is also referred to as E-line.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Which two statements describe characteristics of HDLC on Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. It supports multiple Layer 3 protocols.
B. It supports multiplexing.
C. It supports only synchronous interfaces.
D. It supports authentication.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
What is the meaning of the asterisk (*) in the output?

A. PIM neighbor 10.1.5.6 is the RPF neighbor for the group 232.1.1.1 for the shared tree.
B. PIM neighbor 10.1.5.6 is the one that is seen as the RPF neighbor when performing the
command show ip rpf 10.1.4.7.
C. PIM neighbor 10.1.5.6 is the winner of an assert mechanism.
D. The RPF neighbor 10.1.5.6 is invalid.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
What is the role of this multicast router?

A. a first-hop PIM router
B. a last-hop PIM router
C. a PIM rendezvous point
D. a PIM inter-AS router
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which option explains why the forwarding address is set to 0.0.0.0 instead of 110.100.1.1?
A. The interface Ethernet0/1 is in down state.
B. The next-hop ip address 110.100.1.1 is not directly attached to the redistributing router.
C. The next-hop interface (Ethernet0/1) is specified as part of the static route command; therefore,
the forwarding address is always set to 0.0.0.0.
D. OSPF is not enabled on the interface Ethernet0/1.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
You have configured two routing protocols across this point-to-point link. How many BFD sessions
will be established across this link?
A. three per interface
B. one per multicast address
C. one per routing protocol
D. one per interface
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26

A. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a local host route, and it can be redistributed into a dynamic routing
protocol.
B. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a local host route, and it cannot be redistributed into a dynamic routing
protocol.
C. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a local host route that was created because ipv6 unicast-routing is not
enabled on this router.
D. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a route that was put in the IPv6 routing table because one of this router's
loopback interfaces has the IPv6 address 2001:DB8::1/128.
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Routers R1, R2, and R3 are configured as shown, and traffic from R2 fails to reach 172.29.168.3.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Correct the static route on R1.
B. Correct the default route on R2.
C. Edit the EIGRP configuration of R3 to enable auto-summary.
D. Correct the network statement for 172.29.168.3 on R3.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
R3 prefers the path through R1 to reach host 10.1.1.1.
Which option describes the reason for this behavior?

A. The OSPF reference bandwidth is too small to account for the higher speed links through R2.
B. The default OSPF cost through R1 is less than the cost through R2.
C. The default OSPF cost through R1 is more than the cost through R2.
D. The link between R2 and R1 is congested.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
For which reason could a BGP-speaking device in autonomous system 65534 be prevented from
installing the given route in its BGP table?
A. The AS number of the BGP is specified in the given AS_PATH.
B. The origin of the given route is unknown.
C. BGP is designed only for publicly routed addresses.
D. The AS_PATH for the specified prefix exceeds the maximum number of ASs allowed.
E. BGP does not allow the AS number 65535.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which statement about the feasibility condition in EIGRP is true?
A. The prefix is reachable via an EIGRP peer that is in the routing domain of the router.
B. The EIGRP peer that advertises the prefix to the router has multiple paths to the destination.
C. The EIGRP peer that advertises the prefix to the router is closer to the destination than the
router.
D. The EIGRP peer that advertises the prefix cannot be used as a next hop to reach the
destination.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Which two statements about the function of the stub feature in EIGRP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It stops the stub router from sending queries to peers.
B. It stops the hub router from sending queries to the stub router.
C. It stops the stub router from propagating dynamically learned EIGRP prefixes to the hub routers
.
D. It stops the hub router from propagating dynamically learned EIGRP prefixes to the stub routers
.
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
In which type of EIGRP configuration is EIGRP IPv6 VRF-Lite available?
A. stub
B. named mode
C. classic mode
D. passive
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
Two routers are trying to establish an OSPFv3 adjacency over an Ethernet link, but the adjacency
is not forming. Which two options are possible reasons that prevent OSPFv3 to form between
these two routers? (Choose two.)
A. mismatch of subnet masks
B. mismatch of network types
C. mismatch of authentication types
D. mismatch of instance IDs
E. mismatch of area types
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Like OSPFv2, OSPFv3 supports virtual links.Which two statements are true about the IPv6
address of a virtual neighbor? (Choose two.)
A. It is the link-local address, and it is discovered by examining the hello packets received from the
virtual neighbor.
B. It is the link-local address, and it is discovered by examining link LSA received by the virtual
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

neighbor.
C. It is the global scope address, and it is discovered by examining the router LSAs received by
the virtual neighbor.
D. Only prefixes with the LA-bit not set can be used as a virtual neighbor address.
E. It is the global scope address, and it is discovered by examining the intra-area-prefix-LSAs
received by the virtual neighbor.
F. Only prefixes with the LA-bit set can be used as a virtual neighbor address.
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
Which field is specific to the OPSFv3 packet header, as opposed to the OSPFv2 packet header?
A. checksum
B. router ID
C. AuType
D. instance ID
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
Which two functions are performed by the DR in OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. The DR originates the network LSA on behalf of the network.
B. The DR is responsible for the flooding throughout one OSPF area.
C. The DR forms adjacencies with all other OSPF routers on the network, in order to synchronize
the LSDB across the adjacencies.
D. The DR is responsible for originating the type 4 LSAs into one area.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
AS #1 and AS #2 have multiple EBGP connections with each other. AS #1 wants all return traffic
that is destined to the prefix 10.10.10.1/32 to enter through the router R1 from AS #2. In order to
achieve this routing policy, the AS 1 advertises a lower MED from R1, compared to a higher MED
from R3, to their respective BGP neighbor for the prefix 10.10.10.0/24. Will this measure
guarantee that the routing policy is always in effect?
A. Yes, because MED plays a deterministic role in return traffic engineering in BGP.
B. Yes, because a lower MED forces BGP best-path route selection in AS #2 to choose R1 as the
best path for 10.10.10.0/24.
C. Yes, because a lower MED in AS #2 is the highest BGP attribute in BGP best-path route
selection.
D. No, AS #2 can choose to alter the weight attribute in R2 for BGP neighbor R1, and this weight
value is cascaded across AS #2 for BGP best-path route selection.
E. No, AS #2 can choose to alter the local preference attribute to overwrite the best-path route
selection over the lower MED advertisement from AS #1. This local preference attribute is
cascaded across AS #2 for the BGP best-path route selection.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
What does "(received-only)" mean?

A. The prefix 10.1.1.1 can not be advertised to any eBGP neighbor.
B. The prefix 10.1.1.1 can not be advertised to any iBGP neighbor.
C. BGP soft reconfiguration outbound is applied.
D. BGP soft reconfiguration inbound is applied.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
Which regular expression will only allow prefixes that originated from AS 65000 and that are
learned through AS 65001?
A. ^65000_65001$
B. 65000_65001$
C. ^65000_65001
D. ^65001_65000$
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
Which statement describes the BGP add-path feature?
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. It allows for installing multiple IBGP and EBGP routes in the routing table.
B. It allows a network engineer to override the selected BGP path with an additional path created
in the config.
C. It allows BGP to provide backup paths to the routing table for quicker convergence.
D. It allows multiple paths for the same prefix to be advertised.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
What is a reason for the RIB-failure?

A. CEF is not enabled on this router.
B. The route 10.100.1.1/32 is in the routing table, but not as a BGP route.
C. The routing table has yet to be updated with the BGP route.
D. The BGP route is filtered inbound and hence is not installed in the routing table.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. BGP peer 10.1.2.3 is performing inbound filtering.
B. BGP peer 10.1.2.3 is a route reflector.
C. R1 is a route reflector, but BGP peer 10.1.2.3 is not a route reflector client.
D. R1 still needs to send an update to the BGP peer 10.1.2.3.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
Router A and router B are physically connected over an Ethernet interface, and ISIS is configured
as shown. Which option explains why the ISIS neighborship is not getting formed between router
A and router B?
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. same area ID
B. same N selector
C. same domain ID
D. same system ID
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44

A. There is no issue with forwarding IPv6 traffic from this router.
B. IPv6 traffic can be forwarded from this router, but only on Ethernet1/0.
C. IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on this router.
D. Some IPv6 traffic will be blackholed from this router.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. IS-IS has been enabled on R4 for IPv6, single-topology.
B. IS-IS has been enabled on R4 for IPv6, multitopology.
C. IS-IS has been enabled on R4 for IPv6, single-topology and multitopology.
D. R4 advertises IPv6 prefixes, but it does not forward IPv6 traffic, because the protocol has not
been enabled under router IS-IS.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
Why is the neighbor relationship between R2 and R4 shown as ES-IS?
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. because there is an MTU mismatch between R2 and R4
B. because interface S3/0 of R4 is configured as L1/L2
C. because interface S3/0 of R2 is configured as L1
D. because there is a hello interval mismatch between R2 and R4
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
The interface FastEthernet0/1 of both routers R4 and R5 is connected to the same Ethernet
segment with a multicast receiver. Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. Multicast traffic that is destined to a receiver with IP address 192.168.2.6 will flow through
router R4.
B. Both routers R4 and R5 will send PIM join messages to the RP.
C. Only router R5 will send a multicast join message to the RP.
D. Multicast traffic that is destined to a receiver with IP address 192.168.2.6 will flow through
router R5.
Answer: C,D
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
This is the configuration of the ASBR of area 110.Which option explains why the remote ABR
should not translate the type 7 LSA for the prefix 192.168.0.0/16 into a type 5 LSA?
A. The remote ABR translates all type 7 LSA into type 5 LSA, regardless of any option configured
in the ASBR.
B. The ASBR sets the forwarding address to 0.0.0.0 which instructs the ABR not to translate the
LSA into a type 5 LSA.
C. The ASBR originates a type 7 LSA with age equal to MAXAGE 3600.
D. The ABR clears the P bit in the header of the type 7 LSA for 192.168.0.0/16.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
What is the function of an EIGRP sequence TLV packet?
A. to acknowledge a set of sequence numbers during the startup update process
B. to list the peers that should listen to the next multicast packet during the reliable multicast
process
C. to list the peers that should not listen to the next multicast packet during the reliable multicast
process
D. to define the initial sequence number when bringing up a new peer
Answer: C
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
What are two reasons to define static peers in EIGRP? (Choose two.)
A. Security requirements do not allow dynamic learning of neighbors.
B. The link between peers requires multicast packets.
C. Back-level peers require static definition for successful connection.
D. The link between peers requires unicast packets.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
R2 is mutually redistributing between EIGRP and BGP.
Which configuration is necessary to enable R1 to see routes from R3?

A. The R3 configuration must include ebgp-multihop to the neighbor statement for R2.
B. The R2 BGP configuration must include bgp redistribute-internal.
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

C. R1 must be configured with next-hop-self for the neighbor going to R2.
D. The AS numbers configured on R1 and R2 must match.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
What is the purpose of EIGRP summary leaking?
A. to allow a summary to be advertised conditionally on specific criteria
B. to allow a component of a summary to be advertised in addition to the summary
C. to allow overlapping summaries to exist on a single interface
D. to modify the metric of the summary based on which components of the summary are
operational
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
You have just created a new VRF on PE3. You have enabled debug ip bgp vpnv4 unicast updates
on PE1, and you can see the route in the debug, but not in the BGP VPNv4 table. Which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. VPNv4 is not configured between PE1 and PE3.
B. address-family ipv4 vrf is not configured on PE3.
C. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE3, the route will be accepted.
D. PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering.
E. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

QUESTION NO: 54
NHRP registration is failing; what might be the problem?

A. invalid IP addressing
B. fragmentation
C. incorrect NHRP mapping
D. incorrect NHRP authentication
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
In GETVPN, which key is used to secure the control plane?
A. Traffic Encryption Key (TEK)
B. content encryption key (CEK)
C. message encryption key (MEK)
D. Key Encryption Key (KEK).
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
Which statement is true comparing L2TPv3 to EoMPLS?
A. L2TPv3 requires OSPF routing, whereas EoMPLS does not.
B. EoMPLS requires BGP routing, whereas L2TPv3 does not.
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

C. L2TPv3 carries L2 frames inside MPLS tagged packets, whereas EoMPLS carries L2 frames
inside IPv4 packets.
D. L2TPv3 carries L2 frames inside IPv4 packets, whereas EoMPLS carries L2 frames inside
MPLS packets.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
Which statement is true about VPLS?
A. MPLS is not required for VPLS to work.
B. VPLS carries packets as Layer 3 multicast.
C. VPLS has been introduced to address some shortcomings of OTV.
D. VPLS requires an MPLS network.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
Service provider SP 1 is running the MPLS-VPN service. The MPLS core network has MP-BGP
configured with RR-1 as route reflector. What will be the effect on traffic between PE1 and PE2 if
router P1 goes down?
A. No effect, because all traffic between PE1 and PE2 will be rerouted through P2.
B. No effect, because P1 was not the only P router in the forwarding path of traffic.
C. No effect, because RR-1 will find an alternative path for MP-BGP sessions to PE-1 and PE-2.
D. All traffic will be lost because RR-1 will lose the MP-BGP sessions to PE-1 and PE-2.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
According to RFC 4577, OSPF for BGP/MPLS IP VPNs, when must the down bit be set?
A. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 LSAs
B. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 5 LSAs
C. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 and Type 5 LSAs
D. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for all types of LSAs
Answer: C
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
What is a possible reason for the IPSEC tunnel not establishing?

A. The peer is unreachable.
B. The transform sets do not match.
C. The proxy IDs are invalid.
D. The access lists do not match.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 61
What is a key advantage of Cisco GET VPN over DMVPN?
A. Cisco GET VPN provides zero-touch deployment of IPSEC VPNs.
B. Cisco GET VPN supports certificate authentication for tunnel establishment.
C. Cisco GET VPN has a better anti-replay mechanism.
D. Cisco GET VPN does not require a secondary overlay routing infrastructure.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
What is wrong with the configuration of the tunnel interface of this DMVPN Phase II spoke router?
A. The interface MTU is too high.
B. The tunnel destination is missing.
C. The NHRP NHS IP address is wrong.
D. The tunnel mode is wrong.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
Which two statements are true about VPLS? (Choose two.)
A. It can work over any transport that can forward IP packets.
B. It provides integrated mechanisms to maintain First Hop Resiliency Protocols such as HSRP,
VRRP, or GLBP.
C. It includes automatic detection of multihoming.
D. It relies on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information.
E. It can carry a single VLAN per VPLS instance.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
What will be the extended community value of this route?

A. RT:200:3000 RT:200:9999
B. RT:200:9999 RT:200:3000
C. RT:200:3000
D. RT:200:9999
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65

A. There is an MPLS network that is running 6PE, and the ingress PE router has no mpls ip
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

propagate-ttl.
B. There is an MPLS network that is running 6VPE, and the ingress PE router has no mpls ip
propagate-ttl.
C. There is an MPLS network that is running 6PE or 6VPE, and the ingress PE router has mpls ip
propagate-ttl.
D. There is an MPLS network that is running 6PE, and the ingress PE router has mpls ip
propagate-ttl.
E. There is an MPLS network that is running 6VPE, and the ingress PE router has mpls ip
propagate-ttl.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66
Which statement is true about a VPNv4 prefix that is present in the routing table of vrf one and is
advertised from this router?
A. The prefix is advertised only with route target 100:1.
B. The prefix is advertised with route targets 100:1 and 100:2.
C. The prefix is advertised only with route target 100:3.
D. The prefix is not advertised.
E. The prefix is advertised with route targets 100:1, 100:2, and 100:3.
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 67
Which is the way to enable the control word in an L2 VPN dynamic pseudowire connection on
router R1?
A. R1(config)# pseudowire-class cw-enable
R1(config-pw-class)# encapsulation mpls
R1(config-pw-class)# set control-word
B. R1(config)# pseudowire-class cw-enable
R1(config-pw-class)# enable control-word
C. R1(config)# pseudowire-class cw-enable
R1(config-pw-class)# default control-word
D. R1(config)# pseudowire-class cw-enable
R1(config-pw-class)# control-word
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68
What is the goal of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. to verify the reachability of the destination address in forwarded packets
B. to help control network congestion
C. to verify the reachability of the destination address in multicast packets
D. to verify the reachability of the source address in forwarded packets
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which three features are considered part of the IPv6 first-hop security suite? (Choose three.)
A. DNS guard
B. destination guard
C. DHCP guard
D. ICMP guard
E. RA guard
F. DoS guard
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
Why is the router not accessible via Telnet on the GigabitEthernet0 management interface?
A. The wrong port is being used in the telnet-acl access list.
B. The subnet mask is incorrect in the telnet-acl access list.
C. The log keyword needs to be removed from the telnet-acl access list..
D. The access class needs to have the vrf-also keyword added.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

QUESTION NO: 71
Which three modes are valid PfR monitoring modes of operation? (Choose three.)
A. route monitor mode (based on BGP route changes)
B. RMON mode (based on RMONv1 and RMONv2 data)
C. passive mode (based on NetFlow data)
D. active mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
E. fast mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
F. passive mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72

A. The Cisco PfR state is UP; however, the external interface Et0/1 of border router 10.1.1.1 has
exceeded the maximum available bandwidth threshold.
B. The Cisco PfR state is UP; however, an issue is preventing the border router from establishing
a TCP session to the master controller.
C. The Cisco PfR state is UP and is able to monitor traffic flows; however, MD5 authentication has
not been successful between the master controller and the border routers.
D. The Cisco PfR State is UP; however, the receive capacity was not configured for inbound
traffic.
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

E. The Cisco PfR state is UP, and the link utilization out-of-policy threshold is set to 90 percent for
traffic exiting the external links.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
In the DiffServ model, which class represents the highest priority with the highest drop probability?
A. AF11
B. AF13
C. AF41
D. AF43
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 74
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which statement about this IP SLA is true?

A. The SLA must also have a schedule configured before it will start.
B. The TTL of the SLA packets is 10.
C. The SLA has a timeout of 3.6 seconds.
D. The SLA has a lifetime of 5 seconds.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75
Which three actions are required when configuring NAT-PT? (Choose three.)
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. Enable NAT-PT globally.
B. Specify an IPv4-to-IPv6 translation.
C. Specify an IPv6-to-IPv4 translation.
D. Specify a ::/96 prefix that will map to an IPv4 address.
E. Specify a ::/48 prefix that will map to a MAC address.
F. Specify a ::/32 prefix that will map to an IPv6 address.
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
Which two are causes of output queue drops on FastEthernet0/0? (Choose two.)
A. an oversubscribed input service policy on FastEthernet0/0
B. a duplex mismatch on FastEthernet0/0
C. a bad cable connected to FastEthernet0/0
D. an oversubscribed output service policy on FastEthernet0/0
E. The router trying to send more than 100 Mb/s out of FastEthernet0/0
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Answer: D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77
Which two DHCP messages are always sent as broadcast? (Choose two.)
A. DHCPOFFER
B. DHCPDECLINE
C. DHCPRELEASE
D. DHCPREQUEST
E. DHCPDISCOVER
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
Which statement about the output is true?

A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to
144.254.10.206.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which statement about this COS-DSCP mapping is true?

A. COS 3 is mapped to the expedited forwarding DSCP.
B. COS 16 is mapped to DSCP 2.
C. The default COS is mapped to DSCP 32.
D. This mapping is the default COS-DSCP mapping on Cisco switches.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 80
Which three statements about implementing a NAT application layer gateway in a network are
true? (Choose three.)
A. It allows client applications to use dynamic ports to communicate with a server regardless of
whether NAT is being used.
B. It maintains granular security over application-specific data.
C. It allows synchronization between multiple streams of data between two hosts.
D. Application layer gateway is used only in VoIP/SIP deployments.
E. Client applications require additional configuration to use an application layer gateway.
F. An application layer gateway inspects only the first 64 bytes of a packet before forwarding it
through the network.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
At which location will the benefit of this configuration be observed?

A. on Router A and its upstream routers
B. on Router A and its downstream routers
C. on Router A only
D. on Router A and all of its ARP neighbors
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
Where is multicast traffic sent, when it is originated from a spoke site in a DMVPN phase 2 cloud?
A. spoke-spoke
B. nowhere, because multicast does not work over DMVPN
C. spoke-spoke and spoke-hub
D. spoke-hub
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A spoke site that is connected to Router-A cannot reach a spoke site that is connected to RouterB, but both spoke sites can reach the hub. What is the likely cause of this issue?
A. There is a router doing PAT at site B.
B. There is a router doing PAT at site A.
C. NHRP is learning the IP address of the remote spoke site as a /32 address rather than a /24
address.
D. There is a routing issue, as NHRP registration is working.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
Which mechanism can be used on Layer 2 switches so that only multicast packets with
downstream receivers are sent on the multicast router-connected ports?
A. IGMP snooping
B. Router Guard
C. PIM snooping
D. multicast filtering
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of the
interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
Answer: D
Explanation:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

QUESTION NO: 86
With which ISs will an ISIS Level 1 IS exchange routing information?
A. Level 1 ISs
B. Level 1 ISs in the same area
C. Level 1 and Level 2 ISs
D. Level 2 ISs
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87
Why is the neighbor relationship between R1 & R2 and R1 & R3 an L2-type neighborship?
A. because the area ID on R1 is different as compared to the area ID of R2 and R3
B. because the circuit type on those three routers is L1/L2
C. because the network type between R1, R2, and R3 is point-to-point
D. because the hello interval is not the same on those three routers
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

QUESTION NO: 88
Which three statements about the designated router election in IS-IS are true? (Choose three.)
A. If the IS-IS DR fails, a new DR is elected.
B. The IS-IS DR will preempt. If a new router with better priority is added, it just becomes active in
the network.
C. If there is a tie in DR priority, the router with a higher IP address wins.
D. If there is a tie in DR priority, the router with a higher MAC address wins.
E. If the DR fails, the BDR is promoted as the DR.
F. The DR is optional in a point-to-point network.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 89
Which three elements compose a network entity title? (Choose three.)
A. area ID
B. domain ID
C. system ID
D. NSAP selector
E. MAC address
F. IP address
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90
Which statement about shaped round robin queuing is true?
A. Queues with higher configured weights are serviced first.
B. The device waits a period of time, set by the configured weight, before servicing the next
queue.
C. The device services a single queue completely before moving on to the next queue.
D. Shaped mode is available on both the ingress and egress queues.
Answer: A
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
You discover that only 1.5 Mb/s of web traffic can pass during times of congestion on the given
network.
Which two options are possible reasons for this limitation? (Choose two.)
A. The web traffic class has too little bandwidth reservation.
B. Video traffic is using too much bandwidth.
C. The service-policy is on the wrong interface.
D. The service-policy is going in the wrong direction.
E. The NAT policy is adding too much overhead.
Answer: A,B
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 92
Which statement about the debug behavior of the device is true?

A. The device debugs all IP events for 172.16.194.4.
B. The device sends all debugging information for 172.16.194.4.
C. The device sends only NTP debugging information to 172.16.194.4.
D. The device sends debugging information every five seconds.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which statement about this device configuration is true?
A. The NMS needs a specific route configured to enable it to reach the Loopback0 interface of the
device.
B. The ifindex of the device could be different when the device is reloaded.
C. The device will allow anyone to poll it via the public community.
D. The device configuration requires the AuthNoPriv security level.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 94
Which three steps are necessary to enable SSH? (Choose three.)
A. generating an RSA or DSA cryptographic key
B. configuring the version of SSH
C. configuring a domain name
D. configuring VTY lines for use with SSH
E. configuring the port for SSH to listen for connections
F. generating an AES or SHA cryptographic key
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 95
Which two features does the show ipv6 snooping features command show information about?
(Choose two.)
A. RA guard
B. DHCP guard
C. ND inspection
D. source guard
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

QUESTION NO: 96
Which two statements about how the configuration processes Telnet traffic are true? (Choose
two.)
A. Telnet traffic from 10.1.1.9 to 10.10.10.1 is dropped.
B. All Telnet traffic is dropped.
C. Telnet traffic from 10.10.10.1 to 10.1.1.9 is permitted.
D. Telnet traffic from 10.1.1.9 to 10.10.10.1 is permitted.
E. Telnet traffic is permitted to all IP addresses.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97
Which three statements are functions that are performed by IKE phase 1? (Choose three.)
A. It builds a secure tunnel to negotiate IKE phase 1 parameters.
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

B. It establishes IPsec security associations.
C. It authenticates the identities of the IPsec peers.
D. It protects the IKE exchange by negotiating a matching IKE SA policy.
E. It protects the identities of IPsec peers.
F. It negotiates IPsec SA parameters.
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 98
The session status for an IPsec tunnel with IPv6-in-IPv4 is down with the error message IKE
message from 10.10.1.1 failed its sanity check or is malformed.
Which statement describes a possible cause of this error?

A. There is a verification failure on the IPsec packet.
B. The SA has expired or has been cleared.
C. The pre-shared keys on the peers are mismatched.
D. There is a failure due to a transform set mismatch.
E. An incorrect packet was sent by an IPsec peer.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 99
Which three statements describe the characteristics of a VPLS architecture? (Choose three.)
A. It forwards Ethernet frames.
B. It maps MAC address destinations to IP next hops.
C. It supports MAC address aging.
D. It replicates broadcast and multicast frames to multiple ports.
E. It conveys MAC address reachability information in a separate control protocol.
F. It can suppress the flooding of traffic.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
QUESTION NO: 100

A GRE tunnel is down with the error message %TUN-5-RECURDOWN: Tunnel0 temporarily
disabled due to recursive routing error.
Which two options describe possible causes of the error? (Choose two.)
A. Incorrect destination IP addresses are configured on the tunnel.
B. There is link flapping on the tunnel.
C. There is instability in the network due to route flapping.
D. The tunnel mode and tunnel IP address are misconfigured.
E. The tunnel destination is being routed out of the tunnel interface.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Topic 2, Volume B
QUESTION NO: 101
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which two statements about the VPN solution are true? (Choose two.)
A. Customer A and customer B will exchange routes with each other.
B. R3 will advertise routes received from R1 to R2.
C. Customer C will communicate with customer A and B.
D. Communication between sites in VPN1 and VPN2 will be blocked.
E. R1 and R2 will receive VPN routes advertised by R3.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 102

Which three statements about IS-IS are true? (Choose three.)
A. IS-IS can be used only in the service provider network.
B. IS-IS can be used to route both IP and CLNP.
C. IS-IS has three different levels of authentication: interface level, process level, and domain
level.
D. IS-IS is an IETF standard.
E. IS-IS has the capability to provide address summarization between areas.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 103

Which mechanism does Cisco recommend for CE router interfaces that face the service provider
for an EVPL circuit with multiple EVCs and multiple traffic classes?
A. HCBWFQ
B. LLQ
C. tail drop
D. WRED
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

QUESTION NO: 104
Which Carrier Ethernet service supports the multiplexing of multiple point-to-point EVCs across as
a single UNI?
A. EPL
B. EVPL
C. EMS
D. ERMS
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 105

Which technology can be used to prevent flooding of IPv6 multicast traffic on a switch?
A. IGMP snooping
B. IGMP filtering
C. MLD snooping
D. MLD filtering
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 106

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which two statements about the EEM applet configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. The EEM applet runs before the CLI command is executed.
B. The EEM applet runs after the CLI command is executed.
C. The EEM applet requires a case-insensitive response.
D. The running configuration is displayed only if the letter Y is entered at the CLI.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 107

Which variable in an EEM applet is set when you use the sync yes option?
A. $_cli_result
B. $_result
C. $_string_result
D. $_exit_status
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 108

Which two options are advantages of NetFlow version 9 over NetFlow version 5? (Choose two.)
A. NetFlow version 9 adds support for IPv6 headers.
B. NetFlow version 9 adds support for MPLS labels.
C. NetFlow version 9 adds support for the Type of Service field.
D. NetFlow version 9 adds support for ICMP types and codes.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 109

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Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which two statements about the output are true? (Choose two.)
A. It indicates that prefix aggregation cache export is enabled on the device.
B. It was obtained with the show ip cache flow command.
C. It indicates that the device is using NetFlow version 5.
D. It indicates that the flows are being sent to a destination using an RFC1918 address.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 110

Which statement describes the function of the tracking object created by the track 10 ip route
192.168.99.0/24 reachability command?
A. It tracks the reachability of route 192.168.99.0/24.
B. It tracks the line protocol status of the interface on which route 192.168.99.0/24 is received.
C. It tracks exactly 10 occurrences of route 192.168.99.0/24.
D. It tracks the summary route 192.168.99.0/24 and all routes contained within.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 111

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Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which VLANs are permitted to send frames out port FastEthernet0/1?

A. 100 - 200
B. 4 - 100
C. 1 and 4 - 100
D. 3 and 4 - 100
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 112

Which option is the default maximum age of the MAC address table?
A. 300 seconds
B. 500 seconds
C. 1200 seconds
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

D. 3600 seconds
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 113

Which statement about MSS is true?
A. It is negotiated between sender and receiver.
B. It is sent in all TCP packets.
C. It is 20 bytes lower than MTU by default.
D. It is sent in SYN packets.
E. It is 28 bytes lower than MTU by default.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 114

Which two methods change the IP MTU value for an interface? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the default MTU.
B. Configure the IP system MTU.
C. Configure the interface MTU.
D. Configure the interface IP MTU.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 115

Which implementation can cause packet loss when the network includes asymmetric routing
paths?
A. the use of ECMP routing
B. the use of penultimate hop popping
C. the use of Unicast RPF
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

D. disabling Cisco Express Forwarding
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 116

Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose
two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 117

Which two mechanisms provide Cisco IOS XE Software with control plane and data plane
separation? (Choose two.)
A. Forwarding and Feature Manager
B. Forwarding Engine Driver
C. Forwarding Performance Management
D. Forwarding Information Base
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 118

Which group of neighbors can be configured as a BGP peer group?
A. a group of iBGP neighbors that have the same outbound route policies
B. a group of iBGP and eBGP neighbors that have the same inbound distribute-list
C. a group of eBGP neighbors in the same autonomous system that have different outbound route
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

policies
D. a group of iBGP neighbors that have different outbound route policies
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 119

Notice that debug ip bgp updates has been enabled. What can you conclude from the debug
output?
A. This is the result of the clear ip bgp 10.1.3.4 in command.
B. This is the result of the clear ip bgp 10.1.3.4 out command.
C. BGP neighbor 10.1.3.4 performed a graceful restart.
D. BGP neighbor 10.1.3.4 established a new BGP session.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 120

In the DiffServ model, which class represents the lowest priority with the lowest drop probability?
A. AF11
B. AF13
C. AF41
D. AF43
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

QUESTION NO: 121
Which set of commands conditionally advertises 172.16.0.0/24 as long as 10.10.10.10/32 is in the
routing table?
A)
B)
C)
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 122

Why is R2 unable to ping the loopback interface of R4?

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. The local preference is too high.
B. The weight is too low.
C. The next hop is not reachable from R2.
D. The route originated from within the same AS.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 123

Which two statements about the output are true? (Choose two.)
A. 802.1D spanning tree is being used.
B. Setting the priority of this switch to 0 for VLAN 1 would cause it to become the new root.
C. The hello, max-age, and forward delay timers are not set to their default values.
D. Spanning-tree PortFast is enabled on GigabitEthernet1/1.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 124

Which statement about the BGP originator ID is true?
A. The route reflector always sets the originator ID to its own router ID.
B. The route reflector sets the originator ID to the router ID of the route reflector client that injects
the route into the AS.
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

C. The route reflector client that injects the route into the AS sets the originator ID to its own router
ID.
D. The originator ID is set to match the cluster ID.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 125

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. This router is not 4-byte autonomous system aware.
B. This router is 4-byte autonomous system aware.
C. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was learned through an autonomous system number with a length of 4
bytes, and this router is 4-byte autonomous system aware.
D. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was learned through an autonomous system number with a length of 4
bytes, and this router is not 4-byte autonomous system aware.
E. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was originated from a 4-byte autonomous system.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 126

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which command is configured on this router?
A. bgp update-delay 60
B. neighbor 10.100.1.1 maximum-prefix 200
C. neighbor 10.100.1.1 maximum-path 2
D. neighbor 10.100.1.1 ebgp-multihop 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 127

What is the purpose of Route Target Constraint?
A. to avoid using route reflectors in MPLS VPN networks
B. to avoid using multiple route distinguishers per VPN in MPLS VPN networks
C. to be able to implement VPLS with BGP signaling
D. to avoid sending unnecessary BGP VPNv4 or VPNv6 updates to the PE router
E. to avoid BGP having to perform route refreshes
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 128

Why is network 172.16.1.0/24 not installed in the routing table?

A. There is no ARP entry for 192.168.1.1.
B. The router cannot ping 192.168.1.1.
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

C. The neighbor 192.168.1.1 just timed out and BGP will flush this prefix the next time that the
BGP scanner runs.
D. There is no route for 192.168.1.1 in the routing table.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 129

Which two statements about port ACLs are true? (Choose two.)
A. Port ACLs are supported on physical interfaces and are configured on a Layer 2 interface on a
switch.
B. Port ACLs support both outbound and inbound traffic filtering.
C. When it is applied to trunk ports, the port ACL filters only native VLAN traffic.
D. When it is applied to a port with voice VLAN, the port ACL filters both voice and data VLAN
traffic.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 130

Which two statements about private VLANs are true? (Choose two.)
A. Only one isolated VLAN can be mapped to a primary VLAN.
B. Only one community VLAN can be mapped to a primary VLAN.
C. Multiple isolated VLANs can be mapped to a primary VLAN.
D. Multiple community VLANs can be mapped to a primary VLAN.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 131

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Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. This is the output of the show ip ospf command.
B. This is the output of the show ip protocols command.
C. This router is an ABR.
D. This router is an ASBR.
E. Authentication is not configured for the area.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 132

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Consider a network that mixes link bandwidths from 128 kb/s to 40 Gb/s. Which value should be
set for the OSPF reference bandwidth?
A. Set a value of 128.
B. Set a value of 40000.
C. Set a manual OSPF cost on each interface.
D. Use the default value.
E. Set a value of 40000000.
F. Set a value of 65535.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 133

Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?
A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes
a route to the ASBR.
B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes
C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that
describes a route to the ASBR.
D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes
a route to the ABR.
E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 134

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Cisco 400-101 Exam
Why is the prefix 1.1.1.1/32 not present in the routing table of R1?
A. There is a duplicate router ID.
B. There is a subnet mask mismatch on Ethernet0/0.
C. The router LSA has an invalid checksum.
D. There is an OSPF network type mismatch that causes the advertising router to be unreachable.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 135

What is the PHB class on this flow?

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. EF
B. none
C. AF21
D. CS4
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 136

What kind of load balancing is done on this router?

A. per-packet load balancing
B. per-flow load balancing
C. per-label load balancing
D. star round-robin load balancing
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 137

Which authentication method does OSPFv3 use to secure communication between neighbors?
A. plaintext
B. MD5 HMAC
C. PKI
D. IPSec
Answer: D
Explanation:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
QUESTION NO: 138


A. This is an MPLS TE point-to-multipoint LSP in an MPLS network.
B. This is an MPLS TE multipoint-to-point LSP in an MPLS network.
C. This is a point-to-multipoint LSP in an MPLS network.
D. This is a multipoint-to-multipoint LSP in an MPLS network.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 139

Which three statements are true about OSPFv3? (Choose three.)
A. The only method to enable OSPFv3 on an interface is via the interface configuration mode.
B. Multiple instances of OSPFv3 can be enabled on a single link.
C. There are two methods to enable OSPFv3 on an interface, either via the interface configuration
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

mode or via the router configuration mode.
D. For OSPFv3 to function, IPv6 unicast routing must be enabled.
E. For OSPFv3 to function, IPv6 must be enabled on the interface.
F. Only one instance of OSPFv3 can be enabled on a single link.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 140

Which statement about OSPF multiaccess segments is true?
A. The designated router is elected first.
B. The designated and backup designated routers are elected at the same time.
C. The router that sent the first hello message is elected first.
D. The backup designated router is elected first.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 141
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. R1 routes this pseudowire over MPLS TE tunnel 1 with transport label 20.
B. The default route 0.0.0.0/0 is available in the IPv4 routing table.
C. R1 is using an MPLS TE tunnel for this pseudowire, because the IP path is not available.
D. R1 has preferred-path configured for the pseudowire.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 142

What are the minimal configuration steps that are required to configure EIGRP HMAC-SHA2
authentication?
A. classic router mode, interface XX, authentication mode hmac-sha-256 <password>
B. named router mode, address-family statement, authentication mode hmac-sha-256
<password>
C. named router mode, address-family statement, af-interface default, authentication mode hmacsha-256 <password>
D. named router mode, address-family statement, authentication mode hmac-sha-256
<password>
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 143

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Cisco 400-101 Exam
How many EIGRP routes will appear in the routing table of R2?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 144

For which kind of MPLS deployment is the next-hop-self all keyword used on a BGP neighbor
command?
A. 6VPE
B. MPLS Carrier's carrier
C. inter-AS MPLS VPN option D
D. inter-AS MPLS VPN option C
E. Unified MPLS
Answer: E
Explanation:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

QUESTION NO: 145
What is a reason for 6PE to use two MPLS labels in the data plane instead of one?
A. 6PE allows penultimate hop popping and has a requirement that all P routers do not have to be
IPv6 aware.
B. 6PE does not allow penultimate hop popping.
C. It allows MPLS traffic engineering to work in a 6PE network.
D. It allows 6PE to work in an MPLS network where 6VPE is also deployed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 146

Which two configuration changes should be made on the OTP interface of an EIGRP OTP route
reflector? (Choose two.)
A. passive-interface
B. no split-horizon
C. no next-hop-self
D. hello-interval 60, hold-time 180
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 147

Which statement about the function of poison reverse in EIGRP is true?
A. It tells peers to remove paths that previously might have pointed to this router.
B. It tells peers to remove paths to save memory and bandwidth.
C. It provides reverse path information for multicast routing.
D. It tells peers that a prefix is no longer reachable.
Answer: A
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 148
What is the preferred method to improve neighbor loss detection in EIGRP?
A. EIGRP natively detects neighbor down immediately, and no additional feature or configuration
is required.
B. BFD should be used on interfaces that support it for rapid neighbor loss detection.
C. Fast hellos (subsecond) are preferred for EIGRP, so that it learns rapidly through its own
mechanisms.
D. Fast hellos (one-second hellos) are preferred for EIGRP, so that it learns rapidly through its
own mechanisms.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 149

How does EIGRP derive the metric for manual summary routes?
A. It uses the best composite metric of any component route in the topology table.
B. It uses the worst composite metric of any component route in the topology table.
C. It uses the best metric vectors of all component routes in the topology table.
D. It uses the worst metric vectors of all component routes in the topology table.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 150

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which part of the joined group addresses list indicates that the interface has joined the EIGRP
multicast group address?
A. FF02::1
B. FF02::1:FF00:200
C. FF02::A
D. FF02::2
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 151

EIGRP allows configuration of multiple MD5 keys for packet authentication to support easy rollover
from an old key to a new key. Which two statements are true regarding the usage of multiple
authentication keys? (Choose two.)
A. Received packets are authenticated by the key with the smallest key ID.
B. Sent packets are authenticated by all valid keys, which means that each packet is replicated as
many times as the number of existing valid keys.
C. Received packets are authenticated by any valid key that is chosen.
D. Sent packets are authenticated by the key with the smallest key ID.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 152

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Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which two corrective actions could you take if EIGRP routes from R2 fail to reach R1? (Choose
two.)
A. Configure R2 to use a VRF to send routes to R1.
B. Configure the autonomous system in the EIGRP configuration of R1.
C. Correct the network statement on R2.
D. Add the interface on R1 that is connected to R2 into a VRF.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 153

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Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which additional configuration is necessary for R1 and R2 to become OSPF neighbors?

A. R1
!
router ospf 1
no passive-interface Fastethernet0/0
!
B. R2
!
router ospf 10
no network 10.1.1.6 0.0.0.0 area 0
network 10.1.1.6 0.0.0.0 area 1
!
C. R1
!
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip ospf mtu-ignore
!
R2
!
interface FastEthernet0/1
ip ospf mtu-ignore
!
D. R1
!
no router ospf 1
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router ospf 10
network 10.1.1.5 0.0.0.0 area 0
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 154

Consider an OSPFv3 network with four parallel links between each pair of routers. Which measure
can you use to reduce the CPU load and at the same time keep all links available for ECMP?
A. Configure some interfaces as passive interface.
B. Configure ipv6 ospf priority 0 on some interfaces.
C. Configure some routers with a distribute list in ingress of the OSPFv3 process.
D. Configure ipv6 ospf database-filter all out on some interfaces.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 155

Which two statements about the device that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)
A. The SPT-bit is set.
B. The sparse-mode flag is set.
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

C. The RP-bit is set.
D. The source-specific host report was received.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 156

A service provider is deploying L2VPN LAN services in its MPLS cloud. Which statement is true
regarding LDP signaling and autodiscovery?
A. LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified, and that an LDP session is active with its P
neighbor for autodiscovery to take place.
B. LDP signaling requires that each P is identified, and that a targeted LDP session is active for
autodiscovery to take place.
C. LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified, and that a targeted LDP session with a
BGP route reflector is active for autodiscovery to take place.
D. LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified, and that a targeted LDP session is active for
autodiscovery to take place.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 157

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Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which three statements about the output are true? (Choose three.)
A. This switch is currently receiving a multicast data stream that is being forwarded out VLAN 150.
B. A multicast receiver has requested to join one or more of the multicast groups.
C. Group 224.0.1.40 is a reserved address, and it should not be used for multicast user data
transfer.
D. One or more multicast groups are operating in PIM dense mode.
E. One or more of the multicast data streams will be forwarded out to neighbor 10.85.20.20.
F. Group 239.192.1.1 is a reserved address, and it should not be used for multicast user data
transfer.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 158

Which statement about the RPF interface in a BIDIR-PIM network is true?
A. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach the PIM
rendezvous point.
B. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface can be the interface that is used to reach the PIM
rendezvous point or the interface that is used to reach the source.
C. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach the
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source.
D. There is no RPF interface concept in BIDIR-PIM networks.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 159

Which technology is an application of MSDP, and provides load balancing and redundancy
between the RPs?
A. static RP
B. PIM BSR
C. auto RP
D. anycast RP
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 160

Which two statements are true about IPv6 multicast? (Choose two.)
A. Receivers interested in IPv6 multicast traffic use IGMPv6 to signal their interest in the IPv6
multicast group.
B. The PIM router with the lowest IPv6 address becomes the DR for the LAN.
C. An IPv6 multicast address is an IPv6 address that has a prefix of FF00::/8.
D. The IPv6 all-routers multicast group is FF02:0:0:0:0:0:0:2.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 161

Which attribute is not part of the BGP extended community when a PE creates a VPN-IPv4 route
while running OSPF between PE-CE?
A. OSPF domain identifier
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B. OSPF route type
C. OSPF router ID
D. MED
E. OSPF network type
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 162

While configuring AAA with a local database, users can log in via Telnet, but receive the message
"error in authentication" when they try to go into enable mode. Which action can solve this
problem?
A. Configure authorization to allow the enable command.
B. Use aaa authentication login default enable to allow authentication when using the enable
command.
C. Verify whether an enable password has been configured.
D. Use aaa authentication enable default enable to allow authentication when using the enable
command.
Answer: C
Explanation:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
QUESTION NO: 163

Which three factors does Cisco PfR use to calculate the best exit path? (Choose three.)
A. quality of service
B. packet size
C. delay
D. loss
E. reachability
F. administrative distance
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 164

What is a reason to use DHCPv6 on a network that uses SLAAC?
A. To get a record of the IPs that are used by the clients
B. To push DNS and other information to the clients
C. No reason, because there is no need for DHCPv6 when using SLAAC
D. Because DHCPv6 can be used only in stateful mode with SLAAC to record the IPs of the
clients
E. Because DHCPv6 can be used only in stateless mode with SLAAC to record the IPs of the
clients
F. Because DHCPv6 is required to use first-hop security features on the switches
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 165

Which statement is true about Fast Link Pulses in Ethernet?
A. They are used during collision detection.
B. They are used only if the media type is optical.
C. They are part of UniDirectional Link Detection.
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D. They are used during autonegotiation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 166

Which statement is true regarding UDLD and STP timers?
A. The UDLD message timer should be two times the STP forward delay to prevent loops.
B. UDLD and STP are unrelated features, and there is no relation between the timers.
C. The timers need to be synced by using the spanning-tree udld-sync command.
D. The timers should be set in such a way that UDLD is detected before the STP forward delay
expires.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 167

Which switching technology can be used to solve reliability problems in a switched network?
A. fragment-free mode
B. cut-through mode
C. check mode
D. store-and-forward mode
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 168
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
All switches have default bridge priorities, and originate BPDUs with MAC addresses as indicated.
The numbers shown are STP link metrics. Which two ports are in blocking state after STP
converges? (Choose two.)
A. the port on switch SWD that connects to switch SWE
B. the port on switch SWF that connects to switch SWG
C. the port on switch SWD that connects to switch SWC
D. the port on switch SWB that connects to switch SWD
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 169

What is the most efficient way to confirm whether microbursts of traffic are occurring?
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A. Monitor the output traffic rate using the show interface command.
B. Monitor the output traffic rate using the show controllers command.
C. Check the CPU utilization of the router.
D. Sniff the traffic and plot the packet rate over time.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 170

What is a cause for unicast flooding?
A. Unicast flooding occurs when multicast traffic arrives on a Layer 2 switch that has directly
connected multicast receivers.
B. When PIM snooping is not enabled, unicast flooding occurs on the switch that interconnects the
PIM-enabled routers.
C. A man-in-the-middle attack can cause the ARP cache of an end host to have the wrong MAC
address. Instead of having the MAC address of the default gateway, it has a MAC address of the
man-in-the-middle. This causes all traffic to be unicast flooded through the man-in-the-middle,
which can then sniff all packets.
D. Forwarding table overflow prevents new MAC addresses from being learned, and packets
destined to those MAC addresses are flooded until space becomes available in the forwarding
table.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 171

Which statement is true about IGMP?
A. Multicast sources send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then generates a PIM
join message that is then sent to the RP.
B. Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then forwards the
IGMP messages to the RP.
C. IGMP messages are encapsulated in PIM register messages and sent to the RP.
D. Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to signal their interest to receive traffic for specific
multicast groups.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
QUESTION NO: 172

What is a disadvantage of using aggressive mode instead of main mode for ISAKMP/IPsec
establishment?
A. It does not use Diffie-Hellman for secret exchange.
B. It does not support dead peer detection.
C. It does not support NAT traversal.
D. It does not hide the identity of the peer.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 173

What can PfR passive monitoring mode measure for TCP flows?
A. only delay
B. delay and packet loss
C. delay and reachability
D. delay, packet loss, and throughput
E. delay, packet loss, throughput, and reachability
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 174

Which two statements are true about an EVPL? (Choose two.)
A. It has a high degree of transparency.
B. It does not allow for service multiplexing.
C. The EVPL service is also referred to as E-line.
D. It is a point-to-point Ethernet connection between a pair of UNIs.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
QUESTION NO: 175

Which two statements are true about OTV? (Choose two.)
A. It relies on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information.
B. It uses a full mesh of point-to-multipoint tunnels to prevent head-end replication of multicast
traffic.
C. It can work over any transport that can forward IP packets.
D. It supports automatic detection of multihoming.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 176

Which two statements are true about RSTP? (Choose two.)
A. By default, RTSP uses a separate TCN BPDU when interoperating with 802.1D switches.
B. By default, RTSP does not use a separate TCN BPDU when interoperating with 802.1D
switches.
C. If a designated port receives an inferior BPDU, it immediately triggers a reconfiguration.
D. By default, RTSP uses the topology change TC flag.
E. If a port receives a superior BPDU, it immediately replies with its own information, and no
reconfiguration is triggered.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 177

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Cisco 400-101 Exam
Video Source S is sending interactive video traffic to Video Receiver R. Router R1 has multiple
routing table entries for destination R. Which load-balancing mechanism on R1 can cause out-oforder video traffic to be received by destination R?
A. per-flow load balancing on R1 for destination R
B. per-source-destination pair load balancing on R1 for destination R
C. CEF load balancing on R1 for destination R
D. per-packet load balancing on R1 for destination R
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 178

Which two statements are true about the displayed STP state? (Choose two.)
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. The STP version configured on the switch is IEEE 802.1w.
B. Port-channel 1 is flapping and the last flap occurred 1 minute and 17 seconds ago.
C. The switch does not have PortFast configured on Gi0/15.
D. BPDUs with the TCN bit set are transmitted over port channel 1.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 179

A PE router is configured with a policy map that contains the policer shown. The policy map is
configured in the inbound direction of an interface facing a CE router. If the PE router receives
12Mb/s of traffic with the CoS value set to 7 on a 100-Mb/s interface from the CE router, what
value of MPLS EXP is set when this traffic goes through the policer shown?
A. 0
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 180 DRAG DROP
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Answer:
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QUESTION NO: 191

What is Nagle's algorithm used for?
A. To increase the latency
B. To calculate the best path in distance vector routing protocols
C. To calculate the best path in link state routing protocols
D. To resolve issues caused by poorly implemented TCP flow control.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 192

Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 193

How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 194

Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 195

Which Cisco IOS XE process administers routing and forwarding?
A. Forwarding manager
B. Interface manager
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Cisco 400-101 Exam

C. Cisco IOS
D. Host manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 196

Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 197

When you migrate a network from PVST+ to rapid-PVST+, which two features become inactive?
(Choose two.)
A. Root guard
B. Loop guard
C. UplinkFast
D. UDLD
E. BackboneFast
F. Bridge Assurance
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 198

Which three condition types can be monitored by crypto conditional debug? (Choose three.)
A. Peer hostname
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B. SSL
C. ISAKMP
D. Flow ID
E. IPsec
F. Connection ID
Answer: A,D,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 199

Which two pieces of information in this Wireshark capture indicate that you are viewing EIGRP
traffic? (Choose two.)
A. the header length
B. the protocol number
C. the destination address
D. the Class Selector
E. the source address
F. the header checksum
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 200

Which statement is true about MLD?
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A. MLD v1 gives hosts the ability to receive multicast packets from specific source addresses.
B. All MLD messages are sent with a link-local IPv6 source address of FF02::D.
C. The multicast address field is cleared to zero when sending an MLD report message.
D. MLD is used by IPv6 routers to discover multicast listeners on a directly attached link.
Answer: D
Topic 3, Volume C
QUESTION NO: 201
Which statement is true about LLDP?
A. LLDP provides VTP support.
B. LLDP does not use a multicast address to communicate.
C. LLDP can indicate only the duplex setting of a link, and not the speed capabilities.
D. LLDP does not support native VLAN indication.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 202

Which statement is true when using a VLAN ID from the extended VLAN range (10064094)?
A. VLANs in the extended VLAN range can be used with VTPv2 in either client or server mode.
B. VLANs in the extended VLAN range can only be used as private VLANs.
C. STP is disabled by default on extended-range VLANs.
D. VLANs in the extended VLAN range cannot be pruned.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 203

Which statement is true about trunking?
A. Cisco switches that run PVST+ do not transmit BPDUs on nonnative VLANs when using a
dot1q trunk.
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B. When removing VLAN 1 from a trunk, management traffic such as CDP is no longer passed in
that VLAN.
C. DTP only supports autonegotiation on 802.1q and does not support autonegotiation for ISL.
D. DTP is a point-to-point protocol.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 204

Which three statements are true about an EtherChannel? (Choose three.)
A. PAGP and LACP can be configured on the same switch if the switch is not in the same
EtherChannel.
B. EtherChannel ports in suspended state can receive BPDUs but cannot send them.
C. An EtherChannel forms between trunks that are using different native VLANs.
D. LACP can operate in both half duplex and full duplex, if the duplex setting is the same on both
ends.
E. Ports with different spanning-tree path costs can form an EtherChannel.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 205

Which technology can be affected when switches are used that do not support jumbo frames?
A. 802.1x
B. BFD
C. OSPFv3
D. 802.1q
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 206

Which statement describes the native VLAN concept in an ISL trunk?
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A. It is the VLAN ID that is assigned to untagged packets.
B. It is the VLAN with highest priority.
C. It is the default VLAN for a trunk.
D. There is no native VLAN concept in an ISL trunk.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 207

Which protocol is the encapsulating protocol for mtrace packets?
A. ICMP
B. IGMP
C. PIM
D. GRE
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 208

Assume that the following MAC addresses are used for the bridge ID MAC address by four
different switches in a network. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge?
A. SwitchA uses MAC 1000.AA-AA-AA-AA-AA-AA.
B. SwitchB uses MAC 2000.BB-BB-BB-BB-BB-BB.
C. SwitchC uses MAC 3000.CC-CC-CC-CC-CC-CC.
D. SwitchD uses MAC 4000.DD-DD-DD-DD-DD-DD.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 209

What is the destination MAC address of a BPDU frame?
A. 01-80-C2-00-00-00
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B. 01-00-5E-00-00-00
C. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
D. 01-80-C6-00-00-01
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 210

All switches are Cisco switches. Assume that Cisco Discovery Protocol is enabled only on
switches A and C.
Which information is returned when you issue the command show cdp neighbors on switch C?
A. a limited amount of information about switch B
B. no neighbor details will be returned
C. neighbor details for switch B
D. neighbor details for switch A
E. neighbor details for switch C
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 211

Which two features are supported when Cisco HDLC is implemented? (Choose two.)
A. error recovery
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B. error detection
C. asynchronous links
D. multiple protocols
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 212

With these configurations for R1 and R2, which statement about PPP authentication is true?
A. Authentication fails because R1 is missing a username and password.
B. R2 responds with the correct authentication credentials.
C. R2 requires authentication from R1.
D. R1 requires authentication from R2.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 213
116
Cisco 400-101 Exam
You must complete the configuration on R1 so that a maximum of three links can be used and
fragmentation is supported.
Which additional configuration accomplishes this task?
A. interface Multilink19
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
ppp multilink
ppp multilink group 19
ppp multilink links minimum 1
ppp multilink links maximum 3
ppp multilink interleave
B. interface Multilink19
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
ppp multilink
ppp multilink fragment delay 20
C. interface Multilink19
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
ppp multilink
ppp multilink fragment delay 20
D. interface Multilink19
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252
ppp multilink
117
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 214

When BGP route reflectors are used, which attribute ensures that a routing loop is not created?
A. weight
B. local preference
C. multiexit discriminator
D. originator ID
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 215

Which statement is true about the downward bit?
118
Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. It forces the CE router to use a backup link instead of sending traffic via MPLS VPN.
B. It informs the PE router that the LSA metric has been recently decreased to 1 and that partial
SPF calculation cannot be delayed.
C. It forces the CE router to install the LSA with the downward bit set into its routing table as a
discard route.
D. It informs the PE router that the LSA was already redistributed into BGP by another PE router
and that the LSA must not be redistributed into BGP again.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 216

Which regular expression will match prefixes that originated from AS200?
A. ^$
B. ^200_
C. _200$
D. ^200)
E. _200_
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 217

Which statement describes the difference between a stub area and a totally stub area?
A. The ABR advertises a default route to a totally stub area and not to a stub area.
B. Stub areas do not allow LSA types 4 and 5, while totally stub areas do not allow LSA types 3, 4,
and 5.
C. Totally stub areas allow limited external routes in the area via a special type 7 LSA, while stub
areas do not
D. Stub areas do not allow external LSAs, ASBR summary LSAs, or summary LSAs with the
exception of a default route originated by the ABR via a summary LSA.
Answer: B
Explanation:
119
Cisco 400-101 Exam

QUESTION NO: 218
Which two statements are true about IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS DIS election is nondeterministic.
B. IS-IS SPF calculation is performed in three phases.
C. IS-IS works over the data link layer, which does not provide for fragmentation and reassembly.
D. IS-IS can never be routed beyond the immediate next hop.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 219

Which command do you use to connect a dense-mode domain to a sparse-mode multicast
domain?
A. none, because there is no such command
B. ip pim spt-threshold infinity
C. ip pim register dense-mode
D. ip pim dense-mode proxy-register
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 220

Which two statements about the function of a PIM designated router are true? (Choose two.)
A. It forwards multicast traffic from the source into the PIM network.
B. It registers directly connected sources to the PIM rendezvous point.
C. It sends PIM Join/Prune messages for directly connected receivers.
D. It sends IGMP queries.
E. It sends PIM asserts on the interfaces of the outgoing interface list.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
120
Cisco 400-101 Exam

QUESTION NO: 221
Which IP packets will be accepted from EBGP neighbor 10.1.1.1?

A. IP packets with a TTL count in the header that is equal to or greater than 253
B. IP packets with a TTL count in the header that is equal to 253
C. IP packets with a TTL count in the header that is equal to or greater than 2
D. IP packets with a TTL count in the header that is equal to 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 222

Which two statements about proxy ARP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported on networks without ARP.
B. It allows machines to spoof packets.
C. It requires larger ARP tables
D. It reduces the amount of ARP traffic.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 223

121
Cisco 400-101 Exam
Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host
209.165.201.254.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 224
122
Cisco 400-101 Exam

A tunnel is configured between R3 to R4 sourced with their loopback interfaces. The ip pim
sparse-dense mode command is configured on the tunnel interfaces and multicast-routing is
enabled on R3 and R4. The IP backbone is not configured for multicast routing.
The RPF check has failed toward the multicast source.
Which two conditions could have caused the failure? (Choose two.)
A. The route back to the RP is through a different interface than tunnel 0.
B. The backbone devices can only route unicast traffic.
C. The route back to the RP is through the same tunnel interface.
D. A static route that points the RP to GigabitEthernet1/0 is configured.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 225

Which option is the default number of routes over which EIGRP can load balance?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
123
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 226

When EIGRP is used as the IPv4 PE-CE protocol, which two requirements must be configured
before the BGP IPv4 address family can be configured? (Choose two.)
A. the route distinguisher
B. the virtual routing and forwarding instance
C. the loopback interface
D. the router ID
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 227

Which three EIGRP packet types are valid? (Choose three.)
A. open
B. notification
C. keep-alive
D. hello
E. query
F. reply
Answer: D,E,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 228

Which term describes an EIGRP route that has feasible successors?
A. active
B. passive
C. redistributed
D. invalid
124
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 229

If EIGRP is configured between two routers as shown in this output, which statement about their
EIGRP relationship is true?
A. The routers will establish an EIGRP relationship successfully.
B. The routers are using different authentication key-strings.
C. The reliability metric is enabled.
D. The delay metric is disabled.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 230
125
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which type of OSPF packet is an OSPF link state update packet?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
E. type 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 231

If two OSPF type 3 prefixes have the same metric, and are within the same process, which
prefix(es) are installed into the routing table?
A. The route whose originator has the lower router ID.
B. Both routes are installed.
C. The route whose originator has the higher router ID.
D. The first route that is learned.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 232

Which OSPF feature supports LSA rate limiting in milliseconds to provide faster convergence?
A. LSA throttling
B. incremental SPF
C. fast hello
D. SPF tuning
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 233
126
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which two options are BGP attributes that are updated when router sends an update to its eBGP
peer? (Choose two.)
A. weight
B. local preference
C. AS_path
D. next-hop
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 234

Which BGP aggregate address configuration advertises only the aggregate address, with
attributes inherited from the more specific routes?
A. summary-only as-set
B. as-set
C. summary
D. summary-only
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 235

127
Cisco 400-101 Exam
If ISIS is configured utilizing default metrics, what is the cost for Router 4 to reach the 10.2.2.0/24
network?
A. 1
B. 20
C. 30
D. 63
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 236

128
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which three statements about this configuration are true? (Choose three.)
A. The default route appears in the global routing table.
B. The static route appears in the VRF red routing table.
C. The subnet 192.168.1.0 is unique to the VRF red routing table.
D. The static route is added to the global routing table and leaked from the VRF red.
E. The subnet 192.168.1.0 is unique to the global routing table.
F. 192.168.1.1 is reachable using any of the addresses on the router where the static route is
configured.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 237

Which route type is displayed when you enter the command show ip route supernets-only on a
device with this configuration?
A. Connected
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. EIGRP
E. An empty route set
Answer: E
Explanation:
129
Cisco 400-101 Exam
QUESTION NO: 238

Which statement about passive interfaces is true?
A. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby
network.
B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange
of hello packets.
C. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that
interface in the link-state protocol data units.
D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 239

Which two routes are included in the route update? (Choose two.)
A. 10.3.0.0
B. 10.3.2.0
C. 10.3.4.0
D. 10.3.6.0
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
130
Cisco 400-101 Exam

QUESTION NO: 240
Which two statements about the metric-style wide statement as it applies to route redistribution are
true? (Choose two.)
A. It is used in IS-IS.
B. It is used in OSPF.
C. It is used in EIGRP.
D. It is used for accepting TLV.
E. It is used in PIM for accepting mroutes.
F. It is used for accepting external routes.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 241

You are tasked with configuring a router on an OSPF domain to import routes from an EIGRP
domain and summarize the routes to 192.168.64.0.
Which statement configures the summarized route and provides equal-path route redundancy?
A. area 32 range 192.168.64.0 255.255.192.0 cost 100
B. area 32 range 192.168.64.0 255.255.63.0 cost 100
C. area 32 range 192.168.64.0 255.255.64.0 cost 100
D. area 32 range 192.168.64.0 255.255.192.0 multi-path
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 242

Packets from a router with policy-based routing configured are failing to reach the next hop.
Which two additions can you make to the router configuration to enable the packets to flow
correctly? (Choose two.)
131
Cisco 400-101 Exam

A. Enable ip proxy-arp on the exiting interface.
B. Specify the next hop as an address.
C. Specify the next hop as an interface.
D. Add a match-any permit statement to the route map.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 243

Which two options are EIGRP route authentication encryption modes? (Choose two.)
A. MD5
B. HMAC-SHA2-256bit
C. ESP-AES
D. HMAC-AES
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 244

Which technology facilitates neighbor IP address resolution in DMVPN?
A. CEF
B. mGRE
C. a dynamic routing protocol
D. NHRP
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 245

Which two are features of DMVPN? (Choose two.)
A. It does not support spoke routers behind dynamic NAT.
B. It requires IPsec encryption.
132
Cisco 400-101 Exam

C. It only supports remote peers with statically assigned addresses.
D. It supports multicast traffic.
E. It offers configuration reduction.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 246

What is wrong with the configuration of this tunnel interface?

A. ISATAP tunnels cannot use the EUI-64 address format.
B. No tunnel destination has been specified.
C. The tunnel source of an ISATAP tunnel must always point to a loopback interface.
D. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 247

Which two statements are true about a 6to4 tunnel connecting two IPv6 islands over the IPv4
Internet? (Choose two.)
A. It embeds the IPv6 packet into the IPv4 payload with the protocol type set to 51.
B. It works by appending the private IPv4 address (converted into hexadecimal format) to the
2002::/16 prefix.
C. It embeds the IPv6 packet into the IPv4 payload with the protocol type set to 41.
D. It works by appending the public IPv4 address (converted into hexadecimal format) to the
2002::/16 prefix.
133
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 248

What will be the IP MTU of tunnel 0?

A. 1500
B. 1524
C. 1476
D. 1452
E. 1548
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 249

On an MPLS L3VPN, which two tasks are performed by the PE router? (Choose two.)
A. It exchanges VPNv4 routes with other PE routers.
B. It typically exchanges iBGP routing updates with the CE device.
C. It distributes labels and forwards labeled packets.
134
Cisco 400-101 Exam

D. It exchanges VPNv4 routes with CE devices.
E. It forwards labeled packets between CE devices.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 250

Which statement describes what the authoritative flag indicates?

A. Authentication was used for the mapping.
B. R1 learned about the NHRP mapping from a registration request.
C. Duplicate mapping in the NHRP cache is prevented.
D. The registration request had the same flag set.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 251

135
Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which two statements about this configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. Spoke devices will be dynamically added to the NHRP mappings.
B. The next-hop server address must be configured to 172.168.1.1 on all spokes.
C. The next-hop server address must be configured to 192.168.1.1 on all spokes.
D. R1 will create a static mapping for each spoke.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 252

Which two tunneling techniques determine the IPv4 destination address on a per-packet basis?
(Choose two.)
A. 6to4 tunneling
B. ISATAP tunneling
C. manual tunneling
D. GRE tunneling
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 253
136
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which two services are used to transport Layer 2 frames across a packet-switched network?
(Choose two.)
A. Frame Relay
B. ATM
C. AToM
D. L2TPv3
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 254

Which two statements about the C-bit and PW type are true? (Choose two.)
A. The C-bit is 1 byte and the PW type is 15 bytes.
B. The PW type indicates the type of pseudowire.
C. The C-bit is 3 bits and the PW type is 10 bits.
D. The C-bit set to 1 indicates a control word is present.
E. The PW type indicates the encryption type.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 255

Which statement describes the function of rekey messages?
A. They prevent unencrypted traffic from passing through a group member before registration.
B. They refresh IPsec SAs when the key is about to expire.
C. They trigger a rekey from the server when configuring the rekey ACL.
D. They authenticate traffic passing through a particular group member.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 256
137
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which three statements about GET VPN are true? (Choose three.)
A. It encrypts WAN traffic to increase data security and provide transport authentication.
B. It provides direct communication between sites, which reduces latency and jitter.
C. It can secure IP multicast, unicast, and broadcast group traffic.
D. It uses a centralized key server for membership control.
E. It enables the router to configure tunnels.
F. It maintains full-mesh connectivity for IP networks.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 257

If the traffic flowing from network 192.168.254.0 to 172.16.250.0 is unencrypted, which two actions
must you take to enable encryption? (Choose two).
A. Configure the transform-set on R2 to match the configuration on R1.
B. Configure the crypto map on R2 to include the correct subnet.
C. Configure the ISAKMP policy names to match on R1 and R2.
D. Configure the crypto map names to match on R1 and R2.
E. Configure the Diffie-Hellman keys used in the ISAKMP policies to be different on R1 and R2.
138
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 258

Which service is disabled by the no service tcp-small-servers command?
A. the finger service
B. the Telnet service
C. the Maintenance Operation Protocol service
D. the chargen service
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 259

What is the ip dhcp snooping information option command used for?
A. It displays information about the DHCP snooping table.
B. It sends a syslog and an SNMP trap for a DHCP snooping violation.
C. It enables the DHCP snooping host tracking feature.
D. It enables DHCP option 82 data insertion.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 260

Which two statements are true about unicast RPF? (Choose two.)
A. Unicast RPF requires CEF to be enabled.
B. Unicast RPF strict mode works better with multihomed networks.
C. Unicast RPF strict mode supports symmetric paths.
D. Unicast RPF strict mode supports asymmetric paths.
E. CEF is optional with Unicast RPF, but when CEF is enabled it provides better performance.
Answer: A,C
139
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 261

Under Cisco IOS Software, which two features are supported in RADIUS Change of Authorization
requests? (Choose two.)
A. session identification
B. session reauthentication
C. session termination
D. host termination
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 262

In a PfR environment, which two statements best describe the difference between active mode
monitoring and fast mode monitoring? (Choose two.)
A. Active mode monitoring can monitor and measure actual traffic via NetFlow data collection.
B. Fast mode monitoring can measure bursty traffic better than active mode.
C. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for the purpose of obtaining performance
characteristics of the current WAN exit link.
D. Fast mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes via all valid exits continuously to quickly determine
an alternate exit link.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 263

140
Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which two statements are true regarding prefix 10.1.0.0/24? (Choose two.)
A. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR rerouted the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because of an OOP
event.
B. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via passive NetFlow mode only.
C. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via active, fast, or active throughput IP SLA probe mode only.
D. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR did not reroute the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because the
traffic was previously in policy.
E. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via mode monitor, which provides both NetFlow and IP SLA
measurements.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 264

In the DiffServ model, which class represents the lowest priority with the highest drop probability?
A. AF11
B. AF13
C. AF41
D. AF43
Answer: B
Explanation:
141
Cisco 400-101 Exam

QUESTION NO: 265
Which two hashing algorithms can be used when configuring SNMPv3? (Choose two.)
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. Blowfish
D. DES
E. AES
F. SSL
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 266

Which two statements about the default router settings for SSH connections are true? (Choose
two.)
A. The default timeout value for the SSH negotiation phase is 120 seconds.
B. Data is exchanged in clear text by default unless AAA authentication is enabled on the console.
C. The default number of authentication retries is 3.
D. SSH is enabled by default when you configure the username command.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 267

142
Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which statement about the R1 configuration is true?

A. It supports the service timestamps log uptime command to display time stamps.
B. The logging buffer command was used to increase the default of the buffer.
C. The logging of warning messages is disabled.
D. Log message sequence numbering is disabled.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 268

Which two statements about class maps are true? (Choose two.)
A. As many as eight DSCP values can be included in a match dscp statement.
B. The default parameter on a class map with more than one match command is match-any.
C. The match class command can nest a class map within another class map.
D. A policy map can be used to designate a protocol within a class map.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 269

143
Cisco 400-101 Exam
Which statement about configuring the switch to manage traffic is true?

A. The switchport priority extend cos command on interface FastEthernet0/0 prevents traffic to
and from the PC from taking advantage of the high-priority data queue that is assigned to the IP
phone.
B. The switchport priority extend cos command on interface FastEthernet0/0 enables traffic to and
from the PC to use the high priority data queue that is assigned to the IP phone.
C. When the switch is configured to trust the CoS label of incoming traffic, the trusted boundary
feature is disabled automatically.
D. The mls qos cos override command on interface FastEthernet0/0 configures the port to trust the
CoS label of traffic to and from the PC.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 270

Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by the use of the IP SLAs Responder?
A. DNS
B. HTTP
C. ICMP Echo
D. UDP Echo
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 271

144
Cisco 400-101 Exam
Router 1 and Router 2 use HSRP to provide first hop redundancy for hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24
network.
Which feature can provide additional failover coverage for the PC?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
B. NetFlow
C. Accounting
D. Enhanced Object Tracking
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 272

Which neighbor-discovery message type is used to verify connectivity to a neighbor when the linklayer address of the neighbor is known?
A. neighbor solicitation
B. neighbor advertisement
C. router advertisement
D. router solicitation
145
Cisco 400-101 Exam

Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 273

Which two possible network conditions can you infer from this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The authentication parameters on R1 and R2 are mismatched.
B. R1 is using the default NTP source configuration.
C. R1 and R2 have established an NTP session.
D. R2 is configured as the NTP master with a stratum of 7.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 274

Which three message types are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6? (Choose three.)
A. DHCP Discover
B. Renew
C. Solicit
146
Cisco 400-101 Exam

D. DHCP Offer
E. Advertise
F. DHCP Ack
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 275

Which two statements about static NAT are true? (Choose two.)
A. An outside local address maps to the same outside global IP address.
B. An inside local address maps to a different inside global IP address.
C. An outside local address maps to a different outside global IP address.
D. An inside local address maps to the same inside global IP address.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Answer:
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Cisco 400-101 Exam
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Answer:
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Answer:
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Explanation:
Answer:
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Answer:
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160

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Cisco 400-101

CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)

Cisco 400-101 Exam

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Cisco 400-101 Exam

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com

Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which statement is true?

Cisco 400-101 Exam

Cisco 400-101 Exam

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com

Cisco 400-101 Exam

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Cisco 400-101 Exam

Cisco 400-101 Exam

What is the meaning of the asterisk (*) in the output?

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

What is the role of this multicast router?

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which statement is true?

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

R3 prefers the path through R1 to reach host 10.1.1.1.

Which option describes the reason for this behavior?

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Cisco 400-101 Exam

Cisco 400-101 Exam

Cisco 400-101 Exam

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

What does "(received-only)" mean?

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

What is a reason for the RIB-failure?

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which statement is true?

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which statement is true?

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Cisco 400-101 Exam

Which statement is true?

Why is the neighbor relationship between R2 and R4 shown as ES-IS?