Medsurg 2 Bench Mark Practice
Medsurg 2 Bench Mark Practice
Medsurg 2 Bench Mark Practice
Ans
orange toast and white toast
Ans
it has a prolonged action
Ans
chest pain and shortness of breath
Ans
High fowlers
Ans
raise the side rails of the bed
Ans
keep the tissues close together so that healing can occur
Ans
Administer pain meds every 3 hours
contact
precautions
airborne
precautions
droplet
precautions
Neutropenic
precautions
Ans
Neutropenic precautions
6,a client comes to the ER a foot with a dirty, rusty nail. The
client states the last TD was 6 years ago. which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
Ans
determine how many TD immunizations the client has received
Ans
complete the dressing change while the LPN observes
urinary
frequency
hypoventilati
on GI
bleeding
Hemoconcentration
Ans
GI bleeding
privacy
back
rubs
daily
baths
daytime activities
Ans
daytime activities
the nurse prepares 4 patients for surgery. the nurse is
MOST concerned about the psychological adjustment of
which of the following patients?
Ans
a 26 year old man scheduled for a Whipple procedure due to cancer of
the pancreas
engage in sedentary
activity increase
dietary bulk
decrease fluid intake
use oral laxatives
Ans
increase dietary bulk
Ans
white blood cell count of 16,000mm3
Ans
patient's level of consciousness fluctuates from alert to lethargic
Ans
weight loss or gain, fatigue
17.the nurse identifies which diet best meet the needs of a person
with multiple wounds?
high protein and
iron, low fat high vit
c, protein, carbs
high vit a, protein,
carbs high vit b,
protein, low carb
Ans
high vit c, protein, carbs
Ans
I should look for yellow tinged complexion
20 the nurse cares for a post-op client with a NG tube. which
observation by the nurse is MOST reliable indication the NG
tube is placed correctly?
absence of respiratory
distress the tube is
securely taped
the marking on the tube designating the correct length remains
visible just outside the nares PH of aspirate is 3
Ans
PH of aspirate is 3
21 the home health care nurse cares for a client who has a
fractured humerus due to a fall in her home. which of the
following observations, if made by the nurse, requires
immediate intervention?
Ans
the client ambulates wearing socks
22 the nurse explains to the client that the most vitamin C can be
found in which juice?
canned apple
juice canned
tomato juice
frozen
grapefruit juice
fresh orange
juice
Ans
fresh orange juice
Ans
Ans
reposition the patient every 1-2 hours
25 on the first pre-op day the patient develops a fever. the nurse
auscultates crackles bilaterally in the lower lobes. the nurse
understands which of the following complications of surgery is
probably developing?
heart failure
thrombophlebit
is pulmonary
embolism
Atelectasis
Ans
atelecta
sis
Ans
I should start by running 5 miles every day
Ans
a patient diagnosed with varicella
29 The nurse cares for a client with a BMI of 38. what is the
BEST description of the clients body weight?
underwe
ight
obese
normal
weight
overweigh
t
Ans
obes
ity
30 which of the following nursing actions is MOST important
when caring for a client in pain?
teach the patient about pain
establish a trusting relationship with the
patient determine how various relaxation
techniques affect pain administer
pharmacological agents
Ans
establish a trusting relationship with the patient
decreased
frequency
incontinence
sphincter reflexes
decrease formation
of bladder stones
Ans
sphincter reflexes decrease
the nurse understands that which of these common foods are the
most likely cause of eczema and should be eliminated from the diet?
Ans
milk, egg whites, wheat
Ans
this type of dressing cleans the wound so it can heal. I'll bring you some
pain medication.
Ans
bend knees when lifting objects
Ans
look at the recovery room record
Ans
the pt will be asked to lie still while a scanning probe is passed back
and forth over the body
39 the nurse knows that serum albumin is used as an indicator of
malnutrition because:
albumin from eggs is usually ingested and can be assumed to be
constant in the American diet albumin is the first result on a protein
electrophoresis, and often found on the hospital chart serum albumin
is easy to measure, and can indicate a protein deficiency that can
not be indicated on a physical exam
serum albumin has a short half-life, so it is an easy protein to measure
Ans
Ans
partial thromboplastin time
Ans
they have less activity and decreased muscle tone
44. the nurse asses the client in the outpatient clinic. which
statement does the nurse expect the client to make?
Ans
eating just does not appeal to me anymor
Ans
ensure the clients remains adequately hydrated
Ans
assisting his children to grow to adulthood
Ans
determine whether the medication is effective
48 on the morning before surgery, a patient signs an operative
consent form. soon afterward, the patient tells the nurse that the
patient does not want the surgery. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take FIRST?
Ans
encourage the patient for discussing reasons for canceling the surgery
fear of losing
independence fear of
losing control
fear of
separation
fear of
mutilation
Ans
fear of mutilation
Ans
tell me about your unusual sleep habits
51 At discharge, the nurse advises a patient about a calorie
restricted diet. which of the following is an ideal rate of weight
loss?
Ans
one pound per week
52 The nurse cares for a patient with a BMI of 17. what is the
best description of the clients body weight?
underwei
ght
normal
weight
obese
overweigh
t
Ans
underwe
ight
Ans
the staff member places contaminated linens in a leak proof bag
Ans
provides sedation and anxiety reduction
decreased BP
decreased skin
temperature
decreased heart rate
decreased
respiration
Ans
decreased skin temperature
56 while the patient is being treated for a wound infection, it is
MOST important for the nurse to routinely perform which of the
following actions?
Ans
check and record the patient's temperature
a chronic autoimmune
reaction an acute
infectious disease
a viral disease
a cystic, self-limiting disease
Ans
a chronic autoimmune reaction
CLABSI
central line associated bloodline infection
CAUTI
catheter associated urinary tract infection
MRSA
methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus
SSI
surgical site infection
C diff.
Clostridium difficile
Contact Precautions
gown, gloves (wash hands prior)
Droplet/Contact Precautions
gloves, gown, mask, eye protection
Airborne Precautions
N95 respirator, negative pressure
**apply to:
blood
non-intact skin
mucous
membranes
all body fluids, secretions, and excretions EXCEPT SWEAT
Standard Precautions
1. Wash hands
2. Wear gloves
3. Wear mask
4. Wear gown
5. Sharps disposal
Neutropenic Precautions
-strict hand washing before patient care
Medical Asepsis
-reduces number of pathogens
Surgical Asepsis
-eliminates all pathogens
-used in:
dressing
changes
catheterizatio
ns surgical
procedures
Pulse 70-190
Respirations
30-55 BP
73/55
Infant Vital Signs
Temp. 37-38
Pulse 80-150
Respirations
20-40 BP
85/37
Toddler Vital Signs
Temp. 37-38
Pulse 70-120
Respirations
20-30 BP
89/46
Child Vital Signs
Temp 37-38
Pulse 70-115
Respirations
20-25 BP
95/57
Teen Vital Signs
Temp 36-38
Pulse 55-105
Respirations
12-22 BP
112/64
Adult Signs
Temp 36-38
Pulse 60-100
Respirations
12-20 BP
120/80
Older Adult Signs
Temp 36-37
Pulse 40-100
Respirations 16-24
BP 120/80
-IU
-QOD, QD
-trailing zero
-MS
ISBARR
-identify/introduction
-background
-assessment
-recommendation
-read back
Body Systems Involved in Movement
-skeletal
-neurological
-musculoskeletal
Skeletal
Types of joints:Ball-and-Socket, Condyloid, Gliding, Hinge, Pivot,
Saddle
Neurological
Efferent neurons convey response from CNS to skeletal muscles
Musculoskeletal
Creates movements, maintain posture
Isotonic
involves muscle shortening and active movement.
Example: Lifting a weight
Isometric
muscle contraction without
shortening Examples: Planks,
yoga
Isokinetic
muscle contraction with
resistance. Examples:
Exercise bike
Body Alignment (Posture)
how the head, shoulders, spine, hips, knees and ankles line up with
each other. Proper alignments causes less stress to the spine and
gives you good posture.
Activity Intolerance
-defined: not enough energy to endure desired activity
Body Mechanics
use of proper body positions to provide protection from stress of
movement and activity in regards to structure, function and position
of the body.
Prevent injury and maintain body alignment.
axillary: support of body weight is on the hands and arms not the
axillary area.
Hazards of Immobility
**Respiratory
Atelecta
sis
Pneumo
nia
**Cardiovascular-
increased cardiac
workload orthostatic
hypotension
venous stasis-thrombosis (Deep Vein Thrombosis, Pulmonary
Embolism, Cerebrovascular Accident)
**Musculoskeletal
Atrophy(decreased
muscle size)
Decreased muscle tone, strength and
flexibility Bone demineralization
Contractures or immobilization of joint
Pressure ulcers
Pressure ulcers-prolonged pressure over body prominences causing
skin
More Hazards of Immobility
***Metabolic
Negative nitrogen balance
***Gastrointesti
nal Weight gain
Constipation
***Urinary
Urinary tract
infection Renal
calculi
***Psychosocial
Change in role
expectations Change in
self-concept, self-esteem
Sleep changes
Difficulty coping
Glucose
(fasting) 70-100 mg/dl
Insulin required for glucose absorption into cells and metabolic function.
Hematocrit
Male: 39%-50%
Female: 35%-47%
Percentage of total blood volume made up by RBCs
Hemoglobin
Male: 13.2-17.3 g/dL
Thrombocytopenia
is a condition in which you have a low blood platelet count.
Platelets (thrombocytes) are colorless blood cells that
help blood clot. Platelets stop bleeding by clumping and
forming plugs in blood vessel injuries. White blood cell
count
4,000-11,000 mm³
Creatinine
0.6-1.3 mg/dL
Protein
6.0- 8.0 g/dL
Albumin
3.5-5.0 g/dL
Triglycerides
less than 150mg/dL
Total cholesterol
less than 200 mg/dL
Activated Partial Thromboplastin (aPTT)
60-70 sec on anticoagulation
Useful for monitoring heparin therapy
INTRINSIC
**in a relationship
HEPARIN
EXTRINIC
**exes
WARFARIN
Ultrasound
Use of ultrasound waves to pick up the density of images of organs,
etc.
X rays
usually little to no prep; genitalia will be covered with a radiation
blocking apron
Barium Studies
may need prep depending on the test (NPO upper, bowel prep for
lower)
Signs of Allergic
reaction- flushing,
itching, urticaria
*Treatment of an allergic reaction -maintain airway, monitor VS, give
antihistamine or epinephrine as ordered
Lumbar Puncture
Purpose- to measure pressure in the subarachnoid space, to obtain
cerebral spinal fluid, or to inject anesthetic, diagnostic or therapeutic
agents.
Introduction of needle into the subarachnoid space of the
spinal column- sterilely diagnose meningitis, brain or spinal
cord tumors, cerebral hemorrhage.
Abdominal Paracentesis
-removal of fluid from the peritoneal cavity, under sterile conditions,
for diagnostic purposes. Fluid is obtained by inserting large-bore
needle or trocar and cannula into the peritoneal cavity. A 3- way stop-
cock is used with a syringe to draw off the fluid.
Thoracentesis
Removal of pleural fluid for diagnostic or therapeutic reasons.
Thoracentesis Complications
Pneumothorax-
*** dyspnea, tachypnea, asymmetrical chest excursion
RX=O2, CXR, possible chest tube, monitor VS and respirations
Shock-
***hypotension, tachycardia, cool, clammy skin,
decreased LOC RX= O2, monitor cardiac, IV
fluids, vasopressors
Subcutaneous
emphysema
Infection-
***fever, chills, tachycardia.
Bronchoscopy
Purpose-
Bronchoscopy Complications
**Vagal response-
**Laryngospasm-
sudden shortness of
breath Rx=poss.
Cricothyrotomy
**Hypoxia-
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)
Fibroscopy of upper GI tract - direct visualization of esophageal, gastric
and duodenal mucosa.
**Used when suspect GI disorders, infection, inflammation.
EGD Complications
Vasovagal response
GI perforation- Pain, bleeding, elevated
temperature, cool/pale skin Aspiration pneumonia-
dyspnea, tachypnea, decrease O2 sat
Colonoscopy
**Assessment of rectum, colon, distal small bowel
**Pre-procedure
Bowel preparation, drink adequate
PO, left lateral IV, sedation (monitor
VS throughout procedure)
**Post-procedure
Gas in bowels, flatulence
Encourage PO
Monitor for abdominal pain, fever, chills (perforation), bleeding,
weakness/dizziness
Periodontitis
inflammation of gums involving dental and bone degeneration
Halitosis
bad oral odor
Alopecia
absence of hair
Pediculosis
lice
Self-Care Deficit
Defined as inability to perform bathing, feeding, dressing, grooming, or
toileting by oneself.
Bathing
Purpose:
Cleansing skin
Stimulates
circulation
Provides musculoskeletal exercises
and is relaxing Improved self-image
Provides sensory input
The nurse is able to establish rapport with client and perform skin
assessment.
HS care
Hour of Sleep care (HS care)
Toileting, face, hands and oral care. Back massage (Improves
circulation, decreases anxiety improve sleep
PRN care
As needed care
(PRN care)
Diaphoresis,
incontinence
Types of Baths
Self-care:
Client independently performs bath
Bed baths
Total/Com
plete
Client needs total assistance with bathing
Partial
Client only needs assistance with hard to reach areas
Denture Care
Do not wrap dentures in
tissues Brush dentures
twice a day
Use cool water not hot- hot will warp the plastic
At night store in cold water in a denture cup. **Leaving them dry will
also wrap dentures
Care of Eyes
Clean from inner to outer canthus with wet, warm cloth,
cotton ball, or compress. Use artificial tear solution or
normal saline every 4 hours if blink reflex is absent. Care
for eyeglasses, contact lens, or artificial eye if indicated.
Shaving
Electric Razors for clients on anticoagulants (blood thinners) or clients
with bleeding disorders
Diabetes/PVD and
Nail Care Cut
toenails:
Cut nails straight across unless client has diabetes and peripheral
vascular disease. They should have podiatrist cut nails. They can file
their nails instead.
Also, with neuropathy(no feeling in feet) you may not know the water is
too hot!
-History of falls
-Medication regimen
-Postural hypotension
-Confusion or disorientation
-Unfamiliar environment
RACE
R—Rescue anyone in immediate danger.
TEACH
To maximize your teaching:
T= Tune into the
patient E= Edit
patient information
A= Act on every
teaching moment
C=Clarify often
H=Honor the patient as a partner in the process
Age and Developmental Level
Children and
Adolescents Infant
= teach parents
Preschool= include child, use simple words for explanations.
Shorter attention spans School-age= can use logical
reasoning so include them in teaching learning process
Adolescents= like an adult, recognize need for independence
Adults=need to be shown the importance of learning
Domains of Learning
Cognitive "knowledge"
Storing and recalling new knowledge
Psychomotor
"action" Learning
a physical skill
Affective "feeling"
Changes in attitudes, feelings
or values Examples:
Kaplan Test #4 Adult Health
The nurse reviews the records of a client diagnosed with
Laennec's cirrhosis. The nurse expects to find which lab value?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Pancreatic cancer
C. Weight gain
D. Epistaxis
B
Which symptoms of liver disease should the nurse expect to see
in a client with Laennec's cirrhosis?
A. Cloudy urine
B. Dark Urine
C. Orange-colored stools
D. Tarry stools
C
The nurse gives discharge instructions to the family of a patient
diagnosed with hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse determines
further teaching is necessary if the family makes which of the
following statements?
A
The school nurse is informed that a sixth grader is the school
has been diagnosed with hep A. It is MOST important for the
nurse to teach the parents of the classmates to observe the
children for which of the following symptoms?
A. Fatigue
B. Increased appetite
C. Tarry stools
D. Pallor
A
The clinic nurse monitors a client recovering from Hep D. The
nurse understands which of the following indicates the client is
recovering from the illness?
B
The nurse performs discharge teaching for a patient with
diagnosis of Hep B. Which of the following precautions to
prevent the transmission of Hep B should be included in the
teaching?
B. Active acquired
C. Antibody
D. Passive acquired
A
The nurse instructs the family of a client diagnosed with Hep A
about how to prevent the spread of the disease. It is most
important for the nurse to include which instructions?
A. The family should not share eating utensils and drinking glasses
B. Do not come in contact with the clients blood
C. Do not donate blood during the next year
D. No special precautions are required because family treated
with gamma globulin D
D. is correct because an injection of pooled human gamma globulin is
an example of passive immunity.
A sexual contact of a patient with Hep B is given HBIg. The nurse
explains to the contact the purpose of medication is to
A. HBiG
B. Hep A vaccine
C. Hep B vaccine
D. Hib
A
The home care nurse visits a client diagnosed with Hepatitis. It is
MOST important for the nurse to intervene if the client makes
which of the following statements?
A. I take Tylenol when I get a headache
B. I do not drink wine with meals anymore
C. I keep my fingernails short
D. I wash my hands
before I eat D
D. is correct because Hep A spreads by fecal- oral route; contact
precautions required due to fecal incontinence; instruct patient in
importance of good handwashing.
The nurse cares for an elderly patient admitted with a diagnosis
of Hep A. The patient is anorexic, complains of weakness, is
incontinent of urine, and involuntary of stools. The nurse
determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is
observed?
A
The nurse cares for a client admitted to the med-surg unit
diagnosed with a stroke. The nurse plans care to prevent the
client from experiencing sensory overload. The nurse determines
that which plan is MOST effective?
A. The nurse obtains vital signs and assist the patient with am care in
one visit
B. The nurse obtains VS, and completes am care two hours later
C. The nurse completes am care and schedules physical therapy to
follow immediately
D. The nurse instructs the family to visit the patient every other day.
B
The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of possible
stroke. The clients daughter reports that the client has a hx of
HTN that is not managed well. The client is taking
antihypertensive medication and hormone replacement therapy.
The clients only activity is managing the home, and the client
appears overweight. The nurse identifies which is the MOST
important risk factor for this clients to develop a stroke?
A. Obesity
B. HTN
C. Sedentary lifestyle
D. Estrogen replacement
therapy C
The nurse cares for the client diagnosed with a serious closed
head injury. The client's parents says to the nurse, "Will my child
be all right? Is my child going to die? Im so scared." Which
response by the nurse to the clients parent is best?
A. Of course your child will be all right. It will take time for your child to
get better
B. Ill be available if you have any questions. Here is a booklet on head
injures
C. It must be frightening to see your child hurt
D. Its too soon to know the outcome. Would you like to talk with the
HCP?
D
Which assessment should the nurse make first when caring for a
client diagnosed with a closed head injury?
A. level of cognitive function
B. Fluid and electrolyte balance
C. Level of consciousness
D. Airway and RR
status B
B is correct because the middle meningeal artery lies in a groove in
the temporal bone; interior surface of tempora; bone uneven and thin;
temporal bone fracture increases risk of meningeal artery tear;
neurologic changes may be rapid due to accumulation of arterial
blood in the epidural space.
The nurse cares for the client after a motor vehicle accident. The
client is diagnosed with an epidural hematoma. Epidural
Hematoma is most commonly associated with which
conditions?
A
The nurse cares for the client diagnosed with severe traumatic
brain injury with increased intracranial pressure.What is the
rationale for the fluid restriction?
B
The nurse cares for the client diagnosed with ICP as a result of
a head injury. The client is unconscious with an ICP monitoring
device in place. Which is the MOST appropriate position for the
nurse to place this client after performing nursing care
activities?
A. High fowlers
B. Semi- fowlers
C. Trandelenburg
D. Supine
C
The nurse assesses the client diagnosed with cerebral
contusion and ICP. Which is the correct initial nursing action?
A. Allowing unrestricted movement in bed
B. Encouraging head movement to the right
C. Elevating the head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees
D. Suctioning frequently to
maintain the airway A
B, C, D. are incorrect because it is a late sign of ICP
The nurse assesses for signs associated with ICP in the client
diagnosed with subdural hematoma. Which is the earliest sign
of an increased ICP?
A. A change in LOC
B. A widening pulse pressure
C. Bradycardia
D. Decorticate position
B
Which should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client
diagnosed with ICP?
C
The nurse cares for a client diagnosed with ICP. Which is most
important short-term goal?
B
The nurse cares for the client diagnosed with an intracranial
bleed. The nurse notes pupils are not equal (2 mm and 5 mm),
the larger pupil is non-reactive to light, and the client only
responds to pain. Which explanation does the nurse determine
based on this assessment?
B, C
The nurse cares for the client with ICP. Which activities contribute
to ICP? Select all that apply
A. a quiet environment
B. Hand restraints
C. Having a bowel movement
D. Listening to soft music
E. Watchin
g tv A
A. is correct, caloric test is an assessment of the vestibular portion of
the VIII (8) cranial nerve; sometimes, unpleasant symptoms such as
vertigo, dizziness, N/V accompany this test; Caloric test cases
nystagmus, which are rapid involuntary eye movements.
The nurse performs a Caloric test as part of the neuro assessment
of the client. Which information for the client need to know before
the Caloric test?
A
The nurse cares for the client diagnosed with a spinal cord
injury following an accident. The client was stable immediately
after admission. However, eight hours later the nurse notices
that the client has clear, blood- tinged fluid leaking from the
right ear. Which problems is the nurse MOST concerned about?
B
The nurse teaches the client diagnosed with a spinal cord injury.
Which statement BEST indicates that the client understands the
long-term effects of spinal cord injury?
C
The nurse identifies that RR paralysis may occur if a client
experiences a spinal cord injury above which level?
A. C6
B. C5
C. C4
D. T1
A
The nurse cares for the client diagnosed with spinal cord injury.
The nurse performs discharge teaching about how to prevent
contractures from occurring. Which activity should the nurse
teach the family/caretakers that they will need to do for the client?
C
The nurse describes the emergency plan of care when caring for
a person diagnosed with a spinal cord injury. Which statement
indicates the nurse requires Additional teaching?
D
Which mobility goal can the nurse expect for the client
diagnosed with a spinal cord injury at the level of L5?
A
The nurse teaches the client diagnosed with a fractured left
ankle. The client has a short led cast. Which are appropriate
instructions for using crutches?
A. The three point gain requires you to place weight on your good foot
B. Crutches are never used on stairs. You will always have yo take the
elevator
C. You will be using the swing through gait with weight supporting
braces
D. Make sure you lean on your armpits when using axillary crutches
A
The nurse cares for the client diagnosed with a fractured left tibia
repaired via an open reduction internal fixation. The nurse
teaches the client how to ambulate on crutches using a three-
point gait. Before beginning ambulation instructions, how can
the nurse determine that the client will be able to manage
crutches?
A. The client stands on the right leg and sways from side to side on the
crutches
B. The client tolerates partial weight bearing on the left leg
C. The client supports full body weight on the axilla while using crutches
D. The client descends stairs by advancing the left leg and both crutches
first.
C
The nurse teaches crutch walking to the client diagnosed with a
fractured left tibia. Which observation made by the nurse
demonstrates that the client is using the crutches safely?
A. The client does not lean on the crutches and swings both legs
forward to the crutches
B. The client does not lean on the crutches and advances the right
crutch with the left leg, than the left crutch and the right leg
C. The client does not lean on the crutches and advances both
crutches and the affected extremity simultaneously, then advances
the unaffected leg to the crutches while supporting the weight of the
body on the hands.
D. The client adjust the crutches so the crutches are 6 inches below the
axilla
A
The nurse instructs the client diagnosed with a fractured and
casted left ankle how to use crutches. Which action by the client
indicated to the nurse that the client understands the correct
technique for using crutches?
A. The client moves the crutches and the left leg forward while
standing on the right leg. Then, the client moves the right leg forward
while balancing on the crutches.
B. The client moves the left crutch and the left foot forward while
balancing on the right leg. Then the client moves the right crutch
and right foot forward, then the left crutch and the right foot.
C. The client moves the right crutch and the left foot, than the left crutch
and the right foot
D. The client bears partial weight on the left foot and moves the
crutches forward. Then, the client moves the left foot forward while
balancing on the crutches.
D
The nurse teaches the client how to ambulate using a three-point
crutch walking. Which technique would the nurse evaluate as
correct?
A
The nurse teaches the client to use a three-point crutch gait that
does not permit weight bearing on the affected right extremity.
Which pattern BEST represents this type of crutch walking?
A. Right crutch
B. Left crutch
C. Right leg
D. Left leg
B,C,D,E
A nurse is reviewing lab values and vital signs for a 21 year old
female patient who is having a cholecystectomy the next day.
Which value will require further investigation? A)Blood glucose: 81
B)BP: 118/72
C) Respirations: 19
D) Hb: 8.6
A,B,C,D
The nurse is providing information to the patient on pain control
after total hip replacement surgery. When does the nurse
suggest to the patient the most appropriate time to request pain
medication?
A) After the pain is so severe that relaxation techniques won't help.
B) When the patient rates the pain a "10" on a 1-10 scale.
C) Before the pain becomes severe.
D) When there is no pain, but the pain medication is available to take.
B
Mr. C is waiting to go back to the surgical suite after receiving
Versed and Atropine. Mr. C begins to get concerned and tells the
nurse, "something must be wrong, my mouth is very dry and my
heart is beating fast." What should be the nurse's first response?
A) Explain to the patient that all the findings are normal with the
medication he is receiving.
B) Document the findings but continue to observe the patient
C) Check the patient's B/P and Pulse.
D) Prepare to administer an antidote and benadryl.
Trends have changed over the years. Now there are more
ambulatory or outpatient surgeries being performed than in-
hospital surgeries. What type of procedures are mostly
likely found at an outpatient setting? (Select all that apply)
A) Wisdom teeth removal
B) Double lung transplant
C) Cataract extraction
D) Heart transplant
A,C
A,C,D
A,C,D,E
While under anesthesia, you notice that your patient who has a
latex allergy suddenly has changes on their skin. You see welts
forming, redness appearing, and a presence of a rash. What do
you do in this situation?
A) Ignore it, the body isn't use to the anesthesia, but it is ok.
B) Make a note in your head to tell the physician after the procedure.
C) Let the family know that the patient had signs of being really
nervous throughout the procedure.
D) Immediately notify Anesthesia.
B
What should a nurse's care focus on post-op? (select all that
apply)
A) Protection of the patient
B) Preventing complications post-surgical procedure
C) Immediately start orients patient to PACU, even
when eyes are closed D)Begin orienting the patient
once they are awake
E)Monitoring fluid intake and output
A,B,C
B,C,D
All of the following information should be given on PACU
admission report except.
A)Age
B)Surg
eon
C)Range of
Motion
D)Allergies
E)Blood Loss
C
All of the following except are possible postoperative
complications.
A) Surgical/site
wounds
B)Urinary
retention
C)Depression
D)Nausea and
Vomiting
C
A patient is about to be discharged from Phase 1 to Phase 2 care.
Which of the following are criteria must be met before the patient
can be discharged? (Select all that apply) A)Patent Airway
B) Absence of Pain
C) No respiratory depression
D) Oxygen Saturation <90%
E) Report Given
A,C,D,E
B,D
B,C
C
Which of the following is not a risk factor for Hypertension?
A)Excessive alcohol
intake B)Peanut
allergy
C)Family
history
D)Obesity
E)Ethnicity
B) Palpitations
C) Angina
D) Nausea
E) Fatigue
D
Which of these roles can you, as an RN, designate to an
Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)?
A)Administer antihypertensive medications to
stable patients. B)Teach patients about lifestyle
management and medication use.
C) Teach about home BP monitoring, including the correct use of
automatic BP monitors.
D) Obtain accurate BP readings in outpatient and inpatient settings.
What are the dead donor rules? (Select all that apply)
A. The donor must be DNR
B. The donor must first be dead before the retrieval of organs
C. The recipient has to pre approve the organs
D. A person's life and care must never be compromised in favor of
potential organ recipients
B,D
If a patient asks the nurse for information about physician-
assisted suicide, and the nurse doesn't agree with this practice,
how should the nurse reply? (select all that apply) A)Maintain
support, comfort, and confidentiality
B) Discuss end-of-life options with the patient and family
C) Refuse to provide care to the patient
D) Ask the patient how she can help alleviate symptoms
A,B,D
A patient had a DNR order. After he passed away and the nurse
verified that there was no pulse or respirations, what should the
nurse to next?
A) Have the family say goodbye to the deceased
B) Remove all tubes
C) Remove all tubes and equipment (unless an organ donation is to
take place), clean body and position patient
D) Call a funeral director to come and get the body
C
The umbrella of medicalization has several terms that fall under it;
select all that apply
A)Complian
ce
B)Concord
ance
C)Depende
nce
D)Persever
ance
E)Adherenc
e A,B,E
Ethical concerns and suffering can relate to... (select all that
apply)
A)Patient's feelings of lack
of control B)Patient
Suffering
C)Not getting his pizza on
time D)Guilt
A,B,D
A nurse taking care of a suffering patient should... (select all that
apply)
A) Attempt to alleviate or minimize pain or distress
B) Show empathy and compassion to the patient
C) Tell him to get over it and buy
them chocolate D)Attentive
listening to console patient
A,B,D
A,C,D
What can confuse the SCN, making it difficult to sleep? (select all
that apply)
A)Asthm
a
B)Blindn
ess
C)Jet
lag
D)Night shift
B,C,D
What are some things that a nurse can teach a patient with sleep
apnea to do to help them sleep at night? (select all that apply)
A) Elevate the head of the bed
B) Weight loss
C) Sleep on one's side
D) Drink plenty of water before bed
A,B,C
D
Symptoms of Narcolepsy include: (select all that apply)
A)Sleep
paralysis
B)Hallucinati
ons
C)Cataplexy
D)Fragmented nighttime
sleep E)Drowsiness
A,B,C,D
terrors/Nightmares
C)Bedwetting
D)Restless legs
syndrome
E)Dehydration
A,B,C
The nurse is discussing with her patient the side effects from
minimally invasive surgery for BPH. What are some possible side
effects that she should include in her teaching?
Select all that apply.
A) Erectile dysfunction issues.
B) Needing to urinate more often.
C) Semen flowing backward into the bladder instead
of out of the penis. D)Fertility problems.
A,C,E
A nurse is planning care for C.R., a 52 year old male with prostate
cancer. What are some interventions that the nurse could use with
C.R.? Select all that apply.
A) Teach catheter care if patient is going home with an indwelling
catheter.
B) Be supportive through hormonal therapy.
C) Teach Kegel exercises to strengthen bladder control.
D) Teach pt. To drink plenty of fluids.
A,C,E
D
The nurse teaches the staff ensuring that standard precautions
should be used when providing care for which type of patient?
A)Pediatric and gerontologic
patients B)Patients who are
immunocompromised
C) Patients with a history of infectious diseases
D) All patients regardless of diagnosis
B
A nurse is assessing a client for HIV. The nurse should
identify that which of the following are risk factors
associated with this virus? Select all that apply A)Perinatal
exposure
B)Monogamous sex
partner C)Older
adult woman
D)Occupational
exposure
A,C,D
D
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has stage 2 HIV
disease and is having difficulty maintaining a normal weight.
Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to
the nurse an understanding of the teaching.
A) "I will choose a diet high in fat to help gain weight."
B) "I will be sure to eat three large meals daily."
C) "I will drink up to 1 liter of liquid each day."
D) "I will add high-protein foods to my diet."
D
B
What are the signs and symptoms of a physical stress response
(select all that apply)?
A)Increased heart rate and blood
pressure B)Hyperventilation
C)Anxiety
D)Impaired
speech
E)Headache
A,B,E
A,B,C,D
A,B,C,D
B) Gamma-aminobutyric
acid (GABA)
C)Norepinephrine
D)Serotonin
B
During a community visit, volunteer nurses teach management to
the participants. The nurses will most likely advocate which belief
as a method of coping with stressful events. A)Avoidance of stress
is an important goal for living.
B) Control over one's response to stress is possible.
C) Most people have no control over their level of stress.
D) Significant other are important to provide care and concern
B
Which of the following is subjective data?
A) 200lbs
After making a plan and setting goals what is the next step in the
nursing process?
A)Diagno
se
B)Assess
C)Evalua
te
D)Imple
ment
What are the risk factors for cancer (select all that apply)
A)age
B)gende
r C)eye
color
D) exposure to certain viruses
E) sexual lifestyles
A,B,D,E
What is the histologic grade of the tumor when "cells are very
abnormal and poorly differentiated?
A) Grade 0
B) Grade I
C) Grade II
D) Grade III
E) Grade IV
D
A,B,C
A,B,C
stimulates growth
D)They are benign
What are modifiable risk factors for breast cancer? (select all that
apply)
A)Dietary fat
intake
B)Smoking
C)Genetics
D)Sedentary
lifestyle
E)Alcohol
A,B,D,E
Which statement made by the patient signals a need for further
teaching about cervical cancer?
A)"Pap smears do not help prevent
cervical cancer" B)"Cervical cancer
symptoms are asymptomatic" C)"HPV
is not a substitute for a pap smear"
D)"Pap smears should begin at age 21 or at the age of becoming
sexually active"
A,B,C
Which answers increase the risk of ovarian cancer? (select all that
apply)
A)Mutations of the
BRCA genes B)A Family
History
C)Women who have never
been pregnant D)Long-term
use of Oral Contraceptives
E)Increasing Age
A,B,C,E
A,C,D,E
B) Surgical
C) Radiation
D) Chemo
E) Biologic
B,C,D,E
A,B,D
B. Sputum production
C. Internal bleeding
D. Dyspnea
E. Heart arrhythmias
A,B,D
The term "pink puffer" refers to the client with which of the
following conditions?
B. Increased appetite
C. Fatigue
D. Dependent edema
A,C,D
B. Lung transplant
C. Bronchodilators
D. Oxygen (high-flow)
C
K.R. is a 65 year old pt. who has smoked a pack a day for 30+
years. He presents with dyspnea, frequent fatigue, use of
accessory muscles, and he has lost almost 20 lbs. in the last
year due to anorexia. What illness does K.R. have?
A. Asthma
B. COPD
C. Chronic Bronchitis
D. Influenza
You are caring for a COPD pt. who has arrived in your clinical
presenting with symptoms of exacerbation. What symptoms
does your pt. appear with? (select all that apply)
A. Increase in sputum
B. Confusion
C. Increase in dyspnea
D. Diarrhea
A,B,C
A. Severely overweight
B. Clubbing of the nails
C. Productive cough
D. Barrel chest
E. Use of accessory muscles
B,C,D,E