AP Environmental Science Exam: SECTION I: Multiple Choice

®
AP Environmental Science Exam

SECTION I: Multiple Choice 2016
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
Instructions
At a Glance
Section I of this exam contains 100 multiple-choice questions. Fill in only the circles for
Total Time numbers 1 through 100 on your answer sheet.
1 hour, 30 minutes
Number of Questions Indicate all of your answers to the multiple-choice questions on the answer sheet. No
100 credit will be given for anything written in this exam booklet, but you may use the booklet
Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited

Percent of Total Score for notes or scratch work. After you have decided which of the suggested answers is best,
60% completely fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Give only one answer to
Writing Instrument each question. If you change an answer, be sure that the previous mark is erased
Pencil required completely. Here is a sample question and answer.
Electronic Device
None allowed :
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy. Do not
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and come back to
le
iv P
ng
us , A
the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected that everyone will
Si
cl AT
C
know the answers to all of the multiple-choice questions.

EX
Ex S
e
or
Your total score on the multiple-choice section is based only on the number of questions
M
answered correctly. Points are not deducted for incorrect answers or unanswered
n
ai
questions.
bt
O
Form O
Form Code 4MBP
40
最新最全AP资源都在公众号omni_xyz扫描左下角二维码关注
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Section I
Time—1 hour and 30 minutes
Part A
Directions: Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered questions or statements immediately
following it. Select the one lettered choice that best answers each question or best fits each statement and then fill
in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. A choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all in each set.
Questions 1-4 refer to the following list of

pollutants.

(A) Radon
(B) Mercury
(C) Lead
(D) Copper
(E) Iron :
by
1. Was once widely used in the United States as a

e
gasoline additive
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
2. A gaseous decay product of uranium that is found

ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
in rocks
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
3. A leading cause of lung cancer in the

eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
United States
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
4. Poses a health risk to humans who eat large

M
quantities of marine fish such as swordfish

n
ai
bt
and tuna
O
Unauthorized copying or reuse of

any part of this page is illegal.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
-3-
Questions 5-9 refer to the locations indicated on the diagram below.

:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
5. Large quantities of methane hydrates are located

T
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
in this region and if released will contribute

om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
significantly to global climate change.

AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
6. This region of the world is currently experiencing

Si
cl AT
C
the largest average annual temperature increase

EX
Ex S
e
because of anthropogenic climate change.

or
M
n
ai
7. Damaging tornadoes occur most frequently in this

bt
O
area.
8. Fragmentation of tropical forests due to human

activities is leading to a significant loss of
biodiversity in this area.
9. This region has been the largest petroleum

exporter for the past four decades.

-4-
Questions 10-12 refer to the lettered areas of the map below.

10. Area that exhibits island arcs
:
by
e
M A S has
11. Area that exhibits a growing nonvolcanic

c
S
AN A P Pur
mountain chain due to uplift

:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
12. Area where new crust is being created at a

U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
divergent plate boundary

so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
O

-5-
Questions 13-14 refer to the following climatographs.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
(E)
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
O
13. Which environment is characterized by the 14. Which environment is most likely to be
highest diversity of tree species? characterized by dry scrub with frequent fires?

-6-
Questions 15-16 refer to the countries listed in the following table.
Total Fertility Rate Infant Mortality Rate Life Expectancy at Birth

Country
(births per woman) (per 1,000 births) (years)
A 6.5 150 48
B 3.3 25 68
C 1.8 60 80
D 2.1 10 80
E 2.4 10 80

15. Which of the countries listed in the chart above is 16. Which of the countries listed in the chart above is
most likely experiencing a population decline? most likely to have limited educational
opportunities for women?
:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
O

-7-
Part B
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or
completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
17. The Sun’s radiation provides the energy for all of 21. Long-term intensive agriculture that does not add
the following EXCEPT soil amendments such as manure or fertilizer has
been shown to decrease soil organic matter
(A) plant growth
content. Which of the following figures best
(B) ocean currents
shows this relationship?
(C) hurricanes
(D) plate tectonics (A)
(E) cloud formation
18. Phytoplankton are most abundant in the upper few

hundred feet of most bodies of water because
(A) they can most readily hide from
predators there
(B) sunlight does not penetrate to great depths (B)
in water
(C) as primary producers, they must be accessible
:
to many other organisms

by
e
(D) they are benthic organisms

M A S has
(E) they feed on zooplankton, which are found

c
S
AN A P Pur
:
only in the top layers of water
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
19. Catalytic converters reduce which of the

R ES TPA
(C)
n
om r
A
.c the
so
following pairs of pollutants in car exhaust?

TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
(A) Carbon dioxide and ozone

AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
(B) Carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons

Si
cl AT
C
(C) Carbon dioxide and particulates

EX
Ex S
e
(D) Lead and mercury

or
M
(E) Methane and particulates

n
ai
bt
O
20. Which of the following accurately describes a fuel (D)

cell vehicle?
(A) Fuel cell vehicles run on both an internal
combustion engine and a backup battery.
(B) Fuel cell vehicles are able to convert waste
oil from the food industry into ethanol,
which is burned as a source of power.
(C) Fuel cell vehicles use hydrogen to generate (E)
electricity that runs the motor.
(D) Fuel cell vehicles generate energy by creating
a flow of electrons in a semiconducting
material such as silicon.
(E) Fuel cell vehicles use methane to heat water,
which creates steam that turns a turbine to
generate electricity.

-8-
Questions 22-23 refer to the soil composition diagram below.

:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
22. What are the proportions of sand, silt, and clay for 23. Which soil composition would be the best choice
n
ai
the soil at point T ? for lining a landfill?

bt
O
(A) Point T
% Sand % Silt % Clay (B) Point U
(A) 75 20 5 (C) Point V
(B) 70 20 10 (D) Point W
(C) 65 25 10 (E) Point X
(D) 60 30 10
(E) 55 30 15

-9-
27. Which of the following represents a positive
feedback loop in the Arctic that is associated with
anthropogenic climate change?
(A) Arctic Ocean ice melts ocean surface water
temperature increases more ice melts
(B) Arctic Ocean ice melts ocean surface water
temperature decreases more ice melts
24. What important phenomenon that often plays a (C) Arctic Ocean ice melts ocean surface water
role in air pollution episodes is illustrated in the temperature increases more ice forms
diagram above? (D) Arctic Ocean ice forms ocean surface
water temperature increases more
(A) Albedo
ice melts
(B) Greenhouse effect
(E) Arctic Ocean ice melts ocean surface water
(C) Inversion
(D) Stratification temperature decreases less ice melts

(E) Heat-island effect
28. Construction of a solar power plant is proposed
25. Which of the following is true of the Ogallala for a desert area near a school. A student has
Aquifer? hypothesized that the shade cast by the solar
panels will increase the mortality of creosote
(A) It underlies the African Serengeti and bush, a native desert plant in the area. Before
supplies millions of people with freshwater. construction begins, what experimental data
:
by
(B) It underlies the Argentine Pampas and is should the student collect in order to eventually
e
M A S has
underutilized as a source of water. test the hypothesis?

c
S
AN A P Pur
(C) It underlies eastern Quebec and is a limited

L
:
on
ER IA
(A) The rate of increase in atmospheric CO 2

ge
ST ER
source of freshwater.
D TM ER
s
st
sa
worldwide (in ppm) that occurs in the

Te
(D) It underlies the United States High Plains and

U
R ES TPA
n
om r
12-month period prior to the start of

A
.c the
is being depleted by overuse.

so
TG IV A
er
AT O
construction
S
(E) It underlies central Florida and is

-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
(B) Average noise levels (in decibels) at a

le
iv P
contaminated by pesticide and fertilizer

ng
us , A
construction site, compared to average

Si
runoff from farms.

L
cl AT
C
noise levels in the desert 20 km away from

EX
Ex S
e
the construction site

or
26. Red pine trees are currently found growing in

M
only the cool northernmost areas of the central (C) The rate of wind-caused soil erosion
n
ai
(in kg/yr) near solar panels at a similar

bt
and eastern United States. Climate change is

O
expected to have an impact on the distribution of desert location where creosote bush grows
the species. Which of the following describes the (D) The direct sunlight received by creosote bush
most likely change to the distribution of red pine in the desert area (in kWh/m2) during a
over the next 200 years? 12-month period
(E) The changes in monthly precipitation
(A) Red pine will grow in only the wetter areas of (in mm/yr) at a similar desert location
the southeastern United States. where creosote bush grows
(B) Red pine will spread to large areas of the
Southwest.
(C) The total number of red pine trees will
decrease, but red pine trees will continue to
grow in the same locations as they grow
currently.
(D) Red pine distribution will shift northward
into Canada.
(E) Red pine distribution will expand southward
to Caribbean nations.

-10-
Questions 29-30 refer to the following graph.

29. At which time after clear-cutting does the 30. Which tree species grows best with full sunlight?
:
ecosystem exhibit the greatest species richness?

by
(A) White oak

e
M A S has
(A) 50 years (B) Hickory

c
(B) 100 years (C) Dogwood

AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
(C) 150 years (D) Sweet gum

ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
(D) 200 years (E) Beech

T
Te
U
R ES TPA
(E) 250 years

n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
O

-11-
31. Most deserts on Earth are located near the 34. For which of the following reasons do small
30 north and 30 south latitudes because isolated islands have a greater rate of species
humidity is lower at 30 . The best explanation for extinction than larger, less isolated islands ?
the lower humidity is that (A) Small isolated islands are more likely to
(A) warm air rises at 90° latitude, cools, and receive more migrating species.
sinks at 30° (B) Small isolated islands provide opportunities
(B) cool air rises at 30° latitude, warms, and for a greater diversity of species.
sinks at the equator (C) Because of their size, small isolated islands
(C) warm air rises at the equator, cools, and accumulate more species by chance.
sinks at 30° latitude (D) Small isolated islands have a lower
(D) trade winds transfer moisture away availability of resources.
from 30° latitude (E) Because they have fewer available niches,
(E) rain-shadow effects are most pronounced small isolated islands are targeted and
at 30° latitude colonized by species.

32. Many homeowners are unaware that their garbage 35. In the graph below charting the growth of a
may contain hazardous waste, which should be population of organisms, the line labeled K
taken to a designated hazardous waste dump site represents the
instead of being placed in their regular trash. All
of the following are considered household
hazardous waste EXCEPT
:
by
e
(A) batteries
M A S has
(B) bug spray

c
S
AN A P Pur
:
(C) motor oil
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
(D) oil-based paint

st
sa
Te
U
(E) food scraps

R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
33. Which of the following is a reason why hybrid

SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
electric vehicles use less fossil fuel per mile

ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
traveled than a typical internal combustion engine (A) biotic potential of the organism
C
EX
Ex S
vehicle uses? (B) doubling time of the population in the

e
or
environment
M
(A) Hybrid electric vehicles don’t burn fossil

n
(C) carrying capacity of the population

ai
fuels; they run on electric energy.

bt
(D) reproductive lag time of the organism

O
(B) Hybrid electric vehicles are powered by the

(E) intrinsic rate of increase of the population in
Sun using rooftop photovoltaic panels.
the environment
(C) When the brakes are applied in hybrid
electric vehicles, kinetic energy is converted
into electric energy to charge the batteries
that assist the electric motor.
(D) Batteries in hybrid electric vehicles can be
charged in the driveway overnight, when
rates for electricity usage are typically low.
(E) The engines in hybrid electric vehicles are
powered by biofuels made from genetically
modified corn.

-12-
36. Which of the following diagrams correctly illustrates the nitrogen cycle?
(A) (B)

(C) (D)
:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
(E)
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
O

-13-
Questions 37-39 refer to the graph.
Glyphosates are herbicides that are often applied to genetically modified (GM) crops to kill weeds without
harming the crop itself.

:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
37. Which of the following statements best explains 38. Which of the following statements identifies a
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
the relationship shown on the graph? concern associated with the increased proportion
C
EX
Ex S
of GM crops being grown?

e
(A) Increased use of glyphosate herbicides kills

or
M
more weeds and thus leads to higher crop (A) Planting GM crops results in reduced crop
n
ai
yields. yield, which causes more land to be put into

bt
O
(B) The use of glyphosate herbicides has production.

decreased because it has been shown to be (B) Use of GM seeds can lead to loss of genetic
ineffective in killing weeds. diversity in crops.
(C) The use of glyphosate has selected for (C) GM crops cannot be grown in marginal soils.
herbicide resistance in weed populations. (D) Runoff from GM crop fields can lead to
(D) The use of glyphosate herbicides has increased eutrophication.
decreased because the cost of the herbicides (E) GM crops cannot withstand herbicide
has increased. application, reducing crop yield.
(E) Increased use of glyphosate herbicides
correlates to increased agricultural profit.

-14-
39. Some studies have indicated that global
amphibian populations are declining and that
exposure to herbicides in agricultural runoff is
implicated in the decline. Which of the following
is the most likely explanation of how herbicides
affect amphibians?
(A) The herbicides are fat soluble and accumulate
in groundwater.
(B) The herbicides act as a plant nutrient, causing
algal blooms.
(C) The herbicides act as endocrine disruptors.
(D) The herbicides are ingested by amphibians
that mistake them for food.
(E) The herbicides contain heavy metals.

:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
40. Which of the following is the most valid inference regarding electricity production, based on the graph above?
O
(A) Electricity production from coal began to decrease in 2008 because of shortages in coal supplies.
(B) Electricity production from coal began to decrease in 2008 because of the increasing use of natural gas
and renewable energy.
(C) The use of nuclear energy increased from 1970 to 2010 because of the low cost of constructing nuclear
power plants.
(D) The use of nuclear energy increased from 1970 to 2010 because of shortages in coal supplies.
(E) Renewable energy has not increased as much as nuclear energy has since 1970 because of federal laws
restricting construction of wind farms.

-15-
41. Which of the following age structure diagrams represents a population that most likely has a negative
growth rate?
(A) (B)

(C) (D)
:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
(E)
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
O

-16-
WATER QUALITY DATA FOR AN ILLINOIS STREAM
Water Total Dissolved

Forest Canopy Turbidity Hardness
Site Temperature Solids pH
(% shaded) (NTU for 24 hr) (ppm)
( C) (mg/L)
A 20 35 10 220 7.2 85.7

B 15 80 8 220 7.2 85.5
C 22 70 100 2,000 7.0 86.0
D 15 80 2 220 7.1 84.3
E 15 90 30 800 4.0 150.3
42. Based on the data table above for a stream in Illinois, which site most likely has a construction site immediately

upstream from it?
(A) Site A
(B) Site B
(C) Site C
(D) Site D
(E) Site E
:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
43. Corn can be grown at a rate of 1,000 kcal per hectare, and it
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
takes 20 times more land to produce beef than it does to

T
Te
U
R ES TPA
produce corn. Which of the following equations would

n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
correctly calculate the amount of land needed to produce

er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
10,000 kcal of beef?

AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
20 ha
C
(A) 10,000 kcal corn 100 ha

EX
Ex S
kcal beef
e
or
M
1 ha 20 kcal corn
n
ai
(B) 10,000 kcal beef

bt
1,000 kcal corn 1 kcal beef

O
20 kcal beef 10,000 kcal 20 beef

(C)
1 kcal corn 10 ha 1 corn
20 ha 1,000 kcal corn
(D)
1,000 kcal beef 1 ha
10 ha 10,000 cal corn 1 ha corn
(E)
10,000 kcal beef 1 ha 20 ha beef

-17-
44. Which of the following is considered an 47. Brown pelicans are fish-eating birds. As a result
advantage of using nuclear power to generate of an El Niño event, the population of brown
electricity? pelicans in southern California declines. Which of
the following best explains the relationship
(A) No waste is generated.
between the El Niño event and the population
(B) There is a limitless supply of the raw material
decline?
needed for the process of generating energy.
(C) Nuclear power plants are inexpensive to build (A) Warmer ocean temperatures can cause fish to
and maintain. move to colder water farther from pelican
(D) There is no potential for thermal pollution. nest sites.
(E) There is no CO2 emitted from the nuclear (B) Lower sea surface heights can result in
reaction. pelican nest sites being isolated too far from
their food supply in the ocean.
45. The presence of which of the following in soil is (C) The female reproductive tract of birds does
most likely to neutralize acid rain? not function at the lower water temperatures
of El Niño.

(A) Limestone (D) Male pelicans get disoriented due to the lack
(B) Granite of moisture and fail to return to the nest
(C) Sand with food.
(D) Radon (E) Predatory seal populations increase
(E) Humus dramatically due to decreased rainfall.
:
by
48. Open oceans produce the largest share of Earth’s

e
M A S has
biomass because the net primary productivity

c
(NPP) of the oceans is

S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
(A) high and thus can support a high proportion

D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
of producers
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
(B) high as a result of the high concentration of

TG IV A
er
AT O
S
nutrients in the open oceans

-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
(C) low, but the large expanse of the oceans

ng
us , A
Si
supports enormous numbers of producers

cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
such as phytoplankton
e
or
(D) low, but the individual producers found there

M
n
are huge in size

ai
bt
(E) low, but still higher than that of other

O
ecosystems of the world

46. The world population growth rate in 2015 is
about 1 percent. It is expected to drop to
0.5 percent by 2050, partly because of increased
access to birth control in developing nations.
Another likely cause for the expected decline is
(A) a decrease in the spread of pandemic diseases
like Ebola
(B) an increase in the total fertility rate in
developed nations
(C) an increased global food supply as a result of
climate change
(D) increasing numbers of women entering the
workforce in developing nations
(E) medical advances that will increase the life
spans of people in developing nations

-18-
Questions 49-50 refer to the diagram below, which 49. Which of the following best explains the pattern
depicts the concentrations of various gases in the in NO concentration?
air over a city on a typical smoggy day. (A) NO is a secondary pollutant with
a long residence time in the atmosphere.
(B) NO does not play a significant role
in smog formation.
(C) NO is formed in the lower atmosphere in the
morning by the rising Sun.
(D) NO is produced by rush-hour traffic and is
quickly oxidized in the atmosphere.
(E) NO is quickly absorbed by plants and
converted to sugars.
50. If technology that reduces the hydrocarbon

concentration had been utilized, which of the

following would have been the most likely result?
(A) The concentration of NO would have
been higher.
(B) The concentration of CO2 would have
been lower.
:
(C) The concentration of O3 would have

by
e
M A S has
been higher.
c
(D) The concentration of O3 would have

S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
been lower.
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
(E) The concentration of aldehydes would

T
Te
U
R ES TPA
have been higher.

n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
51. Coal was surface mined from five sites, labeled 1 through 5, that had originally been covered by forest. Each site
or
M
was planted with a mix of tree seedlings to reclaim the area to forest. Grass was also seeded over each
n
ai
site to prevent initial erosion and to provide forage. Ten years after planting, information was collected at the
bt
O
five sites and is given in the table below. Select the letter of the row that indicates the site with the most
successful forest reclamation.
Percent Number of Percent Average Height
Site Grass Tree Species Tree Increase of
Number Cover Surviving Cover Seedlings (cm/yr)
(A) 1 90 4 5 4
(B) 2 80 4 10 5
(C) 3 70 4 25 8
(D) 4 50 3 40 10
(E) 5 35 3 65 20

-19-
Questions 52-54 53. Storm water runoff from the new development
into nearby Samel Creek will likely lead to which
A new 450-unit housing development will replace of the following?
several small farms on the outskirts of Fremont. The
(A) Biomagnification of mercury in birds of prey
development will be composed of 1/4-hectare lots
such as eagles and osprey
with nearly identical footprints, as show below.
(B) Improved recreational opportunities for
swimmers and boaters
(C) Destruction of fish habitats by high levels of
suspended solids and sediments
(D) Contamination of drinking water supplies by
volatile organic compounds such as ozone
(E) Increased incidence of waterborne diseases
such as malaria
54. One important step that homeowners in the new

development can take to protect water quality in
Samel Creek would be to
(A) apply lawn fertilizers immediately before
52. Which of the following will be the greatest impact storm events
of the development on the local water supply? (B) channelize Samel Creek to improve water
flow during storm events
:
(A) There will be less recharge of groundwater.

by
(C) use only persistent organic pesticides to

e
(B) There will be less runoff to fill reservoirs.

M A S has
(C) There will be higher humidity in the suburb. control weed species in their lawns
c
S
AN A P Pur
(D) make certain that pet waste is disposed of

:
(D) There will be decreased soil exposure,
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
directly into storm drains

D TM ER
reducing bacteria loads in surface water.

st
sa
Te
(E) use rain barrels to reduce the flow of storm

U
(E) There will be decreased erosion in local

R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
streams. water into the creek

TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
O

-20-
55. The table below shows measurements of the beak 57. Hydraulic fracturing, or fracking, is the pumping
size of a sample of ten ground finches on each of of highly pressurized water with a mixture of sand
two islands in the Galápagos archipelago. The and chemicals into boreholes to
two islands are about ten kilometers apart, and
(A) create cracks within the rock in order to
all the birds are the same species. Given that
provide pathways for the release of gas
beak size is genetically determined, which of
and oil
the following hypotheses is the most likely
(B) pulverize the rock in order to let gas and oil
explanation for the differences in data between
rise through the soil horizons
the islands?
(C) reopen old mine shafts, from which gas and
oil can be collected
Daphne Island Santa Cruz Island (D) create seismic movement and artificial
Beak Size Beak Size earthquakes in order to liberate gas and oil
(mm) (mm) (E) supersaturate the rock with the fracking fluid,
which scrubs gas and oil from the rock by
9.55 10.05 abrasion

8.70 9.74
58. Which of the following describes the changes in a
9.62 10.27 country’s demographics as it begins its transition
9.22 9.81 from a preindustrial state to an industrial state?
8.79 10.46 (A) Population increases rapidly, birth rate

declines, death rate increases
:
by
9.61 10.24 (B) Population increases rapidly, birth rate

e
M A S has
declines, death rate remains high

c
9.02 10.02
S
AN A P Pur
(C) Population decreases rapidly, birth rate

:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
declines, death rate decreases

D TM ER
7.85 10.30
s
st
sa
Te
(D) Population decreases rapidly, birth rate

U
R ES TPA
9.01 10.43
n
om r
A
.c the
so
remains high, death rate increases

TG IV A
er
AT O
S
8.26 10.52 (E) Population increases rapidly, birth rate

-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
remains high, death rate decreases

ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
(A) Egg mortality differs on the islands.

EX
Ex S
(B) Beak size exerts selective pressure on 59. All of the following are negative externalities
e
or
EXCEPT
M
prey size.
n
ai
(C) Birds on Daphne Island live longer than birds (A) illnesses related to living near a
bt
O
on Santa Cruz Island. manufacturing facility

(D) Large-beaked birds move to Santa Cruz (B) noise associated with living near a major
Island and small-beaked birds move to airport
Daphne Island. (C) air pollution caused by refinery emissions
(E) The types of food found on the two islands (D) bees pollinating vegetables in addition to
exert selective pressure on beak size. creating honey
(E) damage to crops from automobile exhaust
56. A family of five recently replaced its
5-gallon-per-minute showerheads with
water-saving 2-gallon-per-minute showerheads.
Each member of the family averages 8 minutes in
the shower per day. In a 30-day period, how many
fewer gallons of water will the family use with the
new showerheads?
(A) 60
(B) 800
(C) 2,400
(D) 3,600
(E) 7,200

-21-
60. Based on the information shown in the graph, which of the following statements is
most likely to be true?
(A) Streams in watershed I experience substantially more algal blooms than those
in watershed IV.
(B) When precipitation varies, streams in watershed II experience the greatest
:
by
fluctuations in water volume.

e
M A S has
(C) Watershed III has the highest percentage of impervious surfaces.

c
S
AN A P Pur
(D) The water quality of streams in watershed IV is excellent because of the

L
:
on
ER IA
ge
abundance of nutrients available to aquatic organisms.

ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
(E) Low dissolved oxygen is a severe problem in the streams in watershed I

Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
because of the inability of light to penetrate the forest canopy.

A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
61. A vegetable farmer wishes to switch to a combination of trees and vegetables (agroforestry) on several hectares
M
of her land to reduce erosion and to diversify what she grows. She needs to assess whether her land can produce
n
ai
bt
as much income by growing two crops instead of one. The farmer estimates that the new tree crop would cover
O
40 percent of her fields, with the vegetable crop covering the other 60 percent. Which equation should she use to
calculate how much total income she would get from using the new two-crop plan?
$ income trees $ income veg.
(A) 0.4 0.6 agroforestry income
ha ha
(B) total ha 0.6 total ha 0.4 agroforestry income
ha ha
(C) $ income veg. 0.4 $ income trees 0.6 agroforestry income

(D) total ha 0.4 total ha 0.6 agroforestry income
ha ha
(E) Total income from old crop 0.4 = agroforestry income

-22-
62. Surface oceanic circulation results most directly 65. Researchers have found that over the last
in the twenty years there are fewer native plants in
the alpine meadows of the Rocky Mountains east
(A) distribution of heat from tropical to temperate
of Salt Lake City and that the abundance of two
and polar regions
species of invasive grasses has increased. Which
(B) movement of benthic organisms from polar
of the following questions is most appropriate to
to temperate regions
ask when investigating the cause of the change in
(C) spring and fall overturn of temperate bodies
the alpine meadows?
of water
(D) restriction of the jet stream to polar regions (A) Has an increase in soil nitrates from air
(E) moderation of ocean acidification pollution allowed the invasive grasses to
outcompete the native plants?
(B) Has the increased level of tropospheric ozone
raised the soil pH of the meadows to a level
that the native plants cannot tolerate?
(C) Has an increased frequency of El Niño events

led to drought conditions, thereby making
the alpine soils too dry for native species?
(D) Has an increase in the population of wolves
led to an increase in the population of deer
that eat native plants?
(E) Has fire suppression accompanied by
:
by
prolonged drought increased the abundance

e
M A S has
of native shrubs?
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
66. An experiment was carried out to determine the

ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
lethal dose of ammonium sulfate on mung bean

T
Te
U
R ES TPA
germination. True statements about the

n
om r
A
.c the
so
63. The half-life of a radioactive substance with the

TG IV A
experimental design include which of the

er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
decay rate shown in the graph above is closest to

eS &
following?
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
(A) 5 seconds
Si
I. The control group has neither the seeds nor

cl AT
C
EX
(B) 7 seconds
Ex S
the ammonium sulfate.

e
or
(C) 14 seconds
M
(D) 18 seconds II. The independent variable is the

n
ai
concentration of the ammonium sulfate.

bt
(E) 21 seconds
O
III. The dependent variable is the number of

64. In August of 2014, residents of several Ohio cities seeds that failed to germinate.
that use Lake Erie as a drinking water source were
warned not to drink tap water because of the (A) I only
presence of toxins released by blue-green algae (B) II only
(cyanobacteria). Which of the following is the (C) III only
most likely cause of recent blooms of blue-green (D) II and III only
algae in Lake Erie? (E) I, II, and III
(A) Increased recreational use of Lake Erie
(B) Cooler average summer temperatures
(C) Phosphorus contained in agricultural runoff
(D) Carbon in wastewater from fracking
operations
(E) Chlorine from sewage treatment plants along
Lake Erie’s shoreline

-23-
67. A major limitation of using photovoltaic cells to 70. Which of the following measures would be most
generate electricity is that they likely to promote fertility above replacement
level?
(A) do not produce as much CO2 as other energy
sources do (A) Government endorsement of the two-child
(B) do not produce as much electricity on family
cloudy days (B) Education of society on the long-term
(C) have no moving parts benefits of having smaller families
(D) present a danger to birds and bats (C) Government advocacy of abstinence to
(E) cannot be connected to the electrical grid discourage teen pregnancies
(D) Elimination of tax benefits for families with
68. Major anthropogenic sources of nitrogen pollution more than two children
include commercial fertilizers, vehicle exhaust, (E) Public housing priority for families with
industrial air pollution, and more than two children
(A) disposal of refrigeration units 71. Which of the following is true about the Clean Air

(B) discharge of sewage to surface waters Act Amendments of 1990 ?
(C) ocean dumping of trash
(D) use of persistent pesticides (A) They allowed power plants to buy and sell
(E) oil spills like those in the Gulf of Mexico SO2 pollution allowances.
(B) They decreased the CAFE (corporate average
69. Burning one gallon of gasoline in a car releases fuel economy) standards for light trucks
:
approximately 20 pounds of CO2 into the from 29 mpg to 12 mpg.

by
e
(C) They regulated the concentration of eleven

M A S has
atmosphere.
common pollutants inside homes.
c
S
AN A P Pur
One person drives 60,000 miles in a car that

L
:
(D) They increased the allowable level of
on
ER IA
ge
averages 30 miles per gallon (mpg), while another

ST ER
D TM ER
tropospheric ozone from 80 ppb to 100 ppb.

st
sa
Te
person drives 60,000 miles in a car that averages

U
(E) They regulated the emission of CO2 by power

R ES TPA
n
om r
A
20 mpg. Over the course of the 60,000 miles, how

.c the
so
plants.
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
many fewer pounds of CO2 are released by the

-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
30 mpg car than by the 20 mpg car?

ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
(A) 2,000
EX
Ex S
e
(B) 8,000
or
M
(C) 20,000
n
ai
(D) 80,000
bt
O
(E) 100,000

-24-
POSTAWKO CREEK WATERSHED ANALYSIS
Dissolved
Macroinvertebrate Nitrates Fecal Coliform
Site pH Phosphorus Oxygen
Diversity Index (mg /L) (# colonies/100 mL)
(mg /L) (ppm)
A 0.852 7.2 15.0 0.10 8.0 80
B 0.795 7.0 7.0 0.07 10.0 47
C 0.439 7.1 40.0 1.00 1.5 500
D 0.923 7.3 8.0 0.08 9.0 58
E 0.848 7.3 17.0 0.15 7.9 90

72. Until 2005 the entire Postawko Creek Watershed in Fremont County consisted of a national forest interspersed
with hay meadows and houses on lots with a minimum size of five acres. In 2005 Farmer Cobb opened a dairy
farm in the watershed, and the citizens of Fremont County became concerned that the runoff from the dairy farm
would negatively impact the water quality of the watershed. Scientists employed by the county collected water
quality data at five sites in the watershed; some of the data are compiled in the table above. Based on these data,
which site is most likely immediately downstream from the dairy farm?
:
by
(A) Site A
e
(B) Site B
M A S has
(C) Site C
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
(D) Site D
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
(E) Site E
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
O

-25-
73. Which of the following is the most likely route for 75. Eutrophication results in the death of trout and
mercury to enter the food web? other fish as a result of
(A) Municipal waste landfill groundwater (A) toxic pH levels in the water
plants and vegetation (B) asphyxiation from lack of oxygen
(B) Coal-burning emissions deposition (C) toxic levels of mercury in the water
ocean plankton fishes (D) toxic concentrations of salt in the water
(C) Organic fertilizers soil groundwater (E) a lack of sufficient minerals in the water
lake trout
(D) Medical waste incinerators stratosphere 76. Consumers who get their electricity from
grass cows coal-fired power plants are not paying the true
(E) Mining waste acid deposition surface cost of energy production in their monthly utility
runoff plants and vegetation bills. Which of the following is true about utility
bills for these consumers?
74. A student group is involved in a restoration study (A) The bills do not include public health costs,

of a nearby disturbed area. They decide to collect such as those associated with air pollution.
six soil samples and analyze them for carbon (C) (B) The bills do not include the cost of power
and nitrogen (N). Two of the samples are found distribution.
to be very high in C and N, but the other four (C) The bills do not include the cost of marketing
samples are low in both. The students also notice electricity.
that the color of the two soil samples that are high (D) The bills include the cost of environmental
in C and N is very dark. Which of the following is damage associated with transporting coal.
:
by
the most likely explanation of the data? (E) The bills include the cost of cleaning up acid
e
M A S has
mine damage.
c
(A) Two of the samples were collected from an

S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
A horizon, and the others were collected

ge
ST ER
77. Which of the following is an example of

D TM ER
s
st
sa
from a B horizon.
T
Te
a carbon sink?
U
R ES TPA
(B) Two of the samples had more sand and gravel

n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
than the other four. (A) Deposition of organic matter on the deep
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
(C) Four of the samples were collected from an ocean floor

AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
area that had been restored previously and (B) Clearing of trees in the Amazon forest
Si
cl AT
C
now has thick vegetation. (C) Combustion of fossil fuels in power plants
EX
Ex S
e
(D) Four of the samples were collected from an (D) Decomposition of food waste by bacteria
or
M
area that had been mulched. (E) Nutrient uptake by the roots of grasses in
n
ai
(E) Four of the sample sites had been treated a suburban lawn
bt
O
recently with a chemical fertilizer.

-26-
:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
78. Which of the following statements is best supported by the

ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
population doubling times indicated on the map?

T
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
(A) Australia and China both have a greater population

TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
than the other countries have.

SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
(B) India has a higher population growth rate than China

ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
and Australia have.

C
EX
Ex S
(C) The countries with the shortest doubling times

e
or
have higher population densities than the other

M
n
countries have.
ai
bt
(D) The countries with the longest doubling times are less
O
developed than the other countries.

(E) The most arable land for growing crops is in Australia
and China.

-27-
79. Extraction of natural gas by the process of 82. Approximately 60 percent of municipal solid
hydraulic fracturing (fracking) is most likely to waste in the United States is composed of some
result in which of the following environmental form of organic matter that could be composted.
problems? Every American generates approximately 2 kg
of waste every day. The amount of compostable
(A) Groundwater contamination
waste that could be generated by one individual
(B) Ozone depletion
in a week would be closest to
(C) Eutrophication
(D) Denitrification (A) 0.6 kg
(E) Desertification (B) 1.2 kg
(C) 4.2 kg
80. An alpine area of a national park near a trail is (D) 6.0 kg
normally covered by plants, but much of the area (E) 8.4 kg
is now bare soil. Park rangers suspect that
trampling by hikers has killed the plants. Which 83. Which of the following scenarios is NOT likely to
of the following will best test the hypothesis? result from increased temperatures in the Arctic?

(A) Counting the number of hikers leaving the (A) Increased numbers of mosquitoes drive
trail in comparison with the number of caribou to higher, cooler elevations where
hikers leaving other trails there is less vegetation.
(B) Counting the number of plants along the trail (B) Increased melting of the permafrost increases
in comparison with the number of plants the amount of methane that escapes into the
along other trails atmosphere, which increases the
:
by
(C) Comparing the number of hikers this year to temperature even more.
e
M A S has
the number of hikers last year on various (C) Increased melting of sea ice decreases travel
c
S
AN A P Pur
trails distance for ships but increases the distance

:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
(D) Comparing plant survivorship in areas where that polar bears and other Arctic species
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
hikers stay on the trail with plant have to travel to find food, thus leading to
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
survivorship in the area where hikers leave their possible extinction.

TG IV A
er
AT O
S
the trail (D) Increased melting of the permafrost decreases

-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
(E) Comparing the ages, heights, and weights of the number of days that large vehicles can
ng
us , A
Si
hikers on different trails travel over the area to transport drilling

cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
equipment to extract oil from the region.

e
or
81. The K-selection reproductive strategy maximizes (E) Increased melting of sea ice decreases the sea
M
n
survival of offspring by producing level and leads to more arable land area that
ai
bt
can be farmed.
O
(A) few offspring with high levels of

parental care
(B) few offspring with low levels of
parental care
(C) many offspring with high levels of
parental care
(D) many offspring with low levels of
parental care
(E) many offspring without parental care

-28-
84. The terrestrial biomes shown in the diagram above vary in net primary productivity. The explanation for the
variation includes which of the following?
I. Temperature
II. Precipitation

III. Longitude
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) II and III only
:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
O

-29-
85. Which of the following would most likely 88. Which of the following is the human health
reduce the concentration of ground-level ozone impact most closely associated with atmospheric
in the air of a city? particulates?
(A) Release of CFCs into the air of the city (A) Cataracts
(B) Occurrence of several consecutive days (B) Diabetes
of sunny weather (C) Melanoma
(C) Formation of a temperature inversion (D) Asthma
(D) Decrease in the emissions of nitrogen oxides (E) Obesity
(E) Release of VOCs into the air of the city
89. A North Carolina timber company proposes
to clear-cut 45 hectares of oak-hickory
deciduous forest in the Appalachian Mountains.
The company has said that the forest will regrow
naturally, and 50 years after the clear-cutting
the company plans to harvest again, cutting all

the oaks and hickories that have at least a
40-centimeter diameter. A local citizens’ group
claims that this is not a realistic plan. Which of
the following, if true, best supports the claim of
the citizens’ group?
(A) Harvesting oak and hickory will disrupt the
:
by
soil in the first year after clear-cutting;

e
M A S has
oaks and hickories cannot germinate that

c
S
AN A P Pur
first year.
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
(B) Oak and hickory are late-successional

D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
species; pioneer species will dominate for

U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
86. Which latitude shown on the diagram many decades before the oaks and hickories
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
are reestablished.
-P
above experiences 24 hours of daylight on

SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
December 21 ? (C) Coniferous forests can regrow after having

ng
us , A
Si
been clear-cut; the biome will change to

cl AT
C
(A) A
EX
Ex S
a boreal forest after clear-cutting.

e
(B) B
or
(D) Populations of large carnivores in the forest

M
(C) C
n
will decline after clear-cutting occurs; deer

ai
(D) D
bt
hunting will suffer as a result.

O
(E) E (E) Erosion rates on the slopes of the

Appalachian Mountains will decrease after
87. Which of the following is the best description of clear-cutting; many new species will move
bioaccumulation? into the forest.
(A) The uptake of essential nutrients by plant
roots 90. Which of the following is the best example of the
(B) The absorption of a substance by an organism tragedy of the commons?
at a rate greater than the rate of elimination (A) Water pollution from oil rigs concentrated in
(C) The transfer of persistent pollutants like the Gulf of Mexico
PCBs from one generation to the next (B) An increase in the concentration of a toxin as
(D) A process that occurs exclusively in marine it goes through the food chain
ecosystems (C) Exponential population growth as a country
(E) A high mortality rate in organisms that have goes through the demographic transition
been exposed to a toxin (D) The use of invasive species as a biological
control
(E) The overharvesting of fish from privately
owned lakes

-30-
91. Carbon dioxide and particulates are emitted by 94. The spread of infectious diseases is expected to
volcanoes. Particulates form stratospheric aerosols increase with climate change, mainly because
that reflect sunlight. Which of the following best
(A) the world population growth rate is
describes the impact of atmospheric carbon
increasing very rapidly
dioxide and stratospheric aerosols?
(B) warmer temperatures allow disease-carrying
(A) Carbon dioxide contributes to global insects to survive in areas that were once
warming, and aerosols cause cooling. too cold
(B) Both carbon dioxide and aerosols contribute (C) disease-carrying microbes are migrating more
to global warming. rapidly into the tropics and subtropics
(C) Carbon dioxide contributes to global (D) the rain forests are rapidly expanding to cover
warming, and aerosols have no effect more of Earth’s surface
on global climate. (E) techniques and efforts to combat infectious
(D) Carbon dioxide reacts to form aerosols, diseases have not been successful globally
leading to decreased global warming.
(E) UV radiation causes carbon dioxide to break 95. As part of a school project, a group of high school

down, leading to increased stratospheric students will attempt to determine whether
cooling. increasing the species diversity of the edible
plants in pastures used for grazing livestock will
92. Recent studies have found that fine particulate provide an economic benefit to ranchers. Which
matter with a diameter of 2.5 μm or less can have of the following hypotheses, if supported by
negative human health effects. Which of the experimental results, best demonstrates an
:
by
following correctly links a negative human health economic benefit to the ranchers?
e
M A S has
effect to an anthropogenic source of fine

(A) Pastures with the highest diversity of plant
c
particulate matter?
S
AN A P Pur
species will have the highest net primary

:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
(A) High rates of respiratory disease from power productivity.

D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
plant emissions (B) Pastures with the highest diversity of plant

U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
(B) High rates of skin cancer in urban areas with species will have the lowest water
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
sewage treatment plants infiltration rate.

-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
(C) High rates of asthma from salt spray in (C) Pastures with the highest diversity of plant
ng
us , A
Si
coastal communities species will have the highest soil pH.

cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
(D) High rates of genetic deformities from (D) Pastures with the lowest diversity of plant
e
or
additives in food supplies species will have the lowest rate of insect
M
n
(E) High rates of obesity from exposure to waste predation.

ai
bt
from meatpacking (E) Pastures with the highest diversity of plant

O
species will have the lowest diversity of

93. Water vapor is a greenhouse gas and is produced bird species.
by burning fossil fuels. However, anthropogenic
water vapor does not contribute significantly to
global warming because water vapor
(A) is naturally occurring and therefore will not
harm the environment
(B) does not absorb energy
(C) has a short residence time in the atmosphere
(D) does not contain carbon
(E) has no global-warming potential (GWP)

-31-
:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
96. Which of the following statements best explains the graphs above?
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
(A) The price of cotton is high because cotton growing uses a lot of water.
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
(B) Fruits and vegetables give the greatest monetary return per water usage.
C
EX
Ex S
(C) Raising cattle for consumption uses few resources.

e
or
(D) The amount of livestock exceeds the amount of fruits and vegetables
M
n
grown.
ai
bt
(E) People consume more vegetables than they do rice.

O
97. Increased atmospheric CO2 concentration over the

next 50 years is expected to cause which of the
following global changes?
(A) A decrease in the severity of storms
(B) A significant loss of biodiversity in the
tropics
(C) Fewer significant heat waves
(D) A delay in the spring migration of many birds
(E) Later blooming of many mountain flowers

-32-
:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
O
98. Which of the following statements is consistent with the graphs above?
(A) Per capita meat consumption in Africa will increase as the population in Africa increases.
(B) North American meat production is expected to decrease as population increases.
(C) Per capita meat consumption in Europe will decline because population in Europe is projected to decrease.
(D) People in North America consume more meat per capita than people in other regions of the world do.
(E) By 2050 Asia will have the greatest per capita meat consumption because Asia has the greatest projected
increase in population.

-33-
99. Which of the following describes a potential 100. Which of the following annual population growth
human health effect most likely to be associated rates is paired with the correct doubling time?
with a thermal inversion?
(A) 1% . . 700 years
(A) Increase in respiratory irritation due to (B) 2% . . 35 years
increased levels of fine airborne particulates (C) 3.5% . . 12 years
(B) Increase in skin cancer due to increased (D) 5% . . 350 months
ozone levels (E) 7% . . 70 months
(C) Increase in allergies due to increased
household mold
(D) Increase in infant mortality due to increased
atmospheric CO2 levels
(E) Increase in heart attacks due to increased
barometric pressure

:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
STOP
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
END OF SECTION I
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

EX
Ex S
e
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION.

or
M
n
ai
DO NOT GO ON TO SECTION II UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

bt
O
MAKE SURE YOU HAVE DONE THE FOLLOWING.
PLACED YOUR AP NUMBER LABEL ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET
WRITTEN AND GRIDDED YOUR AP NUMBER CORRECTLY ON YOUR

ANSWER SHEET
TAKEN THE AP EXAM LABEL FROM THE FRONT OF THIS BOOKLET

AND PLACED IT ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET

-34-
®
AP Environmental Science Exam
SECTION II: Free Response 2016
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
At a Glance
Total Time
1 hour, 30 minutes
Number of Questions
4
Percent of Total Score
40%

Writing Instrument
Pen with black or dark
blue ink
Electronic Device
None allowed
Weight
The questions are
weighted equally, but
the parts of a question
:
by
are not necessarily

e
given equal weight. Instructions

M A S has
c
The questions for Section II are printed in this booklet. You may use the blank page 3 to
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
organize your answers and for scratch work, but you must write your answers on the
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
lined pages provided for each question.

st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
Each answer should be organized, comprehensive, and in prose form; outline form is not
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
acceptable. Do not spend time restating the questions or providing more than the number
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
of examples called for. For instance, if a question calls for two examples, you can earn
AL
le
iv P
ng
credit only for the first two examples you provide. Diagrams may be used to supplement
us , A
Si
cl AT
discussion, but diagrams alone will not suffice.

C
EX
Ex S
e
Write clearly and legibly. Do not skip lines. Cross out any errors you make; crossed-out
or
M
work will not be scored.

n
ai
bt
Manage your time carefully. You may proceed freely from one question to the next. You
O
may review your responses if you finish before the end of the exam is announced.
Form O
Form Code 4MBP
40
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
SECTION II
Time—90 minutes
4 Questions
Directions: Answer all four questions, which are weighted equally; the suggested time is about 22 minutes for
answering each question. Write all your answers on the pages following the questions in this book. Where
calculations are required, clearly show how you arrived at your answer. Where explanation or discussion is
required, support your answers with relevant information and/or specific examples.
1. Read the following article from the Fremont New Tribune.

:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
O
© 2016 The College Board.

Visit the College Board on the Web: www.collegeboard.org.

-2-
(a) Diseases can devastate populations; however, most diseases do not drive their host to extinction. Provide
one explanation for why diseases seldom cause extinction.
(b) Dr. Serach suggests that even if the impact of WNS on little brown bat populations can be reduced and the
extinction of the species avoided, the bat populations are likely to remain alarmingly small.
(i) Describe TWO threats (other than WNS) to the survival of the bat species if the total number of bats
becomes very small.
(ii) If the little brown bat species does not become extinct and can potentially recover, the rate of recovery
is likely to be slow. Discuss one aspect of bat biology that might slow the recovery of little brown bat
populations to pre-WNS numbers.
(c) Bats are found in ecosystems around the world. Describe TWO ways in which other organisms in an
ecosystem could be affected by a decline in a bat population.
(d) The Eastern deciduous forest in which the little brown bats live is an important ecosystem. Identify TWO

ecosystem services that forests provide, and explain how each service benefits human society.
WNS is an emerging disease in bats. Humans are also subject to emerging diseases, such as Ebola. A recent
study suggests that the number of emerging infectious diseases affecting human populations has been steadily
increasing in recent decades.
(e) Provide a likely reason for the increase in emerging infectious diseases affecting human populations.
Include an explanation for the reason you provided.
:
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
O


-3-
2. Iron ores are rocks from which metallic iron can be extracted for steel production. This process involves several
steps. Iron ore is first mined and then turned into pig iron in a blast furnace, and some rock waste such as silicon
dioxide is separated out. In the final step, the pig iron is refined into steel using a process that includes reacting
the molten pig iron with oxygen to remove impurities.
(a) Use the data below to respond to the following. For each calculation, show all your work.
Global Iron and Steel Data
1.6 billion tons of iron ore are used yearly to make pig iron.
1.2 billion tons of pig iron are produced each year.
Iron ore reserves are estimated to be 800 billion tons.
95% of iron ore that is mined is used in steel production.

(i) Calculate the weight (in tons) of rock waste produced globally each year when iron ore is converted
to pig iron.
(ii) Calculate the weight (in tons) of pig iron that could be produced if all of the estimated global iron ore
reserves were used for pig iron production.
:
(iii) Calculate the weight (in tons) of the current global iron ore reserves that would be used to make steel
by
e
if the current trends continue.

M A S has
c
Both iron ore and coal are mined for use in the manufacture of steel. It is estimated that for every ton of steel
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
recycled, 1.25 fewer tons of iron ore and 0.7 fewer tons of coal must be mined. About 80 million tons of steel
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
are recycled each year in North America.

T
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
(b) Calculate the weight (in tons) of coal that is conserved each year in North America by recycling steel.
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
Before the year 1900, most mining companies abandoned surface and subsurface coal mine sites once the
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
resource was depleted.

Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
(c) Describe TWO environmental problems that are associated with abandoned coal mine sites.
e
or
M
(d) Describe one method that can be used to mitigate one of the problems you identified in part (c).
n
ai
bt
(e) Discuss one reason why surface coal mining is generally less expensive than subsurface mining.
O


-4-
3. Municipal solid waste (MSW) is the trash collected from households and businesses. The graph below shows
MSW generation in the United States from 1960 to 2012.

:
by
(a) Use the data provided in the graph above to respond to the following.
e
M A S has
(i) Explain one probable cause (other than increased composting) for the change in per capita waste
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
generation from 2000 to 2012.
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
(ii) Calculate the percent increase in total MSW generation from 1980 to 2012.
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
(b) Two ways of managing MSW are incineration and disposal in landfills.
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
(i) Identify one disadvantage of waste incineration.

iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
(ii) Identify one disadvantage of waste disposal in landfills.

C
EX
Ex S
e
or
Trash incineration is one way to generate electricity from MSW. Electricity can also be generated from waste
M
buried in landfills.
n
ai
bt
(c) Describe the specific steps of a process used to produce electricity from waste buried in a landfill.
O
(d) Many landfills do not accept used tires. As a result, the tires are often dumped in poorly regulated piles.
Describe one human health problem associated with piles of discarded tires.
(e) Composting is one way to reduce the amount of waste that enters a landfill.
(i) Other than reducing the volume of waste, identify one advantage of composting.
(ii) Identify one disadvantage of composting.


- -
4. Soil is a complex mixture of living organisms and organic material, along with minerals and other abiotic
components. Soils help sustain life and support ecosystem functions.
(a) Describe how TWO climate factors affect the rate of soil formation.
(b) As soils form, distinct layers known as horizons develop over time. One of these is the A horizon.
(i) Identify one specific biotic component of the A horizon.
(ii) Identify one abiotic component of the A horizon.
Resources such as soil and water can be degraded by human activities.
(c) Nitrate levels exceeding the United States Environmental Protection Agency’s primary drinking water
standard have been found in the groundwater of areas with intensive agriculture.
(i) Identify one agricultural practice that can lead to elevated nitrate levels in groundwater.
(ii) Describe how the practice you identified in (c)(i) leads to elevated nitrate levels in groundwater.

(d) Acid deposition has affected soil quality in many parts of the northeastern United States.
(i) Explain one way acid deposition onto soil can affect plant health.
(ii) Describe one method for remediating soil affected by acid deposition.
(e) Climate change is causing far-reaching ecosystem changes, including soil degradation in many of the
:
by
world’s biomes. Describe TWO ways that climate change can degrade soil.
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
STOP
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
END OF EXAM
n
ai
bt
O

-6-
Answer Key
2016 AP Environmental Science
Section I
Question 1: C Question 35: C Question 69: C

Question 2: A Question 36: A Question 70: E
Question 3: A Question 37: C Question 71: A
Question 4: B Question 38: B Question 72: C
Question 5: D Question 39: C Question 73: B
Question 6: D Question 40: B Question 74: A
Question 7: A Question 41: D Question 75: B

Question 8: B Question 42: C Question 76: A
Question 9: E Question 43: B Question 77: A
Question 10: E Question 44: E Question 78: B
Question 11: C Question 45: A Question 79: A
Question 12: B Question 46: D Question 80: D
:
by
e
Question 13: B Question 47: A Question 81: A

M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
Question 14: C Question 48: C Question 82: E

L
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
Question 15: C Question 49: D Question 83: E

st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
Question 16: A Question 50: D Question 84: D

A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
Question 17: D Question 51: E Question 85: D

SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Question 18: B Question 52: A Question 86: E

Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
Question 19: B Question 53: C Question 87: B

e
or
M
Question 20: C Question 54: E Question 88: D

n
ai
bt
Question 21: C Question 55: E Question 89: B

O
Question 22: D Question 56: D Question 90: A

Question 23: D Question 57: A Question 91: A
Question 24: C Question 58: E Question 92: A
Question 25: D Question 59: D Question 93: C
Question 26: D Question 60: B Question 94: B
Question 27: A Question 61: D Question 95: A
Question 28: D Question 62: A Question 96: B
Question 29: B Question 63: B Question 97: B
Question 30: D Question 64: C Question 98: D
Question 31: C Question 65: A Question 99: A
Question 32: E Question 66: D Question 100: B
Question 33: C Question 67: B
Question 34: D Question 68: B
AP® ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
2016 SCORING GUIDELINES
Question 1
Read the following article from the Fremont New Tribune.

(a) Diseases can devastate populations; however, most diseases do not drive their host to extinction.
Provide one explanation for why diseases seldom cause extinction.
(1 point for a correct explanation for why diseases seldom cause extinction)
Genetic diversity in wild populations enables some resistant organisms to survive and
reproduce.
Disease organisms often co-evolve with their hosts, allowing the host to evolve adaptations that
resist the disease.
Disease organisms/pathogens that cause the extinction of their host population jeopardize their

own survival.
Initial deaths thin (reduce density of) populations and make the disease less likely to spread.
(b) Dr. Serach suggests that even if the impact of WNS on little brown bat populations can be reduced
and the extinction of the species avoided, the bat populations are likely to remain alarmingly small.
:
by
(i) Describe TWO threats (other than WNS) to the survival of the bat species if the total number of
e
M A S has
bats becomes very small.

c
S
AN A P Pur
:
(2 points: 1 point for each description of a threat. Only the first two descriptions can earn a
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
point.)
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
Difficulty finding mates when populations are small, widely dispersed, or have a skewed sex
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
ratio
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
Competition from other species with a similar niche (e.g., nesting sites, food)
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
Problems associated with a reduction of genetic diversity (small gene pool, lack of hybrid vigor,
EX
Ex S
e
diseases that affect one will affect all members of the population, bottle-neck, etc.)
or
M
Susceptibility to reduced fitness as a result of decreased protection by the group (e.g., not
n
ai
bt
enough individuals to create heat, less protection by group members, increase in probability of
O
becoming prey without the advantage conferred by group size)

Increased vulnerability to environmental disturbances (need to name specific disturbance)
(ii) If the little brown bat species does not become extinct and can potentially recover, the rate of
recovery is likely to be slow. Discuss one aspect of bat biology that might slow the recovery of
little brown bat populations to pre-WNS numbers.
(1 point for a correct discussion of a correct aspect of bat biology that might slow their recovery)
Low fecundity/ few babies per year Advanced age at first reproduction
Long generation times in bats Increased parental care
(c) Bats are found in ecosystems around the world. Describe TWO ways in which other organisms in
an ecosystem could be affected by a decline in a bat population.
(2 points: 1 point for each correct description. Only the first two descriptions can earn a point.)

Question 1 (continued)
Increase in bat food sources Decline in plants pollinated or dispersed

Increase in West Nile and other insect- by bats
borne diseases Decline in bat predators due to
Decrease in the spread of rabies decreased food supply.
Decrease in fungus that causes WNS Increase in numbers of animals with
Decrease in bat guano (tied to organism) similar food and habitat needs
Causes a trophic cascade
(d) The Eastern deciduous forest, in which the little brown bats live, is an important ecosystem.

Identify TWO ecosystem services that forests provide, and explain how each service benefits
human society.
(2 points: 1 point for each correct ecosystem service with an explanation of how the service
benefits human society)
Acceptable responses may include the following:
:
by
Ecosystem Service Benefit to Humans

e
M A S has
c
Resource material (tree/forest) Lumber, building materials, fuel, paper, food

S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
Oxygen production Human respiration

s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
Soil formation/protection Forestry, agriculture, flood control, water quality

n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
Protection of water supplies Drinking water, recreation, irrigation, fishing

-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Habitat (e.g. specify shade, Animals or plants desired by humans for

Si
cl AT
C
EX
temperature moderation, etc.) fishing, hunting, food

Ex S
e
or
M
Biodiversity Food, medicine, gene diversity, breeding stock

n
ai
bt
Carbon sink (sequestering) Slows climate change

O
Connection with nature (inspiration for art, music,

Aesthetics/cultural/social poetry, etc.), research, education, recreation,
tourism
WNS is an emerging disease in bats. Humans are also subject to emerging diseases, such as Ebola.
A recent study suggests that the number of emerging infectious diseases affecting human
populations has been steadily increasing in recent decades.
(e) Provide a likely reason for the increase in emerging infectious diseases affecting human
populations. Include an explanation for the reason you provided.
(2 points: 1 point for a correct reason for the increase in emerging infectious diseases. 1 point for a
correct explanation of how the reason likely increases the emerging diseases affecting human
populations.)
Acceptable responses may include the following:

Reason for Increase Explanation

Climate change, global Allows pathogens and disease vectors to survive in places that
warming were previously too cold or dry
Increase in global travel Increased likelihood of contracting/spreading disease
Increased exposure to Changes in agricultural practices increase rodents, etc; trade in
animals (zoonotic) exotic species, intrusion into wild habitats, urban sprawl

Increase in population Increased likelihood of contracting /spreading disease from
density/distribution others
Lack of vaccinations Increase human susceptibility to disease, reduce herd immunity
Antibiotic resistance New disease strains evolve
Decrease in medical Poverty, war, migration, human behavior (refusing to use
:
by
care/public health condoms/sharing needles/refusing aid)

e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
n
ai
bt
O

Question 2
(a) Use the data below to respond to the following. For each calculation, show all your work.
(i) Calculate the weight (in tons) of rock waste produced globally each year when iron ore is
converted to pig iron.
(1 point for the correct answer with work shown)
1.6 billion tons of iron ore − 1.2 billion tons of pig iron = 0.4 billion tons of waste
OR

(ii) Calculate the weight (in tons) of pig iron that could be produced if all of the estimated global iron
ore reserves were used for pig iron production.
(2 points: 1 point for the correct setup and 1 point for the correct answer) :
by
e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
x
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
e
(iii) Calculate the weight (in tons) of the current global iron ore reserves that would be used to make
or
M
steel if the current trends continue.

n
ai
bt
O
(b) Calculate the weight (in tons) of coal that is conserved each year in North America by recycling steel.
(1 point for a correct answer with work shown)

(c) Describe TWO environmental problems that are associated with abandoned coal mine sites.
(2 points: 1 point for each correct description of an environmental problem. Only the first two descriptions
can earn a point.)
Subsidence/sinkholes as shafts collapse

Habitat destruction/slow to recover
Stream/water quality degradation
Acid mine drainage
Heavy metal runoff

Tailings alter landscape and drainage patterns
Increased soil erosion
Particulate/dust pollution
Animals fall in
Methane release
:
by
Underground fires difficult to extinguish

e
M A S has
c
(d) Describe one method that can be used to mitigate one of the problems you identified in part (c).
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
(1 point for a correct description of a mitigation method for one of the two environmental problems
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
described in part (c))

n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
Plant trees or other plants to restore cover/reduce erosion

AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Fill in/fence off abandoned shafts to stop subsidence or reduce access

Si
cl AT
C
EX
Prevent acid mine drainage and leaching from sites using retaining ponds, berms, other BMPs
Ex S
e
or
Treat acid mine drainage with limestone

M
n
Return tailings to excavation sites

ai
bt
Recontour the land

O
Place gravel on surface to reduce wind erosion
(e) Discuss one reason why surface coal mining is generally less expensive than subsurface mining.
(2 points for correct identification of a reason linked with a discussion of why surface mining is less
expensive)
Reason Economic Discussion

Fewer workers needed above ground
Wages
Workers paid less above ground
Workman’s compensation
Healthcare
Insurance
Increased likelihood below ground of
o severe accidents
Safety
o death
o black lung
Legal costs Lawsuits from injuries, accidents, rescues

Question 3
Municipal solid waste (MSW) is the trash collected from households and businesses.
(a) Use the data provided in the graph to respond to the following.
(i) Explain one probable cause (other than increased composting) for the change in per capita
waste generation from 2000 to 2012.
(1 point for a correct explanation for the change in per capita generation from 2000 - 2012)
People or businesses practicing one of the following: refuse, reduce, reuse, recycle, or
repurpose.
Lighter materials contribute to less MSW creation (e.g. plastic bottles not glass bottles)

Less material used in products (newspapers smaller, aluminum cans less massive)
Technology reduces waste generation (e.g., reading magazines online less paper)
Economic recession less consumption less MSW produced
(ii) Calculate the percent increase in total MSW generation from 1980 to 2012.
:
by

e
M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
(b) Two ways of managing MSW are incineration and disposal in landfills.
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
(i) Identify one disadvantage of waste incineration.

le
iv P
ng
us , A
(1 point for a correct identification of a disadvantage of waste incineration)

Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
Specific air pollutant (e.g., MSW supply and quality may

e
or
CO, CO2, dioxin, halogens, be limited requiring

M
n
particulates, SOx, NOx) additional fuel

ai
bt
Reduced quality of life and

O
Ash disposal necessary

property value due to
Incinerator is expensive to
incinerator and supply trucks
construct and/or operate
(ii) Identify one disadvantage of waste disposal in landfills.

(1 point for a correct identification of a disadvantage of waste disposal in landfills)
Ground water, surface Release of methane or CO2
water, or soil contamination Odor source
through some transport
Attracts vermin
mechanism
Habitat destruction
Reduced quality of life and
Preclusion of other land uses
property value due to landfill
and supply trucks Explosion/seepage hazard
from methane produced

Trash incineration is one way to generate electricity from MSW. Electricity can also be generated from
waste buried in landfills.
(c) Describe the specific steps of a process use to produce electricity from waste buried in a landfill.
(3 points – 1 point for each step in the process of generating electricity from landfill gas)
Step Description of Step

Acquire fuel (chemical energy) Methane collected or gathered
Use fuel (chemical mechanical) Fuel is combusted to produce steam or hot air
Generate electricity (mechanical Steam or hot air spins/turns/rotates a

electricity) turbine/generator to generate/produce electricity
(d) Many landfills do not accept used tires. As a result, the tires are often dumped in poorly regulated
piles. Describe one human health problem associated with piles of discarded tires.
(1 point for a correct description of a human health problem associated with piles of discarded tires)
:
by
Discarded tires provide habitat for mosquitoes/pests that can be disease vectors.
e
M A S has
Tires may catch fire and release air pollutants that cause respiratory issues in humans.
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
(e) Composting is one way to reduce the amount of waste that enters a landfill.
sa
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
(i) Other than reducing the volume of waste, identify one advantage of composting.
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
(1 point for a correct identification of an advantage of composting)

-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
The resulting compost can be used or sold as fertilizer or soil amendments.

Si
cl AT
C
Municipal composting facilities may provide jobs.

EX
Ex S
e
or
MSW may emit less foul odor if organic material is composted.

M
n
Tipping fees and trash removal costs may be reduced due to removal of dense compostable
ai
bt
material.
O
(ii) Identify one disadvantage of composting.

(1 point for a correct identification of a disadvantage of composting)
Compost may attract undesirable animals (vermin).
Compost may emit foul odors or spontaneously combust.
Nutrients released from decomposing organic matter may run off into surface waters and
cause water quality problems.
Compost may release methane.
Composting organic material requires a great investment of time and labor by humans.

Question 4
Soil is a complex mixture of living organisms and organic material, along with minerals and other abiotic
components. Soils help sustain life and provide ecosystem functions.
(a) Describe how TWO climate factors affect the rate of soil formation.
(2 points: 1 point for each correct description of how a climate factor affects the rate of soil formation.
Only the first two descriptions can earn a point.)
Climate Factor Effect

Increases rates of biological activity (decomposition) and chemical
High
activity – inceases rates of soil formation
Decreases rates of biological activity (decomposition) – decreases rates

Temperature
of soil formation
Low
Increases the rate of weathering (frozen water expands, breaking rock) –
:
by
e
increases the rate of soil formation

M A S has
c
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
Increases biological activity and weathering – increases the rate of soil
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
formation
st
sa
Te
U
High
R ES TPA
n
om r
Precipitation/
A
.c the
so
Increases erosion, runoff – decreases the rate of soil formation

TG IV A
er
AT O
Humidity
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
us , A
Decreases biological activity and weathering – decreases the rate of soil

Si
Low
L
cl AT
C
formation
EX
Ex S
e
or
M
Can carry in particles – increases rates of accumulation

n
ai
bt
Wind
O
Can hasten rates of soil erosion – decreases rates of accumulation
(Note: No point earned for merely identifying a climate factor.)
(b) As soils form, distinct layers known as horizons develop over time. One of these is the A horizon.
(i) Identify one specific biotic component of the A horizon.
(ii) Identify one abiotic component of the A horizon.
(2 points: 1 point for a correct identification of a specific biotic factor and 1 point for a correct
identification of an abiotic factor.)
Examples of components include:

Biotic Humus, microorganisms, bacteria, earthworms, macroinvertebrates, roots, fungi,
beetles, decomposers, insects
Abiotic Sand, silt, clay, water, air, nutrients (N,P, K compounds), decomposing parent
material, minerals, rocks, pebbles

(c) Nitrate levels exceeding the United States Environmental Protection Agency’s primary drinking
water standard have been found in the groundwater of areas with intensive agriculture.
(i) Identify one agricultural practice that can lead to elevated nitrate levels in groundwater.
(1 point for a correct agricultural practice that leads to elevated nitrate levels in groundwater.)
Application of fertilizer
Improper sealing of feedlots
Improper construction or maintenance of animal waste lagoons
(ii) Describe how the practice you identified in (c)(i) leads to elevated nitrate levels in ground
water.

(1 point for a correct description linked to the practice identified in part (c)(i).)
Nitrates infiltrate/percolate/seep into ground water.
Nitrates entering surface waters that recharge aquifers (must connect surface with ground
water).
(d) Acid deposition has affected soil quality in many parts of the northeastern United States.
:
by
(i) Explain one way acid deposition onto soil can affect plant health.
e
(1 point for a correct explanation of one way acid deposition onto soil can affect plant health.)
M A S has
c
Increased soil acidity may be outside of the optimal range of tolerance for the plant,
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
resulting in poor plant growth or death.

ge
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Acid can leach cations/metal ions/nutrients from soil, making them less available to plants,
T
Te
U
R ES TPA
n
om r
thus decreasing growth.

A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
Aluminum is released and can be toxic to plants.

-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
ng
Acid can diminish the ability of soil to buffer, leading to poor plant growth.
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
Increased soil acidity can damage plant root systems, stressing plants.
EX
Ex S
e
or
Sulfur and nitrogen from acid deposition can build up to levels toxic to plants (or can
M
n
fertilize the soils).

ai
bt
O
(ii) Describe one method for remediating soil affected by acid deposition.
(1 point for a correct description of a method of remediation.)
Add crushed limestone / lime / marble dust / bone meal / crushed egg shells or oyster shells
(e) Climate change is causing far-reaching ecosystem changes, including soil degradation in many
of the world’s biomes. Describe TWO ways that climate change can degrade soil.
(2 points: 1 point for each correct description of how a change in climate has resulted in soil
degradation.)
Increased global temperatures and decreased precipitation cause desertification.
Increased temperatures lead to increased evaporation of irrigation water, resulting in soil
salinization.
Increased erosion and/or leaching can result from increased precipitation in certain areas.
Increased temperature can lead to faster breakdown of organic matter (less organic matter
in the soil).
Increased temperatures and shifting climatic belts result in longer growing seasons, which
can deplete nutrients from the soil.
Rising sea levels can result in flooding of coastal areas, leading to salinization of soil and
increased soil erosion.
Increased temperatures can lead to soil desiccation.
Scoring Worksheet
Section I: Multiple Choice

______________ x 0.9000 = ______________________
Number Correct Weighted Section I Score
(out of 100) (Do not round)
Section II: Free Response
Question 1 ____________ 1.5000 = ____________


Question 2 ____________ 1.5000 = ____________
Question 3 ____________ 1.5000 = ____________

Question 4 ____________ 1.5000 = ____________

:
by

e
M A S has
c
Sum = _____________
S
AN A P Pur
:
on
Weighted Section II
ER IA
ge
ST ER
D TM ER
Score
st
sa
Te
U
(Do not round)

R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
Composite Score:
ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
________________ + ________________ = _______________

e
or
Weighted Section I Weighted Section II Composite Score

M
Score Score (Round to nearest

n
ai
bt
whole number)
O
AP Score Conversion Chart

Environmental Science
Composite
Score Range AP Score
111 – 150 5
91 – 110 4
81 – 90 3
62 – 80 2
0 – 61 1
Question Descriptors and Performance Data
This table shows the content assessed, the correct answer, and how AP students performed on each
question.
Multiple-Choice Questions
Question Topic Sub-Topic Answer % Correct

B. Impacts on the Environment
1 VI. Pollution C 66
and Human Health
2 VI. Pollution A 72
and Human Health
and Human Health
4 VI. Pollution B 81
and Human Health

5 VII. Global Change B. Global Warming D 43
6 VII. Global Change B. Global Warming D 45
7 VII. Global Change B. Global Warming A 82
8 VII. Global Change C. Loss of Biodiversity B 69
V. Energy Resources
9 C. Fossil Fuel Resources and Use E 78
and Consumption
:
by
I. Earth Systems
10 A. Earth Science Concepts E 72
e
M A S has
and Resources
I. Earth Systems
c
11 A. Earth Science Concepts C 52

AN A P Pur
and Resources
L
:
on
ER IA
ge
I. Earth Systems
ST ER
D TM ER
12 A. Earth Science Concepts B 46

st
sa
and Resources
T
Te
U
R ES TPA
13 II. The Living World A. Ecosystem Structure B 67

n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
14 II. The Living World A. Ecosystem Structure C 63

-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
iv P
15 III. Population B. Human Population C 68

ng
us , A
Si
cl AT
C
16 III. Population B. Human Population A 91

EX
Ex S
I. Earth Systems
e
or
17 A. Earth Science Concepts D 79

and Resources
M
n
18 II. The Living World B. Energy Flow B 81

ai
bt
O
19 VI. Pollution A. Pollution Types B 40

V. Energy Resources
20 G. Renewable Energy C 37
and Consumption
21 IV. Land and Water Use A. Agriculture C 80
I. Earth Systems
22 D. Soil and Soil Dynamics D 74
and Resources
I. Earth Systems and D. Soil and Soil Dynamics |
23 D 59
Resources | VI. Pollution A. Pollution Types
VI. Pollution | I. Earth A. Pollution Types |
24 C 49
Systems and Resources B. The Atmosphere
I. Earth Systems C. Global Water Resources and
25 D 46
and Resources Use
IV. Land and Water Use |
26 B. Forestry | B. Global Warming D 63
VII. Global Change
II. The Living World |
B. Energy Flow |
28 V. Energy Resources D 89
G. Renewable Energy
and Consumption
II. The Living World | D. Natural Ecosystem Change |
29 B 52
IV. Land and Water Use B. Forestry
30 II. The Living World D. Natural Ecosystem Change D 47
I. Earth Systems
31 A. Earth Science Concepts C 47
and Resources
32 VI. Pollution E 93
and Human Health
V. Energy Resources
33 G. Renewable Energy C 38
and Consumption
III. Population | A. Population Biology Concepts |
34 D 76
II. The Living World C. Ecosystem Diversity
35 III. Population A. Population Biology Concepts C 92
36 II. The Living World E. Natural Biogeochemical Cycles A 46
37 IV. Land and Water Use A. Agriculture C 74
I. Earth Systems and
38 D. Soil and Soil Dynamics B 62
Resources
C. Loss of Biodiversity |
VII. Global Change |
39 B. Impacts on the Environment C 40
VI. Pollution
and Human Health
V. Energy Resources
and Consumption | B. Energy Consumption |
40 B 75
V. Energy Resources and D. Nuclear Energy

Consumption
41 III. Population B. Human Population D 79
42 VI. Pollution A. Pollution Types C 57
43 IV. Land and Water Use A. Agriculture B 53
V. Energy Resources
44 D. Nuclear Energy E 68
and Consumption
:
by
45 VI. Pollution A. Pollution Types A 56

e
M A S has

c
S
AN A P Pur
I. Earth Systems
L
:
B. The Atmosphere |
on
ER IA
47 and Resources | A 85
ge
B. Energy Flow
ST ER
D TM ER
II. The Living World

st
sa
Te
U
48 II. The Living World C. Ecosystem Diversity C 41

R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
TG IV A
49 VI. Pollution A. Pollution Types D 42

er
AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL

le
iv P
ng
us , A
Si
51 IV. Land and Water Use E. Mining E 56

L
cl AT
C
EX
Ex S
52 IV. Land and Water Use D. Other Land Use A 51

e
or
M

n
ai
54 VI. Pollution A. Pollution Types E 46

bt
O
55 II. The Living World C. Ecosystem Diversity E 83

I. Earth Systems C. Global Water Resources
56 D 57
and Resources and Use
V. Energy Resources
57 C. Fossil Fuel Resources and Use A 72
and Consumption
58 III. Population A. Population Biology Concepts E 63
59 VI. Pollution C. Economic Impacts D 89
IV. Land and Water Use | D. Other Land Use |
60 B 35
VI. Pollution A. Pollution Types
A. Agriculture |
61 IV. Land and Water Use D 36
B. Forestry
I. Earth Systems
62 B. The Atmosphere A 64
and Resources
V. Energy Resources
63 D. Nuclear Energy B 78
and Consumption
D. Natural Ecosystem Change |
II. The Living World |
65 B. Impacts on the Environment A 52
VI. Pollution
and Human Health
66 VI. Pollution D 66
and Human Health
V. Energy Resources
67 G. Renewable Energy B 79
and Consumption

V. Energy Resources
69 C. Fossil Fuel Resources and Use C 64
and Consumption
70 III. Population B. Human Population E 65
71 VI. Pollution A. Pollution Types A 15
I. Earth Systems
74 D. Soil and Soil Dynamics A 47
and Resources
V. Energy Resources
76 C. Fossil Fuel Resources and Use A 65
and Consumption
77 II. The Living World E. Natural Biogeochemical Cycles A 56
78 III. Population B. Human Population B 58

VI. Pollution | A. Pollution Types |
79 A 77
IV. Land and Water Use E. Mining
80 IV. Land and Water Use D. Other Land Use D 69
81 III. Population A. Population Biology Concepts A 73
82 VI. Pollution A. Pollution Types E 53
83 VII. Global Change B. Global Warming E 49
:
by
84 II. The Living World C. Ecosystem Diversity D 83

e
M A S has

c
S
AN A P Pur
I. Earth Systems and

:
on
ER IA
86 A. Earth Science Concepts E 39

ge
Resources
ST ER
D TM ER
s
st
sa
Te
87 II. The Living World A. Ecosystem Structure B 52

U
R ES TPA
n
om r
A

.c the
so
88 VI. Pollution D 86
TG IV A
er
and Human Health

AT O
S
-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
89 IV. Land and Water Use B. Forestry B 60

le
iv P
ng
us , A
C. Loss of Biodiversity |
Si
cl AT
VII. Global Change |

C
90 B. Impacts on the Environment A 30

EX
Ex S
VI. Pollution
and Human Health
e
or
M

n
ai

bt
and Human Health

O
93 VII. Global Change B. Global Warming C 49

94 VII. Global Change B. Global Warming B 84
95 II. The Living World C. Ecosystem Diversity A 72
96 IV. Land and Water Use A. Agriculture B 70
B. Global Warming |
97 VII. Global Change B 61
C. Loss of Biodiversity
and Human Health
100 III. Population A. Population Biology Concepts B 53
Contact Us
New York Office New England Regional Office
250 Vesey Street Serving Connecticut, Maine, Massachusetts,
New York, NY 10281 New Hampshire, Rhode Island, and Vermont
212-713-8000 1601 Trapelo Road, Suite 12
212-713-8277/55 (fax) Waltham, MA 02451-7333
866-392-4089
AP Services for Educators 781-663-2743 (fax)
P.O. Box 6671 Email: [email protected]
Princeton, NJ 08541-6671
212-632-1781 Southern Regional Office
877-274-6474 (toll free in the U.S. and Canada) Serving Alabama, Florida, Georgia, Kentucky,
610-290-8979 (fax) Louisiana, Mississippi, North Carolina, South
Email: [email protected] Carolina, Tennessee, and Virginia

3700 Crestwood Parkway, Suite 700
AP Canada Office Duluth, GA 30096-7155
2950 Douglas Street, Suite 550 866-392-4088
Victoria, BC, Canada V8T 4N4 770-225-4062 (fax)
250-472-8561 Email: [email protected]
800-667-4548 (toll free in Canada only)
Email: [email protected] Southwestern Regional Office
Serving Arkansas, New Mexico, Oklahoma,
:
by
College Board International and Texas

e
M A S has
Serving all countries outside the U.S. and Canada 4330 Gaines Ranch Loop, Suite 200
c
250 Vesey Street

S
Austin, TX 78735-6735
AN A P Pur
:
on
ER IA
New York, NY 10281 866-392-3017

ge
ST ER
D TM ER
212-373-8738
st
512-721-1841 (fax)
sa
Te
U
646-417-7350 (fax) Email: [email protected]

R ES TPA
n
om r
A
.c the
so
Email: [email protected]
TG IV A
er
AT O
S
Western Regional Office

-P
SA US L
eS &
AL
le
Middle States Regional Office Serving Alaska, Arizona, California, Colorado,

iv P
ng
us , A
Serving Delaware, District of Columbia, Hawaii, Idaho, Montana, Nevada, Oregon, Utah,
Si
cl AT
C
Maryland, New Jersey, New York, Washington, and Wyoming

EX
Ex S
e
Pennsylvania, Puerto Rico, and the 2001 Gateway Place, Suite 220W
or
M
U.S. Virgin Islands San Jose, CA 95110-1038

n
ai
Three Bala Plaza East, Suite 501 866-392-4078

bt
Bala Cynwyd, PA 19004-1501 408-367-1459 (fax)

O
866-392-3019 Email: [email protected]

610-227-2580 (fax)
Midwestern Regional Office

Serving Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Kansas,
Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, Nebraska,
North Dakota, Ohio, South Dakota, West
Virginia, and Wisconsin
8700 West Bryn Mawr Avenue, Suite 900N
Chicago, IL 60631-3512
866-392-4086
847-653-4528 (fax)

AP Environmental Science Exam: SECTION I: Multiple Choice

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

AP Environmental Science Exam: SECTION I: Multiple Choice

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

AP Environmental Science Exam: SECTION I: Multiple Choice

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

®

AP Environmental Science Exam

Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited

know the answers to all of the multiple-choice questions.

Questions 1-4 refer to the following list of

Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited

1. Was once widely used in the United States as a

2. A gaseous decay product of uranium that is found

3. A leading cause of lung cancer in the

4. Poses a health risk to humans who eat large

quantities of marine fish such as swordfish

Unauthorized copying or reuse of

Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited

5. Large quantities of methane hydrates are located

in this region and if released will contribute

significantly to global climate change.

6. This region of the world is currently experiencing

the largest average annual temperature increase

because of anthropogenic climate change.

7. Damaging tornadoes occur most frequently in this

8. Fragmentation of tropical forests due to human

9. This region has been the largest petroleum

Unauthorized copying or reuse of

Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited

11. Area that exhibits a growing nonvolcanic

mountain chain due to uplift

12. Area where new crust is being created at a

divergent plate boundary

Unauthorized copying or reuse of

Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited

Unauthorized copying or reuse of

Total Fertility Rate Infant Mortality Rate Life Expectancy at Birth

Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited

Unauthorized copying or reuse of

18. Phytoplankton are most abundant in the upper few

Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited

to many other organisms

(D) they are benthic organisms

(E) they feed on zooplankton, which are found

19. Catalytic converters reduce which of the

following pairs of pollutants in car exhaust?

(A) Carbon dioxide and ozone

(B) Carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons

(C) Carbon dioxide and particulates

(D) Lead and mercury

(E) Methane and particulates

20. Which of the following accurately describes a fuel (D)

Unauthorized copying or reuse of

Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited

the soil at point T ? for lining a landfill?

Unauthorized copying or reuse of

Obtained from open.773.im / Commercial Use Prohibited

underutilized as a source of water. test the hypothesis?

(C) It underlies eastern Quebec and is a limited

(A) The rate of increase in atmospheric CO 2

worldwide (in ppm) that occurs in the

(D) It underlies the United States High Plains and

12-month period prior to the start of

is being depleted by overuse.