CHAPTER 01

N umber S y stem
First of all I would like to mention that this chapter is deliberately written to promote your
interest for CAT preparation in a systematic approach which will lay the strong foundation.
Since most of the problems (i.e., 20 -40%) in CAT paper (viz., QA section) belong to this
chapter alone hence it becomes inevitable to discuss the nuances and subtleties of the various
concepts objectively and comprehensively. That’s why this chapter has become very bulky
too. In your own interest it would be better to adhere to my advices and stipulations stated at
appropriate places in this chapter even throughout the book. As per my own experiences Chapter Checklist
there are basically three stages in the solution of a problem and each of the stage has its own Calculation Techniques
contribution. The following diagrams illustrates the importance of each stage.
Square and Cubes
Comprehending the Making flowchart Speed calculation
idea-structure of of the solution with accuracy Basic Numbers
the problem simultaneously Integers
40% 30% 30%
Factors and Multiples
HCF and LCM
70% problem solved
Fractions and Decimal
Fractions
100% problem solved
Indices and Surds
If any of the three above mentioned activities is botched up then you are prone to failure.
Hence, it is obvious that speed calculation invariably enhances your rate of success in CAT and
Factorial, Last Digits
and Remainders
most importantly it eliminates the stress and anxiety to ensconce you in your own comfort zone.
Remember that you can succeed only when you operate in your comfort zone else it turns out to Rational and Irrational
be a challenge. Due to above mentioned reasons it is imperative to become handy in quick Number
calcualtion which is required in DI too. The latter part, even major section, of the chapter is Various Number Systems
devoted to numbers, their kinds, operations and behaviour in mathematical milieu. Potterns, Relations and
You are supposed to not to skip a bit of it since every bit and every concept is equally Functions
important. It is advised that you should make the flow chart of the solution while reading,
CAT Test
since going back to the problem several times means irritation and wastage of invaluable
time. Also, you should try to solve maximum no. of problems without pencil and paper since
it makes you a quick respondent and saves a lot of time. Finally, avoid rote method of
learning in maths instead be inqusitive and explorer to gain an advantage. The bottomline is
that perceive logic and apply logic, since it is logical.
2 QUANTUM CAT
732000000 732000000
e. g., 732 × 5 6 = = = 11437500
1.1 Calculation Techniques 2×2×2×2×2×2 64

Multiplication Rules Case 2. Multiplication of a number by 9 n

Multiplication is nothing but the shortest method of addition. i. e., 9, 9 2 ( = 81), 9 3 ( = 729) etc.
In day-to-day life when we have to add up the same quantity
Exp. 1) Multiply 238 by 9.
many a time, so we multiply the given number by the number
of times to which the given number is to be added repeatedly Solution Multiply the given number by 10 and then subtract
the given number from the resultant number. So
e. g., 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 can be added seven times but to
238 × 9 = 238 × (10 − 1) = 2380 − 238 = 2142
get quick result we just multiply 3 by 7. [using distributive law as a × ( b − c) = ab − ac]
Hence, we get 3 × 7 = 21. Thus, I am sure that now you must
Exp. 2) Multiply 238 by 81.
have become aware of the fact that how much important is
the multiplication table. So, I hope that you will learn the Solution Step 1 : 238 × 81 = 238 × 9 × 9
multiplication table. Step 2 : 238 × (10 − 1) × (10 − 1)
Step 3 : [2380 − 238] × (10 − 1)
Now, I would like to suggest you that in the competitive
Step 4 : 2142 × (10 − 1)
exams like CAT, where speed and accuracy are totally Step 5 : 21420 − 2142 = 19278
indispensable. So there are some novel and enticing
NOTE To multiply a number by the higher powers of 9 i. e. , 9 to
techniques for multiplication given in this chapter. But in power 3, 4, 5, …, etc. It is better to do it conventionally.
some techniques you have to know the square of some
Case 3. Multiplication of a number by the numbers whose
relevent numbers, normally the squares of 1 to 100. Last but
unit (i. e., last) digit is 9.
not the least you don’t need to bother about since I have some
very innovative techniques to learn and calculate the squares Exp. 1) Multiply 287 by 19.
very readily. Even most of the times you need not to use a Solution 287 × (10 + 9) = 287 × 10 + 287 × 9
pencil and paper for this work and that’s my purpose. = 2870 + 287 × (10 − 1)
Basically we divide these techniques into two categories. = 2870 + 2870 − 287 = 5740 − 287 = 5453
The first one which I have derived from some algebraic or 287 × 19 = 287 × ( 20 − 1) = 287 × 20 − 287
operations and the second one belongs to our ancient maths
= 287 × 2 × 10 − 287
i. e., Vedic maths. In this book I have laid emphasis on my
= 574 × 10 − 287 = 5740 − 287 = 5453
own approach of multiplication, because years of research in
numeric maths I have found that I myself and my students Case 4. Multiplication of a number by the number which
find it comfortable as it is very convenient and pragmatic to contains all the digits as 9.
do within a few seconds. Exp. 1) Multiply 743 by 99.
Case 1. Multiplication by 5, 25 ( = 5 ), 125 ( = 5 ), 625 ( = 5 ) etc.
2 3 4
Solution 743 × 99 = 743 × (100 − 1) = 74300 − 743 = 73557

Exp. 1) Multiply 187 by 5 i.e., 187 × 5. Exp. 2) Multiply 23857 by 9999.

Solution Step 1: Associate as many zeros at the end of the Solution 23857 × 9999 = 23857 × (10000 − 1)
given number as there is the power to 5. Thus we write 187 as
= 238570000 − 23857 = 238546143
1870. (because 5 = 51 )
NOTE In general to multiply a number K by a number which is
Step 2: Divide the resultant number by 2 as many times as there
purely consists of n 9s, put n zeros at the end of the number K, then
is the power to 5. Thus, 1870 / 2 = 935
subtract the given number from the resultant number.
Exp. 2) Multiply 369 by 125. e. g. , K × 9999 … n times = ( K 0000 … n zeros) − K
Solution Step 1: 369000 (Q125 = 5 3 ) Case 5. To multiply those two numbers, the sum of whose
hence 3 zeros will be associated. unit digit is 10 and the rest digits (left to the unit digit) are
369000 369000 same in both the numbers.
Step 2: = = 46125
2×2×2 8
Exp. 1) Multiply 38 by 32.
(Since, there is 5 3 hence it will be divided by 23 .)
Solution
In general, if you want to multiply any number K by 5 n, then you
Step 1: Multiply the unit digits as 8 × 2 = 16
just need to divide that number by 2n, after writing or
(associating) ‘ n’ zeros at the end of the number i. e., Step 2: Add 1 to the left digits, then multiply this increased
K 0000 … n zeros number by the original digits i. e., 3 × ( 3 + 1) = 12
K × 5n = Thus, we get 38 × 32 = 1216
2n
Number System 3

Exp. 2) Multiply 83 by 87. Exp. 3) Multiply 185 by 215.

Solution Step 1: 3 × 7 = 21 Solution
Step 2: 8 × ( 8 + 1) = 72 Step 1: 215 − 185 = 30 (here 30 is an even number)
∴ 83 × 87 = 7221 30
Step 2: = 15
2
Exp. 3) Multiply 71 by 79. Step 3: 185 + 15 = 215 − 15 = 200
Solution Step 1: 9 × 1 = 09 Step 4: ( 200) 2 − (15) 2 = 40000 − 225 = 39775
Step 2: 7 × (7 + 1) = 56 NOTE 1. In general, if there are any two numbers N1 and N2 and
∴ 71 × 79 = 5609 the difference between N1 and N2 is 2d then their
product i. e. ,
NOTE The last two places are reserved for the product of unit
N1 × N2 = (N1 + d)2 − d2
digits as in the above example 1 × 9 = 9 but we fill the last two places
by writing ‘‘09’’. So don’t write 569 since it is wrong. or N1 × N2 = (N2 − d)2 − d2

Exp. 4) Multiply 125 by 125. 2. Even this method can be applied for the two numbers
whose difference is an odd number but since it contains
Solution Step 1: 5 × 5 = 25 decimal values so some students may feel it slightly
Step 2: 12 × (12 + 1) = 156 difficult.
So, 125 × 125 = 15625 Exp. 1) Multiply 17 by 22.
Exp. 5) Multiply 431 by 439. Solution Step 1: 22 − 17 = 5
Solution 1 × 9 = 09 5
Step 1: Step 2: = 2.5
Step 2: 43 × ( 43 + 1) = 1892 2
Step 3: 17 + 2.5 = 22 − 2.5 = 19.5
So, 431 × 439 = 189209
Step 4: (19.5) 2 − ( 2.5) 2 = 380.25 − 6.25 = 374.00
Exp. 6) Multiply 1203 by 1207. Shortcut To multiply any two numbers say, N1 and N 2 we
Solution Step 1: 3 × 7 = 21 apply the following methods.
2 2
Step 2: 120 × (120 + 1) = 14520  N + N2   N − N1 
N1 × N 2 =  1  − 2 
So, 1203 × 1207 = 1452021  2   2 
Case 6. To multiply the two numbers whose difference is So, if you know the square of the required numbers then using
always an even number. this method you can multiply any two numbers within
2 2
 56 + 64  64 − 56
2-3 seconds as 56 × 64 =   − 
Exp. 1) Multiply 38 by 52.  2   2 
Solution Step 1: 52 − 38 = 14 (here 14 is an even number) = ( 60) 2 − ( 4) 2
14 = 3600 − 16
Step 2 : =7
2 = 3584
Step 3 : 38 + 7 or 52 − 7 = 45
Step 4 : ( 45) 2 = 2025 Vedic Methods of Multiplication
Step 5 : 7 2 = 49 Exp. 1) Solve 23 × 74.
Step 6 : 2025 − 49 = 1976 Solution 23 23
74
Exp. 2) Multiply 76 by 96. 2 4 × 3 = 12 74
2 12
Solution Step 1: 96 − 76 = 20 (here 20 is an even number)
23 2 3
20
Step 2: = 10 74
7 4
2 02 (4 × 2 + 7 × 3) + 1
02 29 + 1 = 30
Step 3: 76 + 10 = 96 − 10 = 86 = 30
23
Step 4: ( 86) 2 = 7396 23
×74 74
Step 5: (10) = 100
2
1702 (7 × 2) + 3 1702 14 + 3
Step 6: 7396 − 100 = 7296 = 17
4 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 2) Solve 83 × 65. Exp. 5) Evaluate 245 × 367.
83 83 245 245
Solution Solution 367
65
5 5 × 3 = 15 65 5 5 × 7 = 35 367
5 15
8 3 245 245
83
×65 367
6 5 15 (7 × 4 + 6 × 5) + 3 367
95 (5 × 8 + 6 × 3) + 1
95 58 + 1 = 59 = 61
= 59 245
83 245
83
65 367 367
65 915 (7 × 2 + 6 × 4 + 3 × 5 ) + 6
5395 (6 × 8) + 5 5395 48 + 5
= 53 = 59 245
245
367 367
Exp. 3) Solve 524 × 19. 9915 (6 × 2 + 3 × 4) + 5
524 524 = 29 245
Solution 19 245
6 9 × 4 = 36 19 367 367
89915 (3 × 2) + 2
524 524 =8
×19
56 (9 × 2 + 1 × 4) + 3 19
= 25 Exp. 6) Evaluate 123456 × 789.
524
524 Solution
×19 19
956 (9 ×5 + 1 × 2) + 2 123456
= 49 524 123456
789 789
524 4 9 × 6 = 54
×19 19
9956 (1 ×5) + 4 123456
=9 123456
789 789
Exp. 4) Evaluate 3456 × 89. 84 (9 × 5 + 8 × 6) + 5 = 98
123456
Solution 123456
3456 3456 789 789
89 784 (9 × 4 + 8 × 5 + 7 × 6) + 9 = 127
4 9 × 6 = 54 89
123456
34 5 6 123456
3456 789 789
89 6784 (9 × 3 + 8 × 4 + 7 × 5) + 12 = 106
84 (9 × 5 + 8 × 6) + 5 89
= 98 123456
34 5 6 123456
3456 789
89 789
89 06784 (9 × 2 + 8 × 3 + 7 × 4) + 10 = 80
584 (9 × 4 + 8 × 5) + 9
= 85 3456 123456
123456
3456 789 789
89 89
406784 (9 × 1 + 8 × 2 + 7 × 3) + 8 = 54
7584 (9 × 3 + 8 × 4) + 8
= 67 3456 123456
3456
123456
89 89 789 789
307584 8×3+6 7406784 (8 × 1 + 7 × 2) + 5 = 27
= 30 123456
123456
789 789
97406784 (7 × 1) + 2 = 9
Number System 5

Exp. 7) Find the value of 4567 × 1289. or Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder
for example 30 = ( 7 × 4) + 2
Solution
where quotient is a whole number i. e., 0, 1, 2, 3, … etc and
4567 remainder is always less than ‘divisor’ or zero.
1289
3 9 × 7 = 63 So, when the remainder is zero, we can say that the given
4567 number is divisible by the particular divisor number.
1289
4
63 (9 × 6 + 8 × 7) + 6 = 116 Now, 238 ÷ 6 = 39 = 39.66 (decimal notation)
4567 6
1289
863 (9 × 5 + 8 × 6 + 2 × 7) + 11 = 118 Since the above number when divided by 6 leaves a
4567 remainder of 4 then it is said to be not divisible by 6 where
1289 238 is dividend, 39 is quotient obtained when divided by 6 as
6863 (9 × 4 + 8 × 5 + 2 × 6 + 1 × 7) + 11 = 106
4567 a divisor. Thus we get 4 as a remainder.
1289 Further if we subtract the remainder from the dividend then
86863 (8 × 4 + 2 × 5 + 1 × 6) + 10 = 58
4567 the dividend (the resultant number) becomes divisible by
×1289 particular divisor. e. g.,
886863 (2 × 4 + 1 × 5) + 5 = 18
4567 238 − 4 = 234 (dividend–remainder)
1289
5886863 (4 × 1) + 1 = 5 6 234 39
18
54
Exp. 8) Find the value of 325768 × 1234. 54
×
Solution 325768
1234 Here, the remainder is zero and the number is perfectly
2 4 × 8 = 32 divisible by 6.
325768
1234 Another point is that if we add the difference of divisor and
12 (4 × 6 + 3 × 8) + 3 = 51 remainder to the given number (i. e., dividend) the number
325768
1234 becomes divisible by that particular divisor. e. g.,
712 (4 × 7 + 3 × 6 + 2 × 8) + 5 = 67 6 − 4 = 2 (Divisor–Remainder)
325768
1234 238 + 2 = 240
7712 (4 × 5 + 3 × 7 + 2 × 6 + 1 × 8) + 6 = 67
325768
6 240 40
1234 240
97712 (4 × 2 + 3 × 5 + 2 × 7 + 1 × 6) + 6 = 49 ×
325768 Thus (238 + 2) becomes perfectly divisible by the particular
1234
997772 (4 × 3 + 3 × 2 + 2 × 5 + 1 × 7) + 4 = 39 divisor.
325768 For negative integers
1234
1997712 (3 × 3 + 2 × 2 + 1 × 5) + 3 = 21 − 37 − 3 + 3 −40 + 3 −40 3
325768 e. g., − 37 ÷ 5 = = +
1234 5 5 5 5
01997712 (2 × 3 + 1 × 2) + 2 = 10 Here, 8 is quotient and 3 is remainder.
325768
1234 NOTE The remainder is always a non-negative integer.
401997712 (1 × 3) + 1 = 4
Rule 1. If a number N is divisible by D then the product of N
with any other integral number K is also divisible by D.
Divisibility Rules i. e.,
N
→ Remainder 0
While solving the mathematical problems we need to divide D
one number by another number. In general we use four terms NK
⇒ → Remainder 0
for this process as D
Divisor Dividend Quotient Rule 2. If N 1 and N 2 two different numbers are divisible by
xyz D individually, then their sum (i. e., N 1 + N 2 ) and their
Remainder difference ( N 1 ∼ N 2 ) is also divisible by D.
6 QUANTUM CAT
Rule 3. If a number N 1 is divisible by N 2 and N 2 is divisible Divisibility by 3
by N 3 then N 1 must be divisible by N 3 . If the sum of the digits of the given number is divisible by 3
Rule 4. If two numbers N 1 and N 2 are such that they divide then the actual number will also be divisible by 3.
mutually each other it means they are same e. g., 12375 is divisible by 3 since the sum of digits
i. e., N 1 = N 2 only. 1 + 2 + 3 + 7 + 5 = 18 is divisible by 3.
How to Check the Divisibility Similarly 63089154 is also divisible by 3 since the sum of its
We have certain rules to check the divisibility by certain digits 6 + 3 + 0 + 8 + 9 + 1 + 5 + 4 = 36 is divisible by 3.
integral numbers. With the help of the following rules it has Divisibility by 9
become easier to know whether a certain number is divisible
If the sum of the digits of the given number is divisible by 9
or not by a particular number without actually dividing the
then the actual number will also be divisible by 9.
number.
e. g., 7329753 is divisible by 9, since
Divisibility by 2
7 + 3 + 2 + 9 + 7 + 5 + 3 = 36 is divisible by 9.
Any integral number whose last digit (i. e., unit digit) is even
Similarly the divisibility by 27, 81, 243, … can be checked.
or in other words the unit digit is divisible by 2. It means any
number whose last digit is either 0, 2, 4, 6 or 8, then this Divisibility by 99
number must be divisible by 2. Consider any number. Starting from the right side split the
e. g., 395672, 132, 790, 377754, etc. number into the pairs like two digit numbers; if any digit is
left unpaired in the left side of the original number take it as
Divisibility by 4
a single digit number.
If the number formed by last two digits of the given number
If the sum of all these numbers is divisible by 99, then the
is divisible by 4, then the actual number must be divisible by
given number will also be divisible by 99.
4. i. e., the last two digits of a number can be 00, 04, 08, 12,
16, 20, 24, 28, 32, …, 96. Exp. 1) Test whether 757845 is divisible by 99 or not.
e. g., 33932, 7958956, 2300, 1996, 3819764280 etc. Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as
Divisibility by 8 75 78 45.
If the number formed by last three digits of the given number Now add all the numbers as 75 + 78 + 45 =198.
Since the sum of all these numbers (198) is divisible by 99, so the
is divisible by 8, then the actual number must be divisible by
given number
8 i. e., the last three digits of the divisible number can be 000,
757845 is also divisible by 99.
008, 016, 024, 032, 040, …, 096, 104, …, 992.
e. g., 8537000, 9317640, 3945080, 23456008, 12345728, Exp. 2) Test whether 382546692 is divisible by 99 or not.
3152408 etc. Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as 3
82 54 66 92
Divisibility by 16
Now add all the numbers as 3+82+54+66+92=297.
If the number formed by last four digits of the given number
Since the sum of all these numbers (297) is divisible by 99, so the
is divisible by 16, then the actual number must be divisible
given number
by 16 i. e., the last 4 digits of the divisible number can be
362546692 is also divisible by 99.
0000, 0016, 0032, 0048, 0064, 0080, 0096, 0112, 0128,
0144, 0160, …, 0960, 0976, …, 0992, …, 1600, …, 9984. Exp. 3) Test whether 967845 is divisible by 99 or not.
Divisibility by 32, 64, 128, … can be checked just by Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as
checking the last 5, 6, 7, … digit number formed from the 96 78 45.
given number as in the above cases. Now add all the numbers as 96 + 78 + 45 =219.
Since the sum of all these numbers (219) is NOT divisible by 99,
Divisibility by 5 so the given number 967845 is NOT divisible by 99.
A number is divisible by 5 if and only if the last (i. e., unit)
NOTE As you can see that when 219 is divided by 99, it leaves
digit is either 0 or 5. the remainder 21, so the same remainder 21 will be obtained when
e. g., 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, …, 275, 365, …, 995, 70000, 967845 is divided by 99.
438915 etc.
Number System 7

Divisibility by 999 Exp. 2) Test whether 239976 is divisible by 9999 or not.

Consider any number. Starting from the right side split the Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as
number into the triplets like three digit numbers; if any digits 23 9976.
are left ungrouped in the left side of the original number take Now add all the numbers as 23 + 9976=9999.
the remaining digit(s) as a single/double digit number. If the Since the sum of all these numbers (9999) is divisible by 9999, so
sum of all these numbers is divisible by 999, then the given the given number 239976 is also divisible by 9999.
number will also be divisible by 999.
Divisibility by Some Special Numbers e . g . , 7,
Exp. 1) Test whether 579876543 is divisible by 999 or 11, 13, 17, 19 etc.
not. Why are these numbers treated differently for checking the
Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as divisibility? Since, if we multiply these numbers by any
579 876 543. other number (except 10 or multiples of 10) these numbers
Now add all the numbers as 579 + 876 + 543=1998. can never be divisible by 10. So to make the process easier
Since the sum of all these numbers (1998) is divisible by 999, so
we bring the given number (i. e., divisor) closer to the
the given number 579876543 is also divisible by 999.
multiples of 10 with the difference of 1 (e. g., 9 or 11, 19 or
Exp. 2) Test whether 34590900485988 is divisible by 999 21, 29 or 31, 39 or 41 etc).
or not. Now if the number is one less than the multiples of 10 ( i. e., 9,
Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as 19, 29, 39, …) we need to increase it by 1 to make it further
34 590 900 485988.
multiple of 10. Hence we call it ‘‘one more’’ osculator and
Now add all the numbers as 34 + 590 + 900 + 485 + 988=2997.
the value of multiplier of 10 is called the value of ‘‘one
Since the sum of all these numbers (2997) is divisible by 999, so
the given number 34590900485988 is also divisible by 999. more’’ osculator.
Similarly if the number is one more than the multiple of 10
Exp. 3) Test whether 6800900292 is divisible by 999 or ( i. e., 11, 21, 31, 41, …, etc) we need to decrease it by 1 to
not. make it the multiple of 10. So we call it ‘negative’ osculator
Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as and the value of multiplier of 10 is the value of ‘negative’
6 800 900 292, osculator.
Now add all the numbers as 6 + 800 + 900 + 292=1998.
e. g., The given number is 7 (divisor number) then we bring it
Since the sum of all these numbers (1998) is divisible by 999, so
the given number
closer to the multiple of 10 with the difference of 1, then
6800900292 is also divisible by 999. 7 × 3 = 21 = 20 + 1
⇒ 20 = 21 − 1 = (2 × 10) …(i)
Divisibility by 9999
Now in the above expression 2 is the multiplier of 10 and 2 is
Consider any number. Starting from the right side split the
known as the negative osculator for 7.
number into the 4-tuples like four digit numbers; if any digits
are left untuplled in the left side of the original number take Now let us consider the next example of 13 and then bring it
the remaining digit(s) as a single/double/triple digit number. closer to the multiples of 10 with a difference of 1.
If the sum of all these numbers is divisible by 9999, then the Thus, 13 × 3 = 39 and 39 + 1 = 40 = ( 4 × 10) …(ii)
given number will also be divisible by 9999. In the above expression 4 is the multiplier of 10 and 4 is the
value of ‘one more’ osculator.
Exp. 1) Test whether 652587344739 is divisible by 9999
Similarly for 17 we can find the osculator as
or not.
17 × 3 = 51 = 50 + 1
Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as
6525 8734 4739. So, 50 = 51 − 1 = (5 × 10)
Now add all the numbers as 6525+ 8734 + 4739=19998. Here, 5 is the negative osculator for 17.
Since the sum of all these numbers (19998) is divisible by 9999, so Similarly for 31 the osculator is negative and the value of
the given number 652587344739 is also divisible by 9999. negative osculator is 3.
8 QUANTUM CAT
Q 31 = 30 + 1 ⇒ 30 = 31 − 1 ⇒ (3 × 10) and sum of the digits at even places = 2 + 5 + 9 + 5 = 21 and
Now we will apply the osculator techniques to check the thus the difference = 0 ( = 21 − 21)
divisibility by 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, … etc. Hence 57945822 is divisible by 11.
Alternative Approach Consider any number. Starting from
Divisibility by 7
the right side split the number into the pairs like two digit
To check the divisibility of a number by 7 we apply the
numbers; if any digit is left unpaired in the left side of the
following method. Let the number be 133.
original number take it as a single digit number.
Step 1. 133 ⇒ 13 − 3 × 2 = 13 − 6 = 7
If the sum of all these numbers is divisible by 11, then the
Since 7 is divisible by 7, so the given number 133 will also be given number will also be divisible by 11.
divisible by 7. In the above process 2 is multiplied with the
last digit is the negative osculator for 7, which I have earlier Exp. 1) Test whether 702845 is divisible by 11 or not.
discussed. Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as
70 28 45.
Exp. 1) Check whether 1071 is divisible by 7. Now add all the numbers as 70 + 28 + 45 =143.
Solution Step 1. 1071 ⇒ 107 − 1 × 2 = 105 Since the sum of all these numbers (143) is divisible by 11, so the
given number 70 28 45 is also divisible by 11.
Step 2. 105 ⇒ 10 − 5 × 2 = 0
Since 0 is divisible by 7 hence the given number 1071 is Exp. 2) Test whether 382546692 is divisible by 11 or not
also divisible by 7. Solution Split the given number starting from thr right side as
38 25 46 692
Exp. 2) Check whether 939715 is divisible by 7.
Now add all the numbers as 3 + 82 + 54 + 66 + 92 = 297.
Solution Step 1. 939715 ⇒ 93971 − 5 × 2 = 93961 Since the sum of all these numbers (297) is divisible by 11, so the
Step 2. 93961 ⇒ 9396 − 1 × 2 = 9394 given number 382546692 is also divisible by 11.
Step 3. 9394 ⇒ 939 − 4 × 2 = 931 Exp. 3) Test whether 967845 is divisible by 11 or not.
Step 4. 931 ⇒ 93 − 1 × 2 = 91
Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as
Step 5. 91 ⇒ 9 − 1 × 2 = 7
96 78 45.
Hence, it is divisible by 7.
Now add all the numbers as 96 + 78 + 45 =219.
NOTE
Since the sum of all these numbers (219) is NOT divisible by 11,
1. In all the above examples we have to multiply the last
so the given number 967845 is NOT divisible by 11.
digit by the appropriate osculator and then this value
will be subtracted from the number formed by the rest Exp. 4) Test whether 825466 is divisible by 11 or not, if
digits of the number and this process is continued till
you know that the resultant value is divisible by 7. Even
not, what’s remainder?
you can stop the process in midway when you guess Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as
that the obtained value is divisible by 7. For example in 82 54 66.
the latest problem (example-2) we can stop at step 4 if we Now add all the numbers as 82+54+66=202.
know that the 91 is divisible by 7 also we can stop even at
Since the sum of all these numbers (202) is NOT divisible by 11,
step 3 if we have any idea that 931 is divisible by 7.
so the given number 825466 is also NOT divisible by 11.
2. Remember that if the operating osculator is ‘‘one more’’
osculator then we add the product of last digit and one Further, since when 202 is divided by 11 it laves remainder 4, so
more osculator in the number formed by the rest digit when the original number 825466 is divided by 11 it will leave
else. We subtract if the operating osculator is ‘negative’ the same remainder 4.
osculator.
Divisibility by 111
Divisibility by 11 Consider any number. Starting from the right side split the
A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum number into the triplets like three digit numbers; if any digits
of the digits at odd places and sum of the digits at even places are left unpaired in the left side of the original number take
is equal to zero or multiple of 11 (i.e., 11, 22, 33 etc.) the remaining digit(s) as a single/double digit number.
For example : 57945822 If the sum of all these numbers is divisible by 111, then the
Here sum of the digits at odd places = 2 + 8 + 4 + 7 = 21 given number will also be divisible by 111.
Number System 9

Exp. 1) Test whether 579876543 is divisible by 111 or not. Divisibility by 13

Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as Exp. 1) Check whether 2366 is divisible by 13.
579 876 543.
Solution Step 1. 2366 ⇒ 236 + 6 × 4 = 260
Now add all the numbers as 579 + 876 + 543=1998.
Since the sum of all these numbers (1998) is divisible by 111, so [Since, the osculator for 13 is 4 and it is ‘one more’ osculator. So
the given number 579876543 is also divisible by 111. we use addition]
Step 2. 260 ⇒ 26 + 0 × 4 = 26
Exp. 2) Test whether 34590900485988 is divisible by 111 Since 26 (or 260) is divisible by 13 hence 2366 is also divisible by
or not. 13.
Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as
34 590 900 485 988. Exp. 2) Check whether 377910 is divisible by 13.
Now add all the numbers as 34 + 590 + 900 + 485 + 988=2997. Solution Step 1. 377910 ⇒ 37791 + 0 × 4 = 37791
Since the sum of all these numbers (2997) is divisible by 111, so Step 2. 37791 ⇒ 3779 + 1 × 4 = 3783
the given number 34590900485988 is also divisible by 111. To Step 3. 3783 ⇒ 378 + 3 × 4 = 390
check that whether 2997 is divisible by 111, you can use the same
Step 4. 390 ⇒ 39 + 0 × 4 = 39
technique as 2997 can be broken up as 2 997, then 2 + 997 = 999.
Since 39 is divisible by 39. So 377910 is also divisible by 13.
Since 999 is divisible by 111, so 2997 is also divisible by 111. As
2997 is divisible by 111, so 34590900485 is also divisible by 111. Divisibility by 17
Exp. 3) Test whether 6800900181 is divisible by 111 or Exp. 1) Find out whether 323 is divisible by 17.
not. Solution Step 1. 32 3 ⇒ 32 − 3 × 5 = 17
Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as [Q 5 is the negative osculator of 17]
6 800 900 181. Therefore 323 is divisible by 17.
Now add all the numbers as 6 + 800 + 900 + 181=1887.
Exp. 2) Checkout that 12716 is divisible by 17 or not.
Since the sum of all these numbers (1887} is divisible by 111, so
the given number 6800900181 is also divisible by 111. Solution Step 1. 1271 6 ⇒ 1271 − 6 × 5 = 1241
1241 1 ⇒ 124 − 1 × 5 = 119
Divisibility by 1111
119 ⇒ 11 − 9 × 5 = − 34
Consider any number. Starting from the right side split the
number into the 4-tuples like four digit numbers; if any digits so we can conclude that 12716 is divisible by 17. Since − 34 and
are left unpaired in the left side of the original number take the 119 both are simply visible that these two numbers are divisible
remaining digit(s) as a single/ double/triple digit number. If the by 17. As I have already mentioned that you can stop your
sum of all these numbers is divisible by 1111, then the given checking process as soon as you can get a number which is easy
to know that the particular number is divisible by the given
number will also be divisible by 1111.
divisor or not. Further you should know that every resultant
Exp. 1) Test whether 652587344739 is divisible by 1111 value in the right hand side might be divisible by the divisor
whether you readily recognise it or not.
or not
Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as Divisibility by 19
6525 8734 4739. Exp. 1) Find out whether 21793 is divisible by 19.
Now add all the numbers as 6525 + 8734 + 4739=19998.
Solution Step 1. 2179 3 ⇒ 2179 + 3 × 2 = 2185
Since the sum of all these numbers (19998) is divisible by 1111, so
[Q 2 is the ‘‘one more’’ osculator of 19]
the qiven number 652587344739 is also divisible by 1111.
Step 2. 218 5 ⇒ 218 + 5 × 2 = 228
NOTE To check that whether 19998 is divisible by 1111, you can Step 3. 22 8 ⇒ 22 + 8 × 2 = 38
use the same technique as 19998 can be broken up as 1 9998, then 1 Hence 21793 is divisibe by 19.
+ 9998 = 9999. Since, 9999 is divisible by 1111, so 19998 is also
divisible by 1111. As 19998 is divisible by 1111, so 652587344739 is Shortcut rule for the divisibility by 7, 11 and 13
also divisible by 1111. A number can be divisible by 7, 11 or 13 if and only if the
difference of the number formed by the last three digits and
Exp. 2) Test whether 217756 is divisible by 1111 or not.
the number formed by the rest digits is divisible by 7, 11 or
Solution Split the given number starting from the right side as 13 respectively.
21 7756.
Now add all the numbers as 21 + 7756 = 7777.
For example we have to check that 139125 is divisible by 7
Since the sum of all these numbers (7777) is divisible by 1111, so or not.
the given number 217756 is also divisible by 1111.
10 QUANTUM CAT
So we take the difference as given below Divisibility by 10
139 − 125 = 14 A number is divisible by 10 if and only if when it is divisible
Since, the difference is divisible by 7. Hence the given by both 2 and 5. So it can be easily observed that a number is
number is also divisible by 7. divisible by 10 must end up with zero(s) at the right end (i.e.,
last digits) of the given number itself.
Exp. 1) Check whether 12478375 is divisible by 13 or
NOTE Thus we can say that if there are ‘n’ zeros at the end of the
not. given number the number can be divided by 10 n means 10000...
Solution Step 1. 12478 − 375 = 12103 n zeros.
Step 2. 12 − 103 = − 91
Divisibility by 12
Since 91 is divisible by 13 hence 12478375 is also divisible by 13.
A number is divisible by 12 only when it is divisible by 4 and
Divisibility by Composite Numbers e.g., 4, 6, 3 both at the same time. So first of all check the divisibility
8, 10, 12, 14, 15 etc. by 4 then by 3
Divisibility by 6 Divisibility by 15
A number is divisible by 6 only when it is divisible by 2 and 3 A number is divisible by 15 only when it is divisible by 3 and 5
both. both simultaneously. So first of all check the number by 5 then
So first of all we see that the number is even or not then we by 3. Thus we can conclude that any number which is divisible
check for the divisibility by 3. by a composite number, as mentioned above, must be divisible
by all its factors whose L.C.M. is the given divisor.

Introductory Exercise 1.1

1. The number 12375 is divisible by : 8. If the number 243x51 is divisible by 9, the value of the
(a) 3, 11 and 9 (b) 3 and 11 only digit marked as x would be:
(c) 11 and 9 only (d) 3 and 9 only (a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
2. The least number which must be subtracted from 9. Which of the following number is divisible by 999?
6708 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is : (a) 9999999 (b) 99999
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 987654321 (d) 145854
(c) 3 (d) 4
10. Which of the following can divide 99999999 exactly?
3. The smallest number which must be added to 803642
(a) 9 (b) 9999
in order to obtain a multiple of 9 is :
(c) 99 (d) Each of (a), (b), and (c)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
4. The divisor when the quotient, dividend and the 11. If 24AB4 is divisible by 99, then A × B is:
remainder are respectively 547, 171282 and 71 is (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 20 (d) 15
equal to : 12. What is the largest possible two digit number by which
(a) 333 (b) 323 (c) 313 (d) 303 2179782 can be divided ?
5. In a problem involving division, the divisor is eight (a) 88 (b) 50
times the quotient and four times the remainder. If the (c) 66 (d) 99
remainder is 12, then the dividend is : 13. At least which number must be subtracted from
(a) 300 (b) 288 9999999 so that it will become the multiple of 125?
(c) 512 (d) 524 (a) 124 (b) 4
6. 111111111111 is divisible by : (c) 24 (d) none of these
(a) 3 and 37 only 14. A number of the form 10 n − 1 is always divisible by
(b) 3, 37 and 11 only 11 for every n is a natural number, when :
(c) 3, 11, 37 and 111 only (a) n is odd (b) n is prime
(d) 3, 11, 37, 111 and 1001 (c) n is even (d) can’t say
15. Out of the following numbers which is divisible by 132?
7. An integer is divisible by 16 if and only if its last X
(a) 31218 (b) 78520
digits are divisible by 16. The value of X would be :
(c) 38148 (d) 52020
(a) three (b) four (c) five (d) six
Number System 11

16. If 653xy is divisible by 80 then the value of x + y is : 29. Which one number is closest to 193 which is divisible
(a) 2 (b) 3 by 18 is :
(c) 4 (d) 6 (a) 180 (b) 195
(c) 198 (d) 108
17. The value of k if k35624 is divisible by 11 :
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 6 30. The product of two numbers ab7 and cd5 could be,
18. If 42573k is divisible by 72 then the value of k is : where ab7 and cd5 are individually three digit
(a) 4 (b) 5 numbers :
(c) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8135 (b) 79236
(c) 8735255 (d) none of these
19. How many numbers between 1 and 1000 are divisible
by 7? 31. When a 3 digit number 984 is added to another 3 digit
(a) 777 (b) 142 number 4 p3, we get a four digit number13q7, which is
(c) 143 (d) none of these divisible by 11. The value of p + q is :
20. How many numbers between 55 and 555 including (a) 10 (b) 11
both the extreme values are divisible by 5? (c) 12 (d) 13
(a) 100 (b) 111 32. When a number divided by 9235, we get the quotient
(c) 101 (d) none of these 888 and the remainder 222, such a least possible
21. How many numbers are there from 100 to 200 ? number is :
(a) 100 (b) 101 (a) 820090 (b) 8200920
(c) 99 (d) none of these (c) 8200680 (d) none of these
22. How many numbers are divisible by 3 in the set of 33. The number which when divided by 33 is perfectly
numbers 300, 301, 302, ..., 499, 500? divisible and closer to 1000 is :
(a) 200 (b) 66 (a) 990
(c) 67 (d) none of these (b) 999
23. How many numbers are there between 200 and 800 (c) 1023
which are divisible by both 5 and 7? (d) can’t be determined
(a) 35 (b) 16 34. A number which when divided by 32 leaves a
(c) 17 (d) can’t be determined remainder of 29. If this number is divided by 8 the
24. In the above question total numbers in the set of remainder will be :
numbers S = {200 , 201, ... , 800 } which are either (a) 0 (b) 1
divisible by 5 or by 7 is : (c) 5 (d) 3
(a) 210 (b) 190 35. A number when divided by 5 leaves a remainder of 4,
(c) 199 (d) can’t be determined when the double (i.e., twice) of that number is divided
25. How many numbers are there in the set by 5 the remainder will be :
S = {200 , 201, 202 , ... , 800 } which are divisible by (a) 0
neither of 5 or 7? (b) 1
(a) 411 (b) 412 (c) 3
(c) 410 (d) none of these (d) can’t be determined
26. Total number of numbers lying in the range of 1331 36. When a number ‘N’ is divided by a proper divisor ‘D’
and 3113 which are neither divisible by 2, 3 or 5 is : then it leaves a remainder of 14 and if the thrice of that
(a) 477 (b) 594 number i.e., 3N is divided by the same divisor D, the
(c) 653 (d) none of these remainder comes out to be 8. Again if the 4 times of the
27. Atleast what number must be subtracted from same number i.e., ‘4N’ is divided by D the remainder
434079 so that it becomes divisible by 137 ? will be :
(a) 173 (b) 63 (a) 35 (b) 22
(c) 97 (d) can’t be determined (c) 5 (d) can’t be determined
28. In the above question, at least what number be added 37. A number when divided by 5 gives a number which is 8
to 434079, so that it will become divisible by more than the remainder obtained on dividing the
(or multiple of) 137 ? same number by 34. Such a least possible number is:
(a) 97 (b) 74 (a) 175 (b) 75
(c) 75 (d) none of these (c) 680 (d) does not exist
12 QUANTUM CAT
38. When a natural number divided by a certain divisor, we 46. A teacher who teaches online at Lamamia wrote a 90
get 15 as a remainder. But when the 10 times of the digit positive number 112222333333... in his laptop.
same number is divided by the same divisor we get 6 Then he inserted a three-digit number between any
as a remainder. The maximum possible number of two distinct digits. Now the new number cannot be
such divisors is : perfectly divisible by 11. Find the number of possible
(a) 6 (b) 7 values of three digit numbers.
(c) 15 (d) can’t be determined (a) 819 (b) 781
39. A certain number ‘C’ when divided by N1 it leaves a (c) 881 (d) none of these
remainder of 13 and when it is divided by N2 it leaves a 47. A natural number is divisible by 1125, which consists
remainder of 1, where N1 and N2 are the positive of only 0s and 1s. Minimum how many 0s and 1s are
N 5 there in such a number?
integers. Then the value of N1 + N2 is, if 1 = : (a) 5,9 (b) 7,5 (c) 3,3 (d) 3,9
N2 4
(a) 36 48. A ten-digit number containing each distinct digit only
(b) 27 once. The ten-digit number is divisible by 10. If the last
(c) 54 digit is eliminated, the remaining number is divisible
(d) can’t be determined uniquely by 9. If the last 2 digits are eliminated, the remaining
number is divisible by 8. If the last three digits are
40. In the above problem the value of c is :
eliminated, the remaining number is divisible by 7.
(a) 50 < c < 100
And so on. Find the number.
(b) any multiple of 11
(a) 1234567890 (b) 2436517890
(c) 20 < c < 50
(d) can’t be determined (c) 1832547690 (d) 3816547290

41. In how many parts a rod of length 19.5 m can be 49. What is the smallest 9 digit number containing all the
broken of equal length of 65 cm? non-zero digits 1, 2, ..., 9, which is divisible by 99?
(a) 20 (b) 30 (a) 125364789 (b) 124365879
(c) 3 (d) 130 (c) 123475689 (d) none of these
42. A six digit number which is consisting of only one 50. An uninitiated student once visited a test prep portal
digits either 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 or 9, e.g., 111111, www. Lamamia.in to assess her quantitative ability for
222222... etc. This number is always divisible by : SSC CGL. She took a test in which there were total
(a) 7 (b) 11 18 problems each with four options—A, B, C and D.
(c) 13 (d) all of these After glancing through the whole test paper she
43. The maximum possible difference between the 4 digit realized that she was not able to crack even a single
numbers formed by using the 4 different digits 1, 2, 3, problem, so she marked the choice A in all the
5 is : problems. Then after a while she changed the answers
(a) 4086 (b) 5076 by marking B in each third problem, starting with the
(c) 4386 (d) 3242 third problem. Unsatisfied with her answers, she again
44. The sum of all digits except the unity that can be changed the answers by marking C in each second
substituted at the place of k inorder to be divisible by 8 problem, starting with the second problem. In her final
in the number 23487k 2 : attempt to guess the answers, she changed the answers
(a) 5 (b) 14 by marking D in each ninth problem, starting with the
(c) 9 (d) none of these ninth problem. While. changing the answers she moves
45. A certain number N when multiplied by 13, the from the first to the last problem in an orderly way.
resultant values consists entirely of sevens. The value What are the numbers of final answers that she marked
of N is : in terms of A, B, C and D, respectively?
(a) 123459 (b) 58829 (a) 6, 2, 1,9 (b) 6, 2, 8, 2
(c) 59829 (d) none of these (c) 2, 4, 6, 6 (d) 4, 6, 2, 6
Number System 13

1.2 Square and Cubes

SQUARE TABLE
1 1 21 441 41 1681 61 3721 81 6561
2 4 22 484 42 1764 62 3844 82 6724
3 9 23 529 43 1849 63 3969 83 6889
4 16 24 576 44 1936 64 4096 84 7056
5 25 25 625 45 2025 65 4225 85 7225
6 36 26 676 46 2116 66 4356 86 7396
7 49 27 729 47 2209 67 4489 87 7569
8 64 28 784 48 2304 68 4624 88 7744
9 81 29 841 49 2401 69 4761 89 7921
10 100 30 900 50 2500 70 4900 90 8100
11 121 31 961 51 2601 71 5041 91 8281
12 144 32 1024 52 2704 72 5184 92 8464
13 169 33 1089 53 2809 73 5329 93 8649
14 196 34 1156 54 2916 74 5476 94 8836
15 225 35 1225 55 3025 75 5625 95 9025
16 256 36 1296 56 3136 76 5776 96 9216
17 289 37 1369 57 3249 77 5929 97 9409
18 324 38 1444 58 3364 78 6084 98 9604
19 361 39 1521 59 3481 79 6241 99 9801
20 400 40 1600 60 3600 80 6400 100 10,000

Squaring Techniques Similarly, square of 700 :

Dear students let me tell you a simple secret of Number ( 700) 2 ⇒ Step 1. 0000
System. It is nothing but knowing the properties of numbers Step 2. ( 7) 2 = 49
and so knowing the squares of numbers makes you smarter Step 3. 490000
than the ones who don’t know the squares or the ones who Square of 13000 :
can’t calculate the squares orally in a few seconds.
(13000) 2 ⇒ Step 1. 000000
A couple of techniques are illustrated in this book that will
Step 2. (13) 2 = 169
definitely help you calculate the squares faster than many of
Step 3. 169000000
your competitors. My only request is that do not undermine
the role of squares due to your ignorance or impatience. Square of 21000 :
(21000) 2 ⇒ Step 1. 000000
1. Square of the numbers whose unit (i.e., last) digit is
zero (0) : Any number whose last digit is zero, we Step 2. (21) 2 = 441
double the number of zeros at the right side of the Step 3. 441000000
number and in the left of the zeros we write the square of 2. Square of the numbers whose unit digit is 5 :
the non-zero numbers (or rest digits) which is in the left To calculate the square of the number whose unit digit is
of the zero(s) 5, first of all, we write 25 as the last two digits of the
e.g., square of 40 : square of the given number. For remaining digits which
( 40) 2 ⇒ Step 1. 00 has to be written to the left of 25 we write the product of
Step 2. 4 2 = 16 the number formed by remaining digits of the given
number and the its successive number.
Step 3. 1600
14 QUANTUM CAT
For example : and (151) 2 = (150) 2 + (150 + 151)
(i) The square of 35 : = 22500 + 301 = 22801
(35) 2 ⇒ Step 1. 25
and (1111) = (1110) 2 + (1110 + 1111)
2
Step 2. 3 × (3 + 1) = 12
Step 3. 1225 = (1110) 2 + 2221
(ii) The square of 65 : = 1232100 + 2221 =1234321
(65) 2 ⇒ Step 1. 25 (ii) Square of the numbers whose unit digit is 9 : It is
Step 2. 6 × (6 + 1) = 42 very similar to the previous case. The difference is
that here we have to subtract instead of addition. For
Step 3. 4225 example the square of 39
(iii) The square of 75 : (39) 2 = ( 40) 2 − (39 + 40)
( 75) 2 ⇒ Step 1. 25 = 1600 − 79 = 1521
Step 2. 7 × ( 7 + 1) = 56 Similarly, ( 49) = (50) 2 − ( 49 + 50)
2

Step 3. 5625 = 2500 − 99 = 2401

(iv) The square of 125 : and (89) = (90) 2 − (89 + 90)
2

(125) 2 ⇒ Step 1. 25 = 8100 − 179 = 7921

Step 2. 12 × (12 + 1) = 156 and (139) = (140) 2 − (139 + 140)
2

Step 3. 15625 = 19600 − 279 = 19321

(v) The square of 1405 and (249) = (250) 2 − (249 + 250)
2

Step 1. 25 = 62500 − 499 = 62001

Step 2. 140 × (140 + 1) = 19740
NOTE In the case of unit digit of 9, we subtract from the base
Step 3. 1974025 square because base is higher than the number whose square is to
(vi) The square of 139005 be calculated.

(139005) 2 ⇒ Step 1. 25 (iii) Square of the numbers whose last digit is 2 or 8 :

For example (52) 2 = (50) 2 + 2 (50 + 52)
Step 2. 13900 × (13900 + 1) = 193223900
Step 3. 19322390025
= 2500 + 204 = 2704
(vii) The square of 155 : Similarly, (112) = (110) 2 + 2(110 + 112)
2

(155) 2 ⇒ Step 1. 25 = 12100 + 444 =12544

Step 2. 15 × (15 + 1) = 240 and (38) = ( 40) 2 − 2 (38 + 40)
2

Step 3. 24025 = 1600 − 156 =1444

3. (i) Square of the numbers ending with the digit 1 : and (88) = (90) 2 − 2 (88 + 90)
2

These numbers are very easy to solve. To get the = 8100 − 356 = 7744
square of any such number just write the square of the
previous number and then add the previous number (iv) Square of the numbers whose unit digit is 3 or 7 :
and the number whose square is being asked. For example : (23) 2 = (20) 2 + 3 (20 + 23)
For example the square of 21 = 400 + 129 = 529
(21) = (20) + (20 + 21) = 441
2 2
Similarly, (53) 2 = (50) 2 + 3 (50 + 53)
Similarly, (31) = (30) + (30 + 31) = 961
2 2
= 2500 + 309 = 2809
and ( 41) = ( 40) + ( 40 + 41) =1681
2 2
and (123) = (120) 2 + 3 (120 + 123)
2

and (81) 2 = (80) 2 + (80 + 81) = 6561 = 14400 + 729 =15129

and (131) = (130) + (130 + 131)
2 2 and ( 47) = (50) 2 − 3( 47 + 50)
2

= 16900 + 261 =17161 = 2500 − 291 = 2209

Number System 15

and (137) 2 = (140) 2 − 3 (137 + 140) (iii) If the unit digit of any number is 1 or 9, then the unit
digit of the square of its number is always 1.
= 19600 − 831 =18769
e.g., ( 71) 2 = 5041, (31) 2 = 961, (19) 2 = 361
and (2347) = (2350) 2 − 3 (2347 + 2350)
2
(iv) If the unit digit of any number is 2 or 8, then the unit
= 5522500 − 4691 = 5517809 digit of the square of its number is always 4.
(v) Square of the numbers which ends with 4 or 6 : (v) If the unit digit of any number is 3 or 7, then the unit
For example : (34) 2 = (30) 2 + 4(30 + 34) digit of its square is always 9.
e.g., (23) 2 = 529,
= 900 + 256 =1156
(27) 2 = 729
or (34) = (35) 2 − (34 + 35)
2

(vi) If the unit digit of any number is 4 or 6, then the unit

= 1225 − 69 =1156 digit of its square is always 6.
Similarly, (36) 2 = (35) 2 + (35 + 36) e.g., (26) 2 = 676,
= 1225 + 71 =1296 (24) 2 = 576,
and (126) 2 = (125) 2 + (125 + 126) (14) 2 = 196,
= 15625 + 251 =15876 (16) 2 = 256 etc.
NOTE In general square of any number can be found by using the (vii) The square of any number is always positive
square of any convenient number as base square e.g., the numbers irrespective of the nature of the given number.
whose unit digit is either 0 or 5, since the square of these numbers is
easy to find and learn. However we can calculate the square by (viii) The numbers with unit digit 0, 1, 5 and 6 always give
considering any base square. For example, if the same unit digits respectively, on squaring.
(32) 2 = (30) 2 + 2 (30 + 32) =1024 (ix) 2, 3, 7 and 8 never appear as unit digit in the square of
a number.
or (32) 2 = (31) 2 + (31 + 32)
Perfect Square : The square of any natural number is known
= 961 + 63 =1024 as perfect square e.g., 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81, 100, 121,
or (32) = (33) 2 − (32 + 33)
2
144, .... etc. are the squares of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11,
12, ... etc.
= 1089 − 65 =1024
or (32) = (35) 2 − 3 (32 + 35)
2
Square root
= 1225 − 201 =1024 A number n is called the square root of a number n 2 = ( n × n)
Now, it can be generalized as : where n 2 is obtained by multiplying the number n with itself
only once.
If N is the number whose square is to be calculated
and B is the base and d is difference between N and B The symbol for square root is ‘ ’.
then ( N ) 2 = ( B ) 2 + d ( B + N ) when B < N For example
or ( N ) = ( B ) − d ( B + N ) when B > N
2 2
the square root of 4 is 4 = 2,
the square root of 9 is 9 = 3, and
Properties of Squares
(i) If the unit digit of the number is zero, then the unit the square root of 25 is 25 = 5, etc.
digit of the square of this number will also be zero and Generally there are two methods for finding the square root :
the number of zeros will be double in the square than
(i) Prime Factorisation method
that of its root. e.g., (60) 2 = 3600, (130) 2 = 16900
(ii) Division method
(ii) If the unit digit of the number is 5, then the unit digit of
its square is also 5 and the number formed by last two (i )Factorisation Method
digits is 25. In this method first we find out the prime factors and then we
e.g., (35) 2 = 1225, ( 45) 2 = 2025, (55) 2 = 3025 etc. pair them as given below.
16 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 1) Find the square root of 3600. Exp. 4) Find the square root of 120409.
Solution The factors of 3600 2 3600 Solution 347
= 2× 2× 2× 2× 3 × 3 ×5 ×5 2 1800 3 12 04 09
So the square root of 3600 i.e., 2 900 3 9
3600 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 2 450 64 304
5 225 4 256
= 60
5 45 687 4809
3 9 7 4809
3 3 ×
1 ∴ 120409 = 347
Exp. 2) Find the square root of 144.
Solution Factors of 144 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 2 144 Exp. 5) Find the square root of 5793649.
2 72
So 144 = 2 × 2 × 3 Solution 2407
2 36
144 = 12 2 18
2 5 79 36 49
2 4
3 9 44 179
3 3 4 176
1 4807 33649
Exp. 3) Find the square root of 10404. 07 33649
××××
Solution The factors of 10404 2 10404
∴ 5793649 = 2407
= 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 17 × 17 2 5202
3 2601
NOTE If (11)2 = 121, then (101)2 = 10201
∴ 10404 = 2 × 3 × 17
3 867 ( 21)2 = 441, then
or 10404 = 102
17 289 ( 201)2 = 40401 and so on...
17 17 If (11)2 = 121, then (1001)2 = 1002001
1 If ( 31)2 = 961, then ( 3001)2 = 9006001
(ii) Division Method If (12)2 = 144, then (1002)2 = 1004004 and so on
In this method first of all we make pairs from the right side Go in depth and find the limitation of this logic ...
towards left and then solve as given below. NOTE 12 = 1
Exp. 1) Find the square root of 3600. 112 = 121
60 1112 = 12321
Solution 6 36 00 11112 = 1234321
6 36 111112 = 123454321
∴ 3600 = 60 120 00 00 1111112 = 12345654321
0 00 00 … … … … …
Exp. 2) Find the square root of 10404. Cubing Techniques
Solution 102 If a number is multiplied by itself twice, then the resultant
1 1 04 04 value is called as the cube of that number. For example
1 1 n × n × n = n 3 , read as n cube.
202 0 04 04
02 4 04 If we say that what is the cube of 4, then it means
∴ 10404 = 102 ×× 4 3 = 4 × 4 × 4 = 64
Exp. 3) Find the square root of 15876. Similarly, 7 3 = 7 × 7 × 7 = 343 and 8 3 = 8 × 8 × 8 = 512
Solution 126
1 1 58 76
1 1
But, for the greater (or larger) number sometimes it becomes
22 58 tedious to calculate the cube very quickly. So use a new
2 44 approach to calculate the cube of larger numbers from
246 1476 11 to 99.
6 1476
× Since you can easily calculate the cubes of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7,
8, 9, 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70, 80, 90 and 100 etc. So you can
∴ 15876 = 126
leverage it for further calculation.
Number System 17

Method to find cube of two digit numbers Exp. 6) ( 27 ) 3 ⇒ Step 1. 2 3 = 8

Step 1. Write down the cube of tens digit. Step 2. 8 28 98 343
Step 2. Write down the resultant value in the same ratio as Step 3. 8 28 98 343
the ratio of tens and unit digit in four terms as a G.P. + 56 196
Step 4. 19 11 6 32 8 34 3
Step 3. Write down twice the value obtained in the second
and third term below the second and third term ∴ ( 27 ) 3 = 19683
respectively. Exp. 7) (53) 3 ⇒ Step 1. 5 3 = 125
Step 4. Now you can add all the numbers in the prescribed Step 2. 125 75 45 27
manner as given in the following examples : Step 3. 125 75 45 27
+ 150 90
NOTE While doing the addition (in step 4) subscripts should be
Step 4. 148 23 8 13 7 27
treated as a ‘‘carryover’’ for the next term.
∴ ( 53 ) = 148877
3

Exp. 1) (11) 3 ⇒ Step 1. 1 3 = 1

Exp. 8) ( 67 ) 3 ⇒ Step 1. ( 6) 3 = 216
Step 2. 1 1 1 1
Step 2. 216 252 294 343
Step 3. 1 1 1 1
Step 3. 216 252 294 343
+2 2
+ 504 588
Step 4. 1 3 3 1
Step 4. 300 84 7 91 6 34 3
∴ (11) 3 = 1331 ∴ ( 67 ) 3 = 300763
Exp. 2) (12) 3 ⇒ Step 1. 1 3 = 1
Exp. 9) ( 94) 3 ⇒ Step 1. ( 9) 3 = 729
Step 2. 1 2 4 8 Step 2. 729 324 144 64
Step 3. 1 2 4 8 Step 3. 729 324 144 64
4 8
+ 648 288
Step 4. 1 7 2 8
Step 4. 830 101 5 43 8 64
∴ (12) 3 = 1728 ∴ ( 94) 3 = 830584
Exp. 3) (13) 3 ⇒ Step 1. 1 3 = 1
Exp. 10) ( 88) 3 ⇒ Step 1. ( 8) 3 = 512
Step 2. 1 3 9 27 Step 2. 512 512 512 512
Step 3. 1 3 9 27 Step 3. 512 512 512 512
6 18
+ 1024 1024
Step 4. 2 1 2 9 27
Step 4. 681 169 4 158 7 51 2
∴ (13) 3 = 2197
∴ ( 88) 3 = 681472
Exp. 4) ( 25) 3 ⇒ Step 1. 2 3 = 8
Exp. 11) (55) 3 ⇒ Step 1. (5) 3 = 125
Step 2. 8 20 50 125
Step 2. 125 125 125 125
Step 3. 8 20 50 125
Step 3. 125 125 125 125
40 100
+ 250 250
Step 4. 15 76 16 2 12 5
Step 4. 166 3 38 7 12 5
∴ ( 25) 3 = 15625 41
∴ (55) 3 = 166375
Exp. 5) ( 26) 3 ⇒ Step 1. 2 3 = 8
Exp. 12) (72) 3 ⇒ Step 1. (7) 3 = 343
Step 2. 8 24 72 216
Step 2. 343 98 28 8
Step 3. 8 24 72 216
+ 48 144 Step 3. 343 98 28 8
Step 4. 17 9 5 23 7 + 196 56
21 6
∴ ( 26 )3 = 17576 Step 4. 373 30 2 84 8
∴ (72) 3 = 373248
18 QUANTUM CAT
NOTE In this method first we factorize the given numbers then
Cube Roots we make the triplet of the factors and thus we multiply these triplets
The cube root of a number n is expressed as 3 n or ( n)1 / 3 or in to get the cube root of the given number.
other words n = ( n)1/ 3 × ( n1/ 3 ) × ( n1/ 3 ) Exp. 3) On 14th November, in my school, each child
For example, cube root of 27 i.e., 3 27 = 3 received as many packs of chocolates as there were total
number of the students in the school. Further, each pack
and 3
343 = 7 and 3
64 = 4
of chocolates contains as many chocolates as there were
Exp. 1) Find the cube root of 125. the total number of packs which a child had. Total how
many chocolates have been distributed among all the
Solution Q 125 = 5 × 5 × 5 5 125 children of school :
5 25
∴ 3
125 = 5 (a) 729 (b) 196
5 5 (c) 961 (d) can’t be determined
1 Solution (d) is the appropriate answer since we don’t have
sufficient data to calculate.
Exp. 2) Find the cube root of 1728.
Exp. 4) In the above question if there were 8 packs of
Solution 1728 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 2 1728 chocolates with every child. Then the total number of
3
1728 = 2 × 2 × 3 2 864 chocolates distributed among them was :
2 432 (a) 512 (b) 64
3
1728 = 12
2 216 (c) 256 (d) can’t be determined
2 108
Solution Let there are n children it means each child has n packs
2 54
of chocolates and since every pack contains n chocolates.
3 27
Therefore total number of chocolates
3 9
= n × n × n = n3
3 3
Hence total number of chocolates = ( 8) 3 = 512
1
Thus option (a) is correct.

Introductory Exercise 1.2

1. The square root of 6280036 is : 7. In the above question, by which least possible number
(a) 1308 (b) 2903 we divide to the 11760 so the resultant number
(c) 2506 (d) none of these becomes a perfect square :
2. The square root of 1296 is : (a) 3
(a) 33 (b) 44 (c) 34 (d) 36 (b) 15
3. The square root of 7744 is : (c) 7
(a) 94 (b) 88 (d) can’t be determined
(c) 77 (d) none of these 8. The least possible positive number which should be
4. The square root of 56169 is : added to 575 to make a perfect square number is :
(a) 359 (b) 323 (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 227 (d) none of these (c) 4 (d) none of these
5. The square root of 1238578 is : 9. The least possible number which must be subtracted
(a) 3254 (b) 3724 from 575 to make a perfect square number is :
(a) 5 (b) 50
(c) 3258 (d) None of these
(c) 46 (d) 37
6. The least number by which we multiply to the 11760,
10. The square of a number ‘A’ is the sum of the square of
so that we can get a perfect square number :
other two numbers ‘B’ and ‘C’. Where 5 B = 12C and
(a) 2
B, C are positive numbers. The least possible positive
(b) 3 value of A is :
(c) 5 (a) 10 (b) 12
(d) none of the above (c) 13 (d) 16
Number System 19

11. Lieutenant Kalia when arranged all his 1500 soldiers in 16. The smallest number that must be added to 1780 to
such a way that the number of soldiers in a line were the make it a perfect square is :
same as there were the number of lines. So he was left (a) 69 (b) 156
with 56 soldiers, who were not a part of this (c) 49 (d) 59
arrangement. The number of lines in this arrangement
is : 100 25
17. If = 50 then the value of x is :
(a) 44 (b) 36 25 + x
(c) 38 (d) none of these 1 1
1, (a) 25 (b) (c) 25 (d)
12. 289 ÷ x = then the value of x is : 25 25
5
18. The least possible number which we should add to
17 34
(a) (b) 1720 to make a perfect cube number is :
25 35
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 235 (d) 7225
(c) 8 (d) 7
13. Out of the following statements which one is incorrect?
19. The least positive number which is subtracted from
(a) 5184 = 72 (b) 15625 = 125 1369 to make it a perfect cube is :
(c) 1444 = 38 (d) 1296 = 34 (a) 17 (b) 38
14. If 2 ∗ 3 = 13 and 3 ∗ 4 = 5, then the value of 5 ∗ 12 is (c) 34 (d) none of these
(a) 17 (b) 29 20. The least possible natural number by which if we
(c) 21 (d) 13 multiply to the 1372, we get a perfect cube number is :
(a) 2 (b) 3
(a + 2 ) (b + 3 )
15. If a * b * c = , then the value of (c) 5 (d) can’t be determined
(c + 1)
21. The least possible number by which if we divide 1372,
(6 * 15 * 3 ) is : it will become a perfect cube number is :
(a) 6 (b) 3 (a) 2 (b) 7 (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) 4 (d) can’t be determined

1.3 Basic Numbers

It has been said by a great mathematician that ‘‘Mathematics
Complex numbers
is the queen of Science and Arithmetic is the queen of
C
Mathematics.’’ Arithmetic is the maths of numerals and
digits and so the other branches of Maths are dependent upon
Arithmetic. Purely Imaginary
Real Numbers
Either the counting of the currency or counting of the stars in R C–R
all the ways it has been a very popular subject especially
among Indians.
Rational Irrational
One thing which is very well known that the great Indian Numbers Numbers
Mathematician Aryabhatta has introduced ‘0’ (zero) in the Q R–Q
counting numbers and the whole world has adopted it. In
fact, a computer is dead if this figure does not exist. So one Integers Fractions
can say zero has revolutionised the whole world. I Q–I

Here we will discuss all sorts of numbers, their properties,

applications besides the different number systems used Positive Whole Negative
Integers Numbers Integers
widely.
I+ W I–
The following chart briefly illustrates the different kinds of
numbers with their relationship.
Natural {0}
Numbers Zero
N
20 QUANTUM CAT
Natural Numbers Even Numbers
The counting numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, … are called the natural All the natural numbers which are divisible by 2 are known as
numbers and are denoted by N , As you may like to recall that a even numbers e.g., 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, … .
child when he/she is very young he/she starts counting his/her
toys, sweets, fruits, etc. as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …, as he/she has no idea Odd Numbers
about 0 (zero) and decimal numbers such as 1.5, 2.75 or 3.33 or All the natural numbers which are not divisible by 2 are
any other type of numbers. That’s why probably the numbers known as ‘Odd numbers’ e.g., 1, 3, 5, 7, …
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, … are called natural numbers. Important Note Even × Odd = Even

Natural numbers are represented by N ,where Even + Even = Even Even ÷ Odd = Even
N = {1, 2, 3, K }. Even – Even = Even Odd + Even = Odd
Even × Even = Even
Odd – Even = Odd
All natural numbers are the positive integers. Even ÷ Even = Even of odd
Odd × Even = Even
Properties of Natural Numbers Odd + Odd = Even Odd ÷ Even = (never divisible)
1. Successor : The next natural number just after any Odd – Odd = Even
natural number n is called its successor ‘ n + ’ Odd × Odd = Even (even)even/odd = Even
where n + = n +1 for example the successor of 2 is 3, Odd ÷ Odd = Even
Even + Odd = Odd (odd)odd/even = Odd
successor of 6 is 7 etc.
Even – Odd = Odd
2. Closure law : For any two natural numbers a and b
( a + b) ∈ N and ( a × b ) ∈ N Prime Numbers
e.g., 3 + 4 = 7 ∈N and 3 × 4 = 12 ∈ N Except 1 each natural number which is divisible by only 1
3. Commutative law : For any two natural numbers a and b and itself is called as prime number e.g., 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17,
19, 23, 29, 31, ... etc.
a + b = b + a and a × b = b × a
˜
There are total 25 prime numbers upto 100
e.g., 5 + 6 = 6 + 5 = 11
˜
There are total 46 prime numbers upto 200
and 5 × 6 = 6 × 5 = 30 ˜
2 is the only even prime number and the least prime number.
4. Associative law : For any three natural numbers ˜
1 is neither prime nor composite number.
( a + b) + c = a + ( b + c) ˜
There are infinite prime numbers.
( a × b) × c = a × ( b × c) ˜
A list of all the prime numbers upto 100 is given below.
e.g., ( 7 + 8) + 9 = 7 + (8 + 9) = 24
Table of Prime Numbers (1 − 100) :
( 7 × 8) × 9 = 7 × (8 × 9) = 504
2 11 23 31 41 53 61 71 83 97
5. Multiplicative Identity : 1 is the multiplicative identity 3 13 29 37 43 59 67 73 89
of every natural number as 5 17 47 79
4 ×1 = 4 7 19
5 ×1 = 5 How to test whether a number is prime or not : To test a
10 × 1 = 10 number n take the square root of n and consider as it is , if it is
17 × 1 = 17 a natural number otherwise just increase the square root of it
6. Cancellation law : For any three natural numbers a, b, c to the next natural number. Then divide the given number by
all the prime numbers below the square root obtained. If the
a + b= c + b ⇒ a = c number is divisible by any of these prime numbers then it is
and a ×b=c×b ⇒ a =c not a prime number else it is a prime number.
7. Distributive law : For any three natural numbers a, b, c
Exp.) Check that whether 241 is prime.
a × ( b + c) = a × b + a × c
Solution When we take the square root of 241 it is
but a + ( b × c) ≠ ( a + b) × ( a + c) approximate 15, so we consider it 16. Now we divide 241 by all
e.g., 3 × ( 4 + 5) = 3 × 4 + 3 × 5 = 27 the prime numbers below 16 viz., 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13
8. Trichotomy law If there are any two natural numbers a Since 241 is not divisible by any one of the prime numbers below
and b then there exists one and only one relation 16. So it is a prime number.
necessarily is NOTE Any digit if it is written continuously 3 times, 6 times,
(i) a > b (ii) a = b (iii) a < b 9 times ... etc. then it is divisible by 3
e.g., 111; 555555; 777777; 222222222; 888, 222 etc.
Number System 21

Co-prime Numbers Consecutive Numbers

Two natural numbers are called co-prime (or relatively prime) A series of numbers in which the next number is 1
numbers if they have no common factor other than 1 or in other more than the previous number or the predecessor
words. The highest common factor i.e., H.C.F. between co-prime number is 1 less than the successor or just they can be
numbers is 1. e.g., (15, 16), (14, 25), (8, 9), (13, 15) etc. differed by 1
e.g., 10, 11, 12, or 17, 18, 19, 20, 21 or 717, 718, 719,
NOTE It is not necessary that the numbers involved in the pair of 720, 721... etc.
co-primes will be prime even they can be composite numbers as seen in the
above examples. Perfect Number
Twin Primes When the sum of all the factors (including 1 but
When the difference between any two prime number is 2, these excluding the number itself) of the given number is the
prime numbers are called twin primes. same number then this number is called as Perfect
Number.
e.g., (3, 5), (5, 7), (11, 13), (17, 19), (29, 31), (41, 43), (59, 61), (71,
73), (101, 103), (107, 109), (137, 139), etc. For example 6, 28, 496, 8128, ...etc.
So far only 27 perfect numbers are known. The factors
Composite Numbers of 28 are 1, 2, 4, 7, 14, 28
A number other than one which is not a prime number is called a Now, 1 + 2 + 4 + 7 + 14 = 28
composite number. It means it is divisible by some other
number(s) other than 1 and the number itself. e.g., 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, Hence 28 is a perfect Number.
14, 15, 16, 18, 20, 21, 22, 24, 25, 26... Triangular Number
Every natural number except 1 is either prime or composite. A triangular number is obtained by adding the
Whole Numbers previous number to the nth position in the sequence of
The extended set of natural numbers in which ‘0’ is also included is triangular numbers, where the first triangular number
called as the set of whole numbers and is denoted by is 1. The sequence of triangular numbers is given as
W = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ...} follows
NOTE ‘0’ (zero) is an even number. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, 28, 36, 45, 55, 66, 78, ....etc.

Introductory Exercise 1.3

1. The set of natural numbers is closed under the binary Of these statements :
operations of : (a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct
(a) addition, subtraction, multiplication and division (c) 3 and 4 are correct (d) 4 alone is correct
(b) addition, subtraction, multiplication but not 3. Consider the following statements :
division
1. If p > 2 is a prime, then it can be written as 4 n + 1
(c) addition and multiplication but not subtraction
or 4 n + 3 for suitable n.
and division
2. If p > 2 is a prime, then ( p − 1) ( p + 1) is always
(d) addition and subtraction but not multiplication
divisible by 4.
and division
2. If p be a prime, p > 3 and let x be the product of Of these statements :
(a) 1 and 2 are false (b) 1 and 2 are true
natural numbers 1, 2, 3, …, ( p − 1), then consider the
(c) 1 is true but 2 is false (d) 1 is false but 2 is true
following statements :
4. A number n is said to be ‘perfect’ if the sum of all its
1. x is a composite number divisible by p.
divisors excluding n ‘itself’ is equal to n. An example of
2. x is a composite number not divisible by p, but perfect number is :
some prime greater than p may divide x. (a) 9 (b) 15
3. x is not divisible by any prime ( p − 2 ). (c) 21 (d) 6
4. All primes less than ( p − 1) divide x.
22 QUANTUM CAT
5. If 2 p + 1 is a prime number, then p must be power of 7. The total number of prime numbers between 120 and
140 is :
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 6 (a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 4
6. The number of composite numbers between 101 and 8. The unit digit of every prime number (other than 2 and
120 is : 5) must be necessarily :
(a) 11 (b) 12 (a) 1, 3 or 5 only (b) 1, 3, 7 or 9
(c) 13 (d) 14 (c) 7 or 9 only (d) 1 or 7 only

1.4 Integers
The extended set of whole numbers in which negative Properties of Integers
integers are also included is known as the set of integers and 1. Closure law is followed by all the integers
is denoted by
2. Commutative law and Associative law is not followed
Z or I = {… − 4, − 3, − 2, − 1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, ...} by all the integers for the subtraction.
(a) Positive integers : The set of integers {1, 2, 3, ...} is e.g., 4−6≠6− 4
known as positive integers. and ( 4 − 6) − 2 ≠ 4 − (6 − 2)
(b) Negative integers : The set of integers but it is valid for the addition and multiplication as
{− 1, − 2, − 3, − 4, ...} is known as negative integers.
4+6=6+ 4
(c) Non-negative integers : The set of integers or ( − 3) + ( − 2) = ( − 2) + ( − 3)
{0, 1, 2, 3, 3....} is called as non-negative integers.
and 4×6=6× 4
(d) Non-positive integers : The set of integers or −3× −2= −2× −3
{0, − 1, − 2, − 3, … } is called as non-positive integers.
and ( − 2) + [( − 3) + ( − 7)] = [( − 2) + ( − 3)] + ( − 7) etc.
˜
‘0’ is neither positive nor negative integer.
3. Additive identity of all the integers is zero (0) and
Representation of the Integers on a Multiplicative identity of all the integers is 1.
Number Line e.g., − 3 + 0 = − 3, 8 + 0 = 8
and − 5 × 1 = − 5, 7 × 1 = 7 etc.
–4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 4. Additive inverse of an integer a is − a.
All the integers (whole number, natural number etc.) can be e.g. the additive inverse of 7, 8, 9, 15, – 3, – 5, – 6
shown on this number line, where every integer is etc. are − 7, − 8, − 9, − 15, 3, 5 and 6 respectively.
represented by some point on the line.
5. Distributive law of multiplication over addition or
It can be said that : subtraction
(a) There is no any largest or smallest integer. i.e., a × ( b ± c) = a × b ± a × c
(b) Every integer has a predecessor and a successor. For example: 3 × ( 4 ± 6) = 3 × 4 ± 3 × 6
(c) An integer is smaller than all those integers which are on NOTE
the right side of it and is greater than all those integers 1. Division by zero is not defined in Mathematics.
which are on the left side of it on the number line. 2. Division by 1 is actually unification (not division) so it is an
e.g., − 4 > − 5, 3 > 1, 10 > − 4 etc. improper divisor.
or − 6 < 0, − 2 < 1 etc.
Some important rules regarding the sign
Exp. 1) Arrange the following integers in ascending convention in mathematical operations
order − 3, − 7 , 8, 5, 0, 3, 17 , − 23.
(i) ( a ) + ( b) = + ( a + b)
Solution − 23 , − 7 , − 3 , 0, 3 , 5 , 8, 17
( − a ) + ( b) = b − a
Exp. 2) Arrange the following integers in descending ( a ) + ( − b) = a − b
order − 17 , 18, 15, 32, 81, − 5, 87. ( − a ) + ( − b) = − ( a + b)
Solution 87, 81, 32, 18, 15, – 5, – 17 i.e., (+) + (+) = +
Number System 23

( −) + ( +) = + if the numerical value of + is greater Numerical Expression

( −) + ( +) = − if the numerical value of – is greater
Collection of numbers connected by one or more operations
(−) + (−) = − of addition, subtraction, multiplication and division is called
For example ( 4) + ( 7) = 11, ( − 3) + (8) = 5 a numerical expression.
( − 8) + (3) = − 5 It can also involve some brackets.
( − 5) + ( − 3) = − 8 etc. e.g., 7 + 18 ÷ 3 ÷ 1 × 6
Similarly, (5) − (2) = 3, (2) − (5) = − 3 and 84 − 6 ÷ 2 − 3 × ( − 7)
( − 5) − (2) = − 7, (5) − ( −2) = 7
and 9 + ( − 2) × {72 ÷ 8} + 21, etc.
( − 5) − ( − 2) = − 3, ( − 2) − ( − 5) = 3
(ii) a × b = ab i.e., ( +) × ( +) = + Simplification Rules
− a × b = − ab i.e., ( −) × ( +) = − The order in which various mathematical operations must be
done can be remembered with the word ‘BODMAS’
a × − b = − ab i.e., ( +) × ( −) = −
− a × − b = ab i.e., ( −) × ( −) = + Where B → Brackets
O → Off
For example, (2) × (3) = 6, ( − 2) × (3) = − 6,
2 × ( − 3) = − 6 and ( − 2) × ( − 3) = 6 D → Division
8 −8 M→ Multiplication
Similarly, = 4, = − 4,
2 2 A → Addition
8 −8 S → Subtraction
= − 4, =4
−2 −2 So first of all we solve the innermost brackets moving
(+) (−) outwards. Then we perform ‘of ’ which means multiplication
i.e., = ( +), = ( −), then, Division, Addition and Subtraction.
(+) (+) ˜
Addition and Subtraction can be done together or
(+) (−) separately as required.
= ( −), = (+)
(−) (−) ˜
Between any two brackets if there is no any sign of ‘+’
or ‘–’ it means we have to do multiplication e.g.,
Practice Exercise
( 7) (2) = 7 × 2 = 14
Evaluate the following
[3(5) + 7] = 15 + 7 = 22
1. 4 + (− 5 ) 2. − 4 − (− 2 )
Brackets : They are used for the grouping of things or
3. 8 − (− 5 ) 4. − 13 + (56 ) entities. The various kind of brackets are :
5. (− 94 ) + (− 239 ) 6. (− 526 ) − (− 217 ) (i) ‘–’ is known as line (or bar) bracket or vinculum
(ii) ( ) is known as parenthesis or common bracket
7. 7 + (− 5 ) + (− 2 ) 8. − 6 + (− 2 ) − (− 3 ) + 1
(iii) { } is known as curly bracket or brace.
9. 6 × 9 10. (− 9 ) × (− 13 ) (iv) [ ] is known as rectangular (or big) bracket.
11. − 7 × 8 12. 13 × (− 15 ) The order of eliminating brackets is :
13. (− 3 ) × (8 ) × (− 5 ) 14. (− 8 ) × (− 19 ) × (− 15 ) (i) line bracket
15. [(− 6 ) × (− 8 )] × 5 16. (− 18 ) ÷ 6 (ii) common bracket
(iii) curly bracket
17. 126 ÷ (− 14 ) 18. − 13 × (7 − 8 )
(iv) rectangular bracket
19. (− 32 ) ÷ (− 4 ) 20. (− 31) + (31)
The significance of various brackets is as follows:
Answers {} contains only the particular values that are explicitly
1. −1 2. −2 3. 13 4. 43 5. −333 mentioned.
6. −309 7. 0 8. −4 9. 54 10. 117 () contains all the values of the defined range, except the
11. −56 12. −195 13. 120 14. −2280 15. 240 extreme values of the given range.
16. −3 17. −9 18. 13 19. 8 20. 0
24 QUANTUM CAT
[] contains all the values of the defined range including Solution If she has attempted all the 80 questions correctly
both the extreme values of the given range. she must have got 320 (= 80 × 4) marks, but if she attempts one
(] contains all the values of the defined range, but does not wrong answer it means she is liable to lose 5 marks (4 + 1). Thus
include the lowest extreme value of the given range. for every wrong answer she loses 5 marks.
Now since she has lost total 80 marks ( 320 − 240 = 80).
[) contains all the values of the defined range, but does not
This implies that she has attempted 16 questions wrong
include the highest extreme value of the given range.
 80 
Q = 16 . It means she has done only 64 questions
Exp. 1) Solve the following expressions :  5 
(a) 3 + 2 − 1 × 4 ÷ 2 ( 80 − 16 = 64) correctly.
(b) 7 × 3 + 8 − 2 Hence (c) is the correct option.
(c) 53 × 2 − 1 × 6 Alternatively Since she has obtained less marks than the
(d) 12 + ( − 3) + 5 − ( − 2) maximum possible marks it means she must have attempted
Solution (a) 3 + 2 − 1 × 4 ÷ 2 = 3 + 2 − 1 × 2 = 3 + 2 − 2 = 3 some questions incorrectly.
(b) 7 × 3 + 8 − 2 = 21 + 8 − 2 = 27 Now, we can check through options. Let us consider option (c).
(c) 53 × 2 − 1 × 6 = 106 − 6 = 100 Correct answer Wrong answers Total questions
(d) 12 + ( − 3) + 5 − ( −2) = 12 − 3 + 5 + 2 = 9 + 7 = 16 64 16 80
Exp. 2) Evaluate or simplify the following expression Marks for correct Marks for wrong Net marks
(a) 9 − {7 − 24 ÷ ( 8 + 6 × 2 − 16)} answers answers
(b) ( − 3) × ( − 12) ÷ ( − 4) + 3 × 6 64 × 4 = 256 16 × − 1 = − 16 256 − 16 = 240
(c) 17 − {8÷ ( 2 × 3 − 4)} Hence the assumed option (c) is correct.
(d) 5 × 2 − [ 3 − {5 − (7 + 2 of 4 − 19)}] Alternatively If she has attempted x question correctly it
Solution (a) 9 − {7 − 24 ÷ ( 8 + 6 × 2 − 16)} means she has attempted (80 − x) questions incorrectly.
= 9 − {7 − 24 ÷ ( 8 + 12 − 16)} = 9 − {7 − 24 ÷ 4} So 4 × ( x) − 1 × ( 80 − x) = 240
= 9 − {7 − 6} = 9 − {1} = 8 ⇒ 5 x − 80 = 240
(b) ( − 3) × ( − 12) ÷ ( − 4) + 3 × 6 = 36 ÷ ( − 4) + 18 ⇒ 5 x = 320
= − 9 + 18 = 9 ⇒ x = 64
(c) 17 − {8 ÷ ( 2 × 3 − 4)} = 17 − {8 ÷ ( 6 − 4)} Hence she has attempted 64 answers correctly.
= 17 − {8 ÷ 2} = 17 − {4} = 13
(d) 5 × 2 − [ 3 − {5 − (7 + 2 of 4 − 19)}]
Absolute value of an integer
= 5 × 2 − [ 3 − {5 − (7 + 8 − 19)}] or Modulus
= 10 − [ 3 − {5 − ( − 4)}] = 10 − [ 3 − {9}] The absolute value of an integer is its numerical value
= 10 − [− 6] = 10 + 6 = 16 irrespective of its sign (or nature). The absolute value of an
Exp. 3) Which one of the following options is correct for integer x is written as x and is defined as
each of the given expressions?  x if x ≥ 0
x =
(i) 45 − [28 − { 37 − (15 − k)}] = 58, the value of k is : − x if x < 0
(a) 19 (b) – 19
(c) – 39 (d) none of these Modulus (Machine Model)
(ii) 1 + [1 ÷ {5 ÷ 4 − 1 ÷ (13 ÷ 3 − 1 ÷ 3)}] is equal to :
(a) 2/5 (b) 2
+x + + +x
(c) 3/2 (d) none of these
INPUT OUTPUT
(iii) 2 − [ 3 − {6 − (5 ÷ 4 − 3)}] is equal to : –x +x
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) – 3 (d) none of these

Ans. (i) (a), (ii) (b), (iii) (a)

It means any integer whether it is positive or negative if it is
operated upon modulus, it always gives a positive integer.
Exp. 4) A student gets 4 marks for a correct answer and 1 for example − 7 = 7, − 4 = 4, 3 = 3etc.
mark is deducted for a wrong answer. If she has attempted
Also, Max {x, − x} = x
80 questions at all and she has got only 240 marks, the
number of correct answers she has attempted is. and –Min {x, − x} = x
(a) 40 (b) 60 and ( x ) 2 = | x|
(c) 64 (d) can’t be determined
Number System 25

Properties of a Modulus or Mod Solution Q 2a − 9 = b + a8

⇒ 2a − a = b + 9
1. a = − a 2. ab = a b ⇒ a=b+9
a a ⇒ a − b = 9 or b − a = − 9
3. = 4. a + b ≤ a + b
b b Hence a−b + b−a = 9 + −9
(The sign of equality holds only when the sign of a = 9 + 9 = 18
and b are same) Thus (a) is the correct option.
5. If a ≤ k ⇒ − k ≤ a ≤ k Exp. 5) The value of x for which the value of 3x + 15 is
6. If a − b ≤ k ⇒ −k ≤ a − b ≤ k minimum :
⇒b−k ≤a ≤b+k (a) 3 (b) 5
(c) – 5 (d) none of the above
Exp. 1) Solution set of the equation x − 2 = 5 is : Solution The minimum value of 3 x + 15 = 0
(a) { 3 , − 7} (b) {− 3 , 7}
⇒ 3 x + 15 = 0 ⇒ x = − 5
(c) { 3 , 6 } (d) none of these
Hence (c) is correct option.
Solution x − 2 =5 ⇒x − 2 =5
Greatest Integer Less Than Or Equal
or x − 2= −5
⇒ x = 7 or x = − 3
To A Number
Hence x = {− 3 , 7}, (b) is the correct option. This number is represented as N. The resultant number is
always an integral number.
Exp. 2) The maximum value of the expression 27 − 9 x − 8 1. when the given number is not an integer, the resultant
is number is the greatest integer less than the given number.
(a) 27 (b) 17
For example, 31 .  = 3, 25
.  = 2, 199
.  = 1, 0.75 = 0,
(c) 44 (d) 26
Solution The maximum value of the expression 27 − 9x − 8 –0.45 = − 1, –145
.  = −2, etc.
will be maximum only when the value of 9x − 8 is minimum, 2. When the given number is integer, the resultant number
but the minimum possible value of any k is zero. Hence the is the same as the given Number.
maximum value of 27 − 9x − 8 = 27 − ( 0) = 27 For example, 3 = 3, 2 = 2, 0 = 0,
Hence option (a) is correct.
−1 = − 1, −2 = −2, etc
Exp. 3) The minimum value of the expression 17 x − 8 − 9
is Least Integer Greater Than Or Equal
(a) 0 (b) – 9 To Number
8
(c) (d) none of the above This number is represented as N . The resultant number is
17
always an integral number.
Solution The minimum value of expression 17 x − 8 − 9 is
minimum only when 17 x − 8 is minimum. But the minimum
1. When the given number is not a integer, the resultant
value of k is zero.
number is the least integer less than the given number.
Hence minimum value of 17 x − 8 − 9 = 0 − 9 = − 9
For example, 31 .  = 4, 25.  = 3, 199
.  = 2, 0.75 = 1,
– 0.45 = 0, –145
.  = − 1, etc.
Exp. 4) If 2a − 9 = b + a, then the value of
2. When the given number is integer, the resultant number
( a − b + b − a ) is :
is the same as the given Number. For example,
(a) 18 (b) 11
(c) 1 (d) 0 3 = 3, 2 = 2, 0 = 0, −1 = −1, −2 = −2, etc.
26 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 1.4
3  −2 3 8. Which of the following relations is NOT always true?
1. × +  is equal to :
4  3 5 (a) p + q ≤ p + q
−3 −19
(a) (b) (b) p − q ≤ p − q
20 20
−1 1 (c) p − q > 0 , if p2 − q2 > 0
(c) (d) 2
20 20 (d) p − q = ( p − q)2
9
2. The value of 4 × 100 + 3 × 10 + is : 9. The total number of integral values of x for which
1000 x − 2 − 4 − 6 < 10
(a) 430.09 (b) 430.0009
(c) 430.009 (d) 430.900 (a) 39 (b) 42
(c) 43 (d) 38
3. If x and y are positive real numbers, then :
10. If x satisfies| x − 1| + | x − 2| + | x − 3| ≥ 6, then :
(a) x > y ⇒ − x > − y (b) x > y ⇒ − x < − y
1 1 −1 −1 (a) 0≤x≤4
(c) x > y ⇒ > (d) x > y ⇒ <
x y x y (b) x ≤ 0 or x ≥ 4
4. If x < 0 < y, then : (c) x ≤ − 2 or x ≥ 4
1 1 1 1 1 1 (d) x ≥ − 2 or x ≤ 4
(a) 2 < < 2 (b) > > 2
x xy y x 2
xy y 11. For the positive integers a b, c, d find the minimum
1 1 1 value of (−1)a + (−1)b + (−1)c + (−1)d , If
(c) < (d) > 1 a + b + c + d = 1947.
x y x
(a) −1 (b) −2
5. On the set of integers I, if a binary operation ‘o’ be (c) −3 (d) −4
defined as aob = a − b for every a , b ∈ I , then :
(a) association law holds Directions (for Q. Nos. 12 and 13) In a test, conducted by
(b) commutative law holds
Lamamia, a student attempted n problems out of total 30
(c) I is not closed under this operation
problems and she scored net 17 marks. In this test each
correct response awards 3 marks and each wrong response
(d) I is closed under this operation
penalizes the test taker by deducting 1 mark from the
6. If| x − 2| < 3 then : total score.
(a) 1 < x < 5 12. At most how many problems are attempted by the
(b) −1 < x < 2 student?
(c) −1 < x < 5 (a) 7
(d) 0 < x < 6 (b) 10
7. How many of the following relations is/are always true (c) 17
for any real values of p and q? (d) none of the above
(i) p + q = p + q (ii) p − q = p − q 13. If there are total m students who took the same test in
p p which all the students scored net 17 marks and none
(iii) = (iv) pq = p q of these students attempted same number of
q q problems, what is the maximum value of m?
q
(v) pq = p (vi) q p = q
p (a) 17 (b) 10
(c) 7
(a) None (b) one
(d) none of the above
(c) two (d) three
Number System 27

1.5 Factors and Multiples For example :

(i) 72 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 2 72
Product 2 36
When two or more number are multiplied together then the 2 18
resultant value is called the product of these numbers. 3 9
For example 3 3
3 × 4 = 12, 2 × 7 × 5 = 70, 3 × 5 × 11 = 165 1
where 12, 70 and 165 are called the products. (ii) 420 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 2 420
2 210
But we see that 12 = 4 × 3 it means 4 and 3 are the factors of
3 105
12.
5 35
and 70 = 2 × 5 × 7
7 7
where 2, 5, 7 are known as factors of 70. 1
Again 12 is called as the multiple of 3 or multiple of 4. (iii) 3432 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 11 × 13 2 3432
Similarly 70 is called as the multiple of 2 or 5 or 7 or 10 or 35 2 1716
or 14. 2 858
Thus a number which divides a given number exactly is 3 429
called factor (or divisor) of that given number and the given 11 143
number is called a multiple of that number.
13 13
Now, 15 is exactly divisible by 1, 3, 5, 15 so 1, 3, 5, 15 are 1
called as the factors of 15 while 15 is called as the multiple of
these factors. Where 1, 15 are improper factors and 3, 5 are Practice Exercise
called proper factors of 15. Direction (for Q. Nos 1-6) factorize the following numbers into
Therefore 1 and itself (the number) are called the the prime factors.
improper factors of the given number. 1. 210 2. 120 3. 3315
So the factors of 24 = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24 4. 3465 5. 1197 6. 157573
7. Find the least number by which 22932 must be
Factors of 35 = 1, 5, 7, 35
multiplied or divided so as to make it a perfect square:
Factors of 36 = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36 (a) 10 (b) 4
Similarly the multiples of 2 are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, ... (c) 11 (d) 13
multiples of 7 are 7, 14, 21, 28, 35, 42, 49.... 8. How many natural numbers upto 150 are divisible by
7?
multiples of 10 are 10, 20, 30, 40, 50... (a) 21 (b) 14
˜
1 is a factor of every number. (c) 22 (d) 17
˜
Every number is a factor of itself. 9. How many numbers between 333 and 666 are
˜
Every number, except 1 has atleast two factors viz., 1 divisible by 5?
(a) 67 (b) 70
and itself.
(c) 75 (d) 55
˜
Every factor of a number is less than or equal to that
10. How many numbers between 11 and 111 are the
number. multiples of both 2 and 5?
˜
Every multiple of a number is greater than or equal to (a) 10 (b) 12
itself. (c) 11 (d) 70
˜
Every number has infinite number of its multiples.
Answers & Solutions
˜
Every number is a multiple of itself. 1. 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 2. 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
Prime Factorisation 3. 3 × 5 × 13 × 17 4. 3 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 11
5. 3 × 3 × 7 × 19 6. 13 × 17 × 23 × 31
If a natural number is expressed as the product of prime
numbers (factors) then the factorisation of the number is 7. 22932 = 2 × 3 × 7 × 13. Therefore in order to
2 2 2

make 22932 a perfect square you can either

called its prime factorisation.
divide or multiply by 13.
28 QUANTUM CAT
8. 7, 14, 21, 28, 35, ...,140, 147.
7 (1, 2, 3, ...20, 21)
Number of All the Factors of a
Therefore we have 21 natural numbers between 1 Composite Number
and 150 which are divisible by 7.
Number of Factors (or Divisors) of A Given
9. 335, 340,....., 660, 665
5(67, 68,... , 132, 133) Number (composite number)
Therefore the required numbers = 133 – 66 = 67. Let us assume a composite number say 24 then find the no. of
10. 20, 30, 100, 110. factors. 24 = 1 × 24
10(2, 3, , 11) 2 × 12
Therefore the required number = 11 − 1 = 10 3×8
4×6
Number of Prime Factors of a We see that there are total 8 factors namely,
Composite Number 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12 and 24. But for the larger numbers it
Let us assume a' composite number say 24, then find the becomes difficult to find the total number of factors. So we
number of prime factors of 24. use the following formula which can be derived with the help
24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 = 2 3 × 31 of theory of permutation and combination. Let there be a
composite number N and its prime factors be a, b, c, d, ...etc.
We can see that there are two unique prime factors 2 and 3,
and p, q, r, s, ... etc, be the indices (or powers) of the
however, the power of 2 is 3 and the power of 3 is 1, so the
a, b, c, d, ...etc, respectively. That is if N can be expressed as
total number of prime factors is 4( = 3 + 1).
N = a p . b q . c r . d s ..., then the number of total divisors or
Let there be a composite number N and its prime factors be a,
factors of N is ( p + 1) ( q + 1) ( r + 1) ( s + 1)...
b, c, d, ... etc. and p,q,r,s, ... be the indices (or powers) of
a,b.c,d, ... then the number of total prime factors (or divisors) Exp. 1) Find the total number of factors of 24.
of N Solution 24 = 23 × 31 [Q 24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3]
= p + q + r + s +... ∴ Number of factors = ( 3 + 1) (1 + 1) = 8
Exp. 1) Find the number of unique Prime factors of 210. Exp. 2) Find the total number of factors of 540.
Solution 210 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 (a) 24 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) none
Therefore 210 has 4 unique prime factors, namely, 2, 3, 5 and 7. Solution 540 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 5 or 540 = 2 × 3 3 × 51
2

Therefore total number of factors of 540 is

Exp. 2) Find the total number of Prime factors of 210
( 2 + 1) ( 3 + 1) (1 + 1) = 24
Solution 210 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 21 × 31 × 51 × 71
Exp. 3) The total number of divisors of 10500 except 1
Therefore the total number of prime factors of
and itself is :
210 = 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4
(a) 48 (b) 50 (c) 46 (d) 56
Exp. 3) Find the number of unique Prime factors of 120. Solution 10500 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 7

Solution 120 = 2x2x2x3x5 = 2 × 3 × 5

3 1 1 10500 = 22 × 31 × 5 3 × 71
Therefore 120 has 3 unique prime factors, namely 2, 3 and 5. ∴ Total number of divisors of 10500 is
( 2 + 1) (1 + 1) ( 3 + 1) (1 + 1) = 48
Exp. 4) Find the total number of Prime factors of 120 But we have to exclude 1 and 10500
Solution 120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 = 23 × 31 × 51 So there are only 48 − 2 = 46 factors of 10500 except 1 and 10500.
Therefore the total number of prime factors of Hence, (c) is the correct option.
120 = 3 + 1 + 1 = 5 Exp. 4) Total number of factors of 36 is :
Exp. 5) Find the number of unique Prime factors of 600. (a) 4 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) none
Solution 36 = 22 × 3 2
Solution 600 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 5 = 2 × 3 × 5
3 1 2

Therefore 600 has 3 unique prime factors, namely, 2, 3 and 5. ∴ Number of factors = ( 2 + 1) ( 2 + 1) = 3 × 3 = 9
Hence (b) is the correct option.
Exp. 6) Find the total number of Prime factors of 600 NOTE A perfect square number always contains odd no.
Solution 600 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 5 = 23 × 31 × 5 2 of factors.
Therefore the total number of prime factors of 600 = 3 + 1 + 2 = 6
Number System 29

Practice Exercise Exp. 3) The number of odd factors of 90 is ....

Find the number of factors of the following numbers : Solution Q 90 = 21 × 3 2 × 51
1. 1008 2. 101 3. 111 4. 7056 5. 18522 ∴ Total number of odd factors of
6. 7744 7. 3875 8. 1458 9. 1339 10. 512 90 = ( 2 + 1) (1 + 1)
Answers =6
1. 30 2. 2 3. 4 4. 45 5. 32
6. 21 7. 8 8. 14 9. 4 10. 10 Number of Even Factors of a
Composite Number
Number of Odd Factors of a Number of even factors of a number
Composite Number = (Total number of factors of the given number
Let us assume as small number, e.g. 24, which can be – Total number of odd factors)
expressed as 24 = 2 3 × 31 Thus in the above
Now, we have 24 = (1 × 24) = (2 × 12) = (3 × 8) Example (1), number of even factors = 8 − 2 = 6
Now, we can see that there are total 2 odd factors, namely, 1 Example (2), number of even factors = 9 − 3 = 6
and 3. Example (3), number of even factors = 12 − 6 = 6
Further, assume another number, say, 36 which can be
expressed as 36 = 2 2 × 3 2 Sum of Factors of a Composite
Now, we have 36 = (1 × 36) = (2 × 18) = (3 × 12) Number
= ( 4 × 9) = (6 × 6) Once again if you want to find the sum of a small composite
number, then you can do it manually, but for larger number it
So, we can see that there are only 3 odd factors, namely, 1, 3 is a problem.
and 9.
e.g., Sum of factors of 24 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 12 + 24 = 60
Once again we assume another number, say, 90, which can
Let N be the composite number and a, b, c, d.. be its prime
be expressed as 90 = 2 × 3 2 × 5. factors and p, q, r, s be the indices (or powers) of a, b, c, d.
Now, we have 90 = (1 × 90) = (2 × 45) = (3 × 30) That is if N can be expressed as
= (5 × 18) = (6 × 15) = (9 × 10) N = a p . b q . c r . d s ...
Thus, there are only 6 odd factors, namely, 1, 3, 5, 9, 15, 45. then the sum of all the divisors (or factors) of N
To get the number of odd factors of a number N first of all ( a p + 1 − 1) ( b q + 1 − 1) ( c r + 1 − 1) ( d s + 1 − 1)
= K
express the number N as N = ( p1 a × p2 b × p3 c × ... ) × ( e x ) ( a − 1) ( b − 1) ( c − 1) ( d −1)
(where, p1 , p2 , p3 , ... are the odd prime Exp. 1) Find the sum of factors of 24.
factors and e is the even prime factor.)
Solution Q 24 = 23 × 31
Then the total number of odd factors
( 24 − 1) ( 3 2 − 1)
= ( a + 1) ( b + 1) ( c + 1)... ∴ Sum of factors of 24 =
( 2 − 1) ( 3 − 1)
Exp. 1) The number of odd factors (or divisors) of 24 is: 15 × 8
= = 60
1×2
Solution Q 24 = 23 × 31
Here 3 is the odd prime factor Exp. 2) Find the sum of factors of 270.
So, total number of odd factors = (1 + 1) = 2
Solution Q 270 = 21 × 3 3 × 51
Exp. 2) The number of odd factors of 36 is : ( 21 + 1 − 1) ( 3 3 + 1 − 1) (51 + 1 − 1)
∴ Sum of factors of 270 =
Solution Q 36 = 22 × 3 2 ( 2 − 1) ( 3 − 1) (5 − 1)
3 × 80 × 24
∴ Number of odd factors = ( 2 + 1) = 3 = = 720
1×2×4
30 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 3) The sum of factors of 1520 except the unity is : NOTE As we know the number of divisors of any perfect number
is an odd number so we can express the given number in the form of
(a) 3720 (b) 2730 1
(c) 2370 (d) none of these of the perfect square to eliminate the from the power of the
2
Solution Since 1520 = 24 × 51 × 191 number as it can be seen in the above example no. 1.
( 25 − 1) (5 2 − 1) (192 − 1) Number of Ways of Expressing a Composite
∴ Sum of all the factors of 1520 =
( 2 − 1) (5 − 1) ) (19 − 1) Number as a Product of two Factors
31 × 24 × 360
= = 3720 It has long been discussed in the previous examples of
1 × 4 × 18 composite numbers but you might have not noticed it.
But since unity is to be excluded. Let us consider an example of small composite number say, 24
∴ The net sum of the factors = 3719 Then 24 = 1 × 24
∴ (d) is the correct option.
= 2 × 12
Exp. 4) The sum of factors of 19600 is : =3×8
(a) 54777 (b) 33667 = 4×6
(c) 5428 (d) none of these So it is clear that the number of ways of expressing a
Solution 19600 = 24 × 5 2 × 7 2 composite no. as a product of two factors
( 24 + 1 − 1) (5 2 + 1 − 1) (7 2 + 1 − 1) 1
= × the no. of total factors
∴ Sum of factors of 19600 =
( 2 − 1) (5 − 1) (7 − 1) 2
31 × 124 × 342
= = 54777 Exp. 1) Find the number of ways of expressing 180 as a
1×4×6
product of two factors.
Hence (a) is the correct option.
Solution 180 = 22 × 3 2 × 51
Product of Factors of a Composite Number of factors = ( 2 + 1) ( 2 + 1) (1 + 1)
= 18
number
18
Let us assume a very small number 24 and see the factors Hence, there are total = 9 ways in which 180 can be expressed
2
24 = 1 × 24 = 2 × 12 = 3 × 8 = 4 × 6 as a product of two factors.
Now, it is obvious from the above explanation that the NOTE As you know when you express any perfect square number
product of factors of 24 ‘N’ as a product of two factors namely N and N , and you also know
= (1 × 24) × (2 × 12) × (3 × 8) × ( 4 × 6) that since in this case N appears two times but it is considered only
= 24 × 24 × 24 × 24 = (24) 4 once while calculating the no.of factors so we get always an odd
number as number of factors so we can not divide the odd number
Thus, the product of factors of composite number N = N n / 2 , exactly by 2 as in the above formula. So if we have to consider these
where n is the total number of factors of N . two same factors then we find the number of ways of expressingN as
(Number of factors + 1)
a product of two factors = .
Exp. 1) Product of divisors of 7056 is : 2
(a) ( 84) 48 (b) ( 84) 44 Again if it is asked that find the no. of ways of expressing N as a
(c) ( 84) 45 (d) none of these product of Two distinct factors then we do not consider 1 way (i.e.,
(Number of factors − 1)
Solution Q 7056 = 2 × 3 × 7 2
4 2 N = N × N ) then no. of ways = .
2
∴ Number of factors/divisors of 7056 = ( 4 + 1) ( 2 + 1) ( 2 + 1) = 45
∴ Product of factors = (7056) 45 / 2 = ( 84) 45 Exp. 2) Find the number of ways expressing 36 as a
product of two factors.
Hence (c) is the correct option.
Solution 36 = 22 × 3 2
Exp. 2) Product of factors of 360 is : Number of factors
(a) (360 )12 (b) (36 )120 = ( 2 + 1) ( 2 + 1) = 9
(c) (360 )22 (d) 624 × 1010 Hence the no. of ways of expressing 36 as a product of two
Solution Q 360 = 23 × 3 2 × 51 ( 9 + 1)
factors = = 5.
∴ Number of factors of 360 = ( 3 + 1)( 2 + 1) (1 + 1) = 24 2
Thus the product of factors = ( 360) 24 / 2 = ( 360)12 as 36 = (1 × 36) = ( 2 × 18) = ( 3 × 12) = ( 4 × 9) = ( 6 × 6)

Hence (a) is the correct option.

Number System 31

Exp. 3) In how many ways can 576 be expressed as the Therefore 2310 can be expressed as a product of 3 factors in
product of two distinct factors? 3 n−1 + 1 3 4 + 1
= = 41 ways
Solution Q 576 = 26 × 3 2 2 2

∴ Total number of factors When The other The number The The
= ( 6 + 1) ( 2 + 1) = 21 the third two factors of ways of number of number of
factor is have prime expressing ways of ways of
So the number of ways of expressing 576 as a product of two numbers the other expressing expressing
distinct factors prime 2310 as a 2310 as a
( 21 − 1) numbers into product of product of
= = 10
2 two factors 3 factors 3 Distinct
NOTE Since the word ‘distinct’ has been used therefore we do factors
not include 26 two times. 1 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 16 16 16 − 1 = 15

Number of Ways of Expressing a Composite 2 3, 5, 7, 11 8 8 8 −1 = 7

Number as a Product of Three Factors 3 2, 5, 7, 11 8 8 8−2= 6

5 2, 3, 7, 11 8 8 8−3= 5
Exp. 1) Find the number of ways of expressing 2310 as
product of 3 distinct factors. 7 2, 3, 5, 11 8 8 8−4 = 4
Solution a × b × c = 2310 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 11
1 1 1 1 1 11 2, 3, 5, 7 8 8 8−5= 3
There are total 5 prime numbers. Since we know that 1 can also
be a factor of 2310, so we have to consider 3 different cases. Number of Co-Primes of A Composite
Case I When out of three factors two factors are 1 and 1. That is Number N
1 × 1 × 2310 For a composite number N = a p × b q × c r .., the number
Thus we can express 2310 as a product of 3 factors in 1 way. of co-primes of N is given by
Case II When out of three factors one factor is 1. That is
 1   1   1
(1 × 2 × 1150), (1 × 3 × 770),...(1 × 15 × 77). ϕ ( N ) = N 1 −  1 −  1 −  ....,
 a   b  c
There are two possibilities to group the prime numbers:
(1 × p × pppp) or (1 × pp × pp) where a, b, c are prime numbers.
This can be done in 5 C1 + 5C 2 = 10 + 15 = 15 ways.
Exp. 1) Find the number of co-prime numbers of 10.
Case III When none of the three factors is 1. That is
( 2 × 3 × 385),( 2 × 5 × 231),...( 2 × 15 × 77) Solution 10 = 2 × 5 Number of co-prime numbers of 10 is given
 1  1
There are two possibilities to group the prime numbers: by ϕ (10) = 1 −  1 −  = 4. These numbers are 1, 3, 7, 9.
 2  5 
( p × pp × pp) or ( ppp × p × p). This can be done in
 4 C × 2 C 2  5  2 C1 ×1 C1  Exp. 2) Find the number of co-prime numbers of 336.
5
C1  2  + C3   = 15 + 10 = 25 ways.
 2   2  Solution 10 = 24 × 3 × 7 Number of co-prime numbers of 336 is
Therefore the number of ways of expressing 2310 as a product of  1  1   1
given by ϕ ( 336) = 3361 −  1 −  1 −  = 96
3 factors  2  3  7
= 1 + 15 + 25 = 41
Exp. 3) Find the number of co-prime numbers of 49,
NOTE Refer the Permutation and Combination chapter to which are composite numbers.
understand this topic better.
Solution 49 = 7 2 Number of co-prime numbers of 49 is given by
Alternatively If a number can be expressed as a product of n
ϕ ( 49) = (1 − 1 / 7) = 42
distinct prime numbers, it can be expressed as a product of 3
These numbers are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 15, 16, 17,
3 n−1 + 1
numbers in ways. 18, 19, 20, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 36, 37, 38,
2
39, 40, 41, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48.Since, there are 15 numbers, 1, 2,
Now 2310 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 11 .That is 2310 can be expressed as a 3, 5, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47 which are not the
product of 5 distinct prime numbers. composite numbers, so the required number = 42 − 15 = 27.
32 QUANTUM CAT
Sum of All The Co-Primes of a Composite The required sum
Number N = 1029 − (1 + 2 + 3 + 5 + 11 + 13 + 17 +
19 + 23 + 29 + 31 + 37 + 41 + 43 + 47)
For a composite number N = a p × b q × c r ...., the sum of = 707.
all the co-primes of N is given by
N N   1   1   1  Number of Ways of Expressing a Composite
[ϕ ( N )] =  N 1 −  1 −  1 −  ..., Number As A Product of Co-Prime Factors
2 2   a   b  c 
For a composite number N, the number of ways of expressing
where a.b.c are prime numbers.
a composite number as product of co-prime factors is 2 n −1 ,
Exp. 1) Find the sum of all the co-prime numbers of 10. where n is the number of unique prime factors of N.
Solution 10 = 2 × 5 Exp. 1) Find the number of ways of expressing 10 as a
Sum of all the co-prime numbers of 10 is given by product of co-prime factors.
10 10  1   1  Solution 10 = 2 × 5
[ϕ(10)] = 1 −  1 −  = 20
2 2 2  5  The required number of ways = 2(2 −1 ) = 2
The required sum is 1 + 3 + 7 + 9 = 20 (1 × 10), ( 2 × 5) are two different ways in which 10 can be
expressed as a product of co-prime factors.
Exp. 2) Find the sum of all the co-prime numbers of 336.
Exp. 2) Find the number of ways of expressing 336 as a
Solution 336 = 24 × 3 × 7
product of co-prime factors.
Sum of all the co-prime numbers of 336 is given by
Solution 336 = 24 × 3 × 7
336 336   1  1   1 
[ϕ( 336)] = 3361 −  1 −  1 −   = 16128 The required number of ways = 2(3 −1 ) = 4
2 2   2  3  7 
(1 × 336), (16 × 21), ( 48 × 7), (112 × 3) are four different ways of
Exp. 3) Find the sum of all the co-prime numbers of 49, expressing 336 as a product of co-prime factors.
which are composite number. Exp. 3) Find the number of ways of expressing 49 as a
Solution 49 = 7 2 product of co-prime factors.
Sum of all the co-prime numbers of 49 is given by Solution 49 = 7 2
49 49   1   The required number of ways = 2(1 −1 ) = 1,
[ϕ( 49)] = 491 −  = 1029
2 2   7   (1 × 49) is the only way to express 49 as a product of co-prime
factors.

Introductory Exercise 1.5

1. The number of prime factors in the expression 7. In a set of first 350 natural numbers find the number
6 4 × 8 6 × 10 8 × 1210 is : of integers, which are not divisible by 5.
(a) 48 (b) 64 (c) 72 (d) 80 (a) 280 (b) 75 (c) 150 (d) 240
2. A number is expressed as 2 m × 3 n and the sum of all its 8. In a set of first 350 natural numbers find the number
factors is 124, find m and n . of integers, which are not divisible by 7.
(a) 2, 3 (b) 3, 1 (c) 4, 1 (d) 3, 2 (a) 120 (b) 280 (c) 300 (d) 240
3. The sum of all possible factors of 500 (including 1 and 9. In a set of first 350 natural numbers find the number
500 themselves) equals : of integers, which are not divisible by any of the
(a) 784 (b) 980 (c) 1092 (d) 1350 numbers 5 or 7.
4. The perimeter of a rectangle is 72 cm. If the sides are (a) 240 (b) 120
positive integers, maximum how many distinct areas (c) 150 (d) 300
can it have? 10. In a set of first 420 natural numbers find the number
(a) 18 (b) 9 (c) 36 (d) 35 of integers that are divisible by 7 but not by any of 2, 3
5. The area of a rectangle is 72 sq cm. If the sides are or 5.
positive integers, maximum how many distinct (a) 16 (b) 24
perimeters can it have? (c) 96 (d) 42
(a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 6 11. In a set of first 210 natural numbers find the number of
6. Among the first 100 even natural numbers how many integers which are not divisible by any of 2, 3, 4, ..., 10.
numbers have even number of factors? (a) 42 (b) 52
(a) 37 (b) 50 (c) 73 (d) 93 (c) 48 (d) 63
Number System 33

12. In a set of first 61 natural numbers find the number of 14. In a set of first 180 natural numbers find the number
integers, which are divisible by neither 2 nor 3 nor 5. of integers, which are divisible by neither 2 nor 3 nor 5
(a) 0 nor 7.
(b) 1 (a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 41 (d) 51
(c) 16 15. In a set of first 180 natural numbers find the number
(d) 17 of prime numbers.
13. In a set of first 123 natural numbers find the number (a) 48 (b) 24 (c) 41 (d) 38
of integers, which are divisible by either 2 or 3 or 5. 16. In a set of first 1000 natural numbers find the number
(a) 90 (b) 31 of prime numbers.
(c) 33 (d) 11 (a) 181 (b) 168 (c) 200 (d) 224

1.6 HCF and LCM

In the previous articles I have discussed in detail about the (i) Factor Method
factors. Now I will move towards common factor, Highest In this method first we break (or resolve) the numbers into
common factors (HCF) and least common multiple (LCM). prime factors then take the product of all the common
factors. This resultant product is known as the HCF of the
Common Factors given numbers.
When any factor which is the factor of two or more given
numbers then it is said that this particular factor is common. Exp. 1) Find the HCF of 1680 and 3600.
For example 6=2×3 Solution Q 1680 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7
15 = 3 × 5 3600 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 3 × 5
We see that 3 is a common factor in both 6 and 15. So the product of common factors = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 = 240
Similarly, 6=2×3 Hence, the HCF of 1680 and 3600 is 240.
8=2×2×2
Exp. 2) Find the HCF of 750, 6300, 18900.
30 = 2 × 3 × 5
Solution 750 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 5
So, we can see that only 2 is common in all the three numbers
6, 8 and 30. 6300 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 3 × 2 × 7
No other factor is common in all the three numbers. 18900 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 3 × 2 × 3 × 7
So the product of common factors = 2 × 3 × 5 × 5 = 150
Highest Common Factor (HCF) or Hence 150 is the HCF of 750, 6300, 18900.
Greatest Common Divisor (GCD) (ii)HCF by Division Method
HCF of two or more than two numbers is the greatest Consider two smallest numbers, then divide the larger one of
possible number that can divide all these numbers exactly, them by the smaller one and then divide this divisor by the
without leaving any remainder. For example, find the HCF remainder and again divide this remainder by the next
of 84 and 126. remainder and so on until the remainder is zero. If there are
Q 84 = 2 × 3 × 7 × 2 = 42 × 2 more than two numbers of which HCF is to be found, we
126 = 2 × 3 × 7 × 3 = 42 × 3 continue this process as we divide the third lowest number by
the last divisor obtained in the above process.
So, the HCF of 84 and 126 = 2 × 3 × 7 = 42
Thus we can see that 42 is the greatest common divisor since Exp. 1) Find the HCF of 120 and 180.
it can divide exactly both 84 and 126. Solution 120 180 1
120
Basically there are two methods of finding the HCF. 60 120 2
(i) Factor Method 120
×
(ii) Division Method Hence, 60 is the HCF of 120 and 180.
34 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 2) Find the HCF of 420 and 1782. So we factorize 63 and then divide 42 and 105 by the factor of 63.
The greatest factor of 63 which can divide 42 and 105 that will be
Solution 420 1782 4
1680 the HCF of the given numbers.
102 420 4 So 63 = 1 × 63 , 3 × 21, 7 × 9
408 ∴ The factor of 63 are 1, 3, 7, 9, 21 and 63.
12 102 8
96 Obviously we divide 42 and 105 by 21 (since the division by 63 is
6 12 2 not possible) and we see that the given numbers are divisible by
12 21, hence 21 is the HCF of 42 and 105.
×
Hence 6 is the HCF of 420 and 1782. Exp. 3) Find the HCF of 30, 42 and 135.
Solution The difference between 30 and 42 = 12
Exp. 3) Find the HCF of 210, 495 and 980.
The difference between 42 and 135 = 93
Solution First we consider the two smallest numbers i.e., 210 Now divide, 30, 42 and 135 by 12 but it can not divide all the
and 495.
numbers. So take the factors of 12.
210 495 2 The factors of 12 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12
420
75 210 2 Now we divide 30, 42 and 135 by 6 but it can not divide all these
150 numbers.
60 75 1 So we divide now 30, 42 and 135 by 4, but 4 too can not divide all
60
the numbers, Now we divide the given numbers by 3 and we
15 60 4
60 will find that all the numbers are divisible by 3 hence 3 is the
× HCF of the given numbers.
15 980 65
975 HCF with Remainders
5 15 3 Case 1. Find the greatest possible number with which when
15
× we divide 37 and 58, it leaves the respective remainder
of 2 and 3.
Hence the HCF is 5.
Solution Since when we divide 37 and 58 by the same number
Euclidean Algorithm
then we get remainders 2 and 3 respectively.
If you watch carefully the above discussion you will find that So ( 37 − 2) and (58 − 3) must be divisible, hence leaving the
the HCF is the factor of difference of the given numbers. So remainders zero. It means 35 and 55 both are divisible by that
there is short cut for you to find the HCF. number so the HCF of 35 and 55 is 5.
You can divide the given numbers by their lowest possible Hence the greatest possible number is 5.
difference if these numbers are divisible by this difference
Case 2. Find the largest possible number with which when
then this difference itself is the HCF of the given numbers. If
60 and 98 are divided it leaves the remainders 3 in each
this difference is not the HCF then any factor of this
case.
difference must be the HCF of the given numbers.
Solution Since 60 and 98 both leave the remainders 3 when
Be‘zout’s Identity divided by such a number.
If ‘H’ be the HCF of any two positive integers a and b then Therefore 57 = ( 60 − 3) and 95 = ( 98 − 3) will be divisible by the
there exists unique integers p and q such that H = ap + bq. same number without leaving any remainder. That means the
HCF of 57 and 95 is 19.
Exp. 1) Find the HCF of 63 and 84.
Hence 19 is the highest possible number.
Solution The difference = 84 − 63 = 21
Case 3. Find the largest possible number with which when 38,
Now divide 63 and 84 by 21, since the given numbers 63 and 84 66 and 80 are divided the remainder remains the same.
are divisible by their difference 21, thus 21 itself is the HCF of 63
Solution In this case (since we do not know the value of
and 84.
remainder) we take the HCF of the differences of the given
Exp. 2) Find the HCF of 42 and 105. numbers.
So the HCF of ( 66 − 38), ( 80 − 66), ( 80 − 38) = HCF of 28, 14, 42
Solution The difference = 105 − 42 = 63
= 14. Hence 14 is the largest possible number which leaves same
Now divide 42 and 105 by 63 but none of these is divisible by remainder (= 10) when it divides either 38, 66 or 80.
their difference 63.
Number System 35

NOTE In case 1, the remainders are different Exp. 1) Find the LCM of 48, 72, 140.
In case 2, the remainders are same in each case.
In case 3, the remainders are same in each case, Solution We can write the given numbers as
but the value of remainder is unknown. 48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 2
72 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3
Least Common Multiple (LCM)
140 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 7 = 2 × 2 ×5 ×7
In this chapter I have already discussed the multiples of a
number for example integral multiples of 7 are 7, 14, 21, 28, So the LCM of 48, 72 and 140 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 5040
35, 42, .... and the integral multiples of 8 are 8, 16, 24, 32, 40, Exp. 2) Find the LCM of 42, 63 and 231.
48, 56, .....etc. In short we can write the positive integral
multiples of any number N as NK, Solution 42 = 2 × 3 × 7 = 3×7×2
where K =1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, .... 63 = 3 × 3 × 7 = 3 × 7 × 3
Now if we consider at least two numbers say 2 and 3 then we 231 = 3 × 7 × 11 = 3 × 7 × 11
write the multiples of each as 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, ∴ The LCM of 42, 63 and 231 = 3 × 7 × 2 × 3 × 11 = 1386
22, 24, 26, 28, 30... and 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, ...
(ii) Division Method
Thus it is clear from the above illustrations that some of the
First of all write down all the given numbers in a line
multiples of 2 and 3 are common viz., 6, 12, 18, 24, 30...
separated by the comma (,) then divide these numbers by the
Again if we consider any 3 numbers say, 3, 5 and 6 then the least common prime factors say 2, 3, 5, 7, 11... to the given
multiples of each of the 3, 5, 6 are as follows: numbers, then write the quotients just below the actual
3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, 33, 36, 39, 42, 45, 48, 51, numbers separated by comma (,).
54, 57, 60, ... If any number is not divisible by such a prime factor then
5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, ... write this number as it is just below itself, then continue this
6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, 48, 54, 60,... process of division by considering higher prime factors, if
the division is complete by lower prime factor, till the
So, we can see that the common multiples of 3, 5 and 6 are
quotient in the last line is 1.
30, 60, 90, 120, ... etc.
Then take the product of all the prime factors by which you
But, out of these common multiples, 30 is the least common
have divided the numbers (or quotient) in different lines (or
multiple. Similarly in the previous example, 6 is the least
steps). This product will be the LCM of the given numbers.
common multiple.
NOTE Generally there is no any greatest common multiple unless Exp. 3) Find the LCM of 108, 135 and 162.
otherwise the condition is stated.
Solution 2 108, 135, 162
Basically, there are two methods to find the LCM.
(i) Factor Method 2 54, 135, 81
(ii) Division Method 3 27, 135, 81
3 9, 45, 27
(i) Factor Method
3 3, 15, 9
Resolve the given numbers into their prime factors, then take
the product of all the prime factors of the first number with 3 1, 5, 3
those prime factors of second number which are not common 5 1, 5, 1
to the prime factors of the first number.
1, 1, 1
Now this resultant product can be multiplied with those
Thus the required LCM
prime factors of the third number which are not common to
the factors of the previous product and this process can be = 2× 2× 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 ×5
continued for further numbers if any. =1620
36 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 4) Find the LCM of 420, 9009, 6270. Exp. 7) Find the largest possible number of 4 digits
which is exactly divisible by 32, 36 and 40.
Solution 2 420, 9009, 6270
Solution Since the largest 4 digit number is 9999, so the
2 210, 9009, 3135 required number can not exceed 9999 any how. Now we take the
3 105, 9009, 3135 appropriate multiple of 1440. Since 1440 is divisible by the given
numbers, so the multiples of 1440 must be divisible by the given
3 35, 3003, 1045
numbers.
5 35, 1001, 1045 Hence 1440 × 6 = 8640 is the largest possible number since 1440 ×
7 7, 1001, 209 7 = 10080 is greater than 9999 which is not admissible. Hence,
8640 is the largest possible 4 digit no. which is divisible by all the
11 1, 143, 209
given numbers.
13 1, 13 19 Alternatively Divide the greatest 4 digit number by 1440 (the
19 1, 1, 19 LCM of the given no.) and then subtract the remainder from the
greatest 4 digit number. So,
1, 1, 1
1440 9999 6
Thus the required LCM = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 11 × 13 × 19 8640
= 3423420 1359
Hence, the required number = 9999 − 1359 = 8640
Exp. 5) Find the least possible number which can be
divided by 32, 36 and 40. Exp. 8) Find the number of numbers lying between 1
Solution The number which is divisible by 32, 36 and 40, it and 1000 which are divisible by each of 6, 7 and 15.
must be the common multiple of all the given numbers. Since we Solution The least possible number which is divisible by 6, 7,
need such a least number then we have to find out just the LCM and 15 = LCM of 6, 7, 15 = 210
of 32, 36 and 40. So, the first such number is 210 and the other numbers are the
The LCM of 32, 36 and 40 = 1440 multiples of 210 i.e., 210, 420, 630, 840.
Hence, the least possible no. is 1440, which is divisible by all the Thus there are total 4 numbers lying between 1 and 1000 which
given numbers. are divisible by 6, 7 and 15.
Exp. 6) What is the least possible number of 5 digits Exp. 9) Find the number of numbers lying between 1000
which is divisible by all the numbers 32, 36 and 40. and 1,00,000 which are divisible by 15, 35 and 77 and are
Solution Since the least possible no. is 1440, but it is a four even also.
digit number. Solution The required numbers must be the multiples of the
So we can take the integral multiples of 1440 which must be LCM of 15, 35 and 77. Now the LCM of 15, 35 and 77 = 1155.
divisible by the given numbers. So the other numbers are 1155, 2310, 3465, 4620, 5775, ...., 99330
Now since the least possible 5 digit number is 10000, so the Thus there are total 86 numbers which are divisible by 15, 35 and
required number must be equal to or greater than 10,000. So 77 but only 43 numbers are even i.e., every alternate number is
when we multiply 1440 by 7. We get the required result i.e., even. Thus there are total 43 required numbers.
10,080. Thus 10080 is the least possible 5 digit number which is
divisible by 32, 36 and 40. Exp. 10) Find the least possible perfect square number
Alternatively Divide the least possible 5 digit no.by 1440 which is exactly divisible by 6, 40, 49 and 75.
and then add the difference of the divisor and remainder to the Solution The required number must be divisible by the given
least possible 5 digit number. This will be the required number. numbers so it can be the LCM or its multiple number.
So, Now the LCM of 6, 40, 49 and 75 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 7 × 7
1440 10000 6 But the required number is a perfect square
8640
1360 Thus the LCM must be multiplied by 2 × 3 = 6.
Now, 1440 − 1360 = 80 Thus the required number
Thus the required number = 10000 + 80 = 10080 = ( 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 7 × 7) × ( 2 × 3)
= 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 7 × 7 = 176400
Number System 37

Exp. 11) Three bells in the bhootnath temple toll at the Exp. 15) What is the least possible number which when
interval of 48, 72 and 108 second individually. If they have divided by 21, 25, 27 and 35 it leaves the remainder 2 in
tolled all together at 6 : 00 AM then at what time will they each case?
toll together after 6 : 00 AM? Solution The least possible number
Solution The three bells toll together only at the LCM of the = (LCM of 21, 25, 27 and 35) m + 2
times they toll individually. = 4725m + 2
Thus the LCM of 48, 72 and 108 is 432 seconds. = 4727 (for the least possible value we take m = 1)
Therefore all the bells will toll together at 6 : 07 : 12 AM
(Q 432 seconds = 7 minuts 12 seconds) Exp. 16) What is the least possible number which must
be added to 4722 so that it becomes divisible by 21, 25, 27
Exp. 12) In the above problem how many times these and 35?
bells will toll together till the 6 : 00 PM on the same day. Solution The number which is divisible by 21, 25, 27 and 35 is
Solution The total time since 6 : 00 AM till 6 : 00 PM the LCM of 21, 25, 27 and 35 = 4725
= 12 × 60 × 60 seconds. So the required number = 4725 − 4722 = 3
Now since all these bells toll together at the interval of
432 seconds. So the number of times when they will toll together Exp. 17) What is the least possible number which when
Total time divided by 8, 12 and 16 leaves 3 as the remainder in each
= case, but when divided by 7 leaves no any remainder?
least duration of tolling together
12 × 60 × 60 Solution The possible value = m (LCM of 8, 12 and 16) + 3
= = 100
432 = m ( 48) + 3
but since the bells toll together at 6 : 00 PM also. Hence total 101 Now put the value of m such that ‘‘m ( 48) + 3’’ becomes divisible
(= 100 + 1) times these bells will toll together in the given by 7. So 3 × 48 + 3 = 147 which is the least possible required
duration of time. number.

LCM with Remainders Case 2

Case 1. When the remainders are same for all the divisors. Exp. 18) What is the least possible number which when
Case 2. When the remainders are different for different divided by 18, 35 or 42 it leaves. 2, 19, 26 as the
divisors, but the respective difference between the remainders, respectively?
divisors and the remainders remains constant. Solution Since the difference between the divisors and the
Case 3. When neither the divisors are same nor the respective remainders is same.
respective differences between divisors and the Therefore, the least possible number
remainders remain constant. = (LCM of 18, 35 and 42) – 16
= 630 − 16 [Q (18 − 2) = ( 35 − 19) = ( 42 − 26) = 16]
Case 1 = 614
Exp. 13) What is the least possible number which when
Exp. 19) What is the least possible number which when
divided by 24, 32 or 42 in each case it leaves the remainder
divided by 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 it leaves the remainders 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
5?
respectively?
Solution Since we know that the LCM of 24, 32 and 42 is
Solution Since the difference is same as
divisible by the given numbers. So the required number
( 2 − 1) = ( 3 − 2) = ( 4 − 3) = (5 − 4) ( 6 − 5) = 1
= (LCM of 24, 32, 42) + (5) = 672 + 5 = 677 Hence the required number = (LCM of 2, 3, 4, 5, 6) – 1
Hence such a least possible number is 677. = 60 − 1 = 59

Exp. 14) In the above question how many numbers are Exp. 20) In the above problem what is the least possible
possible between 666 and 8888? 3 digit number which is divisible by 11?
Solution Since the form of such a number is 672m + 5, where Solution Since the form of the number is 60m − 1, where
m = 1, 2, 3 , ... m = 1, 2, 3 , ....
So, the first no. = 672 × 1 + 5 = 677 and the highest possible but the number ( 60m − 1) should also be divisible by 11 hence at
number in the given range = 672 × 13 + 5 = 8736 + 5 = 8741 m = 9 the number becomes 539 which is also divisible by 11.
Thus the total numbers between 666 and 8888 are 13. Thus the required number = 539.
38 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 21) Find the least possible 5 digit number which Thus at l = 1, we get k = 3 (an integer). So the least possible
when divided by 2, 4, 6 and 8, it leaves the remainders 1, 3, number N = 9 × 3 + 6 = 21 × 1 + 12 = 33.
5 and 7, respectively. Now the higher possible values can be obtained by adding 33 in
the multiples of LCM of 9 and 21. i.e., The general form of the
Solution The possible value = (LCM of 2, 4, 6, 8)m – 1 = 24m − 1
number is 63m + 33. So the other number in the given range
Since, the least 5 digit number is 10000. So the required number including 33 are 96, 159, 222, 285, 348, ..., 1104. Hence there are
must be atleast 10000. So putting the value of m = 417, we get total 18 numbers which satisfy the given condition.
(10008 − 1) = 10007, which is the required number.
Important Formula Product of two numbers
= Product of their HCF and their LCM.
Case 3
Exp. 22) What is the least possible number which when Exp. 25) The HCF and LCM of the two numbers is 12
divided by 13 it leaves the remainder 3 and when it is and 600 respectively. If one of the numbers is 24, then the
divided by 5 it leaves the remainder 2. other number will be
(a) 300 (b) 400
Solution Let the required number be N then it can be
(c) 1500 (d) none of these
expressed as follows
N = 13 k + 3 …(i) Solution The answer is (a)
and N = 5l + 2 …(ii) since product of numbers = HCF × LCM
where k and l are the quotients belong to the set of integers. ∴ N × 24 = 12 × 600 ⇒ N = 300
Thus 5 l + 2 = 13 k + 3 ⇒5 l − 13 k = 1 ⇒ 5 l = 13 k + 1
13 k + 1
Successive Division
⇒ l= If the quotient in a division is further used as a dividend for
5
the next divisor and again the latest obtained divisor is used
Now, we put the value of k such that numerator will be divisible
as a dividend for another divisor and so on, then it is called
by 5 or l must be integer so considering k = 1, 2, 3 , ... we find that
the ‘‘successive division’’ i.e., if we divide 625 by 3, we get
k = 3, l becomes 8. So the number N = 5 × 8 + 2 = 42
208 as quotient and 1 as a remainder then if 208 is divided by
Thus the least possible number = 42
another divisor say 4 then we get 52 as a quotient and ‘0’
To get the higher numbers which satisfy the given conditions in
(zero) as remainder and again, if we divide 52 by another
the above problem we just add the multiples of the given
divisor say 6 we get 8 as quotient and 4 as a remainder i.e.,
divisors (i.e.,13 and 5) to the least possible number (i.e.,42)
we can represent it as following
NOTE The next higher number = (Multiple of LCM of 13 and 5) +
42 = 65m + 42 3 625
4 208 → 1(Remainder)
Exp. 23) In the above problem what is the greatest 6 52 → 0 (Remainder)
possible number of 4 digits?
8 → 4 (Remainder)
Solution Since the general form of this number is 65m + 42. So
by putting m = 153 we get ( 9945 + 42 =) 9987, which is required
Now you can see that the quotient obtained in the first
number. division behaves as a dividend for another divisor 4. Once
Hint To get the value of 9945 we can simply divide 9999 (which again the quotient 52 is treated as a dividend for the next
is the greatest 4 digit number) by 65 and then subtract the divisor 4. Thus it is clear from the above discussion as
remainder from 9999.
Dividend Divisor Quotient Remainder
Exp. 24) How many numbers lie between 11 and 1111 625 3 208 1
which when divided by 9 leave a remainder of 6 and 208 4 52 0
when divide by 21 leave a remainder of 12? 52 6 8 4
Solution Let the possible number be N then it can be expressed
as So the 625 is successively divided by 3, 4 and 6 and the
N = 9k + 6 and N = 21l + 12 corresponding remainders are 1, 0 and 4.
∴ 9k + 6 = 21l + 12 ⇒ 9k − 21l = 6
7l + 2
Exp. 1) The least possible number of 3 digits when
or 3 ( 3 k − 7 l) = 6 or 3 k = 7 l + 2 or k = successively divided by 2, 5, 4, 3 gives respective remainders
3
of 1, 1, 3, 1 is :
So put the min. possible value of l such that the value of k is an
(a) 372 (b) 275
integer or in other words numerator (i.e., 7 l + 2) will be divisible
(c) 273 (d) 193
by 3.
Number System 39

Solution The problem can be expressed as Exp. 2) A number when successively divided by 2, 3 and 5 it
2 A leaves the respective remainders 1, 2 and 3. What will be the
remainder if this number is divided by 7?
5 B →1 
 Solution Write the divisors and remainders as given below
4 C → 1  Remainder
 2 3 5
3 D →3  1 2 3

E →1 then solve it as follows ((( 3 × 3) + 2) 2 + 1) = 23
So it can be solved as or 3×3=9
((((( E × 3) + 1) 4 + 3) 5 + 1) 2 + 1) = A 9 + 2 = 11
(where A is the required number) 11 × 2 = 22
So for the least possible number E 22 + 1 = 23
= 1(the least positive integer) So, the least possible number is 23 and the higher numbers can be
then A = (((((1 × 3) + 1) × 4 + 3) 5 + 1) 2 + 1) obtained as ( 2 × 3 × 5) m + 23 = 30m + 23.
[Since at E = 0, we get a two digit number] So the higher numbers are 53, 83, 113, 143, 173, 213, 333, ...etc.
Alternatively We use the following convention while But when we divide all these possible numbers by 7 we get the different
solving this type of problem. remainders. So we can not conclude the single figure as a remainder.
First we write all the divisors as given below then their Exp. 3) A number when divided successively by 6, 7 and 8, it
respective remainders just below them. leaves the respective remainders of 3, 5 and 4. What will be the
2 5 4 3] Divisors last remainder when such a least possible number is divided
1 1 3 1] Remainders successively by 8, 7 and 6?
Solution First we find the actual least possible no. then we move further
Where the arrow downwards means to add up and the 6 7 8
arrow slightly upward (at an angle of 45°) means 3 5 4
multiplication.
So we start from the right side remainder and move (((( 4 × 7) + 5) × 6) + 3) = ((( 28 + 5) × 6) + 3)
towards left since while writing down the divisors and = 33 × 6 + 3 = 198 + 3 = 201
remainders we write the first divisor first (i.e., leftmost), Now we divide 201 successively by 8, 7 and 6.
second divisor at second position (from the left) and so on. 8 201
Now solve it as : Step 1. (1 × 4) + 3 = 7 7 25 → 1 (Remainder)
Step 2. 7 × 5 + 1 = 36 6 3 → 4 (Remainder)
Step 3. 36 × 2 + 1 = 73 0 → 3 (Remainder)
or ((((1 × 4) + 3) 5 + 1) 2 + 1) = 73 So 3 is the last remainder.
but we are required to find a three digit number so the next
Exp. 4) How many numbers lie between 100 and 10000
higher numbers can be obtained just by taking the multiples
which when successively divided by 7, 11 and 13 leaves the
of the product of the divisors and then adding to it the least
respective remainders as 5, 6 and 7?
such number.
Solution The least possible number can be obtained as
The next higher number
7 11 13
= ( 2 × 5 × 4 × 3)m + 73
5 6 7
= 120m + 73
(((7 × 11 ) + 6) 7 + 5) = ((77 + 6) 7 + 5 )
So by putting m = 1, 2, 3... we can get the higher possible
= ( 83 × 7 + 5) = (581 + 5) = 586
numbers.
The general form for the higher numbers is
Now we just need a least possible 3 digit number so we can
(7 × 11 × 13)m + 586 = (1001)m + 586
get it by putting m = 1
So, the numbers can be obtained by considering m = 0, 1, 2, 3 , ... so
Hence the required number
the first number is 586 and the last number is 9595 which can be
= 120 × 1 + 73 = 193 attained at m = 9. So there are total 10 such numbers lying between
Hence (d) is the correct answer. 100 and 10000.
40 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 1.6
1. HCF of 1007 and 1273 is : 13. The largest possible length of a tape which can
(a) 1 (b) 17 (c) 23 (d) 19 measure 525 cm, 1050 cm and 1155 cm length of
2. The GCD of two whole numbers is 5 and their LCM is cloths in a minimum number of attempts without
60. If one of the numbers is 20, then other number measuring the length of a cloth in a fraction of the
would be : tape’s length
(a) 25 (b) 13 (c) 16 (d) 15 (a) 25 (b) 105
3. The number of possible pairs of numbers, whose (c) 75 (d) none of these
product is 5400 and HCF is 30 : 14. In the above question minimum how many attempts
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 are required to measure whole length of cloths?
4. The number of pairs lying between 40 and 100, such (a) 16 (b) 26
that HCF is 15, is : (c) 24 (d) 30
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 15. Minimum how many similar tiles of square shape are
5. A merchant has 140 litres, 260 litres and 320 litres of required to furnish the floor of a room with the length
three kinds of oil. He wants to sell the oil by filling the of 462 cm and breadth of 360 cm?
three kinds of oil separately in tins of equal volume. The (a) 4420 (b) 4220
volume of such a tin is : (c) 4120 (d) 4620
(a) 20 litres (b) 13 litres 16. The ratio of two numbers is 15 : 11. If their HCF be 13
(c) 16 litres (d) 70 litres then these numbers will be :
6. If x and y be integer such that 3 x + 2 y = 1 then (a) 15 : 11 (b) 75 : 55
(c) 105 : 77 (d) 195 : 143
consider the following statements regarding x and y :
1. x and y can be found using euclidean algorithm. 17. The three numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and their
HCF is 12. These numbers are :
2. x and y are positive.
(a) 4, 8, 12 (b) 5, 10, 15
3. x and y are uniquely determined. (c) 24, 48, 72 (d) 12, 24, 36
Of these statements : 18. There are three drums with 1653 litre, 2261 litre and
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 1 alone is correct 2527 litre of petrol. The greatest possible size of the
(c) 1 and 3 are correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct measuring vessel with which we can measure up the
7. If d is the HCF of a and b, then d = λa + µb where : petrol of any drum, while every the vessel must be
completely filled:
(a) λ and µ are uniquely determined
(a) 31 (b) 27
(b) λ and µ are both positive
(c) λ and µ are both negative (c) 19 (d) 41
(d) one of the λ and µ is negative and the other is 19. Two pencils are of 24 cm and 42 cm. If we want to make
positive them of equal size then minimum no. of similar pencils is
(a) 6 (b) 11
8. The product of two numbers is 84 and their HCF is 2.
(c) 12 (d) none of these
Find the numbers of such pairs.
(a) 8 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 2 20. The HCF of two numbers is 27 and their sum is 216.
These numbers are :
9. The product of two numbers is 15120 and their HCF is
(a) 27, 189 (b) 81, 189
6, find the number of such pairs.
(c) 108, 108 (d) 154, 162
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 8
21. Mr. Baagwan wants to plant 36 mango trees, 144
10. The number of pairs of two numbers whose product is
orange trees and 234 apple trees in his garden. If he
300 and their HCF is 5 :
wants to plant the equal no. of trees in every row, but
(a) 2 (b) 3 the rows of mango, orange and apple trees will be
(c) 4 (d) can’t be determined separate, then the minimum number of rows in his
11. The largest possible number by which when 76, 132 garden is :
and 160 are divided the remainders obtained are the (a) 18 (b) 23
same is : (c) 36 (d) can’t be determined
(a) 6 (b) 14 22. If the product of the HCF and the LCM of 3 natural
(c) 18 (d) none of these numbers p, q, r equals pqr, then p, q, r must be :
12. Find the number of pairs of two numbers whose HCF is (a) such that ( p, q, r ) = 1
5 and their sum is 50. (b) prime number
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) odd number
(c) 2 (d) none of these (d) such that ( p, q) = ( p, r ) = (q, r ) = 1
Number System 41

1.7 Fractions And Decimal Mixed Fraction : A number which consists of two parts
(i) a natural number (ii) a proper fraction
Fractions 5 7 9
is called a mixed fraction.For example 2 ,1 ,18 etc.
Suppose you have borrowed Rs. 20 from your friend in the last 13 8 17
month. Now he has asked you to return his money. But you are 5 ,7 9
paying him only Rs. 10 and the rest amount you want to return where 2, 1, 18 are natural numbers and and are
13 8 17
in the next month. 5 5 7 7
It means you are paying the total amount not in a one lot but in proper fractions. and 2 = 2 + ,1 = 1 +
13 13 8 8
a fraction that means ‘‘in parts’’. 9 9
and 18 = 18 +
From figures you can see that these things are in fraction. 17 17
NOTE 1. Every mixed fraction can be written as an improper
11 1 2 fraction and every improper fraction can be written as
10 45 3
a mixed fraction as =6
9 7 7
8 2 − 7 , −9
2. The numbers for example − , etc are not
7 3 8 5
the fraction numbers, but these are called as fraction
So, we can say that when any unit of a thing is divided into like numbers.
equal parts and some parts are considered, then it is called a
1 3 2 3 Like Fractions : The fractions whose denominators are
fraction. For example , , , etc. same are called like fractions, for example
2 4 5 7
3 , 4 , 9 , 8 , 17
1 etc.
is read as one half 11 11 11 11 11
2
Equivalent Fractions : The fractions whose values are
3 same i.e., the ratio is same are called equivalent fractions
is read as three fourth
4 2 4 6 8 10 12 20 26
for example, = = = = = = =
Denominator : The lower value indicates the number of parts 3 6 9 12 15 18 30 39
into which the whole thing or quantity is being equally It implies that :
divided and it is known as Denominator.
1. If we multiply the numerator and the denominator by
Numerator : The upper value indicates the number of parts the same non-zero number, the value of the fraction
taken into consideration (or for use) out of the total parts in remains unchanged.
known as Numerator.
2. If we divide the numerator and the denominator by the
2 5 1
So in the fractions , , etc. 2, 5, 1 are the numerators and 3, same non zero number, the value of the fractions
3 7 4 remains unchanged.
7, 4 are the denominators. The numerators and denominators of
Cancellation : Division of the numerator and denominator by
a fraction are also called the ‘terms’ of a fraction.
the same (non-zero) number is called the cancellation when
Proper Fraction : A fraction whose numerator is less then its the numerator and denominator of a fraction have no any
denominator,but not equal to zero) is called a proper fraction. common factors between them, then it is said the Reduced or
1 3 2 11 Simplest form of fraction or in lowest term. For example
For example , , , , etc.
2 4 7 20 2 ,3 ,7
etc are the reduced fractions in their lowest term.
Improper Fraction : A fraction whose numerator is equal to or 3 4 8
greater than its denominator is called an improper fraction. For
7 8 215 , 63 Reduction of a Fraction to its Lowest
example , , etc. Terms or Simplest Form
2 5 15 15
NOTE 1. Every natural number can be expressed as a fraction, 1. HCF Method
7 8 11
for example 7 = , 8 = ,11 = etc. which are Divide the numerator and denominator both by their HCF.
1 1 1 21
improper fraction. e.g., to reduce to its lowest term just divide 21 and 35 by
2. When the numerator and denominator of a fraction are
35
21 ÷ 7 3
equal, then it is equal to unity. their HCF. So, =
3.The denominator of a fraction can never be equal to zero. 35 ÷ 7 5
42 QUANTUM CAT
2. Prime Factorisation Method Practice Exercise
Just cancel out the common prime factors of both the 1. State (a) if the fraction is proper, state (b) if the
numerator and denominator. For example to reduce 42 and fraction is improper state (c) if the fraction is mixed,
140 we cancel out the common prime factors as state if (d) none of these
42 2×3× 7 3 (i)
3
(ii)
7
= = 7 3
140 2 × 2 × 5 × 7 10
35 3
(iii) (iv) 4
Reduction of the given fractions into like fractions : 12 11
Obtain the LCM of the denominators of the given fractions 2. State (a) if the fractions are equivalent and state (b) if
and then make all the denominators equal to the LCM the fractions are like fractions else state (c)
obtained, in such a way that the value of every fraction 7 , 8 , 9 , 31 − 5 , 15 , − 45
6 , 10 (i) (ii)
remains unchanged. For example ⋅ 16 16 16 16 − 6 18 − 54
35 21 3 , 7 , 14 9 , 4 , 13
(iii) (iv)
Since the LCM of the 35 and 21 is 105, so the new fraction 5 10 20 25 16 29
6 × 3 , 10 × 5 3. State (a) if the fractions are in ascending order state (b)
will be as
35 × 3 21 × 5 if the fractions are in descending order, else state (c)
3 7 13 9 11 13
18 , 50 (i) , , (ii) , ,
⇒ 5 9 8 25 26 28
105 105 17 35 65 30 30 38
(iii) , , (iv) , ,
Relationship among fractions : If the denominators of all 16 52 75 45 50 80
the fractions are same then the fraction with the greater
numerator will be greater. Answers
1. (i) a (ii) b (iii) b (iv) c
8 7 5 4
For example > > > 2. (i) b (ii) a (iii) c (iv) c
19 19 19 19 3. (i) a (ii) a (iii) a (iv) b
NOTE
1. To equalize the denominator of the fractions, take the Type of Fraction
LCM of the denominators. Reciprocal Fraction : The reciprocal fraction of a number k
x
2. (A) If be a proper positive fraction and ‘a’ be a positive be 1/ k i.e., the product of a reciprocal number with the
y
1
integers when y ≠ 0 number itself is unity (i.e.,1). Hence the reciprocal of 6 is ,
x+a x x −a x 6
(i) > (ii) < 1 3 5
y+a y y −a y the reciprocal of is 8, the reciprocal of is .
(B) If ‘b’ being a positive integer such that a > b, then 8 5 3
x a x x b x Compound Fraction : The fraction of a fraction is called its
(iii) × > (iv) × <
y b y y a y 1 1 1 1 1
x compound fraction. For example of  i. e., × =  is the
3. If be an improper positive fraction, then 3 2 3 2 6
y
x+a x x −a x compound fraction.
(v) < (vi) >
y+a y y −a y Complex Fraction : If the numerator or denominator or
x a x
(vii) × >
x b x
(viii) × <
both of a fraction are fraction then it is called as complex
y b y y a y 2/ 3 , 7/ 5 3/ 7 2
fraction. For example , , etc.
x 7/ 8 2 8/ 9 3/ 7
4. For any fraction
y a /b a d
NOTE = ×
x + nx x x − nx x c /d b c
(ix) = (x) =
y + ny y y − ny y a /b a
=
x ±m x m x c b×c
(xi) ≠ if ≠
y ±n y n y a a×c
=
b /c b
Number System 43

Continued Fraction : A continued fraction consists of the 1  16 5  2 4 4

(v) of  +  (vi) of 21 − 9
fractional denominators. For example, 2 7 3 3 9 11
1 3 6 3 14 3
(i) 1 + (ii) 2 + (vii) ÷ (viii) ÷
1 2 15 2 9 7
2+ 5+ 3 2 21 9 37 36
1 6 (ix) ÷ × (x) of ×
3+ 7+ 7 7 8 5 8 74
1 2
4+ 5+ 1
(xi) 5 ÷
4 1 3 3
(xii) 36 ÷ 4 of + ×
5 3 3 15 2 4 2
NOTE These fractions are solved starting from the bottom
3 5 15
towards upside. Solution × =
(i)
7 4 28
Simplification of Fractions 3
(ii) ×
9 7 189
× =
8 16 5 640
Exp. 1) Solve the following expressions : 9 21 5 5 9 21 5 23 345 25
(iii) × × ×3 = × × × = = 10
3 2 7 9 3 1 8 13 7 6 8 6 7 6 8 6 32 32
(i) + (ii) + (iii) 8 +6 (iv) −
5 7 3 2 7 5 3 6 4 729 4 729 1 729
6 7 3 3 16 3 11 (iv) of = × = ×
(v) − (vi) 9 − 5 (vii) − + 9 48 9 48 9 12
55 88 5 9 5 8 10 1 81 1 27 27 3
193 37 18 = × = × = =6
(viii) + − 1 12 1 4 4 4
75 81 65 1  16 5  1  16 5 
(v) of  +  = ×  + 
3 2 3 × 7 2 × 5 21 + 10 31 2 7 3 2  7 3
Solution (i) + = + = =
5 7 5 ×7 7 ×5 35 35 1  48 35  1  83  83 41
= × +  =   = =1
7 9 7 × 2 9 × 3 14 + 27 41 5 2  21 21  
2 21  42 42
(ii) + = + = = =6
3 2 3 ×2 2× 3 6 6 6 2 4 4 2 4 4
(vi) of 21 − 9 = × 21 − 9
3 1 59 31 59 × 5 31 × 7 3 9 11 3 9 11
(iii) 8 + 6 = + = +
7 5 7 5 7 ×5 5 ×7 2 193 103 386 103
= × − = −
295 + 217 512 22 3 9 11 27 11
= = = 14
35 35 35 386 × 11 103 × 27 4246 − 2781 1465 277
= − = = =4
8 13 8 × 2 13 16 13 3 1 27 × 11 11 × 27 297 297 297
(iv) − = − = − = =
3 6 3×2 6 6 6 6 2
6 3 6/15 6 2 4
6 7 6×8 7 ×5 48 35 13 (vii) ÷ = = × =
(v) − = − = − = 15 2 3/2 15 3 15
55 88 55 × 8 88 × 5 440 440 440
3 48 48 48 × 9 48 × 5 14 3 14/9 14 7 98 17
3
(vi) 9 − 5 = − = − (viii) ÷ = = × = =3
5 9 5 9 5×9 9×5 9 7 3/7 9 3 27 27
432 240 192 64 4 3 2 21 3 7 21 63 15
= − = = =4 (ix) ÷ × = × × = =3
45 45 45 15 15 7 7 8 7 2 8 16 16
16 3 11 16 × 8 3 × 5 11 × 4 9 37 36 9 37 36 81 1
(vii) − + = − + (x) of × = × × = =4
5 8 10 5 × 8 8 × 5 10 × 4 5 8 74 5 8 74 20 20
128 − 15 + 44 157 37
= = =3 (xi) 5
1
÷
4 16 4 16 15 20
= ÷ = × = = 20
40 40 40 3 15 3 15 3 4 1
193 37 18 193 × 27 × 13 37 × 25 × 13
(viii) + + = + 1 3 3 1 3 3
75 81 65 75 × 27 × 13 81 × 25 × 13 (xii) 36 ÷ 4 of + × = 36 ÷ 4 × + ×
2 4 2 2 4 2
18 × 81 × 5
+ 9 9 153 1
65 × 81 × 5 = 36 ÷ 2 + = 18 + = = 19
8 8 8 8
67743 + 12025 + 7290 87058 8083
= = =3
26325 26325 26325 Exp. 3) Simplify the following expressions :
Exp. 2) Simplify the following expressions : (a) 1 +
1
(b) 1 +
1
1 1
3 5 3 9 7 1+ 1+
(i) × (ii) × × 1 1
7 4 8 16 5 1+ 1+
6 1
9 21 5 5 4 729 1+
(iii) × × ×3 (iv) of 1
7 6 8 6 9 48 1+
1
44 QUANTUM CAT
1
(c) 2 −
1
HCF and LCM of Fractions
3+
1 HCF of fractions : The greatest common fraction is called
4−
1 the HCF of the given fractions.
5+
1 HCF of Numerator
6− HCF of fractions =
7
LCM of denominator
1 1
Solution (a) 1 + =1+ 4 , 4 2 36
1 1 For example, The HCF of , ,
1+ 1+ 3 9 15 21
1 7/6
1+
6 HCF of 4, 4, 2, 36 2
= =
1 1 LCM of 3, 9, 15, 21 315
=1+
=1+
6 13 /7
1+ LCM of fractions : The least possible number of fraction
7
7 20 7
which is exactly divisible by all the given fractions is called
=1+ = =1 the LCM of the fractions.
13 13 13
1 1 LCM of Numerator
(b) 1 + =1+ LCM of fractions =
1 1 HCF of Denominator
1+ 1+
1 1 4 4 2 36
1+ 1+
1 1 For example The LCM of , , ,
1+ 1+ 3 9 15 21
1 2
1+
1 LCM of 4, 4, 2, 36
=
=1+
1
=1+
1 HCF of 3, 9, 15, 21
1 1
1+ 1+ 36
1+
1
1+
2 = = 12
3 3 3
2
Exp. 1) Find the smallest positive number which is
1 1 1 1 1 3 4
=1+ =1+ =1+ exactly divisible by , , and .
1 3 8
1+ 1+ 3 2 7 11
5 5 5
3 Solution The LCM of the given numbers will be the required
1 1 3 4
5 13 5 number. So, the LCM of , , ,
=1+ = =1 3 2 7 11
8 8 8
LCM of 1, 1, 3, 4 12
1 1 = = = 12
(c) 2 − =2− HCF of 3, 2, 7, 11 1
1 1
3+ 3+ Thus 12 is the smallest positive numbers, which is required.
1 1
4− 4−
1 1
5+ 5+ Exp. 2) Four runners started running the race in the
1 41/7
6− same direction around a circular path of 7 km. Their
7
speeds are 4, 3, 9 and 3.5 km/hr individually. If they have
1 1
=2− =2− started their race at 6 o’clock in the morning, then at what
1 1
3+ 3+ time will they be at the starting point?
1 1
4− 4−
7 212/ 41 Solution Time required by everyone to complete one
5+ 7 7 7 7
41 revolution individually is , , , hours.
1 1 4 3 9 3.5
=2− =2−
1 1 Therefore everyone must reach at the starting point after the
3+ 3+
41 807 time of the LCM of the individual time period for one
4−
212 212 revolution.
1 1 807 7 7 7 7 7, 7 , 7, 2
=2− =2− =2− So the LCM of , , , =
212 2633 2633 4 3 9 3.5 4 3 9 1
3+
807 807 LCM of 7, 7, 7, 2 14
= = = 14 hours.
4459 1826 HCF of 4, 3, 9, 1 1
= =1
2633 2633 Hence after 14 hours i.e., at 8 o’clock in the evening of the same
day they will meet at the starting point.
Number System 45

Square, square root, cube and = ( 6 + 5 ) − ( 5 + 4) + ( 4 + 3)

cube root of fractions −( 3 + 2) + ( 2 + 1)
Square of numerators = 6+1
Square of a fraction =
Square of denominators  1 ( a + b) a + b
Q = =
Cube of numerator  a − b ( a − b) ( a + b) ( a − b) 
Similarly, Cube of a fraction =
Cube of denominator Hence (d) is the correct option.
NOTE a a
ab = a b and =
b b Practice Exercise
2 1
 a a2 1. Find the value of .
( ab)2 = a2 b2 and   = 2
 b b 9 − 4
x 14
Exp. 3) Evaluate the following : 2. Find the value of x if 1 + = .
169 13
2
 3
2
 17 
2
 19   78 
2
3. Find the value of x if 140 x + 315 = 1015.
(a)   (b)   (c)   (d)  
 4  25   − 31  36
 27   x
 9
3
 13 
3
 20
3
 1
3 4. If 1 +  = 1 +  then find the value of x.
(e)   (f)  −  (g)   (h)  6   169  13 
 7  12  7  2
 1  1 1  1 1 1  
Solution (a)
9
(b)
289
(c)
361
(d)
1521 5. Find the value of 6 ÷ 2 − 2 − −  .
16 625 961 324  4  4 2  2 4 6  
729 2197 8000 2197 6. Find the value
(e) (f) − (g) (h)
343 1728 343 8 3  4 5 1  4 2  1 1 1 1  
of  ÷  + ÷ 3 −  ÷  + + −  .
2  3 7  2  5 5  3 2 5 6  
Exp. 4) Evaluate the following :
1
961 7744 31 1156 7. Find the value of 1 + .
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
625 20 1681 529 2+
1
4+
75 1
(e) 50 × 18 (f) 39 × 8+
2197 16
1
Solution (a)
961 31
= (b)
7744 88
=
8
=4 =4
2 8. Find the value of 1 − .
1
625 25 20 20 20 5 2+
1
31 31 1156 34 2−
(c) = (d) = 2+
1
1681 41 529 23 2
(e) 50 × 18 = 50 × 18 = 900 = 30 9. Calculate the value of
39 × 75 13 × 3 × 3 × 25 15 2 4  5 3 1 5 4
39 ×
75
= = = =1
2 + 2 ÷ 7 − 5  ÷ 22 + 10 ×  − 5.
(f) 5 9   12 4  2 18 
2197 2197 13 × 13 × 13 13 13
1
 1 1  10. Calculate the value of .
Exp. 5) The value of  + + ( 2 + 2) is : 1
11. Calculate the value of 2 +
 ( 2 − 2) ( 2 + 2)  2+
1
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 2 2 (d) none 1
2−
( 2 + 2) + ( 2 − 2)  2
Solution  + ( 2 + 2)  = 2  29 7 1   1 63 9
− + 1 +1 × 4  ÷ 5 − ÷ 9 .
 ( 2 2) ( 2 2)   36 11 8  9 8 20 
 1 1 1 4 3 5
Exp. 6) The value of  − + 12. Calculate the value of + − .
( 6 − 5) ( 5 − 4) ( 4 − 3)
1 3 1
2 1 3
1 1  3 4 2
− +  is
( 3 − 2) ( 2 − 1)  Answers
(a) 5 (b) 712 (c) (d) none 1. 1 2. 27 3. 25 4. 1 5. 6
1 1 1 2061 532 13 16 8
Solution − +
( 6 − 5 ) ( 5 − 4) ( 4 − 3) 6. 2 7. 1 8. 9. 10.
2170 1193 21 35 19
1 1 11. 2 12. 2
− +
( 3 − 2) ( 2 − 1)
46 QUANTUM CAT
3 1
Exp. 1) From a rope of length 38 m, a piece of Solution The share of Mr. Khare =
3 5 4
length 5 m is cut off. The length of the remaining 1
38 The share of Mr. Patel =
rope is : 5
99 90  1 1  11
(a) 190 (b) 33 ∴ The share of Mr. Verma = 1 −  +  =
33 190  4 5  20
99 11
(c) 33 (d) none of these So, the amount of Mr. Verma = × 11200 = 6160
190 20
3 193 Thus option (b) is correct.
Solution Total length of the rope = 38 =
5 5
3 193 Exp. 5) When Sarvesh travelled 33 km, he found that
The length of the rope which has been removed = 5 = 2
38 38 rd of the entire journey was still left. The length of the
∴The length of the remaining part of the rope 3
193 193 99 total journey is :
= − = 33
5 38 199 (a) 66 (b) 132
Hence (c) is the correct option. (c) 99 (d) 100
2
1 Solution Since rd journey is left, it means Sarvesh has
Exp. 2) The cost of 1 metre cloth is ` 21 , then the cost of 3
2 1
42 travelled only rd of his journey which is equal to 33. Thus i.e.,
metre 3
43 1
(a) ` 21 (b) ` 42 x = 33 ⇒ x = 99
3
43
(c) ` (d) none of these Hence (b) is the right choice.
2

Solution Q The price of 1m cloth = 21 =

1 43 Exp. 6) Mrs. Verma earns Rs. 18000 per month. She
2 2 7 1
spends on house hold items and on rest of the
42 42 43 12 8
∴ The price of m cloth = × = 21
43 43 2 things.The amount she saves is :
Hence option (a) is correct. (a) 7120 (b) 5250
3 (c) 5520 (d) none of these
Exp. 3) A drum of kerosene oil is full. When 15 litres of 7 1 17
4 Solution Her total expenditure = + =
7 12 8 24
oil is drawn from it, it is full. The capacity of the drum 17 7
12 ∴ Her savings = 1 − =
24 24
is : 7
(a) 45 (b) 90 ∴ Her saving in ` = × 18000 = 5250
24
(c) 60 (d) can’t be determined
Hence (b) is the correct option.
Solution Let the capacity of drum be x
3 7 9x − 7 x Exp. 7) Neha, a working lady, earns ` x per month. If she
Then x − 15 = x ⇒ = 15 ⇒ x = 90 2 3
4 12 12 spends th of her earning for personal uses and th of the
Thus (b) is the correct option. 5 4
Alternatively If you consider option (b) then
7
personal uses, she spends in entertainment while th of
3 7 20
90 × − 15 = 90 ×
4 12 the expenditure in entertainment she spends in movies
x only. Her salary would be , if her expenditure in movies is
Alternatively The decrease in amount = = 15⇒ x = 90 litre.
6 in integers.
(a) 4225 (b) 2175 (c) 200 (d) 3465
Exp. 4) A sum of ` 11200 is shared among Mr. Khare,
1 Solution Since her salary is ` x then her expenditure in movies
Mr. Patel and Mr. Verma. Mr. Khare gets th of it while is
4 7 3 2 7 3 2 21x
1 of of of x = × × ×x=
Mr. Patel gets th of it. The amount of Mr. Verma is : 20 4 5 20 4 5 200
5 21x
(a) 6006 (b) 6160 Now, In order to be an integer so x must be equal to 200.
200
(c) 3080 (d) data insufficient
Thus (c) is the correct option.
Number System 47

Decimal Fractions Conversion of Decimal Numbers into

In the previous topics I have discussed the integral and Decimal Fractions
fractional numbers. Write the number of zeros as the number of digits in the
decimal number preceded by 1, below the actual number
Now in the ongoing discussion, I am extenting the theory of
without decimal point as
numbers as ‘‘decimal numbers’’.
236 , 4579
In the number 8637, the place value of 7 is 7 × 1 = 7, the place 23.6 = 4.579 =
value of 3 is 10 × 3 = 30, the place value of 6 is 6 × 100 = 600 10 1000
and the place vale of 8 is 8 × 1000 = 8000. 75.89 =
7589
, 0.18870 =
18870
=
1887
Thus, as we move from right to left each next digit is 100 100000 10000
multiplied by 10, 100, 1000, 10000, 100000 etc. Conversion of Decimal Fractions into
It means moving from left to right the place value of each Decimal Numbers
digit is divided by 10, 100, 1000, etc..... Count the number of zeros in the denominator and then count
In the above number 7 is known as unit digit (the right most the same number of digits in the numerator starting from the
digit), 3 is known as tens digit, 6 as hundreds digit and 8 as unit digit of the numerator moving to the left and then place
thousands digit. the decimal point as :
Now if we move towards the right of unit place, the place 2375 2375 2375
= 237.5, = 23.75, = 2.375,
value of the digit next to the right of unit digit (is the tenths 10 100 1000
digit) is being divided by 10, while the place value of the next 2375 2375
digit is the hundredth digit is being divided by 100 and so on. = 0.02375, = 0.0002375 etc.
100000 10000000
So, for our convenience we put a small dot just right to the NOTE 0 .35 = 0 .350 = 0 .3500 = 0 .35000 etc. because increasing
unit digit and it is known as decimal point. the number of zeros in the rightmost of a decimal number is
Hence, the place value of a digit in a number depends on the inconsiderable.
35 350 35
place or position with respect to the unit digit position while For example 0.35 = ; 0.350 = =
100 1000 100
the face value of a digit is always fixed as the face value of 1
3500 35
is 1, 2 is 2, 3 is 3, 4 is 4 and so on. and 0.3500 = =
10000 100
Place Value Chart
Some Mathematical Operations on Decimal
Ten thousands

Decimal point

Numbers
Thousandths
Hundredths
Thousands

Hundreds

Tenths
Places

(i) Addition and Subtraction : The decimal numbers are

Tens
Unit

written in such a manner that decimal points of all the

numbers fall in one column or fall below one another.
For example
2.358
1 1 1 709.21
Value 10000 1000 100 10 1 ⋅ 10 0.35 and 635.888
100 1000
+ 2.0067 – 28.0125
Thus a decimal number say 4637.938 can be expressed as 713.9247 607.8755
9 3 8 (ii) Multiplication : Suppose there is no decimal point as
4 × 1000 + 6 × 100 + 3 × 10 + 7 × 1 + + + .
10 100 1000 natural numbers and then multiply them. Then put the
NOTE The digits written in the right side of decimal point read decimal point in the product as the sum of the decimal
separately as we read 2.359 as two point three five nine. places in the multiplicands. For example
Thus the fraction whose denominators are 10, 100, 1000 etc. Decimal Places
are called decimal fractions. (i) 23 × 1.1 = 25.3 0 +1 =1
The number left to the decimal point is a whole or integral (ii) 3.8 × 4.6 = 17.48 1 +1 = 2
number, while the number to right to the decimal point is a (iii) 2.456 × 7.8 = 19.1568 3 +1 = 4
decimal number. In the number 735.82, 735 is a whole (iv) 8.125 × 100 = 812.500 (3 + 0) = 3
number and .82 is the decimal number. (v) 75 × 0.3 = 22.5 (0 + 1) = 1
48 QUANTUM CAT
(iii) Division : Make the divisor as a natural number by Conversion of Recurring Decimal into
shifting the decimal in the right hand side equally in
dividend and divisor. Now divide the resultant dividend Vulgar Fraction
by this resultant divisor as usual. (a) Pure Recurring Decimal
For Example : Write down as many 9’s in the denominator as the number of
65 650 digits in the period of decimal number, below the given
65 ÷ 1.3 = = = 50
1.3 13 decimal number, for example,
235 2350 7
235 ÷ 4.7 = = = 50 (i) 0.77777... = 0.7 =
4.7 47 9
1 ⋅ 17 54
1.17 ÷ 13 = = 0.09 (ii) 0.545454... = 0.54 =
13 99
 1 ⋅ 17 117 1 1  (iii) 2.357357357357... = 2.357 = 2 + 0. 357
Q 13 = 13 × 100 = 9 × 100 
357 2355
=2+ =
172.8 17280 999 999
172.8 ÷ 0.12 = = = 1440
0.12 12 76839
(iv) 0.768397683976839... = 0. 76839 =
1.068 10.68 99999
1 ⋅ 068 ÷ 8.9 = = = 0.12
8.9 89 (b)Mixed Recurring Decimal
78 780000 780000
78 ÷ 0.0039 = = = = 20000 Step 1. Write down the number and then subtract from it the
0.0039 0039 39 number formed by the non recurring digits after decimal
Recurring Decimal A decimal number in which a digit or a point.
set of digits repeats regularly, over a constant period, is Step 2. Write down as many 9s as there are digits in the
called a recurring decimal or periodic decimal. For example period of the recurring decimal followed by as many
2.33333..., 7.5555, ...., 108.232323... zeros as there is number of digits which are not recurring
after the decimal point.
9.142857142857142857.....
Step 3. Divide the value of step 1 by the value obtained in
•
where 2.3333..... = 2.3 or 2.3 step 2.
• For example :
7.5555... = 7.5 or 7. 5
17 − 1 16 8
108.232323 ... = 108.23 1. 0.17777... = 0.17 = = =
90 90 45
and 9.142857142857142857…
873 − 8 865 173
• • 2. 0.8737373... = 0.873 = = =
= 9.142857 = 9.14285 7 990 990 198
So the recurring of the decimal number is expressed by 78943 − 78
3. 0.78943943943... = 0.78943 =
putting the bar or dot over the period of a recurring decimal. 99900
Pure Recurring decimal 78865 15773
= =
99900 19980
A decimal fraction in which all the figures (or digits) occur
25012 − 250
repeatedly, is called a pure recurring decimal as 7.4444, ..., 4. 0.250121212… = 0.25012 =
2.666, ..., 9.454545, ... etc. 99000
24762 12381
Mixed Recurring decimal : A decimal, number in which = =
some of the digits do not recur is called a mixed recurring 99000 49500
decimal for example 327.63454545...  72 − 00 
5. 5.0072 = 5 + 00072
. =5+  
Non-recurring decimals : A decimal number in which there  9900 
is no any regular pattern of repetition of digits after decimal 72 2 2
=5+ =5+ =5
point is called a non-recurring decimal. e.g., 3.2466267628.... 9900 275 275
Number System 49

In the first number there are 5 recurring digits and in the second
Addition and Subtraction of Recurring number there are 2 recurring digits]
Decimals 19.368421 − 16.2053 = 3.163068148863
Exp. 1) 5.732+ 8. 613
Multiplication and Division of Recurring
Solution 5.7 32+ 8. 613 = 5 + 0.7 32+ 8 + 0. 613
Decimals
732 − 7 613 725 613
=5 + + 8+ =5 + + 8+ It can be done as usual. Just convert the decimals into vulgar
990 999 990 999
725 613 145 613 fractions and then operate as required.
= 13 + + = 13 + +
990 999 198 999 Exp. 1) 97.281 × 100 = 97.2818181 × 100
145 × 3 × 37 + 613 × 2 × 11
= 13 + = 9728.181818 = 9728.181
2 × 3 × 9 × 11 × 37
13 × 2 × 3 × 9 × 11 × 37 + 145 × 3 × 37 + 613 × 2 × 11 (Remember that the set of recurring digits is not altered
= as in the above problem the set of recurring digits will
2 × 3 × 9 × 11 × 37
remain 81 but not 18 since initially it was 81.)
285714 + 16095 + 13486 315295
= = = 14.3459368 Exp. 2) 25.632 × 55 = (25 + 0.632) × 55
21978 21978
Alternatively 632 − 6 626
= 25 × 55 = 25 × 55
Step 1. Express the numbers without bar as 990 990
5.732323232 + 8.613613613613 313
= 25 × 55
Step 2. Write the numbers as one above other i.e., 495
5.732323232 12688
8.613613613 = × 55
495
Step 3. Divide this number into two parts. In the first part 12688
i.e., left side write as many digits as there will be integral = = 1409.7777
9
value with non recurring decimal. In the right side write = 1409.7
as many digits as the LCM of the number of recurring 5 423 − 4
digits in the given decimal number e.g., Exp. 3) 13.00 5 × 20 × 8.423 = 13 × 20 × 8
900 990
5.7 323232 (Since 5.7 is the integral 1 419
= 13 × 20 × 8
+ non-recurring part] 180 990
8.6 136136 (The LCM of 2 and 3 is 6] 2341 8339 2341 × 8339
= × 20 × =
Step 4. Now add or subtract as usual. 180 990 9 × 990
5.7 323232 19521599
= = 2190.9763187
8.6 136136 9 × 990
14.3 459368
Step 5. Put the bar over the digits which are on the right side Exp. 4) 0.089 ÷ 100 = 0.089999... ÷ 100
in the resultant value. = 0.00089999... = 0.00089
14.3459368 0853 − 08
53 +
Thus 5.732 + 8.613 = 14.3459368 53 + 0.0853 9900
Exp. 5) 53.0853 ÷ 6 = =
6 6
Exp. 2) Solve the following : 19.368421 − 16.2053
845 169
Solution 19.3684216842168421 – 16.2053535353... 53 + 53 +
= 19.3684216842168421 = 9900 = 1980
6 6
= 16.205353535353535353
 105109 
19.36 8421684216  
 1980  105109 105109
– 16.20 5353535353 = = =
3.16 3068148863 6 1980 × 6 11880
(Since 16.20 is integral part with non recurring digits] = 8.847558922558922558922
[The LCM of 5 and 2 is 10] = 8.847558922
50 QUANTUM CAT
Alternatively 53.0853 ÷ 6 = 53.08535353... ÷ 6 2. Find the square root of 0.0121
6 53.08535353... 8.847558922558922 0.11
48 0 0.0121
50 0 0
48
28 01 01
24 1 01
45
42 21 21
33 1 21
30
35 × ∴ 0.0121 = 0.11
30
53 3. Find the square root of 536.85374
48
55 23.1701
54 2 536.85374
13
12 2 4
15 43 136
12
33 3 129
30 461 785
35
30 1 461
53 4627 32437
48
55 7 32389
54 463401 484000
1 etc.
01 463401
Square of Decimals The process can be continued if required. But generally we
First we assume that there is no decimal point and then stop our calculation after 2-3 places of decimal point.
square up the given decimal number. But at last we put the
NOTE To find the nth power of a decimal number in which the
dot (as decimal point), counting the digits from the rightmost decimal point is placed at m places before the rightmost digit, we
digit. The no. of places will be double as that of the given simply solve it considering as an integer then we put the decimal
number. For example : point in the resultant value before them. n places from the right most
1. (2.3) 2 = 5.29 [(23) 2 = 529] digit, where m, n are positive integers.
For example : (2.13) 4 = 20.58346161
2. (1.07) 2 = 1.1449 [(107) 2 = 11449]
[The number of places of decimal point = 2 × 4 = 8]
3. (0.11) 2 = 0.0121 [(11) 2 = 121]
4. (1.352) 2 = 1.827904 [Q (1352) 2 = 1827904] HCF and LCM of Decimals
5. 0.1 = 0.01 [Q (1) 2 = 1] HCF
6. (9.99) 2 = 99.8001 [(999) 2 = 998001] Step 1. First of all equate the number of places in all the
numbers by using zeros, wherever required.
Square root of Decimals Step 2. Then considering these numbers as integers find the
The process of finding the square root is same as that of HCF of these numbers.
integers. Here we put the decimal point as in the division of Step 3. Put the decimal point in the resultant value as many
decimal numbers.
places before the right most digit as that of in the every
For example : equated number.
1. Find the square root of 5.29
Exp. 1) Find the HCF of 0.0005, 0.005, 0.15, 0.175, 0.5
2.3 and 3.5.
2 5.29 Solution 0.0005 ⇒ 5
2 4 0.0050 ⇒ 50
43 129 0.1500 ⇒ 1500
3 129 0.1750 ⇒ 1750
× ∴ 5.29 = 2.3 0.5000 ⇒ 5000
3.5000 ⇒ 35000
Number System 51

Then the HCF of 5, 50, 1500, 1750, 5000 and 35000 is 5. Step 2. Now consider the equated numbers as integers and
So the HCF of the given numbers is 0.0005 (since there are four then find the LCM of these numbers.
digits in all the adjusted (or equated) decimal places. Step 3. Put the decimal point in the LCM of the numbers as
many places as that of in the equated numbers.
Exp. 2) Find the HCF of 0.9, 0.36 and 1.08.
Exp. 1) Find the LCM of 1.8, 0.54 and 7.2
123

123
Solution 0.9 0.90 90
0.36 0.36 36

123

123
1.08 1.08 108 Solution 1.8 1.80 180
0.54 0.54 54
7.2 7.20 720
Now the HCF of 90, 36 and 108 is 18. So the required HCF of the
given numbers is 0.18. (Since there are two digits after decimal Now the LCM of 180, 54 and 720 is 2160
places in every number in second step) Therefore the required LCM is 21.60.

LCM Exp. 2) Find the LCM of 4.44, 37 and 55.5

123

123
Step 1. First of all equate the no. of places in all the given Solution 4.44 4.44 444
37.0 37.00 3700
numbers by putting the minimum possible number of 55.5 55.50 5550
zeros at the end of the decimal numbers, wherever Now the LCM of 444, 3700, 5550 is 11100.
required. Hence the required LCM is 111.00 = 111.

Introductory Exercise 1.7

−2 5 −1 137
1. , , in descending order can be arranged as : 6. The square root of 32 is :
3 2 6 484
5 −1 −2 −2 5 −1 15
(a) , , (b) , , (a) 5
2 6 3 3 2 6 22
−1 5 −2 5 −2 −1 5
(c) , , (d) , , (b) 15
6 2 3 2 3 6 32
2. Which one of the following represents the numbers 15
(c) 5
3 2 −1 28
− , and in descending order?
7 3 3 (d) none of the above
−1 −3 2 2 −1 −3 1
(a) , , (b) , , 7. 1 ÷ is equal to :
3 7 3 3 3 7 1
−3 2 −1 2 −3 −1 1÷
1
(c) , , (d) , , 1÷
7 3 3 3 7 3 3
3. Find the greatest among 1029/1025, 1030/1026, 1
(a) (b) 1
256/255, 1023/1019 3
(a) 1029/1025 1
(c) 3 (d) 1
(b) 1030/1026 3
(c) 256/255 1 1
4 −2
(d) 1023/1019 7 4 ÷ 1
8. The value of :
1 1 1
4. The fundamental arithmetical operations on 2 3 +1 2+
2 7 1
recurring decimals can be performed directly without 2+
1
converting them to vulgar fractions : 5−
(a) only in addition and subtraction 5
(b) only in addition and multiplication (a) 7/29 (b) 5/6
(c) only in addition, subtraction and multiplication (c) 1 (d) 9/13
(d) in all the four arithmetical operations 5 7
9. Mallika travelled of his journey by coach and by
5. Find the value of x and y in the given equation 16 20
7 1 rail and then she walked the remaining 10 km. How far
5 × y = 12 : did she go altogether?
x 13 17 7
(a) −2 , 9 (b) 9, 2 (a) 27 (b) 33
29 27
(c) 4, 3 (d) 9, 4 7 17
(c) 19 (d) 29
27 27
52 QUANTUM CAT
x1 12. The expression 33.33 ÷ 1.1 simplifies as :
10. For every positive integer xn find the value of
x2
(a) 33.3 (b) 303
1
if x1 + = 3 10 (c) 33.0 (d) 30.3
1
x2 + 13. Which one of the following is not correct?
1
x3 + (a) 0.4096 = 0.64 (b) 40.96 = 6.4
x4 + ....
(c) 0.04096 = 0.064 (d) 4096 = 64
(a) 1/3 (b) 3/10
14. The value of 900 + 0.09 − 0.000009 is :
(c) 2/5 (d) none of these
(a) 30.297 (b) 30.197
11. Vishvamitra has some guavas of same shape, size and
(c) 30.097 (d) 30.397
colour. He wants to distribute them equally among
some of his chosen disciples. In order to do this he can 10 6.25
15. The value of is :
cut a guava into uniform pieces only. Which of the 6.25 − 0.5
following statements is/are false? (a) 125 (b) 0.125
(i) He can divide 7 guavas equally among his 12 (c) 1.25 (d) 12.5
disciples, such that no any guava is cut into more 25.4016 − 1.0609
than 6 pieces. 16. Simplify :
25.4016 + 1.0609
(ii) He can divide 6 guavas equally among his 12 401 104
(a) (b)
disciples, such that no any guava is cut into more 607 706
than 3 pieces. (c) 41/76 (d) none of these
1
(iii) He can divide 11 guavas equally among his 15 17. Let n be a positive integer. If has a terminating
disciples, such that no any guava is cut into more decimal expansion, then which onen of the following is
than 6 pieces. true?
(a) n is of the form 5 x, where x is a positive integer
(iv) He can divide 7 guavas equally among his 15
(b) n is of the form 2 y , where y is non-positive integer
disciples, such that no any guava is cut into more (c) n is of the form 2 x ⋅ 5 y for some non-negative
than 6 pieces. integers x and y
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (d) n is of the form 10 z for some positive integer z
(c) (iii) (d) (iv)

1.8 Indices and Surds

In the previous articles we have studied the multipli- cation, Laws of Indices
as 2 × 2 = 4, 2 × 2 × 2 = 8, 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 16, ... If m and n are positive integers, then
Now, here we extend our discussion to the higher power or am
index of a number, as following 1. a m × a n = a m + n 2. n = a m − n ; ( a ≠ 0, m ≥ n)
a
as 2 × 2 = 22 = 4 n
a an
2×2×2=2 =8 3 3. ( ab) = a . b
n n n
4.   = n ; ( b ≠ 0)
 b b
2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 2 = 16 4
5. ( a m ) n = a m . n 6. ( a 0 ) = 1; ( a ≠ 0)
2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 2 5 = 32
Some Important Results
Similarly, 2 × 2 × 2 × ..... upto n times = 2 n
1. If a x = k , then a = ( k )1/ x
Thus a × a × a × a × a... a = a n
144424443 2. If a 1/ x = k , then a = k x
n factors
3. If a x = b y , then a = ( b) y / x and b = ( a ) x / y
Where a is any number and n is a natural number. i.e., a n is
continued product of n equal quantities, each equal to a and is 4. If a x = a y , then x = y, where a ≠ 0, 1
called the nth power of a. ‘n’ is called the index or exponent 5. a − n =1/ a n and a n =1 / a − n
and ‘a’ is called the base of a n . c
6. a b ≠ ( a b ) c ; b ≠ c
Therefore a n is the exponential expression. a n is read as ‘a
raised to the power n’ or ‘a to the power n’ 7. HCF : The HCF of ( a m −1) and ( a n −1) is equal to the
( a HCF of m, n −1)
Number System 53

Exp. 1) Solve the following : (x) 42 x + 1 = 8x + 3

(i) (5) 3 (ii) ( − 6) 4 (iii) ( − 2)5 (iv) ( 4) 3 (v) ( −4) 3 ⇒ ( 22 ) ( 2 x + 1 ) = ( 2 3 ) ( x + 3 )
Solution (i) 5 3 = 5 × 5 × 5 = 125 ⇒ 24 x + 2 = 2 3 x + 9
(ii) ( −6) 4 = ( −6) × ( −6) × ( −6) × ( −6) = 1296 ⇒ 4x + 2 = 3 x + 9 (Qbase in both side is same)
(iii) ( − 2) = ( − 2) × ( − 2) × ( − 2) × ( − 2) × ( − 2) = − 32
5 ⇒ x =7

(iv) ( 4) 3 = 4 × 4 × 4 = 64 (xi) 3 x − 1 + 3 x + 1 = 90

(v) ( − 4) 3 = ( − 4) × ( − 4) × ( − 4) = − 64 3x
⇒ + 3.3x = 90
3
Exp. 2) Solve the following expressions. ⇒ 3 x + 3 2 . 3 x = 90 × 3
(i) ( − 2) 3 × 5 2 (ii) ( − 4) 3 × 5 2 × 7 0 ⇒ 3 x(1 + 3 2 ) = 270
− 1 /5 4 /5
(iii) ( 32) (iv) ( 243) ⇒ 3 x(10) = 270 ⇒ 3 x = 27
−2 / 3
 1  ⇒ 3x = 33 ⇒ x = 3
(v) ( 36)1 / 6 (vi)  − 
 343 
(vii)3 − 3 + ( − 3) 3 (viii) ( 22 + 23 + 2− 2 + 2− 3 ) Exp. 3) Solve the followings :
1 
(ix) 22 x − 1 = (x − 3 ) , then x = ? 1    1 
a b
1 
a b
1 
8 (i)  x +   x −   ÷  y +   y −   is equal to
 y  y    x  x 
(x) 42 x + 1 = 8x + 3 then x = ? 
a+ b ( a + b)
(xi) 3 x − 1 + 3 x + 1 = 90, then x = ?  x  y xa
(a)   (b)   (c) (d) ( xy) a + b
 y  x yb
Solution (i) ( − 2) 3 × 5 2 = − 8 × 25 = − 200
a b c
(ii) ( − 4) 3 × 5 2 × 7 0 = − 64 × 25 × 1 = − 1600  xb  xc   xa
(ii)  c  ×  a  ×  b  is equal to :
5 ×−
1
1 x  x  x 
(iii) ( 32) − 1 /5 = ( 25 ) − 1 /5 = 2 5 = 2− 1 =
2 (a) 0 (b) 1
4
5× (c) abc (d) none of these
(iv) ( 243) 4 /5 = ( 35 ) 4 /5 = 3 5 = 3 4 = 81 3/ 2
1 1 (iii) If x x= ( x 3 / 2 ) x , then the value of x is :
2×
(v) ( 36) 1/6
= (6 ) 2 1/6
= 6 6 = 63 3 9 16 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
−2 / 3 −2 / 3 2 4 25 27
 1   1
(vi)  −  = − 3 = ( − 7 − 3 ) −2 / 3
 343   7  (iv) If x =y = z and y = zx then the value of + is :
a b c 2 1 1
a c
= ( − 7) − 3 × − 2 / 3 = ( − 7) 2 = 49
b c 2
1 1 (a) (b) (c) (d) 2a
(vii) 3 − 3 + ( − 3) 3 = 3 + ( − 3) 3 = − 27 2 2 b
3 27
1 − 729 728 (v) ( a m − n) l × ( a n − l ) m × ( a l − m ) n
= =−
27 27 (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) a lmn
 1 1
(viii) ( 22 + 23 + 2− 2 + 2− 3 ) =  4 + 8 + +  (vi) If a x = b , b y = c and cz = a, then the value of xyz is
 4 8
3 99 (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) x + y + z (d) abc
= 12 + = a a + b b b + c c c + a
8 8 x x x
(vii)  b  ×  c ×  a is equal to :
(ix) 22 x − 1 =
1
⇒ 22 x − 1 =
1 x  x  x 
8x − 3 23 ( x − 3 ) (a) 1 (b) 0
1
⇒ 22 x − 1 = 3x − 9 (c) 2 (d) none of these
2
(viii) The value of
⇒ ( 2 2 x − 1 ) ( 23 x − 9 ) = 1 1 1 1
+ + is :
⇒ 2(2 x− 1 ) + (3 x − 9 ) = 1 1 + xb − a + xc − a 1 + xc − b + xa − b 1 + xa − c + xb − c
⇒ 25 x − 10 = 1 ⇒ 25 (x− 2 ) = 1 (a) 0 (b) x abc (c) 1 (d) x (a + b + c )
x 3 x
(ix) 22 = 162 , then x is equal to
⇒ 25 (x − 2 ) = 20
(a) – 1 (b) 0
⇒ 5( x − 2) = 0
(c) 1 (d) none of these
⇒ x− 2 = 0 ⇒ x = 2
54 QUANTUM CAT
(x) The value of the expression (iv) If x a = y b = z c and y 2 = zx
4n × 20m − 1 × 12m − n × 15 m + n − 2 Let x a = y b = zc = k
is :
16m × 5 2 m + n × 9m − 1
⇒ x = k1 / a , y = k1 / b , z = k1 / c
1
(a) 500 (b) 1 (c) 200 (d) Now,Q y 2 = zx
500
(xi) The value of the expression ∴ ( k1 / b) 2 = ( k1 / c ) .( k1 / a)
1/4 1 1
 1 +
( 0.3)1/ 3 .   . ( 9)1 / 6 .( 0.81) 2 / 3 ⇒ k2/ b = k c a
 27 
−2
is : 1 1 2
 1 ⇒ + =
( 0.9) 2 / 3 .( 3) −1 / 2 .   .( 243) − 1 / 4 a c b
 3
Hence (c) is the correct option.
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.9
(c) 1.27 (d) 0.09
(v) ( a m − n) l × ( a n − l ) m × ( a l − m ) n= a ml − nl × a nm − lm × a ln − mn
( 0.6)0 − ( 0.1) − 1
(xii) The value of expression −1 3 −1
is : = a ml − nl + nm − lm + ln − nm
 3  3  1
 3  .  +  −  = a0 = 1
2   2  3
3 2 3 9 Thus (a) is correct option.
(a) − (b) (c) (d)
2 3 2 4 (vi) If a x = b , b y = c, cz = a
9n × 3 2 × ( 3 − n/ 2 ) − 2 − ( 27) n 1 Q a x = b ∴ ( cz ) x = b
(xiii) If =
3 3 m × 23 27 ⇒ czx = b ⇒ ( b y ) zx = b
then the value of (m − n) is : ⇒ b xyz = b ⇒ xyz = 1
(a) – 1 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) – 2
Hence (b) is the correct option.
 a
1  1
b
 
a
1  1 
b a+ b b+ c c+ a
Solution (i)  x +   x −   ÷  y +   y −    xa  xb  xc 
y    x  x  (vii)  b  ×  c ×  a
 y 
 x  x  x 
= ( x a − b) ( a + b) × ( x b − c ) ( b + c ) × ( x c − a ) ( c + a )
a b a b
 1  1  xy + 1  xy − 1
x +  x −     
 y  y  y   y  = x ( a − b) ( a + b) × x ( b − c ) ( b + c ) × x ( c − a ) ( c + a )
= a b
= a b
 1  1  xy + 1  xy − 1 = xa
2
− b2
× xb
2
− c2
× xc
2
− a2
y +  y −     
 x   x  x   x  2
− b2 + b2 − c 2 + c 2 − a 2
= xa = x0 = 1
( xy + 1) a ( xy − 1) b
. Thus (a) is the correct option.
ya yb
= 1 1 1
( xy + 1) ( xy − 1) b
a (viii) b−a c−a
+ c−b
+
. 1+ x +x 1+ x + xa − b 1+ x a−c
+ xb − c
xa xb
1 1 1
( xy + 1) a ( xy − 1) b x ( a + b) = + +
= ( a + b)
× xb xc xc xa xa xb
y ( xy + 1) a ( xy − 1) b 1+ a + a 1+ b + b 1+ c + c
x x x x x x
a+ b
xa + b  x xa xb xc
= =  = a + +
ya + b  y x + xb + xc xb + xc + xa xc + xa + xb
Hence (a) is the correct option. xa + xb + xc
= =1
 xb
a
 xc   xa
b c
xa + xb + xc
(ii)  c  ×  a  ×  b  = ( x b − c ) a × ( x c − a) b × ( x a − b) c
x  x  x  Hence (c) is correct option.
x 3 x
=x (ab − ac )
×x (bc − ab)
×x (ac − bc ) (ix) 22 = 162
x 3 x
= x (ab − ac ) + (bc − ab) + (ac − bc ) = x 0 = 1 ⇒ 22 = ( 24 ) 2
x 3 x 3 x+2
Hence (b) is the correct option. ⇒ 22 = 24 . 2 = 22
x 3 x+2
(iii) xx
3/ 2
= ( x 3 / 2 ) x ⇒ x x = x (3 / 2 )x
3/ 2
⇒ 22 = 22 [Since base in both
3 3 9 ⇒ 2x = 2 3 x + 2 sides is equal]
⇒ x 3 / 2 = x ⇒ x1 / 2 = ⇒ x=
2 2 4 ⇒ x = 3x + 2
Hence (b) is the correct option. ⇒ 2x = − 2 ⇒ x = − 1
Hence (a) is correct option.
Number System 55

4n × 20m − 1 × 12m − n × 15 m + n − 2 Exp. 4) Find the HCF of ( 2 315 − 1) and ( 2 25 − 1) is

(x)
16m × 5 2 m + n × 9m − 1 (a) 5
22 n × 22 m − 2 × 5 m − 1 × 22 m − 2 n × 3 m − n (b) 2
m+ n−2
×3 × 5m + n − 2 (c) 31
= 2m + n 2m − 2 (d) none of the above
2 4m
×5 ×3
= 22 n + 2 m − 2 + 2 m − 2 n − 4 m × 3 m − n + m + n − 2 − 2 m + 2 Solution The required HCF = ( 2) HCF of 315, 25
− 1 = 25 − 1 = 31
× 5m − 1 + m + n − 2 − 2m − n Hence (c) is the correct option.
1 1 1
= 2− 2 × 3 0 × 5 − 3 =
× = Surds
4 125 500
Hence (d) is the correct option. In the previous articles we have studied about the square
1/4 roots and cube roots etc. There we have studied those
 1
( 0.3)1/ 3 .   . ( 9)1 / 6 .( 0.81) 2 / 3 numbers whose roots can be found in the form of an integer,
 27 
(xi) −2
but here we study only those numbers whose roots are not the
 1
( 0.9) 2 / 3 .( 3) −1 / 2 .   .( 243) − 1 / 4 integers.
 3
1/3 3/4 2/3
Surds : When a root of a rational number (i.e., quantities
 3  1  81  of the type n a , a being a rational number) can not be exactly
    ( 3)1 / 3 .  
 10  3  100 obtained, then this root is called a surd.
= 2/3 1/2
 9  1
    . ( 3) 2 ( 3) − 5 / 4 For Example 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10, etc.
 10  3
3
1 1 3 8 1 4 2, 3 3, 3 4, 3 5, 3 6, 3 7, 3 9, 3 10, ...etc
+ − + − −
33 3 4 3 × 10 3 3 4
= 4 1 5 2
2, 4 3, 4 4, 4 5, 4 6, 4 7,... etc.
+ 2− − −
33 2 4 × 10 3
But 4 = 2, 3 27, 4 16, 5 32, 6 729,... etc are not the surds.
5
−
3 31 /12 × 10 3 3 Thus it can be said that ‘‘all surds are irrational numbers, but
= 19 2
= 3 × 10− 1 = = 0.3 all irrational numbers are not the surds’’.
− 10
3 12 × 10 3
For example π and e are irrational, but not surds.
( 0.6)0 − ( 0.1) − 1
(xii) −1 3 −1
Order of Surds : In a surd n a [ = ( a )1/ n ], the value of n is
 3  3  1
 3 .  +  −  called the order of the surd and a is called the radicand.
2   2  3
−1 The surds of second order are called quadratic surds e.g.,
 1
1− 
 10
5, 6, ( 7) 3/ 2 . The surds of third order are called cubic surds
= e.g., 3, 3 7, (6) 5/ 3 , (9) 2/ 3 . The surds of fourth order are
3
( 3 − 1 ) ( 23 ) × 3 3 × 2− 3 + ( − 3)1
1 − 10 −9 −9 −3 called biquadratic surds e.g., 4 2, 4 3, 4 7, (5) 7/ 4 .
= = = =
3 3 − 1 . 20 − 3 9 − 3 6 2 Mixed Surds : The product of a rational number with a
Hence (a) is the correct option. surd is known as a mixed surd.
9n × 3 2 × ( 3 − n/ 2 ) − 2 − ( 27) n 1 For example, 3 . 2 , 4 7 , 5 . 3 6 , 18 ( = 3 2)
(xiii) =
3 ×2
3m 3
27 Pure Surd : A surd having no rational factor is known as
32n × 32 × 3n − 33n 1 pure surd.
⇒ = 3
3 3 m × 23 3 e.g., 4 2, 3 7, 5 8 etc.
32n + 2 + n − 33n 1 Similar Surds : If the radicands of two or more
⇒ = 3
8 × 33m 3 rationalised surds are same, then these surds are called the
33n + 2 − 33n similar surds. For example, 5, 3 5, 20 ( = 2 5 ) and
⇒ = 3 −3
33m × 8 80 ( = 4 5 ) etc.
3 3 n ( 3 2 − 1) Conjugate or Complementary Surds : For every surd
⇒ = 3 −3
33m × 8 of the form a + b there exists another surd a − b,
⇒ 3 3 n − 3 m = 3 −3 ⇒ 3n − 3m = − 3 ⇒m − n = 1 which is called the conjugate surd of previous surd and
Hence (b) is the correct option. vice-versa.
56 QUANTUM CAT
For example, Laws of Surds
{(2 3 + 5 3 ) and (2 3 − 5 3 )}, {( 7 + 8 ) and a na
(i) n a.b = n a .n b (ii) n =
( 7 − 8 )}, … etc are the pairs of conjugate surds. b nb
Properties of Surds (iii) ( n a ) m = n a m (iv) ( n a ) n = ( a 1/ n ) n = a
1. A quadratic surd cannot be equal to the sum or (v) n m
a = mn a
difference of a rational number and a quadratic surd
e.g., a + b ≠ c or a − b ≠ c, where a , c are Exp. 1) Which one is smaller out of 3 2 and 4 3?
quadratic surds and b is a rational number. Solution 3
2 = ( 2)1 / 3 = 24 /12 = (16)1 /12
2. The product and quotient of two dissimilar quadratic and 4
3 = ( 3)1 / 4 = 3 3 /12 = ( 27)1 /12
6 (Taking the LCM of surd)
surds can not be rational e.g., 2 . 5 = 10 or = 3
2 Hence 3
2< 4
3

3. If a + b = c + d or a − b = c − d , then a = c and Exp. 2) Which one is greatest out of 3 5 , 4 3 , 5 4?

b = d. Solution 3
5 = (5)1 / 3 = (5) 20/ 60 = (5 20)1 / 60 = 60 5 20
4. If a ± b = 0 then a = b = 0 4
3 = ( 3)1 / 4 = ( 3)15 / 60 = ( 315 )1 / 60 = 60 315
5. If a + b = c + d , then a − b = c − d and its 5
4 = ( 4)1 /5 = ( 4)12 / 60 = ( 412 )1 / 60 = 60 412
vice-versa. Obviously 3 5 is the greatest.

6. If a + b = c + d , then a − b = c − d and Exp. 3) If p = 3 5 , q = 4 3, r = 5 4 then the correct

its vice-versa. relationship is :
(a) p > q > r (b) q < r < p
Addition : Only similar surds can be simplified (c) r > p > q (d) can’t be determined
e.g., 2 3 + 7 3 = 9 3 Solution In the previous question we have found that p is the
greatest.
and 8 5 + 3 5 + 20 = 8 5 + 3 5 + 2 5 = 13 5 Again q = 60 315 and r = 60 412
Subtraction : Only similar surds can be simplified Now 315 412
e.g., 7 3 − 2 3 = 5 3 [Here the sign signifies the trichotomy- relation
i.e.,if x y, then either x < y or x = y or x > y]
and 8 5 − 3 5 = 5 5 etc. ⇒ 312 . 3 3 412
NOTE 8 5 ± 2 6 can not be simplified, because radicands are 412
⇒ 33
different. 312
12
Multiplication : 31/ 4 × 61/ 2 × 91/ 3 ⇒ 33
 4
 
 3
=3 3/12
×6 6/12
×9 4/12
⇒ 3 3 (1.33)12
= (3 × 6 × 9 )
3 6 4 1/12
⇒ 3 3 [(1.33) 4 ]3 ⇒ 3 3 < ( 3.16) 3
= (3 3 × 2 6 × 3 6 × 3 8 )1/12 Thus q <r
Hence p > r > q , so (b) is the correct option.
= (317 × 2 6 )1/12
Exp. 4) If 5 5 × 5 3 ÷ 5 − 3/2 = 5 a + 2 then the value of a is :
2 1
25 (5) 2−
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 9 (d) 16
Division : 25 ÷ 5 = = =5 2 = 5 3/ 2 = 125
5 (5)1/ 2 5 5 × 53 a+ 2
Solution =5
5− 3/2
Rationalisation : Making two or more surds a rational 1
4+ 1 3
number by multiplication, is called the rationalisation 5 2 4+ +
⇒ 3
= 5a + 2 ⇒ 5 2 2 = 5a+ 2
e.g., 3 2 × 4 2 = 24 −
5 2
7 5 × 5 = 35 ⇒ 56 = 5a + 2
⇒ 6=a+ 2 ⇒ a= 4
(9 3 − 5 3 ) (9 3 + 5 3 ) = (9 3 ) 2 − (5 3 ) 2 = 168
Hence (a) is the correct option.
Number System 57

2+ 3  1
Exp. 5) Find the value of . r + 
 4
2− 3 9 3 . 3− r
Exp. 9) r = k, then the value of k is
2+ 3 2+ 3 2+ 3 3 . 3− r
Solution = ×
2− 3 2− 3 2+ 3 (a) 3 (b) 3 2 (c) 3 3 (d) r
3
1  1 − r 4r + 1 + 1 − r
(Multiplying numerator and denominator by conjugate) 2r +    3r + 2   2 − r 
2  2  2 r   − 
(2 + 3)2 4 + 3 + 4 3 3 3 3  2   2 
= = Solution r
r
=r 2−r
= 3
1−
4− 3 1 3 2 3 2
=7 + 4 3 2r
= r 32r = 3 r = 32
5−2
Exp. 6) The value of is : Hence (b) is the correct option.
5+2
(a) 4 − 9 5 (b) 9 + 4 5
Exp. 10) If m, n are the positive integers (n > 1) such that
(c) 9 − 4 5 (d) 7 + 4 5 m n = 121, then value of (m − 1) n + 1 is :
5 − 2 ( 5 − 2) ( 5 − 2) (a) 12321 (b) 1
Solution = ×
5 + 2 ( 5 + 2) ( 5 − 2) (c) 1000 (d) 11
( 5 − 2) 2 5 + 4 − 4 5 Solution Q m n = 121 and n > 1
= = =9−4 5
5−4 1 ∴ (11) 2 = 121
Thus (c) is the correct option. ⇒ m = 11 and n = 2
12 30 5 Hence (m − 1) n + 1 = (10) 3 = 1000
Exp. 7) Find the value of × .
Thus (c) is the correct option.
6 6 25 5
1
Solution
5
×
12 30
=
5
×
12 6 5 2
=
Exp. 11) Simplify : 192 − 48 − 75
6 6 25 5 6 6 25 5 5 1
2 4
Solution 192 − 48 − 75 = 8 3 − 3 −5 3
2 2
Exp. 8) Arrange the following in descending order = 8 3 − 2 3 −5 3 = 3
3 − 2, 4− 3 , 5 − 4, 2 − 1.
3 − 2 3 + 2 Exp. 12) Find the square root of 7 − 2 10.
Solution 3− 2 = ×
1 3 + 2 Solution 7 − 2 10 = 5 + 2 − 2 5 × 2
3−2 1 ⇒ 7 − 2 10 = ( 5 ) 2 + ( 2) 2 − 2 5 . 2
= =
3 + 2 3 + 2
⇒ 7 − 2 10 = ( 5 − 2) 2
1 1
Similarly, 4− 3 = , 5 − 4= Thus the 7 − 2 10 = ± ( 5 − 2)
4+ 3 5 + 4 2
1  1 1 
and 2 −1= Exp. 13) Find the value of  +  .
2+ 1  5−2 5 + 2
As we know, if the numerator is same then the fraction whose 2 2
denominator is larger the fraction will be lower.  1 1   5 + 2+ 5 −2
Solution  +  = 
Hence the correct order of descending number is  5 −2 5 + 2 ( 5 − 2) ( 5 + 2) 
( 2 − 1) > ( 3 − 2) > ( 4 − 3 ) > ( 5 − 4)  2 5  4 × 5 20
2

= 2
= = = 20
−  5−4 1
2
 ( 5 ) ( 2)
58 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 1.8

1. In the equation 4 x + 2 = 2 x + 3 + 48, the value of x will be 11. The value of

3 ( a 2 + ab + b2 ) ( b2 + bc + c 2 ) ( c 2 + ca + a 2 )
(a) − (b) −2  xa   xb   xc 
2  b  c  a is :
x  x  x 
(c) −3 (d) 1
(a) −1 (b) x abc
2. Consider the following statements :
(c) 1 (d) x ( a + b + c )
Assertion (A) a 0 = 1, a ≠ 0 b c 2z
12. If a x = by = cz and = , then is equal to :
Reason (R) a m ÷ a n = a m − n , m , n being integers. a b x+ z
Of these statements : y x
(a) (b)
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct x y
explanation of A x z
(c) (d)
(b) both A and R are true and R is not the correct 2 x
explanation of A 13. If a1/ m = b1/ n = c1/ p and abc = 1, then m + n + p is
(c) A is true, but R is false equal to :
(d) A is false, but R is true (a) 0 (b) 2
3. If 3 n = 27 then 3 n − 2 is : (c) 1 (d) −2
(a) 3 (b) 1/3 1 1
l 1− l l −1
(c) 1/9 (d) 9 14. Value of [(x ) ] is :
4. If 4 x+3
×2 x −3
− 128 = 0 then the value of x is : (a) x (b) 1
(c) x −1 (d) x − l
1 2
(a) (b) 15. Which one of the following sets of surds is in correct
3 3
3 4 sequence of ascending order of their values?
(c) (d) 4
3 3 (a) 10 , 3 6 , 3 (b) 3 , 4 10 , 3 6
5. If a m ⋅ a n = a mn , then m (n − 2 ) + n (m − 2 ) is : (c) 3 , 3 6 , 4 10 (d) 4 10 , 3 , 3 6
(a) 0 (b) 1 1 , then the value of x2 − 6 + 1 is :
16. If x =
1 2 −1 x2
(c) −1 (d)
2 (a) 0 (b) 1
66 + 66 + 66 + 66 + 66 + 66 46 + 46 + 46 + 46 (c) 2 (d) can’t be determined
6. ÷ = 2n ,
36 + 36 + 36 26 + 26 17. The value of
3 ,
when its denominator is a rational
then the value of n is : 5 4 27
(a) −1 (b) 0 number :
1 2 4
(c) (d) 1 3 3
(a) (b)
2 6 5
3
7. If x y = y x and y = 2 x, then x is equal to : (c)
4
(d) none of these
(a) 2 (b) −2 5
(c) 1 (d) −1 7 3 −5 2
18. The value of denominator when is
x+3 2x − 5 3x + 7 18 +
8. If 2 ⋅4 =2 , then the value of x is : 48
(a) 3 (b) 4 rationalised :
(c) 6 (d) 7 (a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 50
−2/3 19. If 5 + 3
x = 3 , then the value of x is :
9. 9 3 /2
÷ (243 ) simplifies to :
(a) 310 /3 (b) 319 /3 (a) 9 (b) 27
(c) 31/3 (d) 319 (c) 64 (d) 343
10. The solution of (25 )x − 2 = (125 )2x − 4 : 20. If A = 2 , B = 3 3 and C = 4
4 then which of the relation
(a) 3/4 (b) 0 is correct?
(c) 2 (d) −2 (a) A > B > C (b) A > B = C
(c) A = C < B (d) none of these
Number System 59

Solution Consider n = 3 then

1.9 Factorials, Last Digits and
3! − 3 = 3
Remainders ⇒ 6− 3 = 3
⇒ 3=3
Factorial
Hence (d) is the correct answer.
The product of n consecutive natural numbers (or positive
integers) starting from 1 to n is called as the factorial ‘n’. Exp. 5) The appropriate value of P for the relation
i.e., n! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6.... ( n − 2) ( n − 1) n ( P ! + 1) = ( P + 1) 2 is :
(a) 3 (b) 4
So, the 4! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 = 4 × 3 × 2 × 1
(c) 5 (d) none of these
5! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 Solution Let us consider P = 4 then
6! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 = 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 4! + 1 = ( 4 + 1) 2
NOTE 1. Factorial n is written as ‘‘n! ’’. 2. 0 ! = 1 and 1! = 1 ⇒ 24 + 1 = 5 2
Properties ⇒ 25 = 25
1. n! is always an even number if n ≥ 2 Hence (b) is the correct option.

2. n! always ends with zero if n ≥ 5 Exp. 6) The value of 8 ! ÷ 4 ! is :

(a) 4 (b) 16 (c) 2 (d) 1680
Exp. 1) If m n − m = (m − n) ! where m > n > 1 and m = n 2 , 8! 8 . 7 . 6 . 5 . 4 . 3 . 2 . 1
then the value of m 2 + n 2 is : Solution =
4! 4. 3 . 2.1
(a) 272 (b) 90
= 8 . 7 . 6 . 5 = 1680
(c) 20 (d) none of (a), (b), (c)
Hence (d) is the correct option.
Solution Let us consider n = 2 (Q n > 1)
Then m n − m = 42 − 4 = 12 (Q m = n2 ) Exp. 7) If n ! = (n + 4) ! , then the value of n is :
and (m − n)! = ( 4 − 2)! = 2! = 2 (n + 1) !
Hence it is impossible. (a) 5 (b) 18 (c) 6 (d) 9
(n + 4)!
Again consider n = 3, then Solution n! =
m n − m = 93 − 9 = 720 (n + 1)!
1 . 2 . 3....n .(n + 1) (n + 2) (n + 3) (n + 4)
and (m − n)! = ( 9 − 3)! = 6! = 720 ⇒ n! =
1 . 2 . 3 ... n .(n + 1)
Thus we get n = 3 and m = 9 the probable values
Now m 2 + n2 = 92 + 3 2 = 81 + 9 = 90 ⇒ n! = (n + 2) (n + 3) (n + 4)
n! = (n + 2) (n + 3) (n + 4)
Hence (b) is the correct option.
now 5! ≠ 7 × 8 × 9
Exp. 2) If P + P ! = P 3 , then the value of P is : and 18! ≠ 20 × 21 × 22
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 0 (d) 5 and 9! ≠ 11 × 12 × 13
Solution Consider P = 5, then but 6! = 8 × 9 × 10
720 = 720
5 + 5! = 53
Hence n = 6 is the correct answer, thus (c) is the right choice.
5 + 120 = 125
125 = 125 Exp. 8) The value of
Thus (d) is correct option. (1.2. 3...9) .(11.12.13...19).( 21.22.23...29). ( 31 . 32 . 33... 39).
(41.42.43…49) (51. 52.53…59)…(91.92…99)
Exp. 3) If P + P ! = P 2 , then the value of P is :
100! 99!
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 3 (d) 0 (a) (b)
36288 × 1011 388 × 1011
Solution Consider P = 3 then 99!
(c) (d) can’t be determined
3 + 3! = 32; 36288 × 1010
⇒ 3 + 6 = 9 ⇒9 = 9 Solution (1. 2. 3... 9).(11.12.13...19) .( 21. 22. 23... 29) …
Hence (c) is the correct option. …. ( 91 . 92 . 93.... 99)
Exp. 4) If n ! − n = n, then the value of n is : 10 20
= (1 . 2 . 3 ... 9) (11 . 12 . 13 ... 19)
10 20
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3
60 QUANTUM CAT
30 = (2 × 5) 2 × 15
( 21 . 23 . 23 ... 29) ...( 91 . 92 . 93 ... 99)
30
1 . 2 . 3 ... 99 99! 99! = 100 × 15 =1500
= = =
10 . 20 . 30 ... 90 362880 × 109 36288 × 1010 Thus there are only two zeros at the end of the product since
Hence (c) is the correct option. there are only two combinations of ‘‘5 × 2’’.
NOTE The number of zeros at the end of the product depends
Exp. 9) The expression 1 ! + 2 ! + 3 ! + 4 ! + ... + n ! (where upon 2 × 5, but the condition is that
n ≥ 5) is not a/an : (i) 2k × 5l gives k number of zeros if k < l
(a) composite number (b) odd number (ii) 2k × 5l gives l number of zeros if l < k
(c) perfect square (d) multiple of 3
Solution 1! + 2! + 3 ! + 4! + 5 ! = 1 + 2 + 6 + 24 + 120 = 153 Exp. 1) Find the number of zeros in the product of 10!.
Since, the options (a), (b) and (d) are ruled out so the remaining Solution 10! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 × 8 × 9 × 10
option (c) is the correct one.
It is obvious from the above expression that there are only two 5s
Exp. 10) The HCF and LCM of 13! and 31 ! are and eight 2s.
respectively : Since the number of 5s are less (than the number of 2’s) so the
number of 5s will be effective to form the combination of ‘5 × 2’.
(a) 12! and 32! (b) 13! and 31!
Thus there are only 2 zeros at the end of the product of 10!.
(c) 26 and 403 (d) can’t be determined
Solution Since 13! is contained in 31! so the LCM is 31! and 13! Exp. 2) Find the number of zeros at the end of the
is common in 13! and 31!, so the HCF is 13! product of 2 222 × 5555 .
Number of zeros at the end of the product Solution Since the number of 2s are less than the number of 5s
hence the restriction is imposed by the number of 2s.
We know that 10 = 5 × 2, 100 = 5 2 × 2 2 , 1000 = 5 3 × 2 3 etc. Thus there can be only 222 pairs of (5 × 2). Hence the number of
So we can say that for n number of zeros at the end of the zeros at the end of the product of the given expression will be 222.
product we need exactly n combinations of ‘‘5 × 2’’. For Exp. 3) Find the number of zeros at the end of the
example. product of the expression
2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 210. There is only one zero at the end of the 21 × 5 2 × 2 3 × 5 4 × 25 × 5 6 × 2 7 × 5 8 × 2 9 × 510 .
product (or resultant value) Solution Since the number of 2’s are less than the number of 5’s
Again, 2 × 3 × 5 × 6 × 7 × 15 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 2 × 3 × 7 × 3 × 5 hence number of 2s will be effective. Thus
=2×2 × 5×5 × 3× 3 × 3× 7 21 × 23 × 25 × 27 × 29 × 5 2 × 5 4 × 5 6 × 5 8 × 510

= 100 × 189 =18900 = 225 × 5 30 = 225 × 5 25 × 55 = ( 2 × 5) 25 × 55

Thus there are two zeros because there are two combinations = 1025 × 55 = 55 × 1025
of ‘‘5 × 2’’. Thus there will be 25 zeros at the end of the product of the given
expression.
Now, 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 × 8 × 9
=1 × 2 × 3 × 2 × 2 × 5 × 2 × 3 × 7 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 Exp. 4) The number of zeros at the end of the expression
=1 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 7 10 + 100 + 1000 + ... + 10000000000 is :
(a) 1 (b) 10
= 1 × 27 × 5 × 34 × 7 (c) 55 (d) none of these
=1 × 2 6 × 2 × 5 × 3 4 × 7 Solution
10
= 10 × 2 6 × 3 4 × 7 100
= 10 × 64 × 81 × 7 1000
.........
.........
= 10 × 36288 = 362880 10000000000
Thus there is only one zero at the end of the product since 11111111110
there is only one combination of 5 × 2.. Thus there is only one zero at the end of resut.
Again 4 × 125 × 3 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 3 Hence (a) is the correct option.
= 22 × 53 × 3 = 22 × 52 × 5 × 3
Number System 61

Exp. 5) The number of zeros at the end of the product of Now, if we try to do it manually, we see that there are
the expression 10 × 100 × 1000 × 10000 × ... 10000000000 is : 10 multiples of 3 viz., 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30. But,
(a) 10 (b) 100 there are some multiples which contains 3 at least two times
(c) 50 (d) 55 for Example 9), 18 and 27.
Solution 10 × 100 × 1000 × ...10000000000 Again there are some multiples which contain 3 three times
= 101 × 102 × 103 × ... × 1010 as in 27. Thus the factor 3 totally occurs 14 ( = 10 + 3 + 1)
= 10(1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 10) = 1055 times in 30!.
Hence (d) is the correct option. Hence you can understand that how tedious the calculation
Exp. 6) Number of zeros at the end of the following could be if we have to find the highest power of 3 that can
exactly divide 9235!
expression (5 !) 5! + (10 !) 10! + (50 !) 50! + (100 !) 100! is :
(a) 165 (b) 120 Therefore to make the calculation easier we can use the
(c) 125 (d) none of these following formula.
Solution The number of zeros at the end of (5 !)5 ! = 120 Suppose we have to find the highest power of k that can
[Q5 ! = 120 and thus (120)120 will give 120 zeros] exactly divided n!, we divide n by k , n by k 2 , n by k 3 ...and so
and the number of zeros at the end of the (10!)10! , (50!)50! and  n 
on till we get  x  equal to 1 (where, [ P ] means the greatest
(100!)100! will be greater than 120. Now since the number of zeros k 
at the end of the whole expression will depends on the number integer less than or equal to P) and then add up as
which has the least number of zeros at the end of the number
among other given numbers. So, the number of zeros at the end  n  n   n   n   n 
 k  +  k 2  +  k 3  +  k 4  +… +  k x 
of the given expression is 120.        
Divisibility of a Factorial Number by the NOTE For more information about greatest integer number (or
function) i.e., GIF refer the chapter ‘‘FUNCTIONS’’.
Largest Power of Any Number
Let us start with very simple example. As if we consider 1!, Exp. 1) Find the largest power of 5 contained in 124!
2!, 3! or 4!, none of them is divisible by 5, because 5 is not 124  124 
Solution  + = 24 + 4 = 28
the factor, involved in the given factorial number.  5   5 2 
Now, if we consider any factorial number greater than 4!, [We cannot do it further since 124 is not divisible by 5 3 ]
every number consists of 5 or the higher powers of 5 in the Hence, there are 28 times 5 involved as a factor in 124!
factorial numbers. For example starting from 5! every
Exp. 2) Find the largest power of 2 that can divide 268!
number has 5 as its factor. That is
5! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5  268   268   268   268 
Solution  + + +
6!= 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6  2   22   23   24 
 268   268   268   268 
7! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 +  5 +  6 +  7 +  8 
 2   2  2  2 
… … … … …
= 134 + 67 + 33 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 265
10! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 × 8 × 9 × 10 etc.
Thus the greatest power of 2 is 265 that can divide exactly 268!
Thus it is obvious that every number greater than 4! is Dear students you might have noticed that if we further increase
divisible by 5. But, as we move towards higher number we the value of n! and consider a slightly higher prime. Number say
find that the frequency of the occurrence of 5 (or any 7,13, 17, 19 etc. for the divisibility, then we feel the real pain in
particular number) increases. As 5! contains only one 5, 10! solving the problem, since we don’t know the values of higher
powers of these divisors say 17 4 , 175 , 198 , 199 , ... etc. So this
contains two 5s, 15! contains three 5s, 20! contains four
formula in this present form is not appropriate.
5s but 25! contains suddenly six 5s instead of five 5s. So it
Now you must have noticed that we consider only integral
becomes a very tedious work to calculate the occurrence of values of the quotient q as [q] which gives an integer just less
any particular number involved as a factor of any higher than or equal to q. So we can do this calculation slightly in a
factorial number. easier manner.
Similarly, we can find that how many times 3 is contained in Here we just divide the given number and then the succeeding
the 30! or in other words what is the largest power of 3 that quotients will be divided by the same remainder as in the case of
successive division. So, for better understanding we can solve
can divide 30!
the previous problem in this manner as follows.
62 QUANTUM CAT
2 268 [Divide successive quotients till Thus the highest power of 10 is 249 which can divide 1000!
you get 0 as the last quotient] Q 2994 × 5 249 ⇒ 2745 × 2249 × 5 249 
2 134 →   
2 67 →   ⇒ 2745 × (10) 249 

2 33 →  Exp. 5) Find the number of zeros at the end of 1000!

2 16 →  265 (Add up all the quotients) Solution Since we know that the zeros at the end of any product

2 8 →  are due to the presence of 10 as the factor of the product and the
 number of zeros depends upon the number of times 10 is
2 4 → 
involved. For example if there are seven 10s (i.e., 7 combinations of
2 2 →  5 × 2) in the n!, then the number of zeros at the end of n! will be 7.

2 1 → But, since we have solved the same problem previous to this
problem so we can conclude that the number of 10s in 1000! is
0
249. Hence the number of zeros at the end of the 1000! is 249.
So we can frankly say that this method of calculation is easy
since we need not to know the values of 21 , 22 , 23 , 24 , ..., 28 etc. Exp. 6) The number of zeros at the end of 100! is :
x
Also the division by 2 is easier than the division by 2 , where x is (a) 25 (b) 50
any large integer. (c) 24 (d) 100
Exp. 3) Find the largest power of 7 that can exactly Solution 2 100
divide 777! 2 50 →
Solution 7 777 2 25 →

7 111 → 
2 12 →  97
2 6 →
7 15 →  128 
 2 3 →
7 2 →
1 → 
0
and 5 100
Thus the highest power of 7 is 128 by which 777! can be
completely divided. 5 20 → 24

4 →
Exp. 4) Find the largest value of n in the 10 n which can
So, there will be only 24 combinations of 5 × 2, it means there
exactly divide 1000!
will be 24 zeros at the end of 100!.
Solution Since 10 is made up of 5 and 2 i.e., 10 = 2 × 5.
Hence (c) is the correct answer.
So you can see that before 10! there is the presence of 10 in 5!, 6!,
7!, 8! or 9!. Exp. 7) Find the highest power of 63 which can
So 10n = (5 × 2) n = 5 n × 2n completely divide 6336!.
Thus we find the powers of 2 and 5 individually Solution 63 = 3 2 × 7
Since this technique is applicable only for the prime factors. So
2 1000
we solve it by breaking 63 in its prime factors.
2 500 →
3 6336
2 250 →
 3 2112 → 
2 125 →
and 5 1000 
2 62 → 3 704 → 
 5 200 →
2 31 →  994  3 234 → 
 5 40 →  249 
→ 
2 15
 3 78 →  3164
5 8 →
2 7 →  
1 → 3 26 →

2 3 → 
3 8 →
1 →
2 →
So there is 2 and 5 249 but we can make only 249 combinations
994

due to the restriction imposed by the lower power of 5!.

Number System 63

and 7 6336 Exp. 9) Find the highest power of 81 that can completely
7 905 → divide 1800!.
 Solution 81 = 3 4
7 129 → 1054
 3 1800
7 18 → So,
 3 600 →
2 →
3 200 →

Q 63 = 9 × 7 = 3 2 × 7 3 66 → 897
∴ Since to make a 9 we need 3 × 3 i.e, two times. So we divide 3 22 →
3164 by 2 and get 1582. 
3 7 →
So 3 3164 × 71054
2 →
⇒ 91582 × 71054
Thus we get 3 897 . But we need 81.
Thus the largest power of 63 is 1054. That can completely divide Now since 81 = 3 4
6336!
Therefore 3 897 = ( 3 4 ) 224 × 31 = ( 81) 224 × 3.
Exp. 8) Find the highest power of 40 which can Therefore the highest power of 81 is 224 which can divide
completely divide 4000! completely 1800! so ( 81) 224 can divide 1800!
Solution 40 = 8 × 5 = 23 × 5 NOTE Sometimes for your convenience you can skip some
unnecessary calculation. As if you are asked to find the highest power
So, 2 4000
of 30 which can completely divide 1357!
2 2000 →
 Since 30 = 2 × 3 × 5. Now if you have been serious while doing the
2 1000 →  previous examples so you can conclude that you need not to solve to
2 500 →  find the highest powers of 2 and 3. What you need is just to find the

highest power of 5 (which is the greatest factor therefore it occurs
2 250 → 
 least frequently) and as you know that the least frequent factor
2 125 →  impose the restriction and hence it is the only effective value. Hence
 we just calculate the highest power of 5 and get the required result.
2 62 →  3994
 Still there are some special points which are really difficult to explain
2 31 →  on the paper.
2 15 →  These points can be effectively explained only in the classroom by

2 7 →  teacher and last but not the least if you are intelligent enough so you
2 3 →  can pick up these subtle but the important points by yourself as you
 are learning the concept religiously. Please note that there can be
1 →  some shortcuts which I have not mentioned because it is difficult to
and 5 4000 explain exactly on paper and even some students don’t fathom the
logic of the shortcut. So it becomes dangerous and hence it is better
5 800 →
 to find the shortcuts by themselves just by intensive practice or
5 160 →  seeking the help of an expert.
5 32 →  999
 Concept of Unit Digit
5 6 →

1 → Look at the following :
1×5 =5
Now since 23m × 5 n = 8m × 5 n
3 × 5 = 15
∴ 23994 × 5 999 = ( 23 )1331 × 2 × 5 999
5 × 5 = 25
⇒ 2 × ( 81331 × 5 999 ) 7 × 5 = 35
⇒ 2 × 8332 × ( 8 × 5) 999 9 × 5 = 45
Thus the highest power of 40 is 999 that can completely 11 × 5 = 55
divide 4000!. … … … …
… … … …
64 QUANTUM CAT
i.e., if the number whose last digit is 5, is multiplied by Exp. 3) Find the unit digit of 135 × 361 × 970.
any odd number, the unit digit of the product will always Solution The unit digit can be obtained by multiplying the unit
be 5. digits 5, 1, 0. then 5 × 1 × 0 = 0 thus the unit digit will be zero.
For example
Exp. 4) Find the unit digit of the product of all the odd prime
13 × 15 = 195, 19 × 35 = 665 etc. numbers.
Now, 2 × 5 = 10 Solution The odd prime numbers are 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19...etc.
4 × 5 = 20 Now we know that if 5 is multiplied by any odd number it always
gives the last digit 5. So the required unit digit will be 5.
6 × 5 = 30
8 × 5 = 40 Cyclicity of the Unit Digit
10 × 5 = 50 Now, look at the following
12 × 5 = 60 1 ×1 =1
… … … … 1 ×1 ×1 =1
… … … … 1 ×1 ×1 ×1 =1
1 × 1 × 1 × 1 × 1 = 1 etc.
i.e., if the number whose last is 5, is multiplied by any
even number (including zero), the unit digit of the 21 = 2
product is always zero. For example 22 = 2 × 2 = 4
82 × 15 = 1230, 23 = 2 × 2 × 2 = 8
24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 16
and 156 × 45 = 7020
25 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 32
and 62 × 13 × 65 = 52390 etc.
26 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 64
Now we will discuss that the unit digit of the resultant 27 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 128
value depends upon the unit digits of all the
28 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 256
participating numbers i.e.,
29 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 512
12 + 17 + 13 + 47 = 89 210 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 1024
Thus it is clear that the unit digit of the resultant value 211 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 2048
89 depends upon the unit digits 2, 7, 3, 7. 212 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 4096
Similarly, 6 × 7 × 9 = 378 Similarly 31 = 3
3 × 7 × 8 = 168 32 = 9
So we can find out the unit digit of the resultant value 3 3 = 27
only by solving the unit digits of the given expression. 3 4 = 81
Exp. 1) Find the unit digit of 3 5 = 243
123 + 345 + 780 + 65 + 44. 3 6 = 729
Solution We can find the unit digit just by adding the unit
3 7 = 2187
digits 3, 5, 0, 5, 4 as
3 8 = 6561
3 + 5 + 0 + 5 + 4 = 17
So the unit digit (or the last digit) of the resultant value of 3 9 = 19683 etc.
the expression 123 + 345 + 780 + 65 + 44 will be 7. (you can Similarly, 41 = 4
verify it by doing the whole sum)
4 2 = 16
Exp. 2) Find the unit digit of 676 × 543 × 19. 4 3 = 64
Solution We can find the unit digit of the product of the 4 4 = 256
given expression just by multiplying the unit digits (6, 3, 9) 4 5 = 1024
instead of doing the whole sum.
4 6 = 4096
Thus 6 × 3 × 9 = 162
Hence, the unit digit of the product of the given expression Thus we can say that the unit digit follows a periodic pattern that is
will be 2. (you can verify it by doing the complete sum) after a particular period it repeats in a cyclic form.
Number System 65

The unit digit of 21 , 2 5 , 2 9 , 213 , ... is the same which is 2. Exp. 2) Find the unit digit of (12) 78 .
Similarly 2 2 , 2 6 , 210 , 214 , .... etc. has the same unit digit, Solution The unit digit of (12) 78 will be same as ( 2) 78 . Now
since we know that the cyclic period of unit digit of 2 is 4. The
which is 4. remainder when 78 is divided by 4 is 2. Hence the unit digit of
Again the last digit of 31 is 3. 278 will be same as 22 which is 4. Thus the unit digit of 1278 is 4.
and the last digit of 3 2 is 9.
Exp. 3) Find the unit digit of ( 33) 123 .
and the last digit of 3 3 is 7.
Solution Since we know that the unit digit of ( 33)123 will be
and the last digit of 3 4 is 1. same as ( 3)123 . Now the unit-digit of 3123 will be 7 since it will be
and the last digit of 3 5 is 3. equal to the unit digit of 3 3 .
and the last digit of 3 6 is 9. Thus the unit digit of ( 3)123 is 7.
and the last digit of 3 7 is 7.
Exp. 4) Find the unit digit of 3 47 + 7 52 .
and the last digit of 3 8 is 1.
Solution The unit digit of the given expression will be equal to
Thus the last digit must follow a pattern. It can be seen that the unit digit of the sum of the unit digits of both the terms
the last digit of 2 repeats after every four steps and the last individually.
digit of 4 repeats after every 2 steps. Now, unit digit of 3 47 is 7 (since it will be equal to 3 3 ) and the
NOTE unit digit of 752 is 1 (since it will be equal to 7 4 )
1. The last digit (or unit digit) of 0, 1, 5 and 6 is always the Thus the unit digit of 3 47 + 752 is 7 + 1 = 8.
same irrespective of their powers raised to them.
2. The last digit of 4 and 9 follows the pattern of odd-even Exp. 5) Find the unit digit of
i.e., their period is 2. 3 6 × 4 7 × 6 3 × 7 4 × 8 2 × 95 .
3. The last digit of 2, 3, 7, 8 repeats after every 4 steps i.e., Solution The unit digit of 3 6 is 9
their cyclic period is 4.
The unit digit of 47 is 4
Exp. 1) Find the last digit of 2 35 . The unit digit of 63 is 6
Solution The last digit of 2 ⇒ 2 1
The unit digit of 7 4 is 1
2 ⇒4
2
The unit digit of 82 is 4
23 ⇒ 8 The unit digit of 95 is 9
2 ⇒6
4 Therefore the unit digit of the given expression is 6, (since
9 × 4 × 6 × 1 × 4 × 9 = 7776).
25 ⇒ 2
Since its cyclic period is four , it means the unit digit of 2 will Exp. 6) Find the unit digit of 111! (factorial 111).
repeat after every 4 steps. Hence we can say that the last digit of Solution 111! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × ... × 110 × 111
21 , , 25 , 29 , 213 , 217 , 221 , 225 , 229 , 233 , 237 is the same and the last Since there is a product of 5 and 2 hence it will give zero as the
digit of 22 , 26 , 210 , 214 , 218 , ..., 230 , 234 , 238 is same and the last unit digit.
digit of 23 , 27 , 211 , ..., 231 , 235 , 239 is same and the last digit of Hence the unit digit of 111! is 0 (zero).
24 , 28 , 212 , 216, ..., 232 , 236 , 240 etc. is same.
Exp. 7) Find the unit digit of the product of all the prime
Hence the last digit of 235 is 8. number between 1 and (11) 11 .
Alternatively You can see that the powers which are
Solution The set of prime number S = {2, 3 ,5 , 7 , 11, 13 , ...}
divisible by 4 (i.e., cyclic period) give the same unit digit as 24 . As
28 , 212 , 216 , ... etc. Since there is one 5 and one 2 which gives 10 after multiplying
mutually, it means the unit digit will be zero.
Again the powers which leave the remainder 1 when divided by
4 (which is the cyclic period) give the same unit digit as 21 . As Exp. 8) Find the unit digit of the product of all the
25 , 29 , 213 , ... etc. elements of the set which consists all the prime numbers
Similarly the powers which leave the remainder 2 when divided greater than 2 but less than 222.
by 4, give the same unit digit as 22 . As 26 , 210 , 214 , 218 , … etc. Solution The set of required prime numbers = { 3 , 5 , 7 , 11, ...}
Similarly the powers which leave the remainder 3 when divided Since there is no any even number in the set so when 5 is
by 4 give the same unit digit as 23 . As 27 , 211 , 215 , … etc. multiplied with any odd number, it always gives 5 as the last
Since when 35 is divided by 4, the remainder is 3. Hence, the unit digit.
digit of 235 is equal to the unit digit of 23 , which is equal Hence the unit digit will be 5.
to 8.
66 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 9) Find the last digit of 222 888 + 888 222 . Therefore
=1× 8+ 4×1+ 4+ 8
Solution The last digit of the expression will be same as the last
= 8 + 4 + 4 + 8 = 24
digit of 2888 + 8222 .
Thus the unit digit of the whole expression is 4.
Now the last digit of 2888 is 6 and the last digit of the 8222 is 4.
Thus the last digit of 2888 + 8222 is 0 (zero), since 6 + 4 = 10. Exp. 14) The unit digit of the expression
1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 × 8 × 9 × 10
Exp. 10) Find the last digit of 32 3232 . is :
100
32 32
Solution The last digit of 3232 is same as 232 . (a) 7 (b) 9
32
32 × 32 × 32 × … × 32 times (c) 8 (d) none of these
But 2 32
=2
32 32
Solution Since in the numerator of the product of the
⇒ 2 = 24 × 8 × (32 × 32 × … × 31 times) expression there will be 2 zeros at the end and these two zeros
32
⇒ 232 = 24 n , will be cancelled by 2 zeros of the denominator. Hence finally
we get a non-zero unit digit in the expression.
where n = 8 × ( 32 × 32 × … × 31 times)
1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 × 8 × 9 × 10
Again 24n = (16) n ⇒ unit digit is 6, for every n ∈ N Now,
100
Hence, the required unit digit = 6.
1 × 28 × 3 4 × 5 2 × 71
=
Exp. 11) Find the last digit of the expression : 5 2 × 22
12 + 22 + 3 2 + 42 + .... + 1002 . = 1 × 26 × 3 4 × 7

Solution The unit digit of the whole expression will be equal to Therefore, the unit digit of the given expression will be same as
the unit digit of the sum of the unit digits of the expression. that of 1 × 26 × 3 4 × 7.
Now adding the unit digits of 12 + 22 + 3 2 + ... + 102 we get Now, the unit digit of 1 × 26 × 3 4 × 7 is 8.
1 + 4 + 9 + 6 + 5 + 6 + 9 + 4 + 1 + 0 = 45 (Q the product of unit digits of 1, 26 , 3 4 , 7 is 1 × 4 × 1 × 7 = 28)
Hence, the unit digit of 12 + 22 + 22 + ... + 102 is 5. 10!
Hence, the unit digit of is 8.
Now since there are 10 similar columns of numbers which will 100
yield the same unit digit 5. Hence the sum of unit digits of all the Exp. 15) Find the unit digit of the expression
10 columns is 50 ( = 5 + 5 + 5 + … + 5).
Hence, the unit digit of the given expression is 0 (zero). 8889235 ! + 2229235 ! + 6662359 ! + 9999999 ! .

Exp. 12) Find the unit digit of 11 + 2 2 + 3 3 + ... 1010 . Solution First of all we individually need to find the unit digit
Solution The unit digit of 1 = 1 1 individually of all the four terms

The unit digit of 22 = 4 So, the unit digit of 8889235! is equal to the unit digit of 89235!
Now, the unit digit of 89235! is equal to the unit of 84 (since 9235!
The unit digit of 3 3 = 7 is divisible by 4), which is 6.
The unit digit of 44 = 6 Again the unit digit of is 2229235! is equal to the unit digit of 29235!
The unit digit of 5 = 5 5
and the unit digit of 29235! is same as that of 24 which is 6, since
The unit digit of 66 = 6 9235! is divisible by 4. Further the unit digit of 6662359! is 6, which
The unit digit of 7 7 = 3 is always constant for all the powers except zero and the unit
The unit digit of 88 = 6 digit of 9999999! is 1 since the value of 9999! is even.
Thus the unit digit of the expression is 9. (Q 6 + 6 + 6 + 1 = 19)
The unit digit of 99 = 9
The unit digit of 1010 = 0 Exp. 16) The last digit of the following expression is :
Thus the unit digit of the given expression will be 7. (1!)1 + ( 2!) 2 + ( 3 !) 3 + ( 4!) 4 + ... + (10!)10
(Q 1 + 4 + 7 + 6 + 5 + 6 + 3 + 6 + 9 = 47) (a) 4 (b) 5
Exp. 13) Find the unit digit of (c) 6 (d) 7
13 24 × 6857 + 2413 × 57 68 + 1234 + 5678. Solution The unit digit of the given expression will be equal to
the unit digit of the sum of the unit digits of every term of the
Solution The unit digit of 3 24 is 1 expression.
The unit digit of 857 is 8 Now, The unit digit of (1!) 2 = 1
The unit digit of 413 is 4
The unit digit of ( 2!) 2 = 4
The unit digit of 7 68 is 1
The unit digit of ( 3 !) 3 = 6
Number System 67

The unit digit of ( 4!) 4 = 6 10. a 3 + b 3 = ( a + b) ( a 2 + b 2 − ab)

The unit digit of (5 !) = 0
5
11. a 3 − b 3 = ( a − b) ( a 2 + b 2 + ab)
The unit digit of ( 6!) = 0
6
12. a 3 + b 3 + c 3 − 3abc = ( a + b + c)
Thus the unit digit of the (7 !) 7 , ( 8!) 8 , ( 9!) 9 , (10!)10 will be zero.
So, the unit digit of the given expression = 7 ( a 2 + b 2 + c 2 − ab − bc − ac)
(Q1 + 4 + 6 + 6 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 = 17) The above rules are used widely. But these are important in
Exp. 17) The last 5 digits of the following expression finding the square, cube, etc. of a number besides helping as
will be (1 !) 5 + ( 2 !) 4 + ( 3 !) 3 + ( 4 !) 2 + (5 !) 1 + (10 !) 5 find digits the remainder or divisibility of a number.
+ (100!) 4 + (1000!) 3 + (10000!) 2 + (100000!) 1. a n + b n is divisible by ( a + b), when n is odd.
(a) 45939 (b) 00929
2. a n + b n is never divisible by ( a − b)
(c) 20929 (d) can’t be determined
Solution The last digit of (1!)5 = 1 3. a n + b n is not divisible by ( a + b), when n is even.
The last digit of ( 2!) 4 = 16 4. a n − b n is always divisible by ( a − b)
The last digit of ( 3 !) = 216
3

5. a n − b n is divisible by ( a + b) only, when n is even.

The last digit of ( 4!) 2 = 576
The last digit of (5 !)1 = 120 6. a n − b n is not divisible by ( a + b), when n is odd.
The last 5 digit of (10!)5 = 00000
Exp. 1) Find the value of 107 × 107 − 93 × 93
The last 5 digit of (100!) 4 = 00000
Solution (107) 2 − ( 93) 2 [Q a 2 − b 2 = ( a + b) ( a − b)]
The last 5 digit of (1000!) 3 = 00000
= (107 + 93) (107 − 93) = 200 × 14 = 2800
The last 5 digit of(10000!) 2 = 00000
Exp. 2) Find the value of 734856 × 9999.
The last 5 digit of(100000!)1 = 00000
Solution 734856 × 9999 = 734856 × (10000 − 1)
Thus the last 5 digits of the given expression = 00929
[Q 1 + 16 + 216 + 576 + 120 + 00000 + 00000 = 7348560000 − 734856 = 7347825144
+ 00000 + 00000 + 00000 = 00929] Exp. 3) 6798 × 223 + 6798 × 77 = k , then the value of k
will be
Involution (a) 2034900 (b) 3029400 (c) 2039400 (d) none
As in the previous articles we have studied that a . a . a... Solution 6798 × 223 + 6798 × 77 = 6798 ( 223 + 77)
(n times) = a n . So the process of multiplication of a number = 6798 ( 300) = 2039400
several times by itself is known as INVOLUTION. Exp. 4) 123 × 123 + 77 × 77 + 2 × 123 × 77 = ?
Similarly, we use the same method in some algebraic Solution 123 × 123 + 77 × 77 + 2 × 123 × 77
expressions as follows : = (123) 2 + (77) 2 + 2 × 123 × 77
1. ( a + b) 2 = a 2 + b 2 + 2ab = ( a + b) ( a + b) = (123 + 77) 2 [( a + b) 2 = a 2 + b 2 + 2ab]
2. ( a − b) = a + b − 2ab = ( a − b) ( a − b)
2 2 2
= ( 200) = 40000
2

3. ( a + b + c) 2 = a 2 + b 2 + c 2 + 2( ab + bc + ca ) Exp. 5) ( 941 + 149) 2 + ( 941 − 149) 2

=?
= ( a + b + c) ( a + b + c) ( 941 × 941 + 149 × 149)
4. ( a + b) = a 3 + b 3 + 3ab ( a + b)
3
( 941 + 149) 2 + ( 941 − 149) 2
Solution
( 941 × 941 + 149 × 149)
5. ( a − b) 3 = a 3 − b 3 − 3ab ( a − b)
( a + b) 2 + ( a − b) 2 ( a 2 + b 2 + 2ab) + ( a 2 + b 2 − 2ab)
6. ( a + b + c) 3 = a 3 + b 3 + c 3 + 3( a + b) ( b + c) ( c + a ) Q =
a 2 + b2 ( a 2 + b2 )
7. ( a + b) 2 = ( a − b) 2 + 4ab 2( a 2 + b 2 )
= =2
8. ( a − b) = ( a + b) − 4ab
2 2 ( a 2 + b2 )
Hence, the value of the given expression is 2. So you need not
9. a 2 − b 2 = (a + b) ( a − b)
calculate the given numbers in the expression, where
a = 941, b = 149.
68 QUANTUM CAT
888 × 888 × 888 − 222 × 222 × 222 Exp. 10) What is the value of
Exp. 6) = ?
888 × 888 + 888 × 222 + 222 × 222 2.75 × 2.75 × 2.75 − 2.25 × 2.25 × 2.25
?
888 × 888 × 888 − 222 × 222 × 222 2.75 × 2.75 + 2.75 × 2.25 + 2.25 × 2.25
Solution
888 × 888 + 888 × 222 + 222 × 222 Solution Q a 3 − b 3 = ( a − b) ( a 2 + b 2 + ab)
( 888) 3 − ( 222) 3
= a 3 − b3 ( a − b) ( a 2 + b 2 + ab)
( 888) + 888 × 222 + ( 222) 2
2 ∴ = = ( a − b)
( a + b + ab)
2 2
( a 2 + b 2 + ab)
( 888) 3 − ( 222) 3
= ∴ The value of the expression = 2.75 − 2.25 = 0.50
( 888) + 888 × 222 + ( 222) 2
2

Exp. 11) If ( a + b ) = 17 and ( a − b ) = 1, then the value

= 888 − 222
 a 3 − b3 ( a − b) ( a 2 + b 2 + ab)  of ab is :
Q 2 =  (a) 72 (b) 27
 ( a + b + ab) ( a 2 + b 2 + ab)
2
 (c) 35 (d) none of these
 = ( a − b) 
Solution ( x + y) 2 − ( x − y) 2 = ( x 2 + y 2 + 2xy) − ( x 2 + y 2 − 2xy)
= 666
⇒ ( x + y) 2 − ( x − y) 2 = 4xy
Exp. 7) If ( 64) 2 − ( 36) 2 = 20k then the value of k is : ( x + y) 2 − ( x − y) 2
(a) 140 (b) 120 ⇒ xy =
4
(c) 80 (d) none of these
( a + b) 2 −( a − b) 2
Solution ( 64) 2 − ( 36) 2 = 20k Thus ab =
4
⇒ ( 64 + 36) ( 64 − 36) = 20k (17) − (1)
2 2
288
⇒ 100 . 28 = 20k = = = 72
4 4
⇒ 20 × 5 × 28 = 20k
Hence (a) is the correct option.
⇒ k = 28 × 5 = 140
Hence (a) is the correct answer. Exp. 12) Find the value of a 3 + b 3 + c 3 − 3abc if
a + b + c = 12 and ab + bc + ca = 47.
Exp. 8) If a + 1 = 3, then the value of a 2 + 1 is : Solution Q a + b + c = 12
a a2
∴ ( a + b + c) 2 = a 2 + b 2 + c2 + 2( ab + bc + ac) = 144
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) can’t be determined ⇒ a 2 + b 2 + c2 + 2 × 47 = 144
 1 ⇒ a 2 + b 2 + c2 = 50
Solution Q a +  = 3
 a Now, since a 3 + b 3 + c3 − 3 abc
2
 1 1 1 = ( a + b + c) ( a 2 + b 2 + c2 − ab − bc − ac)
∴  a +  = a + 2 + 2a × = 9
2
 a a a
or a 3 + b 3 + c3 − 3 abc = 12 (50 − 47) = 12 × 3 = 36
1 1
⇒ a2 + 2 + 2 = 9 ⇒ a2 + 2 = 7
a a Exp. 13) If a + b + c = 0, then the value of a 3 + b 3 + c 3 is :
Hence (b) is the correct option. (a) 0 (b) abc
(c) 3abc (d) none of these
Exp. 9) If a + 1 = 3, then the value of a 3 + 1 is :
Solution Q a 3 + b 3 + c3 − 3 abc
a a3
(a) 15 (b) 18 = ( a + b + c)( a 2 + b 2 + c2 − ab − bc − ac)
(c) 27 (d) none of these or a 3 + b 3 + c3 − 3 abc = 0
 1
3
1 1 1 ⇒ a 3 + b 3 + c3 = 3 abc
Solution  a +  = a 3 + 3 + 3 a .  a + 
 a a a a Hence (c) is the correct option.
1
⇒ ( 3) 3 = a 3 + 3 + 3( 3) Exp. 14) If x + y + z = 0, then the value of
a
 1  x 2 y 2 + y 2z 2 + z 2 x 2
a × =1 is :
 
Q
a x4 + y4 + z4
 
and( a + b) = a + b + 3 ab ( a + b) 
3 3 3
(a) 0 (b) 1/2 (c) 1 (d) 2
⇒
1
27 = a 3 + 3 + 9 ⇒ a 3 + 3 = 18
1 Solution Q ( x + y + z) = 0
a a ⇒ x 2 + y 2 + z 2 + 2 ( xy + yz + zx) = 0
Hence (b) is the correct option.
Number System 69

⇒ x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = − 2 ( xy + yz + zx) Again for n = 2, 4, 6, … etc. ( 64n − 36n) is always divisible by 100

⇒ ( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) 2 = 4 ( xy + yz + zx) 2 and all its factors. Also it is divisible by 28 and all its factors.
Hence (d).
⇒ x 4 + y 4 + z 4 + 2( x 2 y 2 + y 2z 2 + z 2 x 2 )
Exp. 20) 19 n − 1 is :
= 4[x 2 y 2 + y 2z 2 + z 2 x 2 + 2xyz ( x + y + z)]
(a) always divisible by 9 (b) always divisible by 20
∴ x 4 + y 4 + z 4 = 2( x 2 y 2 + y 2z 2 + z 2 x 2 ) [Q ( x + y + z) = 0] (c) is never divisible by 19 (d) only (a) and (c) are true
x 2 y 2 + y 2z 2 + z 2 x 2 1 Solution 19n − 1 is divisible by 18( = 19 − 1) when n is even or
∴ =
x 4 + y 4 + z4 2 odd. So (a) is correct.
Hence (b) is the correct option. 19n − 1 is divisible by 20 only when n is even so (b) is wrong.
19n − 1 is never divisible by 19 which is correct. Thus (d) is the
Exp. 15) The value of a 3 + b 3 + c 3 − 3abc, when a = 87 , most appropriate answer.
b = − 126 and c = 39 is :
(a) 0 (b) 1259 Concepts of Remainder
(c) – 48 (d) none of these
Some Important Results
Solution Q a + b +c= 0
1. Let us assume that when a1 , a 2 , a 3 , ..., a n are
∴ a 3 + b 3 + c3 − 3 abc = 0
individually divided byd , the respective remainders
Thus (a) is the correct option. are R1 , R 2 , R 3 , ..., R n . Now, if we divide
Exp. 16) The greatest divisor of ( a1 + a 2 + a 3 + K + a n ) byd, we get the same
( a − b) ( a + b) ( a 2 + b 2 ) ( a 4 + b 4 ) ( a 8 + b 8 ) ( a16 + b16) is : remainder as when we get by dividing
( R1 + R 2 + R 3 + K + R n ) by d.
(a) a16 − b16 (b) a16 + b16 (c) a 31 − b 31 (d) a 32 − b 32
Solution ( a − b) ( a + b) ( a 2 + b 2 ) ( a 4 + b 4 ) ( a 8 + b 8 ) ( a16 + b16) Exp. 1) Find the remainder when 38 + 71 + 85 is divided
=a 32
−b 32 by 16.
Solution When we divide 38, 71 and 85 we obtain the
Hence, the greatest divisor is a 32 − b 32 . Hence (d) is the correct respective remainders as 6, 7 and 5. Now we can obtain the
option. required remainder by dividing the sum of remainders (i.e.,
6 + 7 + 5 = 18) by 16, which is 2 instead of dividing the sum of
Exp. 17) In the above example which of the following can
actual given numbers (i.e., 38 + 71 + 85 = 194) by 16, which also
not divide the given expression : gives us the same remainder 2.
(a) a 4 − b 4 (b) a12 − b12
Exp. 2) Find the remainder when
(c) a16 − b16 (d) can’t be determined
1661 + 1551 + 1441 + 1331 + 1221 is divided by 20.
Solution Since a12 − b12 is not the factor of the given
Solution The remainders when 1661, 1551, 1441, 1331, 1221 are
expression. Hence, it can not divide the given expression. Thus
divided by 20 are 1, 11, 1, 11, 1. So the required remainder can be
(b) is the appropriate option.
obtained just by dividing 1 + 11 + 1 + 11 + 1 ( = 25) by 20. Hence
Exp. 18) The expression 31 n + 17 n is divisible by, for the required remainder is 5.
every odd positive integer n : Exp. 3) What is the remainder when
(a) 48 (b) 14 678 + 687 + 6879 + 6890 is divided by 17?
(c) 16 (d) both (a) and (c) Solution The individual remainders when 678, 687, 6879, 6890
Solution a n + b n is divisible by ( a + b) for every odd n, n ∈ N are divided by 17 are 15, 7, 11, 5, respectively. Hence the required
Hence 31n + 17 n is divisible by 48( = 31 + 17) and since 16 is the remainder can be obtained by dividing 15 + 7 + 11 + 5 ( = 38) by
factor of 48. So the given expression is divisible by both (a) and 17. Thus the required remainder is 4.
(c). Hence (d) is the most appropriate answer.
Exp. 4) What is the remainder when
Exp. 19) Which is not the factor of 4 6n
−6 4n
for any (10 + 10 2 + 10 3 + 10 4 + 105 ) is divided by 6?
positive integer n? Solution The remainder when 10 is divided by 6 is 4
(a) 5 (b) 25 The remainder when 100 is divided by 6 is 4
(c) 7 (d) none of these The remainder when 1000 is divided by 6 is 4
Solution Q 46n − 64 n = ( 64) 2 n − ( 36) 2 n = ( 64n + 36n) ( 64n − 36n) The remainder when 10000 is divided by 6 is 4
For n = 1, 3 , 5 , … etc. ( 64n + 36n) is divisible by 100 and all its The remainder when 100000 is divided by 6 is 4
factors. Also ( 64n − 36n) is divisible by 28 and all its factors. So the required remainder can be obtained by dividing
4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 ( = 20) by 6. Thus the required remainder is 2.
70 QUANTUM CAT
2. When ‘a’ is divided by ‘d’ the remainder is R and when Exp. 2) Find the remainder when
‘a1 ’ and ‘a 2 ’ are divided by ‘d’ the remainders are R1 1719 × 1721 × 1723 × 1725 × 1727 is divided by 18.
and R 2 , then the remainder R will be equal to the
difference of remainders R1 and R 2 if a1 − a 2 = a. Solution Since you can understand that applying the
traditional method of getting the remainder is very difficult
For example the remainder when 63 is divided by 35 is 28 since first of all you have to take the product of all the
and this can be obtained by taking the 63 as difference of numbers as given in the expression, then this a very large
any two numbers say 100 and 37 then the remainders product that has to be divided by 18, which is very lengthy
when 100 and 37 are divided by 35 are 30 and 2 then the and tedious process.
63
required remainder is 28 ( = 30 − 2) [i.e., Remainder of Thus we find the remainder of the remainders.
35 Hence, the remainder of
100 37 1719 × 1721 × 1723 × 1725 × 1727
= Remainder of – Remainder of = 30 − 2 = 28]
35 35 18
NOTE If the obtained remainder in a division has negative sign, 9 × 11 × 13 × 15 × 17
=
then the actual remainder can be obtained by adding the divisor with 18
initially obtained remainder containing negative sign. (9, 11, 13, 15, 17 are the remainders when
63 the given numbers are divided by 18.)
For example, the remainder of
35 99 × 13 × 15 × 17
120 57 =
= Remainder of – Remainder of = 15 − 22 = − 7 18
35 35 9 × 13 × 255 117 × 255
= =
So, the required remainder = 35 − 7 = 28 18 18
3. When a1 , a 2 , a 3 , ... are divided by a divisor d the 9 × 3 27
= = =9
respective remainders obtained are R1 , R 2 , R 3 , K, then 18 18
the remainder when ( a1 × a 2 × a 3 × ... ) is divided by ‘d’ Exp. 3) Find the remainder when 7 7 is divided by 4.
can be obtained by dividing ( R1 × R 2 × R 3 × .... ) by d.
77 7 × 7 × 7 × 7 × 7 × 7 × 7
For example when 365 × 375 × 389 is divided by 35 the Solution =
4 4
remainders can be obtained by dividing the product of the
3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 9×9×9× 3
remainders which are obtained by dividing 365, 375, 389 = =
4 4
individually. Now since the remainders are 15, 25, 4 so the 1×1×1× 3 3
required remainder = Remainder of (15 × 25 × 4) when = =
4 4
divided by 35.
Thus the required remainder is 3.
15 × 25 × 4 60 × 25
Thus the required remainder = =
35 35 Exp. 4) Find the remainder when 11 8 is divided by 7.
25 × 25 625 118 11 × 11 × 11 × 11 × 11 × 11 × 11 × 11
= = = 30 Solution =
35 35 7 7
4×4×4×4×4×4×4×4
Thus 30 is the remainder. =
7
NOTE The required remainder can be obtained by considering 16 × 16 × 16 × 16
the remainders as the dividends. =
7
Thus the required remainder = R1 × R2 × R3 × R4
2 × 2 × 2 × 2 16
= R5 × R3 × R4 = R6 × R4 = R7 = =
where R7 is the required remainder and R1 , R2 ,... , R6 are the remainders 7 7
which are obtained by dividing the remainders perse. Thus the required remainder = 2
Now you can see that, if in the above problem it is to be asked
Exp. 1) Find the remainder when 123 × 1234 is divided that find the remainder when 1175 is divided by 7, then it
by 15. would be very difficult to solve it within a short span of time
123 × 1234 3×4 because it would involve a very large calculation if done in
Solution The remainder of = Remainder of
15 15 the above shown manner.
So follow the steps in which I will show you the appropriate
(3 and 4 are the remainders of 123 and 1234 when divided by 15)
process, which is generally known as ‘‘pattern method to find
12
= Remainder of = 12 the remainder.’’
15
Number System 71

The remainder when 111 is divided by 7 is 4 The remainder when 5 8 is divided by 7 is 4 etc.
The remainder when 112 is divided by 7 is 2 So we see that the cyclic period of remainder is 6,since after 6
The remainder when 113 is divided by 7 is 1 steps the remainders start repeating.
The remainder when 114 is divided by 7 is 4 Now we divide the power of 5 i.e., 123 by 6, then it leaves the
The remainder when 115 is divided by 7 is 2 remainder 3.
The remainder when 116 is divided by 7 is 1 It means the required remainder will be equal to the
The remainder when 117 is divided by 7 is 4 corresponding remainder when 5 3 is divided by 7, which is 6.
So you can see that you are getting a pattern, if you follow it you So the remainder when 5123 is divided by 7 is 6.
can get the remainder for higher powers of 11.
5123 5120 × 5 3
Now you are seeing that after every 3 steps the cycle of Explanation : Remainder = Remainder
7 7
remainders is repeating its course as after every 7 days a
(5 6) 20 × 5 3
particular day repeats itself . = Remainder
Now if we assume that the month of March starts with Monday, 7
53
then which day will fall on 24th March of the same year? So you = Remainder =
will quickly respond that it would be Wednesday. 7
Let us see how? = Remainder is 6.
M T W Th F Sat Sun NOTE Remember that when you get the remainder 1 while
obtaining the cyclic period, you can stop the further calculation
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
because at this step your cyclic period ends and in the next step the
8 9 10 11 12 13 14 remainder starts repeating as in the above example at 56 we get the
15 16 17 18 19 20 21 remainder 1.
22 23 24 25 26 27 28 So we need not calculate further for 57 , 58 , 59 etc., because all these
29 30 31 numbers will give the same remainders as 51 , 52 , 53 ,... , etc. respectively.
As we can see that after every 7 days Monday comes on 1st, 8th,
15th, 22nd etc. So what we do is just divide the given date by 7. If Exp. 6) Find the remainder when123 321 is divided by 5.
it is divisible by 7 then the last day of the week (i.e., last day of Solution The remainder when 123 is divided by 5 is 3
the cycle) will be the required day. If it is not divisible by 7 then it
So, the remainder when 123 321 is divided by 5 is same as when
must leaves some remainder then we need to calculate the day
3 321 is divided by 5.
according to the remainder.
Now, the remainder when 31 is divided by 5 is 3
For instance in the above example when we divide 24 by 7, then
we get the remainder 3. The remainder when 3 2 is divided by 5 is 4
So we calculate the 3rd day starting from the first day of the The remainder when 3 3 is divided by 5 is 2
week (or cycle). So the required day will be Wednesday. The remainder when 3 4 is divided by 5 is 1
Now, If I ask that which day will fall on 7th, 14th, 21st or 28th of The remainder when 35 is divided by 5 is 3
this month then your response will be Sunday since all the dates So the cyclic period is 4 since at 3 4 we get the remainder 1 (after
given above are divisible by 7 which is the period of the cycle. which the cycle starts repeating).
If the dates were 1, 8, 15, ... etc then the required day would have Thus the remainder when 3 321 is divided by 5 is 3 since we get
been Monday since when we divide these given dates by 7 the the remainder 1 when 321 is divided by 4 (the cyclic period).
remainder is 1 so the dates which are corresponding to 1 i.e., 8, 123 321 3 321 3 320 × 31
15, 22, 29 etc. will fall on Monday. or Rem. = Rem. = Rem.
5 5 5
So I hope this discussion will be very helpful to you while solving ( 3 4 ) 80 × 31 31
the concerned problems. Thus we can say that the remainder = Rem . = Rem.
5 5
when 1175 is divided by 7 is 1, since 75 is divisible by 3.
= Remainder is 3.
Exp. 5) Find the remainder when 5123 is divided by 7.
Exp. 7) Find the remainder when 923 888 + 235 222 is
Solution The remainder when 51 is divided by 7 is 5 divided by 4.
The remainder when 5 2 is divided by 7 is 4 923 888 + 235 222
3 Solution Rem
The remainder when 5 is divided by 7 is 6 4
The remainder when 5 4 is divided by 7 is 2 3 888 + 3 222
= Rem.
The remainder when 55 is divided by 7 is 3 4
1+1 2
The remainder when 5 6 is divided by 7 is 1 = Rem. =
4 4
The remainder when 5 7 is divided by 7 is 5
Thus the remainder is 2.
72 QUANTUM CAT
32
3 9415 32 32
Exp. 8) Find the remainder of . Exp. 12) The remainder of :
80 7
3 9415 3 9412 × 3 3 (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) none
Solution Rem = Rem 32
80 80 Solution 3232 means 32(32 . 32 . 32 . 32... 32 times)
( 3 4 ) 2353 × 3 3 32
= Rem [Since the cyclic period is 4] Now the remainder of is 4.
80 7
( 81) 2353 × 3 3 1 × 27 27 4 32 . 32 . 32 . 32 .... 32 times 4 2 . 2 . 2 ..... 32 times
= Rem = Rem = Rem Again ⇒
80 80 80 7 7
Thus the remainder is 27.  41 42 43 
Q 7 → 4, 7 → 2, 7 → 1,
Exp. 9) Find the remainder when  
101 + 10 2 + 10 3 + 10 4 + 105 + ... + 10 99 is divided by 6. Remainder = 4
Solution The remainder when 101 is divided by 6 is 4 4 2 4 8 4 32 4128
Since remainder of = = = = ... is 2
7 7 7 7
The remainder when 102 is divided by 6 is 4
4 4 416 4 64 4256
The remainder when 103 is divided by 6 is 4 and remainder of = = = = ... is 4
7 7 7 7
The remainder when 104 is divided by 6 is 4
( a + 1) n
The remainder when 105 is divided by 6 is 4 NOTE 1. gives always remainder 1.
a
Thus the remainder is always 4.
4 + 4 + 4 + ... 99 times 396 an
So, the required remainder = = 2. gives remainder 1 when n is even and gives the
6 6 ( a + 1)
Thus the remainder is zero. remainder a itself when n is odd, where a is any integer
and n being the positive integer.
888 222 + 222 888
Exp. 10) The remainder of is : Exp. 13) The remainder when 81785 is divided by 7 is :
3
(a) 5 (b) 1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
(c) 6 (d) can’t be determined
888222 + 222888 ( a + 1) n
Solution Remainder = Remainder is zero, Solution Q leaves always remainder 1.
3 a
since 888 and 222 both (bases) are divisible by 3. 81785 (7 + 1)1785
So = gives the remainder 1.
7 7
888 222
+ 222 888
Exp. 11) The remainder of is : Exp. 14) The remainder when(16) 3500 is divided by 17 is
5
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 16 (d) none
an
Solution Q gives remainder 1 when n is even
888222 + 222888 a+1
Solution Rem.
5
16 3500 163500
888222 222888 So the remainder of = is 1.
= Rem. + Rem. 17 (16 + 1)
5 5
Hence (a) is the correct option.
3 222 2888
= Rem. + Rem.
5 5 Exp. 15) The remainder when ( 3) 81 is divided by 28 is :
( 3 4 )55 × 3 2 ( 24 ) 222 (a) 1 (b) 8 (c) 18 (d) 26
= Rem. + Rem.
5 5 3 81  ( 3 3 ) 27 ( 27) 27 
Solution The remainder of = = is 27.
= Rem.
1×9
+ Rem. 1 28  28 28 
5
4 1 4+1 5 an
= Rem. + Rem. = Rem. ⇒ Since gives remainder a when n is odd.
5 5 5 5 ( a + 1)
Thus the remainder is zero. 2 243
Exp. 16) The remainder of is :
Alternatively [To check the divisibility by 5 just see the sum 32
of the unit digits which is 10 (= 4 +6) (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 4 (d) none
Q 8222 → 4 (unit digit) 243 3 81 81 81
2 (2 ) 8 8
and 2888 → 6 (unit digit) Solution = = =
3 2
9 9 ( 8 + 1)
Hence it is divisible. So there is no remainder] Hence the remainder is 8 since the power of 8 is odd.
Number System 73

Exp. 17) The remainder when ( 3) 67! is divided by 80 : an

Solution Q gives remainder 1, when n is even, Now since
a+1
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) can’t be determined 93! is an even number, hence the remainder is 1. Thus (b) is the
correct choice.
3 4n
Solution Q 3 4 = 81, so gives the remainder 1. 259!
80 Exp. 19) The remainder of is :
3 67! 255
Thus will also give the remainder 1.
80 (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 55 (d) 56
Since 67 ! = 4n for a positive integer n. Solution 259! can be expressed as 28n
39 93! 259! 28n ( 256) n
Exp. 18) The remainder of is : So, Rem. = Rem. = Rem.
40 255 255 255
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 39 (d) 13 Hence the remainder is 1.

Introductory Exercise 1.9

1. Find the last two digits of 64 81 9. The remainder when x 4 − y 4 is divided by x − y is :
(a) 84 (b) 24 (a) 0 (b) x + y
(c) 64 (d) 44 (c) x2 − y2 (d) 2 y 4
1 1 1 1
2. If x + = 2, then the value of x2 + 2 is : 10. If x − = 2, then the value of x 4 + 4 is :
x x x x
(a) 6 (b) 4 (a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 2 (d) 0 (c) 12 (d) 34
3. If a = 24 , b = 26, c = 28, then the value of 11. If the sum and the product of two numbers are 25 and
a2 + b2 + c2 − ab − bc − ac will be : 144; respectively, then the difference of the numbers
(a) 0 (b) 4 must be :
(c) 8 (d) 12 (a) 3 (b) 5
6
a b (c) 7 (d) 11
4. If (a2 + b2 )3 = (a3 + b3 )2 and ab ≠ 0 then  +  is
b a 12. The sum of two numbers is 9 and the sum of their
equal to : squares is 41. The numbers are :
a 6 + b6 64 (a) 4 & 5 (b) 1 & 8
(a) (b)
a3 b3 729 (c) 3 & 6 (d) 2 & 7
a 6 + a3 b3 + b6 4 4
(c) 1 (d)  1  1
a2b4 + a 4 b2 3  − 4 
 4  3
13. The square root of 2 2
:
5. If x − y = 1, then the value of x3 − y3 − 3 xy will be :  1  1
3  − 4 
(a) 1 (b) −1  4  3
(c) 3 (d) −3 7 5
(a) 5 (b) 5
6. If x = 1234 , y = 4321, z = −5555 , what is the value of 12 12
12 1
x2 y2 z 2 (c) 5 (d) 5
+ + is: 13 6
yz zx xy
(119 )2 + (119 ) (111) + (111)2
(a) 0 (b) 1 14. The value of is :
(c) 3 (d) 9/4 (119 )3 − (111)3
1 1
7. Find the remainder when 2 0 + 21 + 22 + 23 + ...+2255 is (a) 8 (b) (c) 230 (d)
divided by 255. 8 230
(a) 0 (b) 1 15. The value of
(c) 127 (d) none of these (1.5)3 + (4.7)3 + (3.8)3 − 3 × 1.5 × 4.7 × 3.8
is :
8. Among the expression (1 − 3 p), [1 − (3 p)2 ], [1 − (3 p)3 ] (1.5)2 + (4.7)2 + (3.8)2 − (1.5 × 4.7)
and [1 − (3 p)4 ] the number of factors of (1 − 81 p4 ) − (4.7 × 3.8) − (1.5 × 3.8)
is : (a) 8 (b) 9
(a) one (b) two (c) four (d) three (c) 10 (d) 11
74 QUANTUM CAT
16. Simplified value of  1 1
20. If  x −  = 5, then x3 − 3 equals :
8.73 × 8.73 × 8.73 + 4.27 × 4.27 × 4.27  x x
is :
8.73 × 8.73 – 8.73 × 4.27 + 4.27 × 4.27 (a) 125 (b) 130
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (c) 135 (d) 140
2 2
17. The expression (a − b)3 + (b − c)3 + (c − a )3 = 0 if :  e x + e −x   e x − e −x 
21. The value of   −  is :
(a) a < b < c (b) a > b > c  2   2 
(c) a = b = c (d) a ≠ b = c
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 16
18. If a + b + c = 11, a2 + b2 + c2 = 51, what is the value of
22. The continued product of (1 + x), (1 + x2 ), (1 + x 4 ),
ab + bc + ac?
(1 + x 8 ) and (1 − x) is :
(a) 24 (b) 28 (c) 32 (d) 35
(a) (1 − x 8 + x16 )
x2 y2 z2 (b) (x 8 + x16 )
19. If x + y + z = 0, then the value of + + is :
yz zx xy (c) (1 − x16 )
(a) 3 (b) −3 (c) 0 (d) 3xyz (d) (x16 − 1)

1.10 Rational and Irrational Numbers

Rational Numbers Properties of Rational Numbers
The numbers which can be expressed as the ratio of any two 1. Closure law Addition and multiplication of any two
p rational number is also a rational number.
integers i.e, in the form of , where p, q are integers, prime
q 2. Commutative law For any two rational numbers
to each other (i.e, p and q must be coprime) and q ≠ 0 are a c a c c a a c c a
, . + = + and × = ×
called the rational numbers. These numbers are denoted by ‘ b d b d d b b d d b
1 3
Q’. Thus 3, − 4, , − , 16, 25 etc. are rational numbers. 3. Associative law : For any three rational numbers
7 8 a c e
All integers and all fractions are rational numbers, which are , and .
b d f
also called commensurable quantities.
 a c e a  c e 
 +  + = + + 
Facts About Rational Numbers  b d f b d f 
1. The denominator of any rational number can never be  a c e a  c e 
and  ⋅  ⋅ = ⋅ ⋅ 
zero since the division by zero is undefined.  b d f b d f 
2. Every integer e.g., 0, ± 1, ± 2, ± 3.. etc. is a rational
4. Additive and Multiplicative Identity :
number since it can be expressed as
7 3 0 a a 0
7 = , − 3 = − , 0 = etc. +0= (Q0 = is an additive identity)
1 1 1 b b 1
a a 1
3. All the decimal numbers which are terminating are and ×1 = (Q1 = is a multiplicative identity)
rational numbers e.g., b b 1
14 , − 85 , 6 5. Additive and Multiplicative Inverse :
. ==
014 − 8.5 = 0.006 = etc.
100 10 1000 a  a 0 a a
+ −  = (− is additive inverse of )
4. All the recurring decimals, which are non terminating, b  b 1 b b
are the rational numbers. a  b 1 b a
e.g., 0.4444..., 1.4141...., 6.785785..., 1.42857142857 ×  = ( is multiplicative inverse of )
b a 1 a b
22
... etc. where a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0
7
NOTE π is not a rational number, since the exact value of π is 6. Rational Numbers Do not follow the Commutative
22 law and Associative law for the subtraction and
not .
7 division.
Number System 75

7. Distribution law : For any three rational numbers Facts About Imaginary Numbers
a, b, c a . ( b + c) = a . b + a . c
1. i 0 = 1, i1 = i, i 2 = − 1, i 3 = − i, i 4 = 1, etc.
and a . ( b − c) = a . b − a . c
8. If x and y are any two rational numbers such that x < y 2. i n = i 4 p + r = ( i 4 ) p × i r = 1 × i r = i r
1
then ( x + y) is also a rational number lying between 3. a × b ≠ ab, if both a, b are negative i.e.,
2
imaginary otherwise at least one of a, b must be whole
x and y which shows that there are infinite number
number e.g.,
of rational numbers between any two rational
numbers. − 5 × − 7 = 5i × 7i = 35i 2 = − 35
but − 5 × − 7 = − 5 × − 7 ≠ 35
Irrational Numbers
p
The numbers which can’t be expressed in the form , where Exp. 1) Find the value of i 63 .
q
Solution i 63 = (i 4 )15 × i 3 = i 3 = − i
p, q are two integers prime to each other and q ≠ 0 are called
irrational numbers. Thus 2, 3, − 3, 3 4, 3 6, 5, π, etc. Exp. 2) Find the value of i170 .
Solution i170 = (i 4 ) 42 × i 2 = i 2 = − 1
are irrational numbers. The decimal representation of these
1
numbers is non-repeating and non-terminating. Exp. 3) Find the value of 123
i
e.g., 7.2030030003 ..., 2 =1.41421...., 3 =1.732....
1 1 1 1 1 i i
Solution = 120 3 = = 3 = 3 × = 4 =i
Properties of Irrational Numbers i123 i ×i 1×i 3
i i i i
(i) The set ‘P’ of all irrational numbers is not closed for
addition since the sum of two irrationals need not be Exp. 4) Find the value of − 16 × − 25.
irrational e.g., (3 + 5 ) ∈P , (3 − 5 ) ∈ P but Solution − 16 × − 25 = 4i × 5i = 20i 2 = − 20

(3 + 5 ) + (3 − 5 ) = 6 ∉ P Exp. 5) Find the value of ( − 1) 4n + 1 .

(ii) The set P of all irrational number is not closed for Solution ( − 1) 4 n + 1 = i 4 n + 1 = i 4 n × i = i
multiplication since the product of two irrationals
need not be irrational. Exp. 6) Find the value of i − 343 .
e.g., 3 ∈ P , − 3 ∈ P but 3 × − 3 = − 3 ∉ P 1 1 1 1×i i
Solution i − 343 = = = = 3 = 4 =i
i 343 4 85
(i ) ×i 3
1×i i ×i i
3

Real Numbers
Exp. 7) Find the value of i 248 + i 341 + i 442 + i543 .
All the rational and all irrational numbers are called as real
Solution i 248 + i 341 + i 442 + i543 = 1 + i + ( − 1) + ( − i) = 0
numbers i.e, the set of real numbers is the union of entire
rational and irrational numbers. Exp. 8) The value of 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 is :
5 22 i n i( n + 3) i( n + 2) i( n + 1)
e.g., − 3, 2, 0, , 4, 2, 3, π, e, , 0, etc. (a) – 1 (b) 1
7 7
(c) 0 (d) can’t be determined
NOTE For some real numbers a and b 1 1 1 1
1 1 Solution n + (n + 3 ) + (n + 2 ) + (n + 1 ) is :
1. a > b ⇒ − a < − b 2. a > b ⇒ < i i i i
a b
1 1 1 1
3. a > b ⇒ a + k > b + k 4. a > b ⇒ ak > bk , when k > 0 = n + n 3 + n 2 + n
5. a . b = 0 ⇒ either a is zero orb is zero or both a and b are zero. i i ×i i ×i i ×i
1 1 i 1 i2 1 i3
Imaginary Numbers = n
+ n × 4 + n × 4 + n × 4
i i i i i i i
If the square of a number is negative then this number is 1 i i2 i3 1 i −1 i
= n + n + n + n = n+ n + n − n =0
called as an imaginary number. e.g., − 1, − 2, − 3 etc. i i i i i i i i
Hence (c) is the correct option.
An imaginary number is denoted by ‘i’, where i = −1
76 QUANTUM CAT
Complex Numbers (x) z1 z 2 + z1 z 2 = 2 Re ( z1 z 2 ) = 2 Re ( z1 z 2 )
The combination of real number and imaginary number is (xi) z n = ( z ) n
known as complex number i.e., the number of the form a + ib (xii) If z = f ( z1 ), then z = f ( z1 )
where a and b are purely real numbers and i = −1, is called Modulus of a Complex Number
as a complex number. It is denoted by z = a + ib where real The modulus of a complex number
z = a and imaginary z = b.
1. Property of order : For any two complex numbers z = ( a + ib) is represented as z = a 2 + b 2 .
( a + ib) and ( c + id ) ( a + ib) < (or >) c + id is not Properties of Modulus
defined e.g., 9 + 4i < 3 − i makes no sense. (i) z ≥ 0 ⇒ z = 0 iff z = 0 and z > 0 iff z ≠ 0
2. A complex number is said to be purely real if (ii) − z ≤ Re ( z ) ≤ z and − z ≤ Im ( z ) ≤ z
Im ( z ) = 0 and it is said to be purely imaginary if
Re( z ) = 0. The complex number 0 = 0 + i . 0 is both (iii) z = z = − z = − z
purely real and purely imaginary. 2
(iv) z z = z
3. The sum of four consecutive powers of i is zero.
(v) z1 ± z 2 ≤ z1 + z 2
i.e., ik + ik + 1 + ik + 2 + ik + 3 = 0
(vi) z1 ± z 2 ± z 3 ± ... z n
Operations on Complex Numbers ≤ z1 ± z 2 ± z 3 ± ... z n
Let z1 , z 2 be two complex numbers such that z1 = ( a1 + ib1 )
and z 2 = ( a 2 + ib2 ) then : (vii) z1 ± z 2 ≥ z1 − z 2

1. z1 ± z 2 = ( a1 ± a 2 ) + i ( b1 ± b2 ) (viii) z1 z 2 = z1 z 2
2. z1 . z 2 = ( a1 a 2 − b1 b2 ) + i ( a1 b2 + b1 a 2 ) z1 z1
(ix) =
3. z1 = z 2 ⇔ a1 = a 2 and b1 = b2 z2 z2
n
Conjugate Complex Number (x) z n = z
The complex number z = a + ib and z = ( a − ib) are called
(xi) || z1 | − | z 2 || ≤ z1 + z 2 ≤ z1 + z 2
the complex conjugate of each other, where i = −1, b ≠ 0
2
and a, b are real numbers. (xii) z1 ± z 2 = ( z1 ± z 2 ) ( z1 ± z 2 )
2 2
Properties of Conjugate = z1 + z2 ± ( z1 z 2 + z1 z 2 )
2 2 2 2
For any z there exists the mirror image of z along the real axis (xiii) z1 + z 2 + z1 − z 2 = 2 ( z1 + z2 )
denoted as z, then
(i) z = z ⇔ z is purely real nth root of Unity
(ii) z = − z ⇔ z is purely imaginary 1. Unity has n roots namely1, ω, ω 2 , ω 3 , ..., ω n − 1 which
are in geometric progression and the sum of these n
(iii) ( z ) = z roots is zero.
z+z 2. Product of n roots is ( − 1) n − 1 .
(iv) Re ( z ) = Re ( z ) =
2
z−z Square Root
(v) Im ( z ) = The square root of z = a + ib are
2i
(vi) z1 + z 2 = z1 + z 2  z +a z −a
±  +i  for b > 0
(vii) z1 − z 2 = z1 − z 2  2 2 
(viii) z1 z 2 = z1 z 2  z +a z −a
and ±  −i  for b < 0
z  z  2 2 
(ix)  1  = 1
 z2  z2
Number System 77

n
Remember n
 1+ i  ⇒ ( − 1) 2 = ( − 1) ⇒ =1
1. The square root of i are ±   when b = 1 2
 2 ∴ n=2
 1− i  Hence (c) is the correct option.
2. The square root of − i are   when b = − 1
 2  1 + i
n

or a + ib = ± ( x + iy ) and a − ib = ± ( x − iy ) Exp. 5) The smallest positive integern for which   =1

is:  1 − i
1/2 1/2
 a + a2 + b2   a2 + b2 − a  (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
where x =   and y =  
    n n 2 n
 2   2   1 + i  (i + i) (1 + i)   (1 + i)
Solution   =  =  = in = 1
 1− i  (1 − i) (1 + i)   2 
Cube root of unity ⇒ in = 1 = i4 ⇒ n=4
Cube root of unity are 1 ω, ω where 2
Hence (b) is the correct option.
(a) 1 + ω + ω 2 = 0 (b) ω 3 = 1
Exp. 6) ( 3 + 2i) 3 = ?
(c) ω =ω 2 and (ω ) 2 = ω (a) 9 − 46i (b) 9 + 46i
(d) ω 3n = 1, ω 3n + 1 = ω, ω 3n + 2 = ω 2 (c) − 9 + 46i (d) none of these
NOTE Iota (i) is neither 0, nor greater than 0, or nor less than 0. Solution ( 3 + 2i) 3 = 3 3 + ( 2i) 3 + 3 . 3 . 2 i ( 3 + 2i)
= 27 + 8i 3 + 18i ( 3 + 2i) = 27 + 8i 3 + 54i + 36i 2
Exp. 1) Find the modulus of 5 + − 11. = 27 − 8i + 54i − 36 = ( −9 + 46i)
Solution Q z =5 + − 11 = 5 + 11 i Hence (c) is the correct option.
∴ z = 25 + 11 =
|| 36 = 6
Exp. 7) The multiplicative inverse of ( 3 + 2i) 2 is :
Exp. 2) If the multiplicative inverse of a complex (a)
12
−
5i
(b)
5
−
12i
5 + 6i 169 169 169 169
number is then the complex number itself is: 5 12i
41 (c) − (d) none of these
13 13
(a) 5 − 6i (b) 5 + 6i
Solution Z = ( 3 + 2i) 2 = 9 + 4i 2 + 12i = 9 − 4 + 12i = 5 + 12i
(c) 6 + 7i (d) none of these
1 1 5 − 12i
( 5 + 6 i) then z− 1 = = ×
Solution Since z . =1 5 + 12i 5 + 12i 5 − 12i
41
5 − 12i 5 − 12i  5 12i 
41 5 − 6i = = = − 
⇒ z= × = 5 − 6i 25 − 144i 2
169  169 169
( 5 + 6i) 5 − 6i
Thus (b) is the correct option.
Hence (a) is the correct option.
 1 + z
Exp. 3) Which of the following is correct? Exp. 8) If z = 1 then   equals :
(a) 7 + i > 5 − i (b) 8 + i > 9 − i
 1 + z
(c) 13 + i < 25 − 3i (d) none of these (a) z (b) z
Solution Since the relation is not defined i.e., ( a + ib) ( c + id) is (c) z − 1 (d) none of these
indeterminable. Hence (d) is the correct option. 1 + z  1 + z  z z (1 + z)
Solution =  = =z (Q z = 1)
1 + z  1 + z  z (z + 1)
Exp. 4) The smallest positive integer n for which
n Hence (b) is the correct option.
 1 + i
  = − 1 is :
 1 − i Exp. 9) The value of i + − i is :
(a) 5 (b) 1 (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 2 (d) none of these (c) − i (d) none of these
n
 1 + i Solution i + − i = ( i + − i) 2
Solution Given that   = −1
 1 − i
= i− i + 2 i − i = 2 − i2 = 2
n
(1 + i) (1 + i) 
⇒  (1 − i) (1 + i)  = − 1 ⇒ i = − 1
n Hence (b) is the correct option.
 
78 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 10) The value of log e ( − 1) is : Solution Let x n = 1 ⇒ x = (1)1 / n
(a) iπ (b) 0 ⇒ xn − 1 = 0
(c) i − 1 (d) does not exist or x n − 1 = ( x − 1) ( x − ω) ( x − ω 2 )... ( x − ω n − 1 )
Solution log e ( − 1) = log e ( eiπ ) = iπ xn − 1
⇒ = ( x − ω) ( x − ω 2 ) ...( x − ω n − 1 )
Hence (a) is the correct option. x −1

Exp. 11) The number of solutions of the equation Putting x = 9 in both sides, we have
2 9n − 1
z 2 + z = 0, where z is a complex number is : ( 9 − ω) ( 9 − ω 2 ) ( 9 − ω 3 ) ... ( 9 − ω n − 1 ) =
8
(a) 1 (b) 2
Hence (b) is the correct choice.
(c) 4 (d) infinitely many
2 100
Solution z 2 + z = 0 ⇒ z 2 + zz = 0  1 − i
Exp. 15) If   = x + iy then the value of ( x, y) is :
⇒ z (z + z ) = 0  1 + i
or z . 2 Re (z) = 0
(a) (0, 1) (b) (0, 0)
∴ z = 0 and Re (z) = 0
(c) (1, 0) (d) (– 1, 0)
If z = x + iy ⇒ 0 = x + iy ⇒ ( x , y) = ( 0, 0) 1 − i (1 − i) (1 − i) − 2i
and if z = 0 + ib ⇒ ( a , b) = ( 0, b) but b ∈ R Solution = = = −i
1 + i (1 + i) (1 − i) 2
So, there are infinitely many solutions. Since b ∈ R Hence (d) is 100
the correct option.  1 − i
100 100 Hence   = ( − i)100 = 1
i + 3  i − 3   1 + i
Exp. 12) The value of   +  is :
 2   2  Thus x + iy = 1 ⇒ x = 1, y = 0
So the value of ( x , y) = (1, 0)
(a) – 1 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) i
Hence (c) is the correct option.
i+ 3  
i+ 3 i  − 1 + 3i  ω
Solution =  =  = Exp. 16) The inequality a + ib < c + id holds if
2  2 i  2i  i
(a) a < c, b < d (b) a < c, b > d
(QA complex number a + ib for which a : b = 1 : 3 or 3 : 1 can
(c) a > c, b < d (d) none of these
always be expressed in terms of i,ω or ω 2 )
Solution Option (d) is correct.
i − 3 ω2
Similarly, = Exp. 17) The points z1 , z2 , z 3 , z4 in the complex plane
2 i
100 100 2  100
form the vertices of a parallelogram iff :
i + 3  i − 3   ω
100
ω (a) z1 + z2 = z3 + z4 (b) z1 + z3 = z2 + z4
∴   +  =  + 
 2   2  i  i  (c) z1 + z3 > z2 + z4 (d) none of these
= ω 99 .ω + ω198 . ω 2 [Q ω 99 = ω198 = 1] Solution If the mid point of z1z3 is the same as that of z2z4 .
= ω + ω2 = − 1 1 1
i.e., (z1 + z3 ) = (z2 + z4 )
2 2
Hence (a) is the correct option.
⇒ z1 + z3 = z2 + z4 , only then these points can form the
Exp. 13) If 1, ω , ω 2 be the cube roots of unity, then the parallelogram.
value of (1 − ω + ω 2 ) 5 + (1 + ω − ω 2 ) 5 is : (u + iv)
Exp. 18) If a + ib = then the value of a 2 + b 2 is :
(a) 0 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64 ( x + iy)
Solution Q 1 + ω + ω2 = 0
u2 + v 2 u2 − v 2
∴ 1 + ω = − ω2 and 1 + ω 2 = − ω (a) (b)
x2 + y2 x2 − y2
∴ (1 − ω + ω 2 )5 + (1 + ω − ω 2 )5 = ( − 2ω)5 + ( − 2ω 2 )5
(c) can’t be determined (d) none of these
= − 32 (ω 5 + ω10) [Qω5 = ω 2 and ω10 = ω and ω + ω 2 = − 1] 2
Solution a 2 + b 2 = a + ib
= 32
u + iv
Hence (c) is the correct option. =
x + iy
Exp. 14) If 1, ω , ω 2 , ω 3 , ... , ω n − 1 be the n, nth roots of
(Putting the value of a + ib)
unity, the value of ( 9 − ω) ( 9 − ω 2 ) . .. ( 9 − ω n − 1 ) will be :
9n − 1 u2 + v 2
(a) 0 (b) =
8 x2 + y2
8 −1
n
Hence (a) is the correct option.
(c) (d) none of these
3
Number System 79

Exp. 19) The maximum value of z when z satisfies the ⇒ − 3 ≤ z −1≤ 3

2 ⇒ 1− 3 ≤ z ≤1+ 3
condition z + = 2 is :
z Therefore the maximum value of z is 1 + 3
(a) 3 −1 (b) 3 (c) 3 +1 (d) 1
2 2 Exp. 20) ( 2 − i 5)
Solution Q z = z+ − The modulus of the complex number
z z (1 + 2 2i)
2 2 is :
z ≤ z+ +
z z (a) – 1 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) − 3
2
It means z ≤2+  2−i 5  2−i 5
z Solution The modulus of   =
 1 + 2 2i  1 + 2 2i
2
⇒ z ≤2 z +2
4+5 3
2 = = =1
⇒ z −2 z +1≤2+1 1+ 8 3
⇒ ( z − 1) 2 ≤ 3 Hence (b) is the correct answer.

Introductory Exercise 1.10

1. Which one of the following is a rational number? a c
7. Let = , (where a and b are odd prime numbers). If
2 b d
(a) ( 2 )2 (b) 2 2 (c) 2 + 2 (d) c> a and d > b, then :
2
−18 (a) c is not a multiple of a (b) d is not a multiple of b
2. Rational number lies between consecutive
5 (c) c = ka , d = kb with k > 1
integers :
(d) c = ka , d = lb with k ≠ l
(a) −2 and −3 (b) −3 and −4
(c) −4 and −5 (d) −5 and −6 Directions (for Q. Nos. 8 to 10) Answer the following
3. Which one of the following statements is correct? questions based on the information given below. From the
(a) There can be a real number which is both rational set of first 81 natural numbers two numbers p and q are
and irrational p
(b) The sum of two irrational number is always chosen in order to form the rational number such that
q
irrational
(c) For any real numbers x and y, x < y ⇒ x2 < y2 p and q are co-prime.
(d) Every integer is a rational number p
8. Find the number of values of q so that is always a
4. Which one of the following statements is not correct? q
(a) If ‘a’ is a rational number and b is irrational, then recurring decimal number.
a + b is irrational (a) 9 (b) 14 (c) 67 (d) 72
(b) The product of a non-zero rational number with an p
9. Find the total number of rational numbers such that
irrational number is always irrational q
(c) Addition of any two irrational numbers can be an is always a terminating decimal number.
integer (a) 622 (b) 441 (c) 134 (d) 1134
(d) Division of any two integers is an integer p
10. Find the number of non-integral rational numbers
5. If x be a rational number and y be an irrational q
number, then : between 0 and 1, which can always be expressed as
(a) both x + y and xy are necessarily irrational the terminating decimals?
(b) both x + y and xy are necessarily rational (a) 167 (b) 144
(c) xy is necessarily irrational, but x + y can be either (c) 214 (d) 377
rational or irrational 11. In the online game of Angry Birds, each bird destroys
(d) x + y necessarily irrational, but xy can be either on an average A number of pigs. If A = 3 .
rational or irrational abbcabbcabbc ... and out of a, b and c not more than
−24 one digit is 0, which of the following could be the total
6. A rational equivalent to with denominator 25 is :
20 number of birds?
−30 30 −29 −19 (a) 1991 (b) 1998
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25 25 25 25 (c) 29992 (d) 49995
80 QUANTUM CAT
or xyz is expressed as 100x + 10 y + z where x, y, z are the
1.11 Various Number Systems hundreds tens and unit digit respectively.
Decimal Number System In general an n digit number in decimal representation, can
Generally we use decimal system in our day to day be expressed as
mathematical applications e.g., counting of the things, k1 × 10 n − 1 + k 2 × 10 n − 2 + k 3 × 10 n − 3 +… + k n × 10 0
accounting in offices etc. Why we call it decimal system?
Important Facts about Decimal Numbers
Since there we use 10 symbols viz., 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 to
represent the data, that is why we say that the representation 1. The digits which are always same i,e, when they are
seen upside down, they appear the same. e.g., 0, 1 and
is in decimal system.
8.
The sequence of decimal numbers goes on as 0, 1, 2, 3 4, 5, 6,
2. The digits which create confusion when they are
7, 8, 9, 10, 11,12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21.. etc. So
written upside down they change their face values.
after 9, each successive number is a combination of 2 (or
e.g., 6 and 9.
more) unique symbols of this system.
3. When the digits of a two digit number are reversed i.e.,
The decimal system is a positional-value system in which
when their position is interchanged, then the
the value of a digit in a number depends on its position. For
difference of the original number and this resultant
example 879. Here 8 represents 800, 7 represents 70 and 9
number is always divisible by 9. Also the difference of
represents 9 units. In essence, 8 carries the most weight of these two numbers is exactly the product of the
three digits, it is referred as the most significant digit (MSD). difference of the two digits (i.e., difference of their
The 9 carries the least weight and is called as the least face values) with 9.
significant digit (LSD)
xy
i.e., 879 = 8 × 10 2 + 7 × 101 + 9 × 10 0 For example ,
− yx
Similarly 63.78 = 6 × 101 + 3 × 10 0 + 7 × 10 − 1 + 8 × 10 − 2
9 ( x − y)
So, this number is actually equal to 6 tens plus 3 units plus 7
[Q (10x + y) − (10 y + x ) = 9 ( x − y)]
tenths plus 8 hundredths.
So 3859276 = 3 × 10 6 + 8 × 10 5 + 5 × 10 4 e.g., 53 − 35 = 9 × 2 = 18 (Q5 − 3 = 2)
+ 9 × 10 + 2 × 10 + 7 × 10 + 6 × 10
3 2 1 0 e.g., 82 − 28 = 9 × 6 = 54 (Q8 − 2 = 6 )
NOTE The sum of these two numbers is always divisible by 11.
and 9253.827 = 9 × 10 3 + 2 × 10 2 + 5 × 101 + 3 × 10 0
4. When the digits of a three digit number are reversed
+ 8 × 10 − 1 + 2 × 10 − 2 + 7 × 10 − 3
i.e., the unit digit becomes hundreds digit and vice
In general, any number is simply the sum of the products of versa, then the difference between these two numbers
each digit value and its positional (or place) value. is always divisible by 99. Also the difference of these
Positional → 103 102 101 100 10−1 10−2 10−3 two numbers (i.e., original and resultant number) is
values ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ exactly equal to the product of the difference of unit
(weights) and hundreds digit with 99, i.e., xyz − zyx = 99 ( x − z )
9 2 5 3 8 2 7
[Q (100x + 10 y + z ) − (100 z + 10 y + x ) = 99 ( x − z ) ]
↑ ↑ ↑
MSD Decimal LSD
For example (i) 852 − 258 = 99 × 6 [Q8 − 2 = 6]
point = 594
Thus a two digit number can be expressed as (ii) 703 − 307 = 99 × 4 [Q 7 − 3 = 4]
x × 101 + y × 10 0 , where x is the tens and y is the unit digit. = 396
5. When the digits of a four digit number are reversed i.e,
Thus the two digit number xy is expressed as 10x + y unit digit with thousands digit and vice versa and tens
Similarly a three digit number xyz is expressed as digit with hundreds digit and vice versa, then the
10 2 x + 101 y + 10 0 z difference between the original number and the
resultant number is always divisible by 9.
Number System 81

Exp. 1) The difference between the highest and lowest Exp. 5) The number of two digit prime numbers, with
two digit numbers is : distinct digits, on being reversed they again give the
(a) 88 (b) 89 prime numbers is :
(c) 22 (d) 99 (a) 3 (b) 5
Solution Simply 99 − 10 = 89 (c) 8 (d) 11
Hence (b) is the correct option. Solution See, the total number of prime numbers in this case
(when there are distinct digits i.e., there are no same digits) the
Exp. 2) When a two digit number is reversed, then the number of prime numbers must be an even number.
5 Hence (c) is the correct option.
new number becomes th of the original number. The
6 Alternatively These numbers are 13, 31, 17, 71, 37, 73 and 79,
97.
original number is :
Thus there are total 8 such numbers.
(a) 56 (b) 45
(c) 48 (d) 54 Exp. 6) The total number of two digit numbers whose
Solution The best way is to go through options. unit digit is either, same, double, triple or quadruple of
Now, we consider those options which are divisible by 6, as, the the tens digit :
number is an integer. (a) 13 (b) 9
Again we pick up only those values which on being reversed (c) 18 (d) 90
(their digits) decreases. So only option (d) is suitable. Check it
Solution 11, 22, 33, 44, 55, 66, 77, 88, 99
out.
12, 24, 36, 48
Alternatively Let the original number be (10x + y) then the 13, 26, 39
5
new number will be (10y + x), then (10y + x) = (10x + y) 14, 28
6
Thus there are total 18 such numbers. Hence (c) is the correct
⇒ 55 y = 44x answer.
x 5
⇒ =
y 4 Exp. 7) The number of two digit numbers which are
Thus the only possible values of x , y are 5, 4 respectively. perfect square and perfect cube both is :
Hence the original number is 54. (a) 0 (b) 2
Alternatively When you multiply the given (original) (c) can’t be determined (d) none of these
5 Solution Two digit perfect cubes are 27, 64
number by then the digit of the resultant value gets
6 Two digit perfect squares are 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81
interchanged. Thus there is only one value i.e., 64 which is both perfect square
and perfect cube.
Exp. 3) The number of two digit numbers which on Thus (d) is the most appropriate choice.
being reversed (i.e., their digits exchanged the position)
gives out perfect square two digit numbers : Exp. 8) Aprajita multiplies a number by 72 instead of 27,
(a) 1 (b) 4 then her new answer will increase by, than the actual
(c) 6 (d) 10 result :
Solution These numbers are 61, 52, 63, 94, 46 and 18. Since 7 8
(a) (b)
these numbers on being reversed give out 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81 2 3
the two digit perfect square numbers. 5
(c) (d) none of these
Hence (c) is the correct answer. 3
Solution Let the number be k then the original product will be
Exp. 4) The number of two digit numbers which are k × 27 and the new product will be k × 72.
prime : So, the difference in the product value
(a) 25 (b) 23 = 72k − 27 k = 45k
(c) 21 (d) can’t be determined 45 k 5
Thus, new product will increase by =
Solution There are 25 prime numbers between 1 and 100. 27 k 3
There are 4 prime numbers of 1 digit (viz, 2, 3, 5, 7) Hence (c) is the correct answer.
So, the number of two digit prime numbers = 25 − 4 = 21 72 − 27 5
Alternatively =
Hence (c) is the correct option. 27 3
82 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 9) If the numerator and denominator of a fraction and y −x = 3 …(iii)
are exchanged then the product of these two fractions from equation (ii) and (iii)
x = 3 and y = 6
becomes equal to 1. The total number of such fractions is
Thus the required number is 36.
(a) 1 (b) 31
(c) 13 (d) infinitely many Exp. 14) When a two digit number is subtracted from the
x
Solution Let be the fraction where x , y ≠ 0, then other two digit number which consists of the same digits
y
but in reverse order, then the difference comes out to be a
x y
× =1 (always) two digit perfect square. The number is :
y x (a) 59 (b) 73
Now since x and y can assume infinite values so (d) is the best (c) 36 (d) not unique
answer. Solution Since the difference between number is a perfect
square. So this difference can be only 36, because 36 is the only
Exp. 10) 3th of a number is 20 more than half of the same two digit perfect square contains 9 as a factor.
4
But there are total 5 numbers possible viz., 15, 26, 37, 48, 59. Since
number. The required number is : the only condition is that
(a) 50 (b) 180 (c) 90 (d) 80 (10x + y) − (10y + x) = 9 ( x − y) = 36
Solution Since the number is an integer so it must be divisible ⇒ ( x − y) = 4
by 4. Hence option (a) and (c) are ruled out. Thus (d) is the most appropriate answer.
Now, if we check option (b) we find it is wrong so (d) is the
correct. Exp. 15) There is a three digit number such that the sum
3 1 of its end digits (unit digit and hundredth place digit) is
As 80 × = 80 × + 20 ⇒ 60 = 60
4 2 always a single digit number. Another three digit number
3 1
Alternatively x × = x × + 20 ⇒ x = 80 is obtained by reversing the position of end digits of the
4 2 original number. Then what can be the possible sum of the
Exp. 11) When 50 is added to the 50% of a number, then tens digits of both these numbers?
(a) 5 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 26
the number becomes itself. The required number is :
Solution Since in both the numbers the middle digits i.e., the
(a) 375 (b) 100 (c) 150 (d) 500
x x tens digits are same, it means the sum of these tens digits is
Solution 50 + = x ⇒ = 50 ⇒ x = 100 always an even number (Q x + x = 2x)
2 2
So the option (a) and (c) are ruled out.
Hence (b) is the correct option.
Now, since the largest possible digit is 9, so the maximum
Exp. 12) If we reverse the digits of a two digit number possible sum of these two digits can be 18 ( = 9 + 9). Therefore
then the difference between the original number and new option (d) is also ruled out.
number is 27, the difference between the digits is : Thus the possible answer is (b).
(a) 9 (b) 3
Exp. 16) A three digit number which on being subtracted
(c) can’t be determined (d) none of these
from another three digit number consisting of the same
Solution Since xy − yx = 9( x − y)
digits in reverse order gives 594. The minimum possible
Here 9 ( x − y) = 27 sum of all the three digits of this number is :
Thus x−y=3 (a) 8 (b) 12
So (b) is the correct answer. (c) 6 (d) can’t be determined
Exp. 13) A two digit number is 4 times the sum of its Solution Let x , y , z be the hundred, tens and unit digits of the
digits and the unit digit is 3 more than the tens digit. The original number then
number is : (100z + 10y + x) − (100x + 10y + z) = 594
(a) 52 (b) 61 (c) 63 (d) 36 ⇒ 99 (z − x) = 594
Solution Go through option 36 = 4( 3 + 6) and 6 − 3 = 3 ⇒ (z − x) = 6
Hence (d) is the correct answer. So the possible values of ( x , z) are (1, 7),( 2, 8) and ( 3 , 9). Again the
Alternatively Let x , y be the tens and unit digits respectively, tens digit can have the values viz., 0, 1, 2, 3, ... 9.
then So the minimum possible value of x + y + z = 1 + 0 + 7 = 8.
(10x + y) = 4( x + y) …(i) Hence (a) is the correct option.
⇒ 6x = 3 y NOTE x and z can never be zero since if the left most digit
x 1 becomes zero, then it means this number is only two digit number.
⇒ = …(ii)
y 2
Number System 83

Digital Sum This is because negative powers of 2 share the same digits
(after removing leading zeroes) as corresponding positive
The digital sum of a number is a single digit number powers of 5, whose digital roots progress in the sequence 1, 5,
obtained by an iterative (or repeated) process of 7, 8, 4, 2.
summing the digits. In this process all the digits are
10. The digital root of an even perfect number (except 6) is 1.
added to form a new number, and then again all the
11. The digital root of a star number is 1 or 4. Digital roots of star
digits of new number are added to form another
numbers progress in the sequence 1, 4, 1.
number. The process continues until a single digit
12. The digital root of a nonzero multiple of 9 is 9.
number is obtained.
13. The digital root of a nonzero multiple of 3 is 3, 6 or 9.
Exp. 1) Find the digital sum of 7586902. 14. The digital root of a triangular number is 1, 3, 6 or 9. Digital
Solution 7 + 5 + 8 + 6 + 9 + 0 + 2 = 37 roots of triangular numbers progress in the sequence 1, 3, 6, 1,
3 + 7 = 10 6, 3, 1, 9, 9.
1+ 0=1 15. The digital root of a factorial ≥ 6! is 9.
Therefore the digital sum of 7586902 is 1. 16. The digital root of Fibonacci numbers is a repeating pattern of
Additive Persistence The number of times the digits must 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 4, 3, 7, 1, 8, 9, 8, 8, 7, 6, 4, 1, 5, 6, 2, 8, 1, 9.
be summed to reach the digital sum is called a number's
additive persistence. In the above example, the additive 17. The digital root of Lucas numbers is a repeating pattern of 2,
persistence of 7586902 is 3. 1, 3, 4, 7, 2, 9, 2, 2,4, 6, 1, 7, 8, 6, 5, 2, 7, 9 7,7, 5, 3, 8.
18. The digital root of the product of twin primes, other than 3 and
Properties of Digital Roots 5, is 8. The digital root of the product of 3 and 5 (twin primes)
1. The digital sum of any number in the decimal is 6.
system is the same as the remainder obtained when 19. The digital root of a non-zero number is 9 if and only if the
that number is divided by 9. In terms of digital sum number is itself a multiple of 9.
the remainder 0 is equivalent to the digit 9.
2. Adding 9 or its multiples to any number does not Digital Sum Rule of Multiplication
change the digital sum of that number. The digital sum of the product of two numbers is equal to the
3. Removing the digit 9 or removing the cluster of digital sum of the product of the digital sums of the two numbers.
digits those add up to 9 would not affect the digital Exp. 2) The product of 174 and 26 is 4524.
sum of the given number.
The digital sum of 174 is 3 and that of 26 is 8.
4. A number is divisible by 3, if its digital sum is 0, 3,
6 or 9. The product of digital sums 3 and 8 is 6.
The digital sum of 4524 is 6.
5. A number is divisible by 9, if its digital sum is 0 or
9. Therefore the digital sum of 174x26 = Digital sum of 4524.

6. The digital root of a square is 1, 4, 7, or 9. Digital Determining Whether a Number is a Perfect

roots of square numbers progress in the sequence Square or Not
1, 4, 9, 7, 7, 9, 4, 1, 9. The digital sum of the numbers that are perfect squares will always
7. The digital root of a perfect cube is 1, 8 or 9, and be 1, 4, 7, or 9.
digital roots of perfect cubes progress in that exact
However, a number will NOT be a perfect square if its digital sum
sequence.
is NOT 1, 4, 7, or 9, but it may or may not be a perfect square if its
8. The digital root of a prime number (except 3) is 1, digital sum is 1, 4, 7, or 9.
2, 4, 5, 7, or 8.
The numbers 1, 81, 1458 and 1729 are each the product of their
9. The digital root of a power of 2 is 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, or 8. own digit sum and its reversal, for example 1 + 7 + 2 + 9 = 19, and
Digital roots of the powers of 2 progress in the
19x91 = 1729.
sequence 1, 2, 4, 8, 7 and 5. This even applies to
negative powers of 2; for example, 2 to the power Exp. 3) Find the product of 102030x405060x708090
of 0 is 1; 2 to the power of -1 (minus one) is .5, (a) 39064716832962000
with a digital root of 5; 2 to the power of -2 is .25, (b) 281635785138962000
with a digital root of 7; and so on, ad infinitum in (c) 29264135978862000
both directions. (d) 291635781359782000
84 QUANTUM CAT
Solution Getting the exact product of the 3 numbers through Choice (d): The digital sum of 7562 is 9 and the digital sum of
direct multiplication is indubitably a cumbersome and 1205 2 is 1. So the digital sum of 7562 + 1205 2 is 1.
time-consuming process. So it's better to use the following And the digital sum of 14312 is 9.
approach. Since the digital roots (or sums) of the both the sides are not the
The digital root of 102030 is 6, and that of 405060 is 6 and that of same, so it's an invalid relation.
708090 is 6. Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
So the digital root of 6 × 6 × 6 is 9.
It means the digital root of 102030 × 405060 × 708090 is 9. Exp. 6) Two friends Anjaniputra and Bajrangbali who
Again, the digital root of the number in choice (a) is 3 earned some money by teaching at Lamamia mobile app,
and the digital root of the number in choice (b) is 2 and now they have some Indian currency in their wallets.
Similarly the digital root of the number in choice (c) is 9 Each one has some notes of denominations of ` 1000, ` 100,
Finally the digital root of the number in choice (d) is 4 ` 10 and ` 1. The total number of notes with each one is
Since the digital root of the numbers in choices (a), (b) and (d) is same but the total amount with each one is distinct. None
not the same as the digital root of the product of the 3 numbers, of them has 10 or more notes of any denomination.
so these choices are wrong.
What could be the possible difference of amounts with
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
Anjaniputra and Bajrangbali?
Hint Since 6 × 6 × 6 = 216, which is divisible by 9, therefore the
(a) 2365 (b) 1991 (c) 1957 (d) 2025
digital root of 6 × 6 × 6 is 9.
Solution Let's assume that they have a, b, c and d number of
Exp. 4) For any natural number n, if D(n) is the sum of all notes of various denominations in any random order. Then
99 there would be total 24 different combinations of amounts such
the digits of D(n), find the remainder when ∑ D(n) is as
1 1000a + 100b + 10c + d ,1000a + 100b + 10d + c,
divided by 99. 1000a + 100c + 10b + d ,1000a + 100c + 10d + b , etc.
(a) 9 (b) 0 However, the difference of any two combinations would always
(c) 1 (d) 89 be divisible by 9, which means the difference in the two amounts
Solution Consider the following expansion. has the digital root equal to 9. Since digital roots of 2365, 1991
99 and 1957 are 7, 2 and 4, respectively, so choices (a), (b) and (c)
∑ D(n) = D(1) + D ( 2) + D( 3) + D ( 4) +...+ D( 99) cannot be the correct ones. Now, the digital root of 2025 is 9, so
1 2025 can be the difference in the amounts with Anjaniputra and
99
Bajrangbali. Hence, choice (d) is the correct one.
∑ D(n) = 11(1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ....+ 9) = 11 × 45
Hint For example, consider any two combinations and take the
1
99 difference and you will see that this difference is always divisible by 9.
∑ D(n) = 99 × 5 (1000a + 100b + 10c + d) −
1 (1000c + 100b + 10d + a) = 9 (111a − 110c − d)
Therefore the required remainder is zero, as the given
expression is divisible by 99. Digital Number Systems
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
There are various number systems used in digital
Exp. 5) Which of the following is not a valid representation. The most common number systems are
Pythagorean relation, in which x 2 + y 2 = z 2 ? binary, octal, decimal, hexadecimal systems.
(a) 5762 + 7682 = 9602 (c) 5762 + 7562 = 945 2 Base The number that determines the positional value of
(b) 675 + 816 = 1059
2 3 2
(d) 7562 + 1205 2 = 14312 every digit in a number is called the base of that number. For
Solution As it is apparent that squaring the both sides for all the example the base of binary system is 2, octal is 8, decimal is
choices would be an irritating task, so let's have another 10 and hexadecimal is 16. It is also known as Radix. Also the
approach, as follows. base tells us that the number of distinct (or unique) symbols
Choice (a): The digital sum of 576 is 9, so the digital sum of 5762 used in that system.
is also 9.
The digital sum of 768 is 3, so the digital sum of 7682 is 9. For example we use only 2 distinct symbols viz., 0 and 1 in
Thus the digital sum of 5762 + 7682 is 9. binary system. Also in decimal system there are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
And the digital sum of 960 is 6, so the digital sum of 9602 is 9.
6, 7, 8, 9 unique symbols. In the binary system (base is 2)
As the digital sum of both the sides is same, so this is a valid there are only two symbols or possible digits viz., 0 and 1.
relation. Even it can represent a very-very large number that can be
You can prove other choices (b) and (c) too as valid ones, in the represented in any other number system.
similar fashion.
Number System 85

Exp. 5) Convert (128) 10 into binary system.

Conversion of Decimal Numbers into
Another Number System Solution 2 128
To convert any decimal number in any base ‘n’. We divide 2 64 → 0
the number successively by ‘n’ i.e., first of all divide the 2 32 → 0
given number, then divide the quotients obtained one by one 2 16 → 0
successively, till the last quotient becomes zero, then write 2 8 → 0
down all the remainders in proper order. As the last 2 4 → 0
remainder is MSD (most significant digit) and the first
2 2 → 0
remainder is LSD (least significant digit). It means the first
remainder will be the right most digit and the last remainder 2 1 → 0
will be left most digit. 0 → 1
∴ (128)10 = (10000000) 2
Decimal to Binary Numbers
Exp. 6) Convert (127) 10 into binary system.
Exp. 1) Convert (17) 10 into binary system (or in base 2)

Solution 2 17 Solution 2 127

2 8 → 1 2 63 → 1

2 4 → 0 → Remainders 2 31 → 1

2 2 → 0 2 15 → 1
2 7 → 1
2 1 → 0
2 3 → 1
0 → 1
∴ (17)10 = (10001) 2 2 1 → 1
0 → 1
Exp. 2) Convert ( 35) 10 into base 3.
∴ (127)10 = (1111111) 2
Solution 3 35
Representation of Binary Numbers
3 11 → 2
The binary system is also a positional value system, wherein
3 3 → 2 → Remainders
each binary digit has its own value or weight expressed as a
3 1 → 0 power of 2.
0 → 1
NOTE We have studied the representation of the Decimal
∴ ( 35)10 = (1022) 3 number system in the previous articles.
Exp. 3) Convert (169) 10 into base 7. The number 1101.0101 is shown represented in
the figure
Solution 7 169
Positional → 23 22 21 20 2−1 2−2 2−3 2−4
7 24 → 1 values ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
7 3 → 3 → Remainders
1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
0 → 3
↑ ↑ ↑
∴ (169)10 = ( 331) 7 MSB Binary LSB
Exp. 4) Convert ( 8976) 10 into base 9. point
(Most significant bit) (Least significant bit)
Solution 9 8976
9 997 → 3
Here, places to the left of the binary point (i.e., counter part
of the decimal point) are positive powers of 2 and places to
9 110 → 7 → Remainders
the right are negative powers of 2.
9 12 → 2
9 1 → 3
0 → 1
So ( 8976)10 = (13273) 9
86 QUANTUM CAT
Binary into Decimal. Representation of Octal Numbers
To find the decimal equivalent of binary number, we take the This system has base of 8. So there are 8 unique symbols
sum of the products of each digit value (0 or 1) with its viz.,0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 are used for representation. For
positional value. example consider a number 5324.01246.
Then
Exp. 1) Convert (100101) 2 into decimal representation.
83 82 81 80 8−1 8−2 8−3 8−4 8−5
Solution 1 × 25 + 0 × 2 4 + 0 × 2 3 + 1 × 2 2 + 0 × 21 + 1 × 2 0 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
= 32 + 0 + 0 + 4 + 0 + 1 = 37
5 3 2 4 0 1 2 4 6
Exp. 2) Convert (1101.0101)2 in base 10 (i.e., decimal system) ↑ ↑ ↑
Solution (1101.0101) = 1 × 2 + 1 × 2 + 0 × 2
3 2 1 MSD Octal LSD
−1 −2 −3 −4
point
+1×2 + 0×2
0
+1×2 + 0×2 +1×2
= 8 + 4 + 0 + 1 + 0 + 0.25 + 0 + 0.0625 = (13.3125)10 The decimal equivalent of (5324.012) 8 is given below :
(5324.012) 8 = 5 × 8 3 + 3 × 8 2 + 2 × 81
Exp. 3) The decimal number corresponding to the
binary number (111000.0101) 2 is : + 4 × 80 + 0 × 8− 1 + 1 × 8− 2 + 2 × 8− 3
(a) (5.6312)10 (b) (56.3125)10 (c) (563.125)10 (d) (5631.2)10 = 2560 + 192 + 16 + 4 + 0.015625 + 2 × 0.001953125
Solution 1 × 25 + 1 × 2 4 + 1 × 2 3 + 0 × 2 2 = (2772.01953125)10
+ 0 × 21 + 0 × 20 + 0 × 2− 1 + 1 × 2− 2 + 0 × 2− 3 + 1 × 2− 4 The sequence of octal number goes as :
= 32 + 16 + 8 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0.25 + 0 + 0.0625 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 20, 21, 22,
= (56.3125)10 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 30, 31, ...
NOTE We use the subscripts to denote the base number so as to
avoid confusion. For example (10010)2 means the base of the Hexadecimal Number System
number is 2 and ( 201021)3 means the base of the number is 3 etc. It has base 16. So it uses 16 unique symbols viz., 1, 2, 3, ...9
In the binary system the term ‘‘binary digit’’ is often abbriviated as and A, B , C , D, E , and F .
‘‘bit’’. The leftmost bit carries the largest weight and hence is called
the most significant bit (MSB). The rightmost bit carries the smallest Thus (1)10 = (1)16 , (2)10 = (2)16 ,
weight and hence it is called the least significant bit (LSB). So the (3)10 = (3)16 .... (9)10 = (9)16
sequence of binary numbers goes as
00, 01, 10, 11, 100, 101, 110, 111, 1000, 1001, ... etc. and (10)10 = ( A )16,
See the peculiarity in the pattern of binary numbers. (11)10 = ( B )16 , ... (15)10 = ( F )16 .
00
01 Conversion of Decimal Fractions into
10
11 Binary
100 To convert a decimal fraction into binary, we multiply
101
successively the decimal fraction by the radix i.e., base 2 (in
110
111 case of binary) and write down all the integral values (i.e.,
1000 the figures left of the decimal point) in that order.
1001 As the first integral figure (0 or 1) will be just right to the
1010
1011 binary point and the last integral will be the right most figure
1100 in the binary representation.
1101
1110 Exp. 1) Convert ( 0.875) 10 to binary.
1111 Solution Integer part
10000
2 × 0.875 = 1.750 1
10001
Now, you can see that the unit digit goes as 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1... and tens 2 × 0.75 = 1.50 1
digit goes as 0, 0, 1, 1, 0,0, 1, 1, 0, 0, 1, 1 and Hundreds digit goes as 2 × 0.50 = 1.00 1
0000, 1111, 0000, 1111, 0000, 1111, ... etc. and thousands digit goes ∴ ( 0.875)10 = ( 0.111) 2
as 00000000, 11111111, 00000000, 11111111, ... etc.
Number System 87

Exp. 2) Convert ( 0.3125) 10 to binary equivalent. Exp. 5) Convert ( 0.825) 10 to octal.

Solution Integer part Solution Integer part
2 × 0.3125 = 0.625 0 8 × 0.825 = 6.6006
2 × 0.625 = 1.25 1 8 × 0.6 = 4.8 4
2 × 0.25 = 0.50 0 8 × 0.8 = 6.4 6
2 × 0.50 = 1.00 1 8 × 0.4 = 3.2 3
Thus ( 0.3125)10 = ( 0.1010) 2 8 × 0.2 = 1.6 1
Exp. 3) Convert 0.454545 to binary equivalent. 8 × 0.6 = 4.8 4
Since it is a recurring number so it will not be stop.
Solution Integer part Thus we write only 5 figures.
2 × 0.454545 = 0.909090 0 Hence, ( 0.825)10 = (.64631) 8
2 × 0.90909 = 1.81816 1
2 × 0.81818 = 1.63638 1 Octal to Binary Conversion
2 × 0.63636 = 1.27272 1 The following table helps in quick conversion.
2 × 0.27272 = 0.54544 0
2 × 0.54544 = 1.09088 1 Octal Digit 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
2 × 0.09088 = 0.18176 0
2 × 0.18176 = 0.36352 0 Binary Equivalent 000 001 010 011 100 101 110 111
2 × 0.36352 = 0.72704 0
2 × 0.72704 = 1.45408 1
Exp. 6) Convert ( 273) 8 to binary.
Since, the sequence is continuous so can never be expressed as
exactly in binary. Therefore writing down the integral parts. Solution 2 7 3
( 0.454545)10 = (0.1000101110)2 ↓ ↓ ↓
010 111 011
Exp. 4) Convert ( 38.21) 10 to its binary equivalent. Hence ( 273) 8 = ( 010111011) 2
Solution First we convert the integer part i.e.,38. Exp. 7) Convert (16504) 8 to binary.
2 38 Solution 1 6 5 0 4
2 19 → 0 Remainder ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
001 110 101 000 100
2 9 → 1
Hence (16504) 8 = ( 001110101000100) 2
2 4 → 1
2 2 → 0 Exp. 8) Convert (37.42) 8 to binary.
2 1 → 0 Solution 3 7 4 2
0 → 1 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
011 111 100 010
( 38)10 = (100110) 2
Now we convert the fractional part i.e, 0.21 ∴ (37.42)8 = (0111 111.100010)2
Integer part Binary to Octal Conversion
2 × 0.21 = 0.42 0
2 × 0.42 = 0.84 0 This is the inverse process of the previous conversion. In this
2 × 0.84 = 1.68 1 process we make the triplets starting from the right (i.e.,
2 × 0.68 = 1.36 1 LSB). If the number of digits in the binary representation are
2 × 0.36 = 0.72 0 not in the group of 3 (i.e., 3, 6, 9, 12, ... etc) then we associate
2 × 0.72 = 1.44 1 either 1 or 2 zeros at the left of the MSB, then we write the
2 × 0.44 = 0.88 0 octal equivalent of each triplet.
2 × 0.88 = 1.76 1
2 × 0.76 = 1.52 1
Exp. 9) Convert (100011010110) 2 to octal.
2 × 0.52 = 1.04 1 Solution 100 011 010 110 (see the table)
Thus ( 0.21)10 = ( 0.0011010111)2 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
4 3 2 6
∴ ( 38.21)10 = (100110.0011010111)2
Hence (100011010110) 2 = ( 4326) 8
88 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 10) Convert (1001011001) 2 to octal. In general, the symbols in the numeral system are read from
left to right, starting with the symbol representing the largest
Solution 001 001 011 001 [two more zeros are
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
value; the same symbol cannot occur contiguously more than
added in the left to
1 1 3 1 three times; the value of the numeral is the sum of the values
make the triplet]
Thus (1001011001) 2 = (1131) 8 of the symbols.
For example LX VII = 50 + 10 + 5 + 1 + 1 = 67.
Exp. 11) Convert (10110.0101) 2 to octal.
An exception to the left to the right reading occurs when a
Solution 010 110 010 100
symbol is followed immediately by a symbol of greater
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
4 6 2 4 value, then the smaller value is subtracted from the larger.
Thus (10110.0101)2 = (46.24)8 For example,
Note that, after binary point, the groups of 3 bits are made CDXLVIII = (500 − 100) + (50 − 10) + 5 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 448.
starting from left to right. That’s why we added two zeros to
make a group of three bits as the, last group had only 1. Important Conversions
Decimal to Hex Conversion 1 trillion = 1012 = 1000000000000

Exp. 12) Convert (725) 10 to hexadecimal. 1 billion = 10 9 = 1000000000

1 million = 10 6 = 1000000
16 725 [Q(13)10 = (D )16]
Solution 1 crore = 10 7 = 100 lakh
16 45 → 5
10 lakh = 10 6 = 1 million
16 2 → D
0 → 2 1 lakh = 10 5 = 100000 = 100 thousand
∴ (725)10 = ( 2D5)16 1 thousand = 10 3 = 1000
Exp. 13) Convert (0.03125)10 to base 16. Exp. 1) The value of the numeral MCDLXIV is :
Solution Integer part (a) 1666 (b) 664
16 × 0.03125 = 0.5 0 (c) 1464 (d) 656
16 × 0.5 = 8.0 8 Solution MCDLXIV = 1000 + (500 − 100) + 50 + 10 + (5 − 1)
So ( 0.03125)10 = ( 0.08)16
= 1464
Hex to Decimal Numbers
Exp. 2) Which of the following can represent the
Exp. 14) Convert (765) 16 to decimal. numeral for 2005 ?
(a) DDDDV (b) MMV
Solution (765)16 = 7 × 16 2 + 6 × 161 + 5 × 16 0
(c) MDDXV (d) MDVX
⇒ (765)16 = 1792 + 96 + 5 = 1893
Solution 2005 = 2000 + 5 = 1000 + 1000 + 5 = MMV
Thus (765)16 = (1893)10

Exp. 15) Convert (3C8.08)16 to decimal. Exp. 3) The value of the numeral MDCCLXXXIX is :
(a) 1789 (b) 1987
Solution ( 3C 8.08)16 = 3 × 16 2 + C × 161
(c) 2989 (d) 2311
+ 8 × 160 + 0 × 16− 1 + 8 × 16− 2
Solution MDCCLXXXIX
= 3 × 162 + 12 × 161 + 8 × 160 + 0 × 16− 1 + 8 × 16− 2 = 1000 + 500 + 100 + 100 + 50 + 10
= 768 + 192 + 8 + 0 + 0.03125 = ( 968.03125)10 + 10 + 10 + (10 − 1)
So ( 3C8.08)16 = ( 968.03125)10
Exp. 4) Which of the following represents the numeral
Roman Number System for 2949?
(a) MMMIXL (b) MMXMIX
In this system there are basically seven symbols used to
(c) MMCMIL (d) MMCMXLIX
represent the whole number system. The symbols and their
respective values are given below. Solution 2949 = 2000 + 900 + 40 + 9
= (1000 + 1000) + (1000 − 100) + (50 − 10) + (10 − 1)
I = 1, V = 5, X = 10, L = 50,
= MMCMXLIX
C = 100, D = 500 and M =1000
Number System 89

Introductory Exercise 1.11

1. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 8. The 10. A number of decimal system when represented in
number obtained by reversing the digits is 18 less binary system then its first and last digits are same
than the original number. The original number is : and the rest digits are also of another kind. Further
(a) 62 (b) 17 this number appears to be palindrome of numerals.
(c) 53 (d) 35 The number is :
2. A number consists of two digits. The sum of the digits (a) 57 (b) 19
is 11, reversing the digits, the number decreases by (c) 8 (d) 9
45, the number is : 11. When a two digit number is reversed, the new
(a) 38 (b) 65 number is reduced by 63 and the sum of digits of
(c) 74 (d) 83 these individual numbers is 9. Now, if these same
3. If a number of two digit is ‘k’ times the sum of its numbers are converted into base ‘x’ the larger
number becomes 5 times that of smaller one the
digits then the number formed by interchanging the value of x is :
digits is the sum of the digits multiplied by : (a) 36 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 18
(a) (9 + k) (b) (10 − k)
12. If (25 )n × (31)n = (1015 )n, then the value of
(c) (11 − k) (d) (k − 1)
(13 )n × (52 )n is, when n > 0 :
4. The value of x when (25 )x = (85 )10 is : (a) (626 )4 (b) (462 )n
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) (716 )n (d) (676 )n
(c) 40 (d) can’t be determined 13. What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal
5. Which one is an invalid number? number (100
14....
24 3 )16 ?
001
(a) (325 ) 7 (b) (345 ) 5 23 zeros
(c) (543 ) 6 (d) none of these (a) 2 + 1
23
(b) 224 + 1
6. (35 )n , (37 )n , (45 )n and (51)n all are written in base n (c) 2 92 + 1 (d) 2 96 + 1
then the value of n, such that all these four numbers 14. If the decimal number 2111 is written in the octal
when written in decimal system, they must be the system, then what is its unit place digit?
consecutive prime numbers : (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
(a) n = 8 (b) n = 2 (c) n = 12 (d) n = 6 15. Match list I (Binary) with list II (Octal) and select the
7. The last three digits in the binary representation of correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
(365247728 )10 is List I (Binary) List II (Octal)
(a) 000 (b) 100
(c) 110 (d) 010 I - 101110 (A) 135
II - 1101110 (B) 56
8. The last three digits, if (12345956 )10 is expressed in
III - 1011101 (C) 176
binary system
IV - 1111110 (D) 156
(a) 210 (b) 100
(c) 110 (d) 010 Codes
9. The last four digits in the binary representation of (a) I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
(8009 )10 are (b) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
(a) 1001 (b) 0001 (c) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C
(c) 0101 (d) none of these (d) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
90 QUANTUM CAT
1.12 Patterns, Relations and Exp. 2) Find the sum of the 10 terms of the following
series −11, – 8, – 5, – 2, ...
Functions n
Solution Sn = [2 a + (n − 1) d]
2
Progressions 10
S10 = [2 × ( − 11) + ( 9) 3]
This topic is directly related to our real life. For example 2
whenever the things (or activities) occur in a definite pattern, [Here a = − 11, d = 3]
we say there is a progression. = 5 × ( − 22 + 27) = 25

Arithmetic Progressions Exp. 3) Find the arithmetic mean of the following

Suppose A has 2 books, B has 4 books, C has 6 books, D has 8 series− 17 , − 13, − 9, − 5, − 1, ....
books etc., then we can say that E must has 10 books, if all ( − 17 ) + ( − 13) + ( − 9) + ( − 5) + ( − 1)
Solution A.M. =
these form a progression. 5
45
So if the same quantity is added in the next term or value, then A.M. = − =−9
5
it is said to be in Arithmetic Progression e.g., a, ( a + d ), NOTE1. The arithmetic mean (A.M.) of odd numbers of
( a + 2d ), ( a + 3d ), ( a + 4d ), ... consecutive terms is the middle most term itself.
Here you can see that each next term is ‘d ’ more than its 2. If a , b , c be three consecutive terms of an A.P. then the
a+c
previous term. A.M. = b =
2
Some more examples of Arithmetic Progression are as follows 3. The consecutive odd number of terms of an A.P. are
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, ... written as ( a − 2d) ( a − d), a , ( a + d), ( a + 2d), ... etc.
4. The consecutive even number of terms on an A.P. are
3, 5, 7, 9, 11, ... written as
7, 11, 15, 19, 23, ... ( a − 5d) ( a − 3d) ( a − d) ( a + d) ( a + 3d) ( a + 5d)... etc.
– 9, – 4, 1, 6, 11, 16, ... Geometric Progression
13, 9, 5, 1, – 3, – 7, – 11, ... In the series each successive (or next) term is multiplied by
The first term of the series is denoted by ‘a’ and the common a fix number.
difference by ‘d ’ and nth term by t n and sum of the n terms of For example: 1, 3, 9, 27, 81, ...
the series is denoted by ‘ S n ’. 2, 8, 32, 128, 512, ...
Also the last term is denoted by ‘l’ – 3, 6, – 12, 24, – 48, ...
The common difference is the difference between any two If a is the first term, l is the last term, r is the common ratio,
consecutive terms of the series. Tn is the nth and S n is the sum of n term.
Let a1 be the first term and a 2 be the second term and a 3 be the
then, l = ar ( n − 1)
third term then d = a 3 − a 2 = a 2 − a1 etc.
The n th term of a series is Tn = a + ( n − 1) d Tn = ar ( n − 1)

and the sum of the n terms of a series is a ( r n − 1)

Sn = if r >1
n r −1
S n = [2a + ( n − 1) d ]
2 a (1 − r n )
and Sn = if r <1
 a + a 2 + a 3 +… + a n  1− r
and the arithmetic mean A.M. =  1 
 n  Also the geometric mean G.M.
and the last term = l = a + ( n − 1) d. = ( a1 . a 2 . a 3 . a 4 ... a n )1/ n
Exp. 1) Find the 10th term of the following series 7, 10, 13, Exp. 1) Find the 6th term of 2, 4, 8, ... .
16, .... etc.
Solution T6 = 2( 2)5 = 2 6 = 64 [QTn = a(r) n − 1 ]
Solution T10 = 7 + (10 − 1) 3 [Here a = 7 , d = 3]
T10 = 34
Number System 91

Exp. 2) Find the sum of 7 terms of the following series Exp. 1) If P = ( 2 ⊕ 3)  ( 3 ∗ 5), then the value of P is :
1, 3, 9, 27, 81, ... (a) 225 (b) 226
a (r n − 1) (c) 256 (d) none of these
Solution Q Sn =
r −1 Solution P = ( 2 ⊕ 3)  ( 3 ∗ 5)
1 ( 3 7 − 1) ( 2187 − 1)
∴ S7 = = = 1093 ⇒ P = ( 23 + 3 2 + 1)  ( 3 3 − 5 2 + 1)
3 −1 2
Exp. 3) Find the Geometric mean of, 3, 9, 27. ⇒ P = 18  3 = (18 − 3) 2 + 1
Solution G.M. = ( a1 . a2 . a 3 )1 / 3 ⇒ P = 226

G.M. = ( 3 . 9 . 27 )1 / 3 = ( 3 6 )1 / 3 = 3 2 = 9 Exp. 2) The value of P = (((1 ⊕ 2) ∗ 2)  1) is :

NOTE
1. The G.M. of odd number of consecutive terms of a G.P. is (a) 40001 (b) 10804
the middlemost term itself. (c) 40401 (d) none of these
2. If a , b , c be three consecutive terms of a G.P. then
G.M. = b = ac = ( a . c)1/2 Solution (((1 ⊕ 2) ∗ 2)  1) = (( 6 ∗ 2)  1)
3. The consecutive odd number of terms of a G.P. are = ( 213  1)
a a = ( 212) 2 + 1 = 44945
written as ... 2 , , a , ar , ar2 ,... etc.
r r
4. The consecutive even number of terms of a G.P. are Exp. 3) The value of P = ((( 2 ⊕ 2)  2)  2) is :
a a
written as ... , 3 , , ar , ar3 , ... etc. (a) 14441 (b) 14401
r r
(c) 144001 (d) none of these
Important Series Solution P = ((( 2 ⊕ 2)  2)  2)
1. The sum of first n terms of natural numbers = (((13)  2)  2)
n ( n + 1) = (122  2) = 14401
=
2 Directions (for Q. Nos. 4 to 6) : In the following division
2. The sum of first n even natural numbers = n ( n + 1) problem some digits are replaced by letters a, b, c.... etc. Every
3. The sum of first n odd natural numbers = n 2 missing digit is uniquely determinable by a, b, c, ... etc.

4. The sum of first n perfect squares (numbers) ab3 c61de1 4cfd

eg2
n ( n + 1) (2n + 1)
= 6gd
6 fa5
5. The sum of first n perfect cubes (numbers) 8be
2 d3j
 n ( n + 1) 
= 
8f1
 2  8f1
×
6. The sum of the first n terms of the following series :
n ( n + 1) ( n + 2) Exp. 4) The value of J is :
1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, .... is .
6 (a) 1 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) none of these
Functions/Operations/
Exp. 5) The value of f is :
Coding/Decoding
(a) 4 (b) 6
In this article we will learn to operate the numbers with
(c) 0 (d) can’t be determined
specially defined i.e., user defined operations. Basically this
is a kind of coding-decoding. Exp. 6) The value of a + g is :
Directions (for Q. Nos.1 to 3) : On the basis of information (a) 7 (b) 8
given below : (c) 10 (d) none of these
If a ⊕ b = a3 + b2 + 1 Solution (for Q. Nos. 4 to6) From the second step , g = 9,
since 11 − 2 = 9 again from the second step, c = 5, since
a  b = ( a − b )2 + 1 ab 3 × c = fa5 (using unit digit property)
a ∗ b = a3 − b2 + 1 Now, from the last step ab 3 × d = 8 f 1
92 QUANTUM CAT
⇒ d = 7 (only) Exp. 10) If p = 11 and q = 7 , then the value of
so, the value of a = 1 (only) ( p ∗ q) @ ( p $ q) is :
therefore f = 6 (only) ⇒ b = 2 (a) 14641 (b) 12482
Therefore, e = 4, from first step (since a = 1, b = 2) (c) 12243 (d) none of these
Thus a = 1, b = 2, c = 5 , d = 7 , e = 4, f = 6, g = 9, j = 8
Solution (11 * 7 ) @ (11 $ 7 ) = 72 @ 170
Exp. 7) If F = a . ( b ) . c . ( d ) . e . ( f ) . g ( h ) . i .( j ) and = 72 × 170 + 72 + 170 = 12482
G = a. b . c. d. e . f . g. h . i . j
Again, if a = ( −1) 1 , b = ( 2) −2 , c = ( −3) 3 , d = ( 4) −4 , … Exp. 11) If p = 8 and q = 10, then the value of
j = (10) −10 then the correct relation is : [( p $ q) ∆ ( p @ q)] * [( q * p) @ ( q  p)] is :
(a) F = −G (a) 5329 (b) 5239
(b) F =G (c) 12100 (d) – 973
(c) F ⋅G = 1 Solution [( 8 $ 10) ∆ ( 8 @ 10)] * [(10 * 8) @ (10  8)]
(d) none of the above
= (164 ∆ 98) * ( 36 @ 1)
Solution For F, the modulus of b , d , f , h , j is = 66 * 73 = − 973
ineffective since for the given values of b , d , f , h , j the
value of ( b ) = b , d = d.... etc. Exp. 12) If p = 15 and q = 25, then the value of the
Therefore F =G expression [( q  p) @ ( p $ q)]  [( q * p) ∆ ( p $ q)] is :
(a) 4 (b) 5
Exp. 8) If 2 f ( x) = f ( 2x), 3 f ( x) = f ( 3x), 4 f ( x) = f ( 4x).... etc, (c) 101 (d) 6
then f (1) + f ( 2) + f ( 3) + ... + f (n) equals to where f (1) = 1 : Solution [( 25  15) @ (15 $ 25)]  [( 25 * 15) ∆ (15 $ 25)]
(a) n(n + 1) (b) 0
= (1 @ 850)  ( 400 ∆ 850)
n (n + 1)
(c) (d) n! = (1701)  ( 400) = 4
2
Solution f (1) = 1
Direction (for Q. No. 13) Follow the steps to solve the
given problem :
f ( 2) = 2
Step 1. Put x = 2 and y = 3
f ( 3) = 3
f ( 4) = 4 Step 2. Multiply x by 2
… … … Step 3. Multiply y by 3
f (n) = n Step 4. If y = greatest possible 3 digit perfect square, then
n (n + 1)
∴ f (1) + f ( 2) + f ( 3) + ... f (n) = stop, else follow step 5.
2
Step 5. Go to step 2.
Exp. 9) If f  x −  = x 2 + 2 , then f (t) equals to :
1 1
 x x Exp. 13) What is the maximum possible value of x?
(a) 32 (b) 64
1 1
(a) t2 − (b) t2 + (c) less than 50 (d) none of these
t2 t2
(c) t2 + 2 (d) (t − 1)2 Solution x = 2 , 4 , 8 , 16 , 32 , 64
y = 3 , 9, 27 , 81, 243 , 729
Since f  x −  = x 2 + 2
1 1
Solution Hence, the required maximum value of x = 64.
 x x
2
 1  1 Exp. 14) p @ q = p 2 − 20 if p > q, p @ q = p 2 + 20 if p ≤ q,
⇒ f x −  = x −  + 2
 x  x then for a = 5 and b = 4 the value of
Hence f (t) = t 2 + 2 [( a @ b) @ ( a @ b)] − [( b @ a) @ ( b @ a)] is :
(a) 416
Directions (for Q. Nos. 10 to 12)
(b) – 461
p ∗ q = p2 − q2 (c) – 1271
p $ q = p2 + q2 (d) none of these
p @ q = pq + p + q Solution [(5 @ 4) @ (5 @ 4)] − [( 4 @ 5) @ ( 4 @ 5)]
p
p ∆ q = Remainder of = [5 @ 5) − ( 36 @ 36)
q = 45 − 1316 = − 1271
p
p  q = greatest integer less than or equal to
q
Number System 93

x+y
Exp. 15) If x # y = , then the value of p # ( q # r) for Exp. 17) The function f1 and f 2 are defined as follows :
every p, q, ∈ N : xy f1 = a ! + b ! and f 2 = a a + b b , for a, b > 1 and a, b ∈ N, then the
pq + qr + r 2 pqr + q + r correct relation is :
(a) (b) (a) f1 < f 2 (b) f1 = f 2 (c) f1 > f 2 (d) can’t say
p ( p + q + r) p ( q + r)
p ( qr + q + r) Solution Check for any value of ( a, b) > 1 and a, b ∈ N
(c) (d) none of these
pqr since a ! = a .( a − 1) ( a − 2) ... 1 but a a = a . a . a . ... a times
 q + r Therefore, f1 < f 2
Solution p # ( q # r) = p #  
 qr  Directions : For any natural number p and q
 q + r pqr + q + r (i) p # q = p 3 + q 3 + 3 and p * q = p 2 + q 2 + 2
p + 
 qr  qr and p $ q = p − q
= =
 q + r p ( q + r)
p  (ii) Max ( p , q ) = Maximum of ( p , q ) and Min ( p and q) =
 qr  qr Minimum of ( p , q )
pqr + q + r Exp. 18) The value of [( 4 # 5) $ (14 * 15)] is :
=
p( q + r)
(a) – 196 (b) 231 (c) – 225 (d) 229
( x + y) 2
Exp. 16) If f ( x, y) = , for every x, y > 0, then Solution [( 4 # 5) $ (14 *15)] = ( 64 + 125 + 3) $ (196 + 225 + 2)
xy
f ( x, y) must be : = (192 $ 423) = 231
(a) ≥ 2 (b) < 5
Exp. 19) The value of [(1 $ 2) # ( 3 $ 4)] * [(5 $ 6) # (7 $ 8)] is
(c) ≥ 4 (d) none of these
(a) 25 (b) 52 (c) 36 (d) none
x 2 + y 2 + 2 xy
Solution f ( x , y) = Solution [(1 $ 2) # ( 3 $ 4)] * [(5 $ 6) # (7 $ 8)]
xy
= (1 # 1) * (1 # 1) = 5 * 5 = 52
x y
= + +2
y x Exp. 20) The value of :
x y [Max (2, 4) $ Min (6, 8)] # [Min (10, 12) $ Max (14, 16)]
The minimum value of + = 2 at x = y
y x (a) 227 (b) 225 (c) 224 (d) none
2 Solution [Max (2, 4) $ Min (6, 8)] # [Min (10, 12)
 x + y
Therefore f ( x , y) =   ≥4
 xy  $ Max (14, 16)] = ( 4 $ 6) # (10 $ 16) = 2 # 6 = 227

Introductory Exercise 1.12

 1  1  1  1 6. The first and the last term of an arithmetic
1. 1 −  1 −  1 −  … 1 −  equals :
 3  4  5  n progression (AP) are 6 and 66, respectively. If it has
1 2 3 4 at least 3 terms and all the terms are integers, how
(a) (b) (c) (d)
n n n n many different values of common difference of the
2. If the sum of three consecutive integers is 21, then AP can be possible?
the sum of the two smaller integers is : (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 12
(a) 11 (b) 5 (c) 12 (d) 13 7. If the 9th and 19th terms of a G.P. are 12 and 18,
3. The sum of squares of first ten natural numbers is : what is the G.M. of the first 27 terms of this G.P.?
(a) 375 (b) 385 (c) 475 (d) 485 (a) 9 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) none
4. The arithmetic mean of first 50 odd natural numbers is 8. If the arithmetic mean of the numbers x1 , x2 , x3 , … , xn
(a) 50 (b) 625 (c) 175 (d) none
is x , then the arithmetic mean of the numbers
5. A boy draws n squares with sides 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, … in ax1 + b, ax2 + b, ax3 + b, …, axn + b, where a and b are
inches. The average area covered by these n squares
two constants, would be :
will be :
(a) x (b) nax + nb (c) ax (d) ax + b
 n + 1  n + 1  2 n + 1
(a)   (b)     9. Which one of the following numbers belongs to the
 2   2   3  given series 18, 26, 34, 42, 50?
−1
 n + 1  2 n + 1  n + 1  2 n + 1 (a) 438 (b) 338
(c)     (d)   −1   (c) 232 (d) 132
 2   3   2   3 
94 QUANTUM CAT

CAT-Test
Questions Helping you bell the CAT

LEVEL 01 > BASIC LEVEL EXERCISE

1 When the natural numbers 1, 2, 3, …, 500 are written, then 9 In the given expression pq = p − q + 9; q is a fraction and p is
the digit 3 is used n times in this way. The value of n is : any positive integer. The value of p that is inadmissible is :
(a) 100 (b) 200 (a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 300 (d) 280 (c) 8 (d) 2
2 In how many ways can 1146600 be written as the product 10 The digits of a three digit number are in G.P. When the
of two factors? digits of this number are reversed and this resultant
(a) 100 (b) 108 number is subtracted from the original number the
(c) 216 (d) 273 difference comes out to be 792. The actual number is :
3 How many natural numbers upto 990 are divisible by 5 & 9 (a) 842 (b) 961
both, but not by 7? (c) 421 (d) 931
(a) 18 (b) 19 11 How many even integers n; 13 ≤ n ≤ 313 are of the form
(c) 22 (d) none of a, b, c
3k + 4, where k is any natural number?
4 The number of solution of| x| + | y| ≤ 0, for ( x, y ) ∈ R , is : (a) 101 (b) 51
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 50 (d) none of these
(c) 2 (d) infinitely many
12 In the above question the number of values of n which are
5 The remainder when 239 is divided by 39 is : odd :
(a) 0 (b) 2 (a) 10 (b) 51
(c) 8 (d) 1 (c) 32 (d) none of a, b, c
6 The unit digit of the following expression 13 If a and b are two odd distinct prime numbers and if a > b
(1 !)99 + (2!)98 + (3!)97 + (4 !)96 + … (99 !)1 is : then a2 − b2 can never be divided by :
(a) 1 (b) 3 (a) 13 (b) 11
(c) 7 (d) 6 (c) 17 (d) all of these
7 The sum of all four digit numbers which are divisible by 7 14 If P = (101)100 and Q = (100)101, then the correct relation is
is : (a) P > Q (b) P < Q
(a) 7071071 (b) 77 11
(c) 7107073 (d) 10019996 (c) P = Q (d) P = Q
10
8 When the numerator of a positive fraction is increased by 2 15 If k 2 − 25 is an odd integer then which one of the following
and the denominator of the same fraction is multiplied
values gives the even number?
1
by 2, the new fraction can be reduced to to its lowest (i) k( 2k − 1) (ii) (3k − 3)(2k − 2)
2
(iii) (k + 5)(k − 5)
term. The sum of the numerator and denominator of the
(a) None (b) exactly one
original fraction can be :
(c) all three (d) exactly two
(a) 13
(b) 45 16 (a + 1)(b − 1) = 625; (a ≠ b) ∈ I + , then the value of (a + b)
(c) 16 is :
(d) any even integer greater than 3 (a) a + b ≥ 25 (b) a + b ≥ 50
(c) a + b = 24 (d) a + b = 26
Number System 95
1
17 If p + = q, then for p > 0 : 27 The remainder when (20)23 is divided by 17 is :
p
(a) 11 (b) 3
(a) q = 0 (b) − 2 < q < 2
(c) 6 (d) can’t be determined
(c) q ≥ 2 (d) none of a, b, c
28 Let p be a prime number such that 3 < p < 50, then p2 − 1
18 If ab = ba ; (a ≠ b) > 1, then the value of (a + b) is :
is :
(a) 5 (b) 6
(a) always divisible by 8 (b) always divisible by 24
(c) 7 (d) does not exist (c) always divisible by 12 (d) all of a, b, c
19 If mn − nm = (m + n); (m, n) ∈ prime numbers, then what 29 If p be a prime number, then p2 + 1 can not have its unit
can be said about m and n : digit equal to
(a) m, n are only even integers (a) 3 (b) 9
(b) m, n are only odd integers (c) 7 (d) all of these
(c) m is even and n is odd
30 The number of numbers from 1 to 200 which are divisible
(d) none of the above
by neither 3 nor 7 is :
20 There is a unique 3 digit number which is cube of a natural (a) 115 (b) 106
number. If we shift the position of the digits of this number, (c) 103 (d) less than 100
the new number also becomes the cube of another number.
31 p is a prime number and ( p2 + 3) is also a prime number.
The original number is :
(a) 343 (b) 729 Find the number of values of psatisfying the given criterias.
(c) 125 (d) does not exist (a) 3 (b) 2
+
(c) 1 (d) can’ say
21 For n > 2 such that n ∈ I , the given expression n − n is 4 2

32 At a bangle shop, when the shopkeeper tries to displays all

divisible is
the bangles in the form of a square, he is left with 38
(a) 4 (b) 8
bangles that cannot be accommodated in the square
(c) 12 (d) all of these
arrangement. If he wants to increase the size of the square
22 If a, b represents two distinct positive integers such that by one unit, he need to by 25 more bangles to complete the
(aa)b = abba is a valid relation. Then the value of square arrangement.
(ab . ba + ba . ab ) is : However, when the arranges the bangles he keep all the
bangles adjacent to each other without any overlapping.
(a) 4 (b) 6
What is the actual number of bangles in his shop?
(c) 13 (d) none of these (a) 1690 (b) 999
23 At our training institute we have p-1, p- 2, p- 3 and p- 4 (c) 538 (d) can’t be determined
1 1 1 1
processors in the ratio of , , and , respectively. 33 If a and b are two integers which are multiples of 5, which
6 5 3 2
of the following is not necessarily true ?
Minimum number of processors in our institute is :
(a) a − b is divisible by 5 (b) a + b is divisible by 10
(a) 16 (b) 30
(c) a2 − b2 is divisible by 5 (d) none of the above
(c) 32 (d) 36
34 What are the values of the digits a and b, respectively, in
24 (392)n − (392)n−1 is not divisible by :
the number a 5523879 b, if it is divisible by both a and b :
(a) 56 (b) 23 (c) 13 (d) 17 (a) (8, 6) (b) (7, 2) (c) (8, 1) (d) not unique
25 Mr. Chaalu while travelling by Ferry Queen has travelled 35 A six digit number abcabc such that a, b, c ∈ N , then which is
the distance one kilometre more than the fare he paid per
the most correct statement :
km. Initially, he had total amount of ` 350 in his wallet.
Now he is only left with the minimum sum of (if all the (a) It is divisible by 91 (b) It can be divided by 143
distance travelled by him is in integers) : (c) It is divisible by 6 (d) Only a and b are correct
(a) ` 26 (b) ` 8 36 Two numbers a and b are such that one is odd and the other
(c) ` 19 (d) can’t be determined is even. Which statement is necessarily true?
26 A person starts typing the numbers from 1 to 1999. He (a) a2b is even
press the keys total ‘n’ number of times. The value of n is (b) (a + b) is even
(a) 6889 (b) 1000 (c) ab × ba is even
(c) 2888 (d) none of these (d) a2 − b2 is even
96 QUANTUM CAT
37 A gardener plants his garden with 5550 trees and arranges 46 Which one of the following is wrong?
them so that there is one plant more per row as there is the (a) The sum of two even numbers, each raised to an odd
number of rows, then number of trees in a row is : power is even
(a) 56 (b) 74 (c) 76 (d) 75 (b) The sum of two odd numbers, each raised to an odd
power is even
38 The value of ‘a’ when 3a = 9b and 4( a + b + 2) b = 16ab is :
(c) The remainder when dividing an even number by an
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) none of these
odd number is even or zero
39 The number of two digit prime numbers which remain (d) The remainder when dividing an odd number by an
prime even on inverting the position of its digits is : even number is always odd
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 9 (d) 10
47 The sum of the expression 551 + 552 + 553 + … + 560 is :
40 Halfway through the journey from Delhi to Lahore Atal (a) 3450 (b) 5555 (c) 555 (d) 6060
Bihari begins to look out of the window of the Samjhauta
48 Find x, if x 2 + x = x 3 − x :
Express and continues looking out until the distance which
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
is yet to be covered becomes half of the distance that he has
already covered. At this point of time how much distance is 49 In the above problem the number of values of x is :
he yet to cover? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
2 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 50 How many 3s you have to write down while writing the
2 4 3 6
numbers from 3301 to 3401?
41 At the end of 1996, I found that the height of my son was 90 (a) 220 (b) 218
cm. But, at the end of 2003, I found that the height of my (c) 198 (d) none of these
son was 1/9th more than it was at the end of 2002.
51 (219 + 1) is divisible by :
However, over the years I have observed that every year his
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 3 & 6 both
height is increasing by equal amount and it is expected to
increase at the same way. Can you find the height of my son 52 Which one of the follwing is a prime number : 3123, 219,
at the end of 2008? 573, 467 ?
(a) 360 cm (b) 450 cm (c) 250 cm (d) 270 cm (a) 219 (b) 467 (c) 573 (d) 3123

42 Chris widener had a servant who was determined to be 53 Which is not a prime number?
paid $ 250, a wrist watch and a ration for whole year? But (a) 97 (b) 1001 (c) 127 (d) 101
after 9 months Widener migrated to India and he had just 54 What is the least number which must be multiplied to 5400
paid him $ 270 and the ration for the 9 months. What is the to get a perfect square?
cost of the wrist watch? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 10
(a) $ 20 (b) $ 120
55 For every p, q positive integers at x = 0 or x = 1, the valid
(c) $ 110 (d) data insufficient
relation can be :
43 The sum of the squares of a two digit number is 10. If we add (a) px q(1 − x ) = qx + p (1 − x )
18 to this number we get another number consisting of the
(b) px q(1 − x ) = px + q (1 − x )
same digits written in reverse order. The original number is :
(a) 10 (b) 46 (c) px q(1 − x ) = p(1 − x )qx
(c) 13 (d) none of (a), (b), (c) (d) either (b) or (c)

44 A two digit number ab is added to another number ba, 56 How many times does the sum of 3780 and 2835 contains
which is obtained by reversing the digits then we get a their difference?
three digit number. Thus a + b equals to : (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
(a) at least 18 (b) 2ab 57 The expression ( x + y )−1 . ( x −1 + y −1 ) is equivalent to :
(c) 2 (a + b) (d) (a + b) ≥ 10 (a) 1 (b) ( xy )−1
45 At Wharton School every student is awarded with the (c) x y (d) xy −1 + x −1 y
grades A, B or C only. 57.1428571428 …% students
obtained ‘A’ grade while 26.4444…% students obtained ‘B’ 58 For any odd prime number p there exists a positive integer
k2
grade. If there are less than 3500 students then the k where 1 < k < p, such that the remainder of is 1. Then
maximum number of students obtained the ‘C’ grade while p
no one is declared fail. the number of positive integers k is :
(a) 517 (b) 533 (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 428 (d) can’t be determined (c) p − 1 (d) can’t be determined
Number System 97

59 At Lucknow Public School 1 students were absent in an 67 In a Mock CAT at Lamamia Mobile App, a student was
9 asked to multiply a two digit number with another two
19 digit number. However, while doing the multiplication he
exam and only of those who appeared for the exam
24 reversed the digits (i.e., tens to unit and unit to tens) of
passed it. Now we know that 500 students failed in the each number, still his answer was correct. Such a pair of
exam. Total number of students registered for the exam is : numbers is :
(a) 2000 (b) 2400 (a) 16, 32 (b) 28, 42
(c) 2700 (d) 3000 (c) 31, 23 (d) 12, 63
60 If, 0 < m < n < 1. Then the expression km < kn is true if : p
68 The relation > 1 is valid when :
(a) k < 0 (b) k > 0 ( p + 1)
(c) k = 1 only (d) all of a, b, c (a) p ≥ − 1 (b) p > − 1
(c) p < − 1 (d) − 1 < p < 0
61 If a = 0.1818181818 … and b = 0. 3030030003 … then
(a + b) is : 69 A number when divided by 14 leaves a remainder of 8, but
(a) a rational no. (b) a perfect number when the same number is divided by 7, it will leave the
(c) an irrational no. (d) both (b) and (c) remainder :
(a) 3 (b) 2
62 Half life of a substance is defined as the time period in (c) 1 (d) can’t be determined
which a substance becomes just half of it. If it is known that
the half life of a substance ‘‘DECAY’’ is 1122 years, then 70 The unit digit of (316)34 n + 1 is :
after 4488 years, 80 gm of ‘‘DECAY’’ becomes. (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 1 (d) 7
(a) 4 gm (b) 20 gm
71 The sum of two numbers is 18. The greatest product of
(c) 5 gm (d) none of these these two numbers can be :
63 In the examination of CBSE, a candidate must get 2th (a) 17 (b) 81
5 (c) 80 (d) can’t be determined
marks to pass, out of total marks. Vinod appeared in the 72 Largest four digit number which when divided by 15 leaves
same exam and got 210 marks and still failed it by a remainder of 12 and if the same number is divided by 8 it
40 marks. The maximum marks which a candidate can get leaves the remainder 5. Such a greatest possible number is :
is : (a) 9963 (b) 9957
(a) 500 (b) 625 (c) 9945 (d) 9999
(c) 390 (d) can’t be determined
73 In a mobileshop 7 mobiles are imported and rest are
64 Sunny gets 3 1 times as many marks in ‘QA’ as he gets in 12
2 1
manufactured in India. Further th Indian mobiles are
‘English’. If his total combined marks in both the papers is 5
90. His marks in ‘QA’ is : 5
coloured while th imported mobiles are black and white.
(a) 50 (b) 60 7
(c) 70 (d) none of these If there are total 150 coloured mobiles in his shop, then
total number of mobile phones in his shop is :
65 I know a two digit number, but when its digits swap their (a) 500 (b) 600
places we get another two digit number. But, when these (c) 800 (d) data insufficient
two digit numbers are added, it amounts to 99. Further if I
just consider the difference between these numbers, it 74 In a call centre at New Delhi, it is observed that it gets a call
comes out to be 45. What is the number which I know? at an interval of every 10 minutes from California, at every
12 minutes from Texas, at the interval of 20 minutes from
(a) 27 (b) 38
Washington DC and after every 25 minutes it gets the call
(c) 72 (d) data insufficient
from London. If in the early morning at 5 : 00 a.m. it has
66 Which of the following is/are correct? recieved the calls simultaneously from all the four
(i) ax + y
= ax + ay (ii) (ax )y = yax destinations, then at what time will it receive the calls
ax simultaneously from all the places on the same day?
(iii) a ( x . y ) = ax . ay (iv) = ax − y (a) 10 : 00 a.m. (b) 3 : 00 a.m.
ay
(c) 5 : 00 p.m. (d) both (a) and (b)
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii) only 75 The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of 24, 82, 162, 203 are :
(c) (iv) only (a) 23; 32000 (b) 24; 32000
(d) none of the above (c) 24; 25600 (d) 22; 3200
98 QUANTUM CAT
636
76 When we divide 15192327 by 99 the remainder will be : 86 What is the remainder of ?
215
(a) 98 (b) 84 (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 30 (d) none of these (c) 2 (d) none of these
77 The number of numbers lying between 1 and 200 which are 87 The remainder when (1213 + 2313 ) is divided by 11 :
divisible by either of 2, 3 or 5 is :
(a) 0 (b) 1
(a) 146 (b) 145
(c) 2 (d) none of these
(c) 158 (d) none of these
78 If xAy means x + y, x S y means x − y, x M y means x × y 88 The four digit smallest positive number which when
divided by 4, 5, 6 or 7, it always leaves the remainder as 3 :
(a) 1000 (b) 1257
and xDy means x ÷ y. Then the value of 4D2S3M6A12 is :
(c) 1263 (d) 1683
(a) − 4 (b) 18
− 47 89 Which one of the following is correct?
(c) (d) none of these (i) 1331 > 3113 (ii) 10100 < 10010
4
79 The L.C.M. of two numbers is 1020 and their H.C.F. is 34, (iii) 2 32
< 32
2

the possible pair of numbers is : (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(a) 255, 34 (b) 102, 204 (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) only
(c) 204, 170 (d) none of these
90 If n , n , n , … , n are such that out of these k elements k
80 The sum of 100 terms of the series 1 2 3 k
2
1 − 3 + 5 − 7 + 9 − 11 + 13 − 15 + … is : elements are even and rest are odd numbers. Which is
(a) 100 (b) 50 necessarily even?
(c) 200 (d) none of these (a) (n1 + 2n2 + 3n3 + 4n4 + … + k . nk )
(b) n1 . n2 . n3 … n k 
81 The value of 1 − 1 1 − 1 1 − 1  1 − 1 … 1 − 1  is :  + 1
       2 
 2  3  4  5  n
n (c) (n1 + n3 + n5 + n7 + … + nk − 1 )
 1 (d) n2 + n4 + n6 + … + nk
(a) 1 (b) 1 − 
 n
1 91 The H.C.F. of two numbers is 43 and their sum is 430. Total
(c) (d) can’t be determined number of distinct pairs of two such numbers is :
n
(a) 5 (b) 2
82 The minimum and maximum possible values of x , where (c) 6 (d) data insufficient
y
2 ≤ x ≤ 8 and 16 ≤ y ≤ 32, respectively, are : 92 273 − 272 − 271 is same as :
1 1 1 1 (a) 272 (b) 271
(a) , (b) , (c) 2, 16 (d) not unique
8 4 16 2 (c) 270 (d) none of these
83 A rectangular floor in my office has its area equal to 56 m 2. 93 N = 553 + 17 3 − 723, then N is divisible by :
The minimum number of tiles required, if all the tiles are in (a) 3 & 17 (b) 40 & 11
square shape is : (c) 11 & 15 (d) all of these
(a) 15
(b) 9 94 abcde is a five digit number when multiplied by 13 it gives a
(c) 14 number, which is purely formed by the digit 9. Then the
(d) can’t be determined value of a + b + c + d + e is :
(a) divisible by 8 (b) equal to 27
84 A string of length 221 metre is cut into two parts such that
(c) divisible by 11 (d) all of these
9
one part is th as long as the rest of the string, then the
4 95 The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is always divisible
difference between the larger piece and the shorter piece is by :
(a) 58 m (b) 53 m (a) 24 (b) 48
(c) 85 m (d) none of these (c) 10 (d) none of these
85 Total number of prime numbers between 1 and 200 is : 96 The remainder obtained when 233 + 313 is divided by 54
(a) 34 (b) 46 (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 56 (d) 71 (c) 3 (d) can’t be determined
Number System 99

97 The largest possible number by which the product of any 108 When the three numbers 104, 221 and 377 are divided by a
five consecutive natural numbers can be divided : number we get the same remainder in each case. Such a
(a) 120 (b) 160 largest possible number is :
(c) 100 (d) none of these (a) 56 (b) 13
(c) 39 (d) it does not exist
98 If x 2 + y 2 = 25 and xy = 12, then the value of x −1 + y −1 is :
12 7 109 If (ab2 )1/ 3 = 125 where a > b > 1 and (a, b2 ) ∈ N , then the
(a) (b)
5 12 correct relation is :
−7 (a) a = b
(c) (d) both (b) and (c)
12 (b) a = b4
99 The remainder when 757575 is divided by 37 : (c) a3 / 2 = b2 / 3
(a) 0 (b) 1 (d) none of these
(c) 5 (d) 7 110 If a five digit number ‘m21n2’’ is divisible by 24 then the
100 Let p be a prime number strictly greater than 3. Then maximum number of possible combinations of m and n :
p + 17 will leave a remainder k, when divided by 12, the
2 (a) 4 (b) 9 (c) 16 (d) 10

value of k is : 111 If a fraction is divided by its reciprocal and then multiplied

(a) 1 (b) 5 512
by itself then the fraction becomes . The difference
(c) 6 (d) none of these 125
between the actual fraction and its reciprocal fraction is :
101 The unit digit of (12345k )72 is 6. The value of k is : 29 39
(a) (b)
(a) 6 (b) 8 30 40
(c) 2 (d) all of these (c) data insufficient (d) none of these
102 What is the least number which must be subtracted from 112 A perfect square less than 500 is such that when a prime
369 to make it a perfect cube? number p1 is subtracted or another prime number p2 is
(a) 8 (b) 26 added to it in both cases it becomes the perfect square
(c) 2 (d) 25 when p2 = 2 + p1. Then the p1 + p2 is necessarily divisible
by :
103 The product of two consecutive even numbers is 624, then
(a) 8 (b) 11
one of the numbers is :
(c) 4 (d) all of these
(a) 13 (b) 25
(c) 26 (d) 28 113 If (11)a = (19)b = (209)c then the correct relation is :
104 What is the remainder when 1719 × 1715 × 1713 is divided (a) ab = (c)ab (b) ab = c
by 17? (c) ab = c (a + b) (d) none of these
(a) 1 (b) 16 114 The remainder when (254 − 1) is divided by 9 is :
(c) 3 (d) none of these
(a) 0 (b) 8
1
105 The quotient when 12.5 is divided by is : (c) 7 (d) none of these
6
(a) 75 (b) 25 115 A number 1 < N < 100 is such that it is a perfect square and
(c) 2.48 (d) none of these perfect cube both, then the sum of digits of N is :
106 Kavita was supposed to multiply a natural number by 23. (a) 1
Instead, she multiplied that natural number by 32 and thus (b) 10
her result got increased by 315. The original product was : (c) 20
(a) 135 (b) 805 (d) can’t be determined
(c) 775 (d) data insufficient 116 The product of the digits of a three digit number which is a
107 A fraction in its lowest form is such that when it is squared perfect square as well as a perfect cube is :
1 (a) 126 (b) 256
and then its numerator is reduced by rd and denominator
3 (c) 18 (d) none of these
1
is reduced to th, the resultant fraction becomes twice of 117 A natural number N is such that N = a2 = b4 = c8, where
5
the original fraction. The sum of numerator and a, b, c are distinct positive integers, then the least possible
denominator could be : value of N is :
(a) 7 (b) 8 (a) 729 (b) 1000
(c) 9 (d) 17 (c) 256 (d) none of these
100 QUANTUM CAT
118 The possible value of| x| + | x − 1| = 2 is : 128 If pr . p−1 . p s = ( p3 )2 and p3/ 2 . pr = p s. p−1/ 2 then the value
3 1 3 1 of (r + s )( r + s)
(a)  , −  (b)  ,  is :
2 2  2 2
(a) 27 (b) 64
2 1
(c)  , −  (d) none of these (c) 4 (d) none of these
3 2
1
129 If 5−k = , then the value of 53k is equal to :
119 If ( pqr)2 = (ijkpqr), where i , j, k, p, q, r ∈ W , and pqr and l
1
ijkpqr are three digits and 6 digits numbers respectively. (a)
3l
Then the value of i × j × k × p × q × r is :
(b) 3l
(a) 0 (b) 720
(c) l3
(c) can’t say (d) none of these
(d) data insufficient
120 36n + 46n is necessarily divisible by 25 when : 130 5x − 1 + 5x + 5x + 1 = 775 then the value of x for every
(a) n is an even integer (b) n is an odd integer
positive integer x, is :
(c) only n is a prime (d) n ≥ 6; n ∈ I + (a) 1 (b) 3
121 The number of zeros at the end of 100! is : (c) 2 (d) can’t be determined
(a) (100)100 (b) 100 × 10 131 If a, b are two perfect square digits and ab is a two digit
(c) data insufficient (d) none of these perfect square number, such that (a × b) + (a + b) = ab,
then the value of [ ba − (b + a)] is :
122 The greatest power of 3, when 41! is expressed in prime
(a) 27 (b) b2
factors :
(c) 81 (d) either of b and c
(a) 13 (b) 18
(c) can’t be determined (d) none of these 132 The greatest possible number which can always divide the
sum of the cubes of any three consecutive integers is :
123 A two digit number is such that it is the product of the two
(a) 3 (b) 4
distinct perfect squares. The tens digit, unit digit and the
(c) 9 (d) 11
sum of these two digits are in A.P. Further if we reverse the
digits mutually, the new number increases by 27. The 133 The least possible divisor of 25930800, by which we divide
original number is : this number, we get the quotient as a perfect square :
(a) 72 (b) 19 (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 36 (d) none of these (c) 5 (d) can’t be determined

124 The value of the expression 134 Arun and Prabhat have some books with them. Once
7777 + 7777 × 7777 × (5 ÷ 77 ) × (11 ÷ 35) : Prabhat said to Arun that if Arun gives 3 books to Prabhat
1
(a) 1234321 (b) 12344321 then Arun will have only of the books that Prabhat will
2
(c) 77777 (d) none of these
have with him. Then Arun asked Prabhat that if Prabhat
125 The sum and difference of a number with its reciprocal are gives only two books to Arun, then Prabhat will have as
113 15 many books as Arun will have. The total number of books
and , respectively, the number is :
56 56 that Arun and Prabhat have with them is :
11 13 14 7 (a) 25 (b) 56
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 6 8 8 (c) 30 (d) can’t be determined
126 If 4 is added to the numerator of a fraction, it becomes 1/3 135 The number of co-primes of 200 lying between 1 to 100 is :
and if 3 is added to the denominator of the same fraction it (a) 100 (b) 40
becomes 1/6 then the sum of the numerator and (c) 50 (d) none of these
denominator is :
(a) 32 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 3 136 A soda water bottle is exactly filled with coke weighs
1
1600 gm but when it is rd filled it weighs only 900 gm.
127 In an opera house, there are 7777 chairs to be placed, but 3
the organiser of the event arranged all the chairs in such a The weight of the empty bottle is :
way that there were as many columns as there were rows. (a) 650
So he had to remove minimum ‘n’ chairs from the total (b) 1100
7777 chairs. The minimum value of n is : (c) 550
(a) 121 (b) 44 (c) 33 (d) 25 (d) data insufficient
Number System 101

137 If ab, cd, ba and dc are two digit numbers then the 146 If x = 6 and y = 3 then the value of [ x + y]x / y is :
maximum value of (ab × cd ) − (ba × dc) is, where a, b, c, d (a) 30 (b) 36 (c) 81 (d) 18
are distinct non-zero integers : 147 Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) 7938 (b) 7128 (a) every integer is a rational number
(c) 6930 (d) none of these (b) every natural number is an integer
(c) every natural number is a real number
138 In how many ways 12600 can be expressed as a product of
(d) every real number is a rational number
two factors which are relatively prime :
(a) 12 (b) 4 148 A page contains 60 lines. A chapter contains 125 pages. A
(c) 8 (d) 72 book contains 5 chapters. 20 such books form a bound. If
139 The solution set of the expression 1 there are total 30 lakh lines in an x number of bounds then
= 1 is : the value of x is :
(1 + p)p
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 6
(a) [ − 1, 2] (b) (0, 1)
(c) {− 2, 0} (d) {− 1, 1} 149 If x is a natural number, which is a perfect square, then the
number x + x must end in :
140 The number of zeros at the end of (a) 0 or 5 (b) 0 or 1 or 9
(2123 − 2122 − 2121 ) × (3234 − 3233 − 3232 ) : (c) 0 or 2 or 6 (d) 0 or 4 or 8
(a) 0 150 The number 10N − 1 is divisible by 11 for :
(b) 1 (a)
even values of N
(c) 121 (b)
all values of N
(d) none of the above (c)
odd values of N
(d)
N must be a multiple of 11
141 The sum of a number and its reciprocal is thrice the
 1  1  1  1
difference of the number and its reciprocal. The number is : 151 The expression 1 +  1 +  1 +  … 1 + 
1  3  4  5  n
(a) ± 2 (b) ± simplifies to :
2 n+1 n
(a) (b)
1 3 n+1
(c) ± 3 (d) ±
3 3 1 1 1 1
(c) (d) 1 + ⋅ ⋅ …
142 A lad was asked his age by his friend. The lad said, ‘‘The n 3 4 5 n
number you get when you subtract 25 times my age from 152 If x = 21/ 3 + 2−1/ 3 then the value of 2x 3 − 6 x will be :
twice the square of my age will be thrice your age’’. If the (a) 5 (b) −5 (c) 1 (d) 0
friend’s age is 14, then the age of the lad is :
(a) 21 (b) 28 153 If 2s = a + b + c, then the value of
(c) 14 (d) 25 (s − a)2 + (s − b)2 + (s − c)2 + s 2 − a2 − b2 − c2 will be :
(a) −1 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 0
143 If the sum of two numbers added to the sum of their
squares is 42 and the product of these numbers is 15, then 154 If ab + bc + ca = 0, then the value of
1 1 1
the numbers are : + + will be :
15 a2 − bc b2 − ca c2 − ab
(a) 15, 1 (b) ,6
6 (a) −1 (b) a + b + c
1 (c) abc (d) 0
(c) 2 , 6 (d) 5, 3
2
155 x is a five digit number. The digit in ten thousands place is
1 2
144 If the equality = is satisfied by x, then the value 1. The number formed by its digits in units and tens places
x −1 x − 2
of x will be : is divisible by 4. The sum of all the digits is divisible by 3. If
(a) 2 (b) 1 5 and 7 also divide x, then x will be :
(c) 1/2 (d) 0 (a) 14020 (b) 12060
a b (c) 10020 (d) 10080
145 The product 2 × 2 expressed as the sum of two identical
terms, is : b a
156 If 2 s = 9, then the value of
1 1 a a s 2 + (s − 1)2 + (s − 3)2 + (s − 5)2 is :
(a) + (b) +
a+ b a+ b b b (a) 9 (b) 25
b b 1 1 (c) 45 (d) 35
(c) + (d) +
a a 2ab 2ab
102 QUANTUM CAT
157 If x a × x b × x c = 1, then a3 + b3 + c3 is equal to : 168 It costs ` 10 a kilometer to fly and ` 2 a km to drive. If one
(a) 9 (b) abc (c) a + b + c (d) 3abc travels 200 km covering x km of the distance by flying and
the rest by driving, then the cost of the trip is :
158 The greatest integer that divides 358, 376, 232 leaving the (a) ` 2000 (b) ` 24000
same remainder in each case is : (c) ` (8 x + 400) (d) ` (12x + 400)
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9 169 The least number which is a perfect square and has 540 as a
factor is :
159 The least number which when divided by 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 (a) 8100 (b) 6400 (c) 4900 (d) 3600
leaves the remainder 1 in each case. If the same number is
x y 4 y − x 
divided by 7 it leaves no remainder. The number is : 170 If = , then  +  equals
(a) 231 (b) 301 2 3 5 y + x
(c) 371 (d) 441 3 4 6
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d)
5 5 5
160 Three bells, toll at interval of 36 sec, 40 sec and 48 sec
respectively. They start ringing together at particular time. 171 For a journey the cost of a child ticket is 1/3rd of the cost of
They will toll together next time after : an adult ticket. If the cost of the tickets for 4 adults and
(a) 6 minutes (b) 12 minutes 5 children is ` 85, the cost of a child ticket is :
(c) 18 minutes (d) 24 minutes (a) ` 5 (b) ` 6 (c) ` 10 (d) ` 15
161 A has certain amount in his account. He gives half of this to 172 A fraction becomes 4 when 1 is added to both the
his eldest son and one third of the remaining to his numerator and denominator and it becomes 7 when 1 is
youngest son. The amount with him now is : subtracted from both the numerator and denominator. The
(a) 1/3 of the original (b) 2/3 of the original numerator of the given fraction is :
(c) 3/4 of the original (d) 1/6 of the original (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 7 (d) 15
162 If x + y + z = 0, then x 3 + y 3 + z 3 is equal to : 173 Two numbers 34041 and 32506 when divided by a certain
(a) 0 (b) 3xyz number of three digits, leave the same remainder. The
xy + yz + zx number is
(c) (d) xyz ( xy + yz + zx ) (a) 307 (b) 211 (c) 247 (d) 299
xyz
174 Mr. Black has three kinds of wine. Of the first kind
163 If a = bx , b = c y , c = az , then xyz is :
403 litres, of the second kind 434 litres of the third kind
(a) −1 (b) 0
465 litres. What is the least number of full carks of equal
(c) 1 (d) abc
size in which this can be stored without mixing?
164 If p = x1/ 3 + x −1/ 3, then p3 − 3p is equal to : (a) 31 (b) 39 (c) 42 (d) 51
1
(a) 3 (b) ( x + x −1 ) 175 The largest sum of money which is contained in both
2
` 49.56 and ` 38.94 an exact number of times is :
(c) x + x −1 (d) 2 ( x + x −1 ) (a) 2.7 (b) 3.54 (c) 4.28 (d) none
165 If a language of natural numbers has binary vocabulary of 176 Tanya gives away to each of four girls 1 , 5 , 7 , 7 of the
0 and 1, then which one of the following strings does 12 18 30 48
represent the natural number 7? apples in a basket and has only just enough apples to be
(a) 11 (b) 101 able to do so without dividing an apple. The minimum
(c) 110 (d) 111 number of apples she has in her basket :
(a) 250 (b) 720 (c) 750 (d) none
166 The greatest number that will divide 398, 436 and 542
leaving 7, 11 and 15 as remainders, respectively, is : 177 Abhishek, Bobby and Charlie start from the same point and
(a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 travel in the same direction around an island 6 km in
circumference. Abhishek travels at the rate of 3, Bobby at
167 Mohan gets 3 marks for each correct sum and loses 2 marks 1 1
for each wrong sum. He attempts 30 sums and obtains 40 the rate of 2 and Charlie at the rate of 1 km/hr. In how
2 4
marks. The number of sums solved correctly is :
many hours will they come together again?
(a) 10 (b) 15
(a) 6 hrs (b) 12 hrs (c) 24 hrs (d) 15 hrs
(c) 20 (d) 25
Number System 103

178 2 3 is : 190 In a nationwide Smart City Business Idea hunt the jury
(a) a natural number (b) an integer selected total 100 proposals from six cities Bengaluru,
(c) a rational number (d) an irrational number Mumbai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Chennai and Pune. Bengaluru
outsmarted all other cities by getting accepted 50 proposals
179 If p > 0, q < 0, then which of the following is correct?
alone from it. Pune stood last as only 5 proposals were
(a) p + q > 0 (b) p − q > 0
selected from this city.
(c) p + q < 0 (d) p − q < 0
The second highest number of proposals was selected from
180 Simplify : ( x 2n − 1 + y 2n − 1 )( x 2n − 1 − y 2n − 1 ) Mumbai. What is the minimum number of proposals that
n n would have been selected from Mumbai if distinct number
(a) x 2 − y 2 (b) x 2n + y 2n of proposals were selected from each of the six cities?
(c) ( x n − y n)2 (d) ( x 2 − y 2 )n − 1 (a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 13
181 If x = 21/ 3 + 2−1/ 3, then the value of 2x 3 is :
(a) 6 x + 5 (b) 5x + 6 191 Government has arrested 10 suspects who are believed to
(c) 6 x − 5 (d) 5x − 6 have more than the authorized number of gas connections
(LPG). One of the arrested suspects Halwaai Babu has
182 If x = 3 + 32/ 3 + 31/ 3, then the value of
maximum number of 7 gas connections. Which of the
x − 9 x 2 + 18 x − 12 is :
3
following statements is true about these suspects?
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) −1 (d) 2 (a) Exactly two suspects have the same number of gas
183 If x 1/ 3
+ y 1/ 3
+z
1/ 3
= 0, then the value of ( x + y + z )3 is : connections
(b) Exactly three suspects have the same number of gas
(a) 27 (b) 27 xyz
(c) 81 (d) ( xyz )3 connections
(c) At least three suspects have the same number of gas
184 If x x( x)
= ( x x )x , then the value of x is : connections
9 4 (d) At least two suspects have the same number of gas
(a) (b)
4 9 connections
(c) 8 (d) 4 192 Consider the following series -
185 The value of ( x, y ) if 5x + 3y = 8, 5x − 1 + 3y − 1 = 2 is : S(n) =
1
+
1
+
1
+. . . +
(a) 2, 3 (b) 3, 2 1+ 2 2+ 3 3+ 4
1
(c) 1, 1 (d) 0, 1
n + n+1
186 The value of ( x, y ) if x y = y x and x 2 = y 3 is :
For which value of n is S(n) a rational number?
27 9 9 27
(a) , (b) , (i) 5! (ii) 30 + 30 × 30 + 30
8 4 8 4 2
8 4 8 4 (iii) log108 (iv) 22 (v) 2 3
(c) , (d) , (a) only (iv) and (v)
27 9 9 27
(b) only (i), (iii) and (iv)
187 The value of (c) only (ii) and (iii)
(ax1/ 4 + 3a1/ 2 x1/ 2 + 4 x 3/ 4 )(a − 3a1/ 2 x1/ 4 + 4 x1/ 2 ) is : (d) only (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(a) a2 x1/ 4 − ax 3/ 4 + 16 x 5/ 4
193 For any natural number n, if D(n)is the sum of all the digits
(b) ax 2 + x 3/ 4 + 9 x1/ 4 99
(c) 0 of D(n), find the remainder when ∑ D(n)is divided by 99.
(d) 1 1

1 1 1 (a) 9 (b) 0
188 The value of + +
x b + x −c + 1 x c + x −a + 1 x a + x −b + 1 (c) 1 (d) 90
given that a + b + c = 0 is : 194 The digit 6 is written contiguously 225 times to form a
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) abc (d) x natural number N. What's the remainder when N is divided
1 1 1 by 455?
189 The value of −1
+ −1
+ ; given
1+ p+ q 1+ q+ r 1 + r + p−1 (a) 230
that pqr = 1 is (b) 5
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 211
(c) ( p + q + r) − 1 (d) p + q + r (d) none of the above
104 QUANTUM CAT
195 If n is always a natural number, how many terms in the 197 Out of the students who are found cheating in the exam, if
following sequence are integers? Munnabhai and his best friend Curkit are sitting closely
105 420 such that their ticket numbers are consecutive numbers
210, 84, ,...,
2 3n − 1 and half of the remaining students' ticket numbers are
(a) 3 below the ticket numbers of Munnabhai and Curkit and
(b) 5 half of that are above the ticket numbers of Munnabhai and
(c) 6 Curkit, what could be the possible ticket number of
(d) none of the above Munnabhai?
Directions (for Q. Nos. 196 and 197) Answer the following (a) 37 (b) 39
questions based on the information given below. (c) 36 (d) none of these
In a medical college examination, where Munnabhai is pursuing 198 If p, q are the positive integers and r, s, t are prime numbers
an MBBS degree, a group of students are found cheating in the such that the L.C.M. of p, q is r4s7t 2, then the number of
exam hall. The ticket numbers of the students who are found ordered pairs ( p, q) is
cheating are the consecutive positive integers and their sum (a) 567 (b) 765
is 600. (c) 120 (d) 180
196 Find the number of students who are found cheating in the 199 How many factors of the number 16! don't have their unit
exam hall. digit 5?
(a) 24 (b) 120 (a) 252 (b) 7201
(c) 200 (d) cannot be determined (c) 5124 (d) 5040

LEVEL 02 > HIGHER LEVEL EXERCISE

1 In Mahabalipuram Temple there are some magical bells 6 If m, n, p are in A.P. and mn = pm = n ! + p; m, n, p ∈ N , then
which toll 18 times in a day, simulateneously. But every bell the value of m.n.p is, where 2 < m, n < p < 10 :
tolls at a different interval of time, but not in fraction of
(a) 136 (b) 72
minutes. The maximum number of bells in the temple can
(c) 162 (d) none of these
be :
(a) 18 (b) 10 7 The value of (n !)n if n + (n − 1) + (n − 2) = n (n − 1)(n − 2),
(c) 24 (d) 6 where n3 > 9, a positive number :
2 Three numbers p, q, r are such that pq = qr , where p, q, r > 1 (a) 27 (b) 216 (c) 256 (d) 331776
then the correct relation between q and r is : 8 If (n) − (n) − n = n, then the number of values of n that
3 2

q
(a) = 1 (b) q < r satisfy the given relation is :
r (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) q > r (d) indeterminable (c) 3 (d) can’t be determined
3 pq − qr = ( p + q)r − q , where 1 < q < r < p < 10, then the 9 If k = (k1, k2, k3, … , kn) ∈ I and
value of p + q + r is : k1k2k3 + k2k3k4 + k3k4k5 + … + k( n − 2) k( n − 1) kn = 0
(a) 31 (b) 21
Then minimum how many entities i.e. ki (i = 1, 2, 3, … )
(c) 15 (d) 12
must be zero? If there are total 12 terms in the above
4 If a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 = 1, then the maximum value of a.b.c.d expression :
is : (a) 3 (b) 4
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) nC 3
1
(c) (d) data insufficient 10 The given relation n( n − 1) + n( n + 1) = (n2 + 1)2 − (n2 + 1) is
16
valid for every n ∈ N if n equals to :
5 The value of n in the expression n2 − 2 (n !) + n = 0 for
(a) 3
every n ∈ N is : (b) 5
(a) 6 (b) 1 (c) 1
(c) 3 (d) both (b) and (c) are true (d) both (a) and (c)
Number System 105

11 The smallest possible number that can be expressed as the 21 The number of solution set ( x, y ) for the given equation
sum of cube of two natural numbers in two different 4 x + 7 y = 3, such that − 99 ≤ x ≤ 99 and − 100 ≤ y ≤ 100,
combinations. where x, y ∈ I :
(a) 1000 (b) 1728 (a) 14 (b) 29
(c) 1729 (d) none of these (c) 15 (d) 30
12 86 − 56 is individually divisible by : 22 When any two natural numbers N1 and N 2, such that
(a) 91 (b) 49 N 2 = N1 + 2, are multiplied with each other, then which
(c) 129 (d) all of these digit appears least time as a unit digit if N 2 ≤ 1000?
(a) 0 (b) 9
13 Total number of factors of a number is 24 and the sum of its
(c) 4 (d) both (a) and (c)
3 prime factors out of four is 25. The product of all 4 prime
factors of this number is 1365. Then such a greatest 23 In the above problem (no. 22), if all such unit digits will be
possible number can be : added the maximum sum can be :
(a) 17745 (b) 28561 (a) 4491 (b) 4500
(c) 4095 (d) can’t be determined (c) 3609 (d) 5400
14 If p be any odd natural number greater than 3, then which 24 A diamond expert cuts a huge cubical diamond into 960
digit will never appear as the last digit in the product of identical diamond pieces in minimum number of ‘n’ cuts. If
( p2 − 1)( p2 + 1) ? he wants to maximize the number of identical diamond
(a) 9 and 7 (b) 5 and 3 pieces making same number of n cuts to it, so the maximum
(c) 1 and 5 (d) all of these number of such diamond pieces are :
(a) 1000 (b) 1331
Directions (for Q. Nos. 15 to 18) The relation R ( m, n ) can be
(c) 1200 (d) none of (a), (b), (c)
defined for every positive integer m, n as
R ( m, n ) = m × ( m + 1) × ( m + 2 ) × ( m + 3 ) × … ( m + n ) 25 The sum of all the factors of 45000 which are exactly the
and the relation R (1, n ) is equal to n!or can be written as R ( n ). multiples of 10 is :
R (135) (a) 152295 (b) 141960
15 The value of is :
R (100, 35) (c) 600 (d) none of these
(a) 99 ! (b) 100! 26 The unit digit of the expression
(c) 270 (d) none of these (1 !)1! + (2!)2! + (3!)3! + … + (100 !)100! :
16 The value of R (17 ). R (19, 62) is : (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 7
81 !
(a) (b) (81 !) × 18 27 When (1 !) + (2!) + (3!) + … + (100 !)
1! 2! 3! 100 !
is divided by
18
(c) 36! (d) 17 × (19 + 62) 5, the remainder obtained is :
(a) 2 (b) 0
17 The L.C.M. of R (2, 995) and R (996, 1) is :
(c) 4 (d) none of these
(a) 1994
(b) 996! 28 The digit at the tens place in the sum of the expression :
(c) 997! (1 !) + (2!)2 + (3!)3 + (4 !)4 + (5!)5 + … (111 !)111 is :
(d) can’t be determined
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 8 (d) 9
18 The H.C.F. of R (139, 2) and R (141) :
29 A number is divided strictly into two unequal parts such
(a) 141 (b) 2743860
that the difference of the squares of the two parts equals 50
(c) 32,16,839 (d) 19599
times the difference between the two parts. The number is :
19 A six digit number of the form abcabc is written where (a) 100
a, b, c ∈ I + , then which statement is true about this number ? (b) 250
(a) it is always divisible by 7 and 11 (c) 50
(b) it is divisible by 143 (d) can’t be determined
(c) it is divisible by 1001
30 A positive number p is such that ( p + 4) is divisible by 7. N
(d) all of (a), (b) and (c) are correct
being a smallest possible number larger than first prime
20 How many natural numbers upto 1155 are divisible by number, which can make ( p + N 2 ) divisible by 7. The value
either 5 or 7 but not by 11?
of N is :
(a) 105 (b) 330
(a) 3 (b) 9
(c) 333 (d) none of these
(c) 5 (d) 7
106 QUANTUM CAT
31 Anjali and Bhagwat fired 45 shots each. Total 66 bullets hit 39 Paltry and Sundry, the two bird hunters went to woods.
the target and the remaining bullets missed it. How many Paltry fires 5 shots when Sundry fires 7 shots. But Paltry
times does the Anjali hit the target if it is known that the kills 2 out of 5 while Sundry kills 3 out of 7. When Sundry
number of hits per one miss shown by the Anjali is twice has missed 32 shots, then how many birds has Paltry
that of Bhagwat? killed?
(a) 30 (b) 36 (c) 40 (d) 35 (a) 25 (b) 24 (c) 16 (d) 12
32 The remainder when n is divided by 3 is 1 and the 40 A cigarette pack is 5th full of its capacity, then 5 cigarettes
remainder when (n + 1) is divided by 2 is 1. The remainder 6
when (n − 1) is divided by 6 is : were taken out and 2 another cigarettes were put inside the
(a) 2 (b) 3 4
pack. Now it is full. How many cigarettes can this pack
(c) 5 (d) none of (a), (b), (c) 5
33 The expression 22227777 + 7777 2222 is divisible by : contain when it is full?
(a) 90 (b) 80
(a) 99 (b) 101
(c) 72 (d) can’t be determined
(c) 13 (d) any two of these
41 Around a square table chairs are arranged in a sequence
34 The only library of a business school has total 91 books that
starting from one corner, numbered as 1, 2, 3, … etc. The
are shared among all the students in such a way that every
chair number 2 is opposite the chair number 14. How many
two students share a book on Organizational Behaviour,
chairs are there in all?
every three students share a book on Financial
Management and every four students share a book on (a) 10 (b) 20
Operations Research. The number of students in the school (c) 14 (d) can’t be determined
is: 42 The value of y for which the expression p = 1
(a) 81 (b) 84 (| y − 1| − 3)
(c) 48 (d) can’t be determined becomes undefined :
35 After two successive raises the salary of an employee (a) {2, 8}
becomes equal to 15/8 times of his initial salary. In terms of (b) {− 2, 4}
percentage raise, his first raise was half of the second raise, (c) {− 1, 3}
then by what percentage his salary was raised for the (d) {1, 2}
second time? 43 What is the sum of the following series?
(a) 82.5 % 1 1 1 1
(b) 60 % + + +…+
1 × 2 2× 3 3× 4 100 × 101
(c) 50 %
100 1
(d) can’t be determined (a) (b)
101 101
36 The number of digits in the product of 572 × 827 is : 101
(c) (d) 101!
(a) 77 (b) 75 100
(c) 99 (d) none of (a), (b), (c) 44 If Rupert has 4 more coins than Laxmi, Laxmi has 1 more
37 A student of 5th standard started writing down the coin than Bill and Bill has 1 more coin than Hawkins.
counting numbers as 1, 2, 3, 4, … and then he added all Finally Hawkins has 4 more coins than Ajim. Then
those numbers and got the result 500. But when I checked minimum number of coins that must be transfered if all of
the result I have found that he had missed a number. What them wish to have an equal number of coins :
is the missing number? (a) 5 (b) 6
(a) 25 (b) 32 (c) 30 (d) 28 (c) 7 (d) none of these
7 5 3
38 A stairway of 20 ft height is such that each step accounts for 45 If f ( x ) = 7 + 5 + 3 + 1 + 3x 3 + 5x 5 + 7 x7 . Now, if
x x x
half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance  1
the value of f (2) is 1081.58 then the value of f   is :
will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the  2
1
top of the stairway? (a) 540.79 (b)
1081.58
(a) 59 (b) 60 (c) 1081.58 (d) 367.42
(c) 58 (d) none of these
Number System 107

46 The last digit of the expression 55 Four consecutive even numbers are such that 3 times of the
4 × 9 × 4 × 9 × 4 × 9 ×… × 4
2 3 4 5 6 99
×9
100
is : first number is equal to twice the third number. The sum of
all the four numbers is :
(a) 4 (b) 6
(a) 20 (b) 40
(c) 9 (d) 1
(c) 44 (d) can’t be determined
47 The last digit of the expression
56 In the morning batch at Lamamia we have observed that
4 + 92 + 43 + 94 + 45 + 96 + … + 499 + 9100 is : when five-five students took seat on a bench, 4 students
(a) 0 (b) 3 remained unseated. But when eleven students took seat
(c) 5 (d) none of these per bench, 4 benches remained vaccant. The number of
students in our morning batch were?
48 p, q, r are the decimal numbers (e.g., 5.8) and  x means (a) 55 (b) 48
the greatest integer less than or equal to x and (c) 26 (d) none of these
A =  p + q + r and B =  p + q + r, then the maximum  m  n
value of A − B is : 57 When   = 25   , then the value of m : n is :
 n  m
(a) 0 (b) 2
(c) 2.99 (d) none of these (a) 1/25 (b) 5
(c) 1/5 (d) 2.5
49 If p, q, r be integers such that p2 = q2. r then :
58 Which one of the following is the greatest one?
(a) p is an even number (b) q is an even number
(a) 33322 (b) 33322
(c) r is an even number (d) r is a perfect square
(c) 33322 (d) 22333
50 The sum of n positive integers k1, k2, k3, … , kn is an even
59 The product of any two integers is 25, then the minimum
number, then number of odd integers involve in the possible sum is :
expression is : (a) 5 (b) 10
(a) odd (b) even (c) 26 (d) none of these
(c) (n − 1) (d) none of these
60 If 4 ≤ p ≤ 5 and − 10 ≤ q ≤ − 9, then the least value is given
51 If 1 + 2 + 3 + … + k = N 2 and N is less than 100 then the by the expression :
value of k can be, where N ∈ Natural Numbers : (a) p.q (b) pq6
6
(a) 8 (b) 1 and 49 (c) p q (d) ( pq)5
(c) 8 and 36 (d) both (a) and (b)
61 The remainder obtained when 1 ! + 2! + 3! + … + 77 ! is
52 If a and b be two co-prime numbers, then (a + b) divided by 7 is :
and (a − b) : (a) 0 (b) 5
(a) are always co-primes (c) 4 (d) can’t be determined
(b) have atleast one common factor other than 1 62 If (a, n) ∈ I + and (a, n) > 1, then the remainder when
(c) if (a + b) or (a − b) is not a prime number, then their
[(a + 1)2n − 1 − 1] is divided by (a − 1) is :
HCF is 2
(d) none of the above (a) 1 (b) a − 1
(c) n (d) none of these
53 The G.M. of two positive numbers is 35 and the A.M. of the
3 63 A typist starts to type the serial numbers of candidates in a
same number is 43 , then the greater of these numbers is :
4 list, upto 500. Minimum how many times does he needs to
(a) 28 (b) 30 press the keys of numerals only?
(c) 70 (d) 35 (a) 1389 (b) less than 1000
(c) 1392 (d) can’t say
54 When a number is divided by 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …, (n − 1), n
individually it leaves 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, … , (n − 2), (n − 1) 64 If a, b, c, d, e, f are sequentially the terms of an A.P. belong
respective remainders, then this number can be : to set {1, 2, 3, … , 9} where all the terms a, b, c, …are in
(i) n ! increasing order, then the last digit of ab × cd × e f is :
(ii) (n ! − 1) (a) 5
(iii) [(L.C.M. of 1, 2, 3, …, n) − 1] (b) 2
(a) both (i) and (ii) (b) both (ii) and (iii) (c) 7
(c) only (iii) (d) only (ii) (d) either of (a) and (b)
108 QUANTUM CAT
65 Total number of factors of a greatest possible number 73 If n2 = 123454321, then the value of n is :
which when divides 1313 and 621, the respective (a) 1001 (b) not a natural number
remainders obtained are 17 and 9 : (c) 111, 111 (d) none of these
(a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 11 (d) can’t be determined 74 12 − 22 + 32 − 42 + … − 1982 + 1992 :
(a) 19900 (b) 12321
66 The set of values of x for which|( x − 5) x| > 0 is :
(c) 19998 (d) none of these
(a) all real numbers (b) R − {0}
(c) R − {0, 5} (d) R − (0, 5) 75 The quotient when L.C.M. is divided by the H.C.F. of a G.P.
with first term ‘a’ and common ratio ‘r’ is :
67 The sum of four prime numbers is 204. Each such number (a) rn − 1 (b) rn
is a two digit number. The sum of first number P1 and last −1 n − 2
(c) a r (d) (rn − 1)
number p4 is same as the sum of second number p2 and
third number p3. The average of all the four numbers is not 76 Once I met two persons of the same parents namely Ashmit
a prime number, but the product of two prime numbers. and Amisha. Meanwhile Ashmit told me that he has twice
Further, p3 − p2 = 2( p2 − p1 ) = 2( p4 − p3 ), Out of the four the number of sisters as the number of brothers. Further
prime numbers ( p1, p2, p3, p4 ) one of them is: Amisha told me that she has twice the number of brothers
(a) 23 (b) 89 as the number of sisters. Actually it was very confusing for
(c) 71 (d) can’t be determined me, so can you find the number of brothers and sisters in
68 Jai Bhan wanted to sell his mobilephone consists of the their family?
handset and a simcard, but Praveen who intended to buy it, (a) 4 (b) 5
asked the price of simcard only? Jai Bhan told him that the (c) 6 (d) can’t be determined
price of the simcard is ` 4000 less than the price of the 77 If p < q, then p @ q = p # q, else p @ q = q # p, where
handset but if he wished to buy the complete set he had to a
a # b = . Then the value of (4 @ 5)@ (6 @ 5) is :
pay ` 5000 only. The price of the handset was : b
(a) 5500 (b) 2500 24 2
(a) (b)
(c) 4500 (d) can’t be determined 25 3
69 If | x + y| = | x − y| then the number of ordered pairs of (c) 3/4 (d) none of these
( x, y ) which satisfy the given condition is : 78 A six digit number is such that every alternate digit is a
(a) 1 (b) 4 prime digit and the three leftmost digits forms a G.P., while
(c) infinite (d) none of these last three digits (i.e. hundreds, tens and unit) form an A.P.
70 If 292k + 7 = 23l, where (k, l) ∈ I, then the value of l is : If it is expressed as pqrstu, where p + q + r = u, q + r = t ,
r 2
(a) 23 (b) 31 p + r = s, = and p ≠ q ≠ r ≠ s ≠ t ≠ u, then the sum of all
(c) does not exist (d) none of these t 3
the digits must be :
71 If ab + 4 = cd and ba + 40 = dc, where ab, cd, ba and dc are (a) 25 (b) 16
the two digit prime numbers. Further b and d are the prime (c) 21 (d) can’t be determined
number digits and a, c are neither prime nor composite.
(ab + ba) 79 Total number of digits in the product of (4)1111 × (5)2222 is :
The value of is :
(cd + dc) (a) 3333 (b) 2223
1 (c) 2222 (d) can’t be determined
(a) 1 (b)
2 80 If p = N + 5when N is the product of any three consecutive
(c) 2 (d) can’t be determined
positive integers. Then :
72 A man sells chocolates which are in the boxes. Only either (a) p is prime (b) p is odd
full box or half a box of chocolates can be purchased from (c) p is divisible by 6 (d) either of (b), (c)
him. A customer comes and buys half the number of boxes
81 If p and r are two rational numbers then the relation
which the seller had plus half a box more. A second q s
customer comes and purchases half the remaining number

p
 < ris :
of boxes plus half a box. After this the seller is left with no
chocolate boxes. How many chocolate boxes did the seller   s
q
has, initially? (a) always true (b) always false
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 3.5 (c) never true (d) none of these
Number System 109

82 If uv + v w + w x = 0 for every negative integer u, v, w, x, the Directions (for Q. Nos. 93 to 95)

value of u × v × w × x is necessarily be : If Minimum (x, y, z) = Minimum of (xy, yz, zx)
(a) 0 (b) less than zero Maximum (x, y, z) = Maximum of ( x y , y z , z x )
(c) even (d) odd Labh ( x, y, z ) = Average of ( x, y, z )
4 5 6 7 8 9 Hani ( x, y, z ) = Modulus of ( x − y − z ) i. e., | x − y − z |
83 The unit digit of 23 × 34 × 45 × 56 × 67 × 7 8 is :
(a) 0 (b) 5 93 The value of Minimum (1, 2, 3) + Maximum (1, 2, 3) is :
(c) can’t be determined (d) none of these (a) 10 (b) 8
(c) 12 (d) 4
84 If (a − 7 )(b − 10)(c − 12) = 1000, the least possible value of
(a + b + c) equals : 94 Labh [Hani (1, 2, 3), Hani (2, 3, 4), Hani (3, 4, 5)] is equal
(a) 59 to :
(b) 29 (a) 4
(c) 14 (b) 5
(d) any integer less than 1000 (c) 6
(d) can’t be determined
85 If the number 2332 − 9 is divided by 16, the remainder is :
(a) 8 (b) 0 95 Minimum [Hani (1, 2, 3), Hani (2, 3, 4), Hani (3, 4, 5)]
(c) 6 (d) none of these + Maximum [ Labh (1, 2, 3), Labh (2, 3, 4), Labh (3, 4, 5)]
is :
86 If ( x − 5)( y + 6)(z − 8) = 1331, the minimum value of (a) 101 (b) 111
x + y + z is : (c) 60 (d) none of these
(a) 40 (b) 33
(c) 19 (d) not unique 96 When (55)10 is represented in base 25 then the expression
is :
87 If x + y + z = 21, the maximum value of (a) (25)25 (b) (35)25
( x − 6)( y + 7 )(z − 4) is : (c) (55)25 (d) none of these
(a) 343 (b) 216
(c) 125 (d) not unique 97 For (P , Q ) > 0 the number 340 PQQ 0 is divisible by both
3 and 8 then the total possible values of (P , Q ) is :
88 The remainder R when 337 + 437 is divided by 7 is :
(a) 2 (b) 3
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 6 (d) none of these
(c) 2 < R < 6 (d) none of these
98 While typing the numbers from 600 to 799, a typist typed 8
89 774 − 474 is divisible by : whenever he was supposed to type 6. So the total number
(a) 3 (b) 11 of times he has typed 8 is:
(c) 7 (d) both (a) and (b) (a) 300 (b) 230
90 The factorial of a number n is exactly divisible by (c) 180 (d) none of these
(211 × 112 ) then the least possible value of n is : 99 If p and q are two distinct integers such that p2 − pq = 0,
(a) 22 (b) 25 then we can deduce that :
(c) does not exist (d) none of these (a) p = q
91 The number of zeros at the end of the product of : (b) q is only negative integer
23 × 34 × 45 × 56 + 35 × 57 × 7 9 × 810 + 45 × 56 × 67 × 7 8 (c) p = 0
(d) either (a) or (c)
− 102 × 153 × 204 is :
100 In a survey it was found that YTC sells the cigarettes of
(a) 5 (b) 6
` 15990 per day. If the cost of a pack is not less than ` 100, then
(c) 28 (d) none of these what can be the price of each pack which it sells per day ?
92 A nine digit number abcdefghi is such that a is divisible by 1, (a) 150 (b) 420 (c) 78 (d) 205
ab is divisible by 2, abc is divisible by 3 and abcd is divisible 101 If 5n + 12 < 50; where n ∈ N , then the value of n which
by 4 and so on where none of a, b, c, d, … is same and every
satisfies the given inequality is :
digit is a non-zero digit such a number is:
(a) 5 < n < 12 (b) 3n2 ≤ 150
(a) 123456789 (b) 381654729
(c) 126453789 (d) 826435791 (c) 4n + 5 ≤ 33 (d) 4n2 + 3 > 200
110 QUANTUM CAT
102 If A and B are divided by D, then the remainder obtained 113 The H.C.F. of 38024 and 16296 is :
are 13 and 31, respectively, where A, B, D are natural (a) 1234 (b) 6431
numbers. Further, A + B is divided by the same divisor D, (c) 5432 (d) none of these
the remainder is 4, then the divisor D is : 114 For any positive real number R , R  is the greatest integer
(a) 14 (b) 23 R  R + 1
less than or equal to R, then the value of   +  is
(c) 40 (d) 18  2   2 
103 The unit digit of N 2 p and (N )( 2 p + 1) are 6 and 4 respectively. (a) R  (b) 2R 
The greatest two digit number that follows the aforesaid  1
(c) R +  (d) can’t be determined
condition is :  3
(a) 49 (b) 84
115 For the natural numbers n1 and n2 if 2n1 + 3n2 = n1 × n2,
(c) 94 (d) 98
then the least possible value of the 2n1 + 3n2 is :
104 If f ( x ) = x 3 + 3x 2 − 4 x then f ( x + 1) is : (a) 6 (b) 12
(a) x 3 + 7 x 2 − 5 (b) x 3 + 6 x 2 + 5x (c) 24 (d) can’t be determined
(c) ( x + 1)3 (d) none of these 116 A company offers total 150 pens to its customers. As per the
scheme one pen will be offered on the purchase of a
105 If a + b = n, n ∈ I and ab = 60, then n cannot be equal to :
‘‘Quantitative Aptitude’’ book. Out of 150 pens the cost of
(a) 33 (b) − 19 some pens is ` 3 and the cost of the remaining pens is ` 5.
(c) 17 (d) 32 Maximum how many customers can avail a pen worth ` 5 as
Directions (for Q. Nos. 106 to 108) If a sequence is as given an offer from the company if the total cost of the pens
below : cannot exceed ` 745.
1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, … (a) 45 (b) 120
(c) can’t be determined (d) none of these
106 The unit digit of the 75th term of this sequence will be :
(a) 0 (b) 5 Directions (for Q. Nos. 117 to 118) A number of 109 digits is
(c) 7 (d) none of these written as follows :
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 …
107 In the above sequence the 55th term will be :
(a) an even number (b) an odd number 117 What is the least possible positive number that is required
(c) either even or odd (d) can’t be determined to added up to the given number to make it divisible by 2
and 5 both?
108 The unit digit of the sum of the 88th and 89th term of the
(a) 0 (b) 1
same sequence will be :
(c) 3 (d) can’t be determined
(a) 5 (b) 2
(c) 0 (d) none of these 118 What is the least possible whole number which must be
subtracted from the given number so that it will become
109 The unit digit of the product of n consecutive numbers of divisible by 3 and 11 both?
the form 2 k + 1, where k ∈ I + and n must be at least 5. (a) 8 (b) 3
(a) zero (b) any odd number (c) 0 (d) none of these
(c) 5 (d) both (b) and (c)
119 Each family in Gyanpur village has atmost two adults and
110 In the above question the sum of the n terms of the the total number of boys in this village is less than the
sequence is : number of girls. Similarly the number of girls is less than
(a) n2 − 1 (b) n (2n − 1) the number of adults in the village. Raghubir Singh, the
(c) [(n − 1)!] n (d) none of these chief of this village is the only adult in his family. The
minimum number of families in his village is :
111 If n1, n2, n3, … , nk ∈ I such that − 5 ≤ nk ≤ 25, then the
(a) 2 (b) 3
least possible product of any 3 numbers can be :
(c) 4 (d) none of these
(a) − 60 (b) 0
(c) − 3000 (d) none of these 120 Which of the following is correct if A = 3333 , B = 3333 ,
112 If p, q, r are such that q − p = r − q = 2 for every p, q, r ∈ I + , C = 33
33
and D = 3333?
then the least possible value of ( p + q)(q + r)(r + p) is : (a) A > B = C > D (b) C > A > B > D
(a) 192 (b) 720 (c) A > C > D > B (d) C > B > D > A
(c) 129 (d) data insufficient
Number System 111

121 When two positive integers A and B are divided by another 129 Suppose the seed of any positive integer n is defined as
number D, then the remainders obtained were 23 and 3, follows :
respectively. Further when ( A + B ) is divided by D, the Seed (n) = n, if n < 10
remainder is 26, then the value of D is : Seed (n) = Seed (s(n)), otherwise,
Where s(n) indicates the sum of digits of n.
(a) 62
For example, seed (6) = 6, seed (179) = 1 + 7 + 9 = seed
(b) 69
(17 ) = seed (1 + 7 ) = seed (8) = 8 ,etc.
(c) 26 How many positive integers n such that n < 999, will have
(d) Any value greater than 26 seed (n) = 7 ?
122 In how many ways can 729 be expressed as a difference of (a) 99 (b) 110 (c) 111 (d) 112
the square of whole numbers? 130 Prof. Viru Sahasrabuddhe wrote down a subtraction
(a) 4 (b) 6 problem on the blackboard, while teaching at Lamamia,
(c) 8 (d) none of these where he wrote the difference of two unknown numbers
123 In how many ways can 2310 be expressed as a product of but replaced the leading digit by x and the last digit by y in
3 factors? the answer, as shown below.
(a) 41 (b) 23 (c) 56 (d) 46 abcdef
-fedcba
124 In the following triangular arrangement of numbers x4814y
0,1,2,3, ... are placed along the lateral sides of the triangle
Then he asked his favorite student Chatur to find the sum
and then interior numbers are obtained by adding the two
of x and y, which is a two-digit number. Much to the
adjacent n umbers of the previous row. The following array professor's dismay Chatur was baffled and clueless. Then
depicts the rows 1 through 6. he asked the same question to Rancho whom he considers
0 a careless and undisciplined student. Much to his utter
1 1 surprise, Rancho told the correct answer immediately.
2 2 2 What is the Rancho's answer?
3 4 4 3 (a) 18 (b) 19
4 7 8 7 4 (c) 91 (d) none of these
5 11 15 15 11 5 131 For every natural number a and b, such that 1 < a < b and
Let f (n) denote the sum of the numbers in row n. What is
10! is divisible by a ! × b !. Find the number of sets of (a, b).
the remainder when f (100) is divided by 100?
(a) 19 (b) 9
(a) 64 (b) 74 (c) 46 (d) 36
(c) 17 (d) none of these
125 For n being a positive integer, how many values of n satisfy
132 A regular polygon is a plane shape that is enclosed by 3 or
7 21 ≤ n28 ≤ 363 ?
more lines of equal lengths and it is always symmetric
(a) 10 (b) 7 (c)1 (d) 2
having all the interior angles equal to each other; examples
126 From IIT Roorkee to IIM Kashipur in Uttarakhand, there include equilateral triangle, square, regular pentagon,
are total 325 railway stations falling on a straight railway regular hexagon and so on.
line. A local train stops at every 3rd station, an express train Verma has 120 identical matchsticks and he wants to form
stops at every 5th station and a bullet train stops at every a regular polygon, how many distinct polygons can he
8th railway station. How many pairs of stations are create using all the matchsticks together?
connected by exactly two different types of trains? (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 16
(a) 25 (b) 35 (c) 36 (d) 42 133 The total number of factors of N is 90, which has f distinct
127 A set A contains 88 elements such that A ≡ {8, 88, 888, . . . }. prime factors. What is the total number of factors of the
Another set B contains all the elements of A such that the product of all the possible values of f?
sum of no any two elements is divisible by 3. Find the (a) 10 (b) 8
maximum possible number of elements in B. (c) 9 (d) none of these
(a) 31 (b) 58 134 For every natural number n, the number of people in a
(c) 59 (d) 30 village is (n + 150) and each family of this village has (n + 6)
128 If a < b and (2)a × (17 )b = (32)b, find the number of possible members. If in each village of this region the number of
values of a. families is distinct, find the maximum number of villages in
(a) 9 (b) 7 the region.
(c) 6 (d) none of these (a) 8 (b) 9
(c) 14 (d) none of these
112 QUANTUM CAT
135 Every artist of Rangmanch theatre adorns oneself with a 143 After getting nominated as a class representative Narendra
two-piece attire - dhoti and kurta. If N is the number of Bhai ordered some pizzas of the same shape, size,
combinations of dhoti and kurta that any actor of ingredients and taste to be shared with his 385 classmates,
Rangmanch can wear and N < 999, which of the following equally, in such a way that each of his classmates receives
best describes the value of N, for which the number of same amount of pizza. Also, whenever Narendra Bhai cuts
artists is maximum considering no two artists wear the a pizza, he makes sure that all the pieces of that pizza are
same colour of dhoti and kurta ? indistinguishable and he never cuts a pizza into more than
(a) 1 < N < 99 12 pieces. Due to lack of sufficient funds he is not able to
(b) 799 < N < 899 order 385 or more pizzas. Which of the following cannot be
(c) 899 < N < 999 the number of pizzas that he shares with his 385
(d) 399 < N < 499 classmates?
(a) 292
136 Which of the following is necessarily a factor of
(b) 312
(1279 + 279 − 79 − 9 )127 −
(c) 335
(1279127 + 279127 −79127 − 9127 ) (d) 381
(a) 9 (b) 27 (c) 279 (d) 127 1 1 1
144 Consider the equation, + = ; where x, y, z are natural
137 Find the number of non-negative integral values of x that x y z
numbers.
satisfy the following equation, where  x denotes the If x = 12, find the total number of solutions to this equation.
greatest integer less than or equal to x. (a) 6 (b) 7
x x 
2
= (c) l8 (d) 9
 9   
 99  145 Vijay and Siddhartha go to a pub and order a pitcher full of
(a) 13 (b) 14 beer. In an hour together they finish half the pitcher of
(c) 15 (d) none of these beer. Vijay alone can finish a pitcher of beer in x hours and
138 If  x denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, Siddhartha alone can finish a pitcher of beer in y hours. If x
which one of the following could be a suitable value of x for and y are the integral numbers, then the maximum value of
which each term of the following expression is expressed in x + y is
its simplest form? (a) 4 (b) 8
 x + 3 ,  x + 8 ,  x + 15 , (c) 9 (d) 12
4 5 6 146 Three friends Babu, Sona and Janu after watching a movie
 x + 24 , . . . . . ,  x + 168 ,  x + 195 want to order some meal, so they go straight to the food
7 15 16 court of the Phoenix mall. Babu says if we order p number
(a) 9.99 (b) 11.11 of pizzas it would be sufficient for three of us, Sona says if
(c) 19.91 (d) 16.61 we order b number of burgers it would be sufficient for
139 When 58123 and 59059 are divided by a three digit three of us and Janu says if we order s number of
number N, the same remainder is obtained. How many sandwiches it would be sufficient for three of us. The
values can N take? restaurant manager, who is listening to their conversation,
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 7 says, "Guys you all are right, as whatever you go with, in
each case you would have the same amount of meal. But
140 Find the smallest number which when divided by 3, 5, 7
what I suggest is that instead of having only one thing you
and 11, it leaves remainders 1, 3, 5 and 2, respectively.
can have a combo of pizza, burger and sandwich, and this
(a) 337 (b) 418 (c) 838 (d) 912
combo would still give you the same amount of meal that
141 Find the smallest number which when divided by 3, 4, 6, 7, you get when you order only one sort of dish and moreover
10 and 13, it leaves remainders 2, 3, 5, 4, 7 and 10, you can save some bucks for the next movie ticket.
respectively. All of them unanimously agree to his suggestion and order
(a) 4337 (b) 3467 a combo meal. If the number of burgers is more than that of
(c) 5443 (d) 4547 pizzas, but less than that of sandwiches, what is the total
number of pizzas, burgers and sandwiches in the combo?
142 Which of the following are the factors of 2387 + 3344 ? (a) 9
(i) 216 (ii) 643 (b) 11
(iii) 735 (iv) 7073 (c) 14
(a) Only (iii) (b) only (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) data insufficient
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) only (ii) and (iv)
Number System 113

Directions (for Q. Nos. 147 and 148) Answer the following The ones who could reach safely started treating the
questions based on the given information. soldiers. Meanwhile 190 new soldiers were brought to the
There are two fertility clinics in Chandigarh - ‘Chaddha clinic and base for their treatment, so that each doctor had to treat
Chopra clinic; and Vicky Arora is the only suitable semen donor 320 soldiers at the base. What was the total number of
available in this city. In the morning he donates only to Chaddha soldiers supposed to be treated, initially?
clinic and in the evening he donates only to Chopra clinic. In a (a) 1410 (b) 1400 (c) 770 (d) 1920
couple of weeks, after he started donating, he married his fiancee, 151 In a set of first 180 natural numbers find the number of
so he had to discontinue his donation, but in all such weeks he had prime numbers.
donated exactly 6 times a week and not more than once in a day. In (a) 48 (b) 24 (c) 41 (d) 38
each donation the amount of semen was exactly the same unit. In
152 In a set of first 1000 natural numbers find the number of
all these weeks, out of the total semen donated by Vicky to these
prime numbers.
two clinics, Chaddha clinic had received one-sixth of the semen in
(a) 176 (b) 168
the last week while Chopra clinic had received one-ninth of the
(c) 172 (d) none of these
semen in the last week.
153 There are three different teams engaged in laying the
147 What could be the possible ratio of the amount of semen
optical fiber cable under the ground. Team A is comprised
received by these two clinics in the last week?
of 11 men can lay 6 km cable in a certain time and team C is
(a) 5:1 (b) 3:2
comprised of 19 men can lay 11 km cable in a certain time.
(c) 2:1 (d) 1:1
Team B is less efficient than team A but more efficient than
148 For how many weeks he had donated his semen to these team C. Each member of a particular team is equally
clinics? efficient. If team B lays n km cable in a certain time, where
(a) 6 n is a natural number, then what could be the minimum
(b) 7 number of men in team B?
(c) 8 (a) 5 (b) 6
(d) cannot be determined uniquely (c) 9 (d) 7
149 On the last day of their college all the 300 girls had a girls' 154 The co-founder of a company called Lamamia thought that
night out at Khadakwasla, where they saw some couples in the beginning it's practically impossible to take away
having fun around their resort. Reminiscent of their some salary, so he devised an ingenious way to get some
moments spent in the past three years at Pune campus most salary from his own company. Taking into confidence the
of them were quick to flaunt that they dated a guy in their other co-founders he decided to take ` n2 in the nth month,
college. starting from the very first month up to the first five years.
However, none claimed that they dated more than one guy After working for sometime he realized total ` 21740 from
in the past 3 years. If a girl dated a guy for 0 < m ≤ 12 his company as his salary. However, he didn't take a single
months she claims that she dated him for 1 year, similarly if penny in a month when he was on bed-rest after he got
a girl dated a guy for 12 < m ≤ 24 months she claims that diagnosed of severe back problem. In which month he
she dated him for 2 years and so if a girl dated a guy for didn’t work for his company?
24 < m ≤ 36 months she claims that she dated him for 3 (a) 18th (b) 24th
years; whereas m denotes the number of months. There (c) 20th (d) data insufficient
were all sorts of girls who boasted of dating a guy for 155 Two friends Azad and Bose are vacationing in India and
1 year, 2 years and even 3 years too. The girls who didn't
they have some Indian currency in their wallets. Each one
date a guy at all can be counted on the fingers of one hand.
has some notes of denominations of ` 1000, ` 100, ` 10 and
The number of girls who dated a guy for at least 2 years was
` 1. The total number of notes with each one is same but the
36% more than those who dated a guy exactly for 1 year.
What's the maximum number of girls who dated a guy for total amount with each one is distinct. None of them has
all the 3 years? 10 or more notes of any denomination.
(a) 135 (b) 136 What information is necessary to find the total amount that
they could have together in their wallets, if used together
(c) 169 (d) 170
with the possible amount given in the respective options?
150 A 7 member team of doctors was summoned to treat the (a) Azad has the same number of notes of denominations
equal number of soldiers who got inflicted with wounds of ` 1000 and ` 100 as Bose has the notes of
and airborne diseases leading to an epidemic in the denominations of ` 100 and ` 1000. And Azad has the
military base. While the doctors were on the way to the same number of notes of denominations of ` 10 and ` 1
military base, some of them lost their lives due to a as Bose has the notes of denominations of ` 1 and ` 10.
landmine explosion. The possible amount could be `14377
114 QUANTUM CAT
(b) Azad has the same number of notes of denominations 158 An integer n is called square-free if does not have a divisor
of ` 1000 and ` 100 as Bose has the notes of of the form k 2 where k ∈{2,3, ... , n}. Find the number of
denominations of ` 10 and ` 1. And Azad has the same square-free integers between 1 and 120.
number of notes of denominations of ` 10 and ` 1 as (a) 45 (b) 60
Bose has the notes of denominations of ` 1000 and (c) 75 (d) none of these
`100. The possible amount could be ` 24367 159 How many positive integral solutions exist for:
(c) Azad has the same number of notes of denominations ab + cd = a + b + c + d, where 1 ≤ a ≤ b ≤ c ≤ d ?
of ` 1000 and ` 10 as Bose has the notes of (a) 0 (b) 2
denominations of ` 10 and ` 1000. And Azad has the (c) 3 (d) none of these
same number of notes of denominations of ` 100 and ` 1
as Bose has the notes of denominations of ` 1 and ` 100. 160 Ishaan Awasthi, a dyslexic boy, has some difficulties in
The possible amount could be ` 44377 reading but does not suffer from dyscalculia. Once his
(d) Azad has the same number of notes of denominations professor Mr. Nikumbh gave him a simple multiplication
of ` 1000 and ` 1 as Bose has the notes of problem involving two distinct numbers. The numbers
denominations of ` 1 and ` 1000. And Azad has the were exactly two-digit numbers and none of the four digits
same number of notes of denominations of ` 100 and was same. He asked him to multiply both the numbers and
` 10 as Bose has the notes of denominations of ` 10 and find the answer. Due to inability in reading Ishaan
` 100. The possible amount could be ` 44351 interchanged the positions of tens and unit digits mutually
in each of the two numbers and then he multiplied the
156 Ravikishan is a sales executive who has five different resultant numbers. But the answer was still the same and
simcard for his mobile handset. Each simcard supports correct. After realizing this amazing fact, now Nikumbh sir
different talk-time. For each simcard the talk-time is always wants to know the number of pairs of two digit-numbers,
in integers and measured in minutes only. When he is which exists in our decimal number system.
working in the remote fields, he carries exactly five fully (a) 12 (b) 21
charged simcard with him. On ten different days he used (c) 20 (d) none of these
different pairs of simcard and observed the total talk-time
each day as 122, 124, 125, 126, 127, 128, 129, 130, 132, Directions (for Q. Nos. 161 to 163) Answer the following
and 133 min. What is the highest talk time that a simcard questions based on the information given below.
supports? Windows 8 - an operating system for Tablets and Mobile phones
(a) 67 min that can be accessed by the touch of a finger - is not just a
(b) 69 min revolutionary one in terms of technical advancements over its
(c) 71 min predecessors but also in terms of aesthetic value: user interface,
look and feel.
(d) 68 min
Windows 8 comes with a magnificent start screen. The start screen
157 The following figure shows the three gears, which work in of any Windows 8 device appears as a grid of tiles. These square
tandem. That means when anyone of the gears rotates, all shaped tiles are identical in size and each tile represents a
other gears will also rotate. One gear has 36 teeth, another different icon; for mail, calendar, music, photo, video, map, and
one has 25 teeth and the third one has 30 teeth. Though the other such features and applications.
number of teeth is not shown correctly in the given figure. The grid is always rectangular and by default the border tiles, in
the outermost rows and columns, are occupied by the static icons
of Windows applications only. And the remaining tiles are
dynamic so that they can be replaced by the user with the icons of
any third party application as per his/her choice. A grid has as
many static tiles as dynamic tiles.
161 The total number of tiles on the start screen would be:
(a) 36
The gears are now in starting position. If you start turning (b) 48
them and continue to turn them, eventually all three will (c) 60
end up at their starting positions. Each gear makes x, y, z (d) can’t be determined
complete turns in order to have all three in their starting 162 At most how many third party applications a Windows
positions. What is the value of x + y + z? mobile user can have on his/her start screen?
(a) 91 (b) 11 (a) 15 (b) 16
(c) 30 (d) 900 (c) 32 (d) 30
Number System 115

163 A tech savvy user of Windows mobiles prefers the shape in 167 Minimum how many steps are required to break apart all
which the ratio of the length and the breadth of the screen the pieces of this chocolate bar, if it is performed gently
is not too high, then the ratio of length and breadth of the without damaging any piece?
grid of tiles on the start screen would be:
(a) 2:3 (b) 3:2 (c) 4:3 (d) 5:3
164 What is the sum of all integers directly above 160?
1

4 7

10 13 16

19 22 25 28 (a) 28 (b) 18
(c) 11 (d) none of these
31 34 37 40 43
168 For any set of real numbers R = {a, b, c} let sum of pairwise
... ... ... ... ... ...
product S = ab + bc + ca. If a + b + c = 1 , then
1 1
(a) 136 (b) 133 (d) 148 (d) 127 (a) S ≤ (b) S <
3 3
165 What is the maximum integral value of m, if n < 0 and 1
285 (c) S ≤ 3 (d) S <
m = n+ ? 9
n
(a) −34 (b) −286 (c) 34 (d) −33
169 A number 4 can be expressed as an ordered sum of one or
more positive integers in 8 ways namely
166 Find the value of abc, if a, b and c are integers and 4, 3 + 1, 1 + 3, 2 + 2, 1 + 1 + 2, 1 + 2 + 1,
1 37 2 + 1 + 1, 1 + 1 + 1 + 1. Find the number of ways in which
a+ =
1 16 8 can be expressed as above.
b+
c (a) 16 (b) 61
(a) 30 (b) 24 (c) 48 (d) none (c) 64 (d) none of these

LEVEL 03 > FINAL ROUND

1 Sania wanted to cut a cubical cake into 120 identical pieces 3 The number of zeros at the end of the product of the
applying minimum number of ‘n’ cuts. Later on she realised elements of s19.
that she had to cut this cake into maximum number of (a) 4 (b) 5
identical pieces i.e., 125 pieces. Now she applies the (c) 1 (d) none of these
number of cuts is :
4 The largest power of 10 that can exactly divide the product
(a) n (b) n + 5
of all the elements of s19 and s20 is :
(c) n + 1 (d) can’t be determined (a) 10 (b) 9
Directions (for Q. Nos. 2 to 4) (c) 19 (d) can’t be determined
If s1 = (1); 5 A set ‘S’ contains first 50 elements of the form 2n; n ∈ N .
s2 = (2), (3);
s3 = (4 ), (5), (6); Further a subset ‘P’ of set ‘S’ is formed such that the product
s4 = (7), (8), (9), (10); of any 3 elements of ‘P’ is not divisible by 16. Then
s5 = (11), (12), (13), (14 ), (15) … etc. maximum number of elements that ‘P’ can have is :
where s1 , s2 , s3 ,… etc. are the first, second and third terms … of the (a) 12 (b) 13
given sequence. (c) 25 (d) none of (a), (b), (c)

2 The last digit and tens digit of the sum of all the elements of 6 A cuboid of dimensions 51, 85 and 102 cm is first painted
the first 21 terms of this sequence respectively are : by red colour then it is cut into minimum possible identical
(a) 7, 0 cubes. Now the total surface area of all those faces of cubes
(b) 6, 9 which are not red is :
(c) 9, 6 (a) 119646 cm2 (b) 52020 cm2
(d) none of (a), (b), (c) (c) 18514 cm2 (d) 36414 cm2
116 QUANTUM CAT
7 A number ‘p’ is such that it is divisible by 7 but not by 2. 15 The remainder when (888 !)9999 is divided by 77 is :
Another number ‘q’ is divisible by 6 but not by 5, then the (a) 1 (b) 2
following expression which necessarily be an integer is : (c) 3 (d) none of these
7 p + 6q 5p + 6q
(a) (b) 16 We publish a monthly magazine of 84 pages. Once I found
42 71
6p + 7q that in a magazine 4 pages were missing. One out of them
(c) (d) none of these was page number 29. It is known that the page number of
42
the last page of the magazine is 84, (including the
8 If pq − qr = ( p + q)r − q ; p > r > q ∈Prime numbers less than coverpages). The numbers printed on the missing pages
11 then p + q is equal to : were :
(a) r (r − q) (b) r (q − p) (a) 29, 52, 53 (b) 30, 55, 56
(c) r ( p + q) (d) pq (c) 28, 52, 53 (d) can’t be determined

9 To visit the Republic Day Parade on 26th January, 2005 the 17 There are six locks exactly with one key for each lock. All
people from every nook and corner including intellectuals, the keys are mixed with each other. The maximum number
artists, farmers and mathematicians thronged in New of attempts needed to get the correct combination is :
Delhi. There were 100 seats in front row numbered 1, 2, 3, (a) 21 (b) 15
…, 100. But the smart mathematician chose not to sit on (c) 6 (d) can’t be determined
those seats which are the multiples of any number greater 18 If n is an integer, how many values of n will give an integral
than unity. How many mathematicians could sit on these value of 51n2 + 17 n + 6?
front row chairs?
(a) 4 (b) 3
(a) 25 (b) 26
(c) 33 (d) none of these (c) 2 (d) none of these
19 Sania always beats Plexur in tennis, but loses to Venus.
Directions (for Q. Nos. 10 to 12) In South-Asia the New Desh
Lindse usually beats Plexur and sometimes Sania, but
follows a septarian calender in which every month starts with
cannot win against Venus. The worst player can be :
Monday and a week has 7 days. There are only four months, the
first 3 months consists of 98 days each and the last month has (a) Venus (b) Plexur
70 days only. (c) Sania (d) can’t say

10 Which day falls on the 88th day of the first month? 20 Winner and Loser, the two brothers are playing a game in a
(a) Sunday (b) Monday recreational room at Amausi Airport, Lucknow. In this
(c) Thursday (d) Saturday game each one in turn has to pick up a number m such that
1 ≤ m ≤ n; m, n ∈ I + . The game stops as soon as the sum of
11 Which date cannot fall on the Thursday of the first month? all the numbers picked so far attains the value of 2n + 1 or
(a) 46 (b) 18 exceeds and thus the player who picked last number was
(c) 81 (d) 64 loser. With which number winner starts if he were to pick
12 Which day occurs maximum number of times in a year? up first to defeat necessarily the loser is?
(a) Monday (b) Saturday (a) (n + 1) (b) n (c) (n − 1) (d) 2n
(c) Sunday (d) none of these
21 The sum of the last 10 digits of the sum of the expression :
13 The last two digits in the expansion of (1989)91 are : (11 × 22 × 33 × 44 × 55 ) + (16 × 27 × 38 × 49 × 510 )
(a) 9, 1 (b) 8, 1
(c) 6, 9 (d) 8, 9 + (111 × 212 × 313 × 414 × 515 ) + …
+ (196 × 297 × 398 × 499 × 5100 ) is :
14 Earlier when I have created my e-mail-ID, the password
was consisting of first 4 prime numbers. Recently when I (a) 16 (b) 18
tried to check my emails I got dumbfounded since I could (c) 20 (d) none of these
not remember my password exactly. So when I have
written 2735, my computer indicated me that no digit is
22 One day very early morning Ravishankar went to temple to
offer some flowers as a part of Puja. He purchased some
correctly placed. Again I tried 5273, I got the same
flowers but the seller offered him that if he would give him
response. So once again I have written only 3 as the left
all his ` 2, he could get all the remaining 6 flowers and thus
most digit for my password it again indicated me that it was
could gain 60 paise per dozen. If each time the transaction
wrong. Finally I have taken one more attempt and got the
is possible only in rupees then how many flowers did
account open. The code of my password is :
Ravishankar purchase initially?
(a) 2537 (b) 7352
(c) 7325 (d) none of these (a) 6 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 12
Number System 117

23 Maximum number of squares possible that can be 32 In the problem number 31, if the divisor is 7 then the
constructed using 31 pencils of equal length on the table : remainder is :
(a) 30 (b) 20 (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 1
(c) 15 (d) 29
33 A monkey wanted to climb on the smooth vertical pole of
Directions (for Q. Nos. 24 and 25) Kavita, a student of IIMA, height of 35 metre. In the first one minute he climbed up
told me that she did everyday 3 more passages of English than that 5 metre in the next one minute he slipped down by 2
of previous day and thus she completed all the passages in 10 days. metre. Further he repeated the same process till he had
Later on she told me that the number of passages she did on the reached on the top of the pole. Minimum how many times
did he have to go upward to reach the apex of the pole?
last but one day were four times that she did on the second day.
(a) 35 (b) 12
24 Number of passages she has done on the last day : (c) 11 (d) can’t say
(a) 30 (b) 41
34 In the above question the minimum time required for this
(c) 32 (d) none of these
job is :
25 Total number of passages that she has completed in those (a) 21 minute (b) 22 minute
10 days : (c) 24 minute (d) none of these
(a) 84
35 In the same problem, if the height of the pole is 36 metre
(b) 180
then the time taken by monkey to reach at the top of the
(c) 175
pole is :
(d) can’t be determined
(a) 22 min. 36 sec. (b) 22 min. 24 sec.
26 Recently, a small village in Tamilnadu where only male (c) 23 min. 12 sec. (d) none of these
shephereds reside with four sheep each, was devastated by
Tsunami waves. Therefore 8 persons and 47 sheep were
36 The remainder when 13 + 23 + 33 + … + 9993 + 10003 is
found to be dead and the people, who luckily survived, left divided by 13 is :
the village with one sheep each. Since 21 sheep were too (a) 7 (b) 11
injured to move so have been left on their own luck in the (c) 12 (d) none of these
village. The number of sheep which were earlier in the 37 If 223 + 233 + 243 + … + 87 3 + 883 is divided by 110 then
village is :
the remainder wil be :
(a) 84 (b) 120
(a) 55 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 44
(c) can’t be determined (d) none of these
38 The sum of the n terms of a series is n ! + n2 then the 6th
27 The number of 3-digit numbers which consist of the digits
in A.P., strictly in increasing order using the non-zero digits term is, if n ∈ N :
of the decimal system is : (a) 756 (b) 611
(a) 14 (b) 16 (c) data insufficient (d) none of these
(c) 15 (d) none of these 39 A smallest possible number which is divisible by either 3, 5 or
7 when represented by only two digits either 0 or 1, then the
28 The sum of :
minimum number of digits required to represent it :
(22 + 42 + 62 + … + 1002 ) − (12 + 32 + 52 + … + 992 ) is : (a) 6 (b) 5
(a) 5555 (b) 5050 (c) 888 (d) 222 (c) 7 (d) can’t be determined
29 If an integer p is such that (8 p + 1) is prime, where p > 2, 40 The sum of first n odd numbers (i.e.,
then (8 p − 1) is : 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + … + 2n − 1) is divisible by 11111 then the
(a) divisible by 7 (b) divisible by 3 value of n is :
(c) a prime number (d) none of these (a) 12345 (b) 11111
(c) can’t be determined (d) none of these
30 The remainder when 30 + 31 + 32 + … + 3200 is divided by
13 is : 41 Anjuli bought some chocolates from Nestle’s exclusive shop
(a) 0 (b) 12 and she gave Amit one less than half of what she had
(c) 3 (d) none of these bought initially. Then she gave 3 chocolates to Bablu and
then half of the chocolates which she had gave to Charles.
31 The remainder when 40 + 41 + 42 + 43 + … + 440 is Thus finally she gave one chocolate to Deepak and the
divided by 17 is : remaining one she ate herself. The number of chocolates
(a) 0 (b) 16 she had purchased.
(c) 4 (d) none of these (a) 9 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 15
118 QUANTUM CAT
42 If (a1b1c1 )100 + (a2b2c2 )100 + (a3b3c3 )100 + … 50 If a number ‘n’ can exactly divide (514 − 1) then ‘n’ can
(a100b100c100 )100, where aibici is a three digit positive number necessarily divide :
and in the expression all the 100 numbers are any (a) (528 − 1) (b) (542 − 1)
consecutive 3 digit numbers. The last digit is : (c) (5 21
+ 1) (d) both (a) and (b)
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 3 (d) none of these 51 The nth term of a series of which all the terms are positive is
defined as Tn = n2 + n, then the sum of n terms of the series
Directions (for Q. Nos. 43 to 45) If [x] is read as the greatest
is :
integer less than or equal to x, {x} is the least integer greater than
n (n + 1)(n + 2) n3 + 4n
or equal to x. Further f ( x, y ) = [ x] + { y} (a) (b)
6 n
and g ( x, y ) = [ x] − { y} 5n 2 n (n + 1)(n + 2)
and P ( x, y ) = f ( x, y ) + g ( x, y ) (c) [ n + n] (d)
9 3
and Q ( x, y ) = f ( x, y ) − g ( x, y )
52 The number of zeros at the end of the product of
43 If x = 16 and y = 25, the value of P ( x, y ) + Q ( x, y ) is :
(a) 90 (b) 200 222111 × 3553 + (7 !)6! × (10 !)5! + 4242 × 2525 is :
(c) can’t be determined (d) none of these (a) 42 (b) 53
44 If x 2 = 16 and y 2 = 25, P ( x, y ).Q ( x, y ) is : (c) 1055 (d) none of these
(a) 80 (b) − 80 12345 12346 12347
(c) 72 (d) none of these 53 + + is equal to :
12346 12347 12345
45 If x, y ∈ I + then P ( x, y ) + Q ( x, y ) is always : (a) 2.67 (b) 6.27
(a) an even number (b) an odd number (c) 3 (d) 5
(c) can’t say (d) none of these
Directions (for Q. Nos. 54 to 56) The set S 1 = {1}, S 2 = {3, 5},
46 Which of the following is/are true? S 3 = {7, 9,11}, etc. forms a sequence.
(i) 433 − 1 is divisible by 11
54 Sum of all the elements of S10 is :
(ii) 562 + 1 is divisible by 19
(a) 55 (b) 300
(iii) 502 − 1 is divisible by 17 (c) 3375 (d) none of these
(iv) (729)5 − 729 is divisible by 5
55 The 11th element of the set S21 is :
(a) (i) and (ii)
(a) 21 (b) 121
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) 221 (d) 441
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii) 56 The sum of the first and last element of the set S51 is :
(a) 5202 (b) 5151
47 Capt. Manoj Pandey once decided to distribute 180 bullets
(c) 5152 (d) 5102
among his 36 soldiers. But he gave n bullets to a soldier of
nth row and there were same number of soldiers in each 57 During my studies once I brought a book from library
row. Thus he distributed all his 180 bullets among his which was written in early days, when there were only
soldiers. The number of soldiers in (n − 1)th row was : 9 digits i.e., the digit 0 did not exist. There was a sum in
(a) 3 (b) 8 that book as follows :
(c) 9 (d) none of these k = 13 + 17 + 31 + 2
48 If (n − 5) is divisible by 17 for every n ∈ I + then the greatest Then the value of k if 9 + 1 = 11, 19 + 4 = 24 etc.
integer which will necessarily divide (n + 12)(n + 29) is : (a) 70 (b) 71
(a) 578 (c) 63 (d) 64
(b) 289 58 According to that book, the sum of 4 + 16 − 5 + 12 is
(c) such a number does not exist
(a) 27 (b) 26
(d) none of the above
(c) 29 (d) none of these
49 A certain number ‘n’ can exactly divide (324 − 1), then this
59 The value of x for which the unit digits of (2357 )log10 x and
number can also divide the number :
(5723)x are same for x > 1.
(a) (316 + 1) (b) (38 − 1)
(a) 10 (b) 100
(c) (370 − 1) (d) (396 − 1)
(c) 1000 (d) none of these
Number System 119

60 The value of x for which the unit digits of the following two 66 For every natural number x and y the value of x − y when
x2 + x
expressions (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 7 ) and (11 × 11 × 13) are
x
7 y 3
y+ + =6 , is :
same for x > 0 : x 13 143
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 3 (d) none of these (c) 2 (d) not unique

61 When any odd number greater than unity multiplied by Directions (for Q. Nos. 67 and 68) The S = {(1, 3, 5, 7, 9, …, 99 )
even times by itself then dividing this product by 8, we get (102, 104, 106, …, 200)} i.e., in the first part there are odd integers
the remainder as : less than 100 and in the second part there are even integers
(a) 1 (b) 7 greater than 100, but upto 200.
(c) not unique (d) none of these
67 The highest power of 3 in the product of the element of the
62 Stephen’s birthday, this year falls on 2nd April, set is :
Wednesday. But coincidently his marriage anniversary is (a) 52 (b) 51
2 days before the 23rd of the same month. On which day he (c) 97 (d) can’t be determined
will celebrate his marriage anniversary?
68 The highest power of 5 that can exactly divide the product
(a) Monday
is :
(b) Wednesday (a) 25 (b) 24 (c) 30 (d) 26
(c) Friday
(d) can’t be determined 69 The number of zeros at the end of the following
expression :
63 In the above problem if there are only 6 days in a week i.e., P = {(2 × 4 × 6 × 8 × 10 × … 50)
there is no Sunday and the week starts with Monday
× (55 × 60 × 65 × 70 × 75 × … 100)}
and ends with Saturday then his marriage anniversary will
(a) less than 20 (b) 57
fall on :
(c) 20 (d) 36
(a) Wednesday
(b) Thursday 70 1, 2, 3, 4, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, … are the
(c) Friday consecutive numbers written in base 5. The twenty fifth
(d) data insufficient number in the above sequence would be :
(a) 52 (b) 100
64 An N.G.O. (non-government organisation) STRANGE (c) 25 (d) none of these
working for the relief of Tsunami Victims in Srilanka
71 Watch India Corporation made a wrist watch in which the
consisting of 7 members S, T, R, A, N, G, E of the same
minute hand makes one complete round of dial in
family.
12 minutes and accordingly the hour hand too. When I
The eldest one ‘S’ spoke to me ‘‘I have deployed equal
have set this watch at 12 : 00 noon on 1st February this
number of brothers and sisters for medical relief and
year. What time will be shown by this watch at 3 O’clock on
psychological counselling under the supervision of myself’’.
the same day.
Later on the youngest member E spoke to me as ‘‘we have
(a) 2 : 30 P.M.
been working for rehabilitation and food supply as twice
the number of sisters as the number of brothers have been (b) 6 : 15 A.M.
deployed there, but I did not actually do any thing due to a (c) 3 O’clock
severe injury in my leg’’. Then we can conclude that : (d) can’t be determined
(a) youngest person is a lady 72 The sum of first n numbers of the form (5k + 1), where
(b) eldest person’s wife is youngest k ∈ I + is :
(c) the brother of S is youngest n
(d) nothing can be said (a) [ 5n2 − 3] (b) n (20 − 3n)
2
n
65 When the sum of n digits of an n digit number is subtracted (c) (5n + 7 ) (d) none of these
from the number itself, where the number must be atleast 2
two digit number, then the correct statement is : 73 A series is given as : 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, …
(a) the difference is a prime number Then the value of Tn + 1 − Tn is, where Tn is the nth term of
(b) the resultant value is a perfect square the series is :
(c) the resultant value is an odd number (a) n2 − 1 (b) 2n + 1
(d) the resultant value is a multiple of 9
(c) n + 1
2
(d) none of these
120 QUANTUM CAT
74 The area of paper can be divided into 144 squares, but if 85 The sum of all the elements of S101 :
the dimensions of each square were reduced by 2 cm each, (a) 1531441 (b) 1189811
then the number of squares so formed are 400. The area of (c) 1030301 (d) none of these
the paper, initially, was : 86 The sum of the series :
(a) 544 cm2 (b) 1444 cm2 1 1 1 1 1
(c) 3600 cm 2 (d) none of these S= + + + +…+ is :
1.2 2.3 3.4 4.5 99.100
75 If (ab)2 = bcb and (dd )2 = ccff , where a, f, d are strictly in (a)
98
(b)
99
increasing order of G.P. and b, c, d are in increasing order of 99 100
A.P. Then the value of f will be, where ab and bcb etc. are (c) S > 1 (d) none of these
the two digit and 3 digit numbers etc. 87 A number P when divided by D it leaves the remainder 18
(a) 9 (b) 8 and if another number Q is divided by the same divisor D it
(c) can’t be determined (d) none of these leaves the remainder 11. Further if we divide P + Q by D
76 If A = 555! and B = (278)555 then which one of the then we obtain the remainder 4. Then the common divisor
D is :
following relations is appropriate?
(a) 22 (b) 15
(a) A > B (b) A = B
(c) 25 (d) can’t be determined
(c) A < B (d) can’t say
88 If the product of 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × … n contains 68 zeros in the
Directions (for Q. Nos. 77 to 81) For any natural number n the end of the number. Then the maximum possible number of
sets S 1 , S 2 ,… are defined as below : values of n is :
S 1 = {1}, S 2 = {2, 3}, S 3 = {4 , 5, 6} (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6
S 4 = {7, 8, 9, 10}, S 5 = {11, 12, 13, 14 , 15}… etc. … ∞ times
89 66
66
77 The last element in the S24 is : The remainder when 6 is divided by 10 is :
(a) 576 (b) 600 (a) 3 (b) 6
(c) 300 (d) 625 (c) 0 (d) can’t be determined
78 The middlemost element of the set S15 is : 90 533 − 463 − 7 3 is divisible by :
(a) 196 (b) 169 (a) 6 and 9
(c) 131 (d) none of these (b) 2 and 21
79 The sum of the elements of set S25 is : (c) 21 and 23
(a) 7825 (b) 3125 (d) both (b) and (c)
(c) 3250 (d) none of these 91 A number of decimal system when written in base n,
80 In which set, there are maximum number of prime number 2 < n < 10, we get a two digit number. Further if we reverse
elements among S1, S2, S3, … , S13 is : the digits of the obtained number in base ‘n’ we get a
(a) S12 (b) S13 number which is twice of the original number in decimal
(c) S12 and S13 (d) S9, S12, S13 system. The sum of original and resultant number both in
decimal system for the largest possible value of n is :
81 Of which set the sum of all the elements of the set is even (a) 45 (b) 63
(a) S39 (b) S50 (c) 77 (d) can’t be determined
(c) S72 (d) S94
92 In the above question how many values of n are possible?
Directions (for Q. Nos. 82 to 85) The sequence of sets (a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 7
S 1 , S 2 , S 3 , S 4 ,…is defined as S 1 = {1}, S 2 = {3, 5}, S 3 = {7, 9, 11},
S 4 = {13, 15, 17, 19}… etc. 93 Pandavas won a hen in the war of the Mahabharat. They
brought it on the Ist January, 2002. This hen gave birth to
82 The first element of the nth set Sn is : 7 new hens on the very first day. After it every new hen
(a) n (b) n2 − 1 irrespective of its age everyday gave birth (only once in a
(c) 2n + 1 (d) n2 − n + 1 lifetime) to 7 new hens. This process continued throughout
the year, but no any hen had been died so far. On the 365th
83 The last element of the set S100 is : day all the Pandavas shared equally all the hens among all
(a) 10099 (b) 9899 the five brothers. The remaining (if these can not be shared
(c) 9900 (d) none of these equally) hens were donated to Krishna. The number of
84 The middlemost element of an odd numbered set S125 is : hens which the Krishna had received is :
(a) 12500 (b) 15625 (a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 3125 (d) none of these (c) can’t be determined (d) none of these
Number System 121

94 Total number of natural numbers being the perfect square 100 The distance between the Sarvesh’s house and Ravi’s house
whose square root is equal to the sum of the digits of the is 900 km and the Sarvesh’s house is at 100th milestone
perfect square is : where as the Ravi’s house is at 1000th milestone. There are
(a) 0 (b) 1 total 901 milestones at a regular interval of 1 km each.
(c) 2 (d) 12 When you go to Ravi’s house from the Sarvesh’s house
which are on the same highway, you will find that if the last
95 At our training Institute the number of boys is same as that
2 digit (i.e., unit digit) of the 3 digit number on every
of the girls. Last week, except rd of the girls all the milestone is same as the first (i.e., hundreds digit) of the
3
number on the next mile stone, then these milestones must
students went to picnic, where they bought some samosas
be red and rest will be black. Total number of red milestones
but later on they found exactly one dozen samosas were
not fresh so those 12 samosas had been thrown away. After is :
it the samosas were divided equally between boys and girls. (a) 179 (b) 90
Further when boys dealtout the samosas equally among (c) can’t be determined (d) none of these
themselves 39 samosas left undistributed, but when the 101 The highest power of 17 which can divide exactly the
girls dealtout the same number of samosas equally among following expression :
themselves 12 samosas were still left undistributed. The (182 − 1)(184 − 1)(186 − 1)(188 − 1)(1810 − 1) × …
number of students at our training institute is :
(a) 60 (b) 156 (1816 − 1)(1818 − 1) is :
(c) 162 (d) can’t be determined (a) 1 (b) 17
96 Darwin Miya has 6 kinds of fruits in large amount and has (c) 9 (d) can’t be determined
sufficient number of identical boxes to store the fruits. He 102 Help India Foundation and People for People Organisation
can put at least 10 and atmost 15 fruits in any box and he decided to distribute the blankets among 22 men and
put only one kind of fruits in a box. Further not more than 28 women who are Tsunami victims. When HIF and PPO
5 boxes can contain same number of fruits. Maximum distributed their respective blankets evenly among
number of fruits that he can put in the boxes is : 28 women they were left with 24 and 16 blankets
(a) 325 respectively. If they distributed their blankets evenly among
(b) 375 22 men they were left with 12 blankets each. So finally they
(c) 75 decided to combine all their blankets and then distributed
(d) can’t be determined among 22 men and 28 women altogether then no any
97 In the above question if he is allowed to put the equal blanket remained undistributed. Minimum total blankets
number of fruits in atmost 7 boxes and he has only 33 boxes distributed by them were :
and now he can put any kind of fruit with any other kind of (a) 960 (b) 700
fruits. At least how many boxes are there in which the (c) 1300 (d) none of these
number of fruits are same if he fills every box to its 103 In the above problem the ratio of blankets between HIF and
maximum capacity. PPO is :
(a) 5 43 147
(b) 6 (a) (b)
157 179
(c) 3 59
(d) can’t be determined (c) (d) can’t be determined
101
98 If n ∈ 1, 3, 5, 7, … etc., then the value of 104 The total number of 3 digit numbers which have two or
19n − 23n − 43n + 47 n is necessarily divisible by : more consecutive digits identical is :
(a) 264 (b) 246 (a) 171 (b) 170 (c) 90 (d) 180
(c) 76 (d) 129 105 For p ≠ 1, the expression (1 + p 256
) × (1 + p128 ) × (1 + p64 )
99 The sum of the following series : × (1 + p32 ) × (1 + p16 ) × (1 + p8 ) × (1 + p4 ) × (1 + p2 ) ×
 0  1  2 (1 + p) is equivalent to :
1.12 1 −  + 2.22 1 −  + 3.32 1 − 
 1  2  3
1 + p256 1 − p512
 3 (a) (b)
+ 4.42 1 −  + … upto n terms is : 1 + p128 1− p
 4
1 − p256
 1 n (n + 1)(2n + 1) (c) (d) p255
(a) n. n2 1 −  (b) 1− p
 n 6
n (n + 1)2 106 For the given fixed perimeter of 50 cm, the total number of
(c) (d) none of these rectangles which must have its sides in integers (cm) is :
4
(a) 50 (b) 25 (c) 12 (d) infinite
122 QUANTUM CAT
107 The total number of factors of a number is 24 and the 116 If a, b, c, d are positive real numbers such that
product of the prime factors of the same number is 30. The a + b + c + d = 2, then M = (a + b)(c + d ) satisfies the
square root of the ratio of such a smallest and the greatest relation is :
possible numbers is : (a) 0 ≤ M ≤ 1
(a) 5/6 (b) 6/9 (c) 9/25 (d) 4/25 (b) 1 ≤ M ≤ 2
(c) 2 ≤ M ≤ 3
108 In the above problem, maximum how many numbers are
possible? (d) 3 ≤ M ≤ 4
(a) 9 (b) 8 117 A corrupt country receives some educational grant from the
(c) 7 (d) data insufficient UNESCO in the form of digital notebooks. The total
P!
109 Mr. Oberai appeared in CAT for four consecutive years, but number of notebooks that this country receives is N = ;
coincidentlly each time his net score was 75. He told me Q!
1 where 0 ≤ P ≤ 99 and 0 ≤ Q ≤ 99 such that P − Q = 10. The
that there was rd negative marking for every wrong
3 country is divided into various levels − L1, L 2, L 3, ... etc. −
answer and 1 mark was alloted for every correct answer. for administrative conveniences. Initially, all the notebooks
He has attempted all the questions every year, but certainly are with the head of L1, who keeps half of the notebooks
some answers have been wrong due to stress and with himself and rest half of the notebooks he doles out
conceptual problems. Which is not the total number of equally to the each head of L 2. Similarly, each head of L 2
questions asked for CAT in any year, in that period? keeps half of the notebooks with oneself and rest half of the
(a) 231 (b) 163 notebooks he doles out to the each head of L 3 This pattern
(c) 150 (d) 123 occurs till the level L x where it becomes impossible for the
each head of L x to divide the number of notebooks in two
110 A thief somehow managed to steal some golden coins from
equal parts, so one does not dole out any notebook to any
a bank’s cash but while coming out of it at the first door he
was caught by the watchman and he successfully dealt him of the heads of L x +1 and thus to the expected beneficiary.
by paying 1 coin plus half of the rest coins. Further he had That is, the general public, which is supposed to receive the
to pay 2 coins, then half of the rest to the second notebooks directly from L x +1 never receives any notebook.
watchman. Once again at the third gate (outermost) he Also, at any level the number of heads is never equal to 2.
gave 3 coins and then half of the rest. After it he was left What’s the maximum possible value of x ?
with only one coin. How many coins had he stolen? (a) 10 (b) 11
(a) 32 (b) 36 (c) 12 (d) none of these
(c) 25 (d) none of these
118 In a far land of Lootokhao, an empowered group of
111 The number log 2 7 is : ministers was supposed to allocate some coal blocks and
(a) an integer (b) a rational number 2G spectrums to the aspiring private companies. However,
(c) an irrational number (d) a prime number these ministers colluded for their personal gains by
allocating the blocks and spectrums to a lobbying corporate
112 The product of n positive numbers is unity. Then their sum
coterie and that too after charging the bribe. The bribe
is :
fetched by each minister for allocating each block was ` 300
(a) a positive integer (b) divisible by n
million and for each spectrum it was ` 500 million. Each
 1
(c) equal to  n +  (d) never less than n minister allocated the same number of coal blocks and the
 n same number of 2G spectrums. The total bribe they
113 Let n > 1, be a positive integer. Then the largest integer m, received in this process was ` 13.3 billion. How many coal
blocks did each minister allocate to this corporate coterie
such that (nm + 1) divides (1 + n + n2 + n3 + … + n127 ) is :
by charging the bribe?
(a) 127 (b) 63 (a) 1
(c) 64 (d) 32
(b) 2
114 Number of divisors of the form 4n + 2; n ≥ 0 which can (c) 3
divide 240 is : (d) can’t be determined uniquely
(a) 4 (b) 8
119 Initially, a person had ` 20 when he sat down to play a game.
(c) 10 (d) 3
If he wins he would get ` 3, but if he loses he would have to
115 If the integers m and n are chosen at random from the set give away ` 1 to his opponent. If he played at least 1 game
{1, 2, 3, …, 100}, the maximum how many distinct and at most 20 games, how many distinct amounts he would
numbers of the form 7 m + 7 n would be divisible by 5? have at the end of the game?
(a) 1250 (b) 10000 (a) 81 (b) 60
(c) 2500 (d) none of these (c) 80 (d) 78
Number System 123

120 During a counter insurgency operation, three paramilitary 121 For how many distinct values of 16m you get back your
troops − A, B and C, fought bravely against the rebels and money you pay for playing the game?
thwarted the attempt of a coup d’état. The fight was so (a) 15 (b) 16
intense and lethal that exactly half of the paramilitary (c) 12 (d) none of these
forces lost their lives. Only 36% of troop A, 60% of troop B
and 80% of the troop C could survive the fight. Which of 122 For how many distinct values of k you can get back your
the following is not the possible number of total soldiers in money you pay for playing the game?
all the three troops together engaged in the Fight? (a) 8 (b) 12
(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 21 (d) none of these
(c) 60 (c) 90 123 How many distinct pins are there if you knock them over
you won’t get back your money you pay for playing the
Directions (for Q. Nos. 121 to 123) At a bowling alley there are
game?
25 pins, numbered 1 to 25, placed in a row. By using a bowling
(a) 7 (b) 8
ball you have to knock over the pins, which are initially arranged
(c) 4 (d) none of these
in the order, 1, 2, 3, ..., 25. For no apparent reason, in any
particular throw you hit exactly 5 contiguous pins out of the 124 For every natural number a, b, c and x, if
25 pins. For any natural number m, if in the first throw your score ( x a + 1)( x b + 1)( x c + 1) is the factor of S = 1 + x + x 2
is 16m, you are entitled to get the refund of what you pay for the + x 3 + . . . + x111, what is the HCF of a, b and c
game in advance. If out of the 5 pins, which you hit in a throw, the (a) 7 (b) 3
 k!  (c) 14 (d) can’t be determined
pin with the highest number is denoted by k, then16m =  ;
Where 5 ≤ k ≤ 25.  ( k − 5 ), 125 Find the value of k, if 15! = 1k 07674368000.
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

Test of Your Learning 1

1 A monkey wants to climb up a pole of 50 metre height. He 4 For a community marriage 300 boys and 300 girls gathered
first climbs up 1 metre but he falls back by the same height. for their marriage. But out of 600 people 200 were from
Again he climbs up 2 metre but he falls back by 1 metre. America and 200 from France and rest 200 were from India
Once again he climbs up 3 metre but he falls back by itself. The rule was that no any person can marry with a
1 metre. Again he climbs up 4 metre but he falls back by person of different ethnicity or nationality. Minimum how
1 metre. In this way he reaches at the top of the pole. If it is many married couples will be formed, after marriage?
known that the monkey needs 10 seconds for 1 metre in (a) 100 (b) 150
upward direction and 5 seconds for 1 metre in downward (c) 200 (d) none of these
direction, then the total time required by monkey to reach
at the top of the pole. For your kind information it must be 5 The 444th term of the following sequence 1, 2, 3, 10, 11,
clear to you that when he will reach on the top, he will not 12, 13, 20, 21, 22, 23, 30, 31, … is :
slip back. The total time required by this monkey to reach (a) 1331 (b) 17776 (c) 12330 (d) 13330
on the top of the poll is 6 If P = 3  x + 5 and Q = 4  x + 3 + 6 and P : Q = 1 : 2,
(a) 9 minutes 10 seconds (b) 10 minutes where  x is the greatest integer less than or equal to x then
(c) 8 minutes 20 seconds (d) none of these  Q
the value of P +  is :
2 Which one of the following is correct?  2
(i) (123)369 > (369)123 (ii) (246)642 < (642)246 (a) 34 (b) 51
45 43 (c) 40 (d) data insufficient
(iii) (50)50 !
= (50 !)
50
(iv) 3 >5
(a) (i) and (ii) 7 The maximum possible value of a + b + c + d will be where
(b) (ii) and (iii) (a + b) = c, (b + c) = d, (c + d ) = a, for every a, b, c, d ∈ I + :
(c) (i) only (a) − 4 (b) 0
(d) (i) and (iv) (c) 16 (d) can’t be determined
3 The tens digit of the 2248 is : 8 The number of divisors of 720 which are multiples of
(a) 1 (b) 7 perfect square of first prime number is :
(c) 5 (d) none of these (a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 18 (d) can’t be determined
124 QUANTUM CAT
9 The number of zeros which are not possible at the end of 18 In the above question (no. 17) how many lots or category
the n! is : of fruits from A, B, C, G, M, P he has sold?
(a) 82 (b) 73 (c) 156 (d) none (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) can’t be determined
Directions (for Q. Nos. 10 and 11) The following sequence is
given below : 19 As per the given constraints if Mewalal has sold some fruits
1, 3, 3, 3, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 9, 9, 9, 9, 9, 9, 9, 9, 9, … 3
in such a way that he is now left with fruits of Dayalbagh
4
10 The 111th term of this sequence will be : than that of Kesarbagh. Maximum how many lots (i.e.,
(a) 111 (b) 19 (c) 21 (d) none categories) of fruits he can sell out in such a way?
11 The sum of the 1st, 3rd, 8th, 15th, 24th, 35th, …, 99th term (a) 1 (b) 2
will be : (c) 3 (d) can’t be determined
(a) 100 (b) 101 (c) 121 (d) 81
20 If all the fruits were bought by a single person and were
Directions (for Q. Nos. 12 to 14) The following sequence is distributed equally among maximum possible number of
given below : children and each child had definitely received more than
1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6, 6, 6, 6, … etc. one fruit, then minimum how many children had received
different kind of fruits?
12 The sum of the first 100 terms of this sequence is : (a) 2 (b) 3
(a) 945 (b) 358350 (c) 4 (d) can’t be determined
(c) 100! (d) none of these
21 Total number of factors of the expression 623 − 543 − 83 is
13 The 77th element is :
(a) 60 (b) 62
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 13
(c) 46 (d) can’t be determined
14 The sum of the 1st, 2nd, 4th, 7th, 11th, 16th, …, 211th
22 The least possible number with which (180)! should be
terms is :
(a) 221 (b) 400 (c) 231 (d) 211 multiplied so that it can be divided by (45)44 is :
(a) 44 (b) 25 (c) 9 (d) none
15 Which one of the following is true?
(i) The least positive value of n for which n! can be 23 If P = abc and Q = uv are three digits and 2 digits two
divided by (n + 1) is 5. natural numbers respectively, such that u and v must be
(ii) The square root of 123454321 is 1111. distinct integers. How many pairs of P and Q are there in
(iii) The sum of the squares of the first 24 natural numbers total which gives the same result when we multiply abc
is a perfect square. with uv as the product of cba with vu (i.e., the position of
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) digits is interchanged) :
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) all of these (a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 5 (d) can’t be determined
16 The number of zeros at the end of 199 × 298 × 397 × … 991 is
(a) 1100 (b) 1111 24 There is a three digits number abc and a two digit number
(c) 1099 (d) none of these xy such that the product of abc with xy is same as the
product of cba with yx, if x and y can be similar digits, then
Directions (for Q. Nos. 17 to 20) Mewalal is selling fruits in the number of such pairs of P and Q is :
Charbagh, Lucknow, which were imported from Kesharbagh and (a) 99 (b) 900
Dayalbagh only. He has 13 apples, 25 bananas, 17 cherries, (c) 810 (d) can’t be determined
29 goose berries, 35 mangoes and 42 pine apples. When I wanted to
25 If (N )10 = (ab)n and (3N )10 = (ba)n; where 3 < n < 10, then
purchase some fruits from his shop, he told me that he can sell only
the least possible value of n is :
in lots (i.e., either total apples or total bananas or total cherries etc.,
(a) 4 (b) 6
but anyhow he can’t sell say 12 bananas or 10 apples) and he told
(c) 7 (d) can’t be determined
me that he himself can import any type of fruits without any lot, say
20 mangoes from Kesharbagh and 15 mangoes from Dayalbagh 26 At his birthday party Pravesh invited his 100 friends and
and so on if he wished. they took their seats numbered as 1, 2, 3, …, 100. Starting
from seat number 1 every third guest was served with
17 Mewalal sold some fruits and then he told me that he is
Chapatis, every fourth guest was served with Poori and
now left with twice the fruits of Kesharbagh than that of
every fifth guest was served with Dahibara and the
Dayalbagh. The number of fruits of Dayalbagh left after this
remaining guests were served with coca-cola only. How
selling is :
many guests enjoyed coca-cola in that party?
(a) 35 (b) 43
(a) 33 (b) 13
(c) 46 (d) can’t be determined
(c) 41 (d) can’t be determined
Number System 125

27 In the above question (no. 26) if Pravesh served every guest else has bought the tickets until he has purchased for all
who were sitting on the chair number 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, … etc. his friends.
the chapatis and to those who were, sitting on the chair (a) 244 (b) 242
number 5, 10, 15, 20, … etc. the poori and to the rest of (c) 222 (d) can’t be determined
them the Idli. The number of guests who has not received 35 The expression
the Idlis is : 1 1 1 1
(a) 38 (b) 47 N = + + + +…
1 + 1 ×1 2+ 2× 2 3+ 3× 3 4 + 4 × 4
(c) 41 (d) none of these
1
, where n = 100, then value of N is :
28 The number of ways in which 57 can be expressed as a n+ n×n
product of three factors :
100 99
(a) 7 (b) 8 (a) (b)
101 100
(c) 9 (d) none of these
(c) 9900 (d) none of these
29 If [x] means the greatest integer less than or equal to x and
36 Anjuli has written all the letters (or characters) of English
{x} means the least integer greater than or equal to x and
alphabets (i.e., A, B, C, D, … Y, Z) horizontally in a single
|x| means the absolute value of x, then { x} − [ x] equals to :
line. She started counting as A-1, B- 2, C- 3, D- 4, … Y- 25,
(a) −1 Z- 26 and reversed back as Y- 27, X - 28, W - 29, V- 30, …
(b) 0 B- 50, A- 51 and further reversed back as B- 52, C- 53, D- 54,
(c) 1 … etc. She continued counting till she reached the 777th
(d) any one of (a), (b), (c) character. At which letter or character she stopped
counting?
30 In the previous question if x is not an integer then the value
(a) Y (b) B
of|{ x} − [ x]| is :
(c) R (d) none of these
(a) 0 (b) –1
(c) 1 (d) either (a) or (c) 37 The reading style of Sunny is quite unusual. He reads one
page on the first day, 2 pages on the second day, 3 pages on
31 If mnp is a three digit number such that :
the third day etc. How many pages Sunny can read in
m + n + p = mnp = Σ(n !),
3 3 3
24 days?
then the value of m × n × p is :
(a) 242 (b) 300
(a) 30 (b) 21
(c) 276 (d) none of these
(c) 15 (d) none of these
38 All the natural numbers less than 1000 but not containing
32 A square field is fenced by fixing the polls all around it in
the digit ‘5’ are arranged horizontally in descending order.
such a way that in each side of the field the farmer fixed What is the 555th number on the list?
19 polls. The total number of polls required to fence the (a) 111 (b) 212
field is : (c) 213 (d) none of these
(a) 76 (b) 75
(c) 72 (d) 80 39 A shopkeeper told me, when I have asked him the total
number of cellphones in his shop, that he had all Kyocera
33 Swarn Jayanti Park is a regular hexagonal park, around except three, all Nokia except three, all samsung except
which there are ‘n’ trees on each side. Which of the three and all L.G. except three. The number of mobile
following can’t be the total number of trees around it? phones he had is :
(a) 74070 (b) 81474 (a) 24 (b) 256
(c) 59! (d) 325960 (c) can’t be determined (d) none of these
34 Pentabhai purchased the ticket of a movie for all his 40 The number of zeros at the end of the product of all the
200 friends. Luckily he was the first person to buy the ticket prime numbers between 1 and 1111 is :
for the evening show. So he got the tickets number 1, 2, 3, (a) 222 (b) 21
4, 6, 7, … etc. Since he denied to have the tickets on which (c) can’t be determined (d) none of these
the digit ‘5’ is printed as the part of ticket number.
The last ticket number which he has purchased if no one
126 QUANTUM CAT
Test of Your Learning 2
1 The remainder when 888222888222888222 … upto 9235 Directions (for Q. Nos. 9 and 10) Under the scheme of Kisan
digits is divided by 53 is : Vikas, the Govt. of U.P. purchased ‘t’ number of tractors and these
(a) 103 (b) 38 were allocated equally among 7 districts of U.P. and thus
(c) can’t be determined (d) none of these 4 tractors remained unallocated. Similarly every district allocated
these tractors equally to 10 blocks in each district and still
2 Shakuntala asked Aryabhatta to assume any two values of 3 tractors remained without allocation, in every district. Further
three digits say P and Q then she told him to multiply P by R every block assigned these tractors equally to every 16 village in
and Q by S where the values of R and S were given by each block and thus 2 tractors per block remained unallocated.
Shakuntala herself. Aryabhatta exactly told her the values According to the scheme every village must receive at least one
of PR + QS = 888222. Then Shakuntala told him the value tractor.
of P by Q (i.e., P/Q) is :
(a) 1/4 (b) 4 9 The number of tractors allocated to each block is :
(c) can’t be determined (d) none of these (a) 18 (b) 30
(c) 34 (d) can’t be determined
3 In the above question the value of P + Q is :
10 If the state govt. of U.P. purchased ‘k’ tractors to provide
(a) 1001 (b) 1110
exactly 1 tractor to each village as mentioned in the scheme
(c) 3108 (d) none of these
but later on it has sent one tractor to each village of U.P. (as
4 The sum of the following series mentioned in the scheme) directly without any
(12 + 1) + (22 + 2) + (32 + 3) + (42 + 4) + … + (n2 + n) is : involvement of a block or a district. The number of tractors
(n2 + n) 5 which the govt. of U.P. has saved more in comparison to
(a) n3 (b) the previous scheme.
3
n (n + 1)(n + 2) (a) 161 (b) 181
(c) (d) can’t be determined
3 (C) 24 (d) can’t be determined

Directions (for Q. Nos. 5 to 8) Earlier when I attended a close 11 If 2n can exactly divide p! Such that the quotient is an odd
door meeting to discuss the outsourcing of CAT papers. Including positive integer, then the value of n which is not possible is
the chairman there were n people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, … etc. As (a) 43 (b) 44
per the convention everyone got some chocolates in the following (c) 45 (d) all of these
manner. As A, B, C, D, E, … etc. received 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, … etc. 12 Each of the numbers x1, x 2, x 3, x 4, x 5, … , x n, x n ≥ 4 is
chocolates respectively. Before anyone had eaten a bit of equal to −1 or 1. If
chocolate, due to some urgent call, the chairman left the meeting x1 x 2 x 3 + x 2 x 3 x 4 + x 3 x 4 x 5 + … x n − 3 x n − 2 x n − 1
with his chocolates. Later on the rest attendants recollected their + x n − 2 x n − 1 x n = 0, then the value of n is :
chocolates in a box and then redistributed all the chocolates
(a) odd (b) even
evenly among themselves and thus everyone received
(c) prime (d) multiple of 3
13 chocolates.
13 In the above question number 12, the minimum number of
5 Who is the Chairman of the meeting?
x i (i.e., x1, x 2, x 3, … , x n) are equal to –1, is :
(a) A (b) Q
n n
(c) M (d) can’t be determined (a) (b)
3 2
6 Total number of people, initially who have attended the (n − 2)
meeting is : (c) (d) can’t be determined
2
(a) 18 (b) 25
(c) 30 (d) can’t be determined 14 If in the above question (no. 13) the value of x i is either 0 or
1 only (i.e., each of x1, x 2, x 3, … , x n is either zero or 1)
7 Minimum number of people who attended the party can be :
(a) 18 (b) 15 then the minimum number of x i, such that x i = 0 is
(c) 24 (d) can’t be determined required, when n = 6, 12, 18, 24, … etc.
n (n + 2) (n − 2)
8 As per the question number 7, maximum how many (a) (b) (c) (d) none
3 3 2
chocolates were there to be received by all of them,
initially? 15 If m + n = mn − 5, then the maximum number of ordered
(a) 300 (b) 676 pairs of (m, n) for every m, n is a natural number.
(c) 351 (d) none of these (a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) none of these
Number System 127

16 At the eve of marriage anniversary of Tristan and Iseult 23 A leading chocolate producing company produces ‘abc’
some special couples were invited. Out of them only chocolates per hour (abc is a three digit positive number).
23 couples were there having one child per couple with In how many hours it will produce ‘abcabc’ chocolates?
them. When I observed it, I found that 13 men were (a) abc (b) 101
without any child and 20 women were also without any (c) 1001 (d) can’t be determined
child. It is known that there were only couples allowed to
attend the ceremony. For your kind information we will not 24 A number D236D0 can be divided by 36 if D is :
consider the couple (i.e., Tristan and Iseult) for any (a) 8 (b) 6
calculation, since they are hosts. The total number of (c) 1
couples who attended the party (i.e., anniversary). (d) more than one values are possible
(a) 28 (b) 30 25 In the Christmas eve of his 7th birthday anniversary,
(c) 33 (d) can’t be determined Martin, the eldest son of his parents, went to picnic with all
17 The number of numbers less than or equal to 666 which are his family members. There his family purchased the tickets
the products of exactly 4 distinct positive prime numbers is for everyone. The entire family consists of 3 children,
(a) 4 (b) 8 1 grand father, 1 grand mother, two fathers and two
mothers 1 brother and 1 sister. Also there is one
(c) 7 (d) can’t be determined
daughter-in-law, one father in law, one mother in law.
18 Tata, Hutch and Idea started of with a game. The rule is Minimum how many tickets has his family purchased for
1 the entire family?
that the loser of the game distributes rd of his money
3 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 14
amongst the other two players in the ratio of the amount as
they are holding with them. After playing three round 26 In the above question (no. 25), if the rate of a ticket for
game Tata, Hutch and Idea endup with Rs. 450, 150 and a child (considered to be unmarried and below 18 years) is
300 respectively. The total amount of money what they ` 6, while the price of a ticket for an adult (i.e., married and
were initially holding is above 18) is ` 10. So, what is the minimum price does he
(a) 575 (b) 750 have to pay for the tickets?
5 (a) ` 52 (b) ` 58
(c) (6 !) (d) can’t be determined
4 (c) ` 90 (d) data insufficient

19 Remainder when 44n + 3 is divided by 7 is : 27 Which one of the following is not the correct relation?
(a) (25)3 + (38)3 + (87 )3 = (90)3
(a) 0 (b) 1
(b) (3)3 + (4)3 + (5)3 = (6)3
(c) 5 (d) none of these
(c) (17 )3 + (29)3 = (57 )3 (d) 13 + 63 + 83 = 93
20 All the soldiers are arranged in the form of an equilateral
triangle i.e., one soldier in the front and 2 soldiers in the 28 In a college of 300 students, every student reads
second row and 3 soldiers in the third row, 4 soldiers in the 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60 students.
fourth row and so on. If 669 more soldiers of another The number of newspapers is :
company are added in such a way that all the soldiers now (a) at least 30 (b) at most 20
are in the form of an square and each of the sides then (c) 25 (d) none of (a), (b) and (c)
contains 8 soldiers less than each side of equilateral
triangle. Initially, how many soldiers were there? 29 At East End Mall, burgers can be bought in quantities of
(a) 2056 (b) 1540 (c) 1400 (d) 1220 either 6, 9 or 20 only. For example one can purchase
26 (20 + 6), 15 (6 + 9) and 24 (9 × 2 + 6) etc. but can’t
21 A natural number when divided by the quotient, which in purchase 10 burgers i.e., without any lot. What is the
turn obtained by dividing the leading digit by the unit digit largest number of burgers that can not be purchased?
of the same number, we get another number consisting of
(a) 83 (b) 37
the same digits, but in reverse order. The original number is
(c) can’t be determined (d) none of (a), (b), (c)
(a) 98658823 (b) 91703 (c) 87912 (d) 27918
30 Let there be a fraction whose denominator is one less than
22 One day my friend Dorsey told me from LA, that he gets the
the square of its numerator. If we add 2 to both the
same salary in each month but when he adds up his six 1
figure salary of two months, three months, four months, numerator and denominator, the fraction will exceed to
3
five months or six months each time the figures (or digits)
and if we subtract 3 from numerator and denominator the
of his salary remains the same, but not in a fix order. Later,
fraction will lie between 0 and 1 / 10. The actual fraction is
he told me that when he adds up his salary of 7 months his
3 7
total salary become (106 − 1). What is the salary of Dorsey? (a) (b)
8 48
(a) 123456 (b) 285614 4
(c) 142857 (d) can’t be determined (c) (d) None of these
17
128 QUANTUM CAT
31 When a two digit number is subtracted from another two 35 Which one of the following is correct?
digit number consisting of the same digits in reverse order, (a) 2526 > 2625 (b) 100101 < 101100
then the resultant value we get is equal to the sum of the (c) 199 198
> 198 199
(d) 399400 < 400399
digits of that number. The square of sum of digits of that
number can be : 36 If x and y are positive prime numbers and if x 2 − 2y 2 = 1,
(a) 49 (b) 64 (c) 81 (d) 36 then the value of x + y is :
32 If A = [ k 3 + (k + 2)3 + (k + 4)3 + (k + 6)3 + (k + 8)3 + … (a) 7 (b) 24
(c) 13 (d) none of these
(k + 38)3] and
B = [ k + (k + 2) + (k + 4) + (k + 6) + (k + 8) + … (k + 38)]
37 The greatest possible divisor of 32n + 3 − 24n − 27 for every
Now, if ‘A’ is divided by ‘B’, then the remainder will be n ∈ N , which necessarily divides is :
(for every positive integer k) : (a) 64 (b) 24
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 96 (d) none of these
(c) k (d) none of these 38 If ( 3 + 1)5 = I + F, where I is an integer and F is a proper
33 If 13 = 1, 23 = 3 + 5, 33 = 7 + 9 + 11, fraction, then the value of F . (I + F ) is :
4 = 13 + 15 + 17 + 19, 5 = 21 + 23 + 25 + … + 29, etc.
3 3 (a) ( 3)5 (b) 32 (c) (1.99 )5 (d) 31.232
3
Then the value of (100) is equal to : 39 When the product of ‘r’ consecutive positive integers is
(a) 9901 + 9903 + … + 10099 divided by ‘ r !’, then the quotient is :
(b) 9999 + 10001 + 10003 + … + 10199 (a) any natural number (b) a perfect square
(c) 9989 + 9991 + … + 10089 (c) a proper fraction (d) either (b) or (a)
(d) Any two of (a), (b), (c) 40 Two digits p, q, where q > p > 1 such that p + q < pq and
 5200  ( p + q), ( p + q)n, ( p + q)n + 1 have the same unit digits and
34 If {x} denotes the fractional part of x, then   is :
 8  ( p. q), ( p. q)n, ( pq)n + 1have the same unit digits. The value of
(a) 1/8 (b) 1/4 p is :
(c) 5/8 (d) 0.625 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

Answers
Introductory Exercise 1.1
1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (d) 10 (d)
11 (d) 12 (d) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (d) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (a) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (d)
31 (a) 32 (d) 33 (a) 34 (c) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37 (b) 38 (b) 39 (d) 40 (d)
41 (b) 42 (d) 43 (a) 44 (b) 45 (c) 46 (a) 47 (d) 48 (d) 49 (d) 50 (b)

Introductory Exercise 1.2

1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (d) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (d) 14 (d) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (b)
21 (a)
Introductory Exercise 1.3
1 (a) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (b)

Introductory Exercise 1.4

1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (c) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (d)
Number System 129

Introductory Exercise 1.5

1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10 (a)
11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (b)

Introductory Exercise 1.6

1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (a)
11 (d) 12 (d) 13 (b) 14 (d) 15 (d) 16 (d) 17 (d) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (b)
21 (b) 22 (a)

Introductory Exercise 1.7

1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (d) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 (a)
11 (d) 12 (d) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (d) 16 (a) 17 (c)
Introductory Exercise 1.8
1 (d) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (c) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (a) 15 (b) 16 (a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (c) 20 (c)

Introductory Exercise 1.9

1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (a) 10 (d)
11 (c) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (c) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 (a) 20 (d)
21 (b) 22 (c)

Introductory Exercise 1.10

1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10 (a)
11 (d)

Introductory Exercise 1.11

1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (d)
11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (a) 15 (b)

Introductory Exercise 1.12

1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (d) 9 (b)

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise

1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (d)
11 (c) 12 (b) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (c)
21 (d) 22 (b) 23 (d) 24 (c) 25 (b) 26 (a) 27 (a) 28 (d) 29 (d) 30 (a)
31 (c) 32 (b) 33 (b) 34 (d) 35 (d) 36 (c) 37 (d) 38 (c) 39 (c) 40 (c)
41 (b) 42 (c) 43 (c) 44 (d) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (b) 49 (c) 50 (a)
51 (a) 52 (b) 53 (b) 54 (c) 55 (b) 56 (d) 57 (b) 58 (b) 59 (c) 60 (d)
61 (c) 62 (c) 63 (b) 64 (c) 65 (d) 66 (c) 67 (d) 68 (c) 69 (c) 70 (d)
71 (b) 72 (b) 73 (b) 74 (d) 75 (b) 76 (b) 77 (b) 78 (a) 79 (c) 80 (d)
81 (c) 82 (b) 83 (c) 84 (c) 85 (b) 86 (b) 87 (c) 88 (c) 89 (d) 90 (b)
91 (b) 92 (b) 93 (d) 94 (b) 95 (d) 96 (a) 97 (a) 98 (d) 99 (b) 100 (c)
101 (d) 102 (b) 103 (c) 104 (b) 105 (a) 106 (b) 107 (b) 108 (c) 109 (b) 110 (b)
111 (b) 112 (c) 113 (c) 114 (a) 115 (b) 116 (a) 117 (c) 118 (a) 119 (a) 120 (b)
121 (d) 122 (b) 123 (c) 124 (d) 125 (d) 126 (a) 127 (c) 128 (d) 129 (c) 130 (b)
131 (d) 132 (c) 133 (b) 134 (c) 135 (b) 136 (c) 137 (c) 138 (c) 139 (c) 140 (b)
141 (a) 142 (c) 143 (d) 144 (d) 145 (d) 146 (c) 147 (d) 148 (a) 149 (c) 150 (a)
151 (a) 152 (a) 153 (d) 154 (d) 155 (d) 156 (d) 157 (d) 158 (d) 159 (b) 160 (b)
130 QUANTUM CAT
161 (a) 162 (b) 163 (c) 164 (c) 165 (d) 166 (b) 167 (c) 168 (c) 169 (a) 170 (c)
171 (a) 172 (d) 173 (a) 174 (c) 175 (b) 176 (b) 177 (c) 178 (d) 179 (b) 180 (a)
181 (a) 182 (b) 183 (b) 184 (a) 185 (c) 186 (a) 187 (a) 188 (a) 189 (a) 190 (d)
191 (d) 192 (d) 193 (d) 194 (c) 195 (c) 196 (d) 197 (a) 198 (b) 199 (c)

Level 02 Higher Level Exercise

1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (d)
11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (a) 14 (d) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (d) 20 (b)
21 (b) 22 (b) 23 (a) 24 (a) 25 (b) 26 (d) 27 (a) 28 (d) 29 (c) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (b) 33 (b) 34 (b) 35 (c) 36 (b) 37 (d) 38 (a) 39 (c) 40 (a)
41 (b) 42 (b) 43 (a) 44 (b) 45 (c) 46 (b) 47 (a) 48 (b) 49 (d) 50 (b)
51 (d) 52 (c) 53 (c) 54 (b) 55 (c) 56 (d) 57 (b) 58 (a) 59 (d) 60 (d)
61 (b) 62 (d) 63 (c) 64 (d) 65 (a) 66 (c) 67 (c) 68 (c) 69 (c) 70 (d)
71 (b) 72 (b) 73 (d) 74 (a) 75 (a) 76 (a) 77 (a) 78 (a) 79 (b) 80 (b)
81 (d) 82 (c) 83 (a) 84 (a) 85 (a) 86 (a) 87 (b) 88 (a) 89 (d) 90 (a)
91 (b) 92 (b) 93 (a) 94 (b) 95 (d) 96 (a) 97 (c) 98 (c) 99 (c) 100 (d)
101 (c) 102 (c) 103 (c) 104 (a) 105 (a) 106 (a) 107 (b) 108 (c) 109 (c) 110 (d)
111 (c) 112 (a) 113 (c) 114 (a) 115 (c) 116 (d) 117 (b) 118 (b) 119 (c) 120 (b)
121 (d) 122 (a) 123 (a) 124 (b) 125 (b) 126 (c) 127 (a) 128 (a) 129 (c) 130 (d)
131 (d) 132 (c) 133 (b) 134 (b) 135 (b) 136 (d) 137 (b) 138 (d) 139 (d) 140 (c)
141 (d) 142 (d) 143 (c) 144 (b) 145 (c) 146 (b) 147 (c) 148 (d) 149 (c) 150 (c)
151 (c) 152 (b) 153 (d) 154 (c) 155 (a) 156 (d) 157 (a) 158 (c) 159 (c) 160 (c)
161 (d) 162 (d) 163 (c) 164 (b) 165 (a) 166 (a) 167 (d) 168 (a) 169 (d)

Level 03 Final Round

1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (d) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (b) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (b) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (b) 24 (d) 25 (c) 26 (d) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (b) 30 (a)
31 (d) 32 (b) 33 (c) 34 (a) 35 (a) 36 (d) 37 (a) 38 (b) 39 (c) 40 (b)
41 (b) 42 (a) 43 (d) 44 (d) 45 (a) 46 (b) 47 (d) 48 (d) 49 (d) 50 (d)
51 (d) 52 (a) 53 (c) 54 (d) 55 (d) 56 (a) 57 (d) 58 (a) 59 (d) 60 (b)
61 (a) 62 (a) 63 (b) 64 (c) 65 (d) 66 (c) 67 (a) 68 (b) 69 (a) 70 (b)
71 (c) 72 (c) 73 (b) 74 (c) 75 (d) 76 (c) 77 (c) 78 (d) 79 (a) 80 (d)
81 (c) 82 (d) 83 (a) 84 (b) 85 (c) 86 (b) 87 (c) 88 (c) 89 (b) 90 (d)
91 (b) 92 (b) 93 (a) 94 (c) 95 (c) 96 (b) 97 (a) 98 (a) 99 (b) 100 (a)
101 (c) 102 (c) 103 (d) 104 (a) 105 (b) 106 (c) 107 (d) 108 (a) 109 (c) 110 (c)
111 (c) 112 (d) 113 (c) 114 (a) 115 (a) 116 (a) 117 (d) 118 (c) 119 (d) 120 (c)
121 (a) 122 (d) 123 (d) 124 (d) 125 (b)

Test for Your Learning 1

1 (a) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (d) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (b) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (d) 30 (c)
31 (c) 32 (c) 33 (d) 34 (b) 35 (a) 36 (a) 37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (d) 40 (d)

Test for Your Learning 2

1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 (a)
11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (c) 18 (c) 19 (a) 20 (b)
21 (c) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (a) 25 (b) 26 (a) 27 (c) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30 (d)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (a) 34 (a) 35 (a) 36 (d) 37 (d) 38 (b) 39 (a) 40 (a)
 Hints & Solutions
Introductory Exercise 1.1
1 1 + 2 + 3 + 7 + 5 = 18, hence divisible by 3 and 9 both. 99999999 can be grouped as (9999 + 9999). Since
9999 + 9999 = 19998 is divisible by 9999, so 99999999 is
Again (5 + 3 + 1) − (7 + 2) = 0
also divisible by 9999.
Hence, divisible by 11 also. Thus (a).
Hence, choice (d) is the correct one.
2 The remainder will be the required answer.
11 If 24 AB 4 is divisible by 99 then, it must satisfy the
Since 6 + 7 + 5 = 18 following condition.
∴6705 will be divisible by 5 and 3 will be remainder. 2 + 4 A + B 4 = 99 m, for every m = 1, 2, 3, …
Hence, (c).
For m = 1, 99 m = 99. Therefore
3 Go through options 2
Q 8 + 0 + 3 + 6 + 4 + 2 = 23 4A
So, the required number = 27 − 23 = 4 + B4
Alternatively Divide 803642 and find the remainder. 99
Now the required number = (9 − Remainder) ⇒ 2 + A + 4 = 9 and 4 + B = 9
4 171282 = 547 × divisor + 71 ⇒ A = 3 and B = 5
⇒ 171211 = 547 × divisor For m = 2, 3, 4, … B would not be a single digit number, so
it’s not possible to consider m = 2, 3, 4 ……
⇒ divisor = 313
Thus, it can be concluded that A = 3 andB = 5 is the only
Hence, (c) is the correct answer.
possibility.
5 If the dividend is x, divisor be y and quotient be q, then Hence, choice (d) is the answer.
x = yq + r 12 As per the given choices first of all we check it by 99 since in
Now, since y = 8q the question largest possible number of two digits is being
and y = 4r = 4 × 12 = 48 (r is remainder) asked.
⇒ q=6 Now, since (2 + 7 + 7 + 2) − (8 + 9 + 1) = 18 − 18 = 0
∴ x = 48 × 6 + 12 Hence it is divisible by 11
x = 300 again 2 + 1 + 7 + 9 + 7 + 8 + 2 = 36
Hence it is also divisible by 9.
6 Since we know that 111 = 3 × 37, so the whole number is Thus we can say that the given number 2179782 is
divisible by 3, 37 and 111. Now since the digit 1 is being divisible by 99 (= 11 × 9)
repeated even number of times so it is divisible by 11. So, the option (d) is correct answer.
Again since the given number is such that the digits are 13 A number which is multiple of 125 must be divisible by
being repeated and can be broken into triplets, so it is also 125. So the number formed by last three digits must be
divisible by 1001. divisible by 125 hence it can be 000, 125, 250, 375, 500,
7 Since 16 = 24so the last four digits, thus x = 4 or go back to 675, 750, 875.
So the number which is divisible by 125 must be 9999875
the Basics.
since we have to subtract minimum possible number. Thus
8 2 + 4 + 3 + x + 5 + 1 = 18 (the only possible sum) we see that we have to subtract 124.
⇒ x=3 [Q 9999999 − 9999875 = 124]
Hence, (a) is the correct choice. Alternatively Divide 9999999 by 125 and then the
9 Consider choice (d). 145 + 854 = 999. It means 145854 is obtained remainder is the required result.
divisible by 999. 14 As per the divisibility rule of 11, the difference of sum of
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. the digits at odd places and sum of the digits at even places
be either 0, 11, 22, 33, … etc. So n must be an even
10 99999999 is evidently divisible by 9. 99999999 can be
number. Correct choice is (c).
grouped as (99 + 99 + 99 + 99). Since 99 + 99 + 99 + 99
= 396 is divisible by 99, so 99999999 is also divisible by 99.
132 QUANTUM CAT
Alternatively Go through the options. Now when you (b ) When any one of the extreme is divisible by D :
write prime of any odd value of n you will find odd prime  N 2 − N1 
 
or odd number of nines then you will also observe that  D 
these numbers are not divisible by 11. (c) When both the extremes are divisible by D is :
Further using option (c) you will find that it is always
 N 2 − N1 
correct for any even number. Thus option (c) is correct.   +1
 D 
15 If we look at the options we see that option (a) is not
correct since in the first instance it is not divisible by 4. 21 (200 − 100) + 1 = 101
Again if we look at option (b) we see that it is not divisible Alternatively Since you know that you are counting the
by 3. Similarly option (d) is wrong because it is not
numbers from 100, so only 99 numbers (1, 2, 3, …, 99) are
divisible by 11 and at last when we check the option (c)
then we find it is correct. Remember a number is divisible not included
by 132 if the number is divisible by its factors as 3, 4, and i.e., 1, 2,… 99, 100, 101, 102, 103, …, 200.
11 simultaneously as 132 = 3 × 4 × 11 Hence total numbers = 200 − 99 = 101.
Thus option (c) is correct.
22 The first number which is divisible by 3 is 300 and the last
16 Since 80 = 8 × 10 or 80 = 16 × 5 number which is divisible by 3 is 498.
Thus y (i.e., unit digit) must be zero.  498 − 300
So, the total numbers =   + 1 = 66 + 1 = 67
∴ 653xy = 653x 0, where 653x 0 must be divisible by 16 or  3 
653x is divisible by 8.
Hence (c) is the correct option.
Thus the last 3-digit number 53x will be divisible by 8.
Alternatively When we form the sequence of numbers
Hence, at x = 6, we get the required result.
∴ x+ y=6+ 0=6 which are divisible by 3, the number 300 is lying at the
100th position and 498 at the 166th position (i.e., 3, 6, 9,
17 The best way to use the options
12, ... 297, 300, 303, 306, ..., 498) so there are total 166
Alternatively (4 + 6 + 3) − (2 + 5 + k ) = 0 / 11 / 22 …
numbers upto 498 but 99 numbers are not included in this
(13) − (7 + k ) = 0 [Q 11/22 … are not possible] sequence. Thus the required numbers are 166 − 99 = 67
⇒ k=6 numbers, which are divisible by 3.
Hence option (d) is correct. 23 In the given range, the least number which is divisible by
18 The quickest method is to use appropriate option. As the both 5 and 7. i.e., 35 is 210 and the highest number is 770.
divisor is 72 so the given number must be divisible 9 and 8 So the total number of numbers between 200 and 800
both. Therefore, it is clear that option (b) and (d) are which are divisible by both 5 and 7 is
useless, since unit digit can’t be odd inorder to be divisible
 770 − 210
by 8. Now option (a) and (c) can be tried out. Thus we can   + 1 = 17
get the value of k = 6. Hence option (c) is correct.  35 

19 The first number which is divisible by 7 is 7 and the last Hence option (c) is correct.
number is 994. It can be easily calculated just by dividing 24 Total numbers in the set are
1000 by 7 and then subtract the remainder from 1000. So
(800 − 200) + 1 = 601
total numbers between 1 and 1000 which are divisible by 7
are 142.The sequence is as follows 7, 14, 21, 28, 35, ... 987, Total number of numbers which are divisible by 5
994. (800 − 200)
= + 1 = 121
20 The sequence is as follows 55, 60, 65, 70, ..., 550, 555. So 5
the number of number divisible by 5 is Total number of numbers which are divisible by 7
 555 − 55 (798 − 203)
  + 1 = 101 = + 1 = 86
 5  7
Total number of numbers which are divisible by both 5
NOTE we have added 1 from outside because here both
and 7
the extremes (i.e., 55 and 555) are included.
770 − 210
SHORTCUT If D be the divisor of numbers lying between = + 1 = 17
35
N1 and N 2, N 2 > N1 then the number of numbers which are
divisible by D (or multiple of D) is So the total number of numbers which are either divisible
(a) When no one extreme is divisible by such a divisor D : by 5 or 7 or both = (121 + 86) − 17 = 190
 N 2 − N1  Hence option (b) is correct.
  −1
 D 
Number System 133

25 Total numbers in the set = (800 − 200) + 1 = 601 297

2
3
Number of numbers which are divisible by 5 891
(800 − 200) 238
= + 1 = 121 475 237 594
5
59
Number of numbers which are divisible by 7 119 60
(798 − 203) 178 119
= + 1 = 86 118
7
Number of numbers which are divisible by both 5 & 7 356
5
 770 − 210
=  + 1 = 17
 35 
Q n ( A ∪ B ∪ C ) = [ n ( A ) + n (B ) + n (C )]
∴ Number of numbers which are either divisible by 5 or 7 or − [ n ( A ∩ B ) + n (B ∩ C ) + n ( A ∩ C )] + n ( A ∩ B ∩ C )
both = (121 + 86) − 17 = 190 So the divisible numbers
Thus the number of numbers in the given set which are
= (891 + 594 + 356) − (297 + 119 + 178) + 59
neither divisible by 5 nor by 7 = 601 − 190 = 411.
= 1306
Hence (a) is correct option.
∴ Number of numbers which are not divisible by 2, 3 or 5.
26 To find the answer of this problem first of all we need to
= 1783 − 1306 = 477
calculate total number of numbers in the given set which
Hence (a) is the correct option.
are divisible by any of 2, 3 or 5 then these numbers will be
subtracted from the total number of the original set of Alternatively Number of numbers in the given set
numbers. Thus we get the total number of numbers which which are only divisible by 2 = 891 the number of numbers
are neither divisible by 2, 3 or 5. which are only divisible by 3, but not by 2
Total numbers in the set = (3113 − 1331) + 1 (3111 − 1335)
= + 1 = 297
= 1782 + 1 = 1783 6
The number of numbers which are only divisible by 5 but
Total number of numbers in the set which are divisible by 2
not by 2or 3
 3112 − 1332
=  + 1 = 891 (3105 − 1335)  (3105 − 1335) 
 2  = + 1 −  + 1
 10   30 
 3111 − 1332
Total numbers divisible by 3 =   + 1 = 594 = 178 − 60 = 118
 3 
So the total number of numbers which are divisible by any
 3110 − 1335
Total numbers divisible by 5 =   + 1 = 356 of the 2, 3 or 5
 5  = 891 + 297 + 118 = 1306
Total numbers which are divisible by 2 and 3 both Thus the total number of numbers which are neither
 3108 − 1332 divisible by 2, 3
=  + 1 = 297 or 5 = 1783 − 1306 = 477.
 6 
27 Just divide 434079 by 137 and then the obtained
Total numbers which are divisible by 3 and 5 both
remainder is your correct answer which is 63, so (b) is the
 3105 − 1335
=  + 1 = 119 right choice.
 15 
Total numbers which are divisible by 2 and 5 both 28 To make 434079 divisible by 137 we have to add just the
 3110 − 1340 difference of remainder and the divisor. So the choice (b)
=  + 1 = 178
 10  is correct and the answer is 74.
Total numbers which are divisible by 2, 3 and 5 29 Obviously (c) is the right choice because there can be
 3090 − 1350 maximum two numbers closest to any particular number.
=  + 1 = 59 So out of 180 and 198 the number 198 is closer than the
 30 
number 180 and 195 is not divisible by 18 also 108 is the
So, the total number of numbers in the given set which are farthest from 193.
neither divisible by any of the 2, 3 or 5 = 477.
134 QUANTUM CAT
30 Since when we multiply the least three digit numbers 32Q1 + 29 = 8Q 2 + R
(100 × 100 = 10000) we get a 5 digit number and when we (where R is the remainder)
multiply the greatest possible 3 digit numbers 8Q 2 − 32Q1 = 29 − R
(999 × 999 = 998001) we get a 6 digit number. So anyhow 8 (Q 2 − 4Q1 ) = 29 − R
the product of a 3 digit number with another 3 digit 29 − R
number can never be a number of less than 5 digit or or (Q 2 − 4Q1 ) =
8
greater than 6 digit number. So the option (a) and (c) are
Since Q1, Q 2, R are integers also Q 2 − 4Q1 is an integer.
ruled out because these are 4 digit and 7 digit numbers
Therefore 29 − R must be divisible by 8.
respectively.
So the probable values of R are 29, 21, 13 and 5.
Further whenever we multiply any two numbers whose
But since the remainder can never be greater than the
unit digits are 7 and 5 individually then the unit digit of the
divisor so the only possible value of R is 5. Hence (c) is the
resultant number is always 5 (Q 5 × 1 = 5, 5 × 3 = 15,
correct option.
5 × 5 = 25, 5 × 7 = 35, 5 × 9 = 45 and 5 × 2 = 10, 5 × 4 = 20,
Alternatively N = 32Q + 29 = 8 × 4Q + 8 × 3 + 5
5 × 6 = 30, 5 × 8 = 40, and 5 × 10 = 50)
Thus the option (b) is also wrong since the required unit (where Q is Quotient)
digit can never be 6 (i.e., an even number). ⇒ N = 8 (4Q + 3) + 5
Hence the appropriate option is (d). ⇒ N = 8P + 5
9 8 4 (where pis any positive integer)
31 + 4 p 3 Thus the remainder is 5.
13 q 7 Shortcut In this kind of questions where the same
number is divided by another divisor (proper factor of the
It is clear from the above expression that there is no any original divisor), we just need to divide the original
carry over obtained in the addition of unit digits. Further it remainder by the new divisor to get the value of new
is very simple to see that there is no carry over value taken remainder e.g. when we divide 29 by the new divisor ‘8’
while adding hundredths digit of both the numbers. So we then we get new remainder 5.
get 8 + p = q
35 Let the number be N and the quotient be Q then
Now if 13q7 is divisible by 11 then
N = 5Q + 4
(7 + 3) − (1 + q) = 11k where, k = 0, 1, 2, . . . . . .
Again 2N = 2(5Q + 4) = 10 Q + 8
10 − (1 + q) = 0
or 2N = 5 × 2Q + 5 + 3
⇒ q=9
or 2N = 5(2Q + 1) + 3
here k = 0 is the only possible value because if
Hence, the remainder will be 3.
k = 1 then q must be either − 2 or 20.
Alternatively Since the number becomes double then
but neither − 2 nor 20 is possible because q is a single
the remainder will also be double but when the remainder
positive digit i.e., q ∈1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 0.
will become twice it will exceed the divisor which is not
Q p = q − 8
Thus the value of p + q = 1 + 9 = 10 ∴ p = 1  possible. So to get the correct remainder we further divide
  the twice of the remainder by the divisor and in this way
Hence, (a) is the correct option. we obtain the required remainder which is admissible. For
32 Since Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder example in the given problem the divisor is 5 and the
∴ Dividend = 9235 × 888 + 222 original remainder is 4. So this remainder will become
twice i.e., 8 (since the number i.e.,dividend becomes
Thus the number = 8200902
twice) but since 8 > 5 which is not possible so we divide 8
Hence (d) is the correct choice.
by 5 then we get the correct remainder 3.
33 Option (a) is correct. There are only two relevant options 36 In the first case N = DQ + 14
(a) and (c). Option (b) is redundant since 999 is not
In the second case 3N = 3(DQ + 14) = 3DQ + 42
divisible by 33. Now 990 and 1023 both are close to 1000
and both are divisible by 33 but it is obvious that 990 is = 3DQ + 34 + 8
much closer to 1000 than 1023. 3N = (3DQ + 34) + 8
34 Let this number be N then It shows that 34 must be divisible by 34 or its factor i.e.,
N = 32 × Q1 + 29 …(i) 1, 2, 17, 34. But 1 and 2 can’t be values of D. Since the
divisor D must be greater than the remainder (viz. 8, 14)
Again N = 8 × Q2 + R …(ii)
Hence we are now left with two possible values of D viz.
From Eq. (i) and (ii)
D = 17 and D = 34
Number System 135

Now, if remainder D = 17, then 39 C = N1Q1 + 13 and C = N 2Q 2 + 1

N = 17Q + 14 where Q1 and Q 2 are the quotients and hence Q1 and Q 2
4N = 4 (17 Q + 14) = 4 × 17Q + 56 must be integers
⇒ 4N = 17 × 4Q + 17 × 3 + 5 So, N1Q1 + 13 = N 2Q 2 + 1
⇒ 4N = 17 (4Q + 3) + 5 N 2Q 2 − N1Q1 = 12
Thus the remainder will be 5. 4
⇒ N1Q 2 − N1Q1 = 12
But if we consider D = 34, then 5
N = 34Q + 14 N1 (4Q 2 − 5Q1 ) = 60
⇒ 4N = 4 (34Q + 14) where N1 and (4Q 2 − 5Q1 ) both will be integers so that N1
⇒ 4N = 34 × 4Q + 56 can be one of the values of factors of 60 i.e., 1, 2, 3, 4, 15,
⇒ 4N = 34 × 4Q + 34 + 22 20, 30 and 60. But N1 can not be less than the remainder
⇒ 4N = 34 (4Q + 1) + 22 13. So the possible values are 15, 20, 30 and 60. Thus we
Thus the remainder will be 22. see that the corresponding values of N 2 are 12, 16, 24 and
Hence we can’t say exactly whether the remainder will be 5 48.
or 22. So (d) is the correct option. So there are more than one possible values of N1 and N 2.
Thus there is no unique value of N1 + N 2. Hence (d) is
37 Let the number be N then
correct option.
N = 34Q + R , …(i)
40 Since we know that the values of N1 and N 2 are not unique
where Q is any quotient
so the value of C is also not unique hence it is
Again N = 5D and D is also a quotient
indeterminable.
but D=R +8 Total length 1950
so N = 5(R + 8) …(ii) 41 Number of parts = = = 30
length of each piece 65
∴ 5(R + 8) = 34Q + R (Q 19.5 m = 1950 cm)
5R + 40 = 34Q + R Thus option (b) is correct.
⇒ 34Q − 40 = 4R
42 Since the 7, 11 and 13 all are the factors of such a number
⇒ 17Q − 2R = 20 so (d) is the correct answer.
So the minimum possible value of Q = 2 and the
43 (a) is the correct option. Since 5321 is the greatest and
corresponding value of R = 7
1235 is the least number then 5321 − 1235 = 4086.
So N = 34 × 2 + 7
44 The possible values of k are 5 and 9. So the sum of
N = 75,
5 + 9 = 14.
Hence (b) is correct choice.
45 When we multiply 59829 with 13 we get the required
38 Let N be the number and d be the divisor then N = dQ + 15 number 777777. So (c) is the correct option.
Again, 10 N = 10 (dQ + 15) 46 First of all you must know that the given 90 digit number is
⇒ 10N = 10dQ + 150 divisible by 11. Then you must know that the new number
⇒ 10N = d 10Q + 144 + 6 will be divisible by 11 only when the three-digit number is
⇒ 10N = (d × 10Q + 144) + 6 also divisible by 11. If the three digit number is not
divisible by 11, the new number cannot be divisible by 11.
 144
⇒ 10N = d 10Q +  +6 So, essentially, you have to find out that how many three
 d 
digit numbers are not divisible by 11.
∴ 144 must be divisible by d. Thus the probable values of d
Total three digit numbers = 900
are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, 16, 18, 24, 36, 48, 72, 144 (as
Total three digit number divisible by
these numbers are the factors of 144).
 990 − 110 
But the value of divisor d must be greater than the 11 =   + 1 = 81
remainder (here 6 and 15) so 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12 can not  11  
be the values of d. Hence only 7 values (greater than 15) Therefore the number of three digit numbers that cannot
are possible. be divided by 11 = 900 − 81 = 819
Thus the option (b) is correct. Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
136 QUANTUM CAT
47 1125 = 32 × 53 p q Desired
3
A number which is divisible by 5 must have at least three Number
0s as the right most digits. So it has to contain three 0s. A a+ c+ e+ g +i b+ d+ f + h abcdefghi
number which is divisible by 32 must have the sum of all its 3+ 4 + 6 + 7 + 8 1 + 2+ 5+ 9 314265798
digits divisible by 9. So it has to contain nine 1s.
3+ 4 + 5+ 7 + 9 1 + 2+ 6 + 8 314256789
Thus the required number must have three 0s and nine 1s.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. 2+ 5+ 6 + 7 + 8 1 + 3+ 4 + 9 215364798
48 Just go through the given choices and test for the 2+ 4 + 6 + 7 + 9 1 + 3+ 5+ 8 214365789
divisibility. 2+ 4 + 5+ 8 + 9 1 + 3+ 6 + 7 214356879
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
2+ 3+ 6 + 8 + 9 1 + 4 + 5+ 7 213465879
Alternatively Let us assume O stands for Odd and E
1 + 5+ 6 + 7 + 9 2+ 3+ 4 + 8 125364789
stands for Even.
1+ 4+ 6+ 8+ 9 2+ 3+ 5+ 7 124365879
O E O E O E O E O E
1 + 3+ 7 + 8 + 9 2+ 4 + 5+ 6 123475869
At first we have oeoe5eoeo0. Now, we know that the first
four digits have to be divisible by 4 Out of the various nine-digit numbers the last number
So to do that with ‘‘oe’’ it has to be 12, 16, 32 or 36. That is, (123475869) is the smallest valid number divisible by 99.
the fourth digit has to be 2 or 6. The same logic shows that Remember that the top 6 numbers (or their combinations)
the 8th digit has to be 2 or 6. So now we have two are not required to consider (or write down) at all as they
possibilities, oeo25eo6o0 or oeo65eo2o0. start with 2 or 3. So these numbers are obviously larger
In order to be divisible by 3, 6, 9, the sum of the first 3, first than those numbers that start with the digit 1. Thus, in
6 and first 9 digits have to be a multiple of 3. It means each order to save time just consider the last 3 combinations of p
group of 3 digits is a multiple of 3. That means the middle 3 and q.
digits are either 258 or 654, and so we have either NOTE Form = 2, 4, 6, 8…p and qcannot be determined
o4o258o6o0 or o8o654o2o0. from the given Eqs. (i) and (ii). And form = 3, 5, 7, 9, … there
Now you have to fill in the remaining odd digits so that the cannot be 5 digits for p and 4 digits for qin order to satisfy the
number formed by initial three digits is divisible by 3. In respectively values of p and q. For example, whenm = 3, then
this way, you can proceed and find the right number. p = 39, q = 6. But, we need any 5 distinct digits so that
p = a + c + e + g + i = 39 and any 4 distinct digits so that
49 Any number divisible by 99 must be divisible by 9 and 11 q = b + d + f + h = 6, which is impossible as minimum value of
both. A number will be divisible by 9 when the sum of all sum of any four nm-zero digits is10 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4, implying
the digits of that number will be divisible by 9. that q = (b + d + f + h) ≠ 6.
As, 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 = 45, it implies that
Alternatively Any number divisible by 99 must be
the number formed by using the digits 1, 2, 3, …, 9 only
once will be divisible by 9. Likewise, a number will be divisible by 9 and 11 both. Since sum of all the 9 digits is
divisible by 11 when the difference of sum of the alternate 45, which is divisible by 9. Therefore the required
digits of that number is multiple of 11 (i.e., 0, 11, 22, 33, nine-digit number will also be divisible by 9. Thus it is
etc.) Now, for a moment, let us denote 1, 2, 3, …, 8, 9 by implicit that the divisibility by 9 does not get affected with
a, b, c, …, h, i. But it does not necessarily imply that a = 1, the position of digits in the given number.
b = 2, c = 3 etc. It may be a = 7, b = 3, c = 1 ... etc. On the other hand divisibility by 11 takes into
Now the number abcdefghi will be divisible by 11 when consideration the positions of digits that is if the sum of
(a + c + e + g + i ) − (b + d + f + h) = 11 m odd positioned digits minus the sum of the even positioned
where m = 0, 1, 2, 3 ... digits is divisible by 11, then the number is divisible by 11.
Further, if we denote (a + c + e + g + i ) by p and Now let us consider the smallest possible nine digit
(b + d + f + h) by q, then number containing all the 9 digits 1, 2, …, 9 exactly once.
p + q = 45 …(i) That is 123456789.
and p− q=1 …(ii) Now, sum of odd positioned digits − sum of even
Now if m = 0, then the above two equations cannot be positioned digits.
solved as p and q are integers. For m = 1, p = 28 and q = 17. = (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9) − (2 + 4 + 6 + 8)
Then we will have the following combinations of the digits = 25 − 20 = 5
of p and q.
Number System 137

But this difference should be either 11 or 22 or 33, … Let us Remember that since the higher digits have low place
first try to create this difference equal to 11. To get this value, so swapping higher digits,
difference equal to 11, we will have to add 6 to our current i.e. 5 with 8, would be the best option as it will increase
difference 5. the original number by least margin.
This can be done through swapping the digits of 123456789 1
in such a way that sum of the odd positioned digits is 23
increased by 3 and sum of the even positioned digits is 48
decreased by 3. Therefore either we swap 1 with 4 or 3 with
67
6 or 5 with 8 to achieve the aforesaid desired results.
+59
Odd Even Odd Even Smallest 198
positioned positioned positioned positioned possible
digits digits digits in digits number Further we need to understand that we have to write the
increasing increasing digits in the increasing order in unit’s place and ten’s
order order
place individually.
Original 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 2, 4, 6, 8 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 2, 4, 6, 8 123456789 1
Combination
23
Swap1 ↔ 4 4, 3, 5, 7, 9 2, 1, 6, 8 3, 4, 5, 7, 9 1, 2, 6, 8 314256789
47
Swap 3 ↔ 6 1, 6, 5, 7, 9 2, 4, 3, 8 1, 5, 6, 7, 9 2, 3, 4, 8 125364789
58
Swap 5 ↔ 8 1, 3, 8, 7, 9 2, 4, 6, 5 1, 3, 7, 8, 9 2, 4, 5, 6 123475869
+69
198
Out of these 3 new numbers, which are divisible by 99, the
last one that is 123475869 is the smallest required number. Therefore the required number is 123475869
NOTE The above solution is obtained when the difference 50 Please consider the following table to understand how
between the sum of odd position digits and the sum of the the student marked the answer at www.lamamia.in
even positioned digits is 11. This difference could have been
Q. No. Preliminary First Second Third Final
22, 33 or 44 etc. but unfortunately that is not possible as long as Answer Change Change Change Answers
sum of all the digits is 45. A better explanation for this
argument is already discussed in the previous solution of the 1 A A
same problem by assuming p and q. 2 A C C
3 A B B
Alternatively The smallest possible nine-digit number is
4 A C C
123456789. This number will be divisible only when it
5 A A
satisfies the following condition.
6 A B C C
1 + 23 + 45 + 67 + 89 = 99 m for every m = 1, 2, 3
7 A A
1 8 A C C
23 9 A B D D
But 45 10 A C C
67 11 A A
+89 12 A B C C
225 13 A A
14 A C C
For m = 1, 99m = 99, which is very far away from 225. 15 A B B
Now consider m = 2, 99m = 198, which is pretty close to 225. 16 A C C
Now as in 198 the unit digit is 8, but in 225 the unit digit is 5, 17 A A
so we have to increase unit digit by 3. This can be done by 18 A B C D D
swapping either 1 by 4 or 3 by 6 or 5 by 8.
138 QUANTUM CAT
Therefore, A = 6, B = 2, C = 8, D = 2. Alternatively Initially, there will be 18 sums marked
Hence, choice (b) is the correct answer. A. Since every third answer is changed to B. That is every
Choices For every Qn. No. divisible by A B C D question number which is divisible by 3 will be marked B.
X there will be It implies that 18/3 = 6 sums will be marked B and so only
12 sums will be marked A. Again, since every second
Preliminary For every Qn. No. divisible by 18 0 0 0
answer is changed to C. That is every question number
Answers 1 there will be 18As
which is divisible by 2 will be marked C. It implies that
After first For every Qn. No. divisible by 12 6 0 0
18/2 = 9 sums will marked C and only 6 sums will be
change 3 there will be 6Bs
marked A and only 3 sums will be marked B. Finally, since
After second For every Qn. No. divisible by 6 3 9 0 every ninth answer is changed to D. That is every question
change 2 there will be 9Cs number which is divisible by 9 will be marked D. It implies
After third For every Qn. No. divisible 6 2 8 2 that 18/9 = 2 sums will be marked D and so only 6 sums
change by 9 there will be 2Ds will be marked A, only 2 sums will be marked B and only 8
sums will be marked C.

Introductory Exercise 1.2

1 Option (a) and (b) are ruled out due to unit digit property. 5 (d) is right option since 8 can’t be the unit digit of the
Now to check whether (c) is correct or not. Now it would square of any natural number.
be better to square 2506 instead of finding the square root 6 Since the factors of 11760 are 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 7
of 6280036. so we need to multiply it with 3 × 5 because all the factors
Let us find the square of 2506. are paired but 3 and 5 are unpaired, hence (d) is the
Step 1. (2505)2 + (2505 + 2506) correct choice.
Step 2. (2500)2 + 5 (2500 + 2505) + 5011
7 Since we know that there are two factors viz. 3 and 5
Step 3. 6250000 + 25025 + 5011 which are unpaired so if we remove them the number will
Step 4. 6275025 + 5011 = 6280036 become a perfect square. Hence we have to divide11760
Hence option (c) is correct. by 15 (= 3 × 5) in order to make a perfect square number.
2 From your basic knowledge you know that (30)2 = 900 8 This problem can’t be solved by factorisation because this
again (40)2 = 1600. This shows that the square root lies is not a perfect square. So we have to solve it by division
between 30 and 40. method as follows
Further you know that (35)2 = 1225. From this it is clear 23.9
that only option (d) is correct. 2 5 75
3 Since you know that (80)2 = 6400 and (90)2 = 8100. It 2 4
shows that the square root of 7744 must lie between 80
43 175
and 90. So now there is only one option to check i.e.,,88.
So we try to square 88 instead of finding the square root 3 129
of 7744. 469 4600
So (88) = (11 × 8) = 11 × 8 = 121 × 64 = 7744
2 2 2 2
9 4221
Hence option (b) is correct. (If the number is not a perfect square then by putting
4 First of all option (a) is ruled out due to unit digit decimal we can increase the zeros in pairs for further
property. Again if we do some rough calculation we see calculation). The result obtained is ≈ 23.9.
that (300)2 = 90000 then the value of (323)2 will be very So by adding some number we can make it the perfect
square of 24. Now since we know that (24)2 = 576. So we
large even more than 90000 so this option is also ruled out.
Now, if we find the square of 225 we will get need to add 1 (Q 576 − 575 = 1)
(225)2 = 50625 and the value of (230)2 = 52900 since the Thus (b) is the correct option.
value of 227 lies between 225 and 230, but 56169 does not Alternatively Using options we can solve this problem
lie between these values so this value is also not correct. as if we consider option (a) then 575 itself be a perfect
Hence option (d) is correct. square but its not a perfect square.
Number System 139

Again if we add 1 (i.e., using option (b)) we get the 11 Since Lieutenant Kalia can arrange only 1444 soldiers in
number 576 and then check it, we find that 576 is a perfect the square form. Now if he had arranged n soldiers in each
square. Hence (b) is correct. of the n rows then
Alternatively Since we know that (20) = 400 and
2
n × n = 1444 ⇒ n = 38
(25)2 = 625. It means the value of perfect square must lie in Hence option (c) is correct.
the range of 400 and 625. So we can try it manually and 289 1 289 1
get that (23)2 = 529 and (24)2 = 576. So simply we need to 12 = ⇒ = ⇒ x = 7225
x 5 x 25
add 1 to make a perfect square number.
13 Option (d) is the required answer.
9 From the discussion done in the previous question we
14 By observation we get to know that
know that we have to subtract 46 to make the perfect
square number. Since the closest perfect square numbers 2 ∗ 3 = 22 + 32 = 13
are 529 and 576. Since we have to subtract the number and 3 ∗ 4 = 32 + 42 = 5
therefore we choose 529 and then we get (575 − 529 = ) 46.
Hence (c) is the correct option. then 5 ∗ 12 = 52 + 122 = 13
Alternatively If we subtract 5 then 570 is not a perfect (6 + 2)(15 + 3) 8 × 18
square. Again if we subtract 38 then 538 is not a perfect
15 6 * 15 * 3 = = =6
(3 + 1) 4
square (simply due to unit digit concept of 2, 3, 7 and 8).
Further if we subtract 46 we get 529 which is found to be a 16 1780 + x = 1849, which is the nearest perfect square.
perfect square. So, x = 1849 − 1780; x = 69
NOTE In the checking through option we have to follow Hence, (a) is the least possible number.
the basic constraints imposed by the problem and here we Remark If you have any problem in finding the value of
have to find the least possible number so we start from the
nearest perfect square so try the following method.
least option towards higher valued option i.e., 5 then 37 then
46 and then 50. (40)2 = 1600, (50)2 = 2000. It means your required value
10 It is given that A 2 = B 2 + C 2 is lying somewhere between 402 & 502. Now 452 = 2025,
B 12 so it is clear that the value is lying between (40)2 & (45)2.
But = and B, C are integers.
C 5 Now in this way you can attain the required value.
So the least possible values of B and C are 12 and 5 100 25 500
respectively. 17 = 50 ⇒ = 50 ⇒ x=5
25 + x 5+ x
Hence A 2 = 122 + 52 ⇒ A 2 = 169 ⇒ A = 13
Q 5 = 25 Hence (c).

Introductory Exercise 1.3

1 Go back to the basics. not divisible by p or any prime number greater than p.
Since 2− 2= 0 Statement (3) is wrong, since 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 is
[Natural number − Natural number] divisible by 5.

= Not a natural number 3 Statement (1) is true since all the prime numbers are either
3 at a difference of 2 or 4. So for a suitable value of n it can be
= 1.5 expressed. Statement (2) is correct since ( p − 1) and ( p + 1)
2
Natural number both must be even numbers so 2k × 2l = 4kl. Thus it must
= Not a natural number be divisible by 4.
Natural number
4 Go through options or Go back to the Basics.
Hence, it is not closed for subtraction and division.
The factors of 6 = 1, 2, 3, 6
2 Statement (1) and (2) are wrong since when p is a prime Now, since 1 + 2 + 3 = 6
number so it does not have any factor so when all the factors Hence, (d) is correct choice.
(or numbers) before ‘ p’ do not involve in the product so it is
140 QUANTUM CAT
5 Since 2p + 1 is a prime number so 6 Since, the prime number between 101 and 120 is 4 viz.,
2 +1=2
0 103, 107, 109, 113.
Hence, the number of composite numbers between 101
2 +1=3
1
and 120 = 18 − 4 = 14.
22 + 1 = 5
2
7 127, 131, 137, 139.
2( 2) = 24 + 1 = 17
8 Except 2, all other prime numbers are odd. It means the
3
2( 2) = 28 + 1 = 257 unit digits of the prime numbers will be either 1, 3, 7 or 9,
Hence, the value of p is 2 or the power of 2. if we exclude 2 and 5. Hence choice (b) is the valid one.

Introductory Exercise 1.4

3  −2 3 3  −1 −1 9 Since a modulus value is always non-negative, therefore
1 × +  = ×  =
4  3 5 4  15 20 ||| x − 2| − 4|−6| < 10
2 4 × 100 + 3 × 10 +
9
= 400 + 30 + 0.009 ⇒ || x − 2| − 4| − 6 < 10
1000 ⇒ || x − 2| − 4| < 16
= 430.009 Hence, (c). ⇒ | x − 2| − 4 < 16
3 Let us assume some values as 4 and 2, then ⇒ | x − 2| < 20
4 > 2 ⇒ −4 < − 2 ⇒ −20 < x − 2 < 20
Hence, (b) is correct. ⇒ − 18 < x < 20
Thus there are total 39 values of x, namely −17, −16, … −2,
NOTE Other three option are wrong as
(a) 4 > 2 ⇒ − 4 < − 2 −1, 0, 1, 2, …20, 21
1 1 Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
(c) 4 > 2 ⇒ <
4 2 10 Since x = x or − x
1 1
(d) 4 > 2 ⇒ − > −
4 2 ∴ x −1 + x − 2 + x − 3 ≥ 6
1 ⇒ 3x − 6 ≥ 6 or 6 − 3x ≥ 6
4 − < 1, hence (d) is wrong.
2 ⇒ x ≥ 4 or x ≤ 0
1 1 Hence (b).
− < , hence, it is correct ( x ∈ I − and y ∈ I + )
2 2
11 (−1)p is a negative value when p is odd and it is a positive
1 1
Q x<0 ⇒ < 0 and y > 0 ⇒ >0 value when p is even. To minimize the sum of
x y
− (1)a + (−1)b + (−1)c + (−1)d we need negative values,
1 1
∴ < Hence, (c). which is possible only when the powers are odd. However,
x y
since a + b + c + d is 1947, which means either we can
5 Go back to Basics. have only 1 of them odd integer or any 3 of them odd
6 | x − 2| < 3 integers.
Case I. When out of 4 integers (a, b, c, d ), one integer is odd,
⇒ ( x − 2) < 3 or (2 − x ) < 3
(−1)a + (−1)b + (−1)c + (−1)d
⇒ x < 5 or x > −1
= (−1) + (1) + (1) + (1) = 2
⇒ −1 < x < 5
Case II. When out of 4 integers (a, b, c, d ), three integers
7 Only (iii) and (iv) are always true. are odd,
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. (−1)a + (−1)b + (−1)c + (−1)d
8 Choice (b) is not always true, as when one number is
= (−1) + (−1) + (−1) + (1) = − 2
positive and the other one is negative, the given
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
relationship becomes false. Hence choice (b) is the correct
one.
Number System 141

Solutions (for Q. Nos. 12 and 13) Let the total number of 12 In order to get 17 marks a student must attempt maximum
questions attempted by the candidate is x and the number of 27 problems. Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
3 x − 17
wrong attempts is y, then 3 x − 4 y = 17 ⇒ y = 13 There can be at most 6 students who can score exactly 17
4 marks by attempting either 7 or 11 or 15 or 19 or 23 or 27
The possible values of x and y must be integer and do not exceed problems.
30. Therefore the possible values of x are 7, 11, 15, 19, 23 and Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
27. Thus the corresponding values of y are 1, 4, 7, 10, 13 and 16.

Introductory Exercise 1.5

1 64 × 86 × 108 × 1210 Therefore 72 can be expressed as a product of two factors
in 6 ways, as following.
= (2 × 3) × (2 ) × (2 × 5) × (2 × 3)
4 3 6 8 2 10
(1 × 72), (2 × 36), (3 × 24), (4 × 18), (6 × 12), (8 × 9)
= 24 × 34 × 218 × 28 × 58 × 220 × 310 Now, since the value of (l + b) is distinct for each of the 6
= 250 × 314 × 58 sets of (l × b), so there will be maximum 6 distinct
perimeters of the rectangle with the area of 72 sq. cm.
Thus, there are total 72 (= 50 + 14 + 8) prime factors.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
2 Sum of factors of 2m × 3n is
6 The 100 given numbers are 2, 4, 6, …, 200. The number of
[(2m + 1 − 1)(3n + 1 − 1)] perfect squares in the set {2, 4, 6, …, 200} = 7
= 124
[(2 − 1)(3 − 1)] Since all the perfect square numbers have odd number of
⇒ (2m + 1 − 1)(3n + 1 − 1) = 248 factors, so the remaining numbers will have even number
of factors. That means in this set there are 93 numbers
⇒ (2m + 1 − 1)(3n + 1 − 1) = 31 × 8 which have even number of factors. Hence choice (d) is the
⇒ 2m + 1 − 1 = 31 and (3n + 1 − 1) = 8 correct one.

⇒ 2m+ 1 = 32 and 3n+ 1 = 9 7 350 = 2 × 52 × 7

⇒ 2m = 16 and 3n = 3 ⇒ m = 4 and n = 1 Number of natural numbers up to 350 which are not
 1
divisible by 5 = 350 × 1 −  = 280
Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.  5
3 500 = 22 × 53 Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
2+1 3+1
(2 − 1) × (5 − 1) 8 350 = 2 × 52 × 7
The sum of all the factors =
(2 − 1)(5 − 1) Number of natural numbers up to 350 which are not
7 × 624  1
= = 1092 divisible by 7 = 350 × 1 −  = 300
1×4  7
Hence, (c) is the correct option. Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
4 Let l and b be the length and breadth of the rectangle, the 9 350 = 2 × 52 × 7
perimeter of rectangle Number of natural numbers up to 350 which are neither
= 2(l + b) = 72  1  1
divisible by 5 nor by 7 = 350 × 1 −  × 1 −  = 240
⇒ l + b = 36  5  7
⇒ (l + b) = (1 + 35), (2 + 34), (3 + 33), … (18 + 18) Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
It implies that there are total 18 possible combinations of l 10 420 = 22 × 3 × 5 × 7
and b, so there can be maximum 18 different areas whose
Number of natural numbers up to 420 which are divisible by
perimeter is 72 cm.
none of 2, 3 or 5 = 420 × 1 −  × 1 −  × 1 −  = 112
1 1 1
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.  2  3  5
5 Let l and b be the length and breadth of the rectangle, the Number of natural numbers up to 420 which are divisible
perimeter of rectangle = l × b = 72 by none of 2, 3, 5 or 7
⇒ l × b = 23 × 32  1  1  1  1
= 420 × 1 −  × 1 −  × 1 −  × 1 −  = 96
Total number of factors = (3 + 1)(2 + 1) = 12  2  3  5  7
Total number of ways of expressing 72 as a product of two Therefore, number of natural numbers up to 420, which
1 1
factors = (total number of factors) = (12) = 6 are divisible by 7 but, not by 2, 3 or 5 = 16.
2 2 Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
142 QUANTUM CAT
11 210 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 Further out of the remaining three numbers 121, 122 and
Number of co-prime numbers of 210, which are below 210 123 there are two more numbers 122 and 123, which are
 1  1  1  1 divisible by either 2 or 3. Therefore we have total 90
= 210 × 1 −  × 1 −  × 1 −  × 1 −  = 48 natural numbers, which are divisible by either 2 or 3 or 5.
 2  3  5  7
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
If you look deeper into the solution then you will realize
that there are 48 numbers, which have no factors like 2, 3,
14 180 = 22 × 32 × 5
5 or 7. Since these 48 numbers have no factor like 2, 3, 5 or Number of co-prime numbers of 180 which are below
7, then obviously 4, 6, 8, 9 and 10 will not be included in  1  1  1
180 = 180 × 1 −  × 1 −  × 1 −  = 48
these 48 numbers. Now, since when 4, 6, 8, 9 and 10 are  2  3  5
not included in these 48 numbers, so their multiples too Total number of numbers which are divisible by
won’t be included in 48 numbers. It implies that these 48
180 
7= = 75
 7 
numbers are free from the divisors of 2, 3, 4, …, 10. Hence
choice (c) is the correct one.
These 25 numbers are 7, 14, 21, 28, 35, …, 175.
Alternatively 210 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7
Now out of 25 numbers there are 18 numbers, which are
And, 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 × 8 × 9 × 10 already divisible by 2, 3 or 5. It means there are 7 numbers
= 28 × 34 × 52 × 7. That means if a number is not divisible which are divisible by 7 but not by 2, 3 or 5. These numbers
by 2, 3, 5 or 7, so it is not divisible by 2, 3, …, 8, 9 or 10. are 7, 49, 77, 91, 119, 133 and 161. So if we exclude these
Number of natural numbers up to 210 which are neither 7 numbers from the 48 numbers we will get those numbers
divisible by 2 nor 3 nor 5 nor 7 only which are divisible by neither 2 nor 3 nor 5 nor 7.
 1  1  1  1 Thus the required numbers = 48 − 7 = 41
= 210 × 1 −  × 1 −  × 1 −  × 1 −  = 48
 2  3  5  7 Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
Therefore, number of natural numbers up to 210 which are Hint Total number of numbers, which are neither divisible
not divisible by any of the nine numbers 2, 3, …, 8, 9, 10 is 48. by 2 nor 3 nor 5 nor 7 = (total number of numbers which
12 Since 61 is a prime number, so it does not have any factor are neither divisible by 2 nor by 3 nor by 5) − (total number
other than 1 and itself. But if we ignore 61, for a while, of numbers which are divisible by 7 but not by 2 or 3 or 5).
then 60 has factors like 2, 3 and 5. Let’s separate the 180 
Also  indicates the number of times 180 can be fully
number 61 from the other 60 natural numbers. And then  7 
factorize 60. divided by 7 or it indicates the greatest possible integer
60 = 22 × 3 × 5 that can be obtained when 180 is divided by 7.
Alternatively 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 210
Number of co-prime numbers of 60, which are below 60
 1  1  1 Number of co-primes of 210 which are below 210
60 × 1 −  × 1 −  × 1 −  = 16
 2  3  5  1  1  1  1
= 210 × 1 −  × 1 −  × 1 −  × 1 −  = 48
 2   3  5  7
Now you know that there are 16 such numbers in the set of
first 60 numbers, which have no factors like 2, 3 or 5. It implies that there are 48 numbers below 210, which are
Therefore including 61, there are total 17 numbers, which divisible by neither 2 nor 3 nor 5 nor 7.
are divisible by neither 2 nor 3 nor 5. Now there are total 30 numbers in the set {181, 182, …,
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. 210}. But there are only 7 numbers in this set, which are
13 Since 123 = 3 × 41, it means we cannot use the method of divisible by neither 2 nor 3 nor 5 nor 7. Therefore, total
numbers in the set {1, 2, 3, …, 180} which are divisible by
co-prime numbers with 123 as only 3 is a required factor of
neither 2 nor 3 nor 5 nor 7 = 48 − 7 = 41.
123, not the 2 and 5. As 2 × 3 × 5 = 30, so we can use the
Hint Since there are not too many numbers in the set 181,
method of co-prime numbers with 30 or any multiple of
182, …, 210, so you can compute it manually. First of all
30, i.e., 30, 60, 90, 120, 150, …
remove all the even numbers since these are divisible by 2.
The nearest multiple of 30 to 123 is 120. So for a while we
Then there will be only 15 remaining numbers. Cancel out
will consider only first 120 natural numbers and ignore the
all those numbers, which are divisible by 3, then remaining
last three numbers 121, 122 and 123. The number of
by 5 and finally those which are divisible by 7. then there
co-prime numbers of 120, which are below 120
will be only 7 numbers, which are not divisible by either of
 1  1  1
= 120 × 1 −  × 1 −  × 1 −  = 32 2, 3, 5 or 7. These are 181, 187, 191, 193, 197, 199 and 209.
 2  3  5
15 There are 41 prime numbers in the set {1, 2, 3, K ,180}
Therefore in a set of first 120 natural numbers there are 88
(= 120 − 32) natural numbers, which are divisible by either 16 There are 168 prime numbers in the set {1, 2, 3K ,1000}
2 or 3 or 5.
Number System 143

Introductory Exercise 1.6

1 Go through option. It would be better to try to divide the (i.e.,, pair of numbers)
given numbers. Then 19 divides 1007 and 1273 both. So further there must not be any number (or factor)
Hence, (d) is the correct option. common in both the numbers otherwise the HCF will be
changed so the only possible values of (a, b) are
2 5 × 60 = 20 × N ⇒ 15, Hence (d)
(1, 420), (3, 140), (4, 105), (5, 84), (7, 60), (12, 35),
3 30k × 30l = 5400, where k and l are coprimes. (15, 28) and (20, 21).
Thus the possible numbers can be
k ×l=6
(6, 520), (18, 840), (24, 630), (30, 504), (42, 360),
Now, since 6 = 1 × 6 and 2 × 3 (72, 210), (90, 168), (120, 126).
Hence, there are two pairs viz., (30, 1800) and (60 and Hence, there are 8 pairs of such numbers whose HCF is 6
90). Thus (b). and the product is 15120.
4 The pair will be of the form (15k, 15l), where k and l must 10 Only two pairs of numbers.
be coprimes. The values of k and l be such that 15k and 15l 11 28 is the largest possible number by which we can divide
will remain between 40 and 100. So, the pairs are (45, 60), the given numbers in order to obtain the same remainders
(45, 75), (60 75), (75, 90). and thus dividing by 28 we get the remainder 20 in each
5 The volume of tin is = HCF of 140, 260 and 320 = 20 division.
Hence, (a) is the correct answer. 12 Let the two numbers of a pair be 5a and 5b then
6 Statement (2) is wrong since 3 × (1) + 2 × (−1) = 1, here y 5a + 5b = 50 ⇒ 5(a + b) = 50
is negative. Again since x and y depends on each other. ⇒ (a + b) = 10
Hence they are uniquely determined. So the possible values of (a, b) can be
7 Go back to the Basics. (1, 9), (2, 8), (3, 7), (4, 6), (5, 5) but (2, 8), (4, 6) and (5,
5) are inadmissible since these pairs are not the coprimes,
8 Let the numbers be 2a and 2b since 2 is the HCF of the
hence they can change the value of HCF. Thus only two
numbers.
pairs [(1, 9) & (3, 7)] are possible. Thus the actual pairs of
Therefore 2a × 2b = 84 such numbers are (5, 45) and (15, 35).
⇒ ab = 21
13 The largest possible length of the tape = HCF of 525, 1050,
Now, since 21 = 1 × 21 = 3 × 7 1155 = 105. Hence (b) is the correct answer.
∴ (a, b) = (1, 21) and (3, 7 ) Total length of cloths
Hence the values of pairs = (2, 42), (6, 14) 14 Minimum number of attempts =
Max. possible length of tape
Thus there are only 2 pairs of numbers whose HCF is 2 and 2730
the product is 84. = = 26
105
9 Let the numbers be 6a and 6b, since 6 is the HCF of the Hence in 26 attempts the whole length of cloth can be
required numbers. measured using the tape of 105 cm length.
Then 6a × 6b = 15120
15 In order to have minimum number of tiles we need the
⇒ ab = 420 largest possible tiles of square shape (in area).
Now 420 = 1 × 420 So the maximum possible dimension (length and breadth)
= 2 × 210 → × of a tile is the HCF of the dimension of the room.
= 3 × 140 Thus the HCF of 462 and 360 is 6 cm.
= 4 × 105 Hence the area of a square tile be 6 × 6 = 36 cm 2.
= 5 × 84
Now the number of tiles required
= 6 × 70 → ×
Area of floor of the room
= 7 × 60 =
Area of one tile
= 10 × 42→ ×
462 × 360
= 12 × 35 = = 77 × 60 = 4620
= 14 × 30 → × 6×6
= 15 × 28 Thus total 4620 tiles are required.
= 20 × 21 16 (d) is correct answer. The numbers will be 195 and 143.
Thus out of 12 pairs only 8 pairs are possible since the rest
17 (d) is the correct option. In the options (a), (b) and (c) the
4 pairs are not the coprimes.
Since 6 is the highest common factor of the two numbers HCF is not 12.
144 QUANTUM CAT
18 The maximum capacity of the vessel = HCF of 1653, 2261 21 Minimum number of rows means max. number of trees per
and 2527 = 19 row, also equal number of trees per row is required so we
Hence (c) is the correct option. need to find the HCF of 36, 144 and 234 to find the
19 To be the minimum number of pencils the size of all the maximum number of trees in a row.
pencils must be maximum. So the length of each pencil Thus HCF of 36, 144 and 234 = 18
= HCF of 24 and 42 = 6 Total no. of trees
Thus the number of rows =
No. of trees in a row
Thus the number of pencils
36 + 144 + 234
Total length of pencils = = 23
= 18
length of one pencil
Hence (b) is correct answer.
24 + 42
= = 11 22 It is possible only when there is no common factor among
6
p, q and r. Hence, the HCF of p, q, r = 1
Thus (b) is the correct choice since there can be min.
and the LCM of p, q, r = p ⋅ q ⋅ r
11 pencils of same size.
∴ (HCF × LCM) of p, q, r = 1 × p ⋅ q ⋅ r = pqr
20 (a) The correct pair of numbers is (27, 189).

Introductory Exercise 1.7

−2 5 −1
1Q = − 0.66 and = 2.5 and = − 0.16
3 2 6
6 Option (b) is clearly wrong. Again since (28)2 = 784.
∴The correct required order is
5 −1 −2 So, option (c) is also wrong. Now check for option (a)
> > 2 2
2 6 3  15  125 15625 137
5  =   = = 32
Thus (a) is the correct answer.  22  22  484 484
−3 −1 Thus, (a) is the correct option.
2 = − 0.42 and = − 0.33
7 3 1 1 1
7 1÷ =1÷ =1÷ = 3
So, the value in descending order will be as follows: 1 1 3
1÷ 1÷
2 −1 −3 1 3
> > 1÷
3 3 7 3
Hence, (b) is the correct option. Hence, (c) is the correct answer.
1 1
3 Express the fractions, as shown below 4 −2
8Q 7 4 = 53 and 1
=
53
1029 4
=1 + 1
3 +1
1 130
2+
1 130
1025 1025 2 7 1
1030 4 2+
=1 + 1
5−
1026 1026 5
256 1 4 53 53
=1 + =1 + ∴ ÷ =1 Hence, (c).
255 255 1020 130 130
1023 4 9 Let the total journey be x kms then,
=1 +
1019 1019 5x 7 x 17
+ + 10 = x ⇒ x = 29 Hence, (d).
Since, we know that if the two or more fractions have the 16 20 27
same numerator, the fraction with the least denominator 1
would be the greatest one. 10 x1 + = 3 10
1
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. x2 +
1
x3 +
4 Go back to the Basics. x4 + …
5 Go through option : Consider the value of x such that 1
⇒ x1 + = 2. 15
(5x + 7 ) must be divisible by 13. Since, the product is an 1
x2 +
integer and the value of y must be such that (13y + 1) will 1
x3 +
be divisible by x. x4 + …
Thus option (b) is correct. ⇒ x1 + p = 2.15
Number System 145

Q 0 < p < 1, ∴x1 = 2 ⇒ P = 0 . 15 Now, take the remaining 6 guavas and cut each guava into
1 5 equal pieces and then divide these 30 pieces equally
⇒ = 0.15
1 among 15 disciples.
x2 +
1 Statement (iii) Were we allowed to cut a guava into more
x3 +
x4 + … than 6 pieces we would have cut every guava into 15 pieces
1 and then we would have distributed 105 pieces equally
⇒ = 0.15 among 7 people. But, we are not allowed to make more
x2 + q
than 6 pieces of a guava so we try to use the other method,
Since 0 < q < 1, so x 2 = 6
as given below.
x1 1
Therefore, = a c 7
x2 3 + =
b d 15
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. a b 7
⇒ + =
Hint If the denominator (D) is any positive number, then 3 5 15
1 ⇒ 5a + 3b = 7
0 < < 1.
D There are no natural numbers for a and b to satisfy the
11 Statement (i) Were we allowed to cut a guava into more above equation. So we cannot divide the 7 guavas equally
than 6 pieces we would have cut every guava into 12 pieces among 15 people by cutting 6 or less pieces of a guava.
and then we would have distributed 84 pieces equally Therefore statement (iv) is false. Hence choice (d) is the
among 12 people. correct one.
But, we are not allowed to make more than 6 pieces of a 33.33 33.33
12 33.33 ÷ 1.1 = =
guava so we try to use the other method, as given below. 1.1 1.10
a c 7 3333
+ = = = 30.3
b d 12 110
1 1 7
⇒ + = 13 Go back to the Basics.
3 4 12
14 900 + 0.09 − 0.000009
First of all take 3 guavas and cut each guava into 4 equal
pieces and then divide these 12 pieces equally among 12 = 30 + 0.3 − 0.003 = 30.297
disciples. Hence, (a) is the correct option.
Now, take the remaining 4 guavas and cut each guava into 10 6.25 10 × 2.5 25
15 = = = 12.5
3 equal pieces and then divide these 12 pieces equally 6.25 − 0.5 2.5 − 0.5 2
among 12 disciples.
Statement (ii) Cut each guava into two equal parts and 16 Q 254016 = 504
divide them among 12 disciples. and 10609 = 103
Statement (iii) Were we allowed to cut a guava into more 25.4016 − 1.0609 5.04 − 1.03
than 6 pieces we would have cut every guava into 15 pieces ∴ =
25.4016 + 1.0609 5.04 + 1.03
and then we would have distributed 165 pieces equally
4.01 401
among 15 people. But, we are not allowed to make more = =
6.07 607
than 6 pieces of a guava so we try to use the other method,
1
as given below. 17 When 1 is divided by 2x , such that x = 0, 1, 2, . . . , is a
a c 11 2x
+ = terminating decimal number.
b d 15
a b 11 Similarly, when 1 is divided by 5y , such that
⇒ + = 1
3 5 15 y = 0, 1, 2, . . . , y is a terminating decimal number.
5
⇒ 5a + 3b = 11
Therefore, when 1 is divided by 2x 5y , such that
⇒ a = 1, b = 12 1
x = 0, 1, 2, K and y = 0, 1, 2, . . . , x y is a terminating
1 2 11 25
⇒ + =
3 5 15 decimal number. Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
First of all take 5 guavas, and cut each guava into 3 equal NOTE Choice (c) is better answer than choice (d), since
pieces and then divide these 15 pieces equally among 15 1
choice (d) ignores = 1, which is also a terminating
disciples. 10 0
decimal expansion.
146 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 1.8
1 Go through options and put x = 1. ⇒ 25x − 7 = 23x + 7
Alternatively Solve with the help of quadratic ⇒ 5x − 7 = 3x + 7
equations. ⇒ 2x = 14
2 Go back to the Basics. x =7 Hence, (d).
3 3 = 27 ⇒ 3 = 3
n n 3
⇒ n=3  1
2/ 3
9 93/ 2 ÷ (243)−2/ 3 = (32 )3/ 2 ÷  
∴ 3 n− 2
=3 =3
1  35 
10
Thus, (a) is the right choice. 3+
= 33 ÷ 3−10/ 3 = 3 3 = 319/ 3
4 4x + 3 × 2x − 3 − 128 = 0
10 At x = 2, both sides are equal.
⇒ 22x + 6 × 2x − 3 − 27 = 0
( a 2 + b2 + ab) ( b2 + c 2 + bc ) ( c 2 + a 2 + ac )
⇒ 23x + 3 − 27 = 0  xa  x b  xc 
11  b  .  c .  a
x  x  x 
⇒ 3x + 3 = 7
2
+ b2 + ab) 2
+ c 2 + bc ) 2
+ a 2 + ac )
⇒ 3x = 4 ⇒ x =
4 = x( a − b)( a . x( b − c )( b . x( c − a )( c
3 ( a 3 + ab2 + a 2b − a 2b − b3 − ab2 + b3 + bc 2 + b2c − b2c − c 3 − bc 2 + c 3
Hence, (d) is the correct option. + a 2c + ac 2 − ac 2 − a 3 − a 2c )
=x
5Q am ⋅ an = amn = x0 = 1
m+ n
⇒ a =a
mn
Hence, (c).
⇒ m + n = mn b c
∴ m(n − 2) + n(m − 2) = mn − 2m + nm − 2n 12 = = b2 = ca
a b
= (m + n) − 2m + (m + n) − 2n
Again, ax = b y = cz = k
= 2m + 2n − 2m − 2n = 0
⇒ a = k1/ x , b = k1/ y , c = k1/ z
Hence, (a) is the correct option.
∴ b2 = ac
66 + 66 + 66 + 66 + 66 + 66 46 + 46 + 46 + 46
6 ÷ = 2n
36 + 36 + 36 26 + 26 ⇒ k 2/ y = k1/ x . k1/ z
2 1 1 z+ x
6 (6)6 4(46 ) ⇒ = + =
⇒ ÷ = 2n y x z zx
3 (36 ) 2(26 )
2z y
⇒ 1 = 2n ⇒ 20 ⇒ =
x+z x
thus, n=0
13 a1/ m = b1/ n = c1/ p = k
Hence, (b) is the correct option.
⇒ a = k m, b = k n, c = k p
7 x y = y x ⇒ y = x y/x
⇒ 2x = x y / x = x 2x / x = x 2 Q a⋅ b ⋅ c = 1
⇒ km ⋅ kn ⋅ k p = 1
⇒ 2x = x 2 ⇒ x=2
Hence, (a) is the correct option. ⇒ km + n + p
= 1 = k0
Alternatively Go through options and put x = 2 in both ⇒ m+ n+ p=0
the values if they satisfy, then the presumed option is Hence, (a) is the correct option.
correct. As 1 1 1
1−
14 [( x l ) l ]l − 1 = ( x l − 1 )l − 1 = x
y = 2x = 4
then 24 = 42 Hence, (a) is the correct choice.
16 = 16 15 4
10 = (10)1/ 4 = (10)3/12 = (1000)1/12
Hence, it is correct. 3
6 = (6)1/ 3 = (6)4/12 = (1296)1/12
x+ 3 2x − 5 3x + 7
8 2 .4 =2
3 = (3)1/ 2 = (3)6/12 = (729)1/12
x+ 3 4 x − 10 3x + 7
⇒ 2 .2 =2
∴ 3 < 4 10 < 3 6 is the correct order and hence (b) is
correct.
Number System 147

1 ( 2 + 1) (7 3 − 5 2)( 48 − 18 )
16 x = = =
2 − 1 ( 2 − 1)( 2 + 1) 30
1 (7 3 − 5 2)(4 3 − 3 2)
⇒ x = 2 + 1 and = 2 −1 =
x 30
2
1  1 Hence choice (c) is the valid one.
∴ x2 − 6 + = x −  − 4
x 2  x 19 5+ 3
x =3
= (( 2 + 1) − ( 2 − 1)) − 4 = 0 2
⇒ 5+ 3
x =9
Hence choice (a) is the valid one. ⇒ 3
x =4
3 3 1 ⇒ x = 64
17 4
= × 4
5 27 5 27 Hence choice (c) is the valid one.
1 1 1 6
3 1 3 34 34 4 3 20 A = 2 = 22 = 212 = 12 64
= × 3 = × 3 1
= =
5 5 5 5 1 4
34 3 ×3
4 4
B = 3 3 = 33 = 312 = 12 81
Hence choice (b) is the valid one. 1 3

7 3−5 2 7 3−5 2 48 − 18 C = 4 4 = 4 4 = 412 = 12 64

18 = ×
18 + 48 18 + 48 48 − 18 Hence choice (c) is the valid one.

Introductory Exercise 1.9

1 You know that 24n gives last two digits as 24, if n is odd and 4Q (a2 + b2 )3 = (a3 + b3 )2
it gives last two digits as 76, if n is even. Therefore, ⇒ a6 + b6 + 3a2b2 (a2 + b2 ) = a6 + b6 + 2a3b3
64 81
=2 486
= (2 )
10 48
×2 6
⇒ 3a2b2 (a2 + b2 ) = 2a3b3
= (1024) 48
× 64
⇒ 3(a2 + b2 ) = 2ab
⇒ 24 48
× 64 = 76 × 64 = 4864
a2 + b2 2
⇒ =
Thus the last two digit are 64. ab 3
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. 6
 a b
6
 a2 + b2   2
6
64
2 Now,  +  =  =  =
 1 1  1  b a  ab   3 729
 x +  = x + 2 + 2⋅  x ⋅ 
2
2Q
 x  x  x
Hence, (b) is the correct choice.
1
⇒ (2)2 = x 2 + 2 + 2 (1) 5Q ( x − y )3 = x 3 − y 3 − 3xy ( x − y )
x
 1 ∴ (1)3 = x 3 − y 3 − 3xy (1)
Substituting the value of x + 
 x [Substituting the value of ( x − y )]
1 1 ⇒ x 3 − y 3 − 3xy = 1
⇒ 4 = x + 2 + 2 ⇒ x2 + 2 = 2
2
x x 6 If x = 1234, y = 4321, z = − 5555,
Hence, (c) is the right choice.
x2 y2 z2
3 Q a + b + c − ab − bc − ac
2 2 2 The value of + +
yz zx xy
1
= [(a − b)2 + (b − c)2 + (c − a)2] ( x 3 + y 3 + z 3 ) (3xyz )
2 = = =3
xyz xyz
1
= [(2)2 + (−2)2 + (4)2] = 12
2 Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
Alternatively Substitute the values of a, b, c into given Hint Apply the formula
expression. (a3 + b3 + c3 ) − 3abc = (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 − ab− bc − ca)
If (a + b + c) = 0, (a3 + b3 + c3 ) = 3abc
148 QUANTUM CAT
7 20 + 21 + 22 + 23 + 24 + 25 + 26 + 27 = 255 11 ( x + y ) = 25 and xy = 144
And 2 + 2 + 2
8 9 10
+2 11
+2 12
+2 13
+2
14
+ 2 = 2 (255)
15 8
( x − y ) = ( x + y )2 − 4 xy
2

Similarly ( x − y )2 = 625 − 576

216 + 217 + 218 + 219 + 220 + 221 + 222 + 223 = 216(255) ( x − y )2 = 49 ⇒ x − y = 7
…………………… Hence, (c) is correct.
……………………
12 x + y = 9 and x 2 + y 2 = 41
Therefore, 20 + 21 + 22 + 23 + … + 2255
( x + y )2 = x 2 + y 2 + 2xy
= 255 + 28(255) + 216(255) + 224(255) + … + 2248(255)
81 = 41 + 2xy
= 255(1 + 28 + 216 + 224 + … + 2248 ) ⇒ 40 = 2xy ⇒ xy = 20
= 255k; where k is a positive integer. Now ( x − y )2 = ( x + y )2 − 4 xy
It shows that the given expression is divisible by 255, so ( x − y )2 = 81 − 80
there is no remainder. ( x − y )2 = 1 ⇒ x − y
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Thus x + y = 9 and x − y = 1
Alternatively Using the formula for the sum of
Hence, x = 5 and y = 4
geometric progression, we have
Therefore (a) is the correct answer.
20(2256 − 1)
20 + 21 + 22 + … + 2255 = = (2256 − 1) Alternatively
(2 − 1) Go through options:
= [(2 )
8 32
− 1] = [(256) 32
− 1] 4 + 5= 9
and 16 + 25 = 41
The above expression is divisible by 255, so the required
remainder will be 0.  1
4
 1
4 4
 13  13
4

[(256)32 − 1] (256)32 1 3  − 4    − 
Hint = −  4  3  4  3
255 255 255 13 2 2
= 2 2
 1  1  13  13
32 3  − 4    − 
=
1
−
1
=
0
=0  4  3  4  3
255 255 255
2 2
 13  13
8 Q (1 − 81P 4 ) = (1 + 9P 2 )(1 − 9P 2 ) =   + 
 4  3
= (1 + 9P 2 )(1 + 3P )(1 − 3P )
 25  5
Thus, (1 − 3P ), [1 − (3P )2] and [1 − (3P )4] are the 3 factors = 169   = 13 ×
 144 12
possible.
 13  
2 2
 a2 − b 2 ( a + b ) ( a − b )  13  and b =
9 Since x 4 − y 4 = ( x 2 )2 − ( y 2 )2 Q a − b = (a − b)
= a + b; a =
 2  3 
 
= ( x 2 + y 2 )( x + y )( x − y ) 65 5
= =5
Thus, ( x − y ) is exactly divisible by ( x − y ) as one of the
4 4 12 12
factors. Hence, no remainder will leave. a2 + ab + b2 a2 + ab + b2 1
14 = =
 1
2
1 1 a −b
3 3
(a − b)(a + ab + b ) (a − b)
2 2

 x −  = x + 2 − 2⋅ x ⋅
2
10
 x  x x 1 1
= = . Hence, (b).
 1 1 119 − 111 8
⇒ 4 =  x2 + 2 − 2 ⇒ x2 + 2 = 6
 x  x a3 + b3 + c3 − 3abc
15 Q
 2 1
2
1 2 1
a + b2 + c2 − ab − bc − ac
2

 x + 2  = x + 4 + 2x ⋅ 2
4
Now
 x  x x (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 − ab − bc − ac)
=
1 (a2 + b2 + c2 − ab − bc − ac)
⇒ 36 = x 4 + 4 + 2
x =a+ b+ c
1
⇒ x + 4 = 34
4
∴ The required answer
x
= 10 = (1.5+ 4.7 + 3.8)
Hence, (d) is the correct answer.
Number System 149

a3 + b3 (a + b)(a2 + b2 − ab)  1
3
1 1  1
16 Q = = (a + b) 20  x −  = x − 3 − 3x ⋅  x − 
3
a + b − ab
22
(a2 + b2 − ab)  x x x  x
Hence, the required number = 8.73 + 4.27 = 13 1
125 = x 3 − 3 − 3 (5)
x
17 Q(a − b)3 + (b − c)3 + (c − a)3 = 0 ⇒ (a − b) = 0 ⇒ a = b
1
⇒ (b − c) = 0 ⇒ b = c, (c − a) = 0 ⇒ c = a ⇒ x − 3 = 140
3
Hence, (d).
x
Thus, a = b = c Hence, (c)
2 2
 ex + e− x   ex − e− x  e2x + e−2x + 2 e2x + e−2x − 2
18 (a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2 (ab + bc + ac) 21   −  = − =1
 2   2  4 4
121 = 51 + 2 (ab + bc + ac)
70 = 2 (ab + bc + ca) ⇒ (ab + bc + ca) = 35 22 (1 − x )(1 + x )(1 + x 2 )(1 + x 4 )(1 + x 8 )
x2 y2 z2 x3 y3 z3 = (1 − x 2 )(1 + x 2 )(1 + x 4 )(1 + x 8 )
19 + + = + +
yz zx xy xyz xyz xyz [Q (a − b)(a + b) = a2 − b2]
x + y +z
3 3 3
3xyz = (1 − x 4 )(1 + x 4 )(1 + x 8 )
= = =3
xyz xyz
= (1 − x 8 )(1 + x 8 ) = (1 − x16 ) Hence, (c)
(Q a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc, when a + b + c = 0)

Introductory Exercise 1.10

1 ( 2)2 = (21/ 2 )2 = 2 is a rational number. 8 A rational number
p
can be either a terminating decimal or
q
−18
2 = − 3.6, which lies between −3 and −4. a recurring decimal only, where p and q both are integers
5
p
Hence, (b) is the correct option. and q ≠ 0. Further, a rational number can be a
q
3 The same number can not be rational and irrational both,
terminating decimal number only when q = 2a 5b, where a
simultaneously. So (a) is wrong.
and b are whole numbers. That is q is either 1 or 2 or 5 or
Again (2 + 3) + (2 − 3) = 4
any other composite number made up of 2 and 5 only.
So, (b) is wrong, as irrational + irrational = Rational. Thus q cannot have any prime factor other than 2 and 5.
Once again, −3 < 2 ⇒ 9>4 So, the possible values of q are as following.
For more information go back to the basics. {1}, {2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64}, {5, 25}, {10, 20, 40, 50, 80}
3 Therefore, we have total 14 values of q in the set of first
4 For example = 1.5 which is not an integer, while 3, 2 are p
2 81 natural numbers such that every rational number is a
integers. Hence, (d). q

5 Apply the properties of Rational and Irrational numbers. terminating decimal number.
Even though 2 is a rational number and 3 is an irrational Now, since 14 values of q form the terminating decimal
number, but 2 + 3 and 2 3 are irrational numbers. numbers, so the remaining 67 (= 81 − 14) values of q will
Therefore, choice (b) is wrong. form the recurring decimal numbers.
Similarly, we can prove that choice (c) and choice (d) are Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
incorrect. 9 As you know that for a terminating decimal number
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. numerator p can have any 81 natural numbers, but since p
−24 x and q are co-prime so you have to figure it out carefully, as
6 = ⇒ x = − 30
20 25 discussed below.
−30 Case 1 When q = 1, p can have all the 81 values, as p and q
Hence, the equivalent rational number is ⋅
25 are co-prime for all the 81 values of p.
7 Options (a) and (b) are wrong since when c > a and d > b Case 2 When q is an even number, p cannot have any even
a c a c number. So for each even number q, there are only 41
still= it means and are equivalent rational acceptable values of p; all the odd numbers 1, 3, 5, …, 81.
b d b d
a c ka As there are 6 even numbers (q) and for each such number
numbers and is in standard form. Thus, = ; k > 1
b d kb there are 41 valid numbers, then the total required
Hence, (c) is the correct answer. numbers = 6 × 41 = 246.
150 QUANTUM CAT
Case 3 When q is 5 or exponent of 5, p cannot have any q The number of values of p
number which is a multiple of 5. Since there are total 16 which are co prime to q is
numbers, from 1 to 81, which are multiple of 5 so the 5 4
acceptable values of p = 81 − 16 = 65 25 20
As, in this case, there are 2 values of q and for each such
10 4
value there are 65 valid values of p, so the total required
20 8
numbers = 2 × 65 = 130
Case 4 When q is 10 or a multiple of 10, p cannot have any 40 16
number which is a multiple of 2 or a multiple of 5. Since 50 20
there are total 48(= 40 + 16 − 8) numbers which are 80 32
multiple of either 2 or 5, so the acceptable values of
Thus there are total 167 required rational numbers.
p = 81 − 48 = 33.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
As, in this case, there are 5 values of q and for each such
value there are 33 valid values of p, so the total required 11 A = 3 abbcabbcabbc ……
numbers = 5 × 33 = 165. Thus the total number of rational A = 3 abbc
numbers which are the terminating decimals
A = 3 + abbc
= 81 + 246 + 130 + 165 = 622
abbc
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. A = 3+
9999
10 Since the terminating decimal numbers lie between 0 and (29997 + abbc)
1, then 0 < p < q, for every possible value of q. Further, as A=
9999
you know that, there are only 14 values of q in the set of
Since, number of pigs = A × number of birds. The number
p
first 81 numbers that can make a terminating decimal of pigs must be in integer and it is possible only when the
q
number of birds will be divisible by 9999.
number. Therefore, we can find the corresponding value of Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
p for every acceptable value of q, as shown in the table. Alternatively A = 3. abbcabbcabbc …
q The number of values of p 10000 A = 3abbc. abbcabbcabbc
which are co prime to q is (10000 A ) − ( A )
1 0 = (3abbc. abbcabbcabbc… ) − (3. abbcabbcabbc… )
2 1 9999 A = 3abbc − 3
4 2 3abbc − 3
A=
8 4 9999
16 8 Since, number of pigs = A × number of birds.
32 16 The number of pigs must be in integer and it is possible
only when the number of birds will be divisible by 9999.
64 32

Introductory Exercise 1.11

1 Go through option Now, adding equation (i) and (ii)
5 + 3 = 8 and 53 − 35 = 18 11 ( x + y ) = (k + l)( x + y )
Hence, option (c) is correct. ⇒ k + l = 11 ⇒ l = (11 − k ) Hence, (c).
2 Go through options : 8 + 3 = 11 4 Going through options
and 83 − 38 = 45 Hence, (d). Option (a) is invalid, since 5 >2
Alternatively x + y = 11 Try option (c) : 2 × 401+ 5 × 400 = 80 + 5 = 85
and 9 ( x − y ) = 45 Hence (c) is the correct option.
⇒ x−y=5 Alternatively (25)x = (85)10
Thus, 8 − 3 = 5, hence 83.
⇒ 2 × x + 5 × x 0 = (85)10
1

3 (10 x + y ) = k ( x + y ) …(i)
⇒2x + 5 = 85 ⇒ 2x = 80 ⇒ x = 40
Again (10 y − x ) = l ( x + y ) …(ii)
Hence (c) is the correct option.
Number System 151

5 Obviously option (b) is the required answer second line. Now, consider option (d).
Since base must be greater than any integer of the number 2 9
first line.
2 4 → 1
6 Going through option we find that option (b) is the invalid
2 2 → 0
option. Option (d) is also wrong since (53)6 = 33 which is
not a prime number and option (c) is also wrong since 2 1 → 0
(53)12 = 60 + 3 = 63 which is not a prime number. 0 → 1
Hence option (a) is the correct one. You can verify by
Thus (9)10 = (1001), which satisfies all the given conditions.
assuming the value of n.
Hence (d) is the correct option.
7 Since the last three digits in the given number are divisible
by 23 (= 8). Hence the equivalent binary digits will be 000. 11 Let the tens digit and unit digit of the original number be
a, b, then the original number = 10a + b
Alternatively Divide the given number successively by
Again if the digits are reversed then the new number
2 and get the last three digits as
= 10b + a
2 365247728 So (10a + b) − (10b + a) = 9 (a − b)
2 182623864→ 0 Now since it is given that a + b = 9 and 9 . (a − b) = 63
2 91311932 → 0 Remainders So solving for (a + b) and (a − b), we get a = 8 and b = 1
45655966 → 0 It means the given two digit number is 81 and its reverse
is 18.
Thus the last three digits in the binary representation will
be 000. Further (81)x = 5 (18)x
⇒ 8 x + 1 = 5[ x + 8] ⇒ 8 x + 1 = 5x + 40
8 Since last three digits (i.e., 956) are not divisible by
23(= 8). Hence all the last three digits will not be zero. Now ⇒ 3x = 39
since 956 is divisible by 4. Hence the last two digits will be x = 13
00. Thus only option (b) is correct. Thus the value of x = 13 and hence option (b) is correct.

NOTE Option (a) is invalid. 12 (25)n × (31)n = (1015)n

⇒ (2n + 5)(3n + 1) = n3 + n + 5
9
2 8009 ⇒ 6n2 + 17 n + 5 = n3 + n + 5
2 4000 → 1 ⇒ n3 − 6n2 − 16n = 0
2 2000 → 0 Remainders ⇒ n (n2 − 6n − 16) = 0
2 1000 → 0
⇒ n = 0 or n2 − 6n − 16 = 0
500 → 0
or n2 − 6n − 16 = 0
Hence the last four digits in the binary representation of
the given number are 0001. ⇒ (n − 8)(n + 2) = 0
Hence (a) is the correct option. ⇒ n = 8 or n = − 2
10 Go through options : So the only admissible value of n = 8
Let us assume option (c), then (13)8 × (52)8 = (11)10 × (42)10 = (462)10 = (716)8
Now,
2 8 Hence option (c) is correct.

2 4 → 0 13 (100000. . . 001)16 = 1 × (16)24 + 0 + 0 +. . . . + 1 × 160

14
4244
3
2 2 → 0 23 zeros

2 1 → 0 = 1624 + 1 = (24 )24 + 1 = 296 + 1

0 → 1 14 Since 2111 is divisible by 23 (i.e.,,8) hence the unit digit in

Since (1000)2 does not satisfy the given condition hence octal system will be 0.
presumed option is wrong. 15 Option (b) is correct.
152 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 1.12
 1  1  1  1
1 1 −  1 −  1 −  … 1 − 
 3  4  5  n d n −1 n
2 3 4 n −1 2 1 60 59
= × × ×… × =
3 4 5 n n 2 30 59
Hence, (b) is the correct option. 3 20 19
2 Let the three consecutive integers be (n − 1), n and (n + 1) 4 15 14
then 5 12 11
(n − 1) + n + (n + 1) = 21 6 10 9
⇒ 3n = 21 ⇒ n = 7 10 6 5
∴ (n − 1) + n = (7 − 1) + 7 = 13 12 5 4
10 × 11 × 21 15 4 3
3 12 + 22 + … + 102 = = 385
6 20 3 2
 2 n(n + 1)(2n + 1) 30 2 1
Q 1 + 2 + … + n =
2 2
6 
60 1 0
4 The arithmetic mean of first ‘ n’ odd natural number
Since n cannot be less than 3, so out of 12 values of d only
n2
= =n 9 values are possible.
n
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
Thus, the required answer is 50. Hence, (a) is correct.
7 G. M. of first 27 terms = G. M. of 1st term and 27th term
12 + 22 + 32 + … + n2 = G. M. of 2nd term and 26th term = … = G. M. of 9th
5 Average area =
n term and the 19th term = …
 n(n + 1)(2n + 1) Therefore, G. M. of first 27 terms = G. M. of 9th and 19th
 
 6  term = 12 × 18 = 6 6
=
n
8 AM of a x1 + b, a x 2 + b, a x 3 + b, … , a x n + b
(n + 1)(2n + 1) (n + 1) (2n + 1)
= = ⋅ (a x1 + b) + (a x 2 + b) + (a x 3 + b) + … + (a x n + b)
6 2 3 =
n
Hence, (b) is the correct option.
(a x1 + a x 2 + a x 3 + … + a x n) + (b + b + b + … + b)
6 Let a, l, d and n denote the first term, last term common =
n
difference and number of terms in an Arithmetic a( x1 + x 2 + … + x n) + nb
=
Progression, then l = a + (n − 1)d n
⇒ 66 = 6 + (n − 1)d a( x1 + x 2 + x 3 + … + x n) nb
= + = ax + b
⇒ (n − 1)d = 60 n n
60 9 Since all the numbers in the given series are of the form
⇒ (n − 1) =
d 4n + 2; n ∈ N .
It is obvious that d must be the factor of 60, so we have the It means the number after division by 4 leaves remainder
following values of d and n. 2. So, the possible value is 338.
Hence, (b) is the correct option.
Number System 153

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise

1 5 × (3, 13, 23, 33, 43, 53, 63, 73, 83, 93) Now since we know that all the factorial numbers starting
+ 5 × (30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39) with 5! has its unit digits 0. So we need not calculate it.
Thus the required unit digit
+ (301, 302, 303, 304, …, 399)
= unit digit of the sum of the unit digits
= 5 × 10 + 5 × 10 + 100 = 200
Thus the unit digit = 7 (Q 1 + 4 + 6 + 6 + 0 = 17 )
Explanation In every set of 100 numbers there are
10 numbers whose unit digit is 3. Similarly in every set of 7 The first four digit number which is divisible by 7 is 1001
100 numbers there are 10 numbers whose tens digit is 3 and the last four digit number is 9996 and such total
8995
and there are total 100 numbers whose hundreds digit is 3. numbers are = + 1 = 1286
7
2 1146600 = 23 × 32 × 52 × 7 2 × 13
 9946 + 1001
Thus total number of factors of So the sum of all these numbers =   × 1286
 2 
1146600 = (3 + 1)(2 + 1)(2 + 1)(2 + 1)(1 + 1)
= 7071071
= 4 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 2 = 216
[Since all these numbers are in A.P.
So the number of ways in which 1146600 can be expressed with common difference 7]
216
as a product of two factors = = 108 x
2 8 Let the fraction be then,
y
(for more discussion go back to the Basics)
x+2 1
3 The numbers which are divisible by 5 & 9 both means these =
2y 2
numbers must be divisible by 45. So the total numbers
which are divisible by 45 = 22 [45, 90, 135, …, 990] x+2
⇒ =1
[i.e. all the numbers of the form 45k, y
where k = 1, 2, 3, …,22] ⇒ x + 2= y
Now since these obtained numbers will not be divisible by ⇒ y−x=2
7, so the numbers of the form 45 × 7 l must be subtracted
Thus any even number greater than 3 can be the sum of x
from these 22 numbers.
and y. Where x and y are some integers where y − x = 2.
Thus the required number = 22 − 3 = 19
Further we know that the even − even = even
(Q k = 7 l). Thus the possible values
of l = 1, 2, 3 for k = 1, 2, K , 22. or odd − odd = even
Again even + even = even
4 Q| x| + | y| ≤ 0 for x, y ∈ R
and odd + odd = even
⇒ | x| = 0 and | y| = 0
Thus in all the cases x + y must be an even number.
⇒ x = 0 and y=0
9 pq = p − q + 9
So there is only one solution for the expression
i.e. ( x, y ) = (0, 0) ⇒ pq + q = p + 9
⇒ q ( p + 1) = p + 9
239 (26 )6 × 23 646 × 8 256 × 8
5 → → → →  p + 9
39 39 39 39 ⇒ q= 
 p + 1
(625)3 × 8 (1)3 × 8 8
→ →
39 39 39 Now since p is an integer such that q is a fraction.
Thus the remainder is 8. So go through options and you will find that at p = 7 q is not
(Since the final remainder can be obtained by dividing the a fraction. Hence (d) is the required answer
factors of the given number). For more information GO 7+9
Q q= = 2, which is inadmissible.
BACK TO THE BASICS. 7+1
6 The unit digit of (1 !)99 is 1 10 Option (b) is clearly invalid. Now since the difference
The unit digit of (2!)98
is 4 between these numbers = 792 = 99 × 8
The unit digit of (3!)97
is 6 Hence the difference between unit digit and hundreds
96 digit must be 8. Thus option (d) is the right choice.
The unit digit of (4 !) is 6
As 931 − 139 = 792 and 1, 3, 9 are in G.P. also.
The unit digit of (5!)95 is 0
154 QUANTUM CAT
Alternatively 15 k 2 − 25 is an odd number
(100a + 10ar + ar ) − (100ar + 10ar + a) = 792
2 2
⇒ k 2 must be even number ⇒ k must be even
⇒ 100a (1 − r ) + a (r − 1) = 792
2 2
Thus both (a) and (b) are even numbers so (d) is correct
⇒ 99a (1 − r2 ) = 792 ⇒ a (1 − r2 ) = 8 as (even)odd/even → always even number
and odd × even → even
But since 8 =1 × 8 = 2× 4 = 4 × 2= 8 ×1
16 (a + 1)(b − 1) = 625
So at a = 1, (1 − r ) = 8
2

But 625 = 1 × 625 = (a + 1) × (b − 1) ⇒ a = 0, b = 626

⇒ r2 = 9 ⇒ r = ± 3
= 5 × 125 = (a + 1) × (b − 1) ⇒ a = 4, b = 126
Therefore the digits are 1, 3 and 9.
= 25 × 25 = (a + 1) × (b − 1) ⇒ a = 24, b = 26
(Note at a = 2, 4 and 8, r2 is not a perfect square, thus
= 125 × 5 = (a + 1) × (b − 1) ⇒ a = 124, b = 6
inadmissible)
= 625 × 1 = (a + 1) × (b − 1) ⇒ a = 624, b = 2
11 The possible values can be obtained by substituting
Thus (a + b) is always equal to or greater than 50. Since the
k = 4, 6, 8, 10, K , 102 min (a + b) = 50 = (24 + 26)
 102 − 4 Alternatively (a + 1)(b − 1) = 625
Thus the number of required values =   + 1 = 50
 2 
ab + b − a − 1 = 625
12 Here k = 3, 5, 7, K , 103 ⇒ b (a + 1) − a = 626
 103 − 3 ⇒ b (a + 1) = a + 626
Thus the number of required values =   + 1 = 51
 2  (a + 626) (a + 1) + 625 625
⇒ b= = = +1
13 Q a2 − b2 = (a + b)(a − b) (a + 1) (a + 1) (a + 1)

Let us consider two odd prime numbers as 3 and 29. Let us consider a = 4 then b = 126. Thus the only suitable
Then, (29) − 3 = (29 + 3)(29 − 3)
2 2 option is (b) since option (c) and (d) are wrong.
And at a = 24, b = 26 ⇒ a + b = 50, which is least possible
= 32 × 26, which is divisible by 13. answer because in this case when the difference between a
Again consider 7 and 29, then and b is the least then (a + b) is also the least.
(29)2 − 7 2 = (29 + 7 )(29 − 7 )
17 Consider the following approach
= 36 × 22, which is divisible by 11.
Value of P Value of Q
Further consider 3 and 37, then
(37 )2 − (3)2 = 40 × 34, which is divisible by 17. 0 < p<1 p+
1
>2
p
Hence (d) is correct.
p=1 p+
1
=2
NOTE As we know odd + odd = even = odd − odd. Thus
p
consider such two numbers whose difference must be even
multiple of the required divisor. As p>1 1
p+ >2
29 − 3 = 26 = 13 × 2 p
29 − 7 = 22 = 11 × 2
37 − 3 = 34 = 17 × 2 Therefore, if p > 0, q ≥ 2 .
Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.
14 Consider the following approach:
18 ab = ba ; (a ≠ b) > 1
P Q Let us consider a = 2 and b = 4 then 24 = 42
101100 100101 16 = 16 Hence (b).
101 100
100 100
× 100 NOTE a + b = 5 is not admissible since 23 ≠ 32
101 100
100 × 100
100
and a + b = 7 is also not possible since
100100 100100 25 ≠ 52 and 34 ≠ 43 ; where a and b are greater than 1.
1. 01100 100 19 mn − nm = m + n
Since, 1. 01100 < 100, therefore P < Q . Hence, choice (b) is Consider m = 2 and n = 5, then 25 − 52 = 5 + 2, 7 = 7
the correct one Thus options (a) and (b) are wrong and option (c) is
correct.
Number System 155

20 Since 334 or 433 are not the perfect cubes hence (a) is (20)23 (3)23 (33 )7 × 32 (27 )7 × 9 (10)7 × 9
27 → → → →
wrong. Again 792, 279, 297, 972 or 927 are not the perfect 17 17 17 17 17
cubes hence (b) is also wrong. (102 )3 × 90 (15)3 × 5 225 × 75 4 ×7
Further 512 is also a perfect cube, hence (c) is the correct → → → → → 11
17 17 17 17
answer.
Hence the required remainder is 11.
Alternatively See the perfect cubes of three digits as
53 = 125, 63 = 216, 7 3 = 343, 83 = 512, 93 = 729 28 Check for all the prime numbers between 3 and 50 you will
find that option (d) is correct since all such numbers are
So the digits of 53 = 125 and 83 = 512 are same. always divisible by 8, 12 and 24.
Hence (c) is the correct answer. Because p2 − 1 = ( p + 1)( p − 1).
21 n − n = n (n − 1) = n (n + 1)(n − 1)
4 2 2 2 2
29 Since the unit digit of prime numbers = 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 9
Thus at n = 3 the given expression is divisible by 8, 4
So the unit digit of the squares of prime numbers
and 12.
Hence it is divisible by all of a, b, c. = 1, 4, 9, 5, 9, 1

22 Since (11) = 14641, hence b will always be less than 4

4 Thus 1 + 1 = 2, 4 + 1 = 5, 9 + 1 = 10, 5 + 1 = 6, 9 + 1 = 10
and 1 + 1 = 2
because 11 is the least two digit appropriate number but
Hence the possible unit digits are 2, 5, 6, 0.
14641 is a 5 digit number. Also b ≠ 1, hence b lies between
Thus 3, 7 or 9 are not possible hence (d) is correct.
1 and 4 i.e. b is equal to either 2 or 3.
Now try for suitable values of (aa) and b, we find that the 30 The required number = Number of number, which are
only possible relation is (divisible by 3 + divisible by 7 − divisible by 21)
(11)3 = 1331 Number of numbers which are divisible by 3
13 . 31 + 31 .13 = 6  198 − 3
Thus =  + 1 = 66
 3 
Hence (b) is the correct option.
Number of numbers which are divisible by 7
1 1 1 1 30 30 30 30
23 : : : = : : : = 5 : 6 : 10 : 15  196 − 7 
6 5 3 2 6 5 3 2 =  + 1 = 28
 7 
Therefore min. number of processers
= (5 + 6 + 10 + 15) = 36 Number of numbers which are divisible by 21
Hence (d) is correct.  189 − 21
=  +1=9
24 (392)n − (392)n − 1 = (392)n − 1 [ 392 − 1]  21 
= 392( n − 1)(391) Thus the number of divisible numbers = (66 + 28 − 9 ) = 85
Now since 13 is not the factor of either 391 or 392. Hence the number of numbers which are not divisible
Hence (c) is the required answer. = 200 − 85 = 115
25 Let the fair (i.e., charge) per km be ` x, then the total Hence (a) is the correct answer.
distance travelled by Mr. Chaalu is ( x + 1). 31 Only one value of P is possible, which is 2. At P = 2,
Hence the total expenses = x .( x + 1) P 2 + 3 = 7, which is also prime.
but x ( x + 1) ≤ 350 Again at P = 3, 5, 7, 11, K
Thus the greatest possible value of x = 18 P 2 + 3 = an even number which can not be a prime
Hence 18 × 19 = 342 number.
Thus he is left with ` 8 only. 32 Let there be x bangles at each side, then the total number
26 The numbers of times he pressed the keys for one digit of bangles he had = x 2 + 38
number = 9 If he increases the size of the square by one unit at each
The number of times he pressed the keys for two digit side, then the total number of bangles
numbers = 90 × 2 = 180 = ( x + 1)2 − 25
The numbers of times he pressed the keys for three digit
numbers = 900 × 3 = 2700 Thus x 2 + 38 = ( x + 1)2 − 25
The number of times he pressed the keys for the numbers x 2 + 38 = x 2 + 1 + 2x − 25
1000 to 1999 is 1000 × 4 = 4000
⇒ 2x = 62 ⇒ x = 31
Then total number of times the keys are pressed = 6889
Thus total number of bangles = x 2 + 38 = 961 + 38 = 999
156 QUANTUM CAT
Alternatively Go through options. Consider a suitable 41. Let the height of my son increases x cm per year then the
value from the options and check that in each case it must height at the end of 2002 = 6 x + 90
produce a perfect square number. and the height at the end of 2003 = 7 x + 90
As 999 − 38 = 961 is a perfect square 1
but 7 x + 90 = (6 x + 90) + (6 x + 90)
and 999 + 25 = 1024 is also a perfect square. 9
a = 20 and b = 15 10
33 Let ⇒ (7 x + 90) = (6 x + 90) ×
9
a + b = 35, which is not divisible by 10.
⇒ 63x + 810 = 60 x + 900
34 At a = 7 and b = 2 , the following number becomes
⇒ 3x = 90
755238792, which is divisible by both 7 and 2.
x = 30 cm
But the other values of (a, b) are also possible. Consider
Thus the height at the end of 2008 = 90 + 12x
a = 4 and b = 2 , a = 8, b = 2 etc.
So there is no any unique value of a and b. Hence (d). = 90 + 12 × 30 = 450 cm

35. Any number of the form ‘‘abcabc’’ must be divisible by 1001 42. Let the cost of watch be ` x
or its factors (i.e. 1001 = 7 × 13 × 11). Then the total amount for 12 months except ration
= 250 + x
Therefore, (a) and (b) are correct. Hence (d) is the most
3
appropriate statement. Therefore the amount for 9 months = (250 + x ) ×
4
36 Let suppose a → odd, and b → even 3
Thus (250 + x ) = 270
then odd even × even odd = odd × even = even 4
Even if a is even and b is odd, the result is an even ⇒ 750 + 3x = 1080
number. ⇒ 3x = 330
37 Let there be n rows, then the number of trees in each row ⇒ x = 110
= (n + 1) Therefore the cost of wrist watch = 110
Thus total number of trees = n (n + 1) (It can also be solved using options.)
∴ n (n + 1) = 5550 43. 12 + 32 = 10
Now, at this moment this problem can be solved in two 13 + 18 = 31
ways. First by finding the roots of quadratic equation.
Second by using the values from options. 44. When two ‘‘two digit’’ numbers are added and the resultant
Again since the value of (n + 1) is given in the options so value is a ‘three digit number’’, it means there must be a
consider option (d) carry over (i.e. the sum of the unit digits be greater than 9.
Similarly the sum of the tens digit is also greater than 9.)
74 (75) = 5550.
Hence (d) is correct as 72 + 27 = 99 is inadmissible, but
Hence (d) is correct.
64 + 46 = 110 is an admissible value.
38 3a = 9b
45. ‘A’ grade student = 57 .142857 %
⇒ a = 2b
 1
and 4( a + b + 2) b = 16ab = 57 + %
 7 
⇒ (a + b + 2) b = 2ab =
400 4
% = of the total student
⇒ a + b + 2 = 2a 7 7
⇒ a−b=2 ‘B’ grade student = 26. 444 %
⇒ b=2 (Q a = 2b)  4 238
= 26 + % = %
∴ a=4  9 9
238
39. These numbers are 11, 13, 31, 17, 71, 37, 73, 79, 97. = of the total student
900
40. Since he has covered twice the distance which he is yet to Now the total students of ‘A’ and ‘B’ grade
2 4 238 3600 + 1666 5266
cover. It means he has covered of the whole journey and = + = =
3 7 900 6300 6300
1
remaining journey is rd. 2633
3 = of the total student
3150
Number System 157

∴The number of students who achieved the grade ‘C’ 54. Q 5400 = 23 × 33 × 52
2633 To get a perfect square, there must be even number of
=1 − = 517 students
3150 powers of each prime factor.
Since the maximum number of students are below 3500. So the least such perfect square = 23 × 33 × 52 × 2 × 3
So there cannot be the number of students in the multiples
= 32400
of 3150.
Thus we have to multiply it by 6 in order to get a perfect
46 3 16 5 square.
15 55 At x = 0 and 1 the valid relation is
1
Remainder is odd. px q(1 − x ) = px + q (1 − x )

47 551 + 552 + 553 + K + 559 + 560 Hence (b).

= (500 + 500 + 500 … 10 times) 56 3780 − 2835 = 945

3780 + 2835 6615
+ (51 + 52 + 53 + … + 60) Now = =7
945 945
= 5000 + (50 + 50 + 50 … 10 times)
1  1 1
+ (1 + 2 + 3 + … + 10) 57 ( x + y )−1 .( x −1 + y −1 ) = ⋅ + 
(x + y )  x y
= 5000 + 500 + 55 = 5555
1  x + y 1
48. x2 + x = x3 − x =  = = ( xy )−1
( x + y )  xy  xy
⇒ x 3 − x 2 − 2x = 0
⇒ x ( x 2 − x − 2) = 0 58 In every set there is only one such relation exists, as if p = 3,
⇒ x = 0 or x2 − x − 2 = 0 k=2
x − x − 2= 0
2 k2 4
If Then the remainder is 1 when =
p 3
⇒ ( x − 2)( x + 1) = 0
⇒ x = 2 or x = − 1 Similarly if p=7 and k = 6
Thus x = 2 is the possible value of x. k 2 36
Then the remainder is 1 when = etc.
Hence (b). p 7
Alternatively Go through options
Hence k is always ( p − 1).
22 + 2 = 23 − 2
6=6 59 Go through options Consider the correct option (c).
1
49 As we have seen in the above problem that the equation is Number of absent students = 2700 × = 300
9
a 3 degree equation. Hence there are 3 solutions for x, viz.
x = 0, 2 and − 1. ∴ Number of students appeared in exam = 2400
19
50 The required number of digits written as the thousands Number of students who passed = 2400 × = 1900
digit = 101 24
The required number of digits written as the hundreds Thus number of failed students = 2400 − 1900 = 500
digit = 99 Hence presumed option is correct.
The required number of digits written as the tens digit = 10 5
Alternatively Failed students = 500 =
The required number of digits written as the unit digit = 10 24
Thus total number of 3-digits = 220 19
∴ Passed students = = 1900
51. (219 + 1) = (219 + 119 ) 24
Now, 219 + 119 is divisible by 3 (= 2 + 1) Thus the number of students appeared in exam
8
Since (a + b ) is always divisible by (a + b), when ‘ n’ is
n n
= 2400 =
9
odd.
2400 × 9
Again since (219 + 1) is an odd number, hence no any even ∴ Total number of students registered = = 2700
8
number can divide it. Hence, (a) is the correct option.
Alternatively Let the x students have registered for the
52. Except 467, all the remaining numbers are divisible by 3.
exam then the number of students who have appeared in
53. Q 1001 = 7 × 11 × 13 x 8x
exam = x − =
Hence (b). 9 9
158 QUANTUM CAT
4n
8 x 19 19 x 70 The unit digit of (316)3
Again the number of passed students = × = is always 6.
9 24 27 34 n
So the unit digit of (316) + 1 will be 7.
5x
Thus the number of failed students = = 500
27 71 a + b = 18
⇒ x = 2700 So maximum of (a × b) will be only when a = b
km ∴ a=b=9
60 km < kn ⇒ <1
kn ∴ Maximum of a × b = 9 × 9 = 81
Since for any value of k the above relation is true thus we
72 Let the smallest possible number be x, then
can’t specify that whether for k < 0, or k > 0 this is true.
x = 15k + 12
Hence (d).
and x = 8l + 5
61 Rational + Irrational = Irrational Number
⇒ 15k + 12 = 8l + 5
62 In first 1122 years ‘Decay’ becomes 40 gm
⇒ 15k + 7 = 8l
In next 1122 years ‘Decay’ becomes 20 gm
15k + 7
In next 1122 years ‘Decay’ becomes 10 gm ⇒ l= ,
8
and In last 1122 years ‘Decay’ becomes 5 gm
l must be an integer putting k = 1, 2, 3, … etc.
63 Vinod gets 210 marks and failed by 40 marks
2 But at k = 7, we get a number which on being divided by 8,
It means the min. marks required = 250 = th of total. gives ‘l’ as an integer.
5
5 So x = 15 × 7 + 12
Therefore maximum (or total) marks = 250 × = 625
2 ⇒ x = 117
1 7 The next higher numbers = (L.C.M. of divisors) m + 117
3
7
64 Marks in QA : Marks in English = 2 = 2 = = (L.C.M. of 15 and 8) m + 117
1 1 2
= 120 m + 117
 7
Thus his marks in QA = 70  = 90 ×  So consider the highest possible value of m such that
 9
65 72 72 120m + 117 ≤ 9999 (largest possible number of four digits)
+ 27 and − 27 Thus at m = 82, the value of 120m + 117 = 9957, which is
99 45 the required number.
Alternatively Go through options.
But we are not sure whether it is larger or smaller number
so (d) is the most appropriate answer. It is very obvious from the options that the options (a), (c)
and (d) are wrong because when you multiply any number
66 Go back to the Basics. (Refer Indices) by 15, it will give the unit digit either 0 or 5 and when you
67 12 × 63 = 756 and 21 × 36 = 756 add 12 to this product the unit digit will be either 2 or 7.
Or in other way divide the values in the given options by 8
68 The best way to consider the values from given range in
and it must leave the remainder 5.
options. Thus option (a) is obviously ruled out since at
p = − 1 the relation is undefined. Similarly if we consider 73 Go through alternatives. Consider option (b)
1 p Total mobiles = 600
option (d) then at p = − , = − 1, which is wrong.
2 p−1 5
Indian mobiles = 600 × = 250
Thus (b) is also wrong. 12
Hence (c) is correct. 7
and imported mobiles = 600 × = 350
69 The form of the required number is 14k + 8 12
1
but when 14k + 8 is divided by 7, then The coloured mobiles of Indian origin = 250 × = 50
5
14k + 8 14k + (7 + 1) (14k + 7 ) + 1
= = The coloured mobiles which are imported
7 7 7
2
Thus the remainder will be 1. = 350 × = 100
7
NOTE 14k is already divisible by 7 and thus 14k + 7 will Thus total coloured mobiles = 50 + 100 = 150, which is
also be divisible by 7.
same as given in the problem. Hence the presumed option
Remember In this type of problem just divide the is correct.
existing remainder and get the required answer. As Alternatively Solve through equation.
8
→ Remainder is 1.
7
Number System 159

74 The minimum time internal when the call centre receives 78 xAy → x + y
the calls from all the destinations at the same time xSy → x − y
= the L.C.M. of 10, 12, 20 and 25 xMy → x × y
= 300 minutes = 5 hours xDy → x ÷ y
Thus 5 + 5 = 10 A.M. and 10 + 5 = 15 = 3 : 00 P.M. 4D 2S 3M 6 A12 = 4 ÷ 2 − 3 × 6 + 12
Hence (d). = 2 − 3 × 6 + 12 = 2 − 18 + 12 = − 4
75 H.C.F. of 24, 82, 162, 203 = 24 79 Go through options :
L.C.M. of 24, 82, 162, 203 = 28 × 125 = 32, 000 L.C.M. of 204 and 170 = 1020.

76 Go through options. Consider option (b) 80 1 − 3 + 5 − 7 + 9 − 11 + … + 197 − 199

15192327 − 84 = 15192243 = (− 2) + (− 2) + (− 2) + … + (− 2) [50 times]
Now, (3 + 2 + 9 + 5) − (4 + 2 + 1 + 1) = 11 = 50 × (− 2) = − 100, Hence (d).
and 1 + 5 + 1 + 9 + 2 + 2 + 4 + 3 = 27  1  1  1  1  1
81 1 −  1 −  1 −  1 −  K 1 − 
 2  3  4  5  n
Thus 15192243 is divisible by both 11 & 9, therefore by 99.
Thus the presumed remainder 84 is correct. 1 2 3 4 (n − 2) (n − 1) 1
= × × × ×… × × =
2 3 4 5 (n − 1) n n
77. The total numbers (integers) between 1 and 200 = 198
x Max. of x 2 1
The number of numbers divisible by 2 = 99 (2, 4, 6, … , 198) 82 Minimum of = = =
y Min. of y 32 16
The number of numbers which are purely divisible by 3 but
not by 2. x Max. of x 8 1
and Maximum of = = =
(Since the division by 2 is already taken into account) y Min. of y 16 2
(195 − 3) 83 56 = 1 × 56 ⇒ H.C.F. is 1, therefore number of tiles = 56
= + 1 = 33 (3, 9, 15, 21, …, 195)
6
2 × 28 ⇒ H.C.F. is 2, therefore number of tiles = 1 × 14 = 14
The number of numbers which are purely divisible by 5 but
4 × 14 ⇒ H.C.F. is 2, therefore number of tiles = 2 × 7 = 14
not by 2 and 3
7 × 8 ⇒ H.C.F. is 1, therefore number of tiles = 7 × 8 = 56
(195 − 5)  195 − 15 
= + 1 −  + 1 = 20 − 7 = 13 Threfore, the minimum number of tiles can be 14. Hence (c)
 10   30  is correct option.
Thus the total number of numbers lying between 1 and 9x
200, which are divisible by 2, 3 or 5 = 99 + 33 + 13 = 145. 84 x+ = 221 ⇒ x = 68 metre
4
NOTE In III case we did not consider 10, 20, 30, … etc. for 9
and x = 153 metre
the division of 5 because these numbers have already been 4
divided by 2. Thus the difference between two parts
Alternatively So the required number = 153 − 68 = 85 metre
85 Total prime numbers between 1 and 100 = 25 
= (53 + 13 + 26) + (27 + 13 + 7 ) + 6 = 145  46
And total prime numbers between 101 and 200 = 21 
2 33 636 (63 )12 (216)12 112
3 86 → → → → 1 is the remainder.
99 215 215 215 215
1213
53
27
26 66 87 → Remainder is 1.
11
6 2313
13 7 → Remainder is 1.
11
19 13 (1213 + 2313 )
13 ∴ The remainder of is (1 + 1) = 2 .
11
88 The least possible number = (L.C.M. of 4, 5, 6, and 7) + 3
39
5 = 420 + 3 = 423
The next higher number = (420m) + 3
(for more clarification of the solution see the chapter of set
Now put the least possible value of m such that
theory or the example discussed in the theory of this same
(420m + 3) ≥ 1000
chapter.)
So at m = 3, the required value = 1260 + 3 = 1263
160 QUANTUM CAT
Alternatively Options (a) and (b) are ruled out since 94 13 999999 76923
91
when we divide these numbers by 5 they do not leave the 89
remainder 3. 78
Again check the option (c) instead of (d) because we are 119
117
required to find out the smallest possible number. 29
26
89 1331 > 3113 39
39
1331 3113 ×
>
1313 1313 Thus abcde = 76923
1318 > (2. 4)13 ∴ a + b + c + d + e = 7 + 6 + 9 + 2 + 3 = 27
Hence it is correct. 95 n + (n + 2) + (n + 4) = 3n + 6 = 3 (n + 2),
Again 10100 < 10010 where n = 2, 4, 6, …
10100 < (102 )10 So it is always divisible by 12. Hence (d).
10 100
< 10 20
(which is wrong) 96 Since we know that (a + b ) = (a + b)(a + ab + b2 ),
3 3 2

Again, 232 < 322 which is divisible by (a + b). Therefore it leaves no any
remainder.
232 < (25 )2
97 N = n (n + 1)(n + 2)(n + 3)(n + 4)
232 < 210 (which is also wrong)
at n = 1, N = 120 = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5
Hence (d) is the correct option.
n = 2, N = 720 = 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6
90 Since it is not clear that which particular numbers are odd n = 3, N = 2520 = 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 7
and which are even.
n = 4, N = 6720 = 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 × 8 etc.
So we can’t say about options (a), (c) and (d). Again in
Therefore the possible number is 120.
option (b) there are 1 more than half of the total numbers,
so we can infer that there must be at least one even 98. ( x − y )2 = x 2 + y 2 − 2xy = 25 − 24 ⇒ ( x − y ) = ± 1
number. Similarly (x + y ) = ± 7
Further we know that the product with even number is
So, solving for x and y, we get
always even
x = − 3, − 4, 3 and 4
i.e. even × odd = even
and y = − 4, − 3, 4 and 3
and even × even = even
−1 1 1 7
−1 −7
Thus option (b) is confirm. Thus x + y = + = and
x y 12 12
91 (43 and 387) and (129, 301) Hence (d).
43k + 43l = 430 75 75

⇒ 43 (k + l) = 430 7575 175

99 = → Remainder is 1.
⇒ k + l = 10 37 37
But k, l must be coprimes. p2 + 17 ( p2 + 5)
100 → Now since p2 = 12m + 1.
So (k, l) = (1, 9) and (3, 7 ) 12 12
p2 + 5 (12m + 1) + 5 12m + 6
92 2 − 2 − 271 = 271 (22 − 21 − 1)
73 72
Therefore → →
12 12 12
= 271 (4 − 2 − 1) = 271
Hence the remainder is 6.
93 Since we know that if a + b + c = 0, then 101 The unit digit of (12345k )72 is 6.
a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc Means the unit digit of k72 is 6.
Hence 553 + 17 3 − 723 = 3 × 55 × 17 × (− 72) Now, go through options and verify
672 → unit digit is 6
= − (3 × 5 × 11 × 17 × 23 × 32 )
872 → unit digit is 6
Thus the given number is divisible by 3, 17, 40, 11 and 15. 272 → unit digit is 6
Hence (d) is the most appropriate answer.
Hence (d).
Number System 161

102 Go through options: If you subtract 2, 8 or 25 from 369, ⇒ b2 = 53

then you will not obtain a perfect cube number. So (b) is then a = b4 = 56
the correct answer.
∴ ab2 = 56 × 53 = 59, which is correct.
Alternatively If you write down the nearest perfect
Thus the presumed option (b) is correct.
cube such that k ≤ 369, where k is a perfect cube, then
Option (a) is clearly wrong and option (c) is also wrong.
7 3 = 343, which is just below 369.
Because a3/ 2 = b2/ 3 ⇒ a9/ 6 = b4/ 6 ⇒ a < b, which is in-
So 369 − 343 = 26
admissible.
103 n (n + 2) = 624
110 24 = 8 × 3, so the given number must be divisible by both
From options, 24 × 26 = 624 8 & 3.
Otherwise, find the roots of quadratic equation Now for 8, n = 1, 5, 9
n2 + 2n − 624 = 0. Again for 3, when n = 1 then m = 3, 6, 9
1719 × 1715 × 1713 2 × 15 × 13 30 × 13 13 × 13 and when n = 5 then m = 2, 5, 8
104 → → → and when n = 9 then m = 1, 4, 7
17 17 17 17
169 Thus there are total 9 combinations of m and n.
→ → 16, is the required remainder. x y
17 111 Let the fraction be , then its reciprocal be ,
12.5 12.5 × 6 y x
105 = =75
1/ 6 1 x
y x2
106 32k − 23k = 315 ∴ = 2
y y
⇒ 9k = 315 ⇒ k = 35 x
∴ The original product = 23 × 35 = 805 x 2 x x 3 512 83
Now × = = =
x y 2 y y 3 125 53
107. Let the fraction be , then
y
x 8
2 ⇒ =
 x x2 y 5
  = 2
 y y y 5
∴ =
2 2 x 8
x x y 8 5 64 − 25 39
3 10 x 2
then = ∴ − = − = =
1 2 3y 2 y x 5 8 40 40
y
5
112 Consider the values as 441 − 41 = 400
10 x 2 x
Thus 2
=2 And, 441 + 43 = 484
3y y
So, 41 + 43 = 84, which is divisible by 4.
x 3
⇒ = 113 (11)a = (19)b = (209)c = z
y 5
Hence x + y = 3+ 5= 8 ⇒ 11 = z1/ a , 19 = z1/ b, 209 = z1/ c

108 The required number Therefore 11 × 19 = 209

= H.C.F. of (221−104), (377−221), (377−104) z1/ a × z1/ b = z1/ c = z(1/ a + 1/ b) = z1/ c
= H.C.F. of 117, 156, 273 = 39 ⇒
1 1 1
+ =
a b c
109 2 1/ 3
(ab ) = 125 = 5
3

⇒ c (a + b) = ab
⇒ ab = (53 )3
2
254
− 1 (26 )9 − 1 (64)9 − 1
⇒ ab = 5
2 9 114 = =
9 9 9
Now since a ≠ b ≠ 1 and (a, b) > 1. (1)9 − 1
⇒ ⇒0
Therefore a and b must be equal to some power of 5. 9
Again since a > b, so check the option (b). Hence there will be no any remainder.
Consider a = b4
115 64 is the only number which is both a perfect square and a
∴ ab2 = 59 perfect cube.
⇒ b6 = 59 So 6 + 4 = 10.
162 QUANTUM CAT
116 The only possible number is 729 which is the cube of 9 and 123 Go through options
square of 27. 36 = 4 × 9 = (2)2 × (3)2
So 7 × 2 × 9 = 126 3, 6, 9 are in G.P.; 9 = (3 + 6)
117 In order to make sure N be a least possible number c < b < a. 36 + 27 = 63
But, c ≠ 1, since a ≠ b ≠ c. 124 7777 + 7777 × 7777 × (5 ÷ 77 ) × (11 ÷ 35)
So the least possible value of c = 2, then 5 11
= 7777 + 7777 × 7777 × ×
c8 = 28 = 256 = 44 = 162 77 35
Thus a = 16, b = 4 and c = 2 the required number is 256. = 7777 + 1111 × 1111
118 Go through options. = 7777 + 1234321 = 1242098
119 There are only 4 digits whose square also gives the same Hence (d) is the answer.
unit digit which are 0, 1, 5 and 6. 125 Go through options
But the number whose unit digit is 0 (zero), this number 7 8 113
+ =
also makes the tense digit zero after squaring. Again it 8 7 56
means the tens digit of the original number be zero. Now if 8 7 15
and − =
we square such a number whose tens and unit digits are 7 8 56
zero, this number gives 4 zeros (at least) on the end of the 1 113
square which is not possible since 000 can not be considered
Alternatively a+ =
a 56
a relevent number. Thus zero cannot be the unit digit. Now, 1 15
if we consider unit digit 1 and any digit except zero. and a− =
a 56
NOTE Zero shows the same behaviour as in the first Solve these equations.
case), then unit digit remains the same on being squared the x
given number but tens digit gets changed so, 1 as a unit digit 126 Let be the fraction, then
y
is also impossible.
x+4 1
Now if we consider 6 as probable unit digit, similar =
y 3
behaviour is seen with 6 also.
x 1
Thus, if we consider 5 as a unit we always get 5 as a unit and = ⇒ 3x + 12 = y
y+3 6
digit after squaring any number whose unit digit is 5. Also
we always get the 2 as the tens digit when we square any and 6x = y + 3
number whose unit digit is 5. Now to maintain the tens ⇒ x = 5 and y = 27
digit ‘2’ we consider a number whose tens and unit digits Thus x + y = 32
be respectively 2, 5. Now if we square to 25, we get a three 127 Go through options and subtract the reasonable value from
digit number 625. It means if it is possible, then the three 7777 and see that whether the resultant number is a perfect
digit number must be 625. square.
Now, (625)2 = 390625, Alternatively n 2 ≤ 777 ⇒ n 2 = 7744
which satisfies the given conditions. Hence 33 (= 7777 − 7744) chairs are required to remove
Now 3 × 9 × 0 × 6 × 2 × 5 = 0 from that place.
Hence (a) is correct.
128 pr . p−1. p s = ( p3 )2
120. 3 + 4 → 9
6n 6n 3n
+ 16 3n
⇒ pr + s −1
= p3
Now 93n + 163n is divisible by 25 (= 9 + 16)
⇒ r + s −1 = 3
Since (an + bn) is divisible by (a + b) only when ‘n’ is odd.
⇒ r+ s=4 …(i)
Hence n must be odd. Again p3/ 2. pr = p s. p− 1/ 2
121. 5 100 ⇒ pr + 3/ 2 = p s − 1/ 2
5 20
24 3 1
4 ⇒ r+ =s−
2 2
Number of zeros = 24
⇒ r−s=−2 …(ii)
122. 3 41 ⇒ r = 1 and s = 3
3 13 Thus (r + s )r + s = (4)4 = 256
3 4 18
1 Hence (d).
41 ! = 3
18
×k ×l
a b
Number System 163

129 5− k =
1
⇒ l = 5k Now, inorder to have the difference maximum, a × c will be
l maximum and b ×d will be minimum. Therefore
53k = (5k )3 = (l)3 a × c = 9 × 8 = 72
Hence (c) is correct. and b× d =1 × 2= 2
130 5x − 1 + 5x + 5x + 1 = 775 Hence 99 (ac − bd ) = 99 (72 − 2) = 99 × 70 = 6930

⇒ 5x − 1 (1 + 5 + 52 ) = 775 138 12600 = 23 × 32 × 52 × 7

⇒ 5x − 1 (31) = 775 Required value = 2( n − 1) = 2( 4 − 1) = 23 = 8
⇒ 5x − 1 = 25 = 52 where n → number of prime factors.
Here 2, 3, 5, 7 are total 4 prime factors.
⇒ x −1 = 2 ⇒ x=3
139 Go through options.
131 The perfect square digits are 1, 4 and 9.
So the number formed by using any of these two digits 140 (2123 − 2122 − 2121 ) × (3234 − 3233 − 3232 )
which is also a perfect square is 49. = 2121 (22 − 2 − 1) × 3232 (32 − 3 − 1)
where (4 × 9) + (4 + 9) = 49
= 2121 (1) × 3232 × 5
36 + 13 = 49 ⇒ 49 = 49
= 2121 × 3232 × 51
So, 94 − (9 + 4) = 81
132 Consider some consecutive values. Therefore there will be only one zero at the end of the
product.
133 25930800 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7
4 3 2 2
1  1 x2 + 1  x 2 − 1
So, if this number is divided by 3, then we get the quotient 141 x + = 3x −  ⇒ = 3 
x  x x  x 
as a perfect square.
134 Let the Arun has x books and Prabhat has y books with ⇒ 2x 2 = 4 ⇒ x2 = 2 ⇒ x=± 2
them, then Hence, (a) is correct.
2 ( x − 3) = ( y + 3) ⇒ 2x − 6 = y + 3
142 Go through options Then consider option (c). As,
⇒ 2x − y = 9 …(i)
2 × (14)2 − 25 × 14 = 3 × 14
and ( x + 2) = ( y − 2)
⇒ x−y=−4 …(ii) Alternatively Let the age of the lad be x then
Solving eqs. (i) and (ii), we get x = 13 and y = 17 thus 2x 2 − 25x = 42
x + y = 30.
⇒ 2x 2 − 25x − 42 = 0
Alternatively Go through options.
Consider Option (c) Now, either solve this quadratic equation to get the answer
15 15 or put the appropriate value from the option to get the
2 Books (Solve in reverse) required answer.
13 17 143 Check through options: As, (5 + 3) + (52 + 32 ) = 42
5 × 3 = 15
3 Books
and
10 20
144 Check through alternatives: As,
1 2
Arun Prabhat =
0 −1 0 − 2
136 Weight of Bottle + Total volume of water = 1600 gm
1 2 1
1 ⇒ = =
Weight of Bottle + volume of water = 900 gm −1 −2 −1
3
Option (a) and (b) are clearly inadmissible.
2
⇒ volume of water = 700 gm 1 2
3 Alternatively =
x −1 x − 2
3
⇒ total volume of water = 700 × = 1050 gm
2 ⇒ x − 2 = 2x − 2 ⇒ x = 0
∴ The weight of empty bottle = 550 gm a b 1
145 Q × =
= (1600 − 1050) b2 a2 ab
Now, consider option (d).
137 (10a + b) × (10c + d ) − (10b + a) × (10d + c)
1 1  1  1
= (100a. c + 10b. c + 10a. d + b. d ) + = 2  =
2ab 2ab  2ab ab
− (100b. d + 10b. c + 10a. d + a. c)
Hence, (d) is the appropriate option.
= 99 (a. c − b. d )
164 QUANTUM CAT
146 Substitute the value of x and y in the given expression 154 Given that ab + bc + ca = 0
(6 + 3) 6/ 3
= 9 = 812
Now a2 − bc = a2 + ab + ca [Q − bc = ab + ca]

147 Go back to the Basic. As 3

2 is a real number but not a ⇒ a − bc = a(a + b + c)
2

rational number. Similarly b2 − ca = b(a + b + c)

148 Total number of lines (in one bound) and c2 − ab = c(a + b + c)
= [Number of lines per page 1 1 1
∴ + +
× Number of page per chapter a2 − bc b2 − ca c2 − ab
× Number of chapter per book 1 1 1
× Number of books per bound] = + +
a(a + b + c) b(a + b + c) c(a + b + c)
= 60 × 125 × 5 × 20 = 750000
1 1 1 1 
3000000 = + +
∴ Number of bounds = =4 a + b + c  a b c 
750000
1  bc + ac + ab 
Hence, there are total 4 bounds. =   = 0 [Q ab + bc + ac = 0]
a+ b+ c abc
149 1+ 1=2
155 Check the options for the given condition. 10080 fulfills all
4+ 4=6
the requirements.
9 + 9 = 12
156 s 2 + (s − 1)2 + (s − 3)2 + (s − 5)2
16 + 16 = 20
2 2 2 2
25 + 25 = 30  9 7  3  −1   9
=  +  +  +  Q 2s = 9 ⇒ s = 2 
36 + 36 = 42  2  2  2  2

Thus, we get the unit digits as 0, 2 and 6 only. 81 49 9 1

= + + + = 35
4 4 4 4
Hence (c) is the correct option.
Hence, (d) is the correct option.
150 Since (10N − 1) = (102n − 1)
157 Q x a × x b × x c = 1 ⇒ x a + b + c = 1 = x 0
= (102 )n − 1 = (100)n − 1
⇒ a+ b+ c=0
So, = 100n − 1n = (100 − 1)[ X ] = 99 [ X ]
Now since a + b + c3 − 3abc
3 3

Thus, for any even power it is divisible by 11. i . e. , N = 2n.

= (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 − ab − bc − ac)
Hence, (a) is the correct option.
⇒ a3 + b3 + c3 − 3abc = 0
 1  1  1  1
151 1 +  1 +  1 +  … 1 +  ∴ a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc
 3  4  5  n
4 5 6 n  n + 1 n + 1 Hence, (d) is the right choice.
= × × ×… × =
3 4 5 (n − 1)  n  3 158 376 − 358 = 18, 358 − 232 = 126, 376 − 232 = 144
Hence, (a) is the correct option. Now, the HCF of 18, 126 and 144 = 18
152 ( x )3 = (21/ 3 + 2−1/ 3 )3 = 2 + 2−1 + 3 × 21/ 3 × 2−1/ 3 ( x ) Hence, 18 and all its factor can fulfill the required
1 condition. But 9 is the greatest available such number.
= 2 + + 3x
2 Hence, (d) is the correct choice.
5 Alternatively According to the given condition go
⇒ x 3 − 3x = ⇒ 2 ( x 3 − 3x ) = 5
2 through options starting with the greatest value from the
⇒ 2x 3 − 6 x = 5 choices available and see the remainders must be same.
Hence, (a) is the correct answer. 159 The required number = (LCM of 2, 3, 4, 5, 6) k + 1 = 7 l
153 Q (s − a) + (s − b) + (s − c) + s − a − b − c
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 60k + 1
= 60k + 1 = 7 l ⇒ =l
7
= s + a − 2as + s + b − 2bs + s + c − 2cs
2 2 2 2 2 2

Now put the least possible value of k such that l must be a

+ s 2 − a2 − b2 − c2
positive integer. Hence at k = 5, l is an integer. Thus, the
= 4s 2 + (a2 + b2 + c2 ) − 2s (a + b + c) − (a2 + b2 + c2 ) required value is 60 × 5 + 1 = 301.
= 4s 2 − 2s (a + b + c) 160 The required time = LCM of 36, 40 and 48
= 4s 2 − 4s 2 = 0 [Q 2s = (a + b + c)] = 720 second = 12 minutes
Hence, (d) is the correct option. Hence, (b) is the right choice.
Number System 165

 1 1  x y x 2
161 1 −  = 4 y − x 4 3− 2 Q = ⇒ = 
 2 2 170 + = + 2 3 y 3
5 y + x 5 3+ 2 
 
1 1 1  ⇒ x = 2 and y = 3
Now × =
2 3 6 4 1 5
1 1 1 = + = =1
Thus 1− − = 5 5 5
2 6 3
Hence, (c).
Thus, (a)is the correct answer.
5A
162 See question number 63 or see the list of formulae and 171 4A + = 85
3
then solve it. A
⇒ A = 15 ⇒ =5
163 a = bx = (c y )x = (c)xy = (az )xy = axyz 3
Thus a = axyz ⇒ xyz = 1 Hence, the cost of child ticket = ` 5. Thus (a) is the correct
option.
Hence, (c).
x x+1
164 See the question number 37. Hence (c). 172 Let the fraction be , then =4 …(i)
y y+1
165 x −1
and =7 …(ii)
Q 2 7 y −1
2 3 →1 Solving eqs. (i) and (ii),
2 1 →1 x = 15 and y=3
0 →1 Hence, (d) is correct.
173 The required number must be a factor of
Thus (7 )10 = (111)2
= 34041 − 32506 = 1535
166 The required number
Now since 1535 = 5 × 307
= HCF of (398 − 7 ), (436 − 11) and (542 − 15)
So, clearly 307 is the required number because it has
= HCF of (391, 425 and 527) = 17
3 digits and is also a prime number.
Hence, (b) is the right choice.
403 + 434 + 465
Alternatively If your speed of calculation is very fast
174 Minimum number of corks =
HCF of (403, 434, 465)
then pickup the suitable option and then divide the given
1302
numbers and see the required result. = = 42
31
167 Best way is to go through options. Consider option (c) Hence, (c). For detailed discussion go back to examples.
Correct answer = 20, marks for correct answer = 60
So wrong answer = 10, marks for wrong answer = −20 175 The required value = HCF of 49.56 and 38.94 = 3.54
∴ Net marks = 60 − 20 = 40 Therefore, the sum = ` 3.54.
Hence, presumed option is correct. Hence, (b) is correct.
Alternatively 30 × 3 − x × 5 = 40 176 The required value = LCM of 12, 30, 18, 48 = 720
90 − 5x = 40 Hence, (b).
x = 10 177 Time taken for each of three persons A, B and C is
Hence, the wrong answer = 10 6 6 6 2 12 24
Thus, the correct answer = 20 respectively , and hrs i . e. , , and hrs.
3 21 1
1 1 5 5
(for more detailed discussion see the example) 2 4
168 Total cost = Distance covered × Rate (or charge/km) 2 12 24 24
So, it is required to find the LCM of , , = = 24 hr
1 5 5 1
= x × 10 + (200 − x ) × 2
Hence, (c).
= 10 x + 400 − 2x = 8 x + 400
178 Since 3 is an irrational number.
Hence, (c).
179 p > 0 and q < 0
169 Q 540 = 22 × 33 × 5
So, the least perfect square Now, let p = 3 and q = − 4
= 22 × 34 × 52 = [(22 × 33 × 5) × (3 × 5)] therefore p − q = 3 − (−4) = 7 > 0
Hence, (b) is correct.
= 8100 Hence, (a).
166 QUANTUM CAT
180 The best way is to replace n with a suitable integral value. 184 x
( x ) = ( x x )x
x

Let us say if we substitute n = 2, we find that the given 3 

 x x
expression become ( x 2 + y 2 )( x 2 − y 2 ) = ( x 4 − y 4 ). 2  3 
⇒ x =  x
2 
Now, if we put n = 2 in the given options, we find that
choice (a) becomes ( x 4 − y 4 ). 3
3
⇒ x2 =
x
Hence, choice (a) is the valid one. 2
 1
3 3
− 
1 1 1
− ⇒ x x = x
181 x = 23 + 2 3 ⇒ x 3 =  23 + 2 3  2
 
  3
⇒ x =
 1 − 
1 2
⇒ x = 2+ 2
3 −1
+ 3(2)(2 ) 23 + 2 3 
−1
9
  ⇒ x=
 
4
1  1
⇒ x3 = 2 + + 3(2)  ( x ) Hence, choice (a) is the valid one.
2  2
185 The best way is to go through the options.
5
⇒ x3 = + 3x ⇒ 2x 3 = 5 + 6 x If we consider ( x, y ) = (1,1), we find the 5x + 3y = 8 and
2
5x −1 + 3y −1 = 2 .
Hence, choice (a) is the valid one.
Hence choice (c) is the valid one.
2 1
182 x = 3 + 33 + 33 186 Since x 2 = y 3, so choice (b) and choice (d) are invalid.
2 1 Now, let us consider choice (a), we have
⇒ x − 3 = 33 + 33 9 27
 27  4  3 4
 2 1 3   = 
 33  8  2
⇒ ( x − 3)3 = + 33 
 
  27 27
 9 8  3 4
2 1 2 1 and   = 
 4  2
⇒ x 3 − 33 − 3( x )(3)( x − 3) = 32 + 3 + 3(33 )(33 )(33 + 33 )
Hence, choice (a) is the valid one.
⇒ x 3 − 27 − 9 x 2 + 27 x = 12 + 9 ( x − 3)
  
 1  1
   
 1
 
 3 
 1 1 1
⇒ x 3 − 9 x 2 + 18 x − 12 = 0 187  ax  4  + 3a 2  x  2  + 4 x  4    a − 3a2 x 4 + 4 x 2 
   

Hence, choice (b) is the valid one.  
1
183 We know that, a3 + b3 + c3 − 3abc =  
 4
 1 1 1  1 1 1
=x  a + 3a 2 x 4 + 4 x 2   a − 3a 2 x 4 + 4 x 2 
(a + b + c)(a + b + c − ab − bc − ca)
2 2 2
   
   
When (a + b + c) = 0, we have a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc
1
 
 1 2  1 1 2
1 1 1
=x
 4  a + 4 x 2  −  3a 2 x 4  
Therefore, ( x + y + z ) = 3x 3 y 3 z 3  



 

3  
 1 1 1 1
⇒ ( x + y + z ) =  3x 3 y 3 z 3 
3    1  1 
 4



 =x (a2 + 16 x + 8ax 2 ) −  9ax 2  
  
 
⇒ ( x + y + z )3 = 27 xyz 1
 
 4
 1 
Hence, choice (b) is the valid one. =x (a2 + 16 x − ax 2 )
1 1 1  
Alternatively Let’s assume x 3 = −1, y 3 = −2, z 3 = 3  1 5 3
 
 4
⇒ x = −1, y = −8, z = 27 = a2 x + 16 x 4 − ax 4
∴ ( x + y + z )3 = (− 1 − 8 + 27 )3 = 183 Hence, Choice (a) is the valid one.
Now, by substituting the Values of x, y, z in the given 188 Given that a + b + c = 0, we can consider
options we find that a = − 1, b = 0, c = 1 and x = 2
27 xyz = 27(216) = 183 1 1 1
∴ + +
Hence, choice (b) is the valid one. x b + x −c + 1 x c + x −a + 1 x a + x −b + 1
Number System 167

=
1
+
1
+
1 (ii) 30 + 30 × 30 + 30 = 960; 960 + 1 = 961 = 312
x 0 + x −1 + 1 x 1 + x 1 + 1 x −1 + x 0 + 1 (iii) log 108 = 8 log 10 = 8; 8 + 1 = 9 = 32
2 1 2 5 2
= + + = =1 (iv) 22 = 24 = 16; 16 + 1 = 17, it is, not a perfect square.
5 5 5 5
(v) 23 = 8; 8 + 1 = 9 = 32
Hence, choice (a) is the valid one.
Therefore (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) and valid.
1
189 Given that pqr = 1, we can consider p = , q = 1, n = 2] Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
2
1 ( a − b) ( a − b)
1 1 1 Hint = =
∴ −1
+ −1
+ a + b ( a + b )( a − b ) ( a − b)
1+ p+ q 1+ q+ r 1 + r + p−1
1 1 1 2 2 1 5 193 The given summation can be expressed as following.
= + + = + + = =1 99
5 5 5 5 5 5 5
2 2 ∑ D(n) = D(1) + D(2) + D(3) +. . . . +
1
Hence, choice (a) is the valid one. D (97 ) + D (98) + D(99)
190 B + M + D + H + C + P = 100 99
(n) = 1 + 2 + 3+ . . . . + (9 + 7 ) + (9 + 8) + (9 + 9)
⇒ M + D + H + C = 45
∑
1
In order to minimize M, we have to maximize D, H and C, It implies that you have to add all the digits of all the
such that {D ≠ H ≠ C } < M . natural numbers up to 99.
Now, divide 45 by 4, as there are 4 cities (M, D, H, C). Then Since, if you observe closely, then you find that each digit
we get 11.25. Let us consider M = 12, then we cannot have is appearing 20 times.
D, H and C as three distinct integers less than 12. So the required sum = 20(1 + 2 + 3 + . . . + 7 + 8 + 9)
However, if we consider M = 13, then D, H, C can be  9 × 10
= 20  = 900
distinct integers less than 13.  2 
Hence, choice (d) is the correct one. Therefore, when 900 is divided by 99, it will leave the
191 Halwaai Babu has maximum number of gas connections. remainder 90
That means no one else has more than 7 connections. Hence, choice (d) is the correct one.
It implies that even if 8 out of the 10 suspects have distinct 194 Since, 111111 = 1001 × 111 = 7 × 11 × 13 × 3 × 37
number of gas connections {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}, still there Therefore every such number having 6 or 12 or 18 etc.
are two suspects who will have same number of digits is divisible by 3 × 7 × 11 × 13 × 37.
connections as the other 8 suspects have. Now, we have
Case (I) When the remaining two suspects have same N = 666666. . . . . . . . . 666666
14444244443
number of connections, there must be three suspects with 225 digits
same number of gas connections. N = {666666. . . . . . . . . 666666} × 1000 + 666
14444 4244444 3
Case (II) When the remaining two suspects have distinct 222 digits
number of connections, there must be at least two suspects N = {666666. . . . . . . . . 666666} × 1000 + 666
14444 4244444 3
with same number of connections. 37 × 6 digits
Therefore, at least two suspects have the same number of N = 6 × {111111. . . . . . . . .111111} × 1000 + 666
14444 4244444 3
gas connections. 37 × 6 digits
Hence, choice (d) is the correct one. The first term 6 × {111111. . . . . . . . .111111 × 1000 is
14444244443
1 1 1 1 37 × 6 digits
192 S(n) = + + +. . . +
1+ 2 2+ 3 3+ 4 n + n+1 divisible by 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 37 × 1137 × 1337 × 37 37
4 38 3

⇒ S(n) = ( 2 − 1 ) + ( 3 − 2) + ( 4 − 3) So the first term is also divisible by 455 (since,

+. . . + ( n + 1 − n ) 455 = 5 × 7 × 13). Then, the first term will give remainder 0.
⇒ S(n) = ( n + 1 − 1 ) And the second term 666 when divided by 455, it will give
remainder 211.
⇒ S(n) = n + 1 − 1
Thus the final remainder when N is divided by 455, the
Therefore S(n) will be rational when (n + 1) will be a
remainder will be 211.
perfect square.
Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.
(i) 5! = 120; 120 + 1 = 121 = 112
168 QUANTUM CAT
195 A term can be integer only when But since, n = 1200 > 600, so it’s not a possible value of n.
3n − 1 is a factor of 420. Therefore, the possible values of n = 16, 48, 80, 240, 400
The factors of 420 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 10, 12, 14, 15, 20,
n m Consecutive natural numbers Possibility
21, 28, 30, 35, 42, 60, 70, 84, 105, 140, 210 and 420.
Now, we can figure out that only 2, 5, 14, 20, 35 and 140 16 37.5 30, 31..., 37, 38, ...44, 45 Yes
can be written in the form of 3n − 1.
48 12.5 All the terms will not be natural No
Thus there are at most 6 values of 3n − 1, which are the
numbers
factors of 420, so there are at most 6 terms in the given
sequence, which are integers. 80 7.5 All the terms will not be natural No
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. numbers
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 196 and 197) If the number of students 240 2.5 All the terms will not be natural No
found cheating be n and the mean of the ticket umbers be m, numbers
then mn = 600. Being consecutive natural numbers means all
the ticket numbers form an AP. 400 1.5 All the terms will not be natural No
number
Case I When n is odd.
In this case m will also be a natural number as m is the 196 Since there are various possibilities for n, so the unique
middlemost term of the arithmetic progression. answer cannot be determined.
600 has 6 odd factors namely 1, 3, 5, 15, 25 and 75. But n must Hence, choice (d) is the correct one.
be greater than 1, so n = 3,5,15,25,75, 197 This is possible when n is even. Here you have only one
n m Consecutive natural numbers Possibility even value of n = (16). In this case, the ticket number of
Munnabhai will be 37 or 38 and that of Curkit will be 38
3 200 199, 200, 201 Yes or 37.
5 120 118, 119, 120, 121, 122 Yes Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
198 Required number of ordered pairs
15 40 33, 34, 35, .., 40, .., 45, 46, 47 Yes
(p,q) is (2 × 5 − 1)(2 × 8 − 1)(2 × 3 − 1) = 765
25 24 12, 13, 14, ..., 24, ..., 34, 35, 36 Yes
Hence choice (b) is the answer.
75 8 All the terms will not be the No 199 16 ! = 215 × 36 × 53 × 7 2 × 111 × 131
natural numbers Total number of factors = 16 × 7 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 2 = 5376
Total number of odd factors which don't have unit digit
Case II When n is even
5 = 7 × 3 × 2 × 2 = 84
In this case m must be a decimal number of the form x. 5, as m is
Number of factors which have unit digit 5 = 3 × 84 = 252
the average of the even consecutive natural numbers.
Number of factors which don't have unit digit
Now, 600 = 23 × 3 × 52
5 = 5376 − 252 = 5124
Since 8 is the factor of 600, so all the desired values of m will be
Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.
obtained when n is 16 or its multiple, but excluding 32, 64, 128,
256, 512. Hint Any factor of 36 × 72 × 111 × 311 will be an odd factor,
which has no unit digit 5.
Therefore the desired values of
If any such factor is multiplied by 51 or 52 or 53, it would
n = 16,16( 3),16( 5),16( 3 × 5),16( 5 × 5), 16( 3 × 5 × 5)
give a factor whose unit digit would be 5.
That is n = 16, 48, 80, 240, 400,1200
Number System 169

Level 02 Higher Level Exercise

1 Since these bells tolls 18 times in 24 hrs 729 = 729 = 720 + 9
24 729 = 729 = 729
So the min. time interval when they toll together =
18 where m = 3, n = 6 and p = 9
= 80 minutes ∴ m ⋅ n ⋅ p = 162
So the required number of bells 7 n + (n − 1) + (n − 2) = n (n − 1)(n − 2)
= total number of different factors of 80 ⇒ 3n − 3 = n (n − 1)(n − 2)
Now since 80 = 2 × 5
4
⇒ 3 (n − 1) = n (n − 1)(n − 2)
∴ Total number of factors = (4 + 1)(1 + 1) = 10 ⇒ n (n − 2) = 3
Thus the maximum number of bells = 10 ⇒ n = 3, − 1
But the only possible value is n = 3.
NOTE The time interval of all the bells individually will
Hence (n !)n = (3!)3 = (6)3 = 216
be the factor of 80.
8 n3 − n2 − n = n
2 Consider the following relation and compare with pq = qr
⇒ n3 − n2 − 2n = 0
24 = 42 ⇒ p = 2, q = 4, r=2
⇒ n (n2 − n − 2) = 0
⇒ q>r
⇒ n = 0 or (n2 − n − 2) = 0
Again 42 = 24 ⇒ p = 4, q = 2 , r=4
Now, if (n2 − n − 2) = 0
⇒ q<r
⇒ n = − 1, 2
So we can’t say exactly whether q < r or q > r.
∴ n = − 1, 0, 2, Hence (c).
NOTE If we know the relation between p and q then 12
only we can say about q and r. 9 =4
3
3 Hit and trial plus your intelligence and familiarity with the First of all you should know that if n1 + n2 + n3 + … = 0
numbers will help you in finding the following relation. ⇒ n1 = n2 = n3 … = 0
Now follow the given directions : Again, each term is the product of three quantities (or
7 3 − 35 = (7 + 3)5 − 3 numbers). So only one number which is equal to zero is
enough to make the product zero. Thus a particular single
343 − 243 = 102
number, which is equal to zero can make three terms zero,
100 = 100 because it is present in three consecutive terms.
Hence p + q + r = 7 + 5 + 3 = 15. For example if k3 = 0, then k1k2k3 = k2k3k4 = k3k4k5 = 0
Thus (c) is correct. and if k6 = 0, then k4k5k6 = k5k6k7 = k6k7 k8 = 0
4 Given that a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 = 1 and if k9 = 0, then k7 k8k9 = k8k9k10 = k9k10k11 = 0
Now, the maximum value of a.b.c.d will be only when and if k12 = 0, then k10k11k12 = k11k12k13 = k12k13k14 = 0
a=b=c=d =k etc.
Then a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 = 4k 2 = 1 10 32 + 34 = (32 + 1)2 − (32 + 1)
1 9 + 81 = 100 − 10
⇒ k=±
2 90 = 90
4
 1 1 and 10 + 12 = (12 + 1)2 − (12 + 1)
Now a. b. c. d = k =  ±  =
4
 2 16
1+1=4−2
Hence (c) is correct. 2= 2
5 n2 − 2 (n !) + n = 0 Alternatively n( n − 1) + n( n + 1) = (n2 + 1)2 − (n2 + 1)
⇒ n2 + n = 2 (n !) ⇒ n( n − 1)(1 + n2 ) = (n2 + 1)[(n2 + 1) − 1]
⇒ n (n + 1) = 2 (n !)
n( n − 1) = [ n2]
Now, going through options, we see that 1 and 3 are the
two possible values hence (d). ⇒ n −1 = 2 ⇒ n = 3
6 Try and find the following suitable values for the given and if n = 1, then 10 = 12 = 1
relation Thus n = 1, 3.
36 = 93 = (6 !) + 9
170 QUANTUM CAT
11 13 + (12)3 = (10)3 + (9)3 20 Numbers divisible by 5 upto 1155 = 231
1 + 1728 = 1000 + 729 Numbers divisible by 7 upto 1155 = 165
1729 = 1729 Numbers which are divisible by both 5 and 7 (i.e., 35) upto
12 8 − 5 = (8 ) − (5 ) = (64) − (25)
6 6 2 3 2 3 3 3 1155 = 33
∴ Numbers which are exactly divisible by 5 or
= (64 − 25)(642 + 252 + 64 × 25) = 39 × 6321 7 = (231 + 165) − 33 = 363
= 13 × 3 × 3 × 7 × 7 × 43 Numbers which are divisible by 5 and 11 both
So it can be divided by 13 × 7 = 91, 7 × 7 = 49, (i.e., 55) = 21
Numbers which are divisible by 7 and 11 both
3 × 43 = 129
(i.e., 77) = 15
Hence, all of these are possible.
Numbers which are divisible by 5, 7 and 11
13 Since the product of 4 prime factors = 1365 simultaneously = 3
= 3 × 5 × 7 × 13 ∴ Numbers which are only divisible by either 5 and 11 or 7
and the sum of the 3 prime factors = 25 = (5 + 7 + 13) and 11
Now, total number of factors of the required number = 21 + 15 − 3 = 33
N = 24 Hence, the total number of numbers which are divisible by
= 23 × 3 = (1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)(2 + 1) 5 or 7 but not by 11 = 363 − 33 = 330.
21 4 x + 7 y = 3
Let N can be expressed as N = 3p × 5q × 7 r × 13s
3 − 4x
Thus, in order to have N as the greatest possible number in ⇒ y= ; x, y ∈ I
7
the above expressed form, the power of the greatest prime
Now, in the given range of x and y, the least possible value
factors will be greater.
of x is − 99 and then y = 57.
So N = 3 × 5 × 7 × 132
Again the largest possible value of x is 97 and the
= 105 × 169 = 17745 corresponding value of y is –55. So in this range total
14 Obviously (as per the given options) no any odd digit will 29 solution sets are possible.
appear as the last (or unit digit). (Since the possible values of x are –99, –92, –85, … 99 and
Hence (d), since even × even = even. the possible values of y are 57, 53, 49, … –51, –55)
R (135) (135)! 22 See the following pattern :
15 =
R (100, 35) 100 × 101 × 102 × 103 × … × 135 N1 × N 2 → Unit digit N1 × N 2 → Unit digit
1 × 2 × 3 × … × 99 × 100 × 101 × 102 × … × 135 1 × 3→ 3 10 × 12 → 0
=
100 × 101 × 102 × … × 135 2 × 4→ 8 11 × 13 → 3
= 1 × 2 × 3 × … × 99 = (99)! 3 × 5→ 5 12 × 14 → 8
16 R (17 ). R (19, 62) 4 × 6→ 4 13 × 15 → 5
5×7→ 5 14 × 16 → 4
= (1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 ×…× 17 ) × (19 × 20 × 21 × 22 ×…× 81)
6 × 8→ 8 15 × 17 → 5
(1 × 2 × 3 × … × 81) 81 !
= = 7 × 9→ 3 16 × 18 → 8
18 18
8 × 10 → 0 17 × 19 → 3
17 R (2, 995) = 2 × 3 × 4 × … × … × 995 × 996 × 997
9 × 11 → 9 18 × 20 → 0 etc.
R (996, 1) = 996 × 997
Except to first column in all the rest columns the least
∴ L.C.M. of R (2, 995) and R (996, 1) occuring unit digits are 9 and 4 and they occur same
= 1 × 2 × 3 × … × 997 = 997 ! number of times. But in the first column 9 is not occuring.
18 R (139, 2) = 139 × 140 × 141 Thus finally ‘9’ as the unit digit occurs least number of
times i.e., one times less as ‘4’ occurs.
R (141) = 1 × 2 × 3 × … × 141
∴ H.C.F. of R (139, 2) and R (141) = 139 × 140 × 141 23 Except the first column the sum of all the unit digits
= 2743860 = 99 (9 + 0 + 3 + 8 + 5 + 4 + 5 + 8 + 3 + 0)
= 99 (45) = 4455
19 Since abc × 1001 = abcabc
and the sum of all the unit digits of first column
Thus the number abcabc is always divisible by 1001 and its
all factors. So (d) is the best option. = (3 + 8 + 5 + 4 + 5 + 8 + 3 + 0) = 36
Since 1001 = 7 × 11 × 13. Thus the sum of all the unit digits = 4455 + 36 = 4491
Hence (a).
Number System 171

24 Since a cube has to be cut from three sides (i.e., along 3 28 The last two digits of (1 !) = 01
dimensions). Hence the number of cuts will be equal to the The last two digits of (2!)2 = 04
sum of the 3 factors of 960, when 960 is expressed as the
The last two digits of (3!)3 = 16
product of 3 factors.
The last two digits of (4 !)4 = 76
Again since the number of cuts to be applied are minimum.
Hence the sum of these 3 factors of 960 must be minimum. The last two digits of (5!)5 = 00
So, in order that the sum of 3 factors of 960 to be minimum Now, we can conclude that the last two digits of the higher
we have to have the minimum possible difference between numbers e.g., (6 !)6, (7 !)7 , (8 !)8 … etc. are ‘‘00’’. So the last
the 3 factors of 960. two digits of the whole expression = 9
Thus 960 = 8 × 10 × 12 (Since 01 + 04 + 16 + 76 + 00 = 97)
Hence the minimum possible number of cuts 29 Let the two parts be x and y then x 2 − y 2 = 50 ( x − y )
= (8 + 10 + 12) = 30
⇒ ( x + y ) = 50
Now, if we want to maximize the product of any 3 factors Hence the number is 50.
whose sum is constant i.e., 30, then it is possible only when
30 If p = 3, then n = 5 (Since n > 2)
all the 3 factors be equal. Thus a, b, c be the three factors such
that : If p = 10, then n = 5 also
a + b + c = 30 If p = 17, then n = 5 also etc.
Then Maximum (a × b × c) = 10 × 10 × 10 = 1000 Hence n = 5.
So, the maximum number of 1000 identical pieces can be 31 Go through options :
formed by applying the same number of n cuts. Anjali Bhagwat
25 Since 45000 = 10 × 4500 Total Shots → 45 45 = 90
So, the sum of all the factors of 45000 which are the Total Hits → 36 30 = 66
multiples of 10 will be same as sum of all the factors of Total miss shots → 9 15
4500 multiplied by 10. 36 30 4
Since, = 4 and = 2, = 2,
Now, 4500 = 2 × 3 × 5
2 2 3
9 15 2
Therefore the sum of all the factors of Hence, the presumed option is correct.
(2 − 1) × (3 − 1)(5 − 1)
3 3 4
32 This is possible only when n = 4, 10, 16, 22, 28, 34, …
4500 =
(2 − 1)(3 − 1)(5 − 1) Therefore the remainder will be 3 when (n − 1) will be
7 × 26 × 624 divided by 6.
= = 14196
1 × 2× 4 33 Option (b) is obvious, as 2222 and 7777 both numbers are
Thus the sum of all the products of 45000 which are the divisible by 101.
multiples of 10 = 10 × 14196 = 141960. Now we know that if the sum of the remainders of two or
more numbers are divisible by the given divisor then the
26 The unit digit of (1 !)1! = 1
required expression is also divisible by the divisor. The
The unit digit of (2!)2! = 4 remainder when (2222)7777 is divided by 13 is 12 and the
The unit digit of (3!)3! = 6 remainder when (7777 )2222 is divided by 13 is 9.
The unit digit of (4 !)4! = 6 Hence the given expression is not divisible by 13.
The unit digit of (5!)5! = 0 (Since (12 + 9) ≠ 13m for any positive integer m)
Again the remainder when (2222)7777 is divided by 99 is 44
Now since we know that 5!, 6!, 7!, 8!, … all have their unit
digits zero. and the remainder when (7777 )2222 is divided by 99 is 77.
Thus the sum of all the unit digits = 7 Hence the whole expression cannot be divided by 99.
(Since 1 + 4 + 6 + 6 + 0 = 17) (Since 44 + 77 = 121 which is not divisible by 99.)
x x x
27 To know the remainder, when any number is divided by 5, 34 Let there be x students, then + + = 91
we just need to know the unit digit of the dividend. Further 2 3 4
from the previous question, we know that the unit digit of 6 x + 4 x + 3x 13x
⇒ = 91 ⇒ = 91
the sum of the whole expression is 7. 12 12
So divide 7 by 5 and get 2 as the remainder. ⇒ x = 84 students
172 QUANTUM CAT
35 Best way is to go through convenient options. 75 − 5 + 2 = 72
1 5  1  4
1 + ×1 = Q → 25% Again 90 × = 72
4 4  4  5
5 1 5 15 1  Hence, the assumed option is correct.
+ × =  → 50%
4 2 4 8 2  41 See the figure and visualise the actual situation.
Hence option (c) is correct. 1 2 3 4 5
Alternatively Let the first time raise in salary be x %, 20 6
and the original salary be k then 19 7
kx k (100 + x ) 18 8
k+ =
100 100 17 9
k (100 + x ) k (100 + x ) 2x k × 15
Again + × = 16 10
100 100 100 8 15 14 13 12 11
k (100 + x ) (100 + 2x ) 15k
100  100  = 8 42 Go through options and check the option (b).
1
(100 + x ) (100 + 2x ) 15 Thus at y = − 2 and y = 4, p = , which is undefined.
⇒ = 0
100 100 8
1 1 1 1 1
So simplify and solve the quadratic equation and get the 43 + + + +…+
1 × 2 2× 3 3× 4 4 × 5 100 × 101
values of x, then twice the value of x will be the required
 1 1  1 1  1 1   1 1
value. =  −  +  −  +  −  +  −  +…
 1 2  2 3  3 4  4 5
36 572 × 827 = 572 × 281 = (572 × 272 ) × 29
 1 1 
+ − 
= 512 × 1072  100 101
Therefore there are total 75 (= 3 + 72) digits in the above 1 100
=1 − =
expression. 101 101
+
37 Find the sum of n natural numbers, which is just greater 44 R → x + 10 x x+5 5
than 500. So if we consider that he had to add 32 natural L→x+6 x x+5 1
+

numbers then the ideal answer would have been 528. It B→x+5 x + 25 x+5 –
H→x+4 x x+5 1
means he had missed 28 during the process. A→x x x+5 –
5
NOTE For clarification of the concept just write the Thus total 6 coins have to be transferred.
natural numbers in sequence and then add up them one by
 1
one but not as the child did, then you will must get the 45 As per the given expression the value of f ( x ) = f  
lucid explanation of this problem.  x
 1
38 Total distance to be covered Try to put   in place of x.
 x
= total horizontal movement
+ total upward movement  1
Thus the value of f   = f (2) = 1081.58
= (20 × 2 − 1) + (20)  2
= 39 + 20 = 59 feet 46 The unit digit of each pair is 4 and there are 50 such pairs
which are mutually multiplied together. Thus finally we
39 Paltry Sundry
get 6 as unit digit. As
Fired shots 5 7
Hit shots 2 3 4 × 92 × 43 × 94 × 45 × 96 × ... × 499 × 9100
Unit
Missed shots 3 4
digit 4 4 4 4
When Sundry missed 32 shots, it means Paltry missed
24 shots. When Paltry missed 24 shots, it means Paltry hit Again 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 … 4 (upto 50 times)
16 shots. i.e., the unit digit of 450, which is 6
40 It can be solved easily by options : [Since unit digit of 42n is 6 for n = 1, 2, 3, … etc.]
5
As consider option (a), then 90 × = 75
6
Number System 173

47 The unit digit of each pair is 5 and there are total 50 such 11 and 3, have no any common factor.
pairs. Hence options (a) and (b) are wrong and option (c) is
correct.
4 + 92 + 43 + 94 + 45 + 96 + ... + 499 + 9100
Unit 53 If a and b be two such numbers, then
digit 5 5 5 5 (ab)1/ 2 = 35 ⇒ ab = 1225
Thus 5 + 5 + 5 + … 5 (50 times)  a + b 3 175
and   = 43 ⇒ (a + b) =
 2  4 2
Hence the unit digit = 0
[Since 5 × 50 = 250 → unit digit is zero.] ∴ (a − b)2 = (a + b)2 − 4ab
48 Consider some appropriate values : 30625
(a − b)2 = − 4900
As p = 3.99, q = 4.99, r = 6.99 4
A = [ p + q + r] = [ 3.99 + 4.99 + 6.99] = [15.97] = 15 30625 − 19600
(a − b) =
B = [ p] + [ q] + [ r] = [3.99]+[4.99]+[6.99] 4
= 3 + 4 + 6 = 13 105
(a − b) =
Hence A−B=2 2
175 105
49 Options (a), (b) and (c) are irrelevent. Now solving (a + b) = and (a − b) =
as (25)2 = (5)2 × 25 2 2
35
or (27 )2 = (9)2 × 9 we get a = 70 and b =
2
or (12)2 = (4)2 × 9
Hence (c) is correct.
or (6)2 = (3)2 × 4 etc. Alternatively From option
Hence (d) is correct. 70 × x = 35
NOTE If a = b. c then a = b . c , a = b . k
2 2 2 2 2 35
⇒ x=
2
Thus k must be a perfect square.
35
50 Since odd × even = even 70 +
2 = 43 3
even × even = even even × even = even
and
2 4
It means when the odd numbers are added even number of Hence (c) is the right answer.
times the resultant is always an even number for example :
3 + 5 = 8 → even 54 Such a least possible number = [L.C.M. of 1, 2, 3, …, n] − 1
3 + 5 + 9 = 17 → odd Now if the L.C.M. of (1, 2, 3, … , n) = L
3 + 5 + 9 + 13 = 30 → even etc. then the next higher number = (m. L ) − 1
Again, even + even = even and m. L = n ! for a suitable value of m; m ∈ N
and odd + even = odd.
Hence option (b) is the most appropriate one.
So the sum of odd numbers cannot be odd in order to be
the resultant sum be an even number. 55 Let n + (n + 2) + (n + 4) + (n + 6) = k
51 Go through options ∴ 3n = 2 (n + 4)
1 + 2+ 3+…+ k = N 2
(a perfect square) ⇒ n=8
k (k + 1) ∴ k = 8 + 10 + 12 + 14
= N2
2 k = 44
1×2 56 Go through options and match the conditions.
= (1)2 → a perfect square number,
2 Alternatively Let there be k number of benches.
8×9 5k + 4 = 11 (k − 4)
= 4 × 9 = (2 × 3)2 → a perfect square number.
2
⇒ 6k = 48
49 × 50
= 49 × 25 = (7 × 5)2 → a ⇒ k=8
2
Hence 5k + 4 = 44
perfect square number.
Thus there are 8 benches and 44 students.
52 Check through options consider some appropriate values.
m  n
(17 + 15) and (17 − 15) 57 = 25  
n  m
32 and 2, have a common factor 2. 2
(7 + 4) and (7 − 4)  m m 5
⇒   = 25 ⇒ = =5
 n n 1
174 QUANTUM CAT
58 33322 and 33332
⇒ (34 )830 × 32 and 33332 If a = 4, then
Thus (81) 830
× 3 > 33
2 332 45 × 67 × 89 → unit digit is 2

Again 33322 and 33322 65 The greatest possible number

⇒ 6 553
(3 ) × 3 and (333)
4 22 = H.C.F. of (1313 − 17 ) and (621 − 9)
Thus (729)553 × 34 > (333)22 = H.C.F. of 1296 and 612 = 36
Now the total number of factors of 36 = (2 + 1)(2 + 1) = 9
Again 33322 and 22333
(Since 36 = 22 × 32)
⇒ (33 )1107 × 3 and 22333
66 Except x = 0 and x = 5 all the values are acceptible, hence
Thus (27 )1107 × 3 > 22333
the range of x is R − {0, 5} where R represents all the real
Hence (a).
numbers.
59 a × b = 25
67 p1 + p2 + p3 + p4 = 204 …(i)
(− 1) × (− 25) = 25
p1 + p4 = p2 + p3 …(ii)
Thus the minimum required value of a + b = (− 1) + (− 25)
⇒ p2 − p1 = p4 − p3 …(iii)
= − 26
and p3 − p2 = 2 ( p2 − p1 )
Hence (d).
⇒ p3 − p2 = 2 ( p4 − p3 )
60 The least value of p. q = 5 × (− 10) = − 50
⇒ p1 + x = p2
The least value of p. q6 = 4 × (− 9)6 = 4 × (729)2 p2 + 2x = p3 …(iv)
The least value of p6. q = 56 × (− 10) = (− 156250) p3 + x = p4
The least value of ( pq)5 = [ 5 × (− 10)]5 = (− 312500000)  p1 + p2 + p3 + p4 
Also   = 51 = 17 × 3
 4 
Hence (d) is the correct option.
Thus from the relation (ii), we can deduce that
61 Please remember that all the factorial numbers greater
than or equal to n are divisible by n. Hence 7!, 8!, 9!, 10!, p1 + p4 = p2 + p3 = 102
… etc. are divisible by 7. So we have to check only Thus by hit and trial we will find the only possible values of
1 ! + 2! + 3! + 4 ! + 5! + 6 !. p1, p2, p3 and p4 = 31, 41, 61 and 71 respectively.
Hence 1 ! + 2! + 3! + 4 ! + 5! + 6 ! NOTE The unit digits of ( p1 and p4 ) or ( p2 and p3 ) can be
= 1 + 2 + 6 + 24 + 120 + 720 = 873 only (1 and 1), (3 and 9), but not necessarily in the order. So
Thus 873 leaves a remainder of 5 when divided by 7. consider only those two digit prime numbers which satisfy
all the given conditions.
Therefore 1 ! + 2! + 3! + 4 ! + 5! +…+ 77 ! leaves the
remainder 5. 68 Let the price of simcard be x and handset be y
62 It does not satisfy options a, b, c. Therefore option (d) is then x + y = 5000
correct. and x = y − 4000
63 For one digit number 1 × 9 = 9 ⇒ ( y − 4000) + y = 5000
for two digit numbers 2 × 90 = 180 ⇒ 2y = 9000
for three digit numbers upto 500 = 3 × 401 = 1203 ⇒ y = 4500
Thus the required value = 9 + 180 + 1203 = 1392. Alternatively Go through options
64 If a, b, c, d, e, f all the six numbers form an A.P. then we can handset Simcard
have only 9 values hence the common difference of the A.P. 4500 + 500 = 5000
must be 1.
4500 − 500 = 4000
(Since common difference cannot be greater than 1.)
69 At x = 0 or y = 0, we get infinite number of ordered
∴ If a = 1, then
12 × 34 × 56 → unit digit is 5 solutions set.
292k + 7
If a = 2 , then 70 l=
23
23 × 45 × 67 → unit digit is 2
Therefore at k = 1, l = 13.
If a = 3 , then 34 × 56 × 7 8 → unit digit is 5 Hence (d).
Number System 175

71 Since a, c are neither prime nor composite it means 78 The only possible values of p, q, r are 1, 2, 4
a = c = 1 and b = 2, 3, 5, 7 and d = 2, 3, 5, 7 but b ≠ d. So s = 5, t = 6, u = 7.
Thus from ab + 4 = cd Hence the number is 124567 therefore
⇒ ab = 13 and cd = 17, the only possible combination. p + q + r + s + t + u = 25
∴ ba + 40 = dc 79 4 1111
×5 2222
= 22222 × 52222 = 1 × 102222
⇒ 31 + 40 = 71 Hence there will be 2223 number of digits.
ab + ba 13 + 31 44 1
Therefore = = = 80 Since N is always even. Thus p is always odd
cd + dc 17 + 71 88 2
[As even + odd = odd]
72 The best way is to go through options. p r
81 Let = − 7 and =3
Let there are initially 3 boxes then, q s
3 1
1st customer gets = + = 2 p
  = 7 andr = 3
2 2 then
q s
Remaining boxes = 3 − 2 = 1
1 1 p
  > r.
2nd customer gets = + = 1 Thus
2 2   s
q
Remaining boxes = 0 p r p r
Again if = 4 and = 7 then   >  , hence (d).
Hence presumed option (b) is correct. q s q s
73 123454321 = (11111)2 82 Since all the numbers u, v, w, x are negative, but when
Hence (d). u v + v w + w x = 0, then u v . It means there must be some
74 1 − 2 + 3 − 4 + 5 − 6 + … − 198 + 199
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
terms whose value will be positive and thus when these
= (1 − 2 ) + (3 − 4 ) + (5 − 6 )+…+ (197 − 198 ) + 199
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 terms get added up with negative value they make the
expression zero.
= (− 3) + (− 7 ) + (− 11) + (− 15) + … + (− 395) + (199)2
e.g., (k ) + (− k ) = 0
  3 + 395 
= −   × 99 + 39601 Hence we can say that there must be some even integers
  2  
which converts a negative number into a positive number.
= (− 199 × 99) + 39601
Further we know that an even number when multiplied
= (− 19701) + 39601 = 19900 with any other (even or odd) number it finally makes an
75 The G.P. is as following : even number.
a, ar, ar2, ar3, … etc. Explanation uv + v w + wx = 0
n−1
then LCM of this G.P. = ar ⇒ (− u)−v + (− v )− w + (− w )− x = 0 {Qu, v, w, x ∈ I − }
and HCF of this G.P. = a Again, if k + l+ m=0
LCM arn − 1 ⇒ k + l = m or k + m = l or l + m = k
∴ = = rn − 1
HCF a
i.e., half of the numerical values will be positive and half of
76 From option (a) the numerical values will be negative.
Total number of brothers and sisters = 4 Now, if (− k )even → positive value
Also there are two brothers and 2 sisters.
So, if there exists some even integer n, then
4
77 (4 @ 5) = (4 # 5) = (Q 4 < 5) k × l × m × n → even (though k, l, m can be odd).
5
4
5 83 The unit digit of 23 is 2.
and (6 @ 5) = (5 # 6) = (Q 6 > 5) 5
6 The unit digit of 34 is 1.
4 The unit digit of 45 is 4.
6

 4 5 5 4 5
 @ = < ) 7
and (Q The unit digit of 56 is 5.
 5 6 5 5 6 8
6 The unit digit of 67 is 6.
9
4 The unit digit of 7 8 is 1.
24
∴ (4 @ 5)@ (6 @ 5) = 5 = Therefore the unit digit of :
5 25 4 5 6 7 8 9
23 × 34 × 45 × 56 × 67 × 7 8 = 0
6
(Since 2 × 1 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 1 = 240)
176 QUANTUM CAT
Alternatively 5 always gives unit digit 5 irrespective of Now, since an − bn is divisible by (a − b) if n is odd, then
its (positive) power and similarly 6 also gives 6 as a unit 774 − 474 (i.e., 4937 − 1637 ) is divisible by 11.
digit irrespective of its power. Hence (d).
So, 5 × 6 = 30. Hence you will get the unit digit zero
90 Try to find out 112 in less than 22!.
without solving the complete expression.
You can’t find. So (a) is the correct choice.
84 In order that a, b, c be the least, then
91 The number of zeros at the end of 23 × 34 × 45 × 56 = 6
(a − 7 ) = (b − 10) = (c − 12)
The number of zeros at the end of 35 × 57 × 7 9 × 810 = 7
Again (a − 7 )(b − 10)(c − 12) = 1000
⇒ 10 × 10 × 10 = 1000 The number of zeros at the end of 45 × 56 × 67 × 7 8 = 6
⇒ a = 17, b = 20 and c = 22 The number of zeros at the end of 102 × 153 × 204 = 7
Therefore (a + b + c) = 59. So the number of zeros at the end of the whole expression
2332 − 9  2332 9  7 32 9 = 6.
85 → − → − 
16  16 16  16 16 93 Min. (1, 2, 3) + Max. (1, 2, 3)
(7 2 )16 9 116 9 = Min. (2, 6, 3) + Max. (1, 8, 3) = 2 + 8 = 10
→ − →  − 
16 16 16 16 94 Labh [Hani (1, 2, 3), Hani (2, 3, 4), Hani (3, 4, 5)]
   
4 + 5+ 6
1−9 −8 16 − 8 8 = Labh [4, 5, 6] = =5
→ → → → →8 3
16 16 16 16
95 Min. [Hani (1, 2, 3), Hani (2, 3, 4), Hani (3, 4, 5)]
86 Very similar to the problem number 84.
+ Max. [Labh (1, 2, 3), Labh (2, 3, 4), Labh (3, 4, 5)]
Hence ( x − 5) = ( y + 6) = (z − 8) = 11
= Min. [4, 5, 6] + Max. [2, 3, 4]
⇒ x = 16, y = 5, z = 19
= Min. (20, 30, 24) + Max. (8, 81, 16)
Thus ( x + y + z ) = 40.
= 20 + 81 = 101
87 ( x − 6)( y + 7 )(z − 4) will be maximum only when
96 ∴ (55)10 = (25)25
( x − 6) = ( y + 7 ) = (z − 4) = k (say), for a given value of
25 55
( x + y + z ) = 21
25 2 → 5
⇒ x=k+6
0 → 2
y = k −7
97 Q = 4, 8
z=k+4
∴ x + y + z = 21 P = 3, 6, 9, 1, 4, 7; since P , Q > 0
⇒ (k + 6) + (k − 7 ) + (k + 4) = 21 So there are total 6 values of (P , Q ).
⇒ 3k + 3 = 21 98 Total number of 6s = Number of actual 6s
⇒ k=6 + Number of wrong 6s
Therefore, ( x − 6). ( y + 7 )(z − 4) = k 3 = (6)3 = 216 Number of Actual 6s = 20 (as unit digits)

337 + 437  337 437  (32 )18 × 3 (42 )18 × 4  + 20 (at tens digit) + 100 (as hundreds digit)
88 → + → +  = 140 6s
7  7 7   7 7 
Number of wrong 6s (which are at the place of 8s)
 218 × 3 218 × 4  (23 )6 × 3 (23 )6 × 4
→ + → +  = 20 (at unit place) + 20 (at tens place) = 40
 7 7   7 7 
Hence total number of 6s = 180
 3 4  7 
→  +  =   → Remainder zero. 99 If p2 − pq = 0 ⇒ p ( p − q) = 0 ⇒ p = 0 or p = q, but since
7 7 7
p ≠ q, then p = 0 is only possible solution.
Alternatively an + bn is divisible by (a + b) if n is odd.
100 15990 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 13 × 41
Hence (337 + 437 ) is divisible by 7 (= 3 + 4). Hence leaves
no remainder. = 2 × 3 × 13 × 5 × 41 = 78 × 205
Hence the only possible option is (d).
89 774 − 474 is divisible by 3
101 n = 1, 2, 3, … , 7.
Since an − bn is divisible by (a − b) and
Again 774 − 474 = (7 2 )37 − (42 )37 = 4937 − 1637 102 If you go through options, then you will find option (c) is
correct. Since divisor is always greater than remainder.
Number System 177

Alternatively
A
→ Remainder 13 But the least possible value of p, q, r can be 1. So if p = 1,
D then q = 3 and r = 5.
B
→ Remainder 31 Hence ( p + q)(q + r)(r + p) = 4 × 8 × 6 = 192.
D
A+B 114 Check for any value of R.
→ Remainder should be 44
D 116 Options (a) and (b) are wrong since the maximum cost of
But it is given that the remainder is 4. total pens is nearly ` 745. Now, to maximize the number of
Hence, the divisor must be 40 (= 44 − 4). pens of ` 5, we have to minimize the number of pens of ` 3
and the total cost cannot exceed ` 745.6
103 Since (N )2 p → unit digit 6
So by hit and trial get the required result. As :
and (N )( 2 p + 1) → unit digit 4
Number of pens of Number of pens of Total Cost
It means every even power of N has unit digit 6 and every ` 3 each ` 5 each
odd power has unit digit 4. It means the unit digit of N is 4.
1 × 3= 3 149 × 5 = 745 748
Hence the largest two digit number is 94, whose unit digit
is 4. 2× 3= 6 148 × 5 = 740 746
3× 3= 9 147 × 5 = 735 744
104 Just replace x by ( x + 1) and simplify or consider some
numerical value of x then check through options. Hence the maximum number of pens of ` 5 is 147.
1 × 60 117 The last digit of this number is 9.
2 × 30
  Since (1 × 9) + (2 × 50) = 109
3 × 20 i.e., there are 9 digits of one digit number and 100 digits
105 60 = ± 
4 × 15 are of 50 numbers of 2 digit.
 
 5 × 12 Again the 50th two digit number is 59, hence the last digit
6 × 10 of the given number is 9.
 
Now, if we add 1 to this number it will become divisible by
= (− 4) + (− 15) = − 19
  both 2 and 5.
⇒ a + b = = 5 + 12 = 17 
118 If the sum of all the 109 digits of the given number is
= 2 + 30 = 32 
 divisible by 3, then the given number itself is divisible by 3.
106 To find the required unit digit just add up the single unit Now, the sum of all the 109 digits
digits of the two previous consecutive numbers = [sum of all the unit digits of all the 59 numbers
successively and you will find that every 15th term of this + sum of all the tens digit of all the 2 digit numbers upto 59]
sequence has unit digit zero. Hence the unit digit of the = 6 × (45) + 5 × (15)
75th term of this sequence is 0.
= 270 + 75 = 345
107 Every nth term has its unit digit 5 if n is divisible by 5 but it Now since the sum of all the digits is 345. Hence it is
has unit digit zero (0) if n is divisible by 15. Since we have divisible by 3.
to find out the unit digit of 55th term. So here 55 is Again a number is divisible by 11 if the difference of sum of
divisible by 5 but not by 15, hence the unit digit will be 5. all the digits at even places and sum of all the digits at odd
108 The unit digit of the sum of the 88th term plus 89th term places is divisible by 11 or it is zero.
will be equal to the unit digit of 90th term. Hence it will be Now, 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 … 575859.
zero. (See the question number 106). The sum of all the digits at odd places
109 Always 5. Since when we multiply a number whose unit = 5 × (45) + (9 + 7 + 5 + 3 + 1) = 250
digit is 5 with any odd number the unit digit of the [Counted from right side]
resultant number is 5. The sum of all the digits at even places
111 The least possible product of any 3 numbers can be found = 10 × (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5) + (8 + 6 + 4 + 2)
by multiplying numerically greatest possible number, but = 150 + 20 = 170
at least one number must be negative. Thus the required difference = 250 − 170 = 80
Thus the required product = (− 5) × (24) × (25) = (− 3000)
But if we subtract the least possible number i.e., 3 from the
Hence (c). given number (1 2 3 4 5 … 5859) the new number will
112 Since q − p = r − q = 2 become (1 2 3 4 5 … 5856)
Therefore p, q, r are in A.P. Now the required difference = 247 − 170 = 77
178 QUANTUM CAT
Since 77 is divisible by 11 hence the given number is also (1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)
= = 16ways
divisible by 11. 2
Again, the number (12345 … 5856) is also divisible by 3. Now, if a = 2, then
Since if a number is divisible by 3 and we subtract a (1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)
b×c= = 8 ways
multiple of 3 from this number then the resultant number 2
is also divisible by 3.
when a = 3, then
119 Since F < B < G < A (1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)
b×c= = 8 ways
Now, if F = 1, then 1 < 2 < 3 < 4, adults cannot be in one 2
family. Similarly when a = 5, 7, 11 the value of b × c = 8 ways
if F = 2, then 2 < 3 < 4 < 5; 5 adults cannot be in 2 families.
But when a = 2, then the (b × c) = 8 − 1 = 7 since one way
if F = 3, then 3 < 4 < 5 < 6, not possible since one family
of expression has been included in the case of a = 1.
has only one adult.
Similarly when a = 3, 5, 7 and 11 then the number of ways
Again, if F = 4 then 4 < 5 < 6 < 7, possible since will be 6 (= 8 − 2), 5 (= 8 − 3), 4 (= 8 − 4), 3 (= 8 − 5)
(3 × 2) + (1 × 1) = 7 respectively.
33 27 Thus the total number of ways in which 729 can be
120 A = 33 = 33
expressed as the product of 3 factors
= 16 + 7 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 = 41 ways.
33 33
and C = 33 = 33
Hence C > A. 124 The sum of nth row is f (n) = 2n − 2.
Hence either (b) or (d) option is correct. Therefore, f (100) = 2100 − 2
33 27
Now A = 33 = 33 2100 − 2
Now,
and D = 3333 100
(210 )10 − 2 (1024)10 − 2
Hence A > D (Since 327 > 333) ⇒ ⇒
100 100
Thus the correct relation is C > A > B > D. 2410 − 2 76 − 2
Hence, option (b) is correct. ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ 74
100 100
A
121 → Remainder 23 Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
D
B 125 7 21 ≤ n28 ≤ 363
and → Remainder 3
D  4( 21 )
 
A+B ⇒ 7 21 ≤ n28 ≤ 27 21 ⇒ 7 21 ≤ n 3 ≤ 27 21
→ Remainder 26 21
D  4 4
⇒7 21
≤  n3 ≤ 27 21 ⇒ 7 ≤ n 3 ≤ 27
Therefore it is clear that the divisor D cannot less than or  
 
equal to 26. Thus the possible values of D are greater than
4
26.
For, 7 ≤ n 3 ⇒ 7 3 ≤ n4 ⇒ n ≥ 5
122 a − b = (a + b)(a − b) = m × n
2 2

For, n ≤ (27 )3/ 4 ⇒ n ≤ 9 3

m+ n m−n
⇒ a= and b =
2 2 n ≤ 11
Now, 729 = 1 × 729 ⇒ a = 365, b = 364 It implies that n = 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11
3 × 243 ⇒ a = 123, b = 120 Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
9 × 81 ⇒ a = 45, b = 36 126 Both a local train and an express train stop at every 15th
27 × 27 ⇒ a = 27, b = 0 station.
Thus we can express it in 4 ways, Hence (a). Therefore, number of pairs of stations connected by a local
 325
Alternatively The required answer is always equal to and an express train =  = 21
 15 
the number of ways in which a given product can be
expressed as the product of two factors. Both a local train and a bullet train stop at every 24th
station. Therefore, number of pairs of stations connected
123 2310 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 11. Now since 2310 has to be  325
by a local and a bullet train =  = 13
expressed as a product of 3 factors, as 2310 = a × b × c.  24 
Now, we exclude one prime factor say a then we find the Both an express train and a bullet train stop at every 40th
rest part as a product of 2 factors.
station.
Thus when a = 1, then b × c
Number System 179

Therefore, number of pairs of stations connected by an Choice x + y S = x + 4 + 8 Is S x + y < 18 Are both

 325 + 1 + 4 + y divisible the
express and a bullet train =  =8
 40  by 9? conditions
met?
All three types of trains stop at every 120th station.
Therefore, number of pairs of stations connected by all (a) 18 35 No No No
 325 (b) 19 36 Yes No No
three trains =  =2
120  (c) 91 108 Yes No No
Thus the required number of pairs of stations
= (21 − 2) + (13 − 2) + (8 − 2) = 36 Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. NOTE The correct value x + y = 10.
127 Number of elements in A, which leaves remainder 0 when Alternatively The difference of the given numbers
divided by 3 = 29
must be divisible by 9, if the two numbers have the same
Number of elements in A, which leaves remainder 1 when
digits in any random order.
divided by 3 = 29
Therefore, x + y = 1, 10, 19, 28, 37, …
Number of elements in A , which leaves remainder 2 when
Since, y ≠ 0, so x + y ≠ 1
divided by 3 = 30
Again since, x + y < 18, so x + y = 10 is the only
If the set B includes 30 elements of A which leaves
acceptable value.
remainder 2 and any one element which leaves remainder
Alternatively The digital root of the difference of two
0, the sum of no two element of set B will be divisible by 3.
numbers should be 9.
That is, total number of required elements in set B = 31
That is the digital root of x 4814 y should be 9.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Therefore, x + 4 + 8 + 1 + 4 + y = x + y = 17
128 (2)a × (17 )b = (32)b Again, ( x + y ) + (1 + 7 ) = x + y + 8
⇒ 2 × (b + 7 ) = 3b + 2 But since the digital root of x + y + 8 is 9, so the digital
root of x + y will be 1.
⇒ b = 12
So the choice (a) and (c) are ruled out.
Since a < b and a > 2, so the possible values of a are 3, 4,
Further, you know that x + y < 18, asx < 9 and y ≤ 9.
5,…, 11. It shows that there are total 9 values of a.
So the choices (a) and (b) are ruled out.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Hint Since the number (2)a is represented in base a, so base
Hint you know that the digital root of x + y is 1 so the
a must be greater than 2.
possible values of ( x, y ) are
129 Seed (7 ) = 7 (0, 1), (1, 0), (1, 9), (2, 8), (3, 7), (4, 6), (5, 5), (6, 4),
Seed (16) = Seed (1 + 6) = 7 (7, 3), (8, 2), (9, 1). But if ( x, y ) is (0, 1) or (1, 0), you
would get x + y as a 1-digit number, not a 2-digit number.
Seed (25) = Seed (2 + 5) = 7
Also, y ≠ 0, as a ≠ f , so ( x, y ) ≠ (1, 0).
Seed (34) = Seed (3 + 4) = 7
And if you consider all other possibilities of ( x, y ), you
:::::::::::: would get x + y = 10 and that is a 2-digit number.
Seed (997) = Seed (9 + 9 + 7 )
131 10 ! = 28 × 34 × 52 × 71
= Seed (25) = Seed (2 + 5) = 7
b! a! Number of pairs ( a, b)
It implies that we get the desired number at the interval of
9 numbers. That is we have n = 9k + 7, where k = 0, 1, 2, 10! – 0
…, 110 9! 2! 1
Therefore we have 111 positive integers less than 999 8! 2!, 3! 2
which have seed (n) = 7. 7! 2!, 3!, 4!, 5!, 6! 5
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. 6! 2!, 3!, 4!, 5! 4
5! 2!, 3!, 4! 3
130 The difference of the given numbers must be divisible by 9,
4! 2!, 3! 2
if the two numbers have the same digits in any random
3! 2! 1
order.
2! – 0
Further in this case, x and y cannot exceed beyond 9.
Therefore, Therefore total number of sets (a, b) = 18
Hence choice (d) is the answer.
180 QUANTUM CAT
132 Factors of 120 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10, 12, 15, 20, 24, 30, n + 150
134 The number of families in a village =
40, 60 and 120. n+ 6
[(n + 6) + 144] 144
Number of matchsticks Number of sides in the = =1 +
in each side of the respective polygon n+ 6 n+ 6
polygon n + 6 must be a factor of 144 as the number of families is
always an integer. The factors of 144 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9,
1 120
12, 16, 24, 36, 48, 72 and 144.
2 60
So the possible values of (n + 6) are 8, 9, 12, 16, 24, 36, 48,
3 40
72 and 144, such that n ≥ 1. That is only 9 values are
4 30 feasible.
5 24 Since each distinct value of n or (n + 6) determines the
6 20 number of families in a village, so there will be total
8 15 9 villages.
10 12 Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
12 10
135 This problem is basically asking about the value of
15 8
N < 999, for which N has the maximum number of factors.
20 6
In order to maximize the number of factors, we need to
24 5
consider.
30 4
(i) The number of prime factors as many as possible.
40 3
(ii) Face value of each prime factor as less as possible.
60 2
Therefore, let us consider the prime factors of N are 2, 3, 5,
120 1
7 and 11.
There are total 16 cases, however with the last 2 cases he But, 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 11 > 999, so the greatest factor 11 has
cannot form any polygon as no polygon has less than 3 to be removed, as N has to be less than 999.
sides. Thus he can form only 14 distinct polygons using all Now, we are sure that 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 210 < 999
the 120 matchsticks. In order to maximize the value of N, we will try to increase
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. power of the lower factors.
Alternatively 120 = 23 × 31 × 51 If we consider 22 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 420 < 999, the number of
Total number of factors of 120 = (3 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)= 16 factors of N is 24.
But these factors include 1 and 2, which have to be If we consider 23 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 840 < 999, the number of
excluded, as there is no polygon with less than 3 sides. factor of N is 32
Thus we have 14 possible cases. Therefore for N = 840, we have the maximum number of
factors of N, such that N < 999.
133 The number N can be expressed as N = a p × bq × cr ×… ,
Thus any artist can wear 840 combinations of dhoti and
where a, b, c are prime numbers and p, q, r are natural
kurta.
numbers.
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
Now since 90 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 5
Therefore, N can have either 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 distinct 136 (1297 + 279 − 79 − 9)127
factors. − (1279127 + 279127 − 79127 − 9127 )
When f = 1, N can be written as N = a89 ⇒ (1279 + 279 − 79 − 9)127
When f = 2 , N can be written as N = a × a or a × b
1 44 2 29
or − (1279 + 279 − 79 − 9)
a × b , etc.
4 17 − (1279)127 + 279127 − 79127 − 9127 )
When f = 3, N can be written as N = a1 × b2 × c14 or + (1279 + 279 − 79 − 9)
a × b × c , etc.
1 8 4 ⇒ (1279 + 279 − 79 − 9)127
When f = 4, N can be written as N = a1 × b2 × c2 × d 4 − (1279 + 279 − 79 − 9)
− (1279127 − 1279) − (279127 − 279)
Thus you see that the possible values of f are 1, 2, 3 and 4.
So the product of 1, 2, 3, and 4 is 24. And therefore total + (79127 − 79) + (9127 − 9)
number of factors of 24 can be computed as following. As per the Fermat’s little theorem, if a is an integer and p
24 = 23 × 31 is a prime number, (a p − a) is divisible by p.
Total number of factor of 24 = (3 + 1) × (1 + 1) = 4 × 2 = 8 Therefore each term in the above expression is definitely
Hence, choice (b) is the correct one. divisible by 127.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Number System 181

137 140 The difference between the first three numbers and their
x  x x 2
x Values of x Number respective remainders is same, so first of all we find the
 9    that are of pertinent number of the first 3 numbers as follows.
 99  (LCM of 3, 5, 7)k − 2 = 105k − 2
common common
values of Now since the required number if divided by 11 leaves the
x remainder 2, so by hit and trial we can arrive at the
0 (0, 1, …, 8) 0 (0, 1, …, 9) {0, 1, 2, …, 9 following results.
8} When k = 8, 19, 30, 41, … (105k − 2) will leave remainder,
1 {9, 10, …, 17} 1 {10, 11, …, {10, 11, …, 5 when divided by 11.
14} 14} Thus the smallest possible such number is 105 × 8 − 2
2 {18, 19, …, 2 {15, 16, None 0 = 838
26} 17} Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
3 {27, 28, …, 3 {18, 19} None 0 Alternatively Go through the given choices.
35} When 337 is divided by 5 it leaves remainder 2, which is
4 {36, 37, …, 4 {20, 21, None 0 not the same as required. So this choice is invalid.
44} 22} When 418 is divided by 11, it leaves no remainder, which
… … … … … … is not the same as required. So this choice is invalid.
… … … … … … When 912 is divided by 3 or 4, it leaves no remainder,
which is not the same as required. So this choice is invalid.
Thus there are total 4 (= 9 + 5) values of x that satisfy the Thus it is obvious that 838 should be the valid number.
given equation. Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
Hence, choice (b) is the correct one.
141 The difference between the first three numbers and their
Hint Except 9 all other values from 0 to 14 satisfy the given
respective remainders is same, so first of all we find the
relation.
pertinent number for the first three numbers as follows.
x + 3  x + 8  x + 15 x + 24 x + 168
138   , , ,   ,…,   , (LCM of 3, 4, 6)k − 1 = 12k − 1
4 5 6 7 15 Similarly, the difference between the last three numbers
 x + 195 and their respective remainders is same, so first of all we
16 find the pertinent number for the last 3 numbers as
x +3 x +3 x +3 x +3
⇒   ,1 +   , 2+   , 3+   , …, follows. (LCM of 7, 10, 13)p − 3 = 910 p − 3
4 5 6 7 We get the required number when both the relations are
x +3 x +3
11 +   , 12 +  
satisfied simultaneously. Then we should have,
15 16 12k − 1 = 910 p − 3
A fraction is in its simplest form when numerator and ⇒ 12k = 910 p − 2
denominator are co-prime. Thus,[ x + 3] must be co-prime 910 p − 2
to 4, 5, 6, …, 15, 16. ⇒ k=
12
When x = 9. 99,[ x + 3] = 12, which is not co-prime with 4,
Therefore, when p = 5, k will be integer and then we will
6, 8, 9, 10, 12, 14, 15 and 16.
get the required value.
When x = 11.11,[ x + 3] = 14, which is not co-prime with 4,
Thus the required minimum value = 910 × 5 − 3 = 4547
6, 7, 8, 10, 12, 14 and 16.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
When x = 19. 91, [ x + 3] = 22, which is not co-prime with
Alternatively Go through the given choices.
4, 6, 8, 10, 11, 12, 14 and 16.
When 4337 is divided by 4 it leaves remainder 1, which is
When x = 16. 61, [ x + 3] = 19, which is co-prime with all
not the same as required. So this choice is invalid.
the denominators, 4, 5, 6, …, 15 and 16.
When 3467 is divided by 7, it leaves remainder 2, which is
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
not the same as required. So this choice is invalid.
139 59059 − 58123 = 936 When 5443 is divided by 10, it leaves remainder 3, which
Now, we know that 936 = 23 × 32 × 13 is not the same as required. So this choice is invalid.
936 = (1 × 936), (2 × 468), (3 × 312), (4 × 234), (6 × 156), Thus, it is obvious that 4547 should be the valid number.
(8 × 117 ), (9 × 104), (12 × 78), (13 × 72), … Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Thus we see that there are exactly 7 numbers (936, 468, 142 2387 + 3344 = 29 × 43 + 38 × 43
312, 234, 156, 117, 104) which can divide the difference = (29 )43 + (38 )43 = 51243 + 656143
of the given numbers, so there are 7 possible values of N.
As we know that an + bn is always divisible by (a + b) if n
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
is odd.
182 QUANTUM CAT
So 51243 + 656143 is divisible by 7073 (= 512 + 6561). Thus we see that except 335 all other values satisfy the
Now since, 7073 = 11 × 643, so the given expression is value of p in the respective equations.
divisible by 643. Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
Since the unit digit of (2387 + 3344 ) is 9, so it cannot be 1 1 1
144 Given that + =
divided by 5. x y z
Therefore, it cannot be divided by 735. 1 1
⇒ < ⇒z < x
As you know that (2387 + 3344 ) is an odd number, so it x z
cannot be divided by any even number like 216. ⇒ 0 < z < 12
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. 1 1 1 xz
∴ + = ⇒y=
143 Since he cannot afford 385 pizzas, so he has to cut the x y z x−z
pizzas in order to share it with his 385 classmates. 12z
⇒ y=
Since 385 has three unique prime factors so we have to 12 − z
consider the following cases :
Therefore the possible values of (z, y ) ≡ (3, 4), (4, 6),
Let us assume p is the number of pizzas that Narendra Bhai
(6, 12), (8, 24), (9, 36), (10, 60), (11, 132)
orders for his classmates.
Thus we have total 7 solutions as following.
a b c p
Case I + + = ( x, y, z )
11 7 5 385
≡ (12, 4, 3) (12, 6, 4) (12, 12, 6) (12, 24, 8) (12, 36, 9),
⇒ 35a + 55b + 77 c = p
(12, 60, 10) and (12, 132, 11)
For a = 3, b = 2 and c = 1, the above equation gives
Hence choice (b) is the correct answer.
105 + 110 + 77 = 292, which is available in the given
Alternatively
options.
Given that
That means he can take 105 pizzas, cut each pizza into 11
1 1 1 1 1
equal pieces and distribute equally among 385 classmates. + = ⇒ < ⇒x>y
x y z x y
Then he can take 110 pizzas, cut each pizza into 7 equal
pieces and distribute equally among 385 classmates. 1 1 1 1 1
Similarly + = ⇒ < ⇒y>z
Finally, he can take 77 pizzas, cut each pizza into 5 equal x y z y z
pieces and distribute equally among 385 classmates. 1 1 1 x+ y 1
Again + = ⇒ =
Therefore, choice (a) is valid. x y z xy z
For a = 2, b = 3 and c = 1, the above equation gives
⇒ zx + zy = xy ⇒ y( x − z ) = zx
70 + 165 + 77 = 312.
zx
That means we can cut 70 pizzas into 11 equal pieces, ⇒ y=
x−z
165 pizzas into 7 equal pieces and 77 pizzas into 5 equal
pieces in order to distribute equal amount of pizza to each Let us consider x − z = k; where k is any positive integer as
of his 385 classmates. x > z.
Therefore, choice (b) is valid. ( x − k )x x 2 − kx x 2
⇒y= = = −x
a b p k k k
Case II + =
11 35 385 Now we can say that y will be an integer only when x 2 is
⇒ 35a + 11b = p properly divisible by k. That is k must be a factor of x 2.
For, a = 9 and b = 6, the value of p = 381 Since x 2 = 144, so k = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9 only; as k < x, so
Hence, it is possible for him to share 381 pizzas equally
k < 12.
with his 385 friends by cutting each of the 35 pizzas into 11
It implies, x − z = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9
equal pieces and 11 pizzas into 35 equal pieces.
Or z = 11, 10, 9, 8, 6, 4, 3
Therefore, choice (d) is valid.
a b p And y = 132, 60, 36, 24, 12, 6, 4
Case III + =
7 55 385 145 Since, in an hour Vijay can finish x pitchers and Siddhartha
⇒ 55a + 7 b = p can finish y pitchers, then
There is no set of value of (a, b) for which any of the value 1 1 1
+ =
given for p holds true in the above equation. x y 2
a b p x+ y 1
Case IV + = ⇒ =
5 77 385 xy 2
⇒ 77 a + 5b = p
2x
There is no set of values of (a, b) for which any of the values ⇒ y=
x−2
given for p holds true in the above equation.
Number System 183

4 Now let us assume that the total amount of semen donated to

⇒ y = 2+
x−2 Chaddha clinic is x units, then the total amount of semen
Since x and y are positive integers, so we can have the donated to Chopra clinic is ( 6w − x ) units.
following values of x and y as x − y = 1 or 2 or 4, only. Therefore total semen donated to Chaddha clinic and Chopra
clinic in the last week is
x − 2 = 1 ⇒ x = 3, y = 6
x (6w − x )
x − 2 = 2 ⇒ x = 4, y = 4 + = 6 units
6 9
x − 2 = 4 ⇒ x = 6, y = 3 ⇒ x = 108 − 12w
Therefore, x + y = 8 or x + y = 9 Since, 0 < x < 6w, therefore
Thus, the maximum value is 9. 0 < 108 − 12w < 6w
Hence choice (c) is the correct answer. ⇒ 0 < 108 < 18w ⇒ 6 < w
2x 2x − 4 + 4 And since, x = 108 − 12w
Hint y = =
x−2 x−2 108 − x
⇒ w=
2( x − 2) + 4 2( x − 2) 4 12
= = +
x−2 x−2 x−2 ⇒ w=9
146 As we know that p number of pizzas = 1 meal (When x is minimum, w will be maximum)
Therefore, 6 < w < 9
And b number of burgers = 1 meal
Similarly, c number of sandwiches = 1 meal As w is an integer value, so w = 7 or 8.
1 Therefore, x = 108 − 12w
Therefore, 1 pizza = meal
p ⇒ x = 24 or 12
1 24
And 1 burger = meal When x = 24, Vicky donates = 4 units to Chaddha clinic
b 6
1 42 − 24
And 1 sandwich = meal and = 2 units to Chopra clinic, in the last week.
s 9
1 1 1 12
∴ + + = 1; where p < b < s and { p, b, s} ∈ N But, when x = 12, Vicky donates = 2 units to Chaddha
p b s 6
48 − 12
 1 1 clinic and = 4 units to Chopra clinic, in the last
If p = 1, then  +  = 0. But, that’s not possible, as b and s 9
 b s
week.
both are positive integer.
 1 1 1 2 1
If p = 2, then  +  = 147 Thus we see that the possible ratio is either or
 b s 2 1 2
depending upon x = 24 or 12.
But, since p < b < s, so if we consider b = 3, then s = 6.
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
 1 1 1
However, for b > 3,  +  < ; which is again not
 b s 2 148 Since w = 7 or 8, so we don’t have a definite answer.
possible. Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
 1 1 2
If p ≥ 3, then  +  ≥ . So b≥4 and then 149 Let a, b, c and d denote the number of girls who dated a guy
 b s 3
for 3 years, 2 years, 1 year and not at all in that order.
 1 1 9 2
 +  ≤ < , which is contradictory. Then,
 b s  20 3
a + b + c + d = 300 …(i)
Thus we see that there is a unique set of value for p, b and s.
a + b = 1. 36c …(ii)
Therefore the required value of p + b + s = 2 + 3 + 6 = 11
Hence, choice (b) is the correct one. From the eqs. (i) and (ii)
2. 36c + d = 300
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 147 and 148) Let us assume that Vicky 100
donated his semen for ‘w’ weeks and each day he donated 1 ⇒ c= (300 − d )
236
unit of semen.
25
Then the total amount of semen he had donated each week = 6 ⇒ c= (300 − d )
59
units. And the total amount of semen he had donated in w weeks
Since d is the minimum possible value, so that (300 − d ) is
= 6w units.
the maximum possible multiple of 59.
184 QUANTUM CAT
Now, the maximum possible multiple of 59 below 300 is Alternatively If you know that the number of prime
295, which means (300 − d ) = 295. So, we have d = 5 and numbers in the set {1, 2, …, 100} = 25
the integral value of c = 125. And number of prime numbers in the set {101, 102, …
It implies that a + b = 1. 36(125) = 170 200} = 21
But, since the minimum possible value of b = 1, so the And number of prime numbers in the set {181, 182, …
maximum possible value of a = 169. 200} = 5
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. Therefore number of prime numbers in the set of first
150 Let the number of doctors reached to treat the soldiers be d 180 natural numbers = 25 + 21 − 5 = 41
and the initial number of soldiers at the military base be Hint [ 200] = [14.14] = 14. It implies that you get the
7 p, then square root of 200 and consider only integral part, which is
320d = 7 p + 190 the left side of decimal point and ignore the decimal part,
320d − 190
⇒ p= which is right side of the decimal point.
7 It implies that in order to know that whether a particular
Since 0 < d < 7, the only value of d that gives integral value number in the set of {181, 182, …, 200} is a prime or not
of p is d = 3. you need to test these numbers by dividing all the prime
Therefore, p = 110 and 7 p = 770. numbers up to 14.
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. Since 181, 191, 193, 197 and 199 are not divisible by any of
Alternatively As each doctor was supposed to treat the prime numbers, 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, so these 5 numbers are
equal number of soldiers. So the initial number of patients prime numbers in the set of numbers {181, 182, …, 200}.
must be divisible by 7. Again, you know that eventually
152 1000 = 23 × 53. It has only two prime factors namely 2
each doctor treated 320 soldiers, so the total number of
soldiers who got treated must be divisible by 320. and 3.
Now, if you look at the choice (b), 1400 is divisible by 7, Now if we consider 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 210, it involves four
but 1400 + 190 = 1590 is not divisible by 320 So it’s an prime numbers. So we will try to bring 210 closer to 1000
invalid choice. by considering certain multiple of 210.
Again, if you look at choice (c), 770 is divisible by 7 and So if we multiply 210 by 5 we get 1050, the closest possible
770 + 190 = 960 is divisible by 320. So it’s a valid choice. number to 1000, as a multiple of 210.
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. Now, 1050 = 2 × 3 × 52 × 7
Number of co-prime numbers of 1050 which are below 1050
151 180 = 22 × 32 × 5
 1  1  1  1
Number of co-prime numbers of 180, which are below 180 = 1050 ×  1 −  ×  1 −  ×  1 −  ×  1 −  = 240.
 2  3  5  7
 1  1  1
= 180 × 1 −  × 1 −  × 1 −  = 48 So probable prime numbers = 240
 2  3  5
Now, if Pi denotes the prime numbers other than 2, 3, 5 and
So probable prime numbers = 48
7 then these 240 numbers include
Now, if Pi denotes the prime numbers other than 2, 3 and 5,
(i) Pi
then these 48 numbers include
(ii) Pin; such that pn ≤ 1050; for each n ≥ 2
(i) Pi
(iii) P1P2P3… Pr ≤ 1050
(ii) Pin; such that pn ≤ 180; for each n ≥ 2
(iv) 1, as it’s not a prime number.
(iii) P1P2P3… Pr ≤ 180
(iv) 1 Now, find the relevant numbers in each of the four cases.
Now, find the relevant numbers in each of the four cases. (a) Other than 2, 3, 5 and 7 we have following prime
(i) Other than 2, 3 and 5 we have following prime numbers : 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47,
numbers; 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29 … etc. 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97, 101, …, etc.
(ii) 7 2, 112, 132 (b) {112, 132, 17 2, 192, 232, 292, 312}
(iii) {7 × 11, 7 × 13, 7 × 17, 7 × 19, 7 × 23}, {11 × 13} (c) {11 × 13, 11 × 17, 11 × 19, … , 11 × 89},
(iv) 1 {13 × 17, 13 × 19, … , 13 × 79},
So out of 48 probable prime numbers (ii), (iii), (iv) are not {17 × 19, … , 17 × 61}, {19 × 23, … , 19 × 53},
the prime numbers. {23 × 29, … , 23 × 43}, {29 × 31}
It implies that (i) = 48 − [(ii) + (iii) + (iv)] (d) 1
Thus net prime numbers = 48 − (3 + 6 + 1) = 38. So out of 240 probable prime numbers (b), (c), (d) are not
But since 2, 3 and 5 are the prime numbers, so the total the prime numbers.
prime numbers = 38 + 3 = 41 It implies that (a) = 240 − [(b) + (c) + (d)]
Number System 185

Thus net prime numbers = 240 − (7 + 60 + 1) = 172 154 If he had worked in each and every month his salary in n
But since 2, 3, 5 and 7 are the prime numbers, so the total months would have been
prime numbers in the set of first 1050 natural numbers 12 + 22 + 32 + … + n2
= 172 + 4 = 176
n(n + 1)(2n + 1)
Now since the number of prime numbers in the set = = 21740 + k 2
{1001, 1002, …, 1050} = 8 6
Therefore total number of prime numbers in the set of first Where k denotes the month in which he didn’t go to work.
1000 natural numbers = 176 − 8 = 168. By hit and trial, you come to know that he has been
Hint Number of elements in (b) = 7 and number of working for more than 39 months as
elements in (c) = 19 + 16 + 11 + 8 + 5 = 60 and elements 12 + 22 + 32 + … + 392
in (d) = 1.
39(40)(79)
6 n 11 = = 20540 < 21740
153 Let there be m men in team B, then < < 6
11 m 19
Similarly, you also realize that he has been working for less
n
⇒ 0. 5454 < < 0. 5784 than 41 months as
m
12 + 22 + 32 + … + 412
n m n Result
n(n + 1)(2n + 1)
m = = 23821 > 21740
6
1 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 1 1 1 1 None of the values lies
, , , , ,… It’s highly probable that he has been working for the last
… 1 2 3 4 5 between 0.5454 and
0.5784 40 months. In that case 12 + 22 + 33 + … + 402
2 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 2 2 2 2 2 None of the values lies 40(41)(81)
, , , , … = = 22140
… 1 2 3 4 5 between 0.5454 and 6
0.5784 Since 22140 − 21740 = 400, it implies that he didn’t work
3 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 3 , 3 , 3 , 3 , 3 , 3 … None of the values lies in the 20th month.
… 1 2 3 4 5 6, between 0.5454 and Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
0.5784 155 One of the possible combinations with Azad could be
4 1, 2, 3, 4, 4 4 4 4 4 4
, , , , , = 0. 5714, which 1000a + 100b + 10c + d, where a, b, c and d denote the
5,6,7, … 1 2 3 4 5 7
number of notes of various denominations mentioned.
4 4 lies between 0.5454
, ,… Similarly, there will be remaining 23 possible
6 7 and 0.5784
combinations of notes of various denominations with Bose.
Thus we can see that the minimum possible value of m is 7 However, from the given limited information, it would be
6 n 11 next to impossible to determine the total sum of
for which < < . amounts with Azad and Bose. The only way out is to use
11 m 19
Hence choice (d) is the correct answer. the given choices to get the better clue of what you need to
answer.
NOTE There may be other values of m for which the
Choice (a) (1000a + 100b + 10c + d )
given relation will be valid, but those values of m will be
higher than 7. + (1000b + 100a + 10d + c) = 11(100a + 100b + c + d )
6 n 11 19n 11n It shows that the possible total sum must be divisible by 11
Alternatively < < ⇒ <m<
11 m 19 11 6 and since 11 is the factor of 14377, so it can be a possible
answer.
n 19n 11n m
Choice (b) (1000a + 100b + 10c + d )
11 6
8 5 + (1000c + 100d + 10a + b)
1 1 1 No integral value of m is possible
11 6 = 101(10a + 10c + b + d )
2 5 4 No integral value of m is possible It shows that the possible total sum must be divisible by
3 3
11 6 101 and since 101 is not the factor of 24377, so it CANNOT
3 2 3 No integral value of m is possible be a possible answer.
5 5
11 6 Choice (c) (1000a + 100b + 10c + d )
4 10 2 10 2
6 7 6 <7 <7 + (1000c + 100d + 10a + b) = 11(10a + 10c + b + d )
11 6 11 6
It shows that the possible total sum must be divisible by
Thus at n = 4 the minimum value of m = 7 satisfies the 101, and since 101 is not the factor of 44377, so it
given relation. CANNOT be a possible answer.
186 QUANTUM CAT
Choice (d) (1000a + 100b + 10c + d ) 157 To bring the three gears into starting position, each gear
+ (1000d + 100c + 10b + a) = 11(91a + 91d + 10b + 10c) have to complete equal distance, which is equal to the LCM
It shows that the possible total sum must be divisible by 11 of 36, 25 and 30. That is 900.
900 900 900
and since 11 is NOT the factor of 44351, so it CANNOT be a So x = = 25, y = = 36, z = = 30.
36 25 30
possible answer. Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Therefore x + y + z = 25 + 36 + 30 = 91
156 Let the talk-time of each simcard be a, b, c, d and e such Hence choice (a) is the answer.
that a > b > c > d > e. It is obvious that a + b = 133 and
158 An integer is square-free if and only if it does not have a
d + e = 122, since the combination of two highest
divisor of the form p2 for some prime p. Let A p be the set of
talk-times will give the highest total and the combination
of two lowest talk-times will give the lowest total. all integers between 1 and 120 divisible by p2. Then
It is known that e + d = 122 and d ≠ e, so the probable 120  120 
A2 =  2  = 30, A3 =  2  = 13
values of d and e are as follows.  2   3 
(d, e) = (62, 60), (63, 59), (64, 58), (65, 57), … etc. 120 
Now go through options. Consider a = 71, then b = 62, A5 =  2  = 4
 5 
which is not feasible as b should be greater than d.
Again, consider a = 69, then b = 64. Therefore the possible 120   120 
A7 =  2  = 2, A2 × 3 =  2
= 3,
value of c = 63, d = 62 and e = 60. But adding any two  7  (2 × 3) 
values of a, b, c, d and e we do not find many matching
 120 
values which are given in the problem. A2 × 5 =  2
=1
Once again consider another value of a = 68, then b = 65. (2 × 5) 
Therefore the probable values of c are 64 and 63. Now if we But A2 × 7 = A3 × 5 = A3 × 7 = A5 × 7 = A2 × 3 × 5 = A2 × 5 × 7
consider c = 64, d = 62 and e = 60 for a = 68 and b = 65 we = A2 × 3 × 7 = A3 × 5 × 7 = A2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 0
find that all the pairs of talk-times are matching. Therefore A p = [( A2 + A3 + A5 + A7 ) − ( A2 × 3 + A2 × 5 )]
Therefore the highest talk-time for a simcard is 68 minutes. = 45
Alternatively
Thus total number of square-free integers between 1 and
a b c d e Comment 120 = 120 − 45 = 75
71 62 d should be less than b which we NOTE [ x ] denotes the greatest integer less than or
can’t get as the least possible of d equal to x.
is 62.
159 The equation can be rewritten as
69 64 63 62 60 Even though individual values do
not clash or violate the
(a − 1)(b − 1) + (c − 1)(d − 1) = 2
conditions, but few combinations Now there are not many possibilities to consider! If the first
(talk-times) do not match with product is 0, the second must be 2, and if the first product
the given ten values is 1, so is the second.
68 65 64 62 60 Each and every condition is Case I If a = 1, then we need to have (c − 1)(d − 1) = 2
satisfied. Since 1 ≤ c ≤ d, this forces c = 2,d = 3. And b can be 1 or 2,
68 65 64 63 59 Even though individual values do giving the solutions (1, 1, 2, 3) and (1, 2, 2, 3).
not clash or violate the Case II If a > 1, we need a = 2, else the left hand side is too
conditions, but few combinations big. That forces b = c = d = 2, giving the third solution
(talk-times) do not match with (2, 2, 2, 2). Thus it has total 3 solutions.
the given ten values. Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
68 65 63 62 60 Even though
160 Let the given two numbers be 10a + b and 10 x + y. Then as
individual values do not clash or
violate the conditions, but few per the given condition we have (10a + b) × (10 x + y )
a y
combinations (talk-times) do not = (10b + a) × (10 y + x ) ⇒ ax = by ⇒ =
match with the given ten values. b x
a y
Now we can get various possible combinations for =
Therefore we can conclude that 68 is the highest talk-time b x
as shown in the following table.
of a given simcard.
Number System 187

Possible Basic possible pairs Basic acceptable Total As it is given that the no. of dynamic tiles = no. of static tiles
a valid
values of  ab  ab So, lb = 2l + 2b + 4
b of   pairs of   pairs
y  xy   xy  ⇒ lb − 2l − 2b = 4
and
x ⇒ lb − 2l − 2b + 4 = 8
1 2 3 4
, , ,  12   12   12   12   12   24 4× 2 ⇒ (l − 2)(b − 2) = 8
 ,  ,  ,  ,  ,  ,
2 4 6 8  42  63  84  63  84  63 =8 Since l and b are positive integers, so ( l − 2) and ( b − 2) must be
 24  24  36  36 integers. It implies that ( l − 2) and ( b − 2) are the two factors
 ,  ,    
 63  84  84  84 of 8.
1 2 3
, ,  13   13   26  13   26 2× 2 Therefore ( l − 2)( b − 2) = 8 × 1
 ,  ,    ,  
3 6 9  62  93  93  62  93 =4 ⇒ l = 10 and b = 3
1 2
,  14   14  1× 2 And (l − 2)(b − 2) = 4 × 2
   
4 8  82  82 =2 ⇒ l = 6 and b = 4
2 4 6
, ,  23  23  46  23  23 2× 2 Alternatively Let the number of dynamic tiles = l × b
 ,  ,    ,  
3 6 9  64  96  96  64  96 =4 Then the number of static tiles = ( l + l ) + ( b + b ) + 4
3 6  34  34 1× 2 As it is given that the no. of dynamic tiles = no. of static tiles
,    
4 8  86  86 =2 So, lb = 2l + 2b + 4 ...(i)
Therefore, l(b − 2) = 2b + 4
 ab  ba
Since   and   give same result but they are distinct ⇒ b > 2, as right hand side is strictly positive.
 xy  yx
Similarly, b(l − 2) = 2l + 4
from each other.
⇒ l > 2, as right hand side is strictly positive.
 12  21
As,   and   give same results but they are distinct It implies that l ≥ 3 and b ≥ 3.
 63  36
(2b + 4)
from each other. That’s why we have multiplied the basic Again rearranging the Eq. (i), we get l = ...(ii)
(b − 2)
number of pairs by 2.
Therefore total required pairs = 8 + 4 + 2 + 4 + 2 = 20 (2b + 4)
Therefore, ≥3
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. (b − 2)

NOTE We have excluded those combinations, which ⇒ (2b + 4) ≥ 3(b − 2)

 12 ⇒ b ≤ 10
involve same digits, for example   , since 12 and 42 have a
 42 Now we know that l ≥ 3 and 3 ≤ b ≤ 10, so we can determine the
common digit 2, so we can’t consider this pair. integral values of l by substituting the value of b.
Thus, when b = 3, l = 10 and b = 4, l = 6
For your better understanding all the 20 valid pairs are
mentioned below : 161 Therefore total number of tiles = 2(3 × 10) = 60 or
(12, 63), (21, 36), (12, 84), (21, 48), (24, 63), (42, 36), 2(4 × 6) = 48
(36, 84), (63, 48), (13, 62), (31, 26), (29, 93), (62, 39), As we don’t have unique value for total number of tiles, so
(14, 82), (41, 28), (23, 64), (32, 46), (23, 96), (32, 69), we are not able to answer the exact figure for total number
(34, 86), (43, 68) of tiles in the grid.
Hence choice (d) is the correct answer.
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 160 to 162) The required grid of tiles
will be similar in looks as the following one. 162 As we see the highest value of l × b is 30, so the maximum
number of dynamic tiles can be 30.
Hence choice (d) is the correct answer.
163 The dimensions of the required grid are (l + 2) and (b + 2),
so the actual dimensions will be either 12 and 5 or 8 and 6.
8 12 8 8
Since < , so is the preferred ratio. As can be
6 5 6 6
4 4
rationalized as , so is the preferred ratio of length and
3 3
breadth of the grid.
Let the number of dynamic tiles = l × b
Hence choice (c) is the correct answer.
Then the number of static tiles = ( l + l ) + ( b + b ) + 4
188 QUANTUM CAT
164 Consider the following table. 285
⇒ n+ ≤ − 2 285
n
Number of terms
⇒ n2 + 2 285n + 285 ≤ 0
1 1
It implies that the only root of the above inequation is
1 + 3= 4 2 7 =1 + 6 n = − 285
4 + 6 = 10 3 16 = 7 + 9 285 285
∴ m=n+ = − 285 +
10 + 9 = 19 4 28 = 16 + 12 n − 285
19 + 12 = 31 5 43 = 28 + 15 ⇒ m = − 2 285 = − 33.76
31 + 15 = 46 6 61 = 43 + 18 Since m is an integer, so its highest value is −34.
46 + 18 = 64 7 82 = 61 + 21 Hint To know more about this method, you may like to
64 + 21 = 85 8 106 = 82 + 24 refer the chapter on theory of equations.
85 + 24 = 109 9 133 = 106 + 27 1 37 5 1 1
166 a + = = 2+ = 2+ = 2+
109 + 27 = 136 10 163 = 133 + 30 1 16 16 16 1
b+ 3+
c 5 5
By observation you can confirm that 160 is the second last ⇒ a = 2, b = 3, c = 5
(or 9th) term of the 10th row. Further you know that the
∴ abc = 30
last term (9th term) of the 9th row is just above the second
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
last term (9th term) of the 10th row.
Thus there is only one required term, which is 133. So the 167 From a simple bar you need 1 step to make 2 pieces.
required sum is also 133. Similarly you need 2 steps to make 3 pieces.
Hence choice (b) is the correct answer. Similarly you need 3 steps to make 4 pieces.
...... ..... ......
165 The value of m can be integer only when n is a factor of
...... ..... ......
285.
Thus to make 28 pieces you need 27 steps.
Now, the factors of 285 are 1, 3, 5, 15, 19, 57, 95 and 285.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Case (i) When n = 1 or 285, m = 286
Hint A sheet of m × n dimension requires (mn) − 1 steps to
Case (ii) When n = 3 or 95, m = 98
cut off into mn pieces of 1 × 1 dimensions.
Case (iii) When n = 5 or 57, m = 62
Case (iv) When n = 15 or 19, m = 34 1
168 Given that a + b + c = 1, so let us assume a = + x,
Since n < 0, so the values of m will be −286, −98, −62 and 3
1 1
−34. Out of these four values of m, −34 is the highest value. b = + y, c = + z
Hence choice (a) is the correct answer. 3 3
Alternatively Since, for the positive real numbers, 1  1  1 
∴ a + b + c =  + x +  + y +  + z
Arithmetic mean ≥ Geometric mean, therefore 3  3  3 
 285 ⇒ a + b + c = 1 + ( x + y + z)
n + 
 n   285 ⇒ 1 = 1 + ( x + y + z)
≥ n× 
2  n 
⇒ x+ y+z=0
285 285 Now, ( x + y + z )2 = 0
⇒ n+ ≥ 2 285 ⇒ n + ≥ 33.76
n n
⇒ x 2 + y 2 + z 2 + 2( xy + yz + zx ) = 0
Since n < 0, that is n is negative, so we have
285 ( x 2 + y 2 + z2 )
n+ ≤ − 33.76 ⇒ ( xy + yz + zx ) = −
n 2
But since m has to be integer, so we have ⇒ ( xy + yz + zx ) = − d; where d ≥ 0
285 ∴ ab + bc + ca
n+ ≤ − 34
n 1  1  1  1  1  1 
=  + x  + y +  + y  + z +  + z  + x
Alternatively Since, for the positive real numbers, 3 3  3 3  3 3 
Arithmetic mean ≥ Geometric mean, therefore 1 2
⇒ ab + bc + ca = + ( x + y + z ) + ( xy + yz + zx )
285 3 3
n+ ≥ 2 285
n 1 1
⇒ ab + bc + ca = − d ⇒ ab + bc + ca ≤
Since n is negative, so we have, 3 3
 285 Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
− n +  ≥ − 2 285
 n 
Number System 189

1 169 A number N can be expressed as an ordered sum of one or

Alternatively Let us consider a = b = c = , as
3 more positive integers in 2( N − 1) ways. Therefore 8 can be
1 1 1 3 1 expressed as an ordered sum of one or more positive
a + b + c = 1. Therefore ab + bc + ca = + + = =
9 9 9 9 3 integers in 28 − 1 = 27 = 128 ways.
Now, by looking at the given choices, we can say that
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
choice (a) can be the correct one.

Level Final Round

1 120 = 4 × 5 × 6 (Since minimum number of cuts are 5. S = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, … , 96, 98, 100}
possible only when all the three factors are very close) If the product of any 3 elements contains 4 or more than 4
Again 125 = 5 × 5 × 5 2s then it will be divisible by 16 (since 16 = 24) otherwise it
But since 4 + 5 + 6 = 5 + 5 + 5 = 15, hence the same will not be divisible. Hence remove those elements which
number of cuts are required as previously. Hence ‘n’ are multiples of either 4 or 8 or 16 or 32 or 64 in the given
number of cuts are required to get 125 identical pieces. set. Since (2k × 2l × 2m) is not divisible by 16 if k, l, m are

2 Note that the first element of nth term of the given odd numbers.
 n2 − n + 2 Thus there are only 25 elements in p.
sequence is   and the last element of the nth As P = {2, 6, 10, 14, 18, 22, 26, 30, … , 94, 98}
 2 
n (n + 1) 6. Since 51 = 17 × 3
element is .
2 85 = 17 × 5
So the last element of the 21st term of the sequence 102 = 17 × 6
21 × 22 Thus the minimum possible number of cubes
= = 231 = 3 × 5 × 6 = 90
2
The total surface area of non-red faces
Now to find the sum of first 21 term we have to find the
= (Total surface area of all the cubes
sum of first 231 natural numbers.
231 × 232 – total surface area of cuboid)
Hence = 231 × 116 = 26796
2 = (90 × 6 × 17 × 17 ) − 2 × (51 × 85 + 85 × 102 + 102 × 51)
Hence the last digit is 6 and tens digit is 9. = 90 × 6 × 289 − 2 × 289 (15 + 30 + 18)
3. The elements of the set = 90 × 6 × 289 − 2 × 289 (63)
S19 = {172, 173, 174, 175, … , 190} = 289 × 18 (5 × 6 − 7 ) = 289 × 18 × 23 = 119646 cm 2
Now 175 = 52 × 7 6p + 7q 6p 7q
7. Go through options; → +
180 = 5 × 36 42 42 42
185 = 5 × 37 Since p is divisible by 7 and q is divisible by 6 thus
6p 7q 6 × 7 m + 7 × 6n
190 = 5 × 38 + →
Therefore the number of 5s contained in the product of the 42 42 42
42 (m + n)
element of the set is 5. Note that the number of 2s are more = = (m + n)
42
than the number of 5s. So the total number of zeros at the
end of the product of the element is 5. 8. pq − qr = ( p + q)r − q ; 11 > p > r > q ∈ Prime numbers.
4. Note the number of zeros in the product of S19 and S20 will 7 3 − 35 = (7 + 3)5 − 3 ⇒ 100 = 100
depend upon the number of 5s contained in S19 and S20. ∴ ( p + q) = 7 + 3 = 10 = 5 (5 − 3) = r (r − q)
Now, the S20 = {191, 192, 193, 194, 195, … , 210} 9. Since there are 25 prime numbers upto 100 also 1 is not
Thus 195 = 5 × 39 divisible by any number.
200 = 5 × 5 × 8 Hence there are only 26 seats available on the front row for
205 = 5 × 41 the mathematicians.
210 = 5 × 42
10. Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday Sunday
Therefore the total number of 5s contained in S20 = 5
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
hence the number of zeros at the end of the product is 5.
Thus the number of zeros at the end of the product of S19 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
and S20 = 10. 88
= Remainder is 4.
Thus the largest power of 10 is 10, which can exactly 7
divide the product of S19 and S20. So the 4th day in the week is Thursday.
190 QUANTUM CAT
11. Since Thursday will fall on those dates which can be 16. The middle most pages of the 40 45
expressed as 7 k + 4; magazines are shown in the figure 42 43
k = 0, 1, 2, 3, … numbered as 42 and 43.
Now since 64 can’t be expressed as 7 k + 4. Did you notice that the front pages
Hence (d) is the required answer. on the left side of the magazine (as
shown in figure) are divisible by 2
12. According to the septarion calendar there are exactly 364
and the odd numbers are on the back side of these
days and each day occurs equal number of times in whole
numbers ? Note that I am talking about the left side of the
year.
magazine when it is open as shown in figure.
13. Find the pattern So the missing page numbers with 29 will be 30 and the
Hence, (89)91 → (8910 )9 × 891 corresponding number in the right side will be 51 and 52.
(89)91 → 01 × 89 Alternatively Since the magazine has 84 pages it
(89)91 → 89 means there are 21 sheets of paper, which are folded in
Thus the last two digits of (1989)91 are 8 and 9. middle. Now see the pattern of page numbers :
Since (89)1 → 89 (89)11 → 89 Left side Right side
(89) → 21
2
(89)12 → 21 1, 2 83, 84
(89)3 → 69 (89)13 → 69 3, 4 81, 82
… … … … 5, 6 79, 80
… … … … 7, 8 77, 78
(i)
9, 10 75, 76
8910 → 01 (89)20 → 01
M M M M
NOTE To find the last ‘n’ digits we find the pattern for 29, 30 55,56
last ‘n’ digits. M M M M
41, 42 43, 44 (ii)
14. Step 1. 2 7 3 5 → No any digit is placed at
the right place. Thus we can say that the sum of the page numbers on a
sheet in one side is always 85. Hence the page numbers
Step 2. 5 2 7 3 → No any digit is correctly printed on the sheet of paper is 29, 30 and 55, 56.
placed.
17 Let there be six locks A, B, C, D, E and F.
Step 3. 3 → This digit is not acceptable Then we need maximum 5 attempts to know the right key
at this place. for ‘A’. Again we need maximum 4 attempts to know the
right key for ‘B’. Similarly we need 3, 2 and 1 attempts to
It means the first digit will be 7, since 2, 5 and 3 are
know the proper key for the locks C, D and E. Now 1 key is
inadmissible.
automatically left for the lock ‘F’. Thus the total number
7
attempts required
Again since 5 and 3 are not acceptable at unit digit place = 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15
and 7 is correctly filled up as the first digit, hence only one
51n2 + 17 n + 6 6
digit i.e., ‘2’ is left for the unit digit place. 18 = 51n + 17 +
n n
7 2 Here the first two terms are divisible for any value of n, but
the last term is divisible by only 1, 2, 3 and 6 i.e., only
Now, since 3 and 7 are not acceptable and 2 has been used,
4 values, which are actually the factors of 6.
hence only one digit i.e., ‘5’ is left for the tens place.
19 V >> S >> P
7 5 2
V >> L >> P
Thus, we can complete the password as V >> L > S
Therefore, V >> L > S >> P
7 3 5 2
Thus the worst player can be Plexur.
Alternatively Go through options.
20 Obviously (n − 1). Since if the Winner first picks up (n − 1)
15. (888 !)999 = (1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × … × 76 × 77 × 78 × … × 888)999
sticks then there will be only one stick left, which must be
Since it has a factor as 77. Thus it has no remainder.
picked up by the Loser and hence the last player will lose it.
Number System 191

21 The last ten digits of 11 × 22 × 33 × 44 × 55 are 25 Total number of passages

(00,86,40,00,00) = x + ( x + 3) + ( x + 5) + … + ( x + 27 )
The last ten digits of 16 × 27 × 38 × 49 × 510 are
= (4 × 10) + (3 + 6 + 9 + … + 27 )
(00,00,00,00,00) = 40 + 3 (1 + 2 + 3 + … + 9)
The last ten digits of 111 × 212 × 313 × 414 × 515 are
= 40 + 135 = 175
(00,00,00,00,00)
The last ten digits of 196 × 297 × 398 × 499 × 5100 are 26 Let there be x people in the village then there must be 4x
(00,00,00,00,00) sheep.
Thus the sum of the last tens digits of the expression is Now the number of persons live = ( x − 8)
(00,86,40,00,00) and the number of sheep to be carried with the survived
Hence the sum of the last ten digits of the sum of the people = 4 x − (47 + 21) = 4 x − 68
expression = 18. (Q 8 + 6 + 4 = 18) Since we know that each person has carried only one sheep
22 Initially Ravi Shankar has only ` 2 with him. Since we know with him. Therefore
that the Ravi Shankar can pay the sum in rupees only it ( x − 8) = 4 x − 68
means he cannot pay in paise. Therefore he must have ⇒ 3x = 60
purchased initially the flowers of exactly ` 1. ⇒ x = 20
Now from the options : Consider option (c). ⇒ 4 x = 80
The number of flowers he has purchased for ` 1 = 4. Hence there were total 80 sheep.
Later on he could purchased the number of flowers for
27 (123) (234) (345) (456) (567) (678) (789)
total ` 2 = 4 + 6 = 10.
Thus the initial cost of one dozen flowers = ` 3 (135) (246) (357) (468) (579)
and the changed cost of one dozen flowers = ` 2.40 (147) (258) (369)
Thus he could gain 60 paise per dozen. Hence the (159)
presumed option (c) is correct. Thus there are total 16 such numbers.
NOTE The initial number of flowers must be less than 6, 28 (22 + 42 + 62 + 82 + … + 1002 ) − (12 + 32 + 52 + … + 992 )
for ` 1 only then he can get the benefit by purchasing = (22 + 42 + 62 + … + 1002 )
6 flowers for the next ` 1.
− [(12 + 22 + 32 + 42 + … + 992 + 1002 )
23 See the figure there are 31 pencils of equal length.
− (22 + 42 + 62 + … + 1002 )]
A B C D E
= 2 (22 + 42 + … + 1002 ) − (12 + 22 + 32 + … + 1002 )
= 8 (12 + 22 + 32 + … + 502 )
− (12 + 22 + 32 + 42 + … + 1002 )
F G H I J
 50 × 51 × 101  100 × 101 × 201
=8  − 
 6   6 
K
L M N O 101 × 100 10100
= (51 × 4 − 201) = × (3) = 5050, Hence (b).
6 6
Alternatively (22 + 4 2 + 6 2 + 8 2 + … + 100 2 )
P Q R S T
− (12 + 32 + 52 + … + 992 )
15 vertically and 16 horizontally.
= (4 + 16 + 36 + 64 + … + 10000)
Thus there are 12 small squares of the dimension of
equivalent to 1 pencil and 6 squares of dimension of − (1 + 9 + 25 + … + 9801)
equivalent to 2 pencil and 2 squares of dimensions of = [(4 − 1) + (16 − 9) + (36 − 25) + … + (10000 − 9801)]
equivalent to 3 pencils. Therefore total number of squares  3 + 199
= 3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + … + 199 =   × 50
= 12 + 6 + 2 = 20.  2 
202 × 50
24 Let she did x number of pages on the first day. It means = = 101 × 50 = 5050
second, third, fourth, …, nineth and tenth day she did 2
( x + 3)( x + 6)( x + 9)… ( x + 24) and ( x + 27 ) passages. 29 Consider some proper values.
Now since ( x + 24) = 4 ( x + 3) 30 Sn = 30 + 31 + 32 + … + 3200
⇒ 3x = 12 ⇒ x = 4
30 (3201 − 1) (3201 − 1)
Therefore the number of passages she did on the last day Sn = =
(3 − 1) 2
= x + 27 = 31.
192 QUANTUM CAT
(3201 − 1) (33 )67 − 13 [(27 )67 − 1] 3
Now, = = Now the rest height of 3 metre will be covered in minute
2 2 2 5
i.e., 36 seconds.
Now since an − bn is divisible by (a − b) therefore
Hence total time taken to cover 36 metre height is 22
[(27 ) 67
− 1] is divisible by (27 − 1) = 26. minutes 36 seconds.
Hence it is also divisible by 13. 36 13 + 23 + 33 + 43 + … + 10003
Thus the remainder is zero since the given expression is
1000 (1001)  3  n (n + 1) 
2 2
divisible by 13. = + 3
+ … + 3
=
 Q 1 2 n   
31 Let the sum of the expression be Sn then  2  2 
Sn = 40 + 41 + 42 + 43 + … + 440 = (500 × 1001)2 = 250000 × 1001 × 1001,

⇒ Sn = (1 + 4 + 16 + 64) + 44 (1 + 4 + 16 + 64) + K which is divisible by 13. Hence the remainder is zero.

+4 36
(1 + 4 + 16 + 64) + 4 40 37 (22)3 + (23)3 + (24)3 + … + (87 )3 + (88)3
= (223 + 883 ) + (233 + 87 3 ) + (243 + 863 )
Since (1 + 4 + 16 + 64) = 85 is divisible by 17, hence except
+ (253 + 853 ) + … + (543 + 563 ) + 553
440 remaining expression is divisible by 17.
440 (44 )10 (1)10 Now since we know that an + bn is divisible by (a + b) when
∴ → → , n is an odd number. Therefore all the terms, except (55)3, is
17 17 17
Hence the required remainder is 1. divisible by 110.
Now the remainder when (55)3 is divided by 110 is 55.
32 Let Sn = 40 + 41 + 42 + 43 + 44 + 45 + K + 440 Hence the required remainder of the whole expression is 55.
⇒ Sn = (1 + 4 + 16) + 43 (1 + 4 + 16) 38 The value of nth term
+ 46 (1 + 4 + 16) + … + 440 = Sum of n terms – Sum of (n − 1) term
⇒ Sn = 21 + 4 (21) + 4 (21) + 4 (21) + …
3 6 9 Therefore value of 6th term = Sum of 6 terms
– Sum of 5 terms
+ 436 (21) + (439 + 440 ) = (6 ! + 62 ) − (5! + 52 ) = (720 + 36) − (120 + 25) = 611
Here we can see that except (439 + 440 ) remaining 39 The smallest possible number which is divisible by either 3,
expression is divisible by 7. 5 or 7 is 105. Now we express it in binary representation,
(439 + 440 ) 439 (5) (43 )13 × 5 5 then
Now → → →
7 7 7 7
2 105
Hence the required remainder is 5. 
2 52 → 1 → LSB 
33 The total distance which a monkey has to overcome is  26
35 metre. Since the monkey first climbs up 5 metre and 2 26 → 0 
2 13 → 0 
then he slips down by 2 metre, it means he climbs up only 3
metre in one round of 2 (= 1 + 1) minutes. 2 6 → 1
Now, note that if the monkey has to just climbup 5 metre 
2 3 → 0 
then he will not be slipped back. Thus he will cover the
2 1 → 1  26
30 metre height in 10 rounds and the rest 5 metre height of 
the top will covere in only one attempt. Since when he will 0 → 1 → MSB 
touch (or reach) the top of the pole he will not be slipped Thus (105)10 = (1101001)2.
back. Thus total number of attempts required
Hence the minimum 7 digits are required to represent it.
= 11 (= 10 + 1).
40 Go through option
NOTE In this type of question subtract the height which
Sn = 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + … + 22221
he/she climbsup in first attempt (i.e., 5 metre in this question)
then assuming the resultant height and solve it as usual. Now S11111 = (11111)2 [Q Sn = n2]
the length of the top will be covered in only one attempt of Hence it is divisible by 11111. Thus option (b) is correct.
upward direction and then addup all the results obtained.
41 Go through options :
34 Since first he covers 30 metres in 20 minutes and the rest
height of 5 metre (at the top) covers in only one minute. Anjuli had chocolates = 12
Hence total time = 20 + 1 = 21 minutes. 12
She gave to Amit = −1 = 5
35 Since the actual height is 36 metre. 2
Therefore 36 − 5 = 31, which is not divisible by 3. Now she is left with 7 chocolates
Hence he will climb 33 (= 3 × 11) metre in 11 attempts then she gave 3 chocolates to Bablu
taking 22 (= 11 × 2) minutes. Now she has 4 chocolates
Number System 193

then she gave 2 chocolates to Charles 47 Let there be n rows, then the number of soldier in each
Now she has only two chocolates. 36
row =
Then she gave 1 chocolate to Deepak n
and she is finally left with one chocolate. (Since the number of soldier in each row is same)
Alternatively Solve the problem in reverse. Now the number of bullets he gave to the first row
Anjuli’s chocolate = 1 (Finally) = 1 bullet × number of soldiers
Before she has given to Deepak = 2 chocolates and the number of bullets he gave to the second row
Before she has given to Charles = 4 chocolates
= 2 bullets × number of soldiers
Before she has given to Bablu = 7 chocolates
and the number of bullets he gave to the third row
Before she has given to Amit = 12 chocolates.
Alternatively By forming the equation assuming any = 3 bullets × number of soldiers
variable x as the original number of chocolates which Hence total number of bullets
Anjuli had. 36 36 36 36
=1 × + 2× + 3× +…+ n ×
42 Since a1b1c1, a2b2c2, a3b3c3, … etc. are consecutive 3 digit n n n n
36
numbers. Hence c1, c2, c3, … etc. must be the consecutive 180 = (1 + 2 + 3 + … + n)
n
unit digits. Hence there will be all the 10 digits (viz., 0, 1,
36 n (n + 1)
2, …, 9) 10 times as unit digits. or 180 = ×
It means the required unit digit is equal to the sum of all n 2
36 (n + 1)
the unit digits. or 180 =
2
Thus [(1)100 + (2)100 + (3)100 + … (9)100 + (10)100] × 10
⇒ (n + 1) = 10
= [1 + 6 + 1 + 6 + 5 + 6 + 1 + 6 + 1 + 0] × 10 = [ 3] × 10 = 0
⇒ n=9
Thus the unit digit of the whole expression is 0 (zero).
36
Thus the number of soldiers in each row = =4
43 P ( x, y ) + Q ( x, y ) 9
= ( f ( x, y ) + g( x, y )) + ( f ( x, y ) − g ( x, y )) Hence, there are 4 soldiers in 8th row.
= 2 f ( x, y ) = 2 × ([ x] + { y}) 48 Given that (n − 5) is divisible by 17 and let
= 2 × ([16] + {25}) = 2 × (16 + 25) = 2 × 41 = 82
(n − 5) = k = 17 m
44 P ( x, y ). Q ( x, y ) = ( f ( x, y ) + g( x, y )). ( f ( x, y ) − g( x, y )) So (n + 12) × (n + 29) = (n − 5 + 17 ) × (n − 5 + 34)
Now since f ( x, y ) = [ x] + { y} = [ ± 4] + {± 5} = [(n − 5) + 17] × [(n − 5) + 34]
f (± 4, ± 5) = ± 9 or ± 1 = (k + 17 ) × (k + 34)
and g ( x, y ) = [ x] − { y} = [ ± 4] − {± 5} = k 2 + 51k + 2 (17 )2
g (± 4, ± 5) = ± 9 or ± 1
Now since k is divisible by 17 so,
Now since there are too many combinations of
k 2 + 51k + 2. (17)2 = (17 m)2 + 51 × 17 m + 2. (17)2
f ( x, y ) and g ( x, y ).
So there is no unique value of P ( x, y ). Q ( x, y ). = 17 2 (m2 + 3m + 2)
45 Since P ( x, y ) + Q ( x, y ) = 2 f ( x, y ) Now the least possible value of m = 1, therefore
So the required value is always an even number. (n + 12) × (n + 29) is divisible by (17 )2 × 6 = 1734.
46 (502 − 1) = (50 + 1)(50 − 1) = (17 × 3) × (7 × 7 ) 49 Go through options :
hence divisible by 17. (396 − 1) = (348 + 1)(348 − 1)
and (729)5 − 729 = 729 (7294 − 1) = (348 + 1)(324 + 1)(324 − 1)
= 729 (729 − 1)(729 + 1)
2 2
Thus if any number ‘n’ can divide (324 − 1) it will certainly
= (729)(729 − 1)(729 + 1)(729 + 1) 2
divide (396 − 1).
= 729 × 728 × 730 × (729 + 1) 2
50 (528 − 1) = (514 + 1)(514 − 1)
Hence it is divisible by 5.
and (542 − 1) = (514 )3 − 1 = (514 − 1)(528 + 1 + 514.1)
Alternatively (a p − a) is divisible by p if p is a prime
number. Hence both (a) and (b). Thus the appropriate answer
is (d).
194 QUANTUM CAT
51 Check through some values. 59 Check for options (a), (b) and (c) then you will find
Alternatively T1 = 1 + 1
2 distinct unit digits. Now consider x = 104.

T2 = 22 + 2 The unit digit of (7 )4 = 1 [Q log10 (104 ) = 4]

T3 = 33 + 3 and the unit digit of (3)10000 is 1.

……………… Hence (d).
……………… 2
+ x
Tn = n 2 + n 60 (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 7 )x and (11 × 11 × 13)x
2
+ x
Sn = T1 + T2 + T3 + … + Tn (17 )x and (1573)x
= (12 + 1)(22 + 2)(32 + 3) + … + (n2 + n) at x = 2, x + x=6
2

= (12 + 22 + 32 + … + n2 ) + (1 + 2 + 3 + … + n) ∴ The unit digit of (17 )6 is 9 and the unit digit of (1573)2
is 9
n (n + 1)(2n + 1) n (n + 1)
= + Hence (b) is correct.
6 2
n (n + 1)  2n + 1 61 For example Remainder
 n (n + 1)  2n + 4 
=  3 + 1 =  3  32
2 2 →1
8
n (n + 1)(n + 2) 4
Sn = 3
3 →1
8
52 The number of zeros at the end of 222111 × 3553 is 53. 56
→1
The number of zeros at the end of (7 !)6! × (10 !)5! is 960. 8
2
7
The number of zeros at the end of 4242 × 2525 is 42. →1
8
Thus the number of zeros at the end of the whole 112
expression is 42. → 1 etc.
8
12345 12346 12347
53 + + 62 Wednesday
12346 12347 12345 2
1 1 2
=1 − +1− +1+ Thus (23 − 2) = 21, 9
12346 12347 12345
2 1 1 will fall on Monday 16
= 3+ − − =3 23
12345 12346 12347
30
54 The sum of all the elements of Sn = n3
63 Wednesday
Therefore the sum of all the elements of 2
S10 = (10)3 = 1000 8
21 will fall on Thursday
55 The middle most element of any odd number of set 14
Sn = n 2 20
Therefore the 11th (i.e., the middle most) element of 26
S21 = (21)2 = 441 64 Eldest said → Equal number of brothers and sisters
56 The sum of the first and last elements of the odd number of (excluding eldest one)
set Sn = 2n .
2 ⇒ 3 brothers and 3 sisters (excluding eldest one)
Youngest said → Twice the number of sisters as the
Therefore the required answer = 2 × (51)2 number of brothers
= 2 × 2601 = 5202 ⇒ 4 sisters and 2 brothers (excluding youngest)
It means there are 3 male and 4 female persons.
57 k = 13 + 17 + 31 + 2 Now, as the youngest said that there are 4 sisters and
= (9 + 3) + (9 + 7 ) + (9 + 9 + 9 + 1) + 2 2 brothers engaged in work. Therefore it is obvious that
= 9 + 9 + 9 + 9 + 9 + 7 + 2+ 3+ 1 the youngest person itself is a male. Hence it can be
= 9 + 9 + 9 + 9 + 9 + 9 + 4 = 64 inferred that the brother of S is youngest.
[Q 9 + 9 = 19, 19 + 9 = 29, 29 + 9 = 39, 39 + 9 = 49, F F F F M M M
49 + 9 = 59, 59 + 4 = 64] S T R A N G E
As :
58 4 + 16 − 5 + 12 = 12 + 4 + 16 − 5 ↑ ↑
= 16 + 11 = (9 + 6) + (9 + 1) Eldest Youngest
= 9 + 9 + 7 = 27
Number System 195

65 Since (10 x + y ) − ( x + y ) = 9 x divisible by 25 → (75, 100) → 2

(100 x + 10 y + z ) − ( x + y + z ) = 9 (11 x + y ) (Note, that in the whole set the number of 2’s
(1000w + 100 x + 10 y + z ) − (w + x + y + z ) are greater than the number of 5’s)
= 9 (111w + 11 x + y ) etc. Hence the number of zeros at the end of the product of the
Hence all these numbers are divisible by 9. element is 18. Hence (a).
7 y 3 70 Since the 5th number is 10,
66 y+ + =6
x 13 143 10th number is 20
14 y 7 861 15th number is 30
⇒ + =
13 x 143 20th number is 40
Now, the value of x can be only 11 or 143 or its multiples, 25th number will be 100
inorder to satisfy the relation. 71 Since in normal one hour this watch completes 5 hours. So
Let x = 11, then in normal 3 hours this watch will completes 15 hours
14 y 861 7 hence it will show 3 o’clock As, 15 = 12 + 3.
= −
13 143 11 72 T1 = 5 × 1 + 1
14 y 770
⇒ = ⇒y=5 T2 = 5 × 2 + 1
13 143
T3 = 5 × 3 + 1
Therefore x − y = 7 − 5 = 2. ………………
………………
Again, x = 143, then
14 y 861 7 Tn = 5 × n + 1
= − ∴ Sn = 5 (1 + 2 + 3 + … + n) + ( 1 + 1 + … + n times)
13 143 143
14 y 854  n (n + 1) 5n2 + 7 n n
⇒ = = 5  + n = = (5n + 7 )
13 143  2 2 2
61 73 Go through options or solve similarly as Q. No. 72.
⇒ y= , which is not a natural number.
11
74 Let the original dimension of a square be x unit then the
Therefore it is clear that when x ≠ 143, then the multiples area will be x 2, hence total area of paper = 144 x 2
of 143 are also not acceptable.
Again the area of reduced square
Thus the only acceptable value is x = 7 and y = 5.
Hence x − y = 2, is the correct answer. = ( x − 2)( x − 2) = ( x − 2)2

67 In the first subset, the number of elements therefore the total area of paper = 400 ( x − 2)2
Divisible by 3 → (3, 9, 15, 21, … , 99) ⇒ 17 Thus 144 x 2 = 400 ( x − 2)2
Divisible by 9 → (9, 27, 45, … 99) ⇒ 6 ⇒ 9 x 2 = 25 ( x − 2)2
Divisible by 27 → (27, 81) ⇒ 2
Divisible by 81 is 162 only ⇒ 1 ⇒ 9 x 2 = 25x 2 + 100 − 100 x
In the second subset, the number of elements ⇒ 16 x 2 − 100 x + 100 = 0 ⇒ x = 5 cm
divisible by 3 → {102, 108, … , 198} ⇒ 17 ∴ Area of paper = 5 × 5 × 144 = 3600
divisible by 9 → {108, 126, … , 198} ⇒ 6
divisible by 27 → (108, 162) ⇒ 2 Alternatively 3600 → 25 → side of square = 5 cm
divisible by 81 is 162 only ⇒ 1 114
Hence the greatest power of 3 is 52 which can divide the 3600
→ 9 → side of new square = 3 cm
product of all the elements of the given set. 400
68 In the first subset, the number of elements Hence option (c) is correct.
divisible by 5 → {5, 15, 25, … , 95} ⇒ 10 75 (ab)2 = bcb, where ab is a two digit number and bcb is a
divisible by 25 → (25, 75) ⇒ 2 three digit number.
In the second subset, the number of elements Now ‘b’ can be equal to 0, 1, 5 or 6, which are probable
divisible by 5 → {110, 120, 130, … , 200} ⇒ 10 values of b as a unit digit.
divisible by 25 → {150, 200} ⇒ 2 at b = 0, bcb is not a three digit number.
Thus the highest power of 5 is 24 that can divide the at b = 1 either a = b or b = c or b ≠ b, which is not possible.
product of all the elements of the set. at b = 5, c is always 2 and b ≠ b, hence not possible.
69 In the first subset, the number of elements at b = 6 and a = 2, (ab)2 = bcb i.e., (26)2 = 676, the only
divisible by 5 → (10, 20, 30, 40, 50) → 5 possible value. Thus a = 2, b = 6, c = 7.
divisible by 25 → (50) → 1 Since b, c, d are in AP hence d = 8
In the second subset, the number of elements
Therefore (dd )2 = (88)2 = 7744 = ccff ⇒ f = 4
divisible by 5 → (55, 60, 65, 70, … ) → 10
196 QUANTUM CAT
76 A = 555! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × … × 277 × 278 × 279 × 88 We know that 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × … × (n − 1). n = n !
… × 554 × 555 Now if n = 240, 241, 242, 243, 244 (5 values)
= (1 × 555) × (2 × 554) × (3 × 553) × (4 × 552) × … then the number of zeros in the end of the product of n!
× (277 × 279) × (278) is 68.
and B = (278)555 = (278 × 278) × (278 × 278) Alternatively The number of zeros in the given
expression will depend on number of 5s (but do not
× (278 × 278)… (278)
depend on number of 2s). Now, since you know that the
Hence A < B.
number of 5s changes at the interval of 5 consecutive
n (n + 1)
77 The last element of nth set = numbers. Then there will be no any change in the number
2 of zeros (since number of 5s) for the five consecutive
24 × 25 values of n.
Therefore last element of S24 = = 300
2 6
89 Since → Remainder is 6
n2 + 1 10
78 The middlemost element of any odd number set is
2 66
→ Remainder is 6
Therefore the middlemost element of the set S15 is 10
152 + 1
6
= 113 66
→ Remainder is 6
2 10
79 The sum of all the elements of an odd numbered set 90 Since we know that if (a + b + c) = 0, then
Sn = n × (middlemost term)
a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc
Therefore, the sum of all the elements of set
Therefore 533 − 463 − 7 3 = 3 × 53 × 46 × 7
 252 + 1
S25 = 25 ×   = 25 × 313 = 7825
 2  91 Let the original number in base ‘n’ be ( xy )n then its reverse
number be ( yx )n
80 Write the elements and then find out.
Again 2 (nx + y ) = (ny + x )
S9, S12, S13 have maximum number of prime number
x n−2
elements equally. ⇒ =
y 2n − 1
81 The sum of all the elements of the set Sn is even if n is
x 1
divisible by 4. Hence (c) is the required answer. So at n = 3, =
Thus sum of all the elements of S72 is even since 72 is y 5
divisible by 4. x 2
at n = 4, =
y 7
82 Check the options.
x 3 1
83 The last element of the set Sn = n2 + n − 1 and at n = 5 = =
y 9 3
Therefore the last element of the set S100 = 10099 x 6 2
and at n = 8 = =
84 The middlemost element of an odd number set Sn = n2 y 15 5
Therefore the middlemost element of But the values of x, y cannot be equal to or greater than
S125 = (125)2 = 15625 their respective bases. Hence there are only two values of n
are possible viz., n = 5 and n = 8.
85 The sum of all the elements of any set Sn = n3
Now since the greatest possible value of n is 8. Hence the
Therefore the required sum of the set
numbers in base n = 8 are 25 and 52. Again when we
S101 = (101)3 = 1030301
convert them into base 10, then the numbers are 21 and 42.
1 1 1 1 Thus the sum of these numbers in decimal system is 63.
86 S = + + + …+
1.2 2.3 3.4 99.100
92 n = 5, 8. Hence (b).
 1 1  1 1  1 1   1 1 
=  −  +  −  +  −  +…+  − 
 1 2  2 3  3 4  99 100 93 7 0 + 71 + 7 2 + 7 3 + … + 7 365

=1 −
1
=
99 1 (7 366 − 1) (7 366 − 1)
= = ,
100 100 (7 − 1) 6
P
87 → Remainder 18 its divisible since (an − bn) is divisible by (a − b).
D
Q (7 366 − 1) (2366 − 1) (4)183 − 1 4 −1 3
→ Remainder 11 Now → → → →
D 5 5 5 5 5
P +Q Since the remainder is 3.
→ Remainder 29, but the remainder is 4.
D Hence Krishna will receive 3 hens.
Hence, the divisor = (29 − 4) = 25.
Number System 197

94 These numbers are 1 and 81. = (47 − 23)(k ) − (43 − 19)(l) = 24 (k − l)

Actual number of boys 1 [Q since (an − bn) is divisible by (a − b)]
95 =
Actual number of girls 1 Therefore it is divisible by 2, 12, 3, 8, 4, 6.
2 Thus the whole expression is divisible by 264.
Since rd girls did not go to picnic.
3 Since 264 = 11 × 24.
Hence the ratio of boys to the girls at picnic = 3 : 1.  0   1  2
99 1 ⋅ (1)2 1 −  + 2⋅ 22 1 −  + 3⋅ 32 1 − 
Now, let there be k samosas to be distributed among boys  1   2  3
or girls equally then  3
k k + 4 ⋅ 42 1 − 
→ Remainder 39 and → Remainder 12  4
3x x
1 1 1
Now, since 39 − 12 = 27 = 1 ⋅ (1)2 ⋅ 1 + 2⋅ (2)2 ⋅ + 3⋅ (3)2 ⋅ + 4 ⋅ (4)2 ⋅ + …
2 3 4
Thus x = 27, or 3, or 9 [Q 27 = 1 × 27 or 27 = 3 × 9] = 12 + 22 + 32 + 42 + … + n2
but since x cannot be less than 12 n (n + 1)(2n + 1)
hence x = 27 =
6
Thus the number of boys = 3x = 81
100 These numbers are (101, 102) (111, 112) (121, 122)
and the number of girls = 3x = 81
Hence total number of students = 162 . S R
96 In any box the maximum number of fruits can be packed is 100 1000
15 and since not more than 5 boxes contain same number
of fruits. So the number of fruits in this case = 5 × 15 = 75 (131, 132) (141, 142) … (202, 203) (212, 213) … (303,
Again we can put 14 fruits in other 5 boxes = 5 × 14 = 70 304) (313, 314) … (808, 809) … (898, 899, 900) … (909,
Similarly 13 fruits in each of the 5 boxes can be contained 910) (919, 920) … (989, 990).
Thus there are total 20 × 7 + 21 + 18 = 179, milestones
= 5 × 13 = 65
which are red, because the hundreds digit on next mile
Since the minimum number of fruits we have to put in a stone is same as the unit of previous milestone.
box = 10
So the total number of fruits which can be put 101 (182 − 1) = (17 )(18 + 1)
= 5 × 15 + 5 × 14 + 5 × 13 + 5 × 12 + 5 × 11 + 5 × 10 (184 − 1) = (182 + 1)(182 − 1) = (182 + 1)(18 + 1)(18 − 1)
= 5 (10 + 11 + 12 + 13 + 14 + 15) = 375 (186 − 1) = (183 )2 − 1 = (183 + 1)(183 − 1) = 17 × k etc.

97 To maximize the 7 15 15 15 15 15 15 15 Hence there will only 9 times 17 in the whole expression.
contents in the M
102 → Remainder 24 ⇒ M = 28k + 24
boxes first we fill 7 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 28
up 15–15 fruits M
7 13 13 13 13 13 13 13 and → Remainder 12 ⇒ M = 22l + 12
in maximum 22
possible number 7 12 12 12 12 12 12 12 ⇒ M = 28k + 24 = 22l + 12
(i.e., 7) of boxes. ⇒ at k = 9, l (= 12), is an integer, for the least solution.
5 11 11 11 11 11
Hence, M = 276 …(i)
Then we fill up 14, 13, 12, in 7–7 boxes. Thus we filled up and higher such numbers can be obtained as
28 boxes containing maximum number of fruits. Now in M ′ = 308 p1 + 276 …(ii)
N
the rest 5 boxes we fill up 11 fruits in each box to its Again → Remainder 16
maximum possible capacity. Now we see that there are at 28
⇒ N = 28m + 16
least 5 boxes in which the number of fruits are same.
N
98 (19)n − (23)n − (43)n + (47 )n and → Remainder 12 ⇒ N = 22n + 12
22
= [(47 )n + (19)n] − [(43)n + (23)n] ⇒ N = 28m + 16 = 22n + 12
= (47 + 19) k − (43 + 23) l at m = 3, n (= 4) is an integer, for the least solution.
Hence N = 100
[since an + bn is divisible by (a + b) if n is odd]
and higher such numbers can be obtained as
= 66 [ k − l] N ′ = 308 p2 + 100
Hence, it is divisible by 2, 3, 6, 11, 22, 33 and 66. Now, 28 + 22 = 50, hence (M ′ + N ′ )must be divisible by 5.
Again (47 )n − (23)n − (43)n + (19)n So M ′ + N ′ = 308 ( p1 + p2 ) + 376
= (47 )n − (23)n − [(43)n − (19)n]
198 QUANTUM CAT
Inorder that M ′ + N ′ must be divisible by 50, either p1 = 1 3× 2× 4
and p2 = 2 or p1 = 2 and p2 = 1, for the least possible 3× 4 × 2
solution. 4 × 2× 3
Hence, M ′ + N ′ = 308 × 3 + 376 = 1300. 4 × 3× 2
6 × 2× 2
103 Since M ′ + N ′ = 308 ( p1 + p2 ) + 376
Hence there are total 9 numbers possible.
As we can observe that the values of p1 and p2 are not
constant so we cannot determine uniquely the ratio of 109 The best way is to go through options. You will find that
when you consider 150 question you can not get 75 marks
M ′ : N ′.
any how.
104 In each set of 100 numbers, there are 10 numbers whose Alternatively Since 75 is an integer, hence he must
tens digit and unit digit are same. Again in the same set have to do (75 + 4 x ) problems, where x is a whole number.
there are 10 numbers whose hundreds and tens digits are Now put the values of x and satisfy the given options.
same. But there is one number in each set of 100 numbers Explanation Since he gets the net marks in integers it
whose Hundreds, Tens and Unit digit are same as 111, 222 means when he does 3n questions wrong , he loses actually
etc. Hence there are exactly (10 + 10 − 1) = 19 numbers in 4n marks. For more clarification see the table below :
each set of 100 numbers. Further there are 9 such sets of
Total Correct Marks Wrong Marks Net
number. Hence total required number = 171.
Questions marks
Alternatively H T U H T U
75 75 75 0 0 75
9 10 10 – 9 9 9 79 76 76 3 –1 75
83 77 77 6 –2 75
900 − 729 = 171
87 78 78 9 –3 75
(1 − p)
105 (1 + p) 256
× (1 + p 128
) × … × (1 + p2 )(1 + p) ×
(1 − p) 110 Solve it through options
(1 + p )(1 − p
256 256
) (1 − p )
512
Total given Rest coins
= =
1− p 1− p coins
1 1 13 12
106 Let the length and breadth of the given perimeter be l and (25 − 1) × = 24 × = 12
b, respectively. Then 2 (l + b) = 50 2 2
1 1 7 5
⇒ l + b = 25 (12 − 2) × = 10 × = 5
2 2
Now 1 1
(5 − 3) × = 2 × = 1 4 1
(b, l) = (1, 24), (2, 23), (3, 22), (4, 21), (5, 20), (6, 19), 2 2
(7, 18), (8, 17 ), … , (12, 13)
Hence he must have stolen 25 coins.
Therefore the required number of rectangles = 12.
111 Let y = log 2 7 ⇒ 2y = 7 (Q x y = a ⇒ log x a = y, x ≠ 1)
107 The product of prime factors = 30 = 2 × 3 × 5
[Clearly y neither can be an integer nor a fraction]
Now the total number of prime factors = 24
Now if y is a rational number, we can write as
= 2 × 2 × 6 ⇒ (1 + 1)(1 + 1)(5 + 1) p
y = ; q≠0
So the least possible number = 25 × 31 + 51 = 480 q
and the greatest possible number = 21 × 31 × 55 = 18750 Thus 2p/ q = 7 ⇒ 2p = 7 q .
480 24 Since in L.H.S. the quantity is even while in the right hand
So the ratio of = = 4 side the given quantity is odd. Thus, y can’t be a rational
18750 5
number.
22 4
∴ The square root = 2 = 1 1
5 25 112 Let us consider 2 × = 1, then 2 + = 2⋅ 5
2 2
108 Let the powers of 2, 3, 5 be a, b, c respectively then the Thus the option (a) and (b) are ruled out.
total number of factors = 24 1 3
Again, let us take some different values viz., × × 2 = 1
= (a + 1)(b + 1)(c + 1) = 24 3 2
So if (a + 1) = k, (b + 1) = l, (c + 1) = m, then 1 3 23 1  10 20
Then, + + 2= ≠ 3 + = = 
k × l × m = 24, where k, l, m ≥ 2 3 2 6 3 3 6
2× 2× 6 Hence option (c) is ruled out.
2× 3× 4 Finally, option (d) is correct, as can be seen from the above
2× 6 × 2 illustrations.
2× 4 × 3
Number System 199

Alternatively Let a1, a2, a3, … , an be n positive real  1 1   2 3 119

M = (a + b)(c + d ) =  +   +  = <1
numbers such that a1. a2 … an = 1.  3 4  3 4 144
Now, we know that A.M. ≥ G.M. for some given Hence option (b) is also ruled out. Thus only option (a) is
quantities. correct.
(a1 + a2 + a3 + … + an)
So ≥ (a1. a2. a3 … an)1/ n = 1 Alternatively Let a + b = P and c + d = Q ,
n
P + Q = 2 and PQ > 0
⇒ (a1 + a2 + a3 + … + an) ≥ n
Hence option (d) is correct choice. (Since P and Q are positive real numbers)
Further we know that
113 Let S = 1 + n + n2 + … + n127 P +Q
AM ≥ GM ⇒ ≥ PQ
1 (n128 − 1)  a (rn − 1)  2
= Q Sn = ; r > 1
(n − 1) r − 1 ⇒ 1 ≥ PQ ⇒ 1 ≥ PQ
 
∴ PQ = M ≤ 1
n128 − 1 (n64 − 1)(n64 + 1)
= = Hence option (a) is correct.
(n − 1) (n − 1)
P!
Thus at m = 64 the given expression is divisible by 117 As per the given information, N = implies that N is the
Q!
(nm + 1). Hence (c).
product of any 10 consecutive two-digit natural numbers,
114 We have 240 = 24 × 3 × 5 such that the largest number out of the 10 consecutive
∴ Number of divisors = 5 × 2 × 2 = 20, which are given whole numbers is 99. The problem basically asks us to find
below out that maximum how many times can N be divided by 2.
Since the highest power of 2 among all the two-digit numbers
1 2 4 8 16
3 6 12 24 48 is 64. So 64 must be one of the ten natural numbers.
5 10 20 40 80 Now you can consider any ten consecutive natural
15 30 60 120 240 numbers say 64, 65, 66, 67, 68, 69, 70, 71, 72, and 73.
The number of times 64 can be divided by 2 = 6
Thus only 4 divisors are of the form 4n + 2.
Hence option (a) is correct. The number of times 66 can be divided by 2 = 1
The number of times 68 can be divided by 2 = 2
115 We know that if a number is divisible by 5, then its unit
The number of times 70 can be divided by 2 = 1
digit must be either 0 or 5.
The number of times 72 can be divided by 2 = 3
Again, the unit digits of 71 = 7, 7 2 = 9
Therefore, N can be divided by 2 is 13 times. It means the
7 3 = 3 and 7 4 = 1
maximum value of x = 13 .
i.e., we can get only 7, 9, 3, 1 as unit digits. Hence, choice (d) is the answer.
Now, the combinations of 7, 9, 3, 1 never gives unit digit 5, Alternatively You can find the total number of 2s in a
but 7 + 3 = 9 + 1 = 10, these two combinations gives us set of 10 consecutive natural numbers in the following
unit digit zero. ways. Let S be the set of 10 consecutive natural numbers.
So 7 m + 7 n is divisible where Then the max number of elements in S which are divisible
case (i) m = 1, 5, 9, … , 97 correspondingly by 2 = 5
n = 3, 7, 11, … , 99 And the max number of elements in S which are divisible
case (ii) m = 2, 6, 10, … , 98 correspondingly by 4 = 3
n = 4, 8, 12, … , 100 And the max number of elements in S which are divisible
or the values of m and n can be reversed in each case by 8 = 2
mutually but then we get the same values. And the max number of elements in S which are divisible
Hence total distinct numbers so formed, divisible by 5, by 16 = 1
are 1250 = 25 × 25 + 25 × 25
And the max number of elements in S which are divisible
Hence option (a) is correct.
by 32 = 1
116 Let us assume the values of a, b, c, d such that And the max number of elements in S which are divisible
a+ b+ c+ d =2 by 64 = 1
1 2 1 3 Therefore N can be divided by 213
i.e., + + + =2
3 3 4 4
118 Let the total number of coal blocks allocated is x and total
 1 2  1 3
then M = (a + b)(c + d ) =  +   +  =1 number of 2G spectrums allocated is y, then
 3 3  4 4
300 x + 500 y = 13300
Hence option (c) and (d) are ruled out. 133 − 3x
1 1 2 3 ⇒ y=
now, if a, b, c, d be , , , , then 5
3 4 3 4
200 QUANTUM CAT
This gives us the following possibilities, provided x and y In this case he can win max. 20 games and gain max. ` 60.
must be positive integers. Case II When he loses one game out of all the games that he
plays, his monetary gain could be 2, 5, 8, ... 50, 53 and 56.
x y HCF of x and y
In this case he can win max. 19 games and gain max. ` 56.
1 26 1 Case III When he loses two games out of all the games that
6 23 1 he plays, his monetary gain could be 1, 4, 7, ,.., 52.
11 20 1 In this case he can win at max 18 games and win max. ` 52.
16 17 1 By combining the data of case I, case II and case III, we can
21 14 7 say that except 55, 58 and 59 all other values from 1 to 60
26 11 1 can be obtained.
Case IV Whenever the number of games lost is three times
31 8 1
the number of games won his net gain is ` 0.
36 5 1
Case V When he loses all the matches that he plays his
41 2 1
monetary loss is any amount from 0 to 20.
Whenever x and y are co-primes, there will be only one That means the player can have any amount from 0 to 80,
minister, but the problem talks about the involvement of except 75, 78 and 79.
several ministers. So we have to consider the case in which So the net possible distinct values of amount = 81 - 3 = 78.
x and y are not the co-primes. Thus we can consider the Hence, choice (d) is the correct one.
case in which x = 21 and y = 14, as their HCF is 7. Now Alternatively
21/7 = 3 and 14/7 = 2. 3x − 0 = 3, 6, 9, ..,45, 48, 51, 54, 57, 60.
It implies that there are 7 ministers involved in the scam 3x − 1 = 2, 5, 8, ..,44,47, 50, 53, 56.
and each minister had allocated 3 coal blocks and 3x − 2 = 1,4, 7, ...,43, 46, 49, 52.
2 spectrums to the corporate coterie by accepting the 3x − 3 = 0, 3, 6, ..., 42, 45, 48.
stated amount of bribe. 3x − 4 = − 1, 2, 5, ..., 41, 44.
Hence, (c) is the correct answer. 3x − 5 = −2, 1, 4, ..., 40.
Alternatively LL LL LL
Let the total number of coal blocks allocated is x and total LL LL LL
number of 2G spectrums allocated is y, then 3x − 18 = −18, -15, -12
3x − 19 = −19, -16
300 x + 500 y = 133000
3x − 20 = − 20
⇒ 3x + 5y = 7 × 19
It clearly shows that ` 55, ` 58 and ` 59 cannot be gained.
⇒ (3 × 7 m) + (5 × 7 n) = 7 × 19 Alternatively Without losing any game player can
⇒ 7(3m + 5n) = 7 × 19 have gain of 60, 57, 54, 51, 48, ..., 9, 6 and 3.
⇒ 3m + 5n = 19 However, you can see that 59, 58, 56, 55, 53, 52, 50, 49,
From the given options only choice (d) satisfies the above ..., 8, 7, 5, 4, 2, 1 numbers are missing.
equation. Otherwise, solve the following equation for In order to get the remaining numbers the player has to
positive integers m and n. lose 1 game and 2 games. But, whenever the player loses 1
19 − 3m game, the maximum number of games he can win is 19,
3m + 5n = 19 ⇒ n =
5 not the 20. Therefore he can’t get a net gain of 60 − 1 = 59.
Similarly, when the player loses 2 games, the maximum
NOTE 3x + 5y = 7 × 19 can be expressed in two ways as number of games he can win is 18, not the 19 and 20.
the RHS has two prime actors.
Therefore he can't get a net gain of 55 and 58. Therefore out
(i) (3 × 7 m) + (5 × 7 n) = 7 × 19 and of 81 values (−20, −19, −18, . . . , 80 ) 55, 58 and 59 are missing.
(ii) 3 × 19m + 5 × 19n = 7 × 19 Therefore, we can have maximum 78 distinct amounts.
But, 3 × 19m + 55 × 19n = 7 × 19 ⇒ 3m + 5n = 7 does not 120 Let a, b and c be the numbers of men engaged in fighting
yield any solution for any integral value of m and n. against the rebellions, then the total number of men alive
119 His maximum loss = −20 ( ` ) after the fight got over
36 × a 60 × b 80 × c 50(a + b + c)
His maximum gain = 60 ( ` ) = + + =
100 100 100 100
Total possible distinct amounts including no profit no loss
5(b + 3c)
= 20 + 60 + 1 = 81 ⇒ 5(b + 3c) = 7 a ⇒ a =
7
However, he cannot gain by ` 59, ` 58, and ` 55.
It implies that b + 3c must be divisible by 7 and a is a
Case I When he loses no game that he plays, his monetary
multiple of 5.
gain could be 3, 6, 9, ... 54, 57 and 60.
Number System 201

We also know that 36% of a implies that a must be a :::

multiple of 25. Similarly 60% of b and 80% of c imply that b (20, 21, 22, 23, 24): 20 × 21 × 22 × 23 × 24
and c must be the multiples of 5. Thus we can obtain the = 21 × 23 × (20 × 22 × 24)
feasible values from the following table. = 21 × 23 × 5 × 11 × 3 × (2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2)
In this case, there will be total 10 sequences.
a b+3c c b a+b+c
Case (ii) When there are 2 consecutive even numbers in
25 35 5 20 50 the sequence, it is not necessary that the product is
25 35 10 5 40 divisible by 16. In this case, the product will be divisible
50 70 5 55 110 by 16 only when one number must be 8 or its multiples.
50 70 10 40 100 When out of two consecutive even numbers one is 8, total
50 70 15 25 90 number of sequences is 2. (5, 6, 7, 8, 9) and (7,8, 9, 10, 11)
50 70 20 10 80 When out of two consecutive even numbers one is 16,
75 105 5 90 170 total number of sequences is 2. (13, 14, 15, 16, 17) and
75 105 10 75 160 (15, 16, 17, 18, 19). When out of two consecutive even
75 105 15 60 150 numbers one is 24, total number of sequences is 1.
75 105 20 45 140 (21, 22, 23, 24, 25). In this case, there are total 5 sequences.
75 105 25 30 130 121 Thus there are total 15 distinct sequences of 5 consecutive
75 105 30 15 120 numbers such that the product of all the 5 numbers of the
... ... .. ... .. sequence is multiple of 16.
From the above table, it is evident enough that Hence ,choice (a) is the correct one.
a + b + c ≠ 60. Hence, choice (c) is the correct one. 122 Since k is the highest number of each such sequence, which
Hence, choice (c) is the correct one. is unique for each sequence, so there will be total 15 values
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 121 to 123) There are 25 pins each with of k, as there are total 15 desired sequences.
distinct number as 1 to 25. Hence choice, (d) is the correct one.
All the 25 pins arranged, initially, in the order of 1, 2, 3, 123 From the case (i) it can be inferred that all the numbers
... 25, from left to right. By throwing the ball, you have to from 2 to 24 fall in one or the other sequence.
knock over any 5 contiguous pins say pin number (1,2, And from the case (ii) it can be inferred that the number
3,4, 5) or (2,3, 4, 5, 6), or (3,4, 5, 6, 7) etc. 25 is also the part of a sequence. So the only number that
 k!  is not the part of any desired sequence is 1. Thus, if you
The expression  : implies the product of any 5
(k − 5)  knock over pin number 1, you can't get back your money.
consecutive natural numbers, since k ≥ 5 . Hence, choice (d) is the correct one.
It implies that you will get refund, only when you hit 5 124 S = 1 + x + x 2 + x 3 +. . . + x111
contiguous pins, whose product is the multiple of 16. x112 − 1 ( x 56 + 1)( x 56 − 1)
It means you have to find all the possible products of 5 S= ⇒S =
x −1 x −1
consecutive natural numbers, such that the product is
( x 56 + 1)( x 28 + 1)( x 28 − 1)
either 16 or 32 or 48, etc. You must know that any S=
x −1
sequence of 5 consecutive numbers has two possibilities:
( x 56 + 1)( x 28 + 1)( x14 + 1)( x14 − 1)
(i) The sequence which has 3 even numbers and 2 odd S=
numbers x −1
(ii) The sequence which has 2 even numbers and 3 odd ( x 56 + 1)( x 28 + 1)( x14 + 1)( x7 + 1)( x7 − 1)
S=
numbers x −1
Since you are looking for 16 or its multiples, you have to Therefore, a, b, c can assume any three of the four values
focus on the number of 2s in the product of 5 consecutive (7, 14, 28, 56). So there are two distinct possibilities -
numbers. When anyone of a, b, c is 7, HCF would be 7 and when
Case (i) When there are 3 consecutive even numbers in the none of a, b, c is 7, HCF would be 14.
sequence, the product must be divisible by 16. Since each Hence, choice (d) is the correct one.
of the 3 even numbers will be multiple of 2 and at least one 125 The number 15! must be divisible by the prime numbers
number will be the multiple of 4, so there will be minimum 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 and 13. The best way to check the divisibility
four 2s. For example, of the 15! is by 9 or 11. So let's do it by 9.
(2, 3, 4, 5, 6): 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 = 3 × 5 × (2 × 4 × 6) Now, 1 + k + 0 + 7 + 6 + 7 + 4 + 3 + 6 +
= 3 × 5 × 3 × (2 × 2 × 2 × 2) 8 + 0 + 0 + 0 = 42 + k
(4, 5, 6, 7, 8): 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 × 8 = 5 × 7 × (4 × 6 × 8) Since 42 + k should be divisible by 9, so k = 3
= 5 × 7 × 3 × (2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2) Hence, choice (b) is the correct one.
 QUANTUM CAT

CHAPTER 02

Av er ages
Exams, such as CAT, XAT, IIFT, CMAT, GMAT, SSC CGL and Bank PO ask direct
problems from this chapter. Looking at the historical data, we can say that every year they
usually ask at least 1 problem in Quantitative Aptitude section and at least 4 problems in
Data Interpretation section. Sometimes they ask a few questions which are application
based and involve a great amount of logical thinking. It suggests that we need to develop a
fresh logical approach to answer the problems of this chapter. Essentially, I won’t
recommend you to completely rely on formula-based approach. Chapter Checklist
Average
2.1 Average Properties of Average
In general average is the central value of the given data. For example, if the heights of three Weighted Average
persons A, B and C be 90 cm, 110 cm and 115 cm, respectively, then the average height of
90 + 110 + 115 Problems based on Age
A, B and C together will be = 105 cm. So, we can say that the height of each Problems based on Income
3
person viz. A, B and C is near about 105 cm. Thus in layman’s language it can be said that and Salary
every one is almost 105 cm tall. Basically, the average is the arithmetic mean of the given Problems based on Time,
data. For example, if the x1 , x 2 , x 3 , x 4 … x n be any ‘ n’ quantities (i. e., data), then the Speed and Distance
x + x 2 + x 3 +… + x n Value of an Overlapping
average (or arithmetic mean) of these ‘n’ quantities = 1
n Element
Average of Same Important
Properties of Average
Series of Numbers
1. The average of any two or more quantities (or data) necessarily lies between the CAT Test
lowest and the highest values of the given data. i. e., if x l and x h be the lowest and
highest (or greatest) values of the given data (x1 , x 2 , … x l , … x h , … , x n ) then
(x + x 2 + x 3 + x l K + x h K + x n )
x l < Average < x h ; x l ≠ x h i.e. x l < 1 < xh
n
Ex. 1) The average of 8, 9, 12, 13, 15, 9 is :
(a) 11 (b) 6 (c) 16 (d) 18
Solution From the above mentioned property (1) we can say that options (b), (c) and (d) are
invalid since 6, 16 and 18 are out of range i. e., either below 8 (which is the least value) or above
15 (which is the highest value of the data). So, only option (a) can be acceptable.
8 + 9 + 12 + 13 + 15 + 9 66
Alternatively Average = = = 11
6 6
Averages 203

Ex. 2) A has 8 pencils, B has 10 pencils and C has Solution Required average
(7 − 1) + ( 8 − 1) + (10 − 1) + (13 − 1) + ( 6 − 1) + (10 − 1)
15 pencils, then the average number of pencils with them : =
6
(a) 8 (b) 10 (7 + 8 + 10 + 13 + 6 + 10) ( 6 × 1)
(c) 15 (d) lies between 9 and 15 = − = 9−1= 8
6 6
8 + 10 + 15
Solution Average number of pencils = = 11
3 Ex. 7) Last year Sahara, Tata, Singhania and Birla each
So, option (d) is correct. has 250 industries. This year everyone has sold out
2. If each quantity is increased by a certain value ‘ K ’ then 10 factories due to the recession of the economy and poor
the new average is increased by K. turnout. The average number of industries which each of
them now has :
Ex. 3) A, B, C , D and E are the five electronic shops in the (a) 260 (b) 240
Naza market, which have 20, 30, 60, 80 and 50. T.V. sets (c) 25 (d) none of these
with them respectively, then the average number of T.V. Solution Required average = Old average − New average
sets in each shop is : = ( 250) − (10) = 240
(a) 24 (b) 48 (c) 50 (d) 60
20 + 30 + 60 + 80 + 50 4. If each quantity is multiplied by a certain value K, then
Solution Average number of T.V. sets = = 48
5 the new average is the product of old average with K.
So, option (b) is correct.
Ex. 8) In a flower shop there were 6 flowers in each
Ex. 4) In the previous example, if each of A, B, C , D and E bouquet. If the seller has doubled the number of flowers
have imported 12 new T.V. sets, then the average number of in each bouquet then the new average of flowers in each
T.V. sets is: bouquet is :
(a) 50 (b) 56 (c) 60 (d) 144 (a) 12 (b) 8
Solution Average number of T.V. sets (c) 3 (d) none of these
( 20+ 12) + ( 30+ 12) + ( 60+ 12) + ( 80+ 12) + (50+ 12) 300 Solution Now required average
= = = 60
5 5 = Old average × Multiplicand = 6 × 2 = 12
Alternatively
5. If each quantity is divided by a certain quantity ‘ K ’, then
( 20 + 30 + 60 + 80 + 50) + (12 + 12 + 12 + 12 + 12) 1
= the new average becomes times of the initial average,
5
( 240) + (5 × 12)
K
= = 48 + 12 = 60 where K ≠ 0.
5
Thus, the new average will be 60. Ex. 9) The average of 100, 200, 300, 400, …, 1000 is 550. If
each number is divided by 5, then the new average will be
Ex. 5) The average number of shirts with Salman,
equal to :
Ambani and Dalmiya is 60, if all of them reached a
(a) 450
shopping mall (AMBI) in Gurgaon and purchased 6 shirts
(b) 45
each of them then the average number of shirts each of
(c) 55
them now has :
(d) none of the above
(a) 66 (b) 63
(c) 62 (d) can’t be determined (100 + 200 + 300 + … + 1000)
Solution Actual average = = 550
Solution Required average = Old average 10
550
+ New average = 60 + 6 = 66 The new average = = 110
5
3. If each quantity is decreased by a certain value K, then Hence, (d) is correct.
the new average is also decreased by K.
6. If ‘A’ be the average of x1 , x 2 , x m , … y1 , y2 , … , yn .
Ex. 6) A, B, C, D, E and F are the only six families in Indira where x1 , x 2 , … , x m be the below A and
nagar. A, B, C, D, E and F has 7, 8, 10, 13, 6 and 10 members y1 , y2 , y3 , … , yn be the above A, then
in their families respectively. If 1 member from all the six
( A − x1 ) + ( A − x 2 ) +… ( A − x m )
families left their respective families to accomodate
themselves in the hostel of IIM Lucknow, then the average = ( y1 − A ) + ( y2 − A ) +… ( yn − A )
number of members now in each family of Indira nagar is : i. e., the surplus above the average is always equal the net
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 13 deficit below average.
204 QUANTUM CAT
Ex. 10) The salary of A, B, C, D and E is ` 8000, ` 5000, 7. Weighted Average : When the average of groups or
` 11000, ` 7000, ` 9000 per month respectively, then the sets, instead of individuals, having different number of
average salary of A, B, C, D and E per month is : elements is being calculated, then it is called the
(a) ` 7000 (b) ` 8000 weighted average. Since in this case the number of
(c) ` 8500 (d) ` 9000 elements is different for the different sets thus they carry
Solution Average salary different weightage. If the number of elements in n
8000 + 5000 + 11000 + 7000 + 9000 different groups be K1 , K 2 , K 3 , K 4 ,…, K n and the
= = ` 8000
5 averages of the respective groups be A1 , A2 , A3 , A4 …
NOTE The average salary = ` 8000 and the sum of salaries above An then the
` 8000 = 11000 + 9000 = 20000 K A + K 2 A2 + K 3 A3 +… K n An
weighted average = 1 1
 20000  K1 + K 2 + K 3 +… K n
Therefore, the average surplus =   − 8000 = 2000
 2 
again, the sum of salaries below ` 8000 = 5000 + 7000 Ex. 12) The average salary of 12 employees of STAR plus
= 12000 is ` 18000 per month and 15 employees of NDTV is
 12000  ` 16000 per month. The average salary of all the
Therefore, the average deficit = 8000 −   = 2000
 2  27 employees is :
Hence, the surplus above the average (a) ` 17000 (b) ` 16500
= deficit below the average = 2000 (c) ` 16888.88 (d) none of these
Alternatively Let the average be 10000 Solution Required average salary
Then, 12 × 18000 + 15 × 16000 456000
= = = ` 16888.88
10000 − 8000 = 2000 12 + 15 27
10000 − 5000 = 5000 Ex. 13) The number of students at i4 IIM in morning
10000 − 7000 = 3000 and 11000 − 10000 = 1000 batch, evening batch and weekends batch is 30, 40 and 60
10000 − 9000 = 1000 Surplus = 1000 respectively and their respective averages ages (in years)
Deficit → 11000 are 22, 21 and 25, then the average age of all the students
∴ Net difference = Surplus − deficit (combined) is :
1 1
= 1000 − 11000 = − 10000 (a) 22 years (b) 23 years
− 10000 13 13
∴ Average variation = = − 2000 (c) 24.5 years (d) none of these
5
Hence, the actual average = assumed average 30 × 22 + 40 × 21 + 60 × 25 3000 1
+ average variation Solution = = 23 years
130 130 13
= 10000 − 2000 = 8000
8. Problems Based on Age :
Ex. 11) The average of 6 numbers 13, 17, 25, 11, 26, 10 is: (i) If the average age of ‘ n’ members of a family is
(a) 20 (b) 17 (c) 15 (d) 25 x years then K years back, the average age of the
Solution Let the average be 20. family is ( x − K ) years, provided that no any
Then, 20 − 13 = 7 20 − 25 = 5 person is expired or born in K years period.
20 − 17 = 3 and 20 − 26 = 6 (ii) If the present age of ‘ n’ members of a family is
20 − 11 = 9 11 x years then K years later the average age of the
20 − 10 = 10 (Surplus) same family will be ( x + K ) years.
29 (deficit)
The net difference (surplus − deficit) = (11 − 29) = − 18 Ex. 14) The average age of 7 members of Patel’s family is
−18 25 years. The average age of the same family 3 years ago
Therefore average variation = =−3
6 was :
Hence, the actual average = 20 + ( −3) = 17 (a) 21 years (b) 22 years
(c) 25 years (d) none of these
NOTE This method is very helpful in Data Interpretation section Solution Present average age of family = 25 years
where there are very large values are to be calculated and most of
3 years ago average age of family = 25 − 3 = 22 years
the time we need just the lumpsum value.
Averages 205

Ex. 15) The average age of all the 16 professors of 1 year later (i.e., 3 years ago from present) total age of
24 teachers (just before the recruitment of new principal)
Lucknow University is 52 years. Four years later the
= 1215 + (1 × 24) = 1239 years
average age of all the 16 professors will be, if there is no
and the total age of 25 teachers including new principal just
any retirement or recruitment : after the recruitment
(a) 68 (b) 64
= 1239 + 54 = 1293 years
(c) 56 (d) none of these
Thus the present age of all the 25 teachers
Solution Present average age = 52 years
= 1293 + ( 3 × 25) = 1368 years
4 years later the average age = 52 + 4 = 56 years Hence, the present average age of the 25 teachers
1368 18
Ex. 16) 6 months ago the present age of the student of class = = 54 years
25 25
10 th was 14 years. 6 months hence, the age of the same
Alternatively 10 years ago, the average age of
students will be : 25 teachers = 45 years
1
(a) 15 years (b) 15 years Let us assume that the principal has not retired from her post
2 then the present average age of all the 25 teachers,
(c) 20 years (d) none of these
= 45 + 10 = 55 years
Solution Since the time difference between two dates is 1 year, Thus the total age of all the 25 teachers
hence the average age will be increased by 1 year. Thus the
= 55 × 25 = 1375 years
average age of the class 6 months hence will be 15 years.
Now, assume that the new principal has replaced the old
Ex. 17) The average age of Priyambada’s family principal 4 years ago instead of 3 years ago, when the age of new
consisting of 5 members 3 years ago was 35 years. One principal would have been 53 years. Thus the age of new
principal was 7 years less than the age of old principal, which
year ago a new baby was born in this family. Three years
results in the reduction of total age of the group of 25 teachers by
hence the average age of the family will be : 7 years.
5
(a) 36 years (b) 34 years Thus the actual total age of the 25 teachers (presently)
6
4 = 1375 − 7 = 1368 years
(c) 35 years (d) none of these Hence, the present average age of the 25 teachers
5
1368 18
Solution 3 years ago total age of 5 members = = 54 years
25 25
= 5 × 35 = 175 years
At the time of birth of new baby the total age of family Ex. 19) The ratio of the ages of the father and the
= 175 + ( 2 × 5) = 185 years daughter at present is 3 : 1. Four years ago the ratio was 4 :
The present age of family = 185 + (1 × 6) = 191 years 1. The average age of the father and daughter 2 years
3 years hence, the average age of family hence will be :
191 + ( 3 × 6) 5 (a) 24 (b) 26 (c) 25 (d) 36
= = 34 years
6 6 Solution Let the present ages of father be 3x and daughter be x.
So the 4 years ago father’s age and daughter’s age was
Ex. 18) 10 years ago the average age of all the 25 teachers  3 x − 4 4
of the Girls college was 45 years. 4 years ago, the principal ( 3 x − 4) and ( x − 4). Therefore   =
 x−4 1
has retired from her post at the age of 60 year. So after one
⇒ x = 12 years and 3 x = 36 years
year a new principal whose age was 54 years recruited
Hence, the present average age of father and daughter
from outside. The present average age of all the teachers = 24 years and the average age 2 years hence will be 26 years.
is, if principal is also considered as a teacher :
18 17 9. Problems Based on Income/Salary
(a) 54 years (b) 55 years
25 25 Income = Expenditure + Savings
1
(c) 49 years (d) none of these Ex. 20) The average salary of Rajesh, Bahadur and Amir
2
is ` 8000 per month. The average expenditure of the
Solution 10 years ago average age of 25 teachers = 45 years Rajesh, Bahadur and Amir per month is ` 5000. The
4 years ago (just before the retirement of principal) average age average savings of all the 3 persons per month is :
of 25 teachers = 45 + 6 = 51 years (a) ` 3000 (b) ` 5000 (c) ` 2500 (d) ` 9000
and the same time total age of 25 teachers = 51 × 25
Solution Average saving
= 1275 years
= Average Income − Average Expenditure
and the total age of remaining 24 teachers when just the
= 8000 − 5000 = 3000
principal has retired = 1275 − 60 = 1215 years
206 QUANTUM CAT
Ex. 21) The average salary of A, B and C is ` 10000 and NOTE In this type of questions the average speed is independent
average expenditure of A is ` 6000 then the average of the distance travelled.
savings of B and C is : Total distance
General Formula : Average speed =
(a) ` 5500 (b) ` 4500 Total time
(c) ` 4000 (d) can’t be determined The above two formulae are derived with the help of the
Solution Total income = Total Expenditure + Total savings. We general formula of average speed.
can not find the average savings of B and C , since data is insufficient.
Proportion Method : If the half of the distance is covered at
Ex. 22) The average salary of A, B is ` 6000 and that of u km/hr and the rest half of the journey is covered at v km/hr
C , D and E is ` 8000. The average salary of all the 5 people is
then the average speed can be found as follows :
(a) ` 7200 (b) ` 7000
(c) ` 7500 (d) can’t be determined
Step 1. Divide the difference of u and v in the ratio of u : v
Solution Required average salary (where u < v)
6000 × 2 + 8000 × 3 36000 (u ~ v ) × u (u ~ v ) × v
= = = ` 7200 Step 2. u + or v −
( 2 + 3) 5 (u + v ) u+v
Ex. 23) The average salary of all the 60 employees in an Case 2. When the distances travelled at different speeds are
office is ` 12,000 per month. If the number of executives is different then we calculate the average speed with the
twice the number of non-executive employees, then the help of general formula of average speed. e. g., A person
average salary of all the non executive employees is : first goes x1 km at the speed of u km/hr and x 2 km at the
(a) ` 9000 (b) ` 8000 speed of v km/hr and x 3 km at the speed of w km/hr and
(c) ` 6000 (d) can’t be determined so on, then the
Solution
No. of executives
=
2 Total distance x1 + x 2 + x 3 + K
No. of non- executives 1 Average speed = =
Total time t1 + t 2 + t 3 + K
Therefore number of executives = 40
x + x2 + x3 + K
and number of non-executive employees = 20 = 1
Now, go through the options x1 x 2 x 3
+ + +K
Total salary = 40 × salary of executive + 20 u v w
× salary of non- executive
Ex. 25) Einstien goes from Ahmedabad to Lucknow at
60 × 12000 = 40 × k + 20 × l, here k, l are unknowns
the speed of 40 km/hr and returned at the speed of
So we can’t determine the required average salary.
60 km/hr. The average speed of Einstien during the
Ex. 24) In the above problem, if the average salary of whole journey is :
non-executives be 2/5th of the average salary of executives, (a) 48 km/hr
then the average salary of non-executive employees is : (b) 24 km/hr
(a) ` 9000 (b) ` 8000 (c) 50 km/hr
(c) ` 6000 (d) data insufficient (d) none of the above
Solution By options : 60 × 12000 = 20 × 6000 + 40 × 15000 2 × 40 × 60 4800
Solution = = 48 km/hr
Hence option (c) is correct. ( 40 + 60) 100
5 2
Alternatively 60 × 12000 = 20 × x + 40 × x ⇒ x = 6000 So the average speed = 40 + ( 20) = 48 km/hr
2 5
3
10. Problems Based on Time, Speed and Distance : or Average Speed = 60 − ( 20) = 48 km/hr
5
Case 1. When the distance travelled in different time slots
or parts is same i. e., if a person or vehicle moves x km at Ex. 26) Sri Krishna took the chariot and started his
a speed of u km/hr and further he goes or comes back the journey from Mathura to Gokul by his chariot at the speed
same distance x km at a speed of v km/hr. of 40 km/hr and then, the same distance he travelled on
2 uv his foot at the speed of 10 km/hr from Gokul to
Then the average speed = . If there are 3 parts of
(u + v ) Brindaban. Then he returned from Brindaban to Mathura
distance x km travelled with 3 different speeds i. e., if a via Gokul at the speed of 24 km/hr riding on the horse.
person goes first x km @ speed of u km/hr and next x km The average speed of the whole trip is :
@ v km/hr and the last x km @ w km/hr. (a) 20 km/hr
3 uvw (b) 25 km/hr
Then the average speed = . (c) 19.2 km/hr
( uv + vw + wu)
(d) 18.5 km/hr
Averages 207

Solution Since the distance from Mathura to Gokul is same as (a) 56 kg (b) 52 kg
that of Gokul to Brindaban. So the average speed from Mathura (c) 51 kg (d) none of these
2 × 40 × 10
to Brindaban = = 16 km/hr Solution Let A , B , C , D , E, F, G, H , I , J and K be the 11 players
( 40 + 10) in the order of increasing weight then,
Again since he returned on the same path, so the distance from A + B + C + D + E + F = 49 × 6 = 294
Mathura to Brindaban is same in both the directions. Thus the F + G + H + I + J + K = 52 × 6 = 312
2 × 16 × 24 and A + B + C + D + E + F + G + H + I + J + K = 50 × 11 = 550
required average speed = = 19.2 km/hr
(16 + 24) Therefore F = ( A + B + C + D + E + F) + ( F + G + H + I + J + K)
1 − ( A + B + C + D + K J + K) = 294 + 312 − 550 = 56
Ex. 27) Anoop travels first rd of the total distance at the Hence the average weight of F = 56 kg.
3
1
speed of 10 km/hr and the next rd distance at the speed Ex. 30) The average presence of students in a class on
3 Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday is 30 and on the
1
of 20 km/hr and the last rd distance at the speed of Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday is 28 then
3 number of students who attended the class on Wednesday is,
60 km/hr. The average speed of Anoop is : if the average number of students on all the six days is 27
(a) 15 km/hr (b) 18 km/hr (a) 24 (b) 25 (c) 20 (d) 40
(c) 25 km/hr (d) 30 km/hr Solution Since W = ( M + T + W) + (W + Th + F + S)
Solution Since all the three distances are same, hence the − ( M + T + W + Th + F + S)
average speed = ( 30 × 3) + ( 28 × 4) − ( 27 × 6) = 202 − 162 = 40
3 × 10 × 20 × 60  3uvw 
= =  Ex. 31) The average age of A, B, C , D and E is 40 years.
( 200 + 1200 + 600)  uv + vw + wu
36000
The average age of A and B is 35 years and the average age
= = 18 km/hr of C and D is 42 years. The average age of E is :
2000
(a) 46 (b) 48
Ex. 28) Columbus started his journey from Lucknow to (c) 32 (d) none of these
Kolkata, which is 200 km, at the speed of 40 km/h then he Solution A + B + C + D + E = 40 × 5 = 200
went to Bangalore which is 300 km, at the speed of A + B = 35 × 2 = 70; C + D = 42 × 2 = 84
20 km/hr. Further he went to Ahmedabad which is Therefore, E = ( A + B + C + D + E) − [( A + B) + (C + D)]
500 km, at the speed of 10 km/hr. The average speed of = 200 − (70 + 84) = 46
Columbus is : Thus the average age of E = 46 years.
2 5
(a) 14 km/hr (b) 14 km/hr Ex. 32) The average temperature on Monday, Tuesday
7 7
(c) 15.6 km/hr (d) none of these and Wednesday is 38°C. The average temperature on
Total distance ( 200 + 300 + 500) Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday is 43°C. If the average
Solution Average speed = =
Total time  200 300 500 temperature on Monday and Thursday is 18.5°C. The
 + + 
 40 20 10  average temperature on Monday is :
1000 100 2 (a) 11°C (b) 21°C (c) 35°C (d) 27°C
= = = 14 km/hr = 14.2857 km/hr
70 7 7 Solution ( M + T + W) = 38 × 3 = 114 …(i)
( T + W + Th) = 43 × 3 = 129 …(ii)
11. Value of An Overlapping Element
Therefore, Th − M = 15 [(ii) − (i)]
(i) a + b = k and b + c = l and a + b + c = m and Th + M = 37
then [( a + b) + ( b + c)] − ( a + b + c) = ( k + l) − m Thus the temperature on Monday is 11°C and on Thursday is 26°C.
or b = k + l − m
12. Average of Some Important Series of Numbers :
(ii) a + b = k , d + e = l and a + b + c + d + e = m
then c = ( a + b + c + d + e) − [( a + b) + ( d + e)]= m − [ k + l] n +1
(i) Average of first ‘ n’ natural numbers =
2
Ex. 29) The average weight of all the 11 players of Indian (ii) Average of first ‘ n’ even numbers = ( n + 1)
cricket team is 50 kg. If the average of first six lightest (iii) Average of first ‘ n’ odd numbers = n
weight players is 49 kg and that of the six heaviest players (iv) If there are ( p + q ) elements in a set or group but the
is 52 kg. The average weight of the player which lies in the average of p elements is r and the average of q
sixth position in the list of players when all the 11 players elements is s, then the average of all the elements of
are arranged in the order of increasing or decreasing ( pr + sq )
the set (or group) is .
weights : ( p + q)
 QUANTUM CAT

CAT-Test
Questions Helping you bell the CAT

LEVEL 01 > BASIC LEVEL EXERCISE

1 The average weight of a class of 20 students is 45 kgs. A 7 Rajeev earns 3/2 times in January, April, July and October
new student whose weight is 40 kgs replaces an old student than his average earning of ` 600 per month in the rest of
of this class. Hence, the average weight of the whole class the months. Therefore, his savings in the month of January,
decreases by 1 kg. The weight of the replaced student is : April, July and October is 5/4 times of the monthly savings
(a) 55 kgs (b) 50 kgs of ` 400 for each of the remaining months of the year. The
(c) 60 kgs (d) none of these average expenditure of per month is :
2 The average length of first 3 fingers is 3 inches and the (a) ` 266.66 (b) ` 250 (c) ` 233.33 (d) ` 433.33
average length of the other 2 fingers i . e. , thumb and the 8 The average of 3 prime numbers lying between 47 and 74 is
index finger is 2.8 inches. If the length of the index fingers 191/3. The greatest possible difference between any two
is 3 inches then the length of the thumb is : out of the 3 prime numbers is :
(a) 2 inches (b) 2.6 inches (a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 3 inches (d) none of these (c) 18 (d) can’t be determined
3 Three types of rice whose rates are ` 38, ` 43 and ` 49 per kg 9 The average of 9 numbers is 11. If each of these 9 numbers
are blended together to make a 15 kg of new blend of rice is multiplied by 5 and then 5 is added to each of these
in which there are 8 kgs, 4 kgs and 3 kgs of the respective resultant numbers, then the new average is :
types of rice. The average price of the new blend of rice is : (a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 60 (d) 50
(a) ` 41.53 (b) ` 43 10 The average score of Dhoni after 48 innings is 48 and in the
(c) ` 40 (d) ` 43.3 49th innings Dhoni scores 97 runs. In the 50th innings the
4 Pankaj went to the post-office at the speed of 60 km/hr minimum number of runs required to increase his average
while returning for his home he covered the half of the score by 2 than it was before the 50th innings :
distance at the speed of 10 km/hr, but suddenly he realized (a) 99 (b) 149
that he was getting late so he increased the speed and (c) 151 (d) can’t be determined
reached the home by covering rest half of the distance at the 11 The average age of Sachin and Ganguli is 35 years. If Kaif
speed of 30 km/hr. The average speed of the Pankaj in the replaces Sachin, the average age becomes 32 years and if
whole length of journey is : Kaif replaces Ganguli, then the average age becomes
(a) 5.67 km/hr 38 years. If the average age of Dhoni and Irfan be half of
(b) 24 km/hr the average age of Sachin, Ganguli and Kaif, then the
(c) 22.88 km/hr average age of all the five people is :
(d) 5.45 km/hr (a) 28 years (b) 32 years (c) 25 years (d) none
5 123 typists typed 984 papers in 1/15 hour. The number of 12 Out of these five people (in question no. 11) whose age is
papers typed per minute by an average typist is : the greatest?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) Sachin (b) Ganguli
(c) 3 (d) 5 (c) Kaif (d) can’t be determined
6 The cost of the Red, Green and Blue colours per kg is ` 15 13 In a village the average age of n people is 42 years. But after
and ` 18 respectively. Rang Mahal is a renowned building the verification it was found that the age of a person had
in which these three colours are being used in the ratio of been considered 20 years less than the actual age, so the
3 : 2 : 4. The average cost of all the three colours used per new average, after the correction, increased by 1. The value
kg is : of n is :
(a) 18 (b) 20 (a) 21 (b) 20
(c) 17.66 (d) can’t be determined (c) 22 (d) none of these
Averages 209

14 The average rainfall in the months of January and February 22 The average age of 30 students of a class is 30 years. When
is 6 cm and in the months of March to June is 5 cm and July the average age of class teacher is also included, the
to October is 10 cm and in the November and December, it average age of the whole class increases by 1 year. The age
is 6 cm. The average rainfall for the whole year is : of the class teacher is :
(a) 7 (b) 5.5 (a) 31 years (b) 60 years
(c) 7.5 (d) none of these (c) 61 years (d) none of these
15 On an average 300 people watch the movie in Sahu Cinema 23 There were five sections in MAT paper. The average score
hall on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday and the average of Pooja in first 3 sections was 83 and the average in the
number of visitors on Thursday and Friday is 250. If the last 3 sections was 97 and the average of all the sections
average number of visitors per day in the week be 400, then (i . e. , whole paper) was 92, then her score in the third
the average number of people who watch the movie in section was :
weekends (i . e. , on Saturday and Sunday) is : (a) 85 (b) 92
(a) 500 (b) 600 (c) 88 (d) none of these
(c) 700 (d) none of these 24 The average age of 18 pupils of Dronacharya was 25 years.
16 The average weight of 11 players of Indian cricket team is If the age of Dronacharya was also included, the average
increased by 1 kg, when one player of the team weighing age of 19 people becomes 26 years. The average age of the
55 kg replaced by a new player. The weight of the new Dronacharya at that time was :
player is : (a) 33 (b) 44
(a) 55 kg (b) 64 kg (c) 50 (d) 51
(c) 66 kg (d) none of these 25 The average of 7 consecutive odd numbers if the smallest of
17 The average age of a family of 6 members 4 year ago was those numbers is denoted by k :
25 years. Mean while a child was born in this family and (a) k + 4 (b) k + 7
still the average age of the whole family is same today. The (c) k + 6 (d) 7 k
present age of the child is : 1 1
1 26 If the average marks of th class is 85% and that of rd
(a) 2 years (b) 1 years 4 3
2 class is 70% and the average marks of the rest class is 56%,
(c) 1 year (d) data insufficient then the average of the whole class is (for the given
18 Amitabh’s average expenditure for the January to June is subjects) :
` 4200 and he spends ` 1200 in January and ` 1500 in July. (a) 67.916% (b) 72.33%
The average expenditure for the months of February to July (c) 69.165% (d) can’t be determined
is : 27 The average length of any four fingers of my left hand is
(a) ` 4250 (b) ` 4520 600 mm. Then the average length of all the five fingers of
(c) ` 4060 (d) none of these my left hand is :
19 The average of a, 11, 23, 17 is 15 and the average of a, b, (a) 800 mm (b) 750 mm
a (c) 480 mm (d) can’t be determined
12, 25 is 16. The value of is :
b 3 2 8 7 5
28 The average of 4 , 2 , 6 , 7 , 3 is :
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/2 (c) 2/3 (d) 3/4 5 3 9 15 9
3 8 3 8
20 The average salary is being paid to all its employees by the (a) 5 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 25
Biotech corporation is ` 15500. The average salary of the 225 225 45 45
senior employees is ` 18000 per month and the average 29 The average of 1000.0001, 100.001, 10.01, 1.1 is :
salary of the junior employees is ` 12000 per month. If (a) 277.777 (b) 322.222
there are only two levels of employees viz junior and senior (c) 11.11 (d) 233.333
level, then what fraction of the total employees is the junior 30 The average of 7 consecutive numbers which are positive
level employees are : integers is 10. The average of lowest and highest such
7 5 numbers is :
(a) (b)
10 12 (a) 7 (b) 10
(c) 5/10 (d) none of these (c) 15 (d) data insufficient
21 The average of any 5 consecutive odd numbers a, b, c, d 31 The average of first 100 natural number is :
and e is : (a) 100 (b) 50
(abcde) bd (c) 50.50 (d) 55
(a) (b)
5 3
32 The average of first 50 odd natural numbers is :
a+ c + e
(c)   (d) none of these (a) 50 (b) 55
 5 
(c) 51 (d) 101
210 QUANTUM CAT
33 The average of first 99 even numbers is : 43 The average weight of 20, four wheelers is 180 kg. If an old
(a) 9999 (b) 100 car is removed from this group of four wheelers, the new
(c) 9801 (d) 9009 average weight decreases by 2 kg. The weight of the
34 The average of a, b and c is 79 and the average of a and c is removed car is :
also 79. Then the value of b is : (a) 220 (b) 218
(a) 0 (b) 79 (c) 182 (d) none of these
(c) − 79 (d) none of these 44 The average price of 3 diamonds of same weights is ` 5
35 The average value of property of Mittal, Ambani and crore, where the average price of the two costliest
Singhania is ` 11111 crore. The property of Singhania is as diamonds is double the price of the cheapest diamond. The
less as the property of Mittal is greater than the average price of the cheapest diamond is :
property of both the Singhania and Mittal. The value of (a) 3 crore (b) 5 crore
property of Ambani is : (c) 1.66 crore (d) can’t be determined
(a) ` 111 crore (b) ` 11111 crore 45 In the previous question, the price of the costliest
(c) ` 3703.7 crore (d) can’t be determined diamond is :
36 I went to Delhi @ speed of 200 km/hr but suddenly I (a) 5 crore (b) 6 crore
returned to the same place @ speed of 600 km/hr. What is (c) 8 crore (d) can’t be determined
my average speed : 46 Praveen gets 40 marks out of 50 in Computer Science,
(a) 300 km/hr (b) 400 km/hr 70 out of 100 in Manufacturing Science and 142 out of 150
(c) 366.66 km/hr (d) none of these in Professional communication. The average marks of
37 The average of A and B is 400 and the average of C and D is Praveen (in percent) in all the three subjects is :
600 the average of A, B, C and D is : (a) 84% (b) 76% (c) 71% (d) 60%
(a) 500 (b) 450 47 The average of all the prime and composite numbers upto
(c) 525 (d) 625 100 is :
38 The average weight of liquid in 100 bottles is 500 gm. The (a) 51 (b) 49.50
total weight of all the bottles is 20 kg. The average weight (c) 50.50 (d) 55
of a bottle with liquid is : 48 The average of all the perfect squares upto 100 is :
(a) 0.65 kg (b) 0.7 kg (a) 38.5 (b) 1000 (c) 100 (d) 385
(c) 70 ml (d) none of these 49 The average of all the non-negative integers upto 99 is :
39 The average score of Sehwag in 10 innings was 77 runs. In (a) 50.49 (b) 49.50
the 11th innings he had scored zero runs. The overall (c) 50.50 (d) 99
average score of Sehwag in all the 11 innings was : 50 The average of 7, 14, 21, 28, … , 77 is :
(a) 77 (b) 7.7 (a) 7 (b) 11
(c) 11 (d) none of these (c) 42 (d) 66
40 The average age of 3 children of Arihant Singh is 12 years 51 The average weight of A, B, C and D is 40 kg. A new person
and their ratio of ages is 3 : 4 : 5. The average age of the E is also included in the group, then the average weight of
youngest and eldest child is if he had only 3 children : the group is increased by 1 kg. Again a new person F
(a) 12 (b) 21 replaces A, then the new average of 5 persons becomes 42.
(c) 8 (d) 9 The average weight of B, C , D and F is :
41 The average income of all the Infosys employees is ` 20000 (a) 42 (b) 41.25
per month. Recently the company announced the (c) 42.5 (d) none of these
increment of ` 2000 per month for all the employees. The 52 The average of 3 consecutive natural numbers (which are
new average of all the employees is : in increasing order) is k. If two more consecutive number,
(a) ` 22000 just next the first set of numbers, is added, then the new
(b) ` 40000 average becomes :
(c) ` 2200 2k + 1
(a) k + 2 (b) k + 1 (c) (d) 2k − 1
(d) data insufficient 2
42 The average age of 10 students in a class is 20 years, if a 53 The average of any 5 consecutive odd natural numbers is k.
new student is also included, then the new average age of If two more such numbers, just next to the previous
all the students increases by 1 year. The age of the new 5 numbers are added, the new average becomes :
student is : 2
(a) (k + 1) (b) 2 k − 3
(a) 21 years (b) 30 years 7
(c) 31 years (d) none of these (c) 2 k + 1 (d) k + 2
Averages 211

54 The average weight of the 5 officers of a regiment is 42 kg. 58 The average price of 80 computers in an electronic shop is
If a senior officer was replaced by a new officer and thus ` 30000. If the highest and lowest price computers are sold
the average increased by 500 gm, the weight of the new out then the average price of the remaining 78 computers is
officer is : ` 29500. The cost of the highest price computer is ` 80000.
(a) 44.5 kg (b) 45 kg The cost of lowest price computer is
(c) 42.5 kg (d) can’t be determined (a) ` 19000 (b) ` 20000
55 The average age of 6 servants in my farm house is 28 years. (c) ` 29000 (d) can’t be determined
A new and young servant replaces an old servant, then the 59 A has 50 coins of 10 paise denominations. While B has
new average reduces by 1 year, the age of the new servant 10 coins of 50 paise denominations. C has 20 coins of
is : 25 paise denominations while D has 25 coins of 20 paise
(a) 26 years (b) 22 years denominations. The average number of paise per person is
(c) 35 years (d) can’t be determined (a) 450 paise (b) 500 paise
56 In the above question (no. 55) if the age of the replaced (c) 600 paise (d) can’t be determined
servant was 31 years, then the age of the new servant is : 60 A travel agency has three types of vehicles viz. four seater,
(a) 25 years (b) 35 years autorickshaw, 10 seater maxi cab and 20 seater minibus.
(c) 24 years (d) none of these The rate of each passanger (irrespective of its age or weight
57 The average income of A, B and C is ` 12000 per month or seniority) for the auto rickshaw is ` 12 and for the
and the average income of B, C and D is ` 15000 per maxicab is ` 15 and for the minibus is ` 8 for the one round.
The average occupancy of the seats is 100%, 80% and 75%
month. If the average salary of D be twice that of A, then
respectively. If he has only one vehicle of each kind, then
the average salary of B and C is (in `) :
the average earning for one round of each vehicle is :
(a) 8000 (b) 18000
(a) ` 96 (b) ` 90 (c) ` 86 (d) ` 70
(c) 13500 (d) 9000

LEVEL 02 > HIGHER LEVEL EXERCISE

1 A train normally covers a certain distance at a speed of 60 160 km less in the same time (i . e. , in four hours). The
km/hr. However, if it were to halt for a fixed time interval average speed of the train during the journey of 4 hours
in each hour its average speed reduced to 50 km/hr. What was :
is the time interval for which the train halt in each hour? (a) 50 km/hr
(a) 10 minutes (b) 20 minutes (b) 90 km/hr
(c) 6 minutes (d) 12 minutes (c) 80 km/hr
2 If p, q and r be three positive numbers such that p > q > r (d) can’t be determined
when the smallest number is added to the difference of the 4 In a Mock CAT 123 students appeared and the average
rest two numbers, then the average of the resultant number score obtained was 120. But later it was found that the top
and the original numbers except to the smallest number is three students were repeaters, so their score has been
21 more than the average of all the three original numbers. eliminated and then the new average score was found to be
The value of ( p − q) is : decreased by 1.5. Also, it is known that all the students
(a) 7 (b) 14 obtained the marks in integers and the scores of the toppers
(c) 63 (d) 42 were distinct. If the second highest topper has scored more
3 Progressive express left for New Delhi, increasing its speed than 185 marks, then the highest possible score of the third
in each hour. It started its journey from Lucknow, but after highest topper is :
four hours of its journey it met with accident. Its speed in (a) 166 (b) 167
7 (c) 168 (d) 170
the fourth hour was times that of the third hour and the
5 5 The average age of all the 100 employees in an office is
10 2
speed in the third hour was times that of the second 29 years, where employees are ladies and the ratio of
7 5
7 average age of men to women is 5 : 7. The average age of
hour and in the second hour it was times that of the first
5 female employees is :
hour. If it would have been travelled with the half of the (a) 18 years (b) 35 years
speed that of the third hour, then it would have gone (c) 25 years (d) none of these
212 QUANTUM CAT
6 There are two houses in Parliament. One is Lok Sabha and Directions (for Q. Nos. 12 and 13) During the winter session all the
the other one is Rajya Sabha and the member of 1
women which constitutes th strength of the Lok Sabha, left the house
Parliaments (MPs) in both the houses is 300 and 200 5
respectively. The average age of the members of Lok Sabha (i. e., parliament) due to the rejection of their demand. Actually they
and Rajya Sabha is 40 years and 50 years respectively. A were asking for the 50% reservation of seats for the women in the Lok
member of the Rajya Sabha when elected for the Lok Sabha Sabha. Thus the average age of the remaining members of the house
1
also, he left the Rajya Sabha and becomes the member of (i. e, the Lok Sabha) increases by th than it was earlier when all the
the Lok Sabha. Thus the average age of both the houses 4
increases. Which one of the following statements is true? members (i. e., men and women) were present.
(a) The age of this member is greater than 50 years 12 The total strength of the Lok Sabha is :
(b) The age of this member is less than 40 years (a) 300 MPs (b) 475 MPs
(c) The age of this member is greater than 40 but less than (c) 526 MPs (d) none of these
50 years
13 If the average age of women be 30 years then the average
(d) none of the above
age of male members in the Lok Sabha will be :
Directions (for Q. Nos. 7 to 9) Eight years ago there were (a) 26 (b) 34
5 members in the Arthur’s family and then the average age of the (c) 40 (d) none of these
family was 36 years. Mean while Arthur got married and gave 14 An artist in a circus moves along the hexagonal path of each
birth to a child. Still the average age of his family is same now. side 20 metres in such a way that for the first 20 metres he
goes with a speed of 20 m/s and the next 20 metres with a
7 The present age of his wife is :
speed of 10 m/s. Similarly he continuous for the rest of the
(a) 25 years (b) 26 years
hexagonal path with the same alternating speeds i . e. ,
(c) 32 years (d) data insufficient
20 m/s and 10 m/s. The average speed of the artist per
8 The age of his wife at the time of his child’s birth was. If the round of the circus is :
difference between the age of her child and herself was 26 (a) 13.33 m/s (b) 23.66 m/s
years : 1
(c) 39 m/s (d) 15 m/s
(a) 25 years 3
(b) 26 years
(c) 20 years
15 The average of 26, 29, n, 35 and 43 lies between 25 and 35.
(d) can’t be determined If n is always an integer and greater than the average of the
given integers then the value of n is :
9 The age of Arthur at the time of his marriage was : (a) 33 < n < 47 (b) 34 < n < 43
(a) 22 years (b) 23 years
(c) 33 < n < 42 (d) none of these
(c) 26 years (d) can’t be determined
10 Eleven years earlier the average age of a family of 16 The average of 4 distinct prime numbers a, b, c and d is 35,
4 members was 28 years. Now the age of the same family where a < b < c < d. a and d are equidistant from 36 and
with six members is yet the same, even when 2 children b and c are equidistant from 34 and a, b are equidistant
were born in this period. If they belong to the same parents from 30 and c and d are equidistant from 40. The
and the age of the first child at the time of the birth of the difference between a and d is :
younger child was same as there were total family (a) 30 (b) 14
members just after the birth of the youngest members of (c) 21 (d) can’t be determined
this family, then the present age of the youngest member of
the family is :
17 There are four numbers whose product is 9261000 and
each of these four numbers is formed by 3 distinct prime
(a) 3 years (b) 5 years
numbers. The average of all the four numbers is :
(c) 6 years (d) none of these
(a) 61.75 (b) 67.25
11 Mr. Patel walked 6 km to reach the station from his house, (c) 82.33 (d) data insufficient
then he boarded a train whose average speed was 60
km/hr and thus he reached his destination. In this 18 A number is such that when it is multiplied by 8, it gives
way he took total of 3 hours. If the average speed of the another number which is as much above from 270 as the
entire journey was 32 km/hr then the average speed of original number (itself) is below 270. The average of the
walking is : original number and the resultant number is :
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4.5 km/hr (a) 33.75 (b) 190
(c) 4 km/hr (d) none of these (c) can’t be determined (d) none of these
Averages 213

19 In the above question (no. 18) the average of the original 25 The average expenditure of Sarvesh for the January to June
no. and 270 is : is ` 4200 and he spents ` 1200 in January and ` 1500 in July.
(a) 165 (b) 185 The average expenditure for the months of February to July
(c) 135 (d) none of these is :
(a) 4250 (b) 4520
20 In a particular week the average number of people who
(c) 4060 (d) none of these
visited the Tajmahal is 40. If we exclude the holidays then
the average is increased by 16. Further if we exclude also 26 The average marks of Sameer decreased by 1, when he
the day on which the maximum number of 112 people replaced the subject in which he has scored 40 marks by the
visited the Tajmahal, then the average becomes 42. The other two subjects in which he has just scored 23 and 25
number of holidays in the week is : marks respectively. later he has also included 57 marks of
(a) 1 (b) 2 Computer Science, then the average marks increased by 2.
(c) 3 (d) data insufficient How many subjects were there initially?
(a) 6 (b) 12
21 The average age of all the 20 students of a class is 24. The
(c) 15 (d) can’t be determined
minimum age of a student is 18 and the maximum age of
another student in the same class is 30 years. When the two 27 In a combined family the average age of 4 males and
students whose average age was 26 years resticated from 7 females is 42 and 20 years respectively. If two persons
the class but later on one of the resticated student was whose average age is 13 years have left the family and
readmitted. Now the average age of the class is : other three people joined the family whose respective ages
(a) 23.89 years (b) 28.39 years are 11, 15 and 28 years, then the average age of the new
(c) 25 years (d) can’t be determined family is increased by :
(a) 4 years (b) 1 year
22 In a set of prime and composite numbers, the composite (c) 3 years (d) none of these
numbers are twice the number of prime numbers and the
average of all the numbers of the set is 9. If the number of 28 A teacher gave sum to his class to find the average of
prime numbers and composite numbers are exchanged n numbers viz. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 … etc. But when the teacher
then the average of the set of numbers is increased by 2. If checked the solution, he has found that during the
during the exchange of the numbers the average of the calculation a student just missed a number for the addition
prime numbers and composite numbers individually thus his average of the n numbers was 15. The value of n is :
remained constant, then the ratio of the average of (a) 30 (b) 26
composite numbers to the average of prime numbers (c) 31 (d) not unique
(initially) was : 29 The average earning of a group of persons is ` 50 per day.
7 13 The difference between the highest earning and lowest
(a) (b)
13 7 earning of any two persons of the group is ` 45. If these two
(c) 9/11 (d) none of these people are excluded the average earning of the group
23 The total age of all the guests in the party was 540 years. If decreases by ` 1. If the minimum earning of the person in
a South Indian couple (guests) left the party, then the the group lies between 42 and 47 and the number of
average of the remaining guests still remained unchanged, persons initially in the group was equal to a prime number,
where the age of both the husband and wife (the South with both its digits prime. The number of persons in the
Indian couple) was same, then the average age of this group initially was :
couple and the total number of guests in the party, (a) 29 (b) 53
respectively, can be : (c) 31 (d) none of these
(a) 18, 27 (b) 20, 27 30 There are three categories of jobs A, B and C . The average
(c) 15, 38 (d) can’t be determined salary of the students who got the job of A and B categories
24 In the command hospital Lucknow the sum of the ages of is 26 lakh per annum. The average salary of the students
all the 29 people i . e. , physicians, surgeons and nurses is who got the job of B and C category is 44 lakh per annum
696. If the age of each physician, each surgeon and each and the average salary of those students who got the job of
nurse be 1 year, 6 years and 3 years more, than the average A and C categories is 34 lakh per annum. The most
age of the whole staff would have been 3 years more. If the appropriate (or closest) range of average salary of all the
number of surgeon is a square root of a two digit number three categories (if it is known that each student gets only
which is also a perfect cube, then the number of nurses in one category of jobs i . e. , A, B and C ) :
the hospital is : (a) lies between 30 and 44
(a) 12 (b) 15 (b) lies between 28 and 34
(c) 16 (d) none of these (c) lies between 34 and 43
(d) lies between 29 and 48
214 QUANTUM CAT
31 Out of the five integral numbers C is the average of 37 The average age of board of directors of a company, having
A and D. B is greater than C and less than D. Also, B is the 10 directors was 48 years. Coincidentally when a director
average of A and E . The middle most number in the aged 53 resigned from the board of directors, another
sequence is : director died on the same day. So a new director joined the
(a) A (b) B board of directors aged 34. Next year in the same month
(c) C (d) D the average age of all the 9 directors was found to be 46
years. The age of the late (i . e. , dead) director at the time of
32 The average age of Donald, his wife and their two children his death was :
is 23 years. His wife is just 4 year younger than Donald (a) 56 years (b) 53 years
himself and his wife was 24 years old when his daughter was (c) 57 years (d) 61 years
born. He was 32 years old when his son was born. The
38 In an office the average weight of 24 employees is 60 kg. If
average age of Donald and his daughter is :
n employees were included whose average weight was
(a) 25 years 54 kg, then the total number of employees in the office,
(b) 22.5 years (given that the new average weight of all the (24 + n)
(c) 26 years employees is a whole number) :
(d) can’t be determined (a) 36 (b) 30
33 There are only five people in the Aman Verma’s family. (c) 34 (d) 25
Aman, his wife, a son and two daughters. The younger 39 The average age of 100 nurses in a nursing home in 1982
4
daughter’s age is th of the elder daughter’s age. The age of was 50 years. In 1984, 20 nurses retired from their job,
5 whose average age was 60 years. After a huge gap in 1987,
3
eldest daughter is times that of her father Aman and the 40 nurses were employed whose average age was 38 years.
8
The average age of all the nurses in 1990 was :
1
age of the son is th that of his father Aman. 4 years ago the (a) 53 years
5
(b) 51 years
age of her wife was 8 times that of his son and now the sum
(c) 48.5 years
of the ages of the younger daughter and wife is same as the
sum of the ages of Aman and his son. The average age of (d) data insufficent
the family is : Directions (for Q. Nos. 40 to 44) Bhartiya Idol is a talent search
(a) 22.22 years (b) 25.4 years programme launched and run by TV Tarana. In this programme
(c) 21.2 years (d) none of these each participating candidate has to appear for the audition in such
34 The average weight of a political party is decreased by 1, a manner that a candidate plays the Antakchhary with its aspiring
when some new politicians joined the party, whose opponent until he fails, otherwise he can continue and become
1 winner. If a candidate fails on his part, he has to leave the contest
strength is th of the existing (or old) politicians and the
4 and in place of it another candidate starts off with the same
total weight of the new politicians is 209 kgs. What is the existing opponent. The number of points a candidate scores is
new average weight of all the politicians if it is known that equal to the number of times he responds correctly to his
in any case the number of politicians always must be opponents. The candidate who finishes the game (or who wins
greater than 50 but less than 100 : over the last opponent) is declared as a winner, even if he/she
(a) 15 kgs (b) 16 kgs scores less points and starts as the last participant. The points
(c) 18 kgs (d) 19 kgs scored individually by all the 10 candidates are as shown below.
35 Ravi went to Kanpur from Lucknow by his four wheeler. Besides, if a person loses the contest only if he/she responds
During the journey he had to use the spare wheel (i . e. , incorrectly.
stepney). Thus he finished his 160 km journey. The
Participants Points
average distance covered by the wheels of his car is :
(a) 40 km (b) 120 km 1. Rajesh 8
(c) 128 km (d) 48 km 2. Radhe 10
3. Harish 7
36 There are 6 consecutive odd numbers in increasing order.
4. Prajakta 12
The difference between the average of the squares of the
5. Aditya 25
first 4 numbers and the last four numbers is 64. If the sum
6. Rahul 24
of the squares of the first and the last element (i . e. , odd
numbers) is 178, then the average of all the six numbers is : 7. Shekhar 18
(a) 7 (b) 8 8. Amit Tandon 23
(c) 9 (d) 10 9. Amit Sana 29
10. Abhijeet 30
Averages 215

40 The average score of all the 10 participants is : 47 There are four types of candidates in our coaching
(a) 21.5 (b) 18.6 preparing for the CAT. The number of students of
(c) 18.3 (d) none of these Engineering, Science, Commerce and Humanities is 40, 60,
41 A candidate can face maximum ‘ n’ opponents. The value of 50 and 30 respectively and the respective percentage of
‘ n’ is : students who qualified the CAT is 80%, 75%, 60% and 50%
(a) 3 (b) 4 respectively the overall percentage of successful candidates
(c) 1 (d) can’t be determined in our institute is :
(a) 67.77% (b) 66.66%
42 The average score of five participants who started earlier : (c) 68.5% (d) none of these
(a) 23 (b) 12
(c) 19.5 (d) can’t be determined 48 Mr. Manmohan calculated the average of 10, ‘three digit
numbers’. But due to mistake he reversed the digits of a
43 If Abhijeet has not started off earlier and he is the winner number and thus his average increased by 19.8. The
then the minimum number of participants who has lost the difference between the unit digit and hundreds digit of that
game before he has started off : number is :
(a) 4 (b) 6 (a) 8
(c) 5 (d) none of these (b) 4
44 For the above question the maximum possible average of (c) 2
the opponents of Abhijeet could be : (d) can’t be determined
(a) 13.5 (b) 9.25 (c) 13.0 (d) 17.5 49 Once my peon went to the office of SKYLINE COURIER
45 In an NGO, the daily average wages of 20 illiterate with 4 different envelopes. The clerk in the office measured
employees is decreased from ` 25 to ` 10, thus the average the weights in all possible pairs. The weights obtained are
salary of all the literate (educated) and illiterate employees 59 gm, 61 gm, 62 gm, 63 gm, 64 gm and 66 gm. The weight
is decreased by ` 10 per day. The number of educated of the heaviest envelope is :
employees working in the NGO is : (a) 35 gm (b) 36 gm
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 34 gm
(c) 10 (d) data insufficient (d) can’t be determined
46 Mr. Tyagi while going from Meerut to Saharanpur covered 50 The average expenditure of the hotel when there are
half the distance by train at the speed of 96 km/hr then he 10 guests is ` 60 per guests and the average expenditure is
covered half of the rest distance by his scooter at the speed ` 40 when there are 20 guests. If it is known that there are
of 60 km/hr and finally he covered the rest distance at the some fixed expenses irrespective of the number of guests
speed of 40 km/hr by car. The average speed at which then the average expenditure per guest when there are
Mr. Tyagi completed his journey is : 40 guests in the hotel :
(a) 64 km/hr (b) 56 km/hr (a) ` 30 (b) ` 25
(c) 60 km/hr (d) 36 km/hr (c) ` 20 (d) can’t be determined

LEVEL 03 > Final Round

Directions (for Q. Nos. 1 to 15) There are 3 sets of natural 3 If the average (factually correct) of the set A is 42.46, then
numbers 1 to 100. Set A contains all the natural numbers which the average of the Set C is :
are prime, upto 100. Set B contains all the non-prime even natural (a) 52
numbers upto 100. Set C contains all the non-prime odd natural (b) 49.87
numbers upto 100 i. e., (c) 55.46
A = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, K 89, 97} (d) can’t be determined
B = {4 , 6, 8, 10, 12, K 98, 100}
C = {1, 9, 15, 21, 25, 27, 33, K 95, 99} 4 The average of the elements of the Set A and C combined is:
(a) 49.0588 (b) 49.0372
1 The average of all the elements of A, B and C is : (c) 50 (d) none of these
(a) 49.50 (b) 50.50
5 If an element less than 50 belongs to Set A is transferred to
(c) 55 (d) none of these
Set B, then the average of Set B :
2 The average of all the elements of B is : (a) increases (b) decreases
(a) 52 (b) 48 (c) remains constant (d) can’t be determined
(c) 49 (d) none of these
216 QUANTUM CAT
6 If any two elements, greater than 50, belong to Set A are Directions (for Q. Nos. 16 and 17) In the following graph the
transferred to Set C, then the average of Set C : relation between speed and distance is given :
(a) remains constant (b) decreases

Speed (in km/hr) →

(c) increases (d) can’t be determined
7 Any 10 elements of the Set A are transferred to the Set B, 30
then the average of Set B : 20
(a) increases (b) decreases
10
(c) remains constant (d) can’t be determined
8 If a least and a greatest element of Set C are transferred 0 50 100 150 200
from Set C to Set A then the average of Set A : Distance (in km) →
(a) increases (b) decreases
16 The average speed for the first 200 kms. (in km/hr)
(c) remains constant (d) can’t be determined
(a) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (d) 40
9 If a smallest and a greatest element of the Set B is 17 The average speed for the first 150 km :
transferred to Set A, then the averages of A, B, C (a) 15 (b) 18
respectively : (c) 25 (d) none of these
(a) decreases, decreases, increases 18 Abhay working in Tele Bharti as a salesperson. His monthly
(b) decreases, constant and increased salary is just ` 200. But he gets the bonus as per the given
(c) increases, constant, constant rule. If he sells the simcards of ` x then his bonus will be
(d) can’t be determined  x  2 
`   + 10. In the first quarter of the year his average
10 If an element 2 is also included in the Set B, then the
  100  
average of B :
sale was ` 3000 per month. In the next 5 months his
(a) decreases by 3 (b) increases by 2
average sale was ` 5000 per month. In the last four months
(c) decreases by 1 (d) can’t be determined
his average sale was ` 8000 per month. What is the average
11 The average of all the perfect squares of the Set C is : earning per month for the whole year?
(a) 35 (b) 33 (a) ` 3350 (b) ` 3610
(c) 30.5 (d) none of these (c) ` 3560 (d) none of these
Directions (for Q. Nos. 12 to 14) 5 elements below 25 from the 19 The price of Shirts at Sahara Ganj is defined as
Set A are transferred to Set B, and 10 elements lying between 25 `(100 + 10 x 2 ), where x is the number of shirts. Mallika
and 50 from the Set B are transferred to Set C and 15 elements purchased 5 shirts from the above shop. The average price
above 50 from the Set C are transferred to Set A. of a shirt is :
(a) ` 70 (b) ` 50
12 The overall average of all the elements of A, B and C is : (c) ` 75 (d) none of these
(a) 39.8 (b) 50.50
20 In the above question if the sister of Mallika purchased
(c) 71.2 (d) can’t be determined
k shirts but the average price was same as that of Mallika.
13 The maximum increase in the average of set : The value of k could be :
(a) A (b) B (a) 6 (b) 4
(c) C (d) can’t be determined (c) 2 (d) none of these
14 When we intended to minimise the loss in average of Set B 21 There are 10 compartments in passenger train which carries on
then the new average of Set B is : an average 20 passengers per compartment. If atleast
(a) 54.4772 12 passengers were sitting in each compartment and no any
(b) 45.74 compartment has equal number of passengers then maximum
(c) 51.84 how many passengers can be accomodated in any
(d) can’t be determined compartment :
(a) 64 (b) 45
15 If 10-10 elements are transferred from Set A to Set B, then
(c) 56 (d) none of these
Set B to Set C and then from Set C to Set A but the received
elements cannot be transferred to the next set. e.g. the
22 There are twice the number of two wheelers as there are
three wheelers and the number of 4 wheelers are equal to the
elements obtained from Set A cannot be transferred to C
number of two wheelers. The average number of wheel per
through Set B. The average of which Set is maximum :
vehicle is :
(a) A (b) B
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) C (d) can’t be determined
(c) 5 (d) none of these
Averages 217

23 Sone lal has ‘ n’ magical eggs whose average weight is ‘k’ gm. 28 Asrani is a superintendent jailor in Ramgarh, who is
Each of the ‘ n’ eggs produces ‘ n’ eggs next day such that the assisted by 6 assistant jailors. Each of the seven jailors
average weight of ‘ n’ eggs produced is same as that of the supervises a certain but distinct number of jail inmates.
parental (previous generation) egg for each ‘n’ groups He has 30 inmates to look after. Jairaj, another jailor and
individually i . e. , each egg produces ‘ n’ eggs in its next a close aide of Asrani, supervises an average number of 32
generation and the average weight of all the ‘ n’ eggs of next inmates. Each of the seven jailors has to superise not more
generation is same as the weight of the mother egg. This than 45 inmates. Once Asrani heard a ruckus within the
process is continued without any change in pattern. What is jail premises, he instructed his assistants that half of them
the total weight of all the eggs of rth generation, where the go to his left and half of them go to his right and rest shall
initial number of eggs with Sone Lal are considered as the follow him. But, unfortunately, none was left to follow
eggs of first generation :
him. Gabbar Singh, a jail inmate, was curious to know
(a) rnk (b) nr k (c) nk r (d) nr + 1k that who went left and who went right. When he asked
Directions (for Q. Nos. 24 to 27) A CAT training institute was another inmate Kalia about the same, he got to know that
established on January 1, 2004 with 3, 4, 5 and 6 faculty members the ones who supervise more inmates than that of Asrani
in the Logical Reasoning (LR), Data Interpretation (DI), English went to the left and the ones who supervise fewer inmates
Language and Quantitative Analysis (QA) areas respectively, to than that of Asrani went to the right side. What is the
start with. No faculty member retired or joined the institute in the maximum possible difference between the number of
first three months, of the year 2004. In the next four years, the inmates supervised by any two jailors?
institute recruited one faculty member in each of the four areas. All (a) 29 (b) 13
these new faculty members, who joined the institute subsequently (c) 15 (d) 16
over the years were 25 years old at the time of their joining the
institute. All of them joined the institute on April 1. During these Directions (for Q. Nos. 29 to 31) Answer the following
four years, one of the faculty members retired at the age of 60. The Questions based on the information given below :
following diagram gives the area-wise average age (in terms of Fair-Asia is well known for its queer marketing practices. To lure
number of completed years) of faculty members as on April 1 of its customers, out of the blue, it comes up with a very lucrative
2004, 2005, 2006 and 2007. offer. In that offer it promises to sell and the air tickets, for a
Faculty 2004 2005 2006 2007 one-way trip to Bangkok that originates from Jakarta, in such a
manner that the nth customer has to pay exactly Rs.n to buy an air
LR 49.33 44 45 46
ticket, but each prospective passenger has to bay a separate
DI 50.5 51.5 52.5 47.8
ticket for oneself. The airline claims that it had sold out all the
English 50.2 49 45 46
seats at throw away prices in no time. However, at the last
Quants 45 43 44 45
moment one of the customers had returned her ticket and got the
24 In which year did the new faculty member join as the faculty full refund from the airline. Consequently, the average income of
of English? the airline from this particular flight is exactly ` 100 per
(a) 2004 (b) 2005 (c) 2006 (d) 2007
passenger.

25 What was the age of the new faculty member, who joined 29 What could be the customer number, who returned her
the faculty of QA, as on April 1, 2007? ticket to airline?
(a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28 (a) 99 (b) 100
(c) 75 (d) 225
26 From which area did the faculty member retire?
(a) English (b) LR 30 What could be the maximum number of passengers
(c) DI (d) Quants allowed to travel in this airline, if only one passenger
occupies each seat and cabin crew or anyone else does not
27 Professors Sarvesh and Manish, two faculty members in the
occupy any seat intended for the passengers?
LR area, who have been with the Institute since its inception,
(a) 320 (b) 240
share a birthday, which falls on 30th November. One was
(c) 200 (d) none of these
born in 1951 and the other one in 1954. On April 1, 2009,
what was the age of the third faculty member, who has been 31 What’s the loss incurred by the airline due to the refund of
in the same area since inception? a ticket?
(a) 47 (b) 50 (a) ` 199 (b) ` 100
(c) 51 (d) 52 (c) ` 200 (d) Cannot be determined
 QUANTUM CAT
Answers
Level 01 Basic Level Exercise

1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (a) 15 (c) 16 (c) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (b) 20 (b)
21 (d) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (a) 30 (b)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (b) 34 (b) 35 (b) 36 (a) 37 (a) 38 (b) 39 (d) 40 (a)
41 (a) 42 (c) 43 (b) 44 (a) 45 (d) 46 (a) 47 (a) 48 (a) 49 (b) 50 (c)
51 (b) 52 (b) 53 (d) 54 (d) 55 (d) 56 (a) 57 (c) 58 (a) 59 (b) 60 (a)

Level 02 Higher Level Exercise

1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (a)
11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (d) 14 (a) 15 (c) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (d) 19 (a) 20 (b)
21 (d) 22 (a) 23 (b) 24 (d) 25 (a) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28 (d) 29 (d) 30 (a)
31 (b) 32 (a) 33 (a) 34 (a) 35 (c) 36 (b) 37 (a) 38 (a) 39 (b) 40 (b)
41 (b) 42 (d) 43 (c) 44 (a) 45 (c) 46 (a) 47 (a) 48 (c) 49 (c) 50 (a)

Level 03 Final Round

1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (c)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (d) 28 (a) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (d)
 Hints & Solutions
Level 01 Basic Level Exercise Total expenditure for 12 months
= 8400 − 5200 = 3200
1 Initially the total weight = 20 × 45 = 900 3200
Now, the total weight when a student has been replaced Therefore, average saving per month = = 266. 66
12
= 20 × 44 = 880
8 There are 6 prime numbers between 47 and 74 as given
It means the weight of the new student is 20 kgs less than
below :
the replaced student. Hence the weight of the replaced
student = 40 + 20 = 60 kgs 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73
191
Alternatively Since you know that there are total There are only two combinations whose average is or
20 students and when their average weight decreases by 3
1, it means on an average 1 kg weight gets reduced from whose total sum is 191.
each of the students. Thus there is 20 kg weight loss, in These are, {53, 67, 71} and {59, 61, 71}
total. Again this happens due to the student whose We observe that in the first set the difference between
weight is 40 kg who replaces an old student. Thus we can greatest and smallest prime number is 18.
say that the weight of the old (or existing) student of the Hence, choice (c) is correct.
class was 60 kg, which is reduced by a 40 kg student.
9 Go back to the fundamentals and see the property number
2 The only useful data is that the average length of the thumb 4 and 2 of averages.
and index finger is 2.8 and the length of index finger is
Hence, required average = 11 × 5 + 5 = 60
3 inches. Now the total length of index finger and thumb
= 2.8 × 2 = 5.6 inches 10 The average score after 48th innings = 48
The average score after 49th innings = 49
Thus the length of thumb is (5.6 − 3) = 2.6 inches.
(48 × 48 + 97 )
3 The average price of the new mixture Since, = 49
49
(38 × 8) + (43 × 4) + (49 × 3)
= = 41.53 Now the requirement of runs = 49 + (50 × 2) = 149
15
or (50 × 51) − (49 × 49) = 149
4 Average speed when Pankaj was returning
2 × 10 × 30
= = 15 km/hr 11 Average Total
40
S+G → 35 70
Now the average speed of the whole journey
K +G → 32 64
2 × 15 × 60
= = 24 km/hr S+K → 38 76
75
5 Use unitary method : S+K +G → 35 105
1 D+I → 35 35
In hours, 123 typists can type 984 papers 2
15
984
= 246 papers S + K + G + D + I 105 + 35
In 1 minute, 123 typists can type ∴ = = 28
4 5 5
246
In 1 minute, 1 typist can type = 2 papers 12 Kaif → 35
123
Sachin → 41
1
Hint hours = 4 minutes Ganguli → 29
15
Dhoni < 35 and Irfan < 35
20 × 3x + 15 × 2x + 18 × 4 x
6 Average cost = = 18 Hence, Sachin is the senior person.
9x
13 It is the same as a person with 20 years of more age
7 Earning in the 8 months = 600 × 8 = 4800
replaces an existing person of the group (or village)
 3
Earning in the 4 months =  600 ×  × 4 = 3600 Since the total age of the village having n persons, is being
 2 increased by 20 years and the average age of village is
Total earning = ` 8400 being increased by 1 year, hence there are total 20 people
Saving in 8 months = 400 × 8 = 3200 in the village.
 5 Alternatively (n × 42) + 20 = (n × 43)
Saving in 4 months =  400 ×  × 4 = 2000
 4 n = 20
Total savings = 5200
220 QUANTUM CAT
2 × 6 + 4 × 5 + 4 × 10 + 2 × 6 24 19 × 26 − 18 × 25 = 44 years
14 Average rainfall = =7
12 k + k + 2 + k + 4 + k + 6 + k + 8 + k + 10 + k + 12
25
15 400 × 7 = (300 × 3) + (250 × 2) + (n × 2) ⇒ 700 7
16 The new player must be 11 kg heavier than the replaced =k+6
one. Hence the weight of the new person = 55 + 11 = 66 kg. x 85 x 70 5x 56
× + × + ×
26 4 100 3 100 12 100 × 100 = 67. 916
17 No. of family Average age Total age x
members
Here, x is the total number of students in the whole class.
4 years ago 6 25 150
27 Since there are five possibilities or combinations (as 5C 4 = 5)
Presently 6 29 174
5 × 600
Therefore, average = = 750 mm
But the no. of family members (presently) = 7 4
and average age (presently) = 25 23 8 62 112 32
+ + + +
Therefore the total age = 25 × 7 = 175 28 5 3 9 15 9 =5 8
Hence, the age of child = 175 − 174 = 1 year 5 225
1000.0001 + 100.001 + 10.01 + 1.1
18 Amitabh’s total expenditure for Jan-June 29
= 4200 × 6 = 25200 4
1111.1111
Expenditure for February-June = 25200 − 1200 = 24000 = = 277.777
4
Expenditure for the months of February-July
7 + 8 + 9 + 10 + 11 + 12 + 13 7 + 13
= 24000 + 1500 = 25500 30 = 10 ⇒ = 10
7 2
25500
The average expenditure = = 4250  100 × 101
6  
 1 + 2 + 3 + K + 100  2 
19. Total value of a + 11 + 23 + 17 = 60 ⇒ a = 9 31   = = 50.50
 100  100
Again a + b + 12 + 25 = 64 ⇒ b = 18
 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + K + 99  50 × 50
a 1 32   =  = 50
Therefore, =  50   50 
b 2
2 + 4 + 6 + K + 198 99 × 100
20 By the method of Alligation 33 = = 100
99 99
12000 18000
34 a + b + c = 237
15500
a + c = 158
2500 3500
⇒ b = 79
Therefore the ratio of number of Junior level employee to
M + A+S
the senior level employee = 5 : 7 35 = 11111
5 5 3
Hence the required fraction = = S+M
(5 + 7 ) 12 Also, = 11111 (Q M − 11111 = 11111 − S)
2
Alternatively Go through options
J 5x J 5x ⇒ A = 11111
= ⇒ = 2 × 200 × 600
J + S 12x S 7x 36 = 300 km/hr
800
Therefore 15500 × 12x = 12000 × 5x + 18000 × 7 x A + B + C + D 400 × 2 + 600 × 2
LHS = RHS, Hence correct 37 = = 500
4 4
21 None of a, b, c is correct. 20 + 50
38 Average weight = = 0.7 kg (Q 1 kg = 1000 gm)
a+ b+ c+ d + e 100
The correct answer can be
5 770
39 Average = = 70
a+ e b+ d 11
or = =c
2 2 3x + 4 x + 5x
40 = 12 ⇒ x = 3
Where a, b, c, d and e are consecutive odd numbers. 3
22 31 × 31 − 30 × 30 = 61 years ∴The ages are 9, 12 and 15 years
9 + 15
23 a + b + c + d + e = 5 × 92 = 460 and the required average = = 12
2
a + b + c = 3 × 83 = 249 41 Since the salary of each employee is being increased
c + d + e = 3 × 97 = 291 therefore the average salary will also increased by ` 2000.
∴ c = (a + b + c) + (c + d + e) − (a + b + c + d + e) Thus the required average = 22000.
or c = 540 − 460 or c = 80
Averages 221

42 11 × 21 − 10 × 20 = 31 52 Three consecutive natural numbers whose average is k are

(k − 1), (k ), (k + 1) .
43 20 × 180 − 19 × 178 = 218
The next two numbers will be (k + 2) and (k + 3) .
44 Let the price of A > B > C Therefore, average of (k − 1), (k ), (k + 1)(k + 2)
A+B and (k + 3) is (k + 1) .
Then, = 2C
2 Alternatively Consider any 3 consecutive natural
A + B = 4C number eg. 4, 5, 6 the average is 5.
Now, A + B + C = 5 × 3 = 15 crore Again 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 the average is 6.
⇒ 5C = 15 crore To verify it consider some different numbers eg. 10, 11,
∴ C = 3 crore 12 average = 11 and 10, 11, 12, 13, 14 average = 12
45 Since, we don’t know about the price of B. Hence, proved that the average is increased by 1.
 40 + 70 + 142  53 The 5 consecutive odd numbers whose average is k are
46   × 100 = 84% (k − 4), (k − 2), k, (k + 2), (k + 4)
 50 + 100 + 150
Again the average of (k − 4), (k − 2), (k ), (k + 2), (k + 4),
47 Since 1 is neither prime nor composite number. Thus there (k + 6), (k + 8) is (k + 2)
are only 99 number viz. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, …, 99, 100. Alternatively Consider some appropriate numbers.
 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + K + 100
Hence =  54 The increase in weight = (5 × 42. 5) − (5 × 42) = 2.5 kg
 99 
 (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + K + 100) − 1 But we don’t know the weight of the replaced officer. So,
=  we can’t determine.
 99 
5050 − 1 5049 55 The decrease in age = 6 × (28 − 27 ) = 6 years
= = = 51
99 99 But we don’t know the age of the old servant which is
being replaced. So, we cannot determine the average age
1 + 4 + 9 + 16 + K + 100  10 × 11 × 21
48 =  of new servant.
10  6 × 10 
56 The age of new servant = 31 − 6 = 25 years
 n (n + 1)(2n + 1)
 Q 1 + 2 + K + n =  = 38. 5
2 2 2
57 A + B + C = 12000 × 3
6
B + C + D = 15000 × 3
49 The non-negative integers upto 99 are 0, 1, 2, 3, …, 99. ⇒ D − A = 3000 × 3
 0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + K + 99
Therefore, average =   D − A = 9000
 100 
also D = 2A
 100 ⇒ D = 18000 and A = 9000
 99 × 
 2   n (n + 1) (45000 − 18000)
=  Q1 + 2 + 3 + K+ n =  Therefore, average salary of B and C =
100  2 2
= 49.5 = 13500
7 + 14 + 21 + K 77 7 (1 + 2 + K + 11) 58 The price of the costliest and cheapest computer
50 =
11 11 = (80 × 30000) − (78 × 29500) = 99000
7 × 11 × 12  n (n + 1)
= = 42 Q 1 + 2 + 3 + K+ n = 
Therefore the price of the cheapest computer
11 × 2 2 = 99000 − 80000 = 19000
Alternatively Since, all the numbers are in A.P. 10 × 50 + 50 × 10 + 20 × 25 + 25 × 20
Further there are odd number of numbers (i . e. , 11) in the 59 = 500
4
sequence. Thus the middle most term is the average of
the sequence, which is 42. 60 Auto Maxi. Mini.
Rickshaw cab Bus
51 Average Total
No. of seats 4 10 20
A, B, C , D 40 160
No. of seats occupied 4 8 15
A, B, C , D, E 41 205 Rate per seat 12 15 8
F , B, C , D, E 42 210 Total amount 48 120 120
(in `)
Thus, E = 205 − 160 = 45
Hence, F , B, C , D = 210 − 45 = 165 Therefore, average earning
48 + 120 + 120
Therefore, average of F , B, C , D = 41.25 = = 96
3
222 QUANTUM CAT
Level 02 Higher Level Exercise
1 For this type of questions take the LCM of speeds and 4 The total score of 3 toppers
assume the LCM as the distance. = 123 × 120 − 120 × 118.5
300
Then the time taken @ speed of 60 km/hr = = 5 hrs = 540
60
The highest possible score of the third highest topper is
300
Again the time taken @ speed of 50 km/hr = = 6 hrs possible when the score of other two toppers was
50 minimum
Thus we see that in place of 5 hrs train takes 6 hours. It So,
means the train takes 1 hour extra and this one hour is 1st rankers score = 187 (minimum) 
stopping period in the total time of 6 hours. Thus in 6 2nd rankers score = 186 (minimum)  540
hour train halts for 1 hour. So in 1 hour train will stop for 3rd rankers score = 167 (maximum) 
1 
hours or 10 minutes. 5 Go through options : 40 × 35 + 60 × 25 = 29 × 100
6
Alternatively (short cut) Since there are 40 ladies and 60 gents
 slower speed Alternatively 40 × 7 x + 60 × 5x = 29 × 100
Halting (or stopping) time = 1 −  hours
 faster speed  ⇒ x = 5 ∴ 7 x = 35
50 10 1 6
=1 − = = hours Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha
60 60 6 No. of MPs 300 200
= 10 minutes Ave. Age 40 50
(Q 1 hour = 60 minutes)
[ r + ( p − q)] + p + q p+ q+ r Since, when a member of Rajya Sabha joins the Lok
2 = 21 +
3 3 Sabha and the average age of both the houses increases,
2p + r p+ q+ r it means the average age of this member must lie
⇒ − 21 =
3 3 between 40 and 50. When the age of this member is
p−q greater than 40, then the average age of the Lok Sabha
⇒ = 21 increases. Again when the age of this member is less than
3
50, then after leaving it, the average age of the Rajya
⇒ p − q = 63
Sabha increases.
3 Let the speed for the first hour be x km/hr
7 Solutions (for Q. Nos. 7 to 9)
Then the speed for the second hour be x km/hr
5 No. of family
10 7 members Average Total
Then the speed for the third hour be × x = 2x km/hr
7 5 8 years ago → 5 36 180
Then the speed for the fourth hour be Presently → (if) 5 (36 + 8 ) = 44 220
7 14 x
2x × = km/hr 7 36 252
5 5
Therefore, total distance in four hours 7 From the above explanation we have no any clue about his
7 14 x 36 x wife’s age.
= x + x + 2x + = km
5 5 5 8 Since we know that the difference between the age of any
 36 x  two persons remains always constant, while the ratio of
 
Total Distance  5  their ages gets changed as the time changes.
∴ Average speed = =
Total Time 4 So, if the age of his child be x (presently)
9x Then the age of wife be x + 26 (presently)
= km/hr Thus, the total age = x + ( x + 26) = 32 [Q 252 − 220 = 32]
5
Again the distance in 4 hours @ speed of x km/hr. ⇒ x=3
Which is half of the third hour’s speed is 4 x km. Therefore the age of her child is 3 years and her self is
36 x 29 years. Hence her age at the time
Hence, − 4 x = 160 km of the birth of her child was 26 years.
5
Alternatively As we have mentioned above that the
⇒ x = 50
9 × 50 age difference remains always constant. Therefore her
Hence, the average speed = = 90 km/hr age at the time of her child’s birth was 26 years.
5
Averages 223

9 Since there is no clue. So, we can’t determine. 15 Average of 26, 29, 35 and 43 is 33.25. Also the average of
10 26, 29, n, 35 and 43 lies between 25 and 35 i . e. ,
No. of family
Average Total 26 + 29 + n + 35 + 43
members 25 < < 35
5
Eleven years 4 28 112
earlier ⇒ 125 < 26 + 29 + n + 35 + 43 < 175
Presently if 4 39 156 ⇒ 125 < 133 + n < 175
6 28 168 ⇒ n < 42
Since the value of n is an integer and greater than 33.25,
Since it is obvious that just after the birth of the youngest then 33 < n < 42 ; for every integer n.
member (i . e. , child) was 6 family members in the family.
Therefore at the time of the birth of the youngest child 16 Given that a < b < c < d
the elder child’s age was 6 years. 36
Now the sum of their ages = x + ( x + 6) = 12
34
= (168 − 156)
⇒ x = 3 and ( x + 3) = 9 a 30 b c 40 d
11 Go through options The only possible prime number between 30 and 34 is 31
6
= 1.5 hour, when he was walking Hence, b = 31, therefore a = 29
4 Similarly, c = 37 and d = 43
Therefore, time of journey by train = 3 − 1.5 = 1.5 Therefore, d − a = 43 − 29 = 14
Now, the distance travelled by train
17 9261000 = 23 × 33 × 53 × 7 3
= 1.5 × 60 = 96 − 6 = 90
Hence correct. = (2 × 3 × 5) × (2 × 3 × 7 ) × (2 × 5 × 7 ) × (3 × 5 × 7 )
Alternatively Total distance = 32 × 3 = 6 + 60 × x = 30 × 42 × 70 × 105
⇒ x = 1.5 hours Therefore the average of 30, 42, 70 and 105 is 61.75.
6 18 Since the number is as below 270 as its multiple is as above
Thus, the speed of walking = = 4 km/hr
1.5 270. It means these two numbers are equidistant from 270.
Hence their average is 270.
12 Let the number of total MPs = n and their average age be x Alternatively Let the number be x then.
then 270 − x = 8 x − 270
4 5 n ⇒ x = 60 and 8 x = 480
n× x= n× x+ × y
5 4 5 Therefore the average of 60 and 480 is 270.
⇒ either n = 0 or y = 0
19 The average of 60 and 270 is 165
[Since, there are only 80% MPs remained in the house 20 Number of days in a week = 7
4 Average number of visitors = 40
which is equal to n and the increase in average age
5 Total visitors = 280 (= 7 × 40)
5
= 20% = x] Now, if n be the number of holidays in a week, then
4
Thus, there cannot be any possible value of n. (7 − n) × 56 = 280 (40 + 16 = 56)
4 5 n ⇒ n=2
13 nx = n × x + × 30
5 4 5 The rest data is redundant or useless, since our problem
⇒ n=0 which is impossible is solved here without using it.
So, there is no any woman MP in the Lok Sabha. Alternatively Go through options
Total distance 40 × 7 = 280 = 56 × 5 hence proved.
14 Average speed =
Total time 21 Since we don’t know their ages individually, so we cannot
6 × 20 calculate the average of the class when a student of
= = 13.33 m/s
9 unknown age readmitted in the class.
22 Let the average of prime numbers be P and average of
composite numbers be C.
Again the number of prime numbers be x, then the
Hexagonal path has number of composite numbers be 2x.
Px + 2Cx
six sides Then, = 9 ⇒ P + 2C = 27 …(i)
3x
224 QUANTUM CAT
2 Px + Cx 28 Let there be n number and he missed a number k, then the
and = 11
3x  n (n + 1) 
 − k
⇒ 2P + C = 33 …(ii)  2 
average (which he has calculated) = = 15
On adding eqs. (i) and (ii) we get P + C = 20 n
and on subtracting eqs. (i) from (ii), we get P − C = 6 ⇒ n − 29n = 2k
2

Therefore, P = 13 and C = 7 ⇒ n (n − 29) = 2k

C 7 Thus, at n = 29 or n < 29, the expression is invalid, since
Thus, =
P 13 the value of k is neither zero nor negative, which is
540 actually a natural number. So for the least possible
23 Solve through option = 20 valued of n = 30
27
540 − (2 × 20) 500 k = 15
= = 20 and for n = 31, k = 31
25 25
Hence option (b) is correct. Again for n > 31, k is beyond the range i . e. , greater than
n. Since, k cannot be greater than n. Hence, there are
24 Number of members in the staff × average age = Total age only two values of k. So there is no unique value of n.
29 × 24 = 696 ⇒ 29 × 27 = 783 29 Let there be n people (initially) in the group, then the total
Hence, change in total age = 87 earning of the group = n × 50
Physician Surgeon Nurse Again, n × 50 = (n − 2) × 49 + (2x + 45)
⇒ n = 2x − 53; where x is the lowest earning of any
No. of members (21 − x ) 8 x person.
Increase in average age 1 6 3 Now, since 42 < x < 47 and n ∈prime numbers.
Increase in total age (21 − x ) 48 3x Then the only possible value of n = 37 for x = 45.

Since P + S + N = 29
30 Let the number of students who got the jobs of A, B and C
Therefore, if there would be x nurses, then there must be categories is a, b and c respectively,
(21 − x )physicians. Again, total change (or increase) in age 26 (a + b) + 44 (b + c) + 34 (c + a)
then the total salary =
= (21 − x ) + 48 + 3x = 87 ⇒ x = 9 2 (a + b + c)
60a + 70b + 78c
25 Total exp. Jan-June = 4200 × 6 = ` 25200 =
2 (a + b + c)
Total exp. Feb-June = 25200 − 1200 = ` 24000
30 (a + b + c) + (5b + 9c)
Total exp. Feb-July = 24000 + 1500 = ` 25500 =
25500 a+ b+ c
The average expenditure Feb-July = = 4250
6 = 30 + some positive value
26 Let the number of subjects be n and average marks be x, So the minimum salary must be ` 30 lakh and the
then total marks = nx maximum salary cannot exceed 44, which is the highest
of the three.
Again (n + 1)( x − 1) = (nx − 40) + (23 + 25)
⇒ x−n=9 …(i) 31 D—C — A …(i)
Further (n + 2)( x + 1) = (nx − 40) + (23 + 25) + 57 D > B >C …(ii)
⇒ nx + 2x + n + 2 = nx + 65 From eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
⇒ 2x + n = 63 …(ii) D > B >C > A …(iii)
On solving eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Again, E −B−A
n = 15 But B > A, from eq. (iii)
and x = 24 Since, B is the average of 
27 Initially, the total age of family = 4 × 42 + 7 × 20 = 308 So, E > D > B > C > A E and A so it is equidistant 
 
308 from both E and A. 
and the average age = = 28
11
32 Let Donald be denoted by H (Husband).
Now, the total age of family
His wife be denoted by W (Wife).
= 308 − (2 × 13) + (11 + 15 + 28)
His daughter be denoted by D (Daughter).
= 308 + 28 = 336
His son be denoted by S (Son).
336
Now, the new average of the family = = 28 The average age of 4 persons =
(H+ W + D + S)
= 23
12 4
Since, the average age of the original family and that of
⇒ H+ W + D + S = 92
new family is same (i.e., 28)
Hence, the average age of the new family is increased by Again, H=W+ 4
0 year.
Averages 225

H W D S 36 Let the numbers be

( + 4)
So, At the time when  28 ← (a − 5), (a − 3), (a − 1), (a + 1), (a + 3), (a + 5),
  24 0 ×
daughter is born  then their average
↓
(a − 5) + (a − 3) + (a − 1 ) + (a + 1) + (a + 3) + (a + 5)
At the time when  ( − 4) = =a
 32  → 28 4 0
6
son is born 
Again the value of ‘ a’ can be found by using the last
So, at the time of birth of his son, total age of his family statement
= 64 years (32 + 28 + 4 + 0 = 64) i . e. , (a − 5)2 + (a + 5)2 = 178
and presently the total age of his family = 92 years ⇒ a2 = 64 ⇒ a = 8
It means total increase in age of the whole family = 28 years
28 37 No. of Average Total
Thus the average increase in age = = 7 years Directors Age Age
4
Just before death
It means the age of Donald = 39 years and resignation 10 48 480
and age of his daughter = 11 years
Just after death { 480 − (53 + x )
Therefore the average age of Donald and his daughter is and resignation 9 + 34}
25 years.
One year later 9 46 414
33 Aman Wife Son EI. D Yg. D
5x x 5z 4z
So, one year later, after the incident
8y 3y
total age = {480 − (53 + x ) + 34} + 9 × 1 = 414
⇒ 40 K W 8K 15K 12K ⇒ x = 56 years
Again since, Yg. D + W = A + S (K = x. y ) Where x is the age of the dead person at the time of his
⇒ 12 K + W = 40K + 8K W → Age of wife death.
⇒ W = 36K 24 × 60 + 12 × 54
38 Go through options =
Thus, 4 years ago (36K − 4) = 8 (8K − 4) (24 + 12)
⇒ 28K = 28 ⇒ K = 1 = 58, which is a whole number.
Therefore, the age of Aman = 40
39 Year/ No. of Average
Wife = 36 Time Nurses Age
Total Age
Son = 8
1982 100 50 5000
Elder daughter = 15
Just before 1984 100 52 5200
Younger daughter = 12 retirement
111
Hence, the average age of the family = = 22.22 years Just after 1984 80 50 ( 5200 − 20 × 60)
5 retirement = 4000
34 Let there be n politicians (initially) in the party and their Just before 1987 80 53 4240
5
average weight be x kg, then nx + 209 = n ( x − 1) recruitment
4
Just after 1987 ( 80 + 40) 48 ( 4240 + 38 × 40)
n
( x − 5) = 209 recruitment = 120 = 5760
4
209 × 4 1990 120 51 6120
⇒ x= +5
n 40 Average score
4 × 11 × 19 8 + 10 + 7 + 12 + 25 + 24 + 18 + 23 + 29 + 30 186
x= +5 = = = 18.6
n 10 10
So the possible value of n is 76 (= 19 × 4) 41 The candidate who has scored maximum (means
Thus, x = 16 continuing for long time and number of responses were
Therefore the average weight of all the politicians is maximum) can be such a required person.
15 kg. Now, consider Abhijeet, whose score was 30.
35 Total distance covered by all the wheels = 4 × 160 Again consider Rajesh, Radhe, Harish and one more
candidate
Number of wheels used = 5
Since, 8 + 10 + 7 < 30 ⇒ 25 < 30
Therefore, average distance covered by each wheel
So there are exactly 3 persons which can be full time
4 × 160
= = 128 km opponents.
5
226 QUANTUM CAT
Further there are 5 (= 30 − 25) more chances. So these ∴ (a − c) = 2
chances can be utilised by any other candidate but he or 49 If the highest weight be 35 gm, then the second highest
she must be in the beginning or in the ending of the weight will be 31 gm. Again if the second highest will be
Abhijeet, since the score of all the candidates is greater
31, then the third highest will be 33 which is in admissible,
than 5. Hence there can be maximum 3 + 1 = 4 opponents
since then 35 + 33 = 68 which is not the greatest possible
of Abhijeet.
combination. Hence, wrong.
42 There is no such an information. Similarly, 36 (i . e. , option b) is also invalid
43 The minimum number of participants who have lost the game Highest Sec. Highest Third Highest
before Abhijeet started will be possible only when the number 36 30 34
of participant with Abhijeet be maximum, which is 4. Thus, 36 + 34 = 70 > 66, hence wrong.
Hence, excluding these 4 players (opponents of Abhijeet) The greatest possible combination cannot be greater than 66.
and Abhijeet himself there are 5 people left. So, minimum
Now, consider option (c)
5 players have lost the game (or contest).
Highest Sec. Highest Third Highest
44 The opponents of Abhijeet (as per the requirement) are
34 32 32 ✗ (since, weights
Rajesh, Radhe, Harish and Amit Sana
8 + 10 + 7 + 29 are different)
So, the average score = = 13.5
4 32 31 ✗ (since, 65 is not
(25 − 10) × 20 a combination)
45 Go through options or total employees = = 30
10 32 30 ü
Hence, number of educated employees = 30 − 20 = 10 So, the highest weight 34
46 Average speed of the later half journey Sec. highest weight 32
2 × 40 × 60
= = 48 km/hr Third highest weight 30
100
Lowest weight 29
Now the average speed of the whole journey
Since, all the weights obtained give all the 6 different
2 × 48 × 96
= = 64 km/hr combinations, hence 34 is the highest possible weight of
144 an envelope.
40 × 0.8 + 60 × 0.75+ 50 × 0.6 + 30 × 0.5
47 × 100 50 Let the fixed expenditure of the hotel be ` x and the
180 variable expenditure (which is dependent on the guest) is
122 ` y, then
= × 100 = 67.777 K %
180 x + 10 y = 600 …(i)
abc x + 20 y = 800 …(ii)
48 Remember − cba ⇒ 10 y = 200
99 (a − c) y = ` 20 and x = 400
where abc and cbaare the three digit numbers and (a, c) ≠ 0 Hence the total expenditure when there are 40 guests
Again, since the difference in average = 19.8 = 400 + 40 × 20 = 1200
Therefore the difference in total =19.8 × 10 =198 1200
Therefore, average expenditure = = ` 30
Thus, 99 × (a − c) = 198 40

1 Since all the total 100 elements of Sets A, B, C are the 3 The total value of all the 25 elements of the Set A
natural numbers upto. Thus the average of these first 100 = 25 × 42.4 = 1060
natural numbers is the required average. Since, there are 25 prime numbers upto 100 in the Set A
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + K + 100 100 ×101
∴ Average = = = 50.50 Again in the Set A and C there are 50 odd numbers and one
100 2 × 100 even number. So the sum of all the elements of A and C
2 Except to 2 there are all the even numbers upto 100 = (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + K+ 99) + 2 = (50)2 + 2 = 2502
(2 + 4 + 6 + K + 100) − 2 Therefore the sum of all the elements of Set C
So, the required average =
49 = 2502 − 1060 = 1442
50 × 51 − 2 2548
= = = 52 Hence, the average of the Set C
49 49 1442
NOTE There are only 49 elements in the Set B. Apply the = = 55.4615
26
formula of sum of first even numbers. Also use the property of AP.
Averages 227

4 The average of all the elements of the Set A and C = (26 + 28 + 30 + 32 + K + 44) − (23 + 19 + 17 + 13 + 11)
2502 = 350 − 83 = 267
= = 49.0588
51 Hence, the decrease in total value of Set B
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 5 to 15) = 2548 − 267 = 2281
2281
Set
No. of
Average
Least Greatest Therefore, new average = = 51.84
elements element element 44
A 25 42.4 2 97 NOTE Now there are only 44 elements in Set B.
B 49 52 4 100
15 There is no relevent information regarding the numbers
C 26 55.46 1 99 which are being transferred from one set to another set.
Total distance
5 Since the value of element which is transferred to Set B is 16 Average speed =
less than 50, which in turn less than the average of Set B, Total time
hence the average of Set B decreases. 200 200 × 3
= = = 24 km/hr
NOTE If a quantity which is less than the average of the group  10 25
 5 + 
introduces from outside then the new average of the group  3
decreases. 100
Since for the first 100 km time required is = 5 hrs and
6 The least possible numbers of Set A which are greater than 20
50 are 53 and 59 whose average is always greater than the 100 10
for the last 100 km time required = = hrs
average of C. Hence the average of C will necessarily 30 3
increases. 150 150 × 3
17 The average speed = = = 22.5 km/hr
7 Can’t say, since we don’t know which 10 numbers are being 5 20
5+
transferred. Whether their average is greater, less or equal 3
to the average of B. 18 Average bonus for the first 3 months
2
8 Definitily increases, since the average of those numbers (viz.  3000
=  + 10 = 910
1 and 99) is 50 which is greater than the average of Set A.  100 
9 The average of those numbers (viz. 4 and 100) is 52. Hence Average bonus for the next 5 months
average of A will increase and average of B will remain 2
 5000
constant and the average of C remains unaffected because =  + 10 = 2510
 100 
Set C is not involved.
Average bonus for the last 4 months
NOTE If an element or average of some elements is 2
 8000
equal to the average of the group then this element =  + 10 = 6410
(or subset of elements) does not change the average of the  100 
group, when it joins the group or leaves the group. His average bonus for the whole year
10 After the insertion of new element viz. 2 in the Set B the 910 × 3 + 2510 × 5 + 6410 × 4
= = ` 3410
2 + 4 + 6 + K + 100 12
new average = = 51
50 Hence his average earning per month
Hence, the new average of Set B decreases by 1. = 3410 + 200 = ` 3610
11 The perfect square number of the Set C are 1, 9, 25, 49, 81. 19 Total price of 5 shirts = `[100 + 10 × (5)2] = ` 350
165
Hence, the average of these number = = 33 350
5 Hence, the average price = = ` 70
5
12 Since there is no net change (i . e. , all the elements even
after being transferred are same). Hence their average is 20 Check the option (c).
also same as in question no. 1. Total price = 100 + 10 × (2)2 = ` 140
13 Obviously A. Since the average of all those 15 elements 140
which are joining the Set A is greater than the average of all Average price = = ` 70
2
those 5 elements which are leaving the Set A and this
difference in average is largest in companision to Set B or Hence, the average price is same as that of Mallika.
Set C. Even in Set C there is decrease in average. 21 Total number of passengers = 10 × 20 = 200
14 To minimize the loss in average of Set B, we have to transfer In the 9 compartments the total number of passangers
the least possible values of the given range and have to bring
= 144 (= 12 + 13 + 14 + 15 + 16 + 17 + 18 + 19 + 20)
the highest possible values from the Set A to the Set B.
Thus the absolute decrease in Set B So the no. of passengers in the 10th coach = 200 − 144 = 56
228 QUANTUM CAT
22 No. of 2 No. of 3 No. of 4 176 = 148 + 3 + 25, implies that due to 3 existing
wheelers wheelers wheelers professors their total age will be increased by 3 years after
No. of wheels 2x x 2x one year time period and 25 years age will be added due to
2 × 2x = 4 x 3 × x = 3x 2x × 4 = 8 x a new entrant in the faculty of LR.
Faculty of DI :
4 x + 3x + 8 x
Therefore average number of wheels = =3 Year
No. of Average Total
5x faculty age age
23 The average weight of eggs of first generation is k gm and 2004 4 50.5 202
the no. of eggs is ‘ n’. Let a1, a2, a3, K an be the weights of n 2005 4 51.5 206 = 202 + 4
eggs of the first generation 2006 4 52.5 210 = 206 + 4
a + a2 + a3 + K + an 2007 5 47.8 239 = 210 + 4 + 25
∴ k= 1
n
Faculty of English :
∴ nk = a1 + a2 + a3 + K + an …(i)
No. of Average Total
where a1 is the average weight of its ‘ n’ child eggs, a2 is Year faculty age age
the average weight of its own ‘ n’ child eggs and so on.
2004 5 50.2 251
child egg is referred to the egg of next generation
2005 4 49 196 = 251 + 5 − 60
produced by its mother egg.
a + b1 + c1 + K + n1 2006 5 45 225 = 196 + 4 + 25
∴ a1 = 1 2007 5 46 230 = 225 + 5
n
a + b2 + c2 + K + n2 Faculty of Quants :
a2 = 2
n No. of Average Total
a3 + b3 + c3 + K+ n3 Year faculty age age
a3 = etc.
n 2004 6 45 270
Substituting the values of a1, a2, a3 K in eq. (i) 2005 7 43 301 = 270 + 6 + 25
 a + b1 + c1 + K  a2 + b2 + c2 + K 2006 7 44 308 = 301 + 7
nk =  1  + 
 n   n  2007 7 45 315 = 308 + 7
 a + b3 + c3 + K  an + bn + cn + K
+ 3  +K+  24 In the year 2006, a new faculty member joined the English
 n   n 
faculty.
(a + b + c + . . . ) + (a2 + b2 + c2 + K ) + (a3 + b3 + c3 + K )
∴nk = 1 1 1 25 The new faculty member who joined on April 1, 2005
n became 27 years old on April 1, 2007.
⇒ Therefore n2k is the total weight of all the eggs of 26 From the faculty of English a professor retired on April 1, 2005.
second generation. Similarly, each of a1, b1, c1, a2, b2, c2 K 27 Age of Sarvesh on April 1, 2004 = 52 years
are the average weights of n eggs of their child eggs. Hence
+ 4 months ≈ 52 years
in the third generation total weight will be n3k. Thus the
Similarly age of Manish on April 1, 2004
total weight of all the eggs of rth generation is nr k.
= 49 years + 4 months ≈ 49 years
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 24 to 27) Before going for the final ∴ Age of the third professor on April 1, 2004
solution we need to look for the fundamental concept of averages = 148 − (52 + 49) = 47 years
i.e., if a person of higher age than the average age of the group Hence the age of the third professor on April 1, 2009
leaves the group, then the average age of the group decreases.
= 47 + 5 = 52 years
Also if a person of less age than the average age of the existing
group joins the group, then the average age of the group decreases. 28 Since 32 is the average number of inmates, so total number
Besides it we also know that the average age of the same group of inmates = 32 × 7 = 224.
after k years increases by K years. As 3 jailors have less than 30 inmates and 3 jailors have
more than 30 inmates, so 30 is the median number of
Faculty of LR : inmates.
No. of Average Total To maximize the difference, you have to maximize the
Year faculty age age value of six figures so that you can minimize the value of
2004 3 49.33 148 the remaining figure.
2005 4 44 176 = 148 + 3 + 25 Jailor Jailor Jailor Asrani Jairaj Jailor Jailor
2006 4 45 180 = 176 + 4 X 28 29 30 32 44 45
2007 4 46 184 = 180 + 4
Averages 229

So, the highest possible total number of inmates supervised ⇒ n2 − 199n + 200 = 2k
by 6 jailors = 45 + 44 + 32 + 30 + 29 + 28 = 208 ⇒ n2 − 199n + 2(100 − k ) = 0
Now, the remaining seventh jailor will be supervising 16
(= 224 − 208) inmates. The value of n can be integer only when the discriminant
(D ) of the above quadratic equation is a perfect square.
Thus, the maximum possible difference = 45 − 16 = 29
That is D = 1992 − 8(100 − k ) is a perfect square.
Solution (for Q. Nos. 29-31)
D = 1992 − 8(100 − k) Valid, if
Let n be the total number of seats, then the total possible k n
1≤ k ≤ n
n(n + 1)
income of the airline = 1 + 2 + 1 + 3 + … + n =
2 197 1 198 Valid
Now, if kth customer gets her refund, then the actual 199 100 199 Valid
 n(n + 1)
total income of the airline =   − k 201 200 200 Valid
 2
Therefore, the average income per passenger = 100 203 301 201 Invalid
 n(n + 1) 205 403 202 Invalid
  − k n(n + 1)
⇒ 
2 … … … …
= 100 ⇒ − k = 100(n − 1)
(n − 1) 2 … … … …
⇒ n2 − 199n + 200 = 2k .....(i)
We know that, D cannot be an even integer, as odd − even
Now, go through the given choice and try to figure out = odd. Also, 1 ≤ k ≤ n indicates that k must be greater than
which suitable value of k is a valid one. or equal to 1; and k must be less than or equal to m. Thus,
If you choose k = 99, the eq. (i) becomes there are three possible values of k (1, 100 and 200) and so
n2 − 199n + 2 = 0 and then n is not an integer. the three possible values of n (198, 199 and 200).
If you choose k = 49, the eq. (i) becomes Alternatively Let n be the total number of seats, then
n(n + 1)
n2 − 199n + 102 = 0 and then n is not an integer. the total possible income of the airline =
2
If you choose k = 225, the eq. (i) becomes Now, if kth customer gets her refund, then the actual
n2 − 199n − 250 = 0 and then n is not an integer. n(n + 1)
total income of the airline −k
If you choose k = 100, the eq. (i) becomes n2 − 199n = 0 2
and then n = 199 or 0. Therefore, the average income per passenger = 100
Thus, the possible customer number who had returned n(n + 1)
–k
the ticket is 100. Hence, choice (b) is the correct one. ⇒ 2 = 100
By hit and trial, you realize that if n > 200, then k > n, (n − 1)
which is not possible. So, choice (c) is the correct one. The minimum value of k = 1 and the maximum value of
Since, you see that the average revenue per passenger is k = n. Therefore,
still ` 100 even if the customer number is different. From n(n + 1) n(n + 1)
−1 −n
the little knowledge you have about the previous 2 ≥ 100 ≥ 2
problems, you can see that whichever the customer (n − 1) (n − 1)
number, either 100 or 200, takes the refund, the average n2 + n − 2 n2 + n − 2n
revenue per passenger remains the same. So, you cannot ⇒ ≥ 100 ≥
2(n − 1) 2(n − 1)
conclude the exact loss, as it could be ` 100 or ` 200 or
(n + 2)(n − 1) n(n − 1)
may be some other amount. ⇒ ≥ 100 ≥
Hence, choice (d) is the correct one. 2(n − 1) 2(n − 1)
(n + 2) 100 n
Alternatively Let n be the total number of seats, then ⇒ ≥ ≥
the total possible income of the airline 2 1 2
n(n + 1) ⇒ (n + 2) ≥ 200 ≥ n ⇒ 198 ≤ n ≤ 200
=1 + 2+ 3+…+ n =
2 It implies that there are three possible values of n (198,
Now, if kth customer gets her refund, then the actual 199 and 200). And so, there are three possible values of k
 n(n + 1) (1, 100 and 200).
total income of the airline =   − k
 2 29 Since k = 100 is one of the possible values, so choice (b) is
Therefore, the average income per passenger = 100 the correct one.
 n(n + 1) 30 Since the highest possible value of n = 200, so choice (c) is
 n  − k the correct one.
⇒ = 100
(n − 1) 31 Since more than one value of k is possible, so choice (d) is
n(n + 1) the correct one.
⇒ − k = 100(n − 1)
2
230 QUANTUM CAT

CHAPTER 03

A lligations
The concept of Alligations is simply an extension of Averages. In fact, Allegation method is
used to find the weighted average of mixture or different groups. It is also used to find out the
percentage of impurity or reduction in the original quantity where the repeated dilution or
depreciation takes place.
Exams, such as CAT, XAT, IIFT, CMAT and GMAT, ask the application based questions
from this chapter. Though the number of problems asked in these exams is not very high, but
it helps you fetch good marks in the exam if you understand the Alligation method really
well. Nonetheless, exams such SSC CGL and Bank PO can ask good number of problems
from this chapter. As far as its scope is concerned, we can use it in the chapters such as Simple
and Compound interest, Profit and Loss, Ratio and Proportion to name just a few. In fact, it
plays a very significant role in answering the problems based on Data Interpretation.
Exp. 1) The average weight of a class of 40 students is 30 and the average weight of a
class of 20 students is 15. Find the average weight of both the combined classes :
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 17.5 (d) 15
Solution To find the solution of this problem, we can use two widely used techniques : Chapter Checklist
40 × 30 + 20 × 15 Problem Based Mixtures
1. Weighted average method The required average = = 25
( 40 + 20) and Groups
2. Alligation method 15 30 Problems Based on Time,
Speed and Distance
x
Problems Based on
20 40 Dilution and Depreciation
1 : 2 CAT Test
In this graphical representation of the solution, x is the weighted average where 15 and 30 are
the averages of different class. So remember that the weighted average is always written in
middle and the individual averages are written at the top, the smaller one in the left and the
greater one in the right just for convenience and the number of elements (or the fixed
quantities) are written below correspondingly. Now, the difference between the two averages
is divided in the inverse ratio of the quantities written below. As in the above problem, the
difference 15 ( = 30 − 15) will be divided in the ratio of 2 :1 (as 40 : 20) but not in the ratio of
1 : 2, which must be clear from the arrows indicating cross proportion. So, the value of
2 1
x = 15 + × (30 − 15) = 25 or x = 30 − × (30 − 15) = 25.
3 3
Therefore, the average weight of both the classes is 25.
Alligations 231

n1 ( A 2 − A w )
Exp. 2) If the average weight of a class of students is 15 ⇒ = (known as Alligation Equation)
n2 ( A w − A1 )
and the average weight of another class of students is 30,
then find the ratio of the students of the first class to the So, this can be represented in the graphical form as given below
another class of 30 students when the average weight of A1 A2
both the classes is 25 : Aw
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 4
Solution Let the ratio of the students with 15 students to 30 (A2 – Aw) = n1 n2 = (Aw – A1)
students be x : y, then So, all these problems concerned to the topic can be solved either
15 30 by the formula of weighted average or Alligation equation or
25 graphical representation method, as discussed above.
(Difference of 5 10 (Difference of
Exp. 5) Two varieties of soda water with different prices is
30 & 25) 1 : 2 25 & 15)
mixed in the ratio of 2 : 3. The price of first soda water is
Here we know that the averages of individual classes is 15 and ` 10 per litre while the price of second soda water is
30. Again we know that the averages of both the combined ` 15 per litre, respectively. The average price of the
classes is 25. So the difference between 25 and 15 i. e., 10 and 30 & mixture (per litre) is :
25, i.e., 5 is written diagonally opposite. (a) ` 12 (b) ` 13 (c) ` 14 (d) ` 15
5 1
Thus the required ratio = = Solution
10 2 10 15
x
Exp. 3) The average weight of girls is 15 and the average
2 3
weight of boys is 30 and the average weight of boys and ( x − 10) 3
girls both is 25. If the number of boys are 12, then the ⇒ = ⇒ 2 ( x − 10) = 3 (15 − x)
(15 − x) 2
number of girls is :
⇒ x = 13
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 18
Solution 15 30 Exp. 6) 5 kg of superior quality of sugar is mixed with
25 25 kg of inferior quality sugar. The price of superior
quality and inferior quality sugar is ` 18 and
(30 – 25) = 5 10 (= 25 – 15) ` 12 respectively. The average price per kg of the mixture
5 1 is :
Since the ratio of girls to boys is =
10 2 (a) ` 13 (b) ` 15 (c) ` 18 (d) ` 21
Hence if there are 12 boys, so there will be 6 girls.
Solution 12 18
Exp. 4) The ratio of number of girls to number of boys is x
1 : 2. If the average weight of the boys is 30 kg and the 25 5
average weight of both the boys and girls be 25 kg, then ( x − 12) 5
the average weight of the girls is : = ⇒ x = 13
(18 − x) 25
(a) 15 kg (b) 20 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 40 kg
Solution NOTE SHORTCUT The corresponding ratio is 25 : 5 = 5 : 1
G 30 Now reverse the ratio, which is 1: 5
25 Now divide the differences of 12 and 18 in the ratio of 1 : 5
i. e. , divide 6 into two parts in the ratio of 1: 5.
(30 – 25) = x 2x = (25 – G) Then the average price of mixture is 12 + 1 = 13 or 18 − 5 = 13
 30 − 25 x
⇒  =  Exp. 7) 16 litres of kerosene is mixed with 5 litres of
 25 − G 2x  petrol. The price of kerosene is ` 12 per litre and the price
( 30 − 25) 1 of petrol is ` 33 per litre. The average price of the mixture
So, = ⇒ G = 15
( 25 − G) 2 per litre is :
Therefore, the average weight of the girls is 15 kg. In general, if (a) ` 15 (b) ` 17 (c) ` 23 (d) ` 27
the average of group 1 be A1 and the number of the elements Solution
be n1 and the average of the group 2 be A 2 and the number of 12 33
n A + n2 A 2 x
element be n2 then the weighted average A w = 1 1
n1 + n2
⇒ n1 A w + n2 A w = n1 A1 + n2 A 2 16 5
⇒ n1 ( A w − A1 ) = n2 ( A 2 − A w ) Now divide the difference of 12 and 33 in the ratio of 5 : 16 (not
in the ratio of 16 : 5)
232 QUANTUM CAT
Here, the difference of 33 and 12 = 21 The actual ratio is 3 : 1. So, the reversed ratio is 1 : 3.
Again on dividing 21 in the ratio of 5 : 16, we get the first part Now divide the difference of 10 and 50 in the ratio of 1 : 3 then
= 5 and second part = 16 add the first part to the 10 or subtract the second part from the 50.
So, the average price = 12 + 5 = 17 or = 33 − 16 = 17 i.e., Required average = 10 + (50 − 10) ×
1
NOTE This cross among the numbers written above shows that 4
the difference between x and 12 is 5 and the difference between 33 = 10 + 10 = 20
3
and x is 16. or 50 − (50 − 10) × = 20
4
Exp. 8) Amit travels 30 minutes at the speed of NOTE All the problems discussed above can be solved in any
25 km/hr. Further he travels 20 minutes at the speed of way, i.e., either by using the formula of weighted average or
40 km/hr. Find his average speed. Alligation Equation. But we have emphasised on the graphical (cross
(a) 25 km/hr (b) 30 km/hr proportion) method. Since this technique is quite handy, i.e., some
(c) 31 km/hr (d) none of these times you need not to calculate on paper.
Solution 25 40 Exp. 11) Avinash covered 150 km distance in 10 hours.
x The first part of his journey he covered by car, then he
hired a rickshaw. The speed of car and rickshaw is
30 20 20 km/hr and 12 km/hr respectively. The ratio of
Since the actual ratio is 3 : 2, so reverse it, i.e., the required ratio distances covered by car and the rickshaw respectively
is 2 : 3. Now divide the difference of both the speeds i.e., 25 are :
and 40 in the ratio of 2 : 3. (a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 5
2 3
i.e., ( 40 − 25) × = 6 and ( 40 − 25) × = 9 (c) 1 : 1 (d) none of these
5 5
Solution The average speed of Avinash
So, the average speed is 25 + 6 = 31 or 40 − 9 = 31 150
= = 15 km/hr
Exp. 9) A milkman has two types of milk. In the first 10
container the percentage of milk is 80% and in the second 12 20
container the percentage of milk is 60%. If he mixes
15
28 litres of milk of the first container to the 32 litres of milk
of the second container, then the percentage of milk in the 5 3
mixture is :
It means the rickshaw took 5/8 and car took 3/8 of the total time
(a) 63.99 (b) 69.33 (c) 72.5 (d) 75.2
i. e., the ratio of time taken by rickshaw to car is 5 : 3.
Solution So the ratio of distances covered by rickshaw to car is
60 80
5 × 12 : 3 × 20 ⇒ 1 : 1
x NOTE
1. In this calculation (i. e. , in alligation method) distance never
32 28 involves directly. Only time and speeds are involved.
8 : 7
7 : 8 (reversed ratio) 2. Since we have to find generally the average speed (not the
average time) so speeds are written on the top and
7 7 corresponding time taken is written below.
So, ( 80 − 60) × = 20 × = 9.33
7+8 15
Thus, the required percentage = 60 + 9.33 = 69.33
Exp. 12) A mixture of rice is sold at ` 3.00 per kg.
This mixture is formed by mixing the rice of ` 2.10 and
Exp. 10) Modern electronic shop sold the 30% hardware ` 2.52 per kg. What is the ratio of price of cheaper to the
at the profit of 50% and 90% software at the profit of 10%. costlier quality in the mixture if the profit of 25% is being
The average profit per cent of the Modern electronic shop earned.
is, if it sells only these two kinds of things : (a) 5 : 2 (b) 2 : 7
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 45 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 15 : 8
Solution Solution Let the cost price of the mixture be ` x per kg, then
10 50 25 × x
selling price = x + =3
x 100
⇒ 1.25x = 3
90 30 ⇒ x = 2.4
Alligations 233

Now the average cost price of mixture = ` 2.4 Exp. 16) A mixture of water and milk contains 80%
210 252 milk. In 50 litres of such a mixture, how many litres of
240 water is required to increase the percentage of water
to, 50%?
(252 – 240) = 12 30 = (240 – 210) (a) 20
Therefore, the ratio of cheaper to costlier rice is 12 : 30, i.e., 2 : 5. (b) 15
(c) 30
NOTE `1 = 100 paise. There is no change in the ratio when we
(d) none of the above
change the rupees into paise, just for our convenience in calculation.
Solution Total amount of mixture is 50 litre
Exp. 13) A milkman has 20 litres of milk. If he mixes Milk Water
5 litres of water, which is freely available, in 20 litres of 40l 10l
pure milk. If the cost of pure milk is ` 18 per litre, then the (80%) (20%)

Remains
constant
profit of the milkman, when he sells all the mixture at cost +30 litre
price, is :
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 33.33% (d) 18%
40l 40l
Solution When the water is freely available and all the water is (50%) (50%)
sold at the price of the milk, then the water gives the profit on the
cost of 20 litres of milk. NOTE That, in this process the quantity of milk remains
5 constant but its percentage decreases as the quantity (and
Therefore, profit percentage = × 100 = 25% percentage) of water increases.
20
profit Initially we have 40 litre milk and 10 litre water. Now we are required
Since, the profit % = × 100 to have 50% water and remaining 50% milk in the new mixture. So
cost price
we have to have 40 litre water, equal to the amount of pure milk
NOTE Here the milkman cheats his customer by false practise of (which is constant) available in the mixture. Thus we have to add up
creating illusion that instead of 20 litres milk, there is 25 litres of milk. 30 litre ( = 40 − 10) water in the original mixture.
So this extra 5 litres of milk (actually water) is the part of profit.
Exp. 17) In a 50 litre mixture of water and milk, water is
Exp. 14) In what ratio should freely available water and
only 20%. The milkman gives 10 litres `of this' mixture to a
a premium priced wine be mixed so that after selling the
customer and then he adds up 10 litres of pure water in
mixture at the cost price a profit of 33.33% is made?
the remaining mixture. The percentage of water in the
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 4
final mixture is :
Solution 33.33% profit means there is one part water and 3 part (a) 84% (b) 74%
is pure wine. So the required ratio of water and wine in the (c) 26% (d) 36%
mixture is 1 : 3.
Solution Total quantity of mixture = 50 litre
NOTE The above problem (No. 14) and the previous problem
321

are basically related to the topics of ratio and profit-loss. Initial 40l 10l
mixture (80%) (20%)
Exp. 15) In what ratio should freely available water be
123

mixed with the wine worth ` 60 per litre so that after selling (– 8l) (– 2l) 10 litres of mixture
is drawn out
the mixture at ` 50 per litre, the profit will be 25%?
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 5
321

Remaining 32l 8l
Solution Selling price = ` 50 mixture
123

Therefore, the cost price 10 litres of water

(+10l)
= ` 40, which is the average price. is mixed
It means the wine, worth ` 60 becomes worth ` 40 when the
321

water was mixed in it. So we can conclude that in the mixture Final 32l 18l
of ` 60, there is wine worth ` 40 and the rest is water. mixture (64%) (36%)
Therefore, the ratio of water and wine is 20 : 40 i.e., 1 : 2
See the chart for the Solution.
Alternatively
Water Wine Initially there is 40 litres (80%) milk in the 50 litres mixture.
0 60 When 10 litres of mixture is drawn out, it means 8 litres of milk is
40 drawn out.
Now when the 10 litres of water is added, it means in the 50 litres
20 40 of mixture, there is only 32 litres of milk, i.e., 64%. Hence the
⇒ 1 : 2 percentage of water is 36%.
234 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 18) There are three types of milk, Parag, Amul and Exp. 20) Some amount out of ` 6000 was lent out at 10%
Nestle. The ratio of fat to the non-fat contents in milk is 4 : 5, per annum and the rest amount @ at 20% per annum and
5 : 6, 6 : 7 respectively. If all these three types of milk is thus in 4 years the total interest from both the amounts
mixed in equal quantity, the ratio of fat to the non-fat collected was ` 3400. What is the amount which was lent
contents in the mixture will be : out @ 10% per annum?
(a) 1751 : 2110 (b) 175 : 543 (a) ` 2500 (b) ` 2800
(c) 3 : 5 (d) 10 : 18 (c) ` 3200 (d) ` 3500
Solution In this type of questions, we consider only one item Solution The total interest of one year
(viz., either fat or non-fat) as the fraction of the total quantity.  3400
= ` 850 =  
Again we equate the denominators.  4 
Let us consider fraction of ‘fat’. 1 85
Therefore, the average rate of interest = 14 % = %
Parag Amul Nestle 6 6
Thus,
4 5 6 20 6
Fraction of  10 6
 9 11 13 6
6
fat → 
4 × 11 × 13 5 × 9 × 13 6 × 9 × 11 85
9 × 11 × 13 11 × 9 × 13 13 × 9 × 11 6
572 585 594 25
35
1287 1287 1287 6 6

So the total fat in the total mixture Hence the ratio of amount which is lent @ 10% per annum to
572 + 585 + 594 1751 the amount lent @ 20% per annum is 35 : 25, i.e., 7 : 5.Therefore,
= = the amount which is lent out @ 10% per annum is ` 3500.
1287 + 1287 + 1287 3861
Hence, the ratio of fat to the non-fat contents in the mixture Exp. 21) From the 50 litres of milk, 5 litres of milk is taken
= 1751 : 2110 [Q 3861 − 1751 = 2110] out and after it 5 litres of water is added to the rest amount
of milk. Again 5 litres of mixture of milk and water is
Exp. 19) Sharabi Chand purchased two different kinds
drawn out and it was replaced by 5 litres of water. If this
of alcohol. In the first mixture the ratio of alcohol to water
process is continued similarly for the third time, the
is 3 : 4 and in the second mixture it is 5 : 6. If he mixes the
amount of milk left after the third replacement :
two given mixtures and makes a third mixture of 18 litres
(a) 45 L (b) 36. 45 L (c) 40.5 L (d) 42.5 L
in which the ratio of alcohol to water is 4 : 5, the quantity of
first mixture (whose ratio is 3 : 4) is required to make the Solution
18 litres of the third kind of mixture is : Milk Water
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 50 L 0L  50 litre (initially)

−5 L −0L  withdrawn amount
Solution The fraction of alcohol in the different mixtures is as 
45 L 0L  50 litre (after first replacement)
follows :
+ 0L + 5 L 
3 297
First mixture = − 45
. L − 05
. L withdrawn amount
7 693 
5 315 . L
405 . L 
45 50 litre (after second replacement)
Second mixture = + 0L +5L
11 693
4 308 − 4.05 L − 0.95 L withdrawn amount
Final mixture =
9 693 36.45 L . L 
855 50 litre (after third replacement)
Therefore, +5L 
297 315
693 693  5  5  5
Shortcut 50 ×  1 −  × 1 −  × 1 − 
 50  50  50
308 45 45 45
693 = 50 × × ×
50 50 50
7 11  45 
3

693 693 = 50 ×  
 50 
Hence the ratio of first mixture is to second mixture is 3
 9
7 : 11. Thus he has to mix 7 litres of first type of alcohol to make = 50 ×   = 36.45 L
18 litres of required mixture.  10
Alligations 235

General Formula wine (left) 343

Solution =
Final or reduced concentration water (added) 169
= Initial concentration wine (left) 343
n It means = (Q 343 + 169 = 512)
 amount being replaced in each operation  wine (initial amount) 512
1 − 
 total amount  3
 15 
where n is the number of times the same operation is being Thus, 343 x = 512x 1 − 
 K
repeated. The ‘‘amount being replaced’’ could be pure or
3 3
mixture as per the case. Similarly, ‘‘total amount’’ could also be 343  7   15 
⇒ =   = 1 − 
either pure or mixture. Here amount being replaced denotes the 512  8  K
quantity which is to be withdrawn in each time.
 15  7  1
⇒ 1 −  = = 1 − 
Exp. 22) From a tank of petrol, which contains 200 litres  K 8  8
of petrol, the seller replaces each time with kerosene when ⇒ K = 120
he sells 40 litres of petrol (or its mixture). Everytime he Thus the initial amount of wine was 120 litres.
sells out only 40 litres of petrol (pure or impure). After
replacing the petrol with kerosene 4th time, the total Exp. 24) A jar was full with honey. A person used to
amount of kerosene in the mixture is : draw out 20% of the honey from the jar and replaced it
(a) 81.92 l (b) 96 l with sugar solution. He has repeated the same process
(c) 118.08 l (d) none of these 4 times and thus there was only 512 gm of honey left in the
Solution The amount of petrol left after 4 operations jar, the rest part of the jar was filled with the sugar
4 4 solution. The initial amount of honey in the jar was :
 40   4
= 200 × 1 −  = 200 ×   (a) 1.25 kg (b) 1 kg
 200  5
(c) 1.5 kg (d) none of these
256
= 200 × = 81.92 litres Solution Let the initial amount of honey in the jar was K, then
625 4
Hence the amount of kerosene = 200 − 81.92 = 118.08 litres  1  20 1 
512 = K 1 −  Q 20% = = 
 5  100 5 
Exp. 23) From a container of wine, a thief has stolen  4
4

15 litres of wine and replaced it with same quantity of or 512 = K  

 5
water. He again repeated the same process. Thus in three
512 × 625
attempts the ratio of wine and water became 343 : 169. The ⇒ K=
256
initial amount of wine in the container was :
∴ K = 1250
(a) 75 litres (b) 100 litres
Hence, initially the honey in the jar = 1.25 kg.
(c) 150 litres (d) 120 litres
236 QUANTUM CAT

CAT-Test
Questions Helping you bell the CAT
1 How much Pepsi at ` 6 a litre is added to 15 litre of ‘dew’ at 11 Mr. Mittal purchased two steel factories, one in India and
` 10 a litre so that the price of the mixture be ` 9 a litre? other one in Malaysia for total ` 72 crores. Later on he sold
(a) 5 (b) 8 the Indian factory at 16% profit and Malasian factory at
(c) 10 (d) none of these 24% profit. Thus he gained a total profit of 19%. The
2 In a municipal parking there are some two wheelers and selling price of Indian factory is :
rest are 4 wheelers. If wheels are counted, there are total (a) 45 crore (b) 52.2 crore
520 wheels but the incharge of the parking told me that (c) 8.55 crore (d) can not be determined
there are only 175 vehicles. If no vehicle has a stepney, 12 In a 25 litre mixture of milk and water, the water is only
then the no. of two wheelers is : 20%. How many litres of water is required to increase the
(a) 75 (b) 100 (c) 90 (d) 85 percentage of water to 90%?
3 In my pocket there are ` 25 consisting of only the (a) 45 litre (b) 70 litre
denominations of 20 paise and 50 paise. Thus there are (c) 115 litre (d) 175 litre
total 80 coins in my pocket. The no. of coins of the 13 A milkman sells the milk at the cost price but he mixes the
denomination of 50 paise is : water (freely available) in it and thus he gains 9.09%. The
(a) 30 (b) 70 (c) 50 (d) 25 quantity of water in the mixture of 1 litre is :
4 There are some shepherds and their sheep in a grazing (a) 83.33 mL (b) 90.90 mL
field. The no. of total heads are 60 and total legs are 168 (c) 99.09 mL (d) can’t be determined
including both men and sheep. The no. of sheep is : 14 The price of petrol is ` 60 per litre and the price of spirit is
(a) 18 (b) 26 (c) 24 (d) 36 ` 40 per litre. In what ratio the petrol and spirit be mixed
5 In the 75 litres of mixture of milk and water, the ratio of such that the profit after selling the mixture at ` 75 per litre
milk and water is 4 : 1. The quantity of water required to be 25%?
make the ratio of milk and water 3 : 1 is : (a) 1 : 1
(a) 1 litre (b) 3 litres (c) 4 litres (d) 5 litres (b) 3 : 2
6 In my office the average age of all the female employees is (c) 5 : 1
21 years and that of male employees is 32 years, where the (d) such a mixture is not possible
average age of all the (male and female) employees is 15 A trader sells total 315 TV sets. He sells black and white TV
28 years. The total no. of employees in my office could be : sets at a loss of 6% and colour TV sets at a profit of 15%.
(a) 35 (b) 78 (c) 231 (d) 90 Thus he gains 9% on the whole. The no. of B/ W TV sets,
7 A car agency has 108 cars. He sold some cars at 9% profit which he has sold, is :
and rest at 36% profit. Thus he gains 17% on the sale of all (a) 126 (b) 216 (c) 135 (d) 90
his cars. The no. of cars sold at 36% profit is : 16 In a class of 30 students, the average weight of boys is 20 kg
(a) 25 (b) 32 (c) 35 (d) 75 and the average weight of the girls is 25 kg. The fraction of
8 ` 69 were divided among 115 students so that each girl gets boys out of the total students of the class is :
50 paise less than a boy. Thus each boy received twice the 4 5
(a) (b)
paise as each girl received. The no. of girls in the class is : 5 6
(a) 92 (b) 42 (c) 33 (d) 23 3
(c) (d) data insufficient
9 In what proportion water be mixed with spirit to gain 4
12.5% by selling it at cost price? 17 Baniya sells two types of tea viz. Desi Chai and Videshi
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 1 : 8 (c) 2 : 7 (d) 1 : 9 Chai. He sells Desi Chai at ` 18 per kg and incurs a loss of
10 A butler stole wine from a butt of sherry containing 50% of 10% whereas on selling the Videshi Chai at ` 30 per kg, he
spirit, then he replenished it by different wine containing gains 20%. In what proportion should the Desi Chai and
20% spirit. Thus there was only 30% strength (spirit) in the Videshi Chai be mixed such that he can gain a profit of 25%
new mixture. How much of the original wine did he steal? by selling the mixture at ` 27.5 per kg?
(a) 1/3 (b) 2/3 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/4 (a) 3 : 2 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 3 : 5
Alligations 237

18 The average age of boys in a class is 16.66, while the 25 The ratio of expenditure and savings is 3 : 2 . If the income
average age of girls is 18.75. Thus the average age of all the increases by 15% and the savings increases by 6%, then by
40 students of the class is 17.5. If the difference between the how much per cent should his expenditure increases?
no. of boys and girls is 8, then the no. of girls in the class is : (a) 25 (b) 21
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 12 (d) 24
(c) 18 (d) Data insufficient 1
26 4 kg of a metal contains copper and rest is zinc. Another
19 The ratio of water and alcohol in two different containers is 5
2 : 3 and 4 : 5. In what ratio we are required to mix the 1
5 kg of metal contains copper and rest is zinc. The ratio
mixtures of two containers in order to get the new mixture 6
in which the ratio of alcohol and water be 7 : 5 ? of copper and zinc into the mixture of these two metals :
(a) 7 : 3 (b) 5 : 3 (c) 8 : 5 (d) 2 : 7 (a) 49 : 221 (b) 39 : 231
20 The average marks of the students in four sections A, B, C (c) 94 : 181 (d) none of these
and D together is 60%. The average marks of the students of 27 450 litres of a mixture of milk and water contain the milk
A, B, C and D individually are 45%, 50%, 72% and 80% and water in the ratio 9 : 1. How much water should be
respectively. If the average marks of the students of sections added to get a new mixture containing milk and water in
A and B together is 48% and that of the students of B and C the ratio 3 : 1?
together is 60%. What is the ratio of number of students in (a) 54 (b) 90
sections A and D? (c) 45 (d) 63
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 5 : 3 (d) 3 : 5
28 The ratio of petrol and kerosene in the container is 3 : 2
21 The diluted wine contains only 8 litres of wine and the rest when 10 litres of the mixture is taken out and is replaced
is water. A new mixture whose concentration is 30%, is to
by the kerosene, the ratio becomes 2 : 3. The total quantity
be formed by replacing wine. How many litres of mixture
of the mixture in the container is :
shall be replaced with pure wine if there was initially
(a) 25 (b) 30
32 litres of water in the mixture ?
(c) 45 (d) cannot be determined
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 8 (d) none of these 29 From a container, 6 litres milk was drawn out and was
replaced by water. Again 6 litres of mixture was drawn out
22 The average weight of boys in a class is 30 kg and the
and was replaced by the water. Thus the quantity of milk
average weight of girls in the same class is 20 kg. If the
and water in the container after these two operations is
average weight of the whole class is 23.25 kg, what could be
9 : 16. The quantity of mixture is :
the possible strength of boys and girls respectively in the
(a) 15 (b) 16
same class ?
(c) 25 (d) 31
(a) 14 and 26 (b) 13 and 27
(c) 17 and 27 (d) none of these 30 A milkman brings 100 litres pure milk from a dairy farmer
and he sells 10 litres of it to the first customer, then he
23 The shopkeeper mixed 40 kg refined oil with vegetable oil
refills his vessel by adding 10 litres water. After this, he
worth ` 60 per kg. Thus he gains ` 10 after selling the
proceeds to the next house and sells 10 litres of it to the
mixture of the two oils. The price of the first oil is :
second customer and then he refills his vessel again by
(a) 20 (b) 25
adding 10 litres of water. Thus, every time he sells 10 litres
(c) 45 (d) can’t be determined
of milk - pure or impure - he keeps on replacing it with
24. In a mixture of milk and water, there is only 26% water. 10 litres of pure water.
After replacing the mixture with 7 litres of pure milk, the Maximum how many customers can get at least 50% milk
percentage of milk in the mixture become 76%. The in the mixture that they purchase from this milkman?
quantity of mixture is : (a) 5 (b) 6
(a) 65 litre (b) 91 litre (c) 7 (d) None of these
(c) 38 litre (d) none of these

Answers
1 (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
238 QUANTUM CAT

Hints & Solutions

1 Let x litre pepsi is required. Alternatively Suppose there are only men, then the
6 10 no. of legs = 60 × 2 = 120.
9 Now since there are 48 = (168 − 120) legs extra, it means
 48
x 15 there are 24 =   sheep, since a sheep has 2 extra legs
 2
(10 – 9) = 1 : 3 = (9 – 6)
x 1 than a man has.
Therefore = ⇒ x = 5 litre
15 3 5 Total quantity of mixture = 75 litre
Alternatively Go through options. Therefore
2 Go through options : 90 × 2 + 85 × 4 = 520 Milk Water
If 2 wheelers be 90 then the four wheelers will be 4 : 1
60 L 15 L
85 = (175 − 90)
Alternatively The average number of wheels per
520 +5L
vehicle =
175
175 60 L 20 L
2× 4× 175
175 175 3 : 1

520 6 Since the ratio of no. of female and male employees is 4 : 7,

175
so the total no. of employees must be the multiples of 11.
180 170 Hence the possible answer is 231.
175 175
21 32
⇒ 180 : 170
⇒ 90 : 85 28
⇒ 18 : 17
4 7
Therefore the ratio of two wheelers to four wheelers is
18 : 17. Hence there are 90 ‘‘two wheelers’’. 7 Since the ratio of cars sold at profit of 9% to the 36% is
3 Go through options : 30 × 50 + 50 × 20 = 2500 paise 19 : 8, hence the no. of cars sold at 36% profit is 32.
Alternatively Since the average price of a coin 9 36
2500 17
= = 31.25 paise
80
19 8
20 50
31.25 8 Here each girl receives 50 paise and each boy receives 100
paise and the average receiving of each student
18.75 11.25
6900
So the ratio of no. of 20 paise coins to the no. of 50 paise = = 60 paise
115
coins = 18.75 : 11.25 = 75 : 45 = 5 : 3
Therefore, the no. of coins of the denominations of 50 paise 50 100
is 30. 60
4 Go through option : 24 × 4 + 36 × 2 = 168
40 10
Alternatively
⇒ (G) 4 : (B) 1
2 4
Thus the no. of girls = 92. [Number of boys = 23]
2.8 1
9 Profit = 12.5% = .
1.2 0.8 8
Hence the ratio of water to spirit is 1 : 8
⇒ 3 : 2 profit
Therefore, the ratio of men and sheep is 3 : 2 . Since profit % = × 100.
cost
Alligations 239

10 20 50 The C.P. of mixture = ` 22

30 20 25
22
20 : 10
2 : 1 3 : 2
Since the ratio of 20% wine to 50% wine is 2 : 1, it means Therefore, the ratio of Desi Chai is to Videshi Chai is 3 : 2.
2
there is wine which is replaced with wine in which the 18 16.66 18.75
3
concentration of spirit is 20%. 17.5
11 16 24 (Boys) x y (Girls)
19 50 4 75 3
× ×
3 4 4 3
5 3 ⇒ 35 6
×
Thus the cost price of Indian factory is ` 45 crore. 2 6
Therefore, the selling price of Indian factory is x y
45 × 16
= 45 + = 52.2 crore 200 225
100 12 12
12 Milk Water ⇒ 210
80% 20% 12
4 : 1 15 10
20 L 5L 12 12
+ 175 L
20 L 180 L ⇒ 3 : 2
10% 90% Thus the no. of girls = 16 and no. of boys = 24
1 : 9 W1 : A1 W2 : A2 WN : AN
19
1 2: 3 4: 5 5: 7
13 Profit (%) = 9.09% =
11 W1 2 W2 4 WN 5
= = =
Since the ratio of water and milk is 1 : 11, W1 + A1 5 W2 + A2 9 WN + AN 12
Therefore the ratio of water is to mixture = 1 : 12 72 80 75
Thus the quantity of water in mixture of 1 litre = = =
180 180 180
1
= 1000 × = 83.33 mL 72 80
12 180 180
14 The selling price of mixture = ` 75 75
∴ The cost price of mixture = ` 60 180
Now we know that if he mixes the spirit (worth ` 40) with 5 3
petrol (worth ` 60), the cost price of mixture must be less 180 180
than ` 60, which is impossible. Hence there is no spirit with ⇒ 5 : 3
the petrol.
Therefore, the ratio is 5 : 3.
15 –6 15
20 Since the average marks of sections B and C together are
9 equal the average marks of all the four sections (i.e., A, B, C
6 15 and D), therefore the average marks of the remaining two
⇒ 2 : 5 sections A and D together will also be equal i.e., 60%.
Thus the ratio of B/W TV sets to the no. of colour TV sets 45 80
= 2: 5 60
Therefore, no. of B/W TV sets = 90
20 15
16 Since we do not know either the average weight of the ⇒ 4 : 3
whole class or the ratio of no. of boys to girls. Hence, the required ratio is 4 : 3.
17 The S.P. of Desi Chai = ` 18 21 Wine Water
The S.P. of Videshi Chai = ` 30 8L 32 L
The C.P. of Desi Chai = ` 20 1 : 4
The C.P. of Videshi Chai = ` 25 20% 80% (original ratio)
The S.P. of mixture = ` 27.5 30% 70% (required ratio)
240 QUANTUM CAT
In this case, the percentage of water being reduced when 27 Milk Water
the mixture is being replaced with wine. 9 : 1
So the ratio of left quantity to the initial quantity is 7 : 8. 405 L 45 L
7  K 7  40 − K 
Therefore = 1 − ⇒ = +90L
8  40  8  40 
⇒ K = 5 litre 405 L 135 L
Alternatively Go through options. 3 : 1

22 Therefore no. of boys : Number of girls = 13 : 27 28. Petrol : Kerosene

20 30 3 : 2 (initially)
2 : 3 (after replacement)
23.25
Remaining (or left) quantity  replaced quantity 
= 1 – 
6.75 3.25 Initial quantity  total quantity 
27 : 13
2  10 1 10
23 Since there is insufficient data. (for petrol) = 1 −  ⇒ =
3  K 3 K
24 Milk Water
⇒ K = 30 litre
74% 26% (initially)
Therefore, the total quantity of the mixture in the
76% 24% (after replacement) container is 30 litre.
 replaced amount  2
Left amount = Initial amount 1 –  9  6 3  6
 total amount  29. = 1 −  ⇒ = 1 − 
25  K 5  K
 7
24 = 26 1 −  ⇒ K = 15 litre
 K
30. After the first customer, who gets absolutely pure milk,
12  7
⇒ = 1 −  every next customer gets less pure milk than the previous
13  K customer. The purity of milk for the nth customer who
1 7 receives only impure milk can be calculated as following.
⇒ =
13 K  10 
n

⇒ K = 91 litre 50 ≥ 1001 − 
 100
NOTE In case of replacement, the initial (pure) amount is equal The highest value of n that satisfies the above relation is 6.
to the amount of final mixture.
Therefore, we have 6 customers who get milk, which is
25 6 x less than 100% pure but more than 50% pure. However,
15 there is one customer who gets 100% pure milk. So, there
are actually 7 customers who get more than 50% pure
x–15 = 2k 3k = 9
milk.
Therefore x = 21%.
Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.
4
26 Copper in 4 kg = kg Alternatively We can do it manually, if we are really
5
4 16 good at calculation.
and Zinc in 4 kg = 4 × = kg The First customer gets 100% pure milk.
5 5
1 5 The Second customer gets 90% pure milk.
Copper in 5 kg = 5 × = kg The Third customer gets 81% pure milk.
6 6
5 25 The Fourth customer gets 72.9% pure milk.
Zinc in 5 kg = 5 × = kg The Fifth customer gets 65.61% pure milk.
6 6
4 5 49 The Sixth customer gets 59.05% pure milk.
Therefore, Copper in mixture = + = kg The Seventh customer gets 53.14% pure milk.
5 6 30
16 25 221 The eighth customer gets 47.83% pure milk.
and Zinc in the mixture = + = kg Thus, we see that maximum 7 customers get at least
5 6 30
50% pure milk.
Therefore, the required ratio = 49 : 221.
 CHAPTER 04

Ratio, P r opor tion

& Var iation
The basic applications of the concepts involved in this chapter are comparisons of two or more
quantities and changes in their magnitudes, e. g., comparison of the ages, weights income,
savings, heights, volume, density, temperature etc. So this chapter is very useful in solving the
problems of Data interpretation. Also each and every year one or two problems from this
chapter is/are asked in CAT, either directly or application based for QA section. Last but not
the least, the concepts of ratio, proportion and variations are very useful in solving most of the
arithmetic problems. That’s why these problems are usually asked in most of the competitive
exams like CAT, XAT, IIFT, CMAT, GMAT, SSC, CGL and Bank PO.

4.1 Ratio
The comparison between two quantities in terms of magnitude is called the ratio, i. e., it tells Chapter Checklist
us that the one quantity is how many times the other quantity. Ratio
For example, Amit has 5 pens and Sarita has 3 pens. It means the ratio of number of pens Proportion
between Amit and Sarita is 5 is to 3. It can be expressed as ‘5 : 3’. Variation
NOTE It should be noted that in a ratio, the order of the terms is very important. For example, in the Problems Based on Ages
above illustration the required ratio is 5 : 3 while 3 : 5 is wrong. Partnership
a CAT Test
So the ratio of any two quantities is expressed as or a : b.
b
The numerator ‘ a’ is called the antecedent and denominator ‘ b’ is called as consequent.
Rule of Ratio
The comparison of two quantities is meaningless if they are not of the same kind or in the
same units (of length, volume or currency etc). We do not compare 8 boys and 6 cows or
15 litres and 5 toys or 5 metres and 25 centimetres. Therefore, to find the ratio of two
quantities (of the same kind), it is necessary to express them in same units.
NOTE
1. We do not compare 8 boys and 6 cows, but we can compare the number (8) of boys and number (6)
of cows. Similarly, we cannot compare the number (15) of litres and the number (5) of toys etc.
2. Ratio has no units.
242 QUANTUM CAT
Properties of Ratios Now putting m = 2, we don’t get the required fraction.
12 10 12 10
1. The value of a ratio does not change when the numerator So ≠ for any value of m, ≠ (in terms of ratio)
and denominator both are multiplied by same quantities 22 20 22 20
a ka la ma a+k a a a−k a
i. e., = = = etc. 7. < if for every positive k , >1 and >
b kb lb mb b+k b b b−k b
3 6 9 a+k a a a−k a
e. g., = = … etc. have the same ratio. 8. > if for every positive k , <1 and <
4 8 12 b+k b b b−k b
2. The value of a ratio does not alter (or change) when the a+c a c a a+c a c a
numerator and denominator both are divided by same 9. > if > 10. < if <
b+d b d b b+d b d b
a a/k a/l a/m
quantities i.e., = = = a c e g a + c+ e+ g +K
etc. 11. If = = = = K = k then =k
b b/ k b/ l b/ m b d f h b+ d + f + h+K
3 3/ 2 3/ 3 3/ 4 a c e g
e. g., = = = … etc are same ratio. 12. Let , , , … be some different ratios, then the
4 4/ 2 4/ 3 4/ 4 b d f h
 a + c+ e+ g +K 
3. The ratio of two fractions can be expressed in ratio of value of   must lies between the
3/ 4 3 4 3  b + d + f + h + K
integers. e. g., = × =
5/ 4 4 5 5 lowest and highest ratios.
4. When two or more than two ratios are multiplied with 13. If a : b and b : c are given, then
each other, then it is called as compounded ratio e. g., a b
a :b:c = = ( a ⋅ b) : ( b ⋅ b) : ( b ⋅ c)
2 4 6 16 2 4 6 b c
× × = is the compounded ratio of , ,
3 5 7 35 3 5 7 14. If the ratios between a : b, b : c, c : d, d : e are given
a c e k individually, then the combined ratio of a : b : c : d : e.
So, × × K = (compounded ratio)
b d f l a : b a b b b b
5. When the ratio is compounded with itself, it is called as b : c b b c c c
: : : :
duplicate, triplicate ratios etc. e. g., c : d c c c d d
2 d : e
a a a2  a a d d d d e
× = 2 =   is called as duplicate ratio of and
b b b  b b i. e., a : b : c : d : e = ( a. b. c. d ) : ( b. b. c. d )
3
a a a a a : ( b. c. c. d ) : ( b. c. d. d ) : ( b. c. d. e)
× × =   is called as triplicate ratio of .
b b b  b b Exp. 1) Find the ratio of 25 to 40.
1/ 2 25 5 × 5 5
a a Solution = =
Similarly,   =  is called as sub-duplicate 40 5 × 8 8
 b  b
NOTE To get the ratio, we rationalize the fractions by cancelling
1/ 3
a a out the common factors of numerator and denominator.
ratio and 3   =  is called as sub-triplicate
 b  b Exp. 2) Find the ratio of 90 cm to 1.5 m.
a Solution 1.5 m = 150 cm (units must be same)
ratio of . 90 3
b So, the required ratio = =
150 5
a c + am c a
6. = if and only if = Exp. 3) The number of boys and girls in a school are 576
b d + bm d b
and 480 respectively. Express the ratio of the number of
30 30 + 3m 33 36
i. e., = = = … etc at m =1, 2, … boys to that of girls in the simplest form.
40 40 + 4m 44 48
576 6  576 96 × 6
This property is very useful when we compare two Solution Required ratio = = Q = 
480 5  480 96 × 5 
10 12
fractions e. g., to compare between and
20 22 Exp. 4) Shukla earns ` 14000 per month and Mishra
We see that 10/ 20 = 1/ 2 earns ` 18000 per month. Find the ratio of Shukla’s salary
10 12 12 10 + m to Mishra’s salary.
Now if and are equal then = Solution Required ratio =
14, 000 7
=
20 22 22 22 + 2m 18, 000 9
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 243

Exp. 5) Out of 144 persons working in an office, 56 are Exp. 9) Divide 14 toffees among Ankita and Anshul in
men and the remaining are women. Find the ratio of the ratio 5 : 2.
number of women to number of men. Solution According to the question, if there are 7 toffees then
88 11 Ankita will have 5 and Anshul will have 2 toffees but since there
Solution Ratio = = (Q number of women = 144 − 56)
56 7 are 14 toffees, which is twice of 7. So Ankita will have 10 toffees
and Anshul will have 4 toffees.
Exp. 6) In a club having 100 members, 20 play carrom, 24 Shortcut Ankita Anshul
play table-tennis and 16 play cricket and the remaining 5 : 2
members do not play any game. No member plays more 5 2
14 × : 14 ×
than one game. Find the ratio of the number of members (5 + 2) (5 + 2)
who play. 10 : 4
(a) Carrom to the number of those who play table-tennis.
(b) Cricket to the number of those who play carrom. Exp. 10) Three boys are aged 2 years, 4 years and 8 years.
(c) Cricket to the number of those who do not play any They want to divide seventy rupees in the ratio of their
game. ages. How much money would each get?
(d) Table-tennis to the number of those who do not play Solution The ratio of their ages = A : B : C = 2 : 4 : 8 = 1 : 2 : 4
any game.
A : B : C
(e) Some game to the number of those who do not play
1 : 2 : 4
any game.
1 2 4
70 × : 70 × : 70 ×
Solution Total members = 100 1+ 2+ 4 1+ 2+ 4 1+ 2+ 4
Carrom = 20 10 : 20 : 40
Table-tennis = 24 So A gets ` 10, B gets ` 20 and C gets ` 40 if the ratio of their
Cricket = 16 ages is 2 : 4 : 8.
No any game = 40
20 5 16 4 16 2 24 3 Exp. 11) An amount of ` 100 is being divided among two
(a) = (b) = (c) = (d) = 1 1
24 6 20 5 40 5 40 5 persons in the ratio : . How much money does each get?
60 3 10 15
(e) = 1 1 1 1
40 2 Solution : = × 30 : × 30 = 3 : 2 (here, 30 is the LCM
10 15 10 15
Exp. 7) A person earns ` 1200 per day and spends ` 800. of 10 and 15). So, the ratio of amount of money
3 2
Find the ratio of his savings to expenditure. = × 100 : × 100 = 60 and 40
400 1 5 5
Solution = (Savings = Income − Expenditure)
800 2 Exp. 12) The lengths of sides of a triangle are in the ratio
=1: 2 2 : 3 : 4. If the perimeter of the triangle is 63 cm, find the
Exp. 8) Simplify the following ratios : lengths of the sides of the triangle.
1 1 1 1 5 3 3 Solution Let the sides of triangle be 2x , 3 x and 4x, then
(a) : (b) 2:3 (c) : : 3
6 8 3 2 6 8 4 2x + 3 x + 4x = 63 ⇒ 9x = 63 ⇒ x = 7
1 1 1/ 6 1 8 4 ∴ The sides of triangle = 2x , 3 x , 4x = 14, 21, 28
Solution (a) : = = × = or 4 : 3
6 8 1/ 8 6 1 3 Alternatively 63 × 2 3
and 63 ×
 24 24 ( 2 + 3 + 4) ( 2 + 3 + 4)
Alternatively 1 : 1 = 48 : 48  or : 
6 8 6 8  6 8 and 63 ×
4
= 14, 21 and 28.
= 8: 6 = 4: 3 ( 2 + 3 + 4)
NOTE In case of fractions, convert them to whole numbers by Exp. 13) Divide 1224 into three parts such that first part
multiplying each term by the LCM of their denominators. 1
1 1 7 7 7/ 3 2
be double that of second part and second part be of the
(b) 2 :3 = : = = or 2 : 3 3
3 2 3 2 7/2 3 third part.
NOTE In case of two fractions if numerators are same, then the Solution Let A , B and C be three parts respectively, then
required ratio is the inverse ratio of the fractions.
A : B = 2 : 1 and B : C = 1 : 3
5 3 3 5 3 15 5 3 15 2
(c) : :3 = : : = × 24 : × 24 : × 24 ∴ A : B : C = 2 : 1 : 3 ∴ A = 1224 ×= 408
6 8 4 6 8 4 6 8 4 6
= 20 : 9 : 90 {Q LCM of 6, 8 and 4 is 24} 1 3
B = 1224 × = 204 ⇒ C = 1224 × = 612
6 6
244 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 14) If A : B = 3 : 4, B : C = 5 : 2 then find the value of Exp. 19) If a : b = 3 : 2 and b : c = 6 : 5 then a : b : c is equal to
A : B : C. (a) 9 : 6 : 5 (b) 9 : 6 : 10 (c) 3 : 3 : 5 (d) 3 : 6 : 5
Solution A:B= 3:4 3:4 Solution a:b= 3:2
and B :C =5 : 2 5:2 b: c = 6:5
A : B : C = ( 3 × 5) : ( 4 × 5) : ( 4 × 2) a : b : c = ( 3 × 6) : ( 2 × 6) : ( 2 × 5)= 18 : 12 : 10 = 9 : 6 : 5
or A : B : C = 15 : 20 : 8
Exp. 20) The sum of two natural numbers is 64. Which of
Exp. 15) The ratio of A : B = 1 : 3, B : C = 2 : 5, C : D = 2 : 3. the following cannot be the ratio of these two numbers?
Find the value of A : B : C : D. (a) 3 : 5 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 7 : 9 (d) 3 : 4
Solution A : B =1: 3 Solution Let the numbers be 3 x and 5 x, then
B :C = 2:5 3 x + 5 x = 64 ⇒ 8x = 64
C : D = 2: 3
⇒ x = 8, which is possible
A : B : C : D = (1 × 2 × 2) : ( 3 × 2 × 2) : ( 3 × 5 × 2) The numbers are 24, 40.
: ( 3 × 5 × 3) Take another option: x + 3 x = 64 ⇒ x = 16
A : B : C : D = 4 : 12 : 30 : 45 The numbers are 16 and 48.
Check for option (c) :
Exp. 16) There are two types of mixtures of milk and
7 x + 9x = 64 ⇒ 16x = 64 ⇒ x = 4
water. In the first mixture, out of 12 litres of mixture, 5 litre
The numbers are 28 and 36.
is milk only and in the second mixture, 6 litre is milk and Check for option (d)
12 litre is water. Which one mixture is better in terms of 3 x + 4x = 64 ⇒ 7 x = 64
milk’s strength? 64
x=
Solution First Mixture Second Mixture 7
5 6 ( 6 + 12 = 18) 3 × 64 4 × 64 192 256
Numbers are and or and
12 18 (milk + water 7 7 7 7
5 6 = mixture)
× 36 × 36 Which are not the natural numbers.
12 18 Hence option (d) is the required answer.
15 12
So the first mixture has more milk in comparison to water. Exp. 21) Monthly incomes of A and B are in the ratio of
4 : 3 and their savings are in the ratio of 3 : 2. If the
Exp. 17) The ratio of salary of A : B = 1 : 2, B : C = 3 : 4, expenditure of each will be ` 600, then the monthly
C : D = 5 : 6 and D : E = 7 : 8. What is the ratio of salary of incomes of each are :
A and E? (a) 1800, 2400 (b) 2400, 1600 (c) 2400, 1800 (d) 1600, 1200
Solution A:B 1: 2 Solution Income = Exp. + Savings
B :C 3:4 A → 4x = 3y + 600
C:D 5:6 B → 3x = 2y + 600
D :E 7:8 Therefore, 4x − 3 y = 600 and 3 x − 2y = 600
A : B : C : D : E = (1 × 3 × 5 × 7) : ( 2 × 3 × 5 × 7) ⇒ 4x − 3 y = 3 x − 2y ⇒ x = y
: ( 2 × 4 × 5 × 7) : ( 2 × 4 × 6 × 7) : ( 2 × 4 × 6 × 8) ∴ 4x − 3 x = 600 ⇒ x = 600
or A : B : C : D : E = 105 : 210 : 280 : 336 : 384 Then, the income of A = 4 × 600 = 2400
So the ratio of salary of A : E = 105 : 384 = 35 : 128 and income of B = 3 × 600 = 1800
Alternatively Check the options. Consider (c)
NOTE In every next step, we leave the left term and adopt
right term. Income A B
a 3 2400 1800
Exp. 18) If = , then find the value of 7 a − 4b : 3a + b. (4) : (3) ⇒ correct
b 4
Again, 2400 1800
(a) 7 : 1 (b) 5 : 13
− 600 − 600
(c) 12 : 1 (d) none of these
Savings 1800 1200
Solution Simply substitute the value of a and b as 3 and 4 in the (3) : (2) ⇒ correct
given algebraic ratio Hence, option (c) is correct. If you check other options, the
as (7 × 3 − 4 × 4) : ( 3 × 3 + 4) = 5 : 13 ratio will not match.
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 245

Exp. 22) A, B and C have 40, x and y balls with them Exp. 24) There are total 100 coins consisting of 20 paise,
respectively. If B gives 20 balls to A, he is left with half as 50 paise and ` 1 in the ratio of 7 : 8 : 5. What is the no. of
many balls as C. If together they had 60 more balls, each of coins of 50 paise if the difference between the amount
them would have had 100 balls on an average. What is yielded by 20 paise and ` 1 coin is 18?
value of x : y ? (a) 32 (b) 40
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 4 : 6 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 3 : 4 (c) 26 (d) 56
Solution From the last statement Solution ( 20 × 7 x) ~ (100 × 5 x) = 1800 (` 18 = 1800 paise)
100 + x + y (140x) ~ (500x) = 1800
= 100
3 ⇒ 360x = 1800
⇒ x + y = 200 …(i) ⇒ x =5
x − 20 1 Therefore, number of coins of 50 paise = 8 × 5
Again from first statement, =
y 2 = 40
⇒ 2x − y = 40 …(ii) Alternatively Let there be 40 coins of 50 paise
an solving eqs. (i) and (ii), we get denomination, then
x = 80 and y = 120 The no. of coins of A , B and C = 7 x : 8x : 5 x
Therefore, required ratio of x : y = 2 : 3 = 35 : 40 : 25
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Therefore, the amount from 20 paise coins
Alternatively After forming the eqs. (i), we can go through
= 35 × 20 = ` 7
the options. Let us assume option (b).
and amount from ` 1 coins = 1 × 25 = ` 25
x + y = 200
Q x : y = 4: 6 Hence difference = ` 18 ( 25 − 7)
⇒ x = 80 and y = 120 Thus the presumed option is correct.
x − 20 1
Now from the first statement, = Exp. 25) There are 43800 students in 4 schools of a city. If
y 2
half of the first, two-third of the second, three-fourth of
80 − 20 1
So = (verified) the third and four-fifth of the fourth are the same number
120 2
of students, then find the ratio of number of students of
Hence option (b) is correct.
A and D if A , B, C and D be the first, second, third and
Exp. 23) The incomes of A, B and C are in the ratio of fourth schools respectively.
A 2B 3C 4D
12 : 9 : 7 and their spendings are in the ratio 15 : 9 : 8. If A Solution = = =
saves 25% of his income. What is the ratio of the savings of 2 3 4 5
A 4 B 9 C 16
A , B and C? Therefore, = and = and =
B 3 C 8 D 15
Solution Income = Expenditure + Saving
∴ A : B = 4: 3
A→ 12x = 15 y + 3 x (3 x = 25% of 12x) B :C = 9: 8
B→ 9x = 9y + ( 9x − 9y) C : D = 16 : 15
C→ 7 x = 8y + (7 x − 8y) ∴ A : B : C : D = ( 4 × 9 × 16) : ( 3 × 9 × 16)
Therefore, 12x − 3 x = 15 y : ( 3 × 8 × 16) : ( 3 × 8 × 15)
x 5 3x
⇒ = ⇒ y= A : B : C : D = 576 : 432 : 384 : 360
y 3 5
Therefore, the ratio of number of students of
Therefore, savings = (income – expenditure) A and D = 576 : 360 = 8 : 5
A = 12x − 9x = 3 x A 2 3 4
Alternatively = B= C= D=k
27 18 2 3 4 5
B = 9x − x= x
5 5 3 4 5
then A : B : C : D = 2k : k : k : k
24 11 2 3 4
C = 7x − x= x
5 5 = 24k : 18k : 16k : 15 k
18 11 ∴ A : B : C : D = 24 : 18 : 16 : 15
i. e., the ratio of savings of A : B : C = 3 x : x: x
5 5 ∴ A : D = 24 : 15 = 8 : 5
= 15 x : 18x : 11x = 15 : 18 : 11
246 QUANTUM CAT
4.2 Proportion That is, if a : b = b : c then b 2 = ac

An equality of two ratios is called a proportion and we say Here b is said to be the mean proportional to a and c, and c
that four numbers are in proportion. is said to be the third proportional to a and b.
For Example, 3 : 9 :: 9 : 27
a c
That is, if = , or a : b = c : d, then we say that a, b, c and d Here, 9 × 9 = 3 × 27. That means 3, 9 and 27 are in continued
b d
are in proportions and we write them as a : b :: c : d, where the proportion.
symbol ‘::’ indicates proportion and it is read as ‘a is to b as c NOTE Sometimes the above idea is also expressed by saying that
is to d’. the three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 9 : 27. Thus, if three quantities
are proportionals, the first is to the third as the duplicate ratio of the
Here a and d are called extremes (or extreme terms) and first to the second. i. e. , if a : b = b : c, then a : c = a2 : b2
b and c are called as means (or middle terms). Thus four  a b a2 ab a2 a 
numbers are said to be in proportion, if the ratio of the first to Q = ⇒ 2 = ⇒ 2 = ⇒ a : c = a2 : b2 
 b c b bc b c 
the second number is equal to the ratio of the third to the
fourth number. For Example, 2 : 3 :: 4 : 6. Continued Proportionality Theorems
If a, b and c are three numbers such that a : b = b : c, that is
Proportinality Test a b
If four numbers (quantities) are in proportion, then product = then,
b c
of the extremes is equal to the product of the means and if
(a) b 2 = ac
these are not in proportion, then product of extremes is not
a b
equal to the product of the means. Proof = ⇒ b 2 = ac
That is if a : b :: c : d, then a × d = b × c b c
b c
Thus it is clear that if three out of four terms of a proportion (b) =
a b
are given, we can find the fourth term by using this
a b b c
proportionality test. Proof = ⇒ b 2 = ac ⇒ =
b c a b
Proportionality Theorems a a 2
a c b d (c) = 2 (Duplicate Ratio)
(a) Invertendo: If = ⇒ = c b
b d a c
a b a a b a a2 a
a c
(b) Alternando: If = ⇒
a b
= Proof = ⇒ × = × ⇒ 2 =
b d c d b c b b c b b c
a c  a + b  c + d  a b2
(c) Componendo: If = ⇒   =  (d) = (Duplicate Ratio)
b d  b   d  c c2
a c  a − b  c − d  a b a b b b a b2
(d) Dividendo: = ⇒
If  =  Proof = ⇒ × = × ⇒ = 2
b d  b   d  b c b c c c c c
a c a a 2 + b2
(e) Componendo and Dividendo: If = (e) =
b d c b2 + c2
 a + b  c + d  a a2 a b2
⇒   =  = 2 and = 2
 a − b  c − d  Proof Since
c b c c
NOTE
a+a a +b 2 2
a a 2 + b2
1. Each of the two results (a) and (b) can be obtained by ⇒ = 2 ⇒ =
cross product. c + c b + c2 c b2 + c2
2. The result (e) can be obtained by dividing result (c) by
result (d). Exp. 1) The first, second and fourth terms of a proportion
are 5, 15 and 90 respectively. Find the third term.
Continued Proportion Solution Let the third term be x, then 5, 15, x, 90 are in proportion
If a, b and c are three numbers such that a : b = b : c, then i. e., 5 : 15 :: x : 90
these numbers a, b and c are said to be in continued ⇒ 5 × 90 = 15 × x (by the Ist property)
proportion or simply in proportion. ∴ x = 30
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 247

Exp. 2) The ratio of length to width of a rectangular sheet Exp. 9) The mean proportional between 8 and 98 is :
of paper is 5 : 3. If the width of the sheet is 18 cm, find its (a) 16 (b) 53 (c) 112 (d) 28
length. Solution 8 : x :: x : 98
Solution Let the length of sheet of paper be x cm. Then the ratio x 2 = 8 × 98 ⇒ x = 28
of length to width = x : 18
Hence option (d) is correct.
Thus x : 18 = 5 : 3 ⇒ x × 3 = 18 × 5 ⇒ x = 30
Hence the length of paper = 30 cm. Exp. 10) The students in three classes are in the ratio of
2 : 3 : 4. If 40 students are added in each class, the ratio
Exp. 3) If 81, x, x, 256 are in proportion, find x.
becomes 4 : 5 : 6. Find the total number of students in all
Solution 81 : x :: x : 256 ⇒ 81 × 256 = x × x ⇒ x = 144
the three classes is :
Exp. 4) The ratio between the number of men and (a) 270 (b) 180 (c) 126 (d) 135
women in an office is 5 : 7. Solution 2x + 40 = 4y …(i)
If the number of women working in the office is 56, find 3 x + 40 = 5 y …(ii)
the number of men working in the office. 4x + 40 = 6y …(iii)
Solution 5 : 7 = x : 56 (suppose number of men = x) Therefore 2x = 40 ⇒ x = 20
Hence, total number of students = 2x + 3 x + 4x = 9x
⇒ x = 40 (by the first property)
= 9 × 20 = 180
Therefore, number of men in the office = 40
Alternatively It can be solved through options also.
Exp. 5) The age of Chandi and Radhika are in the ratio
5 : 3. If Chandi’s age is 20 years, find the age of Radhika. Exp. 11) The dimensions of a photograph are 4 and
1.8 cms. If the breadth of the enlarged photo is 4.5 cm and
Solution 5 : 3 = 20 : x it was enlarged proportionally then what is the new
3 × 20 length of new photograph?
⇒ x= (by the first property)
5 (a) 6 (b) 5.4 (c) 10 (d) 9
⇒ x = 12 Solution 4 : 1.8 = x : 4.5
Hence the age of Radhika is 12 years.
∴ x = 10
Exp. 6) The ratio of the number of boys to that of girls in Thus, the length of new photograph is 10 cm.
a school is 9 : 11. If the number of girls in the school is 2035,
Exp. 12) Two equal containers are filled with the mixture
find :
of milk and water. The concentration of milk in each of the
(a) number of boys in school
containers is 20% and 25% respectively. What is the ratio
(b) number of students in school.
of water in both the containers respectively?
9 × 2035 (a) 15 : 16 (b) 16 : 15 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 4
Solution (a) 9 : 11 = x : 2035 ⇒ x =
11 Solution Milk 20% 25%
x = 1665 (number of boys) Water 80% 75%
(b) number of students 80 16
Therefore, required ratio = = or 16 : 15
= number of boys + number of girls = 3700 75 15

Exp. 7) What is the least possible number which must be Exp. 13) A cat takes 7 steps for every 5 steps of a dog, but
subtracted from 16, 19 and 23 so that the resulting 5 steps of a dog are equal to 6 steps of cat. What is the ratio
numbers are in continued proportion? of speed of cat to that of dog?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7 (a) 24 : 25 (b) 42 : 25 (c) 24 : 19 (d) 25 : 42
Solution Going through options, we find option (d) is correct. Solution CAT DOG
Alternatively (16 − x) : (19 − x) :: (19 − x) : ( 23 − x) Given speed 7 steps 5 steps
But the length of 5 steps of dog = length of 6 steps of cat
⇒ (19 − x) 2 = (16 − x) ( 23 − x)
6
By solving the above equation, we get x = 7 It means the ratio of length covered by dog is to cat =
5
6
Exp. 8) If ( a + b) : ( a − b) = 15 : 1 , then the value of a2 − b 2 is : Therefore, in each step a dog will cover times distance
5
(a) 56 (b) 15 (c) 112 (d) 8 than that of a cat.
( a + b) 15 a 8
Solution = ⇒ = (by componendo and Thus the ratio of actual speed of cat is to dog
( a − b) 1 b 7 6
dividendo) =7 :5 × =7 : 6
5
Therefore a 2 − b 2 = 64 − 49 = 15
248 QUANTUM CAT
Alternatively Actual speed of A : B
Exp. 14) A camel pursue an elephant and takes 5 leaps
Given speed of A for every 7 leaps of the elephant, but 5 leaps of elephant
= :
No. of steps of A in terms of length are equal to 3 leaps of camel. What is the ratio of speeds of
Given speed of B camel and elephant?
No. of steps of B in terms of length
Solution Ratio of speed of camel and elephant
7 5
= CAT : DOG = : = 7 : 6 5 7 5 7
6 5 = : = × 15 : × 15 = 25 : 21
3 5 3 5

Introductory Exercise 4.1

1. If A : B = 4 : 5, B : C = 3 : 4, C : D = 7 : 11, then A : D is : 13. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4. The difference
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 21 : 55 (c) 21 : 44 (d) 7 : 5 between their squares is 28. Find the greater number
(a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 24 (d) 16
2. Mean proportional between 17 and 68 is :
(a) 51 (b) 24 (c) 4 (d) 34 14. If a , b, c, d , e , f and g are in continued proportion, then
the value of a.b.c.e.f.g is :
3. Third proportional between 16 and 36 is :
(a) d3 (b) d7
(a) 64 (b) 144 (c) 81 (d) 49 6
(c) d (d) none of these
4. If a : b = 2 : 3, then (5 a + b) : (3 a + 2 b) is :
15. If A and B shared ` 1300 in the ratio 1 : 12, how much
(a) 13 : 12 (b) 15 : 17 (c) 12 : 13 (d) 13 : 11 did A get?
5. a = 2 b = 3 c = 4d, then a : b : c : d is : (a) 120 (b) 1200 (c) 100 (d) 1000
(a) 12 : 3 : 6 : 4 (b) 3 : 4 : 6 : 12 16. ` 3960 are divided among A, B and C so that half of A’s
(c) 6 : 12 : 4 : 3 (d) 12 : 6 : 4 : 3 part, one-third of B’s part and one-sixth of C’s part are
equal. Then C’s part is :
6. The fourth proportional to 4, 7 and 20 is :
(a) 720 (b) 2160 (c) 1080 (d) 810
(a) 28 (b) 21 (c) 18 (d) 35
17. A sum of ` 21000 is divided among A, B and C such that
7. If 2 : (1 + 3 ) :: 6 : x, then x is equal to :
shares of A and B are in the ratio of 2 : 3 and those of
(a) 1 + 3 (b) 3 − 1 B and C are in the ratio 4 : 5. The amount received by A
(c) 3 + 3 (d) 2 3 is :
a b c a+ b+ c (a) ` 6000 (b) ` 4500 (c) ` 4800 (d) ` 8400
8. If = = then =?
3 4 5 b 18. A certain amount was divided between A and B in the
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 ratio 7 : 9. If B’s share was ` 7200, the total amount was :
a c (a) ` 1280 (b) ` 6300 (c) ` 5600 (d) ` 12800
9. If = , then :
b d 19. ` 11250 are divided among A, B and C so that A may
a+ b c+d a+ b c+d
(a) = (b) = receive one-half as much as B and C together receive
a−b c−d a2 d2
and B receives one-fourth of what A and C together
a+ b c+d
(c) = (d) ac = bd receive. The share of A is more than that of B by :
a2 c2 (a) ` 2500 (b) ` 1500 (c) ` 1800 (d) ` 650
a b c
10. If a : b = b : c = c : d then , , are : 20. A girl 1.2 metre tall casts a shadow 1.1 m at the time
b c d when a building casts a shadow 6.6 m long. The height
(a) in AP of the building is :
(b) in continued proportion (a) 2.7 m (b) 7.2 m (c) 6.0 m (d) 5.5 m
(c) in GP
(d) both (b) and (c) 21. The prices of Bajaj Scooter and Bajaj Pulser are in the
ratio of 4 : 9. If the Bajaj Pulser costs ` 30000 more
11. If (a + b) : (a − b) = 3 : 2, the (a2 − b2 ) : (a2 + b2 )
than a Bajaj Scooter, the price of Bajaj Pulser is :
equals : (a) ` 63000 (b) ` 45000
(a) 5 : 13 (b) 12 : 13 (c) ` 54000 (d) ` 60000
(c) 9 : 4 (d) none of these 22. What is the ratio whose terms differ by 40 and the
12. Two whole numbers, whose sum is 64, cannot be in measure of which is 2/7?
the ratio : (a) 16 : 56 (b) 14 : 49
(a) 1 : 7 (b) 3 : 5 (c) 5 : 11 (d) 1 : 2 (c) 15 : 36 (d) 16 : 72
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 249

23. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 be subtracted 26. A quantity x varies inversely as the square of y. Given
from each, then they are in the ratio of 12 : 23. The that x = 4, when y = 3, the value of x when y = 6 is :
second number is : (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) 53 (b) 54 27. Suppose y varies as the sum of two quantities of which
(c) 55 (d) 52
one varies directly as x and the other inversely as x. If
24. Consider the following statements : 1
y = 6 when x = 4 and y = 3 when x = 3, then the
(1) If both the terms of a ratio are multiplied or 3
divided by the same natural number, then the relation between x and y is :
ratio remains unaltered. 8
(a) x = y + 4 (b) y = 2 x +
(2) A statement which states that two ratios are x
equivalent is called proportion. 8 4
(c) y = 2 x − (d) y = 2 x −
(3) If 4 quantities are in proportion, the product of x x
extremes is not equal to the means. 28. The time period of a pendulum is proportional to the
(4) The mean proportion between any two numbers is square root of the length of the pendulum. Consider
equal to the square root of their product. The the following statements :
wrong one statements is/are : (1) If the length of the pendulum is doubled, then the
(a) 1 (b) 3 time period is also doubled.
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 (2) If the length is halved, then time period becomes
25. In a mixture of 120 litres, the ratio of milk and water is one-fourth of the original time period.
2 : 1. If the ratio of milk and water is 1 : 2, then the The correct assertions are :
amount of water (in litres) is required to be added is : (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 80 (d) 120 (c) neither 1 nor 2 (d) both 1 and 2

4.3 Unitary Method

In this method, at first we find the value of one unit and, then Exp. 1) If 6 note books cost ` 45, how much would
we find the value of required number of units by multiplying 8 notebooks cost?
the value of one unit with the required number of units. Solution More note books more cost; less note books, less cost
Note books Cost
For example, if the price of 10 bananas is ` 50, find the price
6 45
of 25 bananas. Then, as per unitary method, first we find the 1 45/6
price of one unit of bananas, which is ` 5. Thus, we can find 8 × 45
8 = 60
the price of 25 bananas by multiplying the price of one unit 6
with the number of desired units, which is ` 125. Hence 8 note books cost ` 60.

Direct Proportion Exp. 2) If 45 students can consume a stock of food in

2 months, find for how many days the same stock of food
Two quantities are said to be directly proportional if the will last for 27 students?
increase (or decrease) in one quantity causes the increase (or Solution More students, less days; less students, more days
decrease) in the other quantity by same proportion. e.g., Students Days
(i) The cost of articles varies directly with the number of 45 60
articles. More articles more cost, less articles less cost. 1 60 × 45
60 × 45
(ii) The work done varies directly with the number of men 27 = 100 days
27
(work force) at work. More men at work, more work done in
the same time. Less men, less work done in the same time. Exp. 3) A man working 8 hours a day takes 5 days to
complete a project. How many hours a day must he work
Inverse Proportion to complete it in 4 days?
Two quantities are said to vary inversely if the increase (or Solution ‘More days, less hours; less days, more hours’
decrease) in one quantity causes the decrease (or increase) in Days Hours
5 8
the other quantity by same proportion. e.g., The time taken to
1 5×8
finish a work varies inversely to the number of men at work. 5×8
4 = 10 hours a day
More men at work, less time taken to finish the same work. 4
Less men at work, more time taken to finish the same work.
250 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 4.2
1. If 40 articles cost ` 180, the cost of 18 articles is : 7. Cost of erecting a fence round a square field of 625
(a) ` 18 (b) ` 36 hectares at 15 paise per metre is :
(c) ` 81 (d) ` 40.5 (a) ` 500 (b) ` 750 (c) ` 100 (d) ` 1500
2. If 20 persons can do a piece of work in 7 days, then the 8. 56 workers can reap a field in 8 days. If the work is to
number of persons required to complete the work in be completed in 7 days, the extra workers needed are :
28 days : (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 14 (d) 16
(a) 4 (b) 5
9. If 5 persons weave 180 shawls in 12 days, how many
(c) 14 (d) 10
shawls will 6 persons weave in 15 days?
3. If 20 men can reap a field in 38 days, in how many (a) 260 (b) 370 (c) 270 (d) 360
days will 19 men reap the field?
(a) 21 days (b) 19 days 10. 15 men take 42 days of 4 hours each to do a piece of
(c) 76 days (d) 40 days work. How many days of 6 hours each would 21 women
take if 3 women do as much work as 2 men?
4. A rope makes 260 rounds of a cylinder with base
radius 20 cm. How many times can it go round a (a) 15 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30
cylinder with base radius 26 cm? 11. 10 engines consume 80 litres diesel when each is
(a) 130 (b) 300 running 9 hours a day. How much diesel will be
(c) 200 (d) 150 required for 10 engines, each running 15 hours a day,
5. A garrison of 750 men has provision for 20 weeks. If at whereas 6 engines of the former type consume as
the end of 4 weeks they are reinforced by 450 men, much as 5 engines of latter type?
how long will the remaining provision last? (a) 160 litre (b) 75 litre
(a) 10 weeks (b) 11 weeks 1
(c) 80 litre (d) 111 litre
(c) 15 weeks (d) 16 weeks 9
3
6. 40 men can build a wall 20 m high in 15 days. The 12. If th of a cistern is filled in 30 minutes, how much
number of men required to build a similar wall 25 m 5
high in 6 days will be : more time will be required to fill the rest of it?
(a) 100 (b) 125 (a) 50 minutes (b) 20 minutes
(c) 150 (d) 200 (c) 15 minutes (d) 45 minutes

4.4 Variation
When two or more quantities are dependent upon each other A∝B ⇒ A = KB ,
and then if any one of them is changed, the other (dependent) where K is called proportionality constant
quantity is also changed. A
For example : ⇒ K=
B
(i) When the salary of a person increases, then its
savings/expenditure increases. Inverse Variation
(ii) When the number of guests in a hotel/number of A quantity A is said to vary inversely if the increase (or
students in a hostel/number of employees changes, their decrease) in B yields decrease (or increase) in A but not in
respective expenses increases. same proportion. It is expressed as
Basically, as it happens in direct proportion and inverse 1 K
A∝ ⇒ A=
proportion, there are two types of variation : B B
(i) Direct variation (ii) Inverse variation or K = AB , K is called as proportionality constant.
Direct Variation NOTE
1. If it is not mentioned that a particular quantity is inversely
A quantity A is said to vary directly if the increase (or variable, then it means the given quantity is directly
decrease) in B yields increase (or decrease) in A but not in variable.
proportion. It is expressed as 2. A quantity sometimes vary jointly i.e., directly on any
quantity and inversely on another quantity.
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 251

1 6
e.g., A ∝ B and A ∝ 12 = K⇒ K=4
C 2
B KB B 12
It means A∝ ⇒ A= Again A =K =4× = 16 ⇒ A = 16
C C C 3
Here A varies directly as B but inversely as C.
Also it can vary as only directly or inversely as more than one Exp. 2) The value of a coin varies directly to the square of
quantities. its radius, when its thickness is constant. The radius of a
e.g., A ∝ BC ⇒ A = KBC coin is 1.5 cm and its value is ` 2. What will be the radius
1 K of a coin if its value is ` 5?
and A∝ ⇒ A=
BC BC Solution V ∝ r 2 ⇒V = Kr 2
Exp. 1) A varies directly as B and inversely as C. A is 2 8
2 = K × (15
. )2 ⇒ K = ⇒ K=
12 when B is 6 and C is 2. What is the value of A when B is 2.25 9
8 5×9
12 and C is 3? Again 5 = ×r ⇒ r =
2 2

1 9 8
Solution A ∝ B and A ∝ 3 5
C ∴ r= × = 15
. × 25. = 15
. × 1.6
B B 2 2
⇒ A∝ ⇒ A=K
C C r ≈ 2.4 cm
When A = 12, B = 6, C = 2, then Hence, required radius = 2.4 cm

4.5 Problems Based on Ages

This article is very suitable as an appendix of Again 11x − 3 x = 24
ratio-proportion, since most of the questions based on ages 8x = 24
involve the concept of ratio-proportion. e.g., the age of Ravi ⇒ x=3
is 16 years and the age of her mother is twice etc. or the ratio Therefore the ratio of their ages 3 years after
3 x + 3 12 1
of the ages of the father and son at present is 3 :1. 4 years, = = =
11x + 3 36 3
earlier the ratio was 4 :1. What are the present ages of the
father and son etc. Exp. 3) The age of Sachin is 4 times that of his son. Five
Exp. 1) The ratio of ages of Krishna and Balram is years ago Sachin was nine times as old as his son was at
3 : 4. Four years earlier the ratio was 5 : 7. Find the present that time. The present age of the Sachin is :
ages of Krishna and Balram : (a) 25 years (b) 36 years
(a) 15 years, 20 years (b) 24 years, 32 years (c) 32 years (d) 48 years
(c) 16 years, 20 years (d) 32 years, 24 years Solution Let the age of son is x years, then the age of Sachin
will be 4x years.
Solution Let the present age of Krishna and Balram be
3 x and 4x, then four years ago their ages be( 3 x − 4) and ( 4x − 4) ∴ ( 4x − 5) = 9 ( x − 5) ⇔ x = 8
( 3 x − 4) 5 ∴ Age of Sachin is 32 years.
So = ⇒ 7( 3 x − 4) = 5( 4x − 4)
( 4x − 4) 7 Exp. 4) The ratio of Varun’s age and his mother’s age is
⇒ 21x − 28 = 20x − 20 5 : 11. The difference of their ages is 18 years. The ratio of
⇒ x=8 their ages after 5 years will be :
∴ Present age of Krishna = 3 x = 24 years (a) 19 : 59 (b) 2 : 3
and age of Balram = 4x = 32 years (c) 37 : 75 (d) 10 : 19
Exp. 2) The ratio of age of Aman and her mother is 3 : 11. Solution Let their ages be 5 x and 11x.
The difference of their ages is 24 years. What will be the 11x − 5 x = 18
ratio of their ages after 3 years? ⇔ x=3
Solution Let the present age of Aman and her mother be So their present ages are 15 and 33 years. Therefore, ratio of
3 x and 11x then 3 years later their ages will be ( 3 x + 3) and their ages after 5 years = 20 : 38 = 10 : 19.
(11x + 3) respectively.
252 QUANTUM CAT

Introductory Exercise 4.3

1. Amit is as much younger to Barkha as he is older to 1
3. Renuka got married 8 years ago. Today her age is 1
Chaman. If the sum of the ages of Barkha and Chaman 3
is 48 years, what is the present age of Amit? times her age at the time of marriage. Her daughter’s
(a) 18 years age is 1/8 times her age. Her daughter’s age is :
(b) 36 years (a) 3 years (b) 4 years (c) 6 years (d) 8 years
(c) 24 years 4. Ten years ago B was twice of A in age. If the ratio of
(d) 28 years their present ages is 4 : 3, what is the sum of their
2. Bipin is 6 times old as Alok. Bipin’s age will be twice of present ages?
Chandan’s age after 10 years. If Chandan’s 7thbirthday (a) 25 years (b) 30 years
was celebrated 3 years ago, what is Alok’s present (c) 40 years (d) 35 years
age? 5. The sum of the ages of Aryabhatta and Shridhar is 45
(a) 15 years years. Five years ago the product of their ages was 4
(b) 12 years times the Aryabhatta’s age at that time. The present
(c) 5 years ages of Aryabhatta and Shridhar respectively are :
(d) none of these (a) 25 and 20 (b) 35 and 10
(c) 36 and 9 (d) 40 and 5

4.6 Partnership
When two or more than two people run a business jointly by Exp. 1) Bhanu and Shafeeq started a business by
investing their money/resources, then it is called a joint investing ` 36000 and ` 63000. Find the share of each, out
venture or the business in partnership. All these people, who of an annual profit of ` 5500.
have invested their resources, are called as Partners. Solution Ratio of shares of Bhanu and Shafeeq
= 36000 : 63 , 000 = 4 : 7
Types of Partners 4
∴ Share of Bhanu = 5500 × = ` 2000
(i) Working partner A partner who is directly involved 11
with day-to-day activities of business is called as working 7
and Share of Shafeeq = 5500 × = 3500
partner. 11
(ii) Sleeping partner A partner who just invests his or her Exp. 2) A starts some business with ` 50000. After
money is called as sleeping partner. 3 months B joins him with ` 70000. At the end of the year,
in what ratio should they share the profits?
General Rules of Partnership
Solution Ratio of amount of A and B = 50000 : 70000
(i) If the partners invest different amounts for the same
Ratio of time periods for A and B = 12 : 9
period of time, then the profits of all the partners are
∴ Ratio of their money-time capital
shared in the ratio of their investments.
Investments = 50000 × 12 : 70000 × 9
(ii) If the partners invest same amount for the different time = 20 : 21
periods, then the profits of all the partners are shared in
the ratio of time periods for which their amounts were Exp. 3) Harsh Vardhan started a business by investing
invested. ` 36000. After 4 months Gyan Vardhan joined him with
(iii)If the partners invest different amounts for different time some investment. At the end of the year, the total profit
periods, then their profits are shared in the ratio of was divided between them in the ratio of 9 : 7. How
products of respective investments with the time period much capital was invested by Gyan Vardhan in the
for each partner, individually. Thus gain or loss is business?
divided in the ratio of ‘money-time’ capitals. 36, 000 × 12 9
Solution = ⇒ x = 42, 000
x×8 7
NOTE Sometimes different problems are solved on the basis of
partnership to find the expenses. ∴ Gyan Vardhan invested ` 42000 for 8 months only.
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 253

Exp. 4) A started some business with ` 26000. After Exp. 6) A started a business with ` 52000 and after
3 months Bjoined him with ` 16000. After some more time C 4 months B joined him with ` 39000. At the end of the
joined them with ` 25000. At the end of the year, out of a year, out of the total profits B received total ` 20000
total profit of ` 15453, C gets ` 3825 as his share. How many including 25% of the profits as commission for
months after B joined the business did C join? managing the business. What amount did A receive?
Solution Ratio (of share) of profits Solution Profit’s share of A and B
= 26, 000 × 12 : 16000 × 9 : 25000 × C
= 52, 000 × 12 : 39, 000 × 8 = 2 : 1
= 312 : 144 : 25C
25C 3825 Let the profit be ` x, then B receives 25% as commission for
Now C’s share = = ⇒C = 6 managing business, the remaining 75% of the total profit x is
456 + 25C 15453
shared between A and B in the ratio 2 : 1. Hence B will get
Therefore C joined 3 months later than B joined. 1
rd part of this in addition to his commission. Hence his
3
Exp. 5) A, B and C started a business with their 1
investments in the ratio 1 : 2 : 4. After 6 months A invested total earning = 0.25x + × 0.75x = 0.5x = 20000 ⇒ x = 40000
3
the half amount more as before and B invested twice the So, the remaining profit goes to A, hence the profit of A
1
amount as before while C withdrew th of the their is ` 20000.
4
investments. Find the ratio of their profits at the end of the Exp. 7) A working partner gets 20% as his commission
year. of the profit after his commission is paid. If the working
partner’s commission is ` 8000, then what is the total
Solution Let us assume their initial investments were
x , 2x and 4x respectively.
profit in the business?
Therefore, ratio of their investments during the whole year Solution Let the total profit be ` x. The remaining profit after
3x paying 20% working partner’s commission = ( x − 8000). Again
= (x × 6 + × 6) : ( 2x × 6 + 4x × 6) : ( 4x × 6 + 3 x × 6) since 20% of this is working partner’s commission,
2
20
= 15 x : 36x : 42x = 5 x : 12x : 14x = 5 : 12 : 14 therefore × ( x − 8000) = 8000 ⇒ x = 48000
100
∴ Ratio of their profits = 5 : 12 : 14
∴The total profit in the business is ` 48000.

Introductory Exercise 4.4

1. A company make a profit of ` 9,00,000, 20% of which is 4. A and B are partners in a business. They invest in the
paid as taxes. If the rest is divided among the partners ratio 5 : 6, at the end of 8 months Awithdraws. If they
1
P , Q and R in the ratio of 1 : 1 : 2, then the shares of receive profits in the ratio of 5 : 9, find how long B’s
2 investment was used?
P , Q and R are respectively :
(a) 12 months
(a) 240000; 320000; 160000
(b) 10 months
(b) 320000; 240000; 160000
(c) 15 months
(c) 160000; 320000; 240000
(d) 14 months
(d) 160000; 240000; 320000
5. Four milkmen rented a pasture. A put to graze 16
2. We have to divide a sum of ` 13950 among three
cows for 3 months, B 20 cows for 4 months, C 18
persons A, B and C. B must get the double of A’s share
cows for 6 months and D 42 cows for 2 months. If A’s
and C must get ` 50 less than the double of B’s share.
share of rent be ` 2400, the rent paid by C is :
The share of A will be :
(a) ` 3200 (b) ` 4200 (c) ` 4000 (d) ` 5400
(a) ` 1950 (b) ` 1981.25
(c) ` 2000 (d) ` 2007.75 6. A, B and C subscribe ` 47000 for a business. If a

3. A started business with ` 45000 and B joined after- ward subscribes ` 7000 more than B and B ` 5000 more
with ` 30000. If the profits at the end of one year were than C, then out of total profit of ` 4700, C receives :
divided in the ratio 2 : 1 respectively, then B would have (a) ` 1200
joined A for business after : (b) ` 4500
(a) 1 month (b) 2 months (c) ` 1000
(c) 3 months (d) 4 months (d) none of the above
254 QUANTUM CAT

CAT-Test
Questions Helping you bell the CAT

LEVEL 01 > BASIC LEVEL EXERCISE

1 Four numbers are in proportion. The sum of the squares of 8 A child has three different kinds of chocolates costing ` 2,
the four numbers is 50 and the sum of the means is 5. The ` 5 and ` 10. He spends total ` 120 on the chocolates. What
ratio of first two terms is 1 : 3. What is the average of the is the minimum possible number of chocolates, he can buy,
four numbers? if there must be atleast one chocolate of each kind?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) 22 (b) 19 (c) 17 (d) 15
(c) 5 (d) 6 9 In the previous problem (no. 8) what is the maximum
2 A naughty student breaks the pencil in such a way that the possible no. of chocolates?
ratio of two broken parts is same as that of the original (a) 52 (b) 53 (c) 55 (d) 60
length of the pencil to one of the larger part of the pencil. 10 Mr. Teremere and Mr. Meretere have 5 chocolates and
The ratio of the other part to the original length of pencil is 3 chocolates with them respectively. Meanwhile
(a) 1 : 2 5 (b) 2 : (3 + 5) Mr. Khabbu Singh joined them and all 8 chocolates were
(c) 2 : 5 (d) can’t be determined distributed equally among all these three people. In turn
x+ y 5 x Khabbu Singh gave ` 16 to Mr. Teremere and
3 If = and = 2 , then the value of ( x, y ) is
x−y 3 ( y + 2) Mr. Meretere, since Khabbu Singh did not has any
(a) (4, 1) (b) (2, 8) chocolate. What is the difference of amounts received by
(c) (1, 4) (d) (8, 2) Teremere and Meretere? Given that the amount was
shared in proportion of chocolates received by Khabbu
4 If a3 + b3 : a3 − b3 = 133 : 117; then find the value of a : b Singh.
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 5 : 4 (a) ` 8 (b) ` 12 (c) ` 14 (d) ` 15
(c) 5 : 2 (d) none of these 11 ` 4536 is divided among 4 men, 5 women and 2 boys. The
5 A student obtained equal marks in History and Sociology. ratio of share of a man, a woman and a boy is 7 : 4 : 3. What
The ratio of marks in Sociology and Geography is 2 : 3 and is the share of a woman?
the ratio of marks in History and Philosophy is 1 : 2. If he (a) ` 336 (b) ` 498 (c) ` 166 (d) ` 256
has scored an aggregate of 55% marks. The maximum 12 The concentration of petrol in three different mixtures
marks in each subject is same. In how many subjects did he 1 3 4
score equal to or greater than 60% marks? (petrol and kerosene) is , and respectively. If
2 5 5
(a) 1 (b) 2 2 litres, 3 litres and 1 litre are taken from these three
(c) 3 (d) none of these different vessels and mixed. What is the ratio of petrol and
6 The ratio of income of Anil and Mukesh is 2 : 3. The sum of Kerosene in the new mixture?
their expenditure is ` 8000 and the amount of savings of (a) 4 : 5 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 2 : 3
Anil is equal to the amount of expenditure of Mukesh. 13 Time period (T ) of pendulum is directly proportional to the
What is the sum of their savings? square root of length of string by which bob is attached to a
(a) 22000 (b) 4000 fixed point and inversely proportional to the square root of
(c) 16000 (d) 12000 gravitational constant ‘ g ’. Time period of a bob is 3 seconds
7 Hutch and Essar entered into a partnership just 5 months when the gravitational constant g is 4 m/sec 2 and length of
ago. The ratio of profit claimed by Hutch and Essar is 6 : 17. string is 9 metre, what is the time period of a bob having
If Essar had just started his business 12 months ago with a string of length 64 metre and gravitational constant
` 1275, what is the amount contributed by Hutch? 16 m/sec 2?
(a) ` 980 (b) ` 1080 (a) 4 seconds (b) 12 seconds
(c) ` 1200 (d) ` 998 (c) 16 seconds (d) 10 seconds
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 255

14 In a milk shoppe there are three varieties of milk, ‘Pure’, 22 If 4 A = 5B and 3A = 2C , the ratio of B : C is :
‘Cure’ and ‘Lure’. The ‘Pure’ milk has 100% concentration (a) 4 : 3 (b) 5 : 8 (c) 8 : 15 (d) 10 : 15
of milk. The ratio of milk is to water in the ‘Cure’ is 2 : 5 and
23 Equal quantities of three mixtures of milk and water are
in the Lure it is 3 : 8 respectively. Sonali purchased 14 litres mixed in the ratio of 1 : 2 , 2 : 3 and 3 : 4. The ratio of water
of Cure and 22 litres of Lure milk and mixed them. If she and milk in the mixture is :
wanted to make the concentration of milk in the mixture of (a) 193 : 122 (b) 122 : 193
purchased milk to 50%. How many litres of ‘Pure’ milk she (c) 61 : 97 (d) 137 : 178
is needed?
24 The ratio of age of A and B is 8 : 9 and the age of B is 2/3 of
(a) 6 litres (b) 8 litres
9
(c) 16 litres (d) 18 litres C ’s age and age of C is times the age of D. If the age of B is
13
15 In the squadron of Indian Air Force the ratio of Sukhoi is to 18 years then the age of C is :
Mig and Jaguar together is 5 : 7 and the ratio of Jaguar is to (a) 36 years (b) 39 years
Sukhoi and Mig together is 1 : 2. Find the ratio of Sukhoi (c) 27 years (d) 54 years
and Mig : 25 A milk man has a mixture of milk in which ratio of milk and
(a) 2 : 7 (b) 3 : 5 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 5 : 3 water is 5 : 3. He sells 40 litres of milk i . e. , mixture then he
16 During our campaign against child labour we have found adds up 15 litres of pure water. Now the ratio of milk and
that in three glass making factories A, B and C there were water is 5 : 4. What is the new quantity of mixture?
total 33 children aged below 18 were involved. The ratio (a) 72 litres (b) 270 litres
of male to female in A, B and C was 4 : 3, 3 : 2 and 5 : 4 (c) 135 litres (d) Data insufficient
respectively. If the no. of female children working in the 26 A and B are two alloys of copper and tin prepared by mixing
factories B and C be equal then find the no. of female the respective metals in the ratio of 5 : 3 and 5 : 11
children working in factory A : respectively. If the alloys A and B are mixed to form a third
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 8 (d) 6 alloy C with an equal proportion of copper and tin, what is
17 The value of a diamond is directly proportional to the the ratio of alloys A and B in the new alloy C?
square of its weight. A diamond unfortunately breaks into (a) 3 : 5 (b) 4 : 5 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 3
three pieces with weights in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 thus a loss 27 A hotel incurs two types of expenses, one which is fixed and
of ` 9.4 lakh is incurred. What is the actual value of others depend upon no. of guests. When there are
diamond : 10 guests, total expenses of hotel are ` 6000. Also when
(a) 28.8 lakh (b) 13.5 lakh there are 25 guests average expenses per guests are
(c) 14.4 lakh (d) 18.8 lakh ` 360? What is the total expenses of hotel when there are
18 In the Ruchika’s wallet there are only ` 16, consisting of 40 guests?
10 paise, 20 paise and ` 1 coins. The ratio of no. of coins of (a) ` 8000 (b) ` 12000
10 paise and 20 paise is 6 : 1. The minimum no. of ` 1 coin (c) ` 15500 (d) none of these
is : 28 The ratio of third proportional to 21 and 42 and mean
(a) 5 (b) 12 (c) 4 (d) 8 proportional to 16 and 49 is :
19 There are two vessels containing the mixture of milk and (a) 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 4 : 3 (d) 1 : 3
water. In the first vessel the water is 2/3 of the milk and in 29 The period of the pendulum is directly proportional to the
the second vessel water is just 40% of the milk. In what square root of the length of the string. The period of such a
ratio these are required to mix to make 24 litres mixture in pendulum with string of length 16 cm is 52 seconds. Find
which the ratio of water is to milk is 1 : 2 ? the length of the string if the period is 65 seconds :
(a) 4 : 3 (b) 5 : 7 (a) 4.5 cm (b) 5 cm
(c) 5 : 2 (d) 7 : 5 (c) 6 cm (d) none of these
20 Nehru Ji had ‘ n’ chocolates. He distributed them among 30 For any two numbers m, n;(m + n): (m − n): mn = 7 : 1: 60 ,
1 1 1 1. 1 1
4 children in the ratio of: : : If he gave them each then find the value of :
2 3 5 8 m n
one a complete chocolate, the minimum no. of chocolates (a) 4 : 3 (b) 8 : 6 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 7 : 8
that he had :
31 ` 960 were distributed among A, B, C and D in such a way
(a) 139 (b) 240
(c) 278 (d) None of these that C and D together gets half of what A and B together
5
21 The ratio of working efficiency of A and B is 5 : 3 and the gets and C gets one-third amount of B. Also D gets times as
3
ratio of efficiency of B and C is 5 : 8. Who is the most much as C. What is the amount of A?
efficient ? (a) ` 240 (b) ` 280
(a) A (b) B (c) ` 320 (d) data insufficient
(c) C (d) Can’t be determined
256 QUANTUM CAT
p2 + q2 , 41 6 pumps of Kirlosker can fill a tank in 7 days and 2 similar
32 Find the value of if p : q :: r : s.
r2 + s 2 pumps of USHA can fill the same tank in 18 days. What is
2 the ratio of the efficiency of a Kirlosker pump and a USHA
1 1 ps  p − q
(a) (b) (c) (d)   pump?
4 9 rq  r − s
(a) 6 : 7 (b) 7 : 6
p2 + q2 , (c) 7 : 54 (d) can’t be determined
33 Find the value of if p : q :: r : s.
r2 + s 2 1
42 16 persons can reap th field in 6 days. How many persons
1 pq 5
(a) (b)
4 rs (with same efficiency) are required to reap rest of the field
2 in 8 days?
 p + q
(c)   (d) Both (b) and (c) (a) 27 (b) 54
 r + s
(c) 48 (d) 64
34 The speeds of rickshaw, car and scooter are in the ratio of
43 The LCM of two numbers is 210 and their ratio is 2 : 3. The
3 : 5 : 6. What is the ratio of time taken by each one of them
for the same distance? sum of these numbers is :
(a) 6 : 5 : 3 (a) 210 (b) 175
(b) 10 : 6 : 5 (c) 315 (d) can’t be determined
(c) 12 : 7 : 6 44 What number must be subtracted from each of the numbers
(d) Data insufficient 53, 21, 41, 17 so that the remainders are in proportion?
2 (a) 1 (b) 3
35 Divide ` 6940 in such a way that A gets rd of what B gets
3 (c) 5 (d) none of these
3 45 The angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. Find the
and B gets th of what C gets? What is the share of A and B
5
measurement of greatest angle :
together? (a) 30° (b) 60°
(a) ` 1982 (b) ` 1388 (c) 100° (d) 80°
(c) ` 3470 (d) none of these
46 In a wallet the ratio of 25 paise, 50 paise and ` 1 coins are
36 The ratio of age of A and B is x : y. If A’s age is increased by in the ratio of 12 : 4 : 3, which amounts to ` 600. Find the
3 years and B’s age is increased by 2 years then new ratio of no. of coins of 25 paise :
their ages becomes 24 : 25. Given that the sum of their (a) 200 (b) 225
actual ages is 93 years. Find the actual ratio of their ages. (c) 275 (d) none of these
(a) 21 : 22 (b) 42 : 45 a+ b + c.
47 ( x − a): ( x − b): ( x − c) = 11 : 9 : 5, where x =
(c) 45 : 48 (d) Can’t be determined 2
What is the ratio of a, b, c ?
37 a : b = 4 : 9 if 4 is added to both of the numbers then the
(a) 10 : 8 : 7 (b) 3 : 5 : 9 (c) 7 : 8 : 10 (d) 6 : 5 : 3
new ratio becomes 21 : 46. What is the difference between
48 Petrol is 7 times heavy than Kerosene and Castrol mobil is
a and b?
18 times as heavy as Kerosene. What should be the ratio of
(a) 80 (b) 100
petrol and mobil in the new mixture to get the mixture
(c) 125 (d) 130 which must be 11 times as heavy as kerosene?
38 The ratio of ages of Rahul and Deepesh is 3 : 5. 10 years (a) 3 : 4 (b) 7 : 4
later this ratio becomes 5 : 7. What is the present age of (c) 9 : 19 (d) 9 : 10
Deepesh? 49 A girl buys 2 pigeons for ` 182. She sells one at a loss of 5%
(a) 20 years (b) 50 years and another at a profit if 8%. But she neither gains nor
(c) 25 years (d) 40 years loses on the whole. Find the price of pigeon which has sold
at a profit :
39 When 5 is added to the numerator and denominator both
(a) ` 112 (b) ` 85
of a (positive) fraction, then the new ratio of numerator to
(c) ` 70 (d) can’t be determined
denominator becomes 11 : 15. What is the original ratio?
(a) 17 : 25 (b) 3 : 5 50 The ratio of prices of Cello and Rotomac pens in 2000 were
in the ratio of 3 : 5. In 2005 the price of Cello pen trebles
(c) 28 : 40 (d) None of these
itself and the price of Rotomac pen is increased by ` 100,
40 Five numbers a, b, c, d and e are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5 : 8 : 9 then the new ratio of prices of the same pens becomes 4 : 5.
and their sum is 162. Find the average of all these numbers What was the original price of the Rotomac pen in 2000?
(a) 27 (b) 30 (a) ` 60 (b) ` 80
(c) 32.4 (d) Can’t be determined (c) ` 100 (d) ` 120
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 257

51 A goldsmith has 361 rings of gold. He sells some of them at 1

56 The ratio of numerator to a denominator of a fraction is
a loss of 4% and rest at a profit of 15% making overall 5
profit of 8%. Find the no. of rings sold at a profit of 15% : when x and 5x are added to the numerator and
(a) 171 (b) 133 denominator respectively to the given fraction then the
(c) 218 (d) 228 ratio of the new fraction will be :
52 Michel travelled from New York to New Jersey covering (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 25 (c) 1 : 5 (d) 2 : 7
total distance of 250 mile in 8 h partly by car at 30 mile/h 57 x varies directly as y and x varies inversely as the square of
and rest by train at 35 mile/h. The distance travelled by car z. When y = 75 and x = 6, then z = 5. Find the value of x
is : when y = 24 and z = 4 :
(a) 150 mile (b) 80 mile (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) 220 mile (d) 180 mile 58 x varies directly as ( y 2 + z 2 ). At y = 1 and z = 2 , the value
53 A rabit takes 22 leaps for every 17 leaps of cat and 22 leaps of x is 15. Find the value of z, when x = 39 and y = 2 :
of a rabit are equal to 17 leaps of the cat. What is the ratio (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
of the speeds of rabit and cat?
59 Weight of a sumo is jointly varies as his height and his age.
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 484 : 289
When height is 1.2 m and age is 20 years his weight is
(c) 17 : 22 (d) none of these 48 kg. Find the weight of the sumo when his height is
54 ` 171 are divided among four friends in the ratio of 1.5 metre and age is 30 years :
1 1 1 1. (a) 60 kg (b) 72 kg (c) 90 kg (d) 58 kg
: : : What is the amount of the person who got the
3 4 5 6
60 If (a + b): (b + c): (c + a) = 5 : 6 : 9 and a + b + c = 10.
greatest share?
What is the value of c :
(a) 14 (b) 40
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
(c) 36 (d) 60
1 61 A, B and C have amounts in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. First B
55 10 years ago the age of Karishma was rd of the age of 1 1 1
3 gives th to A and th to C then C gives th to A . Find the
Babita. 14 years hence the ratio of ages of Karishma and 4 4 6
Babita will be 5 : 9. Find the ratio of their present ages : final ratio of amount of A, B and C , respectively :
(a) 13 : 29 (b) 11 : 27 (a) 4 : 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 : 3
(c) 29 : 17 (d) 13 : 25 (c) 6 : 4 : 2 (d) 5 : 2 : 5

LEVEL 02 > HIGHER LEVEL EXERCISE

1 A tin contains a mixture of Dew and Sprite in the ratio of 4 Sachin bought 1.5 kg fresh grapes. The ratio of water is to
7 : 3 and another tin contains the Dew and Sprite in the pulp was 4 : 1. When his naughty child crushed these grapes,
ratio of 5 : 4. In what proportion should the solution of two then some water get wasted. Now the ratio of water is to pulp
tins be mixed to achieve a perfect proportion of 2 : 1 is 3 : 2. What is the total amount of the crushed grapes?
(in which Dew is 2 times that of sprite). (a) 0.5 kg (b) 1 kg
(a) 10 : 3 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 0.75 kg (d) none of these
(c) 3 : 10 (d) 3 : 1 5 A man bought 9 mangoes for a rupee and sold them at
2 There are two containers A and B filled with mentha oil 6 mangoes for a rupee. What is the ratio of profit to the cost
with different prices and their volumes are 140 litres and price?
3 3
60 litres respectively. Equal quantities are drawn from both (a) (b)
A and B in such a manner that the oil drawn from A is 10 2
poured into B and the oil drawn from B is poured into A. (c) 1/2 (d) none of these
The price per litre becomes equal in both A and B. How 6 Half of the volume of Petrol and kerosene mixture of ratio
much oil is drawn from each of A and B : 7 : 5 is converted into a mixture of ratio 3 : 1 by the
(a) 40 litre (b) 21 litre substitution (or replacement) method. While the mixture
(c) 42 litre (d) can’t be determined of ratio 7 : 5 was formed from the mixture of 7 : 3 by adding
3 A three digit number is such that this number itself is the Kerosene in it. If 240 litres petrol is required in the
divisible by the sum of its digits. The sum of hundreds and replacement method, what is the total amount of Kerosene
unit digit is 6 while the sum of the tens and unit digit is 5. was added to prepare the mixture of 7 : 5 ?
What is the ratio of unit and tens digit : (a) 100 litres (b) 400 litres
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 2 : 7 (c) 50 litres (d) 200 litres
258 QUANTUM CAT
7 Sometimes ago in a Cinema hall a blockbuster movie was 13 The ratio of age between A and B is 6 : 5 and the age of
being shown. Due to excessive demand of the show, 9
each C and D is times that of B. Age of F is less than A
manager of the cinema hall increased the prices of tickets 10
in all the three categories. 25% in first class, 12.5% in but greater than B. The ratio of ages between B and E is
special class and 40% in balcony. If the collection of one 2 : 3 also age of A is 3 years less than E. What is the ratio of
show was ` 218925, then find the collection from the ages of A and F if all the ages are in integers?
balcony only given that the ratio of price of ticket (a) 12 : 11 (b) 9 : 7
(increased price) for first class, special class and balcony is (c) 24 : 19 (d) 12 : 13
5 : 9 : 14 :
14 The ratio of students in a coaching preparing for B.Tech
(a) 109462.5 (b) 58800
and MBA is 4 : 5. The ratio of fees collected from each of B.
(c) 14400 (d) data insufficient Tech and MBA student is 25 : 16. If the total amount
8 In a mixture of petrol and Kerosene petrol is only 99 litres. collected from all the students is 1.62 lakh, what is the total
if this same quantity of petrol would be presented in amount collected from only MBA aspirants?
another mixture of petrol and Kerosene where total volume (a) ` 62000 (b) ` 72000
would be 198 litres less than the actual mixture then the (c) ` 80000 (d) none of these
concentration of petrol in the actual mixture would have
15 The cost of the marble varies directly with square of its
been 13.33% point less than that of the new mixture. What
weight. Marble is broken into 3 parts whose weights are in
is the concentration of petrol in actual mixture?
the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. If marble had been broken into three
(a) 20% (b) 16.66%
equal parts by weight then there would have been a further
(c) 26.66% (d) 8.33% loss of ` 1800. What is the actual cost of the original (or
9 A drum of 20 litres is filled with milk. A milkman has only unbroken) marble?
two measuring vessels of 3 litres and 5 litres without any (a) ` 3600 (b) ` 10800
calibration. He has to measure four litres of milk for a (c) ` 2160 (d) none of these
customer without using anyother vessel. Minimum how
many operations are required for this work, where an Directions (for Q. Nos. 16 and 17) Four friends A , B , C and D
operation is counted if the milk is transferred from one have some money among them one day they decided to equate the
vessel to another vessel? money, so first A gave B what B had initially, then B gave C what C
(a) 5 (b) 6 had initially. Again C gave D what D had initially and finally D had
(c) 8 (d) 11 doubled the money of A. Thus each of them had equal sum of ` 48.
10 The ages of Vinay, Varsha, Veera and Vikram are in 16 What was the initial amount of B ?
arithmetic progression, but not in order. The ratio of ages (a) ` 36 (b) ` 54
of Vinay and Varsha is 6 : 5 and Veera is to Vikram is 7 : 8. (c) ` 45 (d) ` 42
Two years later the age of Varsha and Vikram will be 2 : 3.
Find the ratio of ages of Vinay and Veera :
17 What was the amount with C after second transaction?
(a) ` 45 (b) ` 69 (c) ` 72 (d) ` 84
(a) 7 : 6 (b) 5 : 8
(c) 6 : 7 (d) 8 : 9 18 Hari and Murli have 24 cows and 30 cows respectively.
Both of them together hired a grazing field for the whole
11 A container is filled with the mixture of milk and water.
month of November. Initially Hari’s cows used for grazing
The ratio of milk and water is same. Bobby and Sunny
then for the remaining days of the month Murli’s cows
increases the concentration to 60%. Bobby makes it by
grazed it. If Hari has paid ` 3500 and Murli has paid ` 5000
adding the milk and Sunny makes it by replacing the
for grazing then for how many days Hari used the grazing
mixture with milk. What is the percentage of milk added by
field :
Bobby to that of milk replaced by Sunny :
(a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 21 (d) 20
(a) 100% (b) 120%
(c) 133.33% (d) None of these 19 The speeds of scooter, car and train are in the ratio of
1 : 4 : 16. If all of them covers equal distance then the ratio
12 There are two vessels A and B containing 25 litres each of
of time taken/velocity for the each of the vehicle is :
pure milk and pure water respectively. 5 litres of milk from (a) 256 : 16 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 : 16
A is taken and poured into B, then 6 litres of mixture from B (c) 16 : 4 : 1 (d) 16 : 1 : 4
is taken and poured in A. What is the ratio of water in
20 Radhika purchased one dozen bangles. One day she
A and B respectively :
slipped on the floor fell down. What cannot be the ratio of
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 1 : 4
broken to unbroken bangles :
(c) 5 : 4 (d) 2 : 3
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 5
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 259

 anp + cnq + enr 

1/ n 20
a c e, 28 An engine can move at the speed of m/s without any
21 If = = then the value of  n  : 3
b d f  b p + d nq + f nr
wagon attached. Reduction in the speed of the train is
ad af
(a) (b) directly proportional to the square root of the no. of
bc be wagons attached to the engine. When there are only four
ck
(c) (d) none of these  50
dk wagons attached its speed is   m/s. The greatest no. of
 9
22 At a casino in Mumbai, there are 3 tables A, B and C . The wagons with which the engine can move is :
pay-offs at A is 10 : 1, at B is 20 : 1 and at C is 30 : 1. If a man (a) 144 (b) 143
bets ` 200 at each table and win at two of the tables, what (c) 12 (d) none of these
is the maximum and minimum difference between his 29 Mrs. Annapurna per day sells exactly four quintal sugar at
earnings can be? ` 2000 per quintal getting the profit of ` 25%. Since she
(a) ` 2500 (b) ` 2000 mixes two varities of sugar, one costs ` 14 per kg and
(c) ` 4000 (d) none of these another costs ` 22 per kg. One day due to huge demand in
4 pq , m + 2p m + 2q market she had only 3 quintal of the required mixture so
23 If m = then the value of + :
p+ q m − 2p m − 2q she purchased the sugar costs ` 17 per kg at ` 18 per kg
(a) 2 (b) 4 from the wholeseller on that day and then she mixed
2mpq 300 kg mixture with 100 kg sugar costing ` 18 per kg to
(c) (d) none of these
( p + q) fulfill the demand of the market selling at the same price.
How much percent less does she gain that she would have
24 The ratio of volumes of two cubes is 8 : 27. What is the
gained, if she had sufficient quantity of usual mixture of
ratio of surface area of these cubes respectively? sugar?
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 9 (a) 12.5% (b) 18.18%
(c) 8 : 19 (d) 9 : 4 (c) 62.5% (d) can’t be determined
25 Dudheri Lal has two jars. Jar A is completely filled with 30 Two vessels P and Q contain ‘ a’ litres of petrol and ‘ b’ litres
milk and another jar B is totally empty. Before selling the
of Kerosene respectively. ‘ c’ litres of petrol and same
milk in a town he transferred some milk in to the empty jar
quantity of Kerosene is taken out and then transferred to
B then he fill the jar A with water. Once again he
Q and P respectively. This process is repeated several
transferred the mixture of milk from A to B so that B is
times. If after the first operation the quantity of petrol or
completely filled. Which one of the following is correct?
Kerosene in either of P and Q does not change. What is the
(a) Concentration of milk in B cannot be less than 75%
value of ‘ c’?
(b) Concentration of milk in B cannot be greater than ab 2ab
75% (a) (b)
(a − b) (a + b)
(c) Concentration of milk is always 75% 2
(d) none of the above ab  a
(c) (d)  
(a + b)  b
26 In ABC corporation there are some management trainees.
These trainees are divided into 3 groups A, B and C for 31 Arvind Singh purchased a 40 seater bus. He started his
3 different projects in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 respectively, services on route no. 2 (from Terhipuliya to Charbagh with
where P , Q , R are the projects-in-charge of A, B, C route length of 50 km). His profit (P) from the bus depends
respectively. The difference between the no. of trainees in upon the no. of passangers over a certain minimum
A and C is not greater than 3. Also P , Q , R belongs to the number of passangers ‘ n’ and upon the distance travelled
group of trainees. The no. of assistant of Q is less than the by bus. His profit is ` 3600 with 29 passangers in the bus
no. of assistance of R by : for a journey of 36 km and ` 6300 when there are
(a) 33.33% (b) 20% 36 passengers. travelled for 42 km. What is the minimum
(c) 25% (d) 16.66% no. of passangers are required so that he will not suffer any
a b c d e 1, loss?
27 If = = = = = then find the value of
b c d e f 3 (a) 12 (b) 20
 a + b + c + d + e (c) 18 (d) 15
 : 32 Three cats are roaming in a zoo in such a way that when cat
b+ c + d + e+ f
1 1 A takes 5 steps, B takes 6 steps and cat C takes 7 steps. But
(a) (b) the 6 steps of A are equal to the 7 steps of B and 8 steps of C.
81 27
1 What is the ratio of their speeds :
(c) (d) 1 (a) 140 : 144 : 147 (b) 40 : 44 : 47
3
(c) 15 : 21 : 28 (d) 252 : 245 : 240
260 QUANTUM CAT
33 In a family there were n people. The expenditure of rice per 40 A couple got married 9 years ago when the age of wife was
month in this family is directly proportional to the 5 times 20% less than her husband. 6 years from now the age of
the square of no. of people in the family. If the elder son left wife will be only 12.5% less than her husband. Now they
the family to study in USA there was decrease in have six children including single, twins and triplets and
consumption of 95 kg rice per month. What is the value of the ratio of their ages is 2 : 3 : 4 respectively. What can be
n? the maximum possible value for the present age of this
(a) 5 (b) 12 family?
(c) 9 (d) 10 (a) 110 years (b) 103 years
34 One day in summer I wanted to chill me out, I went to a (c) 105 years (d) 83 years
cool corner. I gave him a note of ` 10 and asked for a coke 41 The price of a necklace varies directly as the no. of pearls in
costing ` 5 per jar and he did so, but he returned me ` 5, in it. Also, it varies directly as the square root of radius of a
the denomination of ` 1, 50 paise and 25 paise. What could pearl. The price of a necklace was ` 150. When it had
be the ratio of no. of coins of ` 1, 50 paise and 25 paise 75 pearls each of radius 1 cm. Find the radius of the pearl of
respectively : a necklace having 100 pearls whose cost is ` 600.
(a) 2 : 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 7 : 2 (a) 2 (b) 9 (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) 6 : 1 : 3 (d) 2 : 1 : 2 42 The price of a book varies directly as the no. of pages in it
a b c and inversely as the time periods in years that have elapsed
35 If = = and a + b + c ≠ 0 then the value of
b+ c c+ a a+ b since the date of purchasing. Two books cost the same,
b however, the no. of pages in the first book is triple of the
is :
a+ b+ c second book. If the first book is sold on 18 years ago, how
1 1 long ago was the second book sold?
(a) (b) (a) 54 years (b) 9 years
2 3
1 (c) 6 years (d) 3 years
(c) (d) 1
4 43 Akbar and Birbal who purchased the shares for the cost of
36 The ratio of the density of 3 kinds of petrol P1, P2 and P3 is their basic salaries which are in the ratio of 5 : 6. later on
company gave them 40 additional shares to each, due to
9 : 7 : 5. The density of P1 is 18 gm/cc and P1, P2 and P3 are
which the ratio changed to 7 : 8. If the worth of each share
mixed in the ratio of 6 : 5 : 4 by weight. If a litre of P3 cost `
is ` 75, what is the basic salary of the person who got less
40, then find the cost of P3 in 450 kg of mixture of
shares?
P1, P2 and P3 :
(a) ` 10500 (b) ` 7500
(a) ` 380 (b) ` 480
(c) ` 8800 (d) ` 9000
(c) ` 355 (d) ` 448
37 Three persons Amar, Akbar and Anthony agree to pay their 44 Distance covered by a train is directly proportional to the
time taken and also it varies directly as the square root of
hotel bills in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. Amar pays the first day’s
fuel used and varies inversely as the no. of wagons attached
bill which amounts to ` 26.65, Akbar pays the second days
to it. A train coveres 192 km journey in 20 hours when
bill which amounts to ` 42.75 and C pays the third day’s bill
there are 10 wagons attached to it and total fuel
which amounts to ` 53.00. When they settle their accounts,
consumption was 256 litre of diesel. Find the consumption
which of the following happens?
of fuel per km when a train goes 200 km in 25 hours with
(a) Amar gives ` 3 to C
15 wagons attached to it :
(b) Akbar gives ` 2 to Amar
(a) 1.5 l/km (b) 2 l/km
(c) Amar gives Akbar ` 1.95 and ` 2 to Anthony
(c) 2.8 l/km (d) 20 l/km
(d) none of the above
45 At Sahara shopping centre, a person can purchase as much
38 Find the value of x if
articles at a time as his or her age that is a person of n years
(14 x − 4): (8 x − 1) = (3x + 8): (9 x + 5) :
age can purchase only n similar articles at a time. Amisha is
(a) 1 (b) 1/2
younger to her elder brother who has just entered into his
(c) 3/4 (d) none of these
twenties. One day Amisha went to the Sahara shopping
39 Pooja, Shipra and Monika are three sisters. Pooja and centre, she purchased same toffees at a particular rate on
Shipra are twins. The ratio of sum of the ages of Pooja and the ground floor. But when she reached on third floor she
Shipra is same as that of Monika alone. Three years earlier found that she could purchase double the no. of toffees
the ratio of age of Pooja and Monika was 2 : 7. What will be with the same amount as she had spent on the ground
the age of Shipra 3 years hence? floor. Also to purchase the same no. of toffees on the third
(a) 21 years (b) 16 years floor she had to spend ` 2 less than that of on the first floor.
(c) 8 years (d) 12 years How many toffees did she buy?
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 15
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 261

46 A contractor deployed some men to plant 1800 trees in a water. In turn D paid money, which was divided among
1 A, B and C in the ratio of their contribution to D. Thus A
certain no. of days. But in rd of the planned time 120 plants
3 had gotten thrice as much money as B had gotten. The price
could be less planted so to fulfill the target for the rest of the of each tumbler of soda water was ` 15 and each
days everyday 20 more plants were planted. Thus it saved transaction was integral in numbers either the sharing of
one day out of the initially planned no. of days. How many money or contribution of soda water. What was the sum of
plants he planned to plant each day initially? money that B had gotten?
(a) 180 (b) 100 (c) 120 (d) 160 (a) ` 15 (b) ` 18
47 A and B have to write 810 and 900 pages respectively in (c) ` 22.5 (d) none of these
the same time period. But A completes his work 3 days 49 In Maa Yatri Temple every devotee offers fruits to the
ahead of time and B completes 6 days ahead of time. How orphans. Thus every orphan receives bananas, oranges and
many pages did A write per hour if B wrote 21 pages more grapes in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 7 in terms of dozen. But the
in each hour? weight of a grape is 24 gm and weight of a banana and an
(a) 45 (b) 72 (c) 54 (d) 100 orange are in the ratio of 4 : 5, while the weight of an
48 Three friends A, B and C decided to share the soda water orange is 150 gm. Find the ratio of all the three fruits in
with D, who had no soda water. A contributed 2 tumbler terms of weight, that an orphan gets :
more than that of B and B contributed 1 tumbler more than (a) 90 : 75 : 42 (b) 180 : 150 : 82
that of C and then all of them had equal amount of soda (c) 75 : 42 : 90 (d) none of these

LEVEL 03 > Final Round

1 In two alloys the ratio of Iron and copper is 4 : 3 and 6 : 1 6 Two alloys made up of copper and tin. The ratio of copper
respectively. If 14 kg of the first alloy and 42 kg of the and tin in the first alloy is 1 : 3 and in the second alloy it is
second alloy are mixed together to form a new alloy, then 2 : 5. In what ratio the two alloys should be mixed to obtain
what will be the ratio of copper to iron in the new alloy : a new alloy in which the ratio of tin and copper be 8 : 3 ?
(a) 11 : 3 (b) 11 : 8 (a) 3 : 5 (b) 4 : 7 (c) 3 : 8 (d) 5 : 11
(c) 8 : 11 (d) none of these 7 Three vessels having volumes in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5 are full
2 In a zoo, there are rabbits and pigeons. If heads are of a mixture of water and milk. In the first vessel ratio of
counted, there are 340 heads and if legs are counted there water and milk is 1 : 3, in second 2 : 3 and in third vessel,
are 1060 legs. How many pigeons are there? 2 : 5. If all the three vessels were poured out in a large
(a) 120 (b) 150 container, what is the resulting ratio of milk and water?
(c) 180 (d) 170 (a) 43 : 96 (b) 438 : 962
3 6 litre is taken out from a vessel full of Kerosene and (c) 348 : 962 (d) 962 : 438
substituted by pure petrol. This process is repeated two 8 The number of oranges in three baskets are in the ratio of
more times. Finally the ratio of petrol and Kerosene in the 3 : 4 : 5. In which ratio the no. of oranges in first two
mixture becomes 1701 : 27. Find the volume of the original baskets must be increased so that the new ratio becomes
solution : 5: 4 : 3?
(a) 14 litre (b) 16 litre (a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 8 litre (d) 42 litre (c) 3 : 4 (d) 2 : 3
4 In three vessels, each of 25 litres capacity, mixture of milk 9 A vessel of capacity 2 litre has 25% alcohol and another
and water is filled. The ratio of milk and water are 3 : 1, vessel of capacity 6 litre had 40% alcohol. The total liquid
2 : 3, 4 : 3 in the respective vessels. If all the three vessels of 8 litre was poured out in a vessel of capacity 10 litre and
are emptied into a single large vessel, then what will be the thus the rest part of the vessel was filled with the water.
ratio of water to milk in the resultant mixture? What is the new concentration of mixture?
(a) 179 : 241 (b) 197 : 214 (a) 31% (b) 71%
(c) 219 : 117 (d) 179 : 234 (c) 49% (d) 29%
5 Two liquids are mixed in the ratio 4 : 3 and the mixture is 10 Alloy A contains 40% gold and 60% silver. Alloy B contains
1 35% gold and 40% silver and 25% copper. Alloys A and B
sold at ` 20 with a profit of 33 %. If the first liquid is
3 are mixed in the ratio of 1 : 4. What is the ratio of gold and
costlier than the second by ` 7. Find the sum of costs of silver in the newly formed alloy is?
both the liquids : (a) 20% and 30% (b) 36% and 44%
(a) ` 11 (b) ` 29 (c) ` 35 (d) ` 70 (c) 25% and 35% (d) 49% and 36%
262 QUANTUM CAT
11 Dia and Urea are two chemical fertilizers. Dia is consists of 14 There are 90 litres castrol and 150 litres CRB mobil oils.
N , P and K and Urea conists of only N and P . A mixture of The price of castrol is ` 80 per litre and price of CRB is
Dia and Urea is prepared in which the ratio of N , P and K is ` 75 per litre. Equal amount of castrol and CRB is taken out
26%, 68% and 6% respectively. The ratio of N , P and K in and then CRB is poured out in the vessel of castrol and
Dia is 20%, 70% and 10% respectively. What is the ratio of castrol is poured out in the vessel of CRB. Now the rate of
N and P in the Urea? both the mixtures is same. What is the amount of mobil oil
(a) 27% and 63% taken out from each of the vessel?
(b) 33% and 67% (a) 45 litres (b) 56.25 litres(c) 24.5 litres(d) 36 litres
(c) 35% and 65% 15 There are two containers, the first contain, 1 litre pure water
(d) 70% and 30% and the second contains 1 litre of pure milk. Now 5 cups of
12 The ratio of copper and nickel by weight in the two alloys water from the first container is taken out is mixed well in
X and Y are 2 : 7 and 5 : 4. How many kilogram of the alloy the second container. Then, 5 cups of this mixture is taken
X and Y are required to make 42 kg of new alloy Z in which out and is mixed in the first container. Let A denote the
the ratio of copper and nickel is same? proportion of milk in the first container and B denote the
(a) 6 kg and 36 kg (b) 10 kg and 32 kg proportion of water in the second container then :
(c) 7 kg and 35 kg (d) none of these (a) A < B (b) A = B
(c) A > B (d) can’t be determined
13 There are two alloys made up of copper and aluminium. In
the first alloy copper is half of the aluminium and in the 16 Mitthu Bhai sells rasgulla (a favourite indian sweets) at
second alloy copper is thrice as much as aluminium. How ` 15 per kg. A rasgulla is madeup of flour and sugar in the
many times the second alloy must be mixed with first alloy ratio of 5 : 3. The ratio of price of sugar and flour is 7 : 3 (per
2
to get the new alloy in which copper is twice as that of kg). Thus he earns 66 % profit. What is the cost price of
aluminium? 3
(a) 2 (b) 3 sugar?
(c) 4 (d) 5 (a) ` 10/kg (b) ` 9/kg (c) `18/kg (d) `14/kg

Answers
Introductory Exercise 4.1
1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (d)
11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 (b) 20 (b)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (d) 26 (a) 27 (c) 28 (c)

Introductory Exercise 4.2

1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d)
11 (a) 12 (b)

Introductory Exercise 4.3

1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 (d) 5 (c)

Introductory Exercise 4.4

1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (d) 6 (c)

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise

1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (a) 24 (c) 25 (c) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (d) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (d) 33 (d) 34 (b) 35 (c) 36 (c) 37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (d) 40 (c)
41 (a) 42 (c) 43 (b) 44 (c) 45 (d) 46 (d) 47 (c) 48 (b) 49 (c) 50 (b)
51 (d) 52 (d) 53 (a) 54 (d) 55 (a) 56 (c) 57 (c) 58 (b) 59 (c) 60 (c)
61 (d)
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 263

Level 02 Higher Level Exercise

1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (c)
21 (c) 22 (c) 23 (a) 24 (b) 25 (a) 26 (c) 27 (c) 28 (b) 29 (a) 30 (c)
31 (d) 32 (a) 33 (d) 34 (b) 35 (b) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (b) 39 (c) 40 (b)
41 (b) 42 (c) 43 (b) 44 (b) 45 (b) 46 (b) 47 (c) 48 (a) 49 (a)

Level 03 Final Round

1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (c) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (b) 16 (d)

Hints & Solutions

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise Let b = 1, then a : b = a : 1 (by putting b = 1)
1 a : b :: c : d ∴ a − a−1 = 0
2

a + b + c + d = 50
2 2 2 2 1± 5 Solving quadratic equation 
⇒ a=  
2  by Sridharacharya’ s formula
b+ c=5
and a: b = 1 : 3 1+ 5
∴ a= (negative value can’t be considered)
If consider a : b = 1 : 3 as it is, then 2
c=2 (5 − 3 = 2) 1+ 5
a: b = :1
and d=6 (Q a : b :: c : d ) 2
a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 = 12 + 32 + 22 + 62 = 50 or a : b = (1 + 5) : 2
b 2 2
Hence, the presumed values are correct. Therefore, = =
a+ b 1 + 5 + 2 3+ 5
a+ b+ c+ d
Thus, the average of a, b, c and d = Hence option (b) is correct.
4
1 + 3+ 2+ 6 3 The best way is to go through options
= =3
4 x + y 8 + 2 10 5
= = = (verified)
Hence (b) is correct. x− y 8−2 6 3
Alternatively Assume option (b) x 8
Again = =2 (verified)
a+ b+ c+ d y + 2 2+ 2
Q =3
4 Hence option (d) is correct.
⇒ a + b + c + d = 12
4 Best way is to go through options
Now Q b+ c=5
a3 + b3 53 + 23 125 + 8 133
⇒ a+ d =7 and = = =
a3 − b3 53 − 23 125 − 8 117
Again a: b = 1 : 3
⇒ c : d = 2: 6 Hence option (c) is correct.
Now verify that a + b + c + d = 50. Since it is correct.
2 2 2 2 5 H : S =1:1
Hence option (b) is correct. and S : G = 2: 3
H : P =1: 2
NOTE It can also be solved by forming quadratic equations.
∴ H : S : G : P = 2: 2: 3: 4
a a+ b = 2x : 2x : 3x : 4 x
2 =
b a 2x + 2x + 3x + 4 x 11 x
a b Therefore = = 55
⇒ a = ab + b2
2
4 4
⇒ a − b − ab = 0
2 2
⇒ x = 20
264 QUANTUM CAT
Marks in History = 40 11 Share of a man, a woman and a boy = 7 x, 4 x and 3x
Sociology = 40 then the share of 4 men = 4 × 7 x = 28 x
Geography = 60
then the share of 5 women = 5 × 4 x = 20 x
Philosophy = 80
then the share of 2 boys = 2 × 3x = 6 x
Hence, only in two subjects he scored 60% or above. 20 x
Hence option (b) is correct. Now, the share of all women = × 4536
(28 x + 20 x + 6 x )
6 Let the incomes of A and M is 2x and 3x. 20
=
× 4536 = ` 1680
Let the savings of A be K, then the expenditure of M be K 54
Also expenditure of A = 2x − K 1680
Hence, the share of one woman = = 336
Given (2x − K ) + K = 8000 ⇒ x = 4000 5
∴Total income of 12 Concentration of petrol in
A and B = 2x + 3x = 5x = 5 × 4000 = 20000 A B C
∴Total savings of A and B = 20000 − 8000 = ` 12,000 1 3 4
Profit of Hutch 2 5 5
7
Profit of Essar Quantity of petrol taken from A = 1 litre out of 2 litre
time period × amount of Hutch invested Quantity of petrol taken from B = 1.8 litre out of 3 litre
=
time period × amount of Essar invested Quantity of petrol taken from C = 0.8 litre out of 1 litre
6 5× K Therefore total petrol taken out from
=
17 12 × 1275 A, B and C = 1 + 1.8 + 0.8 = 3.6 litre
6 × 12 × 1275 So, the quantity of Kerosene = (2 + 3 + 1) − (3.6)= 2.4 litre
⇒ K= = 1080 3.6 3
17 × 5 Thus, the ratio of petrol to Kerosene = =
2.4 2
8 Minimum number of chocolates are possible when he
l l
purchases maximum number of costliest chocolates. 13 T ∝ ⇒ T =k
g g
Thus 2 × 5 + 5 × 2 = ` 20
Now ` 100 must be spend on 10 chocolates as 9 3
Therefore, 3 = K or 3 = K ⇒ K =2
100 = 10 × 10. 4 2
Thus minimum number of chocolates = 5 + 2 + 10 = 17 l 64
Again T =K = 2× =4
9 Maximum number of chocolates are possible only when he g 16
purchases minimum number of costlier chocolates and
T = 4 seconds
maximum number of cheaper chocolates
∴ 2 × 5 + 1 × 10 = ` 20 14 Pure Cure Lure
Now ` 100 must be spend on 50 chocolates as 100 = 2 × 50. 100% 40% 37.5%
Thus maximum number of possible chocolates 1 2 3
= 2 + 1 + 50 = 53 1 5 8
10 Meretere → M, Teremere → T and Khabbu Singh → K Milk Water Mixture
5+ 3 Cure 4l 10l 14l
= 2.66 (since all the 8 chocolates were shared by 3)
3 Lure 6l 16l 22 l
It means M has given 5 − 2.66 = 2.33 chocolates to K New mixture Milk Water
and T has given 3 − 2.66 = 0.33 chocolates to K 10l 26l
Thus M and T will receive the amount in the ratio of +
16l
donations (i.e., share of chocolates) 26l 26l
M : T Required mixture 1 : 1
2.33 : 0.33 Since in the required mixture the ratio of milk and water is
1 1 1 : 1 so she has to add up 16 litre of more milk (pure) to get
2 :
3 3 it, for the fixed quantity of water.
7
:
1 15 S : (M + J ) = 5 : 7 ⇒ 7 S = 5M + 5J …(i)
3 3 J : (S + M ) = 1 : 2 ⇒ 2 J = S + M …(ii)
7 : 1 By solving eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
So the M receives ` 14 and T receives ` 2 S : M : J = 5: 3: 4
Thus the difference = ` 12 So S : M = 5: 3
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 265

16 Male Female 20 LCM of 2, 3, 5, 8 = 120

A 4x : 3x 1
B 3y : 2y Therefore, × 120 = 60
2
C 5z : 4z 1
× 120 = 40
but 2y = 4z 3
∴ Male Female 1
× 120 = 24
A 4x : 3x 5
B 6z : 4z 1
× 120 = 15
C 5z : 4z 8
Therefore, 7 x + 19z = 33 Therefore, minimum number of chocolates
but z can assume only one value i.e., z = 1 = 60 + 40 + 24 + 15 = 139
Hence, 7 x + 19 = 33 ⇒ x = 2 21 A : B = 5: 3
Thus the no. of female children in factory A = 3x = 6. B : C = 5: 8
17 The ratio of broken parts (by weight) = 3x : 4 x : 5x ∴ A : B : C = 25 : 15 : 24
So, A is the most efficient.
Therefore value of broken parts of diamond
= (3x )2 + (4 x )2 + (5x )2 = 50 x 2 22 A : B = 5 : 4 ⇒ 10 : 8
A : C = 2 : 3 ⇒ 10 : 15
The value of original diamond = (3x + 4 x + 5x )2 = 144 x 2
∴ A : B : C = 10 : 8 : 15
Therefore, loss in value = 144 x 2 − 50 x 2 = 9.4 lakh ∴ B : C = 8 : 15
⇒ 94 x 2 = 9.4 lakh 23 A B C
⇒ 94 x 2 = 940000  Proportion of milk 1 2 3
  : :
⇒ x 2 = 10000  in mixture  3 5 7
35 42 45
Hence, the actual value of the diamond = 144 x 2 or : :
105 105 105
= 144 × 10000 Quantity of milk in new mixture = 35 + 42 + 45 = 122 l
= 14.4 lakh Quantity of water in new mixture = (105 × 3) − 122 = 193 l
18. 10 x + 20 y + 100z = 1600 Therefore, ratio of water is to milk = 193 : 122
Again since x : y = 6:1 24 A: B = 8: 9
∴ 60 y + 20 y + 100z = 1600 B : C = 2: 3
⇒ 80 y + 100z = 1600 C : D = 9 : 13
⇒ 4 y + 5z = 80 A : B : C : D = 144 x : 162x : 243x : 351 x
Putting z = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 …, we get at z = 4, y = 15 But we need not to solve this, since we already know that
(an integer) B : C = 2x : 3x
Hence, min. 4 coins of ` 1 will be there. ∴ 2x : 3x :: 18 : k ⇒ k = 27 years
2
19 Concentration of water in first vessel = = 40% 25 Milk Water
5 5x 3x (initially)
2
Concentration of water in second vessel = = 28.57%
7 –25l –15l
By alligation
2 2 5x – 25 3x – 15 (after selling 40l mixture)
7 5 +15l
1
3
5x – 25 3x (after adding 15l water)
2– 1 1– 2 5 : 4
5 3 3 7
5x − 25 5
∴ = ⇒ x = 20
1 1 3x 4
:
15 21 ∴ New quantity of mixture = (5x − 25) + 3x = 135 litre
21 : 15 26 A B
7 : 5
C :T C :T
Therefore, ratio of first mixture to the second mixture
5: 3 5 : 11
= 5: 7
5
Concentration of copper in A =
8
266 QUANTUM CAT
5 32 The best way is to consider some values in the proportion
Concentration of copper in B =
16 and verify the option, but care should be taken that in this
By alligation type of question you are required to verify a possible
(B) 5 5 (A) correct option atleast with 2-3 times with different values.
16 8 Since, if you consider p : q :: r : s ⇒ 1 : 2 :: 3 : 6
1
2 you will find answer (b) is also correct, but for only
particular values. So it is not the general solution. Finally
5– 1 1– 5
8 2 2 16 you will realize that option (d) is the most appropriate
answer.
2 3
: 33 Solve by componendo and dividendo or as mentioned in
16 16 the previous solution.
2 : 3 34 Since for the constant distance time is inversely
So, the required ratio of A : B = 3 : 2 (Since B : A = 2 : 3) proportional to the speed. So, the required ratio of time
27 k + 10 x = 6000 taken by each of the rickshaw, car and scooter is
1 1 1
k + 25x = 9000 (Q 25 × 360 = 9000) : : ⇒ 10 : 6 : 5
3 5 6
⇒ 15x = 3000 1 10 1 6 1 5 10 6 5 
× : × : × = : : = 10 : 6 : 5
⇒ x = 200 and k = 4000  3 10 5 6 6 5 30 30 30 
∴ k + 40 x = 4000 + 40 × 200 = 12, 000
35 A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 3 : 5
Where k is the fixed expenditure.
⇒ A : B : C = 2: 3: 5
28 Third proportional of 21 and 42 is 84 and mean
∴ ( A + B ): C = 5 : 5 = 1 : 1
proportional to 16 and 49 is 28. 1
84 3 Hence, Share of ( A + B ) = × 6940 = 3470
Therefore required ratio = = or 3 : 1 2
28 1
36 x + y = 93 …(i)
29 P ∝ l ⇒ P =k l x + 3 24
and =
∴ 52 = k 16 ⇒ k = 13 y + 2 25
Again, P =k l ⇒ 25x − 24 y = (−27 ) …(ii)
65 = 13 l From eqs. number (i) and (ii)
⇒ l = 25 cm x = 45 and y = 48
m + n 7x m 4x
30 = ⇒ = Alternatively Go through options.
m−n x n 3x a 4x a + 4 21
37 = and =
Again mn = 4 x × 3x = 12x 2 b 9x b + 4 46
and mn = 60 x ⇒ a = 80 and b = 180
So 60 x = 12x 2 ⇒ x = 5 ∴ b − a = 100
∴ m = 20 and n = 15 R 3x R 3x + 10 5
38 = and ⇒ = ⇒x=5
1 1 1 1 D 5x D 5x + 10 7
Hence, : = : = 3: 4
m n 20 15 R 15
m 4x 1 1 Hence, =
Alternatively = ; : = 3: 4 D 25
n 3x m n Alternatively Go through options.
31 A+B : C+D x x + 5 11
123 123 39 Let the fraction be then = ⇒ 11 y − 15x = 20
2 1 y y + 5 15
and { C and {
B : { C : {
D Since, we have only one equation in two variables, so we
3 1 3 5 cannot find the solution.
⇒ B :C : D 2x + 3x + 5x + 8 x + 9 x 162
40 = = 32.4
9 : 3: 5 5 5
Again A + B :C + D 41 The number of days required by a single Kirlosker pump to
7+9 3+ 5 fill the tank = 6 × 7 = 42 days and the number of days
123 123 required by a single USHA pump to fill the same tanks
16 8 = 2 × 18 = 36 days. Now, since efficiency is inversely
Thus A + B = 16 ⇒ A = 7 when B = 9 proportional to the number of days. Hence,
7 Efficiency of one K- pump 36 6
∴ Therefore share of A = × 9600 = ` 280 = =
24 Efficiency of U- pump 42 7
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 267

1 C 3x
42 th field can be reaped by 96 man days 50 =
5 R 5x
4 C 3x × 3 4
∴ th field can be reaped by 96 × 4 = 384 man days Again = = ⇒ x = 16
5 R (5x + 100) 5
Now, since there are only 8 days so reqired ∴ Price of Rotomac pen in 2000 was ` 80.
384
number of men = = 48 men 51 By Alligation
8 (– 4) (15)
43 210 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7
8
N1 2k × 5 × 7
Therefore, = 7 : 12
N 2 3k × 5 × 7
Now, we get the ratio of no. of rings sold at a loss and profit
Since, N1 : N 2 = 2 : 3 is 7 : 12.
Therefore, N1 = 70 and N 2 = 105 12
∴ Number of rings sold at profit = × 361 = 228
∴ N1 + N 2 = 70 + 105 = 175 19
(53 − x ) (41 − x ) Alternatively Go through options.
44 = ⇒ x=5
(21 − x ) (17 − x ) 52 Best way is to go through options.
Alternatively Go through options. 180 70
Consider option (d) + = 6 + 2 = 8 hrs
45 2x + 3x + 4 x = 180 ⇒ x = 20 ∴ 4 x = 80 30 35
Hence, (d) is correct.
46 (25 × 12x ) + (50 × 4 x ) + (100 × 3x ) = 800 x = 60000
x 250 − x
⇒ x = 75 Alternatively + =8
30 35
∴ Number of coins of 25 paise = 12x = 12 × 75 = 900 ⇒ x = 180 miles
Alternatively Go through options, choices (a), (b) and Alternatively Since the Average Speed
(c) are eliminated since neither of 200, 225, 275 is divisible Total Distance 250
by 12. Hence choice (d) is correct. = = miles/hr
Total Time 8
47 Go through options.
( x − a) ( x − b) ( x − c) ∴ By Alligation
Alternatively = = =k 30 35
11 9 5
250
⇒ a = x − 11k 8
b = x − 9k 3 : 1
c = x − 5k Therefore, the ratio of time taken @ 30 m/hr and @
( x − 11k ) + ( x − 9k ) + ( x − 5k ) 35 m/hr is in the ratio of 3 : 1. It means he has travelled @
∴ x=
2 30 m/hr for 6 hr.
2x = 3x − 25k ⇒ x = 25k Therefore, the distance travelled by car is 180.
(Q Distance = Speed × Time).
a = 14k ⇒ b = 16k and c = 20k
22 17
∴ a : b : c = 14 : 16 : 20 = 7 : 8 : 10. 53 : =1:1
22 17
48 If the weight of kerosene be k kg/unit volume, then 1 1 1 1
Weight of petrol = 7 k/unit volume 54 : : :
3 4 5 6
Weight of castrol = 18k/unit volume
20 15 12 10
Required weight of the mixture = 11k/unit volume ⇒ : : : (by taking LCM)
60 16 60 60
By Alligation 7k 18k
⇒ 20 : 15 : 12 : 10
11k 20
∴ Largest share = × 171
7k 4k (20 + 15 + 12 + 10)
7 : 4 20
= × 171 = 60.
The required ratio is 7 : 4. 57
49 By Alligation –5 8 55 Let the present age of Karishma and Babita be x and y then
x − 10 1
0 = …(i)
y − 10 3
8 5
x + 14 5
The ratio of price of pigeons sold at loss and profit Again = …(ii)
respectively are in the ratio of 8 : 5 y + 14 9
5 By solving eqs. (i) and (ii) we get x = 26 and y = 58
∴ Cost price of profitable pigeon = × 182 = ` 70.
8+ 5
268 QUANTUM CAT
k k+ x (k + x ) 1 Again W = 2 × 1.5 × 30
56 Let the fraction be , then = =
5k 5k + 5x 5(k + x ) 5 ∴ W = 90

57 x∝y and x∝
1 60 (a + b): (b + c): (c + a) = 5x : 6 x : 9 x
z2 And a + b + c = 10
y y
x∝ 2 ⇒ x=k 2 ⇒ (a + b) + (b + c) + (c + a) = 20 x
z z
75 ⇒ a + b + c = 10 x
6=k× ⇒ k=2
(5)2 ⇒ a + b + c = 10 (Q x = 1)
24 ∴ c = (a + b + c) − (a + b)
Again x = 2× ⇒ x=3
(4)2 or c = 10 − 5 = 5
58 x ∝ (y + z ) ⇒
2 2
x = k (y + z )
2 2 61 A B C
3x 4x 5x
15 = k (12 + 22 ) ⇒ k = 3 1 1
(3x + x ) 2x (5x + x ) (B gives to A and to C)
Again 39 = 3 × (22 + z 2 ) 4 4
= 4x 2x 6x
1
⇒ 13 = (4 + z 2 ) ⇒ z = 3 (4 x + x ) 2x (5x ) (C gives to A)
6
59 W ∝ HA ⇒ W = K × H × A 5x 2x 5x
Now, 48 = K × 1.2 × 20 ⇒ K = 2 5 : 2 : 5

Level 02 Higher Level Exercise

1 M1 M2 Alternatively Go through options by assuming some

prices.
D:S D:S
3 Let the number be 100 x + 10 y + z, then
7:3 5: 4
New Mixture x + z = 6 and y + z = 5
Also, from the given options only option (b) is suitable
D S
i.e., y + z = 5 or 3 + 2 = 5
2 : 1
7 4 Water Pulp
Proportion of Dew in M 1 = 4x x
10
5 3y 2y
Proportion of Dew in M 2 = But x = 2y since pulp remains contant
9
2 Water Pulp
Proportion of new mixture = (required) 8 y 2y
3 5y = loss in water → 
By alligation rule 3y 2y
7 5 But 10 y = ( 8 y + 2y ) = 1.5 kg
10 9 ∴ 5y = ( 3y + 2y ) = 0.75 kg
2 5 Cost price : Selling price
3 1 1
:
 2 5 7 2 9 6
 −   − 
 3 9  10 3 or 2 : 3
3 1 CP : SP = 2 : 3
27 30 Since profit = SP − CP
1 1 ∴ Profit = 3 − 2 = 1
or :
9 30 ∴ Profit : CP = 1 : 2
or 10 : 3 6 Flow Chart :
2 The ratio of quantities = 140 : 60 = 7 : 3 P : K
(140 × 3) + (60 × 7 ) 7x : 3x
∴ The quantity to be exchanged =
2 (7 + 3)
+ Kerosene by addition
= 42 litre
Step 1 7x : 5x
NOTE In this question individual prices are not required.
by replacement
You can solve it by forming equation. Step 2 3x : x
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 269

By the replacement formula from alligation chapter 2 2 k 4  k

= 1 −  ⇒ = 1 − 
1 5  240 3  240 5 4 4 5  4
= 1 −  ⇒ = 1 − 
4 12  12x  5  12x  1 k 4
⇒ = ⇒ k=
2 20 5 4 5
⇒ = ⇒ x = 50
5 x It means Bobby will add up 1 litre of milk, in 4 litre of initial
Therefore, half of the initial amount = (350 + 150) litres mixture, to prepare 5 litres mixture in the ratio of 3 : 2.
then, the required amount of kerosene 4
It means Sunny will replace litre of initial mixture by the
= 5x − 3x = 2x = 100 litres 5
same quantity of pure milk.
But for the whole amount required kerosene to be added
= 200 litres Hence, the percentage of milk added by Bobby to that of
1
7 Data insufficient. Since we don’t know that how many replace by Sunny = × 100 = 125%
4/ 5
persons bought ticket of all the categories individually
i.e., 5x + 9 y + 14z = 213925 12 A B
But we don’t know anything about x, y and z. Milk Water Milk Water
After  25l 0 0 25l
8 Petrol Kerosene Total Mixture 
first  20l 0 5l 25l
99 x 99 + x 
operation  1:5
99 ( x − 198) ( x − 99) After 
Again
99
× 100 −
99
× 100 = 13.33 second  21l 5l 4l 20l
( x − 99) ( x + 99) operation 
 x + 99 − x + 99 Therefore, the ratio of water in A and B is 1 : 4
or 9900   = 13.33 5
 x 2 − 992  13 B= A …(i)
6
9900 (198) 40
or = 9
x 2 − 992 3 And C =D= B …(ii)
10
⇒ x 2 − 992 = 992 × 15 2
Also B= E …(iii)
⇒ x 2 = (99)2 × (16) 3
⇒ x = 99 × 4 = 396 litres And E −A=3 …(iv)
A 4 5
Therefore the actual concentration of petrol From eqs. (i) and (iii), we get = or E = A …(v)
99 E 5 4
= = 20% 5A
(99 + 396) ∴E−A= − A = 3 From eqs. (iv) and (v), weget
4
9 Do it yourself.
⇒ A = 12 and E = 15 and B = 10
10 Varsha : Vinay = 5 : 6 = 5x : 6 x
Also C = D = 9 and F = 11, since B < F < A and F is integer
Veera : Vikram = 7 : 8 = 7 y : 8 y
∴ A : F = 12 : 11
But their ages are in A.P.
Therefore, 6 x − 5x = 8 y − 7 y 14 The ratio of fees collected from B.Tech : MBA
⇒ x=y = 4 x × 25y : 5x × 16 y
5x + 2 2 = 100 xy : 80 xy
Again, =
8y + 2 3 = 5xy : 4 xy = 5k : 4k
5x + 2 2 The amount collected only from MBA students
⇒ = ⇒ x=2
8x + 2 3 4
= × 1.62 lakh
Therefore, the ages of Varsha, Vinay, Veera and Vikram are 9
10, 12, 14 and 16 years respectively. = ` 72,000
Therefore, the ratio of ages of Vinay and Veera = 6 : 7,
15 C ∝ (W )2
11 Bobby Sunny
Milk Water Milk Water W1 : W2 : W3 = 3 : 4 : 5
1 : 1 1 : 1 Cost = (3x )2 + (4 x )2 + (5x )2 = 50 ( x )2
50% 50% 50% 50%
2 2 By replacement method Again W1 : W2 : W3 = 4 : 4 : 4 (when weights are equal)
Cost = (4 x )2 + (4 x )2 + (4 x )2 = 48 x 2
60% 40% Loss = 50 x 2 − 48 x 2 = 2x 2
3 : 2
270 QUANTUM CAT
1800 = 2x 2 B → 20 : 1
x = 30 C → 30 : 1
∴ Actual cost of unbroken marble = (4 x + 4 x + 4 x )2 i.e., he won on B and C but lost on A

= (12x )2 = 144 x 2 20 × 200 + 30 × 200 − 1 × 200 = 9800

Minimum earning will be when he won on table A and B
= 144 × x 2 and lose on that table 3.
= 144 × 900 = 129600 ∴ 10 × 200 + 20 × 200 − 1 × 200
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 16 and 17) 6000 − 200 = 5800
A B C D Therefore, difference = 9800 − 5800 = 4000
Initially 69 45 42 36 Alternatively the difference
A→ B 24 90 42 36 = [(30 + 20 − 1) − (10 + 20 − 1)] × 200
B→C 24 48 84 36
= 20 × 200 = ` 4000.
C→D 24 48 48 72
m + 2p m + 2q
D→ A 48 48 48 48 23 +
m − 2p m − 2q
Solve it in reverse order (i.e., from the result side)
m m
18 Ratio of price paid by Hari and Murli = 7 : 10 = + (by componendo and dividendo)
2p 2q
or (24 × x ): 30 × (30 − x ) = 7 : 10  p + q
=m 
⇒ x = 14  2pq 
or go through options.  4 pq   p + q
19 Since distance is constant. Therefore ratio of speeds of =    substituting the value of
 p + q  2pq 
scooter, car and train = 1 : 4 : 16
4 pq
and therefore, ratio of time taken = 16 : 4 : 1 m= =2
16 4 1 p+ q
Therefore, required ratio = : :
1 4 16 24 Volume of a cube =(side)3 =(a)3
1 Surface area of a cube = 6 (a)2 (a → side)
= 16 : 1 : = 256 : 16 : 1
16
a13 : a23 = 8 : 27
20 Since there are 12 bangles, then the no. of broken to
unbroken bangles cannot be 2 : 3, since 5x = (2x + 3x ) can ⇒ a1 : a2 = 2 : 3
not divide 12 for any integral value of x i.e., all the sum of ⇒ a12 : a22 = 4 : 9
ratios which are the factors of 12 can possibly be the ratio
of broken to unbroken. ⇒ 6a12 : 6a22 = 4 : 9
a c e 25 Clearly it can not be less than 75%. For clarification of
21 = = =k
b d f concept consider some values and then verify it.
an
c e n n 26 A : B : C = 3x : 4 x : 5x
⇒ = = = kn
bn d n f n But C − A = 5x − 3x ≤ 3
n
ap cq er n n or C − A = 2x ≤ 3 ⇒ x = 1 ⇒ C − A = 2
⇒ = = = kn
bnp d nq f nr ∴ A : B : C = 3: 4 : 5
Therefore, number of assistant trainee (except project in
anp + cnq + enr
∴ = (k n) charge) of Q = 3 and assistant trainee of R = 4
bnp + d nq + f nr 4−3
1 Therefore, required percentage = × 100
 anp + cnq + enr  n 4
∴  n  = (k n)1/ n 1
 b p + cnq + f nr = × 100 = 25%
4
1/ n
 anp + cnq + enr  a c e 27 b = 3 a
∴  n  =k= = =
 b p + d nq + f nr b d f c = 3b = 9a
Hence (c) is the possible answer. d = 3c = 9b = 27 a
e = 3d = 9c = 27 b = 81a and f = 3e = 243 a
22 Maximum earning will be only when he will won on the
maximum yielding table. put the values and simplify.
a c e a+ c+ e
A → 10 : 1 or we know that = = K =
b d f b+ d+ f
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 271

28 Let w be the number of wagons and s be the speed of engine ab

⇒ c= ,
without wagon =
20
m/s = 24 km/hr. a+ b
3 Hence option (c) is correct.
Then speed of the train = s − k w Since at this moment the concentration in both vessels is
50 same.
∴ 20 = 24 − k 4 [Q m/s = 20 km/hr]
9 31 The minimum number of passengers n, at which there is no
∴ k=2 loss and number of passengers travelling = m and let the
When train will stop its speed becomes zero distance travelled is d, then
0 = 24 − 2 w (Q k = 2) P ∝ (m − n)d
⇒ w = 144 or p = k (m − n) d; k is a constant.
Since at 144 wagons train will stop, so at 143 wagons train when P = 3600, m = 29 and d = 36, then
just can move with its least possible speed having 3600 = k(29 − n) × 36 …(i)
maximum possible wagons. Again, when p = 6300, m = 36, d = 42 km
29 Cost of 1 kg (mixture) of sugar = ` 16/kg 6300 = k(36 − n) × 42 …(ii)
Since selling price is ` 20/kg Dividing eqs. (ii) by (i), weget
Therefore, ratio of quantity of sugar costing ` 14 and 6300 k (36 − n) × 42
=
` 22 per kg = 3 : 1 3600 k (29 − n) × 36
14 22 (36 − n) 9
⇒ = ⇒ 3n = 45
16 (29 − n) 6
6 2 ⇒ n = 15
3 : 1
Hence to avoid loss, minimum number of 15 passengers are
So, the available stock of mixture costing ` 16 = 3 quintal required.
and the required stock of sugar costing ` 18 = 1 quintal
32 Frequency of step of A : B : C = 5 : 6 : 7
Therefore, the new price of mixture costing 3 quintal of
sugar @ ` 16/kg and 1 quintal of sugar @ ` 18 per kg but it terms of size of step, 6 A = 7 B = 8C
5 6 7
16 18 ∴ Ratio of speeds of A, B and C = : :
6 7 8
x = 280 : 288 : 294
3 : 1 = 140 : 144 : 147
∴ x = ` 16.5 per kg 33 Expenditure = 5 (no. of family members) 2
New price = ` 16.5 per kg ⇒ E1 = 5(n)2 …(i)
Now, original profit = 20 − 16 = ` 4 per kg Again E 2 = 5(n − 1)2 …(ii)
New profit = 20 − 16.5 = ` 3.5 per kg
But E1 − E 2 = 95
4 − 3.5
∴ Percentage reduction in profit = × 100 = 12.5% ∴ 5[ n2 − (n − 1)2] = 95
4
5[ n2 − (n2 + 1 − 2n)] = 95
30
P Q n2 − n2 − 1 + 2n = 19
⇒ 2n = 20
⇒ n = 10
Initial amounts a (petrol) b (kerosene)
34 Finally I have ` 5
After one a − c (petrol) b − c (kerosene) Consider option (a)
operation c (kerosene) c (petrol)
2 × 100 + 3 × 50 + 1 × 25 = 375 paise
Since there is no change in concentration in the second, Its integer multiple cannot give the value equals to 500. So
third… etc operations.
cannot be true.
c
In the vessel P; The fraction of kerosene in P is Consider option (b)
a
In the vessel Q ; 1 × 100 + 7 × 50 + 2 × 25 = 500 paise, can be true
 b − c But we also check the option (c) and (d) Now when you
The fraction of kerosene in Q is  
 b  check the choices (c) and (d) you will find wrong as
 b − c c choice (a).
∴   = ⇒ c (a + b) = ab
 b  a So, only choice be could be the best answer.
272 QUANTUM CAT
35 By componendo and dividendo : 41 P ∝n r ⇒ P = kn r
a b Where P is the price of necklace, n is number of pearls and r
=
b+ c c+ a is the radius of a pearl.
a+ b+ c b+ c+ a Now 150 = k × 75 × 1 ⇒ k = 2
=
a−b−c b−c−a Again 600 = 2 × 100 × r
⇒ a−b−c=b−c−a ⇒ r = 3 ⇒ r = 9 cm
N N
⇒ a=b 42 P ∝ ⇒ P =K
T T
Similarily a=b=c
P → Price of a book, N → Number of Pages, T → Time
b 1
∴ = period
a+ b+ c 3
P1 = P2
36 Density of P1, P2 and P3 are 18, 14 and 10 gm/cc N1 N
∴ K =K 2
weight T1 T2
Again since volume =
density 3N N
⇒ =
450 × 4 18 T
Now the weight of P3 in 450 kg mixture = = 120 kg T = 6 years
15
120 5x + 40 7 Akbar
Now the volume of P3 = = 12 litre 43 = ⇒
10 6 x + 40 8 Birbal
∴The cost of 12 litre P3 petrol = 12 × 40 = ` 480 ⇒ x = 20
37 26.65 + 42.75 + 53 = 122.40 ∴The actual number of shares of less salaried person
= 100 Q (5 × 20 = 100)
Proportionate amount of Amar, Akbar and Anthony in the
ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 is ` 30.60, ` 40.80 and ` 51 respectively. ∴The salary of Akbar = 100 × 75 = 7500
Now Amar Akbar Anthony F ×T
44 D ∝ , D → Distance, F → Fuel, T → Time, W → No.
30.60 40.80 51.00 W
F ×T 256 × 20
26.65 42.75 53.00 of wagons D = k ; 192 = k ⇒k = 6
W 10
So, Amar pays ` 1.95 to Akbar and ` 2 to Anthony.
6 × F × 25
38 The best way is to go through options Again 200 =
15
Alternatively Solve by cross product rule and ⇒ F = 20 ⇒ F = 400 litre
componendo. 400
∴ Fuel used per km = = 2 l/km
39 Since Pooja and Shipra are twins so their ages be same. Let 200
their ages be x and age of Monika be y, then, 45 Just go through option and factorize the product into two
x+ x=y …(i) factors such that the given conditions must satisfy.
( x − 3) 2 e.g., 6 =1 × 6
and =
( y − 3) 7 2× 3
⇒ 7 x − 2y = 15 3× 2
Now, from eqs. (i), weget 6 ×1
It is not true.
7 x − 4 x = 15 ⇒ x=5
Again consider option (b)
So the age of Shipra 3 years hence will be 5 + 3 = 8 years.
12 = 1 × 12
H −9 5 H+6 8
40 = and = 2× 6
W −9 4 W +6 7 3 × 4 → 3 × 4 = 12
∴ Thus the present age of Husband is 34 and present age of 4×3
his wife is 29 years. 6 × 2 → 6 × 2 = 12
Now, the maximum age of any child must be less than 9 12 × 1
years. Hence their ages can be 2, 3 and 4 years or 4, 6 and 8 Now you can see that the rate is being half from 4 to 2 so
years. she can purchase double number of toffees as she was
So the max. possible sum of age of this family already purchasing on the ground floor. Again to purchase
the same number of toffees she had to spend ` 2 less than
= 34 + 29 + (1 × 4 + 2 × 6 + 3 × 8)
the spending on the ground floor :
= 103 years
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 273

Rate Number of toffee/` Total Number of toffee 48 A B C D

4 × 3 = 12 Initial ( x + 3) ( x + 1) (x) 0
2 × 6 = 12 amount of
and if you check other options (c) and (d) they will not soda
satisfy the given conditions. water
final  3x   3x   3x   3x 
46 Go through options.  + 1  + 1  + 1  + 1
amount of  4   4   4   4 
Total no. of plants No. of plants Days
soda
Previous scheme ⇒ 1800 = 100 × 18 water
1
Again after rd days, remaining plants Therefore to be the integral value x must be 4m; m = 1, 2, 3 …
3
So at m = 1
1800 × 2
= + 120 = 1320 Hence option (a) is correct since B had contributed
3 1 tumbler.
1320 = (100 + 20) × 11 A B C D
This shows that in the second case 1 day was saved than the Initial amount 7 5 4 0
planned no. of day. Final amount 4 4 4 4
810 900 3 1 0
47 Go through options − = 3 = (6 − 3 = 3)
54 75 2 1
15 − 12 = 3; 3 = 3 49 Ratio of fruits (by dozen) = 3 : 2 : 7
Hence choice (c) is correct.
Ratio of fruits by weight = 120 : 150 : 24
i.e., if A writes 54 page, then B writes 75 = (54 + 21)pages ∴Ratio of fruits (combined) by weight
per hour. = 3 × 120 : 2 × 150 : 7 × 24 = 30 : 25 : 14

Level 03 Final Round

1 Alternatively P + R = 340 …(i)
1st Alloy 2nd Alloy
and 2 P + 4R = 1060 …(ii)
Iron Copper Iron Copper
4 3 6 1 Solve these two equations and you will get the answer.
4 6 Alternatively It can be solved through alligation rule.
Proportion
7 7 3 By the replacement formula
of iron
in the ×2 ×6 Decreased amount
8 36 no. of times (n)
alloys
14 42  replacing amount 
= Original amount 1 − 
 original amount 
So in the new alloy total iron will be 44 kg and copper will Now, since the ratio of petrol and kerosene is 1701 and 27
be 12 kg. it means initially there was (1701 + 27 ) = 1728 unit of
Q Iron = 8 + 36 = 44 kerosene and the decreased amount of kerosene is 27 unit.
3
and Copper = (14 + 42) − (8 + 36) = 12  6
∴ 27 = 1728 1 −  ⇒ k = 8 litre
∴ Ratio of copper to iron = 12 : 44 = 3 : 11,  k
Hence option (d) is correct
NOTE Here 27 : 1728 just show the ratio not the exact
2 Suppose there are all the pigeons then total no. of heads amount.
are 340 and total no. of legs are 680. Now since
380 = (1060 − 680) legs are extra, it means there will be 4 The ratio of milk in 3 vessels
 380 3 5 × 7 2 4 × 7 4 4 × 5 105 56 80
190 =   rabbits. As we know a rabbit has 2 extra legs = × : × : × = : :
 2  4 5 × 7 5 4 × 7 7 4 × 5 140 140 140
than that of a pigeon who has only two legs. Remember, The value of 25 litre does not matter, the basic
Therefore, number of rabbits = 190 thing is that the amount of mixture in all the three
and number of pigeons = 340 − 190 = 150 quantities is same. So the total quantity of milk in mixture
Alternatively Go through options and consider choice (b) = 105 + 56 + 80 = 241
Pigeons Rabbits So the total amount of water in mixture
Heads (340) 150 190 ] 340 = [(3 × 140) − 241] = 179 litre
Legs (1060) 300 760 ] 1060 Therefore ratio of water to milk in the new mixture
= 179 : 241
274 QUANTUM CAT
1
5 Q Profit = 33 %, it means cost price = ` 15 and 5y : 4 y : 3y ⇒ 25y : 20 y : 15y
3 Therefore, increase in first basket = 16
Now, by alligation and increase in second basket = 8
( x + 7 ) − 15 3 ∴ the required ratio = 2 : 1
= ⇒ x = 11
(15 − x ) 4
9 Amount of alcohol in first vessel = 0.25 × 2 = 0.5 litre
∴ x = 11 and ( x + 7 ) = 18
Amount of alcohol in second vessel = 0.4 × 6 = 2.4 litre
Thus the total value of both the prices = 11 + 18 = 29
Total amount of alcohol out of 10 litres of mixture is
6 A1 A2 0.5 + 2.4 = 2.9 litre
C T C T Hence, the concentration of the mixture is 29%
1 3 2 5  2.9 
= × 100
1 2  10 
Copper → Copper →
4 7 10 Assume the weight of Alloy A is 100 kg
3
Required copper → = ∴ The weight of Alloy B is 400 kg
11 ∴ Gold Silver Copper
So, the required ratio is 4 : 7 A 40 kg 60 kg 0 kg
Since it is clear from the above values B 140 kg 160 kg 100 kg
(1 + 2 → 3 and 4 + 7 → 11) ∴ Total → 180 kg 220 kg 100 kg
Alternatively By Alligation 180 200
∴ Ratio of Gold and Silver in new alloy = :
1 2 500 500
4 7 = 36% : 44%
3
11 11 Urea Dia
2– 3 3 –1 N P K N P K
7 11 11 4 x y 0 20% 70% 10%
1 1 Mixture
: N P K
77 44
1 1 26% 68% 6%
⇒ :
7 4 This 6% of K is obtained only from Dia.
4 : 7
∴ Urea Dia
7 Ratio of W1 M1 W2 M2 W3 M3 N P K N P K
1 : 3 2 : 3 2 : 5 x y 0 120 420 60
1 2 2 Mixture
Proportion of water
: :
4 5 7 N P K
1 5×7 2 4 ×7 2 4×5 35 56 40 260 680 60
⇒ × : × : × ⇒ : :
4 5×7 5 4 ×7 7 4×5 140 140 140 NU + N D = N M ⇒ NU + 120 = 260
Now since all these three mixtures are mixed in the ratio of N → Nitrogen, P → Phosphorus
2 : 3 : 5. and PU + PD = PM ⇒ PU + 420 = 680
35 2 56 × 3 40 × 5 U , D, M → Urea, Dia and mixture
Therefore new ratio = × : :
140 2 140 × 3 140 × 5 ∴ Amount of Nitrogen in Urea = 140
70 168 200 and amount of Phosphorus in Dia = 260
= , ,
280 420 700 ∴Ratio of N : P = 7 : 13 ⇒ 35 : 65
Now, the amount of water = 70 + 168 + 200 = 438 12 X Y
∴ The amount of milk = (280 + 420 + 700) − 438 = 962 C N C N
∴ Ratio of milk to water = 962 : 438 2 7 5 4
B1 : B 2 : B 3 = 3x : 4 x : 5x 2 4 5 10
8 Copper → = Copper → =
9 18 9 18
Again B1 : B 2 : B 3 = 5y : 4 y : 3y 4 10
∴By alligation 18 18
Since there is increase in no. of oranges in first two basket
only, it means the no. of oranges remains constant in the 9
18
third basket 1 : 5
∴ 5x = 3y 1
∴ Amount of X = × 42 = 7 kg
Hence 3x : 4 x : 5x 6
9 y 12y 15y 5
⇒ : : = 9 y : 12y : 15y and amount of Y = × 42 = 35 kg
5 5 5 6
Ratio, Proportion & Variation 275

13 First Alloy Second Alloy 14 Note in this type of question individual prices does not
C Al C Al matter. To prove this solve it algebrically.
1 2 3 1 3 × 150 + 5 × 90 450
Exchanged amount = = = 56.25 litre
∴ Required Alloy 2 (3 + 5) 8
C Al Here 3 and 5 are obtained from the ratio of amounts i.e.,
2 1 from 90 and 150.
1
∴ Copper in first alloy = 15 Here the ratio of mixtures (i.e., milk, water) does not
3 matter. But the important point is that whether the total
3
Copper in second alloy = amount (either pure or mixture) being transferred is equal
4 or not. Since the total amount (i.e., 5 cups) being
2 transferred from each one to another, hence A = B.
Copper in required alloy (mixture) =
3 Hint You can verify it very easily by considering a simple
Now, by alligation example.
1 3 16 CP. of rasgulla = ` 9 (since profit is 66.66%)
3 4 Now by alligation
2
3 (Flour) 3x 7x (Sugar)
3– 2 2 –1
4 3 3 3 9
1 1 5 3
:
12 3 (9 − 3x ) 3
⇒ 1 : 4 = ⇒x=2
(7 x − 9) 5
Therefore, second alloy be mixed 4 times the first alloy.
∴ Price of sugar = 7 x = ` 14 per kg.
276 QUANTUM CAT
CHAPTER 05

P er centages
It is one of the most important chapters which is the backbone of calculations either involved
in commercial arithmetic or in real life. Personally I do maximum arithmetical calculation
using percentage and others too. So in the context of calculation it is necessary to know the
clear concepts of percentage which plays a very vital role in Data Interpretation besides
Quantitative Aptitude section. On an average two problems i.e., nearly 4-5 % problems in
QA only, are being asked in CAT every year. In other entrance/competitive exams like
MAT, XAT and UPMCAT, etc there are too many questions asked from this chapter.

5.1 Percentage and Its Application Chapter Checklist

A fraction with denominator 100 is called a per cent. Per cent is an abbreviation for the latin Percentage and Its
Application
word “percentum” meaning “per hundred ” or “hundredhs” and is denoted by symbol %.
Percentage Conversion
NOTE A fraction with denominator 10 is called as decimal.
Since per cent is a form of fraction, we can express per cent as fractions (or decimals) and vice-versa. Percentage Change
Percentage Point Change
5.2 Percentage Conversion Special Cases of Percentage
Change
Conversion of a Fraction into Percentage Problems Based on
To convert a fraction into a percentage, multiply the fraction by 100 and put “%” sign. Population
CAT Test
Exp. 1) Convert the following fractions into percentages:
1 3 4 7
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2 4 5 8
1 1 3 3
Solution (i) → × 100 = 50% (ii) → × 100 = 75%
2 2 4 4
4 4 7 7
(iii) → × 100 = 80% (iv) → × 100 = 87.5%
5 5 8 8
Conversion of a Percentage into a Fraction
1
To convert a percentage into a fraction, replace the % sign with and reduce the fraction
to simplest form. 100

Exp. 2) Express the following percentage as fraction:

1
(i) 20% (ii) 30% (iii) 45% (iv) 5 % (v) 155%
8
20 1 30 3 45 9
Solution (i) 20 % = = (ii) 30 % = = (iii) 45 % = =
100 5 100 10 100 20
1 41 41 155 31 11
(iv) 5 % = = (v) 155 % = = = 1
8 8 × 100 800 100 20 20
Percentages 277

Conversion of a Percentage into a Ratio Exp. 5) Convert the following percentages into decimals
To convert a percentage into a ratio, first convert the given 1
(i) 36% (ii) 250% (iii) 57.5% (iv) 17 % (v) 7%
percentage into a fraction in simplest form and then to a ratio. 5
Solution (i) 36% = 0. 36 (ii) 250% = 250
. = 25 .
Exp. 3) Solve the following : 1
(i) 38% (ii) 25% (iii) 66.66% (iii) 57.5% = 0575
. (iv) 17 % = 17.2% = 0172 .
38 19 25 1 5
Solution (i) 38% = = = 19 : 50 (ii) 25% = = =1: 4 (v) 7% = 0.07
100 50 100 4
2 200 2 Conversion of a Decimal into a Percentage
(iii) 66.66% = 66 % = = = 2: 3
3 3 × 100 3
To convert a decimal into a percentage, move the decimal
Conversion of a Ratio into a Percentage point two place to the right (adding zeros if necessary) and
To convert a ratio into a percentage, first convert the given put % sign.
ratio into a fraction then to a percentage. Exp. 6) Convert the following decimals into percentages
Exp. 4) Express the following ratios as percentage : (i) 0. 35 (ii) 8.12 (iii) 0.018
(i) 1 : 5 (ii) 2 : 3 (iii) 4 : 9 Solution (i) 0. 35 = 35% . = 812%
(ii) 812
1 1 2 2 (iii) 0.018 = 1.8%
Solution (i) 1 : 5 = = × 100 = 20% (ii) 2 : 3 = = × 100 = 66.66%
5 5 3 3 NOTE
(iii) 4 : 9 = 1/ 9 = 1/ 9 × 100 = 44.44%
1. Work out some more examples so that all these thing rest
Conversion of a Percentage into a Decimal on your finger tips.
1 2 3 4
To convert a percentage into a decimal remove the % sign 2. = = = =… = 50% etc.
2 4 6 8
and move the decimal point two places to the left.

Percentage-Fraction Conversion Table

Numerators
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
1 100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900 1000 1100 1200
2 50 100 150 200 250 300 350 400 450 500 550 600
3 33.33 66.66 100 133.33 166.66 200 233.33 266.66 300 333.33 366.60 400
Denominators

4 25 50 75 100 125 150 175 200 225 250 275 300

5 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200 220 240
6 16.66 33.33 50 66.66 83.33 100 116.66 133.33 150 166.66 183.33 200
7 14.28 28.56 42.85 57.13 71.42 85.71 100 114.28 128.56 142.85 157.13 171.42
8 12.5 25 37.5 50 62.5 75 87.5 100 112.5 125 137.5 150
9 11.11 22.22 33.33 44.44 55.55 66.66 77.77 88.88 100 111.11 122.22 133.33
10 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 120
11 9.09 18.18 27.27 36.36 45.45 54.54 63.63 72.72 81.81 90.9 100 109.09
12 8.33 16.66 25 33.33 41.66 50 58.33 66.66 75 83.33 91.66 100
15 6.66 13.33 20 26.66 33.33 40 46.66 53.33 60 66.66 73.33 80

The Most Important Conversions The Commonly Confusing Conversions

1 1 1 1
→ 50% , → 33.33%, = 14.28% and = 714
. %
2 3 7 14
2 1 1 1
→ 66.66%, → 25%, = 16.66% and = 6.66%,
3 4 6 15
3 1 1 1
→ 75%, → 20%, = 11.11% and = 9.09%
4 5 9 11
1 5 1 1
→ 16.66%, → 83.33% = 6.66% and = 6.25%,
6 6 15 16
278 QUANTUM CAT
1 3 Therefore, the number of other trees = 360 − 60 = 300
= 33.33% and = 30%
3 10 2
Alternatively Number of mango trees = 16 %
NOTE With regard to percentage conversion, whenever you see 3
99.99%, you can safely assume that it is actually 100%. As, we know It means no. of other types of trees
1 9 9  2 1
that = 1111
. %, so we have = 99.99% but = 100% = 100 − 16  % = 83 %
9 9 9  3 3
Thus, number of other types of trees
The Unforgettable Conversions 1
1 1 1 = 83 % of 360 = 300
= 769
. %, = 588
. %, = 526
. %, 3
13 17 19
1 1 1 Practice Exercise
= 4.76%, = 4.35%, = 4166
. % 1. Find the value of :
21 23 24
(i) 25% of 200 (ii) 30% of 180
Learnings from the Convergion Table (iii) 37.5% of 300 (iv) 83.33% of 480
(i) This table is a first hand support as a percentage (v) 100% of 2 quintal (vi) 165% of 330 litre
values of some frequently used fractions. 1
(vii) 5 % of ` 1600 (viii) 10% of 1 hour
2
(ii) All the percentage values whose decimal part is 0.33,
(ix) 66.66% of 300 (x) 20% of 1 million rupees
0.66, 0.00 contain the denominator 3 in the fraction.
2. Mr. Arvind Vidyarthi spends 30% of his money on
(iii) Similarly if there is 0.16, 0.33, 0.50, 0.66, 0.83, 0.00 it education and he has total ` 15000. How many rupees
means there is a 6 in the denominator of the fraction. he spends on education?
(iv) Similarly if there is 0.28, 0.56, 0.85, 0.13, 0.42, 0.71 it 3. Sonia purchased 80 metres of cloth, out of which 35%
means there is a 7 as denominator. was used for making trousers. How much cloth was
(v) If there is 0.11, 0.22, 0.33, 0.44… 0.99 etc. used by her for making trousers?
It means there is 9 as the denominator of the fraction. 4. The total no. of students in a school is 1250. 40% of the
(vi) If there is 0.09, 0.18, 0.27… it means there is 11 as the students are girls. Find the number of boys.
denominator of the fraction. 5. William’s monthly salary used to be ` 1140. Recently, his
salary was increased by 16.66%.
(viii) If two percentage values have different decimal
(i) How much his salary (in `) was increased?
values (there must be different denominators) then
(ii) Find his new salary, if it was increased by 33.33%.
their addition or subtraction results always in decimal
6. The population of Vatican city is 700. If it increases by
i.e., never as an integer.
7.14% per annum (i.e., every year). Find the
Percentage of a Quantity population of the Vatican city after one year.
7. The usual speed of a car is 85 km/hr. If it is increased
Exp. 1) Find the no. of male students (i.e., boys), if there
by 20%, what would be the increased speed of the car?
are 42% male students in the school and the total no. of
8. A shopkeeper announces a reduction of 8.33% on all
students in the school is 1000.
its prices after new year. If a wrist watch was earlier for
Solution Required number of male students ` 2400. How much would it costs now?
42
= 42% of 1000 = × 1000 = 420 9. 44% of the students in a class are enrolled as females
100
and the number of students who are enrolled as males
Exp. 2) A students scored 85% marks in his exam. The is 42. If the admitted students in that class are either
maximum marks that any students can score in that exam males or females, find the total number of students in
are 400. How many marks did he score? that class.
85
Solution Marks scored = 85% of 400 = × 400 = 340 10. 30% of a number is 225. Find the number.
100
11. A horse costing ` 80,000 one year ago now costs 25%
2
Exp. 3) In an orchard 16 % of the trees are mango trees. less. Find the changed price.
3
If the total number of trees in the orchard is 360, find the 12. 1700 students took an exam 85% students passed it.
number of other types of trees in the orchard. Find the number of students who failed in the exam.
Solution Total number of trees = 360 CAT TIPS Now I would like to suggest you that all the problems
2 50/ 3 mentioned in the exercise must be done using fractions instead of
Number of mango trees = 16 % of 360 = × 360 = 60 percentage, in order to make the calculation simple and handy.
3 100
Percentages 279

Answers & Solutions 1

7. Since 20% =
5
1. (i) 50, (ii) 54, (iii) 112.5
1 6
(iv) 400, (v) 2 quintal (vi) 544.5 Therefore, new speed = 1 + = times of the usual
5 5
(vii) 88 (viii) 6 minutes (ix) 200 6
speed. That is new speed = 85 × = 102 km/hr
(x) 2 lakh rupees 5
 30  Therefore, the required answer is 102 km/hr
2. 15000 × 0.3 = 4500 Q 30% = = 0.3
 100  1
8. Since, 8.33% =
12
Therefore, the required answer is ` 4500.
 30  So, the reduced price of the watch
3. 80 × 0.35 = 28 Q 35% = = 0.35
 100   1  11
= 2400 1 −  =2400   = ` 2200
 12  12 
Therefore, the required answer is 28 meters
9. Refer the following solution
4. Total number of students = 1250
Female Male Total
Total number of girls = 1250 × 0.4 = 500
44% 56% 100%
Therefore, total number of boys in that school 42
= 1250 − 500 = 750
42
Therefore, the required answer is 750. Since, 56% = 42, therefore, 1% =
56
1
5. Since, 16.66% = 42
6 So, the 100% = 100 × = 75
56
1
So, his salary was increased by times. Thus, the total number of students = 75
6
1 10. 30% = 225 ⇒10% = 75 ⇒100% = 750
So, the increase in salary = 1140 × = ` 190
6 Therefore, the required number is 750.
1
Similarly, 33.33% = 1
11. Since, 25% = , therefore, 75% =
3
3 4 4
(i) Therefore the required answer is ` 190. 3
So, the new cost of the horse = times of the
1 4
It means his salary was increased by times.
3 original cost. Therefore, the new cost of the horse
1 4 3
Therefore, new salary = 1 + = times = 80000 × = ` 60000
3 3 4
4 Therefore, the required number is 60000.
So, his new salary = × 1140 = ` 1520.
3
12. Refer the following solution
(ii) Therefore the required answer is ` 1520. Total Passed Failed
1 100% 85% 15%
6. Since 7.14% =
14 1700
So, the new population of the city Number of students who failed the exam
 1
= 700 1 +  = 15% of 1700 = 015
. × 1700 = 255
 14 
Therefore, the required answer is 255.
15 
= 700   = 750 Alternatively Number of students who failed the
14 
exam = 15% of 1700
Therefore, the required answer is 750.
= (10% + 5%) × 1700 = (170 + 85 ) = 255
280 QUANTUM CAT
Expressing One Quantity as a Percentage Exp. 3) In a factory of 150 workers, 18 were absent in a
of Another Quantity day what percentage were present?
Solution Present = 150 − 18 = 132
Exp. 1) What per cent is number 3 of number 20 ?
132
Solution As per cent means out of 100. Then by unitary method Percentage presence = × 100 = 88%
150
3 3
out of 20 → 3, out of 1 → , out of 100 → × 100 = 15% Exp. 4) Kurla obtained 480 marks out of 600 and Birla
20 20
obtained 560 marks out of 800.
Hence to find what per cent the first number is of second
number, we divide the first number by the second number Whose performance is better?
and multiply the result by 100. 480
Solution % marks of Kurla = × 100 = 80%
600
Exp. 2) Ravi obtained 325 marks out of a maximum of 560
400 marks. Find the percentage of marks obtained by him. % marks of Birla = × 100 = 70%
800
325
Solution Required percentage of marks = × 100 = 81.25% So, obviously Kurla’s performance is better than that of Birla
400 even though getting less absolute marks.

Introductory Exercise 5.1

1. What per cent is : 5. A tin contains 24 litres of milk. Due to leakage 720 ml
(i) 30 out of 600 ? is lost. What per cent of milk is still present in the tin?
(ii) 25 out of 160 ? 6. Price of an item increased from ` 16.50 to ` 41.25 Find
(iii) 75 out of 225 ? the percentage increase in price.
(iv) 36 kg of 150 kg ?
7. The excise duty on a certain item has been reduced to
(v) 90 cm of 4.5 metre?
` 3480 from ` 5220 . Find the percentage reduction in
(vi) 60 litres of 40 litres?
the excise duty on that item.
(vii) 800 shirts out of 1200 shirts?
(viii) 875 m of 2 km? 8. Out of total production of 6450 tonnes of a coalmine a
quantity of 645 tonnes was lost during extraction.
2. Express:
What per cent of the total production was the net coal
(i) 20 as a percentage of 500.
extracted?
(ii) 60 kg as a percentage of 80 kg .
(iii) 350 ml as a percentage of 5.6 litre. 9. A cricket team played 24 matches. The team won
9 matches and lost 3 matches. 12 matches ended in
(iv) ` 13 as a percentage of ` 39.
draw. What per cent of the total matches did the team
(v) 15 seconds as a percentage of 1 hour.
lose?
(vi) 27° as a percentage of 360°.
10. In a hostel, in a particular month, out of ` 50,000
3. Manu scored 384 marks out of 450. What per cent
budget, ` 10,000 were allocated for the food items.
marks did she get?
Further, out of the food budget, ` 2000 were allocated
4. In an election, out of 60,000 eligible voters 42000 cast for the fruits. What percentage of the total monthly
their vote. Calculate the percentage of eligible voters budget of the hostel was allocated for the fruits?
casting their votes.
Percentages 281

5.3 Percentage Change 5.4 Percentage Point Change

The application of percentage change is very diverse in Last year Abhijeet’s salary was ` 10,000 and Sonu’s salary
nature e.g., profit and loss, simple interest and compound was ` 8,000. This year Abhijeet’s salary is ` 12,000 while
interest etc. All these are exactly based on the percentage Sonu’s salary is ` 10,000.
increase/decrease of the original (or actual) value. 1. (i) What is the percentage increase in Abhijeet’s salary?
Percentage increase in a value (ii) What is the percentage increase in Sonu’s salary?
 increased value − original value  (iii) Percentage increase in Sonu’s salary is how much per
= × 100 %
 original value  cent greater than the percentage increase in Abhijeet’s
Percentage decrease in a value salary?
(iv) What is the percentage point change in the salary of
 original value − decreased value 
= × 100 % Sonu and Abhijeet?
 original value  Solution
12, 000 − 10, 000
Exp. 1) Sometimes ago Abhimanyu’s height was 110 cm. (i) × 100 = 20%
10, 000
Now, his height is 120 cm. Find the percentage change in
2 1
his height. or → → 20%
120 − 110 10 5
Solution × 100 = 9.09% 2 1
110 (ii) → → 25%
8 4
Alternatively 10 → 1 → 9.09%
110 11 (iii) Percentage increase in Sonu’s salary = 25
12 Percentage increase in Abhijeet’s salary = 20
Alternatively → 109.09%, so increase = 9.09%
11 So the required percentage
So, the increase in height = 109.09 − 100 = 9.09% 25 − 20
= × 100 = 25%
20
Exp. 2) The total expenses of a hostel were ` 8000 per
It means percentage increase in Sonu’s salary is 25%
month. Some students left the hostel due to which the new
greater than the percentage increase in Abhijeet’s salary.
expenses come down by ` 1000. Find the percentage
decrease in total expenses of the hostel. (iv) Percentage point change
= ( Percentage increase in Sonu’s salary
1000 1
Solution → → 125
. % – Percentage increase in Abhijeet’s salary)
8000 8
= 25 − 20 = 5 percentage point
Exp. 3) Raja’s salary is ` 9,000 per month and Rani’s
In fact, percentage point change is the difference between
salary is ` 10,000 per month.
two percentage values.
(i) With respect to Raja’s salary what percent is Rani’s

5.5 Special Cases of

salary?
(ii) With respect to Rani’s salary what percent is Raja’s
salary? Percentage Change
10000
Solution (i) × 100 = 111 .11%
9000 Getting Back the Original Value
9000 (A) If a value p is increased by x% , then we have to
(ii) × 100 = 90%
10000  x 
10 9 1 decrease the resultant value by  × 100 % to
Alternatively (i) → + → 100% + 1111. % → 11111 . %  x + 100 
9 9 9
9  1  get back to the original value p.
(ii) → 90% Q → 10%
10  10 
282 QUANTUM CAT
Original increasing value Increased value
Exp. 3) Gautam has 33.33% more pencils than Rahul
value p×x  px 
p → →  p +  has. By how much per cent less pencils Rahul has than
100  100  that of Gautam?
 100 + x  Solution 33.33% →
1
= p  3
 100 
Rahul Gautam
Now the percentage decrease
  100 + x   1 1
–25% = =
 p  100  − p
4 3+1
   x  So Rahul has 25% less pencils than Gautam has.
= × 100 =  × 100 %
 100 + x   100 + x 
p  Exp. 4) Height of Amitabh is 50% greater than the height
 100  of Amir Khan. Height of Amir Khan is how much per cent
In other words (i.e., in terms of fraction) if a value is less than that of Amitabh?
n Solution 1
increased by then to get back the same number p + 50% →
2
d
Amir Amitabh
from the resultant value, we have to decrease the
 n  1 1
increased value by  . –33.33% = =
 d + n 3 2+1
Thus the height of Amir is 33.33% less than Amitabh.
Exp. 1) Salary of Rajeev Ratan in 2001 was
$ 100 per day and his salary in 2002 was $ 125 per day.
Explanation of Concept
Again in 2003 his salary was $ 100 per day. Assume A has 10 apples and B has 20 apples, then we say that
(i) What is the percentage increase in his salary in 2002? B has 100% more apples than A has. Again we can say that A
(ii) What is the percentage decrease in his salary in 2003 has 50% less apples than B has.
over 2002? To calculate the percentage change :
125 − 100 125 − 100 1
Solution (i) × 100 = 25% (ii) × 100 = 20% 100% →
100 125 1
In fact there is same absolute change but percentage change is A B
different due to different denominator (i.e., base change). So
the base change is as much important as the numerator or 1 1
absolute change in quantity. –50% = =
2 1+1
Exp. 2) Age of Ravi is 20 years. If the Shyam’s age is 25%
Consider Another Example
greater than that of Ravi then how much per cent Ravi’s
Let us assume A has 6 chocolates and B has 10 chocolates then
age is less than Shyam’s age ?
we can say that B has 66.66% more chocolates than A. So again
Solution Age of Ravi Age of Shyam
(+ 25%)
we can also say that A has 40% less chocolates than B.
20 → 25 2
← 66.66% →
(− 20%) 3
Solution using percentage change formula Here x = 25, then A B
25
percentage decrease (or less) = × 100 = 20%
125 2 2
–40% = =
1 5 3+2
Solution using fractional change formula Since increase =
4 Remember the percentage change graphic is almost 70 –80%
 1
Q  25% =  better in giving quick and simple results. So instead of using
 4
the percentage formula, use the percentage change graphic
1 1
Therefore decrease = = → 20% method. For this you are just required to know the percentage
4+1 5
fraction conversion table.
Percentages 283

(B) If a value P is first decreased by x% then to get back NOTE

the original value P, we have to increase the decreased (1) If a value X is first increased by p% to Y then Y is again
 x  decreased to X by q% then p is always greater than q(for
(resultant) value by  × 100 % positive values).
 100 − x  (2) If a value X is first decreased by p% to Y and then Y is
decreased value increased by q% to X, then p is always less than q.
 Px 
original value (decreasing value)
 x  (3) If a value A is increased by p% then again by q% once
P →  P −  = P 1 −  again it is increased by r% , then the final value will be
Px  100   100  same as if you change the order of p, q, r i.e., A can be
100
first increased by r% then by q% and then by p% still the
  x 
 P − P 1 − 100  
result will be same.
(4) The rule 3 is also applicable for the decreasing of the
Now, the per cent increase = × 100 values. A value ‘ A’ is first decreased by p%, then by q%
 x 
P 1 −  and then by r% and so on, the resultant value will be
 100  same as when A is first decreased by q% then by p% and
then by r% etc.
x Note that in case 3 and 4 we are discussing the
= × 100
100 − x successive increase or decrease in the value.
(5) A value ‘A’ is first increased by p% then by q% and then it is
In terms of fraction, if a value P is first decreased by reduced by r % will give the same results as when A is first
n/ d then to get back the original number P. We have to decreased by r %, then increased by q% and then by p% etc.
n Exp. 7) Initially Ms. Rakhi Sawant has ` 200 in her
increase the decreased (or resultant) value by .
d–n wallet then she increased it by 20%. Once again she
increased her amount by 25%. The final value of money in
Exp. 5) Due to irregular working habits of her wallet will be how much per cent greater than the
Ramachandran, his salary was reduced by 20% but after initial amount?
some months his salary was increased to the original salary. + 20% + 25%
What is the percentage increase in salary of Ramachandran? Solution 200 → 240 → 300
− 20% 300 − 200
Solution Let initial salary be ` 100. 100 → 80 So the required % increase = × 100 = 50%
← 200
+ 25%
Alternatively Exp. 8) The age of B is 50% greater than the age of A.The
Here x = 20
20 age of C is 20% less than the age of B. By how much
then % increase = × 100 = 25% percentage the age of C is greater than the age of A?
(100 − 20)
+ 50% − 20 %
Alternatively Solution A → B → C
100 150 120
1
–20% → 20
5 So the required percentage change = × 100 = 20%
(Initial salary) P 100
Q (Decreased salary)
Reversing the change by same Percentage
1 1 n If the value of a number is first increased by x% and then
+ 25% = =
4 (5 – 1) d–n decreased by x%, the net change is always a decrease (or
loss) in original value. That is, % loss = (x/10) %
2
Hence his salary will be incresed by 25%.

Exp. 6) Kajol usually wears saree, which is 16.66% less If the value of a number is first decreased by x% and then the
than the actual length of the saree. By how much per cent resultant value is increased by x%, the net change is always a
the actual length of the saree is greater than the length of decrease (or loss) in the original value. That is % loss = ( x/ 10) 2
saree which kajol usually wears?
Solution Actual length Usual length Exp. 1) Shweta is very expert in bargaining. Once she
1 went to a nearby shop. When Shweta asked the price of
–16.66% = Shampoo Sachet the shopkeeper told her the price by
6
A U increasing 15% of the original cost. But Shweta insisted to
decrease the price by 15% so the shopkeeper sold it by
decreasing the price by 15%. What is the loss or profit of
1 1 n shopkeeper and by how much per cent?
+20% = = Q
5 6–1 d–n
(a) no loss (b) profit of 1.5%
So the actual length of the saree is 20% greater than the (c) loss of 2.25% (d) none of these
usually used saree. Solution Let the actual price be 100.
284 QUANTUM CAT
+ 15% − 15%
100 → 115 → 97.75 (loss of 2.25%) 100 × 100 = 10,000
 15 
2 125 × x = 10,000
Alternatively loss% =   = 2.25%
 10  10,000
⇒ x= = 80. Therefore % reduction = 20%
There is always a loss. 125
Exp. 2) If the length and breadth of a rectangle are or 1 ×1 =1
changed by + 20% and − 10%. What is the percentage 1.25 × k = 1 ⇒ k = 0.8
change in area of rectangle? Thus there will be 20% decrease in the consumption of sugar
(a) 8% (b) 10.8% in order to maintain the same expenditure on sugar.
(c) 20% (d) data insufficient
Solution l × b = area Product Constancy Conditions
1 × 1 = 1 ⇒ 1.2 × 0.9 = 1.08 ˜ When one factor of a product is increased by p%, then
So there is 8% increase in the area of rectangle.  p 
the other factor will be decreased by  × 100 %.
Exp. 3) A’s monthly salary is 20% lower than B’s  100 + p 
monthly salary and C’s monthly salary is 56.25% greater n
It means when one factor of a product is increased by
than A’s salary. By how much percent B’s salary is less d
than C’s salary?. n
then the other factor is decreased by .
(a) 15% (b) 20% ( d + n)
(c) 25% (d) 33.33%
Solution A B C ˜ When one factor of a product is decreased by p% then
(Consider the
(– 20%)  p 
80 100 125 salary of B = 100) the other factor will be increased by  × 100 %.
+56.25%  100 – p 
25 n
The required value = × 100 = 20% It means when one factor of a product is decreased by
125 d
n
Product Constancy then the other factor will must be increased by
( d – n)
.
It is the same as we know the inverse proportion in the
chapter of Ratio, Proportion and Variation. For example, Exp. 1) If the price of a commodity be raised by 20%,
when the rate of a pencil is ` 1.25 then we can purchase 16 then by how much per cent a house holder reduce his
pencils by paying ` 20. If the rate of a pencil is decreased by consumption of the same commodity so that his
` 0.25 then we can purchase 20 pencils by paying ` 20. expenditure does not increase.
Solution Since here product (i.e., expenditure) is constant
Explanation : Rate × No. of pencils = Price rate × consumption = expenditure
1.25 × 16 = 20, 1.00 × 20 = 20 initially → 1 × 1 = 1
So you can see that here the product (20) is constant in both After change 1.2 × x = 1
⇒ x = 0.833
the cases. Thus it is clear that if we reduce the price of a
∴ decrease in value = 16.66%
pencil to ` 0.50, then we can purchase 40 pencils in ` 20.
Alternatively
Some more examples of product constancy :
Increase in rate Decrease in consumption
(i) speed × time = distance
(ii) rate × time = cost 1 1
+ 20% = + → − 16.66% = −
(iii) efficiency × time = work 5 6
(iv) length × breadth = area Exp. 2) If the price of petrol falls down by 20% by how
(v) average × no of elements = total value much per cent must a person increase its consumption, so
(vi) rate × quantity = price (or expenditure) as not to decrease the expenditure on this item?
For example The price of sugar is increased by 25% then by Solution Since product is constant
how much per cent should a customer reduce the decrease by increase by
consumption (i.e., quantity used) of sugar so that he has not 1 1  n n 
20% = → = 25% Q d → ( d − n) 
to increase his expenses on sugar. 5 4  
price × quantity = expenditure
Percentages 285

Exp. 3) Due to 50% increase in the price of rice . We Hence by 150% working hours will be increased. It means the
purchased 5 kg less rice with the same amount of ` 60. new working hours will be 2.5 times (not 1.5 times) of the
What is the new price of rice? original time.
(a) ` 4.66 (b) ` 5 (c) ` 4 (d) ` 6
Exp. 3) Two numbers are respectively 25% and 40% less
Solution Increase in price Decrease in amount than a third number. What per cent is the second of the first ?
1 1
50% = → = 33.33% Solution Consider A , B , C three numbers and assume C = 100
2 3 (as a base)
Since the new quantity of rice decreases by 33.33% which is A B C
(– 40%)
equal to 5 kg it means initially there was 15 kg rice to be used. 75 60 100
 60 
So, the initial price = ` 4 Q = 4
 15  (–25%)
 60  60
and final price = ` 6 Q = 6 Now × 100 = 80%
 10  75
Alternatively From the options.
Let us consider choice (d).
Exp. 4) A person gives 10% to his wife 10% of the
Therefore [6 × 10 = 60] (finally) remaining to a hospital (as a donation) again 10% of the
Hence [4 × 15 = 60] (initialy) remaining to Prime Minister’s Relief Fund. Then he has
only ` 7290 with him. What was the initial sum of money
Exp. 4) The length of a plot is decreased by 33.33% . By with that person?
how much % the breadth of the plot will be increased so Solution Since he gives 10%so he is left with 90%of the original
that the area remains constant? sum and since he does the same with the remaining (or left)
Solution (Decrease) (Increase) amount. So it forms a chain.
1 1 1 1  ∴ Remaining amount = ( x) × 0.9 × 0.9 × 0.9 = 0729 . x = 7290
33.33 = → = 50%  2 = 3 − 1
3 2   ⇒ x = 10, 000, where x is supposed to be initial amount.

Difference Between ‘by’ and ‘to’ Exp. 5) Initially a shopkeeper had n chocolates. A customer
bought 10% chocolate from n then another customer bought
Please note that there is a clear difference between “by” and
20% of the remaining chocolates, after that one more customer
“to”. For example., the income is reduced by 40% it means the
purchased 25% of the remaining chocolates. Finally
new income is 60% of the original and the income is reduced
shopkeeper is left with 270 chocolates in his shop. How many
to 40% means the new income is 40% of the original value.
chocolates were there initially in his shop?
Thus “by” represents difference and “to” represents final
(a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 500 (d) 600
value. For example., The income of Sarika is increased by 270 × 10, 000
20% means its new income is 100 + 20 = 120 % of the original Solution n × 0.9 × 0.8 × 075
. = 270 ⇒n = ⇒n = 500
9 × 8 × 75
income. The income of Sarika is increased to 120% means the
new income of Sarika is 120% of the original income. NOTE These type of problems (see example no. 4 and 5) can be
solved with a great convenience if we solve in reverse order, with the
Exp. 1) In an election between two candidates, the aid of given choices. Let us consider option (c)
candidate who got 57% valid votes won by a majority of 500 × 0.9 = 450 ⇒ 450 × 0. 8 = 360 ⇒360 × 0.75 = 270
420 votes. Find the total no. of valid votes . Hence presumed option is correct.
Solution Winner Loser Difference Between Decreased value and
0.57 x 0.43x [100 − 57 = 43] Decreased in value
0.14x [57 − 43 = 14] There is a huge difference between ‘‘decreased value’’ and ‘‘decrease
. x = 420 ⇒ x = 3000
014 in value’’ similarly, there is a huge between ‘‘increased value’’ and
‘‘increase in value’’.
Hence total valid votes = 3000
For example Initial value = 70
Exp. 2) Due to fall in manpower, the production in the Final value = 90. It means increased value = 90 but increase in value
factory decreases by 60%. By what per cent should the 90 − 70
= 20 and % increase in value = × 100 = 28 .57%
working hour be increased to restore the original 70
production in the factory? (1) If there is an increase of x / y in any value P then the increased
 x
Solution Manpower × Working hours = Production value will be P 1+  .
 y
(2) If there is a decrease of x / y in any value P , then the decreased
3 3 3 3 3  x
( − 60%) = → = ( + 150%) 5 → 5 − 3 = 2  value will be P 1−  .
5 2    y
286 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 1) Nishith is now 20 years old. Some years later his Exp. 2) The population of a town in the first year
age will increase by 50% of himself. What will be the new increases by 10% in the next year it decreases by 10%. Once
age at that time? again in the third year it increase by 10% and in the fourth
 1  1  1  year it decrease by 10% . If the present population be
Solution 20 1 +  = 30 years Q 20 + 20 × 2 = 20 1 + 2 
 2   20, 000 then the population after four years will be :
(a) 16,902 (b) 19,602
Exp. 2) The average salary of Purushottam in Infosys is (c) 20,000 (d) none of these
20% less than that was in Microsoft. If the salary of  10   10   10   10 
Purushottam in Microsoft be $ 80,000 per month then Solution 20, 000 1 +  1 −  1 +  1 − 
 100  100  100  100
what is the salary of Purushottam in Infosys?
= 20,000 (1.1) (0.9) (1.1) (0.9) = 20, 000 × 1.21 × 0.81 = 19, 602
Solution 20% = 1/5 Thus option (b) is correct.
 1 4
So new salary = 80, 000 1 −  = 80, 000 × = $ 64, 000
 5 5
Practice Exercise
NOTE Remember this type of problems can also be solved
3 1
exactly through percentages. 1. What per cent of is ?
7 105
As 80 , 000 × 0. 8 (100 − 20 = 80%) = 64 , 000
But the technique given above is not less important. Some where it (a) 10% (b) 2.22% (c) 45% (d) 450%
becomes very necessary to solve through fractions. 2. What per cent is 3% of 15% ?
So, keep your eyes open mind focussed and use your wits to solve (a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 40% (d) 66.66%
the problems intelligently as per the situation.
3. If the cost of a calculator worth ` 250 is increased by
3 7 16 13 ` 100, the rate of increase is
Exp. 3) Which one of the following is greatest , , , ?
4 8 19 15 (a) 100% (b) 40% (c) 25% (d) 90%
3 7
Solution = 75% ⇒ = 87.5%
4 8 4. A number increased by 37.5% gives 99, the number is
16 13 (a) 140 (b) 61.5 (c) 72 (d) 48
= 84.21% ⇒ = 86.66%
19 15
5. When 40% of a number is added to 42, the result is
7
So, is the greatest fraction (or rational number) the number itself. The number is:
8
(a) 105 (b) 72 (c) 70 (d) 82

5.6 Problems Based on Population 6. In an examination 52% of the candidates failed in

Science, 42% in Mathematics and 17% in both. The
If the original population of a locality (i.e., region) be P and no. of those who passed in both the subjects, is :
the annual growth rate be r% . (a) 83% (b) 64% (c) 23% (d) 55.55%
n
 r  7. The price of an item is increased by 20% and then
The population after n years = P 1 + 
 100  decreased by 20% . The final price as compared to
 n  original price
r 
change (or increase) in the population = P  1 +  − 1 (a) 4% more (b) 20% more (c) 20% less (d) 4% less
 100 
  8. Two candidates fought an election. One got 65% of the
If there is decrease in population be r% then, votes and won by 600 votes. The total no. of votes polled is
n (a) 12,000 (b) 10 ,000 (c) 2 ,000 (d) 8 ,000
 r 
total population after n years = P 1 − 
 100  9. Out of a no. of electronic items, a person purchases
60% coloured TVs 5% of these were found to be
  r  
n
defective. The percentage of defective TVs in all is
and decrease in population = P 1 − 1 − 
 100   (a) 3% (b) 6%
  (c) 12% (d) Can’t be determined
Exp. 1) If the annual increase in the population be 20% 10. A’s salary is half that of B. If A got a 50% raise in his
and the present population be 10, 000. What will be the salary and B got a 25% raise in his salary, then the
population after 3 years hence? percentage increase in combined salaries of both is
(a) 16,000 (b) 17,280 (c) 14,400 (d) 1,728 (a) 30% (b) 33.33% (c) 55% (d) 28%
3 3
Solution 10,000  1 +
20 
 = 10,000   = 10,000 × (1.2) = 17,280 Answers
6 3
 100  5
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c)
Hence (b) is correct. 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
 CAT-Test
Questions Helping you bell the CAT

LEVEL 01 > BASIC LEVEL EXERCISE

1 In our Singapore office there are 60% female employees. 8 600 students took the test on Physics and Chemistry. 35%
50% of all the male employees are computer literate. If students failed in Physics and 45% students failed in
there are total 62% employees computer literate out of the Chemistry and 40% of those who passed in Chemistry also
total 1600 employees, then the no. of female employees passed in Physics, then how many students failed in both?
who are computer literate, provided that our employees (a) 162 (b) 138
are either male or female. (c) 60 (d) none of these
(a) 690 (b) 672
(c) 960 (d) Can’t be determined 9 In an examination 70% of the candidates passed in History
and 50% in Geography and 20% students failed in both the
2 The price of a car depreciates in the first year by 25% in the subjects. If 500 students passed in both the subjects, then
second year by 20% in the third year by 15% and so on. The how many candidates appeared for the exam ?
final price of the car after 3 years, if the present cost of the (a) 1,000
car is `. 10,00,000 : (b) 1,500
(a) 7,80,000 (b) 5,10,000 (c) 6,90,000 (d) 1,70,000 (c) 2,500
3 A shopkeeper charges sales tax of x % up to ` 2, 000 and (d) none of the above
above it he charges y %.A customer pays total tax of ` 320, 10 My salary is ` 12, 345 per month. The salary of my brother is
when he purchases the goods worth ` 6, 000 and he pay’s 10% greater than that of mine. The salary of my only sister
the total tax of ` 680 for the goods worth ` 12, 000. The
is 9. 09% greater than my only brother. The salary of my
value of ( x − y ) is : 12
(a) 0 (b) − 2 (c) − 4 (d) 5 wife is 56 % less than the total salary of my brother and
23
4 40% of a number when added to the square of the same sister together, then the salary of my wife is :
number, then it is increased to 4040% of itself the actual (a) greater than my sister’s salary
number is : 11
(b) 33 % less than my sister’s salary
(a) 175 (b) 400 (c) 40 (d) 120 23
(c) equal to my salary
Directions (for Q. Nos. 5-7) In my office there are 30% female 11
employees of whom 30% earn greater than ` 8000 per month and 80% (d) 44 % greater than my own salary
23
of male employees earn less than ` 8000 per month. It iw well known
that my employees are either male or remale. It is well known that my 11 MDTV is a very popular TV channel. It telecasts the
employees are either male of female. programmes from 8 : 00 a.m. to 12 : 00 p.m. It telecasts
60 advertisements each of 8 seconds and 16
5 What is the percentage of employees who earn more than advertisements each of 30 seconds. What is the percentage
` 8000 per month? of time devoted in a day for the advertisements?
(a) 30% (b) 23%
(a) 1.5% (b) 1.66%
(c) 60% (d) Can’t be determined
(c) 2% (d) 2.5%
6 What could be the maximum percentage of employees who
12 Lagaan is levied on the 60% of the cultivated land. The
earn more than ` 8000 per month?
revenue department collected total ` 3,84,000 through the
(a) 44% (b) 23%
lagaan from the village of Sukhiya. Sukhiya, a very rich
(c) 60% (d) Can’t be determined
farmer, paid only ` 480 as lagaan. The percentage of total
7 What could be the minimum percentage of employees who land of Sukhiya over the total taxable land of the village is :
earn less than ` 8000 per month? (a) 0.15% (b) 15%
(a) 9% (b) 14% (c) 0.125% (d) none of these
(c) 56% (d) Can’t be determined
288 QUANTUM CAT
13 The actual area of a rectangle is 60 cm2, but while 21 80% of a smaller number is 4 less than 40% of a larger
measuring its length a student decreases it by 20% and the number. The larger number is 85 greater than the smaller
breadth increases by 25%. The percentage error in area, one. The sum of these two numbers is :
calculated by the student is : (a) 325 (b) 425 (c) 235 (d) 500
(a) 5% (b) 25%
22 220% of a number ‘X’ is 44. What is 44% of ‘ X ’ ?
(c) can’t be determined (d) none of these
(a) 88 (b) 8.8
14 The cost of packaging of the mangoes is 40% the cost of (c) 66 (d) Data insufficient
fresh mangoes themselves. The cost of mangoes increased
23 The shopkeeper increased the price of a product by 25% so
by 30% but the cost of packaging decreases by 50%, then
that customer finds it difficult to purchase the required
the percentage change of the cost of packed mangoes, if the
amount. But somehow the customer managed to purchase
cost of packed mangoes is equal to the sum of the cost of
only 70% of the required amount. What is the net
fresh mangoes and cost of packaging :
difference in the expenditure on that product ?
(a) 14.17% (b) 7.14%
(a) 10% more (b) 5% more
(c) 6.66% (d) none of these
(c) 12.5% less (d) 17.5% less
15 Abhinav scores 80% in Physics and 66% in Chemistry and
24 In the previous government, party Q was in the opposition.
the maximum marks of both the papers are 100. What per
Now increasing the seats by 33.33% Q is the ruling party
cent does he score in maths which is of 200 marks, if he
and thus party Q enjoys twice the majority than that of
scores 80% marks in all the three subjects?
party P in the previous government. If there were only two
(a) 74% (b) 84%
parties P and Q and the fix no. of seats be 500 in the
(c) 87% (d) 83%
parliament of Hum-Tum, then the no. of seats of the Q in
16 In the New York Stock Exchange there are 45% female the new government is :
employees and thus the number of male employees is (a) 225 (b) 200 (c) 275 (d) 300
exceeded by 72. Hence the total no. of employees in the
25 In an examination a candidate got 30% marks and failed by
New York Stock Exchange is :
30 marks. If the passing marks are 60% of the total marks,
(a) 540 (b) 720 then the maximum marks will be :
(c) 7200 (d) 550 (a) 450 (b) 600 (c) 300 (d) 100
17 Three candidates A, B and C contested an election. Out of 26 In a school there are 1800 students. Last day except 4% of
the total votes on a voter list 25% did not vote and the boys all the students were present in the school. Today
6.66% votes polled were invalid. C got 2450 valid votes, except 5% of the girls all the students are present in the
which were 40% more than that of B. If A got only 40% of school, but in both the days no. of students present in the
the total votes, then who is the winner? school, were same. The no. of girls in the school is :
(a) A (b) B (a) 1200 (b) 800 (c) 1000 (d) 600
(c) C (d) can’t be determined
27 In a library 60% of the books are in Hindi, 60% of the
18 The cost of a car is 400% greater than the cost of a bike. If remaining are in English and rest of the books are in Urdu.
there is an increase in the cost of the car is 15% and that of If there are 3600 books in English, then the total no. of
bike is 20%. Then the total increase in the cost of the 5 cars books in Urdu are :
and 10 bikes is : (a) 2400 (b) 2500
3
(a) 17.5% (b) 16 % (c) 3000 (d) none of these
7
(c) 18.5% (d) 18.25% 28 In a test there are total n questions. Bhanu answers 20 out
of 25 questions correctly in the first section. In the second
19 The square of a positive number is 2, 000% greater than the section he answers 60% question correct and thus his total
number itself, then the square of that number is : score is 66.66% in the test. Given that all the questions
(a) 1762 (b) 1635 carry equal marks, without any negative marking. The total
(c) 441 (d) 139 no. of question in the test is :
20 The monthly salary of Shahid and Kareena together is (a) 50 (b) 60 (c) 75 (d) 100
$ 28,000. The salary of Shahid and Kareena is increased by 29 In a class of MBA students 16.66% students are from Science
25% and 12.5% respectively then the new salary of background and 12.5% students are from commerce
Kareena becomes 120% of the new salary of Shahid. The background and 6.66% students from arts background and
new (or increased) salary of Shahid is : rest are from Engineering background. The minimum
(a) $ 15,000 (b) $ 18,000 possible students of engineeering background are :
(c) $ 14,000 (d) $ 16,000 (a) 45 (b) 77 (c) 100 (d) 120
Percentages 289

30 An alloy contains the copper and aluminium in the ratio of 37 The charges per hour of internet surfing is increased by
7 : 4. While making the weapons from this alloy, 12% of the 25% then find the percentage decrease in the time period
alloy got destroyed. If there is 12 kg of aluminium in the of surfing of a user (a net savy) who can afford only a 10%
weapon, then the weight of the alloy required is : increase in expenditure :
(a) 48 kg (b) 40 kg (a) 22% (b) 12% (c) 15% (d) 9.09%
(c) 37.5 kg (d) 14.4 kg
38 The average earning of each member of the Ambani family
31 Hariharan goes to a shop to buy an FM radio costing ` 1404 is 20% less than the average earning of each member of the
including sales tax at 8%. He asks the shopkeeper to reduce Sahara family and the total earning of Ambani’s family is
the price of radio so that he can save the amount equal to 20% more than the total earning of Saharas’s family. The
the sales tax. The reduction of the price of the radio is : no. of family members in the Sahara is what per cent of the
(a) ` 108 (b) ` 104 no. of family members of Ambani?
(c) ` 112.32 (d) none of these (a) 25% (b) 20%
(c) 66.66% (d) None of these
32 The average weight of a class of students is 67.5 kg. The
weight of the class teacher is 25% more than the average 39 From 2000 onwards, till 2003 the price of computers
weight of the class. The average weight of the class is less increased every year by 10%. After that due to government
than the class teacher by x %. The value of x is : subsidy the price of computers decreases every year by
(a) 33.33% (b) 25% 10%. The price of a computer in 2006 will be approx. how
(c) 20% (d) can’t be determined much per cent less than the price in 2000 if the same
33 Last year in CAT, each section of the question paper had pattern of price is continued :
different weightage. The weightage of QA, DI and VA/RC (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) none of these
sections were 8, 9 and 10 respectively. The maximum marks
in all the three sections together was 810. Wrong answer did 40 A book consists of 30 pages, 25 lines on each page and 35
not carry negative marks as a penalty. If Padma had gotten characters on each line. If this content is written in another
20% more marks in QA and 8% more marks in DI and note book consisting of 30 lines and 28 characters per line,
7.14…% more marks in VA/RC, then she must had gotten then the required no. of pages will how much per cent
100% marks in all the three sections. The total marks that greater than the previous pages?
Padma had scored : (a) 4.16% (b) 5%
(a) 730 (b) 700 (c) 6.66% (d) none of these
(c) 750 (d) 775 41 The rate of increase of the price of sugar is observed to be
34 A salesman gets commission on total sales at 9%. If the sale two per cent more than the inflation rate expressed in
is exceeded ` 10,000 he gets an additional commission as percentage. The price of sugar on January 1, 2004 is
bonus of 3% on the excess of sales over ` 10,000. If he gets ` 20 per kg. The inflation rates of the years 2004 and 2005
total commission of ` 1380, then the bonus he received is : are expected to be 8% each. The expected price of sugar on
(a) ` 180 (b) ` 120 January 1, 2006 would be :
(c) ` 480 (d) Data insufficient (a) ` 23.60 (b) ` 24.00 (c) ` 24.20 (d) ` 24.60
35 In Veeru Bhai Pvt. limited company 60% of the employees are 42 A club has raised 75% of the amount it needs for a new
men and 48% of the employees are engineer and 66.6% of building by receiving an average donation of ` 600 from
these are men. The percentage of women who are not the people already solicited. The people already solicited
engineers : represents 60% of the people the club will ask for
(a) 33.33% (b) 60% donations. If the club is to raise exactly the amount needed
(c) 52% (d) 46.66% for the new building, what should be the average donation
36 Initially Veer had 60% more love letters than that of Zara. from the remaining people to be solicited?
(a) 250 (b) 300 (c) 400 (d) 600
In the last month the no. of love letters of Veer increased by
25% and that of Zara decreased by 25%. Again in the 43 A number x is mistakenly divided by 10 instead of being
present month the no. of love letters of Veer decreased to multiplied by 10. What is the percentage error in the
60% and that of Zara increased by 60%. Then which of the result?
following statements is correct regarding the present no. of (a) − 99% (b) + 99% (c) − 100% (d) + 100%
love letters?
44 What is the percentage change in the result when we add
(a) Veer has 40% more letters than that of Zara
50 to a certain number x, instead of subtracting 50 from the
(b) Zara has 20% less letters than that of Veer
same number x ?
(c) Veer and Zara have equal no. of letters
(a) 50% (b) 100%
(d) Zara has 37.5% less letters than that of Veer.
(c) 300% (d) can’t be determined
290 QUANTUM CAT
45 In the Regional Science Centre, Lucknow the rate of ticket (a) ` 3000 (b) ` 6000
is increased by 50% to increase the revenue, but (c) ` 1600 (d) Can’t be determined
simultaneously 20% of the visitors decreased. What is 49 In the previous question, if the difference in the rate of
percentage change in the revenue of Regional Science income tax be 9 (in per cent) then the income tax paid by
Centre. If it is known that the centre collects the revenue me :
only from the visitors and it has no other financial (a) ` 2000 (b) ` 2400
supports : (c) ` 1600 (d) none of these
(a) + 20% (b) − 25%
(c) + 30% (d) can’t be determined 50 The average of a set of whole numbers is 27.2. When the
20% of the elements (ie numbers) are eliminated from the
46 Recently when I visited a show room of shoes shopkeeper set of numbers then the average becomes 34. The number
told me that he could reduce the price of Bata shoes by 49% of elements in the new set of numbers can be :
and if I were to purchase Woodland shoes he could reduce (a) 27 (b) 35 (c) 52 (d) 63
the price to 51% of the original price. If the marked price
(i.e., printed price) of both the shoes was same, then which 51 In a class, the no. of boys is more than the no. of girls by
shoes was cheap to buy : 12% of the total strength. The ratio of boys to girls is :
(a) Woodland (b) Bata (c) Both (d) Can’t say (a) 15 :11 (b) 11 : 14 (c) 14 :11 (d) 8 : 11

47 Selling price of a shirt and a coat is ` 4000. The cost price of 52 The population of a village is 5000 and it increases at the
a shirt is 58.33% of the cost price of a coat and so amount of rate of 2% every year. After 2 years, the population will be :
profit on both the shirt and coat is same, then the price of (a) 5116 (b) 5202 (c) 5200 (d) 5204
the shirt could be : 53 A customer asks for the production of x number of goods.
(a) ` 2100 (b) ` 2525 (c) ` 2499 (d) ` 1120 The company produces y number of goods daily. Out of
48 On the April 1, 2005 my salary increased from ` 10,000 to ` which z%are unfit for sale. The order will be completed in :
x 100 yz
16,000. Simultaneously the rate of income tax decreased (a) days (b) days
by 37.5% , So the amount of income tax paid by me 100 y (1 − z ) x
remains constant what is the value of income tax paid by 100 x 100
(c) days (d) days
me : y (100 − z ) y (z − 1)

LEVEL 02 > HIGHER LEVEL EXERCISE

1 In the Awadh school Gomti Nagar, there are 500 students. 4 In the Presidency College two candidates contested a
60% of the students are boys, 40% of whom play hockey presidential election. 15% of the voters did not vote and
and the girls don’t play hockey, 75% of girls play 41 votes were invalid. The elected contestant got 314 votes
badminton. There are only two games to be played. The more than the other candidate. If the elected candidate got
number of students who don’t play any game is : 45% of the total eligible votes, which is equal to the no. of
(a) 10% (b) 36% all the students of the college. The individual votes of each
(c) 46% (d) can’t be determined candidate are :
(a) 2250 and 1936 (b) 3568 and 3254
2 A fraction in reduced form is such that when it is squared
(c) 2442 and 2128 (d) 2457 and 2143
and then its numerater is increased by 25% and the
denominator is reduced to 80% it results in 5/8 of the 5 The annual earning of Mr. Sikkawala is ` 4 lakhs per
original fraction. The product of the numerator and annum for the first year of his job and his expenditure was
denominator is : 50%. Later on for the next 3 years his average income
(a) 6 (b) 12 increases by ` 40,000 per annum and the saving was 40%,
(c) 10 (d) 7 30% and 20% of the income. What is the percentage of his
total savings over the total expenditure if there is no any
3 In the Chidambaram’s family the ratio of expenses to the
interest is applied on the savings for these four years?
savings is 5 : 3. But his expenses is increased by 60% and 37
income increases by only 25% thus there is a deficit of (a) 49 %
87
` 3500 in the savings. The increased income of 73
Mr. Chidambaram’s family is : (b) 41 %
83
(a) ` 35,000 (b) ` 28,000 (c) 53%
(c) ` 25,000 (d) ` 18,500 (d) none of the above
Percentages 291

6 In an election only two candidates contested 20% of the Directions (for Q. Nos. 13 to 14) Pati, Patni and Woh (the three
voters did not vote and 120 votes were declared as invalid. persons) were playing a game. At the begining of the game Pati
The winner got 200 votes more than his opponents thus he and Patni together had 100% more money than Woh. Patni and
secured 41% votes of the total voters on the voter list. Woh together had 300% more than Pati. By the end of the game
Percentage votes of the defeated candidate out of the total Pati and Patni together had 100% more money than Woh had and
votes casted is : Pati had 12.5% less money than Patni and Woh together had.
(a) 47.5% (b) 41% Finally Pati gained ` 800 by the end of the game.
(c) 38% (d) 45%
13 Who has suffered the loss?
Directions (for Q. Nos. 7 to 9) Pujari ji, the chief of a temple’s (a) Patni (b) Woh
trust, has a beautiful daughter Nirjala and a son in law, Radhey. (c) Patni and Woh both (d) Can’t be determined
Pujarin, the wife of Pujari ji, lives her own life by receiving the 14 The percentage change of money of Patni is :
alms from the devotees and receives 9.09% earning of her husband (a) 40% (b) 30% (c) 57.1428% (d) 42.857%
and the daughter together. The earning of Nirjala in each month is
` 8000 less than her husband Radhey. The earning of Pujari ji and 15 The raw material and manufacturing cost formed
Radhey together is ` 30,000 per month. The earning of Radhey individually 70% and 30% of the total cost and the profit
and Nirjala together is ` 133.33% greater than that of Pujari ji. percentage is 14.28% of the raw material. If the cost of raw
material increase by 20% and the cost of manufacturing is
7 The average earning of each Pujari ji., Nirjala and Radhey is increased by 40% and the selling price is increased by 80%,
(a) ` 13333.33 (b) ` 888.88 then the new profit percentage is :
(c) ` 15,000 (d) none of these (a) 57% (b) 65.8%
8 What is the earning of Pujarin from the alms? (c) 60% (d) can’t determined
(a) ` 1800 (b) ` 2000 16 A, B, C and D purchased a cine-multiplex for ` 56 lakhs. The
(c) ` 3600 (d) Can’t be determined contribution of B, C and D together is 460% that of A,
9 The earning of Radhey is how much per cent greater than alone.The contribution of A, C and D together is 366.66%
that of his wife? that of B’s contribution and the contribution of C is 40% that
(a) 50% (b) 80% of A, B and D together. The amount contributed by D is
11 (a) 10 lakh (b) 12 lakh (c) 16 lakh (d) 18 lakh
(c) 47 % (d) none of these
13 17 In a village three people contested for the post of village
10 A sales executive gets 20% bonus of the total sales value Pradhan. Due to their own interest, all the voters voted and
and 10% commission besides the bonus on the net profit no one vote was invalid. The losing candidate got 30%
after charging such commission. If the total sales value be votes. What could be the minimum absolute margin of
` 10 lakh per annum and the total profit of the company be votes by which the winning candidate led by the nearest
` 1.32 lakh, then his total earning per annum will be, given rival, if each candidate got an integral per cent of votes?
that he is not entitled to receive any fixed salary from the (a) 4 (b) 2
company (c) 1 (d) none of these
(a) 2.3 lakh 18 Every day a mango seller sells half his stock, 10% of the
(b) 3.2 lakh stock overnight gets spoiled. If 1983 mangoes rotted over
(c) 2.32 lakh 3 nights then how many did he start with on the first day?
(d) 2.12 lakh (a) 25,000 (b) 24,000 (c) 30,000 (d) 32,000
11 Mr Scindia after selling 5.5% stock at ` 92 releases 19 A man lost half of his initial amount in the gambling after
1 playing 3 rounds. The rule of gambling is that if he wins he will
` 32200. Then he invested of the amount in 4.5% stock at
3 receive ` 100, but he has to give 50% of the total amount after
2 each round. Luckily he won all the three rounds. The initial
` 92, of the amount at ` 115 in 5% stock and the
5 amount with which he had started the gambling was :
remaining in 6% stock at ` 56. The change in his income is : 500 700
(a) (b) (c) 300 (d) 600
(a) ` 56 loss (b) ` 78 profit 3 3
(c) ` 80 profit (d) ` 70 loss
20 In a factory there are three types of Machines M 1, M 2 and
12 Each edge of a cube is increased by 20% then the M 3 which produces 25% , 35%, and 40% of the total
percentage increase in surface area of the cube is : products respectively. M 1, M 2 and M 3 produces 2%, 4%
(a) 144% (b) 40% and 5% defective products, respectively. What is the
(c) 44% (d) 72.8% percentage of non-defective products?
(a) 89% (b) 97.1% (c) 96.1% (d) 86.1%
292 QUANTUM CAT
21 A company has 12 machines of equal efficiency in its factory. 27 In the above question in which year the no. of goats was
The annual manufacturing expenses are ` 24,000 and the minimum?
establishment charges are ` 10,000. The annual output of the (a) 2000 (b) 2001
company is ` 48,000. The annual output and manufacturing (c) 2002 (d) 2004
costs are directly proportional to the no. of machines while the
share holders get the 10% profit, which is directly proportional Directions (for Q. Nos. 28 to 30) In the IGNOU (Indira Gandhi
to the annual output of the company. If 8.33% machines National Open University) there are total 16,000 students
remained close throughout the year. Then the percentage pursuing MBA, which offers the specialization only in Finance,
decrease in the amount of Share holders is HR and Marketing. IGNOU accepts only Science, Commerce and
(a) 16.66% (b) 14.28% Engineering students for the two years course of MBA. The
(c) 8.33% (d) none of these number of Science students is 166.66% of the Commerce students.
Number of Engineering students is equal to the number of Science
22 In every month Ravindra consumes 25 kg rice and 9 kg and Commerce students together.
wheat. The price of rice is 20% of the price of wheat and Each student can specialize in only one of the marketing, HR and
thus he spends total ` 350 on the rice and wheat per Finance. 20% of Science students opted the Finance, which is
month. If the price of wheat is increased by 20% then what 16.66% less than the no. of Commerce students who opted
is the percentage reduction of rice consumption for the Finance. The total Finance students is equal to 18% the total
same expenditure of ` 350? Given that the price of rice and strength of the MBA students. 32% of Science students opted HR.
consumption of wheat is constant. Commerce students who opted HR is equal to 25% of total students
(a) 36% (b) 40% (c) 25% (d) 24% specializing in Finance and Engineering students equal to 6.5% of
23 My friend Siddhartha Ghosh is working in the Life the total strength of the MBA students opted HR.
Insurance Corporation of India (LIC). He was hired on the 28 The number of Engineering students who opted marketing is
basis of commission and he got the bonus only on the first (a) 7850 (b) 7500
years commission. He got the policies of ` 2 lakh having (c) 8850 (d) none of these
maturity period of 10 year. His commission in the first
29 The percentage of Commerce students who opted HR over
second, third, fourth and for the rest of the years is 20%,
the total strength of the MBA students is :
16% 12% 10% and 4% respectively. The bonus is 25% of
(a) 6.6% (b) 42.5%
the commission. If the annual premium is ` 20,000 then
(c) 4.5% (d) 62.5%
what is his total commission if the completion of the
maturity of all the policies is mandatory? 30 The most preferable course among the MBA students is :
(a) ` 17,400 (b) ` 23, 600 (c) ` 15,000 (d) ` 15,500 (a) Finance (b) HR
(c) Marketing (d) I. T and systems
Directions (for Q. Nos. 24 and 25) DELL Computer has two
branches : One in Ohio and second in Texas : The total no. of 31 P % of the students of a class passed the exam. g% of the
employees in Ohio office grew this year by 25% to 750 but the passed students are girls and b% of the fail students are
ratio of male to female employees is same as in the previous year. boys. The percentage of passed boys over the failed girls is:
The no. of employees in the Texas office grew this year by 9.09% to  bg 
1200. The ratio of male to female employees last year in the Texas (a)  × 100
 p 
office was 5 : 6 and the no. of male employees in the Ohio office
was 20% less than that of Texas office. 100 (100 − g ). p
(b)
(100 − p)(100 − b)
24 The total no. of female employees this year in both the offices (100 − g )(100 − b)
is : (c)
(100 − p)
(a) 654 (b) 546
(c) 950 (d) can’t be determined (d) none of the above

25 The total no. of employees in both the offices last year was : 32 In the Polo hospital some patients who were suffering from
(a) 1500 (b) 1700 the Hepatites-B were admitted for the treatment , but 9%
(c) 1650 (d) can’t be detemined of the patients were died within half an hour. After
treatment, the percentage of patients cured out of the
26 A shepherd had n goats in the year 2000. In 2001 the no. of
remaining was only 80%. Out of these patients only 70%
goats increased by 40%. In 2002 the no. of goats declined
are completely cured out and the remaining were partially
to 70%. In 2003 the no. of goats grew by 30%. In 2004, he
cured out which were equal to 153 patients. The no. of
sold 10% goats, then he had only 34,398 goats. The
percentage increase of the no. of goats in this duration patients (approx.) who were admitted for the treatment for
was : the same was :
(a) 14.66% (b) 16.66% (c) 20% (d) 33.33% (a) 400 (b) 678 (c) 560 (d) 700
Percentages 293

33 The total cost of setting up a sugar cane factory is `1 crore, 39 The prepaid card of Reliance Infocom gives 19% less
which produces 5000 ton per annum. Sugar is being sold at talktime than the prepaid card of Tata Indicom, having
` 18 per kg. Manufacturing cost including raw material is ` same price. Again the post-paid card of same price of Tata
3.2 per kg, labour and packing charges are ` 1.8 per kg. Indicom gives 10% less talktime than its prepaid card.
Maintenance and utilities expenses are ` 2 per kg and the Similarly the post paid card of same price of Reliance gives
general expenses (ie all the rest charges) are ` 3 per kg, 11.11% less talk time than its prepaid card. How much per
20% taxes are being paid of the gross annual earnings, then cent less talk time we get from the Reliance post paid card
the net profit of the production of the factory per annum is : than the post paid card of Tata Indicom?
(a) ` 4.2 crore (b) ` 3.2 crore (a) 21.11% (b) 20%
(c) ` 5.4 crore (d) none of these (c) 30.11% (d) none of these
34 A student appeard in the Mock CAT. The test paper 40 In the half yearly exam only 70% of the students were
contained 3 sections namely QA, DI and VA. The passed. Out of these (passed in half yearly) only 60%
percentage marks in VA was equal to the average of the student are passed in annual exam. Out of those who did
percentage marks in all the 3 sections. Coincidentally, if we not pass the half yearly exam, 80% passed in annual exam.
reverse the digits of the percentage marks of QA we get the What per cent of the students passed the annual exam ?
percentage marks of DI. The percentage marks in VA (a) 42% (b) 56%
scored by the student could be : (c) 66% (d) none of these
(a) 48 (b) 66 41 The marks obtained by the students of a school is given
(c) 69 (d) 81 below : maximum marks are 50.
35 The pressure of a definite mass of a gas is directly
Marks Percentage of Students
proportional to the temperature and inversely proportional
to the volume under the given conditions. If temperature is < 10 15%
increased by 40% and the volume is decreased by 20% then < 20 32%
the new pressure will:
< 30 40%
(a) be increased by 75% (b) reduce to 25%
(c) be increase by 20% (d) increase by 28% < 40 70%
< 50 100%
36 A computer typist types a page with 20 lines in 10 minutes
but he leaves 8% margin on the left side of the page. Now The ratio of no. of boys to no. of girls who passed the
he has to type 23 pages with 40 lines on each page which exam is 7 : 6. It is known that a student can pass the
he leaves 25% more margin than before. How much time is exam only when he obtained at least 20 marks in the
now required to type these 23 pages? exam. The total no. of students in the school if the no. of
1 2 girls who are passed is 408 :
(a) 7 hrs (b) 7 hrs
2 3 (a) 1100 (b) 1200
1 (c) 1300 (d) 1430
(c) 23 hrs (d) 3.916 hrs
2
Direction (for Q. Nos. 42 to 45) After defeating Ravana, Ram
37 A company made a cuboidal box of size 16 × 12 × 5 to sell and his family won a lot of valuable assets in the war. It consists of
the ice cream, but later on it was found that the capacity of horses, chariots and some land of Ravans’s kingdom. The cost of
the box was 14.28% less than the required capacity while each horse and chariot was ` 20,000 and ` 8,000 respectively
the height of the box was correct, which is 5 inches. As per while the cost of 1 acre land was ` 5000. All the property was
the requirement he had to increase the length and breadth shared among the four persons in such a way that Ram and Sita
of the box in equal amount then the percentage increase in got together the same wealth as Laxman and Urmila got together.
the area of the base of the box is Ram got more than Sita and Laxman got more than Urmila. Ram
(a) 12.5% (b) 6.66% got 1/ 3 rd horses and 20% chariots while Laxman received
(c) 16.66% (d) none of these 50%chariots as the 50% of his total wealth. The no. of horses that
Ram and Sita got together was 50% more than that of Laxman and
38 In Sabarmati Express, there are as many wagons as there
Urmila together had. Sita got 8 horses and Urmila got 7 horses but
are the no. of seats in each wagon and not more than one
the Ram and Sita got equal no. of Chariots and Urmila got 20
passanger can have the same berth (seat). If the
chariots less than that of Laxman. Urmila got twice the land than
middlemost compartment carrying 25 passangers is filled that of Sita but 20% less than Laxman.
with 71.428% of its capacity, then find the maximum no. of
passangers in the train that can be accommodated if it has 42 What is the difference between the wealth of Ram and
minimum 20% seats always vacant. wealth of Urmila?
(a) 500 (b) 786 (a) 1.2 lakh (b) 1 lakh
(c) 980 (d) can’t be determined (c) 1.4 lakh (d) can’t be determined
294 QUANTUM CAT
43 If Laxman wanted to exchange all his chariots with the and 60% of the boys who appeared for the interview of
horses, then who can exchange with his/her horses in IIM-B failed. If it is possible that a candidate can receive the
terms of wealth? calls from more than one IIMs but he/ she can face the
(a) Ram (b) Sita interview of only one IIM.
(c) Urmila (d) can’t be determined Given that only 24 boys from our coaching institute were
selected by the IIM-A and IIM-B also a candidate can
44 The wealth of Urmila is how many per cent less than that of appear for the next stage only if he/she qualifies the
Laxman? previous stage of the exam, then find the no. of girls who
(a) 42% (b) 45% qualified the CAT (Common Admission Test).
(c) 35% (d) none of these (a) 100 (b) 250 (c) 300 (d) 600
45 The wealth due to land and chariot together is how much 48 In an office there were initially n employees. The HR
greater, in per cent, than the wealth due to horses? manager first hired P % employees then after a month q%
(a) 25% (b) 20% employees left the office, then there were finally n
(c) 33.33% (d) none of these
employees remained in the office, the value of p − q is :
46 A big cube is formed by rearranging the 160 coloured and pq
(a) pq (b)
56 non-coloured similar cubes in such a way that the 100
exposure of the coloured cubes to the outside is minimum. p
(c) (d) none of these
The percentage of exposed area that is coloured is: q
(a) 25.9% (b) 44.44%
49 In the Garbar Jhala, Aminabad a shopkeeper first raises the
(c) 35% (d) none of these
price of a Jewellery by x % then he decreases the new price
47 Selection into IIMs (Indian Institutes of Management) is by x %. After one such up down cycle, the price of a
quite simple. In our coaching institute some students Jewellery decreased by ` 21025. After a second updown
qualified CAT (The first stage of entrance into IIMs) but cycle the jewellery was sold for ` 484416. What was the
coincidentally the no. of boys who qualified the CAT was original price of the jewellery?
equal to the no. of girls. Besides these boys and girls got the (a) ` 5,00,000 (b) ` 6,00,625
calls from only IIM Ahamedabad and IIM Bangalore, but (c) ` 5,25,625 (d) ` 5,26,000
each of these from both the IIMs. 60% of the boys failed in
the group discussion (the second phase of the selection 50 The amount of work in a leather factory is increased by
process) and thus equal no of boys (but distinct) appeared 50%. By what per cent is it necessary to increase the
for the personal interview of IIM-A and IIM-B (interview is number of workers to complete the new amount of work in
the third and final stage of selection of a candidate) but previously planned time, if the productivity of the new
20% of the boys who appeared for the interview of IIM-A labour is 25% more.
(a) 60% (b) 66.66% (c) 40% (d) 33.33%

LEVEL 03 > Final Round

Directions (for Q. Nos. 1 to 3) The bar graph shown below 1 The growth rate of Finance compared to that of marketing
reveals the data about the no. of students in different disciplines of is:
MBA at a prominent Business School in India. (a) less
(b) equal
(c) greater
(d) none of the above
2 Total no. of MBA students in the session of 2004-05 if the
no. of students in 2004-2005 is increasing by 9.09% over
the previous year :
(a) 555 (b) 600
(c) 777 (d) none of these
3 In the session of 2002-03 what percentage of MBA students
are studying International Business?
(a) 13.33% (b) 25%
(c) 6.66% (d) 24%
Percentages 295

Directions (for Q. Nos. 4 to 7) The following table gives the sales Directions (for Q. Nos. 11 to 14) Answer the questions based on
details of the books for CAT written by Sarvesh. the following information, which gives data about certain butter
producer companies in India.
Quant. Data Verbal Log.
Year Production Capacity Sales Total sales
Aptitude Interpretation Ability Reasoning Name of the
(’000) Utilisa- (’000) value
Company
2000 4000 3750 4140 4350 tonnes tion (%) tonnes (in crore)
2001 4200 3870 4260 4400 Amul 1.54 59.35 1.47 17.45
2002 4370 3990 4255 4500 Nestle 1.64 64.80 1.26 15.25
2003 4268 3868 5371 4690 Parag 2.48 71.20 2.03 26.75
2004 4750 4900 5476 4710 Amrit 2.97 76.50 2.55 31.15
2005 4800 5000 5500 4800
Total
4 What is the growth rate of sales of Quantitative Aptitude (including 11.60 61.30 10.67 132.80
from 2000 to 2005? others)
(a) 8% (b) 25% 11 What is the maximum production capacity (in ’000 tonnes)
(c) 20% (d) 40% of Nestle for Butter?
5 Which of the categories shows the lowest growth rate from (a) 2.53 (b) 2.07 (c) 2.84 (d) 2.97
2000 to 2005? 12 Which company out of the four companies mentioned
(a) Q.A (b) DI above has the maximum unutilised capacity in (’000
(c) VA (d) LR tonnes)?
6 Which category had the highest growth rate in the period? (a) Amul (b) Nestle (c) Parag (d) Amrit
(a) QA (b) DI 13 What is the approximate total production capacity
(c) VA (d) LR (in ’000 tonnes) for butter in India?
(a) 7.8 (b) 18.9
7 Which of the categories had either a consistent growth or
(c) 11.60 (d) Data insufficient
consistent decline in the period shown?
(a) QA (b) DI (c) VA (d) LR 14 What per cent of the total market share (by sales value) is
controlled by others?
Directions (for Q. Nos. 8 to 10) In India there were only three
(a) 32% (b) 83%
bicycle making companies in the given period. The following table
(c) 67% (d) Data insufficient
shows the production of units (in 000)
Directions (for Q. no. 15 to 19) The following pie chart shows the
Year HERO ATLAS AVON
hourly distribution of all the major activities of a student.
1990 2.97 1.75 3.77
Home work
91 4.22 2.48 4.55
92 5.95 3.14 4.5 School
93 6.28 3.01 4.76 Games 45°
94 6.33 4.12 4.74 105°
30°
95 8.50 4.21 4.26 120°
60°

UPTREND IN BICYCLES PRODUCTION IN INDIA

Others
8 The simple average rate of growth of production of Hero Sleeping
cycles from 1990-95 :
(a) 37% (b) 42% (c) 27% (d) 31.5% 15 The percentage of time which he spends in school is :
(a) 38% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 25%
9 Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(i) Atlas cycles have recorded the fastest growth rate. 16 How much time (in per cent) he spends in games in
(ii) Total bicycles production was the highest in 1993. comparison to sleeping?
(iii) Hero cycles on an average account for 48% of total (a) 30% (b) 40%
bicycles production (c) 25% (d) none of these
(a) I only (b) II only 17 If he spends the time in games equal to the home work and
(c) III only (d) none of these remains constant in other activities, then the percentage
10 Atlas cycles on an average account for what percentage of decrease in time of sleeping :
the total bicycles production : (a) 15% (b) 12.5%
(a) 15% (b) 23.4% (c) 34.5% (d) 29% (c) 20% (d) none of these
296 QUANTUM CAT
18 What is the difference in time (in hours) spends in school 23 Which of the following can’t be deduced from the given
and in home work? data :
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) The angular difference between Samsung TV and
(c) 4 (d) 8 Electrolux refrigerator is 3.6°.
(b) Sony is the market leader in the TV and Refrigerator
19 If he spends 1 rd time of home work in Mathematics then
segment combined.
3
the no. of hours spends in rest of the subjects in homework (c) For every ` 100 turnover of Whirlpool Refrigerator, the
(a) 1 (b) 2 difference in the turnover of Electrolux and Samsung
(c) 3 (d) 4 Refrigerator is ` 33.34 crore.
(d) none of the above
Directions (for Q. Nos. 20 to 23) The two pie charts show the
market share of different companies which produces TV and Directions (for Q. Nos. 24 to 28) Number of different colleges in
Refrigerator (both) in the first quarter of 2005-06. India in different years is given in the graph below. Distribution of
different colleges in the years 1980 and 1990 shown in the pie
LG
charts below :
Others Samsung
7
14 12 60000
60,000
50000 52,000
Sony 19
18 Electrolux 40000
3
30000 32,000
16 11
Whirpool
20000
Aiwa Godrej
T.V. 10000 12,000
Aiwa 5,000
Electrolux 0
LG 1960 1970 1980 1990 2000
12
8 13
Medical
Godrej 16 15 Sony 11

6 Management
11 19 13
Whirlpool
Samsung
Others 20
REFRIGERATOR Engineering 56

NOTE The graph is not shown to scale. General

(1980)
20 The difference in the angle subtended by Sony TV and
refrigerator is : General
(a) 7.2° (b) 14.4°
(c) 21.6° (d) none of these
50
21 If the turn over of Samsung TV is ` 31 crores and of
Samsung refrigerator is ` 9 crores, then what is the overall
25 9 Medical
market share of Electrolux TV and refrigerater combined?
Engineering
(a) 33.33% (b) 28%
(c) 16.7% (d) 65% 16

22 If the turnover in the first quarter of 2005-06 of Electrolux

TV and Refrigerator is ` 42 crores and ` 6 crores Management
(1990)
respectively, then what is the average annual turnover of
Godrej and Aiwa in both the product categories together?
(a) ` 304 crores NOTE General courses include all the courses except Medical,
(b) ` 284 crores Engineering and management.
(c) ` 178 crores
(d) none of the above
Percentages 297

24 What is percentage increase in the number of colleges from 27 Till 1990 what was the highest increase in the number of
1960 to 1990? colleges in any decade?
(a) 1000% (b) 940% (c) 1040% (d) 470% (a) 150% (b) 166.66%
(c) 200% (d) 140%
25 The growth rate of no. of medical colleges in 1980 to 1990 is
(a) 33% (b) 52% (c) 36% (d) 39% 28 If the projected increase in the number of colleges in 2000
over 1990 is to be the same in all the categories of colleges,
26 By what percentage did the no. of Engineering colleges go
the percentage of Medical colleges in 2000 will be :
up from 1960 to 1970?
(a) 9% (b) 11%
(a) 38% (b) 28%
(c) 7% (d) 13%
(c) 42% (d) cann’t of be determind

Directions (for Q. Nos. 29 to 33) Answer the questions based on the following information. The following table gives the tariff (in paise
per kilo-litre) levied by the Lucknow jal Nigam in 2003-04 in four sectors and the region within them. (Each sector is divided in 5 regions).
The table gives the percentage change in the tariff as compared to 2000-01.

Region 1 Region 2 Region 3 Region 4 Region 5

P/kl % P/kl % P/kl % P/kl % P/kl %
Sector 1 1000 + 25 400 + 14.28 250 − 16.66 625 + 4.166 720 + 20%
Sector 2 800 + 33.33 375 + 7.14 350 − 12.5 750 + 7.14 360 − 10
Sector 3 625 − 16.66 525 − 12.5 400 + 14.28 240 − 4% 320 − 20
Sector 4 575 − 4.166 800 − 20% 500 − 16.66 360 + 20% 400 − 11.11

29 If the amount of water consumed by the various regions in conducted a survey among 10,000 person in Kanpur :
sector 1 is the same, then as compared to 2000-01 the net House wives
tariff in 2003-04 : Business men
2%
(a) increased by 20% (b) increased by 13% 10%
(c) decreased by 12% (d) decreased by 20% Govt. servants
13%
30 What was the approximate average tariff in region 2 in Students 45%
2000-01?
(a) 450 (b) 675 (c) 575 (d) 525
30%
Directions (for Q. Nos. 31 to 33) The Lucknow Jal Nigam
Professionals
supplies the water under four categories : Urban (25%) rural
(15%) domestic (40%) industrial (20%). In 2003-04, the total
water supplied by the Lucknow Jal Nigam was 20,000 kilo-litres. It was observed that some people have more than one bike but
from only one company i.e., a particular person can have more
31 If in 2003-04, there was a 20% decrease in the domestic than one bike of Hero Honda, but not from bajaj etc. and vice
consumption of water as compared to that in 2000-01 what versa. Thus there were total 12,000 bikes with 10,000 persons
was the consumption of water in the industrial sector in used for survey. There are only four companies operating in this
2000-01? market.
(a) 5,000 kl (b) 7500 kl (c) 10,000 kl (d) 6000 kl
LML
32 In the given two years, what is the total tariff paid by the
Urban sector? 10%
(a) ` 16,000 (b) ` 48,000 SUZUKI
10%
(c) ` 23,000 (d) can't be determined
Hero 55%
33 Which of the following statements is true? Honda
(a) The average tariff in region 2 is 625 25%
Bajaj
(b) The average tariff in region 4 is greater than the
average tariff in region 5
(c) In 2000-01 the industrial sector contributed about 30%
of the total revenue from water supply
(d) none of the above

Directions (for Q. Nos. 34 to 37) A marketing company 34 If each of Students, Govt. Servants and housewives use a
298 QUANTUM CAT
Hero Honda bike (motorcycle), what per cent of the Directions (Q. Nos. 43 to 50) Solve the following questions on
remaining people drive Hero Honda bike? the basis of given data in the following table :
(a) 15% (b) 25%
Production of Rice in India
(c) 20% (d) none of these
Year Quantity Percentage change over
35 If the number of people who drive one, two and three bikes
(in tonnes) the previous year
are in the ratio 15 : 3 : 1 what is the number of people in the
survey who do not drive even a single bike? 1920-21 1,34,300 + 06.25%
(a) 750 (b) 400 (c) 600 (d) 500 1930-31 10,97,172 + 12.50%
1940-41 2,64,280 + 11.11%
36 If all the persons driving more than one bike drive only
Hero Honda what is the number of people who drive single 1950-51 1,27,890 − 09.09%
Hero Honda bike (the data can be used from previous 1960-61 2,01,924 + 20.00%
question if necessary)? 1970-71 1,12,325 − 16.66%
(a) 2400 (b) 2100 (c) 4200 (d) 2600 1980-81 2,13,465 − 25.00%
37 If 20% of the persons who drive Bajaj’s bike also drive 1990-91 1,69,368 + 33.33%
another bike. What is the number of people who drive only 2000-01 100,956 + 50.00%
Bajaj’ bike ? 2010-11 23,800 − 83.33%
(a) 2400 (b) 2500
(c) 2660 (d) none of these 43 What is the production of rice in 1959-60?
(a) 1,84,250 (b) 1,68,270
Directions (for Q. Nos. 38 to 42) A table below shows the
(c) 242308.8 (d) none of these
production and imports of crude oil (in '000 tonnes). Domestic
production of crude oil is total of on-shore and off-shore 44 What is the production of rice in 1949-50?
production, which is supplemented by imports to meet the total (a) 116263.63 (b) 1,23,460
demand of crude oil in the country. (c) 1,40,679 (d) none of these
Year 2001 2002 2003 45 What is the total production of rice in 1919-20 and 1929-30
On shore 12,000 11,500 11,000 and 1939-40 ?
Off shore 11,000 19,000 16,000 (a) 13,26,400 (b) 13,39,516
Imports 30,000 (c) 1142693.75 (d) can’t be determined
21,000 24,000
(in ’000 tonnes)
46 The production of rice in 2000-01 forms what percentage
of total production out of the given years?
38 What was the percentage of domestic production of crude (a) 3.12% (b) 3.23%
oil over imports in 2001? (c) 4.128% (d) 6.45%
(a) 80% (b) 140%
(c) 109.52% (d) none of these 47 What is the difference in production of rice in 1969-70 and
1979-80 ?
39 What was the percentage change in domestic production of (a) 149830
crude oil from 2001-2003 ? (b) 175752
(a) 14% (b) 27% (c) 17.4% (d) − 10% (c) 53,890
40 What is the average of total demand of crude oil over the (d) none of these
period? 48 The percentage decrease in production of rice from
(a) 185 million tonnes (b) 52 million tonnes
1929-30 to 1949-50?
(c) 18.5 million tonnes (d) 35 million tonnes
(a) 88.3% (b) 85.57%
41 What was the approx-percentage increase in imports of (c) 66.66% (d) none of these
crude oil from 2001 to 2003?
49 The production of rice in 1959-60 is what percentage of
(a) 49% (b) 65% (c) 43% (d) none of these
rice in 1960-61?
42 If in the year 2004, off-shore production declines by 12.5% (a) 86.66% (b) 75.6% (c) 83.33% (d) 16.66%
production on-shore remains the same and total demand
increases by 2% what will be the imports of crude oil in 2004? 50 Out of the given years which year has shown least increase
(a) 33.14 million tonnes (b) 63 million tonnes (in amount) over the previous year?
(c) 39 million tonnes (d) 25 million tonnes (a) 1940-41 (b) 1960-61
(c) 1920-21 (d) 2000-01
 Answers
Introductory Exercise 5.1
1. (i) 5%, (ii) 15.625, (iii) 33.33%, (iv) 24%, (v) 20%, (vi) 150%, (vii) 66.66%, (viii) 43.75%
2. (i) 4%, (ii) 75%, (iii) 6.25%, (iv) 33.33%, (v) 0.4166%, (vi) 7.5%
1
3. 85.33% 4. 70% 5. 97% 6. 150% 7. 33 % 8. 90% 9. 12.5% 10. 4%
3
Level 01 Basic Level Exercise
1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (a)
21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25 (d) 26 (b) 27 (a) 28 (c) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (c) 33 (a) 34 (b) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (b) 40 (c)
41 (c) 42 (b) 43 (a) 44 (d) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (d) 48 (d) 49 (b) 50 (c)
51 (c) 52 (b) 53 (c)
Level 02 Higher Level Exercise
1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (b) 10 (d)
11 (c) 12 (c) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (b) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (a) 23 (a) 24 (d) 25 (b) 26 (a) 27 (c) 28 (d) 29 (c) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (d) 33 (b) 34 (b) 35 (a) 36 (a) 37 (c) 38 (c) 39 (b) 40 (c)
41 (c) 42 (a) 43 (a) 44 (c) 45 (b) 46 (b) 47 (a) 48 (b) 49 (c) 50 (c)

Level 03 Final Round

1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (a) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (b)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (b) 24 (b) 25 (a) 26 (d) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (a) 32 (d) 33 (b) 34 (a) 35 (d) 36 (b) 37 (a) 38 (c) 39 (c) 40 (b)
41 (c) 42 (a) 43 (b) 44 (c) 45 (b) 46 (c) 47 (a) 48 (b) 49 (c) 50 (c)
300 QUANTUM CAT
Hints & Solutions
Level 01 Basic Level Exercise
1 F M 7 To minimize the number of employees who earn less than
60 x 40 x ` 8000, we have to maximize the number of employees who
42x 20 x (comp. lit.) earn equal to or greater than ` 8000. We can assume that all
the 21 female employees earn exactly ` 8000 and so, none
62x
of them earn less than ` 8000. However, there are 56 male
42
∴ Female comp. literate = 1600 × = 672 employees who definitely earn less than ` 8000. Therefore,
100
minimum 56 employees must earn less than ` 8000.
2 (10, 00, 000) × 0.75 × 0.80 × 0.85 = ` 5,10, 000
Female Male Total
x y
3 2000 × + 4000 × = 320 30 70 100%
100 100
x y Salary > 8000 9 No data No data
and 2000 × + 10, 000 × = 680 Salary = 8000 21 No data No data
100 100
Salary < 8000 0 56 56
∴ x = 4 and y=6
Salary ≥ 8000 No data 14 No data
∴ x−y=−2
4 Go through option (40 × 0.4) + (40)2 = 1616 Hence, choice (c) is the valid one.
 1616  8 Physics Chemistry
100 × = 4040
 40  Failed 35% 45%
x × 4040 Passed 65% 55%
Alternatively (x × 0.4) + x 2 = Passed in both = 22% of total student
100
⇒ x 2 = 40 x ⇒ x = 40 Percentage of students who are passed in any of the Physics
or Chemistry or both = (65 + 55) − 22 = 98%
Directions for solutions (Q. 5-7) Let us assume that there are So, the percentage of students who are failed in both = 2%
total number of employees at our office is 100.
Therefore total failed (in both the subject) students = 12
Female Male Total 9 History Geography
30 70 100% Pass 70 x 50 x
Salary > 8000 9 No data No data Fail 30 x 50 x
Salary ≤ 8000 21 No data No data
both 20 x
Salary = 8000 No data No data No data
Salary < 8000 No data 56 No data ∴Total failed candidates = (30 x + 50 x ) − 20 x = 60 x
Salary ≥ 8000 No data 14 No data Passed in both = (100 x − 60 x ) = 40 x = 500
Therefore total students = 100 x = 1250 ⇒ x = 25/ 2
5 Since we don’t have the desired data, so we cannot
10 My salary = 100
determine the required value.
Hence, choice (d) is the valid one. Salary of my brother = 110
Salary of my sister = 120
6 To maximize the number of employees who earn more
than ` 8000, we can assume there is no employee who  1300 
Salary of my wife = 230 −  230 ×  = 100
earns exactly ` 8000. So there would be 14 male employees  23 × 100
and 9 female employees who earn more than ` 8000. That
is 9 + 14 = 23 12 1300
Q 56 =
23 23
Female Male Total
60 × 8 + 16 × 30
30 70 100% 11 × 100 = 1.66%
16 × 60 × 60
Salary > 8000 9 14 23
480 x
Salary ≤ 8000 21 No data No data 12 Total land of Sukhiya = = 800 x
Salary = 8000 No data 0 No data 0.6
Salary < 8000 No data 56 No data ∴Cultivated land of village = 384000 x
800 x
∴Required percentage = × 100 = 0.20833%
Hence, choice (b) is the valid one. 384000
Percentages 301

13 Area = l × b ⇒ 4 y − 8 x = 40
1 = 1 × 1 ⇒ 1 = 0.8 × 1.25 and y − x = 85 ⇒ x = 75 and y = 160
∴ x + y = 235
So the area remained constant.
x × 220
14 Cost of fresh Mangoes + Packaging cost = Total cost 22 = 44
100
1 + 0.4 = 1.4 20 × 44
1.3 + 0.2 = 1.5 ⇒ x = 20 So = 8.8
100
0.1 Quantity × Rate = Price
Percentage increase in cost = × 100 = 7.14% 23
1.4
1 ×1 =1
80 66 x 320
15 + + = 0.7 × 1. 25 = 0.875
100 100 200 400
0.125
⇒ x = 174 ⇒ 87% ∴ Decrease in price = × 100 = 12. 5%
1
16 Male Female
55x 45x 24 Go through options
P Q
⇒ 10 x = 72 ⇒ x = 7.2
In the 1st government 275 ← 225 Difference = 50
100 x = 7.2 × 100
17 Let the total votes be x, In the 2nd government 200 ← 300 Difference = 100
Polled votes = 0.75 x Hence, the presumed option (d) is correct.
valid votes = 0.70 x
NOTE It can also be solved through the equation and
A + B + C = 0.70 x variables.
25 Passing marks are 0.6 x
2450
So 0.3x + 30 = 0.6 x ⇒ x = 100
1750
0.4 x 26 Go through options
It means B + C = 0.3x since given that A = 0.4 x Girls Boys
Hence A is the winner. 800 1000
18 Bike Car Now, 0.95 × 800 + 1000 = 0.96 × 1000 + 800
x 5x Hence, the presumed option (b) is correct .
1.2x 5.75x 27 H E U
Initially total cost = 25 x + 10 x = 35 x 0.6 x 0.24 x → 0.16 x
Changed cost = 28.75x + 12 x = 40.75x ↓
5.75 3 3600 → 2400(Q E : U = 24 : 16 = 3 : 2)
Percentage change = × 100 = 16 %
35 7 28 Go through option
20 Go through option 75
S K 25 50
15,000 18,000 ↓ ↓ (60%)
Going in the reverse 20 30
12,000 16,000 direction.
↓
Hence, the presumed option (a) is correct. 50
Alternatively × 100 = 66.66%
75
Sahid Kareena
48x Hence, the presumed option (c) is correct.
4x
25% 9 29 Science Commerce Arts Engineering
5x 6x x x x
+ + K
+120%  6 8 15
48 x x x x
⇒ Initially S : K = 4x : =3:4 No. of Engineering student = 1 −  + +  = k
9  6 8 15
⇒ Sahid’s initial salary = $12000 77 x
=
Sahid’s changed salary = $15000 120
21 Let the smaller number be x and larger number be y. When x = 120 (the least possible number)
0.8 x + 4 = 0.4 y then the no of Engineering students = 77
302 QUANTUM CAT
30 Copper Aluminium 38 Ambani Sahara
7 : 4 Average earning 4x 5x
21 kg 12 kg → 33 kg
No. of family members k l
33
Required total alloy = = 37.5 kg
0. 88 Total earning 6y 5y
31 1.08 x = 1404 Average earning × Number of family members
= Total earning
x = 1300
5y y
Therefore reduction in price = 1404 − 1300 = ` 104 l= =
5x x
 8 
Since 1300 + 1300 × = 1404 6y
 100  k=
4x
So you can solve it by using options. y
32 Very fundamental question. l
Required percentage = × 100 = x × 100
k 6y
33 8 x + 9 x + 10 x = 810 ⇒ x = 30
4x
Total marks in QA → 240 4
= × 100 = 66.66%
DI → 270 6
VA
→ 300 Alternatively After some steps you can use the options.
RC
240 39 Year Value
Now her score in QA → = 200
1.2 2000 100
270 2001 110
Her score in DI = = 250
1.08 2002 121
VA 300 2003 133.1
Her score in = = 280
RC 1.0714 2004 119.79
Her total score = 200 + 250 + 280 = 730 2005 107.811
9 2006 97.0299
34 Commission up to 10000 = 10000 × = 900
100
Again after 10000, Hint (100) × 1.1 × 1.1 × 1.1 × 0.9 × 0.9 × 0.9 = 97.0299
Commission : Bonus 100 − 97.0299
9 : 3 Now, × 100 ≈ 3%
100
⇒ 3x : x
1 40 30 × 25 × 35 = x × 30 × 28
∴ Bonus = (1380 − 900) × = ` 120
4 ⇒ x = 31.25
35 Men Women It means 32 pages.
600 x 400 x So, the percentages increase in the no. of pages
Total Engineer = 480 x 2
= × 100 = 6.66%
Male Engineer = 480 x × 0.66 = 320 x 30
∴Women who are Engineers = 160 x 41 Rate of increase of the price
∴Women who are not Engineers = 400 x − 160 x = 240 x = (rate of inflation + 2)% = 8 + 2 = 10%
240
Required percentage = × 100 = 60% Jan Jan Jan
400 2004 2005 2006
36 Veer Zara 20  20  22 
In the last month 160 100  → +2  → +2.2  24.2
  
After the first change 200 75 Alternatively Expected price after 2 years
After final change 120 120
= 20 × 1.1 × 1.1 = 24.2
37 Time × Rate = Total charges
42 Let the total number of people = x
1 × 1 =1
then the amount donated by 0.6x people
x × 1.25 = 1.1
= 600 × 0.6 x = 360 x
1.1
x= × 100 = 88% Now since ` 360x is equal to 75% of the required amount.
1.25
Hence we need only 25% more amount from the rest of the
Thus decrease in time = 12%
Percentages 303

people i.e., from 0.4 x people NOTE If selling price of shirt is equal to or greater than
120 x the selling price of coat then the C.P. of coat will be equal to
Hence, average requirement = = 300 or less than the C.P. of shirt which is wrong. Hence the only
0.4 x
possible choice is (d).
Alternatively (600 × 0.6 + k × 0.4) 3 = 600 × 0.6
4 48 Since we don’t have sufficient data. Further any value is
⇒ k = 300 possible as the required income tax.
x 49 2004 → 10000 × x % = k
43 By mistake =
10 5
2005 → 16000 × x% = k
Actual value = x × 10 8
5
x but x− x=9
10 x − 8
10 99
% change = × 100 = × 100 = 99% (negative) ⇒ x = 24%
10 x 100
So, the income tax = 2400.
Since actual value is greater than the wrong value
Alternatively 50 Only (c) is correct since it is divisible by 4.
Let the original number of element be x then the new no. of
Actual result = 10 × 10 = 100 (suppose x = 10)
elements will be
10
wrong result = =1 4x
=K
10 5
100 − 1
% change = × 100 = 99% So K must be divisible by 4
100 K ×5
Since, x=
NOTE Percentage error is always calculated on the 4
basis of actual (i.e., correct) value. 51 Go throught option
44 Use some different values for x then verify. Boys Girls Total
200 − 100 14 11 25
Let x = 150 then % error = × 100 = 100% 56 44 100
100 12
150 − 50
Again if x = 100 then % error = × 100 = 200%
50 Since out of 100 students no. of boys are greater than the
Hence, we cannot determine. no. of girls by 12
i.e., 12% Hence correct.
45 Number of visitors × Rate = Revenue collected
1 ×1 =1 Alternatively
–20% +50%
0.8 × 1.5 = 1.2
Let the no. of boys and girls be x and y respectively
Therefore percentage change in the revenue 12 × ( x + y )
then (x − y ) =
1.2 − 1 100
= × 100 = 20%
1 x 14
⇒ =
46 Bata Woodland y 11
M.P 100 100 (Since the marked 2
prices are same)  2 
S.P. 51 51 52 Population after 2 years = 5000 1 + 
 100
NOTE M.P. → Marked price, S.P. → Selling price 51 51
decreased by 49% = reduced to 51% 5000 × × = 5202
50 50
47 Selling price = cost price + profit (100 − z )y
Shirt = 7 y + x ⇒ Coat = 12y + x 53 Daily supply = (100 − z )% of y =
100
Since, the profit is same, so the selling price of shirt will
x × 100
certainly be less than ` 2000 (which is half of the total ∴ Required no. of days =
(100 − z )y
value) as it is clear that cost price of shirt is less than the
cost price of coat.
304 QUANTUM CAT
Level 02 Higher Level Exercise
1. Total Students k + 314 = 0.45x …(2)
(100) Therefore x = 5460
then, 5460 × 0. 85 = 4641
Again 4641 − 41 = 4600
Again k + (k + 314) = 4600
Boys Girls
(60) (40) ⇒ k = 2143 (loser)
and k + 314 = 2457 (winner)
Hockey Badminton Badminton Hockey 5 Income → 4 4.4 4.8 5.2 ] 18.4 lakh
(24) (don’t know (30) (0) Saving → 2 1.76 1.44 1.04] 6.24 lakh
about Exp. → 2 2.64 3.36 4.16] 12.16 lakh
badminton) 6.24 6
So, × 100 = 51 %
Since we do not have information that whether the rest of 12.16 19
the boys playing badminton or not. So we cannot determine 6 Let there be x voters and k votes goes to loser then
the total no. of students who are not playing any of the two 0.8 x − 120 = k + (k + 200)
games. k + 200 = 0.41 x
2 Go through option. Let us assume option (c) ⇒ k = 1440
10 = 2 × 5 = 5 × 2 = 1 × 10 × 10 × 1 and (k + 200) = 1640
2 1440
Consider the proper fraction = Therefore × 100 = 45%
5 3200
[Since the given percentage values are 25% and 20% that’s Solutions (for 7 to 9)
why we have picked up option (c)].
2 4 5 P + R = 30 ,000 …(i)
→ →
5 25 20 N = R − 8000 …(ii)
To verify :
2 5 1
× = =
5 ( R + N ) = 233.3 ( P )
5 8 4 20 ⇒ 3 ( R + N ) = 7P …(iii)
Hence presumed option (c) is correct. ⇒ 6R − 7P = 24 ,000 …(iv)
x x2 1.25 x 2 25 x 2 ∴ R = 18,000
Alternatively → 2→ 2
=
y y 0.8 y 16 y 2 and P = 12,000
25 x 2 5  x x 2 and N = 10,000
Now since =   ⇒ =
16 y 2 8  y y 5 P + R + N 40, 000
7 = = 1333.33
3 Income = Expenditure + Savings 3 3
8x = 5x + 3x 8 Can’t be determined
−x
10 x = 8 x + 2x 8
9 × 100 = 80%
Now the deficit = (3x − 2x ) = x = 3500 10
20 × 10, 00, 000
and ∴ the new salary = 10 x = 35, 000 10 (Bonus) Commission = = 2 lakh
100
Alternatively Go through options.
10
4 Go through options but total profit = net profit + × net profit
100
2457 − 2143 = 314 (True)
Again (2457 + 2143) + 41 = 4641
⇒ 1.32 lakh = 1.1 × net profit
4641
Now → 5460 ⇒ net profit = 1.2 lakh = 1, 20, 000
0.85
5460 × 45 ∴ commission = total profit − net profit
Again = 2457 (True)
100 = 1, 32, 000 − 1, 20, 000 = 12, 000
Hence the presumed option (d) is correct. Hence total earning = 2, 00, 000 + 12, 000 = 2,12, 000
Alternatively Let there be total x eligible voters, and 11 Let Mr. Scindia has x shares of 5.5%
the no. of votes goes to loser is k then x × 92 = 32, 200 ⇒ x = 350 shares
0.85x − 41 = 2 k + 314 …(1) Income = 350 × 5.5 = 1925
Percentages 305

Now, after investment his income is Similarly 4 (A + B + D) = C

 1 32200   2 32200   4 32, 200  ⇒ A + B + D = 2.5C
 × × 4.5 +  × × 5 +  × × 6
3 92  5 115   15 56  ⇒ A + B + C + D = 3.5C
= 525 + 560 + 920 = 2005 ⇒ C = 16 lakh
Profit = 2005 − 1925 = ` 80 Therefore D = ( A + B + C + D ) − ( A + B + C ) = 18 lakh
12 The surface area of a cube = 6a2 = 6 × (side)2 17 Losing candidate = 0.3 x
New surface area = 6 × 1.44 a 2
∴ Other two candidates = 0.7 x
0.44 a2 The share of winning candidate = 0.36 x
∴ × 100 = 44%
a2 and the second ranker = 0.34 x
∴ Margin (min. possible) = 0.02 x ⇒ 2% of x
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 13 and 14)
Let the minimum possible voters be 50 then
Pati → Pt , Patni → Pn, Woh → W
2 × 50
( Pt + Pn ) = 2W …(i) =1
100
( Pn + W ) = 4 Pt …(ii) Hence the minimum possible margin of votes = 1
Solving eqs. (i) and (ii) we get
Pn 7 Pt 3 Day Initial Sales Remaining Rotten Stock for
= and = 18 amount over night next day
W 5 W 5
⇒ Pt : Pn : W = 3 : 7 : 5 I x 0.5x 0.5x 0.05x 0.45x

Again ( Pt + Pn ) = 2W …(iii) II 0.45x 0.225x 0.225x 0.0225x 0.2025x

and ( Pn + W ) × 7 = 8 × Pt …(iv) III 0.2025x 0.10125x 0.10125x 0.010125x

Pn 3 Pt 7
Therefore = , = ∴ Total rotten amount = 0.082625x = 1983
W 5 W 5
⇒ x = 24, 000
⇒ Pt : Pn : W = 7 : 3 : 5
19 Check through option
Gain of Pati = 7x − 3x = 4 x = 800 Alternatively Let the initial amount be x (with
⇒ x = 200 gambler), then
Pati Patni Woh  1  1  1 x 700
Amount at the begining of Game = 600 1400 1000  ( x + 100) + 100 + 100 = ⇒ x =
 2 2  2 2 3
Amount at the end of the game = 1400 600 1000
20 Non-defective products
13 Only Patni has suffered the loss 25 × 0.98 + 35 × 0.96 + 40 × 0.95
× 100 = 96.1
1400 − 600 100
14 × 100 = 57.1428%
1400
No. of Output Manf. Est. cost Total Profit
15 RM + MC = Total cost 21 Machines cost cost

Total cost + Profit = Sale price 12 48,000 24,000 10,000 34,000 14,000
70 + 30 = 100 100 + 10 = 110 11 44,000 22,000 10,000 32,000 12,000
+80%
84 + 42 = 126 126 + 72 = 198 Profit = Output – Total cost
72 = 44, 000 − 32, 000 = 12, 000
Therefore profit % = × 100 = 57.14%
126 10
Initial value of share holders = 14, 000 × = 1400
16 A + B + C + D = 56 100
10
B + C + D = 4.6 A Changed value of share holders = 12, 000 × = 1200
100
⇒ A + B + C + D = 5.6 A (adding A in both sides) 200
56 lakh = 5.6 A % decrease = × 100 = 14.28%
1400
⇒ A = 10 lakh 22 Rice Wheat
11 25 9
Similarly A+C +D= B
3 ×x × 5x
14 25x 45x
⇒ A+B+C +D= B
3 70 x = 350 ⇒ x = 5
⇒ B = 12 lakh Hence the price of Rice = ` 5 per kg
306 QUANTUM CAT
Price of wheat = ` 25 per kg ↓
Now, the price of wheat = ` 30 per kg 637
↓
Let the new amount of Rice be M kg, then
80%
M × 5 + 9 × 30 = 350 ⇒ M = 16 ↓
Hence decrease (in%) of amount of rice 509.6 ≈ 510 persons
25 − 16 ↓
= × 100 = 36%
25 70% (completely cured out)
↓
Year Rate of Commission 357
23 Commission in values ↓
1 20% 0.2 × 20, 000 = 4000 (Partially cured) 153 = (510 − 357 )
25% (bonus) 0.25 × 4000 = 1000 Hence, the presumed option (d) is correct.
2 16% 0.16 × 20, 000 = 3200 33 Total expenditure per kg = 3.2 + 1.8 + 2 + 3 = 10 = cost price
3 12% 0.12 × 20, 000 = 2400 Selling price = ` 18 per kg
4 10% 0.1 × 20, 000 = 2000 Gross profit = ` 8 per kg = (18 − 10)
80
5–10 4% 6 × 0.04 × 20, 000 = 4800 Net profit = 8 × (since 20% is tax) = ` 6.4
100
Total commission Hence the net profit of the factory = 6.4 × 50,00,000
= ` 3, 20, 00, 000 = ` 3.2 crore
= (4000 + 3200 + 2400 + 2000 + 4800) + 1000 = 17, 400
34 Let the percentage marks in QA = (10 a + b)%
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 24 and 25)
Let the percentage marks in DI = (10 b + a)%
OHIO TEXAS Let the percentage marks in VA = x %
(M : F) (M : F) (10 a + b) + x + (10 b + a)
Last year : 600 ← (2 : 1) (5 : 6) → 1100 then =x
3
This year : 750 ← (2 : 1) (unknown) → 1200 11
⇒ 11a + 11b + x = 3x ⇒ x = (a + b)
24 Since we don’t know the number of female employees in 2
the Texas office this year so we can’t determine. Thus the percentage of the VA section is a multiple of 11.
25 1100 + 600 = 1700 35 P1 = k
T
V
26 There is no need to use the no. of goats i.e., (34, 398) let
7 T T 3T
initially there be 1000 goats then −
1. 4T 7T P2 − P1 4 V V 4 V 3
1000 → 1400 → 980 → 1274 → 1146.6 P2 = k =K ; = = =
0.8 4V P1 T T 4
1146. 6 − 1000 V V
Thus the % increase = × 100 = 14.66%
1000 Hence, the new pressure will be increased by 75%.
27 In 2002 (980 goats) as per the flow chart 23 × 40 × 0.90
36 20 × 0.92 ⇒ 10 minutes = 45
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 28 to 30) 20 × 0.92

Optional Science Commerce Engi- Total Thus the required time is 45 times than the previous time
neering 1
Hence, 450 minutes = 7 hrs.
5000 3000 8000 16,000 2
Finance 1000 1200 680 2880 37 Original volume = 16 × 12 × 5 = 960 (inch) 3
HR 1600 720 1040 3360
Required capacity = 1120 (inch)3
Marketing 2400 1080 6280 9760
1120
Increase in area = − 16 × 12 = 224 − 192 = 32 (inch) 2
28 6280 students of Engineering opted marketing. 5
720 32
29 × 100 = 4.5% % increase = × 100 = 16.66%
16, 000 192
30 Marketing, since maximum students have opted marketing. 7
38 The total passengers in each compartment = 25 × = 35
31 Consider some values and then verify the option. 5
32 Go through option : Total no. of seats = (35)2 = 1225
700 80
↓ Maximum available capacity = 1225 × = 980 seats
100
91% = (100 − 9)%
Percentages 307

39 Tata Reliance 42 3.8 − 2.6 = 1.2 lakh

Prepaid 100 81 43 Value of chariots of Laxman = 2 lakh
Postpaid 90 72
90 − 72 Now since only Ram has the horses of worth ` 2 lakh. So
Thus the % decrease in talk time = × 100 = 20% only Ram can exchange with Laxman.
90
7.2 − 6.0
40 Half yearly exam 45 × 100 = 20%
6.0
100
46 Total cubes 160 + 56 = 216
Pass Fail Therefore the side of cube = 6 unit
(70 ) ( 30 ) No. of cubes without any exposure = (6 − 2)3 = 64
Annual exam Thus 64 cubes will be inside of the big cube
70 × 0.6 + 30 × 0.8 Now rest of the cubes = 160 − 64 = 96
1424 3 1424 3
42 24 Again the no. of cubes with one face outside
∴ Total pass in annual exam = 42 + 24 = 66% = 6 × (4 × 4) = 96
41 Percentage of passed students = 68% [100 − 32]% 96
Hence the required percentage = × 100 = 44.44%
216
Number of girls passed the exam = 408
Number of boys passed the exam = 476 47 (Qualified CAT)
↓
Total passed students = 884 x boys and x girls
Therefore total no. of students =
884
× 100 = 1300 ↓
68 (Qualified G.D)
↓
Solution (for Q. Nos. 42 to 45) 0.4x boys
↓
Name Horse Chariot Land Total
(Interview)
(in `)
IIM-A IIM-B
Ram 2 lakh (10) 80,000 (10) 20 acre = 1 lakh 3.8 lakh [ 0.2x 0.2x ] appeared
Sita 1.6 lakh (8) 80,000 (10) 8 acre = 40,000 2.8 lakh ↓ ↓
Laxman 1 lakh (5) 2 lakh (25) 20 acre = 1 lakh 4 lakh Qualified Qualified
Urmila 1.4 lakh (7) 40,000 (5) 16 acre = 80,000 2.6 lakh ↓ ↓
0.8 × 0.2x 0.4 × 0.2x
1. R + S = L + U and R > S and L > U = 0.16 x = 0. 08 x
2. Horses → (R + S ): (L + U ) = 3x : 2x = 18 x : 12 x Total boys qualified the final stage = 0.24%
1 1 Thus 0.24 x = 24 ⇒ x = 100
Again Ram have rd horses. Therefore 30 x × = 10 x
3 3 48 Go through option and consider some appropriate values
Therefore the horse of Sita = 18 x − 10 x = 8 x ⇒ x = 1 Alternatively p
=
q
Therefore the horse of Ram = 10 and Laxman = 5 100 + p 100
K pq
No. of chariots of Sita = No. of chariots of Ram = ⇒ 100 ( p − q) = pq ⇒ ( p − q) =
5 100
K
and no. of chariots of Laxman = 49 Let the original price be P, then the decrease in value of P
2 2
 x 
Hence the no. of chariots of Urmila after one cycle = p   = 21025 …(i)
 100
 K K K K
= K − + +  = Again the final value after second cycle
5 5 2  10
 x   x   x   x 
k k ⇒ P 1 +  1 −  1 +  1 −  = 484416
Again − = 20 ⇒ k = 50 chariots  100  100  100  100
2 10 2
Now the 50%property of Laxman = 25chariots = 2, 00, 000   x  
2
⇒ P 1 −    = 484416 …(ii)
Hence the total property of Laxman = 4, 00, 000  100
 
2, 00, 000 − 5 × 20, 000
Thus the area of Land of Laxman = Dividing eq. (ii) by eq. (i)
5000 2
  x  
2
= 20 acre = (1 lakh)
1 −   
Total property of Urmila  100  484416 2304
= =
= 1, 40, 000 + 40, 000 + 80, 000 = 2, 60, 000  x 
2
21025 100
 
Thus the total property of Laxman and Urmila = 6.6 lakh  100
308 QUANTUM CAT
2 2
 x   x 
1−  Hence, P   = 21025
 100 2304 48  100
⇒ = =
 x  100 10 ⇒ P = 525625
 
 100
50 Men × Time = Work
x 100 × = 100 unit
Let = k, 1
100 150 × 1 = 150 unit
1 − k 2 48
then = Extra man power required = 50 but since new workers are
k 10 5
times as efficient as existing workers.
⇒ 10 k 2 + 48 k − 10 = 0 4
⇒ 5 k 2 − 24 x − 5 = 0 ∴ Actual no. of workers =
50
= 40 men
1 5/ 4
⇒ k = 5 or k = − (inadmissible value)
5 Hence, required percentage
So x = 20% 40
= × 100 = 40%.
100

Level 03 Final Round

1 Growth rate of Finance 9 Growth rate of Hero = 37.23%
125 − 75 2 Growth rate of Atlas = 28.1%
= × 100 = × 100 = 66.66%
75 3 Avon is least which is clear from the data.
Growth rate of Marketing Total bicycle production is highest in 95 hence false
250 − 100 2.97 + 4.22+ … 8.5
= × 100 = 150% Hero cycle’s share = = 43%
100 79.84
2 Total no. of students in 2003-04 is Hence, (d) since none of (a), (b) and (c) is correct.
= (250 + 125 + 100 + 75) = 550 1.75+ 2.48 + … 4.21
10 = 23.4%
No. of student in 2004-05 79.84
 1 1.64
= 550 1 +  = 600 students 11 × 100 = 2.53
 11 64.8
50
3 × 100 12 Amul has max. unutilised capacity
(150 + 100 + 75 + 50)
 1.54 
50 Hint  × 100 − 1.54 = 1.05
= × 100 = 13.33%  59.35 
375
Similarly for others can also be find out
4800 − 4000
4 × 100 = 20% 13
11.6
× 100 ≈ 18.9
4000 61.3
450 42.20
5 × 100 = 10.34%, which is lowest in comparison to 14 × 100 = 31.81%
4350 132.8
others 105 7
Thus the growth rate of logical reasoning book is lowest. 15 × 100 = × 100 = 29.166%
360 24
5000 − 3750 30
6 DI → × 100 = 33.33 16 × 100 = 25%
3750 120
5500 − 4140 15
and VA → × 100 = 32.85% 17 × 100 = 12.5%
4140 120
7 Only LR has consistent growth, others have been fluctuated 18 105 − 45 = 60° = 4 hours
(QA − 2003, DI − 2003, VA − 2002)
19 15° = 1 hour (Maths), 30° = 2 hour (other subjects)
 8.5 – 2.97 
× 100 20 Sony TV → 19%. Sony Refrigerator → 15%
 2.97 
8 = 37.23%
5 difference = 4% = 14.4° (Since 1% = 3.6°)
Percentages 309

2995 − 2650
21  12% → Samsung TV = 31 crore = × 100
 18% → Electrolux TV = 46.5 crore 2650

 100% → Total market = 258 crore 345
 = × 100
2650
11% → Samsung Refrg. = 9 crore
 = 13.01%
 13% → Electrolux Refrg. = 10.6 crore
 30 Sector Tariff % change Tariff 2000–01
 100% → Total market = 81.8 crore 2003–04 over 2000-01

46.5 + 10.6
Market share = ≈ 16.7% Sector 1 400 + 14.28% 350
258 + 81.8
Sector 2 375 + 7.14% 350
22 18% = ` 42 crores, so 27% (= 16 + 11) = ` 63 crore Sector 3 525 −12.5% 600
13% = ` 6 crore, so 28% (= 12 + 16) = ` 13 crore Sector 4 800 −20% 1000
Total ` 76 crores 2100 2300
∴ Annual approx. turnover = 4 × 76 = ` 304 crores
2300
23 (a) (13 − 12) = 1% = 3.6 Average tarrif = = 575
4
(b) We don’t know the turnover of TV and refrigerator
31 In 2003-04 the water consumed by various sectors out of
market for each brand.
20,000 kilo-litres can be given as follow:
(c) 6% total refrigerator market = 100 crore
⇒ Total refrigerator market ≅ 1667 crore Category Percentage Consumption in 2003–04

∴ Difference = 2% of 1667 = 33.34 crore Domestic 40 8,000

Thus, (b) can’t be inffered. Urban 25 5,000
52, 000 − 5, 000 Rural 15 3,000
24 × 100 = 9.4 × 100 = 940% Industrial 20 4,000
5000
11 20,000
25 Medical college in 1980 = × 32, 000 = 3520
100 Since there was a 20% decrease in the domestic
9 consumption in 2003-04 the domestic consumption in
1990 = × 52, 000 = 4680
100 8, 000
2000-01 = = 10, 000 .
4680 − 3520 0.8
∴ × 100 = 32.95%
3520 But this constitutes 40% of total water consumed in
26 We don’t have the information about the proportion 2000-01 and the industrial consumption constitutes 20% of
(share) of Engineering colleges in the given years. total water in 2000-01. Hence in 2000-01 the industrial
20
32, 000 − 12, 000 consumption = 10, 000 × = 5, 000 kilo-liters
27 × 100 = 166.66% 40
12, 000
32 We do not know the category-wise break up of tariffs i.e the
52, 000 × 9
28 Number of medical colleges in 1990 = = 4680 rates of Urban sector is unknown.
100
33 The average of Region
Increase in the total no. of colleges
400 + 375 + 525 + 800
= 60, 000 − 52000 = 8000 2= = 525
4
Increase in the no. of medical colleges = 8000 / 4 = 2000
Therefore, percentage of medical colleges in 2000
Average tariff in Region 4
4680 + 2000 62.5 + 750 + 240 + 360
= × 100 = 11% = = 487.5
60, 000 4
220 + 360 + 320 + 400
29 If the amount of water consumed of sector 1 is the same Average tariff in Region 5 = = 450
then we can directly compare the tariffs to the two years. 4
Statements (c) cannot be determined.
Region Tariff % change Tariff
2000–01 34 Total number of people = 10, 000
2003–04
Business men 10% 1000 LML 1200
Region 1 1000 + 25% 800
Govt. Servant 13% 1300 SUZUKI 1200
Region 2 400 + 14.28% 350
Professionals 30% 3000 BAJAJ 3000
Region 3 250 −16.66% 300
Students 45% 4500 HERO HONDA 6600
Region 4 625 + 4.166% 600
Housewives 2% 200
Region 5 720 + 20% 600
2995 2650 The total number of Hero Honda bikes = 6600.
310 QUANTUM CAT
Total numbers of Government servants housewives and 42 Offshore production in 2004 = 16,000 × 0.875
students = 6000
= 14, 000 thousand tonnes
Total no. of Businessmen and professional = 4000
∴Percentage of remaining (i.e., Businessmen and prof.) Onshore production = 11,000 thousand tonnes
600 Demand in 2004 = 57, 000 × 1.02 = 5814 thousand tonnes
driving Hero Honda = × 100 = 15%
4000 Imports = 33.14 million tonnes (Q1 million = 106)
35 Let the no. of people who drive one two and three bikes be 5
15k, 3k and k respectively. 43 201924 × = 33654 × 5 = 168270
6
Number of bikes which are being driven 11
= 15k + 2 (3k ) + 3 (k ) = 24 k 44 127890 × = 140679
10
Since LML and Suzuki cannot be driven by same person
45 126400 + 975264 + 237852 = 1339516
and a person can drive maximum 3 bikes.
Total bikes which are being used to drive = 12, 000 100956
46 × 100 = 4.128%
∴ 24k = 12, 000 ⇒ k = 500 2445480
Total number of people driving the bikes Alternatively 1 × 100 ≈ 4.16%
= 15 k + 3k + k = 19k = 9500 24

∴ Number of people who do not drive any bike 47 1969 − 70 → 134790

149830
= 10, 000 − 9500 = 500 1979 − 80 → 284620
36 From the previous solution, number of people who drive 48 1929 − 30 → 9,75, 264, 1949 − 50 → 1, 40, 679
more than 1 bike i.e., 2 bikes and 3 bikes are 1500 and 500 975264 − 140679
respectively. These people have total 4500 bikes % decrease = × 100 = 85.57%
975264
(= 1500 × 2 + 500 × 3)
Hence, the remaining Hero Honda bikes 49 1959 − 60 → 1960 − 61
= 6600 − 4500 = 2100 + 20%
168020 → 201924
Thus, the number of persons who drive single Hero Honda
168020
= 2100 Therefore × 100 = 83.33%
201924
37 Since 20% drive other bikes 80% drive only bajaj bike
Alternatively From percentage charge graphic
number of people who drive only Bajaj bike
Increase Decrease
=0.8 × 3000 = 2400
20% 16.66%
11000 + 12000
38 × 100 = 109.52% 1/5 1/6
21, 000
∴ The required value = 83.33% (100 – 16.66%)
27, 000 − 23, 000
39 × 100 = 17. 4% Alternatively x × 6 = k ⇒ x = 5k
23, 000
5 6
40 Demand = Domestic Production + Imports 5k
( x )% = × 100 = 83.33% of k
44 + 54. 5 + 57 6
Average demand = ≈ 52 million tonnes
3 50 Only 7,900 tonnes increase over the 1920 – 21.
30, 000 − 21, 000
41 × 100 ≈ 43%
21, 000
 CHAPTER 06

P r ofit, Loss and

Discount
This chapter is one of the important chapters in the Quantitative Aptitude section. Since
calculating profit, loss and discount is our daily need, specially, if we are into business. Even
calculating profit and loss is important for everyone who makes any buying or selling
decisions of any sort of goods and services, because of one’s propensity to earn more, spend
less, increase profit and reduce loss. If people have multiple options to buy and sell they
compare the prices and try to take the best decision. That’s why there is hardly any
competitive exam which does not include the problems based on this chapter. In fact, we can
find a huge number of problems in Data Interpretation section.

6.1 Theory and Concepts

In day-to-day life we sell and purchase the things as per our requirement. A customer can get Chapter Checklist
things in the following manner: Theory and Concepts
Manufacturer Whole-saler (Shopkeeper) Retailer Mark up and Discount
→ →
(or producer) (dealer) (or sales person) → Customer
Common Gain or Loss
Terminology Concept
Cost price (CP) The money paid by the shopkeeper to the manufacturer or whole-saler to Selling Price and
buy the goods is called the cost price (CP) of the goods purchased by the shopkeeper.
Cost Price Equality
NOTE If an article is purchased for some amount and there are some additional expenses on
transportation labour, commission etc., these are to be added in the cost price. Such expenses are
Profit-Loss Factors
called overhead expenses or overheads.
CAT Test

Selling Price (SP) : The price at which the shopkeeper sells the goods is called the selling
price (SP) of the goods sold by the shopkeeper.
Profit : If the selling price of an article is more than its cost price, then the dealer
(or shopkeeper) makes a profit (or gain) i.e., Profit = SP – CP; SP > CP
Loss : If the selling price of an article is less than its cost price, then the dealer suffers a loss.
i.e., loss = CP − SP; CP > SP
312 QUANTUM CAT
Important Formulae Exp. 3) Aviral purchased a computer for ` 47,000. He
(i) Profit = SP – CP (ii) Loss = CP – SP had to sell it for ` 45,800. Find his profit or loss per cent.
profit Solution Since, SP < CP, there will be loss
(iii) Profit percentage = ×100 loss 47000 − 45800 1200 26
cost price loss (%) = × 100 = × 100 = × 100 = 2 %
CP 47000 47000 47
loss
(iv) Loss percentage = ×100
cost price Exp. 4) A dealer sold 600 quintals of sugar at a profit of
7%. If a quintal of sugar cost him ` 1600, find his total
 100 + gain %   100 − loss % 
(v) SP =  × CP =  × CP profit and the selling price.
 100   100 
Solution CP = 1600 × 600 = ` 9,60,000
 100   100 
(vi) CP =  × SP =  × SP Rate of Profit = 7%
 100 + gain %   100 − loss %  7
Profit = 9, 60, 000 × = ` 67200
(vii) SP = (100 + k )% of CP; when profit = k% of CP 100
(viii) SP = (100 − k )% of CP; when loss = k% of CP ∴ SP = CP + Profit = ` 9,60,000 + ` 67,200 = ` 1027200
Thus, profit = ` 67200 and selling price = ` 10,27,200
NOTE Profit or loss is always calculated on the basis of cost
price unless otherwise mentioned in the problem. Exp. 5) A dealer buys 200 quintals of wheat at ` 1200 a
quintal. He spends ` 10,000 on transportation and storage.
Exp. 1) A fruit seller buys 300 oranges at 5 for ` 8 and
Then, he sells the wheat at ` 13 per kg. Find his profit or
sold at 2 for ` 5. Find :
loss. Also calculate it as a percentage.
(i) the cost price of each orange
Solution CP = 1200 × 200 = ` 2,40,000
(ii) the selling price of each orange
(iii) profit or loss on selling one orange Transportation and storage cost = ` 10,000
Total CP = 2, 40, 000 + 10, 000
(iv) his total profit or loss on selling all the oranges.
= ` 2,50,000
Solution
Total SP = 13 × 200 × 100 = ` 2,60,000
(i) Since, the cost price of 5 oranges = ` 8
8 ∴ Now, since SP > CP, hence there will be profit.
∴Cost price of one (or each) orange = ` = ` 1.60 Profit = SP – CP = ` (2,60,000 – 2,50,000) = ` 10,000
5
Profit 10, 000
(ii) Since, the selling price of 2 oranges = ` 5 Profit (%) = × 100 = × 100 = 4%
5 CP 2,50, 000
∴ The selling price of one orange = ` = ` 2.50
2
Exp. 6) Find the cost price of an article which is sold for
(iii) Since, SP is more than CP, there is a profit.
` 220 at a loss of 12%.
So profit on selling one orange = SP – CP
Solution SP = ` 220, Loss = 12%
= 2.5 − 1.6 = ` 0.90
Let CP = ` x
(iv) Profit on selling all the oranges
Then, SP = 88% of CP
= ` (0.90 × 300) = ` 270 88
Hence, the total profit on selling all oranges = ` 270 220 = × x ⇒ x = 250
100
Exp. 2) A shopkeeper buys 100 eggs at ` 1.20 per piece. Therefore, cost price = ` 250
Unfortunately 4 eggs got spoiled during transportation. Exp. 7) By selling a colour TV for ` 23520, a dealer
The shopkeeper sells the remaining eggs at ` 15 a dozen. suffers a loss of 4%. What is the cost price of the colour
Find his profit or loss. TV? At what price should he sell it to gain 8%?
Solution Cost price of all eggs = ` 100 × 1.2 = ` 120 Solution SP = 96% of CP Q (loss is 4%)
15 96
Selling price of one egg = = ` 1.25 ∴ 23520 = × CP
12 100
15 CP = 24500
∴ Selling price of 96 eggs = 96 × = ` 120
12 Now, gain % = 8%
Hint After spoiling 4 eggs, only 96 eggs are left. ∴ New selling price = (100 + 8)% of CP
108
Now, since the total selling price and total cost price is same, = × 24500 = ` 26460
the shopkeeper neither makes a profit nor suffers a loss. 100
 Introductory Exercise 6.1
1. A towel is sold for ` 198 at a gain of 10%. What is the 4. Sufyan bought 1200 eggs at ` 16 a dozen. At what
cost price of the towel? At what price must it be sold to price per hundred must he sell the eggs, so as to earn
gain 25%? a profit of 15%?
1 5. Ram Singh purchased two camels for ` 18,000 and
2. A man sold a watch at ` 6000, at a loss of 33 % . Find
3 ` 15,000 respectively. He sold them at a loss of 15%
the cost price? and a gain of 19% respectively. Find the selling price
3. By selling a shirt for ` 285 a shopkeeper loses 5%. At of each of the camels. Also find the overall gain or loss
what price should he sell the shirt, so as to gain 15%? per cent in the transaction.

6.2 Markup and Discount

Marked price: Basically to avoid loss due to bargaining Exp. 8) If the cost price of an article is ` 300 and the per
by the customer and to get the profit over the cost price trader cent markup is 20%. What is the marked price?
increases the cost price by a certain value, this increase in Solution MP = CP + % markup on CP
value over cost price is known as markup and the increased 20
= 300 + 300 ×
price (i.e., CP + Markup) is called the marked price or 100
printed price or list price of the goods. MP = ` 360
Alternatively SP = 300 × 1.2 = 360
Marked price = CP + Markup
Marked price = CP + (% markup on CP) Exp. 9) If the marked price of an article is ` 450 and
Generally goods are sold at marked price, if there is no markup percentage is 12.5%, what is the cost price?
further discount, then in this case selling price equals to Solution MP = 112.5 of CP
marked price. .
1125
∴ 450 = × CP
Discount : Discount means reduction of marked price to sell 100
9
at a lower rate or literally discount means concession. 450 = × CP
8
Basically it is calculated on the basis of marked price.
⇒ CP = ` 400
∴ Selling price = Marked price – Discount Alternatively Change your outlook to visulize the problem
or Selling price = Marked price (MP) differently for smarter calculation.
– (% discount on MP) You can see that MP is 12.5% (i.e., 1/ 8 times) greater than CP.
So, CP will be 1/ 9 times less than MP. This percentage
Since, marked price = CP + % markup on CP (or fraction) change rule has been throughly discussed through
different illustrations in percentage chapter. In my opinion if
Remember markup is calculated on the basis of CP while
you change your observation i.e., you mould your thinking in a
discount is calculated on the basis of MP. CAT oriented approach you will not change only your attitude
In general, CP < SP < MP at profit and aptitude but the whole scenario will be changed. So, look
CP = SP < MP at no profit no loss this problem like me :

SP < CP < MP at loss 1/8 ↑

Markup n→ Numerator
CP MP  n 
Also, CP MP  
 d + n  d→ denominator
and SP MP
1/9 ↓
discount 1
So, the CP will be times less than MP, which is rather too
NOTE You will find wide application of percentage calculation, 9
percentage change graphic etc. So, to move further you must much easier to calculate than the traditional method given at
know the concepts of percentages. the beginning of the solution.
314 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 10) If the marked price of an article is ` 660 and the I think CP, SP, MP etc., are just the words, the crux is that how
discount is 10%, then what is the selling price of the article? CP, SP and MP etc., change with respect to each other. So those
students who have grasped and internalised the most important
Solution General Solution concept of percentage change, they will not find any difficulty in
SP = MP – Discount understanding the concept of the profit-loss problems. Believe
10 me when your visualisation will be improved, you will be
SP = 660 − 660 × = 594
100 master on this chapter. So try to have a different approach.
Alternatively SP = 90% of MP
SP = 0.9 × 660 = 594
Exp. 12) A trader markup the goods by 10% and then gives
1 a discount of 10%. What is the profit or loss percentage?
Alternatively We can see that when SP is 10% (i.e., ) less
10 Solution CP SP MP
1
than MP, it means MP is times greater than SP. 100 99 110
9
10  1 10
Therefore, MP = SP 1 + =  So, there is a loss of 1%.
9  9 9 Explanation: MP = 110% of CP (10% markup)
Ultimately I would like to say that you should see the core of SP = 90% of MP (10% discount)
the problem and solution both, instead of taking help from any
formula. In other words formulae make you logically blind Exp. 13) Successive discount of 10% and 5% is equivalent to
particularly in context of CAT where your intelligence is tested (a) 16.5% (b) 15% (c) 15.5% (d) 14.5%
rather than your memory and theory of the maths. Solution
100
Exp. 11) If the markup percentage of an article is 50%
↓ (–10%)
and discount percentage is also 20%, then the profit 14.5 90
percentage will be : ↓ (–5%)
(a) 10% (b) 0% (c) 30% (d) 20% 85.5
Solution See the smartest calculation technique and follow
NOTE There is no difference in two different cases i.e., either
me to be smarter.
you decrease 100 at first by 10% and then by 5% or decrease 100 at
CP SP MP first by 5% and then by 10%.
100 120 150 100
↓ (–5%)
 120 − 100  14.5 95
Therefore, profit = 20%  × 100 = 20%
 100  ↓ (–10%)
85.5
Explanation: MP = 150% of CP (Q markup is 50%)
SP = 80% of MP (Q discount is 20%) Explanation : 100 × 0.9 × 0.95 = 85.5
Once again I am reiterating the gist of this chapter. What is ∴ Single discount equivalent to 10% and 5% is 14.5%
that gist? The gist is that this chapter test nothing but your grip (100 – 85.5)%
on the concepts of percentage change. or (100 × 0.95 × 0.9 = 85.5)

6.3 Common Gain or Loss Concept

2
When two articles are sold at the same price, but one article at  Common gain or loss
Now, loss % =   %
a profit and the other at a loss and the percentage profit is the  10 
same as the percentage loss. In this case there is always a loss.  10
2
2 loss % =   % = 1%
 Common gain or loss   10
loss (%) =  
 10  (2) Amount of loss.
Total SP = ` 400 (200 + 200)
Exp. 14) A man sells two wrist watches one at a profit of Again, total SP = 99% of CP (1% loss)
10% and another at a loss of 10%, but the selling price of 99
400 = × CP
each watch is ` 200. Find the : 100
(1) percentage profit or loss (2) net amount of profit or loss ⇒ CP = ` 404.04
Solution ∴ loss = CP – SP
(1) Since, there is always loss. (Logic: To get the logic you = ` 4.04 (= 404.04 – 400)
should refer the percentage chapter)
Profit, Loss and Discount 315

Exp. 15) There were two articles and the sum of cost Alternatively Suppose CP of one orange = ` 1

prices of these articles is ` 500. One of them was sold at a then CP of 12 oranges = ` 12
profit of 20% and another at a loss of 20%. Besides if the and SP of 12 oranges = CP of 15 oranges = ` 15
15 − 12
selling prices of both the articles were same. Find the ∴ profit = × 100 = 25%
12
amount of overall loss.
120 80 Exp. 19) By selling 8 bananas, a fruit seller gains the
Solution x× = (500 − x) ⇒ x = 200
100 100 selling price of 1 banana. Calculate his gain per cent.
So, the CP of profit yielding article = ` 200 Solution Let the SP of one banana = ` 1,
and the CP of loss giving article = ` 300 (500 − 200)
Then SP of 8 bananas = ` 8
and the common SP = ` 240 = ( 200 × 1.2 = 300 × 0.8)
and profit = Re. 1
So the loss = CP – SP = 500 − 2 × 240 = ` 20
∴ CP = 8 − 1 = ` 7
1 2
6.4 Selling Price and Cost Price ∴ Profit % = × 100 = 14 %
7 7
Equality Exp. 20) By selling 18 chocolates, a vendor loses the
When the total selling price of ‘m’ articles is same as the selling price of 2 chocolates. Find his loss per cent.
total cost price of ‘n’ articles, where each article is similar Solution Let the SP of 1 chocolate = ` 1
∴ SP of 18 chocolate = ` 18 and loss = ` 2
Exp. 16) If the cost price of 15 apples is same as the
∴ CP = SP + loss = 18 + 2 = ` 20
selling price of 20 apples. What is the gain or loss per cent? loss 2
Solution CP of 15 apples = SP of 20 apples ∴ Percentage loss = × 100 = × 100 = 10%
CP 20
CP 4
⇒ CP × 15 = SP × 20 ⇒ =
SP 3 Exp. 21) A trader sell all his articles at the cost price but
So you can see that CP > SP, therefore, there will be loss. gives 10% less amount as he should give. What is his
Now consider CP = 4, then SP = 3 percentage profit?
∴ loss = 1 goods left 10 1
Solution Profit (%) = × 100 = × 100 = 11 %
loss 1 goods sold 90 9
∴ loss (%) = × 100 = × 100 = 25%
CP 4 Since, if we assume that the CP of 1 article is ` 1.
loss = 25% Now, since he gives only 90% article instead of 100% and save
10% article. So, his profit will be the equal to the remaining
Exp. 17) If the selling price of 10 CDs is the same as the
articles (over the sold articles). It means when he sells the articles
cost price of 12 CDs. What is the profit or loss per cent? (actually) worth ` 90, then he gains by articles worth ` 10.
Solution SP of 10 CDs = CP of 12 CDs 10 1
SP 12 6 Hence, profit % = × 100 = 11 %
⇒ SP × 10 = CP × 12 ⇒ = = 90 9
CP 10 5 100 10
(The selling price = = = ` 1.11)
⇒ SP > CP, therefore there will be a profit 90 9
(SP – CP) ( 6 − 5)
Profit (%) = × 100 = × 100 = 20% (profit)
CP 5 Exp. 22) A trader by means of his false balance
When the articles are sold at the cost price, but the quantity defrauds to the extent of 10% in buying goods and also
bought and sold are distinct defrauds to 10% in selling. Find his gain per cent.
When a person recovers the cost price of ‘m’ articles by selling Solution Let the actual CP of an article be ` 1, then the
‘ n’ articles (n < m), then 100 10
effective CP = =
goods left m −n 110 11
Profit (%) = × 100 = × 100 (Since, he purchases 110 articles by paying ` 100)
goods sold n 100 10
In this case money is equated in terms of number of (or amount) Again, SP = =
90 9
articles. For your convenience you can try assuming the CP of (Since, he sells only 90 articles charging the CP of 100 articles)
an article as ` 1. (or ` 100) 10 10
−
SP − CP
Exp. 18) A dealer by selling 12 oranges gets the cost ∴ Gain % = × 100 = 9 11 × 100
CP 10
price of 15 oranges. What is the percentage profit? 11
goods left 15 – 12 20 11 200 2
Solution Profit (%)= × 100 = × 100 = 25% = × × 100 = = 22 %
goods sold 12 99 10 9 9
316 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 6.2
1. The cost price of a scooter is ` 20,000 and the profit 11. If a gift pack is sold at a gain of 6% instead of at a loss
per cent is 12%. What is the selling price? of 6%, then the seller gets ` 6 more. The cost price of
(a) 2400 (b) 22040 the article is :
(c) 2600 (d) 22400 (a) ` 60 (b) ` 66
2. The SP of an article is ` 3200 and the profit per cent is (c) ` 50 (d) ` 36
1 12. A man sells a bicycle at a gain of 10%. If he had bought
33 %. Find the cost price.
3 it at 10% less and sold it for ` 132 less, he would have
(a) ` 20000 (b) ` 2000 still gained 10%. The cost price of the article is :
(c) ` 2400 (d) ` 3000 (a) ` 1000 (b) ` 1200
3. The CP of an article is 5/6th of the SP. What is the (c) ` 1500 (d) ` 1320
percentage profit or loss? 13. An item costing ` 600 is being sold at 20% loss. If the
(a) 20% loss (b) 16.66% profit price is further reduced by 12.5%, the selling price
(c) 16.66% loss (d) 20% profit will be :
4. The MP of a camera is 3/2 of the CP and SP is 9/10 of (a) ` 400 (b) ` 380
MP. Find the percentage profit or loss. (c) ` 420 (d) ` 525
(a) 25% profit (b) 35% profit 14. While selling an electric fan, a dealer gives a discount
(c) 33.33% loss (d) none of these of 5%. If he gives a discount of 8%, he earns ` 36 less
5. The MP of an article is 30% higher than its CP and as profit. The marked price of the fan is :
20% discount is allowed on this article, then the profit (a) ` 1000 (b) ` 1200
percentage : (c) ` 800 (d) none of these
(a) 10% (b) 14% (c) 4% (d) 26% 15. If a commission of 10% is given on the marked price
6. An article is sold for ` 1980 at 10% profit. What is the of a book, the publisher gains 20%. If the
cost price? commission is increased to 15%, the gain of
(a) ` 198 (b) ` 1800 publisher is :
(c) ` 1900 (d) ` 1600 (a) 13.33% (b) 15%
(c) 18% (d) data insufficient
7. On selling an article for ` 576 a trader loses 4%. In
1 16. A retailer buys a cellphone at a discount of 15% and
order to gain 4 %, he must sell that article for :
6 sells it for ` 5865. Thus, he makes a profit of 15%.
(a) ` 636 (b) ` 676 The discount is :
(c) ` 625 (d) can't be determined (a) ` 200 (b) ` 850
8. The per cent profit made when an article is sold for (c) ` 750 (d) ` 900
` 56 is thrice as when it is sold for ` 42. The cost price 17. At what per cent above the cost price must an
of the article is : articles be marked, so as to gain 17% after allowing
(a) ` 48 (b) ` 49 a discount of 10%?
(c) ` 50 (d) ` 35 (a) 34% (b) 70% (c) 30% (d) 27%
9. A shopkeeper uses a weight of 460 g instead of 500 g 18. A merchant marks his goods at ` 900 and allows a
and sells the articles at the cost price. What is the discount of 25%. If he still gain 12.5%, then the cost
profit percentage? price of the article is :
(a) 40% (b) 23% (a) ` 500 (b) ` 600
16 (c) ` 720 (d) can't be determined
(c) 8 % (d) 20%
23
19. A vendor buys oranges @ ` 2 for 3 oranges and sells
10. A trader uses a weight of 920 g instead of 1 kg and them at a rupee each. To make a profit of ` 10, he
sells the articles at the marked price which is 15% must sell :
above the cost price. Find the profit percentage. (a) 10 oranges (b) 20 oranges
(a) 20% (b) 23% (c) 30 oranges (d) 40 oranges
(c) 25% (d) can't be determined
Profit, Loss and Discount 317

6.5 Profit-Loss Factors 1. Profit by Manipulating The Price

There are various ways to earn profit in any business (a) A trader simply marks up the cost price and sells the
transaction. Some are fair means and some are unfair means. goods at the marked up price. Thus the marked-up price
Using any such means a trader can create the difference becomes the sales price.
between selling price and the cost price. In any business (b) A trader marks up the price of the goods much higher,
transaction there are three primary factors by which a then he gives discounts on the marked up price. Thus the
businessperson makes a profit or loss. discounted price becomes the selling price.
Marked Price
One way is to change the price, the other way is to change the Markup Factor =
quantity and the third way is to change the quality. Cost Price
Essentially, a trader claims something else and he gives Value received from your buyer
=
something else. That means the customer does not know if he Value given to your seller
is paying the right price or getting the right quantity or right Selling Price
Discounting Factor =
quality that a trader claims to give to his customer. To Marked Price
enhance the margin or profit a trader can do multiple things Value received from your buyer
=
in a single transaction. That means he can change the price, Value given to your seller
quantity and quality in a single transaction. That is how a lot Margin factor = Pricing Factor
of fraudulent traders enhance their margin between selling
= Markup Factor × Discounting Factor
price and the cost price.
Meterial Measuring Pricing Pricing Factor
Factor Factor Factor

Markup Marked Discounting

Cost Selling Factor Price Factor
Price Price
Cost Selling
Margin Price Price
Factor
Margin
Selling Price
Margin Factor = Factor
Cost Price
Value received from your buyer
= Cost Price × Markup Factor = Marked Price
Value given to your seller
Marked Price × Discounting Factor = Selling Price
Cost Price × Material Factor × Measuring Factor
Cost Price × Markup Factor × Discounting Factor
× Pricing Factor = Selling Price
= Selling Price
Margin Factor = Material Factor × Measuring Factor
× Pricing Factor Cost Price × Margin Factor = Selling Price
Cost Price × Margin Factor = Selling Price Margin Factor = Markup Factor × Discounting Factor
A trader earns a profit if the margin factor is greater than 1  markup % 
Markup factor = 1 +  
and he makes a loss if the margin factor is less then 1 and he  100 
makes no profit or no loss when the margin factor is 1.
 Discount % 
Therefore, Discounting Factor = 1 −  
 100 
Profit Factor = Margin Factor −1
Loss Factor = 1 − Margin Factor Selling Price
Margin Factor =
Cost Price
Profit (%) = Profit Factor ×100
When there are no price changes, theses factors become 1.
Loss (%) = Loss Factor ×100
318 QUANTUM CAT
2. Profit by Manipulating The 3. Profit by Manipulating The
Measurement Quality of Material
(a) When a trader cheats his customer - While selling his (a) When a trader mixes up some freely available or a
goods to his customer, the trader simply gives less cheaper material to a costly material and he sells to his
quantity than what he charges for. In this case his customers whereas customer pays the price of the
customer is not aware of the fact that the trader is giving material under the impression that it is a pure material. It
him less quantity. That means the customer perceives enhances the profit of the trader.
the displayed quantity to be true and so he pays for the (b) When a trader buys some material from a supplier who
quantity displayed. mixes up some freely available or a cheaper material to a
(b) When a trader cheats his supplier - While buying goods costly material, however, the trader pays the price of the
from a wholesaler or a manufacturer, the trader simply material under the impression that it is a pure material. It
takes more quantity than what he pays for. In this case does not change the profit of the trader, though it
supplier .is not aware of the fact that the trader is taking enhances the profit of the supplier.
away more quantity from him. That means the supplier Since in this case where the end customer is not able to
perceives the displayed quantity to be true and so he discern the impurity and therefore he is not in a position to
charges for the displayed quantity. claim against the damages made to him, the profit and loss of
(c) When a trader cheats both his customer and supplier. A the trader depends on the difference of the amount that he
trader takes away more goods from his supplier than receives from his customer and the amount that he pays to his
what he pays for and the trader gives less goods to his supplier. Essentially, the effect of impurities added by
customers than what he charges for. supplier does not affect the profit or loss earned by the trader.
Seller’s Measuring Factor Value received from your buyer
Material Factor =
Display Quantity Value given to your seller
=
Actual Quantity Margin Factor = Material Factor
Value received from your buyer
=
Value given to your seller Material Factor

Buyer’s Measuring Factor

Actual Quantity
= Cost
Price
Selling
Display Quantity Price

Value received from your buyer

= Margin
Value given to your seller
Factor
Margin Factor = Seller’s Measuring Factor
× Buyer’s Measuring Factor When there are no cheatings by trader, theses factors become 1.

Measuring Factor Exp. 23) A trader marks up his goods by 20% over the
cost price, if he does not offer any discount, what would
Seller's Buyer's
be his profit per cent?
Measuring Measuring
Factor Factor (a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 22.22 (d) 25
Solution It is given that the marked price is 20% more than the
cost price. That means marked price is 120% of the cost price.
Cost Selling Now, let us assume that the cost price of the goods = ` 100, the
Price Price 120
marked price of the goods = 100 × = ` 120
100
Since the trader does not offer any discount, it means he sells
Margin his goods at the marked price only. That means the selling
Factor price = marked price = ` 120.
120 − 100
Therefore, the profit (%) = × 100 = 20%
When there are no cheating, theses factors become 1. 100
Hence choice (b) is the valid one.
Profit, Loss and Discount 319

Alternatively Let the cost price of the goods be ` 1. Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor
The marked price of the goods = 1 × 1.2 = ` 1.2 Margin Factor =
100
= 1. 3333
Since there is no any discount given by the trader, therefore 75
selling price of the goods = ` 1.2 Profit Factor = 1. 33 − 1 = 0. 3333
Margin Factor =
Selling Price 1.2
= = 1.2 Profit (%) = 0. 3333 × 100 = 33. 33%
Cost Price 1 Hence choice (d) is the valid one
Profit Factor = Margin Factor − 1 = 0.2 NOTE The profit in this transaction depends only on the false
Therefore Profit (%) = Profit Factor × 100 = 20. measurement. That’s why pricing and quality factors are 1.
Hence choice (b) is the valid one.
Exp. 27) A trader has a faulty balance that weighs 20%
Exp. 24) A trader marks up his goods by 20% over the less than what it should weigh. Further he marks up the
cost price, if he offers 10% discount over marked price, price of the goods by 60%, what is his profit per cent?
what would be his profit per cent? (a) 80 (b) 120 (c) 200 (d) 100
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d) 18 Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Markup Factor ×
Solution Let the Cost Price = 1, Markup Factor = 1.2 Discounting Factor
Marked Price = 1 × 1.2 = 1.2 Margin Factor =
100
× 1.6 × 1 = 2
 10  800
Discounting Factor = 1 −   = 0.9
 100 Profit Factor = 2 − 1 = 1
Selling Price = 1.2 × 0.9 = 1.08 Profit (%) = 1 × 100 = 100%
1.08 Hence choice (d) is the valid one
Margin Factor = = 1.08
1 NOTE The profit in this transaction depends on the false
Profit Factor = Margin Factor − 1 = 0.08 measurement and the mark up. That’s why discounting factor is 1.
Profit = Profit Factor × 100 = 8%
Hence choice (b) is the valid one. Exp. 28) A trader has a faulty balance that weighs 20%
Alternatively Margin Factor less than what it should weigh. But, he offers a discount of
= Markup Factor × Discounting Factor 10% on the price, what is his profit per cent?
Margin Factor = 1.2 × 0.9 = 1.08 (a) 8 (b) 10
Profit Factor = 1.08 − 1 = 0.08 (c) 12 (d) 12.5
Profit (%) = 0.08 × 100 = 8% Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Markup Factor ×
Discounting Factor
Exp. 25) A trader has a faulty balance that displays 25% 100
Margin Factor = × 1 × 0.9 = 1125
.
more weight than what it should weigh. If he sells his 800
goods at the cost price using his faulty balance, what is his Profit Factor = 1125
. − 1 = 0125
.
profit per cent? Profit (%) = 0125
. × 100 = 125 . %
(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 33.33 (d) none Hence choice (d) is the valid one
Solution Exp. 29) A trader has a faulty balance that weighs 30%
Margin Factor = Measuring Factor
less than what it should weigh. Further he marks up the
125
Margin Factor = = 1.25 price of the goods by 16.67% and then he offers a discount
100
of 10% on the marked price, what is his profit per cent?
Profit Factor = 1.25 − 1 = 0.25
(a) 18.8 (b) 50
Profit (%) = 0.25 × 100 = 25%
(c) 16.67 (d) 35
Hence choice (a) is the valid one.
Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Markup Factor ×
NOTE The profit in this transaction depends only on the false Discounting Factor
measurement. There is no role of pricing and quality. That’s why all 100  16.67 
other factors are 1. Margin Factor = × 1 +  × 0.9
70  100 
Exp. 26) A trader has a faulty balance that weight 25% 10 7 9
Margin Factor = × × = 15
.
less than what it should weigh. If he sells his goods at the 7 6 10
cost price using his faulty balance, what is his profit per Profit Factor = 15. − 1 = 05.
cent? Profit (%) = 05
. × 100 = 50%
(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 16.67 (d) 33.33 Hence choice (b) is the valid one.
320 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 30) A trader earns a 25% profit by selling his Exp. 33) A tracder has a faulty balance that weighs 20%
goods at the cost price while using a faulty balance. How less than what it should weigh. Maximum how much
much per cent does his balance weigh less than what it percentage discount can he offer, if he wants to earn 10%
should weigh? profit?
(a) 25 (b) 20 (a) 12 (b) 12.5 (c) 8 (d) 16
(c) 16.67 (d) 22.22 Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Discounting
Solution Factor
Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Markup Factor 110 100
= × Discounting Factor
× Discounting Factor 100 80
1.25 = Measuring Factor × 1 × 1 88
Discounting Factor =
125 Display Weight 100
= Discount % 12
100 Actual Weight 1− =1−
125 − 100 25 100 100
Required Percentage = × 100 = × 100 = 20% Discount (%) = 12
125 125
Therefore, his balance weighs 20% less than what it should Hence choice (a) is the valid one.
weigh. Exp. 34) A trader earns 20% profit even after allowing
Hence choice (b) is the valid one.
30% discount to his customers. Minimum how much per
Exp. 31) A trader has a faulty balance that weighs 20% cent does his balance weigh less than what it should
less than what it should weigh. What should be the weigh?
minimum mark up per cent, if he wants to earn 50% (a) 41.67 (b) 55.55 (c) 66.67 (d) 56
profit? Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Discounting
Factor
(a) 12.5 (b) 16.67
120 70
(c) 20 (d) 25 = Measuring Factor ×
100 100
Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Markup Factor
12
× Discounting Factor Measuring Factor =
110 7
. =
15 × Markup Factor × 1 Display Quantity 12
80 =
120 Actual Quantity 7
Markup Factor = 12 − 7 5
100 Required Percentage = × 100 = × 100 = 41.67%
Markup% 20 12 12
1+ =1+ Therefore, his balance weighs 41.67% less than what it should
100 100
Markup% = 20 weigh.
Hence choice (c) is the valid one. Hence choice (a) is the valid one.

Exp. 32) A trader earns 40% profit by marking up his Exp. 35) A trader has a faulty balance that weighs 20%
goods by 20%. Minimum how much per cent does his less than what it should weigh. If he wants to earn 30%
balance weigh less than that it should weigh? profit while marking up the price of the goods by 20%,
(a) 12 (b) 14.28 maximum how much percentage discount can he offer?
(c) 16.67 (d) none of these (a) 13.33 (b) 16.67
Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Markup Factor (c) 22.22 (d) 25
1.4 = Measuring Factor × 1.2 Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor
1.4 7 × Markup Factor × Discounting Factor
Measuring Factor = = 130 100 120
1.2 6 = × × Discounting Factor
Display Weight 7 100 80 100
= 13
Actual Weight 6 Discounting Factor =
7−6 1 15
Required Percentage = × 100 = × 100 = 14.28% Discount % 2
7 7 1− =1−
100 15
Therefore, his balance weighs 14.28% less than what it should
Discount (%) = 13. 33.
weigh.
Hence choice (a) is the valid one.
Hence choice (b) is the valid one.
Profit, Loss and Discount 321

Exp. 36) A trader has a faulty balance that weighs 20% Exp. 39) A retailer uses faulty balances to purchase and
less than what is should weigh. If he wants to earn 25% sell the goods. He uses his faulty balances in such a way
profit, while offering a whopping 50% discount, by how that while buying the goods from wholesaler he gets x%
much per cent should he mark up his goods? more of what he pays for, while selling his goods to his
(a) 80 (b) 90 (c) 100 (d) 120 customer he gives 40% less of what he charges for. If he
Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor sells his goods at the cost price and earns 100% profit,
× Markup Factor × Discounting Factor what is x?
125 100 50 (a) 60 (b) 140 (c) 20 (d) 75
= × Markup Factor ×
100 80 100 Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor
200 Markup% 100 200  100 + x 100
Markup Factor = ⇒1 + =1+ = × 
100 100 100 100  100 60 
Markup% = 100 100 + x 120
Hence choice (c) is the valid one. =
100 100
Exp. 37) A trader marks up the goods by 40% and x = 20
Hence choice (c) is the valid one.
allows a discount of 26.67% on the marked price. If he
expects a decent 120% profit on the goods sold, how much NOTE The profit in this transaction depends on the false
per cent more does his balance display the weight than measurement while buying and selling the goods. Also, since he sells
what it displays when it is not faulty? the goods at the cost price, therefore the markup factor and
discounting factor are 1. Actually, in this the Cost Price becomes the
(a) 14.28 (b) 53.33 (c) 114.28 (d) 46.67
Selling Price and the Effective Cost Price becomes the Cost Price.
Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor
× Markup Factor × Discounting Factor Exp. 40) A retailer uses faulty balances to purchase and
220 140 73. 33 sell the goods. He uses his faulty balances in such a way
= Measuring Factor × ×
100 100 100 that while buying the goods from wholesaler he gets 20%
11 7 11
= Measuring Factor × × more of what he pays for, while selling his goods to his
5 5 15
customer he gives x% less of what he charges for. If he
15
Measuring Factor = sells his goods at the cost price and earns 33.33% profit,
7
15 − 7 8 what is x?
Required Percentage = × 100 = × 100 = 114.28% (a) 10 (b) 11.11 (c) 9.09 (d) 13.33
7 7
Therefore, his balance must display at least 114.28% more Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor
weight than what it displays when it is not faulty. 133. 33  120 100 
= × 
Hence choice (c) is the valid one. 100  100 100 − x 
100 100
Exp. 38) A retailer uses faulty balances to purchase and =
90 100 − x
sell the goods. He uses his faulty balances in such a way
x = 10
that while buying the goods from wholesaler he gets 20%
Hence choice (a) is the valid one
more of what he pays for, while selling his goods to his
NOTE The profit in this transaction depends on the false
customer he gives 20% less of what he charges for. If he
measurement while buying and selling the goods. Also, since he sells
sells his goods at the cost price, how much profit the goods at the cost price, therefore the markup factor and
percentage does he make? discounting factor are 1. Actually, in this the Cost Price becomes the
(a) 50 (b) 44 (c) 41 (d) 40 Selling Price and the Effective Cost Price becomes the Cost Price.
Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor
 120 100 Exp. 41) A retailer uses faulty balances to purchase and
Margin Factor =  × 
 100 80  sell the goods. He uses his faulty balances in such a way
12 that while buying the goods from wholesaler he gets 20%
Margin Factor = = 15
.
8 more of what he pays for, while selling his goods to his
Profit Factor = 15
. −1 = 05
. customer he gives 20% less of what he charges for. Further
Profit (%) = 05. × 100 = 50% he marks up his goods by 33.33%. How much profit
Hence choice (a) is the valid one. percentage does he make?
NOTE The profit in this transaction depends on the false (a) 25 (b) 50
measurement while buying and selling the goods. That’s why (c) 66.67 (d) 100
markup factor and discounting factor are 1.
322 QUANTUM CAT
Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Markup Factor Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Markup Factor
 120 100 133. 33 200  105 100  114.28
Margin Factor =  ×  × = ×  ×
 100 80  100 100  100 100 − x  100
2 200 105
Margin Factor = = 2 =
1 114.28 100 − x
Profit Factor = 2 − 1 = 1 200 105
Profit (%) = 1 × 100 = 100% =
800 / 7 100 − x
Hence choice (d) is the valid one.
x = 40
NOTE Since there is no discount allowed, so the discounting
Hence choice (c) is the valid one
factor is 1. Remember margin factor = selling price/cost price, so in
this problem profit equals to 100%. Exp. 45) A retailer uses faulty balances to purchase and
Exp. 42) A retailer uses faulty balances to purchase and sell the goods. He uses his faulty balances in such a way
sell the goods. He uses his faulty balances in such a way that while buying the goods from wholesaler he gets 4%
that while buying the goods from wholesaler he gets 20% more of what he pays for, while selling his goods to his
more of what he pays for, while selling his goods to his customer he gives 13.33% less of what he charges for.
customer he gives 10% less of what he charges for. If he Further he offers a discount of 16.67%. How much profit
earns a profit of 60%, by how much per cent does he mark percentage does he make?
(a) 100 (b) 33.33 (c) 25 (d) 0
up his goods?
Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Discounting
(a) 40 (b) 44.44 (c) 20 (d) 56.67
Factor
Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Markup Factor
 104 100  83. 33
160  120 100 Margin factor =  ×  ×
= ×  Markup Factor  100 86.67  100
100  100 90 
6 5
120 Margin Factor = × = 1
Markup Factor = 5 6
100
Profit Factor = 1 − 1 = 0
Markup% 20
1+ =1+ Profit (%) = 0 × 100 = 0%
100 100
Hence choice (d) is the valid one.
Markup % = 20
Hence choice (c) is the valid one. Exp. 46) A retailer uses faulty balances to purchase and
sell the goods. He uses his faulty balances in such a way
Exp. 43) A retailer uses faulty balances to purchase and
that while buying the goods from wholesaler he gets 8%
sell the goods. He uses his faulty balances in such a way
more of what he pays for, while selling his goods to his
that while buying the goods from wholesaler he gets x%
customer he gives 10% less of what he charges for. If he
more of what he pays for, while selling his goods to his
earns a profit of 28.56%, by minimum how much per cent
customer he gives 20% less of what he charges for. Further
does he markup or discount the price?
he marks up his goods by 20%. If he earns a profit of 50%,
(a) 6.67 (b) 10
what is x?
(c) 12.5 (d) none of these
(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) 0
Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Markup Factor
Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Markup Factor
× Discounting Factor
150  100 + x 100 120
= ×  × 12856
.  108 100
100  100 80  100 = ×  × Markup Factor
100  100 90 
150 100 + x × Discounting Factor
= ⇒x = 0
120 80 Markup Factor × Discounting Factor = 15 /14
Hence choice (d) is the valid one Since 15/14 is greater than 1, therefore the retailer has certainly
marked up the price of the goods. The minimum markup per
Exp. 44) A retailer uses faulty balances to purchase cent is possible only when there is no discount allowed on the
and sell the goods. He uses his faulty balances in such a goods. That is when the discounting factor is 1.
way that while buying the goods from wholesaler he gets 15
Thus the minimum markup factor =
5% more of what he pays for, while selling his goods to his 14
customer he gives x% less of what he charges for. Further Markup% 1
1+ =1+
he marks up his goods by 14.28%. If he earns a profit of 100 14
100%, what is x? Markup% = 7.14
(a) 60 (b) 50 (c) 40 (d) 25 Hence choice (d) is the valid one.
Profit, Loss and Discount 323

Exp. 47) A retailer uses faulty balances to purchase and Exp. 49) An unscrupulous trader steals 4 bananas for
sell the goods. He uses his faulty balances in such a way every dozen whenever he purchases them from a farmer
that while buying the goods from wholesaler he gets 25% and his customers steal 2 bananas for every dozen
more of what he pays for, while selling his goods to his whenever they purchase the bananas from this trader.
customer he gives 25% less of what he charges for. If he What is the profit or loss percentage of the trader, if he
earns a profit of 16.67%, by minimum how much per cent sells the bananas at the price that is offered by the farmer
does he mark up or discount the price? to the trader?
(a) 20, markup (a) 16.67 loss (b) 22.22 profit
(b) 30, discount (c) 14.28 profit (d) 12.5 loss
(c) 50, discount Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor
(d) 25, markup  16 12 8
Margin Factor =  ×  =
Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Markup Factor ×  12 14 7
116.67  125 100 8 1
Discounting Factor = ×  × Markup Factor Profit Factor = − 1 =
100  100 75  7 7
× Discounting Factor 1
Profit (%) = × 100 = 14.28%
7 7
Markup Factor × Discounting Factor =
10 Hence choice (c) is the valid one.
Since 7/10 is less than 1, therefore the retailer has certainly NOTE Since the margin factor (8/7) is greater than 1, therefore
allowed the discount on the goods. the retailer makes some profit. Loss is incurred only when the margin
The minimum discount per cent is possible only when the factor is less than 1.
price not marked up. That is when the markup factor is 1.
7 Exp. 50) A seller buys a watch for ` 2000 and marks it
Thus the minimum discounting factor =
10 up to ` 3120. Further, he gives three successive discounts
1−
Discount%
=1−
3 of x%, y % and z% in such a way that x + y + z = 37.5. If his
100 10 overall profit/loss percentage is p, what could be the
Discount% = 30 possible value of p?
Hence choice (b) is the valid one. (a) 62.5 < p < 87.5 (b) 60 < p < 62.5
(c) − 2.5 < p < 4.5 (d) 60 < p < 71.5
Exp. 48) A retailer uses faulty balances to purchase and
Solution When Cost Price = 2000, Marked Price = 5120
sell the goods. He uses his faulty balances in such a way
When Cost Price = 100, Marked Price = 256
that while buying the goods from wholesaler he gets 15%
Case I : when x = 0, y = 0 and z = 37.5.
more of what he pays for, while selling his goods to his
 37.5 
customer he gives 8% less of what he charges for. Not only Selling Price = 256 100 −  = 160
 100 
this, he marks up his goods by 20% and then to please his
Therefore, Profit = 60%
customer he offers her 42.84% discount on the marked
Case II : When x = y = z =125.
price. How much profit or loss percentage does he make?
 .  
125 . 
125
(a) 14.28, profit (b) 16.67, profit Selling Price = 256 100 −  100 − 
 100   100 
(c) 14.28, loss (d) 20, loss
Solution Margin Factor = Measuring Factor × Markup Factor ×  125.  343
100 −  =
 100  2
Discounting Factor
 115 110 6 4  343 
Margin Factor =  ×  × × Therefore, profit =  − 100 = 715
. %
 100 92  5 7  2 
5 6 4 6 That is, 60 < p < 715
.
Margin Factor = × × =
4 5 7 7 Hence choice (d) is the valid one.
6 1
Loss Factor = 1 − = Exp. 51) A trader imported a bicycle for ` 40000 and
7 7
1 marked it up by ` 60000. Further, he instructed his servant
Loss (%) = × 100 = 14.28%
7 to given two successive discounts of x% and y% in such a
Hence choice (c) is the valid one. way that xy = 25, x, y ≥ 1. If his overall profit/loss
NOTE Since the margin factor (6/7) is less than 1, therefore the percentage is p, what could be the possible value of p?
retailer incur a loss. Profit is made only when the margin factor is (a) 11. 375 < p < 35. 375 (b) 85.625 ≤ p ≤ 125.625
greater than 1. (c) 25 < p < 62. 5 (d) 60 < p < 71.5
324 QUANTUM CAT
Solution When Cost Price = 40000, Marked Price = 100000 Solution Margin Factor = Material Factor × Measuring Factor ×
When Cost Price = 100, Marked Price = 250 Markup Factor
10 × 100 100 171
Case I : when x = 1, y = 25. Margin Factor = × ×
 1   25  8 × 100 + 2 × 75 90 100
Selling Price = 250 100 −  100 −  = 185.625
 100  100 Margin Factor =
1000 100 171
× ×
Therefore, Profit = (185.625 − 100) = 85.625% 950 90 100
Case II : When x = y = 5 Margin Factor = 2, Profit Factor = 2 − 1 = 1
 5   5  Profit (%) = 1 × 100 = 100%
Selling price = 250 100 −  100 −  = 225.625 Hence choice (a) is the valid one.
 100  100
Therefore, Profit = ( 225.625 − 100) = 125.625% Exp. 55) A milkman always purchases milk from a
That is, 85.625 ≤ p ≤ 125.625 dairy wherein the farmer mixes up 1 litre of freely
Hence choice (b) is the valid one. available water with every 9 litre of pure milk in such a
Exp. 52) A trader mixes some freely available drinking way that the milkman is not able to identify the impurity.
water with some quantity of pure milk that is procured Now the milkman adds up 2 litres of freely available
from a reliable dairy and he sells out the mixture at 20% water to every 10 litres of milk purchased from the dairy
discount. If the quantity of water is 20% to that of pure and then he sells to his customers at the cost price. What is
milk, what is his overall profit/loss (%)? the profit or loss percentage earned/accrued by the
(a) 4%, loss (b) 4%, Profit milkman in this trading?
(c) No profit No loss (d) 4.4%, profit (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 33.33
Solution Margin Factor = Material Factor × Discounting factor Solution Margin Factor = Material Factor
 120 80 96 (10 + 2) 12
Margin Factor =   × , Margin Factor = Margin Factor = = = 1.2
 100 100 100 10 10
96 4 Profit Factor = 1.2 − 1 = 0.2
Loss Factor = 1 − = Profit (%) = 0.2 × 100 = 20%
100 100
4 Hence choice (c) is the valid one.
Loss (%) = × 100 = 4%
100 NOTE In this scenario it does not matter if the supplier has added
Hence choice (a) is the valid one. any impurity, as the trader is paying him the full price believing that
he is getting a pure material.
Exp. 53) Before selling the milk to his customers, a Alternatively Let the cost price of milk be ` 1 per litre.
milkman mixes 2 litres of freely available potable water Total amount paid to the dairy farmer = ` 10
with every 8 litres of pure milk procured from a dairy. Total amount received from the customer = ` 12
While selling it to his customers, he gives exactly 10% less (10 + 2) 12
Margin Factor = = = 1.2
than what he claims to give and mark the price up by 20%. 10 10
What is the overall profit (%) earned by the milkman? Profit Factor = 0.2
(a) 60 (b) 66.67 (c) 50 (d) 55 Profit (%) = 20%
Solution Margin Factor = Material Factor × Measuring Factor ×
Markup Factor
Exp. 56) A milkman always purchases milk from a
10 100 120 5 dairy wherein the farmer mixes up 3 litre of freely
Margin Factor = × × , Margin Factor = available water with every 7 litre of pure milk in such a
8 90 100 3
5 2 way that the milkman is not able to identify the impurity.
Profit Factor = − 1 =
3 3 Now the milkman adds up 5 litres of freely available
2 water to every 15 Iitres of milk purchased from the dairy
Profit (%) = × 100 = 66.67%
3 and then he sells to his customers at the cost price. What is
Hence choice (b) is the valid one. the profit or loss percentage earned/accrued by the
milkman in this trading?
Exp. 54) A petrol pump dealer adds 2 litres of kerosene (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 33.33
with every 8 litres of petrol before selling the petrol to his Solution Margin Factor = Material Factor
customers. The kerosene is actually 25% cheaper than the (15 + 5) 20
petrol. While selling it to his customers, he gives 10% less Margin Factor = = = 1. 33
15 15
than what he claims to give and mark the price up by 71% Profit Factor = 1. 33 − 1 = 0. 33
with comparison to the cost price of petrol. What is the Profit (%)= 0. 33 × 100 = 33. 33%
overall profit (%) earned by the dealer? Hence choice (d) is the valid one.
(a) 100 (b) 75 (c) 120 (d) 200
Profit, Loss and Discount 325

NOTE In this scenario it does not matter if the supplier has added However, the milkman sells the milk to his customers at a
any impurity, as the trader is paying him the full price believing that price 50% higher than the one he usually pays to the dairy
he is getting a pure material.
farmer. What is the profit or loss percentage
Alternatively Let the cost price of milk be ` 1 per litre.
earned/accrued by the milkman in this trading?
Total amount paid to the dairy farmer = ` 15
(a) 60 (b) 200 (c) 90 (d) 300
Total amount received from the customer = ` 20
Solution Margin Factor = Material Factor × Pricing Factor
20
Margin Factor = = 1. 33 (15 + 3)  100 + 50
15 Margin Factor = ×  =3
15  100 − 40
Profit Factor = 1. 33 − 1 = 0. 33
Profit (%) = 0. 33 × 100 = 33. 33% Profit Factor = 3 − 1 = 2
Profit (%) = 2 × 100 = 200%
Exp. 57) A milkman purchased milk from a dairy Hence choice (b) is the valid one.
wherein the farmer mixes up 3 litres of freely available NOTE In this scenario it does not matter if the supplier has added
water with every 7 Iitres of pure milk. Fortunately, the any impurity, as the trader is paying him the price based on mutual
milkman caught him mixing up the water, but he could understanding. After all, all that matters is how much the trader pays
not figure out the exact amount of water in the mixture. the supplier for a particular quantity of mixture.
So, the milkman paid him 40% less than the normal price Alternatively Let the cost price of milk be ` 1 per litre.
he used to pay before catching him dilute the milk. Now Total amount paid to the dairy farmar for 10 litters = 10 − 4 = ` 6
the milkman adds up 3 Iitres of freely available water to Total amount paid to the dairy famer for 15 liters = ` 9
every 15 Iitres of milk purchased from the dairy. Total amont received from the customer = (15 + 3) × 1.5 = ` 27
27
However, the milkman sells the milk to his customers at Margin Factor = =3
the price that he usually pays to the dairy farmer. What is 9
Profit Factor = 3 − 1 = 2
the profit or loss percentage earned/accrued by the
Profit (%) = 2 × 100 = 200%
milkman in this trading?
(a) 60 (b) 75 (c) 90 (d) 100 Exp. 59) A milkman purchased milk from a dairy
Solution Margin Factor = Material Factor × Pricing Factor wherein the farmer mixes up 3 litres of freely available
(15 + 3) 100
Margin Factor = × =2 water with every 7 litres of pure milk. Fortunately, the
15 (100 − 40)
milkman caught him mixing up the water, but he could
Profit Factor = 2 − 1 = 1 not figure out the exact amount of water in the mixture.
Profit (%) = 1 × 100 = 100% So, the scared and embarrassed farmer gave him 25%
Hence choice (d) is the valid one. extra quantity of mixture at the same price. Now the
NOTE In this scenario it does not matter if the supplier has added milkman adds up 3 litres of freely available water to every
any impurity, as the trader is paying him the price based on mutual 15 litres of milk purchased from the dairy. However, the
understanding. After all, all that matters is how much the trader pays
milkman sells the milk to his customers at a price 50%
the supplier for a particular quantity of mixture.
higher than the one he usually pays to the dairy farmer.
Alternatively Let the cost price of milk be ` 1 per litre.
What is the profit or loss percentage earned/accrued by
Total amount paid to the dairy farmer for 10 litres = 10 − 4 = ` 6
the milkman in this trading?
Total amount paid to the dairy farmer for 15 litres = ` 9
(a) 125 (b) 75 (c) 90 (d) 100
Total amount received from the customer = 15 + 3 = ` 18
18 Solution Margin Factor = Measurement Factor × Material
Margin Factor = =2 Factor × Pricing Factor
9 (100 + 25) (15 + 3) (100 + 50)
Profit Factor = 2 − 1 = 1 Margin Factor = × ×
100 15 100
Profit (%) = 1 × 100 = 100% 9
= = 2.25
Exp. 58) A milkman purchased milk from a dairy 4
wherein the farmer mixes up 3 litres of freely available Profit Factor = 2.25 − 1 = 1.25
Profit (%) = 1.25 × 100 = 125%
water with every 7 litres of pure milk. Fortunately, the
Hence choice (a) is the valid one.
milkman caught him mixing up the water, but he could
not figure out the exact amount of water in the mixture. NOTE In this scenario it does not matter if the supplier has added
any impurity, as the trader is paying the same price as he is supposed
So, the milkman paid him 40% less than the normal price
to pay for a pure material.
he used to pay before catching him dilute the milk. Now
Alternatively Let the cost price of milk be ` 1 per litre.
the milkman adds up 3 litres of freely available water to
Total amount paid to the dairy farmer for 5 litres = ` 4
every 15 litres of milk purchased from the dairy.
Total amount paid to the dairy farmer for 15 litres = ` 12
326 QUANTUM CAT
Total amount received from the customer 5
Margin Factor =
150 4
= (15 + 3) × = ` 27
100 Margin Factor = 1.25
Margin Factor =
27
= 2.25 Profit Factor = 1.25 − 1 = 0.25
12 Profit (%) = 0.25 × 100 = 25%
Profit Factor = 2.25 − 1 = 1.25 Hence choice (a) is the valid one.
Profit (%) = 1.25 × 100 = 125%
Exp. 62) A dishonest peddler claims to sell the sugar at
Exp. 60) A petrol pump dealer purchases the petrol 20% discount, but his scale weighs 58.33% less amount
from a petroleum company that adds 1 litre of kerosene that it displays and he also adds some cheap quality
with every 9 litres of petrol before selling the petrol to his sugar, which is 60% cheaper than the high quality sugar.
customers. The petroleum company also gives 10% less Before selling the sugar he goes to buy standard sugar
quantity that it claims to sell to a dealer. The dealer adds from a sugar mill.
2 litres of kerosene with every 8 litres of petrol that he has The sugar mill had to give him 20% discount when the
purchased from the petroleum company. The dealer peddler caught the sugar mill red handed mixing freely
trying to impress the customers gives 10% extra quantity available sand in the high quality sugar. Even the scale
than what a customer pays for. However, he marks up the used to measure the weights at sugar mill shows 50%
price by 10%. The kerosene is actually 50% cheaper than more than the actual weight of the sugar, which goes
the petrol. What is the overall profit (%) earned by the unnoticed by the trader. Nevertheless, peddler makes a
dealer? profit of 100%. Which of the following statement is
(a) 10 (b) 11.11 (c) 12.1 (d) 0 necessarily correct?
Solution Margin Factor = Material Factor × Measuring Factor (i) The mixture of sugar that sugar mill sells to the
× Markup Factor peddler has 1/3 rd amount of sand in the mixture.
 10 × 100   90 100 110
Margin Factor =   × × × (ii) The mixture of sugar that peddler sells has 1/3 rd
 8 × 100 + 2 × 50  100 110 100 amount of cheap quality sugar in the mixture.
1
Margin Factor = = 1 (iii) Both the statements (i) and (ii) are true
1
(iv) Neither of the statements (i) and (ii) is true.
Profit Factor = 1 − 1 = 0
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
Profit (%) = 0 × 100 = 0%
(c) (iii) (d) (iv)
That means there is neither a profit nor a loss.
Solution Margin Factor = Material Factor × Measuring Factor
Hence choice (d) is the valid one.
× Pricing Factor
Exp. 61) A petrol pump dealer purchases the petrol Margin Factor
from a petroleum company that adds 3 litres of kerosene  ( x + y) × 100   100 100   100 80 
=  × × × × 
with every 7 litres of petrol before selling the petrol to his  x × 40 + y × 100  150 41.67   80 100
customers. Further, the petroleum company gives 10% (100 + 100)  5 x + 5 y   2 12
=  ×  ×  × (1)
less quantity that it claims to sell to a dealer. However, it 100  2x + 5 y   3 5 
charges 20% less than the normal price. The dealer adds 5  5x + 5y
2 litres of kerosene with every 10 litres of petrol that he has = 
4  2x + 5 y 
purchased from the petroleum company. The dealer
x 1
trying to impress the customers gives 10% extra quantity =
y 2
than what a customer pays for. However, he marks up the
x 1
price by 10%. The kerosene is actually 50% cheaper than =
x+y 3
the petrol. What is the overall profit (%) earned by the
dealer? It shows that the peddler has 1/3 rd amount of the cheap
quality sugar in the mixture that he sells to his customers.
(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) 0
Therefore, statement (ii) is true.
Solution Margin Factor = Material Factor × Measuring Factor
Peddler’s profit does not depend upon the impurity of the
× Pricing Factor sugar sold by sugar mill, so the statement (i) is not
 10 × 100   90 100  100 110 necessarily true.
Margin Factor =   × × × × 
 8 × 100 + 2 × 50  100 110  80 100 Hence choice (b) is the valid one
 CAT-Test
Questions Helping you bell the CAT

LEVEL 01 > BASIC LEVEL EXERCISE

1 Abhishek and Bhanu both are dealers of KML scooters. The 8 A man bought 18 oranges for a rupee and sold them at
price of a KML Scooter is ` 28,000. Abhishek gives a 12 oranges for a rupee. What is the profit percentage?
discount of 10% on whole, while Bhanu gives a discount of (a) 33.33% (b) 50%
12% on the first ` 20,000 and 8% on the rest ` 8000. What (c) 66.66% (d) none of these
is the difference between their selling prices? 9 A dealer buys a product at ` 1920, he sells at a discount of
(a) ` 240 (b) ` 420
20% still he gets the profit of 20%. What is the selling price
(c) ` 640 (d) none of these
of that product?
2 A trader sells two articles, one at a loss of 10% and another (a) ` 2304 (b) ` 1536
at a profit of 15% but finally there is no loss or gain. If the (c) ` 2200 (d) it is not possible
total sale price of these two articles is ` 30,000, find the 10 Tinkawala purchased the articles for ` 123684. He sold
difference between their cost prices : 60% of those at a profit of 16.66% and rest at a loss. Find
(a) ` 5000 (b) ` 6000
the loss percentage on the remaining if the overall loss is
(c) ` 7500 (d) none of these
14%?
3 A milkman purchases the milk at ` x per litre and sells it at (a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 60% (d) 66.66%
` 2x per litre still he mixes 2 litres water with every 6 litres
11 What should be the minimum markup percentage such that
of pure milk. What is the profit percentage?
2
(a) 116% (b) 166.66% after giving a discount of 66 %, there will not be a loss?
3
(c) 60% (d) 100%
(a) 200% (b) 133.33%
4 60% goods are sold at 5% loss while rest are sold at 10% (c) 100% (d) 150%
profit. If there is a total profit of ` 100, then the worth of
goods sold is : 12 The ratio of cost price and marked price of an article is 2 : 3
(a) ` 6000 (b) ` 5000 and ratio of percentage profit and percentage discount is
(c) ` 10000 (d) none of these 3 : 2. What is the discount percentage?
(a) 16.66% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 33.33%
5 A retailer bought 20 kg tea at a discount of 10%. Besides
1 kg tea was freely offered to him by the wholesaler at the 13 A dealer gives as much discount (in per cent) as the markup
purchase of 20 kg tea. Now, he sells all the tea at the (in per cent) above the cost price. What is the profit or loss
marked price to a customer. What is profit percentage of per cent?
retailer? (a) 10% (b) 1%
(a) 30% (b) 12% (c) 4% (d) Can’t be determined
(c) 16.66% (d) none of these
14 In the above problem, what is the markup percentage when
6 Two articles are sold at the same price. One at a profit of there is a loss in percentage be half of the percentage
75% and another one at a loss of 30%. What is the overall markup?
profit or loss? (a) 20% (b) 40%
(a) 22.5% profit (b) 57.5% profit (c) Can’t be determined (d) none of these
2
(c) 13 % loss (d) none of these 15 A shopkeeper sold 12 cameras at a profit of 20% and
7
8 cameras at a profit of 10%. If he had sold all the
7 What is percentage profit in selling an article at a discount 20 cameras at a profit of 15%, then his profit would have
of 20% which was earlier being sold at a 40% profit? been reduced by ` 36. What is the cost price of each
(a) 20% (b) 14% camera?
(c) 28% (d) 12% (a) 100 (b) 150 (c) 180 (d) 220
328 QUANTUM CAT
16 Mr. Mittal purchased a car for ` 3,00,000 and a bike for his 25 A trader uses a weighing balance that shows 1250 g for a
son for ` 1,00,000. He sold the car at a profit of 10% and kilogram. He further marks-up his cost price by 20%. What
bike at a loss of 20%. What is the net gain or loss? is the profit percentage?
(a) 2% gain (b) 1.5% loss (a) 5% (b) 45%
(c) 2.5% loss (d) 2.5% gain (c) 50% (d) 30%
17 A trader sells 20 kg of sugar at ` 400. A customer asks 20% 26 On selling an article for ` 240, a trader loses 4%. In order to
discount and he agrees to it but instead of 1 kg he gives 4% gain 10% he must sell that article for :
less sugar. What is the effective discount that the customer (a) ` 275 (b) ` 340 (c) ` 320 (d) ` 264
gets?
27 A merchant marks his goods at ` 300 and allows a discount
(a) 16% (b) 16.66%
of 25%. If he still gains 12.5%, then the cost price of article
(c) 15.5% (d) 19.6%
is :
18 The profit percentage on the three articles A, B and C is (a) ` 220 (b) ` 200
10%, 20% and 25% and the ratio of the cost price is 1 : 2 : 4. (c) ` 240 (d) ` 260
Also the ratio of number of articles sold of A, B and C is
28 An item costing ` 200 is being sold at 10% loss. If the price
2 : 5 : 2, then the overall profit percentage is :
is further reduces by 5%, the selling price will be :
(a) 18.5% (b) 21%
(a) ` 170 (b) ` 171 (c) ` 180 (d) ` 181
(c) 75% (d) none of these
19 The marked price of an article is increased by 25% and the 29 A person sold two cows each for ` 9900. If he gained 10%
selling price is increased by 16.66%, then the amount of on one and lost 20% on the other, then which of the
profit doubles. If the original marked price be ` 400 which following is true?
is greater than the corresponding cost price by 33.33%, (a) He gained ` 200
what is the increased selling price? (b) He lost ` 200
(a) 240 (b) 360 (c) He neither gained nor lost
(c) 420 (d) 600 (d) None of the above

20 A shopkeeper calculated his profit per cent on the selling 30 Two third of a consignment was sold at a profit of 5% and
price which comes out to be 30%. If it had been calculated as the remainder at a loss of 2%. If the total profit was ` 400,
usual on the cost price, then what is the required percentage the value of the consignment (in rupees) was :
profit? (a) 15000 (b) 20000 (c) 10000 (d) 12000
6 7
(a) 42 % (b) 4 % 31 A fruit seller declares that he sells fruits at the cost price.
7 27
However, he uses a weight of 450 g instead of 500 g. His
6
(c) 7 % (d) none of these percentage profit is :
42 1 2
(a) 10% (b) 11 % (c) 12% (d) 12 %
21 An item was sold after giving two successive discount of 9 9
20% and 10% respectively. If the item was sold for ` 468.
32 A person loses ` 20 by selling some bananas at the rate of
The marked price of that item is :
` 3 per banana and gains ` 30, if he sells them at ` 3.25 per
(a) ` 600 (b) ` 500
(c) ` 575 (d) ` 650 banana. The number of bananas sold by him:
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 120 (d) 2400
22 The cost price of an article ‘ A ’ is ` 160 and selling price of
another article ‘B ’ is ` 240. If the selling price of A will be 33 Due to an increase of 30% in the price of eggs, 3 eggs less
equal to the cost price of B, then the profit after selling A is are available for ` 9.10. The present rate per egg is :
20%. What is the profit on ‘B ’? (a) 91 paise (b) 78 paise
(a) 16.66% (b) 50% (c) 48 paise (d) 84 paise
(c) 25% (d) none of these
34 By selling 12 apples for a rupee, a man loses 20%. How
23 A single discount equivalent to three successive discounts many for a rupee should he sell to gain 20%?
of 5%, 10%, 20% is : (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 16
(a) 68.4% (b) 35%
35 A dealer buys a washing machine, listed at ` 10000 and
(c) 31.6% (d) 32%
gets 10% and 20% successive discounts. He spends 10% of
24 Ragini purchases oranges at ` 10 per dozen and sells them his CP on transport. At what price (in rupees) should he sell
at ` 12 for every 10 oranges. What is the profit percentage? the washing machine to earn a profit of 10%?
(a) 40% (b) 44% (a) 8722 (b) 7892
(c) 60% (d) 48% (c) 8712 (d) 8840
Profit, Loss and Discount 329

36 6% more is gained by selling a coat for ` 1425 than by 45 A scientific calculator is available at Universal Shoppe in
selling it for ` 1353. The cost price of the coat is : Hazratganz at 20% discount and the same is available at
(a) ` 1000 (b) ` 1250 only 15% discount at Universal Shoppe Bhootnath Market.
(c) ` 1500 (d) ` 1200 Ms. Aggarwal has just sufficient amount of ` 800 to
purchase it at Universal Shoppe Hazratganz. What is the
37 By selling a wrist watch at ` 405 the shopkeeper incurs a
amount that Ms. Aggarwal has less than the required
loss of 10%. What is the gain or loss percentage if he sells
amount to purchase it at Universal Shoppe Bhootnath?
the same watch at ` 465?
(a) ` 70
(a) profit of 10% (b) loss of 6%
(b) ` 50
(c) profit of 3.33% (d) no profit no loss
(c) ` 100
38 Titan sells a wrist watch to a wholesaler making a profit of (d) data insufficient
10%. The wholesaler, in turn, sells it to the retailer making
46 A balance of a trader weighs 10% less than it should be.
a profit of 10%. A customer purchases it by paying ` 990.
3 Still the trader marks-up his goods to get the overall profit
Thus, the profit of retailer is 2 %. What is the cost of 20%. What is the markup on the cost price?
11
incurred by the Titan to produce it? (a) 40% (b) 8%
(a) 768 (b) 750 (c) 25% (d) 16.66%
(c) 800 (d) 820 47 ITC sells one product at a profit of 20% another at a loss of
20% at the same selling price. What is the loss incurred by
39 Pepsi and Coke, there are two companies, selling the packs
ITC?
of cold-drinks. For the same selling price Pepsi gives two
successive discounts of 10% and 25%. While Coke sells it (a) 1% (b) 2%
by giving two successive discounts of 15% and 20%. What (c) 4% (d) 0%
is the ratio of their marked price? 48 In the previous question, if SP of each article be ` 200, what
(a) 143 : 144 (b) 19 : 11 is the amount of loss?
(c) 136 : 135 (d) 73 : 77 (a) ` 10 (b) ` 16
40 When a shopkeeper reduces the selling price from 1080 to (c) ` 16.66 (d) none of these
1026 its loss increases by 4 percentage point. What is the 49 The cost price of 19 articles is same as the selling price of
selling price of this same article when it fetches a profit of 29 articles. What is the loss %?
4%? (a) 35% (b) 34.48%
(a) ` 1392 (b) ` 1404 (c) 52.63% (d) none of these
(c) ` 1450 (d) ` 1350
50 The selling price of 13 articles is same as the cost price of
41 The difference between CP and SP of a table fan is ` 175 23 articles. What is the profit percentage?
when it gives the profit of 14%. What is the selling price of (a) 43.47% (b) 74.83%
that fan? (c) 78% (d) 76.92%
(a) 1225 (b) 1450 (c) 1425 (d) 1275
51 A trader can procure 34 pencils by selling 28 pencils. What
42 A company instead of raising the mark-up by 20% is the ratio of cost price to the selling price of a pencil?
discounted the cost price by 20% while stiching the price (a) 2 : 3 (b) 14 : 17
tag on its product. Further the company offers a discount of (c) 9 : 7 (d) 4 : 7
6.25% to its customer. In this process company incurs a loss
of ` 37.5 on a single article. What is the selling price of that 52 At style cloth emporium the shopkeeper measures 20% less
article? for every metre of cloth also he marks-up goods by 20%.
(a) 417.5 (b) 112.5 What is the profit percentage?
(c) 365.5 (d) none of these (a) 50% (b) 80%
(c) 75% (d) none of these
43 When an article is sold for ` 703 loss incurred is 25% less
than the profit earned on selling it at ` 836. What is the 53 A bookseller procures 40 books for ` 3200 and sells them at
selling price of the article when it earns a profit of 20%? a profit equal to the selling price of 8 books. What is the
(a) 912 (b) 1576 selling price of one dozen books, if the price of each book is
(c) 1532 (d) 1092 same?
(a) 720
44 Arun bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee (b) 960
he should sell to gain 20%? (c) 1200
(a) 3 (b) 4 (d) 1440
(c) 5 (d) Can’t be determined
330 QUANTUM CAT
54 The profit percentage of A and B is same on selling the 62 A trader procures his goods from a wholesaler, whose
articles at ` 1800 each but A calculates his profit on the balance reads 1200 g for 1000 g. The trader sells all the
selling price while B calculates it correctly on the cost price procured goods to a customer after marking up the goods
which is equal to 20%. What is the difference in their at 20% above the cost price. What is his overall percentage
profits? profit or loss in the whole transaction?
(a) ` 360 (b) ` 60 (a) 38% profit
(c) ` 540 (d) ` 450 (b) 50% profit
(c) no profit no loss
55 Each of A and B sold their article at ` 1818 but A incurred a
(d) none of the above
loss of 10% while B gained by 1%. What is the ratio of cost
price of the articles of A to that of B? 63 A person wants to reduce the trade tax, so he calculates his
(a) 101 : 90 (b) 85 : 89 profit on the sale price instead of on the cost price. In this
(c) 81 : 75 (d) none of these way by selling a article for ` 280 he calculates his profit as
2
56 A trader sold an article at a loss of 5% but when he 14 %. What is his actual profit percentage?
7
increased the selling price by ` 65 he gained 3.33% on the (a) 20% (b) 16.66%
cost price. If he sells the same article at ` 936, what is the (c) 25% (d) data insufficient
profit percentage?
(a) 15% (b) 16.66% 64 A vendor sells his articles at a certain profit percentage. If
(c) 20% (d) data insufficient he sells his articles at 1/3 of his actual selling price, then he
incurs a loss of 40%. What is his actual profit percentage?
57 Even after a discount of q% on marked price a trader gains (a) 72% (b) 120%
by p%. What is the markup percentage over the cost price? (c) 80% (d) none of these
p+ q p+ q
(a) × 100 (b) × 100 65 A retailer increases the selling price by 25% due to which
(q − p) (100 − p)
p+ q his profit percentage increases from 20% to 25%. What is
(c) × 100 (d) not possible the percentage increase in cost price?
(100 − q)
(a) 20% (b) 30%
58 A milkman mixes 10% water in pure milk but he is not (c) 25% (d) 50%
content with it so, he again mixes 10% more water in the
66 Abhinav saves ` 25 by getting 6.66% discount on a
previous mixture. What is the profit percentage of milkman
textbook. What is the amount of money (in `) paid by him?
if he sells it at cost price :
(a) 450 (b) 350
(a) 11.11% (b) 20%
(c) 225 (d) 375
(c) 21% (d) 12.1%
67 At kul-kul petrol pump the operator gives 5% less petrol
59 A person sold an electronic watch at ` 96 in such a way that
but he sells it at the cost price. What is his profit in this
his percentage profit is same as the cost price of the watch.
way?
If he sells it at twice the percentage profit of its previous
(a) 5% (b) 5.6%
percentage profit, then the new selling price will be :
(c) 5.26% (d) 4.78%
(a) ` 132 (b) ` 150
(c) ` 192 (d) ` 180 68 Due to reduction of 25% in price of oranges a customer can
purchase 4 oranges more for ` 16. What is original price of
60 A trader mixes 25% kerosene to his petrol and then he sells
the whole mixture at the price of petrol. If the cost price of an orange?
kerosene be 50% of the cost price of petrol, what is the net (a) Re 1 (b) ` 1.33
profit percentage? (c) ` 1.5 (d) ` 1.6
1 1 1 69 A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a
(a) 11 % (b) 12 % (c) 9 % (d) 20%
9 9 11 housewife to purchase 6 kg more for ` 240. What is the
61 A retailer cheats both to his whole-seller and his customer original price per kg of sugar?
by 10% by his faulty balance i.e., he actually weighs 10% (a) ` 10 per kg (b) ` 8 per kg
more while purchasing from wholesaler and weighs 10% (c) ` 6 per kg (d) ` 5 per kg
less while selling to his customer. What is his net profit 70 A wholesaler sells toys at a profit of 20% to a retailer and
percentage, when he sells at CP? retailer sells these toys to its customer at a profit of 25%.
2 2
(a) 22 % (b) 22 % What is the profit percentage of the retailer?
11 9 (a) 5% (b) 80%
(c) 20% (d) 21% (c) 20% (d) 25%
LEVEL 02 > HIGHER LEVEL EXERCISE
1 An automobile agency launched a scheme that if a 8 In an office the number of employees reduces in the ratio of
customer purchases two Jabaaj Discover bikes, one extra 3 : 2 and the wages increases in the ratio of 20 : 27. What is
Jabaaj Discover will be free and if he purchases 3 Jabaaj the profit percentage of employees over the previous
Pulser he will get one extra Jabaaj Pulser free. If the cost wages?
price of 3 Jabaaj Discover and 4 Jabaaj Pulser be ` 67500 (a) 10% (b) 9.09%
and ` 232500 respectively. If a customer purchases 2 bikes (c) 11.11% (d) none of these
of Jabaaj Discover and 3 bikes of Jabaaj Pulser as per
9 I asked the shopkeeper the price of a wrist watch. I found
scheme he availed 1 bike free of each category, then at
that I had just the required sum of money. When the
what price these bikes should be sold so, that the agency
shopkeeper allowed me a discount of 25%, I could bought
can get overall profit of 17.5% :
another watch worth ` 940 for my younger sister. What is
(a) 235250 (b) 352500 (c) 368000 (d) 268000
the price which I have paid for my own watch?
2 Rahul went to purchase a Nokia mobile handset, the (a) ` 2700 (b) ` 1800
shopkeeper told him to pay 20% tax if he asked the bill. Rahul (c) ` 2820 (d) ` 3760
manages to get the discount of 5% on the actual saleprice of
10 A and B are two partners and they have invested ` 54,000
the mobile and he paid the shopkeeper ` 3325 without tax.
and ` 90,000 in a business. After one year A received
Besides he manages to avoid to pay 20% tax on the already
` 1800 as his share of profit out of total profit of ` 3600
discounted price, what is the amount of discount that he has
including his certain commission on total profit, since he is
got?
a working partner and rest profit is received by B. What is
(a) 750 (b) 375 (c) 875 (d) 525
the commission of A as a percentage of the total profit?
3 When a bicycle manufacturer reduced its selling price by (a) 20% (b) 10%
50%, the number of bicycles sold radically increased by (c) 5% (d) 25%
600%. Initially the manufacturer was getting only 140%
profit. What is the percentage increase of his profit? 11 A trader sells goods to a customer at a profit of k% over the
(a) 10% (b) 14% cost price, besides it he cheats his customer by giving 880 g
(c) 0% (d) can’t be determined only instead of 1 kg. Thus, his overall profit percentage is
25%. Find the value of k?
4 A trader marks his goods such that he can make 32% profit (a) 8.33% (b) 8.25%
after giving 12% discount. However a customer availed (c) 10% (d) 12.5%
20% discount instead of 12%. What is the new profit
percentage of trader? 12 A trader sells two brands of petrol; one is Extra Premium
(a) 20% (b) 44% (c) 30% (d) 28.8% (EP) and other one is ‘Speed’ (SP). He mixes 12 litres of EP
with 3 litres of speed and by selling this mixture at the price
5 A retailer bought 3850 Linc pens and 1848 Cello pens at of EP he gets the profit of 9.09%. If the price of Extra
the same price. He sells Linc pens in such a way that he can Premium be ` 48 per litre, then the price of Speed (SP) is :
buy 650 Linc pens with the sale price of 481 Linc pens. (a) ` 38 per litre
Again he can buy only 408 Cello pens with the sale price of (b) ` 42 per litre
629 pens. What is the overall percentage of profit of the (c) ` 28 per litre
retailer? (d) none of these
(a) 4.8% (b) 9.6%
13 A, B and C invest in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. The percentage of
(c) 13% (d) none of these
return on their investments are in the ratio of 6 : 5 : 4. Find
6 The ratio of selling price of 3 articles A, B and C is 8 : 9 : 5 the total earnings, if B earns ` 250 more than A :
and the ratio of percentage profit is 8 : 7 : 14 respectively. If (a) ` 6000 (b) ` 7250
the profit percentage of A is 14.28% and the cost price of B (c) ` 5000 (d) none of these
is ` 400, what is the overall percentage gain?
14 Ajay bought a motor cycle for ` 50,000. 2 years later he sold
(a) 14.28% (b) 14.87%
it to Bijoy at 10% less of the cost price. Bijoy spend 5% of
(c) 16.66% (d) none of these
the purchasing price on its maintenance. Later Bijoy
7 Anna sold his car to Boney at a profit of 20% and Boney displayed the sale price of his motorcycle ` 50,000. Chetan
sold it to Chakori at a profit of 10%. Chakori sold it to wanted to purchase it at 15% discount but Bijoy gave him
mechanic at a loss of 9.09%. Mechanic spent 10% of his two successive discounts of 10% and 5% instead of 15% in
purchasing price and then sold it at a profit of 8.33% to one time. What is the actual discount availed by Chetan?
Anna once again. What is the loss of Anna? (a) 15% (b) 15.5%
(a) 23% (b) 29% (c) 50% (d) 40% (c) 14.5% (d) none of these
332 QUANTUM CAT
15 Kamal bought a house in Sushant city, whose sale price was 22 DSNL charges a fixed rental of ` 350 per month. It allows
` 8 lakh. He availed 20% discount as an early bird offer and 200 calls free per month. Each call is charged at ` 1.4 when
then 10% discount due to cash payment. After that he the number of calls exceeds 200 per month and it charges
spent 10% of the cost price in interior decoration and lawn ` 1.6 when the number of calls exceeds 400 per month and
of the house. At what price should he sell the house to earn so on. A customer made 150 calls in February and 250 calls
a profit of 25%? in March. By how much per cent the each call is cheaper in
(a) ` 9 lakh (b) ` 7.99 lakh March than each call in February?
(c) ` 7.92 lakh (d) none of these (a) 28%
16 I wanted to purchase 10 chairs for the class room whose (b) 25%
cost was ` 200 each. The trader offered me a discount if I (c) 18.5%
were to purchase a set of 12 chai` So, I calculated that if I (d) None of the above
assume the normal price of 10 chairs, then we can purchase
23 In the Bargain Bazar everyone purchases with a fair
2 extra chairs which cost me only ` 80 each of two chairs at
bargaining, so the traders markup the prices too much. A
the cost price of 12 chairs after discount. What is the
trader marked up an article at ` M expected huge profit if it
percentage discount?
is sold on the marked price. But a customer purchased it at
(a) 6% (b) 8% (c) 12% (d) 10%
M/2 with his fine bargaining skills, so the expected profit of
17 The cost of servicing of a Maruti car at Maruti care Pvt. Ltd. the trader diminished by 66.66%. What is the percentage
is ` 400. Manager of service centre told me that for the discount fetched by the customer through bargaining?
second service within a year a customer can avail a 10% (a) 33.33% (b) 50%
discount and further for third and fourth servicing he can (c) 66.66% (d) none of these
avail 10% discount of the previous amount paid, within a
year. Further if a customer gets more than 4 services within 24 Tika Chand has a weighing balance in which there is a
a year he has to pay just 60% of the servicing charges on technical fault. The right pan of his balance measures
these services. A customer availed 5 services from the same always 200 g more than its left pan. Tika Chand as usual
servicing station, what is the total percentage discount misutilise this balance in his business. While purchasing
fetched by the customer? the articles he puts goods in the left pan and weight in the
(a) 19.42% (b) 18.5% (c) 17.6% (d) 26% right pan while selling he reverse the order i.e., goods in
the right pan and weight in the left pan. He uses only 2 kg
18 The cost price of an article is C and the selling price of the weight for the measurement and to measure 2n kg weight
same article is S, where Z is the profit or loss percentage. If
he measures n times by 2-2 kg but he sells goods at cost
the cost price and selling price both are increased by same
price. What is his profit percentage?
amount, then which of the following is true : 2
(a) Z increases (b) Z decreases (a) 20% (b) 22 %
9
(c) remains constant (d) none of these 2
(c) 18 % (d) none of these
19 Cost price of 12 oranges is equal to the selling price of 11
9 oranges and the discount on 10 oranges is equal to the 25 Akram Miya has two types of grapes. One is the fresh
profit on 5 oranges. What is the percentage point difference
grapes containing 80% water and dry grapes containing
between the profit percentage and discount percentage?
25% water. He sells 20 kg dry grapes, by adding water to
(a) 20 (b) 22.22 (c) 16.66 (d) 15
the dry grapes, at cost price. What is the total profit
20 A car mechanic purchased four old cars for ` 1 lakh. He percentage when after adding water the weight of 20 kg
spent total 2 lakh in the maintenance and repairing of these dry grapes increased in the proportion of water in fresh
four cars. What is the average sale price of the rest three grapes?
cars to get 50% total profit if he has already sold one of the (a) 275% (b) 200%
four cars at ` 1.2 lakh? (c) 80% (d) 125%
(a) 1.5 lakh (b) 1.1 lakh (c) 1.2 lakh (d) 1.65 lakh
26 Pankaj and Sushil invested some amount of money in the
21 The cost of setting up a magazine is ` 2800. The cost of ratio of 3 : 5 for the same period in a business. They decided
paper and ink etc is ` 80 per 100 copies and printing cost is that at the end of year 20% profit was to be given to AIDS
` 160 per 100 copies. In the last month 2000 copies were Control Society of India as a donation. Out of the
printed but only 1500 copies could be sold at ` 5 each. remaining, 75% was to be reinvested and the rest of the
Total 25% profit on the sale price was realized. There is one profit was to be divided as interest on their capitals. If the
more resource of income from the magazine which is difference in their shares is ` 1200. Find the total profit?
advertising. What sum of money was obtained from the (a) ` 18000 (b) ` 24000
advertising in magazine?
(c) ` 20000 (d) none of these
(a) ` 1750 (b) ` 2350 (c) ` 1150 (d) ` 1975
Profit, Loss and Discount 333

27 Jagran group launched a new magazine in January 2004. 33 Pratibha printers prepares diaries expecting to earn a profit
The group printed 10000 copies initially for ` 50000. It of 40% by selling on the marked price. But during
distributed 20% of its stock freely as specimen copy and transportation 8% diaries were got spoiled due to at
25% of the rest magazines are sold at 25% discount and random rain and 32% could be sold only at 75% of the cost
rest at 16.66% discount whose printing price was ` 12 per price. Thus, the remaining 60% diaries could be sold at the
copy. What is the overall gain or loss in the first month’s expected price. What is the net profit or loss in the whole
issue of magazine, if the magazine could not realize the consignment?
income from advertisements or other resources? (a) 6% (b) 10%
(a) 56% profit (c) 8% (d) can’t be determined
(b) 27% loss
34 Radhey Lal markup the prices of sweets by 40% and he sold
(c) 16.66% profit
only 40% of those at this price. He sells half of the rest at
(d) 38% profit 2
14 % discount and rest at 25% discount. What is the net
28 Teenagers shoe company sells the shoes whose prices i.e., 7
cost prices and selling prices are the multiples of either profit of Radhey Lal?
13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18 or 19, starting from ` 399 to ` 699 (a) 26.5% (b) 23.5%
(i.e., 399 ≤ CP/SP ≤ 699). What can be the maximum profit (c) 30% (d) 28.6%
of the company? 35 The price of an article reduces to 576 after two successive
(a) ` 292 (b) ` 398 discounts. The markup is 80% above the cost price of ` 500.
(c) ` 298 (d) ` 300 What is the new profit percentage if instead of two
29 Jhun Jhunwala makes 1000 toys and incurs a cost of ` 1.2 successive discounts the markup price was further
for each toy. He marks-up the price in such a way that if he increased successively two times by the same percentage?
sells only 70% of the manufactured toys he will realize (a) 259.2% (b) 59.2%
16.66% overall profit. He sells only 750 articles at the (c) 159.2% (d) can’t be determined
marked price, since rest of the toys are found to be 36 A trader marks-up his goods by 80% and gives discount of
defective, so can’t be sold. What is the net profit or loss of 25%. Besides it he weighs 10% less amount while selling
Jhun Jhunwala? his goods. What is the net profit of trader?
(a) 14.44% loss (b) 25% profit (a) 50% (b) 35%
(c) 33.33% profit (d) none of these (c) 45% (d) 55%
30 Anupam sells a painting to Bhargava at 4/5th the rate of 37 A dishonest trader marks up his goods by 80% and gives
profit at which Bhargava sells it to Chaudhary. Further discount of 25%. Besides he gets 20% more amount per kg
Chaudhary sells it to Dara Singh at half the rate of profit at from wholesaler and sells 10% less per kg to customer.
which Anupam sold it to Bhargava. If Chaudhary earns a What is the overall profit percentage?
profit of 10% by selling it to Dara Singh for ` 2805. What is (a) 80% (b) 60%
the cost price of painting for Bhargava? (c) 70% (d) none of these
(a) 1896 (b) 2040
(c) 1680 (d) 2000 38 A dishonest dealer purchases goods at 20% discount of the
cost price of Rs x and also cheats his wholesaler by getting
31 A dishonest retailer cheats his wholesaler and customer 20% extra through false weighing, per kg. Then, he marks
both. He purchases 19% more from the wholesaler and up his goods by 80% of x, but he gives a discount of 25%
sells 15% less while selling to its customer. What is profit besides he cheats his customer by weighing 10% less than
percentage by selling the goods at cost price? the required. What is his overall profit percentage?
(a) 36.78% (b) 34% (a) 125% (b) 100%
(c) 40% (d) 36.85% (c) 98.66% (d) 120%
32 Rotomac produces very fine quality of writing pens. 39 Anjali, Bhoomika and Chawla went to market to purchase
Company knows that on an average 10% of the produced the rings whose costs were same. But each ring was
pens are always defective, so are rejected before packing. available with two successive discounts. Anjali availed two
Company promises to deliver 7200 pens to its wholesaler at successive discounts of 5% and 20%. Bhoomika availed
` 10 each. It estimates the overall profit on all the two successive discounts 10% and 15% while Chawla
manufactured pens to be 25%. What is the manufacturing availed two successive discounts of 12% and 13%. Who
cost of each pen? gets the maximum possible discount?
(a) ` 6 (b) ` 7.2 (a) Anjali (b) Bhoomika
(c) ` 5.6 (d) ` 8 (c) Chawla (d) all of these
334 QUANTUM CAT
40 An egg seller sells his eggs only in the packs of 3 eggs, 6 eggs, 43 A milkman purchases 10 litres of milk at ` 7 per litre and
9 eggs, 12 eggs etc., but the rate is not necessarily uniform. forms a mixture by adding freely available water which
One day Raju (which is not the same egg seller) purchased constitutes 16.66% of the mixture. Later on he replaced the
at the rate of 3 eggs for a rupee and the next hour he mixture by some freely available water and thus the ratio of
purchased equal number of eggs at the rate of 6 eggs for a milk is to water is 2 : 1. He then sold the new mixture at cost
rupee. Next day he sold all the eggs at the rate of 9 eggs for ` price of milk and replaced amount of mixture at twice the
2. What is his percentage profit or loss? cost of milk, then what is the profit percentage?
(a) 10% loss (b) 11.11% loss (a) 68%
(c) 3% loss (d) 2.5% profit (b) 34%
(c) 40%
41 Virendra and Gurindra purchased one camera each at the same
(d) none of the above
prices. Later on Amrendra purchased both cameras at equal prices
from Virendra and Gurindra. But the profit percentage of Virendra 44 Profit on selling 10 candles equals selling price of 3 bulbs.
was P while the same of Gurindra was Q , since Gurindra While loss on selling 10 bulbs equals selling price of
2 4 candles. Also profit percentage equals to the loss
calculated his profit on the selling price. Thus Q = 41 % of P . If
3 percentage and cost of a candle is half of the cost of a bulb.
Amrendra sells one of the camera to Dholakiya at P % profit, then What is the ratio of selling price of candle to the selling
what is the cost price for Dholakiya, while Amrendra purchased price of a bulb?
each of the camera at ` 240?
(a) 5 : 4 (b) 3 : 2
(a) ` 676 (b) ` 500 (c) ` 576 (d) none (c) 4 : 5 (d) 3 : 4
42 A merchant earns 25% profit in general. Once his 25% 45 Cost price of two motorcycles is same. One is sold at a
consignment was abducted forever by some goondas. Trying profit of 15% and the other for ` 4800 more than the first.
to compensate his loss he sold the rest amount by increasing If the net profit is 20%. Find the cost price of each
his selling price by 20%. What is the new percentage profit motorcycle :
or loss?
(a) ` 48000 (b) ` 52000
(a) 10% loss (b) 12.5% loss
(c) ` 36000 (d) ` 42500
(c) 12.5% profit (d) 11.11% loss

Answers
Introductory Exercise 6.1
1 5
1 ` 180 and ` 225 2 ` 9000 3 ` 345 4 ` 153 per hundred 5 ` 15300, ` 17850, gain = %
3 11
Introductory Exercise 6.2
1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (c) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (c)

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise

1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (c)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (d) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (b) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (a)
21 (d) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (d) 30 (a)
31 (b) 32 (b) 33 (a) 34 (a) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37 (c) 38 (c) 39 (c) 40 (b)
41 (c) 42 (b) 43 (a) 44 (c) 45 (b) 46 (b) 47 (c) 48 (c) 49 (b) 50 (d)
51 (b) 52 (a) 53 (c) 54 (b) 55 (a) 56 (c) 57 (c) 58 (c) 59 (a) 60 (a)
61 (b) 62 (c) 63 (b) 64 (c) 65 (a) 66 (b) 67 (c) 68 (b) 69 (a) 70 (d)

Level 02 Higher Level Exercise

1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (a)
11 (c) 12 (c) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (b) 20 (b)
21 (d) 22 (a) 23 (b) 24 (b) 25 (a) 26 (b) 27 (a) 28 (c) 29 (b) 30 (b)
31 (c) 32 (b) 33 (c) 34 (b) 35 (c) 36 (a) 37 (a) 38 (a) 39 (a) 40 (b)
41 (c) 42 (c) 43 (a) 44 (b) 45 (a)
 Hints & Solutions
Level 01 Basic Level Exercise
1 Abhishek Bhanu Alternatively 1.75x = 0.7 y
2800 2400 + 640 = 3040 x 2
Discount ⇒ =
The difference in selling price is same as difference in y 5
discount which is ` 240 = (3040 − 2800) Again 2 × 1.75 = 3.5
2 Q 10 % of x = 15% of y, where x + y = 30000 and  5 × 0.7 = 3.5
 
⇒
x 3k
= Total cost price = 2 + 5 = ` 7
y 2k Total selling price = 3.5+ 3.5 = ` 7
Hence, the difference = k = 6000 Hence, no loss no gain.
3 Let the cost price of 1 litre pure milk be ` 1, then 7 CP SP MP
6 litres (milk) → CP = ` 6 Initially : 100 140 × (since, profit = 40%)
  → CP = ` 6 only.
 2 litres (water) → CP = ` 0 New prices : 100 112 140
and 8 litre mixture → SP → 8 × 2 = ` 16
16 − 6 1000
Profit = × 100 = = 166.66% profit discount
6 6
= 12% = 20%
4 SP of 60%goods = 0.6 x × 0.95 = 0.57 x 
 Total SP = 1.01 x CP 2
=
SP of 40%goods = 0.4 x × 1.1 = 0.44 x  8
SP 3
Profit = 0.01 x = 100 1
∴ profit (%) = × 100 = 50%
⇒ x = 10000 2
Alternatively From option (c) 100
Alternatively CP = = 5.55 paise
10000 18
100
6000 4000 SP = = 8.33 paise
12
↓ ↓
8.33 – 5.55
loss = 300 gain = 400 Profit = × 100 = 50%
net gain = 400 − 300 = ` 100, 5.55
Hence, option (c) is correct. 9 CP SP MP
5 Let the MP of 1 kg tea be ` 1, then CP of 20 kg with discount 100 120 150
= 20 × 0.9 = ` 18 20% profit 20% discount

Also 1 kg tea is free. So, the retailer gets tea worth ` 21 by But it can be directly solved as SP = 1.2 CP = ` 2304
paying ` 18 only. NOTE There is no role of discount.
goods left
Profit % = × 100 10 NOTE There is no role of cost price of article (` 123684)
goods sold (Consider) CP → 100
21 − 18
= × 100 = 16.66%
18 60 40
(Since, the retailer earns ` 3 on each ` 18) 16.66% of profit + 10 –24 60% loss
6 Let the CP of profit yielding article be ` 100, then 70 16
250 CP 

↓  30% loss SP
 (100 –14) = 86
 SP 175 ↔ 175 SP 
 Since, the overall % loss = 14%.
75% profit  ↑
 CP 100 Thus, option (c) is correct.
 Alternatively 0.6 x + k × 0.4 x = 0.86 x
Total CP = 350, Total SP = 350 ⇒ 0.4kx = 0.16 x ⇒ k = 0.4
So, there is no profit no gain. Therefore, loss = 1 − 0.4 = 0.6 i.e., 60%
336 QUANTUM CAT
11 Go through options  x 
= (100 + x ) 1 − 
CP SP MP  100
(100 + x ) 2
100 100 300 Now, =
 x  1
2 (100 + x ) 1 − 
–66 %  100
3
 x  1
⇒ 1 −  = ⇒ x = 50%
+200%  100 2
NOTE When there is no loss, CP = SP. This can be observed in the solution of the previous
Alternatively CP = SP MP problem.
15 Go through option
100 2/1 180 × 12 × 1.2 + 180 × 8 × 1.1 = 180 [14.4 + 8.8]
K = 100
+ 200 = 300 = 180 (23.2) = 4176
2/3 and 180 × 20 × 1.15 = 4140
From percentage change graphic : Therefore, loss = 4176 − 4140 = 36
Decrease Increase Hence, option (c) is correct.
2 2 2 Gain = 30000
↓ = ↑ 16
3 3− 2 1
loss = 20000
= 66.66% = 200% Net gain = 10000 over ` 4 lakh
So, when CP = 100, markup % = 200, MP = 300 10000
2 Hence, profit = × 100 = 2.5%
Discount = 66 % = 200, SP = 100 = CP 400000
3
1 17 Let the MP = ` 1 per kg, then
Alternatively (CP = SP) = MP
3 Weight MP Rate
⇒ (CP = SP) : MP = 1 : 3 100 100 1
12 CP : MP = 2x : 3x 80
96 80
{
96
⇒ Profit = x SP
(%) profit : (%) discount = 3 : 2 80 16
Effective discount = 1 − =
Let CP = 200, SP = 300 96 96
3x 2x 16
But × 200 + × 300 = 100 % discount = × 100 = 16.66%
100 100 96
⇒ x = 8.33% 18 CP of A + B + C = 2x × y + 5x × 2y + 2x × 4 y = 20 xy
Discount 2x = 16.66% Profit of A = 0.2 x y
13 It is dependent upon the markup (%) or discount (%) Profit of B = 2 x y
Since, +20% Profit of C = 2 x y
100 120
Total profit = 4.2 x y
96 4.2xy
Profit % = × 100 = 21%
–20% 20 xy
loss = 4% 19 Initially CP Profit SP MP
Again, 50% 100 x (100 + x ) 133.33
100 150 7
After change 100 2x (100 + x )
75 6
50% 7
Now, since (100 + x ) − 100 = 2x
loss = 25% 6
Hence, we can’t determine. ⇒ x = 20%
14 CP → Profit (%) → MP CP Profit SP MP
100 x 100 20 120 133.33
100 → x% → 100 + = (100 + x )
100 So, 300 60 360 400
Again, MP → discount → SP Again, 300 120 420
x So, the increased selling price = ` 420
(100 + x )→ x% → (100 + x ) − (100 + x )
100
Profit, Loss and Discount 337

20 From percentage change graphic 9900

29 The CP of profitable cow = = 9000
3/10↓ 1.1
30% and profit = ` 900
(CP) 70 ←→ 100 (SP) 9900
The CP of loss yielding cow = = 12375
3 =3 0.8
10 – 3 7
and loss = ` 2475
42 6 % So, the net loss = 2475 − 900 = 1575
7
3 30 The best way is to go through option. Consider option (a)
Decrease = ↓ = 30% 15000
10
 2  1
Increase =
3 3 6
= ↑ = 42 %    
 3  3
(10 − 3) 7 7
10000 5000
21 Let the price be x, then
(5% profit) ↓ ↓ 2% loss
x × 0.8 × 0.9 = 468
500 100
⇒ x = 650, therefore marked price = ` 650 Net gain = ` 400 (= 500 − 100)
Alternatively 650 × 0.8 × 0.2 = 468 Hence, option (a) is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.  2x x 
22 CP SP Alternatively
1.05 × 3 + 0.98 × 3 − x  = 400
20%  
Profit ⇒ x = 15000
A→ 160 192 goods left 50 1
31 Profit (%) = × 100 = × 100 = 11 %
goods sold 450 9
Β→ 192 240
25% Alternatively Suppose CP of 1 g is ` 1, then he sells
goods worth ` 450 only and charges ` 500. So, the profit is
Profit ` 50 over the sale price of ` 450.
23 Reduced price = 100 × 0.95 × 0.90 × 0.80 = 68.40 32 Go through options. Consider option (b)
∴ Single discount = (100 − 68.4)% = 31.6% 200 × 3.25 − 200 × 3 = ` 50
24 CP =
10
, SP =
12 = (30 + 20)
12 10 Hence, option (b) is correct.
12 10
− Alternatively ` 0.25 is the difference on 1 banana
Profit (%) = 10 12 × 100 = 44% 1
10 ∴ ` 1 is the difference on = 4 bananas
0.25
12
∴ ` 50 is the difference on 4 × 50 = 200 bananas
25 Let the cost price of one gram be ` 1, then the markup price
be ` 1.2 per g. Now, he sells 1000 g which seems to be 1250 33 By percentage change (or fraction change) graphic
g so he charges to a customer 1250 × 1.2= ` 1500 for 1000 increase decrease
g (or ` 1000) 3 3
30% = ↑ ↓ [since, product i.e., price is constant]
1500 − 1000 10 13
Thus, his profit % = × 100 = 50%
1000 3
It means now, times less eggs are available which is
26 Let the CP be ` x, then SP be 0.96x 13
∴ 0.96x = 240 ⇒ x = 250 equal to 3 eggs.
3x
Now, the new SP = 250 × 1.1 = 275 i.e., =3
13
27 CP SP MP
⇒ x = 13 eggs (initially)
x 112.5x = 225 300
Now, available eggs on the same price = 13 − 3 = 10
(−25%) 910
Thus, the new price = = 91 paise
∴ x = 200, hence the cost price be ` 200. 10
NOTE It can also be solved by using option. Alternatively Go through options.
First of all find the SP by decreasing MP by 25%, then this SP New or changed No. of eggs Rate = total prices
will be equal to 112.5% (12.5% is the profit) of the cost price, 10 × 91 = 910 paise
so the CP can be find as given above. +3 (+30%)
Initial → 13 × 70 = 910 paise
( − 10%) ( − 5%)
28 CP  → (SP)1  
→ (SP) 2 Therefore, option (a) is correct.
200 180 171
338 QUANTUM CAT
100 43 CP + 4k = SP1 (gives profit)
34 SP = paise
12 CP − 3k = SP2 (gives loss)
100
CP = x, SP = 0.8 x = Since, loss (3k ) is 25% less than profit (4k )
12
100 ∴ SP1 − SP2 = 7 k = 836 − 703 = 133 ⇒ k = 19
⇒ x= paise ∴ CP = SP1 − 4k = SP2 + 3k = 760
9.6
100 Therefore, required SP = 760 × 1.2 = 912
Therefore, CP = paise
9. 6 44 You can go through options.
Thus, the new SP (with 20% profit) 100
CP = = 16.66 paise
100 100 6
= × 1.2 = paise
9.6 8 100
SP = = 20 paise
Hence, 8 apples can be purchased for ` 1 to gain 20%. 5
− 10% − 20% + 10% 20 − 16.66 3.33
Profit (%) = × 100 = × 100
35 10000 → 9000 → 7200 → 7920 16.66 16.66
+ 10% 1
→ 8712 = × 100 = 20%
5
36 1425 − 1353 = 72 = 6% of CP Hence, option (c) is correct.
⇒ CP = 1200 100 100 100
405 Alternatively CP = , SP = × 1.2 =
37 CP = = 450 6 6 5
0.9
Hence, he should sell 5 toffees for ` 1 (= 100 paise)
New SP = ` 465
465 − 450 45 CP MP
Profit (%) = × 100 = 3. 33%
450 800 = 0.8 x x
 1125 
38 ((x × 1.1) × 1.1) × = 990 ⇒ x = 800
 1100  20% discount
Alternatively Go through options or by the reverse ⇒ x = ` 1000 = MP
process. SP at Hazratganz = ` 800
39 Best way is to go through option SP at Bhootnath = 1000 × 0.85 = 850
Alternatively P × 0.9 × 0.75 = C × 0.85 × 0.80
P 136 So, she requires ` 50 more to purchase the same calculator
⇒ = at Bhootnath.
C 135
40 Let the CP be x, then 46 Let the CP be ` 1 per g
0.04x = 54 = (1080 − 1026) But he weighs 900 g for every 1000 g
54 ∴ Value of goods sold = 900
⇒ x= = 1350 (CP)
0.04
Now, let the markup be x%
CP = 1350
1000 x
SP = 1350 × 1.04 = 1404 ∴ MP = 1000 + = (1000 + 10 x )
100
41 SP − CP = 175 = 14% of CP
But, since MP = SP, ∴ SP = (1000 + 10 x )
⇒ CP = 1250
(1000 + 10 x ) − 900
∴ SP = 1250 + 175 = 1425 Hence, profit (%)= × 100 = 20 ⇒x = 8
900
42 CP = 100, then
Thus, the markup = 8%.
Tag price = 80
2 2
SP, after discount = 75  common gain or loss  20
47 Loss % =   % =   % = 4%
Total loss = 25  10   10 
Q ` 25 are being less at CP of ` 100
48 Since, loss = 4%
100
∴ ` 37.5 are being less at CP of ` × 37. 5 = 150
25 Now, assume total CP of both articles be x, then
Hence, SP = 150 − 37.5 = 112.5 400
SP = 0.96 x = 400 ⇒ x = = CP
Alternatively 112.5+ 37.5 = 150 =CP 0.96
Again, 150 × 0.8 × .9375 = 112.5 =SP ∴ loss = 4% of CP
Hence, option (b) is correct. 4 400
× = ` 16.66
100 0.96
Profit, Loss and Discount 339

CP 29 x 61 Amount purchased = 1100 g

49 =
SP 19 x Amount sold = 900 g
29 x − 19 x 200 2
Profit % = × 100 = 22 %
Loss % = × 100 = 34.48% 900 9
29 x
62 If CP be ` 1 per g, then he pays ` 1200 for 1000 g
(To understand the concept assume CP of each
Again, he obtains ` 1200 for 1000 g (by selling at 20%
article ` 29 and SP of each article = ` 19) profit). Thus, there is no loss no gain.
CP 13 23 − 13 10
50 = . Profit (%) = × 100 = × 100 = 76.92% 63 CP SP
SP 23 13 13
240 280
CP 28 14
51 = =
SP 34 17
 2 
52 MP = ` 1.2, if CP = ` 1  − 14 %
 7 
But he gives the cloth worth ` 0.8 instead of ` 1. 40
1.2 − 0.8 0.4 Actual profit (%) = × 100 = 16.66%
Therefore, profit % = = × 100 = 50% 240
0.8 0.8
NOTE Here you can apply base change concept.
 3200
53 CP = ` 80 =   increase decrease
 40  2
16.66% 14 %
Now, SP of 40 books = CP of 40 books + SP of 8 books 7
⇒ SP of 32 books = 3200 1
↑ ← ↓
1
⇒ SP of 1 book = ` 100 6 7

∴ Required SP of 1 dozen books = ` 1200 80%

64 Go through options : 100 → 180
20 180
54 Profit of A = 1800 × = ` 360 New SP = = 60
100 3
1800
CP of B = = 1500 Percentage loss = 40% (100 − 60)
1.2
Hence, (c) is correct choice.
∴ Profit of B = ` 300 = (1800 − 1500)
65 CP Profit SP
∴ Difference in profit of A and B = ` 60
100 20 120
1818 +25%
55 CP of A = = 2020 x 25 150
0.9
1818 x × 1.25 =150 ⇒ x = 120
CP of B = = 1800
1.01 120 − 100
% change = × 100 = 20%
CP of A 2020 101 100
= =
CP of B 1800 90 66 6.66% of MP = 25 ⇒ MP = 375
56 103.33 CP − 0.95 CP = 65 ⇒ CP = ` 780 ∴ SP = MP − 25 = 350
936 − 780 5
Profit (%) = × 100 = 20% 67 Profit % = × 100 = 5.26%
780 95
57 Best way is to assume some proper values, then verify it. 68 Recall it is based on inverse proportion or product
58 Let us assume initially he has 100 l of milk constancy concept.
So, after 10% of water addition new amount of Reduction in price increase in amount
mixture = 110 l  1  1
25%   ↓ ↑   33.33% = 4 oranges
Again adding 10% more, then the final amount of  4  3
mixture = 121 l It means original number of oranges = 4 × 3 = 12
21 16
Profit % = × 100 = 21% ∴ Original price of oranges = = ` 1.33
100 12
x×x
59 SP = x + = 96% ⇒ x = 60 69 Reduction in price increase in amount
100
 60 × 120  1 1
New, SP = 60 +   = ` 132 20%   ↓ ↑ (25%) = 6 kg
 100   5 4

60 K → 1 litre, price of K → 1 P → 4 litre, price of P → 2 It means original amount of sugar needed = 6 × 4 = 24 kg

240
Price of total (new) mixture =1 ×1 + 4 × 2= ` 9 ∴ Original price of the sugar = = ` 10 per kg.
Price of pure petrol of same quantity = 5 × 2 = ` 10 24
1 1 70 Just a sitter. Don’t be bogged down. Its simple i.e., 25%,
Percentage profit = × 100 = 11 %
9 9 nothing else, which is very obvious.
340 QUANTUM CAT
Level 02 Higher Level Exercise
1 Just a sitter, but a logical problem. A B C
CP of 7 bikes = 67500 + 232500 = 300000 8 : 7 : 14 (given)
Now, since we require 17.5% profit, so SP ↓ ↓ ↓
117.5 1 1 1
= 300000 × = ` 352500
100 7 8 4
2 CP = 100, SP (with tax) = 120 Thus, the ratio of CP of A : B : C
New SP = 100 − 5 = 95 7:8 : 4
∴ Effective discount = 120 − 95 = 25 (8 + 9 + 5) − (7 + 8 + 4)
Therefore, % profit = × 100
So, at SP of 95 → discount = 25 (7 + 8 + 4)
25 3
and at SP of 3325 → discount = × 3325 = 875 = × 100 = 15.78%
95 19
3 Let the CP of a bicycle = ` 100 7 A B C M
Now, since profit 140% CP → 100 120 132 (120 + 12) = 132
∴ SP = 240 SP → 120 132 120 143
Now, 7 bicycles are being sold instead if 1 bicycle, but the CP → 143
sale price of new bicycle = ` 120
Loss of A = 143 − 120 = 23
Therefore, total sale price of new sale of bicycles 23
= 7 × 120 = 840 % loss of A = × 100 = 23%
100
and the CP = 7 × 100 = 700
8 Total wages = no. of employees × wage per employee
So, the new profit = 840 − 700 = ` 140
60 xy = 3x × 20 y
Since, the initial profit is same as the new, so there is no
54 xy = 2x × 27 y
increase in percentage.
60 − 54
Profit (%) = × 100 = 10%
4 CP SP 12 MP 60
32% 88
100 132 150 from percentage 9 If I had ` 100. Discount = 25 = cost of my sister’s watch
change graphic then cost of my own watch = 75. Thus, the ratio of cost of
–12%= 12 my own watch to that of my sister’s watch = 3 : 1
100
10 Ratio of profit of A : B (excluding commission of A)
NOTE In this case first of all find the SP, after adding profit
percentage to CP, then find the MP through SP. = 3: 5 (Q 54 : 90 = 3 : 5)
Now, CP SP MP Now, the share of profit of B = 3600 − 1800 = ` 1800
+20%
So, the share of profit of A (excluding commission)
100 120 150
= ` 1080
–20%
So, the commission of A = 1800 − 1080 = 720
Here, first of all we subtract discount from the MP, then the 720
resultant value will be SP. Therefore, the required percentage = × 100 = 20%
3600
5 Linc pens Cello pens 25 120 + k (Profit)
CP : SP CP : SP 11 Profit % = = ⇒ k = 100
100 880 (Sale)
37 : 50 37 : 24
100
13 13 Therefore, net profit % = × 100 = 10%
Profit % = × 100 and Loss% = × 100 1000
37 37
12
Since, Profit = loss 12 SP = of CP
11
Hence, option (d) is correct. 12
6 A B C 48 = of CP ⇒ CP = 44
SP 11
8 : 9 : 5
1 1 1 1 1 1 Now, by alligation 48 k
7 8 8 9 4 5
7 8 4 44
1
Since, 14.28% = 12 3
7 4 : 1
So, the ratio of profit percentage of ∴ k = 28
Thus, the price of speed brand is ` 28/litre.
Profit, Loss and Discount 341

13 A B C Profit is double that of discount

Investment 3x 4x 5x So, the percentage point difference = 33.33% − 11.11%
Rate of return 6y% 5y % 4y%
18 xy 20 xy 20 xy = 22.22% point
Return 20 Total cost of 4 cars = 1 + 2 = 3 lakh
100 100 100
Total = (18 + 20 + 20) =
58 xy Total SP of 4 cars = 3 × 1.5 = 4.5 lakh
100 SP of 1 car = 1.2 lakh
2xy
B’s earnings − A’s earnings = = 250 SP of rest 3 cars = 4.5 − 1.2 = 3.3 lakh
100
58 xy Average SP of all the 3 cars = 1.1 lakh
Total earning = = 7250 21 Setup cost = ` 2800
100
Paper etc. = ` 1600
14 MP after first discount after second discount Printing cost = ` 3200
100 90 85.5 Total cost = ` 7600
So, the net discount = 100 − 85. 5 = 14.5% Total sale price = 1500 × 5 = 7500
Let the amount obtained from advertising is x, then
15 MP CP Total CP
(7500 + x ) − (7600) = 25% of 7500
100 → 80 → 72 → 79.2
x = 1975
− 20% − 10% + 10%
350 7
22 Charge of 1 call in February = =
SP = 125% of CP 150 3
SP = 1.25 × 79.2 350 + 50 × 1.4 420 42
Charge of 1 call in March = = =
250 250 25
SP = 99
7 42
So, initially marked price = 100 ⇒ 8, 00, 000 −
% cheapness of a call in March = 3 25 × 100 = 28%
Final sale price = 99 ⇒ 7, 92, 000 7
3
16 Price of 10 chairs = 10 × 200 = 2000
23 Let the CP be 100 and % markup be k%, then
Price of 12 chairs (without discount) = 12 × 200 = 2400 k%
Price of 12 chairs with discount 100 (100 + k) MP (also expected SP)
= 10 × 200 + 2 × 80 = 2160 MP = 100 + k
100 + k
Therefore, discount = 2400 − 2160 = 240 but actual SP =
2
240
Hence, discount % = × 100 = 10%  100 + k  
2400  
2  
∴  =
200
= (66.66%)
17 Amount paid in Ist service = 100 (suppose) k 3 × 100
Amount paid in IInd service = 90 ⇒ k = 300
Amount paid in IIIrd service = 81 Therefore, CP MP (initially)
Amount paid in IVth service = 72.9 100 400
400
Amount paid in Vth service = 60 Finally SP = = 200
2
Total amount paid 403.9 200
∴ Discount = × 100 = 50%
Discount = 500 − 403.9 = 96.1 400
96.1 Alternatively MP → M
Discount % = × 100 = 19.42%
500 M
SP →
18 Consider some proper values and then check out. 2
M /2
19 CP : SP Discount (%) = × 100 = 50%
3 : 4 M

Profit on 3 apples = ` 1 (consider CP = ` 1) 24 Let the CP and SP of 1 g = ` 1, then

He spends ` 2000 and purchase 2200 g
Profit = 33.33%
and he charges ` 2000 and sells 1800 g
and discount = 11.11%
goods left
Since, CP SP MP Profit (%) = × 100
goods sold
3 4 4.5
400 2
(1) (0.5) = × 100 = 22 %
1800 9
342 QUANTUM CAT
25 Fresh grapes 30 Chaudhary’s profit = 10%
Water Pulp Anupam’s profit = 20%
80% 20%
Bhargava’s profit = 25%
4 : 1 A 20% B 25% C D
i.e., 10%
Dry grapes 100 120 150 165
Water Pulp
Now, B D
25% 75%
120 165
1 : 3
17 times 17 times
5 kg 15 kg ] out of 20 kg dry grapes
2040 2805
80% 20% 
31 From the statements it is clear that he purchases 119 g
4 1  Required proportion
+ (55 kg ) instead of 100 g and he sells 85 g instead of 100 g.
60 kg 15 kg  of water and pulp
 Therefore, in this whole transaction he saves 19 + 15 = 34 g
Thus, to make dry grapes similar to the fresh grapes, Akram 34  Goods left 
Thus the profit = × 100 =  × 100 = 40%
requires 55 kg water with 20 kg of dry grapes. 85  Goods sold 
55
So, the profit (%) = × 100 = 275%
20 NOTE In this type of question always equate either
money or weight for simple solution.
26 Let the total profit be 100
Amount left after donation = 80 32 You must know that the company is able to deliver only
90% of the manufactured pens. So, let K be the
Amount left after reinvestment = 20
manufacturing price of a pen, then total income (including
5x 3x
Now, − = 1200 25% profit) = (8000 × K ) × 1.25 also this same income is
8 8 obtained by selling 90% manufactured pens at ` 10 which
Where, x is the amount left after reinvestment is equal to 7200 × 10. Thus, (8000 × K ) 1.25 = 7200 × 10
2x ⇒ K = ` 7.2
= 1200 ⇒ x = 4800 (90% of 8000 = 7200)
8
33 Let the number of diaries (produced) be 100 and the cost
Therefore, total profit = 4800 × 5 = 24000 price of a diary be ` 1, then
Alternatively Go through options. Total cost incurred = 100 × 1 = 100
27 Total cost = ` 50,000 Total sale price = 32 × 0.75 + 60 × 1.4 = 108
Total sale price (or revenue) Therefore profit = ` 8
= 2000 × 9 + 6000 × 10 = 78, 000 Thus, there is 8% profit
28000
Profit (%) = × 100 = 56% NOTE Marked price (i.e., expected) = 40% above the cost
50000
price.
28 The maximum possible profit
34 Let the number of sweets be 100 and the cost price of one
= maximum possible difference in SP and CP. piece of sweet = ` 1
It means SP be maximum and CP be minimum then total cost price = 100 × 1 = ` 100
CP( min) = ` 399, 19 m = 399 Total sale price = 40 × 1.4 + 30 × 1.2 + 30 × 1.05 = 123.5
where m is an integer. ∴ profit (%) = 23.5% = (123.5 − 100)
35 CP SP MP
Again, SP( max) = ` 697, which is very close to 699
500 576 900
Here, 697 = 17 k; k is a positive integer.
 r  
2
So, the maximum profit = 697 − 399 = ` 298 Again SP = MP 1 −   [r → rate of discount in %]
 100 
29 Total cost price = 1000 × 1.2 = ` 1200 
2
Expected selling price = 700 × x = 1200 × 1.1666 = 1400  r 
⇒ 576 = 900 1 − 
 100
⇒ x = ` 2 per toy
24  r 
Now, the real selling price = 750 × 2 = ` 1500 ⇒ = 1 −  ⇒ r = 20%
30  100
∴ Profit = ` 300 (= 1500 − 1200) 2 2
300  r   20 
∴ Profit % = × 100 = 25% Again, new SP = MP 1 +  = 900 1 +  = 1296
1200  100   100
Profit, Loss and Discount 343

SP – CP 1
New, profit percentage = × 100 40 CP of one egg (in first case) = = 33.33 paise
CP 3
1296 − 500 1
= × 100 = 159.2% CP of one egg (in second case) = = 16.66 paise
500 6
36 Consider actual price of 1 g goods = ` 1, then (33.33+ 16.66)
Average CP of one egg = = 25 paise
he sells the product equals to ` 90 only 2
200
(10% less weighing) SP of one egg = (` 1 = 100 paise)
9
Again, MP = ` 1.8 and SP = 1.35 for 1 g.
200
Thus, he gives the goods worth ` 90 and charges ` 135 after 25 −
9 × 100  CP – SP 
25% discount. Thus, the profit % Profit-loss =  loss% = × 100
25  CP 
135 − 90
= × 100 = 50%
90 = 11.11% loss
100 10 41 This question is based on fundamental concept of
37 CP = =
120 12 percentage change.
(Since, he purchases 120 g and pays ` 100, by assumption → P%
actual CP of 1 g = ` 1) Virendra = CPV → SPV
135 3 18 Q%←
SP = = = Gurindra = CPG → SPG
90 2 12
Here, CPV = CPG and SPV = SPG
(Since, actual MP = 180, actual SP = 135, with 25%
But P ≠Q
discount and he sells only 90 g instead of 100 g)
18 10 also, P % of CPV = Q % of SPG
− 2 125 P
profit (%) = 12 12 × 100 = 80%
also Q = 41 % of P = ×
10 3 3 100
P
12 and Q= × 100
100 + P
38 Let the actual cost price of an article be ` 1 (in place of x) (From the concept of percentage change)
Now, he purchases goods worth ` 120 and pays ` 80, since P 125 P  2 125
∴ × 100 = ×  41 = 
20% discount is allowed. 100 + P 3 100  3 3 
80 2 ⇒ P = 140
So, the CP = =
120 3 ∴ CP = 100 when SP = 240
Again MP = 180, SP = 135 (since, 25% discount) Where CP =CPV =CPG and SP =SPV =SPG
Thus, the trader sells goods worth ` 90 instead of 100 g and Again SP for Amrindra = 240 + 140% of 240 = 576
135 3
charges ` 135. Therefore, the effective SP = = 42 Let the CP of one article be ` 1 then the SP be ` 1.25
90 2
3 2 Again, the new SP be (1.25) × 1.2 = 1.5
−
∴ Profit (%) = 2 3 × 100 = 125% Now, if he sell initially 100 articles, then
2/ 3
CP = 100 × 1 = ` 100
39 Anjali Bhoomika Chawla SP = 100 × 1.25 = ` 125
100 100 100 New SP = 75 × 1.5 = 112.5
  
 ↓ − 20%  ↓ − 15%  ↓ − 12% (since, 25% articles were abducted)
24  80 23.5  85 23.44  88 ∴ New profit percentage = 12.5%
  
 ↓ − 5%  ↓ − 10%  ↓ − 13% 43 NOTE First of all the price of milk does not matter. You can
 76  76.5  76.56 assume any convenient price. Besides it instead of 10 l of milk
you can consider 100 l of milk to avoid calculations in
Thus, it is clear from the graphical solution that the
decimal.
maximum discount is availed by Anjali.
Now, since water is 16.66% in the mixture of milk, therefore
NOTE
with 100 l pure milk 20 l water is added. Again note that in
It does not matter that we first decrease by 20% and then by
replacement method the quantity of mixture does not
5% or vice-versa. This concept has been already illustrated in
increase except to the variation in ratio of contents.
percentage chapter. Try to do it for your concept clarification.
344 QUANTUM CAT
Again by replacement formula and c = 2a
80 100  K  Profit = 10 (b − a) = 3d
= 1 −  ⇒ K = 24 l
120 120  120 and Loss = 10 (c − d ) = 4b
Thus, he replaces 24 l of mixture with water. 3d
Profit (%) = × 100
(Note the required ratio of milk is to water is 2 : 1. It means 10a
4b
in 3 l of new mixture, there will be 2 l of water) and Loss (%) = × 100
10c
Thus, if the price of new mixture be ` 1, then the price of
3d 4b
replaced mixture be ` 2. Again, × 100 = × 100
10a 10c
Therefore, total SP = 120 × 1 + 24 × 2 = 168
3d 4b 3d 4b
and CP = 100 × 1 = 100 ⇒ = ⇒ = (Q c = 2a)
a c a 2a
∴ Profit % = 68% b 3
⇒ =
44 Candle Bulb d 2
CP a c 45 Let the CP of each motorcycle be ` x, then
SP b d 2 (1.15x ) + 4800 = 2(1.2x )
⇒ 0.1 x = 4800 ⇒ x = 48000
 CHAPTER 07

CI/ S I/ Instalments
Fundamentally, this chapter is the easiest one. It requires basic understanding of percentage and
ratio-proportion along with the knack for simple calculations. If ever any problem is asked from
this chapter, it is hardly a tricky one. That’s why CAT is not a great fan of this chapter. However,
this chapter holds relevance for most of the competitive exams and even for the Data
Interpretation section. Nonetheless, Banking exams and SSC CGL exams and recruitment exams
ask a significant number of problems from this chapter. In order to score more, we must rely on
common sense and logic than that on formulae.

7.1 Important Definitions

Simple interest is nothing but the fix percentage of the principal (invested/borrowed amount
of money). Some key words used in the concept of interest.
Principal (P): It is the sum of money deposited/loaned etc. also known as capital.
Interest : It is the money paid by borrower, calculated on the basis of Principal.
Time (T /n) : This is the duration for which money is lent/borrowed.
Rate of Interest ( r/R ) : It is the rate at which the interest is charged on principal.
Amount ( A ) = Principal + Interest Chapter Checklist
Simple Interest : When the interest is calculated uniformly only on the principal for the Important Definitions
given time period. Simple Interest
Compound Interest : In this case for every next period of time the interest is charged on the Compound Interest (CI)
total previous amount (which is the sum of principal and interest charged on it so far.) i.e., Depreciation
every time we calculate successive increase in the previous amount. Calculating the Population
Instalments
7.2 Simple Interest (SI) Important Amounts, Interest
If the Principal (P), Rate of Interest (r) and Time Period (t) are given, we will have Rates and Time Periods
P ×r × t CAT Test
Simple Interest (SI) =
100
Prt  rt 
Amount (A) = P + = P1 + 
100  100 

NOTE Out of the five variables A, SI, P , r , t we can find any one of these, if we have the requisite
information about the four variables directly or indirectly individuality or jointly.
346 QUANTUM CAT
Conversion of Time Period and rate of Interest Vi = Initial value of the article
Given ( r %) Given ( t ) Required ( r %) Required ( t ) V f = Final (depreciated) value of article r, is the rate of
r% annual t years
r
(%) half-yearly 2t interest by which the price of article decreases over the time
2 period ‘ t’.
r
r% annual t years % quarterly 4t
4
r
7.5 Calculating the Population
r% annual t years % monthly 12t
12 It has been observed that the population of a particular
locality/nation etc. increases or decreases successively over
7.3 Compound Interest (CI) its previous value i.e., it increases or decreases as compound
interest for the money. Thus we use similar formulae for the
1. CI = A − P
[A is the amount including interest and principal ( P ) both] calculation of population.
 r 
n
 r 
t
2. Amount ( A ) = P 1 +  Total population ( P ) = P0 1 +  , when population
 100   100 
 r 
2t
n
 ( r/2) increases. Total population ( P ) = P0 1 −  , when
3. When the rate of interest is half-yearly A = P 1 +   100 
 100 
4t population decreases.
 r/4 
4. When the rate of interest is quarterly A = P 1 + 
 100 
7.6 Instalments
2
 r  When a borrower paid the sum in parts (i.e., not in a single
5. Difference between CI and SI for two years = P  
 100  amount) then we say that he/she is paying in instalments. For
6. Difference between CI and SI for three years example A borrowed ` 100 from B and he pays back it to B in
2 several parts i.e., ` 20 in 5 times or ` 50 in 2 times etc. But the
 r   r 
=P    + 3 important point is that borrower has to also pay the interest
 100   100  for using the borrowed sum/or purchased article. In general
7. Difference between CI and SI for n th year the value of each instalment is kept constant even when the
interest charged on each instalment vary for each instalment.
Pr  
n −1 
r 
=  1 +  − 1 For Simple Interest
100   100  
Let A be the total amount to be paid, r be the rate of interest, x
8. For compound interest, if r denotes the rate of interest, be the value of each instalment and n be the number of
the change in amount over the previous year can be
instalments, we have
calculated or following.
increase in amount in n th year   x × r × 1  x × r × 2
=
100 A = x +  x +  + x + 
  100   100 
increase in amount in ( n +1) year (100 + r )
th

Similarly,  x × r × 3  x × r × n 
+ x +  +… +  x + 
decrease in amount in n th year 100
 100   100  
=
decrease in amount in ( n +1) th
year (100 − r ) Let P be the principal amount, we have
P ×n ×r
where r is rate of interest. A=P+
100
Therefore, we have
7.4 Depreciation
P ×n ×r   x × r × 1  x × r × 2
It is known that the prices of some articles depriciates in their P+ = x +  x +  + x + 
values over a time period. When the value in terms of 100   100   100 
currency decreases, we say that the value of the article is
 x × r × 3  x × r × n 
+ x +  +… +  x + 
 r  100  
t
depreciating V f = Vi 1 −  .  100  
 100 
CI/SI/Instalments 347

For Compound Interest Exp. 4) A sum of money in 3 years becomes 1344 and in
Let P be the principal amount, r be the rate of interest, x be 7 years it becomes ` 1536. What is the principal sum where
the value of each instalment and n be the number of simple rate of interest is to be charged ?
instalments, we have (a) 4000 (b) 1500
(c) 1200 (d) 2800

 Solution It would be very time saving if we do it by unitary
P=
x x method.
+ 1536 − 1344 = ` 192
 r   r 
2
 1 +  1 +  ` 192 is the interest for 4 years
 100   100 
So, ` 48 is the interest for 1 year
 It means ` 144 is the interest for 3 years at actual principal.
 ∴ Principal = 1344 − 144 = ` 1200
+
x
+… +
x 
3 n  Exp. 5) A certain sum of money amounts to ` 15900 at
 r   r 
1 +  1 +   simple rate of interest at 6% p.a. in 1 year. What is the
 100   100   value of principal sum ?
Let A be the total amount paid back in n instalments, we have (a) 12000 (b) 18000 (c) 15000 (d) 14000
Solution Best way is to go through option
 r 
n
15000 × 6 × 1
A = P 1 +  as = 900
 100  100
So, the total amount = 15900, hence (c) is correct.
Therefore, we have
 2 Exp. 6) A sum of money becomes 3 times in 12 years. In
 r   r   r 
n
P 1 +  =  x + x 1 +  + x 1 +  how many years it will become 5 times at the same rate of
 100    100   100  simple interest?
(a) 20 years (b) 16 years (c) 24 years (d) 30 years
 r  
n
+… + x 1 +   Solution In this type of question consider only SI not the
 100   amount. So, (in first case) SI = 2P for principal P

(in second case) SI = 4P for principal P.
Exp. 1) Find the simple interest on ` 1000 at 12% per Now, since SI is directly proportional to the time at fixed
annum for 5 years rate of interest.
Prt 1000 × 12 × 5 Therefore, to make SI two times it will require 12 years
Solution SI = = = ` 600
100 100 So, to make SI four times it will require 24 years
{Total amount = P + SI = 1000 + 600 = ` 1600} Thus to make an amount 5 times of the principal requires
24 years at the given rate of interest as per question.
Exp. 2) Find the simple interest on ` 800 at 7% per annum
and on ` 700 at 16% p.a. and on ` 500 at 4% p.a. for 2 years Exp. 7) What will be the amount when ` 10000 is
P1 r1 t1 P2 r2 t 2 P3 r3 t 3 deposited in a bank at 10% per annum compounded
Solution SI = + +
100 100 100 annually for 3 years?
800 × 7 × 2 700 × 16 × 2 500 × 4 × 2  r 
n
 10 
3
= + + Solution A = P 1 +  = 10000 1 + 
100 100 100  100  100
= 112 + 224 + 40 = ` 376 = 10000 × (1.1) 3 = ` 13310
Exp. 3) A sum of money ( P) doubles in 10 year In how Exp. 8) A sum of amount at r% compound interest
many years it will be treble at the same rate of simple doubles in 3 years. In 9 years it will be k times of the
interest? original principal. What is the value of k?
Solution A = 2P
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 8
∴ SI = P (SI = 2P − P)  r 
n
P × r × 10 Solution A = P 1 + 
P= ⇒r = 10%  100
100 3 3
So, the new amount = 3P  r   r 
1st case 2P = P 1 +  ⇒ 2 = 1 + 
P × 10 × t  100  100
But the new SI = 2P = ( 3 P − P); 2P = (r = 10%) 3
100  r  
3
 r 
9

t = 20 years 2nd case ( 2) 3 = 1 +   = 1 +  ⇒ k = ( 2) = 8 times.

3
 100  100
 
348 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 9) ` 20000 is being compounded at 20% p.a. If the Exp. 14) Jadeja purchased a maruti car 3 years ago for
rate of interest is charged half yearly. What will be the ` 2 lakh. Its value depreciated each year @ 25% p.a. What
amount after 2 years ? is the present value of the car ?
3 3
(a) 28292 (b) 27292  25   3
Solution 200000 1 −  = 200000 ×   = 84, 375
(c) 29282 (d) 22358  100  4
2×2 4
 20/2  10 
Solution 20000 1 +  = 20000 1 + 
 100   100 Exp. 15) The difference between CI and SI for 3 years
= 20000 (1.1) 4 = 20000 × 1.4641 @ 20% p.a. is ` 152. What is the principal lent in each case ?
(a) 1200 (b) 1155
= ` 29282
(c) 1187.5 (d) none of these
Exp. 10) If the rate of interest is 10% p.a. and ` 12000 lent Solution Difference between CI and SI for 3 years = ` 152
2
at the compound interest, half yearly. What is the  r   r 
p   + 3 = 152
equivalent simple rate of interest for first year?  100  100 
 r 
n
 1  16 152 × 25 × 5
Solution A = P 1 +  = 12000 (1.05)
2 P    = 152 ⇒ P =
 100  25  5 16
= 12000 × 1.1025 = ` 13230 P = 9.5 × 25 × 5 = 1187.5
Again SI = 13230 − 12000 = 1230
12000 × r × 2 Exp. 16) A sum is being lent at 20% p.a. compound
∴ 1230 = interest. What is the ratio of increase in amount of 4 th year
2 × 100
to 5 th year?
⇒ r = 10.25%
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 5 : 4
Exp. 11) ` 1000 is being charged at 50% per annum. What (c) 5 : 6 (d) can’t be determined
4
is the interest for 3 rd year at compound interest ? 
P 1 +
r 

(a) 1122 (b) 1025  100 1 100 100 5
Solution = = = =
(c) 1125 (d) 625  r 
5
 r  100 + r 120 6
P 1 +  1 + 
Solution Total amount for two years = 1000 (1.5)2 = 2250  100  100
2250 × 50 × 1
Now, interest for third year = = 1125
100 Exp. 17) ` 12000 amounts to ` 20736 in 3 years at r% p.a. of
Hence, (c) is correct. compound interest. What is the value of r?
(a) 10% (b) 25% (c) 12% (d) 20%
Exp. 12) CI and SI for a certain sum at certain rate of  r 
3
 r 
3

interest are ` 220 and ` 200. What is the principal for these Solution A = P 1 +  ⇒ 20736 = 12000 1 + 
 100  100
interests? 3 3
20736  r  1728  r 
(a) ` 2200 (b) ` 200 ⇒ = 1 +  ⇒ = 1 + 
12000  100 1000  100
(c) ` 500 (d) ` 2000
3 3 3 3
Solution 220 − 200 = 20  12  r   2  r 
⇒   = 1 +  ⇒ 1 +  = 1 +  ⇒r = 20%
` 20 is the interest on the interest of the first year, which is
 10  100  10  100
 200 Alternatively
` 100 =  
 2  The best way for this problem is to go through options.
 100 × r × 1 12000 × 1.2 ⇒ 14400 × 1.2 ⇒17280 × 1.2 ⇒ 20736
Thus, the rate of interest = 20%  20 = 
 100 
Exp. 18) A certain sum amounts to ` 14641 in 4 years @
So, the actual principal = P = 500 10% p.a. compounded annualy. What is the value of
 P × 20 × 1 
 since 100 = ⇒ P = 500 principal?
 100 
(a) ` 6000 (b) ` 12000
Hence, (c) is correct. (c) ` 10000 (d) data insufficient
4 4
Exp. 13) The population of UP increases very rapidly  10   11
Solution 14641 = P 1 +  ⇒ 14641 = P  
 100  10
@ 12% p.a. and 3 years ago its population was 1 million.
4
What is present population?  10
P = 14641 ×   = 10000
Solution A = 1000000 (1.12)3 = 1404928  11
CI/SI/Instalments 349

Exp. 19) A sum of ` 10000 is borrowed at 8% p.a. Exp. 20) A scooty is sold by an automobile agency for
compounded annualy which is paid back in 3 equal annual ` 19200 cash or for ` 4800 cash down payment together with
instalments. five equal monthly instalments. If the rate of interest charged
What is the amount of each instalments? by the company is 12% per annum find each instalment.
Solution Balance of the price to be paid through instalments
 25  25  2  25  
3
Solution 10000 = x  +  +    = ` 14400
 27   27 
 27  Rate of interest (r) = 12% p.a.
25  25 625   14400 × 12 × 5    12x 
=x× 1+ + ∴ 14400 +  = x + x + 

27  27 729   100 × 12    1200

=
25 x  2029   12x × 2   12x × 4  
+ x +  + K + x + 
27  729   12 × 100  12 × 100 
⇒ x = ` 3880.335 ⇒ x = ` 2964.70, where x is the value of each instalment.
Alternatively NOTE In the left hand side and right hand side given amounts are
10000 (1.08)3 = x [1 + (1.08) + (1.08)2 ] equal. Each amount is equal to the total amount payable after
⇒ x = 3880.335 5 months.

7.7 Important Amounts, Interest Rates and Time Periods

For quick and easy calculation to the problems related to this chapter you can learn and memorize the following values related
to compound interest.
For ` 100, amount
Rate of Interest
after one year after 2 years after 3 years after 4 years after 5 years
5% 105 110.25 115.7625 121.550625 127.62815625
6% 106 112.36 119.1016 126.247696 133.82255776
8% 108 116.64 125.9712 136.048896 146.93280768
10% 110 121.00 133.1000 146.4100 161.051
12% 112 125.44 140.4928 157.351936 176.23416832
15% 115 132.25 152.0875 174.900625 201.13571875
20% 120 144.00 172.80 207.36 248.832
25% 125 156.25 195.3125 244.140625 305.17578125
30% 130 169.00 219.70 285.61 371.293
50% 150 225.00 337.50 506.25 759.375
 QUANTUM CAT

CAT-Test
Questions Helping you bell the CAT

LEVEL 01 > BASIC LEVEL EXERCISE

1 A man borrows ` 4000 and pays back after 5 years at 15% 10 A sum of money doubles itself in 12 years. In how many
simple interest. The amount paid by the man is : years would it treble itself?
(a) ` 1800 (b) ` 4800 (a) 36 years (b) 18 years
(c) ` 7500 (d) ` 7000 (c) 24 years (d) 15 years
2 What is the time period for which ` 8000 amounts to 11 Out of a sum of ` 625, a part was lent at 5% SI and the other
` 12000 at 20% p.a. of simple interest? at 10% SI. If the interest on the first part after 2 years is
(a) 4 years (b) 2.5 years equal to the interest on the second part after 4 years, then
(c) 3.25 years (d) 6 years the second sum (in `) is :
3 What is the rate of simple interest at which ` 14,000 gives (a) 250 (b) 300
interest of ` 1960 in two years? (c) 125 (d) 275
(a) 4% (b) 5% 12 A sum of ` 2500 is lent out in two parts; one at 12% p.a.
(c) 7% (d) 10% and another at 12.5% p.a. for one year. If the total annual
4 What is the sum of amount which gives ` 6300 as interest income is ` 306, the money lent at 12% is :
1 (a) 1000 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 1300
@ 7% per annum of simple interest in 7 years?
2 13 Akul lent ` 6000 to Bakul for 2 years and ` 1500 to camlin
(a) 36000 (b) 24000 for 4 years and received altogether from both ` 900 as
(c) 63000 (d) 12000 simple interest. The rate of interest is :
5 If the rate of simple interest is 12% per annum, the amount (a) 4% (b) 8% (c) 10% (d) 5%
that would fetch interest of ` 6000 per annum is : 14 A person takes a loan of ` 200 at 5% simple interest. He
(a) ` 7200 (b) ` 48000 returns ` 100 at the end of one year. In order to clear his
(c) ` 50000 (d) ` 72000 dues at the end of 2 years, he would pay :
(a) 125.50 (b) 110
6 A sum was put at simple interest at a certain rate for 2 years
Had it been put at 4% higher rate, it would have fetched (c) 115.50 (d) none of these
` 112 more. The sum is : 15 A lends a sum of money for 10 years at 5% SI. B ends
(a) 1120 (b) 1400 double the amount for 5 years at the same rate of interest.
(c) 1200 (d) 8000 Which of the following statements is true in this regard?
(a) A will get twice the amount of interest that B would get
7 In what time will a sum of money double itself @ 20% per
annum (p.a.) simple interest? (b) B will get twice the amount of interest that A would get
(a) 10 years (b) 5 years (c) A will get the same amount of interest that B would get
(c) 2 years (d) 4 years (d) B will get four times the amount of interest that
A would get
8 At r% per annum a sum doubles after 20 years. The rate of
interest per annum is :
16 Consider the following statements.
(a) 4% (b) 5% If a money is loaned at simple interest then the :
(c) 8% (d) 10% (i) money gets doubled in 5 years if the rate of interest is
2
9 A sum of money trebles (i.e., 3 times) in 15 years at r% of 16 %.
3
simple interest per annum. What is the value of r? (ii) money gets doubled in 5 years if the rate of interest is
40 20%.
(a) 12% (b) %
3 (iii) money becomes four times in 10 years if it gets
50 doubled in 5 years of these statements :
(c) % (d) can’t be determined
3
CI/SI/Instalments 351

(a) (i) and (iii) are correct 29 The CI on ` 5000 for 3 years at 8% for first year, 10% for
(b) (iii) alone is correct second year and 12% for third year will be :
(c) (ii) alone is correct (a) ` 1750 (b) ` 1652.80
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct (c) ` 1575 (d) ` 1685.20
17 Pratibha invests an amount of ` 15,860 in the names of her 30 A sum of ` 2400 deposited at CI, doubled after 5 years After
three daughters A, B and C in such a way that they get the 20 years it will become :
same interest after 2, 3 and 4 years respectively. If the rate (a) ` 24000 (b) ` 38400
of simple interest is 5% p.a., then the ratio of the amounts (c) ` 19200 (d) can’t be determine
invested among A, B and C will be : 31 A sum of ` 550 was taken as a loan. This is to be paid back
1 1 1
(a) 5 : 10 : 12 (b) : : in two equal annual instalments. If the rate of interest be
10 15 20 20% compounded annually, then the value of each
(c) 6 : 7 : 8 (d) 6 : 5 : 4 instalments is :
18 What annual payment will discharge a debt of ` 580 in (a) 300 (b) 360
5 years, the rate being 8% p.a.? (c) 250 (d) none of these
(a) 120 (b) 100 32 The difference between CI and SI on a sum of money lent
(c) 80 (d) 78 for 2 years at 10% is ` 40. The sum is :
19 Find the amount of ` 2500 invested at 12% during the (a) 1600 (b) 3000
period from 4th February, 2005 to 18 April 2005 : (c) 4000 (d) none of these
(a) ` 3000 (b) ` 3800 33 The difference between simple and compound interest on
(c) ` 2560 (d) ` 2600 ` 6000 for 1 year at 20% per annum reckoned half yearly is :
20 Find the amount of ` 1700 invested at 16% half yearly at (a) 120 (b) 60
simple interest for one year : (c) 180 (d) 72
(a) 2100 (b) 2244 34 A certain sum amounts to ` 8988.8 in two years and to
(c) 2200 (d) 2500 ` 9528.128 in three years, at compound interest per
21 The compound interest on ` 1000 at 10% p.a. in 3 years is: annum. What is the principal and rate of interest?
(a) 331 (b) 1331 (c) 133 (d) 300 (a) ` 12,000, 5% (b) ` 6,000, 8%
22 The compound interest on ` 10000 at 20% p.a. in 4 years: (c) ` 8,000, 6% (d) ` 10,000, 8.5%
(a) 10736 (b) 736 35 The compound interest and the simple interest for two
(c) 20736 (d) 7280 years on a certain sum of money at a certain rate of interest
23 The compound interest on ` 4000 at 25% p.a. in 3 years : are ` 2257.58, ` 2100, respectively. Find the principal and
(a) 1235 (b) 5625 rate per cent :
(c) 3812.5 (d) 3750.5 (a) 6000, 7% (b) 7500, 8%
(c) 14000, 10% (d) 7000, 15%
24 The compound interest on ` 5000 at 30% per annum for
4 years : 36 The compound interest on a certain sum at a certain rate of
(a) 4280.5 (b) 6700 interest for the second year and third year is ` 21780 and
(c) 9280.5 (d) 3857.5 ` 23958, respectively. What is the rate of interest?
(a) 6% (b) 12%
25 A sum of ` 400 would become ` 441 after 2 years at r%
(c) 10% (d) 15%
compound interest, find the value of ‘ r’ :
(a) 10% (b) 5% 37 Amit borrowed ` 800 at 10% rate of interest. He repaid
(c) 15% (d) 20% ` 400 at the end of first year. What is the amount required
to pay at the end of second year to discharge his loan which
26 At compound interest, if a certain sum of money doubles in
was calculated at compound interest?
n years, then the amount will be four fold in :
(a) 420 (b) 440 (c) 450 (d) 528
(a) n2 years (b) 2n2 years
(c) 2n years (d) 4n years 38 A sonata watch is sold for ` 440 cash or for ` 200 cash down
payment together with ` 244 to be paid after one month.
27 ` 6000 amounts to ` 7986 in 3 years at CI. The rate of
Find the rate of interest charged in the instalment scheme :
interest is :
(a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 25%
(a) 20% (b) 10%
(c) 6% (d) 7.5%
39 A cellphone is available for ` 600 or for 300 cash down
payment together with ` 360 to be paid after two months.
28 The least number of complete years in which a sum of Find the rate of interest charged under this scheme :
money put at 20% CI will be more than doubled is : (a) 20% (b) 50%
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 120% (d) none of these
(c) 6 (d) 8
352 QUANTUM CAT
40 Abhinav purchases a track suit for ` 2400 cash or for ` 1000 48 In the above (i.e., previous) problem, what is the ratio of
cash down payments and two monthly instalments of ` 800 P ’s final amount to that of Q, if P and Q invest the same
each. Find the rate of interest : amounts?
6
(a) 75% (b) 120% 136  100
(a) (1.06)6 (b) × 
(c) 50% (d) none of these 100  106
41 Indicom cell-phone is available for ` 2500 cash or ` 520 6
100  106
(c) ×  (d) none of these
cash down payments followed by 4 equal monthly 136  100
instalments. If the rate of interest charged is 25% per
annum, calculate the monthly instalment : 49 Mr. Lala Ram has lent some money to Aaju at 6% p.a. and
(a) 520 (b) 480 the Baaju at 8% p.a. At the end of the year he has gain the
(c) 550 (d) none of these overall interest at 7% per annum. In what ratio has he lent
the money to Aaju and Baaju?
42 An article is sold for ` 500 cash or for ` 150 cash down (a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 1
payments followed by 5 equal monthly instalments. If the
(c) 5 : 6 (d) 4 : 3
rate of interest charged is 18% p.a., compute the monthly
instalment : 50 The difference between simple and compound interest for
(a) 63.07% (b) 37.06% the fourth year is ` 7280 at 20% p.a. What is the principal
(c) 75.0% (d) 73.06% sum?
(a) 10000 (b) 50000
43 A sum of ` 390200 is to be paid back in three equal annual
(c) 1 lakh (d) 40000
instalments. How much is each instalment, if the rate of
interest charged is 4% per annum compounded annually? 51 The simple interest on certain sum at 5% for 9 month is
(a) ` 140608 (b) ` 120560 ` 10 greater than the simple interest on the same sum @
(c) ` 10000 (d) ` 18000 3% for 14 months. What is the sum of interest in both the
cases (i.e., total sum of interest)?
44 Purnima borrowed a sum of money and returned it in three (a) ` 130 (b) ` 290
equal quarterly instalments of ` 17576 each. Find the sum (c) ` 120 (d) ` 330
borrowed, if the rate of interest charged was 16% per 1 1
annum compounded quarterly. Find also the total interest 52 Mr. Bajaj invested of his total investment at 4% and at
7 2
charged :
5% and rest at 6% for the one year and received total
(a) 46900 and 4700 (b) 48775 and 3953
interest of ` 730. What is the total sum invested?
(c) 68320 and 1200 (d) none of these (a) ` 70000 (b) ` 14000
45 Sunidhi borrowed ` 10815, which is to be paid back in (c) ` 24000 (d) ` 38000
3 equal half yearly instalments. If the interest is 53 The rate of interest in two banks DNB and HBI are in the
40
compounded half yearly at % per annum, how much is ratio of 7 : 8. If a person invested some amount in both the
3 banks and received equal amounts from both the banks in
each instalment? two years. The ratio of amount invested in DNB and HBI,
(a) 2048 (b) 3150 (c) 4096 (d) 5052 respectively is :
46 Sapna borrowed some money on compound interest and (a) 15 : 1 (b) 8 : 7
returned it in three years in equal annual instalments. If the (c) 7 : 8 (d) 108 : 107
rate of interest is 15% per annum and annual instalment is 54 The ratio of CI for 3 years and SI for 1 year for a fixed
` 486680, find the sum borrowed : amount at a rate of r% is 3.64. What is the value of r?
(a) 1112220 (b) 1111200 (a) 10% (b) 15%
(c) 1122000 (d) none of these (c) 20% (d) none of these
47 P and Q invest some amount under SI and CI, repectively 55 A sum of money becomes 13/5 times of itself in 32 years at
but for the same period at 6% per annum. Each gets a total r% of SI. What is the value of r?
amount of ` 65,000 at the end of 6 years Which of the (a) 6% (b) 7%
following is definitely true? (c) 5% (d) 18%
(i) Q ’s initial principal is less than that of P 56 The difference between interest received by A and B is ` 18
(ii) Q ’s initial principal is equal to that of P
on ` 1500 for 3 years. What is the difference in rate of
(iii) P ’s percentage earning is less than that of Q
interest?
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
(a) 1% (b) 2.5% (c) 0.5% (d) 0.4%
(c) (iii) only (d) (i) and (iii) only
LEVEL 02 > HIGHER LEVEL EXERCISE
1 The compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years is ` 756 9 9
(a) 23 % (b) 17 %
and SI (simple interest) is ` 720. If the sum is invested such 17 23
that the SI is ` 900 and the number of years is equal to the 9
(c) 13 % (d) none of these
rate per cent per annum, find the rate per cent : 17
(a) 4 (b) 5 9 Data Ram lends equal sum of money at the same rate of
(c) 6 (d) 1.0 interest to A and B. The money lends to A becomes twice of
2 Jalela and Dalela have to clear their respective loans by the original amount in just four years at simple interest.
paying 3 equal annual instalments of ` 30000 each. Jalela While Data Ram lends to B for the first two years at
pays @ 10% per annum of simple interest while Dalela compound interest and for the rest two years at simple
pays 10% per annum compound interest. What is the interest. If the difference between the amount of
difference in their payments? A and B after 4 years is ` 2750. What is the amount of
(a) ` 300 (b) ` 425 money that Data Ram lends to each one?
(c) ` 245 (d) ` 333.33 (a) ` 40000 (b) ` 6000
(c) ` 8000 (d) ` 80000
3 Akbar lends twice the interest received from Birbal to
Chanakya at the half of the interest at which he lent to 10 Akram Ali left an amount of ` 340000 to be divided
Birbal. If Akbar lent ` P@ r% per annum for 1 year to Birbal between his two sons aged 10 years and 12 years such that
then the interest received by Akbar from Chanakya is : both of them would get an equal amount when each attain
Pr2  Pr 
2 18 years age. What is the share of elder brother if the whole
(a) (b)   amount was invested at 10% simple interest :
100  10
2 2 (a) 12000 (b) 16000
 r  r  (c) 160000 (d) 180000
(c) P   (d) P  
 10  100
11 Satyam took loan from IDIDI Bank for his 2 years course of
4 Equal amounts of each ` 43892 is lend to two persons for MBA at IMD. He took the loan of ` 6 lakh such that he
3 years One @ 30% SI and second @ 30% CI annually. By would be charged at 8% per annum at CI during his course
how much per cent the CI is greater than the simple interest and at 10% CI after the completion of course. He returned
received in this 3 years duration? half of the amount which he had to be paid on the
(a) 23% (b) 33% completion of his studies and remaining after 2 years What
(c) 33.33% (d) none of these is the total amount returned by Satyam ?
5 ` 3500 was lent partly @ 4% and partly @ 6% SI. The total (a) ` 7.73323 lakh (b) ` 7.58 lakh
interest received after 3 years is 498. What is the amount (c) ` 7.336 lakh (d) none of these
lent @ 4% SI? 12 We had 1000 goats at the beginning of year 2001 and the
(a) ` 1300 (b) ` 1800 no. of goats each year increases by 10% by giving birth
(c) ` 200 (d) ` 2200 (compounded annually). At the end of each year we double
6 The population of vultures in a particular locality is the no. of goats by purchasing the same no. of goats as
decreases by a certain rate of interest (compounded there is the no. of goats with us at the time. What is the no.
annually). If the current population of vultures be 29160 of goats at the beginning of 2004?
and the ratio of decrease in population for second year and (a) 10600 (b) 10648
3rd year be 10 : 9. What was the population of vultures 3 (c) 8848 (d) 8226
years ago? 13 ` 100000 was invested by Mohan in a fixed deposit @ 10%
(a) 30000 (b) 35000 per annum at CI. However every year he has to pay 20% tax
(c) 40000 (d) 50000 on the compound interest. How much money does Mohan
7 The ratio of the amount for two years under CI annually has after 3 years?
and for one year under SI is 6 : 5. When the rate of interest (a) 128414 (b) 108000
is same, then the value of rate of interest is : (c) 126079.2 (d) none of these
(a) 12.5% (b) 18% 14 A property dealer bought a rectangular plot (of land) in
(c) 20% (d) 16.66% Noida 5 years ago at the rate of ` 1000 per m2. The cost of
8 A bicycle can be purchased on cash payment of ` 1500. The plot is increases by 5% in every 6 years and the worth of a
same bicycle can also be purchased at the down payment rupee falls down at a rate of 2% in every 5 years. What is the
(initial payment, at the time of purchasing) of ` 350 and rest approximate value of the land per meter 2 25 years hence?
can be paid in 3 equal installments of ` 400 for next (a) ` 995 (b) ` 1134
3 months. The rate of SI per annum charged by the dealer is: (c) ` 1500 (d) ` 1495
354 QUANTUM CAT
15 A and B run a joint venture in which the profit earned by (a) 14% (b) 12.5%
A and B are in the ratio 28 : 15. A invest his share at the (c) 10.5% (d) 11%
start of the year and B joins in after 9 months of the same 20 The annual sales of a company in the year 2000 was ` 1000
year. What is the ratio of their initial investment, and in the year 2005 was ` 2490. Find the compounded
respectively? annual growth rate (CAGR) of sales in the given period of
(a) 7 : 15 (b) 8 : 13 the same company :
(c) 5 : 17 (d) 15 : 7 (a) 14.289% (b) 10%
16 In the previous problem if A gets a profit of ` 4200 the (c) 15% (d) 20%
amount invested by B is : 21 HDFC lends 1 million to HUDCO at 10% simple interest
(a) 2250 (b) 2600 p.a. for 2 years and HUDCO lends the same amount to
(c) 1350 (d) can’t be determined SAHARA STATES HOUSING corporation at 10% p.a. of
17 Arvind and Govind each invested ` 15000 for 3 years at the compound interest for 2 years What is the earning of
same rate of interest but Arvind’s investment is HUDCO in this way?
compounded annually while Govind’s investment is (a) ` 133100 (b) ` 33100
charged on simple interest. What amount did Arvind (c) ` 131000 (d) no profit no loss
receive more than Govind? 22 ICICI lent ` 1 lakh to captain Ram Singh @ 6% per annum
(a) ` 680 (b) ` 3450 of simple interest for 10 years period. Meanwhile ICICI
(c) data insufficient (d) none of these offered a discount in rate of interest for armed forces. Thus
18 Shyam Lal takes a loan of ` 10500 at 10% p.a. compounded the rate of interest ICICI decreased to 4%. In this way Ram
annually which is to be repaid in two equal annual Singh had to pay total amount 1.48 lakh.
instalments. One at the end of one year and the other at the After how many year Ram Singh got the discount in rate of
end of the second year. The value of each instalments is : interest?
(a) 5987 (b) 6050 (a) 3 years (b) 4 years
(c) 6352.5 (d) 5678.5 (c) 6 years (d) 5 years
19 Hari Lal and Hari Prasad have equal amounts. Hari Lal 23 Sanjay purchased a hotel worth ` 10 lakh and barkha
invested all his amount at 10% compounded annually for purchased a car worth ` 16 lakh. The value of hotel every
2 years and Hari Prasad invested 1/4 at 10% compound year increases by 20% of the previous value and the value
interest (annually) and rest at r% per annum at simple of car every year depreciates by 25%. What is the
interest for the same 2 years period. The amount difference between the price of hotel and car after 3 years?
received by both at the end of 2 year is same. What is the (a) ` 925000 (b) ` 1053000
value of r? (c) remains constant (d) can’t be determined

Answers
Level 01 Basic Level Exercise
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (d)

Level 02 Higher Level Exercise

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b)
CI/SI/Instalments 355

Hints & Solutions

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise
1 4000 + (4000 × 5 × 0.15) = ` 7000 P1 × 5 × 2 P2 × 10 × 4
11 =
100 100
8000 × t × 20
2 (12000 − 8000) = ⇒ P1 : P2 = 4 : 1
100
5  1
⇒ t = years Therefore, second principal is ` 125  = 625 × 
2  5
14000 × r × 2 Alternatively Go through options.
3 1960 = ⇒ r = 7%
100 12 Best way is to go through option
P × 7 × 15 So, 1300 × 0.12 + 1200 × 0.125 = 306
4 6300 =
100 × 2 Hence, (d) is the correct option.
⇒ P = ` 12000 Alternatively Solve through alligation
P × 12 × 1 Therefore the ratio of first principal to the second principal
5 6000 =
100 is 13 : 12.
⇒ P = 50000 2500 × r × 1
12 12.5 306 =
100
6 In my opinion this question should be solved by unitary
12.24 306
method instead of making complex solution r= = 12.24
25
Years Rate of Interest Interest 0.26 0.24
13 : 12
2 4% 112
 6000 × 2 + 1500 × 4
2 1% 28 13   r = 900
 100 
1 1% 14
⇒ r = 5%
It means the principal sum is ` 1400 200 × 5 × 1
Alternatively 14 Amount to be paid in first year = + 200 = 210
100
P Amount left as a principal for the second year
× 2[(r + 4) − r] = 112
100 = 210 − 100 = 110
⇒ P = 1400 ∴ Amount paid in second year
7 SI = 2P − P = P (Interest = Amount – Principal) 110 × 5 × 1
= 110 + = 115.5
P × 20 × t 100
P= ⇒ t = 5 years
100 15 A B
P × r × 20 PA = P PB = 2P
8 P= (Interest = Amount – Principal)
100 rA = 5% rB = 5%
⇒ r = 5% p.a. t = 10 years t = 5 years
P × 15 × r P × 5 × 10 2P × 5 × 5
9 2P = (2P = 3P − P ) Interest of A = Interest of B =
100 100 100
P P
40 = =
r= % p.a. 2 2
3
Hence (c) is correct
P × r × 12 100
10 P= ⇒ r= % p.a. P × 5 × 50
100 12 16 Statement (I) ≠ P , hence wrong
100 × 3
P × 100 × t
Now, 2P = = 24 years
12 × 100 P × 5 × 20
Statement (II) SI = = P , hence correct
100
Shortcut (for SI) Since SI in second case is double the SI
P × 5× r
in first case, so the time period will also be double since SI Statement (III) P= ⇒ r = 20%
is directly proportional to the time period, provided that 100
rate of interest be same and principal as well. P × 10 × 20
Again SI = = 2P , hence wrong
100
356 QUANTUM CAT
P1 × 2 × 5 P2 × 3 × 5 P3 × 4 × 5 n n
26 Since, A = 2P , then 2P = P 1 +
= = r   r 
17  ⇒ 2 = 1 + 
100 100 100  100  100
⇒ 10P1 = 15P2 = 20P3 n2
 r   r  
2n
1 1 1 ⇒ 4 = (2)2 = 1 +   = 1 +  
⇒ P1 : P2 : P3 = 30 : 20 : 15 = : :
10 15 20  100   100 
 x × 1 × 8  x × 2 × 8 ⇒ time period = 2n {Q (am )n = am. n}
18 580 = ( x ) +  x +  + x + 
  100   100  (this question can be easily done
 x × 3 × 8  x × 4 × 8  by considering some appropriate values)
+ x +  + x + 
 100   100    r 
3
27 7986 = 6000 1 + 
8 x 58 x  100
580 = 5x + =
10 10 7986  r 
3
= 1 + 
⇒ x = 100 6000  100
Feb March April 1331  r  11 
3
r 
19 Time period = 24 + 31 + 18 ⇒ = 1 +  ⇒ = 1 + 
1000  100 10  100
1
= 73 days =year ⇒ r = 10%
5
2500 × 12 × 1 Alternatively Go through options.
∴ 2500 + = ` 2560
100 × 5 +10% + 10% + 10%
6000 → 6600 → 7260 → 7986
1700 × 16 × 2
20 1700 + = ` 2244 Hence, assumed option is correct.
100
n 28 Go through option
 r 
21 A = P 1 +  1 × (1.2) = 1.2
 100
3
1 × (1.2)2 = 1.44
 10 
A = 1000 1 +  1 × (1.2)3 = 1.728
 100
1 × (1.2)4 = 2.0736
A = 1000 × (1.1)3
Hence, minimum 4 years are required to double the sum.
A = 1331
 R   R   R 
∴ CI = A − P = 1331 − 1000 = 331 29 A = P 1 + 1  1 + 2  1 + 3  K
 100  100  100
22 A = 10000 × (1.2)4
A = 5000 (1.08) (1.1) (1.12)
A = 10000 × 2.0736 A = 6652.8
A = 20736 CI = 1652.8 = (6652.8 − 5000)
CI = A − P 5 5
 r   r 
CI = 20736 − 10000 = 10736 30 2P = P 1 +  ⇒ 2 = 1 + 
 100  100
23 CI = [ 4000 × (1.25)3] − (4000) 4
 r  
5
 r 
20

= 4000 × 1.953125 − 4000 Now, (2)4 =  1 +   = 1 + 

 100   100
= 4000 × 0.953125 = 3812.5
⇒ The amount becomes 16 (= 24 ) times
24 CI = 5000 × (1.3)4 − 5000
∴ Hence (b) is correct, Q (2400 × 16 = 38400)
= 5000 × 2.8561 − 5000
 1 1 
2
31 550 = x   +    ⇒ 550 = x 
= 5000 (1.8561) = 9280.5 2.2 
⇒ x = ` 360
2  1.2  1.2  1.44 
 r 
25 441 = 400 1 + 
 100 2
32 Difference between CI and SI for 2 years = P 
r 

21 r  100
⇒ =1 +
20 100  10 
2
40 = P   ⇒ P = 4000
⇒ r = 5%  100
CI/SI/Instalments 357

Alternatively Go through options 38 Principal for next month = 440 − 200 = 240
First year Second year Amount paid after next month = 244
SI 400 400
40 Therefore, interest charged at ` 240 = 4
CI 400 440 240 × r × 1
Alternatively Go back in the reverse process. ∴ 4=
12 × 100
` 40 at 10% implies that the principal for this interest was
` 400. Again by the same logic ` 400 as interest obtained at r = 20% per annum
the principal of ` 4000 at 10%. 39 Amount as a principal for first and
2 second month = 600 − 300 = ` 300
33 6000 
10 
 = 60
 100 Now, interest = 360 − 300 = ` 60
300 2
 r 
3
∴ 60 = × × r ⇒ r = 120%
P 1 +  100 12
 100  r 
34 = 1 +  40 Amount as a principal for 2 month = 2400 − 1000 = 1400
 r 
2  100
P 1 +  At the rate of r% per annum after 2 months, ` 1400 will
 100
amount to
9528.128  r 
∴ = 1 +   1400 × r × 2
8988.8  100 `  1400 +  …(i)
 100 × 12 
 84270   r 
⇒ 1 +  = 1 +  Again total amount for the 2 instalments at the end of
 1404500  100
second month will be
 6   r 
⇒ 1 +  = 1 +  ⇒ r = 6%   800 × r × 1 
 100   100 `  800 +  800 +  …(ii)
3   100 × 12  
 6 
So, 8988.8 = P 1 +  ⇒ P = 8000 from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
 100
2800 r 800 r
Alternatively Best way is to go through options. 1400 + = 1600 +
1200 1200
35 Difference between CI and SI for 2 years will be equal to 2000 r
= 200 ⇒ r = 120%
the interest on SI for first year. 1200
Hence, 6000 × 0.07 ⇒ 420 × 0.07 = 29.4 ≠ 157.5 41 Balance price to be paid in instalments = 1980
and 7500 × 0.08 ⇒ 600 × 0.08 = 48 ≠ 157.5 At the rate of r% per annum after 4 months, ` 1980 will
and 14000 × 0.1 ⇒ 1400 × 0.1 = 140 ≠ 157.5  1980 × 4 × 25
amount to ` 1980 +  = ` 2145 …(i)
and 7000 × 0.15 ⇒ 1050 × 0.15 = 157.5 = 157.5  12 × 100 
Thus option (d) is correct. Now, the total amount for the 4 instalments at the end of
3 fourth month will be
 r 
P 1 +    25x × 1   25x × 2   25 × 3x  
 100  r  23958  r 
36 = 1 + ⇒ = 1 +  x +  x +  + x +  + x + 
 r 
2  100  21780  100   12 × 100   12 × 100   12 × 100 
P 1 + 
 100 25x 33x
= 4x + (1 + 2 + 3) = …(ii)
2178 r 1200 8
1+ =1 + ⇒ r = 10% 33x
21780 100 from, Eqs. (i) and (ii) we get = 2145 ⇒ x = 520
Alternatively Remember the difference between 8
compound interest of any two consecutive years will be 42 Balance price to be paid in instalments = 350
same as the interest on the amount of total previous year
So, 23958 − 21780 = 2178 At the rate of r% per annum after 5 months, ` 350 will
2178 amount to
Now, r= × 100 ⇒ r = 10%
21780  350 × 18 × 5  1750 × 18
`  350 +  =  350 +  …(i)
37 Amount to be paid at the end of 2 year  12 × 100   1200 
800 × 10 × 2
= + 800 = 880 Again, total amount for the 5 instalments at the end of 5th
100  18 x × 1  18 x × 2 

month will be `  x +  x +  + x + 
Amount left as principal for the second year
  1200   12 × 100
= 480 = (880 − 400)
480 × 10  18 x × 3   18 x × 4  
Amount to be paid after 2nd year = 480 + = ` 528 + x +  + x + 
100  12 × 100  12 × 100 
358 QUANTUM CAT
 18 x  49 6 8
= 5x + (1 + 2 + 3 + 4)
 1200  7
180 x  6180 x 
= 5x + =  …(ii) 1 : 1
1200  1200 
50 Difference between CI and SI for nth year
from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get n−1

Pr r  
 1750 × 18 6180 x = 1 +  − 1
 350 +  = ⇒ x = 73.058 
100 100 
 1200  1200
P × 20
43 Let each instalments be ` x 7280 = [(1.2)3 − 1] ⇒ P = 50000
100
The amount to be paid instalments = 390200
Alternatively
The total value of all the three instalments is
  25  25
2
 25 
3 Initially Ist IInd IIIrd IV th
` x   + x   + x    year year year year
  26  26  26 
 SI 10000 12000 14000 16000 18000
and this must be equal to ` 390200 CI 10000 12000 14400 17280 20736
25  25 625 
Hence, x× 1+ + = 390200 CI for 4th year = 20736 − 17280 = 3456
26  26 676 
x = ` 140608 SI for 4th year = 2000

44 Rate of interest = 16% annum Difference between CI and SI = 1456 for ` 10000
Actual rate of interest = 4% per quarter So, the difference of ` 7280 is for ` 50000
Principal of all three instalments P × 5 × 9 P × 14 × 3
51 − = 10 ⇒ P = ` 4000
   25  25 2  25 3  100 × 12 100 × 12
= 17576    +   +     4000
   26  26  26  
 Now, [ 5 × 9 + 14 × 3] = ` 290
100 × 12
17576 × 25 × 1951
= = 48775 52 Let the principal be x, then
26 × 676
x x 5x 
Total amount paid = ` 17576 × 3 = 52728  × 4 + × 5+ × 6
7 2 14 
Interest charged = 52728 − 48775 = 3953 = 730 ⇒ x = 14000
100
40/3 20
45 Rate of interest = %= % half yearly Alternatively Go through suitable options.
2 3 Choose any middlemost option so that if the chosen option
 15  15 2  15 3  is not correct, then you can determine that whether you
∴ 10815 = x  +   +    ⇒ x = 4096
16  16  16 

have to increase or decrease the value of the choices given.
P × 2 × 7 x P2 × 2 × 8 x P 8
 20  20 2  20 3  53 1 = ⇒ 1 =
46 P = 486680  +  +   100 100 P2 7
 23  23  23 
  3 
r  3
 20  20 400  P 1 +  − 1 1 + r  − 1
⇒ P = 486680 × 1 + +   100   100
 23  23 529  54
pr
=
r
= 3.64
P = 1111200 100 100
Now, go through options and verify
47 PS S1 AS 3
 20 
1 +  −1
 100 (1.2)3 − 1 0.728
PC C1 AC = = = 3.64
20 0.2 0.2
100
Obviously PS > PC , therefore percentage gain of PC is
greater than PS . Hence (c) is correct.
P ×6×6  136 13p 8p
48 AS = P + =P   55 − p=
100  100 5 5
8 P × r × 32
 6 
6
 106
6 Now, P= ⇒ r = 5%
AC = P  1 +  =P   5 100
 100  100
1500 × 3
6 56 (r1 − r2 ) = 18 ⇒ r1 − r2 = 0.4
AS 136  100 100
∴ = × 
AC 100  106
 Level 02 Higher Level Exercise
1 CI for 2 years = ` 756 Decreases in second year 100 10
6 = =
SI for 2 years = ` 720 Decreases in third year 100 − r 9
It means the interest on the interest of the first year = ` 36 ⇒ r = 10%
(= 756 − 720) Let the population of vultures 3 years ago be P, then
This implies that the rate of interest is 10% 3
 10 
36 P 1 −  = 29160 ⇒ P = 40000
as × 100 = 10%  100
360
It means the principal for first year was ` 3600 7 On the second year (in terms of CI) is
2
P × 10 × 1  r 
Q = 360 ⇒ P = 3600 P 1 + 
100  100 6  r  6
= ⇒ 1 +  =
P ×k×k  Pr  5  100 5
Now, = SI, where, r = t = k P + 
100  100
3600 × k 2 ⇒ r = 20%
= 900 ⇒ k = 5
100 8 Balance price to be paid in instalments
2 30000 (1 + 1.1 + (1.1)2 ) − 30000 (1 + 1.1 + 1.2) = ` 1150 …(i)
⇒ ` 300 Q (1500 − 350) = 1150
2
 10  30, 000 × 10 × 2 Now, the total amount for the next 3 instalments at the end
30, 000 1 +  − ⇒ ` 300 of 3rd month will be
 100 100
 1150 × r × 3
3 Interest received from Birbal =
Pr 1150 +  =
100  12 × 100 
 Pr  r   400 × r × 1  400 × r × 2 
2  × 2 400 +  400 +  +  400 + 
 100  2  r   100 × 12   100 × 12  
Interest received from Chanakya = =P   
100  100 
 46000 + 115r  400 × 3r
100 (1.3)3 = 219.7 ⇒ CI = 119.7   = 1200 + 
4  40   1200 
100 × 3 × 30 80
and SI = = 90 ⇒ r= = 26.66% …(ii)
100 3
∴CI is greater than SI by ` 29.7 (119.7 − 90) P ×4×r
9 A: P=
29.7 100
∴ % increase = × 100 = 33.0%
90 ⇒ r = 25%
2
5 The best way is to go through options  25  25P
B: P 1 +  =
2200 × 4 × 3 1300 × 6 × 3  100 16
+ = ` 498
100 100 25P 2 × 25 25P
Again × =
Hence, the presumed option is correct. 16 100 32
NOTE When we consider ` 2200 for 4%, then the rest Therefore, total amount of A after 4 years = 2P
amount i.e., ` 1300 = ( 3500 − 2200) will be considered 25P 25P 75P
and total amount of B after 4 years = + =
automatically for 6%. 16 32 32
75P 11P
Alternatively
166
Average % rate = % Therefore, difference in amount = − 2P = = 2750
35 32 32
 3500 × r × 3 166 ⇒ P = 8000
Q 498 = 100  ⇒ r = 35 % 10 Go through options
∴ 1.8 × 6 × 10 1.6 × 8 × 10
35 ×4 6× 35 1.8 + =1.6 + ,
35 35 100 100
166
35 Hence (d) is correct.
44 26 P1 × 6 × 10 P × 8 × 10
35 35
Alternatively P1 + = P2 + 2
100 100
22 : 13
P1 9
⇒ =
Thus the ratio of principal at 4% and 6% will be in the ratio P2 8
of 22 : 13 respectively.
360 QUANTUM CAT
11 Amount which is to be returned on completion of studies 17 We don’t know the rate of interest.
= 600000 × (1.08)2 = 699840 10  10
2
18 10500 = x  +   ⇒ x = 6050
But only half of 699840 is returned which is equal to 11  11 
` 349920
∴ Amount which is returned after two year of completion 19 Let the amount of investment with each one be ` 400, then
of studies Hari Lal Hari Prasad
2  300 × r × 2
 10  [ 400 (1.1)2] = [100 (1.1)2] + 300 +
= 349920 1 +  = 423403.2  100 
 100
⇒ r = 10.5%
Total amount returned
= 349920 + 423403.2 = 773323.2 20 Best way is to go through options
= ` 7.73323 lakh 1000 × (1.2)2 = 2488.32 ≈ 2490
1000000 × 10 × 2
12 1000 1100 21 Amount earned by HDFC = 1000000 +
100
2200 2420 = 1200000
Amount earned by HUDCO = 1000000 (1.1)3 = 1331000
4840 5324 Net earning of HUDCO = 1331000 − 1200000 = 131000
22 Interest paid by Ram Singh = ` 48000
10648
Now go through option
13 Note that, ultimately 8% interest is charged. 100000
48000 = [ 6 × 4 + 4 × 6]
So, the net value after 3 years = 125971.2 100
14 Total time = 25 + 5 = 30 years 48000 = 48000
30 Hence proved that option (b) is correct. It means Ram
Again no. of time periods for cost increment = =5 Singh availed the discount after 4 years of loaning.
6
30 23 Worth of hotel after 3 years = 1000000 (1.2)3
and no. of time periods for rupee depreciation = =6
5 = 1728000
Now, the net value of the plot = 1000 × (1.05)5 × (0.98)6  3
3
Worth of car after 3 years = 1600000   = ` 675000
≈ ` 1130  4
A 12 × x 28 A 7 So, the difference in their worth (pertaining to hotel and
15 = = ⇒ =
B 3× y 15 B 15 car) is
16 We can find the profit of B but not investment. = 1728000 − 675000 = 1053000
Time and Work 361

CHAPTER 08

Time and W or k
This chapter is one of the easiest chapters for the students. Even an average student can
perform better than that in other chapters. There is basically one concept involved in this
chapter i.e., concept of efficiency.
So most of the problems are very similar in their basic characteristic. Almost every aptitude
exam asks the problems from this chapter. On an average 2-3 problems from this chapter have
been asked in past years in CAT.
As it is very clear to all of us that the work is directly related with time. As one can say if a
particular person or machine works for more time then more work will be done and if it
devotes less time then it yields less work i.e., output of a machine or person is directly
proportional to time, provided he/she maintains his/her efficiency during the work. Chapter Checklist
Concept of Efficiency
8.1 Concept of Efficiency Relation Between Efficiency
Suppose a person can complete a particular work in 2 days then we can say that each day he and Time
does half of the work or 50% work each day. Concept of Negative Work
Thus it is clear that his efficiency is 50% per day. Efficiency is generally considered with Applications of Inverse
respect to the time. The time can be calculated either in days, hours, minutes or months etc. Proportion (or Product Constancy)
So if a person completes his work in 4 days, then his efficiency (per day) is 25%.
Relation Between Efficiencies
Since each day he works 1/4th of the total work (i.e., 25% of the total work). I would like to CAT Test
mention that the calculation of percentage and conversion of ratios and fractions into
percentage and vice versa is the prerequisite for this chapter.
Now, if a person can complete a work in n days then his one day’s work =1/ n and this one
day’s work in terms of percentage is called his efficiency.
1
Also if a person can complete work in one day, then he can complete the whole work
n
in n days.
362 QUANTUM CAT
Relation between work of 1 unit of time and percentage Alternatively efficiency of A = 100 = 8.33%
efficiency A person can complete his work in n days, then his 12
100
one day’s work =1/ n, his percentage efficiency = 1/ n × 100 and efficiency of B = = 16.66%
6
No. of days/hours etc. Work of 1 Percentage Combined efficiency of A and B both = 8. 33 + 16.66 = 25%
required to complete day/hour efficiency ∴Time taken by both to finish the work (working together)
the whole work 100
= = 4 days
n 1/n 100/n 25
1 1/1 100% NOTE As per my experience, I have found that in this chapter only
2 1/2 50% selected (numerals) numbers are always used and thus there are
1 almost 20 − 25 numbers are frequently used. So one can very easily
3 1/3 33.33% = 33 % remember (and calculate) the percentage efficiency but with different
3 combinations to calculate the LCM becomes a very tedious job. Still
4 1/4 25% you can choose your own method, which is comfortable to you.
5 1/5 20%
6 1/6 2
16.66% = 16 %
Exp. 2) A can do a job in 10 days, Bcan do the same job in
3 12 days and C can do the same job in 15 days. In how many
7 1/7 2 days they will finish the work together?
14.28% = 14 %
7 1 1
8 1/8 12.5% Solution A’s 1 day’s work = , B’s 1 day’s work =
10 12
9 1/9 1 C’s 1 day’s work = 1 / 15
11.11% = 11 %
9 1 1 1 15 1
( A + B + C)’s one day’s work = + + = =
10 1/10 10% 10 12 15 60 4
1
Since they can complete work in 1 day. So they will finish the
This table is very similar to the percentage fraction table 4
given in the chapter of percentage. This table just manifests 1
whole work in = 4 days.
as a model for efficiency conversion. 1/4
Alternatively A’s efficiency = 10%
Basically for faster and smarter calculation you have to have
your percentage calculation very smart. All the problems of B’s efficiency = 8.33%
C’s efficiency = 6.66%
this chapter can be solved through two methods :
Combined efficiency of A , B and C = 10 + 8.33 + 6.66 = 25%
1. Unitary method 2. Percentage efficiency 100
Unitary method is generally obsolete in respect to high Hence, they will take = 4 days to finish the job working
25
level aptitude exam of CAT since it involves difficult together (Since in one day they complete 25% work)
calculation of LCM each and every time. But when the
problems are solved through percentage efficiency it 8.2 Relation Between Efficiency
becomes inevitable to save the time which in turn helps to
do a few more problems within the stipulated time. and Time
I admit that initially it might be difficult to solve for those Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time (i.e., number
students who are not so good and confident in percentage of days, hours, minutes) etc.
and fraction calculation, but a little bit of extra Practice
will yield an unexpected result in quicker calculations.
For example if A is twice efficient as B, it means, A takes half
Now I have some good examples to show you both the the time to finish the same job as B requires working alone.
methods of solving the same problems. Exp. 1) A takes 16 days to finish a job alone, while Btakes
Exp. 1) A can do a job in 12 days and B can do the same 8 days to finish the same job. What is the ratio of their
job in 6 days, in how many days working together they efficiency and who is less efficient.
can complete the job? Solution Since A takes more time than B to finish the same
1 1 100
Solution A’s 1 day’s work = , B’s 1 day’s work = job hence A is less efficient or efficiency of A = = 6.25%
12 6 16
1 1 3 1 100
∴ ( A + B)’s 1 day’s work s = + = = and efficiency of B = = 12.5%
12 6 12 4 8
∴ Time taken by both to finish the whole work 1 1
1 ratio of efficiency of A : B = : =1: 2
= = 4 days 16 8
1 /4 Hence, B is twice efficient as A.
Time and Work 363
xy
Exp. 2) A is thrice efficient as B and A takes 20 days to do = days
x+y
a job, then in how many days B can finish the same job?
1
Solution Ratio of efficiency of A : B = 3 : 1 (Q Required time to complete the work = )
one day’ s work
1 1
∴ Ratio of required days of A : B = : = 1 : 3
3 1
Now since A takes 20 days. So B will take 60 days to finish the 8.3 Concept of Negative Work
same job. In this case one person works but another destroyes it or
NOTE Ratio of number of days is equal to the ratio of the cancels it. For example Sonu can write 20 pages per hour but
reciprocals of efficiency and vice-versa.
his younger sister Rimjhim erases 10 pages per hour which
Exp. 3) P is thrice as efficient as Q and is therefore able to Sonu writes. It means finally Sonu writes 10 pages per hour
finish a piece of work in 60 days less than Q. Find the time in since each hour his sister erases 10 pages out of 20 written
which P and Q can complete the work individually. pages. Take an other example :
Solution Efficiency of P : Q = 3 : 1
Exp. 1) A tub can be filled in 20 minutes but there is a
Required number of days of P : Q = 1 : 3 leakage in it which can empty the full tub in 60 minutes. In
i.e., if P requires x days then Q requires 3x days how many minutes it can be filled?
but 3 x − x = 60 ⇒ 2x = 60 ⇒ x = 30 and 3 x = 90  100
Solution Filling efficiency = 5% Q 5 = 
Thus P can finish the work in 30 days and Q can finish the work  20 
in 90 days.  100
emptying efficiency = 1.66% Q 1.66 = 
 60 
Exp. 4) A is twice as good a workman as B and is
Net efficiency = 5 − 1.66 = 3.33%
therefore able to finish a piece of work in 30 days less than
100
B. In how many days they can complete the whole work; ∴ Required time to fill the tub = = 30 minutes
3. 33
working together?
Alternatively In 1 minute tub is filling = 1
Solution Ratio of efficiency = 2 : 1 ( A : B) 20
Ratio of required time = 1 : 2 ( A : B) ⇒ x : 2x 1
In 1 minute tub is emptying =
but 2x − x = 30 ⇒ x = 30 and 2x = 60 60
now efficiency of A = 3.33% and efficiency of B = 1.66% ∴ In 1 minute, effective filling of tub =
1
−
1
=
2
=
1
Combined efficiency of A and B together = 5% 20 60 60 30
∴ time required by A and B working together to finish the work 1
Since part of tub is filled in 1 minute.
100 30
= = 20 days.
5 1
Therefore complete tub will be filled in = 30 minutes
1 1/ 30
NOTE Efficiency ∝
number of time units
∴ Efficiency × time = constant work 8.4 Applications of Inverse
work
Hence, Required time =
efficiency Proportion (or Product Constancy)
Whole work is always considered as 1, in terms of fraction As I have already discussed thoroughly the concept of
and 100%, in terms of percentage. inverse proportion and product constancy in ratio-proportion
100
In general, number of day’s or hours = and it has been widely used in profit loss chapter also.
efficiency
Exp. 5) A can do a works in x days while B can do the Since the efficiency or rate of work done in one unit of time
same work in y days then in how many days will they (mentioned) is inversely proportional to the time i.e., if the
complete the work, working together? rate of work done is greater then the time required will be less
1 1 and if the rate of work done is less then the time required for
Solution A’s one day’s work = , B’s one day’s work =
x y the same amount of work will be more. This product
1 1 x+y constancy method is limited to the constant work, if the
So, both A and B completes + = work in one day.
x y xy amount of work gets changed, then it does not work, then we
x+y have to take help from the unitary method. When more than
Now, by Unitary method work can be completed in 1 day
xy one man/machine work on a particular work/project, the rate
1
∴1 (means complete) work will be finished in days of work is calculated as the strength of workers working in a
( x + y)
particular time. So the amount of work is defined in terms of
xy
man-days or man-hours or man-days-hours.
364 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 1) If 20 persons can do a piece of work in 7 days (b) M1 D1 = M2 D2 , 4 ( 30 × 25) = M2 × 75 ⇒ M2 = 40
then calculate the number of persons required to complete (Since, the work to be done is 4 times of the work done.
the work in 28 days Hence he requires 4 times man-days.)
Solution Number of persons × days = work Alternatively Since the new product (i.e., work) is 4 times of
the original product (i.e., work). But the new product is being
20 × 7 = 140 man-days multiplied by 3. Thus to make it 4 times we have to multiply it by
Now, x × 28 = 140 man-days ⇒ x = 5 4/3. Thus without changing number of days we get the new
Therefore in second case the required number of person is 5. value of number of men which is 40 (being multiplied by 4/3)
Second Method : Since work is constant, therefore Therefore he has to increase 10 more men.
M1 × D1 = M2 × D2 = work done (c) New work = 3750 man-days and the available number of
20 × 7 = M2 × 28 ⇒ M2 = 5 men = 30
Third Method : Men × days = work, which is constant ∴ number of days required =
3750
= 125
20 7 30
3
4 3↑ So, he has to work for extra 50 days where50 = (125 − 75)
5 28 (d) Work = 3000 unit (man-days)
Since number of days is increased by 3 times (i.e., 300%). So the number of available days = 50(75 − 25)
3 3000
number of men will be decreased by times (i.e., 75%) ∴ number of men required = = 60
4 50
(remember percentage change graphic) Thus he has to increase ( 60 − 30) = 30 more men.

Exp. 2) If 25 men can do a piece of work in 36 days Exp. 4) 16 workers working 6 hours a day can build a wall
working 10 hours a day, then how many men are required of length 150 metres, breadth 20 m and height 12 m in 25 days.
to complete the work working 6 hours a day in 20 days? In how many days 12 workers, working 8 hours a day can
Solution M1 × D1 × H1 = M2 × D2 × H2 build a wall of length 800 m, breadth 15 m and height 6 m.
25 × 36 × 10 = M2 × 20 × 6 ⇒ M2 = 75 persons Solution Here work is the volume of the wall. So the work
Alternatively force should be increased/decreased in the ratio of volume
Men × Time of the work. Therefore
25 360 2 [Since product (work) is
L1 B1 H1 MDT
2↑ 3 constant] = 1 11
L2 B2 H2 M2D2T2
75 120
2 where L, B , H are length, breadth and height of the wall
By percentage change graphic, when time is decreased by respectively and M , D , T are men, days and time in hours per
3
(i.e., 66.66%), number of men is increased by 2 times (i.e., 200%) day, respectively. 1 indicates the first case, while 2 indicates
second case. So the ratio of work force remains constant as the
Exp. 3) A contractor employed 30 men to complete the ratio of volume and work.
project in 100 days. But later on he realised that just after 150 × 20 × 12 16 × 6 × 25
∴ = ⇒ D2 = 50
25 days only 20% of the work had been completed. 800 × 15 × 6 12 × 8 × D2
(a) How many extra days, than the scheduled time are required? hence the required number of days = 50
(b) To complete the work on the scheduled time how many Please notice that the volume of work becomes twice (in the
men he has to increase? second case) so the work force will also be twice to the
previous work force.
(c) If the amount of work is also increased by 20% of the
actual work, then how many extra days are required (in
comparison with scheduled time) but the number of men 8.5 Relation Between Efficiencies
remained constant. In this case the efficiencies of different persons are different
(d) How many men should be increased so that the work will but when they work in a group, so the efficiency of the group
be completed in 25 days less than the scheduled time.
is required to know the time taken. For example 3 men can do
Solution
a work in 4 days while 12 boys can do the same work in 3
(a) Men × days = work done
days. It means we need 3 × 4 = 12 man-days i.e., 12 men can
30 × 25 = 750 = 20% of the actual work
finish the job in 1 day.
Now, the work to be done is 4 times than the work done
but the number of days is only 3 times. So he is required Similarly we need 12 × 3 = 36 boys days i.e., 36 boys can
4 times the number of days, thus he has to work for extra finish the same job in 1 day.
25 days.
Time and Work 365

Here we can see that to finish the work in only 1 day 12 men Exp. 3) 6 men and 8 women can do a job in 10 days. In
are needed while 36 boys are needed. Thus we can conclude how many days can 3 men and 4 women finish the same
that work of 12 men is equal to the work of 36 boys. job working together?
Therefore efficiency of 12 men is equal to 36 boys i.e., we Solution Notice here we don’t know the relation of
can say the efficiency of 1 man is equal to 3 boys. efficiencies but we can solve the problem due to clear relation
Thus a man is thrice efficient as a boy or we can say that a between the work force.
man is two times more efficient than a boy. Since 6M + 8W = 10 days
2 ( 3 M + 4W) = 10 days
Exp. 1) 6 boys and 8 women finish a job in 6 days and ⇒ ( 3 M + 4W) = 20 days
14 boys and 10 women finish the same job in 4 days. In Since, the work force has become half of the original force so
how many days working together 1 boy and 1 woman can number of days must be double.
finish the work? Thus required number of days = 20
Solution In this kind of questions we find the work force Exp. 4) A can complete a work in 12 days, B in 15 days.
required to complete the work in 1 day (or given unit of time) Find the time taken by them :
then we equate the work force to find the relationship (a) when A and B worked together.
between the efficiencies (or work rate) between the different (b) when A and B worked alternatively started by A.
workers. (c) when A and B worked alternatively started by B.
Therefore 6B + 8W = 6 days (d) if A started two days later, in comparison to B.
⇒ 6 ( 6B + 8W) = 1 day (inversely proportional) (e) if B started two days later, in comparison to A.
⇒ 36B + 48W = 1 (by unitary method) (f) if A leaves two days before the actual completion of the
Again 14B + 10W = 4 days work.
⇒ 56B + 40W = 1 (g) if B leaves two days before the actual completion of the
So, here it is clear that either we employ 36B and 48W to finish work.
the work in 1 day or 56B and 40W to finish the same job in (h) if A leaves two days before the scheduled completion of
1 day. Thus, we can say
the work.
⇒ 36B + 48W = 56B + 40W (i) if B leaves two days before the scheduled completion of
⇒ 20B = 8W the work.
⇒ W = 2.5B (j) if B does negative work with his same work rate.
Thus a woman is 2.5 times as efficient as a boy.
Solution (a) A’s efficiency = 8.33%
Now, since 36B + 48W = 1
B’s efficiency = 6.66%
⇒ 36B + 48 × ( 2.5B) = 1
Combined efficiency = 15%
⇒ 156B = 1 100 2
i.e., to finish the job in 1 day 156 boys are required or the So, the required time = = 6 days.
15 3
amount of work is 156 boys-days. (b) In every two days A and B work 15%. So in 12 days they
Again 1W + 1B = 2.5B + 1B = 3.5B will complete 90% work. Now on the 13th day, A will
Now, since 156 boys can finish the job in 1 day finish 8.33% of the remaining (i.e., 10% work) and the rest
So 1 boy can finish the job in 1 × 156 days 1.66% will be finished by B on 14th day by taking time
∴ 3.5 boys can finish the job in 1.66 1
= = day.
1 × 156 4 6.66 4
= 44 days 1 1
3.5 7 Thus, total required time = 12 + 1 + = 13 days.
NOTE There is a great difference between ‘and’ & ‘or’ For 4 4
example 4 men and 8 women can do a piece of work in 10 days : See the chart below :
Day 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
means it is unknown that who is faster or slower (i.e., we don’t know Work 8.33 6.66 8.33 6.66 8.33 6.66 8.33 6.66 8.33 6.66 8.33 6.66 8.33 1.66
the relation between efficiencies of a man and a woman). Again, 4
15 15 15 15 15 15
men or 8 women can do a piece of work in 10 days : means 4 men are
equal to 8 women. Hence a man is twice efficient as a woman. 15 × 6 = 90% 10%

(c) Here the difference is in the last day/days only.

Exp. 2) 6 men and 8 women can do a job in 10 days. In See the chart below :
how many days can 5 men and 9 women do the same job? Day 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Work 6.66 8.33 6.66 8.33 6.66 8.33 6.66 8.33 6.66 8.33 6.66 8.33 6.66 3.33
Solution Since we don’t know the relation between work rate
15 15 15 15 15 15 10
(or efficiency) between a man and that of a woman so we
can’t find the required number of days. 15 × 6 = 90% 10%
366 QUANTUM CAT
So, after the completion of 90% work in 12 days, on the work (scheduled) which is equal to 30% (since if A and B
13th day 6.66% work will be finished by B and then 3.33% working together can finish 30% work in 2 days) will be
(the last part of the work) will be finished by A by taking done by B only.
3. 33 2 ∴ required time to complete 30% work by B alone
time = = day.
8. 33 5 30
2 2 = = 45. days
Thus, the required time = 12 + 1 + = 13 days. 6.66
5 5 Thus the total required time to finish the whole work
(d) It means B worked for 2 days more than A has worked 2 1 1
for. Now, since B completes 2 × 6.66 = 13. 33% work in = 4 + 4 = 9 days.
3 2 6
two days. So the remaining work will be done by A and B
(i) Very similar to the case (h) A and B worked only for
together. 2 2
Therefore the time taken by A and B, working together 4 days (2 days less than the scheduled time 6 days)
3 3
86.66 (remaining work) 7
= = 5 days 2
15 (combined efficiency) 9 (It is obvious that in 4 days A and B, working together
3
Thus the total required time to finish the whole work completes 70% work, but we can directly calculate that
7 7 they can complete 30% if they work together, in 2 days)
= 2 + 5 = 7 days.
9 9 Thus 30% work is done by A alone
(e) It means A alone worked for 2 days which is equal to 30 3
∴ time taken = = 3 days
8. 33 × 2 = 16.66% 8. 33 5
So, the remaining (83.33%) work will be done by A and B 2 3 4
Thus, the total time = 4 + 3 = 8 days.
together. 3 5 15
83. 33 5 (j) Combined efficiency of A and B = (8.33) + (– 6.66)
∴ Time taken together = = 5 days
15 9 = 1.66%
5 5
Thus, the total required time = 2 + 5 = 7 days. ∴Time required by A and B working together
9 9
100
(f) ‘A leaves two days before the actual completion of the = = 60 days
1.66
work’ means in the last two days B has worked alone
(Negative work means, B works against A)
which is 6.66 × 2 = 13. 33%
Therefore the remaining work i.e., 86.66% work was only Exp. 5) A can complete a work in 10 days, B in 12 days
86.66 7 and C in 15 days. All of them began the work together, but
done by A and B together in = 5 days
15 9 A had to leave the work after 2 days of the start and B
7 7 3 days before the completion of the work. How long did
Thus, the required time = 2 + 5 = 7 days.
9 9 the work last?
NOTE This case is exactly same as part (d) of the same example.
The difference is only in order of days. In part (d) B worked alone Solution See the diagram and then interpret the language of
initially for 2 days and in part (f) B worked alone in the last 2 days. the question.
(g) Applying the same concept as above we can calculate the Initial Last
2 days 3 days
required number of days which is same as in case (e)
A+B+C B+C C
Work A+B A
15% × 2
2 25 × 2 6.66 × 3
15 × 5 8. 33 × 2 = 50% [100 – (50 + 20)] = 20%
5
83.33% 16.66%
Since initially for 2 days all of them A , B and C work together
(h) ‘A leaves two days before the scheduled completion of
2 so they complete the 50% work and for the last 3 days only C
the work’ means A works with B only for 4 days since works which is equal to 20% work.
3
2 Thus, the remaining work = 30%[100 − (50 + 20)]
the scheduled time is 6 [see the case (a)]  30
3 This 30% work was done by B and C in 2 days =   .
 15 
Scheduled time is the time in which work could be
NOTE Efficiency of A = 10%
finished by working together without any change in
Efficiency of B = 8.33%
efficiency or work force. Now since both A and B have Efficiency of C = 6.66%
2
worked together for 4 days it means the last 2 days So, the total number of required days = 2 + 2 + 3 = 7 days.
3
Time and Work 367

CAT-Test
Questions Helping you bell the CAT

LEVEL 01 > BASIC LEVEL EXERCISE

1 A can finish a piece of work in 12 days while B can do it in 10 A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish
15 days. If both work at it together, what time will they a piece of work in 14 days. In how many days can A alone
take to do the work? finish the work?
(a) 6 days (b) 8 days (a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 21 (d) 24
2 1 11 A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish
(c) 6 days (d) 10 days
3 5 a piece of work in 7 days. In how many days can A alone
2 A can do a piece of work in 10 days, B can do it in 12 days finish the work?
and C can do it in 15 days. In how many days can they (a) 10 (b) 10.5 (c) 12 (d) 11
complete the work, working together? 12 A is thrice as good a workman as B and takes 10 days less to
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10 do a piece of work than B takes. The number of days taken
3 A can do a piece of work in 5 days, B can do it in 10 days. by B to finish the work is :
With the help of C, they finish the work in 2 days. In how (a) 9 (b) 18 (c) 15 (d) 12
many days can C alone do the whole work? 13 A is twice as good a workman as B and therefore A takes
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 6 days less than B to finish the work individually. If
4 A can do a piece of work in 8 days, B can do it in 16 days, A and B working together complete the work in 4 days,
while C can do it in 80 days. In how many days can they then how many days are required by B to complete the
complete the whole work, working together? work alone?
2 2 (a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 8 (d) 6
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 20
3 5 14 A is thrice efficient as B and C is twice as efficient as B.
5 A can do a piece of work in 10 days, B can do it in 15 days What is the ratio of number of days taken by A, B and C ,
working together they can finish the work in : when they work individually?
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6 (a) 2 : 6 : 3 (b) 2 : 3 : 6 (c) 1 : 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 1 : 2
6 A can do a piece of work in 24 days, while B can do it in 15 Ajit is 3 times as efficient as Bablu, then the ratio of number
30 days. With the help of C they can finish the whole work in of days required by each to work alone, completely?
12 days. How much time is required for C to complete the (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
work, alone? (c) 6 : 3 (d) 3 : 6
(a) 100 days (b) 120 days 16 X is 4 times more efficient as Y, then the number of days
(c) 125 days (d) 72 days
taken by X and Y are in the ratio :
7 A can do a piece of work in 10 days. B can do it in 24 days. (a) 8 : 1 (b) 1 : 5 (c) 6 : 8 (d) 5 : 1
If C also works with them then it takes only 6 days to 17 If A takes 4/5 days as B takes and working together they
complete the whole work. In how many days can C alone 20
complete the whole work? require days to complete the whole work. What is the
3
(a) 25 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) 75 efficiency of B ?
8 A can do a piece of work in 14 days while B can do it in 2 1
(a) 6 % (b) 16% (c) 5.55% (d) 8 %
21 days. In how many days, working together will they 3 3
complete the whole work? 18 A is thrice as efficient as B. Working together they complete
(a) 10.5 (b) 8 (c) 8.4 (d) 9 the work in 3 days. If B takes 8 days more than A, what is
9 A can do a piece of work in 24 days. If B is 60% more the number of days taken by A to finish the whole work,
efficient than A, then the number of days required by B to alone?
do the same piece of work is : (a) 4 (b) 2
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 12 (d) 9.6 (c) 12 (d) 16
368 QUANTUM CAT
19 A and B can do a piece of work in 8 days, B and C can do 27 Krishna can do a work in 10 days while Mohan can do the
the same work in 12 days and A and C complete it in same work in 20 days. They started work together. After
8 days. In how many days can A, B and C complete the 3 days Krishna left the work and Mohan completed it. For
whole work, working together? how many days Mohan worked alone more than the
(a) 4 (b) 6 number of days required when both worked together?
(c) 12 (d) 9 1 1 3 2
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 3
3 4 5 3
20 A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days, B and C in
15 days C and A in 20 days. In how many days can C alone 28 Kareena can do a piece of work in 9 days and Karishma can
do it? do the same work in 18 days. They started the work. After
(a) 60 (b) 50 3 days Shahid joined them, who can complete alone the
(c) 25 (d) 24 same whole work in 3 days. What is the total number of
days in which they had completed the work?
21 Ganga, Jamuna and Saraswati can do a piece of work,
(a) 12 (b) 8
working together, in 1 day. Ganga is thrice efficient as
Jamuna and Jamuna takes the twice the number of days as (c) 4 (d) 6
Saraswati takes to do it alone. What is the difference 29 Kavita, Babita and Samita started a work. 5 days later
between the number of days taken by Ganga and Samita left the work and Babita left the work after working
Saraswati? 8 days. In how many more days Kavita would have
(a) 1 (b) 2 completed the rest work if they take 20, 60 and 30 days
(c) 3 (d) 4 individually to finish a work?
22 A can finish a work in 12 days and B can do it in 15 days. (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8
After A had worked for 3 days, B also joined A to finish the 30 The ratio of efficiency of A is to C is 5 : 3. The ratio of
remaining work. In how many days, the remaining work number of days taken by B is to C is 2 : 3. A takes 6 days less
will be finished? than C, when A and C completes the work individually.
(a) 3 (b) 4 B and C started the work and left after 2 days. The number
(c) 5 (d) 6 of days taken by A to finish the remaining work is :
23 Raja can do a piece of work in 14 days, while Rani can do 1
(a) 4.5 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 9
the same work in 21 days. They started the work together 3
but 3 days before the completion of the work, Raja left the 31 Anand can do a piece of work in 45 days, but Bahuguna can
work. The total number of days to complete the work is : do the same work in 5 days less, than Anand, when
(a) 7 (b) 8.5 working alone. Anand and Bahuguna both started the work
1 together but Bahuguna left after some days and Anand
(c) 5 (d) 7
5 finished the remaining work in 56 days with half of his
24 A and B can complete a task in 30 days when working efficiency but he did the work with Bahuguna with his
together after A and B have been working together for complete efficiency. For how many days did they work
11 days, B is called away and A, all by himself completes together?
the task in the next 28 days. Had A been working alone, the (a) 6 (b) 8
number of days taken by him to complete the task would (c) 9 (d) 12
have been : 32 Chandni and Divakar can do a piece of work in 9 days and
3 6 12 days respectively. If they work for a day alternatively,
(a) 33 (b) 19
19 25 beginning with Chandni, then in how many days will the
4 work gets completed ?
(c) 44 (d) none of these
19 1 1
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 11.11 (d) 10
25 Sonu can do a piece of work in 20 days. He started the work 4 5
and left after some days, when 25% work was done. After it 33 Fatima and Zahira can do a piece of work in 12 days and 15
Abhijeet joined and completed it working for 10 days. In days respectively. If they work for alternate day and Fatima
how many days Sonu and Abhijeet can do the complete starts the work first, then in how many days will the work
work, working together? gets completed ?
(a) 6 (b) 8 1 1 1
(c) 10 (d) 12 (a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 13 (d) 15
5 4 5
26 Efficiency of Asha is 25% more than Usha and Usha takes 34 In the previous question if Zahira starts first, then in how
25 days to complete a piece of work. Asha started a work
many days will the work gets completed ?
alone and then usha joined her 5 days before actual 1
completion of the work. For how many days did Asha work (a) 14 (b) 14
5
alone? 1 2
(a) 9 (b) 11 (c) 10 (d) 15 (c) 13 (d) 13
5 5
Time and Work 369

35 The number of days required by A, B and C to work 44 30 persons can do a piece of work in 24 days. How many
individually is 6, 12 and 8 respectively. They started a work more people are required to complete the work in 20 days?
doing it alternatively. If A has started then followed by B (a) 4 (b) 5
and so on, how many days are needed to complete the (c) 6 (d) none of these
whole work? 45 12 women can do a piece of work in 20 days. If the
1
(a) 8 (b) 7.5 (c) 8.5 (d) 9 4 women deny to work, then how many more days are
2 required?
36 In the previous question if the order of working days be as (a) 6 (b) 10
B, C , A, B, C , A K (starting with B and followed by C and A (c) 15 (d) none of these
respectively), then in how many days the work will be
46 35 boys can do a piece of work in 15 days. The work was
completed?
3 1 completed in 25 days. How many boys did not turn up for
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 8 (d) 9 the job?
4 4
(a) 14 (b) 20
37 A takes 6 days less than B to do a certain job and 2 days
(c) 6 (d) 7
more than C. A and B together can do the work in the same
time as C. In how many days B alone can do the complete 47 24 men can complete a job in 40 days. The number of men
work? required to complete the job in 32 days is :
(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 12 (d) 16 (a) 30 (b) 40
(c) 25 (d) 50
38 A and B undertook a work for ` 350. A got ` 150 more than
that of B, when they worked together. B takes 9 days more 48 16 men finished one-third work in 6 days. The number of
than A, when they work individually. In how many days additional men are required to complete the job in next
A and B working together can do the whole work : 6 days :
2 5 4 (a) 10 (b) 8
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 4 (d) 5
7 7 7 (c) 16 (d) 32
39 Alen and Border can do a work individually in 21 and 49 If 10 persons can do a job in 20 days, then 20 person with
42 days respectively. In how many days they can complete twice the efficiency can do the same job in :
the work, working alternatively? (a) 5 days (b) 40 days
(a) 14 (b) 28 (c) 42 (d) 35 (c) 10 days (d) 20 days
40 C takes twice the number of days to do a piece of work than 50 A certain job was assigned to a group of men to do in
A takes. A and B together can do it in 6 days while B and C 20 days. But 12 men did not turn up for the job and the
can do it in 10 days. In how many days A alone can do the remaining men did the job in 32 days. The original number
work? of men in the group was :
(a) 60 (b) 30 (a) 32 (b) 36
(c) 6 (d) 7.5 (c) 42 (d) 40
41 When A, B and C are deployed for a task, A and B together 51 30 workers can finish a work in 20 days. After how many
do 70% of the work and B and C together do 50% of the days should 9 workers leave the job so that the work is
work. Who is most efficient? completed in total 26 days :
(a) A (b) B (a) 12 (b) 10
(c) C (d) can’t be determined (c) 6 (d) none of these
42 Colonel, Major and General started a work together 52 25 men can complete a job in 30 days. After how many days
8
for ` 816. Colonel and Major did of the total work, while should the strength of work force be increased by 50 men
17 2
12 so that the work will be completed in rd of the actual
Major and General together did of the whole work. 3
17
time:
What is the amount of the least efficient person?
(a) 15 (b) 10
(a) ` 256 (b) ` 144
(c) 18 (d) 5
(c) ` 85 (d) can’t be determined
53 A group of workers can complete a job in 120 days. If there
43 Sharma is 20% less efficient than Kelkar. If Kelkar can do a
piece of work in 24 days. The number of days required by were 4 more such workers then the work could be finished
Sharma to complete the same work alone? in 12 days less. What was the actual strength of workers?
(a) 20 (b) 30 (a) 30 workers (b) 40 workers
(c) 28.8 (d) can’t be determined (c) 42 workers (d) 36 workers
370 QUANTUM CAT
54 Mr. Modi can copy 40 pages in 10 minutes, Mr Xerox and 63 A, B and C received total ` 27,000 for the whole work.
Mr. Modi both working together can copy 250 in What is the share of C, if the money is distributed in the
25 minutes. In how many minutes Mr. Xerox can copy ratio of amount of work done, individually?
36 pages? (a) 2700 (b) 7200
(a) 5 minutes (b) 6 minutes (c) 14400 (d) 6300
(c) 3 minutes (d) 12 minutes
Directions : Solve the following questions individually.
1
55 20 persons completed rd of the work in 12 days. How
3 64 314 weavers weaves 6594 shawls in 1 / 6 hours. What is
many more person are required to finish the rest work in the number of shawls weaved per hour by an average
next 12 days? weaver?
(a) 20 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 40 (a) 42 (b) 21 (c) 102 (d) 126
56 A contractor undertook a work to complete in 60 days. But 65 Three men and two women can do a piece of work in
1 4 days, while two men and three women can do the same
just after 20 days he observed that only th of the project
5 work in 5 days. ` 44 is given to a woman for her
work had been completed. To complete the work in time contribution towards work, per day. What is the amount
(i.e., in rest days) minimum how many workers he had to received by a man per day?
increase, if there were initially 75 workers were deployed (a) ` 88 (b) ` 144
for the task? (c) ` 154 (d) can’t be determined
(a) 25 (b) 50 66 30 girls can finish a work in 40 days. After how many days
(c) 75 (d) can’t be determined should 10 girls leave the work so that it may be finished in
57 6 men or 10 women can reap a field in 15 days, then the 46 days, if all the 30 girls started the work?
number of days that 12 men and 5 women will take to reap (a) 18 days (b) 28 days
the same field is : (c) 22 days (d) 30 days
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12
67 If 8 women collect 200 kg of tea leaves in 10 hours. How
58 If 2 men or 3 women or 4 boys can do a piece of work in many more (in kg) of tea leaves will 12 women collect in
52 days, then the same piece of work will be done by 8 hours?
1 man, 1 woman and 1 boy in : (a) 24 kg (b) 40 kg
(a) 48 days (b) 36 days (c) 50 kg (d) 100 kg
(c) 45 days (d) none of these
68 450 man-days of work can be completed by a certain
59 2 men or 5 women or 7 boys can finish a work in 469 days, number of men in some days. If the number of people
then the number of days taken by 7 men, 5 women and
(men) are increased by 27, then the number of day
2 boys to finish the work is :
required to complete the same work is decreased by 15.
(a) 134 (b) 106
The number of days are required to complete the three
(c) 100 (d) 98
times work (than the previous/actual work) by 27 men?
60 6 children and 2 men complete a certain piece of work in (a) 50 (b) 60 (c) 54 (d) 45
6 days. Each child takes twice the time taken by a man to
69 4 boys and 5 girls can do a piece of work in 10 days. 6 boys
finish the work. In how many days will 5 men finish the
and 6 girls can do the same work in 7 days. In how many
same work?
(a) 6 (b) 8 days can 2 boys and 7 girls complete the same work,
(c) 9 (d) 15 working together?
(a) 15 days (b) 14 days
61 2 men and 3 women finish 25% of the work in 4 days, while
(c) 21 days (d) 18 days
6 men and 14 women can finish the whole work in 5 days.
In how many days will 20 women finish it? 70 If 20 engineers and 20 workers can together construct a
(a) 20 (b) 25 20 km road in 20 days. 40 engineers and 40 workers
(c) 24 (d) 88 together construct 40 km road in how many days?
(a) 10 (b) 20
Directions (for Q. Nos. 62 and 63) A can do a work in 15 days and
B can do it in 18 days. With the help of C, all of them complete the (c) 40 (d) can’t be determined
work in 6 days. 71 ( x − 2) men can do a piece of work in x days and ( x + 7 )
men can do 75% of the same work in ( x − 10) days. Then in
62 How long will it take C to finish the work alone?
how many days can ( x + 10) men finish the work?
(a) 30 days (b) 22 days
45 (a) 27 days (b) 12 days
(c) days (d) 25 days (c) 25 days (d) 18 days
2
Time and Work 371

72 A man, a woman and a girl worked for a contractor for the 79 There was a leakage in the container of the refined oil. If
same period. A man is twice efficient as a woman and a 11 kg oil is leaked out per day then it would have lasted for
woman is thrice efficient as a girl ` 10000 were given to all 50 days, if the leakage was 15 kg per day, then it would
of them. What is the sum of money received by a woman have lasted for only 45 days. For how many days would the
and a girl together? oil have lasted, if there was no leakage and it was
(a) ` 5500 (b) ` 4500 completely used for eating purpose?
(c) ` 4000 (d) ` 6000 (a) 80 days (b) 72 days
73 33 men can do a job in 30 days. If 44 men started the job (c) 100 days (d) 120 days
together and after every day of the work, one person 80 A contractor undertook to complete the work in 40 days
leaves. What is the minimum number of days required to and he deployed 20 men for his work. 8 days before the
complete the whole work? 1
scheduled time he realised that rd of the work was still to
(a) 21 (b) 42 3
(c) 45 (d) none of these be done. How many more men were required to complete
74 Abhishek can do a piece of work in 40 days. He alone the work in stipulated time?
worked at it for 8 days and then Bacchhan completed alone (a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25
the rest work in 24 days. In how many days they will 81 7 Indian and 4 Chinese finish a job in 5 days. 7 Japanese
complete the whole work, working together? and 3 Chinese finish the same job in 7 days. Given that the
1 1 efficiency of each person of a particular nationality is same
(a) 17 days (b) 18 days
7 7 but different from others. One Indian, one Chinese and one
1 Japanese will complete the work in :
(c) 9 days (d) 14 days 3 5
6 (a) 18 days (b) 20 days
13 12
75 C is twice efficient as A. B takes thrice as many days as C. A 6 7
takes 12 days to finish the work alone. If they work in pairs (c) 21 days (d) 20 days
14 12
(i.e., AB, BC , CA) starting with AB on the first day then BC
82 A, B and C are three book binders. A takes 8 minutes,
on the second day and AC on the third day and so on, then
how many days are required to finish the work? B takes 12 minutes and C takes 16 minutes to bind a book.
1 If they work each day for 12 hours, then on an average,
(a) 6 days (b) 4.5 days how many books each one bind per day?
5
1 (a) 65 (b) 52 (c) 48 (d) 70
(c) 5 days (d) 8 days
9 83 A piece of work can be completed by 10 men and 6 women
76 Ahluwalia and Bimal together take 6 days to finish the in 18 days. Men works 9 hours per day while women works
work. Bimal and Jalan together take 10 days to finish the 7.5 hours per day. Per hour efficiency of a woman is 2 / 3rd
work. What is the difference between number of days taken of a man’s efficiency. In how many days 10 men and 9
by Ahluwalia and Jalan when they worked alone to women complete the work?
complete the whole work? (a) 16 days (b) 20 days (c) 30 days (d) 25 days
(a) 12 days 84 B and C are equally efficient, but the efficiency of A is half
(b) 16 days of each B and C . A and B started a work and 3 days later C
(c) 15 days joined them. If A alone can do the work in 14 days, then in
(d) can’t be determined how many more days the work will be completed?
77 B is twice efficient as A and A can do a piece of work in (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4.5
15 days. A started the work and after a few days B joined 85 A can do a piece of work in 10 days, B in 15 days. They
him. They completed the work in 11 days, from the work together for 5 days, the rest of the work is finished by
starting. For how many days they worked together? C in two more days. If they get ` 3000 as wages for the
(a) 1 day (b) 2 days whole work, what are the daily wages of A, B and C
(c) 6 days (d) 5 days respectively (in `) :
78 A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 15, 30 and (a) 200,250,300 (b) 300,200,250
40 days respectively. They started the work together and A (c) 200,300,400 (d) none of these
left 2 days before the completion of the work and B left 4 86 A can do a piece of work in 2 hours, B can do thrice the
days before the completion of the work. In how many days work in 8 hours and ‘C’ can do the same work as A in
was the work completed? 8 hours. If all of them work together, how long it would
3 2 take them to complete the work :
(a) 7 (b) 10
10 15 (a) 1 hour (b) 2 hours
7 (c) 3 hours (d) 4 hours
(c) 10 (d) none of these
30
372 QUANTUM CAT
87 A is twice efficient as B and together they do the same work 95 Tap A can fill a tank in 20 hours, B in 25 hours but tap C can
in as much time as C and D together. If C and D can empty a full tank in 30 hours. Starting with A, followed by
complete the work in 20 and 30 days respectively, working B and C each tap opens alternatively for one hour period
alone, then in how many days A can complete the work till the tank gets filled up completely. In how many hour
individually : the tank will be filled up completely?
(a) 12 days (b) 18 days (c) 24 days (d) 30 days 11 2
(a) 51 (b) 52
88 4 men and 2 boys can finish a piece of work in 5 days. 15 3
4
3 women and 4 boys can finish the same work in 5 days. (c) 24 (d) none of these
Also 2 men and 3 women can finish the same work in 11
5 days. In how many days 1 man, 1 woman and one boy 96 If one pipe A can fill a tank in 20 minutes, then 5 pipes,
can finish the work, at their double efficiency? each of 20% efficiency of A, can fill the tank in :
8 7 (a) 80 min (b) 100 min
(a) 4 (b) 4
13 13 (c) 20 min (d) 25 min
7 97 Pipe A basically used as inlet pipe and pipe B is used as
(c) 3 (d) none of these
13 outlet pipe. Pipes A and B both are opened simultaneously,
89 If m men can do a work in r days, then the number of days all the time. When pipe A fills the tank and B empty the
taken by (m + n) men to do it is : tank, it will take double the time than when both the pipe
m+ n m+ n mr (m + n) r fill the tank. When pipe B is used for filling the tank, its
(a) (b) (c) (d)
mn mr (m + n) mn efficiency remains constant. What is the ratio of efficiency
90 Pipe A can fill a tank in 36 minutes and pipe B can fill it in of pipe A and pipe B respectively?
45 minutes. If both the pipes are opened to fill an empty (a) 3 : 1 (b) 5 : 2
tank, in how many minutes will it be full? (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 2
(a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 20 (d) 25 98 Pipe A can fill the tank in 4 hours, while pipe B can fill it in
91 Tap A can fill the empty tank in 12 hours, but due to a leak 6 hours working separately. Pipe C can empty whole the
in the bottom it is filled in 15 hours. If the tank is full and tank in 4 hours. He opened the pipe A and B
then tap A is closed then in how many hours the leak can simultaneously to fill the empty tank. He wanted to adjust
empty it? his alarm so that he could open the pipe C when it was
(a) 45 hours (b) 48 hours half-filled, but he mistakenely adjusted his alarm at a time
(c) 52 hours (d) 60 hours when his tank would be 3/4th filled. What is the time
difference between both the cases, to fill the tank fully
92 Pipe A and B can fill a cistern in 10 hours and 15 hours
(a) 48 min (b) 54 min
respectively. When a third pipe C which works as an outlet (c) 30 min (d) none of these
pipe is also open then the cistern can be filled in 18 hours.
99 Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 15 hours and
The outlet pipe can empty a full cistern in :
(a) 12 hours (b) 8 hours 10 hours respectively. A tap C can empty the full cistern in
(c) 9 hours (d) 14 hours 30 hours. All the three taps were open for 2 hours, when it
was remembered that the emptying tap had been left open.
93 A cistern has a leak which would empty it in 6 hours. A tap
It was then closed. How many hours more would it take for
is turned on which fills the cistern @ 10 liters per hour and
the cistern to be filled?
then it is emptied in 15 hours. What is the capacity of the
(a) 30 min (b) 1.2 hours
cistern?
(c) 24 min (d) 35 min
(a) 100 litres (b) 166.66 litres
(c) 60.66 litres (d) none of these 100 Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 30 hours while B can fill it
in 45 hours. Pipe A and B are opened and closed
94 Tap a fills a tank in 10 hours and B can fill it in 15 hours.
alternatively i.e., first pipe A is opened, then B, again A and
Both are opened simultaneously. Sometimes later tap B
was closed, then it takes total 8 hours to fill up the whole then B and so on for 1 hour each time without any time
tank. After how many hours B was closed? lapse. In how many hours the tank will be filled when it
(a) 2 (b) 3 was empty, initially?
(c) 4 (d) 5 (a) 36 (b) 54 (c) 48 (d) 60
Time and Work 373

LEVEL 02 > HIGHER LEVEL EXERCISE

1 A, B and C three weavers have to supply an order of 6 Working together B and C take 50% more number of days
100 shawls. A can weave a shawl in 2 hours, B in 3 hours than A, B and C together take and A and B working
and C in 4 hours respectively. It is known that even being a 8
together, take more number of days than A, B and C take
joint contract each one weaves his own shawl completely 3
i.e., no other weaver help to the rest weavers. In how many together. If A, B and C all have worked together till the
hours they will complete the order irrespective of day or completion of the work and B has received ` 120 out of the
night? total earning of ` 450, then in how many days did
(a) 93 hours (b) 100 hours A, B and C together complete the whole work?
4 (a) 10 (b) 6
(c) 92 hours (d) 94 hours
13 (c) 4 (d) 2
2 Arun and Satyam can complete a work individually in 7 At Technosys Pvt Ltd. there are some engineering students
12 working days and 15 working days respectively with employed as trainee engineers, belong to two eminent
their full efficiencies. Arun does work only on Monday, institutions of India. One group belong to MIT and another
Wednesday and Friday while Satyam does the work on to NIT. Each student of MIT works for 10 hours a day till
Tuesday, Thursday and Saturday. Sunday is always off. But 60 days and each student of NIT works for 8 hours till
80 days on the two same projects. The ratio of number of
Arun and Satyam both works with half of their efficiencies
students of MIT and that of NIT is 4 : 5 respectively.
on Friday and Saturday respectively. If Arun started the
Students of which institution is slower in work and by how
work on Ist January which falls on Monday followed by
much?
Satyam on the next day and so on (i.e., they work
(a) Each student of MIT is 20% less efficient than that of
collectively in alternate days), then on which day work will
NIT
be completed?
(a) Tuesday (b) Each student of NIT is 33.33% less efficient than that
(b) Wednesday of MIT
(c) Thursday (c) Each student of NIT is 25% less efficient than that of
(d) Friday MIT
3 Kaushalya can do a work in 20 days, while Kaikeyi can do (d) Each student of MIT is 33.33% less efficient than that
the same work in 25 days. They started the work jointly. of NIT
Few days later Sumitra also joined them and thus all of
Directions (for Q. Nos 8 to 10) At Arihant Prakashan every book
them completed the whole work in 10 days. All of them goes through 3 phases (or stages) typing, composing and binding.
were paid total ` 700. What is the share of Sumitra? There are 16 typists, 10 composers and 15 binders. A typist can
(a) ` 130 type 8 books in each hour, a composer can compose 12 books in
(b) ` 185 each hour and a binder can bind 12 books in each hour. All of the
(c) ` 70 people at Arihant Prakashan works for 10 hours a day and each
(d) can’t be determined person is trained to do only the job of 1 category.
4 A and B can complete the work individually in 24 days and
8 How many books can be prepared in each day?
30 days respectively, working 10 hours a day. Work is to be
(a) 1500 (b) 1200
done in two shift. Morning shift lasts for 6 hours and
(c) 1440 (d) 1380
evening shift lasts for 4 hours. On the first day A works in
the morning shift while B works in the evening shift. Next 9 If company has hired 12 more people, who can do any of
day A works in the evening shift while B works in the the three jobs, then maximum how many books can be
morning shift and so on. It means they work alternatively prepared in each day?
with respect to their shifts. Thus they work on this pattern (a) 1500 (b) 1680
till the work is completed. On which day the work got (c) 1800 (d) more than 2000
completed? 10 If company wanted to reduce the number of employees by
(a) 26th day (b) 27th day 3, then from which category it reduces the number of
(c) 28th day (d) 30th day employees without reducing the amount of production of
books?
5 In the previous question what per cent of the time of the
(a) It should reduce two binders and 1 typist
morning shift was utilised? (b) It should reduce three binders only
(a) 33.33% (b) 60% (c) It should reduce 1 typist, 1 composer and 1 binder
(c) 100% (d) none of these (d) both (a) and (b) are possible
374 QUANTUM CAT
11 Bunty and Babli working together completed a job in Directions (for Q. Nos. 16 to 20) Mr. Stenley employed a certain
8 days. If Bunty worked twice efficiently as he actually did number of typists for his project. 8 days later 20% of the typist left
1 the job and it was found that it took as much time to complete the
and Babli worked as efficiently as she actually did, the
3 rest work from then as the entire work needed with all the
work would have been completed in 6 days. Find the time employed typists. The average speed of a typist is 20 pages/hour.
taken by Bunty to complete the job alone : 16 How many typists left the work?
38
(a) 8 days (b) days (a) 10 (b) 5
35
(c) 16 (d) can’t be determined
15 1
(c) days (d) 13 days 17 Minimum how many typist could be employed?
2 3
(a) 10 (b) 5
12 A single reservoir supplies the petrol to the whole city,
(c) 15 (d) 4
while the reservoir is fed by a single pipeline filling the
reservoir with the stream of uniform volume. When the 18 What could be the number of typists remained at work
reservoir is full and if 40,000 litres of petrol is used daily, when 20% of the employed typists left the job?
the supply fails in 90 days. If 32,000 litres of petrol is used (a) 15 (b) 18
daily, it fails in 60 days. How much petrol can be used daily (c) 68 (d) 78
without the supply ever failing? 19 What is the actual number of days required, when it is done
(a) 64000 litres (b) 56000 litres with actual work force, through out the completion :
(c) 78000 litres (d) 60000 litres (a) 32 days (b) 48 days
13 Railneer is packaged in a water bottling plant, with the (c) 40 days (d) can’t be determined
help of two machines M 1 and M 2. M 1 and M 2 produces 20 16 days after the 20% typist left the job it was decided to
400 and 600 bottles per minute. One day’s production can complete the work on time by increasing the work-force
be processed by M 1 operating alone for 9 hours, by M 2 again. By how much percentage increase in work-force is
operating alone for 6 hours or by both M 1 and M 2 required?
operating simultaneously for 3 hours and 36 minutes. (a) 100% (b) 50%
If one days production is processed by M 1 operating alone (c) 200% (d) none of these
1 21 Five tailors A, B, C , D and E stich 1800 shirts in 90 days
for of the time and M 1 and M 2 simultaneously operating
3
working alternatively. Find the minimum possible number
2
for of the time, then in how many hours total production of shirts that can be stiched in a single day by working
3
together :
of one day will be completed?
(a) 100 (b) 20 (c) 50 (d) 4
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4.5 (d) 4.8 Directions (for Q. Nos. 22 and 23) 8 men and 5 women working
6 hours a day can complete a work in 4 days. Also 4 men and
Directions (for Q. Nos. 14 and 15) A contractor employed a 5 women working for 8 hours a day can complete the same job in
certain number of workers to finish constructing a road in a 5 days. Similarly 5 boys working 8 hours a day can complete the
certain scheduled time. Sometime later, when a part of work had same job in 30 days.
been completed, he realised that the work would get delayed by
three-fourth of the scheduled time, so he at once doubled the 22 If 4 men, 3 women and 4 boys worked together everyday
number of workers and thus he managed to finish the road on the for 5 hours, then in how many days they have completed
scheduled time. the work?
(a) 3 (b) 4
14 How much work he had been completed, before increasing (c) 8 (d) 6
the number of workers?
2 23 If women and children (boys) can’t be employed, then
(a) 10% (b) 14 % minimum how many men are required to complete the job
7
(c) 20% (d) can’t be determined in 6 days if the working hours per day cannot exceed 9?
(a) 4 (b) 5
15 Some-time after the new workers were introduced, all of
(c) 6 (d) 7
the newly introduced workers left the work due to heavy
rain and the efficiency of the remaining workers reduced 24 Eklavya can do the 6 times the actual work in 36 days while
by 20% due to which the work finally got completed by Faizal can do the one-fourth of the original work in 3 days.
delay of 60% of the scheduled time then how much work In how many days will both working together complete the
still remained incomplete by the end of the scheduled 3 times of the original work?
time? (a) 6 (b) 10
3 5 (c) 12 (d) 15
(a) 17 % (b) 21% (c) 27 % (d) 28%
5 7
Time and Work 375

25 Progressive Company Pvt. Ltd. hired some employees in a 31 Brahma, Vishnu and Mahesh are three friends with
fix pattern. On the first day it hired one person, on the different productivity. Brahma working alone needs as
second day one more joined him. On the third, fourth etc much time as Vishnu and Mahesh working together, while
(i.e., every next day) one more person increased in this Vishnu himself needs 8 hours more working alone than
group. The capacity of each person was same. The whole when he works with Mahesh. Brahma working alone needs
work was completed on the 24th day then out of total 8 hours less than Vishnu needs working alone. In how
` 5000, maximum how much a person had earned? much time Brahma, Vishnu and Mahesh working together
(a) ` 500 can complete the job?
(b) ` 400 (a) 4 hours (b) 5 hours (c) 6 hours (d) 8 hours
(c) ` 200 1
32 Milinda takes 8 hours more when she works alone in
(d) ` 250 3
26 Two persons having different productivity of labour, comparison of when she works with Bill. While Bill takes
1
working together can reap a field in 2 days. If one-third of 5 hours more when he work alone in comparison to the
3
the field was reaped by the first man and rest by the other
time, when he works with Milinda. How long it will take
one working alternatively took 4 days. How long did it take
Bill to complete the work alone?
for the faster person to reap the whole field working alone? (a) 10 hours (b) 15 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 12 hours
(a) 12 (b) 8
33 Pascal and Rascal are two workers. Working together they
(c) 6 (d) 3
can complete the whole work in 10 hours. If the Pascal
27 The total number of men, women and children working in worked for 2.5 hours and Rascal worked for 8.5 hours, still
a factory is 18. They earn ` 4000 in a day. If the sum of the there was half of the work to be done. In how many hours
wages of all men, all women and all children is in the ratio Pascal working alone, can complete the whole work?
of 18 : 10 : 12 and if the wages of an individual man, 1
(a) 24 hours (b) 17 hours
woman and child is in the ratio 6 : 5 : 3, then how much a 7
woman earn in a day? (c) 40 hours (d) can’t be determined
(a) ` 400 (b) ` 250 34 Boston, Churchill and David are three workers, employed
(c) ` 150 (d) ` 120 by a contractor. They completed the whole work in 10
days. Initially all of them worked together, but the last 60%
28 A group of workers was put on a job. From the second day
of the work was completed by only Churchill and David
onwards, one worker was withdrawn each day. The job
together. Boston worked with Churchill and David only for
was finished when the last worker was withdrawn. Had no
initial two days then he left the work due to his poor health.
worker been withdrawn at any stage, the group would Also Churchill takes 20% less time to finish the work alone
have finished the job in 55% of the time. How many than that of David working alone. If they were paid ` 3000
workers were there in the group? for the entire work, then what is the share of least efficient
(a) 50 (b) 40 person?
(c) 45 (d) 10 (a) ` 900 (b) ` 1200
29 Two workers undertake to do a job. The second worker (c) ` 1000 (d) none of these
started working 2 hours after the first. Five hours after the 35 There are three boats B1, B 2 and B 3 working together
9 they carry 60 people in each trip. One day an early morning
second worker has begun working there is still of the
20 B1 carried 50 people in few trips alone. When it stopped
work to be done. When the assignment is completed, it carrying the passengers B 2 and B 3 started carrying the
turns out that first worker has done 60% of the work, while people together. It took a total of 10 trips to carry
300 people by B1, B 2 and B 3. It is known that each day on
second worker has done rest of the work. How many hours
an average 300 people cross the river using only one of the
would it take each one to do the whole job individually?
3 boats B1, B 2 and B 3. How many trips it would take to B1
(a) 10 hours and 12 hours
to carry 150 passengers alone?
(b) 15 hours and 10 hours
(a) 15 (b) 30
(c) 20 hours and 25 hours
(c) 25 (d) 10
(d) 18 hours and 20 hours
36 Three men and 5 women together can finish a job in 3 days.
30 A group of men decided to do a job in 4 days. But since Working on the same job 3 women take 5 days more than
20 men dropped out every day, the job completed at the the time required by 2 men. What is the ratio of efficiency
end of the 7th day. How many men were there at the of a man to a woman?
beginning? (a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 2
(a) 240 (b) 140 (c) 5 : 2 (d) 4 : 1
(c) 280 (d) 150
376 QUANTUM CAT
37 Henry and Ford are two different persons, but when they 120
43 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 24 hours and hours
work together, they complete it in 10 days. Had Henry 7
worked at half of his efficiency and Ford at five times of his respectively. Harihar opened the pipes A and B to fill an
efficiency it would have taken them to finish the job in 50% empty tank and some times later he closed the taps
of the scheduled time. In how many days can Ford A and B, when the tank was supposed to be full. After that
complete the job working alone? it was found that the tank was emptied in 2.5 hours
(a) 12 (b) 24 because an outlet pipe C connected to the tank was open
(c) 15 (d) 30 from the beginning. If Harihar closed the pipe C instead of
38 Anne, Benne and Cenne are three friends. Anne and Benne closing pipes A and B the remaining tank would have been
are twins. Benne takes 2 days more than Cenne to complete filled in :
the work. If Anne starts a work and 3 days later Benne joins (a) 2 hours (b) 8 hours (c) 6 hours (d) 4 hours
him, then the work gets completed in 3 more days. 44 Pipe A can fill a tank in 12 hours and pipe B can fill it in
Working together Anne, Benne and Cenne can complete 15 hours, separately. A third pipe C can empty it in
thrice the original work in 6 days. In how many days Benne 20 hours. Initially pipe A was opened, after one hour pipe B
can complete twice the original work with double the
was opened and then after 1 hour when pipe B was opened
efficiency working alone?
pipe C was also opened. In how many hours the tank will be
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 6 full?
2 2
39 Three typists A, B and C working together 8 hours per day (a) 9 hours (b) 6 hours
3 3
can type 900 pages in 20 days. In a day B types as many (c) 10 hours (d) none of these
pages more than A as C types as many pages more than B.
The number of pages typed by A in 4 hours equal to the Directions (for Q. Nos. 45 and 46) A tank has an inlet and outlet
number of pages typed by C in 1 hour. How many pages C pipe. The inlet pipe fills the tank completely in 2 hours when the
outlet pipe is plugged. The outlet pipe empties the tank completely
types in each hour?
in 6 hours when the inlet pipe is plugged.
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4 45 If both pipes are opened simultaneously at a time when the
Directions (for Q. Nos. 40 and 41) Four pipes A , B , C and D can tank was one-third filled, when will the tank fill thereafter?
3 2 2
fill a cistern in 20, 25, 40 and 50 hours respectively. (a) hours (b) hour (c) 2 hours (d) 1 hours
2 3 3
40 The first pipe A was opened at 6:00 am, B at 8:00 am, C at 46 If there is a leakage also which is capable of draining out
9:00 am and D at 10:00 am. When will the cistern be full? the liquid from the tank at half of the rate of outlet pipe,
(a) 4:18 pm (b) 3:09 pm then what is the time taken to fill the empty tank when
(c) 12:15 pm (d) 11:09 am both the pipes are opened?
2
41 If A and B are opened as inlet pipe into the cistern and (a) 3 hours (b) 3 hours
3
C and D are opened as outlet pipes from the cistern and all (c) 4 hours (d) none of these
the four pipes are opened simultaneously, how many hours 47 An inlet pipe can fill a tank in 5 hours and an outlet pipe
will it take to fill the cistern completely? can empty the same tank in 36 hours, working individually.
(a) 20 hours How many additional number of outlet pipes of the same
1 capacity are required to be opened, so that the tank never
(b) 11 hours
9 over flows?
2 (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 7
(c) 22 hours
9
Directions (for Q. Nos. 48 and 49) In a public bathroom there are
(d) 45 hours n taps 1, 2, 3 K n. Tap 1 and tap 2 take equal time to fill the tank
42 A tank is connected with four pipes A, B, C and D of which while tap 3 takes half the time taken by tap 2 and tap 4 takes half
two are filling the tank and other two are emptying it. The the time taken by tap 3. Similarly each next number of tap takes
half the time taken by previous number of tap i.e., Kth tap takes
time taken by A, B, C and D to finish their jobs are
half the time taken by ( K − 1)th tap.
10 hours, 15 hours, 20 hours and 30 hours respectively. All
four pipes are opened. When the tank was empty, it took 48 If the 10th tap takes 2 hours to fill the tank alone then what
12 hours to fill it completely. Which two are the outlet is the ratio of efficiency of 8th tap and 12th tap,
pipes? respectively?
(a) A and B (b) C and D (a) 4 : 1 (b) 5 : 3
(c) A and C (d) B and D (c) 16 : 1 (d) 1 : 16
Time and Work 377

49 If the 8th tap takes 80 hours to fill the tank then the 10th 55 A tank has two inlet pipes which can fill the empty tank in
and 12th taps working together take how many hours to fill 12 hours and 15 hours working alone and one outlet pipe
the tank? which can empty the full tank in 8 hours working alone.
(a) 2 hours The inlet pipes are kept open for all the time but the outlet
(b) 4 hours pipe was opened after 2 hours for one hour and then again
(c) 6 hours closed for 2 hours then once again opened for one hour.
(d) none of the above This pattern of outlet pipe continued till the tank got
50 Pipe A takes 3/4 of the times required by pipe B to fill the completely filled. In how many hours the tank has been
empty tank individually. When an outlet pipe C is also filled, working on the given pattern?
opened simultaneously with pipe A and pipe B, it takes (a) 8 hours 24 minutes (b) 10 hours 15 minutes
3/4 more time to fill the empty tank than it takes, when (c) 9 hours 10 minutes (d) 9 hours 6 minutes
only pipe A and pipe B are opened together. If it takes to fill 56 Working together, two pipes A and B can fill 7 empty tanks
33 hours when all the three pipes are opened of the same capacity in 48 hours. When a tank was initially
simultaneously, then in what time pipe C can empty the full empty, pipe B was kept open for as much time as was
tank operating alone? required by pipe A to fill 1/3rd of the empty tank by itself.
(a) 66 hours Then, pipe A was kept open for as much time as was
(b) 50 hours required by pipe B to fill up 1/4th of the empty tank by itself.
(c) 44 hours It was then found that the tank was 7/12 full. The least time
(d) can’t be determined in which any of the pipes can fill an empty tank fully is
(a) 8.4 hours (b) 14.4 hours (c) 12 hours (d) 14 hours
Directions (for Q. Nos. 51 to 53) A contractor undertook a project
to complete it, in 20 days which needed 5 workers to work 57 Four men and three women can do a job in six days. When
continuously for all the days estimated. But before the start of the five men and six women work on the same job, the work
work the client wanted to complete it earlier than the scheduled gets completed in four days. How long will two women and
time, so the cantractor calculated that he needed to increase three men take to do the job?
5 additional men every 2 days to complete the work in the time the (a) 18 days (b) 10 days (c) 9 days (d) 7 days
client wanted it : 58 There are five water pipes P1, P2, P3, P4, P5 connected to a
51 How many men were working on the day the project was tank, which can fill or empty the tank individually in 45,
completed as per the date of client wanted to complete it? 40, 30, 20, 15 minutes, respectively. A few of them are inlet
(a) 5 (b) 10 pipes and others are the outlet pipes. If the combination of
(c) 20 (d) none of these an inlet pipe and an outlet pipe can either empty or fill the
52 Find the number of days in which client wanted to whole tank in 1 hour, which one of the following can be the
complete his work. feasible combination of pipes as indicated by {inlet pipe,
(a) 15 (b) 10 outlet pipe} in that order only?
(c) 8 (d) can’t be determined (a) {P3, P4} and {P4, P5} (b) {P1, P2} and {P4, P5}
(c) {P4, P3} and {P5, P4} (d) {P4, P3} and {P4, P5}
53 If the work was further increased by 50% but the
contractor continues to increase the 5 workers on every 59 There are four water tanks each with equal capacity of
2 days then how many more days are required over the 1200 liters. The water is being pumped from one tank to
initial time specified by the client? another as per the following scheme.
(a) 1 day (b) 2 days From P to Q @ 52 liters/second
(c) 5 days (d) none of these From P to S @ 48 liters/second
54 A tank is connected with 8 pipes. Some of them are inlet From Q to R @ 36 liters/second
pipes and rest work as outlet pipes. Each of the inlet pipe From R to P @ 76 liters/second
can fill the tank in 8 hours, individually, while each of those
From R to S @ 24 liters/second
that empty the tank i.e., outlet pipe, can empty it in 6 hours
From S to Q @ 48 liters/second
individually. If all the pipes are kept open when the tank is
full, it will take exactly 6 hours for the tank to empty. How If all the pumps are started simultaneously, when each of
many of these are inlet pipes? the tanks has 384 liters of water which tank would get
(a) 2 (b) 4 emptied first?
(c) 5 (d) 6 (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
 QUANTUM CAT
LEVEL 03 > Final Round
Directions (for Q. Nos. 1 to 5) In a nut-bolt factory 180 workers Directions (for Q. Nos. 7 to 11) A company produces three
are working for 6 hours a day. Out of 180 workers there are some products. The products are processed on 3 different machines. The
men, some women and rest are boys. All the workers can produce time required to manufacture one unit of each the three products
either nut or bolt or both of them. A man can produce 60 nuts and and the daily capacity of three machines are given in the table
80 bolts in each hour and a woman can produce 30 nuts and below :
60 bolts per hour. A man is thrice as efficient as a boy and 3/2
Machine Time per unit (in min.) Machine
times as efficient as a woman. Given that all men, all women and capacity
all boys produce equal number of articles of one kind (i.e., either Product Product Product
(min./day)
nut or bolt) per hour. 1 2 3
M1 2 2 3 450
1 Working 6 hours a day, how many nuts they can produce
with 52500 bolt in each day? M2 2 5 – 410
(a) 17500 (b) 26250 M3 3 – 4 480
(c) 50850 (d) can’t be determined
2 In how many hours can 15 men, 12 women and 8 boys can 7 How many units of product 1 can be produced in one day?
produce 12000 nuts and 8200 bolts? (a) 160 (b) 205
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 225 (d) 64
(c) 6 (d) none of these 8 If minimum 20 units of P1 and 30 units of P2 have to be
3 If 30 women and 50 boys can produce 5400 bolts in one produced, then what is the maximum units of P3 that can be
hour then to produce equal number of nuts in one hour produced in a day?
how many men are required? (a) 116 (b) 105
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 205 (d) 220
(c) 50 (d) none of these
Directions (for Q. Nos. 9 to 11) Read the following additional
4 If the efficiency of each boy is doubled then what is the data for question number 9, 10 and 11. The profit per unit for
increase in production per hour? product 1, 2 and 3 is ` 3, ` 4 and ` 5.
(a) 100% (b) 50%
(c) 33.33% (d) none of the above 9 What combination of P1, P2 and P3 will yield maximum
5 If the manager of factory wanted equal number of men, profit, under the manufacturing constraints?
women and boys in his factory but the efficiency of a man, 1. P1 – 25, P2 − 50, P3 − 100
woman and a boy remains constant, then the change in 2. P1 − 20, P2 − 60, P3 − 80
production is :
3. P1 − 100, P2 − 0, P3 − 50
(a) increased by 10% (b) decreased by 10%
(c) increased by 8.33% (d) none of the above 4. P1 − 0, P2 − 80, P3 − 100
(a) 4 (b) 2
6 Ram Lal is a renowned packager of fruits in Varanasi. He
packs 70 mangoes or 56 guavas every day working 7 hours (c) 3 (d) 1
per day. His wife also helps him. She packs 30 mangoes or 10 Which of the machine if it breaks down will affect
24 guavas working 6 hours per day. Ram Lal has to pack profitability the least?
3300 mangoes and 2400 guavas with the help of his wife. (a) Machine 1
They work alternatively, each day 10 hours. His wife (b) Machine 2
started packaging on the first day and works on every (c) Machine 3
alternate days. Similarly Ram Lal started his work on (d) Machine 1 or 3
second day and worked alternatively till the completion of 11 If no production of product 2 is scheduled today and it is
the work. In how many days the work will be finished? decided to only produce one type of product today, then
2
(a) 85 days (b) 85 days what is the maximum profits that can be had today?
5
(a) ` 480 (b) ` 750
(c) 84 days (d) none of these
(c) ` 600 (d) none of these
Time and Work 379

Directions (for Q. Nos. 12 to 15) Ready Tailoring Services is very 13 If the number of tailors will be increased by 50% then
well known in its quality and time bound services. The company maximum how many uniforms for officers can be
(Ready Tailoring Services) received a large order for stiching completed in one day?
military uniforms. It has two different orders to prepare the shirts one (a) 48 (b) 50
for Officers and second for Jawans (non-officers). It has three cutters (c) 60 (d) 72
who will cut the fabric. Six tailors who will do the stiching and 3 14 If the company can increase maximum 3 employees of
assistant to stich the buttons and iron the shirts. Each of these 12 any category then for which category should it hire to
persons will work for exactly 8 hours a day. Each of the Officers get maximum increase in production capacity,
uniform requires 20 minutes for cutting the fabric, 1 hour for stiching assuming that it needs to stich only officer’s uniform :
and 20 minutes for stiching buttons and ironing the shirts. Whereas (a) cutter (b) tailor
the Jawan’s uniform requires 15 minutes for cutting the fabric and 60 (c) assistant (d) can’t be determined
minutes for stiching and 10 minutes for buttons and ironing. 15 If the company has to produce the shirts for only one
12 If the company has to supply 40 officers uniforms only and no category then of which category it can produce
other on a particular day, how many man-hours are utilised on maximum number of uniforms?
that day? (a) Officers
1 2 (b) Jawans
(a) 33 hours (b) 66 hours (c) either (a) or (b)
3 3
(c) 40 hours (d) 60 hours (d) none of these

Answers
Level 01 Basic Level Exercise
1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (a) 14 (a) 15 (b) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (a) 19 (b) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (c) 25 (b) 26 (b) 27 (a) 28 (c) 29 (c) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (a) 33 (b) 34 (d) 35 (a) 36 (c) 37 (c) 38 (b) 39 (b) 40 (d)
41 (a) 42 (b) 43 (b) 44 (c) 45 (b) 46 (a) 47 (a) 48 (c) 49 (a) 50 (a)
51 (c) 52 (a) 53 (d) 54 (b) 55 (a) 56 (c) 57 (b) 58 (a) 59 (d) 60 (a)
61 (a) 62 (c) 63 (b) 64 (d) 65 (c) 66 (b) 67 (b) 68 (a) 69 (b) 70 (b)
71 (b) 72 (c) 73 (d) 74 (a) 75 (c) 76 (d) 77 (b) 78 (b) 79 (b) 80 (c)
81 (b) 82 (a) 83 (a) 84 (a) 85 (b) 86 (a) 87 (b) 88 (d) 89 (c) 90 (c)
91 (d) 92 (c) 93 (a) 94 (b) 95 (a) 96 (c) 97 (a) 98 (b) 99 (c) 100 (a)

Level 02 Higher Level Exercise

1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (c) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d)
11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (c) 20 (d)
21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (b) 26 (d) 27 (b) 28 (d) 29 (c) 30 (b)
31 (c) 32 (d) 33 (b) 34 (c) 35 (a) 36 (c) 37 (d) 38 (d) 39 (c) 40 (b)
41 (c) 42 (b) 43 (b) 44 (a) 45 (c) 46 (c) 47 (d) 48 (d) 49 (b) 50 (c)
51 (c) 52 (c) 53 (b) 54 (b) 55 (c) 56 (c) 57 (c) 58 (d) 59 (c)

Level 03 Final Round

1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (c) 12 (b) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (c)
380 QUANTUM CAT
Hints & Solutions
Level 01 Basic Level Exercise
100 4 Efficiency of A = 12.5%
1 Efficiency of A = = 8.33%
12 Efficiency of B = 6.25%
100
Efficiency of B = = 6.66% Efficiency of C = 1.25%
15
Efficiency of ( A + B + C ) = 20% (=12.5+ 6.25+ 1.25)
Combined efficiency of A and B = 8.33+ 6.66 = 15% 100
Number of days taken by A and B, when worked together Required number of days = = 5 days
20
100 10 2
= =6 = 6 days 5 Efficiency of A = 10% , Efficiency of B = 6.66%
15 15 3
100
∴ Required number of days = = 6 days
NOTE Efficiency × Time period = Fixed amount of work 16.66
Also, in terms of percentage total work to be done is 100
6 Efficiency of A = = 4.16%
considered as 100% (in fraction it is 1), unless otherwise 24
stated. 100
Efficiency of B = = 3.33%
Alternatively 30
100
It can be done through unitary method, also. Efficiency of ( A + B + C ) = = 8.33%
100 12
2 Efficiency of A = = 10% ∴ Efficiency of C = (8.33) – (4.16 + 3.33) = 0.83%
10
100 ∴ Number of days required by C to complete the work alone
Efficiency of B = = 8.33% 100 100
12 = = = 120 days
0.83 5 /6
100
Efficiency of C = = 6.66%
15 5
NOTE = 0.833
Combined efficiency of A, B and C = 10 + 8.33+ 6.66 6
= 25%  100 
7 Efficiency of A = 10%  = 10
∴ Required number of days, when A, B and C worked  10 
100  100 
together = = 4 days Efficiency of B = 4.16%  = 4.16 
25  24 
 100  100 
3 Efficiency of A = 20%  =  Efficiency of ( A + B + C ) = 16.66%  = 16.66
 5   6 
 100 Efficiency of C = (16.66) – (10 + 4.16) = 2.5%
Efficiency of B = 10%  = 
 10  Number of days required by C alone to finish the work
100
 100 = = 40 days
Efficiency of A, B and C = 50%  =  2.5
 2 
∴Efficiency of C = (Efficiency of A, B and C )
8 Efficiency of A = 7.14%
− (Efficiency of A and B) Efficiency of B = 4.76% , Efficiency of A + B = 11.9%
= (50) − (20 + 10) = 20% ∴ Number of days required by A and B, working together
100
∴ Number of days required by C to work alone = = 8.4 days
11.9
100
= = 5 days Hint You can see that there is only one option between 8
20 and 9 which is 8.4 hence (c) is the correct choice.
Alternatively
Explanation For 8 days denominator should be 12.5 and
Go through options and satisfy the values. for 9 days denominator should be almost 11.
Alternatively One day’s work of A and B
A B C (A + B + C)
1 1 5
Days 5 10 5 2 =
+ =
14 21 42
Efficiency 20% 10% 20% 50% 42
∴ Required number of days = = 8.4 days
5
Consider option (c)
Time and Work 381

9 Efficiency of A = 4.16% (Since number of days are inversely proportional to the

efficiency)
Efficiency of B = 1.6 × 4.16 = 6.66%
100 Now if A requires x days, so B requires 3x days
∴ Number of days required by B = = 15 days ∴Difference of required days (= 3x − x ) = 2x = 10 ⇒ x = 5
6.66
Alternatively Hence the number of days required by
A B B = 3x = 3 × 5 = 15 days
Efficiency → x 1.6 x 13 A B
Days → 1.6 k k Efficiency → 2 : 1
(Since number of days are inversely proportional to Days → 1 : 2
efficiency)  
1
Now 1.6 k = 24 ⇒ k = 15 day  Days ∝ 
 Efficiency 
1
Alternatively A’s one day’s work =
24 Now, let A requires x days, then B requires 2x days
1 1 ∴difference in number of days (= 2x − x ) = x = 6 ⇒ x = 6
∴ B ’s one day’s work = 160% of =
24 15 ∴ B requires 2x = 2 × 6 = 12 days
∴ Required number of days = 15 Alternatively If A takes x days, then B takes x + 6 days
100 1
10 Efficiency of A + B = = 7.14% Now, A’s 1 day’s work =
14 x
1
Again the ratio of efficiency of A and B = 2 : 1 B ’s 1 day’s work =
2 x+6
∴ Efficiency of A = × 7.14 = 4.76% 1/x 2
3 ∴ =
100 1 1
∴required number of days by A = = 21 days x+6
4.76
(Since A does twice the work as B does)
NOTE Only choice (c) lies between 20 and 24.
⇒ x=6
Explanation For 20 days denominator should be 5 and for ∴ B takes 2x = 12 days.
24 days, denominator should be 4.16 also the only choice
(c) gives a value which is multiple of 7 and very close to the Alternatively 1 + 1
=
1
x ( x + 6) 4
answer (as appears).
Alternatively One day’s work of ⇒ x = 6 and 2x = 12 days (required by B)
1 1 1 Alternatively Go through option and satisfy all the
A and B = + = ⇒ x = 21 conditions.
x 2x 14
A : B : C
Since A is twice efficient as B so A will take half of the days 14
taken by B. Ratio of efficiency 3 : 1 : 2
 100 1 : 1 : 1
11 Efficiency of A + B = 14.28%  = 
Ratio of number of days  
 7  3 1 2
or 2 : 6 : 3
Now, since the ratio of efficiency of A and B is 2 : 1
2  1 
Hence, (a) is correct Q Time ∝
So, the efficiency of A = × 14.28 = 9.52%
3  Efficiency 
∴ Number of days required by A = 10.5 days 15 Ajit Bablu
Hint Only choice (b) is correct since there is no other value Efficiency 3 : 1
(in option) lies between 10 and 11. No. of days 1 : 3
Explanation For 10 days, denominator should be 10 and 16 X Y
for 11 days, denominator should be 9.09. Efficiency 5 : 1
Alternatively No. of days 1 : 5
Let A takes x days and then B takes 2x days 100
1 1 1 17 Efficiency of A + B = = 15%
Then 1 day’s work of A and B = + = 20
x 2x 7 3
⇒ x = 10.5 A B
Thus A takes 10.5 days. No. of days 4 : 5
12 A B Efficiency 5 : 4
Efficiency → 3 : 1 4 20 2
∴ Efficiency of B = × 15 = =6 %
Days → 1 : 3 9 3 3
382 QUANTUM CAT
 100 100
18 Efficiency of A + B = 33.33%  =  Number of days taken by Saraswati = =3
 3  33.33
Ratio of efficiency of A and B = 3 : 1 ∴ Difference in number of days taken by Ganga and Saraswati
3 = 3 − 2 = 1 day
∴ Efficiency of A = × 33.33 = 25%
4 22 Day 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
 100 A A A ( A + B) ( A + B) ( A + B) ( A + B) ( A + B)
∴ Number of days taken by A = 4  = 
 25  1 3
3× = = 25%  Remaining work

Alternatively 12 12  
A B work completed   = 75% = (100 − 25)

Efficiency 3 : 1 Now, efficiency of A + B = 15% = (8.33+ 6.66)
No. of days 1 (x) : 3 (x) 75
∴ Number of days required by A + B = =5
∴ Difference in days = 2x = 8 15
⇒ x = 4 and 3x = 12 to complete rest work (= 75%)
Therefore number of days taken by A, working alone 23 ‘3 days before the completion of the work Raja left the
= 4 days work’ means in last 3 days only Rani has worked alone.
1 1
Alternatively 1 + 1
=
1
So, in last 3 days worked done by Rani = 3 × =
x ( x + 8) 3 21 7
 1 6
Now, you can use the options, or solve the equations to get So, the rest 1 −  = work was done by Raja and Rani
the value of x which is equal to 4.  7 7
19 Efficiency of ( A + B ) = 12.5% both.
Number of days in which Raja and Rani worked together
Efficiency of (B + C ) = 8.33% 6/7 36 1
Efficiency of (C + A ) = 12.5% = = = 7 days
5/42 5 5
∴ Efficiency of [( A + B ) + (B + C ) + (C + A )]
= 33.33% NOTE Work done by Raja and Rani in one day =
1 1 5
+ =
∴ Efficiency of ( A + B + C ) = 16.66% 14 21 42
 Total work to be done 
∴Number of days required by A, B and C together = 6 days  Also, number of days = 
 100   Work to be done in one day 
= 
 16.66 11
24 Work done in 11 days =
20 Efficiency of ( A + B ) = 8.33% 30
Efficiency of (B + C ) = 6.66% ,Efficiency of (C + A ) = 5.00% 19
Rest work =
1 30
∴ Efficiency of A + B + C = (8.33+ 6.66 + 5) = 10%
2 19/30 19 19
1 day’s work of A = = =
∴ Efficiency of C = Efficiency of [( A + B + C ) − ( A + B )] 28 30 × 28 840
= (10 − 8.33) = 1.66% Total number of days required to complete the whole work
100 1 840 4
∴ Number of days required by C alone = = 60 days alone = = = 44 days
1.66 19/840 19 19
1
21 Remember Time ∝  100
Efficiency 25 Efficiency of Sonu = 5% =  
 20 
Now,
Ganga : Jamuna : Saraswati Rest work = 75%
Efficiency → 3 : 1 : 2 ∴ Efficiency of Abhijeet =
75
= 7.5%
No. of days → 2 : 6 : 3 10
Again, efficiency of Ganga, Jamuna and Saraswati ∴ Combined efficiency of Sonu and Abhijeet
100
= = 100% = 12.5% = (7.5+ 5)
1
3 ∴ Number of days required by Sonu and Abhijeet, to work
∴ Efficiency of Ganga = × 100 = 50% 100
6 together = = 8 days
2 12.5
Efficiency of Saraswati = × 100 = 33.33%
6 26 Asha Usha
100 Efficiency 5 4
Now, number of days taken by Ganga = =2
50 No. of days 4x 5x = 25
Time and Work 383

∴ Number of days required by Asha to finish the work alone rest work =
2
= 20 Q(4 x = 4 × 5) 3
(Alternatively, from percentage change graphic, number of 2 2/3
Number of days required by A to finish work = = 6 days
days taken by Asha will be 20% less than Usha, if efficiency 3 1/9
of Asha is 25% more than Usha)
31 Anand Bahuguna
Now, since Asha and Usha did work together for last 5 days
No. of days 45 40
= 5 × 9 = 45%
Efficiency  1  1
(Since efficiency of Asha = 5%and Usha’s efficiency = 4%) 2.22%  =  2.5%  = 
 45  40
It means Asha completed 55% work alone
Anand did the work in 56 days
∴ Number of days taken by Asha to complete 55% work
1 28
=
55
= 11 days = 56 × =
5 45 × 2 45

27 Krishna’s efficiency = 10% , Mohan’s efficiency = 5%  17 

∴ Rest work   was done by Anand and Bahuguna
 45
Work done by Krishna and Mohan together in 3 days
17/45
= 15 × 3 = 45% = = 8 days
17/360
Now, number of days in which B completed rest (55%)
55 (Since Anand and Bahuguna do the work in one day
work alone = = 11 1 1 17
5 = + = )
Total number of days in which B worked = 3 + 11 = 14 45 40 360
Now number of days required by B, when A and B both 32 Efficiency of Chandni = 11.11%
100 2 Efficiency of Divakar = 8.33%
worked together = =6
15 3 They do 19.44% work in 2 days
 2 ∴ They need 10 days to do 97.22% work,
∴ Required difference in number of days = (11) −  6 
 3
Now the rest work (2.78) was done by Chandni in
13 1 2.78 1
= = 4 days = day
3 3 11.11 4
28 Efficiency of Kareena and Karishma Therefore total number of days required
= 11.11 + 5.55 =16.66% 1 1
= 10 + = 10 days
Work done in 3 days = 3 × 16.66 = 50% 4 4
50 1
Rest work done by Kareena, Karishma and Shahid = Alternatively Chandni’s one day’s work =
50 9
= 1 day 1
(Since efficiency of Shahid = 33.33%) Divakar’s one day’s work =
12
Thus in 4 (= 3 + 1) days they have completed the work. Chandni’s and Divakar’s (1 + 1) = 2 day’s work
29 Efficiency of Kavita = 5% 1 1 7
= + =
Efficiency of Babita = 1.66% 9 12 36
Efficiency of Samita = 3.33% 7 × 5 35
So, in 10 days they do = = work
Work done in 5 days by K + B + S = 5 × (10) = 50% 36 36
Work done in 3 days by K + B = 3 × (6.66) = 20% 1  35
So, the remaining = 1 −  work will be done by
30 36  36
Remaining work (30%) done by Kavita alone = = 6 days 1/36 1
5 Chandni = = day
A : B : C 1/9 4
30
→ 1 1
Efficiency 10 : 9 : 6 Thus total number of required days = 10 + = 10 days
No. of days → 9x : 10 x : 15x 4 4
Now, 15x − 9 x = 6 Hint
⇒ x =1 Day 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
∴ Number of days taken by A = 9 Turn C D C D C D C D C D C
Work 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Number of days taken by B = 10
9 12 9 12 9 12 9 12 9 12 36
Number of days taken by C = 15
7/36 7/36 7/36 7/36 7/36
2×1 1
Work done by B and C in initial 2 days = = 35/36 1/36
6 3
384 QUANTUM CAT
33 1 1 1
Day 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 Now rest work = − =
F Z F Z F Z F Z F Z F Z F Z 4 6 12
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1  1
Now, this rest work   will be done by B in 1 complete
12 15 12 15 12 15 12 15 12 15 12 15 12 60
 12
9/60 9/60 9/60 9/60 9/60 9/60
day.
54/60 6/60
Thus, total number of days = 6 + 1 + 1 = 8 days
1 1 9
In two days Fatima and Zahira do = + = work. In
12 15 60
6 × 9 54 Alternatively Efficiency of A = 16.66%
12 days they do = = work Efficiency of B = 8.33%
60 60
6 1 Efficiency of C = 12.5%
So, the remaining work = =
60 10 Efficiency of A + B = 25%
1 Efficiency of A + B + C = 37.5%
Now, work will be done by Fatima in 13th day
12 In 3 days A, B, C completes 37.5% work
1 1 1 In 6 days A, B, C completes 75% work
So, the remaining work = − =
10 12 60 Rest work = 25%
1 1/60 1 This 25% work will be completed by A and B in next 2 days
This work will be done by Zahira = = day
60 1/15 4 Thus total 6 + 2 = 8 days are needed.
Thus the total number of days required 36 From the previous solution 75% work will be completed in
1 1 6 days. In the next two days (i.e., on 7th and 8th day)
= 12 + 1 + = 13 days
4 4 B and C will complete 20.83% (12.5+ 8.33) more work.
Alternatively A’s efficiency = 8.33% So the remaining work = 4.16%
15%
B ’s efficiency = 6.66% This 4.16% work will be completed by A =
4.16 1
= day
Thus in 12 days 90% work will be done and in 13th day 16.66 4
8.33% more work will be done so the rest work 1.66% will 1 1
So, the total number of required days = 6 + 2 + = 8 days.
be done by Zahira 4 4
1.66 1 37 Let B takes x days to complete the work individually.
= = day
6.66 4 1
1 1 Then, the B ’s 1 day’s work =
Thus, total number of required days = 12 + 1 + = 13 x
4 4 1
A’s 1 day’s work =
34 The difference will arise only on the last two days only. The x−6
1
work done on 13th day = 1
15 C’s 1 day’s work =
x−8
1 1 1
rest work = − = 1 1 1
10 15 30 ∴ + =
 1 1/30 2 x−6 x x−8
This rest work   will be done by Fatima = = day
 30 1/12 5 Now either solve the equation or satisfy the equation from
2 2 the choices given in the question.
Thus total number of required days = 12 + 1 + = 13 days. Thus option (c) is correct.
5 5
Alternatively Select an appropriate option and then
35 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 solve through % efficiency.
A B C A B C A B
38 A’s share = ` 250
1/6 1/12 1/8 1/6 1/12 1/8 1/6 1/12
B ’s share = ` 100
3/8 3/8 1/4
It means the ratio of efficiency of A : B = 250 : 100 = 5 : 2
6 3
= ∴ Ratio of days taken by A and B = 2x : 5x
8 4
Now, 5x − 2x = 9
3
In 3 days A, B, C do work ⇒ x=3
8
3 ∴ Number of days taken by A = 6 (efficiency = 16.66%)
In 6 days A, B, C do work Number of days taken by B = 15 (efficiency = 6.66%)
4
1 3 Therefore number of days taken by A and B, working
Rest work = , which is less than together
4 8
100 300 2
1 = = = 4 days
On the 7th day, more work will be done by A 23.33 70 7
6
Time and Work 385

1 Man Days
39 Alen’s one day’s work = 44
21 1 30 24 1
1 ↑ ↓
Border’s one day’s work = 5 36 20 6
42 Applying product constancy method.
(working alternatively) Alen and Border’s two days work 1
1 1 1 For a constant work when days are reduced by , then
= + = 6
21 42 14 1
number of men is increased by . Hence 6 men will
1 5
So, Alen and Border do work in 2 days
14 increase.
So, they complete the work in 14 × 2 = 28 days. Alternatively 24 × 30 = 20 × x
40 Efficiency of A and B = 16.66% ⇒ x = 36
Efficiency of B and C = 10% Therefore 6 more men are required.
But efficiency of A is twice that of C 45 Women Days
A = 2C 1 12 20 1
Q Therefore, ↓ ↑
Now A + B = 16.66 and B + C = 10 3 8 30 2
⇒ 2C + B = 16.66 …(i) Thus 10 more days are required.
and C + B = 10 …(ii) Alternatively 12 × 20 = 8 × x
∴ from eq. (i) and (ii) C = 6.66% ⇒ x = 30
∴ A = 13.33% ∴10 more days are required.
∴ Number of days taken by A to complete the work alone 46 Boys Days
100 1 2 35 15 2
= = 7 days ↓ ↑
13.33 2 5 21 25 3
41 A + B = 70% Thus 14 boys did not turn up for the job.
Alternatively 35 × 15 = 25 × x
∴ A + B + B + C − ( A + B + C ) = B 
B + C = 50%  70 + 50 − 100 = 20%  ⇒ x = 21
 
∴ 35 − 21 = 14 boys did not turn up for the job.
⇒ B = 20%
47 x × 32 = 24 × 40
A = 50%
and C = 30% x = 30
Hence, A is most efficient. (M 1D1 = M 2D 2 )

42 C+M =
8 48 M × D =W
17 1
12 16 × 6 = W
M +G= 3
17 2
3 Rest work = W
⇒ M = 3
17 For double work in same time we need double men. So 16
[Q (C + M + M + G ) − (C + M + G ) = M ] more men are required.
 8 12 3 Alternatively 2 × (16 × 6) = 6 × M
 17 + 17  − 1 = 17 
  ⇒ M = 32
5 9 ∴16 more men are required.
∴ C= ,G =
17 17 49 M × D = 10 × 20 = 200 Man-days
So the whole amount will be distributed in the ratio of New Man-days = (20 × 2) × x
5 : 3 : 9 among C , M and G respectively.
200 = 20 × 2 × x
Now since M is least efficient so he get his own share
3 x = 5 days
= × 816 = ` 144 or M 1D1 = M 2D 2
17
10 × 20 = (20 × 2) × x
43 Sharma Kelkar
⇒ x=5
Efficiency 0.8 x x
Number of day k 0.8k = 24 50 M 1D1 = M 2D 2
Q 0.8k = 24 ⇒ k = 30 M 1 × 20 = (M 1 − 12) × 32
Thus Sharma requires 30 days, to complete the work, alone. ⇒ M 1 = 32
Also, using the above concept you can go through options.
386 QUANTUM CAT
51 Go through options. Consider option (c) 5
∴ 12 men + 5 women = 12 × + 5 = 25 women
30 × 20 = 30 × 6 + 21 × 20 3
600 = 600, hence presumed option is correct. ∴ W1 × D1 = W2 × D 2,W = women, D = days
Alternatively 30 × 20 = 30 × x + 21 × (26 − x ) 10 × 15 = 25 × D 2 ⇒ D 2 = 6
⇒ x=6 58 Work done by 2 men = 3 women = 4 boys
52 Go through options. Consider choice (a) ∴ 1 man = 2 boys
4
25 × 30 = 25 × 15 + 75 × 5 1 woman = boys
3
750 = 750, hence choice (a) is correct.
Alternatively 25 × 30 = 25 × x + 75 × (20 − x )
∴ boys × days = 4 × 52 (boys-days)
4 13
Q 30 × 2 = 20 Again 1 man + 1 woman + 1 boy = 2 + + 1 = boys
  3 3
3
B1 × D1 = B 2 × D 2, B = boys, D = days
53 Go through options. Consider choice (d) 13
4 × 52 = × D2
36 × 120 = 40 × 108 3
4320 = 4320 D 2 = 48 days
Hence, choice (d) is correct. 7
59 2 men = 7 boys ⇒ 1 man = days
Alternatively 2
Men Days 7
5 women = 7 boys ⇒ 1 woman = boys
1 x 120 1 5
↑   ↓
9 ↓ ↓  10 7 7
7 men + 5 women + 2 boys = 7 × + 5 × + 2 =
67
boys
 10 (12) 2 5 2
x ×  Now, B1 × D1 = B 2 × D 2
 9
67
From percentage change (product constancy) graphic 7 × 469 = × D2
1 2
when number of days are decreased by then the number ⇒ D 2 = 98 days
10
1 1
of men are increased by and is equivalent to 4 men so 60 6C + 2M = 6 days
9 9 ⇒ 36C + 12M = 1 days
the actual number of men are 9 × 4 = 36.
Again 1M = 2C
Alternatively M 1 D1 = M 2 D2
∴ 36 + 12 × 2 = 1 day
x × 120 = ( x + 4) × 108
60 children can do the work in 1 day
⇒ x = 36
Now, 5 men = 10 children
54 Efficiency (per minute) of Modi = 4 copies/min ∴10 children can do the work in 6 days.
Efficiency of Modi and Xerox together = 10 pages/min 61 8M + 12W = 4 days (whole work)
∴ Efficiency of Xerox alone = 10 − 4 = 6 pages/min
⇒ 32M + 48W = 1 day …(i)
∴ Mr. Xerox needs 6 minutes to copy 36 pages.
Again 6M + 14W = 5 days
1
55 Work done = ⇒ 30M + 70W = 1 day …(ii)
3
2 From eq. (i) and (ii)
Remaining work = 32M + 48W = 30M + 70W
3
⇒ 2M = 22W
2 × (20 × 12) = 12 × x
⇒ 1M = 11W
⇒ x = 40
Now, 30M + 70W = 1 day
So, 20 men will be increased.
1 (30 × 11 + 70)W = 1 day
56 Work done = Therefore 400W requires 1 day to complete the whole work.
5
4 Thus 20W needs 20 days to complete the whole work.
remaining work = 62 Efficiency of A = 6.66%
5
∴ 4 (20 × 75) = 40 × x Efficiency of B = 5.55%
x = 150 Efficiency of A + B + C = 16.66%
Therefore 75 men should be increased. ∴Efficiency of C = 4.44%
57 Work done by 6 men = Work done by 10 women. Now, number of days required by
10 5 100 100 45
⇒ Work done by 1 man = work done by = women C= = = days
6 3 4.44 (10 × 4)/9 2
Time and Work 387

63 Ratio of efficiencies of A, B and C = 6 : 5 : 4 3

71 × ( x − 2) x = ( x + 7 )( x − 10)
4 4
∴Share of C = × 27000 = 7200 ⇒ x 2 − 6 x − 280 = 0
15
64 In 1 hour 314 weavers weave = 6594 × 6 shawls ⇒ x = 20 and x = − 14
6594 × 6 So, the acceptable values is x = 20
In 1 hour 1 weaver weaves = shawls ∴ Total work = ( x − 2) × x = 18 × 20 = 360 unit
314
= 126 shawls Now 360 = 30 × k Q (30 = 20 + 10)
65 3M + 2W = 4 days ⇒ k = 12 days
72 Efficiency of a man : woman : girl = 6 : 3 : 1
⇒ 12M + 8W = 1 day …(i)
(3 + 1)
Again, 2M + 3W = 5D ∴ Share of a woman and girl = × 10, 000
⇒ 10M + 15W = 1D …(ii) (6 + 3 + 1)
4
From eq. (i) and (ii) = × 10000 = ` 4000
12M + 8W = 10M + 15W 10
⇒ 2M = 7W
M 7 73 Total work = 33 × 30 = 990 man-days
⇒ =
W 2 1
First day’s work = × 44
Since the ratio of efficiency of women : men = 2 : 7 990
So, the amount of a man per day = ` 154 Second day’s work =
1
× 43
 7   990
 2 × 44 = 154 1
  Third day’s work = × 42 and so on
990
66 Go through options. 1
Alternatively So, the total work in 44 days = (44 + 43 + 42 + … )
990
30 × 40 = 30 × x + 20 × (46 − x ) ⇒ x = 28 days 1 44 × 45
= × =1
67 Women × hours = 8 × 10 = 80 women hours 990 2
Now, women × hours = 12 × 8 = 96 women hours Hence in 44 days total work will be completed.
Since new work force is 20% greater than previous work  100
74 Efficiency of Abhishek = 2.5% =  
force.  40 
So, the new quantity of tea leaves will be increased by 20% Work done in 8 days = 20%
20
which is equal to 200 × = 40 kg, hence (b) Rest work = 80%
100 80
Efficiency of Bacchhan = = 3.33%
68 New work = 3 × 450 man-day 24
∴ 3 × 450 = 27 × x 100
∴ Required number of days =
x = 50 days (2.5 + 3.33)
4B + 5G = 10 100 100 × 6 1
69 = = = 17
5.83 35 7
⇒ 40B + 50G = 1 …(i)
5 5 35
Again, 6B + 6G = 7 Hint 0.83 = , so, 5.83 = 5 + =
6 6 6
⇒ 42B + 42G = 1 …(ii)
75 A B C
Comparing eq. (i) and (ii)
Efficiency 3 : 2 : 6
40B + 50G = 42B + 42G
Number of days 2 : 3 : 1
⇒ 2B = 8G ⇒ 1B = 4G
∴ Number of days taken by A = 12
Now, (42 × 4 + 42) girls = 1 day
Number of days taken by B = 18
210 girls can do a work in 1 day
Number of days taken by C = 6
Again 2B + 7G = 15 girls
5
210 1 day’s work of ( A + B ) =
So, 15 girls require = 14 days 36
15
8
70 Equate the man-days 1 day’s work of (B + C ) =
36
For 20 km road, 20 × 20 = 400 man-days are required 9
1 day’s work of (C + A ) =
∴ For 40 km road 800 man-days are required 36
So, 800 = 40 × x ⇒ x = 20 days
388 QUANTUM CAT
Day → 1 2 3 4 5 6 1
81 One day’s work of 7 Indian with 4 Chinese =
Work → 5/36 8/36 9/36 5/36 8/36 5
1
35/36 1/36 and one day’s work of 7 Japanese and 3 Chinese =
35 7
In 5 days total work done =
36 Therefore, one day’s work of 7 Indian, 7 Chinese and
1 1 12
Now, the rest work (1/36), which is done by AC. 7 Japanese = + =
5 7 35
∴ Number of days taken by AC for the rest work
1 /36 1 Therefore, one day’s work of 1 Indian, 1 Chinese and
= = 1 Japanese =
12 1
× =
12
9 /36 9 35 7 35 × 7
1 1
Therefore, total time = 5 + = 5 days Therefore, number of days required by 1 Indian, 1 Chinese
9 9 and 1 Japanese
76 Efficiency of A + B = 16.66, Efficiency of B + J = 10 1 35 × 7 5
= = = 20 days
We have no further relevent informations, so we cannot 12 /(35 × 7 ) 12 12
determine. 1 1 1 13
82 In 1 minute A, B and C bind = + + = book
77 A B 8 12 16 48
Efficiency x 2x 13
In 12 hours A, B and C bind = 12 × 60 × = 195 books
Number of days 15 15/2 48
1 2 195
A’s one day’s work = , B ’s one day’s work = ∴ Average number of books bind by each = = 65 books
15 15 3
3 3
( A + B )’s one day’s work = 83 Work of a man for 1 hour = women’s work for 1 hour
15 2
Now, let us assume B joined A after (11 − x ) days, then Again, work of a man for 1 day
(11 − x ) x × 3 3 9
+ = 1 ⇒ (11 − x ) + 3x = 15 ⇒ x = 2 = ×  women’s work for 1 hour
15 15  2 7.5
It means they worked together for 2 days. 9
Alternatively Go through options and check easily with
⇒ Work of a man for 1 day = women’s work for 1 day
5
the percentage efficiency. 9
9 × 6.66 + 2 × 20 = 100% ⇒ 1 man = women
5
78 Efficiency of A = 6.66% 9
∴ 10 men + 6 women = 10 × + 6 = 24 women
Efficiency of B = 3.33% 5
Efficiency of C = 2.5% 9
∴ 10 men + 9 women = 10 × + 9 = 27 women
Work done in last two days (only C do it) = 2 × 2.5 = 5% 5
Work done in the 3rd and 4th day from the last day Now, D1 × W1 = D 2 × W2
(only A and C do it) = 2 × 9.16 = 18.33% 18 × 24 = D 2 × 27 ⇒ D 2 = 16 days
Remaining work = 100 − (5 + 18.33) = 76.66% 84 Number of days taken by A to complete work alone
This 76.66% work was done by all of A, B and C. = 14 days
76.66 460 2 Number of days taken by B to complete work alone = 7 days
∴ Number of days taken by them = = =6
12.5 75 15 Number of days taken by C to complete work alone = 7 days
2 2 1 1 3
∴ Total time required = 6 + 2 + 2 = 10 days One day’s work of A and B = + =
15 15 14 7 14
79 Let x kg of oil is used for eating purpose, daily, then 1 1 1 5
and one day’s work of A, B and C = + + =
( x + 11) × 50 = ( x + 15) × 45 14 7 7 14
x = 25 3 9
3 day’s work of A and B = 3 × =
∴ Total quantity of oil = (25 + 11) × 50 = 1800 14 14
1800 5  9
∴ Required number of days = = 72 days remaining work = 1 − 
25 14  14
2 This remaining work will be done by A, B and C
80 Work done =
3 5 / 14
= = 1 day
1 2 5 / 14
Remaining work = , which is half of
3 3 85 A’s 5 days work = 50%
1
∴ × (20 × 32) = 8 × x ⇒ x = 40 men B ’s 5 days work = 33.33%
2
Therefore, 20 more men were required. C’s 2 days work = 16.66% [100 − (50 + 33.33)]
Time and Work 389

Ratio of contribution of work of A, B and 93 Efficiency of only leakage = 16.66%

1 2
C = 50 : 33 : 16 = 3 : 2 : 1 Effective efficiency of leakage = 6.66%
3 3
It means the capacity of filling pipe = 10%
A’s total share = ` 1500
Therefore, the inlet pipe can fill the tank in 10 hours hence
B’s total share = ` 1000 the capacity of tank = 100 l.
C’s total share = ` 500
94 Efficiency of tap A and B = 16.66% = (10 + 6.66)
A’s one day’s earning = ` 300
∴ 16. 66 x + 10 × (8 − x ) = 100% ⇒ x = 3
B’s one day’s earning = ` 200
and C’s one day’s earning = ` 250 95 Efficiency of A = 5%, Efficiency of B = 4%
 100 Efficiency of C = − 3.33%
86 Efficiency of A = 50%  
 2  It means in every 3 consecutive hours tops A, B and C can
 100  fill 5.66% (= 5 + 4 − 3.33). Therefore in 51 hours (= 3 × 17 )
Efficiency of B = 37.5%  
 8 /3 tops A, B and C can fill 96.33% (= 5.66 × 17 )
 100 ∴ the remaining part i.e., 3.66% (= 100 − 96.33) can be
Efficiency of C = 12.5%  
 8  11  3.66
filled up by A in hours  =  , since it is now A’s turn.
15  5 
Combined efficiency of A, B and C = 100%
11 11
So, they complete the work in 1 hour. Hence, the total time required = 51 + = 51
15 15
87 A + B = C + D
97 Efficiency when both pipes used to fill = A + B
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
Ratio of efficiency 10 x + 5x 9x + 6x and efficiency when pipe A is used to fill and pipe B is used
14243 14243 to empty the tank = A − B
15x 15x A+B 2 A 3
Therefore, ratio of efficiency of A : C = 10 : 9 ∴ = ⇒ = (By componendo and dividendo)
A−B 1 B 1
Therefore, ratio of days taken by A : C = 9 : 10
Thus, the ratio of efficiency of pipe A and B = 3 : 1.
Therefore, number of days taken by A = 18 days
98 In ideal case:
88 Efficiency of 4 men and 2 boys = 20%
50 6
Efficiency of 3 women and 4 boys = 20% Time taken to fill the half tank by A and B = = hours
41.66 5
Efficiency of 2 men and 3 women = 20% Time taken by A, B and C to fill rest half of the tank
∴ Efficiency of 6 men, 6 women and 6 boys = 60% 50
= = 3 hours
∴ Efficiency of 1 man, 1 woman and 1 boy = 10% 16.66
Now, since they will work at double their efficiency 6
Total time = + 3 = 4 hours 12 minutes
∴ Efficiency of 1 man, 1 woman and 1 boy = 20% 5
∴ Required number of days = 5 In second case:
89 M 1 × D1 = M 2 × D 2 3 75 9
Time taken to fill tank by A and B = = hours
4 41.66 5
m × r = (m + n) × D 2
1 25 3
mr Time taken by A, B and C to fill rest tank = =
⇒ D2 = 4 16.66 2
(m + n)
hours
90 Efficiency of A = 2.77% , Efficiency of B = 2.22% 9 3
Total time = + = 3 hours 18 minutes
∴ Combined efficiency of A and B = 5% = (2.77 + 2.22) 5 2
 100 Therefore, difference in time = 54 minutes
Thus, it will take total of 20 minutes Q 20 = 
 5  99 Time taken by pipes A and B to fill the whole tank
100
91 Efficiency of A = 8.33% = = 6 hours
16.66
Effective efficiency = 6.66%, when there is leakage Capacity filled in 2 hours by pipes A, B and C = 2 × 13.33
∴ Efficiency of leakage = 1.66% = (8.33 − 6.66) = 26.66%
It means due to leakage a full tank will be empty in Remaining capacity = 73.33%
60 hours.
This remaining capacity can be filled by A and B
92 Efficiency of A + B = 10 + 6.66 = 16.66% 73.33 2
= = 4 hours
Efficiency of A + B + C = 5.55% 16.66 5
∴ Efficiency of C (outlet pipe) = 16.66 − 5.55 = 11.11% 2
So, the total time required = 2 + 4 = 6 hours 24 minutes
It means outlet pipe C can empty in 9 hours. 5
Thus, in this case 24 minutes extra are required.
390 QUANTUM CAT
1 Therefore in 36 hours the tank will be completely filled.
100 In one hour pipe A can fill = part of the tank
30 Alternatively Efficiency of pipe A = 3.33%
1
In one hour pipe B can fill = part of the tank Efficiency of pipe B = 2.22%
45
1 and Combined efficiency = 5.55%
In two hour pipes A and B can fill = part of the tank Therefore in 2 hours pipe A and B fill 5.55%.
18
Thus to fill 100% tank, these pipe will take 36 hours.

Level 02 Higher Level Exercise

1 LCM of 2, 3 and 4 = 12 Solutions (for Q. Nos. 4 and 5)
In 12 hours A will make 6 shawls 1st day 2nd day
 Morning shift} A B
" " " B will make 4 shawls  13 shawls
 Evening shift} B A
" " " C will make 3 shawls 
 It is clear that in two days finally they work very similar to
i . e. , in 12 hours they will weave 13 shawls
the alternate days i. e.,finally A work for 10 hours and B also
so, in 84 hours they will weave 91 shawls
works for 10 hours. Thus in every two days they will
Now, in 9 hours A will make 4 shawls 
 complete 7.5% work. So, in 26 days they will complete
in 9 hours B will make 3 shawls  9 shawls
 97.5% of the total work. Now, the remaining work = 2.5%
in 9 hours C will make 2 shawls 
Now, this is the turn of A,
So, they will complete 100 shawls in 93 hours.
Since A does 4.16% work in 10 hours.
NOTE Since, they cannot share each-others work so B So, he will do 2.5% work in 6 hours.
will take completely 9 hours to make 3 shawls, even when A
4 Thus, the work will be finished on 27th day.
and C stay idle for the last 1 hour till B completes his own
work. 5 Since, A does 2.5% work in 6 hours, which is the actual
duration of morning shift. So 100% time of the morning
2 M T W Th F S shift was utilised.
A S A S A S
123 123 123 6 From the first statement :
Work → 15% 15% 7 . 5% (B + C ) (A + B + C )
144444
42444444 3
37.5% Efficiency 2x 3x
Days 3y 2y
{This pattern continued for total 2 weeks only till 75% 1
work got completed.} Thus, we can say that efficiency of A is the efficiency of
( A + B + C ). 3
Thus in 2 weeks they will complete 75% work.
From the last statement:
Now 15% of the remaining (25% of the work) will be done 120 4
in the third week in Monday and Tuesday. Again 10% work Share of B out of total amount = =
450 15
remained undone. Out of this 8.33% work will be done by
Arun on Wednesday and remaining 1.66% work will be From these two results we can conclude that:
completed on Thursday by Satyam. A : B : C
Final week 5  1 4 6
Ratio of efficiency =  : :
M T W Th 15  3 15 15
A S
123
A
{ S
{ ⇒ 5 : 4 : 6
15% 8.33% 1.66% 1 1 1
144444
42444444 3 Ratio of number of ⇒ : :
5 4 6
25% days
⇒ 12x : 15x : 10 x
3 Efficiency of Kaushalya = 5% 1 1 9
One day’s work of A and B = + =
Efficiency of Kaikeyi = 4% 12x 15x 60 x
Thus, in 10 days working together they will complete only 60 x
∴ A and B will take days to complete the whole work,
90% of the work. 9
[(5 + 4) × 10] = 90 Again one day’s work of A, B and C
Hence, the remaining work will surely done by Sumitra, 1 1 1 15
= + + =
which is 10%. 12x 15x 10 x 60 x
Thus, Sumitra will get 10% of ` 700, which is ` 70.
Time and Work 391

∴ A, B and C working together complete the work in 2nd case T C B

60 x
days 16 10 12
15 8 12 12
60 x 60 x 8
∴ − = 128 120 144
9 15 3
8 No change in critical value*
(Since, A and B take days more than A, B and C)
3 NOTE In third case it will reduce the production below
⇒ x =1 1200 books per day (or 120 books per hour)
∴ Number of days required to complete the whole work by
So, option (d) is correct.
A, B and C = 4 x = 4 × 1 = 4 days
Alternatively You can solve through option. Critical value means the minimum amount of job which the
restriction.
Alternatively Ratio of efficiencies of A, B and
11 Efficiency of Bunty and Babli (jointly) = 12.5%
C = 5x : 4 x : 6 x
100 Now, go through options and satisfy the conditions.
∴ Number of days required by A and B = …(i) Consider option (d).
9x
100 Bunty Babli
and number of days required by A, B and C = …(ii)
15x Efficiency 7.5% → 5%
100 100 8 5 40
∴ − = ⇒ x= Days 20
9 x 15x 3 3 3
From eq. (ii) number of days required by A, B and C Now, the new efficiency of Bunty = 15%
working together 5
100 100 100 and the new efficiency of Babli = %
= = = = 4 days 3
15x 15 × 5 25 50
∴ Combined efficiency = %
3 3
7 MIT NIT 100
∴ Number of days taken by them = = 6 days
4 × 10 × 60 × E1 = 5 × 8 × 80 × E 2 50 /3
E1 4 Hence, the presumed option (d) is correct.
⇒ =
E2 3
NOTE Without solving the complete problem we can say
where E1and E 2 are the respective working efficiencies per that only option (d) is true since other 3 options gives the
hour. efficiency of Bunty equal to or more than 12.5% which is
∴ Each engineer from NIT is 25% less efficient than each inadmissible i. e. , cannot be equal to or greater than the
engineer from MIT. combined efficiency of both persons together.
8 T C B 12 Let x litre be the per day filling and v litre be the capacity of
16 10 15 the reservoir, then
8 12 12 90 x + v = 40000 × 90 …(i)
128 120 180 ← in one hour and 60 x + v = 32000 × 60 …(ii)
1280 1200 1800 ← in 10 hour Solving eq. (i) and (ii), we get
Since, restriction is imposed by composers i . e. , since only
x = 56000
1200 books can be composed in 10 hours so not more than
1200 books can be finally prepared. Hence, 56000 litres per day can be used without the failure
of supply.
9 To maximise the production we locate 5 persons for
composing and 7 persons for typing. Only then we can 13 One day’s production = 400 × 9 × 60= 2160000 bottles per day
maximise our production which is 1800 books per day. Ratio of time utilised by M 1 and (M 1 + M 2 ) = 1 : 2
T C B Now, the production of bottles by M 1 in 1 minute = 400
(16 + 7 ) (10 + 5) 15 and the production of bottles by M 1 and M 2 together in
8 12 12
2 minutes = 2000
184 180 180
Thus total 2400 bottles can be processed in 3 minutes
1840 1800 1800
∴ 216000 bottles can be processed in
10 1st case T C B 3
15 10 13 216000 × = 4.5 hours
2400
8 12 12
120 120 156 14 Let he initially employed x workers which works for D days
and he estimated 100 days for the whole work and then he
1200 1200 1560
doubled the worker for (100 − D ) days.
No change in critical value
D × x + (100 − D ) × 2x = 175x ⇒ D = 25 days
392 QUANTUM CAT
3  64 x  96 x
NOTE 175 = 100 + × 100 , since required number of Remaining work = 40 x −  8 x +  =
4  5  5
 3
Remaining number of days = 40 − (8 + 16) = 16
days are 75% i. e. ,  more than the estimated number of
 4 96 x /5 6 x
days. ∴ New work-force = =
16 5
Now, the work done in 25 days = 25x ∴Change (or increase) in work-force
Total work = 175x  6x
  −x
∴ Work done before increasing the number of workers  5
= × 100 = 20%
25x 2 x
= × 100 = 14 % 21 Let A, B, C , D and E stiches a, b, c, d and e shirts per day
175x 7
NOTE For easier calculation consider some convenient then
15
value of x (i.e., number of workers). Let initially there were 20 1 1 1 1 1 90 1
+ + + + = =
workers employed. a b c d e 1800 20
It means work done till 25 days = 25 × 20 = 500 man-days when a = b = c = d = e, we get the minimum value
Now, since delay in works is 60%. 1 1
∴ 5× =
It means the work was completed in 160 days. Let the a 20
increased workers worked for k days then ⇒ a = 100 = b = c = d = e
40 × k + 16 × (135 − k ) = 75 × 40 22 (8M + 5W ) × 6 × 4 = (4M + 5W ) × 8 × 5
⇒ k = 35 days
⇒ 4M = 10W
∴ 40 workers work for only 35 days
⇒ 1M = 2.5W
Here 40 means twice the work force of 20
Now, substituting the value M by W , we get total
and 16 means 80% efficiency of the original work-force
work-done
and 135 means (160 − 25) days
Work = (8 × 2.5 + 5) × 6 × 4 = 600 women-days-hours
and 75 means (100 − 25) days
= 240 man-days-hours
Since, number of days are increased by 60 in which only 16
workers work. Again work = 5 × 8 × 30 = 1200 boy-days-hours
∴ Remaining work after 100 days = 60 × 16 = 960 ∴ 1M = 2.5W = 5B
=
960 5
× 100 = 27 % 4M + 3W + 4B = 30 boys
3500 7 1200
∴ Required number of days = = 8 days
30 × 5
Solution (for Q. Nos. 16 to 20) Let the actual number of
typists be n required to work for D days, then 23 9 × 6 × M = 240

 4n  240
nD = ( n × 8 ) +  × D ⇒ D = 40 M = = 4.4 men
 5  6×9
Therefore, minimum 5 men are required.
16 Since, the above equation is independent of n (i . e. , number
of typists) so cannot be calculated. It means there are many 24 Efficiency of Eklaya = 16.66%
possible values. Efficiency of Faizal = 8.33%
 1
17 Since 20% i . e. ,  typists left the job. So, there can be any Total efficiency of Eklaya and Faizal = 25%
 5
So, they can do actual work in 4 days
value which is multiple of 5 i . e. , whose 20% is always an
integer. Hence, 5 is the least possible value. ∴ 3 times work requires 12 days.
24 × 25
18 The remaining value must be divisible by 4. 25 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + … + 24 = = 300
4x 2
Since, =k x → actual number of typists
5 Total work = 300 man-days
k×5 But, the person who started the work on the first day works
⇒ x= k → remaining number of typists
4 for 24 days. Hence, his share will be maximum which is
So, k must be divisible by 4, since a person cannot be a 24 2 2
equal to = . Thus, he will receive 5000 × = ` 400.
fraction. Hence, option (c) could be the possible answer. 300 25 25
19 Since, D = 40 26 Total efficiency of two persons = 50%
20 Work done in 8 days = 8 x Ratio of efficiencies of first person to the second person = 1 : 2
4 64 x Therefore, efficiency of second person = 33.33%
Work done in further 16 days = 16 × x =
5 5 Hence, he will take 3 days to complete the work alone.
Time and Work 393

27 Ratio of number of men, women and children Efficiency of (B + V + M ) = 16.66% (number of days = 6)
18 10 12 ∴ Efficiency of B = 8.33% (number of days = 12)
= : : = 3x : 2x : 4 x
6 5 3 and Efficiency of (V + M ) = 8.33% (number of days = 12)
∴ (3x + 2x + 4 x ) = 18 Therefore, B will take 12 days.
∴ x=2 Now, from third statement V will take 20 days.
Therefore, number of women = 4 Hence, the efficiency of V is 5%.
10 Therefore, V will take 20 days. Hence, second statement is
Share of all women = × 4000 = ` 1000 also true. Thus, the presumed option (c) is correct.
40
32 Consider option (d)
(Q 18 + 10 + 12 = 40)
1000 Time taken by Bill = 12 hours, Efficiency of Bill = 8.33%
∴ Share of each woman = = ` 250 Therefore, time taken by Bill and Milinda working together
4
2
28 It can be solved easily through option. = 6 hours
3
 55 
(10 + 9 + 8 + … + 1) = 10 × 10 ×  Hence, the efficiency of Milinda and Bill = 15%
 100
Therefore efficiency of Milinda = 15 − 8. 33 = 6. 66%
55 = 55 Hence correct. Thus, the number of days taken by Milinda = 15, which is
n(n + 1) 55n 1
Alternatively =n× 8 days more than when both work together.
2 100 3
⇒ n = 10 Hence, all the conditions satisfied.
In both cases total work is 55 man-days. M B+M B
29 Go through option. Consider choice (c). Efficiency → 6.66% 15% 8.33%
Efficiency of first worker = 5% 2
Efficiency of second worker = 4% Number of days → 15 6 12
3
∴ In 7 hours first worker completed 35% work
In 5 hours second worker completed 20% work 33 Efficiency of Pascal and Rascal = 10%
Thus, work completed = 55% Pascal worked for 2.5 hours and Rascal worked separately
Remaining work = 45% 8.5 hours. Which means it can be considered that Pascal
Hence, one condition is satisfied. and Rascal worked together for 2.5 hours and Rascal
worked alone for 6 hours.
Again, they will take 5 more hours to complete 45% work
Thus, Pascal and Rascal in 2.5 hours can complete 25%
 45  work. It means the remaining (50 − 25) = 25% of the work
 4 + 5 = 5
  was done by Rascal in 6 hours.
Thus, first person completes 7 × 5 + 5 × 5 = 60% work Therefore, Rascal can do 100% work in 24 hours. It means
and second person completes 5 × 4 + 5 × 4 = 40% work the efficiency of Rascal = 4.16%.
Hence, second condition is also satisfied. Hence, correct Therefore, efficiency of Pascal = (10 − 4.16) = 5.83%
option is (c). 100 1
Thus, Pascal require = 17 hours to complete the
30 Go through option 5.83 7
140 × 4 = (140 + 120 + 100 + … + 20) work alone.
560 = 560 Alternatively Go through option.
Alternatively Let n be the initial number of worker then Total 10 days
34 Initial 2 days + last 8 days
n × 4 = n + (n − 20) + (n − 40) + … + (n − 120)
4n = 7 n − 420 ⇒ 3n = 420 ⇒ n = 140 workers ( B + C + D) (C + D)
31 From the first statement 40% work 60% work
B (V + M )
Number of days x = x From the above diagram it is clear that efficiency of C and D
Efficiency 1 : 1 is 7.5%, since C and D complets 60% work in 8 days and
efficiency of B, C and D is 20%. It means efficiency of B
From the second statement
alone is 12.5% = (20 − 7.5).
V (V + M )
Now C : D
Number of days → (K + 8) K
Number of days 4x : 5x
From the third statement
Efficiency 5y : 4y
B V 5
Number of days → (n − 8) n ∴ Efficiency of C = × 7.5 = 4.16%
9
Now, go through option and consider option (c).
394 QUANTUM CAT
4
and Efficiency of D = × 7.5 = 3.33% 38 From the last statement:
9
Efficiency of Anne (A), Benne (B) and Cenne (C) = 50%
Thus, D is the least efficient person.
From the first statement: Number of days taken by B is
Now share of work done by David
2 more than C.
(D ) = 3.33% × 10 = 33.33%
Hence, his share of amount = 33.33% of ` 3000 = ` 1000 From the second statement: Anne had worked for 6 days
and Benne had worked for 3 days only. Now, consider
35 Combined efficiency of all the three boats
option (d).
= 60 passenger/trip
Now, consider option (a). Number of days taken by B = 6, Efficiency = 16.66%
p It means Benne had completed 16.66 × 3 = 50% work in
15 trips and 150 passengers means efficiency of B1 = 10 3 days.
t
which means in carrying 50 passengers B1 must has taken Therefore Anne had completed 50% work in 6 days.
5 trips. So the rest trips equal to 5 (10 − 5 = 5) in which B 2  50
and B 3 together carried remaining 250 (300 − 50) Thus, the efficiency of Anne = 8.33%  
 6
passengers.
250 p Hence, the efficiency of Cenne
Therefore the efficiency of B 2 and B 3 = = 50 = 50 − (16.66 + 8.33) = 25%
5 t
Since, the combined efficiency of B1, B 2 and B 3 is 60. Thus B takes 6 days (Q efficiency = 16.66%)
Which is same as given in the first statement hence option and C takes 4 days (Q efficiency = 25%)
(a) is correct. which is true according to the first statement, hence option
Alternatively It can be solved by framing quadratic (d) is correct.
equation. 39 Number of pages typed by A, B and C together per day = 45
36 Efficiency of 3 men + 5 women = 33.33% Now let the number of pages typed by B is x
Required number of days by 2 men = x then the number of pages typed by A = x − d
and the number of pages typed by C = x + d
∴ Required number of days by 3 women = x + 5
⇒ ( x − d ) + ( x ) + ( x + d ) = 45
Now, consider option (c).
⇒ x = 15 pages per day.
Therefore, 3M + 5W = 3M + 2M = 5 men k
Therefore, efficiency of a man = 6.66% Again let C types k pages per day then A types pages per
4
Hence, a man needs 15 days to finish the job, working alone. day.
Again 3M + 5W = 7.5W + 5W = 12.5W Therefore, the ratio of typing of pages per day of A and C
=1: 4
Therefore, efficiency of a woman = 2.66%
∴ Number of pages typed by C in one day
Therefore, a woman needs 37.5 days.
4
 15 = × 30 = 24 pages (30 = 45 − 15)
Thus, 2 men needs 7.5 days to work alone Q 7.5 =  5
 2
24
and 3 women needs 12.5 days to work alone ∴ Number of pages typed by C per hour = = 3 pages/hour
8
 37.5 40 Efficiency of P = 5%
Q 12.5 = 
 3 
Efficiency of Q = 4%
Hence, the difference in number of days = 5 which is same Efficiency of R = 2.5%
as given in the problem. Hence correct option is (c). Efficiency of S = 2%
37 Efficiency of Henry and Ford (combined) = 10% Till 10 am pipe P filled 20% 
Till 10 am pipe Q filled 8%  30.5%
Consider option (d). 
Till 10 am pipe R filled 2.5% 
Efficiency of Ford = 3.33% (30 days)
Thus, at 10 am pipe P , Q and R filled 30.5% of the cistern.
Therefore, Efficiency of Henry = 6.66% Now, the time taken by P , Q , R and S together to fill the
Now, the new efficiency of Ford = 16.66% remaining capacity of the cistern
and the new efficiency of Henry = 3.33% 69.5 139
= = = 5 hours and 9 minutes (approx)
13.5 27
Therefore, newly combined efficiency of H and F = 20%
Therefore, total time = 4 hours + 5 hours 9 minutes
Therefore, required number of days by Henry and Ford
= 9 hours and 9 minutes
working together = 5
It means cistern will be filled up at 3 : 09 pm
Since 5 is half of 10, hence the option (d) is correct.
Time and Work 395

41 Efficiency of P + Q = 9% (inlet pipes) 46 Rate of leakage = 8.33% per hour

Efficiency of R + S = 4.5% (outlet pipes) Net efficiency = 50 − (16.66 + 8.33) = 25%
Net efficiency = 4.5% 100
100 2 Time required = = 4 hours
So, the time taken = = 22 hours 25
4.5 9
47 Since, an inlet pipe is 7.2 times efficient than an outlet
42 Efficiency of A = 10% , Efficiency of B = 6.66% pipe. Therefore, in order to tank never overflow we will
Efficiency of C = 5%, Efficiency of D = 3.33% need total 8 outlet pipes.
Efficiency of A + B + C + D = 8.33 (time = 12 hours) Thus we need only 7 more (8 − 1 = 7 ) outlet pipes.
Now, go through options and consider A and B as inlet
pipes and C and D as outlet pipes, then 48 Time taken by 8th tap = 2 × 2 × 2 = 8 hours
(10 + 6.66) − (5 + 3.33) = 8.33 and time taken by 12th tap = 2 ×
1 1 1
× = hour
which is required hence it is certain that C and D are outlet 2 2 2
pipes. Ratio of time taken by 8th tap and 12th tap
1
NOTE There is no any other such combination. = 8 : = 16 : 1
2
 100 ∴ Ratio of efficiencies of 8th tap and 12th tap = 1 : 16
43 Efficiency of inlet pipe A = 4.16%  
 24 
1 1
 100  49 Time taken by 10th tap = 80 × × = 20 hours
Efficiency of inlet pipe B = 5.83%   2 2
 120 /7  1 1 1 1
Time taken by 12th tap = 80 × × × × = 5 hours
∴ Efficiency of A and B together = 10%∴(time = 10 hours) 2 2 2 2
Now, if the efficiency of outlet pipe be x % then in 10 hours Thus 10th tap and 12th tap together will take 4 hours.
the capacity of tank which will be filled = 10 × (10 − x ) 50 Let pipe A fill the tank in 3x hours then pipe B fill it in 4 x
Now, since this amount of water is being emptied by C at hours.
x % per hour, then 1 1 7
Therefore, in 1 hour they will fill = + =
10 × (10 − x ) 3x 4 x 12x
= 2.5 hours ⇒ x = 8% 12x
x i . e. , they will take hours
Therefore in 10 hours 20% tank is filled only. Hence, the 7
remaining 80% of the capacity will be filled by pipes A and When an inlet pipe C is also opened then it takes
80 12x 12x 3
B in = 8 hours. = + ×
10 7 7 4
12x  7 
44 Efficiency of pipe A = 8.33% =   = 3x hours
7  4
Efficiency of pipe B = 6.67%
Now, in one hour pipe A, B and C working together fill
Efficiency of pipe C = 5% 1 1 1 1
= + − =
When tap C was opened pipe A filled 16.66% capacity 3x 4 x C 3x
When tap C was opened pipe B filled 6.67% capacity 7 1 1
⇒ − =
Therefore rest capacity of the tank to be filled 12x C 3x
= 100 − 23.34 = 76.66% 1  1 1
⇒ = − 
C  12x 3x 
Now, the net efficiency of A, B and C = 10%
⇒ C = 4x
Hence, pipes A, B and C will take
76.66 2 Hence in 4 x hours pipe C can empty the whole tank.
= = 7.66 = 7 hours Now, since 3x = 33 ⇒ x = 11
10 3
2 2 ∴ 4 x = 4 × 11 = 44 hours
∴ Total time = 2 hours + 7 hours = 9 hours 51 Total work = 5 × 20 = 100 man-days.
3 3
45 Efficiency of inlet pipe = 50% Let the client needed to complete it in n days then
(5 × 2) + (10 × 2) + (15 × 2) + (20 × 2) = 100
Efficiency of outlet pipe = 16.66%
Hence, in 8 days all the work will be completed as per the
Net efficiency of pipes A and B = 33.33% requirement of client.
Capacity of tank to be filled up = 66.66% And on the 8th day 20 men were working.
66.66 52 It requires total 8 days by adding the work force
Hence, required time = = 2 hours
33.33 successively.
396 QUANTUM CAT
53 Total work = 100 + 50 = 150 man-days 1 1 7
Now, using Eq. (i), we have + =
In 8 days 100 man-days work has been completed. Now on 3k 4k 48
9th and 10th day there will be 25 workers. So in 2 days they ⇒ k=4
will complete additional 50 man-days work. Thus the work ∴ x = 3k = 12 and y = 4k = 16
requires 2 more days. Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.
54 Let there be ‘ n’ inlet pipes then there must be (8 − n) outlet 57 Let us denote men by m, women by w and days by d.
pipes. Then,
1 1 1 4m + 3w = 6d …(i)
Therefore (8 − n) − n × = ⇒ n=4
6 8 6 ⇒ 8m + 6w = 3d …(ii)
Alternatively (8 − n) 16.66 − n × 12.5 = 16.66
and 5m + 6w = 4d …(iii)
116.66 700
⇒ n= = =4 Comparing Eq. (ii) and (iii) we can infer that 3 extra men
29.16 175 working for 3 days save 1 day out of the 4 days.
Alternatively It can be solve through options very easily.
That means 3 extra men working for 3 days, save 25% of
the time.
55 Efficiency of two inlet pipes A and B = 8.33 + 6.66 = 15% It implies that 3 men working for 3 days can finish 25% of
the total work.
Efficiency of two inlet pipes A and B along with an outlet
pipe So, to finish 100% work the number of man-days required
= 3 × 3 × 4 = 36
C = 8.33 + 6.66 − 12.5 = 2.5%
Again, 4m + 3w = 6d …(iv)
Hours 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ⇒ 24m + 18w = 1d
Efficiency → 15 15 2.5 15 15 2.5 15 15 2.5 But, 24m + 18w = 36m
32.5 32.5 32.5
⇒ 12m = 18w
97.5% 2.5%
or 2m = 3w …(v)
In 9 hours 97.5% tank will be completely filled. On the 13
10th hour 2.5% (remaining capacity) will be fill by pipe Therefore, 3m + 2w = m
3
A, B with its 15% efficiency.
2.5 1 Since, 1 man requires 36 days to finish the job
Thus, A will take = = hour = 10 minutes 13 36 108
15 6 So, men will require =
3 13 / 3 13
Therefore, total time = 9 hours and 10 minutes.
= 8. 3 ≈ 9 days
56 Let pipe A and pipe B fill an empty tank in x hours and y
Hence, choice (c) is the required answer.
hours, respectively. Therefore, the capacity filled by both
Alternatively
the pipes in 1 hour is
1 1 7 4m + 3w = 6d ...(i)
+ = ...(i)
x y 48 ⇒ 8m + 6w = 3d …(ii)
⇒ 2. 67 m + 2w = 9d
Further, we have
1  x 1  y 7 Again, 4m + 3w = 6d
  +   = ⇒ 12m + 9w = 2d …(iii)
y  3 x  4  12
⇒ 3m + 2. 25w = 8d …(iv)
 x  y
⇒ 4  + 3  = 7 Now, we need to find the number of days required by
 y  x
3m + 2w.
x 3 1 If you look at Eq. (ii), then you can easily infer that the
⇒ = or
y 4 1 number of days required by 3m + 2w should be little less
x 1 than 9.
Now, if we consider = then Eq. (i) will not be satisfied.
y 1 But, if you look at the Eq. (iv), then you can infer that the
x 3 number of days required should be little more than 8.
So, we can consider = . So, finally we can conclude that it will take more than 8 but
y 4
less than 9 days.
x 3k
That is = It implies that the work will be finished on the 9th day only.
y 4k
Time and Work 397

58 Let us consider the LCM of 45, 40, 30, 20 and 15, which is Therefore, {P4, P3} will fill the tank in 1 hour and {P4, P5}
360. Now, let us assume that the capacity of the tank be will empty the tank in 1 hour.
360 liters. Therefore, the rate of flow of water of the pipes Hence, choice (d) is the correct one
P1, P2, P3, P4, P5 will be 8, 9, 12, 18 and 24 liter/min.
59 Let’s create a matrix as shown below.
Incoming
Outlet Inlet Pipes
Pipes P Q R S
P1 (8) P2 (9) P3 (12) P4 (18) P5 (24)
P 52 48 (100)
P1 (−8) 1 4 10 16

Outgoing
Q 36 (36)
P2 (−9) −1 3 9 15
P3 (−12) −4 −3 6 12 R 76 24 (100)

P4 (−18) −10 −9 −6 6 S 48 (48)

P5 (−24) −16 −15 −12 −6 76 100 36 72

If we consider P4 as inlet and P3 and P5 as outlet pipes, we Now, let’s calculate the net flow of the water.
see that {P4, P3} = {6} and {P4, P5} = {−6} P : 76 − 100 = − 24
Q : 100 − 36 = 64
Outlet Pipes Inlet Pipes R : 36 − 100 = − 64
P3 (12) P4 (18) P5 (24) S : 72 − 78 = 24
It shows that R gives away 64 liters/second, so R will be
P3 (−12) 6 12 384
empty first and the time taken = = 6 seconds.
P4 (−18) −6 6 64
P5 (−24) −12 −6 Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.
 QUANTUM CAT

CHAPTER 09

Time, S peed and

Distance
It is sure and certain that it is one of the most important chapters, which includes various
fundamental and logical concepts and therefore most of the problems are complex in their
nature. Every year 4-6 problems are generally asked in CAT. Besides CAT almost every
aptitude exam contains the questions pertaining to the concepts of TSD.
This chapter includes the following :
(a) Motion in a straight line (b) Circular motion and races
(c) Problems based on trains, boats, river and clocks etc.

9.1 Concept of Motion

When a body moves from a point A to another point B at a distance of D, then it requires Chapter Checklist
some time (T ) to cover a distance ( D ) with a particular speed ( S ). Concept of Motion
The relation between T , S and D is as follows : T × S = D i. e., Time × Speed = Distance Relative Motion with Two or
1 More Bodies
Therefore, when D is constant, T ∝ and when T is constant, D ∝ S and when S is constant,
D ∝T S To and Fro Motion in a
Straight Line
NOTE This relation of proportionality is very important.
Concept Based on Trains
Distance Distance
Formulae : Distance = Speed× Time, Speed = or Time = Concept Based on Boats
Time Speed and Rivers (or streams)
NOTE To solve the problem, all the units involved in the calculation must be uniform i.e., either all of Races
them be in metres and seconds or in kilometres and hours etc.
Circular Motion
5
Conversion of unit: 1 km/h = m/s Clocks
18 CAT Test
18
1 m/s = km/h [1 km =1000m, 1 h = 60 min, 1 min = 60 s]
5
Hint Try to find these relations by unitary method.
1 mile =1609.30 m =1.6093 km
and 1 km = 0.621 mile, 1 yard = 0.9144 m
Time, Speed and Distance 399

and 1 m =1.0936 yards and 1 m = 39.4 inches NOTE For the constant distance covered, the ratio of time taken
by each person is the ratio of the reciprocal of their speeds and
Total distance
Average speed = vice-versa.
Total time taken If the ratio of speeds of A , B , C , D be a : b : c : d, then the ratio
When distances are equal : of time taken by A , B , C and D to cover the same distance
1 1 1 1
2xy = : : :
Average speed = (speeds x, y) a b c d
x+ y and if the time taken by A , B , C and D be p : q : r : s, then the
3xyz 1 1 1 1
and Average speed = (speeds x, y, z) ratio of their speeds = : : :
xy + yz + zx p q r s

Exp. 1) Abhishek drives his bike at the speed of Exp. 4) A car takes half of the time taken by truck to go
150 km/h. What is the distance covered by him in 3 hours. from Lucknow to Bombay. A truck takes 20 hours to go
Solution D = S × T = 150 × 3 = 450 km for the same journey. What is the speed of truck, if the
speed of car be 120 km/h.
Exp. 2) Udai travels half of his journey by train at the Solution Car Truck
speed of 120 km/h and rest half by car at 80 km/h. What Time → 1 : 2
is the average speed? Speed → 2 : 1
Solution Let the total distance be 2D km, then Therefore, speed of the truck = 60 km/h
D D
Total time = Time taken by train + Time taken by car = +
120 80 Exp. 5) A cycle covers 75 km distance in 5 hours. What is
2D 2D 2 the distance covered by the cycle in 6 hours?
∴ Average speed = = = = 96
D D  1 1  2 + 3 Distance
+ D +    Solution Speed =
120 80  120 80  240  Time
km/h 75
∴ Speed = = 15 km/h
Alternatively Consider the distance in numerals (since it is 5
independent of the distance) as the LCM of the speeds. Now, distance covered in 6 hours at the speed of 15 km/h
Then, the total distance = LCM of 120 and 80 = 240 = 15 × 6 = 90 km
120
Therefore, time taken by train = =1h Exp. 6) The distance of the college and the home of
120
Rajeev is 80 km. One day he was late by 1 hour than the
120 3
and time taken by car = = h normal time to leave for the college, so he increased his
80 2
Total distance speed by 4 km/h and thus he reached to college at the
∴ Average speed = normal time. What is the changed (or increased) speed of
Total time taken
240 Rajeev?
= = 96 km/h (a) 28 km/h (b) 30 km/h (c) 40 km/h (d) 20 km/h
3
1+ Solution Let the normal speed be x km/h, then
2
80 80
Alternatively Average speed =
2( xy) − =1
( x + y) x ( x + 4)
where x and y are the speeds. ⇒ x 2 + 4x − 320 = 0
2 × 120 × 80 ⇒ x ( x + 20) − 16 ( x + 20) = 0
∴ Average speed = = 96 km/h
120 + 80 ( x + 20) ( x − 16) = 0
NOTE This formula is applicable only when the distances x = 16 km/h
travelled at the speed of x km/h and y km/h are same. ∴ ( x + 4) = 20 km/h
Alternatively Solve through alligations. Therefore increased speed = 20 km/h
Alternatively If t1 and t 2 be the original and changed time
Exp. 3) Speed of Karan is 40 km/h and speed of Arjun is and S1 and S2 be the original and changed speeds, then
60 km/h. What is the ratio of time taken by each to cover Distance × ( S1 ∼ S2 )
S1 × S2 =
the same distance? (t1 ∼ t 2 )
Solution Karan Arjun
Distance × (t1 ∼ t 2 )
Speed 40 : 60 Also, t1 × t 2 =
( S1 ∼ S2 )
⇒ 2 : 3
∴Time 3 : 2 80
∴ S1 × S2 = × 4 = 320 ∴ S1 × S2 = 320
1 1 1
Alternatively Time taken = : = 3:2
40 60 or S1 × ( S1 + 4) = 320 ⇒ S1 = 16 and S2 = 20
400 QUANTUM CAT
NOTE Here you need not to solve necessarily quadratic Exp. 8) Kriplani goes to school at 20 km/h and reaches
equation. You can just try and find two factors of 320 in such a way
the school 4 minutes late. Next time, she goes at 25 km/h
that (in this particular problem) one factor must be greater than the
other factor by 4. and reaches the school 2 minutes earlier than the
Alternatively Go through options. Consider 20 scheduled time. What is the distance of her school?
80 Solution Increase in speed = 5 km/h
t2 = = 4 ⇒ t1 = 4 + 1 = 5
20 Decrease in time = 6 min ( 4 + 2)
80 By product constancy :
∴ S1 = = 16
5 Speed Time
Since, S1 is 4 km/h less than S2 . Hence, option (d) is correct. 1 1
↑ ↓ = 6 min
Alternatively If you find yourself comfortable then 4 5
factorise 80 in two factors and check the correct combinations.  x 
It means original time = 30 min Q = 6 ⇒ x = 30
 5 
80 = 1 × 80
2 × 40 ∴ Total distance = Original speed × Original time
–1 4 × 20 +4 30
= 20 × = 10 km
5 × 16 60
8 × 10
Exp. 9) Amit covers a certain distance with his own
So, the increased speed = 20 km/h.
speed, but when he reduces his speed by 10 km/h his time
Exp.7) Shweta when increases her speed from 24 km/h duration for the journey increases by 40 hours, while if he
to 30 km/h she takes one hour less than the usual time to increases his speed by 5 km/h from his original speed he
cover a certain distance. What is the distance usually takes 10 hours less than the original time taken. Find the
covered by Shweta? distance covered by him.
(a) 160 km (b)240 km (c) 120 km (d) 90 km S T 
Solution  40S − 10T = |− 400| …(i)
Solution Let the original time be t hours, then −10 + 40
24t = 30 × (t − 1) = D (distance) S T 
t =5  − 10S + 5 T = |− 50| …(ii)
Then +5 −10
∴ Distance = 24 × 5 = 120 km
Solving eq. (i) and (ii), we get
Alternatively Go through options.
S = 25 and T = 60
120
=5h ∴ Distance ( D) = S × T = 25 × 60 = 1500 km
24 1 hour less
120 where D → Distance, S → Speed, T → Time
= 4h ‘+’ means increase in value.
30
Hence, the option (c) is correct. and ‘−’ means decrease in value.
Alternatively Since distance (D) is constant. Alternatively Let distance be x km and usual speed
Therefore, D = S1 × t1 = S2 × t 2 be y km/h.
x x
It means here we can apply product constancy − = 40
( y − 10) y
Speed Time
1 1  10 
↑ ↓ = 1 hour ⇒ x  = 40
4 5  y( y − 10) 
∴ Original time taken = 5 × 1 = 5 hours ⇒ x = 4y ( y − 10) …(i)
Therefore, Distance = Original speed × Original time x x
and − = 10
= 24 × 5 = 120 km y ( y + 5)
NOTE In the given exercise or in the whole chapter you have to ⇒ x = 2y( y + 5) …(ii)
solve maximum problems through product constancy concept from eq. (i) and (ii)
described in the chapter of ratio proportion and variation.
4y( y − 10) = 2y ( y + 5)
Solving through product constancy gives faster results.
2y − 20 = y + 5
Alternatively Let the distance be D, then
D D y = 25 km/h
− = 1 ⇒ D = 120 km
24 30 ∴ x = 1500 km
Time, Speed and Distance 401

Exp. 10) A train met with an accident 60 km away from 9.2 Relative Motion with Two or
Anantpur station. It completed the remaining journey at
5
th of the previous speed and reached the Baramula
More Bodies
6 (i) When two bodies move in the same direction: If the
station 1 hour 12 min late. Had the accident taken place 60 speeds of the two bodies A and B be S A and S B , then
km further, it would have been only 1 hour late. their relative speed = S A − S B or S B − S A i. e., in the
(a) What is the normal speed of the train? same direction the relative speed or effective speed
(b) What is the distance between Anantpur and Baramula? between two bodies is the difference of their speeds.
Solution (The difference is always considered as positive)
1 (ii) When two bodies move in the opposite direction: If
Case I. Since the speed is decreased by . So, the time will
6 the speeds of the two bodies A and B be S A and S B ,
be increased by 1/5, which is equal to 1 hour 12 minutes. then their relative speed = S A + S B .
It means the normal time required for this remaining part ( x)
of the journey is 5 × 72 min = 360 min = 6 h.
i. e. , in the opposite direction the relative speed or effective
(Q 1 h 12 min = 72 min)
speed between two bodies is the sum of their speeds.

A P x B Exp. 12) The distance between two places P and Q is

1h 700 km. Two persons A and B started towards Q and
P is the place of accident. P from P and Q simultaneously. The speed of A is 30
Case II. When accident is supposed to be happened at Q. km/h and speed of B is 40 km/h. They meet at a point M
x which lies on the way from P to Q.
A P Q B (i) How long will they take to meet each other at M?
60 (x – 60) (ii) What is the ratio of PM : MQ?
1 (iii) What is the distance MQ?
Since, the speed is decreased by , hence, the time will be (iv) What is the extra time needed by A to reach at Q than to
6
1 reach at P by B?
increased by , which is equal to 1 hour, hence the normal time (v) What is the ratio of time taken by A and B to reach their
5
required for this remaining part ( x − 60) of journey = 5 × 1 respective destinations after meeting at M?
= 5 hours. Thus, it is clear that when the train runs 60 km of (vi) In how many hours will they be separated by only 560
its normal speed it takes 1 hour less, which implies that in 1 km before meeting each other.
hour the train can run 60 km with its normal speed. Thus, (vii) How long will it take to separate them by 280 km from
the normal speed of the train is 60 km/h. each other when they cross M (time to be considered
(b) Since the train requires 6 hours at its normal speed of after their meeting)?
60 km/h for the x km. Hence, x = 6 × 60 = 360 km Solution A B
Thus, the total distance = Distance travelled before accident
P M Q
+ Distance travelled after accident
= 60 × 1 + 60 × 6 = 420 km (i) Since, they are coming towards each other from opposite
ends, therefore the relative speed will be the sum of their
Exp. 11) A and B started simultaneously towards each speeds = 30 + 40 = 70 km/h.
other from P and Q respectively. The distance between P Thus, the required time to meet at M
and Q is 600 km and the ratio of speeds of A is to B is 5 : 7. = Time required to cover 700 km (combined)
If they meet at a point M: 700
= = 10 h
(i) Find the ratio of PM : QM. (ii) Find the distance PM. 70
Solution Thus in 10 hours they will meet each other at M.
(i) Since the time is constant so, the distance covered by A (ii) The ratio of their distances covered to meet at M
and B is directly proportional to the speeds of A and B. = Ratio of their speeds = 3 : 4
Hence, PM : QM = 5 : 7 (Since, time is constant i. e., same for each)
(ii) Since, the ratio of their speeds (or their distances covered) Thus PM : MQ = 3 : 4
5 4
is 5 : 7. Hence, A will cover of the total length. (iii) MQ = × 700 = 400 km
12 7 700 70
∴ PM =
5
× 600 = 250 km (iv) Time required by A to reach at Q = = h
12 30 3
700 70
(Similarly QM =
7
× 600 = 350 km) Time required by B to reach at P = = h
12 40 4
402 QUANTUM CAT
70 70 (ii) The distance between P and M
∴ Extra time required by A = −
3 4 = (Time required to overtake × Speed of the faster body)
1 = 4 × 60 = 240 km
= 70 × = 5 h 50 min
12 Since, B has to move for 4 hours at 60 km/h. Hence,
400 distance covered = 240 km.
(v) Time required by A to cover MQ =
30 (iii) Time taken by B to reach at M = 4 h
300 Time taken by A to reach at M = ( 4 + 2) = 6 h
and time required by B to cover MP = Thus, the ratio of time taken by A and B = 6 : 4 = 3 : 2
40
400 / 30 16 (Since, A has left 2 hours earlier)
∴ Required ratio = = 800
300 /40 9 (iv) Time taken by A to reach at Q = = 20 h
40
Remember If speed of A is SA and speed of B is SB and 800
Time taken by B to reach at Q = = 13 h 20 min
A takes t A time to cover MQ and B takes t B time to cover 60
S t Hence, A takes 6 hours 40 min extra to reach at Q.
MP, then A = B (v) Since, A leaves 2 hours earlier, thus he will reach at Q only
SB tA
4 hours 40 min late.
(vi) It means they have to cover (700 − 560) = 140 km. Thus,
140 Since, A takes 6 hours 40 min extra to reach at Q.
the required time to cover 140 km distance = = 2h (vi) When B starts to move towards Q the difference between A
70
and B is 80 km.
(vii) Since in each hour they separate by 70 km from each
The required difference between A and B = 50 km
other. Hence, to separate by 280 km, time required
280 Hence, they have to reduce it by 30 km.
= = 4h ( 80 − 50)
70 Thus, the required time = = 1.5 h = 1 h 30 min
20
Exp. 13) Two places P and Q are 800 km apart from each Thus, after 3/2 hours A will be only 50 metres ahead of B.
other. Two persons start from P towards Q at an interval (vii) When B starts to follow A (towards Q) A was 80 km ahead
of 2 hours. Whereas A leaves P for Q before B. The speeds of B. Also B wants to overtake A and further go ahead of A
by 100 km. Thus, the net difference (required) = 180 km.
of A and B are 40 km/h and 60 km/h respectively. B
∴ Required time
overtakes (or catches or meets) A at M, which is on the (Distance advanced + Required difference)
way from P to Q. =
Relative speed
(i) How long will B take to overtake? 80 + 100 180
(ii) What is the distance from P, where B overtakes A = = = 9h
20 20
(i.e., PM)? Thus, after 9 hrs (when B starts moving) B will be 100 km
(iii) What is the ratio of time taken by A and B to meet at M? ahead of A i. e., they will be separated by 100 km from each
(iv) What is the extra time required by A to reach at Q? other after crossing M.
(v) How many hours late A will reach at Q than that of B?
(vi) After how many hours A and B will be separated by 9.3 To and Fro Motion in a
50 km before M, when both are moving? Straight Line
(vii) How many hours does B require to advance himself, by
100 km, in comparison to A? This concept is just the extension of the previous concepts of
relative motion between more than one dynamic (or moving)
Solution A
bodies.
P M Q
B (a) When two bodies start moving
(i) Since A moves 2 hours earlier than B at the speed of towards each other
40 km/h, so in 2 hours A will cover 80 km. Thus A will be Let the initial distance (or gap) between two bodies A and B
80 km away from B. be D, and their respective speeds be S A and S B , then A and B
Now, since they are moving in the same direction
together have to cover D unit of distance for the first
therefore their relative speed will be ( 60 − 40) = 20 km/h
i.e., with respect to A , B moves at 20 km/h. It means meeting, irrespective of their speeds.
either they reduce (or create) the difference of 20 km in (i) To meet each other they cover the distances in the ratio
each hour between themselves. of their individual speeds.
Thus, the required time to overtake (ii) If the initial distance (or gaping) between two bodies A
(or reduce the difference upto zero from 80 km)
and B is D, then A and B together have to cover D unit of
Distance advanced 80
= = = 4h distance for the first meeting.
Relative speed 20
Time, Speed and Distance 403

(iii) For the next number of meeting (e.g., second, third, fourth meeting and so on) both A and B together have to cover 2D
distance more from the previous meeting i.e., to meet for the fourth time they have to cover together D + (3 × 2D ) = 7D
unit of distances. Similarly for seventh meeting they have to cover together D + (6 × 2D ) = 13D units of distance. Thus for
each subsequent meeting they have to cover 2D distance extra from the previous one.
NOTE Individually they will cover the distances in the ratio of their speeds for any number of meeting. Thus, the total distance covered for
the nth meeting = ( 2n − 1) D.

(b) When two bodies start moving towards the same direction
Let the two bodies A and B be initially at the same end of the track, their respective speeds be S A and S B and D be the length of
the track, then A and B together have to cover 2D unit of distance for the first meeting, irrespective of their speeds.
(i) For the first meeting after they start to move they have to cover 2D distance, if the distance between two particular points
(or places) be D unit. Since, the faster body reaches the next (or opposite) end first than the slower body and the faster
body starts returning before the slower body reaches the same opposite end and thus the two bodies meet somewhere
between the two ends covering individually the distances in their respective speeds.
(ii) For every subsequent meeting they have to cover together 2D unit distance more from the previous meeting.
Thus, for nth meeting they have to cover together ( n × 2D ) unit of distance.
(iii) At any point of time the distances covered by the bodies will be equal to the ratio of their speeds.
Exp. 14) The distance between P and Q is 100 m and the speeds of A and B are 20 m/s and 30 m/s respectively. Initially
A and B are at P. They move between P and Q. Calculate:
(i) The distance covered by A in first meeting. (ii) The time required for the second meeting.
(iii) The distance covered by B to meet for the third time. (iv) The ratio of distances covered by A and B till the fourth meeting.
(v) The distance between P and the place of fifth meeting.
(vi) The distance between Q and the point of third meeting.
Meeting Total distance Distance Distance Point of Point of Time
Solution covered by A and B covered by A covered by B meeting from P meeting from Q (in second)
together
1st 200 m 80 m 120 m 80 m 20 m 4
2nd 400 m 160 m 240 m 40 m 60 m 8
3rd 600 m 240 m 360 m 40 m 60 m 12
4th 800 m 320 m 480 m 80 m 20 m 16
5th 1000 m 400 m 600 m 0 m (at P) 100 m 20
(i) The distance covered by A in the first meeting = 80 m (ii) Time required for the second meeting = 400/50 = 8 s
(iii) The distance covered by B for the third time meeting = 12 × 30 = 360 m
(iv) It is always (for any moment, after the starting of movement) will be in the ratio of their respective speeds.
So, the required ratio of distances covered by A and B = 20 : 30 = 2 : 3 i. e., A : B = 20 : 30 = 2 : 3
(v) Since for the fifth meeting they have to cover 50 × 20 = 1000 m.
(vi) 60 m.

Exp. 15) The distance between two points P and Q is 100 m. A is initially at P and B is at Q. The speeds of A and B is
20 m/s and 30 m/s. They move between P and Q to and fro :
(i) Find the time required for the first meeting. (ii) Distance covered by A till the third meeting.
(iii) Distance covered by B till the fifth meeting. (iv) The distance between P and the place of fourth meeting.
(v) The distance between Q and the place of fifth meeting. (vi) The ratio of distances covered by each one till the third meeting.
No. of Distance covered by Time Distance Distance Distance between Distance between
Solution meeting A and B together (in second) covered by A covered by B P and point of Q and point of
meeting meeting
1st 100 m 2 40 m 60 m 40 m 60 m
2nd 300 m 6 120 m 180 m 80 m 20 m
3rd 500 m 10 200 m 300 m at P at P
4th 700 m 14 280 m 420 m 80 m 20 m
5th 900 m 18 360 m 540 m 40 m 60 m
404 QUANTUM CAT
 100  Exp. 18) A train approaches a tunnel AB. Inside the
(i) 2 second  Time = = 2
 50  5
tunnel a cat is located at a point which is of the distance
(ii) 200 m (Distance = Speed × Time = 20 × 10 = 200 m) 12
(iii) 540 m ( D = 18 × 30 = 540 m) AB measured from the entrance A. When the train
(iv) 80 m whistles, the cat runs. If the cat moves to the entrance of
(v) 60 m the tunnel A, the train catches the cat exactly at the
(vi) 2 : 3 always equal to the ratio of respective speeds. entrance. If the cat moves to the exit B, the train catches the
Exp. 16) A and B are two friends. A lives at a place P and B cat at exactly the exit. The speed of the train is greater than
lives at another place Q. Everyday A goes to Q to meet B at the speed of the cat by what order?
120 km/h. Thus, he takes 3 hours. On a particular day B Solution Train CAT
started to meet A so he moved towards P. On that day A T A 5k C 7k B
took only 2 hours to meet B on the way instead at Q. x
12k
(i) What is the ratio of speeds of A is to B? Let the speed of train be u and the speed of cat be v and train
(ii) What is the speed of B? whistles at a point T, x km away from A, then
Solution Distance between P and Q = 120 × 3 = 360 km u x x + 12k
= =
Let the speed of B be SB, then v 5k 7k
Distance ⇒ 7 x = 5 ( x + 12k)
Time =
Speed x 30
⇒ =
360 k 1
2= u 30 6
(120 + SB) ∴ = =
v 5 ×1 1
⇒ SB = 60 km/h
u 7k + 5k 6
Here, A and B are moving towards each other. So, the Alternatively = =
relative speed will be the sum of the speeds of A and B both. v 7k − 5k 1
Therefore, ratio of speeds of A : B = 2 : 1. NOTE Since time is constant, therefore distances covered by
(i) 2 : 1 (ii) 60 km/h train and cat will be in the ratio of their respective speeds.
NOTE In this case ratio of speeds of
A:B =
Actual time required when B is also moving ( 3 − 1) 2
= =
9.4 Concept Based on Trains
Time difference when B is also moving 1 1 (i) When two trains (or bodies) are moving in opposite
direction, their relative speed will be equal to the sum of
Exp. 17) A lives at P and B lives at Q. A usually goes to
their individual speeds.
meet Bat Q. He covers the distance in 3 hours at 150 km/h.
On a particular day B started moving away from A. While (ii) When two trains are moving in the same direction their
A was moving towardsQ thus A took total 5 hours to meet B. relative speed will be equal to the difference of their
(i) What is the speed of B? speeds.
(ii) What is the ratio of speeds of A : B ? (iii) Distance to be covered to cross each other is always
Solution Distance = 3 × 150 = 450 km equal to the sum of their individual lengths.
Distance (iv) Distance to be covered such as bridge, platform etc.,
Time =
Relative speed is always equal to the sum of the length of train and the
450 length of the particular object such as bridge, platform
5= (SB → Speed of B)
(150 − SB) etc.
⇒ SB = 60 km/h (v) Distance to be covered such as pole, man, tree etc, is
150 5 always equal to the length of the train only.
Ratio of speeds of A : B = = =5:2
60 2 (vi) If a man is travelling in a train, then this man has to
(i) 60 km/h (ii) 5 : 2 cover the distance to cross another train is equal to the
In this case ratio of speeds of length of the train which is passing or crossing him. In
Actual time required when B is also moving 5
A:B= = this case the relative speed of both the trains will be
Time difference 2 considered.
Time, Speed and Distance 405

Exp. 19) A train crosses a tree in 10 seconds. If the length 9.5 Concept Based on Boats
of the train be 150 m, then find the speed of the train.
Solution Distance = Length of train and Rivers (or streams)
= Speed of train × Time (i) When the boat and stream (or current) of river move in
150 = Speed × 10 the same direction, then the relative speed of the boat is
⇒ Speed = 15 m/s the sum of the individual speeds of boat and river. It is
18 known as downstream speed.
Speed = 15 × = 54 km/h
5
(ii) When the boat moves against the current of the river
NOTE A train starts to cross a stationary thin object (of (i.e., in opposite direction), then the relative speed of the
inconsiderable thickness) when the engine of the train meets the boat is the difference of the speeds of the boat and
object and it completes the crossing when the last wagon (or
backend) of the train just crosses the object.
stream (of the river). It is known as upstream speed.
Let the speed of boat in still water be B and speed of
Exp. 20) A train crosses a man coming from the opposite current of river be C then,
direction in 7.5 seconds. If the speed of man be 10 m/s and Downstream speed = ( B + C )
speed of train is 20 m/s, find the length of the train.  ; B >C
Upstream speed = ( B − C )
Solution Length of train = Time × Relative speed
= 7.5 × (10 + 20) = 7.5 × 30 = 225 m  (D + U )
Speed of the boat in still water = 2
Exp. 21) A train of length 250 m crosses a bridge of length  (D − U )
150 m in 20 seconds. What is the speed of train? Speed of current (or stream) =
 2
Solution (Length of train + Length of bridge) where D → downstream speed of the boat
= Speed of train × Time
( 250 + 150) = 20 × Speed
and U → upstream speed of the boat
400 When the distance covered by boat in downstream (i.e.,
Speed = = 20 m/s = 72 km/h
20 with the flow of water) is same as the distance covered
by boat in upstream (against the flow of the water) then,
Exp. 22) Two trains coming from the opposite sides Time taken by boat in DS Upstream speed
crosses each other in 10 seconds if the lengths of first train =
Time taken by boat in US Downstream speed
and second train be 125 m and 175 m respectively, also the
speed of first train be 36 km/h, find the speed of second DS → Downstream, US → Upstream
train.
Exp. 24) A boat can move at 5 km/h in still water (i.e.,
Solution Speed of first train = 36 km/h = 10 m/s
when water is not flowing). The speed of stream of the
Sum of length of the two trains
Now, Time = river is 1 km/h. A boat takes 80 minutes to go from a point
Sum of their speeds
A to another point B and return to the same point.
125 + 175
10 = ⇒ x = 20 m/s = 72 km/h (i) What is the distance between the two points?
(10 + x) (ii) What is the ratio of downstream speed and upstream
speed?
Exp. 23) A fast moving superfast express crosses another (iii) What is the ratio of time taken in downstream speed to
passenger train in 20 seconds. The speed of faster train is 72 the upstream speed?
km/hr and speeds of slower train is 27 km/h. Also the Solution Downstream speed of boat = (5 + 1) = 6 km/h
length of faster train is 100 m, then find the length of the Upstream speed of boat = (5 − 1) = 4 km/h
slower train if they are moving in the same direction. Downstream speed Upstream time
Sum of length of the two train Therefore, =
Solution Time = Upstream speed Downstream time
Difference in speeds 6 3 Time taken in upstream direction
= =
(100 + x) 4 2 Time taken in downstream direction
20 = ⇒ x = 150 m
25 /2 2
∴ Time taken in downstream = × 80 = 32 min
NOTE Relative speed = (72 − 27) = 45 km/h 5
3
5 25 and time taken in upstream direction = × 80 = 48 min
= 45 × = m/s 5
18 2 ∴ Distance between two points = DS speed × DS time
406 QUANTUM CAT
= US speed × US time Exp. 1) A can give B a 200 m startup and C a 300 m
where DS → Downstream and US → Upstream startup in a race of 1 km. How many metres startup can
6 × 32
D= = 3.2 km B gives to C in a 1 km race.
60
48 Solution
or D=4× = 3.2 km A B C
60 P Q
(i) 3.2 km (ii) 3 : 2 (iii) 2 : 3 200 800 m
300 700 m
Exp. 25) A man can row 9 km/h in still water. It takes him 1000 m
twice as long as to row up as to row down. Find the rate of
stream of the river. Ratio of speeds of A : B = 1000 : 800 = 5 : 4
Time taken in upstream 2 Ratio of speeds of A : C = 1000 : 700 = 10 : 7
Solution = Ratio of speeds of B : C = 800 : 700 = 8 : 7
Time taken in downstream 1
Downstream speed 2 B+R 2 Since, when B moves 8 m, C moves 7 metre. Therefore,
∴ = where = when B moves 1000 m, C moves 875 metre. Thus, B can
Upstream speed 1 B−R 1
give C a start of 1000 − 875 = 125 m.
B → Speed of boat in still water Alternatively Since, C is 12.5% slower than B. So, C will
R → Speed of current cover 12.5% less distance than B in the same time.
B 3
⇒ = (By componendo and dividendo) (Since when time is constant, they cover the distances in the
R 1 ratio of their speeds.)
9 3
⇒ = ⇒ R = 3 km/h Thus, in 1000 m (or 1 km) when B runs 1000 m,C will run 125 m
R 1 less than B. Hence, B can give a start of 125 m to C in a 1 km
race.
9.6 Races Exp. 2) In a one km race A gives B a start of 100 m and
Terminology in a one km race B gives a start of 80 m to C. In a 1 km
(i) Startup or headstart When a runner allows to another race who will win and by how much distance from the
runner to stay ahead in the same race, then it is said that worst performer between two losers?
there is a startup in the race. Solution Ratio of speeds of A : B = 1000 : 900 = 100 : 90
For example if A allows B to go ahead before starting the Ratio of speeds of B : C = 1000 : 920 = 100 : 92
race, then it is said that A gives startup to B and B has the Therefore, when A moves 1000 m, B moves 900 m and
when B moves 900 m, C moves 828 m.
startup. If before starting the race B goes ahead of x metre,
then we can say A gives x metre startup to B or B has Thus, A 828m 900m 1000m
startup (or headstart) of x metre. C B A
(ii) Dead heat When the runners reach the finishing line (or 100m
the final post) then it is said that these runners finish (or 172m
end) the race in dead heat.
Since, C moves 8% less than B in the same time. Thus, C is
Some More Useful Concepts the worst performer and A will win by him by 172 m.
(i) When it is said that A can give B a start of x metre in y Exp. 3) In a 4 km race A wins by 600 m over B. B can
metre race, then it means in y metre race B runs x metre give start of 200 m to C in a 4 km race. By how much
less than A in the same time. distance C gets start up so that the race between A and C
NOTE There is a great difference between ‘can’ and ‘gives’. ends in dead heat in the same race of 4 km?
(ii) When A beats B by t seconds in a race of y metre then it Solution 4000 m
means B is the loser and A is the winner and when A
reaches the finishing line B is still some distance back to B A
A. Thus B takes t seconds to cover the remaining 3400 m 600 m
distance. Hence, we can calculate the speed of loser ( B ).
(iii)Throughout the race there is always a certain relationship B C
among runners i. e., they always maintain the ratio of 200 m 3800 m
speeds. I think this is the nub of all the problems 4000 m
pertaining to the races. Go ahead…
Time, Speed and Distance 407

Ratio of speeds of A : B = 20 : 17 Now, C has to cover 172 m distance in extra time. So, the
and Ratio of speeds of B : C = 20 : 19 time taken by C to cover the remaining distance
∴ Ratio of speeds of A : B : C = 400 : 340 : 323 172
= = 47.77 s.
Therefore, in 4000 m race A run 4000 m, B run 3400 m and C 3.6
run 3230 m. Thus C can get 770 m start up from A. Ratio of speeds of B : C = Ratio of distances covered by B : C
= 1000 : 900 = 10 : 9
Exp. 4) In a 1500 m race A wins over B by 350 m and in Speed of B 10
∴ =
1500 m race C can give a startup of 250 m to B. By how Speed of C 9
much distance A give start up to C, so that A beats C by
50 metres? Exp. 8) A can win B by 250 m in a 2 km race. What should
Solution Ratio of speeds of A : B = 30 : 23 be the change in distance of startup? So, that B must cover
Ratio of speeds of B : C = 5 : 6 20% less distance than that by A in the same time.
Distance covered by A 5
∴ Ratio of speeds of A : B : C = 150 : 115 : 138 Solution =
So, when A moves 1500 m, B moves 1150 m and C moves Distance covered by B 4
1380 m. Thus C moves 120 m less than A. To win A just by Speed of A 5
∴ =
50 m over C, A should give 120 − 50 = 70 m startup to C. Speed of B 4
So, when A moves 2000 m, B should move 1600 m. But since
Exp. 5) In a race of 2500 m, A beats B by 500 m and in a initially B moves 1750 m. Therefore the new startup will be
race of 2000 m, B beats C by 800 m. By what distance A increased by 150 m.
gives startup to C so that they will end up with dead heat
in 3 km race. Also find that by what distance A will win Exp. 9) The ratio of speeds of A and B is 4 : 7 and A loses
over C in a 1 km race? the race by 270 m, then what is the length of the race
Solution Ratio of speeds of A : B = 5 : 4 course?
Ratio of speeds of B : C = 5 : 3 Solution When B moves 7 m, A moves only 4 m. Hence, A
∴ Ratio of speeds of A : B : C = 25 : 20 : 12 loses the race by 3 m.
In 3 km race A run 3000 m, B run 2400 m, C run 1440 m, so to Now, since B loses by 3 m in the race of 7 m.
end up the race in dead heat A should give C the startup of ∴ B will lose 270 m in the race of 630 m.
1560 m and therefore in 1 km the same will be 520 m.
Exp. 10) The ratio of time taken to run a certain distance
Exp. 6) A gives B, a start of 30 m or 10 seconds and end by Pythagorus and Hawkins is 4 : 3 and thus Hawkins
up the race of 1 km in dead heat. What is the ratio of wins the race by 360 m. What is the distance of race
speeds of A and B? course?
Time taken by Pythagorus 4
Solution A B Solution =
Time taken by Hawkins 3
30 m 970 m
Speed of Pythagorus 3
1000 m =
Speed of Hawkins 4
Since, either B has the startup of 30 m or 10 seconds. It means B Distance covered by P
=
runs 30 m in 10 seconds. Hence, the speed of B is 3 m/s. Distance covered by H
NOTE Don’t be confused that A’s speed = 3 m/s. Now, when Hawkins runs 4 m, Pythagorus runs 3 m and
Also, it is very simple when A moves 1000 m, B moves 970 m. thus Hawkins wins by 1 m.
Since, the ratio of speeds is equal to the ratio of distances So, when Hawkins wins the race by 1 m, race course is 4 m.
covered by A and B in the same time. Thus, the speed of when Hawkins wins the race by 360 m, race course is
A : B = 1000 : 970 = 100 : 97 360 × 4 = 1440 m
Alternatively 360 = 25% of the total length of race.
Exp. 7) In a 1 km race A wins over B by 80 m or
∴ length of race course = 1440 m.
20 seconds. B can give a start of 100 m to C in 1 km race.
Find out that by how much time A will win over C? Also, Exp. 11) In a race of D km, A wins over B by 0.2 D and in
find the ratio of speeds of B and C. the same length of race B wins over C by 0.25 D. What
Solution Ratio of speeds of A : B = 100 : 92 should be the head- start to C, So that A and C finish the
Ratio of speeds of B : C = 10 : 9 race at the same time.
∴ Ratio of speeds of A : B : C = 1000 : 920 : 828 Solution NOTE Instead of solving the problem using ‘D ’ as a
80 distance convert it into 100 i. e. , suppose D = 100.
Also, Speed of B = = 4 m/s
20 (It is just for your convenience.)
Therefore, Speed of C = 3.6 m/s
408 QUANTUM CAT
Now, 80 20 Exp. 15) In a 6 km race B has 250 m headstart and C has
B A 500 m headstart by A, still A beats C and B by 235 m and
100
350 m respectively. How many metres startup can B give
to C so as to end up the race at the same time with C in the
Now, Speed of A : B = 100 : 80 = 5 : 4
race of 6 km. Also find the ratio of speeds of A : B : C.
Speed of B : C = 4 : 3
Solution When A runs 6000 m, B runs 5400 m only and C runs
∴ Speed of A : B : C = 20 : 16 : 12
5265 m only.
= 100 : 80 : 60
So, when B runs 6000 m, C will run 5850 m. So, B can give
{40} 150 m startup to C.
So, A can give ‘C’ a start of 40 m in 100 m race. Therefore, A Ratio of speeds of A : B : C = 6000 : 5400 : 5265
can give 0.4 D. Start to ‘C’ in the race of D unit. = 1200 : 1080 : 1053
= 400 : 360 : 351
Exp. 12) In a 3 km race the speeds of A and B are in the
ratio of 6 : 5 and A wins by 10 seconds. What is the time Exp. 16) A can run 1 km in 2 min 20 second and B can run
taken by B to finish the race. Also, to end the race in dead the same distance in 3 min. What is the distance travelled
heat what per cent of total distance A should give the by B in the same time as A travels, when they start
startup to B? simultaneously in the race of 4.5 km.
Solution Ratio of distances covered by A and B when A just Time taken by A 140 s 7
Solution = =
reaches the finishing line = 6 : 5. Time taken by B 180 s 9
Thus, B has to cover 500 m distance in extra time and this 500 m Speedof A Distance travelled by A 9
distance is covered by B in 10 seconds. ∴ = =
SpeedofB Distance travelled by B 7
So, the speed of B = 50 m/s.
7
Thus, the total time required by B to complete the 3 km race Therefore, B travels × 4.5 = 3.5 km.
3000 9
= = 60 s = 1 min
50 Exp. 17) Shahrukh takes 4 min to cover the same distance
Since, B coveres 16.66% distance less than A covers in the for which Urmila takes 6 min 30 sec. What is the ratio of
same time, so A should give 16.66% of the total distance as a
distances covered by Shahrukh and Urmila in the race of
startup to B.
2.6 km and by what distance Shahrukh wins over Urmila?
Exp. 13) In a 1 km race A gives B a startup of 5 seconds Solution
Time taken by Shahrukh 240
= =
8
and still wins over B by 15 seconds. The ratio of speeds of Time taken by Urmila 390 13
A and B is 2 : 1. Find the time taken by A to finish 2.5 km Distance covered by Shahrukh 13
=
race. Distance covered by Urmila 8
Speed of A 2 Hence, Shahrukh will win the race by 1 km.
Solution =
Speed of B 1 7
Time taken by A 1 Exp. 18) A runs at the speed of times the speed of B. By
= 4
Time taken by B 2 calculation B finds that she has to run 300 m after A
t 1 reaches to the winning post. What is the total distance of
=
(t + 20) 2 race?
Speed of A 7 Distance of A 7
⇒ t = 20 s Solution = ; =
Speed of B 4 Distance of B 4
Thus, A needs 20 seconds to cover 1 km. Thus, to cover
2.5 km race he needs 20 × 2.5 = 50 seconds. So, the total distance of race = 700 m.
(Q 7 x − 4x = 300 ⇒ 7 x = 700)
Exp. 14) X can beat Y by 200 m in a race of 2000 m. Y can
beat Z by 100 m in a race of 2500 m. By how many metres Exp. 19) Time taken by A is 5/7 of B’s time for the same
can X beat Z in a race of 1000 m. length of race. The speed of A is 84 m/s and A beats B by
Solution Ratio of speeds of X and Y = 10 : 9 (2000 : 1800)
240 m. What is the length of race course?
Speed of A Time taken by B 7
Ratio of speeds of Y and Z = 25 : 24 (2500 : 2400) Solution = =
Speed of B Time taken by A 5
Ratio of speeds of X, Y and Z = 250 : 225 : 216
Now since, 7 x − 5 x = 240
Since in a race of 250 m, X beats Z by 34 m.
⇒ 7 x = 840 m
So, in a race of 1000 m, X will beat Z by 136 m.
Time, Speed and Distance 409

Exp. 20) In a race of 3000 m, Michal beats Nicholas by First Meeting

600 m and Nicholas in a race of 2000 m beats Oscar by (i) Let A and B be two runners. Time taken by them to meet
600 m. In a 1 km race by how much distance Michal beats Length of the circular track
Oscar? for the first time =
Relative speed
Solution Ratio of speeds of M : N : O = 100 : 80 : 56
So, Michal ( M) beats Oscar (O) by 440 m in 1 km race. (ii) When there are more than two runners, then suppose A
is the fastest runner and A meets B for the first time in
Exp. 21) In a race of 500 m, President runs at 5 m/s. If t AB hours and A meets C for the first time in t AC hours
president gives chairman a start of 20 m and still beats and A meets D for the first time in t AD seconds/hours
him by 20 seconds, what is the chairman’s speed? and so on. Then time taken by all of them to meet for the
Solution Chairman has to cover only 480 m. He takes total first time is the LCM of t AB , t AC , t AD etc.
100 + 20 = 120 s
480 First Meeting at the Starting Point
Therefore, speed of chairman = = 4 m/s
120 Let A takes t A time to complete one round and B takes t B time
and C takes tC time and so on, then the time taken to meet for
Exp. 22) In a race of 800 m Dholakiya gives Preetam a the first time at the starting point = LCM of t A , t B , tC etc.
start of 200 m and then loses the race by 20 seconds. What
is the speed of Preetam and Dholakiya respectively? If the Exp. 1) Arjun and Bhishma are running on a circular
ratio of respective speeds be 3 : 2. track of length 600 m (i.e., circumference of the track is 600
Solution Let the speed of Dholakiya be SD and speed of m). Speed of Arjun is 75 m/s and that of Bhishma is
Preetam be SP and let the time taken by Preetam be t second 45 m/s. They start running from the same point at the
800 same time the same direction.
SD (t + 20) 2 (i) When will they meet again for the first time?
then, = =
SP 600 3 (ii) When will they meet again for the second time?
t (iii) When will they meet again for the tenth time?
800 t 2
× = ; t = 20 s Solution Since, the two bodies are continuously and
600 (t + 20) 3
consistently running on the same circular path they will
600
∴ Speed of Preetam = = 30 m/s certainly meet again and again.
20
800 Under the given circumstances the two bodies will meet,
and speed of Dholakiya = = 20 m/s after the start, when the difference in distance traversed by
40
them is either 1 round or 2 rounds or 3 rounds and so on.
Exp. 23) In race of 1 km Sahara gives Birla a startup of That is, their first meeting occurs when the faster body covers
250 m still Sahara wins by 150 m. What is the ratio of 1 extra round. And, second meeting occurs when the faster
speeds of Sahara and Birla? body covers 2 extra rounds. And, third meeting occurs when
Solution When Sahara covers 1000 m, Birla covers only 600 m. the faster body covers 3 extra rounds.
So, the ratio of speeds of Sahara and Birla = 1000 : 600 = 5 : 3 And so on so forth. In other words, the faster body has to
Exp. 24) Priyambda wins the race over Kokilaben by 150 have a lead of 1 round, 2 rounds, 3 rounds etc. depending on
m in a race of 1 km but when she gives a startup of the number/order of meeting. And, thus the time required to
Circumference
5 seconds to Kokilaben she wins by 65 m. Find the speed have a lead of 1 round = . So, the time
of Kokilaben. Relative speed
Circumference
Solution In 5 seconds Kokilaben runs 85 m. required to have a lead of n rounds = n ×
So, the speed of Kokilaben = 17 m/s. Relative speed

9.7 Circular Motion

(i) When the bodies move in the opposite direction, their
relative speed becomes equal to the sum of their
individual speed.
(ii) When two bodies move in the same direction their
relative speed becomes equal to the difference of the
individual speeds.
410 QUANTUM CAT
(i) In order to meet for the first time, after the start of the So, the time required to complete n rounds
race, Arjun (faster man) has to have a lead of 600 m, Circumference
=n ×
because as soon as Arjun will cover 600 m extra than that Relative speed
of Bhishma, Arjun will overtake Bhishma.
And, you know that Arjun gets a lead of 30 m in every 1
second, so to have a lead of 600 m Arjun has to run for
600/30 = 20 seconds.
Circumference 600 600
Otherwise, Time = = = = 20
Relative speed 75 − 45 30
seconds
That is after 20 seconds they will meet for the first time,
while running in the same direction.
(ii) In order to meet for the second time, after the start of the
(i) In order to meet for the first time, after the start of the
race, Arjun (faster man) has to have a lead of 2 rounds.
Circumference race, Arjun and Bhishma together will have to traverse
Time = 2 × together 600 m.
Relative speed
And, you know that they together traverse 120 m in
600 1200
=2× = every 1 second, so to traverse 600 m they have to run for
75 − 45 30 600/120 = 5 seconds.
= 60 seconds Otherwise, Time =
Circumference
=
600
That is after 60 seconds they will meet for the second Relative speed 75 + 45
time, while running in the same direction. 600
= = 5 seconds
(iii) In order to meet for the tenth time, after the start of the 120
race, Arjun (faster man) has to have a lead of 10 rounds. That is after 5 seconds they will meet for the first time,
Circumference 60 6000
Time = 10 × = 10 × = = 200 while running in the opposite directions.
Relative speed 75 − 45 30 (ii) In order to meet for the second time, after the start of the
seconds race, Arjun and Bhishma together will have to traverse 2
That is after 200 seconds they will meet for the tenth times a round.
time, while running in the same direction. Circumference
Time = 2 ×
Relative speed
Exp. 2) Arjun and Bhishma are running on a circular track of 600 1200
length 600 m. Speed of Arjun is 75 m/s and that of Bhishma is =2× = = 10 seconds
75 + 45 120
45 m/s. They start running from the same point at the same
That is after 10 seconds they will meet for the second
time in the opposite directions. time, while running in the opposite directions.
(i) When will they meet again for the first time? (iii) In order to meet for the tenth time, after the start of the
(ii) When will they meet again for the second time? race, Arjun and Bhishma together will have to traverse
(iii) When will they meet again for the tenth time? 10 times a round.
Solution Since two bodies are continuously and consistently Circumference
Time = 10 ×
running on the same circular path they will certainly meet Relative speed
again and again. 60 6000
= 10 × = = 50 seconds
Under the given circumstances the two bodies will meet, after 75 + 45 120
the start, when the total distance traversed by them is either 1
That is after 50 seconds they will meet for the tenth time,
round or 2 rounds or 3 rounds and so on.
while running in the opposite directions.
That is their first meeting occurs when they together cover 1
round. Exp. 3) Arjun and Bhishma are running on a circular
And, second meeting occurs when they together cover 2 track of length 600 m. Speed of Arjun is 75 m/s and that of
rounds.
Bhishma is 45 m/s. They start running from the same
And, third meeting occurs when they together cover 3 rounds.
point at the same time.
And so on so forth.
(i) When will they meet again for the first time at the
In other words, they have to complete together 1 round, 2
starting point?
rounds, 3 rounds etc. depending on the number/order of
meeting. (ii) When will they meet again for the second time at the
And, thus the time required to complete 1 round starting point?
Circumference (iii) When will they meet again for the tenth time at the
=
Relative speed starting point?
Time, Speed and Distance 411

Solution Since, we are not interested in finding the (ii) Arjun takes 600 / 20 = 30 s to complete one round
meetings that may occur somewhere else on the track other 600
Bhisma takes = 20 s to complete one round and
than the starting point, so it does not matter whether they are 30
600
moving in the same direction or in the opposite directions. Nakul takes = 12 s to complete one round
50
It implies that we need to know when the two bodies are
completing the rounds together, though it is not necessary and Hence, they would meet for the first time at the starting
possible that the numbers of rounds to be same, as their speeds point after 60 seconds.
are distinct. Hint 60 = LCM of 30, 20 and 12.
So, we have to find out when the two bodies complete their
rounds and then we can find out the common time when both Exp. 5) Arjun, Bhishma, Chaitanya and Duryodhana are
of them will complete their rounds. running on a circular track of length 600 m. They start
So you can see that Arjun completes a round in every 8 (= running from the same point at the same time in the same
600/75) seconds. direction and the Speeds of Arjun, Bhishma, Chaitanya
And, Bhishma completes a round in every 40/3 (= 600/45) and Duryodhana are 45 m/s, 55 m/s, 65 m/s and 75 m/s,
seconds. respectively.
Time taken to Complete the Different Rounds (i) When will they meet again for the first time?
( R1 , R 2 , … ) (ii) When will they meet again for the seventh time?
R1 R2 R3 R4 R5 R6 R7 R8 R9 R10 (iii) When will they meet again for the first time at the
starting point?
Arjun 8 16 24 32 40 48 56 64 72 80 (iv) When will they meet again for the seventh time at the
Bhishma 40 80 40 160 200 80 280 320 120 400 starting point?
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 Solution Let us, first of all, find the answers for (i) and (ii)
Thus, it is obvious that the two bodies meet at the starting parts.
point every 40 seconds, which is nothing but the LCM of 8 Since, Duryodhana is the fastest runner, so we will find out
seconds and 40/3 seconds. the time taken by Duryodhana to meet Arjun, Bhishma and
Otherwise, Time taken by Arjun to complete 1 round
600
Chaitanya independently, then we will find out the common
= = 8 seconds time when Duryodhana meets all the three together.
75
And, time taken by Bhishma to complete 1 round Time taken by Duryodhana to meet Arjun for the first time
600 40 600 600
= = seconds = = = 20 seconds
45 3 75 − 45 30
LCM of 8 and 40/3 = 40
Time taken by Duryodhana to meet Bhishma for the first time
(i) Therefore, the time required for the first meeting at the
starting point = 40 seconds 600 600
= = = 30 seconds
(ii) Therefore, the time required for the second meeting at 75 − 55 20
the starting point = 2 × 40 = 80 seconds Time taken by Duryodhana to meet Chaitanya for the first time
(iii) Therefore, the time required for the tenth meeting at the
600 600
starting point = 10 × 40 = 400 seconds = = = 60 seconds
75 − 65 10
Exp. 4) Arjun, Bhishma and Nakul run on the circular Now, the LCM of 20, 30 and 60 is 60, so Duryodhana will
path at the speed of 20 m/s, 30 m/s and 50 m/s meet all of them together in every 60 seconds.
respectivley in the same direction. The circumference of (i) It can be conclude that all of them meet for the first time
the track (or path) is 600 m. after 60 seconds.
(i) When will they be together again for the first time? (ii) It can be conclude that all of them meet for the seventh
(ii) When will they be together again for the first time at time after 420 ( = 7 × 60) seconds.
the starting point? Now, let us solve it for the (iii) and (iv) part.
Solution Since, we are interested in finding the meetings occurring at
600
(i) Nakul meets Arjun after every = = 20 s the starting point, so the direction of their motion does not
(50 − 20) matter. Therefore, we will find out the time taken by each of
600
Nakul meets Bhishma after every = = 30 s them to complete a round and then we will find out when all
(50 − 30) of them will complete the rounds together, though it is not
Therefore, all of the three would meet after every 60 necessary and possible that the number of rounds to be same,
seconds. (60 = LCM of 20 and 30). Hence, they would all as their speeds are distinct.
meet for the first time after 60 seconds.
412 QUANTUM CAT
600 40 Exp. 7) Two girls A and B run on a circular track, with
Time taken by Arjun to complete 1 round = =
45 3 constant speeds, such that the ratio of their speeds is 3:5.
seconds (i) Find the maximum number of distinct points where
And, time taken by Bhishma to complete 1 round
600 120 they can meet, if they run in the same direction.
= = seconds (ii) Find the maximum number of distinct points where
55 11
Time taken by Chaitanya to complete 1 round they can meet, if they run in the opposite directions.
600 120
= = seconds Solution When two bodies move in the same direction, the
65 13 maximum number of distinct meeting points = difference in
And, time taken by Duryodhana to complete 1 round
600 the ratio = 5 − 3 = 2. When two bodies move in the opposite
= = 8 seconds directions, the maximum number of distinct meeting points
75
= sum of the ratio = 5 + 3 = 8
Now, the LCM of 40/3, 120/11, 120/13 and 8 = 120
Thus, all of them will meet at the starting point in every 120 Exp. 8) Two girls A and B run on a circular track, with
seconds. the speeds of 80 m/s and 140 m/s.
(iii) It can be concluded that all of them meet for the first (i) Find the maximum number of distinct points where
time after 120 seconds. they can meet, if they run in the same direction.
(iv) It can be concluded that all of them meet for the first (ii) Find the maximum number of distinct points where
time after 840 ( = 7 × 120) seconds they can meet, if they run in the opposite directions.
Exp. 6) Arjun, Bhishma, Chaitanya, Duryodhana and Solution When two bodies move in the same direction, the
Eklavya are running on a circular track of length 600 m. maximum number of distinct meeting points = difference in
They have started running from the same point at the the ratio = 7 − 4 = 3. When two bodies move in the opposite
same time and the Speeds of Arjun, Bhishma, Chaitanya, directions, the maximum number of distinct meeting points
Duryodhana and Eklavya are 25 m/s, 35 m/s, 45 m/s, 60 = sum of the ratio = 7 + 4 = 11
m/s and 75 m/s, respectively. Arjun and Chaitanya are
running clockwise, while Bhishma, Duryodhana and Exp. 9) Two hands of a normal clock run at the speed of
Eklavya are running anti-clockwise. 30° per hour and 360° per hour. Find the number of
(i) When will they meet again for the first time? distinct points where they meet on the dial.
(ii) When will they meet again for the fifth time? Solution When two bodies move in the same direction, the
maximum number of distinct meeting points = difference in
Solution Since Eklavya is the fastest runner, so we will find out
the time taken by Eklavya to meet Arjun, Bhishma, Chaitanya the ratio = 12 − 1 = 11. It means, in a normal clock minute
and Duryodhana independently, then we will find out the hand meets hour hand at 11 distinct points on the dial.
common time when Eklavya meets all of them together. Exp. 10) There are two planets A and B revolving around
Time taken by Eklavya to meet Arjun for the first time a star in the two concentric orbits at the same plane. Planet
600 600 A takes 366 days and B takes 30 days to complete a
= = = 6 seconds
75 + 25 100 revolution around that star. But, whenever they pass each
Time taken by Eklavya to meet Bhishma for the first time other the people living on the planet A observe the eclipse.
600 600 Consider that a year has 366 days.
= = = 15 seconds
75 − 35 40 (i) Find the number of times when planet A experiences
the eclipse in a year, provided both the planets move
Time taken by Eklavya to meet Chaitanya for the first time in the same direction.
600 600
= = = 5 seconds (ii) Find the number of times when planet A experiences
75 + 45 120 the eclipse in a year, provided the two planets move
Time taken by Eklavya to meet Duryodhana for the first time in the opposite directions.
600 600 Solution When two bodies move in the same direction, the
= = = 40 seconds
75 − 60 15 maximum number of distinct meeting points = difference in
the ratio = 61 − 5 = 56. Therefore, during a year planet A
Now, the LCM of 6, 15, 5 and 40 is 120, so Duryodhana will
experiences 56 eclipses. When two bodies move in the
meet all of them together in every 120 seconds.
(i) It can be conclude that all of them meet for the first time
opposite directions, the maximum number of distinct
after 120 seconds. meeting points = sum of the ratio = 61 + 5 = 66
(ii) It can be conclude that all of them meet for the fifth time Therefore, during a year planet A experiences 66 eclipses.
after 600 ( = 5 × 120) seconds.
Time, Speed and Distance 413

Exp. 11) A tortoise can complete a full round on the circular (ii) To meet for the second time they have to cover
track in 8 min, while the rabbit can do the same on the same = 300 + 600 = 900 m
circular track in 5 min. A, B, C and D are the four consecutive there relative speed = 30 + 20 = 50 m/s
points on the circular track which are equidistant from each (since direction is opposite)
900
other. A is opposite to C and B is opposite to D. ∴ Time taken to meet for the second time = = 18 s
50
(i) After how many minutes will they meet together for
the first time, when both have started simultaneously Exp. 13) A, B and C run on a circular track of 800 m.
from the same point in the same direction?
Speeds of A, B and C are 20 m/s, 26 m/s and 33 m/s.
(ii) After how many minutes will they meet together for the
(i) When will they meet for the first time?
first time at the starting point, when both have started
simultaneously from the same point in the same direction? (ii) What is the ratio of distances covered by each one to
(iii) If they start from a point A, simultaneously in the same meet for the first time.
direction then after how many minutes will they meet at Solution
800 800
C which is just opposite to A? (i) Time taken by C to meet A for the first time = = s
(iv) If tortoise has a lead of 5 min, when would they meet for 33 − 20 13
the first time, where they have started from the same 800 800
Time taken by C to meet B for the first time = = s
point in the same direction? 33 − 26 7
Solution 800 800
LCM of and = 800 s.
(i) Ratio of time of rabbit and tortoise = 5 : 8 13 7
∴Ratio of the speed of rabbit and tortoise = 8 : 5 Therefore, all of them (i. e., A , B and C) meet after 800
Let the length of the circular track be 40 m, then the seconds = 13 min 20 sec.
speed of rabbit = 8 m/min and speed of tortoise (ii) The ratio of distances = ratio of speeds = 20 : 26 : 33
= 5 m/min. (40 is the LCM of 8 and 5, taken just for
conveninence in calculation) Exp. 14) Two friends – Choar and Poohlice start
Now, the time when they will be together for the first time walking simultaneously from a point on the circular
Circumference 40 track. Their friend Pubhlik observes from a distance that
= = min
Relative speed 3 when they walk in the same direction they take 7 times
(ii) Time taken by rabbit to complete one round = 5 min the time they take when they walk in the opposite
Time taken by tortoise to complete one round = 8 min direction for their first meeting to happen. If the speed of
∴ They will meet at the starting point, for the first time Choar, who walks faster, is 16 m/s, what is the speed of
= LCM of 5 and 8 = 40 min Poohlice?
20 (a) 8 m/s (b) 10 m/s (c) 12 m/s (d) 14 m/s
(iii) Rabbit reaches point C in = 2.5 min.
8 Solution When they move in the same direction their
Rabbit reaches the same point C in 7.5, 12.5, 17.5, 22.5 min effective speed is equal to the difference of their individual
etc. Tortoise reaches after 4 min, 12 min, 20 min, … etc. speeds and when they move in the same direction their
They will never meet at C since time cannot coincide as effective speed is equal to the sum of their individual speeds.
time taken by rabbit is the decimal number and time Also, speed is always inversely proportional to the time.
taken by tortoise is a natural number. Now, let us assume that the speed of Poohlice be p, then
(iv) In 5 min tortoise travels 25 m. Now, rabbit starts chasing 16 + p 7
= ⇒ p = 12 m/s
tortoise @ 8 m/min. 16 − p 1
25 25
∴ Time taken by rabbit to overtake tortoise = = min Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.
( 8 − 5) 3
Hint Time taken by them to meet for the first time
Exp. 12) Alfred and Bernard run on the circular track of =
Length of the circular track
600 m. Speeds of Alfred and Bernard are 30 m/s and Relative Speed
20 m/s respectively. Initially they are diametrically And since length of the circular track is constant irrespective of
opposite to each other. the direction, so the ratio of time duration to meet for the first
(i) When will they meet for the first time if both move in time would depend upon the two distinct relative speeds.
the same direction?  Length of the circular track 
(ii) If both of them move in opposite directions, when  
 16 − p  7
will they meet for the second time? =
Solution  Length of the circular track  1
 
(i) Relative speed of Alfred = 30 − 20 = 10 m/s  16 + p 
Bernard is 300 m ahead in the race. 16 + p 7
⇒ =
So, time taken by Alfred to catch Bernard = 300/10= 30 s 16 − p 1
414 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 9.1
1. P and Q start running on the circular track in opposite (a) 1 (b) 2
directions. They start from a point A and meet for the (c) 3 (d) 4
first, second and third time at B, C and A, respectively. 3. A, B and C start walking around a circular track. A
What is the ratio of speeds of P and Q ? completes one round in 91/6 seconds, B completes in
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 65/4 seconds and C completes in 56/3 seconds
(c) 4 : 1 (d) none of these respectively. After how many seconds will they meet
2. P and Q run on a circular track of 100 m. Speed of P each other at the starting point again?
is 250 m/s and that of Q is 400 m/s. At how many (a) 3460 s
points on a circular track will they meet if they start (b) 1820 s
from the same point, simultaneously, in the same (c) 3640 s
direction? (d) none of the above

9.8 Clocks
Actually the movement of hour-hand and minute-hand Exp. 2) In 12 hours how many times the two hands of
follows the relative motion. The dial of the clock behaves clock will be just opposite to each other i.e., they make a
like a circular track and where minute-hand is a faster runner straight line having the difference of 180° between them?
and hour-hand is a slower one. Solution 180° = 30 points
For better understanding with the clocks, assume 60 minutes For the first time minute-hand and hour-hand will be
30  Required distance
shown on the dial as 60 points. Here we give an arbitrary new separated in h  Time =  and for every
55  Relative speed 
unit of distance as ‘point’.
60
So, minute-hand (MH) runs on the circular track of 60 points next time they will take minutes more to occur as opposite
55
at 60 points per hour and hour-hand (HH) runs at 5 points per to each other. (Since in 60/55 hours they complete one round of
hour. Now we become familiar with the relative motion of clock’s dial i.e., 60 points undergoing the relative motion, we
two hands of a clock. have total 12 hours.)
30 60 60 60
Here, 1 point = 6° and 60 point = 360° Thus, + + + + … = 12
55 55 55 55
also 1 point = 6° =1 min 30 60 60 12 × 55
⇒ + + +…=
55 55 55 55
Exp. 1) How many times minute-hand coincides with ⇒ 6 + 12 + 12 + … = 12 × 11 = 132
hour-hand in 12 hours? ⇒ 6 + 12n = 132
Solution Time taken by minute-hand to meet hour-hand for ⇒ 12n = 126 ⇒ n = 10
60 12
the first time = = hours. only integral value is admissible.
55 11 Thus, total 10 + 1 = 11 times both hands of a clock will be
(Assume initially both hands are at 12 i. e., 12 O’ clock is opposite to each other.
shown by them.) Remember: Between 5 O’clock and 7 O’clock the two
Therefore, after every 12/11 hours-minute hand and hour- hands make 180° angle only one time, that’s why they make
hand meet each other (or coincide or overtake). 180° angle only 11 times in 12 hours, i. e., at exactly 6 O’clock
12 they are 180° apart.
Now, since in hours they coincide 1 time
11
12 12 Exp. 3) In 12 hours how many times a minute-hand and
So, in 12 hours they will coincide = = × 11 = 11 times
12 /11 12 hour-hand of a clock makes 90° between them or becomes
Remember Between 11 O’clock and 1 O’clock, two hands
perpendicular to each other?
coincide only one time, that’s why they coincide with each Solution 90° = 15 points
other only 11 times in 12 hours. This problem can be solved in two parts.
12 5 (i) When minute-hand goes ahead of hour-hand.
NOTE In every hours (or 65 min) two hands of a clock
11 11 (ii) When hour-hand goes ahead of minute-hand.
coincide.
Time, Speed and Distance 415

(i) For the first time minute-hand and hour-hand will make Exp. 4) Between 2 O’clock and 3 O’clock when two
15
90° (or 15 points) difference in hours. hands of a clock overlap each other?
55
distance Solution To overlap or overtake minute-hand has to reduce
Since time =
relative speed the gap of 10 points. Since at 2 O’clock two hands are 10 point
60 apart.
Now, after every hours they will occur at 90°. Since, Distance advanced
55 ∴ Time =
60 Relative speed
in every hours they create a difference of 360° or
55 10 10
= h= × 60 min = 10 min 54 s
60 points (as the circumference of dial). 55 55
Now, we have 12 hours, Thus, at 2 : 10 : 54 both hands of a clock coincide.
15 60 60 55
∴ + + + … = 12 h = 12 × Exp. 5) Between 6 am and 7 am when the two hands of a
55 55 55 55
3 12 12 12 × 11 clock coincide.
⇒ + + +…= 30 30
11 11 11 11 Solution Time = h= × 60 min = 32 min 43 s
55 55
3  12  12 × 11
⇒ +  n = (Distance advanced = 6 × 5 = 30 points)
11  11  11
Thus at 6 : 32 : 43 two hands of a clock coincide.
⇒ 3 + 12n = 132
129 Exp. 6) Between 11 O’clock and 12 O’clock when will
⇒ n= = 10
12 they coincide.
(only integral value of n is acceptable) Solution Distance advanced at 11 O’clock = 55 points
Therefore, 10 + 1 = 11 times in 12 hours minute-hand Relative speed = 55 point/h
55
makes 90° angle between the two hands, but when ∴ Time = =1h
minute hand is ahead of hour-hand. 55
Hence, they will coincide at (11 + 1) = 12 O’clock.
(ii) For the first time minute-hand and hour-hand will make
60 − 15 45 Exp. 7) Between 3 O’clock and 4 O’clock when will the
90° (or 15 points) difference in = hours.
55 55 two hands make 36° angle between them:
Since, in this case minute-hand goes till it appears to be (i) when hour-hand is ahead of minute-hand.
15 points behind of hour-hand (consider initially they (ii) when minute-hand is ahead of hour-hand.
are showing 12 O’clock) then you will see that at Solution
12 : 49 : 05 two hand are making 90° angle between them, (i) 36° = 6 points
while it appears to be hour-hand is ahead of Now, at 3 O’clock two hands are separated by exactly
minute-hand. 15 points to which we have to reduce upto 6 points. Thus,
60 we have to reduce 15 − 6 = 9 points distance, with the
Now, for every next time after hours they will show
55 relative speed of 55 point/h.
9 9
the same situation. ∴Time required = h= × 60 = 9 min 49 s
55 55
we have 12 hours.
Thus at 3 : 09 : 49 they are 36° apart from each other.
45 60 60 60 55
So, + + + + … = 12 h = 12 × (ii) At 3 O’clock both hands are 15 points apart so to make
55 55 55 55 55 them 6 points apart minute-hand has to move for
3 4 4 4 × 11
⇒ + + …= (15 + 6) = 21 points, since minute-hand has to go 6 points
11 11 11 11 ahead of hour hand, after crossing the hour-hand.
⇒ 3 + 4 + 4 + … = 44 21 21
∴ Time = h= × 60 min = 22 min 54 s
⇒ 3 + 4n = 144 55 55
41
⇒n= = 10, consider only integral value. Thust at 3 : 22 : 54, both hands will be 6 points (or 36°)
4 apart from each other.
Thus, total 10 + 1 = 11 times they will make 90° angle.
Hence, in 12 hours both hands make 90° angle Did you notice something?
(11 + 11) = 22 times in different positions.
The same angle can be formed in two situations, one when
Remember At 3 O’clock and 9 O’clock they are at right angled. hour-hand is ahead of minute-hand and when minute-hand is
Since, except between 2–4 O’clock and 8–10 O’clock in each hour ahead of hour-hand. Thus, you can find the required time by
both hands make 90° angle 4 times while in the 2–4 O’clock and 8–10 dividing the required difference of points (which you have to
O’clock two hands makes three-three times in every two hour. either create or reduce) by the relative speed.
416 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 8) What is the angle between the two hands at Exp. 9) What is the angle between two hands of a clock
3 : 10 am? at 7 : 35?
Solution Assume 60th point (i.e., when it is 12 O’clock) as the Solution Step 1. At 7 : 35, minute-hand is 35 × 6 = 210 °
origin. away from origin.
Step 1. Find the distance of minute-hand from the origin. 1
Step 2. At 7 : 35 hour-hand is 7 × 30 + 35 × = 210 + 17.5
Step 2. Find the distance of hour-hand from the origin. 2
Step 3. Take the difference between two values obtained in = 227.5° away from the origin.
step 1 and step 2. Step 3. 227.5 − 210 = 17.5°
∴ Step 1. 10 point = 60° Thus at 7 : 35, both hands make 17.5° angle between them.
Step 2. 90° + 5 ° = 95 ° (In 10 min hour-hand moves 5°) NOTE A minute-hand moves 6° in one minute while a
Step 3. 95 ° − 60° = 35 °  1 °
hour-hand moves   in one minute.
Thus, at 3 : 10 am two hands are 35° apart.  2

CAT-Test
Questions Helping you bell the CAT

LEVEL 01 > BASIC LEVEL EXERCISE

1 ‘A’ goes 10 km distance with average speed of 6 km/h while 5 A covered half of his journey at 20 km/h and rest at
rest 20 km he travels with an average speed of 15 km/h. x km/h, then his average speed is 24 km/h. What is the
What is the average speed of ‘A’ during the whole journey? value of x?
(a) 10 km/h (b) 12 km/h (a) 30 (b) 32
(c) 13 km/h (d) 14.5 km/h (c) 36 (d) 40
2 A covers half of his distance with 20 km/h and rest with 6 A man covered half of the distance at 3x km/h and rest at
30 km/h. What is the average speed during the whole 5x km/h. What is the average speed of the man?
journey? (a) 4 x km/h (b) 3.5x km/h
(a) 20 km/h (b) 24 km/h (c) 3.75x km/h (d) none of these
(c) 25 km/h (d) 26 km/h 7 A person goes to his office at 1/3rd of the speed at which he
3 A covers 1/3rd of his journey at the speed of 10 km/h and returns from his office. If the average speed during the
half of the rest at the speed of 20 km/h and rest at the whole trip (i . e. , one round) is 12 km/h. What is the speed
speed of 30 km/h. What is the average speed of A? of the person while he was going to his office?
2 4 (a) 10 (b) 6
(a) 6 km/h (b) 16 km/h
11 11 (c) 8 (d) can’t be determined
4
(c) 16 m/s (d) none of these 8 A person X starts from Lucknow and another persons Y
11
starts from Kanpur to meet each other. Speed of X is
4 A covers 1/4th of his journey at 20 km/h and 1/3rd of the 25 km/h, while speed of Y is 35 km/h. If the distance
rest at 25 km/h and half of the rest at 30 km/h and rest at between Lucknow and Kanpur be 120 km and both X and Y
the speed of 40 km/h. What is the average speed of A? start their journey at the same time, when will they meet?
78 (a) 1 h later (b) 2 h later
(a) 13 km/h (b) 12 km/h
89 1
86 (c) h later (d) 3 h later
(c) 26 km/h (d) 28 km/h 2
89
Time, Speed and Distance 417

9. In the above question (no. 8), what is the distance from 18. What is the ratio of time taken by P and Q to reach B and A
Lucknow where they meet? respectively?
(a) 50 km (b) 60 km (a) 16 : 25 (b) 1 : 1
(c) 100 km (d) 80 km (c) 25 : 16 (d) 4 : 5
10. Two persons A and B started from two different places 19. What is the ratio of time taken by P and Q after meeting
towards each other. If the ratio of their speeds be 3 : 5, then each other at M to reach B and A respectively?
what is the ratio of distance covered by A and B (a) 25 : 16 (b) 625 : 256
respectively till the point of meeting? (c) 16 : 25 (d) 4 : 5
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 4 20. The speed of Vimal and Kamal are 30 km/h and 40 km/h.
(c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 3
Initially Kamal is at a place L and Vimal is at a place M. The
Directions (for Q. Nos. 11 to 16) A person P is at X and another distance between L and M is 650 km. Vimal started his
person Q is at Y . The distance between X and Y is 100 km. The journey 3 hours earlier than Kamal to meet each other. If
speed of P is 20 km/h. While the speed of Q is 60 km/h? they meet each other at a place P somewhere between L
and M, then the distance between P and M is :
11. If they first time meet at point Z somewhere between X and
(a) 220 km (b) 250 km
Y then the distance between X and Z is : (c) 330 km (d) 320 km
(a) 20 km (b) 40 km
21. In the above question (no. 20) what is the distance
(c) 25 km (d) 30 km
between L and P ?
12. If they continue to move to and fro between X and Y then (a) 220 km
what is the distance covered by P when they meet second (b) 320 km
time? (c) 330 km
(a) 105 km (b) 100 km (d) none of the above
(c) 80 km (d) 75 km
Directions (for Q. Nos. 22 to 27) There are two places X and Y ,
13. If they continue to move to and fro between X and Y then 200 km apart from each other. Initially two persons P and Q both
what is the distance travelled by Q, when they meet each are at ‘X ’. The speed of P is 20 km/h and speed of Q is 30 km/h.
other for the third time? Later on they starts to move to and fro between X and Y .
(a) 375 km (b) 225 km
22. If they start to move between X and Y, then for the first
(c) 350 km (d) 445 km
time when they will meet each other?
14. If P and Q continue to move between X and Y in the given (a) after 12 hours (b) after 24 hours
manner and if they meet for the fourth time at a place M (c) after 30 hours (d) after 8 hours
somewhere between X and Y, then the distance between X 23. If they meet first time at a point M somewhere between X
and M is : and Y, then what is the distance travelled by P?
(a) 10 km (b) 90 km (a) 160 km (b) 150 km
(c) 75 km (d) 25 km (c) 200 km (d) 210 km
15. If P and Q continue to move between X and Y, then the 24. If they meet second time each other at a point N
ratio of distances covered by P and Q, when they meet for somewhere between X and Y, then the distance travelled
the 5th time? by Q is :
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 3 (a) 240 km (b) 480 km
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 4 (c) 360 km (d) none of these
16. If P and Q continue to move between X and Y, then the 25. If they meet third time each other at a point C, somewhere
between X and Y, then the ratio of distances C X and C Y is
distance covered by P and Q together between any two
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 1 : 3
consecutive meeting? (c) 2 : 3 (d) 2 : 5
(a) 100 (b) 300
26. If they meet fourth time each other at a point D somewhere
(c) 200 (d) can’t be determined
between X and Y, then what is the distance between D and
Directions (for Q. Nos. 17, to 19) A persons P starts his journey X?
from A and another person Q starts his journey from B, towards (a) 75 (b) 80
each other. The speeds of P and Q are 16 km/h and 25 km/h (c) 150 (d) 160
respectively and they meet at point M somewhere between A and 27. After starting their race, they meet each other for the nth
B when they start their journey simultaneously. time at point X, then what is the minimum possible value of
17. What is the ratio of time taken by P and Q to reach at M? n?
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 16 : 25 (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 5
418 QUANTUM CAT
Directions (for Q. Nos. 28 to 33) A person X started 3 hours 40. The ratio of speeds of A is to B is 2 : 3 and therefore A takes
earlier at 40 km/h from a place P, then another person Y followed 20 minutes less time than B takes. What is the ratio of time
him at 60 km/h, started his journey at 3 O’clock, afternoon. taken by A and B?
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 5 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 3 : 5
28. At what time will they meet to each other (or at what time
Y will overtake X)? 41. What is the time taken by A (in the above question)?
(a) 4:30 pm (b) 5 pm (a) 1 h (b) 1.2 h
(c) 6 pm (d) 9 pm (c) 0.6 h (d) 30 min
29. At what time the difference between X and Y was 30 km, 42. A certain distance is covered at a certain speed. If half of
but before Y overtakes X? this distance is covered in double the time, the ratio of the
(a) 6:30 pm (b) 7:30 pm two speeds is :
(c) 8:15 pm (d) none of these (a) 1 : 16 (b) 4 : 1
30. At what time Y will be 30 km ahead of X, after overtaking (c) 2 : 1 (d) 2 : 8
it? 43. Two runner start running together for a certain distance,
(a) 6:45 pm (b) 7:30 pm one at 5 km/h and another at 3 km/h. The former arrives
(c) 10:30 pm (d) 8 pm one and half an hour before the latter. The distance (in km)
31. What is the distance travelled by Y to overtake X? is :
(a) 180 km (b) 420 km (a) 12 (b) 20
(c) 320 km (d) 360 km (c) 25 (d) 36
32. What distance should Y cover so that he may reach 360km 44. The ratio between the rates of walking of A and B is 2 : 3. If
ahead of X? the time taken by B to cover a certain distance is
(a) 1440 km (b) 1200 km 48 minutes, the time taken (in minutes) by A to cover the
(c) 920 km (d) 750 km distance is :
33. What is difference in time when X was 30 km ahead of Y (a) 52 min (b) 68 min
and when Y was 30 km ahead of X? (c) 72 min (d) 32 min
(a) 2 (b) 3 45. Two trains starting at the same time from two stations 300
(c) 3.5 (d) 4.25 km apart and going in opposite directions, cross each other
34. A postman goes with a speed of 36 km/h. What is the speed at a distance of 160 km from one of them. The ratio of their
of postman in m/s? speeds is :
(a) 4.5 m/s (a) 7 : 9 (b) 16 : 20 (c) 8 : 7 (d) 8 : 12
(b) 6 m/s 46. A and B travel the same distance at 9 km/h and 10 km/h
(c) 10 m/s respectively. If A takes 20 minutes longer than B, the
(d) can’t be determined distance travelled by each is :
35. In the above question (no. 34) what is the speed in m/min? (a) 16 (b) 20
(a) 325 (b) 432 (c) 30 (d) none of these
(c) 360 (d) 600 47. Abhinav leaves Mumbai at 6 am and reaches Bangalore at
36. In the above question (no. 34) what is the speed of 10 am Praveen leaves Bangalore at 8 am and reaches
postman in mile/h? Mumbai at 11:30 am. At what time do they cross each
(a) 22.37 (b) 30.08 other?
(c) 28.30 (d) 38.12 (a) 10 am (b) 8:32 am (c) 8:56 am (d) 9:20 am
37. A train goes with a speed of 20 m/s. What is the speed of 48. Two persons, Alif and Laila start at the same time from
train in km/h? Allahabad and Lucknow and proceed towards each other at
(a) 57 km/h (b) 72 km/h 45 km/h and 54 km/h respectively. When they meet, it is
(c) 80 km/h (d) 120 km/h found that one of them has travelled 72 km more than the
38. As per the question (no. 37) what is the speed of train in other. The distance between the places (in km) is :
km/min? (a) 729 (b) 792
(a) 1.2 (b) 12 (c) 540 (d) none of these
(c) 1200 (d) 120 49. Walking at 4/5 of his normal speed, Dewang is 15 minutes
39. A is twice fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C. The journey late in reaching his club. What is the usual time taken by
covered by C in 78 minutes will be covered by A in : him to cover the distance?
(a) 12 min (b) 13 min (a) 1 h (b) 1 h 20 min
(c) 15.5 min (d) none of these (c) 45 min (d) none of these
Time, Speed and Distance 419

50. Walking at 3/4 of her normal speed Malleshwari takes 60. The driver of an ambulance sees a school bus 40 m ahead of
2 hours more than the normal time. What is the normal him. After 20 second, the school bus is 60 metre behind. If
time? the speed of the ambulance is 30 km/h, what is the speed of
(a) 4 h (b) 5 h the school bus?
(c) 6 h (d) 8 h (a) 10 km/h (b) 12 km/h
51. Walking at 3/2 of his normal speed Shekhawat takes (c) 15 km/h (d) 22 km/h
40 minutes less than the usual time? What is the changed 61. A postman riding a bicycle at 15 km/h can reach a village in
(new) time taken by Shekhawat? 4 hours. If he is delayed by 1 hour at the start, then in order
(a) 1 h (b) 1.2 h to reach his destination in time, he should ride with a speed
(c) 3 h (d) 2 h of:
52. A man reduces his speed from 20 km/h to 18 km/h. So, he (a) 20 km/h (b) 16 km/h
takes 10 minutes more than the normal time. What is the (c) 14 km/h (d) 12 km/h
distance travelled by him? 62. What is the time required by a train of length of 350 m to
(a) 30 km (b) 25 km cross an electric pole with a speed of 70 m/s?
(c) 50 km (d) 36 km (a) 3 s (b) 3.5 s
53. Osaka walks from his house at 5 km/h and reaches his (c) 5 s (d) 10 s
office 10 minutes late. If this speed had been 6 km/h he 63. A train 270 m long is running over a bridge of length of
would have reached 15 minutes early. The distance of his 130 m with a speed of 40 m/s. What is the time taken by
office from his house is : this train to cross the bridge?
(a) 15 km (b) 12.5 km (a) 6 s (b) 16 s
(c) 10.5 km (d) 18 km (c) 10 s (d) none of these
54. Sachin and Mongiya starting from the same place walk at 64. If a train 225 m long passes a telegraphic pole in 9 seconds,
the rate of 7.5 km/h and 9 km/h respectively. What time then the time taken (in seconds) by it to cross a tunnel
will they take to be 7.5 km apart, if they walk in the same 450 m long is :
direction? (a) 8 s (b) 10 s
(a) 3 h (b) 4 h (c) 27 s (d) none of these
(c) 5 h (d) none of these 65. A train 350 m long is running at the speed of 36 km/h. If it
55. Two aeroplanes start from the same place in opposite crosses a tunnel in 1 minute, then the length of the tunnel
directions. One goes towards east at 320 km/h and the (in metres) is :
other goes towards west at 400 km/h what time will they (a) 200 m (b) 250 m
take to be 720 km apart? (c) 150 m (d) none of these
(a) 4 h (b) 3 h (c) 1 h (d) 1.5 h
66. If a 250 m long train crosses a platform of the same length
56. A man covers a certain distance by his own car. Had he as that of the train in 25 seconds, then the speed of the train
moved 6 km/h faster he would have taken 4 hours less. If is :
he had moved 4 km/h slower, he would have taken 4 hours (a) 150 m/s (b) 200 m/s
more. The distance (in km) is : (c) 20 km/h (d) 72 km/h
(a) 240 km (b) 640 km
67. Sabarmati express takes 18 seconds to pass completely
(c) 480 km (d) none of these
through a station 162 m long and 15 seconds through
57. If Deepesh had walked 20 km/h faster he would have saved another station 120 m long. The length of the Sabarmati
1 hour in the distance of 600 km. What is the usual speed of express is :
Deepesh? (a) 132 m (b) 100 m (c) 80 m (d) 90 m
(a) 100 (b) 120
68. A train 200 m long travels at the speed of 72 km/h. A man
(c) 150 (d) none of these
is running at 3.6 km/h in the same direction in which the
58. Harsha takes 3 hours more than Ashok, who drives his car train is going. The train will pass the man in :
5 km/h faster than Harsha drives, to cover 180 km 3
(a) 10 s (b) 12 s
distance. What is the speed of Harsha? 19
(a) 12 km/h (b) 15 km/h 10
(c) 10 s (d) none of these
(c) 30 km/h (d) 40 km/h 19
59. A mini bus takes 6 hours less to cover 1680 km distance, if 69. A train 350 m long is moving at the speed of 20 km/h. It
its speed is increased by 14 km/h? What is the usual time will cross a man coming from the opposite direction at the
taken by mini bus? speed of 1 km/h in :
(a) 15 h (b) 24 h (a) 27 s (b) 35 s
(c) 25 h (d) 30 h (c) 45 s (d) 60 s
420 QUANTUM CAT
70. The length of Lucknow mail is 120 m and that of Punjab Directions (for Q. Nos. 78 and 79) Two trains leave Meerut at
mail is 80 m. These two trains are running in the same the difference of 4 hours. The first train leaves at 8 am at 40 km/h
direction with velocities of 40 km/h and 50 km/h and the faster train leaves later at 60 km/h in the same direction.
respectively. The time taken by them to cross each other is : 78. When the faster train will overtake the slower train?
(a) 8 s (b) 72 s (a) 4 pm (b) 2 pm (c) 8 pm (d) 6:30 pm
(c) 11.5 s (d) 12.5 s 79. What is the distance from Meerut, where one train
71. In the above question if the trains are running in opposite overtakes another train?
directions. The time taken by them to cross each other is : (a) 480 km (b) 420 km (c) 360 km (d) 250 km
(a) 8 s (b) 72 s 80. The distance between Lucknow and Delhi is 700 km.
(c) 12.5 s (d) none of these Rajdhani express starts from Delhi for the Lucknow at
72. A train passes an electric pole in 10 seconds and a platform 60 km/h. 50 minutes later Lucknow express leaves
120 m long in 18 seconds. Its length in metres is Lucknow for Delhi on the parallel tracks at 70 km/h. How
(a) 150 m (b) 130 m far from Lucknow will they cross each other?
(c) 240 m (d) 180 m (a) 250 km (b) 360 km (c) 350 km (d) 475 km
73. A 175 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 81. Patna express travels first 560 km in 7 hours and rest
9 km/h in the opposite direction in 10 sec. The speed of the 360 km in 9 hours. What is the average speed of the train?
train (in km/h) is : (a) 39 km/h (b) 43 km/h
(a) 45 (b) 54 (c) 63 km/h (d) 57.5 km/h
(c) 72 (d) 68 82. Jammutavi express leaves Jammu for Kanya Kumari at
74. A train of length 100 m takes 1/6 minute to pass over 120 km/h and returns to Jammu at 80 km/h. What is the
another train 150 m long coming from the opposite average speed of the train during the whole journey?
direction. If the speed of first train is 60 km/h, the speed of (a) 47.5 km/h (b) 96 km/h
the second train is : (c) 38 km/h (d) 57.5 km/h
(a) 45 km/h (b) 28 km/h 83. In the above question if the total time taken by the train is
(c) 30 km/h (d) none of these 25 hours, what is the distance between these two places?
75. A train overtakes two girls who are walking in the opposite (a) 1365.5 km (b) 1369 km
direction in which the train is going at the rate of 3 km/h (c) 1200 km (d) can’t be determined
and 6 km/h and passes them completely in 36 seconds and 84. Roorkee express normally reaches its destination at
30 seconds respectively. The length of the train (in metres) 50 km/h in 30 hours. Find the speed at which it travels to
is : reduce the time by 10 hours?
(a) 120 m (b) 150 m (a) 38 km/h (b) 76 km/h (c) 75 km/h (d) 60 km/h
(c) 125 m (d) none of these 85. Two trains A and B start simultaneously in the opposite
76. A coolie standing on a railway platform observes that a direction from two points P and Q and arrive at their
train going in one direction takes 4 seconds to pass him. destinations 16 and 9 hours respectively after their meeting
Another train of same length going in opposite direction each other. At what speed does the second train B travel if
takes 5 seconds to pass him. The time taken (in seconds) by the first train travels at 120 km/h per hour :
the two trains to cross each other will be : (a) 90 km/h (b) 160 km/h
(a) 35 (b) 36.5 (c) 67.5 km/h (d) none of these
40 86. There are two trains running on two parallel tracks. Length
(c) (d) none of these
9 of each train is 120 m. When they are running in opposite
77. Pushpak express leaves Lucknow at 6 am and two hours directions, they cross each other in 4 seconds and when
later another train Bhopal express leaves Lucknow. Both they are running in the same direction they cross in 12
trains arrive Bhopal at 4 pm on the same day. If the seconds. What is the speed of the faster train?
difference between their speeds be 10 km/h, what is the (a) 80 km/h (b) 72 km/h
average speeds of both the trains over entire route : (c) 120 km/h (d) 144 km/h
(a) 40 km/h 87. Two trains are travelling in the same direction at
4
(b) 44 km/h 22.5 km/h and 7.5 km/h respectively. The faster train
9 crosses a man in the slower train in 18 seconds. What is
3
(c) 42 km/h length of the faster train?
5 (a) 87.5 m (b) 75 m
(d) none of the above (c) 122.5 m (d) none of these
Time, Speed and Distance 421

88. A train covers a certain distance moving at a speed of Directions (for Q. Nos. 96 and 97) The ratio of speeds at which
60 km/h. However if it were to halt for a fixed time every Anil and Mukesh walk is 3 : 4. Anil takes 30 minutes more than the
hour, its average speed comes out to be 50 km/h. For how time taken by Mukesh in reaching the destination.
much time does the train halt for every hour? 96. If Anil drives the car at twice the speed of his walking then
(a) 6 min (b) 10 min
the time required to reach his destination by car is :
(c) 12 min (d) none of these
(a) 45 min
89. Two horses start trotting towards each other, one from A to (b) 60 min
B and another from B to A. They cross each other after one (c) 1.5 h
hour and the first horse reaches B, 5/6 hour before the (d) 1 h 20 min
second horse reaches A. If the distance between A and B is 97. What is the total distance travelled by each of them, if the
50 km. What is the speed of the slower horse? average of speeds of Anil and Mukesh is 28 km/h?
(a) 30 km/h (b) 15 km/h (a) 48 km (b) 60 km
(c) 25 km/h (d) 20 km/h (c) 17 km (d) 70 km
90. Pankaj walked at 5 km/h for certain part of the journey and 98. Train X starts from point A for point B at the same time that
then he took an auto for the remaining part of the journey train Y starts from B to A. Point A and B are 300 km apart.
travelling at 25 km/h. If he took 10 hours for the entire The trains are moving at a constant speed atleast at
journey. What part of journey did he travelled by auto if the 25 km/h. The trains meet each other 3 hours after they start.
average speed of the entire journey be 17 km/h : If the faster train takes atleast 2 more hours to reach the
(a) 750 km (b) 100 km destination. By which time will the slower train have
(c) 150 km (d) 200 km definitely reached its destination? (Ignoring the length of
91. A car travelled first 36 km at 6 km/h faster than the usual trains in crossing)
speed, but it returned the same distance at 6 km/h slower (a) 4 hours after the start
than the usual speed. If the total time taken by car is 8 (b) 7.5 hours after the start
hours, for how many hours does it travelled at the faster (c) 6 hours after the start
speed? (d) none of the above
(a) 4 (b) 3 99. In reaching the Purnagiri a man took half as long again to
(c) 2 (d) 1 climb the second third as he did to climb the first third and
92. A dog starts chasing to a cat 2 hours later. It takes 2 hours a quarter as long again for the last third as for the second
to dog to catch the cat. If the speed of the dog is 30 km/h, third. He took altogether 5 hr 50 minutes. Find the time he
what is the speed of cat? spent on the first third of the journey?
(a) 10 km/h (b) 15 km/h (a) 72 min (b) 80 min
(c) 20 km/h (d) can’t be determined (c) 81 min (d) 88 min
93. Prachi starts from Barabanki at 6 am at constant speed of 100. Walking at four fifth of his usual speed Vijay Malya reaches
60 km/h. She halts at Lucknow for half an hour and then his office 15 minutes late on a particular day. The next day,
drives at 40 km/h. If she reaches Kanpur at 9 : 30 am, which he walked at 5/4 of his usual speed. How early would he be
is 160 km from Barabanki, how far is Barabanki from to the office when compared to the previous day?
Lucknow? (a) 27 min (b) 32 min
(a) 75 km (b) 80 km (c) 30 min (d) none of these
(c) 100 km (d) 120 km 101. Abdul starts in a car from Ahmedabad towards Bangalore.
94. Two trains whose respective lengths are 200 m and 250 m After sometime he realises that he will cover only 75% of
cross each other in 18 s, when they are travelling in opposite the distance in the scheduled time and he therefore
direction and in 1 min, when they are travelling in the same doubles his speed immediately and thus manages to reach
direction. What is the speed of the faster train (in km/h)? Bangalore exactly on time. Find the time after which Abdul
(a) 38.5 (b) 48.5 changed his speed, given that he could have been late by
(c) 54 (d) 58.5 3 hours if he had not changed his speed :
95. Abhinav started for the station half a km from his home (a) 3 h (b) 4 h
walking at 1 km/h to catch the train in time. After 3 (c) 5 h (d) 6 h
minutes he realised that he had forgotten a document at 102. A man travels the first part of his journey at 20 km/h and
home and returned with increased, but constant speed to the next at 70 km/h, covering the entire journey at an
get it succeded in catching the train. Find his latter speed in average speed of 50 km/h. What is the ratio of the distance
km/h : that he covered at 20 km/h to that he covered at 70 km/h?
(a) 1.25 (b) 1.1
11 (a) 4 : 21 (b) 3 : 22
(c) (d) 2 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 3 : 5
9
422 QUANTUM CAT
103. Anjali fires two bullets from the same place at an interval of 113. A man can row 5 km/h in still water. If the rate of current is
6 minutes but Bhagwat sitting in a car approaching the 5
1 km/h, it takes hours to row to a place and back. How
place of firing hears the second fire 5 minute 32 seconds 4
after the first firing. What is the speed of car, if the speed of far is the place?
sound is 332 m/s? (a) 2 km (b) 2.5 km
(a) 56 m/s (b) 102 m/s (c) 3 km (d) 4 km
(c) 28 m/s (d) 32 m/s 114. A man can swim 5 km/h in still water. If the speed of
104. A car crosses a man walking at 6 km/h. The man can see current be 3 km/h, the time taken by him to swim to a place
the things upto 450 m only in one direction due to fog. He 16 km upstream and back is :
sees the car which was going in the same direction for (a) 8 h (b) 7.5 h
4.5 minutes. What is the speed of the car? (c) 6.66 h (d) 10 h
(a) 9 km/h (b) 12 km/h 115. A boat covers 48 km upstream and 72 km downstream in
(c) 12.5 km/h (d) 15 km/h 12 hours, while it covers 72 km upstream and 48 km
105. A man takes 4 h 20 minutes in walking to a certain place downstream in 13 hours. The speed of stream is :
and riding back. If he walk on both sides he loses 1 h. The (a) 2 km/h (b) 2.2 km/h
time he would take by riding both ways is : (c) 2.5 km/h (d) 4 km/h
(a) 2 h 20 min (b) 3 h 20 min 116. A motor boat takes 2 hours to travel a distance of 9 km
(c) 2 h (d) 4 h 40 min
downstream and it takes 6 hours to travel the same
106. A train met with an accident 120 km from station A. It distance against the current. The speed of the boat in still
completed the remaining journey at 5/6 of its previous water and that of the current (in km/h) respectively are :
speed and reached 2 hours late at station B. Had the (a) 6, 5 (b) 3, 1.5 (c) 8, 5 (d) 9, 3
accident taken place 300 km further, it would have been 117. A man can row 15 km/h in still water and he finds that it
only 1 hour late? What is the speed of the train? takes him twice as much time to row up than as to row
(a) 100 km/h (b) 120 km/h down the same distance in the river. The speed of the
(c) 60 km/h (d) 50 km/h current (in km/h) is :
107. For the above question what is the total distance between A (a) 6 km/h (b) 6.5 km/h
and B ? (c) 4.5 km/h (d) 5 km/h
(a) 480 km (b) 520 km
118. A motor boat takes 12 hours to go downstream and it takes
(c) 600 km (d) 720 km
24 hours to return the same distance. What is the time
108. The wheel of an engine of 300 cm in circumference makes taken by boat in still water?
10 revolutions in 6 seconds. What is the speed of the wheel (a) 15 h (b) 16 h (c) 8 h (d) 20 h
(in km/h)? 119. The speed of a boat in upstream is 2/3 that of downstream.
(a) 18 (b) 20 Find the ratio of speed of boat in still water and to the
(c) 27 (d) 36 average speed of boat in downstream and upstream?
109. A man can row downstream at 12 km/h and upstream at 24 25
(a) (b)
8 km/h. What is the speed of man in still water? 25 24
(a) 12 km/h (b) 10 km/h 5
(c) (d) none of these
(c) 8 km/h (d) 9 km/h 12
110. A man can row upstream at 15 km/h and downstream at 120. The difference between downstream speed and upstream
21 km/h. The speed of water current of the river is : speed is 3 km/h and the total time taken during upstream
(a) 8 km/h (b) 6 km/h and downstream is 3 hours. What is the downstream
(c) 3 km/h (d) 5 km/h speed, if the downstream and upstream distance are 3 km
111. A boat moves downstream at 1 km in 5 minutes and each?
upstream at 1 km in 12 minutes. What is the speed of (a) 2.5 km/h (b) 4.33 km/h
current? (c) 4 km/h (d) 3.3 km/h
(a) 4.5 km/h (b) 3.5 km/h 121. A boat which sails at 10 km/h in still water starts chasing,
(c) 2 km/h (d) 2.5 km/h from 10 km behind, another one which sails at 4 km/h in
112. A man rows downstream 60 km and upstream 36 km, the upstream direction. After how long will it catchup if the
taking 4 hours each time. The speed of the man is : stream is flowing at 2 km/h :
(a) 15 km/h (b) 16 km/h (a) 4 h (b) 2.5 h
(c) 8 km/h (d) 12 km/h (c) 2 h (d) 3.5 h
Time, Speed and Distance 423

Directions (for Q. Nos. 122 and 123) A motor boat went 131. Aman can run a distance in 190 seconds and Shakti can run
downstream for 120 km and immediately returned. It took the boat the same distance in 200 seconds. If they start together, by
15 hours to complete the round trip. If the speed of the river were what distance Aman can beat Shakti in 1 km race?
twice as high, the trip downstream and back would take 24 hours. (a) 48 m (b) 25 m
122. What is the speed of the boat in still water? (c) 24 m (d) 50 m
(a) 20 km/h (b) 18 km/h 7
132. A runs times as fast as B. If A gives B a start of 300 m, how
(c) 15 km/h (d) 16 km/h 4
far must the winning post be if both A and B have to end the
123. What is the speed of the stream?
race at same time?
(a) 3.5 km/h (b) 4 km/h
(a) 1400 m (b) 700 m
(c) 6 km/h (d) 8 km/h
(c) 350 m (d) 210 m
124. A boat sails 15 km of a river towards upstream in 5 hours.
133. A beats B by 100 m in a race of 1200 m and B beats C by
How long will it take to cover the same distance
200 m in a race of 1600 m. Approximately by how many
downstream, if the speed of current is one-fourth the speed
metres can A beat C in a race of 9600 m?
of the boat in still water :
(a) 1600 m (b) 1800 m
(a) 1.8 h (b) 3 h
(c) 1900 m (d) 2400 m
(c) 4 h (d) 5 h
134. In a 1000 m race Ameesha gives a headstart of 100 m to
125. A boat takes 5 hours more while going back in upstream Bipasha and beats her by 200 m. In the same race Ameesha
than in downstream. If the distance between two places is
gives a headstart of 100 m to Celina and beats her by 300 m.
24 km and the speed of boat in still water be 5.5 km/h. By how many metres would Bipasha beat Celina in a 50 m
What must be the speed of boat in still water so that it can race?
row downstream, 24 km, in 4 hours? (a) 6.66 m (b) 7.143 m
(a) 1.5 km/h (b) 3.5 km/h (c) 8 m (d) none of these
(c) 4.5 km/h (d) 3 km/h
135. In a 1000 metres race Ravi gives Vinod a start of 40 m and
126. A boat takes 7 hours to go from P to R, through a midpoint beats him by 19 seconds. If Ravi gives a start of 30 seconds
Q, but it takes 8 hours to go from P to Q and then return then Vinod beats Ravi by 40 m. What is the ratio of speed of
from Q to P. How long it would take to go from R to P? Ravi to that of Vinod?
(a) 7 h (b) 8 h (a) 4 : 5 (b) 6 : 5
(c) 9 h (d) none of these (c) 3 : 8 (d) 5 : 4
127. Mallah can row 40 km upstream and 55 km downstream in 136. In a race, the man who came two places ahead of the last
13 h and 30 km upstream and 44 km downstream in man finished one place ahead of the man who came three
10 hours. What is the speed of Mallah in still water? places behind the man just ahead of the one who stood
(a) 6 km/h (b) 12 km/h second. How many men finished the race?
(c) 3 km/h (d) 8 km/h (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 8
Directions (for Q. Nos. 128 and 129) In a kilometre race, A can 137. Vinay and Versha run a race with their speeds in the ratio of
give B a start of 20 m and also in a half kilometre raceC beats A by 5 : 3. They prefer to run on a circular track of circumference
50 m. 1.5 km. What is the distance covered by Vinay when he
passes Versha for the seventh time?
128. If A, B and C run a 2 km race, what is the difference
(a) 25.25 km (b) 26.25 km
between the distances covered by the two losers, when the (c) 132 m (d) none of these
winner finishes the race?
138. A gives both B and C a start of 60 m in a 1500 m race.
(a) 64 m (b) 36 m (c) 32 m (d) 58 m
However, while B finishes with him, C is 15 m behind them
129. B and C run a half km race, who should give a start to the when A and B cross the finishing line. How much start can
slower runner and of how many metres so that they both B give C for the 1500 m race course?
finish the race at the same time? 6 5
(a) C, 59 m (b) B, 34 m (a) 7 m (b) 15 m
23 8
(c) C, 48 m (d) B, 56 m 11 5
(c) 7 m (d) 5 m
130. In a 1600 m race, A beats B by 80 m and C by 60 m. If they 16 24
run at the same time then by what distance will C beat B in 139. In a 600 m race Prabhat has a start of 200 m and the ratio of
a 400 m race? speeds of Prabhat and Nishith is 4 : 5, then the distance by
15 20
(a) 5 m (b) 5 m which Prabhat wins by :
77 76 (a) 100 m (b) 80 m
5
(c) 15 m (d) none of these (c) 120 m (d) none of these
77
424 QUANTUM CAT
140. In the game of billiards, A can give B, 20 points in 80 and B 145. When do the hands of a clock coincide between 5 and 6?
can give C, 16 points in 80. How many points can A give C (a) 5 : 30 (b) 5 : 27 : 16
in a game of 200? (c) 5 : 32 : 16 (d) 5 : 28 : 56
(a) 64 (b) 72
146. What is the angle between hour-hand and minute-hand at
(c) 80 (d) none of these
2 : 25 pm?
141. In a day how many times the minute and hour-hands (a) 77.5° (b) 68°
coincide (or overlap or come together)?
(c) 67.5° (d) none of these
(a) 12 (b) 20
(c) 22 (d) 24 147. When do the two hands of a clock of just after 3 pm make
30° angle between them?
142. In a day how many times the minute-hand and hour-hand
(a) 3 : 15 : 00 (b) 3 : 10 : 54
make right angle between them?
(a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 3 : 01 : 59 (d) none of these
(c) 22 (d) 44 148. At what time are the hands of clock together between 7 pm
143. In a day how many times the minute-hand and hour-hand and 8 pm?
are opposite to each other? (a) 7 : 45 : 54 (b) 7 : 36 : 27
(a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 11 (d) 22 (c) 7 : 37 : 49 (d) 7 : 38 : 11
144. The relative speed of minute-hand with respect to 149. What is the angle between the hands of a clock when the
hour-hand is : time is 15 minutes past 6?
 1 ° (a) 97.5° (b) 87.5°
(a)  5  per minute
 2 (c) 77° (d) none of these
 11
(b)   minute per minute 150. What are the possible times when a clock shows 35° angle
 12
between two hands between 3 pm and 4 pm?
(c) 6° per minute (a) 20 min 25 sec (b) 25 min 20 sec
(d) both (a) and (b) (c) 22 min 43 sec (d) none of these

LEVEL 02 > HIGHER LEVEL EXERCISE

Directions (for Q. Nos. 1 to 4) Aishwarya is going to cover a 5. Bipasha and Mallika leave towns Kolkata and Ambala at
distance of 360 km from Ambala to Khandala. The first one-third 6 am and travel towards Ambala and Kolkata respectively.
of the distance she covers on a cycle. The second one-third she Speed of Bipasha is 60 km/h and speed of Mallika is
covers by an auto-rickshaw and the remaining distance she travels 120 km/h. Rani leaves Kolkata for Ambala sometime later
by car. The average speed of the journey by a car is 5 times the and travels at a speed of 90 km/h. If the distance between
average speed by cycle and 20 km/h more than the average speed Kolkata and Ambala is 1080 km and all three meet at the
by auto-rickshaw, but she took 1 hour more by auto-rickshaw than same point on the way, at same time, then at what time did
by car. Rani leave Kolkata?
1. What is the average speed of the whole journey? (a) 7 am (b) 8 am (c) 7:30 am (d) 10 am
(a) 15 km/h (b) 24 km/h 6. A passenger sitting in a train of length l m, which is running
(c) 20 km/h (d) none of these with speed of 60 km/h passing through two bridges, notices
2. What is the time taken in the whole journey? that he crosses the first bridge and the second bridge in time
(a) 10 h (b) 12 h intervals which are in the ratio of 7 : 4 respectively. If the length
(c) 15 h (d) none of these of first bridge be 280 m, then the length of second bridge is
(a) 490 m (b) 220 m
3. What is the distance covered by her in last five hours of her (c) 160 m (d) can’t be determined
journey?
7. Pathik and Rahi started from two places Andheri and Bhav-
(a) 250 km
nagar towards Bhavnagar and Andheri respectively at
(b) 240 km
8 : 20 am. The speeds of Pathik and Rahi are in the ratio of
(c) 200 km
4 : 5. They meet at Chandni Chowk, somewhere between
(d) can’t be determined
Andheri and Bhavnagar, spent some-time together enjoyed
4. Instead of travelling the first one-third by cycle if she coffee and burger and then both started towards their
travels by same auto-rickshaw with the same average destination at 9 : 27 am. If Pathik reaches Bhavnagar at
speed, then what is the percentage decrease/increase in 10 : 32 am, how much time did they spend together?
time taken during the entire journey? (a) 8 min (b) 12 min
(a) 46.66% (b) 33.33% (c) 50% (d) 25% (c) 15 min (d) can’t be determined
Time, Speed and Distance 425

8. A train with 120 wagons crosses Arjun who is going in the 14. A surveillance plane is moving between two fixed places
same direction, in 36 seconds. It travels for half an hour Pukhwara and Kargil at 120 km/h. The distance between
from the time it starts overtaking the Arjun (he is riding on two places is 600 km. After 18 hour what will be the
the horse) before it starts overtaking Srikrishna (who is distance between the Kargil and its position if it is starts
also riding on his horse) coming from the opposite moving from Pukhwara?
direction in 24 seconds. In how much time (in seconds) (a) 360 km (b) 300 km
after the train has crossed the Srikrishna do the Arjun (c) 240 km (d) none of these
meets to Srikrishna? 15. The speed of a car during the second hour of its journey is
(a) 3560 sec (b) 3600 sec thrice that in the first hour. Also its third hours speed is the
(c) 3576 sec (d) can’t be determined average speed of the first two hours. Had the car travelled
9. Kareena and Shahid start from Kurla and Worli towards at the second hours speed during all the first three hours,
Worli and Kurla respectively, at the same time. After they then it would have travelled 150 km more. Find the
meet at Shantakruz on the way from Kurla to Worli, percentage reduction in time in the second case for the first
Kareena reduces her speed by 33.33% and returns back to three hours :
Kurla and Shahid increases his speed by 33.33% and 1
(a) 33 % (b) 40% (c) 25% (d) 50%
returns back to Worli. If Kareena takes 2 hours for the 3
entire journey, what is the time taken by Shahid for the 16. There are three runners Tom, Dick and Harry with their
entire journey? respective speeds of 10 km/h, 20 km/h and 30 km/h. They
(a) 96 min (b) 84 min are initially at P and they have to run between the two
(c) 168 min (d) can’t be determined points P and Q which are 10 km apart from each other.
10. Due to the technical snag in the signal system two trains They start their race at 6 am and end at 6 pm on the same
start approaching each other on the same rail track from day. If they run between P and Q without any break, then
two different stations, 240 km away from each other. When how many times they will be together either at P and Q
the train starts a bird also starts moving to and fro between during the given time period?
the two trains at 60 km/h touching each time each train. (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 12
The bird is initially sitting on the top of the engine of one of Directions (for Q. Nos. 17 and 18) Arjun and Sri- krishna go by
the trains and it moves so till these trains collide. If these chariot from Mathura to Kurukshetra which is on the way to
trains collide one and a half hour after the start, then how Hastinapur. Abhimanyu goes from Hastinapur to Kurukshetra.
many kilometres bird travells till the time of collision of The distance between Mathura to Hastinapur is 700 km and the
trains? distance between Hastinapur and Kurukshetra is 300 km. Speed of
(a) 90 km (b) 130 km Arjun and Srikrishna’s chariot is 25 km/h and speed of Abhimanyu
(c) 120 km (d) none of these is 10 km/h. All the three persons start their journey at 10 am. After
11. Einstein walks on an escalator at a rate of 5 steps per travelling some miles Srikrishna sees Duryodhan going (by riding
second and reaches the other end in 10 seconds. While on his horse) at 20 km/h to Kurukshetra. Arjun and Srikrishna go
coming back, walking at the same speed he reaches the ahead meet Abhimanyu and pick him up. Then they return
starting point in 40 seconds. What is the number of steps on immediately to Kurukshetra and thus all the four reach at the same
the escalator? time.
(a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 120 (d) 80 17. What is the total distance travelled by Arjun?
12. A girl while walking diametrically across a semicircular (a) 400 (b) 500
playground, takes 3 minutes less than if she had kept (c) 600 (d) can’t be determined
walking round the circular path from A to B. If she walks 18. What is the total time taken to reach Kurukshetra?
60 metres a minute, what is the diameter of the play ground (a) 10 h (b) 15 h (c) 18 h (d) 24 h
(a) 60 m (b) 48 m (c) 84 m (d) 315 m 19. Priyanka, Akshay and Salman started out on a journey to
13. Two trains start simultaneously from two stations Howrah watch the newly released movie ‘‘Mujhse Shaadi Karogi’’,
and Bandra, respectively towards each other on the same which was being shown at wave cine-multiplex. The
track. The distance between the two stations is 560 km and multiplex was 120 km away from their starting point of
the speed of trains are 30 and 40 km/h. journey. Priyanka and Salman went by car at the speed of
Simultaneously with the trains, a sparrow sitting on the top 50 km/h, while Akshay travelled by Tonga (horse cart) at
of one of the train starts towards the other and reverses its 10 km/h. After a certain distance Salman got off and
direction on reaching the other train and so on. If the speed travelled the rest distance by another Tonga at 10 km/h,
of sparrow is 80 km/h then the distance that the sparrow while Priyanka went back for Akshay and reached the
flies before being crushed between the train is : destination at the same time that Salman arrived. The
(a) 70 km (b) 560 km number of hours required for the trip was :
(c) 640 km (d) 650 km (a) 4 h (b) 5 h
(c) 4.8 h (d) can’t be determined
426 QUANTUM CAT
Directions (for Q. Nos. 20 and 21) Ajay and Kajol start towards 26. If the speed of the bike is 42 km/h, then what is the shortest
each other at the same time from Barabanki and Fatehpur for their possible time in which all three of them can complete the
destinations Fatehpur and Barabanki respectively which are journey?
300 km apart. They meet each other 120 km away from Barabanki. 1 4
(a) 7 h (b) 9 h
3 7
20. Shahrukh starts from Barabanki to Fatehpur, 1 hour after 3
Ajay starts. Shahrukh meets Kajol 1.5 hours after Shahrukh (c) 9 h (d) can’t be determined
7
starts. If the speed of Shahrukh is atleast 20 km/h faster
than the speed of Kajol. 27. While walking down on the pavements of NewYork city.
Which of the following statements is true? I notice that every 20 minute there is a city bus coming in the
(a) The minimum possible speed of Ajay is 45 km/h opposite direction and every 30 minute there is a city bus
(b) The maximum possible speed of Ajay is 45 km/h overtaking me from behind. What is the time gap between
(c) The minimum possible speed of Kajol is 60 km/h one city bus passing a stationary point known as Local Bus
(d) The maximum possible speed of Kajol is 60 km/h Stop beside the route and the immediately next city bus in
21. What is the minimum speed of Shahrukh to overtake Ajay, the same direction passing the same stationary point?
before he meets Kajol? (Use the data from previous (a) 27 min (b) 24 min
(c) 25 min (d) can’t determined
question, if necessary)
(a) 30 (b) 40 28. Abhinav and Brijesh start from Allahabad and Barabanki
(c) 60 (d) none of these respectively with uniform velocities. Abhinav is headed
towards Barabanki and Brijesh towards Allahabad and both
Directions (for Q. Nos. 22 to 24) Raghupati goes at a speed of cities are 600 km apart. Abhinav rests whenever Brijesh is on
60 km/h. Raghav goes at a speed of 36 km/h. Raja Ram can go from the move and Brijesh rest whenever Abhinav is on the move.
Azamgarh to Bareilley in 2 hours. The distance between Azamgarh Abhinav’s speed is 25 km/h and Brijesh’s speed is 30 km/h. If
to Bareilley is equal to the distance between Azamgarh to Chandoli. Abhinav starts first and reaches Barabanki in 36 hours, then
Raghav takes the same time travelling from Bareilley to Azamgarh find the least time that Brijesh would take to reach his
as from Bareilley to Chandoli at his regular speed which is twice the
destination after Abhinav makes a start
speed of Raja Ram.
(a) 20 h (b) 36 h
22. What is the distance between Azamgarh and Chandoli? (c) 44 h (d) none of these
(a) 60 km (b) 27 km 29. A man can cross a downstream river by steamer in
(c) 36 km (d) 18 km 40 minutes and same by boat in 1 hour. If the time of
23. How much time will Raghupati take to complete a round crossing the river in upstream direction by steamer is 50%
trip of the three cities? more than downstream time by the steamer and the time
(a) 1 h 12 min (b) 1 h 48 min required by boat to cross the same river by boat in upstream
(c) 1 h 30 min (d) 1 h 36 min is 50% more than the time required in downstream by boat.
24. If Raghupati and Raja Ram travel towards each other from What is the time taken for the man to cross the river
Bareilley and Chandoli respectively, how far from Bareilley downstream by steamer and then return to same place by
will they meet each other? boat half the way and by steamer the rest of the way?
60 9 (a) 85 min (b) 115 min (c) 120 min (d) 125 min
(a) km (b) 27 km
13 13 Directions (for Q. Nos. 30 and 31) Awadh express and Bokaro
9 360
(c) 37 km (d) km express start simultaneously from Lucknow and Jamshedpur
13 9 towards each other and continuously shuttle between these two
Directions (for Q. Nos. 25 and 26) Mohan, Namit and Pranav places. Every time these trains meet each other, they turn back
travel from Shantipur to Hulchulpur. They have a two seeter bike after exchanging their respective speeds, the initial ratio of their
which can be driven by only Mohan. It is known that due to very speeds is 2 : 1.
stringent traffic rules only two persons can ride at a time. 30. What is the number of distinct places at which they will
Hulchulpur is 180 km away from Shantipur. All of them can walk
meet?
at 6 km/h, but reach to Hulchulpur simultaneously also they
(a) 1 (b) 2
started their journey simultaneously.
(c) 5 (d) none of these
25. If the speed of the bike is 36 km/h, then what is the total 31. Let these two trains first time meet at Patna, then what is
distance that the bike travels? the ratio of distances covered by Awadh express and
(a) 400 km Bokaro express till they meet for the third time at the same
(b) 380 km place Patna :
(c) 200 km (a) 1 : 1 (b) 14 : 13
(d) 320 km (c) 10 : 11 (d) none of these
Time, Speed and Distance 427

32. Mahindra starts a journey for his office, which is in the 38. A tiger is 50 of its own leaps behind a deer. The tiger takes
north east of his home. An hour after starting meets with a 5 leaps per minute to the deer’s 4. If the tiger and the deer
minor accident. He takes one hour in resuming his journey. cover 8 m and 5 m per leap respectively, what distance will
After that he proceeds at 5/6th of his former speed and the tiger have to run before it catches the deer?
arrives at the office 1 hour 36 minutes late than the (a) 600 m (b) 700 m
scheduled time. Had the accident occurred 80 kms further (c) 800 m (d) 1000 m
from the actual place of accident, he would have arrived 39. Soniya and Priyanka started from Amethi and Bellari for
1 hour 20 minutes beyond the scheduled time. What is the Bellari and Amethi, which are 645 km apart. They meet
distance between his office and his home? after 15 hours. After their meeting, Sonia increased her
(a) 180 km (b) 240 km speed by 3 km/h and Priyanka reduced her speed by
(c) 250 km (d) 300 km 3 km/h, they arrived at Bellari and Amethi respectively at
33. A soldier fired two bullets at an interval of 335 seconds the same time. What is their initial speeds?
moving at a uniform speed v1. A terrorist who was running (a) 24 km/h and 30 km/h
ahead of the soldier in the same direction, hears the two (b) 25 km/h and 18 km/h
shots at an interval of 330 seconds? If the speed of sound is (c) 18 km/h and 21 km/h
1188 km/h, then who is the faster and by how much? (d) 20 km/h and 23 km/h
(a) Soldier, 22 km/h (b) Terrorist, 25 km/h 40. Den Bosch and Eastbourne are two famous cities 300 km
(c) Soldier, 18 km/h (d) Terrorist, 20 km/h apart. Maradona starts from Den Bosch at 8 : 24 am. An
34. A hunter fired two shots from the branch of a tree at an hour later Pele starts from Den Bosch. After travelling for
interval of 76 seconds. A tiger separating too fast hears the 1 hour, Pele reaches Nottingham that Maradona had
two shots at an interval of 83 seconds. If the velocity of the passed 40 minutes earlier. Nottingham falls on the way
sound is 1195.2 km/h, then find the speed of tiger? from Den Bosch to Eastbourne. If Pele and Maradona just
(a) 112.8 km/h (b) 100.8 km/h reaches Eastbourne at the same time, what are the speeds
(c) 80.16 km/h (d) none of these of the Maradona and Pele respectively?
35. A man goes to the fair in Funcity with his son and faithful (a) 100 km/h, 125 km/h (b) 60 km/h, 80 km/h
dog. Unfortunately man misses his son which he realises (c) 60 km/h, 75 km/h (d) 75 km/h, 100 km/h
20 minutes later. The son comes back towards his home at 41. A thief sees a jeep at a distance of 250 m, coming towards
the speed of 20 m/min and man follows him at 40 m/min. him at 36 km/h. Thief takes 5 seconds to realise that there
The dog runs to the son (child) and comes back to the man is nothing but the police is approaching him by the jeep and
(father) to show him the direction of his son. It keeps start running away from police at 54 km/h. But police
moving to and fro at 60 m/min between son and father, till realise after 10 seconds, when the thief starts running
the man meets the son. What is the distance travelled by away, that he is actually a thief and gives chase at 72 km/h.
the dog in the direction of the son? How long after thief saw police did police catchup with him
(a) 800 m (b) 1675 m and what is the distance police had to travel to do so?
(c) 848 m (d) 1000 m (a) 50 s, 1000 m (b) 65 s, 1150 m
36. Amarnath express left Amritsar for Gorakhpur. Two hours (c) 65 s, 1300 m (d) 45 s, 1050 m
later Gorakhnath express left from Amritsar to Gorakhpur. 42. Inspired by the ‘Golden quadrilateral project’ UP
Both trains reached Gorakhpur simultaneously. If Government recently accomplished a diamond triangular
Amarnath express had started from Amritsar and project. Under this project the State Government laid down
Gorakhnath express had started from Gorakhpur at the 6 lane roads connecting three cities Ayodhya, Banaras and
same time and travelled towards each other they would Chitrakoot, which are equally separated from each other
meet in 1 h 20 min. Find the time taken by Amarnath i . e. , in terms of geometry they form an equilateral triangle.
express to travel from Amritsar to Gorakhpur (in hours) : Angad and Bajrang start simultaneously from Ayodhya and
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 Banaras respectively, towards Chitrakoot. When Angad
37. Akbar and Birbal setout at the same time to walk towards covers 100 kms, Bajrang covers such a distance that the
each other respectively from Agra and Banaras 144 km distance between Angad and Bajrang makes 90° angle with
apart. Akbar walks at the constant speed of 8 km/h, while the road joining Banaras and Chitrakoot. When Bajrang
Birbal walks 4 km in the first hour, 5 km in the second hour, reaches Chitrakoot, Angad is still 150 km away from
6 km in the third hour and so on. Then the Akbar and Birbal Chitrakoot. What is the distance between Ayodhya and
will meet : Banaras?
(a) in 6 h (a) 250 km
(b) in 8 h
(b) 450 km
(c) midway between Agra and Banaras
(c) 300 km
(d) 80 km away from Banaras
(d) none of the above
428 QUANTUM CAT
43. Two trains Ajanta express and Barouni express 47. In the above question how many per cent time Jaya saved
simultaneously started on two parallel tracks from Meerut in going via Noida of the total time taken previously :
to Nagpur, which are 390 km apart. The ratio of the speed (a) 10% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 17%
of Ajanta express and Barouni express is 6 : 7. After how 48. If Mrs. Jaya wants to watch the premier show of a movie at
long (in kms) travelling, Barouni express exchanges the Wave Cinema in Noida while returning from institute
speed with Ajanta express so that both the trains reach at through BNC. When will she return home given that she
their destination simultaneously : spends total time 3 hours at wave cinema?
(a) 150 km (b) 190 km (a) at the same time as normal
(c) 210 km (d) can’t be determined (b) 5 min late than her husband
44. In a circus there was a leopard and a tiger walking in the (c) at the same time when her husband returns
two different rings of same radii. There I observed that (d) can’t be determined
when leopard moved 3 steps, tiger moved 5 steps in the 49. Preetam and Devi start running a race on the given track as
same time, but the distance traversed by leopard in 5 steps is shown in figure.
equal to the distance traversed by tiger in 4 steps. What is the A
number of rounds that a leopard made when tiger completed
100 rounds?
D
(a) 120 (b) 48 x
(c) 75 (d) none of these
0
25
Directions (for Q. Nos. 45 to 48) In the following figure the
route is shown which is followed by Professor Jai and Professor C B
(x + 100)
Jaya, who are visitng faculty at IIM-A and IIM-B respectively. A,
B denote IIM-A and IIM-B respectively and C denotes the Where AC and BC are mutually perpendicular and CD is the
residence of Prof. Jai and Prof. Jaya. They leave home for classes median of triangular paths ABC. BC is 100 km longer than
500 1200 that of AC, again CD is 250 km. The speeds of Preetam and
at the same time and their driving speeds are km/h and
13 13 Devi are 30 km/h and 40 km/h, initially and their respective
km/h respectively. Also they finish the classes at the same time to paths of running are CADC and CBDC. After how much time
reach home. they reverse their speeds, so that they return C at the same
A
time?
50 120
(a) h (b) h
7 7
13 80
90° D
00
km (c) h (d) none of these
500 km

11
N
Directions (for Q. Nos. 50 to 52) The markets M 1 , M 2 , M 3 ,…etc
m of Vyapaar city are lying besides the circular paths P1 , P2 , P3 ,…etc.
0k All the circular paths are concentric at centre ‘O’ and their distances
65
are 1 km, 2 km, 3 km, … etc from the centre ‘O’ respectively. At the
C B
1200 km centre ‘O’ there is a ‘‘Khoob Khao’’ tiffin agency which supplies the
tiffins to all the markets M 1 , M 2 , M 3 , … etc. A tiffin carrier starts
The path adopted by Jai and Jaya is CADC and CBDC from ‘O’ goes directly east of the shop and then on reaching the
respectively. Prof. Jai and Prof. Jaya are husband and wife circular path it moved 1 km in counter clock direction on it. After
respectively. completing its 1 km distance on P1 the carrier moves to P2 in the
45. If both of them start and finish the classes at the same time, radial direction. Then it goes 2 km on P2 . Similarly 3 km on P3 and 4
km on P4 etc in counter clock direction moving radially from P2 to P3
then who returned home earlier than other, if no one of
and P3 to P4 etc and motion of the carrier continued in this manner till
them halts for anywhere in the route and they just leave the
it reaches exactly in the east direction.
institution as soon as they finish the lectures?
(a) Prof. Jai (b) Prof. Jaya 50. After reaching east of the shop it can’t move on further than
(c) Return at the same time (d) can’t be determined the given distance on the current path. For how many
46. In the shown figure N and D denotes Noida and Delhi markets can it supply its tiffins directly?
respectively, who returned home late and by how much (a) 4 (b) 5
time, if Jaya turned from Noida instead of Delhi : (c) 7 (d) can’t be determined
(a) Jai, 9 h 10 min 51. The total distance covered by the carriers in providing the
(b) Jaya, 9 h 50 min tiffins from centre ‘O’ to the last point in one way only is :
(c) Jai, 2 h 55 min (a) 30 km (b) 28 km
(d) Jai, 16 h 10 min (c) 35 km (d) none of these
Time, Speed and Distance 429

52. The ratio of distances covered on the circular path P2 to 60. Mariya was travelling in her boat when the wind blew her
that on the last path, where the carrier reaches directly hat off and the hat started floating back downstream. The
eastward of its shop is : boat continued to travel upstream for twelve more minutes
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 7 before Mariya realized that her hat had fallen off and
(c) 2 : π (d) none of these turned back downstream. She caught up with that as soon
as it reached the starting point. Find the speed of river if
Directions (for Q. Nos. 53 to 57) A train enters into a tunnel AB Mariya’s hat flew off exactly 3 km from where she started :
at A and exits at B. A jackal is sitting at O in another by passing (a) 5 km/h
tunnel AOB, which is connected to AB at A and B, where OA is (b) 6 km/h
perpendicular to OB. A cat is sitting at P inside the tunnel AB (c) 7.5 km/h
making the shortest possible distance between O and P, such that (d) can’t be determined
AO : PB = 30 : 32. When a train before entering into the tunnel AB 61. Akbar, Birbal and Chanakya run around a circular track of
makes a whistle (or siren) somewhere before A, the jackal and cat length 500 m. Akbar and Birbal run with the speeds of
run towards A, they meet with accident (with the train) at the
15 m/s and 20 m/s in the same direction respectively and
entrance A. Further if the cat moves towards B instead of A it
Chanakya being very intelligent run in the opposite
again meets with accident at the exit of the tunnel by the same train
direction with a speed of 25 m/s. If all three of them start at
coming from the same direction.
the same time, then :
53. What is the ratio of speeds of jackal and cat? (a) Akbar meets Chanakya more frequently than Birbal
(a) 4 : 3 (b) 5 : 3 does
(c) 1 : 1 (d) can’t be determined (b) Akbar and Chanakya meets as frequently as Birbal and
54. The ratio of speeds of jackal is to train is : Chanakya
(a) 5 : 1 (b) 3 : 5 (c) Akbar meets Birbal least frequently
(c) 1 : 5 (d) can’t be determined (d) Nothing can be concluded
55. If jackal moves towards OPA, it will meet with train at M 1 62. Arun and Barun run with the speeds of 30 m/s and 20 m/s
then AM 1 is : around a circular track of 600 m. They participate in a
(a) 20 km (b) 16 km 3000 m race. What is the distance covered by Arun when
(c) 10 km (d) can’t be determined he passes Barun for the 5th time?
56. If jackal moves towards OPB and cat moves towards POA (a) 2200 m
who will not meet with accident with the train? (b) 2250 m
(a) Jackal (b) Cat (c) 2850 m
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) can’t be determined (d) none of the above
57. The ratio of time taken by cat and jackal in moving OAPO 63. Akkal and Bakkal are running on a circular track of radius
and PBOP respectively given that they do not meet with 175 metres. Akkal can complete a round in 100 seconds
accident : and the speed of Bakkal is twice the speed of Akkal. They
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 3 : 4 started simultaneously towards each other from two points
(c) 5 : 4 (d) none of these 350 metres diametrically opposite on the circular path. If
58. A candle of 6 cm long burns at the rate of 5 cm in 5 h and they first meet at a point they called it love point, which is
another candle of 8 cm long burns at the rate of 6 cm in 4 h. between the two points P and Q from where they have
What is the time required by each candle to remain of equal started their race, after how much time from the start do
lengths after burning for some hours, when they start to they meet at love point for the third time?
2 2
burn simultaneously with uniform rate of burning? (a) 218 s (b) 216 s
5 3
(a) 1 h (b) 1.5 h
(c) 221 s (d) none of these
(c) 2 h (d) none of these
59. Two boats start at the same instant to cross a river W metre 64. Arti and Barkha start swimming towards each other from
wide. The faster boat reaches the other bank and returns the deep end and shallow end respectively of a swimming
back immediately. What are the distances travelled by pool in Funcity. They start their swimming simultaneously
them when they meet, where the speeds of these boats are in the length of 300 m pool. The ratio of their speeds is 1 : 2
b1 & b2? respectively. Each swimmer rests for 6 seconds once she
2W 2W reaches the other end and starts swimming back. Where
(a) ,
(b1 + b2 ) (b1 − b2 ) will they meet for the second time in the still water of
2W 2W swimming pool?
(b) b1 and b2 (a) 30 m from the shallow end
(b1 + b2 ) (b1 + b2 )
W W (b) at the shallow end
(c) b1, b2 (c) at the deep end
(b1 + b2 ) (b1 + b2 )
(d) can’t be determined
(d) data insufficient
430 QUANTUM CAT
65. A and B runs around a circular track. A beats B by one 73. A swiss watch is being shown in a museum which has a very
round or 10 minutes. In this race, they had completed peculiar property. It gains as much in the day as it loses
4 rounds. If the race was only of one round, find the A’s during night between 8 pm to 8 am. In a week how many
time over the course : times will the clock show the correct time?
(a) 8 min (b) 7.5 min (a) 6 times (b) 14 times
(c) 12.5 min (d) 12 min (c) 7 times (d) 8 times
66. A, B and C participated in a race. A covers the same 74. A wrist watch which is running 12 minutes late on a
distance in 49 steps, as B covers in 50 steps and C in Sunday noon is 16 minutes ahead of the correct time at
51 steps. A takes 10 steps in the same time as B takes 9 12 noon on the next Sunday. When is the clock 8 minutes
steps and C takes 8 steps. Who is the winner of the race? ahead of time?
(a) A (b) B (a) Thursday 10 am
(c) C (d) can’t be determined (b) Friday noon
(c) Friday 8 pm
67. Shambhu drives his car very fast at 360 m/s. Moving ahead
(d) Tuesday noon
for some hours he finds some problem in headlights of the
75. A clock loses 2 minutes in an hour and another clock gains
car. So he takes 20 seconds in changing the bulb of the
2 minutes in every 2 hours. Both these clocks are set
head- light by stopping the car. Mean while he notices that
correctly at a certain time on Sunday and both the clocks
another car which was 400 m back is now 200 m ahead of
stop simultaneously on the next day with the time shown
his car. What is the speed of this car?
being 9 am and 10 : 06 am. What is the correct time at
(a) 100 km/h (b) 92 km/h
which they stopped?
(c) 108 km/h (d) 300 km/h
(a) 9 : 54 am (b) 9 : 44 pm
68. Two persons start from the opposite ends of a 90 km (c) 9 : 46 am (d) 9 : 44 am
straight track and run to and fro between the two ends. The 76. David sets his watch at 6 : 10 am on Sunday, which gains
speed of first person is 30 m/s and the speed of other is 12 minutes in a day. On Wednesday if this watch is
125/6 m/s. They continue their motion for 10 hours. How showing 2 : 50 pm. What is the correct time?
many times they pass each other? (a) 1 : 50 pm (b) 2 : 10 pm
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 2 : 30 pm (d) 3 : 30 pm
(c) 12 (d) none of these
77. Ramu purchased a second hand Swiss watch which is very
69. At what time after 3 : 10 am, the acute angle made by the costly. In this watch the minute-hand and hour hand
minute and hour-hand is double to that of at 3 : 10 am, for 3
coincide after every 65 minutes. How much time does
the first time? 11
(a) 4 h 43 min (b) 3 h 48 min the watch lose or gain per day?
320 (a) 4 min (b) 5 min
(c) 3 h min (d) none of these
11 (c) 4 min, 20 sec (d) none of these
70. If the two incorrect watches are set at 12 : 00 noon at 78. My watch was 8 minutes behind at 8 pm on Sunday but
correct time, when will both the watches show the correct within a week at 8 pm on Wednesday it was 7 minutes
time for the first time given that the first watch gains 1 min ahead of time. During this period at which time this watch
in 1 hour and second watch loses 4 min in 2 hours : has shown the correct time :
(a) 6 pm, 25 days later (a) Tuesday 10 : 24 am
(b) 12 : 00 noon, 30 days later (b) Wednesday 9 : 16 pm
(c) 12 noon, 15 days later (c) It cannot show the correct time during this period
(d) 6 am 45 days later (d) None of the above
71. Rajeev and Sanjeev are too close friends Rajeev’s watch 79. Out of the following four choices which does not show the
gains 1 minute in an hour and Sanjeev’s watch loses coinciding of the hour hand and minute-hand :
2 minutes in an hour. Once they set both the watches at (a) 3 : 16 : 2 (b) 6 : 32 : 43
12 : 00 noon, with my correct watch. When will the two (c) 9 : 59 : 05 (d) 5 : 27 : 16
incorrect watches of Rajeev and Sanjeev show the same 80. Kumbhakarna starts sleeping between 1 am and 2 am and
time together? he wakes up when his watch shows such a time that the
(a) 8 days later (b) 10 days later two hands (i.e., hour-hand and minute-hand) interchange
(c) 6 days later (d) can’t be determined the respective places. He wakes up between 2 am and 3 am
72. At a railway station a 24 hour watch loses 3 minutes in on the same night. How long does he sleep?
4 hours. If it is set correctly on Sunday noon when will the 5 10
(a) 55 min (b) 110 min
watch show the correct time? 13 13
(a) 6 pm after 40 days (b) 12 noon after 75 days 6
(c) 54 min (d) none of these
(c) 12 pm after 100 days (d) 12 noon after 80 days 13
Time, Speed and Distance 431

81. Kalmadi, Raja and Sharad must cross a river to visit their somewhere between these two places on the same road. A
friend Kwatrochi who lives on the other side. They have a PCR van rushed to the spot from the control room that
boat; but they also have a problem. Kalmadi and Raja each reached her in 45 minutes after getting her distress call.
weigh 50 kg and Sharad weighs 75 kg. The boat will carry The PCR van took her to the hospital as quickly as possible.
only 100 kg at a time. Raja moans on the inability that they Upon reaching the hospital doctors pronounced her dead.
all can’t get across the river in the same boat due to They said that if she would have arrived at least 30 minutes
excessive weight which this boat can’t carry. The boat takes earlier she would have been saved, for sure. In that
90 minutes to get across from one end to another in each response a cop from the PCR van who took her to the
direction. What is the minimum time required to transport hospital said that if the auto-rickshaw would have helped
all of them, provided boat stops at any end for a negligible her we could have picked her on the way from the
time? auto-rickshaw and thus we could have reached timely to
(a) 3 hrs (b) 6 hrs the hospital. If the speed of PCR van was 80 km/hr, what’s
(c) 7 hrs 30 min (d) 4 hrs 30 min the minimum speed of the auto-rickshaw that the cop
82. A traveler, named as Hamrahi, spends 6 hrs. in walking assumes to be enough to save her life?
along a level road, up a hill, and back home again. His pace (a) 60
on the level being 4 mph, up-hill 3 mph, and down-hill 6 (b) 20
mph. Find the distance he walked along. (c) 40
(a) 8 miles (b) 12 miles (d) None of these
(c) 36 miles (d) 24 miles 85. Faizal Khan and Danish Khan, the two sons of Sardar khan,
83. Rohingya sneaks into an unfamiliar territory by walking were supposed to kill their archrivals. Ramadhir Singh and
over a rail-bridge. At a moment when he is just 16 meters his son JP Singh. Initially, Faizal Khan was in Wasseypur
before reaching the middle of the bridge, he notices that a while Danish Khan was waiting to kill Ramadhir Singh and
train is coming from behind. At that moment, the train, his son in Dhanbad. But, when Sardar Khan got to know
which travels at a speed of 120 km/h, is exactly as far away that JP Singh was seen in his factory at Ranchi, so he
from the bridge as the bridge measures in length. Without changed the plan and told his sons, on the phone, to move
wasting a moment, Rohingya rushes straight towards the as he wanted both his rivals get killed at the same time.
train to get off the bridge. Thereby, he misses the train by Faizal and Danish left simultaneously for Dhanbad and
just 20 meters. If Rohingya had rushed in the other Ranchi, respectively. While Danish was somewhere on the
direction as fast as he had rushed towards the train, the way to Ranchi, Faizal overtook him and handed over some
train would have hit him 10 meters before the end of the bullets and bombs. He immediately returned for Dhanbad
bridge. What is the length of the rail-bridge? and reached at the same time when Danish reached
(a) 60 meters (b) 56 meters Ranchi. Dhanbad is equidistant from Wasseypur and
(c) 96 meters (d) data insufficient Ranchi and all the three cities are connected through a
84. On a fateful night some drunken youngsters molested a girl single straight road. If the distance between Wasseypur
in a moving bus and threw her out devastated on an aloof and Ranchi is 180 km, what’s the distance traveled by
road. Soon she called the police control room (PCR) on Faizal?
(a) 90( 2 + 2)
112. At the same time she asked an auto rickshaw that was
(b) 90(2 2 − 1)
coming behind the bus to rush her to the hospital, but he
(c) 90( 2 + 1)
left her pleading. The incident occurred on the road that
(d) data insufficient
goes straight to the hospital, even the control room lies
432 QUANTUM CAT
SPEED TEST > TSD
Directions (for Q. Nos. 1 to 3) Arun took part in a triathlon, an Directions (for Q. Nos. 6 to 9) City X and City Y are connected
athletic event. He had to swim, run and bicycle to 10 km, 24 km and to a straight road. A and B start moving simultaneously towards
30 km, respectively and return the same way. Arun’s average speed each other. After travelling some distance, B takes a 60° turn to his
for the triathelon is 4 km/h. He took a total of 4 min for swimming and left. Two hours later after B turns, A takes a 60° turn to his right. A
20 min for bicycling in the triathelon. travels 60 km after turning, before he meets B. A and B meet
10 hours after they start their journey. A and B together travel
1. His speed of running is: 200 km before turning and they arrive at the meeting point
(a) 5 km/min (b) 6 km/min simultaneously.
8
(c) 7.5 km/min (d) km/min
3 6. How many hours after turning does A meet B ?
2. He finishes race in: (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
(a) 16 min (b) 23 min
7. What distance does A travel before turning 60 degree to his
(c) 32 min (d) 35 min
right?
3. How much time he took while returning for the bicycle if (a) 140 km (b) 150 km
the time taken for the return of each phase (i . e. , each (c) 160 km (d) 170 km
event) is 50% greater than that of taken initially: 8. If A and B had not turned, after how many hours would
(a) 12 min (b) 11 min
1 they have meet?
(c) 11 min (d) none of these 1 1 1 1
9 (a) 7 h (b) 9 h (c) 6 h (d) 8 h
8 8 8 8
Directions (for Q. Nos. 4 and 5) A , B and C start running a race 9. What is B ’s speed?
from the same point P in the same direction. A runs around a path (a) 10 km/h (b) 12.5 km/h
which is an equilateral triangle PQX and B runs around a square path (c) 12 km/h (d) 15 km/h
PQYZ andC runs on the regular hexagonal path PQRSTU. Where the
one side PQ of each path is common. 10. Chetak and Ashwa, two horses, start galloping from Patna
to Ranchi which are 80 km apart. The speed of Chetak is
4. If all of them complete one equal round at the same time 160 km/h and that of Ashwa is 150 km/h. They start
then which of the following is true? galloping simultaneously, from Patna to Ranchi. Chetak
(a) Speed of C is twice that of B reached to Ranchi and returned to Patna but Ashwa
(b) Speed of A is half that of C returned from Jamshedpur (which is somewhere between
(c) Speed of B is 50% more than that of A Patna and Ranchi) to Patna at the same time. What is the
(d) none of the above ratio of distances between Patna and Jamshedpur and
5. If each of them run at a same constant speed, what is the Jamshedpur and Ranchi?
maximum number of rounds anyone of them would have (a) 15 : 1 (b) 3 : 25
completed when they meet for the first time? (c) 15 : 2 (d) none of these
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
 Answers
Introductory Exercise 9.1
1 (a) 2. (c) 3. (c)

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise

1 (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (a)
71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (c)
81. (d) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (d) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (d) 94. (d) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (a)
101. (d) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (b) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107. (d) 108. (a) 109. (b) 110. (c)
111. (b) 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (b) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (c) 124. (b) 125. (b) 126. (c) 127. (d) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (a)
131. (d) 132. (b) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (b) 136. (b) 137. (b) 138. (b) 139. (a) 140. (c)
141. (c) 142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (d) 145. (b) 146. (a) 147. (b) 148. (d) 149. (a) 150. (c)

Level 02 Higher Level Exercise

1 (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (a)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (c)

Speed Test TSD

1 (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a)
 QUANTUM CAT
Hints & Solutions
Level 01 Basic Level Exercise
Total distance 10 + 20 7. u = k, v = 3k
1. Average speed = =
Total time 10 20 2 × k × 3k
+ ∴
2uv
⇒ = 12
6 15 u+ v (k + 3k )
30 30
= = = 10 km/h ⇒ 1.5k = 12
 90 3
  ∴ k = 8 km/h
 30
Alternatively Go through options.
2uv
2. Average speed (when distances are same) = Alternatively Solve through alligations.
u+ v
2 × 20 × 30 8. Effective speed = 25 + 35 = 60 km/h
= = 24 km/h
(20 + 30) Total distance to be covered = 120 km
120
where u, v are the different speeds. ∴ Time taken = = 2h
(or use the general formula–Total distance/Total time) 60
3uvw Hint Since in each hour X and Y together covers 60 km.
3. Average speed =
uv + vw + uw Lucknow Kanpur
3 × 10 × 20 × 30 18000
= = X 25 50/70 35 Y
200 + 600 + 300 1100
4 50 km 70 km
= 16 km/h
11 9. Since they take 2 hours to meet each other. Thus in 2 h X is
Alternatively Suppose the total distance 3 times the 50 km away from Lucknow.
LCM of the given speeds, then solve by general formula. Alternatively Both X and Y will cover the respective
Total distance = 180 km (say) distances in the ratio of their speeds.
60 60 60 5
Then Total time = + + So, distance from Lucknow = × 120 = 50 km
10 20 30 12
= 6 + 3 + 2 = 11 h 10. When time is constant the distances covered by A and B
180 4 will be in the ratio of their speeds, respectively.
∴ Average speed = = 16 km/h
11 11
11. → →
Alternatively Suppose the total distance equals to P (20 km/h) Q (60 km/h)
3x km then solve as above. X Y
4. Suppose the total distance equals to 4 times the LCM of the 100 km
speeds. To meet each other they have to cover 100 km distance
∴ Total distance = 2400 km together and the ratio of distances covered by each one is
600 600 600 600 directly proportional to the ratio of their speeds,
∴ Total time = + + + respectively. Since the time taken by each one is same (i . e. ,
20 25 30 40
constant).
= 30 + 24 + 20 + 15 = 89 h XZ 20 1
Hence, = =
2400 86 YZ 60 3
∴ Average speed = = 26 km/h
89 89 1
∴ XZ = × 100 = 25 km
2 × 20 × x 4
5. = 24
(20 + x ) 12. To meet the second time they have to cover 300 km
⇒ x = 30 km/h distance together [for nth time distance = (2n − 1) d]
Alternatively Go through options. Time taken by them to meet each other, for the second
2uv time
6. Average speed = 300 3
u+ v = =3 h
80 4
2 × 3x × 5x
= = 3.75x km/h 3
(3x + 5x ) Distance covered by P = 20 × 3 = 75 km
4
Time, Speed and Distance 435
Alternatively The ratio of distance covered 21. The distance covered by Kamal = 8 × 40 = 320 km
= Ratio of their speeds P/Q
22.
1
∴ Distance covered by P = × 300 = 75 km X Y
4
200 km
13. The ratio of distances covered by each of them
To meet the first time they have to cover
= Ratio of their respective speeds
200 × 2 = 400 km
3
∴ Distance covered by Q for the third meeting = × 500 400
4 Now, the time taken to meet each other = =8h
50
= 375 km
23. Distance travelled by P = 20 × 8 = 160 km
14. Consider the distance travelled by any one of them, then
find the distance between X and M, where they meet. 800
24. Distance travelled by Q = 30 × = 480 km
∴ The distance travelled by P for the fourth meeting 50
1 1200
= × 700 = 175 km 25. Distance travelled by P = 20 × = 480 km
4 50
Therefore P will be 75 km from Y. It means P will be 25 km So, P will be 80 km away from X. Therefore ratio of
away from X. distances
80 2
X Y = =
120 3
100 km 1600
26. The distance travelled by P = × 20 = 640 km
50
25 km 75 km Thus, P will be 160 km away from X.
15. This is constant for any number of meeting and is equal to [Since 640 = (200 × 2) + 240]
the ratio of their speeds. Hence, 1 : 3. ∴ Distance between D and X is 160 km.

16. It is always twice the length of race course. Hence, between 27. This is possible only when the distance covered by P in n
any two consecutive meeting they have to cover total 200 round be the multiple of 400.
km distance to meet each other for the next meeting. 28. X started at 12 : 00 noon
Hint For the first meeting they will cover 100 km. Y started at 3 pm
Distance advanced in 3 h
For the second meeting they will cover 300 km. ∴ Required time =
For the third meeting they will cover 500 km. Relative speed
For the fourth meeting they will cover 700 km and so on. 40 × 3
= =6h (20 = 60 − 40)
17. To meet each other they will take equal time since they 20
start their journey simultaneously. Hence, Y will overtake X at 9 pm. (3 + 6 = 9)
18. To reach their destination the time taken by A and B is Distance advance − Required difference
29. Required time =
equal to the ratio of reciprocal to their speeds. Since when Relative speed
distance is constant time is inversely proportional to the 120 − 30
respective speeds. =
1 1 20
Hence, time taken by A and B = : = 25 : 16 90
16 25 = = 4.5 h
20
A ’ s speed Time taken by B (t B ) 16 t
19. = ⇒ = B Thus, at 7 : 30 pm X and Y will be 30 km apart.
B ’ s speed Time taken by A (t A ) 25 tA Distance advanced + Required difference
t B 256 t 625 30. Required time =
⇒ = ⇒ A = Relative speed
t A 625 t B 256 120 + 30 150
= = = 7.5 h
20. L M 20 20
Thus at 10 : 30 pm X and Y will be 30 km apart.
650 km
(Kamal) (Vimal) 31. Distance travelled by Y to overtake X
40 km/h 30 km/h = Time taken × Speed of Y
In the first 3 hours Vimal covers 90 km. = 6 × 60 = 360 km
So, the rest distance = 560 km Thus, Y will overtake X at a distance of 360 km from P.
Now, Kamal and Vimal both travels together, towards each 32. Required distance
other.  Distance advanced + Required difference 
Distance 560 =  × (Speed of Y )
So, the time = = =8h  Relative speed 
Speed 70
120 + 360
Thus, Vimal travels total = 3 + 8 = 11 h = × 60 = 1440 km
20
Thus, the distance travelled by Vimal = 11 × 30 = 330 km
436 QUANTUM CAT
120 − 30 Now, consider 40 km as a distance, then there is a 3 hours
33. Time (when X was 30 km ahead of Y) = = 4.5 h
20 difference in 40 km. So, 3/2 hours difference will be in
120 + 30 20 km.
Time (when Y was 30 km ahead of X) = = 7.5 h
20 Alternatively Let x be the distance, then
Thus, required difference in time = 3 h x x 3
− =
34. Speed = 36 km/h 5 8 2
5 ⇒ x = 20 km
= 36 × = 10 m/s
18 44. A : B
35. Since in 60 minutes postman goes 36000 metre. Speed 2 : 3
36000 Time 3 : 2
So in 1 minute postman goes = 600 metre
60 Q B takes 48 minutes so A will take 72 minutes
Thus, his required speed = 600 m/min = 1 h 12 min
36. 1 mile = 1609.3 m = 1.6093 km 45. The ratio of distances = 160 : 140 = 8 : 7
1 ∴ The ratio of speeds = 8 : 7
∴ 1 km = mile = 0.6213882 mile
1.6093 x x 20
46. − =
∴ Required speed = 36 × 0.6213882 mile/h 9 10 60
= 22.37 mile/h x = 30 km
18 47. Time taken by Abhinav = 4 h
37. Speed = 20 m/s = 20 × = 72 km/h
5 Time taken by Praveen = 3.5 h
38. In one hour train goes 72 km. So in one minute train will For your convenience take the product of times taken by
72 both as a distance.
go .
60 Then the distance = 14 km
6
∴ Speed = = 1.2 km/min Since, Abhinav covers half of the distance in 2 hours (i.e.,at
5 8 am). Now, the rest half (i.e., 7 km) will be covered by
39. The ratio of speeds of A, B, C = 6 : 3 : 1 both Praveen and Abhinav.
7
∴ The ratio of time taken by A, B, C = 1 : 2 : 6 Time taken by them = = 56 min
7.5
∴ Time taken by A = 13 min
Thus, they will cross each other at 8 : 56 am.
40. A : B
Speed 2 : 3 48. 9 km difference arises in the 99 km distance.
Time 3x : 2x ∴ 72 km difference will arise in the 792 km distance.
49. Apply the product constancy concept
41. Q 3x − 2x = 20 ⇒ x = 20
Speed Time
∴ 3x = 60 min = 1 h 1 1
↓ ↑ = 15 min
5 4
42. Let the original speed be S1 and time t 1 and distance be D x
Since, = 15 min ⇒ x = 60 min = 1 h
D /2 4
Now, = S2
2 t1 So, the original (or usual) time = 60 min = 1 h
D D 50. Speed Time
∴ S2 = and S1 = 1 1
4 t1 t1 ↓ ↑ = 2h
4 3
S1 D /t 1 4
∴ = = ⇒ Usual time = 2 × 3 = 6 h
S2 D / 4 t 1 1
51. Speed Time
43. You can go through options to check the required 1 1
↑ ↓ = 40 min
difference. 2 3
Alternatively Required distance ⇒ Usual time = 3 × 40 = 120 min = 2 h
S1S2 52. Speed Time
= × Time difference 2 1 1
(S1 ∼ S2 ) = ↓ ↑ = 10 min
20 10 9
5× 8 3 3
=
× = 20 km ⇒ Usual time = 9 × 10 = 90 min = h
3 2 2
Alternatively Take the LCM of distances then solve by ∴ Distance travelled = Speed × Time
unitary method. 3
= 20 × = 30 km
∴ LCM of 5, 8 = 40 2
Time, Speed and Distance 437

53. Increase in speed = 1 km ⇒ S1 × S2 = 12000

Change in time = 25 min ∴ S1 = 100 and S2 = 120
Speed Time (Factorise 12000 in such a way that the difference be 20)
1 1 S1 is the original speed and S2 is the changed speed.
↑ ↓ = 25
5 6
58. Very similar to question number 57.
5
⇒ Usual (normal) time = 6 × 25 = 150 min = h 5
2 180 × = 60 × 5
3
∴ Distance = Normal speed × Normal time
5 S1 × S2 = 300 = 15 × 20
= 5 × = 12.5 km S1 = 15 km/h
2
54. Since, they are 1.5 km apart in each hour. and S2 = 20 km/h
∴ 7.5 km apart they will be in 5 hours. Alternatively S1 × (S1 + 5) = 300
(Since, in the same direction speeds are subtracted) ⇒ S1 = 15 km/h
55. In each hour they will be 720 km apart. 59. Very similar to previous problems
(Since in opposite direction speeds are added)
Difference in time
56. Let the distance = x km and usual rate = y km/h t 1 × t 2 = Distance ×
Difference in speed
x x
∴ − =4h …(i) 6
y ( y + 6) ⇒ t 1 × t 2 = 1680 ×
14
x x
− =4 …(ii) t 1 × t 2 = 120 × 6 = 720 = 30 × 24
( y − 4) y
⇒ t 1 = 30 and t 2 = 24
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
[since t 2 = (t 1 − 6) ⇒ t 1 × (t 1 − 6) = 720 ⇒ t 1 = 30]
x x x x
− = − Therefore, usual time = 30 h
y ( y + 6) ( y − 4) y
Total distance
⇒ y = 24 60. Relative speed =
Total time
Now putting the value of y = 24 in Eq (i), we get
60 + 40
x = 480 = = 5 m/s
20
Alternatively
18
S T ∴ 5 m/s = 5 × = 18 km/h
⇒ − 4S + 6T = | − 4 × 6| 5
+6 −4
S T Now, Relative speed = 18 km/h
⇒ 4S − 4T = | − 4 × 4| = Speed of ambulance − Speed of school bus
−4 +4
18 = 30 − speed of school bus
∴ − 4S + 6T = 24 …(i)
4S − 4T = 16 …(ii) Speed of school bus = 12 km/h
∴Solving these two equations, we get 61. Time Speed
T = 20 and S = 24 1 1
↓ ↑
∴ Distance = Speed × Time 4 3
1
= 24 × 20 = 480 km Since he has to increase his speed by rd of the original
3
57. Let the original speed be x km/h, then speed. So, the new speed = 15 + 5 = 20 km/h
600 600
− =1 Alternatively15 × 4 = 3 × x
x ( x + 20)
⇒ x = 20 km/h
 x + 20 − x 
⇒ 600   =1 Length of train  D
 x ( x + 20) 62. Time (required) = T = 
Speed of train  S
⇒ x 2 + 120 x − 12000 = 0 350
= = 5s
⇒ ( x − 120)( x − 100) = 0 70
⇒ x = 100 and x = 120 Total length
63. Time taken to cross the bridge =
∴ Original speed = 100 km/h Speed of train
Alternatively 270 + 130 400
Difference in speed = =
S1 × S2 = Distance × 40 40
Difference in time
= 10 s
20
= 600 × = 600 × 20 = 12000
1
438 QUANTUM CAT
64. Speed of train =
225
= 25 s 74. Relative speed = Sum of speeds of two trains
9 = (60 + x )
225 + 450 Sum of length of two trains
Now, time taken to cross the tunnel = = 27 s Time =
25 Relative speed
65. Let the length of the tunnel be x m, then 250
10 = × 18
Length of train + Length of tunnel (60 + x ) × 5
Time =
Speed (60 + x ) = 90
350 + x  5  x = 30 km/h
60 =  speed = 36 × = 10 m/ s
10  18 
75. Let the length of the train be x metre, and let the speed of
⇒ x = 250 m train be y km/h, then
Length of train + Length of platform 5
66. Speed of train = x = ( y + 3) × × 36 …(i)
Time 18
250 + 250 5
= = 20 m/s and x = ( y + 6) × × 30 …(ii)
25 18
= 72 km/h From eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
67. Let the length of the Sabarmati express is x metre then ( y + 3) × 36 = ( y + 6) × 30
x + 162 x + 120 y = 12 km/h
= Speed of train
18 15 5
∴ x = ( y + 3) × × 36
⇒ x = 90 m 18
Length of train 5
68. Time = or x = 15 × × 36
Relative speed 18
200 10 or x = 150 m
= = 10 s
19 19 76. Let the length of each train be x m, then
(relative speed = 72 − 3.6 = 68.4 km/h = 19 m/s) x x
S1 = and S2 = ; S1 and S2 are speeds
Length of train 4 5
69. Time = 2x 40
Relative speed Now, required time = = s
x x 9
350 +
= × 6 = 60 s 4 5
35
5 35 77. Pushpak Bhopal
(relative speed = 20 + 1 = 21 km/h = 21 × = m/s) Time → 10 : 8
18 6
50 Speed → 8 : 10
70. Relative speed = 50 − 40 = 10 km/h = m/s ⇒ 4x : 5x
18
Sum of length of the trains Since, 5x − 4 x = 10
∴ Time taken =
Relative speed ⇒ 5x = 50 and 4 x = 40
2 × 40 × 50 4
=
200
× 18 = 72 s ∴ Average speed = = 44 km/h
50 40 + 50 9
71. Relative speed = 50 + 40 = 90 km/h Distance advanced 4 × 40
78. Required time = = =8h
5 Relative speed 20
= 90 × = 25 m/s Thus, the faster train will overtake at 8 pm.
18
Sum of lengths of train 79. Required distance = Time taken in overtaking × Faster’s
∴ Time taken =
Relative speed speed
200 = 8 × 60 = 480 km from Meerut
= =8s
25 80. In 50 minute Rajdhani express can cover 50 km. So, the rest
72. Let the length of train be x m, then distance = 650 km, which will be jointly covered by both
x 120 + x trains.
= 650
10 18 ∴ Time taken = = 5h
(60 + 70)
⇒ x = 150 m
Distance from Lucknow = 5 × 70 = 350 km
73. Let the speed of train be x km/h, then
Total distance
175
= (9 + x ) ×
5 81. Average speed =
10 18 Total time
⇒ x = 54 km/h 560 + 360 1
= = 57 h
16 2
Time, Speed and Distance 439

2 × 80 × 120
82. Average speed = = 96 km/h 91. Let the original speed be x km/h then
200 36 36
+ =8
83. Distance = Average speed × Average time ( x − 6) ( x + 6)
25
or Distance = 96 × Now, you can go through options or solve it as follows
2 ( x + 6 + x − 6) 8
or Distance = 1200 km =
( x 2 − 36) 36
84. 50 × 30 = x × 20
⇒ x = 12 and x = −3
⇒ x = 75 km/h
Thus, the possible value of x = 12
S1 t ∴ Time taken by faster speed = 2 h
85. = 2
S2 t1 Distance advanced
92. Time =
120 9 3 Relative speed
= =
S2 16 4 2× x
2=
(30 − x )
⇒ S2 = 160 km/h
240 ⇒ x = 15 km/h
86. S1 + S2 = = 60
4 93. Prachi travels only for 3 hours, since half an hour she halts
240 at Lucknow.
S1 − S2 = = 20 160
12 Now, the average speed (except the halt) = km/h
3
∴ S1 = 40 m/s and S2 = 20 m/s Therefore, by alligation
18 40 60
∴ S1 = 40 × = 144 km/h 160
5
Length of the faster train 3
87. Time taken to cross the man = 20 40
Relative speed
3 3
18 =
x
⇒ x = 75 m ⇒ 1: 2
5 Therefore, the ratio of time taken at 40 km/h and at 60
15 ×
18 km/h is 1 : 2.
Thus, the distance between Lucknow and Kanpur
88. Suppose the total distance be 300 km (LCM of 50 and 60)
= 2 × 60 = 120 km
then in the first case it takes only 5 hours and in the second
case it takes 6 hours. 94. Let the speed of the faster train be f S and slower train be sS ,
Thus, in 6 hours trains halts for 1 hour. then
Therefore in 1 hour train halts for 1/6 hour = 10 m 200 + 250
f S + sS = = 25 m/s
Alternatively Difference in speeds = 10 km/h 18
200 + 250 450
Faster speed = 60 km/h and f s − sS = = = 7.5 m/s
60 60
10 1
∴ Required time per hour = = h = 10 min ∴ f S = 16.25 m/s
60 6 18
= 16.25 × = 58.5 km/h
89. If the speed of faster horse be f S and that of slower horse be 5
50 1000
sS , then f S + sS = = 50 95. Distance covered in 3 minutes = 3 × = 50 m
1 60
and
50 50 5
− = Now he has to cover (500 + 50) metres in (30 − 3)
sS fS 6 minutes
550 / 1000 11
Now, you can go through options. ∴ New speed = = km/h
27 / 60 9
The speed of slower horse is 20 km/h.
Since, 20 + 30 = 50 96. Anil Mukesh
50 50 5 Speed → 3 : 4
and − = Time → 4 : 3
20 30 6
1
90. Let he walked for x hours, then But 4 x − 3x = h
2
5x + 25 (10 − x ) = 17 × 10
⇒ 4 x = 2 h and 3x = 1.5 h
⇒ x=4 Now, since Anil doubles the speed so time will be half of the
∴ 10 − x = 6 h actual time. Hence, new time will be 1 hour.
Hence, distance travelled by auto = 25 × 6 = 150 km.
440 QUANTUM CAT
3x + 4 x x y x+ y
97. Average speed of Anil and Mukesh = = 28 Alternatively + =
2 20 70 50
⇒ x=8 76 x + 20 y x + y
⇒ =
∴ Speed of Sameer = 3 × 8 = 24 km/h 1400 50
∴ Distance travelled = 2 × 24 = 48 km x 4
⇒ 42x = 8 y ⇒ =
98. Let the speed of X and Y be the x km/h and y km/h y 21
respectively. Since they meet after 3 hours, so x + y = 100. (Speed of wind) (Time utilised)
103. =
Since, the faster train takes atleast 3 + 2 = 5 hours to (Speed of car ) (Time saved)
complete the 300 km journey. Hence, minimum possible 332 332
speed for the slower train = 40 km/h at which speed it will =
 300 x 28
take 7.5 h to complete the journey. 7.5 =  ⇒ x = 28 m/s
 40 
Total distance
99. Let the time taken in first third part of the journey be x 104. Time =
Relative speed
minutes, then the time required in second third part of the
3x 4.5 450/ 1000
journey is and in the last third part of the journey time = ⇒ x = 6 km/h
2 60 x
15x Relative speed = Speed of car − Speed of man
required is .
8 6= x−6
3x 15x
Therefore, x+ + = 350 min ⇒ x = 12 km/h
2 8
105. W + R → 4 h 20 min
⇒ x = 80 min
W + W → 5 h 20 min
100. Speed Time ∴ R + R → 3 h 20 min
1 1
↓ ↑ = 15 min 106. A P1 P2 B
5 4
Therefore usual time = 4 × 15 = 60 min 300 x
Now, Speed Time
1 1 P1 → Place of accident
↑ ↓ = 12 min
4 5 P2 → Imaginary place of accident
(since original time = 60 min) For the distance x
Speed Time
Therefore he will be 15 + 12 = 27 minutes early in 1
↓
1
↑=1h
comparison to the previous day. 6 5
101. Let the original speed be s km/h and scheduled time
Thus, the usual time required for the distance x km is
= thours
5 × 1 = 5 hours.
and total distance = D km For the distance ( x + 300)
3 Speed Time
then s ×t = D …(i)
4 1 1
↓ ↑ = 2h
and s × (t + 3) = D …(ii) 6 5
From eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
3 Thus, the usual time required for the distance ( x + 300) km
st = [ s (t + 3)] ⇒ t = 9 h is 5 × 2 = 10 h.
4
It means he covers 300 km distance in 5 h
and let s = 1 km/h, then D = 12 km 300
Again, since he doubles his speed after k hours then, ∴ Speed = = 60 km/h (normal speed)
5
s1t 1 + s2t 2 = D
107. Since, he can cover x km at 60 km/h in 5 h it means
1 × k + 2 × (9 − k ) = 12 x = 300 km.
⇒ k =6h Therefore, total distance = (120 + 300 + 300) = 720 km.
102. By alligation rule 108. Circumference means one revolution.
20 70
Therefore, distance covered in 10 revolutions = 300 × 10
50 = 30 m
i . e. , 30 metre in 6 seconds.
20 30 30
2 : 3 ∴ Speed of wheel = m/s = 5 m/s
Ratio of time = 2 : 3 6
18
∴ Ratio of distances = 2 × 20 : 3 × 70 = 4 : 21 ∴ 5 m/s = 5 × = 18 km/h
5
Time, Speed and Distance 441

SD + SU 118. If t 1 and t 2 are the upstream and downstream times. Then

109. Speed of man in still water =
2 time taken in still water is given by
12 + 8 2 × t 1 × t 2 2 × 12 × 24
= = 10 km/h = = 16 h
2 t1 + t 2 36
SD → Speed in downstream (= Boat + River) Alternatively D = (B + S ) × 12
SU → Speed in upstream (=Boat − River)
and D = (B − S ) × 24
S − SU 21 − 15
110. Speed of water current = D = = 3 km/h Where (B + S ) is downstream speed and
2 2 (B − S ) is upstream speed
111. SD = 12 km/h B+S 2
⇒ =
SU = 5 km/h B−S 1
12 − 5 B 3
Speed of current = = 3.5 km/h ⇒ = (by componendo and dividendo)
2 S 1
112. SD → 15 km/h Now, D = 4S × 12 = 48S
SU → 9 km/h D = 48S = 16B (Distance = Time × Speed)
15 + 9 ∴ Required time = 16 h
Speed of man = = 12 km/h
2 D B+S 3
119. S = =
113. Let the required distance be D km, then US B − S 2
D D 5 Where B → Speed of boat in still water
+ =
6 4 4 S → Speed of current/stream
 10  5 2B 5
D  = ⇒ D = 3 km ⇒ = (by componendo and dividendo)
 24 4 2S 1
B 5/ 2 5
114.
16 16
+ = 10 h ⇒ = ⇒ B=
8 2 S 1/ 2 2
115. Let the downstream speed be D and upstream speed be U, Average speed of downstream and upstream
2 × 3 × 2 12
then = =
48 72 3+ 2 5
+ = 12
U D 5/ 2 25
∴ Required ratio = =
48 72 12/ 5 24
and + = 13
D U 120. Let x be the upstream speed, then the downstream speed
∴ 48m + 72n = 12 …(i) will be ( x + 3).
and 48n + 72m = 13 …(ii) 3 3
∴ + =3
on solving eqs. (i) and (ii), we get x x+3
5 1 ⇒ x2 + x − 3 = 0
m+ n= and m − n =
24 24
−1 + 13
∴ D = 12 km/h and U = 8 km/h ⇒ x=
2
∴ Speed of current = 2 km/h −1 + 3.6
9 = = 1.3 km/h
116. D S = = 4.5 km/h 2
2
∴ ( x + 3) = 4.3 km/h
9
U S = = 1.5 km/h 121. Upstream speed of first boat = 8 km/h
6
4.5 + 1.5 Upstream speed of second boat = 4 km/h
∴ Speed of boat in still water = = 3 km/h
2 ∴ Relative speed = 4 km/h (= 8 − 4)
4.5 − 1.5 10
and Speed of river in still water = = 1.5 km/h ∴ Required time = = 2.5 h
2 4
D 1 DS 2 B+S 2 B 3 122. Downstream speed = B + S B → Speed of boat
117. T = ⇒ = ⇒ = ⇒ =
UT 2 US 1 B−S 1 S 1 Upstream speed = B − S S →Speed of stream
Hint D T and U T are the downstream and upstream times 120 120
∴ + = 15
and D S and U S are the downstream and upstream speeds. B+S B−S
Here we can use componendo and dividendo. B 1
⇒ = …(i)
Speed of boat 3 15 B 2 − S 2 16
Q = =
Speed of stream 1 x 120 120
Again + = 24
∴ Speed of stream = 5 km/h B + 2S B − 2S
442 QUANTUM CAT
B 1 128. Since in 1000 m (1 km) race difference between A and B is
⇒ = …(ii)
B 2 − 4S 2 10 18 m.
So in 2 km race it will be 36 m.
From eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
B = (B 2 − S 2 ) 16 129. In a 1 km race C can give B a start of 118 m. Therefore in a
half km race C can give B a start of 59 m.
and B = (B − 4S ) 10
2 2
130. In a 1600 m race
⇒ 10B 2 − 40S 2 = 16B 2 − 16S 2 B C A
2
B B 1600
⇒ =9 ⇒ =3 60 m
S2 S
80 m
i . e. , B : S = 3: 1
C → 1540, B → 1520
Now, you can go through options or solve by equations.
Since now you know the ratio of speeds of boat and stream. The ratio of speeds of C : B is 77 : 76. It means in 77 m race
The correct choice is (b). C beats B by 1 m. So, in 400 m race C will beat B by
1 15
124. Upstream speed = B − S 400 × m=5 m
77 77
Downstream speed = B + S
15 131. Aman Shakti
B−S= = 3 km/h Time 190 200
5
Speed 20 x 19 x
Again B = 4S
Q 20 x = 1000 m
∴ B − S = 3 = 3S
⇒ x = 50 m
⇒ S = 1 and B = 4 km/h
Again 20 x − 19 x = x = 50 m
∴ B + S = 5 km/h
So, Aman can beat Shakti by 50 m.
15
∴ Time during downstream = = 3h 132. A : B
5
24 24 Speed 7 : 4
125. − =5 Time 4 : 7
(5.5 − R ) (5.5 + R )
Distance 4 : 7 (since distance ∝ time)
⇒ R = 2.5 km/h; R → Speed of river/current
24 Now, 7 x − 4 x = 300
Again (B 2 + R ) = =6 3x = 300
4
⇒ (B 2 + 2.5) = 6 ⇒ B 2 = 3.5 km/h ⇒ x = 100
∴ 7 x = 700
126. P Q R
Thus, the winning post be 700 m away from the starting
PQ = QR point.
P → Q → R (7 h) 133. Ratio of speeds of A : B = 12 : 11
It means P → Q (3.5 h) and ratio of speeds of B : C = 8 : 7
Again {P → Q and Q → P } (8 h) Therefore ratio of speeds of A : B : C = 96 : 88 : 77
It means Q → P (4.5 h) So in 9600 m race A will beat C by 1900 m.
Therefore R → Q (4.5 h) 134. When Ameesha runs 1000 m, then Bipasha runs only
Thus, from R to P boat will take 9 hours. 700 m [1000 − (100 + 200)]
Hint P → R (Downstream) R → P (Upstream)
when Ameesha runs 1000 m, then Celina runs only 600 m
40 55 [1000 − (100 + 300)]
127. + = 13
(B − S ) (B + S ) Therefore,
30 44 C B A
+ = 10
(B − S ) (B + S )
600 700 1000
Hint Go through options for quicker answer and prefer the
value which can help in dividing 44 and 55. Now, since in 700 m race Bipasha beats Celina by 100 m.
So, in 50 m race Bipasha will beat Celina by
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 128 and 129) B is 2% slow than A 100
50 × = 7.14 m
and A is 10% slow than C . Therefore, in 1 km race. 700
882 900 1000 Alternatively Bipasha beats Celina by 14.28% of the
B A C distance then in 50 m race Bipasha will beat Celina by
7.14 m.
Time, Speed and Distance 443

135. Distance Time 140. B is 25% slower than A and C is 20% slower than B.
Case I: Ravi 1000 t1 Therefore in a game of 200 points B can have 150 points
and C can have 120 points.
Vinod 960 t 1 + 19
Thus, A can give C 80 points.
Case II: Ravi 960 t2
Vinod 1000 t 2 + 30 141. Since between 11 am and 1 pm and 11 pm and 1 am two
1000 960 hands of a clock coincide only once, each time.
Therefore, = = Speed of Ravi 142. Since between 2 am and 3 am (2 pm and 3 pm) and 8 am
t1 t2
and 10 am (8 pm and 10 pm) two hands of a clock make
25
⇒ t1 = t2 90° angle only 3 times in rest of the each hour two hands
24 make 90° angle 2 times.
960 1000
Also = = Speed of Vinod 143. Since between 5 am and 7 am (5 pm and 7 pm) this
t 1 + 19 t 2 + 30 happens only once. In rest each of the hours it happens one
 25  time.
∴ (t 2 + 30) 24 = 25  t 2 + 19
 24  144. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
⇒ 49 t 2 = 5880 ⇒ t 2 = 120 s Relative speed = Speed of minute-hand
960 /t 2 6 − Speed of hour-hand
∴ Required ratio = =
1000 /t 2 + 30 5 1° 1°
= 6° − =5
2 2
137. Since, the speeds of Vinay and Versha are in the ratio of
1 11
5 : 3 i . e. , when Vinay covers 5 rounds, then Versha covers and 1 min − min = min
3 rounds, but first time Vinay and Versha meet when Vinay 12 12
1 1 5 × 30 300 3
completes 2 round and Versha completes 1 round. 145. = = 27 min = 27 min 16 s
2 2 11 /2 11 11
For Vinay to pass Versha 7th time, Vinay would have Therefore, required time = 5 : 27 : 16
1 1
completed 7 × 2 rounds. Since, each round is 1 km, the 146. The angle made by minute-hand = 5 × 30 = 150°
2 2
distance covered by Vinay is 1
The angle made by hour-hand = 2 × 30 + 25 × = 72.5°
1 1 5 3 1 2
7 × 2 × 1 = 7 × × = 26 km
2 2 2 2 4 Hence, required angle = 150 − 72.5 = 77.5°
A B A 90° − 30° 60 120 10
138. 147. = × 2= = 10 minute
C C A 5.5 11 11 11
60 m 15 m = 10 min 54 s
∴ Required time = 3 : 10 : 54
1500 m 210 210 420 2
In the same time, when A covers 1500 m, B covers 1440 m 148. = × 2= = 38 min = 38 min 11 s
5.5 11 11 11
and C covers 1425 m.
Therefore, required time = 7 : 38 : 11
So, in 1440 m race B can give a start of 15 m.
∴ In 1500 m race B will give a start of 149. The angle made by minute-hand = 90°
15 5 The angle made by hour-hand
× 1500 = 15 m
1440 8 1
= 6 × 30 + 15 × = 187.5°
139. In 600 m race Prabhat can have only start of 120 m. Now 2
since he has more than 200 m start up so he will win the ∴Required difference = 97.5°
race. 90 − 35 55
400 m 150. = × 2 = 10 min
P 5.5 11
N So, the required time = 3 : 10 : 00
90 + 35 125 250 8
Again = × 2= = 22 min
600 5.5 11 11 11
Now, when Prabhat will cover 400 m distance, then in the
= 22 min 43 s
same time Nishith will cover only 500 m. So, Prabhat will
win by 100 m.
444 QUANTUM CAT
Level 02 Higher Level Exercise
Now, for any particular person (say Pathik) the time
1. Cycle Auto Car required to cover different distances is directly
Speed x (5x − 20) 5x proportional to the different distances. So, time taken by
Pathik to cover AC and BC are the ratio of 4 : 5 (excluding
Time (t + 1) t
staying or halt time at Chandni Chowk).
Distance 120 120 120 (in km) Thus time required to cover AC is 52 minutes only since he
120 120
∴ − =1 covers BC in 65 minutes.
(5x − 20) 5x But since he leaves Chandni Chowk for Bhavnagar at
⇒ x 2 − 4 x − 96 = 0 9 : 27 am i . e. , 67 minutes later, when he left Andheri. It
means he must have stayed at C for (67 − 52) = 15 minutes.
⇒ x = 12
360 8. Let the length of the train be L metres and speeds of the
∴ Average speed = = 24 km/h train Arjun and Srikrishna be R , A and K respectively, then
(10 + 3 + 2)
L
120 = 36 …(i)
2. Time taken by Cycle = = 10 h R−A
12 L
120 and = 24 …(ii)
Time taken by Auto = = 3h (R + K )
40
120 From eqs. (i) and (ii), Weget
Time taken by Car = = 2h 3 (R − A ) = 2 (R + K )
60
Total time = 15 h ⇒ R = 3A + 2K
In 30 minutes (i . e. , 1800 seconds), the train covers 1800R
3. In last 5 hours she covers 240 km (120 + 120)
(distance) but the Arjun also covers 1800 A (distance) in
4. New time = 3 + 3 + 2 = 8 h the same time.
Hence, decrease in time = 7 h (15 − 8) Therefore distance between Arjun and Srikrishna, when
7 the train has just crossed Srikrishna
∴ Percentage change = × 100 = 46.66%
15 = 1800 (R − A ) − 24 ( A + K )
1080 1800 (R − A ) − 24 ( A + K )
5. Time taken to meet Bipasha and Mallika = = 6h ∴ Time required =
(60 + 120) (A + K )
= (3600 − 24) = 3576 s
So, in 6 hours Bipasha covers 360 km and this 360 km (since R = 3A + 2 K )
360 → Shahid
distance Rani covers in = 4 h. 9. → Kareena C
90
Hence, Rani leaves Kolkata 2 hours later than Bipasha i . e. , Kurla Shantakruj Worli
at 8 am. Rani leaves Kolkata.
Let the time taken by Kareena in going from K to S is
NOTE The distance 360 covered by Bipasha to meet Mallika x minutes and the time taken by Shahid in going from
can also be calculated by the ratio of their speeds. Worli to Shantakruj be y min.
2
6. Note here the length of the train in which passenger is Since, the new speed of Kareena is , therefore time taken
3
travelling is not considered since we are concerned with 3
the passenger instead of train. So, the length of the bridge in returning = x.
2
will be directly proportional to the time taken by the 3
passenger respectively. ∴ x + x = 120
2
t 1 l1 t → Time
Therefore, = ⇒ x = 48 min
t 2 l2 l → Length of bridge
But x=y
7 280
= 4
Again since the new speed of Shahid is , therefore the
4 x 3
⇒ x = 160 m 3
time taken in returning = y.
7. A C B 4
3
4x 5x ∴ Total time = y + y
P 4
R = 48 + 36 = 84 min
Note that the distances covered by them to meet at C are in 3
the direct ratio of their speeds. Therefore 10. Time taken to collide the two trains = h
2
AC : BC = 4 x : 5x 3 3
So, in h bird travels × 60 = 90 km
2 2
Time, Speed and Distance 445

11. Let there be l steps in the escalator and x be the speed 600
18. Total time = = 24 h
(in steps/second)of escalator, then 25
l l
= 10 and = 40 19. C
(5 + x ) (5 − x )
A B
5+ x 40
then = ⇒ x=3 D C
(5 − x ) 10 D
∴ Number of steps in the escalator = l = 8 × 10 = 80
A is the starting point of journey.
12. Let the radius be r, then difference in the distance B is the destination.
= (πr − 2 r) = r (π − 2) C → where Salman has got off.
D → where Priyanka picks up Akshay
Let AD = l and BC = k and CD = x
CD + DB 50
A B then =
BC 10
 22  2x + k 5
=r − 2 = 60 × 3 ⇒ 2 r = 315 m =
7  k 1
[πr → semiperimeter and 2r → diameter] x 2
⇒ =
560 k 1
13. Time taken by trains to collide = =8h AC + CD 50
70 Again =
In 8 h sparrow will cover 8 × 80 = 640 km AD 10
P K 2x + l 5
14. =
l 1
x 2
600 ⇒ =
l 1
x
In 18 h plane will cover 18 × 120 = 2160 km ⇒ x = 2 k = 2l or k = l =
Now, 2160 = (600 × 2) + 600 + 360 2
∴ k + x + l = 120
So, the plane will be 360 km away from Kargil it means it ⇒ k = 30 km, x = 60 km and l = 30 km
will be 240 km (600 − 360) away from Pukhwara. Total distance travelled = AC + CD + DB
15. First Second Third Total = l + x + x + x + k = 240 km
hour hour hour 240
∴ Time (required) = = 4.8 h
Initial speed x 3x 2x 6x 50
New speed 3x 3x 3x 9x
20.
3x Barabanki Fatehpur
∴ Percentage increase in speed = × 100 = 50%
6x 300
1
Since speed is increased by (50%) ⋅
2 120 180
1
Therefore, time will reduce by (33.33%) ⋅ Let the speeds of Ajay, Kajol and Shahrukh be x, y and z
3 respectively, then
16. y 180
P Q =
x 120
They will be together at every two hours. Therefore in 12 h 2y
⇒ x=
they will be (6 + 1) = 7 times together at P and they will 3
never meet altogether at Q.
NOTE Kajol is faster since she covers 180 km while Ajay covers
17. only 120 km in the same time.
Mathura Kurukshetra Hastinapur
400 km 300 km Shahrukh meets Kajol 1.5 hours after Shahrukh himself
starts and 2.5 hours after Kajol starts.
700 km
Hence, 2.5y + 1.5z = 300
Consider only one person either Arjun or Srikrishna since 600 − 5y
their speed is same and move together. ⇒ z=
3
Now, the distance covered by Arjun and Abhimanyu is in 600 − 5y
the ratio of their speeds. So, Arjun will cover 500 km to Since z ≥ ( y + 20) ⇒ ≥ ( y + 20)
meet Abhimanyu and thus Arjun has to return back 100 km 3
for Kurukshetra. Therefore, Arjun will cover total 600 km ⇒ y ≤ 67.5
distance. or x ≤ 45 km/h
446 QUANTUM CAT
21. Let t be the time after Kajol starts, when she meets Ajay, AB + BH 36
and =
then AH 6
300 2x + l 6
t = ⇒ =
(x + y ) l 1
This should be less than 2.5 or ( x + y ) > 120 x 5
⇒ =
3x l 2
Since y= ⇒ y > 72
2 ∴ x : k : l = 5: 2: 2
This ( y > 72) is greater than 67.5 km/h and hence ⇒ x + k + l = 180
Shahrukh will always overtake Ajay before he meets Kajol. ⇒ x = 100, k = 40 and l = 40 km
22. Speed of Raghupati (R P ) = 60 km/h Total distance travelled by bike = SA + AB + BH
Speed of Raghav (R V ) = 36 km/h = k + 3x + l = 380 km
2x + k 42 7
Speed of Raja Ram (R R ) = 18 km/h 26. = =
A k 6 1
x 3
⇒ =
k 1
x 3
Similarly =
l 1
∴ x : k : l = 3: 1 : 1
∴ x = 108, k = 36, l = 36 km
B C Total distance travelled = k + 3x + l = 396 km
AB = AC = BC 396 3
∴ Required time = =9 h
Time taken to cover AB by (RR ) is 2 hours 42 7
∴ Time taken to cover AB by Raghav is 1 hour 27. Let the buses leave from both the stations at time intervals
∴ Time taken to cover AB by Raghupati = 36 min of T , then the distance between any two consecutive buses
 1 1 1  coming opposite to me = the distance between any
t RP : t RV : t RR = : : 
 SRP SRV SRR  two consecutive buses coming in the same direction as me
= VT .
t → Time, S → Speed (where V is the velocity of the buses)
AB = 2 × 18 = 36 km Let the speed of walking be W , then
3 × 36 9 VT VT
23. Time = = h = 1 h 48 min = 20 and = 30
60 5 V+W V −W
60 V + W 30 3
24. Distance from Bareilley = × 36 ∴ = =
(60 + 18) V − W 20 2
360 9 V 5
= = 27 km ⇒ =
13 13 W 1
25. A VT 5
∴ = 20 ⇒ × T = 20
(Shantipur) S H (Hulchulpur) V+W 6
B ∴ T = 24 min
180 km 28. Time taken by Abhinav = 36 h
600
Since the speed of bike and walking are different. So, two Ideal time required by Abhinav = = 24 h
people partially travelled by bike and rest by walking since 25
all the three persons take equal time to reach the It means Abhinav rests for (36 − 24) = 12 h
destination. It means initially Mohan will carry either 600
Now, the required time for Brijesh = = 20 h
Namit or Pranav to a point A, then this person reach to H by 30
walking and Mohan return to B where he will pick up the But Brijesh utilised those 12 hours in which Abhinav rests,
third person and reach at H at the same time as the second so he needs only (20 − 12) = 8 hours extra.
person.
Thus, the total time taken by Brijesh = 36 + 8 = 44 h
Let SB = k, AB = x and AH = l
SA + AB 36 29. Downstream (Steamer) = 40 min
Now, = Downstream (Boat) = 60 min
SB 6
2x + k 6 Upstream (Steamer) = 60 min
= Upstream (Boat) = 90 min
k 1
∴ Required time = 40 + 30 + 45 = 115 min
x 5
⇒ =
k 2
Time, Speed and Distance 447

30. A P B
L 2x x J 34. In case of increasing gap between two objects.
Speed of sound Time utilised
These two trains meet only at P and L i . e. , there are only =
two points. Speed of tiger Difference in time
31. For the first meeting they have to cover only 2x + x = 3x 1195.2 83
= ⇒ x = 100.8 km/h
distance and for the further meeting for each next meeting x 7
they have to cover 6 x distance together. 35. In 20 minutes the difference between man and his son
= 20 × 20 = 400 m
Distance covered by A 2x 2x 4x 2x
Distance travelled by dog when he goes towards son
Distance covered by B x 4x 2x 4x 400
= × 60
Point of meeting P L P P 40
Total distance travelled 3x 6x 6x 6x = 600 m and time required is 10 minutes
In 10 minutes the remaining difference between man and
When A and B meet at P for the third time A goes 10 x and B
son.
goes 11 x.
Thus, the required ratio = 10 : 11 400 − (20 × 10) = 200 m

NOTE Relative speed of dog with child is 40 km/h and the

32. 1h x km same with man is 100 km/h.
H O 200
(Home) A (Office) Time taken by dog to meet the man = = 2 min
100
In 2 min the remaining distance between child and man
1 hr
200 − (2 × 20) = 160 m
Speed Time
1 1 Now, the time taken by dog to meet the child again
↓ ↑ = 36 min 160
6 5 = = 4 min
⇒ actual time required to cover x km is 5 × 36 = 180 min 40
In 4 minutes he covers 4 × 60 = 240 m distance while going
1h 80 km x–80
towards the son.
H O
In 4 minute the remaining distance between man and child
(Home) A (Office)
= 160 − (4 × 20) = 80 m
1 hr Time required by dog to meet man once again
80
Speed Time = = 0.8 min
1 1 100
↓ ↑ = 20
6 5 In 0.8 min remaining distance between man and child
⇒ actual time required for ( x − 80) km = 5 × 20 = 100 = 80 − (0.8 × 20) = 64 m
min Now, time taken by dog to meet the child again
It means he can move = x − ( x − 80) = 80 km in 64 8
(180 − 80) = 80 min = × min
40 5
It means his actual speed = 60 km/h ∴ Distance travelled by dog
Thus, the total distance from his home to his office 8
= 60 × 1 + 60 × 3 = 240 km = × 60 = 96 m
5
NOTE Since 1 hour he lost at the place of accident, so the Thus, we can observe that every next time dog just go
actual delay due to reduced speed is always 1 hour less than it is 2/5th of the previous distance to meet the child in the
found to be in both the cases. It means due to reduced speed he direction of child.
becomes late only 36 minutes and 20 minutes in respective cases. So, we can calculate the total distance covered by dog in
the direction of child with the help of GP formula.
Speed of wind (Sound) 2
33. Here, first term (a) = 600 and common ratio (r) =
Relative speed of soldier and terrorist 5
Time utilised a
= Q Sum of the infinite GP =
Difference in time 1−r
1188 330 600 600
= = = = 1000 m
x 5  2 3/5
 1 − 
⇒ x = 18 km/h  5
448 QUANTUM CAT

36. Let Amarnath express takes x hours, then Gorakhnath Distance travelled = 50 × 20 = 1000 m
express takes ( x − 2) hours. Total time = 50 + 15 = 65 s
1 1 60 Total distance = 1000 + (15 × 10) = 1150 m
∴ + = ⇒ x =4h
x ( x − 2) 80 42. A

10
37. Distance travelled by them in first hour = 12 km

0m
60°
Distance travelled by them in second hour = 13 km
Distance travelled by them in third hour = 14 km and so on Q
Thus, in 9 hours they will cover exactly 144 km and in 9 h

30°
each will cover half-half the total distance.

x
(8 × 9 = 72 and 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 + 10 + 11 + 12 = 72)
38. Speed of tiger = 40 m/min 90° 60°
60°
Speed of deer = 20 m/min B
P
C
x x
Relative speed = 40 − 20 = 20 m/min 100 + 2 2
Difference in distances = 50 × 8 = 400 m x
100 +
400 2 = 100 + x Speed of Bajrang
∴ Time taken in overtaking (or catching) = = 20 min =
20 100 (100 + x − 150) Speed of Angad
∴ Distance travelled in 20 min = 20 × 40 = 800 m 200 + x (100 + x )
=
615 200 ( x − 50)
39. The sum of their speeds = = 43 km/h
15 ⇒ (200 + x )( x − 50) = 200 (100 + x )
Notice that they are actually exchanging their speeds. Only
then they can arrive at the same time at their respective ⇒ x 2 + 150 x − 10000 = 20000 + 200 x
destinations. It means the difference in speeds is 3 km/h. ⇒ x 2 − 50 x − 30000 = 0
Thus, x + ( x + 3) = 43 ⇒ ( x − 200)( x + 150) = 0 ⇒ x = 200 km
⇒ x = 20 and x + 3 = 23 Therefore distance between Ayodhya and Banaras is
The concept is very similar to the case when after meeting 300 km since AB = BC = AC .
each other they returned to their own places of departure. (With the help of trigonometry we can find the value of PC
It can be solved through option also. PC 1
in terms of x i . e. , cos 60° = = .
40. Let Pele covers x km in 1 hour. So Maradona takes QC 2
(2 h − 40 min) = 1 h 20 min to cover x km. Let speed of x
Hence PC = )
Maradona and Pele be M and P respectively then 2
4 43. Basically they will exchange their speeds just after half of
x=M × and x = P × 1
3 the time required for the whole journey. It means after
M 3 covering 210 km distance they will exchange their speeds.
⇒ =
P 4 Check it out graphically for more clarification.
300 300 300 300 44. The ratio of speeds
Again − =1 ⇒ − =1
M P 3k 4k = The ratio of distances, when time is constant
⇒ k = 25 ∴ The ratio of distances covered by leopard to the tiger
= 12 : 25
⇒ M = 3k = 75 km/h
Again, ratio of rounds made by leopard to the tiger
and P = 4k = 100 km/h
= 12 : 25
(Through option it is very easy to solve.)
Hence, leopard makes 48 rounds, when tiger makes
41. Initial speed of police = 10 m/s 100 rounds.
Increased speed of police = 20 m/s 6000
Speed of thief = 15 m/s 45. Length of DC = (for this, refer geometry section)
13
Initial difference between thief and police = 250 m Total distance covered in the returning by Jai
After 5 seconds difference between thief and police
= AD + CD
= 250 − (5 × 10) = 200 m 2500 6000 8500
After 10 seconds more the difference between thief and = + = km
13 13 13
police = 200 + (5 × 10) = 250 m. 8500 /13
Now, the time required by police to catch the thief Required time = = 17 h
500 /13
250
= = 50 s Total distance covered by Jaya while returning
5
= BD + DC
Time, Speed and Distance 449

14400 6000 2
= + Hence, the distance covered in km = × 7 = 2 km
13 13 7
20400 / 13  Arc 
∴ Required time = = 17 θ = 
1200 / 13  Radius
Hence, both will reach at the same time. Thus, on the last path it moves only 2 km. Hence, (a) is the
Alternatively Since the ratio of speeds is same as that correct choice.
of distances. So, they will take same time to reach the 2 1
52. The ratio of distance covered on P2 and P7 = =
home. 2 1
8500 53. Since it is clear from the statement itself that ∆ AOB is a
46. The distance of route ADC =
13 right angle triangle and further OP must be perpendicular
and the distance of route BNC = 1300 to AB then we can find that AO = 30 km and BO = 40 km by
8500 /13 using Pythagoras theorem and its corrollaries.
and the time taken by Jai is = 17 h
500 /13
A
1300 169 1
and the time taken by Jaya is = h = 14 h 18
1200 /13 12 12
= 14 h 05 min 90° 50
km

30 km
Hence, option (c) is correct.
175 32
47. Time saved in percentage = × 100 = 17.15%

mk
1020

24
48. Husband takes 17 hours and she takes 14 h 05 min + 3h
= 17 h 05 min B
O 40 km
So, she becomes late by 05 min than her husband.
49. x 2 + ( x + 100)2 = (500)2 (Using Pythagorus theorem) Hint OP 2
= OA 2 − AP 2

⇒ x = 300 km ∴ OP 2
= 900 − x 2
Now, let they change their speeds after t 1 hours and then
the rest time is t 2 then and OB 2
= OP 2 + BP 2

30 t 1 + 40 t 2 = 800 …(i) ∴ OB 2
= 900 − x 2 + 1024
40 t 1 + 30 t 2 = 900 …(ii)
and AB 2
= OA 2 + OB 2
On solving eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
120 50 ∴ ( x + 32)2 = 900 + 900 − x 2 + 1024
t1 = and t 2 =
7 7
⇒ x = 18 km
50. Since it moves only one radian on every path and it has to
move 2π radian to reach directly eastward. Hence, it has to Hence, AP = 18, OA = 30 and OB = 40 and OP = 24 km
run on more than 6 paths i . e. , the last path is 7th one Now, since jackal and cat reaches A at the same time, so
(or P7 ) (Q n × 1 radian ≥ 2π radian) the ratio of speeds = ratio of distances covered by them.
⇒ n ≥ 2π Speed of jackal 30 5
or n = 7, for interger values ∴ = =
Speed of cat 18 3
Hence, option (c) is correct.
54. Again, since jackal and train both arrive at A at the same
51. Since it stops directly eastward of the shop so the total time and let the train was x km away from A, before
distance covered so for entering into the tunnels, i.e.,when it makes a whistle then
= 7 + (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 2) = 30 km the ratio of distances covered by train and jackal.
x x + 50
NOTE Total radial movement = 7 km = = ⇒ x = 150 km
Again on the last path it will move only 2 km. 30 40
Thus, the ratio of speeds of Jackal is to train is 1 : 5.
Actually it has to cover total 2π radian distance but on
6 paths it covers only 6 radian hence the remaining 55. Since, when the train arrive at A, the jackal can move
distance which will be covered on the 7th path i . e. , 2π − 6 30 km. So, at the time when train is at A the jackal will
22 2 cover 6 km from P on PA in addition to 24 km at OP. Now,
= 2× − 6 = radian the rest distance at AP is 12 km this remaining distance will
7 7
be covered by train and jackal according to their respective
But, the radius of the last path (i . e. , P7 ) = 7 km
speeds.
450 QUANTUM CAT
5 600
So, distance covered by train = 12 × = 10 km 62. Time taken by them to meet = = 60 s
6 30 − 20
1
and distance covered by jackal = 12 × = 2 km Time taken to meet 5th time = 5 × 60 = 300 s
6 3000
Hence, jackal will meet with train at M 1 which is 10 km Total duration of race = = 100 s
30
away from A (inside AB).
So, they will not meet 5th time in the race of 3000 metre.
NOTE It can be solved using options in lesser time. 22
63. Length of the track = 2 × × 175 = 1100 m
56. It is obvious from the path of cat that if cat moves in the 7
POA direction it will never meet with accident and now Distance to be covered for the first meeting = 550 m
jackal follows the path OPB. Again when the train is at A 1100
then jackal will cover 30 km (i . e. , 24 (OP ) + 6 km on PB). Speed of Akkal = = 11 m/s
100
So, the ratio of distances covered by jackal is to train = 1100
ratio of their respective speeds. Speed of Bakkal = = 22 m/s
50
Now let the jackal and train meet each other at
Time taken from the start of the first meeting
AB, (6 + x ) km away from P towards B, then
550 50
x 1 = = s
= (11 + 22) 3
24 + x 5
Time taken for Akkal and Bakkal to meet again at Love
⇒ 4 x = 24 ⇒ x=6
point = LCM of times taken by them to go around the track
once.
Hence, train meets with jackal at (18 + 6 + 6) = 30 km 1100 1100
away from A. = LCM of and
11 22
150 + 18 + 6 + x 5
Alternatively = ⇒ x=6 = LCM of 100 and 50
30 + x 1
= 100 s
Hence, 18 + 6 + 6 = 30 km. 50
Thus, option (b) is correct. So, the total required time = + 100 + 100
3
72/3 5
57. The ratio of time taken by cat and jackal = = =
650
96/5 4 3
Hence, option (c) is correct. 2
= 216 s
58. (6 − x ) = (8 − 1.5x ) ⇒ x = 4 cm 3
So, it will take 4 hours to burn in such a way that they 64. Since both rest for 6 seconds so when B is just about to start
remain equal in length. the journey A reaches there at the shallow end so they meet
59. Total distance covered by them when they meet = 2W at they shallow end.
2W 65. B runs around the track in 10 min.
and total time =
b1 + b2 i . e. , Speed of B = 10 min per round
2W 2W ∴ A beats B by 1 round
∴ d1 = b1 and d2 = b2
(b1 + b2 ) (b1 + b2 ) Time taken by A to complete 4 rounds
= Time taken by B to complete 3 rounds
60. Let the speed of boat be B and that of river be R. In = 30 min
12 minutes the distance between boat and hat 30
∴ A’s speed = min per round
= 12 (B − R ) + 12R = 12 B 4
Now time taken by boat to reach to the hat = 7. 5 min per round
12 B Hence, if the race is only of one round A’s time over the
= = 12 min course = 7 min 30 sec.
(B + R ) − R
10 9 8
Total time = 24 min 66. The ratio of speeds of A, B, C = : :
49 50 51
In 24 minutes had flown off = 3 km
Hence, A is the fastest.
24
∴ × R = 3 ⇒ R = 7.5 km/h 400 + 200 18
60 67. Speed of this car = × km/h
20 5
500
61. Akbar meets Birbal once = = 100 s = 108 km/h
20 − 15
68. The speeds of two persons is 108 km/h and 75 km/h. The
500 1
Birbal meets Chanakya once = = 11 s first person covers 1080 km in 10 hours and thus he makes
20 + 25 9 12 rounds. Thus, he will pass over another person 12 times
500 in any one of the direction.
Akbar meets Chanakya once = = 12.5 s
15 + 25
Time, Speed and Distance 451

69. Angle between two hands at 3 : 10 am 1440

Therefore it will cover 4840 min in × 4840
= (90 + 5) − 60 = 35° 1452
= 4800 min = 80 h
So, the required angle = 70°, after 3 : 10 am
Therefore 80 h = 3 days and 8 h.
Total time required to make 70° angle when minute-hand
90 + 70 320 77. You must know that a correct watch coincide just after
is ahead of hour-hand = = min 5
11/2 11 65 min.
320 11
So, at 3 h min the required angle will be formed. 5 2
11 Therefore in every 65 hours the watch gains .
11 11
Alternatively Check through options.
2 11
70. For the first watch: When a watch creates the difference Hence, in 24 hours it will gain × × 24 × 60 = 4 min
11 720
of 12 hours, it shows correct time.
78. In 72 hours my watch gains (8 + 7 ) = 15 min. To show the
So to create the difference of 12 h required time
correct time watch must gain 8 minutes.
60 × 12
= = 30 days Since the watch gains 15 min in 72 × 60 min.
24
72 × 60 × 8
For the second watch: To create the difference of 12 h Therefore, the watch will gain 8 min in min
required time 15
30 × 12 72 × 60 × 8
= = 15 days = = 38 h 24 min
24 15
So, after 30 days at the same time both watches show the Hence, (a) is the correct choice.
correct time. 80. To exchange the position both hands to cover 360°
Hint Take the LCM of 30 and 15. together.
1°
71. To show the same time together the difference between In one minute, hour-hand moves and in one minute,
two watches must be 12 h. 2
minute-hand moves 6°. Let the required time be t min,
Now, since they create 3 min difference in 1 h 1
1 12 × 60 then 6t + t = 360
So they will create 12 h difference in × 2
3 24 360 720 5
⇒ t = × 2= = 55 min
= 10 days later 13 13 13
72. To show the correct time again, watch must create 24 h 81. Consider the following explanation.
difference. (Since in one round hour-hand covers 24 h.)
4 60 × 24 Action Time
So, the required time = × = 80 day
3 24 1 Kalmadi and Raja cross the river with the boat. 90
73. (n + 1) times in n days 2 Kalmadi stays behind the other side, while Raja 90
74. Actually the watch gains (12 + 16) takes the boat back.
= 28 min in 7 × 24 × 60 min. 3 Raja then waits on shore, while Sharad takes the 90
Thus, it gains 1 min in 360 minutes. boat across by himself.
20 × 360 4 Then Sharad stays on the other side, while 90
Therefore, it will gain (12 + 8) min in = 5 day
60 × 24 Kalmadi brings the boat back.
Hence, (b) is the correct choice. 5 Raja gets in the boat with Kalmadi, and then both 90
75. Actually they create a difference of 3 min per hour and the of them cross the river to join Sharad.
two watches are showing a difference of 66 minutes. Thus, Thus the total time needed = 90 × 5
they must have been corrected 22 hours earlier. = 450 min = 7hrs 30 min.
Now, the correct time can be found by comparing any one Hence, choice (c) is the correct answer.
of the watch. Since, second watch gains 1 min in 1 hour so
it will must show 22 min extra than the correct time in 22 82. A level mile takes 15 min, up-hill 20 min, down-hill 10 min.
hours. Hence, the correct time can be found by subtracting So in going and coming back a mile on a level road takes
22 min from 10 : 06. half an hour, and walking up-hill and down-hill a mile also
Hence, (d) is the correct answer. takes half an hour.
So, in going and returning over the same mile, whether on
NOTE For quick answer go through options. the level or on the hill-side, takes half an hour. Hence in six
hours he walked 12 miles on each side. Thus the total
76. Incorrect watch covers 1452 min in 1440 min
distance he travelled = 24 miles.
1440
So, it will cover 1 min in min Hence, choice (d) is the correct answer.
1452
452 QUANTUM CAT
83. Let the length of the rail-bridge be x meters. Running Since, the auto-rickshaw and PCR van start moving at the
towards the train, Rohingya covers (0. 5x − 16) meters in same time from their respective locations S and P, so they
the time that the train travels ( x − 20) meters. Running take the same time to reach M.
away from the train, Rohingya covers (0. 5x + 6) meters in As you know now, that the time taken by both the
the time that the train travels (2x − 10) meters. auto-rickshaw and PCR van is same
Because their speeds are constant, the following holds : So, their speeds will be in the ratio of the distances
(0. 5x − 16) 0. 5x + 6 traversed to reach M.
= The distances traversed by van and auto-rickshaw are 40
( x − 20) (2x − 10)
km and 20 km, respectively.
⇒ x = {10, 56} So the speed of van and auto-rickshaw would be 80 and 40,
But, since bridge is longer than 10 meters, so the only valid respectively.
length of the rail-bridge is 56 meters. Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.
Hence, choice (b) is the correct one.
85. In the following diagram, W , D and R denote Wasseypur,
84. Let S denotes the spot where the victim was dumped, P Dhanbad and Ranchi, respectively. O denotes the place
denotes the location of police control room and H denotes where Faizal overtook Danish and handed over bullets and
the location of hospital. Also, M is the point where bombs. Assume DO = x and RO = y.
auto-rickshaw and PCR van meets, in case auto-rickshaw The distance between W and D is 90 km and the distance
helps the victim. between D and R is also 90 km.
If PCR van goes from P to S, it takes 45 minutes. But, if
auto-rickshaw takes the victim to M, then PCR van doesn’t W D O R
need to go beyond M, and thus the PCR van saves total 30 90 x y
minutes. It implies that the van takes 15 minutes from M to
S and 15 minutes from S to M. Let the speeds of Faizal and Danish be f and g.
Now, you know that when Faizal covers (90 + x ) km,
S M P H f 90 + x
Danish covers x km, then =
g x
The distance between P and S
Similarly, when Faizal covers (90 + 2x ) km, Danish covers
45 f 90 + 2x
= 80 × = 60 km 90 km, then =
60 g 90
And the distance between S and M 90 + x 90 + 2x
15 Therefore, you have =
= 80 × = 20 km x 90
60 ⇒ x = 45 2 km
And the distance between P and M Thus, the total distance travelled by Faizal Khan = 90 + 2x
30 = 90( 2 + 1)km.
= 80 × = 40 km
60 Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.
Mensuration 453

CHAPTER 10

M ensur ation
It is one of the easiest chapters, which contributes almost 6-8% problems in Quantitative
Aptitude Section of CAT. Besides there are several other aptitude tests which include
plethora of questions from this topic itself.
Therefore it is advised that those students who are not so good in other sections such as
algebra or sort of logical questions they must emphasise on this chapter. Even the questions
asked from this chapter are not as much complex as they are in Geometry.

10.1 Mensuration
Definition : Mensuration is a science of measurement of the lengths of lines, areas of
surfaces and volumes of solids.
Planes : Planes are two dimensional i.e. these two dimensions are namely length and breadth.
These occupy surface.
Solids : Solids are three dimensional, namely length, breadth and height. These occupy
space.
Chapter Checklist
Mensuration
Conversion of Important Units 2-D Figures (Planes)
1 km = 10 hectometre =100 decametre Rectangles and Squares
=1000 metre =10,000 decimetre Triangles
=100
, ,000 centimetre =10,00,000 millimetre Parallelogram, Rhombus
1 hectare =10,000 square metre and Trapezium
1 are =100 square metre Circles
1 square hectometre =100 square decametre 3-D Figures (Solids)
1 square decametre =100 square metre Cuboid and Cube
1 square metre = 100 square decimetre Cylinder and Cone
1 square decimetre =100 square centimetre Sphere, Prism and Pyramid
1 square centimetre =100 square millimetre
CAT Test
2 = 1.414, 3 = 1.732, 5 = 2.236, 6 = 2.45
Weight = Volume × density
454 QUANTUM CAT
10.2 2-D Figures
Table 2-D Figures (Plane figures)
Name Figure Nomenclature Area Perimeter

Rectangle l → length l × b = lb 2l + 2b = 2(l + b)

b b → breadth
l

a
Square a → side (i) a × a = a2 a + a + a + a = 4a
d → diagonal d2
a d a d=a 2 (ii)
2

Triangle a, b and c are three sides (i)

1
×b×h a + b + c = 2s
(Scalene) a c of triangle and s the 2
h semiperimeter, where (ii) s (s − a)(s − b)(s − c)
 a + b + c (Hero’s formula)
s=  
b  2 
b is the base and h is the
altitude of triangle
Equilateral a → side (i)
1
×a×h 3a
triangle h → height or altitude 2
a a 3 3 2
h h= a (ii) a
2 4

Isosceles a → equal sides (i)

1
×b×h 2a + b
triangle b → base 2
a a h → height or altitude 1
h (ii) × b × 4a2 − b2
4a2 − b2 4
h=
2
b

Right angled b → base 1

×b×h b+ h+ d
triangle h
d h → altitude/height 2
d → diagonal
b d = b2 + h 2

Isosceles right a → equal sides 1 2

a 2a + d
angled a
d d → diagonal 2
triangle d=a 2
a

Quadrilateral C AC is the diagonal and 1

× AC × (h1 + h2 ) AB + BC + CD + AD
D
h1, h2 are the altitudes on 2
h1
AC, from the vertices
h2 D and B, respectively.
A B
Mensuration 455

Name Figure Nomenclature Area Perimeter

a
Parallelogram a and b are sides adjacent to a×h 2(a + b)
b b each other.
h
h → distance between the
a parallel sides
a
Rhombus D C a → each equal side of 1
× d1 × d2 4a
d1 rhombus 2
a a d1 and d2 are the diagonals
d2 d1 → BD
A B d2 → AC
a

Trapezium D b
C a and b are parallel sides to  a + b AB + BC + CD + AD
  ×h
each other and h is the  2 
h perpendicular distance
between parallel sides
A B
a

Regular hexagon a a → each of the equal side 3 3 2 6a

a
a a 2

a a

Regular octagon a a → each of equal side 2a2 (1 + 2) 8a

a a

a a

a a
a

Circle r → radius of the circle πr2 2πr (called as

22 circumference)
π= = 3.1416(approx)
r 7

Semicircle r r
r → radius of the circle 1 2 πr + 2r
πr
2

Quadrant r → radius 1 2
πr
1
πr + 2r
r 4 2

Ring or circular path R → outer radius π (R 2 − r2 ) (outer) → 2πR

(shaded region) r → inner radius (inner) → 2πr
R
r
456 QUANTUM CAT
Name Figure Nomenclature Area Perimeter

Sector of a circle O → centre of the circle  θ  l + 2r

(i) πr2  
r → radius  360°
O l → length of the arc 1
θ (ii) r × l
r θ → angle of the sector 2
 θ 
l = 2πr  
A B  360°
l

Segment of a circle θ → angle of the sector Area of segment ACB  πθ  θ 

2r  + sin   
r → radius (minor segment)  360 °  2 
O AB → chord  πθ sin θ 
= r2  − 
r θ ACB → arc of the circle  360° 2 

A B
C

Pathways running l l → length (l + b − w ) w 2(l + b) − 4w

across the middle of w b → breadth = 2[ l + b − 2w]
a rectangle w w w → width of the path (road)
w b

Outer pathways w l → length (l + b + 2w ) 2w (inner) → 2 (l + b)

l
b → breadth (outer)
b w
w → widthness of the path → 2 (l + b + 4w )

Inner path w l → length (l + b − 2w ) 2w (outer) → 2 (l + b)

b → breadth (inner)
w b
w → widthness of the path → 2 (l + b − 4w )

10.3 Rectangles and Squares Solution

(a) Perimeter = 2(15 + 8) = 46 m
1. Area of a rectangle = length × breadth = l × b
(b) Area of floor = 15 × 8 = 120 m2
1
2. Area of a square = (side) 2 = (diagonal) 2 (c) Length of diagonal = (15) 2 + ( 8) 2 = 17m
2
1 2 NOTE The maximum possible length of any rod that can be placed
= d =a 2
on a rectangular floor is equal to the diagonal of the floor of the room.
2
3. Diagonal of a rectangle d b
= (length) 2 + (breadth) 2 = l 2 + b 2
l
4. Diagonal of a square = side 2 + side 2 = side 2 = a 2 Here d > l
5. Perimeter of a rectangle = 2 (length + breadth) = 2( l + b)
Exp. 2) The side of a square shaped garden is
6. Perimeter of a square = 4 × side = 4a 20 m. Find the :
7. Area of four walls of a room = 2 ( l + b) × h (a) area of the garden
Exp. 1) The length and breadth of a rectangular room are (b) perimeter (or boundary) of the garden
15 m and 8 m respectively : (c) maximum possible distance between any two corners
(a) Find the perimeter of room. of the garden.
(b) Find the area of the floor of room. Solution (a) Area = (side) 2 = (20) 2 = 400 m 2 (square metre)
(c) Find the maximum possible length of the rod that can (b) Perimeter = 4 × side = 4 × 20 = 80 m
be put on the floor. (c) Diagonal = side 2 = 20 × 2 = 20 × 1.414 = 28.28 m
Mensuration 457

Exp. 3) One side of a rectangular lawn is 12 m and its Exp. 7) Find the cost of carpeting a room 17 m long and
diagonal is 13 m. Find the area of the field. 9 m wide with a carpet 60 cm broad at 40 paise per metre.
Solution d = l 2 + b2 ⇒ 13 = 122 + b 2 ⇒ b = 5 m Solution Area of carpet = Area of room
∴ Area = l × b = 12 × 5 = 60 m 2 l × 0.6 = 17 × 9 (60 cm = 0.6 m)
⇒ l = 255 m
Exp. 4) The length of a rectangle is 1 cm more than its
∴ Cost of carpeting the floor = rate × length of carpet
breadth. The diagonal is 29 cm. Find the area of the
rectangle. = 0.4 × 255 = ` 102.00
(a) 481 cm 2 (b) 841 cm 2 (c) 420 cm 2 (d) 870 m 2 Exp. 8) The dimensions of a lawn are in the ratio 4 : 1
Solution l = ( b + 1) and its area is 1/4 hectares. What is the length of the lawn?
and d = l 2 + b 2 = ( b + 1) 2 + b 2 = 29 Solution l × b = 4x × x =
1
× 10000
4
⇒ b 2 + b = 420 ⇒ b = 20
⇒ x = 25
∴ l = 21
⇒ length = 4x = 100 m
∴ Area = l × b = 420 cm2
Exp. 9) A room is 16 m long, 7 m broad and 8 m high.
Exp. 5) The length of a wall is 5/4 times of its height. If Find the cost of white washing the four walls of room at
the area of the wall be 180 m 2 . What is the sum of the ` 7.5 per m 2 , white washing is not to be done on the doors
length and height of the wall? and windows, which occupy 65 m 2 .
Solution Let the length be 5x and height be 4x. Solution Area of 4 walls of a room = 2(16 + 7) × 8 = 368 m2
Then, l × h = 180 = 5 x × 4x = 20x 2 ⇒ x = 3
Net area of 4 walls = 368 − 65 = 303 m2
∴ l + h = 15 + 12 = 27 m
∴ Cost of white washing = 303 × 7.5 = ` 2272.5
Alternatively 1.25 h2 = 180 ⇒ h = 12 m
∴ l = 15 m; l + h = 27 m Exp. 10) The ratio between the sides of a room is 5 : 3.
The cost of white washing the ceiling of the room at
Exp. 6) A rectangular grassy lawn is 18 m by 12 m. It has 50 Paise per square m is ` 270 and the cost of papering the
a gravel path 1.5 m wide all around it on the outside. What walls at 10 P per square metre is ` 48. The height of the
is the area of the path. room is :
Solution Area of path (outside the lawn) = ( l + b + 2w) 2w (a) 6 m (b) 8 m
= (18 + 12 + 3) 3 = 99 m2 (c) 5 m (d) 10 m
Total cost 270
Solution Area of ceiling = = = 540 sq m
12 Cost of 1 sq unit 0.5
1.5 m 18 Now since l : b = 5x : 3x
⇒ l × b = 15 x 2 = 540 m 2
Alternatively Area of lawn = 18 × 12 = 216 m 2 ⇒ l = 30 and b = 18 m
Total area (lawn + path) = (18 + 3) × (12 + 3) Now, Area of the 4 walls
= 21 × 15 = 315 m 2 Total cost 48
= = = 480 m 2
Cost of 1 sq unit 0.1
∴ Area of path (only) = 315 − 216 = 99 m2
480
∴ Height = =5 m
2( 30 + 18)
458 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 10.1
1. A rectangular field has its length and breadth in the ratio 12. A square field of 2 sq km is to be divided into two equal
of 16 : 9. If its perimeter is 750 cm. What is its area? parts by a wall which coincides with a diagonal. Find
(a) 7500 cm2 (b) 32400 cm2 the length of the wall.
2
(c) 14400 cm (d) 14000 cm2 (a) 2 km (b) 1 km (c) 4.2 km (d) 2 km
2. A rectangular field costs ` 110 for levelling at 13. There are two square fields. Of the two square fields
50 paise per square metre. If the ratio of one contains 1 hectare area while the other is broader
length : breadth is 11 : 5. Find the length of the field. by 11 per cent. Find the difference in area expressed in
(a) 16 m (b) 21 m sq m.
(c) 22 m (d) none of these (a) 2321 sq m (b) 1210 sq m
3. A room is half as long again as it is wide. The cost of (c) 2121 sq m (d) 7700 sq m
carpeting it at 62 paise per square metre is 14. The expenses of carpeting a half of the floor were
` 2916.48. Find the cost of white washing the ceiling at
` 759, but if the length had been 6 m less than it was,
30 paise per metre.
the expenses would have been ` 561. What is the
(a) ` 2211.5 (b) ` 1114.2
length?
(c) ` 1411.2 (d) can’t be determined
(a) 21 m (b) 23 m (c) 45 m (d) 27 m
4. The length of a rectangular plot of ground is four times
15. If a roll of paper 1 km long has area 1/25 hectare, how
its breadth and its area is 4 hectares. How long will it
take to a dog to walk round it at the rate of 3 km/h? wide is the paper?
(a) 12 min (b) 20 min (c) 21 min (d) 18.5 min (a) 4 m (b) 40 cm (c) 40 dm (d) 25 cm
5. Find the length of the wire required to fence a square 16. The diagonal and one side of a rectangular plot are
field 6 times having its area 5 hectares and 76 ares. 289 m and 240 m respectively. Find the other side.
(a) 5760 m (b) 6760 m (c) 52500 m (d) 11760 m (a) 237 m (b) 181 m (c) 161 m (d) 159 m
6. A room is 19 m long and 3.50 m broad. What will be 17. How many tiles 20 cm by 40 cm will be required to
the cost of covering its floor with a carpet of 70 cm pave the floor of a prayer hall of a room 16 m long and
wide at 95 paise per metre? 9 m wide?
(a) ` 90.25 (b) ` 99.25 (a) 18000 (b) 2700 (c) 1800 (d) 14400
(c) ` 90.75 (d) none of these
18. If the area of a square be 22050 sq cm. Find the length
7. Find the cost of paving a courtyard 316.8 m × 65 m of diagonal.
with stones measuring1.3 m × 1.1 m at ` 0.5 per stone. (a) 201 cm (b) 220 cm
(a) ` 1440 (b) ` 7200 (c) 211 cm (d) 210 cm
(c) ` 72,000 (d) none of these
19. If requires 90 g paint for painting a door 12 cm × 9 cm,
8. A rectangular garden 63 m long and 54 m broad has a how much paint is required for painting a similar door
path 3 m wide inside it. Find the cost of paving the 4 cm × 3 cm?
path at ` 37/2 per square metre. (a) 30 g (b) 27 g (c) 10 g (d) 45 g
(a) ` 12321 (b) ` 11100
20. The area of a rectangular football field is 24200 sq m.
(c) ` 74000 (d) none of these
It is half as broad as it is long. What is the approx
9. If the length of a ractangular field is doubled and its minimum distance a man will cover if he wishes to go
breadth is halved (i.e. reduced by 50%). What is from one corner to the opposite one?
percentage change in its area? (a) 283 m (b) 246 m (c) 576 m (d) 289 m
(a) 0% (b) 10% (c) 25% (d) 33.33%
21. The area of the four walls of a room is 2640 sq m and
10. A path of uniform width runs all around the inside of the length is twice the breadth and the height is given
rectangular field 116 m by 68 m and occupies as 11 m. What is the area of the ceiling?
720 sq m. Find the width of the path. (a) 2800 m2 (b) 3200 m2
(a) 1 m (b) 1.5 m (c) 2 m (d) 4 m (c) 320 m 2
(d) none of these
11. A drawing room is 7.5 m long 6.5 m broad and 22. If the perimeter of a square and a rectangle are the
6 m high. Find the length of paper 2.5 dm wide to same, then the areas A and B enclosed by them would
cover its walls allowing 8 sq m for doors. satisfy the inequality :
(a) 368 m (b) 640 m (c) 625 m (d) 888 m (a) A > B (b) A ≥ B (c) A < B (d) A ≤ B
Mensuration 459

23. If the perimeter of a rectangle and a square each is 28. The area of a rectangular field is 52000 m2. This
equal to 80 cm and the difference of their areas is 100 rectangular area has been drawn on a map to the scale
sq cm, the sides of the rectangle are : 1 cm to 100 m. The length is shown as 3.25 cm on the
(a) 25 cm, 15 cm (b) 28 cm, 12 cm map. The breadth of the rectangular field is :
(c) 30 cm, 10 cm (d) 35 cm, 15 cm (a) 210 m (b) 150 m
24. The number of square shaped tin sheets of side 25 cm (c) 160 m (d) 123 m
that can be cut off from a square tin sheet of side 1 m, is : 29. If the length of diagonal BD of a square ABCD is
(a) 4 (b) 40 (c) 16 (d) 400 4.8 cm, the area of the square ABCD is :
25. The length and breadth of a rectangular field are (a) 9.6 cm2 (b) 11.52 cm2
2
120 m and 80 m respectively. Inside the field, a park (c) 12.52 cm (d) 5.76 cm2
of 12 m width is made around the field. The area of the 30. If the side of square is increased by 20%, then how
park is : much per cent does its area get increased?
(a) 2358 m2 (b) 7344 m2 (c) 4224 m2 (d) 3224 m2 (a) 40% (b) 20% (c) 44% (d) 24%
26. A 5m wide lawn is cultivated all along the outside of a 31. The ratio of the area of a square to that of the square
rectangular plot measuring 90m × 40 m. The total drawn on its diagonal is :
area of the lawn is : (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4
(a) 1441 m2 (b) 1400 m2 (c) 2600 m2 (d) 420 m2
32. The length and breadth of a square are increased by
27. The length of a rectangle is 2 cm more than its 60% and 40% respectively. The area of the resulting
breadth. The perimeter is 48 cm. The area of the rectangle exceeds the area of the square by :
rectangle (in cm2) is : (a) 224% (b) 24%
(a) 96 (b) 128 (c) 143 (d) 144 (c) 124% (d) 100%

10.4 Triangles
A
1 ratio of 2 : 1 from the vertex to the base.
1. Area of a triangle = × base × height (General formula)
2 AO BO CO 2 r2
∴ = = = = Q P
2. Area of a scalene triangle = s ( s − a ) ( s − b) ( s − c) OR OP OQ 1 r1
O
where s is the semiperimeter of the triangle and OP = OQ = OR , all are the inradii
B C
a, b and c are the three sides of the triangle, OA = OB = OC , R
 a + b + c all are the circumradii
s =  A
 2  NOTE Radii means more than one radius.
Scalene triangle : A triangle whose all sides are O is the centre of two circles. Circle PQR is Q r1 P
different in length called as incircle (touching the sides) and
O
1 circle ABC is called as circumcircle (touching r2
C
3. Area of a right angle triangle = × base × height the vertices)
B R
2
Right angle triangle : A triangle in which two sides are side side
∴ Inradius = and Circumradius =
perpendicular 2 3 3
Also, Hypotenuse = (base) 2 + (height) 2
Exp. 1) The base of a right angled triangle is 8 cm and
4. Area of an equilateral triangle hypotenuse is 17 cm. Find its area.
 3  Solution Hypotenuse = (base) 2 + (altitude) 2
1 3
= × side ×  side  = × (side) 2
2  2  4 (17) = 64 + ( x) 2
⇒ 289 = 64 + x 2 15 cm 17 cm
Equilateral triangle : A triangle in which all the three
⇒ x 2 = 225 ⇒ x = 15 cm
sides are equal also all the three internal angles are equal
1 90°
3 ∴ Area = × base × altitude
Height of an equilateral triangle ( h) = × side 2 8 cm
2 (height is called altitude also)
An important property : In an equilateral ∆ perpendiculars 1
= × 8 × 15 = 60 cm 2
drawn from all the three vertices intersect each other in the 2
460 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 2) Find the area of an equilateral triangle whose Exp. 4) Find the area and perimeter of a triangle whose
side is 4 3 cm. sides are 17 cm, 8 cm and 15 cm long.
3 Solution Since, 82 + 15 2 = 17 2
Solution Area of an equilateral triangle = × (side)2
4 ⇒ 64 + 225 = 289
3 3 289 = 289 8 17
= × (4 3)2 = × 48 = 12 3 cm2
4 4 Hence, it is a right angled triangle.
1 90°
Exp. 3) The area of a right angled triangle is ∴ Area = × b × h
2 15
24 cm 2 and the length of its hypotenuse is 10 cm. The 1
= × 15 × 8 = 60 cm2
length of the shorter leg is : 2
(a) 5 cm (b) 4 cm and perimeter = 8 + 15 + 17 = 40 cm
(c) 6 cm (d) 3 cm
Solution H 2 = A 2 + B 2 = 100 cm2
Exp. 5) Find the area and perimeter of an isosceles
triangle whose equal sides are 5 cm each and base is 6 cm.
1
Area = × A × B Solution Area of an isosceles triangle
2
b
1 A H = 4a 2 − b 2
⇒ A × B = 24 cm2 4
2 a a
6
⇒ A × B = 48 cm2 = 4 × 25 − 36
4
∴ ( A + B) 2 = A 2 + B 2 + 2AB B
3
= × 64 = 12 cm 2 b
( A + B) 2 = 196 ⇒ A + B = 14 …(i) 2
Again ( A − B) 2 = A 2 + B 2 − 2AB Alternatively We know that the altitude CD bisects the
⇒ ( A − B) 2 = 4 ⇒ A − B = 2 …(ii) base AB in the isosceles triangle ABC.
∴ AD = BD = 3 cm C
Therefore by solving eqs. (i) and (ii) ,we get
Using Pythagoras theorem in ∆ ADC
A=8 and B=6
we have, 5 cm 5 cm
Therefore, the shorter leg is 6 cm.
CD 2 = AC 2 − AD 2
Alternatively Go through options.
∴ CD = 4 cm
1
Q × A × B = 24 ⇒ A × B = 48 1
∴Area of triangle = × base × height A D B
2 2 6 cm
48
Let us assume B = 6, then A = =8 1
= × 6 × 4 = 12 cm 2
6 2
Now, A 2 + B 2 = 100, ( 8) 2 + ( 6) 2 = 100 ⇒100 = 100
Also, the perimeter of triangle = 5 + 5 + 6 = 16 cm
Hence, choice (c) is correct.

Introductory Exercise 10.2

1. What is the area of the triangle whose sides are 3. The sides of a triangle are 25 m, 39 m and 56 m
84 m, 80 m and 52 m? respectively. Find the perpendicular distance from the
(a) 1620 sq. m (b) 2016 sq. m vertex opposite to the side 56 m.
(c) 1818 sq. m (d) none of these (a) 15 m (b) 16.5 m
2. Two poles 15 m and 30 m high stand upright in a play (c) 18.6 m (d) 21 m
ground. If their feet be 36 m apart, find the distance 4. ABC is a triangle and D , E , F are the mid-points of the
between their tops.
sides BC , CA, AB respectively. The ratio of the areas of
(a) 41 m
∆ ABC and ∆ DEF is :
(b) 36 m
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 5 : 1
(c) 39 m
(c) 3 : 1 (d) can’t be determined
(d) none of the above
Mensuration 461

5. The integral base of an isosceles triangle can be whose 8. If every side of a triangle is doubled, then increase in
area is 60 cm2 and the length of one of the equal sides area of the triangle is :
is 13 cm : (a) 200% (b) 300%
(a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 400% (d) none of these
(c) 16 cm (d) data insufficient
9. If the altitude of an equilateral triangle is 2 3, then its
6. A ladder is resting with one end in contact with the top
area is :
of a wall of height 60 m and the other end on the
(a) 4 3 cm2 (b) 12 3 cm2
ground is at a distance of 11 m from the wall. The
8
length of the ladder is : (c) cm2 (d) none of these
3
(a) 61 m (b) 71 m
(c) 87 m (d) none of these 10. If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle and a square
7. The base of a triangular field is three times its height. is same and the area of equilateral triangle is P and the
If the cost of cultivating the field is ` 36.72 per hectare is area of square is Q, then :
` 495.72, find the height and base of the triangular field. (a) P < Q (b) P ≤ Q
(a) 480 m, 1120 m (b) 400 m, 1200 m (c) P > Q (d) P ≥ Q
(c) 300 m, 900 m (d) 250 m, 650 m

10.5 Parallelogram, Rhombus and Trapezium

1. (a) Area of parallelogram = base ( b) × height ( h) ( AC = d1 and BD = d 2 )
(b) Area of parallelogram D C

= product of any two adjacent sides

θ2
× sine of the included angle θ1
2. Perimeter = 2 (sum of any two adjacent sides) A B
1 1 1
3. (a) Area of rhombus = × (product of diagonals) ∴ Area = d1 d 2 sin θ 1 = d1 d 2 sin θ 2
2 2 2
1
= × d1 d 2 1
(b) Area = × diagonal × sum of the perpendiculars
2 2
(b) Area of rhombus = product of adjacent sides drawn from the opposite vertices on it.
× sine of the angle included by them C
4. Perimeter of rhombus = 4 × side D
N
h1
1
5. Area of a trapezium = × sum of parallel sides × height h2
2 M
height → distance between the two parallel sides A B
6. Perimeter of trapezium = sum of all the four sides 1
1 =
d × ( h1 + h2 )
7. (a) Area of quadrilateral = × product of diagonal 2
2
where, MD = h1 and BN = h2 and AC = d
× sine of the angle between them
462 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 10.3
1. The adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 6 cm and 8. Area of a rhombus is 256 cm2. One of the diagonal is
8 cm and the angle between them is 30°. What is the half of the other diagonal. The sum of the diagonals is :
area of the parallelogram? (a) 38 cm (b) 48 cm
(a) 24 cm2 (b) 12 cm2 (c) 28 cm (d) 56 cm
2
(c) 40 cm (d) 24 3 cm2 9. The lengths of two parallel sides of a trapezium are
2. A parallelogram has sides 30 cm and 20 cm and one of 30 cm and 50 cm and its height is 16 cm. Its area is :
its diagonal is 40 cm long. Then its area is : (a) 460 cm2 (b) 750 cm2
2
(a) 75 5 cm2 (b) 245 cm2 (c) 320 cm (d) 640 cm2
(c) 150 15 cm 2
(d) 300 cm2 10. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD and AB = 2CD. If
3. The distance of a 24 cm long side of a parallelogram its diagonals intersect each other at O, then ratio of
from the opposite side is 22 cm. The area of the areas of triangles AOB and COD is :
parallelogram is : (a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2
(a) 264 cm2 (b) 246 cm2 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
(c) 460 cm2 (d) 528 cm2 11. The area of a trapezium is 441 cm2 and the ratio of
4. The two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 25 cm parallel sides is 5 : 9. Also the perpendicular distance
between them is 21 cm, the longer of parallel sides is :
and 40 cm respectively. The altitude drawn on the
(a) 36 cm (b) 27 cm
longer side is 18 cm, then the area of the
(c) 18 cm (d) 28 cm
parallelogram is :
(a) 450 cm2 (b) 720 cm2 12. The cross-section of a canal is in the shape of a
(c) 500 cm 2
(d) none of these trapezium and the area of cross-section is 360 m2.
If the canal is 12 m wide at the top and 8 m wide at the
5. In the adjoining figure, the ratio of the areas of the
bottom the depth of the canal is :
parallelogram ABCD and that of triangle ABN is :
(a) 36 m (b) 180 m
A D (c) 45 m (d) none of these
13. The area of a hexagon whose one side is 4 m, is :
30°

(a) 6 3 m2 (b) 24 3 m2
2
(c) 42 3 m (d) 24 m2
N
B x C 14. ABCD is a quadrilateral AC = 19 cm. The lengths of
3x
perpendiculars from B and D on AC are 5 cm and 7 cm
(a) 6 : 1 (b) 5 : 1
respectively. Then, the area of ABCD (in cm2) is :
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 8 : 1
(a) 162 (b) 144
6. If the perimeter of a rhombus is 4 p and lengths of its (c) 228 (d) 114
diagonals are a and b, then its area is : 15. ABCD is a square, AC = BD = 4 2 cm,
a ab
(a) (b) AE = DE = 2.5 cm. Find the area of
b 2 E
the adjoining figure ABCDE.
(c) ab/p (d) p (a2 + b2 )
(a) 19 cm2
7. The ratio of the lengths of the diagonal of a rhombus is (b) 22 cm2
2 : 5. Then, the ratio of the area of the rhombus to the (c) 17 cm2 A D
F
square of the shorter diagonal : (d) none of the above
(a) 5 : 4 (b) 5 : 2
(c) 2 : 5 (d) none of these B C
Mensuration 463

10.6 Circles
1. Area of a circle = πR 2 (R → radius of the circle) Exp. 3) A circular road runs round a circular garden. If
the difference between the circumference of the outer
2. Circumference of the circle = 2πR
circle and the inner circle is 44 m. Find the width of the
 θ 
3. Length of an arc = 2πR   road.
 360° 
Solution Let R and r be radii of outer circle and inner circle
 θ  1 respectively.
4. Area of a sector = πR 2   = (arc × R )
 360°  2 ∴ Width of the road = R − r
∴ 2πR − 2πr = 44m ⇒ 2π ( R − r) = 44 m
 θ  R
2
5. Area of segment = πR 2  − sin θ  22
 360°  ⇒ ( R − r) = 7 m Q π = 
2  7
Diameter = 2 × radius Exp. 4) The radius of a circle is 5 m. What is the radius
of another circle whose area is 25 times that of the first?
Solution Ratio of areas = (ratio of radii) 2
O
A B OB = OA → radius 25 5
= (ratio of radii) 2 ⇒ Ratio of radii =
AB → diameter 1 1
Therefore radius of another circle is 5 times.
Hence, the required radius = 25 m
Exp. 1) The radius of a circular wheel is 1 3 m. How
4 Exp. 5) What is the radius of a circle whose area is equal
many revolutions will it make in travelling to the sum of the areas of two circles whose radii are 20 cm
11 km? and 21 cm?
Solution Total distance (travelled) = 11 km = 11000 m Solution πR 2 = πr12 + πr22
Distance travelled in one revolution πR 2 = π (r12 + r22 )
= circumference of the wheel R 2 = ( 400 + 441)
22 7
= 2× π ×r = 2× × = 11 m R 2 = 841 ⇒ R = 29 cm
7 4
11000
∴ Number of revolutions in 11 km = Exp. 6) In a circle of radius 28 cm, an arc subtends an
11
angle of 108° at the centre.
= 1000 revolution
(a) Find the area of the sector.
Exp. 2) It takes 13.5 mL to paint the surface of the (b) Find the length of the arc.
 θ 
circular sheet of radius 17 cm. How much paint is Solution (a) Area of the sector = πr 2  
 360°
required to paint a similar circular sheet with double the
22 108°
radius? = × 28 × 28 ×
Solution Ratio of radii = 1 : 2 7 360°
3
∴ Ratio of areas = 1 : 4 = 22 × 4 × 28 × = 739.2 cm
10
 Area of C1 πr12 1 × 1 1 
 Since = = =   θ 
Area of C 2 πr22 2 × 2 4 (b) Length of the arc = 2πr  
  360°
∴ Quantity of required paint is 4 times. 22 108
=2× × 28 × = 52.8 cm
Thus we need 4 × 13.5 = 54 mL paint. 7 360°
464 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 10.4
1. If the circumference of a circle is 704 cm, then its area 11. A figure consists of a square of side ‘a’ m with
is : semicircles drawn on the outside of the square.
(a) 49324 m2 (b) 39424 m2 The area (in m2) of the figure so formed will be :
(c) 3672 cm 2
(d) 39424 cm2  1
(a) a2 (π + 1) (b) a2  π + 
 4
2. If the circumference of a circle is 4.4 m, then the area
of the circle (in m2) is πa2
(c) a2 + (d) none of these
(a) 49/π (b) 49π 2
(c) 4.9π (d) none of these 12. The length of a rope by which a buffalo must be
3. A circular wire of radius 4.2 m is cut and bent in the tethered so that she may be able to graze a grassy
form of a rectangle whose longer side is 20% more area of 2464 sq m is :
than its shorter side. The longer side of the rectangle is (a) 35 m (b) 27 m
: (c) 24 m (d) 28 m
(a) 7.2 m (b) 72 cm 13. A circle of radius ‘a’ is divided into 6 equal sectors. An
(c) 8 m (d) none of these equilateral triangle is drawn on the chord of each
4. The inner circumference of a circular path around a sector to lie outside the circle. Area of the resulting
circular lawn is 440 m. What is the radius of the outer figure is :
circumference of the path, if the path is 14 m wide? (a) 3 a2 (π + 3 ) (b) 3 3 a2
(a) 96 m (b) 84 m 3 3 πa2
(c) 3 (a2 3 + π ) (d)
(c) 70 m (d) 88 m 2
5. The sum of the radius and the circumference of a 14. In the following figure, the area in (cm2 ) is :
circle is 51 cm. The area of the circle is :
(a) 151 cm (b) 152 cm
7cm
(c) 154 cm (d) data insufficient
6. The difference between the circumference and the
7cm 7cm
diameter of the circle is 15 m. What is the area of the
circle?
(a) 225 m2 (b) 165 m2 (a) 115.5 (b) 228.5
2
(c) 156 m (d) none of these (c) 154 (d) none of these
7. The radius of a circle is increased by 2 cm from 15. If a piece of wire 25 cm long is bent into an arc of a
5 cm to 7 cm. What is the percentage change in area of circle subtending an angle of 75° at the centre, then
the circle? the radius of the circle (in cm) is :
(a) 96% (b) 35% π 60
(a) (b)
(c) 70% (d) 74% 120 π
(c) 60π (d) none of these
8. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 20%,
then its area will be increased by : 16. Four horses are tethered at four corners of a square
(a) 44% (b) 32% plot of 42 m so that they just cannot reach one
(c) 40% (d) none of these another. The area left ungrazed is :
(a) 378 m2 (b) 438 m2
9. The area of a circular field is 124.74 hectares. The 2
(c) 786 m (d) none of these
cost of fencing it at the rate of 80 paise per metre is
(a) ` 3168 (b) ` 1584 17. The circumference of the following figure is :
(c) ` 1729 (d) none of these
10. Eldeco Housing Pvt. Ltd purchased a circular plot of
land for ` 158400 at the rate of 1400 per sq. metre.
The radius of the plot is : 20 cm
(a) 5 m (b) 6 m (a) (20 + 10 π ) (b) 20π
(c) 7 m (d) 14 m
(c) 10π (d) 30π
Mensuration 465

18. The area of a minor sector subtending the central 22. A rope by which a calf is tied is decreased from
angle at the centre 40° is 8.25 cm2. What is the area of 23 m to 12 m. What is the decrease in area to be
the remaining part (i.e. major sector) of the circle? grazed by it?
(a) 82.5 cm2 (b) 74.25 cm2 (a) 1110 m2 (b) 1210 m2
2
(c) 66 cm2 (d) none of these (c) 1120 m (d) 1221 m2

19. The area of a sector of a circle of radius 8 cm, formed 23. A wire is bent in the form of a square of side 66 m. It is
by an arc of length 5.6 cm, is : cut and again bent in the form of a circle. The diameter
of this circle is :
(a) 22.4 cm2 (b) 2.24 cm2 (a) 42 m (b) 84 m
(c) 56 cm2 (d) none of these (c) 21 m (d) none of these
20. How long will a man take to go, walking at 13.2 km/h, 24. A wire is in the form of a circle of radius 42 m is cut
round a circular garden of 700 m radius? and again bent in the form of a square. What is the
(a) 12 min (b) 30 min diagonal of the square?
(c) 20 min (d) none of these (a) 66 m (b) 66 3 m
21. What is the radius of circular field whose area is equal (c) 66 2 m (d) none of these
to the sum of the areas of three smaller circular fields 25. If the driving wheel of a bicycle makes 560 revolutions
of radii 8 m, 9 m and 12 m respectively? in travelling 1.1 km. Find the diameter of the wheel.
(a) 17 m (b) 20 m (a) 31.5 cm (b) 30.5 cm
(c) 21 m (d) 29 m (c) 62.5 cm (d) none of these

10.7 3-D Figures

3-D Figures are shown below
Name Figure Nomenclature Volume Curved/Lateral Total surface area
surface area

Cuboid l → length lbh 2(l + b) h 2 (lb + bh + hl)

h
b → breadth
h → height
b
l

Cube a → edge/side a3 4a2 6a2

a

a
a

Right circular r r → radius of base πr2h 2πrh 2πr (h + r)

cylinder h → height of the
h cylinder

Right circular r → radius 1 2

πr h πrl πr ( l + r )
cone h → height 3
l l → slant height
h l = r2 + h 2

r
466 QUANTUM CAT
Name Figure Nomenclature Volume Curved/Lateral Total surface
surface area area

Right triangular — area of base × height perimeter of base lateral surface

prism × height area + 2 (area of
base)
h

Base

Right pyramid — 1 1 lateral surface

× area of the base × perimeter of
3 2 area + area of
Slant × height the base × slant the base
height height

Sphere r → radius 4 3
πr — 4πr2
3
r

Hemisphere r r → radius 2 3
πr 2πr2 3πr2
3

Spherical shell r → inner radius 4

π [ R 3 − r3 ] — 4π [ R 2 + r2 ]
R → outer radius 3

R r

Frustum of a r
— π π (r + R ) l lateral surface
h (r2 + Rr + R 2 )
cone 3 area
h l
+ π [ R 2 + r2 ]

R
Mensuration 467

10.8 Cuboid and Cube (c) Diagonal = l 2 + b 2 + h2

G F = 162 + 182 + 242 = 1156 = 34 cm
Cuboid : A cuboid has 6 faces,
12 edges, 8 vertices and 4 diagonals. H E Exp. 2) Edge of a cube is 5 cm. Find :
Faces : h (a) volume (b) surface area (c) diagonal
C
ABCD, EFGH , ABEH , CFGD, D
b Solution Volume = a 3 = (5) 3 = 125 cm 3
BCFE, ADGH A l B Surface area = 6a 2 = 6 × (5) 2 = 150 cm 2
Edges : AB, BC, CD, AD, EF, FG, GH, EH, BE, CF, DG, AH Diagonal = a 3 = 5 3 = 8.660 = 8.66 cm
Vertices : A, B , C , D, E , F , G, H
Exp. 3) Three cubes of volumes, 1 cm 3 , 216 cm 3 and
Diagonals : AF, BG, CH, DE
512 cm 3 are melted to form a new cube. What is the
Formulae : Volume = l × b × h diagonal of the new cube?
(l → length, b → breadth, h → height) Solution Volume of new cube = 1 + 216 + 512 = 729 cm 3
Total surface area = 2 ( lb + bh + hl) ∴ Edge of new cube = 3 729 = 9 cm
Diagonal ( d ) = l 2 + b 2 + h 2 ∴ Surface area = 6a 2 = 6 × ( 9) 2 = 486 cm 2
G F ∴ Diagonal of the new cube = a 3 = 9 3
Cube : A cube has 6 equal faces, 12
=15.6 cm (approx.)
equal edges, 8 vertices and 4 equal H E
diagonals. a Exp. 4) The surface area of a cube is 864 cm 2 . Find its
Formulae : C volume.
D
Volume = ( a ) 3 a Solution 6a 2 = 864 ⇒ a 2 = 144 ⇒ a = 12 cm
A a B ∴ a 3 = (12) 3 = 1728 cm 3
Total surface area = 6( a ) 2
(a → edge of the cube) Exp. 5) Find the length of the longest pole that can be
Diagonal ( d ) = a 3 placed in a room 30 m long, 24 m broad and 18 m high.

Euler’s Theorem → (V + F ) = ( E + 2); where V → number Solution d = l 2 + b 2 + h2

of vertices, F → number of faces, E → number of edges d = 900 + 576 + 324 ⇒ d = 30 2 m

Exp. 1) The dimensions of a cuboid are 16 cm, 18 cm and Exp. 6) A brick measures 20 cm × 10 cm × 7.5 cm. How
24 cm. Find : many bricks will be required for a wall
(a) volume (b) surface area (c) diagonal 20 m × 2 m × 0.75 m?
Solution (a) Volume = l × b × h = 16 × 18 × 24= 6912 cm 3 total volume of a wall
(b) Solution Number of bricks =
volume of one brick
Surface area = 2 ( lb + bh + hl)
20 × 2 × 0.75 × 100 × 100 × 100
= 2 (16 × 18 + 18 × 24 + 24 × 16) = = 20000
20 × 10 × 7.5
= 2208 cm 2

Introductory Exercise 10.5

1. A cube of metal, each edge of which measures 4 cm, 3. The three co-terminus edges of a rectangular solid are
weighs 400 kg. What is the length of each edge of a 36 cm, 75 cm and 80 cm respectively. Find the edge of
cube of the same metal which weighs 3200 kg? a cube which will be of the same capacity.
(a) 64 cm (b) 8 cm (a) 60 cm (b) 52 cm
(c) 2 cm (d) none of these (c) 46 cm (d) none of these
2. The length of a tank is thrice that of breadth, which is 4. A tank 10 m long and 4 m wide is filled with water. How
256 cm deep and holds 3000 L water. What is the base many litres of water must be drawn off to make the
area of the tank? (1000 L = 1 cubic metre) surface sink by 1 m? (1000 L = 1 cubic metre)
(a) 111775 m2 (b) 1171.875 m2 (a) 20 kilolitre (b) 40 kilolitre
2
(c) 1.171875 m (d) none of these (c) 50 kilolitre (d) none of these
468 QUANTUM CAT
5. How many cubes each of surface area 24 sq. dm can 15. Three cubes each of edge 3 cm long are placed
be made out of a metre cube, without any wastage? together as shown in the adjoining figure. Find the
(a) 75 (b) 250 surface area of the cuboid so formed :
(c) 125 (d) 62
6. Three cubes of metal, whose edges are 3 cm, 4 cm and
5 cm respectively are melted to form a new cube. What
3cm

m
is the surface area of the new cube?

3c
(a) 216 cm2 (b) 56 cm2
3cm 3cm 3cm
(c) 36 cm2 (d) none of these
(a) 182 sq cm (b) 162 sq cm
7. A lid of rectangular box of sides 39.5 cm by 9.35 cm is
(c) 126 sq cm (d) none of these
sealed all around with tape such that there is an
16. A room is 36 m long, 12 m wide and 10 m high. It has
overlapping of 3.75 cm of the tape. What is the length
6 windows, each 3 m × 2.5 m; one door 9.5 m × 6 m
of the tape used?
and one fire chimney 4 m × 4.5 m. Find the
(a) 111.54 cm (b) 101.45 cm
expenditure of papering its walls at the rate of
(c) 110.45 cm (d) none of these
70 paise per metre, if the width of the paper is 1.2 m.
8. A cistern from inside is 12.5 m long, 8.5 m broad and (a) ` 490 (b) ` 690
4 m high and is open at top. Find the cost of cementing (c) ` 1000 (d) none of these
the inside of a cistern at ` 24 per sq m.
17. A school hall has the dimensions 30 m, 12 m by 6 m.
(a) ` 6582 (b) ` 8256
Find the number of children who can be
(c) ` 7752 (d) ` 8752
accommodated, if each child should get 8 m3 of
9. 250 men took a dip in a water tank at a time, which is space.
80 m × 50 m. What is the rise in the water level if the (a) 240 (b) 270
average displacement of 1 man is 4 m3 ? (c) 250 (d) 150
(a) 22 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 18 cm (d) 30 cm 18. When each side of a cube is increased by 2 cm, the
10. The edge of a cube is increased by 100%, the surface volume is increased by 1016 cm3 . Find the side of the
area of the cube is increased by : cube. If each side of it is decreased by 2 cm, by how
(a) 100% (b) 200% (c) 300% (d) 400% much will the volume decrease?
11. The edge of a cube is doubled. What will be the new (a) 12 cm, 729 cm3
volume? (b) 8 cm, 512 cm3
(a) 2 times (b) 3 times (c) 9 cm, 729 cm3
(c) 4 times (d) 8 times (d) 12 cm, 728 cm3
12. The external dimensions of a wooden box closed at 19. Three equal cubes are placed adjacently in a row. Find
both ends are 24 cm, 16 cm and 10 cm respectively the ratio of the total surface area of the resulting cuboid
and thickness of the wood is 5 mm. If the empty box to that of the sum of the total surface areas of the three
weighs 7.35 kg, find the weight of 1 cubic cm of wood. cubes.
(a) 10 g (b) 12.5 g (a) 5 : 7 (b) 7 : 9
(c) 27 g (d) 15 g (c) 9 : 7 (d) none of these
13. The internal dimensions of a tank are 12 dm, 8 dm and 20. A hollow square shaped tube open at both ends is
5 dm. How many cubes each of edge 7 cm can be made of iron. The internal square is of 5 cm side and
placed in the tank with faces parallel to the sides of the the length of the tube is 8 cm. There are 192 cm3 of
tank. Find also, how much space is left unoccupied. iron in the tube. Find its thickness.
(a) 35; 113 dm3 (b) 1313; 31.13 dm3 (a) 2 cm (b) 0.5 cm
3
(c) 1309; 31.013 dm (d) 1309; 13.31 dm3 (c) 1 cm (d) can’t be determined
14. The length, breadth and height of box are 2 m, 1.5 m 21. A cube of 11 cm edge is immersed completely in a
and 80 cm respectively. What would be the cost of rectangular vessel containing water. If the dimensions
canvas to cover it up fully, if one square metre of canvas of base are 15 cm and 12 cm. Find the rise in water
costs ` 25.00? level in the vessel.
(a) ` 260 (b) ` 290 (a) 6.85 cm (b) 7 cm
(c) ` 285 (d) none of these (c) 7.31 cm (d) 7.39 cm
Mensuration 469

22. A rectangular tank 25 cm long and 20 cm wide 27. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
contains water to a depth of 5 cm. A metal cube of side Geometrical objects Number of vertices
10 cm is placed in the tank so that one face of the cube (A) Tetrahedron 4
rests on the bottom of the tank. Find how many litres (B) Pyramid with rectangular base 5
of water must be poured into the tank so as to just (C) Cube 6
cover the cube. (D) Triangle 3
(a) 1 L (b) 1.5 L (a) (A) (b) (B)
(c) 2 L (d) 2.5 L (c) (C) (d) (D)
23. A rectangular block has length 10 cm, breadth 8 cm 28. If the length of diagonal of a cube is 6 3 cm, then the
and height 2 cm. From this block, a cubical hole of length of its edge is :
side 2 cm is drilled out. Find the volume and the (a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm
surface area of the remaining solid. 36
(c) 6 cm (d) cm
(a) 152 cm3 , 512 cm2 (b) 125 cm3 , 215 cm2 3
3 2
(c) 152 cm , 240 cm (d) 125 cm3 , 512 cm2 29. The length of longest pole that can be placed on the
24. A rectangular tank of dimensions 24 m × 12 m × 8 m floor of a room is 12 m and the length of longest pole
is dug inside a rectangular field 600 m long and 200 m that can be placed in the room is 15 m. The height of
broad. The earth taken out is evenly spread over the the room is :
field. By how much will the level of the field rise? (a) 3 m (b) 6 m
(a) 1.925 cm (b) 0.02 m (c) 9 m (d) none of these
(c) 0.2 cm (d) none of these 30. The sum of length, breadth and depth of a cuboid is 12
25. How many bricks (number near to next hundred) will cm and its diagonal is 5 2 cm. Its surface area is
be required to build a wall 30 m long, 30 cm thick and (a) 152 cm2 (b) 94 cm2
5 m high with a provision of 2 doors, each 4 m × 2.5 m (c) 108 cm2 (d) 60 2 cm2
and each brick being 20 cm × 16 cm × 8 cm when 31. The volume of a wall, 3 times as high as it is broad and
one-ninth of the wall is filled with lime? 8 times as long as it is high, is 36.864 m3 . The height
(a) 13500 bricks (b) 13600 bricks of the wall is :
(c) 20050 bricks (d) 18500 bricks (a) 1.8 m (b) 2.4 m
26. A rectangular water reservoir is 15 m by 12 m at the (c) 4.2 m (d) none of these
base. Water flows into it through a pipe whose 32. If the areas of 3 adjacent sides of a cuboid are x, y, z
cross-section is 5 cm by 3 cm at the rate of
respectively, then the volume of the cuboid is :
16 m per second. Find the height to which the water
(a) xyz (b) xyz
will rise in the reservoir in 25 min.
(c) 3xyz (d) none of these
(a) 0.2 m (b) 2 cm
(c) 0.5 m (d) none of these

10.9 Cylinder and Cone

Cylinder : Total surface of the cylinder
Volume = base area × height = πr h
2
= curved surface area + 2 (base area)
Curved surface area = 2πrh + 2πr 2 = 2πr ( h + r )
= perimeter × height = 2πrh Volume of a hollow cylinder = πh ( R 2 − r 2 )
Radius
R r

h
Height

Base
470 QUANTUM CAT
Cone : 22
= πr 2 h = × 2 × 2 × 14
7
= 176 m 3
h (height) l (lateral/slant height)
Exp. 3) A hollow cylindrical tube open at both ends is
made of iron 2 cm thick. If the external diameter be 50 cm
and the length of the tube is 210 cm, find the number of
cubic cm of iron in it.
r (radius of the base) Solution External radius (R) = 25 cm
1 Internal radius (r) = ( 25 − 2) = 23 cm
Volume (V ) = × base area × height Volume of iron = πh ( R 2 − r 2 )
3
22
1 = × 210 × ( 25 2 − 23 2 )
= πr 2 h 7
3 = 63360 cm 3
Curved surface area = πrl
Total surface area = πrl + πr 2 = πr ( l + r ) Exp. 4) A well with 14 m inside diameter is dugout
15 m deep. The earth taken out of it has been evenly
Frustum of a cone : spread all around it to a width of 21 m to form an
Volume of the frustum of a cone embarkment. What is the height of the embarkment?
π Solution Area of embarkment × height of embarkment
= h ( r 2 + Rr + R 2 )
3 = volume of earth dugout
π ( R 2 − r 2 ) × h = π × 7 × 7 × 15
⇒ ( 282 − 7 2 ) h = 7 × 7 × 15
⇒ ( 35 × 21) × h = 7 × 7 × 15
r
⇒ h =1m
h l
Exp. 5) A cylindrical cistern whose diameter is
21 cm is partly filled with water. If a rectangular block of
R iron 14 cm in length, 10.5 cm in breadth and 11 cm in
Curved/Lateral surface area of the frustum of cone thickness is wholly immersed in water, by how many
centimetres will the water level rise?
= πl ( r + R )
Solution Volume of the block = 14 × 10.5 × 11 cm 3
Exp. 1) The base radius of a cylinder is 14 cm and its 21
Radius of the tank = = 10.5 cm
height is 30 cm. Find : 2
(a) volume (b) curved surface area 22 21 21
Volume of the cylinder = πr 2 h = × × ×h
(c) total surface area 7 2 2
Solution (a) Volume of cylinder 22 21 21
∴ × × × h = 14 × 10.5 × 11
22 7 2 2
= πr 2 × h = × 14 × 14 × 30
7 14 2
h= = 4 cm
= 18480 cm 3
3 3
22
(b) Curved surface area = 2πrh = 2 × × 14 × 30 Exp. 6) If the radius of cylinder is doubled, but height is
7
= 2640 cm 2 reduced by 50%. What is the percentage change in
(c) Total surface area = 2πr ( h + r) volume?
22 r1 r h1 h
=2× × 14 ( 30 + 14) Solution = and =
7 r2 2r h2 h/2
22 ∴ Actual volume = πr 2 h
=2× × 14 × 44 = 3872 cm2
7 h
New volume = π ( 2r) 2 × = 2πr 2 h
Exp. 2) How many cubic metres of earth must be dug to 2
make a well 14 m deep and 4 m in diameter? Therefore new volume is the twice of the original volume.
Solution Earth to be dugout from the well 2−1
Hence the change in volume = × 100 = 100%
= volume of the cylindrical well 1
Mensuration 471

1
Exp. 7) The radius of the base of a right cone is (d) Volume = πr 2 h
3
35 cm and its height is 84 cm. Find :
1 22
(a) slant height = × × 35 × 35 × 84 = 107800 cm 3
3 7
(b) curved surface area
(c) total surface area Exp. 8) Find the area of the iron sheet required to
(d) volume prepare a cone 20 cm high with base radius 21 cm.
Solution (a) Slant height( l) = r 2 + h2 Solution r = 21 cm, h = 20 cm
(r → radius of the circular base) ∴ l = r 2 + h2 = 29 cm
= 35 + 84
2 2
(h → height of the cone) ∴ Area of the sheet = total surface area of the cone
= 1225 + 7056 = πrl + πr 2 = πr ( l + r)
22
= 8281 = 91 cm = × 21 [29 + 21] = 3300 cm 2
7
22
(b) Curved surface area = πrl = × 35 × 91
7 Exp. 9) A solid metallic cylinder of base radius
= 10010 cm 2 3 cm and height 5 cm is melted to make n solid cones of
height 1 cm and base radius 1 mm. Find the value of n.
(c) Total surface area = lateral surface area + base area
volume of cylinder
= πrl + πr 2 = πr ( l + r) Solution n=
volume of one cone
22 π × 3 × 3 ×5
= × 35 ( 91 + 84) = = 13500
7 1 1 1
= 110 × 175 = 19250 cm 2 π× × ×1
3 10 10

Introductory Exercise 10.6

1. How many cubic metres of water fill a pipe which is 6. The amount of concrete required to build a cylindrical
3500 m long and 0.08 m in diameter? pillar whose base has a perimeter of 8.8 m and whose
(a) 17.5 m3 (b) 17.6 m3 (c) 21 m3 (d) 35 m3 curved surface area is 17.6 m2 :
(a) 12.32 m3 (b) 12.23 m3
2. A cube of metal, whose edge is 10 cm, is wholly 3
(c) 9.235 m (d) 8.88 m3
immersed in water contained in cylindrical tube whose
diameter is 20 cm. By how much will the water level 7. If the diameter of the base of a closed right circular
rise in the tube? cylinder be equal to its height ‘h’, then its whole
3 surface area is :
(a) 3.3 cm (b) 6 cm
11 2 3 3
(a) πh2 (b) πh3 (c) πh2 (d) πh3
2 3 2 2
(c) 3 cm (d) none of these
11 8. A right circular cylindrical tunnel of diameter 4 m and
3. Find the height of the cylinder whose volume is 511 m3 length 10 m is to be constructed from a sheet of iron.
and the area of the base is 36.5 m2 : The area of the iron sheet required :
280
(a) 7 m (b) 10.5 m (a) (b) 40 π
(c) 14 m (d) none of these π
(c) 80 π (d) none of these
4. The lateral surface area of a cylinder is 1056 cm2 and
its height is 16 cm. What is its volume? 9. The ratio between curved surface area and total
(a) 5566 cm3 (b) 4455 cm3 surface area is 2 : 3. If the total surface area be
(c) 5544 cm 3
(d) none of these 924 cm2, find the volume of the cylinder :
(a) 2156 cm3 (b) 1256 cm3
5. There is a cubical block of wood of side 2 cm. If the 3
(c) 1265 cm (d) none of these
cylinder of the largest possible volume is curved out
from it. Find the volume of the remaining wood : 10. If the volume and curved surface area of a cylinder are
7 12 269.5 cm3 and 154 cm2 respectively, what is the height
(a) cm2 (b) cm3 of the cylinder?
12 7
5 (a) 6 (b) 3.5
(c) 5 cm3 (d) none of these
7 (c) 7 (d) can’t be determined
472 QUANTUM CAT
11. If the curved surface area of a cylinder is 1320 cm2 and 21. A conical vessel has a capacity of 15 L of milk. Its
its base radius is 21 cm, then its total surface area is : height is 50 cm and base radius is 25 cm. How much
(a) 4092 cm2 (b) 2409 cm2 milk can be contained in a vessel in cylindrical form
(c) 4920 cm 2
(d) none of these having the same dimensions as that of the cone?
(a) 15 L (b) 30 L
12. The ratio between the radius of the base and the height
(c) 45 L (d) none of these
of a cylindrical pillar is 3 : 4. If its volume is 4851 m3 ,
the curved surface area of the pillar is : 22. The height of a cone is 30 cm. A small cone is cut off
(a) 924 m2 (b) 1617 m2 at the top by a plane parallel to the base. If its
2 1
(c) 425 m (d) none of these volume be of the volume of the given cone, at
27
13. If the ratio of total surface area to the curved surface what height above the base is the section made?
area of a cylinder be 4 : 1, what is the ratio of radius to (a) 20 cm (b) 18 cm (c) 27 cm (d) 15 cm
the height?
23. A tent is in the form of right circular cone 10.5 m high,
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 2 : 3
the diameter of the base being 13 m. If 8 men are in
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 3 : 1
the tent, find the average number of cubic metres of
14. The circumference of the base of a right cylinder is air space per man.
33 cm and height is 330 cm. What is the volume of this 3 9 3
cylinder? (a) 32 (b) 59.75 (c) 36 (d) 58
58 13 32
(a) 28586.25 cm3 (b) 3344 cm3
3 24. The radius and height of a right circular cone are in the
(c) 4433 cm (d) 3456 cm3 2
ratio of 5 : 12. If its volume is 314 m3 , its slant height
15. The radius of an iron rod decreased to one-fourth. If its 7
volume remains constant, the length will become : is :
(a) 2 times (b) 8 times (a) 26 m (b) 19.5 m
(c) 4 times (d) 16 times (c) 13 m (d) none of these
16. The total surface area of the cylinder is 2640 m2 25. The volume and height of a right circular cone are
and the sum of height and radius of base of cylinder is 1232 cm3 and 24 cm respectively, the area of its
30 m. What is the ratio of height and radius of the curved surface (in cm2) is :
cylinder? (a) 1100 (b) 225 (c) 616 (d) 550
(a) 7 : 9 (b) 9 : 7 26. The circumference of the base of a right circular cone
(c) 8 : 7 (d) 3 : 7 is 220 cm3 and its height 84 cm. The curved surface
area of the cone is :
17. The radii of two cylinders are in the ratio of 3 : 5 and
(a) 20020 cm2 (b) 2020 cm2
their heights are in the ratio 4 : 3. The ratio of their
(c) 2200 cm2 (d) 10010 cm2
volumes is :
(a) 12 : 25 (b) 13 : 25 27. How many metres of cloth 10 m wide will be required
to make a conical tent with base radius of 14 m and
(c) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 4
height is 48 m?
18. The heights of two cylinders are in the ratio of 3 : 1. If (a) 110 m (b) 55 m (c) 77 m (d) 220 m
the volumes of two cylinders be same, the ratio of their
28. A cone of height 2.8 cm has a lateral surface area
respective radii are :
23.10 m2. The radius of the base is :
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
(a) 3.5 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 2.1 cm (d) 4 cm
(c) 1 : 9 (d) none of these
29. The radii of two cones are equal and their slant heights
19. The ratio of heights of two cylinders is 3 : 2 and the
are in the ratio 3 : 2. If the curved surface area of the
ratio of their radii is 6 : 7. What is the ratio of their smaller cone is 300 cm2, then the curved surface area
curved surface areas? of the bigger cone (in cm2) is :
(a) 9 : 7 (b) 1 : 1 (a) 250 (b) 450 (c) 150 (d) 200
(c) 7 : 9 (d) 7 : 4
30. The ratio of the volume of a right circular cylinder and
20. A hollow garden roller 42 cm wide with a girth of a right circular cone of the same base and height will
132 cm is made of iron 3 cm thick. The volume of the be :
iron of the roller is : (a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 9 : 1
(a) 15544 cm3
31. If the diameter of the base of right circular cone is
(b) 15444 cm3 equal to 8 cm and its slant height is 5 cm, then the
(c) 15545 cm3 area of its axial section is :
(d) none of the above (a) 9 cm2 (b) 12 cm2 (c) 20 cm2 (d) 40 cm2
Mensuration 473

32. If the base radius and the height of a right circular 37. A conical tent has 60° angle at the vertex. The ratio of
cone are increased by 40%, then the percentage its radius and slant height is :
increase in volume (approx) is : (a) 3 : 2 (b) 1 : 2
(a) 175% (b) 120% (c) 1 : 3 (d) can’t be determined
(c) 64% (d) 540%
38. Water flows at the rate of 5 m per min from a cylindrical
33. From a circular sheet of paper of radius 25 cm, a pipe 16 mm in diameter. How long will it take to fill up a
sector area 4% is removed. If the remaining part is conical vessel whose radius is 12 cm and depth is 35
used to make a conical surface, then the ratio of the cm?
radius and height of the cone is : (a) 315 s (b) 365 s
(a) 16 : 25 (b) 9 : 25
(c) 5 min (d) none of these
(c) 7 : 12 (d) 24 : 7
39. A reservoir is in the shape of a frustum of a right
34. If the radius of the base is doubled, keeping the height
circular cone. It is 8 m across at the top and 4 m
constant, what is the ratio of the volume of the larger
across at the bottom. It is 6 m deep its capacity is :
cone to the smaller cone?
(a) 224 m3 (b) 176 m3
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 4 : 3 3
(c) 225 m (d) none of these
35. A largest possible cone is cut out from a cube of
40. A conical vessel whose internal radius is 10 cm and
volume 1000 cm3 . The volume of the cone is :
height 72 cm is full of water. If this water is poured into
(a) 280 cm3 (b) 261.9 cm3
3 a cylindrical vessel with internal radius 30 cm, the
(c) 269.1 cm (d) 296.1 cm3 height of the water level rises in it is :
36. If the height and the radius of a cone are doubled, the 2 2
(a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm
volume of the cone becomes : 3 3
(a) 2 times (b) 8 times 2
(c) 5 cm (d) none of these
(c) 16 times (d) 4 times 3

10.10 Sphere, Prism and Pyramid

Sphere Circles in the Sphere
(i) Great Circle: If a plane Large Circle

r (radius)
cuts the sphere at the
centre, we get two
hemispheres of equal
4 3 volume and equal surface
Volume = πr , Surface area = 4πr 2
3 area. In this case, the circles that we get are called great
circles, since these are the circles with the greatest
Hemisphere : r (radius) possible chords. The longest chord (or diameter) of the
2
Volume = πr 3 great circle is same as the longest chord (or diameter) of
3 the sphere.
Curved surface area = 2πr 2 (ii) Small Circle: If a plane cuts the spheres in such a way
that the cut is not made through the centre of the sphere,
Total surface area = 3πr 2 = (2πr 2 + πr 2 )
then we get two frustums of unequal volume and
Spherical shell : unequal lateral surface area, but the area of the two
4 circles would be same. However, these circles would be
Volume = π (R 3 − r 3 ) called as small circles, since the diameter of these circles
3
is shorter than the diameter of the sphere.
Total surface area = 4π ( R 2 + r 2 ) Small Circle

R
r
474 QUANTUM CAT
Spherical cap of a Sphere Sector of a Sphere
If a plane cuts the sphere into two portions then each portion A sector of a sphere is the solid subtended at the centre of the
is known as a cap. sphere by a segment. Essentially, a sector of a sphere is the
The larger portion is known as major cap and the smaller combination of the spherical cap and the cone, where the
portion is known as minor cap. base of spherical cap and sphere are the same and the vertex
of the cone is the centre of the sphere. It is just like an
ice-cream cone.
R

R
Sphere Major Cap Minor Cap

Let us consider the radius of sphere as R and the

radius of the small circle as r and the height of the
cap as h.
πh 2 Let us consider the radius of the sphere as R and height of the
Volume of a Spherical cap = ( h + 3r 2 ) spherical cap of the sphere as h.
6
(If r is known) Volume of the Spherical Sector = Volume of the spherical
πh 2 2πR 2 h
Volume of a Spherical cap = (3R − h) cap + Volume of the cone =
3 3
(If R is known) Total Surface Area of the Spherical Sector = Lateral surface
Lateral Surface Area of a Spherical Cap = perimeter of area of the spherical cap + Lateral surface area of the cone
the sphere×height of the cap = 2πRh = πR (2h + r )

Total Surface Area of a Spherical Cap = 2πRh + πr 2 Prism

= π (2r 2 + h 2 ) Volume = Base area × height

Zone or Frustum of a Sphere

The portion of the surface of a sphere included between two
h (height)
parallel planes, which intersect the sphere, is called a zone.
The distance between the two planes is called height or Base
thickness of the zone.
Lateral surface area
r1 = perimeter of the base × height

r2

h (height)

Let us consider the radius of the sphere as R, height of the Base

zone as h and the radii of the two small circles as r1 and r2 .
πh 2 Pyramid
Volume of the zone = ( h + 3r12 + 3r22 ) 1
6 Volume = × base area × height
Lateral Surface Area of the zone 3
= perimeter of the sphere × height of the zone = 2 πR h 1
Lateral surface area = × Slant height (l)
Total Surface Area of the zone 2
= 2π (rh + r12 + r22 ) perimeter of the base
× slant height Base
Mensuration 475

Total surface area = lateral surface area + base area Curved surface area = 2πr 2
22 7 7
=2× × × = 77 cm 2
l (slant height) 7 2 2
l (slant height) Total surface area = 3 πr 2
22 7 7
=3× × ×
7 2 2
= 115.5 cm 2

Base
Base
Exp. 3) How many bullets can be made from a sphere of
Exp. 1) Find the volume and surface area of a sphere of 8 cm radius. The radius of each bullet must be 0.2 cm.
radius 3.5 cm. volume of sphere
4 3 Solution Number of bullets =
Solution Volume = πr volume of 1 bullet
3 4
4 22 π ×8×8×8
= × × 3.5 × 3.5 × 3.5 = 179.66 cm 3 = 3 = 64000
3 7 4
π × 0.2 × 0.2 × 0.2
Surface area = 4πr 2 3
22
=4× × 3.5 × 3.5 = 154 cm 2
7 Exp. 4) A sphere has the same curved surface as a cone
of height 12 cm and base radius 5 cm. Find the radius to the
Exp. 2) Find the volume, curved surface area and total
nearest cm.
surface area of a hemisphere of diameter 7 cm.
Solution 4πr 2 = π × 5 × 13
2 3
Solution Volume = πr 65
3 ⇒ r2 =
2 22 7 7 7 4
= × × × × = 89.833 cm 3 ⇒ r = 4 cm (approx.)
3 7 2 2 2

Introductory Exercise 10.7

1. A spherical ball of lead 6 cm in radius is melted and 5. The volume of a spherical shell whose external and
recast into three spherical balls. The radii of two of internal diameters are 14 cm and 10 cm respectively
these balls are 3 cm and 4 cm. What is the radius of 872
(a) 42 π cm3 (b) π cm3
the third sphere? 3
(a) 4.5 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 118 π cm3 (d) 86 π cm3
(c) 6 cm (d) 7 cm 6. A solid metal ball of diameter 16 cm is melted and
2. The radius of a copper sphere is 12 cm. The sphere is cast into smaller balls, each of radius 1 cm. The
melted and drawn into a long wire of uniform circular number of such balls is :
cross-section. If the length of the wire is (a) 256 (b) 2048 (c) 512 (d) 4096
144 cm, the radius of wire is : 7. If a hemispherical dome has an inner radius 21 cm
(a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm then its volume (in m3 ) is :
(c) 4 cm (d) none of these (a) 4910 m3
3. A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 6 cm contains (b) 18354 m3
alcohol. This alcohol is to be filled into cylindrical (c) 19404 m3
shaped small bottles of diameter 6 cm and height (d) none of the above
1 cm. How many bottles will be needed to empty the 8. A sphere of radius 9 cm is dropped into a cylindrical
bowl? vessel partly filled with water. The radius of the vessel
(a) 36 (b) 27 (c) 16 (d) 4 is 12 cm. If the sphere is submerged completely, then
4. A hemisphere of lead of diameter 14 cm is cast into a the surface of the water rises by :
right circular cone of height 14 cm. The radius of the (a) 27.5 cm
base of the cone is : (b) 27 cm
(a) 7 cm (b) 14 cm (c) 12 cm
(c) 21 cm (d) none of these (d) 6.75 cm
476 QUANTUM CAT
9. If the height of a cone is half the radius of a sphere Directions (for Q. Nos. 15 to 17) Answer these questions
then the radius of the base of the cone, which has the based on the following information.
same volume as a sphere of radius 7 cm is : A sphere of 17 cm radius is cut by two parallel planes
14
(a) 14 m (b) cm which are 7 cm apart but on the same side of the centre of
2
the sphere. The radius of one of the ends of the zone (or
(c) 14 2 cm (d) none of these
frustum) is 8 cm.
10. From a solid sphere of radius 15 cm, a right circular
15. What is the volume of the zone?
cylindrical hole of radius 9 cm whose axis passing 3206
through the centre is removed. The total surface area (a) 786π (b) π
3
of the remaining solid is : 4096
(c) 1786π (d) π
(a) 1188 π cm2 (b) 1080 π cm2 3
(c) 1152 π cm 2
(d) 1440 π cm2
16. What is the volume of the larger spherical cap of the
11. If a plane cuts the hemisphere parallel to the great two?
circle of the hemisphere, the portion of hemisphere 15650 14400
(a) π (b) π
that has the great circle is called as 7 3
(a) Cone (b) sector 16250
(c) π (d) none of these
(c) zone (d) spherical cap 3
Directions (for Q. Nos. 12 to 14) Answer these questions 17. What is the total surface area of the smaller spherical
based on the following information. cap of the two?
A sphere of 5 cm radius is cut by two parallel planes which (a) 72π (b) 81π
are 7 cm apart but on the opposite sides of the centre of the (c) 68π (d) none of these
sphere. The radius of one of the ends of the zone is 3 cm. 18. Find the volume of the sector of a sphere of radius 25 cm.
The radius of the base of the conical base is 7 cm.
12. What is the volume (in cu. cm.) of the zone?
1280
434 112 (a) 344 2π (b) π
(a) π (b) π 3
3 3
1250
541 (c) 120 3π (d) π
(c) π (d) 121π 3
3
13. What is the volume (in cu. cm.) of the smaller 19. The volume of a pyramid of base area 25 cm2 and
spherical cap of the two? height 12 cm is :
21 17 14 (a) 200 cm3 (b) 100 cm3
(a) π (b) π (c) π (d) 6π
5 4 3 (c) 400 cm3 (d) 800 cm3
14. What is the lateral surface area (in sq. cm.) of the 20. If the base of right rectangular prism remains constant
larger spherical cap of the two? and the measures of the lateral edges are halved, then
(a) 10π (b) 16π its volume will be reduced by :
(c) 25π (d) 20π (a) 50% (b) 33.33%
(c) 66.66% (d) none of these
Mensuration 477

CAT-Test
Questions Helping you bell the CAT

Multifaceted Exercise
1 If the side of an equilateral triangle is r, then the area of the 9 If the surface areas of two spheres are in the ratio
triangle varies directly as : 4 : 9, then the ratio of their volumes is :
(a) r (b) r (c) r2 (d) r3 (a) 8 : 25 (b) 8 : 26
2 The length of the minute hand of the clock is 6 cm. The area (c) 8 : 27 (d) 8 : 28
swept by the minute hand in 30 minutes is : 10 The side of a rhombus are 10 cm and one of its diagonal is
1 1 16 cm. The area of the rhombus is :
(a) cm2 (b) cm2
36π 18π (a) 96 cm2 (b) 95 cm2
2
(c) 18π cm2 (d) 36π cm2 (c) 94 cm (d) 93 cm2
11 In the adjoining figure PQRS is a
3 If the diagonals of a rhombus are 18 cm and 24 cm S
respectively, then its perimeter is : rectangle 8 cm × 6 cm, inscribed in the P
(a) 15 cm (b) 42 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 70 cm circle. The area of the shaded portion
will be : Q R
4 If the ratio of diagonals of two squares is 3 : 2 then the ratio
(a) 48 cm2
of the areas of two squares is :
(b) 42.50 cm2
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 6 : 5
(c) 32.50 cm2
(c) 9 : 4 (d) 3 : 2 (d) 30.5 cm2
5 In the given figure, ABCD is a 8m 12 In the adjoining figure AB = CD = 2BC = 2BP = 2CQ . In the
trapezium in which the parallel D C
sides AB, CD are both middle, a circle with radius 1 cm is drawn. In the rest figure
perpendicular to BC. Find the all are the semicircular arcs. What is the perimeter of the
m

area of the trapezium. whole figure?

17

(a) 140 m2
(b) 168 m2 E
B
2 A
(c) 180 m 16m
A P B O C Q D
(d) 156.4 m2
6 One cubic metre piece of copper is melted and recast into a (a) 4π (b) 8π
square cross-section bar, 36 m long. An exact cube is cut off
(c) 10π (d) none of these
from this bar. If cubic metre of copper cost ` 108, then the
cost of this cube is : 13 In a shower 10 cm of rain fall the volume of water that falls
(a) 50 paisa (b) 75 paisa on 1.5 hectares of ground is :
(c) 1 rupee (d) 1.50 rupee (a) 1500 m3 (b) 1400 m3
7 If ‘h’ be the height of a pyramid standing on a base which is (c) 1200 m3 (d) 1000 m3
an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’ units, then the slant height 14 The base of a prism is a right angle triangle and the two
is : sides containing the right angle are 8 cm and 15 cm. If its
(a) h 2 + a2/4 (b) h 2 + a2/8 height is 20 cm, then the volume of the prism is :
(a) 1600 cc (b) 300 cc
(c) h 2 + a2/3 (d) h 2 + a2
(c) 1200 cc (d) 600 cc
8 The area of the square base of a right pyramid is 64 cm2. If 15 A conical circus tent is to be made of canvas. The height of
the area of each triangle forming the slant surface is 22
the tent is 35 m and the radius of the base is 84 m. If π = ,
20 cm2, then the volume of the pyramid is : 7
128 then the canvas required is :
(a) 64 cm3 (b) cm3
3 (a) 24000 m2 (b) 24004 m2
64
(c) 3 cm3 (d) 64 2 cm3 (c) 24014 m2 (d) 24024 m2
3
478 QUANTUM CAT
16 The radius of base and the volume of a right circular cone 25 If BC passes through centre of the circle, then the area of
are doubled. The ratio of the length of the larger cone to the shaded region in the given figure is :
that of the smaller cone is : a2
(a) (3 − π ) B
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2 2
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1 π 
(b) a2  − 1 a
17 A cone and a hemisphere have equal base diameter and 2 
a
equal volumes. The ratio of their heights is : (c) 2a2 (π − 1) A C
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 a2  π 
(d)  − 1
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 3 2 2 
18 A hollow sphere of internal and external diameters 4 cm 26 A river 3 m deep and 60 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2.4
and 8 cm respectively is melted to form a solid cylinder of
km/h. The amount of water running into the sea per
base diameter 8 cm. The height of the cylinder is
minute is :
approximately :
(a) 6000 m3 (b) 6400 m3
(a) 4.5 cm (b) 4.57 cm
(c) 6800 m3 (d) 7200 m3
(c) 4.67 cm (d) 4.7 cm
19 The perimeter of the figure given below correct to one 27 A cone whose height is 15 cm and radius of base is 6 cm is
decimal place is : trimmed sufficiently to reduce it to a pyramid whose base is
an equilateral triangle. The volume of the portion removed
2m
is :
(a) 330 cm3 (b) 328 cm3
10 m 3
(c) 325 cm (d) 331 cm3
28 If a solid right circular cylinder is made of iron is heated to
2m
increase its radius and height by 1% each, then the volume
2m 2m of the solid is increased by :
20m (a) 1.01% (b) 3.03%
(a) 56 m (b) 56.6 m (c) 2.02% (d) 1.2%
(c) 57.2 m (d) 57.9 m 29 The base of a prism is a regular hexagon. If every edge of
20 The sum of the radii of the two circle is 140 cm and the the prism measures 1 m, then the volume of the prism is :
difference between their circumference is 88 cm. The 3 2 3 3 3 3
(a) m (b) m
radius of the larger circle is : 2 2
(a) 60 cm (b) 70 cm 6 2 3 5 3 3
(c) 63 cm (d) 77 cm (c) m (d) m
5 2
21 If the lateral surface of a right circular cone is 2 times its 30 If the side of a square is 24 cm, then the circumference of its
base, then the semi-vertical angle of the cone must be : circumscribed circle (in cm) is :
(a) 15° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60° (a) 24 3π (b) 24 2π (c) 12 2π (d) 24π
22 There is a pyramid on a base which is a regular hexagon of 31 An isosceles right angled triangle has area 112.5 m2. The
(5a)
side 2a. If every slant edge of this pyramid is of length , length of its hypotenuse (in cm) is :
2
(a) 21.213 (b) 21.013
then the volume of this pyramid must be :
(c) 21.113 (d) 21.313
(a) 3a3 (b) 3a3 2
3 32 Two circles of unit radii, are so drawn that the centre of
(c) 3a 3 (d) 6a3
each lies on the circumference of the other. The area of the
14 region, common to both the circles, is :
23 The slant height of a conical tent made of canvas is m.
3 (4π − 3 3) (4π − 6 3)
The radius of tent is 2.5 m. The width of the canvas is 1.25 (a) (b)
12 12
m. If the rate of canvas per metre is ` 33, then the total cost
of the canvas required for the tent (in `) is : (4π − 3 3) (4π − 6 3)
(c) (d)
(a) 726 (b) 950 6 6
(c) 960 (d) 968 33 If the right circular cone is separated into three solids of
24 A hemispherical basin 150 cm in diameter holds water one volumes V1, V2 and V3 by two planes which are parallel to
hundred and twenty times as much a cylindrical tube. If the the base and trisects the altitude, then V1 : V2 : V3 is :
height of the tube is 15 cm, then the diameter of the tube (a) 1 : 2 : 3
(in cm) is : (b) 1 : 4 : 6
(a) 23 (b) 24 (c) 1 : 6 : 9
(c) 25 (d) 26 (d) 1 : 7 : 19
Mensuration 479

34 Water flows at the rate of 10 m per minute from a 45 Find the area of the shaded region in 6
D C
cylindrical pipe 5 mm in diameter. A conical vessel whose the given figure of square ABCD :
diameter is 40 cm and depth 24 cm is filled. The time taken (a) 128 cm2
to fill the conical vessel is : (b) 192 cm2 16
(a) 50 min (b) 50 min. 12 sec. 2
(c) 148 cm 8
(c) 51 min. 12 sec (d) 51 min. 15 sec
(d) 168 cm2 A B
35 The length of four sides and a 10
7 cm 46 In the following figure
diagonal of the given 5 cm
quadrilateral are indicated in the AB = BC and AC = 84 cm.
6 cm
diagram. If A denotes the area The radius of the inscribed
and l the length of the other circle is 14 cm. B is the centre
diagonal, then A and l are 7 cm 5 cm of the largest semi- circle.
A B C
respectively : What is the area of the
(a) 12 6, 4 6 (b) shaded region?
12 6, 5 6 (a) 335 cm2 (b) 770 cm2
2
(c) 6 6, 4 6 (d) 6 6, 5 6 (c) 840 cm (d) 650 cm2
36 If a regular square pyramid has a base of side 8 cm and 47 A tank 4 m long and 2.5 m wide and 6 m deep is dug in a
height of 30 cm, then its volume is : field 10 m long and 9 m wide. If the earth dugout is evenly
(a) 120 cc (b) 240 cc spread over the field, the rise in level of the field will be :
(a) 80 cm (b) 75 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 30 cm
(c) 640 cc (d) 900 cc
37 A cylinder circumscribes a sphere. The ratio of their
48 An open box is made of wood 2 cm thick. Its internal length
is 86 cm, breadth 46 cm and height is 38 cm. The cost of
volumes is
painting the outer surface of the box at
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 4 : 3 (d) 5 : 6
` 10 per m2 is :
38 In triangle ABC, BC = 8 cm, AC = 15 cm and AB = 17 cm. (a) ` 18.5 (b) ` 8.65
The length of the altitude drawn from B on AC is : (c) ` 11.65 (d) ` 17.50
(a) 6 cm (b) 7 cm 49 A rectangular tin sheet is 22 m long and 8 m broad. It is
(c) 8 cm (d) 10 cm rolled along its length to form a cylinder by making the
39 The area of the largest possible square inscribed in a circle opposite edges just to touch each other. The volume of the
of unit radius (in square unit) is : cylinder (in m3) is :
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 3π (d) 2 (a) 385 (b) 204
40 The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a (c) 280π (d) 308
semicircle of radius r is : 50 The lateral surface of a cylinder is developed into a square
2
 r whose diagonal is 2 2 cm. The area of the base of the
(a) r2 cm2 (b)   cm2
 3 cylinder (in cm2) is :
(c) r 2 cm2 (d) 3 3r cm2 (a) 3π (b) 1/ π
(c) π (d) 6π
41 If a regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle of radius r, then
its perimeter is 51 If from a circular sheet of paper of radius 15 cm, a sector of
(a) 6 3r (b) 6r 144° is removed and the remaining is used to make a
(c) 3r (d) 12r conical surface, then the angle at the vertex will be :
 3  6
42 If a regular hexagon circumscribes a circle of radius r, then (a) sin −1   (b) sin −1  
 10  5
its perimeter is :
 3  4
(a) 4 3r (b) 6 3r (c) 2 sin −1   (d) 2 sin −1  
(c) 6r (d) 12 3r  5  5
43 In the adjoining figure there D 52 A right circular cone of radius 4 cm and slant height 5 cm is
are three semicircles in which carved out from a cylindrical piece of wood of same radius
BC = 6 cm and BD = 6 3 cm. and height 5 cm. The surface area of the remaining wood
What is the area of the shaded is :
region 90° (a) 84π (b) 70π
(in cm) : A B C (c) 76π (d) 50π
(a) 12π (b) 9π 53 If h, s, V be the height, curved surface area and volume of a
(c) 27 π (d) 28π cone respectively, then (3πVh 3 + 9V 2 − s 2h 2 ) is equal to
44 Area of a rhombus is 144 cm2 and the ratio of length of two (a) 0 (b) π
diagonals is 1 : 2. The sum of lengths of its diagonals are : V 36
(a) 72 cm (b) 40 cm (c) (d)
sh V
(c) 36 cm (d) 18 2 cm
480 QUANTUM CAT
54 If a cone is cut into two parts by a horizontal plane passing 57 A cylinder is circumscribed about a hemisphere and a cone
through the mid point of its axis, the ratio of the volumes of is inscribed in the cylinder so as to have its vertex at the
the upper part and the frustum is : centre of one end and the other end as its base. The
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 volumes of the cylinder, hemisphere and the cone are
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 7 respectively in the ratio of :
55 A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases (a) 3 : 3 : 2 (b) 3 : 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 : 3 (d) 2 : 3 : 1
of radius R and have equal heights H. Their whole surfaces 58 The base of a pyramid is a rectangle 40 m long and 20 m
are in the ratio : wide. The slant height of the pyramid from the mid-point of
(a) ( 3 + 1): 3 : 4 (b) ( 2 + 1): 7 : 8 the shorter side of the base to the apex is 29 m. What is the
(c) ( 2 + 1): 3 : 4 (d) none of these volume of pyramid?
56 If a sphere is placed inside a right circular cylinder so as to (a) 5600 m3 (b) 400 m3
3
touch the top, base and the lateral surface of the cylinder. If (c) 6500 m (d) 1753 110 m3
the radius of the sphere is R, the volume of the cylinder is : 59 A copper wire when bent in the form of a square, encloses
(a) 2πR 3 (b) 8πR 3 an area of 121 m2. If the same wire is bent to form a circle,
4
(c) πR 3 (d) none of these the area enclosed by it would be :
3 (a) 122 m2 (b) 112 m2 (c) 154 m2 (d) 308 m2

LEVEL 01 > BASIC LEVEL EXERCISE

1 The perimeter of a parallelogram with one internal angle 7 A square ABCD has an equilateral triangle drawn on the
150° is 64 cm. Find the length of its sides when its area is side AB (interior of the square). The triangle has vertex at
maximum. G. What is the measure of the angle CGB ?
(a) 16, 16 (b) 15, 17 (a) 60° (b) 80°
(c) 14, 18 (d) can’t be determined (c) 75° (d) 90°
2 A sphere of 30 cm radius is dropped into a cylindrical vessel 8 There are two concentric circles whose areas are in the
of 80 cm diameter, which is partly filled with water, then its ratio of 9 : 16 and the difference between their diameters is
level rises by x cm. Find x. 4 cm. What is the area of the outer circle?
(a) 27.5 cm (b) 22.5 cm (a) 32 cm2 (b) 64π cm2
(c) 18.5 cm (d) none of these (c) 36 cm2 (d) 48 cm2
3 Amit walked 12 m toward east, then he turned to his right
9 A square and rhombus have the same base. If the rhombus
and walked 18 m. He then turned to his right and walked
is inclined at 60°, find the ratio of area of square to the area
12 m. He again turned to his right and walked 28 m then he
of the rhombus.
again turned to his right and walked 24 m. At what
distance is he from the starting point and in which (a) 2 3 : 3 (b) 1 : 3
direction? (c) 3 : 2 (d) none of these
(a) 23 m north-east (b) 26 m north-east 10 Four isosceles triangles are cut off from the corners of a
(c) 26 m west (d) 34 m north-east square of area 400 m2. Find the area of new smaller square
4 Find the inradius of triangle if its area is 30 cm2 and (in m2).
200
hypotenuse is 13 cm. (a) 200 2 (b)
(a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm 2
(c) 2.5 cm (d) 2 2 cm (c) 200 (d) 100 2
5 Which of the following figure will have maximum area if 11 Altitude and base of a right angle triangle are ( x + 2) and
the perimeter of all figures is same? (2x + 3) (in cm). If the area of the triangle be 60 cm2, the
(a) Square (b) Octagon length of the hypotenuse is :
(a) 21 cm (b) 13 cm
(c) Circle (d) Hexagon
(c) 17 cm (d) 15 cm
6 ABCD is a trapezium with ∠ A = 90° and AB parallel to CD.
Then ∠ B is :
12 Find the area of a regular octagon with each side ‘a’ cm.
(a) 2a2 (1 + 2) (b) 2a (1 + π )
(a) 90° (b) 90° − ∠ C
(c) 360° − ∠ C (d) 180° − ∠ C (c) a2 ( 2 + 2) (d) none of these
Mensuration 481

13 ABCD is a square, 4 equal circles are just 20 A solid sphere is melted and recast into a right circular cone
touching each other whose centres are D C with a base radius equal to the radius of the sphere. What is
the vertices A, B, C , D of the square. the ratio of the height and radius of the cone so formed?
What is the ratio of the shaded to the (a) 4 : 3 (b) 2 : 3
unshaded area within square? A B (c) 3 : 4 (d) none of these
8 3 21 In the given figure there are 3 semicircles, the radii of each
(a) (b)
11 11 smaller circle is equal. If the radius of the larger circle be
5 6 22 cm, then the area of the shaded region is :
(c) (d)
11 11
14 ABCD is a trapezium, in which AD || BC , E and F are the
mid-points of AB and CD respectively, then EF is :
( AD + BC ) C
(a)
2 F π π
(a) 363 (b) 363 (c) 236.5 π (d) 363π
( AB + CD ) D 4 3
(b)
2 22 A rectangular lawn 60 m × 40 m has two roads each 5 m
DF × CF
(c) wide running in the middle of it, one parallel to length and
AE × BE the other parallel to breadth. The cost of gravelling the
A E B
AD + EF + BC roads at 80 paise per sq. m is :
(d)
2 (a) ` 380 (b) ` 385
4
15 A right circular cone resting on its base is cut at th its (c) ` 400 (d) none of these
5
height along a plane parallel to the circular base. The 23 There are two rectangular fields of same area. The length
height of original cone is 75 cm and base diameter is of first rectangular field is x% less than the length of the
42 cm. What is the base radius of cut out (top portion) cone? second field and breadth of the first field is (5x )% greater
(a) 4.2 cm (b) 2.8 cm (c) 3.5 cm (d) 8.4 cm than the breadth of the second field. What is the value of x?
16 l, b are the length and breadth of a rectangle respectively. If (a) 15 (b) 25
the perimeter of this rectangle is numerically equal to the (c) 50 (d) 80
area of the rectangle. What is the value of l − b (where l > b)? 24 In the adjoining figure ACB is a quadrant with radius ‘a’. A
(a) 1 (b) 2 semicircle is drawn outside the quadrant taking AB as a
(c) 3 (d) can’t be determined diameter. Find the area of shaded region.
17 In the adjoining figure ABC is an equilateral triangle and C 1
(a) (π − 2a2 )
is the centre of the circle, A and B lie on the circle. What is 4
the area of the shaded region, if the diameter of the circle is  1 A B
(b)   (πa2 − a2 )
28 cm?  4
 2  a2
(a) 102 − 49 3 cm2 A B
 3  (c) a 90° a
2
 2 
(b) 103 − 98 3 cm2 C (d) can’t be determined C
 3 
25 Ravi made an error of 5% in excess while measuring the
(c) (109 − 38 3) cm length of rectangle and an error of 8% deficit was made
(d) none of the above while measuring the breadth. What is the percentage error
18 l1, b1 and l2, b2 are the lengths and breadths of the two in the area?
rectangles respectively, but the areas of the rectangles are (a) − 3% (b) − 40%
same. l1 is increased by 25% and b1 is decreased by 25%. (c) − 3.4% (d) can’t be determined
Similarly l2 is decreased by 25% and b2 is increased by 25%.
If A1 and A2 is the new areas of the two rectangles 26 In the adjoining figure the
10 m
respectively, then : cross-section of a swimming pool is
(a) A1 > A2 (b) A1 < A2 shown. If the length of the
(c) A1 = A2 (d) can’t be determined swimming pool is 120 m, then the 6m
amount of water it can hold is :
19 An acute angle made by a side of parallelogram with other
(a) 5760 m3
pair of parallel sides is 60°. If the distance between these 6m
parallel sides is 6 3, the other side is : (b) 9600 m3
(a) 12 cm (b) 12 3 cm (c) 7200 m3
(c) 15 3 cm (d) none of these (d) none of the above
482 QUANTUM CAT
27 Around a circular garden a circular road is to be repair 36 A spherical steel ball was silver polished then it was cut into
which costs ` 22176 at the rate of ` 1 per sq m. If the inner 4 similar pieces. What is ratio of the polished area to the
radius is 112 m, find the width of the circular road. non polished area?
(a) 18 m (b) 28 m (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 14 m (d) none of these (c) 2 : 1 (d) can’t be determined
28 An equilateral triangle is cut from its three vertices to form 37 What is the total surface area of the identical cubes of
a regular hexagon. What is the percentage of area wasted? largest possible size that are cut from a cuboid of size
(a) 20% (b) 50% 85 cm × 17 cm × 5.1 cm?
(c) 33.33% (d) 66.66% (a) 26010 cm2 (b) 21600 cm2
29 ABC is an equilateral triangle and PQRS C 2
(c) 26100 cm (d) none of these
is a square inscribed in the triangle in 38 125 identical cubes are cut from a big cube and all the
such a way that P and Q lie on smaller cubes are arranged in a row to form a long cuboid.
S R
AB and R , S lie on BC and AC What is the percentage increase in the total surface area of
respectively. What is the value of
A P the cuboid over the total surface area of the cube?
RC : RB ? Q B
2 1
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (a) 234 % (b) 235 %
3 3
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 2
30 The area of a square and circle is same and the perimeter of (c) 134 % (d) none of these
3
square and equilateral triangle is same, then the ratio
39 In the adjoining figure a parallelogram ABCD is shown.
between the area of circle and the area of equilateral
AB = 24 cm and AO = BO = 13 cm. Find BC.
triangle is :
D C
(a) π : 3 (b) 9 : 4 3
(c) 4 : 9 3 (d) none of these O
31 Adjoining figure shows a square D C
A B
ABCD in which O is the point of
intersection of diagonals O 40 cm
(a) 8 cm (b) 10 cm
AC and BD. Four squares of (c) 11 cm (d) none of these
maximum possible area are formed A B 40 There are two circles
inside each four triangles AOB, 40 cm
intersecting each other.
BOC, COD and AOD. What is the total area of these Another smaller circle with
4 squares? centre O, is lying between the A O B
(a) 400 cm2 (b) 100 cm2 common region of two larger
2 circles. Centres of the circle
(c) 80 cm (d) none of these
32 What is the ratio of the area of circumcircle of equilateral (i.e., A, O and B) are lying on a
triangle to the area of square with the same side length as straight line. AB = 16 cm and the radii of the larger circles
the equilateral triangle? are 10 cm each. What is the area of the smaller circle?
(a) π : 3 (b) π : 3 (a) 4π cm2 (b) 2π cm2
(c) 3 : 2 (d) none of these 4 π
(c) cm2 (d) cm2
33 It is required to construct a big rectangular hall that can π 4
accommodate 400 people with 25 m3 space for each 41 ABCD is a square, inside which 4 circles D C
person. The height of the wall has been fixed at 10 m and with radius 1 cm, each are touching each
the total inner surface area of the walls must be 1300 m2. other. What is the area of the shaded
What is the length and breadth of the hall (in metres)? region?
(a) 30, 20 (b) 45, 20 (a) (2π − 3) cm2 A B
(c) 40, 25 (d) 35, 30 (b) (4 − π ) cm2
34 The perimeter of a rectangle and an equilateral triangle are (c) (16 − 4π ) cm2
same. Also, one of the sides of the rectangle is equal to the
(d) none of the above
side of the triangle. The ratio of the areas of the rectangle
and the triangle is : 42 ABCD is a square, E is a point on AB such that BE = 17 cm.
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 The area of triangle ADE is 84 cm2. What is the area of
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 4 : 3 square?
D C
(a) 400 cm2
35 If l, b, p be the length, breadth and perimeter of a rectangle 2
(b) 625 cm
and b, l, p are in GP (in order), then l/b is :
(c) 729 cm2
(a) 2 : 1 (b) ( 3 − 1): 1
(d) 576 cm2 A B
(c) ( 3 + 1): 1 (d) 2 : 3 E
Mensuration 483

43 If the volume of a sphere, a cube, a tetrahedron and a 50 Charles has a right circular cylinder which he inserted
octahedron be same then which of the following has completely into a right circular cone of height 30 cm. The
maximum surface area? vertical angle of the cone is 60° and the diameter of the
(a) Sphere (b) Cube cylinder is 8 3 cm. What is the volume of the cone?
(c) Octahedron (d) Tetrahedron 3000
(a) π cm3 (b) 3000π cm3
44 In a rectangle the ratio of the length is to breadth is same as 7
that of the sum of the length and breadth to the length. If (c) 4860π cm3 (d) can’t be determined
l and b be the length and breadth of the rectangle then
51 There are six faces in a cube. Rajeev fix one cube on each of
which of the following is true?
the faces. The dimensions of all the cubes are same. What is
l l2 b l+ b
(i) = 2 + 1 (ii) = the ratio of total surface area of the newly formed solid to
b b l−b l the area of a single cube?
(iii) lb = (l + b)(l − b) (a) 7 : 1 (b) 6 : 1 (c) 5 : 1 (d) 41 : 9
(a) only (i) is true 52 If the ratio of diagonals of two cubes is 3 : 2, then the ratio
(b) only (ii) is true of the surface areas of the two cubes respectively is :
(c) only (ii) and (iii) are true (a) 5 : 4 (b) 9 : 5
(d) only (i) and (ii) are true (c) 9 : 4 (d) can’t be determined
45 Three circles of equal radii touch each other as shown in 53 ABCDEF is a regular hexagon of side 6 E D
figure. The radius of each circle is 1 cm. What is the area of cm. What is the area of triangle BDF?
shaded region? (a) 32 3 cm2
 2 3 − π F C
(a)   cm2 (b) 27 3 cm2
 2 
(c) 24 cm2
 3 2 − π A B
(b)   cm2 (d) none of the above
 3 
Directions (for Q. Nos. 54 and 55) King Dashratha of Ayodhya
2 3
(c) cm2 had a rectangular plot of area 9792 m2 . He divided it into 4 square
π
shaped plots by fencing parallel fences to the breadth of the
(d) none of the above
rectangular plot. All the four sons got each square shaped plot.
46 How many spheres of radius 1.5 cm can be cut out of a However, some area of plot was still left which could not be
wooden cube of edge 9 cm? formed as a square shaped. So, four more square shaped plots
(a) 216 (b) 81 were formed by fencing parallel to the longer side of the original
(c) 27 (d) can’t be determined plot. The king gave one smaller square shaped plot to each of his
47 Kaurav and Pandav have a rectangular field of area 20000 sq. wives and one of the smaller square shaped plot retained with
m. They decided to divide it into two equal parts by dividing it himself and then nothing left to divide.
with a single straight line. Kaurav wanted to fence their land
54 What is the ratio of the area of larger square shaped plot to
immediately, so they incurred total expenses for the fencing all
the area of the smaller square shaped plot?
the four sides alone at ` 2 per metre. What is the minimum cost
(a) 17 : 1 (b) 25 : 9
that Kaurav had to incur?
(c) 16 : 1 (d) can’t be determined
(a) ` 800 (b) ` 1600 (c) ` 1200 (d) ` 600
55 What are dimensions of the original plot?
48 There is a cone of height 12 cm, out of which a smaller cone (a) 288 m, 34 m (b) 102 m, 96 m
(which is the top portion of the original cone) with the same (c) 306 m, 32 m (d) 204 m, 48 m
vertex and vertical axis is cut out. 56 A scalene triangle PQR, such that PQ = 25, QR = 51 and PR
What is the ratio of the volume of the larger (actual) cone to = 74, is rotated completely about PQ, what is the volume of
the remaining part (frustum) of the cone, if the height of the the solid formed in this way?
smaller cone is 9 cm? (a) 3300π cm3 (b) 4800π cm3
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 9 : 1 (c) 3600π cm3 (d) 4900π cm3
(c) 64 : 37 (d) 16 : 7
57 There are two squares ABCD and PQRS with the same area.
49 Radhey can walk along the boundary of a rectangular field
Square ABCD has the largest possible circle inscribed in it,
and also along the diagonals of the field. His speed is
while square PQRS has four circles, tangent to each other,
53 km/h. The length of the field is 45 km. Radhey started inscribed in it such that the maximum area is occupied by
from one corner and reached to the diagonally opposite them. What is the ratio of the area occupied by the circle in
corner in 1 hour. What is the area of the field? ABCD to the total area occupied by the circles in PQRS?
(a) 860 km2 (b) 1260 km2 (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 2
2
(c) 1060 km (d) can’t be determined (c) 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 1
484 QUANTUM CAT
58 A square paper is cut into smaller pieces such that each 65 In the adjoining figure, 7 congruent circles
piece is exactly a square, not necessarily of the equal size. are placed in such a way that one circle is
From each such square a circle of the largest possible area at the centre and other 6 circles are
is cut out. Find the ratio of the area of all the possible circles tangent to it. A regular hexagon is drawn
to the area of the original square. such that its vertices are the centres of the
(a) 1 : 1 6 circles, as shown here. If the area of
(b) π : 2 circle is 1 sq. cm, what is the area of the hexagon?
(c) π : 4 7 3 2π 3
(a) sq cm (b) sq cm
(d) data insufficient π 7
59 The elder son of a carpenter picked up a 6 3
(c) sq cm (d) none of these
solid wooden cube from his garage and then π
he removed a few cubical blocks from it so 66 A right angle triangle whose
that he can sit on it with his friends hypotenuse is c and its perpendicular
comfortably and watch the football match in sides are a and b. Three semicircles a
his house. If the volume of the original cube are drawn along the three sides of b
is 216 cubic ft. and the volume of each this triangle in such a way that the
c
smaller cubic solid that has been removed is 8 cubic ft., what diameter of each semicircle is equal
is the surface area (in cu. ft.) of the remaining solid? to the length of the respective side of the triangle.
(a) 216 (b) 192 The semicircle drawn with the help of hypotenuse
(c) 180 (d) none of these intersects the other two semicircles as shown in the
60 Find the area of the rectangle ABCD, if P is any point on AB concerned diagram. Find the area of the shaded region.
such that DP = 18 mm, CP = 21 mm and ∠DPC = 90°. ab 2abπ
(a) (b)
(a) 378 mm2 ( b) 189 mm2 2 3
(c) 126 mm 2
(d) 136 mm2 abπ
(c) (d) data insufficient
61 An ant has to go from one corner to the farthest corner of a c
canister of size 6×6×12. What’s the minimum distance it 67 In the following diagram, the height
has to cover, (All the lengths are in cm)? and base of an isosceles triangle are 16 16
(a) 6( 2 + 2) (b) 6 3 16 cm each. Find the area of the
(c) 12 2 (d) 12( 2 + 1) circumscribing circle.
62 The ratio of semiperimeter of a parallelogram to its longer (a) 256 sq cm (b) 324 sq cm
side is same as the ratio of its longer side to its shorter side. (c) 314 sq cm (d) none of these
If the shorter side measures 2 cm, find the maximum 68 A large city is developed on a square plot
possible area of the parallelogram. that has two uniform roads connecting the
(a) 2( 5 + 2) (b) 2(1 + 5) opposite corners of the city, as shown in
(c) 4(1 + 5) (d) data insufficient the diagram. If the total area of the roads
63 A semi-circle and a circle with same radius inscribe a is half the area of the square plot, what is
square of greatest possible area. What is the ratio of area of the ratio of the length of the plot to the
square inscribed by semicircle to that by circle? width of the each road?
(a) 2:5 (b) 1:2 (a) 5/2 2 (b) (4 + 2)/ 3
(c) 1:4 (d) 4:5 (c) 2 2 + 2 (d) none of these
64 In the following figure the radii (OA 69 The diameter of a semicircle and the C
and OD) are 2 cm and ∆ABO and ∆DCO base of an equilateral ∆ABC coincide in
are right angle triangles. Also, OB = 2 such a way that the other two sides of D E
cm and OC = 1 cm. Find the area of the B √2 O 1 C the triangle intersect the circumference
shaded region in the circle. of the semicircle at the points D and E,
5π 2 2
as shown in the diagram. If the A
(a) 1 + sq cm B
6 A D perimeter of the triangle ABC is 6 cm,
5π 3 find the area of the shaded region.
(b) + sq cm
6 2  2π 3 π 3
(a)  −  cm2 (b)  −  cm2
5π 3  3 2 3 2
(c) 2 + − sq cm
6 2  2 − 3
5π 3 (c) π   (d) none of these
(d) 1 + + sq cm  3 
6 2
Mensuration 485

LEVEL 02 > HIGHER LEVEL EXERCISE

Directions (for Q. Nos. 1 to 3) Each edge of an equilateral
triangle is ‘a’ cm. A cone is formed by joining any two sides of the
triangle. 8 A hollow sphere with outer diameter 24 cm is cut into two
1 What is the radius and slant height of the cone? equal hemispheres. The total surface area of one of the
2
(a) a,
a
(b)
a a
, hemispheres is 1436 cm2. Each one of the hemispheres is
2π π 2 7
a a filled with water. What is the volume of water that can be
(c) ,a (d) 2a, filled in each of the hemispheres?
2π π
2 2
2 What is the volume of the cone? (a) 3358 cm3 (b) 3528 cm3
3 3
a2 a3
(a) 4 − π2 (b) 4π 2 − 1 2
(c) 2359 cm3
2
(d) 9335 cm3
24π 3 24π 2 3 3
3
a a 2  2
(c) 1 − 4π 2 (d) π 1 −  9 A big cube of side 8 cm is formed by rearranging together 64
8π 2 3  π small but identical cubes each of side 2 cm. Further, if the
3 If the cone is cut along its axis from the middle, the new corner cubes in the topmost layer of the big cube are removed,
shape we obtain after opening the paper is : what is the change in total surface area of the big cube?
(a) isosceles triangle (b) equilateral triangle (a) 16 cm2, decreases
(c) right angle triangle (d) none of these (b) 48 cm2, decreases
4 If the sum of the radius and the height of a closed (c) 32 cm2, decreases
cylinder is 35 cm and the total surface area of the cylinder (d) remains the same as previously
is 1540 cm2, then the circumference of the base of the 10 A large solid sphere of diameter 15 m is melted and recast
cylinder is : into several small spheres of diameter 3 m. What is the
(a) 66 cm (b) 44 cm percentage increase in the total surface area of all the
(c) 56 cm (d) can’t be determined smaller spheres over that of the large sphere?
5 An iron pillar has some part in the form of a right circular (a) 200% (b) 400%
cylinder and remaining in the form of a right circular cone. (c) 500% (d) can’t be determined
The radius of base of cone as well as cylinder is 21 cm. The 11 A cone is made of a sector with a radius of 14 cm and an
cylindrical part is 80 cm high and conical part is 16 cm angle of 60°. What is total surface area of the cone?
high. Find the weight of the pillar, if 1 cm3 of iron weighs (a) 119.78 cm2 (b) 191.87 cm2
2
8.45 g. (c) 196.5 cm (d) none of these
(a) 999.39 kg (b) 111 kg 12 Kishan Chand is a very labourious farmer. He erected a
(c) 1001 kg (d) 989 kg fence around his paddy field in a square shape. He used 26
6 ABCD is a square of side a cm. poles in each side, each at a distance of 4 m. What is the
AB, BC , CD and AD all are the chords D C area of his field?
of circles with equal radii each. If the (a) 1.6 hectare (b) 2.6 hectare
chords subtend an angle of 120° at (c) 5.76 hectare (d) 1 hectare
their respective centres, find the total
area of the given figure, where arcs 13 A rectangular lawn is surrounded by a path of width 2 m on
A B all sides. Now, if the length of the lawn is reduced by 2 m
are part of the circles :
 the lawn becomes a square lawn and the area of path
 πa2 a2  
(a) a2 + 4  −  becomes 13/11 times, what is the length of the original
  9 3 2 
lawn?
  πa2 a2   (a) 8 m (b) 9 m (c) 10 m (d) 12 m
(b) a2 + 4  − 
  9 4 3  Directions (for Q. Nos. 14 and 15) A cylinder with height and
(c) [ 9a2 − 4π + 3 3a2] radius 2 : 1 is filled with soft drink and then it is tilted so as to
(d) none of the above allow some soft drink to flow off to an extent where the level of soft
drink just touches the lowest point of the upper mouth.
7 A rectangle has a perimeter of 26. How many combinations
of integral valued length are possible? 14 If the 2.1 L soft drink is retained in the cylinder, what is the
(a) 4 (b) 8 capacity of the cylinder?
(c) 6 (d) 12 (a) 3.6 L (b) 4 L (c) 1.2 L (d) 4.2 L
486 QUANTUM CAT
D P C
15 If the quantity of soft drink is poured into a conical flask 21 ABCD and EFGA are the squares
whose height and base radius are same as that of the of side 4 cm, each. In square M Q
cylinder so as to fill the conical flask completely, the ABCD, DMB and PMQ are the
E B
quantity of soft drink left in the cylinder as a fraction of its arcs of circles with centres at A
total capacity is : A and C , respectively. In square
1 1 1 1 AEFG, the shaded region is
(a) (b) (c) (d) F G
3 6 9 10 enclosed by two arcs of circles
16 An elephant of length 4 m is standing at one corner of a with centres at A and F , respectively. What is the ratio of
rectangular cage 16 m × 30 m and facing towards the the shaded regions of the squares ABCD and AEFG,
diagonally opposite corner. If the elephant starts moving respectively?
towards the diagonally opposite corner it takes 15 s to 2 + π ( 2 − 2) (π − 2)
(a) (b)
reach the opposite corner. Find the speed of the elephant. (π − 2) 2( 2 + 1 − π)
(a) 1 m/s (b) 2 m/s 4
(c) (d) none of these
(c) 1.87 m/s (d) can’t be determined 3
17 What is the height of the cone which is formed by joining AB AD
22 In the adjoining figure = , where EBCF is a square.
the two ends of a sector of a circle with radius r and central BC DF
angle 60°? AE
Find the ratio of .
35 25 EF
(a) r (b) r B
6 6 A E
2
r
(c) (d) none of these
3
18 If a cube of maximum possible volume is cut off from a solid
sphere of diameter d, the volume of the remaining (waste) D C F
material of the sphere would be equal to :
(1 ± 7 ) (1 − 7 )
d3  d d3  π 1 (a) (b)
(a) π −  (b)  −  3 2
3  2 3 2 3
(1 + 5) (1 ± 5)
d2 (c) (d)
(c) ( 2 − π) (d) none of these 2 2
4
Directions (for Q. Nos. 23 to 25) In the following figure ABCD is
19 In the adjoining figure PQRS is a square and MS = RN and
a square. A circle ABCD is passing through all the four vertices of
the points A, P , Q and B lie on the same line. Find the ratio the square. There are two more circles on the sides AD and BC
of the total area of two circles to the area of the square. touching each other inside the square. AD and BC are the
Given that AP = MS. respective diameters of the two smaller circles. Area of the square
S R is 16 cm2 .
D C
M N
3
1 2 2 1
A P Q B
3
π 2π 3π 6 A B
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 2 π 23 What is the area of region 1?
20 ABCD is a rectangle and there are four  π
R (a) 2.4 cm2 (b)  2 −  cm2
equilateral triangles. Area of ∆ ASD is  4
equal to area of ∆ BQC and area of D C
(c) 8 cm2 (d) (4π − 2) cm2
∆ DRC is equal to area of ∆ APB. The S Q
24 What is the area of region 2?
perimeter of the rectangle is 12 cm. A B
(a) 3 (π − 2) cm2 (b) (π − 3) cm2
Also the sum of the areas of the four
triangles is 10 3 cm2, the total area of P (c) (2π − 3) cm2 (d) 4 (π − 2) cm2

the figure thus formed is : 25 What is the area of region 3?

(a) 2(4 + 5 3) cm2 (a) (4 − 4π ) cm2

(b) 5 (4 + 2 3) cm2 (b) 4 (4 − π ) cm2

(c) 42 3 cm2 (c) (4π − 2) cm2

(d) none of the above (d) (3π + 2) cm2

Mensuration 487

26 In the adjoining figure ABCD is a square. D C 30 What is the perimeter of all the five squares?
Four equal semicircles are drawn in such (4 2 + 1) a (4 2 − 1) a
a way that they meet each other at ‘O’. (a) (b)
( 2 + 1) ( 2 + 1)
Sides AB, BC , CD and AD are the
5
respective diameters of the four O (c) a (d) (7 + 3 2) a
A B 6
semicircles. Each of the sides of the
square is 8 cm. Find the area of the shaded region. 31 What is the total area of all the five squares?
(a) 32(π − 2) cm2 (b) 16 (π − 2) cm2 (4 2 − 1) a2 (4 2 − 1) a2
(a) (b)
3  (4 2 − 1) 4( 2 − 1)
(c) (2π − 8) cm2 (d)  π − 4 cm2
4  31 2
(c) a (d) none of these
27 ABCD is a square. Another square EFGH G 16
with the same area is placed on the D C
Directions (for Q. Nos. 32 to 35) Each edge of a cube is equally
square ABCD such that the point of
H F divided into n parts, thus there are total n 3 smaller cubes. Let,
intersection of diagonals of square ABCD N 0 → Number of smaller cubes with no exposed surfaces
and square EFGH coincide and the sides A B N 1 → Number of smaller cubes with one exposed surfaces
of square EFGH are parallel to the E N 2 → Number of smaller cubes with two exposed surfaces
diagonals of square ABCD. Thus a new N 3 → Number of smaller cubes with three exposed surfaces
figure is formed as shown in the figure. What is the area
enclosed by the given figure if each side of the square is 32 What is the number of unexposed smaller cubes (N 0)?
4 cm? (a) (n − 2)3 (b) n3 (c) n ! (d) 8
3+ 2  33 What is the number of smaller cubes with one exposed
(a) 32 (2 − 2) (b) 16  
 2+ 2  surface (N1 )?
2+ 2 (a) 4 (n − 3)3 (b) 6 (n − 2)2
(c) 32   (d) none of these
3+ 2 (c) (n − 3)2 (d) (n + 1)2

28 A piece of paper is in the form of a right angle triangle in 34 What is the value of (N 2 )?
which the ratio of base and perpendicular is 3 : 4 and (a) 8 (n − 2)2 (b) 6 (n − 2)
hypotenuse is 20 cm. What is the volume of the biggest (c) 12 (n − 2) (d) 3 (n − 3)2
cone that can be formed by taking right angle vertex of the
35 What is the value of N 3?
paper as the vertex of the cone?
(a) 45.8 cm3 (b) 56.1 cm3 (a) (n − 1)! (b) (n − 2)2
(c) 61.5 cm 3
(d) 48 cm3 n (n + 1)
(c) (d) 8
29 In a particular country the value of diamond is directly 2
proportional to the surface area (exposed) of the diamond. 36 In a bullet the gun powder is to be filled up inside the
Four thieves steel a cubical diamond piece and then divide metallic enclosure. The metallic enclosure is made up of a
equally in four parts. What is the maximum percentage cylindrical base and conical top with the base of radius
increase in the value of diamond after cutting it? 5 cm. The ratio of height of cylinder and cone is 3 : 2.
(a) 50% (b) 66.66% A cylindrical hole is drilled through the metal solid with its
(c) 100% (d) none of these height two-third of the height of metal solid. What should
be the radius of the hole, so that the volume of the hole
Directions (for Q. Nos. 30 and 31) In the figure shown square II (in which gun powder is to be filled up) is one-third of the
is formed by joining the mid-points of square I, square III is volume of metal solid after drilling?
formed by joining the mid-points of square II and so on. In this way 88 55 55
(a) cm (b) cm (c) cm (d) 33π cm
total five squares are drawn. The side of the square I is ‘a’ cm. 5 8 8
37 A sector of the circle measures 19°
II I (see the figure). Usingonly a scale, a
IV III compass and a pencil, is it possible to split
the circle into 360 equal sectors of 1° 19°
V
central angle?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, only if radius is known
(d) can’t be determined
488 QUANTUM CAT
38 A circular paper is folded along its O B 44 What is the ratio of the area of inner circle to that of the
diameter, then again it is folded to outer circle?
form a quadrant. Then it is cut as (a) 3 : 4 (b) 9 : 16
shown in the figure. After it the paper (c) 3 : 8 (d) none of these
was reopened in the original circular 45 If there are some more circles and hexagons inscribed in
shape. Find the ratio of the original A the similar way as given above, the ratio of each side of
paper to that of the remaining paper? outermost hexagon (largest one) to that of the fourth
(The shaded portion is cut off from the quadrant. The (smaller one) hexagon is (fourth hexagon means the
radius of quadrant OAB is 5 cm and radius of each hexagon which is inside the third hexagon from the
semicircle is 1 cm). outside) :
(a) 25 : 16 (b) 25 : 9 (a) 9 : 3 2 (b) 16 : 9
(c) 20 : 9 (d) none of these (c) 8 : 3 3 (d) none of these
39 A cubical cake is cut into several smaller cubes by dividing
Directions (for Q. Nos. 46 and 47) Five spheres
each edge in 7 equal parts. The cake is cut from the top
are kept in a cone in such a way that each sphere
along the two diagonals forming four prisms. Some of them
touches each other and also touches the lateral
get cut and rest remained in the cubical shape. A complete surface of the cone. It is due to increasing radius of
cubical (smaller) cake was given to adults and the cut off the spheres starting from the vertex of the cone. The
part of a smaller cake is given to a child (which is not an radius of the smallest sphere is 16 cm.
adult). If all the cakes were given equally each piece to a
person, total how many people could get the cake? 46 If the radius of the fifth (i.e., the largest)
(a) 343 (b) 448 sphere be 81 cm, find the radius of the third (i.e., the
(c) 367 (d) 456 middlemost) sphere.
(a) 25 cm (b) 25 3 cm
Directions (for Q. Nos. 40 to 42) A square is inscribed in a circle
(c) 36 cm (d) data insufficient
then another circle is inscribed in the square
then. Another square is inscribed in the circle. 47 What is the least distance between the smallest sphere and
Finally a circle is inscribed in the innermost the vertex of the cone?
square. Thus there are 3 circles and 2 squares (a) 64 cm (b) 80 cm
as shown in the figure. The radius of the (c) 28 cm (d) none of these
outer-most circle is R. 48 Saumya has a pencil box of volume 60 cm3. What can be
40 What is the radius of the inner-most circle? the maximum length of a pencil that can be accommodated
R R in the box. Given that all the sides are integral (in cm) and
(a) (b)
2 2 different from each other?
(c) 2R (d) none of these (a) 7 2 cm (b) 905 cm
41 What is the sum of areas of all the squares shown in the (c) 170 cm (d) 3602 cm
figure? 49 There are two concentric hexagons. Each of
(a) 3R 2 (b) 3 2R 2 the side of both the hexagons are parallel.
3 2 Each side of an internal regular hexagon is
(c) R (d) none of these
2 8 cm. What is the area of the shaded region,
if the distance between corresponding
42 What is the ratio of sum of circumferences of all the circles
parallel sides is 2 3 cm?
to the sum of perimeters of all the squares?
(a) 120 3 cm2 (b) 148 3 cm2
(a) (2 + 3) πR (b) (3 + 2) πR
(c) 3 3 πR (d) none of these (c) 126 cm2 (d) none of these

Directions (for Q. Nos. 43 to 45) A regular 50 ABCD is a square. A circle is inscribed in D C

the square. Also taking A, B, C , D (the
hexagon is inscribed in a circle of radius R.
Another circle is inscribed in the hexagon. Now vertices of square) as the centres of four
another hexagon is inscribed in the second quadrants, drawn inside the circle,
(smaller) circle. which are touching each other on the
mid-points of the sides of square. Area A B
2
43 What is the sum of perimeters of both the hexagons? of square is 4 cm . What is the area of the shaded region?
(a) (2 + 3) R  3π 
3 (2 + 3) R (a)  4 −  cm
2
(b) (2π − 4) cm2
(b)  2
(c) 3 (3 + 2) R
(c) (4 − 2π ) cm2 (d) none of these
(d) none of the above
Mensuration 489

51 In a factory there are two identical solid blocks of iron.

When the first block is melted and recast into spheres of 56 Initially the diameter of a balloon is 28 cm. It can explode
equal radii ‘ r’, the 14 cc of iron was left, but when the when the diameter becomes 5/2 times of the initial
second block was melted and recast into sphere each of diameter. Air is blown at 156 cc/s. It is known that the
equal radii ‘ 2r’, the 36 cc of iron was left. The volumes of shape of balloon always remains spherical. In how many
the solid blocks and all the spheres are in integers. What is seconds the balloon will explode?
the volume (in cm3) of each of the larger spheres of radius (a) 1078 s (b) 1368 s
‘ 2r’? (c) 1087 s (d) none of these
(a) 176 57 The radius of a cone is 2 times the height of the cone.
(b) 12π A cube of maximum possible volume is cut from the same
(c) 192 cone. What is the ratio of the volume of the cone to the
(d) data insufficient volume of the cube?
52 There is a vast grassy farm in which there is a rectangular (a) 3.18 π
building of the farm-house whose length and breadth is 50 (b) 2.25 π
m and 40 m respectively. A horse is tethered at a corner of (c) 2.35
the house with a tether of 80 m long. What is the maximum (d) can’t be determined
area that the horse can graze? 58 Raju has 64 small cubes of 1 cm3. He wants to arrange all of
(a) 5425 π (b) 5245 π them in a cuboidal shape, such that the surface area will be
(c) 254 π (d) none of these minimum. What is the diagonal of this larger cuboid?
53 A cube of side 6 cm is painted on all its 6 faces with (a) 8 2 cm (b) 273
red colour. It is then broken up into 216 smaller identical (c) 4 3 cm (d) 129 cm
cubes. What is the ratio of N 0 : N1 : N 2. 59 The volume of a cylinder is 48.125 cm3, which is formed by
Where, N 0 → number of smaller cubes with no coloured rolling a rectangular paper sheet along the length of the
surface. paper. If a cuboidal box (without any lid i.e., open at the
N1 → number of smaller cubes with 1 red face. top) is made from the same sheet of paper by cutting out
N 2 → number of smaller cubes with 2 red faces : the square of side 0.5 cm from each of the four corners of
(a) 3 : 4 : 6 (b) 3 : 4 : 5 the paper sheet, then what is the volume of this box?
(c) 4 : 6 : 3 (d) can’t be determined (a) 20 cm3
54 Assume that a mango and its seed both are spherical. Now, (b) 38 cm3
if the radius of seed is 2/5 of the thickness of the pulp. The (c) 19 cm3
seed lies exactly at the centre of the fruit. What per cent of (d) none of the above
the total volume of the mango is its pulp?
3 Directions (for Q. Nos. 60 to 62) Consider a cylinder B
(a) 63 % (b) 97.67%
5 4
of height h cm and radius r = cm as shown in the
(c) 68 %
2
(d) none of these
π
3 figure. A string of certain length when wound on its
55 In the adjoining diagram ABCD is a square with side ‘ a’ cm. cylindrical surface, starting at point A, gives a
In the diagram the area of the larger circle with centre ‘ O ’ is maximum of n turns. A
equal to the sum of the areas of the remaining four circles
60 What is the vertical spacing (in cm) between two
with equal radii, whose centres are P , Q , R and S. What is
consecutive turns?
the ratio between the side of square and radius of a smaller
h h
circle? (a) (b)
n n
D C
h2
(c) (d) can’t be determined
S R n

O 61 If there is no spacing between any two courecutive turns

and the width of string be x cm, then the required length of
P Q the string is :
A B
8x 8h
(a) cm (b) cm
(a) (2 2 + 3) (b) (2 + 3 2) h x
(c) (4 + 3 2) (d) can’t be determined h
(c) 8hx cm (d) 2 2 cm
x
490 QUANTUM CAT
62 If the string is wound on the exterior four walls of a cube of 68 There are two cylindrical containers of equal capacity and
side a cm starting at point C and ending at point D exactly equal dimensions. If the radius of one of the containers is
above C, making equally spaced 4 turns. The side of the increased by 12 ft and the height of another container is
cube is : increased by 12 ft, the capacity of both the container is
2n (n)2 equally increased by K cubic ft. If the actual heights of each
(a) a = (b) a =
255 16 of the containers be 4 ft, find the increased volume of each
8n of the container.
(c) a = (d) a = 2 15n
257 (a) 1680 π cu ft (b) 2304 π cu ft
(c) 1480 π cu ft (d) can’t be determined
63 A blacksmith has a rectangular iron sheet 10 ft long. He has
to cut out 7 circular discs from this sheet. What is the 69 The four vertices of a unit square act as the
minimum possible width of the iron sheet if the radius of centers of four quarter-circles. The arcs of
each disc is 1 ft? these circles intersect each other within the
(a) 2 3 ft (b) (2 + 3) ft square as depicted below. If the area of the
(c) (3 + 2) ft (d) (2 + 2 3) ft region at the center of the square, which
itself looks like a bloated square, is cordoned off by all the
64 The perimeter of a square, a rhombus and a hexagon are π
same. The area of square, rhombus and hexagon be s, r, h, four arcs of circles is − 3 + 1, find the area of the shaded
3
respectively, which of the following is correct?
region.
(a) r > s > h (b) s > h > r 2π
(c) h > s > r (d) data insufficient (a) 4 − 3 −
3
65 In the following figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle 2π
(b) 4 − 2 3 −
inscribing a square of maximum possible area. Again in this 3
square there is an equilateral triangle whose side is same as π
(c) 4 − 3 −
that of the square. Further the smaller equilateral triangle 3
inscribes a square of maximum possible area. What is the (d) none of the above
area of the innermost square if the each side of the 70 Four small squares of equal size are cut off from each of the
outermost triangle be 0.01 m? four corners of a square sheet of area 576 sq cm. The
C
remaining sheet is then folded in such a way that it
becomes an open cuboidal box having maximum holding
capacity. Find the side of the smaller square that has been
cut off.
A B (a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 2.4 (d) 4
71 The following diagram depicts the
(a) (873 − 504 3) cm 2
(b) (738 − 504 3) cm2
Earth. For the sake of convenience
(c) (873 − 405 2) cm2 (d) none of these and simplicity let us consider that the
66 A blacksmith has a rectangular sheet of iron. He has to earth is completely spherical. The
make a cylindrical vessel of which both the circular ends topmost point (N), where all the
are closed. When he minimises the wastage of the sheet of great circles meet, is called the North
iron, then what is the ratio of the wastage to the utilised Pole. South Pole is denoted by the
area of sheet? point (S) is exactly opposite the
1 2 North Pole. All the vertical circles are passing through each
(a) (b)
11 17 pole are called longitudes and all the horizontal circles that
3 are parallel to each other are called as latitudes.
(c) (d) none of these
22 Let the centre of the earth be denoted by C and the radius
67 Barun needs an open box of capacity 864 m3. Actually, of the earth is 6370 km. A man has to reach from the North
where he lives the rates of paints are soaring high so he Pole to a point D on the latitude with radius3185 3 km in
wants to minimize the surface area of the box keeping the the Southern hemisphere of the earth. Find the minimum
capacity of the box same as required. What is the base area distance along the surface of the earth that he will have to
and height of such a box? traverse.
(a) 36 m2, 24 m (b) 216 m2, 4 m (a) 40040 km (b) 32026.67 km
2 (c) 13346.67 km (d) 14367.33 km
(c) 144 m , 6 m (d) none of these
Mensuration 491

72 A rectangle of dimensions 32×49 has two circles inscribed 77 There are four quadrants of 10 cm radius constructed
in it. What’s the maximum possible total area of the two within a square using the four vertices of that square. If the
circles? area of the square is 100 sq. cm, find the common area (in
(a) 337 π (b) 306π sq cm) among all the four quadrants, shown by the shaded
(c) 518π (d) 245π region.
73 A sheep and a goat are tethered at the diagonally opposite
ends of a square field. The length of each rope they are
attached by the post is 6m and the area of the field is 54 m2.
Find the approx. area that cannot be grazed by either of
them.
8
(a) 3m2 (b) 4m2 (c) 7 m2 (d) m2  2π  π 
π (a) 100  + 2 − 3 (b) 100  + 1 − 3
 3  3 
74 What is the area of the largest semicircle that can be π 
inscribed in the square whose diagonal is a 2 units? (c) 100  + 4 − 2 3 (d) none of these
3 
(a) 0.172πa2 (b) 0.125πa2
(c) 0. 225πa2
(d) 1. 25πa2 78 A thin opaque square glass sheet (30 cm × 30 cm) is cut
75 A semicircle of radius r is inscribed in a square such that the into four pieces of equal area, as shown in figure (i). When
diameter of the semicircle makes 60° angle with one of the these pieces are rearranged to form another square, as
sides of the square. What is the least possible area of the shown in figure (ii), it results in a
square that can inscribe such a semicircle? square hole (16 cm × 16 cm) at the
 7 + 4 3 2  11 + 6 2 2 centre of the new square. Find the
(a)   r (b)   r length of each side of the new
 4   4  square, which is larger than the Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)
 4 + 2 3 2 original one.
(c)   r (d) (5 + 7 )r2
 9  (a) 34 cm (b) 32 sq cm
(c) 42 sq cm (d) none of these
76 There are four quadrants of 10 cm radius
constructed within a square using the four 79 A rectangular paper is folded along its diagonal to form a
vertices of the square as their centers. These polygon as shown in the following figure. If the ratio of the
four quadrants share a common region, area of this polygon to that of the rectangle is 16/5, the
which is shown by the shaded region in the ratio of the length to the breadth of the original rectangle is
B′
adjoining figure. If the area of the given square is 100 sq
cm, find the area of the largest possible square that can be
D E C
inscribed in the common region occupied by four
quadrants.
(a) 100(4 − 3) sq cm A B

(b) 100(2 − 3) sq cm (a) 5/ 11 cm (b) 4/3 cm

(c) 100(4 − 2 3) sq cm (c) 21/11 cm (d) data insufficient
(d) data insufficient

Test of Your Learning

1 Three equal circles each of radius 1 cm 2 Three circular rings of equal radii of 1 cm
are circumscribed by a larger circle. Find each are touching each other. A string runs
the perimeter of the circumscribing circle. all around the set of rings very tightly.
3 What is the minimum length of string
(a) (2 − 3) π cm
2 required to bind all the three rings in the
 2 + 3 given manner?
(b)   cm 6
 3  (a) cm (b) 2 (3 + π ) cm
π
2 π
(c) (2 + 3) π cm (c) cm (d) can’t be determined
3 6
(d) none of the above
492 QUANTUM CAT
A
3 An equilateral triangle circumscribes 9 In a right angle triangle ABC,
all the three circles each of radius 1 what is the maximum possible
cm. What is the perimeter of the area of a square that can be b c
equilateral triangle? inscribed when one of its D
(a) 6 ( 3 + 1) cm vertices coincide with the
90°
(b) 3 (8 + 2) cm vertex of right angle of the C B
(c) 15 ( 3 − 1) cm triangle? a
(d) none of the above a ab
(a) (b)
4 Six circles each of unit radius are being b a+ b
2
circumscribed by another larger circle. a+ b  ab 
All the smaller circles touch each other. (c) (d)  
ab  a + b
What is the circumference of the larger
circle? 10 In the adjoining figure a square of B
 3 + 4 maximum possible area is
(a)   π cm circumscribed by the right angle
 2  c
triangle ABC in such a way that a
(b) 4 3π cm one of its side just lies on the
 4 + 3 hypotenuse of the triangle. What C 90°
(c) 2   π cm A
 3  is the area of the square? b

(d) can’t be determined 2

 abc  a2 + b2 + c2
5 There are six circular rings of iron, kept (a)  2  (b)
 a + b + ab
2
abc
close to each other. A string binds them as
tightly as possible. If the radius of each abc
(c) (d) none of these
circular iron ring is 1 cm. What is the a + b2 + c2
2

minimum possible length of string 11 In the adjoining figure PQRS is a square of maximum
required to bind them?
possible area which is circumscribed by the semicircle.
(a) 2 (6 + 3 3 + π ) cm (b) 6 (2 + 3) π cm
Points R and S lie on the diameter AB. What is the area of the
(c) 2 (6 + π ) cm (d) none of these square if the radius of the circle is ‘ r’?
6 An equilateral triangle C P Q
circumscribes all the six circles,
each with radius 1 cm. What is the
perimeter of the equilateral
A S C R B
triangle?
(a) 6 (2 + 3) cm 3 2 4 2 3 2 5 2
(a) r (b) r (c) r (d) r
(b) 3 ( 3 + 2) cm A B 4 5 5 4
(c) 12 ( 3 + 4) cm 12 In the adjoining figure a quadrant (of A
(d) none of the above circle) inscribes a square of maximum P R
7 A cube of maximum possible volume is cut from the sphere possible area. If the radius of the circle
of diameter 3 3 cm. What is the ratio of volume of the be ‘ r’ then what is the area of the square?
sphere to that of cube? B
r2 3r2 C Q
4 3 3 (a) (b)
(a) (b) π 2 5
π 2
r2
4 (c) (d) 2 6r
(c) π (d) none of these 3
3
8 A cube of maximum possible volume is cut from the solid 13 In the adjoining figure, AB is the
diameter of a semicircle which C
right circular cylinder. What is the ratio of volume of cube
inscribes a circle of maximum
to that of cylinder if the edge of a cube is equal to the height
possible area. If the radius of the A B
of the cylinder?
larger circle (i . e. , semicircle) is r, the area of the inscribed
11 π
(a) (b) 2 circle is :
7 7
7 5r2 2π 2 πr2
(c) (d) none of these (a) (b) r (c) (d) none of these
11 π 3 4
Mensuration 493

14 In a quadrant (of a circle) a circle of 16 A 12 cm long wire is bent to form a triangle with one of its
maximum possible area is given. If the radius angle as 60°. Find the sides of the triangle (in cm) when its
of the circumscribing quadrant be r, then area is largest?
what is the area of the inscribed circle? (a) 3, 4, 5
π r2 (b) 2, 4, 6
(a) (2 + 3 2) r2 (b)
(3 + 2 2) (c) 4, 4, 4
 3 + 2 2 (d) 2.66, 3.66, 4.66
(c)   π (d) none of these
17 Let S1, S2, … , Sn be the squares such that for each n > 1, the
 r2 
length of a side of Sn equals the length of the diagonal of
15 A cylindrical chocobar has its radius r unit and height
S( n + 1). If the length of a circle of S1 is 10 cm, then for which of
‘ h’ unit. If we wish to increase the volume by same unit
the following values of n the area of Sn is less than 1 square
either by increasing its radius alone or its height alone,
cm?
then how many unit we have to increase the radius or
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 7
height?
r2 + 2r r2 − 2rh
18 Area of a regular hexagon and a regular octagon is same.
(a) (b) Which one of the two has larger perimeter?
h h
(a) Hexagon (b) Octagon
2r2 − rh πr2
(c) (d) (c) can’t be determined (d) none of these
h2 2h

Answers
Introductory Exercise 10.1
1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (a) 14 (b) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 (c) 20 (b)
21 (b) 22 (a) 23 (c) 24 (c) 25 (c) 26 (b) 27 (c) 28 (c) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (c)

Introductory Exercise 10.2

1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (d) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (a)

Introductory Exercise 10.3

1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (d) 15 (a)

Introductory Exercise 10.4

1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (b) 14 (a) 15 (b) 16 (a) 17 (a) 18 (c) 19 (a) 20 (c)
21 (a) 22 (b) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (c)

Introductory Exercise 10.5

1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (a) 17 (b) 18 (d) 19 (b) 20 (c)
21 (d) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (a) 25 (b) 26 (a) 27 (c) 28 (c) 29 (c) 30 (b)
31 (b) 32 (b)
494 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 10.6
1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (c)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (a) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (b)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (d) 24 (c) 25 (d) 26 (d) 27 (d) 28 (c) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (a) 33 (d) 34 (c) 35 (b) 36 (b) 37 (b) 38 (a) 39 (b) 40 (a)

Introductory Exercise 10.7

1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (d) 19 (b) 20 (a)

Multifaceted Exercise
1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (a)
11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (b) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (d)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (c) 25 (d) 26 (d) 27 (d) 28 (b) 29 (b) 30 (b)
31 (a) 32 (c) 33 (d) 34 (c) 35 (a) 36 (c) 37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (d) 40 (a)
41 (b) 42 (a) 43 (c) 44 (c) 45 (a) 46 (b) 47 (b) 48 (c) 49 (d) 50 (b)
51 (c) 52 (c) 53 (a) 54 (d) 55 (c) 56 (a) 57 (b) 58 (a) 59 (c)

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise

1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (c)
11 (c) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (a) 15 (a) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (c) 19 (a) 20 (d)
21 (b) 22 (a) 23 (d) 24 (c) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (c) 29 (c) 30 (b)
31 (d) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (c) 35 (c) 36 (a) 37 (a) 38 (a) 39 (b) 40 (a)
41 (b) 42 (d) 43 (d) 44 (c) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (a) 48 (c) 49 (b) 50 (b)
51 (c) 52 (c) 53 (b) 54 (c) 55 (d) 56 (b) 57 (d) 58 (c) 59 (a) 60 (a)
61 (c) 62 (b) 63 (a) 64 (d) 65 (c) 66 (a) 67 (c) 68 (c) 69 (b)

Level 02 Higher Level Exercise

1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (d) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15 (b) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (b) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25 (b) 26 (a) 27 (a) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (d)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (b) 34 (c) 35 (d) 36 (b) 37 (a) 38 (a) 39 (b) 40 (a)
41 (a) 42 (d) 43 (b) 44 (a) 45 (c) 46 (c) 47 (a) 48 (b) 49 (a) 50 (b)
51 (a) 52 (a) 53 (c) 54 (b) 55 (b) 56 (a) 57 (b) 58 (c) 59 (a) 60 (a)
61 (b) 62 (c) 63 (b) 64 (c) 65 (a) 66 (a) 67 (c) 68 (b) 69 (a) 70 (d)
71 (c) 72 (a) 73 (b) 74 (a) 75 (a) 76 (b) 77 (b) 78 (a) 79 (a)

Test for Your Learning

1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 (a)
11 (b) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (a)
Mensuration 495

Hints & Solutions

Introductory Exercise 10.1
1 2 (16 x + 9 x ) = 750; l = 16 x and b = 9 x  d2 
12 d 2 = 2 × area Q Area = 
110  2
2 Area = = 220 sq m
0.5 d 2 = 2 × 2 ⇒ d = 2 km
and 11 x × 5x = 220 13 100 × 100 = 10000 m2 = 1 hectare
3 Length : breadth = 3 : 2 111 × 111 = 12321 m2
Also, area of floor = area of roof
∴ Difference in area = 2321 m2
and 30 is almost 50% of 62. So you need not to solve it. Just
759 − 561
look out for the appropriate option. Thus 1411.2 is almost 14 Rate = = ` 33 per metre
50% of 2916.48 and rest of the options are not satisfactory. 6
1
4 1 hectare = 10000 m2, find length and breadth, then 15 l×b= × 10000 = 1000 × b ⇒ b = 0.4 m
25
perimeter
Perimeter = 1000 m = 1 km 16 Side = (289)2 − (240)2
distance 1 1600 × 900
∴ Time = = hrs = 20 min 17 = 1800
speed 3 40 × 20
5 5 hectares and 76 ares = 57600 m2, find perimeter then d2
18 Area =
multiply it by 6. 2
6 l × 0.7 = 19 × 3.5 ⇒ l = 95 m (70 cm = 0.7 m) 19
1 1 1
× =
3 3 9
Also (95)2 = 9025
1
So 95 × 0.95 = 90.25 ∴ 90 × = 10 g (It depends upon area)
9
Area of courtyard
7 Number of stones = = 14400 20 l : b = 2 : 1
Area of one stone
2x 2 = 24200, find diagonal.
Cost = Rate × Number of stones
= (0.5 × 14400) (110)2 + (220)2 = 110 12 + 22
8 Area = (63 + 54 − 6) × 6 [Q Area = (l + b − 2w ) 2w] = 110 × 5
Area = (111 × 6) = 110 × 2.236 = 246 m
37 37 × 3 111 21 2 (2x + x ) × 11 = 2640, find 2x × x = ?
and Rate = = =
2 2× 3 6
111 22 Consider some appropriate values.
∴ Cost = (111 × 6) ×
6 4 6
= 111 × 111 = 12321 e.g. 4 4 2 2
9 Original area = l × b 4 6
b
New area = 2l × = l × b 4a = 16 cm 2 (l + b) = 16 cm
2
but a = 16 cm
2 2
and l × b = 12 cm2
Hence, no change.
⇒ a >l×b
2
10 (116 + 68 − 2w ) 2w = 720
Remember, when a + b is constant, then the maximum
Solve through quadratic equation.
value of a × b is at when a = b.
Alternatively Go through options and put w = 2 from So, area of square (i . e. , l × b = a × a) is always greater than
option (c) you will find that both sides are equal. So the area of rectangle with same perimeter.
presumed choice is correct. Alternatively Let each side of a square be a and length
11 Net area = Total area of 4 walls − 8m2 and breadth of the rectangle be l and b, then
and Area of 4 walls = 2 (l + b) × h  l + b
4a = 2 (l + b) ⇒ a =  
 2 
496 QUANTUM CAT
∴ Area of the rectangle = l × b ⇒ l − b = 20
1
and Area of the square = a2 = (l + b)2 (Solving l + b = 40 and l − b = 20)
4 ∴ l = 30 and b = 10
But since we know that for any (different) certain values 100 × 100
24 = 16 (1 m = 100 cm)
AM > GM 25 × 25
l+ b
∴ > l×b 25 (120 + 80 − 24) × 24 = 176 × 24 = 4224
2
 l + b
2 26 (90 + 40 + 10) × 10 = 1400
⇒   >l×b
 2  27 2[( x + 2) + x] = 48 ⇒ x = 11 cm
⇒ Area of square > Area of rectangle ∴ ( x + 2) = 13 cm
23 Best way is to go through options and verify the result. 52000
28 = 160
Alternatively 2 (l + b) = 4a = 80 325
3.25 cm means 325 m, as per scale.
⇒ l + b = 40 and a = 20 ⇒ a2 = 400
d2
Also a2 − lb = 100 29 Area = ; d → diagonal
2
⇒ 400 − lb = 100
30 1.2 × 1.2 = 1.44 ⇒ 44% increase
⇒ lb = 300
Now (l − b)2 = (l + b)2 − 4lb 31 a2 : (a 2)2 = 1 : 2
(l − b)2 = 1600 − 1200 32 1.6 × 1.4 = 2.24 ⇒ increase = 1.24 ⇒ 124%

Introductory Exercise 10.2

1 Use Hero’s formula: (Since in ∆ ABC there are 4 similar triangles having same
Area of scalene triangle = s (s − a)(s − b)(s − c) area as ∆ DEF.)
A
2 D

F E
M
A 30 m
36 m
15 m B D C
b
5 60 = 4a2 − b2
B 36 m C 4
AM = BC = 36 m b
⇒ 60 = 676 − b2
4
MD = CD − MC = 30 − 15 (Q MC = AB = 15 m)
⇒ 57600 = b2 (676 − b2 )
∴ MD = 15 m
Now using Pythagoras theorem
AD 2 = AM 2 + MD 2, find AD By solving the above equation we can get the value of b.
Alternatively You can go through option.
3 Find the area, using Hero’s A
formula, then 6 Use pythagorus theorem
1 x 2 = (60)2 + (11)2
Area = ×b×h 25 m 39 m
2 Pythagorus theorem :  x 60
1  2 2 2
= × 56 × AD (Hypotenuse) =(base) + (height) 
2 D
B C 495.72
56 m 7 Area of field = 11
4 All the triangles are similar to 36.72
each other. = 13.5 hectare = 135000 m2
Area of ∆ ABC 4 Now, if h = x, b = 3x
∴ =
Area of ∆ DEF 1 1
∴ × b × h = 135000
2
Mensuration 497

1 10 Let each side of a square be 3x and each side of an

8 Area of triangle = ×b×h
2 equilateral triangle be 4 x
Let initially area of triangle = 1 × 1 = 1 unit then perimeter of square = 4 × 3x = 12x
Now, the area of triangle = 2 × 2 = 4 unit
and perimeter of equilateral triangle = 3 × 4 x = 12x
4 −1
Increase in area = × 100 = 300% Now area of square = (3x )2 = 9 x 2
1
(For your convenience assume any value of b and h.) 3
3 Area of equilateral triangle = × (4 x )2 = 4 3x 2
9 Height of an equilateral triangle = × side 4
2 Since 9 > 4 3 ⇒ 9 x 2 > 4 3x
3
∴ 2 3= × side ⇒ Side = 4 cm Hence area of square is greater than area of equilateral
2
3 triangle, when the perimeter of both is same.
∴ Area of an equilateral triangle = × (side)2
4 Alternatively Consider any suitable value and verify.
3
= × 4 × 4 = 4 3 cm2
4

Introductory Exercise 10.3

1 Area = 6 × 8 sin 30° 1
8 × x × 2x = 256 ⇒ x 2 = 256 ⇒ x = 16
1  1 2
= 6 × 8 × = 24 cm2  sin 30° = 
2  2 ∴ 2x = 32
2 To find the area of parallelogram, first find the area of Hence, x + 2x = 16 + 32 = 48
∆ ABC by Hero’s formula then double it. 1
9 Area = × (30 + 50) × 16 = 640 cm2
D C 2
1
40 × AB × OQ
20 Area of ∆ AOB 2
10 =
Area of ∆ COD 1 × CD × PO
A 30 B
2
Since, area of ABCD = 2 × Area of ∆ ABC D P C

= 2 × Area of ∆ ACD
O
3 Area = 22 × 24 = 528 cm2

A B
22 Q
AB × OQ 2CD × 2OP 4 Q AB = 2 CD
= = =  
24 CD × PO CD × OP 1  and OQ = 2 PO 
4 Area = 40 × 18 = 720 cm2 This is due to the similarity of triangles AOB and COD.
11 Area of trapezium = 441
25 18
1
⇒ (5x + 9 x ) × 21 = 441 ⇒ 14 x = 42 ⇒ x = 3
2
40 ∴ 9 x = 27 cm
Area of parallelogram ABCD BC × AN 2 × 4x 8 1
5 = = = 12 × (12 + 8) × h = 360 ⇒ h = 36 m
Area of triangle ABN 1 x 1 2
× BN × AN
2 3 3 3 3 3
1 13 6 × × (Side)2 = (Side)2 = × 4 × 4 = 24 3 m2
6 Area of rhombus = × product of diagonals 4 2 2
2
1
1
= ×a×b=
ab 14 Area of quadrilateral = × 19 × (5 + 7 ) = 114 cm2
2 2 2

10 x 2  Diagonal 
7 Area of rhombus =
1
× 2x × 5x = = 5x 2
15 AB = BC = CD = AD = 4 cm Q Side = 
 2 
2 2
and square of the shorter diagonal = (2x )2 = 4 x 2 and EF = 1.5 cm (By Pythagorus theorem)
5x 2
5 ∴ Area of ABCDE = Area of ABCD + Area of AED
∴ =
4x2 4 1
= (4)2 + × 4 × 1.5 = 19 cm2
2
498 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 10.4
1 2πr = 704 ⇒ r = 112 11
22 a
∴ πr2 = × 112 × 112 = 39424 cm2 a a
7
a
7
2 2πr = 4.4 ⇒ r = m
10
∴ πr2 = 0.49π m2 Area of square = a2
2
22 1  a πa2
3 2πr = 2 × × 4.2 = 26.4 metre Area of circular parts = 4 × π  =
7 2  2 2
26.4 = 2 (6 x + 5x ) ⇒ 6 x = 7.2 m πa2  π
∴ Total area = a2 + = a2 1 + 
4 2πr = 440 ⇒ r = 70 m 2  2
12 πr2 = 2464 ⇒ r = 28 m
13 Basically there are 12 equilateral triangles each of side ‘a’.
70
14 m

84 m

∴ R = 70 + 14 = 84 m
 44 Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)
5 r + 2πr = 51 ⇒ r 1 +  = 51 ⇒ r = 7,
 7
3
Find area. ∴ 12 × × (a)2 = 3 3a2
4
 22  1 7 
2
6 (2πr − 2r) = 15 ⇒ 2r  − 1 = 15 1
7  14 × π × (7 )2 + 2  × π ×   
2  2  2 

7
⇒ r= Area of larger semicircle + 2 (area of smaller semicircle)
2
75 60
∴
22 7 7
πr2 =
× × = 38.5 m2 15 2π × R × = 25 ⇒ R =
7 2 2 360 π
New area π × 7 × 7 49 16 Ungrazed area = Area of square − 4 (area of quadrants)
7 = =
Original area π × 5 × 5 25 R
21 21
24 D C
Change in area = × 100 = 96%
25
New circumference 6 New radius
8 = = S Q
Original circumference 5 Original radius
2
New area  6 36
∴ =  =
Original area  5 25
A P B
11 42
∴ Change in area = × 100 = 44%
25 1
Alternatively = (42)2 − 4 × × π (21)2 = (21)2 [ 4 − π ] = 378
Change = (1.2 × 1.2) − (1 × 1) = 0.44 4
∴ Change = 44% 1
17 20 + × [ 2π × 10] = 20 + 10π
9 πr = 124.74 hectare
2 2
40 1 (360 − 40) 8
πr2 = 1247400 m2 ⇒ r = 630 m 18 = ∴ =
360 9 360 9
∴ 2πr = 3960
∴ Area of major sector = 8 × 8.25 = 66 cm2
∴ Cost = 3960 × 0.8 = ` 3168
1 1
158400 19 Area of a sector = × arc × radius = × 8 × 5.6 = 22.4 cm2
10 πr2 = ⇒ r2 = 36 ⇒ r = 6 m 2 2
1400
Mensuration 499

22 23 4a = 4 × 66 = 264 = 2πr ⇒ r = 42
20 2πr = 2 × × 700 = 4400 m = 4.4 km
7 ∴ d = 2r = 84 m
Distance 4.4 1
Time = = = h = 20 minute 24 r = 42 ∴ 2πr = 264 = 4a ⇒ a = 66
Speed 13.2 3
∴ d = a 2 = 66 2
21 πR 2 = π [ r12 + r22 + r32], find R. 1100 110
22 25 Circumference = = = 2πr
22 π [ 232 − 122] = × [ 529 − 144] = 1210 560 56
7

Introductory Exercise 10.5

1 Volume of original cube = (4)3 = 64 cm3 10 Let each edge 7of smaller cube = 1 m
and its weight = 400 kg ∴ Each edge of larger cube = 2 m
Since weight of the larger cube is 8 times the weight of and Surface area of smaller cube = 6 × (1)2 = 6 m2
smaller cube. Hence, the volume of new cube will be
∴ Surface area of larger cube = 6 × (2)2 = 24 m2
8 times the volume of smaller cube.
Hence volume of required cube = 8 × 64 = (8)3 24 − 6
∴ % increase in surface area = × 100 = 300%
6
∴ Edge of this cube = 8 cm NOTE It can be determined by using variables e.g., x
2 Volume of the tank = 3 m3 (edge of cube) instead of solving by assuming some numerals.
∴ Base area × height = 3 m3 S2  e2 
2
S2 4
3 Alternatively =  ⇒ =
⇒ Base area = = 1.171875 m2 S1  e1  S1 1
2.56
4 −1
[Q Volume of cuboid = (l × b) × h = (base area) × height] ∴ Percentage increase in surface area = × 100 = 300%
1
3 Volume of cube = Volume of cuboid where, S = surface area, e = edge of cube.
a3 = lbh 3
V2  e2 
11 =  {Q V = (e)3}
⇒ a3 = 36 × 75 × 80 = 216000 V1  e1 
{e = edge of cube}
⇒ a = 60 cm 3
V2  2 8
4 Base area × height = Volume 10 × 4 × 1 = 40 m 3 ∴ =  =
V1  1 1
But 1 m3 = 1000 litre = 1 kilolitre
∴ V2 = 8V1
∴ 40 m3 = 40, 000 litre = 40 kilolitre
12 External volume of the box = 24 × 16 × 10 = 3840 cm3
5 Volume of smaller (required) cube = 8 (dm)3 = 0.008 m3 Thickness of the wood = 5 mm = 0.5 cm
∴ Number of required cubes ∴ Internal length of box = 24 − 2 × 0.5 = 23 cm
Volume of larger cube 1 Internal breadth of box = 16 − 2 × 0.5 = 15 cm
= = = 125
Volume of each smaller cube 0.008 Internal height of box = 10 − 2 × 0.5 = 9 cm
6 Volume of new cube = (3)3 + (4)3 + (5)3 = 216 cm3 ∴ Internal volume of the box = 23 × 15 × 9 = 3105 cm3
∴ Each edge of the new cube = 6 cm ∴ Volume of the wood = 3840 − 3105 = 735 cm3
and hence, surface area = 6 × (a)2 = 216 cm2 Now, total weight of wood
7 Total length of tape = 2 (l + b) + 3.75 = Volume × weight of 1 cm 3 wood
= 2 (39.5 + 9.35) + 3.75 7350 = 735 × weight of 1 cm3 wood
= 101.45 cm ∴ Weight of 1 cm 3 wood = 10 gm
8 Area of surface to be cemented = 2 × (l + b) × h + (l × b) 13 Length of tank = 120 cm
i.e., area of four walls + area of floor 120 1
But since, = 17 , hence 17 cubes can be placed along
= 2 × (21) × 4 + (106.25) = 274.25 m2 7 7
∴ Cost of cementing = 24 × 274.25 = ` 6582 length and breadth of tank = 80 cm
80 3
9 Total volume of water displaced by 250 men But since, = 11 , hence 11 cubes can be placed along
7 7
= 250 × 4 = 1000 m3
breadth and height of tank = 50 cm.
Volume 1000
∴ Rise in water level (h) = = = 25 cm But since,
50 1
= 7 , hence only 7 cubes can be placed along
Base area 80 × 50 7 7
height of the tank.
500 QUANTUM CAT
∴ Total volume occupied by these cubes 23 Net volume = (10 × 8 × 2) − (2 × 2 × 2) = 152 cm3
= (7 ) × 17 × 11 × 7 = 448987 cm
3 3
Net surface area = 2 (10 × 8 + 8 × 2 + 2 × 10)
Total volume of the tank = 120 × 80 × 50 = 480000 cm 3 + 4 (2 × 2) − 2 (2 × 2)
∴ Area of unoccupied space = 480000 − 448987 = 240 cm2
= 31013 cm3 = 31.013 dm3 24 Available area for spreading the earth
14 Surface area of the cuboid = 2 (lb + bh + hl) = 11.6 m3 = (600 × 200) − (24 × 12) = 119712 m2
∴ Cost of canvas = 11.6 × 25 = ` 290 Volume of the earth = 119712 × rise in level
15 Required surface area = 2 (9 × 3 + 3 × 3 + 3 × 9) = 126 cm2 24 × 12 × 8 = 119712 × h
16 Area of 4 walls = 2 (36 + 12) × 10 = 960 m2 2304
⇒ h= = 0.01924 m = 1.92 cm
Total area of (windows + door + chimney) = 120 m2 119712
∴ Net area for papering = 960 − 120 = 840 m2 25 Net volume of the wall
840 = Total volume − Volume taken away due to doors
∴ Length of required paper = = 700 m
1.2 = (30 × 0.3 × 5) − 2 (4 × 2.5 × 0.3) = 39 m3
Hence, cost of papering = 700 × 0.7 = ` 490 8 1
Volume of the bricks = 39 × (Since part is lime in the wall)
17 Number of children × Space required for one child 9 9
= Volume of room 39 × 8
∴ Number of bricks =
30 × 12 × 6 9 × 0.2 × 0.16 × 0.08
∴ Number of children = = 270
8 = 13541.66 ≈ 13600
18 ( x + 2)3 − x 3 = 1016 26 Volume of water which flow in 25 minutes
⇒ x = 12 cm
= 25 × 60 × 0.05 × 0.03 × 16 = 36 m3
and x 3 − ( x − 2)3 = (12)2 − (10)2 = 728
36 1
19 You can see the figure shown in the question number 15. ∴ Rise in water level = = m = 0.2 m
15 × 12 5
Now let us consider that surface area of each face of the
cube 1 cm3. 27 A cube has 6 equal faces, 12 equal edges, 8 vertices and 4
equal diagonals.
∴ Total surface area of the cuboid = 14 cm2
(See the figure shown in orticle 10.8)
and Total surface area of the 3 cubes = 18 cm2
28 a 3 = 6 3 ⇒ a = 6 cm
Hence, required ratio = 14 : 18 = 7 : 9
NOTE In the arrangement of cuboid there are only 14 faces 29 l2 + b2 = 12 ⇒ l2 + b2 = 144
visible to us.
and l2 + b2 + h 2 = 15
20 Iron used in the tube
⇒ l2 + b2 + h 2 = 225
= Difference in external and internal volumes of the tube
⇒ h = 81 ⇒ h = 9 m
2

30 l + b + h = 12 cm, l2 + b2 + h 2 = 5 2

5 cm ⇒ l2 + b2 + h 2 = 50
m
8c Now, (l + b + h)2 = l2 + b2 + h 2 + 2 (lb + bh + hl)
7 cm
⇒ 144 = 50 + 2 (lb + bh + hl)
∴ 192 = 8 x 2 − 8 (5)2 ⇒ x = 7 cm
⇒ 2 (lb + bh + hl) = 94 cm2
7−5
Hence, the thickness of the tube = = 1 cm 31 h : b = 3 : 1 and l : h = 8 : 1
2
21 Base area of vessel × rise in water level = Volume of cube ⇒ l : h : b = 24 : 3 : 1
∴ 24 x × 3x × x = 36.864
15 × 12 × h = 11 × 11 × 11 ⇒ h = 7.39 cm
⇒ x 3 = 0.512 ⇒ x = 0.8
22 (Initial volume of water + required volume of water
∴ h = 3x = 2.4 m
+ volume of cube)
= Base area of vessel × 10 32 lb = x, bh = y, hl = z
∴ 25 × 20 × 5 + required volume of water+ 1000 ∴ lb × bh × hl = xyz
= 25 × 20 × 10 ⇒ (lbh)2 = xyz
⇒ Required volume of water = 1500 cm = 1.5 litre
3
⇒ lbh = xyz
Mensuration 501

Introductory Exercise 10.6

22 r 3x
1 Required volume of water = × (0.04)2 × 3500 12 = , πr2h = 4851 ⇒ x = 3.5
7 h 4x
= 17.6 m3 ∴ r = 10.5 m and h = 14 m
10 × 10 × 10 22
2 h= =3
2
cm ∴ 2πrh = 2 × × 10.5 × 14 = 924 m2
π × 10 × 10 11 7
2πr (h + r) 4
511 13 =
3 h= = 14 m 2πrh 1
36.5 h+ r 4 r 3
⇒ = ⇒ =
4 2π rh = 1056 cm2 h 1 h 1
33 Alternatively Go through options.
⇒ r= cm
π 21
2 14 2πr = 33 ⇒ r =
 33 4
∴ πr h = π ×   × 16
2
π 22  21
2
∴ Volume = πr2h = ×   × 330
⇒ Volume = 5544 cm3 7  4
= 28586.25 cm3
5 Diameter of the cylinder = edge of the cube = 2 cm
r1 4 x
Height of the cylinder = edge of the cube 15 = , but V1 = V2
r2 x
∴ Required volume = (2)3 − π × (1)2 × 2
∴ π (4 x )2 × h1 = π ( x )2 h2
 44 12
=8−  = cm3
7 7 ⇒ h2 = 16h1

2πrh 17.6 16 2πr (h + r) = 2640

6 h= = = 2m
2πr 8.8 ⇒ 2πr (30) = 2640 ⇒ r = 14 m
and 2πr = 8.8 ⇒ h = 16 m (Q r + h = 30 m)
⇒ r = 1.4 m ∴ h: r = 8:7
22 V1 π (r1 )2 h1 3 × 3 × 4 12
∴ πr h =
2
× (1.4)2 × 2 = 12.32 m3 17 = = =
7 V2 π (r2 )2 h2 5 × 5 × 3 25
h V1 1
7 2r = h ⇒ r = 18 =
2 V2 1
h h 3
∴ 2πr (h + r) = 2π ×  h +  = πh 2 2
 r1  h 1 r 
2
3 1
2 2 2   × 1 = ⇒  1 × =
 r2  h2 1  r2  1 1
8 2πrh = 2 × π × 2 × 10 = 40π m2
2
2πrh  r1  1 r1 1
9 =
2
⇒
h
=
2
⇒
h 2
= ⇒   = ⇒ =
2πr (h + r) 3 h+ r 3 r 1  r2  3 r2 3

∴ 2πr (h + r) = 924 2πr1h1 3 6 9

19 = × =
2 2πr2h2 2 7 7
∴ 2πrh = 924 × = 616 cm2
3 20 h = 42 cm, 2πR = 132 cm
⇒ 2 × π × x × 2x = 616 ⇒ R = 21 cm
⇒ x = 7 ∴ r = 7 cm and h = 14 cm ∴ r = 21 − 3 = 18 cm
22
∴ πr2h = × (7 )2 × 14 = 2156 cm3 ∴ Required volume = π (R 2 − r2 ) h
7
22
π × r × r × h 269.5 = [(21)2 − (18)2] × 42 = 15444 cm3
10 = ⇒ r = 3.5 cm 7
2× π × r × h 154
21 Since radius and height of the cylinder are same as that of
Now, 2π × 3.5 × h = 154 ⇒ h = 7 cm
cone. Therefore cylinder can contain 15 × 3 = 45 litre of
11 2πrh = 1320 ⇒ h = 10 cm milk.
22 1
∴ 2πr (h + r) = 2 × × 21 × 31 = 4092 cm2 Hint Volume of cone = πr 2 h and volume of cylinder = πr 2 h.
7 3
502 QUANTUM CAT
22 Best way is to go through option. Volume of cylinder πr 2 h 1 3
30 = = =
V1 1 (r )2 h 1 Volume of cone   2
1   1
1
Alternatively = ⇒ 1 2 1 =   πr h  
V2 27 (r2 ) h2 27  3  3
A
x13 (1)3 x 1 31 By Pythagorus theorem
⇒ = ⇒ 1 = 10 cm
3
x 2 (3)3
x2 3 AD = 3 cm
h1 1 ∴ Area of axial section 5 5
⇒ = 20 cm 1 3
h2 3 = × 8 × 3 = 12 cm2
2
h2 30 B C
∴ h1 = = = 10 cm 4 D 4
3 3 V (1.4)3 2.744
32 2 = =
Hence, cone is cut off at (30 − 10 = ) 20 cm above the base. V1 (1)3 1
 2.744 − 1 
Hint For more clarification of the concept seek help from geometry. ∴ % increase in volume =   × 100 = 174.4%
(Similarity of triangles)  1
1 22 13 13 33 Area of circular sheet = 625π
23 Volume of conical tent = × × × × 10.5
3 7 2 2 Since length of arc and area of sector are directly
Volume of tent 3 proportional to the central angle.
∴ Average space per man = = 58 Therefore, length of remaining arc
8 32
96
1 2 2200 = × 2 × π × 25 = 48π
24 × π × (5x )2 × (12x ) = 314 = 100
3 7 7
But the remaining arc is equal to the circumference of the
⇒ x = 1 ∴ r = 5 and h = 12
base of circular cone.
∴ l = 13 m
∴ 2πR = 48π ⇒ R = 24 cm
1 22
25 × × r2 × 24 = 1232 ⇒ r = 7 cm Now, since the slant height of cone is equal to the radius of
3 7
the original circular sheet.
22
∴ πrl = × 7 × 25 = 550 cm2 (Q l = r2 + h 2 ) Hence, l = 25 cm
7
h = 7 cm (Q l = r2 + h 2 )
26 2πr = 220 ⇒ r = 35 cm
Radius 24
∴ =
∴ l = r2 + h 2 = 91 cm Height 7
22 V2 (r2 )2 h2 (2r)2
∴ πrl =
× 35 × 91 = 10010 cm2 34 = = {Q h1 = h2}
7 V1 (r1 )2 h1 (r)2
22
27 Area of cloth = πrl = × 14 × 50 = 2200 m2 V2 4
7 ⇒ =
V1 1
2200
∴ Length of cloth = = 220 m
10 35 Each edge of cube= 10 cm
28 πrl = 23.10 ⇒ rl = 2.1 × 3. 5 Radius of base of cone = 5 cm
Height of cone = 10 cm
Now, we know that h = 2.8. So we can assume the value of
1 22
r from the given option. ∴ Volume of cone = × × 25 × 10 = 261.9 cm2
3 7
at r = 2.1, l = 3.5 (Q l = r2 + h 2 )
V2 r12 × h1 2 × 2 × 2 8
Alternatively r (r + h ) = (2.1 × 3.5)
2 2 2 2 36 = = =
V1 r22 × h2 1 × 1 × 1 1
⇒ r4 + (2.8)2 r2 = (7.35)2 ⇒ r4 + 7.84r2 = 54.0225 BD A
37 = cos 60°
⇒ k + 7.84k − 54.0225, k = r
2 2
AB
30°

BD 1
=
°
30

Now, solve the above quadratic equation, if you can else

AB 2
substitute the value of r from the given choices.
BD = CD, are the radii of the base
πr1l1 3
29 = (Q r1 = r2 ) and AB = AC are the slant heights 60° 60°
πr2l2 2 B
D
C
of the cone. A is the vertex and BC
A1 3 A1 3 is the base.
∴ = ⇒ =
A2 2 300 2
∴ A1 = 450 cm2 1
38 Volume of cone = π × 144 × 35
3
Mensuration 503

Volume of water flowing per second 39 Use the given formula :

500 π
= π × (0.8)2 × Volume = h (r2 + Rr + R 2 )
60 3
 π where π =
22
, h = 6, R = 4 and r = 2
  × 144 × 35
 3 7
∴ Required time = = 315 s
 500 1 8 2
π × 0.64 ×   40 π × (10)2 × 72 = π × (30)2 × h ⇒ h = = 2 cm
 60  3 3 3

Introductory Exercise 10.7

4 4
1 π (r13 + r23 + r33 ) = π (6)3 M
3 3 A B
E
⇒ 27 + 64 + r33 = 216
⇒ r33 = 125
G
⇒ r3 = 5 cm
4
2 πr2 × 144 = π × (12)3 (Q Volume remains constant) F
3
D C
⇒ r = 4 cm P

3 Number of bottles × Volume of each bottle In the diagram, AG = MG = PG = radius of sphere

= Volume of hemisphere Now, using Pythagoras Theorem in right angle ∆ AEG, we

2
n × π × (3) × 1 = π × (6)3 ⇒ n = 16
2 can find EG = AG 2 − AE 2 = 152 − 92 = 12 cm.
3
1 2 Therefore height of the cylinder = EF = 2 EG = 24 cm
4 π × (r)2 × 14 = π × (7 )3 ⇒ r = 7 cm
3 3 Now, Lateral surface area of cylinder
4 = 2π × 9 × 24 = 432 π sq cm
5 Volume of the spherical shell = π (R 3 − r3 )
3 Total surface area of original sphere
4 872
= π (7 3 − 53 ) = π = 4π (radius of sphere)2 = 4π × 152 = 900 π sq cm
3 3
6 Since volume is constant Lateral surface area of a spherical cap = perimeter of the
4 4 sphere × height of the spherical cap
∴ n × π (1)3 = π × (8)3 ⇒ n = 512
3 3 = 2π × (radius of the sphere) × (MG − EG )
2 = 2π × 15 × (15 − 12) = 90π
7 Volume of hemisphere = πr3
3 Therefore, required surface area
2 22 = 432 π + [ 900 π − 2(90 π )] = 1152 π sq cm
= × × (21)3 = 19404 m3
3 7
11 Look at the following digaram and recall the definition of a
8 Change in height (or level) of water zone.
Volume of sphere
=
Base area of cylinder Zone
Hemisphere
4 Spherical cap
π × (9)3
3 27
= = cm
π × (12)2
4
Hence choice (d) is correct.
9 Volume of cone = Volume of sphere Solutions (for Q. Nos. 12 to14) Given that AB and CD are
1 2 7 4 parallel, if we draw a line passing from the centre and
πr × = π (7 )3 ⇒ r = 14 2 cm
3 2 3 intersecting AB and CD, this line EF will be perpendicular to both
10 Required surface area = lateral surface area of cylinder + the lines AB and CD. If you have any doubt please refer the
[Total surface Area of Sphere − 2 (lateral surface area of Geometry chapter, especially, Lines and Angles section to
spherical cap)] understand this concept and even you can refer the Circles
section also.
504 QUANTUM CAT
But, OF = OE − EF = 15 − 7 = 8 cm
2 cm
C 4 E D Now, in ∆CFO, we have

5
3 CF = CO 2 − OF 2 = 17 2 − 82 = 15 cm
O 7 cm
The height of larger spherical cap
5 4 = radius of sphere + length of OF
A 3 F B 1 cm = 17 + 8 = 25 cm
And the height of the smaller segment = radius of sphere
Now, we know that ∆AFO and ∆CEO are right angle − length of OE = 17 − 15 = 2 cm.
triangles. We know that EF = 7 cm and AF = 3 cm.
15 Volume of the zone
Now in ∆OAF, we can use Pythagoras theorem and find OF πh 2
= (h + 3r12 + 3r22 )
= OA 2 − AF 2 = 52 − 32 = 4 cm. 6
7π 2 3206
Therefore, OE = EF − OF = 3 cm. = (7 + 3 (8)2 + 3(15)2 ) = π
6 3
Now, in ∆CEO, we can use Pythagoras theorem and find
Hence, choice (b) is correct.
CE = CO 2 − OE 2 = 52 − 32 = 4 cm. 16 Volume of the larger spherical cap
Therefore, AB = 2 ( AF ) = 6 cm and CD = 2 (CE ) = 8 cm. πh 2 25 π 16250
= (h + 3r2 ) = (252 + 3 (15)2 ) = π
Now, we know that the segment with larger base radius is 6 6 3
the larger segment, so the height of larger segment Hence, choice (c) is correct.
= 5 − 3 = 2 cm. Similarly, the hight of the smaller segment
17 Total surface area of the smaller spherical cap
= 5 − 4 = 1 cm
= 2π Rh + π r2 = 2 π (17 × 2) + π (2)2 = 72π
12 Volume of the zone
Hence, choice (a) is correct.
πh 2 7π 2
= (h + 3r12 + 3r22 ) = (7 + 3 (3)2 + 3 (4)2 ) 18 Volume of the spherical sector = Volume of the spherical
6 6
434 cap + Volume of the conical section
= π
3 h
Hence, choice (a) is correct.
13 The smaller spherical cap has 3 cm radius and 1 cm height. R
Therefore the volume of the smaller spherical cap
πh 2 π (5 − 4) 14
= (h + 3r2 ) = ((5 − 4)2 + 3(3)2 ) = π.
6 6 3
Hence, choice (c) is correct. But the height of the conical section = 252 − 7 2 = 24 cm
14 The larger spherical cap has 4 cm radius and 2 cm height. Therefore, the height of the smaller spherical cap
Therefore, the lateral surface area of the larger spherical = 25 − 24 = 1 cm
cap perimeter of the sphere × height of the spherical cap
Thus, the total surface area of the sector of the sphere
= 2π (5) × (2) = 20 π
πh 2 1
Hence, choice (d) is correct. = (h + 3r2 ) + (base area of cone × height of cone)
6 3
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 15 to 17) Given that OA = OC = 17cm. π 1 1250
= (1 + 3 (7 ) ) + (π × 7 2 ) × 24 =
2
π
Now drop the perpendicular OF from the centre on the line CD 6 3 3
and another perpendicular OE on the line AB. These Hence, choice (d) is correct.
perpendiculars will bisect the lines CD and AB respectively.
1
19 Volume of pyramid = × base area × height
3
1
= × 25 × 12 = 100 cm3
3
O
17 Hence, choice (b) is correct.
F
C
17
D 20 Volume of prism = Base area × height
E
A B Since, base area is constant and height is being halved
therefore volume will also be halved. Hence, its volume
Now, in ∆AEO, we have will be reduced by 50%.
OE = OA 2 − AE 2 = 17 2 − 82 = 15 cm Hence, choice (a) is correct.
Mensuration 505

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise

1 With the given perimeter the area of parallelogram will be ⇒ a + b = 17 …(i)
maximum when it will be a rhombus. A
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Alternatively 13 cm
b
D C
B
d h = d/2 C a
Again (a − b)2 = (a + b)2 − 4ab
30°
A b B (a − b)2 = 289 − 240
Perimeter = 2d + 2b = 4h + 2b = 64 cm ⇒ (a − b) = 7 …(ii)
64 − 4h From eq. (i) and (ii), we get
⇒ b=
2 a = 12 cm and b = 5 cm
64h − 4h 2 (Altitude+ Base − Hypotenuse)
∴ Area = b × h = = f ( A) Now, Inradius =
2 2
1 (12 + 5 − 13)
∴ f ′ ( A ) = (64 − 8h) (Refer the differentiation) = = 2 cm
2 2
For the maximum area = f ′ ( A ) = 0 Area
Alternatively Inradius (r) =
1 Semiperimeter
∴ (64 − 8h) = 0
2 30
= = 2 cm
⇒ h = 8 cm and d = 16 cm 15
∴ b = 16 cm  (12 + 5 + 13) 
Semiperimeter = = 15
 2 
2 Volume of water displaced = volume of sphere
NOTE If you are well aware with Pythagorian triplets then
4
π × (40)2 × h =
π × (30)3 it is very easy to find the sides ( i . e. , altitude and base) of the right
3 angle triangle.
90
⇒ h= = 22.5 cm 5 General phenomenon: A convex polygon in which
4 there is maximum number of sides, it has the greatest
Thus, the level of water rises by 22.5 cm. enclosed area when the perimeter of the polygon is
constant.
NOTE The volume of water will be calculated by
considering it in the cylindrical shape since the water takes the Remember that in a circle there are infinite sides of
shape of vessel in which it is filled. minimum possible length. So, the area of circle will be
maximum.
3 O is the starting point and L is the end point. Alternatively Perimeters of hexagon and
24 m circumference of circle are same i.e.
L
N
10 m 6a = 2πr ⇒ 21a = 22 r
where a is the side of hexagon and r is the radius of circle.
28 m

O 12 m W E then Area of circle = πr2

18 m 3
and Area of hexagon = 6 × × a2
S 4
2
12 m 3 3  22r
= × 
4  21 
(OL )2 = (24)2 + (10)2
OL2 = 676 3 3 22 22
= × × × r2
⇒ OL = 26 m North-East 4 7×3 7×3
3 22 2
4 a + b2 = 132 = 169
2
= × πr = 0.45πr2
4 21
a×b
and = 30 Therefore, area of circle πr 2 is greater than area of hexagon.
2
Similarly you can compare other figures.
Now (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab
Alternatively Consider some suitable values. Let us
(a + b)2 = 169 + 120 assume perimeter of square and hexagon is 24 cm, then
each side of square = 6 cm.
506 QUANTUM CAT
and Area = 36 cm2 a 3
⇒ h=
Similarly, each side of hexagon = 4 cm 2
3 3 ∴ Area of rhombus a
h a
and area of hexagon = × (4)2 = 24 3 cm2
2 a × 3a
=a×h= 60°
2 a
Thus, we can say that for a particular (or constant) value of
perimeter, area of hexagon is greater than that of square. and Area of square = a2
 24 a2
Similarly each side of octagon = 3 cm  =  ∴ Required ratio = ×2
 8
3a2
∴ Area of octagon = 2a2 (1 + 2) 2  3 2 3
= ×  =
= 2 × 9 (1 + 2) ≈ 43.5 cm2 3  3 3
Thus, the area of octagon is greater than the area of 10 D R C
hexagon.
12
Similarly, 2πr = 24 ⇒ r = cm S Q
π
12 12
∴ Area of circle = π × r2 = π × × = 45.81 cm2 A B
π π P
Thus, we can say that ultimately the area of the circle is ABCD is a square, AB = BC = CD = AD = 20 cm
greatest. and P , Q , R and S are the mid-points.
D C D C ∴ PS = SR = RQ = PQ = 10 2cm (Q AP = BP etc = 10 cm)
6
90° ∴ Area of square PQRS = (10 2)2 = 200 cm2
or D C
Alternatively We can see that there
90° are total 8 equal parts (or triangles) out
A B A B
of 8 we have taken only 4 parts i . e. ,
Since sum of all the angles of a quadrilateral is 360°. 50% area has been cut out.
Therefore, ∠ A + ∠ B + ∠ C + ∠ D = 360° So, the remaining area = 50% of 400 B
A
⇒ ∠ B + ∠ C = 180° = 200 cm2.
⇒ ∠ B = 180° − ∠ C A
11 Area of right angle triangle
∠ ABG = 60° ( x + 2) × (2x + 3)

(x + 2)
7 = = 60
∴ ∠ GBC = 90° − 60° = 30° 2
Again ∠ BGC + ∠BCG = 180° − 30° = 150° ⇒ 2x 2 + 7 x + 6 = 120
⇒ 2x 2 + 7 x − 114 = 0 C B
Now, since ∠ BGC = ∠ BCG (2x + 3)
D C Solving the above quadratic equation, we get
75° x=6
75°
G ∴ x + 2 = 8 cm
and 2x + 3 = 15 cm
30°

∴ Hypotenuse AB = (8)2 + (15)2 = 17 cm

60° 60°
A B (Using Pythagorus theorem)
U T
∴ ∠ BGC = 75° 12 Let us assume PQRSTUVW is a regular D C
octagon with each side a unit. V S
NOTE In a triangle when two sides are equal, then the two
angles opposite to these sides are also equal.
Again, if we produce all the sides of
octagon in both sides we get a square. W R
r 3x
8 = Since each of the side of octagon is ‘a’ A B
R 4x P Q
then
Q 4 x − 3x = 2 r
UV = WP = QR = ST = a
⇒ x=2 a
R ∴ DU = DV (etc. ) =
∴ Outer radius = 8 cm 2
∴ Area of outer circle a a
∴ DU + UT + TC = + a+
= π × (8)2 = 64π cm2 2 2
9
h
= sin 60° = a (1 + 2)
a ∴ Area of square = a2 (1 + 2)2
h 3 = a2 (3 + 2 2) sq unit
=
a 2
Mensuration 507

Again, area of each shaded portion (i . e. , an isosceles right ∴ Area of the shaded region B
angle triangle)  2 
= 102 − 49 3 cm2 A 60° 60°
1 a a a2  3 
= × × = 60°
2 2 2 4 18 l1 × b1 = l2 × b2
a2 C
∴ Total area of all the shaded region = 4 × = a2 New area of first rectangle
4 5 3 15
∴ Area of octagon = Area of square ABCD = l1 × b1 = l1b1
4 4 16
− Area of total shaded region 3 5 15
= a2 (3 + 2 2) − a2 New area of the second rectangle = l2 × b2 = l2b2
4 4 16
= 2a2 (1 + 2) sq. unit Hence, areas of both the new rectangles are same.
13 Let the each side of the square be DM D C
19 = sin 60°
2 cm, then D C AD
area of square = 4 cm2 and 6 3 3
a
63 a
area of 4 quadrants of the four =
AD 2 60°
circles (i . e. , unshaded part inside A M B
⇒ AD = 12 cm
the square) A B
1 4 3 1 2
= 4 × π × (1)2 = π cm2 20 πr = πr h
4 3 3
∴ Area of shaded region = (4 − π ) cm2 (Since radii of sphere and cone are same)
4−π 6/7 3 ⇒ 4r = h
Therefore, the required ratio = = = h 4
π 22/ 7 11 ∴ = ⇒ h: r = 4:1
r 1
14 From the concept of mid point theorem, it is the average of 1 1 
the length of the parallel sides. 21 Area of the shaded region =  π(22)2 − 2  π × (11)2 
2  2 
OP 1 PC
15 From the concept of similarity of triangles = = 1
OQ 5 BQ = π × (11)2 [ 4 − 2] = 121π cm2
O 2
x 22 Area of path = (l + b − w ) w
D C = (60 + 40 − 5) 5 = 475 m2
P h
Cost = Area × Rate
4x
= 475 × 0.8 = ` 380
Q 23 Go through options. Let the length and breadth of the
A B
second rectangle is l and b respectively, then the area of
Since, the ratio in radii of the two cones is 1 : 5. Therefore,
21 second field = l × b.
the radius of smaller cone ODC is = 4.2 cm.
5 NOTE Now consider option (d) i. e. , x = 80, then
Alternatively Solve it in the proper way, which is
1
actually a very tedious process. Still you have to apply the Area of first field = l × 5b = lb
concept of similarity of triangles, which you will study in 5
Geometry. Hence, area of first field is same as that of second field,
16 l × b = 2 (l + b) hence the presumed option is correct.
2b 2 (b − 2) + 4 4 1
⇒ l= = = 2+ 24 Area of quadrant = πa2
(b − 2) b−2 (b − 2) 4
a2
Area of triangle ACB =
Since, l is an integer, so 4 must be divisible by (b − 2). 2
Thus, b can be 4 or 6 or 3.
Therefore, if b = 4, l = 4, it will be a square. If b = 6, l = 3and
if b = 3, l = 6. → Area of required region
A B
Hence, l = 6 and b = 3
∴ l−b=3 → Area of segment
3
17 Area of ∆ ABC = × (14)2 = 49 3 cm2
4
C
Area of sector
πa2 a2 a2
ABC = π × (14)2 ×
60 2
= 102 cm2 ∴ Area of segment = − = [ π − 2]
360 3 4 2 4
508 QUANTUM CAT
2 2
1  a 2 πa2 ∴ Area of equilateral triangle =
3  4a
Area of semi-circle = π  =  
2  2  4 4  3

πa2 a2 a2 4 3 2
∴ Area of required region = − [ π − 2] = sq unit a =
4 4 2 9
a ×9
2
25 Wrongly calculated area = 1.05 × 0.92 = 0.966 = 96.6% ∴ Required ratio of area =
4 3 × a2
∴ % error = 100 − 96.6 = 3.4%
Alternatively Actual area = l × b
= 9: 4 3
Wrongly calculated area = 1.05l × 0.92b = 0.966lb 31 ABCD is a square O is the point of intersection of diagonals.
P , Q , R and S are the mid-points on the sides AB, BC , CD,
Deficit in area = lb − 0.966lb = 0.034lb
DA respectively.
0.034lb
% error in area = × 100 = 3.4%
lb D R C
26 Volume of water = Area of cross-section × Length of pool
(10 + 6) S Q
= × 6 × 120 = 5760 m3 O
2
22176
27 Area of path = = 22176 m2 A
P
B
1 Fig. (i)
Fig. (ii)
π (R 2 − r2 ) = 22176
22176 r In the above figure you can see that there are total 16
(R 2 − r2 ) = ×7 congruent isosceles right angled triangles.
22
In figure (iii) you can see that OMPN is a square of
R 2 − (112)2 = 7056 R
maximum possible area which is made up of 2 isosceles
⇒ R 2 = 19600 ⇒ R = 140 m right angled triangles OMP and ONP. Thus, there are 4
∴ Width of the path = 140 − 112 = 28 m smaller squares around O and thus the total area of these 4
squares is half of the larger square. Hence, the required
28 From the figure itself it is clear that there are total area = 800 cm2.
9 equilateral (congruent) triangles. Out of 9 triangles,
O
3 triangles are cut out.
A A
M 90° 90° N

T S T S
A B
U R U R P
Fig. (iii)

B C B C Alternatively ABCD is a square

P Q P Q R
Fig. (i) Fig. (ii) AB = 40 cm D C
1 OA = OB = 20 2 cm
It means (i . e. , 33.33%) area has been removed.
3 and OP = 20 cm O Q
M N
SP 3 C Square OMPN has maximum area inside
29 = sin 60° = the triangle and OP is the diagonal of A B
AS 2 P
square OMPN.
3 S R
⇒ SP = AS (20)2
2 ∴ Area of OMPN = = 200 cm 2
Also, SP = SR = CS = CR 2
A B
P Q Since, there are total 4 similar squares in each of the
(since, SR || AB ∴ ∠ CSR = ∠ SRC = ∠ RCS = 60°) 4 triangles AOB, BOC , COD, DOA inside the larger square.
So, the total required area of 4 smaller squares
3
∴ CS = AS = 4 × 200 = 800 cm 2
2 C
CS 3 CR 32 Let the each side of equilateral triangle be
∴ = = a
AS 2 RB ‘a’, then circumradius of the circle = a
3
2 O
30 Let the each side of a square be a then its area will be a . ∴ Area of circumcircle
Therefore, area of circle will also be a2. 2
 a π A
D
B
Again since the perimeter of square and equilateral triangle = πr2 = π ×   = a2
4a  3 3
is same then, the each side of equilateral triangle is ⋅
3
Mensuration 509

Area of square whose side is equal to that of equilateral 38 Area of large cube = 6 × (5)2 = 150 (unit) 2
triangle = a2. Area of cuboid = 2 (1 × 1 + 1 × 125 + 125 × 1)
π 2 = 502 (unit) 2
a
π
∴ Required ratio = 3 2 = (502 − 150)
a 3 Therefore, increase in surface area = × 100
150
NOTE A circumcircle always passes through the vertices of 2
= 234 %
the inscribed figure (say triangle). 3
33 Best way is to go through option. Given that height of room 39 AO = BO = 13 cm
= 10 m. ⇒ AC = BD = 26 cm (Q O is the point of bisector)
Volume of room = 25 × 400 = 10000 m3 Now, since the diagonals are equal, it D C
and Surface area of walls = 2h (l + b) = 1300 m2 means the given figure is actually a
Now, consider option (c) and verify it. rectangle.
where l = 40 and b = 25 A B
∴ BC 2 = AC 2 − AB 2
34 Let the each side of equilateral triangle be a, then its
perimeter = 3a BC 2 = (26)2 − (24)2
C BC 2 = 100
Again, 2 (l + b) = 3a
3 3a ⇒ BC = 10 cm
⇒ l + b = a⇒ a + b = Q P
2 2 40 AB = 16 cm
AB = l = a
(for the rectangle) A B AQ = 10 cm
a AB
⇒ b= and AO = = 8 cm
2 2
a a2
∴ Area of rectangle = a × = ∴ OQ = AQ − AO
2 2
3 = 10 − 8 = 2 cm
and Area of triangle = × a2
4
a2/ 2 2
∴ Required ratio = 2
=
3a /4 3
A P O Q B
35 Since, b, l and 2 (l + b) are in GP, therefore
l 2(l + b)
= OQ (= OP ) is the radius of smaller enclosed circle between
b l
l two arcs.
Suppose = x,
b ∴ Area of circle with centre O is π × (2)2 = 4π cm2.
 1 41 Area of the shaded region
then x = 2 1 +  ⇒ x 2 − 2x − 2 = 0
 x
D C
l
⇒ x = 3+1= S R
b
36 Non-polished area = 4π (r)2
 πr2  P Q
Polished area = 4 ×  2 ×  = 4πr2
 2  A B

In the adjoining figure, one of the four = (Area of square PQRS − 4 × area of each quadrant of circles)
parts of the sphere is shown (To understand it properly,  1 
= (2)2 − 4 × π × (1)2 = (4 − π ) cm2
take an apple and cut it in the four parts one across  4 
horizontal and another cut make vertical to it then you will
notice that in a piece there are 2 semicircles.) Therefore, 42 Let each side of the square be a, then
required ratio = 1 : 1. D C
85 × 17 × 5.1
37 Number of cubes = = 1500
1.7 × 1.7 × 1.7
(1.7 is the HCF of 85, 17 and 5.1)
Area of each cube = 6 × (1.7 )2 A
E
B

∴ Area of all the 1500 cubes = 1500 × 6 × (1.7 ) 2

AE = AB − BE = (a − 17 )
= 26010 cm2
510 QUANTUM CAT
∴ Area of triangle =
1
× AD × AE ⇒ b × b = 10000
2 ⇒ b = 100 m
1 ∴ Perimeter of Kaurav’s land = 4 × 100 = 400 m
= a × (a − 17 ) = 84
2 ∴ Expenses = 2 × 400 = ` 800
⇒ a2 − 17 a − 168 = 0 48 Ratio of height
⇒ a = 24 cm h1 9 3 9 cm
= =
∴ Area of square = (24)2 = 576 cm2 h2 12 4
12 cm
43 The solid with the least number of sides will have (3)3 27
∴ Ratio of volumes = =
maximum surface area. So, tetrahedron will have (4)3 64
maximum surface area. Notice that in a sphere there are
Hence, the volume of smaller cone
infinite number of sides with the least possible length. So,
the surface area of sphere will be the least. = 27 x
l (l + b) and the volume of larger (actual) cone = 64 x
44 =
b l ∴ the volume of frustum = 64 x − 27 x = 37 x
⇒ l = b (l + b) = lb + b2
2 64 x
…(A) ∴ Required ratio = = 64 : 37
37 x
⇒ l2 − b2 = lb …(i)
49 AB = 45 km, AC = 53 km
⇒ (l + b)(l − b) = lb …(ii)
(Since distance = speed × time)
(l + b) b
and = …(iii) C
l (l − b)
Therefore, statements (ii) and (iii) are true from
equation (A) A B
l2 bl + b2 ∴ BC = AC − AB 2
2
=
b2 b2
l2
l BC = (53)3 − (45)2
⇒ =1 +
b2 b or BC = 28 km
l l2 ∴ Area of field = AB × BC
⇒ = −1
b b2 = 45 × 28 = 1260 km2
Hence, statement (i) is wrong. 50
3
45 Area of triangle = × (2)2 = 3 cm2
4 A B 30 cm
Area of 3 circles enclosed by the triangle 60°
60 π
= 3 × π × (1)2 × = cm2 O
360 2 Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)
C D
∴ Area of shaded region ∠ AOB = 60°
π (2 3 − π ) AB = 8 3 cm
= 3− = cm2 M
2 2 OC = 30 cm 30 cm 60° B
46 Diameter of cube = 3 cm OM 30°
= tan 60° = 3
9×9×9 MB
∴ Number of cubes = O
3× 3× 3 OM = 3MB Fig. (iii)
= 27cubes OM = 12 cm
47 OM OC
b Now, =
MB CD
(Triangles OMB and OCD are similar)
l
∴ CD = 10 3 cm(which is the radius of cone)
l × b = 20000 1
l ∴ Volume of cone = πr2h
⇒ × b = 10000, Area of Kaurav’s land 3
2 1
For the given area, a square gives the minimum perimeter. = π × (10 3)2 × 30
3
l
∴ =b = 3000π cm3
2
Mensuration 511
P
51 Surface area of one cube = 6a2 56 Consider the following Figure.
When 6 cubes are fixed on the 6 faces of a cube then only 5 Let RS = b and QS = h.
faces of a cube are visible of each cube. Since, the central Then, RQ 2 = 512 = b2 + h 2 …(i)
cube is completely covered. So, the only 6 cubes are visible Q
each with 5 faces. Hence, the total surface area of this solid and RP 2 = RS 2 + (PQ + QS )2
= 5a2 × 6. ⇒ 742 = b2 + (25 + h)2 …(ii)
h
5a × 6 5
2
Solving the above two equations we
∴ Required ratio = = ⇒ 5: 1 get h = 45 and b = 24.
6a2 1
Now, volume of cone (V1 ) when ∆ PRS R
52 Ratio of areas = (Ratio of diagonals) 2 b S
is rotated about PS
2
 3 9 1
=  = = × π × 242 × 70 = 13440 π cubic cm
 2 4 3
53 You should know that And volume of cone (V2 ) when ∆ QRS is rotated about QS
1
= × π × 242 × 45
E D 3
= 8640 π cubic cm
F C Therefore the required volume of the solid (V3 )
= V1 − V2 = 4800 π cubic cm
Hence, choice (b) is correct.
A B
57 Let 4a be the side of each square.
Area of ∆ BDF 1 Then the radius of the circle inscribed in the squares
= ABCD = 2a
Area of hexagon 2
So the area of this circle = π (2a)2 = 4 πa2
Actually there is a perfect symmetricity.
3 3
∴ Area of hexagon = × (6)2 = 54 3 cm2
2
∴ Area of ∆ BDF = 27 3 cm2
Alternatively Subtract the areas of three triangles
DEF , BAF , BCD from the area of hexagon. And the radius of each circle inscribed in the square PQRS
1 =a
Area of ∆ DEF = × 6 × 6 sin 120° = 9 3 cm2
2 So the total area of four circles = 4 × π (a)2 = 4 πa2
∴ Area of all the three triangles = 27 3 cm
Therefore, required area of ∆BDF = 54 3 − 27 3 It shows that the area occupied by the circle(s) in each
square is same. Therefore the required ratio = 1 : 1
= 27 3 cm2
Hence, choice (d) is correct.
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 54 and 55)
58 If 2a be the side of any square, the area of square would be
4x 4x 4x 4x x 4a2.
x
x And, the radius of the inscribed circle would be a, so the
4x x 4x area of the circle would be πa2.
x
Therefore the ratio of area of each circle to the area of
Total length of plot = 17x concerned square = π : 4
and total breadth of the plot = 4x Since the total area of all the smaller squares = total area of
∴ Area of plot = 17x × 4 x = 9792 the Original Square.
⇒ x = 12 Area of all the circles π
∴ =
∴ l = 17 × 12 = 204 m Area of original square 4
and b = 4 × 12 = 48 m Hence, choice (c) is correct.
4 x × 4 x 16 59 After you cut out any cube or cuboid from the corner of a
54 =
x×x 1 solid cube or cuboid, the surface area remains unchanged,
⇒ 16 : 1 which you can easily understand by looking at the diagram.
55 l = 204 m and b = 48 m So, the required area is 216 cubic ft.
Hence, choice (a) is correct.
512 QUANTUM CAT
60 Since ∠DPC = 90°,
1
Area of ∆DPC = × DP × PC = 189 A P B
2
Now drop a perpendicular PQ from P on DC.
Then you can see that the area of
∆APD = ∆PQD and area of ∆PBC = ∆PQC. It means each side of the square inscribed by the circle is
Therefore, area of rectangle ABCD D Q C
2 5x
= = 10 x
= 2 × area of ∆ DPC = 378 mm2 2
Hence, choice (a) is the correct one. (2x )2 2
Therefore, the required ratio = =
Alternatively Area of rectangle ABCD = DC × BC ( 10 x )2
5
= DC × PQ Hence, choice (a) is the correct one.
= DP × PC Alternatively Look carefully at the following diagrams.
= 18 × 21 = 378 In the first diagram, the pertinent square covers 4 units of
smaller squares. In the second diagram, the pertinent
Hint In right angle triangle DPC,
square covers 10 units of smaller squares.
DC × PQ = DP × PC = area of ∆ DPC.
Hence, choice (a) is the correct one.
61 The shortest path that the ant will
follow to reach the farthest corner from
one particular corner is shown below in 12
the diagram.
Thus the required length
= (12)2 + (12)2 = 12 2 6 6 2
Therefore, the required ratio = 4 / 10 = .
Hence, choice (c) is the correct one. 5

62 Let the longer side be x and the shorter side be y, the 64 In ∆ABO , AB = OA 2 − OB 2 = 2
semiperimeter of the parallelogram would be x + y. Since AB = OB, so ∆ABO is an
x+ y isosceles triangle.
x x+ y x x Therefore, ∠BAO = ∠BOA = 45° B C
∴ = ⇒ = √2 O 1
y x y x √2 √3
In ∆OCD, 2 2
x
 y CD = OD 2 − OC 2 = 3 A D
1+  
x  x x y Since, the three sides of the triangle are in the ratio
⇒ = ⇒ =1 +
y 1 y x 1: 3 : 2, it implies that ∠CDO = 30° and ∠COD = 60°
x y Therefore, ∠AOD = 180 − (∠BOA + ∠COD ) = 75°
⇒ − −1 = 0
y x Now, area of the shaded region = area of ∆ABO + area of
1 x sector AOD + area of ∆OCD
⇒ k − −1 = 0 (assuming = k) 1
k y Area of ∆ABO = × 2 × 2 = 1sq cm
2
⇒ k2 − k − 1 = 0 75 5π
Area of sector AOD = π (2)2 × = sq cm
1+ 5 x 1+ 5 360 6
⇒ k= ⇒ =
2 y 2 1 3
Area of ∆OCD = × 1 × 3 = sq cm
∴ y = 2 cm ∴ x = 1 + 5 cm. 2 2
But you know that the maximum area can be obtained only 5π 3
Therefore, the required shaded area = 1 + + sq cm.
when parallelogram is a rectangle. Therefore, area of the 6 2
rectangle = x × y = (1 + 5) × 2 = 2 (1 + 5) Hence, choice (d) is the correct one.
Hence, choice (b) is the correct one. 65 Since area of the circle = 1
63 Let each side of the square inscribed by the semicircle is 2x, ∴ πr2 = 1 ⇒ r = 1 / π
then the radius of semicircle would be 5x.
It means the diameter of the circle would be 2 5x. ∴ Each side of hexagon =2/ π
2
It means the diagonal of the square inscribed by the circle is 3 3 2 6 3
∴ Area of the hexagon =   = sq cm.
2 5x. 2  π π
Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.
Mensuration 513

πa2 1 (a − 2)
66 Area of the semicircle with a as its diameter = So, we have EP = FP = (EF ) =
4 2 2
πb2 Therefore, total area of roads (shaded region)
Area of the semicircle with b as its diameter =
4 = 4 (area of EPSG) + 4 (area of ∆AEG) + (area of PQRS)
πc2
Area of the semicircle with c as its diameter =  (a − 2)
= 4 G
4  + (1) + (1) = 2( 2 a − 1) A H D
ab  2 
Area of right triangle = E
S
2 And, the area of the square = a2
Therefore area of the shaded region P R
But, it is given that a2 = 2[ 2( 2 a − 1)]
 πa2 πb2 ab πc2 π 2 ab F
= + +  − = (a + b2 − c2 ) + ⇒ a2 − 4 2 a + 4 = 0 Q
 4 4 2 4 4 2 B C
⇒ a= 2 2+ 2
π 2 ab ab Please note that the other value of a = (2 2 − 2) < 1. Since
= (c − c2 ) + =
4 2 2 the length of the square cannot be less than the breadth of
Hence, choice (a) is the correct one. the road, so it is an inadmissible value.
67 Let r be the circumradius of the circumcircle and O be the Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
centre of the circle, where CD is the perpendicular bisector 69 Point F is the centre of the semicircle. Now connect the
of AB, as ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle. points as shown in the diagram. Now, you see that there
Therefore, AD = BD = 8 are four equilateral triangles of same height.
Now, since AO = OC = r C
Therefore, OD = 16 − r
C
D E

A B A B
D F

Now, we have AO 2 = AD 2 + OD 2 Therefore, AF = DF = EF = BF = 1cm = radius of circle.

2
⇒ r2 = 82 + (16 − r)2 ⇒ r = 10 cm Area of shaded region = Area of semicircle – area of
3
∴Area of circle = 100 π cm2 quadrilateral ADEB
Hence, choice (c) is the correct one. 2  1   3 
=  π × 1 −  3 × × 1 
68 Let the length of each side of the square be a unit and the 
3 2   4 
breadth of the road 1 unit. π 3
1 1 = −  cm2
Then, we have AE = AG = (EG ) = 3 2
2 2
There fore, EF = AB − ( AE + BF ) = a − 2 Hence, choice (b) is correct.

Level 02 Higher Level Exercise

1 2πr = a  4π 2 − 1 
h 2 = a2  2 
a  4π 
a
∴ h= 4π 2 − 1
a a a a 2π

1 2 1 a2 a
a ∴ Volume = πr h = π × × 4π 2 − 1
Also, slant height (l) = a ∴ r= 3 3 4π 2 2π
2π a3
= 4π 2 − 1
2 Q l2 = h 2 + r2 24π 2
2
 a
⇒ h 2 = l2 − r2 = a2 −  
 2π 
514 QUANTUM CAT
3 It will be in the form of a right angled triangle. and area of sector COD (figure ii)
πr 120
πr = πr2
90° 90° 360
2
 a 1 πa2
=π×  × =
a a  3 3 9

∴ Area of segment = (Area of sector − Area of triangle)

4 2πr (r + h) = 1540 cm2 πa2 a2

= −
9 4 3
and (r + h) = 35 cm
∴ 2πr =
1540
= 44 cm  πa2 a2 
35 Total area of all the four segments = 4  − 
 9 4 3
1
5 Total volume = πr2h1 + πr2h2  πa2 a2 
3 16 cm and the total area of whole figure = a2 + 4  − 
2  h   9 4 3
= πr h1 + 2
 3 
80 cm
7 2 (l + b) = 26 ⇒ l + b = 13
22  16 
= × (21)2 80 + 12 + 1 = 13 11 + 2 = 13
7  3 
10 + 3 = 13 9 + 4 = 13
22 256 21 cm
=
× 441 × 8 + 5 = 13 7 + 6 = 13
7 3
22 256 8.45 Since, l > b, therefore, there are only 6 integral values of the
Weight = × 441 × × = 999.39 kg length viz., 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12.
7 3 1000
6 ABCD is a square, each side of square is ‘a’. 8 Total surface area = 2πR 2 + 2πr2 + (πR 2 − πr2 )
= 3πR 2 + πr2 r
D C R
= π (3R 2 + r2 )
2
⇒ 1436 = π [ 3 × (12)2 + r2]
7
A B
10054 1
⇒ × = 432 + r2 ⇒ r = 5 cm
Fig. (i) 7 π
In figure (ii), ∠ DOC = 120° 2
∴ Internal volume of hemisphere = π (R 3 − r3 )
and ∠ ODC = ∠ OCD = 30° 3
2
= π [(12)3 − (5)3]
D P C 3
D a C
90° 30° 2
= 3358 cm3
3
60° 9 Since, there are 3 faces which are visible in a corner
120°
cube. When the cube of a corner is removed then the 3
O
O faces of other cubes will be visible from outside. So,
Fig. (ii) Fig. (iii) there will not be any change in the surface area of this solid
In figure (iii), figure.
PC
= sin 60° 1
OC
a/ 2 3 a 2
= ⇒ OC = 3
OC 2 3
⇒ radius of the arc ‘CD ’. 3
4  15
1 π 
∴ Area of triangle OCD = × CD × OP 3  2
2 10 Number of spheres = 2
= 125 spheres
4  3
2 π 
=
1
×a×
a
=
a 3  2
2 2 3 4 3 2
 15
Surface area of a large sphere = 4π ×  
 OP 1  2
Q = tan 30° and tan 30° = 
 PC 3
Mensuration 515

2 and area of lawn = 10 × 8 = 80 m2

 3
and surface area of a small sphere = 4π   Reduced area of lawn = 8 × 8 = 64 m2
 2
∴ New area of path = 88 + (80 − 64) = 104 m2
and total surface area of all the smaller spheres 104 13
∴ Ratio of areas of path = =
2 88 11
 3
= 125 × 4π   Hence, option (c) is correct.
 2
Alternatively Let the breadth of the lawn be ‘ b’ then
% change in area the length will be (b + 2).
  3
2
 15
2  ∴ Area of path = (l + 4)(b + 4) − lb
 500π   − 4π  
 2  2 
= (b + 6)(b + 4) − (b + 2) b = 8b + 24
= × 100 = 400%
  15
2
 and the new area of path = (l + 4)(b + 4) − b × b
 4π   
  2  = (b + 6)(b + 4) − b2
Alternatively Surface area of larger sphere = 25x
= 10b + 24
(10b + 24) 13
Surface area of smaller sphere = x Q = ⇒ b = 8 m ∴ l = 10 m
(8b + 24) 11
Q The ratio of radii is 5 : 1.
14 From the figure you can see that just half of the liquid has
Therefore, ratio in surface areas = 25 : 1
been flown off and half the liquid is remained in the
Now, since there are 125 smaller spheres. cylindrical jar.
∴ Total surface area of smaller spheres = 125x
125x − 25x
∴ % change in area = × 100 = 400%
25x
11 Let the radius of cone be R and radius of sector = r, K K

2πR Thus it is clear that the capacity (or volume) of the cylinder
= 2 × 2.1 = 4.2 L
15 When the height and base of the cone are same as that of
1
cylinder, then the volume of cone is that of the cylinder.
3
l r ⇒l=r 1
60° Thus the capacity of cone = × 4.2 = 1.4 l
3
Thus the remaining volume = 2.1 − 1.4 = 0.7 l
0.7 1
∴ The required ratio = =
then the slant height of cone (l) = r 4.2 6
60 D C
and 2πR = 2πr × 16 AC = (30)2 + (16)2
360
r 14 7 AC = 34 m 16 m
⇒ R= = = cm
6 6 3 But since elephant is itself 4 m
A B
long. So he has to travel only 30 m
∴ Total surface area = πr (l + r)
(34 − 4) = 30 m.
22 7  7
= × 14 +  = 119.78 cm2 30
7 3 3 ∴ the speed of elephant = = 2 m/s
15
12 Between 26 poles, total length is (26 − 1) × 4 = 100 m 2πr 60 2πr
17 Arc of sector = =
It means the length of each side of a square field is 100 m. 360 6
∴ Area of field = (100)2 = 10, 000 m2 = 1 hectare
13 It is clear that length of the lawn is 2 m more than the
breadth of lawn.
To solve this problem quickly, go through options. Let us r l
take option (c). 60°
l = 10 m ⇒ b = 8 m
Area of path = (l + b + 2w ) 2w This arc of sector will be equal to the perimeter of cone. Let
= (10 + 8 + 4) 4 = 88 m2 2πr r
the radius of cone be R, then 2πR = ⇒ R=
6 6
516 QUANTUM CAT
Further the radius of sector will be equal to the slant height ∴ (l − b)2 = l2 + b2 − 2lb = 20 − 16 or (l − b)2 = 4
of cone. ⇒ l−b=2
∴ l=r Q l + b = 6 and l − b = 2
Now, since l2 = h 2 + R 2 ⇒ h = l2 − R 2 ∴ l = 4 and b = 2
2
 r 35 ∴ Area of rectangle = 4 × 2 = 8 cm2
h = r2 −   = r
 6 6 ∴ Total area of the figure = 8 + 10 3
18 The diagonal of cube will be equal to the diameter of = 2 (4 + 5 3) cm2
sphere.
4  d πd 3
3 21 Area of each square = 16 cm2
∴ Volume of sphere = π  = 1
3  2 6 Area of quadrant ADMB = π × (4)2 = 4π
d 4
and each side of cube = a = and radius of smaller quadrant
3
d3 CPMQ = CM = AC − MA
∴ Volume of cube = a3 =
3 3 = 4 2 − 4 = 4 ( 2 − 1)
1
πd 3 d3 d3  π 1 ∴ Area of smaller quadrant = π [ 4 ( 2 − 1)]2
∴ Remaining volume = − =  −  4
6 3 3 3 2 3
= 4π (3 − 2 2)
19 Let AP = x, then AM = x and MS = x
Area of shaded region inside the square ABCD
S R
= 16 − [ 4π + 4π (3 − 2 2)]

M N = 16 − [ 4π (1 + 3 − 2 2)]
= 16 − [ 4π (4 − 2 2)]
A P Q B = 8 [ 2 − 2π + 2π ]
Now, area of quadrants = AEG + EFG = 2AEG
∴ AS = AM + MS 1
AS = 2x
S = 2 × π (4)2 = 8π
4
∴ PS = AS − AP
2 2
∴ Area of shaded region inside the square EAGF
PS = 3x 2x = 8π − 16 = 8 (π − 2)
M
∴ Area of square 8 (2 − 2π + 2π )
∴ Required ratio =
PQRS = ( 3x )2 = 3x 2 8 (π − 2)
Area of circle = πr2 = π × x 2 = πx 2 A x P [ 2 + π ( 2 − 2)]
=
Area of both the circles = 2πx 2 (π − 2)
2πx 2 2π
∴ Required ratio = = 22 Given that
AB AD
=
3x 2 3 BC DF
20 Let the length of rectangle be ‘ l’ and Also BE = BC
breadth be ‘ b’, then D C
Q
Let AD = 1 and AE = x
2 (l + b) = 12 S
AE AE AE
⇒ l + b = 6 cm
A B ∴ = = =x
EF AD BC
and area of larger equilateral triangle
AE AD Q AD = BC = BE 
3 2 ∴ =  
= l EF AB  and AB = AE − BE 
4
x 1
3 2 =
Similarly area of smaller equilateral triangle = b 1 x −1
4
∴ Total area of all the 4 triangles (1 ± 5)
⇒ x2 − x − 1 = 0 ⇒ x =
3 2 2
= 2× (l + b2 ) = 10 3
4 (1 + 5)
∴ x=
⇒ l2 + b2 = 20 2
∴ (l + b)2 = l2 + b2 + 2lb Since ratio of two sides can never be negative.
⇒ 36 = 20 + 2lb Alternatively Since ratio of two side can never be
negative therefore only option (c) is correct.
⇒ lb = 8
Mensuration 517

Solutions (for Q. Nos. 23 to 25) Let DP = a, then

DC = DP + PQ + QC  Q DP = QC 
AB = 4 D C  and DP = PG = GQ = QC 
=a+ a 2+ a  
4 2 ∠ G = 90°
∴ AO = AC = =2 2 DC = a (2 + 2)  
2 42
2 O 2
∴ Area of  ∴ PQ = 2a 
∴ Area of circle  
4 1 a 2
 
ABCD = π × (2 × 2)2 = 8π A B ∆PGQ = × a × a =
2 2
Area of region 2 (only left part)
∴ Area of all the triangles outside the square ABCD
Area of circle – Area of square
= a2
4 =4× = 2a2
8π − 16 2
D
= = (2π − 4) C
But DC = a (2 + 2) = 4 cm
4 3
4
Area of region 3 = Area of square ⇒ a=
(2 + 2)
− 2 (Area of semicircle) 3 2
1  A B  4 
= 16 − 2  × π × 4 ∴ 2 (a)2 = 2 ×  
2   2 + 2
= 16 − 4π = 4 (4 − π ) cm2 16 (3 − 2 2)
= × = 16 (3 − 2 2)
Area of region 1 = Area of semicircle AD D (3 + 2 2) (3 − 2 2)
− Area of region 2 and Area of square = 16 cm
1 ∴ Total area of the figure = 16 + 16 (3 − 2 2)
= π × (2) − (2π − 4) = 4 cm2
2
2 A = 16 (4 − 2 2)
23 Total area of region 1 = 2 × 4 = 8 cm2 = 32 (2 − 2) cm2
24 Total area of region 2 = 2 × (2π − 4) = 4 (π − 2) cm2 28 When l = CD, then the volume of cone will be maximum,
25 Total area of region 3 = 4 (4 − π ) cm2 where l is the slant height of the cone and the largest
D C possible angle at the vertex of cone is 90°.
26 Total area of square = 64 cm 2

y x A A
∴ 4 ( x + y ) = 64 x
⇒ x + y = 16 …(i) y y 20 cm P
Again in a semicircle O
xx y xx 16 cm D D
1
AOB = x + y + x = π × (4) 2
A B 9.6
2
2x + y = 8π …(ii) B B
C 12 cm C 9.6 Q
From eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
x = 8π − 16 12 × 16
CD = = 9.6 cm,
Total area of shaded region = 4 (8π − 16) 20
= 32 (π − 2) cm2 which is the radius of the sector.
Alternatively Area of square − 2 (Area of semicircles) Therefore, arc of the sector
= 2y = 2π × 9.6 ×
90
= 4.8π
(64 − 16π ) = 2y 360
∴ 4 y = (128 − 32π ) Let the radius of the cone be r, then
∴ Required area of shaded region 2πr = arc of the sector
(4 x ) = (Area of square − 4 y) 2πr = 4.8π
= 64 − (128 − 32π ) r = 2.4
= 32π − 64 = 32 (π − 2) cm2 ∴ Height of the cone (h) = l2 − r2
27 You can see in the figure that the sides of one square is = (9.6)2 − (2.4)2 = 2.4 15 cm
parallel to the diagonals of the other square. 1 2
G ∴ Volume of the cone = πr h
3
D C
P Q 1 22
= × × (2.4)2 × 2.4 15
H F 3 7
= 56.1 cm3
A B
E
518 QUANTUM CAT
29 To increase the value (or price of diamond) they should cut 36 Volume of the whole body
(divide) the diamond in such a way that the surface area 1 2 h1
V1 = πr1 h1 + πr12h2
will be maximum. 3 r1
h1 2
but =
h2 3 h2
11h1 h3
∴ V1 = πr12
a 6
2 5h 2r2
a and h3 = (h1 + h2 ) = 1
3 3
a Hence, volume of the hole (V2 ) = πr22h3
Thus, when four parts are parallel to each other. 5
= πr22h1
In this way total surface area 3
= 6a2 + 2a2 + 2a2 + 2a2 = 12a2 V1 − V2
But it is given that V2 =
3
Actual surface area of cubical diamond = 6a2
∴ V1 = 4V2
Therefore, percentage increase in area
5 2 11
12a2 − 6a2 ⇒ 4× πr2 h1 = πr12 × h1
= × 100 = 100% 3 6
6a2
Remember that for the given volume, minimum surface 55
⇒ r2 = cm
area is possessed by a cube. So to maximize the area we 8
have to increase the maximum possible difference between
the edges of cuboid. 37 19 × 19 = 361
Thus, we make equal 19 measurements each of 19°, then
30 Side of square I = a
we get (361 − 360) = 1° angle at the centre. Thus, moving
a
Side of square II = continuously in the similar fashion, we can get all the 360°
2
angle i . e. , 360 equal sectors of 1°.
a
Side of square III = 38 When we open the paper after cutting it,
2
a we will find it as shown in the following
Side of square IV =
2 2 figure.
a Radius of the larger circle = 5 cm
Side of square V =
4 ∴ Area of larger circle = 25π
Therefore, sum of perimeters of all the squares and the radius of each smaller circle is 1 cm.
 a a a a
= 4 a + + + +  Therefore, total area of all the 9 circles = 9 × π × (1)2 = 9π
 2 2 2 2 4
∴ Remaining area = (25 − 9) π = 16π
 1 1 1 1
= 4a 1 + + + +  Hence, the required ratio = 25 : 16
 2 2 2 2 4
4 + 2 2 + 2+ 39 In the top layer we can see that total
2 + 1 D C
= 4a   = a (7 + 3 2) 13 cubes get a cut. So, in 7 layers total
 4  13 × 7 = 91 cubes will get a cut and
the remaining (7 3 − 91) = 252 cubes
31 Total area of the five squares
2 2 2 2 are without any cut.
 a  a  a   a Total number of pieces which are not A B
= a2 +   +   +   + 
 2  2  2 2  4 a cube
 1 1 1 1 = 12 × 2 × 7 + 4 × 7 = 196
= a2 1 + + + +
 2 4 8 16 
16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1  31 31a2 (Since 84 cubes are diagonally cut into two parts and 7
= a2 = a2 × =
 16  16 16 cubes which are in the centre are divided into 4 parts.)
Thus, total 196 children and teenagers will get one-one
32 (n − 2)3 piece and 252 adults get one-one piece.
33 6 (n − 2)2 Thus total 252 + 196 = 448 people can get a piece of cake.
34 12 (n − 2) NOTE It is clear that everyone get equal number of pieces
35 There are 8 cubes at the corners, which are always fix. but not according to the volume of pieces.
Mensuration 519
2
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 40 to 42) Diameter ( 2R ) of the   3 
outermost circle is equal to the diagonal of larger square.   R 
Area of inner circle π  2   3
2R 44 = =
Hence, the side of square = = 2R Area of outer circle π (R )2 4
2
Again the side of larger square is equal to the diameter of 45 Each side of the first hexagon = R
middle most circle. 3
R Each side of the second hexagon = R
Hence, the radius of mid-circle is . 2
2 3
Each side of the third hexagon = R
Once again the diameter of the mid-circle is equal to 4
the diagonal of smaller square. Hence, side of the smaller 3 3
Each side of the fourth hexagon = R
square = R. Similarly the diameter of innermost circle is equal 8
to the side of the smaller square. R 8
∴ Required ratio = =
R 3 3 3 3
Hence, radius of the innermost circle = . R
2 8
R
40 46 From the concept of similarity of triangles. All the five
2 quadrilaterals viz., AOA′, BOB′ , COC ′ , DOD′ and EOE′ are
41 Area of larger square = ( 2R )2 = 2R 2 similar.
and area of smaller square = R 2 From the figure (ii),
r2 − r1 r3 − r2
∴ Total area of both squares = 3R 2 =
r2 + r1 r3 + r2
 R R
r −r r −r
42 Sum of all the circumferences = 2π  R + + 
 2 2 = 4 3 = 5 4 =K
r4 + r3 r5 + r4
 2 + 2 + 1
= 2πR  
 2  90°
E 90° E'
= (3 + 2) πR D'
D
Sum of perimeters of all the squares = 4 ( 2R + R )
C C'
= 4R ( 2 + 1)
B B'
(3 + 2) πR (3 + 2) π
∴ Required ratio = = A A'
( 2 + 1) 4R ( 2 + 1) 4
Alternatively Since circumference and perimeter both
has R. So R will be cancelled in the ratio of circumference O
Fig. (i)
to the perimeter. Thus, neither of the choices a, b and c are
admissible. Hence, the only correct choice is (d). r2 r3 r4 r5
⇒ = = = =K
r1 r2 r3 r4
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 43 to 45) Each side of outer (larger)
(By componendo and dividendo)
hexagon is equal to the radius of circle which is R.
Now, OC = ON = OD O
C
radii of the inner (smaller) circle B
ON 3 A
But = sin 60° = M
OA 2 C D r1 r2 r3
3 3 O
⇒ ON = OA = R , radius of the A B P Q R
2 2 N Fig. (ii)
inner circle
It means all the radii are in GP.
and this is also equal to the side of the inner hexagon. 4
r 81  3
3 Therefore, 5 = (K )4 = = 
43 Sum of perimeters of both the hexagons = 6R + 6 × R r1 16  2
2 3
 3 ⇒ K= ∴ r3 = r1 (K )2
= 6R 1 +  2
 2 9 9r 9
r3 = r1 × = 1 = × 16 = 36 cm
= 3 (2 + 3)R 4 4 4
520 QUANTUM CAT
47 Q r1 = 16, r2 = 24, r3 = 36, … etc. Area of region y = Area of square − 4 (area of quadrant)
OP OQ 1 
∴ = = 4 − 4  π × (1)2 = (4 − π )
AP BQ 4 
∴ Required area (of shaded region)
h + r1 h + 2r1 + r2 h + 16 h + 56
= ⇒ = = Area of square − [Area of region x + Area of region y]
r1 r2 16 24
= 4 − [ 4 − π + 4 − π ] = 2π − 4
⇒ h = 64 cm
51 Let the volume of solid block be V and radius of the spheres
48 60 = 1 × 1 × 60
formed from the first block be r1, then the volume of each
= 1 × 2 × 30
sphere be V1.
= 1 × 3 × 20
Similarly, let the radius of each sphere obtained from
= 1 × 4 × 15
second block be r2 (= 2r1 ), then the volume of each sphere
= 1 × 5 × 12
= 1 × 6 × 10 be
= 2 × 2 × 15 V2 = (8V1 )
= 2 × 3 × 10 ∴ V = kV1 + 14 …(i)
… … … and V = lV2 + 36
… … … or V = 8lV1 + 36 …(ii)
= 3× 4 × 5
Out of the given different combinations the first From eqs. (i) and (ii),
combination (1 × 1 × 60) gives maximum length of kV1 + 14 = 8lV1 + 36
diagonal of cuboid, but in this case two of the edges are
same. So, the second combination gives the proper value ⇒ V1 (k − 8l) = 22
i . e. , which gives the maximum length of diagonal whose all The possible value of V1 = 22, 11, 2 or 1
sides are different. Hence, the length of such a pencil is
But V1 can never be equal to or less than 14 (since
equal to the diagonal of cuboid = 12 + 22 + 302 = 905
remainder is always less than divisior) So, the only possible
49 value of V1 = 22.
∴ V2 = 8 × V1 = 176 cm3
O O
52 The length of tether of the horse is 80 m.
A B A P B S
Q
C D C D 40
Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)
R 40
D
In figure (ii) C
80
3 Q
OP = OA = 4 3 cm 40
2
30
OP OA 4 3 8 90°
Again = , = (OQ = OP + PQ = 4 3 + 2 3) P
30 50
OQ OC 6 3 OC A B
80
⇒ OC = 12 cm
∴ Each side of the outer hexagon is 12 cm.
∴ Required area = (Area of outer hexagon
− Area of inner hexagon)
3 3
= [12 − 8 ] = 120 3 cm2
2 2
2
50 Area of region x = Area of square − Area of inscribed circle
Area grazed by horse
= (4 − π )
 270 90 90 
x x x x = π × (80)2 × + π × (30)2 × + π × (40)2 ×
 360 360 360 
 3 1 1
y y = π  6400 × + 900 × + 1600 × 
 4 4 4
x x x x  21700 
=π = 5425π m2
 4 
Fig. (i) Fig. (ii) Fig. (iii)
Mensuration 521

Hint When horse is tethered at B, then he can move freely 270° i . e. , 4

from P to S with the full length of his tether as the radius of the arc = π (7 )3 [125 − 8]
3
PS. Again when horse reaches P and tries to move further in the
4
right direction i . e. , towards D, his tether gets fixed at A and now = π × 343 × 117
only 30 m tether is free which works as a radius of the quadrant 3
PAQ. Similarly when horse reaches S and tries to move left further in 4
the direction of D, due to wall BC his tether gets fixed at C and now π × 343 × 117
only 40 m tether is free to move further. At this moment point C Required time to explode = 3 = 1078 s
156
behaves like a fixed point of tether (as centre of quadrant RSC).
NOTE You can tether horse at any of the four corners 57 Let the each side of cube be a, then
A , B , C and D area grazed by horse remains same. CD = 2a
a
53 Here each side is broken up into 6 parts i . e. , n = 6 ∴ CQ =
2
Now, N 0 = (n − 2) = (4) = 64
3 3
Let the radius of cone be r and height be h, then
N1 = 6 (n − 2)2 = 6 × (4)2 = 96 r=h 2
N 2 = 12 (n − 2) = 12 (4) = 48 ∴ In ∆ APO and ∆ CQO (Similar triangles)
∴ N 0 : N1 : N 2 = 64 : 96 : 98 = 4 : 6 : 3 a
AP CQ r 2
54 Let the radius of seed be r and radius of = = =
PO OQ h (h − a)
the whole fruit (pulp + seed) be R, then
thickness of the pulp = (R − r) a
r
4 2 = 2
Volume of mango fruit = πR 3 ⇒ A B
3 (h − a) P
4 R
and Volume of pulp = π (R 3 − r3 ) ⇒ a = 2 (h − a)
C D
3 3a Q
⇒ h=
4  2  
3
but = π R 3 −  R   2
3  7  3a 3a
 ∴ r= × 2 and h =
 r 2 2  2 2 O
Q R − r = 5 ⇒ r = 7 R  1  3a 2 3a
2
  ∴ Volume of cone = π ×   ×
∴ Percentage of volume of pulp to the total volume of fruit 3  2  2
4  8  9 3
πR 3 1 − = aπ
3  343 4
=
4
πR 3 and Volume of cube = a3
3 9 3
335 πa
= × 100 = 97.66% 9
∴ Required ratio = 4 3 = π = 2.25π
343 a 4
55 Let the radius of each smaller circle is D C 58 For the given volume, cube has minimum possible length of
r and radius of the larger circle is R, R diagonal.
then Therefore each side of cube = 4 cm
O
πR 2 = 4πr2 ⇒ R = 2r and its diagonal = 4 3 cm.
P
OR = OP = R + r = 3r l
59 l = 2πr ⇒ r =
Also PM = r A M B 2π
(PM is the perpendicular on AB)
∴ AP = 2r
b
∴ AO = AP + PO
= r 2 + 3r = r (3 + 2) l
∴ AC = 2AO = 2r (3 + 2), which is the diagonal of square
where r is the base radius of cylinder and l is the length of
2r (3 + 2) paper and h = b, where h is the height of cylinder and b is
∴ Required ratio = = (2 + 3 2)
2r the breadth of the paper.
2
56 Initial radius = 14 cm  l 
∴ Volume of cylinder = πr2h = π ×   × b
 2π 
Radius at a time when the balloon explodes = 35 cm
4 π × l2b 385
Change in volume = π [(35)3 − (14)3] ⇒ = 48.125 =
3 4π 2
8
⇒ l2b = 11 × 11 × 5
522 QUANTUM CAT
⇒ l = 11 and b = 5 (Q l > b) ∴ Width of the sheet = AK + MC + CT
∴ Volume of the box = l × b × 4 = 1 + 3 + 1 = (2 + 3) ft
= 10 × 4 × 0.5 = 20 cm3
w or

Fig (i) Fig (ii)

K L
4 4 cm x M x B
A

cm
A M B

5
10 10 cm

0.
2x
C
Height of cone C
60 Vertical spacing between any two turns = T
Number of turns Fig. (iii) Fig. (iv)
h
= 64 Recall that for a given perimeter the polygon of minimum
n number of sides has minimum area and the polygon of
h maximum number of sides has maximum area. So, the
61 Number of turns =
x correct relation is h > s > r.
Length of string in each turn Thus, hexagon (6 sides) has maximum area.
4 Now, between square and rhombus, square has greater area
= 2πr = 2π ×= 8 cm
π than rhombus. For easier understanding consider some
∴ Total length of string in all the values.
x
n turns x 5
h 8h x
= ×8= cm x h
x x x 5 5 4 5
62 Total length of string = 8n cm x
Since, total length of string 5 3 2
= number of turns × perimeter of cylinder Area = 25 cm2 Area = base × height
= 8 × n = 8n cm
= 5 × 4 = 20 cm2
Alternatively
D a D a C a
D C

a a a a
h
C a
a
θ
A a B A B
8n a
Length of string required for 1 turn (or round) = = 2n Square Rhombus
4
 a
2 In rhombus ABCD: Area of rhombus = a × h
but 2n =   + (4a)2 h 
 4 = a × a sin θ  = sin θ
a 
a/4 = a sin θ
2
1 4 4 2 4 4 3

a/4 As you know the maximum value of sin θ is 1 at θ = 90° but

a a at θ = 90° rhombus will become a square. So except θ = 90°
a/4
for all the rest values the area of rhombus will be less than
a/4 the area of square.
a a a a
65 C
4a C
8n
⇒ a= 60°
m
1c

257 P a Q
where a is the side of cube.
a
10
63 From the sheet of 10 ft long, maximum = 5 circular discs 60° 60°
2 A B A a B
M N
can be cut along the length of the iron sheet. Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)
CM = AC 2 − AM 2 = 4 x 2 − x 2 PCQ is also an equilateral triangle
CM = x 3 = 3 ft (Since x = 1 ft) ∴ PC = PQ = PM = a
Mensuration 523

∴
a
=
3
⇒ PA =
2a 8r2 − 2πr2 2r2 (4 − π ) 1
∴ Required ratio = = =
PA 2 3 6 πr 2 6r2 π 11
2a
∴ AC = AP + PC = + a = 1 cm 67 Short cut: Very quickly check the options. If all the
3
options have values.
3
⇒ a= = 3 (2 − 3) Alternatively The required capacity of box is 864 m3 .
(2 + 3)
C Let the length of the base be l and height of the box is ‘ h’,
Now, in figure (iii) then
PM = MT = a 864
Let the each side of square RSYX 864 = l2h ⇒ h = 2
l
be K, then RT = K also (since P
T
Q
RTS is an equilateral triangle) S
Now, surface area of the box A = l2 + 4lh
R
4l × 864
A B = l2 +
∴
K
=
3 M X Y N l2
RM 2 Fig. (iii) 3456
= l2 +
2K l
∴ RM =
3 Differentiating w.r. to l, we get
2K dA 3456
∴ MT = RT + RM = K + = 2l − 2
3 dl l
( 3 + 2) dA
MT = K For the minimum area = =0
3 dl
But MT = a 3456
∴ 2l = 2
 3 + 2 l
∴ a=  K
 3  ⇒ l3 = 1728
3a ⇒ l = 12
∴ K=
( 3 + 2) ∴ Base area = (12)2 = 144 m2
But a = 3 (2 − 3) 864
and Height = =6m
3 l2
∴ K= [ 3 (2 − 3)]
( 3 + 2) 68 Let the initial radius be r and volume be V, then
3 (2 − 3) (2 − 3) V = πr 2 × 4
K= ×
(2 + 3) (2 − 3) Ist case: V1 = π (r + 12)2 × 4
3 (2 − 3) 2
IInd case: V2 = πr2 × (4 + 12)
⇒ K= = 3 (7 − 4 3)
1 But V1 = V + K
∴ Area of square RSYX = K 2 = [ 3 (7 − 4 3)]2 and V2 = V + K
K 2 = 9 (49 + 48 − 56 3) ∴ V1 = V2
⇒ π (r + 12)2 × 4 = πr2 (16)
K 2 = (873 − 504 3) cm2
⇒ r = 12 ft
66 For the minimum wastage of sheet he has to cut the sheet
∴ Increased volume = V1 = V2
in the given manner.
= π × (24)2 × 4 = 2304π cubic ft
2r 2πr 2r
69 Let us denote the distinct regions of the square by x , y and p
2r as shown in the following figure.
r r
r y
x x
Total area of sheet required
y p y
(2πr + 4r) × 2r = 4r2 (π + 2)
Area of sheet utilised = (2πr × 2r) + 2 (πr2 ) = 6πr2
x x
Area of wastage sheet = 4r2 (π + 2) − 6πr2 y

= 8r2 − 2πr2
524 QUANTUM CAT
Now, from this figure we have It implies that ∠ MDC = 30° and ∠ MCD = 60°, since
4x + 4y + p = 1 (i) ∠ CMD = 90°
π Therefore ∠ NCD = 120°.
And, x + 2y =1−
4 So the length of arc ND
⇒ 4 ( x + 2y ) = 4 − π (ii) = 2 π × 6370 ×
120
= 13346. 67 km
π 360
But, it is given that p = − 3 + 1 (iii) Hence, choice (c) is correct.
3
Now, substituting the values from eqs. (i) and (iii) in the 72 Case 1: When the radius of each circle is same, then in
equation (ii), we get this case radius of each circle would be 49/4 and the total
4x + 8y = 4 − π area of both the circles would be 2π (49 / 4 )2 ≈ 300 π
⇒ (4 x + 4 y ) + 4 y = 4 − π Case 2: When there is one circle of the largest possible
2π
⇒ 4y = 4 − 3 − size and another circle is fitted in the remaining area.
3
Hence, choice (a) is correct. A B

70 Let each side of the square at the corner be x cm and each

side of the base of the cuboid be b cm, then O
x + b + x = 24 Q P
⇒ b = 24 − 2x
C M N D
Therefore, each side of the base of the cuboid, which is
b = (24 − 2x ) cm Let the radius of larger circle be R and that of smaller circle
be r.
Consequently, the height of the cuboid is h = x cm
Then, OM = R = 16
Therefore, volume of the cuboid = ( x )(24 − 2x )(24 − 2x )
and QM = PN = r.
= 2 (2x )(12 − x )(12 − x )
Therefore, OQ = OM − QM = 16 − r
x And OP = R + r = 16 + r
Similarly,
PQ = MN = 49 − (CM + ND ) = 49 − (16 + r) = 33 − r
b
Now, OP 2 = OQ 2 + PQ 2
⇒ (16 + r)2 = (16 − r)2 + (33 − r)2
x ⇒ r2 − 130r + 1089 = 0
⇒ r = 9 or 121
We know that b + 2x = 24, is constant.
Since, 121 is greater than 16, so it’s unacceptable.
We also know that if p1 + p2 + p3 + ..... + pn = some Therefore r = 9. Thus, the total area of the two circles
constant, then p1 ⋅ p2 ⋅ p3..... pn will be maximum when = π (162 + 92 ) = 337 π
p1 = p2 = p3 = . . . . = pn. As in case 2, the total arc is more than that in case 1, so
Accordingly, 2x + (12 − x ) + (12 − x ) = 24 is a constant, 337 π is max. possible area.
therefore, the volume of cuboid will be maximum when Hence, choice (a) is the correct one.
2x = (12 − x ) = (12 − x )
It implies that x = 4 73 Since, area of square field = 54 m2,

So the volume of the cuboid will be maximum when so each side of the square A B
M
x = 4 cm. = 3 6 m and
Hence, choice (d) is correct. diagonal of the square
71 The man has to reach D from N. Let N
=6 3m Consider the
M is the centre of the latitude where following diagram, now.
P
the man is supposed to reach and MD MB = BN = CN = CM = 6 m
is the radius of the pertinent latitude. CP = 1 / 2 (BC ) = 3 3 m
Now, extend the radius NC to M so C
Therefore, using Pythagoras N
that MD becomes perpendicular to theorem, you can find PM C 6 D
CM. M D
PM = CM 2 − CP 2 = 3 3√6
Given that CD = 6370 km and MD =
∴ MN = 2 (PM ) = 6.
3185 3 km. That is MD/CD = 3/2.
Mensuration 525

It implies that ∆MCN and ∆BMN are equilateral triangles. tangent to the circle, as shown in the diagram. And,
therefore, the diameter of the circle must make a 45° angle
Area of the common region = Area
with the base in order to conform to the symmetry.
encapsulated between two arcs
Now, the radii GO = EO = HO = r
  60  3 2
= 2 π 62   − 6  Therefore, in ∆HOF either by using Pythagoras theorem or
  360  4  HO r
= 2 (6π − 9 3) Trigonometric ratio, we have OF = HF = =
2 2
Area grazed by sheep and goat = 2(Area Therefore, CD = EF
of a quadrant) – area of the common ⇒ CD = EO + OF
region r
⇒ a=r+
π  2
= 2 (6)2 − 2 (6 π − 9 3)
4   2 
⇒ r = a 
= 6(π + 3 3)  1 + 2
Area that cannot be grazed by sheep and goat = (total area r = a (2 − 2)
of square – area grazed by sheep and square)
Therefore, the required area of the semicircle
= 54 − 6 (π + 3 3) = 3. 97 m2 1 1
= πr2 = π (a(2 − 2))2
Hence, choice (b) is the correct one. 2 2
1 2
Alternatively From the given information, you can find = πa (6 − 4 2)
that side of the square is 3 6 = 7.4 m but the length of rope 2
= πa2 (3 − 2 2) ≈ 0.172 πa2
=6m
If you look at the following figure you see Case II gives the highest possible value.
that at the corner of the field there are Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
two white (or un-grazed) regions.
Roughly, each such region looks like a 75 Consider the following diagram, in which O is the centre of
square. And the side of each such square the circle and OG is perpendicular to BC and EF is parallel
= 7. 35 − 6 = 1. 35 m. to BC.
Therefore area of both the un-grazed regions A E B

= 2 (1. 35) = 3. 65 ≈ 4
2 Q
2
So, the total un-grazed area is approx. 4 m
O G
NOTE The actual area at the corners would be slightly
more than the total area of the assumed squares at the two
corners. That’s why choices (a), (c) and (d) are invalid. 60°
D P F C
74 Given that each side of the square is a unit. Let r be the
radius of such semicircle. Then, we can proceed as follows. Since, PQ makes a 60° angle with DC, therefore
Case I: If the diameter of the semicircle ∠ QPC = ∠QOG = 60° and ∠PQC = ∠POF = 30°
coincides with one of the sides of the Since OP = OQ = OE = r therefore, using 30-60-90 degree
square, the maximum area of semicircle theorem (or trigonometric ratios) in ∆ OPF, we can find
2
1 1  a
= πr 2 = π   3
2 2  2 that PF = r / 2 and OF = r.
2
1
= (πa ) = 0.125πa2
2
3 r (2 + 3)
8 Therefore, AB = BC = EF = OE + OF = r + r=
2 2
Case II: If the diameter of the circle makes some angle
So, the area of the smallest possible square
with one of the sides of the square. 2
A  r (2 + 3)  7 + 4 3 2
B =  =  r
H  2   4 

r
Hence, choice (a) is the correct one.
E F 76 Look at the following figure (i), you will have AB = RB, as
r O r
r √2 both of them are radii of the same circle centered at B.
45° Similarly, AB = AR .
C G D Therefore, AR = BR = AB . That is
Let O is the centre of the semicircle. Since square is a ∠RAB = ∠RBA = ∠ARB = 60°
symmetric diagram, so both the sides of the square must be
526 QUANTUM CAT
Now, look at the figure (ii) and find all the important  10 2  100
⇒ a2 =   = = 100 (2 − 3) sq cm
angles.  3 + 1 2 + 3
D C D C
15° 150° 15°
Hence, choice (b) is the correct one.
R 75° 75°
75° 75° 77 Look at the following figure (i), you will have AB = RB, as
R
60° both of them are radii of the same circle centered at B
Similarly, AB = AR
Therefore, AR = BR = AB.

30°
That is ∠RAB = ∠RBA = ∠ARB = 60°
30°
D C D C
60° 60° 15° 150° 15°
R 75° 75°
A B A B 75° 75°
Fig (i) Fig (ii) R
60°
Now, with the help of fig (ii) find all the important angles
in fig (iii).
∠CDR = 15°, similarly ∠ DSA = 150°
30°
∴ ∠RDS = 90 − (15 + 15) = 60° 30°

But, since DR = DS 60° 60°

∴ ∠DSR = ∠ DRS = 60° A B A B
Fig (i) Fig (ii)
That is triangle DRS is an equilateral triangle.
That’s why all the four triangles ∆ DSR , ∆PBQ , ∆RCQ , ∆SAP Now, with the help of fig (ii) find all important angles in
in fig (iv) are equilateral ones. fig (iii).
Since, RS = RQ = PQ = SP so the quadrilateral SRQP is a ∠CDR = 15, similarly ∠ DSA = 15°
square. ∴ ∠ RDS = 90° − (15° + 15° ) = 60°
D C D C But, since DR = DS, ∴∠DSR = ∠ DRS = 60°
R R
That is triangle DRS is an equilateral triangle.
That’s why all the four triangles
S Q S Q ∆DSR , ∆ PBQ , ∆RCQ , ∆SAP in fig (iv) are equilateral ones.
Since, RS = RQ = PQ = SP , so the quadrilateral SRQP is a
square.
P P D C D C
A B A B
Fig (iii) Fig (iv) R R

Now, look at the fig (v) and fig (vi).

S Q S Q
Let us assume that each side of the square SRQP is a, then
SR = SD = DR = a and PQ = PB = QB = a
3 P P
∴ DM = BN = a A B A B
2 Fig. (iii) Fig. (iv)
D D C
R R
Now, look at the fig (v) and fig (vi).
M Let us assume that each side of the square SRQP is a, then
Q SR = SD = DR = a and PQ = PB = QB = a
S S Q
N 3
∴ DM = BN = a
2
P P But, DB = DM + MN + NB
B
A B
Fig (v) Fig (vi) 3 3
⇒ 10 2 = a+ a+ a
But, DB = DM + MN + NB 2 2
10 2 = ( 3 + 1) a
3 3
⇒ 10 2 = a + a+ a 10 2
2 2 ⇒ a=
( 3 + 1)
⇒ 10 2 = ( 3 + 1)a
10 2  10 2  100
⇒ a= ⇒ a2 =   = = 100 (2 − 3) sq cm
( 3 + 1)  3 + 1 2 + 3
Mensuration 527

D C D 25π
R R Therefore, area of the segment = − 25 sq cm
3
M
π 
= 25 − 1 sq cm
S Q S
Q 3 
N
Thus the total area of all the four segments around the
π  π 
P P inscribed square = 4 × 25  − 1 = 100  − 1 sq cm
A B
B 3  3 
Fig (v) Fig (vi)
The area of the common region by two quadrants in fig D C D C
R R
(vii) is determined as follows. Area of common region
= 2 × area of each quadrant – area of the square
1 
= 2 ×  π × 102 − 102 = 50π − 100 sq cm S Q S
4 
30°
Now, look at the fig (viii). The total area of the 6 shaded 30°
segments = Total area of the common region between the P 30°
two quadrants – Total area of the two equilateral triangles A B A B
Fig (i) Fig (ii)
and one square
 3  10 2 
2
 10 2  
2
= (50 π − 100) −  2 × ×  +    sq cm Now, using cosine rule you can obtain RS, the side of the
 4  3 + 1  3 + 1  inscribed square, as follows.
 
 3  BS 2 + BR 2 − RS 2
= (50 π − 100) −  × 100 (2 − 3) + 100 (2 − 3) sq cm cos 30° =
 2 
2 (BS )(BR )
 3  3 102 + 102 − RS 2
= (50 π − 100) − 100 (2 − 3)  + 1 sq cm =
2 2 2 × 10 × 10
 
= (50 π − 100) − (50) sq cm = 50 (π − 3) sq cm 200 − RS 2
=
200
D C D C
R 200 − RS 2
3=
100
Q RS 2 = 100 (2 − 3)
S
D C
Therefore, area of the square R
SRQP = SR 2 = 100 (2 − 3) sq cm
P
A B A B Thus, the required area
Fig (vii) Fig (viii) S Q
π 
4
Therefore, the area of 4 shaded segments = × 50 (π − 3) = 100  − 1 + 100 (2 − 3)
3 
6 P
sq cm π  A B
100 (π − 3) = 100  + 1 − 3 sq cm Fig (iii)
= sq cm 3 
3
D C Alternatively First of all, let us denote the different
Thus, the required area = area of the R regions of the square as shown below.
4 shaded segments around the
square SRQP + area of the square Now, consider the fig (ii).
SRQP inscribed in that region S Q The area of the unshaded region = Area of square – area of
100 (π − 3) the shaded quadrant x + 2y = 100 − 25π (i)
= + 100 (2 − 3) sq cm
3 Now, consider the fig (iv).
P
π  A
= 100 + 1 − 3 sq cm B D C D C
3  Fig (ix)
y y
x x x
Hence, choice (b) is the correct one.
Alternatively Look at the following figures: fig (i) and y z y y
fig (ii).
30° 25π
Area of the sector BSR = π × 102 × = sq cm x x
360° 3 y
1
Area of isosceles triangle BSR = × 102 sin 30° A B A B
2 Fig (i) Fig (ii)
= 25 sq cm
528 QUANTUM CAT
Area enclosed by the two overlapping In the fig (ii), we have GB = 30 − x and HA = GA = x,
quadrants = total areaof the two D C ∴ AB = GB − GA ⇒ 16 = 30 − 2x ⇒ x = 7 cm
quadrants – area of the square x
2x + z = 2 × 25π − 100 Now, from fig (i), we have EB = GC = FD = HA = 7 cm and
⇒ 2x + z = 50 π − 100 (ii) Z AE = BG = CF = DH = 23 cm
Now, consider the fig (iv). Now, in fig (i), if we draw a perpendicular line FJ on AB,
x
such that FJ = AD = 30
Area of the shaded region = area of A B
the equilateral triangle + 2(area of Fig. (iii) Since, AJ = DF = 7, therefore JE = AE − AJ = 23 − 7
the segments outside the equilateral = 16 cm
3
triangle) 2x + y + z = × 100 + 2 (area of the segments Therefore, in the right angle triangle FJE, we have
4
outside the equilateral triangle) FE = 302 + 162 = 34 cm
⇒ 2x + y + z = 25 3 + 2 (area of the segments outside the FE
But, since OF = OE = = 17 cm
equilateral triangle) 2
But the area of each segment = area of each sector with Similarly, OH = OG = 17 cm
central angle 60°− area of equilateral triangle Therefore, the side of the new larger square = 34 cm.
100π Hence, choice (a) is correct.
= − 25 3
6 79 Since, the ratio of area of polygon to that of rectangle is 16/25,
th
D C D C it means 9/25 or 36% area is lost due to overlapping.
P P B′

D E C

A B
A Fig. (iv) B A Fig. (v) B

Therefore, area of the shade region in fig (iv) is Therefore the lost area is equal to the area of triangle AEC.
 100 π  It implies that area of triangle AEC = 36% of area of
2x + y + z = 25 3 + 2  − 25 3
 6  rectangle ABCD.
100π That is area of ∆AED + ∆AEC + ∆CEB′ = 64% of the area of
⇒ 2x + y + z = − 25 3 …(iii)
3 rectangle ABCD
Now, solving the eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get Since area of ∆AED = ∆CEB′ therefore,
50 π
x = 100 − 25 3 − ∆ AED = CEB′ = 14%( ABCD )
3
Now, see there are two triangles AEC and ECB′ of same
Then, from the eq. (i), we get height.
25π
y= + 50 3 − 100 1
( AE × CB′ )
3 2 ∆AEC
∴ =
Again, from eq. (ii), we get 1
(EB′ × CB′ ) ∆ ECB′
 π  2
z = 100 + 1 − 3
 3  AE 36 18k
⇒ = =
78 Given that AB = BC = CD = DA = 30 cm. Due to EB′ 14 7 k
But, EC = EA = 18k and EB′ = 7 k
symmetrical cutting, EF and GH are perpendicular. Also,
AE = BG = CF = DH and EB = GC = FD = HA. Therefore, by applying Pythagoras theorem in ∆ ECB′, we
D F C get CB′ = (18k )2 − (7 k )2 = 5 11 k
O H G O
C And, AB′ = AE + EB′ = 18k + 7 k = 25k
G
Therefore, the required percentage
O F F
B 25k 5
E D = =
E
H 5 11k 11
A Hence, choice (a) is correct.
A E B O H G O
30 – x x
Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)
 CHAPTER 11

Tr igonometr y
This chapter is basically written for those students who were either not so good in the
secondary classes maths or who have not been in touch with the following concepts from 4-5
years. Hardly a question is asked in CAT, directly from this chapter, but almost every year
there are one or two questions in which we can find the application of the concepts of
trigonometry e.g., sometimes in geometry or in height and distance problems. So just refresh
the concepts of trigonometry. Therefore CAT aspirants are not required to waste so much of
precious time on this chapter. But this chapter is useful for IIFT, NIFT, FMS, SSC, CGL etc.

11.1 Angle
An angle is thought of as traced out by the rotation of a line (called the revolving line) from Chapter Checklist
the initial position OX to a terminal position OP. Angle
P Convention of Sign of
Angles
e)
l sid Quadrants
ina
rm Measures of Angles
(te
Important Facts
O X
(initial side) Trigonometrical Ratios
Trigonometrical Ratios of
Then O is the vertex, OX is called the initial side and OP is called the terminal side of the angle. Negative and Associated
Angles
11.2 Convention of Sign of Angles Sum, Difference and
Product Formulae
It is customary to regard the angle traced out by a counter-clockwise rotation as positive and
one traced out by a clockwise rotation as negative. The angle is indicated by using an arrow, Trigonometrical Ratios of
Multiple and Sub-multiple
starting from the initial line and ending at the terminal line. Angles
Y Y Properties of Triangles
Height and Distance
θ
X' X'
CAT Test
X X
θ

Y' Y'
(θ is positive) (θ is negative)
530 QUANTUM CAT
In the figure OA = OB = r, (radius of the circle) and
11.3 Quadrants
∠AOB = 1 radian or 1c .
Let XOX ′ and YOY ′ be two mutually perpendicular lines in
any plane. These lines divide the plane into four regions B

called quadrants, numbered counter- clockwise.

1c
Thus the quadrants XOY , YOX ′ , X ′ OY ′ and Y ′ OX are O A
r
respectively called the first quadrant, the second quadrant,
the third quadrant and the fourth quadrant.
Y Y

11.5 Important Facts

II I 1. In all circles, the ratio of the circumference to its
90° ≤ θ ≤ 180° 0° ≤ θ ≤ 90°
X' X X' X diameter is constant. (Circumference = π × diameter)π
III O IV O
is an incommensurable number, i.e., it cannot be
180° ≤ θ ≤ 270° 270° ≤ θ ≤ 360°
expressed exactly either by a whole number or by a
fraction. Its approximate value is 22/7 or 31416
. , correct
Y' Y' to four places of decimal only.
2. A radian is a constant angle.
NOTE θ will be more than 360°, if after making one complete
revolution, the revolving line does not stop at the initial position OX 1 radian (1c ) = a constant angle
but proceeds on further on. π
3. π radian = 180° (or 1° = radian)
180
11.4 Measures of Angles 4. If an arc of length ‘s’ subtends an angle θ radian at the
There are three different systems of units for measurement in  arc 
centre of a circle of radius r, then s = rθ.  θ = 
trigonometry, viz. (i) Sexagesimal system (ii) Centesimal  radius 
system (iii) Circular system. 1
5. (i) Area of the sector AOB = r 2θ
Sexagesimal System 2
1
In this system, 1 right angle is divided into 60 equal parts and (ii) Area of the sector AOB = rs (s → length of arc AB)
each part (or division) is called a degree (i.e., 1°, read as 2
1 degree). Exp. 1) Express the following angles in radian measure
1° = 60′ (60 sexagesimal minutes) and centesimal measure :
1′ = 60′ ′ (60 sexagesimal seconds) (i) 45° (ii) 20° 35′ (iii) 50° 38′ 40′ ′

This system is called the Common or the English system. Solution

π
Centesimal System (i) Q 180° = π rad ∴ 1° = rad
180
In this system, 1 right angle is divided into 100 equal parts π π
∴ 45 ° = 45 × = rad
and each part (or division) is called a grade (or 1g ). 180 4
Now, 90° = 100 grade
90° = 100 g
⇒ 45 ° = 50 grade
1g = 100′ ( K ′ → K centesimal minute) 35 247
(ii) 20° 35′ = 20 degree = degree
1′ = 100′ ′ (K ′ ′ → K centesimal second) 60 12
Now, 180 degree = π rad
Circular Measure 247 247 π 247
∴ degree = × = π rad
The unit of measurement of angles in this system is a radian 12 12 180 2160
(or 1c ) and 90° = 100 grade

A radian is defined as the angle subtended at the centre of a  247  ° 247 100 2470
∴   = × = grade
circle by an arc whose length is equal to the radius of the  12  12 90 108
circle and it is denoted by 1c .
Trigonometry 531

1235 Thus the length of minor arc ACB = 31.42 m and the length of
= grade
54 major arc = (2π r − minor arc)
(iii) 50° 38′ 40′ ′ = 50° 38
40
min = 50°
116
min = 50°
116
degree
= 2 π × 30 − 31.42 = 157.1m (approx.)
60 3 3 × 60
Exp. 5) An arc AB of a circle subtends an angle x
2279
= degree radians at the centre O of the circle. Given that the area of
45
the sector AOB is equal to the square of the length of the
Now 180° = π rad
arc AB, find the value of x.
 2279 ° 2279 π 2279 Solution Let arc AB = s
Q   = × = π rad and 90° = 100g
 45  45 180 8100 Given that area of the sector
O
 2279 ° 2279 100 2279 AOB = (arc AB) 2
⇒   = × = grade. x
 8100 8100 90 7290 ∴
1 2
r x = s2 and s = rx (Q θ = x)
2 A B
Exp. 2) One angle of a triangle is 54° and another angle is ∴
1 2 1
r x = r 2 x 2 or x = radian
π / 4 radian. Find the third angle in centesimal unit. 2 2
π
Solution Let ∠ A = 54° and ∠B = rad Exp. 6) Two arcs of two different circles are of equal
4
B
lengths. If these arcs subtends angles of 45° and 60° at the
centres of the circles. Find the ratio of the radii of the two
circles.
π π
Solution 45 ° = rad and 60° = rad
4 3
Let r1 and r2 be the radii of the two circles and s be the length of
A C each arc.
π π
∴ B = 45 ° ∴ s = r1 = r2 (Q s = r θ)
4 3
Thus, ∠ A + ∠B = 99°
r1 4
∴ ∠C = 180 − 99 = 81° (Q ∠ A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°) ⇒ =
r2 3
Now, since 90° = 100 grade
100 Hence the required ratio of radii = 4 : 3
⇒ 81° = 81 × = 90 grade
90
Exp. 7) The wheel of a railway carriage is 4 ft in
Exp. 3) The difference between two acute angles of a diameter and makes 6 revolution per second, how fast is
right-angled triangle is π /6 radians. Find the angle in the train going ? ( π = 3.14)
degrees. Solution Radius (r) of the wheel = 2 ft
Solution ∠A + ∠B = 90° A ∴ Circumference of wheel = 2 × 3.14 × 2 = 12.56 ft
π Since the wheel makes 6 revolutions per second,
and ∠A − ∠B = = 30°
6 ∴ Distance traversed in 1 second = 6 × 12.56 = 75.36 ft.
∴ ∠A = 60° and ∠B = 30° Hence the velocity of the train = 75.36 ft/s
Hence the two acute angles are 60° 90° 75.36 × 60 × 60
= = 51.38 mile/h
and 30°. C B 3 × 1760

Exp. 4) In a circle of diameter 60 m, the length of a chord Exp. 8) A horse trots uniformly along a circular track
is 30 m. Find the length of the minor arc on one side of the of radius 27 m. The angle subtended at the centre of the
chord. What is the length of the major arc? track by the arc passed over by the horse in 3 seconds is
Solution 2r = 60 m ⇒ r = 30 m 1
70°. What distance will the horse pass over in minute.
∴ OA = OB = AB = 30 m 2
∴ ∆OAB is an equilateral triangle. 7π
Solution r = 27 m; θ = 70° = radian
π O 18
Thus, ∠AOB = 60° = rad 7π
3 ∴ s = rθ = 27 × = 33 m (approx.)
π 18
Now, since s = θ r = × 30 A B 1
3 ∴ Distance passed over by the horse in minute
C
= 10 × 3.142 2
33
= 31.42 m (approx.) = × 30 = 330 m (approx.)
3
532 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 11.1
1. The perimeter of a certain sector of a circle is equal to 4. A circular wire of radius 2.5 cm is cut and bent so as to
the length of the arc of the semicircle having the same lie along the circumference of a hoop whose radius is
radius. The angle of the sector (approx.) is : 1.29 m. Find (in degrees) the angle which is subtended
(a) 65 ° 27′ 16′ ′ (b) 68 ° 18′ 19′ ′ at the centre of the hoop :
(c) 56 ° 52′ 18′ ′ (d) none of these (a) 9.67° (b) 7.69°
2. The length of a pendulum is 8 m while the pendulum (c) 6.97° (d) none of these
swings through 1.5 rad, find the length of the arc 5. A circle is drawn on AB as diameter. The centre of the
through which the tip of the pendulum passes : circle is O and the length AB = 13 cm. P is a point on
(a) 8 m (b) 9 m the circumference of the circle such that the chord
(c) 12 m (c) none of these AP = 12 cm. Calculate the value of the angles PAB and
3. The angles of a triangle are in AP and the greatest POB in radians :
angle is 75°. Find all the three angles in degrees : (a) 0.395, 0.789 (b) 0.786, 0.735
(a) 55 ° , 55 ° , 70 ° (b) 45 ° , 60 ° , 75 ° (c) 0.398, 0.689 (d) 0.786, 0.753
(c) 40 ° , 65 ° , 75 ° (d) none of these

11.6 Trigonometrical Ratios Sign of Trigonometrical

P B P Functions
sin θ = , cos θ = , tan θ =
H H B
A → All
H H B sin and
cosec θ = , sec θ = , cot θ = cosec +ve
All +ve S A S → sin/cosec
P B P
tan and cos and T C T → tan/cot
A
cot +ve sec +ve C → cos/sec
+ve → (Positive)

(P) (H) Remember ‘‘Add Sugar To Coffee’’

Values of T-Ratios
90° θ
Angle θ=0 θ = 30° θ = 45° θ = 60° θ = 90° θ = 180°
C (B) B
sin 0 1/2 1/ 2 3/2 1 0
Remember cos 1 3/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2 0 −1
tan 0 1/ 3 1 3 ∞ 0
sin θ cos θ tan θ
cosec ∞ 2 2 2/ 3 1 ∞
P B P ⇒ Pandit Badri Prasad
sec 1 2/ 3 2 2 ∞ −1
H H B ⇒ Hari Hari Bol
cot ∞ 3 1 1/ 3 0 ∞
cosec θ sec θ cot θ
Remember
P → Perpendicular ( AC ) B → Base ( BC )
1 1 1
H → Hypotenuse ( AB ) cosec θ = , sec θ = , cot θ =
sin θ cos θ tan θ
Thus, sin θ cosec θ = 1 sin θ sin θ cos θ
and tan θ = and tan θ = , cot θ =
cos θ sec θ =1 cos θ cos θ sin θ
tan θ cot θ =1 cos θ 1
cot θ = and tan θ =
sin θ cot θ
NOTE (sin θ) −1 is not written as sin−1 θ. Thus sin− 1 θ ≠ (sin θ) − 1 etc 1
or cot θ =
but (sin θ) = sin θ and (sin θ) = sin θ
2 2 3 3
tan θ
sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1 ⇒ sec2 θ − tan2 θ = 1
cosec 2 θ − cot2 θ = 1
Trigonometry 533

Range of Trigonometric Ratios Increasing and Decreasing Functions of T-Ratios

(i) − 1 ≤ sin θ ≤ 1 ⇒ sin θ ≤1 1st 2nd 3rd 4 th
quadrant quadrant quadrant quadrant
(ii) − 1 ≤ cos θ ≤ 1 ⇒ cos θ ≤1
sin θ increases decreases decreases increases
(iii) cosec θ ≤ − 1 and cosec θ ≥ 1 ⇒ | cosec θ| ≥ 1 from 0 to 1 from 1 to 0 from 0 to − 1 from − 1 to 0
(iv) sec θ ≤ −1 and sec θ ≥1 ⇒ | sec θ| ≥1 cos θ decreases decreases increases increases
from 1 to 0 from 0 to − 1 from − 1 to 0 from 0 to 1
(v) − ∞ < tan θ < ∞
tan θ increases increases increases increases
i.e., tan θ may assume any value. from 0 to ∞ from −∞ to 0 from 0 to ∞ from −∞ to 0

Introductory Exercise 11.2

Directions (for Q. Nos. 1 to 7) Find the values of the 10. Find the value of,
following expressions. 4 3
cot2 30 ° + 3 sin2 60 ° − 2 cosec2 60 ° − tan2 30 ° :
sec2 θ − 1 3 4
1. =? (a) 10 / 3 (b) 11 / 3 (c) 4 (d) none
tan2 θ
11. Find the perimeter of a regular octagon inscribed in a
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
circle of radius 100 cm :
2. sin4 θ + sin2 θ cos2 θ = ? (a) 532.87 cm (b) 612.32 cm
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) sin2 θ (c) 378.32 cm (d) 875 cm
sin θ cosec θ tan θ cot θ 12. Find the altitude and base of an isosceles triangle
3. =?
sin2 θ + cos2 θ whose vertical angle is 65° and whose equal sides are
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) − 1 (d) 2 415 cm :
(a) 350 cm, 646 cm (b) 350 cm, 446 cm
4. sin A cot A + cos A tan A = ?
2 2 2 2
(c) 630 cm, 445 cm (d) none of these
(a) − 1 (b) 0 13. If 5 sin2 θ + 3 cos2θ = 4 , find the value of sin θ and cos θ
(c) 3 (d) 1
1 1 3
5. tan θ + cot θ is (a) ± ,± (b) ± ,± 2
2 2 2
(a) 1 (b) tan θ
3 1
(c) cosec θ cot θ (d) sec θ cosec θ (c) , (d) none of these
2 2
3 − 4 sin θ 2
6. + tan2 θ is 1 + cos θ 1 − cos θ
cos2 θ 14. Find the value of + :
1 − cos θ 1 + cos θ
(a) 1 (b) 2
(a) 2 sec θ (b) sec θ
(c) 3 (d) none of these
(c) 2 cosec θ (d) none of these
cot A + tan B
7. is a a sin θ − b cos θ
cot B + tan A 15. If tan θ = , find the value of
b a sin θ + b cos θ
(a) tan A cot B (b) cot A tan B
a2 − b2 b2 − a2 a2 + b2
(c) 1 (d) none of these (a) (b) (c) (d) none
a + b
2 2
b + a
2 2
a2 − b2
21
8. If sin θ = , find the value of sec θ + tan θ , if θ lies
29 Directions (for Q. Nos. 16 to 18) For the every θ, 0 < θ ≤ 90,
between 0 and π /2 find the values of the following angles.
(a) 1 (b) π /2 16. tan θ + cot θ = 2
(c) 5 / 2 (d) none of these
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 55°
5
9. If A is in the fourth quadrant and cos A = , find the 17. 2 sin2 θ + 4 cos2 θ = 3 :
13
13 sin A + 5 sec A (a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) 80°
value of
5 tan A + 6 cosec A 18. 2 sin2 θ − 3 sin θ = − 1 :
(a) − 2 / 37 (b) − 3 / 27 (a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) 2 / 37 (d) can’t be determined (c) 90° (d) both (a) and (c)
534 QUANTUM CAT
11.7 Trigonometrical Ratios of Negative and Associated Angles
Angle −θ ( 90 − θ ) ( 90 + θ ) (180 − θ ) (180 + θ ) ( 360 − θ ) (360 + θ)
sin θ − sin θ cos θ cos θ sin θ − sin θ − sin θ sin θ
cos θ cos θ sin θ − sin θ − cos θ − cos θ cos θ cos θ
tan θ − tan θ cot θ − cot θ − tan θ tan θ − tan θ tan θ

11.8 Sum, Difference and Product Formulae

1. sin ( A + B ) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B 10. 2 cos A sin B = sin ( A + B ) − sin ( A − B )
2. sin ( A − B ) = sin A cos B − cos A sin B 11. 2 cos A cos B = cos ( A + B ) + cos ( A − B )
3. cos ( A + B ) = cos A cos B − sin A sin B 12. 2 sin A sin B = cos ( A − B ) − cos ( A + B )
cos ( A − B ) = cos A cos B + sin A sin B cot A cot B − 1
4. 13. cot ( A + B ) =
tan A + tan B cot A + cot B
5. tan ( A + B ) = cot A cot B + 1
1 − tan A tan B 14. cot ( A − B ) =
tan A − tan B cot B − cot A
6. tan ( A − B ) = C +D C −D
1 + tan A tan B 15. sin C + sin D = 2 sin cos
2 2
7. sin ( A + B ) sin ( A − B ) = sin 2 A − sin 2 B C +D C −D
16. sin C − sin D = 2 cos sin
= cos 2 B − cos 2 A 2 2
C +D C −D
8. cos( A + B ) cos ( A − B ) = cos 2 A − sin 2 B 17. cos C + cos D = 2 cos cos
2 2
= cos 2 B − sin 2 A
C +D D −C
9. 2 sin A cos B = sin ( A + B ) + sin ( A − B ) 18. cos C − cos D = 2 sin sin
2 2

Introductory Exercise 11.3

1. If A + B = 45 ° , find the value of 5. Find the value of
tan A + tan B + tan A tan B : sin2 (120 ° − A) + sin2 A + sin2 (120 ° + A) :
1 2 3 5 3
(a) − 1 (b) (c) 3 (d) 1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 2 2 2
2. Find the value of tan 75° : 4 5
6. If cos (α + β ) = and sin (α − β ) = and α , β lie
3 +1 3 5 13
(a) (b)
2 2 2+ 2 between 0° and 45°, find the value of tan 2α :
56 56
3 −1 2+ 2 (a) (b)
(c) (d) 63 33
2 2 3 25 65
(c) (d)
3. Find the value of cos 28 ° ⋅ cos 32 ° − sin 28 ° ⋅ sin 32 ° : 33 63
(a) 1 (b) 1/2 7. Find the maximum and minimum values of
(c) 1/3 (d) can’t be determined 7 cos θ + 24 sin θ :
3 5 (a) 25 and − 25 (b) 16 and − 9
4. If cos A = and sin B = , find the value of (c) 25 and 0 (d) 36 and 25
5 13
tan A + tan B 8. Find the value of 2 cos 45 ° ⋅ cos 15 ° :
:
1 − tan A tan B ( 3 + 1) ( 3 − 1)
63 36 (a) (b)
(a) (b) 2 2 2
16 16 3 +1
61 (c) (d) none of these
(c) (d) none of these 2
36
Trigonometry 535

sin 75 ° + sin 15 ° 4 5
9. Find the value of : 13. If sin (α + β ) = , sin (α − β ) = , find the value of
cos 75 ° + cos 15 ° 5 13
tan 2α :
(a) 1 (b) 2 16 63
3 (a) (b)
(c) (d) can’t be determined 36 16
2 36
(c) (d) none of these
10. Find the value of cos 20 ° + cos 100 ° + cos 140 ° : 16
(a) − 1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) none cos 2 B − cos 2 A
14. Find the value of :
sin 2 A + sin 2 B
11. cos 20 ° ⋅ cos 40 ° ⋅ cos 60 ° ⋅ cos 80 ° is :
1 1 1 1 (a) tan (A − B)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (b) cos (A − B)
16 50 24 25
(c) cot (A − B)
12. What is the value of;
(d) tan (A + B)
sin (90 ° − θ ) sec (180 ° − θ ) sin (− θ ) sin A + sin 3 A + sin 5 A + sin 7 A
: 15. is :
sin (180 ° + θ ) cot (360 ° − θ ) cosec (90°+ θ ) cos A + cos 3 A + cos 5 A + cos 7 A
1
(a) sin θ (b) cos θ (c) 1 (d) (a) tan 2A (b) tan 3A
2 (c) tan 4A (d) tan 8A

11.9 Trigonometrical Ratios of Multiple and Sub-multiple Angles

1. sin 2 A = 2 sin A cos A =
2 tan A 3 tan A − tan 3 A
6. tan 3 A =
1 + tan A
2
1 − 3 tan 2 A
2. cos 2 A = cos 2 A − sin 2 A = 1 − 2 sin 2 A  A  A 2 tan ( A / 2)
7. sin A = 2 sin   cos   =
1 − tan 2 A 2  2  1 + tan 2 ( A / 2)
= 2 cos 2 A − 1 =
1 + tan 2 A  A  A
8. cos A = cos 2   − sin 2   etc.
3. tan 2 A =
2 tan A 2 2
1 − tan 2 A 2 tan ( A / 2)
4. sin 3 A = 3 sin A − 4 sin 3 A 9. tan A =
1 − tan 2 ( A / 2)
5. cos 3 A = 4 cos A − 3 cos A
3

Introductory Exercise 11.4

4 5. Find the value of cot 3θ :
1. If sin θ = , find the value of sin 2θ :
5 cot3 θ − 3 cot θ cot3 θ − 3 cot θ
(a) (b)
(a) 24/25 (b) 16/25 3 cot θ
2
3 cot2 θ − 1
(c) 9/20 (d) none of these 3 cot θ − cot3 θ
(c) (d) none of these
sin 2 A 3 cot2 θ − 1
 1 °
2. is :
1 + cos 2 A 6. Find the value of sin 22  :
 2
(a) tan 2A (b) cos 2A (2 − 2 ) (2 − 3 )
(c) tan A (d) none of these (a) (b)
2 3
3. cos4 θ − sin4 θ is : 2− 2
(c) (d) none of these
(a) cos 2θ (b) sin 2θ 4
1
(c) tan 2θ (d) none of these 7. If 2 cos θ = x + , find the value of 2 cos 3θ
x
a 1 1 1 1
4. If cot x = , find the value of a cos 2 x + b sin 2 x (a) x3 + 3 (b) x2 + 2 (c) x3 − 3 (d) x +
b x x x x
(a) a (b) b 8. Find the value of tan A + tan B + tan C, if A + B + C = π
(c) sin a (d) a / b (a) tan A tan B tan C (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) cot A cot B cot C
536 QUANTUM CAT
i.e.,
11.10 Properties of Triangles
a 2 = b 2 + c 2 − 2bc cos A
A triangle ABC has three angles and three sides. The three
angles are denoted by A, B and C while the three sides are ⇒ b 2 = c 2 + a 2 − 2ca cos B
denoted by a, b and c respectively. The area of the triangle is
c 2 = a 2 + b 2 − 2ab cos C
denoted by ∆ and its perimeter is denoted by 2s, so that
a + b + c = 2s. Thus ‘s’ is the semiperimeter of the triangle 3. Area of a triangle
a +b+c
and s = . Also we denote the circumradius by R and 1 1
(i) ∆ = bc sin A = ca sin B = ab sin C
1
2 2 2 2
inradius by r.
(ii) ∆ = s ( s − a ) ( s − b) ( s − c) (Hero’s formula)
A
4. The area of a segment of a circle
c
Area of the segment APB
b
= Area of the sector AOB − Area of ∆AOB
O
1 1 1 r r
C a B = r 2θ − r 2 sin θ = r 2 (θ − sin θ ) θ
2 2 2 A B
P
1. The law of sines 5. Circumradius of a circle (R)
In any triangle the sides are proportional to the sines of the a b c
(i) R = = =
a b c 2 sin A 2 sin B 2 sin C
opposite angles i.e., = =
sin A sin B sin C abc
(ii) R =
4∆
2. The law of cosines
The square on any side of a triangle is equal to the sum of the 6. Inradius of a circle (r)
squares on the other two sides, minus twice the product of ∆  a + b + c
r= s = 
those two sides and the cosine of the included angle s  2 

Introductory Exercise 11.5

sin A 6. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, find
1. If cos B = , find the nature of triangle :
2 sin C the ratio between corresponding sides :
(a) isosceles (b) scalene (a) 3 : 2 : 1 (b)1 : 3 : 2 (c) 6 : 3 : 2 (d)1 : 2 : 3
(c) can't be determined (d) none of these 7. If a = 2 b and A = 3 B, find the angles A, B, C of ∆ABC :
2. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and (a) 90°, 30°, 60° (b) 30°, 60°, 90°
(c) 45°, 45°, 90° (d) data insufficient
its circumradius is 10 cm, find the sides of the triangle
(in cm) : 8. If in any triangle a = 13 cm, b = 14 cm and c = 15 cm,
(a) 8, 16, 24 (b) 18, 12, 6 find the inradius of the circle :
(c) 10, 20, 20 3 (d) 10, 20, 10 3 (a) 2 cm (b) 6.5 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 7 cm
3. If a = 1, b = 3 and A = 30 °, find the value of the angle B 9. In a right angled triangle a2 + b2 + c2 is :
(a) 60° (b) 30° (a) R 2 (b) 4 R 2 (c) 8 R 2 (d) none
(c) 120° (d) either (a) or (c) 10. Abhinav and Brijesh started walking simultaneously
4. Find B and C of a triangle ABC, if b = 2 cm, c = 1 cm @ 3 km/h and 4 km/h from the same point ‘C’ on two
different paths which diverge from each other at an
and A = 60 ° :
angle of 120°. They walked for 6 hours and they
(a) 90° and 45° (b) 90° and 30°
stopped at A and B respectively. What is the least
(c) 60° and 30° (d) none of these
π possible distance between Abhinav and Brijesh when
5. In a triangle ABC, a = 1 cm, b = 3 cm and C = , find they are at A and B respectively.
6
the third side of the triangle : (a) 36 37 km (b) 6 37 km
(a) 1 cm (b) 1.5 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 3 3 cm (c) 12 37 km (d) none of these
Trigonometry 537

TP 1 180
11.11 Height and Distance Q tan 30° = ⇒ =
PC 3 PC
Angle of Elevation ⇒ PC = 180 3 m = 311.76 m

∠OPM is called as the angle of elevation. Hence cat is 311.76 m away from the foot of the tower.
O NOTE For a particular case, the angle of depression is equal to
the angle of elevation.

Exp. 2) The angle of elevation of the top of a tower at a

distance of 100 m from its foot on a horizontal plane is
found to be 60°. Find the height of the tower.
θ Solution Let AB be the tower
P M H B
Fig. (i)

Suppose a person P is looking an object O which is at a

higher level than P, then the angle θ ( ∠ OPM ) is the angle of
elevation for that person.
60°
Angle of Depression A C
∠OPM in fig (ii) is called as angle of depression. AB AB
then tan 60° = ; 3 = ⇒ AB = 100 3 m = 173.2 m
P M AC 100
θ Thus the height of the tower is 173.2 m.

Exp. 3) A person standing on the bank of a river

observes that the angle subtended by a tree on the
opposite bank is 60°, when he retreats 40 m from the bank
Fig. (ii)
he finds the angle to be 30°. Find the height of the tree and
O
the breadth of the river.
Suppose a person P is looking downward an object O, which Solution Let height of the tree be AB and width of the river be AC.
is at a lower level than P, then the angle θ ( ∠OPM ) is called B
as the angle of depression.
NOTE It should be noted that the angle of elevation of one
position as seen from the other is equal to the angle of depression of h
the latter as seen from the former.

Exp. 1) From the top of a tower 180 m high, it was 90° 60° 30°
observed that the angle of depression of the bottom of a A xm C 40 m D
cat sitting on the ground was 30°. Find the distance of the
h
cat from the foot of the tower. In ∆ABC, tan 60° =
x
Solution Let PT be the tower and cat is sitting at C h
3 = ⇒ h=x 3 …(i)
T M x
30° AB
and in ∆ABD, = tan 30°
AD
h 1
= …(ii)
( x + 40) 3
From eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
30°
x 3 1
P C = ⇒ x = 20 m
( x + 40) 3
Then ∠MTC = ∠TCP ∴ h = x 3 = 20 3 = 34.64 m (approx.)
Now in ∆CPT, ∠TCP = 30° Thus the height of the tree is 34.46 m and breadth of the river is
20 m.
538 QUANTUM CAT
400
Exp. 4) Two towers of the same height stand on either LM =
3
side of a road 60 m wide. At a point on the road between
But LM = AB = h
the towers, the elevations of the towers are 60° and 30°. 400
Find the height of the towers and the position of the point. ∴ Height of the tower ( h) = m
3
Solution In ∆AOB
AB h 1 Exp. 6) A man on the top of a rock rising on a seashore
= = …(i)
AO x 3 observes a boat coming towards it. If it takes 10 minutes
x for the angle of depression to change form 30° to 60°, how
⇒ h=
3 soon the boat reach the shore ?
B D Solution Let AB be the rock of height ‘h’ metres.
X B
h h
30°
60°
30° 60°
A x O (60 – x) C h
CD h
and in ∆COD, = = 3 …(ii)
OC ( 60 − x) 30° 60°
from equation (i) and (ii) C D A
x x y
= 3 ⇒ x = 45 m
3 ( 60 − x)
Let C and D be the two positions of boat such that
45 ∠ ACB = ∠XBC = 30°
∴ h= = 15 3 = 15 × 1.732 = 25.98 m
3 and ∠ ADB = ∠XBD = 60°
Hence, the height of the towers is 25.98m and the distance of Let CD = x m and AD = y m
the point ‘O’ from A is 45 m and C is 15 m. h
Now, in ∆ABD, tan 60° =
y
Exp. 5) From the top of a cliff, 200 m high, the angle of
h
depression of the top and bottom of a tower are observed 3 = …(i)
y
to be 30° and 60°, find the height of the tower.
h 1
Solution Let the height of the tower be h m, then and in ∆ABC, tan 30° = = …(ii)
PM x+y 3
In ∆PBM, tan 60° = from equation (i) and (ii), we get
BM
3y 1 x
X P = ⇒ x = 2y ⇒ y =
30° x+y 3 2
60° Since the boat takes 10 minutes to cover x m, hence it will take
10 x
30° = 5 minutes to cover y = metres. Thus the required time
A L 2 2
= 5 minutes.
200 m
h Exp. 7) The angles of elevation of an aeroplane from two
places 10 km apart are found to be 60° and 30°
60° respectively. Find the height of the aeroplane.
B M Solution Let A and B be the two places such that AB = 10
200 kms and let C be the position of the aeroplane at a height of h
3 =
BM metres above AB. Let CD be perpendicular to AB.
200 In Ist case :
BM = m = AL (also)
3 C
PL 1 PL
Now, in ∆ALP, tan 30° = ⇒ =
AL 3 ( 200 / 3 )
200 h
⇒ PL =
3
30° 90° 60°
 200
∴ LM = PM − PL = 200 −   B x D (10 – x) A
 3 
Trigonometry 539

In ∆BCD, In IInd case :

h 1 C
= …(i)
x 3
h
and = 3 …(ii) h
10 − x
from equation (i) and (ii) 30° 60°
x
= 3 B 10 km A x D
3 (10 − x) h
In ∆ACD, = 3 …(i)
⇒ x = 7.5 km x
7.5 7.5 h 1
∴ h= = × 3 = 2.5 × 3 In ∆BCD, = …(ii)
3 3 10 + x 3
= 4.33 km (approx.) Therefore from equation (i) and (ii)
h = 5 3 km ⇒ h = 8.66 km

Introductory Exercise 11.6

1. Two towers of the same height stand on opposite sides 6. A round balloon of radius ‘r’ subtends an angle α at the
of a road 100 m wide. At a point on the road between eye of the observer, while the angle of elevation of its
the towers, the elevations of the towers are 30° and centre is β. Find the height of the centre of balloon.
α
45°. Find the height of the towers and the position of (a) r cosec   sin β (b) r sin α cosec β
the point from the nearest tower :  2
α
(d) r sec  
(a) 36.6 m and 63.4 m (b) 63.3 m and 63.4 m r
(c) sin β
(c) 66.3 m and 63.4 m (d) 36.6 m and 86.4 m 2  2

2. The elevation of a tower at a station A due north of it is 7. At the foot of a mountain the elevation of its summit is
45° and at a station B due west of A is 30°. 45°, after ascending 1000 m towards the mountain up
If AB = 40 m, find the height of the tower : a stop of 30° inclination, the elevation is found to be
(a) 26.26 m (b) 28.28 m 60°. Find the height of the mountain :
(c) 38.5 m (d) none of these (a) 1.3 km (b) 1.366 km
3. If the shadow of a tower is 30 m when the sun’s (c) 2.72 km (d) none of these
altitude is 30° what is the length of the shadow when 8. An aeroplane when 3000 m high passes vertically
the sun’s altitude is 60° ? above another aeroplane at an instant when their
(a) 10 3 m (b) 20 m (c) 10 m (d) 12 m angles of elevation at the same observing point are 60°
4. A helicopter is in a stationary position at a certain and 45° respectively. How many metres higher is the
height over the lake. At a point 200 m above the one than the other?
surface of the lake, the angle of elevation of the (a) 1248 m (b) 1188 m
helicopter is 45°. At the same time, the angle of (c) 1752 m (d) 1268 m
depression of its reflection in the lake is 75°. Calculate 9. The angle of elevation of a cloud from a height h above
the height of the helicopter from the surface of the the level of water in a lake is α and the angle of
lake : depression of its image in the lake is β. Find the height
200 of the cloud above the surface of the lake :
(a) m (b) 200 3 m (c) 200 m (d) 150 m
3 h sin ( β − α )
(a) (b) h sin α
5. A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and sin (α + β )
surmounted by a flagstaff of height ‘h’. At a point on h sin (α + β )
(c) (d) none of these
the plane, the angle of elevation of bottom of the sin ( β − α )
flagstaff is α and that of the top of the flagstaff is β.
10. A palm tree 90 ft high, is broken by the wind and its
Find the height of the tower :
upper part meet the ground at an angle of 30°. Find
h tan α
(a) h tan α (b) the distance of the point where the top of the tree
tan α − tan β
meets the, ground , from its root :
h tan α tan α + tan β (a) 43.69 ft (b) 51.96 ft
(c) (d)
tan β − tan α h tan α (c) 60 ft (d) 30 ft
540 QUANTUM CAT

CAT-Test
Questions Helping you bell the CAT

LEVEL 01 > BASIC LEVEL EXERCISE

1. If 0 < θ < 90°, then (sin θ + cos θ ) is : 8. sin 6 A + cos6 A is equal to :
(a) less than 1 (b) equal to 1 (a) 1 − 3 sin 2 A cos2 A (b) 1 − 3 sin A cos A
(c) greater than 1 (d) greater than 2
(c) 1 + 3 sin A cos A
2 2
(d) 1
1 7
2. The value of x satisfying the equation sin x + = 9. If sec x = P , cosec x = Q , then :
sin x 2 3
(a) P 2 + Q 2 = PQ (b) P 2+ Q 2 = P 2Q 2
is :
(a) 10° (b) 30° (c) P 2 − Q 2 = P 2Q 2 (d) P 2 + Q 2 = − P 2 Q 2
(c) 45° (d) 60° 10. sin 2 A cos2 B − cos2 A sin 2 B simplifies to :
3. If sin θ − cos θ = 0 and 0 < θ ≤ π / 2, then θ is equal to : (a) sin 2 A + sin 2 B (b) cos2 A + cos2 B
π π
(a) (b) (c) sin 2 A − sin 2 B (d) sin 2 A − cos2 B
2 4
π tan ( x + y )
(c) (d) 0 11. If sin 2x = n sin 2y, then the value of is :
6 tan ( x − y )
3 n+1 n −1 1−n 1+ n
4. Given that θ is acute and then sin θ = . Let x, y be positive (a) (b) (c) (d)
5 n −1 n+1 n+1 1−n
real numbers such that 3 ( x − y ) = 1, then one set of 12. The least value of 2 sin 2 θ + 3 cos2 θ is :
solutions for x and y expressed in terms of θ is given by : (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
(a) x = sec θ, y = cosec θ (b) x = cot θ, y = tan θ 13. The value of tan (180 + θ )⋅ tan (90 − θ ) is :
(c) x = csoec θ , y = cot θ (d) x = sec θ, y = tan θ (a) 1 (b) − 1
5. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? (c) 0 (d) none of these
If then 14. log tan 1° + log tan 2° + . . . . + log tan 89° is :
1 + sin 60 ° − cos 60° (a) 1 (b) 1 / 2
(a) x = x = tan 60°
1 + sin 60° + cos 60° (c) 0 (d) − 1
1 + sin 90° − cos 90° 15. If we convert sin (− 566° ) to same trigonometrical ratio of
(b) x = x = tan 30°
1 + sin 90° − cos 90° a positive angle lying between 0° and 45°, then we get :
2 tan 30° (a) cos 26° (b) − cos 26°
(c) x = x = tan 60°
1 − tan 2 30° (c) sin 26° (d) − sin 26°
1 − tan 2 30° 16. From the mast head of ship, the angle of depression of a
(d) x = x = cos 60° boat is 60°. If the mast head is 150 m, then the distance of
1 + tan 2 30°
the boat from the ship is :
6. If x tan 45° . cos 60° = sin 60° cot 60° , then x is equal to (a) 86.6 m (b) 68.6 m
(a) 1 (b) 1/2 (c) 66.8 m (d) none of these
(c) 3 (d) 1 / 2
17. A portion of a 30 m long tree is broken by tornado and the
7. If θ lies in the second quadrant, then top struck up the ground making an angle 30° with ground
1 − sin θ 1 + sin θ level. The height of the point where the tree is broken is
+ is equal to :
1 + sin θ 1 − sin θ equal to :
(a) − 2 sec θ (b) 2 sec θ (a) 30 / 3 m (b) 10 m
(c) 2 cosec θ (d) 2 tan θ (c) 30 3 m (d) 60 m
Trigonometry 541

18. Two posts are 25 m and 15 m high and the line joining their 4
27. If cos θ = and 0 < θ < 90°, then the value of
tips makes an angle of 45° with horizontal. The distance 5
between these posts is : 3 cos θ + 2 cosec θ
is
(a) 5 m 4 sin θ − cot θ
(b) 10 / 2 m 43 41
(a) − (b) −
(c) 10 m 2 2
43 43
(d) 10 2 m (c) (d) −
8 6
19. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower at a point G on
the ground is 30°. On walking 20 m towards the tower the 28. Maximum value of (cos θ − sin θ ) is :
angle of elevation becomes 60°. The height of the tower is (a) 2 (b) 1
equal to : 1 1
(c) (d)
(a) 10 / 3 m (b) 20 3 m 2 2
(c) 20 / 3 m (d) 10 3 m 29. The value of sin 105° is
20. If x = sec θ + tan θ, y = sec θ − tan θ, then the relation 3 −1 3 −1
(a) (b)
between x and y is : 2 2 2
(a) x 2 + y 2 = 0 (b) x 2 = y 2 3+1 3+1
(c) (d)
(c) x 2 = y (d) xy = 1 2 2 2
30. If tan θ = t , then sin 2θ is equal to
21. The value of θ for which 3 cos θ + sin θ = 1 is
1 2t
(a) 0 (b) π / 3 (a) (b)
1 + t2 1 + t2
(c) π / 6 (d) π / 2
t2 1 + t2
4 1 + cos θ (c) (d)
22. If tan θ = , then the value of is 1+t 1+t
3 1 − cos θ
(a) 1 (b) 2 31. If tan θ = 2, then the value of θ is
π π
(c) 3 (d) 4 (a) less than (b) equal to
4 4
23. If the arcs of the same length in two circles subtend angles π π π
of 60° and 90° at the centre, then the ratio of their radii is (c) between and (d) greater than
4 3 3
1 1
(a) (b) 32. If tan θ = 2 − 3, then tan (90 − θ ) is equal to :
3 2
3 (a) 2 + 3 (b) 2 − 3
(c) (d) 2 (c) 3 + 2 (d) 3 − 2
2
24. In the third quadrant, the values of sin θ and cos θ are : 33. If from point 100 m above the ground the angles of
depression of two objects due south on the ground are 60°
(a) positive and negative respectively
and 45°, then the distance between the objects is :
(b) negative and positive respectively
50 (3 − 3) 50 (3 + 3)
(c) both positive (a) m (b) m
3 3
(d) both negative
100 (3 + 3) 100 (3 − 3)
cot 40° 1 cos 35° (c) m (d) m
25. The value of − is : 3 3
tan 50° 2 sin 55°
34. If the length of shadow of a vertical pole on the horizontal
(a) 1 (b) − 1
ground is 3 times of its height, then the angle of elevation
1 1
(c) (d) − of sun is :
2 2
(a) 15° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60°
26. The value of θ (0 ≤ θ ≤ π / 2) satisfying the equation
1 35. A kite is flown with a thread of 250 m length. If the thread
sin θ 2
− 2 cos θ + = 0 is : is assumed to be stretched and makes an angle of 60° with
4
π π the horizontal, then the height of the kite above the
(a) (b) ground is (approx.) :
2 3
π π (a) 216.25 m (b) 215. 25 m
(c) (d) (c) 212.25 m (d) 210.25 m
4 6
 QUANTUM CAT
Answers
Introductory Exercise 11.1
1 (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)

Introductory Exercise 11.2

1 (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d)

Introductory Exercise 11.3

1 (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c)

Introductory Exercise 11.4

1 (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a)

Introductory Exercise 11.5

1 (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)

Introductory Exercise 11.6

1 (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b)

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise

1 (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (a)
Trigonometry 543

Hints & Solutions

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise
1 Let z = sin θ + cos θ 1 1
9 cos x = and sin x =
P Q
⇒ z 2 = 1 + sin 2θ
1 1
Q 0 < θ < 90° so sin 2θ < 1, so that z 2 < 2, 1 = cos2 x + sin 2 x = +
P2 Q2
Thus z < 2 i.e., z is greater than 1. ⇒ P 2 + Q 2 = P 2Q 2
2 Go through option.
10 sin 2 A (1 − sin 2 B ) − (1 − sin 2 A ) sin 2 B = sin 2 A − sin 2 B
3 sin θ − cos θ = 0 n sin 2 x
11 =
⇒ sin θ = cos θ 1 sin 2y
π n + 1 sin 2x + sin 2y 2 sin ( x + y ) cos ( x − y )
⇒ tan θ = 1 ⇒ θ = ⇒ = =
4 n − 1 sin 2x − sin 2y 2 cos ( x + y ) sin ( x − y )
4 Go through option. tan ( x + y )
=
3
Hint sin θ = and cosec θ =
5 tan ( x − y )
5 3
12 The value is least when θ = 90°.
1 − sin θ 1 + sin θ (1 − sin θ ) + (1 + sin θ )
7 + = 14 log tan 1° + log tan 89° = log tan 1° + log tan (90 − 1)
1 + sin θ 1 − sin θ cos θ
= log tan 1° + log cot 1°
= 2 sec θ
= log tan 1° . cot 1° = log 1 = 0
8 a3 + b3 = (a + b)3 − 3ab (a + b)
Similarly, log tan 2° + log tan 88° = 0
Let a = sin 2 θ, b = cos2 θ, so that Also, log tan 45° = log 1 = 0
a + b = sin θ + cos θ = 1
2 2
Thus, the value of the expression is 0.
⇒ sin θ + cos θ = 1 − 3 sin θ cos θ
6 6 2 2 15 sin (− 566° ) = − sin (566° )
= − sin (90 × 6 + 26) = sin 26°.
 QUANTUM CAT

CHAPTER 12

Geometr y
12.1 Introduction
I think geometry is all about visualization and creativity. By connecting some dots or
extending some line segments or rotating some angles you can easily figure out the correct
answers. Practically, you need not be an artist or a painter, but at least you must be capable
of visualizing the geometrical figures. So before going for the tedious and complex
geometrical problems you must make yourself familiar and comfortable with the
fundamental concepts of geometry. Basically, geometry consists of a very large proportion
of problems in CAT. Sometimes, 15-20% problems related to this chapter are asked in Chapter Checklist
CAT. Apart from CAT other competitive exams such as XAT, IIFT and SSC also ask a Lines and Angles
plethora of questions from this chapter. Therefore, it is strongly advised that you must learn
Triangles
this chapter religiously for the sake of a decent score.
Mind me if you don’t understand the theorems, axioms or concepts minutely you cannot Quadrilaterals
perform well, as the intricacy of diagrams and concepts makes it a daunting task for you. Polygons
For the sake of convenience this chapter is divided into 5 parts Circles
1. Lines and Angles 2. Triangles 3. Quadrilaterals Tangential Quadrilateral
4. Polygons 5. Circles and Loci CAT Test

12.2 Lines and Angles

Point : The figure of which length, breadth and height cannot be measured is called a
point. It is infinitesimal.
Line : A line is made up of a infinite number of points and it has only length i.e., it does not
has any thickness (or width). A line is endless i.e., it can be extended in both directions.

Line segment : A line segments has two end points, but generally speaking line segment
is called a line. →
(line segment AB )
A B
Ray : A ray extends indefinitely in one direction from any given point. This is exhibited
by an arrow. The starting point is called as the initial point.

O
Geometry 545

Plane : It is a flat surface, having length and breadth both, 7. There are an infinite number of planes which pass
but no thickness. It is a two dimensional figure. through a single (particular) point.
8. When more than three points lie in the same plane, they
are called as coplanar, else they are called as
non-coplanar.
9. When more than one line lie in the same plane, then
these lines are called as coplanar else they are called as
(Plane) non-coplanar.
10. When two planes intersect each other, they form a line
Type of Lines Definition Diagram i.e., intersecting region is a line.
Parallel lines Two lines, lying in a plane 11. Two different lines which are perpendicular to the same
and having no common
intersecting point are called
(a third line) line, are necessarily parallel to each other,
parallel lines. The distance if all of them are lying on the same plane.
Symbol :
between two parallel lines is 12. When two or more parallel lines are intercepted by some
constant.
other intercepting lines, then the ratio of corresponding
Perpendicular Two lines, which lie in a intercepts are equal. An intercepting line is generally
lines single plane and intersect
called as a transversal.
eachother at right angle, are
called perpendicular lines. Symbol : A D
Concurrent More than two straight lines B E
lines intersecting at the same C F
point.

AB DE
Points to Remember i.e., =
BC EF
1. A line contains infinitely many points. Angles
2. The intersection of two different lines is a point. The amount of rotation about O, the vertex of the angle
3. Through a given point, there pass an infinite number of AOA′, is called the magnitude of the angle.
lines and these lines are called concurrent lines. A'
4. Only one line can pass through any two particular points.
5. When more than two points lie on a line, they are called
as collinear points else they are called as non-collinear
points. O A

6. Two lines can intersect maximum at one point. This m ∠ AOA ′ denotes the measure of ∠AOA ′. Angles are said
point is called as point of intersection and these lines to be congruent when their measure is same.
are called as intersecting lines. (symbol : ≅)

Types of Angles Property Diagram

Acute 0° < θ < 90° A
(∠AOB is an acute angle)

θ
O B

Right θ = 90° A
(∠AOB is a right angle)

O B
546 QUANTUM CAT
Types of Angles Property Diagram
Obtuse 90° < θ < 180° A
(∠AOB is an obtuse angle)

θ
O B

Straight θ = 180° θ
(∠AOB is a straight angle) A O B

Reflex 180° < θ < 360° θ

B
(∠AOB is a reflex angle) O
A

Complementary θ1 + θ2 = 90° A
Two angles whose sum is 90°, are B
complementary to each other θ2
θ1
O C

M P

θ1 θ2
O N O Q

Supplementary θ1 + θ2 = 180° B
Two angles whose sum is 180°, are θ1
supplementary to each other. θ2
A O C

N P

θ1
θ2
M O O Q

Vertically opposite ∠DOA = ∠BOC and ∠DOB = ∠AOC D B

A C
A
Adjacent angles ∠AOB and ∠BOC are adjacent angles A
Adjacent angles must have a common side. B
(e.g., OB)
θ1 θ
θ2
O B
O C

Linear pair ∠AOB and ∠BOC are linear pair angles. One B
side must be common (e.g., OB) and these two
angles must be supplementary.
θ1 θ2

A O C
Geometry 547

Types of Angles Property Diagram

Angles on the one side of a θ1 + θ2 + θ3 = 180°
line
θ2
θ1 θ3

θ1

θ1 + θ2 + θ3 + θ4 = 360° θ2 θ4
Angles round the point
θ3

Angle bisector OC is the angle bisector of ∠AOB. A

1
i.e., ∠AOC = ∠BOC = (∠ AOB) C
2
When a line segment divides an angle equally
into two parts, then it is said to be the angle
bisector (OC) O B

(Angle bisector is equidistant from the two sides of the

angle)

A
C

i.e., AC = BC
O B
Corresponding angles When two lines are intersected by a E
transversal, then they form four pairs of
corresponding angles 2 1
A
(a) ∠AGE, ∠CHG ⇒ (∠ 2, ∠ 6) G B
4
(b) ∠AGH, ∠CHF ⇒ (∠3, ∠7 ) 3
(c) ∠EGB, ∠GHD ⇒ (∠1, ∠5)
(d) ∠BGH, ∠DHF ⇒ (∠4, ∠8) 6 5
H D
C 8
7

Exterior angles These are following four angles

(i) ∠AGE ⇒ ∠2
(ii) ∠CHF ⇒ ∠7
(iii) ∠EGB ⇒ ∠1
(iv) ∠DHF ⇒ ∠8
Interior angles These are following four angles
(i) ∠AGH ⇒ ∠3
(ii) ∠GHC ⇒ ∠6
(iii) ∠BGH ⇒ ∠4
(iv) ∠DHF ⇒ ∠5
Alternate angles These are two pairs angles as following:
(i) ∠AGH, ∠GHD (∠3, ∠5)
(ii) ∠GHC, ∠BGH (∠6, ∠4)
548 QUANTUM CAT
When two parallel lines are intersected by a ∠3 = ∠7
transversal, then ∠1 = ∠5
E
∠4 = ∠8
2 1
A B
3G 4 NOTE 1. If one pair of corresponding angles is congruent, then the
rest pairs of corresponding angles are also congruent.
2. The pairs of alternate angles so formed are congruent
6 H 5
C D i.e., ∠3 = ∠5 and ∠4 = ∠6
7 8
3. The pair of interior angles (i.e., the interior angles on the same side of
a transversal) are supplementary.
F
1. The pairs of corresponding angles so formed are NOTE The converse of all the 3 rules is also true i.e., if the pair of
corresponding angles, or alternate angles or interior angles is equal (i.e.,
congruent. congruent), then the two lines are parallel which are intersected by a
i.e., ∠2 = ∠6 transversal.

Introductory Exercise 12.1

1. What is the value of x in the following figure? 4. In the following figure ∠BOP = 2 x° , ∠AOP = 2 y° , OC
C and OD are angle bisectors of ∠BOP and ∠AOP
respectively.
D P C
5x 4x
A O B y° x°
y° x°
(a) 80° (b) 40° A O B
(c) 20° (d) 25°
2. What is the value of x in the following figure? Find the value of ∠COD.
(a) 75° (b) 90° (c) 100° (d) 120°
C
5. In the following figure find the value of ∠BOC.
C F
(5x + 12°)
3x
A B
A B 40° O 31°

(a) 18° (b) 20° E D

(c) 21° (d) 24°
(a) 101° (b) 149° (c) 71° (d) 140°
3. In the following figure AB is a straight line. Find
6. Find y, if x° = 36 ° , as per the given diagram.
(x + y).
B
D A
C
x°
90°
2y °
y° 2x ° C 4y °
A B O
O 3x ° 3x °
105°
D
E
(a) 36° (b) 16° (c) 12° (d) 42°
(a) 55° (b) 65° 7. If (2 x + 17 )°, (x + 4 )° are complementary, find x.
(c) 75° (d) 80° (a) 63° (b) 53° (c) 35° (d) 23°
Geometry 549

8. If (5 y + 62 )° , (22 ° + y) are supplementary, find y. 17. In the given figure, ∠a is greater than one-sixth of
(a) 16° (b) 32° (c) 8° (d) 1° right angle, then.
C
9. If two supplementary angles are in the ratio 13 : 5.
find the greater angle. b°
a°
(a) 130° (b) 65° (c) 230° (d) 28°
A O B
10. An angle is 30° more than one half of its
complement. Find the angle in degrees. (a) b > 165° (b) b < 165°
(a) 60° (b) 50° (c) 45° (d) 80° (c) b ≤ 165 ° (d) b ≥ 165 °
11. In the given diagram AB|| GH || DE and GF || BD || HI , 18. Let D be the mid–point of a straight line AB and let C
be a point different from D such that AC = BC , then.
∠FGC = 80 °. Find the value of ∠CHI.
(a) AC ⊥ AB (b) ∠BDC = 90 °
A G F (c) ∠BDC is acute (d) ∠BDC > 90 °
19. Answer on the basis of the following statements.
B C D When two straight lines intersect, then :
1. adjacent angles are complementary
I H E 2. adjacent angles are supplementary
3. opposite angles are equal
(a) 80° (b) 120°
(c) 100° (d) 160° 4. opposite angles are supplementary
12. In the given figure AB || CD || EF || GH and (a) 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 4 are correct
BH = 100 cm. Find the value of DF. (c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 2 and 4 are correct
A B 20. AB is a straight line and O is a point on AB, if a line
50 cm
OC is drawn not coinciding with OA or OB, then ∠AOC
C D
30 cm and ∠BOC are
(a) equal
E F
(b) complementary
40 cm
(c) supplementary
G H (d) together equal to 100
21. In the adjoining figure AE || CD and BC || ED, then
(a) 26 cm (b) 40 cm
(c) 25 cm (d) 24 cm find Y.
13. The complement of 65 °50′ is : 100° A
(a) 24° 50′ (b) 24°10′ P Q
B C
(c) 14° 50′ (d) 34° 10′
14. The supplement of 123° 45′ is : y°
R S
(a) 56° 55′ E D
(b) 56° 15′
(c) 55° 56′ (a) 60° (b) 80°
(d) None of the above (c) 90° (d) 75°
15. If two angles are complementary to each other, then 22. In the adjoining figure ∠APO = 42 ° and ∠CQO = 38 °.
each angle is :
Find the value of ∠POQ.
(a) a right angle
(b) a supplementary angle A
P
B
(c) an obtuse angle 1
2
(d) an acute angle M N
O 3
C 4 D
16. How many degrees are there in an angle which Q
equals one-fifth of its supplement?
(a) 15° (b) 30° (a) 68° (b) 72°
(c) 75° (d) 150° (c) 80° (d) 126°
550 QUANTUM CAT
23. In a ∆ABC, a line XY parallel to BC intersects AB at X 27. In the given figure AB || DE. Find a ° + b° − c° :
and AC at Y : A B
If BY bisects ∠XYC, then m ∠CBY : m ∠CYB is : a°
A b° C

c°
X Y
D E
(a) 160° (b) 120° (c) 180° (d) 210°
B C 28. In the given figure AB || CE and BC || FG. Find the
value of x°. A
(a) 5 : 4 (b) 4 : 5
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 6 : 5 G
C
x°
24. In the adjoining figure AB ||CD and PQ, QR intersects
D
B 138°
AB and CD both at E , F and G , H respectively. Given
that m ∠PEB = 80 ° , m ∠QHD = 120 ° and F E
m ∠PQR = x°, find the value of x. (a) 52° b) 32° (c) 42° (d) 36°
A C
G
Q 29. AB|| CD , shown in the figure. Find the value of x.
x°
H A B
E 120° 100
P (x +10)°
80°
30°
F C D
R B D (a) 100° (b) 90° (c) 110° (d) 140°

(a) 40° (b) 20° 30. In the figure PQ || LM || RS. Find the value of ∠ LRS.
(c) 100° (d) 30° P Q
25. In the following figure, find the value of y. 55°
L M
A
P Q 30° 155°
60° z° x
y°
R S

110°
(a) 30° (b) 25° (c) 35° (d) 40°
x°
31. In the figure AB || DC and DE|| BF . Find the value of x.
B C
A
(a) 70° (b) 60° D E
(c) 50° (d) 80° 40°
x
26. In the adjoining figure AB || DE , ∠ABC = 67 ° and
∠ EDC = 23 °. Find ∠BCD.
65°
B D B C F

x (a) 140° (b) 155° (c) 105° (d) 115°

67° 23°
32. In the figure AB|| CD , ∠ABE = 100. Find m ∠CDE.
C
A C

A E
D x°
(a) 90° 100°
(b) 44° B 25°
(c) 46° E
(d) none of the above
(a) 125° (b) 55° (c) 65° (d) 75°
Geometry 551

33. In the figure AB ||CD , find x° (i.e., ∠CDF ). 38. AB || CD. ∠ABO = 118 ° , ∠BOD = 152 °, find ∠ODC.
A
A B
C
118°
70° E O
B F 152°
20°
x°
D
(a) 50° (b) 90° (c) 30° (d) 70°
C D
34. In the given figure XY || PQ, find the value of x.
E (a) 70° (b) 80°
A 60° (c) 90° (d) 34°
X Y
35°
39. Two parallel lines AB and CD are intersected by a
x° O transversal EF at M and N respectively.
20° The lines MP and NP are the bisectors of interior
y°
P Q angles ∠BMN and ∠DNM on the same side of the
B
transversal. Then ∠MPN is equal to :
(a) 70° (b) 40° (c) 75° (d) 15° (a) 60° (b) 90°
(c) 45° (d) 120°
35. In the given figure AB|| CD and EF || DQ. Find the
40. If the arms of one angle are respectively parallel to
value of ∠DEF.
P the arms of another angle, then the two angles are :
Q
(a) either equal or supplementary
(b) neither equal not supplementary
34° F (c) equal but not supplementary
D (d) not equal but supplementary
C
41. AB and CD are two parallel lines. PQ cuts AB and CD
78°
at E and F respectively. EL is the bisector of ∠BEF. If
A E B
∠LEB = 35 ° , then ∠CFQ will be :
(a) 68° (b) 78° (c) 34° (d) 39° (a) 70° (b) 55°
36. In the given figure AB || CD || EF and GH || KL. Find (c) 110° (d) 125°
m ∠HKL. 42. A plane figure is bounded by straight lines only. If n
L is the number of these lines, then the least value of n
is :
A B (a) 1 (b) 2
K
(c) 3 (d) 4
25°
C D 43. How many planes can pass through any three
60° H
arbitrary points?
E F (a) 1 (b) 2
G
(c) 3 (d) 0

(a) 85° (b) 145° (c) 120° (d) 95° 44. Out of the four arbitrary non–collinear points three
points are taken at a time, then the number of planes
37. Which one of the following statements is false?
(a) Two straight lines can intersect at only one point. that can be drawn through the three points is :
(b) Through a given point, only one straight line can (a) 3 (b) 4
be drawn. (c) 6 (d) 12
(c) A line segment can be produced to any desired 45. Maximum number of points of intersection of four
length. lines on a plane is :
(d) Through two given points, it is possible to draw (a) 4 (b) 6
one and only one straight line. (c) 8 (d) 5
552 QUANTUM CAT
In the adjoining figure G F
12.3 Triangles ∠FCB , ∠CBE , ∠ABD, ∠IAB ,
C
Triangle : A three sided closed plane figure, which is ∠HAC , ∠GCA are the exterior
formed by joining the three non-collinear points, is called as angles of the ∆ABC.
a triangle. It is denoted by the symbol ∆.
Sum of the three interior angles
A
of a triangle is always 180°. H A B E
I D
Exterior angle = Sum of two
interior opposite angles
e.g., ∠CBE = ∠CAB + ∠BCA
Perimeter of triangle is equal to sum of all the three sides
B C i.e., a + b + c
In the above ∆ (triangle) ABC, A, B and C are three Semiperimeter of a triangle is half of the perimeter
vertices, line segments AB , BC and AC are the three sides a +b+c
i.e., s = , a, b, c are the length of three sides of a
of the triangle. ∠A, ∠B and ∠C are the three interior 2
angles of a triangle ABC. triangle.

Types of Triangles
(A) According to interior angles
Types of Triangles Property/Definition Diagram
Acute angle triangle Each of the angle of a triangle is less than 90° B
i.e., a < 90° , b < 90° , c < 90° b

a c
A C
{ ∠a, ∠b, ∠c} < 90°
Right angled triangle One of the angle is equal to 90°, then it is called as right angled A
triangle.
Rest two angles are complementary to each other.

90°
C B
∠C = 90°
Obtuse angle triangle One of the angle is obtuse (i.e., greater than 90°), then it is called A
as obtuse angle triangle.

C B
∠C > 90°

(B) According to the length of sides.

Types of Triangles Property/Definition Diagram
Scalene triangle A triangle in which none of the three sides is equal is called a C
scalene triangle (all the three angles are also different ).

a b

B c A
a≠b≠c
Geometry 553

Isosceles triangle A triangles in which at least two sides are equal is called an A
isosceles triangle.
In this triangle, the angles opposite to the congruent sides are also
equal.

B C
AB = AC, ∠B = ∠C
Equilateral triangle A triangle in which all the three sides are equal called an A
equilateral triangle. In this triangle each angle is congruent and
equal to 60°.

B C
AB = BC = AC
∠A = ∠B = ∠C = 60°

Fundamental Properties of Triangles 6. Cosine rule : In a ∆ABC, if a, b, c be the sides

1. Sum of any two sides is always greater than the third opposite to angle A, B and C respectively, then
side. b2 + c2 − a 2 c2 + a 2 − b2
2. The difference of any two sides is always less than the cos A = , cos B = ,
2bc 2ca
third side.
3. Greater angle has a greater side opposite to it and a 2 + b2 − c2
cos C =
smaller angle has a smaller side opposite to it i.e., if two 2ab
sides of a triangle are not congruent then the angle (These rules have been discussed already in
opposite to the greater side is greater. trigonometry.)
4. Let a, b and c be the three sides of a ∆ABC and c is the 7. The sum of all the three interior angles is always 180°
largest side. Then E
B
C

a c
A
D
C b A B
F

(i) if c 2 < a 2 + b 2 , the triangle is acute angle triangle i.e., ∠CAB + ∠ABC + ∠BCA = 180°
(ii) if c 2 = a 2 + b 2 , the triangle is right angled triangle 8. The sum of three (ordered) exterior angles of a triangle
is 360°
(iii) if c 2 > a 2 + b 2 , the triangle is obtuse angle triangle E
E
5. Sine rule : In a ∆ABC, if a, b, c be the three sides C C
opposite to the angles A, B , C respectively, then
a b c
= = B A
sin A sin B sin C F D
A B
A D F
Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)

In fig. (i) : ( ∠FAC + ∠ECB + ∠DBA ) = 360°

b c
In fig. (ii) : ( ∠FAB + ∠DBC + ∠ECA ) = 360°
9. The sum of an interior angle and its adjacent exterior
C B angle is 180°.
a
554 QUANTUM CAT
10. A triangle must has at least two acute angles.
11. In a triangle, the measure of an exterior angle equals the sum of the measures of the interior opposite angles.
12. The measure of an exterior angle of a triangle is greater than the measure of each of the opposite interior angles.
Important Definitions
Nomenclature Property/Definition Diagram
Altitude (or height) The perpendicular drawn from the opposite vertex of a side in
A
a triangle is called an altitude of the triangle.
l
There are three altitudes in a triangle.

D F
O

B E C
AE, CD and BF are the altitudes
Median The line segment joining the mid-point of a side to the vertex
A
opposite to the side is called a median.
l
There are three medians in a triangle.
l
A median bisects the area of the triangle i.e.,
1 D F
A (∆ABE ) = A (∆AEC) = A (∆ABC) etc.
2 O

B E C
AE, CD and BF are the medians
(BE = CE, AD = BD, AF = CF )
Angle bisector A line segment which originates from a vertex and bisects the A
same angle is called an angle bisector.
 ∠BAE = ∠CAE = 1 ∠BAC etc.
 
 2 
D F

B E C
AE, CD and BF are the angle bisectors.
Perpendicular A line segment which bisects a side perpendicularly (i.e, at A
bisector right angle) is called a perpendicular bisector of a side of
triangle.
l
All points on the perpendicular bisector of a line are
equidistant from the ends of the line. D F
O

B E C
DO, EO and FO are the
perpendicular bisectors.
Orthocentre The point of intersection of the three altitudes of the triangle is A
called the orthocentre.
∠BOC = 180 − ∠A
F
∠COA = 180 − ∠B D
O
∠AOB = 180 − ∠C

B E C
‘O’ is the orthocentre
Geometry 555

Types of Triangles Property/Definition Diagram

Centroid The point of intersection of the three medians of a triangle is A
called the centroid. A centroid divides each median in the ratio
2 : 1 (vertex : base)
AO CO BO 2
= = = D F
OE OD OF 1
O

B E C
‘O’ is the centroid.
Incentre The point of intersection of the angle bisectors of a triangle is A
called the incentre.
Incentre O is the always equidistant from all three sides i.e., the
perpendicular distance between the sides and incentre is always
same for all the three sides. D F

B E C
‘O’ is the incentre.
Circumcentre The point of intersection of the perpendicular bisectors of the A
sides of a triangle is called the circumcentre.
OA = OB = OC = (circum radius)
Circumcentre O is always equidistant from all the three vertices D F
A, B and C.
O

B E C
‘O’ is the circumcentre.

Important Theorems on Triangles

Theorem Statement/Explanation Diagram
Pythagoras The square of the hypotenuse of a right angled triangle is equal A
theorem to the sum of the squares of the other two sides. i.e.,
( AC)2 = ( AB)2 + (BC)2
D
l
The converse of this theorem is also true.
l
The numbers which satisfy this relation, are called
Pythagorean triplets.
e.g., (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), (7, 24, 25), (8, 15, 17), (9, 40, 41),
(11, 60, 61), (12, 35, 37), (16, 63, 65), (20, 21, 29), (28, 45, B C
53), (33, 56, 65 ) ∠B = 90°
Note : All the multiples (or submultiples) of Pythagorean AC → Hypotenuse
triplets also satisfy the relation. e.g.,
AD = CD = BD
(6, 8,10), (15,36, 39), (1.5, 2, 2.5) etc (D is the mid-point of AC)
45° − 45° − 90° If the angles of a triangle are 45°, 45° and 90°, then the A
triangle theorem hypotenuse (i.e., longest side) is 2 times of any smaller side.
Excluding hypotenuse rest two sides are equal. i.e., AB = BC
and AC = 2 AB = 2BC

B C
∠A = 45°, ∠B = 90°, ∠C = 45°
556 QUANTUM CAT
Theorem Statement/Explanation Diagram
30° − 60° − 90° If the angles of a triangle are 30°, 60° and 90°,then the sides A
triangle theorem opposite to 30° angle is half of the hypotenuse and the side
3 60°
opposite to 60° is times the hypotenuse .
2
AC 3
e.g., AB = and BC = AC
2 2
∴ AB : BC : AC = 1 : 3 : 2 90° 30°
B C

Basic Any line parallel to one side of a triangle divides the other two A
proportionality sides proportionally. So if DE is drawn parallel to BC, it would
theorem (BPT) or divide sides AB and AC proportionally i.e.,
Thales theorem AD AE AD AE
= or =
DB EC AB AC D E
AD AB AE AC
= = =
DE BC DE BC
B C

Mid-point theorem If the mid-points of two adjacent sides of a triangle are joined A
by a line segment, then this segment is parallel to the third side.
i.e., if AD = BD and AE = CE, then DE || BC

D E

B C

Apollonius theorem In a triangle, the sum of the squares of any two sides of a A
triangle is equal to twice the sum of the square of the median to
the third side and square of half the third side. i.e.,
AB2 + AC2 = 2 ( AD 2 + BD 2 )

B D C
BD = CD
AD is the median
Interior angle In a triangle the angle bisector of an angle divides the opposite A
bisector theorem side to the angle in the ratio of the remaining two sides. i.e.,
BD AB
= and BD × AC − CD × AB = AD 2
CD AC

B C
D

Exterior angle In a triangle the angle bisector of any exterior angle of a E

bisector theorem triangle divides the side opposite to the external angle in the
BE BC
ratio of the remaining two sides i.e., = A
AE AC

B C D
Geometry 557

Euler’s Theorem for a Let ∆ABC have circumradius R and inradius r. Let d be A
triangle the distance between the circumcentre and the
incenter. Then we have d2 = R(R − 2r ) P
B C
Q
PQ = d

Crossed Ladder Theorem Let the two line segments BC and AD intersect at a B
point F, such that the point E lies on AC and
AB || CD || EF. Then, we have D
1 1 1 F
+ =
AB CD EF

A E C

Mass Point Geometry Let us consider a line AB which is intersected by a m n

point P, such that AP = m and BP = n, we have A P B
wt ( A) n
=
wt (B) m
Therefore, the weight at A will be n, the weight at B m n
will be m and the total weight at P will be (m + n ). (n )A (m+n)P (m)B

Useful Results 4. In a ∆ABC, if BC is produced to D and AE is the angle

bisector of ∠A, then
1. In a ∆ABC, if the bisectors of ∠B and ∠C meet at O,
1 A
then ∠BOC = 90° + ∠A
2
A

B D
C
O

B C
∠ABC + ∠ACD = 2 ∠ AEC .
5. In a ∆ABC, if side BC is produced to D and bisectors
2. In a ∆ABC, if sides AB and AC are produced to D and of ∠ABC and ∠ ACD meet at E, then
E respectively and the bisectors of ∠DBC and ∠ECB E
1
intersect at O, then ∠BOC = 90° − ∠A A
2
A

B D
C
B C 1
∠BEC =
∠BAC
2
D O E 6. In an acute angle ∆ ABC, AD is a perpendicular
3. In a ∆ABC, if AD is the angle bisector of ∠BAC and dropped on the opposite side of ∠A, then
1
AE ⊥ BC , then ∠DAE = ( ∠ABC − ∠ACB ) A
2
A

B D C

AC 2 = AB 2 + BC 2 − 2BD ⋅ BC ( ∠ B < 90° )

B E D C
558 QUANTUM CAT
7. In an obtuse angle ∆ ABC , AD is perpendicular 10. Area of scalene triangle = s ( s − a ) ( s − b) ( s − c)
dropped on BC. BC is produced to D to meet AD, then
A
A

c b

90°
D B C B a C
AC 2 = AB 2 + BC 2 + 2 BD ⋅ BC ( ∠B > 90° ) abc
Also, A ( ∆ ) = r × s =
4R
8. In a right angle ∆ABC, ∠B = 90° and AC is
hypotenuse. The perpendicular BD is dropped on where a, b and c are the sides of the triangle.
a +b+c
hypotenuse AC from right angle vertex B, then s → semiperimeter = , r → inradius
2
A R → circumradius
D 11. Area of right angled triangle
A

B C
AB × BC AB 2
(i) BD = (ii) AD =
AC AC 90°
2 B C
BC 1 1
(iii) CD = = × base × height = × BC × AB (as per the figure)
AC 2 2
1 1 1
(iv) 2
= 2
+ 12. Area of an isosceles triangle =
b
4a 2 − b 2
BD AB BC 2 4
In a right angled triangle, the median to the A
1
hypotenuse = × hypotenuse
2
AC a a
i.e., BN = (as per the fig.)
2
D
A B C
b
AB = AC and ∠B = ∠C
N
∆ABD ≅ ∆ACD (AD → Angle bisector, median,
altitude and perpendicular bisector)
3 2
B C 13. Area of an equilateral triangle = a
9. Area of a triangle (General formula) 4
A
A

a a

D
B D C B C
a
1  1 1 3 3 2
A (∆) = × base × height  A ( ∆ ) = 2 BC × AD = 2 × a × 2 a = 4 a 
2 
1
A ( ∆ ) = × BC × AD (as per the figure.) (a → each side of the triangle)
2
Geometry 559

AD → Altitude, median, angle bisector and 15. The ratio of areas of two triangles of equal heights is
perpendicular bisector also. equal to the ratio of their corresponding bases. i.e.,
1 side B Q
Inradius : × height = ,
3 2 3
OD → Inradius
A h h
A
A D C P S R

A ( ∆ABC ) AC
O =
O
D A ( ∆PQR ) PR
B C
16. The ratio of areas of triangles of equal bases is equal to
B D C
the ratio of their heights.
2 side R
Circumradius = × height = B
3 3
OA → Circumradius
h2
NOTE In equilateral triangle orthocentre centroid, incentre h1
and circumcentre coincide at the same point.
Circumradius = 2 × inradius
A D C P S Q
For the given perimeter of a triangle, the area of equilateral
triangle is maximum.
For the given area of a triangle, the perimeter of equilateral A ( ∆ABC ) BD
i.e., =
triangle is minimum. A ( ∆PQR ) RS
17. The ratio of the areas of two triangles is equal to the
14. In a right angled triangle
ratio of the products of base and its corresponding
AB + BC − AC
(i) Inradius ( r ) = height i.e.,
2 Q
Area B
(ii) Inradius ( r ) =
Semiperimeter
A
F

D O
A D C P S R

B E C
A ( ∆ABC ) AC × BD
=
DO = EO = FO ( r ) A ( ∆PQR ) PR × QS
AC  hypotenuse  18. If the two triangles have the same base and lie between
(iii) Circumradius ( R ) = = 
2  2  the same parallel lines (as shown in figure), then the
A area of two triangles will be equal.
C D
O

B C

A B
AO = CO = BO = ( R )
i.e., A ( ∆ABC ) = A ( ∆ADB )
AC is the diameter.
560 QUANTUM CAT
19. In a triangle AE , CD and BF are the medians, then l The maximum area can be enclosed only when one of the
C vertices of the triangle coincides with one of the vertices
of the square and angle between the side of the triangle
F E and the side of the rectangle at the point of coincidence is
15°.
l Also, the side of the equilateral triangle is 6 − 2.
A D B
1
l Also, the area of ∆ADF = ∆ABE = (∆ECF ).
3 ( AB 2 + BC 2 + AC 2 ) = 4 (CD 2 + BF 2 + AE 2 ) 2
20. In an equilateral triangle, if O is a point anywhere Congruency of triangles
inside the equilateral triangle ABC, the sum of its
distances from three sides is equal to the length of the Two triangles are said to be congruent if they are equal in
altitude of the triangle. That is, as per the given all respects. i.e.,
A P
diagram, OP + OQ + OR = AD .
A

P
Q O
B C Q R

1. Each of the three sides of one triangle must be equal to

B C
R D the three respective sides of the other.
21. The largest possible area of an equilateral triangle 2. Each of the three angles of the one triangle must be
equal to the three respective angles of the other.
inscribed in a unit square is (2 3 − 3).
AB = PQ  ∠A = ∠P 
D F C  
i.e., AC = PR  and ∠B = ∠Q 
BC = QR  ∠C = ∠R 

15°
Tests for congruency
With the help of the following given tests, we can deduce
E without having detailed information about triangles that
whether the given two triangles are congruent or not.
15°
A B

Test Property Diagram

S−S−S (Side–Side–Side) A P
If the three sides of one triangle are equal to the corresponding three
sides of the other triangle, then the two triangles are congruent.
AB ≅ PQ, AC ≅ PR, BC ≅ QR
∴ ∆ABC ≅ ∆PQR B C Q R

S − A− S (Side–Angle–Side) A P
If two sides and the angle included between them are congruent to the
corresponding sides and the angle included between them, of the other
triangle, then the two triangles are congruent.
AB ≅ PQ, ∠ABC ≅ ∠PQR, BC ≅ QR
B C Q R
∴ ∆ABC ≅ ∆PQR
Geometry 561

Test Property Diagram

A− S − A (Angle–Side–Angle) A P
If two angles and the included side of a triangle are congruent to the
corresponding angles and the included side of the other triangle, then the
two triangles are congruent.
∠ABC ≅ ∠PQR, BC ≅ QR, ∠ACB ≅ ∠PRQ
B C Q R
∴ ∆ABC ≅ ∆PQR

A− A− S (Angle–Angle–Side) A P
If two angles and a side other than the included side of a one triangle are
congruent to the corresponding angles and a corresponding side other
than the included side of the other triangle, then the two triangles are
congruent.
B C Q R
∠ABC ≅ ∠PQR, ∠ACB ≅ ∠PRQ
and AC ≅ PR (or AB ≅ PQ)

R—H—S (Right angle–Hypotenuse–Side) A P

If the hypotenuse and one side of the right angled triangle are congruent
to the hypotenuse and a corresponding side of the other right angled
triangle, then the two given triangles are congruent.
AC ≅ PR, ∠B = ∠Q and BC ≅ QR B C Q R
∴ ∆ABC ≅ ∆PQR

Similarity of triangles
Two triangles are said to be similar if the corresponding angles are congruent and their corresponding sides are in proportion.
The symbol for similarity is ‘~’. If ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR , then ∠ABC ≅ ∠ PQR, ∠BCA ≅ ∠QRP, ∠BAC ≅ ∠QPR
Tests for Similarity
Through the tests for similarity we can deduce the similarity of triangles with minimum required information.
Test Property/Definition Diagram
A− A Angle-Angle P
A
If the two angles of one triangle are congruent to the corresponding two
angles of the other triangle, then the two triangles are said to be similar.
∠ABC ≅ ∠ PQR
∠ACB ≅ ∠PRQ B C Q R
∴ ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR
S-A-S Side-Angle-Side A P
If the two sides of one triangle are proportional to the corresponding two
sides of the other triangle and the angle included by them are congruent,
AB BC
then the two triangles are similar. i.e., = and
PQ QR
B C Q R
∠ABC = ∠PQR
∴ ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR. AB BC
= = K (K is any constant )
PQ QR
S-S-S Side-Side-Side A P
If the three sides of one triangle are proportional to the corresponding
three sides of the other triangle, then the two triangles are similar. i.e.,
AB BC AC
= =
PQ QR PR B C Q R
∴ ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR AB BC AC
= = =K
PQ QR PR

NOTE When the corresponding sides are in proportion , then the corresponding angles are in proportion.
562 QUANTUM CAT
Properties of Similar Triangles 2. Ratio of areas = Ratio of squares of corresponding sides.
If the two triangles are similar, then for the
i.e., if ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR , then
proportional/corresponding sides we have the
A ( ∆ABC ) ( AB ) 2 ( BC ) 2 ( AC ) 2
following results. = = =
A ( ∆PQR ) ( PQ ) 2 (QR ) 2 ( PR ) 2
P
A NOTE Rule 1 can also apply with rule 2.
3. In a right angled triangle, the triangles on each side of
D F S U the altitude drawn from the vertex of the right angle to
the hypotenuse are similar to the original triangle and
M N
B E Q
to each other too. i.e., ∆ BCA ~ ∆ BDC ~ ∆ CDA.
C T R
1. Ratio of sides = Ratio of heights (altitudes) B
= Ratio of medians
= Ratio of angle bisectors D
= Ratio of inradii
= Ratio of circumradii
C A

Introductory Exercise 12.2

1. In a triangle ABC, if AB, BC and AC are the three 5. In a ∆ABC, ∠BAC > 90 °, then ∠ABC and ∠ACB
sides of the triangle, then which of the statements is must be :
A
necessarily true?
(a) AB + BC < AC (b) AB + BC > AC
(c) AB + BC = AC (d) AB2 + BC2 = AC2
2. The sides of a triangle are 12 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm
respectively, the triangle is : B C
(a) acute (b) obtuse
(a) acute
(c) right (d) can’t be determined
(b) obtuse
3. If the sides of a triangle are produced then the sum (c) one acute and one obtuse
of the exterior angles i.e, (d) can’t be determined
∠DAB + ∠EBC + ∠FCA is equal to : 6. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 4 : 7 ,
F
C then the value of the largest angle is :
(a) 135°
(b) 84°
A E (c) 105°
B (d) none of the above
D
(a) 180° (b) 270° (c) 360° (d) 240° 7. In the adjoining figure ∠B = 70 ° and ∠C = 30 °. BO

4. In the given figure BC is produced to D and and CO are the angle bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACB.
∠BAC = 40 ° and ∠ABC = 70 °. Find the value of ∠ACD. Find the value of ∠BOC.
A A

B C D B C
(a) 30° (b) 40° (a) 30° (b) 40°
(c) 70° (d) 110° (c) 120° (d) 130°
Geometry 563

(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 2 : 3

8. In the given diagram of ∆ABC, ∠B = 80 ° , ∠C = 30 ° . 15. In a ∆ABC, AB = AC and AD ⊥ BC , then :
BF and CF are the angle bisectors of ∠CBD and (a) AB < AD (b) AB > AD
∠BCE respectively. Find the value of ∠BFC. (c) AB = AD (d) AB ≤ AD
A
16. The difference between altitude and base of a right
angled triangle is 17 cm and its hypotenuse is
B C 25 cm. What is the sum of the base and altitude of
the triangle is :
D E (a) 24 cm (b) 31 cm
F
(c) 34 cm (d) can’t be determined
(a) 110° (b) 50° (c) 125° (d) 55° 17. If AB, BC and AC be the three sides of a triangle ABC,
9. In an equilateral triangle, the incentre, circumcentre, then which one of the following is true?
orthocentre and centroid are : (a) AB − BC = AC (b) (AB − BC ) > AC
(a) concylic (b) coincident (c) (AB −BA) < AC (d) AB2 − BC2 = AC2
(c) collinear (d) None of these 18. In the triangle ABC, side BC is produced to D.
10. In the adjoining figure, D is the midpoint of BC of a ∠ACD = 100 ° if BC = AC, then ∠ABC is :
A
∆ABC.DM and DN are the perpendiculars on AB and
AC respectively and DM = DN , then the ∆ABC is :
A

M N
B C D

B D C (a) 40°
(b) 50°
(a) right angled (b) isosceles (c) 80°
(c) equilateral (d) scalene (d) can’t be determined
11. In the adjoining figure of ∆ABC, A
19. In the adjoining figure D , E and F are the mid-points
AD is the perpendicular bisector of the sides BC , AC and AB respectively. ∆DEF is
of side BC. The triangle ABC is: congruent to triangle :
(a) right angled A
(b) isosceles B D C
(c) scalene
(d) equilateral F E

12. Triangle ABC is such that AB = 9 cm, BC = 6 cm,

B C
AC = 7.5 cm. Triangle DEF is similar to ∆ABC. If D
EF = 12 cm then DE is :
(a) 6 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 18 cm (d) 15 cm (a) ABC (b) AEF
(c) CDE , BFD (d) AFE , BFD and CDE
13. In ∆ABC, AB = 5 cm, AC = 7 cm. If AD is the angle
20. In the adjoining figure, ∠BAC = 60 ° and
bisector of ∠A. Then BD : CD is :
BC = a , AC = b and AB = c, then :
(a) 25 : 49 (b) 49 : 25 (c) 6 : 1 (d) 5 : 7 A
14. In a ∆ABC,D is the mid-point of BC and E is
60°
mid-point of AD, BF passes through E. What is the
ratio of AF : FC ? b c
A

F C a B

E
(a) a2 = b2 + c2
(b) a2 = b2 + c2 − bc
B D C (c) a2 = b2 + c2 + bc
(d) a2 = b2 + 2 bc
564 QUANTUM CAT
21. In the adjoining figure of ∆ABC, ∠BCA = 120 ° and 28. If in a ∆ABC, ‘S’ is the circumcentre, then :
AB = c, BC = a , AC = b, then: (a) S is equidistant from all the vertices of a triangle
(b) S is equidistant from all the sides of a triangle
B (c) AS , BS and CS are the angular bisectors
(d) AS , BS and CS produced are the altitudes on the
opposite sides.
a c
29. If AD , BE , CF are the altitudes of ∆ABC whose
120° orthocentre is H, then C is the orthocentre of :
C b A (a) ∆ABH (b) ∆BDH
(a) c2 = a2 + b2 + ba (c) ∆ABD (d) ∆BEA
(b) c2 = a2 + b2 − ba 30. In a right angled ∆ABC, ∠C = 90 ° and CD is the
(c) c2 = a2 + b2 − 2 ba perpendicular on hypotenuse AB if BC = 15 cm and
(d) c2 = a2 + b2 + 2 ab AC = 20 cm, then CD is equal to :

22. In a right angled ∆ABC, ∠ C = 90 ° and CD is the C

perpendicular on the hypotenuse AB, AB = c,
BC = a , AC = b and CD = p, then :

B
A D B
D
(a) 18 cm (b) 12 cm
(c) 17.5 cm (d) can’t be determined
31. In an equilateral ∆ABC, if a , b and c denote the
C A
lengths of perpendiculars from A, B and C
p p 1 1 1
(a) = (b) 2
+ 2 = 2 respectively on the opposite sides, then :
a b p b a
(a) a > b > c (b) a > b < c
1 1 1
(c) p2 = b2 + c2 (d) = + (c) a = b = c (d) a = c ≠ b
p2 a2 b2
32. What is the ratio of side and height of an equilateral
23. If the medians of a triangle are equal, then the triangle?
triangle is : (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1
(a) right angled (b) isoscles (c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 2
(c) equilateral (d) scalene
33. The triangle is formed by joining the mid-points of
24. The incentre of a triangle is determined by the : the sides AB, BC and CA of ∆ABC and the area of
(a) medians ∆PQR is 6 cm2, then the area of ∆ABC is :
(b) angle bisector (a) 36 cm2 (b) 12 cm2
(c) perpendicular bisectors (c) 18 cm 2
(d) 24 cm2
(d) altitudes
34. One side other than the hypotenuse of right angle
25. The circumcentre of a triangle is determined by the :
isosceles triangle is 6 cm. The length of the perpen-
(a) altitudes
dicular on the hypotenuse from the opposite vertex is :
(b) median
(a) 6 cm (b) 6 2 cm
(c) perpendicular bisector
(c) 4 cm (d) 3 2 cm
(d) angle bisectors
35. Any two of the four triangles formed by joining the
26. The point of intersection of the angle bisectors of a
mid- points of the sides of a given triangle are :
triangle is :
(a) congruent
(a) orthocentre (b) centroid
(b) equal in area but not congruent
(c) incentre (d) circumcentre
(c) unequal in area and not congruent
27. A triangle PQR is formed by joining the mid-points of (d) None of the above
the sides of a triangle ABC. ‘O’ is the circumcentre of 36. The internal bisectors of ∠B and ∠C of ∆ABC meet at
∆ABC, then for ∆PQR, the point ‘O’ is : O. If ∠A = 80 ° then ∠BOC is :
(a) incentre (b) circumcentre (a) 50° (b) 160°
(c) orthocentre (d) centroid (c) 100° (d) 130°
Geometry 565

37. The point in the plane of a triangle which is at equal 45. In right angled ∆ABC, ∠B = 90 °, if P and Q are points
perpendicular distance from the sides of the triangle on the sides AB and BC respectively, then :
is : A
(a) centroid (b) incentre
(c) circumcenre (d) orthocentre P
38. Incentre of a triangle lies in the interior of :
(a) an isosceles triangle only
C Q B
(b) a right angled triangle only
(c) any equilateral triangle only
(d) any triangle (a) AQ2 + CP2 = 2 (AC2 + PQ2 )
39. In a triangle PQR, PQ = 20 cm and PR = 6 cm, the (b) AQ2 + CP2 = AC2 + PQ2
1
side QR is : (c) (AQ2 + CP2 ) = (AC2 + PQ2 )
(a) equal to 14 cm 2
(b) less than 14 cm 1
(d) (AQ + CP ) = (AC + PQ)
(c) greater than 14 cm 2
(d) none of the above 46. If ABC is a right angled triangle at B and M , N are the
40. The four triangles formed by joining the pairs of mid- mid-points of AB and BC, then 4 (AN2 + CM2 ) is equal
points of the sides of a given triangle are congruent if to :
the given triangle is : (a) 4 AC2 (b) 6 AC2
(a) an isosceles triangle 5
(b) an equilateral triangle (c) 5 AC2 (d) AC2
4
(c) a right angled triangle
AB BC CA
(d) of any shape 47. If ∆ABC and ∆DEF are so related that = = ,
FD DE EF
41. O is orthocentre of a triangle PQR, which is formed by
then which of the following is true ?
joining the mid-points of the sides of a ∆ABC,O is : (a) ∠A = ∠F and ∠B = ∠D
(a) orthocentre (b) incentre (b) ∠C = ∠F and ∠A = ∠D
(c) circumcentre (d) centroid (c) ∠B = ∠F and ∠C = ∠D
42. In a ∆ABC, a line PQ parallel to BC cuts AB at P and (d) ∠A = ∠E and ∠B = ∠D
AC at Q. If BQ bisects ∠PQC, then which one of the 48. ABC is a right angle triangle at A and AD is
following relation is always true : BD
perpendicular to the hypotenuse. Then is equal
(a) BC = CQ (b) BC = BQ CD
(c) BC ≠ CQ (d) BC ≠ BQ to :
2 2
43. Which of the following is true, in the given figure,  AB   AB  AB AB
(a)   (b)   (c) (d)
where AD is the altitude to the hypotenuse of a right  AC   AD  AC AD
angled ∆ABC? 49. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle. Let BE ⊥ CA
(i) ∆CAD and ∆ ABD are similar meeting CA at E, then (AB2 + BC2 + CA2 ) is equal to :
(ii) ∆CDA and ∆ADB are congruent (a) 2 BE2 (b) 3 BE2 (c) 4 BE2 (d) 6 BE2
(iii) ∆ADB and ∆CAB are similar
50. If D , E and F are respectively the mid-points of sides
Select the correct answer using the codes given
BC,CA and AB of a ∆ABC. If EF = 3 cm, FD = 4 cm
below :
and AB = 10 cm, then DE , BC and CA respectively will
(a) 1 and 2
be equal to :
(b) 2 and 3
(a) 6, 8 and 20 cm (b) 4, 6 and 8 cm
(c) 1 and 3 10
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 5, 6 and 8 cm (d) , 9 and 12 cm
3
44. If D is such a point on the side BC of ∆ABC that
51. In the right angle triangle ∠ C = 90 °. AE and BD are
AB BD
= , then AD must be a/an :
AC CD two medians of a triangle ABC meeting at F. The
(a) altitude of ∆ABC ratio of the area of ∆ABF and the quadrilateral FDCE
(b) median of ∆ABC is :
(c) angle bisector of ∆ABC (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(d) perpendicular bisector of ∆ABC (c) 2 : 1 (d) 2 : 3
566 QUANTUM CAT
52. ABC is a triangle and DE is drawn parallel to BC 57. In the given diagram XY || PQ. Find m ∠x° and m ∠y°.
cutting the other sides at D and E. If AB = 3.6 cm,
AC = 2.4 cm and AD = 2.1 cm, then AE is equal to : E
60°
(a) 1.4 cm (b) 1.8 cm X Y
A 35°
(c) 1.2 cm (d) 1.05 m x° D
53. Consider the following statements : 20°
y°
(1) If three sides of a triangle are equal to three P Q
B
F
sides of another triangle, then the triangles are
(a) 75° and 40° (b) 45°, 60°
congruent.
(c) 75°, 45° (d) 60° and 45°
(2) If three angles of a triangle are equal to three
58. In the adjoining figure m ∠CAB = 62 °, m ∠CBA = 76 °
angles of another triangle respectively, then the
two triangles are congruent. Out of these m ∠ADE = 58 ° and ∠DFG = 66 °,
statements :
A F
(a) 1 is correct and 2 is false
(b) both 1and 2 are false 62°
66°
(c) both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1 is false and 2 is correct 76°
B C E G
54. In the figure ∆ABE is an equilateral triangle in a
58°
square ABCD. Find the value of angle x in degrees :
D
D C Find m ∠FGE.
E
(a) 44° (b) 34°
O (c) 36° (d) none of these
x° 59. In the given figure CE ⊥ AB, m ∠ACE = 20 ° and
m ∠ABD = 50 °. Find m ∠BDA.
A B
(a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 75° (d) 90° B

55. In the given diagram MN || PR and m ∠LBN = 70 °,

50°
AB = BC. Find m ∠ABC :
E
L 90°
B 70°
M N 20°
A D C
(a) 50° (b) 60°
P A C R (c) 70° (d) 80°
(a) 40° (b) 30° 60. In the ∆ABC, BD bisects ∠B, and is perpendicular to
(c) 35° (d) 55° AC. If the lengths of the sides of the triangle are
56. In the given diagram, equilateral triangle EDC expressed in terms of x and y as shown,find the value
surmounts square ABCD. Find the m ∠BED of x and y.
represented by x where m ∠EBC = α °.
B
E

x° 2x 3y + 8
D C
M
a° 90°
A B A x D 2y C
(a) 45° (b) 60° (a) 6, 12 (b) 10, 12
(c) 30° (d) none of these (c) 16, 8 (d) 8, 15
Geometry 567

61. In the following figure ADBC. BD = CD = AC, 66. In the given figure, AB, PQ and CD are perpendiculars
m ∠ABC = 27 ° , m ∠ACD = y. Find the value of y. on the line segment BD. If AB = x, CD = y and BD = z ,
A find the length of PQ.
C

D
A
P
y°
27°
B C
B Q D

(a) 27° (b) 54° 3xyz x+ y xy x+ y+ z

(c) 72° (d) 58° (a) (b) (c) (d)
x+ y+ z z x+ y xyz
62. ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC. Side BA is
produced to D such that AB = AD. Find m ∠BCD. 67. In the adjoining figure the angle BAC and ∠ADB are
(a) 60° (b) 90° right angles. BA = 5 cm, AD = 3 cm and BD = 4 cm,
(c) 120° (d) can’t be determined what is the length of DC ?
A
63. In ∆ABC, AC = 5 cm. Calculate the length of AE where
DE || BC. Given that AD = 3 cm and BD = 7 cm.
A 5 3

D E B 4 D C

(a) 2.5 (b) 3 (c) 2.25 (d) 2

B C 68. The areas of the similar triangles are in the ratio of
25 : 36. What is the ratio of their respective heights?
(a) 2 cm (b) 1 cm (c) 1.5 cm (d) 2.5 cm
(a) 5 : 6 (b) 6 : 5 (c) 1 : 11 (d) 2 : 3
64. In ∆PQR, AP = 2 2 cm, AQ = 3 2 cm and PR = 10
69. In the given diagram AB || CD, then which one of the
cm, AB || QR. Find the length of BR.
following is true ?
P D C

2 2cm
O

A B
3 2cm A B

Q R AB AO AB BO
(a) = (b) =
CD OC CD OD
(a) 6 2 cm (b) 6 cm (c) ∆AOB ~ ∆COD (d) All of these
(c) 5 2 cm (d) none of these
70. The bisector of the exterior ∠A of ∆ABC intersects the
65. In the adjoining figure (not drawn to scale) AB, EF side BC produced to D. Here CF is parallel to AD.
and CD are parallel lines. Given that EG = 5 cm, Which one of the following is correct?
GC = 10 cm and DC = 18 cm. Calculate AC, M
if AB = 15 cm. A
x
A
D x
D F
y
E

z
G
B C D E
B F C
AB BD AB CD
(a) = (b) =
(a) 21 cm (b) 25 cm AC CD AC BD
(c) 18 cm (d) 28 cm AB BC
(c) = (d) none of these
AC CD
568 QUANTUM CAT
71. The diagonal BD of a quadrilateral ABCD bisects ∠B 76. ABC is a triangle in which ∠A = 90 ° .
and ∠D, then : AN ⊥ BC , AC = 12 cm and AB = 5 cm. Find the ratio
C of the areas of ∆ANC and ∆ANB.
D (a) 125 : 44 (b) 25 : 144
x
x (c) 144 : 25 (d) 12 : 5
E 77. A vertical stick 15 cm long casts it shadow 10 cm
long on the ground. At the same time a flag pole
y
y casts a shadow 60 cm long. Find the height of the
A
B flag pole.
AB AD AB AD (a) 40 cm (b) 45 cm
(a) = (b) =
CD BC BC CD (c) 90 cm (d) none of these
(c) AB = AD × BC (d) none of these is true
78. Vertical angles of two isoceles triangles are equal.
72. Two right triangles ABC and DBC are drawn on the Then corresponding altitudes are in the ratio 4 : 9.
same hypotenuse BC on the same side of BC. If AC Find the ratio of their areas :
and DB intersects at P, then : (a) 16 : 49 (b) 16 : 81
D (c) 16 : 65 (d) none of these
79. In the figure ∆ACB ~ ∆APQ. If BC = 8 cm, PQ = 4 cm,
A
AP = 2.8 cm, find CA :
P
B

P
B C A
AP BP
(a) = (b) AP × DP = PC × BP
PC DP C Q
(c) AP × PC = BP × DP (d) AP × BP = PC × PD (a) 8 cm (b) 6.5 cm
73. A man goes 150 m due east and then 200 m due (c) 5.6 cm (d) none of these
north. How far is he from the starting point? 80. In the figure BC|| AD. Find the value of x.
(a) 200 m (b) 350 m
(c) 250 m (d) 175 m A D
3 5
74. From a point O in the interior of a ∆ABC x–
perpendiculars OD, OE and OF are drawn to the sides 19
O x–
BC , CA and AB respectively, then which one of the 3x – 3
following is true ?
B C
(a) AF 2 + BD2 + CE2 = AE2 + CD2 + BF 2 (a) 9, 10 (b) 7, 8 (c) 10, 12 (d) 8, 9
(b) AB2 + BC2 = AC2
81. In an equilateral triangle of side 2a, calculate the
(c) AF 2 + BD2 + CE2 = OA2 + OB2 + OC2
(d) AF 2 + BD2 + CE2 = OD2 + OE2 + OF 2 length of its altitude.
(a) 2 a 3 (b) a 3
75. In an equilateral triangle ABC, the side BC is
3
trisected at D. Find the value of AD2 : (c) a (d) none of these
2
A 82. In figure AD is the bisector of ∠BAC. If BD = 2 cm,
CD = 3 cm and AB = 5 cm. Find AC :
A

B D E C
9 7
(a) AB2 (b) AB2
7 9 B D C
3 4 (a) 6 cm (b) 7.5 cm
(c) AB2 (d) AB2
4 5 (c) 10 cm (d) 15 cm
Geometry 569

83. In the figure AB || QR. Find the length of PB. 88. In a ∆ABC, AB = 10 cm, BC = 12 cm and AC = 14 cm.
P Find the length of median AD. If G is the centroid,
find length of GA.
A B 5 5
3 cm 6 cm
(a) 7, 7 (b) 5 7 , 4 7
3 9
10 8 8
(c) , 7 (d) 4 7, 7
3 3 3
Q 9 cm R 89. ∆ ABC is a right angled at A and AD is the altitude to

(a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 2.5 cm (d) 4 cm BC. If AB = 7 cm and AC = 24 cm. Find the ratio of AD
is to AM if M is the mid–point of BC.
84. In the figure QA and PB are perpendicular to AB. If
(a) 25 : 41 (b) 32 : 41
AO = 10 cm, BO = 6 cm and PB = 9 cm. Find AQ. (c) 336/625 (d) 625/336
P
90. Area of ∆ABC = 30 cm2. D and E are the mid-points of
A O B BC and AB respectively. Find A (∆BDE ).
(a) 10 cm2 (b) 7.5 cm2
(c) 15 cm2 (d) none of these
91. The three sides of a triangle are given which one of
Q the following is not a right angle?
(a) 20, 21, 29 (b) 16, 63, 65
(a) 8 cm (b) 9 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 12 cm (c) 56, 90, 106 (d) 36, 35, 74
85. In the given figure AB = 12 cm, AC = 15 cm and 92. In the following figure, AD is the external bisector of
AD = 6 cm. BC || DE , find the length of AE. ∠EAC, and it intersects BC produced to D.
B If AB = 12 cm, AC = 8 cm and BC = 4 cm, find CD.
E E
A
A

(a) 6 cm (b) 7.5 cm (c) 9 cm (d) 10 cm

86. In the figure, ABC is a triangle in A B C D
which AB = AC. A circle through B
touches AC at D and intersects AB P (a) 10 cm (b) 6 cm
at P. If D is the mid-point of AC, D (c) 8 cm (d) 9 cm
Find the value of AB : 93. In ∆ABC, AB2 + AC2 = 2500 cm2 and median AD = 25
(a) 2AP cm, Find BC.
B C
(b) 3AP (a) 25 cm
(c) 4AP (b) 40 cm
(d) none of the above (c) 50 cm
87. In figure, ABC is a right angled triangle, right angled (d) 48 cm
at B. AD and CE are the two medians drawn from A 94. In the given figure, AB = BC and ∠BAC = 15 °, AB = 10
and C respectively. If AC = 5 cm and AD = 3 5 /2 cm, cm. Find the area of ∆ABC.
find the length of CE. A
A

D B C
B D C
(a) 50 cm2 (b) 40 cm2
(a) 2 5 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 4 2 cm (c) 25 cm2 (d) 32 cm2
570 QUANTUM CAT
95. In ABC,G is the centroid, AB = 15 cm, BC = 18 cm 100. What is the ratio of inradius to the circumradius of a
and AC = 25 cm. Find GD, where D is the mid–point of right angled triangle?
BC. (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 2
1 2 (c) 2 : 5 (d) can’t be determined
(a) 86 cm (b) 86 cm
3 3 101. In a ∆ABC, AC = BC. Point D lies on BC such that
(c)
8
15 cm (d) none of the above CD = AD = AB. Find ∠ACB.
3 (a) 18° (b) 30°
DE 2 (c) 36° (d) 48°
96. In the given figure , if = and if AE = 10 cm.
BC 3 102. In ∆ABC, AD is the angle bisector of AB and a median
Find AB. to BC. If AC = 15 cm, find AB.
A (a) 12 cm (b) 18 cm
(c) 15 cm (d) can’t be determined
(∠BAC ) 1
103. In a ∆ABC , = and AC = 4 cm, BC = 6 cm.
(∠ACB) 2
E Find AB.
D 105° (a) 6 (b) 10
(c) 9 (d) none of these
75° 65° 104. In a ∆ABC, BD is the angle bisector of ∠ABC and E is
B C a point on AB such that ED = AD and
(a) 16 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 18 cm (BD ) (BC ) (BE ) (AB)
= .
97. Find the maximum area that can be enclosed in a CD AE
triangle of perimeter 24 cm. If ∠A + ∠C = 66 ° , what is the value of ∠A − ∠C ?
(a) 32 cm2 (a) 10° (b) 22°
(b) 16 3 cm2 (c) 12° (d) 20°
(c) 16 2 cm2 105. Find the area of an isosceles triangle ABC in which
(d) 27 cm2 ∠ABC = 120 ° and each of the smaller side is 1 unit.
98. In the figure AD = 12 cm, AB = 20 cm and AE = 10 3 3 3 3
(a) (b) (c) 2 3 (d)
cm. Find EC. 4 2 10
A 106. If O is the incentre of a triangle ABC and
∠AOC = 124 °, find the ∠ABC.
(a) 56 (b) 112
E (c) 68 (d) can’t be determined
D
123° 107. The following diagram depicts the right angle
triangle ABC, where line segments AD and CE are the
57° medians intersecting at a point F. Find the ratio of
B C the area of ∆AEF to that of quadrilateral BEFD.
(a) 14 cm (b) 10 cm
(c) 8 cm (d) 15 cm A
99. In the given figure, BC = AC = AD, ∠EAD = 81°. Find
the value of x.
E
A E
81° F

B D C
x (a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 9
B C D (c) 1 : 2 (d) none of these
(a) 45° (b) 54° (c) 63° (d) 36°
Geometry 571

8. Each diagonal divides a parallelogram into two

12.4 Quadrilaterals congruent triangles.
A four sided closed figure is called a quadrilateral. It is 9. Lines joining the mid-points of the adjacent sides of a
denoted by symbol ‘ ’. quadrilateral form a parallelogram.
Properties 10. Lines joining the mid-points of of the adjacent sides of a
1. Sum of four interior angles is 360°. parallelogram is a parallelogram.
2. The figure formed by joining the mid-points of a 11. The parallelogram that is inscribed in a circle is a
quadrilateral is a parallelogram. rectangle.
A 12. The parallelogram that is circumscribed about a circle is
D a rhombus.
F
13. (a) Area of a parallelogram = base × height
E (b) Area of parallelogram
= product of any two adjacent sides
C B
× sine of the included angles.
3. The sum of opposite sides of a quadrilateral = AB × AD × sin θ
circumscribed about a circle, is always equal. 14. Perimeter of a parallelogram = 2 (sum of any two
1 adjacent sides)
4. Area of quadrilateral = × one of the diagonals × sum of
2 15. ( AC ) 2 + ( BD ) 2 = ( AB ) 2 + ( BC ) 2 + (CD ) 2 + ( AD ) 2
the perpendiculars drawn to the diagonals from the
1 = 2 ( AB 2 + BC 2 )
opposite vertices. i.e., A ( ABCD ) = × AC × ( DE + BF )
2 16. Parallelogram that lie on the same base and between the
same parallel lines are equal in area.
Types of Quadrilaterals 17. Area of a triangle is half of the area of a parallelogram
Parallelogram which lie on the same base and between the same
A quadrilateral whose opposite sides are parallel. parallel lines.
Properties 18. A parallelogram is a rectangle if its diagonals are equal.
1. The opposite sides are parallel and equal. Rectangle
D C A parallelogram in which all the four angles at vertices are
right (i.e., 90°), is called a rectangle.
Properties
1. Opposite sides are parallel and equal.
A B 2. Opposite angles are equal and of 90°.
2. Opposite angles are equal. D C

3. Sum of any two adjacent angles is 180°.

4. Diagonals bisect each other.
D C
A B
3. Diagonals are equal and bisect each other, but not
h
necessarily at right angles.
θ 4. When a rectangle is inscribed in a circle, the diameter of
A E B
the circle is equal to the diagonal of the rectangle.
5. Diagonals need not be equal in length. 5. For the given perimeter of rectangles, a square has
6. Diagonals need not bisect at right angle. maximum area.
7. Diagonals need not bisect angles at the vertices. 6. The figure formed by joining the mid-points of the
adjacent sides of a rectangle is a rhombus.
572 QUANTUM CAT
7. The quadrilateral formed by joining the mid-points of (b) Area of a rhombus = Product of adjacent sides
intersection of the angle bisectors of a parallelogram is a × sine of the included angle.
rectangle.
8. Every rectangle is a parallelogram. Square
9. Area of a rectangle = length × breadth ( = l × b) A rectangle whose all sides are equal or a rhombus whose
all angles are equal is called a square. Thus each square is a
D C
parallelogram, a rectangle and a rhombus.
Properties
b 1. All side are equal and parallel.
2. All angles are right angles.
A l B 3. Diagonals are equal and bisect each other at right angle.
10. Diagonals of a rectangle = l + b 2 2 D C

11. Perimeter of a rectangle = 2 ( l + b)

l → length and b → breadth
Rhombus
A parallelogram in which all sides are equal, is called a B
A
rhombus.
Properties 4. Diagonal of an inscribed square is equal to diameter of
1. Opposite sides are parallel and equal. the inscribing circle.
2. Opposite angles are equal. 5. Side of a circumscribed square is equal to the diameter
3. Diagonals bisect each other at right angle, but they are of the inscribed circle.
not necessarily equal. D C
D C
D C

O E F
90°

O A B
A B

A B
6. The figure formed by joining the mid-points of the
4. Diagonals bisect the vertex angles. adjacent sides of a square is a square.
5. Sum of any two adjacent angles is 180°. (diagonal) 2 d 2
D a C
7. Area = (side) 2 = a 2 = =
2 2

d1 D a C
a
a

d2
a d a
A a B

6. Figure formed by joining the mid-points of the adjacent

A a B
sides of a rhombus is a rectangle.
7. A parallelogram is a rhombus if its diagonals are
8. Diagonal = side 2 = a 2
perpendicular to each other.
1 9. Perimeter = 4 × side = 4a
8. (a) Area of a rhombus = × product of diagonals
2 Trapezium
1
= × d1 × d 2 A quadrilateral whose only one pair of sides is parallel and
2 other two sides are not parallel.
Geometry 573

Properties 9. In a trapezium ABCD, as shown in the diagram, where

1. The line joining the mid-points of the oblique AB is parallel to CD and the diagonals AC and BD
(non-parallel) sides is half the sum of the parallel sides intersect each other at O, and if the total area of the
and is called the median. trapezium is A, we have
D C (i) A = α + β
(ii) γ = δ = α ⋅ β
E F C
D
α

γ δ
A B

1 β
(i.e., Median = × sum of parallel sides
2
A B
1
= × ( AB + DC ) = EF )
2
Kite
2. If the non-parallel sides are equal then the diagonals will In a kite two pairs of adjacent sides are equal.
also be equal to each other.
B
3. Diagonals intersect each other proportionally in the
ratio of lengths of parallel sides.
4. By joining the mid-points of adjacent sides of a
trapezium four similar triangles are obtained. A C
O
5. If a trapezium is inscribed in a circle, then it is an
isosceles trapezium with equal oblique sides.
1
6. Area of trapezium = × (sum of parallel sides × height)
2
1
= × ( AB + CD ) × h
2 D
7. AC 2 + BD 2 = BC 2 + AD 2 + 2 AB ⋅ CD
Properties
D C
1. AB = BC and AD = CD
2. Diagonals, AC and BD, are the perpendicular bisectors.
h 3. Longer diagonal ( BD ) bisects the shorter diagonal
( AC ).
4. Longer diagonal ( BD ) is the angle bisector of the pair of
A M B
opposite angles.
8. If a line segment EF , which is parallel to the two parallel 1
sides of a trapezium ABCD, passes through a point O, 5. Area of kite = × product of diagonals
2
which is the point of intersection of the two diagonals
AC and BD, where point E lies on AD and point F lies = inradius × semi-perimeter
on BC, we have 6. A kite is symmetrical about the longer diagonal BD.
2( AB )(CD )
(i) Point O bisects the line EF . (ii) EF = 7. The longer diagonal (BD) divides the kite into two
AB + CD congruent triangles ABD and CBD.
D C 8. The shorter diagonal divides the kite into two isosceles
triangles ABC and ADC.
E F
O 9. The kites are exactly the quadrilaterals that are both
tangential and orthodiagonal.
10. A kite can always inscribe an incircle and the incentre is
A B the intersection of the angular bisectors of kite.
574 QUANTUM CAT
11. The inradius of the incircle Condition for a Tangential Quadrilateral to
Area of kite Become a Kite
r=
semiperimeter of kite A tangential quadrilateral is a kite if and only if any one of
12. If a kite is equilateral, it must be a rhombus. the following conditions is/are true :
13. If a kite is equiangular, it must be equilateral and thus it (i) The diagonals are perpendicular.
is a square. (ii) The area is one half the product of the diagonals.
14. The kites that are also cyclic quadrilaterals are exactly (iii) The two line segments connecting opposite points
the ones formed from two congruent right triangles. of tangency have equal length.
That is, for these kites the two equal angles on opposite (iv) One pair of opposite tangent lengths has equal
sides of the axis of symmetry are each 90 degrees. These length.
shapes are called right kites and they are in fact (v) The bi-medians have equal length.
bi-centric quadrilaterals. (vi) The products of opposite sides are equal.
B (vii) The center of the incircle lies on a line of symmetry
that is also a diagonal.
(viii) If the diagonals in a tangential quadrilateral ABCD
A C
intersect at P, and the incircles in triangles
O ABP , BCP , CDP , DAP have radii r1 , r2 , r3 and r4 ,
respectively, then the quadrilateral is a kite if and
P
only if r1 + r3 = r2 + r4 .
D

D r4

In the above diagram, points A, B , C , D are concyclic, r3

so the quadrilateral ABCD is a concyclic one and the A P C
r2
centre of the larger circle is P. And the two congruent
right triangles are ∆BAD and ∆BCD. The centre of r1
inscribed circle (smaller one) is O. Since the kite has two
centers – incentre and circumcentre, that’s why a right
B
kite is bi-centric kite.
15. There are only eight polygons that can tile the plane in (ix) If the excircles to the same four triangles opposite
such a way that reflecting any tile across any one of its the vertex P have radii R1 , R 2 , R 3 and R 4 ,
edges produces another tile; one of them is a right kite, respectively, the quadrilateral is a kite if and only if
with 60°, 90°, and 120° angles. R1 + R 3 = R 2 + R 4 .

Introductory Exercise 12.3

1. The measures of the angles of a quadrilateral taken 3. ABCD is a parallelogram, P and Q are the points on
in order are proportional to 1 : 2 : 3 : 4, then the the diagonal AC such that AP = QC , then
quadrilateral is : quadrilateral BPDQ is a :
(a) parallelogram (b) trapezium (a) trapezium (b) parallelogram
(c) rectangle (d) rhombus (c) square (d) none of these
2. Find the measure of largest angle of a quadrilateral if 4. In a parallelogram ABCD, bisectors of consecutive
the measures of its interior angles are in the ratio of angles A and B intersect at P. Find the measure of
3 : 4 : 5 : 6. ∠APB :
(a) 60° (b) 120° (a) 90° (b) 60°
(c) 90° (d) can’t be determined (c) 120° (d) data insufficient
Geometry 575

5. AB and CD are two parallel lines and a transversal PQ 12. If ABCD is a parallelogram in which P and Q are the
intersects AB and CD at M and N respectively. The centroids of ∆ABD and ∆BCD, then PQ equals :
bisector of the interior angles form a quadrilateral : (a) AQ (b) AP (c) BP (d) DQ
P 13. Two parallelograms stand on equal bases and
between the same parallels. The ratio of their areas
A B
M is :
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 2

N
14. If a rectangle and a parallelogram are equal in area
C D and have the same base and are situated on the
same side, then the ratio of perimeter of rectangle
Q
and that of parallelogram is k, then k is :
(a) rectangle (b) square (a) k > 1 (b) k < 1
(c) parallelogram (d) none of these (c) k = 1 (d) can’t be determined
6. In the given figure AE = BC and AE || BC and the 15. If area of a parallelogram with sides l and b is A and
three sides AB, CD and ED are equal in length. If that of a rectangle with sides l and b is B, then :
m ∠A = 102 °, find measures of ∠BCD. (a) A < B (b) A = B
(c) A > B (d) none of these
A
E 16. ABCD is a parallelogram and M is the mid-point of
102°
BC. AB and DM are produced to meet at N, then :
(a) AN = 3 AB (b) AN = 2 AB
3
(c) AN = AB
2 2
(d) AN2 = 2 AB 2
2
D
B C 17. In a rectangle ABCD, P ,Q are the mid-points of BC
(a) 138° (b) 162° and AD respectively and R is any point on PQ, then
(c) 88° (d) none of these ∆ARB equals :
1 1
7. ABCD is a square, A is joined to a point P on BC and (a) ( ABCD) (b) ( ABCD)
2 3
D is joined to a point Q on AB. If AP = DQ and AP
1
intersects DQ at R then, ∠DRP is : (c) ( ABCD) (d) none of these
4
(a) 60° (b) 120°
(c) 90° (d) can’t be determined 18. Diagonals of a parallelogram are 8 m and 6 m
respectively. If one of side is 5m, then the area of
8. A point X inside a rectangle PQRS is joined to the
parallelogram is :
vertices then, which of the following is true : (a) 18 m2 (b) 30 m2
(a) A (∆PSX ) = A (∆RXQ) (c) 24 m2 (d) 48 m2
(b) A (∆PSX ) + A (∆PXQ) = A (∆RSX ) + A (∆RQX )
19. In the given figure AD = 15 cm, AB = 20 cm and
(c) A (∆PXS ) + A (∆RXQ) = A (∆SRX ) + A (∆PXQ)
(d) None of the above BC = CD = 25 cm. Find the area of ABCD.

9. ABCD is a parallelogram and m ∠DAB = 30 °, D

25 cm
C
BC = 20 cm and AB = 20 cm. Find the area of
parallelogram :
(a) 150 cm2 (b) 200 cm2 15 cm
2 25 cm
(c) 400 cm (d) 260 cm2
10. The length of a side of a rhombus is 10 m and one of
its diagonal is 12 m. The length of the other diagonal
is : A B
20 cm
(a) 15 m (b) 18 m 25
(c) 16 m (d) can’t be determined (a) (24 + 25 3 ) cm2
4
11. ABCD is a parallelogram and BD is a diagonal. (b) 24 (25 + 24 3 ) cm2
∠BAD = 65 ° and ∠DBC = 45 °,then m ∠BDC is : 25
(c) (24 + 25 3 ) cm2
(a) 65° (b) 70° 2
(c) 20° (d) none of these (d) none of the above
576 QUANTUM CAT
20. In the trapezium ABCD, ∠BAE = 30 ° , ∠CDF = 45 °. 25. ABCD is a parallelogram. The diagonals AC and BD
BC = 6 cm and AB = 12 cm. Find the area of intersect at a point O. If E , F , G and H are the
trapezium. mid-points of AO, DO, CO and BO respectively, then
6 the ratio of (EF + FG + GH + HE ) to
B C
(AD + DC + CB + BA) is :
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
12
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4
26. If ABCD is a rhombus, then :
30° 45° (a) AC2 + BD2 = 4 AB2
A D
E F (b) AC2 + BD2 = AB2
(a) 18 (3 + 3 ) cm2 (c) AC2 + BD2 = 2 AB2
(b) 36 3 cm2 (d) 2 (AC2 + BD2 ) = 3 AB2
(c) 12 (3 + 2 3 ) cm2 27. If P is a point within a rectangle ABCD, then :
(d) none of the above (a) AP2 + PC2 = BP2 + PD2
21. Area of quadrilateral ACDE is 36 cm2, B is the (b) AP2 + BP2 = PC2 + PD2
mid–point of AC. Find the area of ∆ABE if AC || DE (c) AP + PC = BP + PD
and BE ||DC. (d) AP × PC = BP × PD
E D 28. ABCD is a parallelogram, AB = 14 cm,
BC = 18 cm and AC = 16 cm. Find the length of the
other diagonal.
(a) 24 cm (b) 28 cm
(c) 36 cm (d) 32 cm
29. In a trapezium ABCD, where AB || CD and diagonal
A B C
AC intersects the other diagonal BC at O. Which of
(a) 10 cm2 (b) 9 cm2 the followings are always correct?
(c) 12 cm2 (d) can’t be determined DO CO DO AO
(i) = (ii) =
22. A square and a rhombus have the same base and the AO BO OC OB
rhombus is inclined at 30°. What is the ratio of area DO CO
of the square to the area of the rhombus? (iii) =
OB OA
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
(a) only (i) and (ii)
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 3
(b) only (ii) and (iii)
23. Find the area of a quadrilateral with sides 17, 25, 30 (c) only (i) and (iii)
and 28 cm and one of its diagonal is 26 cm. (d) only (iii)
(a) 450 cm2 (b) 360 cm2
2 30. In a trapezium ABCD, where AB || CD and diagonals
(c) 540 cm (d) 720 cm2
AC intersects the other diagonal BC at O. If a line
24. PQRS is a parallelogram in which segment EF parallel to AB and CD passes through the
∠P = 70 ° , ∠Q = 90 ° and ∠R = 100 °. How many point O, where E lies on AD and F lies on BC, find the
points in the plane of the quadrilateral are there length of EF, provided AB = 6 cm and CD = 2 cm.
such that a point is equidistant from its vertices ? (a) 3 cm (b) 4 cm
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 4.5 cm (d) none of these
(c) 2 (d) 3
Geometry 577

12.5 Polygons
When three or more than three line segments are joined end
to end on the same plane they form the closed area in
various shapes. These shapes are called the polygons. Rectilinear Polygon
Essentially, polygons are 2-dimensional plane figures. A polygon whose sides meet at right angles, i.e., all its
Look at the following figures to get the better picture of the interior angles are 90° or 270°.
shapes of polygons.

Equiangular Polygon
A polygon in which all its interior angles are equal is known
as equiangular polygon.

A polygon gets its name on the basis of the number of sides

that it has. For example, a triangle has three sides, a
quadrilateral has 4 sides, a pentagon has 5 sides, and so on.
Types of Polygon Equilateral Polygon
Simple Polygon A polygon in which all sides
(or edges) are of the same length.
A polygon in which no more than two line segments meet at
any vertex. In other words, the sides of the polygon do not
self-intersect each other.

Complex Polygon
A polygon in which more than two line segments meet at
any vertex. In other words the sides of the polygon Tangential Polygon
self-intersect each other. A complex polygon is neither A polygon whose all sides are tangent to an inscribed circle.
convex nor concave.

Convex Polygon
Cyclic Polygon
A polygon in which each of its interior angle is less than
A polygon whose all the vertices lie on the circle.
180° is known as a convex polygon. A polygon is convex if
and only if any line containing a side of the polygon doesn’t
contain a point in the interior of the polygon.

Regular Polygon
A polygon is regular if it is both cyclic and equilateral.
Concave Polygon
l
A regular polygon has all its sides equal and all its
A polygon in which even if one interior angle is greater than
interior angles equal.
180° is known as a concave polygon.
578 QUANTUM CAT
l
A regular polygon has an incircle and a circumcircle. Exterior Angle
That is every regular polygon is tangential and cyclic Angle formed by two adjacent sides outside the polygon.
polygon.
3 4 5 6 7

8 9 10 11 12

Sum of all exterior angles of a regular polygon = 360°

(always constant)
360°
Each exterior angle of a regular polygon =
n
Irregular Polygon Each exterior angle of a regular polygon
A polygon which is not a regular one is known as an = (180° − interior angle)
irregular polygon.
Central Angle
l
If all the sides of a polygon are not equal, it’s an
irregular polygon. The angle at the center of the polygon formed by two radii,
connected independently to the two adjacent vertices, is
l
If all the interior angles of a polygon are not equal, it’s
known as the central angle.
an irregular polygon.

72°

2π 360°
Each Central Angle = =
n n
The following table shows some angles of the various
Basics of a Polygon regular polygons.
Interior Angle Sum of Each Each
Number Each Interior
Angle formed by two adjacent sides inside the polygon is of Sides
Polygon all the
Angle
Exterior Central
known as interior angle. Angles Angle Angle
3 Triangle 180° 60° 120° 120°
4 Quadrilateral 360° 90° 90° 90°
5 Pentagon 540° 108° 72° 72°
6 Hexagon 720° 120° 60° 60°
° ° °
7 Heptagon 900° 128 4   51 3   51 3 
     
 7  7  7
Sum of all the interior angles of a regular polygon
= ( n − 2) × 180° 8 Octagon 1080° 135° 45° 45°
9 Nonagon 1260° 140° 40° 40°
Each interior angle of a regular polygon
10 Decagon 1440° 144° 36° 36°
( n − 2) × 180°
= … … … … … …
n
… … … … … …
Each interior angle of a regular polygon
n n-gon (n − 2)180° (n − 2) × 180° 360° 360°
= (180° − exterior angle) n n n
Geometry 579

In a polygon, Interior angle + Exterior angle = 180° When n is even : The longest diagonal
= 2 × radius of the polygon
s
When n is odd : The longest diagonal =
 90  °
2 sin  
108° 72°  n
Where s denotes the length of each side and n denotes the
Diagonal number of sides in the regular polygon. And radius means
The line segments joining any two non-adjacent vertices are circumradius.
known as diagonals.

n=6 n=7

The number of diagonals in a polygon Apothem (or Inradius)

n( n − 3) It is the radius of the incircle of the regular polygon.
= nC2 − n = ; for n ≥ 3
2 Apothem is perpendicular bisector of the side of the
polygon.
Number of Sides Polygon Number of diagonals
3 Triangle 0
4 Quadrilateral 2
5 Pentagon 5
6 Hexagon 9 a

7 Heptagon 14
8 Octagon 20 1 π
Apothem of a regular polygon = × s × cot  
9 Nonagon 27 2  n
10 Decagon 35 π
= r cos  
… … …  n
… … …
(Where, s and r are the side and radius of the regular
n n-gon n(n − 3)
polygon.)
2
Radius (or Circumradius)
3 4 5 6 7
It is the radius of the circumcircle of the regular polygon.

8 9 10 11 12 r a

1 π π
Radius of a polygon = × s × cosec   = a sec  
2  n  n
Longest Diagonal of a Regular Polygon Where, s and a are the side and apothem of a regular
There are two different cases. polygon.
One when there is even number of sides in a polygon and Sagitta
the other one when there is odd number of sides in a The perpendicular distance h from an arc’s midpoint to the
polygon. chord across it, equal to the radius r minus the apothem a.
580 QUANTUM CAT
That is h = r − a 1 π
l
Area of a regular polygon = × n × s 2 cot  
4  n
π
l
Area of a regular polygon = n × a 2 × tan  
r a  n
1  2π 
h l
Area of a regular polygon = × n × r 2 × sin  
2  n
Interior Point
For a regular n-gon (polygon of n-sides), the sum of the Regular Polygram (or Star Polygon)
perpendicular distances from any interior point to the n A regular star polygon is a self-intersecting, equilateral
sides is n times the apothem. Here, the apothem being the equiangular polygon, created by connecting one vertex of a
distance from the center to any side. simple, regular, n-sided polygon to another, non-adjacent
C vertex and continuing the process until the original vertex is
reached again. Thus, if out of total n vertices of an n-gon
B (i.e., an n-sided polygon) every k-th vertex is connected
n
A O with each other, it is denoted by {n, k }, where k < .
D 2
k=1 k=2 k=3 k=4 k=5
E
n=3
In the above diagram, if the apothem of the pentagon is a
and since there are 5 sides in pentagon, so we have
AO + BO + CO + DO + EO = 5a
n=4
Perimeter
It is the total sum of the measurements of all the sides of a
polygon. n=5
The perimeter of a regular polygon
= number of sides × length of each side
n=6
Area
Area of a polygon is the region enclosed by all the n sides of
the polygon. n=7
An n-sided polygon can be divided into n congruent
triangles having a common vertex at the centre.
n=8

n=9
r a r

s
n = 10
Let s, a, p and r be the side, apothem, perimeter and radius,
respectively, then
1  1
Area of a regular polygon = n ×  × s × a  = × n × s × a n = 11
2  2
1
Area of a regular polygon = ×a× p n = 12
2
NOTE The other formulae for the area of polygon can be
derived by using the trigonometric ratios, as following.
Geometry 581

Number of sides n Symbol Polygram

5 {5/2} Pentagram
6 {6/2} Hexagram
7 {7/2} Heptagram
8 {8/2} Star of Laxmi
In the above figure out of 5 vertices of pentagon every 2nd
8 {8/3} Octagon
 5
vertex is connected with each other. It is denoted by  . 9 {9/3} Nonagram
 2
10 {10/3} Decagram

Circumradius of a Polygram : If a star polygon {n, k }, with

n, k positive integers such that HCF ( n, k ) =1 and the edge
length of the polygon is 1 unit, the circumradius of the star
polygon is
In the above figure out of 6 vertices of hexagon every 2nd   n − 2k  
 6 sin   π
vertex is connected with each other. It is denoted by  .   2n  
 2 R=
  2k  
sin    π 
 n  
Sum of the Interior Angles of a Polygram : For any value
of n, if k = 2, the sum of all the internal angles of such a
polygram = ( n − 4) π.
Edge of a Polygon (or Star Polygon) : The edge of a star
In the above figure out of 8 vertices of octagon every 2nd polygon is equal to the length of the diagonal of a
 8 corresponding regular polygon depending upon the value of
vertex is connected with each other. It is denoted by  .
 2 k. However, in case of even number of sides ( n = 4, 6, 8, … )
the longest possible diagonal of the regular polygon does
not act in a manner to form a polygram so I have not
mentioned this value in the following table.
Let us consider the edge of the regular polygon be 1 unit
and d1 , d 2 , d 3 , … , d n denote the lengths of the diagonals of
the regular polygon, such that d1 < d 2 < d 3 <… < d n , then
In the above figure out of 8 vertices of octagon every 3rd we have the following values of various possible diagonals
 8 for the selected regular polygons.
vertex is connected with each other. It is denoted by  .
 3 n k =1 k=2 k=3 k=4

Under certain conditions a regular star polygon can be d1 d2 d3 d4

drawn in a single stroke such as polygon {5/2}, {8/3} and it 5 ϕ
has to be drawn in more than one stroke as polygon {6/2}, 6 3
{8/2}, shown above. A star polygon {n/ k } can be drawn in a
single stroke (or it is connected or irreducible) if and only if 7 ρ σ
n and k are relatively prime. 8 θ 2 θ
The following table depicts the various polygons and their 10 51/ 2
×τ 1/ 2
τ2 51 / 4 × τ 3 / 2
respective polygrams {n/ k }. Following is the list of some
12 2+ 3 2( 2 + 3) 3( 2 + 3) 2+ 3
best-known polygrams (or star polygons).
582 QUANTUM CAT
1 + 5  1
ϕ=  , θ = (1 + 2 ) = 2.414213, ρ =18019377
. , A= ( 25 + 10 5 ) s 2
 2  4
σ = 22469796 1
. a = (1 + 5 ) r
4
s = 2 r2 − a2
2a σ
Pentaflake
ϕ √3a p
When five pentagons can be arranged around an identical
pentagon, then it forms the first iteration of the pentaflake.
1 1 1 This cluster of six pentagons has the shape of a pentagon
with five triangular wedges removed, as you can see in the
following figure.
2+√3
1 3

θ 54 τ2 √3 2+ 3
θ 2 τ2 √2 2+ 3

1 1 1 1 2+3 1
54 τ2
Fig. (i)

Pentagon For a pentagon of side length 1, the first ring of pentagons

A has centers at radius
1
36° 36° d1 = 2a = (1 + 5 )( r )
36° 2
(Where a is the apothem and r is the radius of each of the six
36° 108° 72° 72° 108° 36°
pentagons)
B E
36° 72° 108° 108° 72° 36°
36° 36°
72° 72°
108° 108°
108° 108°
72° 72°
108°
72° 72°
108°
36°
36° 36° 36° Fig. (ii)
36° 36°
C D For a pentagon of side length 1, the second ring of
pentagons has centers at radius
3
1 
d 2 = 2( r + h) = (2 + 5 ) r =  (1 + 5 )  ( r )
 2 
(Where a is the apothem and r is the radius of each of the six
pentagons)

Let s, d, a, r, A denote side, diagonal, apothem, radius, area

of a pentagon, then we have
1
d = (1 + 5 ) s = ϕ s
2
1
a = ( 25 + 10 5 ) s
10
1
r = ( 50 + 10 5 ) s
10 Fig. (iii) Fig. (iv)
Geometry 583

For a pentagon of side length 1, the n-th ring of pentagons

has centers at radius
2n − 1
1 
d n = ( r )  (1 + 5 ) 
2 
(Where a is the apothem and r is the radius of each of the six
pentagons)
Hexagon
30
120° 120°
60° ° 120° 60° 60° Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)
30° 30 120°
° 120° 120°
120° 120° 120° 60° 60° 60°
° 120° 120°
30° 30 120°
60° 60° 60°
120° 120° 30° 120°

60° 60° 120°

60° 60°
60°
60° 60° 120°
120° 120°
60° 60° 60° 60° 120°
60°
60° 60°
60° 60° 120°

2a
3a

Fig. (iii)
Let a, d, r, R , A denote side, diagonal, apothem
Heptagon
(or inradius), radius (or Circumradius), area of a pentagon,
then we have 128.57°
128.57° 128.57°
d1 = 3a; d 2 = 2a
d2
3 128.57° 128.57°
r= a; R =a 128.57°
d1
2 128.57°

3 3 2 r 3
A= a ; =
2 R 2
Ar 3
=
AR 4

Hexaflakes
When six hexagons can be arranged around an identical
hexagon, then it forms the first iteration of the hexaflake. Area of a heptagon = 3633. s2
This cluster of seven hexagons has the shape of a hexagon
(s is the side of the regular heptagon)
with six triangular wedges removed from the sides and six
Area of a heptagon = 3371. a2
from the canters, as you can see in the first figure. Fig. (ii)
shows the hexaflake of double iteration and Fig. (iii) shows (a is the apothem of the regular heptagon)
the triple iteration. Area of a heptagon = 2.7364 r 2
(r is the circumradius of the regular heptagon)
584 QUANTUM CAT
Octagon
135° 135°

135° 135°

135° 135°

135° 135°

d3

d2

d1 10/2 10/3

10/4 10/3a

Here s, d, a, r, A denote side, diagonal apothem (inradius),

Let s, d, a, r, A denote side, diagonal, apothem (inradius), radius (or circumradius), area of a decagon, then we have
radius (or circumradius), area of an octagon, then we have
2as 2 ( 5 + 2 5 ) s (3 + 5 ) s
d1 = = d2 = = ϕ 2 s = ϕr
d1 = ( 2 + 2 ) s d 2 = (1 + 2 ) s r (1 + 5 ) 2
d3 = ( 4 + 2 2 ) s d 3 = 2 ( d1 ) d 3 = ( 5 + 2 5 ) s = 2a d 4 = (1 + 5 ) s = 2ϕs = 2r
(1 + 2 ) s ( 4 +2 2)s ( 5 + 2 5 )s (1 + 5 ) s
a= r= a= r= =ϕ⋅s
2 2 2 2
A = 2(1 + 2 ) s 2 = d 22 − s 2
5 ( 5 + 2 5 )s 2
A = 2( d 2 s) = 4as A= = 5as
2
Decagon
Dodecagon
144° 144° 108°
150° 150° 120°
144° 144° 108° 150° 150° 120° 90° 90°
150° 150° 120°
144° 144° 108°
150° 150° 120°

150° 150° 120° 90° 90°

144° 144° 108° 120°
150° 150°
144° 144° 108°

60°
d5
d4
d4 d3
d3
60° 60° d2
d2
d1
d1
Geometry 585

d 3 = ( 2 + 3 + 2 ) s = d1 + 2 = 3( d1 )
d 4 = ( 3 + 2) s
d 5 = 2( 2 + 3 ) s = 2( d1 ) = 2 ( d 2 )
d5 = ( 2 + 6 ) s
( 3 + 2) s d 4
Let s, d, a, r, A denote side, diagonal, apothem (inradius), a= =
radius (or circumradius), area of a decagon, then we have 2 2
d5
d1 = ( 2 + 3 ) s r = ( 2 + 3 ) s = d1 =
2
d 2 = ( 3 + 1) s A = 3( 3 + 2) s = 6as = 3r 2
2

Introductory Exercise 12.4

1. Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 140°. The 11. In a regular polygon, if the number of diagonals is k
number of sides is : times the number of diagonals is k times the number
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 9 of sides and each interior angle is θ, then k is
2. Each angle of a regular hexagon is : 3θ − 2 π 4θ − π 3θ − π 3 (θ − π )
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 60° (b) 120° 2 π − 2θ 2 π − 2θ 2 π − 2θ 2 (π − θ )
(c) 90° (d) none of these
12. In the following figure, ABCDE is a regular pentagon.
3. If one of the interior angles of a regular polygon is Find ∠ADB, D
equal to 5/6 times of one of the interior angles of a
regular pentagon, then the number of sides of the
polygon is : E C
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
4. The sum of the interior angles of a polygon is 1260°.
The number of sides of the polygon is :
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 A B

5. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is 3 times its (a) 36° (b) 30°
exterior angle, the number of sides of the polygon is : (c) 24° (d) cannot be determined
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8 13. In the following figure, ABCDE is a regular pentagon.
6. Difference between the interior and exterior angles of Find ∠DPC. D
regular polygon is 60°. The number of sides in the
polygon is :
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 9 E C

7. A polygon has 54 diagonals. The number of sides in P

the polygon is :
(a) 7 (b) 9 A B
(c) 12 (d) none of these
(a) 54° (b) 72° (c) 24° (d) 60°
8. The ratio between the number of sides of two regular
polygons is 1 : 2 and the ratio between their interior 14. In the following figure find the ratio of the area of the
angle is 3 : 4. The number of sides of these polygons are triangle to that of the regular hexagon.
respectively :
(a) 3, 6 (b) 4, 8 (c) 6, 9 (d) 5, 10
9. The sum of all the interior angles of a regular
polygon is four times the sum of its exterior angles.
The polygon is :
(a) hexagon (b) triangle (c) decagon (d) nonagon
10. The ratio of the measure of an angle of a regular
nonagon to the measure of its exterior angle is : (a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 6
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 2 (c) 7 : 2 (d) 4 : 5 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 2
586 QUANTUM CAT
12.6 Circles
Definition : A circle is a set of points on a plane which lie at a fixed distance from a fixed point.

Nomenclature Definition Diagram

Centre The fixed point is called the centre. In the given diagram ‘O’ is the
centre of the circle.
O

Radius The fixed distance is called a radius. In the given diagram OP is the
radius of the circle. (Point P lies on the circumference)
O

Circumference The circumference of a circle is the distance around a circle, which is

equal to 2πr.
(r → radius of the circle)
O

Secant A line segment which intersects the circle at two distinct points, is
called as secant.
In the given diagram secant PQ intersects circle at two points A and B. P
A

B
Q

Tangent A line segment which has one common point with the circumference
of a circle i.e., it touches only at one point is called as tangent of
circle. The common point is called as point of contact. In the given O
diagram PQ is a tangent which touches the circle at a point R.

R Q
P
(R is the point of contact )
NOTE Radius is always perpendicular to
tangent.
Chord A line segment whose end points lie on the circle. In the given
diagram AB is a chord.

A
B

Diameter A chord which passes through the centre of the circle is called the
diameter of the circle. P
The length of the diameter is twice the length of the radius.
O
Q
In the given diagram PQ is the diameter of the circle. (O → is the
centre of the circle)

Arc Any two points on the circle divides the circle into two parts the
Q Q
smaller part is called as minor arc and the larger part is called as
major arc. P P
It is denoted as ‘ ’. In the given diagram PQ is arc. O O

PQ → minor arc PQ → major arc

Geometry 587

Nomenclature Definition Diagram

Semicircle A diameter of the circle divides the circle into two equal parts.
Each part is called as semicircle.
O
A B A B
O

Central angle An angle formed at the centre of the circle, is called the central angle.
In the given diagram ∠AOB is the central angle.
O

A B

Inscribed angle When two chords have one common end point, then the angle B
included between these two chords at the common point is called the
inscribed angle. ∠ABC is the inscribed angle by the arc ADC.

A O

D
C

Measure of an Basically it is the central angle formed by an arc. e.g., S

arc (a) measure of a circle = 360°
(b) measure of a semicircle = 180°
O
(c) measure of a minor arc = ∠POQ
(d) measure of a major arc = 360 − ∠POQ

P Q
R
m (arc PRQ) = m ∠POQ
m (arc PSQ) = 360° − m (arc PRQ)
Intercepted arc In the given diagram AB and CD are the two intercepted arcs, P
intercepted by ∠CPD. The end points of the arc must touch the arms
of ∠CPD i.e., CP and DP. A B

C D

Concentric circles Circles having the same centre at a plane are called the concentric
circles.
P
In the given diagram there are two circles with radii r1 and r2 having r1
the common (or same) centre. These are called as concentric circles. O
r2

Congruent circles Circles with equal radii are called as congruent circles.

r r
O O
588 QUANTUM CAT
Nomenclature Definition Diagram
Segment of a A chord divides a circle into two regions. These two regions are
circle called the segments of a circle.
(a) major segment (b) minor segment O

P Q

P Q

P Q
(a) (b)

Cyclic A quadrilateral whose all the four vertices ( A, B, C, D) lie on the circle. D
Quadrilateral For a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, we must have
C
( AB × CD) + (BC × AD) = ( AC × BD)
A B

Tangential A tangential quadrilateral or circumscribed quadrilateral is a convex D

Quadrilateral quadrilateral whose sides are all tangent to a single circle within the
quadrilateral .
A
For a tangential quadrilateral, we must have C
AB + CD = BC + AD

Bicentric A quadrilateral is said to be bicentric if it is cyclic and tangential. c

Quadrilateral
d

b
a

Circumcircle A circle which passes through all the three vertices of a triangle. Thus C
the circumcentre is always equidistant from the vertices of the
triangle.
OA = OB = OC (circumradius)
O
A B

Incircle A circle which touches all the three sides of a triangle i.e., all the C
three sides of a triangle are tangents to the circle is called an incircle.
Incircle is always equidistant from the sides of a triangle.
OP = OQ = OR (inradius of the circle) R Q
O

A P B

Curvature Curvatures is a measure of how quickly a tangent line turns on a

curve. We would expect the curvature to be 0 for a straight line, to be
very small for curves which bend very little and to be large for curves r
which bend sharply. Larger the circle, smaller the curvature.
1
Curvature of a circle =
radius
Curvature = 1/r
Geometry 589

Theorems
NOTE
l
Two arcs of a circle (or of congruent circles) are congruent if their degree measures are equal.
l
There is one and only one circle passes through three non-collinear points.

S. No. Theorem Diagram

1. In a circle (or in congruent circles) equal chords are made by equal arcs.
{ OP = OQ} = { O′ R = O′ S} and PQ = RS O O'
∴ PQ = RS

P Q R S

2. Equal arcs (or chords) subtend equal angles at the centre B

A
Q PQ = AB
∴ ∠POQ = ∠AOB O

P
Q

3. The perpendicular from the centre of a circle to a chord bisects the chord
i.e., if OD ⊥ AB O
∴ AB = 2 AD = 2BD

A D B

4. The line joining the centre of a circle to the mid-point of a chord is perpendicular to
the chord.
Q AD = DB
O
∴ OD ⊥ AB

A D B

5. Perpendicular bisector of a chord passes through the centre.

i.e., if OD ⊥ AB and AD = DB
∴ O is the centre of the circle. O

A D B

6. Equal chords of a circle (or of congruent circles) are equidistant from the centre. P

Q AB = PQ R

∴ OD = OR O
Q

A D B

7. Chords which are equidistant from the centre in a circle (or in congruent, circles) are Q
equal. R
Q OD = OR
∴ AB = PQ O
P
A
D B
590 QUANTUM CAT
S. No. Theorem Diagram
8. The angle subtended by an arc (the degree measure of the arc) at the centre of a C
circle is twice the angle subtended by the arc at any point on the remaining part of
the circle. θ
m ∠AOB = 2m ∠ACB.
O

2θ

A B

9. Angle in a semicircle is a right angle. C

90°

A O B

10. Angles in the same segment of a circle are equal. D

C
i.e., ∠ACB = ∠ADB

A B
O

11. If a line segment joining two points subtends equal angle at two other points lying on D
C
the same side of the line containing the segment, then the four points lie on the same
circle.
∠ACB = ∠ADB
∴ Points A, C, D, B are concyclic i.e., lie on the circle.
A B

12. The sum of pair of opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral is 180°. D C

∠DAB + ∠BCD = 180°

and ∠ABC + ∠CDA = 180°
(Inverse of this theorem is also true)
A B

13. Equal chords (or equal arcs) of a circle (or congruent circles) subtended equal angles D
at the centre.
AB = CD (or AB = CD )
C
∴ ∠AOB = ∠COD O
(Inverse of this theorem is also true)
A

14. If a side of a cyclic quadrilateral is produced, then the exterior angle is equal to the B C
interior opposite angle.
m ∠CDE = m ∠ABC

A
D E
Geometry 591

S. No. Theorem Diagram

15. A tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of
contact.
(Inverse of this theorem is also true)
O

90°
A P B

16. The lengths of two tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal. i.e., A
AP = BP

O P

17. If two chords AB and CD of a circle, intersect inside A

a circle (outside the circle when produced at a point E),
B
then AE × BE = CE × DE
O O
A D E

D
E
C B C

18. If PB be a secant which intersects the circle at A and B and PT be a tangent at T, then
PA⋅ PB = (PT )2 B

P
T

19. From an external point from which the tangents are drawn to the circle with centre A
O, then
(a) they subtend equal angles at the centre.
(b) they are equally inclined to the line segment joining the centre of that point. O P

∠AOP = ∠BOP and ∠APO = ∠BPO

20. If P is an external point from which the tangents to the circle with centre O touch it at A
A and B, then OP is the perpendicular bisector of AB.
OP ⊥ AB and AC = BC
O P
C

21. Alternate segment theorem : If from the point of contact of a tangent, a chord B
is drawn, then the angles which the chord makes with the tangent line are equal
respectively to the angles formed in the corresponding alternate segments. In the C
adjoining diagram. D
O
∠BAT = ∠BCA and ∠BAP = ∠BDA

P A T
592 QUANTUM CAT
S. No. Theorem Diagram
22. The point of contact of two tangents lies on the straight line joining the two centres. P
(a) When two circles touch externally, then the distance between their centres is
equal to sum of their radii. C
i.e., AB = AC + BC A B

(b) When two circles touch internally, the distance between their centres is equal to
Q
the difference between their radii.
i.e., AB = AC− BC P

C
A B

23. For the two circles with centre X and Y and radii r1 and r2 . AB and CD are two Direct B
Common Tangents (DCT), then the length of DCT A

= (distance between centres)2 − (r1 − r2 )2

X Y

C
D

24. For the two circles with centre X and Y and radii r1 and r2 . PQ and RS are two
S
transverse common tangent, then length of TCT P
= (distance between centres)2 − (r1 + r2 )2
X Y

R
Q

25. Descartes’ circle equation theorem : Given four mutually tangent circles with d
curvatures a, b, c and d, then (a + b + c + d)2 = 2(a2 + b2 + c 2 + d2 )
a

c
b

If any one of the circles is circumscribing, say a circle of curvature d is circumscribing

the circles of curvatures a, b and c, then (a + b + c − d)2 = 2(a2 + b2 + c 2 + (− d2 )) d
a

c
b

In lay terms, if all the points of tangency are external, the curvatures are considered
positive, but if one circle encompasses the others, that circle has negative curvature.
Here, as all three circles are tangent to each other at the same point, Descartes’
theorem does not apply.
Geometry 593

12.7 Tangential Quadrilateral

A tangential quadrilateral or circumscribed quadrilateral is
a convex quadrilateral whose sides are all tangent to a 6. Area of the tangential quadrilateral —
single circle within the quadrilateral. This circle is called D
the incircle of the quadrilateral; its center is the incenter and h
its radius is called the inradius. N

All triangles have an D r

d
incircle, but not all c r M
A
quadrilaterals do. An g
r
A C e r C
example of a quadrilateral
that cannot be tangential is L
K f
B
a non-square rectangle. a
b
B (i) A = r × s; where r is the inradius and s is the
If a quadrilateral is both
semi-perimeter
tangential and cyclic, it is
called a bicentric quadrilateral. Examples of tangential (ii) A = ( e + f + g + h) ( efg + fgh + ghe + hef );
quadrilaterals are squares, rhombi, and kites. where, e, f, g, h are the lengths of the tangents.
Properties (iii) A =
1
p 2 q 2 − ( ac − bd ) 2 ; where p, q are the
1. In a tangential quadrilateral, the four angle bisectors 2
meet at the center of the incircle. diagonals and a, b, c, d are the sides of tangential
2. Conversely, a convex quadrilateral in which the four quadrilateral.
angle bisectors meet at a point must be tangential and (iv) A = abcd − ( eg − fh) 2 ; where a, b, c, d are the
the common point is the incenter.
sides and e, f, g, h are the successive tangent
D lengths.
(v) When the tangential quadrilateral is cyclic, that is
d
bi-centric, then eg = fh and so the tangential
c
O quadrilateral will have the maximum area abcd.
A
NOTE In the above diagram, it is considered as AB = a , BC = b,
C
a CD = c , DA = d and AK = e, BL = f , CM = g, DN = h.
b
B 7. The maximum area of a tangential quadrilateral
A ≤ abcd
3. The two pairs of opposite sides in a tangential
quadrilateral add up to the same total length, which 8. The minimum area of a tangential quadrilateral A ≥ 4r 2
equals the semi perimeter s of the quadrilateral : 9. The minimum value of the semi-perimeter s ≥ 4r
a + c = b + d = s. 10. The inradius of a tangential quadrilateral r = A / s; where
4. Conversely, a convex quadrilateral in which A is the area and s is the semi-perimeter of the tangential
a + c = b + d must be tangential. quadrilateral.
5. A convex quadrilateral ABCD is tangential, if and only 11. If e, f , g and h are the tangent lengths from A, B , C and
if the incircles in the two triangles ABC and ADC are D, respectively, to the points where the incircle is
tangent to each other. tangent to the sides of a tangential quadrilateral ABCD,
D then the lengths of the diagonals p = AC and q = BD are
 e+g 
p=   [( e + g )( f + h) + 4 fh]
 f + h
A C  f + h
and q=   [( e + g )( f + h) + 4eg ]
 e+g 
B
594 QUANTUM CAT
12. In the non-overlapping triangles APB , BPC , CPD, DPA 1 1 1 1
+ = =
formed by the diagonals in a convex quadrilateral Ra Rc Rb Rd
ABCD, where the diagonals intersect at P, there are the
(vi) A convex quadrilateral ABCD with diagonals
following characterizations of tangential quadrilaterals.
intersecting at P is tangential if and only if
D
a c b d
+ = +
∆ ( APB ) ∆ (CPD ) ∆ ( BPC ) ∆ ( DPA )
r4
r3 Cyclic Quadrilateral
A C A cyclic quadrilateral is a quadrilateral for which a circle
P r2 can be circumscribed so that it touches each vertex of the
r1
quadrilateral.
D
c
B C
d
(i) Let r1 , r2 , r3 and r4 denote the radii of the incircles b
in the four triangles APB , BPC , CPD and DPA A a B
respectively, then the quadrilateral is tangential if
1 1 1 1 a +b+c+d
and only if + = + (i) Semi perimeter s =
r1 r3 r2 r4 2
(ii) If h1 , h2 , h3 and h4 denote the altitudes in the four (ii) Area A = ( s − a )( s − b)( s − c)( s − d )
triangles APB , BPC , CPD and DPA respectively, (from
the diagonal intersection to the sides of the ( ab + cd )( ac + bd )( ad + bc)
(iii) Area A =
quadrilateral), then quadrilateral is tangential if and 4R
only if 1 ( ab + cd )( ac + bd )( ad + bc)
(iv) Circumradius R =
1 1 1 1 4 ( s − a )( s − b)( s − c)( s − d )
+ = +
h1 h3 h2 h4
Bicentric Quadrilateral
(iii) If the exradii ra , rb , rc and rd in the four triangles
APB , BPC , CPD and DPA respectively, (the four A quadrilateral is said to be bicentric if it is cyclic and
excircles are each tangent to one side of the tangential.
quadrilateral and the extensions of its diagonals). A c
quadrilateral is tangential if and only if
d
1 1 1 1
+ = +
ra rc rb rd b

(iv) If R1 , R 2 , R 3 and R 4 denote the radii in the a

circumcircles of triangles APB , BPC , CPD and DPA,
respectively, then the quadrilateral ABCD is tangential (i) If the sides be a, b, c, d the area of a bicentric
if and only if quadrilateral is A = abcd
R1 + R 3 = R 2 + R 4
2 abcd abcd
(v) A convex quadrilateral ABCD, with diagonals (ii) Inradius, r = =
a +b+c+d s
intersecting at P, is tangential if and only if the four
excenters in triangles APB , BPC , CPD and DPA 1 ( ab + cd )( ac + bd )( ad + bc)
(iii) Circumradius, R =
opposite the vertices B and D are concyclic. If 4 abcd
R a , R b , R c and R d are the exradii in the triangles (iv) In a bicyclic quadrilateral, the distance x between
APB , BPC , CPD and DPA, respectively, opposite the the incentre and circumcentre is given by
vertices B and D, then another condition is that the
1 1 1
quadrilateral is tangential if and only if + =
(R − x ) 2
(R + x ) 2
(r ) 2
Geometry 595

Introductory Exercise 12.5

1. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. 6. In the adjoining figure, O is the centre of circle and
Radius of the circle is 17 cm.If OC = 8 cm, then the diameter AC = 26 cm. If chord AB = 10 cm, then the
length of the chord AB is : distance between chord AB and centre O of the circle is :
C

O
O

A C B M
A B

(a) 35 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 18 cm (a) 24 cm (b) 16 cm

2. In the given figure OM ⊥ AB, radius of the circle is (c) 12 cm (d) none of these
5 cm and length of the chord AB = 8 cm. Find the 7. In the adjoining circle C (0 , r ) the degree measure of
measure of OM. minor arc AB = 130 °. Find the degree measure of
major arc.
O
O

r
130°
A M B
A B

(a) 3 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 6 cm

3. In the given figure, two circles with their respective (a) 230° (b) 260°
centres intersect each other at A and B and AB (c) 310° (d) none of these
intersects OO′ at M, then m ∠OMA is : 8. If the diagonals of a cyclic quadrilateral are equal,
then the quadrilateral is :
A (a) rhombus (b) square
(c) rectangle (d) none of these
M
O O' 9. In the given figure, AB is diameter of the circle. C and
D lie on the semicircle. ∠ABC = 65 ° and
B ∠CAD = 45 °. Find m ∠DCA.
D C
(a) 60° (b) 80°
(c) 90° (d) can’t be determined
45°
4. In the above question (no. 3) what is the ratio of 65°
AM : BM? A O B
(a) 5 : 6 (b) 3 : 2 (a) 45° (b) 25°
(c) 1 : 1 (d) can’t be determined (c) 20° (d) none of these
5. In the given figure the two chords AC and BC are 10. In the given figure, chords AB and CD are equal. If
equal. The radius OC intersect AB at M, then AM : BM
∠OBA = 55 ° , then m ∠COD is :
is :
D

O 55°
C
M O
A B
C
A 55°
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 3 B
(c) 3 : 2 (d) none of these (a) 65° (b) 55° (c) 70° (d) 50°
596 QUANTUM CAT
11. The quadrilateral formed by angle bisectors of a 16. In the adjoining figure, O is the centre of the circle
cyclic quadrilateral is a : and ∠OBD = 50 °. Find the m ∠BAD.
(a) rectangle (b) square A
(c) parallelogram (d) cyclic quadrilateral D
O
12. ∆ABC and ∆DBC have a common base and drawn
towards one sides. ∠BAC = ∠BDC = 90 ° . If AC and 50°
DB intersect at P , then : B C
D
A (a) 60° (b) 40° (c) 80° (d) 45°
90°
17. In the given figure, ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle.
90°
P
Find m ∠BEC. A

B C D

(a) AP × PC = BP × PD
(b) AP × BP = PC × PD B C
(c) AP × PD = PC × BP
E
(d) none of the above
(a) 120° (b) 60°
13. In the given figure, ∠BAC and ∠BDC are the angles of
(c) 80° (d) none of these
same segments. ∠DBC = 30 ° and ∠ BCD = 110 °. Find
m ∠BAC. 18. In the given figure, AB is the diameter of the circle.
Find the value of ∠ACD.
A
D

O 110°
O
30° A B
C
B
C
(a) 35° (b) 40°
D
(c) 55° (d) 60°
14. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle, (a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) 25°
∠ABO = 60 °. Find the value of ∠ACB. 19. In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and
diagonals bisect each other at P. If ∠DBC = 60 ° and
C ∠BAC = 30 °, then ∠BCD is :
O
C
D

60° P
A B 60°
30°
(a) 40° (b) 60° A B
(c) 50° (d) 30°
(a) 90° (b) 60°
15. In the given figure, ∠AOC = 120 °. Find m ∠CBE,
(c) 80° (d) none of these
where O is the centre.
20. In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and
C
AB is the diameter. ∠ADC = 140 ° , then find m ∠BAC.
C B
D
120°
O
D O
B
A E
A
(a) 60° (b) 100° (c) 120° (d) 150° (a) 45° (b) 40° (c) 50° (d) none of these
Geometry 597

21. In the given figure, ∠COB = 40 ° , AB is the diameter 26. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle.
of the circle. Find m ∠CAB. ∠AOB = 70 ° , find m ∠OCD.
C D

A
40° 70° O C
A B
O
B
(a) 40° (b) 20° (c) 30° (d) none of these (a) 70° (b) 55°
22. In the given figure, O is the centre of circle. (c) 65° (d) 110°
∠AOB = 80 ° and ∠AOC = 120 °. Find m ∠BAC. 27. In the given figure, ∠CAB = 40 ° and ∠AKB = 105 °.
A Find ∠KCD. D

120° C
80° K
O C 105

°
A °

40
B
B
(a) 120° (b) 80° (c) 100° (d) none of these
(a) 65° (b) 35° (c) 40° (d) 72°
23. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle and
∠AOC = 100 ° . Find the ratio of m ∠ADC : m ∠ABC. 28. In the given figure, ABC is an isosceles triangle in
which AB = AC and m ∠ABC = 50 ° . Find m ∠BDC.
D
A

O
D
100°

A C 50°
B C
B
(a) 5 : 6 (b) 1 : 2
E
(c) 5 : 13 (d) none of these
(a) 80° (b) 60° (c) 65° (d) 100°
24. In the given figure, O is the centre of circle,
∠AOB = 100 ° . Find m ∠BCD. 29. In the given figure, AB is the diameter.
P
m ∠BAD = 70 ° and m ∠DBC = 30 °. Find m ∠BDC.

C D
O

100°
30°
70°
A B
B O A
C
D (a) 25° (b) 30° (c) 40° (d) 60°
(a) 80° (b) 60° (c) 50° (d) 40° 30. Find the value of ∠DCE.
25. In the given figure, AB is the diameter of the circle. A
∠ADC = 120 °. Find m ∠CAB.
D
C
120° O

160°
B D
A O B
C
E

(a) 20° (b) 30° (a) 100° (b) 80°

(c) 90° (d) 75°
(c) 40° (d) can’t be determined
598 QUANTUM CAT
31. ‘O’ is the centre of the circle, line segment BOD is the 35. In the given figure, PQ is the tangent of the circle.
angle bisector of ∠AOC , m ∠COD = 50 °. Line segment PR intersects the circle at N and R.
Find m ∠ABC. PQ = 15 cm, PR = 25 cm, find PN.
B R

O
O
50° N
A D C

P Q
(a) 25° (b) 50°
(c) 100° (d) 120° (a) 15 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 9 cm (d) 6 cm
32. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle and 36. In the given figure, there are two circles with the
∠ACB = 25 °. Find ∠AOB. centres O and O′ touching each other internally at P.
Tangents TQ and TP are drawn to the larger circle
and tangents TP and TR are drawn to the smaller
C
circle. Find TQ : TR.
O
T

A B
Q
(a) 25° (b) 50°
R P
(c) 75° (d) 60°
O O'
33. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle.
∠AOB = 90 °. Find m ∠APB.
P
(a) 8 : 7 (b) 7 : 8
A B
(c) 5 : 4 (d) 1 : 1
90° 37. In the given figure, PAQ is the tangent. BC is the
diameter of the circle. m ∠BAQ = 60 °, find m ∠ABC.
O

B
(a) 130° O
(b) 150°
(c) 135° C
A 60°
(d) can’t be determined
34. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. AB is P Q
tangent. AB = 12 cm and OB = 13 cm. Find OA. (a) 25° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60°
38. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral PQ is a tangent at B. If
∠DBQ = 65 ° , then ∠BCD is :
O Q
C

13
D
B
B
A 12 O

(a) 6.5 cm
(b) 6 cm P
A
(c) 5 cm
(d) none of the above (a) 35° (b) 85° (c) 115° (d) 90°
Geometry 599

39. In the given figure,AP = 2 cm, BP = 6 cm and 44. A circle touches a quadrilateral ABCD. Find the true
CP = 3 cm. Find DP. statement
D
D C
B
O

A C
A B
(a) 6 cm (b) 4 cm
(a) AB + BC = CD + AD (b) AB + CD = BC + AD
(c) 2 cm (d) 3 cm
(c) BD = AC (d) none of these
40. In the given figure, AP = 3 cm, BA = 5 cm
45. O and O′ are the centres of two circles which touch
and CP = 2 cm. Find CD. each other externally at P. AB is a common tangent.
B Find ∠ APO.
(a) 90° (b) 120°
A
(c) 60° (d) data insufficient
O
P 46. If AB is a chord of a circle, P and Q are two points on
C
the circle different from A and B, then :
D (a) the angle subtended by AB at P and Q are either
equal or supplementary.
(a) 12 cm (b) 10 cm (b) the sum of the angles subtended by AB at P and
(c) 9 cm (d) 6 cm Q is always equal two right angles.
41. In the given figure, tangent PT = 5 cm, PA = 4 cm, find (c) the angles subtended at P and Q by AB are
AB. always equal.
T
(d) the sum of the angles subtended at P and Q is
B equal to four right angles.
47. In the given figure, AB and CD are two common
A
P O
tangents to the two touching circle. If CD = 6 cm,
then AB is equal to :

7
(a) cm D
4
11
(b) cm
4
A C B
9
(c) cm
4 (a) 9 cm (b) 15 cm
(d) can’t be determined (c) 12 cm (d) none of these
42. Two circles of radii 13 cm and 5 cm touch 48. In the given figure, CD is a direct common tangent to
internally each other. Find the distance between their two circles intersecting each other at A and B, then :
centres. ∠ CAD + ∠ CBD = ?
(a) 18 cm (b) 12 cm
A
(c) 9 cm (d) 8 cm
43. Three circles touch each other externally. The
distance between their centre is 5 cm, 6 cm and
7 cm. Find the radii of the circles. B
(a) 3 cm, 2 cm, 4 cm
C D
(b) 3 cm, 4 cm, 1 cm
(c) 1cm, 2.5 cm, 3.5 cm (a) 120° (b) 90°
(d) 1 cm, 2 cm, 4 cm (c) 360° (d) 180°
600 QUANTUM CAT
49. O and O′ are the centres of circle of radii 20 cm and 57. ABC is a right angled triangle AB = 3 cm, BC = 5 cm
37 cm. AB = 24 cm. What is the distance OO′ ? and AC = 4 cm, then the inradius of the circle is :
A
C

O C O'
5 cm
B
4 cm
(a) 51 cm (b) 45 cm
(c) 35 cm (d) 48 cm
50. In a circle of radius 5 cm, AB and AC are the two A 3 cm B

chords such that AB = AC = 6 cm. Find the length of

(a) 1 cm (b) 1.25 cm
the chord BC.
(c) 1.5 cm (d) none of these
(a) 4.8 cm (b) 10.8 cm
(c) 9.6 cm (d) none of these 58. A circle has two parallel chords of lengths 6 cm and
8 cm. If the chords are 1 cm apart and the centre is
51. In a circle of radius 17 cm, two parallel chords are
on the same side of the chords, then a diameter of
drawn on opposite sides of a diameter. The distance
the circle is of length :
between the chords is 23 cm. If the length of one
(a) 5 cm (b) 6 cm
chord is 16 cm, then the length of the other is :
(c) 8 cm (d) 10 cm
(a) 23 cm (b) 30 cm
(c) 15 cm (d) none of these 59. Three equal circles of unit radius touch each other.
Then, the area of the circle circumscribing the three
52. If two circles are such that the centre of one lies on circles is :
the circumference of the other, then the ratio of the π
(a) 6 π (2 + 3 )2 (b) (2 + 3 )2
common chord of two circles to the radius of any of 6
the circles is : π
(c) (2 + 3 )2 (d) 3 π (2 + 3 )2
(a) 3 : 2 3
(b) 3 : 1 60. The radius of a circle is 20 cm. The radii (in cm) of
(c) 5 : 1 three concentric circles drawn in such a manner that
(d) none of the above the whole area is divided into four equal parts, are :
53. Two circles touch each other internally. Their radii (a) 20 2 , 20 3 , 20
are 2 cm and 3 cm. The biggest chord of the other 10 3 10 2 10
(b) , ,
circle which is outside the inner circle, is of length : 3 3 3
(a) 2 2 cm (b) 3 2 cm (c) 10 3 , 10 2 , 10
(c) 2 3 cm (d) 4 2 cm
(d) 17 , 14 , 9
54. Through any given set of four points P ,Q, R , S it is 61. Points A, B, C and D are concyclic. BC is the diameter
possible to draw : and O is the centre of the circle, ∠BAO = 69 °, find
(a) atmost one circle ∠DAO + ∠DCO.
(b) exactly one circle (a) 138 (b) 111
(c) exactly two circles (c) 121 (d) none of these
(d) exactly three circles
62. An isosceles right triangle ABC has an incircle with
55. The distance between the centres of equal circles centre O, which touches the sides AB, BC and AC at
each of radius 3 cm is 10 cm. The length of a D , E and F respectively. If the longest side AC is
transverse tangent is : 2 unit, find DE.
(a) 4 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 10 cm 1
(a) 2 − 1 cm (b) 2 − cm
56. The number of common tangents that can be drawn 2
to two given circles is at the most : 1
(c) 1 − cm (d) none of these
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 2
Geometry 601

63. Consider the following diagram. In this diagram, 66. In the following figure, AOBC is a quadrilateral
A, B, D and C are cyclic. QP and RP are the tangents inscribed in a quadrant of a circle such that ∠AOB is
at A and B respectively and they meet at P. a right angle and point C falls on the arc of the
∠CAQ = 48 ° and ACB = 64 °. Find the value of quadrant. Find ∠ACB.
∠BDC + ∠CBP + ∠APB. B
Q
48° A
C
C
64°

P A O

(a) 120° (b) 135°

D
B (c) 150° (d) data insufficient
R
67. The sides of a triangle ∆ABC are 15 cm, 41 cm and
(a) 248° (b) 276°
52 cm. Find the diameter of the circumcircle of the
(c) 360° (d) none of these
∆ABC.
64. In the following figure A, B, C and D are cyclic. 205 208
(a) cm (b) cm
BE , CE , AF and BF are straight lines 3 3
F (c) 69 cm (d) 70 cm
E β° 68. The radius of a circle is 2 cm, what is its curvature?
29 (a) 1 cm (b) 4 cm
° D
α° (c) 0.5 cm (d) 1.414 cm
A C 69. The curvatures of two externally tangent circles are
0.5 and 2, what is the distance between their
61°
centers?
B (a) 2.5 (b) 1
(c) 4 (d) 8
Find the value of α − β.
(a) 28° (b) 41° 70. An equilateral triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle
(c) 32° (d) none of these and a chord AD is connected to two other chords BD
65. In a circle with centre O, there are two chords AB and and CD, whereas point D is on the arc BC. If the side
BC, such that ∠OAB = 24 ° and ∠OCB = 42 °. Find the of the triangle is 30 cm and the chord AD is 32 cm,
measure of ∠AOC. find BD + CD.
(a) 36° (b) 63° (a) 31 cm (b) 32 cm
(c) 228° (d) either (a) or (c) (c) 225/8 cm (d) 256/15 cm
 QUANTUM CAT

CAT-Test
Questions Helping you bell the CAT

LEVEL 01 > BASIC LEVEL EXERCISE

D
1 In the adjoining figure AB is a C 7 One of the diagonal of a parallelogram is 18 cm, whose
diameter of the circle and adjacent sides are 16 cm and 20 cm respectively. What is
∠BCD = 130°. What is the value of the length of other diagonal?
A B
∠ABD ? O (a) 2 247 cm (b) 13 cm
(a) 30° (c) 15.2 cm (d) 28.5 cm
(b) 50°
8 In the adjoining figure CD C
(c) 40°
is perpendicular on AB.
(d) none of the above
CN is the angle bisector of
2 In the given figure O is the centre of D
∠ACB. ∠ACN = 50° , then
C
the circle and ∠BAC = 25° , then the angle NCD is :
the value of ∠ADB is : O 1
(a) ∠ACB
(a) 40° 3 A B
N D
(b) 55° A B (b) ∠CAB − ∠CBA
(c) 50° 1
(c) (∠CBA ~ ∠BAC )
(d) 65° 2
(d) can’t be determined
3 In the given figure O is the centre of
the circle and ∠OCD = 26°, find D C 9 In a ∆PQR, points M and N are on the sides PQ and PR
26°
∠AOD. respectively such that PM = 0.6. PQ and NR = 0.4 PR .
O What percentage of the area of the triangle PQR does that
(a) 52°
(b) 154° A B of triangle PMN form?
(c) 128° (a) 60% (b) 50% (c) 36% (d) 55%
(d) data insufficient 10 In a trapezium ABCD, the diagonals AC and BD intersect
4 Three sides of a triangle ABC are a, b, c. a = 4700 cm, each other at O such that OB : OD = 3 : 1 then the ratio of
b = 4935 cm and c = 6815 cm. The internal bisector of ∠A areas of ∆AOB : ∆COD is :
meets BC at P, and the bisector passes through incentre O. (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
What is the ratio of PO : OA ? (c) 9 : 1 (d) can’t be determined
(a) 3 : 2 11 Three cities Fatehpur, Barabanki and Lucknow are very
(b) 2 : 3 famous. Fatehpur is 42 km, away from Barabanki and the
(c) 2 : 5 distance between Fatehpur and Lucknow is 66 km. Which
(d) can’t be determined of the following cannot be the distance between
D
5 In the given circle O is the C Barabanki and Lucknow?
centre of the circle and AD, AE (a) 28 km (b) 98 km (c) 32 km (d) 24 km
are the two tangents. BC is also O P A 12 In the adjoining figure ‘O’ is the centre of A B
a tangent, then : circle AC and BD are the two chords of
B O
(a) AC + AB = BC E circle which meets at T outside the circle.
(b) 3AE = AB + BC + AC OT bisects CD, OA = OB = 8 cm and
(c) AB + BC + AC = 4 AE A OT = 17 cm. What is the ratio of distance S
(d) 2AE = AB + BC + AC of AC and BD from the centre of the C D
6 What is the inradius of the incircle circle?
9 cm

shown in the figure? 41 cm (a) 15 : 17

(a) 9 cm (b) 4 cm (b) 8 : 15
(c) can’t be determined (c) 8 : 9 T
(d) none of the above (d) none of the above
C B
40 cm
Geometry 603

D F C
13 In the adjoining figure 19 In the adjoining figure BD is the D
28°
ABCD is a rectangle and diameter of the circle and C
DF = CF also, AE = 3BE . ∠BCA = 41°. Find ∠ABD. O
O 41°
What is the value of (a) 41°
∠EOF, if ∠DFO = 28° and (b) 49°
42°
∠AEO = 42°? A E B (c) 22.5° A B
(a) 14° (b) 42° (d) 20.5°
(c) 70° (d) 90°
D 20 Each interior angle of a regular polygon exceeds its
C
14 ABCD is a square and AOB is an exterior angle by 132°. How many sides does the polygon
equilateral triangle. What is the have ?
value of ∠DOC? O (a) 9
(a) 120° (b) 15
(b) 150° (c) 12
(c) 125° (d) none of the above
A B
(d) can’t be determined
21 In a circle O is the centre and C
15 In the triangle ABC, BC = CD and B
∠COD is right angle. AC = BD
(∠ABC − ∠BAC ) = 30°. The measure A
and CD is the tangent at P. P
of ∠ABD is :
What is the value of AC + CP , if
(a) 30° 90°
the radius of the circle is
(b) 45° 1 metre? D
O B
(c) 15° A C (a) 105 cm
D
(d) can’t be determined (b) 141.4 cm
16 In a trapezium ABCD, AB is a parallel to CD. BD is (c) 138.6 cm
perpendicular to AD. AC is perpendicular to BC. If (d) can’t be determined
AD = BC = 15 cm and AB = 25 cm , then the area of the 22 In the given triangle ABC, C
trapezium is : CD, BF and AE are the
(a) 192 cm 2
altitudes. If the ratio of
(b) 232 cm 2
CD : AE : BF = 2 : 3 : 4, then F E
(c) 172 cm 2
the ratio of AB : BC : CA is :
(d) none of the above
(a) 4 : 3 : 2
17 In the adjoining figure P (b) 2 : 3 : 4
M A B
O is the centre of the D L N C (c) 4 : 9 : 16 D
circle. The radius OP (d) 6 : 4 : 3
bisects a rectangle A R K S B
23 In the adjoining figure A P Q B
ABCD, at right angle. O AB || CD and PQ = SR ,
DM = NC = 2 cm and then :
AR = SB = 1 cm and O
(a) PQ = PS
KS = 4 cm and (b) SR = RP
OP = 5 cm. (c) PS = QR C S R D
What is the area of the rectangle? (d) AP = RD
D
(a) 8 cm 2 (b) 10 cm 2 24 In the given figure AB, CD and
(c) 12 cm 2 (d) none of these EF are three towers. The angle
30°
18 In the given figure of circle AB C of elevation of the top of the P F
60°
is the diameter with length 20 tower CD from the top of the B Q
cm and BC is 16 cm, then find tower AB is 60° and that from
the length of CO when CO is EF is 30°.
A B
perpendicular on AB. O BD = 2 3 m, CD : EF = 5 : 4 and
(a) 9.6 cm DF = 4 m. What is the height of A E
C
(b) 8.4 cm the tower AB ?
(c) 10 cm (a) 6 m (b) 12 m
(d) data insufficient (c) 7 m (d) none of these
604 QUANTUM CAT
C A
25 In the equilateral triangle ABC, 31 In the adjoining figure O is the C
AD = DE = BE , D and E lies on centre of the circle.
∠AOD = 120°. If the radius of the P 90° 90°
the AB. If each side of the Q
triangle (i.e., AB, BC and AC) circle be ‘r’, then find the sum of the R O S

be 6 cm, then the area of the areas of quadrilaterals AODP and

D B
shaded region is : OBQC.
(a) 9 cm 2 3 2
A B (a) r
D E 2
(b) 6 3 cm 2
(b) 3 3r2
(c) 5 3 cm 2
(c) 3r2
(d) none of the above
(d) none of the above
26 In the above question (number 25) what is the perimeter A
32 In a right angled triangle ABC, CD
of triangle CDE ?
is the perpendicular on the
(a) (3 + 2 5) cm
hypotenuse AB. Which of the
(b) 2 (1 + 2 7 ) cm following is correct? D
(c) 2 (1 + 3 7 ) cm AC × BC
(d) none of the above (a) CD =
AB
B
27 In a triangle ABC,O is the centre of AC × AC
(b) AD = C B
incircle PQR, ∠BAC = 65° , AB
∠BCA = 75°, find ∠ROQ. BC × BC
R Q (c) BD =
(a) 80° AB
O
(b) 120° (d) all of the above
65° 75°
(c) 140° A C C
P 33 In the triangle ABC, MN is parallel to
(d) can’t be determined
AB. Area of trapezium ABNM is twice
28 In the given figure, PT is a tangent B the area of triangle CMN. What is
M N
at P and ABCP is a quadrilateral. ratio of CM : AM ?
∠BAP is 60°, then the value of 1
∠PCB is :
C (a)
60° 3+1
(a) 60° A A B
3 −1
(b) 90° P
T (b)
(c) 120° 2
(d) data insufficient 3+1
(c)
2
29 In the above question (number 28), what is the value of
∠TPC ? (d) none of the above
A
(a) 30° (b) 60° 34 In the given figure AD = AE ,
(c) 90° (d) can’t be determined
∠BDE = 100°, then what is the
30 In the adjoining figure AT and BT are two tangents at A value of ∠DBC + ∠BCE ? D E
and B respectively CD is also a tangent at P. There are some
(a) 200°
more circles touching each other and the tangents AT and
(b) 160°
BT also. Which one of the following is true? B
(c) 80° C
A (d) can’t be determined
C
E D
G 35 In the given quadrilateral
I 7 cm
ABCD, AB = 15 cm, A
P Q R S T
BC = 20 cm and AD = 7 cm,
J ∠ABC = ∠ADC = 90°. Find the
15 cm

H
F
D length of side CD.
B
(a) 12 cm
(a) PC + CT = PD + DT (b) 18 cm B C
20 cm
(b) RG + GT = RH + HT (c) 24 cm
(c) PC + QE = CE (c) none of the above
(d) all of these
Geometry 605

B
36 There are two circles each with radius 5 cm. Tangent AB is 42 In the given diagram an
26 cm. The length of tangent CD is : incircle DEF is circumscribed
C by the right angled triangle in D
A B which AF = 6 cm and EC = 15
cm. Find the difference F
between CD and BD.
(a) 1 cm A C
E
D (b) 3 cm
(c) 4 cm
(a) 15 cm (b) 21 cm
(d) can’t be determined
(c) 24 cm (d) can’t be determined
B
37 One of diagonal of a parallelogram is 10 cm and an angle 43 In the adjoining figure, a
of the parallelogram is π / 4. If its height be 8 cm, then find star is shown. What is the
P Q
the area of the parallelogram. sum of the angles A, B, C , D D E
(a) 112 cm 2 (b) 88 cm 2 (c) 92 cm 2 (d) 104 cm 2 and E?
(a) 120° T R
38 ABC is a triangle in which ∠CAB = 80° and ∠ABC = 50°,
(b) 180° S
AE, BF and CD are the altitudes and O is the orthocentre.
(c) 240°
What is the value of ∠AOB ? A C
(d) can’t be determined
C
44 ABCD is a rectangle of dimensions 6 cm × 8 cm. DE and BF
are the perpendiculars drawn on the diagonal of the
F E rectangle. What is the ratio of the shaded to that of
unshaded region?
O D C

A B F
D
(a) 65° (b) 70° (c) 50° (d) 130°
E
39 ABC is a triangle in which 35 times the smallest angle is
equal to the 26 times largest angle. What is the measure of B
A
the second largest angle?
(a) 63° (b) 58° (c) 70° (d) 42° (a) 7:3
40 In the adjoining figure O is the (b) 16 : 9
Q
centre of the circle and AB is the
D
C (c) 4: 3 2
diameter. Tangent PQ touches the
P (d) data insufficient
circle at D. ∠BDQ = 48°. Find the 45 In the adjoining figure ‘O’ is the centre A B
ratio of ∠DBA : ∠DCB. A B of circle. ∠CAO = 25° and
O
(a)
22 ∠CBO = 35° . What is the value of
7 ∠AOB ? O
7 (a) 55°
(b)
22 (b) 110°
7 C
(c) (c) 120°
12 (d) data insufficient
(d) can’t be determined
46 In the given diagram ABCD is a cyclic D C
41 In the given diagram O is the centre A B quadrilateral ∠OCB = 50° and
of the circle and CD is a tangent.
O ∠BOC = 110°. Find the value of ∠DAO.
∠CAB and ∠ACD are O
(a) 20°
supplementary to each other
(b) 30° A B
∠OAC = 30°. Find the value of
∠OCB. C D (c) 50°
(a) 30° (b) 20° (d) can’t be determined
(c) 60° (d) none of these
606 QUANTUM CAT
47 ABC and CDE are right angled triangle. 53 Three circles each of units radius intersects each other at
∠ABC = ∠CDE = 90°, D lies on AC and E lies on BC. P , Q and R. P , Q and R are the centres of the three circles.
AB = 24 cm, BC = 60 cm. If DE = 10 cm, then CD is : What is the sum of length of the arcs PQ, QR and PR?
C (a) 3π (b) 2 2π
(c) π (d) none of these
D 54 ABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC and
(∠A ) = 2 (∠B ). AB = 4 cm. What is the ratio of inradius to
E
the circumradius?
A
A B

(a) 28 cm (b) 35 cm
(c) 25 cm (d) can’t be determined
48 In the above question (number 48) what is the ratio of
CE : BE ? B C
(a) 29 :(12 − 29 ) (b) 12 : 29
(a) 1 : 2 (b) ( 2 − 1): 1
(c) 7 : 21 (d) none of these
(b) 1 : (2 2 − 1) (c) none of these
49 In the given diagram ∆ABC is an A
isosceles right angled triangle, in 55 In a triangle ABC, the two sides AB and AC are 36 cm and
which a rectangle is inscribed in Q 30 cm, and the radius of its circumcircle is 45 cm. What’s
such a way that the length of the P the length of perpendicular drawn from its vertex A on the
rectangle in twice of breadth. Q and sides BC?
R lie on the hypotenuse and P , S lie R (a) 12 cm (b) 18 cm
on the two different smaller sides of (c) 15 cm (d) 33 cm
B S C
the triangle. What is the ratio of the 56 The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 2, then the
areas of the rectangle and that of triangle? angles of the triangle are in the ratio
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (a) 1 : 3 : 5 (b) 2 : 3 : 4
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 3 : 2 (c) 3 : 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 : 3
50 An n sided polygon has ‘n’ diagonals, then the value of n is : 57 If the angles of a triangles are in the ratio 4 : 1 : 1, then the
(a) 4 (b) 6 ratio of the longest sides to the perimeter is
(c) 7 (d) 5 (a) 3 : (2 + 3) (b) 1 : 6
51 How many distinct equilateral triangles can be formed in a (c) 1 : (2 + 3) (d) 2 : 3
regular nonagon having at two of their vertices as the 58 Let ABC and ABC′ be two non-congruent triangles with
vertices of nonagon? sides AB = 4, AC = AC ′ = 2 2 and ∠B = 30°. The absolute
(a) 72 (b) 36 value of the difference between the areas of these
(c) 66 (d) none of these triangles is
52 ABC is a triangle in which D, E and F are the mid-points of (a) 2 (b) 2 2
the sides AC , BC and AB respectively. What is the ratio of (c) 4 (d) 3 2
the area of the shaded to the unshaded region in the 59 The sides of triangle ABC are 5, 5, 6 and the sides of
triangle? triangle PQR are 5, 5, 8. Find the correct relation between
C
the areas of two triangles.
(a) ∆ABC > ∆PQR (b) ∆ABC < ∆PQR
(c) ∆ABC = ∆PQR (d) can’t be determined
60 The sides AC , BC and AB of a triangle ABC are tangents to
D E its incircle at D, E and F, respectively. Point D lies on the
hypotenuse AC such that D is the circumcentre of the
triangle ABC. Find EF : AC .
A F B 1 1
(a) (b)
2 2 2+ 2
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 3 : 4 1
(c) 4 : 5 (d) none of these (c) (d) none of these
2− 2
Geometry 607

61 The inradius and circumradius of a right angle triangle are 67 In the following isosceles triangle, in which AC = BC and
6 cm and 16 cm. Find the area (in sq. cm) of the triangle. AB = BD = DE = EF = FC = 6 cm, find BE.
(a) 304 (b) 228 A
(c) 288 (d) none of these D
62 A circle is the circumcircle for the triangle DEF and the
F
incircle for the triangle ABC. If the angles of ∆DEF are
76° , 56° and 48°, find the values of internal angles of C
∆ABC. B E
(a) 32, 46, 92 (b) 28, 68, 84 (a) 9 (b) 4.5
(c) 38, 48, 74 (d) data insufficient (c) 7.5 (d) none of these

63 In a ∆ABC, a perpendicular OD is drawn on the side AC 68 A fox, camouflaged in the bush, observes from the ground,
from the mid-point of the side AB. If BC = 4 3 cm, find that it takes 2 minutes for the angle of elevation of the
the length of OD. squirrel to change from 30° to 60°. If the speed of fox is 3
(a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm times that of the squirrel, find the time taken by fox to
(c) 4 cm (d) none of these reach the tree from the bush.
(a) 1 minute (b) 3 minute
64 The hypotenuse AC of a right angle triangle ABC is 42 cm.
(c) 3 minutes (d) 4/ 3 minutes
This triangle has the maximum possible area with the
given hypotenuse. A rectangle EFGH is formed in such a 69 In an isosceles triangle ABC base AB = 6 cm and each
way that the two vertices G and H lie on the hypotenuse lateral side is 5 cm. Find the circumcentre of the triangle
AC while the vertices E and F lie on BC and AB, ABC.
respectively. If EH = 14 cm, find the area of the largest 22 25 21 23
(a) cm (b) cm (c) cm (d) cm
possible circle that can be inscribed in the rectangle EFGH. 7 8 8 7
(a) 155 sq cm (b) 140 sq cm 70 Let P be the centre of the square A
(c) 154 sq cm (d) data insufficient constructed on hypotenuse AC of
65 In an isosceles triangle ABC, side BC is distinct from rest of the right angle triangle ABC. If
∠BCA − ∠BAC = 20°. Find the P
the two sides. CD and BE are the medians on AB and AC,
respectively. If W, X, Y and Z represents distinct areas in value of ∠ABP − ∠CBP. B
the triangle, find the ratio of W : X : Y : Z. (a) 10° (b) 20°
(c) 5° C
A
(d) none of these
71 In a quadrilateral ABCD, ∠B = ∠C = 60° and ∠D = 90°.
Find the length of CD, if AD = 3 3 cm and BC = 6 3 cm.
Z (a) 3(2 3 − 1) cm (b) 6( 3 − 1) cm
D E
(c) 2(3 3 − 1) cm (d) 3(2 3 − 1) cm
O
W Y
72 In a trapezium ABCD, where AB || CD and diagonals AC
intersects the other diagonal BD at O. Which of the
X
following statements are always correct?
B C (i) ∆AOB ~ ∆COD
(ii) ∆DOA ~ ∆COB
(a) 1 : 2 : 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 3 : 1 : 4
(c) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 3 : 2 : 3 (iii) Area ∆DOA = Area ∆COB

66 The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 20 cm and if b is (iv) Area ∆AOB = Area ∆COD
the length of the third side which is distinct from the other D C
two equal sides, find b.
 20  20 
(a) 1,  ∪ , 10 O
 3  3 
 20  20 
(b)  0,  ∪ , 10 A B
 3  3 
(c) 0 < b < a (a) only (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) only (i), (ii), (iv)
(d) 5 < b < 10 (c) only (i) and (iii) (d) only (i)
608 QUANTUM CAT
73 In an isosceles ∆ABC, where, AC = BC . A line segment DE 77 A circle is circumscribed by an isosceles trapezium in
is drawn parallel to the side AB, where D and E are which one of the parallel sides is 49/16 times the other
midpoints of AC and BC, respectively. The diagonals AE parallel side. If the area of the trapezium is 3640 sq. cm,
find the area of the circle.
and DB of the trapezium ABED intersect each other at O.
(a) 1890 sq. cm (b) 2464 sq. cm
Which of the following are necessarily true?
(c) 2884 sq. cm (d) 1694 sq. cm
(i) Area ∆DOA = Area ∆EOB
(ii) Area ∆AOB = 4(Area ∆DOE )
78 If the opposite sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are equal and
the sum of two of the adjacent sides is
(iii) Area ∆CDE = 9(Area ∆DOE )
10 cm, find the maximum possible area of the
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
quadrilateral (in sq. cm).
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
(a) 100 (b) 25
74 In an isosceles triangle ABC, such that AC = BC and (c) 24 (d) data insufficient
DE || AB, where D and E lie on the side AC and BC,
respectively. The area of DOE = 40 cm 2 and area of Directions (for Q. Nos. 79 and 80) : Answer the following
∆AOB = 250 cm 2, find the area (in cm 2) of AOD and area questions based on the information given below.
of ∆ACB, respectively. In a kite, the shorter diagonal intersects the longer diagonal in
C the ratio of 6 : 7. And, the longer diagonal of the kite is 52 cm
and perimeter of the kite is 208 cm.
79 Find the area of the circle inscribed in this kite.
D E (a) 2080 sq. cm (b) 1263 sq. cm
(c) 1591 sq. cm (d) 2340 sq. cm
O
80 If there are four non-overlapping circles inscribed in each
of the four triangles formed due to the intersection of two
A B
perpendicular diagonals of the kite, find the perimeter of
(a) 100 and 700 (b) 150 and 600 the quadrilateral that is formed by joining the centers of
(c) 175 and 600 (d) none of these these four circles.
75 In a trapezium ABCD, AB || CD. AD and BC are not (a) 76 cm (b) 2(19 + 362) cm
necessarily equal. If α = 4 cm 2 and γ = 9 cm 2. Find the (c) 2(19 + 360 ) cm (d) 4 362 cm
(β + δ ) 81 In the following diagram, ABCD is a trapezium, whereas
value of .
(α + β + γ + δ ) AD = DC = BC = 1 unit and ∠ADC = ∠BCD = 108°. Find
the value of line segment AB.
D C
α D C
β O δ

γ
A B
A B (a) 2 (b) 3
(a)
9
(b)
12 (c) 5 − 1 (d) none of these
16 25 82 In a dart the reflex angle is 216° and the angle opposite the
3
(c) (d) none of these reflex angle is 72°. If each of the shorter sides of the dart is
5 1 cm, find the perimeter of the dart, in cm.
76 In the following figure quadrilaterals ABDC and APQC are (a) 3 + 5 (b) 3 + 6 (c) 4 + 3 (d) 5 + 3
concyclic ones. If AB and CD are two parallel lines, then 83 In the following figure, the only reflex
PBDQ is necessarily - angle of the dart is 216° and the second
largest angle is 72°. If each of the two
smaller sides is 1 cm and each of the two
A
(1 + 5)
P
B larger sides is , find the area of
2
Q the dart, in sq. cm.
C D
5− 5
(a) 2 5 − 5 (b)
2
5+ 5 3 5+ 5
(a) a square (b) a rectangle (c) (d)
(c) a parallelogram (d) none of these 2 2 7 2
Geometry 609

84 In the following quadrilateral ABCD, the four mid-points 90 In a ∆ABC , CP and BQ intersect each other at R inside the
P , Q , R , S are joined in such a way that the quadrilateral is triangle, where P and Q lie on the sides AB and AC
divided into six parts. respectively. ∠BAC = 50°, ∠ABC = 70°, ∠ACB = ∠APQ
R C and PC = BC . Find ∠PBQ.
D
(a) 10° (b) 15°
(c) 20° (d) none of these
S Q
O 91 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) A kite always has two axes of symmetry
A P B
(ii) A square is both a kite and an isosceles trapezium
The ratio of the quadrilaterals ~ ASOP , ~ POQB,
(iii) Every kite is an orthodiagonal
~ ORCQ, ~ SDRO is 4 : 5 : 7 : 6 and the ratio of ∆ASP and
∆RCQ is 2 : 5. If S is joined to R and P is joined to Q, find (iv) An isosceles trapezium can have a
the ratio of ~ PQRS and ~ ABCD. circumcircle
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 5 : 11 (v) A kite can always have an incircle
(c) 4 : 11 (d) none of these (vi) If the sum of two opposite sides is not the
85 In a rhombus ABCD, ∠ADC : ∠BCD = 1 : 2 and same as the sum of the other pair of opposite sides, it
can never be a circumscribing quadrilateral.
EF : BD = 1 : 3, where E and F lie on the diagonal BD,
inside the rhombus, such that ~ AECF is a quadrilateral. (a) all, except (ii) and (iv)
Find the ratio of areas of ~ AECF : ~ ABCD. (b) only (ii), (iii) and (v)
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 2 : 5 (c) only (i), (iii), (v)
(c) 3 : 14 (d) none of these (d) all, except (i)
86 An isosceles trapezium whose parallel sides are in the ratio 92 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1 : 4. It inscribes a circle that touches all the sides of the (i) The intersections of the angle bisectors of the
trapezium. If the sum of the two parallel sides is 70 cm, quadrilateral are the vertices of the cyclic
find the circumference of the inscribed circle. quadrilateral.
(a) 616 cm (b) 14π cm (ii) If diagonals of a cyclic quadrilateral perpendicularly
(c) 140 cm (d) none of these intersect at point P, then the line through P
87 A 7 × 24 rectangular thin wall has a 2 × 2 square shaped perpendicular to any side bisects the opposite side.
window in such a way that the intersection of diagonals of (iii) The product of the lengths of the two diagonals of a
rectangle and the intersection of diagonals of square cyclic quadrilateral is equal to the sum of the
coincide with each other. Which one of the following is products of opposite sides.
correct? (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(a) Diagonals of rectangle and that of square will be the (c) (i) and (iii) (d) all of these
same. 93 Which of the following is correct, considering the given
(b) The diagonals of wall will intersect the vertical sides figure, in which P , Q , R and S are the mid-points of
of the window. AB, BC , CD and AD, respectively?
(c) The diagonals of wall will intersect the horizontal
A
sides of the window.
(d) none of the above X1
P
88 A trapezium inscribes a circle that touches all its sides and S X2 B
the line connecting the mid-points of the non-parallel
sides of the trapezium divides the trapezium in such a way X4
Q
X3
that the area of one part is half the area of the other part. If
D R C
the lengths of the non-parallel sides be 8 cm and 16 cm,
find the length of the shortest side of the trapezium. (i) The perimeter of the parallelogram PQRS is equal to
(a) 4 (b) 6 the sum of the diagonals of the quadrilateral ABCD
(c) 9 (d) none of these (ii) X 1 + X 3 = X 2 + X 4
89 A point O lies inside a square ABCD such that 1
(iii) A(PQRS ) = A( ABCD )
OA = 3, OB = 4 and OD = 5, find the value of OC. 2
(a) 3 3 (b) 6. 67 (a) Only (i) and (iii) (b) only (ii) and (iii)
(c) All three are correct (d) none of the above
(c) 3 2 (d) 4 2
610 QUANTUM CAT
94 In the following quadrilateral ABCD, E and F are the 98 In the following figure if ABCDE is a regular pentagon,
mid-points of DC and AB, respectively. If the area of ∆ADF then AEDF is always
is 9 cm 2 and that of ∆EBC is 18 cm 2, what is the area of E
quadrilateral ABCD?
B
A D
F
F
A
B C
D E C
(a) a cyclic quadrilateral and a parallelogram
(a) 45 cm 2 (b) 27 cm 2 (b) a tangential quadrilateral and a cyclic quadrilateral
(c) data insufficient (d) none of these as well
95 A trapezium ABCD inscribes a circle. The two sides AB and (c) a rhombus and a kite but not a tangential
CD are parallel and the diameter of the circle is equal to quadrilateral
the length of side AD. If DC = 5 cm, find the perimeter of (d) a tangential quadrilateral as well as a rhombus
the trapezium ABCD. 99 In the following figure, ABCDE is a regular pentagon. If
D C AB = 2 cm, find the perimeter of the quadrilateral APDE.
D

E C

P
A B
2
(a) 45 cm (b) 50 cm
(c) 80 cm (d) none of these A B
96 In the following quadrilateral AC and BD are the diagonals (a) 4( 5 − 1) cm (b) 8( 3 − 1) cm
intersecting at a point O inside the quadrilateral. The area (c) 10(2 − 3) cm (d) none of these
of ∆AOD is 32 cm 2 and area of ∆BOC is 18 cm 2. What is the
100 In the following figure, ABCDE is a regular pentagon. If
minimum possible area of the quadrilateral ABCD?
AB = 2 cm, find PC.
D
D

C
E C
O
P

A B
A B
(a) 144 cm 2 (b) 100 cm 2 (c) 98 cm 2 (d) 96 cm 2 (a) 5 − 1 cm (b) 3 − 1 cm
(c) 2 − 3 cm (d) 1.67 cm
97 In the following figure if ABCDE is a regular pentagon,
then ABCD is necessarily 101 In the following diagram, ABCDE A
is a pentagon such that each side
E
is of unit length, how many of the
B E
following relations is/are correct? F G
A D
(i) BE || CD and AC || ED and
AD || BC
(ii) ∆BCF ~ ∆FAG
C D
B C (iii) ∆AFB ~ ∆BAE ~ ∆ABC
(a) a cyclic quadrilateral and a tangential quadrilateral
(iv) BF 2 = GF
as well
(b) a tangential quadrilateral and a trapezium as well (v) ∆BCF : ∆FAG = 1 : FG
(c) a trapezium and a cyclic quadrilateral as well (a) 4 (b) 3
(d) all (a), (b) and (c) (c) 2 (d) 5
Geometry 611

102 If each side of a regular pentagon is 1 cm, find the length There is a circle passing through the points of intersection
of its diagonal. of sides of the two square. And there is another circle
5 2−3 −1 + 5 passing through the vertices of the two squares. If each
(a) (b)
2 2 side of the square is 2 + 2 unit, find the ratio of the area
1+ 5 of the smaller circle to that of the larger circle.
(c) (d) data insufficient
2 2+ 2 3+ 2
(a) (b)
103 If the side of a regular pentagon be 2 cm, find the apothem 3+ 2 2 6+ 4 2
of the pentagon, in cm. 2+ 2
(c) (d) none of these
5+ 2 5 5+ 2 5 3+ 2
(a) (b)
5 10
109 If the apothem of a regular hexagon is a, find each side of
5+ 4 5 10 + 5 the hexagon.
(c) (d)
2 4 3a
(a) (b) 3 a
104 Let A0 A1 A2 A3 A4 A5 be a regular hexagon inscribed in a 2
circle of unit radius. Then the product of the lengths of the 2
(c) 0.67 a (d) a
line segments A 0 A 1, A 0 A 2, A 0 A 4 is 3
3 3 3 110 In the following figure find the ratio of the area of the
(a) (b) 3 3 (c) 3 (d)
4 2 internal hexagon to that of the external regular hexagon.
105 In the following figure, a regular hexagon is divided into
various parts. The area of respective part is indicated by
W , X , Y, Z. Find W : X : Y : Z.
A B

W
F C
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 6 : 2
X
(c) 7 : 2 (d) 4 : 1
G
Y
Z Y 111 In the following figure find the ratio of the shaded
E D triangular area to that of the remaining area of the regular
(a) 7 : 4 : 2 : 1 (b) 8 : 3 : 2 : 1 hexagon.
(c) 13 : 6 : 3 : 1 (d) 9 : 4 : 2 : 1
106 A circle intersects a hexagon such that the area of hexagon
outside the circle is same as the area of circle outside the
hexagon. If each side of the hexagon is a, what is the area
of circle?
3 2 2 3 3 2
(a) a (b) a
π 2
3 3π 2 (a) 2 : 5 (b) 2 : 3 7
(c) a (d) none of these
2 (c) 3 : 8 (d) 1 : 2
107 A regular dodecagon (a polygon with 12 sides) is inscribed 112 In the following diagram, as shown below, a regular
in a circle. How many diagonals of this dodecagon would hexagon of side 3 cm inscribes 7 smaller regular hexagons.
not pass through the centre of the circumscribing circle? Find the area of the shaded region (of the triangles) within
(a) 24 (b) 36 the larger hexagon.
(c) 42 (d) none of these
108 There are two congruent squares
placed in such a way that the sides of
one square are parallel to the
diagonals of the other square,
whereas the point of intersection of
diagonals of one square coincides
with that of the diagonals of the (a) 6 sq. cm (b) 4 3 sq. cm
other. (c) 3 3 sq. cm (d) none of these
612 QUANTUM CAT
113 In the following figure a hexagram consists of a hexagon 118 If each side of the octagon be a, then find the shortest
and six equilateral triangles outside the hexagon. If a diagonal of the octagon.
circle is inscribed in the hexagon and the area of the (a) ( 2 + 2 ) a (b) (1 + 2)a
inscribed circle is 3π sq. cm, find the area of the
(c) 2(1 + 2)a (d) ( 4 + 2 2 ) a
circumscribed circle of the regular hexagram.
119 If each side of the octagon be a, then find the longest
diagonal of the octagon.
(a) ( 2 + 2 ) a (b) (1 + 2)a
(c) 2(1 + 2)a (d) ( 4 + 2 2 ) a
120 If d1, d2, d3 be the three distinct diagonals of a regular
octagon, such that d1 < d2 < d3, find the ratio of the
inradius to the circumradius of the octagon.
(a) 12π sq. cm (b) 9π sq. cm
d d2 d dd
(c) 6 3 sq. cm (d) none of these (a) 1 (b) (c) 2 (d) 1 32
d3 d3 d3 (d2 )
114 In the following hexagonal ring the area of shaded region
is 3 times the area of the un-shaded region. Find the ratio 121 In the following figure the regular octagon has some
of perimeter of the outer hexagon to that of the inner shaded area and some unshaded area. Find the ratio of the
hexagon. shaded area to the unshaded area.

(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1

(a) 3 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 122 The midpoints of alternating sides of a regular octagon are
(c) 1 : 2 (d) none of these joined to form a square. If each side of the octagon is a,
115 The following figure shows a concave find each side of the square.
hexagon. Out of six internal angles it (2 + 2)a (4 + 2)a
(a) (b)
has each of the three acute angles 2 2
equal to 36° and remaining three 2(1 + 2)a
angles are reflex. If each side of the (c) (d) (2 + 2)a
2
symmetrical concave hexagon is
1 + 5 mm, find the total area of this hexagon, in sq. mm. 123 If each side of the octagon is a, find the area of the
octagon.
(a) 3 + 3( 5 + 2 5 ) (b) 3 3 + 3( 5 + 2 5 )
(a) 2( 2 − 1) a2 (b) 4(1 + 2)a2
(c) 3 + 3( 10 − 2 5 ) (d) 2 5 + 3( 10 − 2 5 )
(c) 2(2 + 2)a2 (d) 2(1 + 2)a2
116 If the side of an square is a, then find the side of the regular
124 In the following figure a square inscribes 4 congruent kites
octagon that can be inscribed in this square.
and 4 congruent isosceles triangles. The area of each kite
a(1 + 2) a
(a) (b) is same as the area of each triangle. Find the ratio of the
2 3 longer diagonal to the shorter diagonal of each kite
a
(c) (d) none of these
2+ 2
117 Find the value of angle x in a regular octagon as shown
below

2 1+ 2
(a) (b)
x 1 2
2
(a) 145° (b) 125° (c) (d) data insufficient
1
(c) 136° (d) none of these
Geometry 613

125 In the following figure two 130 In the following figure the four
congruent squares are placed in such equispaced vertices of a regular
a way that the diagonals of one dodecagon are connected in such a
square are parallel to the sides of the way that they create a quadrilateral,
other square and all the four as shown below. If each side of the
diagonals intersect at the same quadrilateral is 3 + 1 cm, find the
point. If the area of the shaded circumradius of the dodecagon.
region is 4 cm 2, find the area of the ( 3 + 1) 2( 6 + 1)
(a) cm (b) cm
common region. 2 3
(a) 4 + 2 2 cm 2 (b) 4(1 + 2) cm 2 ( 12 + 1)
(c) cm (d) none of these
(c) 2 + 2 cm 2 (d) none of these 5
131 A regular dodecagon is inscribed in a circle of radius 1 cm.
126 Find the angle AGE in the regular dodecagon shown below.
Find the area of the dodecagon
(a) 3 sq. cm (b) 3 2 sq. cm
G (c) 2 3 sq. cm (d) none of these
132 Three circles with radii 3, 4 and 5 touch each other
externally. If P is the only point of intersection of tangents
A E to these circles, find the distance of P from the points of
contact.
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 3
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) 75° (d) none of these 133 Three points X , Y and Z are concyclic to the larger circle
127 Find the angle AHE in the regular dodecagon shown below. with radius 15 cm and there is another concentric circle
with radius 8 cm such that XY and XZ are tangents to the
H smaller circle. At how many points does YZ intersect the
larger circle?
(a) 0 (b) 1
A
(c) 2 (d) can’t say

Directions (for Q. Nos. 134 and 135): Answer the following

E
questions based on the information given below.
(a) 45° (b) 50° A circle with centre O and radius 2 cm inscribes a triangle ABC .
(c) 55° (d) none of these Two tangents AD and BD are drawn from a point D outside the
128 Find the angle AHC in the regular dodecagon shown circle and ∠ABD = 60°.
below. 134 Find the area of ~ OADB, in cm 2.
H
(a) 4 3 (b) 3 3
(c) 4 (d) none of these
135 Find the maximum possible area of ~ ACBD, in cm 2.
(a) 6 3 (b) 8 3
14
(c) (d) none of these
3
A C 136 Triangle ABC inscribes a circle with centre O and inradius
(a) 15° (b) 22.5° (c) 30° (d) 45° 6 cm. The inradius OD divides side BC at D, such that
BD = 2 cm and DC = 8 cm. Find the ratio AB : AC .
129 In the following figure the three
(a) 4 : 7 (b) 5 : 7
equispaced vertices of a regular
(c) 4 : 5 (d) cannot be determined
dodecagon are connected in such a
way that they create a triangle, as 137 A circle with radius 12 cm has two perpendicular chords
shown below. If each side of the AB and CD intersecting at a point R, other than the centre
O, where RD = 6 cm and RB = 18 cm. Find the length of
triangle is 3 2 + 3 cm, find the
AR.
circumradius of the dodecagon. 3 3
(a) 6 (b) 4
(a) 6 + 3 cm (b) 3 + 2 3 cm 5 5
(c) 2 + 3 cm (d) none of these (c) 4 5 (d) Data inconsistent
614 QUANTUM CAT
138 There are two tangents AT and BT on a circle of radius 142 In the following figure there are four chords
30 cm. A line OT(= 50 cm) connects the centre O with the AB, CD, AC , BD in a circle. If AB = 6, AP = 2, BP = 5,
external point T . Another tangent CD touches the circle at DP = 3, find CD.
P such that C and D lie on the line segments AT and BT , A
respectively. Points P and T lie on the same side of the
circle. Find the maximum possible area (in sq. cm) of the
circle inscribed in the triangle CDT . D B
P
(a) 56.25 π (b) 49 π
(c) 42.25 π (d) none of these
139 In the following figure there are two smaller circles C
inscribed in a larger circle touching each other. The
(a) 4 (b) 5
centres of all the three circles fall on AB, and CD is tangent
(c) 9 (d) none of these
to both the interior circles. If CD = 16 cm, find the area of
the shaded region. 143 In a circle, its radius OP is intersected by a chord AB at C,
C where O is the centre of the circle, such that AC = 7, BC = 5
and PC = 1, find the radius of the circle.

A B
P O
A
C
D
B
(a) 35 π sq. cm (b) 28 π sq. cm P
(c) 32 π sq. cm (d) data insufficient (a) 12
140 In the following figure AB = 21 cm, BC = 15 cm, AC = 24 (b) 15
(c) data insufficient
cm. Point P is the mid-point of arc AC, and chord BD
(d) none of the above
bisects chord AC at P. Find the ratio BP / PD.
B 144 In a circle, its radius OP is extended to meet a point A
outside the circle and a line segment AB is drawn from A
to a point B on the circle. If O is the centre of the circle
A
P
C and AP = 7, AB = 14, find the circumference of the circle.
B

D A P O
(a) 1 : 16 (b) 1 : 21
(c) 1 : 21 (d) none of these
141 In the following figure one side of the ∆ABC passes (a) 66 (b) 67
through the centre P of the circle and the other two sides (c) 70 (d) none of these
of this triangle are tangents to this circle. If BN = 2cm and 145 In the following diagram, there are two circles externally
AC = 6 cm, find the radius of the circle. tangent to each other and there is a common tangent CP
B touch the circles at C and D. AC and BD are the radii of the
two circles. If AC = 15 and BD = 6, find the distance
N between C and D.
M C
D
P
P
A B
A
C
(a) 4 cm (b) 2 cm (a) 12 cm (b) 18 cm
(c) 2.5 cm (d) none of these (c) 21 cm (d) 6 10
Geometry 615

146 A circle has its total area A. There are four equal circles A B
tangent to this circle passing through the centre of this
circle and tangent to this circle. The area of each such
circle is B. The area of each region that is created by
overlapping of any two of these circles is D and the area of
each region that is not covered by these circles within the
π
larger circle is C. If D = , find the value of C. D C
2π 25 π
(a) (b) 148 Find the side of the square.
25 5 5
π 2+ 2 2 2 −1
(c) (d) none of these (a) cm (b) cm
49 2 2
1+ 2
147 An equilateral triangle ABC is tangent to a circle, with (c) cm (d) data insufficient
centre O, at the midpoint D. If C lies on the circumference 2
of the circle and its radius is 6 cm, find the area of the 149 Find the common area between the circle and the square.
overlapping region. 3π − 2 π+2
(a) sq. cm (b) sq. cm
C 3 2
3(π − 2)
(c) sq. cm (d) data insufficient
4
O 150 In the following figure one side of a square is tangent to
the circle, as shown here. If each side of the square be
24 cm, what would be the radius of the circle?
A D B

(a) 12π + 21 2 sq. cm (b) 12π + 16 3 sq. cm

(c) 12π + 18 3 sq. cm (d) none of these

Directions (for Q. Nos. 148 and 149) Answer the following

questions based on the information given below.
In the following figure the two non-parallel sides AD and CD of a
square ABCD are tangent to a circle of radius 1 cm in such a way (a) 12 cm (b) 16 cm
that the vertex B lies on the circumference of the circle. (c) can’t be determined (d) none of these

LEVEL 02 > HIGHER LEVEL EXERCISE

1 The semiperimeter of a right angled triangle is 126 cm and 4 In the given figure O is the centre of the O
the shortest median is 53 cm. What is the area of a triangle circle, SP and TP are the two tangents at S
S T
which has the largest median as its longest side? and T respectively. ∠SPT is 50°, the value
(a) 1560 cm 2 (b) 1260 cm 2 of ∠SQT is : Q
2
(c) 1060 cm (d) none of these (a) 125° (b) 65°
2 In an isosceles right angled triangle ABC, ∠B is right (c) 115°
50°
angle. Angle bisector of ∠BAC is AN cut at M to the (d) none of the above
median BO. Point O lies on the hypotenuse. OM is 20 cm, 5 A 6.5 m long ladder is standing against a P
then the value of AB is : wall and the difference between the base
(a) 38.96 cm of the ladder and wall is 5.2 m. If the top of the ladder now
(b) 24.18 cm slips by 1.4 m, then by how much will the foot of the
(c) 34.134 cm ladder slip?
(d) none of the above (a) 1.2 m (b) 0.8 m
3 In a right angled triangle ∠B and ∠A are acute angles. If (c) 0.75 (d) can’t be determined
∠A − ∠B = k, where A and B are integers, then how many 6 In a triangle all the three angles A, B, C are in integers,
integer values can k take? then the number of values that A, B and C can take :
(a) 80 (b) 88 (c) 45 (d) 89 (a) 89 (b) 90 (c) 178 (d) 180
616 QUANTUM CAT
D A P W B
7 In the given figure of circle, ‘O’ is the C 14 In the adjoining figure ABCD,
centre of the circle and M
PQRS and WXYZ are three
Q
∠AOB = 130°. What is the value of squares. Find number of triangles Z
∠DMC? and quadrilaterals in the figure.
(a) 65° A O (a) 24 and 16 X
(b) 125° B (b) 28 and 15 S
(c) 85° (c) 27 and 16
(d) can’t be determined D Y R C
(d) none of the above
8 In a right angled triangle ABC, ∠B is right angle, side AB is 15 In the given figure ABC is a
C
half of the hypotenuse. AE is parallel to median BD and CE triangle in which CDEFG is a
is parallel to BA. What is the ratio of length of BC to that of pentagon. Triangles ADE and
EC? BFG are equilateral triangles D G
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 2
each with side 2 cm and EF = 2
(c) 5 : 3 (d) can’t be determined
cm. Find the area of the
9 In an equilateral triangle ABC, AO , BO and CO are the pentagon. A E B
F
2 2
angle bisectors meet at the incentre ‘O’. D, E and F are the (a) 8 3cm (b) 7 3 cm
mid- points of AO , BO and CO respectively. A circle with (c) 15 3 cm 2 (d) 11.28 cm 2
centre O passes through D, E and F. Area of the circle is
16 PQRS is a quadrilateral which is formed by joining the
3π cm2. What is the perimeter of triangles (∆ ) ABC?
mid-points of a quadrilateral ABCD, such that ∠A = 75° ,
(a) 12 3 cm (b) 18 cm ∠B = 95° , ∠C = 110°.
(c) 6 3 cm (d) none of these If ∠PQR = 90° , what is the value of ∠PSR?
10 Two trains Punjab mail and Lucknow mail starts (a) 90° (b) 110°
simultaneously from Patiala and Lakhimpur respectively (c) 60° (d) 75°
towards each other with the speed of 40 km/h and 17 ABCD is a quadrilateral in C
60 km/h respectively on the same track Lakhimpur is z y x
which = = = r and k D y
500 km due east of Patiala. A plane starts flying at y x w z
200 km/h at the same time from Patiala to Jalandhar.
is an integer. Also
Jalandhar is 100 km due north of Patiala. After travelling
{w, x} < 90 and { y, z} > 90,
sometime two trains Punjab mail and Lucknow mail colide
then the difference between w x
with each other. The plane moves continuously to and fro
the greatest angle and A B
between Patiala to Jalandhar till the collision of the trains.
smallest angle (i.e., z − w) is
How far would the plane have travelled?
(a) 168° (b) 172°
(a) 100 km (b) 1000 km
(c) 128° (d) 212°
(c) 2000 km (d) can’t be determined
18 In the adjoining figure, O is the centre of the circle and PQ ,
11 In the above question (number 10) what is the distance
between the place of accident and the plane at the PR and ST are the three tangents. ∠QPR = 50° , then the
moment of accident of two trains? value of ∠SOT is :
(a) 200 km (b) 250 km Q S
(c) 400 km (d) data insufficient
12 In the given figure ∠B is right C O M 50°
P
angle. AD : BD = 3 : 2 and
CE : BE = 5 : 2 and R T
AF : FC = 1 : 1. What is the area F
(a) 30°
of ∆ABC, if the area of ∆BDE is E
(b) 75°
20 cm2?
(c) 65°
(a) 40 cm2
A D B (d) can’t be determined
(b) 35 cm2
(c) 52.5 cm 2
(d) none of the above 19 The number of points of intersection of the diagonals of a
regular hexagon is :
13 In a triangle ABC with side AB = AC and ∠BAC = 20°, D is
(a) 10 (b) 15
a point on side AC and BC = AD. Find ∠DBC. (c) 18 (d) 19
(a) 50° (b) 45° (c) 65° (d) 70°
Geometry 617

20 In the adjoining figure ABCD, P and R are the mid-points 25 ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral.
of the sides AB and CD. ABCD is a parallelogram. What is The angle bisector of ∠A, ∠B, ∠C D C
the ratio of the shaded to the unshaded region? and ∠D intersect at P , Q , R and S R
R as shown in the figure. These four
D C S
points form a quadrilateral PQRS.
A P Q
Quadrilateral PQRS is a :
Q (a) square (b) rhombus
S B
(c) rectangle
(d) cyclic quadrilateral
A B
P 26 In the adjoining figure the diameter
of the larger circle is 10 cm and the
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3
smaller circle touches internally the O
(c) 1/4 (d) none of these
lager circle at P and passes through
21 In the adjoining figure ABCD is a rectangle. Find the P
O, the centre of the larger circle.
maximum number of rectangles including the largest R
Chord SP cuts the smaller circle at R S
possible rectangle. and OR is equal to 4 cm. What is the
D P R C length of the chord SP?
(a) 9 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 8 2 cm
27 In the given figure ABCD is a cyclic A
E F quadrilateral, DO = 8 cm and CO = 4 cm. B
AC is the angle bisector of ∠BAD. The
length of AD is equal to the length of O
A Q S B AB. DB intersects diagonal AC at O, what
(a) 16 (b) 7 (c) 18 (d) 24 is the length of the diagonal AC ?
D C
(a) 20 cm (b) 24
P Q
22 ABC is an isosceles cm
triangle and AC and BC R (c) 16 cm (d) none of these
are the tangents at M and 28 In the given triangle ABC, the length of A
N respectively. DE is the A D O E B sides AB and AC is same (i.e., b = c) and
diameter of the circle.
60° < A < 90° , then the possible length c b
∠ADP = ∠BEQ = 100°. M N
of BC is :
What is value of ∠PRD? C (a) b < a < 2b
(a) 60° c
B a C
(b) 50° (b) < a < 3a
3
(c) 20° (d) can’t be determined
(c) b < a < b 3
23 In the above question if OC is half of the AB, the value of (d) c < a < c 2
∠ACB is :
29 In the following figure there is a semicircle with centre ‘O’
(a) 60° (b) 90° and diameter AB (= 2 r). PQRS is a square of maximum
(c) 80° (d) can’t be determined possible area. P and Q lie on the diameter AB and R, S lie
24 In the adjoining figure, O is D E on the arc of the semicircle. There are two more squares of
the centre of the circle with maximum possible area EFGP and CDQH. What is the sum
radius r. AB, CD and EF are of lengths of RC and FS?
the diameters of the circle. A B S R
∠OAF = ∠OCB = 60°. What is 60° O
the area of the shaded region? 60°
C
F E D
r2  3 3
(a) π −  F
2 2  C
A G P O Q H B
r2  3 3
(b) π − 
2  4  (a)
2
(2 r) (b)
2 2r
r2  2 3 5 5
(c) π −  2
3  3  (c) r (d) none of these
5
(d) data insufficient
618 QUANTUM CAT
30 In the adjoining figure ∠BAD = a, ∠ABC = b and 34 In the adjoining figure ABC is a right angle triangle, BDEF
∠BCD = c and ∠ADC = d, find the value of ∠ABC in is a square, AE = 7.5 cm and AC = 18 cm. What is the area
terms of a, c and d. of triangle ABC?
A B

D F

C
A E C

B D (a) 76.621 cm 2 (b) 70.054 cm 2

(c) 83.25 cm 2 (d) 90.90 cm 2
(a) c − (a + d ) (b) a − (c + d )
(c) b − (c + d ) (d) none of these 35 There are two congruent triangles each with area 198
31 In the given diagram CT is tangent at C, making an angle of cm 2. Triangle DEF is placed over triangle ABC in such a
π way that the centroids of both the triangles coincide with
with CD. O is the centre of the circle. CD = 10 cm. What is each other and AB || DE , as shown in figure, thus forming a
4
the perimeter of the shaded region (∆AOC ) star . What is the area of the common region PQRSTU ?
approximately?
C D E
A z x
y

O y
x z
B D
A B F
T C
C

(a) 27 cm (b) 30 cm D E
T S
(c) 25 cm (d) 31 cm U R
32 In the given diagram, O is the centre of the circle and AC is P Q
the diameter. ∠ADB is 120°. Radius of the circle is 6 cm, A B
what is the area of the triangle ABC?
F
C (a) 99 cm 2 (b) 132 cm 2
O (c) 148 cm 2 (d) can’t be determined
36 What is the sum of all the angles of a 9 pointed star
A B (i.e., ∠1 + ∠ 2 + ∠ 3 + . . . ∠ 8 + ∠ 9 )?

D (a) 909° (b) 900°

(a) 18 3 cm 2
(b) 24 3 cm 2 (c) 720° (d) 540°
(c) 27 cm 2 (d) data insufficient 37 A circle is circumscribed by a rhombus which in turn is
33 In the given figure ABC is a triangle in which 3AD = CD produced by joining the mid-points of a rectangle whose
sides are 12 cm and16 cm, respectively. What is the area of
and E lies on BD, DE = 2BE . What is the ratio of area of
the circle?
∆ABE and area of ∆ABC ? 625 676
(a) π (b) π
B 26 25
576
(c) π (d) can’t be determined
25
E
38 There are n rectangles each with area 200 cm 2. If the
dimensions of each n rectangles are in integers then the
A D C value of n is :
(a) 4 (b) 6
(a) 1/12 (b) 1/3 (c) 12 (d) none of these
(c) 1/2 (d) none of these
Geometry 619

39 There are 8 points on a plane, out of which 4 points lie on 43 What is the ratio of AB : BR ?
the circumference of the same circle and rest 4 points do (a) 7:5
not lie on a single circumference of a circle and also they (b) 7:6
are non-collinear. Maximum how many circles can be (c) 7 : 10
drawn such that each contains at least three of the given (d) data insufficient
points?
44 What is the ratio of area of ∆APR and ∆BQR ?
(a) 53 (b) 32 (c) 35 (d) 56
C (a) 169 : 36
40 ABC is an isosceles triangle (b) 144 : 25
a circle is such that it passes F (c) 625 : 144
through vertex C and AB (d) can’t be determined
acts as a tangent at D for E
the same circle. AC and BC A 45 If x 2+ y 2 + z 2 = xy + yz + zx , then the triangle is :
D B
intersects the circle at E A
and F respectively AC = BC = 4 cm and AB = 6 cm.
Also D is the mid-point of AB. What is the ratio
of EC : ( AE + AD ) ? z y
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3
(c) 2 : 5 (d) none of these
B
41 A smaller circle touches internally to a B x C
C
larger circle at A and passes through the (a) isosceles (b) right angled
centre of the larger circle. O is the centre (c) equilateral (d) scalene
O
of the larger circle and BA, OA are the
D 46 In the adjoining figure ABCD is a rectangle in which length
diameters of the larger and smaller
circles, respectively. Chord AC is twice of breadth. H and G divide the line CD into three
A equal parts. Similarly points E and F trisect the line AB. A
intersects the smaller circle at a point D.
If AC = 12 cm, then AD is : circle PQRS is circumscribed by a square PQRS which
(a) 4 cm (b) 6 cm passes through the points E , F , G and H . What is the ratio
(c) 5.6 cm (d) data insufficient of areas of circle to that of rectangle?
C S
42 In the given figure ADEC is a
cyclic quadrilateral, CE and D C
AD are extended to meet at B. E H G
∠CAD = 60° and ∠CBA = 30° . P R
BD = 6 cm and CE = 5 3 cm,
60° 30°
What is the ratio of AC : AD ? E F
A D B
3 A B
(a)
4 Q
4
(b)
5 (a) 3π : 7 (b) 3 : 4
2 3 (c) 25 π : 72 (d) 32π : 115
(c)
5 47 In the adjoining figure there are two congruent regular
(d) cant’ be determined hexagons each with side 6 cm.
Directions (for Q. Nos. 43 and 44) In the following diagram A E D E R D
and B are the centres of the two different circles. PQR is a common
tangent. Points A , B , and R lie on the straight line. Distance
between A and B is 25 cm and the distance between P and Q is
F C F C
24 cm. Diameter of the larger circle is 24 cm.
P P Q

A B A B
Q
What is the ratio of area of ∆BDF and ∆PQR, if P , Q and R
A are the mid-points of side AF , BC and DE ?
B R (a) 6 : 5 (b) 7 : 6
(c) 4 : 3 (d) 1 : 1
620 QUANTUM CAT
48 ABCD is a square, in which a circle is inscribed touching all What is the ratio of perimeters of ∆ABC : ∆DEF : ∆PQR ?
the sides of a square. In the four corners of square 4 smaller C
circles of equal radii are drawn, containing maximum
F
possible area. What is the ratio of the area of larger circle
to that of sum of the areas of four smaller circles ? R
D C

P Q
D E
A B

(a) 3 2 : 2 2 : 1
(b) 2 (4 + 3): (2 + 3): 3
A B (c) 2(1 + 3):(2 + 3): 2
(a) 1 :(68 − 48 2) (b) 1 : 17 2 (d) 2(1 + 3): 2 3 : 3
(c) 3 :(34 − 12 2) (d) none of these 52 In the given figure, P and Q are the mid-points of AC and
49 In the adjoining figure ∠ACE is a right angle. There are AB. Also, PG = GR and HQ = HR .
three circles which just touch each other where What is the ratio of area of ∆PQR : area of ∆ABC?
AC and EC are the tangents to all the three circles. What is C
the ratio of radii of the largest circle to that of the smallest
circle? R
G

P
H
A E

B D A Q B
(a) 1/2 (b) 2/3
(c) 3/5 (d) none of these

C 53 A trapezium PQRS inscribes a circle which touches the

circle at M , A, N and B. Radius of circle is 10 cm. The
(a) 17 : 12 2 (b) 1 : (17 − 12 2)
length of each non-parallel side is 21 cm. What is the
(c) 12 : 17 2 (d) none of these perimeter of the trapezium?
50 In a right angle triangle ABC , ∠A is right angle, DE is (a) 82 cm (b) 84 cm
(c) 85.5 cm (d) can’t be determined
parallel to the hypotenuse BC and the length of DE is 65%
the length of BC, what is the area of ∆ADE, if the area of 54 In the given diagram, river PQ is just perpendicular to the
∆ABC is 68 cm 2 ? national highway AB. At a point B highway just turns at
C right angle and reaches to C. PA = 500 m and BQ = 700 m
and width of the uniformly wide river (i.e., PQ) is 300m.
Also BC = 3600 m. A bridge has to be constructed across
E the river perpendicular to its stream in such a way that a
person can reach from A to C via bridge covering least
possible distance. What is the minimum possible required
distance from A to C including the length of the bridge?
A D B A
2 2
(a) 27.83 cm (b) 41.6 cm P
(c) 28.73 cm 2 (d) none of these
Q
51 In the adjoining figure three congruent circles are
touching each other. Triangle ABC circumscribes all the
three circles. Triangle PQR is formed by joining the
centres of the circle. There is a third triangle DEF. Points B 3600 m C
A, D, P and B, E , Q and C , F , R lie in the same straight (a) 4100 m (b) 3900 m
lines respectively. (c) 3000 2 m (d) none of these
Geometry 621

55 In a triangle ABC, AD is the angle bisector of ∠BAC and A

∠BAD = 60°. What is the length of AD ? 3
A 4 X

5
Y Z
c b
1
B C
D
B a C (a) 8 : 25 (b) 9 : 25
(c) 9 : 64 (d) none of these
b+c bc (b + c)2
(a) (b) (c) b2 + c2 (d) 60 In a triangle ABC point D and E lie on the sides AB and AC,
bc b+c bc
respectively. Line segments DC and BE intersect inside the
56 The top of the two parallel towers AB and CD can be triangle at O. The area of ∆BOC = 8 sq. cm, ∆BDO = 7 sq.
accessed through two ladders BC = 210 m and AD = 174 m cm and ∆CEO = 4 sq. cm. Find the area of quadrilateral
such that the foot of each ladder touches the foot of the ADOE.
other building. If there is a tree EF = 70 m somewhere (a) 21 sq. cm (b) 28 sq. cm
between the points A and C, such that the peak of the tree (c) 25 sq. cm (d) 19 sq. cm
F is the point of cross section of the two ladders, wherein 61 In a triangle ABC, the vertex B is connected to a point D on
points A, E and C are collinear, find the horizontal AC and the vertex C is connected to a point E on AB. The
distance AC between the two towers. line segments BD and EC intersect at a point F inside the
B ∆ABC, as shown in the diagram. If the area of ∆BEF , ∆BCF
and ∆CDF are a, b and c respectively. What is the area of
quadrilateral AEFD in terms of a, b, c?
D A
F

A E C d
E
(a) 125 (b) 126 (c) 127 (d) 135 D
F
a c
Directions (for Q. Nos. 57 and 58) Answer the following questions
b
based on the information given below.
In the following triangle ∆ABC , AX : XC = 2 : 3 and the weight B C
at the point Z is 9. ac(a + 2b + c) 2b(a + 2b + c)
(a) (b)
A b2 − ac b2 − ac
2b(a + b + c) abc(a + b + c)
2 (c) (d)
b2 − ac b2 − ac
X
62 In the following triangle ABC, the area of smaller ∆BEF is
3 75 units, ∆BCF is 100 units and ∆FDC is 40 units. Find the
Y Z
area of quadrilateral AEFD.
A
B C

57 Find the weight at point B.

(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
58 Find the value of AY : BY. E
D
(a) 5 : 2 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 5 : 2 (d) 3 : 2 F
75 40
59 In the following triangle ∆ABC, AY : BY = 4 : 1 and 100

AX : CX = 3: 5, where X lies on AC and Y lies on AB and Z

B C
is the point of intersection of BX and CY. Find the value of
BZ : CZ. (a) 125 (b) 135 (c) 145 (d) 90
622 QUANTUM CAT
63 Consider a triangle ABC and let a, b and c denote the 69 In a triangle PQR , S and T lie on PQ and PR, respectively,
lengths of the sides opposite the vertices A, B and C such that ∠QSR = ∠PRQ and ∠QTR = ∠PQR. And,
respectively, where a = 6, b = 10 and the area of the PQ = 12, QR = 9, PR = 15. Find the value of PS × PT .
triangle is 15 3. If ∠ACB is obtuse and r denotes the radius (a) 50.4 (b) 52.64
of the incircle of the triangle, then r2 is equal to (c) 49.75 (d) none of these
(a) 3 (b) 2 3 (c) 3 (d) 4.5 70 In a ∆ABC, AP is the median that intersects QR at O, where
64 Given an isosceles triangle, whose one angle is 120° and Q and R lie on the AB and AC, respectively. 2AQ = 3BQ
radius of its incircle (r) = 3. Then the area of the triangle and 3AR = 4 CR . Find the ratio of area of ∆QOP to that of
in sq. units is ∆ROP.
(a) 7 + 12 3 (b) 12 − 7 3 (c) 12 + 7 3 (d) 4π (a) 21 : 20 (b) 9 : 8 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 16 : 15
65 Let ABC be an arbitrary triangle, and P be any point inside. 1+ 5
Let d1, d2 and d3 denote the perpendicular distances from 71 If ϕ = and the three sides of a triangle are 1, ϕ , ϕ,
2
P to the sides BC , CA and AB, respectively. Let h1, h2 and h3
which one of the following statements is true about this
denote, respectively, the length of the altitude from A, B
triangle?
and C to the opposite sides of the triangle, then
d1 d2 d3 (a) no such triangle exists (b) it’s a right angle triangle
+ + is (c) it’s an isosceles triangle (d) nothing can be said
h1 h2 h3
(a) 3 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) π 72 In an isosceles triangle ABC, the acute angle BAC is 36°.
Point D lies on AC such that BD is the angle bisector of
66 On each side of an arbitrary triangle ABC, an equilateral AB
triangle is constructed (protruding outside) as shown ∠ABC. Find .
BC
below. These equilateral triangles are ABR , BCP and ACQ.
5 −1
Then, which one of the following is CORRECT? (a) 5 : 2 (b)
P 2
1+ 5
(c) (d) none of these
2
B
73 In the following diagram, ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle
R 1+5
whereas ∠B = 72° and AB = BC = 1 unit. If ϕ = ,
O 2
A C which one of following choices is correct for the value of
AC in terms of ϕ.
ϕ −1
(i) 3 − ϕ (ii)
2
(iii) 4 − ϕ2
Q
B
(a) AP + BQ + CR = 2( AB + BC + CA )
(b) AP = BQ = CR
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
67 In a ∆ABC, the points X , Y and Z are on the lines BC , CA A C

and AB. P is a point inside the triangle such that AX , BY (a) all (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) none of (i), (ii) and (iii)
and CZ are concurrent at P if and only if (c) not all but more than one
(d) data insufficient
 AZ   BX   CY   AZ   BZ   CY 
(a)     =1 (b)      =1
 BZ   CX   AY   AY   BX   CX  74 In the following diagram ∆AEB is an isosceles triangle,
 AY   BZ   CY  whereas ∠AEB = 36°, ∠ADB = 54°, ∠ACB = 72°. If
(c)      =1 (d) none of these 1+ 5
 AZ   BX   CX  ϕ= and AB = ϕ, find the E
2
68 In an isosceles right angle triangle the legs AB and BC have ratio of AC : CD : DE .
D
length l = a + b 2 ; where a and b are natural numbers. (a) 1 : ϕ : 1
Point O is inside the triangle such that OA = 1, OB = 2 and (b) 1 : (ϕ − 1): 2
C
a (c) 1 : ϕ : ϕ 2
OC = 3. Find the value of ?
b (d) ϕ : 1 : ϕ
(a) 2.5 (b) 2.33
(c) 2.66 (d) none of these A B
Geometry 623

75 In an isosceles triangle ABC, line B 79 In an isosceles triangle ∆ABC , ∠A = 20° and

segments DE and FG are parallel to AB = AC ≠ BC . Line segment BC is extended to a point F
the base AC intersecting the other two D E
such that point D, point E and point F are collinear,
sides AB and BC. Also given that whereas point D lies on AB and point E lies on AC. If
BD = BE = ϕ and ∠ABC = 36°. If ∠EBC = 40° and ∠DCB = 50°, find the value of x as
F G
DE = EG and FG = GC , find AC in shown in the diagram.
1+ 5 A
terms of ϕ, where ϕ = .
2
A C

20°
(a) (ϕ + 1)2 (b) ϕ 2 + 1
(c) ϕ 2 − 1 (d) ϕ + 1
D
76 In the following figure, AB = AC , BC = CD and E
∠BAC = 36°. If AD = 1 + 5 cm, find the area of the
shaded region (in sq. cm).
A 40° 50° x°
B C F
(a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 10
80 In a square ABCD, a quadrilateral, P is the midpoint at BC
and Q is the midpoint at AB. Line segments AP and DQ
D intersect each other at O. Find the ratio of the areas of two
quadrilaterals QBPO and OPCD.
D C
B C

(a) 5 + 2 5 (b) 2 3 + 5
(c) 2 7 − 2 5 (d) none of these
P
77 In the following figure ∆BAC A
and ∆BAD are isosceles O
triangles, such that AB = AC
and AD = BD. If ∠ABC = 36° A Q B
B D C
and BD = ( 5 − 1) cm, find
the area of the ∆ABD (in sq. cm). (a) 9 : 25 (b) 4 : 9
(a) 5 − 2 5 (b) 2 3 − 5 (c) 4 : 11 (d) 16 : 25
1 81 In the following diagram, each side of the square ABCD is
(c) 7−2 5 (d) none of these trisected such that DK || HL || GB and IC || JF || AE , where
2
all the parallel lines are equispaced. If the area of the
78 In the following diagram find the value of ∠DEA. Please smallest triangle such as ∆DIP is 1 unit, what is the area of
note that the diagram is not drawn to scale. However, the
quadrilateral MNOP?
measure of angles stated there are absolutely correct.
C D H G C
O
P
I F
E
x
D
J E
20
° N
30

M
°

60° 50°
A B A K L B

(a) 10 (b) 20 (a) 21 units (b) 24 units

(c) 30 (d) data insufficient (c) 27 units (d) 32 units
624 QUANTUM CAT
82 Each side of a square ABCD is divided in the ratio 1 : 4, as 86 Consider the following diagram in which ~ ABCD is a
shown in the following diagram. What is the ratio of area rhombus and AF = EF = EC . A circle is inscribed in
of square JKLM to that of square ABCD? quadrilateral AECF and a circle is inscribed in
D C quadrilateral ABCD. Each of the circles is of the largest
L possible area.
G M
A B

K E E
J Q
A H B F

(a) 8 : 13 (b) 16 : 25 D C
(c) 8 : 15 (d) 11 : 20
Find the ratio of the area of circle that lies in ~ AECF to
83 In the following figure, each side of the square is divided the area of the circle inscribed in ~ ABCD.
DG AH BE CF 2
in the ratio 2 : 3, such that = = = = . Find (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 3
GA HB EC FD 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) data insufficient
the ratio of the area of square PQRS to that of square
87 Area of the trapezium ABCD is 350 sq. cm and AB = 21 cm,
ABCD.
CD = 49 cm. The two diagonals bisect each other at O, find
D F C the area of ∆AOD.
R A B
G S O

E
Q
D C
P
(a) 75 sq. cm (b) 73.5 sq. cm
A H B
(c) 72.5 sq. cm (d) data insufficient
(a) 4 : 9 (b) 9 : 25 88 Let ABCD be a quadrilateral with area 18, with side AB
(c) 9 : 29 (d) 32 : 73 parallel to the side CD and AB = 2CD. Let AD be
AQ DP 4 perpendicular to AB and CD. If a circle is drawn inside the
84 In the given square ABCD, = = . Find the ratio of quadrilateral ABCD touching all the four sides, then its
QD PC 1
radius is :
area of triangle AOQ to that of quadrilateral OBCP.
(a) 3 (b) 2
A B 3
(c) (d) 1
2
89 In the following diagram ABCD is a square. The mid-points
P , Q , R , S are connected in such a way that two congruent
O kites SAPC and CRAQ are formed. Area of each kite is 200
sq. cm. Find the area of common region contained by the
Q two kites.
A P B
D P C

(a) 16 : 25 (b) 16 : 41
(c) 24 : 75 (d) 32 : 73 Q
85 A quadrilateral has one vertex on each side of a square of S
side-length 1. If the lengths of the quadrilateral are
a, b, c, d, then
(a) 2 ≤ a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 ≤ 4 D R C
(b) 1 ≤ a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 ≤ 4 (a) 100 sq. cm (b) 96 sq. cm
(c) 2 ≤ a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 ≤ 4 (c)
400
sq. cm (d) none of these
3
(d) 2 2 ≤ a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 ≤ 4
Geometry 625
P
90 Each of the sides of a quadrilateral is a natural number and 96 A few of the sides of a regular
the perimeter of the quadrilateral is always 12 units. Find pentagon are extended in such a way
the number of combinations of various lengths of the sides that it forms an isosceles triangle as
of the quadrilateral. shown in the given diagram. If the
(a) 8 (b) 10 perimeter of the pentagon is 10 cm,
(c) 5 (d) none of these what is the perimeter of the isosceles
91 If the side of a regular pentagon be 2 cm, find the triangle PQR?
circumradius of the pentagon, in cm. (a) 7 + 5 5 cm
3+ 5 3+ 5 (b) 11 + 5 5 cm Q R
(a) (b)
5+ 2 5 10 − 2 5 (c) 16 cm
3− 5 3+ 2 5 (d) 16 + 3 5 cm
(c) (d)
10 − 2 5 5+ 2 5 97 In the following figure, if the area of the shaded region
 7 − 3 5
92 In a regular pentagon the side measures 6 cm and sum of (the smaller pentagon) is   sq. cm, find the area
 2 
the inradius and circumradius is 9 cm. Find the sum of the
of the larger regular pentagon.
area of the circumcircle and the area of the incircle of the
pentagon.
(a) 41 π cm 2 (b) 45 π cm 2
(c) 53 π cm 2 (d) data insufficient

Directions (for Q. Nos. 93 and 94) Answer the following

questions based on the information given below.
In the following diagram the larger pentagon constitutes a
smaller pentagon at the centre. Each side of the larger pentagon  47 − 21 5
(a) 1 sq. cm (b)   sq. cm
is known to be S.  2 
 7 + 3 5
(c)   sq. cm (d) none of these
 2 

98 In the following figure when all the

five diagonals of a regular pentagon
are drawn they form another small
pentagon at the centre which is
shown as a shaded region. If each
93 What would be the side of the smaller pentagon?
side of the larger (original)
(3 − 5)
(a) (6 − 2 5) S (b) S pentagon measures
2
5+1
(5 − 2 5) 1 inch, and ϕ = , find the ratio of the area of larger
(c) S (d) none of these 2
2
pentagon to the area of smaller pentagram in terms of ϕ.
94 What would be the diagonal of the smaller pentagon?
(a) ϕ 2 : 1 (b) ϕ 4 : 1
3( 5 − 2)
(a) (7 − 2 5) S (b) S (c) 1 : ϕ (d) 2 : ϕ
2
( 5 − 1) 99 In the given figure the diagonals of a
(c) S (d) none of these pentagon form another pentagon,
2
and the diagonals of this pentagon
95 A few of the sides of a regular pentagon are extended in
form another pentagon, and then
such a way that it forms an isosceles triangle as shown in
once again the diagonals of this
the given diagram. If the perimeter of the pentagon is
pentagon form another pentagon at
10 cm, what is the perimeter of the isosceles triangle APQ ?
the centre. If the each side of the
A
smallest pentagon is 1 unit and
E B
1+ 5
ϕ= , find each side of the largest (original)
2
P D C Q pentagon in terms of ϕ.
(a) 10 + 4 5 cm (b) 12 + 5 5 cm (a) 4ϕ 4 (b) ϕ 4
(c) 16 cm (d) 14 + 4 5 cm (c) ϕ 8 (d) ϕ 6
626 QUANTUM CAT
100 A larger regular pentagon contains 6 104 In the given diagram, there are total seven regular
smaller pentagons of the same size, as hexagons. Let’s call the outermost (or the largest)
shown in the following diagram. If hexagon as H1and so call the innermost (or the smallest)
each side of each of the congruent hexagon as H7 . The hexagon H 2 is formed by joining the
pentagons is 1 cm, find the total area mid-points of the adjacent sides of H1. Similarly,
A (in sq. cm) covered by the larger H 3, H 4, H 5, H 6 and H7 are formed by joining the
pentagon. mid-point of the adjacent sides of the H 2, H 3, H 4, H 5 and
(a) 10 < A < 11 (b) 11 < A < 12 H 6, respectively. If each side of the H1 is 64 cm, find the
(c) 12 < A < 13 (d) 13 < A < 14 each side of the H7 .
101 In the following figure a regular pentagon inscribes a
regular pentagram. If each side of the pentagon measures
5+1
1 mm, and ϕ = , find the area of pentagram in terms
2
of ϕ.

(a) 27 cm (b) 9 3 cm
(c) 18 3 cm (d) none of these
105 In the given figure there are twelve
rhombi placed in such a way that they
form a regular hexagram at the centre
1 1 and this hexagram is inscribed within
(a) (2 − ϕ )3/ 2 sq. mm (b) (2 − ϕ )3/ 2 sq. mm a regular hexagon. If the area of the
2 4
1 3 hexagon is 84 sq. cm, find the total
(c) (3 − ϕ )3/ 2 sq. mm (d) (3 − ϕ )3/ 2 sq. mm area of all the twelve rhombi.
2 2
102 In the following diagram a regular (a) 56 sq. cm (b) 72
decagon consists of 10 parallelograms, sq. cm
out of which 5 parallelograms that are (c) 104 sq. cm (d) none of these
meeting at the centre are congruent to 106 As shown in the given figure,
each other and other 5 parallelograms there are total seven regular
at the edges of the decagon are hexagons; six of them are placed
congruent to each other. If each side of around the seventh hexagon,
the decagon is 1 + 5 cm, find total area of the
partially overlapping, and then
5 parallelograms that are connected to the centre of the
some rhombi are cut out of the
decagon.
whole arrangement. If the area
(a) 5(1 + 5)( 25 − 2 5) sq. cm
of the unshaded region
(b) 15( 25 + 4 5 ) sq. cm represented by the 12 rhombi is 84 sq. cm, find the area of
(c) 5(1 + 5)( 5 + 2 5) sq. cm the shaded region.
(a) 420 sq. cm
(d) 5(6 + 2 5)( 1 + 5 ) sq. cm (b) 484 sq. cm
103 Take seven circles and close-pack them together in a (c) 488 sq. cm
hexagonal arrangement, as shown below. Then a rubber (d) none of the above
band is wrapped around the seven circles. Find the 107 If the area of all the shaded
perimeter of this arrangement, if the radius of each circle equilateral triangles of the
is r cm. largest possible size, as shown
along the periphery of the
regular hexagon, is
6 3 sq cm, then find the total
area of the shaded region of the
whole figure.
(a) 18 3 sq. cm
(a) 2(6 + π )r (b) 3(4 + π )r (b) 36 sq. cm
(c) 6(2 + π )r (d) none of these (c) 24 3 sq. cm
(d) none of the above
Geometry 627

108 There are seven concentric 112 In the given diagram, a regular
regular hexagons depicted in the octagon is inscribed in a circle in
adjacent figure such that they which four diagonals are connecting
form a six alternating black and the opposite vertices of the octagon.
white hexagonal rings around a After that a square is formed by
black hexagon. If the area of each connecting the alternate vertices of
hexagonal ring is same and equal the octagon then another square is
to the black hexagon at the formed by joining the mid-points of the first square and
centre, find the ratio of the sides of the largest hexagon to then finally another square is formed by joining the
that of the smallest hexagon of this arrangement. mid-points of the previous square. This square is shown as
(a) 7 : 1 (b) 1 : 7 the shaded region. If the area of the shaded region is 1 sq.
(c) 6 : 1 (d) none of these cm, find the difference between the area of the circle and
area of the octagon.
109 In the following diagram, if the two shorter diagonals AC (a) 2(π − 2 2) sq. cm (b) (2π − 3 2) sq. cm
and BD intersect at P inside the regular heptagon and AD (c) (3π − 4 2) sq. cm (d) 4(π − 2 2) sq. cm
is one of the longer diagonals, which one of the following
is correct? 113 In the given figure a quadrilateral is
F formed by joining the alternate
vertices of a regular octagon. If
G E the area of the octagon be 2( 2 − 1) sq
cm, find the area of the square.
2+ 2 2+ 2
A D (a) (b)
3− 2 2 2+1
P
(c) 3 − 2 2 (d) 2( 2 − 1)
B C 114 In the given figure, a concave equilateral
(a) 2( AB + AP ) = 3AD (b) AB + BP = AD octagon has each of its four acute
(c) AB + BD = AD + BP (d) 3( AB + AP ) = 2AD internal angles equal to 30° and each of
110 In the following diagram, d1, d2 are the two distinct the two longer diagonals is 20 cm.
Find the area of the octagon, if the
diagonals and s is the side of the regular polygon
diagonals connecting the opposite
ABCDEFG. Find the correct relation among the side and
vertices are perpendicular and bisect each other.
the two diagonals.
200 100
E (a) ( 3 − 1) (b) ( 3 − 1)
3 3
F D 200 200
(c) ( 3 − 2) (d) (3 − 3)
3 3
d2
G C 115 In the given figure, there are 4 black and four white
rhombi connected in such a way that one of their vertices
d1 is common and they share two of their sides with the
A S B rhombi of the either side without any overlapping. Each of
d s 1 1 1 the eight rhombi is congruent to each other. The total area
(a) 2 = (b) = −
s d1 s d2 d1 of all the black rhombi (or shaded region) is 8 sq cm, find
d d 1 1 1 the area of the smallest possible octagon in which the
(c) 2 = 1 (d) = +
d1 s s d1 d2 following figure can be inscribed as it is.

111 Neither it’s the longest one nor it’s the shortest one of the
lengths of the diagonal of an octagon you know is d and
each side of the same octagon is s, find the area of the
octagon in terms of the side and the known diagonal of the
regular octagon.
(a) 3d 2 − 3s 2
(b) d 2 − s 2
(c) 2ds
(a) 8(2 + 2) cm2 (b) 8 ( 4 − 2 ) cm2
(d) both (b) and (c)
(c) 8(4 − 2) cm2 (d) 8 ( 2 + 2 ) cm2
628 QUANTUM CAT
Directions (for Q. Nos. 116 to 121) Answer the following 127 If each side of a regular dodecagon is 1 cm, find the third
questions based on the information given below. smallest diagonal of the dodecagon.
The side of a regular decagon is 2 cm. (a) 2 + 3+ 2 cm (b) 3 2 + 3 cm
116 Find the circumradius of the decagon. (c) 2 3 − 2 cm (d) both (a) and (b)
(a) 1 + 5 cm (b) − 1 + 5 cm 128 In the following figure of regular dodecagon find the area
(c) 2 + 3 cm (d) none of these of all the four kites, where each of the four kites has two
117 Find the apothem of the decagon. unequal diagonals and the side of each square, each
(a) 5 + 2 5 cm (b) 2 5 − 5 cm triangle and each kite is 1 cm.

(c) 2 5 + 5 cm (d) 1 + 5 cm
118 Find the longest possible diagonal of the decagon.
(a) 4(1 + 5) cm (b) 2(1 − 5) cm
(c) 2(2 + 5) cm (d) 2(1 + 5) cm
119 Find the second longest diagonal of the decagon.
(a) 5 + 2 5 cm (b) 2 5 + 2 5 cm
(a) 2 sq. cm (b) 2 2 sq. cm
(c) 4 + 2 5 cm (d) 10 + 4 5 cm (c) 2 + 3 sq. cm (d) none of these
120 Find the third longest diagonal of the decagon. 129 If each side of a regular dodecagon is 1 cm, find the second
(a) 2 + 5 cm (b) 6 − 5 cm longest diagonal of the dodecagon.
(c) 3 + 5 cm (d) 9 − 2 5 cm
(a) 2 + 3+ 3 cm (b) 2 + 3 cm
121 Find the third shortest diagonal of the decagon.
(c) 2 + 3 cm (d) both (a) and (c)
(a) 10 + 2 5 cm (b) 12 5 cm
130 If each side of a regular dodecagon is 1 cm, find the
(c) 5 + 4 5 cm (d) 15 − 2 5 cm longest diagonal of the dodecagon.
122 In the given diagram, some diagonals (a) 2 2 + 3 cm (b) 6 − 3 3 cm
of a regular decagon are intersecting
(c) 2 3 − 2 cm (d) 3 + 2 cm
such that they form another small
decagon inside the original decagon. If 131 In the following figure 12 rhombi are joined in such a way
each side of the larger decagon be 2 that they have a common vertex, without overlapping
cm, find the side of the smaller each other, and every rhombus shares two of its sides with
decagon. the adjacent rhombi, as shown below. Find the area of the
2 5 following figure, if its perimeter is 24 cm.
(a) cm (b) 2 5 − 3 cm
3
(c) 5 − 1 cm (d) 1 cm
123 If each side of a regular dodecagon is 1 cm, find the area of
the dodecagon.
(a) 12 sq. cm (b) 6 + 3 3 sq. cm
(c) 12 3 sq. cm (d) none of these
124 If each side of a regular dodecagon is 1 cm, find the second (a) 6 sq. cm (b) 4 sq. cm
smallest diagonal of the dodecagon.
(c) 8 sq. cm (d) data insufficient
(a) 3 2 − 2 sq. cm (b) 3 + 1 sq. cm
132 In the given figure, a square
(c) 2 3 + 1 sq. cm (d) none of these
inscribes a dodecagon and each side
125 If each side of a regular dodecagon is 1 cm, find the of the regular dodecagon is 1 cm.
circumradius of the dodecagon. The dodecagon consists of 12
(a) 2 + 3 cm (b) 3 3 cm equilateral triangles and 12 rhombi.
(c) 1 + 2 3 cm (d) none of these What is the ratio of area of
dodecagon and the area of square?
126 If each side of a regular dodecagon is 1 cm, find the 3 13
smallest diagonal of the dodecagon. (a) (b)
4 16
(a) 2 + 3 cm (b) 6 − 3 3 cm 7 7
(c) (d)
8 10
(c) 2 3 − 2 cm (d) 3 + 2 cm
Geometry 629

133 The following figure consists of two concentric 138 In the following figure, BC and RP are tangents to the
dodecagons. Find the ratio of area of smaller (interior) same circle with centre O and its diameter AB. Points R
dodecagon to that of larger (exterior) dodecagon. and S are the points on the tangent BC, such that AS passes
through Q, where RP touches the circle.
A P

O
Q

B R S C
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 4
Which of the following is necessarily a correct relations?
(c) 1 : 6 (d) none of these
(a) RS = QS (b) BR = RS
134 You have a regular hexagonal paper sheet and you are (c) AB = 2AQ (d) none of these
asked to make a regular dodecagon by cutting off the
139 In the concerned diagrams,
corners of the hexagonal sheet. If each side of the regular
chords AB and CD are parallel
hexagonal sheet is 1 ft, minimum how much area of the
and radius OR bisects the
sheet you would have to cut off? O
chord AB at P and CD at Q.
 63 3   21 3  A S P B
(a)  − 36 ft (b)  − 18 ft Radius OC when extended to
 2   2  a point T in order to meet the
C
Q
D

 25 3  tangent TR it intersects the T

(c)  − 6 ft (d) none of these chord AB at S. If
R
 4 
OP : OS = 8 : 17, find OC : OT
135 Two parallel chords of a circle of radius 2 are at a distance (a) 9 : 17 (b) 8 : 15
3 + 1 apart. If the chords subtend, at the center, angles of (c) 17 : 23 (d) none of these
π 2π
and , where k > 0. If k denotes the largest integer 140 Consider the following figure in which OA = OB = AB.
k k
less than or equal to k, the values of k is Chord AB is the longest possible chord of the smaller circle
(a) 1 (b) 2 and O is the centre of the larger circle. Find the area of the
(c) 3 (d) 6 shaded region, if the radius of the smaller circle is 6 cm.

136 The centers of two circles C1 and C 2, each of unit radii, are
at a distance of 6 units from each other. Let P be the
mid-point of the line segment joining the centers of C1 and O
C 2. A third circle C is drawn such that it is externally
tangent to both the circles C1 and C 2 at the same points
where the lines passing through P are tangent to the A B
circles C1 and C 2. The radius of the circle C is
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 6 2 (d) 4 2 (a) 6(π + 3 3) sq. cm (b) 4(π + 3 3 sq. cm
137 In the given diagram PQ is parallel to RS. For PQ > OP , (c) 6(π + 2 3) sq. cm (d) can’t be determined
when ∠POQ and ∠OPQ have integral values, find the 141 In the following figure ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle,
greatest possible value of OPQ. where AB = AC and BC = 2 2 cm. CD is perpendicular on
the diameter AB which intersects the circle at E. Find BE.
R S A

O
D

P Q E
C
B
(a) 119 (b) 61
(c) 59 (d) 58 5
(a) 2 cm (b) cm (c) 2.16 cm (d) 1.67 cm
2
630 QUANTUM CAT
142 Two parallel chords in a circle have lengths 12 and 24, and 146 In the given figure, the perpendicular bisector AD of
the distance between them is 18. The chord parallel to the equilateral triangle ABC is same as the diameter of
these chords and midway between them is of length a the circle O, and the circle intersects the sides AB and AC
where a is at P and Q, respectively. If the height of the triangle be
(a) 676 (b) 756 12 2 cm, find CQ.
(c) 576 (d) 720 A
143 ABCD is a square of area 16 sq. cm and AB is the diameter
of the semicircle. The line segments CP and DQ intersect at
R and touch the semicircle. Find the area of ∆DRC.
A B
P Q
P Q
B D C

(a) 24(π + 3) sq. cm (b) 12(2π + 3 3) sq. cm

R
(c) 12(4π + 5 3) sq. cm (d) none of these

D C 147 There are two concentric circles centered at O. Their radii

are 21 cm and 29 cm. AB is the diameter of the larger circle
(a) 3 sq. cm (b) 2 sq. cm and BC is the tangent to the smaller circle at C. Find AC.
(c) 2.5 sq. cm (d) 5 sq. cm
144 In the following figure, a circle of radius 40 mm A
is inscribed in a square ABCD in which M is the mid-point
ofAB. If the line segment MC intersects the circle at P, find O
PC.
A M B B
C

(a) 49.66 cm
(b) 46.52 cm
(c) 54.54 cm
P (d) can’t be determined
148 Let there be a circle with centre O and radius r, such that
D C
the four points A, B, C and D are cyclic while AC and BD
are the two chords intersecting each other perpendicularly
(a) 8 5 mm (b) 8 10 mm
at a point P somewhere inside the circle. If A, B, C and D
16
(c) 6 5 mm (d) mm are variable points and OP = d, find the maximum and
5
minimum area of the quadrilateral ABCD.
145 In the given figure, the perpendicular bisector AD of the (a) 4r2 and 2r r2 − d 2
equilateral triangle ABC is same as the diameter of the
circle O, and the circle intersects the sides AB and AC at P (b) 4d 2 and r2 r2 − d 2
and Q, respectively.
(c) 2r2 and r2 r2 − d 2
If the heigh of the triangle be 10 2 cm, find CQ.
A (d) 2r2 and 2r r2 − d 2

149 There are two circles C1 and C 2 of radii r1 and r2,

respectively. They are mutually tangent to each other and
to a line as well. There is one more circle of radius r3 which
P Q is tangent to this line and the first two circles C1 and C 2.
What is the relation between the three radii r1, r2 and r3?
B D C 1 1 1 r r 1
(a) − = (b) 1 + 2 =
r1 r2 r3 r2 r1 r3
(a) 3 cm (b) 6 cm
1 1 1
(c) 4 cm (d) 5 cm (c) = + (d) none of these
r3 r1 r2
Geometry 631

150 Two equal circles with centers 153 In the following diagram there
P and Q are tangent at O. A are four circles A, B, C and D D C
P O Q
common line is tangent to packed in a circle P. The radius
B C
both the circles at M and N of the circumscribing circle P is 1
respectively. Point B lies on cm. Circles A and B are tangent A B
M A D N P
the arc OM and point C lies on at P, the centre of the
the arc ON . Points A and D lie on the tangent MN. If the circumscribing circle. Circle D is
radius of each circle is r and each side of the square ABCD tangent to circles A, C and P.
is x, find x. Find the radius of the circle D.
(a) 0.25r (b) 0. 3r 1 1
(a) cm (b) cm
(c) 0. 33r (d) none of these 6 2
151 In the following diagram four circles are tangent to every 2 1
(c) cm (d) cm
other circle. The radius of each of the circles A, B and C is 15 8
1. Find the radius of circle D, which is tangent to all the 154 There are three circles, with radii 1 cm, 2 cm and 3 cm,
three given circles and lies at the centre. tangent to each other. Find the radius of the fourth circle,
which is tangent to all the existing circles.
23
(a) 6 cm (b) cm
A 6
6
(c) cm (d) both (a) and (c)
23
D
155 In the following diagram, a semicircle of radius r inscribes
B C two semicircles, which are tangent to each other at a point
B on the diameter AC of the larger semicircle. Then there
is a full circle inscribed in the remaining area, which is
1 1 1 tangent to all the three existing semicircles. Find the
(a) (b) (c) 2 3 − 3 (d) 1
3+ 2 3 3− 2 3 3− 2 2 radius of this full circle, if the diameter AB = cm and
3
152 In the following diagram there are three circles packed in 2
BC = cm.
another circle, such that each circle is tangent to all other 3
circles in this arrangement. The radius of the
circumscribing circle A is 1 cm; and circle B and circle C
are congruent. Find the radius of the circle D.

D
A B C
1
B C (a) cm
A 7
1
(b) cm
9
2
1 1 2 3 (c) cm
(a) cm (b) cm (c) cm (d) cm 15
4 3 5 10 (d) none of these
 QUANTUM CAT
TEST OF LEARNING
π vertices of the newly created
1 Let ABC be a triangle such that ∠ACB = and let a, b and c
6 central pentagon we form
denote the lengths of sides opposite A, B and C another set of 10 pentagons.
respectively. Find the values of x for which Thus we can see there are four
a = ( x 2 + x + 1), b = ( x 2 − 1) and c = (2x + 1). sizes of pentagons – one is the
(a) − (2 + 3), (2 + 3) original size, second one is at the
(b) − (2 + 3), (2 − 3) centre, the third ones are
sharing the respective edges of
(c) (− 2 + 3), (1 + 3)
the original pentagon and the fourth ones are the smallest
(d) − (2 + 3), (1 + 3) in size. If each edge of the smallest shaded pentagon is
2 Let a, b and c be the sides of a triangle. No two of them are 2 cm, what is the total area of all the shaded pentagonal
equal and λ ∈ R. If the roots of the equation regions?
x2 + 2 (a + b + c)x + 3 λ (ab + bc + ca ) = 0 (a) ( 5(5 + 2 5))(16 + 4 5) cm 2
are real, then (b) ( 5(5 − 2 5))(4 + 15 5) cm 2
4 5
(a) λ < (b) λ >
3 3 (c) ( 5(5 + 2 5))(4 + 15 5) cm 2
1 5 4 5 (d) none of the above
(c) < λ < (d) < λ <
3 3 3 3 8 In the following figure A, B, C and D are the four vertices
3 Which of the following best describes the value of k, if a, b of the square and E , F , G and H are the four mid-points of
and c are the lengths of the sides of the triangle and the sides of the square ABCD. If each side of the square be
a2 + b2 + c2 a, then how many of the following statements are correct
k= ? about the octagon formed at the centre by joining the
ab + bc + ca
mid-points with the opposite vertices?
(a) 1 ≤ k < 2 (b) 0 ≤ k < 2
9 D E C
(c) 0 < k < (d) 1 ≤ k ≤ 2
8
C
4 In a triangle ABC, the median AA′
and BB′ are perpendicular to each H F
other. Let BC = a, AC = b and A′
AB = c, which of the following B′
is/are true?
(a) 5c2 = a2 + b2 A G B
a
(b) < b < 2a A B (i) It’s an equiangular octagon
2
(ii) It’s an equilateral octagon
(c) a < b < 2a
(iii) It’s a regular octagon
(d) both (a) and (b)
5a
(iv) It’s each side is
5 In a right angle triangle, x and y are the perpendicular 12
sides and z is the hypotenuse. Find the minimum value a
(v) It’s each side is
z z 2( 4 + 2 2 )
of + .
x y (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
1
(a) 2 + 2 (b) (c) 3 2 − 2 3 (d) 2 2 9 A straight line through the vertex of a triangle PQR
2 2
intersects the side QR at the point S and the circumcircle of
6 In a triangle ABC, the median BD yields ∠BDC = 45° and the triangle PQR at the point T . If S is not the centre of the
∠ABD = ∠BCD = x °. Find the value of x. circumcircle, then
(a) 45° (b) 30° 1 1 2 1 1 2
(i) + < (ii) + >
(c) 60° (d) none of these PS ST QS × SR PS ST QS × SR
7 In the following diagram a regular pentagon is intersected 1 1 4 1 1 4
by various diagonals forming another pentagon at the (iii) + < (iv) + >
PS ST QS PS ST QR
center, then by drawing parallel lines to the sides of the (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
original pentagon while making them pass through the (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
Geometry 633

10 Let ABCD be a square of side length 2 units. Let C1 be the 14 In the following diagram a semicircle with centre O
incircle and C 2 be the circumcircle of the square ABCD. If P inscribes two semicircles with centers P and Q, which are
is a point on C1 and Q is a point on C 2, the value of tangent to each other at a point B on the diameter AC of
PA 2 + PB 2 + PC 2 + PD 2 the larger semicircle. AB = p and BC = q are the diameters
is of the inscribed semicircles, respectively. A perpendicular
QA 2 + QB 2 + QC 2 + QD 2
BD is drawn from D to B. D is a point on the largest
(a) 0.75 (b) 1.25 (c) 1 (d) 0.5
semicircle. There are two circles with centre M and N
11 In a circle with centre O, the diameter PY is perpendicular inscribed on the different sides of BD such that these
to chord AB, as shown in the following figure. Find the circles are tangent to BD as well as tangent to an inscribed
correct relation between DX and CY. semicircle and the largest semicircle. If the radii of these
P circles M and N be m and n, respectively, which of the
Z followings is/are correct?
D

O M
N
X C
A B

D Y A P O B Q C

(a) XD ≥ CY (b) XD ≤ CY (i) m > n (ii) m = n

(c) XD = CY (d) Can’t be determined (iii) m < n (iv) m + n =
2pq
12 In the following diagram, a circle of p+ q
radius 1/3 unit is internally tangent (a) only (i) is correct (b) only (iii) is correct
to another circle of radius 1/4 unit. (c) (ii) and (iv) are correct (d) none of these
The region between these two 15 There are three circles inscribed in a triangle such that
circles is shaded in black. Within each circle is tangent to the other two circles and the two
the shaded region there are sides of the triangle. Let r1, r2 and r3 be the radii or circles
numerous circles inscribed in such C1, C 2 and C 3, find the inradius of the triangle inscribing
a way that each such triangle is these three circles.
tangent to at least 3 other triangles. If there are total
25 circles drawn in the shaded region, while maintaining
the symmetricity, find the sum of curvatures of all the C1
25 circles.
(a) 2500 (b) 1600 (c) 1444 (d) 1786 C2 C3

13 A circle C1 with diameter 1/25 cm is tangent to X-axis at

(2/5, 0) and the other circle with diameter 1/49 cm is r1r2r3
tangent to X-axis at (3/7, 0). Moreover, these two circles (a)
r1 + r2 + r3 − 2 r1 + r2 + r3
are on the same side of X-axis and tangent to each other.
There is another circle C 3 which is tangent to both of these 2 r1r2r3
(b)
circles and tangent to X-axis. Find, the distance between r1 + r2 + r3 − 3 r1 + r2 + r3
the Y-axis and the point of tangent of the circle C 3 on
2 r1r2r3
X-axis. (c)
26 57 17 35 r1 + r2 + r3 − r1 + r2 + r3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
35 144 36 84 (d) none of the above
634 QUANTUM CAT
Answers
Introductory Exercise 12.1
1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (d) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (b) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (b) 17 (b) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (c) 28 (c) 29 (a) 30 (b)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (a) 34 (c) 35 (a) 36 (b) 37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (b) 40 (a)
41 (c) 42 (c) 43 (a) 44 (b) 45 (b)

Introductory Exercise 12.2

1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (d) 9 (b) 10 (b)
11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (b) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (d) 20 (b)
21 (a) 22 (d) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (c) 27 (c) 28 (a) 29 (a) 30 (b)
31 (c) 32 (c) 33 (d) 34 (d) 35 (a) 36 (d) 37 (b) 38 (d) 39 (c) 40 (d)
41 (c) 42 (a) 43 (c) 44 (c) 45 (b) 46 (c) 47 (a) 48 (a) 49 (c) 50 (c)
51 (a) 52 (a) 53 (a) 54 (c) 55 (a) 56 (a) 57 (a) 58 (b) 59 (b) 60 (c)
61 (c) 62 (b) 63 (c) 64 (b) 65 (b) 66 (c) 67 (c) 68 (a) 69 (d) 70 (a)
71 (b) 72 (c) 73 (c) 74 (a) 75 (b) 76 (c) 77 (c) 78 (b) 79 (c) 80 (d)
81 (b) 82 (b) 83 (a) 84 (c) 85 (b) 86 (c) 87 (a) 88 (d) 89 (c) 90 (b)
91 (d) 92 (c) 93 (c) 94 (c) 95 (b) 96 (c) 97 (b) 98 (a) 99 (b) 100 (d)
101 (c) 102 (c) 103 (d) 104 (a) 105 (a) 106 (c) 107 (c)

Introductory Exercise 12.3

1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (c) 19 (a) 20 (a)
21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (a) 25 (b) 26 (a) 27 (a) 28 (b) 29 (d) 30 (a)

Introductory Exercise 12.4

1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (d) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (c) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (d)

Introductory Exercise 12.5

1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (d) 15 (c) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (c) 19 (a) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (c) 25 (b) 26 (b) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (c) 30 (b)
31 (b) 32 (b) 33 (c) 34 (c) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (b) 40 (b)
41 (c) 42 (d) 43 (a) 44 (b) 45 (a) 46 (a) 47 (c) 48 (d) 49 (a) 50 (c)
51 (b) 52 (b) 53 (d) 54 (a) 55 (c) 56 (b) 57 (a) 58 (d) 59 (c) 60 (c)
61 (b) 62 (a) 63 (b) 64 (c) 65 (d) 66 (b) 67 (a) 68 (c) 69 (a) 70 (b)
Geometry 635

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise

1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (d) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (a) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (b) 20 (b)
21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (c) 24 (c) 25 (b) 26 (b) 27 (c) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30 (d)
31 (c) 32 (d) 33 (c) 34 (b) 35 (c) 36 (c) 37 (a) 38 (d) 39 (b) 40 (b)
41 (a) 42 (a) 43 (b) 44 (b) 45 (c) 46 (a) 47 (c) 48 (a) 49 (c) 50 (d)
51 (c) 52 (a) 53 (c) 54 (b) 55 (a) 56 (d) 57 (a) 58 (c) 59 (c) 60 (b)
61 (b) 62 (b) 63 (b) 64 (c) 65 (c) 66 (b) 67 (d) 68 (a) 69 (b) 70 (d)
71 (a) 72 (c) 73 (d) 74 (a) 75 (b) 76 (c) 77 (b) 78 (b) 79 (c) 80 (b)
81 (d) 82 (a) 83 (c) 84 (c) 85 (d) 86 (d) 87 (b) 88 (a) 89 (d) 90 (c)
91 (d) 92 (c) 93 (c) 94 (d) 95 (d) 96 (c) 97 (c) 98 (d) 99 (d) 100 (a)
101 (d) 102 (c) 103 (a) 104 (c) 105 (d) 106 (b) 107 (d) 108 (a) 109 (d) 110 (a)
111 (d) 112 (c) 113 (a) 114 (d) 115 (a) 116 (c) 117 (d) 118 (a) 119 (d) 120 (c)
121 (c) 122 (a) 123 (d) 124 (a) 125 (b) 126 (d) 127 (d) 128 (c) 129 (c) 130 (a)
131 (a) 132 (a) 133 (c) 134 (a) 135 (a) 136 (a) 137 (a) 138 (a) 139 (c) 140 (a)
141 (d) 142 (c) 143 (d) 144 (a) 145 (d) 146 (d) 147 (c) 148 (c) 149 (b) 150 (d)

Level 02 Higher Level Exercise

1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (b) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (d) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (b) 16 (a) 17 (a) 18 (c) 19 (d) 20 (b)
21 (c) 22 (c) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (a) 28 (d) 29 (a) 30 (a)
31 (a) 32 (a) 33 (a) 34 (a) 35 (b) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (b) 39 (a) 40 (b)
41 (b) 42 (a) 43 (a) 44 (b) 45 (c) 46 (c) 47 (c) 48 (a) 49 (b) 50 (c)
51 (c) 52 (a) 53 (b) 54 (a) 55 (b) 56 (b) 57 (c) 58 (b) 59 (a) 60 (a)
61 (a) 62 (b) 63 (c) 64 (c) 65 (c) 66 (b) 67 (a) 68 (a) 69 (a) 70 (a)
71 (b) 72 (c) 73 (c) 74 (d) 75 (d) 76 (a) 77 (a) 78 (c) 79 (b) 80 (c)
81 (b) 82 (a) 83 (c) 84 (d) 85 (a) 86 (c) 87 (b) 88 (b) 89 (c) 90 (a)
91 (a) 92 (a) 93 (b) 94 (c) 95 (a) 96 (b) 97 (a) 98 (b) 99 (d) 100 (b)
101 (c) 102 (c) 103 (a) 104 (a) 105 (d) 106 (a) 107 (d) 108 (d) 109 (c) 110 (d)
111 (d) 112 (a) 113 (d) 114 (a) 115 (a) 116 (a) 117 (a) 118 (d) 119 (b) 120 (c)
121 (a) 122 (c) 123 (b) 124 (b) 125 (a) 126 (a) 127 (d) 128 (a) 129 (c) 130 (a)
131 (a) 132 (a) 133 (b) 134 (b) 135 (c) 136 (a) 137 (c) 138 (b) 139 (d) 140 (a)
141 (a) 142 (b) 143 (a) 144 (a) 145 (d) 146 (a) 147 (b) 148 (d) 149 (c) 150 (d)
151 (a) 152 (b) 153 (a) 154 (d) 155 (a)

Test for Your Learning

1 (d) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (b) 10 (a)
11 (b) 12 (b) 13 (d) 14 (c) 15 (c)
 QUANTUM CAT

Hints & Solutions

Introductory Exercise 12.1
1 4 x + 5x = 180° ⇒ x = 20° 15 Since x > 0 and y > 0
(4 x and 5x are linear pair angles) Also, x + y = 90°
2 (5x + 12) + 3x = 180° ⇒ x = 21° Therefore, 0 < x < 90 and 0 < y < 90°
3 105 + 3x = 180 ⇒ x = 25
16 Let the angle be x, then its supplement be (180° − x ).
and y + 90 + 2x = 180° ⇒ y = 40°
1
∴ x + y = 65° ∴ x= (180° − x ) ⇒ x = 30°
5
4 2x + 2y = 180 ⇒ x + y = 90° Alternatively Go through options.
∴ ∠COD = 90° 1
30 = (180° − 30° )
5 ∠DOE = 180 − (40 + 31) = 109° 5
and ∠BOF = 40° (Q ∠AOE = ∠BOF ) 90°
17 a> ⇒ a > 15°
∴ ∠BOC = ∠BOF + ∠FOC 6
= 40 + 109 (Q ∠FOC = ∠DOE ) Q a + b = 180°
= 149° ∴ b < 165° (Q a > 15° )
6 2y + 3x = 180 ⇒ y = 36° (Q x = 36° ) 18 Q AC = BC and AD = BD
or x + 4 y = 180° ⇒ y = 36° (Q x = 36° ) C
7 (2x + 17 ) + ( x + 4) = 90°
⇒ 3x + 21 = 90° ⇒ x = 23°
8 (5y + 62)° + (22° + y ) = 180
⇒ 6 y + 84 = 180 ⇒ y = 16°
9 13x + 5x = 180° ⇒ x = 10°
∴ 13x = 130° A D B
and CD is common
10 Let the angle be x, then its complementary angle be
∴ ∆CDA is similar to ∆CDB and AB is a straight line
(90 − x )
(90 − x ) ∴ ∠CDA = ∠CDB = 90°
∴ x− = 30 ⇒ x = 50
2 20 C
Alternatively The best way is to solve through options.

11 G
80° F
x (180–x)
(Pair of alternate angles)
A O B

I H 21 ∠ABP = ∠CDR = 100°

AG CE ∴ y = 80° (Q ∠CDR + ∠CDS = 180° )
12 =
BH DF 22 ∠APO = 42° and ∠CQO = 38°
120 30 ∠POQ = ∠PON + ∠ NOQ
= ⇒ DF = 25 cm
100 DF = ∠APO + ∠OQC = 42° + 38° = 80°
13 65°50′ + x = 90° = 89° 60′ (1° = 60′ ) 23 ∠XYB = ∠ YBC and ∠XYB = ∠BYC
⇒ x = 89°60′ − 65°50′ = 24° 10′ ⇒ ∠YBC = ∠BYC
14 123°45′ + x = 180° = 179°60′ (1° = 60′ ) 24 ∠PGH = 80° ⇒ ∠QGH = 100°
⇒ x = 179° 60′ − 123° 45′ ∠QHD = 120° ⇒ ∠CHQ = 60°
⇒ x = 56° 15′ ∴ ∠x + 100 + 60 = 180° ⇒ x = 20°
Geometry 637

A C
25 ∠z = 180° − 110 = 70° (Q ∠QAC = ∠BCA )
and 60° + y ° + z ° = 180°
∴ y = 180° − (70° + 60° )
y = 50° D

26 ∠BCD = ∠BCM + ∠DCM 100°

= ∠ABC + ∠EDC = 67 ° + 23° = 90° B 100°
M
B M D
E
33 ∠CEF = ∠ABF = 70°
C ∴ ∠FED = 180° − 70° = 110°
∠EDF + ∠DFE + ∠FED = 180°
∴ ∠FDE = 180° − (110° + 20° )
A N E = 50°
27 a + x = 180°; c + x = b ⇒ x = b − c 34 ∠BAO = 180° − (60° + 35° ) = 85°
A B ∠AOB = 180° − (85° + 20° ) = 75°
a
x a 35 ∠AEP = ∠CDP = 34°
c ∠AEP + ∠BEF + ∠DEF = 180°
34° + 78° + ∠DEF = 180°
c
D E ⇒ ∠DEF = 68°
∴ a + (b − c) = 180° ⇒ a + b − c = 180° 36 ∠AKH = ∠KHD = 25°
28 ∠x = ∠ABC = ∠CDG = 180° − 138° = 42° ∠ EGH = ∠AKL = 180° − 60° = 120°
∴ ∠HKL = 120° + 25° = 145°
29 Use the same method as in question number 27.
i.e., (a + b − c) = 180° 38 A
B
P

⇒ 100° + ( x + 10° ) − 30° = 180°

M N
⇒ x = 100° O

Alternatively 80° 100° C Q

D
80°
30° ∠ABO = 118°
∴ MOB = 180° − 118° = 62°
30°
∴ ∠MOD = 152° − 62° = 90°
∴ x + 10° = 80° + 30° ⇒ x = 100° ∴ ∠ODC = 180° − 90° = 90°
30 P Q 39 Let ∠BMN = 2x E
55°
and ∠DNM = 2y A B
L M M
∴ 2x + 2y = 180°
153°
⇒ x + y = 90° P
R S ∴ ∠MPN = 180° − 90° N
C D
∠PQR = ∠QRS = 90°
55° = ∠QRS ⇒ 55° = ∠QRL + ∠LRS
40 F
55° = 30° + ∠LRS ⇒ ∠LRS = 25°
31 ∠ABC = 180° − (40° + 65° )
∠ABC = 75° and ∠DCF = ∠ABC = 75°
∴ ∠EDC = 180° − ∠DCF = 105° Equal x x x ≠ 90°

32 Extend CD to M, then
∠DME = ∠ABE = 100° ⇒ ∠MED = 25° Equal and
∴ ∠MDE = 180° − (100° + 25° ) = 55° x = 90°
Supplementary 90° 90°
∴ ∠CDE = 180° − 55° = 125°
638 QUANTUM CAT
41 ∠BEF = 2 ∠BEL = 70° 4! 4 ⋅ 3⋅ 2⋅ 1
44 4
C3 = = =4
3! 1 ! 3 ⋅ 2 ⋅ 1 ⋅ 1
∴ ∠CFQ = ∠EFL = 180° − 70°
= 110° 4! 4 ⋅ 3⋅ 2⋅ 1
45 4
C2 = = =6
2! 2! (2⋅ 1) ⋅ (2 ⋅ 1)
P
A E
B
35°
A
D
B
C F
F L D
E
Q
C

Introductory Exercise 12.2

1 The sum of the smaller sides cannot be equal to or less AB BD 5
13 = = (By angle bisector theorem)
than the largest side. AC CD 7
2 122 > 82 + 62 ⇒ obtuse triangle A

3 Sum of exterior angles = 360°

5 7
4 ∠ACD = ∠CBA + ∠BAC = 70° + 40° = 110°
5 ∠ABC + ∠ACB < 90°
B D C
6 x + 4 x + 7 x = 180°
⇒ x = 15° 14 Let’s draw a line segment DG, which is parallel to the
∴ 7 x = 105° line segment BF, such that G lies on AC.
Now look at the ∆ADG, where EF || DG, so we have
70 30
7 ∠OBC + ∠OCB = + = 50° AF AE 1
2 2 = =
FG DE 1
∴ ∠BOC = 180° − 50° = 130°
A
1
8 ∠BFC = 90° − (∠A ) F
2
1
= 90° − [180° − (80° + 30° )] E G
2
= 55°
B D C
10 Prove with the help of similarity.
Now, let’s have a look at the ∆BFC, where BF || DG, so we
11 Prove with the help of the similarity. have
12 ∆ ABC ~ ∆ DEF FG BD 1
= =
D GC BC 1
A Thus we can say that AF : FG : GC = 1 : 1 : 1
Therefore, AF : FC = 1 : 2
9 7.5 15 AB is hypotenuse and AD is perpendicular in ∆ABD,
∴ AB > AD
A
B 6 C E 12 F

AB DE
∴ =
BC EF
9 DE
⇒ = ⇒ DE = 18 cm
6 12 B D C
Geometry 639

16 x 2 + ( x − 17 )2 = 252 42 A
(Using Pythagoras theorem) 25
∴ x = 24 cm x P Q
∴ Altitude + Base = 24 + 7 = 31 cm
(x + 17) B C
17 Go back to the basics. P Q

18 ∠ACB = 180° − 100° = 80° i.e., BQ is a transversal of PQ and BC.

B C
and ∠BAC + ∠ABC = 180° − 80° = 100°
∴ ∠ABC = 50° (Q ∠BAC = ∠ABC ) 45 Apply Pythagoras theorem.
b2 + c2 − a2 46 Apply Pythagoras theorem.
20 cos A = (cosine rule)
2bc 47 A F
1 b2 + c2 − a2
= (Q cos 60° = 1 2)
2 2bc
∴ a2 = b2 + c2 − bc
a2 + b2 − c2 D E
B C
21 cos C =
2ab BD ( AB )2
48 =
1 a +b −c
2 2 2
CD ( AC )2
− = ⇒ c2 = a2 + b2 + ab
2 2ab C
1 1 1
22 = + (Apply similarity of triangles) D
p2 a2 b2
B
A B
D
49 Apply Pythagoras theorem
B
C A

27 A

A E C
P R
50 EF = 3 cm ∴ BC = 6 cm A

FD = 4 cm ∴ AC = 8 cm
B Q C F E
AB = 10 cm ∴ DE = 5 cm
33 There are 4 congruent triangles. A
Hence, A (∆ ABC ) = 6 × 4 = 24 cm 2 51 A
B D C
P R

D
B Q C F
AB × BC
34 BD = A
C
AC B E
6×6 D
= = 3 2 cm AB AD
6 2 52 = A
AC AE
1 B C 3.6 2.1
36 ∠BOC = 90° + ∠A = E
2 D
2.4 AE
= 90° + 40° = 130°
⇒ AE = 1.4 cm
37 B C

54 ∠EAB = ∠OAB = 60°

∠ABD = 45°
∴ ∠AOB = 180° − (60° + 45° ) = 75°
640 QUANTUM CAT
55 ∠LBN = ∠BAC = ∠BCA = 70° AE 3
⇒ =
5 10
∴ ∠ ABC = 180° − (70° + 70° ) = 40°
⇒ AE = 1. 5
56 ∠ECB = 60° + 90° = 150°
PB AP
∴ ∠CEB + ∠EBC = 180° − 150° = 30° 64 =
BR AQ
∴ ∠BEC = 15° (Q ∠BEC = ∠EBC ) PB 2 2 2
∴ ∠DEC = 60° ⇒ = =
BR 3 2 3
∴ ∠DEM = 60° − 15° = 45° PB 2x
Q = ∴BR = 6 cm
57 ∠ABQ = ∠EAY BR 3x
⇒ 20 + y = 60 ⇒ y = 40° 65 Since EF || DC , so we have
Now, ∠BAD = 180 − (60 − 35) = 85° EF EG FG EF 5
= = ⇒ =
∴ ∠ADB = 180 − (∠BAD + ∠ABD ) DC CG DG 18 10
⇒ ∠ADB = 180 − 105 = 75° ⇒ EF = 9
58 ∠ACB = 42° = ∠ECD D
∴ ∠CED = 180° − (58° + 42° ) = 80° = ∠FEG A
∴ ∠FGE = 180° − (66° + 80° ) = 34° E
G
59 ∠BAD = 70°
∴ ∠BDA = 180° − (70° + 50° ) = 60°
2x 3y + 8 B F C
60 = ⇒ y=8
x 2y Now, since ∆ABC and ∆EFC are similar triangles,
∴ x = 2y = 16 AC EC
therefore =
AB EF
61 ∠BCD = 27 ° AC 15
⇒ =
∠BDC = 180°− (27 ° + 27 ° ) = 126° 15 9
∴ ∠ADC = 54° = ∠DAC ⇒ AC = 25
∴ ∠ACD = 180° − (54° + 54° ) = 72° 66 Since ∆PQD and ∆ABD are similar, therefore
62 Let us consider that ∠ABC = x, therefore ∠ACB = x QD PQ
= …(i)
Since ∠CAD is the external angle of ∆ABC, therefore, BD AB
∠CAD = 2x Similarly, ∆BPQ and ∆BCD are similar, therefore
Now, we know that AC = AD, therefore BQ PQ
= …(ii)
∠ACD = ∠ADC = y BD CD
D By adding equations (i) and (ii), we will have
BD  1 1 
y = PQ  + 
BD  AB CD 
1 AB + CD
A ⇒ =
2x PQ AB × CD
AB × CD xy
⇒ PQ = =
AB + CD x + y
y
Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.
x x
Alternatively Consider AB = CD = 2, then by ladder
B C
theorem PQ = 1. Now substitute the values of x, y, z in
But, since sum of al the angles of ∆ACD = 180° , therefore the given options, you will see that only choice (d) is
2x + y + y = 180° valid. In this question, z plays no role, so it’s irrelevant.
⇒ x + y = 90° Alternatively Apply cross Ladder Theorem, we have
Thus, we have ∠BCD = ∠ACB + ∠ACD 1 1 1
= +
⇒ ∠BCD = x + y = 90° PQ AB CD
63 By mid point theorem, we can say that 1 1 xy
= + =
AE AD AE AD x y x+ y
= ⇒ =
AC AB AC ( AD + BD ) Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
Geometry 641

67 Apply similarity of triangles, ∆ADB ~ ∆CDA AB PQ 15 PQ

77 = ⇒ =
AD CD BC QR 10 60
=
BD AD A P
3 CD
⇒ =
4 3
⇒ CD = 2.25 15
70 Since, CF || AD, so we have,
∠FCA = ∠DAC = x and ∠AFC = ∠MAD = x. 90°
Therefore, ∠AFC = ∠FCA = x B 10 C Q 60 R
Thus, we can conclude that in the ∆AFC the two sides are
equal. 78 16 : 81
That is AF = AC . 79
BC AC
= =
AB
Again, since CF || AD, so we have, PQ AP AQ
AB BD
= 3 x−5
80 = ⇒ x = 8 or 9
AF CD x − 3 3x − 19
AB BD
⇒ = (Q AF = FC ) 3 3
AC CD 81 h = side = × 2a = a 3
2 2
71 ∆ABD ≅ ∆CBD
AB BD 5 2
82 = ⇒ = ⇒ AC = 7.5 cm
73 C AC CD AC 3
AB PB 3 PB
N 83 = ⇒ = ⇒ PB = 2 cm
QR PR 9 6
200 m
W E AO AQ
84 =
90° BO BP
S
A 150 m B 10 AQ
= ⇒ AQ = 15 cm
6 9
AC = AB + BC 2 2
AB AD 12 6
85 = ⇒ =
74 A AC AE 15 AE
∴ AE = 7.5 cm
F E
86 AB = AC and AD = CD A
P
∴ AB = 2AD
B D C Now, since AD is a tangent
B D
75 BD = 2DF ∴ AD 2 = AP × AB
2
AB 2 = BF 2 + AF 2  AB 
  = AP × AB ⇒ AB = 4 AP
 2
and AD 2 = DF 2 + AF 2 C
3 5
A 87 AC = 5 cm ⇒ AD = cm
2
A

90°
B D F E C
E
AN × NC A
A (∆ANC ) 2
76 =
A (∆ANB ) AN × BN 5 12
2 B D C
(12 × 12)
NC 13 144 AE = BE and BD = CD
= = = B N C
NB 5× 5 25 AB 2 = AC 2 − BC 2 = 25 − BC 2 …(i)
13
642 QUANTUM CAT
2
 3 5 91 Apply Pythagoras theorem.
and AB 2 = AD 2 − BD 2 =   − BD 2
 2  NOTE The sides given in option (d) cannot form any type of
2
triangle.
45 BC
= − …(ii) AB AC 12 8
4 4 92 = ⇒ =
BD CD BC + CD CD
From eq. (i) and (ii)
12 8
55 = ⇒ CD = 8 cm
BC 2 = 4 + CD CD
3
Now, from eq. (i)   BC  
2
93 AB 2 + AC 2 = 2  AD 2 +    (Appollonius theorem)
55 20   2 
AB 2 = 25 − = 
3 3
2 A
1 
Also CE 2 = BE 2 + BC 2 =  AB + BC 2
2 
AB 2 5 55 60
= + BC 2 = CE 2 = + = = 20 25 cm
4 3 3 3 D
∴ CE = 2 5 cm B 50 cm C
88 By Apollonius theorem  2
 BC 
2500 = 2 625 +    ⇒ BC = 50 cm
AB 2 + AC 2 = 2( AD 2 + BD 2 ) (BD = CD )  2 
 
100 + 196 = 2( AD 2 + 36) A
94 ∠BAC = 15°
⇒ AD 2 = 112
∴ ∠BCA = 15° (Q AB = BC )
∴ AD = 4 7 ∴ ∠ABC = 180° − (15° + 15° ) = 150°
AG 2
Now, since = G ∴ ∠ABD = 30° (180° − 150°)
GD 1 AD
2 ∴ sin 30° =
⇒ AG = AD AB
3 B D C
1 AD
2 8 = ⇒ AD = 5 cm (Q AB = 10 cm)
∴ AG = × 4 7 = 7 cm 2 AB
3 3
1
89 Since AM is the median of a right angled triangle. ∴ Area of ∆ABC = × BC × AD
2
A 1
= × 10 × 5 = 25 cm 2
2
95 AB 2 + AC 2 = 2( AD 2 + BD 2 )
7 24 A

15 cm 25 cm
B D M C G
BC 25 AB × AC 7 × 24
∴ AM = = and AD = = B D C
2 2 BC 25 18 cm
AD 7 × 24 × 2 336 ∴ 225 + 625 = 2 ( AD 2 + 81)
∴ = =
AM 25 × 25 625
⇒ AD 2 = 344
90 ∆BED ~ ∆BAC B
1
⇒ AD = 2 86 and GD = AD
BE ED BD 1 3
∴ = = =
BA AC BC 2 2
E D ∴ GD = 86 cm
A (∆BED )  1 1
2 3
∴ =  =
A (∆BAC )  2 4 96 ∠BDE = 115°
A C
∴ A (∆BDE ) = 7.5 cm 2
∴ ∠ADE = 65° and ∠AED = 75°
∴ ∆AED ~ ∆ABC
Geometry 643

DE AE AD ⇒ ∠BAC = 2x
∴ = =
BC AB AC ⇒ ∠BAD = x
∴
2 10
= ∴ ∠BAC + ∠ABC + ∠ACB = 180°
3 AB ⇒ 2x + x + x = 180°
⇒ AB = 15 cm ⇒ x = 36°
97 For the given perimeter of a triangle the maximum area Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
is enclosed by an equilateral triangle. 102 As AD is the angle bisector, so
AB BD
=
AC DC
a a
A

a
∴ 3a = 24 cm B D C
⇒ a = 8 cm
Further, since AD is the median, so
3 2 3
∴ Area =a = × (8)2 = 16 3 cm 2 BD = CD = k (say)
4 4 AB BD k
∴ = = =1
98 ∆ADE ~ ∆ACB (A-A-A property) AC DC k
AE AD ⇒ AB = AC = 15 cm
∴ =
AB AC Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
10 12 103 Let ∠BAC = x, then ∠ACB = 2x. Now, extend BC till a
=
20 AC
point D such that when A and D are connected ∠CAD
⇒ AC = 24 cm becomes equal to ∠BAC.
EC = AC − AE = 24 − 10 = 14 cm But since ∠ ADC + ∠ DAC = ∠ ACB
99 ∠ACD = ∠ADC = x ⇒ ∠ADC = x
A
∴ ∠CAD = (180° − 2 x )
x x x
∠ABC = ∠BAC =
2
(Q ∠ABC + ∠BAC = ∠ACD = x )
2x x
∴ ∠BAC + ∠CAD + 81° = 180°
B C D
x
∴ + (180° − 2x ) + 81° = 180°
2 Therefore, AC = DC = 4 cm. And,
3 so BD = BC + CD = 10 cm
∴ x = 81°
2 Now you can see that ∆BAC and ∆BDA are similar
⇒ x = 54° triangles.
Alternatively Applying the same process go through Therefore,
options. AB BD
=
100 It is value (side) dependent i.e., it is different for BC AB
AB 10
different triangles unlike the case of equilateral triangle. ⇒ =
6 AB
101 Let ∠ACB = x ⇒ AB = 60 = 2 15 cm
⇒ ∠CAD = x Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
⇒ ∠ADB = 2x 104 Since BD is the angle bisector of ∠ ABC, therefore
⇒ ∠ABD = 2x AB AD ( AB )(CD )
A
= ⇔ AD =
BC CD BC
But, it is given that
(BD )(BC ) (BE )( AB )
=
B D C CD AE
(BD )(BC ) BE
But since ∠BAC = ∠ABC ⇒ =
(CD )( AB ) AE
644 QUANTUM CAT
BD BE Then there will be two congruent triangles ABD and
⇒ =
AD AE CBD. Now using 30-60-90 degree theorem (or
B 3
trigonometric ratios) we can find the base AD = DC =
2
E 1
and altitude BD = .
2
1
Therefore area of ∆ ABC = × AC × BD
2
A D C
1 1 3
= × 3× =
It implies that DE is the angle bisector of ∠ ADB. 2 2 4
∴ ∠ BDE = ∠EDA = ∠EAD = x ° (say) Alternatively Consider the first figure. Using
∴ ∠BDA + ∠DAB + ∠ ABD = 2x + x + 66 = 180° 30-30-120 degree theorem or Cosine rule/Sine rule, we
⇒ x = 38° will have AC = 3 unit. After this we can use the formula
⇒ ∠BAD = 38° and ∠ACB = 28° for area of a triangle s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c), where s is the
∴ ∠BAD − ∠ACB = 10° semiperimeter of the triangle and a, b, c are the sides of it.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. 1
106 ∠AOC = 180 − (∠BAC + ∠BCA )
2
105 Consider the following figures. If you cut the first figure
from the mid-point of its base along its altitude BD and ⇒ (∠BAC + ∠BCA ) = 112°
then rotate it clockwise about the point D by 180°, then B
you will get an equilateral triangle, in which points A
and C will overlap. Now it would become very easy to
find the area of the given triangle as even though the
O
shape of the triangle changes but its area remains the
same.
B A C

60° 60° and ∠ ABC = 180° − (∠BAC + ∠BCA )

⇒ ∠ ABC = 180° − 112 = 68°
30° 30° Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
A D C
107 First of all, let’s connect B to F. Now, we can easily
B figure out that the area of ∆BFD = ∆CFD = x, as the base
60° and height of these two triangles are same. Similarly, we
30° can find out that area of ∆AEF = ∆BFE = y.
A/C D
30° A

60°
B′

3 3 E
The area of the equilateral triangle = × a2 = F
4 4
(Q a = 1)
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
B
F D C
Alternatively Consider the first figure. Since the
triangle is an isosceles one, so the sides AB and AC would But, we know that area of ∆ABD = ∆EBC .
be of same length. And so the two angles BAC and BCA Therefore, 2x + y = x + 2y
would be 30° each. ⇒ x=y
As the triangle ABC is an isosceles one, so the Therefore, area of ∆AEF = x and area of quadrilateral
perpendicular dropped from the angle B on the opposite BEFD = 2x.
side AC will bisect the side AC as well as the angle ABC. Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
Geometry 645

Introductory Exercise 12.3

1 x + 2x + 3x + 4 x = 360 ⇒ x = 36 (PQ ) × (CX )
A (∆ PXQ ) =
2
D C
S D R
144° 108°
A B
X

36° 72°
A B P C Q

∴ The angles of quadrilateral (in order) are SP × AX RQ × BX

Area of ∆ SXP + RXQ = +
36°, 72°, 108°, 144° 2 2
1
Since opposite angles are supplementary, therefore = (l × b) …(i)
AB ||CD. Hence it is a trapezium. 2
where SP = RQ = b and PQ = SR = l
2 3x + 4 x + 5x + 6 x = 360° ⇒ x = 20 ∴ 6 x = 120°
and AX + BX = AB = PQ = SR = l
Hence, the largest angle of a quadrilateral is 120°. (SR ) × (DX ) (PQ × CX )
and Area of ∆SXR + PXQ = +
3 D C 2 2
(SR ) × (DX ) (SR ) × (CX )
Q = +
2 2
SR
= (DX + CX )
P 2
l lb
A B = ×b= …(ii)
2 2
4 ∠DAB = 2x ⇒ ∠ABC = 2y From eqs. (i) and (ii), we find that option (c) is correct.
2 x + 2y = 180 ⇒ x + y = 90° 9 AD = BC = 20 cm
i.e., ∠PAB + ∠PBA = 90°
AB = 20
∴ ∠APB = 90°
D C
D C

P
30°
A M B
A B DM 1
In ∆ ADM, = sin 30° =
5 Prove that opposite sides are parallel, and diagonals are AD 2
equal. Also all the interior angles are right angle. 1
∴ DM = AD = 10 cm
6 ∠BCE = 102° and ∠ECD = 60° 2
∴ Area of parallelogram = base × height
∴ ∠BCD = 102° + 60° = 162°
= 20 × 10 = 200 cm 2
7 Q ∆ ADQ ≅ ∆BAP D C
10 Let DB = 12 m D C
and ∠DCP = 90°
∠CDR and ∠CPR are supplementary ∴ BM = 6 m
P M
10
∴ ∠DCP + ∠DRP = 180° R ∴ AM = 102 − 62
∴ ∠DRP = 90° AM = 8 m
(SP ) × ( AX ) A Q B A 10 B
8 Area of ∆SXP = (Remember: Diagonals bisects
2 each other at right angles)
(RQ ) × (BX ) (Bisect: Divide equally into two parts)
A (∆ RXQ ) =
2 ∴ AC = 8 × 2 = 16 m
(SR ) × (DX )
A (∆ SXR ) =
2
646 QUANTUM CAT
11 ∠BCD = ∠DAB = 65° 1
17 A( ABPQ ) = A( ABCD)
2
∴ CDB = 180° − (65° + 45° ) = 70°
N D C
D C
Q
R
Q P
R
P
A B
A M B
1
and A (∆ARB ) = A ( ABPQ)
12 Let AC and BD bisects each other at R, then AP = 2PR 2
and QC = 2RQ 1  1 
∴ A (∆ARB ) = A ( ABCD)  A (∆ARB ) = × AB × BP 
D C 4  2 

R 18 Let BD = 6 m and AC = 8 m
∴ AO = 4 m and BO = 3 m
45°
65° D C
A B
(Q AR and CR are the medians of ∆ADB and ∆BDC) O
and AP = QC and PR = RQ (Q ∆DAB ≅ ∆BCD )
∴ AP = PQ A B
13 Since their base and perpendicular heights are same.
Let AB = 5 m ∴∠AOB = 90°
14 ABCD is a parallelogram Q D P C ⇒ ∠BOC = ∠AOD = ∠DOC = 90°
and ABPQ is a rectangle
∴ BC is also 5 m.
having same base and equal
Hence, ABCD is a rhombus
perpendicular height.
AC × BD 6 × 8
Therefore the area of both is ∴ Area of rhombus ABCD = = = 24 m 2
A B 2 2
same.
Now, since AD > AQ 19 BD = 152 + 202 = 25 cm
and BC > BP (∆ ABD is right angled triangle)
∴ 2( AB + BC ) > 2 ( AB + BP )
∴∆ BCD is equilateral triangle.
∴ Perimeter of parallelogram > perimeter of rectangle.
∴ Area of ABCD = Area of ∆ ABD + Area of ∆ BCD
15 AB = CD = PQ = l Q
P 1 3 25
= × 15 × 20 + × (25)2 = (24 + 25 3) cm 2
and AQ = BP = AD = CB = b D C 2 4 4
Bases of rectangle ABPQ and BE 1
20. = sin 30° =
parallelogram ABCD is same, AB 2
but perpendicular heights of A M B 1
parallelogram is less than ∴ BE = × AB = 6 cm = CF
2
that of rectangle. Therefore area of parallelogram is less CF
than that of rectangle. and = tan 45° = 1
DF
16 AD = 2 BM and AD || BM ∴ DF = CF = 6 cm
AE 3
D C and = cos 30° =
AB 2
∴ AE = 6 3 cm
M
∴ AD = AE + EF + FD = 6 3 + 6 + 6
= 6 (2 + 3) cm 2
A B N 1
Area of trapezium ADCB = × ( AD + BC ) × BE
∴From mid-point theorem 2
1
∴
NM NB BM 1
= = = = × [ 6 (2 + 3) + 6] × 6
ND NA AD 2 2
6
∴ AN = 2AB = (2 + 3 + 1) × 6 = 18 × (3 + 3) = 18 (3 + 3) cm 2
2
Geometry 647

21 A (∆ ABE ) = A (∆ BDE ) E D 26 Since diagonals bisect each other at right angles and all
sides are equal.
= A (∆ BCE )
1 Apply Pythagoras theorem or Apollonius theorem.
A (∆ ABC ) = A ( ACDE)
3 27 Use Pythagoras theorem
1
= × 36 = 12 cm 2 A C D R C
3 B
22 ABCD is a square and ABEF is a rhombus. M N
P
FM 1 AF
= sin 30° = ⇒ FM = , AF = AB
AF 2 2
A S B
D C

28 Apply Apollonius theorem.

F E
D C

16
O 18
30°
A M B
A 14 B
Area of square = a2 ( AB = AD = a)
AB 2 + BC 2 = 2(BO 2 + AO 2 )
a×a  a
Area of rhombus =  FM =  ⇒ AB 2 + BC 2 = 2 (BO 2 + 64)
2  2
(Area of rhombus = base × height) ⇒ 196 + 324 = 2 (BO 2 + 64)
Area of square 2 ∴ BO 2 = 196 ⇒ BO = 14 cm ⇒ BD = 2BO = 28 cm
∴ =
Area of rhombus 1
29 Consider the following diagram, D C
23 Area of quadrilateral = Area of ∆ABD + Area of ∆BCD
where AB is parallel to CD and AC
where BD = 26 cm and BD act as transversal lines. O
D ∠AOB = ∠COD (Opposite angles)
∠OAB = ∠OCD (Alternate angles) A B
30 ∠ABO = ∠CDO (Alternate angles)
28
∴ ∆ AOB ~ ∆COD (AAA similarity)
AB AO BO
C Therefore = =
25
CD OC OD
A 17 B Hence choice (d) is correct.

Hint Apply Hero’s formula : 30 Let us consider the following diagram. Where
AB || CD || EF . Further, let us consider AB = m and
Area of ∆ = s (s − a)(s − b)(s − c) OA m OB m
a+ b+c CD = n, we have, = and = .
where s= OC n OD n
2
D C
24 It is not possible. S R
100°
Q ∠P + ∠R = 170° ≠ 180° E F
O
∴ The given quadrilateral is
not cyclic so there is no any
70° 90°
point in the given plane A B
P Q
which is equidistant from
( AB )n + (CD )m (m)n + (n)m
its vertices. But, EF = =
m+n (m + n)
25 By mid-point theorem,
2mn 2( AB )(CD )
D C = =
m + n ( AB + CD )
F O G
2( AB )(CD )
Therefore, EF =
( AB + CD )
E H
2(6 × 2)
A B = = 3 cm
EF FG GH EH 1 6+ 2
= = = =
AD DC BC AB 2 Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
648 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 12.4
1 Each interior angle = 140° 360°
10 Exterior angle = = 40°
∴Exterior angle = 180° − 140° = 40° 9
360° 360° Interior angle = 180° − 40° = 140°
∴Number of sides = = =9
Exterior angle 40° ∴ Interior angle : exterior angle = 140° : 40 = 7 : 2
Alternatively It can be checked easily through 11 Let us consider a square which has 4 sides ans 2
1
options. diagonals and each interior angle 90°. So it has k = .
360° 2
2 Exterior angle of a regular hexagon = = 60°
6 1
If you put θ = 90° in choice (c) you will get k = , but in
∴ Interior angle = 180° − 60° = 120° 2
360° 1
3 ∴ Interior angle of pentagon = 180° − = 108° other choices k would not be equal to .
5 2
∴ Interior angle of required polygon = 5 / 6 × 108° = 90° Else, you can assume another polygon say a regular
∴ Each exterior angle of the requird polygon hexagon which has 6 sides and 9 diagonals and each
= 180° − 90° = 90° 3
interior angle 120°. So it has k = .
360° 360° 2
∴ Number of sides = = =4
Exterior angle 90° 3
So, if you put θ = 120° in choice (c) you will get k = ,
Alternatively Best way is to go through options. 2
3
4 Sum of all the interior angles = (n − 2) 180° but in other choices you won’t get k = .
2
1260° = (n − 2) 180° These two tests suggest that choice (c) is the correct
⇒ n = 9 (n → number of sides) answer.
5 Interior angle = 3 × exterior angle Hence choice (c) is the correct answer.
360°  360 Alternatively In an n-sided polygon the number of
180° − = 3×   ⇒n = 8
n  n  n(n − 3)
diagonals =
2
Alternatively Best way is to go through options.
n(n − 3)
360° Therefore, nk =
6 Go through option. Exterior angle = = 60° 2
6 (n − 3)
Interior angle = 180° − 60° = 120° ⇒ k=
2
Difference between interior angle and exterior angle But, number of sides,
= 120° − 60° = 60° (n − 2)π 2π
n (n − 3) n= ⇒
7 = 54° ⇒ n − 3n = 108° ⇒ n = 12
2 θ π −θ
2 (n − 3)
Therefore, k=
Alternatively Put the value of n from the choices given 2
below.  2π 
  −3
8 Go through options. Let us consider the correct option (d).  π − θ 3θ − π
= ⇒k =
Number of sides 5 : 10 2 2(π − θ )
Exterior angle = 72° 36°
Interior angle = 180° − 72° 180° − 36° 12 In ∆EAD, ∠ AED = 108° and EA = ED,
(= 108° ) (= 144° ) ∴ ∠EAD = ∠EDA = 36°
3 : 4 It implies that ∠DAB = 108 − 36 = 72°
Hence, option (d) is correct. Similarly, in ∆DCB, ∠DCB = 108°
9 Go through options and CD = CB,
Alternatively Sum of al exterior angles = 360° ∴ ∠CDB = ∠CBD = 36°
∴ Sum of interior angles = 4 × 360° = 1440° It implies that ∠DBA = 108 − 36 = 72°
∴ 1440° = (n − 2) 180° ∴ ∠ADB = 180 − (72 + 72) = 36°
⇒ n = 10 (no. of sides) Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Geometry 649

13 In ∆ ACB, ∠ ABC = 108° and AB = BC , Thus, ∠DPC = 180 − ∠BPC = 180 − 108 = 72°
∴ ∠ BAC = ∠ BCA = 36° Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
Similarly, in ∆DCB, ∠DCB = 108° and CD = CB, 14 Connect the centre of the hexagon with the three
∴ ∠CDB = ∠CBD = 36° vertices of the given triangle, as shown below. Due to
symmetricity there are now total 6 congruent triangles,
D
with 30-30-120 degree angles. Out of 6 such triangles
36° exactly 3 triangles are comprised in the given triangle.
36°
E C 5
72° 36° 2
P 4 1
3
36° 6
36°
A B 3 1
So the required ratio = =
Now, in ∆BPC , ∠PBC = ∠PCB = 36°, 6 2
∴ ∠BPC = 180 − (36 + 36) = 108° Hence choice (d) is the correct one.

Introductory Exercise 12.5

1 AC = OA 2 − OC 2 = (17 )2 − (82 ) = 15 cm 14 ∠ABO = 60° = ∠BAO (Q AO = BO , radii of the circle)
∴ AB = 2AC = 30 cm (Q AC = BC ) ∴ ∠AOB = 180° − (60° + 60° ) = 60°
1
2 AB = 8 cm ∴ ∠ ACB = ∠ AOB = 30°
2
∴ AM = 4 cm 1
15 ∠CBA = ∠COA = 60°
and OA = 5 cm 2
∴ ∠CBE = 180° − ∠CBA
∴ OM = (OA )2 − ( AM )2 = 25 − 16 = 3 cm
180° − 60° = 120°
3 Q AB is the perpendicular bisector of OO′. 16 ∠BDA = 90° ⇒ ∠DBA = 50°
∴ ∠OMA = 90° ∴ ∠DAB = 180° − (90° + 50° ) = 40°
4 AM : BM : 1 : 1
17 ∠ BAC = 60°
5 ∠AOC = ∠BOC (Q AC = BC ) ∴ ∠ BEC = 180° − 60° = 120°
∴ OC is the perpendicular bisector of AB.
18 ∠ ABD = 45° ∴ ∠ ACD = 45°
∴ AM = BM
6 OA = 13 cm ⇒ AM = 5 cm 19 ∠BDC = ∠BAC = 30°
∴ OM = (13)2 − (5)2 = 12 cm ∴ ∠BCD + ∠BDC + ∠DBC = 180°
∴ ∠BCD = 180° − (30° + 60° )
7 Degree measure of major arc = 360° − 130° = 230°
∠BCD = 90°
8 It is necessarily a rectangle. 20 ∠ADC = 140°
9 ∠ADC = 180° − 65° = 115° ∴ ∠ABC = 40° ⇒ ∠ACB = 90°
∴ ∠DCA = 180° − (115° + 45° ) = 20° ∴ ∠BAC = 180° − (90° + 40° ) = 50°
( ADCB is a cyclic quadrilateral ) 1 1
21 ∠CAB = ∠BOC = × 40° = 20°
10 ∠ OBA = ∠ OAB = 55° 2 2
 180° − 80°
∴ ∠ AOB = 180° − (55° + 55° ) = 70° 22 ∠OBA = ∠OAB =   = 50°
 2 
and ∠ AOB = ∠ COD = 70°
 180° − 120°
and ∠OCA = ∠OAC =   = 30°
12 ∆ BAP ~ ∆ CDP (Q ∠ A = ∠ D and ∠ APB = ∠ DPC)  2 
∴
AB AP BP
= = ∴ ∠BAC = ∠BAO + ∠OAC = 50° + 30° = 80°
CD DP CP 100°
23 ∠ADC = = 50°
∴ AP × PC = BP × DP 2
13 ∠BDC = 180° − (110° + 30° ) = 40° ∴ ∠ABC = 180° − 50° = 130°
m ∠ADC 50° 5
and ∠BAC = ∠BDC = 40° (angles of the same segment) ∴ = =
m ∠ABC 130° 13
650 QUANTUM CAT
 1  39 AP × BP = DP × CP
24 ∠APB = 50° Q m ∠APB = m ∠AOB
 2 
2 × 6 = DP × 3
∴ ∠ACB = 180° − 50° = 130°
⇒ DP = 4 cm
∴ ∠BCD = 180° − 130° = 50°
40 PA × PB = PC × PD
25 ∠ABC = 180° − 120° = 60°
3 × (3 + 5) = 2 × PD
∠ACB = 90°
∴ ∠CAB = 180° − (90° + 60° ) = 30° ∴ PD = 12 cm
∴ CD = PD − PC = 12 − 2 = 10 cm
26 ∠COD = ∠AOB = 70°
180° − 70° 41 PT 2 = PA × PB
∴ ∠OCD = = 55°
2 5 × 5 = 4 × (4 + x )
9
27 ∠ABK = 180° − (105° + 40° ) = 35° ⇒ x = cm, where AB = x
4
∴ ∠ACD = ∠ABD = 35°
42 Let they touch eachother at O and
28 ∠BAC = 80° (Q ∠ABC = ∠ACB = 50° )
A, B be the centres of the two
∴ ∠BDC = ∠BAC = 80° circles, then OA = 13 cm
29 ∠ADB = 90° and OB = 5 cm A B
O
∴ ∠DBA = 20° [180° − (90° + 70° )] ∴ AB = OA − OB = 8 cm
∴ ∠CBA = 30° + 20° = 50°
∴ ∠CDA = 180° − 50° = 130° 43 AB = 5 cm = x + y
∴ ∠ CDB = 130° − 90° = 40° BC = 6 cm = y + z
A

30 ∠BAD = 80° ∴ ∠DCE = 80° AC = 7 cm = z + x

31 ∠AOC = 2 × 50 = 100° ∴ 2 ( x + y + z ) = 5 + 6 + 7 = 18 cm
B C
100 ⇒ x + y + z = 9 cm
∴ ∠ABC = = 50°
2 ⇒ x = ( x + y + z ) − ( y + z ) = 9 − 6 = 3 cm
NOTE There are some more ways to solve it. Find them. ∴ x + y = 5 cm
∴ y = 5 − x = 5 − 3 = 2 cm
32 ∠AOB = 2 ∠ACB = 2 × 25 = 50°
∴ z = 6 − y = 6 − 2 = 4 cm
1
33 ∠APB = 180° − × 90° = 135° P ∴ x = 3 cm
2
y = 2 cm and z = 4 cm
 1  A B
Q ∠ACB = 45° =  2 × 90°  44 Prove with the help of property of tangents : ‘‘Tangents
  O drawn from the same point on a circle are always equal.’’
and ∠APB + ∠ACB = 180° 
45 Tangent is always perpendicular to the radius.
A
C

34 OA = (OB )2 − ( AB )2 O P O'
∴ OA = 169 − 144 = 5 cm
B
35 PN × PR = PQ 2 ⇒ PN × 25 = (15)2
∴ PN = 9 cm 46 ∠APB = ∠AQB
36 TQ = TP and TP = TR when ∠APB = ∠AQB = 90°
∴ TQ = TP = TR
37 ∠BAC = 90° Q
∠BCA = 60° (Q ∠BCA = BAQ )
P
∴ ∠ABC = 180° − (90° + 60° )
∠ABC = 30°
38 ∠DBQ = 65° A B
∴ ∠DAB = 65° then they are supplementary. Also they are
∴ ∠DCB = 180° − 65° = 115° supplementary when they are in different segments.
Geometry 651

47 CD = 6 cm 52 AB = r (say) then AC = BC = r, also

∴ AC = 6 cm and BC = 6 cm ∴ OA = OB = r / 2 (CD is a common chord)
(Q AC = CD and BC = CD. Two tangents from the same C
point are always equal.)
∴ AB = 12 cm
A B
O
48 ∠CAB = ∠BCD
and ∠DAB = ∠BDC
D
∴ ∠CAD = ∠CAB + ∠DAB = ∠BCD + ∠BDC
⇒ ∠ CAD = ∠BCD + ∠BDC  r 3r2 3
2

∴ ∠CAD + ∠CBD = ∠BCD + ∠BDC + ∠CBD = 180° ∴ OC = ( AC )2 − (OA )2 = r2 −   = = r

 2 4 2
49 AB = 24 cm 3 l (CD ) 3r 3
∴ CD = 2CO = 2 × r = 3r ∴ = =
∴ AC = BC = 12 cm 2 l ( AC ) r 1
OA = 20 cm M
53 Let A be the centre of larger circle and
∴ OC = (OA )2 − ( AC )2 B be the centre of the smaller circle.
= 400 − 144 = 16 cm OA = 3 cm and BO = 2 cm
and O ′ A = 37 cm and AB = (OA − OB ) = 1 cm P
A B
O
also BP = 2 cm ∴ AP = 1 cm
∴ O ′ C = (O ′ A ) − ( AC )
2 2

P is the point of contact of

= (37 )2 − (12)2 = 35 cm tangent MN. N

∴ OO ′ = OC + CO ′ = 16 + 35 = 51 cm ∴ MP = AM − AP = 3 − 1 = 2 2cm
2 2 2 2

50 AB = AC , OB = OC ∴ MN = 2MP = 4 2 cm
and BC is common and OA is 55. PQ = AS (PQ is a transverse common tangent)
common O
P
also ∠BOA = ∠COA
∴ ∆BOA ≅ ∆COA B P C
A R B
∴ BC and OA are perpendicular
A
bisector to each other Q
[Area of ∆ = s (s − a)(s − b)(s − c)]
a+ b + c 5 + 5 + 6 S
s= = = 8 cm
2 2 and BS = BQ + SQ = BQ + AP
Area of ∆BOA = 8 × 3 × 3 × 2 = 12 cm 2 BS = 2BQ (BQ = AP = radius)
1 1 BS = 6 cm
Again area of ∆BOA = OA × BP = × 5 × BP
2 2 ∴ AS = ( AB )2 − (BS )2 = (10)2 − (6)2 = 8 cm
1 ∴ AS = 8 cm ∴ PQ = 8 cm
12 = × 5 × BP
2 Alternatively The length of transverse common tangent
⇒ BP = 4.8 cm
= (distance beween the centres)2 − (r1 + r2 )2
∴ BC = 2BP = 2 × 4.8 = 9.6 cm
= (10)2 − (3 + 3)2 = 8 cm
51 OA = OC = 17 cm
A B
1 1 P 57 Inradius of an incircle of right
AP = AB = × 16 = 8 cm angled triangle
2 2 17
O Base + Altitude − Hypotenuse O
∴ OP = OA 2 − AP 2 = 15 cm 17 =
2 P
A
Now, PQ = OP + OQ = 23 cm C
Q D 4 + 3− 5 B
= = 1 cm Q
∴ 15 + OQ = 23 cm 2 D
C
∴ OQ = 8 cm Alternatively
Again, CQ = (OC )2 − (OQ )2 ⇒ CQ = (17 )2 − (8)2 Inradius =
Area of triangle
Semiperimeter of triangle
∴ CQ = 15 cm
∴ CD = 2CQ = 30 cm (3 × 4) 2 6
= = = 1 cm
(3 + 4 + 5) 2 6
652 QUANTUM CAT
58 Let AB and CD be the two chords, then AB = 8 cm and 61 ∠DAB + ∠DCB = 180°
CD = 6 cm. ∠BAO + ∠OAD + ∠DCO = 180°
∴ AP = 4 cm and CQ = 3 cm and PQ = 1 cm (given) ∠ 69° + (∠OAD + ∠DCO ) = 180°
Let OP = x ∠OAD + ∠DCO = 111°
∴ AO 2 = AP 2 + OP 2 Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
∴ AO 2 = 42 + x 2 = 16 + x 2 …(i) 62 AC = 2 cm, so AB = BC = 1 cm. A
and OC = CQ + OQ
2 2 2
The inradius OD = OE = OF
= CQ 2 + (OP + PQ )2 = (3)2 + ( x + 1)2 AB + BC − AC 2 − 2
= = cm F
OC 2 = 9 + x 2 + 1 + 2x …(ii) 2 2
 2 − 2
But OA = OC , are the radii of the same circle. Therefore DE = 2  D
O
 2 
∴ 16 + x 2 = 9 + x 2 + 1 + 2x ⇒ x = 3 cm
= 2 − 1 cm
∴ OA 2 = 16 + x 2 = 16 + 9 = 25 B E C
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
∴ OA = 5 cm
63 Using Alternate segment theorem, we get
∴ Diameter of the circle = 2(OA ) = 10 cm
∠ ABC = ∠QAC = 48°
M
∠ BAP = ∠ACB = 64°
A ∠ ABP = ∠ACB = 64°
∴ ∠APB = 180 − (∠BAP + ∠ABP ) = 52°
O
And BAC = 180 − (∠ACB + ∠ABC ) = 68°
B P C Opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral are always
supplementary, therefore
∠BDC = 180 − ∠BAC = 112°
59 AB = BC = AC = 2 cm Now, ∠CBP = ∠ ABC + ∠ABP = 48° + 64° = 112°
(Q radius of each circle = 1 cm) Thus, ∠BDC + ∠CBP + ∠APB
3 O = 112° + 112° + 52° = 276°
∴AP = × 2 ⇒ AP = 3 cm A
2 Hence choice (b) is the correct answer.
Let O be the centroid, then 64 ∠ECB = 180° − (∠CEB + ∠EBC ) = 90°
2 2
OA = × 3 = cm But since A, B, C , D are cyclic, so ∠DAB + ∠DCB
3 3
= 180° ⇒ ∠DAB = 90°
and AM = 1 cm
Again, ∠AFB = 180° − (∠FAB + ∠FBA ) = 29°
∴ OM = (2/ 3) + 1 = 2 + 3 / 3 cm
OM is the radius of the larger circle. Since, ∠EAD = 180° − ∠BAD = 90°
∴ Area of the circumscribing circle F
2 E °
 2 + 3 π 29
= πR 2 = π ×   = (2 + 3)2 29
 3  3 ° D

60 OA is the radius of the largest circle and O is the centroid A 90°

90° C
of the all concentric circles. Let r1, r2, r3 and r4 be the 61°
radii of the concentric circles in increasing order then
Total area of given circle = π × (20)2 = 400π B
1 and ∠EDA = 180° − (∠DEA + ∠EAD ) = 61°
Area of each region = × 400 π = 100π
4 ∴ α − β = 61 − 29 = 32°
∴ Area of central region = 100π = πr12 Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
⇒ r1 = 10 cm
Alternatively
Similarly, area of second region = 100π = π (r22 − r12 )
α = ∠ ADE = ∠ ABC = 61°
100π = π (r22 − 100)
(As ∠ ADE + ∠ ADC = ∠ ABC + ∠ ADC = 180°)
⇒ r2 = 10 2 cm
Again, area of third region = 100π = π (r32 − r22 ) ∴ ∠CDF = 61°
2 and ∠ ACF = ∠BEC + ∠EBC = 90°
100π = π (r3 − 200) ⇒ r32 = 10 3cm
(∠ ACE is an external angle of ∆EBC )
∴ The required radii are 10, 10 2 and 10 3.
Geometry 653

∴ β = ∠CFD = 180° − (∠CDF + ∠DCF ) By using Pythagoras theorem we can determine AD, BD
= 180°− (61° + 90° ) = 29° and CD, as follows
∴ α − β = 61° − 29° = 32° AD 2 = AB 2 − BD 2
65 Case I : ∠OBC = ∠OCB = 42° = AB 2 − (BC − CD )2
∴ ∠BOC = 180 − 2(42° ) = 96° = 152 − (52 − CD )2 …(i)
and ∠OBA = ∠OAB = 24° Also, AD = AC − CD
2 2 2

∴ ∠AOB = 180 − 2(24° ) = 132°

= 412 − CD 2
Thus, ∠AOC = ∠AOB − ∠BOC
⇒ ∠AOC = 132 − 96° = 36° Comparing eq. (i) and eq. (ii), we get
CD = 40 cm, BD = 12 cm and AD = 9 cm
1
Now, the area of triangle ABC = × AD × BC
2
O 1
= × 9 × 52 = 234 sq cm
2
24°
A B Let us consider that the circumradius of the triangle is R
42°
and area is A, then we have
C abc
A=
Case II : ∠AOB = 180 − 2(24) = 132° 4R
and ∠BOC = 180° − 2(42) = 96° 15 × 41 × 52
⇒ 234 =
Thus, ∠AOC = ∠AOB + ∠BOC 4R
⇒ ∠AOC = 132 + 96 = 228° 205
⇒ R= cm
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. 6
205
C Therefore, the diameter of the circumcircle = cm
3
42° Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
O
68 Curvature of a circle
1 1
24°
B = = = 0. 5 cm
A radius of the circle 2
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
66 First of all complete the circle as B 69 Since the radius of a circle
shown below. Draw the chord AB 1
=
and consider an arbitrary point D C 135° curvature of the circle
lying on the major arc of the 90° 1 1
A O
Therefore, radii of the circles are = 2 and = 0. 5
circle. 0. 5 2
Now, central angle AOB = 90°, so
45

Thus the required distance between the centers of the

°

the angle in the major segment D circles = 2 + 0. 5 = 2. 5

due to the same chord AB is angle
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
ADB = 45°.
But since the quadrilateral ADBC is a cyclic one, therefore 70 Draw the following diagram and you B
∠ACB + ∠ADB = 180° will find that ABDC is a cyclic D
⇒ ∠ACB + 45° = 180° ⇒ ∠ACB = 135° quadrilateral. However, the Ptolemy’s
Hence choice (b) is the correct one. theorem states that, “If a
quadrilateral is inscribable in a circle A C
67 Let’s drop a perpendicular AD on BC, we will have two then the product of the measures of
right angled triangles ∆ADB and ∆ADC. its diagonals is equal to the sum of
A the products of the measures of the pairs of opposite
41 sides.”
15 9
B C Therefore, AB ⋅ CD + AC ⋅ BD = BC ⋅ AD
12 D 40 ⇒ 30(CD ) + 30(BD ) = 30( AD )
⇒ CD + BD = AD
⇒ CD + BD = 32 cm
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
654 QUANTUM CAT
Level 01 Basic Level Exercise

1 ∠BAD = 180° − 130° = 50° (Q ABCD is cyclic) AC + BC − AB

6 Inradius of a right angled triangle =
2
and ∠ADB = 90° (angle of semicircle) 9 + 40 − 41
∴ ∠ABD = 180 − (90 + 50) = 40° = = 4 cm
2
2 ∠ACB = 180 − (90 + 25) = 65° (Q ∠ABC = 90° ) 7 Let AD = 16 cm
D C
But since ∠ADB = ∠ACB
∴ ∠ADB = 65° 9 cm
3 ∠AOD = ∠ODC + ∠OCD (Q∠AOD is an external angle) 16 cm
= 52° (∠ODC = ∠OCD = 26° ) O 9 cm
(Q OD = OC )
4 Note that 4700 : 4935 : 6815 = 20 : 21 : 29 A 20 cm B
C
then AB = 20 cm and BD = 18 cm
∴ DO = BO = 9 cm
m

NOTE In a parallelogram the two diagonal bisect each

49
0c

35

other, therefore by Appollonious theorem

47 0

P
cm

∴ 16 2 + 20 2 = 2( 9 2 + AO 2)
O ⇒ AO = 247
∴ AC = 2 247 cm

B 6815 cm A 8 Go back to the basics

∴ ∆ ACB is right angled triangle and ∠ACB is a right angle. 9 It is clear that
PM PN 6 3
∴ The inradius of the right angled triangle = = =
MQ NR 4 2
20 + 21 − 29
= = 6 cm P
2
A

6 6

M N
M O
4 4

Q R
90°
Therefore ∆PMN and ∆PQR are similar
C B
P Now Ratio of areas of ∆PMN : ∆PQR
∴ MO = MC = 6 cm = 3 × 3 : 5 × 5 = 9 : 25
∴ AM = 21 − 6 = 15 cm ∴Percentage of area of ∆PMN over
AM AO 15 5 PO 2 9
∴ = = = ⇒ = ∆PQR = × 100 = 36%
MC OP 6 2 AO 5 25
5 CD = CP and BE = BP , since tangent from the same point 10 Since, ∆AOB is similar to ∆COD.
2
are always same. ∆AOB  3 9
∴ Ratio of areas of =  =
∴ AE = AD ∆COD  1 1
Now, AD = AC + CD = AC + CP D C
and AE = AB + BE = AB + BP
∴ AE + AD = AC + CP + AB + BP
O
2AE = AC + AB + (CP + BP )
2AE = AB + AC + BC
A B
Hence option (d) is correct.
Geometry 655

11 The maximum possible distance between Barabanki and 15 × 20

∴ DM = = 12 cm, also CN = DM
Lucknow is 108 km and minimum possible distance 25
between Barabanki and Lucknow is 24 km. Hence (d) is the AD 2
∴ AM =
correct option. AB
42 km 15 × 15
F B ∴ AM = = 9 cm, also AM = BN
25
66 km
F L ∴ MN = AB − ( AM + BN ) = 25 − (18) = 7 cm
F but MN = CD = 7 cm
B L
1
∴ Area of trapezium = × (CD + AB ) × DM
42 km 66 km 2
108 km 1
= × 32 × 12 = 192 cm 2
F
B
L
2
42 km 17 (OS )2 = (OK )2 + (KS )2
66 km 25 = OK 2 + 16 ⇒ OK = 3
24 km
and (OS )2 = (OL )2 + (LN )2
12 Since CS = SD 25 = (OL )2 + 9 ⇒ OL = 4 cm
∴ The two chords must be equidistant from the centre ‘O’. ∴ KL = OL − OK = 1 cm
Thus, the required ratio is 1 : 1 ∴ Area of rectangle = 1 × 10 = 10 cm 2
13 ∠DFO = ∠FOM
18 ∠ ACB = 90°
and ∠AEO = ∠EOM (since CD || AB )
∴ AC = 12 cm
D F C Now, since CO is perpendicular on AB
28° AC × BC 16 × 12
28° ∴ CO = = = 9.6 cm
O M AB 20
42°
19 ∠ADB = ∠ACB = 41° (angles of the same segment)
42°
A E B ∴ ∠ABD = 180 − (∠ADB + 90) = 49° (∠ DAB = 90° )

∴ ∠FOE = (28° + 42° ) = 70° 20 Go through options for quicker answer

360
14 ∠AOB = 60° Exterior angle = = 24° (for n = 15)
15
(180° − 30° )
and ∠AOD = ∠ADO = = 75° ∴ Interior angle = 180 − 24° = 156°
2
∴ Interior − Exterior = 156 − 24 = 132°
Also ∠ BOC = 75°
Hence, option (b) is correct.
∴ ∠COD = 360° − (75° + 60° + 75° ) = 150°
21 OC = OD and OA = OP = OB
15 ∠ABD = ∠ABC − ∠DBC
C
= ∠ABC − ∠BDC = ∠ABC − (∠ABD + ∠BAD )
∴ 2(∠ABD ) = ∠ABC − ∠BAD = 30° 45°
∴ ∠ABD = 15° (Q ∠BAD = ∠BAC ) A
P
16 BD = AC = 20 cm (by Pythagorus theorem)
D C
45°
O D
B

OP = 1 m
∴ PC = 1 m ⇒ OC = 2 m
∴ AC = OC − OA = ( 2 − 1) m
A M N B and AC + CP = ( 2 − 1) + 1
AD × BD = 2 m = 1.414 m
∴ DM =
AB = 141.4 cm
656 QUANTUM CAT
1 1 1 1 1 1 SB 3 r 3
22 AB : BC : CA = : : = : : = 6: 4: 3 ∴ = sin 60° = ⇒ SB =
CD AE BF 2 3 4 OB 2 2
C
23 ∆POQ and ∆ROS are similar
∴ PS = QR
Option a, b and d are irrelevent.
DQ 3
24 = sin 60° ⇒ DQ = BD × = 3m O S Q
BD 2
DP 1
and = sin 30° =
DF 2
∴ DP = 2 m (Q DF = 4 m) B
∴ PQ = 3 − 2 = 1 m ∴ BC = 2SB = r 3
Let AB = CQ = x m ∴ Area of quadrilateral BQCO
CD 5 1
∴ = = × BC × OQ
EF 4 2
x+3 5 r2 3
= ⇒ x = 7 m. 1
=
× r 3 × r= cm 2
x+1 4 2 2
25 Area of equilateral triangle C  r2 3
∴ Area of both the quadrilateral = 2   = r2 3 cm 2
3  2 
ABC = × (6)2 = 9 3 cm 2
4
32 Go back to the basics and apply similarity of triangle
1
Area of ∆ADE = × DE × CP ( A ) ∆ CMN 1
2 33 =
( A) ABNM 2
1 3
= × 2× × 6 = 3 3 cm 2 ( A ) ∆CMN 1
2 2 ∴ =
D P E ( A ) ∆CAB 3
∴ Area of shaded region
MN CM 1
= 9 3 − 3 3 = 6 3 cm 2 ⇒ = =
AB CA 3
26 CD = CP 2 + DP 2 = (3 3)2 + (1)2 = 2 7 cm CM 1 3+1
⇒ = = MA = (CA − CM )
and CE = CD = 2 7 and DE = 2 cm MA 3 −1 2
∴ Perimeter of ∆CDE = 2(2 7 ) + 2 34 ∠ADE = ∠AED = 80°
= 2 (2 7 + 1) cm
∴ ∠BDE = ∠CED = 100°
27 ∠ABC = 180 − (65 + 75) = 40° ∴ ∠DBC + ∠BCE = 360° − (100° + 100° ) = 160°
∠ORB = ∠OQB = 90°
35 AC = (15)2 + (20)2 = 25 cm
∴ ∠ROQ = 360 − (90 + 90 − 40)
∴ ∠ROQ = 140° CD = (25)2 − (7 )2 = 24 cm

28 ∠BAP + ∠BCP = 180° ( ABCP is a cyclic quadrilateral) 36 AB = PQ = 26 cm

∴ ∠BCP = 180 − 60° = 120° and PO = OQ = 13 cm
29 Since we don’t have the requisite information. CO = (PO )2 − (PC )2
30 Q AT = BT , CO = (13)2 − (5)2
(QTangents on the same circle from a fixed point is equal)
CO = 12 cm
AC = PC and BD = PD
∴ CD = 2CO = 24 cm
∴ AT = BT
C
⇒ AC + CT = BD + DT
PC + CT = PD + DT
P Q
Similarly, all the relations can be verified. O
31 OQ = OB = OC = r (say); ∠AOD = ∠BOC = 120°
D
∴ ∠BOQ = ∠COQ = 60°
Alternatively Solve by using the formula of tangents.
Geometry 657

37 ∠DAM = 45° 42 OE = OF (inradius)

and DM = 8 cm BF = BD
and BD = 10 cm B
D C
D

8 10
F O
45°
A M B

∴ BM = 6 cm (BM = BD 2 − DM 2 ) A E C
AM and EC = DC = 15 cm
and = tan 45° = 1
DM Let BF = x cm
∴ AM = 8 cm then AB = (6 + x ) cm
and AB = AM + MB = 8 + 6 = 14 cm and AC = 6 + 15 = 21 cm
∴ Area of parallelogram ABCD = AB × MD ∴ (BC )2 = ( AB )2 + (BC )2
= 14 × 8 = 112 cm 2
( x + 15)2 = (6 + x )2 + (21)2 (Q BC = BD + CD )
38 ∠ACB = 50° (Q ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180° )
⇒ x = 14 cm
∠CFO = ∠CEO = 90° ⇒ BD = 14 cm
∴ ∠FOE = 360° − (90° + 90° + 50° ) = 130° ∴ CD − BD = 15 − 14 = 1 cm
but ∠AOB = ∠FOE = 130° 43 (∠BPQ + ∠BQP ) + (∠EQR + ∠ERQ )
x 26k
39 35x = 26 y ⇒ = + (∠CRS + ∠CSR ) + (∠TSA + ∠ATS )
y 35k
+ (∠DTP + ∠DPT ) = 2 × 360
∴ x + y = 61k
∠A + ∠D + ∠B + ∠E + ∠C = 5 × 180° − 2 × 360° = 180°
1
x × DE × AE
Area of ∆DAE 2
44 =
Area of ∆DEC 1 × DE × CE
2
y z 2
AE ( AD )2  6 9
= = =  =
if x = 1, then z = 119° CE (DC ) 2  8  16
But x < z < y Similarly , in ∆ABC,
again consider k = 2, then Area of ∆BCF 9
=
x = 52° and y = 70° Area of ∆BFA 16
∴ z = 180° − (70° + 52° ) = 58° 16
∴ The area of shaded to unshaded region =
9
40 ∠DAB = ∠BDQ = 48°
45 ∠OCA = ∠OAC = 25°
∴ ∠DBA = 180° − (90° + 48° ) = 42° (Q ∠ADB = 90° )
and ∠OCB = ∠OBC = 35°
∠DCB = 180° − ∠DAB = 132°
∴ ∠ACB = ∠ACO + ∠BCO = 25° + 35° = 60°
∠DBA 42 7
∴ = = ∴ ∠AOB = 2∠ACB = 120°
∠DCB 132 22
41 ∠OCD = 90° ⇒ ∠OAC = ∠OCA = 30° A B
∠ACD = ∠ACO + ∠OCD = 30° + 90° = 120°
∴ ∠BAC = 180° − 120° = 60° O
⇒ ∠BCD = 60° (∠BCD = ∠BAC )
⇒ ∠OCB = ∠OCD − ∠BCD
= 90° − 60° = 30° C
658 QUANTUM CAT
52 There are 4 triangles (smaller) are congruent.
46 ∠DOA = 110° So, out of these 4 triangles 2 triangles are taken thus the
and ∠ADB = 50° ratio of the shaded to the unshaded region is 1 : 1 (since
∴ ∠DAO = 180 − (110° + 50° ) = 20° two triangles are shaded and 2 are unshaded).
47 ∆ABC is similar to ∆EDC C
AB BC AC
∴ = =
ED DC EC 1
AB BC 24 60
∴ = ⇒ = D E
DE DC 10 DC
3
⇒ DC = 25 cm
2 4
48 AC = (24)2 + (60)2 (Q AC 2 = AB 2 + BC 2 )
AC = 12 29 A F B

BC AC 60 12 29
∴ = ⇒ = 53 ∆PQR is an equilateral triangle i.e., all the three angles are
DC EC 25 EC
60° each.
⇒ EC = 5 29
∴ PQ = QR = PR
∴ BE = BC − EC = 60 − 5 29
⇒ BE = 5 (12 − 29 )
CE 5 29 29
∴ = =
BE 5(12 − 29 ) (12 − 29 ) P Q

49 PTUS is a square inscribed by a square ABCD.

Let each side of the square ABCD be ‘a’, then
Area of square ABCD = a2 R

also PU = ST = a
T D
A
60 π
Now, arc PQ = 2π × (1) × =
Q 360 3
P U π
∴ Sum of all three arcs = 3 × = π
3
R 54 ∠A = 90° and ∠B = ∠C = 45°
B S C (a + a) − a 2 a(2 − 2)
Inradius = =
a2 2 2
∴ Area of square PTUS =
2 B
Area of PTUS a2 2 1
∴ = 2 =
Area of ABCD a 2
Area of PQRS 1 a a 2
∴ =
Area of ∆ ABC 2
50 Go through options. It is a pentagon. A C
a
Alternatively n
C 2 − n = n ⇒ nC 2 = 2n
n (n − 1) a 2
⇒ = 2n ⇒ n = 5 and Circumradius =
2 2
Inradius a (2 − 2) 2 2 − 2
51 Let P1, P2, P3, P4, . . . , P9 be the vertices of the regular ∴ = =
Circumradius (a 2) 2 2
nonagon then, we can select two vertices out of 9 vertices
in 9C 2 ways and 9C 2 = 36 ways and number of equilateral 2 ( 2 − 1)
=
triangles formed = 36 × 2 = 72. But the three triangles 2
{P1, P4, P7 }, {P2, P5, P8} and {P3, P6, P9} are each counted 3 ( 2 −1)
times i.e., counted as 9 triangles instead by 3 triangles. =
1
So, net number of equilateral triangles = 72 − 6 = 66.
Geometry 659

55 Let the perpendicular be AD and circumradius be R, then Drop a perpendicular AD on BC. Then AD will act as the
1 AB × BC × AC median as well as angular bisector.
∆ABC = × BC × AD =
2 4R Let us consider AD = p, then using 30-60-90 degree
1 36 × BC × 30 theorem, we get AB = AC = 2 and BD = CD = 3.
× BC × AD = ⇒ AD = 12 cm.
2 4 × 45 Therefore, the required ratio = BC : ( AB + AC + BC )
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. = 2 3 : (4 + 2 3)
56 If you remember 30-60-90 degree theorem, it does not = 3 : (2 + 3)
require any efforts to solve this problem. Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. Alternatively Let’s go through the given choices.
Alternatively
Choice (a) : 3 : (2 + 3)
12 + ( 3)2 = 22. It implies that one angle is 90°.
⇒ 3 : (1 + 1 + 3), seems possible.
Choice (b) : 1 : 3 : 5 means the angles are 20, 60, 100. Choice (b) : 1 : 6 ⇒ 1 : (2. 5 + 2. 5 + 1)
Choice (c) : 2 : 3 : 4 means the angles are 40, 60, 80.
⇒ 2 : (5 + 5 + 2); NOT possible, as the largest side (2 unit)
It implies that choices (a) and (b) are not valid, as they do is smaller than the smaller side (5 unit).
not have 90 degree angle.
Choice (c) : 1 : (2 + 3) ⇒ 1 : (1 + 1 + 3), which is not
B
possible, as there are multiple inconsistencies and
contradictions, as far as the existence of a triangle is
C A concerned.
Choice (d) : 2 : 3 ⇒ 2 : (0. 5 + 0. 5 + 2)
Mind that if one angle is 90°, then the sum of the remaining
two angles will also be 90°. ⇒ 4 : (1 + 1 + 4), NOT impossible, as it does not follows the
Now since we know that the angle opposite the longest side definition of a triangle which says that sum of any two sides
is the greatest and vice-versa, so if the order of sides is of a triangle must be greater than the third side.
increasing one, the order of angles should also be the Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
increasing one. 58 Consider the following diagram consisting of triangles ABC
It implies that the order of the corresponding angles should ABC′. Now draw a perpendicular AD on BC.
be 1 < 2 < 3. A
Thus out of the remaining two choices (c) and (d), choice
(d) is the valid one.
4 2√2
Alternatively Let a = x, b = 3x, c = 2x. Then we see 2√2
30° 90°
that ( x ) + ( 3x ) = (2x ) .
2 2 2 B
C¢ D C
1
It implies that ∠C = 90°. Then, tan A = Thus using 30-60-90 degree theorem in the right angle
3 ∆ADB, we get AD = 2.
⇒ ∠A = 30°. And, by using Pythagoras theorem in right angle ∆ADC′, we
Consequently, ∠B = 60°. get DC′ = 2.
Thus, A : B : C = 1 : 2: 3
Or, if you could notice that there exists as 45-45-90 degree
Alternatively Using the Cosine rule you will get,  AD 1
relation in the ∆ADC′, as  = 
b2 + c2 − a2  AC 2
cos A =
2bc
AD bisects C ′ C , as AD is a perpendicular in the isosceles
3 triangle C ′ AC .
⇒ cos A = ⇒ A = 30°
2 So, C ′ C = 2(C ′ D ) = 4.
Similarly, B = 60° and C = 90°. Therefore the difference in the areas of ∆ABC and ∆ABC′
57 4 x + x + x = 180° ⇒ x = 30°. Therefore, the respective 1
= ACC ′ = ( AD × CC ′ )
angles are 120°, 30° and 30°. 2
A 1
= (2 × 4) = 4 sq. unit
60° 60°
2
2 2
1 Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.
30° 30°
C Hint : The 30-60-90 degree theorem states that the sides
B √3 D √3
opposite 30°, 60°, 90° angles will be in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 2.
So, AD : BD : AB = 2 : 2 3 : 4.
660 QUANTUM CAT
59 Simply drop the perpendiculars and use the Pythagoras Hint : The perimeter of the triangle
theorem, you will find that these two triangles have the = AF + AD + DC + CE + BE + BF
same area. = 2AD + 2CD + 2BE
A
= 2( AD + CD ) + 2BE
5 5 P = 2( AC ) + 2BE = 2(2R ) + 2r
4 5 5
3 = 2r + 4R
B C Q R
3 D 3 4 S 4 62 As we know that each radius of the same circle is equal, so
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. we can find the following relations between angles.
In ∆FOD, OF = OD, so ∠OFD = ∠ODF = x (say)
60 Since AC is a hypotenuse, it means triangle ABC is a right
angle triangle and ∠B = 90°. Let I be the incentre of the In ∆EOD, OE = OD, so ∠OED = ∠ODE = y (say)
triangle, then ID, IE , and IF will be perpendiculars on the In ∆EOF , OF = OE , so ∠OFE = ∠OEF = z (say)
AC , BC and AB, respectively. A
Let the inradius be 1 unit, then
E
ID = IE = IF = BE = BF = IF = 1 F z z
x y
Therefore, BI = EF = 2, as BI and EF are the diagonals of
O
square BEIF. xy
A
B D C
Then from the diagram we have,
D
∠DFE = x + z = 76, ∠FDE = x + y
F I and ∠DEF = y + z.
But ( x + y ) + ( y + z ) + (z + x ) = 180°
B C
E ⇒ x + y + z = 90°
Now, BD = BI + ID = 2 + 1 Now, ∠DFE = 76
But, since D is the circumcentre of the triangle, so ⇒ ∠DOE = 2(∠DFE ) = 152
BD = CD = AD ∴ ∠DCE = 180 − ∠DOE = 28°
Therefore, AC = 2(BD ) = 2( 2 + 1) Similarly, ∠FED = 56
EF ⇒ ∠FOD = 2(∠FED ) = 112
Thus the required ratio =
AC ∴ ∠FBD = 180 − ∠DOE = 68°
2 1 ∠FDE = 48
= = Similarly,
2( 2 + 1) 2 + 2
⇒ ∠FOE = 2(∠FDE ) = 96
Hence choice (b) is the correct one. ∴ ∠FAE = 180 − ∠FOE = 84°.
NOTE You can assume any value or you can simply consider r, Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
as inradius. The method would remain the same.
63 Extend AC to a point P such that BP is a perpendicular on
61 If r and R denote the inradius and circumradius of a right AP, as shown in the figure.
angled triangle, the perimeter of the triangle A
(2r + 4R ) = (12 + 64) = 76 cm O
A 90°
D
120°
B C
D

F 90°
I
P
B C Since, OD and BP are parallel and O is the mid-point of
E
AB, so D will be the mid-point of AP.
If s denotes the semi-perimeter of a triangle, the area of
the triangle = r × s = 6 × 38 = 228 sq cm. Now, in the ∆PBC, ∠PCB = 60° and ∠PBC = 30°. Using
30-60-90 degree theorem in this triangle, we get
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
BP = 6 cm, as BC = 4 3 cm.
Geometry 661

As ∆AOD and ABP are similar triangles, so we can use the Therefore, from eqn. (i) or (ii)
mid-point theorem and then we will get X =Z
AO AD OD 1 Again, since BC = 2DE , therefore
= = =
AB AP BP 2
X = 2W = 2Y
Therefore, OD = 3 cm
Thus, W : X : Y : Z = 1 : 2 : 1 : 2
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
Hence choice (c) is the correct answer.
Alternatively Since O is the mid-point of AB, so
Hint To understand the ratios join DE and then apply
considering O as the centre you can draw a circle. Now, if mid point theorem in ∆ADE and ∆ABC. Then, you see that
you extend AC to the circumference and then connect AP DE DO EO 1
and BP as shown in figure, then angle APB will be a right = = = . In ∆BOD and ∆BOC the altitude is
BC OC OB 2
angle. OD 1 ∆BOD 1
same, but = , therefore = .
P OC 2 ∆BOC 2
C 90° It implies X = 2W . Similarly, X = 2Y
D
120° Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
90°
Alternatively Apply Mass-Point Geometry, you get
A B
O
wt. ( A ) = wt . (B ) = 1 and wt (D ) = 2.
Similarly, wt . ( A ) = wt . (C ) = 1 and wt . (E ) = 2.
wt . (D ) CO 2
Since, = =
wt . (C ) DO 1
The rest of the solution will be similar to the above one. area (∆X ) 2
Therefore, =
area (∆W ) 1
64 A right angled triangle can have the largest possible area
only when it is an isosceles one. That is AB = BC , so area (∆X ) 2
Therefore, =
∠BAC = ∠ ACB = 45. area (∆Y ) 1
In ∆EHC, ∠EHC = 90° and ∠HCE = ∠HEC = 45°, But, we also know that are (∆W ) + area (∆X )
So, HC = EH = 14 cm = area (∆Y ) + area (∆Z ).
And, then, we have AG = FG = EH = 14 cm Therefore, (∆W ): (∆X ): (∆Y ): (∆Z ) = 1 : 2 : 1 : 2
Therefore, EF = GH = AC − ( AG + HC ) = 14 cm 66 Let the other two sides be a, then 2a + b = 20.
It implies that EFGH is a square with each side 14 cm. We know that, for any triangle, the sum of any two sides
A must be greater than the third side. That is 2a > b and
a + b > a.
G (i) When 2a > b
⇒ 20 − b > b (Q 2a = 20 − b)
F H ⇒ b < 10
(ii) When a + b > a
⇒ b>0
B E C Also, when a ≠ b
Therefore, we can have a largest possible circle of radius ⇒ 2a + b = 20
7 cm in the square EFGH. 20
⇒ b≠
And the area of this circle would be π(7 2 ) = 154 sq. cm. 3
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.  20 
Thus, b = (0, 10) −  
65 By mid-point theorem,  3
 20  20 
When CD is a median, Or b =  0,  ∪ , 10
 3  3 
W + X =Y+Z …(i)
And, when BE is a median Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
X + Y =W + Z …(ii) 67 Let ∠FCE = x, then ∠FEC = x
Subtracting the equation (ii) from (i), we get ⇒ ∠EFC = 180 − 2x
W − Y = Y −W ⇒ ∠DFE = 2x ⇒ ∠EDF = 2x
⇒ W =Y ⇒ ∠DEF = 180 − 4 x
662 QUANTUM CAT
⇒ ∠DEB = 3x ⇒ R 2 = (4 − R )2 + 9
(Q ∠DEB + ∠DEF + ∠FEC = 180°) 25
⇒ R= cm
⇒ ∠DBE = 3x 8
⇒ ∠BDE = 180° − 6 x Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
⇒ ∠ADB = 4 x 70 Follow the construction given below. Triangle ABC is a
(Q ∠ADB + ∠BDE + ∠EDF = 180° ) right angled triangle and ACMN is a square. Point Pis the
⇒ ∠DAB = 4 x intersection of diagonals of the square.
⇒ ∠ABD = x In the right angle ∆APC, AP = CP , so the

(Q ∠ABD + ∠DBE = 4 x, as ∠ABC = ∠BAC ) ∠ACP = ∠CAP = 45°.

N
A
4x°
D
4x° A
P
2x°
F M
180–6x° 2x°
x° 180–4x°
180–2x°
3x° B C
3x° x° x°
C
B E
Now, you can see that ∠ABC = 90° A
∴ 4 x + 4 x + x = 180° and ∠APC = 90°. It implies that AC is
P
⇒ x = 20° the diameter of the circle such that
⇒ ∠DBE = 60° and ∠DEB = 60° ∠ABC and ∠APC are the angles of the D
semicircles, as shown below.
It implies that ∆BDE is an equilateral triangle. Therefore
Now, using the concept of ‘‘angles in B C
BE = 6 cm . Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
the same segment of a circle are
68 Let TR be the tree. F is the initial R equal’’ we can attain the following results.
position of fox, S be the initial position ∠ABP = ∠ACP = 45°
of squirrel and R be the final position of
and ∠CBP = ∠CAP = 45°.
squirrel.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Let TF = x, then from 30-60-90 degree
theorem, S 71 Extend the sides BA and CD so as to meet at P. Now it will
x 60°
form an equilateral triangle BPC.
ST = and RT = x 3. Therefore, BP = PC = BC = 6 3 m.
3 30°
T F
P
Therefore, RS = RT − ST
x 2x
= x 3− = D
3 3
A
2x
For the distance squirrel takes 2 minutes.
3
2x 2 B C
Therefore, for the distance fox will take minutes.
3 3 Further the triangle APD is a right angle triangle, where
And thus for the distance x fox will take 1 minute. ∠ADP = 90°, ∠APD = 60°, ∠PAD = 30°. So using 30-60-90
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. degree theorem in ∆APD, we have PD = 3 and AP = 6.
69 Drop a perpendicular bisector CD C Therefore, CD = PC − PD = 6 3 − 3
from the vertex C on the base AB. = 3(2 3 − 1) cm
Now consider a point O on CD such Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
O
that CO = AO = R , where R is the 72 Since, AB is parallel to CD, therefore ∠CDO = ∠ABO and
circumradius of the triangle ABC.
∠DCO = ∠BAO.
Now CD 2 = AC 2 − AD 2 = 25 − 9 = 16 A B
D Also, ∠DOC = ∠AOB. Therefore, ∆AOB ~ ∆COD.
⇒ CD = 4 cm.
D C
Again, in ∆AOD, AO 2 = OD 2 + AD 2 = (CD − CO )2 + AD 2
O
= (4 − CO )2 + 9
A B
Geometry 663

However, we cannot say that ∆DOA is similar to ∆COB Area ∆DOE 40  2

2
74 = = 
unless we have some necessary and exact information to Area ∆AOB 250  5
prove the similarity. The area of ∆DOA will be same as
DE 2 height of ∆DOE
the area of ∆COB , when the trapezium ABCD is a regular ⇒ = =
AB 5 height of ∆AOB
trapezium. That is when AD = BC .
height of ∆ADB 2 + 5 7
D C ⇒ = =
height of ∆AOB 5 5
O But since the base of ∆ADB = base of ∆AOB, therefore,
1
A B (b × 7 h)
area of ∆ADB 2 7 350
= = =
Now, Area ∆DOA = Area ∆DAB − Area ∆AOB. area of ∆AOB 1 (b × 5h) 5 250
Similarly, Area ∆COB = Area ∆CBA − Area ∆AOB. 2
But, since the base and height of ∆DAB and ∆CBA are Thus the area of ∆AOD = 350 − 250 = 100 cm 2
same, area of ∆DAB is same as the area of ∆CBA. Thus Now, since the base of both the triangles ∆ACB and ∆ADB
Area ∆DOA = Area ∆COB. are same, but the height of ∆ACB is twice the heigh of
Now, we know that irrespective of the shape of the ∆ADB, therefore the area of ∆ACB = 2 (area of
trapezium, ∆AOB is always similar to ∆COD. But, it is not ∆ADB) = 700 cm 2.
necessary that the area of ∆AOB is always same as that
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
area of ∆COD. The area of ∆AOB will be same as the area
of ∆COD, only when the trapezium ABCD is a Alternatively Area of region β = α ⋅ γ
parallelogram. That is when AB = CD and AD = BC . = 40 × 250 = 100 cm 2
Therefore choice (c) is correct.
And, area of ∆ADB = 100 + 250 = 350
73 If you drop the perpendiculars on AB from point D and Therefore area of ∆ACB = 2(350) = 700 cm 2
point E, they will be of equal length, as DE is parallel to AB.
Now, in both the triangles base AB is common. Therefore, 75 β = δ = α × γ = 4 × 9 = 6 cm 2
we can say that the area of ∆ADB and area of ∆AEB is same. ∴ α + β + γ + δ = 4 + 6 + 9 + 6 = 25 cm 2
Further, since ∆AOB is common in both the triangles ∆ADB
(β + δ ) 12
and ∆AEB, so it is clear that area of ∆DOA is same as area of Thus, =
(α + β + γ + δ ) 25
∆EOB. Since, DE is parallel to AB and
CD CE DE 1 Hence, choice (b) is correct one.
= = =
AC BC AB 2 Alternatively (α + β + γ + δ ) = α + γ = 4 + 9 = 5
Further, due to AAA property of similarity, we know that
∴ α + β + γ + δ = (5)2 = 25 cm2
∆EOD ~ ∆AOB. But,
(β + δ ) 25 − (4 + 9) 12
Since
DE DO EO 1
= = = , Thus = =
AB OB OA 2 (α + β + γ + δ ) 25 25
2
area ∆DOE  1 1 76 Extend DC till a point R.
Therefore =  = .
area ∆AOB  2 4 Now, ∠ACR = ∠APQ = ∠ABD
That is area of ∆AOB = 4(area of ∆DOE ). A P B
Now, (height of ∆DOE )
1 1
= (height of ∆AOB) = (height of ∆ADB or
2 3 R C Q D
∆AEB)
And, height of ∆CDE Therefore, PQ || BD
= height of ∆ADB = 3(height of ∆DOE ) But, given that AB || CD
And, base of ∆CDE = base of ∆DOE Thus it is proven that PBDQ is definitely a parallelogram.
1 Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
(3h × b)
Area ∆CDE 2 3
Then, we have = = 77 Let’s connect the mid-points P and M then the line PM will
Area ∆DOE 1
(h × b) 1 pass through the centre O of the circle, as the trapezium is
2
symmetric. In fact, PM will act as a diameter of the circle
∴ Area ∆CDE = 3(Area ∆DOE ) and it will be perpendicular to the parallel sides AB and CD.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. Now, drop another perpendicular BN from B.
664 QUANTUM CAT
Let PB = 16 x, then BR = 16 x, as PB and BR are the two = y 2 − 282
tangents from the same point. = (104 − x )2 − 282 …(ii)
And MN = 16 x, as PM and BN are parallel.
From the eqs. (i) and (ii), we have x = 51 and y = 53
As PB = 16 x, then MC = 49 x. It implies that RC = 49 x as
∴ AP = PC = 45 cm
MC and RC are two tangents from the same point.
⇒ AC = 90 cm
Therefore, NC = MC − MN = 49 x − 16 x = 33x
D
And BC = BR + RC = 16 x + 49 x = 65 x
x x
A P B
R A C
P
O

y y
D C
M N
Now, by using Pythagoras theorem in ∆BNC, we have,
B
BN = BC 2 − NC 2 = (65x )2 − (33x )2 = 56 x 1
Area of kite = × AC × DB
∴ BN = PM = 56 x 2

Now, the area of trapezium ABCD =

1
× ( AB + CD ) × PM = 90 × 52 = 2340 sq. cm
2 208
And semi-perimeter of kite = = 104 cm
1 2
⇒ 3640 = × [ 2(PB ) + 2(MC )] × PM
2 As you know that a kite is always a tangential
1 quadrilateral that is each the four sides touch the circle
⇒ 3640 = × (32x + 98 x ) × 56 x
2 inscribed in it.
⇒ 3640 = 3640 x ⇒ x = 1 Now, you know that in a kite (or a tangential
Thus the radius = OP = OM = 28 cm quadrilateral) the inradius
And, therefore the area of circle = π × 282 = 2464 sq. cm area of kite 2340
r= = = 22. 5
semiperimeter of kite 104
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
Therefore area of circle = π(22. 5)2
78 Since, opposite sides are equal, it means it is a
parallelogram. = 1591. 07 ≈ 1591 sq cm
Since, it’s parallelogram, opposite angles are equal. And Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
since it is a cyclic, so opposite angles are supplementary. 80 In the right triangle APB, AP = 45, BP = 28 and AB = 53.
Therefore, a parallelogram inscribed in a circle is a
Then the inradius of the incircle inscribed in the ∆APB is
rectangle.
r1 = 10 cm
Now, the area of a rectangle can be greatest only when
But, r1 = r2 = 10 cm
all the four sides of the rectangle are same. Thus each
side of the square = 5 cm. Similarly, r3 = r4 = 9 cm
Therefore required area = 25 sq. cm D

Hence choice (b) is the correct one.

Solutions (for Q. Nos. 79 and 80)
A P C
DP 6
79 Since, = , therefore, DP = 24 cm and BP = 28 cm.
BP 7 K r4 r3 L
Let AD = CD = x and AB = BC = y
Q 2( x + y ) = 208 cm
r1 r2
∴ x + y = 104 cm
⇒ y = (104 − x ) cm N Q S M
Now, AP 2 = AD 2 − DP 2
B
= x 2 − 242 …(i)
Now, NM = r1 + r2 = 20 cm
Similarly, AP 2 = AB 2 − BP 2
and KL = r3 + r4 = 18 cm
Geometry 665

Let us drop the perpendiculars KQ and LS on NM from K ⇒ x2 − x − 1 = 0

and L, respectively. 1+ 5
Then we have, QS = 18 cm, ⇒ x=
2
and NQ = SM = 1 cm B
But, KQ = LS = (r1 + r4 ) = (r3 + r4 ) = 19 cm
Let us consider right triangle KQN, we have 36° 36°
KN 2 = NQ 2 + KQ 2 = 1 + 361 = 362
⇒ KN = 362 = LM 108° D
108°
36° 72° 72° 36°
Therefore, perimeter of the quadrilateral
A 36° 36° C
KLMN = KL + LM + MN + KN 72° 72°
= 18 + 362 + 20 + 362 P
= 38 + 2 362 BP 1 + 5
⇒ =
= 2(19 + 362) cm AP 2
Hence choice (b) is the correct one. AB 1 + 5
⇒ =
81 First of all draw a diagonal, say BD. Since BC = CD, it gives AD 2
us ∠CDB = ∠CBD = 36° and ∠ADB = 72° and ∠ABD = 36°. Q AD = CD = 1
D C 1+ 5
36° 108°
∴ AB = BC =
72° 2
 1 + 5
∴ AB + BC + CD + AD = 2   + 2(1)
 2 
36°
= 3+ 5
72° 36°
A B Thus the perimeter of the dart is 3 + 5 cm.
5+1 Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Now, in ∆ABD, since AD = 1, so AB = BD =
2 83 Since the dart is a sort of a kite, though it’s a conclave kite
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. with a conclave (or reflex) angle, so it’s also symmetric
82 Let ABCD be the dart with the given specifications (angles about the diagonal DB. That’s why DB acts as an angle
and sides). Extend BD to P such that when you connect PA bisector. Thus we can determine every angle of the dart
and PC a kite ADCP gets formed with each of its smaller ABC as shown in the diagram.
1
angles equal to 36° and each of its larger angles equal to ∠ADB = ∠CDB = (216° ) = 108°
144°. 2
1
Now, you can see that both the triangles ABP and PBC And ∠ABD = ∠CBD = (72° ) = 36°
are two isosceles and congruent triangles. Let us consider 2
∆ABP in which BA = BP and AP = AD = BD. ∴ ∠BAD = 180 − (108 + 36) = 36°
As the two triangles ∆PAD and ∆ABP are similar ones, Similarly, ∠BCD = 36°
BP AP It shows that ∆ABD and ∆BCD are isosceles triangles.
=
AP DP Then, AD = BD = CD = 1 cm
BP BD R B
⇒ = B 108°′ 36°
BD DP
36°
BP BD
36°
36°

⇒ =
BD BP − BD O

BD
BP 108° 108°
⇒ = BD 36°
36° D 36°
BD BP − BD 36° 108°
BD BD A C A D
BP 1 Now cut the dart along the symmetric line BD, and then
⇒ =
BD BP − 1 join the two congruent triangles as shown in the second
BD diagram. What I have done is that keeping the ∆ADB as it
1 is I have rotated the ∆BDC about the vertex B, and then I
⇒ x=
x −1 have attached it with the ∆ADB. Now the vertices C and
666 QUANTUM CAT
A coincide, and the vertex D of ∆BDC has become the 85 Since ∠ADC : ∠BCD = 1 : 2 and ∠ADC + ∠BCD = 180°.
vertex R. Thus we get a rhombus of side 1 cm and its Therefore ∠ADC = 60° and ∠BCD = 120°.
1+ 5
longer diagonal is . But as you know that AC and DB are the angle bisectors,
2 so ∆DAC and ∆ABC are equilateral triangles.
As we know that the diagonals of a rhombus Let us consider AB = BC = CD = DA = AC = 6, then
perpendicularly bisect each other, so we can determine DO = OB = 3 3, as DO and OB are the altitudes of
the shorter diagonal by using Pythagoras theorem, as equilateral triangles ∆DAC and ∆ABC. Therefore,
discussed below. 6 3
RO 2 = AR 2 − AO 2 BD = 6 3 and EF = = 2 3.
3
2
 1 + 5 5− 5 Further, as you know that the diagonals of a rhombus
RO 2 = 12 −   =
 4  8 always bisect each other perpendicularly, so the
quadrilateral formed by the points A, F , C , E is either a
5− 5
⇒ RO = parallelogram or a kite or an isosceles triangle. But in all
8 such cases the area of the figure drawn using the four
5− 5 5− 5 points
⇒ RD = 2 = 1 1
8 2 A, F , C , E = × AC × EF = × 6 × 2 3 = 6 3
Therefore, area of rhombus 2 2
3
1 1+ 5 5− 5 5+ 5 And the area of quadrilateral ABCD = 2 × × 62 = 18 3
= × × = 4
2 2 2 2 2
A A
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. B B
F F
O O
Alternatively The area of dart will be less than E E
1 sq cm, as the second figure suggests that it is a rhombus
with each side 1 cm. Had it been a square with each side D C D C
1 cm, the area of the second figure would have been
maximum which is actually 1 sq. cm. Now, calculating A
B
F
the approximate value of all the choices, we see that only O
choice (c) is the valid one, as all other values are greater E
than 1.
D C
84 You know that by joining the mid-points of any
quadrilateral a parallelogram is formed. And you also know Therefore the require ratio of area = 6 3 : 18 3 = 1 : 3
that the diagonals divide the parallelogram into four equal Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
areas. That is area of ∆ POQ = ∆ SOP = ∆ORQ 86 Let CD = 2a, so AB = 8a
= ∆SRO = k (say)
Thus, AB + CD = 10a = 70
Let area of quadrilaterals ~ ASOP, ~ POQB, ~ ORCQ,
⇒ a = 7 cm
~ SDRO be 4 x : 5x : 7 x : 6 x, then we have,
⇒ AB = 56 cm and CD = 14 cm.
∆ASP 4 x − k 2
= = ⇒ k = 2x Now, we have DG = CG = 7 cm. But, since DG and DP are
∆RCQ 7 x − k 5
two tangents from the same point on the same circle, so
C
R they must be equal.
D
∴ DG = DP = 7 cm. Similarly, CG = CQ = 7 cm.
S Q D G C
O

A P Q
P B
Area (~ PQRS ) 2x + x + 2x + 2x 4
∴ = =
Area (~ ABCD ) 4 x + 5x + 6 x + 7 x 11
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. A E H F B

NOTE As in any parallelogram the diagonals bisect each other, so Further, EH = DG = 7 cm and HF = CG = 7 cm. Now,
they will act as medians and thus the parallelogram is divided into AH = BH = 28 cm.
four triangles of equal areas.
Geometry 667

But AP = AH = 28 cm, as both are the tangents drawn OC 2 = SC 2 + OS 2 = BR 2 + PD 2 …(iv)

from the same point on the same circle. A P D
Now, BQ = BH = 28 cm.
Thus we have, AE = AH − EH = 21 cm O
and DA = DP + AP = 7 + 28 = 35 cm. R S
Now, using Pythagoras theorem in triangle ADE, we have
DE = (DA )2 − ( AE )2 = 28 cm
Therefore circumference of the inscribed circle B Q C
 22
= 2πr = 2r(π ) = 28  = 88 cm. Adding eqs. (i) and (iv), we get
7
OA 2 + OC 2 = AP 2 + OP 2 + BR 2 + PD 2 …(v)
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Adding eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get
87 First of all we must understand that the square window will
be at the centre of the rectangular wall, otherwise the OD 2 + OB 2 = PD 2 + OP 2 + BR 2 + AP 2 …(vi)
diagonals of window and diagonals of wall won’t intersect From eqs. (v) and (vi), we get
at the same point. Now, look at the figure or draw a proper OA 2 + OC 2 = OD 2 + OB 2
diagram and you see that since the length of the wall is
32 + OC 2 = 52 + 42
greater than its height, so the diagonal will have an acute
angle with the base of the wall. Therefore the diagonals of ⇒ OC = 4 2
the wall will intersect the vertical sides of the window. Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
90 ∠APQ = ∠ACB = 60° = 180° − (∠BAC + ∠ABC )
∴ ∠AQP = 70° = 180 − (∠PAQ + ∠APQ )
A
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
1 Q
88 Let AB = 2x and CD = 2y, then PQ = ( AB + CD ) = x + y.
2 P R
1
× h × (2x + x + y )
Area of trapezium ABQP 2
=
Area of trapezium PQCD 1 × h × (2y + x + y ) B C
2
3x + y 1 x 1 Now, you can see that ∠BPQ = 120° and ∠PQC = 110°.
= = ⇒ =
x + 3y 2 y 5 Thus you have, ∠BPQ + BCQ = 180°

A B and ∠PBC + ∠PQC = 180°.

It implies that the quadrilateral PQCB is a cyclic one.
Therefore, ∠PBQ = ∠QCP = ∠ACB − ∠PCB
P Q = 60° − 40° = 20°
Hence Choice (c) is the correct one.

C
Hint ∠PCB = 180° − (∠PBC + ∠BPC ).
D
And ∠PBC = ∠BPC, as BC = PC
Since ABCD is a circumscribing trapezium,
So, AB + CD = BC + DA 91 Statement (i) is incorrect. In the following diagram, you
see that the kite diagram is symmetrical about only one axis
⇒ AB + CD = 24 cm
KM.
⇒ AB = 2x = 4 cm,
Statement (ii) is correct. Whenever the length of both the
BC = 2y = 20 cm diagonals of a kite becomes equal, the kite becomes a
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. square. Whenever all the angles of an isosceles trapezium
89 Given that OA = 3, OB = 4, OD = 5, then become equal, the trapezium becomes a square.
OA 2 = AP 2 + OP 2 …(i) Statement (iii) is correct, as the diagonals of a kite bisect
each other at 90°.
OD 2 = PD 2 + OP 2 …(ii)
Statement (iv) is correct. The are numerous possibilities.
OB = BR + OR = BR + AP
2 2 2 2 2
…(iii)
668 QUANTUM CAT
Statement (v) is correct. 94 Area of ~ ABCD = ∆ABD + ∆CBD
Statement (vi) is correct. A circumscribing quadrilateral = 2(∆AFD ) + 2(∆CBE )
has each of its sides tangent to a circle. Therefore,
= 2(9) + 2(18) = 54 cm 2
AB + CD = AD + BC .
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
K
g C
95 First of all draw two lines MP and CQ parallel to DA and join
D h g the centre of circle O with N.
J L
h D M C

N
e f
O
A e B
f
M
A P Q
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. B

92 Statement (i) is correct. OP = OM = ON = 4 cm

Statement (ii) is incorrect. When the cyclic quadrilateral (Radii of same circle)
is a kite whose main axis is the diameter of the circle, the MP = CQ = DA = 8 cm.
two diagonals of the kite intersect each other Since, CM and CN are tangents from the same point on
perpendicularly, however, it is not necessary that the the same circle, so CM = CN .
perpendicular line drawn through the point of
But, CM = DC − DM = 5 − 4 = 1 cm,
intersection bisects the side of the cyclic quadrilateral. It
is true only when the cyclic quadrilateral is a square. therefore, PQ = CM = CN = 1 cm.
Statement (iii) is correct. Now, since BP and BN are tangents from the same point
on the same circle, so BP = BN .
AC × BD = ( AD × BC ) + ( AB × CD )
Let us consider BP = BN = x, we have
A
D BQ 2 + CQ 2 = BC 2
⇒ ( x − 1)2 + 82 = ( x + 1)2 ⇒ x = 16
P
Thus the perimeter of the trapezium
ABCD = AB + BC + CD + DA
C = 20 + 17 + 5 + 8 = 50 cm
B
Since the unit of perimeter should be cm not the cm 2. So
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. choice (b) is incorrect.
93 Statement (i) is correct. Hence Choice (d) is the correct one.
AC = 2PQ = 2SR and BD = 2PS = 2QR 96 We know that if the diagonals of a quadrilateral intersect
Statement (ii) is correct. each other, the product of areas of opposite triangles thus
Area of ∆RCQ + Area of ∆SAP = Area of ∆SDR + Area of formed is equal.
∆PBQ D
1 1 1
⇒ (Area of ∆DCB) + (Area of ∆DAB) = C
4 4 4
O
1 θ
(Area of ∆ADC ) + (Area of ∆ABC )
4
1 1
⇒ (∆DCB + ∆DAB ) = (∆ADC + ∆ABC ) A B
4 4
1 1 1
⇒ (~ ABCD ) = (~ ABCD ) Area of ∆AOD = ( AO )(OD )sin θ
4 4 2
Statement (iii) is correct. 1
Area of ∆COD = (CO )(OD )sin θ
1 2
Area of X 1 + X 2 + X 3 + X 4 = ( ABCD )
2 1
Area of ∆BOC = (BO )(OC )sin θ
1 2
⇒ ~ PQRS = (~ ABCD )
2 1
Area of ∆AOB = ( AO )(OB )sin θ
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. 2
Geometry 669

1 1
∴ ( AO )(OD )sin θ × (BO )(OC )sin θ It shows that ∠AED = ∠AFD.
2 2 E
1 1
= (CO )(OD )sin θ × ( AO )(OB )sin θ 108°
2 2
⇒ area of ∆AOD × Area of ∆BOC
= Area of ∆COD × Area of ∆AOB A 72° 72° D
⇒ 32 × 18 = x × y 36° 36°
We know that x + y will be minimum when x = y
F
Therefore, 32 × 18 = x × x = x 2 72° 72°
⇒ x = 24 72°
108°
72°
36° 36°
Thus the minimum area of quadrilateral
B C
ABCD = 32 + 24 + 18 + 24 = 98 cm 2
Thus you can see that AB = AF = AE = ED = DC = DF .
Hence Choice (c) is the correct one. That is all the four sides of quadrilateral AEDF are equal.
97 Extend the line segment BC on both the sides and drop the So either it is a square or a rhombus; but since the
perpendiculars AP and DQ on the extended line PQ. The internal angles are not equal to 90°, so it would certainly
triangles ABP and DCQ are congruent, as AB = DC , and all be a rhombus. Further you know that every rhombus is a
the three angles in both the triangles, ABP and DCQ, are kite, so AEDF is a kite.
same. Therefore, AP = DQ . That is the distance between Now since the opposite angles of the rhombus AEDF are
AD and PQ is constant. It shows that the line segments AD not the supplementary angles, so AEDF is not a cyclic
and PQ are parallel. Thus the quadrilateral ABCD is a quadrilateral.
trapezium.
However, since the sum of opposite sides is equal, that is
E
ED + AF = AE + DF , so the rhombus AEDF is a tangential
108° quadrilateral.
A
A
36° 36°
D 72° 72° D Hence choice (d) is the best answer.
72° 72°
99 In ∆ACB, ∠ABC = 108° and AB = BC ,
∴ ∠BAC = ∠BCA = 36°
108° 108° 72° 108° 108° 72° Similarly, in ∆DCB, ∠DCB = 108°
B C P B C Q and CD = CB,
Now, you can see that in the quadrilateral ABCD ∴ ∠CDB = ∠CBD = 36°
opposite angles are supplementary. Thus in any D
quadrilaterals if the opposite angles are supplementary,
the quadrilateral is a cyclic one. Therefore ABCD is a 36°
cyclic quadrilateral.
Now, it is obvious that AB = BC = CD, but AD > BC so E 72° C
AD + BC > AB + CD. It proves that the sum of opposite 72° 36°
sides is not equal, so it is not a tangential quadrilateral. 108°
P
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. 72°
36°
98 In a regular pentagon each interior angle is 108°. Now in
∆ABC, since AB = BC and ∠ABC = 108°, so 36° 72°
∠CAB = ∠ACB = 36°. A B

Similarly, in ∆DCB, we have ∠BDC = ∠DBC = 36°. Now in ∆PBC , ∠PBC = ∠PCB = 36°,
Therefore, ∠EAF = ∠EAC = ∠EAB − ∠CAB So ∠BPC = 108°.
= 108° − 36° = 72° Therefore, ∠APB = ∠DPC = (180 − 108) = 72°
Similarly, ∠EDF = ∠EDB = 72°. Thus, in ∆ABP, two angles are equal, so the two sides will
So, in the quadrilateral AEDF, we have ∠EAF = ∠EDF. also be equal. That is AP = AB = 2 cm.
As we know that the sum of all the four interior angles of Similarly, in ∆DCP, two angles are equal, so the two sides
a quadrilateral is always 360°, so in the quadrilateral will also be equal.
AEDF we have ∠AFD = 360° − (108° + 72° + 72° ) = 108°
670 QUANTUM CAT
That is DP = DC = 2 cm. A
Therefore, the required perimeter of the quadrilateral
APDE = 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 8 cm. 36° 36°
36°
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. 36° 108° 72° 72° 108° 36°
B E
100 In ∆ACB, ∠ABC = 108° and AB = BC 72° 72° F G 72° 72°

∴ ∠BAC = ∠BCA = 36°

Similarly, in ∆DCB, ∠DCB = 108°
36° 36°
and CD = CB,
∴ ∠CDB = ∠CBD = 36° 72° 72°
D C D

So, ∠FAG = 36°

36°
Therefore, ∆BCF ~ ∆FAG.
Now, in ∆AFB, ∠BAF = 36°
E 72° C
and ∠ABF = 36°,
72° 36°
108° ∴ ∠AFB = 108°
P
72° and in ∆BAE,
36°
∠BAE = 108° and ∠ABE = ∠AEB = 36°.
36° 72° Also in ∆ABC, ∠ABC = 108°
A B
and ∠BCA = ∠BAC = 36°
Now, in ∆BPC, ∠PBC = ∠PCB = 36°, Thus, ∆AFB ~ ∆BAE ~ ∆ABC
∴ ∠BPC = 180 − (36 + 36) = 108° Now, since ∆BCF ~ ∆FAG
As it is obvious that ∆ABC and ∆BPC are similar triangles, and AF = BF and BC = 1
so BC AF
AB PC ∴ =
= BF FG
AC BC BC BF
2 PC ⇒ =
⇒ = BF FG
AP + PC 2 1 BF
⇒ = = BF 2 = FG.
2 PC BF FG
⇒ =
2 + PC 2 Once again, since ∆BCF ~ ∆FAG
− 2 ± 20 ∆ BCF BF 2 FG 1
⇒ PC = = −1 ± 5 ∴ = = =
2 ∆ FAG FG 2
FG 2
FG
⇒ PC = − 1 + 5. Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
(Since, length cannot be a negative 102 Consider the following diagram
value, so PC ≠ − 1 − 5)
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. A

101 It is known that the each interior angle of a regular 108°

1 1
pentagon is 108°,
so, ∠BAE = ∠AED = ∠EDC = ∠DCB = ∠CBA = 108°. 36° y 36°
B E
36° 36°
Since ∠ABE = ∠AEB = 36°,
36° 36°
1 1
therefore ∠EBC = ∠BED = 108° − 36° = 72°
As the interior angles on the same side of a transversal 1 F 1
72° 72°
are supplementary, that is ∠EBC + ∠BCD = 180°, so the x x
line segments BE and CD are parallel. 72° 72°
36° 36°
Similarly, AC || ED and AD || BC . C 1 D
∠BCA = ∠BAC = 36°
Now, triangles BFE and CDF are similar triangles,
and ∠FBC = 72°, so ∠BFC = 72°. x 1
therefore =
∴ ∠AFG = 72° and ∠AGF = 72°, 1 y
Geometry 671

But BE = BD = CE = y = x + 1, therefore 1+ 5 1− 5
⇒ x= or
x 1 x 1 2 2
= ⇒ = ⇒ x( x + 1) = 1
1 y 1 x+1 1− 5
Since, is a negative value, which is inadmissible.
⇒ x + x −1 = 0
2 2
b 1+ 5
−1 + 5 −1 − 5 Therefore, x = =
⇒ x= and x a 2
2 2
1+ 5
One of these lengths is negative, so it has to be discarded. But, since a = 1, therefore b =
2
−1 + 5
And the positive value of x = 103 First of all extend the sides DC and AB in order to meet at Q.
2
Now, the angle BQC = 36°.
1+ 5
∴ y= x+1= Since ∆BQC is an isosceles triangle so the perpendicular
2
QP drawn from Q on the side BC will bisect the BC, and it
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
will be the angular bisector of angle BQC, as well.
Hint For a standard quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0,
Similarly, the perpendiculars drawn from the incentre O
−b ± b2 − 4ac of the regular pentagon ABCDE will bisect the opposite
the two solutions of x are
2a sides as OR bisects AB at R and OP bisects BC at P.
Alternatively Choice (a) is wrong as the diagonal Now as given that BC = 2 cm, therefore, using 36-72-72
must be less than 2 cm. degree theorem in ∆BQC, we have BQ = CQ = (1 + 5) cm.
Choice (b) is wrong, as the diagonal must be greater than Now, in right angled triangle BPQ,
1 cm.
PQ = BQ 2 − BP 2 = (1 + 5)2 − 12 = 5 + 2 5
Choice (d) is absurd, as data is quite sufficient to
determine the diagonal. D

Hence choice (c) is the correct one.

Alternatively Let us consider that each side of the
E C
pentagon is a and each diagonal of the pentagon is b.
Now, using Ptolemy’s theorem in cyclic quadrilateral
BCDE, we have
BC × DE + BE × CD = BD × CE
⇒ a2 + ab = b2 A B

⇒ b2 − a2 = ab D

b2 a2 ab
⇒ − = C
ab ab ab E 108°
O
b a P 72°
⇒ − =1 72°
a b 90° 90° 18°
A 108°′ 72° 18°
Q
A R B
But since ∆BPQ is similar to ∆ORQ, therefore
BQ OQ BQ OP + PQ
b = ⇒ =
B E BP OR BP OR
1+ 5 a+ 5+ 2 5
b b ⇒ =
1 a
a a
5+ 2 5 5+ 2 5
⇒ a= =
5 5
C a D Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
1 Hint Using the 72-72-36 degree theorem in ∆BQC, we
⇒ x− =1
x have BQ = CQ = 1 + 5 cm since BC = 2 cm.
⇒ x2 −1 = x Alternatively Use trigonometric ratios.

⇒ x2 − x − 1 = 0
672 QUANTUM CAT
104 Since radius of circle is 1 unit. So each side of the hexagon But W = X + 2Y + Z = 4 + 2(2) + 1 = 9
is 1 unit. Therefore, W : X : Y : Z = 9 : 4 : 2 : 1
Therefore, A0 A3 = A1 A4 = A2 A5 = 2 units. Hence, Choice (d) is the answer.
A0 A2 A3 is a right angle triangle as it is a triangle in the Alternatively Since W = X + 2Y + Z , therefore
semi-circle. Since A2 A3 = 1, A0 A3 = 2, so A0 A2 = 3. choice (a) is wrong.
A4 A3
As FC = 2ED, ⇒ X : Z = 4 : 1, therefore choice (b) and (c)
are wrong.
Hence choice (d) is correct.
A5 A2 Alternatively As area of ∆FEO = ∆EOD = ∆OCD and
O area of ∆FDE = ∆FDO .
It implies that area of ∆FCD = 2(∆FED )
⇒ X + Y = 2(Y + Z ).
A0 A1 A B
Now, since A0 A4 = A0 A2 = 3.
Therefore, A0 A1 × A0 A2 × A0 A4 = 1 × 3 × 3 = 3.
Hence choice (c) is the answer. O
F C
Alternatively This problem can be solved using
30-60-90 theorem as well.
Alternatively Problem can be solved by using the
following concept too.
E D
Area of parallelogram A0 A1 A2O
= Area of ∆A0 A1O + Area of ∆A1 A2O Therefore choice (b) and (c) are wrong.
1  3  Further, W = X + 2Y + Z, therefore choice (a) is also
( A0 A2 × OA1 ) = 2  × 12 wrong.
2  4 
106 It can be deduced from the problem that the area of circle
⇒ A0 A2 = 3.
and area of hexagon are same.
Therefore, A0 A1 × A0 A2 × A0 A4 = 1 × 3 × 3 = 3.
Alternatively Problem can be solved by using the
following concept too.
A A × A2 A4 × A4 A0
Area of ∆A0 A2 A4 = 0 2
4R
 3  k 3
⇒ 3×  × 12 = ⇒k= 3
 4  4
Therefore, A0 A1 × A2 A2 × A2 A4 = 3 × 3 × 1 = 3 3 3 2
Now, area of hexagon = a.
105 In ∆EDC , ∠EDC = 120° and ED = DC 2
⇒ ∠CED = ∠DCE = 30° 3 3 2
Therefore, area of circle = a.
Similarly, in ∆FED, ∠FED = 120° 2
and FE = ED ⇒ ∠DFE = ∠FDE = 30°. Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
n(n − 3)
Therefore, in ∆GED, 107 Total number of diagonals =
2
∠GED = ∠GDE = 30°
12 × 9
⇒ ∠GED = 120° and GE = GD. = = 54
2
Now, using 30-30-120 degree theorem, we get the
Number of diagonals will pass through the centre
following results. n 12
= = =6
If EG = GD = 1, ED = 3. Therefore, FD = 3ED = 3. It 2 2
shows that FD = 3GD. Therefore, the number of diagonals which do not pass
It implies that FG = 2GD. Therefore, Y : Z = 2 : 1. through the center of the circumscribing circle
Now, in ∆CFD, FG = 2GD. Therefore, X : Y = 2 : 1 = 54 − 6 = 48.
Thus, Z : Y : X = 1 : 2 : 4. Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Geometry 673

108 The diameter of the smaller circle But in ∆PBQ, we have ∠QPB = 30°, ∠PQB = 30° and
(2 + 2) + ( 2) = 2( 2 +
2 2
2) ∠PBQ = 120°, therefore either using cosine rule (or
30-30-120 degree theorem) we will have PQ = 3 cm.
Therefore radius of the smaller circle = 2 + 2 It means each side of the external hexagon is 3 cm.
P Q

2+√2
A C

√2
1 1
1 1

The diameter of the larger circle = diagonal of the square 3 3 2

(1)
= 2(2 + 2) = 2( 2 + 1) Area of internal hexagon 1
∴ = 4 =
Therefore radius of the larger circle = 2 + 1 Area of external hexagon 3 3 3
( 3)2
The ratio of area of smaller circle to that of larger circle 4
π( 2 + 2 )2 2+ 2 Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
= = . Alternatively : Draw three new lines passing through
π( 2 + 1) 2
3+ 2 2
the centre of the hexagon, as shown below.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Now, you can easily observe that there are total 18
109 In the following diagram, there are six equilateral triangles equilateral triangles as in 6 within the internal hexagon
and you can see that apothem is the perpendicular angle and 12 = (6 + 6) outside the internal hexagon. Plaese note
bisector of the equilateral triangle which forms two that, in the following diagram, each of the 6 shaded
congruent triangles of 30-60-90 degree. If the apothem of obtuse triangles is equivalent to an equilateral triangle of
the regular hexagon is a, then by using 30-60-90 degree side 1 cm.
theorem (or trigonometric ratios or Pythagoras theorem)
2
we get to know that its side will be a.
3

6 1
Therefore, the required ratio of areas = =
18 3
Hint Consider the following triangles.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Alternatively If s be the length of each side and n be 60°
the number of sides, the apothem of a regular polygon is
1  π
a = × s × cot   120°
2  n
60° 60° 30° 30°
°
1  180 Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)
⇒ a = × s × cot  
2  6 
The first triangle is an equilateral triangle with each of its
1
⇒ a = × s × cot 30° sides 1 unit and fig. (ii) is an isosceles triangle with its
2 angles 30-30-120 degree and each of the two smaller
1 sides is 1 cm, then the area of both the triangles will be
⇒ a= ×s × 3
2 same.
2
⇒ s= a 111 Look closely at the following diagrams and you will find
3 that there are total 12 isosceles right angled triangles each
110 Let us assume that each side of the internal with equal area as each of these 12 triangles is congruent
hexagon be 1 cm, that is AB = BC = … = 1 cm, then (30°-60°-90°).
AP = BP = BQ = CQ = 1 cm, as ∆APB and ∆BQC are Now, out of the 12 triangles 4 triangles fall under the
equilateral triangles. shaded region and 8 triangles remain un-shaded.
674 QUANTUM CAT
1 2 (or right angled triangle)
4
1 3
3 7 8 = ×1 × 3 = sq cm.
2 2
6 11 12 3 3
5 10 And the area of the hexagon = × (1)2
2
9
3 3
= sq cm
4 1 2
Therefore, the required ratio = = .
8 2 Therefore the area of un-shaded region
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. 3 3 3
Alternatively From the following diagrams you can
= − = 3 sq cm
2 2
easily figure it out that the region A (isosceles triangle) is  3
1
equal to of the total area of the hexagon.  
6  2 1
Thus the required ratio = =
1 3 2
Similarly, region B (trapezium) is equal to of the total
2 112 In the following diagram you can easily notice that there
area of the hexagon. are total 54 equilateral triangles of the same size. Out of 54
1 1 4 2 equilateral triangles 12 triangles are shaded and
Therefore the total un-shaded region is + = = of
6 2 6 3 42 ( = 7 × 6) triangles are un-shaded.
the total area of the hexagon.
2 1
So the shaded region = 1 − = of the total area of the
3 3
hexagon.

A A
A B
A A
B A B
Even it is also obvious that each side of these 54 triangles
is 1 cm.
A
Therefore area of the shaded region
Thus the required ratio of areas of the shaded region to 3
1 = 12 × × (1)2 = 3 3 sq cm.
4
1
un-shaded region = 3 = . Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
2 2
3 113 First of all join the opposite vertices of the hexagram, then
you see that in the following diagram, ∆OAB is a right
Alternatively Please note that the following two
angled triangle, in which ∠OBA = 30°, ∠BOA = 60°,
figures are exactly the same except the triangle in the
∠OAB = 90°.
fig. (ii) is rotated 60° anti-clockwise with relation to the
fig. (i).

A B

Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)

Also, OA is the inradius and OB is the circumradius of the
Now you can see that the area of the shaded region is hexagram.
equal to a right angle triangle. Assume that the each side Since area of the incircle is 3π sq cm, so its inradius
of the hexagon is 1 cm, so the smaller diagonal of the (OA ) = 3 cm.
hexagon (which is also the altitude of the triangle) is
Using 30-60-90 degree theorem in ∆OAB , we have
3 cm and the longer diagonal (which is also the
AB = 3 cm and OB = 2 3 cm.
hypotenuse of the triangle) is 2 cm.
That is circumradius of the hexagram is 2 3 cm.
Then the area of the shaded region
Therefore, area of the circumcircle = π (2 3)2 = 12π sq. cm.
Geometry 675

Hence choice (a) is the correct one. D D1 C2 C

114 From the information given in the problem it can be
concluded that the area of the outer hexagon is 4 times the D2 C1
area of the inner hexagon. That is, if a0 and ai be the sides of
outer and inner hexagon, then
A1 B2
3 3
(a0 )2
Area of the outer hexagon
= 2
Area of the inner hexagon 3 3 A A2 B1 B
(ai )2
2
Therefore A1 A2 = B1B 2 = C1C 2 = D1D 2 = 2k
4 (a0 )2 a 2
⇒ = ⇒ 0 = That is each side of the octagon = 2k
1 (ai )2 ai 1
It is known that AB = BC = CD = DA = a
Perimeter of outer hexagon 6(a0 ) 2
∴ = = But Since AB = AA2 + A2B1 + B1B
Perimeter of inner hexagon 6(ai ) 1
∴ a=k + 2k + k
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. ⇒ a = k(2 + 2)
115 Connect the nearest three vertices of the hexagram which a
⇒ k=
will form an equilateral triangle, as shown in the following (2 + 2)
diagram. Thus we can determine all the angles of this
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
diagram.
Now, using 36-72-72 degree theorem we have the three
117 In triangle ABC, AB = BC
sides of the isosceles triangles as 1 + 5 mm, 1 + 5 mm ∴ ∠CAB = ∠ACB = ∠y = 22. 5°
and 2 mm. It shows that the each side of the equilateral as ∠ABC = 135°
triangle is 2 mm. Similarly, in triangle BCD, BC = CD
∴ ∠DBC = ∠BDC = ∠y = 22. 5°
36° as ∠BCD = 135°
Therefore, in triangle BPC,
∠BPC = 180° − 2y = 135°
72° 72° Thus, ∠APD = ∠BPC = x = 135°
60° 60°
72° 72°
60°
72° 72°
36° 36°

Therefore, area of the equilateral triangle

3 A D
= × 22 = 3 sq mm.
4 y y
P
Now the perpendicular of each isosceles triangle y y
B C
= (1 + 5)2 − (1)2 = 5 + 2 5
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Therefore, area of each isosceles triangle
118 In the following diagram PR is the shortest possible
1
= × 2× 5+ 2 5 = 5+ 2 5 diagonal of the regular octagon. Triangle PAQ is an
2 isosceles right triangle.
Thus the total area of the hexagram = 3 + 3( 5 + 2 5 ) D C
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
116 From the following diagram you can observe the
symmetricity of the structure in which each side of the
octagon is equal and each of the four triangles at the corner
P
is an isosceles right angle triangle. If the legs (or the equal d d
sides) of the right angles are k, then
A Q R B
AA1 = AA2 = BB1 = BB 2 = CC1 = CC 2 = DD1 = DD 2 = k
676 QUANTUM CAT
Let us consider NOTE Do you remember that in a regular octagon there are
three diagonals of distinct lengths? So PS is one of the
AP = AQ = b
diagonals shorter than the longest diagonal and longer
∴ PQ = 2b than the shortest diagonal.
But since PQ = QR = 2b
Alternatively As you know that every regular octagon
a
That is a = 2b ⇒ b = has three diagonals of distinct lengths, such that
2 d1 < d2 < d3. From the following diagrams, it is obvious
∴ PR = PA 2 + AR 2 that the required diagonal d = d3
Even it is also obvious that d3 = 2(d1 )
⇒ PR = b2 + (b + 2b)2
 4 + 2 2
⇒ PR = ( 4 + 2 2 ) b =  a d3
 2  d1 d1
  d2
d d3
=( 2+ 2) a d1 d1 d1

Hence choice (a) is the correct one.

Alternatively As ∠PQR = 135°, therefore by using
cosine rule in the triangle ∆PQR, we have Therefore the required length of the diagonal is
PQ 2 + QR 2 − PR 2 d3 = 2(d1 ) = 2 × ( 2 +
cos 135° = 2 )a
2(PQ )(QR )
= ( 4 + 2 2)a
a2 + a2 − d 2
⇒ cos(90° + 45° ) =
2(a)(a) 120 If you observe closely, you will find that the inradius of the
a2 + a2 − d 2 octagon is same as half of d2 and circumradius of the
⇒ − sin 45° = octagon is same as half of d3.
2(a)(a)
1 2a2 − d 2
⇒ − = d3
2 2a2
d2
⇒ d =( 2+ 2)a
d1
119 In the following diagram PT is the longest possible
diagonal of the regular octagon . Triangle RAS is an
isosceles right triangle. 1
(d2 )
Let us consider RA = AS = b Therefore the required ratio = 2
d
= 2
∴ RS = 2b 1
(d3 ) d3
2
But since PQ = QR = RS = ST = 2b
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
That is a = 2b
a 121 Let a be the side of the regular octagon, then each of the
⇒ b=
2 shorter sides of each of the isosceles right angled triangle at
a
D P C the four corners be .
2
Therefore area of all the four such triangles
Q
1  a a
d d = 4 × ×     = a2
2  2  2
R And area of the square at the centre = a2
Thus total shaded area = 2a2
A S T B

∴ PS = DA = DQ + QR + RA = b + 2b + b
= (2 + 2)b = (1 + 2)a
∴ PT = PS 2 + ST 2 a/√2
a
= [(1 + 2)a] + a = ( 4 + 2 2 ) a
2 2
a —
√2
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Geometry 677

 a a
2
(ii) 4 rectangles each having its area = a × b
Now area of each of the four rectangles = a ×   =
 2 2 (iii) 1 square at the centre having its area = a × a
2
a a
Therefore area of the unshaded region = 4 × = (2 2)a2 b
2
2a2 1 b
Thus the required ratio = 2
=
(2 2)a 2
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
122 In the following figures, you can easily observe that the
d+a Let each side of the isosceles triangle be b, then a = 2b
side of the square, b =
2 Therefore, total area of the octagon.
[(1 + 2)a] + a (2 + 2)a 1 
That is (b) = = A = 4 × bb + 4(ab) + (aa)
2 2 2 
A = 2bb + 4ab + aa
 a a  a
A = 2 ×  + 4 a ×  + aa
 2 2  2
A = a2 + 2 2a2 + a2
H G
d
P b Q A = 2(1 + 2)a2
A a B Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. 124 Let the perpendicular height and base of each isosceles
Hint HG is parallel to AB. Since P and Q are the triangle be a and b, respectively; and the shorter diagonal
mid-points of HA and GB, so you can use mid-point and the longer diagonal of each kite be c and d,
theorem and thus PQ will be parallel to AB and HG; and respectively.
PQ will be half of the sum of the AB and HG. 1
Therefore area of each triangle = × ab
Alternatively It is known that HA = AB = BG 2
AH a 1
And PA = = And, area of each kite = × cd
2 2 2
But since triangle PMA is an isosceles right angled
PA a/ 2 a
triangle, so PM = = =
2 2 2 2
∴ PQ = PM + MN + NQ
⇒ PQ = PM + AB + PM
(PM = MA = NB = NQ ) Now, if we assume that each side of the square is x, then
a  a1 x
⇒ PQ = + a+ = 1 + a we have a =
2 2 2 2  2 2
( 2 + 1)a (2 + 2) a 1
⇒ PQ = = But since area of each triangle is of the area of the
2 2 8
square, therefore
1 1
× ab = × x × x
2 8
1 x 1
⇒ × × b= × x × x
H G H G 2 2 8
M N
P Q P Q x
⇒ b=
A B A B 2
x
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. Also, d=
2
123 In the following diagram of a regular polygon there are :
1 1
(i) 4 isosceles right angled triangles each having its area Now, since × ab = × cd
2 2
1
= ×b×b 1 x x 1 x
2 ⇒ × × = ×c×
2 2 2 2 2
678 QUANTUM CAT
x Therefore, ∠LAH + ∠IHA = 720 − 4(150) = 120°.
⇒ c=
2 2 But, since ∠LAH = ∠IHA, therefore, ∠IHA = 60°.
x
d 2 Consider the quadrilateral EFGH , ∠HGF = ∠GFE = 150°.
Therefore, the required ratio = = 2 = Also, we know that the sum of all the interior angles of a
c x 1
2 2 quadrilateral = (4 − 2) × 180° = 360°.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. Therefore, ∠EHG + ∠FEH = 360°− 2(150) = 60°.
125 You can easily observe that there are 8 isosceles right But, since ∠EHG = ∠FEH, therefore, ∠EHG = 30°.
angled triangles, which are shaded. If each smaller side Now, we know that
(legs) of the isosceles right angled triangle is a, then the ∠IHA + ∠AHE + ∠EHG = ∠IHG = 150°.
hypotenuse of each triangle would be 2a and thus each
Therefore, ∠AHE = 150° − (60 + 30) = 60°
side of the octagon would also be s = 2a.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
The area of 8 triangles = 4 sq cm
1 128 Consider the hexagon ALKJIH, in which
⇒ 8 × × a2 = 4 sq cm ∠ALK = ∠LKJ = ∠KJI = ∠JIH = 180° − 30° = 150°. Also,
2
⇒ a = 1 cm we know that the sum of all the interior angles of a hexagon
That is each side of the octagon is s = 2a = 2 cm = (6 − 2) × 180 = 720°.
Therefore area of the octagon = 2(1 + 2)(s )2 Therefore, ∠LAH + ∠IHA = 720 − 4(150) = 120°.
= 2(1 + 2)( 2)2 = 4(1 + 2) But, since ∠LAH = ∠IHA, therefore, ∠IHA = 60°.

Thus the area of the common region = 4(1 + 2) cm 2 H

I G
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
J F
126 All the points are lying on the circle, so the quadrilateral
ACEG is a cyclic quadrilateral. Now, ∠ACE = 120°, since K E
AC , CE , EG, … are the equal sides of a regular hexagon.
E C L D

A C
B

G A Similarly, ∠GHC = 60°.

But since
∠IHA + ∠AHC + ∠GHC = ∠IHG = 150°
Therefore, ∠AHC = 150 − (60 + 60) = 30°.
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
We know that the opposite angles of a cylic quadrilateral
are supplementary. That is ∠ACE + ∠AGE = 180°. 129 The circumradius of the dodecagon is same as the
circumradius of the triangle.
Therefore, ∠AGE = 180 − 120 = 60°.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. The circumradius of the triangle
1
127 Consider the hexagon ALKJIH, in which = ( 3 2+ 3)= 2 + 3 cm
∠ALK = ∠LKJ = ∠KJI = ∠JIH = 180 − 30 = 150°. Also, we 3
know that the sum of all the interior angles of a hexagon Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
= (6 − 2) × 180 = 720°. 130 The circumradius of the dodecagon is same as the
J I circumradius of the square.
K H Since each side of the square is 3 + 1 cm, its diagonal
would be 2( 3 + 1) cm and so the circumradius would
L
( 3 + 1)
( )
G 1
be 2( 3 + 1) = cm.
2 2
A F Hence choice (a) is the correct one.

B 131 The area of dodecagon = 3 × circumradius = 3 sq cm.

E
C D Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Geometry 679

132 Consider the following figures. Thus ∆ADB is an equilateral triangle.

Now, we know that ∆AOB is an isosceles triangle as
A A OA = OB, and ∠AOB = 120° , so ∠OAB = ∠OBA = 30°
3 3 D A

4 5
B C B 4 5 C 120°
60° O

Fig. (i) A Fig. (ii) B C

Now consider the following figure, in which OA = OB = 2 cm

D F and AD = BD and AB is perpendicular to OD.
P Now using 30-60-90° theorem, we get OP = 1 cm, and
AP = BP = 3 cm.
B E C
Subsequently, DP = 3 cm and AD = BD = 2 3 cm.
Fig. (iii)
A
In figure (iii), anyone can easily infer that ∆BDP and
∆BEP are congruent ones due to the Side-Angle-Side
P
property. Consequently, it implies that BP (or BF ) is the D O
angle bisector as ∠DBP = ∠EBP.
Thus it can be generalized that all three tangents lines
B
AE , BF , CD are angle bisectors. And, so the intersection of
AE , BF and CD will be the incentre of∆ABC. It means Therefore, quadrilateral OADB is a kite and so its area is
PD, PE and PF each is the inradius of ∆ABC. Let us 1 1
( AB × OD ) = (2 3 × 4) = 4 3 sq. cm.
assume that the inradius be r, such that PD = PE = PF = r. 2 2
Now you can use the relation, Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
area of ∆ABC = inradius(r) × semi-perimeter (s ) Alternatively First of all determine the area of
∴ s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c) = r × s isosceles triangle AOB, then find the area of equilateral
triangle ABD, and then add them up.
⇒ 12 × 5 × 4 × 3 = r × 12
1 3
⇒ r= 5 Area of quadrilateral OADB = ( AB × OP ) + ( AB )2
2 4
Hence choice (a) is the answer.
To determine AB and OP use 30-60-90 degree theorem or
133 If the radius of smaller circle is exactly half of the radius of trigonometric ratios in ∆AOP or ∆BOP, where OP ⊥ AB
larger circle, YZ will be tangent to the smaller circle. and OA + OB = 2.
If the radius of smaller circle is less than half of the radius
135 The maximum possible area of quadrilateral ACBD = Area
of the larger circle, YZ will neither touch nor intersect the
of equilateral triangle ∆ABD + maximum area of ∆ABC
smaller circle.
But, the maximum possible area of ∆ACB can be obtained
If the radius of smaller circle is greater half of the radius
only when the radius CO will be perpendicular to AB. In
of larger circle, YZ will intersect the smaller circle at two
that case ∆ABC will be an equilateral triangle.
distinct points.
Therefore the maximum possible area of quadrilateral
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
ACBD
Solutions (for Q. Nos. 134 and 135)
3 3
134 Consider the following figure. = × ( AB )2 + × ( AB )2
4 4
∠ACB = ∠ABD = 60°
 3 
(Using the Alternate Segment Theorem) = 2 × ( AB )2 
 4 
∠AOB = 2(∠ACB ) = 120°
(Using the concept of Central Angle)  3 
= 2 × (2 3)2 
Now, since AD and BD are tangents, so ∠OAD = 90° and  4 
∠OBD = 90°.
= 6 3 sq. cm.
Therefore, ∠ADB = 360 − (∠OAD + ∠AOB + ∠OBD ) = 60°.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Now the ∠DAB = 180° − (∠ABD + ∠ADB ) = 60°
680 QUANTUM CAT
136 Let OP and OQ be the other two in-radii on the sides AB and ⇒ 122 = (3x − 3)2 + ( x + 9)2
AC, respectively. Also, all the three in-radii will be 27 3
perpendicular to the respective sides. ⇒ x= ⇒ AR = 2x = 6
5 5
A
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Q 138 Since ∠OAT = 90°, ∴AT = 40 cm
P
But you know that AC = CP ,
∴ CP + CT = 40 cm.
B D C Similarly, PD + DT = 40 cm
Since the two tangents drawn from the same point on the Thus the perimeter of ∆CDT = 80 cm
same circle are equal, so BD = BP = 2 and CD = CQ = 8. The area of the required in circle would be greatest when
Similarly, AP = AQ = x (say). the triangle is equilateral, which is not possible, so the
Semi-perimeter of the triangle (s ) triangle has to be isosceles. In that case, OT would bisect
1 CD and pass through the point P, consequently CP = DP
= ( AB + BC + AC ) = (10 + x ) and ∠CPO = ∠CPT = 90°.
2
And, area of the triangle A
C
= s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c)
= (10 + x )(8)(2)( x ) P
O T
= (10 + x )(16 x )
And, in-radius of the triangle = 6
Area of ∆ABC D
⇒ = 6 B
Semi- perimeter of ∆ABC
(10 + x )(16 x ) Since ∆OAT and ∆CPT are similar triangles,
⇒ = 6 ⇒ x = 6 cm So PT = OT − OP = 20 cm, CP = 15 cm, CT = 25
10 + x
cm.
Therefore, AB = 2 + 6 = 8 and AC = 8 + 6 = 14.
Now, the semi-perimeter of the
Thus the required ratio 4 : 7.
80
Hence, choice (a) is the correct one. ∆CDT = = 40 cm
2
137 Let AR = 2x, then 1
And area of the ∆CDT = × 30 × 20 = 300 sq cm
AB = AR + RB = 2x + 18. 2
∴ BP = x + 9, as perpendicular OP bisects the chord AB at Therefore radius of the incircle that is inscribed in
300
P. ∆CDT = = 7. 5 cm
40
But, you know that AR × RB = CR × RD
Thus the required area of the incircle = 56. 25 π sq cm.
∴ 2x × 18 = CR × 6
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
⇒ CR = 6 x
 CD  139 Let AB and CD intersect each other at P. Now, let us
∴ OP = QR = CR − CQ = CR −  
 2 consider the radius of the smaller inscribed circle is r and
that of larger inscribed circle is R, then AP = 2R , BP = 2r
 CR + RD 
= CR −   and AB = 2(R + r). Area of the shaded region
 2 
= π (R + r)2 − (πR 2 + πr2 )
 6x + 6
⇒ OP = 6 x −   = 3( x − 1) = π[R 2 + r2 + 2Rr − R 2 − r2] = 2πRr
 2 
C C

O
Q A B
P
A B
R P

D
D
Now, since ∆OPB is a right angled triangle, therefore
But, AP × BP = CP × DP
OB 2 = OP 2 + BP 2
Geometry 681

⇒ 2R × 2r = 8 × 8 As none of the 4, 2 and 2.5 satisfies both side of the

⇒ rR = 16 cm above equation (i), so choice (d) has to be the correct
Therefore, the area of the shaded region = 2πRr answer.
= 2π × 16 = 32 π sq cm. Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. Hint ( AM = AC , as both are tangents on the same circle
drawn from a common point)
140 Since BP is the median of ∆ABC, so you can use Apollonius
theorem, as follows. NOTE The best way to solve this problem is to go
  AC  
2 through the given choices. For finding the roots (or roots)
AB 2 + BC 2 = 2  BP 2 +    you may like to refer the chapter on Equations, Quadratic
  2  
equations and Polynomial equations in Quantum CAT.
⇒ 441 + 225 = 2(BP 2 + 144) 142 Since ∆APB and ∆DPC are similar triangles, so we have
⇒ BP = 3 21 cm AB AP BP
= =
Now, we have, CD DP CP
DP × BP = AP × PC 6 2 5
⇒ = =
⇒ DP × 3 21 = 12 × 12 CD 3 CP
6×3
⇒ DP =
48
cm ⇒ CD = =9
21 2
Hint ∠APB = ∠DPC, as they are vertically opposite angles.
BP 3 21 1
Therefore, the required ratio = = = ∠BAC = ∠BDC, as both the angles are on the same side of
PD 48 21 16
the chord BC.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Similarly, ∠ABD = ∠ACD.
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
141 Let radius of the circle be r cm, thenPC = PM = PN = r cm.
143 First of all extend PO till Q a point on the circumference.
Now, in ∆BMP, we have BM 2 + MP 2 = BP 2
Now using power of a point theorem you will have
⇒ BM 2 + r2 = (BN + NP )2 AC × BC = PC × CQ
⇒ BM 2 + r2 = (2 + r)2 ⇒ 7 × 5 = 1 × CQ ⇒ CQ = 35
⇒ BM = 2 (r + 1) Q
B

N
A O
M
r C
r
P
P B
r
Now, if the radius of the circle be r, then OQ = r and
A C OC = r − 1
Now, in ∆ABC, we have ∴ CQ = OQ + CO = 2r − 1
AC + BC = AB
2 2 2
That is 2r − 1 = 35 ⇒ r = 18
⇒ AC + (BN + NC ) = ( AM + BM )
2 2 2 Hence choice (d) is the correct answer.

⇒ 62 + (2 + 2r)2 = (6 + 2 r + 1))2 144 First of all extend PO till Q, a point on the circumference.
Now using power of a point theorem you will have
⇒ r + r = 6 (r + 1)
2
AB 2 = AP × AQ ⇒ 196 = 7 × AQ
Squaring both sides, we get
⇒ AQ = 28 ∴PQ = AQ − AP = 21
r4 + 2r3 + r2 − 36r − 36 = 0 …(i)
B
Now, the above equation has exactly two real roots;
r = − 1 and r = 3. But since negative value of r is
inadmissible, as radius can never be negative, so only A Q
P O
r = 3 is the valid answer. Otherwise, go through the
choices and substitute the value of r in the above
equation.
682 QUANTUM CAT
Now, if the radius of the circle be r, then OP = OQ = r =
21 Hint AB = 15 + 6 = 21 cm
2
And, AAA rules says that if the three angles of any two
Therefore, circumference of the circle triangles are same, both the triangles are similar. In this
21 problem ∠ P is common in both the triangles and one
= 2πr = 2π × = 66
2 angles is right angles in both the triangles, so the third
Hence choice (a) is the correct answer. angle in both the triangles will naturally be same.
Alternatively First of all connect OB, then OB will be Alternatively First of all draw a perpendicular BM
perpendicular on AB, as OB is the radius of the circle. from B on CA, so BM will be parallel to DC.
Let radius of the the circle be r, then OP = OB = r. Now, MA = CA − CM
B = 15 − 6 = 9 cm
And, BA = 6 + 15 = 21 cm
A P
P O

Therefore, we have D B
AB 2 + OB 2 = AO 2
21
⇒ 142 + r2 = (7 + r)2 ⇒ r =
2 C M A
Therefore circumference of the circle Now, applying Pythagoras theorem in ∆BMA, you will
 21 have
= 2πr = 2π   = 66
 2
BM 2 = BA 2 − MA 2
145 Since CP is a common tangent, so AC and BD are ⇒ BM 2 = 212 − 92 = 360
perpendiculars to CP. Now, you can observe that the two
triangles (∆PDB and ∆PCA)are similar triangles, as you can ⇒ BM = 6 10 cm
apply AAA rule. 146 We can easily figure out that the radius of the larger circle
A is double the radius of each of the smaller circle B.
P
That means area of circle A = 4 (area of each circle B)
⇒ A = 4B
It implies that the area of four smaller circles is same as
D B
the area of larger circle.
It implies that area covered by region D is same as area
covered by region C.
C A Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
DB CA 147 First of all connect OC , OP and OQ.
∴ =
PB PA Now, OC = OP = OQ = 6 cm.
6 15
⇒ = But, sinceD is the mid-point of AB, so CD is the median.
PB PB + AB And, since AC = BC , so CD is an angle bisector too. Also,
6 15 CD is perpendicular to AB and must pass through the
⇒ =
PB PB + 21 centre O.
PB = 14 cm and PA = PB + AB = 35 cm Please note that ∆COP and ∆COQ are symmetric.
∠PCO = ∠CPO = 30° and ∠COP = 120°.
Now, using Pythagoras theorem in ∆PDB and ∆PCA, we
Similarly, ∠QCO = ∠CQO = 30° and ∠COQ = 120°.
have
Therefore, ∠POQ = 120°.
PD = PB 2 − DB 2 = 4 10
C C
and PC = PA − CA 2 2

= 10 10 cm
∴ CD = PC − PD O O
P Q P Q
= (10 − 4) 10 = 6 10 cm
Hence choice (d) is the correct answer. A D B A D B
Geometry 683

Now, area of the sector BT 2 22

Now, the area of the square RBST = = = 2 sq cm
120° 2 2
POQ = π (6)2 × = 12π
360° And area of the circle = πr2 = π (1)2 = π
Now, drop a perpendicular on CP. Since CO = PO = 6 cm, Total area between the circle and the square
therefore OM = 3 cm and CM = 3 3 cm, so CP = 6 3 cm. RBST = π − 2
1
Therefore, area of ∆COP = × CP × OM Therefore, the area of the circle which is outside the
2 π−2
1 square ABCD =
= × 6 3 × 3 = 9 3 sq cm. 2
2
Thus, the required area of the common region between
O the square ABCD and the given circle
60°  π − 2 π + 2
=π−  = .
 2  2
30° 90°
C P Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
M
Similarly, the area of ∆COQ = 9 3 sq cm. Hint : In the following figure, area of circle = π sq. cm
Therefore, area of the common region And, area of square (black region) = 2 sq. cm
And, the area of shaded grey region = (π − 2) sq. cm
= 12π + 9 3 + 9 3
= 12π + 18 3 sq. cm. R B
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
148 In the given figure, drop the two perpendiculars OP and OQ
from the centre O of the circle and it is important to know
that the centre O falls on the diagonal BD of the square
T S
ABCD.
A B Therefore, the area of the common region in the
following figure
 π − 2
P O =π− 
 2 
π+2
= sq cm.
2
D Q C
R B
Now, let us assume that the side of the square is a cm.
Therefore AB = BC = CD = AD = a cm and BD = 2a cm.
But, BD = BO + OD
⇒ 2a=1 + 2
1+ 2 T S
⇒ a= cm
2
150 Let radius of the circle is r, then AO = MO = r.
Hence, choice (c) is the correct one.
Therefore, ON = MN − MO = 24 − r
Hint : Since OB, OP , OQ are the radii of the same circle,
D M C
so OB = OP = OQ = 1 cm, and since OD is the diagonal of
the square POQD, so OD = 2 cm.
r
149 In the following figure, RB = TS and BS = RT . But, since
RB = BS, therefore, RBST is a square. O
r
And, for that reason BT and BD coincide. 24–r
A 12 N B
A R B

Now, using Pythagoras theorem in ∆AON, we have

OA 2 = AN 2 + ON 2
⇒ r2 = 122 + (24 − r)2 ⇒ r = 15 cm
T S
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
D C
684 QUANTUM CAT
Level 02 Higher Level Exercise
1 BD = 53 cm ∴ BM = 20 2 cm
∴ AD = CD = BD = 53 cm ∴ BO = 20 + 20 2 = 20 (1 + 2 ) cm
∴ AC = 2 × 53 = 106 cm Now, since BO = a/ 2 = AB / 2
A ∴ AB = 2 (BO ) = 1.414 [20 (1 + 1.414)]
= 68.2843 = 68.28 cm
3 ∠A + ∠B = 90° A
D
∠A − ∠B = 89 − 1 = 88
∠A − ∠B = 88 − 2 = 86
∠A − ∠B = 87 − 3 = 84
B C … … … … …
∠A − ∠B = 45 − 45 = 0
AB + BC + AC = 2 × 126 cm = 252 cm ∠A − ∠B = 44 − 46 = − 2
∴ AB + BC = 146 cm … … … … … C B
Let AB = x cm ∠A − ∠B = 1 − 89 = − 88
∴ BC = (146 − x ) cm, AB 2 + BC 2 = AC 2 Thus k can assume total 44 + 1 + 44 = 89 values
x 2 + (146 − x )2 = (106)2 …(1) 4 ∠SPT and ∠SOT are supplementary, then
Solving the equation (1), we get x = 56 and x = 90 ∠SOT = 180° − 50° = 130°
A 1
∴ ∠SRT = (∠SOT ) = 65°
2
∴ ∠SQT = 180 − 65° = 115°
10
6c R
56 cm

D m

O
S T

B 90 cm C
Q
Consider AB = 56 cm, then BC = 90 cm
Longest median will fall on the shortest side.
1
Now, the area of ∆BCD = × BD × BC P
2
1
= × 28 × 90 = 1260 cm 2 5 Let BC be the ladder, then
2 C
2 Let AB = BC = a, then AC = 2a
P
∴ AO = OC = BO = 2a/ 2 = a/ 2
Now, by angle bisector theorem
AB BM BM a 2
= ⇒ = =
AO MO MO a 2 1
A B Q
A
BC = 6.5 m
and AB = 5.2 m
∴ AC = (BC )2 − ( AB )2
O
⇒ AC = 3.9 m
M Now, PQ 2 = PA 2 + AQ 2
(6.5)2 = (2.5)2 + AQ 2 ⇒ AQ = 6 m
B N C
∴ BQ = AQ − AB = 6 − 5.2 = 0.8 m
∴ MO = 20 cm ∴ The foot of the ladder will slip by 0.8 m
Geometry 685

6 ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180 10 Time taken in the collision of the two trains

Any one of angle can possess the values from 1 to 178. 500
= = 5h
A (40 + 60)

a J N

W E

b c 100 km S
B C
7 Cannot be determined.
8 ∆ABC is a right angled
C E Q
P 200 km 300 km L
500 km
D
In 5 hours, plane will cover 5 × 200 = 1000 km distance
60°
11 Two trains meet with an accident at a place 200 (= 40 × 5)
60° km away from Patiala.
B A ∴ The required distance = 200 km
and ∠ABC = 90° 1 2 2
12 Area of ∆BDE = × AB × BC
Let AB = x 2 5 7
4 1 4
then AB = AD = CD = BD = x = × ( AB × BC ) = area of ∆ABC
35 2 35
∴ ∆ABD is equilateral triangle
35
∴ ∠CAE = 60° ∴ Area of ∆ABC = × 20 = 175 cm 2
4
∴ ∠ BCA = 30° ⇒ ∠ ACE = 60°
13 Let E be on BC and BE = EC
∴ ∠CEA = 60° , also.
Hence, ∆ACE is an equilateral triangle Let F be on AE so that triangle FBC is equilateral.

Thus, AC = AE = CE = 2x ∠DAB = ∠ABF = 20°

BC A
and = tan 60° = 3 ⇒ BC = AB 3 = x 3 (20°)
AB
BC x 3 3
∴ = = D
EC 2x 2
9 πr2 = 3π ⇒ r= 3 F
∴ DE = 2 r − 2 r cos 120°
2 2

DE = r2 (Q 3 = r) B E C
A
and DA = BF
∴ Trapezoid ADFB is isosceles.
D ∠FAD = ∠DBF = 10°
⇒ ∠DBC = 10 + 60 = 70°
14 Calculate them physically (or manually)
O
15 AB = 6 cm, ∠C = 60° and ∠A = ∠B = 60°
E F
∴ ∆ ABC is an equilateral triangle
B C
3
∴ Area of ∆ABC = × (6)2 = 9 3
But AB = 2DE (By similarly of triangles) 4
∴ AB = 2 r2 = 2 × ( 3)2 = 6 3
Area of (∆ADE + ∆BFG ) = 2 × × (2)2 = 2 3
(Q D and E are the mid-points of OA and OB) 4
∴ Perimeter of triangle ABC = 3 × 6 = 18 units. ∴ Area of pentagon = 9 3 − 2 3 = 7 3 cm 2
686 QUANTUM CAT
16 Since, PQRS is a parallelogram 20 There are total 16 similar triangles each with equal area.
R C D R C
D

S Q

A P B
A P B
Here, 4 out of 16 triangles are taken. So the number of
∴ ∠PSR = 90° (∠PSR + ∠PQR = 180° )
shaded triangles = 4 and number of unshaded triangles = 12
17 From the given relation, we can say that x = wr, y = wr2, 1
z = wr3. ∴ Required ratio =
3
∴ z − w = w(r3 − 1)
21 Number of total rectangles = 4C 2 × 3C 2 = 6 × 3 = 18
Now, since y > 90 and x < 90, therefore r > 1.
22 ∠PDB = ∠QEA = 80°
Further, it is known that w + x + y + z
= w(1 + r + r2 + r3 ) = 360, which is integer. Ans, it is also ∴ ∠PED = ∠QDE = 10° (Q ∠DPE = ∠DQE = 90° )
given that r is an integer, so w, x, y and z should also be ∴ ∠DRE = 180 − (10 + 10) = 160°
integers. ∴ ∠PRD = 180 − ∠DRE = 20°.
360 AB
23 OC =
r 1 + r + r2 + r3 w = z − w = w(r3 − 1) 2
1 + r + r2 + r3
AO = OC = OB
2 15 24 168
∴ ∠OAC = ∠OCA = ∠BCO = ∠OBC = 45°
3 40 9 236
∴ ∠ACB = 90°
4 75 Non-integer —
24 Please note that all the given triangles are equilateral.
5 156 Non-integer —
 60 3 
6 259 Non-integer — Area of shaded region = 3 πr2 − × r2 
 360 4 
Here, we see that for r = {2, 3} we have w as an integer.
r2  3 3
For r = 4, 5, 6, we have w as a non-integer value. Also, for = π − 2 
r ≥ 7, 0 ≤ w < 1. That means w is a non-integer for r ≥ 7. 2  
Now, for r = 2, we have w = 24, x = 48, y = 96, z = 112, 26 ∠ORP = 90° (Q OP is a diameter of smaller circle)
which satisfies the condition that w, x < 90 and y, z > 90.
OS = 5 cm and OR = 4 cm
But, for r = 3, we have w = 9, x = 27, y = 81, z = 243,
which means y < 90. That is wrong. ∴ SR = (5)2 − (4)2 = 3 cm
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. ∴ SP = 2 (SR ) = 6 cm
18 ∠ROQ = 180 − 50 = 130° (Since, OR passes through centre O and perpendicular to
Q ∠OQP + ∠ORP + ∠QOR + ∠QPR = 360° SP therefore OR bisects SP.)
 
 and ∠OQP = ∠ORP = 90°  27
AD DO
= =1
Now, since RT = TM and QS = SM AB BO
Also OR = OM = OQ ⇒ OB = OD = 8 cm
∴ ∠ROT = ∠TOM and ∠MOS = ∠SOQ Q ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral
1 ∴ DO × BO = CO × AO
∴ ∠SOT = ∠ROQ
2 8 × 8 = 4 × AO ⇒ AO = 16 cm
∴ ∠SOT =
130
= 65° ∴ AC = 16 + 4 = 20 cm
2 28 When ∠A = 60° , BC = b = c.
19 12 + 6 + 1 = 19
And, when ∠A = 90° , a = 2b = 2c
∴ 60° < A < 90°, c<a<c 2
29 OR = (OQ ) + (RQ )2
2 2

OR 2 = 5OQ 2 [Q RQ = 2(OQ )]
⇒ radius (r) = OQ 5
Geometry 687

r AE AB 7.5 5
∴ OQ = 34 = = =
5 EC BC 10.5 7
Again, OC 2 = OH 2 + HC 2 Now, AB 2 + BC 2 = AC 2

r2 = (OQ + QH )2 + (QH )2 (5k )2 + (7 k )2 = (18)2

2 324
 r  74k 2 = 324 ⇒ k 2 =
r =
2
+ QH  + (QH )2 (Q HQ = HC ) 74
 5 
1 1
r Area of ∆ABC = × AB × BC = × 5k × 7 k
⇒ QH = 2 2
5 35 2 35 324
= k = × = 76.621 cm 2
r RQ 2 2 74
∴ HC = = ⇒ RC = (RD )2 + (DC )2
5 2 35 There are total 12 similar triangles each with equal area.
2 2 But a larger triangle ABC (or DEF) has only 9 smaller
 r   r  2
=   +  =r triangles. Out of 9 triangles only 6 triangles are common.
 5  5 5
∴Area of common region
2
∴ RC + FS = 2 r C
5
30 The best way is to consider some values and verify the D E
results.
31 ∠OCT = 90° , ∠DCT = 45°
A B
∴ ∠OCB = 45°
∴ ∠COB = 45° (∆OBC is a right angled triangle)
F
∴ ∠AOC = 180° − 45° = 135°
6
Now, Q CD = 10 ⇒ BC = 5 cm = OB = × 198 = 132 cm 2
9
⇒ OC = 5 2 cm = OA
Again, AC 2 = OA 2 + OC 2 − 2OA ⋅ OC cos 135° 36 9 × 180 − 2 × 360 = 180 × 5 = 900°

= 2(OA )2 − 2 (OA )2. cos 135° AD

37 OR = DS = = 6 cm
2
 1 100
= 2 (5 2)2 − 2 (5 2)2 ×  −  = 100 + DC
 2  2 and OS = DR = = 8 cm
2
AC ≈ 170.70 ⇒ AC ≈ 13 cm
2
R
D C
∴ Perimeter of ∆OAC = OA + OC + AC T
= 5 2 + 5 2 + 13 = 27 cm
S
32 ∠ACB = 60º (Q ∠ACB + ∠ADB = 180° ) O
Q

and ∠CAB = 30° (Q ∠ACB + ∠CAB = 90° )

AC = 2 × 6 = 12 cm A P B
BC 1
= sin 30° = ⇒ BC = 6 cm ∴ SR = 10 cm
AC 2
BC 1 OS × OR SR × OT
and = tan 30° = ⇒ AB = 6 3 cm ∴ Area of ∆ORS = =
AB 3 2 2
8 × 6 10 × OT 48
1 = ⇒ OT = cm 2
∴ Area of ∆ABC = × 6 × 6 3 = 18 3 cm 2 2 2 10
2 2
1 1 1  48 576
33 Area of ∆ BAE = AC × BD = Area of ∆ ABC ∴ Area of circle = πr2 = π ×   = π cm 2
 10  25
4 3 12
B 38 200 = 23 × 52
Number of total factors = (3 + 1) × (2 + 1) = 12
12
∴ Total number of required rectangles = =6
2
E
Area = b × l
200 = 1 × 200 = 2 × 100 = 4 × 50 = 5 × 40
A D C
= 8 × 25 = 10 × 20
688 QUANTUM CAT
39 Since a circle can pass through any 3 non-collinear points, 43 AB = SQ = 25 cm and PQ = 24 cm, therefore SP = 7 cm
so from total 8 points we can have maximum possible P
number of circles = 8C 3 = 56
But, since it is given that 4 points lie on the same circle, 90°
therefore we will have fewer circles drawn. Q
S
Therefore, the actual number of circles drawn
= 8C 3 − 4C 3 + 1 = 53 90°

A
NOTE When we reduce 4 C3 circles from 8 C3 , we actually B R
reduce all the possible circles, but there must be 1 circle with
AP = 12 cm and SP = 7 cm
4 points on its circumference. That’s why we are adding 1
after deducting 4 C3 . (∆PSQ , ∆QBR and ∆PAR are similar)
∴ AS (= BQ ) = 12 − 7 = 5 cm
40 Here, AC and BC are the secants of the circle and AB is
PS PA 7 12 300
tangent at D ∴ = ⇒ = ⇒ AR =
∴ AE × AC = AD 2 SQ AR 25 AR 7
9 300
AE × 4 = (3)2 ⇒ AE = ∴ BR = AR − AB = − 25
4 7
9 7 125 AB 25 × 7 7
∴ CE = 4 − = ∴ BR = ⇒ = =
4 4 7 BR 125 5
7 9  7 21 SP BQ
∴ CE : ( AE + AD ) = :  + 3 = : =1: 3 44 =
4  4  4 4 PQ QR
41 ∠ADO is a right angle (angle of a semicircle) ⇒
7
=
5
⇒ QR =
120
New since OD is perpendicular on the chord AC and OD 24 QR 7
passes through the centre O of the larger circle ABC, then 1 288
× AP × PR 12 ×
OD must bisect the chord AC at D. Area of ∆APR 7 = 144
∴ = 2 =
O Area of ∆BQR 1 × BQ × QR 5×
120 25
2 7
D
90° (PR = PQ + QR )
Alternatively
2 2
Area of ∆APR  AP   12 144
=  =   =
Area of ∆BQR  BQ  5 25

A 45 x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = xy + yz + zx
∴ AD = CD = 6 cm ⇒ x 2 + y 2 + z 2 − xy − yz − zx = 0
42 ∠CED = 120° (Q ACED is cyclic) ⇒ 2( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 − xy − yz − zx ) = 0
and ∠BED = 60° ⇒ ( x 2 + y 2 ) + ( y 2 + z 2 ) + (z 2 + x 2 ) − 2xy − 2yz − 2zx = 0
∴ ∠EDB = 90° ⇒ ( x − y )2 + ( y − z )2 + (z − x )2 = 0
BD 6 3
∴ = cos 30° ⇒ = ⇒ x = y =z
BE BE 2
∴The given triangle is an equilateral triangle.
⇒ BE = 4 3 cm
∴ BC = BE + CE = 4 3 + 5 3 = 9 3cm 46 Let AD = 3a and DC = 6a S

Now, since AB and CB are the secants of the circle. 6a

∴ DH = HG = GC = = 2a H G
∴ BD × BA = BE × BC 3 M
2a P R
6 × BA = 4 3 × 9 3 ⇒ BA = 18 cm HM = MG = = a = SM
2
Again, ∆ACB is a right angled triangle (Q ∠C = 90° ) N
∴ NQ = a (also) E F
∴ AC = AB sin 30° (sin 30° = 1 2)
∴ SQ = SM + MN + NQ
AC = 9 cm (Alternatively apply Pythagorus theorem). Q
= a + 3a + a = 5a
and AD = AB − BD = 12 cm
Since diagonal of square, SQ = 5a
AC 9 3
∴ = = But, SQ = diameter of circle PQRS = diagonal of square
AD 12 4
Geometry 689

PQRS then BQ = r 2
5a Therefore, BP = PQ + BQ = r + r 2
∴ Radius of the circle =
2 Similarly, BP = OB − OP = R 2 = R 2 − R
2
 5a ⇒ R ( 2 − 1) = r( 2 + 1)
⇒ Area of the circle = π ×  
 2
⇒ r = R ( 2 − 1)2
25 2
(a π ) ⇒ r = R (3 − 2 2)
Area of circle 25π
Here = 4 =
Area of rectangle 3a × 6a 72 Area of larger circle π R2 R2
∴ = =
Area of smaller circle 4π r 2
4 (3 − 2 2)2 R 2
47 In the first diagram, join the opposite vertices of the
1
hexagon. It gives us 12 congruent right angle triangles. =
Out of them 6 such triangles fall inside the triangle ∆BDF. 4(17 − 12 2)
1 1
Therefore, area of ∆BDF = (area of hexagon) =
2 68 − 48 2
49 AX , BY and CZ are perpendiculars drawn on the tangent
AD from the centers X , Y and Z of the respective circles.
Let CZ = NZ = PZ = r1, BY = MY = NY = r2, X = MX = r3
and DP = k.
Since, ∠ADG = 90° , therefore ∠BYD = ∠AXD = 45° .
Now, since CZ = r1, therefore DZ = 2 r1
Now, since BY = r2, therefore
Now, in the second diagram, we can observe that there DY = 2r2 = r2 + r1 + 2r1
24 congruent equilateral triangles. Out of them 9 such
⇒ r2( 2 − 1) = r1( 2 + 1)
triangles fall inside the triangle ∆PQR.
r1
9 ⇒ r2 =
Therefore, area of ∆PQR = 24(area of hexagon) ( 2 − 1)2
24

A G

M
Therefore, we have
1 Y
(Area of hexagon )
Area of ∆BDF 1/ 2 4 B F
= 2 = = N
Area of ∆PQR 9
(Area of haxon) 9 / 24 3
24 Z
E
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. P
48 OA = AB = BC = OC = OP D
Let OA = R (radius of the larger circle), then OB = R 2
Similarly, since AX = r3, therefore DX = 2r3
Similarly PQ = MQ = QR = r (radius of the smaller circle)
⇒ 2r3 = r3 + r2 + 2r2
O C
⇒ 2r3 = r3 + r2( 2 + 1)
r1
⇒ 2r3 = r3 +
( 2 − 1)3
r1
⇒ r2( 2 − 1) =
P ( 2 − 1)3
P
Q r3 1
⇒ =
R r1 ( 2 − 1)4
A M B
690 QUANTUM CAT
r3 1 Again ∆RGH ~ ∆RPQ
⇒ =
r1 17 − 12 2 and PQ = 2GH (By mid-point theorem)
Hence choice (b) is the correct one. ⇒ RJ = 2RK ⇒ RK = JK
2
Area of ∆ABC  BC  1 But since EF = JK
50 =  =
Area of ∆AED  0.65 BC  0.4225 ∴ AE = EF = JK = RK
∴ Area of ∆AED = 0.4225 × 68 = 28.73cm 2 ∴ RJ = RK + JK and AF = AE + EF
and RJ = AF = h (say),
51 Let the radius of each circle be r unit then
1
PQ = QR = PR = 2 r × PQ × h
Area of ∆ PQR PQ 1
∠ PDM = ∠ QEN = 30° Then = 2 = =
Area of ∆ABC 1
× BC × h BC 2
2
2r 53 It can be solved using the property of tangents.
P Q (Tangents on the circle drawn from the same points are
same in length)
D M 2r N E S A R

DM
∴ = cos 30°
DP M N
3 O
DM = DP × [ DP = QE = (r)]
2
r 3
⇒ DM =
2 P B Q
∴ DE = DM + MN + NE Points M , A, N and B are the points of tangent.
=
r 3
+ 2r +
r 3
= (2 + 3) r ∴ PS + QR = PQ + SR = 2 (21) = 42 cm
2 2 ∴ Perimeter of trapezium = 2 (42) = 84 cm
∴ DE = DF = EF = (2 + 3) r
54 Let MN be the bridge.
Again, ∠ PAS = ∠ QBT = 30°
AP AB
∆APM ~ ∆ABC ⇒ =
PM BC
P 2r Q 500 1500
= ⇒ PM = 1200 = QN = BR
PM 3600
A
A S 2r T B 500 m
M
PS 1 r 1 P
∴ = tan 30° = ⇒ =
AS 3 AS 3 300 m
⇒ AS = r 3 = BT
Q N
∴ AB = AS + ST + BT = r 3 + 2r + r 3 = 2 r(1 + 3)
∴ AB = BC = AC = 2 r (1 + 3) 700 m

Ratio of perimeter of equilateral triangle

= ratio of their sides B R C
3600 m
∴ Ratio of perimeter of ∆ ABC : ∆ DEF : ∆ PQR
∴ RC = BC − BR = 2400 m
= 2(1 + 3): (2 + 3): 2
and NR = BQ = 700 m
52 ∆APQ ~ ∆ ACB, BC = 2PQ
∴ NC = NR 2 + RC 2
and BC || PQ ⇒ AF = 2AE ⇒ AE = EF
C ⇒ NC = 2500 m

R Also AM = AP 2 + PM 2
G
P K ⇒ AM = 1300 m
J F ∴ Total distance to be travelled = AM + MN + NC
H
E = 1300 + 300 + 2500
A Q B = 4100 m
Geometry 691

55 Let AD = h (say) 58 Since the weight (C ) = 2 and weight ( A ) = 3 and

1 3 weight (B ) = 4, therefore AY : BY = 4 : 3.
then Area of ∆ABC = bc sin 120° = bc
2 4 Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
1 3
Area of ∆ BAD = ch sin 60° = ch 59 The best way is to apply Mass-Point Geometry concept. We
2 4 can say that the mass (or weight) at point Y is 5(= AY + BY )
A and the mass at X is 8 (= AX + BX ).
(1)A(5)
60° 60° 4 3
c b
h X(8)
(5)Y Z 5
1
B D C (4)B C(3)
a
1 3 Further, the weight at A is 1 and weight at B is 4.
and area of ∆ CAD = bh sin 60° = bh Similarly, the weight at C is 3 and weight at A is 5.
2 4
Since, we are getting two different weights at A, so we need
Now, A(∆ABC ) = A(∆BAD ) + A(∆CAD )
to take LCM of these two weights 1 and 5, which is 5.
3 3 3
bc = ch + bh Now, we need to revise the weights at all the points due
4 4 4
to a new weight at A.
bc
⇒ bc = h (b + c) ⇒ h = Considering the line segment AB, we need to multiply
b+c
every value by 5, while all the values related to line
56 Using Crossed ladders theorem, we have segment AC will remain unchanged.
1 1 1
+ = (5)A
AB CD EF
20 3
Further, using Pythagoras theorem in ∆BAC, we have
(8)X
AB = BC 2 − AC 2
(25)Y (28)Z 5
Similarly, using Pythagoras theorem in ∆DCA, we have 5
(20)B (3)C
CD = AD 2 − AC 2
Now, the weight at point Z is 28, which can be obtained
Therefore, we have
by BZ + XZ or CZ + YZ.
1 1 1
+ = Therefore, BZ = 8 and XZ = 20. Similarly, CZ = 25 and
BC − AC
2 2
AD − AC
2 2 EF
YZ = 3.
1 1 1 Thus the required ratio of BZ : CZ = 8 : 25.
+ =
210 − AC
2 2
174 − AC
2 2 70
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Now, the best way is to go through the given options. Let 60 This problem can be solved by extending the crossed
us consider option (b) and substitute AC = 126. ladders theorem. However, if you do not want to go into
1 1 details, you can always use this relation, as stated below.
+
210 − AC
2 2
174 − AC 2
2
A
1 1 1
= + =
168 120 70
K
Hence choice (b) is the correct one. D E
O
57 We can solve this problem by applying Mass-Point X Z
Geometry. Since AX : XC = 2 : 3, therefore, weight at Y
point A = 3 and weight at point C = 2. B C
That means weight at point X Let the area of the ∆ABC be T , then
= weight ( A ) + weight (C ) = 3 + 2 = 5. 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
+ = + ⇒ + = +
Now, since the weight (Z ) = weight (B ) + weight ( X ), T Y X +Y Y+Z T 8 15 12
therefore weight (B ) = 9 − 5 = 4.
⇒ T = 40 ⇒ K = 40 − (7 + 8 + 4) = 21 sq cm
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
692 QUANTUM CAT
61 Since two triangles EFB and FCB have same height, a+ x b
62 From the previous problem, we know that = and
EF a y c
therefore, = . …(i)
FC b x a
= .
B c+ y b
E
A
F
a
b a
b
B C C E E x y
F
D
Similarly, two triangles BFC and FDC have same height, a c
BF b F
therefore, = . …(ii)
FD c b
B C
D C
75 + x 100 x 75
F Therefore, we have = and =
c y 40 40 + y 100
b Alternatively By solving these two equations, we get
b c
B
x = 75 and y = 60. Therefore the area of quadrilateral
B D
C F AEFD = 135 units.
Now, the two triangles BFA and DFA have same height, Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
BF a + x
therefore = Apply ladder theorem, and find the result as explained
FD y below.
A A

x d
E y E
D D
F F
a c a c
b b
B C B C
BF b 1 1 1 1
But, we know from equation (ii) that = + = +
FD c (a + b + c + d ) b (a + b) (b + c)
a+ x b
Therefore, = 1 1 1 1
y c ⇒ + = +
(215 + d ) 100 175 140
⇒ by = ca + cx …(iii)
⇒ d = 135
x a
Similarly, we can find = 1
c+ y b 63 Area of triangle ABC = ab sin C
2
⇒ bx = ca + ay …(iv) 1
⇒ 15 3 = × 6 × 10 sin C
Solving the simultaneous equations (iii) and (iv) using 2
substitution method, we get the following values of x and 3
y. ⇒ sin C =
2
ac(a + b) ac(b + c)
x= 2 and y = 2 ⇒ C = 120°
b − ac b − ac
A
Therefore, total area of quadrilateral
ac(a + 2b + c)
AEFD =
b2 − ac
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
B C
Alternatively Apply ladder theorem, and find the
a2 + b2 − c2
result as explained below. Now use cosine rule : cos C =
1 1 1 1 2ab
+ = +
(a + b + c + d ) b (a + b) (b + c) 36 + 100 − c2 1 136 − c2
⇒ cos 120° = ⇒ − =
ac(a + 2b + c) 2 × 6 × 10 2 120
⇒ d=
b2 − ac ⇒ c = 14
Geometry 693

Now use the following relation : 65 Let us consider an equilateral triangle. And assume point P
∆(area of triangle) is the incentre then d1 = d2 = d3 = k and h1 = h2 = h3 = 3k.
= r (inradius) × s(semi-perimeter of triangle) It implies that
d1 d2 d3 1 1 1
 6 + 10 + 14 + + = + + =1
⇒ 15 3 = r ×   h1 h2 h3 3 3 3
 2 
⇒ r = 3 ⇒ r2 = 3 To confirm the above result, let us take another example.
Let us consider a right angle triangle with the sides 3, 4
Hence choice (c) is the correct answer. and 5. Now assume that the point P is the incentre then,
64 Since ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle, therefore, by dropping d1 = d2 = d3 = 1 and h1 = 3, h2 = 2.4 and h3 = 4. It implies
a perpendicular from B on AC, the perpendicular BD will that
bisect AC, and BD will also pass through the incentre E. d1 d2 d3 1 1 1
+ + = + + =1
Now, drop another perpendicular EF on AB, then h1 h2 h3 3 2. 4 4
EF = ED = r = 3. As in both the considerations our result is unique.
In right angle ∆EFB, ∠FBE = 60° and ∠BEF = 30°. It means 1 is the correct answer.
BE 2
So, by using 30-60-90 degree theorem, we have = Hence choice (c) is the answer.
EF 3
66 If you rotate ∆ARC clockwise about A by 60°, it will overlap
2 2 the ∆ABQ completely, as ∠RAC = ∠BAQ. Also, AR = AB
⇒ BE = EF = r
3 3 and AC = AQ . Therefore, ∆RAC and ∆BAQ are congruent.
2 It implies that RC = BQ .
∴ BD = DE + BE = r + r= 3+ 2 …(i)
3 P
Again, using 30-60-90° degree theorem in ∆ABD, we have
AD 3
= B
BD 1
⇒ AD = 3(BD ) = 3( 3 + 2) …(ii) R O
B
F
A C
E

A C
D
1
∴ Area of ∆ABC = ( AC )(BD ) Q
2
1 Similarly, you can prove that RC = AP .
= (2AD )(BD ) = ( AD )(BD )
2 Thus we can conclude that AP = BQ = CR
= 3( 3 + 2)2 = 12 + 7 3 Hence choice (b) is the answer.
Hence choice (c) is the answer. Hint : ∠RAC = ∠RAB + ∠BAC = ∠BAC + ∠CAQ = ∠BAQ
Alternatively By applying 30-30-120 degree theorem, 67 Let the altitude of the triangle ABC be h assuming that AC
in the given triangle, if we assume AB = BC = a, then we is the base.
have AC = 3a. B
Either by dropping a perpendicular BD on AC or using
any other technique we can have the area of triangle X
Z
3 a2
ABC = and semi-perimeter of the triangle P
4
A C
(2 + 3)a Y
=
2 1 ∆( ABY )
∴ ∆( ABY ) = × AY × h ⇒ AY = 2 ×
Now using the relation, area = inradius × semi-perimeter, 2 h
we have ∆(CBY )
Similarly, CY = 2 ×
3 a2 (2 + 3)a h
= 3×
4 2 AY ∆( ABY )
∴ =
⇒ a = 2(2 + 3) CY ∆(CBY )
Thereforen area of the triangle In the same manner, we can have
3a2 3[ 2(2 + 3)]2 AY ∆( APY )
= = = 12 + 7 3 =
4 4 CY ∆(CPY )
694 QUANTUM CAT
Now using the componendo-dividendo method, we have 5 + 2 2 = l2
AY ∆( ABY ) − ∆( APY ) a
= It implies that a = 5 and b = 2. Therefore = 2. 5
CY ∆(CBY ) − ∆(CPY ) b
AY ∆( ABP ) Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
⇒ =
CY ∆(CBP ) 69 Since, in ∆RQS and ∆PQR , ∠QSR = ∠PRQ and
Similarly, when AB is assumed to be the base, then we have ∠SQR = ∠PQR, there ∆RQS ~ ∆PQR .
AZ ∆( ACP ) PQ RQ
= ∴ =
BZ ∆(BCP ) RQ SQ
Similarly, when BC is assumed to be the base, then we RQ 2 81
have ⇒ SQ = = = 6.75
PQ 12
BX ∆(BAP )
= P
CX ∆(CAP )
AZ BX CY ∆( ACP ) ∆(BAP ) ∆(CBP )
∴ = =1
BZ CX AY ∆(BCP ) ∆(CAP ) ∆( ABP ) S
T
Hence eqs. choice (a) is the correct one.
68 Consider the following figures. Since AB and BC are the
legs of the right angle triangle, so AC would be the Q R
hypotenuse and ∠B = 90° and ∠BAC = ∠BCA = 45° Similarly, ∆QTR ~ ∆PQR
A QR RT (QR )(QR ) 81
R ∴ = ⇒ RT = = = 5. 4
A PR QR PR 15
O
P Then we have,
1 PS × PT = (PQ − SQ ) × (PR − RT )
O
= (12 − 6.75) × (15 − 5. 4) = 5. 25 × 9. 6 = 50. 4
B C Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
3
2 AQ 3 AR 4
70 Given that = and =
BQ 2 CR 3
B C Q Area (∆ AQP ) 3 3m
∴ = =
Let P , Q and R be the reflections of A Area (∆ BQP ) 2 2m
1
point O about AB, BC and CA, 1 R Area (∆ ARP ) 4 4n
respectively. The ∠PAR = 90°, and = =
P √2 Area (∆ CRP ) 3 3n
∠QCR = 90° and ∠PBQ = 180°. 3 ∴ Area (∆ABP ) = 5m and Area (∆ACP ) = 7 n
Thus the area of pentagon ARCQP is
twice the area to ∆ABC. The area of Since, AP is the median, therefore area(∆ABP ) = area(∆ACP )
4 3 √2 C m 7 7k
l2 ⇒ 5m = 7 n ⇒ = =
∆ABC = , so the area of pentagon n 5 5k
2 3
A
= l2.
Q
Since ∠PAR = 90°, so
PR = 2 × AO ; ( AP = AR = AO = 1) R
O
Similarly, since ∠QCR = 90°, so Q
QR = 2 × CO = 3 2; (CQ = CR = CO = 3)
C
And PQ = (PB + BQ ) = 2(BO ) = 4 B P
But, since ( 2)2 + (4)2 = (3 2)2. It implies that ∆QPR is a Since height of the triangle AOQ and that of QOP are
right angle triangle. Thus the total area of pentagon is same and the height of triangle AOR and that of ROP are
comprised of three right angle triangles of which two are ∆AOQ ∆AOR
same, therefore =
isosceles ones. ∆QOP ∆ROP
1 1 1 And let area (∆QOP ) = x and area (∆ROP ) = y, then
(PA × AR ) + (PR × PQ ) + (RC × CQ )
2 2 2 3m − x 4n − y
=
 1  x y
= 2  × AB × BC 
2  21k − x 20k − y x 21
⇒ = ⇒ =
1 1 1  l2  x y y 20
(1 × 1) + ( 2 × 4) + (3 × 3) = 2  
2 2 2  2 Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Geometry 695

1 + 5 3+ 5 = 3−ϕ
71 (1)2 + ( ϕ )2 = 1 + ϕ = 1 + +
2 2 Therefore (i) and (iii) are valid.
2 Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
 1 + 5 3+ 5
ϕ2 =   = 74 Looking at the angles of ∆AEB, we can say that
 2  2
∠EAB = ∠EBA = 72° and ∠AEB = 36°.
Since 12 + ( ϕ )2 = ϕ 2, therefore it is a right angle
Therefore, AB = ϕ and EA = EB = ϕ 2.
triangle. Hence, choice (b) is the correct one.
Now, by looking at the angles of ∆ADB, we can say that
72 From the given data it can be concluded that ∠ADB = ∠ABD = 54° and ∠DAB = 72°.
BC = BD = AD, as ∆CBD and ∆BDA are isosceles triangles.
Therefore, AD = AB = ϕ.
AC BC
∴ = Again, by looking at the angles of ∆ACB, we can say that
BC DC
AD ∠ACB = ∠CAB = 72° and ∠ABC = 36°.
AC AD AD AD 1 Therefore, AB = BC = ϕ and AC = 1.
⇒ = = = =
AD DC AC − AD AC AD AC Thus we see that AC = 1, AD = ϕ and AE = ϕ 2.
− −1
AD AD AD 1
It implies that CD = ϕ − 1 = and DE = ϕ 2 − ϕ
1  AC  ϕ
⇒ x= ⇒ x2 − x − 1 = 0  = x
x −1  AD 
= (ϕ + 1) − ϕ = 1.
A 1
Thus, we have AC : CD : DE = 1 : : 1 = ϕ : 1 : ϕ
ϕ
36° Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
75 Given that ∠ABC = 36° and B

108° D DE || FG || AC , we have
∠BDE = ∠BED = ∠BFG
72°
36° = ∠BGF = ∠BAC = ∠BCA = 72°. D E
B
36° 72°
C In ∆BDE, since BD = BE = ϕ, we have
DE = 1. Now connect DG and the we F G
1+ 5 AC 1 + 5 have DE = EG = DF = 1.
⇒ x= ⇒ =
2 AD 2 In ∆DFG, since DF = 1, we have
AB 1 + 5 DG = FG = ϕ. A C
⇒ = (Q AB = AC and BC = AD )
BC 2 Now connect FC and then we have FG = GC = AF = ϕ.
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. In ∆FAC, since AF = ϕ, we have FC = AC = ϕ 2.
Hint : To find out how to solve a quadratic equation like But it can be established that ϕ 2 = ϕ + 1.
x 2 − x − 1 = 0, you may like to refer the chapter on
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
QUADRATIC EQUATIONS in this book only.
AB 1 + 5
73 First of all extend AB to a point D such that ∠ACD = 90°. 76 We know that in this triangle, =
AD 2
Then draw a line segment DE equal to DC, such that
∠CDE = 36°. ⇒ BC = CD = AD = AB − BD = (1 + 5)
D
Now, drop a perpendicular CP from C on BD, which will
bisect the BD, as BC = CD.
36° 36° ∴ CP = (1 + 5)2 − 12 = 5 + 2 5
1
B ∴ Area of isosceles triangle ∆BCD = × 2× 5+ 2 5
108° 2
72°
72°
= 5 + 2 5 cm 2
36° E
54° 72° Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
54°
A
C 77 Let AB = AC = CD = x and it is given that
Now we know that in ∆CDE, if CE = 1, DC = DE = ϕ. BD = CD = ( 5 − 1) cm
And, in ∆CBD, if CD = ϕ, BC = BD = 1. Now, since the triangle ∆BDA ~ ∆BAC
Now, in ∆ABC, BC = AB = 1. BA BC
∴ =
Therefore, in right angle ∆ADC , AD = 2 and CD = ϕ. BD BA
Thus we have AC = AD 2 − CD 2 x ( 5 − 1) + x
⇒ = ⇒x=2
5 −1 x
= 4 − ϕ 2 = 4 − (ϕ + 1)
Now, draw a perpendicular DP on AB, which will bisect AB.
696 QUANTUM CAT
The length of this perpendicular Now, consider the triangles ∆EDG and ∆ECG, where EG is
= ( 5 − 1) − (1) = 5 − 2 5 cm
2 2 common, DG = CG and ∠DGE = ∠CGE = 90°, Therefore,
the two triangles ∆EDG and ∆ECG are congruent. Now,
1 since ∠ECG = 30°, therefore, we have ∠EDG = 30°.
Therefore the area of ∆ABD = × 2 × ( 5 − 2 5)
2 Now, consider the ∆DBF, where ∠DBF = 80° and
= 5 − 2 5 cm 2 ∠BDF = 80°, so the ∠DFB = 180° − (80 + 80) = 20°.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
78 ∠CAB = ∠CBA = 80° 80 First of all try to observe the similarity. Let us consider
∠ADQ = θ, we have ∠AQD = 90 − θ. Since AD = AB,
⇒ AC = BC and ∠ACB = 20°. AQ = BP and ∠DAQ = ∠ABP = 90°, therefore ∆DAQ is
And, ∠ADB = ∠ABD = 50° ⇒ AD = AB congruent to ∆ABP.
Now draw a line AF from A on BC, such that ∠AFB = 80° D C
⇒ AF = AB
∴ ∠BAF = 20° and ∠AFE = 100°. θ

⇒ ∠FAE = 40° and ∠AEF = 40° ⇒ AF = EF

P
C
90–θ°
90°
O
90–θ° 90°
θ 90–θ°
A Q B
E Now, in ∆AQO, ∠OAQ = θ and ∠OQA = 90 − θ, which
x° 40° implies that ∠AOQ = 90°.
D
Thus we see that ∆DAQ , ∆ABP and ∆AOQ are similar,
50° F DA AB AO 2
where = = = .
40 °

30
20

AQ BP OQ 1
°

°
20° 50°
A B
Now, if we consider OQ = 1 cm, we have AO = 2 cm and
AQ = 5 cm, BP = 5 cm and OD = 4 cm. Thus, we have
Now, we know that AD = AB = AF = EF and ∠DAF = 60°. AB = BC = CD = DA = 2 5 cm.
Therefore, ∆DAF is an equilateral triangle. That is Now, area of square ABCD = 20 cm 2, area of
AD = AF = DF .
∆DAQ = ∆ABP = 4 cm 2 and area of ∆AOQ = 1 cm 2.
Therefore, we have
1 Therefore area of quadrilateral
∠ EDF = ∠DEF = (∠DFB ) QBPO = ∆ABP − ∆AOQ = 5 − 1 = 4 cm 2
2
1 1 And, area of quadrilateral OPCD = area of square
= (∠DFA + ∠AFB ) = (60° + 80° ) = 70°
2 2 ABCD − (∆ABP + ∆DOA ) = 20 − (5 + 4) = 11 cm 2
But, ∠ x ° = ∠DEF − ∠AEF = 70° − 40° = 30° Therefore the required ratio is 4 : 11.
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. Hence choice (c) is the
D S C
79 Since ∠ABC = ∠ACB = 80°, therefore, ∠DBE = 40° and correct one.
1
∠DCE = 30°. Alternatively Let’s draw
3 3
the lines RC and SB as shown
Now, in triangle DBC , ∠DBC = 80°, ∠BDC = 50°. 1 M
in the diagram, where R and
Therefore right angle triangle ∆DGB and ∆CGB are L P
S are the mid-points on N
congruent. R 1
respective sides of the square 3 O
A
ABCD. Also, you can see that 3
RC is parallel to AP and DQ 1
is parallel to SB.
20 °

A Q B
As per mid-point theorem,
1
D
area of ∆DRL = (∆DAO ). Thus, if area of the ∆DRL is 1
4
E
50° unit, the area of ∆DAO will be 4 units. And, the same
° logic applies with other triangles too.
40 G
40° 50° x° Now, if you join SQ, you will get four congruent triangles
B F
C ∆DAQ , ∆DSQ , ∆SQB and ∆SCB with equal area.
Geometry 697

Further, since, the area of triangle ∆DAQ is 5 units, the 83 If the area of ∆DGS is 4 units, area of ∆DAP will be 25 units
area of square ABCD will be four times, that is, 20 units. and area of ∆DAH will be 29 units.
Therefore, the area of square LMNO  5
Area of square ABCD =   × 2 × ∆DAH = 145 units.
= 20 − (1 + 3 + 1 + 3 + 1 + 3 + 1 + 3) = 4 units.  2
Therefore area of quadrilateral QBPO = 1 + 3 = 4 units Area of square PQRS = area of square
and the area of quadrilateral OPCD = 1 + 3 + 3 + 4 = 11 units.
ABCD − (∆DAP + ∆ABQ + ∆BCR + ∆CDS )
Thus the required ratio is 4 : 11.
= 145 − 4(25) = 45 units
81 Since all the triangles are similar, so we can apply the rule 45 9
of similarity and find the areas of all the triangles, as shown Thus the required ratio = =
145 29
in the diagram.
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
D H G C
1 84 ∆BAQ and ∆ADP are congruent, that’s why ∠AOQ = 90°.
3 O
Thus we see that AO is a perpendicular on BQ. It means,
2
5 5 ∆AOQ  4 16
P =  = .
1 ∆AOB  5 25
I F
A B
θ
3 3 θ

J E
O
N 1 90–θ
5 5
M Q
1 3
90–θ
A K L B D P C
Total area of square Since ∆AOQ and ∆BOA are similar, therefore
ABCD = ∆DAK + ~ DHLK + ~ HGBL + ∆GCB area ∆AOQ  4
2
16
=  =
= ∆DAK = 2(∆DAK ) + 2(∆DAK ) + ∆DAK area ∆BOA  5 25
= 6(∆DAK ) = (1 + 3 + 5 + 1) × 6 = 60 units. ∆ AOQ ∆ AOQ
Now, =
Therefore, area of square MNOP = area of square ∆ ADP ∆ BAQ
ABCD − (∆DAM − ∆ABN + ∆BCO + ∆CDP ) ∆ AOQ
= 60 − 4 × (1 + 3 + 5) = 24 units =
∆ AOB + ∆AOQ
Hence choice (b) is the correct one. 16 16
Hint If you join HK and GL, you see that the total area of = =
25 + 16 41
the square ABCD can be divided into 6 triangles of the
∆ ADP ∆ADP 41 2
same size as of ∆DAK. Thus, we have = = =
~ ABCD 2(∆ADC )   5  5
82 If the area of ∆DGM = 1 unit, area of ∆DAJ = 25 units and 241  
  4 
area of ∆DAH = 25 + 1 = 26 units.
∆ AOQ ∆ AOQ
D F D F C Therefore, =
C ~OBCP ~ ABCD − (∆AOB + ∆ADP )
L 16
G M =
205
− (25 + 41)
2
K E 32
J =
73
A H B A H B Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Area of square ABCD = 26 × 10 = 260 units. 85 Maximum value of a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 will be obtained when
Area of square JKLM = area of square ABCD the vertices of quadrilateral overlap the vertices of the
− (area of ∆DAJ + ∆ABK + ∆BCL + ∆CDM ) square. In that case, actually a, b, c and d are the greatest
= 260 − 4 × (25) = 160 units. possible values.
160 8 And, the minimum value of a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 will be
Therefore required ratio = =
260 13 obtained when the vertices of quadrilateral are the
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. mid-points of the sides of the square. In this case actually
a, b, c and d are the smallest possible values.
698 QUANTUM CAT
respective bases. That is if h1 and h2 be the heights of
∆ABO and ∆CDO, then
h1 AB 21 3
= = =
h2 CD 49 7
But, since, h1 + h2 = 10, therefore h1 = 3 cm and h2 = 7 cm
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. B
A
86 As you know that AF = CF and AE = CE , and since it is
given that AF = EF = EC , therefore ∆AEF and ∆CEF are two O
equilateral triangle of same area.
Thus, the quadrilateral AECF is a rhombus.
Let’s assume that each side of this rhombus is a unit. Then
D C
the inradius of the circle inscribed in the rhombus
Area of ~ AECF 1 63
~ AECF = Thus the area of ∆ABO = × 21 × 3 =
semiperimeter of ~ AECF 2 2
1 343
3 And, area of the ∆CDO = × 49 × 7 =
Area of ~ AECF = 2 × × a2 2 2
4
Therefore Area of ∆AOD + ∆BOC = ~ ABCD
3
= × a2 − (∆AOB + ∆COD )
2
350 − (203) = 147 sq cm
And semi-perimeter of ~ AECF = 2a
But, as you know that the area of ∆AOD = ∆BOC
Therefore, the inradius of the incircle 147
3 Therefore, area of ∆AOD = = 73. 5 sq cm
× a2 2
3
=r= 2 = a Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
2a 4
2 88 Let’s draw a diagram as per the given problem.
 3  3π 2
Thus the area of the incircle of ~ AECF = π  a = a D M C
 4  16
A B

A B
E
A N B
F DP || CB, as AP = PB. Thus ∆DAP = ∆PDC = ∆CPB = 6
D C
D C D C
6
Now, the largest circle can be drawn in a rhombus only
when it’s a square. Then the diagonal of square ABCD is
BD = AC = 3a 6 6
But, this diagonal of square ABCD will act as the diameter
of the inscribed circle. A P B
Therefore area of the circle that I inscribed in the square Let radius of the incircle is r. So DA = CP = 2r. And let us
2
 3a 3π consider CD = AP = PB = x.
ABCD = π ×   = × a2
 2  4 As DM < CD ⇒ r < x and CD < DA ⇒ x < 2r.
1
Thus the required ratio = 1 : 4 Since (2xr) = 6 ⇒ rx = 6
2
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
87 If h be the height of the trapezium, the area of trapezium Choice rx r x r < x x < 2r Result
1
~ ABCD = × ( AB + CD ) × h (a) 6 3 2 No Yes Impossible
2
1 (b) 6 2 3 Yes Yes Possible
⇒ 350 = × (21 + 49) × h
2 (c) 6 3/2 4 Yes No Impossible
⇒ h = 10 cm
(d) 6 1 6 Yes No Impossible
Since, ∆ABO and ∆CDO are similar triangles, therefore
the heights of these triangles will be in the ratio of their Hence choice (b) is the answer.
Geometry 699

Alternatively Let’s draw a diagram as per the given 1 10 2

= × 20 2 ×
problem. 2 3
D M C 200
= sq cm.
P 3
Thus the area of common region
O 200 400
= 2× = sq cm.
3 3
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
A N B
90 We know that in any quadrilateral the sum of any three
Then ∠POC = ∠COM, since PC and MC are tangents on sides must be greater than the fourth side. Therefore we
the same circle from the same point C. Now if you assume have, a + b + c > d, such that a, b, c ≤ d.
∠COP = θ, then ∠BOP = 90 − θ.
Therefore ∆CMO and ∆ONB are similar. That is Case a+ b+ c d
CM ON
= . I 7 5
MO NB
II 8 4
Let us assume DC = x and radius is r, then CM = x − r and
NB = 2x − r. III 9 3
CM ON
Therefore, = IV 10 2
MO NB
x−r r V 11 1
⇒ =
r 2x − r
Case a + b + c a b c d No. of combinations
⇒ 2x = 3r …(i)
1 1 5
Also the area of quadrilateral = 18
1 1 2 4
⇒ (2r × 3x ) = 18 I 7 5 4
2 1 3 3
⇒ rx = 6 …(ii)
2 2 3
From eqs. (i) and (ii), r = 2.
1 3 4
89 Since area of kite CSAP is 200 sq cm, it means the area of
∆CSA = 100 sq cm. II 8 2 2 4 4 3
Which is turn implies that the area of ∆CDS = 100 sq cm 2 3 3
Thus the area of ∆CDA = ∆CDS + ∆CSA = 200 sq cm
III 9 3 3 3 3 1
But as AD = CD, so we have AD = CD = 20 cm
A IV 10 — — — 2 0
A P B
V 11 — — — 1 0

Case IV and Case V do not satisfy the required conditions.

N
Q S Thus the total number of required combinations
S
O
= 4 + 3 + 1 = 8.
M Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
D R C D R C 91 Let us assume that RD = h, OR = a and OD = r
It means AS = DS = DR = RC = 10 cm. First of all extend the sides DC andAB in order to make
Therefore, area of ∆SDR = 50 sq cm them meet at Q. Now, the angle BQC = 36°.
So, the area of parallelogram Since ∆BQC is an isosceles triangle so the perpendicular
ASRC = ∆ADC − ∆SDR = 150 sq cm. QP drawn from Q on the side BC will bisect the BC, and it
Now, if OM = x, then ON = 2x. That is MN = 3x, then will be the angular bisector of angle BQC, as well.
DM = 3x Similarly, the perpendiculars drawn from the
It implies that DN = 6 x = 10 2 incentre/circumcentre O of the regular pentagon ABCDE
5 2 will bisect the opposite sides as OR bisects AB at R and
⇒ x=
3 OP bisects BC at P.
Therefore, area of ∆AOC Now as given that BC = 2 cm, therefore using 36-72-72
1 degree theorem in ∆BQC, we have
= × AC × ON
2 BQ = CQ = (1 + 5) cm
700 QUANTUM CAT
Now, in right angled triangle BPQ, Now, let us assume that DR = h and DO = AO = r and OR = a

PQ = BQ − BP = (1 +
2 2
5) − 1 = 5 + 2 5
2 2 We know that the circumradius of an isosceles triangle
x2
with the lateral sides x and base y is
y2
2 x2 −
4
Therefore, the circumradius of the ∆ADB
(1 + 5)2 6+ 2 5 3+ 5
= = =
(2)2
2 5+ 2 5 5+ 2 5
2 (1 + 5)2 −
D 4
Alternatively Consider the figures intended for the
C previous alternate solution.
E 108°
O AR 2 + RD 2 = AD 2
P 72°
72°
90° 90° ⇒ 1 + h 2 = (1 + 5)2 = 6 + 2 5
18°
90° 108° 72° 18° ⇒ h = 5+ 2 5
A Q
R B
But, OR = OA 2 − AR 2
2

But since ∆BPQ is similar to ∆ORQ, therefore

⇒ (h − r)2 = r2 − 12
BQ OQ
=
BP OR ∴ h 2 + r2 − 2hr = r2 − 1 ⇒ 1 + h 2 = 2hr
BQ OP + PQ ⇒ 6 + 2 5 = 2( 5 + 2 5 )r
⇒ =
BP OR
3+ 5
1+ 5 a+ 5+ 2 5 ⇒ r=
⇒ = 5+ 2 5
1 a
5+ 2 5 92 Let inradius be x and circumradius be y and side be z, then
⇒ a= 2
5  z
x2 +   = y2
 2
Now, in right angle ∆DRQ,
⇒ x2 + 9 = y2
h = DR = DQ 2 − RQ 2
⇒ y − x2 = 9
2

= (DC + CQ ) − (RB + BQ )
2 2
⇒ ( y + x )( y − x ) = 9
y
= (3 + 5)2 − (2 + 5)2 = 5 + 2 5 ⇒ 9( y − x ) = 9 x
⇒ y − x =1
∴ r = DO = DR − OR = h − a
⇒ x = 4, y = 5
5+ 2 5
= 5+ 2 5 − Therefore, area of circumcircle = 25 π sq cm
5
And area of incircle = 16π sq cm
 1 3+ 5 Thus the total required area = 25π + 16π = 41π sq cm
= 5 + 2 5 1 −  =
 5 5+ 2 5 Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. 93 In this pentagon the side S and the diagonal D are parallel,
Alternatively so we have a parallelogram as shown below in the fig (iii).
Looking at the following figures you can easily figure out
that the circumradius of pentagon in fig (i) will be same
as the circumradius of the isosceles triangle in fig (ii).
Using 36-72-72 degree theorem, in ∆DAB, we have
AD = BD = 1 + 5 cm, as AB = 2 cm.
So the length of the highlighted segment in the fig (iv)
D D D and (v) is d = D − S
And the length of the highlighted section in the fig (vi) is
E O C E 36° C s = D − 2d = 2S − D
O O

72° 72°
A B A B A R B
Fig (i) Fig (ii) Fig (iii)
Geometry 701

But, we know that the diagonal (D ) of a regular pentagon Thus the perimeter of ∆PQR = PQ + PR + QR
1+ 5 = 11 + 5 5
= × side
2 Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
1+ 5
∴ D= ×S 97 Since ∠EPT = ∠PET = 72°, therefore,
2
PT = ET = ED + DT
 1 + 5 (3 − 5)S
∴ s = 2 S − D = 2S −   S= But, we know that
 2  2
 1 + 5  1 + 5
Hence choice (b) is the correct one. DT =   DC =   ED
 2   2 
94 In the following figure, there is a parallelogram shown by
 1 + 5
the dotted lines. And each side of this parallelogram Therefore, PT = ED + DT = ED +   ED
is same and equal to the diagonal of the smaller  2 
pentagon.  3 + 5
=  ED
 2 
R R

A B
Q S A B
Thus the diagonal of the smaller pentagon = d = D − S E C
E C
  1 + 5   5 − 1
=   S − S =   S D
D
 2    2 
P T P T
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.  3 + 5
Q PT =   ED
95 ∠PED = ∠PDE = ∠BCQ = ∠CBQ = 72°  2 
and ∠ EPD = ∠ BQC = 36°. ∴ Area of larger pentagon = area of smaller pentagon
2
Now, we know that for a 72°-36°-72° triangle, the ratio of  3 + 5
sides is (1 + 5) : 2 : (1 + 5). × 
 2 
That means, if DE = 2, PE = PD = 1 + 5.
⇒ Area of larger pentagon = area of smaller pentagon
96 We know that ∠EAB = ∠ABC = ∠BCD = ∠CDE
 7 + 3 5
= ∠DEA = 108° × 
 2 
Therefore, ∠PAB = ∠PBA = 72° and ∠APB = 36°.
Similarly, ∠QED = ∠QDE = 72° and ∠EQD = 36°.  7 − 3 5  7 + 3 5
⇒ Area of larger pentagon =   × 
Also, ∠RDC = ∠RCD = 72° and ∠DRC = 36°.  2   2 
Thus, we have ∠QDR = 108° and ∠DQR = ∠DRQ = 36°. ⇒ Area of larger pentagon = 1
Therefore, ∆ERQ and ∆EDQ are similar triangles. Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
P 98 First of all let us understand a couple of relations before we
proceed to solve this problem.
5 +1
Given that ϕ = , so we have ϕ + 1 = ϕ 2 and
A B 2
2ϕ + 1 = ϕ 3
E C
D
D
Q R
T S
E C
Now, we know that for a 72°⋅ 36°⋅ 72° triangle, the ratio
of sides is (1 + 5) : 2 : (1 + 5) P R
Therefore, Q
PQ = PR = (1 + 5) + 2 + (1 + 5)
A B
= 4 + 2 5. PQ 1
Now, we know that =
And, QR = ER = ED + DR QB ϕ
= 2 + (1 + 5) = 3 + 5 and AB = PB = PQ + QB = 1 + ϕ = ϕ 2
702 QUANTUM CAT
When AB = ϕ 2, PQ = 1 Now, let’s drop a perpendicular RQ from Q on AP, which
1 will bisect the AP. Now try to understand that the
So, when AB = 1, PQ = 2 perpendicular RQ can act as the height of both the
ϕ
triangles ∆AQP and ∆OQP.
Now, we know that
Therefore RQ = AQ2 − AR 2 = (1 − 5 )2 − 12 = 5+ 2 5
Area of ABCDE K ( AB )2 (1)2 1 ϕ4
= = = = 1
Area of PQRST K (PQ ) 2
 1
2 1 1 Thus, area of ∆OQA = (OA ) × (RQ )
 2 2
ϕ  ϕ 4
1
= (1 + 5)( 5 + 2 5 )
Hence choice (b) is the correct one. 2
99 There are clearly four distinct sizes of pentagon. Let’s call Therefore, required area = 5 × area of rhombus OBQA
the smallest pentagon P1 and so the largest pentagon P4. = 10 × area of ∆OAQ
Each side of P1 = 1 1 
= 10 (1 + 5)( 5 + 2 5 )
Each side of P2 = 1 + ϕ = ϕ 2 2 
Each side of P3 = ϕ 2 + ϕ 3 = ϕ 2(1 + ϕ ) = ϕ 4 = 5(1 + 5)( 5 + 2 5 )
Each side of P4 = ϕ 4 + ϕ 5 = ϕ 4(1 + ϕ ) = ϕ 6 Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
103 The perimeter obtained by wrapping a band around the
100 Since each side of the smaller pentagon is 1 cm, so each circle will consist of six straight segments of length d
side of the larger pentagon will be 1
(where d is the diameter) and 6 arcs, each with length th
 2  3+ 5 6
1 + + 1 = cm. of a circle, as the arc angle is 60°.
 1+ 5  2
Thus the area of the larger pentagon
2
1  3 + 5
= ( 5 (5 + 2 5))  
4  2 
1
= (6. 88)(6. 85) = 11.72 sq. cm
4
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
101 We know that if the side of a pentagon is s, the area of the
inscribed pentagram is
1
A =  5(5 − 2 5) s 2 120°
2 
90° 90°
1 
⇒ A= 5(5 − 2 5) 60°
2  
Now, the best way is to substitute the numerical value of
5 +1
ϕ= in the given options in order to find out the 2r
1
— (2πr)
2 6
correct match. Therefore the required perimeter is
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.  2πr
p = 6(d ) + 6  = 6(2r) + 2πr = 2(6 + π )r
102  6 
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
104 Since the side of H1 is 64 cm, that is AB = 64 cm, therefore
O
B AP = BP = BQ = . . . = 32 cm. Now since the angles of
B
O triangle PBQ are 30°, 30°, 120°, so PQ = 32 3 cm.

A A
R Q
Q
P
P
It is known that PQ = AQ and AQ = OA. 30°
Q
So we have PQ = AQ = OA = 1 + 5 cm.
30°
Now, applying 72°-36°-72° theorem, we get AP = 2 cm. A P B
Geometry 703

2
 3 Therefore, area of the hexagon =
3 3
× 42 = 24 3 sq cm.
In the similar way, each side of H 3 = 64 ×   2
 2
3
 3
And, each side of H 4 = 64 ×  
 2
6
 3
Therefore, each side of H7 = 64 ×   = 27 cm
 2
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
NOTE The answer should be given in cm, not in mm.
105 If you look closely at the figure, you will notice that the 4 cm
area comprised by the hexagram is equal to the 6 rhombi
and thus the area comprised by the hexagon is equal to As you can observe that the half of the area of the regular
12 rhombi. hexagon is shaded and rest half is un-shaded, so the total
1
area of the un-shaded region = × 24 3 = 12 3 sq cm.
2
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
3
Hint Area of an equilateral triangle = × side2
4
3 3
And, area of a regular hexagon = × side2
2
108 Let a1, a2, a3, a4, a5, a6, a7 be the side of the seven hexagons
such that
a1 > a2 > a3 > a4 > a5 > a6 > a7 .
3 3 3 3
It implies that the area of 12 rhombi Then we have, (a1 )2 − (a2 )2
2 2
= area of hexagon = 84 sq cm.
3 3 3 3
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. = (a2 )2 − (a3 )2
2 2
106 As per the figure, the area of the 12 rhombi
3 3 3 3
= area of each hexagon. = (a3 )2 − (a4 )2
2 2
84
Therefore area of each rhombus = = 7 sq cm. 3 3 3 3
12 = (a4 )2 − (a5 )2
2 2
3 3 3 3
= (a5 )2 − (a6 )2
2 2
3 3 3 3
= (a6 )2 − (a7 )2
2 2
3 3
= (a7 )2
2
Total shaded area = shaded area of the 6 outer hexagons 3 3 2 3 3 2
− shaded area of the central hexagon Or (a1 − a22 ) = (a2 − a32 )
2 2
= area of 9 rhombi × 6 + area of 6 rhombi
3 3 2
= (9 × 6 × 7 ) + (6 × 7 ) = 9 × (42) + (42) = (a3 − a42 )
2
= 42 × 10 = 420 sq cm.
3 3 2
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. = (a4 − a52 )
2
107 There are total 6 shaded equilateral triangles along the
3 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 2
perimeter of the hexagon. = (a5 − a62 ) = (a6 − a72 ) = a7
2 2 2
6 3
So area of each such equilateral triangle is = 3 sq cm. Or (a12 − a22 )
6
Therefore, side of each such equilateral triangles is 2 cm. = (a22 − a32 ) = (a32 − a42 ) = (a42 − a52 )
Further, it implies that the side of the regular hexagon is = (a52 − a62 ) = (a62 − a72 ) = a72
4 cm.
∴ (a62 − a72 ) = a72
704 QUANTUM CAT
⇒ a62 = 2a72 F

And (a52 − a62 ) = (a62 − a72 ) E

G
⇒ a52 = 3a72
And (a42 − a52 ) = (a52 − a62 )
R
⇒ a42 = 4a72 A k 4k 3k k D
And (a32 − a42 ) = (a42 − a52 ) k k
2k 3k
2k
⇒ a32 = 5a72 4k kP k
B C
And (a22 − a32 ) = (a32 − a42 ) ⇒ a22 = 6a72
Now, ∠RPD = 180 − (∠APB + ∠APR )
And (a12 − a22 ) = (a22 − a32 ) ⇒ a12 = 7 a72
= 7 k − (2k + 2k ) = 3k
∴
a1
=
7 And ∠PRD = 180 − (∠RDP + ∠RPD )
a7 1 = 7 k − (k + 3k ) = 3k
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. Therefore, ∠PRD = ∠RPD = 3k
109 First of all you must know that as whenever a polygon is It implies that ∆RDP is an isosceles triangle.
regular, it is necessarily a cyclic polygon. That is all its That is RD = PD
vertices lie on the circle. this ensures that all the inscribed ∴ AB + BD = AB + DP + PB = AB + RD + PB
angles must be equal, that is = AR + RD + BP = AD + BP
∠GFA = ∠AFB = ∠BFC = ∠CFD Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
π 180°
= ∠DFE = = 110 According to Ptolemy’s theorem on the cyclic quadrilateral,
7 7
‘‘the sum of the products of the two pairs of opposite sides
F of a cyclic quadrilateral equals the product of its two
E diagonals.’’ That is in the cyclic quadrilateral ACDE we
G
have
∴ AC × DE + CD × AE = AD × CE
A D ⇒ d1 × s + s × d2 = d1d2 ⇒ s(d1 + d2 ) = d1d2
d1 + d2 1 1 1 1
⇒ = ⇒ + =
d1d2 s d1 d2 s
B C
E
So, based on the above logic, we have
D
∠BAC = ∠BCA = ∠BDC = ∠DBC = ∠CAD F
180
= ∠BDA = = k (say)
7 d2
G C
That is 180° = 7 k
F d1
A s B
G E
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Hint AD = AE and AC = CE
A k D
k 111 Look at the following figures and find that the problem is
k P k talking about d2, the second largest diagonal of the octagon.
kk
B C From the first two figures it can be seen that d2 = d
And d is equal to the side of the circumscribing square.
Now, due to symmetricity triangle APD is isosceles, that is
AP = DP and therefore ∠APD = 180 − (k + k ) = 5k So, the area of the circumscribing square = d 2
It implies that ∠APB = 180 − ∠APD = 2k
Therefore, ∠ABP = 180 − (∠BAP + ∠APB ) d3 s s
= 180 − 3k = 4k d2
d1 d
Now choose a point R on AD such that ∠APR = 2k and
∠ARP = 4k, that is ∆APB and ∆APR are congruent. s s
Therefore, AR = AB s
Geometry 705

Now, the area of the shaded region (in the circumscribing So, the side of the octagon
square) 2 2 2
= =
= area of the smaller square formed by joining the four 4+2 2 2+ 2
corner triangles = s 2
Therefore, area of the octagon
Therefore, area of the octagon = area of the  
circumscribing square − area of the smaller square formed 2
= 2(1 + 2)  4 2 sq cm.

by joining the four corner triangles.  2+ 2 
= d2 − s2 Thus the difference between the areas of circle and
Now look at following diagrams. octagon = 2π − 4 2
The area of the vertical rectangle = ds = 2(π − 2 2) sq cm.
s Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
113 Area of the octagon = 2( 2 − 1) sq cm
⇒ 2( 2 + 1)s 2 = 2( 2 + 1)
d
2 −1
⇒ s2 =
2 +1
2 −1 2 −1
And the area of the horizontal rectangle = ds ⇒ s2 = × ⇒ s = 2 −1
2 +1 2 −1

d Now, each side of the square = ( 2 + 2 )s

s = ( 2 + 2 )( 2 − 1)
Therefore, area of the square
s
= [( 2 + 2 )( 2 − 1)]2
Therefore, the total area of the octagon = (2 + 2)(3 − 2 2) = 2( 2 − 1)
= ds + ds = 2ds 114 By joining A, C , E , G we get a square whose diagonals, AE
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. and CG, are 20 cm each. Therefore, each side
Alternatively ( AC , CE , EG, GA ) of the square is 10 2 cm and
AO = CO = EO = GO = 10 cm.
As you know d = d2 = (1 + 2)s
1
And area of octagon, A = (1 + 2)s 2 Therefore, each of ∆AOC = × AO × OC = 50 cm2
2
Let us consider choice (b), then we will have Now, due to symmetricity or uniformity of the figure the
d 2 − s 2 = [(1 + 2)s]2 − s 2 = 2(1 + 2)s 2 = A diagonals AE and CG will act as the angular bisector of
Therefore, A = d 2 − s 2 ∠A, ∠E , ∠C , ∠G.
Therefore, ∠OAB = ∠OCB = 15°
Now, let us consider choice (c), then we will have
Thus the ∠BAC = ∠OAC − ∠OAB = 45° − 15° = 30°.
2ds = 2 × (1 + 2)s × s = 2(1 + 2)s 2 = A
Similarly, ∠BCA = 30°.
Therefore A = 2ds
Therefore in triangle ∆ABC,
Hence choice (d) is the most appropriate one.
∠ABC = 180° − (∠BAC + ∠BCA ) = 120°
112 Since area of the third square (shaded region) is 1 sq cm,
Now, using 30 − 30 − 120 degree theorem in ∆ABC (or
so the area of the second square would be 2 sq cm.
dropping a perpendicular BP on AC from B and using
similarly, the area of the first square ( the largest one)
30-60-90 degree theorem in ∆ABP or ∆CBP) you can find
would be 4 sq cm.
10 2 5 2
that AB = BC = and BP =
3 3
Therefore, area of triangle
1 50
ABC = × AC × BP = cm2
2 3
Thus the area of the quadrilateral AOCB
= area of triangle AOC − are of triangle ABC
That is the diameter of the circle is 2 2 cm, so the radius 50
of the circle is 2 cm and the area of the circle is 2π sq cm. = 50 − cm2
3
Likewise, the longest diagonal of the octagon is 2 2 cm.
706 QUANTUM CAT
G E Alternatively Area of the 4 shaded rhombi = 8 sq cm.
So the total area of all the 8 rhombi = 16 sq cm.
F Now we have to determine the area of 8 isosceles right
H D angled triangles, each having one side common with the
O side of the octagon.
B
Let each side of the inner octagon be a, then the
circumraius of the inner radius (say r)
A P C
( 4 + 2 2 )a ( 2 + 2 )a
= =
Therefore, the area of the octogon 2 2
= area of quadrilaterals And the area of the inner octagon = 2(1 + 2)a2 = 8
(OABC + OCDE + OEFG + OGHA ) 1
But the area of each isosceles triangle = r2
= 4 (area of quadrilateral OABC) 2
 50  200 2
= 4 50 −  = ( 3 − 1) 1 ( 2 + 2 )a  (2 + 2)a2
 3 3 =   =
2 2  4
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. 

115 Look at the second figure, which has two concentric Therefore area of all the 8 triangles
octagons and the area of inner octagon is same as the area (2 + 2)a2 
= 8×  = 2(2 + 2)a2
of the shaded region in the first octagon.  4 
Now pay attention very closely in the second figure and
= 2[ 2 (1 + 2)a2] = 8 2
try to figure out the fact that the circumradius of the
outer octagon is double the inradius of the inner octagon. Thus, the area of the outer octagon
Therefore, if the circumradius of the outer octagon be R 0 = 16 + 8 2 = 8(2 + 2) cm 2
and the inradius of the inner octagon be ri and each side
116 Look at the following figures. The central angle of the
of the inner octagon be a, then
regular decagon is always 36°.
(1 + 2)a
ri =
2 O O
∴ R 0 = 2ri = (1 + 2)a
Now, if the side of the outer octagon is s, then 36° 36°
2R 0 2(1 + 2)a O
s= =
108° P
4 + 2 2 ( 4 + 2)
72°
2(2 + 2)a 36°
= =( 2+ 2)a 72° 72° 36° 72°
2( 2 + 2) A B A B
A B
Therefore, area of the outer octagon = 2(1 + 2)s 2
Fig (i) Fig (ii) Fig (iii)
= 2(1 + 2)[( 2 + 2 )a] cm 2 2
Then we will have 10 isosceles triangles which are
= 2(1 + 2) a2 [( 2 + 2 )]2 cm2 congruent and their common vertex is the circumcentre
= 2(1 + 2) a2 × [(2 + 2)] cm2 of the decagon.
Now, look at the fig (iii) AB = AP = OP = 2 cm
If PB = x, OA = OB = (2 + x ) cm
But since ∆AOB is similar to ∆BAP, therefore we have
OA AB
=
AB BP
2+ x 2
⇒ =
2 x
But, since area of the inner octagon = 2(1 + 2)a2 = 8 cm ⇒ x = 5 − 1 cm
Therefore, area of the outer octagon ∴ OA = OB = 2 + x
= 2(1 + 2)a2 × (2 + 2) cm2 ⇒ OA = 1 + 5 cm
= 8 × (2 + 2) cm 2 Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Geometry 707

117 Since the ∆AOB is symmetrical, therefore the perpendicular Now, let us consider JO = r and RO = m, therefore,
OQ bisects AB such that AQ = BQ JR = r + m and JO = OC = RC = r
O But, since ∆JRC and ∆COR are similar, so we have
JR RC
=
RC RO
r+m r
⇒ =
r m
⇒ m + rm − r = 0
2 2

72° 72° As, we know that r = 1 + 5 cm, therefore

A Q B m2 + rm − r2 = 0
Now, using Pythagoras theorem in ∆AOQ we get ⇒ m2 + (1 + 5)m − (1 + 5)2 = 0
OQ = OA 2 − AQ 2 ⇒ m=2
From the previous solution we know that OA = 1 + 5 cm, ∴ JR = JC = r + m = 3 + 5 cm
therefore Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
OQ = (1 + 5)2 − (1)2 = 5 + 2 5 cm. 121 From the following figures let’s figure out all the pertinent
angles.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
∠ACB = ∠CAB = 18°
118 Look carefully at the fig (i) in the earlier solutions and you And, ∠FCD = ∠EFC = 36°
will find that the longest diagonal = 2 × circumradius
∴ ∠ACF = 90°
= 2(1 + 5) cm
F
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
119 From the following figures, it is obvious that the second E
longest diagonal is exactly double the length of the
apothem of the decagon.
D
90°
A C
B
Otherwise, if you observe that AF acts as a diameter and
vertex C falls on the circumference of the circle, so angle
ACF will be a right angle.
Fig (i) Fig (ii) Fig (iii) Since each side of the decagon is 2 cm, so the longest
diagonal AF = 2 + 2 5 cm and the third longest diagonal
Therefore, the second longest diagonal = 2 × apothem
CF = 3 + 5 cm.
= 2 5 + 2 5 cm Now, as triangle ACF is right one, so the required shortest
Hence choice (b) is the correct one. diagonal
120 From the following figures, it is obvious that the third AC = AF 2 − CF 2
longest diagonal is equal to the longer side of the triangle
OJC, which is formed by connecting the two vertices and = (2 + 2 5)2 − (3 + 5)2 = 10 + 2 5 cm
the centre of the decagon as shown below. Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Alternatively From the following figures let’s figure
out all the pertinent angles.
∠ACB = ∠CAB = ∠ECD = ∠ CED = 18°
O
∴ ∠ACE = 108°
108°
36° 36° Since AC = CE , therefore triangle ACE is an isosceles
J C triangle.
F F
R

72° E E
O
72° 36°
108° D D
36° 36° 108°
36° 36° A C A C
J C B B
708 QUANTUM CAT
Since each side of the octagon is 2 cm, so the second The area of each equilateral triangle
longest diagonal 3 3
= × 12 = sq cm.
AE = 2 5 + 2 5 cm 4 4
Now, using the 36-36-108 degree theorem in triangle And, the area of each square = 12 = 1 sq cm
ACE, we have Therefore, the required total area of dodecagon
AE 1 + 5 2 5+ 5 1 + 5 3
= ⇒ = = 12 × + 6 × 1 = (3 3 + 6) sq cm
AC 2 AC 2 4
4( 5 + 2 5 ) Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
⇒ AC = = ( 5 + 2 5 )( 5 − 1)
1+ 5 124 The given dodecagon can be partitioned into 12 congruent
equilateral triangles and 6 congruent squares as shown
⇒ AC = (5 + 2 5)( 5 − 1)( 5 − 1) below.
= 10 + 2 5 Now, the length of the second smallest diagonal = ( 2 ×
height of the equilateral triangle ) + (side of the square)
Therefore, the required shortest diagonal = 10 + 2 5 cm
122 In the quadrilateral ABCD,
∠ABC = ∠BCD = 144°
so the ∠BAD = ∠CDA = 36°
By extending this logic, we can say that ABCQ is a
rhombus, where ∠BAQ = ∠BCQ = 36° and
∠ABC = ∠AQC = 144°. The height of each equilateral triangle
That means AQ = CQ = BC = AB = 2 cm. 3 3
B C = ×1 = cm
2 2
A And, the side of each square = 1 cm.
D
P Q R S Therefore, the required total length of the diagonal
3
J E = 2× + 1 = ( 3 + 1) cm
2
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
I F 125 The given dodecagon can be partitioned into 12 congruent
equilateral triangles and 6 congruent squares as shown
H G below.
Since ABCD is a paralleogram, BC|| AD. Therefore, Now, from the following figures the length of the
∠BRA = ∠CBR = 36° circumradius = length of the diagonal of the pentagon.
Therefore in ∆ABR, ∠BAR = ∠BRA = 36°
and ∠ABR = 108°.
Now in ∆ABR, we can apply 36°-72°-36° theorem.
(1 + 5)
∴ AR = AB
2
⇒ AR = 1 + 5
Thus, QR = AR − AQ = (1 + 5) − 2 = 5 − 1
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
123 The given dodecagon can be partitioned into 12 congruent
equilateral triangles and 6 congruent squares as shown
below, The length of the diagonal of the pentagon
2
 1
2
 3
=   + 1 +  = 2+ 3
 2  2
And, the side of each square = 1 cm
Therefore, the required total length of the circumradius
= 2 + 3 cm
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Geometry 709

126 The given dodecagon can be partitioned into 12 congruent Alternatively In the following C
equilateral triangles and 6 congruent squares as shown diagram of a regular dodecagon
below. ∠ACE = 120° and A E
Now, from the following figures the length of the smallest ∠CAE = ∠CEA = 30°
diagonal = length of the diagonal of the pentagon. Since each side of the dodecagon
is 1 cm, so the smallest diagonal
will be 2 + 3 cm. That is
AC = CE = 2 + 3 cm.
Therefore, using 30-30-120 degree theorem in ∆ACE, we
have AE = 3( 2 + 3 )
128 Look at the following figures carefully. Area of each
dodecagon is same.
From the fig (ii) it is clear that the total area of the
dodecagon = area of 12 equilateral triangles
+ area of 6 squares.
But, from fig (iii), the area of the dodecagon = area of 12
equilateral triangles + area of 4 squares + area of 4 kites
Thereore, area of 4 kites = area of 2 squares = 2 sq cm
The length of the diagonal of the pentagon
2
 1
2
 3
=   + 1 + 
 2  2

= 2+ 3
Therefore, the required total length of the diagonal
Fig (i) Fig (ii) Fig (iii)
= ( 2 + 3 ) cm
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
129 The given dodecagon can be partitioned into 12 congruent
127 The given dodecagon can be partitioned into 12 congruent equilateral triangles and 6 congruent squares as shown
equilateral triangles and 6 congruent squares as shown below.
below. Now, from the following figures the length of the
Now, from the following figures the length of the second
third smallest diagonal = length of the diagonal of the
longest diagonal = 2 × length of the side of the square
pentagon + length of the diagonal of the square.
+ 2 × height of the equilateral triangle

The length of the diagonal of the pentagon

The length of the diagonal of the dodecagon
2
 1
2
 3 3
=   + 1 +  = 2×1 + 2×
 2  2 2
Therefore, the required total length of the diagonal
= 2+ 3
= 2 + 3 cm
And, the length of the diagonal of square = 2 Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
Therefore, the required total length of the diagonal
130 The given dodecagon can be partitioned into 12 congruent
=( 2+ 3) + 2 cm equilateral triangles and 6 congruent squares as shown
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. below.
710 QUANTUM CAT
Now, from the following figures the length of the And, dodecagon in fig (iv) has 12 equilateral triangles
circumradius = length of the diagonal of the pentagon. and 6 squares.
That means the area of 12 rhombi in fig (iii) is same as
the total area of the 6 squares in fig (iv)
Therefore, the required area of 12 rhombi = total area of
6 squares = 6 sq cm
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
132 From the following figure, it can be seen that the
dodecagon consists of 12 equilateral triangles and
12 rhombi
And the square consists of 16 equilateral triangles and 16
rhombi.

The length of the diagonal of the pentagon

2
 1
2
 3
=   + 1 +  = 2+ 3
 2  2
Therefore, the total length of the circumradius
Therefore, the required ratio
= 2 + 3 cm 12 (equilateral triangles + rhombi) 3
= =
Thus, the required length of the longest diagonal 16 (equilateral triangles + rhombi) 4
= 2 × length of the circumradius = 2 2 + 3 cm Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Hence (a) is the correct one. Hint : There are 8 isosceles triangles between the
dodecagon and the square. These 8 triangles form the 4
131 Given that the perimeter of the figure is 24 cm, so each side
rhombi. And each such rhombus is congruent with the
of the each rhombus would be 1 cm. Fig (ii) shows the
each of the rhombi inside the dodecagon .
perimeter of the fig (i)
133 The inner dodecagon consists of 12 equilateral triangles
and 12 rhombi, while the external consists of 48 equilateral
triangles and 48 rhombi
Therefore, the required ratio
12 (equilateral triangles + rhombi) 1
= =
48 (equilateral triangles + rhombi) 4
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
Fig (i) Fig (ii) 134 Let x be the length that you have to cut off from each
Now, when you connect all the outer (disjoint) vertices of corner, then the length of each side of hexagon = 1
the given figure you will get a regular dodecagon and The length of each side of the dodecagon
each side of the dodecagon would be 1 cm, as there = 1 − ( x + x ) = 1 − 2x
would be 12 equilateral triangles formed along the edge x 1–2x x
of the dodecagon. x x
x√3 x√3
1–2x 1–2x

x x
x√3 x√3
x x

1–2x 1–2x
x√3 x√3
x x
Fig (i) Fig (ii) x 1–2x x

Now, consider fig (iii) and fig (iv); each of them has But, from the corner triangle which is an isosceles
equal area. triangle with the angles 30°, 30, 120° , you can determine
However, dodecagon in fig (iii) has 12 equilateral that the third side of the corner triangle is x 3.
triangles and 12 rhombi. However, you can observe that the third (longer) side of
the corner triangle is same as the side of the dodecagon.
Geometry 711

Therefore, x 3 = 1 − 2x And ∠CON = 60°

⇒ (2 + 3)x = 1 ∠OCN = 30° , ∠ONC = 90°, so using 30-60-90 degree
1 theorem we get ON = 1.
⇒ x=
2+ 3 Therefore MN = OM + ON = 3 + 1
1 2− 3 It implies that k = 3 is the valid answer. So
⇒ x= ×
2+ 3 2− 3 k = 3 = 3.
Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
⇒ x = 2− 3
Alternatively
Now, the total area to be cut off = 6 isosceles triangles
π π
= 2 equilateral triangles of side x 3 2 cos + 2 cos = 3 + 1
2k k
3 3 3 2 π
= 2× × ( x 3)2 = x Let = θ, Therefore
4 2 2k
3 3 21 3
= (2 − 3)2 = − 18 2 cos θ + 2 cos 2θ = 3 + 1
2 2
⇒ 2 cos θ + 2(2 cos2 θ − 1) = 3 + 1
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
−1 ± (2 3 + 1)
NOTE When you join 3 isosceles triangles, which are congruent, ⇒ cos θ =
whose 1 angle is 120°, you get an equilateral triangle, as depicted 4
below. 3 π
⇒ cos θ = ⇒θ=
2 6
π π
⇒ = ⇒ k=3
x 2k 6
x√3 x√3
120° 120° 136 Consider the following diagram with three distinct circles
120°
as shown below.
x x
x√3
C
135 Since the distance between the two parallel chords is
greater than the radius, so the chords will be lying on the
opposite sides of the centre.
π N S
Therefore, < π ⇒k >1
k C1 C2
P
2π
And < π ⇒k > 2 R Q
k
Since NQ an RS are tangents, so we have
Thus you can conclude that choices (a) and (b) are out of
consideration. ∠C1NQ = ∠CNQ = ∠C 2SR = ∠CSR
= ∠C1RS = ∠C 2QN = 90°
A M B
And, C1N = C1R = C 2S = C 2Q = 1
And, C1 P = C 2 P = 3
O ∴ PN = PR = PS = PQ = 32 − 12 = 8
Now, look at the following figure.
C D
N C

M
In the given figure,
π N
∠AOB =
k P
2π C1 C2
and ∠COD = .
k
Q
Now, if you consider choice (c), that is k = 3, then
π Now, let’s draw a line C 2M parallel to NQ, then
∠AOB = = 60°
k ∠C 2MC = 90°
2π Therefore, MN = C 2Q = 1.
and ∠COD = = 120°
k Let r be the radius of circle C, then
Therefore ∠AOB = ∠OAB = ∠OBA = 60° , so OM = 3 MC 2 = (CC 2 )2 − (CM )2
712 QUANTUM CAT
⇒ 2 8 = (r + 1)2 − (r − 1)2 ⇒ r = 8 140 Triangle OAB is an equilateral triangle. Now consider the
centre P of the smaller circle and join PM , PN and MN.
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Thus we see that the area of triangle OAB is divided into
NOTE MC2 = NQ = NP + NQ = 8 + 8 = 2 8 four equal parts.
And, CC 2 = CS + SC 2 = r + 1
Similarly, CM = CN − MN = r − 1
137 Since P , Q , S and R are concyclic, we have ∠P = ∠R and
∠Q = ∠S.
O
Also, ∠P = ∠S and ∠Q = ∠R, as PQ || RS.
It implies that ∠P = ∠Q = ∠R = ∠S.
M N
Now, ∠P = ∠Q = ∠O = 180°
But, since PQ > OP , we have ∠P = ∠Q < ∠O.
∴ ∠P + ∠Q + ∠O = 180° A P B
⇒ 2(∠P ) + ∠O = 180°
⇒ 2(∠P ) + ∠P < 180°
⇒ 3(∠P ) < 180° 1
The area of sector PMN = π (6)2 = 6π sq. cm
⇒ ∠P < 60° ⇒ ∠P ≤ 59° 6
Hence choice (c) is the correct one. Area of ∆AMP = Area of
138 Since BR and QR are the two tangents from a common 3
∆PNB = (6)2 = 9 3 sq. cm
point R to the same circle, therefore BR = QR 4
Now, since OB and OQ are the two radii of the same Total shaded area
circle, therefore = 6π + 2(9 3) = 6(π + 3 3) sq. cm
OB = OQ Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Thus, the quadrilateral OBRQ is a kite. 141 First of all join A to F. Now, you A
∴ ∠BOQ = 2(∠BOR ) = 2y (say) can see ∠AFB = 90°, as its an angle
further, ∠BOQ = 2(∠BAQ ) = 2y in a semicircle. That means AF is
⇒ ∠BOR = ∠BAQ perpendicular on BC . But, since
AB = AC , therefore AF will bisect D
It implies that OR || AQ
BC. That is E
A 2 2
P C
BF = CF = = 2 cm. B F
y 2
Now, ∆AEB is also a right angle triangle as ∠AEB = 90°.
O y And, thus ∆DEB and ∆EAB are similar. Therefore,
y Q
y BE AB
x =
BD BE
xx x
⇒ BE 2 = (BD )( AB )
B R S C
But since ∆AFB and ∆CDB are similar. Therefore, we have
That means ∠ORB = ∠ASB = ∠QSR = x (say)
Then, ∠RQS = ∠ORQ = ∠ORB = x
BD BF
∴ ∠RQS = ∠QSR = x =
BC AB
It implies that RQ = RS. Even BR = RQ , therefore BR = RS
 BC 
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.  
BD  2 
⇒ =
139 Since AB is parallel to CD , so we have BC AB
OP OQ 8
= = ⇒ BC 2 = 2(BD )( AB )
OS OC 17
From eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
But, OR = OC = 17
OQ 8 BC 2 = 2BE 2
It implies that =
OR 17 BC 2 (2 2)2
OC OQ 8 ⇒ BE 2 = = =4
But, we have = = 2 2
OT OR 17 ⇒ BE = 2 cm
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
Geometry 713

142 Consider the following figure (i) in which let us assume O B

A
that the radius is r. That is OB = OD = r, where O is the
centre of the circle. As the chords AB and CD are parallel so P Q
the line passing through the centre of the circle will be
perpendicular bisector of these chords. That is AS = SB = 6 M N
and CT = TD = 12 and ∠OSB = 90° and ∠OTD = 90°.

A S B
6
D C
As DA and DN are the common tangents to the same
O circle, so DA = DN = 4 cm. Similarly, CB = CM = 4 cm.
12
Further, PA and PM are the common tangents to the same
C
T D circle, so PA = PM = x cm. Similarly, BQ = NQ = x cm.
Now, DQ 2 = DC 2 + CQ 2
or (DN + NQ ) 2 = DC 2 + (BC − BQ )2
Now, using Pythagoras theorem in ∆OSB, we have
OB 2 = OS 2 + SB 2 or (4 + x )2 = 42 + (4 − x )2

⇒ r2 = x 2 + 6 2 …(i) or x = 1 cm.
It implies, AP = BQ = 1 cm and DP = CQ = 3 cm.
Similarly, using Pythagoras theorem in ∆OTD, we have
1
OD 2 = OT 2 + TD 2 Now, the area of ∆DRC = area of rectangle PQCD
4
⇒ r2 = (18 − x )2 + 122 …(ii) 1
= (4 × 3) = 3 sq. cm.
Now, comparing the eq. (i) and eq. (ii), we get 4
x 2 + 62 = (18 − x )2 + 122 Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
⇒ x = 12 Alternatively Go through options.

⇒ OS = 12 Choice (d): If area of triangle DRC = 5, then area of

rectangle PQCD = 4 × 5 = 20 sq cm. Since area of rectangle
and OT = 18 − 12 = 6
PQCD is greater than the area of square ABCD, so it’s an
Now, substituting the value of x in eq. (i) or eq. (ii), we invalid choice.
get the radius of the circle r = 6 5
Choice (a) : If area of triangle DRC = 3, then area of
ST
Now, look at the figure (ii) in which SM = MT = = 9. rectangle PQCD = 4 × 3 = 12 sq cm. It implies that
2 CQ = 3 cm and BQ = 1 cm.
∴ OM = OS − SM = 12 − 9 = 3 Now, since BQ = NQ = 1 cm, therefore
Then by using Pythagoras theorem in ∆OMQ, DQ = DN + NQ = 5 cm as DN = AD = 4 cm.
we get MQ = OQ 2 − OM 2 As, DQ 2 = DC 2 + CQ 2, therefore the presumed choice (a)
⇒ MQ = (6 5)2 + 32 ⇒ MQ = 3 21 is valid one. However, when you consider the values of
choices (b) and (c), the pythagorean relation between
∴ PQ = 6 21 DC , QC and DQ can’t be satisfied.
A B 144 First of all drop a perpendicular MQ on A M B
S CD. Now, join PQ, then PQ will be
M Q
P perpendicular to MC, as angle MPQ is
an angle in a semicircle.
O
Since QC = 40 mm and MQ = 80 mm P
C D ∴ MC = 40 5 mm
T
Now, using the similarity of triangles D Q C
in ∆MPQ and MQC, we get
That is a = 6 21 MP MQ
=
Therefore, a = 756 MQ MC
MP 80
Hence choice (b) is the correct one. ⇒ = ⇒ MP = 32 5
80 40 5
143 Since, CP and DQ are tangents to the circle, so if O is the
centre of the semi circle, then the two radii OM and ON will PC = MC − MP = 40 5 − 32 5
be perpendicular to CP and DQ, respectively, as shown in = (40 − 32) 5 = 8 5
the diagram. Hence choice (a) is the correct answer.
714 QUANTUM CAT
Alternatively In the following figure, you can use the Further, since AP = AQ ,
‘‘power of a point theorem’’ as shown below ∴ ∠APQ = ∠AQP = 60°
MC × PC = QC 2 Now, since ∠APQ = ∠AQP = ∠PAQ = 60°, therefore
⇒ 40 5 × PC = 402 ⇒ PC = 8 5 triangle PAQ is an equilateral triangle.
A M B M (There are many ways to prove that AP = AQ . One
approach is to observe that there is an obvious
symmetricity. And the other approach is to prove that
BP = CQ by applying Power of a Point theorem; since
BD = DC and AB = AC therefore BP = CQ .)
P P Now, the side of the equilateral triangle PAQ is 6 6 cm.
(To know that how you can find the side of triangle PAQ
D Q C Q C
please refer the HINT at the end of the solution.)
145 In the following figure, ∠BAD = ∠DAC = 30° and Now, the area of triangle PAQ = 54 3
∠ABD = ∠ACD = 60°. 3
(∆PAQ = × (6 6 )2 = 54 3
Now, using 30-60-90 degree theorem (or Pythagoras 4
theorem) in ∆ADC we have DC = 10 cm and AC = 20 cm 1
A
or ∆PAQ = × 6 6 × 9 2 = 54 3)
2
Now, consider the figure (iii), in which the area of
common (or unshaded) region
= area of (∆AOP + ∆AOQ ) + area of the sector POQD
2 1
P Q = of area of triangle APQ + of area of the circle
3 3
B D C 2 1
= × 54 3 + × 72π = 36 3 + 24π
Now, using Power of a point theorem in the above figure, 3 3
we have AC × QC = DC 2 A
⇒ 20 × QC = 102 ⇒ QC = 5 cm
Hence choice (d) is is the correct answer.
146 Consider the figure (i). Using the 30-60-90 degree theorem O
(or sine rule) in ∆ADC we get AD = 12 2, CD = 4 6 and Q
P
AC = 8 6.
Therefore, area of triangle ABC = 96 3 sq cm. B D C
Fig (iii)
3
(∆ABC = × (8 6 )2 = 96 3
4 Thus, total area of the shaded region
1 = [total area of the circle − total area of the unshaded (or
or ∆ABC = × 8 6 × 12 2 = 96 3)
2 common) region] + [total area of the triangle ABC − total
Now, since the radius of the circle area of the unshaded (or common) region]
1
= × AD = 6 2 cm = [72π − (36 3 + 24π )] + [ 96 3 − (36 3 + 24π )]
2 = 24(π + 3)
Therefore, area of the circle = π (6 2)2 = 72π Hence choice (a) is the correct answer.
A A Hint How to find the side of triangle PAQ ?
Method 1 : Consider the figure (iv), in A
which you can apply Power of Point
theorem, as shown below.
O
CA × CQ = CD 2
P Q P Q
⇒ 8 6 × CQ = (4 6 )2 Q
B D C B D C
Fig (i) Fig (ii) ⇒ CQ = 2 6 cm D C
∴ AQ = AC − QC Fig (iv)
Now, consider the figure (ii). In the ∆PAQ , ∠PAQ = 60°,
so ∠POQ = 120°, as both the angles are formed by the = 8 6 − 2 6 = 6 6 cm
same chord (PQ ) on the same side of PQ, whereas one is Method 2 : Consider the figure (v), in which you can
the inscribed angle and other one is the central angle. use 30-60-90 degree theorem (or cosine rule) and you
will get AP = AQ = PQ = 3(6 2) = 6 6 cm.
Geometry 715

A = π (6 2)2 − 12(3 3 + 2π ) = 12(4π − 3 3)

And, the area of the shaded region in the triangle
O
= total area of the triangle ABC
− total area of the un-shaded region
P Q 3
= × (8 6 ) − 12(3 3 + 2π ) = 12(5 3 − 2π )
2
4
Fig (v)
Therefore, the total area of the shaded region
Method 3 : Consider the figure (vi), in which AO has = 12(4π − 3 3) + 12(5 3 − 2π )
been extended to S to meet PQ.
= 24(π + 3) sq cm
Since AO = 6 2, so OS = 3 2 and AS = 9 2
1
(In an equilateral triangle inradius is always half of the NOTE Radius of the circle = × AD
circumradius of the same triangle. Here, OS is inradius 2
and AO is circumradius of the triangle PAQ ) 1
=
× 12 2 = 6 2 cm
Now, using 30-60-90 degree theorem (or sine rule) you 2
will have AS = 9 2, SQ = 3 6 and AQ = 6 6 cm. Now, since OA = OP = OQ = 6 2, therefore by using
A cosine rule or 30-30-120 degree theorem in triangles AOP
or AOQ or POQ, we would have
AP = AQ = PQ = 3(6 2) = 6 6 cm
O Otherwise, using Power of Point theorem, we would have
CA × CQ = CD 2
P Q
S And, in triangle ADC, using 30-60-90 degree theorem (or
Fig. (vi) sine rule) we would have
12 2
Alternatively In the following figure, connect the AD = 12 2, CD = =4 6
3
centre O with P , Q and A.
and AC = 8 6
Here, ∠BAC = ∠PAQ = 60° and AP = AQ
Therefore, ∠APQ = ∠AQP = 60°. 147 First of all, extend BC to a point D on the larger circle and
then join A with D and O with C. Now, since AB is the
That is, ∆APQ is equilateral triangle. It implies that
diamet er of the larger circle, so ∆ADB is a right angle
AP = AQ = PQ . triangle and since BC is the tangent and OC is the radius of
Now, since OA = OP = OQ ; ∆AOP , ∆AOQ and ∆POQ are the smaller triangle, so ∆OCB is a right angle triangle.
congruent.
Thus we have, ∠AOP = ∠AOQ = ∠POQ = 120° A
A A A
O

D C B
O O
P Q P Q P Q Therefore, using Pythagoras theorem, you can have
B D C B D C B D C BC = OB 2 − OC 2
Fig (i) Fig (ii) Fig (iii)
= 292 − 212 = 20 cm
120
Now, area of the sector POQD = πr × 2
However, both the triangles are similar ones, where
360
1 2 1 OB BC OC 1
= πr = π (6 2) = 24π 2 = = =
3 3 AB BD AD 2
And the area of ∆AOP = ∆AOQ = ∆POQ ∴ AB = 58, AD = 42, BD = 40 and CD = 20 cm
1 1 3 Now, join AC, which will act as the hypotenuse of the
= (∆PAQ ) = × × (6 6 )2 = 18 3 right angle triangle ADC.
3 3 4
Therefore, by applying Pythagoras theorem in ∆ADC, you
Therefore, area of the total unshaded region
can have
= area of (∆AOP + ∆AOQ ) + area of the sector POQD
AC = AD 2 + CD 2 = 422 + 202
= 2 × (18 3) + 24π = 12(3 3 + 2π )
Now, the area of the shaded region in the circle = 2 541 = 46. 52 cm
= total area of the circle − total area of the unshaded region Hence choice (b) is the correct answer.
716 QUANTUM CAT
Alternatively First of all join OC, which is the median = 2( r1r3 + r2r3 ) …(i)
of ∆ABC, as AO = BO . Also, ∆OCB is a right angle
triangle.
Therefore, using Pythagoras theorem, you can have
BC = OB 2 − OC 2 C1

= 29 − 21 = 20 cm
2 2
C2

C3
A D E
O A B C
Fig (i)

B Now, in the following figure (ii),

C
FC 2 = (C1C 2 )2 − (FC1 )2
Now, using Apollonius theorem in ∆ABC, you can have ⇒ x + y = (r1 + r2 )2 − (r1 − r2 )2
  AB  
2
AC 2 + BC 2 = 2 OC 2 +    ⇒ x + y = 2 r1r2 …(ii)
  2 

⇒ AC 2 + 202 = 2(212 + 292 )

⇒ AC 2 = 2164
⇒ AC = 46. 52 cm C1

148 The best way is to go through the options considering the C2

fact that the maximum area of the circle is πr2. F
Choice (a) : Since 4r2 > πr2, which is impossible, so this C3

choice is invalid.
A B C
Choice (b) : Since d has no direct relationship with r, Fig (ii)
the radius of the circle, so d is interminable. Therefore we
can not give the answer in terms of d alone. So, this Now, comparing the equations (i) and (ii), we get
choice is also an invalid one. 2( r1r3 + r2r3 ) = 2 r1r2
Choice (c) : If r = d, minimum area of the square = r3. r1r3 rr
For r > 2, 2r2 < r3, which means maximum area is less ⇒ + 2 3 =1
r1r2 r1r2
than the minimum area.
r3 r3
So, it is again an invalid choice. Essentially, the maximum ⇒ + =1
area can be obtained only when the quadrilateral is a r2 r1
square and the minimum area can be obtained only when 1 1 1
the quadrilateral is a square and the minimum area can ⇒ + =
r2 r1 r3
be obtained only when the quadrilateral is a kite with its
longer diagonal equal to the diameter of the circle and Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
the smaller diagonal equal to 2r r2 − d 2 . 150 Draw a line KB making it collinear with BC, such that K falls
on PM. Looking at the information we can say that and
Hence choice (d) is the correct answer.
PK = PM − KM and KB = KE − BE , PK 2 + KB 2 = PB 2
149 Consider the following figure. Let C1, C 2 and C 3 be the
centres of these circles, as shown in the figure. Let
AB = DC 3 = x
Q
Therefore, DC 3 = (C1C 3 )2 − (DC1 )2 P
O
⇒ x = (r1 + r3 )2 − (r1 − r3 )2 K
B C
E
⇒ x = 2 r1r3 M A D N
Now, let BC = C 3E = y 2
 x
Therefore, C 3E = (C 2C 3 )2 − (C 2E )2 ⇒ (r − x )2 +  r −  = r2
 2
⇒ y = (r2 + r3 )2 − (r2 − r3 )2 ⇒ y = 2 r2r3 ⇒ 5x 2 − 12rx + 4r2 = 0 ⇒ x = 0. 4 r
Thus, AC = x + y = 2 r1r3 + 2 r2r3 Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Geometry 717

151 The radius of circle A = 1 cm, so its curvature =

1
=1 ∴ (−1 + 2 + 2 + c)2 = 2((−1)2 + 22 + 22 + c2 )
1 ⇒ (3 + c)2 = 2(9 + c2 )
1 1
The radius of circle B = cm, so its curvature = = 1 ⇒ c2 + 6c + 9 = 0
1 1
1 1 ⇒ (c − 3)2 = 0 ⇒ c = 3
The radius of circle C = cm, so its curvature = = 1
1 1 1
∴ Radius of circle C = cm
Now, using Descartes’ circle equation theorem you will have 3
(a + b + c + d )2 = 2(a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 ) So the curvature of the circle C = 3.
⇒ (1 + 1 + 1 + d )2 = 2(12 + 12 + 12 + d 2 ) Now, consider the fig (ii), in which all the four circles are
tangent to each other.
⇒ (3 + d )2 = 2(3 + d 2 )
⇒ d 2 − 6d − 3 = 0 ⇒ d = 3 + 2 3
D C
1
∴ Radius of circle D = cm
3+ 2 3
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. A P

Hint : To know how to obtain the value of d please refer

Quadratic Equations in Quantum CAT.
1
152 The radius of circle A = 1 cm, so its curvature = = 1 Fig (ii)
1
1 1 Now, using Descartes’ circle equation theorem you will have
The radius of circle B = cm, so its curvature = =2
2  1 (− p + a + c + d )2 = 2((− p)2 + a2 + c2 + d 2 )
 
 2 ∴ (−1 + 2 + 3 + d )2 = 2((−1)2 + 22 + 32 + d 2 )
1 1 ⇒ (4 + d )2 = 2(14 + d 2 )
The radius of circle C = cm, so its curvature = =2
2  1
  ⇒ d 2 − 8d + 12 = 0 ⇒ d = 6 or 2
 2
1 1 1
Now, using Descartes’ circle equation theorem you will have ∴ Radius of circle D = cm or cm. But, since cm is
6 2 2
(a + b + c + d )2 = 2((− a)2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 ) 1
the radius of circle A, so it has to be less than ,
∴ (−1 + 2 + 2 + d )2 = 2((−1)2 + 22 + 22 + d 2 ) 2
1
⇒ (3 + d )2 = 2(9 + d 2 ) ⇒ d 2 + 6d + 9 = 0 therefore, the required radius of circle D = cm.
6
⇒ (d − 3)2 = 0 ⇒ d = 3 Hence choice (a) is the correct one.
1
∴ Radius of circle D = cm 154 From the statement given in the problem it is obvious that
3 all the four circles are tangent to each other. Then, without
Hence choice (b) is the correct one. any doubt, you can apply Descartes’ circle theorem in order
1 to get the radius of the circle.
153 The radius of circle P = 1 cm, so its curvature = =1
1 Let a, b and c be the curvatures of the existing circles and
1 1 d be the curvature of fourth circle, then
The radius of circle A = cm, so its curvature = = 2
2 1 (a + b + c + d )2 = 2(a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 )
2 2   1  1 2  1 2 
1 1 1 
∴  + + + d = 2    +   +   + d 
1 1 2
The radius of circle B = cm, so its curvature = = 2 1 2 3    1  2  3 
2 1
2
Now, using Descartes’s circle equation theorem you will have
A
(− p + a + b + c)2 = 2((− p)2 + a2 + b2 + c2 ) A
B
B
C C
C

A B
2
 11   49 
⇒  + d = 2  + d 2
 6   36 
Fig (i)
⇒ 36d 2 − 132d − 23 = 0
718 QUANTUM CAT
1 23 (Since the circle is circumscribing, that’s why minus sign
⇒ d=− or
6 6 is applied)
The minus sign indicates that the circle is externally And, let radius of the circles of diameter AB be r2, then
tangent. 1
6 r2 = cm
∴ Radius of circle D = 6 cm or cm. 6
23 So the curvature of the concerned circle AB = 6
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
And, let radius of the circle of diameter BC be r3, then
155 First of all, complete all the semicircles as shown in the 1
following figure. Now, since all the four circles are tangent r3 = cm
3
to each other, so you can apply the Descartes’ circle
theorem in order to get the radius of the desired circle. So the curvature of the concerned circle BC = 3
Let a, b and c be the curvatures of the semicircles and d be
the curvature of desired circle, then
(a + b + c + d )2 = 2(a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 )
A B C That is
(−2 + 6 + 3 + d )2 = 2((−2)2 + 62 + 32 + d 2 )
⇒ (7 + d )2 = 2(49 + d 2 )
⇒ d 2 + 14d + 49 = 0
Let radius of the circle of diameter AC be r1,
⇒ d =7
1
then r1 = cm 1
2 ⇒ r4 = cm
7
So the curvature of the concerned circle a = − 2
Hence choice (a) is the correct one.

TEST OF LEARNING
1 Use cosine rule in the given triangle, ⇒ b + c > a ⇒| a − c| < b
a +b −c 2 2 2
⇒ a2 + c2 − 2ac < b2 …(ii)
cos C =
2ab ⇒ c + a > b ⇒| b − a| < c
π ( x 2 + x + 1)2 + ( x 2 − 1)2 − (2x + 1)2 ⇒ a2 + b2 − 2ab < c2 …(iii)
⇒ cos =
6 2( x 2 + x + 1)( x 2 − 1) From eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii)
3 2x 2 + 2x − 1 2(a2 + b2 + c2 ) − 2(ab + bc + ca)
⇒ =
2 2( x 2 + x + 1) < (a2 + b2 + c2 )
⇒ x = (1 + 3), − (2 + 3) a2 + b2 + c2
Hence choice (d) is the answer. ⇒ <2
(ab + bc + ca)
2 The roots will be real when discriminant D ≥ 0. That is a2 + b2 + c2 2
⇒ < …(iv)
[ 2(a + b + c)] − 12λ (ab + bc + ac) ≥ 0
2
3(ab + bc + ca) 3
⇒ (a + b + c)2 ≥ 3λ (ab + bc + ac) a2 + b2 + c2 2
∴ λ≤ +
⇒ a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ca) ≥ 3λ(ab + bc + ac) 3(ab + bc + ca) 3
a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ca) 2 2
⇒ ≥λ ⇒ λ< +
3(ab + bc + ca) 3 3
4
a2 + b2 + c2 2 ⇒ λ<
⇒ λ≤ + 3
3(ab + bc + ca) 3
Hence choice (a) is the answer.
Now, using the fundamental property of existence of a
triangle; the sum of any two sides of a triangle is always NOTE If a < 2 and b ≤ 2, a = b < 4 is correct and a + b ≤ 4 is wrong.
greater than the third side. So 3 As we know that, in a triangle the sum of the two sides is
a + b > c ⇒| c − b| < a always greater than the third side, so we have the following
⇒ b2 + c2 − 2bc < a2 …(i) 3 relations.
Geometry 719

a + b > c ⇒ ac + bc > c2 a2 + b2 − c2
cos C =
b + c > a ⇒ ab + ac > a2 2ab
 a2 + b2 
c + a > b ⇒ bc + ab > b2 a2 + b2 −  
 5  2(a2 + b2 )
Adding the above 3 inequations, we get = =
2ab 5ab
2(ab + bc + ca) > a2 + b2 + c2
As a and b both are positive, so 0 < cos C < 1
⇒ a2 + b2 + c2 < 2(ab + bc + ca)
2(a2 + b2 )
a2 + b2 + c2 ∴ < 1 ⇒ 2a2 − 5ab + 2b2 < 0
⇒ <2 5ab
ab + bc + ca Now, for a moment assuming the above inequality as the
Now, we know that the lengths of each side of triangle are equality and then solving the quadratic equation in b, we
always real numbers and if ab and c are real numbers then a a
get b = , 2a. That is < b < 2a is the requisite condition for
(a − b)2 + (b − c)2 + (c − a)2 ≥ 0 2 2
the triangle’s existence. Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
⇒ 2(a2 + b2 + c2 ) − 2(ab + bc + ca) ≥ 0
Alternatively Let us consider AP = 6, BP = 8, AB = 10,
⇒ a2 + b2 + c2 ≥ ab + bc + ca as ∆APB is a right angle triangle. Since, AA′ and BB′ are
a2 + b2 + c2 medians intersecting at P, so A′P = 3 and B′P = 4.
⇒ ≥1
ab + bc + ca Now, AB′ = AP 2 + B′P 2 = 52
a2 + b2 + c2 BA′ = BP 2 + A′P 2 = 73
Therefore, we can conclude that 1 ≤ < 2. and
(ab + bc + ca)
∴ b = AC = 2 52 and a = BC = 2 73
⇒ 1 ≤ k < 2.
and c = AB = 10
Hence choice (a) is correct.
Option (a) : a2 + b2 = 4(52) + 4(73)
4 Since medians intersect each other in the ratio of 1 : 2,
= 4(52 + 73) = 500 = 5(100) = 5c2.
therefore B′P = n, PB = 2n and A′P = m, PA = 2m.
a
C Option (b) : = 73, 2a = 4 73, b = 2 52. It shows that
2
a
< b < 2a. Therefore option (b) is also correct.
2
Hence option (d) is valid.
A′ 5 Q AM ≥ GM
B′
z z
+
n P m x y  z  z
≥    
2  x  y
b/2 a/2
z z  z  z
2m 2n + ≥2    
x y  x  y

A B z z z2
c + ≥2
2
x y xy
 a a2
In ∆A′PB, m2 + (2n)2 =   ⇒ m2 + 4n2 = z z x2 + y2
 2 4 + ≥2
x y xy
In ∆B′PA, n2 = (2m)2
2 z z x y
 b b2 + ≥2 +
  ⇒ n + 4m =
2 2
x y y x
 2 4
z z  y x 
(a2 + b2 ) + ≥2 2 Q  x + y  ≥ 2
∴ 5(m2 + n2 ) = x y
4  
Now, in ∆APB, (2m)2 + (2n)2 = c2 Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
⇒ 4(m + n ) = c
2 2 2
6 Since BD is a median, so AD = DC . Let us say
a2 + b2 AD = DC = 1, and ∠BAC = z °. Further, let us assume that
∴ c2 = 4(m2 + n2 ) = ∠DBC = y °, therefore ∠DCB + ∠DBC = x + y = 135°. It
5
implies that ∠ABC = 135°. Then it is obvious that
⇒ 5c2 = a2 + b2
∆ABC ~ ∆ADB.
Now, using the cosine rule in ∆ABC, we have
720 QUANTUM CAT
That is
AC
=
AB Alternatively Extend CB to E such that ∆AEB is a right
AB AD angle triangle and AC is its hypotenuse, then
⇒
2
=
AB
⇒ AB = 2 AD = ED = DC , as AD, ED, DC will acts as the radii of the
AB 1 circle, say it is r. In ∆DBC, we have x + y = 135°,
B therefore in ∆ABC we have ∠ABC = 135°. It implies that
y° ∠EBA = 45°.
x°
E
z° 135° 45° x°
A C
D
B
45°
Now, we know that a median divide that total area of a x° y°
triangle in two equal parts, therefore, ∆ABD = ∆DBC 45° 45° x°
A C
Let us drop a perpendicular h on AB from D in ∆ABD and D
a perpendicular p on DC from B in ∆BDC. Then we have, Thus we see that in right angle ∆EBA we have
∆ABD = ∆DBC ∠AEB = 90°, ∠EBA = 45° and ∠EAB = 45°.
1 1 Therefore, AE = EB = r.
⇒ × AB × h = × CD × p ⇒ 2h = p
2 2
Alternatively Since ∠BCD = ∠DBA, therefore we can
B
conclude that the angles in the alternate segment are
N x° same. It implies that AB is a tangent to a circle that
p
passes through the points D, B and C.
z° h 45° x°
A C B
D M
x°
As we see that in a right angle triangle ∆BMD, the z° 45° x° C
hypotenuse BD = 2h = 2ND, therefore from 30-60-90 A D
degree theorem ∠NBD = 30°. That is x = 30°.
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
Alternatively Extend CB to E such that ∆AEC is a right
angle triangle and AC is its hypotenuse, then Therefore, AC × AD = AB 2. That is 2AD × AD = AB 2.
AD = ED = DC , as AD, ED, DC will act as the radii of the ⇒ AB = 2AD
circle, say it is r.
Now the rest of the solution can be taken from any of the
Now, as ∠EBD is the external angle of ∆DBC, so previous solutions to the same problem.
∠EBD = (45 + x )°
But, ∠EBD = ∠EBA + ∠ABD 7 Applying 36°-72°-36° theorem, in triangle JFM, we have
⇒ 45 + x = ∠ EBA + x ⇒ ∠EBA = 45° FM 1 + 5
= .
Now, since in ∆AEB, ∠AEB = 90° and ∠EBA = 45°, FJ 2
therefore ∠EAB = 45°. Since each side of the pentagon FGHIJ is 2 cm, therefore
That is ∆AEB is an isosceles right angled triangle. It each side of the pentagon FKLMN would be 1 + 5 cm.
implies that EA = EB. 1+ 5
We know that KR = FR = FG + GR = FG + FG. That
Let us assume EA = EB = p ⇒ AB = 2p 2
E KR 3 + 5
is = .
FG 2
Since each side of the pentagon FGHIJ is 2 cm, therefore
B
each side of the pentagon KOPQR would be 3 + 5 cm.
x° y°
z° 45° x° D
A C
D
Now, since ∆ABC is similar to ∆ADB, therefore
AC AB 2r 2p
= ⇒ = E
O P
C
AB AD 2p r
⇒ r= p L
∴ AE = EB = ED = AD = DC = r M K Q
N F G
That is in right angle triangle ∆AEC, we have AC = 2AE .
R
Therefore in ∆AEC by 30-60-90 degree theorem, J H
I
∠ECA = 30° ⇒ x = 30°
A B
Geometry 721

Therefore, total shaded area and PQ = QN 2 + NP 2

1  1 
= 5  ( 5(5 + 2 5)) 22 + 5  ( 5(5 + 2 5))(1 + 5)2 ⇒ PQ = (2x )2 + (4 x )2 = 2x 5
4  4 
∴ KM = x ⇒ OP = 6 x
 1 
+  ( 5(5 + 2 5)) (3 + 5)2 ⇒ AB = 24 x = 12
4 
1
1 ⇒ x=
= ( 5(5 + 2 5))[ 20 + (30 + 10 5) + (14 + 6 5)] 2
4
1
= ( 5(5 + 2 5 )(16 + 4 5) cm 2 ∴ PQ = 2 × × 5 = 5
2
Hence choice (a) is the correct one. 5a
Thus when AB = 12, PQ = 5, so when AB = a, PQ =
8 Given that AB = BC = CD = DA = a 12
Let us consider a = 12 cm. There are 8 internal angles in the octagon, such that
Now in triangle HAB and PGB, ∠P = ∠R = ∠T = ∠V and ∠Q = ∠S = ∠U = ∠W . That is
half of the internal angles are same of one value and rest
AH PG 1
= = half are of another value. So it’s not an equiangular
AB GB 2 octagon, so it’s not a regular octagon too.
∴ AH = AG = GB = 6 and PG = 3 However, each side of the octagon is same, so it’s an
Similarly, in triangle DAG and DHR, equilateral octagon.
AG HR 1 Thus statements (ii) and (iv) are correct.
= =
AD HD 2 Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
∴ AG = AH = DH = 6 and HR = 3 Alternatively Using the coordinate geometry to find
D E C D C the answer.
Let the coordinate of point A, B, C , D be
T x
S U (0, 0), (a, 0), (a, a)(0, a) respectively, then AF is y =
2
x 2y
H R V F H R and BH is + = 1.
Q a a
Q W P  a a
I Therefore P is  
P O  2, 4
B B 2x y
A G A J G Similarly, DG is + =1
a a
Therefore, RO = OP = 3  a a
Equating BH and DG we get the coordinates of Q =  
Now, in triangle HIP and ROP,  3, 3
HI KO 1
= = a a
2
 a a 5a
2
IP OP 2 ∴ PQ =  −  + −  =
2 3  4 3 12
∴ OP = 3, OK = 1. 5, KR = 1. 5
Similarly, in triangle GJR and POR, Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
GJ OL 1 9 Considering the given conditions, the best you can do is
= =
JR OR 2 assume an equilateral triangle, say of each side 2 3. Then,
∴ OR = 3, OL = 1. 5, LP = 1. 5 from the following figure, QS = SR = 3 and PS = 3, PO = 2,
R OS = 1 and ST = 1.
P

K
O
M Q
S
Q R
O N L P T
Now, if we assume KM = x, then MQ = 2x 1 1 2
But MQ = QN = 2x (i) + <
PS ST QS × SR
∴ NP = 4 x and LP = 3x, as NL = KM = x 4 2
But NL = KM = x ⇒ < . That is invalid.
3 3
722 QUANTUM CAT
1 1 2 = DA 2 + DB 2 + DC 2 + DQ 2
(ii) + >
PS ST QS × SR = 4 + 8 + 4 + 0 = 16
4 2
⇒ > . That is valid. A B
3 3
1 1 4
(iii) + <
PS ST QR
4 2 3
⇒ < . That is invalid.
3 3 D P C
1 1 4
(iv) + > PA 2 + PB 2 + PC 2 + PD 2 12
PS ST QR ∴ = = 0.75
QA 2 + QB 2 + QC 2 + QD 2 16
4 2 3
⇒ > . That is valid. Hence choice (a) is the answer.
3 3
Hint You must be wondering that why I have chosen P
Hence choice (b) is the answer.
and Q at these places. If you are smart enough, you can
Alternatively figure it out, from the question, that the answer would
Applying the theorem, you will get, PS × ST = QS × SR not change it you change the locations of P and Q. That’s
1 1 why, for our convenience, I have chosen P on C1 such that
Now, apply the principle of AM ≥ GM with + as I can measure PA, PB, PC , PD easily and for the same
PS ST
shown below. reason I have chosen Q on C 2.
1 1 11 When you shift Z to P , D will shift to Y, which makes
+
PS ST ≥ 1 + 1 XD = XY. Simultaneously, C will shift to X, which makes
2 PS ST CY = XY. Therefore DX = CY. Now, when you shift Z to B, D
1 1 2 will shift to A, which makes XD = AX . Simultaneously, C
⇒ + ≥
PS ST QS × SR will shift to B, which makes CY = BY. But, we know that
AX = BX < BY, so XD < CY.
QS + SR
Similarly, ≥ QS × SR It implies that XD ≤ CY.
2
QR Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
⇒ ≥ QS × SR
2 12 Look at the following figures. First of all, consider the
1 2 figure (ii), in which the radius of the circle inscribed in the
⇒ ≥  1 1 1
QS × SR QR shaded region is  −  = cm.
 3 4 12
1 1 4
⇒ + ≥ Now, consider the fig (iii) and find the radius of the
PS ST QR
second circle in the shaded region. It can be done using
Therefore, you will have the Descartes’ circle theorem.
1 1 2
+ ≥ Let a, b and c be the curvatures of the existing circles and
PS ST QS × SR d be the curvature of desired circle, then
1 1 4 (a + b + c + d )2 = 2(a2 + b2 + c2 + d 2 )
and + ≥
PS ST QR That is (−3 + 4 + 12 + d )2 = 2((−3)2 + 42 + 122 + d 2 )
But since S is not at the centre, so PS ≠ ST and QS ≠ SR , ⇒ (13 + d )2 = 2(169 + d 2 )
so you will have the strict inequality, as following.
1 1 2 ⇒ d 2 − 26d + 169 = 0
+ >
PS ST QS × SR 1
⇒ d = 13 ⇒ r4 = cm
1 1 4 13
and + > Using the same approach you can find the curvature of
PS ST QR
other new circles as shown in fig (iv).
Hence choice (b) is the answer.
10 Consider P at the mid-point of CD which will also lie on C1,
then
PA 2 + PB 2 + PC 2 + PD 2
= 5 + 5 + 1 + 1 = 12
Now consider Q at D (Q coinciding with D), which will
Fig. (i) Fig. (ii) Fig. (iii)
also lie on C 2, then QA 2 + QB 2 + QC 2 + QD 2
Geometry 723

a
Alternatively If a circle C1 is unit away from Y-axis
b
1
and its corresponding diameter is 2 and the other circle
b
c
C 2 is unit away from Y-axis and its corresponding
d
Fig. (iv) Fig. (v) Fig. (vi) 1
diameter is 2 and these two circles are tangent to each
d
Let a, b and d be the curvatures of the existing circles and
other and have X-axis as their common tangent, the third
e be the curvature of desired circle, then
circle C 3 will be tangent to the two circles C1 and C 2 and
(a + b + d + e)2 = 2(a2 + b2 + d 2 + e2 ) a+ b
tangent to X-axis when it is unit away from Y-axis
That is c+ d
(−3 + 4 + 13 + e)2 = 2((−3)2 + 42 + 132 + e2 ) 1
and its diameter would be .
⇒ (14 + e)2 = 2(194 + e2 ) (c + d )2
⇒ e2 − 28e + 192 = 0 ⇒ e = 16
(Since e = 12 is not a possible value, as it is less than the
value of the previous circle. Do you remember that the
smaller circle has greater curvature?)
Now, consider the other figures (v) and (vi). Use the
same approach as above, and you will find the other
curvatures as 21 and 28.
Thus, you can see that the curvatures of these circles are
as follows a a +c c
— —— —
12, 13, 16, 21 and 28. b b+d b
Looking at the pattern you can find the values of all the 2 + 3 5 35
curvatures, as given below Therefore, the required answer would be = =
5 + 7 12 84
12, 13, 16, 21, 28, 37, 48, 61, 76, 93, 112, 133 and 156.
Hence choice (d) is the correct one.
Out of the above 13 curvatures, except the first one (that
Alternatively
is 12) all other curvatures repeat twice due to
symmetricity. Join the lines as shown in the diagram. Let us consider
Therefore, total sum of all the 25 curvatures the radius of C1, C 2 and C 3 be r1, r2 and r3, respectively.
= 12 + 2(13 + 16 + … + 156) Now, we have BQ = AB 2 − AQ 2
= 12 + 2(794) = 1600
⇒ BQ = (r1 + r2 )2 − (r1 − r2 )2
Hence choice (b) is the correct one.
2 2
2  1 1  1 1
13 Given that the point of tangent of C1 is cm (or 0.4 cm) ⇒ BQ =  +  − − 
5  50 98  50 98
3
away from Y-axis and the point of tangent of C 2 is cm (or 1
7 ⇒ BQ =
35
0.4284 cm) away from the Y-axis, so the point of tangent of
2 3 Again, BQ = RS = RC + CS
C 3 must be somewhere between and (or 0.4 cm and
5 7 = (r1 + r3 )2 − (r1 − r3 )2
0.4288 cm) away from the Y-axis.
26 + (r2 + r3 )2 − (r2 − r3 )2
Choice (a) : = 0.7428 cm, which is more than
35
0.4284 cm
57
Choice (b) : = 0. 3958 cm, which is less than 0.4 cm
144
17 A
Choice (c) : = 0. 4722 cm, which is more than
36
0.4284 cm Q B
35
Choice (d) : = 0. 4167 cm, which is between 0.4 cm R
C
S
84
and 0.4284 cm O M N P
Hence choice (d) is the correct one. ⇒ BQ = 2 r1r3 + 2 r2r3
724 QUANTUM CAT
⇒ BQ = 2( r1r3 + r2r3 ) Now, we have, ON = OX − NX = ( p + q) − n
1  1 r3 1 r3  And, OS = OB + BS = (OC − BC ) + BS
⇒ = 2 + 
35 5 2 7 2 = ( p + q − 2q) + n = p − q + n
1 24 r3 Again, SN 2 = ON 2 − OS 2
⇒ =
35 35 2 ⇒ j2 = ( p + q − n)2 − ( p − q + n)2 …(iv)
1 pq
⇒ r3 = cm Now, solving eqs. (iii) and (iv) we get n =
288 p+ q
But, we know that 2pq
Thus, we see that m = n and m + n =
MN = RC = (r1 + r3 )2 − (r1 − r3 )2 p+ q

 1  1  1 Hence choice (c) is the correct one.

⇒ MN = RC = 2 r1r3 = 2     =
 50  288 60 15 The best way is to convert this general scenario into a
specific case by assuming an equilateral triangle where
Therefore, the required distance = ON = OM + MN
each of the three circles has same radius of 1 cm.
2 1
⇒ ON = + B
5 60
25 5 35
= = =
60 12 84
E
14 Given that AP = BP = p and BQ = CQ = q, therefore I G
PQ = p + q.
Since RB = MU = m, so we have PR = PB − RB = p − m. D
O
F
K
Also, PM = p + m
Let us consider MR = UB = h, we have A C
H
MR 2 = PM 2 − PR 2 Then we have DE = 2 and EK = 3. And therefore,
⇒ h 2 = ( p + m)2 − ( p − m)2 …(i) 2 1
EO = and OK = .
3 3
Now, we have,
OM = OW − MW = ( p + q) − m Also KH = 1.
And, RO = RB − OB = RB − (OC − BC ) Thus we have, inradius
1
= m − ( p + q − 2q) = m − p + q OI = OG = OH = 1 + .
3
Again, MR 2 = OM 2 − RO 2
Now, you can substitute the value of r1 = r2 = r3 = 1 in the
⇒ h 2 = ( p + q − m)2 − (m − p + q)2 …(ii) given options and you would see that
pq
Now, solving eqn. (i) and eqn. (ii) we get m = Choice (a) :
r1r2r3
=
1
p+ q r1 + r2 + r3 − 2 r1 + r2 + r3 3 − 2 3
W
It gives us a negative value, so it’s invalid.
U X 2 r1r2r3 2 2
M Choice (b) : = =
V r1 + r2 + r3 − 3 r1 + r2 + r3 3 − 3 0
N
It gives us an undefined value, so it’s invalid.
2 r1r2r3 2
Choice (c) : =
r1 + r2 + r3 − r1 + r2 + r3 3 − 3

A P R O B S Q C 2(3 + 3)
=
(3 − 3)(3 + 3)
2(3 + 3) 1
Similarly, we can find out n, as shown below. = =1 +
6 3
Let us consider SN = j, where NQ = q + n and
SQ = BQ − BS = q − n, we have SN 2 = NQ 2 − SQ 2 Hence choice (c) is the correct one.
⇒ j2 = (q + n)2 − (q − n)2 …(iii)
Elements of Algebra 725

CHAPTER 13

Elements of
A lgebr a
Algebra plays a very crucial role in CAT since on an average 35–40% problems of
‘Quantitative Aptitude’ section are related to algebra and the questions asked from this
section are not very calculative and can be solved quickly through options. According to the
past years question papers, the questions of this section are very logical in spite of being
algebraic.
Their level can be of High School Standard or IIT-JEE level. But you need not to go for an IIT Chapter Checklist
coaching or for higher studies in maths. For this, first you have the command over the Fundamental Concept of
fundamentals, then solve the plenty of problems so that you must be aware with variety and Algebra
diversity of problems. This section is written in this book as per the needs of those students Algebraic Expression
who are really very poor in algebra and for the same, I have started from the zero level and Polynomial
created the standard of problems higher than CAT level. So in this journey of learning of Operations on Algebraic
algebra you have to learn maximum from the problems given in the chapter, because theory is Expression
never sufficient in itself. Remainder Theorem
Factor Theorem
13.1 Fundamental Concept of Algebra H.C.F. and L.C.M. of
1. Literal Numbers (or literals) : Algebra is a branch of mathematics in which all the Polynomials
arithmetical operations are performed by using letters (like, a, b, c, ..., p, q, r, ... x, y, z) Rational Expressions
along with numerals. The letters used in algebra represent generalised numbers (or Basic Facts to Remember
unknown) numbers. They are called literals. Linear Equations
2. Operations on Literals : Since literals represent numbers, so they obey all the rules of Simultaneous Linear
operations of addition, subtraction, multiplication and division of numbers. Equations
Addition of Literals and Numbers Algebraic Methods of
Solving Simultaneous
(i) x + y = y + x (ii) x + 3 = 3 + x (iii) ( x + y) + z = x + ( y + z )
Equations in Two Variables
(iv) ( x + 0) = x = (0 + x ) (v) x + ( −x ) = 0 = ( −x ) + x
CAT Test
Subtraction of Literals and Numbers
(i) 4 − x (ii) x − 4 (iii) x − y = − ( y − x )
(iv) y − x = − ( x − y) (v) x − 0 = x
Multiplication of Literals and Numbers
(i) x × y = xy ( xy = x + x + x + K y times )
726 QUANTUM CAT
(ii) 4 × x = 4x (not as x4) ( 4x = x + x + x + x )
13.2 Algebraic Expression
(iii) 1 × x = x (not as 1x) (iv) xy = yx
A collection of constants and literals connected by one or
(v) ( xy) z = x ( yz ) (vi) 1 ⋅ x = x = x ⋅ 1
more of the operations of addition, subtraction, multiplication
(vii) x ( y + z ) = xy + xz (viii) 0 ⋅ x = 0 = x ⋅ 0 and division is called an “algebraic expression”.
Division of Literals and Numbers The various parts of an algebraic expression separated by +
4 x or – sign are called “terms” of the algebraic expression.,
(i) 4 ÷ x = (ii) x ÷ 4 =
x 4 e.g., Algebraic expression Number Terms
x of terms
(iii) x ÷ y = (iv) 0 ÷ x = 0
y (i) 4 x 1 4x

x (ii) 8 x + 3y 2 8 x, 3y
NOTE x ÷ 0, i.e., is not defined.
0 (iii) 7 + 3x − 2y 2
3 7, 3x, − 2y 2
7 3 7 3
Powers of a Literal (iv) x + 3x 2 + 4 x − 9 4 x , 3x 2, 4 x, − 9
8 8
(i) x × x = x 2 or x × x × x = x 3 etc.
NOTE Multiplication and division do not separate the terms of
i.e.,x × x × K n ×times = x n
an algebraic expression, e.g.,7x is a single term, similarly x / 7 is also a
(ii) x 1 = x (iii) x 0 = 1 single term.

NOTE x n is read as x raised to the powern or x to the powern or x Types of Algebraic Expressions
power n.
1. Monomial : An algebraic expression having only one
x → base, n → exponent or index, x n → exponential expression
term is called a monomial.
Language of Algebra 3x 7x 2
e.g., 3x, −5 y,12xy 2 , , , etc.
Statement Meaning y 3y
a=b a is equal to b 2. Binomial : An algebraic expression having two terms
a≠b a is not equal to b is called a binomial, e.g., 3x + 4 y, 7x 2 + 2x,9 yz 2 − 4x 2 ,
a<b a is less than b 2
a>b a is greater than b 3x − y, etc.
3
a≤b a is less than or equal to b
a≥b a is greater than or equal to b NOTE A trinomial has three terms.
a <| b a is not less than b 3. Polynomial (or multinomial) : An algebraic
a >| b a is not greater than b. expression having two or more than two terms is called a
multinomial or polynomial, e.g.,
Constraints and Variables
(i) 7x 2 − 3 y is a polynomial having 2 terms
Constants : A symbol which has a fixed value is called a
2 2 (ii) 7x 4 − 3x 2 + 5x is a polynomial having 3 terms
constant. e.g., 4, 5, 0, −3, , 3 , etc.
5 7 (iii) 3x 4 − 7x 3 + 3xy + 8 is a polynomial having 4
Variable : A symbol which can assume various numerical terms, etc.
values is called a variable. NOTE Mono → single or one Bi → two
e.g., Area of rectangle = length ( l) × breadth ( b) = l × b. Tri → three Poly/Multi → many
and nomial → terms
Here, length ( l) and breadth ( b) can assume any possible
numerical values. Product : When two or more constants or literals (or both)
Perimeter of a square = 4a (a → side of a square) are multiplied, then the result so obtained is called the
Here, a can assume any possible numerical value. ‘product’, e.g., 7xy is the product of 7, x and y.
Price of 10 balls = 10x = 10 × 2 = 20 or 10 × 5 = 50, etc. Factors : Each of the quantity (constant or literal) multiplied
Here, x can assume any possible numerical value. together to form a product is called a ‘factor’ of the product.
NOTE In 5x , 5 is constant and x is variable but together 5x is A constant factor is called a numerical factor and any factor
x 5
variable. Similarly, 5 + x , x − 5, 5 − x , and are variables. containing only literals is called a literal factor. e.g.,
5 x
Hence, a combination of a constant and a variable is a variable.
Elements of Algebra 727

(i) In 7xy, the numerical factor is 7 and literal factors are Polynomials in two or more variables
x, y and xy.
Any algebraic expression in two or more variables is called a
(ii) In −7x 2 y, the numerical factor is −7 and the literal polynomial if every variable present in it has only
factors are, x 2 , y, x, xy and x 2 y. non-negative integral powers.
Constant terms : The term of an algebraic expression In case of a polynomial in two or more variables, the sum of
having no literal factors is called its constant term. e.g. the powers of the variables in each term is taken and the
In the algebraic expression 3x 2 + 7x + 8, the constant term is greatest sum is the degree of the polynomial.
8. (Since, 8 is not associated with any literals) 1 1 x
NOTE No term in a polynomial can be of the form , , , etc.
Coefficients : In an algebraic expression any factor of a x x2 y
term is called the coefficient of the remaining factor of the Examples :
term, e.g., 4xy + 5x 2 y − 17. In the first term 4xy, (i) 8x 2 − 5xy + 3x − 7 y + 2 is a polynomial in two
(i) numerical coefficient = 4 (ii) literal coefficient = xy variables x and y. The degree of its terms are 2, (1 + 1),
(iii) coefficient of 4 = xy (iv) coefficient of x = 4 y 1, 1, 0, so the degree of the polynomial is 2.
(v) coefficient of y = 4x (vi) coefficient of 4x = y 5
(ii) 8a 3 + 9b 2 a 3 + 12b 3 − a + 15 is a polynomial in two
(vii) coefficient of 4 y = x 7
Similarly, we can find the coefficient of the other two terms. variables a and b. The degree of its terms are 3, (2 + 3),
Like and unlike terms : The terms having same literal 3, 1, 0, so the degree of the polynomial is 5.
coefficients are called like terms else the terms are called NOTE The degree of a polynomial is equal to the maximum
value of the sum of the powers of the variables in any term. Degree is
unlike terms, e.g., always a whole number. It is not defined for polynomials having
3 fractional and negative exponent.
(i) 7xy, 4xy, 9xy, − xy are like terms
2
Substitution
(ii) 3x y, 5x y, 8x y, K , − 7x 2 y are like terms
2 2 2
The process of finding the value of an algebraic expression
(iii) 3x, 5x 2 y, 9xy 2 z are unlike terms, etc. by replacing the variables (literals) by their particular values
is called substitution.
13.3 Polynomial Exp. 1) If x = 3 and y = 4, find the value of
Polynomials in one variable : An algebraic expression of 15x
(i) 3x + 2y (ii) 4 x − 3y (iii) 18 xy (iv)
the form a + bx + cx 2 + dx 3 + K where a, b, c, d, K are 12y

constants and x is a variable, is called a polynomial in the Solution

variable x. The greatest power of x present in the polynomial (i) 3 x + 2y = 3 × 3 + 2 × 4 (substituting x = 3 and y = 4)
is called the degree of the polynomial. = 9 + 8 = 17
1 1 (ii) 4x − 3 y = 4 × 3 − 3 × 4 (substituting x = 3 and y = 4)
NOTE No term in a polynomial can be of the form , , etc. = 12 − 12 = 0
x x2
(iii) 18xy = 18 × 3 × 4 (substituting x = 3 and y = 4)
e.g., = 216
(i) 7 + 3x is a polynomial in x of degree 1. 15 x 15 × 3 15
(iv) = =
(ii) 7 y 2 + 3 y − 10 is a polynomial in y of degree 2. 12y 12 × 4 16

(iii) 8k 3 + 3k 2 − 15 is a polynomial in k of degree 3. Exp. 2) If x = − 3, find the value of 4x 2 − 5x + 3.

Solution 4x 2 − 5 x + 3 = 4 × ( −3) 2 − 5 × ( −3) + 3
(iv) 7x 5 + 3x 2 + 8 is a polynomial in x of degree 5.
= 36 + 15 + 3 = 54
8
(v) 3x + 5x + 7x − is not a polynomial.
4 3
Exp. 3) If a = 4, b = − 3, c = 2, find the value
x
of 4a 2 + 5b − 12c.
(vi) 8 can be written as 8x 0 , so it is a polynomial in x of
Solution 4a 2 + 5 b − 12c = 4 × ( 4) 2 + 5( −3) − 12( 2)
degree 0, i.e., in general a single constant term is
= 64 − 15 − 24 = 25
always of degree 0 (zero).
728 QUANTUM CAT
13.4 Operations on Exp. 3) Multiply ( a + b) by ( c + d).
Solution ( a + b)( c + d) = a( c + d) + b( c + d) = ac + ad + bc + bd
Algebraic Expression
Addition of like terms : In any algebraic expression only Exp. 4) Multiply (5x − 4) by ( 3x + 5).
like terms can be added or subtracted. Thus, the sum of two Solution (5 x − 4) × ( 3 x + 5) = 5 x × ( 3 x + 5) − 4 ( 3 x + 5)
or more like terms is a like term whose numerical coefficient = 15 x 2 + 25 x − 12x − 20 = 15 x 2 + 13 x − 20
is the sum of coefficients of given like terms. Division of Algebraic Expressions
e.g., 2x = x + x, 3x = x + x + x, 4x = x + x + x + x.
Exp. 1) Solve x 6 ÷ x 4
∴ 2x + 3x + 4x = ( x + x ) + ( x + x + x ) + ( x + x + x + x ) = 9x
x6 x × x × x × x × x × x
Similarly, 2x 2 + 3x 2 = (2 + 3) x 2 = 5x 2 Solution = = x × x = x2
x4 x×x×x×x
and 5xy + ( −3xy) = [5 + ( −3)] xy = 2xy
Thus, we cannot further simplify 7x + 5x 2 into single term, Exp. 2) Solve 35x 3 y 2 ÷ 7 x 2 y 2
since both are unlike terms. 35 x 3 y 2 7 × 5 × x × x × x × y × y
Solution = = 5x
7x2y2 7×x×x×y×y
Addition of Algebraic Expressions
Thus, we can say 7 x 2 y 2 and 5x are the two factors of 35 x 3 y 2 .
Exp. 1) Solve the following expression
( 4a + 2b − 3 c) + ( 3 a − 2b + 4c) Exp. 3) Divide 14x 3 y 2 + 8x 2 y 3 − 32x 2 y5 by −2xy 2 .
Solution ( 4a + 2b − 3 c) + ( 3 a − 2b + 4c)
14x 3 y 2 + 8x 2 y 3 − 32x 2 y5
Solution
= ( 4a + 3 a) + ( 2b − 2b) + ( −3 c + 4c) −2xy 2
= ( 4 + 3) a + ( 2 − 2) b + ( −3 + 4) c = 7a + c
(14x 3 y 2 ) ( 8x 2 y 3 ) ( −32x 2 y5 )
= + +
Exp. 2) Add 2x + 5xy − 2y , 3x − 2xy + 5y
2 2 2 2 ( −2xy 2 ) ( −2xy 2 ) ( −2xy 2 )
and −2x 2 + 8xy + 3y 2 . = − 7 x 2 − 4xy + 16xy 3
Solution ( 2x + 5xy − 2y ) + ( 3x − 2xy + 5y ) + ( −2x + 8xy + 3y )
2 2 2 2 2 2

= ( 2x 2 + 3 x 2 − 2x 2 ) + (5 xy − 2xy + 8xy) + ( −2y 2 + 5 y 2 + 3 y 2 ) Exp. 4) Divide ( 4x 2 + 3x + 2) by ( x + 2)

= 3 x 2 + 11xy + 6y 2 Solution
x+2 4x2 + 3x + 2 4x – 5
Subtraction of Algebraic Expressions 4x2 + 8x
– 5x + 2
Exp. 1) Subtract 3x + 2y − z from 4x − 5y + 3z.
– 5x – 10
Solution ( 4x − 5 y + 3z) − ( 3 x + 2y − z)
12
= ( 4x − 3 x) + ( −5 y − 2y) + [ 3z − ( −z)] = x − 7 y + 4z Here ( x + 2) is divisor and ( 4x − 5) is quotient
Exp. 2) Subtract 7 x − 3x + 8x + 16 from
3 2 and 12 is remainder and ( 4x 2 + 3 x + 2) is the dividend.
9x 3 + 6x 2 − 6x + 20. NOTE
Solution ( 9x 3 + 6x 2 − 6x + 20) − (7 x 3 − 3 x 2 + 8x + 16)
(i) If there is a ‘+’ sign before a bracket, then the signs of the terms
= ( 9x 3 − 7 x 3 ) + [6x 2 − ( −3 x 2 )] + [( −6x) − ( 8x)] + ( 20 − 16) inside the bracket do not change.
= 2x 3 + 9x 2 − 14x + 4 (ii) If there is a ‘–’ sign before a bracket, then the signs of all the
terms inside the bracket change.
Multiplication of Algebraic Expressions
It follows the distributive property. In this operation all the
General Form of a Polynomial
numerals are multiplied with each other individually and all the The expression of the forma 0 x n + a1 x n −1 + a 2 x n − 2
literals (or variables) multiplied with each other as per the rule. + K + a n in which a 0 , a1 , a 2 , ..., a n are constants ( a 0 ≠ 0)
Exp. 1) Find the product of 6xy and 7 x 2 . and n is a positive integer is called a polynomial (or rational
integral function) in x of degree n. We may denote it by f ( x ),
Solution 6xy × 7 x 2 = ( 6 × 7) × ( xy × x 2 )
= ( 6 × 7) × ( x × y × x × x) = 42 × x 3 y
i.e., f ( x ) = a 0 x n + a1 x n −1 + a 2 x n − 2 + K + a n .

Exp. 2) Find the product of 3ab 2 and ( 4ab + 3b 2 ). Algebraic Expression as a Function : A function is an
Solution 3 ab 2 × ( 4ab + 3 b 2 ) = 3 ab 2 × 4ab + 3 ab 2 × 3 b 2
operation which forms a relation between two variables.
= 3 ×a×b×b×4×a×b+ 3 ×a×b×b× 3 ×b×b e.g., y = x 2 , y = 3x, y = x 2 + 3, etc.
= 12a 2 b 3 + 9ab 4 = 3 ab 3 ( 4a + 3 b) This operation is represented by f ( x ), i.e.,
Elements of Algebra 729
y = f ( x ) ⇒ f ( x ) = x 2 ( f is called operand) x –4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3
y 5 0 –3 –4 –3 0 5 12
f ( x ) = 3x ⇒ f ( x ) = x 2 + 3
Since, y = x 2 + 2x − 3 is a quadratic equation, therefore the
Exp. 1) If f ( x) = x 3 + 2x, then find the value of f ( 3). graph is a parabola.
Solution Q f ( x) = x 3 + 2x ∴ f ( 3) = ( 3) 3 + 2( 3) = 27 + 6 = 33

Exp. 2) If f ( x) = 2x 3 + 3x 2 + 5, then find the value of f ( 2). 13.5 Remainder Theorem

Solution Q f ( x) = 2x + 3 x + 53 2 If a polynomial (i.e., a rational integral function) f ( x) is divided
∴ f ( 2) = 2( 2) 3 + 3( 2) 2 + 5 = 16 + 12 + 5 = 33 by ( x − a), then the remainder is obtained by substituting a for x
in f ( x), i.e., the remainder is f ( a).
Graphical Expression
Exp. 1) Find the remainder when x 2 − 6x + 5 is divided
Algebraic Expression by ( x + 2).
All the polynomial expressions that can be written as y = f ( x ) Solution Let f ( x) = x 2 − 6x + 5. Thus by remainder theorem, the
can be represented in two dimensional co-ordinate system. remainder when f ( x) is divided by ( x + 2), i.e., [x − ( −2)] is f ( −2)
∴ f ( −2) = ( −2) 2 − 6, ( −2) + 5 = 4 + 12 + 5 = 21.
Exp. 1) y = f ( x) = 2x + 1
∴ Thus, the remainder is 21.
Solution
x –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 NOTE
y –5 –3 –1 1 3 5 7 1. If a polynomial f (x ) is divided by (x + a ), then remainder is
f ( −a )
Hint Find the corresponding values of y for each value of x. 2. If a polynomial f (x ) is divided by (x − a ), then remainder is
Generally we consider some +ve and some –ve values of x. f (a )
Now we plot the graph as per the values obtained in the table. 3. If a polynomial f (x ) is divided by (ax + b ), then the
7 Y (3, 7) remainder is f ( −b / a )
6 Hint To get the value of remainder first of all write the divisor
5 (2, 5)
4 equal to zero, i.e., if divisor is ( x + a), then write x + a = 0
3 (1, 3)
Then, find the value of x, i.e., x + a = 0 ⇒ x = − a. Then, put the
2
1 (0, 1) obtained value of x in the polynomial, i.e., f ( x) = 3 x 2 + 4x − 5
X ⇒ f ( − a) = 3( − a) 2 + 4( − a) − 5, then solve the function
–6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(–1, –1) –1
(or expression) and get the simplified value of remainder.
–2
(–2, –3) –3 Exp. 2) If 2x 3 + 3x 2 + 7 x + 6 be divided by 2x + 1, find
–4
(–3, –5) –5 the remainder.
–6
Solution Let f ( x) = 2x 3 + 3 x 2 + 7 x + 6.
The points are represented as ( x , y) and the values of ( x , y) Then the remainder when f ( x) is divided by ( 2x + 1)
represent the points on the plane. ∴ 2x + 1 = 0
NOTE y = 2x + 1is a linear equation, therefore the graph of the 1
⇒ x=−
given equation shows a straight line. 2
3 2
Exp. 2) f ( x) = x 2 + 2x − 3  1  1  1  1
∴ f −  = 2 −  + 3 −  + 7 −  + 6
 2  2  2  2
Solution y = f ( x) = x 2 + 2x − 3
1 3 7
13
12 (3, 12)
=− + − +6
4 4 2
11
−1 + 3 − 14 + 24 12
(–4, 5)
10
9
= = =3
4 4
8
7
6 Exp. 3) Find the remainder when the expression
5
4
(2, 5)
3x 3 + 8x 2 − 6x + 1 is divided by ( x + 3).
3 Solution Let f ( x) = 3 x 3 + 8x 2 − 6x + 1
2
(–3, 0) 1 (1, 0) Q x+ 3=0
⇒ x=−3
–8 –7 –6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 –1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
–2 ∴ f ( −3) = 3( −3) 3 + 8( −3) 2 − 6( −3) + 1
–3 (0, –3)
(–2, –3) = − 81 + 72 + 18 + 1 = 10
–4
(–1, –4) –5 Hence, the remainder is 10.
–6
730 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 4) When x 3 + 3x 2 − kx + 4 is divided by x − 2, the Exp. 4) If ( x − 3) and ( x + 4) are both the only factors of
remainder is k. Find the value of the constant k. f ( x), then find f ( x).
Solution Let f ( x) = x 3 + 3 x 2 − kx + 4 Solution Since, there are only two factors of f ( x), therefore the
Now, since x − 2 = 0 ⇒ x = 2 product of ( x − 3) and ( x + 4) is equal to f ( x).
∴ f ( 2) = ( 2) 3 + 3( 2) 2 − k( 2) + 4 = 24 − 2k ∴ f ( x) = ( x − 3)( x + 4)
∴ Remainder = 24 − 2k = k ⇒ k = 8 f ( x) = x 2 + x − 12
(Q the given remainder is k)
13.7 H.C.F. and L.C.M. of Polynomials
13.6 Factor Theorem 1. A polynomial D ( x ) is a divisor of the polynomial P ( x ) if
If f ( x ) be a polynomial (i.e., rational integral function) in x it is a factor of P ( x ). Where Q ( x ) is another polynomial
and f ( a ) = 0, then ( x − a ) is a factor of f ( x ). such that P ( x ) = D ( x ) ⋅ Q ( x )
2. HCF/GCD (Greatest Common Divisor) : A polynomial
By remainder theorem if f ( x ) be divided by ( x − a ) the
h( x ) is called the HCF or GCD of two or more given
remainder is f ( a ). But f ( a ) = 0, i.e., there is no remainder. polynomials, if h( x ) is a polynomial of highest degree
∴ f ( x ) is exactly divisible by ( x − a ) dividing each one of the given polynomials.
Hence, ( x − a ) is a factor of f ( x ). NOTE The coefficient of highest degree term is always taken as
NOTE positive.

1. If f (x ) be a polynomial and f ( −a ) = 0, then (x + a ) is a factor of 3. LCM (Least Common Multiple) : A polynomial P ( x )

f (x ). is called the LCM of two or more given polynomials, if it is
2. If f (x ) be a polynomial and f ( −b / a ) = 0, then (ax + b ) is a factor of
f (x ).
a polynomial of smallest degree which is divided by each
one of the given polynomials.
Exp. 1) Show that ( x − 2) is a factor of the polynomial For any two polynomials P ( x ) and Q ( x ). We have :
2x 2 − 5x + 2. P ( x ) × Q ( x ) = [HCF of P ( x ) and Q ( x )]
Solution Let f ( x) = 2x 2 − 5 x + 2
× [LCM of P ( x ) and Q ( x )]
Q ( x − 2) = 0
⇒ x=2 Exp. 1) Find the HCF and LCM of the following
∴ f ( 2) = 2( 2) 2 − 5( 2) + 2 polynomials ( x + 2) 2 ( x − 3) 2 ( x + 1) 2 ,
f ( 2) = 0 ( x + 1) ( x + 2) ( x − 3).
3 3

∴ By factor theorem ( x − 2) is a factor of 2x 2 − 5 x + 2. Solution Let P( x) = ( x + 2) 2 ( x − 3) 2 ( x + 1) 2

and Q( x) = ( x + 1) 3 ( x + 2) 3 ( x − 3)
Exp. 2) Prove that ( 2x + 5) is a factor of the polynomial HCF = ( x + 1) 2 ( x + 2) 2 ( x − 3)
2x 2 + 11x + 15. (For the HCF we take the highest power of factors common
Solution Let f ( x) = 2x 2 + 11x + 15 to both P( x) and Q( x)) and LCM = ( x + 1) 3 ( x + 2) 3 ( x − 3) 2
Q 2x + 5 = 0 ⇒ x = − 5 / 2 [For LCM we take the highest powers of the
∴ f ( −5 / 2) = 2 ( −5 / 2) 2 + 11( −5 / 2) + 15 factors either of P( x) or Q( x)]
25 55
= − + 15 Exp. 2) Find the HCF and LCM of the following
2 2
polynomials 22x( x + 1) 2 , 36x 2 ( 2x 2 + 3x + 1)
f ( −5 / 2) = 0
Solution Let P( x) = 22x( x + 1) 2
Hence, ( 2x + 5) is a factor of f ( x) = 2x 2 + 11x + 15.
and Q( x) = 36x 2 ( 2x 2 + 3 x + 1)
Exp. 3) Prove that ( a − b) is a factor of ( a 3 − b 3 ). P( x) = 2 × 11 × x × ( x + 1) 2
Solution Let f ( a) = a 3 − b 3 and Q( x) = 2 × 18 × x 2 × ( x + 1)( 2x + 1)
Q ( a − b) = 0 ⇒ a = b ∴ HCF = 2 × x × ( x + 1) = 2x( x + 1)
∴ f ( b) = ( b) 3 − b 3 and LCM = 2x( x + 1) × 11 × 18 × x × ( x + 1)( 2x + 1)
f ( b) = 0 = 396x 2 ( x + 1) 2 ( 2x + 1)
∴ f ( a) = 0 (To find the LCM, first take the HCF and
Hence, ( a − b) is a factor of a 3 − b 3 . then take all the rest factors).
Elements of Algebra 731

Exp. 3) Find the HCF and LCM of ( 3 + 13x − 30x 2 ) and Solution
( 25x 2 − 30x + 9). (a) x 2 − 3 x + 4 is a polynomial and (c) 2x 2 − 3 x + 5 is
Solution Let P( x) = ( 3 + 13 x − 30x ) 2 also a polynomial
and Q( x) = ( 25 x 2 − 30x + 9) (b) x 3 − 3 x 2 + 4 x is not polynomial since 4 x = 4x1 / 2 , i.e.,
or P( x) = 3 + 13 x − 30x 2 1
power of x is (i.e., fractional)
2
= 3 + 18x − 5 x − 30x 2
(d) x 3 − 2x + x −2 is not a polynomial since x −2 has negative
= − ( 6x + 1)(5 x − 3)
power of x.
Q( x) = 25 x 2 − 30x + 9 = (5 x − 3) 2
∴HCF of P( x) and Q( x) = (5 x − 3) Exp. 2) Express the following in the lowest terms.
and LCM of P( x) and Q( x) = − (5 x − 3) 2 ( 6x + 1). x 2 + 6x + 9
x2 − 9
Exp. 4) The HCF of two polynomials is ( x − 2)( x + 3) and
x 2 + 6x + 9 ( x + 3)( x + 3) x + 3
their LCM is ( x − 2) 2 ( x + 3)( x + 1). If one of the polynomial Solution = =
is x 2 − x − 2, find the other. x2 − 9 ( x + 3)( x − 3) x − 3
Solution HCF = ( x − 2)( x + 3)
Important Formulae
and LCM = ( x − 2) 2 ( x + 3)( x + 1)
1. ( a + b) 2 = a 2 + b 2 + 2ab
∴ HCF × LCM = ( x − 2) 3 ( x + 3) 2 ( x + 1)
2. ( a − b) 2 = a 2 + b 2 − 2ab
Let P( x) = x 2 − x − 2 = x 2 − 2x + x − 2
= ( x − 2)( x + 1)
3. ( a + b) 2 = ( a − b) 2 + 4ab
∴ P( x) ⋅ Q ⋅( x) = HCF × LCM 4. ( a − b) 2 = ( a + b) 2 − 4ab
HCF × LCM
∴ Q( x) = 1
P( x) 5. ( a 2 + b 2 ) = [( a + b) 2 + ( a − b) 2 ]
2
( x − 2) 3 ( x + 3) 2 ( x + 1)
= 6. a − b = ( a + b)( a − b)
2 2
( x − 2)( x + 1)
= ( x − 2) 2 ( x + 3) 2 7. ( a + b) 3 = a 3 + b 3 + 3ab( a + b)
∴ The other polynomial [say Q( x)] is ( x − 2) 2 ( x + 3) 2 . 8. ( a − b) 3 = a 3 − b 3 − 3ab( a − b)
9. a 3 + b 3 = ( a + b)( a 2 + b 2 − ab)
13.8 Rational Expressions 10. a 3 − b 3 = ( a − b)( a 2 + b 2 + ab)
If P ( x ) and Q ( x ) are two polynomials such that Q ( x ) ≠ 0, then
11. ( a + b + c) 2 = ( a 2 + b 2 + c 2 ) + 2( ab + bc + ac)
P (x )
the quotient
Q (x )
is called a rational expression. 12. a 3 + b 3 + c 3 − 3abc
= ( a + b + c)( a 2 + b 2 + c 2 − ab − bc − ac)
˜ Every polynomial is a rational expression but a rational
if a + b + c = 0,then a 3 + b 3 + c 3 = 3abc
expression need not be a polynomial.
P (x ) 13. a 4 + b 4 + a 2 b 2 = ( a 2 + b 2 + ab)( a 2 + b 2 − ab)
The rational expression is said to be in its
14. a 4 − b 4 = ( a − b)( a + b)( a 2 + b 2 )
˜
Q (x )
simplest form (or in lowest terms) if the G.C.D. of P ( x ) 15. a 8 − b 8 = ( a − b)( a + b)( a 2 + b 2 )( a 4 + b 4 )
and Q ( x ) is 1.
˜ To express a rational expression in its simplest form, 13.9 Basic Facts to Remember
express the polynomials in the numerator and in the 1. To factorize the cyclic expressions :
denominators as product of simplest factors (i.e., no (a) Arrange the terms in decreasing or increasing
further factorization is possible), and then cancel the powers of one of the letters (or literals)
common factors. (b) Make one factor common by taking two or three
terms together.
Exp. 1) Which of the following algebraic expressions are
polynomials? (c) Rewrite the terms of the other factor in
(a) x 2 − 3x + 4 (b) x 3 − 3x 2 + 4 x decreasing or increasing power of the next letter.
(c) 2x 2 − 3x + 5 (d) x 3 − 2x + x − 2 (d) Repeat the process till all the factors are found out.
732 QUANTUM CAT
2. Sigma ( Σ ) notation : = x 2 y + x 2z + xy 2 + xz 2 + 2xyz + y 2z + yz 2
Σx = x + y + z, for letters x, y, z = x 2 ( y + z) + x( y 2 + z 2 + 2yz) + yz( y + z)
Σxy = xy + yz + zx = x 2 ( y + z) + x( y + z) 2 + yz( y + z)
Σx 2 ( y − z ) = x 2 ( y − z ) + y 2 ( z − x ) + z 2 ( x − y) = ( y + z) [x 2 + x ( y + z) + yz]
3. Some important results : = ( y + z)( x 2 + xy + xz + yz)
(a) Σ( x − y) = 0 (b) Σ( x 2 − y 2 ) = 0 = ( y + z)[x( x + y) + z( x + y)]
= ( y + z)( x + y)( x + z)
(c) Σ( x − y ) = 0
3 3
(d) Σx ( y − z ) = 0
= ( x + y)( y + z)(z + x)
(e) Σx ( y − z ) = 0
2 2 2
Exp. 2) Factorize Σxy( x + y) + 2xyz
(f) Σx 2 ( y − z ) = − ( x − y)( y − z )( z − x )
Solution Σxy( x + y) + 2xyz
(g) Σx ( y 2 − z 2 ) = ( x − y)( y − z )( z − x )
= xy ( x + y) + yz ( y + z) + zx (z + x) + 2xyz
(h) Σ( x − y) 3 = 3( x − y)( y − z )( z − x ) = x 2 y + x 2z + y 2z + y 2 x + z 2 x + z 2 y + 2xyz

Exp. 1) Factorize = x 2 ( y + z) + x( y 2 + z 2 + 2yz) + yz( y + z)

x( y 2 + z 2 ) + y(z 2 + x 2 ) + z( x 2 + y 2 ) + 2xyz = x 2 ( y + z) + x( y + z) 2 + yz ( y + z)
Solution x( y 2 + z 2 ) + y(z 2 + x 2 ) + z( x 2 + y 2 ) + 2xyz = ( y + z)[x 2 + x( y + z) + ( yz)]
= xy 2 + xz 2 + yz 2 + x 2 y + x 2z + y 2z + 2xyz = ( y + z)[x( x + y) + z( x + y)]
Arranging in decreasing powers of x = ( y + z)( x + y)( y + z)

Introductory Exercise 13.1

1. Sunny Gupta scored x marks in Maths, y marks in 7. Find the coefficient of z 3 in −7 xy2z 3 .
DI/DS and 40 marks in English. What is his total score (a) xy2 (b) −7
in these three subjects? (c) 7 xy2 (d) −7 xy2
(a) 100 − (x + y) (b) 100 − (x + y + 40 )
8. In the following, which pair contains like terms?
(c) x + y − 40 (d) x + y + 40
(a) 2 x2 y,2 xy2 (b) 2xy, −3 yx
2. Quotient of z by 4 is multiplied by thrice the number y.
3y 3z (c) 6, 6x (d) 2xy, 3xyz
(a) (b)
4z 4y 9. Find the degree of the polynomial 4 x3 − 2 x2 y3 + 6.
3 yz 3 (a) 3 (b) 4
(c) (d)
4 4 yz (c) 5 (d) 6
3. Express 6 × p × q × r × p × p × p in the exponential 10. Simplify the following :
form 2 x2 + 3 y2 − 5 xy + 5 x2 − y2 + 6 xy − 3 x2
(a) 6 ( p4 + q + r ) (b) 6 × 4 p × q × r
(a) 7 x2 + 4 y2 − 11xy (b) 7 x2 + 2 y2 − 30 xy
(c) 6 p4qr (d) none of these
(c) 4 x2 + 2 y2 − 11xy (d) 4 x2 + xy + 2 y2
3 5
4. Find the number of terms in 2 x2 − + 2 + 9. 11. If sum of two polynomials is 5 x2 + 3 x − 1.If one of them
x x
(a) 1 (b) 2 is 3 x3 − 2 x + 7. Find the other.
(c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 3 x3 + 5 x2 + 5 x − 8 (b) −3 x3 + 5 x2 + 5 x − 8
5. Find the number of terms in (c) 2 x + x + 6
2
(d) none of these
3 1 2 2
4 xyz − 2 + 6 xy2 − 5 z 3 + 6 x. 12. Multiply ab− ab2 + 5 by 6abc :
x 2 3
(a) 3 (b) 4 (a) 3 a3 b2c − 4 a2b3 c + 30 abc
(c) 5 (d) 6 (b) 3 a3 b3 c − 4 a3 b2c + 6 abc
6. Find the number of terms in 7 × a + b ÷ 3 − c + b. (c) 6 a3 b2 + 18 ab2c + 30 abc
(a) 3 (b) 5 (d) none of the above
(c) 4 (d) 6
Elements of Algebra 733

1 1 2 1 1 2 24. If f (x) is divided by (2 x + 3 ), then the remainder is :

13. Find the product of  x2 − y  and  x2 + y .
2 3   2 3  (a) f (2 /3 ) (b) f (−2 /3 )
(a)
1 4 1 4
y − x
1
(b) x 4 −
1 4
y (c) f (3 /2 ) (d) f (−3 /2 )
9 4 4 9 25. When (x3 − 2 x2 + px − q) is divided by (x2 − 2 x − 3 ), the
1 1
(c) 4 x2 − 9 y 4 (d) x 4 − y 9 remainder is (x − 6 ). The values of p and q are :
4 9
(a) p = − 2,q = − 6 (b) p = 2,q = − 6
14. Divide 36 x2 y5 + 42 xy3 − 24 x3 y2 − 12 y5 by −6 y2. (c) p = − 2,q = 6 (d) p = 2,q = 6
(a) 6 x2 y3 − 7 xy + 4 x3 + 2 y3 26. If (x − 2 ) is a factor of (x2 + 3qx − 2q), then the value of
(b) −6 x y − 7 xy + 4 x + 2 y
2 3 2 2 3
q is :
(c) −6 x2 y3 − 7 xy + 4 x3 + 2 y3 (a) −2 (b) −1
(d) none of the above (c) 1 (d) 2
15. Find the remainder when the expression 27. Find the value of k, if (x + 2 ) exactly divides
3 x2 + 8 x2 − 6 x + 1 is divided by x + 3. x3 + 6 x2 + 4 x + k.
(a) 1 (b) 10 (a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 6 (d) 0 (c) −8 (d) −10
16. Find the value of a if the division of ax3 + 9 x2 + 4 x − 10
28. Which one of the following is a factor of
by (x + 3 ) leaves a remainder 5. x 4 − 5 x3 + 5 x2 − 10 x + 24 ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) (x + 2 ) (b) (x + 4 )
(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) (x − 2 ) (d) none of these
17. If (x + 1) and (x − 2 ) are factors of x3 + ax2 − bx − 6 , 29. If (x + k) is a common factor of (x2 + px + q) and
then find the values of a and b respectively. (x2 + lx + m ), then the value of k is :
(a) 2 , 3 (b) 3 , 5 l− p m −q
(c) 5 , 3 (d) 2 , 5 (a) l + p (b) m − q (c) (d)
m −q l− p
18. If (5 x2 + 14 x + 2 )2 − (4 x2 − 5 x + 7 )2 is divided by
30. If (x − a ) is a factor of (x3 − 3 x2a + 2 a2x + b), then the
(x2 + x + 1), then, quotient ‘q’ and remainder ‘ r ’ are
given by : value of b is :
(a) 0 (b) 1
(a) q = (x2 + 19 x − 5 ), r = 0
(c) 2 (d) 3
(b) q = 9 (x + 19 x − 5 ), r = 0
2
31. (x29 − x25 + x13 − 1) is divisible by :
(c) q = (x2 + 19 x − 5 ), r = 1
(d) q = 9 (x2 + 19 x − 5 ), r = 1 (a) (x + 1) but not by (x − 1)
(b) (x − 1) but not by (x + 1)
19. On dividing (x3 − 6 x + 7 ) by (x + 1), then the remainder
(b) both (x + 1) and (x − 1)
is : (d) neither (x − 1) nor (x + 1)
(a) 2 (b) 0
32. One of the factors of 3 x3 + x2 − 12 x − 4 is :
(c) 12 (d) 6
(a) 3 x − 2 (b) 3 x − 1
20. When (x 4 − 3 x3 + 2 x2 − 5 x + 7 ) is divided by (x − 2 ),
(c) 3 x + 1 (d) 3 x + 2
then the remainder is :
(a) 0 (b) –3 33. x100 + 2 x 99 + k is divisible by (x + 1), then the value
(c) 2 (d) 3 of k is :
21. If x3 + 5 x2 + 10 k leaves remainder −2x when divided by (a) −3 (b) −2
(c) 1 (d) 2
x + 2 , then the value of k is :
2

(a) −2 (b) −1 (c) 1 (d) 2 34. If (x − 1) is a factor of (x3 − m ), then the value of m is :
22. If (x11 + 1) is divided by (x + 1), then the remainder is : (a) −6 (b) −5
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 10 (c) 1 (d) 3

23. If 5 x3 + 5 x2 − 6 x + 9 is divided by (x + 3 ), then the 35. If the polynomial f (x) is such that f (−3 ) = 0 , then a

remainder is : factor of f (x) is :

(a) 0 (b) −32 (a) −3 (b) 3
(d) −63 1
(c) 23 (c) (d) x + 3
3
734 QUANTUM CAT
 1  1 48. If x + y = 13 and xy = 40,then the value of (x2 + y2 ) is :
36. If  x +  = 2, then  x2 + 2  is equal, to :
 x   x  (a) 69 (b) 80
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 89 (d) none of these
(c) 5 (d) 6
49. If (x + y) = 13 and xy = 36,then the value of (x3 + y3 ) is
 1  1
37. If  x −  = 4, then the value of  x2 + 2  is : (a) 369 (b) 936
 x  x 
(c) 693 (d) none of these
(a) 16 (b) 18
50. If (x + y) = 8 and xy = 15,then the value of (x3 − y3 ) is :
(c) 14 (d) none of these
(a) 120 (b) 60
 1  1
38. If  x +  = 2 3 , then the value of  x3 + 3  is : (c) 98 (d) 82
 x  x 
(a) 12 3 (b) 18 51. If (x + y + z ) = 6 and (xy + yz + zx) = 11, then the
(c) 18 3 (d) none of these value of (x3 + y3 + z 3 − 3 xyz ) is :
 1  1 (a) 81 (b) 54
39. If  x +  = 3, then the value of  x3 + 3  is equal to : (c) 18 (d) none of these
 x  x 
(a) 18 3 (b) 18 52. If (x + y + z ) = 0 , then the value of (x3 + y3 + z 3 ) is :
(c) 9 3 (d) 12 (a) 3 x3 y3 z 3 (b) 3xyz
 1  1 (c) xyz (d) 3(x + y + z )
40. If  x +  = 2, then the value of  x 6 + 6  is :
 x  x  53. If a1/3 + b1/3 + c1/3 = 0 , then :
(a) 2 (b) 4 (a) a + b + c = 0 (b) a + b + c = 3 abc
(c) 8 (d) none of these (c) a3 + b3 + c3 = 0 (d) (a + b + c)3 = 27 abc
 1  1 54. If 2 x − 2 x−1 = 8 , then the value of x3 is :
41. If  x2 + 2  = 6 , then the value of  x −  is :
 x   x
(a) 46 (b) 27
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 64 (d) 8
(c) −2 (d) both (a) and (c)
55. If 3 x + 3 x + 1 = 36 , then the value of x x is :
 1  1
42. If  x3 − 3  = 36 , then the value of  x −  is : (a) 64 (b) 3125
 x   x
(c) 81 (d) 4
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 6 56. If a and b are non zero rational unequal numbers, then
(a + b)2 − (a − b)2
 1  1 is equal to :
43. If  x3 + 3  = 2 , then the value of  x +  is : a2b − ab2
 x   x
1 2
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) (b)
a−b a−b
(c) 3 (d) 4
4 1
 1  1 (c) (d)
44. If  x 4 + 4  = 34 , then the value of  x −  is : a−b ab
 x   x
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 x
57. If
(b − c)(b + c − 2 a )
 1  1
45. If  x 4 + 4  = 119 , then the value of  x3 − 3  is :
 x   x  =
y
=
z
,
(a) 49 (b) 27 (c − a )(c + a − 2 b) (a − b)(a + b − 2 c)
(c) 36 (d) 63 then the value of (x + y + z ) is :
 2  4 (a) a + b + c (b) 0
46. If  3 x −  = 5 , then the value of  9 x2 − 2  is :
 x  x  (c) a2 + b2 + c2 (d) can’t be determined
(a) 25 (b) 35 58. (a 4 + 5 a3 + 6 a2 ) is equal to :
(c) 30 (d) none of these (a) a (a2 + 3 )(a + 2 ) (b) a (a + 3 )(a2 + 2 )
 1  (c) a2 (a + 3 )(a + 2 ) (d) a2 (a − 2 )(a − 3 )
47. If m2 − 4 m + 1 = 0 , then the value of  m3 + 3  is :
 m  59. The factors of (x 4 + 16 ) are :
(a) 48 (b) 52 (a) (x2 + 4 )(x2 − 4 ) (b) (x2 + 4 )(x2 + 4 )
(c) 64 (d) none of these (c) x(x2 + 2 )(x 4 + 4 ) (d) do not exist
Elements of Algebra 735

60. If (a3 /2 − ab1/2 + a1/2b − b3 /2 ) is divided by (a1/2 − b1/2 ), 72. The GCD of (x 4 − 4 x2 + 3 ) and (x 4 − x2 − 6 ) is :
then the quotient is : (a) (x − 1) (b) (x + 1) (c) (x2 − 1) (d) (x2 − 3 )
(a) a + b (b) a − b (c) a1/2 + b1/2 (d) a2 − b2
73. The HCF of (x2 − 4 ), (x2 − 5 x − 6 ) and (x2 + x − 6 ) is :
61. The factors of x( y2 − z 2 ) + y(z 2 − x2 ) + z (x2 − y2 ) are :
(a) 1 (b) x + 2 (c) x − 2 (d) (x2 + x − 6 )
(a) (x − y)( y − z )(z − x) (b) (x + y)( y + z )(z + x)
74. The GCD of [ x2 − ax − (a + 1)] and [ ax2 − x − (a + 1)] is :
(c) ( y − x)(z − y)(x − z ) (d) (x + y)(z − y)(x − z )
(a) (x − 1) (b) (x + 1)
62. (a + b)3 − (a − b)3 can be factorized as :
(c) (x + a + 1) (d) (x − a − 1)
(a) 2 a (a2 + 3 b2 ) (b) 2 a (3 a2 + b2 )
75. LCM of the polynomials P and Q, where
(c) 2 b(3 a2 + b2 ) (d) 2 a (a2 + 3 b2 )
P = (x − 2 )(x + 1)2 (x + 3 )2
63. The factors of (x 4 + 4 ) are : Q = (x + 1)2 (x + 3 )(x + 4 ) is given by :
(a) (x2 + 2 )2 (b) (x2 + 2 x + 2 )(x2 − 2 x + 2 ) (a) (x − 2 )(x + 1)(x + 3 )2 (x + 4 )
(c) (x2 + 2 )(x2 − 2 ) (d) none of these (b) (x − 2 )(x + 4 )(x + 3 )2 (x + 1)2
64. The factors of x3 − 7 x + 6 are : (c) (x − 2 )(x + 1)2 (x + 3 )(x + 4 )
(d) (x + 1)(x − 2 )(x + 3 )(x + 4 )
(a) (x − 1)(x + 3 )(x − 2 ) (b) (x + 1)(x + 2 )(x − 3 )
(c) x(x − 6 )(x − 1) (d) (x2 − 6 )(x − 1) 76. The LCM of (a3 + b3 ) and (a 4 − b4 ) is :

65. The factors of (64 x3 − 216 y3 ) are : (a) (a3 + b3 ) (a2 + b2 ) (a − b)

(b) (a3 + b3 ) (a2 + b2 ) (a + b)
(a) (4 x − 6 y)(16 x2 − 36 y2 )
(c) (a3 + b3 ) (a2 + b2 + ab) (a + b)
(b) (4 x − 6 y)[16 x2 + 36 y2 + 24 xy]
(d) (a3 + b3 ) (a2 − b2 ) (a − b)
(c) (4 x + 6 y)(4 x − 6 y)
(d) none of the above 77. The HCF of (x 4 − 1) and (x3 + x2 + x + 1) is :

66. The factors of (a2 + 4 b2 + 4 b − 4 ab − 2 a − 8 ) are : (a) (x2 − 1)(x2 + 1) (b) (x2 + 1)(x + 1)
(c) (x + 1)(x2 − 1) (d) (x + 1)(x2 + 1)(x3 + 1)
(a) (a − 2 b − 4 )(a − 2 b + 2 )
(b) (a − b + 2 )(a − 4 b − 4 ) 78. The GCD of (2 x2 − 4 x), (3 x 4 − 12 x2 ) and
(c) (a + 2 b − 4 )(a + 2 b + 2 ) (2 x5 − 2 x 4 − 4 x3 ) is :
(d) none of the above (a) x(x − 2 ) (b) 2 x(x − 2 ) (c) 2 x(2 − x) (d) 2 x(2 + x)
67. The factors of (a − b)3 + (b − c)3 + (c − a )3 are : 79. The HCF of two expressions P and Q is 1. Their LCM is :
(a) (a + b + c)(a + b + c + ab + bc + ac)
2 2 2 (a) (P + Q) (b) (P − Q)
(b) (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 − ab − bc − ac) (c) PQ (d) (P )Q
(c) 3(a − b)(b − c)(c − a ) 80. The LCM of (x + 2 )2 (x − 2 ) and (x2 − 4 x − 12 ) is :
(d) (a − b)(b − c)(c − a ) (a) (x + 2 )(x − 2 )2 (b) (x − 2 )(x + 2 )(x − 6 )
68. If a + b + c = 0, then a + b + c is :
2 2 2
(c) (x − 2 )(x + 2 ) (d) (x − 2 )(x − 6 )(x + 2 )2
(a) 0 (b) 2 (a2 − bc) 81. The HCF of a2 − ab − 2 b2 and 2 a2 − ab − b2 is :
(c) −4(ab + bc + ca ) (d) −2(ab + bc + ca ) (a) (a + b) (b) (a − b)
69. Which of the following statements are true? (c) (2 a − 3 b) (d) none of these
1. LCM of 10 a2bc,15abc,20 ab2c2 is 120 a2b2c2 82. HCF and LCM of a2b3 c4 and a5b4 c3 are :
2. HCF of (x2 − 6 x + 9 ) and (x3 − 27 ) is (x − 3 ) (a) a2b3 c4 , a5b4 c3 (b) a2b3 c3 , a2b3 c4
3. HCF of (6 x2 − 7 x − 3 ) and (2 x2 + 11x − 21) is 2 x − 3. 2 3 3 5 4 4
(c) a b c , a b c (d) a5b3 c3 , a5b4 c3
(a) 1, 2 , 3 (b) 1, 2 (c) 1, 3 (d) 2 , 3
Directions (for Q. Nos. 83 to 86) Express each of the
70. The LCM of (2 x2 − 3 x − 2 ) and (x3 − 4 x2 + 4 x) is : following as a rational expressions.
(a) x(2 x2 + 1)(x2 + 2 ) (b) x(2 x + 1)(x − 2 )2 (x + 3 ) (x + 1)
83. − :
(c) x(2 x2 + 1)(x − 1)2 (d) x(2 x + 1)(x2 − 1) (x − 2 ) (x − 3 )
71. The GCD of 2 (x2 − y2 ) and 5 (x3 − y3 ) is : x−7 7−x
(a) (b)
(x + 5 x − 6 )
2
(x − 5 x + 6 )
2
(a) 2 (x2 − y2 ) (b) x + y
(c) x − y (d) 10 (x2 − y2 )(x2 + y2 + xy) x−7 x−7
(c) (d)
2x − 5x + 6
2
x − 5x + 6
2
736 QUANTUM CAT
x+1 x −1  2 x2 + 1 x − 1  x2 − 1
84. + : 88.  +  ×  :
x −1 x+1  x −1 x + 1  2 x 
1 (x + 1) (x2 + 1) 2 (x2 + 1) x2 − 1
2
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2 x2 + 3 x 2 x3 + 3 x2 − x + 2
2 (x2 − 1) (x2 − 1) (x2 − 1) x2 + 1 (a) (b)
2 2x
x − 5x + 6
2
x − 3x + 2
2 2 x − 3 x2 + x − 2
3

85. ÷ : (c) (d) none of these

x − 9 x + 20
2
x2 − 5 x + 4 2x
(x − 4 ) (x − 3 ) (x2 + 3 x + 2 )(x2 + 5 x + 6 )
(a) (b) 89. :
(x − 3 ) (x − 5 ) x2 (x2 + 4 x + 3 )
(x − 2 ) (x − 5 ) x+2 x+2
(c) (d) (a) (b)
(x − 5 ) (x − 3 ) 2 x
x−2 x+ 4
2 x2 + 3 (c) (d)
86. Sum of and its reciprocal is : x x+ 3
x−3
1 1 1
4 x 4 + 13 x2 − 6 x + 18 4 x 4 − 13 x2 + 6 x − 18 90. Simplify + +
(a) (b) (a − b)(a − c) (b − c)(b − a ) (c − a )(c − b)
2x − 6x + 3x − 9
3 2
3x − 6x + 3x + 9
2 3

(a) 0 (b) 1
4 x − 13 x − 6 x + 18
4 2
(c) (d) none of these (c) 3 (d) none of these
4 x3 − 6 x2 + 3 x − 9
1 1 2 4
91. Express + + + as a
Directions (for Q. Nos. 87 to 89) Express the following in the (1 − x) (1 + x) (1 + x2 ) (1 + x 4 )
lowest terms. rational expression :
(x − 3 )(x − 5 x + 4 )
2 1 − x4
87. : (a) 1 (b)
(x − 4 )(x2 − 2 x − 3 ) 1 + x4
x −1 x+1 x −1 x+1 (c)
8
(d) none of these
(a) (b) (c) (d)
x+1 x −1 x−2 x+ 3 1 − x8

13.10 Linear Equations

Equations : A statement of equality which involves literal ˜ The value of the variables that satisfy the equation is
number(s) is called an equation. called the solution (or solution set) of the equation.
e.g., 4x = 12, 4 + x = 10, 7 − 2x = 5 etc. An equation can be solved by using the following rules :
NOTE The literal numbers involved in each equation are called its (i) The same number may be added to both sides of the
variables (unknowns). Usually the variables are denoted by letters equation.
towards the end of English alphabet, e.g., x, y, z, u, v, w, etc. (ii) The same number may be subtracted from both sides
Linear Equation : An equation in which the highest of the equation.
power of the variables involved is one, is called a linear (iii) Both sides of the equation may be multiplied by same
x non zero number.
equation. e.g., x + y =10, 7x = 21, = 8.
3 (iv) Both sides of the equation may be divided by same
Linear Equation in one Variable : An equation non-zero number.
containing only one variable (literal) with highest power 1 is (v) A term may be transposed from one side of the
called a linear equation in one variable. e.g., 17x = 51, equation to the other side, but its sign will change.
23 + x = 30, 5 y = 30, etc. This is called rule of transposition.
Linear Equation in two Variables : An equation of the Important Points About Linear Equation in
form ax + by = c, where a, b and c are real numbers is called a Two Variables:
linear equation in two variables x and y. (i) The graph of an equation of the type x = k (where k is a
The graph of a linear equation ax + by = c is a straight line. constant) is a straight line parallel to the y-axis at a
3x + 2 y = 18, is an example of a linear equation in two distance of k units from the y-axis.
variables.
Elements of Algebra 737

(ii) The graph of an equation of the type y = k (where k is a ˜ The equation of the type ax + by = c and kax + kby = lc are
constant) is a straight line parallel to the x-axis at a known as inconsistent equations.
distance of k units from the x-axis. e.g., 3x + 2 y = 8 …(i)
(iii) The point of intersection of the two lines gives the and 6x + 4 y = 6 …(ii)
solution of the two equations.
Properties of graphs of a1 x + b1 y = c1 and a 2 x + b2 y = c 2
(iv) A single linear equation in two variables has infinite
(i) intersecting if the system has a unique solution.
no. of solutions.
(ii) coincident if the system has infinite number of
solution
13.11 Simultaneous Linear (iii) parallel if the system has no solution.
Equations Graphical Representation of Simultaneous
Two or more linear equations in two variables form a system Linear Equations
of linear simultaneous equations.
(i) intersecting lines (unique solution)
e.g., a1 x + b1 y = c1 and a 2 x + b2 y = c2
e.g., x + y=4 …(i)
Consistent System : A system consisting of two
and 3x + 2 y = 11 …(ii)
simultaneous linear equations is said to be consistent, if it has
at least one solution. ∴ 3( x + y) = 3 × 4 ⇒ 3x + 3 y = 12
Inconsistent System : A system consisting of two ∴ 3x + 3 y = 12
simultaneous linear equations is said to be inconsistent, if it 3x + 2 y = 11
has no solution. If there are two simultaneous equations : – – –
y =1
a1 x + b1 y = c1 and a 2 x + b2 y = c2 , then
∴ x + y = 4 ⇒ x +1 = 4 ⇒ x = 3
∴ x = 3 and y =1
Unique solution Infinite solution No solution Thus, two given lines intersect at x = 3, y =1.
a 1 b1 a1 b1 c1 a1 b1 c1
≠ = = = ≠
a2 b2 a2 b2 c2 a2 b2 c2
(Independent (Dependent (Inconsistent 4
equation) equation) equation) 3 (3, 1)
2
1 4
˜ The homogeneous system has a non-zero solution only
–4 –3 –2 –1 –1 1 2 3 5 6
a b
when 1 = 1 and in this case, the system has an infinite –2 (x + y = 4)
a 2 b2
(3x + 2y = 11)
number of solution.
(ii) Coincident lines (infinite number of solutions)
˜ A system of equations has unique solution, when only one
variable satisfies the equation. e.g., x + y=4 …(i)
˜ For a system of equations a unique solution is possible 2x + 2 y = 8 …(ii)
only when the number of variables is equal to or less than The two equations are dependent, therefore the graph
number of independent and consistent equations. of two lines will coincide.
e.g., 2x + 3 y = 5 and 7x + 5 y = 20 5
and 2x + 3 y = 5, 7x + 5 y = 12, 5x + 8 y = 13 (0, 4) 4
x+y=4
3
˜ The equation of the type ax + by = c and kax + kby = kc are 2
and 2x + 2y = 8

known as dependent equations. 1

1 2 3 4 5
e.g., 2x + y = 11 …(i) (4, 0)
6x + 3 y = 33 …(ii)
˜ Here eq. (ii) is the multiple of eq. (i). Thus, there are (iii) Parallel lines (no solution)
basically both the equations same, i.e., eq. (ii) is dependent e.g., x + y=4 …(i)
on eq. (i). In this case there are infinite number of solutions.
738 QUANTUM CAT
2x + 2 y = 12 …(ii) Substitute x = − 7 in eq. (i)
Since, the system of equations is inconsistent therefore there 3( −7) + 5 y = 9
is no any solution and in this case we obtain two different ⇒ −21 + 5 y = 9
⇒ y=6
parallel lines.
∴ x = −7 and y=6
6 (0, 6)
NOTE We can eliminate x by multiplying (i) by 2 and (ii) by 3 and
5 then subtract the resulting equations.
4 (0, 4)
(c) 3x + 5y = 9 …(i)
3
2x + 3 y = 4 …(ii)
2
9 − 5y
1 (4, 0) (6, 0) From eq. (i) x= …(iii)
3
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 4 − 3y
2x + 2y = 12 and from eq. (ii) x= …(iv)
2
Comparing eq. (iii) and (iv)
(x + y = 4)
9 − 5y 4 − 3y
=
3 2
13.12 Algebraic Methods of Solving ⇒ 2( 9 − 5 y) = 3( 4 − 3 y) ⇒18 − 10y = 12 − 9y
Simultaneous Equations in ⇒ y=6 …(v)
Two Variables Substitute the value of y in eq. (iii)
9 − 5( 6) −21
x= = = −7
Substitution method 3 3
Elimination Comparison method ∴ x = − 7 and y = 6
method NOTE We can compare the value of y in terms of x.
Elimination method or Addition or
Subtraction of Equations Exp. 2) Solve the equations 3x + 5y = 9 and 2x + 3y = 4
Cross multiplication method (Cramer’s rule) by cross multiplication method.
Exp. 1) Solve the following equations 3x + 5y = 9 and Solution If there are two simultaneous equations
a1 x + b1 y = c1 and a2 x + b2 y = c2 , where c2 ≠ 0,
2x + 3y = 4
x y −1
(a) by substitution method (b) by elimination method Then = =
(c) by comparison method b1 c2 − b2 c1 c1 a2 − c2 a1 a1 b2 − a2 b1
 x y −1 
Solution (a) 3x + 5y = 9 …(i) b = =
c c a a b1 
2x + 3 y = 4 …(ii) 1 1 1 1 1

b2 c2 c2 a2 a2 b2
Express y in terms of x from eq. (i)
9 − 3x Here, a1 = 3 b1 = 5 c1 = 9
y= …(iii)
5 a2 = 2 b2 = 3 c2 = 4
Substitute this value of y in eq. (ii) x y −1 x y
∴ = = ⇒ = =1
 9 − 3x ( 20 − 27) (18 − 12) ( 9 − 10) −7 6
2x + 3   =4
 5  ⇒ x = −7 and y = 6.
⇒ 10x + 27 − 9x = 20 ⇒ x = − 7
Substitute x = − 7 in eq. (iii) Exp. 3) Find the correct choice.
(A) 5 x + 2y = 16
∴ x = − 7, y = 6.  (P) no solution
7 x − 4y = 2 
NOTE We can express x in terms of y for one equation and
(B) 5 x + 2y = 16
substitute this value in other. 
3x + 5y = 9 6  (Q) unique solution
(b) …(i) 3 x + y = 2
2x + 3 y = 4 …(ii) 5 
(C) 5x + 2y = 16 
Multiply eq. (i) by 3 and (ii) by 5. 
9x + 15 y = 27 15  (R) infinite number of solution
…(iii) x + 3y = 24
10x + 15 y = 20 …(iv) 2 
− − − (a) A − P , B − Q , C − R (b) A − R , B − P , C − Q
− x + 0=7 (c) A − Q , B − P , C − R (d) A − Q , B − R , C − P
⇒ x = −7
Elements of Algebra 739

Solution 3x y 1
and − = ⇒ 3 x − 2y = 4 …(ii)
5 2 8 4 2
(A) ≠ .
7 −4 Subtract eq. (ii) from (i)
∴ The system of equations has unique solution. 3 x − 11y = − 5
(B)
5
=
2 16
≠ . 3 x − 2y = 4
3 6 /5 2 – + –
5 5 8 − 9y = − 9 ⇒ y = 1
⇒ = ≠ Substitute y = 1 in eq. (i), we get
3 3 1
∴ The system of equations has no solution. x = 2 ∴ x = 2 and y = 1
5 2 16 2 2 2 2 3 8 6
(C) = = ⇒ = = Exp. 7) Solve for x and y + = 2, − =2
15 / 2 3 24 3 3 3 x y x y
2 3
∴The system of equations has infinite number of solution. Solution + =2 …(i)
x y
Exp. 4) Solve for x and y 8 6
− =2 …(ii)
x y
4( x − 3 ) = 3( y + 3)
17 − 2x = 8 − ( 2y + 1) 1 1
Let = A and =B
Solution 4( x − 3) = 3( y + 3) x y

⇒ 4x − 3 y = 21 …(i) ∴ 2A + 3 B = 2 …(iii)
and 17 − 2x = 8 − ( 2y + 1) and 8A − 6B = 2 …(iv)
⇒ x − y =5 …(ii) Multiply eq. (iii) by 2
Multiply eq. (ii) by 3 and subtract froms eq. 4A + 6B = 4 ⇒ 8A − 6B = 2
4x − 3 y = 21 12A = 6 ⇒ A = 1/ 2
1
3 x − 3 y = 15 Substitute A = in eq. (i), we get
2
– + –
1
x=6 B=
3
Substitute x = 6 in eq. (ii), we get y = 1
∴ x = 2 and y = 3.
∴ x = 6 and y = 1.
2 3 17
Exp. 8) Solve for x and y + =
Exp. 5) Solve for x and y 3x + 2y 3x − 2y 5
0.04x + 0.02y = 5 5
+
1
=2
0.5 ( x − 2) − 0.4y = 29 3 x + 2y 3 x − 2y
Solution 0.04x + 0.02y = 5 1 1
Solution Let = A and =B
⇒ 4x + 2y = 500 (multiply both sides by 100) 3 x + 2y 3 x − 2y
⇒ 2x + y = 250 …(i) 17
∴ 2A + 3 B = ⇒ 10A + 15 B = 17 …(i)
and 0.5 ( x − 2) − 0.4y = 29 5
⇒ 5( x − 2) − 4y = 290 (multiply both sides by 10) and 5A + B = 2 …(ii)
⇒ 5 x − 4y = 300 …(ii) Multiply eq. (ii) by 2 and subtract from eq. (i)
Multiply eq. (i) by 4 and add to eq. (ii) 10A + 15 B = 17
8x + 4y = 1000 10A + 2B = 4
– – –
5 x − 4y = 300
13 B = 13 ⇒ B = 1
13 x = 1300 1
⇒ x = 100 Substitute B = 1 in eq. (ii), we get A =
5
Substitute x = 100, in eq. (i), we get 1 1
Now, A= = ⇒ 3 x + 2y = 5 …(iii)
y = 50 3 x + 2y 5
∴ x = 100 and y = 50. 1
and B= = 1 ⇒ 3 x − 2y = 1 …(iv)
Exp. 6) Solve for x and y 3 x − 2y
3x − y 3x y 1 ∴ Add eq. (iii) to eq. (iv) 3 x + 2y = 5
= 2y − 1, − = 3 x − 2y = 1 ⇒ 6x = 6 ⇒ x = 1
5 8 4 2
Substitute x = 1 in eq. (iii), we get y = 1
Solution 3 x − y = 5( 2y − 1)
∴ x = 1 and y = 1.
⇒ 3 x − 11y = − 5 …(i)
740 QUANTUM CAT
Introductory Exercise 13.2
Directions (for Q. Nos. 1 to 4) Solve the following system 12. Priyanka has only 25 paise coins and 50 paise coins in
of equations her purse. If in all she has 40 coins totalling `12.75,
11 how many coins of 25 paise does she have?
1. x − y = 0.9, =1: (a) 30 (b) 29 (c) 32 (d) 26
2 (x + y)
(a) 3.2, 3.5 (b) 3.2, 2.3 (c) 2.3, 2.5 (d) 4, 3.1 13. Astha has pens and pencils which together are 40 in
x+ y x− y number. If she has 5 more pencils and 5 less pens, the
2. = 2, = 6: number of pencils would have become 4 times the
xy xy
number of pens. Find the original number of pens with
1 1 1 1 1 3 1 3
(a) − , (b) , − (c) ,− (d) − ,− Astha.
2 4 2 4 2 2 4 4
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14
1 1 1 1
3. − = − 1, + = 8: 14. A father is three times as old as his son. After twelve
2x y x 2y
years, his age will be twice as that of the age of his son,
2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) , (b) , (c) , (d) − ,− then find their present ages.
3 5 4 5 6 4 6 4
(a) 10 y, 30 y (b) 12 y, 36 y
2x y x y
4. + = 2, − = 4 : (c) 6 y, 36 y (d) 124 y, 24 y
a b a b
2 2 a b 15. Five years ago, A was three times as old as B and ten
(a) , (b) 2 a , − 2 b (c) −2 a , 2 b (d) ,− years later, A shell be twice as old as B. What are the
a b 2 2
present ages of A and B (in years)?
5. For what value of k, the following equations have no
(a) 45, 15 (b) 30, 40 (c) 50, 30 (d) 50, 20
solutions?
9x + 4y = 9; 7 x + ky = 5 16. Astha and Saumya each have certain number of
(a) 3 (b) 4.7 (c) 28/9 (d) 9/28 oranges. Astha says to Saumya, “If you give me 10 of
your oranges, I will have twice the number of oranges
6. For what value of k, the system of equations
left with you. “Saumya replies, “If you give me 10 of
kx + 2 y = 2 and 3 x + y = 1 will be coincident?
your oranges, I will have the same number of oranges
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6
as left with you.” Find the number of oranges with
7. For what value of k, will the equations 2 x + 3 y − 5 = 0, Astha and Saumya respectively.
6 x + ky − 15 = 0 have an infinite number of solutions? (a) 60, 40 (b) 70, 50 (c) 60, 80 (d) 70, 90
(a) 0 (b) 9 (c) 2 (d) 3 17. Shubham travels 760 km to his home partly by train
8. The total cost of 8 buckets and 5 mugs is `92 and the and partly by car. He takes 8 hours if he travels
total cost of 5 buckets and 8 mugs is `77. Find the 160 km by train and the rest by car. He takes 12
cost of 2 mugs and 3 buckets. minutes more if he travels 240 km by train and the rest
(a) ` 35 (b) ` 70 (c) ` 30 (d) ` 38 by car. Find the speed of the train and the car
9. The sum of two numbers is 8. If their sum is four times respectively (in km/hr.).
their difference, find the numbers. (a) 40, 80 (b) 60, 120 (c) 80, 100 (d) 100, 120
(a) 6 , 2 (b) 7 , 1 (c) 5 , 3 (d) 6 , 3 18. A person invested some amount at the rate of 12%
10. The numerator of a fraction is 4 less than its simple interest and some other amount at the rate of
denominator. If the numerator is decreased by 2 and 10% simple interest. He received yearly interest of
the denominator is increased by 1, then the `130. But if he had interchanged the amounts
denominator is eight times the numerator. Find the invested he would have received ` 4 more as interest.
fraction. How much amount did he invest at 10% simple
(a) 3/7 (b) 4/8 (c) 2/7 (d) 3/8 interest?
(a) ` 700 (b) ` 500 (c) ` 800 (d) ` 400
11. Points A and B are 90 km apart from each other on a
highway. A car starts from A and another from B at the 19. The solution of the equations
3x − y + 1 2x + y + 2 3x + 2y + 1
same time. If they go in the same direction, they meet = = given by :
3 5 6
in 9 hours and if they go in opposite directions, they
(a) x = 2, y = 1 (b) x = 1, y = 1
meet in 9/7 hours. Find their speed (in km/h).
(c) x = − 1, y = − 1 (d) x = 1, y = 2
(a), 25, 45 (b) 20, 50 (c) 30, 40 (d) 35, 65
Elements of Algebra 741

20. The course of an enemy submarine as plotted on a set x2 y2 z2

− + + = 1, has
of rectangular axes gives the equation 2 x + 3 y = 5. On a2 b2 c2
the same axes, the course of destroyer is indicated by (a) no solution
x − y = 10. The point (x, y) at which the submarine can (b) unique solution
be destroyed is : (c) infinitely many solutions
(a) (−3 , 7 ) (b) (7 , − 3 ) (c) (−7 , 3 ) (d) (3 , − 7 ) (d) finitely many solutions
21. Let a , b, c be the positive numbers. The following 22. If the system of equations, x − ky − z = 0,
system of equations in x, y and z. kx − y − z = 0, x + y + z = 0, has a non zero solution,
then the possible values of k are :
x2 y2 z 2 x2 y2 z2
2
+ 2 − 2 = 1; 2 − 2 + 2 = 1 (a) −1, 2 (b) 1, 2 (c) 0 , 1 (d) −1, 1
a b c a b c

CAT-Test
Questions Helping you bell the CAT

LEVEL 01 > BASIC LEVEL EXERCISE

1. If a + b + c = 13, what is the maximum value of 7. If x and y are both positive, then the minimum value of
(a − 3)(b − 2)(c + 1)?  1 1
( x + y )  +  is :
(a) 26 (b) 27 x y
(c) 30 (d) 19
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
2. If abcd = 81, what is the minimum value of a + b + c + d?
8. If a, b, c and d are four positive numbers such that
(a) 18 (b) 9
a + b + c + d = 4, then what is the maximum value of
(c) 12 (d) 36
(a + 1)(b + 1)(c + 1)(d + 1)?
3. Which one of the following is correct? (a) 32 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 81
1 1
(a) x + ≤ − 2 (b) x + = 0 9. If x, y and z are three distinct positive real numbers such
x x
1 that x + y + z = 1, then the value of
(c) x + ≥ 2 (d) both (a) and (c)
x  1 − 1  1 − 1  1 − 1 is :
 
x  y  z 
4. If a, b and c are all distinct positive numbers, then
(a + b)(b + c)(c + a) : (a) 16 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 1
(a) less than 4 (b) less than 4abc 10. If x, y and z are real numbers such that x + y + z = 4 and
(c) greater than 8abc (d) greater than (abc)3 x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 6, then x, y, z lie in :

(a)  , 2 (b)  , 2
5. If a, b and c are the distinct positive numbers, then 3 2
(a + b + c)(ab + bc + ac) is :  2   3 

(c) 0, 
(a) greater than 9abc (b) less than 8abc 2
(d) none of these
(c) equal to 10abc (d) greater than 25abc  3
6. If x + y = 25 and x 2 y 3 + y 2 x 3 = 25, what is the value  1 1
11. If x = 7 + 4 3 and xy = 1, then the value of  2 + 2  is
of xy? x y 
(a) 0 (b) ± 1 7+4 3
(a) 194 (b) 57 (c) 85 3 (d)
(c) 5 (d) 4 7−4 3
742 QUANTUM CAT
12. If a, b and c are positive real numbers, the least value of x y z
22. If = = , then xy + yz + zx is equal to :
a b c
(a + b + c)  + +  is :
1 1 1
 a b c (a + b + c)2
(a) 2
x + y 2 + z2
(a) 1 (b) 9
(c) 12 (d) none of these x 2 (a + b + c)2 − a2 ( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 )
(b)
13. If a > 0, b > 0 and ab = 1, then the least value of the 2a2
ax + by + cz
expression (1 + a)(1 + b) is : (c)
(a + b + c)2
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 1 (d) 1/4 (d) none of the above
23. In the farm-house of Bhuwan Kisan, there were total
14. If a, b, c are all positive and not equal, then the value of
(a + b + c)(ab + bc + ca) 14 deer and ducks. One day a thief entered secretely in the
is : farm- house and after killing all the deer and ducks he took
abc
(a) less than 9 (b) greater than 9 away all the stuff except their legs. When Bhuwan noticed
(c) less than or equal to 9 (d) can’t be determined it he has found there 38 legs of deer and ducks. The
number of deer in the farm house was :
15. If a, b, c are all positive, then the minimum value of the
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10
(a2 + a + 1)(b2 + b + 1)(c2 + c + 1)
expression is : 24. In an autofair at Pragati Maidan, New Delhi, there are
abc
600 vehicles consisting of only two wheelers and four
(a) 3 (b) 9 wheelers. A world renowned tyre agency visits the fair to
(c) 27 (d) 1 survey the tyre market which finds that there are total 2000
16. If 1 ≤ x ≤ 3 and 2 ≤ y ≤ 4, what is the maximum value of tyres are fixed in all the 600 vehicles, but without any
 x stepney (or spare tyre). The number of two wheelers in the
 ?
 y autofair is :
2 (a) 300 (b) 400 (c) 180 (d) 200
(a) (b) 4
3 25. In the battle of Mahabharat Veer Arjun destroyed all the
3 125 raths (horse-carts). Out of which few were driven by
(c) (d) 2
2 3 horses each and rest were driven by 5 horses each. Thus,
1 1 1 he captured 125 damaged raths along with 575 horses. The
17. If a + b + c = 3, a2 + b2 + c2 = 6 and + + = 1 where
a b c raths which were driven by 5 horses belonged to the
a, b, c are all non-zero, then abc is : Kaurav and the raths which were driven by 3 horses
1 2 belonged to the allied army of Kaurav. It is known that no
(a) (b)
3 3 any horse was injured in the battle. The number of raths
3 originally belonged to the Kaurav (not to their allied army)
(c) (d) 1
2 is :
1 1 1 (a) 60 (b) 25 (c) 75 (d) 100
18. 2x = 4 y = 8z and xyz = 288, then value of + +
2x 4 y 8z 26. In an electric appliances shop there were some fans and
is : coolers containing 3 blades and 4 blades each respectively
11 11 along with a motor each. The cost of a fan is ` 1200 and
(a) (b) that of cooler is ` 3000. One day due to short circuit the
12 96
29 shop caught the fire. After extinguishing the fire,
(c) (d) none of these
96 shopkeeper has estimated that 90 sets of motor bodies and
320 blades were burned and then nothing was left useful in
19. If ax = b, b y = c, cz = a, then the value of xyz is :
his shop. What is the loss incurred from the coolers alone?
(a) 3 (b) 0
(a) ` 1,50,000 (b) ` 12,000
(c) 1 (d) can’t be determined
(c) ` 4800 (d) can’t be determined
20. Let x, y ∈ N and 7 x + 12y = 220. The number of solutions 27. In the air talent show in the eve of independence day
is : 90 aircraft (only Sukhoi and Mig-21) participated. It is
(a) 1 (b) 2 known that for every one hour flight a Sukhoi and a Mig-21
(c) 3 (d) infinitely many
consume 2 litres and 3 litres of fuel respectively. The price
21. If ax = ( x + y + z )y , a y = ( x + y + z )z , az = ( x + y + z )x , of fuel for Sukhoi is $ 10 per litre and price for the fuel of
then : Mig-21 is $ 15 per litre. Thus, all the aircrafts accounted
(a) 3 ( x + y + z ) = a (b) 2a = x + y + z $ 3050 for the fuel in one hour show. The number of
a Sukhoi planes is :
(c) x + y + z = 0 (d) x = y = z =
3 (a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) 50
Elements of Algebra 743

Directions (for Q. Nos. 28 to 30) In the fruit market adjacent to per cent between mangoes and apples. What is his overall
IIM Lucknow, a fruit vendor has total 20 kg of fruits containing only profit per cent for the rest of the fruits? (Data can be used
mangoes and apples. The vendor told to Ritika, an 11M student, from the previous question if necessary)
that one kg apple contains only 7 apples while 1 kg of mangoes (a) 29.48% (b) 5.92%
contains 10 mangoes and it is known that all the mangoes and (c) no any profit (d) can’t be determined
apples are uniform in size individually. The vendor has initially 31. One day my assistant Rajesh went to a stationary shop to
176, pieces of apples and mangoes, in all. Ritika purchased 55 fruits purchase marker pens. He purchased the pens for ` 52 and
to distribute equally among the group of 11 students, irrespective of he gave a ` 100 note to the shopkeeper. The shopkeeper
the kind of fruit i.e., mango or apple, and then the vendor is left with offered Rajesh to take back ` 48 in the denominations of
only 13 kg of fruits. only ` 1, ` 2 and ` 5.
So, Rajesh received total 26 coins from the shopkeeper.
28. The number of apples remaining with the vendor when
Minimum number of ` 1 coins which Rajesh has with him if
Ritika has purchased 7 kg of fruits, is :
he has at least one coin of each denomination offered by
(a) 21 (b) 35
the shopkeeper :
(c) 80 (d) none of these
(a) 4 (b) 5
29. If the selling price of mangoes and apples be ` 35 per kg
(c) 7 (d) 10
and ` 40 per kg respectively, then how many rupees Ritika
32. What is the solutions of the following simultaneous
has spent for the 7 kg of fruits?
(a) ` 262.5 (b) ` 255 (c) ` 270 (d) ` 155 equations?
x + y + z = 6, x + 2y + 3z = 14, x + 3y + z = 10
30. If the vendor has received 16.66% profit in selling of
(a) x = 1, y = 2, z = 4 (b) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
mangoes and 33.33% profit in the selling of apples to
Ritika, but for the rest of the selling he exchanges the profit (c) x = 2, y = 1, z = 3 (d) none of these

Answers
Introductory Exercise 13.1
1 (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (d)
81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (d) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (a)
91. (c)

Introductory Exercise 13.2

1 (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (d)

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise

1 (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (b)
744 QUANTUM CAT
Hints & Solutions
Introductory Exercise 13.1
1. Total score = x + y + 40 36 x 2 y 5 + 42xy 3 − 24 x 3 y 2 − 12y 5
14.
z z 3yz −6 y 2
2. Quotient = ∴ 3y × =
4 4 4 36 x 2 y 5 42xy 3 24 x 3 y 2 12y 5
= + − −
3. 6 × p × q × r × p × p × p = 6 × p × p × p × p × q × r −6 y 2 −6 y 2 −6 y 2 −6 y 2
= 6 × p4 × q × r = 6 p4qr = − 6 x 2 y 3 − 7 xy + 4 x 3 + 2y 3

4. (i) 2x 2 (ii) −
3
(iii)
5
(iv) 9 15. Since, divisor is x + 3
x x2
∴ x + 3= 0→ x = − 3
3
5. (i) 4 xyz (ii) − 2 (iii) 6 xy 2 (iv) −5z 3 (v) 6 x ∴put x = − 3 in the expression
x
3x 3 + 8 x 2 − 6 x + 1 = 3(−3)3 + 8(−3)2 − 6(−3) + 1
b
6. 7 × a + b ÷ 3 − c + b = 7 a + − c + b = − 81 + 72 + 18 + 1 = 10
3
b 16. Put x = − 3 in the given expression
∴ (i) 7 a (ii) (iii) −c (iv) b
3 ax 3 + 9 x 2 + 4 x − 10
−7 xy z2 3
7. = − 7 xy 2 Q a(−3)3 + 9(−3)2 + 4(−3) − 10 = 5
z3
∴ −27 a + 81 − 12 − 10 = 5
9. 4 x 3 → degree 3
⇒ −27 a = − 54 ⇒ a = 2
2x 2 y 3 → degree (2 + 3) = 5
17. Put x = − 1, then
6 x 0 y 0 → degree 0
(−1)3 + a(−1)2 − b(−1) − 6 = 0
∴ The degree of whole expression is 5
or −1 + a + b − 6 = 0
10. 2x 2 + 3y 2 − 5xy + 5x 2 − y 2 + 6 xy − 3x 2
or a+ b−7 = 0 …(i)
= 2x 2 − 3x 2 + 5x 2 + 3y 2 − y 2 − 5xy + 6 xy and put x = 2 , then
= 4 x 2 + 2y 2 + xy (2)3 + a(2)2 − b(2) − 6 = 0
11. (5x 2 + 3x − 1) − (3x 3 − 2x + 7 ) ⇒ 8 + 4a − 2b − 6 = 0
or 5x + 3x − 1
2 ⇒ 4a − 2b + 2 = 0 …(ii)
(In subtraction we By solving eqs. (i) and (ii)
3x − 2x + 7
3
– + – change the sign) a+ b−7 = 0 ⇒ a+ b=7
−3 x 3 + 5 x 2 + 5 x − 8 and 4a − 2b + 2 = 0 ⇒ 2a − b = − 1
1 2 2  ∴ 3a = 6 ⇒ a = 2
12.  a2b − ab + 5 × (6abc)
2 3  Substituting a = 2 in eq. (i), we get b = 5
1 2 2 ∴ a = 2 and b = 5
= a b × 6abc − ab2 × 6abc + 5 × 6abc
2 3
18. Q A 2 − B 2 = ( A + B )⋅ ( A − B )
= 3a3b2c − 4a2b3c + 30abc
∴ (5x 2 + 14 x + 2)2 − (4 x 2 − 5x + 7 )2
1 1  1 1 
13.  x 2 − y 2 ×  x 2 + y 2 = (5x 2 + 14 x + 2 + 4 x 2 − 5x + 7 )
2 3  2 3 
1 2  1 2 1 2 1 2  1 2 1 2 × (5x 2 + 14 x + 2 − 4 x 2 + 5x − 7 )
= x  x + y  − y  x + y 
2 2 3  3 2 3  = 9( x 2 + 19 x − 5)( x 2 + x + 1)
1 1 1 1  1 1 1 1 (5x 2 + 14 x + 2)2 − (4 x 2 − 5x + 7 )2
=  x 2 × x 2 + x 2 × y 2 − y 2 × x 2 − y 2 × y 2 ∴ = 9 ( x 2 + 19 x − 5)
2 2 2 3  3 2 3 3 ( x 2 + x + 1)
1 4 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 4 1 4 1 4
= x + x y − x y − y = x − y ∴ q = 9 ( x 2 + 19 x − 5) and r = 0.
4 6 6 9 4 9
Elements of Algebra 745

19. Putting x = − 1 in the given polynomial, we get 28. The best way is check by options. Let us consider choice
(−1)3 − 6(−1) + 7 = − 1 + 6 + 7 = 12 (∴ x + 1 = 0) (c). ( x − 2) is a factor of the given expression, then at x = 2
the given expression must be zero.
20. Putting x = 2, we get (Q x − 2 = 0)
∴ (2)4 − 5(2)3 + 5(2)2 − 10(2) + 24 = 0
(2) − 3(2) + 2(2) − 5(2) + 7
4 3 2
Hence, ( x − 2) is the factor of x 4 − 5x 3 + 5x 2 − 10 x + 24.
= 16 − 24 + 8 − 10 + 7 = − 3
29. Since, ( x + k ) is a factor of each one of the given
21. Since, divisor is x 2 + 2
expression, x = − k will make each zero.
∴ Substitute x 2 = − 2 , in the given expression ∴ k 2 − pk + q = k 2 − lk + m = 0
x 3 + 5x 2 + 10k gives the remainder − 2x m−q
⇒ k=
(−2)x + 5(−2) + 10k = − 2x l− p
⇒ k =1 30. Substitute x = a in the given expression, since ( x − a) is a
22. Putting x = − 1, we get factor, which will make it equal to zero.
(−1) + 1 = − 1 + 1 = 0
11 ∴ (a)3 − 3a3 + 2a3 + b = 0 ⇒ b = 0

23. Putting x = − 3, we get 31. Go through options

5(−3)3 + 5(−3)2 − 6(−3) + 9 = − 135 + 45 + 18 + 9 = − 63 32. Go through options
33. Put x = − 1 in the given expression
25. Best way is that to consider some appropriate value of x
(say x = 1), then check through options : 34. Put x = 1 in the given expression
Let x = 1, then 2
 1 1 1
 x +  = x + 2 + 2x ⋅
2
x 3 − 2x 2 + px − q = 1 − 2 + p − q → dividend 36.
 
x x x
and x − 6 = 1 − 6 = − 5 → remainder 1  1 
(2)2 = x 2 + + 2  putting x + = 2
and x − 2x − 3 = 1 − 2 − 3 = − 4 → divisor
2
x 2  x 
∴Now assume choice (c) as p = − 2 and q = 6, then 1
⇒ x2 + =2
−1 + p − q −1 + (−2) − 6 −9 x2
= = → Remainder − 5
−4 −4 −4  1
2
1 1
 x −  = x + 2 − 2x ⋅
2
37.
 x x x
NOTE To avoid negative remainder you can assume
x = 7 , 8 , ... , etc. 1
(4)2 = x 2 + 2 − 2
x
Alternatively Divide the given expression as conventionally
1
and then compare the actual remainder with obtained ⇒ x 2 + 2 = 18
remainder. x
3
x2 – 2x – 3 x3 – 2x2 + px – q ××××  1 1 1  1
38.  x +  = x + 3 + 3x ⋅  x + 
3
× × × ×  x  x x  x
Remainder = ( p + 3)x − q  1
3
1  1
x +  = x + 3 + 3x + 
3
∴ ( p + 3)x − q = x − 6  x x  x
∴ p+ 3=1 and q = 6 1
⇒ (2 3)3 = x 3 + + 3 (2 3)
⇒ p = − 2 and q = 6 x3
26. Put x = 2 in the given expression as : 1
⇒ x3 + = 18 3
x + 3qx − 2q = 0
2 x3
3
(2) + 3q(2) − 2q = 0
2  1 1 1  1
 x +  = x + 3 + 3x ⋅  x + 
3
39.
 x x x  x
⇒ 4 + 6q − 2q = 0 ⇒ 4 + 4q = 0
1
⇒ q = −1 (3)3 = x 3 + 3 + 3(3)
x
27. Put x = − 2 in the given polynomial. 1
⇒ x 3 + 3 = 18
(−2)3 + 6(−2)2 + 4(−2) + k = 0 x
⇒ k = −8
746 QUANTUM CAT
2 2
 1 1 1  1
 x +  = x + 2 + 2⋅ x ⋅
2
40. ⇒ x −  = 6 − 2= 4
 x x x  x
1 1
(2)2 = x 2 + 2 + 2 ⇒ x− =2
x x
1 Alternatively Go through options.
x + 2 =2
2
x 2
 2 1 1
 x + 2 = x + 4 + 2
4
 1
3
1  1 45.
1
Again,  x 2 + 2  = x 6 + 6 + 3x 2 ⋅ 2  x 2 + 2   x  x
 x  x x  x  2
 2 1
1 ⇒q  x + 2  = 121
(2)3 = x 6 + 6 + 3(2)  x 
x
1
1 ⇒ x 2 + 2 = 11
⇒ x6 + 6 = 2 x
x
2
2  1 1
x −  = x + 2 − 2
2
 1 1 1 Again,
 x −  = x + 2 − 2x ⋅
2
41.  x x
 x x x
2
2  1 1
 1 ∴ x −  = 9 ⇒ x− =3
x −  = 6 − 2  x x
 x
3
2  1 1 1  1
 1 ∴  x −  = x − 3 − 3x ⋅  x − 
3
x −  = 4  x x x  x
 x
1
 1 (3)3 = x 3 − 3 − 3(3)
⇒ x −  = ± 2 x
 x
1
3 ⇒ x 3 − 3 = 36
 1 1 1  1
 x −  = x − 3 − 3x ⋅  x −  x
3
42.
 x x x  x 2
 2
3 46.  3x −  = 25
 1  1  x
 x −  = 36 − 3  x − 
 x  x 4 4
9x2 + − 12 = 25 ⇒ 9 x 2 + 2 = 37
 1 x2 x
Let  x −  = P,
 x 4
Again, 9 x 2 + 2 + 12 = 37 + 12 = 49
then P 3 = 36 − 3P x
2
or P 3 + 3P = 36 ⇒ P 3 + 3P − 36 = 0  2 2
⇒  3x +  = (7 )
2
⇒ 3x + =7
 x x
Clearly P = 3 satisfies the equation.
1  2 4  2  2
∴ x− =3 ∴  9 x − 2  =  3x −   3x +  = 5 × 7 = 35
 x   x   x 
x
Alternatively Go through options m2 + 1
47. m2 − 4m + 1 = 0 ⇒ m2 + 1 = 4m ⇒ =4
3 m
 1 1 1  1
 x +  = x + 3 + 3x ⋅  x + 
3
43. 1
 x x x  x ⇒ m+ =4
3
m
 1 1  1
⇒ x +  = x + 3 + 3x + 
3
 1
3
1  1
 x x  x ∴  m +  = m + 3 + 3  m +  = 64
3
 m m  m
Now, go through the given choices.
1
2 ⇒ m3 + 3 = 52
1  1 m
44. x4 + =  x2 + 2 − 2
x4  x  48. ( x + y )2 = x 2 + y 2 + 2xy
2
 1 169 = x 2 + y 2 + 2 × 40
∴ 34 =  x 2 + 2  − 2
 x 
2
⇒ x 2 + y 2 = 89
 2 1 1
⇒  x + 2  = 36 ⇒ x + 2 =6
2
49. ( x + y )3 = x 3 + y 3 + 3xy( x + y )
 x  x
1
 1
2
1 2097 = x 3 + + 3 × 36(13)
x −  = x + 2 − 2
2
Again, x3
 x  x
Elements of Algebra 747

⇒ x3 +
1
= 2097 − 1404 60. a3/ 2 − ab1/ 2 + a1/ 2b − b3/ 2
x3 = a(a1/ 2 − b1/ 2 ) + b(a1/ 2 − b1/ 2 )
1
x 3 + 3 = 693 = (a + b)(a1/ 2 − b1/ 2 )
x
(a + b)(a1/ 2 − b1/ 2 )
50. ( x − y )2 = ( x + y )2 − 4 xy = 64 − 60 = 4 ∴ = (a + b)
(a1/ 2 − b1/ 2 )
⇒ (x − y ) = 2
∴ x 3 − y 3 = ( x − y )3 + 3xy( x − y ) 61. x( y 2 − z 2 ) + y(z 2 − x 2 ) + z( x 2 − y 2 )
= x 2(z − y ) − x(z 2 − y 2 ) + yz(z − y )
= 8 + 45(2)
x 3 − y 3 = 98 (Writing in descending power of x)
= (z − y )[ x 2 − x(z + y ) + yz]
51. ( x 3 + y 3 + z 3 − 3xyz )
= (z − y )( x − z )( x − y )
= ( x + y + z )( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 − xy − yz − zx )
Alternatively Consider x = 1, y = 2 and z = 3 and then
= ( x + y + z )[( x + y + z )2 − 3( xy + yz + zx )] verify the correct option.
= 6 × [ 36 − 3 × 11] = 6 × 3 = 18 62. Since, x 3 − y 3 = ( x − y )( x 2 + y 2 + xy )
52. x + y + z = 0 ⇒ x + y + z = 3xyz.
3 3 3
∴ (a + b)3 − (a − b)3
53. Q x + y + z = 0 ⇒ x + y + z = 3xyz
3 3 3
= [(a + b) − (a − b)][(a + b)2 + (a − b)2 + (a + b)(a − b)]
∴ a1/ 3 + b1/ 3 + c1/ 3 = 0 = 2b[ 2(a2 + b2 ) + (a2 − b2 )] = 2b(3a2 + b2 )
⇒ a + b + c = 3a1/ 3b1/ 3c1/ 3 63. ( x 2 + 4) = ( x 2 + 22 ) = ( x )2 + (2)2 + 4 x 2 − 4 x 2
∴ (a + b + c)3 = 27 abc = ( x 2 + 2)2 − (2x )2
2x k = ( x 2 + 2 + 2x )( x 2 + 2 − 2x )
54. 2 x − = 8 ⇒ k − = 8 ⇒ k = 16
2 2 64. Best way is to go through options.
∴ 2x = 16 ⇒ (say 2x = k) ( x − 1)( x + 3)( x − 2) = ( x 2 + 2x − 3)( x − 2)
⇒ 2x = 24 ⇒ x = 4. = x 3 + 2x 2 − 3x − 2x 2 − 4 x + 6
∴ x 3 = (4)3 = 64 = x3 − 7 x + 6
55. 3x + 3x + 1 = 36 ⇒ 3x + 3.3x = 36 Hence, option (a) is correct.
Let 3 =k
x
65. (64 x 3 − 216 y 3 ) = (4 x )3 − (6 y )3
∴ k + 3k = 36 ⇒ k = 9 = (4 x − 6 y )[(4 x )2 + (6 y )2 + 24 xy]
∴ 3 =9
x
⇒ x=2
66. a2 + 4b2 + 4b − 4ab − 2a − 8
∴ x = 2 = 4.
x 2
= a2 + 4b2 − 4ab + 4b − 2a − 8
(a + b) − (a − b) 2
(a + b + 2ab) − (a + b − 2ab)
2 2 2 2
= (a − 2 b)2 − 2(a − 2 b) − 8
56. =
a b − ab
2 2
ab(a − b)
= k 2 − 2k − 8, where k = a − 2b
4ab 4
= = = k 2 − 4k + 2k − 8
ab(a − b) (a − b)
x y = k(k − 4) + 2(k − 4)
57. Let =
(b − c)(b + c − 2a) (c − a)(c + a − 2b) = (k − 4)(k + 2)
z = (a − 2b − 4)(a − 2b + 2)
= = k, then
(a − b)(a + b − 2c) 67. Let (a − b) = x, (b − c) = y and (c − a) = z
x = k(b − c)(b + c − 2a), y = k(c − a)(c + a − 2b), Then, x+ y+z=0
z = k(a − b)(a + b − 2c) ∴ x + y 3 + z 3 = 3xyz
3

∴ ( x + y + z ) = k[(b − c + c − a + a − b )
2 2 2 2 2 2
Hence, (a − b)3 + (b − c)3 + (c − a)3 = 3(a − b)(b − c)(c − a)
− 2 {a(b − c) + b(c − a) + c(a − b)}]
68. (a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ac)
=0
0 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ac)
58. a4 + 5a3 + 6a2 = a2(a2 + 5a + 6) = a2(a + 3)(a + 2)
∴ a2 + b2 + c2 = − 2(ab + bc + ac)
748 QUANTUM CAT
69. First of all factorize the expression, then find the HCF or ∴ LCM = (a − b)(a + b)(a2 + b2 )(a2 + b2 − ab)
LCM as per the requirement. = (a − b)(a2 + b2 )(a + b)(a2 + b2 − ab)
(1) LCM of 10a2b2, 15abc, 20ab2c2 is
= (a − b)(a2 + b2 )(a3 + b3 )
3 × 22 × 5a2b2c2 = 60a2b2c2, Hence (a) is wrong.
(2) ( x 2 − 6 x + 9) = ( x − 3)2 77. ( x 4 − 1) = ( x − 1)( x + 1)( x 2 + 1)
and ( x 3 − 27 ) = ( x − 3)( x 2 + 3x + 9) ( x 3 + x 2 + x + 1) = x 2( x + 1) + 1( x + 1) = ( x 2 + 1)( x + 1)

∴ HCF = ( x − 3) ∴ HCF = ( x + 1)( x 2 + 1)

(3) 6 x 2 − 7 x − 3 = (2x − 3)(3x + 1) 78. 2x 2 − 4 x = 2x( x − 2)
(2x 2 + 11 x − 21) = ( x + 7 )(2x − 3) 3x 4 − 12x 2 = 3x 2( x 2 − 4)
∴ HCF = (2x − 3). = 3x 2( x + 2)( x − 2)
Hence, 2 and 3 are correct. 2x 5 − 2x 4 − 4 x 3 = 2x 3( x 2 − x − 2)
70. 2x − 3x − 2 = 2x − 4 x + x − 2
2 2
= 2x 3( x − 2)( x + 1)
= ( x − 2)(2x + 1) ∴ HCF = x( x − 2)
and ( x − 4 x + 4 x ) = x( x 2 − 4 x + 4) = x( x − 2)2
3 2
79. Since, all the factors are distinct
∴ LCM = x( x − 2)2(2x + 1) 80. ( x + 2)2( x − 2) and x 2 − 4 x − 12 = ( x − 6)( x + 2)
71. 2( x 2 − y 2 ) = 2( x − y )( x + y ) ∴ LCM = ( x − 6)( x + 2)2( x − 2)
and 5( x 3 − y 3 ) = 5( x − y )( x 2 + y 2 + xy ) 81. a2 − ab − 2b2 = (a2 − b2 ) − (ab + b2 )
∴ HCF = ( x − y ) = (a + b)(a − b − b) = (a + b)(a − 2b)
72. ( x − 4 x + 3) = x − 3x − x + 3
4 2 4 2 2 and 2a − ab − b2 = (a2 − ab) + (a2 − b2 )
2

= x 2( x 2 − 3) − 1( x 2 − 3) = (a − b)a + (a2 − b2 ) = (a − b)(2a + b)

= ( x 2 − 3)( x 2 − 1) Since, there is no common factor, hence HCF = 1.

82. HCF = a2b3c3
= ( x 2 − 3)( x − 1)( x + 1)
LCM = a5b4c4
and x 4 − x 2 − 6 = x 4 − 3x 2 + 2x 2 − 6
( x + 3) ( x + 1) ( x + 3)( x − 3) − ( x − 2)( x + 1)
= x 2( x 2 − 3) + 2( x 2 − 3) 83. − =
( x − 2) ( x − 3) ( x − 2)( x − 3)
= ( x 2 − 3)( x 2 + 2)
( x 2 − 9) − ( x 2 − x − 2) x −7
∴ HCF = ( x − 3)
2 = = 2
( x − 5x + 6)
2
( x − 5x + 6)
73. x − 4 = ( x + 2)( x − 2)
2
x + 1 x − 1 ( x + 1)2 + ( x − 1)2 2( x 2 + 1)
84. + = =
( x − 5x − 6) = ( x + 1)( x − 6)
2
x −1 x + 1 ( x − 1)( x + 1) ( x 2 − 1)
( x 2 + x − 6) = ( x − 2)( x + 3) x 2 − 5x + 6 x 2 − 3x + 2
85. ÷
Since, there is no any common factor. So, HCF is 1. x 2 − 9 x + 20 x 2 − 5x + 4
74. x 2 − ax − (a + 1) = x 2 − (a + 1)x + x − (a + 1) x 2 − 5x + 6 x 2 − 5x + 4
= × 2
= ( x + 1)( x − a + 1) x − 9 x + 20 x − 3x + 2
2

and ax 2 − x − (a + 1) = ax 2 − a − x − 1 ( x − 2)( x − 3) ( x − 1)( x − 4)

= ×
( x − 4)( x − 5) ( x − 1)( x − 2)
= a( x 2 − 1) − 1( x + 1)
 x − 3
= ( x + 1)(ax − a − 1) = 
 x − 5
∴ HCF = ( x + 1)
75. P = ( x − 2)( x + 1)2( x + 3)2 2x 2 + 3 x−3
86. +
x−3 2x 2 + 3
and Q = ( x + 1)2( x + 3)( x + 4)
(2x 2 + 3)2 + ( x − 3)2 4 x 4 + 9 + 12x 2 + x 2 + 9 − 6 x
∴ LCM of P and Q = ( x − 2)( x + 1)2( x + 3)2( x + 4) = =
( x − 3)(2x 2 + 3) 2x 3 − 6 x 2 + 3x − 9
76. a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 + b2 − ab)
4 x 4 + 13x 2 − 6 x + 18
(a4 − b4 ) = (a − b)(a + b)(a2 + b2 ) =
2x 3 − 6 x 2 + 3x − 9
Elements of Algebra 749

( x − 3)( x 2 − 5x + 4) ( x − 3)( x − 1)( x − 4) ( x − 1) 1

+
1
+
1
87. = = 90.
( x − 4)( x 2 − 2x − 3) ( x − 4)( x − 3)( x + 1) ( x + 1) (a − b)(a − c) (b − c)(b − a) (c − a)(c − b)
(b − c)(b − a)(c − a)(c − b) + (a − b)(a − c)(c − a)(c − b)
(2x 2 + 1)( x + 1) + ( x − 1)2 ( x 2 − 1)
88. × + (a − b)(a − c)(b − c)(b − a)
( x 2 − 1) 2x =0
(a − b)(a − c)(b − c)(b − a)(c − a)(c − b)
2x 3 + 2x 2 + x + 1 + ( x − 1)2 2x 3 + 3x 2 − x + 2
= = 1 1 2 4
(2x ) 2x 91. + + +
(1 − x ) (1 + x ) (1 + x 2 ) (1 + x 4 )
( x 2 + 3x + 2)( x 2 + 5x + 6) (1 + x ) + (1 − x ) 2 4
89. = + +
x 2( x 2 + 4 x + 3) (1 − x 2 ) (1 + x 2 ) (1 + x 4 )
( x + 1)( x + 2)( x + 2)( x + 3) 2 2 4
= = + +
x 2( x + 1)( x + 3) (1 − x ) (1 + x ) (1 + x 4 )
2 2

4 4 8
( x + 2)2 x + 2 = + =
= = (1 − x ) (1 + x ) 1 − x 8
4 4
x2 x

Introductory Exercise 13.2

9 11 1 1 1 1
1. x−y= and ( x + y ) = 3. − − 1 and + =8
10 2 2x y x 2y
x–y = 9 1 1 2 1
10 ⇒ − = − 1 and + = 16
By addition 2x y x y
x + y = 11 By adding these two equations, we get
2
5 1
= 15 ⇒ x =
2x = 64 2x 6
10
1
∴ y=
32 4
⇒ x= = 3.2
10 2x y
23 4. + =2 …(i)
⇒∴ y= = 2.3 a b
10 x y
− =4 …(ii)
x+ y 1 1 a b
2. =2 ⇒ + =2 …(i)
xy x y Adding eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
x−y 1 1 3x x
and =6 ⇒ − =6 …(ii) =6 ⇒ =2 ⇒ x = 2a
xy y x a a
By adding eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Now put x = 2a in eq. (ii)
2 1 1 y
=8 ⇒ y= ∴x=− = −2
y 4 2 b
1 1 ∴ x = 2a and y = − 2b.
∴ x=− and y =
2 4 5. For no solution
Alternatively
9 4 9
x + y = 2xy and x − y = 6 xy …(i) = ≠
7 k 5
⇒ 3( x + y ) = 6 xy and x − y = 6 xy
28
⇒ 3x + 3y = x − y ⇒ k=
9
⇒ 2x = − 4 y
6. Two linear equations will coincide if there are infinite
⇒ x = − 2y number of solutions,
Substituting x = − 2y in the Eq. (i), we get a1 b1 c1
1 i.e., = =
−3y = 6 xy ⇒ x = − a2 b2 c2
2
for a1 x + b1 y = c1 and a2 x + b2 y = c2
1
and ∴ y= k 2 2
4 ∴ = = ⇒ k=6
3 1 1
750 QUANTUM CAT
7. For an infinite number of solutions ∴ Subtracting eqs. (i) from (ii), we get
2 3 −5 25y = 275 ⇒ y = 11
= = ⇒ k=9
6 k −15 ∴ x = 29.
8. 8B + 5M = 92 …(i) 13. Let there be x pencils and y pens, then
5B + 8M = 77 …(ii) ∴ x + y = 40 ⇒ 4 x + 4 y = 160
Multiply eq. (i) by 8 Eq. (ii) by 5, we get ( x + 5) = 4( y − 5)
64B + 40M = 736 ⇒ x − 4 y = − 25
25B + 40M = 385 [subtracting] ∴ 4 x + 4 y = 160
− − − x − 4 y = − 25
39B = 351 5x = 135
B=9 ⇒ x = 27 ∴ y = 13
∴ M =4 14. Let the present age of the son be ‘ x ’ years and
∴ 2M + 3B = 35 the present age of his father be ‘ y ’ years.
∴ The required cost of 2 mugs and 3 buckets is ` 35. Then, y = 3x …(i)
(Here, M → Price of a mug and B → Price of a bucket) Again, ( y + 12) = 2( x + 12) …(ii)
9. Let the two numbers be x and y, Substituting y = 3x in eq. (ii), we get
x = 12
then x+ y=8
∴ y = 36
and ( x + y ) = 4( x − y )
15. Let the present age of A is x
⇒ x−y=2
and the present age of B is y (in years).
∴ x + y = 8 and x−y=2
Then, ( x − 5) = 3 ( y − 5) ⇒ x − 3y = − 10 …(i)
2x = 10 ⇒ x=5
( x + 10) = 2 ( y + 10) ⇒ x − 2y = 10 …(ii)
∴ y=3
Subtracting eq. (ii) from eq. (i), we get
10. Let numerator be x and denominator be y, − y = − 20 ⇒ y = 20
then x=y−4 …(i) ∴ x = 50
8( x − 2) = ( y + 1) …(ii) 16. Let Astha will have x number of oranges and
The above equations can be written as Saumya will have y number of oranges. Then,
y−x=4 …(iii) ( x + 10) = 2 ( y − 10) ⇒ x − 2y = − 30 …(i)
and y − 8 x = − 17 and ( x − 10) = ( y + 10) ⇒ x − y = 20 …(ii)
– + + Subtracting eq. (ii) from eq. (ii), we get
7 x = 21 − y = − 50 ⇒ y = 50
⇒ x = 3 ∴ y =7 ∴ x = 70
x 3 17. Total distance = 760 km.
∴ The required fraction = =
y 7
Let the speed of car be x km/h and the speed of train be y
11. Distance = 90 km km/h
∴ Distance = Speed × Time
Let the speeds of car be x km/h and y km/h
D
∴ Distance = Speed × Time ⇒ T =
S
9
∴ 90 = ( x + y ) × ⇒ x + y = 70 ∴
600 160
+ =8 …(i)
7 x y
and 90 = ( x − y ) × 9 ⇒ x − y = 10 520 240 1
and + =8 …(ii)
∴ x = 40 and y = 30 x y 5
∴The required speeds of cars = 40 km/h and 30 km/h ∴eq. (i) can be written as
12. Let there be x coins of 25 paise denomination and y coins of 600 A + 160B = 8 …(iii)
50 paise denomination, then and eq. (ii) can be written as
x + y = 40 ⇒ 25x + 25y = 1000 …(i) 41
520 A + 240B = …(iv)
and 25x + 50 y = 1275 …(ii) 5
Elements of Algebra 751

1 1 Multiplying eq. (ii) by 2 and adding to eq. (i), we get

where, = A and =B
x y 15x = 15 or x =1
∴Solving eqs. (iii) and (iv), we get Putting x = 1 in (i), we get
1800 A + 480B = 24 9 × 1 − 8y = 1 ⇒ y = 1.
82
1040 A + 480B = 20. Submarino can be destroyed when it meets the destroyer.
5
− − − Thus,
760 A =
38 2x + 3y = 5 …(i)
5 x − y = 10 …(ii)
1
⇒ A= ⇒ x = 100 km/ h ∴ x =7 and y = − 3.
100
So, the required point is (7, − 3)
1
∴ B= ⇒ y = 80 km/h x2 y 2 z2
80 21. + 2 − 2 =1 …(i)
2
a b c
18. Let he has invested ` x at 12% S.I. and ` y at 10% SI
P × r ×t x 2 y 2 z2
 − 2 + 2 =1 …(ii)
∴ Q SI =  a2
 100  b c
x × 12 × 1 y × 10 × 1 x2 y 2 z2
+ = 130 − + + 2 =1 …(iii)
100 100 a2 b2 c
⇒ 12x + 10 y = 13000 …(i) Adding eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we have
⇒ 10 x + 12y = 134000 …(ii) x2 y 2 z2
2
+ 2 + 2 =3 …(iv)
∴ x = 500 and y = 700 a b c
3x − y + 1 2x + y + 2 x2
19. = ∴ =1 ⇒ x=±a
3 5 a2
⇔ 5(3x − y + 1) = 3(2x + y + 2) y2
=1 ⇒ y=±b
⇔ 9x − 8y = 1 …(i) b2
2x + y + 2 3x + 2y + 1 z2
⇔ = =1 ⇒ z = ± c
5 6 c2
⇔ 6(2x + y + 2) = 5(3x + 2y + 1) Hence, (d) is correct.
⇔ 3x + 4 y = 7 …(ii)

Level 01 Basic Level Exercise

1 If x + y + z is constant, the product xyz takes maximum 1
3 For x ≥ 0, x+ ≥2
value when each of x, y, z takes equal value. x
1
Q a + b + c = 13 and for x ≤ 0, x+ ≤2
x
∴ (a − 3) + (b − 2) + (c + 1) = 13 − 3 − 2 + 1 = 9 y
For the maximum value of (a − 3)(b − 2)(c + 1) 5
x≥0
9
= (a − 3) = (b − 2) = (c + 1) = = 3 4
3 3

So, (a − 3)(b − 2)(c + 1) = 3 × 3 × 3 = 27 2 (2, 2)

1
2 If xyz is constant, then the sum of x, y, z (i.e., x + y + z)
x
takes minimum value when each of x, y, z takes equal –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 1 2 3 4 5
value. –1
(–2, –2)
∴ Minimum value of a + b + c + d for given constant –2
–3
product abcd will be when a = b = c = d x≤0
–4
∴ a=b=c=d =3 –5
∴ Minimum value of a + b + c + d = 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 = 12 Graph of x + 1
x
752 QUANTUM CAT
4 This is the standard inequality formula. ⇒ (3x − 2)( x − 2) ≤ 0
5 This is the standard inequality formula. 2 
⇒ x∈ ,2
 3 
NOTE The result can be proved by considering suitable
2 
values. By symmetry y, z also ∈ , 2.
 3 
6 x 2 y 3 + y 2 x 3 = 25
1 1 x2 + y2
⇒ x 2 y 2 ( x + y ) = 25 11 2
+ 2 =
x y ( xy )2
⇒ ( xy )2 ( x + y ) = 25 (7 + 4 3)2 + (7 − 4 3)2 2 (49 + 48)
= = = 194
⇒ ( xy ) = 1
2
(Q x + y = 25) [(7 + 4 3)(7 − 4 3)]2 (1)2
⇒ xy = ± 1 a+ b+ c
12 AM ≥ GM ⇒ ≥ (abc)1/ 3
7 x > 0 and y>0 3
(AM → Arithmetic mean, GM → Geometric mean)
 1 1 x y
∴ (x + y )  +  = 2 + + 1  1 1 1  1 
1/ 3
x y y x and  + +  ≥ 
3  a b c   abc
 1 x
= 2 + k + , where k = 1 1  1 1 1  1 
1/ 3
 k y ⇒ (a + b + c)  + +  ≥ (abc)1/ 3   =1
3 3  a b c  abc
 1
Since, the minimum value of the expression  k +  is 2.  1 1 1
 k ⇒ (a + b + c)  + +  ≥ 9
 a b c
∴ Minimum value of the given expression is 4.
Putting a = b = c = 1, expression takes the value 9, which is
8 If a + b + c + d is constant, then the product abcd is
therefore, its least value.
maximum when a = b = c = d.
13 If ab is constant, then (a + b) takes minimum value
∴ (a + 1) = (b + 1) = (c + 1) = (d + 1)
when a=b
Given that (a + 1) + (b + 1) + (c + 1) + (d + 1) = 8 ∴ a= b=1
∴ 4 (a + 1) = 8 ∴ (1 + a)(1 + b) = (1 + 1)(1 + 1) = 4
⇒ (a + 1) = 2 (a + b + c)(ab + bc + ac)  ab bc ac 
14 = (a + b + c)  + + 
∴ Maximum value = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 16 abc  abc abc abc
9 As x + y + z =1  1 1 1
= (a + b + c)  + + 
1  1  1  y+z z+ x x+ y  c a b
 − 1  − 1  − 1 = ⋅ ⋅
x  y  z  x y z  1 1 1
= (a + b + c)  + +  > 9
y+z  a b c
But ≥ yz etc.
2 (See the problem number 12 in this exercise.)
8 xyz 15 The expression will have minimum value of the expression
Hence, LHS ≥ =8
xyz when a = b = c.
10 x + y + z = 4 and x + y +z =6
2 2 2 Therefore, the required minimum value
(1 + 1 + 1) (1 + 1 + 1) (1 + 1 + 1)
∴ y+ z=4− x = × × = 27
1 1 1
and y + z2 = 6 − x 2
2
 x Max ( x ) 3
1 16 Max   = =
yz = {( y + z )2 − ( y 2 + z 2 )}  y Min ( y ) 2
2
1 1 1
1 17 + + =1
= {(4 − x )2 − (6 − x 2 )} a b c
2
bc + ac + ab
⇒ yz = x 2 − 4 x + 5 ⇒ =1
abc
Hence, y and z are the roots of ⇒ bc + ac + ab = abc …(i)
t 2 − (4 − x ) t + ( x 2 − 4 x + 5) = 0 Again, (a + b + c) = a + b + c + 2 (ab + bc + ac)
2 2 2 2

Since, the roots y and z are real (a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2abc

(4 − x ) − 4 ( x − 4 x + 5) ≥ 0
2 2
3
(3)2 = 6 + 2abc ⇒ abc =
⇒ 3x 2 − 8 x + 4 ≤ 0 2
Elements of Algebra 753

18 2x = 4 y = 8z ⇒ 2x = 22 y = 23z By solving the above two eq. (i) and (ii), we get
⇒ x = 2y = 3z = k (say) x = 5 and y = 9
Thus, the number of deer is 5.
k3
Then, xyz = = 288 ⇒ k = 12 Alternatively Assume that there are only ducks
6
(because a duck has less number of legs than that of deer).
∴ x = 12, y = 6, z = 4
Hence, there must be 9 × 2 = 2 = 18 legs, but in this way
1 1 1 11 there are 10 legs = (28 − 18) more.
⇒ + + =
2x 4 y 8z 96 So, there must be some deer which fulfill this gap. Now this
19 a = cz difference of 10 legs is compensated by 5 deer because a
deer has 2 extra legs (i.e., 2 more legs than a duck has).
⇒ a = (b y )z (Q c = b y )
Hence, there are 5 deer and 14 − 5 = 9 ducks.
⇒ a = b yz
In short: Step 1. 2 × 14 = 28
⇒ a = (ax )yz (Q b = ax ) Step 2. 38 − 28 = 10
⇒ a = axyz Step 3. 10 ÷ 2 = 5
⇒ a1 = axyz ⇒ xyz = 1 Step 4. 14 − 5 = 9
Hence, there were 5 deer and 9 ducks.
20 7 x + 12y = 220 ⇒ 7 x = 220 − 12y
Alternatively Going through options. First of all
220 − 12y 4 (55 − 3y ) option (d) is ruled out. Now we have to check just
x= =
7 7 3 options. Again we can leave option (b) and (c) also.
It means 55 − 3y must be divisible by 7. Since, 4 is not So, we can check the option (a).
divisible by 7. 5 × 4 = 20
14   38
∴at y = 2, 9, 16 9 × 2 = 18 
we get x = 28, 16, 4
heads legs
Thus, we have 3 solutions of x, y
24 Going through options, we find that option (d) is correct
( x, y ) = (28, 2), (16, 9) and (4, 16)
i.e.,
21 ax ⋅ a y ⋅ az = ( x + y + z )x + y+ z
200 × 2 = 400 
600   2000
⇒ ax + y+ z
= ( x + y + z )( x + y + z)
400 × 4 = 1600
⇒ a= x + y + z …(i)
∴ ( x + y + z )y = ax = ( x + y + z )x No. of vehicles No. of tyres

⇒ x=y Alternatively

Similarly, y = z and z=x Step 1. 2 × 600 = 1200

∴ x=y=z=
a
[using eq. (i)] (2 → number of tyres in two wheelers)
3 Step 2. 2000 − 1200 = 800
22 Let
x y z
= = =k Step 3. 800 ÷ 2 = 400 → number of 4 wheelers
a b c Step 4. 600 − 400 = 200 → number of 2 wheelers
∴ x = ak, y = bk, z = ck 25 Go through options. Let us consider option (d).
∴ ( x + y + z ) = k (a + b + c) 100 × 5 = 500
125  25 × 3 = 75  575
∴ ( x + y + z )2 = k 2 (a + b + c)2  
∴ x 2 + y 2 + z 2 + 2 ( xy + yz + zx ) = k 2 (a + b + c)2
No. of raths No. of horses
∴ 2 ( xy + yz + zx ) = k 2 (a + b + c)2 − ( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) Alternatively
Number of horses in a rath
k2 1
∴ xy + yz + zx = (a + b + c)2 − ( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) Step 1. 3 × 125 = 375
carried by 3 horses
2 2
x (a + b + c) − a ( x + y + z )
2 2 2 2 2 2
 x Step 2. 575 − 375 = 200
= Q k =  200 ÷ 2 = 100
2a2  a Step 3. Number of extra horses in
23 Let x and y be the number of deer and ducks respectively. a rath carried by 5 horses.
Step 4. 125 − 100 = 25
∴ x + y = 14 …(i) ∴ Number of raths of Kaurav = 100
and 4 x + 2y = 38 …(ii) Number of raths of allied army of Kaurav = 25
(Q A deer has 4 legs and a duck has 2 legs)
754 QUANTUM CAT
26 Let us assume option (a) is correct Alternatively In the first instance option (c) is ruled out
Then, the number of coolers Since,
150000
80 41
+ ≠ 13 176 − 55 = 121
= = 50 7 10 and 121 − 80 = 41
3000
∴ the number of coolers = 50 35 86
Again, + ≠ 13 kg, option (b) is wrong.
and the number of fans = 40 = (90 − 50) 7 10
21 100
50 × 4 = 200 Once again + = 13 kg
Now, 90   320 7 10
40 × 3 = 120 
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Thus, the assumed option (a) is correct. 29 Since, we know that Ritika has purchased 2 kg
Alternatively Step 1. 3 × 90 = 270 mangoes and 5 kg apples. Thus, she has spent
Step 2. 320 − 270 = 50 (2 × 35 + 5 × 40) = ` 270.
Step 3. 50 ÷ 1 = 50 30 Mangoes Apples
Step 4. 90 − 50 = 40 SP 35 40
CP 30 30
Hence, number of fans = 40
New SP 40 35
and number of coolers = 50
Therefore, CP = 30 × 10 + 30 × 3 = 390
∴ Cost of coolers = 50 × 3000 = 150000
and New SP = 40 × 10 + 35 × 3 = 505
27 Let us assume option (c), then ∴ Profit = 505 − 390 = 115
40 × 2 = 80 → 80 × 10  800  115
90    3050 and Profit percentage = × 100 = 29.48%
50 × 3 = 150 → 150 × 15 2250 390
Hence, assumed option (c) is correct. 31 Solving with the help of options: In this type of
questions we start with least valued options and tend
Alternatively Per hour expenditure in fuel for Sukhoi
towards higher valued option.
= 2 × 10 = $ 20 Option (a): If we take 4 coins of ` 1, then
and per hour expenditure in fuel for Mig-21 = 3 × 15 = $ 45 (5 × 1) + (2 × 21) = 47 ≠ 44 (48 − 4 = 44)
Now, Step 1. 90 × 20 = 1800 5 × 2 + 2 × 20 = 50 ≠ 44 and (26 − 4 = 22)
Step 2. 3050 − 1800 = 1250 Thus, we need to move further since the value of money is
Step 3. 1250 ÷ 25 = 50 (25 = 45 − 20) exceeding.
Option (b): If we take 5 coins of ` 1, then
Step 4. 90 − 50 = 40
5 × 1 + 2 × 20 = 45 ≠ 43 (43 = 48 − 5)
Hence, the number of Sukhoi is 40.
5 × 2 + 2 × 19 = 48 ≠ 43 and (21 = 26 − 5)
28 Step 1. 20 × 7 = 140
Option (c): If we take 7 coins of ` 1, then
Step 2. 176 − 140 = 36  (48 − 7 = 41)
5 × 1 + 2 × 18 = 41 = 41  
Step 3. 36 ÷ 3 = 12 → weight of mangoes, initially  and (26 − 7 = 19)
Step 4. 20 − 12 = 8 → weight of apples, initially Thus, the option (c) is correct.
∴ Number of mangoes = 12 × 10 = 120 Alternatively 5a + 2b + c = 48 a → ` 5 coin
and Number of apples = 8 × 7 = 56 a + b + c = 26 b → ` 2 coin
Again, since she is left with 13 kg of mangoes and apples − − − −
containing 121 fruits (176 − 55 = 121) 4a + b = 22 c → ` 1 coin
∴ Step 1. 13 × 7 = 91 (a, b) → (c)
Step 2. 121 − 91 = 30 (1, 18) → 7
Step 3. 30 ÷ 3 = 10 → weight of mangoes (2, 14) → 10
Step 4. 13 − 10 = 3 → weight of apples (3, 10) → 13

Thus, the number of apples left with vendor (4, 6) → 16

= 3 × 7 = 21. (5, 2) → 19
32 Go through options.
 CHAPTER 14

Theor y of Equations
As per the past years CAT papers, on an average two-three questions are being asked. Chapter Checklist
The problems of this chapter are not so much difficult to solve. Since this chapter is Definition of the Standard
concerned with secondary level syllabus therefore it is important in JMET, XAT and Quadratic Expression
Characteristics of the Graph
SNAP etc. In this chapter we study quadratic equation, inequation and higher degree of the Quadratic Function
polynomial expressions. Different Ways to Express the
Quadratic Equation
14.1 Definition of the Standard Solutions or Roots of the Quadratic
Equations
Quadratic Expression Methods of Solving the Quadratic
For the real numbers a, b and c, the expression ax 2 + bx + c is called the quadratic Equation
Formation of a Quadratic Equation
expression, if a ≠ 0. Here a is the coefficient of x 2 , b is the coefficient of x and c is a From the Known Roots
constant term. Nature of the Roots of the Quadratic
(a) If a = 0 , then quadratic expression ax 2 + bx + c will reduce to a linear expression Equation
bx + c. That means if a (the coefficient of x 2 ) is zero, the given expression will no Maximum or Minimum value of a
Quadratic Equation
longer be a quadratic expression. Condition for Common Roots
(b) When we say that a, b and c are real numbers, it means a, b and c can be any sort of Between two Quadratic
Equations
numbers like rational numbers or irrational numbers or fractions or integers.
Basics of Inequality
Nomenclature Format Restrictions Position of Roots of a Quadratic
Equation with Respect to One
Quadratic Expression ax + bx + c
2
— or Two Real Numbers
Quadratic Function y = ax + bx + c
2
Any value Relation Between the Roots of
Two Quadratic Equations
Quadratic Function f (x ) = ax + bx + c Any value
2
Polynomial Equations or Functions
Quadratic Equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0 Strictly equal to zero of Higher Degree
End (or Long Term) Behaviour
Quadratic Inequation ax + bx + c ≥ 0
2
Non-negative values of a Polynomial Function
Quadratic Inequation ax + bx + c > 0
2
Positive values Solutions (or Roots) of a
Polynomial Equation
Quadratic Inequation ax + bx + c ≤ 0
2
Non-positive values
Polynomial Inequality
Quadratic Inequation ax + bx + c < 0
2
Negative values Relation between Roots and
Coefficients in a Polynomial
Thus by substituting the arbitrary numbers in place of x in the function you can obtain Rational Polynomials
various values of y or f ( x ). Rational Polynomial Inequalities
NOTE You can use y and f ( x ) interchangeably as per the requirement or convenience. It means, Maximum and Minimum value
of a Rational Expression
conceptually, y and f ( x ) both represent the same thing. Technically, the relation y = f ( x ) represents a
CAT Test
function, which means by substituting the values of x you can get the corresponding values of y.
756 QUANTUM CAT
4. A quadratic equation cannot have more than two
Variants of the Quadratic Function different roots.
All of the following functions are quadratic functions since
5. A quadratic equation can have either two or zero REAL
the degree of each equation is 2. That means in each function roots.
there is always a term x 2 or ax 2 for every non-zero value of a.
6. If α is a root of the quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0,
Here x is a variable and a, b, c are the constant numbers.
y =x2 then ( x − α ) is a factor of ax 2 + bx + c = 0.
y = ax 2 7. If α and β are the two roots of the quadratic equation
ax 2 + bx + c = 0, then ax 2 + bx + c = 0 can be expressed
y = ax 2 + x as the product of two factors ( x −α ) and ( x − β) as
y = ax 2 + bx following ax 2 + bx + c = ( x − α )( x − β) = 0
y = ax 2 + c NOTE Even though there CANNOT be more than two roots of
y = ax + x + c
2 any given quadratic equation, however, from any two given roots
you can have an infinite number of quadratic equations. To get all
y = ax 2 + bx + c the possible quadratic equations with both the roots common, just
multiply or divide the original (or basic) quadratic equation that you
Graphical Illustration have. So it follows that ax 2 + bx + c ⇒ k ( x − α )( x −β) = 0; Wherek is
Let us consider a quadratic function y = x 2 − 5x + 6 . By any real number.
substituting the arbitrary numerical values of x in the above Therefore, you have to use your own discretion with regard to the
problem that k should be 1 or other values of k are
function we get the corresponding values of y as shown in
possible/valid/required.
the following table
8. If ( x −α ) and ( x − β) are the two factors of the quadratic
x −2 −1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0, then ( x − α )( x − β) = 0
y 20 12 6 2 0 0 2 6 12 20
( x − α ) = 0 ⇒ x = α or ( x −β) =0 ⇒ x =β
Now if we connect all the points ( x, y) on the coordinate Whereα andβ are the roots of the equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0
plane, we will get a quadratic graph as shown below. 9. If quadratic equation is satisfied by more than two
Please take note of the fact that you can consider any real distinct numbers (real or imaginary) then it becomes an
number for x to draw your graph. identity i.e., a = b = c = 0.
Y-axis Becoming an identity implies that whatever value you
20 substitute for x, the equation will be satisfied for every
18 value of x.
16
14 Practice Exercise
12
1. Which of the following is/are the solution(s) of
10
x2 − 7 x + 12 = 0?
8
(a) 2 (b) 3
6
(c) 4 (d) both 3 and 4
4
2 2. A quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 may have
–4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
X-axis (a) two real roots
(b) two non-real roots
–2
(c) one real and one non-real root
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Properties of the Quadratic 3. If 5 and −6 are the roots of the quadratic equation,
Equations then what will be the factors of the quadratic equation?
(a) (x − 5 ) and (x − 6 ) (b) (x − 5 ) and (x + 6 )
1. The degree of any quadratic equation is always 2. (c) (x + 5 ) and (x − 6 ) (d) (x + 5 ) and (x + 6 )
2. The value of x that satisfies the relation ax 2 + bx + c = 0 4. If 3/2 and 4 are the two roots of a quadratic equation,
is called the root or zero or solution of this equation. then which one of the following is not the correct
3. A quadratic equation has exactly two roots quadratic equation?
(or solutions or zeros). (a) 2 x2 − 11x + 6 = 0 (b) 6 x2 − 33 x + 18 = 0
(c) −10 x − 55 x − 30 = 0 (d) 4 x2 − 41x + 24 = 0
2
Theory of Equations 757

5. If (x − 7 ) and (x − 17 ) are the factors of a quadratic It implies that how far the vertex is from the X-axis. The
equation, then which one of the following is the correct positive (or negative) value of vertex y indicates that the
equation? vertex is above (or below) the X-axis.
(a) x2 − 10 x + 24 = 0 11. The parabolic graph must intersect Y-axis but only once;
(b) x2 − 33 x + 119 = 0 except in rare cases where the values of x = 0 is not
(c) x2 + 24 x − 119 = 0 allowed, it may not intercept. It implies that the graph of
(d) x2 − 24 x + 119 = 0 quadratic function, in general, may exist anywhere across
6. For what value of p, the equation ( p − 1)(2 p + 1)x2 the whole X-axis, depending on the quadratic function.
+ ( p2 − 1)x + ( p − 1)( p − 3 ) = 0 is an identity (or has NOTE For more info about the axis and Cartesian plane you can
more than two solutions)? refer Coordinate Geometry.
(a) −1 (b) −1 / 2
(c) 1 (d) 1/3
Parabola
7. In the given equation ax2 + bx + c, if a = 0 and b ≠ 0,
then
(a) The equation represents a linear equation Axis of Vertex (Lowest
Symmetry point of the graph)
(b) The equation represents a quadratic equation
Fig (i)
(c) The equation represents a bi-quadratic equation
(d) none of the above Vertex (Highest
Axis of point of the graph)
Answers Symmetry

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d)

Parabola
6. (c) 7. (a)

14.2 Characteristics of the Graph Fig (ii)

of the Quadratic Function Practice Exercise

1. A graph of a quadratic equation is exactly a parabola as 1. Which of the following is not a graph of a quadratic
shown below. equation?

2. The parabola is always symmetric.

3. The line that splits the parabola through the middle is (i) (ii)
called the "axis of symmetry".
4. Axis of symmetry is obtained by x = − b/2a. It implies
that how far the axis of symmetry is from the Y-axis.
5. The axis of symmetry may or may not overlap the (iii) (iv)

Y-axis, which depends on the quadratic function. But

axis of symmetry is always parallel to Y-axis.
6. The point on the axis of symmetry that bisects the (a) only (iii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) only (iv)
parabola is called the "vertex", and it is the point where 2. Which of the following is a correct graph of a quadratic
the curvature is greatest. equation, where the vertical line represents the axis of
7. The parabola can open UP or DOWN only. symmetry?

8. If the parabola opens up, the vertex will be the lowest

point and if it opens down, the vertex will be the highest (i) (ii)
point of the graph.
9. The lowest point of the graph is called the minimum
(plural is minima) and the highest point of the graph is (iii) (iv)
called the maximum (plural is maxima).
10. The vertex of the quadratic graph is obtained by
( 4ac − b 2 ) (a) Only (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
y= . (c) (i) and (iv) (d) none of the graphs
4a
758 QUANTUM CAT
3. Consider the following graph of a quadratic function. 11. For the quadratic equation x2 − 11x + 24 = 0, what will
Then which of the following facts are true regarding be the position of the vertex of the quadratic graph
this quadratic graph? with reference to the X-axis?
Y (a) 25/4 units below (b) 25/4 units above
12
(c) 21/4 units below (d) can’t be determined
8
12. For the quadratic equation x2 + 9 x + 18 = 0, what will
4 be the position of the vertex of the quadratic graph
–8 –7 –6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 with reference to the origin (or intersection of both the
X
axes)?
–4
(a) 9/2 units left, 113/4 units below
–8
(b) 9/2 units left, 113/4 units above
–12 (c) 9 units right, 81 units below
y′ (d) 9 units right, 9 units below
(i) Y−intercept is −8 (ii) X−intercepts are −4 and 2. 13. Find the value of y where the graph of
(iii) a>0 (iv) D>0 3 x2 + 19 x − 18 = 0 intersects the Y-axis.
(a) −18 (b) 0
(v) D>32a (vi) b = 2a
(c) 4 (d) 16
(vii) Vertex of the graph is less than −8.
14. Which of the following is false?
(viii) The difference between the Y-axis and axis of
(i) If only the positive values of x are taken, the
symmetry is 1 unit.
quadratic graph does not intersect the Y-axis.
(ix) The equation of axis of symmetry is x = − 1.
(ii) If only negative values are taken, the quadratic
(x) The value of y is same, if it is equidistant from x = − 1. graph does not intersect the Y-axis.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (x)
(iii) The interception of Y-axis can be known when we
(c) Except (v), (vi) and (x) (d) all of these
substitute x = 0, in the quadratic function.
4. For the quadratic equation 3 x2 + 12 x + 10 = 0, what is
(iv) There can be minimum zero and maximum two
the distance between the Y-axis and the axis of
x-intercepts.
symmetry of the quadratic graph?
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii), (iv)
(a) 2 units (b) 4 units (c) 3 units (d) 6 units
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) none of these
5. The two roots of a quadratic equation are −6 and 12,
what is the distance between the axis of symmetry of 15. If D be the discriminant of the quadratic equation
the quadratic graph and the Y-axis? ax2 + bx + c = 0, what will be the coordinates of its
vertex?
(a) 6 units (b) 1unit (c) 2 units (d) 18 units
(a) −b /2 a, −D / 4 a (b) −b /2 a, D / 4 a
6. For the quadratic equation x2 + 6 x − 16 = 0, what will (c) b /2 a, −D /2 a (d) −b /2 a, D / 4 a
be the position of the axis of symmetry of the
quadratic graph with reference to the Y-axis? Answers
(a) 2 units left (b) 3 units right
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b)
(c) 3 units left (d) can’t be determined 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
7. The axis of symmetry, of a quadratic graph, is always 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (a)
parallel to
(a) X-axis (b) Y-axis
(c) Z-axis (d) none of these 14.3 Different Ways to Express
8. For a quadratic graph, the axis of symmetry and Y-axis the Quadratic Equation
coincide (or overlap) then,
(a) a − b = c (b) 2 a − b = 0 A quadratic equation can be expressed in the following forms
(c) b = 0 (d) c = 0 (1) ax 2 + bx + c = 0
9. For the quadratic equation 3 x2 + 12 x + 10 = 0, what is  b  c
the vertex of the graph? (2) x 2 +   x +   = 0;
a a
(a) y = − 2 (b) y = − 4 (c) y = 3 (d) 6
where a, b and c are the standard notations.
10. For the quadratic equation x2 + 12 x + 20 = 0, how far
is the vertex from the X-axis? (3) x 2 − (α + β) x + (αβ) = 0; where α and β are the roots of
(a) 8 unit (b) 16/3 unit (c) 16 unit (d) 8/3 unit the equation.
Theory of Equations 759

Exp.) We can express a quadratic equation in three (ii) Discriminant of the equation 5x2 + 8x + 17 is −276 < 0, so
different forms, whose roots are (−2) and (1/2). it cannot be factorised into two linear factors.

(1) 2x 2 + 3 x − 1 = 0 (iii) Discriminant of the equation x2 − 16 is 64 > 0, so it is

factorisable into two linear factors as x2 − 16 = (x + 4)(x − 4)
 3  1
(2) x 2 +   x +  −  = 0; where a = 2, b = 3 , c = − 1 (iv) Discriminant of the equation 9x2 is 0, so it is factorisable
 2  2
into two linear factors as 9x2 = (3x )(3x ) or 9x2 = x (9x ).
3 1
⇒ x2 +x − =0
2 2 How to Factorize a Given
 3  1 1 Quadratic Equation
(3) x −  −  x +  −  = 0; where α = − 2, β =
2
 2  2 2
Step 1 First of all write down the given quadratic equation
3 1
⇒ x2 + x − = 0 in its standard form of ax 2 + bx + c = 0
2 2
Step 2 If any of the coefficients a, b and c is a rational
Discriminant of the Quadratic Equations number, make it integer by multiplying whole
For the given quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0, the equation by the denominator of that rational number.
discriminant is denoted by D and expressed as D = b 2 − 4ac. Step 3 Find the product ac.
Exp.) Determine the discriminant of the following Step 4 Find all the factor pairs of ac, such that the product of
quadratic equations. any pair is equal to ac.
(i) x 2 + 10 x + 6 (ii) 8 x + 17 + 5 x 2 Step 5 Choose one such pair, say ( m, n), such that if ac is
(iii) − x − 8 x + 15
2
(iv) x + 6 x
2 positive then m + n = b and if ac is negative then
m − n = − b, provided m ≤ n.
(v) x − 16
2
(vi) 9 x 2
Solution (i) Discriminant of the equation x 2 + 10x + 6 is
Step 6 Write down the expression as ax 2 + ( m + n) + c = 0
or ax 2 + ( m − n) + c = 0, as per the nature of b.
102 − 4 × 1 × 6 = 76
Step 7 Now make two pairs out of four terms considering
(ii) Discriminant of the equation 5 x 2 + 8x + 17 is
there will be something common in the pairs as shown
82 − 4 × 5 × 17 = − 276
below. If ax 2 + ( m + n) + c = 0
(iii) Discriminant of the equation − x 2 − 8x + 15 is
⇒ ( ax 2 + m) + ( n + c) = 0
( −8) 2 − 4 × ( −1) × 15 = 124
(iv) Discriminant of the equation x 2 + 6x is 62 − 4 × 1 × 0 = 36 or ( ax 2 + n) + ( m + c) = 0
(v) Discriminant of the equation x 2 − 16 is 02 − 4 × 1 × −(16) = 64 If ax 2 + ( m − n) + c = 0
(vi) Discriminant of the equation 9x 2 is 02 − 4 × 9 × 0 = 0
⇒ ( ax 2 + m) + ( −n + c) = 0
Condition that the Quadratic Equation is or ( ax 2 − n) + ( m + c) = 0
Factorisable into two Linear Factors
Step 8 Take out common if any, and then simplify.
When the discriminant D ≥ 0, then the equation
NOTE This technique has some limitations that you will come
ax 2 + bx + c = 0 is factorisable into two linear factors. That is across when you try to find the factors of an equation whose roots
ax 2 + bx + c = 0 are irrational. Therefore, you may use other techniques to find the
⇒ ( x − α )( x − β) =0; where α and β are the roots of the factors, like using sum and product of roots method or
Sridharacharya’s method.
quadratic equation.
Exp.) Which of the following quadratic expressions are Exp. 1) Factorize the given quadratic equation
factorisable into two linear factors? 2x 2 + 3x − 9 = 0.
Solution Product a ⋅ c = 2 × −9 = − 18
(i) 2 x 2 + 10 x + 6 (ii) 5 x 2 + 8 x + 17
Now, 18 = 1 × 18 or 2 × 9 or 3 × 6
(iii) x 2 − 16 (iv) 9 x 2
Since a ⋅ c is negative, therefore we will take the difference of 3
Solution and 6 and which is 3 = b. Therefore we choose 3 and 6.
(i) Discriminant of the equation x2 + 10x + 6 is 76 > 0, so it Now we write the equation, as following 2x 2 + 3 x − 9 = 0
is factorisable into two linear factors as x2 + 10x + 6
⇒ 2x 2 + ( 6x − 3 x) − 9 = 0 ⇒( 2x 2 + 6x) − ( 3 x + 9) = 0
= (x + 19 ) (x − 19 ).
⇒ 2x( x + 3) − 3( x + 3) = 0 ⇒( x + 3)( 2x − 3) = 0
760 QUANTUM CAT
Exp. 2) Factorize the given quadratic equation Practice Exercise
5
3 − x − 3x 2 = 0. Find the facrtors of following equations.
2
1. x2/3 − x1/3 − 56 2. x + 9 x1/2 + 8
Solution The given quadratic equation can be expressed in the
5
standard form as −3 x 2 − x + 3 = 0 3. 4 x 4 − 81 4. (x − 3 )4 + 2 (x − 3 )2 − 8
2
5. 6 x2 − xy − 12 y2 6. 20 x2 + 17 x − 91
Since the value of b is a rational number therefore we will
multiply the whole equation by the denominator of b that is 2 7. 35 x + 84 − 21x2
and then we will get the whole equation with integer
coefficients −6x 2 − 5 x + 6 = 0. Since product a ⋅ c = − 6 × 6 = −36 Answers
1
Therefore, 36 = 1 × 36 or 2 × 18 or 3 × 12 or 4 × 9 or 6 × 6 1. Assume x3 = p, then the given equation will become like
Now, since a ⋅ c is negative, therefore we will take the p2 − p − 56
difference of 4 and 9 which is 5 = b. Therefore, we choose 4 and
Then, p2 − p − 56 = p2 − 8p + 7p − 56
9. Now, we write the equation as following
−6x 2 − 5 x + 6 = 0 ⇒ −6x 2 + ( 4x − 9x) + 6 = 0 = (p + 7)(p − 8)
Therefore,x2/3 − x1/3 − 56 = (x1/3 + 7)(x1/3 − 8)
⇒ ( 4x − 6x 2 ) + ( 6 − 9x) = 0
1
⇒ 2x( 2 − 3 x) + 3( 2 − 3 x) = 0 ⇒( 2 − 3 x)( 2x + 3) = 0 2. Assume x2 = p, then the given equation will become like
p2 + 9p + 8
Exp. 3) Factorize the given biquadratic equation
x 4 + 2x 2 − 8 = 0. Then, p2 + 9p + 8 = p2 + p + 8p + 8 = (p + 8)(p + 1).
Solution The given biquadratic equation can be expressed in the Therefore, x + 9x1/2 + 8 = (x1/2 + 8)(x1/2 + 1)
standard form as ( x 2 ) 2 + 2x 2 − 8 = 0
3. We can apply (a2 − b2 ) = (a + b)(a − b)
Product a ⋅ c = 1 × −8 = − 8
4x 4 − 81 ⇒ (2x )2 − 92 = (2x2 + 9)(2x2 − 9)
Now, 8 = 1 × 8 or 2 × 4
Since a ⋅ c is negative, therefore we will take the difference 4. Assume (x − 3)2 = p, then the given equation will become