Post Basic Bachelor of Sciences

U in Nursing [B.Sc. N. (PB)]

U
II GGNNO O

Assignments 2023
1st Year
(Revised Courses BNS 201, 202, 203, 204 & 205)

School of Health Sciences

Indira Gandhi National Open University Maidan
Garhi, New Delhi-110 068
Dear Student,
This is with reference to assignments of revised courses for first year BSCNPB programme as explained in
programme guide, there are nine assignments in total and all these assignments are compulsory. Please note
that you are required to score 50% marks in each assignment separately. The assignments carry a weightage of
30% marks towards the final evaluation in theory component and submission of related assignments is a
prerequisite for appearing in theory term-end examination for respective courses. The subject area of
assignments and its last date of submission are mentioned below:

Last Date of Submission Course Code Blocks Involved Assignment Code

BNS-201 1, 2 BNS-201 / TMA-1
BNS-202 1, 2 BNS-202 / TMA-1
st
31 July, 2023 BNS-203 1, 2 BNS-203 / TMA-1
BNS-204 1, 2 BNS-204 / TMA-1
BNS-205 1, 2 BNS-205 / TMA-1
BNS-201 3, 4 BNS-201 / TMA-2
BNS-202 3, 4, 5 BNS-202 / TMA-2
st
31 August, 2023 BNS-204 3, 4 BNS-204 / TMA-2
BNS-205 3, 4 BNS-205 / TMA-2

Please take note of the following points before writing your assignments:
● Use only foolscap size paper for writing your responses. Only handwritten assignments will be accepted.
Typed or printed copies of assignments will not be accepted.
● Tie all the pages after numbering them carefully.
● Write the question number with each answer.
● All the questions are compulsory.
● Every assignment will be evaluated out of a full mark of 100. Weightage is indicated in parenthesis against
each question.
Suggestions for writing an assignment:
Read the assignments carefully. Scan through the whole material of the course, answers may be linked within
the blocks/units. Draw a rough outline of your answer in your own words. Support your answer from your
clinical /community experience. Make a logical order. Then write your answer neatly and submit. Give illustrations
and tables wherever necessary. You may keep a xerox copy of the answer sheets for future reference. Do
not copy from print material.
Answer each assignment in separate sheets. On the first page of the assignment response sheet, write the
course code, course title, assignment code, name of your programme study centre (PSC) and date of submission.
Your Enrollment No., Name and Full address should be mentioned in the top right comer of the first page. The
first page of your response sheet should look like the format given below:

Course Code __________________________ Enrollment No. ________________________

Course Title _________________ Name____________________________________

Assignment Code_________________ Address ______________________________

PSC_____________________________ __________________________________________
Date of Submission__________________ __________________________________________

Please submit the assignments to the Programme In-charge of the Programme Study Centre allotted
to you.
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 NURSING FOUNDATION
Assignment -1 (Block 1 & 2)
(Tutor Marked)
Programme Code: B.Sc. N (PB)
Course Code: BNS-201
Assignment Code: BNS-201/ TMA-1/2023
Maximum Marks - 100
Last date of submission: July 31, 2023

Note: This Assignment has three parts - Part A, B and C

Part A consists of two long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consists of five short answer questions. Each question carries 10 marks.
Part C consists of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2½ marks.
Part-A
1) a) Discuss the criteria of Nursing as a profession.
b) Explain the characteristics of Nursing profession
c) Describe the expanded and extended role of Nurses (5+5+10=20)

2) a) Define nursing standards.

b) List purposes of developing nursing standards.
c) Describe various types of standards giving examples from nursing field. (5+5+10=20)

Part – B

3) Discuss Orem’s Self Deficit theory in detail. Support your answer with example from the
nursing setting. (10)

4) You have been assigned a defined community for providing need based comprehensive
health care services. Explain the health indicators which would help you to assess the
health status of the community before initiating the services to the given community.
(10)
5) a) Define interpersonal relationship.
b) Discuss the difference between therapeutic and social relationship.
c) Explain the role of a nurse in improving the interpersonal relationship. (2+5+3=10)

6) a) Defines Quality assurance

b) Explain the need of quality assurance in nursing.
c) Discuss the need and purposes of standards in nursing. Explain process standard with
the help of suitable example (3+2½+2½+2=10)

7) a) Explain the concept of holistic health with examples.

4
 b) Describe various traditional / alternative health systems. (4+6=10)
Part-C
8) Place a tick mark (√) against the most appropriate answer given under each statement
(½×5=2½)
a) One of the following used for assessment of ill health of the community is:
i) Infant and child mortality rates
ii) Nutrition status indicators
iii) Incidence and prevalence rates
iv) Disease specific mortality rates

b) Hospice institutions are meant for;

i) Chronic patients
ii) Acutelyill patients
iii) Terminallyill patients
iv) Long term patients

c) Functional nursing refers to:

i) Professional nursing
ii) Completion of nursing routines
iii) Concerned with specific nursing routines.
iv) Patient entered care.

d) The essential components of professional nursing care include all Except.

i) Care
ii) Cure
iii) Coordination
v) Control

d) One of the following is a positive indicator of health;

i) Expectation of life
ii) Infant mortality rate
iii) Crude death rate
iv) Morbidity indicator

9) Match the items given in Column A with those given in Column B: (½×5=2½)
Column A Column B
a) Negligence performed in professional practice i) Parole
b) Pain relief and comfort measures for cancer patient ii) Battery
c) Mentally ill patient goes on leave iii) Spiritual Care
d) Intentional act that is harmful iv) Malapractice
e) Concerns, choices around health care issues e.g. v) Palliative Care individual
rights versus societal rights vii) Patient leaving hospital
without medical advice
vii) Bioethic
10) Fill in the blanks (½x5=2½)

a) Publication of false statement about individual which damages person’s image is

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 known as……………………….
b) Standards which describe ideal nursing practice are known
as……………………….standards
c) Painless death is also known as…………………………..
d) Audit concerned with infrastructure, resources and health personnel is known
as……….audit.
e) Systematic way of looking at the world in order to describe, predict and explain is
known as……………………

11) Place a (/) mark against ‘T’ if you consider the statement as True and ‘F’ if you consider the
statement as False (½×5=2½)
a) Outcomes are ‘goals’ written as behavioral objectives (T/F)

b) All the records of medico –legal cases should be handed over to police (T/F)

c) Problems oriented record focuses on problem of the client (T/F)

d) The ability to recognize and understand another person’s feeling is called (T/F)
sympathy

e) Professional organizations of nursing uphold the dignity and honor of nursing (T/F)
profession

6
 NURSING FOUNDATION
Assignment – 2 (Block 3, 4) Tutor Marked
Programme Code: B.Sc. N (PB)
Course Code: BNS 201
Assignment Code: BNS 201/ TMA-2/2023
Maximum Marks – 100
Last date of submission: August 31, 2023

Note:
This Assignment has three parts i.e. Part A, B and C
Part A consist of two long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consist of six short answer questions. Each question carries 10 marks.
Part C consist of four Objective type questions. Each question carries 2½ marks.

Part-A
1) a) Define nursing process.
b) List the phases of nursing process? Select patient from your clinical field; collect
the subjective and objective data, make nursing diagnosis, prioritize the needs,
plan and implement the nursing care using nursing process approach.
(2+3+10=15)

2) a) Enlist the causes of maternal mortality and morbidity in India.

b) List the principles of care during maternity cycle..
c) Describe care of women during antenatal period.
d) Discuss role of nurse in maternal and child health clinic.
(3+2+7+3=15)
Part-B

3) Describe the health education methods you will adopt to educate school children and
people in resettlement areas. (10)

4) Describe the health care services provided at village, PHC, CHC and District level.
Support your answer with example from your state. (10)

5) Discuss the role of a nurse in the following:-

a) Nutrition education.
b) Family planning.
c) Providing Safe drinking water and sanitation (3+3+4=10)

6) Discuss the causes of accidents. Explain your role as a community health nurse in
management of accidents. (10)

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 7) a) Describe ways to promote effective use of drugs and avoid wastage.
b) Explain the process of drug order, stocking, issuing and controlling. (4+6=10)

8) a) List the locally endemic disease in your community.

b) Explain role of nurse in dealing with locally endemic disease with the help of
examples. (3+7=10)

Part-C
9) Place a tick mark (/) against the most appropriate answer given under each statement.
(½×5 = 2½)
a) BCG vaccine is given as:
i) 0.1 ml intradermal
ii) 0.5 ml intradermal
iii) 0.1 ml subcutaneous
iv) 0.5 ml subcutaneous

b) Vaccine is prepared from all of the following agents except:

i) Toxoids
ii) Antibiotics
iii) Live, attenuated organisms
iv) Killed organisms.

c) B.C.G Vaccine protects against:

i) Beri-Beri
ii) Rubella
iii) Tuberculosis
iv) Whooping cough

d) Normal weight gain in pregnancy is:

i) 12-14 kg
ii) 11-12 kg
iii) 8-10 kg
iv) 6-7 kg

e) The dose of chloroquine for presumptive treatment of malaria is;

i) 150 mg per week.
ii) 300 mg per week.
iii) 450 mg per week
iv) 600 mg per week

10) Match the items given in Column A with those given in Column B: (½x5=2½)

Column A Column B

a) Primary health care provider to community i) Ecological concept

b) Disease as a result of maladjustment of
8 human ii) Empirical
standard and environment
c) Well being of a whole person in context to environment iii) Nurse Clinician
d) Standard related to health institution, personnel etc iv) Process standard
e) Activities concern with patient care, nursing action v) Nurse Practitioner
vi) Structure standard
vii) Holistic Concept

11) Fill in the blanks: (5×½=2½)

a) Issue which are forbidden on moral and religious grounds are known as _______
b) A person can be encouraged to work hard or do more work by giving _________
c) Precaution or methods used to prevent cross infection are known as __________.
d) Substances as sodium chloride, sodium bicarbonate and potassium chloride
dissolved in water are known as _______________
e) The number of deaths per 1000 population per year in given community is known as
___________________

12) Place a tick mark (√) against ‘T’ if you consider the statement as true and ‘F’ if
you consider the statement as false. (½×5=2½)
a) DPT vaccine is stored at 20C and 80C. (T/F)
b) The usual prevalence of a given disease within an area is known as endemic. (T/F)
c) Koplik’s spots appear in goitre. (T/F)
d) Haemoglobin below 8gm percent indicates anaemia. (T/F)
e) Central Health Education Bureau was established in 1956. (T/F)

9
 APPLIED SCIENCES
Assignment – 1 (Block 1 & 2) Tutor Marked
(BIOCHEMISTRY and BIOPHYSICS)

Programme Code : B.Sc.N. (PB)

Course Code : BNS 202
Assignement Code: BNS 202/ TMA-2/2023
Maximum Marks – 100
Last date of Submission: July 31, 2023

(Do Biochemistry and Bio Physics on separate Sheets)

Section A: BIOCHEMISTRY (MAX. MARKS=50)

Note:

This Assignment has three parts i.e. Part A, B and C

Part A consist of one long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consist of five short answer questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
Part C consist of two objective type questions. Each question carries 5 marks.

Part – A
1. a) Explain the metabolism of Carbohydrates in human body
b) Describe the anomalies associated with carbohydrate metabolism (10+5=15)

Part – B
2. How are radioisotopes useful in the medical field? Briefly describe, giving specific examples.
(5)

3. a) Explain the difference between osmosis and dialysis.

b) How is dialysis useful in a clinical situation? (2+3=5)

4. Nucleic acids are central to the very life process itself. Explain their role in living organisms.
(5)

5. How are peptides formed from amino acids? Mention the specific role of certain natural
peptides. (5)

6. Enzymes in blood have diagnostic importance. Illustrate it with specific examples.

(5)
Part – C

7. Fill in The Blanks (½x10=5)

a) Muscle fatigue during heavy exercise is caused by accumulation of …………………

b) Dietary carbohydrates ………………… and gluconeogenesis are the main sources of

10
 glucose in blood.
c) The major constituent of gallstones is …………………
d) In pyogenic meningitis the level of ………………… decreases in CSF.
e) Rennin is ………………… hydrolyzing enzyme.
f) Insuffcient acid secretion in stomach is called …………………
g) Insulin and ………………… harmones have opposing action on blood glucose levels.
h) Use of anticoagulants is to be avoided while estimating ………………… levels in blood.
i) Proteins with many polypeptide chains are called ………………… proteins.
j) Deoxyribo nucleic acid (DNA) is ………………… stranded polynucleotide.

8. Match the items given in Column A with those given in Column B: (½x10=5)

Column A Column B

a) Lonization i) Link different nucleotides in a nucleic acid

b) Intersticial fluid ii) Contain red pigment haemoglobin
c) Ketone bodies iii) Nephrotic Syndrome
d) Phosphodiester bonds iv) Energy ‘currency’ of cell
e) Coenzyme A v) Breakdown of RBCs to release their contents
f) Erythrocytes vi) Fluid in between cells
g) Agglutination vii) Transport of molecules/ions against
concentration gradient
h) Protein in Urine viii) Glycosuria
i) Adenosine Tri Phosphate (ATP) ix) Clumping together of RBCs
j) Active transport x) Formation of ions by dissociation of
electrolytes
xi) Derived lipid
xii) Coenzyme form of pantothenic acid
xiii) Fluid inside cells

11
Section B: Biophysics (Max. Marks=50)

Note:

This Assignment has three parts i.e. Part A, B and C

Part A consist of one long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consist of five short answer questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
Part C consist of two objective type questions. Each question carries 5 marks.

Part – A

1. a. What is the power of accommodation and least distance of distinct vision?

b. Explain the image formation by the eye lens in a normal eye.
c. Describe the defect of vision and how are they corrected. Illustrate your answer with the
help of a diagram.
(2+2+2+9=15)
Part – B

2. a. Explain the two types of errors present in measurement.

b. Illustrate them with example of measurements taken by nurses.
c. Describe he defects of vision and how are they corrected. Illustrate your answer with
the help of a diagram.
(2+2+1=5)
3. a. Difference between density and relative density.
b. What is buoyant force?
c. Why underwater exercise suggested for the rehabilitation of muscles and joints?
(2+1+2=5)

4. a. How is heat lost from our body (explain diagrammatically)?

b. What does hypothalamus initiate if body temperature increased due to heavy exercise?
(4+1=5)

5. a. What is diathermy. In which condition is it effective?

b. Why is the (Operation Theater) OT uniform mostly cotton based?
(2+3=5)

6. a. Explain the factors on which the flow of fluid through an orifice depends.
b. Describe the relationship between high blood pressure and thickening or arteries.

(2+3=5)
Part – C

7. Place a () mark against ‘T’ if you consider the statement as true and ‘F’ if you consider
the statement as false. (½x10=5)

i) An isotope which is artificially produced is generally unstable and is known as

radioisotope.
ii) Ergosterol is a cholesterol derivative present in the stomach which produces vitamin D

12
 with the help of ultra violet light.
iii) The three ossicles, the malleus, he incus and the stapes stretch across the middle ear from
the eardrum to the membrance of the oval window.
iv) A device that converts light energy to mechanical energy or vice versa is called a
transducer.
v) To covert temperatures on Celsius Scale to Fahrenheit scale or vice versa the formula
used is F+32/100 = C/180.
vi) Random error arises due to factors like incorrect caliberation of the instrument or
consistently incorrect procedures adopted by a nurse.
vii) A nurse walking with good rubber soled shoes in the ward, as the heel strikes the ground,
the friction between the heel and the surface make the foot slip.
viii) Patients in bed for a long time develop bed sores because the heavier portions press more
firmly against the mattress than do the lighter portions and in turn receive a greater
reaction force.
ix) The foetus inside the amniotic fluid in the uterus is protected till its birth because of the
pascal’s law.
x) The constriction in the bore of the tube immediately above the bulb helps the column of
mercury to continue to show the maximum level even after use in a clinical thermometer.

8. Place () against the most appropriate answer given under each statement (½x10=5)

a. Force acting per unit surface area is called:

i. Pressure
ii. Work
iii. Energy
iv. Power

b. While biting the human jaw acts as a lever of the:

i. 1st order
ii. 2nd order
iii. 3rd order
iv. None of these

c. Several forces act on the fractured leg of a patient in traction. The combined effect of these
forces into a single force is called as:
i. Magnetic force
ii. Gravitational force
iii. Resultant force
iv. Functional force

13
d. On squeezing the bulb of the dropper the pressure created inside the dropper is:
i. Less than atmospheric
ii. More than atmospheric
iii. Equal to the atmospheric
iv. None of these

e. The seat of the dentist’s chair is placed over the larger piston and the smaller piston is
operated by a foot pedal on the principle of:
i. Charles law
ii. Pascal’s law
iii. Boyle’s law
iv. Dalton’s law

f. Follicles of unwanted hair are destroyed by causing the cells of the follicle to disintegrate
chemically by:
i. Heating
ii. Cooling
iii. Electrolysis
iv. Mechanically

g. Rays absorbed by heavier materials like calcium and phosphorus and which can pass
through the tissues of human body and not through bones are:
i. Light rays
ii. Sound waves
iii. X-rays
iv. Infra-red rays

h. The physical quantity of the measurement 1.4 m correspond to:

i. Length
ii. Mass
iii. Time
iv. Pressure

i. Volume of gas varies inversely with the pressure if the temperature is constant refers to the
law stated as:
i. Boyle’s law
ii. Pascal’s law
iii. Charles’s law
iv. Dalton’s law\

j. Electronic devices that consist of minute microphone that picks up sound waves and
converts them into electric current which is amplified and passes to a miniature loud
speaker that fits into the ear are called:
i. Transistor radio
ii. Hearing aid
iii. Amplifier
iv. Head phone

14
 APPLIED SCIENCES
Assignment – 2 (Block 3, 4 & 5) Tutor Marked
(Microbiology and Nutrition and Dietetics)

Programme Code : B.Sc.N (PB)

Course Code : BNS 202
Assignment Code: BNS 202/ TMA-2/2023
Maximum Marks – 100
Last date of submission: August 31st, 2023

Do Microbiology, Nutrition and Dietetics on Separate Sheets.

Section A: Microbiology
(Max. Marks = 50)
Note:
This Assignment has three parts i.e. Part A, B and C

Part A consist of two long answer questions. Each question carries 7.5 marks.
Part B consist of five short answer questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
Part C consist of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2½ marks.

Part-A

1) Define chemotherapy. What is their source of production? Give two examples of commonly
used antibiotics in hospital. Differentiate between a bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotic.
(1+1½+1½+1½+2=7½)

2) Draw a labeled diagram of a typical bacterial cell showing its various organelles. State the
function of each of them. How do bacteria reproduce in nature?
(3+2½+2=7½)
Part-B
3) Name the causative agents of the following diseases. How are they transmitted form the
patient to a healthy person?
(1×5=5)
a) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
b) Hydrophobia
c) Chicken pox
d) Dengue fever
e) Measles

4) Give the general characters of mycobacterium. How do you stain them in the laboratory?
Name four mycobacteria of medical importance and the diseases caused by them.
(2+1+2=5)
5) Define immunity. Differentiate between innate and acquired immunity. Enumerate the factors
influencing the development of immunity in an individual.
(1+2½+1½=5)
6) How do fungi differ form bacteria? Write briefly about the characteristics of Candida albicans.
Mention the various diseases caused by this fungus. (1+2+2=5)

15
7) With the help of a diagram, describe the life cycle of Leishmania Donovani. Mention how the
diagnosis of Kala Azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) is made. (3½+1½=5)
Part C

8) Place tick mark (√) against the most appropriate answer given under each statement.
(½x5=2½)

a) Vaccination to prevent small pox was introduced by;

i) Louis Pasteur
ii) Edward Jenner
iii) Robert Koch
iv) Antony Van Leeuwenhock

b) All of the following bacteria has cell wall except

i) Mycoplasma
ii) Mycobacterium
iii) Meningococcus
iv) Micrococcus

c) Chinese letter arrangement is characteristic of one of the following bacterium:

i) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
ii) Clostridium Tetani
iii) Bacillus Anthracis
iv) Corynebacterium Diphtheriae

d) ‘Negri bodies’ are found in the nerve cells infected with virus known as:
i) CD, (Helper) T- lymphocyte
ii) B-lymphocyte
iii) CD, (suppressor) T- lymphocyte
iv) Polymerph

9) Match the statements given in column A with the terms given in column B (½x5=2½)

Column A Column B
a) Tse tse fly i) Clostridium tetani
b) Immunoglobulin E (IgE) ii) Borrelia
c) Endospore (Bacterial spore) iii) Leishmaniasis
d) Plague iv) Sleeping sickness
e) Congenital infection v) Anaphylaxis
vi) Yersinia pestis
vii) Flagella
viii) Rubella virus
ix) Malaria 16
10) Fill in the blanks (½x5=2½)

a. The ability of an organism to cause infection is called………………….

b. The causative agent of Whooping cough is ……………………….
c. Both yellow fever and Dengue fever are transmitted through the bites of ………….mosquito.

16
d. Viruses responsible for causing common cold are………………………
e. A toxin that has been treated to destroy its toxic property without affecting its antigenicity is
called …………………….

11) Place tick mark (√) against ‘T’ if you consider the statement as true and ‘F’ if find the
statement is false. (½x5=2½)

a) The T- lymphocyte matures in the bone marrow and spleen of an individual (T/F)
b) Immunoglobulin G (IgG) has two gamma heavy chains and either 2 kappa or lambda light chains
(T/F)
c) Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is an example of T-dependent antigen (T/F)
d) Hepatitis A virus (HAV) is primarily transmitted through orofecal route (T/F)
e) Human helminthic parasites include ne\amatodes, cestodes and trematodes (T/F)

17
Section B: Nutrition and Dietetics (50 marks)
Note:

This Assignment has three parts i.e. Part A, B and C

Part A consist of two long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consist of six short answer questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
Part C consist of two objective type questions. Each question carries 5 marks.

Part – A

1. Name three diseases caused by dietary deficiency and three diseases caused due to
excessive dietary intake, suggest measures for management of one disease disease from
each category.
(3+3+4½+4½=15)
Part – B

2. Discuss advantages of dietary survey in detail. (5)

3. Why is fibre important in daily diet, list important sources of fibre. (2½+2½=5)

4. Define hypothyroidism. What diet is suitable for such a patient? (2+3=5)

5. What is the significance of food laws and standards in promotion of public health? Suggest
ways for its effective implementation. (2½+2½=5)

6. What are the symptoms of hypoglycemia. Suggest the management of hypoglycemic

patient. (2½+2½=5)

Part – C

7. Fill in the Blanks: (½x10=5)

a) Cereals and tuber are rich sources of …………………..

b) Microorganisms responsible for food contamination can be categorized as Virus,
Bacteria and …………………..
c) Tape worm, hook worm etc. are known as ………………….. infestations.
d) Adulteration of argemone seeds in mustard oil causes …………………..
e) Overactivity of thyroid gland is known as …………………..
f) Hypolipidemia implies decreased levels of ………………….. in blood.
g) Cyclamates and B.V.O. are dangerous food …………………..
h) Isoleucin and lysine are important …………………..
i) Butter, ghee, vanaspati are rich sources of ………………….. fats.

18
 j) Fruits and vegetables are abundant sources of vitamins and …………………..

8. Match the items given in Column A with those given in Column B: (½x10=5)

Column A Column B

a) Low purine diet i) Low Carbohydrate Diet

b) Tetany ii) Toxic mushroom
c) Hyperglycemia iii) Cancer
d) Underweight iv) Food Adulteration
e) Phalloidine v) Milk
f) Nitrosamines vi) Gout
g) PFA Act vii) Calcium deficiency
h) Pasteurization viii) High calorie diet
i) Aflatoxins ix) Mercury
j) Industrial Pollutant x) Aspergillus flavus
xi) High calorie diet
xii) Genetic Changes

19
 Maternal Health Nursing
Assignment - 1 (Block 1 & 2)
Tutor Marked
Programme Code: B.Sc. N (PB)
Course Code: BNS-203
Assignment Code: BNS 203/ TMA-1/2023
Maximum Marks - 100
Last date of submission: July 31, 2023
Note: This Assignment has three parts - Part A, B and C
Part A consists of two long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consists of six short answer questions. Each question carries 10 marks.
Part C consists of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2½ marks.
Part - A
1) a) Enumerate the signs and symptoms of pregnancy as per following.
i) Presumptive signs and symptoms
ii) Probable signs and symptoms
iii) Positive signs and symptoms

b) Discuss different ways of diagnosing pregnancy.

c) Explain how as a midwife you would examine the progress of pregnancy to detect any
risk factors and provide need based care.
(5+5+5=15)
2) a) Explain obstetric emergencies.
b) List common obstetric emergencies.
c) Describe in detail any two obstetric emergencies under the following headings.
i) Causes
ii) Signs and symptoms
iii) Nursing management.
(2½+2½+10=15)
Part-B
3) a) Explain the factors influencing fertility
b) Describe the role of a nurse in family welfare services.
(5+5=10)
4) a) Describe the physiology of lactation.
b) Enumerate the factors responsible for maintenance of normal lactation. Support your
answer with diagrams.
(5+5=10)
5) a) List the common medical problems of newborn.
b) Discuss in detail the nursing management of hypothermia in newborn. (3+7=10)

20
6) a) Discuss types of fibromyoma
b) List its symptoms.
c) Describe postoperative care in gynaecological surgery. (2+3+5=10)

7) a) Define puerperium (1+3+6 = 10)

b) Discuss the physiological changes that take place during puerperium
c) Explain the role of nurse in preventing complication during puerperium.

8) a) Discuss the reasons for Glycosuria in Pregnancy.

b) Explain the risk assessment for Gestational Diabetes.
c) Describe the Nursing Management including Prevention of Complications of Diabetes
during Pregnancy and Labour. (5+5=10)

Part-C
9) Place a (√) mark against the most appropriate answer under each statement. (½×5=2½)

a) Anti D immunoglobulin is administered to a postnatal mother in case of Rh

incompatibility within a period of:
i) 48 hours
ii) 72 hours
iii) 24 hours
iv) 12 hours

b) The height of fundus of uterus at 32 weeks of pregnancy is at the :

i) level of maternal umbilicus
ii) level reaching below subcostal arch.
iii) 2/3rd distance between umbilicus and ensiform cartilage
iv) 1 /3rd distance between umbilicus and ensiformcartilage

c) The recommended amount of calcium during pregnancy is:

i) 100-200 mg/day
ii) 200-300 mg/day
iii) 500-600 mg/day
iv) 1000-1200 mg/day

d) Full dilatation of cervical Os during labour is:

i) 6-8 cms
ii) 4-6 cms
iii) 9-10 cms
iv) 12 cms

21
 e) The neuromuscular harmony between the two poles or segments of uterus throughout
labour is known as:
i) Fundal dominance
ii) Polarity
iii) Retraction
iv) Frequency

10) Fill in the blanks:

(½x5=2½)
a) The common renal problems which occur in pregnancy are ………………..
and…………………
b) Pregnancy induced hypertension causes intrauterine growth retardation of the
foetus due to……………….
c) Preterm labour is defined as the labour which starts before …………..completed weeks
of gestation.
d) The other name of rapid delivery is …………………..
e) The fallopian tubes are also called as …………………..or ……………………..

11) Match the statements given in ColumnAwith the statement given in Column B:
(½×5=2½)
ColumnA Column B
a) Graafian follicle i) Front of skull from forehead to crown
b) Common method of placental separation ii) Amniotic Fluid Embolism
c) Sinciput iii) Mathews Duncan Method
d) Show iv) Blood Stained mucoid discharge
e) Effacement v) Secondary ovarian follicle
vi) Schultze Method
vii) Taking up of cervix

12. Place a tick mark (√) against ‘T’ if you consider the statement as true and ‘F’ if you
consider the statement as false. (½×5=2½)
a) The turning of the head to undo the twist in the neck during internal rotation of head
is restitution. (T/F)
b) The Apgar score at 10 minutes gives an accurate prediction of survival. (T/F)
c) The daily requirement of folic acid is about 0.5-1 gm during pregnancy. (T/F)
d) Moulding is localized area of oedema on fetal skull on vertex presentation. (T/F)
e) The umbilical sepsis is called omphalities. (T/F)

22
 Communicative English
Assignment-I (Blocks 1&2) (Tutor Marked)

Programme Code: BSCN (PB)

Course Code: BNS-204
Assignment Code: BNS-204/TMA-1/2023
Maximum Marks: 100
Last date for Submission: July 31, 2023
All the questions are compulsory.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions:
During the past few centuries, with the increase in human population, biodiversity has come under
tremendous pressure. Biological extinction, which led to the disappearance of one species in several
hundred years, has now been replaced by an accelerated rate of extinction-one species every year.
This is the result of the extensive habitat changes brought by mankind. If the same pace continues,
an estimated one-fourth to one-third of species is likely to become extinct within the next few
decades. Over all, roughly 1000 birds and mammals are now thought to be in jeopardy. Although
endangered animals, e.g. tigers in Asia, cheetahs in Africa, whales in the Antarctic, whooping
cranes in North America, etc., receive great public attention, plant extinctions are often more
significant ecologically. According to Peter H. Raven, Director of the Missouri Botanical Garden, a
disappearing plant can take with it ten to thirty dependent species such as insects, higher animals,
and even other plants. The International Union for Conversation of Nature and Natural Resources
(IUCN) finds about 10 per cent of the world’s flowering plants to be dangerously rare or under
threat.
These estimates of species at risk understate the true problem’, for they deal only with known and
higher life forms. It seems probable that many unnamed species are disappearing in scientifically
uncharted tropical areas. In his book The Sinking Ark, Norman Myers surmises on the basis of
exploitation that, right now, at least one species might be disappearing each day in tropical forests
alone. Even outside the tropics, many small, obscure organisms such as worms, mites, beetles and
herbs may be disappearing. without our knowledge. Besides, an examination of the survival
prospects of all forms of plant and animal life- including obscure, fens, shrubs, insects, mollusks,
elephants and wolves - indicates that huge number of them have little future. Loss of such a
multitude of species would constitute an irreversible alternation in the nature of the biosphere even
before we understand its workings - an evolutionary Rubicon whose crossing Homo sapiens would do
well.
1) A) 1) Why has the natural environment suddenly come under great pressure? Give example
from the passage to show the pressure. (3)
2) If extinction continues at this place, what is the prediction for the present and the
future? (3)
3) Name the different life forms that are affected by our indifference to our environment.
(5)
4) What are Norman Myers comments about the tropical forest in his book “The
Sinking Ark”? (3)
5) What will be the effect of the loss of various living things on earth, mean for
mankind? (2)
6) Give your opinion and solution as to what we can do to save our environment. (4)

23
 B) Match words in Column A with their meanings in Column B: (10)
Column A Column B
a) Tremendous Pressure i) A great number
b) Extinction ii) Environment
c) Accelerated Rate iii) In danger
d) Extensive iv) Rare
e) Jeopardy v) Increased speed
f) Endangered vi) Widespread
g) Ecology vii) Not clear
h) Obscure viii) Great force
i) Multitude ix) That which cannot be changed
j) Irreversible x) Total death

2) Describe the Nursing Department organization of your hospital and draw flow chart.
Or
Describe the 1st, 2nd and 3rd trimester of pregnancy and draw flow chart. (15)
3) Discuss the facts on which a clinical case study is prepared. (10)

4) Write a paragraph in about 150 words on anyone of the following: (15)

a) Positive thinking helps in recovery

or
b) Night duty experiences
or
c) Alternative health care systems

5) Write a resignation letter to your organization.

or
Write a letter of acceptance for a new job offer. (15)

6) a) Use the right form of verbs to fill in the blanks: (5)

i) The children .................... happy to go swimming.
ii) He ........................................ his work, much before the scheduled time.
iii) Where .................................................... you go last night?
iv) Whatever happens, work ............................................ on as usual.
v) You have to .................................... your assignments to get the degree.

b) Use proper suffixes to form the opposites: (3)

i) Happy
ii) Bailable
iii) Capable

24
c) Make questions for the following answers: (2)
i) Do not wait for me, I will be coming late.
ii) I can do this for you.

d) Fill in the blanks with question tags: (2)

i) We can pay by card.............................................. ?
ii) She likes chocolates ....................................... ?
e) Fill in the blanks with some, none, any: (3)
i) …………of these books are interesting.
ii) ………..of them offered to help me.
iii) Have you ............................. reason to complain against them?

25
 Communicative English
Assignment-2 (Blocks 3 & 4) (Tutor Marked)

Programme Code: BSCN (PB)

Course Code: BNS-204
Assignment Code: BNS-204/TMA-2/2023
Maximum Marks: 100
Last date for Submission: August 31, 2023
All the questions are compulsory.
1) Make notes of the following passage, using devices like headings, sub-headings, numbering,
shortened devices, whichever you think is appropriate. (15)

They have changed life for most of us. In a span of less than fifty year’s time, they have
influenced practically every field of activity. And they have done it neither with a bang nor
with a whimper, but efficiently and silently. Not a shot has been fired, not a drop of blood
has been shed, but a revolution has all the same been accomplished by the ubiquitous computer.
The computer has removed the tediousness of many a job. Robots controlled by computers
carry out routine jobs in industry. The economist is able to make graphs and tables at the
press of a button.

In the medical field too, doctors use computers to help diagnose diseases. Artificial
intelligence system enables computers programmed with vast amount of data to ‘think’ about
numerous possibilities and make a diagnosis.

The personal computer-a desktop or handheld affair-has actually invaded the home now and
taken over the tasks of writing and keeping household accounts. Networks can now be
established enabling people to exchange news, financial and travel information and other
data.

Computers have made their presence felt most in the field of communication. Today the
entire world is interlinked through satellite. On a smaller scale, computer networks allow
people to communicate by using electronic mailing in a matter of minutes over long distances.

The most complicated machines in history, computers are arguably the most useful as well.
Even art has not escaped the computer’s attention. Who could have conceived of Jurassic
Park if computers had not been there? Computers are increasingly indeed indispensable in
the home, school and work place even in a developing country like India. And they make no
noise about it.

2) Make a summary of the given passage (10)

One cannot choose everything in life. Nowhere is this more applicable than when it comes to
the kind of neighbours one ends up with. It is simply a matter in the hands of God. If one is
lucky enough, one may be blessed with neighbours who are ready to help and share problems
and can be depended upon in times of need. On the other hand, some of us have to put up
with a bunch of troublemakers-neighbours who have nothing better to do than to be too
interested in what is going on at the house next door and who are always eager to create an
unpleasant scene or commotion. The truth is, one cannot really isolate oneself completely
from the people around. The tie between man and society is not only age-old but essential
26
 for the survival of man. For an individual, the mere fact of the existence of the society is a
strong reason for feeling secure. As our neighbours are the people dwelling closest to us, we
cannot naturally avoid communicating and socializing with them. Constant interaction among
neighbours is all the more inevitable nowadays as a result of the large number of flats
mushrooming in suburbs, towns and cities. The flat system has brought people closer to each
other especially as they are required to share public facilities like the car parking space, the
elevators and the garbage disposal arrangement. In such cases, people cannot help but bump
into each other while going to and fro.

Moreover who else can we depend upon when suddenly confronted with problems and
requiring help especially in case of an emergency? Only our neighbours can respond quickly
and save the situation. For instance, if a burglar were to suddenly attack your house, would
you not cry out for help hoping that your neighbours would hear you and come to your
rescue? And, if possible, would windows or loitering by their front doors with a hungry
gleam in their eyes, keeping a lookout for everything that might be happening next door. Such
people are a great nuisance, for everyone has a right to privacy. Gossiping among neighbours
about each other and mainly those who are not ready to join them in their chats is another
irritating problem. Half-truths and total lies are exchanged and rumors thrown around - all
these just because of their curiosity and carving for excitement. Sometimes neighbours can
totally refuse to cooperate and break the unity of the neighborhood. In extreme cases,
neighbours, for what would seem a trivial mistake, get ready to shake their fists and create an
uproar.

Often misunderstanding cause neighbours to view each other as sworn enemies. In this fast-
paced life we lead today, there is not much time available for leisure. Most of the time one is
involved in some kind of work or the other. People who are loaded with work from morning to
evening cannot be expected to pay social calls or frequently visit their neighbours for
friendly chats. This is generally mistaken as a sign of total disrespect for social norms and
obligations. Neighbours need to understand that it is not necessary to pour attention over
each other in order to be good neighbours.

One cannot do away with one’s neighbours however bad they may be. At the same time, one
cannot live without trustworthy neighbours who would be concerned enough to help in times of
distress. Each one of us must ensure that we act as good neighbours. It would be good to
remember that we should do unto our neighbours just as we would expect them to do unto us.
3) Study this chart and make notes from it. (15)
Characteristics Moon Earth Sun
Size Not very big Bigger (50 Biggest (400
moons could moons placed side
be squeezed by side)
into earth)
Weight Not very heavy 81 times heavier .27 million times
Distance Quite close to earth- — —
384,000 km away
Description Earth’s satellite Planet —

27
4) What are study skills? Explain? (10)
5) What is the structured manner to write down the medical history of a patient. (10)
6) List the factors that are necessary for good communication in the nursing profession. (10)
7) A child is very serious. You as a nurse have a conversation with the child’s mother,
write how would you help her to cope with the situation. (15)
8) Write a telephonic conversation between two friends. One friend has just returned from a
trip abroad. The friend describes the best things she like about the place- the tourist spots,
the food, the people, shopping etc. Write this conversation in about 250-300 words. (15)

28
 Behavioural Sciences
Assignment-l (Blocks 1&2)
(Tutor Marked) (Sociology)

Programme Code: B.Sc. N (PB)

Course Code: BNS-205
Assignment Code: BNS-205/TMA-1/2023
Maximum Marks: 100
Last date for Submission: July 31, 2023

Note:
This Assignment has three parts - Part A,B and C.
Part A consists of two long answer questions. Each question and it carries 15 marks.
Part B consists of six short answer questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
Part C consists of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2½ marks.

Part A
1) a) Discuss the elements of Socialization.
b) Describe the types of Social Structure as studied by you. (5+10=15)

2) a) Describe the utilization and accessibility of Health Care Services after Independence in our
country.

b) Discuss the Perception of Nurse about utilization of Health Services in current health
scenario. (8+4+3=15)

Part B
3) Explain the Sociological Approach to understand the Human Society. (10)

4) a) Explain the stresses faced by most women.

b) Discuss role of family in Maintaining Nutritional Status. (5+5=10)

5) Describe Community Participation in Health care with suitable examples. (10)

6) List the Health for All Indicators of Social Development. Enumerate the uses of these
Indicators. (5+5=10)

7) a) Discuss parameters of Social Change in developing Countries.

b) Enlist the reasons for occurrence of Social Change. (5+5=10)

8) a) Describe Village.
b) Discuss the Characteristics of Indian Villages.
c) Discuss the Social interaction among various groups in a Village. (1+5+4=10)

Part C
9) Place a tick mark () against the most appropriate answer in the following statements:
(½×=2½)
1. The study of making choices for allocation of resources is called:
29
 i) Sociology
ii) Anthropology
iii) Economics
iv) History
2. The study of medical anthropology includes which of the following:
i) Public Health Problems
ii) Medical Institutions
iii) Health Sociology
iv) Human interaction
3. Ethno medicine is also called as:
i) Medical Anthropology
ii) Health Sociology
iii) Popular Medicine
iv) Professional Health Culture

4. All of the following are essential elements of State except:

i) Population
ii) Defined Territory
iii) Sovereignty
iv) Family
5. The common characteristics of Indian villages are all except:
i) Social Mobility
ii) Jajmani System
iii) Simple Living
iv) Homogeneity
10) Fill in the blanks: (½×5=2½)
1. A number of individuals having ............................................... relationship form a
2. Group. .............................................. socialization is most crucial stage of socialization for a
child.
3. White collar workers and professionals fall in ......................................................... class.
4. Industrialization gave way to .......................................................... system of production.
5. The ............................................. model is of utmost importance for a correctional facility

11) Match the items given in Column A with those given in Column B: (½×5=2½)
Column A Column B

1) TRYSEM i) Supporting activities for Primary Health Care

2) SUPPORT ii) Conscious Raising
3) Conscientisation iii) Monolithic structure of Health Care system
4) Developing Countries iv) Feature of family
5) University v) Based on economic status
vi) Scheme to train youth

30
12) Place a () against “T” if you consider the statement as true and “f’ if you consider the
statement as false: (½×5=2½)

1. Reconstituted families have a family pattern which does not fit into societies norms.(T/F)
2. Endogamy is stable feature of caste system. (T/F)
3. Urban slum population is heterogeneous ‘floating’ migratory group. (T/F)
4. Illness is objective evaluation by an individual that something is wrong with him. (T/F)
5. Asbestos roofing in slums causes Tuberculosis. (T/F)

31
 BEHAVIOURAL SCIENCES
Assignment-2 (Blocks 3 & 4) (Tutor Marked)
(General Psychology and Educational Psychology)

Programme Code: B.Sc. N. (PB)

Course Code: BNS-205
Assignment Code: BNS-205/TMA-2/2023
Max. Marks: 100
Last date for Submission: August 31, 2023

(Do General Psychology and Educational Psychology on separate sheets.)

Part A: General Psychology Max. Marks: 50

Note:

This Assignment has three parts—Part A, Band C.

Part A consists of one long answer question and it carries 15 marks.
Part B consists of five short answer questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
Part C consists of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2 ½ marks.
Part A
1) a) Describe the Coorelational Method of Psychology.
b) Discuss the Importance of Psychology in Nursing.
(3+12=15)
Part B
2) Explain the Cognitive Theory of Human Development. (5)

3) Discuss the importance of Motivation in Nursing Students with suitable examples. (5)

4) a) Enlist the sources of Frustration.

b) Enumerate the reaction to Frustration. (2+3=5)

5) Describe the domains of development with example. (5)

6) Describe the common sensory disorders. (5)

Part C
7) Place a tick mark () against the most appropriate answer given under each statement.
(½×5=2 ½)
1. Applied side of Psychology makes it :
i) An art
ii) A science
iii) A study
iv) None of the above
32
 2. Growth involves all except:
i) Increase in number of cells
ii) Change of Size
iii) Metabolic Processes from within
iv) Sexual Maturity

3. Traditional counseling behavior strategy for Stress Management is :

i) Behavioral assistance
ii) Guidance
iii) Intimate Interaction
iv) Breathing exercises

4. One of the following is not the use of Clinical method of Psychology:-

i) Personal problems
ii) Maladjustinents
iii) Fears
iv) Aptitude

5. The technique which detects psychosomatic disorder is:

i) Schedule of recent experiences
ii) 16 pf
iii) Rorschach test
iv) Mental Status examination

8) Fill in the blanks: (½×5=2½)

1. The generalization must be …………… to be translated into qualitative terms.

2. A……………. view of human nature is considered in Humanistic theory .
3. The adolescence is also an age of ……………… crisis.
4. Power motivation can be measured by…………... ………….techniques

9) Match the items given in Column A with those given in Column B: (½×5=2½)
Column A Column B

1. ”O” variable stands for i) Middle age slump

2. Lose of Youth ii) Seen in Cinemas
3. Trying to respond to a Disaster iii) Learning Theories of Personality
4. Stroboscopic Motion iv) Automatic Action
5. Man is a creature of habit v) Cognitive theories of Personality
or response tendencies vi) Organism

33
10) Place a tick mark () against “T” if you consider the statement as true and “F” if you consider
the statement as false. (½× 5=2 ½ )

1. Growth levels off as humans reach sexual maturity. (T/F)

2. Power motivation helps to improve interaction with other. (T/F)
3. Paiget believed that ‘child is the father of man’. (T/F)
4. Thalamus relays and translates incoming messages from sense receptors of cells. (T/F)
5. Inaccurate Perception occurs when our receptors are not stimulated adequately. (T/F)

34
Section B: Educational Psychology Maximum Marks: 50

Note:

This Assignment has three parts - Part A, Band C.

Part A consists of one long answer question and it carries 15 marks.
Part B consists of five short answer questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
Part C consists of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2 ½ marks.
Part-A
1) a) Define Educational Psychology.
b) Enlist the methods of Educational Psychology.
c) Discuss any two methods of Educational Psychology in detail. (2+4+9=15)

Part-B
2) Discuss how reinforcement shapes the behavior with examples from clinical field. (5)

3) Describe the measurement of Individual Differences. (5)

4) a) Explain the assessment of intelligence.

b) List the applications of intelligence. (3+2=5)

5) Explain the significance of learning in nursing with suitable examples. (5)

6) Discuss the causes of Forgetting in detail. (5)

Part-C
7) Place a tick mark () against the most appropriate answer given under each statement.
(½×5=2 ½)
1. Tip of Tongue phenomena is characteristic of:
i) Short term memory
ii) Long term memory
iii) Semantic memory
iv) Episodic memory

2. Intelligence includes all except:

i) Act Purposefully
ii) Think Rationally
iii) Deal Effectively
iv) Develop Skills

3. One of the following is used to solve puzzles and riddles:

i) Insight
ii) Sign
iii) Socialization
iv) Maturity

35
 4. While classifying personality or sexual differences, which type of distribution appears:
i) Normal
ii) Bimodal
iii) Multimodal
iv) Symmetrical

5. Modification of Behavior is basic aim of :

i) Education
ii) Sports
iii) Society
iv) Memory

8) Match the items given in Column A with those given in column B. (½×5=2 ½)
Column A Column B
1. Drawback of Self Report Methods i) Development of Attitude by consistency
2. Balance Theory of Attitude ii) Elaborative rehersal
3. Making Notes iii) Mental Retardation in Boys
4. Fragile X syndrome iv) Remedial Education
5. Reducing failures v) Compensatory Reduction
vi) Lack of social conformity
9) Fill in the blanks: (½x5=2 ½)

a. Ability of a test to measure what it proposes to measure is known as ...............................

b. A change in the way information is processed as a result of experience that a person has had
in called...................................
c. If the chronological age of a child is eight years and his mental age is six years, his I.Q. will
be .......................
d. Ability to profit certain type of training and to do the work required in a particular situation is
called……………………..
e. Learning with one hand facilitates learning with the other hand, it is called………………..

10) Place a tick mark () against “T” if you consider the statement as true and “F” if you consider
the statement as false. (½× 5=2 ½ )
1. Intelligence is a major unitary concept causing a person to act purposefully. (T/F)
2. Short pauses while learning help to test memory. (T/F)
3. Single gene defects account for 15% of moderate to profound Mental Retardation. (T/F)
4. Lack of proper teaching methods causes misinformation in the classroom. (T/F)
5. Large individual differences exist in tasks of simple recognition. (T/F)
36