2 9th Social Sura Guide 2019 2020 Sample Materials English Medium

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Social Science
IX Standard .c
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Based on the latest Syllabus and updated New Textbook for 2019-20
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Salient Features :
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Guide as per the latest Textbook for 2019 - 20

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It gives me great pride and pleasure in bringing to you Sura’s Social Science Guide
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This guide encompasses all the requirements of the students to comprehend the text
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iv

CONTENTS
Page
Unit Chapters
No.
HISTORY
1. Evolution of Humans and Society - Prehistoric Period 1 - 15
2. Ancient Civilisations 16 - 29
3. Early Tamil Society and Culture 30 - 45
4. Intellectual Awakening and Socio-Political Changes 46 - 61
5. The Classical World 62 - 73
6. The Middle Ages 74 - 86
7. State and Society in Medieval India om 87 - 102

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8. The Beginning of the Modern Age 103 - 116
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9. The Age of Revolutions 117 - 133

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10. Industrial Revolution 134 - 146

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11. Colonialism in Asia and Africa 147 - 162

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GEOGRAPHY
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1. Lithosphere – I Endogenetic Processes 163 - 184
2. Lithosphere – II Exogenetic Processes 185 - 207
3. Atmosphere 208 - 230
4. Hydrosphere 231 - 243
6. Biosphere 244 - 255
7. Man and Environment 256 - 271
8. Mapping Skills 272 - 283
9. Disaster Management : Responding to Disasters 284 - 289

Page
Unit Chapters
No.
CIVICS
1. Forms of Government and Democracy 290 - 299
2. Election, Political Parties and Pressure Groups 300 - 309
3. Human Rights 310 - 322
4. Form of Government 323 - 329
5. Local Self Government om 330 - 338

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6. Road Safety 339 - 341
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ECONOMICS
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Understanding Development:
1. 342 - 352
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Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability

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2. Employment in India and Tamil Nadu 353 - 362

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3. Money and CREDIT 363 - 372

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4. Agriculture in Tamil Nadu 373 - 379
5. Migration 380 - 385
Summative Assessment 2018 - 19 with answer 386 - 393
Summative Assessment 2018 - 19 with answer 394 - 400
Third Summative Assessment 2018 - 19 with answer 401 - 410
vi

UNIT HISTORY
1 Evolution of Humans and
Society – Pre historic Period
Evolution of Humans and Society – Pre historic Period

EXERCISE
I. Choose the correct answer:

1. _____________ is genetically closest to humans
(a) Gorilla (b) Chimpanzee (c) Orang-utan (d) Great Apes
[Ans: (b) Chimpanzee]
2.
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The period called_____________ marks the beginning of agriculture and animal
domestication.
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(a) Paleolithic (b) Mesolithic (c) Neolithic (d) Megalithic

[Ans: (c) Neolithic]
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Direct ancestor of modern man was _____________.

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3.
(a) Homo habilis (b) Homo erectus (c) Homo sapiens (d) Neanderthal man
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[Ans: (c) Homo sapiens]

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4. ____________ refers to the area covering Egypt, Israel-Palestine and Iraq.

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(a) Great Rift Valley (b) Fertile Crescent (c) Solo river (d) Neander Valley
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[Ans: (b) Fertile Crescent]

5. Sir Robert Bruce Foote, a geologist from England first discovered the ____________ tools
at Pallavaram near Chennai.
(a) Stone Age (b) Paleolithic (c) Mesolithic (d) Neolithic
[Ans: (b) Paleolithic]
6. (i) The period before the introduction of writing is called pre-history.
(ii) The pre-historic people developed language, made beautiful paintings and artefacts.
(iii) The pre-historic societies are treated as literate.
(iv) The pre-historic period is called ancient.
(a) (i) is correct (b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct (d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
[Ans: (c) (i) and (iv) are correct]
1
Sura’s ➠ IX Std - Social Science Unit 1
7. (i) The Neolithic people used polished stone axes called Celts
History
(ii) Evidence of Neolithic village is found at Payyampalli in Chennai district

(iii) The cultural period that succeeded the Neolithic is called the Bronze Age
(iv) The period that witnessed domestication of animals and cultivation of crops is called
Mesolithic
(a) (i) is correct (b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct (d) (iv) is correct [Ans: (a) (i) is correct]
8. Assertion (A): Many of the Mesolithic sites are founds nearby rivers and tanks.
Reason (R) : Irrigation management developed during Mesolithic period.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but R doesn’t explain A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) A and R both are incorrect [Ans: (d) A and R both are incorrect]
II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Hand axes and cleavers are the important tool types of the __________ culture.
[Ans: Lower Paleolithic]
2.
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The methods and techniques involved in the production of stone tools are called __________
technology. [Ans: Lithic]
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3. _____________ is known as the Middle Stone Age, as it is placed between the Paleolithic and
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Neolithic. [Ans: Mesolithic period]

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III. Find out the correct statement:

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1. (a) T
he concept ‘survival of the fittest’ contributed to the scientific understanding of human
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origins.
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(b) The book “On the Origin of Species” was published by Herbert Spencer.
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(c) Darwin’s theory of biological evolution connects with the process of natural selection.
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(d) Geology is the study of lithic technology.

Ans: (a) Correct.
(b) Wrong. The book on the Origin of Species was published by Charles Darwin.
(c) Correct.
(d) Wrong. - Geology is the study of the Earth.
2. (a) Among the great Apes Orang-utan is genetically the closest to humans.
(b) The ancestors to humans were called Hominins and their origins have been traced to Africa.
(c) Flake is a small chip that has flaking on both sides.
(d) Acheulian is the main block of stone from which small chips are flaked by using a hammer
stone.
Ans: (a) Wrong. Among the great Apes Chimpanzee is genetically the closest to humans.
(b) Correct.
(c) Wrong. Flake is a small chip removed from a large stone block called the core.
(d) Wrong. Core is the main block of stone from which small chips are flaked by using a
hammer stone.
2
Sura’s ➠ IX Std - Social Science
IV. Match the following:
1. Palaeo anthropology - a. Teris
2. Hand axe tools - b. Venus
3. Images on stone and bone - c. Acheulian
4. Red sand dunes - d. Microliths
5. Stone artefacts of small size - e. The study of the human ancestors
Ans: 1 - e, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a, 5 - d
Evolution of Humans and Society – Pre historic Period

V. Answer the following briefly:
1. Discuss how the age of speculation made humans become conscious and knowledgeable.
Ans: (i) Humans are the only species on earth concerned with understanding as well as explaining
the world and the universe.
(ii) In the course of evolution, humans became conscious and knowledgeable.
(iii) They turned curious and began to think and ask questions about nature, organisms and the
world around them.
(iv) They worshipped Sun, Moon and various natural forces about which they developed their
own understanding, some of which is not scientific.
2. Write a note on the impact of pastoralism on the prehistoric people in Tamil Nadu.
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Ans: (i) People practiced agriculture, domesticated cattle and sheep, and some of the groups were
still hunting and gathering.
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(ii) Millets and rice were cultivated.
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(iii) Irrigation management developed.

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(iv) In the deltaic region, evidence of rice is seen in the megalithic sites like Adichanallur in
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Thoothukudi district and Porunthal near Palani.

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3. List out the features of Megalithic Burial types.

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Ans: (i) The Iron age is also known as megalithic, since people created burials with large stones
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for the dead people.

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(ii) Within these burials the skeletons or few bones of the dead persons were placed along with
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grave goods including iron objects, Carnelian beads and bronze objects.
(iii) Some of the burials do not have human bones and they have only the grave goods.
(iv) They may be called memorial burials.
4. Examine the tool making technical skills of lower Paleolithic people.
Ans: (i) The human ancestors of flaked large stone blocks and designed various tools including
hand axes.
(ii) They made various tools such as hand axes and cleavers to meet their subsistence needs.
(iii) The hand axe tools are also known as Acheulian.
(iv) Bifaces are tools that have flaking on both sides.
(v) This tool making tradition continued till 250,000 years to 60,000 years ago in India.
VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

1. Hominid and Hominins
(a) Who are Hominids?
(b) Who was the earliest human ancestor to make tools in Africa?
(c) How are the modern humans known?
(d) Name any one species of this tribe
3
Unit 2
UNIT
02
History
Ancient Civilisations
EXERCISE
I. Choose the correct answer

1. The earliest signs to denote words through pictures
(a) Logographic (b) Pictographic (c) Ideographic (d) Stratigraphic
[Ans: (b) Pictographic]
2. The preservation process of dead body in ancient Egypt
(a) Sarcophagus (b) Hyksos (c) Mummification (d) Polytheism
[Ans: (c) Mummification]
3. The Sumerian system of writing
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(a) Pictographic (b) Hieroglyphic (c) Sonogram (d) Cuneiform
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[Ans: (d) Cuneiform]

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4. The Harappans did not have the knowledge of

(a) Gold and Elephant (b) Horse and Iron (c) Sheep and Silver (d) Ox and Platinum
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[Ans: (b) Horse and Iron]

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5. The Bronze image suggestive of the use of lost-wax process known to the Indus people.
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(a) Jar (b) Priest king (c) Dancing girl (d) Bird
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[Ans: (c) Dancing girl]

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6. (i) The oldest civilisation in Mesopotamia belonged to the Akkadians.

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(ii) The Chinese developed the Hieroglyphic system.

(iii) The Euphrates and Tigris drain into the Mannar Gulf.
(iv) Hammurabi, the king of Babylon was a great law maker.
(a) (i) is correct (b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct (d) (iv) is correct [Ans: (d) (iv) is correct]
7. (i) Yangtze River is known as Sorrow of China.
(ii) Wu-Ti constructed the Great Wall of China.
(iii) Chinese invented gun powder.
(iv) According to traditions Mencius was the founder of Taoism.
(c) (iii) is correct (d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
[Ans: (c) (iii) is correct]
8. What is the correct chronological order of four civilisations of Mesopotamia
(a) Sumerians - Assyrians - Akkadians - Babylonians
(b) Babylonians - Sumerians - Assyrians - Akkadians
(c) Sumerians - Akkadians - Babylonians - Assyrians
(d) Babylonians - Assyrians - Akkadians - Sumerians
[Ans: (c) Sumerians - Akkadians - Babylonians - Assyrians]
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9. Assertion (A): Assyrians of Mesopotamian civilisation were contemporaries of Indus
civilisation.
Reason(R): The Documents of an Assyrian ruler refer to the ships from Meluha
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct but A doesn’t explain R
(c) A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are incorrect [Ans: (a) A and R are correct and A explains R]
II. Fill in the blanks

1. ______ is a massive lime stone image of a lion with a human head.
[Ans: The Great sphinx of Giza]
2. The early form of writing of the Egyptians is known as ______. [Ans: Hieroglyphic]
3. ______ specifies the Laws related to various crimes in ancient Babylonia.
[Ans: Hammurabi’s code of law]
4. ______ was the master archive keeper of Chou state, according to traditions. [Ans: Lao Tze]
5. The ______ figurines and paintings on the pottery from the sites suggest the artistic skills of the
Harappans. [Ans: Terracotta]
III. Find out the correct statement

1.
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(a) The Great Bath at Harappa is well-built with several adjacent rooms.
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(b) The cuneiform inscriptions relate to the epic of Gilgamesh.
Ancient Civilisations
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(c) The terracotta figurines and dancing girl made of copper suggest the artistic skills of
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Egyptians.
(d) The Mesopotamians devised a solar calendar system.
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Ans: (a) The Great Bath at Mohenjodaro is well built with several adjacent rooms.
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(b) The Epic of Gilgamesh was originally written on twelve clay tablets in Cuneiform in
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Ancient Sumeria.
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(c) The terracotta figurines and dancing girl made of Bronze suggest the artistic skills of the
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Harappans.
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(d) The Egyptians devised a solar calender system.

2. (a) Amon was considered the king of god in ancient Egypt.
(b) The fortified Harappan city had the temples.
(c) The great sphinx is a pyramid-shaped monument found in ancient Mesopotamia.
(d) The invention of the potter’s wheel is credited to the Egyptians.
Ans: (a) Correct.
(b) The fortified Sumerian cities had the temples.
(c) The Great Sphinx of Giza is a massive limestone image of a lion with a human head in
ancient Egypt.
(d) The invention of the potter’s wheel is credited to the Sumerians.
IV. Match the following

a. Pharaoh - (i) A kind of grass
b. Papyrus - (ii) the oldest written story on Earth
c. Great Law maker - (iii) Mohenjo-Daro
d. Gilgamesh - (iv) Hammurabi
e. The Great Bath - (v) The Egyptian king
Ans: (a)–v, (b)–i, (c)–iv, (d)–ii, (e)–iii
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V. Answer the following briefly
History
1. The Egyptians excelled in art and architecture. Illustrate.

Ans: (i) Numerous sculptures, paintings and carvings attest to the artistic skills of Egyptians.
(ii) The pyramids are massive monuments built as tombs of mourning to the Pharaohs.
(iii) The great pyramids near Cairo are known as the Giza Pyramids.
(iv) Pyramids are considered to be one of the wonders of the world.
(v) These monuments display the engineering, architectural and human resource management
skills of the Egyptians.
(vi) The Great Sphinx of Giza is a massive limestone image of a lion with human head.
(vii) It is one of the largest sculptures of the world.
2. State the salient features of the Ziggurats.
Ans: (i) Ziggurats were pyramid shaped monuments found in ancient Mesopotamia (modern Iraq).
(ii) One of the most famous Ziggurats of the time is the one in the city of Ur.
(iii) The fortified Sumerian cities had the temples called Ziggurates at its centre.
3. Hammurabi Code is an important legal document. Explain.
Ans: (i) Hammurabi code is an important legal document that specifies the laws related to various
crimes. om
(ii) It has 282 provisions specifying cases related to family rights, trade, slavery, taxes and
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wages.
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(iii) It is carved on a stone, which portrays Hammurabi as receiving the code from the Sun God
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Shamash.
(iv) The ‘eye for eye’ and ‘tooth for tooth’ form of justice is used in the Hammurabi code.
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VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption

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1. Early Civilisations
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1. What is meant by civilisation?

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2. Name the important early civilisations.

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3. What did South India witness during the time of early civilisation?
4. What happened when civilisation began to take shape?
Ans: 1. Civilization means an advanced, organised way of life. It is an adaptation to particular
environmental and cultural contexts.
2. The Egyptian, the Mesopotamian, the Chinese and the Indus are the important early
civilization.
3. During the time of early civilisations, South India witnessed the emergence of Neolithic
agro-pastoral communities and Microlithic form of life by hunter-gatherers.
4. As civilizations began to take shape, huge buildings were built, the art of writing developed
and science and technology contributed to the betterment of society.
2. Features of Egyptian civilisation
1. Why was Egypt called the ‘Gift of Nile’?
2. Who were Pharaoh and Viziers?
3. What is a pyramid and why was it built?
4. What is the process of mummification?
Ans: 1. The Egyptian civilisation depended solely upon the flow of Nile River, and hence Egypt
was called the ‘Gift of Nile’ by the Greek historian Herodotus.
18
Unit 3
UNIT
03
History
Early Tamil Society

and Culture
EXERCISE

1. The name of the script used in the Sangam Age
(a) English (b) Devanagari (c) Tamil-Brahmi (d) Granta
[Ans: (c) Tamil-Brahmi]
2. The Sri Lankan chronicle composed in the Pali language mentioning about merchants and
horse traders from Tamil Nadu
(a) Deepa vamsa (b) Arthasastra (c) Mahavamsa (d) Indica
om [Ans: (c) Mahavamsa]
3. The notable Chola king credited with bringing forest lands under the plough and developing
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irrigational facilities
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(a) Karikalan (b) Rajarajan I (c) Kulothungan (d) Rajendran I

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[Ans:(a) Karikalan]
Inscription that mentions the Cheras
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4.
(a) Pugalur (b) Girnar (c) Pulimankombai (d) Madurai
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[Ans: (a) Pugalur]

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5. The famous Venetian traveller who described Kayal as a great and noble city
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(a) Vasco da gama (b) Alberuni (c) Marco Polo (d) Megasthenes
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[Ans: (c) Marco Polo]

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6. (i) Coins as a medium of exchange were introduced for the first time in the Sangam Age.
(ii) Prakrit was the language used by the common people in Northern India during the
Mauryan period.
(iii) Vienna Papyrus, a Roman document, mentions trade related to Muziri.
(iv) The concept of Thinai is presented in the Tamil grammar work of Pathupaattu.
(c) (i) and (ii) is correct (d) (iii) and (iv) is correct
[Ans: (c) (i) and (ii) is correct]
7. (i) Pathitrupathu speaks about the Pandya kings and their territory.
(ii) The Akanaanuru describes the trading activities at Kaveripoompattinum.
(iii) The Chola Emblem was the tiger and they issued square copper coins with images of
a tiger.
(iv) Neythal is a sandy desert region.
(a) (i) is correct (b) (ii) and (iii) is correct
(c) (iii) is correct (d) (iv) is correct [Ans: (c) (iii) is correct]
30
1. ___________ are documents scripted on stones, copper plates, coins and rings
[Ans: Inscriptions]
2. ___________ refers to systematically digging a site to recover material evidence for exploring
societies of the past [Ans: Archaeological Excavation]
3. ___________ the classic work on economy and statecraft authored by Kautilya during the
Mauryan period. [Ans: Arthasastra]
4. ___________ is a poetic theme which means a class or category and refers to a habitat or
eco-zone with specific physiographical characteristics. [Ans: Thinai]
5. ___________ referred to the Westerners, including the Greeks, Romans and West Asian people.
[Ans: Yavanar]
1. (a) Evidence of iron smelting has been found in Kodumanal and Guttur.
Early Tamil Society and Culture

(b) Periplus of Erythren Sea mentions about the pepper trade with India.
(c) Punch marked coins are the earliest coins used in India mostly made of gold.
(d) The Sangam Age has its roots in the Bronze Age.
Ans: (a) Correct
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(b) Wrong. Pliny mentions about the pepper trade with India.
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(c) Wrong. Punch marked coins are the earliest coins used in India mostly made of Silver.
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(d) Wrong. The Sangam Age has its roots in Iron Age
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2. (a) The Cheras ruled over Kaveri delta and their capital was Uraiyur.
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(b) The Maangulam Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions mention the King Karikalan.

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(c) The terms Vanikan and Nigama appear in Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions were different types
of merchants.
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(d) Salt merchants were called Vanikars and they travelled in bullock carts along with their
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family.
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Ans: (a) Wrong. The Cholas ruled over Kaveri delta and their capital was Uraiyur.
(b) Wrong. The Maangulam Tamil–Brahmi inscriptions mention the King Nedunchezhian.
(c) Correct. The terms Vanikan denotes a trader, Nigama means a Guild. There were different
types of merchants.
(d) Wrong. Salt merchants were called Umanars and they travelling in bullock carts along
with their family.

1. Epigraphy - (i) a narrative text presenting the important historical events
2. Chronicle - (ii) a Sangam Age port
3. Pastoralism - (iii) an ornament made in precious stone.
4. Cameo - (iv) the study of inscriptions
5. Arikkamedu - (v) nomadic people earning livelihood by rearing cattle.
Ans: 1. - iv, 2. - i, 3. - v, 4. - iii, 5. - ii
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IV. Match the Following: 4×1=4
1. Epigraphy - (i) a narrative text presenting the important historical events
2. Chronicle - (ii) a Sangam Age port
3. Pastoralism - (iii) an ornament made in precious stone.
4. Cameo - (iv) the study of inscriptions
5. Arikkamedu - (v) nomadic people earning livelihood by rearing cattle.
Ans: 1. - iv, 2. - i, 3. - v, 4. - iii, 5. - ii
V. Answer the Following questions briefly: 2×2=4

1. Archaeological sites provide evidence of past history. Discuss.
2. Overseas interactions brought glory to ancient Tamilagam. Give examples in support.
VI. Answer all the questions given under the caption: 1×4=4
1. Industries and Crafts of the Sangam Age
a. What were the important aspects of urbanisation?
Early Tamil Society and Culture

b. What is the Tamil name for a potter?
c. What were the different types of pottery used by the people?
d. Identify the Iron implements required for agriculture and warfare
om
.c
Answer Key
Padasalai
ks
I. 1. (a) Karikalan 2. (a) Pugalur 3. (c) Marco Polo

oo
4. (c) (i) and (ii) is correct 5. (c) Tamil-Brahmi

ab
II. 1. Arthasastra 2. Inscriptions 3. Thinai 4. Yavanar

ur
III. 1. Refer Sura’s Page No. , Q.No.III - 2.

.s
w
IV. 1 - iv, 2. - i, 3. - v, 4. - iii, 5. - ii

w
V. 1. Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.32 , Q. No.V - 1.

w
2. Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.32, Q.No. V - 5.

VI. 1. Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.33, Q.No. VI - 3.
45
46 Sura’s  9th Std - Term I  Social Science
Unit 4
UNIT
04
History
Intellectual Awakening and

Socio–Political Changes
EXERCISE
I. Choose the correct answer

1. Identify the founder of a new sect who exemplified simplicity and self-denial.
(a) Buddha (b) Lao-tze (c) Confucius (d) Zoroaster
[Ans: (a) Buddha]
2. The Magadha king influenced by the teachings of Mahavira
(a) Dhananandha (b) Chandragupta (c) Bimbisara (d) Shishunaga
[Ans: (c) Bimbisara]
3.
om
The northern India extended from the Kabul Valley in the north to the Godavari in the
south witnessed the rise of Sixteen States.
.c
Padasalai
(a) Mahajanapadas (b) Gana-sanghas (b) Dravida (d) Dakshinapatha
ks
[Ans: (a) Mahajanapadas]

oo
4. Tri-ratnas are the three priniciples taught by

ab
(a) Buddha (b) Mahavira (c) Lao-tze (d) Confucius

ur
[Ans: (b) Mahavira]

.s
5. The account which throws light on Mauryan polity and society

w
(a) Marco Polo (b) Fahien (c) Megasthanes (d) Seleucus

w
[Ans: (c) Megasthanes]

w
6. (i) Under the Magadha king the mahamatriyas functioned as secretaries to the ministers.
(ii) Accounts of Megasthanes titled Indica is a useful record about Mauryan polity and
society.
(iii) Nanda’s attempt to build an imperial structure was cut short by Ashoka who founded
the Mauryan kingdom.
(iv) According to tradition, towards the end of his life Chandragupta become an ardent
follower of Buddhism.
(c) (i) and (ii) is correct (d) (iii) and (iv) is correct
[Ans: (c) (i) and (ii) is correct]

1. ______________ is a collection of sacred literature of different epochs, containing prayers,
confessions and myths. [Ans: Zend Avesta]
2. In the Gangetic plain ______________ agriculture required the use of bullocks.
[Ans: Iron Plough]
46
47
Sura’s  9th Std  History 
Sura’s
04- Intellectual Awakening and Socio–Political
IX StdChanges
➠ - Social Science
3. Jains believe that ______________ came in a long line of Tirthankaras and he was the twenty
- fourth and the last. [Ans: Mahavira]
4. The place where Buddha attained enlightenment has been built into the Mahabodhi temple that
still exists in ______________. [Ans: Bodhgaya (Bihar)]
5. The rock edicts form the reliable source to know about the Mauryan empire in particular the
Dharmic rule of ______________. [Ans: Ashoka]

1. (a) The introduction of Bronze tools made easy the removal of dense forest cover from the
Intellectual Awakening and Socio–Political Changes

banks of the Ganges.
(b) Ajivikas had a small presence in western India.
(c) The clusters where particular clansmen were dominant came to be known were Pre-Mauryan
states.
(d) Of the kingdoms mentioned in the literature of the period Kashi, Kosala and Magadha are
considered to be powerful.
Ans: (a) Wrong. The introduction of Iron tools made easy the removal of dense forest cover from
the banks of Ganges.
(b) Wrong. Ajivikas had a small presence in Southern India.
(c) Wrong. The clusters where particular clansmen were dominant came to known as
Janapadas. om
(d) Correct.
.c
Padasalai
2. (a) Ajatashatru was the first important king of Magadha.
ks
(b) Bimbisara succeeded in establishing a comprehensive structure of administration.

oo
(c) The Mauryas were the first of non-Kshatriya dynasties to rule in northern India.
ab
(d) Nanda’s attempt to build an imperial structure was cut short by Ashoka.
Ans: (a) Wrong. Bimbisara was the first important king of Magadha.
ur
(b) Correct
.s
(c) Wrong. The Nandas were the first of Non-Kshatriya dynasties to rule in northern India.
w
w
(d) Wrong. Nanda’s attempt to build an imperial structure was cut short by Chandra Gupta
w
Maurya.

1. Eight-fold path - (i) tallest Jaina statue
2. Bahubali - (ii) a code of political morality
3. The Spring and Autumn Annals - (iii) sacred literature of laws and myths
4. Zend Avesta - (iv) first Tirthankara
5. Rishabha - (v) path to attain the purest state of mind
Ans: (1) - v, (2) - i, (3) - ii, (4) - iii, (5) - iv
V. Answer the following briefly

1. Write above Hinayana and Mahayana.
Ans: Hinayana
(i) The Hinayana was the original creed preached by Buddha.
(ii) The followers of this form regarded Buddha as their guru and did not worship him as God.
(iii) They denied idol worship and continued with the people’s language, Pali.
47
48 Sura’s 9th Std - Term I Social Science
 
Unit 4
Mahayana
History
(i) In Mahayana, Buddha was worshipped as God and Bodhisattuva as his previous avatar.
(ii) The followers made images and statues of Buddha and Bodhisattuva and offered prayers,
and recited hymns (mantras) in their praise.
(iii) Later, they wrote their religious books in Sanskrit. This form of Buddhism was patronised
by Kanishka.
2. Elaborate the term “Tri-ratnas”.
Ans: The three principles of Jainism, also known as Tri-Ratnas are the following:
(a) Right faith: Belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira.
(b) Right knowledge: Acceptance of the theory that there is no God and that the world existed
without a creator.
(c) Right action: It refers to Mahavira’s observance of the fire great vows (a) Ahimsa,
(b) Honesty, (c) Kindness, (d) Truthfulness, (e) not coveting or desiring things belonging
to others.
3. What do you know of Ajatasatru?
Ans: (i) Ajatashatru, the son of Bimbisara is said to have murdered his father and ascended the
throne in 493 BCE.
(ii) He continued his father’s policy of expansion through military conquests.
om
(iii) He strengthened the Rajagriha fort and also built another fort at Pataligrama on the Ganges.
.c
(iv) He died in 461 BCE
Padasalai
ks
4. What does the Edict of Kalinga convey?

oo
Ans: (i) There are 33 edicts, including 14 major rock edicts, 7 pillar edicts and 2 Kalinga edicts
apart from minor rock edicts and minor pillar inscriptions.
ab
(ii) They form the reliable sources to know about the Mauryan Empire in particular the dharmic
ur
rule of Asoka.
.s
(iii) In one of the Kalinga edicts, he tells us his horror and sorrow over the deaths which the
w
war and conquest caused.

w
w
(iv) Yet in another edict, he makes it known that Ashoka would not tolerate any longer the death
or captivity of even hundredth or thousandth part of the number killed and made captive
in Kalinga.
5. Highlight the steps taken by Ashoka to spread Buddhism.
Ans: (i) Ashoka became an ardent Buddhist after meeting the Buddhist monk Upagupta and
propounded his Dharma.
(ii) Ashoka’s passion for protecting life extended to animals as well.
(iii) Hospitals were constructed for them and animal sacrifice was forbidden.
(iv) Ashoka sent his son Mahendra and his daughter Sangamithra, to Ceylon to spread his
message of Dharma there.
(v) Our National emblem with four lions is a replica of the Ashoka pillar of Saranath.
48
 
Unit 5
UNIT
05
History
The Classical World
EXERCISE

1. ___________ is the Greek city-state which resisted the Persians to the end.
a) Acropolis b) Sparta c ) Athens d) Rome
[Ans: (c) Athens]
2. The other name for Greeks was __________
a) Hellenists b) Hellenes c) Phoenicians d) Spartans
om [Ans: (b) Hellenes]
The founder of Han dynasty was _____________
.c
3.
Padasalai
ks
a) Wu Ti b) Hung Chao c) Liu Pang d) Mangu Khan

[Ans: (c) Liu Pang]
oo
4. ___________ was the Roman Governor responsible for the crucifixion of Jesus.
ab
a) Innocent I b) Hildebrand
ur
c) Leo I d) Pontius Pilate [Ans: (d) Pontius Pilate]

.s
5. The Peloponnesian War was fought between __________ and ___________

w
a) Greeks and Persians b) Plebeians and Patricians

w
w
c) Spartans and Athenians d) Greeks and Romans

[Ans: (c) Spartans and Athenians]

1. Greeks defeated the Persians at __________. [Ans: Marathon]
2. __________ stood in favour of poor peasants in Roman republic.
[Ans: Tiberius Gracchus, Garius do Gracchus]
3. Buddhism came to China from India during the reign of __________ dynasty. [Ans: Han]
4. The most magnificent building in Europe was __________. [Ans: St. Sophia Cathedral]
5. __________ and __________were Magistrates in Rome [Ans: Marius, Sulla]

1. (i) First Persian attack on Greece failed.
(ii) The downfall of Roman Empire is attributed to Julius Caesar.
(iii) The Barbarians who invaded Rome were considered to be culturally advanced.
(iv) Buddhism weakened the Roman Empire.
a) (i) is correct b) (ii) is correct
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct d) (iv) is correct [Ans: (a) (i) is correct]
62
63
Sura’s  9th Std  History  05- The Classical WorldSura’s ➠ IX Std - Social Science
2. (i) Euclid developed a model for the motion of planets and stars.
(ii) Romans established a republic after overthrowing Etruscans.
(iii) Acropolis became a famous slave market.
(iv) Rome and Carthage united to drive out the Greeks.
c) (ii) and (iv) are correct d) (iv) is correct
[Ans: (c) (ii) and (iv) are correct]
3. (i) Silk road was closed during the Han dynasty.
(ii) Peasant uprisings posed threats to Athenian democracy.
(iii) Virgil’s Aeneid glorified Roman imperialism.
(iv) Spartacus killed Julius Caesar.
c) (ii) and (iv) are correct d) (iii) is correct [Ans: (d) (iii) is correct]
4. (i) Roman Emperor Marcus Aurelius was a tyrant.
(ii) Romulus Aurelius was the most admired ruler in Roman History.
(iii) Fabius was a famous Carthaginian General.
(iv) Tacitus is respected more than Livy as a historian.
a) (i) is correct
om
b) (ii) is correct
.c
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct d) (iv) is correct [Ans: (d) (iv) is correct]
The Classical World

Padasalai
ks
5. (i) Buddhism went to China from Japan.

oo
(ii) After crucifixion of Jesus, St Thomas spread the Christian doctrine.

ab
(iii) St Sophia Cathedral was the most magnificent building in Europe.

(iv) Trajan was one of the worst dictators that Rome had.
ur
.s

w
c) (iii) is correct d) (iv) is correct [Ans: (c) (iii) is correct]

w
w

1. Acropolis - (i) Consul
2. Plato - (ii) Athens
3. Marius - (iii) Philosopher
4. Zeus - (iv) Materialist
5. Epicurus - (v) A fortified city
Ans: 1. - (v), 2. - (iii), 3. - (i), 4. - (ii), 5. - (iv)

1. Attempt an account of slavery in Rome.
Ans: (i) Rome produced a new labour force called slaves.
(ii) major source of revenue to the Roman state was slave trade.
A
(iii) Slave labour led to the impoverishment of free labour.
(iv) The island of Delos became a great slave market.
(v) There were more slave revolts in Rome than in Greece.
(vi) The revolt of Spartacus was the most famous.
63
 
Unit 5
2. Highlight the main contribution of Constantine.
History
Ans: (i) One of the Roman emperors Constantine himself became a Christian.
(ii) Christianity thus became the official religion of the Empire.
3. What do you know of the Carthaginian leader Hannibal?
Ans: (i) Carthage sent a general named Hannibal.
(ii) H e defeated the Roman army and made a great part of Italy a desert.
(iii) In the second Punic War, Fabius confronted Hannibal and defeated him in the Battle of
Zama.
(iv) Pursued by the Roman army, Hannibal ended his life by poisoning himself.
4. What were the reasons for the prosperity of Han Empire?
Ans: (i) Han dynasty, founded by Liu Pang, flourished for 400 years (206 BC to AD 220).
(ii) The most popular and powerful ruler was Wu Ti.
(iii) His generals succeeded in driving away the Huns in the north.
(iv) Thus the Han Empire once again threw open the silk road for trade.
(v) A large export trade, mainly in silk, reached as far as the Roman Empire.
(vi) In the north, artisans and herders of rival “barbarian” dynasties brought in new techniques
like the methods of harnessing horses, use of saddle and stirrup, techniques of building
bridges and mountain roads, and seafaring.
(vii) Such innovations made Han Empire prosperous.
om
.c
5. Write about St. Sophia Cathedral.
Padasalai
ks
Ans: (i) St. Sophia Cathedral was built in mid-sixth century AD (CE).
oo
(ii) It was the most magnificent building in Europe.

(iii) It was known for its innovative architectural techniques.
ab
(iv) This Cathedral was turned into a mosque by the Ottoman Turks when they captured
ur
Constantinople.
.s
VI. Answer all questions given under each heading

w
w
1. Emergence of Rome as an empire

w
(a) Who were the Gracchus brothers?

(b) What role did they play?
(c) What was the outcome of their martyrdom?
(d) Who was the first Roman Emperor?
Ans: (a) Tiberius Gracchus and Garius do Gracchus.
(b) They voiced their opinion in favour of the poor peasants.
(c)
The martyrdom of the Gracchus brothers played a decisive role in the transformation of
the Roman Republic into the Roman Empire.
(d) Augustus.
2. Han Dynasty
(a) Who was the founder of Han Empire ?
(b) What was the capital of Han Empire?
(c) Where did they have their new capital?
(d) Who was the powerful ruler of the Han dynasty?
Ans: (a) Liu Pang.
(b) Chang-an.
(c) They had their new capital at Xu Chang.
(d) Wu Ti.
64
79
Sura’s  9th Std  History  06- The Middle Ages Sura’s ➠ IX Std - Social Science
6. Shotuku Taishi was the leader of ____________ family
(a) Soga (b) Fujiwaras (c) Daimyos (d) Shogunate
[Ans: (a) Soga]
7. Hideyoshi was a __________
(a) Noble (b) Trader (c) Peasant (d) Warrior
[Ans: (c) Peasant]
8. General Tang was a / an _________
(a) Chinese (b) Japanese (c) Roman (d) Arab [Ans: (d)Arab]
9. After conquering Egypt, the Ottomans assumed the title of ________
(a) King (b) Caliph (c) Emperor (d) Raja
[Ans: (b)Caliph]
10. The theory of sacraments increased the power of the ________
(a) Commoners (b) Emperor (c) Nobler (d) Clergy
[Ans: (d)Clergy]
II. Find out the correct statement

1. (i) Sung dynasty was overthrown by the Seljuq Turks . om
(ii) China followed Japan in all walks of life.
.c
(iii) Kamakura Shogunate was founded by a military general.
Padasalai
ks
The Middle Ages

(iv) Abbasids ruled from Baghdad.
oo
a) (i), (ii) are correct b) (iii) and (iv) are correct

ab
c) (iii) is correct d) (iv) is correct

[Ans: (b) (iii) and (iv) are correct]
ur
.s
2. (i) Feudal System involved lords and vassals.

w
(ii) Seljuq Turks took over the holy city of Jerusalem.

w
(iii) Ummayads ruled from Damascus.

w
(iv) Saracenic architecture was developed by the Arabs.

a) (i) is correct b) (ii), (iii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
[Ans: (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct]
3. Assertion (A): Iron and Steel industries became highly organized.
Reason (R): The quantity of iron, China produced in 1078 A.D., exceeded 114,000 tons.
a) A is correct; R is wrong b) Both A & R are wrong
c) Both A & R are correct d) A is wrong R is irrelevant to A
[Ans: (c) Both A & R are correct]
4. Assertion (A): Many pious Christians began to resent Pope’s intrusion into state affairs.
Reason (R): Pope Innocent III forced King John to recognize England and Ireland as fiefs
of the papacy.
a) A is correct; R is not the correct explanation of A
b) A & R are correct
c) A & R are wrong
d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
[Ans: (d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A]
79
 
Unit 6
5. Statement (i): Kyoto was replaced by Tokyo as Capital.
History
Statement (ii): Arab physicians and surgeons earned a great reputation.

a) (i) is correct b) (i) and (ii) are wrong
c) (i) and (ii) are correct d) (i) is wrong, (ii) is correct
[Ans: (c) (i) and (ii) are correct]
III. Fill in the blanks

1. Seljuq Turks were a tribe of_____ from Central Asia . [Ans: Tartars]
2. Hung Ch’ao and his followers brought downfall to _____ empire . [Ans: Tang]
3. Chu Yuan Chang was the leader of _____. [Ans: Red Turbans]
4. Japan remained in __________ for many centuries. [Ans: isolation]
5. During the Tang dynasty, there were constant contacts between China and __________
[Ans: Japan]
6. Fujiwara family emperors in later years retired to _____. [Ans: Monasteries]
7. The title Sei-i-tai-Shogun meant _____. [Ans: The Barbarian-subduing-Great-General]
8. Kamakura Shogunate was followed by _____ Shogunate. [Ans: Ashikaga]
9. Abu Bakr and Omar laid the foundation for an _____ Empire.
om [Ans: Islamic]
.c
10. Islam advocated simplicity and _____. [Ans: Equality]
Padasalai
ks
11. The two sects of Islam were _____ and _______. [Ans: Sunnis and Shias]
oo
12. The arches, the pillars, and the minarets and domes represented_____ architecture.
ab
[Ans: Saracenic]
ur
13. Umayyads were overthrown by _____. [Ans: Abbasids]

.s
14. The Arabs had a scientific spirit of _____. [Ans: Inquiry]

w
w
15. Chengiz Khan was a great _____. [Ans: Military genius]

w
16. The Ottomans conquest Constantinople in _____. [Ans: 1453]

17. Fief was a _____ given to someone by their lord. [Ans: Piece of land]
18. New elements like _____ and ______ were included in Christian theology.
[Ans: Theory of Priesthood and Theory of Sacraments]

(a) Mongol court - (i) Tokyo
(b) Kyoto - (ii) Damascus
(c) Ummayads - (iii) Beijing
(d) Abbasids - (iv) Venice
(e) Commercial centres - (v) Baghdad
Ans: (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (v), (e) - (iv).
80
 
Unit 6
UNIT TEST
History
Time : 40 Minutes Marks: 25
I. Choose the correct answer:3 × 1 = 3 b) A and R are correct

1. Feudalism centred around ___________ c) A and R are wrong
a) vassalage b) slavery d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation
c) serfdom d) land of A
2. Harun-al-Rashid was the able emperor
of ___________. III. Fill in the blanks: 2×1=2
a) Abbasid dynasty 1. The original name of Medina was ________.
b) Umayyad dynasty 2. In the Balkans, the Ottoman supremacy was
c) Sassanid dynasty established by _______.
d) Mongol dynasty
3. The old religion of Japan was ___________
1. a. Kamakura - (i) Islam
a) Shinto
b. Saracenic - (ii) Mongols
b) Confucianism
c) Taoism d) Animism c. Arabs - (iii) Guilds
d. Chengiz Khan - (iv) Architecture
II. Find out the correct statement: om
e. Merchants and
2×1=2 artisans - (v) Ashikaga
.c
(i) Mangu Khan was the Governor of
Padasalai
1.
ks
V. Answer all questions given under

China.
each heading: 4×1=4
oo
(ii) Mongol court in China impressed

Marco Polo. 1. Rule of Abbasids
ab
(iii) The leader of Red Turbans was Hung (a) Who were the Abbasids?
ur
Chao. (b) What was the title assumed by Abbasid

(iv) Mongols established their rule in China Caliph?
.s
in the name of Yuan dynasty (c) Where did they have their new capital?
w
a) (i) is correct (d) In whose period was the Abbasid

w
b) (ii) is correct Empire at the height of its glory?

w
c) (ii) and (iv) are correct VI. Answer the following briefly:2 × 2 = 4
d) (iv) is correct
1. How was Feudalism organized in the
2. Assertion (A): The fall of Jerusalem Middle Ages?
into the hands of Seljuk Turks led to the 2. Bring out the impact of Crusades.
Crusades.
VII. Answer the following in detail: 1 × 5 = 5
Reason (R): European Christian pilgrims
were denied access to Jerusalem. 1. Write about crusades and its impact.
a) A is correct; R is not the correct
explanation of A
Answer Key
I. 1. (a) vassalage 2. (a) Abbasid dynasty 3. (a) Shinto
II. 1. (c) (ii) and (iv) are correct 2. (d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
III. 1. Yethrib 2. Mohammad II
IV. 1. a) - (v), b) - (iv), c - (i), d) - (ii), e) - (iii)
V. 1. Refer Sura’s Guide Page No. 77; Q.No. VI - 2
VI. 1. Refer Sura’s Guide Page No. 76; Q. No. V - 3.
2. Refer Sura’s Guide Page No. 76;Q. No.V - 2.
VII. 1. Refer Sura’s Guide Page No. 77; Q. No. VII - 1.
86
Sura’s  9th Std  History  07- State and Society in Medieval India 87
UNIT State and Society in

07 Medieval India
(From the Cholas to the Mughals)
EXERCISES
State and Society in Medieval India

1. ___________ was the second stronghold of Ala-ud-din Khalji’s expanding Kingdom.
a) Dauladabad b) Delhi c) Madurai om
d) Bidar
[Ans: (a)Dauladabad]
.c
Padasalai
ks
2. The Deccan Sultanates were conquered by __________.

oo
a) Ala-ud-din Khilji b) Ala-ud-din Bahman- shah

c) Aurangzeb [Ans: (c) Aurangzeb]
ab
d) Malik Kafur
ur
3. The establishment of _________ empire changed the administrative and institutional

structures of South India.
.s
w
a) Bahmani b) Vijayanagar c) Mughal d) Nayak

w
[Ans: (b) Vijayanagar]

w
4. Krishnadeva Raya was a contemporary of ___________

a) Babur b) Humayun c) Akbar d) Shershah
[Ans: (a)Babur]
1. __________ were Europeans who arrived on the west coast of India. [Ans: Portuguese]
2. The combined forces of the five Deccan Sultanates defeated Vijayanagar army in 1565 A.D.
(C.E.) at the battle of __________. [Ans: Talikota]
3. Vijayanagara evolved as a__________. [Ans: Militaristic state]
4. The tempo of urbanization increased during _________ period. [Ans: Vijayanagar]
5. ________ was the enterprising period in the history of Tamil Nadu.[Ans: The Chola period]
87
 
Unit 7
History
1. (i) The establishment of the Vijayanagar Kingdom witnessed the most momentous
development in the history of South India.
(ii) The Saluva dynasty ruled for a longer period.
(iii) The rulers of Vijayanagara had smooth relations with the Bahmani Sultanate.
(iv) Rajput kingdoms attracted migrants from Persia and Arabia. [Ans: (i) is correct]
2. (i) The Nayak Kingdom came up in Senji.
(ii) The appointment of Telugu Nayaks resulted in the migration of Telugu-speaking
people from Madurai.
(iii) Mughal Empire started declining from the time of Jahangir.
(iv) The Europeans came to India in search of slaves. [Ans: (i) is correct]
3. (i) Mythical geneologies were collected by Col. Mackenzie.
(ii) Indigo was the most important beverage crop in India.
(iii) Mahmud Gawan was the minister in Alauddin Khalji’s kingdom.
(iv) The Portuguese built their first fort in Goa. [Ans: (i) is correct]
4. om
Assertion (A): I ndia was an integral part of maritime trade, extending from China in the
east to Africa in the west.
.c
Reason (R): Geographical location of India in the middle of Indian Ocean.
Padasalai
ks
a) (i) A is correct; R explains about A

oo
b) (ii) A is wrong; R is correct

ab
c) (iii) A and R are wrong

ur
d) (iv) A is correct; R does not explains about A.

.s
[Ans: (a) (i) A is correct; R explains about A]

w
w
5. (i) Gold images of great beauty and artistry were made by Cholas.
w
(ii) The best example for Chola architecture is Siva as Nataraja performing the cosmic
dance.
a) (i) is correct (ii) is wrong b) Both (i) and (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong d) (i) is wrong, (ii) is correct
[Ans: (d) (i) is wrong, (ii) is correct]
1. Portuguese – i) Bengal
2. Tansen – ii) Kottam
3. Sericulture – iii) Court of Akbar
4. Angkorwat – iv) Goa
5. District – v) Cambodia
Ans: 1. - (iv), 2. - (iii), 3. - (i), 4. - (v), 5. - (ii)
88
89
Sura’s
07- State and Society in Medieval India
➠ IX Std - Social Science
1. Write about the military expeditions of Malik Kafur.
Ans: (i) Malik Kafur was the commander of Alauddin’s forces.
(ii) He defeated Mongols in 1306.
(iii) He led a series of expeditions in the southern part of India against the Yadavas (1308),
Kakatiyas (1310), the Hoysalas (1311) and the Pandyas (1311).
(iv) During these campaigns he obtained a large number of treasures elephants and horses for
the Delhi sultanate.
2. Who founded the Vijayanagar Kingdom? Mention the dynasties that ruled over the
kingdom.
Ans: (i) Vijayanagar kingdom was established by Harihara and Bukka, two brothers.
(ii) They were the first rulers of the Sangama dynasty.
(iii) Sangama dynasty was followed by the Saluva dynasty.
(iv) The Tuluva dynasty ruled under Krishnadeva Raya.

3. Mention the two natural advantages that India had in cotton weaving.
Ans: (i) India had two natural advantages in cotton weaving.
(ii) The first was that cotton grew in almost all parts of India, so that the basic raw material
was easily available.
om
(iii) Second, the technology of producing a permanent colour on cotton using vegetable dyes
was known from very early times in India.
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ks
4. What were the factors which facilitated urbanization?

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Ans: (i) The cities and towns fulfilled diverse and overlapping roles in the economy.
(ii) The large cities were centres of manufacturing and marketing, banking and financial services.
ab
(iii) They were usually located at the intersection of an extensive network of roads.
ur
(iv) The roads connected them to other parts of the country.

.s
(v)
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Smaller towns were marketing centres in local trade connecting the immediate rural
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hinterland.
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(vi) Cities also served as political and administrative centres.

(vii) Major pilgrimage centres like Varanasi also grew into cities, because the regular inflow of
pilgrims.
(viii) All these factors together contributed urbanization.
5. What is sericulture?
Ans: (i) Sericulture means silk production by breeding the mulberry silkworm.
(ii) It was introduced in the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries.
(iii) By the seventeenth century, Bengal had become one of the largest silk-producing regions
in the world.
89
93
Sura’s
3. Development in tourism industries: People from foreign countries are attracted to good
cities and towns having better transport facilities. Tourism is a good source of foreign
currency for a country.
4. Social integration – People of many castes, groups and religions live and work together
in cities, which creates better understanding and harmony and helps breakdown social and
cultural barriers.
5. Improvement in Science, Culture etc.: Urban places are the meeting point of all good
cultures of various localities. Science and technology developments take place in urban
places improving the society as a whole.
6. Living conditions – Cities are often more efficient than rural areas. Less effort is needed to
supply basic amenities such as fresh water and electricity. Research and recycling programs
are possible only in cities. In most cities flats are prevalent. In flats many people can be
accommodated within a small land area.
Disadvantages of Urbanization:
1. Destruction of Natural Habitats of Flora and Fauna – In making of an urban area, a lot

of forest areas are destroyed which otherwise would have been natural habitats to many
birds and animals.
2. Crime: Due to urbanization many people benefit but not all get the opportunities which
results in those people doing illegal things like robbery, kidnapping, murder and so on and
thus one can say that urbanization is party behind the increasing crime rates in big cities.
om
3. Slums: The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem
and thus slums are developed in these places.
.c
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4. Poor living conditions – Crowding and lack of sanitation. This often contributes to outbreak
ks
of diseases. Utilities such as water, electricity and sewage disposal are also lacking in such
oo
areas.
ab
5. Unemployment – Since the number of people aspiring for jobs is more than jobs available,
unemployment is a natural outcome of situation. Unemployment and poverty force people
ur
to engage in anti-social activities.

.s
6. Air pollution – Factories and automobiles are most visible symbols of urbanization. Due
w
to emissions of harmful gases and smoke from factories and vehicles, air pollution results.
w
High amount of suspended particles in air, particularly in cities, contribute to allergies and
w
respiratory problems. It will create a health hazard.

7. Shortage of workers: The decrease in rural population effects the agricultural productions
due to shortage of workers in rural areas.
ADDITIONAL

1. Vascodagama reached the west-coast of India in __________.
(a) 1490 (b) 1560 (c) 1498 (d) 1500 [Ans: (c) 1498]
2. Arab Muslim merchants had been trading in the ports of the west coast, especially ________.
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka (c) Kerala (d) Goa[Ans: (c) Kerala]
3. In the south, a Sultanate was established in __________.
(a) Tuticorin (b) Nagapattinam (c) Madurai (d) Palani
[Ans: (c) Madurai]
4. Sailendra Kingdom existed in ________.
(a) Ceylon (b) Kedah (c) Indonesia (d) China
[Ans: (c) Indonesia]
93
 
Unit 7
13. What were Karkhanas?
History
Ans: (i) Larger manufacturing units, employing many craftsmen, are called as Karkhanas.
(ii) Karkhanas were up under Mughal State.
14. Why did the European trading companies enter into contracts with the Indian merchant?
Ans: (i) The European trading companies realized that they could not function in India without the
services of the rich and influential merchants.
(ii) So they entered into contracts with them to supply the goods that they wanted and also to
lift the imports which they brought in from Europe.
15. In South India, especially the Tamil regions, urbanization went hand in hand with temples
how?
Ans: (i) Temples were large economic enterprises requiring a variety of goods and services to
function.
(ii) They needed and employed a large number of people to man the religious services, the
kitchens and for other work.
(iii) As a result, temple towns became marketing centres.
(iv) The pace of urbanization increased during the Vijayanagar period when there was a great
increase in the construction of temples across Tamilnadu.
16. Mention about the Holy Roman Empire.
om
Ans: (i) The newly established Holy Roman Empire represented Christianity and Christendom and,
hence, it was designated holy.
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(ii) The emperor was supposed to be a Representative of God on earth like the Pope. The
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emperor dealt with political matters, while the Pope dealt with the spiritual.
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(iii) Charlemagne, the king of Franks, was the first Holy Roman Emperor.
ab
(iv) He was a contemporary of Pallava king Nandivarman II and Pratihara ruler Nagabatta I.
ur
17. Why was the Great Magna Carta signed by King John?
.s
Ans: (i) The nobles in England forced King John II to sign a Charter of Liberty in 1215 A.D. It is
w
Magna Carta or the Great Charter.

w
(ii) This Charter contained a promise that the king would respect certain liberties of the nobles
w
and the people of England.

(iii) The theory of the supremacy of the ruler which prevailed in the Holy Roman Empire was
not accepted in England.
(iv) King John of England was a contemporary of Sultan Iltutmish in India.
VII. Answer the following in detail:
1. Write a note on the following:
a) Persian wheel b) Fatehpur Sikri c) Darasuram Temple d) Hampi
Ans: (a) Persian wheel:
(i) The Persian wheel is a mechanical water lifting device.
(ii) It is usually operated by draught animals like bullocks, buffaloes or camels.
(iii) It is used to lift water from water sources typically open wells.
(iv) Since it was used in Persia got the name Persian wheel.
(b) Fatehpur Sikri:
(i) Fatehpur Sikri is a town in the Agra District in Uttar Pradesh.
(ii) The city was founded as the Capital of Mughal empire in 1571 by Emperor Akbar.
(iii) Fatehpur Sikri means the city of victory.
(iv) The Buland Darwaza was built in honour of his successful campaign in Gujarat.
100
101
Sura’s
(v) The city was built massively and preferably with red sand stone.
(vi) The city’s architecture reflects both the Hindu and Muslim form of domestic architecture
popular in India at that time.
(vii) Buland Darwaza, Jama masjid, Tomb of Salim Chirti, Panch Mahal, Naubat-khana, Birbal’s
House, Hiran Minar and other buildings are seen here.
(c) Darasuram Temple:
(i) Darasuram is a panchayat town, located 3 kilometres from Kumbakonam in Thanjavur
District, Tamilnadu.
(ii) The town is known for the Airavateswara temple constructed by Raja Raja Chola II in the
12th century A.D.
(iii) The temple is recognised UNESCO World Heritage Monument.
(iv) Darasuram temple is a storehouse of art and architecture.
(v) The vimana is 85 feet high.
(vi) With heavily ornamented pillars accurate in detail and richly sculpted walls, the

Airavateswara at Darasuram is a classic example of Chola art and architecture.
(d) Hampi:
(i) There are group of monuments in Hampi.
(ii) It is a UNESCO World Heritage site located in east central Karnataka .
(iii) It became the centre of the Hindu Vijayanagara Empire capital in the 14th century.
om
(iv) Located in Karnataka near the modern - era city of Hosapete, Hampi’s rains are spread
.c
over 4,100 hectares.
Padasalai
ks
(iii) Hampi continues to be an important religious centre, housing the Virupaksha temple, an
oo
active Adhi Sankara linked monastery and various monuments belonging to the old city.

ab
ur
.s
w
w
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101
 
Unit 7
UNIT TEST
History

I. Choose the correct answer: 3×1=3
1. The second largest stronghold of Ala-ud-din Khalji’s expanding Kingdom was ___________.
a) Dauladabad b) Delhi c) Madurai d) Bidar
2. The Deccan Sultanates were conquered by __________.
a) Ala-ud-din Khilji b) Ala-ud-din Bahman- shah
c) Aurangzeb d) Malik Kafur
3. The establishment of _________ empire changed the administrative and institutional
structures of South India.
a) Bahmani b) Vijayanagar c) Mughal d) Nayak
II. Find out the correct statement: 1×1=1
1. Statement (i): Gold images of great beauty and artistry were made by Cholas.
Statement (ii): The best example for Chola architecture is Siva as Nataraja performing
the cosmic dance.
a) (i) is correct (ii) is wrong b) Both (i) and (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong d) (i) is wrong, (ii) is correct
III. Fill in the blanks: om 3×1=3
1. Vijayanagara evolved as a _________.
The Europeans who arrived on the west coast of India were ___________.
.c
2.
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3. The enterprising period in the history of Tamil Nadu was ___________.
ks

oo
1. China - (a) Pepper

ab
2. India - (b) Ivory

Persia - (c) Surat
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3.
4. East Africa - (d) Dye woods
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5. Gujarat - (e) Silk

w
V. Answer all questions given under each heading: 4×1=4

w
w
1. The arrival of the Europeans

(a) Who controlled the spice trade from India?
(b) What enabled the Portuguese to have control over maritime trade over the entire region?
(c) How were the trading activities of the Europeans carried on in India?
(d) Mention the enclaves of the Dutch, the English, the French and the Danes in India?
VI. Answer the following briefly: 2×2=4
1. What is sericulture?
2. Mention the two natural advantages that India had in cotton weaving.
VII. Answer the following in detail: 1×5=5
1. Explain the commercial developments in Medieval India.
Answer Key
I 1) (a) Dauladabad 2) (c) Aurangzeb 3) (b) Vijayanagar
II 1) (i) is wrong (ii) is correct
III 1) Militaristic state 2) Portuguese 3) Chola Period
IV 1) - (e), 2) - (a), 3) - (d), 4) - (b), 5) - (c)
V 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.90 ; Q. No. V- 1.
VI 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No..89 ; Q. No. VI- 5.
2) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.89; Q. VI - 3.
VII 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.90; Q. No.VII - 2.
102
Sura’s  9th Std  History  08- The Beginning of the 103
UNIT
08 The Beginning of the
Modern Age
EXERCISE

1. Who among the following is known as the Father of Humanism?
a) Leonardo da Vinci b) Francisco Petrarch
The Beginning of the Model Age

c) Erasmus d) Thomas More
[Ans: (b)Francisco Petrarch]
2. The School of Athens was painted by __________.
om
a) Raphael Sanzio b) Michelangelo
.c
Padasalai
ks
c) Albrecht Durer d) Leonardo da Vinci

oo
[Ans: (a) Raphael Sanzio]

ab
3. William Harvey discovered ____________.

a) Heliocentric theory b) Geocentric theory
ur
c) Gravitational force d) Circulation of blood

.s
w
[Ans: (d) Circulation of blood]

w
4. Who wrote the 95 Theses?

w
a) Martin Luther b) Zwingli c) John Calvin d) Thomas More

[Ans: (a) Martin Luther]
5. Who wrote the book Institutes of Christian Religion?
a) Martin Luther b) Zwingli c) John Calvin d) Cervantes
[Ans: (c) John Calvin]
6. Which sailor was the first to cross the Equator?
a) Henry, the Navigator b) Lopo Gonzalves
c) Bartholomew Diaz d) Christopher Columbus
[Ans: (b) Lopo Gonzalves]
7. __________ named the sea as Pacific Ocean as it was very calm.
a) Columbus b) Amerigo Vespucci
c) Ferdinand Magellan d) Vasco-da-gama
[Ans: (c) Ferdinand Magellan]
103
 
Unit 8
8. The continent of America was named after _____________.
History
a) Amerigo Vespucci b) Christopher Columbus

c) Vasco da Gama d) Hernando Cortez
[Ans: (a) Amerigo Vespucci]
9. ___________ was the headquarters of the Portuguese possession in the East.
a) Manila b) Bombay c) Pondicherry d) Goa
[Ans: (d) Goa]
10. Which among the following plants were introduced from America to Europe?
a) Sugarcane b Sweet Potato c) Rice d) Wheat
[Ans: (b) Sweet Potato]
1. In 1453 Constantinople was captured by _____________. [Ans: Ottoman Turks]
2. _______ was known as Prince among Humanists. [Ans: Erasmus]
3. ______ is famous for his paintings in the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel. [Ans: Michelangelo]
4. The reformation of the Catholic Church is known as _________.
[Ans: Counter Reformation]
om
5. The chief features of Commercial Revolution were ________, ______ and _______.
.c
[Ans: Banking, Joint-stock companies, growth of trade]
Padasalai
ks

oo
ab
1. (a) Martin Luther broke away from the Catholic Church because he was discriminated.
(b) John Calvin’s government in Geneva was liberal and fun-filled.
ur
(c) King Henry VIII had deep theological differences with the Catholic Church.
.s
(d) Council of Trent reemphasized the importance of ceremonies and significance of the
w
w
mass [Ans: (d) is correct]

w
2. (a) Discovery of new lands and sea routes shifted the economic centre from Italian city
states to Spain and Portugal.
(b) Horses were native to America.
(c) During the begining of the Modern Age, State did not interfere in economic activities.
(d) The Portuguese collaborated with the Arabs in its trading activities in India.
[Ans: (a) is correct]
1. Feudalism – i) Monopoly Trade
2. Humanism – ii) Trial of Heretics
3. Inquisition – iii) Movement of goods between America and Europe
4. Mercantilism – iv) Hierarchical socio-economic structure
5. Columbian Exchange – v) Human dignity
Ans: 1. - (iv), 2. - (v), 3. - (ii), 4. - (i), 5. - (iii)
104
105
Sura’s
08- The Beginning of the
V. Answer the following questions briefly
1. Explain how the invention of printing press influenced Renaissance, Reformation and
Geographical discoveries.
Ans: (i) The printing press enabled the production of multiple copies of a manuscript and their
spread all over western Europe.
(ii) In less than fifty years after the invention of the Gutenberg printing press, about six million
books had been printed.
(iii) The invention of printing press not only spread knowledge widely, but also promoted
critical thinking.
2. Write a short note on the impact of Renaissance.
Ans: (i) Renaissance most important contribution was the idea of humanism.
(ii) It marked a definite shift towards individualism, secularism and nationalism.
(iii) The introduction and practice of writing in the vernacular, starting from Dante, enriched
the growth of vernacular languages.
(iv) Renaissance made a beginning in criticizing the corrupt and worldly practices of the Church.
The Beginning of the Model Age

(v) The curiosity kindled by the renaissance played a decisive role in the discovery of new
land routes and remapping of the world.
(vi) The spirit of adventurism and quest for knowledge impelled the mariners to sail into the
om
high seas.
.c
3. Outline the differences of Martin Luther with the Catholic Church.
Padasalai
ks
Ans: (i) Martin Luther rejected the belief that ceremonies and penances would lead to salvation.
oo
(ii) He argued that it was by faith alone that one could attain salvation.
ab
(iii) The grace of God would be bestowed by the divine will alone and not by the deeds of the
people.
ur
(iv) Further, the Bible could be read and interpreted by all and not by the Church alone.
.s
w
(v) Thus, he rejected the role of the Church as an intermediary between the individual and
w
God.
w
4. Write a brief note on Counter Reformation.

Ans: (i) The Protestant reformation posed a threat to the Catholic Church.
(ii) In order to meet the challenge, Pope Paul III and his successors introduced a number of
rigorous reforms in the Church. They dealt with corruption severely and stopped the sale
of offices.
(iii) The Council of Trent reemphasized the importance of ceremonies and the significance of
the mass.
(iv) Further, it revitalized the Inquisition to deal with opposition to the Church. It also gave
official sanction to the Society of Jesus.
(v) This reformation of the Catholic Church from within is known as Counter Reformation.
5. What is Columbian Exchange?
Ans: (i) One of the most important outcomes of the conquest of Americas by the European colonial
powers was the movement of plants, animals, technology, culture and strange diseases
between the Americas and Europe or between the New World and the Old World.
(ii) This is known as Columbian Exchange.
105
 
Unit 8
(x) This provided stimulus to the flowering of renaissance.
UNIT TEST
History
Time : 40 Minutes  Marks: 25

1. William Harvey discovered ____________.
a) Heliocentric theory b) Geocentric theory
c) Gravitational force d) Circulation of blood
2. Who wrote the 95 Theses?
a) Martin Luther b) Zwingli c) John Calvin d) Thomas More
3. Which sailor was the first to cross the Equator?
a) Henry, the Navigator b) Lopo Gonzalves
c) Bartholomew Diaz d) Christopher Columbus
4. The headquarters of the Portuguese possession in the East was___________.
a) Calicut b) Bombay c) Pondicherry d) Goa
II. Fill in the blanks: 2×1=2
1. In 1453 Constantinople was captured by _____________.
2. The reformation of the Catholic Church is known as _________________.
III. Find out the correct statement: 1×1=1
1. a) Martin Luther broke away from the Catholic Church because he was discriminated.
om
b) John Calvin’s government in Geneva was liberal and fun-filled.
.c
c) King Henry VIII had deep theological differences with the Catholic Church.
Padasalai
ks
d) Council of Trent reemphasized the importance of ceremonies and significance of the .

IV. Match the Following:
oo
5×1=5
1. The Last Supper - (a) Azores
ab
2. The Prince - (b) Italy

ur
3. Island - (c) Leonardo da Vinci

4. Anglican Church - (d) Machiavelli
.s
5. Florence - (e) Henry VIII

w
V. Answer the following briefly: 2×2=4

w
1. What is Columbian Exchange?

w
2. Outline the differences of Martin Luther with the Catholic Church.

VI. Answer all questions given under the heading: 4×1=4
1. Vasco da Gama:
(a) When did Vasco da Gama sailed from Portugal?
(b) Where did he reach in Africa?
(c) Where did he reach on the Malabar Coast?
(d) Why was Vasco da Gama astounded?
VII. Answer the following in detail: 1×5=5
1. Examine the outcome of the Geographical Discoveries.
Answer Key
I. 1) (d) Circulation of blood 2) (a) Martin Luther 3) (b) Lopo Gonzalves 4) (d) Goa
II. 1) Ottoman Turks 2) Counter Reformation
III. d) is correct
IV. 1) - (c), 2) - (d), 3 - (a), 4) - (e), 5) - (b)
V. 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.105 ; Q. No.V - 5.
2) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.105; Q. No.V - 3.
VI. 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.114 ; Q. No.VI - 7.
VII. 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.108 ; Q. No. VII - 2.
116
Sura’s  9th Std  History  09- The Age of Revolutions 117
UNIT
09 The Age of Revolutions
EXERCISE

1. The first British colony in America was _______________ .
a) New York b) Philadelphia c) Jamestown d) Amsterdam
[Ans: (c) Jamestown]
2. The pioneer of French Revolution who fought on the side of Washington against the British
was _______________ .
a) Mirabeau b) Lafayette c) Napoleon
om d) Danton
[Ans: (b) Lafayette]
The Age of Revolution

.c
Padasalai
ks
3. Lafayette, Thomas Jefferson and Mirabeau wrote the _______________ .

oo
a) Declaration of Independence b) Declaration of Pilnitz

c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen d) Human Rights Charter
ab
[Ans: (c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen ]

ur
4. The defeat of British at ___________ paved the way for the friendship between France
.s
and America.
w
a) Trenton b) Saratoga c) Pennsylvania d) New York

w
[Ans: (b) Saratoga]

w
5. _______________ was the symbol of “Royal Despotism” in France.

a) Versailles Palace b) Prison of Bastille c) Paris Commune d) Estates General
[Ans: (a) Versailles Palace]
6. The forces of Austria and Prussia were defeated by the French Revolutionary forces at
_______________.
a) Verna b) Versailles c) Pilnitz d) Valmy
[Ans: (d) Valmy]
7. Candide was written by _______________ .
a) Voltaire b) Rousseau c) Montesquieu d) Danton
[Ans: (a) Voltaire]
8. The moderate liberals who wanted to retain Louis XVI as a limited monarchy were called
_______________ .
a) Girondins b) Jacobins c) Emigres d) Royalists
[Ans: (a) Girondins]
117
 
Unit 9
9. American War of Independence was ended with the Peace of Paris in the year ___________ .
History
a) 1776 b) 1779 c) 1781 d) 1783

[Ans: (d) 1783]
10. Thomas Paine’s famous pamphlet was _______________ .
a) Common Sense b) Rights of Man
c) Bill of Rights d) Abolition of Slavery
[Ans: (a) Common Sense]

1. The Postmaster General of the Postal Department of the government of Continental Congress
was _______________ . [Ans: Benjamin Franklin]
2. The battle of Bunker Hill was fought on _______________. [Ans: 17th June 1775]
3. The _____________ Act insisted on repaying the debt in gold or silver. [Ans: Currency]
4. The leader of National Assembly of France was _______________. [Ans: Mirabeau]
5. _______________ was guillotined for organizing a Festival of Liberty. [Ans: Herbert]
6. Louis XVI was arrested at _______________ with his family when he tried to escape from
France. [Ans: Varennes]
om
III. Choose the correct statement
.c
(i) The Portuguese were the pioneers of naval expeditions.
Padasalai
1.
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(ii) New Plymouth was named after the Quaker Penn.

oo
(iii) Quakers have the reputation of encouraging wars.

ab
(iv) The English changed the name of New Amsterdam to New York.
a) (i) & (ii) are correct b) (iii) is correct c) (iv) is correct d) (i) & (iv) are correct
ur
[Ans: (c) (iv) is correct]

.s
w
2. (i) The American War of Independence was as much a civil war as a war against the
w
British.
w
(ii) The British forces emerged victorious in York Town.

(iii) The nobles in France were supportive of the rising middle class.
(iv) The British Parliament repealed the Townshend Act except the tax on paper.
a) (i) & (ii) are correct b) (iii) is correct c) (iv) is correct d) (i) & (iv) are correct
[Ans: * (i) is correct]
3. Assertion (A): Merchants of Boston boycotted the British goods
Reason (R): The British Finance Minister introduced new duties on imports into
American colonies
a) A is correct and R is not the explanation of A
b) A is incorrect and R is not the explanation of A
c) A is correct and R is the explanation of A
d) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are incorrect [Ans: (c) A is correct and R is the explanation of A]
4. Assertion (A): There was a massive peasant revolt in the Vendee against conscriptions.
Reason (R): The peasants as supporters of the king did not like to fight against him.
a) Both A and R are incorrect b) Both A and R are correct
c) A is correct and R is incorrect d) A is incorrect and R is correct
[Ans: (c) A is correct and R is incorrect]
118
121
Sura’s
09- The Age of Revolutions
VII. Answer in detail
1. “Taxation without Representation” led to the outbreak of American War of Independence
– Explain
Ans: (i) A Series of taxes were imposed on the colonists, when the Americans did not have
representation in the British Parliament.
(ii) The Sugar Act of 1764, the Currency Act, the Quartering Act of 1765 and the Stamp Act
of 1765 - all their Act were protested by the American Colonists.
(iii) They called for a boycott of trade with Britain until the taxes were withdrawn.
(iv) The Townshend Acts of 1767 added fuel to the fire. Merchants of Boston organised boy
cott of British Goods.
(v) When Townshend Acts were repealed retaining tax, on tea, it led to the incident of Boston
tea party.
(vi) In December 1773, a group of men disguised themselves as Native Americans boarded the
cargo vessels and threw the tea overboard.
(vii) This incident, known as Boston Tea Party, was done publicly before a large sympathetic
crowd. It was a challenge which led to war between the rebellious colonies and England.
(viii)George Washington became the colonist’s Commander-in-chief and the colonists challenged
the right of the British Parliament to tax them against their will.
om
(ix) “No taxation without representation” was their famous battle cry.

.c
2. Highlight the contribution of French Philosophers to the Revolution of 1789.
Padasalai
ks
Ans: (i) There were many notable thinkers and writers in France in eighteenth century.
oo
(ii) Voltaire, Montesquieu and Rousseau criticized the then existing conditions in France.
(iii) Voltaire was vehement in his criticism of the Church.
ab
(iv) His famous quote was: “Those who can make you believe absurdities can make you commit
ur
atrocities.”
.s
(v) Rousseau’s political theory set the minds of many afire with new ideas and new resolves.
w
His ideas played an important part in preparing the people of France for the great revolution.
w
(vi) He argued that the laws are binding only when they are supported by the general will of
w
the people.
(vii) Montesquieu defended liberty. He put forward the theory of separation of powers.
(viii)An Encyclopaedia also came out in Paris about this time and this was full of articles by
Diderot and Jean d’Alembert.
(ix) These philosophers and thinkers, opposed to religious intolerance and political and social
privileges, succeeded in provoking large numbers of ordinary people to think and act.
Activity
1. If any Government becomes bankrupt like the Government of Louis XVI, what measures
do you think are required to overcome the crisis.
Ans: (i) At the bankrupting level, seek the advice from a professional to manage the situation.
(ii) Avoid unwanted expenditure.
(iii) Maintaining low-interest rate is one way to seek to stimulate the economy.
(iv) Tax increases are common tactic. Cut spending and raise taxes.
(v) While there are variety of methods countries have employed at various times and with
various degrees of success. Just as spending cuts and tax hikes have demonstrated success,
defaulting on the debt has worked for more than a few nations.
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 
Unit 9
2. Attempt a comparative study of American War of Independence and Indian Independence
History
Movement.
Ans: (i) The American struggle for independence was definitely very different nationalist uprisings
in other colonies of the British in the East.
(ii) In America it was the British settlers who entered into a bitter scuffle with British government
authorities.
(iii) In colonies like India the natives rose unanimously against the tyranny of the rules from
the west.
(iv) However, the echoes of the American uprising often found themselves penetrating into the
writing and speeches of nationalists in the East.
(v) In his call to Indians to resist British domination Mahatma Gandhi often referred to and
drew inspiration from the American revolution.
(vi) On January 4, 1932, when Gandhi actively propagating.
(vii) ‘Satyagraha’ he wrote the following message, “Even as America won its independence
through suffering, valour and sacrifice, so shall India, in God’s good time achieve her
freedom by suffering, sacrifice and Non violence”.
Assignment
1. Attempting an account of Bastille prison.
om
Ans. The Storming of the Bastille took place in Paris, France on July 14, 1789. This violent attack on
the government by the people of France signaled the start of the French Revolution.
.c
Padasalai
The Bastille was a fortress built in the late 1300s to protect Paris during the Hundred Years’ War.
ks
By the late 1700s, the Bastille was mostly used as a state prison by King Louis XVI.
oo
The revolutionaries who stormed the Bastille were mostly craftsmen and store owners who
ab
lived in Paris. They were members of a French social class called the Third Estate. There were
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around 1000 men who participated in the attack.

.s
The Bastille was rumoured to be full of political prisoners and was a symbol to many of the
w
oppression of the king. It also had stores of gunpowder that the revolutionaries needed for their
w
weapons.
w
On the morning of July 14, the revolutionaries approached the Bastille. They demanded that
the military leader of the Bastille, Governor de Launay, surrender the prison and hand over the
gunpowder. He refused.
In the early afternoon, the crowd managed to get into the courtyard. They began to break into the
main fortress. The soldiers in the Bastille became scared and fired into the crowd. The fighting
had began. The turning point in the fight came when some of the soldiers joined the side of the
crowd.
Governor De Launay soon realized that the situation was hopeless. He surrendered the fort and
the revolutionaries took control.
Around 100 of the revolutionaries were killed during the fighting. After surrendering, Governor
De Launay and three of his officers were killed by the crowd.
The storming of the Bastille set off a series of events that led to the overthrow of King Louis
XVI and the French Revolution. The success of the revolutionaries gave commoners throughout
France the courage to rise up and fight against the nobles who had ruled them for so long.
The date of the Storming of the Bastille, July 14, is celebrated today as the French National Day.
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Sura’s
2. Reading the essence of Les Miserable (a historical novel by Victor Hugo)
Ans. Les Miserable by Victor Hugo
Les Miserable is a French historical novel by Victor Hugo, first published in 1862. It is considered
as one of the greatest novels of the 19th century.
The story is set between 1815 and 1832. The main character is Jean Valijean. He is an ex-convict,
who is struggling with sorting his life out. He has been imprisoned because he stole bread to
feed his starving family.
After he is released, he is forced to carry a yellow badge that identifies him as being an ex-
convict. He is looked down upon because he is publicly known as a criminal. He later gets a
new identity and raises a family.
Examining the nature of law and grace, the novel elaborates upon the history of France, the
architecture and urban design of Paris, politics, moral philosophy, antimonarchism, justice,
religion, and the types and nature of romantic and familial love. It focuses on the struggle that
an ex-convict had to endure throughout his life.
ADDITIONAL
om

.c
The ship Mayflower had taken a batch of Puritans from __________ England.
Padasalai
1.
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(a) London (b) Plymouth (c) Ireland (d) New south wales
oo
[Ans: (b) Plymouth]

ab
2. Which one of the following was not an American colony of the British on the East?
ur
(a) Virginia (b) Georgia (c) Seattle (d) Delaware

.s
[Ans: (c) Seattle]

w
3. Which of the following Acts required the colonies to pay for the cost of keeping British
w
troops in America?
w
(a) Stamp Act (b) Townshend Act (c) Sugar Act (d) Quartering Act
[Ans: (d) Quartering Act]
4. The first president of the American Republic was __________.
(a) George Washington (b) Thomas Jefferson (c) Andrew Jackson (d) Mirabeau
[Ans: (a) George Washington]
5. Who was not a member of the Second Continental Congress?
(a) Sam Adams (b) General Gage (c) John Adams (d) Thomas Jefferson
[Ans: (b) General Gage]
6. The book ‘Social Contract’ was written by __________.
(a) Rousseau (b) Montesquieu (c) Voltaire (d) Diderot
[Ans: (a) Rousseau]
7. The hardcore republicans were the __________.
(a) Nobles of the sword (b) Jacobins
(c) Nobles of the robe (d) Girondins [Ans: (b) Jacobins]
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 
Unit 9
8. Marat played a major role in _________
History
(a) Battle of Bunker Hill (b) Reign of Terror

(c) September Massacres (d) Paris Commune
[Ans: (c) September Massacres]
9. The first consul was ________
(a) Thomas Jefferson (b) Rousseau (c) Robespierre (d) NapoleonBonaparte
[Ans: (d) Napoleon Bonaparte]
1. The Sugar Act of 1764 prohibited the import of _______________ . [Ans: Foreign rum]
2. The _______________ acted like a political party and instilled a new political awareness.
[Ans: Sons of Liberty]
3. The Declaratory Act affirmed _____________ right to legislate for the colonies.
[Ans: Parliaments]
4. The _______________ led to intense anti-British propaganda through newspapers, posters and
pamphlets. [Ans: Boston Massacre]
5. In May 1774, in the Virginia Assembly, Thomas Jefferson declared that _______________
would be a day of fasting and prayer. [Ans: 1 June 1774 ]
6. The first Continental Congress met in _______________.
om [Ans: Philadelphia]
7. The Patriot militia force of _______________ captured Fort Ticonderoga in New York.
.c
[Ans: Green Mountain Boys]
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8. The Americans were divided among themselves as Patriots and _____________ .

oo
[Ans: Loyalists]
ab
9. The Continental Congress had drafted the _____________.[Ans: Articles of Confederation]

10. The French Monarchy of the _______________ had enjoyed unchallenged power for 140 years.
ur
[Ans: Ancient Regime]

.s
11. Turgot, Necker, Calonne and Brienne were the _______________ of the French King.
w
[Ans: Finance Ministers]

w
w
III. Choose the correct statement

1. (i) The persecution of Puritans prompted many to leave England and settle.
(ii) George Fox was the founder of the society in England.
(iii) In the Northern states, planters were in need of slaves.
(iv) Americans had good representation in the British parliament.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (iii) is correct
c) (iv) is correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct
[Ans: (a) (i) and (ii) are correct]
2. (i) The Second Continental Congress met in September 1774, at Philadelphia.
(ii) The Loyalists were better organized than the patriots.
(iii) After the battle of York town, Cornwallis lost the confidence of the successive British
Governments.
(iv) One of the results of the American war of Independence was the separation of the
church and the state.
a) (i) and (iv) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iv) is correct d) (ii) is correct
[Ans: (c) (iv) is correct]
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Sura’s
(iii) In September 1793, the Convention passed the Law of Suspects, and under that law, after a
month later twenty two Girondins were tried by the Revolutionary Tribunal and sentenced
to death.
(iv) ‘Reign of Terror’ began with this incident.
23. When did the Reign of Terror end?
Ans: (i) The ‘Reign of Terror’ lasted for forty six days.
(ii) On 27 July 1794, the Convention suddenly turned against Robespierre and his supporters.
(iii) The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of Robespierre.
(iv) Robespierre, the dictator of the Convention, though he was honest, patriotic and a person
of integrity, earned notoriety by sending many of his colleagues to the guillotine.
(v) In October 1795 the Convention broke up and a Directory of five members assumed power.
24. How did Napolean became the Emperor of France?
Ans: (i) The Directory was short lived and was replaced by the Consulate with Napoleon as the
first Consul.
(ii) This Consulate was abolished by Napoleon Bonaparte, who later crowned himself as the
Emperor of France.
VI. Answer all questions given under each heading om

1. Plantations and the slave labour

.c
(a) Why did the southern states resort to acquire slaves from Africa?
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ks
Ans: The Native Americans resisted attempts to make them work in the plantations, So the European
oo
planters, chiefly of tobacco, in the southern states– Virginia, Carolinas and Georgia – in their
ab
search for labour resorted to acquire slaves from Africa.

(b) How were these slaves treated?
ur
Ans: The innocent people of Africa were captured in man-hunts and sent across the seas in a cruel
.s
and inhuman manner.

w
w
(c) Did the Northern state resort to acquire slaves? Give reasons.
w
Ans: In the northern States conditions were different. There were compact farms, and not huge
plantations as in the south. Large numbers of workers were not needed for these farms.
(d) What happened to the Native Americans?
Ans: Native Americans had no place in either of these. So these people were gradually pushed back
to the west.
2. Increasing incidence of Taxation
(a) What was the Sugar Act?
Ans: The Sugar Act of 1764 prohibited the import of foreign rum and imposed duties on molasses,
wines, silks, coffee and other luxury items.
(b) What was the Currency Act?
Ans: The Currency Act insisted on colonies repaying the debt only in gold or silver.
(c) Explain the Quartering Act.
Ans: The Quartering Act of 1765 required the colonies to pay for the cost of keeping British troops
in America.
(d) What was the stamp Act?
Ans: The Stamp Act of 1765 required that any printed materials in the colonies be produced on
stamped paper produced in London, carrying an embossed revenue stamp.
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 
Unit 9
3. American war of Independence
History
(a) Who was appointed as commander-in-chief by the colonists?

Ans: George Washington was appointed as the commander-in-chief by the colonists.
(b) What were the grievances of the colonists?
Ans: Their grievances were taxation and restrictions on trade and not to seek independence.
(c) What was their famous battle cry?
Ans: ‘No Taxation without representation’ - was their famous battle cry.
(d) Who was appointed as the Governor of Massachusetts?
Ans: The British government appointed General Gage as Governor of Massachusetts.
4. Declaration of Independence
(a) When was the pamphlet Common Sense published?
Ans: In January 1776, the pamphlet ‘Common Sense’ was published.
(b) Who moved a resolution for independence?
Ans: On June 7, 1776, Richarad Henry Lee of Virginia moved a resolution for independence.
(c) Who drafted Declaration of Independence? When was it adopted by the Congress?
Ans: Thomas Jefferson drafted the Declaration for Independence. It was adopted by the Congress
on July 4, 1776.
(d) Mention the significance of this day.
om
Ans: July 4 is the day celebrated by the Americans as Independence Day.
.c
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5. The French Revolution

oo
(a) When did the French Revolution explode?

Ans: The French Revolution exploded in 1789.
ab
(b) Who summoned the Estates General on May 1789?

ur
Ans: Louis XVI to summoned the Estates General on May 1789.

.s
(c) What was Estates General?

w
Ans: The Estates General consisted of the representatives of three classes or “estates,” as they were
w
w
called.
(d) What was the reaction of the commons towards the king?
Ans: The commons had refused either to bow to the nobles or to obey the orders of the King. By
taking “Tennis Court oath” they demanded a constitution from the king. This was the begining
of the French Revolution in 1789.
6. The French Philosophers
(a) Mention the famous quote of Voltaire.
Ans: Voltaire’s most famous quote was: “Those who can make you believe absurdities can make you
commit atrocities.”
(b) What was famously said by Rousseau in his ‘Social Contract’.
Ans: Rousseau famously said in his book Social Contract: “Man is born free, but is everywhere in
chains.”
(c) Who wrote the ‘Persian Letters’
Ans: Montesquieu wrote the ‘Persian Letters’.
(d) What was the impact of these Philosophers on the French society?
Ans: These philosophers and thinkers, opposed to religious intolerance and political and social
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131
Sura’s
7. Flight to Varennes
(a) Why did the king decide to escape from Paris?
Ans: The king’s position was increasingly shaky. He was not able to reconcile to the legislations
passed by the National Assembly. He decided to escape from Paris.
(b) Where did he is escape to?
Ans: Dressing himself as a valet, he escaped along with his family to Varennes, a border town.
(c) Who arrested him?
Ans: But he was recognised there by a postman, and was arrested by the National Guards.
(d) Where was he placed virtually a prisoner?
Ans: He was brought back to Paris where he remained in Paris virtually a prisoner.
8. Constitution of 1791
(a) Who framed the first constitution?
Ans: In September 1791, the National Assembly framed the first constitution.
(b) What did it provide for?
Ans: It provided for a constitutional monarchy.
(c) What type of Legislature was to be formed?
Ans: The Legislature consisted of a single chamber of 750 members. The franchise was limited to
those who owned a certain amount of property.
om

.c
(d) What was the role of the king?
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ks
Ans: The king continued be the Executive Head, but his powers were considerably limited.
oo
9. Robespierre
ab
(a) Who was Robespierre?

ur
Ans: Robespierre was one of the main leaders of the National Convention. He controlled the committee
.s
of public safety and eliminated his rivals.

w
(b) What type of person was he?

w
Ans: He was honest, patriotic and a person of integrity. But he became the dictator of the Convention,
w
earned notoriety by sending many of his colleagues to the guillotine.

(c) What was the Law of Suspects?
Ans: Under the law of suspects, large group of persons were tried together and sentenced. This Terror
lasted for forty six days.
(d) What happened to Robespierre?
Ans: On 27 July 1794, the convention suddenly turned against Robespierre and his supporters. The
Reign of Terror ended with the fall of the Robespierre.
VII. Answer in detail

1. How did the American war of Independence end in the declaration of independence?
Ans: (i) Initially the colonies did not begin fighting for the sake of independence. Their grievances
were taxation and restrictions on trade.
(ii) George Washington was the Commender-in-Chief of the colonies and their battle cry was
‘No Taxation without Representation’.
(iii) On 5 September 1774, the first Continental Congress met in Philadelphia. The Congress
adopted a Declaration of American Rights.
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 
Unit 9
(iv) The Battle of Bunker Hill signaled the outbreak of the American war of Independence.
History
(v) The second Continental Congress met on 10 May 1775 at Philadelphia. It organised the
army gathered around Boston as the continental army and placed it under the command of
George Washington.
(vi) As the war progressed, the Continental Congress assumed the functions of government. A
committee was formed to explore the possibility of foreign aid.
(vii) On 17 June 1775 the Battle of Bunker Hill, the first major battle was fought in Massachusetts.
Soon the British forces retreated from Boston.
(viii)On June 7, 1776 Richard Henry Lee of Virginia moved a resolution for independence.
(ix) After much debate the Declaration of Independence, drafted by Thomas Jefferson, was
adopted by the Congress on July 4, 1776. This day is celebrated by the Americans as
Independence Day.
2. State the results of the American war of Independence.
Ans: (i) For the first time a colonial power was overthrown by the colonies, leading to the
establishment of a republican government in the United States.
(ii) The Declaration of Independence of 1776 stated that, “all men are born equal.” But in
reality America had to fight a bitter civil war in the succeeding century to abolish slavery.
(iii) By 1777 nearly all the colonies had a written constitution . These constitutions protected
om
individual rights, freedom of press and freedom of religion. The church and the state were
separated.
.c
(iv) The intellectuals of the time believed that the republican state was the only political structure
Padasalai
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in which individuals could preserve their basic freedom including property and political
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rights.
(v) The conception of people’s right to a government of their choice encouraged the Latin
ab
American revolutionaries to strive for the overthrow of the Spanish empire in South America.
ur
(vi) Mirabeau quoted the Declaration of Independence with enthusiasm during the French
.s
Revolution.
w
(vii) Lafayette, who fought the British on Washington’s side through to the conclusive battle at
w
Yorktown in 1781, later during the French Revolution served the French National Guard
w
as its Commander.
3. Ring out the impact of the French Revolution.
Ans: (i) The French Revolution had may lasting results.
(ii) It marked the end of the system of absolute monarchy in France.
(iii) All feudal privileges were abolished and the power of clergy was curbed.
(iv) The Revolution united the people of different sections and paved the way for the enhanced
power of the state.
(v) It also led to the growth of feelings of nationalism and the emergence of an assertive middle
class.
(vi) Revolution upheld the theory of people’s sovereignty and laid the foundation for the birth
of liberal constitutional governments in Europe.
(vii) Liberty, equality, and fraternity became the watchwords of freedom loving people all over
the world.
(viii)It inspired many later day political movements for the establishment of liberal democracy
in Europe and elsewhere.

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133
Sura’s
09- The Age of Revolution
UNIT TEST
I. Choose the correct answer: 2× 1 = 2 2. Assertion (A): There was a massive

peasant revolt in the Vendee against
1. The symbol of “Royal Despotism” in conscriptions.
France was __________. Reason (R): T h e p e a s a n t s a s
a) Versailles Palace supporters of the king did not like to
b) Prison of Bastille fight against him.
a) Both A and R are incorrect
c) Paris Commune
b) Both A and R are correct
d) Estates General
c) A is correct and R is incorrect
2. American war of Independence was d) A is incorrect and R is correct
ended with the Peace of Paris in the year
__________ . IV. Match the Following: 3×1=3
(a) 1776 (b) 1779 1. Turgot – (i) Britain and France
(c) 1781 (d) 1783 2. Seven years war – (ii) Montesquieu
II. Fill in the Blanks: 3× 1 = 3 3. The Spirit of laws – (iii) Finance Minister
1. The leader of National Assembly of France V. Answer the following briefly:3 × 2 = 6

om
was __________. 1. Who were Puritans? Why did they leave
Revolution
.c
England?
Louis XVI was arrested at _____ with his
Padasalai
2.
ks
2. Explain the composition of “Three Estates

family when he tried to escape from France. of France”.
oo
Revolution
of
3. The _____ Act insisted on repaying the debt 3. What were the taxes the peasants had to pay
ab
in gold or silver. in France on the eve of Revolution?
Age
ur
VI. Answer the questions given under
Theof
III. Choose the correct answer: 2 × 1 = 2
each caption: 4×1=4
.s
The Age
1. (i) The Portuguese were the pioneers
w
of naval expeditions. 1. Townshend Act

w
(ii) New Plymouth was named after the (a) Who introduced this Act?
w
Quaker Penn. (b) In which year was this Act passed?

(iii) Quakers have the reputation of (c) Why did the colonists oppose the Act?
encouraging wars. (d) Why did the merchants of Boston
(iv) The English changed the name of oppose British goods?
New Amsterdam to New York.
VII. Answer the following in detail:1 × 5 = 5
a) (i) & (ii) are correct
b) (iii) is correct 1. Highlight the contribution of French
c) (iv) is correct Philosophers to the Revolution of 1789.
d) (i) & (iv) are correct
Answer Key
I. 1) (a) Versailles Palace 2) (d) 1783
II. 1) Mirabean 2) Varennes 3) Currency Act
III. 1) c) iv is correct, 2) (c) A is correct and R is incorrect
IV. 1. - (iii), 2. - (i), 3. - (ii)
V. 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.119 ; Q. No.VI - 1.
2) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.119 ; Q. No.VI - 5.
VI. 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.120 ; Q. No.V - 1.
VII. Refer Sura’s Guide Page No. 121 ; Q. No. VII - 2.
133
134 Sura’s  9th Std - Term I  Social Science
Unit 10
UNIT
10
History
Industrial Revolution
EXERCISE

1. Who established the first steam boat service?
a) Arkwright b) Samuel Crompton
c) Robert Fulton d) James Watt [Ans: (c) Robert Fulton]
2. Why was Manchester considered ideal for textile production?
a) availability of land b) rich human resources
c) better living condition om
d) cool climate [Ans: (d) cool climate]
Who invented the sewing machine?
.c
3.
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a) Elias Howe b) Eli–Whitney

c) Samuel Crompton d) Humphrey Davy [Ans: (a) Elias Howe]
oo
4. Which family introduced steam engine in France?

ab
a) de Wendel b) de Hindal c) de Arman d) de Renault

ur
[Ans: (a) de Wendel]

.s
5. Who called Slater, the father of American Industrial Revolution?

w
a) F.D. Roosevelt b) Andrew Jackson

w
c) Winston Churchill d) Woodrow Wilson

w
[Ans: (b) Andrew Jackson]

6. Which of the following is observed to commemorate the Hay Market Massacre?
a) Independence Day b) Farmers Day c) Labour Day d) Martyrs Day
[Ans: (c) Labour Day]
7. Where was Zollverein Customs Union formed?
a) England b) Germany c) France d) America
[Ans: (b) Germany]
8. Who produced the first batch of automobiles in France?
a) Louis Renault b) Armand Peugeot
c) Thomas Alva Edison d) McAdam [Ans: (b) Armand Peugeot]
9. What was the invention that removed seeds from cotton?
a) Rolling Mill b) Cotton Gin c) Spinning Mule d) Spinning Jenny
[Ans: (b) Cotton Gin]
10. Which of the following was used as fuel in olden days to smelt iron?
a) Coke b) Charcoal c) Firewood d) Paper
[Ans: (b) Charcoal]
134
(c) Extinct or Dead Volcano:
When a volcano permanently stops its volcanic activity, then it is called an extinct or dead
volcano. Eg: Mt. Kilimanjaro, Tanzania.
4. Explain the effects of Volcanoes.
Ans: Effects of volcanoes can be given under two groups as constructive effects and destructive effects.
(a) Constructive Effects:
(i) Volcanic materials enrich the soil fertility that promotes agricultural activities.
(ii) The hot volcanic regions helps in generating geothermal energy.
(iii) Many dormant and active volcanoes are the most attractive tourist spots of the world.
(iv) Most of the volcanic materials are used as building materials.
(b) Destructive Effects:
(i) Volcanic eruption causes earthquakes fast floods and mud slide and rock fall.
Lithosphere - I Exogenetic Processes

(ii) Lava can travel very far and burn, bury or damage anything in its path.
(iii) The large amount of dust and ash makes breathing hard and irritable.
(iv) V om
olcanic eruptions can alter the weather conditions and disrupt transport (Iceland
volcanic eruption) in and around the volcanic region.
.c
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ab
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w
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169
VIII. Map Skill
On the given outline map of the world, mark the following:
a. Pacific Ring of fire
b. Earthquake prone zones (any two)
c. Locate any two active volcanoes of the world.
d. Himalayas and Alps ranges
e. Rift valley of East Africa.
prone zone)
(Earthquake
Japan
Geography
Himalayas
Range
om
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ab
ur Alps
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w
w
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Not to Scale
170
IX. HOTS
1. Consider the various sources of information related to the Earth’s Interior. Classify the
above as DIRECT & INDIRECT sources of information. Give reasons
(a) Seismic activity (b) Earth‘s magnetism
(c) Volcanoes (d) Mined rocks
(e) Gravitational force (f) Meteors.
Ans: Earth’s Interior
Direct Sources Indirect Sources

Seismic Activity
Volcanoes Gravitational force

Earth’s Magnetism
Mined rocks Meteors
1. T he knowledge about the interior of the earth is obtained through direct sources and indirect
om
sources.
.c
2. Direct sources are not very reliable, because mining and drilling can be done only upto
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some depth only.

Direct Sources:
oo
Volcanoes: Volcanic eruption suggests that there is same zone inside the Earth, which is very
ab
hot and in liquid condition.

ur
Mined rocks:
(i) During the process of mining and drilling, rocks and minerals are extracted. These extracted
.s
materials give information that there are layer system in the crust.
w
w
(ii) Crust is made up of many kinds of rocks and minerals.

w
Indirect Sources:
Seismic activity, Gravitational force, Earth’s Magnetism, Meteors are very important to know
about earth’s interior.
Seismic Activity:
(i) We can use the behaviour of the seismic waves to make aware about the interior of the
Earth.
(ii) Movement of Seismic Waves suggests that there are three layers on the earth and each
layer less different density.
(iii) Density increases towards the centre of the earth.
Gravitational force:
Earth’s core is at its centre of mass, which is what generates our gravitational field.
Earth’s Magnetism:
It is established that the liquid outer core of the Earth produces a kind of electromagnetic field,
ie. the Earth’s magnetic field.
Meteors:
(i) We can know about the Earth’s interior by studying Meteorites.
(ii) Meteorites have struck the earth in the past. Many have probably pieces of proto-plants
similar in compostion to Earth.
171
X. Life Skills
Imagine that you feel tremors or shocks in your locality. What will be your role in saving
lives from destruction? List out the Do’s and Don’ts.
Ans: (a) Do’s
(i) Drop down onto your hands and knees. This can protect you from falling but allows
you to still move if necessary.
(ii) Cover your hand and neck and your entire body if possible under a study-table or
desk. If there is no shelter nearby, only then should you get down near and interior
wall or next to low-lying furniture that won’t fall on you and cover your head and
neck with your arms and hands.
(iii) Hold on to your shelter or to your head and neck until the shaking stops. Be prepared
to move with your shelter if the shaking shifts it around.
(b) Dont’s
(i) Do not run outside or to other rooms during shaking. The area near the exterior walls
of a building is the most dangerous place to be. Windows, facades and architectural
details are often the first parts of the building to collapse.
(ii) Do not stand in a doorway. In modern houses, doorways are no stronger than any
other part of the house and the doorway does not protect you from the most likely
Geography
source of injury.
(iii) If you are outside, do not go near power lines or electric units. Move away from
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buildings, trees, street lights and utility wires. If you are in open space, stay there till
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the shaking stops.
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More Instructions:
(i) Stay calm and do not panic.
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(ii) Avoid going near the beach after the earthquake is over as a strong earthquake can set off
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a tsunami.
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(iii) If possible have supplies set aside in an emergency kit.

(iv) You many include a first aid, bottled water, canned or dried food to carry during an
.s
emergency.
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Intext Activity
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1. Narrate the processes involved in the given rock cycle diagram in your own words
Ans: (i) The process of transformation of rocks from one form to the other in a cyclic manner is
known as the rock cycle.
(ii) It includes the following processes : Hot lava cools down to form igneous rocks. Igneous
rocks are then broken down into small particles which are transported and then deposited
This results in the formation of sedimentary rocks.
172
(iii) When igneous and sedimentary rocks are subjected to great heat and pressure, they change
into metamorphic rocks.
(iv) Metasmorphic rocks under heat and pressure breakdown and form hot lava. This hot magma
then again cools down and forms igneous rocks and the cycle is repeated.
2. Here is a list of a few mountains.
Ural Mountains, Andes Mountains, Vindhya Range, Alps mountains,
Satpura range, Rocky Mountains, Sierra Nevada.
• Identify and Locate with help of atlas
Satpura Range
Vindhya Range

Ural
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Alps
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Sierra Nevada
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Andes Mountains
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Mountains
Rocky

3. Take a bottle filled with soda. Give it a few shakes. Now twist the cap open. What do you
observe?
Ans. Activity to be done by the students themselves
173
Intext HOTS
1. Pacific Ring of Fire — Most seismically and volcanically active. Why?
Ans. a. The Pacific Ring of Fire is a major area in the basin of the Pacific Ocean where many
earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur. In a large 40,000 km (25,000 mi) horseshoe
shape.
b. About 90% of the world’s earthquakes and 81% of the world’s largest earthquakes occur
along the Ring of Fire. All but three of the world’s 25 largest volcanic eruptions of the last
11,700 years occurred at volcanoes in the Ring of Fire.
c. The Ring of Fire is a direct result of plate tectonics: the movement and collisions of
lithospheric plates, especially subduction in the northern portion.
d. The southern portion is more complex, with a number of smaller tectonic plates in collision
with the Pacific plate from the Mariana Islands, the Philippines,Bougainville ,Tonga,and
Geography
New Zealand.
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ADDITIONAL
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ab
1. All the living organisms are found here

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(a) Lithosphere (b) Hydrosphere (c) Pedosphere (d) Biosphere

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[Ans: (d) Biosphere]

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2. Earths’ surface is a vast area of ________ million

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(a) 490 (b) 510 (c) 500 (d) 520

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[Ans: (b) 510]

3. Silica and Aluminium are the components of the
(a) Crust (b) Mantle (c) Core (d) None of the above
[Ans: (a) Crust]
4. Kola sample title is located in
(a) America (b) Russia (c) Germany (d) Singapore
[Ans: (b) Russia]
5. An aggregate of minerals on the Earth’s Crust is called
(a) Magma (b) Waves (c) Rock (d) Core
[Ans: (c) Rock]
6. Diamond is an example of ________ rock.
(a) Igneous (b) Sedimentary (c) Metamorphic (d) None of the above
[Ans: (c) Metamorphic]
7. In ________ boundary the plates slide horizontally past each other.
(a) convergent (b) transform (c) divergent (d) horizontal
[Ans: (b) transform]
174
8. The collision with the Eurasian Plate along the boundary between India and Nepal formed
________ Plateau.
(a) Columbia (b) Colorado (c) Tibetan (d) Antarctic
[Ans: (c) Tibetan]
9. Seismology deals with
(a) Tsunami (b) Earthquakes
(c) Volcano (d) Crust [Ans: (b) Earthquakes]
10. An opening serving as an outlet for air, smoke, fumes, magma etc. is called
(a) Vent (b) Magma Chamber
(c) Volcanic Core (d) Lava [Ans: (a) Vent]
11. Mauna Loa in Hawaii is an example of ________.
(a) Composite Volcano (b) Dormant Volcano
(c) Extinct Volcano (d) Shield Volcano
[Ans: (d) Shield Volcano]
12. Upper layer of the earth’s mantle below the lithosphere is called
(a) Hydrosphere (b) Pedosphere
(c) Asthenosphere (d) Atmosphere [Ans: (c) Asthenosphere]

13. Earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the Earth’s ________.
(a) Crust (b) Core
(c) Mantle (d) Oceans om [Ans: (a) Crust]
14. The science that deals with the physical structure and substances of the earth is known as
.c
(a) Biology (b) Zoology (c) Geology (d) Morphology
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[Ans: (c) Geology]

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15. Volcanic eruption causes

(a) Earthquakes (b) Fast Floods (c) Mud Slide (d) All the three
ab
[Ans: (d) All the three]

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II. Match the following:

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1. (a) Lithosphere - (i) Gases

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(b) Atmosphere - (ii) Soil and dirt

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(c) Hydrosphere - (iii) Life

(d) Biosphere - (iv) Solid
(e) Pedosphere - (v) Water
Ans: (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (v), (d) - (iii), (e) - (ii)
2. (a) Crust - (i) 2,171 km
(b) Upper Mantle - (ii) 2,259 km
(c) Lower Mantle - (iii) 30 km
(d) Outer Core - (iv) 1221 km
(e) Inner Core - (v) 720 km
Ans: (a) - (iii), (b) - (v), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii), (e) - (iv)
3. (a) Igneous - (i) Magma
(b) Sedimentary - (ii) Transformation
(c) Metamorphic - (iii) Gypsum
(d) Molten material - (iv) Basalt
(e) Rock Cycle - (v) Marble
Ans: (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (v), (d) - (i), (e) - (ii)
175
4. (a) Convergent Boundary - (i) Away from each other
(b) Divergent Boundary - (ii) Tectonic Plates
(c) Transform Boundary - (iii) Towards each other
(d) Huge slabs of rocks - (iv) Folding
(e) Lateral compressional forces - (v) Horizontally past each other
Ans: (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (v), (d) - (ii), (e) - (iv)
5. (a) Focus - (i) L-Waves
(b) Surface Waves - (ii) S-Waves
(c) Seismometer - (iii) P-Waves
(d) Secondary Waves - (iv) Hypocenter
(e) Primary Waves - (v) Instrument
Ans: (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (v), (d) - (ii), (e) - (iii)
6. (a) Active Volcano - (i) Mt. Kilimanjaro
(b) Dormant Volcano - (ii) Strata Volcano
(c) Extinct Volcano - (iii) Mt. St. Helens
(d) Composite Volcano - (iv) Mt. Fuji
Geography
(e) Shield Volcano - (v) Maurna loa

Ans: (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii), (e) - (v) om
.c
III. Consider the given statements:
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1. Consider the given statements:

(i) The thickness of the crust is greater below the continents than the oceans floor.
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(ii) All terrestrial planets have lithosphere.

ab
(iii) The core is composed of Silica and Aluminium.

Which of the statement (s) is/are true?
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(a) (i) is true (b) (ii) is true

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(c) (i) and (ii) are true (d) (iii) is true[Ans: (c) (i) and (ii) are true]
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Statement: The Latin word ‘Sediment’ means settle.

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2.
Reason: Rivers, glaciers and winds carry lists of rock and soil and deposit than on layers.
Which of the following statements(s) is / are true?
(a) Statement and reason are true. (b) Statement is true, reason is false.
(c) Statement is false, reason is true. (d) Statement and reason are false
[Ans: (a) Statement and reason are true.]
3. Statement I: Volcanoes can also be classified based on the periodicity of eruptions, as Active
volcano, Dormant volcano and Extinct volcano.
Statement II: A lava dome is roughly a circular mound formed due to the slow ejection of
viscous lava from a volcano.
Which of the following statements(s) is / are true?
(a) Statement I and II are true. (b) Statement I and II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but-II is false. (d) Statement I is false but-II is true.
[Ans: (a) Statement I and II are true.]
176
IV. Answer the following in one or two sentences:
1. How does Arthur Holmes describe the Earth?
Ans: The Earth can physically be described as a ball of rock (the lithosphere), partly covered by water
(the hydrosphere) and wrapped in an envelope of air (the atmosphere). To these three physical
zones it is convenient to add a biological zone which includes all the living organisms (the
biosphere). This is the description given by Arthur Holmes about the Earth.
2. What are the abiotic and biotic spheres of the earth?
Ans: (i) The abiotic spheres are the lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere.
(ii) The biotic sphere is the biosphere.
(iii) Together these spheres constitute the planet, Earth.
3. What is SIAL?
Ans: (i) Crust is the outer layer of the Earth, where we live.
(ii) The major elements of crust are Silica (Si) and Aluminium (Al).
(iii) Thus it is called SIAL.
4. What is SIAM?

Ans: (i) The interior part beneath the crust is called mantle.
(ii) The major elements of the mantle are Silica (Si) and Magnesium (Mg).
(iii) Thus it is called SIMA. om
5. What is NIFE?
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Ans: (i) The core is the innermost and hottest layer of the Earth.
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(ii) It is composed mainly of Nickel (Ni) and Iron (Fe).

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(iii) Hence it is called NIFE.

ab
6. Mention the types of rocks based on formation?

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The types of rocks based on formation are

.s
Ans: (i) Igneous rocks (ii) Sedimentary rocks and (iii) Metamorphic rocks.
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7. Mention a few specimens of magnificent rock-cut architecture in India?

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Ans: There are many specimens of magnificent rock-cut architecture in India, like the Ajanta and
Ellora caves in Maharashtra, the Aihole Badami temples in Karnataka, the Konark temple in
Odisha and Mamallapuram temples in Tamil Nadu.
8. How are igneous rocks formed?
Ans: (i) The interior of the Earth contains very hot molten material called Magma.
(ii) When the magma reaches the Earth’s surface, it is referred to as Lava.
(iii) The Lava on the surface cools down and gets solidified as rocks called igneous rocks.
9. How are sedimentary rocks formed?
Ans: (i) The sedimentary rocks are named after the Latin word sediment meaning ‘settle’
(ii) Rivers, glaciers and winds carry bits of rock and soil and deposit them in layers.
(iii) After a few million years, these deposits harden into compact rocks and are called
sedimentary rocks.
10. What are fossils?
Ans: (i) The bodies of plants and animals that fall on the deposits get embedded in the layers.
(ii) They form Fossils.
177
11. What are metamorphic rocks?
Ans: (i) The term metamorphic is derived from the word ‘metamorphosis’.
(ii) It means, ‘change of form’.
(iii) When igneous or sedimentary rocks are subjected to extreme heat and pressure, they undergo
a complete change in their form and character.
(iv) In course of time, granite may get transformed to gneiss basalt to schist, limestone to marble
and sandstone to quartzite.
12. What are Geomorphic processes?
Ans: (i) The formation and deformation of landforms on the surface of the Earth in a continuous
activity of two broad processes.
(ii) They are internal and external processes.
(iii) These processes cause stress and deformation on Earth materials.
(iv) Finally changes are brought on the surface of the Earth.
(v) These are referred as Geomorphic Processes.
13. What is a subduction zone?
Ans: (i) In Convergent boundary, the plates move towards each other and sometimes, a plate sinks
Geography
under another.
(ii) The location where the sinking of the plate occurs is called a subduction zone.
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14. What are seismic waves?
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Ans: (i) Earthquakes generate seismic waves.
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(ii) The nature, force and speed of these seismic waves depend on the nature of the medium
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through which it passes.

(iii) Accordingly there are three major types of waves called primary waves, secondary waves
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and surface waves

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15. How did Tsunami occur with Indian Oceans in 2004?

.s
Ans: (i) On 26th December 2004 a tsunami occurred in the Indian Ocean.
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(ii) It was the result of the Indio-Australian plate subducting below the Eurasion Plate.
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(iii) It was caused by an Earthquake measuring a magnitude of above 9 in the Richter Scale.
(iv) The Earthquake caused the seafloor to uplift, displacing the seawater above.
16. Explain the major components of a volcano.
Ans: (i) Volcanoes generally have the following major components. They are:
(ii) Magma Chamber - a large pool of liquid rock found beneath the surface of the Earth.
(iii) Vents - an opening serving as an outlet for air, smoke, fames, magma etc.
(iv) Volcanic cone - a landform built by the magma ejected from the vent in the shape of a cone.
V. Give reasons for the following:
1. The Earth’s gravitational force
Ans: The presence of large quantities of iron in the core is responsible for the Earth’s gravitational
force.
2. Generation of the Earth’s Magnetic field.
Ans: As the Earth rotates on its axis, the liquid outer core spins over the solid inner core and generates
the Earth’s magnetic field.
178
3. The cause of the functioning of the magnetic compass
Ans: The Earth’s magnetic field is responsible for the functioning of the magnetic compass.
4. Himalayas are fold mountains
Ans: (i) Due to lateral compressional forces, the plates are forced to move upwards and downwards.
(ii) This is called folding.
(iii) Mountains formed by folding are called fold mountains.
(iv) The process of folding creates lofty mountain ranges such as the Himalayas.
5. Continuous reshaping of the continents and sea floor.
Ans: The process of folding and faulting together with volcanoes and Earthquakes continually reshape
the continents and sea floor.
6. Formation of the Tibetan Plateau.
Ans: (i) The collision with the Eurasian Plate along the boundary between India and Nepal formed

the orogenic belt.
(ii) This created the Tibetan Plateau and the mighty Himalayan mountains.
7. A lava dome does not flow for from into vent. om
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Ans: (i) In a lava dome, the lava is rich in Silica with intense viscosity.
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(ii) So it is prevented from flowing far from its vent.

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VI. Distinguish between:

ab
1. Crust and Mantle.

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Ans: No. Crust Mantle

.s
(i) Crust is the outer layer of the Earth, The interior part beneath the crust is called
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where we live. mantle.

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(ii) It ranges between 5 to 30 km. It is about 2,900 km thick.

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(iii) It is composed of Silica and Aluminium. It is composed of Silica and Magnesium.

(iv) It is called SIAL. It is called SIMA.
2. Sedimentary Rocks and Metamorphic Rocks.
Ans: Sedimentary Rocks Metamorphic Rocks
(i) Rivers, glaciers and winds carry When igneous or sedimentary rocks are subjected
bits of rock soil and deposit them in to extreme heat and pressure, they undergo a
layers. After a million years these complete change in their form and character.
deposits harden into compact rocks
called sedimentary rocks.
(ii) Eg: Sand stone, limestone, chalk, Eg: Granite transformed into gneiss, basalt
gypsum, coal etc. to schist, limestone to marble, sandstone to
quartzite
179
3. Internal Processes and External Processes.
Ans: Internal Processes External Processes
(i) The forces that act from the Earth’s The forces that act with surface of the Earth due
interior towards the Earth’s surface to natural agents like running water, glacier,
are called Internal Processes. wind, waves etc.
(ii) Internal processes are also known as External processes are also called Exogenetic
Endogenetic processes. processes.
(iii) These forces build the landscape and These external processes tear the landscape down
create topographic relief. into relatively low elevated plains.
4. Active Volcano and Dormant Volcano

Ans: Active Volcano Dormant Volcano
(i) The Active volcanoes constantly eject The dormant volcanoes do not show any sign
volcanic lava, gases and fragmented of volcanic activity for a long period of time.
materials. Sometimes there may be a sudden explosion.
(ii) Eg: Mount St. Helens in the USA Eg. Mt. Fuji, Japan
Geography
VII. Write answers in a paragraph.

1. Explain about the rocks based on formation om
Ans: Based on formation, rocks are classified as:
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(a) Igneous (b) Sedimentary (c) Metamorphic
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(a) Igneous:
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(i) When the lava on the surface cools down and solidified igneous rocks are formed.
ab
(ii) Granite and basalt are the examples of such rocks.

(iii) Igneous rocks are also called Primary or mother rocks because all other rocks are
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directly or indirectly formed from them.

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(iv) These rocks are used in the construction work and laying roads.
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(b) Sedimentary Rocks:

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(i) Rivers, glaciers and winds carry lists of rock and soil and deposit them in layers.
w
(ii) After a few millions years, these deposits harden into compact rocks.
(iii) They are called sedimentary rocks.
(iv) The bodies of plants and animals that fall on the deposits get embedded in the layers
and form Fossils.
(v) Sandstone, limestone, chalk, gypsum, coal are examples.
(vi) These rocks are useful in manufacturing of wall board, cement, plaster of Paris,
construction and purification of iron in blast furnaces etc.
(c) Metamorphic Rocks:
(i) When igneous or sedimentary rocks are subjected to extreme heat and pressure, they
undergo a complete change in their form and character.
(ii) In course of time, granite may get transformed to gneiss, basalt to schist, limestone
to marble and sandstone to quartzite.
(iii) These rocks are used in Jewellary making, sculpture and construction.
180
2. Write a note on Tsunami.
Ans: (i) The word Tsunami is a Japanese term meaning harbour waves.
(ii) It is adopted to describe large seismically generated sea waves caused by Earthquakes,
submarine explosions and landslides.
(iii) These waves travel at a great speed (more than 500 km/hr) and the length of the waves
exceeds 600 kms.
(iv) These waves reach to a height of more than 15 m near the sea shore and are capable of
causing destruction along the coastal area.
(v) On 26th December 2004, a tsunami occurred in the Indian ocean.
(vi) It was the result of the Indio-Australian Plate subducting below the Eurasian plate.
(vii) It was caused by an Earthquake measuring a magnitude of above 9 in the Richter Scale.
(viii)The Earthquake caused the seafloor to uplift, displacing the seawater above.
VIII. Higher Order Thinking Questions (Hots)

1. Explain the terms a) Diastrophism b) Volcanism

Ans: (a) Diastrophism:
(i) ll processes that move, elevate or buildup portions of the earth’s crust come under
A
diastrophism.
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(ii) In the process of orogeny, the crust is severely deformed into folds.
(iii) Due to Epeirogenic processes, uplift or warping of large parts of the crust of the Earth
.c
takes place.
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(b) Volcanism:
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(i) Volcanism includes the movement of molten rock (magma) onto or towards the Earth’s
ab
surface.
(ii) Formation of many intensive and extensive volcanic forms takes place
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What is the difference between the ‘magnitude’ and the ‘intensity’ of an earthquake.
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2.
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Ans: (i) The intensity scale is designed to describe the effects of an earthquake, at a given place,
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on natural features, on industrial installations and on human beings.

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(ii) Magnitude is related to the energy released by an earthquake.

3. Will more shocks be felt after a strong earthquake?
Ans: (i) For several hours, or even days, after a strongly felt earthquake, it is quite possible that
people may, feel more shocks.
(ii) This possibility always exists, but keep in mind the four facts:-
(iii) In mosts cases, these shocks (called aftershocks) will be smaller, therefore, the vibrations
will be weaker.
(iv) Aftershocks do not mean that a stronger earthquake is coming.
(v) Aftershocks are normal, they show that the earth’s crust is readjusting after the main
earthquake.
(vi) The number of aftershock felt is quite variable and thus cannot be predicted. There might
be several per day or only several per week.
181
4. What is Tsunami Warning System (TWS)?
Ans: (i) A Tsunami warning system (TWS) is used to detect Tsunamis in advance and issue warnings
to prevent loss of life and damage.
(ii) It is made up of two equally important components.
(iii) There is a network of sensors to detect Tsunamis.
(iv) And there is a communication infrastructure to issue timely alarms to permit evacuations
of the coastal areas.
5. Pacific Ring of Fire - What do you understand by the term?
Ans: (i) This is with Pacific region where several tectonic plates meet.
(ii) The only problem in that these plates are constantly floating on mantle.
(iii) Because they float around, they either collide with each other, or, they are pulled apart or
they just slide along each other.
(iv) When the tectonic plates collide, they form convergent boundaries where subduction zones
are created.
(v) When the tectonic plates are pulled apart, they create what are known as divergent boundaries.
Geography
(vi) Then there are transform boundaries that are created when two tectonic plates slide along
each other.
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(vii) Because Magma is involved which continuously rises from underneath, forming volcanoes
and bridges.
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(viii)This area is called the Ring of Fire.
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(ix) Of course the fiery lava that is splitout by the active volcanoes with ring also responsible
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for the name.

ab
 
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ADDITIONAL
I. Choose the best answer

1. The foundation for map making in India war laid during the period ____
a) Aryan b) Vedic c) Gupta d) Chola
[Ans: b) Vedic]
2. International boundaries are marked in ___________ colour codes.
a) Brown b) Blue c) Red d) Pink
[Ans: d) Pink]
3. A synoptic chart means ___________
a) Weather map b) Travelogue c) Thematic map d) General maps
[Ans: a) Weather map]
4. Aerial photographs were taken by Felix Nadar in ___________
a) 1850 b) 1852 c) 1858 d) 1860
[Ans: c) 1858]
5. GPS technology has tremendous applications in ___________
a) Mobile phones b) Watches c) ATMs d) All the these
[Ans: d) All the these]
Geography
II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below.
1. om
Assertion (A): GNSS promotes the safety and convenience of transport.
Reason (R): GNSS applications are used in tracking or mapping vehicles, ships and aircraft.
.c
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) explains (A)
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(b) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct; (R) is False
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(d) (A) is false; (R) is true [Ans: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) explains (A)]
ab
2. Statement (I): Surveying is done to measure the angle, direction, area, height and distance
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of an object.
Statement (II): A topographical map is the technique of meteorologists to display all the
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weather data.
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(a) Statement (I) is true; (II) is false (b) Statement (II) is true; (I) is false
w
(c) Statement (I) and (II) correct (d) Statement (I) and (II) wrong
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[Ans: (a) Statement (I) is true; (II) is false]

III. Match the following
1. 1. Azimuthal - a) Water towers
2. Light Blue - b) Rope - stretchers
3. Travelogue - c) Journalist
4. Egypt - d) Polar projection
5. Felix Nadar - e) Tourist map
Ans: (1) - (d), (2) - (a), (3) - (e), (4) - (b), (5) - (c)
IV. Answer in Brief.
1. Mention about the first map maker.
Ans: Anaximander was the first ancient Greek to draw a map of the known world. It is for this reason
that he is considered by many to be the first map maker (the first cartographer).
2. Who is a cartographer?
Ans: A cartographer is one who measures, analyzes and interprets geographical information to create
maps and charts for political, cultural and educational purposes.
3. Mention the three types of map symbols.
Ans: (i) Point Symbols - Buildings, dipping tanks, trigonometrical beacons
(ii) Line Symbols - Railways, roads, power lines, telephone lines
(iii) Area Symbols - Cultivated lands, ponds, orchards and vineyards
278
4. What is a travelogue?
Ans: A travelogue includes all the information required by a tourist like communication, transportation,
hotels, tourist spots, health centres, ATM, petrol stations etc.
5. Remote sensing can be either passive or active - Explain.
Ans: (i) Remote sensing can be either passive or active.
(ii) Active systems emit their own source of light energy such as RADAR.
(iii) Passive systems depend on sunlight as energy source.
6. Mention the disadvantages of Remote sensing.
Ans: (i) It is difficult to prepare large scale maps from obtained satellite data.
(ii) The technique is very expensive for small areas requiring one time analysis.
7. Mention the advantages of GIS.
Ans: The advantages of GIS are
(i) Maps produced by GIS analysis can be used to pinpoint problem areas.
(ii) GIS finds its strongest use in resources management, telecommunications and urban and
regional planning.
(iii) GIS helps in planning the land-use requirements. The local government uses GIS for
taxation and planning.
8. Write about the hardware and software functions of a GIS.
Ans: The hardware and software functions of a GIS are,
(i) Data input and verification (ii) Compilation
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(iii) Storage (iv) Updating and changing
(v) Management and exchange (vi) Manipulation
.c
(vii) Retrieval and presentation (vii) Analysis and combination
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9. What is meant by cyber cartography?

oo
Ans: Cyber cartography is a term that is used to define all the aspects of current state of Web and
ab
virtual mapping.
Mapping Skills
What are geo objects?
ur
10.
Ans: (i) Geographical objects in the real world are matched to program objects known as geo objects.
.s
(ii) Geo objects include placemarks, circles, polylines, rectangles, polygons and their collections.
w
(iii) Place markers indicate a place on a map.

w
w
11. What are the advantages of Bhuvan?

Ans: (i) Bhuvan, due to 3D rendering, gives the impression of moving through real space through
the entire globe.
(ii) Students can use Bhuvan to understand subjects ranging from Sciences to History of places.
(iii) It provides information on natural resources and timely information on disasters.
(iv) Administrators use it for monitoring various developmental schemes.
V. Give Reasons
1. Conventional signs and symbols are standard symbols used on a map.
Ans: (i) A map is a global language and it needs to be drawn according to the international standards.
(ii) Conventional signs and symbols are standard symbols used on a map and explained in the
legend to convey a definite meaning.
2. Surveys help to prepare physical maps.
Ans: (i) Surveying is done to measure the angle, direction, area, height and distance of an object
or place on the surface of the earth using instruments.
(ii) Surveying techniques are used to obtain the field data and to prepare maps.
(iii) Hence knowledge of surveying helps to prepare physical maps.
279
VI. Answer in paragraph
1. Write a note on Grid reference.
Ans: (i) The location of a place can be simply defined by its latitude and longitude.
(ii) In normal practice, latitude is stated first and then comes the longitude.
(iii) The latitude and longitude of a place can be expressed in units of degree, minutes and
seconds.
(iv) A grid is a set of lines with alphanumeric codes for defining a location on a map in many
topographical sheets.
(v) The lines that run horizontally from left to right of the map are known as northings.
(vi) The lines that run vertically from the top to the bottom of the map are called eastings.
(vii) The points at which the vertical and horizontal lines of the grid intersect are called
coordinates which are identified by numbers or letters.
2. What are the colour codes used with map symbols.
Ans: (i) Brown: land or earth features - contour lines, eroded areas, prominent rock outcrops, sand
areas and dunes, secondary or gravel roads
(ii) Light Blue: water features - canals, coastlines, dams, lakes, marshes, swamps and levees,
ponds, rivers and water towers.
Geography
(iii) Dark Blue: national waterways

om
(iv) Green: vegetation features - cultivated fields, golf courses, nature and game reserve
boundaries, orchards and vineyards, recreation grounds, woodland
.c
(v) Black: construction features - roads, tracks, railways, buildings, bridges, cemeteries,
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communication towers, dam walls, excavations and mine dumps, telelphone lines, power
oo
lines, windpumps, boundaries

(vi) Red: construction features - national, arterial and main roads, lighthouses and marine lights
ab
(vii) Pink: international boundaries

ur
3. Explain the types of maps.

.s
w
Ans: (a) On the basis of scale, maps can be classified into:

w
(i) Large scale maps: Large amount of detail; can only show a small area.
w
(ii) Small scale map: Small amount of detail; can show a large area.
b) On the basis of utility and purpose, they are classified as:
(i) General maps / Topographic Maps (physical and political maps)
(ii) Thematic map (spatial variations of single phenomena)
(iii) Special purpose maps (Braille maps for blind people, maps for neo literates, military maps,
navigational charts, etc).
4. Write a short note on (a) Topographical Maps and (b) Weather Maps
Ans: a) Topographical Maps
(i) Topographical maps show main features like landforms, water features, forests, settlements,
agricultural fields, other land use, transportation and communication networks.
(ii) These maps are general purpose maps and are drawn at quite large scales.
(iii) The Survey of India prepares the topographical maps in India for the entire country.
b) Weather Maps
(i) A weather map is the technique of meteorologists to display all the weather data recorded
at various stations of a country at a particular point of time into a compact outline map
using symbols and isolines.
(ii) A weather map, otherwise called a synoptic chart, helps in weather analysis and weather
forecast of the country/region for the next two to three days.
280
5. Explain the process of remote sensing.
Ans: Remote Sensing
(i) The EMR (Electro Magnetic Radiation) or solar radiation is the primary source of energy
for remote sensing.
(ii) Sunlight travels from the sun through the atmosphere, before it reaches the earth surface.
In the atmosphere, the sun’s rays are not obstructed by any object.
(iii) When solar radiation falls on the earth’s surface, some of its energy is absorbed. While some
is transmitted through the surface, the rest is reflected. Surfaces naturally emit radiation
in the form of heat.
(iv) Sensors in the satellite record the reflected and emitted radiation. Each surface/object
possesses a characteristic spectral signature, a unique pattern of reflecting sunlight.
(v) The energy recorded by the sensor has to be transmitted to a ground station where the data
are processed into an image.
(vi) The processed image is interpreted either visually by human interpreters or by computer
aided techniques called digital image processing to identify and distinguish between the
different spectral signatures to get information about objects/places.
(vii) Finally, we understand and apply the extracted information in mapping the area or assist
in solving the particular problem.
6. What are the advantages and disadvantages of Remote Sensing?
Ans: (a) Advantages of Remote sensing:
om
(i) It is the only practical way to obtain data from inaccessible regions, e.g. Antarctica, Amazon
.c
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forest.
ks
(ii) It helps in constructing cheap base maps in the absence of detailed land surveys.
oo
(iii) It detects the spread of natural calamities such as flood, forest fire and volcanic eruption,
ab
so that immediate rescue operations and planning can be carried out.
Mapping Skills
(b) Disadvantages of Remote sensing:
ur
(i) It is difficult to prepare large scale maps from obtained satellite data.
.s
(ii) The technique is very expensive for small areas requiring one time analysis.
w
w
7. How is remote sensing useful in disaster management?

w
Ans: (i) Remote sensing technology is highly used in disaster management to study the effects of
earthquakes, tsunamis, cyclones, volcanic eruption, floods and wildfires.
(ii) The preliminary data is retrieved from satellites like LANDSAT, CARTOSAT, OCEANSAT, etc.
(iii) Fire and flood details can be extracted and delivered to relevant authorities within two
hours of satellite image capture.
(iv) E.g. major earthquakes in China and New Zealand, bushfire in Victoria and floods in Kerala.
(v) Dynamic phenomena such as flood, movement of wild animals, shoreline changes, finding
lost ships and planes.
(vi) Researchers use satellite imageries for these.
8. Explain the Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS).
Ans: (i) In the 21st century, GNSS has become a part of our lives to promote the safety and
convenience of transport.
(ii) Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) is a satellite system connected with a small
electronic receiver or tracker to locate, monitor and track a user’s vehicle wherever in the
world.
(iii) It can also set up instant alerts when a driver of a vehicle speeds or deviates from a particular area.
(iv) GNSS applications are used in tracking or mapping vehicles, ships and aircraft.
281
(v) A group of satellites (Space Segment) working with a network of ground stations (Control
Segment) provide location data.
(vi) The receiver (User Segment) converts satellite signals into location, speed and time data.
(vi) Examples of GNSS:
(a) Europe’s Galileo
(b) USA’s NAVSTAR Global Positioning System (GPS)
(c) Russia’s Global’naya Navigatsionnaya Sputnikovaya Sistema (GLONASS)
(d) China’s BeiDou Navigation Satellite System
(e) India’s NAVIC satellite system
9. Explain the Geographical Information System (GIS).
Ans: (i) Geographic Information System is a computer-based tool for managing a large amount of
data collected for a given geographic region through remote sensing, GPS and other sources.
(ii) The Geographic Information System is a combination of computer hardware, software,
geographic data and the personnel.
(iii) G - Geographic - A particular area; I - Information - facts in order; S - System - arrangement
(iv) GIS was first recognised in the late 1950s by Waldo Tobler and Roger Tomlinson (Canada).
(v) Prime examples of importing GIS for public welfare are Google Maps, Yahoo Maps and
Geography
Google Earth.
(vi) The key ingredient is location. We must have a coordinate, an address or a distance from
om
a known point that helps us to link the information to a location on a map.
(vii) Each type of data of an area is stored as a separate ‘layer’ of the map.
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(viii)In GIS, layers may be used some times and removed according to need.
ks
(ix) Examples are hospitals, schools, water bodies, parks and ATMs.
oo
(x) The computers can create maps showing any combination of data.
ab
10. Write a note on Google Earth.

ur
Ans: (i) Google Earth is a web based computer application.

.s
(ii) Google Earth is a virtual globe that renders a 3D representation of the Earth.
w
(iii) It combines the power of Google Search with maps, satellite imageries, aerial photographs,
w
GIS data and 3D buildings to visualize the world.

w
(iv) Google Earth allows users to see cities and buildings looking perpendicularly down or at
a tilted angle.
(v) Google Earth allows users to search for addresses of some countries, enter coordinates or
simply use the mouse to browse a location.
(vi) Google Earth also has Digital Elevation Model (DEM) data for many major cities.
(vii) This means one can view Mount Everest or buildings in three dimensions, instead of 2D.
11. Distinguish between Airborne remote sensing and spaceborne remote sensing.
Ans: No. Airborne remote sensing Spaceborne remote sensing
(i) In airborne remote sensing, downward or In spaceborne remote sensing, sensors
sideward looking sensors are mounted on an are mounted on board a spacecraft (space
aircraft to obtain images of the earths surface. shuttle or satellite) orbiting the earth.
(ii) An advantages of airborne remote sensing is At present their one several remote
the capability of offering very high spatial sensing satellites proving imagery for
resolution images (20 cm or less) research and operational applications.

282
UNIT TEST

1. Which one of the following maps show as a very large area with less details?
a) Large scale b) Thematic c) Physical d) Small scale
2. GPS consists of a constellation of ___________ satellites.
a) 7 b) 24 c) 32 d) 64
II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below1 × 1 = 1
1. Assertion (A) : The points at which the vertical and horizontal lines of the grid intersect
are called coordinates.
Reason(R) : The lines that run horizontally and vertically are called Northings and
Easting respectively.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) explains (A) b) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) does not explain (A)
c) (A) is true; (R) is false d) (A) is false; (R) is true
III. Match the Following: 5×1=5
1. The art and science of mapping - (a) USA
2. Thematic mapping - (b) Geoid
om
3. Actual shape of the earth - (c) Inmarsat
.c
4. A satellite - (d) Political map
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5. NAVSTAR - (e) Cartography

oo
IV. Give Reasons: 2×2=4

ab
1. Satellite imageries stimulate map making.
Mapping Skills
2. Grid references are essential to find the exact location of places on a map.
ur
V. Distinguish between the following:

.s
2×2=4
w
1. Map and Globe

w
2. GIS and GPS.

w
VI. Answer in brief: 2×2=4

1. Define Remote sensing.
2. Mention a few surveying instruments.
VII. Answer in a Paragraph: 1×5=5
1. Write a note on directions with a relevant diagram.
Answer Key
I. 1) d) Small scale 2) b) 24
II. a) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) explain (A)
III. (1) - e ; (2) - d ; (3) - b; (4) - c ; (5) - a
IV. 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.274 ; Q. No.V - 1.
1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.274; Q. No. V - 3.
V. 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No. 274; Q. No.VI - 1.
VI. 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.273 ; Q. No.IV - 6.
2) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No. 273; Q. No.IV - 5.
VII. 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.275 ; Q. No.IV - 2.
283
UNIT
08 Disaster Management:
Responding to Disasters
EXERCISE
Geography
I. Choose the best answer:

1. One among the following is not the first responder in case of a disaster.
a. police officers
om
b. firefighters
.c
c. insurance agents d. emergency medical technicians
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[Ans: c. insurance agents]

oo
2. ‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is a mock drill a vowal for

a. Fire b. Earthquake c. Tsunami d. Riot
ab
[Ans: b. Earthquake]
ur
3. When you happen to see a fire break out. You will make a call to
.s
a. 114 b. 112 c. 115 d. 118

w
[Ans: b. 112]
w
w
4. Which of the following statements is untrue?

a. ‘Stop, Drop, Roll’ is for fire.
b. ‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is for an earthquake.
c. ‘If sea water recedes back, run to higher places’ is for flood.
d. ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and cover the head with hand’ is for riot.
[Ans: c. ‘If sea water recedes back, run to higher places’ is for flood.]
5. Which of the following statements belongs to responding to earthquake?
a. Avoid any place where police or security forces action is in progress.
b. Know the height of your street above sea level and the distance of your street from the coast.
c. Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall.
d. Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand.
[Ans: c. Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls,
and anything that could fall.]
284
II. Answer in brief.
1. Who are the community’s first responders to disaster?
Ans: (i) Local communities are expected to provide immediate disaster response.
(ii) On a daily basis, our police officers, firefighters, and emergency medical technicians are
our community’s first responders.
2. What are the four phases of the Disaster Management Cycle?
Ans: The four phases of the disaster mangement cycle.
(i) Mitigation
(ii) Preparedness
Preparedness Disaster
(iii) Response
(iv) Recovery
Disaster Mangement Responding to Disasters

Mitigation Disaster Rescue/Relief
Management
Prevention Cycle Rehabilitation
Planning Reconstruction
3.
om
Though Japan has the densest seismic network, Indonesia has the most number of
earthquakes. Why?
.c
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Ans: (i) The whole Japan is in a very active seismic area, and it has the densest seismic network in
the world.
oo
(ii) Indonesia is in a very active seismic zone, but by virtue of its larger size than Japan, it has
ab
more total earthquakes.

ur
(iii) It is in extremely active seismic areas along subduction zones

.s
4. How many males and females die per day due to fire in India?
w
Ans: (i) On an average, in India, every year, about 25,000 persons die due to fires and related causes.
w
(ii) Female accounts for about 66% of those killed in fire accidents.
w
(iii) It is estimated that about 42 females and 21 males die every day in India due to fire.
5. What should you do after a Tsunami?
Ans: You should continue using a Weather Radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency
frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.
III. Answer in Paragraph.

1. Write a short note on Tsunami.
Ans: (i) A tsunami can kill or injure people and damage or destroy buildings and infrastructure as
waves come in and go out.
(ii) A tsunami is a series of enormous ocean waves caused by earthquakes, underwater
landslides, volcanic eruptions, or asteroids.
(iii) Tsunamis can travel 700-800 per hour with waves 10-30 meter high.
(iv) It causes flooding and disrupts transportation, power, communications, and the water supply.
285
2. What do you do if you are indoors during an earthquake?
Ans: During earthquake if you are indoor:
(i) DROP to the ground; take COVER by getting under a sturdy table or other piece of furniture
and HOLD ON until the shaking stops. If there is no a table or desk near you, cover your
face and head with your arms and crouch in an inside corner of the building.
(ii) Protect yourself by staying under the lintel of an inner door, in the corner of a room, under
a table or even under a bed.
(iii) Stay away from glass windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall, (such
as lighting fixtures or furniture).
(iv) Stay inside until the shaking stops and afterwards it is safe to go outside.
3. How do you respond to Tsunami?
Ans: (i) You should find out if your home, school, workplace, or other frequently visited locations
are in tsunami hazard areas along sea-shore.
(ii) Plan evacuation routes from your home, school, workplace, or any other place you could
be where tsunamis poses a risk.
(iii) Use a Weather Radio or stay tuned to a local radio or television station to keep informed
of local watches and warnings.
Geography
(iv) Discuss tsunamis with your family. Everyone should know what to do in a tsunami situation.
om
(v) Discussing tsunamis ahead of time will help reduce fear and save precious time in an
emergency.
.c
(vi) Review flood safety and preparedness measures with your family.
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4. Write three sentences about what to do during fire.

oo
Ans: (i) Evacuate calmly and quickly whenever a fire alarm or carbon monoxide alarm sounds.
ab
(ii) Before opening the door, feel it with the back of your hand. If the door is hot, do not open it.
ur
(iii) If you encounter smoke during your evacuation, stay low to the floor.
.s
(iv) Know the locations of fire extinguishers, fire alarm pull stations, and exits.
w
w
Intext HOTS
w
1. Why should you cut off all the branches of trees below 3 metres of height standing near
your house?
Ans: (i) Large trees, up to 70 feet or more should be planted at least 20 feet from the home, medium
sized trees up to 70 feet tall, 15 feet from the home, and small trees 30 feet tall or less, 8
to 10 feet from the home.
(ii) If the branches and limbs extend part the propriety line trimming and cutting up to the
property line allowed.
ADDITIONAL
I. Choose the best answer:

1. Find out the correct statements.
a. The place on the earth’s surface above the focus is epicenter.
b. During an earthquake, be choses to building
c. Stay inside until the shaking stops.
d. Fire causes injuring to people and animals. [Ans: c. Stay inside until the shaking stops
and d. Fire causes injuring to people and animals.]
286
2. Match the following:
(a) Firefighters - (i) 10 - 30 mt high
(b) Seismograph - (ii) Respiratory hazard
(c) Tsunami - (iii) Forests
(d) Smoke - (iv) First responder
(e) Wild Fire - (v) Earthquake
[Ans: (a) - (iv), (b) - (v), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii), (e) - (iii)]
II. Very short answer:

1. What is disaster?
Ans: A disaster is “a catastrophe that causes great damage or loss of life and property”.
2. What is meant by stop, drop and roll?

Ans: (i) To escape a fire, stop, drop, and roll.
(ii) In case your clothes burn, stop running, drop on the floor and roll to stop fire spreading.
III. Short answer:

1. What is meant by Disaster Response?
Ans: (i) Disaster response entails restoring physical facilities, rehabilitation of affected populations,
restoration of lost livelihoods and reconstruction efforts to restore the infrastructure lost or
om
damaged.
(ii) The Response Phase focuses primarily on emergency relief: saving lives, providing first
.c
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aid, restoring damaged systems (communications and transportation), meeting the basic
ks
life requirements of those impacted by disaster (food, water, and shelter), and providing
oo
mental health and spiritual support and care.

ab
2. How is Earthquake caused?

ur
Ans: (i) Earthquake is a sudden vibration of the part of the earth caused by plate movements.
.s
(ii) It occurs along the plate boundaries.

w
(iii) The place inside the earth where earthquake originates is focus.
w
(iv) The point on the earth’s surface above the focus is epicenter.
w
(v) The damage caused by the earthquake is the highest near the epicenter.
(vi) The earthquake is measured by an instrument is called Seismograph.
(vii) It is recorded in Richter scale.
3. What is to be done after a Tsunami?
Ans: (i) You should continue using a Weather Radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency
frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.
(ii) Check yourself for injuries and get first aid if necessary before helping injured or trapped
persons.
(iii) If someone needs to be rescued, call professionals with the right equipment to help.
(iv) Help people who require special assistance Infants, elderly people, those without
transportation, large families who may need additional help in an emergency situation,
people with disabilities, and the people who care for them.
(v) Stay out of a building if water remains around it. Tsunami water, like floodwater, can
undermine foundations, causing buildings to sink, floors to crack, or walls to collapse.
(vi) Check for gas leaks. If you smell gas or hear a blowing or hissing noise, open a window
and get everyone outside quickly.
287
4. Mention the causes for fire? What are the problems caused by fire?
Ans: (i) Wildfires occur when vegetated areas are set alight and are particularly common during
hot and dry periods.
(ii) They can occur in forests, grasslands, bush and deserts, and with sufficient wind can rapidly
spread.
(iii) Fires can lead to the destruction of buildings, wooden bridges and poles, power, transmission
and telecommunication lines, warehouses of containing oil products and other fuel. It causes
injury to people and animals.
(iv) The most common causes of fires are lightning strikes, sparks during arid conditions, the
eruption of volcanoes, and man-made fires arising from deliberate arson or accidents.
(v) A side-effect of wildfires that also threatens inhabited areas is smoke.
(vi) Fires create large quantities of smoke, which can be spread far by wind and poses a
respiratory hazard.
5. What should be done during a fire.
Ans: (i) Stay calm.
(ii) Pull the nearest fire alarm or call 112.
(iii) Give your name and location of the fire. Do not hang up until the police dispatcher tells
you to do so.
Geography
(iv) Leave the building immediately.

(v) Inform others as you pass them to leave the building immediately.
om
(vi) Walk—don’t run—to the nearest exit.
.c
(vii) Never use elevators—an elevator may become a trap.
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IV. Answer in one or two sentences.

oo
ab
1. Why do you think you should cover your head with one hand and hold the table with other
hand during an earthquake?
ur
Ans: It is mainly to protect the head and neck from gently damaged.
.s
During an earthquake, why should we exit through staircase and not use elevators?
w
2.
Ans: Because the earthquake likely to knock out electrical power, the elevator machinery will not work.
w
w
3. Suppose you are in a room of a strong building without any furniture when an earthquake
occurs. What would you do to protect yourself from the earthquake?
Ans: If doors are opened, stand under a door way or in a corner inside the room. Cover your face
and head with your arms.
4. Reason out why should you stay away from buildings with glass panes during an earthquake.
Ans: At jolting of the earthquake bursting and breaking of wall, glass panes may happen. So it is
better to be away from it.

288
UNIT TEST
I. Choose the best answer: 2×1=2

1. One among the following is not the first responder in case of a disaster.
a. police officers b. firefighters
c. insurance agents d. emergency medical technicians
2. ‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is a mock drill a vowal for
a. Fire b. Earthquake c. Tsunami d. Riot
II. Very short answer questions. 4×2=8

1. Who are the community’s first responders to disaster?
2. What should you do after Tsunami?
3. What are the four phases of the Disaster Management Cycle?
4. How many males and females die per day due to fire in India?
III. Short answer questions om 2 × 5 = 10

1. How do you respond to Tsunami?
.c
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2. What do you do if you are indoor during earthquake?

oo
Answer Key
ab
I.
ur
1) c. Insurance agents 2) b. Earthquake

II.
.s
1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No. 285; Q. No.II - 1.

w
2) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.285; Q. No.II - 5.

w
3) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.285; Q. No.II - 2.

w
4) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No. 285; Q. No.II - 4.

III. 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.286; Q. No.III - 3.
2) Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.286; Q. No.III - 2.
289
Unit 1
UNIT C I V IC S
01 Forms of Government
and Democracy
EXERCISE

1. A system of government in which one person reigns supreme, usually a king or queen, is
called________
(a) autocracy (b) monarchy (c) democracy (d) republic
om [Ans: (b) monarchy]
A system of government with absolute power.
.c
2.
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(a) Aristocracy (b) Theocracy (c) Democracy (d) Autocracy

[Ans: (d) Autocracy]
oo
Former Soviet Union is an example for _________.

ab
3.
(a) aristocracy (b) theocracy (c) oligarchy (d) republic
ur
[Ans: (c) oligarchy]

.s
Select the odd one

w
4.
w
(a) India (b) USA (c) France (d) Vatican

w
[Ans: (d) Vatican]

5. Abraham Lincoln was the President of the ________.
(a) USA (b) UK (c) USSR (d) India
[Ans: (a) USA]
6. Kudavolai system was followed by
(a) Cheras (b) Pandyas (c) Cholas (d) Kalabhras
[Ans: (c) Cholas]
7. Direct Democracy in olden times existed
(a) In the republics of ancient India (b) Among the USA
(c) In the city-state of ancient Greece (d) Among the UK
[Ans: (c) In the city-state of ancient Greece]
From which language was the term “Democracy” derived?
Civics
8.
(a) Greek (b) Latin (c) Persian (d) Arabic
[Ans: (a) Greek]
290
9. In democracy the final authority rests with
(a) The Parliament (b) The People
(c) The council of Ministers (d) The President [Ans: (b) The People]
10. Which one of the country has Presidential form of government
(a) India (b) Britain (c) Canada (d) USA
[Ans: (d) USA]
11. The largest democratic country in the world is
(a) Canada (b) India (c) USA (d) China
[Ans: (b) India]
12. Assertion (A) : Direct democracy is practised in Switzerland.
Reason (R) : People directly participates in decision making.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
Forms of Government and Democracy

(d) (A) is false and (R) is true [Ans: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)]
13. Assertion (A) : India has parliamentary form of democracy.
Reason (R) : Indian parliament comprises two houses.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)om
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
.c
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(d) (A) is false and (R) is true [Ans: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)]
oo
14. The meaning of Franchise is

ab
(a) Right to elect (b) Right to vote for the poor

ur
(c) Right to vote (d) Right to vote for the rich

.s
[Ans: (c) Right to vote]

w
15. The grant of universal franchise creates

w
(a) Social equality (b) Economic equality

w
(c) Political equality (d) Legal equality

[Ans: (c) Political equality]
16. Prime Minister of India is appointed by
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Speaker (d) President
[Ans: (d) President]
17. The President of India can nominate
(a) 12 members to Lok Sabha (b) 2 members of Rajya Sabha
(c) 12 members to Rajya Sabha (d) 14 members of Rajya Sabha
[Ans: (c) 12 members to Rajya Sabha]
18. The First general elections after independence in India were held in
(a) 1948 - 49 (b) 1951 - 52 (c) 1957 - 58 (d) 1947 - 48
[Ans: (b) 1951 - 52]
291
1. The Constitution of India was finally adopted on _________. [Ans: 26th November 1949]
2. The two types of democracy are _______ and ________ [Ans: Direct and Indirect]
3. An example for direct democracy is _________. [Ans: Switzerland]
4. India has a _______form of democracy. [Ans: indirect / representative]
5. _________ was the first Prime Minister of independent India. [Ans: Jawaharlal Nehru]
6. The first general elections were held in British India in the year __________. [Ans: 1920]
7. The Parliament House in India was designed by _________ and _________.
[Ans: Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker ]
III. Match the following:

1. Autocracy - (i) 18
2. Right to vote - (ii) Arthashastra
3. Chanakya - (iii) Vatican
4. Theocracy - (iv) North Korea om
Ans: 1. - (iv), 2. - (i), 3. - (ii), 4. - (iii)
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IV. Give short answers:

oo
1. Give Abraham Lincoln’s definition for democracy.

Ans: Abraham Lincoln defines democracy as a government of the people, by the people and for the
ab
people.
ur
2. Mention the forms of democracy.

.s
Ans: There are two types of democracy. They are

w
1. Direct democracy 2. Indirect (Representative) democracy

w
w
Forms of Democratic government
Parliamentary form of government Presidential form of government

Example: India, England Example: USA, France
Electorate Electorate
Legislature Executive Legislature
Executive
3. Distinguish between direct and indirect democracy.

Ans: Direct Democracy Indirect / Representative Democracy
Direct participation of the people Indirect participation of the people
Example: Ancient Greek city-states, Example: India, USA, UK
Civics
Switzerland
292
V. Answer in detail:
1. What are the challenges to Indian democracy? Explain.
Ans: (i) The promise of democracy is far from realized any where in the world
(ii) D emocracy does not have a challenger, but it does not mean that it does not face any
challenge.
(iii) Major challenges to Indian Democracy are
(a) Illiteracy (b) Poverty (c) Gender Discrimination
(d) Regionalism (e) Casteism, Communalism and Religious Fundamentalism
(f) Corruption (g) Criminalisation of Politics and Political violence
(iv) Democracy is the dominant form of government in the Contemprary world.
(v) It does not face a serious challenger or rival
(vi) In the last hundred years, there was an expansion of democracy all over the world.
(vii) Challenges can be faced with the Co-operation of the people in the country.
2. Explain the conditions necessary for the success of democracy in India.
Ans: There are certain condition that are necessary for the success of democracy in India. They are

(i) Empowerment of the poor and illiterates to enjoy the goodness of democracy.
(iii) Willingness among the elected people not to misuse their powerful position and public
wealth.
(iv) Eradication of social evils and dangers from which democracy suffers
om
(v) An impartial and efficient press to form public opinion
(vi) Presence of strong public opinion
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(vii) Feeling of tolerance and communal harmony among the people
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(viii)Awareness among the people of the fundamental rights that they are entitled to enjoy
oo
(ix) Conscious check and vigilance on the working of the elected representatives
ab
(x) Powerful and responsible opposition

ur
3. What is your opinion about democracy in India?

Ans: (i) Democracy in India has been appreciated Worldwide.
.s
w
(ii) It is an example of Democracy which is remarkable in many aspects

w
(iii) It is the largest electorate in history, a huge range of parties and a parliamentary system.
w
(iv) But we do not really have broad consensus on large scale reforms and plans to improve
the whole country.
(v) We are a big nation with huge population
(vi) There are problems, constraints in implementation of programs and policies for the benefit
of the people.
(vii) But which system does not have problems?
(viii)Democracy gives us right to express our views:
(ix) Solutions found through democratic means are better and long-lasting
(x) We have a wonderful law, Right to information Act, use it judiciously to propogate our
moves.
(xi) If the necessary conditions for the success of Democracy are fulfilled, there will be a smooth
functioning of Democracy in the country.
293
VI. Project and Activity
1. Discuss in the class what is universal adult franchise? Why is it important?
Ans: (i) Students can form different groups with the help of charts. They can bring out the salient
features of adult franchise and how it is implemented in real practice.
(i) Based on universal adult franchise, every person, who is a citizen of India and who is not
less than eighteen years of age, can exercise their right to vote in India.
(iii) There is no discrimination based on a persons caste, creed, Religion, Gender and Education
when it comes to providing the right to vote.
2. “Democracy is the power of majority which respects minority.” Discuss.
Ans: (i) Democracy requires minority rights equally as it does majority rule the minority’s rights
must be protected.
(ii) The Indian constitution ensures justices, social, economic and political, to all citizens.
(iii) India declares herself a secular state
(iv) Article 29 gives the religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and manage
educational institutions of their own.
(v) No discrimination on grounds of race, religion, caste, language
(vi) Article 30 is vital to the protection and preservation of rights of the minorities
om
(vii) Article 16 guarantees that in matters of public employment, no discrimination shall be
made on the grounds of race, religion, caste or language
.c
(viii)Article 25 of the Indian constitution guarantees freedom of religion to every individual.
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(ix) On the whole, the minorities of all kinds have very secure rights in India
oo
3. Conduct a mock election in your class.

ab
Ans: Activity to be done by the students themselves

ur
.s
4. A group discussion on the merits and demerits of democracy of India in the class room.
w
w
Characteristics of the country’s

Country name Type of government
w
government
Ans: (a) Merits

(i) Responsible and accountable government
(ii) Equality and Fraternity
(iii) Sense of responsibility among common people
(iv) Local self government
(v) Development and prosperity for all
(vi) Popular sovereignty
(vii) Sense of Co – Operation and fraternal feeling.
(b) Demerits
Civics
(i) Indirect or representative nature of democracy

(ii) Lack of educated and experienced voters
(iii) Equal voting right to both wise, average and innocent person
(iv) Freedom to all shades of opinion.
(v) Delay in decision-making process.
294
VII. HOTS
1. Will you have the right to equality under dictatorship? What would be the attitude
regarding public opinion in such a country?
Ans: (i) A dictator is a political leader who possesses absolute power
(ii) This power is used in an oppressive manner.
(iii) A state which is ruled by a dictator is called dictatorship.
(iv) Under small type of government, public opinions have no place. Opinions are suppressed.
(v) There is no freedom of expression or freedom of right
2. How does democracy lead to a peaceful and a harmonious life among the citizens? Explain
Ans: (i) In a democracy, fundamental rights are safeguarded as basic human freedoms which every
Indian citizen has the right to enjoy for a proper and harmonious development of personality.
(ii) Democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct their competition.
(iii) This reduces the possibilities of tensions becoming explosives or violent.
(iv) The ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts with a better manner is a
democratic regime.

VIII. Life Skills
Select a group of countries. Research each country and tell what type of government it has:
Aristocracy, Monarchy, Autocracy, Oligarchy, Theocracy, Democracy, Republic. Then,
provide characteristics of this country that helped you determine the type of government.
om
Ans:
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Country Type of
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Characteristics of the country’s government

name government
oo
Spain Aristocracy Here hereditary titles are still recognised. The monarchy of Spain
ab
is referred to as the crown in the constitutional institution. It has

also been referred to as the Hispanic Monarchy or the Catholic
ur
Monarchy
.s
Oman Monarchy Absolute Monarchy. The Sultan of Oman is not only head of a
w
state but also head of the government. He appoints a cabinet to

w
assist him.
w
N. Korea Autocracy It is a system of government in which the supreme power

is concentrated in the hands of one person, whose decisions
are subject to neither external legal restraints nor regularised
mechanisms of popular control. North Korea - Kim Jong-un the
supreme Leader.
Venezuela Oligarchy Venezuela is a Federal Presidential Republic. The chief executive
is the president of Venezuela, who is both head of the state and head
of government. Executive power is exercised by the President.
Legislative power is vested in the National Assembly.
Vatican Theocracy Absolute theocratic elective monarchy, the head of the Catholic
church, the Pope exercises legislative, executive and Judicial
power.
France Democracy Presidential, Parliamentary system with a president who is the
head of state, sharing power with a prime minister who is the
head of the government.
Australia Republic Representative democracy, Constitutional monarchy, Parliamentary
system, Federal Monarchy system.
295
ADDITIONAL

1. A system of government in which power is held by the nobility is called
(a) Monarchy (b) Oligarchy (c) Aristocracy (d) Theocracy
[Ans: (c) Aristocracy]
2. We find a system of government in which priests rule in the name of God or himself as a
God in
(a) North Korea (b) Vatican (c) India (d) Saudi Arabia
[Ans: (b) Vatican]
3. “True Democracy cannot be worked by twenty men sitting at the centre. It has to be worked
from below by the people of every village” – This statement was stated by
(a) Prof. Seeley (b) Lowell (c) Mahatma (d) Dicey
[Ans: (c) Mahatma]
4. General Elections were held in British India in
(a) 1910 (b) 1920 om
(c) 1930 (d) 1940
[Ans: (b) 1920]
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Freedom to practice any religion or reject all is expressed by the term
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(a) Secular (b) Socialist (c) Republic (d) Sovereign

oo
[Ans: (a) Secular]

ab
6. Assertion (A): Indian President is selected indirectly

ur
Reason (R) : India is a Republic.

.s
w
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain
w

w
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true. [Ans: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)]
7. Assertion (A): Lok sabha is called council of states.
Reason (R) : People elect representatives to Lok Sabha.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true. [Ans: (d) (A) is false and (R) is true]
1. According to _____ the Democracy is a government in which everyone has a share
[Ans: Prof. Seeley]
2. When people themselves directly express their will on public affairs, the type of government is
called _____ . [Ans: Direct democracy]
Civics
3. The largest democracy in the world is _____. [Ans: India]

4. The general elections are conducted by the _____ of India [Ans: Election Commission]
296
III. Match the following
1. (a) Aristocracy - (i) Oman
(b) Oligarchy - (ii) USA
(c) Monarchy - (iii) China
(d) Democracy - (iv) Britain’s Royal family
Ans: (a) - (iv) (b) - (iii) (c) - (i) (d) - (ii)]
2. (a) Demos - (i) Power
(b) Cratia - (ii) Upper House
(c) Panchayat - (iii) People
(d) Rajya Sabha - (iv) Local government
Ans: (a) – (iii) (b) – (i) (c) – (iv) (d) – (ii)
IV. Give short answers

1. What is government?

Ans: (i) Government is a group of people that governs a community or unit.
(ii) Forms of Government are (a) Aristocracy (b) Monarchy (c) Autocracy (d) Oligarchy
(e) Theocracy (f) Democracy (g) Republic
2. What is meant by Parliamentary form of Government. om
Ans: (i) India has parliamentary form of government.
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(ii) The Indian parliament comprises the elected representatives of people who make laws for
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the country.
(iii) The participation of people in the decision making and the consent of citizens are the two
oo
important elements of the parliamentary form of government in India.

ab
3. What is democracy?
ur
Ans: (i) Democracy is a form of Government that allows people to choose their rulers.
(ii) Only leaders elected by people should rule the country.
.s
(iii) People have the freedom to express views, freedom to organize and freedom to protest
w
w
4. Mention the features of Democracy.

w
Ans: (i) Elected representatives of people and final decision-making power to the representatives.
(ii) Free and fair elections.
(iii) Universal adult franchise with each vote having equal value.
(iv) Fundamental rights and protection of individual freedom.
5. State the importance of the Sixty – first Constitutional Amendment Act.
Ans: (i) On 28th March, 1989 – the voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 by the sixty – first
Constitutional Amendment Act.
(ii) It was passed during the time of Rajiv Gandhi, the late Prime Minister of India
6. When were the first General elections held in Independent India?
Ans: (i) General elections to the first Lok Sabha since independence were held in India between
25th October, 1951 and 21st February 1952
(ii) The Indian National Congress (INC) emerged victorious into power by winning 364 of the
489 seats
(iii) Jawaharlal Nehru became the first democratically elected Prime Minister of the country
V. Answer in detail
1. Write about elections in India
Ans: (i) India has a Quasi-federal government, with elected representatives at the federal, state and
local levels.
297
34. South Africa

a) Name the states possessed by the British in South Africa.
b) What were the territories held by the Dutch?
c) Who was the Prime Minister of Cape Colony?
d) How long did Boer Wars last?
Section - V 3 × 5= 15
Answer in Detail:
35. Highlight the contribution of French Philosophers to the Revolution of 1789.
(or)
What were the effects of Industrial Revolution of England on India?
36. Explain the factors affecting the distribution of population.
(or)
Explain the major uses of GPS? Explain about any one.
37. Write about the merits of unitary form of government.
(or)
om
What are the problems faced by using ground water for agriculture?
Summative Assessment
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Section - VI 5 × 1= 5
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38. (a) Mark the following places in the given outline map of world.
oo
1. An area of High density of Population in Europe.

ab
2. An area of low density of population in Australia.

3. River Hwang Ho.
ur
4. A country affected by ‘black death’.

.s
5. First country where the modern census was conducted.

w
(or)
w
w
(b) Mark the following places in the given outline map of Tamilnadu.
1. A metropolitan city
3. Gulf of Mannar
3. Palk Strait
4. Mark the city located at 10oN, 78oE
5. The lattitude and longitude of Chennai
39. HOTS: 1×4=4
Can you imagine a world without satellites?
403
(iii) Population growth, migration and

ANSWERS urbanisation were the major social
changes.
Section - I (iv) Small towns became large cities. The
city of London grew from a population
Part - I
of two million in 1840 to five million
I. in forty years.
1. c) Jamestown 15. (i) Industrial Revolution increased the
2. a) Portuguese applications of Science to industry.
3. b) 112 (ii) The use of new technology came into
practice.
4. b) District Collector
(iii) Developed transportation and
5. c) Chennai communication.
6. c) (iv) is correct (iv) Introduced the use of new basic
II. materials: Iron and Steel.
7. Mirabeau 16. (i) he common people paid the - one tenth
T
8. Karl Marx of the annual produce or earnings.
9. rope stretchers om
(ii) The peasants paid taxes to the state such
10. Prime Minister as Taille (land tax), Gabelle (salt tax),
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11. North-East etc., and provided free labour (corvee)
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for the construction of public roads.

oo
III. 17. (i) C olonel Pennycuick was an army

ab
12. (i) - e; (ii) - d; (iii)-a; (iv) - b; (v) - c Engineer and Civil Servant who also
served as member of the Madras
ur
Legislative Council.
.s
(ii) He wanted to irrigate lakhs of acres of

Section - II
w
dry land dependent on the Vaigai river.

w
Part - I (iii) Since he could not get adequate funds

w
from the British government, he sold

13. (i) The Estates General consisted of the his family property and completed the
representatives of three classes or project in 1895.
estates as they were called. (iv) Mullai Periyar Dam continues to
(ii) They were irrigate agricultural lands in Theni,
(a) clergy (men and women ordained Dindigul, Madurai, Sivaganga and
for religious duties) Ramanathapuram districts.
(b) the nobles
Part - II
(c) the commoners (comprising
lawyers, rich merchants, bankers 18. (i) ensity of population refers to the
D
and businessmen and wealthy land- number of people living per sq.km.
owners). (ii) Population density
Total population
14. (i) With the advent of the Industrial =
Revolution, England became the workshop Total land area
of the world. 19. Components of remote sensing are
(ii) People started moving to industrial (i) Energy source
towns giving up agriculture. (ii) Transmission path
(iii) Target
(iv) Sensor
404
20. The four phases of the disaster mangement cycle.

(i) Mitigation
(ii) Preparedness
Preparedness Disaster
(iii) Response
(iv) Recovery Mitigation Disaster Rescue/Relief
Management
Prevention Cycle Rehabilitation
Planning Reconstruction
21. Census: It is an official enumeration of population carried out periodically, It records information
about the characteristics of population such as age, sex, literacy and occupation.
22. (i) A map is the basic tool of a geographer.
(ii) It illustrates the earth’s surface clearly and effectively through a combination of drawings,
words and symbols.
(iii) Thus, maps form an integral part of teaching geography.om
(iv) A map is a location guide.
.c
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Part - III
oo
23. (i)
A unitary system of government, or unitary state is a sovereign state governed as a single
ab
entity.
(ii) The Central government is supreme.
ur
(iii) The administrative divisions exercise only powers that the central government has delegated
.s
to them.
w
(iv) England, France, Japan, Sri Lanka are examples of unitary form of governments.
w
w
24. The village panchayats levy the following taxes such as, Property tax, Professional tax, House
tax, Taxes on connecting drinking water, Land tax and Taxes levied on shops.
Part - IV
25. The size of the land, quality of the land, amount of rainfall received, reliable water source all
contribute with change in cropping area.
26. In the Census of India, migration is enumerated on two bases,
(i) Place of birth : if the place of birth is different from the place of enumeration (known as
life-time migrant);
(ii) Place of residence: if the place of last residence is different from the place of enumeration
(known as migrant by place of last residence).
405
Section - III
27. Birth rate Death Rate
The number of live birth per 1000 child in a The number of death per 1000 people in a
country during a year. country during a year.
28. Map Globe

(i) Gives a two dimensional presentation Gives a three dimensional presentation of the
of a region. entire world.
(ii) It is easy to use and portable. It is not that easy to carry.
(iii) The region can be easily identified. It is called a duplicate earth.
(iv) It presents a distributed view as it is flat. It is more accurate.
29. Push Factors Pull factors

(i) In sufficient jobs and few opportunities. (i) Better job opportunities.
(ii) Primitive conditions (ii) Better living conditions
(iii) Pollution (iii) Clean environment
(iv) Poor infrastructural facilities (iv) Better infrastructural facilities
om
Aerial photographs Satellite imageries
.c
30.
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(i) Surveying can be planned and executed in High cost of satellite systems. Takes at least
a shorter time economically. 10 years to plan, construct test and launch.
oo
(ii) It covers a small area and needs permission It allows a global coverage and does not
ab
from authorities. require permission.

ur
31. Primary Activities Secondary Activities

.s
w
(i) Primary activities pertain to the extraction (i) Secondary activities transform raw
w
of raw materials from the earth’s surface. materials into finished goods.
w
(ii) For example: Food gathering, hunting,

lumbering, fishing, cattle rearing, mining (ii) For example: Iron and steel industries,
and agriculture. automobile manufacturing etc.,
Section - IV
32. (a) The clergy collected the (one tenth of the annual produce or earnings) from the common
people.
(b) Danton, a great leader of the Revolution, addressed the assembled crowds and threw an
open challenge to other European kings. He along with Herbert and Robespierre emerged
as the main leaders of the National Convention.
(c) Diderot and Jean d’Alembert were the two Encyclopaedists of the eighteenth century of
France.
(d) The Peasants provided free labour for the construction of public roads.
406
33. (a) The first railway line in England was opened between Stockton and Darlington in 1825.
(b) New networks of canals, roads and railroads were built. Macadamised roads and George
Stephenson’s steam locomotive helped to improve road and railway transport system in
the country.
(c) The steam boat invented in the US in 1807 was called Clermont.
(d) Robert Fulton who invented the steam boat travelled from New York to Albany covering
150 miles.
34. (a) In South Africa the British possessed Natal, Cape colony.
(b) The Dutch held the states of the Transvaal and Orange free state.
(c) Cecil Rhodes was the Prime Minister of Cape colony.
(d) The Boer war lasted three years (1899-1902).
Section - V
35. (i) There were many notable thinkers and writers in France in eighteenth century.
(ii) Voltaire, Montesquieu and Rousseau criticized the then existing conditions in France.
(iii) Voltaire was vehement in his criticism of the Church.
(iv) His famous quote was: “Those who can make you believe absurdities can make you commit
atrocities.”
(v) Rousseau’s political theory set the minds of many afire with new ideas and new resolves.
His ideas played an important part in preparing the people of France for the great revolution.
om
(vi) He argued that the laws are binding only when they are supported by the general will of
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the people.
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(vii) Montesquieu defended liberty. He put forward the theory of separation of powers.
oo
(viii)An Encyclopaedia also came out in Paris about this time and this was full of articles by
Diderot and Jean d’Alembert.
ab
(ix) These philosophers and thinkers, opposed to religious intolerance and political and social
ur
.s
(or)
w
(i) The invention of flying shuttle by John Kay and the inventions of Hargreaves, Arkwright
w
and Crompton within thirty years accelerated the process of spinning and weaving.
w
(ii) When the British established their foothold in Bengal as a territorial power, exploited
Bengal and the Carnatic economically.
(iii) The weavers of Bengal suffered at the hands of the Company’s officials and their agents.
(iv) These officials and agents first insisted on payment of a transit duty for the commodities
they carried from one place to another.
(v) Later for cultivation of commercial crops required for British industries in England.
(vi) The English deliberately destroyed Indian industry by dumping the Indian markets with
their machine-made cheap cotton piece goods.
(vii) India lost her old industrial position and became an exporter of raw material.
(viii)The export of raw cotton from India had steadily dwindled owing to the competition from
USA.
(ix) Weavers were thrown out of employment due to the British factory made cheap cotton
fabrics in Indian markets.
(x) The Collector of Madurai reported that families of about 5,000 weavers did not have the
means to take more than one meal of rice a day. The Collector of Tirunelveli observed that
the weaving population had outrun its means of subsistence.
(xi) To escape starvation deaths, peasants and artisans had to move out of the country opting
to working on plantations in British Empire colonies.
407
36. Population distribution refers to the way in which people are spread out across the earth surface.
The world population is not uniformly distributed, owing to the following factors.
(a) Physical factors :
It includes temperature, rainfall, Soil, relief, water, natural vegetation, distribution of
minerals and availability of energy resources.
(b) Historical factors :
Regions with historical importance (river valley civilizations, war and constant invasions
fall under historical factors responsible for population distribution.
(c) Economic factors :
Educational Institutions, employment opportunities, manufacturing industries, luxurious
amenities, trade and commerce and other facilities encourage dense population in an area.
(or)
GPS has made a considerable impact on almost all positioning, navigation, timing and monitoring
applications. It provides particularly coded satellite signals that can be processed in a GPS
receiver, allowing the receiver to estimate position, velocity and time.
(i) The (GPS) Global Positioning System is a U.S. owned utility that provides users with
positioning, control segment and the user segment.
(ii) The GPS ground segment (also referred to as control segment or operational control system)
is responsible for the proper operation of the GPS system.
(iii) The GPS control segment is composed by network of monitor stations (MS), a Master
om
Control Systems (MCS) a backup of the MCS and Ground Antenna (GA).
(iv) The GPS space segment consists of a constellation of transmitting radio signal to users.
.c
The linked states is committed to maintaining the availability of atleast 24 operational GPS
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satellites, 95% of the times.

oo
(v) The user segment is the practice of dividing all customers into segments based on
characteristics they share. For example sorting users by region, language, or behaviour.
ab
37. Merits of unitary form of government

ur
(i) Suitable for small countries.

.s
(ii) There is no conflict of authority and responsibility.

w
(iii) A unitary government will make prompt decisions and take speedy action.
w
(iv) A unitary government is less expensive.

w
(v) Amendments to the constitution are easy.

(vi) There is unity, uniformity of law, policy and administration.
(or)
(i) Tamil Nadu agriculture is dependent on ground water.
(ii) Use of ground water for agriculture creates many hardships too.
(iii) There would be no sufferings if the amount of water taken from the underground and the
amount of water that goes into the underground during the rainy season are equal.
(iv) On the Contrary, as the amount of water taken increases, the ground water will go down
resulting in the complete dryness or change to unusable water.
(v) The Union Water Board is constantly monitoring the level and nature of ground water.
(vi) This continues monitoring has categorized the Panchayat Union (Blocks) in terms of the
amount of groundwater used.
(vii) 139 Blocks are identified as excessive users of groundwater and 100 Blocks identified as
nearing the stage of excessive usage of groundwater..
(viii)11 blocks have been identified with reduced water quality. Only 136 blocks have enough
quantity and quality of water for usage.
(ix) From this we clearly understand that Tamil Nadu agriculture is dependent on groundwater.
It is very urgent and necessary to regulate the usage of underground water. This is very
important for fertile farming.
408
Section - VI
38. (a)
River Hwang Ho.
of population
Low density
om
.c
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ab
nm odern
us)
ark
(Fi Cens
ur
D M
rst
.s
e
(Black death)
High density of population

w
LONDON
North East of USA

w
w
409
(b)
Chennai
13.08oN, 780.27oE
Kanchipuram
District with
7857 people
per sq. km
13.08oN
780.27oE
10oN, 78oE
Madurai
(Metropolitan
City)
om
.c
Padasalai
St
ks
lk
Pa
oo
10oN, 78oE
ab
Gulf of Mannar
ur
.s
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39. (i)
Today a growing number of satellites orbit around the Earth, making various earth
w
observation, communication, navigation and science application possible.

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(ii) While we may not always realize or acknowledge their existence, the important role these
systems play in our daily lives cannot be under estimated.
(iii) As technology advances, the potential of satellites will undoubtedly continue to grow. New
markets will merge along with now opportunities to push the boundaries of what space
technology currently offers.
(iv) Likely satellites reach just about everywhere today. In certain isolated parts of our planet.
Satellites provide inhabitants with access to telephone service, 4G / 5G, broadband and
work.
(v) GPS help us to travel from A to B without getting lost along the way.
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Guide as per the latest Textbook for 2019 - 20

Complete Solutions to Textbook Exercises.

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Our Guides for Std. VI to IX

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3. Early Tamil Society and Culture 30 - 45

4. Intellectual Awakening and Socio-Political Changes 46 - 61

5. The Classical World 62 - 73

6. The Middle Ages 74 - 86

7. State and Society in Medieval India om 87 - 102

9. The Age of Revolutions 117 - 133

10. Industrial Revolution 134 - 146

11. Colonialism in Asia and Africa 147 - 162

1. Lithosphere – I Endogenetic Processes 163 - 184

2. Lithosphere – II Exogenetic Processes 185 - 207

3. Atmosphere 208 - 230

4. Hydrosphere 231 - 243

6. Biosphere 244 - 255

7. Man and Environment 256 - 271

8. Mapping Skills 272 - 283

9. Disaster Management : Responding to Disasters 284 - 289

[email protected] Ph : 9600175757 / 8124201000 / 8124301000

2. Election, Political Parties and Pressure Groups 300 - 309

3. Human Rights 310 - 322

4. Form of Government 323 - 329

5. Local Self Government om 330 - 338

Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability

2. Employment in India and Tamil Nadu 353 - 362

3. Money and CREDIT 363 - 372

4. Agriculture in Tamil Nadu 373 - 379

5. Migration 380 - 385

Summative Assessment 2018 - 19 with answer 386 - 393

Summative Assessment 2018 - 19 with answer 394 - 400

Third Summative Assessment 2018 - 19 with answer 401 - 410

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Evolution of Humans and Society – Pre historic Period

I. Choose the correct answer:

(a) Paleolithic (b) Mesolithic (c) Neolithic (d) Megalithic

(a) Paleolithic (b) Mesolithic (c) Neolithic (d) Megalithic

[Ans: (c) Homo sapiens]

[Ans: (b) Fertile Crescent]

Neolithic. [Ans: Mesolithic period]

[Ans: (d) Cuneiform]

[Ans: (b) Horse and Iron]

[Ans: (c) Dancing girl]

[Ans: (a) Pugalur]

[Ans: (c) Marco Polo]

V. Answer the Following questions briefly: 2×2=4

[Ans: (a) Mahajanapadas]

(a) Buddha (b) Mahavira (c) Lao-tze (d) Confucius

[Ans: (b) Mahavira]

(a) Marco Polo (b) Fahien (c) Megasthanes (d) Seleucus

[Ans: (c) Megasthanes]

c) Leo I d) Pontius Pilate [Ans: (d) Pontius Pilate]

5. The Peloponnesian War was fought between and _