Science MCQ

OGP 2019 SCIENCE MODULE MCQS
Table of Contents
GENERAL ASPECT...................................................................................................................................2
PHYSICS .....................................................................................................................................................2
CHEMISTRY ............................................................................................................................................20
BIOLOGY .................................................................................................................................................39
Health and diseases....................................................................................................................................72
HUMAN BODY ........................................................................................................................................88
PLANTS ....................................................................................................................................................98
INSTITUTIONS ........................................................................................................................................99
ARTIC AND ANTARTIC MISSION .......................................................................................................99
NUCLEAR TECHNOLOGY ..................................................................................................................102
ROBOTs , BID DATA AND AI .............................................................................................................104
INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY ...........................................................109
SPACE .....................................................................................................................................................125
SPACE TECHNOLOGY ........................................................................................................................133
Space programmes...................................................................................................................................147
SPACE PROGRAMMES IN INDIA ......................................................................................................156
MATERIAL TECHNOLOGY ................................................................................................................159
NANOSCIENCE .....................................................................................................................................159
LASER AND PHOTONICS ...................................................................................................................159
MISCELLANEOUS ................................................................................................................................162
DEFENCE TECHNOLOGY and programmes .......................................................................................165
DEFENCE EXERCISES .........................................................................................................................176
BIOTECHNOLOGY ...............................................................................................................................178
ACTS and POLICIES..............................................................................................................................193
AGRICULTURE .....................................................................................................................................194
ENVIRONMENT ....................................................................................................................................203
IPR ...........................................................................................................................................................223
SCHEMES ...............................................................................................................................................225
TRANSPORTATION ..........................................................................................................................229
NEW INVENTIONS AND DISCOVERY ..........................................................................................235
INSTITUTIONS ......................................................................................................................................236
MISC .......................................................................................................................................................237
GENERAL ASPECT
PHYSICS
1. Consider the following about Secondary Rainbows that are fainter than a primary rainbow.
1) They appear outside of a primary rainbow.

2) They occur when a light entering a raindrop undergoes no internal reflection.
3) The color scheme or colour order of the secondary rainbow is opposite of the primary rainbow.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification: A secondary rainbow appears outside of a primary rainbow and develops when light
entering a raindrop undergoes two internal reflections instead of just one (as is the case with a primary
rainbow).
The intensity of light is reduced even further by the second reflection, so secondary rainbows are not as
bright as primary rainbows.
2. Fishes in water bodies, that are frozen on the top, often gather in groups near the bottom. This is
because
1) Warm water sinks at the bottom of the lake that is very cold on the top.
2) Ice on the top of the water body insulates the water body making the bottoms liveable.
Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: During summer, the deeper you dive, the colder the water gets. During winter
the opposite happens. The frigid water actually gets relatively warmer the deeper you descend in a lake.
The reason has to do with how water molecules arrange. As water cools, the molecules sink and pack
tighter and tighter together (increasing density) until the temperature drops to nearly 4 degrees Celsius.
At that point, the water molecules are heavier than the water at the surface (that is freezing), causing a
topsy-turvy effect where warmer water is at the bottom.
Statement 2: The layer of ice that forms on top of a lake, pond, river, or stream provides some insulation
that helps the waterbody retain its heat. This is similar to the insulation offered by Igloos made in the
Northern pole.
In this resting state, fishes' hearts slow down, their needs for food and oxygen decrease, and they move
about very little. As cold-blooded creatures, their metabolism dips when temperatures take a dive.
3. Research has confirmed that e-cigarette vapours, a subject being examined by the Health
Ministry, contain free radical chemicals previously thought only to be found in tobacco cigarettes
and air pollutants. Consider the following statements about free radicals and antioxidants.
1) Free radicals are the natural byproducts of metabolism in the body.

2) The free radical chain reaction in the body may lead to broken cell membranes.
3) Antioxidants help in the prevention of cellular damage by interacting with free radicals.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Free radicals are atoms or groups of atoms with an odd (unpaired) number of electrons and
can be formed when oxygen interacts with certain molecules.
According to Rice University, once free radicals are formed, a chain reaction can occur. The first free
radical pulls an electron from a molecule, which destabilizes the molecule and turns it into a free radical.
That molecule then takes an electron from another molecule, destabilizing it and tuning it into a free
radical. This domino effect can eventually disrupt and damage the whole cell.
The free radical chain reaction may lead to broken cell membranes, which can alter what enters and exits
the cell.
Antioxidants are intimately involved in the prevention of cellular damage -- the common pathway for
cancer, aging, and a variety of diseases.
Antioxidants are molecules which can safely interact with free radicals and terminate the chain reaction
before vital molecules are damaged. Although there are several enzyme systems within the body that
scavenge free radicals, the principle micronutrient (vitamin) antioxidants are vitamin E, beta-carotene,
and vitamin C.
4. A memristor is an electrical component that limits or regulates the flow of electrical current in a circuit.
Why are they considered important in the development of sophisticated computer systems?
1) They retain memory, of the amount of charge that has flown through them, without using power.
2) They can both perform logic and store data.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Memristors, which are considered to be a sub-category of resistive RAM, are one of several
storage technologies that have been predicted to replace flash memory.
Memristors are important because they are non-volatile, meaning that they retain memory without power.
Memristors are a special type of resistive device that can both perform logic and store data.
A memristor is often compared to an imaginary pipe that carries water. When the water flows in one
direction, the pipe's diameter expands and allows the water to flow faster -- but when the water flows in
the opposite direction, the pipe's diameter contracts and slows the water's flow down.
If the water is shut off, the pipe retains its diameter until the water is turned back on. To continue the
analogy, when a memristor's power is shut off, the memristor retains its resistance value.
Scientists have developed a new type of neural network chip that can dramatically improve the efficiency
of teaching machines to think like humans. The network is called- Reservoir Computing System.
Researchers from University of Michigan in the US created their system using memristors, which require
less space and can be integrated more easily into existing silicon-based electronics.
Researchers used a special memristor that memorises events only in the near history. Inspired by brains,
neural networks are composed of neurons, or nodes, and synapses, the connections between nodes.
Reservoir computing systems built with memristors can skip most of the expensive training process and
still provide the network the capability to remember. This is because the most critical component of the
system – the reservoir – does not require training.
For example, a system can process a new photo and correctly identify a human face, because it has learned
the features of human faces from other photos in its training set.
5. Consider the following statements.
1) Everything that has a temperature gives off electromagnetic radiation.

2) Shortwave electromagnetic radiation contains lower amounts of energy than longwave radiation.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Shortwave radiation (visible light) contains a lot of energy; longwave radiation (infrared
light) contains less energy than shortwave radiation (shortwave radiation has a shorter wavelength than
longwave radation).
Solar energy enters our atmosphere as shortwave radiation in the form of ultraviolet (UV) rays (the ones
that give us sunburn) and visible light. The sun emits shortwave radiation because it is extremely hot and
has a lot of energy to give off.
Once in the Earth’s atmosphere, clouds and the surface absorb the solar energy. The ground heats up and
re-emits energy as longwave radiation in the form of infrared rays. Earth emits longwave radiation because
Earth is cooler than the sun and has less energy available to give off.
Greenhouse gases are good absorbers of long wave radiations.
6. Why do vast glaciers appear blue in colour when seen from a long distance?
1) Due to Rayleigh scattering where light is scattered elastically by particles much smaller than the
wavelength of the radiation
2) There is a lack of air bubbles in compressed glacier ice.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Blue ice occurs when snow falls on a glacier, is compressed, and becomes
part of the glacier. Air bubbles are squeezed out and ice crystals enlarge, making the ice appear blue.
Small amounts of regular ice appear to be white because of air bubbles inside them and also because small
quantities of water appear to be colourless.
In glaciers, the pressure causes the air bubbles to be squeezed out, increasing the density of the created
ice.
Large quantities of water appear to be blue, as it absorbs other colours more efficiently than blue.
Therefore, a large piece of compressed ice, or a glacier, would appear blue.
Statement 2: The blue color is sometimes wrongly attributed to Rayleigh scattering, which is responsible
for the color of the sky.
Rather, water ice is blue for the same reason that large quantities of liquid water are blue: it is a result of
an overtone of an oxygen–hydrogen (O−H) bond stretch in water, which absorbs light at the red end of
the visible spectrum.
Water molecules absorb other colors more efficiently than blue.
In the case of oceans or lakes, some of the light hitting the surface of water is reflected back directly, but
most of it penetrates the surface, interacting with its molecules. The water molecule can vibrate in different
modes when light hits it.
The red, orange, yellow, and green wavelengths of light are absorbed so that the remaining light is
composed of the shorter wavelengths of blue and violet. This is the main reason why the ocean is blue.
So, water owes its intrinsic blueness to selective absorption in the red part of its visible spectrum.
7. The Standard Model of particle physics

1) Accepts the theory that the Universe is made of from a few basic building blocks called fundamental
particles
2) Rejects the theory of the existence of fundamental forces and postulates that the Universe is connected
by invisible ‘quarks’ that behave like a large string

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: As per the Standard Model of particle physics:

All matter around us is made of elementary particles, the building blocks of matter. These particles occur
in two basic types called quarks and leptons.
There are four fundamental forces at work in the universe: the strong force, the weak force, the
electromagnetic force, and the gravitational force. They work over different ranges and have different
strengths. Gravity is the weakest but it has an infinite range. The electromagnetic force also has infinite
range but it is many times stronger than gravity
Three of the fundamental forces result from the exchange of force-carrier particles, which belong to a
broader group called “bosons”.
8. Sound would travel fastest in
a) Water
b) Air
c) Diamond
d) Iron
Correct Answer : C
Justification: The speed of sound in an ideal gas depends only on its temperature and composition.The
speed has a weak dependence on frequency and pressure in ordinary air, deviating slightly from ideal
behaviour.
However, the speed of sound varies from substance to substance: sound travels most slowly in gases; it
travels faster in liquids; and faster still in solids. For example, (as noted above), sound travels at 343 m/s
in air; it travels at 1,484 m/s in water (4.3 times as fast as in air); and at 5,120 m/s in iron (about 15 times
as fast as in air).
In an exceptionally stiff material such as diamond, sound travels at 12,000 metres per second (26,843
mph); (about 35 times as fast as in air) which is around the maximum speed that sound will travel under
normal conditions.
9. The CMYK colour model used in color printing, and is also used to describe the printing process
itself. When CMY ‘primaries’ (two colours) are combined at full strength, the resulting ‘secondary’
mixtures are
a) Red, Green and Blue

b) White, Cyan and Orange
c) Green, Pink and Magenta
d) Black, Violet and White
Correct Answer : A
Learning: CMYK refers to the four inks used in some color printing: cyan, magenta, yellow, and key
(black). Opposed to this, there is another colour mode RGB that is used mainly for web applications, and
when the image is not to be printed.
In additive color models, such as RGB, white is the "additive" combination of all primary colored lights,
while black is the absence of light.
In the CMYK model, it is the opposite: white is the natural color of the paper or other background, while
black results from a full combination of colored inks.
When CMY “primaries” are combined at full strength, the resulting “secondary” mixtures are red, green,
and blue. Mixing all three gives an imperfect black or a perfect grey.
To save cost on ink, and to produce deeper black tones, unsaturated and dark colors are produced by using
black ink instead of the combination of cyan, magenta, and yellow
10. Consider the followin statements “Supercritical” state of carbon dioxide is
1) A fluid state of carbon dioxide

2) The state when CO2 is being use as a coolant in nuclear reactors

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Carbon dioxide usually behaves as a gas in air at standard temperature and pressure (STP),
or as a solid called dry ice when frozen.
If the temperature and pressure are both increased from STP to be at or above the critical point for carbon
dioxide, it can adopt properties midway between a gas and a liquid. At the supercritical state, it becomes
a fluid.
More specifically, it behaves as a supercritical fluid above its critical temperature (31.10 °C) and critical
pressure, expanding to fill its container like a gas but with a density like that of a liquid.
Supercritical CO2 is becoming an important commercial and industrial solvent due to its role in chemical
extraction in addition to its low toxicity and environmental impact
11. In a plane mirror, image is always
a) At a fixed distance from the plane of the mirror

b) At the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of it
c) At a distance less than the distance of object from the mirror
d) At the focal point of the mirror irrespective of distance of the object from the mirror
Correct Answer : B
Justification: In a plane mirror, image is always at the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in
front of it. So, if your distance from the mirror is 1m, image will be formed 1m behind the mirror.
This is because the plane mirror does not bend light as other spherical mirrors do. It simply reflects and
projects it.
12. Which of the following can be used to form a real image of a bright star on a paper?
a) Convex and Concave lens

b) Convex lens and Concave mirror
c) Convex mirror and Concave lens
d) Convex and Concave mirror
Correct Answer : B
Justification: A convex lens converges (bends inward) the light generally falling on it. Therefore, it is
called a converging lens. On the other hand, a concave lens diverges (bends outward) the light and is
called a diverging lens.
The opposite is true in case of mirrors, i.e. concave mirror will converge light falling on it, and convex
mirror will diverge the same
1) Capillary action occurs because water has a sticky nature.

2) Capillary action helps plant roots take water from soil.
3) The height to which capillary action occurs is controlled by gravity and surface tension of the water.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Capillary action is defined as the movement of water within the spaces of a porous material
due to the forces of adhesion, cohesion, and surface tension.
Capillary action occurs because water is sticky, thanks to the forces of cohesion (water molecules like to
stay close together) and adhesion (water molecules are attracted and stick to other substances).
Adhesion of water to the walls of a vessel will cause an upward force on the liquid at the edges and result
in a meniscus which turns upward. The surface tension acts to hold the surface intact.
Capillary action occurs when the adhesion to the walls is stronger than the cohesive forces between the
liquid molecules.
The height to which capillary action will take water in a uniform circular tube (picture to left) is limited
by surface tension and, of course, gravity.
14. Constructive and destructive interference of the light is responsible for rainbow patterns found
in
1) Soap bubbles
2) Compact Disk
3) Thin film of oil floating on water

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Consider a very thin film of oil floating on water as an example.
When white light strikes the film, most of it passes through it, but some is reflected off of the top and
bottom layers of the film. In the same way, when you stand in front of a window in your house, you can
see a reflected image in the window.
Most of the light is passing through the window and out of the house, but some is reflected back at you.
The light that reflects off the top layer of a film of oil travels a slightly shorter distance than the light
reflecting off the bottom layer, as shown in this figure In this figure, the incoming ray of light enters from
the upper left. Part of the light passes straight through the film (A). Part of it reflects off the top layer of
the film (B). Part of it reflects off the bottom layer of the film (C).
If the film is just the right thickness, a red light wave (a sine wave) will bounce off the top and bottom
layers in perfect alignment, and the two resulting sine waves will combine to double the
amount of red light seen.
On a CD, the surface is mirrored so the rainbow colors are much more intense.
If the film thickness is on the order of the wavelength of light, then interference can occur.
15. Even though electromagnetism is far stronger than gravitation, electrostatic attraction is not
relevant for large celestial bodies. Why?
1) Net electric charge of such bodies is zero.

2) Electromagnetic force is a short-range force.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Explanation: Electromagnetic attraction is not relevant for large celestial bodies, such as planets, stars,
and galaxies, simply because such bodies contain equal numbers of protons and electrons and so have a
net electric charge of zero.
Nothing "cancels" gravity, since it is only attractive, unlike electric forces which can be attractive or
repulsive. So, statement 1 is correct.
Electromagnetism is infinite-ranged like gravity. So, statement 2 is wrong.
Learning: Gravitation is by far the weakest of the four interactions. For e.g. even a small magnet is able
to hold the pin against the gravitational pull of the entire Earth!
Yet gravitation is very important for macroscopic objects and over macroscopic distances for the
following reasons. Gravitation:
is the only interaction that acts on all particles having mass, energy and/or momentum;
has an infinite range, like electromagnetism but unlike strong and weak interaction;
cannot be absorbed, transformed, or shielded against;
always attracts and never repels.
16. Which of the following force(s) is/are both attractive and repulsive?
1) Gravitation Force
2) Electromagnetic force
3) Strong interaction force

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Explanation & Learning:

There are 4 fundamental forces that have been identified. In our present Universe they have rather different
properties.
Properties of the Fundamental Forces
The strong interaction is very strong, but very short-ranged. It acts only over ranges of order 10-13 cm
and is responsible for holding the nuclei of atoms together. It is basically attractive, but can be effectively
repulsive in some circumstances.
The electromagnetic force causes electric and magnetic effects such as the repulsion between like
electrical charges or the interaction of bar magnets. It is long-ranged, but much weaker than the strong
force. It can be attractive or repulsive, and acts only between pieces of matter carrying electrical charge.
The weak force is responsible for radioactive decay and neutrino interactions. It has a very short range
and, as its name indicates, it is very weak.
The gravitational force is weak, but very long ranged. Furthermore, it is always attractive, and acts
between any two pieces of matter in the Universe since mass is its source
17. Which of the following planets in the solar system can float on water?
a) Mars and Jupiter

b) Venus and Neptune
c) Mercury, Venus and Saturn

d) Saturn only
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Saturn has the lowest density of all the planets in the Solar System. The actual number
is 0.687 grams per cubic centimeter. This is actually less dense than water; if you had a large enough pool
of water, Saturn would float.
Jupiter has an average density of 1.33 grams per cubic centimeter. So it wouldn’t float on water. And
Earth, the densest planet in the Solar System, measures 5.51 grams/cubic centimeter.
18. In a water vessel, apart from the Height of water column, total pressure exerted at the bottom
of a container depends on
1) Height at which the container is placed above Mean Sea Level (MSL)
2) Shape of the water vessel

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Explanation & Learning: The pressure at a given depth in a static liquid is a result the weight of the
liquid acting on a unit area at that depth plus any pressure acting on the surface of the liquid. P= P atm
(atmospheric pressure) dgh (pressure due to water)
D- Density of water; G- Acceleration due to gravity; H- height of water column
As altitude increases, the atmospheric pressure decreases, and the total pressure as a result also falls.
Also, the pressure due to the liquid alone (not total) at a given depth depends only upon the density of the
liquid ρ and the distance below the surface of the liquid h.
The pressure at a given depth is independent of direction - it is the same in all directions. Hence, it does
not depend on the width of the water vessel
19. Consider the following about LIDAR.
1) It is a remote sensing technique in which the data is often collected by air.

2) The use of LIDAR is restricted to natural environments.
3) It can be used to generate three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface
characteristics.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: LIDAR, which stands for Light Detection and Ranging, is a remote sensing method that
uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges (variable distances) to the Earth.
These light pulses—combined with other data recorded by the airborne system— generate precise, three-
dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics.
A LIDAR instrument principally consists of a laser, a scanner, and a specialized GPS receiver.
Airplanes and helicopters are the most commonly used platforms for acquiring LIDAR data over broad
areas.
Two types of LIDAR are topographic and bathymetric. Topographic LIDAR typically uses a near-infrared
laser to map the land, while bathymetric lidar uses water-penetrating green light to also measure seafloor
and riverbed elevations.
LIDAR systems allow scientists and mapping professionals to examine both natural and manmade
environments with accuracy, precision, and flexibility.
Some scientists are using LIDAR to produce more accurate shoreline maps, make digital elevation models
for use in geographic information systems, to assist in emergency response operations, and in many other
applications.
20. Consider the following with reference to the Optical receiver technology seen recently in news.
1) It is faster than conventional fibre broadband because it does not use any detectors that are used in
conventional receivers.
2) It offers users a dedicated wavelength due to which user speeds stay constant irrespective of how many
users are online at the same time.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: An average speed of over 100 times faster internet will be required by 2025 which can be
achieved by this technology.
Researchers have claimed that the new receiver technology can provide consistently high- speed
broadband connectivity even on a low-cost.
They achieved this simplification by adopting a coding technique to fibre access networks that was
originally designed to prevent signal fading in wireless communications.
Statement 1: Although the new receiver retains many of the advantages of coherent receivers, it is much
simpler, cheaper and smaller, and requires only 25 percent of the detectors used in conventional receivers.
Statement 2: This simple receiver offers users a dedicated wavelength, so user speeds stay constant no
matter how many users are online at once. It can co-exist with the current network infrastructure,
potentially quadrupling the number of users that can be supported and doubling the network's transmission
distance/coverage.
21. Which of these is INCORRECT about the force of Gravitation?
a) It cannot be shielded against.

b) It acts on particles having mass or even massless particles.
c) It always attracts and never repels.
Correct Answer : B
Justification & Learning: It is the weakest of the four fundamental force interactions – electromagnetic,
nuclear, weak force and gravitation.
For instance, even a small magnet is able to hold the pin against the gravitational pull of the entire Earth.
Gravitation:has an infinite range, like electromagnetism but unlike strong and weak interaction;
cannot be absorbed, transformed, or shielded against;
always attracts and never repels.
1) Sound moves at a much faster speed in ocean water than in air.

2) Distance that sound waves travel in the ocean is independent of ocean temperature and pressure.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: It is due to the higher density of water and better interconnectivity between
molecules for the transverse movement of sound waves.
Statement 2: It is primarily dependent upon ocean temperature and pressure.
While pressure continues to increase as ocean depth increases, the temperature of the ocean only decreases
up to a certain point, after which it remains relatively stable.
Learning: As sound waves travel through the water, their speed decreases with increasing depth (as the
temperature drops), causing the sound waves to refract downward.
Once the sound waves reach the bottom of what is known as the thermocline layer, the speed of sound
reaches its minimum.
The thermocline is a region characterized by rapid change in temperature and pressure which occurs at
different depths around the world.
Below the thermocline "layer," the temperature remains constant, but pressure continues to increase. This
causes the speed of sound to increase and makes the sound waves refract upward.
Assertion (A): Blue light can travel longer distances without appreciable loss by scattering than any other
colored lights.
Reason (R): Blue light has highest wavelength in the visible spectrum of light.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Red, having the higher wavelength is the least scattered. So, it can travel longer distances
without appreciable loss by scattering than any other colored lights.
Also, we inherently perceive red colour associated with danger.
Colours such as blue are scattered most and not visible from a distance.
For e.g. we see sky as blue because the colour blue is scattered most by the atmosphere.
24. Electric instruments and meters can be influenced by stray magnetic fields which will cause
errors in their readings. They can be shielded from such outside magnetic effects by surrounding
them with
a) Layers of vacuum
b) Soft-Iron shield
c) Aluminium Foil
d) They cannot be shielded by any of the above
Correct Answer : B
Justification: There is no known insulator for magnetic flux.

If a magnetic material (for example, soft iron) is placed in a magnetic field, the flux may be redirected to
take advantage of the greater permeability of the magnetic material.
The sensitive mechanisms of electric instruments and meters can be influenced by stray magnetic fields
which will cause errors in their readings.
Because instrument mechanisms cannot be insulated against magnetic flux, it is necessary to employ some
means of directing the flux around the instrument.
This is accomplished by placing a soft-iron case, called a magnetic screen or shield, about the instrument.
Because the flux is established more readily through the iron (even though the path is longer) than through
the air inside the case, the instrument is effectively shielded
25. The apparent flattening of the Sun’s disc at sunrise and sunset is due to
a) Halo effect of the Sun

b) Atmospheric refraction
c) Cloud iridescence
d) Formation of mirage on ground
Correct Answer : B
Justification: The temperature (and pressure) gradient in the atmosphere causes bending of light rays.
This is called atmospheric refraction.
Light rays from the low sun or moon will refract more closer to the horizon.
This is why the setting or rising sun (and moon) appears flattened: the light rays from the lower part of
the sun's disk refract more than the rays emerging from the top, and the vertical angle over which you see
the sun is decreased - it is flattened
26. What are the properties of X-rays?
1) X-rays have much longer wavelengths than visible light.

2) X-ray photons carry enough energy to ionize atoms and disrupt molecular bonds.
3) X-rays do not interact with matter at all.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: They have shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies.
This makes it possible to probe structures much smaller than can be seen using a normal
microscope.
This property is used in X-ray microscopy to acquire high resolution images, and also in X-
ray crystallography to determine the positions of atoms in crystals.
Statement 2: This makes it a type of ionizing radiation, and therefore harmful to living tissue.
A very high radiation dose over a short period of time causes radiation sickness, while lower
doses can give an increased risk of radiation-induced cancer.
Statement 3: X-rays interact with matter in three main ways, through photoabsorption, Compton
scattering, and Rayleigh scattering.
The strength of these interactions depends on the energy of the X-rays and the elemental
composition of the material.
We will try covering these separately in upcoming tests because they are important.
CHEMISTRY
27. Aerogels find potential application in
1) Improving drug delivery

2) Oil spill cleaning
3) Heat insulation materials for buildings

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Scientists recently successfully converted paper waste into green nontoxic cellulose
aerogels.
Statement 1: It can be used in a drug delivery system owing to its biocompatibility. Due to its high surface
area and porous structure, drugs can be adsorbed from supercritical CO2. The release rate of the drugs
can be tailored by varying the properties of the aerogel.
Statement 2: It can be used as a chemical adsorber for cleaning up spills.
Statement 3: Aerogel is a synthetic porous ultralight material derived from a gel, in which the liquid
component of the gel has been replaced with a gas. The result is a solid with extremely low density and
low thermal conductivity. It is nearly 98% air. So, it fits as a heat insulation material.
28. Commonly used antiseptic, dettol is a mixture of
1) Chloroxylenol
2) Terpineol
3) Bithionol
4) Iodine
5) Phenol

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 5 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Chloroxylenol, also known as para-chloro-meta-xylenol (PCMX), is an antiseptic and

disinfectant which is used for skin disinfection and cleaning surgical instruments.
It is also used within a number of household disinfectants and wound cleaner. It is less effective than some
other available agents. It is available as a liquid.
Statement 3 and 4: Bithionol is added to soaps to impart antiseptic properties. Iodine is a powerful
antiseptic. Its 2-3 per cent solution in alcohol water mixture is known as tincture of iodine. It is applied
on wounds. Iodoform is also used as an antiseptic for wounds. Boric acid in dilute aqueous solution is
weak antiseptic for eyes.
Learning: Disinfectants are applied to inanimate objects such as floors, drainage system,
instruments, etc. Same substances can act as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant by varying the
concentration. For example, 0.2 per cent solution of phenol is an antiseptic while its one percent solution
is disinfectant.
1) Hair washed with hard water looks dull because of presence of calcium and magnesium ions in hard
water.
2) Dye absorb evenly on clothes washed with soap in hard water due to the formation of the gummy mass
of potassium salts.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions. These ions form insoluble calcium and
magnesium soaps respectively when sodium or potassium soaps are dissolved in hard water.
These insoluble soaps separate as scum in water and are useless as cleansing agent. In fact these are
hinderance to good washing, because the precipitate adheres onto the fibre of the cloth as gummy mass.
Hair washed with hard water looks dull because of this sticky precipitate.
Dye does not absorb evenly on cloth washed with soap using hard water, because of this gummy mass.
1) Formation of ozone consumes oxygen.

2) Nitrogen-fixing by most bacteria happens in presence of oxygen.
3) Oxygen is consumed when the plant combines the carbon dioxide and the water by using the Sun's
energy.

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Free oxygen atoms can recombine to form oxygen molecules but if a free
oxygen atom collides with an oxygen molecule, it joins up, forming ozone. Ozone molecules can also be
decomposed by ultraviolet radiation into a free atom and an oxygen molecule.
Statement 2: It is largely an anaerobic process. Enzymes responsible for nitrogenase action are very
susceptible to destruction by oxygen. For this reason, many bacteria cease production of the enzyme in
the presence of oxygen.
So, many nitrogen-fixing organisms exist only in anaerobic conditions, respiring to draw down oxygen
levels, or binding the oxygen with a protein such as leghemoglobin.
Statement 3: This is the process of photosynthesis that produces oxygen instead of consuming it.
During photosynthesis green plants manufacture the sugar molecules fructose and glucose. Green plants
use energy from sunlight to build sugar molecules from carbon dioxide and water.
31. Which of the following minerals can be mined from salt water lakes?
1) Borax
2) Gypsum
3) Rubidium
4) Uranium

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification
In china, some of the commonly exploited minerals and compounds include magnesium, potassium
nitrate, boron salt, lithium salts, Rubidium and Caesium, uranium and thorium.
1) Ammonia occurs naturally in the environment.

2) Ammonia causes soil acidification because it persists for years after its first application in the soil.
3) Excess of Ammonia in water bodies leads to eutrophication.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Since ammonia occurs naturally in the environment, we are regularly exposed
to low levels of ammonia in air, soil, and water. Ammonia exists naturally in the air at levels between 1
and 5 parts in a billion parts of air (ppb). It is commonly found in rainwater.
Ammonia is naturally produced and used by all mammals in their normal metabolism. Ammonia is
produced within a person's body each day.
Statement 2: Ammonia does not last very long in the environment. Because it is recycled naturally, nature
has many ways of incorporating and transforming ammonia. In soil or water, plants and microorganisms
rapidly take up ammonia. After fertilizer containing ammonia is applied to soil, the amount of ammonia
in that soil decreases to low levels in a few days.
Statement 3: Both gaseous and particulate ammonia contribute to eutrophication of surface waters, soil
acidification, fertilization of vegetation, changes in ecosystems and smog and decreased visibility in cities
and pristine areas.
33. A microwave oven can best heat
a) High fibre foods

b) Dry fruits
c) High water content food item
d) Nutrition rich foods
Correct Answer : C
Justification: A microwave oven heats food by passing microwave radiation through it. Microwaves are
a form of non-ionizing electromagnetic radiation with a frequency higher than ordinary radio waves but
lower than infrared light. Microwave ovens use frequencies in one of the ISM (industrial, scientific,
medical) bands, which are reserved for this use, so they do not interfere with other vital radio services.
It induces polar molecules in the food to rotate and produce thermal energy. Since water is a polar
molecule, the most appropriate option here is (c).
They are also useful for rapid heating of otherwise slowly prepared cooking items, such as hot butter, fats,
and chocolate. Unlike conventional ovens, microwave ovens usually do not directly brown or caramelize
food, since they rarely attain the necessary temperatures.
34. With reference to the advantages and disadvantages of chlorine disinfection of water, consider
the following statements.
1) Chlorination of water is used to prevent the spread of waterborne diseases such as cholera based on the
strong oxidizing properties of Chlorine.
2) Chlorination can lead to formation of harmful trihalomethanes (THMs) in the water supply.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: As a halogen, chlorine is a highly efficient disinfectant, and is added to public
water supplies to kill disease-causing pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, and protozoans, that commonly
grow in water supply reservoirs, on the walls of water mains and in storage tanks.
Statement 2: Disinfection by chlorination can be problematic, in some circumstances. Chlorine can react
with naturally occurring organic compounds found in the water supply to produce compounds known as
disinfection by-products (DBPs). The most common DBPs are trihalomethanes (THMs) and haloacetic
acids (HAAs).
Trihalomethanes are the main disinfectant by-products created from chlorination with two different types,
bromoform and dibromochloromethane, which are mainly responsible for health hazards.
Their effects depend strictly on the duration of their exposure to the chemicals and the amount ingested
into the body. In high doses, bromoform mainly slows down regular brain activity, which is manifested
by symptoms such as sleepiness or sedation.
35. Ion exchange describes a specific chemical process in which unwanted dissolved ions are
exchanged for other ions with a similar charge. It is widely used for which of these purposes?
1) Water decontamination
2) Production of soft water
3) Sugar and sweetener production

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Ions are atoms or molecules containing a total number of electrons that are not equal to
the total number of protons.
There are two different groups of ions, cations, which are positively charged, and anions, which are
negatively charged.
Ion exchange is an exchange of ions between two electrolytes or between an electrolyte solution and a
complex. In most cases the term is used to denote the processes of purification, separation, and
decontamination of aqueous and other ion-containing solutions with solid polymeric or mineralic "ion
exchangers".
Ion exchange is widely used in the food and beverage industry, hydrometallurgy, metals finishing,
chemical, petrochemical and pharmaceutical technology, sugar and sweetener production, ground- and
potable-water treatment, nuclear, softening and industrial water treatment, semiconductor, power, and a
host of other industries.
A typical example of application is preparation of high-purity water for power engineering, electronic and
nuclear industries; i.e. polymeric or mineralic insoluble ion exchangers are widely used for water
softening, water purification, water decontamination, etc
36. Which of these products contain Mercury?
1) LCDs (display)
2) Laptop Batteries
3) Some oil-based paints

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: As the only element or metal that is liquid at room temperature, it is used in many common
household products and fixtures.
It is contained in the following products: thermometers (looks like a silvery liquid); thermostats; blood-
pressure cuffs; barometers; fluorescent and high-intensity discharge (HID) lamps; mercurochrome; auto
switches; float switches; button-cell batteries; old latex paint; some oil-based paints; old alkaline batteries;
chemistry sets; old fungicides for seeds and turf; dental amalgam; some imported jewellery (glass
ampoules with silver liquid); weight/counterweight in grandfather clocks.
Statement 2: Button cell batteries use Mercury, not Laptop batteries.
Mercury can enter our bodies through our lungs and skin, or more commonly, by eating mercury-
contaminated fish.
1) Ice can be formed inside minerals that are buried deep inside earth.
2) When water freezes, the oxygen atoms in the water are sequestered out of the ice cubes.
3) Some forms of ice can be formed at room temperature from water if the adequate pressure can be
reached.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Ice-VII, a form of ice, is formed in diamond.

Diamonds often pick up molecules during their formation deep in the Earth. These so-called inclusions
can affect the quality or color of the diamond, but sometimes the inclusion is just water.
One interesting property of diamonds is the internal structures don’t relax when they leave the high-
pressure mantle.
So, the water inside a diamond remains compressed, even though it’s technically in a liquid state.
Statement 2: A Commonly used form of Ice is called as ice-I.
When water freezes, the oxygen atoms move into a hexagonal arrangement. That’s why ice expands and
has lower density than water. Compressing ice can change the shape of the crystals, turning ice-I into ice-
II (rhombus-shaped crystals), ice-III (tetragonal crystals), and so on.
Statement 3: The formation of ice-VII doesn’t require freezing temperatures — as long as the pressure is
high enough, ice-VII can form at room temperature.
38. Which of these are ‘Fusible’ or ‘low melting point’ metals/alloys?
1) Cadmium
2) Gallium
3) Molybdenum
4) Tungsten

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 3 and 4: The five elements niobium, molybdenum, tantalum, tungsten and
rhenium are included in the definition of refractory metals. The wider definition of refractory metals
includes all elements with a melting point above 2,123 K (1,850 °C), includes a varying number of nine
additional elements: titanium, vanadium, chromium, zirconium, hafnium, ruthenium.
Statement 1 and 2: A fusible alloy is a metal alloy capable of being easily fused, i.e. easily meltable, at
relatively low temperatures.
Low melting alloys can be divided up into:
Mercury-containing alloys
Only alkali metal-containing alloys
Gallium-containing alloys (but neither alkali metal nor mercury)
Only bismuth, lead, tin, cadmium, zinc, indium and sometimes thallium-containing alloys
39. Researchers have developed silver copper telluride (AgCuTe) at the Jawaharlal Nehru Centre
for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR), Bengaluru. What is a potential application of this
development?
1) It can be used as a superconductor at room temperature because it exhibits excellent thermal

conductivity.
2) It can be used as a thermoelectric material for converting waste heat into electricity.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: It exhibits poor thermal conductivity but shows good electrical conductivity.
The material having thermoelectric properties is made from silver, copper, and tellurium.
It shows high levels of thermoelectric performance i.e. exhibits poor thermal conductivity in 25-425
degree C range but shows good electrical conductivity.
Statement 2: Due to its low thermal conductivity, one end of 8 mm-long AgCuTe rod which is contact
with waste heat remains hot while other end maintains cold temperature.
This temperature difference results in generation of electrical voltage. The material also exhibits good
electrical conductivity like metal at same time.
The compound shows ideal promise as thermoelectric material for converting waste heat into electricity.
Its potential applications as thermoelectric technology are in automobile industry, thermal, chemical and
steel power plants where large quantities of heat are wasted.
40. Brayton Cycle was recently in news in the context of
a) Producing clean energy

b) Reducing border skirmishes
c) Enhancing funding for environmental projects in developing countries
d) Fighting organized crime in South Asia
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Indian scientists have developed a super critical carbon di oxide Brayton test loop facility that
would help generate clean energy from future power plants including solar thermal.
The efficiency of energy conversion could be significantly increased by as much as 50% or more if S-
CO2 is operated in a closed loop Brayton cycle. Besides increasing power generation and making the
process more efficient, there are other advantages of using this new technology.
Smaller turbines and power blocks can make the power plant cheaper, while higher efficiency would
significantly reduce CO2 emissions for fossil fuel based plants. Moreover, if the power plant used solar
or nuclear heat source, it would mean higher capacity at lower operating costs.
41. SERIIUS, that was recently seen in news is
a) An Indo-US research consortium on solar energy

b) NASA’s additional to the Hubble telescope
c) The naval exercise between SAARC countries
d) Smokeless chullhas programme of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy of India
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Recently, the next generation technology Brayton Cycle was in news developed indigenously
by Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore.
The facility is part of the Indo-US consortium — Solar Energy Research Institute for India and the United
States (SERIIUS).
This is India’s first test-bed for next generation, efficient, compact, waterless super critical carbon dioxide
Brayton cycle test loop for power generation. The technology is perhaps the first test loop coupled with
solar heat source in the world.
42. Lichenometry is a technique used to determine the
1) Rate of decay of an ecosystem

2) Age of exposed rock surfaces
3) Acidic content of water bodies

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Lichen is a symbiotic relationship between Fungi and algae.

The technique of Lichenometry is used in archaeology, palaeontology, and geomorphology. It uses the
presumed regular but slow rate of lichen growth to determine the age of exposed rock.
Measuring the diameter (or other size measurement) of the largest lichen of a species on a rock surface
indicates the length of time since the rock surface was first exposed.
Lichens occur from sea level to high alpine elevations, in a very wide range of environmental conditions,
and can grow on almost any surface.
43. Which of the following are examples of Chemical Changes?
1) Burning wood
2) Digesting food
3) Dissolving sugar and water
4) Baking a cake
44. A dormant seed is one that is unable to germinate in a specified period of time under a
combination of environmental factors. Consider the following statements with regard to this.
1) Physical dormancy is the result of impermeable layers that develops during maturation and drying of
the seed or fruit.
2) Physical dormancy has not been recorded in any angiosperms.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Dormancy that is caused by an impermeable seed coat is known as physical dormancy.
Physical dormancy is the result of impermeable layer(s) that develops during maturation and drying of
the seed or fruit.
This impermeable layer prevents the seed from taking up water or gases. As a result, the seed is prevented
from germinating until dormancy is broken.
In natural systems, physical dormancy is broken by several factors including high temperatures,
fluctuating temperatures, fire, freezing/thawing, drying or passage through the digestive tracts of animals.
Physical dormancy has been identified in the seeds of plants across 15 angiosperm families. However it
has not been recorded in any gymnosperms.
45. Consider the following about Heavy Water.

1) It is the heavier isotope of hydrogen.
2) It is used both as a moderator and Coolant in nuclear reactors.
3) India imports all its requirement of heavy water.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Heavy water or deuterium oxide (D2O) is a form of water that contains a large
amount of the hydrogen isotope deuterium which is also known as heavy hydrogen.
Statement 2: Heavy water is used in certain types of nuclear reactors, where it acts as a neutron moderator
to slow down neutrons. The different applications and uses of heavy water are:
Nuclear magnetic resonance. In Organic chemistry.
Fourier transform spectroscopy. Neutron moderator.
Neutrino detector.
Metabolic rate testing in physiology and biology. Tritium production.
Statement 3: Heavy Water Board (HWB) is a constituent unit under the Department of Atomic Energy.
The organisation is primarily responsible for production of Heavy Water (D2O).
46. Which of these forms of biomass are polymers?
1) Cellulose
2) Lignin
3) Hemicellulose

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: They are parts of Lignocellulose which refers to plant dry matter (biomass).
It is the most abundantly available raw material on the Earth for the production of biofuels, mainly bio-
ethanol.
It is composed of carbohydrate polymers (cellulose, hemicellulose), and an aromatic polymer (lignin).

These carbohydrate polymers contain different sugar monomers (six and five carbon sugars) and they are
tightly bound to lignin.
Lignocellulosic biomass can be broadly classified into virgin biomass, waste biomass and energy crops.
Virgin biomass includes all naturally occurring terrestrial plants such as trees, bushes and grass.
47. Which of the following is/are artificial sweeteners?

1) Alitame
2) Sucrolose
3) Saccharin
4) Lactamase

a) 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : B
Learning: Ortho-sulphobenzimide, also called saccharin, is the first popular artificial sweetening agent.
It has been used as a sweetening agent ever since it was discovered in 1879. It is about 550 times as sweet
as cane sugar. It is excreted from the body in urine unchanged.
Alitame is high potency sweetener, although it is more stable than aspartame, the control of sweetness of
food is difficult while using it.
Sucrolose is trichloro derivative of sucrose. Its appearance and taste are like sugar. It is stable at cooking
temperature. It does not provide calories.
48. Nitrous oxide can be emitted from
1) Fertilizers
2) Mine damps
3) Car exhausts
4) Power Stations

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Globally, about 40 percent of total N2O emissions come from human activities. Nitrous
oxide is emitted from agriculture, transportation, and industry activities, described below.
Agriculture: Nitrous oxide is emitted when people add nitrogen to the soil through the use of synthetic
fertilizers.
Agricultural soil management is the largest source of N2O emissions in the United States, accounting for
about 75 percent of total U.S. N2O emissions in 2015.
Nitrous oxide is also emitted during the breakdown of nitrogen in livestock manure and urine, which
contributed to 5 percent of N2O emissions in 2015.
Fuel Combustion: Nitrous oxide is emitted when fuels are burned. The amount of N2O emitted from
burning fuels depends on the type of fuel and combustion technology, maintenance, and operating
practices.
Industry: Nitrous oxide is generated as a by-product during the production of nitric acid, which is used to
make synthetic commercial fertilizer, and in the production of adipic acid, which is used to make fibers,
like nylon, and other synthetic products.
49. The Revenue Department in the Finance Ministry has imposed anti-dumping duty on import of
‘Ofloxacin’ from China. Ofloxacin is actually a/an
a) Anti-biotic
b) Pesticide
c) Bromo chloro di-fluoromethane
d) Anti-histamine
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Ofloxacin is in class of antibiotics called fluoroquinolones. It is used to treat certain infections
including bronchitis, pneumonia and infections of skin, bladder, urinary tract, reproductive organs, and
prostate (a male reproductive gland). It works by killing bacteria that cause infections.
It is a pharma product from China.
The duty was imposed for three years following recommendations of Directorate General of Anti-
Dumping and Allied Duties (DGAD) to protect domestic producers from below-cost shipments.
In its probe DGAD had found that Ofloxacin exported to India from China was below its normal value,
resulting in dumping. It had caused material injury to the domestic industry.
50. Which of the following minerals may be found in your perspiration?

1) Sodium
2) Calcium
3) Zinc
4) Copper

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Perspiration contains many minerals such as sodium (Na), potassium (K), calcium (Ca),
and magnesium (Mg). Others such as zinc, copper, iron are found in trace amounts.
Some reports suggest that loss of minerals such as copper, zinc and iron through sweat can be substantial.
For example, it has been reported that during a marathon, iron loss can be up to 2.5 mg per liter of sweat
(a marathoner can lose 4L of sweat in one race). Adults typically need 8 (male) to 18 mg (female) of iron
per day.
51. What is/are the difference(s) between thermosetting and thermoplastic?
1) Thermoset plastics can be remelted back into a liquid, whereas thermoplastics always remain in a
permanent solid state
2) Thermoset plastics usually have better mechanical properties and chemical resistance than
Thermoplastics.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: A thermoset is a material (such as rubber) that cures or hardens into a given shape, generally
through the application of heat.
Curing is an irreversible chemical reaction in which permanent connections (known as cross- links) are
made between the material’s molecular chains.
These cross-links give the cured polymer a three-dimensional structure, as well as a higher degree of
rigidity than it possessed prior to curing.
A cured thermoset material will not remelt or otherwise regain the processibility it had before being cured.
Curing changes the material forever. Thermoset polymers outperform thermoplastics in a number of areas,
including mechanical properties, chemical resistance, thermal stability, and overall durability. For these
reasons, thermoset parts tend to make more effective seals.
A thermoplastic material softens (becomes pliable and plastic) when heated, but it does not cure or set. A
thermoplastic often begins in pellet form, then becomes softer and more fluid as heat increases. This
fluidity allows it to be injected under pressure from a heated cavity into a cool mold.
As it cools, the thermoplastic will harden in the shape of the mold, but there is no chemical curing at work.
No cross-links are formed as with a thermoset material.
The changes seen in the thermoplastic are purely physical and, with the reapplication of heat, wholly
reversible.
52. Which of the following problems that usually occur using water as a fire extinguisher are solved
when using dry ice instead?
1) Harm to electrical equipment nearby can be avoided.

2) Fire situations caused due to oil spills that are aggravated due to water extinguishers can be more tighcly
controlled.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Explanation & Learning: If electrical equipment is on fire, water may conduct electricity and harm those
trying to douse the fire. Water is also not suitable for fires involving oil and petrol. So, it sinks below the
oil, and oil keeps burning on top.
On the other hand, CO2, being heavier than oxygen, covers the fire like a blanket. Since the contact
between the fuel and oxygen is cut off, the fire is controlled. The added advantage of CO2 is that in most
cases it does not harm the electrical equipment.
53. Production of different flame colours of a Bunsen burner depend on
1) Oxygen supply
2) Size of burner base
3) Amount of fuel

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: In the most common type of flame, hydrocarbon flames, the most important factor
determining color is oxygen supply and the extent of fuel-oxygen pre-mixing, which determines the rate
of combustion and thus the temperature and reaction paths, thereby producing different color hues.
Different flame types of a Bunsen burner depend on oxygen supply. In the diagram above, on the left a
rich fuel with no premixed oxygen produces a yellow sooty diffusion flame; but on the right a lean fully
oxygen premixed flame produces no soot and the flame color blue.
The same thing happens in a candle and a stove
54. Which of these polymers is often called as “artificial silk”?

a) Spandex
b) Rayon
c) Modal
d) Vinyon
Correct Answer : B
Learning: In the present day, imitation silk may be made with rayon, mercerized cotton, polyester, a
blend of these materials, or a blend of rayon and silk.
Rayon is a manufactured fiber made from regenerated cellulose fiber. The many types and grades of rayon
can imitate the feel and texture of natural fibers such as silk, wool, cotton, and linen. The
types that resemble silk are often called artificial silk.
Rayon is made from purified cellulose, primarily from wood pulp
1) A particular strain of Pseudomonas putida is able to solubilize the insoluble phosphate from
organicphosphate sources in soil.
2) Nitrogen-fixation by the cyanobacteria provides rice plantations with biofertilizer.
3) Azotobacter, as a biofertilizer, can be used with cereal crops as well as vegetable crops.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Due to immobilization of phosphate by mineral ions such as Fe, Al and Ca or
organic acids, the rate of available phosphate (Pi) in soil is well below plant needs. Hence, the need for
such biofertilizers.
Statement 2: Blue green algae belonging to a general cyanobacteria genus fix atmospheric nitrogen and
are used as inoculations for paddy crop grown both under upland and low-land conditions.
Statement 3: Rhizobiuminoculant is used for leguminous crops. Azotobacter can be used with crops like
wheat, maize, mustard, cotton, potato and other vegetable crops. Azospirillum inoculations are
recommended mainly for sorghum, millets, maize, sugarcane and wheat.
Nitrogen-fixation by the cyanobacteria such as (Anabaena, a symbiont of the aquatic fern Azolla),
provides rice plantations with biofertilizer. Free-living cyanobacteria are also present in the water column
in rice paddies
56. Which of the following are used as both fertilizer as well as explosive?
1) Calcium sulphate
2) Ammonium nitrate
3) Potassium as used in NPK fertilizers
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Ammonium nitrate, or NH4-NO3, is frequently added to improve a fertilizer's nitrogen

content. It's relatively stable under most conditions and is inexpensive to manufacture
But ammonium nitrate has a potentially lethal downside: If it comes into contact with an open flame or
other ignition source, it explodes violently. The explosive force occurs when solid ammonium nitrate
decomposes very rapidly into two gases, nitrous oxide and water vapor.
Statement 1: The main use of calcium sulfate is to produce plaster of Paris and stucco. These applications
exploit the fact that calcium sulfate which has been powdered and calcined forms a moldable paste upon
hydration and hardens as crystalline calcium sulfate dihydrate.
57. Oxygen is added to the atmosphere by which of the following processes?
1) Formation and breakdown of Ozone

2) Photosynthesis by plants
3) Metabolism by legume bacteria

a) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Formation of ozone consumes oxygen.
Statement 2: If you notice, the only major process returning oxygen is photosynthesis. This is why
afforestation can tackle climate change and pollution.
Statement 3: The process of nitrogen-fixing by bacteria does not take place in the presence of oxygen.
58. Which one of the following is a strong smelling agent added to LPG cylinders to help in the
detection of gas leakages?
a) Methanol
b) Ethanethiol
c) Ethane
d) Chloroform
Correct Answer : B
Learning: IUPAC (International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry) name for the chemical is
Ethanethiol. Alternate name for the substance is Ethyl Mercaptan.
It is a colorless gas or clear liquid with a distinct odor.
Ethanethiol is toxic. It occurs naturally as a minor component of petroleum, and may be added to otherwise
odorless gaseous products such as liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) to help warn of gas leaks.
At these concentrations, ethanethiol is not harmful.
59. Consider the following statements about Liquid nitrogen, that was in news for some time.
1) It starts to boil once it reaches room temperature.

2) It is an inflammable gas.
3) It is banned for use as an additive in frozen food in India.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Liquid nitrogen, which has a boiling point of -195.8 degree
Celsius, is used by molecular gastronomy chefs to instantly freeze food and drinks.
Recently, it is also being popular in preparing cocktails, as it can immediately chills glasses
of ingredients. It also adds a smoking effect to the drink.
It cools any substance immediately. The rapidity of cooling is also responsible for smaller ice
crystals which gives a smooth texture to the ice cream.
Issues: As it evaporates, liquid nitrogen freezes everything around it, including tissues that
come in contact with it.
According to experts, food and drinks that are prepared with liquid nitrogen should be
consumed only after all the gas has bubbled off.
Statement 2: It is a coloured, odourless, non-inflammable gas. It is a cryogen, which means

it is used to create extremely low temperatures.
The gas is so cold that it is capable of rapid freezing any living tissue coming in contact
with it.
Statement 3: Liquid nitrogen is permitted as an additive in frozen food as per the guidelines
of the national regulatory body Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
However, when it comes to the use of liquid nitrogen it is a grey area. There is no clear-cut
guideline for it and generally it is considered to be a novel technique, which can be used by
food business operators.
BIOLOGY
60. Consider the following matches of new developments and their corresponding good/plant/species:
1) ZiBOC: A. Agarbatti (Incense)
2) Jivi Kalp: B. Bamboo
3) Flemingia semialata: C. Lac

a) 1A, 2B, 3C
b) 1B, 2A, 3C
c) 1C, 2A, 3C
d) 1C, 2B, 3A
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: The MoEFCC has helped develop cost effective and green solutions for
increasing the life of bamboo especially beneficial for bamboo artisans. Cost effective and ecofriendly
preservative ZiBOC has been developed.
Statement 2: It also developed an ecofriendly binding material “Jivi Kalp” from the locally available
bioresources for Agarbatti making to help in enhancing rural economy. It will bring down the cost of
production by approximately 60%. ICFRE has also identified 10 new plant species found good for
agarbatti making, which are now being promoted through extension activities.
Statement 3: Lac cultivation techniques on Flemingia semialata, an evergreen native shrub,has been
standardized resulting in much higher yield per acre and annual returns as compared to traditionally used
Kusum trees for lac cultivation. Farmers have adopted the practice of lac cultivation on this shrub with
success.
61. Darwinian Theory of Evolution is based on which of these key concepts?

1) Branching descent
2) Natural selection
3) Genetic Tree

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Descent with Modification ("Evolution") has occurred by branching (different
species share common ancestral species)
Evolution (what Darwin more descriptively called "Descent with Modification") embodies 2 separable
aspects:
 Change within a lineage

 Branching (different species share ancestors: Descent = Cladogenesis)
Branching theory says that species lineages usually change over time (though rates of change may vary)
and are derived from common ancestral lineages; natural selection is the main, but not
exclusive, mechanism.
62. Lamarckism deals with
a) Management of space debris

b) Allocation of investment portfolio
c) Distribution of carbon sequestration on earth
d) Evolution and adaptation of life on earth
Correct Answer : D
Concept and Learning: Lamarckism is the idea that an organism can pass on characteristics that it has
acquired during its lifetime to its offspring (also known as heritability of acquired characteristics or soft
inheritance).
Environment influences all types of organisms. A change in environment brings about changes in
organisms. It gives rise to new needs. New needs or desires produce new structures and
change habits of the organisms.
If an organ is constantly used it would be better developed whereas disuse of organ results in its
degeneration.
Whatever an individual acquires (to possess) characters in its life time due to internal vital force, effect of
environment, new needs and use and disuse of organs, they are inherited (transmitted) to the next
generations.
The process continues. After several generations, the variations are accumulated upto such extent that
they give rise to new species.
1) The term "transcriptome" can also be used to describe the array of mRNA transcripts produced in a
particular cell or tissue type.
2) An organism's transcriptome remains unchanged throughout its various stage of development and
changing environmental conditions.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: A transcriptome is the full range of messenger RNA, or mRNA, molecules
expressed by an organism.
Statement 2: In contrast with the genome, which is characterized by its stability, the transcriptome actively
changes.
In fact, an organism's transcriptome varies depending on many factors, including stage of development
and environmental conditions.
Applications: The transcriptomes of stem cells and cancer cells are of particular interest to researchers
who seek to understand the processes of cellular differentiation and carcinogenesis.
Analysis of the transcriptomes of human oocytes and embryos is used to understand the molecular
mechanisms and signaling pathways controlling early embryonic development, and could theoretically be
a powerful tool in making proper embryo selection in in vitro fertilisation.
Transcriptomics is an emerging and continually growing field in biomarker discovery for use in assessing
the safety of drugs or chemical risk assessment.
Transcriptomes may also be used to infer phylogenetic relationships among individuals.
64. Alfatoxins are produced by
a) Virus
b) Protozoa
c) Bacteria
d) Molds fungi
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Aflatoxins are poisonous and cancer-causing chemicals that are produced by certain molds
which grow in soil, decaying vegetation, hay, and grains. A mold is a fungus that grows in the form of
multicellular filaments called hyphae. In contrast, fungi that can adopt a single-celled growth habit are
called yeasts.
They are regularly found in improperly stored staple commodities such as cassava, chili peppers, corn,
cotton seed, millet, peanuts, rice, sorghum, sunflower seeds, tree nuts, wheat, and a variety of spices.
When contaminated food is processed, aflatoxins enter the general food supply where they have been
found in both pet and human foods, as well as in feedstocks for agricultural animals.
Animals fed contaminated food can pass aflatoxin transformation products into eggs, milk products, and
meat.

1) A cold-blooded animal can convert much more of its food into body mass compared with a warm-
blooded animal of the same weight.
2) Mammals and birds require much more food and energy than do cold-blooded animals of the same
weight.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Concept: Warm-blooded creatures, like mammals and birds, try to keep the inside of their bodies at a
constant temperature.
They do this by generating their own heat when they are in a cooler environment, and by cooling
themselves when they are in a hotter environment.
To generate heat, warm-blooded animals convert the food that they eat into energy. They have to eat a lot
of food, compared with cold-blooded animals, to maintain a constant body temperature.
Only a small amount of the food that a warm-blooded animal eats is converted into body mass. The rest
is used to fuel a constant body temperature.
Justification: Cold-blooded animals are much more active in warm environments and are very sluggish
in cold environments.
This is because their muscle activity depends on chemical reactions which run quickly when it is hot and
slowly when it is cold.
A cold-blooded animal can convert much more of its food into body mass compared with a warm-blooded
animal.
A cold-blooded animal's level of activity depends upon the temperature of its surroundings. A reptile, for
example, will increase its body temperature before hunting and is better able to escape predators when it
is warm. Cold-blooded animals also need to be warm and active to find a mate and reproduce.
Being cold-blooded, however, also has its advantages. Cold-blooded animals require much less energy to
survive than warm-blooded animals do.
Mammals and birds require much more food and energy than do cold-blooded animals of the same weight.
This is because in warm-blooded animals, the heat loss from their bodies is proportional to the surface
area of their bodies, while the heat created by their bodies is proportional to their mass
66. Why is there a growing interest in the superfood Spirulina?

1) Its water and land footprint for the same amount of nutrients is lower than that of livestock.
2) It is a complete protein source containing all essential amino acids for humans.
3) It does not contain any fats, trans-fats and carbohydrates making it an important medication for blood
sugar control.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Spriulina represents a biomass of cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) that can be consumed
by humans and other animals.
As an ecologically-sound, nutrient-rich, dietary supplement, spirulina is being investigated to address food

security, malnutrition, and as dietary support in long-term space flight or Mars missions.
Its interest for food security is for lower land and water needs to produce protein and energy than required
for livestock as meat sources.
Dried spirulina contains 5% water, 24% carbohydrates, 8% fat, and about 60% (51–71%) protein (table).
It is a complete protein source, containing all essential amino acids
67. Which of these flowers are NOT single flowers, but actually a group of flowers?
1) Marigold
2) Rose
3) Sunflower

a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Your NCERT says that when choosing flowers to study, avoid using marigold,
chrysanthemum or sunflower. This is because they are not single flowers, but, groups of flowers.
In those species that have more than one flower on an axis, the collective cluster of flowers is termed an
inflorescence.
Some inflorescences are composed of many small flowers arranged in a formation that resembles a single
flower.
The common example of this is most members of the very large composite (Asteraceae) group. A single
daisy or sunflower, for example, is not a flower but a flower head—an inflorescence composed of
numerous flowers (or florets).
An inflorescence may include

68. What are the atmospheric factors affecting transpiration in plants?
1) Relative humidity
2) Wind and air movement
3) Soil-moisture availability
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Concept: Transpiration is the process by which moisture is carried through plants from roots to small
pores on the underside of leaves, where it changes to vapor and is released to the atmosphere.
Studies have revealed that about 10 percent of the moisture found in the atmosphere is released by plants
through transpiration. The remaining 90 percent is mainly supplied by evaporation from oceans, seas, and
other bodies of water (lakes, rivers, streams).
Justification: The amount of water that plants transpire varies greatly geographically and over time.
There are a number of factors that determine transpiration rates:
Temperature: Transpiration rates go up as the temperature goes up, especially during the growing season,
when the air is warmer due to stronger sunlight and warmer air masses.
Higher temperatures cause the plant cells which control the openings (stoma) where water is released to
the atmosphere to open, whereas colder temperatures cause the openings to close.
Relative humidity: As the relative humidity of the air surrounding the plant rises the transpiration rate
falls. It is easier for water to evaporate into dryer air than into more saturated air.
Wind and air movement: Increased movement of the air around a plant will result in a higher transpiration
rate. This is somewhat related to the relative humidity of the air, in that as water transpires from a leaf,
the water saturates the air surrounding the leaf.
If there is no wind, the air around the leaf may not move very much, raising the humidity of the air around
the leaf. Wind will move the air around, with the result that the more saturated air close to the leaf is
replaced by drier air.
Soil-moisture availability: When moisture is lacking, plants can begin to senesce (premature ageing,
which can result in leaf loss) and transpire less water Type of plant: Plants transpire water at different
rates. Some plants which grow in arid regions, such as cacti and succulents, conserve precious water by
transpiring less water than other plants
69. What is the difference between angiosperms and gymnosperms, which are the major categories of
plant division?
1) Angiosperms are seed producing whereas gymnosperms do not produce seeds.

2) Gymnosperms are flower bearing plants whereas Angiosperms do not bear flowers.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: The gymnosperms are a group of seed-producing plants.
By far the largest group of living gymnosperms are the conifers (pines, cypresses, and relatives).
Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants.
However, they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowersendosperm

within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds.
Angiosperms are found in almost every habitat from forests and grasslands to sea margins and deserts
1) Chlorophyll, that gives plants their characteristic green colour, does not absorb any visible light, or
electromagnetic energy.
2) The hydrogen obtained from water is combined with carbon dioxide in the processes of photosynthesis
to form sugars for the plant.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: The main function of a leaf is to produce food for the plant by photosynthesis.
Chlorophyll absorbs light energy. The central leaf, or mesophyll, consists of soft-walled, unspecialized
cells of the type known as parenchyma. As much as one-fifth of the mesophyll is composed of chlorophyll-
containing chloroplasts, which absorb sunlight and, in conjunction with certain enzymes, use the radiant
energy in decomposing water into its elements, hydrogen and oxygen.
Statement 2: These sugars give plants the required energy.

71. Which of the following plants found in India are examples of Creeper plants?
1) Black Pepper
2) Giant Pelican flower
3) Cinnamon Vine

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: A climbing plant is a plant which climbs up trees and other tall objects. Many climber
plants are vines whose stems wrap around trees and branches but there are other methods of climbing.
Botanists divide climbing plants into two broad groups: Bines and Vines. Bines typically twine their stems
around an object for support.
Vines use tendrils or specialized stems used by climbing plants, suckers, thorns and other methods to
support themselves.
72. Which of the following are usually the functions of root in a plant?
1) Storage of food and nutrients

2) Vegetative reproduction
3) Preparation of food

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: The first root that comes from a plant is called the radicle. A root's four major functions are
1) absorption of water and inorganic nutrients, 2) anchoring of the plant body to the ground, and
supporting it, 3) storage of food and nutrients, 4) vegetative reproduction and competition with other
plants.
S3: The stem conducts the water and nutrients absorbed by the roots to leaves and other parts of the plant.
S1: The leaves prepare food. This food travels through the stem and is stored in different parts of a plant.
We eat some of these as roots— like carrot, radish, sweet potato, turnip and tapioca. We also eat many
other parts of a plant where the food is stored.
73. What is the advantage of growing algae in an algae bioreactor (PBR) over growing them in an open
pond?
1) Algae grown in PBR are not susceptible to contamination from native species as is the case in an open
pond.
2) The ability to control the density of algae cell colonies in a PBR more easily than an open pond leads
to higher productivity in a PBR.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: PBR is an enclosed, lighted, algal culture vessel designed for controlled production of
algae.
Photo bioreactors, have several major advantages over open ponds, they can:
Statement 1: Prevent contamination: One of the biggest problems with opens ponds (in my view anyway)
is they are susceptible to contamination from invading and/or native species. In a PBR all inputs are
completely controlled by you, not chance or nature. This is a HUGE advantage.
Allow you to grow algae in any climate: This is one of the main reasons for a PBR. It allows you to grow
algae easily and cheaply in almost any climate. Open ponds are an unacceptable alternative in many colder
climates.
Bioreactors offer better control over existing conditions: Since you’re controlling all the inputs, you can
also (better) control the existing conditions of your algal experiments. Meaning climate, light,
temperature, Ph balance, nutrients, etc.
Statement 2: Permit higher cell concentrations: Because you’re controlling the parameters of the PBR,
you can also control the density of your cell colonies. While possible in an open pond, it is much easier
in a PBR.
However, it is costly, difficult to set up and requires technical expertise which is not easy to come by for
an ordinary algae farmer with limited resources.
74. Formation of cavities is a breakdown of teeth due to the formation of by bacteria after food decay.
a) Acid
b) Base
c) Salt
d) Hydrogen Peroxide
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The cause of caries is acid from bacteria dissolving the hard tissues of the teeth (enamel, dentin
and cementum).
The acid is produced by the bacteria when they breakdown food debris or sugar on the tooth surface.
Simple sugars in food are these bacteria's primary energy source and thus a diet high in simple sugar is a
risk factor.
If mineral breakdown is greater than build up from sources such as saliva, caries results.
75. Consider the following about lateral roots.
1) It extends horizontally from the primary root.

2) It contributes to improved water and nutrients uptake.
3) Its growth is independent of plant hormones.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: They extend horizontally from the primary root (radicle) and serve to anchor the plant
securely into the soil.
This branching of roots also contributes to water uptake, and facilitates the extraction of nutrients required
for the growth and development of the plant.
Many different factors are involved in the formation of lateral roots. Regulation of root formation is tightly
controlled by plant hormones such as auxin, and by the precise control of aspects of the cell cycle.
Such control can be particularly useful: increased auxin levels, which help to promote lateral root
development, occur when young leaf primordia form and are able to synthesise the hormone.
This allows coordination of root development with leaf development, enabling a balance between carbon
and nitrogen metabolism to be established.
76. There are two main types of roots according to origin of development and branching pattern in the
angiosperms: taproot system and fibrous system. What distinguishes one from the other?
Assertion (A): Taproot can survive better in a drought area than a fibrous root based plant.
Reason (R): Generally, plants with a taproot system are deep-rooted in comparison with those having
fibrous type.

Correct Answer : A
Justification: The taproot system enables the plant to anchor better to the soil and obtain water from
deeper sources.
In contrast, shallow-rooted plants are more susceptible to drought but they are quick to absorb surface and
irrigation water and thus have the ability to respond quickly to fertilizer application. The table below
precisely captures the differences.
77. Probiotics are beneficial bacteria that primarily line your gut. They are also responsible for
1) Nutrient absorption
2) Causing high blood pressure

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: What is it? Probiotics are live bacteria and yeasts that are good for your health, especially
your digestive system. When you lose "good" bacteria in your body (like after you take antibiotics, for
example), probiotics can help replace them.
Statement 1: Probiotics help move food through your gut. Commonly claimed benefits of probiotics
include the decrease of potentially pathogenic gastrointestinal microorganisms, the reduction of
gastrointestinal discomfort, the improvement of the skin's function and the improvement of bowel
regularity.
Statement 2: The consumption of probiotics may actually effect a modest benefit in helping to control
high blood pressure.

1) Exhaled air which contains more carbon dioxide, compared to oxygen, is produced as a waste product
of energy production.
2) Inhaled air contains more oxygen, than carbon dioxide, and is used to create energy.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Gas exchange takes place by diffusion in the alveoli within the lungs. As a result the
composition of inhaled and exhaled air is different.
Oxygen passes through the capillary walls and into the tissues; carbon dioxide passes from the tissues into
the blood.
79. Same substances can act as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant by
1) Varying its concentration

2) Using it on inanimate surfaces instead of animate biological surfaces

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification & Learning: Disinfectants are applied to inanimate objects such as floors, drainage system,
instruments, etc. Same substances can act as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant by varying the
concentration.
For example, 0.2 per cent solution of phenol is an antiseptic while its one percent solution is disinfectant.
Chlorine in the concentration of 0.2 to 0.4 ppm in aqueous solution and sulphur dioxide in very low
concentrations, are disinfectants. So, 1 is correct.
The surface, animate or inanimate, does not cause this difference. So, 2 is incorrect.
80. With reference to reproduction in plants, Heterogamy is the practice of
a) Alternating between the sexual and asexual strategies

b) Reproduction that does not involve a male gamete
c) Formation of a new sporophyte without fertilization
d) Giving rise to reproductive cells, mitospores, that develop into a new organism after dispersal
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Alternation is observed in several species and a few types of insects, such as aphids which
will, under certain conditions, produce eggs that have not gone through meiosis, thus cloning themselves.
The cape bee Apis mellifera subsp. capensis can reproduce asexually through a process called thelytoky.
A few species of amphibians, reptiles, and birds have a similar ability (see parthenogenesis for examples).
For example, the freshwater crustacean Daphnia reproduces by parthenogenesis in the spring to rapidly
populate ponds, then switches to sexual reproduction as the intensity of competition and predation
increases.
81. Consider the following about Vegetative propagation.
1) New plants are formed without the production of seeds.

2) All plants have the ability to reproduce through vegetative propagation.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: It is any form of asexual reproduction occurring in plants in which a new plant
grows from a fragment of the parent plant or grows from a specialized reproductive structure (such as a
tuber or bulb).
It can occur naturally or be induced by horticulturists.
Although most plants normally reproduce asexually, many have the ability for vegetative propagation, or
can be vegetatively propagated if small pieces are subjected to chemical (hormonal) treatments.
This is because meristematic cells capable of cellular differentiation are present in many plant tissues
82. Consider the following about Yeasts.
1) They are multi-cellular organisms.

2) They usually respire anaerobically.
3) During aerobic respiration, they yield alcohol.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Yeasts are unicellular organisms which evolved from multi-cellular ancestors,
with some species having the ability to develop multi-cellular characteristics.
Yeasts, with their single-celled growth habit, can be contrasted with molds, which grow hyphae.
S2 and S3: By fermentation, the yeast species Saccharomyces cerevisiae converts carbohydrates to carbon
dioxide and alcohols – for thousands of years the carbon dioxide has been used in baking and the alcohol
in alcoholic beverages.
During anaerobic respiration, they yield alcohol.
It is also a centrally important model organism in modern cell biology research, and is one of the most
thoroughly researched eukaryotic microorganisms.
Researchers have used it to gather information about the biology of the eukaryotic cell and ultimately
human biology
Learning: Some yeasts can find potential application in the field of bioremediation. One such yeast,
Yarrowia lipolytica, is known to degrade palm oil mill effluent, TNT (an explosive material), and other
hydrocarbons, such as alkanes, fatty acids.
83. If the root of a land plant remains waterlogged for long, the plant dies because
1) Roots are unable to transport minerals to the plant stem.
2) Roots can no longer store food and nutrients.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Background: A root's four major functions are 1) absorption of water and inorganic nutrients, 2)
anchoring of the plant body to the ground, and supporting it, 3) storage of food and nutrients, 4) vegetative
reproduction and competition with other plants.
Justification: The root takes in oxygen present in the soil by the process of diffusion. Oxygen diffuses
into the root hairs and passes into the other cells of the root.
And carbon dioxide released by the root cells diffuses into the soil. Since the root is involved in the
exchange of gases, if the root of a land plant remains waterlogged for long, the plant dies.
84. What is common between Monocytes, Lymphocytes and Neutrophils found within the human body?
a) They are digestive enzymes.

b) They help regulated blood pressure.
c) They are types of white blood cells.
d) They are bacteria found at the epidermis.
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Although your white blood cells account for only about 1% of your blood, their impact is
significant. White blood cells, also called leukocytes, are essential for good health and protection against
illness and disease.
White blood cells are made inside the bone marrow and stored in your blood and lymphatic tissues.
Among your white blood cells are:
Monocytes. They have a longer lifespan than many white blood cells and help to break down bacteria.
Lymphocytes. They create antibodies to defend against bacteria, viruses, and other potentially harmful
invaders.
Neutrophils. They kill and digest bacteria and fungi. They are the most numerous type of
white blood cell and your first line of defense when infection strikes.
Basophils. These small cells appear to sound an alarm when infectious agents invade your blood. They
secrete chemicals such as histamine, a marker of allergic disease, that help control the body's immune
response.
Eosinophils. They attack and kill parasites, destroy cancer cells, and help with allergic responses.
85. In plants, which of the following parts are associated with gaseous exchange?
1) Roots
2) Leaves
3) Lenticels

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 3: Lenticels are small openings in the pits of the bark. The exchange of gases
takes place through the lenticels also, apart from the exchange through the openings in the leaves.
S1 and S2: The roots take in air present in the soil. Leaves have tiny pores called stomata through which
they exchange gases. The breakdown of glucose in the plant cells is similar to that in other living beings.
86. Plants which are produced in this way are genetically identical to each other and to the parent(s)
a) Autogamy
b) Asexual reproduction
c) Mitosis and meiosis
d) Allogamy
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Options A, C and are types of sexual reproduction.

Under asexual reproduction, because of the lack of new genetic material, an organism clones itself through
this process and makes genetically identical organisms.
Asexual reproduction can be advantageous and/or disadvatageous. One positive aspect is that it can create
individuals rapidly and in large quantities. Secondly, bypassing the sexual process can help a plant in
times of dryness since motile sperm require water to fertilize the egg. Another advantage lies in the fact
that plants with the desired characteristics can be cloned for economic reasons (agriculture). However, if
something goes wrong, such as as the occurance of a fatal mutation, the whole society of clones can be
terminated. For this reason, farmers are careful in determining how to propagate their vegetation. In
conclusion, the asexual process of reproduction is an important one to plants.
87. Which of the following are types of Fungi?
1) Paramecium
2) Spirogyra
3) Aspergillus
4) Penicillium

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Penicillium ascomycetous fungi are of major importance in the natural environment as well as food and
drug production. Some members of the genus produce penicillin, a molecule that is used as an antibiotic,
which kills or stops the growth of certain kinds of bacteria.
Aspergillus is a fungus whose spores are present in the air we breathe, but does not normally cause illness.
In those people with a weakened immune system, damaged lungs or with allergies, Aspergillus can cause
disease
88. Consider the following about Protozoa.
1) They can be either free-living or parasitic.

2) They are not found in moist environments.
3) Their size spans from a minimum of 1 micrometer to a maximum of 1 millimetre
4) They lack mobility.

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1 and 4: Protozoa is an informal term for single-celled eukaryotic organisms,
either free-living or parasitic, which feed on organic matter such as other microorganisms or organic
tissues and debris.
Historically, the protozoa were regarded as "one-celled animals," because they often possess animal-like
behaviors, such as motility and predation, and lack a cell wall, as found in plants and many algae.
Statement 2: Free-living protozoans are common and often abundant in fresh, brackish and salt water, as
well as other moist environments, such as soils and mosses. Some species thrive in extreme environments
such as hot springs and hypersaline lakes and lagoons.
Statement 3: Protozoa, as traditionally defined, range in size from as little as 1 micrometre to several
millimetres, or more.
Among the largest are the deep-sea–dwelling xenophyophores, single-celled foraminifera whose shells
can reach 20 cm in diameter.
All protozoa require a moist habitat; however, some can survive for long periods of time in dry
environments, by forming resting cysts which enable them to remain dormant until conditions improve.
89. Consider the following statements about In-vitro fertilization.
1) It leads to irreversible genetic changes in the embryo.

2) It is prohibited in India unless accompanied by stringent regulation by district medical authorities.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Even if the test tube baby (IVF) is placed in a surrogate mother, chances of
genetic disorder are very little. Otherwise, genetic changes do not occur in a test tube baby.
Statement 2: In fact, the second successful IVF birth took place in India.
Learning: In vitro fertilization or fertilisation (IVF) is a process by which an egg is fertilised by sperm
outside the body: in vitro ("in glass").
The fertilised egg (zygote) is cultured for 2–6 days in a growth medium and is then implanted in the same
or another woman's uterus, with the intention of establishing a successful pregnancy.
It is a technique of assisted reproductive technology for treatment of infertility.
Due to the costs of the procedure, IVF is mostly attempted only after less expensive options have failed.
Some countries ban or otherwise regulate the availability of IVF treatment, giving rise to fertility tourism.
90. Which of the following microorganisms can cause diseases in plants?
1) Protozoa
2) Bacteria
3) Fungi
4) Viroids and Viruses
5) Nematodes

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 2: Most bacteria that are associated with plants are actually saprotrophic and do
no harm to the plant itself. However, a small number, around 100 known species, are able to cause disease.
Bacterial diseases are much more prevalent in subtropical and tropical regions of the world.
For e.g. Pseudomonas syringae pv. tomato disease causes tomato plants to produce less fruit.
Statement 3: Rice blast is a disease caused by a necrotrophic fungus. The oomycetes are fungus-like
organisms. They include some of the most destructive plant pathogens.
Statement 4: Viroids are the smallest infectious pathogens known. They are composed solely of a short
strand of circular, single-stranded RNA without protein coat.
Plant viruses are generally transmitted from plant to plant by a vector, but mechanical and seed
transmission also occur.
Statement 5: Nematodes are small, multicellular wormlike animals. Many live freely in the soil, but there
are some species that parasitize plant roots.
They are a problem in tropical and subtropical regions of the world, where they may infect crops.
Potato cyst nematodes (Globodera pallida and G. rostochiensis) are widely distributed in Europe and
North and South America.
91. Consider the following diseases and identify their correct carriers.
1) Cholera: Virus
2) Typhoid: Bacteria
3) Chicken Pox: Protozoa
4) Hepatitis B: Virus

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification:
92. The larynx in humans, also called as the voice box, is used to manipulate
1) Pitch of the voice
2) Volume of the voice

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: It is involved in breathing, producing sound, and protecting the trachea against food
aspiration.
The larynx houses the vocal folds, and manipulates pitch and volume, which is essential for phonation.
Phonation refers to any oscillatory state of any part of the larynx that modifies the airstream, of which
voicing is just one example.
Pitch is the quality that makes it possible to judge sounds as "higher" and "lower" in the sense associated
with musical melodies. Pitch may be quantified as a frequency, but pitch is not a purely objective physical
property; it is a subjective psychoacoustical attribute of sound.
The larynx is situated just below where the tract of the pharynx splits into the trachea and the esophagus.
93. Consider the following about Nitrogen.

1) Nitrogen is a necessary component of bio-molecules such as proteins, DNA and chlorophyll.
2) It is a scarce resource often limiting primary productivity in many ecosystems because it is largely
inaccessible as di-nitrogen gas to most organisms.
3) Nitrification, denitrification and ammonification are important parts of the Nitrogen cycle.
4) Prokaryotes cannot fix nitrogen due to absence of cellular structures that facilitate swift gaseous
exchange from the atmosphere.

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Nitrogen is a crucial part of amino acids that are responsible behind several
structures in the body of living beings.
Statement 2: Nitrogen gas (N2) makes up nearly 80% of the Earth's atmosphere, yet nitrogen is often the
nutrient that limits primary production in many ecosystems. Because plants and animals are not able to
use nitrogen gas in that form.
For nitrogen to be available to make proteins, DNA, and other biologically important compounds, it must
first be converted into a different chemical form. The process of converting N2 into biologically available
nitrogen is called nitrogen fixation.
The nitrogen cycle is of particular interest to ecologists because nitrogen availability can affect the rate of
key ecosystem processes, including primary production and decomposition.
Statement 4: N2 gas is a very stable compound due to the strength of the triple bond between the nitrogen
atoms, and it requires a large amount of energy to break this bond. The whole process requires eight
electrons and at least sixteen ATP molecules.
As a result, only a select group of prokaryotes are able to carry out this energetically demanding process.
Although most nitrogen fixation is carried out by prokaryotes, some nitrogen can be fixed abiotically
by lightning or certain industrial processes, including the combustion of fossil fuels.
94. Eyes can be donated by people
1) Of any age
2) Using spectacles
3) Suffering from AIDS
4) Suffering from Tetanus and Cholera

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : D
Explanation & Learning:

Eyes can be donated by any person to visually challenged persons suffering from corneal blindness, The
person may be male or female of any age; of any social status; using spectacles; suffering from any normal
disease but not AIDS, Hepatitis B or C, Rabies, Leukemia, Tetanus, Cholera, Encephalitis.
The eyes have to be donated within 4-6 hours after death at any place, home or hospital.
A person who wants to donate the eyes has to pledge eyes during his/her lifetime to any registered eye
bank.
95. The circadian rhythm in human beings affects

1) Sleep patterns
2) Blood Pressure
3) Hormone Release
4) Body Temperature

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
Background: Three US scientists have won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine “for their
discoveries of molecular mechanisms controlling the circadian rhythm,” otherwise known as our
biological clock.
Jeffrey C. Hall, Michael Rosbash and Michael W. Young were awarded the prize for their research on
how plants, humans and animals adapt their biological rhythm to synchronize with our planet’s day and
night cycle, as the earth rotates, in order to control their daily life.
Justification: All living organisms on Earth have an internal clock, known as the circadian rhythm, which
in humans underlies why we are awake during the day and sleep at night.
But our biological clock also helps regulate eating habits, hormone release, blood pressure and body
temperature.
A person’s well-being is affected when there is a “temporary mismatch between our external environment
and this internal biological clock.”
For example, disruption to our clocks when someone travels across a number of time zones results in jet
lag.
An imbalance between lifestyle and rhythm could lead to increased risk for a number of diseases including
metabolic diseases, such as diabetes and cancer, and neurodegenerative diseases, such as Alzheimer’s
disease.
Learning: Research on the body clock has helped scientists improve health. Many drugs now on the
market work best when taken at the right time. The cholesterol-cutting drug Mevacor, for example, is
taken at night because levels of the enzyme it targets are highest then. The same is true for low-dose
aspirin used to reduce blood pressure.
96. Both hydrogencarbonate and metal hydroxides are used to control over production of acid in
the stomach. However, metal hydroxides are a better alternative than hydrogencarbonate because
1) Excessive hydrogencarbonate can make the stomach alkaline and trigger the production of even more
acid.
2) Metal hydroxides are readily soluble in stomach acid and help increase the pH of the stomach above
neutrality.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Over production of acid in the stomach causes irritation and pain. In severe cases, ulcers
are developed in the stomach.
Until 1970, only treatment for acidity was administration of antacids, such as sodium hydrogencarbonate
or a mixture of aluminium and magnesium hydroxide.
However, excessive hydrogencarbonate can make the stomach alkaline and trigger the production of even
more acid. Metal hydroxides are better alternatives because of being insoluble, these do not increase the
pH above neutrality.
These treatments control only symptoms, and not the cause. Therefore, with these metal salts, the patients
cannot be treated easily.
97. Which of these are artificial sweeteners?
1) Blackstrap Molasses
2) Aspartame
3) Saccharin
4) Maple Syrup

a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Natural sweeteners, e.g., sucrose add to calorie intake and therefore many people prefer to
use artificial sweeteners.
Ortho-sulphobenzimide, also called saccharin, is the first popular artificial sweetening agent. It is about
550 times as sweet as cane sugar. It is excreted from the body in urine unchanged.
Aspartame is the most successful and widely used artificial sweetener. It is roughly 100 times as sweet as
cane sugar. It is methyl ester of dipeptide formed from aspartic acid and phenylalanine. Use of aspartame
is limited to cold foods and soft drinks because it is unstable at cooking temperature.
98. How do drugs counter the effect of certain enzymes?
1) Drugs prevent the attachment of substrate on active site of enzymes.

2) Drugs can inhibit the catalytic activity of the enzyme by restricting its chemical reactions.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Substrates bind to the active site of the enzyme through a variety of interactions such as
ionic bonding, hydrogen bonding, van der Waals interaction or dipole-dipole Interaction
Enzyme also provides functional groups that will attack the substrate and carry out chemical reaction.
Drugs inhibit any of the above mentioned activities of enzymes. These can block the binding site of the
enzyme and prevent the binding of substrate, or can inhibit the catalytic activity of the enzyme. Such
drugs are called enzyme inhibitors.
99. Consider the following with reference to some microorganisms.
1) Blue-green algae cannot fix nitrogen directly from the atmosphere.

2) Azotobacter is a free living nitrogen fixing bacteria.
3) Klebsiella pneumonia can fix nitrogen only when associated with host plant roots.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification & Learning: Some nitrogen-fixing bacteria, such as Azotobacter, Clostridium

pasteurianum, and Klebsiella pneumoniae, are free-living, whereas species of Rhizobium live in an
intimate association with leguminous plants.
Free-living bacteria can fix nitrogen in independence to any host plant.
For e.g. Rhizobium organisms in the soil recognize and invade the root hairs of their specific plant host,
enter the plant tissues
In return for secretions (food) from their host that encourage their growth and multiplication,
100. Bacteria are classified as Gram-positive and Gram-negative, based on the
a) structural difference in their cell walls that is detectable through a staining technique
b) inclusion of exclusion of mRNA molecules in their cell membrane
c) functional or dysfunctional status of mitochondria in the cell nucleus
d) multiplying tendencies across different mediums in a particular host
Correct Answer : A
Concept: Bacteria are classified by gram staining.

This is a process that determines many things, for e.g. resistance to antibiotics.
It is also one of the first things scientists will do when trying to identify an unknown bacteria.
It involves staining a group of bacteria with four different liquids. First, crystal violet is added. Then it is
stained with iodine, and finally with safranin. Then it goes through an alcohol wash.
Learning: The bacteria that retain the purple stain from the crystal violet are gram-positive, and those
that take on the pink stain from the safranin are gram-negative.
This depends on the outer layer of the cell.
Gram positive bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan, which absorbs the gram stain.Gram-negative
bacteria have a thick lipid bilayer on the outside, which is selectively permeable: not everything can pass
through it, and one of those things is the gram stain.
The gram-positive bacteria (since things can pass through it easily) are much more susceptible to
antibiotics than gram-negative bacteria.
101. What is/are the major differences between the process of “Dark fermentation” and “Photo-
Fermentation”?
1) Photo-Fermentation is achieved by bacteria, but dark fermentation can be performed by fungi only.
2) Photo-Fermentation cannot be used to safely dispose radioactive wastes, whereas Dark fermentation
can be.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Fermentation is a metabolic process that converts sugar to acids, gases, or alcohol.
Dark fermentation is the fermentative conversion of organic substrate to biohydrogen. It is a complex
process manifested by diverse groups of bacteria.
Biohydrogen is defined as hydrogen produced biologically, most commonly by algae, bacteria and
archaea. Biohydrogen is a potential biofuel obtainable from both cultivation and from waste organic
materials.
Dark fermentation differs from photofermentation in that it proceeds without the presence of light.
Utilization of wastewater as a potential substrate for biohydrogen production has been drawing
considerable interest in recent years especially in the dark fermentation process
102. The unicellular algae that provide colour to corals are
a) Phytoplankton
b) Zooxanthellae
c) Cyanobacteria
d) Euglenophyta
Correct Answer : B
Learning: The whitening oi coral colonies due to the loss of symbiotic zooxanthellae irom the tissues of
polyps is called as Coral Bleaching.
Zooxanthellae are unicellular algae that provide colour to corals. They also provide food to corals and
their deaths lead to breakdown of the symbiotic relationship between them. This breakdown of symbiotic
relationship causes starvation and resultant deaths of coral polyps.
This condition exposes the white calcium carbonate skeletons of the coral colony. There are a number of
stresses or environmental changes that may cause bleaching.
These causes include disease, excess shade, increased levels of ultraviolet radiation, sedimentation,
pollution, salinity changes, and increased temperatures etc.
1) Epigenetics is the study of heritable changes in gene expression.

2) Epigenetic change is a rare occurrence and remains uninfluenced by environmental factors of an
organism.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification and Learning: The behavior of a person's genes doesn't just depend on the genes' DNA
sequence - it's also affected by so-called epigenetic factors. Changes in these factors can play a critical
role in disease.
The external environment's effects upon genes can influence disease, and some of these effects can be
inherited in humans.
Epigenetics is the study of heritable changes in gene expression (active versus inactive genes) that do not
involve changes to the underlying DNA sequence — a change in phenotype without a change in genotype
— which in turn affects how cells read the genes.
Epigenetic change is a regular and natural occurrence but can also be influenced by several factors
including age, the environment/lifestyle, and disease state.
Epigenetics is involved in many normal cellular processes. Consider the fact that our cells all have the
same DNA, but our bodies contain many different types of cells: neurons, liver cells, pancreatic cells,
inflammatory cells, and others. How can this be?
In short, cells, tissues, and organs differ because they have certain sets of genes that are "turned on" or
expressed, as well as other sets that are "turned off" or inhibited.
Epigenetic silencing is one way to turn genes off, and it can contribute to differential expression. Silencing
might also explain, in part, why genetic twins are not phenotypically identical.
New and ongoing research is continuously uncovering the role of epigenetics in a variety of human
disorders and fatal diseases.
104. The Algae Noctiluca scintillans, recently seen in news, is of concern because
1) It is leading to large scale coral bleaching.

2) It produces ammonia in ocean water adversely affecting fish population.
3) It kills green blooms in the ocean.

a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: It is green algae which is behind the scintillating phenomenon observed in oceans when
they glow fluorescent blue at night.
The Noctiluca algae is often reported to occur in patches or blooms in the Northern Arabian Sea.
These striking green blooms often appear to glow at night due to a special phenomenon called
bioluminescence, earning them the nickname ‘sea sparkle’.
An Indo-US study has found that global warming is leading to large-scale fish kills in the Arabian Sea by
fuelling the growth of this harmful bioluminescent algae.
It is believed to be dangerous to ocean life because it produces ammonia. Their growing abundance is a
cause of concern, because they adversely affect fish, which do not thrive in such waters
105. Which of the following features of human body prevent entry or growth of harmful microbes
in the body?
1) Skin
2) Acid in the stomach
3) Saliva
4) Eye tears
5) Mucus coating lining the respiratory tract

a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence, which is present at the time of birth. This is
accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the entry of the foreign agents into our body.
Innate immunity consists of four types of barriers.
These are
Physical barriers: Skin on our body is the main barrier which prevents entry of the microorganisms.
Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal and
urogenital tracts also help in trapping microbes entering our body
Physiological barriers: Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes–all prevent
microbial growth
Cellular barriers: Certain types of leukocytes (WBC) of our body prevent microbial growth
106. Consider the following about Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
1) All living things have DNA within their cells.

2) It contains all of the information necessary to build and maintain an organism
3) An important property of DNA is that it cannot replicate itself.
4) Whenever organisms reproduce, a portion of their DNA is passed along to their offspring.

a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in humans
and almost all other organisms. Nearly every cell in a person’s body has the same DNA. Most DNA is
located in the cell nucleus (where it is called nuclear DNA), but a small amount of DNA can also be found
in the mitochondria (where it is called mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA).
Statement 3: DNA can replicate or make copies of itself.
Each strand of DNA in the double helix can serve as a pattern for duplicating the sequence of bases. This
is critical when cells divide because each new cell needs to have an exact copy of the DNA present in the
old cell.
Statement 4: However, DNA does more than specify the structure and function of living things — it also
serves as the primary unit of heredity in organisms of all types. In other words, whenever organisms
reproduce, a portion of their DNA is passed along to their offspring.
This transmission of all or part of an organism's DNA helps ensure a certain level of continuity from one
generation to the next, while still allowing for slight changes that contribute to the diversity of life.
107. Consider the following statements. Stem Cells are
1) A completely differentiated cell of a multi-cellular organism

2) Found in mammals
3) Capable of giving rise to indefinitely more cells of the same type

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Stem cell is an undifferentiated cell of a multi-cellular organism which is capable of giving
rise to indefinitely more cells of the same type and from which certain other kinds of cell may be formed
by the cellular differentiation.
They are found in multi-cellular organisms. In mammals, there are two broad types of stem cells:
embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells.
Both are generally characterized by their potential to differentiate into different cell types. For e.g.
Pluripotent stem cells have the ability to differentiate into almost all cell types.
In the stem cell treatments new adult cells are introduced into the damaged tissue to treat the disease. Stem
cells offer new potentials for treating diseases such as diabetes, and heart disease.
108. Consider the following statements. Osmosis helps the plants to
1) Perform photosynthesis
2) Absorb water from the soil by roots

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Concept: Osmosis is the diffusion of fluid through a semi-permeable membrane from a solution with a
low solute concentration to a solution with a higher solute concentration until there is an equal solute
concentration on both sides of the membrane.
Justification: Statement 1: Stomata are responsible for plant gas exchange which enables the process of
photosynthesis. On every plant leaf there are many guard cells that literally “guard” the stomata. During
osmosis, the guard cells swell with water and the pressure triggers the stomata to open. When the stomata
open they suck in carbon dioxide from the air which is then used in combination with the water from the
roots and the sunlight absorbed in chlorophyll to produce plant energy.
Statement 2: Roots reach out into the soil to establish an avenue for the transport of nutrients and water
to the rest of the plant. The roots absorb water through osmosis. If the water concentration outside of the
plant roots is greater than that of the water concentration in the roots osmosis occurs.
1) Saturated fatty acids are found mainly in food products obtained from plant sources.
2) Natural Trans fatty acids (TFAs) are present in meats and dairy products.
3) TFAs pose a higher risk of heart disease than saturated fats.

a) 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Saturated fatty acids are found in foods from animal sources such as butter,
milk, meat, salmon, and egg yolks, and some plant-derived products such as chocolate and cocoa butter,
coconut, palm and palm kernel oils.
Statement 2: Trans fatty acids (TFAs) or Trans fats are the most harmful type of fats which can have much
more adverse effects on our body than any other dietary constituent. These fats are largely produced
artificially but a small amount also occurs naturally. Thus in our diet, these may be present as Artificial
TFAs and/ or Natural TFAs.
Artificial TFAs are formed when hydrogen is made to react with the oil to produce fats resembling pure
ghee/butter.
In our diet the major sources of artificial TFAs are the partially hydrogenated vegetable oils
(PHVO)/vanaspati/ margarine while the natural TFAs are present in meats and dairy products, though in
small amounts.
Statement 3: TFAs pose a higher risk of heart disease than saturated fats. While saturated fats raise total
cholesterol levels, TFAs not only raise total cholesterol levels but also reduce the good cholesterol (HDL),
which helps to protect us against heart disease. Trans fats consumption increases the risk of developing
heart disease and stroke.
TFA containing oils can be preserved longer, they give the food the desired shape and texture and can
easily substitute ‘Pure ghee’.
Learning: WHO has released draft recommendations on limiting the intake of trans fats. These draft
recommendations, the first since 2002, are aimed at controlling non-communicable diseases (NCDs),
which are responsible for an estimated 39.5 million death (72%) of the 54.7 million deaths worldwide in
2016.
Key recommendations:
Saturated fatty acids should not comprise more than 10% of your daily calorie intake.
Trans fatty acids should not comprise more than 1% of your daily calorie intake.
Use heart-healthy polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) as replacement.
The recommendations are applicable to both adults and children.
110. Ethylene, as a plant growth regulator, primarily plays which of the following roles
a) Breaking dormancy and inducing ripening in fruits

b) Protecting seeds from insects and pests
c) Increasing the hardness of the fruit after separation from the tree
d) Transporting air and other vital gases from atmosphere to the plant cells
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Ethylene is formed naturally in plants in amounts sufficient to bring about regulatory
effects. Role of ethylene is in:
 Breaking dormancy
 Induce ripening of fruits
 Induce abscission of leaves
 Inhibit elongation and lateral bud growth
Learning: Ripening is the process by which fruits attain their desirable flavour, quality, colour, palatable
nature and other textural properties.
Ripening is associated with change in composition i.e. conversion of starch to sugar.

On the basis of ripening behavior, fruits are classified as climacteric and non-climacteric fruits.
Climacteric: Climacteric fruits are defined as fruits that enter ‘climacteric phase’ after harvest
i.e. they continue to ripen. During the ripening process the fruits emit ethylene along with increased rate
of respiration.
Ripe fruits are soft and delicate and generally cannot withstand rigours of transport and repeated handling.
These fruits are harvested hard and green, but fully mature and are ripened near consumption areas. Small
dose of ethylene is used to induce ripening process under controlled conditions of temperature and
humidity.
111. Consider the following about ‘Spices dyed garments’.
1) The practice is stipulated in Ayurvedic texts.

2) The finished garment is completely organic and biodegradable.
3) It is traditionally believed that skin absorbs the medicinal properties of the herbs in these garments
which helps treat a broad range of ailments.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: It uses a dying method wherein the Spices, Herbs and other indigenous process stipulated
in Ayurvedic system so as to achieve maximum eco-friendly and clinical effectiveness perfection in the
cloth.
The finished product is organic, completely free of synthetic chemicals and biodegradable. It is believed
that the skin absorbs the medicinal properties of the herbs and this helps treat a broad range of ailments.
Sugandha vastra, as a branch of ayurveda, begins with 100% organic cotton that has been hand loomed,
no chemical additives to prepare the cotton fibers for spinning and weaving, no chemical finishes.
The organic cotton yarn or fabric is then dyed in a carefully controlled mixture of Ayurveda dyes
depending upon the disease or ailment being treated.
112. Plant quarantine is vital to prevent the introduction of
1) Non-indigenous potentially damaging pests in the country

2) Diseases of plants in host country

1) 1 only
2) 2 only
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Less-developed countries and other countries in transition are especially vulnerable to
the damaging effects of exotic pest introductions because of often inadequate infrastructure and the
fragility of their economies.
Plant quarantine is a technique for ensuring disease- and pest-free plants, whereby a plant is isolated while
tests are performed to detect the presence of a problem.
It is crucial to prevent the introduction of non-indigenous, potentially damaging pests and diseases of
plants into a country or to eradicate them before they can become widespread and well established.
113. Probiotics are microorganisms that are claimed to
a) provide certain health benefits when consumed

b) be effective in bio-remediation of toxic metals
c) fight against anti-biotic resistance in the body
d) give immunity to the body against invasion from communicable diseases
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The term came into more common use after 1980. The introduction of the concept (but not the
term) is generally attributed to Nobel laureate Elie Metchnikoff, who postulated that yogurt-consuming
Bulgarian peasants lived longer lives because of this custom.
He suggested in 1907 that "the dependence of the intestinal microbes on the food makes it possible to
adopt measures to modify the flora in our bodies and to replace the harmful microbes by useful microbes".
A significant expansion of the potential market for probiotics has led to higher requirements for scientific
substantiation of putative benefits conferred by the microorganisms.
Curd or yogurt is a very important probiotic that assists gut bacteria to digest food and maintain the health
of intestinal walls.
114. With refence to Cyanotoxins, consider the following statements.
1) They are produced by viruses.

2) They remain undetected at the micro-level even by a bio-sensor.
3) Microcystins is a cyanotoxin.
4) They can be found in water bodies like oceans.

a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : C
Justification: They are toxins produced by bacteria called cyanobacteria (also known as blue-green
algae).
Cyanobacteria are found almost everywhere, but particularly in lakes and in the ocean where, under certain
conditions, they reproduce exponentially to form blooms.
Blooming cyanobacteria can produce cyanotoxins in such concentrations that they poison and even kill
animals and humans.
Among cyanotoxins are some of the most powerful natural poisons known, including poisons which can
cause rapid death by respiratory failure. The toxins include potent neurotoxins, hepatotoxins, cytotoxins,
and endotoxins.
Bio-sensors for detection of toxins have been used for assessment of the water quality and a nano-particle
based water treatment system to eliminate toxins and microorganisms in water.
Toxins which will be detected are cyanotoxin (microcystins, anatoxins) and micro-organisms
(Enterococcus, Salmonella, Staphylococcus).
115. In India, In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) technology can legally be undertaken with respect
to
a) Humans only
b) Animals only
c) Both humans and animals
d) Plants and animals only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Human IVF clinics can be found at major cities, so B and D are wrong.
Moreover, recently India's first calf was delivered by a surrogate cow through IVF technology
carried out in a mobile laboratory in Pune. So, C is correct.
This is for first time IVF procedure was successfully implemented at farm level with the help
of mobile laboratory.
The purpose of producing surrogate calf was to protect indigenous cow breeds in its original
form which have been destroyed due to cross-breeding.
Learning: IVF or assisted reproductive technology (ART) is a process of fertilisation.
In it, an egg is combined with sperm outside the body, in vitro (in glass or laboratory dish) to
produce embryo.
The embryo is then transferred to the uterus with the intention of establishing a successful
pregnancy.
Health and diseases
116. Tuberculosis (TB) in India is under-reported. Which of the following can be the appropriate
reason(s) for the same?
1) TB, as a disease condition, is stigmatized in the country.

2) We lack the technique to detect Multi-drug resistant TB.
3) TB skin and blood tests, that are quite popular, are not cent percent effective in detecting TB.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: This is especially true in rural areas where the patients are often subject to
humiliation and social boycott. So, many choose not to report TB.
However, it is important to understand that Many people who have latent TB infection (as detected by a
test) never develop active TB disease.
Only if that person's immune system gets weak, the infection can quickly turn into active TB disease.
Statement 2: Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) is TB that does not respond to at least isoniazid and
rifampicin, the 2 most powerful anti-TB drugs.
There are many facilities that can detect such TB.
Statement 3: In 2011, the World Health Organization (WHO) announced a recommendation to ban active
tuberculosis (TB) blood tests.
Reports in India indicated, for instance, that over one million such blood tests for active TB were being
used annually. The literature on these tests has always been rather controversial.
The unreliability of these tests is a serious risk for any person subjected to them, as the result is that some
people will not be treated for TB when they need it while others may receive treatment when they do not.
So, there is no cent per cent effectiveness of these tests and thus often the disease is under-reported.
117. You would often see the term “Schedule H1 Drug” printed on some medicines. These are the
drugs that are
1) Dangerous to take except in accordance with the medical advice

2) Should not be sold on retail outlets

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 2: These are not to be sold by retail without the prescription of a Registered
Medical Practitioner.
The Drugs and Cosmetic Rule, 1945 were amended in 2013 to incorporate a new Schedule H1 under the
said rules containing 46 drugs which include IIIrd and IVth generation antibiotics, anti TB drugs and
certain habit forming drugs for having strict control over the sale of these drugs.
The Drugs falling under Schedule H1 are required to be sold in the country with the following conditions:
The supply of a drug specified in Schedule H1 shall be recorded in a separate register at the time of the
supply giving the name and address of the prescriber, the name of the patient, the name of the drug and
the quantity supplied and such records shall be maintained for three years and be open for inspection.
The drug specified in Schedule H1 shall be labelled with the symbol Rx which shall be in red and
conspicuously displayed on the left top corner of the label, and shall also be labelled with the following
words (the two question statements) in a box with a red border
118. Which of the following steps help prevent the spread of Influenza?
1) Getting anti-bacterial vaccination and drugs

2) Avoiding touching one’s eyes, nose or mouth
3) Early self-isolation of those having symptoms of Influenza

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Avian influenza, commonly called bird flu, is an infectious viral disease of birds with a
tendency of causing large-scale outbreaks of serious disease. Although most influenza viruses do not
infect humans, A(H5N1) and A(H7N9) have caused serious infections in people.
An outbreak of H5 Avian Influenza has been reported from Dasarahalli village from Bengaluru Urban
District in Karnataka. On the directions of the Centre, the Karnataka Government has notified the outbreak
and initiated the control and containment operations.
Statement 1: It is a viral disease, so anti-viral (not anti-bacterial) drugs may reduce the duration of viral
replication and improve prospects of survival.
Statement 2 and 3: Personal protective measures like these can work:
Regular hand washing with proper drying of the hands
Good respiratory hygiene – covering mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, using tissues and
disposing of them correctly
Early self-isolation of those feeling unwell, feverish and having other symptoms of influenza
Avoiding close contact with sick people
Travelers to countries and people living in countries with known outbreaks of avian influenza should, if
possible, avoid poultry farms, contact with animals in live poultry markets, entering areas where poultry
may be slaughtered, and contact with any.
119. Infections that used needles and sharps can pass on to other people include
1) Hepatitis A
2) Syphilis
3) Pandemic Flu

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Hepatitis B, hepatitis C and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can be passed on using
shared needles.
Once someone has used a needle, viruses in their blood may contaminate it. This includes needles used to
inject illegal drugs.
Shared needles can also play a major role in spreading syphilis. Syphilis is a bacterial infection usually
spread by sexual contact that starts as a painless sore.
120. With reference to Sickle-cell anaemia, consider the following statements.
1) Red blood cells die earlier when infected with this disease.
2) It is a contagious disease and can be transmitted between close family members.
3) It affects only children.
4) Bone-marrow transplant can be a treatment of this disease.

a) 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : C
Justification: The term sickle cell disease (SCD) describes a group of inherited red blood cell disorders.
People with SCD have abnormal hemoglobin, called hemoglobin S or sickle hemoglobin, in their red
blood cells.
Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body.
Statement 1: With sickle cell disease, an inherited group of disorders, red blood cells contort into a sickle
shape. The cells die early, leaving a shortage of healthy red blood cells (sickle cell anaemia) and can block
blood flow causing pain (sickle cell crisis).
Infections, pain and fatigue are symptoms of sickle cell disease.
Treatments include medication, blood transfusions and rarely a bone-marrow transplant.
Statement 2: “Inherited” means that the disease is passed by genes from parents to their children. SCD is
not contagious. A person cannot catch it, like a cold or infection, from someone else.
121. If an individual is affected from Haemophilia
1) She loses all immunity.

2) She suffers from clotting of blood flow in major regions of the body.
3) The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is rare as compared to a male.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: This is a sex linked recessive disease, which shows its transmission from unaffected carrier
female to some of the male progeny.
In this disease, a single protein that is a part of the cascade of proteins involved in the clotting of blood is
affected.
Due to this, in an affected individual a simple cut will result in non-stop bleeding.
The heterozygous female (carrier) for haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons.
The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare because mother of such a female
has to be at least carrier and the father should be haemophilic (unviable in the later stage of life).
The family pedigree of Queen Victoria shows a number of haemophilic descendents as she was a carrier
of the disease.
122. Second-line drugs, as against First-line drugs are used in the case of
a) Administered Price Mechanism (APM)

b) Chronic case of depression
c) Drug resistance diseases
d) Dormant disease
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Let us take the example of TB.

Almost all of the antibiotics that can be used to treat TB work when the bacteria are actively dividing.
TB can be treated effectively by using first line drugs (FLD) isoniazid (INH), rifampin (RIF),
pyrazinamide (PZA), ethambutol (EMB) and streptomycin (SM).
However, this first line therapy often fails to cure TB for several reasons.
Relapse and the spread of the disease contribute to the emergence of drug resistant bacteria.
The emergence of multidrug resistant TB (MDR-TB), i.e. which is resistant to at least isoniazid (INH)
and rifampicin (RIF), is of great concern, because it requires the use of second-line drugs that are difficult
to procure and are much more toxic and expensive than FLDs.
Therefore, the detection and treatment of drug susceptible or single drug resistant TB is an important
strategy for preventing the emergence of MDR-TB.
1) Measles is highly contagious and spreads through coughing and sneezing of an infected person.
2) Rubella is an infection caused by a virus that does not affect individuals other than children.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Measles is a deadly disease and one of the important causes of death in
children. It is highly contagious and spreads through coughing and sneezing of an infected person.
Measles can make a child vulnerable to life threatening complications such as pneumonia, diarrhoea and
brain infection.
Globally, in 2015, measles killed an estimated 1, 34,200 children—mostly under-5 years. In India, it killed
an estimated 49,200 children.
Statement 2: Rubella, also known as German measles is an infection caused by the rubella virus.
This disease is often mild with half of people not realizing that they are sick.
Infection during early pregnancy may result in a child born with congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) or
miscarriage.
Rubella is generally a mild infection, but has serious consequences if infection occurs in pregnant women,
causing congenital rubella syndrome (CRS), which is a cause of public health concern.
124. Shigellosis is endemic throughout the world with the overwhelming majority of cases occurring
in developing countries and involving children less than five years of age. Which of the following
statements in this context is INCORRECT?
a) Shigellosis is an infectious disease caused by Virus.

b) The symptoms of shigellosis are fever and watery diarrhea.
c) Shigella’s main mode of transmission is person-to-person contact.
d) The disease Shigellosis is usually resolved in a span of a week.
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Shigella is bacteria. Shigellosis is held responsible for some 165 million cases of severe
dysentery with blood and mucus in the stools.
Because it has low infectious dose, the main mode of transmission is person-to-person contact.
It can also be transmitted through infected food and water.
Most who are infected with Shigella develop diarrhea, fever, and stomach cramps starting a day or two
after they are exposed to the bacteria. Shigellosis usually resolves in 5 to 7 days.
Some people who are infected may have no symptoms at all, but may still pass the Shigella bacteria to
others. The spread of Shigella can be stopped by frequent and careful handwashing with soap and taking
other hygiene measures
125. Consider the following about Kala-azar.
1) Kala-azar is a vector borne disease

2) Kala-azar is endemic to the Indian subcontinent.
3) In India, Leishmania donovani is the only parasite causing this disease.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: It is a slow progressing indigenous disease caused by a protozoan parasite of genus

Leishmania.
Sandfly of genus Phlebotomus argentipes are the only known vectors of kala-azar in India
The parasite primarily infects reticuloendothelial system and may be found in abundance in bone marrow,
spleen and liver.
Indian Kala-azar has a unique epidemiological feature of being Anthroponotic; human is the only known
reservoir of infection
Female snadflies pick up parasite (Amastigote or LD bodies)while feeding on an infected human host.
Kala-azar is endemic to the Indian subcontinent in 119 districts in four countries (Bangladesh, Bhutan,
India and Nepal).
This disease is the second-largest parasitic killer in the world. Elimination is defined as reducing the
annual incidence of Kala Azar (KA) to less than 1 case per 10,000 people at the sub-district level.
Signs and symptoms include fever, weight loss, fatigue, anemia, and substantial swelling of the liver and
spleen.
Without proper diagnosis and treatment, is associated with high fatality.
India has missed the 2017 deadline that Finance Minister Arun Jaitley had announced for elimination of
Kala Azar (black fever) in his Budget speech last year. In fact, endemic blocks have increased from 61 to
68 in 17 districts of Bihar and Jharkhand.
126. Bedaquiline and Delaminid drugs, recently seen in news, are related to the treatment of
a) Retrovirus
b) Tuberculosis
c) Measles
d) Yellow Fever
Correct Answer : B
Learning: India has nearly 1.3 lakh DR-TB patients, most in the world. Currently Health Ministry gets
only 10,000 doses of Bedaquiline and 400 doses of Delaminid. These medicines are obtained as donations
from Janssen (US) and Otsuka Pharmaceuticals (Japan), their respective manufacturers.
World Health Organization (WHO) has invited pharmaceutical companies around the world to submit
proposals to manufacture affordable versions of newer medicines for treatment of drug resistant
tuberculosis (DR-TB).
It has now requested drug makers to submit Expression of Interest (EoI) for Bedaquiline and Delaminid,
two new-generation drugs, recommended for DR-TB.
The aim of this proposal is to replicate success of addressing HIV epidemic. Under WHO norms, drugs
submitted upon such requests and complying with its standards will be included in list for procurement
by UN and other organisations.
127. Consider the following about Diarrhoea.
1) It is more common among Children in India.

2) It can be fatal to an individual.
3) It can lead to excessive loss of water and fluids from the body.
4) It can also spread through a vector.

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Diarrhoea is characterized by frequent need to pass watery stool. It may be caused by an
infection, food poisoning or indigestion.
It is very common in India, particularly among children. Under severe conditions it can be fatal. This is
because of the excessive loss of water and salts from the body.
Even before a doctor is consulted the patient should be given plenty of boiled and cooled water with a
pinch of salt and sugar dissolved in it. This is called Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS).
Statement 4: Diarrhoea cannot spread through a vector
128. Viral load testing, on which recently a scheme was launched by the government, is a method to
monitor the effectiveness of
a) Bio-remediation in wastewater plant

b) Antiretroviral Therapy (ART)
c) Crop decay in farms
d) National Vaccination Programme – Indradhanush
Correct Answer : B
Learning: Viral load is the term used to describe the amount of HIV in your blood. The more HIV there
is in your blood (and therefore the higher your viral load), then the faster a particular cell count will fall,
and the greater your risk of becoming ill because of HIV.
The government has launched a scheme to provide free of cost viral load testing, at least once a year, for
1.2 million people who are living with HIV/AIDS (PLHIV) and are on treatment.
The viral load testing is used to monitor the effectiveness of Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) over time. It
reports quantum of copies of the virus present in the body
129. Weak muscles and feeling very little energy to work is a symptom of the deficiency of
a) Vitamin A
b) Iodine
c) Vitamin B1
d) Vitamin K
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Vitamin A deficiency can cause vision related problems, even loss of vision sometimes.
So, (a) is incorrect.
Iodine deficiency causes goitre and mental disability in children. So, (b) is incorrect.
Vitamin B1, also called as Thiamine, deficiency may lead to chronic diseases such as Beriberi which is a
neurological and cardiovascular disease. Muscle weakness and energy deficit in body etc are
other symptoms associated with its deficiency.
Very small amounts of vitamin B1 are found in virtually all foods.
130. Down Syndrome is associated with
a) Intellectual and learning disabilities

b) Anti-biotic resistance
c) Tissue loss
d) Mutations leading to tumour
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Down syndrome is a genetic disorder and the most common autosomal chromosome
abnormality in humans, where extra genetic material from chromosome 21 is transferred to a newly
formed embryo.
These extra genes and DNA cause changes in development of the embryo and fetus resulting in physical
and mental disabilities.
It leads to delayed development and behavioural problems in children suffering with it.
131. The Union government has banned imports of the hormone oxytocin to stop its misuse in the
a) Fertilizers industry
b) Livestock industry
c) Anti-biotics
d) Water purification industry
Correct Answer : B
Background: Oxytocin has also been dubbed the hug hormone, cuddle chemical, moral molecule, and
the bliss hormone due to its effects on behavior, including its role in love and in female reproductive
biological functions in reproduction.
Oxytocin is a hormone that is made in the brain, in the hypothalamus. It is transported to, and secreted by,
the pituitary gland, which is located at the base of the brain.
It acts both as a hormone and as a brain neurotransmitter.
The release of oxytocin by the pituitary gland acts to regulate two female reproductive functions:
Childbirth and Breast-feeding.
Learning: The drug is used by diary owners and farmers to boost milk production and make vegetables
look bigger and fresher. But, it was found that indiscriminate use of Oxytocin in milch animals and by
farmers was causing irreversible hormone damage.
The drug’s abuse in animals shortens their lives and makes them barren sooner.
Implications to human health are humongous, from reproductive complications to hormonal imbalances.
Activists say that oxytocin causes hormonal imbalances and shortens the lives of milch animals.
The government has also asked customs officials to step up vigilance against those likely to try and
smuggle oxytocin into India.
The government has decided to rely on domestic production to satisfy requirements of the hormone.
132. Researchers have discovered a new class of antibiotics- Odilorhabdins. These are produced by
a) Secretions of budding bees in tropical forests

b) Botulism in packaged food items
c) Symbiotic bacteria found in soil-dwelling nematode worms
d) Grapefruit seed extract
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Called odilorhabdins, or ODLs, the antibiotics are produced by symbiotic bacteria found in
soil-dwelling nematode worms that colonise insects for food.
The bacteria help to kill the insect, and secrete the antibiotic to keep competing bacteria away.
ODLs act on the ribosome — the molecular machine that makes proteins cells needed to function — of
bacterial cells. When bound to the ribosome, the antibiotic disrupts its ability to interpret and translate
genetic code.
When ODLs are introduced to the bacterial cells, they impact the reading ability of the ribosome and cause
the ribosome to make mistakes when it creates new proteins.
This miscoding corrupts the cell with flawed proteins and causes the bacterial cell to die.
Odilorhabdins is unique and promising on two fronts: its unconventional source and its distinct way of
killing bacteria, both of which suggest the compound may be effective at treating drug-resistant or hard-
to-treat infections
133. Zoonotic TB mainly occurs in
a) Silk rearing communities

b) Cattle
c) Zoo animals
d) Humans through cattle
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Zoonotic TB is a form of tuberculosis in people caused by Mycobacterium bowis, which

belongs to the M. tuberculosis complex.
Cattle are the most important animal reservoir for M. bovis in relation to zoonotic exposure of humans.
But the disease can affect many other species and become established in wildlife reservoirs.
It results in important economic losses and trade barriers with a major impact on the livelihoods of poor
and marginalized communities.
Zoonotic TB poses special challenges for patient treatment and recovery. The advanced laboratory tools
required to diagnose M bovis are frequently unavailable M. bovis is inherently resistant to pyrazinamide,
one of the essential first-line medications used to treat Patients are therefore often misdiagnosed and may
receive ineffective treatment.
Learning: In India, consumption of raw milk and living in close proximity to cattle has been attributed
to high incidence rates of bovine TB in the central Indian populations.
The first-ever road map to combat animal tuberculosis (bovine TB) and its transmission to humans,
referred to as zoonotic TB, was recently launched at the 48th Union World Conference on Lung Health
in Guadalajara, Mexico.
1) Sulfonamides are one of the most potent drugs that kill harmful bacteria.
2) Histamines help reduce and control inflammation in the body caused by microbial agents.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Sulfonamide is the basis of several groups of drugs.

The original antibacterial sulfonamides are synthetic antimicrobial agents that contain the sulfonamide
group. Some sulfonamides are also devoid of antibacterial activity, e.g., the anticonvulsant sultiame.
Sulfonamides are bacteriostatic and inhibit growth and multiplication of bacteria, but do not kill them.
Statement 2: All antihistamines inhibit the action of the compound, histamine which causes inflammation
in the body. There are various ways in which action of histamines can be blocked (this has been covered
in a question on drugs in this test).
135. Antibiotics have either cidal (killing) effect or a static (inhibitory) effect on microbes. Which of
these are Bacteriostatic antibiotics?
1) Penicillin
2) Erythromycin
3) Aminoglycosides
4) Chloramphenicol

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: A few examples of the two types of antibiotics are as follows:

Bactericidal are Penicillin, Aminoglycosides, Ofloxacin. Bacteriostatic are Erythromycin, Tetracycline
and Chloramphenicol.
Learning: The range of bacteria or other microorganisms that are affected by a certain antibiotic is
expressed as its spectrum of action.
Antibiotics which kill or inhibit a wide range of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria are said to be
broad spectrum antibiotics.
Those effective mainly against Gram-positive or Gram-negative bacteria are narrow spectrum antibiotics.
If effective against a single organism or disease, they are referred to as limited spectrum antibiotics.
Penicillin G has a narrow spectrum. Ampicillin and Amoxycillin are synthetic modifications of
penicillins. These have broad spectrum.
136. Chemotherapy has been known to inhibit the process has of mitosis as a precursor of reducing the
effects of cancer in the body. What is mitosis?
a) A process of cell division in the body

b) Self-suicidal tendencies of cells
c) Generation of glucose in cells
d) Conscious mapping of DNA over m-RNA
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Chemotherapy has come to connote the use of rather non-specific intracellular poisons,
especially related to inhibiting the process of cell division known as mitosis.
Mitosis is a part of the cell cycle when replicated chromosomes are separated into two new nuclei.
It is often accompanied or followed by cytokinesis, which divides the cytoplasm, organelles and cell
membrane into two new cells containing roughly equal shares of these cellular components.
Chemotherapy may be given with a curative intent (which almost always involves combinations of drugs),
or it may aim to prolong life or to reduce symptoms (palliative chemotherapy).
137. With reference to Rotavirus, consider the following statements.
1) It is the most common cause of severe typhoid among infants and young children.
2) It infects and damages the cells that line the small intestine.
3) An indigenous Rotavac has been developed in India to tackle Rotavirus.
4) It does not infect animals.

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1 and 4: It accounts for approximately one third of hospitalisations for severe
diarrhoea in infants and children, but its importance has historically been underestimated within the public
health community, particularly in developing countries.
In addition to its impact on human health, rotavirus also infects animals, and is a pathogen of livestock.
Statement 2: The virus is transmitted by the faecal-oral route. It infects and damages the cells that line the
small intestine and causes gastroenteritis (which is often called "stomach flu" despite having no relation
to influenza).
Statement 3: Rotavirus Vaccine (Live Attenuated, Oral) is a monovalent liquid frozen vaccine containing
live rotavirus.
138. CARB X, recently seen in news, is a public-private international partnership, focussing on

tackling?
a) Diagnosis and treatment of drug-resistant infections

b) Nexus of organized crime syndicates and terrorists in West Asian countries
c) Particle collision issues in the LHC experiment, Geneva
d) Obesity and over-nutrition in urban areas
Correct Answer : A
Learning: CARB-X, or Combating Antibiotic Resistant Bacteria Biopharmaceutical Accelerator, was set
up in 2016 to focus on innovations to improve diagnosis and treatment of drug-resistant infections.
It grew out of Barack Obama’s 2015 Combating Antibiotic Resistant Bacteria (CARB) initiative, and is
funded by western agencies including the US Department of Health and Human Services.
CARB-X will provide grants to firms across the globe for antibiotics R&D.
All CARB-X funding so far is focused on projects to address the most resistant “Gram- negative” bacteria.
139. Consider the following about a disease.

1) It is a viral illness that is spread by the bite of infected mosquitoes.
2) It is primarily found in urban /peri-urban areas.
3) There is no specific treatment for this disease because no approved vaccine or drugs are available to
cure the disease.
The above may refer to?

a) Yellow Fever
b) Chikungunya
c) Dengue
d) Typhoid Fever
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Option A and C: Approved vaccines exist for both. Option D: It is a bacterial disease.
Option B: Chikungunya disease resembles dengue fever, and is characterized by severe, sometimes
persistent, joint pain (arthiritis), as well as fever and rash. It is rarely life-threatening.
Chikungunya occurs in Africa, India and Southeast Asia .
he states in India affected by chikungunya are Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharasthra, Madhya Pradesh,
Tamil Nadu, Gujarat & Kerala.
Anyone who is bitten by an infected mosquito can get chikungunya.

There is neither chikungunya virus vaccine nor drugs are available to cure the infection. However, there
are some recent attempts at developing the vaccine; they haven’t been approved by WHO.
Prevention, therefore, centers on avoiding mosquito bites. Eliminating mosquito breeding sites is another
key prevention measure.
140. The ‘Chennai Declaration’, sometimes seen in the news, is associated with the issue of
a) Antibiotic Resistance
b) Make in India campaign
c) India-Africa Relations
d) India-Sri Lanka fishing right disputes
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is resistance of a microorganism to an antimicrobial medicine

to which it was previously sensitive.
Resistant organisms (they include bacteria, viruses and some parasites) are able to withstand attack by
antimicrobial medicines, such as antibiotics, anti-virals, and anti-malarials, so that standard treatments
become ineffective and infections persist and may spread to others.
A Roadmap to Tackle the Challenge of Antimicrobial Resistance - A Joint meeting of Medical Societies
in India" was organized as a pre-conference symposium of the 2nd annual conference of the Clinical
Infectious Disease Society (CIDSCON 2012) at Chennai on 24th August.
This was the first ever meeting of medical societies in India on issue of tackling resistance, with a plan to
formulate a road map to tackle the global challenge of antimicrobial resistance from the Indian
perspective.
141. Which of the following diseases is/are infectious?
1) Chikungunya
2) Malaria
3) Leishmaniasis
4) Dengue

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Infectious diseases are caused by pathogenic microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses,
parasites or fungi; the diseases can be spread, directly or indirectly, from one person to another. Zoonotic
diseases are infectious diseases of animals that can cause disease when transmitted to humans.
Another important disease that is infectious is HIV/AIDS. These infectious diseases can cause deaths and
epidemics.
The department of Biotechnology promotes research & development activity in the area of infectious
diseases specifically relevant for the country caused by various pathogenic agents like bacteria, viruses,
parasites, fungi
142. How is Nuclear medicine different from radiation therapy?

1) Nuclear medicine is administered orally, whereas an external radiation beam is used in
radiation therapy.
2) Nuclear Medicine cannot be used for diagnostic purposes, whereas radiation therapy can
be.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Background: A radiopharmaceutical is a chemical substance that contains radioactive atoms

within its structure and is suitable for administration to humans for diagnosis or treatment of
disease
Justification: Statement 2: Nuclear medicine is the medical specialty, which utilizes the
nuclear properties of radioactive nuclides for diagnostic evaluation and / or physiological
conditions of the body and provides therapy with unsealed radioactive sources.
Statement 1: In radiation therapy an external radiation beam or sealed sources are used for
destroying the cancerous tissue whereas in nuclear medicine the radiopharmaceutical is
administered orally and then using a gamma - camera, image of a particular organ is taken
for diagnosis of the disease.
The therapeutic radiopharmaceuticals contain radionuclide, which emit particulate emission

which help in destroying the unwanted (cancerous) tissues.
143. What is the difference between Generic drugs and brand-name medicines?
1) Generic drugs use an alternative cheaper Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient (API) for
making the same medicine.
2) Generic drugs are not subject to any regulatory constraints.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: They are copycat versions of brand-name products and — to a point — their
prices are expected to drop over time.
 When a brand-name drug first loses its patent protection, prices fall slowly.
 Over the next couple of years, as more competitors enter the market, the prices drop even
more, until the pills become commodities and sell for pennies.
 A generic drug is identical — or bioequivalent — to a brand name drug in dosage form,
safety, strength, route of administration, quality, performance characteristics and intended
use.
 Although generic drugs are chemically identical to their branded counterparts, they are
typically sold at substantial discounts from the branded price.
144. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has recently released a National Policy on Thalassemia.
What is ‘thalassemia’ related to?
a) Anaemia
b) HIV
c) Tobacco Control
d) Surrogacy
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Thalassemia are inherited blood disorders characterized by abnormal haemoglobin

production.
The Ministry has prepared and issued comprehensive guideline for Haemoglobinopathies
(Thalassemia, Sickle cell anaemia and other variant anaemia) for prevention and management of
Haemoglobinopathies.
The guidelines provide for screening of every pregnant woman during ANC, pre-marital counselling
at the college level and onetime screening for variant anaemia for all children in class VIII.
There is no proposal to make carrier testing compulsory for relatives of thalassemia patients as it
should be voluntary and not cause stigmatisation of the family.
145. When blood is given to patients who are immuno-deficient such as cancer patients or patients being
operated for organ transplants, blood needs to be irradiated with low doses of radiation. Why then high
dosages of irradiation are not used to directly kill HIV viruses?
1) It would kill blood cells along with HIV viruses.

2) It can cause immediate T- Lymphocyte proliferation in blood cells.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Much higher dose of radiation will also kill the blood cells and will hence
be useless. Hence this method cannot be resorted to for such a purpose. The same argument holds good
for other bacteria and viruses also. This may lead to complications and may be fatal.
Statement 2: T lymphocyte, is a type of lymphocyte that plays a central role in cell-mediated immunity.
The irradiation is done in order to inhibit T- Lymphocyte proliferation so that the therapy doesn’t fail due
to body’s internal defence mechanisms.
HUMAN BODY
146. The enzyme luciferase was in news, some time back, in the context of
a) Chemotherapy of cancer
b) Adding anti-drought characteristics of arid vegetation
c) Human cloning
d) Giving glow to plants
Correct Answer : D
Learning: MIT scientists have found a way to induce plants to give off dim light by embedding
specialised nanoparticles into their leaves, a major step towards using plants to illuminate the workspace.
This technology could also be used to provide low- intensity indoor lighting, or to transform trees into
self- powered streetlights.
To create the glowing plants, scientists relied on luciferase, the enzyme that gives fireflies their glow.
Luciferase acts on a molecule called luciferin, causing it to emit light. Another molecule called co-enzyme
A helps the process along by removing a reaction byproduct that can inhibit luciferase activity.
Researchers packaged each of these three components into a different type of nanoparticle carrier.
The nanoparticles, which are all made of materials that the US Food and Drug Administration classifies
as “generally regarded as safe,” help each component get to the right part of the plant.
They also prevent the components from reaching concentrations that could be toxic to the plants.
147. Electrocardiography is based on the fact that
a) The heart shows electric activity which can be recorded

b) Beating of the heart generated microwaves that can be read by an instrument
c) Heart is connected to the brain which generates noticeable magnetic waves that can be graphed
d) The biological energy drawn by the heart from the body can be mapped on a device
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) is a diagnostic tool that is routinely used to assess the
electrical and muscular functions of the heart.
The heart is a two stage electrical pump and the heart's electrical activity can be measured by electrodes
placed on the skin.
Like the spark-plug of an automobile the heart generates a number of "sparks" per minute. Each "spark"
travels across a specialized electrical pathway and stimulates the muscle walls of the heart to contract and
expand in a certain way
148. Rh grouping in human blood should be checked
1) When donating blood to someone

2) During the delivery of a child

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: An Rh-ve person, if exposed to Rh ve blood, will form specific antibodies against the Rh
antigens. Therefore, Rh group should also be matched before transfusions. So, (c) is related.
During the delivery of the first child, there is a possibility of exposure of the maternal blood (if Rh
–ve) to small amounts of the Rh ve blood from the foetus. So, (a) is correct.
An injury or a trauma stimulates the platelets in the blood to release certain factors which activate the
mechanism of coagulation. Calcium ions play a very important role in clotting.
149. A carbohydrate is a bio-molecule consisting of various elements. Which of the following is NOT a major
constituent of carbohydrates?
a) Carbon
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Oxygen
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Option C: Carbohydrates are made of carbon (C), hydrogen (H) and oxygen (O) atoms,
usually with a hydrogen–oxygen atom ratio of 2:1 (as in water); in other words, with the
empirical formula Cm(H2O)n. There may be little or no Nitrogen.
Learning: Carbohydrates perform numerous roles in living organisms. Polysaccharides serve for the
storage of energy (e.g. starch and glycogen) and as structural components (e.g. cellulose in plants and
chitin in arthropods).
For e.g. the 5-carbon monosaccharide ribose is an important component of coenzymes (e.g. ATP, FAD
and NAD) and the backbone of the genetic molecule known as RNA. The related deoxyribose is a
component of DNA.
Saccharides and their derivatives include many other important biomolecules that play key roles in the
immune system, fertilization, preventing pathogenesis, blood clotting, and development.
Carbohydrates are found in a wide variety of foods. The important sources are cereals, potatoes,
sugarcane, etc. Starch and sugar are the important carbohydrates in our diet
150. Consider the following statements about Glucose.
1) It is made during photosynthesis from water and carbon dioxide, using energy from sunlight.
2) It is used as an energy source in not only humans but also bacteria, through either aerobic respiration
or anaerobic respiration.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Glucose is a simple sugar with the molecular formula C6H12O6,
which means that it is a molecule that is made of six carbon atoms, twelve hydrogen atoms, and six
oxygen atoms. Glucose circulates in the blood of animals as blood sugar.
It is made during photosynthesis from water and carbon dioxide, using energy from sunlight. It is the most
important source of energy for cellular respiration. Glucose is stored as a polymer, in plants as starch and
in animals as glycogen.
Statement 2:Glucose is a ubiquitous fuel in biology. It is used as an energy source in most organisms,
from bacteria to humans, through either aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, or fermentation.
Glucose is the human body's key source of energy, through aerobic respiration, providing about 3.75
kilocalories (16 kilojoules) of food energy per gram.
Glucose is on the World Health Organization's List of Essential Medicines, the most important
medications needed in a basic health system.
151. Among the major dietary carbohydrates, which of the following is NOT categorized in the class of
‘Sugar’?
a) Galactose
b) Fructose
c) Lactose
d) Cellulose
Correct Answer : D
Justification & Learning:Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehydes, ketones, alcohols, acids, their
simple derivatives and their polymers.
They may be classified according to their degree of polymerization and may be divided initially into three
principal groups, namely sugars, oligosaccharides and polysaccharides.
Option D:Even though it is a carbohydrate, it is not a Sugar
152. Consider the following food sources and the vitamin that they contain:
1) Ripe yellow fruits: Vitamin A

2) Eggs: Vitamin B1
3) Fish: Vitamin D
4) Nuts and Seeds: Vitamin E
5) Spinach: Vitamin K

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Vitamin A: Retinol, retinal, and four carotenoids including beta carotene: Contained in
Liver, orange, ripe yellow fruits, leafy vegetables, carrots, pumpkin, squash, spinach, fish, soy milk, milk
Vitamin B1: Thiamine: Contained in Pork, oatmeal, brown rice, vegetables, potatoes, liver, eggs Vitamin
D: Fish, eggs, liver, mushrooms
Vitamin D is essential only for people who do not have adequate skin exposure to sunlight, because the
ultraviolet light in sunlight normally promotes synthesis of vitamin D.
While vitamin supplements are important for the treatment of certain health problems, otherwise healthy
people generally receive no benefit from using vitamin supplements.
Vitamin E : Many fruits and vegetables, nuts and seeds

Vitamin K: Leafy green vegetables such as spinach, egg yolks, liver
153. Consider the following statements about the balance of Vitamins in the human body.
1) Lack of Vitamin A leads to the disease Beriberi.

2) Excess of Vitamin D leads to Scurvy.
3) Deficiency of Iodine in the body leads to weakness followed by Anaemia.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: The table from NCERT gives a summary:
S1: There are two types of the disease Beriberi: wet beriberi and dry beriberi. Wet beriberi affects the
heart and circulatory system. In extreme cases, wet beriberi can cause heart failure.
S2: The deficiency of Vitamin C leads to Scurvy i.e. symptoms of weakness, anaemia, gum disease, and
skin problems. This is because vitamin C is needed for making collagen, an important component in
connective tissues.
154. In human body, proteins are assembled from amino acids using information encoded in the
a) ATP
b) Mitochondria
c) Glycogen
d) Genes
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Proteins are large bio-molecules consisting of one or more long chains of amino
acid residues.
Proteins are assembled from amino acids using information encoded in genes. Each protein has its own
unique amino acid sequence that is specified by the nucleotide sequence of the gene encoding this protein.
Learning: Proteins perform a vast array of functions within organisms, including catalysing metabolic
reactions, DNA replication, responding to stimuli, and transporting molecules from one location to
another.
Proteins differ from one another primarily in their sequence of amino acids, which is dictated by the
nucleotide sequence of their genes, and which usually results in protein folding into a specific three-
dimensional structure that determines its activity.
The process of synthesizing a protein from an mRNA template is known as translation

1. The glycemic index of a carbohydrate represents how quickly its consumption increases blood sugar
levels.
2. The glycemic index usually tends to be lower for simple carbohydrates than for complex carbohydrates.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Values range from 1 (the slowest) to 100 (the fastest, the index of pure glucose). However,
how quickly the level actually increases also depends on what other foods are ingested at the same time
and other factors.
The glycemic index tends to be lower for complex carbohydrates than for simple carbohydrates, but there
are exceptions. For example, fructose (the sugar in fruits) has little effect on blood sugar.
The glycemic index is thought to be important because carbohydrates that increase blood sugar levels
quickly (those with a high glycemic index) also quickly increase insulin levels.
The increase in insulin may result in low blood sugar levels (hypoglycemia) and hunger, which tends to
lead to consuming excess calories and gaining weight.
Carbohydrates with a low glycemic index do not increase insulin levels so much.
As a result, people feel satiated longer after eating. Consuming carbohydrates with a low glycemic index
also tends to result in more healthful cholesterol levels and reduces the risk of obesity and diabetes mellitus
and, in people with diabetes, the risk of complications due to diabetes.
1) Bone is a rigid tissue because the extracellular matrix is calcified.

2) Both Cartilage and bone are forms of connective tissue.
3) Cartilage is a supporting tissue which does not bend.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Cartilage and bone are both modified rigid forms of connective tissue. Connective tissue
has two main consitutents - cells and extracellular material.
Cartilage is a strong, flexible and semi-rigid supporting tissue. It can withstand compression forces, and
yet it can bend.
It is important in forming a template for the growth and development of long bones. And cartilage persists
in regions such as the ends of bones (articular cartilage), the walls of airways (nose, trachea, larynx and
bronchi).
157. Which of the following are characteristics of enzymes?
1) Most enzymes are either carbohydrates or fats.

2) Enzymes act as a catalyst for chemical reactions in the body.
3) An enzyme's activity in the body is independent of body temperature and pH.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Enzymes are macromolecular biological catalysts. Enzymes accelerate chemical reactions.
Almost all metabolic processes in the cell need enzyme catalysis in order to occur at rates fast enough to
sustain life.
Some enzymes are used commercially, for example, in the synthesis of antibiotics.
Some household products use enzymes to speed up chemical reactions: enzymes in biological washing
powders break down protein, starch or fat stains on clothes.
S1: Most enzymes are proteins, although a few are catalytic RNA molecules.
S3: Enzyme activity can be affected by other molecules: inhibitors are molecules that decrease enzyme
activity, and activators are molecules that increase activity.
Many therapeutic drugs and poisons are enzyme inhibitors. An enzyme's activity decreases markedly
outside its optimal temperature and pH.
158. Histamine is related to

1) Secretion of acid in stomach
2) Allergy from pollen grains
3) Nasal congestion associated with common cold

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Histamine stimulates the secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid in the
stomach.
A drug cimetidine (Tegamet), was designed to prevent the interaction of histamine with the receptors
present in the stomach wall. This resulted in release of lesser amount of acid. The importance of the drug
was so much that it remained the largest selling drug in the world until another drug, ranitidine (Zantac),
was discovered.
Statement 2 & 3: Histamine is a potent vasodilator. It has various functions. It contracts the smooth
muscles in the bronchi and gut and relaxes other muscles, such as those in the walls of fine blood vessels.
Histamine is also responsible for the nasal congestion associated with common cold and allergic response
to pollen.
159. What is the function of Haemoglobin in the human body?

1) Transport of gases
2) Regulating release of enzymes

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Hemoglobin is involved in the transport of other gases: It carries some of the body's
respiratory carbon dioxide (about 20–25% of the total) as carbaminohemoglobin, in which CO2 is bound
to the globin protein.
The molecule also carries the important regulatory molecule nitric oxide bound to a globin protein thiol
group, releasing it at the same time as oxygen
Hemoglobin is also found outside red blood cells and their progenitor lines.
Hemoglobin and hemoglobin-like molecules are also found in many invertebrates, fungi, and plants.
In these organisms, hemoglobins may carry oxygen, or they may act to transport and regulate other small
molecules and ions such as carbon dioxide, nitric oxide, hydrogen sulfide and sulfide
160. Consider the following statements about Blood platelets.

1) They are found only in mammals.
2) They stop bleeding by clumping and clotting blood vessel injuries.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: They are a component of blood whose function (along with the coagulation factors) is to
stop bleeding by clumping and clotting blood vessel injuries.
Platelets have no cell nucleus: they are fragments of cytoplasm that are derived from the megakaryocytes
of the bone marrow, and then enter the circulation.
These unactivated platelets are biconvex discoid (lens-shaped) structures, 2–3 µm in greatest diameter.
Platelets are found only in mammals, whereas in other animals (e.g. birds, amphibians) thrombocytes
circulate as intact mononuclear cells.
161. Human blood is normally

a) Slightly Acidic
b) Slightly Basic
c) Neutral
d) Acidic or Basic depending on the blood type
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Human blood stays in a very narrow pH range around (7.35 - 7.45). Below or above this
range means symptoms and disease. If blood pH moves to much below 6.8 or above 7.8, cells stop
functioning and the patient dies. The ideal pH for blood is 7.4
On the other hand the pH of saliva is usually between 6.5 - 7.5. After we chew and swallow food it then
enters the upper portion of the stomach which has a pH between 4.0 - 6.5.
162. Consider the following about chromosomes in the human body.

1) They are found in the nucleus of cells.
2) Each chromosome is made up of DNA tightly coiled many times around proteins.
3) Chromosomes are the most clearly visible element of a cell.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Justification: In the nucleus of each cell, the DNA molecule is packaged into thread-like structures called
chromosomes. Each chromosome is made up of DNA tightly coiled many times around proteins called
histones that support its structure.
Chromosomes are not visible in the cell’s nucleus—not even under a microscope—when the cell is not
dividing.
However, the DNA that makes up chromosomes becomes more tightly packed during cell division and is
then visible under a microscope.
Most of what researchers know about chromosomes was learned by observing chromosomes duringcell
division.
163. Consider the following hormones in the body and their functions.
1) Adrenaline: Helps the body to adjust to stress when one is very angry
2) Insulin: Helps keeps blood sugar level even
3) Thyroxine: Digestion, heart and muscle function

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: It plays an important role in the fight-or-flight response by increasing blood
flow to muscles, output of the heart, pupil dilation, and blood sugar. It does this by binding to alpha and
beta receptors. It is found in many animals and some single cell organisms.
Statement 2: Insulin is a hormone made in the pancreas, an organ located behind the stomach. The
pancreas contains clusters of cells called islets. Beta cells within the islets make insulin and release it into
the blood. Insulin plays a major role in metabolism—the way the body uses digested food for energy –
especially glucose.
Statement 3: Thyroxine is the main hormone secreted into the bloodstream by the thyroid gland. It is the
inactive form and most of it is converted to an active form called triiodothyronine by organs such as the
liver and kidneys. Thyroid hormones play vital roles in regulating the body’s metabolic rate, heart and
digestive functions, muscle control, brain development and maintenance of bones
164. Usually about the size of a pea, this glad is called the ‘master gland' of human body as it controls
several of the other hormone glands; it is
a) Hypothalamus
b) Pituitary gland
c) Thyroid
d) Pineal body
Correct Answer : B
Learning: It is found at the base of the brain and as the “master gland” of the body, it produces many
hormones that travel throughout the body, directing certain processes or stimulating other glands to
produce other hormones.
The pituitary gland makes or stores many different hormones. The following hormones are made in the
anterior (front part) of the pituitary gland:
Prolactin - stimulates breast milk production after childbirth. I
Growth hormone (GH)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) - stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones, which
regulate the body's metabolism, energy balance, growth, and nervous system activity
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) - promotes sperm production in men and stimulates the ovaries to
produce estrogen and develop eggs in women.
We have omitted some hormones for the sake of simplicity.
PLANTS
165. Flowering plants, Angiosperms, cannot be found in
a) Grasslands
b) Deserts
c) Coastal regions
d) They can be found in all these biomes.
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Angiosperms are seed-bearing vascular plants. Their reproductive structures are flowers in
which the ovules are enclosed in an ovary.
Angiosperms are found in almost every habitat from forests and grasslands to sea margins and deserts.
Angiosperms display a huge variety of life forms including trees, herbs, submerged aquatics, bulbs and
epiphytes.
The largest plant families are Orchids, and Compositae (daisies) and Legumes (beans).
The flowers of flowering plants are the most remarkable feature that distinguishes them from other seed
plants.
Flowers initiated the differences between gymnosperms and angiosperms by broadening the scope of
evolutionary relationships and niches open to flowering plants, allowing them to eventually dominate
terrestrial ecosystems.
166. Which of the following plants are flowering plants?
1) Maize
2) Wheat
3) Chilli
4) Tulsi

a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) All
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Some of the common flowering plants are
Grass, maize, wheat, chilli, tomato, tulsi, papal, shisham, banyan, mango, jamun, guava, pomegranate,
papaya, banana, lemon, potato, groundnut
The parts of a flower are sepals, petals, stamens and pistil.
Sepal: It is the small leaf-like structures which is the most prominent part in a bud.
Petals: It is the prominent parts of the open flower which is of different colours.
Stamens: It is the male reproductive part of the flower.
Pistil: It is the female reproductive part of the flower.
INSTITUTIONS
ARTIC AND ANTARTIC MISSION
167. Indian research stations in the Arctic include
1. Maitri
2. Bharati
3. Himadri

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Himadri Station is India's first Arctic research station located at Spitsbergen, Svalbard,
Norway. It is India’s only research station there.
However, there are more in Antarctica which are:
The first permanent settlement was built in 1983 and named Dakshin Gangotri. In 1989 it was excavated
and is being used again as supply base and transit camp.
Maitri was established a few years later for conducting experiments in geology, geography
and medicine. India built a freshwater lake around Maitri known as Lake Priyadarshini.
Bharati was established in 2015. This newest research station for oceanographic research will collect
evidence of continental breakup to reveal the 120-million-year-old ancient history of the Indian
subcontinent.
168. Consider the following statements. The Multidisciplinary drifting Observatory for the Study of
Arctic Climate (MOSAiC)
1) is a project of NASA in the Arctic
2) will take an year-round expedition into the central Arctic exploring the Arctic climate system
3) seeks to develop a scientific basis for future fishery and traffic along northern sea routes

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: The project with a total budget exceeding 60 Million € has been designed by
an international consortium of leading polar research institutions, under the umbrella of the International
Arctic Science Committee (IASC), led by the Alfred Wegener Institute, Helmholtz Centre for Polar and
Marine Research (AWI), Arctic and Antarctic Research Institute (AARI) and the University of Colorado,
Cooperative Institute for Research in Environmental Sciences (CIRES).
The results of MOSAiC will contribute to enhance understanding of the regional and global consequences
of Arctic climate change and sea-ice loss and improve weather and climate predictions.
As such it will support safer maritime and offshore operations, contribute to an improved scientific basis
for future fishery and traffic along northern sea routes, increase coastal-community resilience, and support
science-informed decision-making and policy development.
169. ICESCAPE Mission, is a
a) Multi-year NASA shipborne project

b) Himalayan mineral excavation programme
c) Extension of the Maitri mission of India in Arctic
d) Joint expedition of DRDO and ISRO into understanding satellite launched from remote and cold
locations
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Impacts of Climate on the Eco-Systems and Chemistry of the Arctic Pacific Environment
(ICESCAPE) is a multi-year NASA shipborne project.
The central science question of this program is, “What is the impact of climate change (natural and
anthropogenic) on the biogeochemistry and ecology of the Chukchi and Beaufort seas?” While both of
these regions are experiencing significant changes in the ice cover, their biogeochemical response will
likely be quite different due to their distinct physical, chemical, and biological differences.
ICESCAPE will pursue the above central science question and associated issues through an
interdisciplinary, cross cutting approach integrating field expeditions, modeling, and satellite remote
sensing.
170. MoSAic Observatory is concerned with an improved understanding of the region of
a) Equatorial Rainforests
b) Lower Earth orbits
c) Arctic Region
d) Tropical cyclones
Correct Answer : C
Background and Learning: The Arctic is a key area of global climate change, with warming rates
exceeding twice the global average.
Many processes in the Arctic climate system are poorly represented in climate models because they are
not sufficiently understood.
Understanding of Arctic climate processes is limited by a lack of year round observations in the central
Arctic.
The Multidisciplinary drifting Observatory for the study of Arctic climate (MOSAiC) will be the first
year-round expedition into the central Arctic exploring the Arctic climate system.
The project with a total budget exceeding 60 Million € has been designed by an international consortium
of leading polar research institutions under the umbrella of the International Arctic Science Committee
(IASC).
The results of MOSAiC will contribute to enhance understanding of the regional and global consequences
of Arctic climate change and sea-ice loss and improve weather and climate predictions.
As such it will support safer maritime and offshore operations, contribute to an improved scientific basis
for future fishery and traffic along northern sea routes, increase coastal- community resilience, and support
science-informed decision-making and policy development.
171. Consider the following with reference to the Indian Antarctic Program.
1) It was setup under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
2) It was initiated with the first Indian expedition to Antarctica.
3) India has officially acceded to the Antarctic Treaty System.
4) Maitri and Bharati are India’s research stations on Antarctica.

a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: It is a multi-disciplinary, multi-institutional program under the control of

National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research, Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government
of India. It was initiated in 1981 with the first Indian expedition to Antarctica.
Under the program, atmospheric, biological, earth, chemical, and medical sciences are
studied by India, which has carried out several scientific expeditions to the Antarctic.
The program gained global acceptance with India's signing of the Antarctic Treaty and
subsequent construction of the Dakshin Gangotri Antarctic research base in 1983,
superseded by the Maitri base from 1990.
The newest base commissioned in 2015 is Bharati.
NUCLEAR TECHNOLOGY
172. What are the major advantages of choosing Nuclear fusion over Nuclear fission as a future source
of energy?
1) Its hydrogen isotope fuels are relatively abundant than the commonly used Nuclear fission fuels.
2) It is more environment friendly than Nuclear fission.
3) Fusion releases more energy than a nuclear fission reaction for equal fuel mass.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Fusion fuels are widely available and nearly inexhaustible. Deuterium can
be distilled from all forms of water, while tritium will be produced during the fusion reaction as fusion
neutrons interact with lithium. (Terrestrial reserves of lithium would permit the operation of fusion power
plants for more than 1,000 years, while sea-based reserves of lithium would fulfil needs for millions of
years.)
Statement 2: Fusion doesn't emit harmful toxins like carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases into the
atmosphere. Its major by-product is helium: an inert, non-toxic gas.
Nuclear fusion reactors produce no high activity, long-lived nuclear waste. The activation of components
in a fusion reactor is low enough for the materials to be recycled or reused within 100years.
Statement 3: Fusing atoms together in a controlled way releases nearly four million times more energy
than a chemical reaction such as the burning of coal, oil or gas and four times as much as nuclear fission
reactions (at equal mass). Fusion has the potential to provide the kind of baseload energy needed to
provide electricity to our cities and our industries.
Learning: No risk of meltdown: A Fukushima-type nuclear accident is not possible in a tokamak fusion
device. It is difficult enough to reach and maintain the precise conditions necessary for fusion—if any
disturbance occurs, the plasma cools within seconds and the reaction stops. The quantity of fuel present
in the vessel at any one time is enough for a few seconds only and there is no risk of a chain reaction.
To harness fusion reaction power generation, the ITER (International Thermonuclear Experimental
Reactor) project is funded and run by seven member entities—the European Union, India, Japan, China,
Russia, South Korea, and the United States. It will be the world's largest magnetic confinement plasma
physics experiment.
173. What is/are the objectives of the Global Centre for Nuclear Energy Partnership (GCNEP) that is housed
under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)?
1) Design long-term policy and regulations to further the development of nuclear power penetration in
India
2) Finance construction of nuclear power plants with state of the art infrastructure
3) Develop enhanced nuclear safeguards to effectively and efficiently monitor nuclear materials and
facilities
4) Establish accreditation facilities for radiation monitoring

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: GCNEP is R&D unit under Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).

It helps in capacity building, in association with interested countries and International Atomic Energy
Agency (IAEA).
It is involved technology, human resource development, education & training and giving momentum to
R&D in enlisted areas.
Objectives of GCNEP
Develop enhanced nuclear safeguards to effectively and efficiently monitor nuclear materials and
facilities.
Establish accreditation facilities for radiation monitoring.
Train manpower in field of Nuclear Security and Radiological Safety.
Promote development of advanced, more proliferation resistant nuclear power reactors.
Provide education in field of Advanced Nuclear Energy Systems, Isotopes and Radiation Technologies,
nuclear forensic.
174. According to World Nuclear Industry Status Report 2017, the nation with the highest number of
installed nuclear reactors is
a) China
b) India
c) Russia
d) USA
Correct Answer : A
Learning: India with six installed nuclear reactors ranks third in world, while China is leading at twenty
installed nuclear reactors.
The report notes that the number of nuclear reactor unit construction is declining globally.
Most nuclear reactor constructions are behind schedule, with delays resulting in increase in project costs
and delay in power generation.
A reason may be protests against the use of nuclear energy, rolling back of nuclear programmes in many
countries and the increased adoption of renewable energy.
175. Consider the following statements. International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
1) is an agency under the direct control of the United Nations (UN)
2) is not obliged to report to any international or inter-governmental agency

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: It was set up as the world´s “Atoms for Peace” organization in 1957 within the
United Nations family.
It is not under direct control of the UN. Though established independently of the United
Nations through its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute, the IAEA reports to both the
United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
The Agency works with its Member States and multiple partners worldwide to promote
safe,secure and peaceful nuclear technologies.
It also seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any
military purpose, including nuclear weapons.
ROBOTs , BID DATA AND AI
176. Consider the following statements. Deep learning is a machine learning technique that
1) Focuses on development and implementation of task-specific algorithms
2) Tries to mimic the workings of a human brain
3) Can be used for Automatic speech recognition and Bioinformatics

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Deep learning is a machine learning technique that teaches computers to do
what comes naturally to humans: learn by example.
It is based on learning data representations, as opposed to task-specific algorithms.
In deep learning, a computer model learns to perform classification tasks directly from images, text, or
sound.
Deep learning models can achieve state-of-the-art accuracy, sometimes exceeding human-level
performance. Models are trained by using a large set of labeled data and neural network architectures that
contain many layers.
Statement 3: Deep learning architectures such as deep neural networks, deep belief networks and recurrent
neural networks have been applied to fields including computer vision, speech recognition, natural
language processing, audio recognition, social network filtering, machine translation, bioinformatics and
drug design, where they have produced results comparable to and in some cases superior to human experts.
For e.g. In medical informatics, deep learning was used to predict sleep quality based on data from
wearables.
Learning: Deep learning is a key technology behind driverless cars, enabling them to recognize a stop
sign, or to distinguish a pedestrian from a lamppost.
It is the key to voice control in consumer devices like phones, tablets, TVs, and hands-free speakers. Deep
learning is getting lots of attention lately and for good reason. It’s achieving results that were not possible
before.
The new exoplanets have been discovered using a deep learning neural network — an artificial
intelligence tool that mimics the workings of a human brain.
177. The technique of Generative Adversarial Network (GAN), recently in news, is presently being
employed to
a) Creating realistic-sounding speech and photorealistic fake imagery
b) Print 3-D metal nano-fibres
c) Clean oil spills by bio-remediation
d) Account for carbon certificates being issued globally
Correct Answer : A
Background: Artificial intelligence is getting very good at identifying things: show it a million pictures,
and it can tell you with uncanny accuracy which ones depict a pedestrian crossing a street.
But AI is hopeless at generating images of pedestrians by itself. If it could do that, it would be able to
create gobs of realistic but synthetic pictures depicting pedestrians in various settings, which a self-driving
car could use to train itself without ever going out on the road.
The problem is, creating something entirely new requires imagination—and until now that has perplexed
AIs.
Learning: The solution first occurred to Ian Goodfellow, then a PhD student at the University of
Montreal, during an academic argument in a bar in 2014.
The approach, known as a generative adversarial network, or GAN, takes two neural networks—the
simplified mathematical models of the human brain that underpin most modern machine learning—and
pits them against each other in a digital cat-and-mouse game.
Both networks are trained on the same data set. One, known as the generator, is tasked with creating
variations on images it’s already seen—perhaps a picture of a pedestrian with an extra arm.
The second, known as the discriminator, is asked to identify whether the example it sees is like the images
it has been trained on or a fake produced by the generator—basically, is that three-armed person likely to
be real?
Over time, the generator can become so good at producing images that the discriminator can’t spot fakes.
Essentially, the generator has been taught to recognize, and then create, realistic-looking images of
pedestrians.
GANs have been put to use creating realistic-sounding speech and photorealistic fake imagery. In one
compelling example, researchers from chipmaker Nvidia primed a GAN with celebrity photographs to
create hundreds of credible faces of people who don’t exist.
178. In the vision of the “Sensing City”, as envisaged by Alphabet’s (Parent Company of Google X)
Sidewalk Labs
1) Sensors will gather data to monitor everything from noise levels to water use in real time in a smart
city to draw meaningful analysis
2) City vehicles are planned to be autonomous and shared allowing companies to build services on top of
such vehicles

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Alphabet’s Sidewalk Labs, based in New York City, is collaborating with the Canadian
government on the high-tech project, slated for Toronto’s industrial waterfront.
Statement 1: “Sensing city” involves integrating a network of digital sensors into the physical
infrastructure of the city as it is rebuilt.
This network can generate data that will benefit not only Christchurch, but also have positive influence
on the future of cities everywhere.
In the vision of the sensing city, sensors will gather data to monitor everything from noise levels to water
use, in real time and at a very granular level.
The resulting data can then be integrated with other key city attributes, like traffic flow, air qualityand
water pollution. A key success factor is that the data must be accessible – in an “open” data store – where
it can be tapped into by city officials and citizens alike.
Statement 2: The plan calls for all vehicles to be autonomous and shared. Robots will roam underground
doing menial chores like delivering the mail. Sidewalk Labs says it will open access to the software and
systems it’s creating so other companies can build services on top of them, much as people build apps for
mobile phones.
Here is a marriage of emerging technology – big data, the Internet of Things, generally affordable sensors
and pervasive connectivity – coming together for the greater good.
179. Big Data Analytics can be used for which of the following applications?
1) Understanding customer preferences
2) Smart city planning
3) Internet Traffic analysis

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Big data analytics is the process of examining large data sets containing a variety of data
types -- i.e., big data -- to uncover hidden patterns, unknown correlations, market trends, customer
preferences and other useful business information.
The analytical findings can lead to more effective marketing, new revenue opportunities, better customer
service, improved operational efficiency, competitive advantages over rival organizations and other
business benefits.
For e.g. Madhya Pradesh recently established India's first Smart Cities Control Centre that would make
use of big data to improve city management, catch traffic offenders, reduce congestion and provide better
civic amenities.
180. Consider the following: The Internet of things (IoT)

1) is a network of physical devices
2) Allows continuous data communication between connected entities
3) Can reduce human intervention in management of complex systems

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: It can include vehicles, and other items embedded with electronics, software,
sensors, actuators, and network connectivity which enable these objects to collect and exchange data.
Statement 2: The IoT allows objects to be sensed or controlled remotely across existing network
infrastructure, creating opportunities for more direct integration of the physical world into computer-based
systems, and resulting in improved efficiency, accuracy and economic benefit in addition to reduced
human intervention.
Statement 3: "Things", in the IoT sense, can refer to a wide variety of devices such as heart monitoring
implants, biochip transponders on farm animals, cameras streaming live feeds of wild
animals in coastal waters, automobiles with built-in sensors which significantly reduced the need for
human intervention
181. Machine-to-machine (M2M) communications will likely to have a bearing on the

development of which of the following in India?
1) Smart electricity grids

2) Smart cities
3) Telecom Industry
4) Health care industry

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
Justification: M2M is the basis for automated information exchange between machines and
can impact various industry verticals like smart city, smart grid, smart water, smart
transportation, smart health etc.
The government has also recognized the potential of M2M and emphasized the same in
National Telecom Policy 2012.
Statement 1: For e.g. in a smart grid, data needs to be communicated not only between power
stations, but also between a home and the power station. M2M will facilitate this.
Statement 2: In a smart city, there are several devices interacting with each other, for e.g. a
wi-fi device communicating with a smart high-speed transportation network to save from
traffic congestions.
Statement 4: In the health sector, when the health of a patient is monitored by several devices,
a comprehensive report on his health can be generated simply by better coordination and
understanding between various machines.
182. Project Brainwave, recently seen in news, concerns with
a) Real-time artificial intelligence (Al)

b) Reversing brain drain from developing countries
c) Understanding the psychological behavioural patterns of human beings on Social Media
d) Indigenizing the process of MRI scan for patients in India
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Microsoft has launched Project Brainwave, a deep learning acceleration platform for real-time Al.
 Its launch is important because the real-time Al has become increasingly important as cloud infrastructures
process live data streams, whether they be videos, sensor streams, search queries or interactions with
users.
 It can process requests as fast as it receives them with the help of ultra-low latency
 It can handle complex, memory-intensive models such as Long ShortTerm Memories (LSTM).
183. Versius, recently seen in news, is
a) A small surgical robot

b) The world’s largest supercomputer
c) NASA’s upcoming mission to Venus
d) Asteroid from Venus that is nearing earth
Correct Answer : A
Learning: In the United Kingdom (UK) scientists have developed the world's smallest surgical
robot called Versius.
It was developed using low-cost technology used in mobile phones and space industries.
The robot can mimic human arm and can be used to carry out a wide range of surgical
procedures. It can be controlled by a surgeon using a console guided by a 3D screen in the
operating theatre.
Versius can make series of small incisions that will circumvent the need for traditional open
surgery.
INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY
184. Consider the following about VoLTE.
1) VoLTE is a technology update to the LTE protocol used by mobile phone networks.
2) VoLTE provides a more efficient use of spectrum than traditional voice and increases handset battery
life.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: VoLTE stands for voice over Long Term Evolution. VoLTE is an Internet Protocol
Multimedia Subsystem (IMS) specification which enables a variety of services to operate seamlessly on
the network rather than having to switch to different applications for voice or video.
VoLTE is a technology update to the LTE protocol used by mobile phone networks. Under LTE, the
infrastructure of telecom players only allows transmission of data while voice calls are routed to
their older 2G or 3G networks.
This is why, under LTE, one cannot access 4G data services while on a call. This leads to problems such
as slow internet speeds and poor voice clarity.
VoLTE allows voice calls to be ‘packaged’ and carried through LTE networks. This would mean 4G data
accessibility even during calls.
Benefits of VoLTE:
VoLTE provides a more efficient use of spectrum than traditional voice and increases handset battery life.
VoLTE ensures that video services are fully interoperable across the operator community, just as voice
services are, as demand for video calls grows
185. Which of these nations have a national cryptocurrency?

1) Venezuela
2) Canada
3) Japan
4) Greece

a) 2 and 4 only
b) 1 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Venezuelan government has launched its own cryptocurrency, called the
“Petro,” which will be backed by the country’s vast natural resource reserves.
The value of the new cryptocurrency will be pegged to the country’s vast reserves of oil and gas as well
as its mineral wealth, including gold.
With the new cryptocurrency, Venezuela hopes it can overcome the economic blockade which the U.S.
has put on the country.
The blockade has caused the country’s national currency, the Bolivar, to lose around 57% of its value in
the last four weeks.
Learning: There are other nations that have plans to launch cryptocurrency. For e.g. Estonia, China,
Singapore and Russia are looking to launch their own cryptocurrency. National digital currencies could
really be a game-changer. It’ll change the basic way we interact with money and with sellers.
It is believed that with time all currencies will be digitized through the blockchain which will completely
disrupt the present financial system.
The main advantage of a national cryptocurrency is that transactions can be made speedily and cheaply,
even across borders, and the central bank would have greater oversight over the financial system.
Moreover, it would fit well with the goal of central banks around the world to replace cash with electronic
payments. Reflecting the innovation's importance China has been researching digital currencies for the
past two years.
186. How are Content delivery networks (CDN), on the internet, useful?
1) They reduce latency and congestion and improve the overall efficiency in the delivery of internet
traffic.
2) They offer a Secure Socket Layer for communication between various parties on the web.
3) They create Virtual Private Networks (VPN) on servers that can be only accessed by a dedicated key.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: CDN is a system of distributed servers (network) that deliver pages and other Web content
to a user, based on the geographic locations of the user, the origin of the webpage and the content delivery
server.
This service is effective in speeding the delivery of content of websites with high traffic and websites that
have global reach. The closer the CDN server is to the user geographically, the faster the content will be
delivered to the user. CDNs also provide protection from large surges in traffic.
Servers nearest to the website visitor respond to the request. The content delivery network copies the
pages of a website to a network of servers that are dispersed at geographically different locations, caching
the contents of the page. This makes the entire process of accessing a website faster.
187. The Internet is expanding everyday necessitating the development of new storage technologies and
scales of data measurement. Among the following, what is the correct ascending order of data size or data
storage?
1) Petabyte< Terabyte < Exabyte < Zettabyte

2) Terabyte < Petabyte < Exabyte < Zettabyte
3) Terabyte < Zettabyte < Exabyte < Petabyte
4) Petabyte< Zettabyte < Terabyte < Exabyte
Correct Answer : B
Learning: To give you an estimate of data storage, as per Youtube stats (in 2012), 1 hour of video was
being uploaded every second, so 2.4 GB of video was being uploaded every second.
This meant that approximately 76 PB of video data is stored in Youtube every year. 5 years have passed
since 2012, and you can imagine the extent of data hosted on Internet of which Youtube is only a small
component
188. What is the difference between the two technologies of Free space optical (FSO) communication and
Visible light communication (VLC)
1) FSOcommunication is not constrained to visible light as in the case of VLC.
2) FSO often uses LEDs rather than laser diodes that are used in VLCs for transmission.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Concept Background:The Radio Frequency (RF) communication suffers from interference and high
latency issues.
Along with this, RF communication requires a separate setup for transmission and reception of RF waves.
Overcoming the above limitations, Visible Light Communication (VLC) is a preferred communication
technique because of its high bandwidth and immunity to interference from electromagnetic sources.
The revolution in the field of solid state lighting leads to the replacement of florescent lamps by Light
Emitting Diodes (LEDs) which further motivates the usage of VLC.
Justification: VLC is a data communications variant which uses visible light between 400 and 800 THz
(780–375 nm). VLC is a subset of optical wireless communications technologies.
The technology uses fluorescent lamps (ordinary lamps, not special communications devices) to transmit
signals at 10 kbit/s, or LEDs for up to 500 Mbit/s.
Specially designed electronic devices generally containing a photodiode receive signals from light
sources. Recently Organic LEDs (OLED) have been used as optical transceivers to build up VLC
communication links up to 10 Mbit/s
Free space optical (FSO) communication is similar to VLC but is not constrained to visible light, so
ultraviolet (UV) and infrared (IR) also fall into the FSO category.
Additionally, there is no illumination requirement for FSO and so this tends to be used in narrow beams
of focussed light for applications such as communication links between buildings. FSO often uses laser
diodes rather than LEDs for the transmission
189. Consider the following statements. RSS (Rich Site Summary)
1) Revoke access to third party content providers and developers on the web
2) Help encrypt sensitive traffic on the web
3) Allow a user to keep track of many different websites in a single news aggregator

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: It is a type of web feed which allows users to access updates to online content in a
standardized, computer-readable format.
These feeds can, for example, allow a user to keep track of many different websites in a single news
aggregator.
The news aggregator will automatically check the RSS feed for new content, allowing the content to be
automatically passed from website to website or from website to user.
This passing of content is called web syndication. Websites usually use RSS feeds to publish frequently
updated information, such as blog entries, news headlines, audio, video.
Subscribing to a website RSS removes the need for the user to manually check the website for new content.
Instead, their browser constantly monitors the site and informs the user of any updates.
The browser can also be commanded to automatically download the new data for the user
190. Consider the following statements regarding Holostore.
1) It is a device that reads and writes data in an optical form.

2) It records data in a linear fashion similar to magnetic forms of storage.
3) Higher data density, albeit with lower access speeds, can be achieved by Holostore compared to
magnetic forms of storage.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Concept:
Holographic data storage is a potential technology in the area of high-capacity data storage currently
dominated by magnetic data storage and conventional optical data storage.
Magnetic and optical data storage devices rely on individual bits being stored as distinct magnetic or
optical changes on the surface of the recording medium.
Justification: Holographic data storage records information throughout the volume of the medium and is
capable of recording multiple images in the same area utilizing light at different angles.
Additionally, whereas magnetic and optical data storage records information a bit at a time in a linear
fashion, holographic storage is capable of recording and reading millions of bits in parallel, enabling data
transfer rates greater than those attained by traditional optical storage
A volume holographic storage (holostore) devive is a page oriented devive that writes and reads data in
an optical form.
The holography technology achieves the necessary high storage densities as well as fast access times.
This capability occurs because a holographic image, or hologram, encodes a large block of data as a single
entity in a single write operation. Conversely, the process of reading a hologram retrieves the entire data
block simultaneously
191. In the context of cyber security, what is a DDoS Attack?
a) Secretly relaying and possibly altering the communication between two parties who believe they are
directly communicating with each other
b) Attempt to obtain sensitive information by disguising as a trustworthy entity in an electronic
communication
c) An attempt to make an online service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic from multiple sources
d) An Attack intended to redirect a website's traffic to another fake site.
Correct Answer : C
The 4 options depict four different types of cyber security threats.

In cryptography and computer security, a man-in-the-middle attack (MITM) is an attack where the
attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communication between two parties who believe they are
directly communicating with each other.
Phishing is the attempt to obtain sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card
details (and money), often for malicious reasons, by disguising as a trustworthy entity in an electronic
communication.
A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is an attack in which multiple compromised computer
systems attack a target, such as a server, website or other network resource, and cause a denial of service
for users of the targeted resource.
The flood of incoming messages, connection requests or malformed packets to the target system forces it
to slow down or even crash and shut down, thereby denying service to legitimate users or systems.
Pharming is a scamming practice in which malicious code is installed on a personal computer or server,
misdirecting users to fraudulent Web sites without their knowledge or consent.
192. Cora, that was recently seen in news is, a
a) Digital human prototype to help customers with banking queries

b) Ancillary branch of Quora that expands on the encyclopaedic content of the website
c) New initiative of Alphabet Inc. to search for extra-terrestrial intelligence
d) Recently launched satellite of Space X that runs entirely on solar energy
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Royal Bank of Scotland (RBS) has recently hired a ‘digital human’ Cora on probation to have
conversations with customers and help them out with banking queries.
The digital teller answers simple questions on getting a mortgage or what to do if a customer loses their
card. The AI-driven personality can answer more than 200 banking queries.
Cora, which is undergoing advanced testing as part of a pilot program at RBS, could even be used to train
members of staff, Hanley said on Wednesday.
The RBS experiment is the latest by an industry trying to adapt to changing customer behavior, rapid
technological change and the threat posed by new entrants.
193. Consider the following about Blockchain technology.
1) It is a centralized ledger that records financial transactions with the use of an intermediary.
2) A blockchain is secure because a user cannot manipulate or modify it without the approval of the
regulating authority.
3) Each block is ‘chained’ to the next block using a cryptographic signature for enhanced security

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Justification: It is the digital and decentralized ledger that records transactions without the need for a
financial intermediary, which in most cases is a bank.
A blockchain is an anonymous online ledger that uses data structure to simplify the way we transact.
Blockchain allows users to manipulate the ledger in a secure way without the help of a third party.
Blockchain enables two entities that do not know each other to agree that something is true without the
need of a third party.
As opposed to writing entries into a single sheet of paper, a blockchain is a distributed database that takes
a number of inputs and places them into a block.
Each block is then ‘chained’ to the next block using a cryptographic signature.
This allows blockchains to be used as a ledger which is accessible by anyone with permission to do so.
If everyone in the process is pre-selected, the ledger is termed ‘permissioned’. If the process is open to
the whole world, the ledger is called unpermissioned
194. What are the qualifying features of a Crypto-currency?

1) It does not have real monetary value in the market.
2) It is not owned or controlled by any institution.
3) It allows transacting parties to remain anonymous.
4) It is a virtually held asset.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: It is a digital currency which allows transacting parties to remain anonymous while
confirming that the transaction is a valid one.
It is not owned or controlled by any institution – governments or private.
There are multiple such currencies — bitcoin, ethereum, ripple.
Currently, they are neither illegal nor legal in India.
We have covered the concept in an earlier test, so this need not be expanded upon further.
With cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin gaining popularity in India, the government may roll out
the country’s very own cryptocurrency – “Lakshmi”.
195. Over the Top Services’, have been seen in news, in the context of
a) Integrity in Public offices

b) Defence modernization
c) Financial security
d) Telecommunications services
Correct Answer : D
Learning: OTT refers to a service that is provided on top of the internet service.
For e.g. you may use the FB Messenger calling feature on an internet network provided by Vodafone.
But, as of now, the ISP Vodafone is not concerned with how you use its internet, even if those calls made
from FB may reduce its potential revenue.
There are proposals to regulate OTTs after the telecom companies lobbied.
TRAI also released a consultation paper in 2015 on OTT regulatory framework. Some sources confirm
that TRAI believes that regulating OTTs is not needed, it has in fact contributed to ISP’s revenues.
196. Instead of storing information in typical ‘bits’ of 1 and 0, a quantum computer, as it exists
theoretically, stores information in
a) DNAs
b) Qubits
c) Tissues
d) Charged particles
Correct Answer : B
Learning: Such a computer is still largely a theoretical entity.

First proposed in the 1970s, quantum computing relies on quantum physics by taking advantage of certain
quantum physics properties of atoms or nuclei that allow them to work together as quantum bits, or qubits,
to be the computer’s processor and memory.
By interacting with each other while being isolated from the external environment, qubits can
perform certain calculations exponentially faster than conventional computers.
It employs the principles of quantum mechanics to store information in ‘qubits’ instead of the typical
‘bits’ of 1 and 0
197. In the context of cyber security, what does the term “encryption” mean?
1) It is the practice of serving selected content to various user geographical locations
2) It is a process of encoding messages or information in such a way that only authorized parties can read
it.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Encryption is the process of encoding messages or information in such a way that only
authorized parties can read it.
For example: word "ABC" can become "BCD" in encrypted form, if every letter is replaced by next
alphabet. Those who know how it is encoded can only able to read "ABC" correctly.
All messaging services like WhatsApp, Viber, Google Chat, Yahoo messenger use encrypted services.
Banks (payment gateways) and e-commerce sites also use encryption to protect financial and private data
including passwords.
198. The Quantum communication system, in news recently, is considered to be extremely secure
because
1) Quantum information carried by particles such as photons cannot be replicated exactly by a hacker.
2) Quantum information cannot be relayed over fibre optics making it imperceptible to third-party hackers

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Information can be transmitted using either the principles of classical physics and quantum
physics. The two follow different principles.
For e.g. information obeying the laws of classical physics, such as a A4 sheet with text or a telephone
signal, can be easily hacked in because it is so easy to copy that data by a third-party receiver.
But, quantum data follows the no-cloning theorem, i.e. the data cannot be exactly copied, and also the
data cannot be fully destroyed.
The Quantum communication system is based on quantum cryptography. To break down the terms;
cryptography concerns secure transmission; and Quantum uses the principles of quantum physics to
transmit data.
It has been called a potential game-changer during a time when cybersecurity and privacy have become a
constant concern for individuals, companies and governments.
The newly launched Beijing-Shanghai quantum link connects Beijing to Jinan to Hefei to Shanghai, a
distance of more than 1,200 miles. Several major Chinese banks are already using the link to transfer their
most sensitive data.
199. Ubiquitous computing is an emerging domain referring to
a) Decentralization of computing power to smaller and smaller machines

b) Trend towards embedding microprocessors in everyday objects so they can communicate information
c) Low cost supercomputing powers
d) Bridging the digital divide between rural and urban regions
Correct Answer : B
Learning: It is the growing trend towards embedding microprocessors in everyday objects so they can
communicate information.
The words pervasive and ubiquitous mean "existing everywhere." Pervasive computing devices are
completely connected and constantly available.
Pervasive computing relies on the convergence of wireless technologies, advanced electronics and the
Internet.
The image below will clear its meaning
200. GravityRAT, recently in news, is a
a) Bio-molecular cloning system

b) Program capable of being controlled remotely
c) Vegetative reproduction technique
d) Nano-capsule that can deliver drugs in human beings
Correct Answer : B
Learning: It is a malware allegedly designed by Pakistani hackers. The RAT was first detected by Indian
Computer Emergency Response Team, CERT-In, on various computers in 2017.
It is designed to infliltrate computers and steal the data of users, and relay the stolen data to Command
and Control centres in other countries.
The ‘RAT’ in its name stands for Remote Access Trojan, which is a program capable of being controlled
remotely and thus difficult to trace.
It has recently been updated further and equipped with anti-malware evasion capabilities. The latest
update to the program by its developers is part of GravityRAT’s function as an Advanced Persistent Threat
(APT), which, once it infiltrates a system, silently evolves and does long-term damage.
201. zk-SNARKs is an emerging technology that helps protect

a) Internet privacy
b) Gene degradation
c) Sunburn in Astronomers
d) Wildlife Corridors
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The tool is an emerging cryptographic protocol called a zero-knowledge proof.

This new tool can—for instance—let you prove you’re over 18 without revealing your date of birth, or
prove you have enough money in the bank for a financial transaction without revealing your balance or
other details. That limits the risk of a privacy breach or identity theft.
Much of the credit for a practical zero-knowledge proof goes to Zcash, a digital currency that launched in
late 2016. Zcash’s developers used a method called a zk-SNARK (for “zero- knowledge succinct non-
interactive argument of knowledge”) to give users the power to transact anonymously.
That’s not normally possible in Bitcoin and most other public blockchain systems, in which transactions
are visible to everyone. Though these transactions are theoretically anonymous, they can be combined
with other data to track and even identify users.
For banks, this could be a way to use blockchains in payment systems without sacrificing their clients’
privacy. Last year, JPMorgan Chase added zk-SNARKs to its own blockchain-based payment system.
Limitations: For all their promise, though, zk-SNARKs are computation-heavy and slow. They also
require a so-called “trusted setup,” creating a cryptographic key that could compromise the whole system
if it fell into the wrong hands. But researchers are looking at alternatives that deploy zero- knowledge
proofs more efficiently and don’t require such a key.
202. Internet Protocol television (IPTV) is the process of transmitting and broadcasting television
programs through the Internet using Internet Protocol (IP). Consider the following statements
about it.
1) Usually, IPTV sends only the program requested by the viewer.

2) Providers of IPTV allow users to watch recorded shows without Digital Video Recorder (DVR)
Device
The biggest limitation is that IPTV does not allow users to watch live transmissions due to large latency.

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: A simpler definition of IPTV would be, television content that, instead of being delivered
through traditional format and cabling, is received by the viewer through the technologies used for
computer network. In case of IPTV, it requires either a computer and software media player or an IPTV
set top box to decode the images in real time.
Statement 1: A series of IP packets encoded for the delivery of video streaming is broadcast in IPTV.
In general, IPTV sends only the program requested by the viewer. A new stream is transmitted to the
viewer when the channel is changed. Traditional TV, however, broadcasts all the channels simultaneously.
Statement 2 and 3: IPTV gives dynamic features to the user to improve the user experience compared to
a traditional television transmission such as radio frequency broadcast, satellite broadcast and/or cable
television.
IPTV services have three main features:
VOD: Video on demand (VOD) is an option available to the users of IPTV. Each user is given the option
to choose from a catalog of videos and watch them as many times as required. This feature uses unicast
transmission, whereas normal TV broadcasts use multicast transmission. Real Time Streaming Protocol
is used for VOD.
DVR: Providers of IPTV allow users to watch recorded shows without DVR devices. There is a live DVR
system at the provider’s end, making DVR more cost effective and efficient.
Users can watch replays or start a TV program over from an interactive menu.
Live Television: IPTV allows users to watch live transmissions with minimal latency. It provides live
television broadcasts either with or without interactivity, without being just like traditional TV broadcasts.
The protocol used for live television is Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) version . The biggest
limitation is that IPTV broadcasts require a certain amount of consistent bandwidth for data to be streamed
in order to deliver right number of moving pictures frames. So for providers with high IPTV customer
base, customer could experience packets loss and delays in transmission.
203. Internet Domain Name System (DNS) is managed by
a) National governments
b) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN)
c) UN Commission on Internet Governance
d) All of the above jointly manage it
Correct Answer : B
Justification: To reach another person on the Internet you have to type an address into your computer -
a name or a number. That address has to be unique so computers know where to find each other.
ICANN coordinates these unique identifiers across the world. Without that coordination we wouldn't have
one global Internet.
Learning: ICANN was formed in 1998. It is a not-for-profit partnership of people from all over the world
dedicated to keeping the Internet secure, stable and interoperable. It promotes competition and develops
policy on the Internet’s unique identifiers.
ICANN doesn’t control content on the Internet. It cannot stop spam and it doesn’t deal with access to the
Internet.
But through its coordination role of the Internet’s naming system, it does have an important impact on the
expansion and evolution of the Internet.
204. Cryptography is related to the practice of techniques for
a) Secure communication in the presence of third parties

b) Connecting local network with major networks
c) Dealing with e-wastes
d) Mobile-governance that has the potential to transform government communication
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Cryptography is about constructing and analyzing protocols that prevent third parties or the
public from reading private messages.
Various aspects in information security such as data confidentiality, data integrity, authentication, and
non-repudiation are central to modern cryptography.
Modern cryptography exists at the intersection of the disciplines of mathematics, computer science, and
electrical engineering. Applications of cryptography include ATM cards, computer passwords, and
electronic commerce.
205. The Union Government is developing a National Data Registry (NDR) to compile and serve
metadata of different agencies and re-engineer the feature data sets for improving their use.
Which of these will act as the nodal coordinating agency for this programme?
a) Department of Science and Technology (DST)

b) NITI Aayog
c) Unique Identity Development Authority of India (UIDAI)
d) National Information Centre (NIC)
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The registry will serve as a source of authenticated information.

NDR will require all agencies state, private and academic, collecting and storing geospatial
data to provide details of data they store.
The registry aims to create a catalogue that will prevent duplication of data sets and to help
users locate the right agencies to source information.
It will be a ‘meta-data’ repository to only inform about the nature of the data a service provider
has. It is not actually a source of geospatial data.
It can operate across a wide range of formats and can source information automatically.
Thus, Survey of India can vet it for accuracy and see whether it contains information that
contravenes national security.
206. Blockchain is an emerging technology. Consider the following about it.

1) It is an anonymous online ledger using a distributed database.
2) It allows users to manipulate data entries in a secure way without the help of a third
party.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Blockchain enables two entities that do not know each other to
agree that something is true without the need of a third party.
As opposed to writing entries into a single sheet of paper, a blockchain is a distributed

database that takes a number of inputs and places them into a block.
Each block is then ‘chained’ to the next block.

This allows blockchains to be used as a ledger which is accessible by anyone with
permission
to do so.
Statement 2: The algorithm used in blockchain reduces the dependence on people (or third
party) to verify the transactions.
For example, Honduras government has put all land records on a public ledger – the
blockchain. The minute there is a change in ownership, it gets recorded publicly.
Blockchain is the technology behind crypto-currency such as Bitcoin, which is a purely

electronic currency that can also be traded on exchanges.
207. Petya’ recently seen in news was a/an
a) Laser beaming innovation

b) Form of cyber-attack
c) Alternate to fossil fuels
d) Emergency helpline launched by PETA
Correct Answer : B
Learning: It is a ransomware, similar to the Wannacry ransomware.
In India, this ransomware crippled the operations at one of the terminals of the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust and
impacted the external trade by affecting the systems dealing with the cargo and ships.
Ransomware is a type of malicious software that threatens to publish the victim's data or perpetually block access
to it unless a ransom is paid.
208. Global Conference on Cyber Space (GCCS) is the world’s largest conference on cyber space and
related issues. What is special about the 2017 edition of GCCS?
1) The conference is being hosted by India.
2) This is the first time a GCCS conference is hosted outside OECD nations.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: The GCCS is a prestigious international conference that aims at encouraging dialogue
among stakeholders of cyberspace, including governments and private sector, incepted in 2011 in
London.
It discusses norms for responsible behaviour in cyberspace and to enhance cyber capacity building.
The theme for the GCCS 2017 is ‘Cyber4All: An Inclusive, Sustainable, Developmental, Safe and
Secure Cyberspace‘.
India will host GCCS 2017. The cyber security will be one of the major focus areas in GCCS 2017.
209. ‘SCORM’ was recently in news in the context of
a) E-learning technical standards

b) Recording information on DNA
c) Hybrid crop technology
d) Inter-operable airline standards
Correct Answer : A
Learning: SCORM is a set of technical standards for e-learning software products.
SCORM tells programmers how to write their code so that it can “play well” with other e- learning
software.
It is the de facto industry standard for e-learning interoperability.

Specifically, SCORM governs how online learning content and Learning Management Systems
(LMSs) communicate with each other (for e.g. similar standards for DVD players across countries).
SCORM does not speak to instructional design or any other pedagogical concern — it is purely a
technical standard.
SPACE
210. Which of the following are termed as the “Dirty snowballs of space”?
a) Exoplanets
b) Meteorites
c) Comets
d) Asteroids
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Comets are cosmic snowballs of frozen gases, rock and dust roughly the size of a small town.
These icy objects, occasionally pushed by gravity into orbits bringing them closer to the sun, become the
so-called short-period comets.
When a comet's orbit brings it close to the sun, it heats up and spews dust and gases into a giant glowing
head larger than most planets.
The sun's heat causes the comet's ices to change to gases so the coma gets larger. The coma may extend
hundreds of thousands of kilometers.
The pressure of sunlight and high-speed solar particles (solar wind) can blow the coma dust and gas away
from the sun, sometimes forming a long, bright tail. Comets actually have two tails - a dust tail and an ion
(gas) tail.
211. The discovery of water has been confirmed on which of the following planets of the solar system?
a) Saturn
b) Venus
c) Mars
d) Jupiter
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Water on Mars exists today almost exclusively as ice, with a small amount present in the
atmosphere as vapour.
Some liquid water may occur transiently on the Martian surface today but only under certain conditions.
No large standing bodies of liquid water exist because the atmospheric pressure which is only about 0.6%
of Earth's mean sea level pressure—and because the global average temperature on Mars is far too
low.
Learning: Also, Scientists' consensus is that a layer of liquid water exists beneath Europa's (moon of
Jupiter) surface.
Enceladus, a moon of Saturn, has shown geysers of water, confirmed by the Cassini spacecraft.
The most conclusive method for detection and confirmation of extraterrestrial liquid water is currently
absorption spectroscopy. Liquid water has a distinct spectral signature to other states of water due to the
state of its hydrogen bonds.
212. Consider the following about White Dwarfs.

1) They are the lightest forms of matter.
2) They can give an idea about the age of the Universe.
3) White dwarfs are the end product of black holes.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Justification: White dwarfs are one of the densest forms of matter, surpassed only by neutron stars and
black holes. So, 1 is wrong.
A low or medium mass star (with mass less than about 8 times the mass of our Sun) will become a white
dwarf. Stars that have a lot of mass may end their lives as black holes or neutron stars. So, 3 is wrong.
White dwarfs can tell us about the age of the Universe. If we can estimate the time it takes for a white
dwarf to cool into a black dwarf, that would give us a lower limit on the age of the Universe and our
galaxy. So, 2 is correct.
213. What is/are the benefit(s) of keeping a satellite at a Lagrange point in space?
1) The point provides additional gravitational acceleration to the satellite reducing power consumption in
movement.
2) The point is shielded from cosmic rays and thus useful for making astronomically correct observations.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: It is a location in space where the combined gravitational forces of two large bodies, such
as Earth and the sun or Earth and the moon, equal the centrifugal force felt by a much smaller third body.
So, here the combined gravitational pull of two large masses roughly balance each other. Any small mass
placed at that location will remains at constant distances relative to the large masses.
The interaction of the forces creates a point of equilibrium where a spacecraft may be "parked" to make
observations.
There are five such points in Sun-Earth system and they are denoted as L1, L2, L3, L4 and L5. A halo
orbit is a periodic three-dimensional orbit near the L1, L2 or L3.
Learning: Aditya- L1 mission is India’s first solar mission. It will study the sun’s outer most layers, the
corona and the chromospheres and collect data about coronal mass ejection, which will also yield
information for space weather prediction.
In order to get the best science from the sun, continuous viewing of the sun is preferred without any
occultation/ eclipses and hence, Aditya- L1 satellite will be placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian
point 1 (L1) of the sun-earth system.
The data from Aditya mission will be immensely helpful in discriminating between different models for
the origin of solar storms and also for constraining how the storms evolve and what path they take through
the interplanetary space from the Sun to the Earth.
214. The Kuiper Belt is a
a) doughnut-shaped ring of icy objects around the Sunextending just beyond the orbit of Neptune
b) Extrapolation of the Van Allen Radiation Belt containing the largest number of asteroids in the solar
system
c) Hemispherical region between Earth and Venus where the NASA has been sending a large number of
interplanetary missions
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Beyond the gas giant Neptune lies a region of space filled with icy bodies. Known as
the Kuiper Belt, this chilly expanse holds trillions of objects, remnants of the early solar system.
Short-period comets (which take less than 200 years to orbit the Sun) originate in the Kuiper Belt.
The first mission to explore the Kuiper Belt is New Horizons. It flew past Pluto in 2015 and is on its way
to explore another Kuiper Belt world.
215. During the recent phenomenon of ‘Super Blue Blood Moon’
1) Moon was closer to the Earth than normal.

2) Sun was closest to the Earth and the Moon.
3) Earth, Sun and Moon aligned in a straight line.

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: A ‘Super Moon’ is simply a moon that is closer to the Earth than normal. As a result, it
appears bigger and brighter in the sky.
A ‘Blue Moon’ means the second full moon in a calendar month.
A ‘Blood Moon’ happens when sunlight passes through the atmosphere above the Earth, casting a dark
colour across the surface of the moon.
For e.g. the January 31 full moon. It was also special for several reasons: one, it’s the third in a series of
“supermoons,” when the Moon is closer to Earth in its orbit -- known as perigee -- and about 14 percent
brighter than usual.
Two, it’s also the second full moon of the month, commonly known as a “blue moon.”
And, three, the super blue moon will pass through Earth’s shadow to give viewers in the right location a
total lunar eclipse. While the Moon is in the Earth’s shadow it will take on a reddish tint, known as a
“blood moon.”
216. NEOShield, sometimes seen in news, protects the Earth against
a) Objects like Asteriods and Comets

b) Cosmic rays
c) Van Allen Radiation
d) Breakdown of Ozone
Correct Answer : A
Background: A near-Earth object (NEO) is any small solar system body whose orbit brings it into
proximity with Earth.
NEOs include more than fifteen thousand near-Earth asteroids (NEAs) and more than one hundred near-
Earth comets (NECs).
Learning: NEOShield has the primary goal to perform Scientific Research and Technical Development,
so as to reduce the risk of a NEO deflection mission from failing.
The second NEOShield focuses on refining Near NEO characterisation. NEOShield-2 will carry out
astronomical observations of NEOs, firstly to improve our understanding of their physical properties,
concentrating on the smaller sizes of most concern for mitigation purposes, and secondly to identify
further objects suitable for missions for physical characterisation and NEO deflection demonstration.
217. SPARCS, recently seen in news, will look for
1) Habitability of celestial bodies

2) Obtrusion of gravitation waves by asteroids
3) Movement of dark matter nearby earth’s orbit

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Background: Astronomers have discovered that essentially every M dwarf star has at least one planet
orbiting it, and about one system in four has a rocky planet located in the star’s habitable zone. This is the
potentially life-friendly region where temperatures are neither too hot nor too cold for life as we know it,
and liquid water could exist on the planet’s surface.
Since M dwarfs are so plentiful, astronomers estimate that our galaxy alone contains roughly 40 billion
rocky planets in habitable zones around their stars. This means that most of the habitable- zone planets in
our galaxy orbit M dwarfs.
Justification: Scientists are planning to launch a small telescope into the Earth’s orbit that will monitor
the flares and sunspots of small stars to assess how habitable the environment is for planets orbiting them.
The spacecraft is known as the Star-Planet Activity Research CubeSat, or SPARCS.
SPARCS is a new NASA-funded space telescope and will be launched in 2021.
The stars that SPARCS will focus on are small, dim, and cool by comparison to the Sun. Having less than
half the Sun’s size and temperature, they shine with barely one per cent its brightness.
The heart of the SPARCS spacecraft will be a telescope with a diameter of nine centimetres plus a camera
with two ultraviolet-sensitive detectors to be developed by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory.
Both the telescope and camera will be optimised for observations using ultraviolet light, which strongly
affects the planet’s atmosphere and its potential to harbour life on the surface
218. Consider the following statements. Exoplanets
1) Usually orbit the Sun at slower speeds than the planets in the solar system
2) Generally share similar size and geographical characteristics as that of the Earth’s moon

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: It is a planet that does not orbit Sun and instead orbits different star, stellar remnant, or
brown dwarf. It is also termed as extrasolar planet.
The first such planet orbiting star similar to our own Sun was detected only in 1995. Today some 3,600
exoplanets have been found, ranging from rocky Earth-sized planets to large gas giants like Jupiter
Image: Size comparison of Jupiter and the exoplanet TrES-3b. TrES-3b has an orbital period of only 31
hours and is classified as a Hot Jupiter for being large and close to its star, making it one of the easiest
planets to detect by the transit method.
Learning: The discovery of exoplanets has intensified interest in the search for extraterrestrial life.
There is special interest in planets that orbit in a star's habitable zone, where it is possible for liquid water,
a prerequisite for life on Earth, to exist on the surface.
Besides exoplanets, there are also rogue planets, which do not orbit any star and which tend to be
considered separately, especially if they are gas giants
219. What is/are the benefit(s) of studying neutrinos?

1) They are the least numerous of all fundamental particles and thus provide insights on the nature of
undiscovered interstellar medium.
2) They are massless and chargeless particles and thus help to understand the effects that cannot be
explained by the use of electromagnetic force.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Concept: A neutrino is a subatomic particle that is very similar to an electron, but has no electrical charge
and a very small mass, which might even be zero. Neutrinos are one of the most abundant particles in the
universe.
Because they have very little interaction with matter, however, they are incredibly difficult to detect.
Nuclear forces treat electrons and neutrinos identically; neither participate in the strong nuclear force, but
both participate equally in the weak nuclear force. Typically, a low-energy neutrino will travel through
many light-years of normal matter before interacting with anything.
Learning: So, even a tiny mass for the neutrinos can enable them to have an effect on the evolution of
the Universe through their gravitational effects.
There are other recent astrophysical measurements that provide information on the evolution of the
Universe and it is crucial to seek complementary information by direct determinations of the masses of
neutrinos and their other properties.
In a sense, neutrinos hold the key to several important and fundamental questions on the origin of the
Universe and the energy production in stars. We have some partial answers but many details are still
awaited from future experiments.
Yet another important possible application of neutrinos is in the area of neutrino tomograph of the earth,
that is detailed investigation of the structure of the Earth from core on wards. This is possible with
neutrinos since they are the only particles which can probe the deep interiors of the Earth
220. Gravitational lensing is based on the principle that

1) Mass bends light.
2) Gravitational waves exist.
3) Dark matter does not allow light to escape through it.

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Concept and Justification: Normal lenses such as the ones in a magnifying glass or a pair of spectacles
work by bending light rays that pass through them in a process known as refraction, in order to focus the
light somewhere (such as in your eye).
When astronomers refer to lensing, they are talking about an effect called gravitational lensing.
Gravitational lensing works in an analogous way and is an effect of Einstein's theory of general relativity
– simply put, mass bends light.
The gravitational field of a massive object will extend far into space, and cause light rays passing close to
that object (and thus through its gravitational field) to be bent and refocused somewhere else.
The more massive the object, the stronger its gravitational field and hence the greater the bending of light
rays - just like using denser materials to make optical lenses results in a greater amount of refraction.
Application: This makes dim, faraway objects that otherwise would be undetectable, like an individual
star, visible.
For e.g. NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope has discovered the farthest individual star ever seen — an
enormous blue stellar body nicknamed Icarus located over halfway across the universe.

1) A Supernova helps us know about the Universe since they are the longest existing phenomenon in space.
2) Pulsars are de-magnetized neutron stars that neither rotate nor emit electromagnetic radiation.
3) Black hole refers to the remains of a supergiant star that has collapsed into itself.
4) The effects of microgravity can be seen when astronauts and objects float in space.

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Background: China has launched its first X-ray space telescope to study black holes, pulsars and gamma-ray
bursts.
Justification: Statement 1: A supernova happens where there is a change in the core, or centre, of a star.
A supernova burns for only a short period of time, but it can tell scientists a lot about the universe. One kind of
supernova has shown scientists that we live in an expanding universe, one that is growing at an ever increasing
rate.
Statement 2: Pulsars are highly magnetized, rotating neutron stars that emit a beam of electromagnetic radiation.
They are spherical, compact objects that are about the size of a large city but contain more mass than that of the
sun.
Scientists are using pulsars to study extreme states of matter, search for planets beyond Earth’s solar system and
measure cosmic distance.
Statement 3: A black hole cannot be seen because of the strong gravity that is pulling all of the light into the black
hole's centre. However, scientists can see the effects of its strong gravity on the stars and gases around it. If a star
is orbiting a certain point in space, scientists can study the star's motion to find out if it is orbiting a black hole.
Statement 4: Microgravity is the condition in which people or objects appear to be weightless. This occurs when
gravitation force around is weak (but not zero) or when objects are in a state of free fall (as in a satellite).
For example, astronauts can move equipment weighing hundreds of pounds with their fingertips due to
microgravity.
SPACE TECHNOLOGY
222. Consider the following about Very High Resolution (VHR) Satellite Imagery.
1) It offers sub-centimetre resolution.
2) Any type of vehicles on road can be identified using VHR imagery.
3) Structural changes of landscapes can be easily monitored with this imagery.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Justification: It offers sub-meter resolution – one of the highest image qualities currently available from
commercial remote sensing satellites.
Sub-meter (VHR) resolution satellites offer users a smaller ground sampling distance (GSD)
than other imaging satellites, making them more suitable for reliable natural or man-made, objects and
landscapes observation, site monitoring, object identification and many other tasks requiring precision
data.
Among its many advantages, VHR images enable the identification of specific models of vehicles, vessels
and airplanes, as well as the monitoring of structural changes, natural disasters, industrial operations and
livestock. This versatility makes EROS imagery a powerful resource for both civilian and military needs.
This versatility makes VHR imagery a powerful resource to Government officials, which can be integrated
for variety of activities.
Recently Forest Survey of India (FSI) acquired VHR data from SkyMap Global through NRSC for forest
areas of Karnataka and Maharashtra.
An application has developed which allow users to visualize VHR images and other datasets
223. A ramjet engine is a more efficient propulsion system for flight within the atmosphere than a
rocket propulsion system because
1) A ramjet engine does not require oxygen for its operation unlike rocket engines
2) A ramjet engine does not use thrust for forward movement unlike any traditional rocket engine

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Thrust is the force which moves any aircraft through the air. Thrust is generated by the
propulsion system of the aircraft. Different propulsion systems develop thrust in different ways, but all
thrust is generated through some application of Newton's third law of motion.
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. In any propulsion system, a working fluid is
accelerated by the system and the reaction to this acceleration produces a force on the system.
The combustion that produces thrust in the ramjet occurs at a subsonic speed in the combustor.
In both propulsion systems of ramjets and rockets, a rocket is used to bring the ramjet up to speed before
it produces thrust. Because the ramjet uses external air for combustion, it is a more efficient propulsion
system for flight within the atmosphere than a rocket, which must carry all of its oxygen.
Aakash missile is powered by Ramjet-rocket propulsion system (RRPS) which renders thrust for the
missile to intercept the target at supersonic speed without any retardation. A ramjet engine is most suitable
for high speed flights within the atmosphere.
224. Indian National Satellite System (INSAT)

1) is useful in Meteorology because it helps access real time weather data
2) can be used for Search and rescue services as it provides location information of the distress signals
transmitted by devices

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: The services of both INSAT and IRS are being taken by the IMD for
meterological purposes.
For e.g. KALPANA-1 carries a Very High Resolution Radiometer (VHRR) capable of imaging the Earth
in the visible, thermal infrared and water vapor bands.
Statement 2: INSAT helps provides location information of the distress signals transmitted by beacons
mounted on board ships, aircraft or those carried by individuals.
The location information is determined instantaneously and informed to rescue coordination centres for
carrying out search and rescue operations of the affected ship, aircraft or individuals.
Transponders carried on the satellites of INSAT enable telecommunication and broadcasting
225. Consider the following statements. The Group on Earth Observations (GEO)
1) is an intergovernmental organization
2) is funded largely by the UNEP and partly by voluntary contributions
3) aims to construct a global public infrastructure for Earth observations

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Background: GEO is a unique global network connecting government institutions, academic and
research institutions, data providers, businesses, engineers, scientists and experts etc. to create innovative
solutions to global challenges at a time of exponential data growth, human development and climate
change that transcend national and disciplinary boundaries.
The unprecedented global collaboration of experts helps identify gaps and reduce duplication in the areas
of sustainable development and sound environmental management.
Justification: GEO was established in 2005 as an intergovernmental mechanism for coordinating all
existing and future Earth observations systems and implementing a “Global Earth Observation System of
Systems” (GEOSS).
It is working to improve the availability, access and use of Earth observations.
It was launched in response to calls from the WSSD, the G8 and three ministerial Earth Observation
Summits to improve existing Earth observation systems.
GEO now boasts over 1oo member countries and 45 participating organizations. It is constructing GEOSS
on the basis of a 10-Year Implementation Plan that runs from 2005 to 2015. It is funded by voluntary
contributions.
It aims to construct a global public infrastructure for Earth observations consisting in a flexible and
distributed network of systems and content providers.
Ministers of the GEO member governments meet periodically to provide the political mandate and overall
strategic direction for GEO.
226. Consider the following matches of global navigation satellite systems with the country/body that
introduced them.
1) GPS: USA
2) Glonass: Japan
3) Galileo: European Union
4) QZSS: Russia
5) BeiDou: China

a) 1, 3 and 5 only
b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 2, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: The BeiDou Navigation Satellite System is a Chinese satellite navigation system. BeiDou
has been described as a potential navigation satellite system to overtake GPS in global usage, and is
expected to be more accurate than the GPS once it is fully completed.
The current third generation of BeiDou claims to reach millimeter-level accuracy (with post- processing),
which is ten times more accurate than the finest level of GPS.
List of Global Navigation Satellite Systems:
GPS of the United States of America.
Galileo of the European Union.
IRNSS or NAVIC of India
Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) of Japan.
IRNSS or NAVIC of India.
227. What is/are the benefits of Geotagging?

1) It helps users conceal their location and ensures their privacy.
2) It does not require the use of navigation satellites making it highly secure.
3) It can be used to feed data in a Geographical Information System to improve it.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: It is the process of adding geographical identification metadata to various

media such as a geotagged photograph or video various media such as video, websites, SMS messages
etc and is a form of geospatial metadata.
This data usually consists of latitude and longitude coordinates, though they can also include altitude,
bearing, distance, accuracy data, and place names, and perhaps a time stamp.
So statement 1 is clearly wrong.
Statement 2: The geographical location data used in geotagging will, in almost every case, be derived
from the global positioning system
Statement 3: Geotagging can help users find a wide variety of location-specific information from a device.
For instance, someone can find images taken near a given location by entering latitude and longitude
coordinates into a suitable image search engine. This also improves GIS based systems.
Geotagging has become a popular feature on several social media platforms, such as Facebook and
Instagram.
Facebook users can geotag photos that can be added to the page of the location they are tagging.
228. Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket.
Assertion (A): A jet airplane cannot function outside the atmosphere, but a rocket can. Reason (R): A
rocket carries its own fuel and oxygen.
Correct Answer : A
Justification: A rocket carries both fuel (which may be solid or liquid) and oxygen in contrast to a jet
engine.
Therefore it does not suck in air from the front. It burns the fuel with the oxygen, and eject it at very high
velocities backward. This momentum is used to both lift and propel the rocket. There are no wings for
uplift. Any wings are for steering purposes.
A rocket is generally much more powerful and wasteful than a jet engine. Most airplanes cannot possibly
climb vertically, while rockets are designed to do that. A jet airplane cannot function outside the
atmosphere, but a rocket can since it carries its own fuel and oxygen.
229. NASA has successfully conducted Advanced Supersonic Parachute Inflation Research Experiment
(ASPIRE) to test supersonic parachute that will help its
1) Space exploration missions to land on Mars
2) Arctic observatory to ensure year round supplies
3) Remote Internet Penetration Programme (RIPP)

a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: The test of ASPIRE was meant to mimic conditions that spacecraft will experience during
red planet entry, descent and landing (EDL). Shortly after liftoff, ASPIRE splashed down into Atlantic
Ocean, from where it was retrieved by boat.
Analysis of recovered parachute, and data gathered by cameras and other instruments will help
researcher’s complete design of the chute for NASA’s 2020 Mars rover.
NASA’s ambitious Mars rover mission is set to launch in 2020 to deploy six-wheeled vehicle on martian
surface to study rocks on site and cache samples for eventual return to Earth.
It will rely on special parachute to slow spacecraft down when it is entering Martian atmosphere at over
speed of 12,000 mph (5.4 kilometers per second). The six-wheeled rover body is based heavily on NASA’s
earlier Curiosity Mars rover
230. Consider the following about LIGO.

1) It is world's largest gravitational wave observatory.
2) It comprises of two enormous laser interferometers located thousands of kilometers apart.
3) LIGO cannot see electromagnetic radiation.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: A cutting edge physics experiment, it is unlike a round normal-
looking observatory. It is L-shaped and comprised of two enormous laser interferometers located
thousands of kilometers apart.
Statement 3: LIGO exploits the physical properties of light and of space itself to detect and understand
the origins of gravitational waves.
But, unlike optical or radio telescopes, LIGO cannot see electromagnetic radiation (e.g., visible light,
radio waves, microwaves) nor does it have to because gravitational waves are not part of the
electromagnetic spectrum.
In fact, electromagnetic radiation from space is so unimportant to LIGO that it is completely isolated and
sheltered from the outside world.
Learning: Gravitational waves can be explained as ripples in the fabric of space-time which can only be
caused by massive astronomical events such as neutron stars or black holes orbiting each other so that
these waves would finally radiate from them.
231. Geospatial technology is being used by the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) to support
National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) in which of the following ways?
1) Water quality monitoring
2) Urban sprawl change mapping
3) Non-point source pollution assessment
4) Comprehensive basin planning

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 3: Non-point pollution means that pollution is not being generated from a single
point and the pollutants are dispersed location-wise. In such a case, it is difficult to estimate pollution load
by conventional means. Geospatial data shows a map of all such non-point sources.
Learning: NRSC is a part of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
Some of the tasks enlisted by NRSC as part of support to NMCG are generation of comprehensive GIS
database, water quality assessment using satellite data of main Ganga from Kannauj to Varanasi, real time
water quality data visualization.
It also includes high quality multispectral satellite image, aerial topographical survey, urban sprawl
change mapping, non-point source pollution assessment etc.
A holistic approach is being adopted by NMCG to keep river Ganga clean by identifying five km. stretches
from the edge of the bank/flood plain to the nearest main road for a comprehensive planning approach.
232. Brane Craft, recently seen in news, is a
a) Ultra-thin spacecraft that can remove space debris

b) Solar-powered spacecraft that can intelligently communicate with satellites
c) SpaceX initiative to create a neurological network of satellites to enable M2M communication
d) NASA Rover looking for possibilities of water on the satellites of Jupiter
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The Brane Craft, being developed by US-based Aerospace Corporation, is a flexible and less
than half the thickness of a human hair.
It can remove space debris – which potentially threaten satellites or astronauts – by enveloping junk in
the Earth’s orbit and dragging it through the atmosphere, causing it to burn up.
The spacecraft is designed to be resilient. Its microprocessor and digital electronics are fabricated in a
way to ensure that if one component gets damaged, the others will continue to work.
233. Which of these satellites will be helpful in disaster management?

1) Navigation satellites
2) Communication satellites
3) Earth observation satellites

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: These satellites help track subjects and their locations or even track incoming
hazards.
Statement 3: One of the elements on which the space based Disaster Management Support (DMS) systems
have been built is emergency communications systems. The DMS programme of ISRO/DOS, a
convergence of space communications and remote sensing capabilities, is an effort to have technologically
robust and a compatible system, which could strengthen India’s resolves towards disaster management.
Remote sensing is particularly is useful in hazard mapping and early warning.
Statement 2: For e.g. the INSAT satellite system is one of the largest domestic communication satellite
systems providing regular services in the areas of telecommunications, business & personal
communication, broadcasting, and weather forecasting & meteorological services. Today, newer
initiatives have been taken to expand the INSAT applications to newer areas like Tele-education, Tele-
medicine, Village Resource Centre (VRC), Disaster Management Support (DMS) etc.,
234. If not wearing a special protective suit, you would start bleeding on moon. This is because of
a) Zero air pressure at moon

b) Extreme heat on the surface of moon
c) Low gravity
d) Radiation coming from the moon
Correct Answer : A
Explanation: The air pressure is zero at Moon. If astronauts did not wear these space suits, the counter
pressure exerted by the body of the astronauts would make the blood vessels burst. The astronauts would
bleed.
Option (c) is incorrect as the air in the suit will not protect them against the effects of gravity. The
astronauts can float even after wearing protective suits.
Moon’s surface does not emit any harmful radiation as such. So, option (d) is wrong.
235. With reference to the Digital Elevation Model (DEM) technology, consider the following
statements.
1) DEM is a 2D representation of a terrain's surface created from a terrain's elevation data.
2) Owing to technological constraints, it is not possible to prepare DEM by remote sensing; map- makers
often use LIDAR and survey data instead.
3) The government has decided to use DEM technology in the National Missions for Clean Ganga.

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 3: National Mission for Clean Ganga has brought on board Survey of India to
facilitate the Ganga rejuvenation task by using Geographic Information System (GIS) technology.
Through the project, NMCG aims to strengthen planning and implementation at national/state/local levels.
Statement 1 and 2: The project includes use of Digital Elevation Model (DEM) technology which ensures
accurate data collection, an important aspect for river basin management planning. DEM technology
enables identification of entire topography of an area making it easy for policy makers to analyse the
available data thereby supporting the decision-making process. Critical hotspots are also easily identified
through this technology.
Statement 2: A DEM is a 3D CG representation of a terrain's surface – commonly of a planet (e.g. Earth),
moon, or asteroid – created from a terrain's elevation data.
Mappers may prepare digital elevation models in a number of ways, but they frequently use remote
sensing rather than direct survey data.
Methods for obtaining elevation data used to create DEMs are:
unmanned aerial vehicle
Lidar
Stereo photogrammetry from aerial surveys
Topographic maps etc.
236. India’s Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD) is beneficial as it would

help to
a) Reduce future launch costs

b) Make satellites solely with the help of Green technology
c) Place satellites higher in the ionosphere
d) All of the above
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The cost of access to space is the major deterrent in space exploration and space utilization. A
reusable launch vehicle is the unanimous solution to achieve low cost, reliable and on- demand space
access.
Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstration Program or RLV-TD is a series of technology
demonstration missions that have been considered as a first step towards realizing a Two Stage To Orbit
(TSTO) fully re-usable vehicle.
A Winged Reusable Launch Vehicle technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD) has been configured to act as
a flying test bed to evaluate various technologies, namely, hypersonic flight, autonomous landing,
powered cruise flight and hypersonic flight using air-breathing propulsion.
These technologies will be developed in phases through a series of experimental flights.
237. Headend In the Sky (HITS) services are actually
a) Disaster Management services

b) Broadcasting services
c) Internal Security services
d) Ecosystem Services
Correct Answer : B
Learning: HITS Broadcasting Services refer to the multichannel downlinking and distribution of
television programme in C-Band or Ku Band, wherein all the pay channels are downlinked at a central
facility (Hub/ Teleport) and again uplinked to a satellite after encryption of channels.
At the cable headend these encrypted pay channels are downlinked using a single satellite antenna,
transmodulated and sent to the subscribers by using a land based transmission system comprising of
infrastructure of cable/optical fibres network.
After obtaining a HITS license from the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting, the HITS operator can
himself contract with different broadcasters for buying the content, aggregating the same at an earth
station and then uplinking with his own encryption to a satellite hired by him.
All uplinked channels can then be downlinked by the cable operators using a dish antenna for onward
distribution through last mile conventional cable network to the TV homes. In this
model, the HITS operator works like a conventional MSO, except that virtually the head-end isin the sky,
instead of being located on ground.
The HITS operator can also decide to merely provide passive infrastructure facilities like transponder
space on satellite, earth station facilities and the provision for simulcrypting/multicrypting of channels
aggregated by different with different encryption systems to one or more MSOs or to a consortium of
cable operators /MSOs desirous of uplinking TV channels to his HITS satellite for downlinking and
further transmission to the TV homes by the cable operators across
238. Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS), that was recently seen in news, is a
a) Quantum communication system
b) Japanese version of Global Positioning System
c) Global ocean macroscopy and remote sensing system
Correct Answer : B
Learning: It is Japan’s own version of GPS and is dubbed as Michibiki system.

Michibiki means guidance in Japanese. It is intended for civilian use, with a claimed positioning accuracy
down to mere centimetres.
The QZSS constellation of 8 satellites will trace out a figure-8 pattern over Japan, the Western Pacific,
and Australia.
It will become operation in 2018 with four satellites focusing on country and wider region.
239. Consider the following about the Square Kilometre Array (SKA) project.
1) It is an international effort to build the world’s largest radio telescope.
2) Its receiving stations would extend out to distance of at least three thousand kilometres.
3) It will be built in Mount Abu, India.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: It with eventually over a square kilometre (one million square metres) of
collecting area.
The scale of the SKA represents a huge leap forward in both engineering and research & development
towards building and delivering a unique instrument.
Statement 2: It would operate over a wide range of frequencies and its size will make it 50 times more
sensitive than any other radio instrument. It would require very high performance central, computing
engines and long-haul links with a capacity greater than the global Internet traffic as of 2013.
Statement 3: The SKA would be built in the southern hemisphere, in sub-Saharan states with cores in
South Africa and Australia, where the view of the Milky Way Galaxy is best and radio interference least
- Australia, New Zealand, and South Africa.
Learning: As one of the largest scientific endeavours in history, the SKA will bring together a wealth of
the world’s finest scientists, engineers and policy makers to bring the project to fruition.
It should be able to survey the sky more than ten thousand times faster than ever before.
With receiving stations extending out to distance of at least 3,000 kilometres (1,900 mi) from a
concentrated central core, it would exploit radio astronomy's ability to provide the highest resolution
images in all astronomy.
240. What is the usefulness of Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) being developed by NASA?
1) It will help protect earth from potential cosmic body impacts in the future.
2) It will lead to the establishment of the first human space station on an asteroid.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: This is the first-ever mission that will deflect a near-Earth asteroid.
NASA will use kinetic impactor technique to deflect them. This technique involves sending one or more
large, high-speed spacecraft into the path of an approaching near-earth object to shift its orbit to defend
against future impact. It works by changing the speed of a threatening asteroid by a small fraction of its
total velocity. This is done well before the predicted impact so that this small velocity adds up over time
to a big shift of the asteroid’s path away from Earth
241. NASA’s ROSA is expected to

1) Detect asteroid clashes in outer space
2) Power satellites and spacecraft in the future
3) Feed the International Space Station (ISS) with biological supplies

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 only
Correct Answer : C
Concept: NASA is testing the effectiveness of a flexible solar array, the Roll-Out Solar Array, or ROSA,
on space station for the very first time. It was tested on earth earlier.
It rolls out like a tape measure.
ROSA is smaller and lighter than the traditional panels and has a centre wing build of a flexible material
containing photovoltaic cells to convert light into electricity.
Application: ROSA is expected to provide power for a variety of future spacecraft and satellites.
It will be an asset for satellite radio and television, weather forecasting, GPS and other services used on
the Earth.
The NASA engineers remotely attached the ROSA to the International Space Station’s robotic
Canadarm2. ROSA will remain attached to the Canadarm2 over seven days to test its effectiveness.
Scientists will test the effectiveness of ROSA in the microgravity and extreme temperatures of space.
242. Hyperspectral imaging can be useful in

1) Finding oil fields
2) Monitoring crop health
3) Diagnosis of retinopathy
4) Removing defects and foreign material in processed food

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) All
Correct Answer : D
Concept: Whereas the human eye sees colour of visible light in mostly three bands (red, green, and
blue), spectral imaging divides the spectrum into many more bands.
This technique of dividing images into bands can be extended beyond the visible.
In hyperspectral imaging, the recorded spectra have fine wavelength resolution and cover a wide range
of wavelengths. This can cover very fine imaging.
Justification: Statement 1: Known as spectral signatures, these 'fingerprints' enable identification of the
materials that make up a scanned object. For example, a spectral signature for oil helps geologists find
new oil fields.
Statement 2: Although the cost of acquiring hyperspectral images is typically high, for specific crops
and in specific climates, hyperspectral remote sensing use is increasing for monitoring the
development and health of crops. This is because the finer colours that indicate crop health can be
mapped by hyperspectral imaging.
Statement 3: Researchers in Montraal are working to test the use of hyperspectral photography in the
diagnosis of retinopathy and macular edema before damage to the eye occurs.
Statement 4: In the food processing industry, hyperspectral imaging, combined with intelligent
software, enables digital sorters (also called optical sorters) to identify and remove defects and foreign
material (FM) that are invisible to traditional camera and laser sorters.
243. GOLF (Global Oscillations at Low Frequency) instrument, a joint project of ESA and NASA, studies
the
a) Internal structure of the sun
b) Movements of underwater ocean currents
c) Natural satellites of newly discovered exo-planets
d) Black holes and supernovas
Correct Answer : A
Learning: It will be on the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) spacecraft.
The GOLF instrument studies the internal structure of the sun by measuring how the surface of the Sun
oscillates.
GOLF measures the velocity of the surface in the direction of sight - that is, how fast is the surface moving
towards or away from the instrument.
244. Consider the following statements about the following technologies in news.
1) CubeSats are miniature satellites that weigh few nanograms.
2) Film-Evaporation MEMS Tunable Array (FEMTA) uses pure water as the propellant for a
spacecraft.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: CubeSats are basically miniature satellites which typically weigh around
two kilograms. In the future, they have potential to carry out tasks like imaging and remote- sensing
currently performed by heavier satellites which are expensive to build and launch.
Statement 2: The FEMTA system uses an innovative design of small thrusters that deliver bursts of water
vapor to manoeuvre the spacecraft into different orbits.
It uses pure water as the propellant since it is safe, green, easy to use and free from the risk of
contaminating sensitive instruments by the backflow from plumes as in the case of thrusters using
chemical propellants.
Space programmes
245. Which of these nations has recently announced its plans to launch a lunar probe in 2018 to achieve
the world’s first soft landing on the far side of the moon?
a) USA
b) Russia
c) China
d) India
Correct Answer : C
Learning: The mission is called Chang’e 4 project.

According to experts, landing on the far side of the moon is undoubtedly one of the most challenging
missions ever launched by any of the world’s superpowers.
The far side of the moon known as ‘South Pole-Aitken Basin’ still remains a mystery among space
scientists and by sending a probe there, China will outdo the historical achievements of the US and USSR.
Communication difficulties will be the main problem faced by the Chinese team as they try to land on the
other side of the moon due to the absence of a transmitting medium.
China is expected to consider using options like radio telescopes to communicate in the absence of a
transmitting medium.
246. With reference to the Joint Polar Satellite System-I (JPSS-I), consider the following statements.
1) It is designed for remote sensing operations and create a Geographical Informational System (GI) based
infrared map of the earth.
2) It is a joint venture between NASA and ISRO.
3) It will improve recognition of climate patterns that influence weather.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1 and 3: JPSS-I is first multi-day weather forecasts satellite in NOAA's series of
four, next-generation operational environmental satellites representing major advancements in
observations used for severe weather prediction and environmental monitoring. It is designed to monitor
weather around world and help improve forecasts.
Statement 2: JPSS-I is a joint venture between NASA and National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration (NOAA) of USA.
Learning: It is highly advanced polar-orbiting satellite that will orbit Earth 14 times each day from one
pole to other at 824 kms above planet, providing scientists full global coverage twice a day.
JPSS-I carries a suite of advanced instruments designed to take global measurements off atmospheric,
land and sea conditions from sea surface temperatures, volcanic ash, hurricane intensity and many more.
247. Sentinel-5, of the European Space Agency, is dedicated to
a) Air quality monitoring

b) Observation of Sun’s Core
c) Interstellar exploration
d) Space rescue missions
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The mission aims to provide continuous monitoring of the composition of the Earth's
atmosphere. It provides wide-swath, global coverage data to monitor air quality around the world.
Sentinel-5P is the latest spacecraft in a fleet of Earth observers being commissioned by the European
Union and the European Space Agency. The Sentinel-5P satellite is designed to make daily global maps
of the gases and particles that pollute the air.
It carries an instrument called Tropomi – a spectrometer that observes the reflected sunlight coming up
off the Earth, analysing its many different colours. This helps detect the presence of trace gases such as
nitrogen dioxide, ozone, sulphur dioxide, methane, and carbon monoxide in the atmosphere.
248. Copernicus, sometimes seen in news, is
a) Satellite based service of the European Union (EU)

b) NASA’s latest rover mission to Jupiter’s Moon
c) A Giant telescope installed at Greenland to survey the sky
d) A network of scientific institutions spread across Russia and Asia
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Copernicus, previously known as GMES (Global Monitoring for Environment and Security),
is the European Programme for the establishment of a European capacity for Earth Observation.
Based on satellite and in situ observations, the Copernicus services deliver near-real-time data on a global
level which can also be used for local and regional needs, to help us better understand our planet and
sustainably manage the environment we live in.
Copernicus also collects information from in situ systems such as ground stations, which deliver data
acquired by a multitude of sensors on the ground, at sea or in the air.
Copernicus is served by a set of dedicated satellites (the Sentinel families) and contributing missions
(existing commercial and public satellites).
The Sentinel satellites are specifically designed to meet the needs of the Copernicus services and their
users.
Since the launch of Sentinel-1A in 2014, the European Union set in motion a process to place a
constellation of almost 20 more satellites in orbit before 2030.
249. Kilopower project by NASA, recently seen in news, intends to

a) Reduce carbon footprints of power generation by harnessing the natural cleansing ability of the
environment
b) Power planet mission rovers by energy generated at the host planets
c) Conduct fusion reaction in space
d) Create small nuclear power sources to fuel further space exploration Correct Answer : D
Learning: The Kilopower project is a near-term technology effort to develop preliminary concepts and
technologies that could be used for an affordable fission nuclear power system to enable long- duration
stays on planetary surfaces.
The principal goal of the project is to sufficiently develop and test nuclear power system technologies by
2018 so fission power can be a viable option for NASA decision makers to consider when making their
informed selection of exploration surface systems.
Kilopower tackles a few different problems in spacecraft design: existing nuclear power systems rely on
a fuel we’ve essentially run out of, solar power becomes increasingly feeble the further from the sun the
spacecraft goes, and more complicated space activities—like those involving humans—would require
significantly stronger power supplies than current projects
250. The Mission of NASA’s Global-Scale Observations of the Limb and Disk (GOLD) is to
1) Shed light on how the uppermost layers of Earth’s atmosphere can be affected by powerful space and
Earth-based weather events
2) Draw an infrared map of the innermost layers of the earth showing their structural and chemical
composition

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Background: Earth’s atmosphere is a complex, multi-layered protective shell that envelopes our planet,
and safeguards its inhabitants from dangerous space weather emanating largely from our Sun.
This tenuous region of the atmosphere has been known to undergo swift and significant changes in less
than an hour.
These fluctuations can be driven by the constant interactions between the ionosphere and thermosphere,
in conjunction with weather emanating from both Earth and space.
The complexity of these interactions makes it very difficult to predict when an atmospheric change in the
ionosphere and thermosphere will occur, and this can be a serious problem for satellite communications.
Justification: GOLD is essentially an imaging spectrograph. Spectrographs are scientific instruments that
have been designed to break light down into its constituent wavelengths and to measure their intensity.
By examining the data from such an instrument, scientists can determine a wide variety of characteristics,
including a target’s composition and temperature. GOLD will be tasked with collecting far ultraviolet
light data on Earth’s atmosphere.
GOLD will focus its attention on a relatively poorly-understood region of the upper atmosphere, where
the charged particles of the ionosphere mingle with the diffuse neutral gasses that make up the
thermosphere.
251. NASA launched the IMAGE satellite for
a) Imaging the Earth’s magnetosphere

b) Studying moons of most habitable regions in the solar system
c) Supplying essential interstellar connection to the International Space Station (ISS)
d) Investigating uninhabitable region on earth to understand the habitable conditions in other celestial
bodies
Correct Answer : A
Background: NASA confirmed that it stumbled across radio transmissions from Imager for
Magnetopause-to-Aurora Global Exploration (IMAGE) science satellite, which lost contact with mission
control over 12 years ago.
Learning: IMAGE was the first satellite mission dedicated to imaging the Earth’s magnetosphere, the
region of space controlled by the Earth’s magnetic field and containing extremely tenuous plasmas of
both solar and terrestrial origin.
Invisible to standard astronomical observing techniques, these populations of ions and electrons have
traditionally been studied by means of localized measurements with charged particle detectors,
magnetometers, and electric field instruments.
252. NASA’s SEXTANT mission achieved successful
a) Demonstration of X-ray Navigation in Space

b) Hybridization of plants on the International Space Station
c) Disintegration of an asteroid bound in space
d) Communication of delta waves in deep space
Correct Answer : A
Justification: SEXTANT is Station Explorer for X-ray Timing and Navigation Technology.
SEXTANT works like a GPS receiver getting signals from at least three GPS satellites, all of which are
equipped with atomic clocks.
The receiver measures the time delay from each satellite and converts this into spatial coordinates.
The technology uses X-ray technology to see millisecond pulsars, using them much like a GPS uses
satellites.
Although these objects emit radiation across the spectrum, observing in the X-ray band offers the greatest
insights into these unusual, incredibly dense celestial objects that if compressed any further would
collapse completely into black holes.
The mission will shed light into their structure and allow astronomers to observe the stars’ tremendously
strong magnetic fields and other physical properties.
This demonstration is a breakthrough for future deep space exploration in that it provides a new option
for deep space navigation that could work in concert with existing spacecraft- based radio and optical
systems.
253. Consider the following statements. NASA’s Dawn mission
1) Will characterize the early solar system and the processes that dominated its formation.
2) Is the only NASA mission ever to orbit two extra-terrestrial targets

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: It will study the asteroid Vesta and dwarf planet Ceres, celestial bodies
believed to have accreted early in the history of the solar system.
Statement 2: Dawn is the only mission ever to orbit two extraterrestrial targets. It orbited giant asteroid
Vesta for 14 months from 2011 to 2012, then continued on to Ceres, where it has been in
orbit since March 2015.
NASA has authorized a second extension of the Dawn mission at Ceres, the largest object in the asteroid
belt between Mars and Jupiter
254. The Kepler spacecraft launched by NASA in 2009 was tasked with
a) Determining how commonly Earth-like planets occur throughout the Milky Way galaxy
b) Probing the surface of exo-planets like Pluto
c) Establishing inter-galaxial communication using radio waves
d) Understanding the pattern of solar spots from orbiting nearest possible to the Sun
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA’s) revamped planet-hunting
Kepler spacecraft has discovered more than 100 planets orbiting other stars.
The Kepler spacecraft finds the planets by using the transit method. It is detection of the tiny brightness
dips caused by the planet after it crosses its host star’s face from spacecraft’s perspective.
Transit method technique requires extremely precise pointing of spacecraft.
255. India’s Department of Space (DoS) and European Union (EU) have signed cooperation agreement
related to sharing of full and open access to data from Copernicus Sentinel family of satellites. This
development will help India in which of the following aspects?
a) Earth observation
b) Telecommunications
c) Regional Navigation
d) Quantum communication
Correct Answer : A
Background: Copernicus programme is the world’s largest single earth observation programme directed
by European Commission in partnership with the European Space Agency (ESA). It aims at achieving
global, continuous, autonomous, high quality, wide range Earth observation capacity.
It provides wide range of applications like climate change, ocean, land and atmosphere monitoring as well
as support in forecasting, management and mitigation of natural disasters. Its full, free and open data
policy has proven its merits and allowed development of thriving user base in Europe and beyond.
Learning: Under this arrangement, EU will provide India with free, full and open access to data from
Copernicus Sentinel family of satellites using high bandwidth connections from data hub to data hub.
Reciprocally, India will provide Copernicus programme and its participating states with free, full and
open access to data from ISRO’s earth observation satellites including historical data sets.
This comprises data from land, ocean and atmospheric series of ISRO’s civilian satellites (Oceansat-2,
Scatsat-1, Megha-Tropiques, SARAL, INSAT-3D, INSAT-3DR) with exception of commercial high-
resolution satellites data.
The agreement also envisages technical assistance for establishment of high bandwidth connections with
ISRO sites, in particular through setting up of mirror servers, data storage and archival facilities.
256. NASA will send first-ever mission named as InSight (Interior Exploration using Seismic
Investigations, Geodesy and Heat Transport) dedicated to
a) Understanding the moons of Jupiter

b) Decoding the gas explosions on Saturn
c) Studying exoplants and asteroids
d) Exploring the deep interior of Mars
Correct Answer : D
Learning: InSight will be stationary lander that will be launched in May 2018.
It will be first NASA mission since the Apollo moon landings to place seismometer, a device that
measures quakes on the soil of another planet.
InSight is NASA’s Discovery Program mission that aims to place stationary lander equipped with
seismometer and heat transfer probe on surface of Mars to study red planet’s early geological evolution.
It is terrestrial planet explorer that will address one of most fundamental issues of planetary and solar
system science.
It will help in understanding processes that shaped rocky planets of inner solar system (including Earth)
more than four billion years ago
257. Parker Solar Probe by NASA will study the outer atmosphere of the sun, known as the corona.
Why should we be studying the corona?
1) Solar flares can damage satellites and impose an enormous financial cost on space programmes
2) The corona has the lowest temperature in the Sun making scientific observations possible.
3) Very large flares can generate currents within electricity grids on earth and adversely affect energy
supplies.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 2: The corona is in the outer layer of the sun’s atmosphere—far from its surface.
Yet the corona is hundreds of times hotter than the sun’s surface.
However, the corona is very dim because the corona is about 10 million times less dense than the sun’s
surface.
This low density makes the corona much less bright than the surface of the sun.
The corona is usually hidden by the bright light of the sun's surface. That makes it difficult to see without
using special instruments. However, the corona can be seen during a total solar eclipse.
Statement 1: Parker Solar Probe will travel through the sun’s atmosphere, closer to the surface than any
spacecraft before it.
To measure the corona, the probe will reach an orbit within four million miles (6.5 million km) of the sun.
PSP is also aimed at collecting vital information about the life of stars and their weather events. This will
help scientists improve how we predict dangerous solar flares, which can disrupt satellites and power
supplies here on Earth.
Statement 3: The mission can help scientists to better understand solar flares – brief eruptions of intense
high-energy radiation from the sun’s surface that can knock out communications on Earth.
According to Nasa, observations from this new vantage point will also help to uncover the physics of how
stars work, and could improve our ability to predict space weather. These events have impacts on Earth
as well as the satellites and astronauts in space.
258. Parker Solar Probe of NASA has which of the following major scientific objectives?
1) Studying the core of Sun chemically to understand its life cycle
2) Tracing the flow of energy that heats and accelerates the solar corona and solar wind
3) Understand the origin of comets circling the Sun

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification : Justification: Other objectives are to:
Determine the structure and dynamics of the plasma and magnetic fields at the sources of the
solar wind.
Explore mechanisms that accelerate and transport energetic particles
NASA’s historic Parker Solar Probe mission will revolutionize our understanding of the sun, where
changing conditions can propagate out into the solar system, affecting Earth and other worlds.
Parker Solar Probe will travel through the sun’s atmosphere, closer to the surface than any spacecraft
before it, facing brutal heat and radiation conditions — and ultimately providing humanity with the
closest-ever observations of a star.
The spacecraft will fly through the sun’s atmosphere as close as 3.9 million miles to our star’s surface,
well within the orbit of Mercury and more than seven times closer than any spacecraft has come before.
259. NASA’s flying observatory Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy (Sofia) campaign
will include observations on
a) Comets and star-forming regions

b) Celestial magnetic fields, star-forming regions, comets and Saturn’s giant moon Titan
c) Celestial magnetic fields and star-forming regions
d) Saturn’s giant moon Titan
Correct Answer : B
Learning: Launched four years back, it is preparing for its 2018 campaign, which will include, among
others, observations of celestial magnetic fields, star-forming regions, comets and Saturn’s giant moon
Titan.
SOFIA is based on a Boeing 747SP wide-body aircraft that has been modified to include a large door
in the aft fuselage that can be opened in flight to allow a 2.5 m diameter reflecting telescope access to the
sky.
This telescope is designed for infrared astronomy observations in the stratosphere at altitudes of about 12
kilometres.
SOFIA's flight capability allows it to rise above almost all of the water vapor in the Earth's atmosphere,
which blocks some infrared wavelengths from reaching the ground.
At the aircraft's cruising altitude, 85% of the full infrared range will be available. The aircraft can also
travel to almost any point on the Earth's surface, allowing observation from the northern and southern
hemispheres.
260. How the Lunar Orbital Platform-Gateway of NASA will be useful for future space missions?
1. Promoting the goal of human landing on the moon

2. Help determine whether water near Moon’s surface could be used to manufacture propellant for deep-
space missions

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: The Lunar Orbital Platform-Gateway is Nasa’s planned “staging” area intended for studies
of the moon and the deep-space environment. Eventually, it will function as a way station for astronauts
travelling to and from Mars.
The Gateway would also further Nasa’s goal of another human landing on the moon and will help
determine whether water near the surface could be used to manufacture propellant for deep-space
missions.
The moon’s gravity could also help a spacecraft reduce the blistering speeds used for six-month voyages
back-and-forth to Mars, thus facilitating re-entry to Earth’s atmosphere.
NASA is planning to award its first contract for the lunar “Gateway” program in 2019.
261. Europa often seen in news is the

a) Transport corridor being constructed between Europe and Central Asia passing Russia
b) Informal name of the European Union and Eurozone
c) Moon of Jupiter which is seen to hold possibility of life
d) European Space Agency’s latest satellite prepared to explore Neptune
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Galileo was an American unmanned spacecraft that studied the planet Jupiter and its moons
As per the observations made, Jupiter's moon Europa might be able to support life even if there's little or
no volcanic activity under the satellite's icy shell.
A salty ocean of liquid water is believed to lie beneath Europa's icy exterior.
Scientists think this ocean could be habitable, if it harbors the required chemical building blocks and the
right proportion of elements to provide energy for biological systems — the right ratio of oxygen to
hydrogen, for example.
Recently NASA sent Juno to study Jupiter from its orbit.
262. With reference to some NASA missions and their mandates, consider the following matches.
1) ROSA: A. Potential to replace solar arrays on future satellites making them more compact and lighter
weight.
2) IXPE: B. Vast interstellar clouds and know about the earliest stages of star formation
3) CHESS: C. Help explore some of the most turbulent and extreme environments in our universe
Select the correct matches using the codes below.
a) 1A, 2B, 3C
b) 1C, 2B, 3A
c) 1B, 2C, 3A
d) 1A, 2C, 3B
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Flexible Roll-Out Solar Array (ROSA) is new compact high-power solar
array-the Roll Out.
ROSA)– has made its debut on the International Space Station.
ROSA) could power an advanced solar electric propulsion spacecraft.
Tapping into ROSA technology allows the conversion of sunlight into electrical power.
Statement 2: NASA has signed an agreement with Italian Space Agency for the launch of the Imaging X-
ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE) mission.
The mission will provide important clues about the origins of cosmic X-rays, their interactions with matter
and gravity as they travel through space.
Slated to launch in 2020, the IXPE mission will help explore some of the most turbulent and extreme
environments in our universe.
The IXPE mission will fly three telescope systems capable of measuring the polarisation of X-
rays emitted by cosmic sources.
Statement 3: NASA is launching a sounding rocket CHESS to study vast interstellar clouds and know
about the earliest stages of star formation.
The Colorado High-resolution Echelle Stellar Spectrograph will measure light filtering through the
interstellar medium, which provides crucial information for understanding the lifecycle of stars
SPACE PROGRAMMES IN INDIA
263. Consider the following statements about Neutrinos.

1) They are used to trigger fission in nuclear reactors.
2) Human body cannot tolerate exposure to Neutrinos.
3) They are completely massless.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Neutrinos are the information bearers of the universe — which are almost never lost in
their path. India’s effort in studying neutrinos at INO may help us unravel the deepest mystery of the
universe — why there is more matter than antimatter in the universe.
Neutrinos are the least harmful of all elementary particles, as they almost never react with solid bodies.
Also, people tend to confuse the “neutrino” for the “neutron”. This has also led to the confusion that
neutrinos can be weaponised, which is far from the truth. They are not used to trigger fission reactions,
but are instead produced as a result of the reactions.
Neutrinos, named as such because they are electrically neutral, are leptons, and so are not
affected by the strong force either.
264. AstroSat is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission aimed at studying celestial sources in
a) X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously

b) A geosynchronous orbit above earth
c) Both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer : A
Learning: ASTROSAT is a multi-wavelength astronomy mission on an IRS-class satellite in a 650-km,

near-equatorial orbit, so B is incorrect.
One of the unique features of AstroSat mission is that it enables the simultaneous multi-wavelength
observations of various astronomical objects with a single satellite.
The minimum useful life of the AstroSat mission is expected to be 5 years.
ASTROSAT is an orbiting telescope whose launch had placed India in the small cohort of countries that
have a space-borne observatory.
265. With reference to Chandrayaan-2, consider the following statements.
1) It is totally an indigenous mission of India.

2) GSLV will be used for launching the mission.
3) Mission will send a rover to Moon that will collect scientific information on lunar topography and
mineralogy.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Chandrayaan-2 Mission is India's second mission to the Moon is a totally indigenous
mission comprising of an Orbiter, Lander and Rover.
After reaching the 100 km lunar orbit, the Lander housing the Rover will separate from the Orbiter.
After a controlled descent, the Lander will soft land on the lunar surface at a specified site and deploy a
Rover.
The mission will carry a six-wheeled Rover which will move around the landing site in semi- autonomous
mode as decided by the ground commands. The instruments on the rover will observe the lunar surface
and send back data, which will be useful for analysis of the lunar soil.
The Chandrayaan-2 weighing around 3290 kg and would orbit around the moon and perform the
objectives of remote sensing the moon.
The payloads will collect scientific information on lunar topography, mineralogy, elemental abundance,
lunar exosphere and signatures of hydroxyl and water-ice.GSLV- F10/Chandrayaan-2 Mission is planned
during first half of 2018
266. For his contribution to Indian space technology, he was awarded Padma Bhushan and Padma
Vibhushan. He is the first Indian space scientist to be inducted into the prestigious ‘Satellite Hall of
Fame’ and also first in ‘International Astronautics Federation (IAF) Hall of Fame’. He is
a) APJ Abdul Kalam

b) Satish Dhawan
c) G. Madhavan Nair
d) Udupi Ramachandra Rao
Correct Answer : D
Justification: He is an internationally-renowned space scientist and former chairman of ISRO. He

recently passed away.
He is credited with having played an instrumental role in building up Indian satellite programmes
right from nation’s first satellite Aryabhatta.
Learning: The Society of Satellite Professionals International or SSPI is a non-profit organization,

made up of members who worked as professionals in the satellite industry throughout their careers.
It inducts members into its Satellite Hall of Fame.

MATERIAL TECHNOLOGY
NANOSCIENCE
267. Nanogel is
a) cross-linked three-dimensional polymer chain networks of nanogels

b) class of extremely small droplets that appear to be transparent or translucent with a bluish colouration
c) a key pluripotency regulator critically important in the process of self-renewal of undifferentiated stem
cells
d) smallest known self-replicating bacteria
Correct Answer : C
Justification & Learning: There are 4 key terms that are emerging in the discourse of nanotechnology:
Nanobacteria: Nanobacteria are nano-sized in that they are from 20—200 nanometres (run) in size and
are the smallest known self-replicating bacteria.
Nanoemulsion: Nanoemulsions are a class of extremely small droplets that appear to be transparent or
translucent with a bluish colouration. They are usually in the range 50 to 200 nm but much smaller than
the range (from 1 to 100 pm) for conventional emulsions.
Nanog: Nanog is a key pluripotency regulator critically important in the process of self-renewal of
undifferentiated stem cells. It is encoded by the NANOG gene.
Nanogels: Nanogels are composed of cross-linked three-dimensional polymer chain networks that are
formed via covalent linkages or self-assembly processes
LASER AND PHOTONICS
268. With reference to the FSOC technology, consider the following statements:
1) It uses light to wirelessly transmit data to telecommunication and internet applications.

2) It works independently of satellite based internet to provide internet in rural and remote areas.
3) It can be implemented using infrared laser light.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Free-space optical communication (FSOC)is an optical communication technology that

uses light to wirelessly transmit data to telecommunication and internet applications. The technology
remained outside the commercial applications for long owing to distance, speed, and efficiency related
problems.
FSOC links use beams of light to deliver high-speed, high-capacity connectivity over long distances, just
like fiber optic cable, but without the cable. And because there’s no cable, this means there’s none of the
time, cost, and hassle involved in digging trenches or stringing cable along poles.
FSOC boxes can simply be placed kilometres apart on roofs or towers, with the signal beamed directly
between the boxes to easily traverse common obstacles like rivers, roads and railways.
In a first, X Development LLC, a subsidiary of Google's parent company Alphabet Inc, will supply and
deploy two thousand cutting-edge Free Space Optical Communication (FSOC) links for Andhra Pradesh
(AP) fiber-grid.
One example of the use of this technology can be LAN-to-LAN connections on campuses at Fast Ethernet
or Gigabit Ethernet speeds or in a metropolitan area network.
269. LIDAR, which stands for Light Detection and Ranging

1) is a remote sensing method
2) uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure variable distances to the Earth
3) can be used to generate three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface
characteristics

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: These light pulses—combined with other data recorded by the airborne system— generate
precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics.
A LIDAR instrument principally consists of a laser, a scanner, and a specialized GPS receiver. Airplanes
and helicopters are the most commonly used platforms for acquiring LIDAR data over broad areas.
Two types of LIDAR are topographic and bathymetric. Topographic LIDAR typically uses a near-infrared
laser to map the land, while bathymetric lidar uses water-penetrating green light to also measure seafloor
and riverbed elevations.
LIDAR systems allow scientists and mapping professionals to examine both natural and manmade
environments with accuracy, precision, and flexibility.
Scientists are using LIDAR also to produce more accurate shoreline maps, make digital elevation models
for use in geographic information systems, to assist in emergency response operations, and in many other
application
MISCELLANEOUS
270. Which of the characteristics of Graphene makes it one of the most touted “miracle material” in
the global electronics industry?
1) It is only one atom thick.

2) It is a carbon material with high conductivity.
3) It is the strongest material ever tested.
4) It is highly opaque considering its thickness.

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) All
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Graphene is an allotrope (form) of carbon consisting of a single layer of carbon atoms
arranged in a hexagonal lattice. It is nearly transparent.
It is the basic structural element of many other allotropes of carbon, such as graphite, charcoal, carbon
nanotubes and fullerenes.
Its thin composition and high conductivity means it is used in applications ranging from miniaturised
electronics to biomedical devices.
These properties also enable thinner wire connections; providing extensive benefits for computers, solar
panels, batteries, sensors and other devices.
The one-atom-thick sheets of carbon conduct electrons better than silicon and have been made into fast,
low-power transistors. Now, for the first time, researchers have measured the intrinsic strength of
graphene, and they've confirmed it to be the strongest material ever tested.
Learning: Given its strength, electrical conductivity and elasticity, it has been seen as an alternative to
lithium-ion batteries since its discovery in 2004.
It can be used to develop smaller, slimmer batteries but with higher capacity.
The potential applications of graphene include water filtration and purification, renewable energy,
sensors, personalised healthcare and medicine, to name a few.
271. Consider the following about Microbeads.

1) They are plastic Nanoparticles.
2) They are often used in the manufacture of personal care products.
3) They are non-biodegradable.
4) India has banned the use of microbeads.

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: They are manufactured solid plastic particles of less than one millimeter
in their largest dimension.
They are most frequently made of polyethylene but can be of other petrochemical plastics such as
polypropylene and polystyrene.
They are used in exfoliating personal care products, toothpastes and in biomedical and health- science
research.
Statement 3: Microbeads can cause plastic particle water pollution and pose an environmental hazard for
aquatic animals in freshwater and ocean water
Microbeads are washed down the drain, can pass unfiltered through sewage treatment plants and make
their way into rivers and canals, resulting in plastic particle water pollution
They're used in soaps because exfoliating products need small, hard particles to rub debris from the skin.
These particles can be natural materials, such as ground nut shells or crushed apricot seeds-- or they can
be manufactured products like microbeads.
Statement 4:
272. India-Based Neutrino Observatory (INO) Project will be located underground in order to
1) Protect the locals from radiation emitted by the observatory

2) Reduce the impact of intense neutrino showers on local biodiversity
3) Shielding the neutrino detector from cosmic background radiation
4) Cut down the supply of neutrinos emitted from the surface of the earth

a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Background: The project aims at building a world-class underground laboratory with a rock cover of
approximately 1200 meter. Its mandate is to conduct basic research on elementary particle called neutrino.
It is jointly supported by Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and Department of Science & Technology
(DST), with DAE acting as the nodal agency.
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: The observatory (neither neutrinos) emits harmful radiation. In fact,
several neutrinos pass the human body every second.
Statement 3: The observatory will be located underground in order to provide adequate shielding to the
neutrino detector from cosmic background radiation.
It will comprise complex of caverns which will house detector which is 130 metres long, 26 metres wide
and 30 metre high.
Along with main cavern, there will be two smaller caverns that will be used for setting up experiments
for neutrino double detector and dark matters. The non-accelerator based high energy and nuclear physics
underground research complex will be approached by a 2-kms long tunnel.
The project also envisages construction of 50,000 tonne magnetised iron calorimeter detector (ICAL). It
will study the properties of the neutrino, in particular the mass hierarchy among different types of neutrino.
273. With reference to Radiation processing of foods, consider the following statements.
1) It does not make the food radioactive in controlled conditions.
2) It increases the nutritional value of food significantly.
3) It easily reverses the spoilage of good.
4) It can be used for sterilization of medical and packaging products.

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Radiation processing is controlled application of energy of short wave length

radiations of the electromagnetic spectrum known as ionizing radiations and includes gamma rays,
accelerated electrons and X-rays to have desired effect on the product.
Statement 1: Gamma rays, X-rays and electrons prescribed for food irradiation do not induce any
radioactivity in foods.
The food itself never comes in contact with the radioactive material.
Statement 2: In comparison to other food processing and preservation methods, the nutritional value
is least affected by radiation.
Statement 3: Like any other food treatment, radiation processing cannot reverse the spoilage process
and make food good.
Statement 4: Some of the major objectives of radiation processing are:
Sterilization of medical and packaging products
Phytosanitation to overcome quarantine barriers in fruits and vegetables
Insect disinfestations of food products
Learning: BRIT is an independent unit of department of atomic energy which provides products and
services based on radiation & isotopes for applications in healthcare, agriculture, research and
industry.
DEFENCE TECHNOLOGY and programmes
274. Consider the following statements. Smart Anti Airfield Weapon (SAAW)
1) has been developed indigenously by the DRDO
2) can be fired from an aircraft
3) can destroy ground based objects even across the borders of India

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: The SAAW project is India's first fully indigenous anti-airfield weapon project sanctioned
by Government in 2013.
SAAW is a long-range lightweight high precision-guided anti-airfield weapon. It is 120 kg smart weapon
capable of engaging ground targets with high precision up to a range of 100 km.
It can be used to destroy bunkers, runways, aircraft hangers and other reinforced structures.
SAAW's deep penetration capabilities and high explosive warhead carrying capacity will allow Indian
Air Force (IAF) to easily hit targets across border without putting pilot and aircraft at risk.
It can be integrated into the varied types of fighter jets with the IAF. It will be inducted soon into the
Armed Forces.
275. With reference to Nirbhay missile, consider the following statements.

1) It is the first missile to be fully and indigenously developed by a private agency.
2) It is one of the few missiles in India to operate without a rocket motor booster.
3) It is a short-range super-sonic Cruise Missile.
4) It can carry nuclear warheads.

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: It has been indigenously designed and developed by DRDO.

Statement 2: It is India's first indigenously designed and developed Long Range Sub-Sonic Cruise Missile.
It has blended missile and aeronautical technologies which allows it to take off vertically like missile and
cruise horizontally like an aircraft.
Statement 3 and 4: It is two stage missile powered by solid rocket motor booster developed by Advanced
Systems Laboratory (ASL) It has operational range of 1000 km and can carry warheads of up to 300 kg
including nuclear warheads. It can be launched from various kind of platforms.
276. Why is the Hwasong-15, recently seen in news, a potential threat?
a) It is an inter-continental ballistic missile armed with a nuclear warhead

b) It is a biological weapon developed by North Korea in contravention of Biological Weapons
Convention
c) It is a drone-based mobile satellite designed by China for a secret surveillance of South Asia
Correct Answer : A
Learning: North Korea has launched its most powerful weapon yet- Called the Hwasong-15.
It is the ‘greatest ICBM’ that could be armed with a ‘super-large heavy nuclear warhead’ capable of
striking the ‘whole mainland’ of the United States of America.
Pyongyang claimed the missile reached a height of 4,475 km and travelled 950 km.
Strategic analysts are concerned with these developments because NK hasn’t put any limits over its
nuclear programme, which might threaten the whole East Asian region.
277. Consider the following statements about Diver Detection Sonar (DDS) systems.
1) Purpose of this type of sonar system is to provide detection and classification information on underwater
threats
2) These are acoustic location systems employed underwater for the detection of divers and submerged
swimmer delivery vehicles (SDVs)

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Subsurface threats are a difficult problem, because reliable detection is available to date
chiefly by use of high-resolution active sonar or trained dolphins or sea lions
The purpose of this type of sonar system is to provide detection, tracking and classification information
on underwater threats that could endanger property and lives.
Further, this information is useful only to the extent that it is made available to authorities in time to make
possible the desired response to the threat, be it deterrent or defensive action.
Government of India’s ‘Make in India’ Policy; Indian Navy, 2017, has concluded a contract with Tata
Power Strategic Engineering Division for supply of Portable Diver Detection Sonar (PDDS) under the
‘Buy and Make (Indian)’ category.
278. INS Karanj is a
a) Scorpene-class submarine
b) Designed to work in Polar Regions
c) Fitted with stealth features that makes it detection difficult
d) Both (a) and (c)
Correct Answer : D
Background: The Scorpene submarines are a primary modernization requirement of the Indian Navy,
which is currently faced with an ageing submarine fleet.
The first one, INS Kalvari, a diesel-electric attack submarine was commissioned in 2014.
Justification: This is the third of the six Scorpene-class submarines being built by Mazagon Dock
Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) under the Project 75 programme of Indian navy.
Option B: It is designed to operate in all theatres, including the tropics. It is provided with all means and
communications to ensure interoperability with other components of a naval task.
It has superior stealth features such as advanced acoustic silencing techniques, low radiated noise levels
and hydrodynamically optimized shape. These stealth features give it an invulnerability, unmatched by
most submarine.
279. Consider the following about Nirbhay which is India’s first indigenously designed and developed
long range subsonic cruise missile.
1) It has the ability to pick out a target and attack it among multiple targets.
2) It is not capable of carrying nuclear warheads.
3) It can go round a target and perform several manoeuvres and then reengage it.

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Nirbhay is an all-weather, low-cost, long-range cruise missile capable of carrying

conventional and nuclear war heads.
The two-stage missile Nirbhay is able to pick out a target and attack it among multiple targets. The missile
has a loitering capability, i.e., it can go round a target and perform several manoeuvres and then re-engage
it
It incorporates state-of-the-art inertial navigation system. Nirbhay was flight tested in 2014 and 2015.
280. The aim of Integrated Automatic Aviation Meteorological System (IAAMS), recently seen in news, is
to
1) Bring accuracy in weather monitoring mechanisms in Indian Navy

2) Replace the archaic aeronautical navigation systems in the Indian Air force
3) Provide troop movement support to the Indian Armed Forces in extreme weather conditions on tough
terrains

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: IAAMS is expected to modernise the meteorological infrastructure of the nine Naval Air
Stations (NAS).The IAAMS project at INS Garuda will give a major fillip to aviation safety through
automation of weather monitoring process.
281. Consider the following statements. INS Vikramaditya is
1) an indigenously built aircraft carrier

2) powered entirely by nuclear fuel
3) has not entered into service with the Indian Navy yet

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: It is a modified Kiev-class aircraft carrier which entered into service with the Indian Navy
in 2013.
Originally built as Baku and commissioned in 1987, the carrier served with the Soviet Navy and later with
the Russian Navy before being decommissioned in 1996. The carrier was purchased by India in 2004.
Vikramaditya has been designed as a STOBAR carrier capable of operating both conventional fixed- wing
aircraft and helicopters, with up to 34 aircraft capable of being accommodated
282. With reference to ‘Dhanush’ ballistic missile, consider the following statements.
1) It is a nuclear capable missile.
2) It is an air-to-air missile capable of carrying a payload of over 4 tonnes.
3) It has been developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Nuclear-capable ‘Dhanush’ ballistic missile was recently test fired.
It is a surface-to-surface missile. It has a strike range of 350 km.
It is a naval variant of the indigenously-developed ‘Prithvi’ missile.
It is capable of carrying a payload of 500 kg and hitting both land and sea-based targets.
The single-stage, liquid-propelled ‘Dhanush’, has already been inducted into the defence services.
It is one of the five missiles developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
283. Which of the following is a drone, that was developed and tested recently by DRDO, for use by all
three services of the Indian armed forces, primarily for intelligence, surveillance and
reconnaissance (ISR) operations?
a) Nirbhay
b) Aakash
c) Rustom
d) Arihant
Correct Answer : C
Learning: The choice was easy, because other three options are either submarines or missiles.
Rustom 2 drone is a medium-altitude, long-endurance unmanned aerial vehicle, developed on the lines of
predator drones of the United States. The objective of this drone is to carry out surveillance for the armed
forces with an endurance of 24 hours.
It can fly at over 22,000 ft and is a long-endurance (MALE) UAV that has an approximate flight time of
20 hours.
It can fly at around 280 km/h and carry a variety of payloads like Medium Range Electro Optic (MREO),
Long Range Electro Optic (LREO), Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR), Electronic Intelligence (ELINT).
Rustom 2 can fly missions on manual as well as autonomous modes. The onboard way-point navigation
system allows the drone to conduct missions autonomously
284. The final Development Flight Trials of Astra was conducted recently over the Bay of Bengal.
Consider the following about it.
1) It is an air-to-water missile.
2) It was developed by a joint India-Russia venture.
3) It is an all-weather Beyond-Visual Range missile.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: It is a Beyond-Visual Range, air-to-air indigenously developed.

The all-weather, radar homing missile has high manoeuvrability and capability to engage and destroy
aerial targets at supersonic speeds.
The sixty-km plus range missile possesses Shot Kill Probability (SSKP) making it one of the most reliable
in its class of weapon systems.
The missile could be launched at different altitudes from sea level to twenty km for engaging aerial targets
at various ranges.
Apart from integrating the missile with Su-30, it is planned to be mounted on other fighter aircraft
including Tejas Light Combat Aircraft.
285. ATAGS, recently seen in news, is a
a) Strain of Hepatitis-B that serves as its cure

b) Advanced artillery gun system
c) Geo-engineering technique
d) Solar powered drone
Correct Answer : B
Learning: ATAGS is fully indigenously developed by DRDO and private sector consortium.
In mission mode, it was made a part of the Army's artillery modernisation programme.
The advanced towed artillery gun system has set a world record in terms of range by hitting targets at
distance of 48 km during trial firings at Pokhran, Rajasthan.
It is also has night firing capability in direct fire mode.
ATAGS has several significant advance features, including an all-electric drive, high mobility, quick
deployability, auxiliary power mode, advanced communication system, and automated command and
control system.
286. Recently, DRDO has indigenously developed a ‘Trawl System’ for
a) Breaching of land mines and creating a vehicle safe lane through a minefield
b) Sustainable and profitable fishing in Exclusive Economic Zones
c) Underwater coastal shipping in regions of high marine traffic
d) Enhancing the RADAR detection capabilities of the armed forces
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The indigenous developed Trawl System is employed for breaching of land mines and creating
a vehicle safe lane, through a minefield for the advancing columns of mechanized forces in combat zone.
The equipment consists of Trawl roller, track width mine plough and electromagnetic device (EMD),
which caters to the need of all types of mines usually encountered by the battle tank in such a scenario.
The Trawl System can breach both passive and active influence mines.
287. Consider the following statements. INS Kalvari
1) is part of the Project 75 of Indian Navy’s submarine programme

2) can undertake mine laying and intelligence gathering under the water
3) has been built indigenously by Indian defence public sector units

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Kalvari is named after a deep-sea tiger shark. The Scorpene is part of the
ambitious Project 75.
Statement 2: This type of submarine is designed to operate in all theatres including the Tropics. It can
undertake various types of missions that are undertaken by any modern submarine including anti-surface
warfare, anti-submarine warfare, mine laying, intelligence gathering, surveillance, etc.
With its superior stealth capability, it can launch a crippling attack on the enemy using precision guided
weapons.
Statement 3: Six Scorpene submarines are being built under Project-75 by Mazgaon Docks Limited
(MDL) with technology transfer from France. It is not entirely indigenous.
288. AVIC AG600 recently in news is
a) World’s largest amphibious aircraft currently flying

b) Supercomputer with quantum capabilities developed in China
c) Nanosuit for advanced warfare
d) Anti-ballistic missile defence gun
Correct Answer : A
Learning: China has launched homegrown AG600, the world’s largest amphibious aircraft (currently
flying). The plane is codenamed Kunlong.
The AG600 is one of China's three "big plane projects" approved by the State Council of China, along
with the Xi'an Y-20 and C919
It is intended for both civil and military roles. In civil use, it is intended for fighting forest fires and
performing marine rescues, marine take-off and landing.
It is also intended to meet China's strategic defence needs in the South China Sea area, which has been
subject to various territorial disputes.
289. Advanced medium range surface to air missile (MRSAM), an all-weather, 360-degree mobile land based theatre
air defence system, is being developed by India in partnership with
a) USA
b) Israel
c) Russia
d) Japan
Correct Answer : B
Learning: DRDO has signed a deal with Israel Aerospace Industries (IAD for producing MRSAM system for
Indian Army by 2020.
The MR-SAM, a land-based version of long range surface to air missile (LRSAM) of Indian Navy, has strike
range of up seventy km.
It is capable of shooting down enemy ballistic missiles, aircraft, helicopters, drones, surveillance aircraft and
AWACS (Airborne Warning and Control Systems) aircraft.
The current version of MRSAM is operational with the Indian Air Force and the Navy.
290. CU L52 inducted into the Indian Navy has the primary role of
a) transporting and deploying tanks and troops from ship to the shore
b) powering the amphibious nuclear submarines
c) anchoring coast guard vehicles away from the shore
d) providing intelligence to vessels operating in high seas
Correct Answer : A
Learning: It has been indigenously designed and built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and
Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
L52 ship is an amphibious ship with the primary role to transport and deploy Main Battle
Tanks (MTBs), Armoured Vehicles, troops and equipment from ship to shore.
LCL MK-IV will be based in the Andaman and Nicobar Command. It can be deployed for
multirole activities like beaching operations, search and rescue, disaster relief operations
etc.
291. USS Gerald R Ford, recently seen in news, is
a) World’s largest nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

b) Stealth defence drone that runs entirely on solar power
c) A triad of ballistic, continental and nuclear missiles
d) The smallest submarine in the world that is being used for intelligence operations
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The United States (US) Navy has recently officially inducted USS Gerald R Ford (CVN
78), the world’s largest nuclear-powered aircraft carrier.
It is the most advanced aircraft carrier in the world.
USS Gerald Ford is first in the series of three of the futuristic ships of the Ford-class carriers ordered by
US Navy.
292. Indian Army is planning to have a total of five regiments of Medium Range Surface to Air Missiles
(MRSAM) defence system. Consider the following with reference to it.
1) It is an amphibian system.
2) It is capable of engaging multiple aerial targets.
3) It is a mobile all-weather system.
4) It will be deployed opposite to China and Pakistan.

a) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 only
d) All
Correct Answer : A
Justification: MRSAM is a land-based variant of the long-range surface-to-air missile (LRSAM) or
Barak-8 naval air defence system, which is designed to operate from naval vessels.
Statement 1 and 3: MRSAM is an advanced, all weather, mobile, land-based air defence system.
Statement 2: It can shoot down enemy ballistic missiles, aircraft, helicopters, drones, surveillance
aircraft and AWACS aircraft.
Statement 4: This is what the Indian army is guarding against, all the time.
Learning: In April this year, India had inked a nearly $2 billion missile defence contract with Israel
for supplying advanced medium-range surface-to-air missile systems (MRSAM) to India
293. United States Navy successfully tested the world’s first-ever active Laser Weapons System (LaWS).
Consider the following about it.
1) It operates within an invisible part of the electromagnetic spectrum.
2) It is absolutely silent in its operation.
3) It does not require electrical power and operates by converting sun’s rays into laser beams.
4) Its system has special materials that release photons at the speed of light.

a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) All
Correct Answer : A
Justification: It strikes are extremely accurate, silent and invisible. It is primarily intended to take
on drones, aircraft, and small vessels that could be used in an attack.
The system has special materials that release photons at the speed of light. It silently hits the target,
burning it to a temperature of thousands of degrees.
It can even target a single component of an enemy target and disable or destroy it as necessary.
Each strike of the system travels 50,000 times the speed of an incoming ICBM (Intercontinental
Ballistic Missile).
Its precise nature can also limit collateral damage in wartime. Its cost per use is approximately $1
per shot.
The system requires electrical power and a three-man team.
294. LCU Mark-IV vessels have been designed for multipurpose amphibious operations jointly carried
out Indian Navy and Indian Army to ensure maritime security of
a) Andamans and Lakshadweep islands
b) Sundarban Delta
c) High seas near Gujarat oil fields
d) Gulf of Mannar Reserve
Correct Answer : A
Learning: It has 90% indigenous content.
It is capable of carrying two tanks or four special vehicles and over hundred troops for landing at
remote beach heads.
It can be deployed for multiple activities like operations for landing troops ashore, humanitarian aid
and disaster relief operations and evacuation of personnel from distant islands.
295. ‘Mission Purpose’, ‘Breakthrough Starshot’ and ‘Sprites’ were recently seen in news in
context of
a) Interstellar missions
b) Cost effective sea water desalination plants
c) Autonomous self-driving cars
d) Genetically engineered clonal species
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Starshot is a comprehensive space program launched under the US $100 million
Breakthrough Initiatives, announced by Yuri Milner and Stephen Hawking to develop and
launch practical interstellar space missions.
The program aims to demonstrate proof of concept for light-propelled spacecraft that could fly
at 20 per cent of light speed.
Its main objective is to send one-gram chips to star systems beyond the solar system in search
of extraterrestrial intelligence.
Mission Purpose was designed to test the performance of the ‘Sprites’ (tiniest satellite)
electronics when in orbit.
It will also explore the concept of solar sail propulsion in which spacecraft can be powered
using only the sun’s radiation.
Sprites have been developed by researchers at Cornell University. Each of the mini Sprite
spacecrafts are built on a single 3.5*3.5 cm circuit board. They weigh just four grams each.
These tiny satellites also mark the next step in the field of spacecraft miniaturization that can
contribute to the development of centimeter and gram-scale StarChips envisioned under the
Breakthrough Starshot project.
296. Muntra, recently rolled out by the Defense Research and Development Organization
(DRDO) is a/an
a) Unmanned remotely operated tank

b) Stealth land mine
c) Indigenously developed fifth generation aircraft
d) Airborne Radar system for fighter planes
Correct Answer : A
Learning: It is India’s first unmanned, remotely operated tank at its Chennai lab.
It can be used for surveillance, mine detection and reconnaissance in areas with nuclear and
biological threats.
It is also likely to be used in Naxal-hit areas.
297. Recently seen in news, QueSST is
a) A Quiet Supersonic transport aircraft design by NASA

b) An interstellar mission of Space X
c) A new technology for improving air flow in scuba diver suits
d) A method for breaking non-biodegradable enzymes
Correct Answer : A
Learning: NASA has reached a major milestone in developing a quieter supersonic passenger jet that
is capable of safely travelling over land.
The project falls under the ambit of NASA’s Commercial Supersonic Technology Project.
Quiet Supersonic Transport (QueSST) aircraft design is the initial design stage of NASA’s planned
Low Boom Flight Demonstration (LBFD) experimental airplane. The LBFD is also known as X-plane.
With this development, NASA is a step closer to actually building an X-plane.
DEFENCE EXERCISES
298. MILAN 2018, recently seen in news, is a mega multinational event concerning
a) Muga Silk
b) Navy exercises
c) Information Technology
d) Food processing industry
Correct Answer : B
Learning: MILAN is a congregation of littoral navies conducted biennially by Indian Navy at the
Andaman and Nicobar Islands, under the aegis of the Andaman and Nicobar Command.
It aims to showcase the rich heritage and pristine natural beauty of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands to
the foreign visitors.
Besides fostering co-operation through naval exercises and professional interactions, MILAN also
provides an excellent opportunity to the participating navies to come together in a spirit of collaboration
and mutual understanding to nurture stronger ties.
Andaman & Nicobar Command will host the multinational mega event. Theme for this year is ‘Friendship
Across the Seas’.
299. Blue Flag-17’, recently seen in news, is a
a) Strategic check post of the Indian army near Aksai Chin

b) Second Marine aircraft carrier to be inducted by the Indian Navy
c) Joint military exercise between India and Israel
d) Chinese air force base in the Indian Ocean posing potential threat to India
Correct Answer : C
Learning: A contingent of the Indian Air Force went to Israel to participate in exercise ‘Blue Flag-17’.
Blue Flag is a bi-annual multilateral exercise which aims to strengthen military cooperation amongst
participating nations.
The exercise would provide a platform for sharing of knowledge, combat experience and in improving
operational capability of the participating nations.
This is the first time the Indian Air Force is operating with Israeli AF in a multilateral exercise setting.
1) INDRA 2017 is a mega military exercise held between India and Russia.
2) VASTRA 2017 is a naval silk expedition to be organized between India and China.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: India and Russia will hold a mega military exercise- Indra, in October.
It will be for the first time that India will participate in a tri-services military exercise with a foreign
country with such a large-scale participation by the Navy, the Army and the Air Force (IAF).
Statement 2: The 6th edition of VASTRA i.e. “VASTRA – An International Textile and Apparel Fair
2017” (VASTRA – 2017) was recently inaugurated at Jaipur.
Rajasthan State Industrial Development and Investment Corporation Ltd. (RIICO) is the organiser and
Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) is the co-organiser of the fair.
It is a platform to enter into JVs, strategic alliances and partnerships worldwide, launch new products, as
well as, harness new locations for setting up businesses in India.
301. SLINEX 2017, recently in news, was a
a) Major conference on alternative sustainable energy sources

b) India-Sri Lanka joint maritime naval exercise
c) Optical fibre communication line setup by major ISPs of India
d) Ransomware quarantined by McAfee
Correct Answer : B
Learning: SLINEX is a series of biennial bilateral maritime exercises between India and
Sri Lanka.
Initiated in 2005, it has the mandate to enable navies of both countries to rehearse and
improve their own capabilities and enhance operational effectiveness required to maintain
maritime security in the region.
SLINEX 2017 focused on fleet work, seamanship, communication, replenishment at sea as

well as helicopter operations.
BIOTECHNOLOGY
302. The term ‘Punnett Square’ deals with
a) Categorization of ecological habitats

b) Credit rating of companies
c) Sovereign Debt rating
d) Genetic breeding
Correct Answer : D
Learning: The Punnett square is a diagram that is used to predict an outcome of a particular cross or
breeding experiment.
The diagram is used by biologists to determine the probability of an offspring having a particular
genotype.
More complicated crosses can be made by looking at two or more genes. The Punnett square works,
however, only if the genes are independent of each other, which means that having a particular allele of
gene "A" does not alter the probability of possessing an allele of gene "B".
Note: Alleles are alternative forms of a gene that arise by mutation.
303. What are the advantages of Plastic Organic Light Emitting Diode Screens (POLED) over conventional
AMOLED screens and/or IPS LCD Screens?
1) POLED is usually brighter than IPS LCD Screens, more visible during daylight and capable of carrying
more colours.
2) POLED provides current to every pixel individually as against AMOLED which provides current to an
entire row of LED one at a time.
3) POLED is usually thinner than conventional AMOLED.
4) POLED is less susceptible to cracking and shattering from dropping than conventional AMOLED.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) All
Correct Answer : B
Concept: These are technologies used in the screens of smartphones/tablets or PCs. Each type of screen
has its own advantages and trade-offs relating to durability, power consumption, quality of display and
flexibility.
OLED (Organic Light Emitting Diodes) is a flat light emitting technology, made by placing a series of
organic thin films between two conductors.
When electrical current is applied, a bright light is emitted. OLEDs are emissive display that do not require
a backlight and so are thinner and more efficient than LCD displays (which do require a white backlight).
OLEDs are organic because they are made from carbon and hydrogen.
POLED is an OLED panel that uses plastic as a substrate.
OLED display offer improved image quality - better contrast, higher brightness, fuller viewing angle, a
wider color range and much faster refresh rates and lower power consumption over an LCD display.
Justification: Statement 2: PMOLED is an OLED control scheme in which each row or line in the display
is controlled sequentially and one-by-one. In other words, passive matrix provides current to an entire row
of LED one at a time.
On the other hand, AMOLED or active-matrix OLED is a control scheme that uses thin-film transistor
backplane to actively maintain a particular pixel state while other pixels are being addressed at the same
time. This scheme allows each pixel to be controlled individually.
Statement 1: IPS LCD is essentially brighter than OLED because of the addition of backlighting. This
means that a POLED can be difficult to view outdoors or under direct sunlight.
Also, one of the notable disadvantages of POLED is a shorter lifespan than IPS LCD or TN LCD panels.
Statement 3: Typical AMOLED panels such as the Super AMOLED panel from Samsung use glass
substrate. Using plastic substrates gives POLED several advantages.
One of the advantages of POLED over conventional AMOLED is thinness. The plastic substrate is
considerably half as thin as glass substrates, thus allowing manufacturers to produce thinner display panels
that can be fitted into thinner devices.
Another advantage of POLED is flexibility. Take note that LG G Flex was the first smartphone to feature
a curved display thanks to its POLED panel.
Plastic is essentially more flexible than glass. It is also worth mentioning that glass is rigid while plastic
is easier to form into new shapes.
Statement 4: Plastic OLED is also more durable than typical AMOLED. The flexibility of plastic gives
some additional shock absorbance over glass. This durability also means POLED is less susceptible to
cracking and shattering from dropping.
304. DNA sequencing can be used to
1) Detect genetic disorders

2) Identify genetic variations within and across species
3) Understand whether genetic variations are associated with health conditions

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Determining the order of DNA building blocks (nucleotides) in an individual's
genetic code, called DNA sequencing, has advanced the study of genetics and is one technique used to
test for genetic disorders.
Statement 2 and 3: With next-generation sequencing, it is now feasible to sequence large amounts of
DNA, for instance all the pieces of an individual's DNA that provide instructions for making proteins.
These pieces, called exons, are thought to make up 1 percent of a person's genome.
Together, all the exons in a genome are known as the exome.
Because most known mutations that cause disease occur in exons, whole exome sequencing is thought to
be an efficient method to identify possible disease-causing mutations.
Continued study of exome and genome sequences can help determine whether new genetic variations are
associated with health conditions, which will aid disease diagnosis in the future.
1) Phototrophic bio-film microbial fuel cell (MFCs) does not require the use of photosynthetic
microorganisms.
2) A MFC can generate energy using electrochemically active bacteria.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : B
Concept: A microbial fuel cell is a device that converts chemical energy to electrical energy by the
catalytic reaction of microorganisms.
A typical microbial fuel cell consists of anode and cathode compartments separated by a cation (positively
charged ion) specific membrane. In the anode compartment, fuel is oxidized by microorganisms,
generating CO2, electrons and protons.
Electrons are transferred to the cathode compartment through an external electric circuit, while protons
are transferred to the cathode compartment through the membrane.
Justification: Statement 1: Phototrophic biofilm MFCs (PBMFCs) are the ones that make use
photosynthetic microorganism like chlorophyta, cyanophyta etc., since they could carry out
photosynthesis and thus they act as both producers of organic metabolites and also as electron donors
Statement 2: Some MFCs use electrochemically active bacteria to transfer electrons to the electrode
(electrons are carried directly from the bacterial respiratory enzyme to the electrode).
Some MFC's produce electric current by the bacterial decomposition of organic compounds in water.
But, there are microbial electrolysis cells (MEC) also which reverse this process to generate hydrogen or
methane by applying a voltage to bacteria.
306. Consider the following about Molecular machines.
1) They convert chemical energy into mechanical forces and motion.

2) Ribosome is an example of a molecular machine.
3) Molecular machines can be put to work as tiny motors rotating objects far bigger than their size.

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Concept: They are the world’s smallest machines. Their working is inspired by proteins that naturally act
as biological machines within cells.
Molecular machines are discrete number of synthetic molecular components fused together.
They produce quasi-mechanical movements in response to specific external stimuli such as light or
temperature change.
They are either natural or synthetic molecules that convert chemical energy into mechanical forces and
motion.
Justification: Statement 2: Ribosomes are the protein builders or the protein synthesizers of the cell. They
are like construction guys who connect one amino acid at a time and build long chains. Ribosomes are
special because they are found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Another example of a biological motor is the protein kinesin, which uses the hydrolysis of adenosine
triphosphate to move along microtubule filaments.
2016 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was based on the individual efforts in developing molecular machines.
Learning: Molecular machines can be put to work as tiny motors, pistons ratchets or wheels to produce
mechanical motion and can move objects many time their size.
Future Potential Applications include their functions as artificial muscles to power tiny robots or even
prosthetic limbs in case of Bionics, new sensors, materials and energy storage systems, deliver drugs
within the human body directly to target a specific area of tissue etc
307. The ‘B4’ Boat Labs are located along which of the following major rivers?
a) Ganges
b) Brahmaputra
c) Godavari
d) Indus
Correct Answer : B
Learning: – B4 is the ‘Brahmaputra Biodiversity and Biology Boat’.

Despite supporting considerable biodiversity, the Brahmaputra has not been studied as extensively as the
Amazon.
The Centre plans to safeguard the fast-eroding Majuli Island using research carried out on floating ‘B4’
boat labs along the Brahmaputra River.
The project will “constantly monitor” the impact of various environmental and anthropological factors
that affect the river and conduct research to mitigate the effects.
Majuli Island was once 1200 square kilometres but due to excessive erosion has since shrunk to under
500 square kilometres. Majuli Island is the biggest river island in the world toppling Marajo in Brazil.
The island is formed by the Brahmaputra River in the south and Subanisri River in the North. It is the 1st
island district of the country.
308. Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of tissue culture?
1) The production of plants from seeds that otherwise have very low chances of germinating and growing
2) Possibility of recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants
3) The production of plants in sterile containers that allows them to be moved with greatly reduced
chances of transmitting diseases

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : C
Learning: It is a collection of techniques used to maintain or grow plant cells, tissues or organs under
sterile conditions on a nutrient culture medium of known composition.
It is widely used to produce clones of a plant in a method known as micropropagation. Advantages over
traditional methods of propagation:
The production of exact copies of plants that produce particularly good flowers, fruits, or have other
desirable traits.
To quickly produce mature plants.
The production of multiples of plants in the absence of seeds or necessary pollinators to produce seeds.
The regeneration of whole plants from plant cells that have been genetically modified.
The production of plants in sterile containers that allows them to be moved with greatly reduced chances
of transmitting diseases, pests, and pathogens.
The production of plants from seeds that otherwise have very low chances of germinating and growing,
i.e.: orchids and Nepenthes.
To clean particular plants of viral and other infections and to quickly multiply these plants as 'cleaned
stock' for horticulture and agriculture.
Plant tissue culture relies on the fact that many plant cells have the ability to regenerate a whole plant
(totipotency).
309. Nutriepigenomics is the study of
a) Contribution of potential genetic and environmental risk factors to human birth

b) Human skin diseases caused due to lack of nutrition
c) Food nutrients and their effects on human health through epigenetic modifications
d) Top layer of soil and the genetic changes it can bring to a standing crop
Correct Answer : C
Learning: There is now considerable evidence that nutritional imbalances during gestation and lactation
are linked to non-communicable diseases, such as obesity, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, hypertension,
and cancer.
If metabolic disturbances occur during critical time windows of development, the resulting epigenetic
alterations can lead to permanent changes in tissue and organ structure or function and predispose
individuals to disease.
Epigenetics relates to heritable changes in gene function that occur independently of alterations in primary
DNA sequence.
The period of development in which the nutritional imbalance occurs is very important in determining
which disease-related genes will be affected.
Different organs have critical developmental stages, and the time point at which they are compromised
will predispose individuals to specific diseases.
Epigenetic modifications that occur during development may not be expressed until later in life depending
on the function of the gene.
While the majority of studies implicate prenatal and perinatal periods as critical time windows, some
research has shown that nutritional intake during adulthood can also affect the epigenome.
310. CRISPER, TALENS and RNAi, frequently in news, are technologies associated with
a) Genome Manipulation
b) Space Exploration
c) Disaster Management
d) Nano-technology
Correct Answer : A
Learning: CRISPR (other two not needed to be explained here) is an acronym for Clustered Regularly
Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeat.
This name refers to the unique organization of short, partially palindromic repeated DNA sequences found
in the genomes of bacteria and other microorganisms.
While seemingly innocuous, CRISPR sequences are a crucial component of the immune systems of these
simple life forms.
The immune system is responsible for protecting an organism’s health and well-being. Just like us,
bacterial cells can be invaded by viruses, which are small, infectious agents.
If a viral infection threatens a bacterial cell, the CRISPR immune system can thwart the attack by
destroying the genome of the invading virus.
The genome of the virus includes genetic material that is necessary for the virus to continue replicating.
Thus, by destroying the viral genome, the CRISPR immune system protects bacteria from ongoing viral
infection.
A DBT Task Force’s purpose is to help establish accessible facilities on some emerging technologies.
Genome Manipulation, Editing and Interference by CRISPER, TALENS and RNAi
Nucleic Acid Chips for genetic variations and chromatin remodelling
Single Cell Genomics and Mass-Cytometry
311. National Certification System for Tissue Culture Raised Plants (NCS-TCP) is being implemented
by Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Govt. of India which
1) Builds capacities of the tissue culture companies for producing quality planting material
2) Enhances the market reach of tissue culture companies through a certification process by NCS-TCP

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: The DBT, Ministry of Science & Technology, Government of India, as authorized under
section-8 of seeds act 1966, vide gazette notification dated 10th march 2006, is the Certification Agency
for the purpose of certification of the tissue culture raised propagules up to laboratory level and to regulate
its genetic fidelity as prescribed.
NCS-TCP is unique, dynamic and comprehensive system which is one of its kind in the world.
Tissue culture production facilities get recognition under this quality management system based on
compliance with technical capabilities, infrastructure, package of practices and documentation/ record
keeping.
Once the tissue culture production facility is recognized they become eligible to get there tissue culture
raised planting material certified from ATL.
The certified batches of tissue culture raised plants are provided with certification labels enabled with
barcode.
This barcode provide end users to trace back history of plants from where the tissue culture raised planting
material are derived.
312. Consider the following about Cryo-electron microscopy.
1) It refers to the microscopy of frozen objects.

2) It can only be used to study objects greater than a nanometre.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: “Cryo”, short for cryogenic refers to very low temperatures. Though the actual temperature
is not well defined, it is below minus 150°C.
In the context of electron microscopy, it refers to the fact that the object to be imaged is frozen to such
low temperatures to facilitate being studied under the beam of the electron microscope.
This method is so effective that even in recent times, it has been used to image the elusive Zika virus:
When researchers began to suspect that the Zika virus was causing the epidemic of brain-damaged
newborns in Brazil, they turned to cryo-EM to visualise the virus.
Over a few months, three dimensional (3D) images of the virus at atomic resolution were generated and
researchers could start searching for potential targets for pharmaceuticals.
313. Consider the following: Fluorescent in-situ hybridization (FISH)
1) is a physical mapping approach that uses fluorescein tags to detect hybridization

2) is used for finding specific features in DNA for use in species identification

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: It is not necessary that you may understand this concept, nor is it possible for us to explain
all technical terms that entail in the following text. Please get a basic idea of what this technique is about.
FISH is a molecular cytogenetic technique that uses fluorescent probes that bind to only those parts of the
chromosome with a high degree of sequence complementarity.
It was developed by biomedical researchers in the early 1980s and is used to detect and localize the
presence or absence of specific DNA sequences on chromosomes.
Fluorescence microscopy can be used to find out where the fluorescent probe is bound to the
chromosomes.
FISH is often used for finding specific features in DNA for use in genetic counseling, medicine, and
species identification.
FISH can also be used to detect and localize specific RNA targets (mRNA, lncRNA and miRNA) in cells,
circulating tumor cells, and tissue samples. In this context, it can help define the spatial- temporal patterns
of gene expression within cells and tissues.
314. Embryo transfer technology (ETT) can be a potential tool in
1) Livestock breed improvement

2) Transgenesis
3) Producing more number of offsprings than possible through conventional breeding techniques
4) Biodiversity conservation

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All
Correct Answer : D
Concept: Embryo Transfer Technology (ETT) is a technique used to increase the reproduction rate of
cows and buffaloes. Theoretically, a cow/ a buffalo can produce one calf a year that makes its reproductive
rate lower. Every 21 days it comes into heat and releases one egg (ovum).
If the animal is mated to a bull at the right time during the heat or inseminated artificially, the egg is
fertilized which results into a pregnancy. The animal would deliver a calf after about 280 days of gestation
in cows and 310 days in buffaloes.
Due to low reproduction rate, the genetic contribution of cows to next generation was minimal. However,
the bull at the same time (one year) can make about 10000 cows pregnant and thus contributes its genes
to large number of animals in future population.
However, with ET, now a cow can produce 5-10 calves in a year. Embryo transfer simply means collection
of an embryo from a donor female and its transfer to the uterus of a recipient female of the same species.
For a successful transfer it is essential that the embryo should be of transferable quality and at the Stage
of “compact morula” or “blastocyst”), the estrus cycles of both donor and recipient females be properly
synchronized, and both collection and transfer procedures are carried out in most hygienic environment
without even slightest injury to genitalia of either donor or recipient.
All these requirements make the technique a difficult one to be propagated under village conditions.
Theoretically, an embryo can be collected from a cow every 35-40 days i.e. about 10 embryos in a year.
However, scientists now have evolved methods for stimulating the ovaries of a cow to produce many eggs
in a cycle by injecting FSH hormone
This process is known as Superovulation.

Justification: Statement 1: It should be clear from the concept described above.
Statement 2: Transgenesis is the process of introducing an exogenous gene, called a transgene, into a
living organism so that the organism will exhibit a new property and transmit that property to its offspring.
S3 and 4: For e.g. Department of Animal husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries in co-operation with 12 States
has undertaken a Mass Embryo Transfer programme in Indigenous Breeds under the scheme, National
Mission on Bovine Productivity.
Under this scheme, embryos of higher genetic merit indigenous bovines are being transferred in to
surrogate cows. Embryos of Indigenous breeds such as Sahiwal, Gir, Red Sindhi, Ongole, Deoni and
Vechur have been proposed to be transferred under this programme.
Through the use of ETT, (i) a farmer can get a 5-6 fold increase in number of offsprings , (ii) the calves
so born will be of high genetic merit and (iii) the offsprings born will be free from diseases.
It has been planned to carry out 440 embryo transfers during October 2-10, 2017 throughout the country.
315. Embryo transfer technology (ETT) has revolutionized the breeding strategies in bovines as a tool
to optimise the genetic improvement in cattle. What are benefits of using ETT?
1) It leads to a decrease in the number of offspring resulting in improved feed and nutrition to the existing
offspring.
2) The offsprings born using this method will be free from diseases.
3) It is a potential tool in livestock transgenesis and diversity conservation.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: ETT is a potential tool in livestock genetic engineering. It consists of a series of integrated
sequential steps from donor selection, donor treatment for superovulation, insemination of the
superovulated donor, embryo recovery, etc.
Statement 1 and 2: A farmer can get a 5-6 fold increase in the number of offspring. The calves so born
will be of high genetic merit.
In a bid to conserve indigenous breed of cattle, the government has undertaken a Mass Embryo Transfer
programme in Indigenous Breeds under the scheme, National Mission on Bovine Productivity.
Statement 3: Transgenesis is the process of introducing an exogenous gene—called a transgene—into a
living organism so that the organism will exhibit a new property and transmit that property to its offspring.
316. Karyotype refers to
1) Number and morphological appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell

2) Arrangement of mRNAs in the nucleotide of a plant cell

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: We will be covering some technical terms that are not related to the syllabus prescribed for
a particular test, but may be important from the point of view of UPSC.
It is not important that you understand these terms exhaustively. A basic idea is sufficient.
The term karyotype refers to the number and morphological appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus
of a eukaryotic cell.
A eukaryote is any organism whose cells have a cell nucleus and other organelles enclosed within
membranes.
Karyotypes describe the morphological features and apparent abnormalities (if any) of chromosomes. In
the karyotyping, the metaphase chromosomes are Stained and arranged manually or by computerized
programmes in a specified pattern.
317. Consider the following about Innovate in India (i3) programme.
1) It is a Government-Industry partnership to search for innovative ideas from rural grassroots and provide
them with mentorship and incubation support
2) It was established on the behest of the World Bank (WB) and supported by the International Chambers
of Commerce.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Towards strengthening the emerging biotechnology enterprise in India, Department of

Biotechnology (DBT), Ministry of Science & Technology has initiated the Mission programme entitled:
Industry-Academia Collaborative Mission for Accelerating Discovery Research to Early Development
for Biopharmaceuticals – “Innovate in India (i3) Empowering biotech entrepreneurs & accelerating
inclusive innovation”.
This Mission of the Department was approved and formally launched in 2017.
S2: The Mission has been approved at a total cost of US$250 million for five years with 50% funding
through World Bank Loan, with an aim to make India a hub for design and development of novel,
affordable and effective biopharmaceutical products such as vaccines, biologics and medical devices for
combating public health concerns. It wasn’t established by WB or formally supported by the ICC.
This Programme of DBT would strengthen translational capability of academic researchers; empower bio-
entrepreneurs and SMEs by decreasing the cost and risk during early stages of product development and
also elevate the innovation quotient of the industry.
The global experience of World Bank would be instrumental in building sustained global linkages,
technical assistance and knowledge flow between public private partners for business promotion in
biotech sector.

1) Innovate in India (i3) program offers young entrepreneurs an avenue to engage with the best practices in the
domestic financial and banking industry.
2) National Biopharma Mission will concentrate, inter alia, on development of medical devices and
biotherapeutics to upgrade India’s product development capabilities to globally competitive levels.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: i3 is a flagship program of the Government of India in collaboration with World Bank.
It is committed to make India a hub for design and development of novel, affordable and effective
biopharmaceutical products and solutions by engaging with entrepreneurs.
It will strive to increase India’s global biopharmaceutical market share from current 2.8% to 5% and generate
additional business opportunity of $16 billion.
Statement 2 (S2): It will bring together expertise from national and international corridors to provide strategic
direction and guidance to move promising solutions through the product development value chain.
The mission will be implemented by Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC), a PSU of
Department of Biotechnology.
Besides, it will also work on establishment of shared infrastructure and facilities and at the same time creating and
enhancing technology transfer capabilities in public and private sector.
319. India-Canada ‘IMPACTS’ centre focuses on
a) Clean Water technology
b) Uranium testing
c) Skilled labour immigration services
d) Shipping transport development
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The Department of Biotechnology and Department of Science and Technology are
collaborating with Canada through the India-Canada Centre for Innovation Multi-disciplinary
Partnerships to Accelerate Community Transformation and Sustainability (IC-IMPACTS), on
programme focusing on Clean Water technology.
Technologies that are being developed are:

Bio-sensors for detection of toxins
Heavy metal detection and removal
Bio-recovery from waste water

These technologies are currently being developed with the aim that these technologies will be used in
India.
320. CRISPR, recently seen in news, is a
a) Powerful gene editing technique

b) Space probe to Jupiter
c) Electronic storage device capable of very large data storage
d) Supercomputer inducted by India
Correct Answer : A
Concept: CRISPR, short for clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats, was named
“2015 Breakthrough of the Year” by the U.S. journal Science.
It allows scientists to selectively edit genome parts and replace them with new DNA stretches.
Cas9 is an enzyme that can edit DNA, allowing the alteration of genetic patterns by genome
modification.
CRISPR is a collection of DNA sequences that direct Cas9 where to cut and paste.
Application: Scientists have successfully encoded a movie in the DNA of a living cell, where it can
be retrieved at will and multiplied indefinitely as the host divides and grows.
It is the latest and perhaps most astonishing example of the genome’s potential as a vast storage device.
The geneticists ended up with a sequence of DNA molecules that represented the entirety of the film.
Then they used a powerful new gene editing technique, Crispr, to slip this sequence into the genome
of a common gut bacteria, E. coli.
Despite the modification, the bacteria thrived and multiplied. The film stored in the genome was
preserved intact with each new generation of progeny.
321. The Department of Biotechnology has initiated two farmer-centric programmes Biotech Kisan and
Cattle Genomics. Consider the following about them.
1) Cattle Genomics programme intends to select elite breeding animal at an early age by identifying
genetic worth of animals.
2) Biotech Kisan programme focuses on creating strong scientists-farmers interactive platform to
solve problems of farmers with technology.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Biotech Kisan hubs have been recommended to be setup in seven agro-
climatic zones under this programme.
These Biotech Kisan hub’s will understand problems of farmers related to water, soil, seed and
marketing and provide solutions with validated technologies.
Under the programme thematic farmer fellowship as well as fellowships to women farmers (Mahila
Kisan Biotech Fellowship) will be awarded.
Statement 2: The cattle genomics programme is being implemented by National Institute of Animal
Biotechnology, an autonomous Institute funded by the Department.
It is currently in research mode. The main objective is to predict breeding values of animal, using
DNA level information with performance record, more accurately and identify genetic worth of
animal (elite animal) at an early age.
The ability to select elite breeding animal at an early age will help in enhancing productivity at
farmer’s level in future.
322. With reference to the technology, SurfNet, that was recently seen in news, consider the
following:
1) It is an artificial intelligence (AI) based software.
2) It can construct 3D models from 2D shapes.
3) It is presently being used for printing tissues and organelles of human beings.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: SurfNet software utilizes machine learning to analyze 2D shapes

and convert them into projected 3D forms.
In an advance version, it can allow future robots to navigate in the real world.
In addition to transforming 2D shapes, the technology can also merge two shapes into one
another.
Statement 3: They were already being printed. Also, this is only a software, not a 3D printer.
Learning (applications): In future it can even be used in object recognition and self-driving
cars. SurfNet will give them ability to understand the 3D environment around them using
standard 2D cameras.
It can also be used to create 3D content for virtual reality (VR) and augmented reality (AR) by
simply using standard 2D photos.
323. A microbial consortium called SONA was recently seen in news. It is related to
a) Bio-remediation of oil spills

b) Identifying gold mines using microbes without physical exploration
c) Improving jute cultivation yield
d) Treatment of sewage sites
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Improved Cultivation and Advanced Retting Exercise for Jute (Jute – ICARE)
was launched in 2015 to popularize/introduce some of the better agronomic practices and
recently developed microbial-assisted retting among farmers.
Central Research Institute for Research in Jute and Allied Fibres (CRIJAF) has also recently
developed a microbial consortium called SONA, to enhance the quantity of fibre yield by 20%
as well as its quality in terms of grade by at least 1 ½ grades.
Also, under the project, regular SMSes are sent in regional languages on improved practices
in jute cultivation, to registered farmers.
324. What is the difference between Generic drugs and brand-name medicines?
1) Generic drugs use an alternative cheaper Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient (API) for
making the same medicine.
2) Generic drugs are not subject to any regulatory constraints.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: They are copycat versions of brand-name products and — to a point — their
prices are expected to drop over time.
When a brand-name drug first loses its patent protection, prices fall slowly.
Over the next couple of years, as more competitors enter the market, the prices drop even more,
until the pills become commodities and sell for pennies.
A generic drug is identical — or bioequivalent — to a brand name drug in dosage form, safety,
strength, route of administration, quality, performance characteristics and intended use.
Although generic drugs are chemically identical to their branded counterparts, they are
typically sold at substantial discounts from the branded price.
325. AngioChip, recently seen in news, is a powerful platform for
a) Discovering and testing new drugs

b) Recording evidence in criminal cases
c) Storing large amounts of grains without rotting
d) Launching anti-submarine vessels
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Some Researchers have developed a new way of growing realistic human tissues
outside the body.
Their “person-on-a-chip” technology, called AngioChip, is a tool for discovering and testing
new drugs, and could eventually be used to repair or replace damaged organs.
These tiny polymer scaffolds contain channels that are about 100 micrometres wide, about the
same diameter as a human hair.
When seeded with cells, the channels act as artificial blood vessels.
326. B4’ – the ‘Brahmaputra Biodiversity and Biology Boat’ intends to save which of the following
islands, that is fast eroding?
a) Havelock
b) Barren
c) Majuli
d) Katchal
Correct Answer : C
Learning: The Centre plans to safeguard Majuli which is Asia’s largest riverine island — using research
carried out on floating ‘B4’ boat labs along the Brahmaputra river.
‘B4’ will initially cover the region from Pasighat, Dibrigargh, Neemati, Tejpur and Guwahati in the state
of Assam.
The large boat which will be set up on the river will be a “well-equipped laboratory” with cold storage
facilities for holding samples, along with multiple satellite boats or rafts that will venture into shallower
and narrower parts of the river to lift samples.
ACTS and POLICIES
327. Consider the following: Information Technology Act, 2000
1) is the law that deals with both cybercrime and electronic commerce
2) Provides that rules are to be framed to prescribe modes or methods for encryption
3) Gives out a legal framework for electronic governance by giving recognition to electronic records and
digital signatures

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: It also defines cybercrimes and prescribed penalties for them. It also
established a Cyber Appellate Tribunal to resolve disputes arising from this new law.
It also introduced penalties for cyber terrorism and voyeurism.
Statement 3: The formations of Controller of Certifying Authorities was directed by the Act, to regulate
issuing of digital signatures.
The Act also amended various sections of Indian Penal Code, 1860, Indian Evidence Act, 1872, Banker's
Book Evidence Act, 1891, and Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 to make them compliant with new
technologies
AGRICULTURE
328. Which of the following Agronomic characteristics can be changed in crops by Hybridisation?
1) Tallness or dwarfness
2) Ability to handle abiotic stresses
3) Disease resistance
4) Response to fertilisers

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Agronomy is the science and technology of producing and using plants for food, fuel, fiber,
and land reclamation.
Agronomy has come to encompass work in the areas of plant genetics, plant physiology, meteorology,
and soil science.
Crops production can go down due to biotic (diseases, insects and nematodes) and abiotic
(drought, salinity, water logging, heat, cold and frost) stresses under different situations. Varieties resistant
to these stresses can improve crop production.
Agronomic characteristics are tallness, dwarfness etc of plants. Tallness and profuse branching are
desirable characters for fodder crops. Dwarfness is desired in cereals.
Varieties or strains of crops can be selected by breeding for various useful characteristics such as disease
resistance, response to fertilisers, product quality and high yields.
One way of incorporating desirable characters into crop varieties is by hybridisation. Hybridisation refers
to crossing between genetically dissimilar plants.
This crossing may be intervarietal (between different varieties), interspecific (between two different
species of the same genus) or intergeneric (between different genera).
Another way of improving the crop is by introducing a gene that would provide the desired characteristic.
This results in genetically modified crops.
329. Why the HT Cotton is gaining popularity?
1) It is largely grown in hydroponic culture.

2) It is a naturally bred hybrid of varied species of Bt Cotton.
3) It is tolerant to herbicides.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 3: In normal cotton, spraying of herbicide is not possible once the plant has
emerged out of the soil, as the chemical cannot distinguish between weeds and the crop itself.
But with cotton that is genetically engineered to ‘tolerate’ herbicide application – through introduction of
another alien gene, this time coding for a protein inhibiting the action of that chemical – only the weeds,
not the crop, get killed.
Statement 1: Hydroponics involve growing crops in a nutrient rich water medium. This is not the case
with this variety of cotton. It is grown on land.
Learning: However, as the unapproved cotton variety is claimed to be herbicide tolerant, farmers resort
to indiscriminate use of glyphosate, a herbicide, causing health hazards to humans and
cattle, apart from affecting the yield of cotton.
The herbicide-resistant gene could spread through pollen into the biodiversity system leading to
transformation of weeds into super weeds on a large-scale.
It would not only threaten the growth and yields of all crops in future, but also could increase cultivation
costs and lead to health hazards.
330. Why are weeds unwanted in crop farms?
1) They serve as hosts for crop diseases or provide shelter for insects to overwinter.
2) They compete with the crop for nutrients and water.
3) They reduce crop quality by contaminating the commodity.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Weeds posses one or more of the following:
abundant seed production;
rapid population establishment;
seed dormancy;
Weeds are troublesome in many ways. Primarily, they reduce crop yield by competing for water, light,
soil nutrients, and space. Other problems associated with weeds in agriculture include:
reduced crop quality by contaminating the commodity;
interference with harvest;
serve as hosts for crop diseases or provide shelter for insects to overwinter;
limit the choice of crop rotation sequences and cultural practices; and
production of chemical substances which are toxic to crop plants (allelopathy), animals, or humans
331. What is Allelopathy?
a) Beneficial or harmful effects of one plant on another plant

b) Inhibition of plant growth due to excessive use of pesticides
c) Effect of Botulism on plant germination
d) Diseases caused in plants due to excessive irrigation
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Allelopathy refers to the beneficial or harmful effects of one plant on another plant, both
crop and weed species, from the release of biochemicals, known as allelochemicals.
It is a process by which a plant releases chemicals that can inhibit its competitors.
Soil sickness, a general term for a problem that may well be caused by residues of allelochemicals that
persist in the soil after the plant is gone, may make some sites unsuitable for growing other plants.
Allelopathic chemicals can be present in any part of the plant. They can be found in leaves, flowers, roots,
fruits, or stems.
They can also be found in the surrounding soil. The toxic chemicals may inhibit shoot/root growth, they
may inhibit nutrient uptake, or they may attack a naturally occurring symbiotic relationship thereby
destroying the plant's usable source of a nutrient.
332. Which of these can be used as a bio-pesticide?

1) Bacteria
2) Viruses
3) Fungi
4) Insects

a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) All
Correct Answer : D
Justification: An example of microbial biocontrol agents that can be introduced in order to control
butterfly caterpillars is the bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis. So, 1 is correct.
Microbial pesticides also include viruses for e.g. entomopathogenic fungi or viruses. So, 2 is correct.
A biological control being developed for use in the treatment of plant disease is the fungus Trichoderma.
Trichoderma species are free-living fungi that are very common in the root ecosystems. They are effective
biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens. So, 3 is correct.
The very familiar beetle with red and black markings – the Ladybird, and Dragonflies are useful to get rid
of aphids and mosquitoes, respectively. So, 4 is also correct.
333. Which of the following argument(s) support biological control of pests and plant diseases?
1) Chemical methods of pest control kill both useful and harmful agents indiscriminately.
2) Increased biodiversity furthers plant health.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification & Learning: In agriculture, there is a method of controlling pests that relies on natural
predation rather than introduced chemicals. A key belief of the organic farmer is that biodiversity furthers
health. The more variety a landscape has, the more sustainable it is.
The organic farmer, therefore, works to create a system where the insects that are sometimes called pests
are not eradicated, but instead are kept at manageable levels by a complex system of checks and balances
within a living and vibrant ecosystem.
The organic farmer holds the view that the eradication of the creatures that are often described as pests is
not only possible, but also undesirable, for without them the beneficial predatory and parasitic insects
which depend upon them as food or hosts would not be able to survive.
334. Soil colour gives an indication of the various processes going-on in the soil as well as the type of
minerals in the soil. Consider the following with regard to this.
1) Yellow colour is due to hydrated manganese oxides.

2) Black nodules are due to poor drainage.
3) Dark colour is generally due to the accumulation of highly decayed organic matter.
4) Red colour in the soil is due to the abundance of iron oxide under oxidised conditions.

a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: The red colour in the soil is due to the abundance of iron oxide under oxidised conditions
(well-drainage) in the soil; dark colour is generally due to the accumulation of highly decayed organic
matter; yellow colour is due to hydrated iron oxides and hydroxide; black nodules are due to manganese
oxides; mottling and gleying are associated with poor drainage and/or high water table.
Abundant pale yellow mottles coupled with very low pH are indicative of possible acid sulphate soils.
Colours of soil matrix and mottles are indicative of the water and drainage conditions in the soil and hence
suitability of the soil for aquaculture.
Soil colour is described by the parameters called hue, value and chroma. Hue represents the dominant
wave length or colour of the light; value, refers to the lightness of the colour; chroma, relative purity or
strength of the colour.
1) Biochar reduces the soil fertility of acidic soils.

2) Biochar provide protection against some soil-borne diseases.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Biochar is found in soils around the world as a result of vegetation fires and historic soil
management practices. Intensive study of biochar-rich dark earths in the Amazon (terra preta), has led to
a wider appreciation of biochar’s unique properties as a soil enhancer.
Biochar is charcoal used as a soil amendment. Like most charcoal, biochar is made from biomass via
pyrolysis. Biochar is under investigation as an approach to carbon sequestration to produce negative
carbon dioxide emission.
Independently, biochar can increase soil fertility of acidic soils (low pH soils), increase agricultural
productivity, and provide protection against some foliar and soil-borne diseases.
Biochar reduces pressure on forests. Biochar is a stable solid, rich in carbon, and can endure in soil for
thousands of years
336. Which of the following can be a low-cost technique(s) to separate healthy seeds from damaged
seeds?
a) Treating the seeds with starch

b) Floating seeds on water
c) Checking whether the seed has sharp ends
d) All of the above
Correct Answer : B
Explanation: Starch is a carbohydrate consisting of a large number of glucose units. It is not useful is
checking quality of seeds. Option (a) is wrong.
Damaged seeds become hollow and are thus lighter. Therefore, they float on water. This is a good method
for separating good, healthy seeds from the damaged ones. Option (b) is correct.
Even healthy seeds of peculiar type may have sharp ends. They cannot be separated this way. Option (c)
is wrong.
337. Rhizobium that colonises legume plant’s root nodules
1) Provides food to those symbiotic species which cannot manufacture food

2) Grows by the technique of vegetative propagation

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Explanation: Rhizobium is a soil bacteria that fixes nitrogen, so it can’t manufacture food. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
Only plants are capable of growth through vegetative propagation (i.e. growing another full plant with
parts of a plant). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Learning: Both bacteria and blue-green algae can fix nitrogen directly from the atmosphere, but this is
less vital to plant development than the symbiotic relationship between the bacteria genus Rhizobium and
leguminous plants and certain trees and shrubs.
Some nitrogen-fixing bacteria, such as Azotobacter, Clostridium pasteurianum, and Klebsiella
pneumoniae, are free-living, whereas species of Rhizobium live in an intimate association with
leguminous plants. Rhizobium organisms in the soil recognize and invade the root hairs of their specific
plant host, enter the plant tissues
In return for secretions (food) from their host that encourage their growth and multiplication
338. Magnesium deficiency in plants can cause degradation of chlorophyll in old leaves. In what type
of soil is Magnesium deficiency most likely to occur due to leaching?
a) Red soil with high loam content

b) Strongly acidic, light and sandy soils
c) Clayey soil which has high mineral adhesion
d) Any soil in areas of moderate rainfall
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Option B: In strongly acidic, light, sandy soils magnesium can be easily leached away.
Option A, C and D: In all other soils, where adhesion, denseness or less leaching occurs, magnesium may
not be leached.
Magnesium is an essential macro nutrient found from 0.2-0.4% dry matter and is necessary for normal
plant growth.
Magnesium has an important role in photosynthesis because it forms the central atom of chlorophyll.
Therefore, without sufficient amounts of magnesium, plants begin to degrade the chlorophyll in the old
leaves
Low amounts of Mg lead to a decrease in photosynthetic and enzymatic activity within the plants.
Plants deficient in magnesium also produce smaller, woodier fruits.
Excess potassium, generally due to fertilizers, further aggravates the stress from the magnesium
deficiency, as does aluminium toxicity.
Applying home-made compost mulch can prevent leaching during excessive rainfall and provide plants
with sufficient amounts of nutrients, including magnesium
339. Food processing sector will be a major growth driver in coming years. The sector thrives heavily
on food preservatives. Which of the following food preservatives are allowed as additives in India?
1) Sorbic acid
2) Benzoic acid
3) Dextrose
4) Gamboge vegetable colour
5) Picric acid

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Any substance which is capable of inhibiting, retarding or arresting the growth
of microorganisms is known as a preservative
It may be a chemical or a natural substance (sugar, salt, acid).
The term preservative includes fumigants, e.g., ethylene oxide and ethyl formate, used to control
microorganisms on spices, nut and dried fruits.
Classification of preservatives
Class I
Common salt, Sugar ,Dextrose, Glucose ,Wood smoke, Spices, Vinegar, Honey
Class II
Benzoic acid, sulphurous acid
Nitrates / nitrites of sodium/ potassium in respect of foods like ham, pickled meat.
Sorbic acid- sodium, potassium & calcium salts etc
The Global Information and Early Warning System on Food and Agriculture (GIEWS)
1) Continuously monitors food supply and demand and other key indicators for assessing the overall food
security situation in all countries of the world
2) Provides early warnings of impending food crises at country or regional level through objective reports

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: FAO’s Global Information and Early Warning System (GIEWS) was established in 1975
in the wake of the world food crisis of the early 1970s.
The System has the mandate to continuously monitor the global food supply and demand situation and
alert the international community of countries or regions threatened by serious food shortages or which
have exceptional localised or exportable surpluses of food available for donor purchases and distribution
to deficit areas.
One of the System’s exceptional assets lies in the vast database at its disposal on global, regional, national
and sub-national food security which is continuously updated and refined.
Through its monitoring, analysis and early warning activities, GIEWS provides a significant contribution
mainly to three of the Organization’s Strategic Objectives (SOs):
SO1: Implementation of the GIEWS Food Price Monitoring and Analysis (FPMA) Tool at country level
enhances accessibility of price data and strengthens national capacities to monitor price trends
contributing to improved policy decisions for food security.
SO4: Commodity supply/demand and price databases, as well as related indices and analysis, are kept up
to date, providing governments and national stakeholders timely, accurate information on which to base
the design of efficient and inclusive market and trade strategies.
SO5: Regular assessments at country level of agriculture, food supply and demand, and market situation,
permits timely alerts on production and food security shocks. In addition, GIEWS provides support to
national institutions, including training on food security analysis
and implementation of monitoring tools, to strengthen national early warning systems.
341. The farmers mix lime with soil while farming their fields to
a) Make soil water logged

b) Reduce the porosity of the soil
c) Maintain the water content in the soil
d) Decrease the acidity of the soil
Correct Answer : D
Justification & Learning: Acidic soils create production problems by limiting the availability of some
essential plant nutrients and increasing that of the soil solution's toxic elements, such as aluminum and
manganese, the major cause of poor crop performance and failure in acidic soils.
Soil acidity can be corrected easily by liming the soil, or adding basic materials to neutralize the acid
present.
The most commonly used liming material is agricultural limestone, the most economical and relatively
easy to manage source.
The limestone is not very water-soluble, making it easy to handle.
As lime dissolves in the soil, calcium (Ca) moves to the surface of soil particles, replacing the acidity.
The acidity reacts with the carbonate (CO3) to form carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O). The result
is a soil that is less acidic (has a higher pH).
342. Paralleling the Arctic Seed Vault, the ICAR and DRDO have established an Indian seed vault to
protect important genetic material in case of a major man-made or natural disaster in
a) Ladakh
b) Nanda Devi
c) Kanchendzonga
d) Karakoram Pass
Correct Answer : A
Justification: India’s seed vault is located in Chang La (Ladakh) in the Himalayas, at a height of 17,300
feet. There is a storage facility with over 5,000 seed accessions.
The vault is a joint venture of the National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (which comes under the
Indian Council of Agricultural Research) and the Defence Institute of High Altitude Research (under
Defence Research and Development Organisation).
Learning: Norway has announced it will spend 100 million Norwegian crowns, or $13 million, to make
improvements to a special seed vault in the Arctic.
It has the ability to hold about 2.5 billion seeds in total.
The Norwegian government built the Svalbard Global Seed Vault in 2008 to store seed samples of the
world’s crops and plants.
The vault serves as a natural deep freeze, and is meant to protect important genetic material in case of a
major man-made or natural disaster.
The loss of crop diversity and the vulnerability of existing seed collections in various seed/gene banks
gave birth to the idea in of establishing a back-up seed facility in Svalbard.
Depositors retain ownership rights over the seeds sent to the facility. The boxes with seeds are sealed by
the depositors and are not distributed to or given access to by anyone other than the depositors.
The cold climate and permafrost of Svalbard make the area a perfect location for underground cold
storage.
The surrounding sandstone is stable for building and is low in radiation.
In terms of security, Svalbard scores high marks compared to the locations of many other gene banks in
the world.
The vault is located an extraordinary 120 meters into the rock, ensuring that the vault rooms will remain
naturally frozen even in the event of failure of the mechanical cooling system and rising external air
temperatures due to climate change.
343. Vertical farming is the practice of producing food and medicine in vertically stacked layers or
vertically inclined surfaces. Consider the following about it.
1) Natural sunlight is not to be used in a vertical farm.
2) Vertical farms can use facilities that control humidity and temperature artificially.
3) A hydroponic farm can be integrated with vertical farming.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Vertical farms can be integrated in other structures (such as in a
skyscraper, used warehouse, or shipping container).
The modern ideas of vertical farming use indoor farming techniques and controlled- environment
agriculture (CEA) technology, where all environmental factors can be controlled.
These facilities utilize artificial control of light, environmental control (humidity, temperature, gases) and
fertigation.
Some vertical farms use techniques similar to greenhouses, where natural sunlight can be augmented with
artificial lighting and metal reflectors.
Statement 3: Hydropnics is growing crops in a water based solution, instead of growing crops in soil.
Hydroponic systems can be lit by LEDs that mimic sunlight. Software can ensure that all the plants get
the same amount of light, water and nutrients. Proper managements means that no herbicides or pesticides
are required.
344. Which of the following is NOT followed in the System of Rice Intensification (SRI)?
a) Reduced plant density

b) Improved soil conditions through enrichment with organic matter
c) Submerged paddy fields
d) Transplanting seedlings of rice plants
Correct Answer : C
Learning: SRI supports reduced and controlled water application as one of its principles.
Other principles are early, quick and healthy plant establishment (transplantation); reduced plant density
and improved soil conditions through enrichment with organic matter.
Based on these principles, farmers can adapt recommended SRI practices to respond to their
agroecological and socioeconomic conditions. S
RI principles and practices have been adapted for rainfed rice as well as for other crops (such as wheat,
sugarcane and tef, among others), with yield increases and associated economic benefits.
ENVIRONMENT
345. An Anti-smog gun to cut down pollution levels will be most required and useful in which of the
following climatic zones?
a) Arid and semi-arid climates

b) Humid subtropical climates
c) Equatorial region
d) Oceanic climate
Correct Answer : A
Justification: The Delhi government has introduced anti-smog guns to tackle the increasing pollution
levels in Delhi.
Anti-smog gun is a device that sprays atomized water into the atmosphere to reduce air pollution.
Connected to a water tank and mounted on a vehicle, the device could be taken across the city to spray
water to settle dust and other suspended particles.
The theory is that the sprayed water will cling on to the pollutants — particularly particulate matter PM2.5
and PM10 — and wash it down creating the effect of rain.
This could be of use in an arid place like Delhi. But, a place where the climate is already monsoon type
or equatorial, rain fall washes away PM in the air. Anti-smog gun is not needed.
346. Consider the following about BioCNG.
1) It is a purified form of biogas with a major content of butane and propane.

2) While it cannot be used as a vehicle fuel, it yields a good calorific value as a domestic fuel.
3) It can be obtained from pure cellulosic biomass.
4) Increased production of BioCNG in India will help reduce import dependency on petroleum products.

a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Transport sector is one of the major oil consuming sectors; it consumes 51% of the final
oil consumption (International Energy Agency, 2010).
The use of biogas-‐CNG blend in CNG vehicles is not possible without upgrading the quality of the
biogas. Biomethane is upgraded biogas which can be used in CNG vehicles as a fuel.
Statement 1: Bio-CNG is a purified form of biogas with over 95% pure methane gas. It is similar to natural
gas in its composition (97% methane) and energy potential. While natural gas is a fossil fuel, bio-CNG is
a renewable form of energy produced from agricultural and food waste. Bio-CNG is being looked at as
an environment-friendly alternative to diesel.
Statement 2: This Bio CNG can be used to power automobiles with the same efficiency as fossil fuel CNG
and is now dispensed under the brand name AgroGasTM.
Bio CNG has a high calorific value and can be used in blast furnaces; also it can be converted into
electricity
Statement 3:
Statement 4: The cost of production of 1kg of bio-CNG could be Rs15-20, cheaper than CNG, petrol and
diesel. Besides, it will help in reducing the country’s import of diesel up to 50%. It is also pollution free.
347. Earth's atmosphere is composed primarily of nitrogen and oxygen. Consider the following about
these gases.
1) These gases are transparent to outgoing solar radiation.

2) They do not absorb or emit solar or infrared radiation.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: They are transparent to outgoing infrared radiation, which means that they do not absorb
or emit solar or infrared radiation. The image below explains the absorption by different gases.
However, there are other gases in Earth's atmosphere that do absorb infrared radiation. These gases are
known as greenhouse gases.
Water vapor (H2O) is the strongest greenhouse gas, and the concentration of this gas is largely controlled
by the temperature of the atmosphere. As air becomes warmer, it can hold more moisture or water vapor.
348. Underground Coal Gasification (UCG) yields
1) Hydrogen
2) Methane
3) Carbon dioxide
4) Carbon monoxide

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) All
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Some time before, the Union Cabinet had approved a policy framework for development of
UCG in unexplored coal and lignite bearing areas in the country.
Also, Coal India Limited has planned to invest about Rs 15,000 crore for capital expenditure, supercritical
thermal power plant, solar energy and coal gasification this fiscal.
UCG is a clean coal extraction technology for extracting energy from the coal seams and lignite resources
which cannot be mined through traditional mining technology.
It is mainly an industrial process which converts coal into product gases such as methane, hydrogen, CO
and CO2 that are combusted for electricity generation.
The gasification process is carried out in non-mined coal seams using injection of oxidants which brings
the product gas to surface through production wells drilled from the surface.
349. DDT, which is also known as an insecticide, has adverse affect on ecological health because
a) It is a persistent organic pollutant.

b) It increases susceptibility to fungal infection in birds.
c) It impairs metabolic functions in plants.
d) It depletes tropospheric ozone.
Correct Answer : A
Justification: DDT is a persistent organic pollutant that is readily adsorbed to soils and sediments, which
can act both as sinks and as long-term sources of exposure contributing to terrestrial organisms. So, (a) is
correct.
Other pesticides impair metabolic functions in birds, rodents etc.
Learning: Depending on conditions, its soil half life can range from 22 days to 30 years. Routes of loss
and degradation include runoff, volatilization, photolysis and aerobic and anaerobic biodegradation. Due
to hydrophobic properties, in aquatic ecosystems DDT and its metabolites are absorbed by aquatic
organisms and adsorbed on suspended particles, leaving little DDT dissolved in the water itself.
350. What is the importance of the Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC)?
1) It is effective in disaster prevention and management as it comprises a real-time seismic monitoring

network of broadband seismic stations.
2) UNESCO has designated ITEWC as the Tsunami Service Provider for the entire Indian Ocean Region.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Natural hazards like Tsunami turn into disasters if adequate arrangements are
not made for public safety and evacuation.
With this in view, ITEWC was established at Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Sciences,
(INCOIS – ESSO) Hyderabad, an autonomous body under Ministry of Earth Sciences.
ITEWC receives data in real time from 350 seismic stations, 50 tsunami buoys and 300 tide gauges
established in the Indian as well as the other oceans by other countries and international agencies.
Since 2012, ITEWC is providing tsunami advisories and related services to about 25 countries on the
designation of Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) of UNESCO.
351. Which industrial waste is commonly used in construction industry?
a) Fly ash
b) Slag
c) Sludge
d) Red oxide
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The industrial wastes (fly ash, red mud, copper slag and silica fumes) have already been tried
in the application of cement production and partial replacement of construction materials in civil
engineering field.
Fly ash is a fine powder which is a byproduct from burning pulverized coal in electric generation power
plants.
Fly ash is a pozzolan, a substance containing aluminous and siliceous material that forms cement in the
presence of water. When mixed with lime and water it forms a compound similar to Portland cement.
The fly ash produced by coal-fired power plants provide an excellent prime material used in blended
cement, mosaic tiles, and hollow blocks among others.
Fly ash includes substantial amounts of silicon dioxide (SiO2) (both amorphous and
crystalline), aluminium oxide (Al2O3) and calcium oxide (CaO), the main mineral compounds in coal-
bearing rock strata
Assertion (A): Storing the carbon contained in organic matter within the soil is seen as one way to mitigate
climate change.
Reason (R): Soil Organic carbon (SOC) cannot be emitted back in gaseous form or lost into the
atmosphere.

Correct Answer : C
Justification: Soil organic matter (SOM) is mainly composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen but also
has small amounts of nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorous, sulphur, potassium, calcium and
magnesium contained within organic residues.
Organic matter contributes to nutrient turnover, soil structure, moisture retention and availability,
degradation of pollutants, greenhouse gas emissions and soil buffering by reducing greenhouse gas
emissions (in this case carbon dioxide) but to do this an increase in the more stable or resistant fractions
of organic matter is required.
After carbon enters the soil in the form of organic material from soil fauna and flora, it can persist in the
soil for decades, centuries or even millennia. Eventually, SOC can be lost as CO2 or CH4 emitted back
into the atmosphere, eroded soil material, or dissolved organic carbon washed into rivers and oceans
353. In mining the two terms Blackdamp and Firedamp are used to denote two important gas situations that
must be taken care of during mining operations. These gases are
1) Carbon dioxide
2) Carbon monoxide
3) Methane
4) Nitrogen Oxide

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Damps is the collective name given to all gases (other than air) found in coal mines in Great
Britain.
Blackdamp is a mining term for a build-up of carbon dioxide. This gas is not poisonous, but because it
replaces oxygen in the air, it means that people have nothing to breathe and can suffocate.
Carbon dioxide can form due to oxidation, where coal that is in contact with the air uses up the oxygen to
produce carbon dioxide. It is not usually a problem when mine workings are well ventilated. It is heavier
than air, so will lie in lower areas of a mine or in old, disused roadways.
Firedamp is flammable gas found in coal mines. It is the name given to a number of flammable gases,
especially methane.
It is particularly found in areas where the coal is bituminous. The gas accumulates in pockets in the coal
and adjacent strata, and when they are penetrated, the release can trigger explosions
354. ‘CO2 injection technology’ is used to
1) Enhance oil recovery from ageing oil fields

2) Sequester atmospheric carbon for ocean basin storage
3) Reduce the carbon content of vehicular emissions

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Concept and Justification: Under it, CO2 gas is injected with residual oil in the ageing field in which
total oil production has been declining.
It reduces its viscosity and makes it easier to displace oil from the rock pores. CO2 gas also swells oil,
thereby pushing it towards the producing well for extraction.
CO2-EOR works most commonly by injecting CO2 into already developed oil fields where it mixes with
and “releases” the oil from the formation, thereby freeing it to move to production wells. CO2 that emerges
with the oil is separated in above-ground facilities and re-injected into the formation.
CO2-EOR projects resemble a closed-loop system where the CO2 is injected, produces oil, is stored in
the formation, or is recycled back into the injection well.
Learning: While the technology is a proven concept in the West specially the US and Canada, ONGC’s
project would be the first large scale CO2-injected project in Asia. ONGC is planning to introduce CO2
injection technology in its Gandhar oil field in Gujarat.
Its purpose is to recover extra 20 million barrels of crude oil under enhanced oil recovery (EOR)
programme. EOR programme aims at recovering up to 20% of residual oil from ageing oil fields to
improve India’s energy security.
355. The Grid Edge Transformation (GET) project, that has a futuristic vision on harnessing the
potential of electricity for mankind, is an initiative of
a) World Economic Forum

b) UN Energy Division
c) World Bank
d) International Energy Institute
Correct Answer : A
Justification: The World Economic Forum initiated the Grid Edge Transformation (GET) project to
explore the impact of three trends on the electricity system: decentralization, electrification, digitalization.
These three trends act in a virtuous cycle, enabling, amplifying and reinforcing developments beyond
their individual contributions.
Their potential for disruption is fuelled by three main elements: exponential decreasing technology costs;
enabling innovative business models; more efficient electricity system asset utilization.
These trends are presently at the “grid edge” – smart and connected technologies at the end of the electric
power grid.
They encompass all of the major technologies – such as distributed storage, distributed generation, smart
meters, smart appliances and electric vehicles – that are impacting the electricity system.
Adoption of new “grid edge” technologies globally could bring more than $2.4 trillion of value creation
for society and the industry over the next 10 years.
356. Consider the following statements. The well-known plant Millettia pinnata or Pongamia
1) Stores carbon as well as produces fuel oil.

2) Can grow on marginal lands that are usually not fit for food crops
3) Has the ability to fix nitrogen

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Also known as the Pongam Oiltree, it is a leguminous, oilseed-bearing tree that has been
identified as a candidate for non-edible vegetable oil production.
Pongamia plantations for biodiesel production have a two-fold environmental benefit.
The trees both store carbon and produce fuel oil. Pongamia grows on marginal land not fit for food crops
and does not require nitrate fertilizers.
The oil producing tree has the highest yield of oil producing plant (approximately 40% by weight of the
seed is oil) while growing in malnourished soils with high levels of salt.
It is becoming a main focus in a number of biodiesel research organizations.
The main advantages of Pongamia are a higher recovery and quality of oil than other crops and no direct
competition with food crops.
However, growth on marginal land can lead to lower oil yields which could cause competition with food
crops for better soil.
357. Which of the following are ozone depleting chemicals?
1) Trichloroethane
2) Bromochloromethane
3) Methyl chloroform
4) Carbon tetrachloride

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) . 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
Justification: They are widely used in refrigerators, airconditioners, fire extinguishers, in dry cleaning,
as solvents for cleaning, electronic equipment and as agricultural fumigants.
Ozone depleting substances controlled by Montreal Protocol include: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs);

Halon; Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4), Methyl chloroform (CH3CCl3); Hydrobromofluorocarbons
(HBFCs); Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs); Methyl bromide (CH3Br); and Bromochloromethane
(CH2BrCl).
The UNEP has developed a useful database called the 'Inventory of Trade Names of Chemical Products
Containing Ozone Depleting Substances and their Alternatives’.
The database lists all the trade names of ozone depleting substances, and also provides information on
alternatives commercially available.
358. How are first generation bio-fuels different from those of the second, third and fourth generation
biofuels?
1) First generation bio-fuels require arable land, whereas other bio-fuels are grown entirely on freshwater
or wastewater.
2) First generation bio-fuels can be synthesized and produced only in bio-reactors, whereas there is no
such requirement for other bio-fuels.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: First-generation biofuels are biofuels made from food crops grown on arable land. With
this biofuel production generation, food crops are thus explicitly grown for fuel production, and not
anything else.
The sugar, starch, or vegetable oil obtained from the crops is converted into biodiesel or ethanol, using
transesterification, or yeast fermentation
Second generation biofuels are fuels manufactured from various types of biomass. Biomass is a wide-
ranging term meaning any source of organic carbon that is renewed rapidly as part of the carbon cycle.
Biomass is derived from plant materials, but can also include animal materials.
The feedstock used to generate second-generation bio-fuels should grow on lands which cannot be used
to effectively grow food and their growing should not consume lots of water or fertilizer.
The feedstock sources include grasses, jatropha and other seed crops, waste vegetable oil, municipal solid
waste and so forth.
The advantage is that, unlike with regular food crops, no arable land is used solely for the production of
fuel.
Third-generation biofuels are based on algaculture and algae fuel which can grown on water. Fourth-
generation biofuels are made using non-arable land. More research is going in this area.
359. What are the disadvantages of using Biodiesel?
1) It is non-biodegradable.
2) It cannot be harnessed from food crops.
3) It is a very poor engine lubricant compared to normal diesel.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: It is the most common biofuel in Europe. It is produced from oils or
fats using transesterification and is a liquid similar in composition to fossil/mineral diesel.
Feedstocks for biodiesel include animal fats, vegetable oils, soy, rapeseed, jatropha, mahua, mustard, flax,
sunflower, palm oil, hemp, field pennycress, Pongamia pinnata and algae.
It is non-toxic and bio-degradable.
Statement 3: While it is an excellent lubricant compared to the normal diesel, it loses its lubrication ability
gradually due to oxidative stresses.
Lubricity of fuel plays an important role in wear that occurs in an engine. A diesel engine relies on its fuel
to provide lubricity for the metal components that are constantly in contact with each other
360. How are bio-fuels different from fossil fuels?
1) Biofuels are produced only through aerobic digestion whereas Fossil fuels are produced by anaerobic
digestion.
2) Biofuels are plant-derived material whereas fossil fuels can only be animal-derived material.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Biofuels are produced through contemporary biological processes, such
as agriculture and anaerobic digestion, rather than a fuel produced by geological processes such as those
involved in the formation of fossil fuels, such as coal and petroleum, from prehistoric biological matter.
This prehistoric matter can be plant or animal. So, 2 is incorrect. Moreover, bio-fuels can be based on
both aerobic and anaerobic digestion.
Learning: The two most common types of biofuels in use today are ethanol and biodiesel.
Cars are a major source of atmospheric carbon dioxide, the main greenhouse gas that causes global
warming. But since plants absorb carbon dioxide as they grow, crops grown for biofuels should suck up
about as much carbon dioxide as comes out of the tailpipes of cars that burn these fuels.
And unlike underground oil reserves, biofuels are a renewable resource since we can always grow more
crops to turn into fuel.
361. What is Carbon fixation?
a) Conversion process of inorganic carbon to organic compounds by living organisms

b) Sequestration of atmospheric carbon by vegetation
c) Decay of carbon rich compounds deep inside the earth
d) Assimilation of carbon rich forage by animals
Correct Answer : A
Learning: It is the conversion process of inorganic carbon (carbon dioxide) to organic compounds by
living organisms.
The most prominent example is photosynthesis, although chemosynthesis is another form of carbon
fixation that can take place in the absence of sunlight.
Organisms that grow by fixing carbon are called autotrophs. Autotrophs include photoautotrophs, which
synthesize organic compounds using the energy of sunlight, and lithoautotrophs, which synthesize organic
compounds using the energy of inorganic oxidation. Heterotrophs are organisms that grow using the
carbon fixed by autotrophs.
Renewable biofuels generally involve contemporary carbon fixation, such as those that occur in plants or
microalgae through the process of photosynthesis.
362. In anaerobic sludge digesters waste decomposing bacteria produce which of these gases?
1) Methane
2) Hydrogen sulphide
3) Carbon dioxide

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Anaerobic digestion is particularly suited to organic material, and is commonly used for
industrial effluent, wastewater and sewage sludge treatment.
Anaerobic digestion, a simple process, can greatly reduce the amount of organic matter which might
otherwise be destined to be dumped at sea, dumped in landfills, or burnt in incinerators.
Using anaerobic digestion technologies can help to reduce the emission of greenhouse gases in a number
of key ways:
Replacement of fossil fuels
Reducing or eliminating the energy footprint of waste treatment plants
Reducing methane emission from landfills
Displacing industrially produced chemical fertilizers
Reducing vehicle movements
Reducing electrical grid transportation losses
Reducing usage of LP Gas for cooking
363. Which of the following can be the reason(s) for greater biological productivity at the tropics as
compared to the higher latitudes?
1) Higher solar energy is available at tropics

2) Less extreme seasonal variation as compared to the higher latitudes
3) Tropics have remained relatively undisturbed for longer durations than higher latitudes

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher
productivity; this in turn might contribute indirectly to greater diversity.
Statement 2: Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant
and predictable. Such constant environments promote niche specialisation and lead to a greater species
diversity and
Statement 3: Speciation is generally a function of time, unlike temperate regions subjected to frequent
glaciations in the past, tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and
thus, had a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
364. Other than water vapour, the largest concentration of GHGs in the atmosphere is
a) Methane
b) Ozone
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Chlorofluorocarbons
Correct Answer : C
Justification
More important than the concentration is the warming potential of a GHG.
The contribution of each gas to the greenhouse effect is affected by the characteristics of that gas, its
abundance, and any indirect effects it may cause.
For example, the direct radiative effect of a mass of methane is about 72 times stronger than the same
mass of carbon dioxide over a 20-year time frame but it is present in much smaller concentrations so that
its total direct radiative effect is smaller, in part due to its shorter atmospheric lifetime.
On the other hand, in addition to its direct radiative impact, methane has a large, indirect radiative effect
because it contributes to ozone formation.
365. Ethanol as a bio-fuel can be obtained from
1) Sugarcane
2) Corn
3) Potato
4) Cotton

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) All
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Bio-ethanol is usually obtained from the conversion of carbon-based feedstock.

Agricultural feedstocks are considered renewable because they get energy from the sun using
photosynthesis, provided that all minerals required for growth (such as nitrogen and phosphorus) are
returned to the land.
Ethanol can be produced from a variety of feedstocks such as sugar cane, bagasse, miscanthus, sugar beet,
sorghum, grain, switchgrass, barley, hemp, kenaf, potatoes, sweet potatoes, cassava, sunflower, fruit,
molasses, corn, stover, grain, wheat, straw, cotton, other biomass, as well as many types of cellulose waste
and harvesting, whichever has the best well-to-wheel assessment
366. With reference to Carbonization, consider the following statements.
1) It involves pyrolysis of organic carbon to produce coal.

2) A major advantage of industrial carbonization is that no carbon monoxide emissions are involved.
3) Wood does not undergo carbonization.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: It is often used in organic chemistry with reference to the generation of
coal gas and coal tar from raw coal.
Fossil fuels generally are the products of the carbonization of vegetable matter.
The term carbonization is also applied to the pyrolysis of coal to produce coke. Carbonization is also a
stage in the charcoal making process, and is considered the most important step of all since it has such
power to influence the whole process from the growing tree to the final distribution of charcoal to various
sources.
The gas produced by carbonization has a high content of carbon monoxide which is poisonous when
breathed.
Statement 3: Therefore, when working around the kiln or pit during operation and when the kiln is opened
for unloading, care must be taken that proper ventilation is provided to allow the carbon monoxide, which
is also produced during unloading through spontaneous ignition of the hot fuel, to be dispersed.
367. Coal Gas contains a variety of calorific gases including
1) Hydrogen
2) Methane
3) Nitrogen
4) Carbon dioxide

a) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) All
d) 1,2 & 3
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Coal gas contains a variety of calorific gases including hydrogen, carbon monoxide,
methane and volatile hydrocarbons together with small quantities of non-calorific gases such as carbon
dioxide and nitrogen.
Coal gas is a flammable gaseous fuel made from coal and supplied to the user via a piped distribution
system.
The gas obtained when coal is heated strongly in the absence of air is called coal gas.
Coal gasification is the process of producing syngas–a mixture consisting primarily of carbon monoxide
(CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and water vapour (H2O)–from coal and
water, air and/or oxygen.
368. Carbon monoxide can be produced from or found in
1) Incomplete burning of petrol and diesel

2) Naturally in groundwater and ice caps
3) Operation of a kitchen stove in enclosed space
4) Eruption of volcanoes

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Any hydrocarbon fuel when oxidized in low presence of oxygen, it forms carbon monoxide
instead of dioxide. So, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Statement 2: Carbon dioxide (not carbon monoxide) is found naturally in groundwater, ice caps, glaciers
etc.
Statement 4: The principal components of volcanic gases are water vapour (H2O), CO2, CO, SO2 or
hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, argon, helium, neon, methane and hydrogen.
Learning: It is also generated from natural and man-made fires (such as forest and bushfires, burning of
crop residues, and sugarcane fire-cleaning). Carbon monoxide occurs dissolved in molten volcanic rock
at high pressures in the Earth's mantle.
Worldwide, the largest source of carbon monoxide is natural in origin, due to photochemical reactions in
the troposphere.
369. Algal bio-fuel is advantageous in which of the following ways?
1) Producing algae for bio-fuels usually requires lesser capital investments than subsistence agriculture
2) Least Developed countries (LDCs) are the source of most of the algal bio-fuel produced in the World.
3) Algaculture can be initiated on saline water or even wastewater.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Producing algae for bio-fuels (excluding simple seaweed production)
requires significant capital investments, which may be a significant barrier in developing countries that
have a weak investment climate.
Producing biofuels from algae is still in a pre-commercial state of technology development. Most
production plants are therefore prototypes, and the development and engineering of such plants requires
a high level of expertise.
Statement 3: Algaculture (farming algae) can be initiated on land unsuitable for agriculture or saline water
or wastewater.
However, using the land allotted to food crops to algal biofuel reduces the amount of food available for
humans, resulting in an increased cost for both the food and the fuel produced. This is an ecological as
well as economic concern.
370. Apart from bacteria, which of the following living species may be involved in the nitrogen cycle in our
atmosphere?
1) Animals
2) Green plants
3) Humans

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification & Learning: Plants generally take up nitrates and nitrites and convert them into amino acids
which are used to make proteins.
These proteins and other complex compounds are subsequently consumed by animals.
Once the animal or the plant dies, other bacteria in the soil convert the various compounds of nitrogen
back into nitrates and nitrites. A different type of bacteria converts the nitrates and nitrites into elemental
nitrogen.
Thus, there is a nitrogen-cycle in nature in which nitrogen passes from its elemental form in the
atmosphere into simple molecules in the soil and water, which get converted to more complex molecules
in living beings and back again to the simple nitrogen molecule in the atmosphere
371. Which of the following is correct about Bio-gas?
1) Bio-gas contains large amounts of methane.

2) It is a renewable source of energy.
3) Bio-gas normally burns without smoke and has a high heating capacity.

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Bio-gas contains up to 75% methane.

It burns without smoke, leaves no residue like ash in wood, charcoal and coal burning. Its heating capacity
is high. Bio-gas is also used for lighting.
The large-scale utilisation of bio-waste and sewage material provides a safe and efficient method of waste-
disposal besides supplying energy and manure
372. Scientific interest in gas hydrates is driven mainly by its potential future role as
a) Energy resource
b) Shell gas fracking
c) Aerosol applications in climate change mitigation
d) Nano-agent in reactor coolant
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Gas hydrates are naturally occurring, solid compounds containing natural gas (mainly
methane) and water. Methane gas hydrate is stable at the seafloor at water depths beneath about 500 m.
Scientific interest in gas hydrates is driven mainly by its potential future role as an energy resource, and
by the role of methane as a strong greenhouse gas and contributor to global climate change.
Further interest is linked to the geo-hazard aspect of gas hydrate occurrences (especially in the marine
environment) related to seafloor subsidence, slumps and slides. Since the time the existence of gas
hydrates was first suspected in the Blake Outer Ridge during the Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP),
interest in the study of marine gas hydrates has grown in several countries.
The preliminary assessment of geological condition and limited available seismic data suggests high
possibility of occurrence of large quantity of gas hydrates within the EEZ of India.
373. Consider the following about Cellulosic ethanol that has attracted considerable attention of
scientists and policymakers.
1) It is ethanol derived from the fruit of the plant rather than its stem or leaves.
2) Since the production of this type of ethanol is dependent on cellulose, this can be obtained in a wide
variety of regions.
3) It reduces GHG emissions over conventional gasoline usage in vehicles.

a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Justification: S1: It is ethanol (ethyl alcohol) produced from cellulose (the stringy fiber of a plant) rather
than from the plant's seeds or fruit.
It is a biofuel produced from grasses, wood, algae, or other plants. The fibrous parts of the plants are
mostly inedible to animals, including humans, except for ruminants (grazing, cud-chewing animals such
as cows or sheep).
S2: Considerable interest in cellulosic ethanol exists because it has the potential for strong economic
importance.
Growth of cellulose by plants is a mechanism that captures and stores solar energy chemically in nontoxic
ways with resultant supplies that are easy to transport and store.
Additionally, transport may be unneeded anyway, because grasses or trees can grow almost anywhere
temperate.
This is why commercially practical cellulosic ethanol is widely viewed as a next level of development for
the biofuel industry that could reduce demand for oil and gas drilling and even nuclear power in ways that
grain-based ethanol fuel alone cannot.
Production of ethanol from lignocellulose has the advantage of abundant and diverse raw material
compared to sources such as corn and cane sugars, but requires a greater amount of processing to make
the sugar monomers available to the microorganisms typically used to produce ethanol by fermentation.
Switchgrass and Miscanthus are the major biomass materials being studied today, due to their high
productivity per acre.
Cellulose, however, is contained in nearly every natural, free-growing plant, tree, and bush, in meadows,
forests, and fields all over the world without agricultural effort or cost needed to make it grow.
S3: One of the benefits of cellulosic ethanol is it reduces greenhouse gas emissions (GHG) by 85% over
reformulated gasoline.
By contrast, starch ethanol (e.g., from corn), which most frequently uses natural gas to provide energy for
the process, may not reduce GHG emissions at all depending on how the starch-based feedstock is
produced.
IPR
374. Consider the following about Etikoppaka toys that recently received an entry in the Geographical
Indication (GI) Registry.
1) These are made by native Keralites.

2) They are also known as metal Lacquer craft.
3) These toys are painted with natural dyes which are toxic for animals.
4) The raw material comes from hard wood trees of Western Ghats.

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Etikoppaka toys (Etikoppaka Bommalu) are from Andhra Pradesh. These
traditional toys are made by artisans in Etikoppaka village located on banks of river Varaha in
Visakhapatnam district of the state.
Statement 2: The art of making traditional wooden Etikoppaka toys is more than 400 years old and it has
been traditionally handed over to them by their ancestors through generations. The art of this toy making
is also known as turned wood Lacquer craft.
Statement 3, 4 and 5: The toys are unique in shape and form. They are made of wood and painted with
natural dyes.
The wood used is from 'Ankudi Karra' (Wrightia tinctoria) tree that is soft in nature. The natural dyes are
prepared from seeds, lacquer, bark, roots and leaves. These dynes are unique as they do not have heavy
metal or toxic content in it.
Learning: With this, Etikoppaka toys join elite products from Andhra Pradesh such as Kondapalli toys,
Tirupati laddu, Bobbili Veena, Srikalahasthi Kalamkari, Uppada Jamdani sarees and Shadow puppets to
have coveted Gl tag.
Seven commodities were granted Geographicall Indication (Gl) this year by the Indian patent office. It
includes Banaganapalle mangoes (Andhra Pradesh), Tulaipanji rice (West Bengal), Pochampa/ly Ikat
(Telangana), Gobindobhog rice FILED (West Bengal), Durgi stone carvings and Etikoppaka toys (Andhra
Pradesh) and Chakshesang shawl (Nagaland).
375. The working of the Patents Act, the Designs Act, 2000 and the Trade Marks Act, 1999 is
administered by a body situated in which of these Ministries/departments?
a) Department of Science and Technology

b) Department of Internal Affairs
c) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
d) Department of Scientific and Industrial research
Correct Answer : C
Explanation: The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks
(CGPDTM) is under DIPP, under Ministry of Commerce.
The Controller General supervises the working of these Acts and also renders advice to the
Government on matters relating to these subjects.
In order to protect the Geographical Indications of goods a Geographical Indications

Registry has been established to administer the Geographical Indications of Goods
(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 under the CGPDTM.
376. Gobindobhog rice, a speciality from Burdwan district of West Bengal, has got the geographical indication (GI)
status. What advantage(s) will such recognition bring to this product?
1) Its price will be regulated by the government to avoid hoarding and black marketing.
2) It will be added to the list of Essential Commodities.
3) The Government will make special efforts to increase the production of this variety of rice.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: As a result of getting the GI tag, rice from other regions or rice of other varieties cannot be branded
as ‘Gobindobhog’.
GI is covered under the Intellectual Property Rights and the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property
Rights. A GI tag certifies the origin of a product or produce from a particular region as the quality or other
features of the product is attributable only to the place of its origin. Hence, the marketability of the rice would
be strengthened, for the local, national and international markets. The tag helps farmers or manufacturers, as the
case may be, to get a better price in the market.
Learning: This rice has several advantages. It is cultivated late and therefore not much affected by rains. It is less
prone to pests as well. The productivity per area is high and farmers get better prices for Gobindobhog rice.
SCHEMES
377. The Village Resource Centres (VRC) program of ISRO intends to provide which of the following
services to rural areas?
1) Tele-healthcare and Tele-education

2) Natural resources information
3) Advisories related to agriculture
4) Skill development and vocational training

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) All
Correct Answer : D
Justification: To provide the space based services directly to the rural areas, ISRO/ DOS has launched
the Village Resource Centres (VRCs) programme in association with NGOs/ Trusts and state/ central
agencies.
VRCs provide various space technology enabled services such as tele-healthcare, tele- education, natural
resources information, advisories related to agriculture, career guidance to rural students, skill
development and vocational training etc.
Establishing new VRCs is an ongoing process and the same is carried out based on communication
technology needs, funds available, proposals received from State Governments/NGOs etc.
The parameters for selecting NGOs and Trusts as partners in VRC include experience in community
organisation and social work, availability of required infrastructure for housing the VRC facility, requisite
manpower for day-to-day operation and capacity for conducting programmes of relevance for the
development of rural areas.
378. Horizon 2020 initiative from the European Union
a) Provides grants to research and innovation projects through open and competitive calls for
proposals
b) Funds interstellar exploration projects keeping in view the needs of and capabilities of
emerging economies
c) Gives a timeline of exit of countries from the European Union
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Participants from European Union member states and countries associated to
Horizon 2020 are automatically funded. Legal entities from any country are eligible to
submit project proposals to these calls. Participation from outside the European Union is
explicitly encouraged. Associated countries have signed an association agreement for the
purposes of this framework programme. To date, 14 countries are associated to Horizon 2020.
Horizon 2020 itself is seen as a policy instrument to implement other high-level policy
initiatives of the European Union, such as Europe 2020 and Innovation Union. The
programme runs from 2014–20 and provides an estimated €80 billion of funding.
379. With reference to the ‘Visiting Advanced Joint Research (VAJRA) Faculty Scheme’, consider the following:
1) It was launched by the Prime Minister’s office.
2) It will offer adjunct/visiting faculty assignments to eligible candidates overseas including Non- resident Indians
(NRI).
3) Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) have been excluded from the purview of this scheme.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), a Statutory body of the Department of
Science and Technology (DST) has recently launched VAJRA to connect the Indian academic and R&D systems
to the best of global science and scientists for a sustained international collaborative research.
The scheme offers adjunct / visiting faculty assignments to overseas scientists, faculty members and R&D
professionals including NRI and OCI to undertake high quality collaborative research in cutting edge areas of
science and technology.
This will include interdisciplinary areas of priority such as energy, water, health, security, nutrition, materials and
manufacturing, etc. with one or more Indian collaborators of public funded academic and research institutions
of India.
The VAJRA Faculty should be an active researcher working in an overseas leading academic / research / industrial
organization with significant accomplishments in R&D.
380. Cloud seeding is an artificial way to induce moisture in the clouds so as to cause a rainfall.
Which of these compounds are used in this process?
1) Beryllium potash
2) Silver iodide
3) Dry ice
4) Sodium Chloride

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All
Correct Answer : C
Justification: The most common agents used in “cold rain” or snowpack augmentation
cloud seeding projects are silver iodide and dry ice (frozen carbon dioxide). Other agents like
liquefied gases (liquid nitrogen for example) can be used to seed clouds
Learning: These iodide particles rise into the clouds, cause moisture to freeze. These particles
act as a base for water vapours to settle on that later crystallises and falls as rain or snow.
It is not fool proof as seeded clouds may actually travel to another location and do not cause
precipitation on the intended location.
Moreover, there are environmental consequences of spreading of harmful chemicals in

atmosphere. It is also very expensive technique. If it is not controlled properly, it may result
in undesirable weather conditions like flooding, hail, storms, etc.
381. ‘JIGYASA’, recently seen in news is a

a) Interstellar exploration programme of ISRO
b) Student- scientist connect programme
c) Earth core drilling programme of Ministry of Earth Sciences
d) Biodiversity documentation programme in the Western Ghats
Correct Answer : B
Learning: Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), has joined hands with Kendriya
Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) to implement this programme.
The program will also enable the students and teachers to practically live the theoretical concepts taught
in science by visiting CSIR laboratories and by participating in mini-science projects. The model of
engagement includes: Student Residential Programmes; Scientists as Teachers and Teachers as Scientists;
Lab specific activities / Onsite Experiments; The focus is on connecting school students and scientists so
as to extend student’s classroom
learning with that of a very well-planned research laboratory based learning.
382. ‘Sagar Vani’ system released by the Union Ministry of Earth Science is
a) An integrated information dissemination system that will serve the coastal community
regarding their safety
b) A SONAR system for deep sea mineral exploration
c) A language code for Indian Navy to communicate more securely
Correct Answer : A
Learning: It serves the coastal community, especially the fishermen community with the
advisories and alerts towards their livelihood as well as their safety at Sea.
It is a software platform where various dissemination modes will be integrated on a single
central server.
It includes Multi Lingual SMS, Voice Call/Audio Advisory, Social Media (Facebook,
Twitter, etc.) etc.
Application: It can disseminate services in local languages using advanced artificial
intelligence (AI) and machine learning capabilities.
This ‘Sagar Vani’ system compares with the most advanced countries’ services in terms of
speed of delivery, diverseness of services and omni channel capabilities.
The system also has facility to provide access to various stakeholders (State Fishery
Departments, Disaster Management Authorities, NGOs etc.) so that they will be able to further
disseminate these ocean information and alerts to the user community.
383. The VAJRA scheme was launched by the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB)
to
a) Connect the Indian academic and research and development (R&D) systems to the best of
global science and scientists
b) Develop anti-neurotoxins that can be used to neutralize agents used in a potential chemical
warfare
c) Provide mobile air-defence guards to marine ships used as warships
d) Increase participation from local ground level innovations to mainstream science and
technology
Correct Answer : A
Learning: SERB is a statutory body of the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
It recently launched a ‘Visiting Advanced Joint Research (VAJRA) Faculty Scheme’ for a
sustained international collaborative research. The scheme offers adjunct / visiting faculty
assignments to overseas scientists, faculty members and R&D professionals including NRI
and OCI to undertake high quality collaborative research in cutting edge areas of science
and technology. This is to be done with one or more Indian collaborators of public funded
academic and research institutions of India.
TRANSPORTATION
384. CATOBAR, that was recently in news, is a
a) Aircraft launch mechanism

b) Pill administered for Passive Euthanasia
c) Genetically modified antidote of the Blue-Baby syndrome
d) Trade initiative of the South American nations
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Indian Navy is likely to use advanced catapult-based aircraft launch mechanism
(CATOBAR) from United States for its second indigenous aircraft carrier (IAC-II), which is on drawing
board (i.e. being planned).
In this regard, both countries have held several rounds of discussions in joint working group (JWG) on
Aircraft Carrier Technology Cooperation (JWGACTC) under Defence Technology and Trade Initiative
(DTTI) set up by them.
Learning: For some time, India was exploring possibility of installing US electromagnetic aircraft launch
system (EMALS).
EMALS uses electric motor-driven catapult instead, which allows launch of much heavier aircraft and
reduces stress on aircraft whereas older-generation CATOBAR is powered by steam catapult.
It will allow Indian Navy to operate heavy surveillance aircraft, in addition to heavy fighters.
However, the system is expensive, something that needs to be factored in.
385. Flu-Gas Desulfurization (FGD) is a set of technologies used to remove sulphur-dioxide (SO2) from
exhaust flue gases of fossil-fuel power plants. Why is this process important?
1) Plants with FGD earn progressive carbon credits because the exhaust gas after FGD does not contain
any pollutants.
2) SO2 emissions are a primary contributor to acid rain and are being regulated in India.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : B
Concept: Flue Gases is mixture of gases produced by combustion of fuel and other materials in power
stations and various industrial plants and released via flu (ducts) in atmosphere. It largely contains oxides
of nitrogen derived from combustion of air, sulphur oxides, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, water
vapour, excess oxygen, particulate matter like soot.
Justification: Statement 1: It does not remove all the pollutants. For a typical coal-fired power station,
FGD system may remove 90% or more of the SO2 in the flue gases. Others may remain so.
Learning: Common methods used in FGD are wet scrubbing method, Wet and Dry lime scrubbing
method, Spray-dry scrubbing method, SNOX method, Dry sorbent injection method, etc. The practice of
FGD is in line with major environmental regulations in India and abroad.
386. SARAS PT1N, recently seen in news is
a) Sonic boom weapon technology developed at IISc

b) A Supercomputer built with Indo-Japanese partnership
c) A combat wing of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
d) India’s indigenous developed light transport aircraft
Correct Answer : D
Learning: The light transport aircraft SARAS PT1N has successfully completed second test-flight.
The aircraft will soon be certified for both civil and military use. The plane is capable of executing both
day and night missions.
It can be used for transporting civilians, freight, and in remote sensing exercises.
It can take off and land from semi-prepared airfields and even on grass runways. The aircraft was designed
to operate and manoeuvre at high altitudes and under extreme temperatures.
SARAS PT1N upgraded version of envisioned Saras aircraft programme aircraft.
It weighs 7-tonne and has been designed to travel at 425 km/h. It has maximum continuous flight time of
around five hours.
387. With reference to Li-Ion battery, consider the following statements comparing them to Lead Acid
batteries.
1) It maintains constant voltage throughout the entire discharge cycle, unlike Lead Acid batteries.
2) It is usually heavier than Lead-acid batteries of the same capacity.
3) It does not contain electrolyte, unlike lead acid batteries.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Lithium-ion battery or Li-ion battery is type of rechargeable battery that contains several
cells.
Each cell consists of cathode, anode and electrolyte, a separator between electrodes and current collectors.
In it, lithium ions move from negative electrode to positive electrode during discharge and back
when charging. Li-ion battery use intercalated lithium compound as one electrode material. Benefits of
Lithium-Ion (Li-Ion) battery over Lead Acid batteries:
The lithium-ion battery is light weighted and is one-third the weight of lead acid batteries.
It is nearly 100% efficient in both charging and discharging as compared to lead battery which has 70%
efficiency.
It completely discharges i.e. 100% as compared to 80% for lead acid.
The rechargeable lithium-ion battery has life cycle of 5000 times or more compared to just 400-500 cycles
in lead acid.
It also maintains constant voltage throughout the entire discharge cycle whereas voltage in lead acid
battery drops consistently throughout its discharge cycle.
It is much cleaner technology and is safer for environment as it does not have environmental impact as
lead acid battery.
388. Recently, which of these states has signed an MOU with Hyperloop Transportation Technologies
(HTT) for developing Hyperloop project?
a) Rajasthan
b) Gujarat
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Kerala
Correct Answer : C
Justification: India's first Hyperloop project will come up in Andhra Pradesh, connecting its city centres,
Vijayawada and Amaravati.
It will use a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model with funding primarily from private investors.
The proposed hyperloop will cover 35 km distance between Vijayawada and Amaravati only in five
minutes.
Learning: Hyperloop Technology is brainchild idea of Elon Musk. It is system of magnetically levitating
capsules (pods) that are sent at high speeds through low-pressure tubes.
It envisages tube modular transport system that runs free of friction. It is still in trial stages in different
countries and not been implemented for practical use anywhere in world yet.
389. Consider the following about the first High speed Bullet train project in India.
1) It will connect Gujarat to Karnataka.

2) It will also include an undersea stretch of track for the rails.
3) Most of the route for this project will coincide with the existing railway route.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: The train will cover distance of over 508 km from Sabarmati (Gujarat) to
Bandra (Mumbai, Maharashtra) in around 2.5 hours at high speed of 320 kph from the existing 7-8 hours.
Statement 2 and 3: For most of its route — 471 km out of 508 km, train will run at elevation of 18 metres
— primarily to ensure it travels over the existing railway route.
The remaining 37 km includes 7 km undersea stretch between Thane and Vasai and 15 km underground
route in Mumbai.
It will be India's longest tunnel (around 21-km-long) - that will be dug in Mumbai.
Learning: As per agreement between India and Japan, MAHSR (high speed rail) Project has "twin,
complementary objectives viz. localised manufacture and transfer of technology.
It will give stimulus for advanced components' manufacture and construction, one of the stated objectives
of the project is Make in India. It will create around 15 lakh new jobs in India.
390. Consider the following statements. FAME India scheme
1) is a part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan

2) intends to promote electric and hybrid vehicles
3) is being administered by the Department of Science and Technology

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Justification: FAME India – Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric vehicles in India
– is a part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan.
The scheme has four focus areas, technology development, demand creation, pilot projects and charging
infrastructure.
The scheme envisages around Rs eight hundred crore support in the first two fiscals starting with the
current year.
It is being administered by the Heavy Industries Ministry.
The centre is considering the extension of FAME- India scheme to promote electric and hybrid vehicles
by another six months.
391. Consider the following about FASTag.

1) It is an electronic toll collection system in India.
2) The government has recently allowed online sale of FASTags.
3) Common Services Centre (CSC) in India manufacture FASTags.

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: It is operated by the National Highway Authority of India on

electronic Toll Lanes. It allows quick checkout of vehicles from toll lanes.
Statement 2 and 3: In order to facilitate the availability of FASTags for Electronic Toll
Collection, NHAI has taken two revolutionary steps in consultation with RBI and NPCI.
These include Online sale of FASTags and offline sale through Common Services Centre
(CSC) near toll plazas.
CSCs are service points, not zones of manufacturing.
392. The NITI Aayog has approved several high-tech mass rapid transport proposals to improve
public transport. Consider the following about them.
1) Hyperloop is a high air pressure tube connecting cities at speeds matching that of an
aircraft.
2) Freight rail roads will be elevated corridors with rail lines where freight trucks can move
on rails at high speed.
3) Pod taxis are underground transit systems that run entirely on solar power.
4) Hybrid electric buses combine a conventional internal combustion engine with an electric
propulsion system.

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: This proposal includes high-tech mass rapid transportation

technologies such as metrino, hyperloop, pod taxis, stadler buses, hybrid
buses and freight rail road.
Statement 1: They are near-vacuum tubes so that air friction in travel can be
reduced. Statement 2: A dedicated corridor allows for greater efficiency and
speed.
Statement 3: These are usually cabled taxis running on an elevated drive

train.
Statement 4: The addition of a battery-powered electric motor increases the

fuel efficiency of hybrids in a number of ways.
Idle-off feature turns off the car's conventional engine when the vehicle is
stopped, saving fuel.
The battery provides energy for the air conditioner and accessories while the
vehicle idles at stoplights or in traffic, and the electric motor can start the
vehicle moving again.
If needed, the conventional engine will reengage to provide more power

for acceleration.
Learning: "Regenerative braking" is another fuel-saving feature.

Conventional cars rely entirely on friction brakes to slow down, dissipating
the vehicle's kinetic energy as heat.
Regenerative braking allows some of that energy to be captured, turned into

electricity, and stored in the batteries.
This stored electricity can later be used to run the motor and accelerate the
vehicle.
NEW INVENTIONS AND DISCOVERY
393. The Union Ministry of Science and Technology has launched SOHUM. What is
it?
a) A drought free breed of rice that can be grown all round the year
b) A family planning kit that will be distributed free of cost in rural areas
c) An indigenously developed low-cost hearing screening device for newborns
d) A compendium of scientific practices from the Vedas and Puranas
Correct Answer : C
Learning: It is a battery-operated non-invasive screening device available across

the country to minimise or reverse the hearing loss damage.
It is a low cost portable device which uses brain-stem auditory evoked response
to inform whether the child can hear or not.
Once deafness is detected at an early age, measures can be taken to prevent it.
394. Recently a hybrid material was synthesised by scientists from IISER combining
polyhedral oligomeric silsesquioxane (POSS) and diphenylalanine. What is the
special property of this hybrid?
a) It is an organic plastic.
b) It is fire and rust resistant.
c) It is a metal that is lighter in density than water.
d) It is a radioactive material with infinite half-life.
Correct Answer : B
Learning: It is an organic-inorganic molecular hybrid material which is fire and

rust resistant.
Both POSS and diphenylalanine are naturally water repelling, and when they are
combined together the hydrophobic nature further gets enhanced.
The POSS has unique properties such as high thermal stability and fire retarding
ability.
The hybrid material is colourless and does not react with metal.
It also inhibits bacterial growth and make coated material such as wood or paper
fire and flame proof.
Nails coated with the material can resist corrosion even when treated with highly
corrosive aqueous solution of sodium chloride, sodium bromide, potassium
chloride and hydrochloric acid.
It also increases the mechanical strength of the coated paper appreciably. Paper or
other materials coated with it can behave similar to the lotus leaf and keep the
surface clean and completely water-proof.
INSTITUTIONS
395. Consider the following statements. Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance

Council (BIRAC)
1) is a not-for-profit Public Sector Enterprise

2) was set up by Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
3) helps provide access to risk capital through targeted funding for the bio-tech sector

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: BIRAC is a new industry-academia interface and implements its

mandate through a wide range of impact initiatives, be it providing access to risk
capital through targeted funding and technology transfer.
It also helps in intellectual property (IP) management and handholding schemes that
help bring innovation excellence to the biotech firms and make them globally
competitive.
396. With reference to the School of International Biodesign, consider the following:
1) SIB is a flagship Program of the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) aimed to

develop innovative and affordable medical devices as per India’s unmet clinical needs.
2) It is implemented jointly at UNESCO MAB Programme and WWF India in
collaboration with other International partners.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: SIB, based in New Delhi, aims to cultivate a new

generation of medical technology innovators in India.
Funded by the Indian Ministry of Science and Technology, the school is run by a
consortium of Indian, Japanese and Australian universities.
Statement 2: It is implemented jointly at All India Institutes of Medical Sciences
(AIIMS) and IIT Delhi in collaboration with International partners.
Biotech Consortium India Limited manages techno-legal activities of the Program. It
serves as a valuable contribution to the Make in India campaign of the Government.
MISC
397. What is Ocean glider?
a) Dead mass of phumdis and phytoplanktons swayed over by ocean currents

b) An autonomous and unmanned underwater vehicle used for ocean science.
c) Leftover of oil extractions from mineral exploration that glides over surface ocean
currents
d) Amphibious aircraft carrier that also serves as a warship
Correct Answer : B
Learning: is an autonomous, unmanned underwater vehicle used for ocean science.

Since gliders require little or no human assistance while traveling, these little robots
are uniquely suited for collecting data in remote locations, safely and at relatively low
cost.
Gliders may be equipped with a wide variety of sensors to monitor temperature,
salinity, currents, and other ocean conditions.
This information creates a more complete picture of what is happening in the ocean,
as well as trends scientists might not otherwise be able to detect from satellites or large
research ships.
Scientists are now experimenting with using gliders to locate populations of spawning
fish.
398. Consider the following about the activated sludge process.
1) It is a type of wastewater treatment process.

2) It does not require the use of microorganisms.
3) It cannot be performed in the presence of oxygen.

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: It is a process for treating sewage or industrial wastewaters using

aeration and a biological floc composed of bacteria and protozoa.
Activated sludge plant involves:
wastewater aeration in the presence of a microbial suspension,
solid-liquid separation following aeration
discharge of clarified effluent,
wasting of excess biomass, and
return of remaining biomass to the aeration tank.
In activated sludge process wastewater containing organic matter is aerated in an
aeration basin in
which micro-organisms metabolize the suspended and soluble organic matter. Part of
organic matter is synthesized into new cells and part is oxidized to CO2 and water to
derive energy. In activated sludge systems the new cells formed in the reaction are
removed from the liquid stream in the form of a flocculent sludge in settling tanks. A
part of this settled biomass, described as activated sludge is returned to the aeration
tank and the remaining forms waste or excess sludge.
399. The International Cospas-Sarsat Programme concerns with
a) Displaying coordinates to trans-national flights in events of bad and unpredictable

weather
b) Generating an Earth mapping system to monitor climate change
c) Providing geospatial information services to commercial and non-state actors
d) Detecting and locating radio beacons activated by persons, aircraft or vessels in
distress
Correct Answer : D
Learning: It is a treaty-based, non-profit, intergovernmental, humanitarian

cooperative of 43 nations and agencies dedicated to detecting and locating radio
beacons activated by persons, aircraft or vessels in distress, and forwarding this alert
information to authorities that can take action for rescue.
The system utilizes a network of satellites that provide coverage anywhere on Earth.
Distress alerts are detected, located and forwarded to over 200 countries and territories
at no cost to beacon owners or the receiving government agencies.
The Indian National Satellite System also incorporate transponder(s) for receiving
distress alert signals for search and rescue missions in the South Asian and Indian
Ocean Region, as ISRO is a member of the Cospas-Sarsat program.
Cospas-Sarsat was conceived and initiated by Canada, France, the United States, and
the former Soviet Union in 1979.
400. What is ‘seaspeak’?
a) Official language of navigators across the globe

b) A standardized GPS system installed in every marine vessel
c) A NGO that works towards marine sustainability
d) SONAR system developed by India that works without the use of
electromagnetic waves
Correct Answer : A
Learning: A ship's crew comes from a number of different countries. Not

everyone has English as first language or can communicate very clearly in
English.
Misunderstood communication can lead to serious and even dangerous situations.
To avoid such confusion, in 1983 a new system of communication called Seaspeak
was devised.
English was chosen as the principle lexicon for Seaspeak because it was the most
common language spoken on ships at that time, and, importantly, it was also the
language of civil aviation.
In 1988, the International Maritime Organization made Seaspeak the official
language of the seas.
Seaspeak defines the rules of how to talk on a ship's radio. The number of words is
limited to ensure that messages and conversations are short and clear.
Eight words, called message markers, precede each sentence. These words are
Advice, Answer, Information, Instruction, Intention, Question, Request, and
Warning.
An important rule of Seaspeak is that numbers made up of two or more digits are
spoken in single digits. For example, the number 33 is spoken as "three three" and
the time 9:33 a.m. is spoken as "zero nine three three."
401. Indian Railways (IR) plans to procure several loco sets of Common Rail
Electronic Direct Injection Fuel System (CReDI). What is/are the advantages of
CReDI over normal engines?
1) Fuel savings
2) Reduced noise in operations
3) Lower emissions

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: CReDI is a two-stage fuel distribution system which offers greater

flexibility than a normal engine.
It is electronically controlled through an electronic engine management System.
It reduces particulate/soot and gaseous emissions (e.g. (NOx emission) because

the efficacy of the catalytic converter (device that filter pollutants) is increased
under this method. You will read about catalytic converters in higher classes
NCERT.
402. The magnetic compass is the most familiar compass type. However, recently
Gyrocompass is also being used as a modern compass. What is/are its advantages over
a magnetic compass?
1) They are able to find the true north, as opposed to magnetic north.
2) They are not affected by ferromagnetic metal as they do not require electricity
to operate.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer : A
Concept: A gyrocompass is similar to a gyroscope. It is a non-magnetic compass

that finds true north by using an (electrically powered) fast-spinning wheel and
friction forces in order to exploit the rotation of the Earth. Gyrocompasses are
widely used on ships. They have two main advantages over magnetic compasses:
Justification: Statement 1: They find the true north, i.e., the direction of Earth's
rotational axis, as opposed to magnetic north. So, large ships typically rely on a
gyrocompass, using the magnetic compass only as a backup.
Statement 2: No compass is affected by nonferromagnetic metal, although a

magnetic compass will be affected by any kind of wires with electric current
passing through them. Gyrocompass is not affected by ferromagnetic metal
(including iron, steel, cobalt, nickel, and various alloys) in a ship's hull.
However, they are electrically operated. So, 2 is wrong.
403. India’s National Programme — Scientific Validation and Research on

Panchagavya (SVAROP) — will be coordinated by the Department of Science and
Technology (DST) and other agencies. Panchagavya is believed to be useful in
a) Curing diseases like Arthritis, epilepsy and diabetes

b) Treating oil spills
c) Soaking polluted groundwater with heavy metals
d) Clearing adulterated milk and urea on a large scale
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Panchagavya is a concoction of cow dung, cow urine, milk, curd and
ghee.
According to the TNAU website, the magic potion can “cure arthritis within two
months” and help treat several other diseases and conditions such as epilepsy and
Parkinson’s. It can reduce blood sugar levels and enable diabetic patients to reduce
the dose of anti-diabetic drugs. A 19-member committee has been constituted to select
projects that can help scientifically validate the benefits of panchagavya.

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OGP 2019 SCIENCE MODULE MCQS

1) They appear outside of a primary rainbow.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Which of the above is/are correct?

1) Free radicals are the natural byproducts of metabolism in the body.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Which of the above is/are correct?

5. Consider the following statements.

1) Everything that has a temperature gives off electromagnetic radiation.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Which of the above is/are correct?

7. The Standard Model of particle physics

Which of the above is/are correct?

Justification: As per the Standard Model of particle physics:

8. Sound would travel fastest in

a) Red, Green and Blue

10. Consider the followin statements “Supercritical” state of carbon dioxide is

1) A fluid state of carbon dioxide

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

11. In a plane mirror, image is always

a) At a fixed distance from the plane of the mirror

a) Convex and Concave lens

13. Consider the following statements.

1) Capillary action occurs because water has a sticky nature.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Justification: Consider a very thin film of oil floating on water as an example.

1) Net electric charge of such bodies is zero.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Explanation & Learning:

a) Mars and Jupiter

c) Mercury, Venus and Saturn

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

19. Consider the following about LIDAR.

1) It is a remote sensing technique in which the data is often collected by air.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Which of the above is/are correct?

21. Which of these is INCORRECT about the force of Gravitation?

a) It cannot be shielded against.

22. Consider the following statements.

1) Sound moves at a much faster speed in ocean water than in air.

Which of the above is/are correct?

23. Consider the following statements.

Justification: There is no known insulator for magnetic flux.

a) Halo effect of the Sun

26. What are the properties of X-rays?

1) X-rays have much longer wavelengths than visible light.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Justification: Statement 1: They have shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies.

27. Aerogels find potential application in

1) Improving drug delivery

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

28. Commonly used antiseptic, dettol is a mixture of

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Justification: Chloroxylenol, also known as para-chloro-meta-xylenol (PCMX), is an antiseptic and

29. Consider the following statements.

Which of the above is/are correct?

30. Consider the following statements.

1) Formation of ozone consumes oxygen.