1. What is the difference between X-rays and gamma rays?

a. X-rays are produced extranuclearly whereas gamma rays are produced in nuclear decays.

b. X-rays have higher energies than gamma rays.

c. gamma rays are produced by bremsstrahlung.

d. X-rays and gamma rays interact with matter differently.

2. What is the main source of natural background radiation?

a. Electrons.

b. X-rays.

c. Neutrons.

d. Alpha-particles.

3. Which photon processes are dominant in the context of diagnostic radiology?

a. Compton scattering and photoelectric effect. b. Photoelectric effect and pair production.

c. Compton scattering and pair production. d. Compton and Rayleigh scattering.

4. The mass absorption coefficient for Compton scattering is independent of the atomic number (Z) of
the absorber whereas the mass absorption coefficient for photoelectric effect depends strongly on Z.

a. True. b. False.

5. Direct action of radiation is the dominant process for:

a. X-rays .b. Neutrons and alpha particles c. Electrons. d. Gamma rays.

6. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Indirect action can be modified by protectors or sensitizers.

b. Direct action can be modified by protectors or sensitizers

7. A free radical is: a. Any charged particle. b. An atom or molecule with an unpaired electron in
the outer shell. c. An atom with an even number of electrons. d. A chemically stable atom.

8. The main interaction process(es) of neutrons in biologic matter are: a. Magnetic scattering.
b. Coulomb scattering by orbital electrons. c. Fission. d. Elastic and inelastic
scattering by nuclei.

9. All types of radiation can induce biologic effects by direct or indirect action.

a. True. b. False.

10. What is the main reason for the difference in biologic effects caused by neutrons and photons?

a. The energy of the radiation.

b. The fact that the charged particles produced by neutrons are, for the most part, positively charged.

c. The density of ionization.

d. The fact that neutrons can interact with nuclei.

DNA strand breaks and chromosomal aberrations

1. What is the most important lesion produced in chromosomal DNA by exposure to ionizing
radiation?

a. A break on one DNA strand ('single-strand break').

b. Well-separated breaks on both DNA strands.

c. Breaks on both DNA strands which are opposite each other or separated by only a few bases ('double-
strand break').

d. Multiple breaks on the same DNA strand.

2. When cells are irradiated with x-rays, double-strand breaks occur at a rate of about 5% in
comparison to single-strand breaks.

a. True. b. False.
3. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Double-strand breaks can be repaired by homologeous recombination or nonhomologous

recombination.

b. Nonhomologous recombination is error-free.

c. Homologous recombination occurs often in mammalian cells.

d. Homologous recombination accounts for many of the premutagenic lesions induced in the DNA of
human cells by ionizing radiation.
4. Which of the following statements is false?

a. 95% of the energy deposition of x-rays and gamma rays occurs in spurs (which have a diameter of
about 4 nm and involve 3 ion pairs on average).

b. Spurs and blobs are equally frequent in the case of high energy gamma rays.

c. Blobs have a diameter of about 7 nm and contain 12 ion pairs on average.

d. As spurs and blobs have a diameter similar to the DNA diameter, complex lesions occur when they
overlap with the DNA helix ('locally multiply damaged site').

5. The D0  dose is the dose that:

a. induces an average of one lethal event per cell and leaves 37% still viable.

b. leaves 50% of all cells viable. c. kills all cells. d. kills 30% of all cells.

6. Chromosomal aberrations are caused by:

a. single-strands breaks.

b. double-strand breaks, i.e. breaks that cause the chromatin to snap into two pieces.

c. single-strand or double-strand breaks.

7. Following exposure to radiation, some of the chromatin strands are broken. Broken ends are
"sticky" and can join to other broken "sticky" ends. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Broken ends of the same chromatin can recombine to restore the original structure of the
chromosome.

b. The broken end of one chromatin strand can join to the broken end of another chromatin strand
(which leads to a chromosomal aberration)

c. Broken ends fail to rejoin (which leads to a chromosomal aberration).

d. A broken end of a chromatin strand joins to an unbroken end of another chromatin strand.

8. The chromosome material is duplicated at:

a. prophase. b. metaphase. c. interphase. d. anaphase.

9. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Chromosomal aberrations are divided into "chromosome aberrations" and "chromatid aberrations".

b. Chromosome aberrations are caused by irradiation that takes place before the DNA is duplicated.

c. Chromatid aberrations are caused by irradiation that takes place after the DNA is duplicated.

d. Chromatid aberrations involve identical breaks in the two strands of chromatin of the duplicated DNA
structure.

10. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Chromosomal aberrations can lead to cell killing, mutation or carcinogenesis.

b. The ring aberration and the dicentric aberration are chromatid aberrations that are lethal to the cell.

c. The anaphase bridge is a chromosomal aberration that is lethal to the cell.

d. Symmetric translocations and small deletions are chromosomal aberrations that are not lethal but
they can cause malignancies.

11. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The total-body dose in exposed persons can be evaluated by taking blood samples and scoring the
frequency of dicentrics and rings in the lymphocytes one year after exposure.

b. The total-body dose in exposed persons can be evaluated by taking blood samples and scoring the
frequency of translocations in the lymphocytes up to several years after exposure.

Chapter 3
Cell survival curves
1. Which of the following statements is false?

a. For differentiated cells that do not proliferate, e.g. nerve and muscle cells, "cell death" means the loss
of a specific function.

b. A cell that has retained its reproductive integrity and can proliferate indefinitely to produce a colony
is said to be "clonogenic".

c. For proliferating cells, e.g. stem cells, "cell death" means that the cell ceases to be clonogenic.

d. The purpose of radiotherapy is to cause the tumour cells to lose most of their functions, while still
being clonogenic.
2. What does a "cell survival curve" describe?

a. The relationship between the radiation dose and the number of cells that have gone through one
mitosis after irradiation.

b. The relationship between the radiation dose and the proportion of cells that remain clonogenic.

c. The relationship between the radiation dose and the number of cells that have not suffered the loss of
a specific function.

d. The relationship between the radiation dose and the proportion of cells that can produce DNA.

3. What is the dominant mechanism of reproductive death in irradiated cells?

a. Apoptosis, i.e. programmed cell death, which also occurs in normal tissues.

b. Mitotic death, when the cell dies while attempting to divide, the reason being chromosomal
aberrations.

4. One evidence that chromosomal aberrations in irradiated cells is the main reason for cell death is
that factors that modify cell lethality were found to affect in a similar way the production of
chromosome damage as well. Such factors are variation in the type of radiation, oxygen
concentration and dose rate.

a. True. b. False.

5. Which of the following statements is false?

a. A double-strand break in the DNA means that the chromatid breaks.

b. Two chromatid breaks are required to produce an asymmetric chromosomal aberration, such as a
dicentric or a ring.

c. Cells that have an asymmetric chromosomal aberration die.

d. At low doses, the two chromatid breaks are caused by the passage of one charged particle, i.e. they
have an occurence probability that is linearly proportional to the dose.

e. At high doses, the two chromatid breaks are caused by the passage of two charged particles, i.e. they
have an occurence probability that is proportional to the square of the dose.

f. Points (d) and (e) above account for the linear-quadratic shape of the dose-effect curve and of the cell
survival curve.

g. As the dose increases, the probability that the two chromatid breaks above will be caused by the
same particle increases.
6. Which of the following statements is false?

a. For sparsely ionizing radiations, the survival curve is initially linear (on a log-linear plot) and
subsequently bends at higher doses.

b. For densely ionizing radiations, the survival curve is linear (on a log-linear plot) at all dose values
which are relevant to radiotherapy.

c. The survival curves of various cell types have the same value of D 0.

d. If many persons are studied, we see that the D 0 values of various tumour cells vary over a wider
interval than in the case of normal tissues.

e. Certain tumour cells are more radiosensitive than normal tissue cells, whereas others are more
radioresistant.

7. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Mitotic cells from various cell lines have different radiosensitivities.

b. The radiosensitivity of a cell line is proportional to the size of the shoulder of the its survival curve.

c. The more radiosensitive the cell line, the more important the contribution of apoptosis is.

8. It has been established that oncogene expression induces radioresistance in human tumours.

a. True. b. False.

9. There are certain inherited syndromes that are associated with an abnormally severe reaction of
normal tissue to radiation therapy with X-rays. Such patients also exhibit an elevated incidence of
spontaneous cancer.

a. True.

b. False.

10. Which of the following statements is false?

a. "Multifraction regimen" means that the dose is delivered to the patient in a series of equal fractions,
which are separated by time intervals that allow the repair of sublethal cell damage to take place.

b. Multifraction regimens in radiotherapy require the use of "effective dose survival curves".

c. The effective dose survival curve is an exponential function of the dose.

d. The dose required to kill 10% of all cells is called D 0.

Chapter 4
Radiosensitivity and cell age in the mitotic cycle
1. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Autoradiography (a cell-labelling technique) can be used to determine the lengths of the various
phases of the cell cycle.

b. Autoradiography has been used to show that cells synthesize DNA only during the S phase.

c. Autoradiography can be performed using tritiated thymidine or bromodeoxyuridine.

d. All proliferating mammalian cells have cell cycle phases of equal length irrespective of their type.

2. Which of the following statements is false?

a. By "synchronously dividing cell culture" is meant a population of cells in which all cells are at the same
phase of the cell cycle simultaneously.

b. Synchronously dividing cell curves are used to study how the radiosensitivity of the cell varies with the
age of the cell, i.e. with the position of the cell in the cell cycle.

c. The mitotic harvest technique consists in producing a synchronously dividing cell culture by killing all
the cells that are at mitosis.

d. The use of a drug such as hydroxyurea produces a synchronously dividing cell culture by killing all cells
that are in the S phase and by imposing a block at the end of the G 1 phase of the cell cycle.

3. Irradiation with x-rays of HeLa and Chinese hamster cells harvested at mitosis has shown that the
cells are most sensitive when they are:

a. in the M phase of the cell cycle. b. in the G1 phase of the cell cycle.

c. in the G2 phase of the cell cycle. d. in the S phase of the cell cycle.

4. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Cells in the S phase are radioresistant.

b. When the G1 has an appreciable length, it has been shown to be resistant in its early part and
sensitive in its late part.

c. Cells in the G2 phase are resistant. d. The G2 phase is almost as sensitive as the M phase.
5. Mitotic cells under conditions of hypoxia are as radiosensitive as:

a. mitotic cells that are aerated. b. cells in the late S phase. c. cells in the G1 phase.
d. cells in the early S phase.

6. Which of the following statements is false?

a. "Molecular checkpoint genes" are genes that control the cell-cycle progression.

b. One particular molecular checkpoint gene is responsible for halting the cell at G 2 when a small dose
has been delivered to the cell. The purpose of halting the cell cycle at G 2 is to check for chromosome
damage and repair it before the cell attempts to divide. This results in a pilling up of cells in G 2.

c. Cells containing mutant G2-halting genes are more sensitive to ionizing radiation than the wild type, as
they proceed directly to mitosis without previously repairing chromosome damage caused by the
radiation.

d. The inverse dose-rate effect, according which cells become more sensitive to radiation-induced cell
killing as the dose rate is increased, is due to the G 2 pilling up mentioned in answer b.

7. The variation of radiosensitivity as a function of cell age has been found to be qualitatively similar
for x-rays and neutrons but the variation of sensitivity is smaller in the case of neutrons.

a. True. b. False.

8. The variation of cell radiosensitivity with cell age might be due to:

a. changes in the amount or form of the DNA and/or changes in the level of naturally occuring sulfhydryl
compounds in the cell.

b. changes in the oxygen enhancement ratio.

c. the activation of different members of the cyclin-dependent kinase family.

9. The variation of cell radiosensitivity with cell age is important to radiotherapy because:

a. the first dose of radiation synchronizes the cell population.

b. sensitization does not occur in rapidly dividing cells.

c. sensitization does not differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells.

d. the first dose of radiation kills all cells which are at the S phase of the cell cycle.

10. The oxygen enhancement ratio shows a significant variation during the cell cycle.

a. True. b. False.
Chapter 5
Repair of radiation damage and the dose-rate effec
1. Radiation damage is divided into (a) lethal damage, (b) sublethal damage and (c) potentially lethal
damage (PLD). Which of the following statements is true?

a. PLD will cause cell death under ordinary circumstances.

b. PLD cannot be repaired under ordinary circumstances.

c. The variation of postirradiation conditions cannot enhance PLD repair.

d. Mitosis cannot be delayed by suboptimal growth conditions.

e. PLD repair is less likely to occur when mitosis is delayed.

2. By "sublethal damage" is meant:

a. an irreversible damage which leads to cell death.

b. an irreversible damage which does not always lead to cell death.

c. a damage that can be repaired unless it interacts with a subsequently induced sublethal damage.

d. a damage that can be modified by postirradiation environmental conditions.

3. Sublethal damage repair is:

a. connected to PLD repair.

b. responsible for the radioresistance of certain types of tumours.

c. the reason for the increase in cell survival which is observed when a radiation dose is split into two
fractions separated by a time interval.

d. continuously enhanced as the time interval between the two dose fractions mentioned in answer c is
increased.

4. The increase of cell survival because of sublethal damage repair:

a. is not affected by the cell cycle.

b. is hindered by the increase in radiosensitivity as the cells progress around the cell cycle
("reassortment").

c. has no connection to cell synchronization.

d. is not enhanced by cell division ("repopulation").

5. Which of the following statements is true?

a. The strong variations in the cell survival curve which are due to reassortment and repopulation are
observed in the case of rapidly growing cells as well as in the case of slowly growing cells.

b. Sublethal damage repair is a process which is not affected by the presence of oxygen and nutrients.

c. In a fractionated dose regimen, increase in cell survival occurs because the shoulder of the cell
survival curve is repeated every time a dose is delivered.

d. Sublethal damage repair accounts for the increase in cell survival in a split-dose case for all time
intervals between dose fractions.

e. There is no correlation between the extent of sublethal damage repair and the size of the shoulder of
the acute survival curve.

f. Sublethal damage repair is completed within 1 to 2 hours both for cells in culture and for tissues in
vivo.

6. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Sublethal damage repair consists in the repair of double-strand breaks.

b. Dose fractionation affects the cell killing component which is due to double-strand breaks produced
by single-track damage.

c. The amount of sublethal damage repair does not vary with the type of radiation.

d. Sublethal damage repair is not significant in the case of x-rays.

7. The dose-rate effect:

a. is not important in radiotherapy.

b. does not affect significantly the biologic effect of x-rays or gamma rays.

c. consists in the reduction of the biologic effect of a given dose when the exposure time is increased.

d. is not due to sublethal damage repair.

e. has a magnitude that does not depend on cell type.

f. is not affected by cell proliferation.

8. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Cells with a small shoulder in the cell survival curve exhibit a strong dose-rate effect.

b. The dose-rate effect is most important at low doses.

c. The dependence on cell type both of the size of the shoulder in the acute survival curve and of the
magnitude of the dose-rate effect are related to the significance of apoptosis for the specific cell type.

d. When different cell types are compared, their inherent radiosensitivity is shown in the survival curves
obtained at low dose rates rather than high dose rates.

e. At high dose rates, the difference between survival curves of different cell types is enhanced by the
variation with cell type of the sublethal damage repair time.

9. The inverse dose-rate effect is evident in a given interval of dose rates and is due to the fact that,
within this given interval, cells are "frozen" in the phase of the cell cycle they are in at the beginning
of the irradiation in the case of high dose rates; at low dose rates, cells continue to cycle during
irradiation.

a. True. b. False.

Chapter 6
The oxygen effect and reoxygenation
1. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Cells are more sensitive to x-rays in the presence of oxygen than in its absence (i.e. under hypoxia).

b. By "oxygen enhancement ratio" (OER) is meant the ratio of hypoxic to aerated doses needed to
achieve the same biological effect.

c. For sparsely ionizing radiation, the OER is about 3 at high doses and about 2 at low doses (i.e. at doses
of the order of the daily dose per fraction in radiotherapy).

d. The OER does not vary with the phase of the cell cycle.

2. The OER for alpha particles is equal to:

a. 3. b. 2.5 . c. 1.6. d. 1.0.

3. Sensitization by oxygen takes place if oxygen is present:

a. during irradiation.

b. as late as 5 ms after irradiation.

c. as late as 1 h after irradiation.

4. The following sequence of statements explains the "oxygen fixation hypothesis". One of the
statements is false. Find which.

a. The absorption of radiation causes the production of fast charged particles.

b. The charged particles produce ion pairs.

c. The ion pairs produce free radicals (these molecules have an unpaired electron and are thus highly
reactive).

d. The free radicals break chemical bonds, thus initiating the chain of events that results in biologic
damage.

e. All biologic damage is caused by free radicals.

f. A part of the free radicals, produced as explained above, are located on the target molecules (DNA).

g. When oxygen is present, it reacts with the free radicals in the target to produce organic peroxides.
These peroxides constitute a nonrestorable form of the target material (i.e. if they were not formed, the
damaged target molecules would still have the capability to repair themselves).

5. Which of the following statements is false?

a. The oxygen effect can be visualized as a change in the slope of the survival curve (on a log-linear plot)
as oxygen is gradually introduced into the biologic system (i.e. the greater the concentration of oxygen,
the greater the change in the slope).

b. The most sensitive cells are those which are fully aerated ("equilibrated with air"). The most resistant
cells are those that are under the lowest level of hypoxia (i.e. those that have the smallest concentration
of oxygen).

c. The slope of the survival curve increases significantly as the oxygen concentration is increased
between the value corresponding to air and 100%.

d. In the case of x-rays, very small amounts of oxygen are enough to induce dramatic changes in the
radiosensitivity of the irradiated cells.

6. The radiosensitivity of cells under various oxygen concentrations can be expressed by a quantity
proportional to the reciprocal of the D0  value of the curve (i.e. by a quantity which is proportional to
the final slope of the survival curve).

a. True. b. False.

7. The radiosensitivity of cells under full oxygenation is a factor of 10 greater than the radiosensitivity
of cells under anoxia.

a. True. b. False.
8. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Rapid increase in radiosensitivity is observed when the partial pressure of oxygen is increased from 0
to 30 mm Hg.

b. Further increase in oxygen tension from 30 mm Hg to 760 mm Hg (i.e. 100% oxygen) has a significant
effect in cell radiosensitivity.

c. An oxygen tension of 3 mm Hg results in a radiosensitivity halfway between anoxia and full

oxygenation.

d. Oxygen tension in different tissues varies between 1 mm Hg and 100 mm Hg.

9. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Hypoxia in tumours can result from two different mechanisms: chronic hypoxia and acute hypoxia.

b. Chronic hypoxia is caused by a temporary closing of a blood vessel in the tumour.

c. Acute hypoxia is caused by the limited diffusion distance of oxygen through tissue that is respiring.

d. Oxygen does not affect the radiosensitivity of tumours.

10. Which of the following statements referring to chronic hypoxia is true?

a. The centers of large tumours are necrotic and surrounded by intact tumour cells.

b. As the tumour grows, the necrotic center remains unchanged.

c. Both large and small tumours have a necrotic center.

d. The necrosis observed in the center of large tumours is not caused by the absence of oxygen.

11. The distance to which oxygen can diffuse in tumour cells:

a. is the same as in normal cells.

b. is limited in comparison to normal cells because oxygen is metabolized faster in tumour cells.

c. is approximately 70 micrometers at the venous end of a capillary and less at the arterial end.

12. Tumour cells at which the oxygen tension is high enough for them to be clonogenic but low
enough for them to be radioresistant are called:

a. Normoxic.

b. Anoxic (necrotic).

c. Hypoxic viable.
13. Which of the following statements referring to acute hypoxia in tumour cells is false:

a. Tumour blood vessels open and close in a random fashion.

b. Acute hypoxia is due to blood-flow instability.

c. Most cells with acute hypoxia eventually die.

14. The difference between chronic hypoxia and acute hypoxia is that in the latter case the cells return
to the normoxic state.

a. True. b. False.

15. The probability to kill tumour cells which are in an acute hypoxic state increases when the dose is
fractionated (in comparison to the single dose case).

a. True. b. False.

16. The fraction of hypoxic cells in human tumours has been estimated to be:

a. 5%. b. 10-15 %. c. 20-25%. d. 50%.

17. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Oxygen probes are electrodes implanted directly into tumours to measure oxygen concentration.

b. Oxygen probes can be used before treatment as a predictive assay.

c. Oxygen probe measurements have been shown to correlate with local control of certain tumour
types.

d. Hypoxia is not considered to be an indication of tumour aggression.

18. The fraction of hypoxic cells in a tumour is approximately the same before and after a single dose
has been delivered to the tumour if sufficient time is allowed to elapse.

a. True. b. False.

19. "Reoxygenation" is a phenomenon by which:

a. acute hypoxic cells become normoxic.

b. oxygen contained in a high pressure chamber is allowed to "explode" onto a layer of irradiated tissue
at given time intervals after irradiation.

c. oxygen diffuses to the necrotic center of the tumour.

d. hypoxic cells become oxygenated after a dose of radiation.

20. If reoxygenation did not take place, the fraction of hypoxic cells after a fractionated radiotherapy
regimen would:

a. increase. b. decrease. c. remain constant.

21. The extent and rapidity of reoxygenation in various types of tumours are:

a. quantitatively similar. b. very variable and impossible to predict. c. approximately the

same.

Chapter 7
Linear energy transfer and relative biological effectiveness
1. For a given radiation type, the density of ionization:

a. increases with the velocity of the ionizing particle.

b. decreases with the velocity of the ionizing particle.

c. is independent of the velocity of the ionizing particle.

2. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Linear energy transfer (LET) is the energy transferred to the biologic material per unit mass of the
material.

b. LET is the quotient dE/dl, where dE is the energy that a particle lost in causing an ionization and dl is
the distance that the ionizing particle travels between two ionizations.

c. LET is the quotient dE/dl, where dE is the average energy locally imparted to the medium by a charged
particle when the particle has traversed a distance dl.

3. The "track average" method and the "energy average" method for calculating LET give different
numerical values in the case of:

a. x-rays and gamma rays. b. protons. c. alpha particles. d. neutrons.

4. Which of the following statements is true?

a. LET is used to describe the quality of different types of radiation.

b. The higher the LET value, the lower the biologic effectiveness of the radiation.

c. The LET value of 60Co gamma rays is 5 keV/micrometer.

d. The LET value of 10 MeV protons is 0.2 keV/micrometer.
5. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Equal doses of different types of radiation have the same biologic effect.

b. The "relative biologic effectiveness" (RBE) is used to compare different types of radiation.

c. In the definition of RBE, the reference radiation is 1 MeV gamma rays.

d. The RBE of a radiation r is equal to Dr/D250, where Dr and D250 are the doses of the radiation r and of
250 kV x-rays, respectively, that produce the same biologic effect.

6. If the LD50  for 250 kV x-rays is 6 Gy and the LD50  of a neutron beam is 4 Gy, the RBE of the neutron
beam is equal to 1.5.

a. True. b. False.

7. As the dose decreases, the RBE of a given radiation type:

a. increases. b. decreases. c. remains constant.

8. Fractionation introduces a "waste in dose", which is more pronounced for beams with a wide
shoulder than for beams with a narrow shoulder in the survival curve.

a. True. b. False.

9. The RBE of a given beam does not depend on:

a. the total dose delivered to the tissue.

b. the number of fractions in which the dose is delivered to the tissue (in the case of a fractionated
regimen).

c. the dose-rate (in the case of continuous irradiation).

d. the type of irradiated tissue.

e. the endpoint studied.

f. the phase of the cell cycle in which the irradiated cells are at the moment the irradiation begins.

g. the radiation quality (LET).

10. The RBE varies with increasing LET as follows:

a. it increases slowly at low LET values and more rapidly at high LET values up to 500 keV/micrometer.

b. it increases with LET values up to 100 keV/micrometer and subsequently decreases with increasing
LET. c. it is a constant function of LET.
11. There is an optimal LET value for the production of a biologic effect because:

a. lower LET values involve "wasting" of radiation energy.

b. this LET value corresponds to an average separation between ionizing events which is approximately
equal to the diameter of the DNA molecule.

c. radiations with higher LET values have a low probability of producing a double-strand break by the
passage of a single charged particle.

12. RBE values are low for tissues that accumulate and repair a substantial amount of sublethal
damage and high for tissues that do not.

a. True. b. False.

13. The relation between OER and LET is as follows:

a. OER is a constant fuction of LET.

b. OER has a value of about 3 at high LET values and then decreases to zero at low LET values.

c. OER has a value of about 3 at low LET values and then decreases to unity at high LET values
(approximately 200 keV/micrometer).

14. An absorbed dose of 0.1 Gy of radiation with a radiation weighting factor of 20 corresponds to an
equivalent dose of:

a. 0.2 Sv. b. 2 Sv. c. 20 Sv.

8. The main interaction process(es) of neutrons in biologic matter are:

a. Magnetic scattering.

b. Coulomb scattering by orbital electrons.

c. Fission.

d. Elastic and inelastic scattering by nuclei.

9. All types of radiation can induce biologic effects by direct or indirect action.

a. True.

b. False.

10. What is the main reason for the difference in biologic effects caused by neutrons and photons?

a. The energy of the radiation.

b. The fact that the charged particles produced by neutrons are, for the most part, positively charged.

c. The density of ionization.

d. The fact that neutrons can interact with nuclei.