MICROBIOLOGY/ PARASITOLOGY EXAM c.

Absent B-and T-cells

d. Total absence of T-cells
SCORE (if applicable):
8. A woman with infertility receives an ovary
NAME: transplant from her sister who is an identical
twin. What type of graft is?
INSTRUCTIONS: HIGHLIGHT the ENTIRE WORD a. Xenograft
of your chosen answer with a yellow marker. Do b. Autograft
not color the word, neither type the letter of c. Allograft
your choice. d. Isograft

1. Lysis of red cells in autoimmune anemias and 9. The spread of antibiotic resistance from one
hemolytic disease of the newborn are examples bacterium to another is a wellrecognized
of: and clinically important phenomenon. Which
a. Type I hypersensitivity one of the following mechanisms is most likely
b. Type II hypersensitivity to be involved with the spread of resistance?
c. Type III hypersensitivity (A) Acetylation
d. Type IV hypersensitivity (B) Conjugation
(C) Programmed rearrangement
2. Which of the following is an immune complex (D) Protoplast mobility
mediated disease? (E) Translation
a. Bronchial asthma
b. Rheumatoid arthritis 10.Which one of the following is the
c. Good pasture immunogen in the vaccine against
d. Tuberculin skin test Streptococcus pneumoniae?
(A) Capsular polysaccharide
3. Which of the following is type IV (B) Endotoxin
hypersensitivity reaction? (C) Formaldehyde-killed organisms
a. Arthus reaction (D) Pilus protein
b. Serum sickness (E) Toxoid
c. Schwartzman reaction
d. Granulomatous disease 11. Disease caused by which one of the
following bacteria is prevented by a toxoid
4. According to national immunization schedule, vaccine?
which of the following is recommended for a (A) Bacteroides fragilis
child of 5-year of age? (B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
a. Pentavalent vaccine and vitamin A (C) Neisseria meningitidis
b. DT booster (D) Salmonella typhi
c. DT, OPV and vitamin A (E) Vibrio cholerae
d. DPT booster and vitamin A
12. Passive immunity is used to prevent or to
5. Which is not an autoimmune disorder? treat disease caused by which one of the
a. Myasthenia gravis following sets of bacteria?
b. Sickle cell anemia (A) Clostridium tetani and Clostridium
c. Graves’ disease botulinum
d. SLE (B) Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus aureus
(C) Neisseria meningitidis and Bacillus anthracis
6. Chronic granulomatous disorder is due to (D) Streptococcus pneumoniae and
defect in: Haemophilus influenzae
a. B-cell (E) Streptococcus pyogenes and Salmonella
b. NADPH oxidase typhi
c. IgA
d. T-cell 13.The coronavirus SARS epidemic of 2002–
2003 resulted in many cases and deaths. What
7. Which is found in DiGeorge’s syndrome is the primary route of transmission of
a. Tetany human coronaviruses?
b. Eczema (A) Fecal–oral
(B) Respiratory from Colombia presented with a painful
(C) Blood ulcerative lesion on the tongue. The edge of the
(D) Perinatal mother-to-infant lesion was gently scraped and a calcofluor
(E) Sexual activity white– potassium hydroxide smear revealed
tissue cells, debris, and several large, spherical,
14.The following are common characteristics of multiply budding yeast cells. Based on
coronaviruses, except for one. Which is not this observation, what is the most likely
correct? diagnosis?
(A) Possess cross-reactive antigens with (A) Blastomycosis
influenza viruses (B) Candidiasis
(B) Contain the largest genomes among RNA (C) Coccidioidomycosis
viruses (D) Histoplasmosis
(C) Can cause gastroenteritis (E) Paracoccidioidomycosis
(D) Are distributed worldwide
20.Which one of the following pathogenic
15.A traveler returning from Mecca presents yeasts is not a common member of the normal
with pneumonia, fever, and cough. What is the human flora or microbiota?
best test to diagnose MERS coronavirus? (A) C. tropicalis
(A) Coronavirus antigen assay (B) M. globosa
(B) Human coronavirus PCR (C) C. neoformans
(C) MERS-CoV PCR (D) C. glabrata
(D) Respiratory viral culture (E) C. albicans

16.Which statement regarding fungi is correct? 21.Pneumatoceles in chest X-ray are

(A) All fungi are able to grow as yeasts and characteristically seen in pneumonia due to:
molds. a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
(B) Although fungi are eukaryotes, they lack b. Staphylococcus aureus
mitochondria. c. Streptococcus pyogenes
(C) Fungi are photosynthetic. d. Hemophilus influenzae
(D) Fungi have one or more nuclei and
chromosomes. 22.Toxic epidermal necrosis and Scalded Skin
(E) Few fungi possess cell membranes. Syndrome are associated with which toxin?
a. Exfoliative toxin of S.aureus
17.An 8-year-old boy develops a circular dry, b. TSST of S.aureus
scaly, and pruritic lesion on his leg. What is the c. Enterotoxin of S.aureus
diagnostic significance of observing branching, d. SPE of S.pyogenes
septate, nonpigmented hyphae in a potassium
hydroxide/calcofluor white preparation of a 23.Surrogate marker for MRSA detection is?
scraping from this skin lesion? a. Cefotaxime
(A) Chromobastomycosis b. Ceftazidime
(B) Dermatophytosis c. Cephazolin
(C) Phaeohyphomycosis d. Cefoxitin
(D) Sporotrichosis
(E) No diagnostic significance 24.All the following are true about
Staphylococcus aureus EXCEPT:
18.The potassium hydroxide examination of a. Coagulase positive
sputum from a heart transplant patient with b. Catalase negative
fever and pulmonary infiltrates contains c. DNAse positive
oval budding yeast cells and pseudohyphae. d. Indole negative
What is the diagnostic significance?
(A) Aspergillosis 25.What is the best way to control the outbreak
(B) Candidiasis of MRSA infection in a hospital ward?
(C) Hyalohyphomycosis a. Vancomycin is given empirically to all the
(D) Phaeohyphomycosis patients
(E) No diagnostic significance b. Frequent fumigation of wards
c. Wearing mask before invasive procedure
19.A 24-year-old, HIV-negative migrant worker d. Washing of hands before and after treating
the patients c. Streptolysin S
d. Streptococcus pyogenic exotoxin
26.A person had infection due to gram positive
organism treated with methicillin and then 33.A child presents with sepsis. Bacteria isolated
culture sensitivity shows resistance to it. Hence showed β hemolysis on blood agar, resistant to
all can be given in MRSA, EXCEPT: bacitracin and a positive CAMP test. The most
a. Cotrimoxazole probable organism is:
b. Cefaclor a. S. pyogenes
c. Vancomycin b. S. agalactiae
d. Ciprofloxacin c. Enterococcus
d. Pneumococcus
27.Most common cause of pyomyositis is:
a. Streptococcus pyogenes 34.A patient of RHD developed infective
b. Pseudomonas endocarditis after dental extraction. Most likely
c. Staphylococcs aureus organism causing this is:
d. E. Coli a. Streptococcus viridans
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
28.A patient has prosthetic valve replacement c. Streptococcus pyogenes
and he develops endocarditis 8 months later. d. Staphylococcus aureus
Organism responsible is:
a. Staphylococcus aureus 35.Patient is presented with cough with rusty
b. Streptococcus Viridans sputum. On examination, lower lobe
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis consolidation and bronchial breath sounds were
d. HACEK heard. It gives a positive Quellung reaction.
What is the probable Gram staining
29.A 25-year-old man with 3 weeks fever appearance?
presented with tricuspid valve vegetation. a. Gram -ve bacilli
Patient is intravenous drug abuser. Most b. Gram +ve cocci
common cause of endocarditis in this c. Gram+ve bacilli
patient is: d. Gram - ve diplococci
a. Staph. aureus
b. Candida albicans 36.Most common organism causing acute otitis
c. Pseudomonas media in a 4-8 year child?
d. Strep. Viridian a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Moraxella catarrhalis
30.Which is the most common organism c. Staphylococcus aureus
implicated in the causation of botryomycosis? d. Shigella
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus albus 37.Most common causative organism for lobar
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa pneumonia is:
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
31.A 25-year-old female presented to the c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
hospital on the third day of menstruation with d. Haemophilus influenzae
complaints of high fever, vomiting and a rash on
her trunk and extremities. On investigation she 38.A 16-year-old male patient presents with
had leucocytosis and a negative blood culture. headache, fever and neck stiffness for the past
She is diagnosed as: 24 hours. Similar history was present one year
a. Staphylococcal food poisoning back. CSF analysis shows WBC count–400/ml,
b. Scalded skin syndrome with 90% neutrophils. Gram staining shows
c. Toxic shock syndrome gram negative diplococci. The immune system
d. Varicella zoster infection affected in this condition is: (question 2014)
a. B lymphocytes
32.Streptococcus toxin which is responsible for b. T lymphocytes
connective tissue breakdown? c. Immunoglobulins
a. Hyaluronidase d. Complement system
b. Streptolysin O 39.Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome is a
complication seen in infection with: necrotizing enteritis?
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Neisseria meningitidis b. Clostridium tetani
c. Escherichia coli c. Clostridium perfringens A
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Clostridium perfringens C

40.Which among the following differentiates 48.Mechanism of action of tetanospasmin:

Neisseria meningitidis from Neisseria a. Inhibition of GABA release
gonorrhoeae? b. Inhibition cAMP
a. It is oxidase positive c. Inactivation of Ach receptors
b. It ferments glucose d. Inhibition of cGMP
c. It ferments maltose
d. It reduces nitrates 49.Site of action of tetanus toxin:
a. Presynaptic terminal of spinal cord
41.The type of diphtheria with highest mortality b. Postsynaptic terminal of spinal cord
is: c. Neuromuscular junction
a. Pharyngeal d. Muscle fibers
b. Nasal
c. Laryngeal 50.A 25-year-boy is presented with deep injury
d. Conjunctival and abrasions on the left shoulder, thigh and leg
with immunization status unknown. What is to
42.Eschar is formed by which of the following be given now?
organism? a. DTaP only
a. B. henselae b. DTaP + Ig
b. B. anthracis c. dTonly
c. Staph aureus d. dT + Ig
d. E. coli
51.A 10-year-old boy following a road traffic
43.Inverted fir tree appearance is characteristic: accident presents to the casualty with
a. Bacillus anthrax contaminated wound over the left leg. He has
b. Haemophilus influenzae received his complete primary immunization
c. Yersinia pestis before preschool age and received a booster of
d. Brucella DT at school entry age. All of the following
can be done EXCEPT:
44.Chinese restaurant syndrome after eating a. Injection of TT
fried rice and vanilla sauce is due to: b. Injection of human antiserum
a. Clostridium perfringens c. Broad spectrum antibiotics
b. Bacillus cereus d. Wound debridement and cleaning
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Clostridium botulinum 52.All are done to prevent neonatal tetanus
EXCEPT:
45.Gas gangrene and Tetanus caused by which a. Two TT doses to all pregnant
group of bacteria: b. TT to all females in the reproductive age
a. Campylobacter c. TT to all new borne
b. Clostridium d. Penicillin injection to all new borne
c. Citrobacter
d. Cardiobacterium 53.A person has got a non penetrating wound
11 hour back. He had taken complete course of
46.A male is presented with left mid thigh TT 1 year back. What treatment is
crushed injury. Which is the most essential step recommended next?
to prevent gas gangrene in this patient? a. Full course of tetanus toxoid
a. Wound debridement b. Single dose of tetanus toxoid
b. Anti gas gangrene serum c. Nothing required
c. Anti tetanus d. Human Tet globulin and single dose of toxoid
d. Hyperbaric oxygen
54.An adult with no immunization history
47.Which of the following most likely cause presents with a clean non penetrating wound 2
hrs back. What measure has to be taken? d. M. kansasi
a. Full course of tetanus toxoid
b. Single dose of tetanus toxoid 61.At the end of paucibacillary multidrug
c. Nothing required therapy for 6 months, if the skin lesions
d. Human Tet globulin and single dose of toxoid (persistence erythema and induration in the
plaque) persists, then what is the next step
55.An 18-year-old male presented with acute according to WHO guidelines?
onset descending paralysis of 3 days duration. a. Stop antileprosy treatment
There is also history of blurring of vision for the b. Continue same treatment till erythema
same duration. On examination, the patient has subsides
quadriparesis with areflexia. Both the pupils are c. Biopsy of the lesion to document activity
nonreactive. The most d. Continue dapsone alone for 6 month more
probably diagnosis is:
a. Poliomyelitis 62.Lepromin test is valuable for:
b. Botulism a. Diagnosis
c. Diphtheria b. Response to treatment
d. Porphyria c. Epidemiological reason
d. To test humoral immunity
56.A patient of Acute lymphocytic leukemia
with fever and neutropenia develops diarrhea 63.Leprosy affects all EXCEPT:
after administration of amoxycillin therapy, a. Testes
which of the following organism is most likely to b. Ovary
be the causative agent: c. Eye
a. Salmonella Typhi d. Nerve
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Clostridium perfringens 64.Which is not an important cause of neonatal
d. Shigella flexneri sepsis?
a. E. coli
57.A patient presents with frontal abscess. Foul b. Group B Streptococci
smelling pus is aspirated. Pus shows red c. Acinetobacter
fluorescence on ultraviolet examination. The d. Staph. Auerus
most likely organism causing the frontal abscess
is: 65.A young lady presents with fever, dysuria
a. Bacteroides and pain abdomen. Uncomplicated acute
b. Peptostreptococcus cystitis was diagnosed. Which among the
c. Pseudomonas following is not true?
d. Acanthamoeba a. E.coli count was < 103/ml
b. 1 pus cell per 7 fields
58.Multidrug therapy is given for tuberculosis c. 1 bacilli per field
because. d. Nitrate test positive
a. To delay development of resistance
b. To reduce toxicity 66.All are catalase positive EXCEPT:
c. To broaden antimicrobial spectrum a. Shigella flexneri
d. To prevent toxin release from the organism b. Shigella boydii
c. Shigella dysenteriae type 1
59.Fish tank granuloma is caused by: d. Shigella sonnei
a. M. kansasi
b. M.marinum 67.Salmonella Typhi is the causative agent of
c. M.paratuberculosis typhoid fever. The infective dose of S. Typhi is:
d. M.gordonae a. One bacillus
e. M.scrofulaceum b. 108–1010 bacilli
c. 102–105 bacilli
60.Rapidly growing Atypical organism involved d. 1–10 bacilli
in lung infection:
a. M. chelonae 68.Drug commonly used against enteric fever
b. M. fortuitum are all EXCEPT:
c. M. abscessus a. Amikacin
b. Ciprofloxacin Betalactamase
c. Ceftriaxone b. H.influenzae stains are known to have altered
d. Azithromycin penicillin binding proteins
c. Cefotaxime is easier to administer than
69.A 24-year–old cook in a hostel mess suffered ampicillin
from enteric fever 2 years back. The chronic d. Drug of choice for this condition is
carrier state in this patient can be diagnosed by: sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim but
a. Vi agglutination test cannot be given
b. Blood culture in Brain Heart infusion broth
c. Widal test 76.HACEK group includes all EXCEPT:
d. Bone marrow culture a. Haemophilus aprophillus
b. Acinetobacter baumanii
70.A girl from India presented to OPD with c. Eikenella corrodens
fever, hypotension, malaise and axillary and d. Cardiobacterium hominis
inguinal lymphadenopathy. Culture in glucose
broth shows stalactite growth. Most likely 77.A patient presented to a STD clinic with
causative organism is: painful genital ulcer and painful, soft
a. Yersinia pestis nonindurated enlarged inguinal lymph node.
b. Francisella tularensis Identify the pathogen?
c. Brucella abortus a. H.ducreyi
d. Coxiella burnetii b. T.pallidum
c. Calymmatobacter
71.Children with Thalassemia and iron overload d. Herpes
are at an increased risk for infection with:
a. Yersinia enterocolitica 78.A-7-month old infant with the history of
b. Campylobacter jejuni incomplete childhood vaccination presents with
c. Escherichia coli bouts of spasmodic cough with cyanosis and a
d. Vibrio cholerae typical inspiratory whoop. Which is most
appropriate clinical specimen to be collected for
72.The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in the isolation of pathogen?
contacts of a patient of pneumonic plague is: a. ‘Cough plate culture’
a. Penicillin b. Per oral swab
b. Rifampicin c. Nasopharyngeal swab
c. Erythromycin d. Endotracheal aspirate
d. Tetracycline
79.Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the
73.Which of the following is NOT a source of following, EXCEPT:
infection in plague? a. Contact with infected placenta
a. Case of bubonic plague b. Ingestion of raw vegetables from infected
b. Case of pneumonic plague forms
c. Infected rodents c. Person to person transmission
d. Infected rat fleas d. Inhalation of infected dust or aerosol

74.A stool examination was carried out which 80.A newborn premature baby presented with
showed organism with darting motility. Which bullous lesions on skin and a shin on knee. X-ray
of the following organism may be present in shows periostitis. Best investigation for
stool: diagnosis is:
a. V.cholerae a. VDRL from mother and baby
b. Shigella b. PCR for tuberculosis
c. Salmonella c. HBsAg detection
d. E. coli d. ELISA for HIV

75.In a child admitted with Haemophilus 81.25-year-old laborer 3 years back presented
Influenzae meningitis, Cefotaxime was started with penile ulcer not treated. Later he
instead of ampicillin. Which of these is the likely presented with neurological symptoms for
reason for this? which he got treated. Test to monitor
a. H.influenzae stains are known to produce response to treatment is:
a. VDRL history of fever, icterus, conjunctival suffusion
b. FTA-ABS and hematuria for twenty days. Which of the
c. TPI following serological test can be of diagnostic
d. RPR utility:
a. Widal test
82. 23-year-old guy with painless penile ulcer b. Microscopic Agglutination Test
and painless lymphadenopathy. What is the c. Paul Bunuel test
diagnosis? d. Weil-Felix reaction
a. Chancroid
b. Donovanosis 88. A patient is presented with rashes all over
c. Syphilis body sparing palm and soles. He does not have
d. Herpes h/o of animal exposure. This condition may be
associated with which of the following
83. A 23-year-old male had unprotected sexual rickettsial infection?
intercourse with a commercial sex worker. Two a. Epidemic typhus
weeks later, he developed a painless, indurated b. Q fever
ulcer on the glans c. RMSF
that exuded clear serum on pressure. Inguinal d. Rickettsial pox
lymph nodes in both groins were enlarged and
not tender. The most appropriate diagnostic 89.Mite is a vector for:
test is: a. R. typhi
a. Gram’s stain of ulcer discharge b. R.prowazeki
b. Dark field microscopy of ulcer discharge c. R. rickettsii
c. Giemsa stain of lymph node aspirate d. R. tsutsugamushi
d. ELISA for HIV infection e. R.conori

84. Most common Mode of acquisition of 90.Which one of the following is implicated in
leptospirosis is: the etiology of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?
a. Skin and mucous membrane a. Chlamydial infection
b. Rat bite b. Gastric perforation
c. Ingestion c. Perforation of dermoid cyst
d. Inhalation d. Liver metastases in ovarian cancer

85. A sewer worker comes with high grade 91.Gram-positive short rods are seen in the CSF
fever, neck rigidity and signs of meningismus. sample of a new borne child suffering from
Lab findings suggestive of renal failure and lethargy, fever and seizure. Organism
elevated liver enzymes. Most appropriate drug? responsible is:
a. Benzylpenicillin a. Group B Streptococcus
b. Ciprofloxacin b. Listeria
c. Doxycycline c. Clostridium tetani
d. Cotrimoxazole d. Bacillus anthracis

86. A 25-year-old farmer presented with history 92.45 year old female patient presents with
of high grade fever for 7 days and altered duodenal ulcer. The most sensitive test for the
sensorium for 2 days. On examination, he was detection of H. pylori is:
comatosed and had conjunctival hemorrhage. a. Urea breath test
Urgent investigations showed hemoglobin of 11 b. Serology
gm/dl, serum bilirubin 8 mg/dl and urea 78 c. Biopsy and culture
mg/dl. Peripheral blood smear was negative for d. Stool antigen test
malarial parasite. What is the most likely
diagnosis: 93.Pontiac fever is caused by:
a. Brucellosis a. Legionella
b. Weil’s disease b. Listeria
c. Acute viral hepatitis c. Scrub typhus
d. Q-fever d. Leptospira
e. Rickettsia
87. A fourteen year old body is admitted with
94.A 50-Year-old man is diagnosed to be d. Recurrent respiratory papilloma
suffering from Legionnaires’ disease after the
returns home from attending a convention. He 100. Egg allergy, which vaccine is
could have acquired it: contraindicated:
a. From a person suffering from the infection a. MMR vaccine
while travelling in the aeroplane b. Hepatitis B
b. From a chronic carrier in the convention c. DPT
center d. Yellow fever vaccine
c. From inhalation of the aerosol in the air
conditioned
room at convention center
e. By sharing an infected towel with a fellow
delegate at the convention

95. A 25 year female came with multiple painful

tiny vesicular ulcers over vulva and vaginal
walls. On examination there is painful enlarged
lymph nodes. The causative organism might be?
a. C.granulomatis
b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. H.ducreyi
d. HSV-2

96. A baby is delivered with scarring of the skin

and deformed limbs. Which of the following
intrauterine infection can be held responsible?
a. CMV
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Varicella
d. Rubella

97. A mother delivers a baby three days after

developing chickenpox. Which of the following
is true?
a. No risk to both mother and baby
b. Baby has a risk of congenital Varicella
infection
c. Give antiviral treatment to mother
d. Give no treatment to mother and give
antiviral treatment to baby

98. A 40-year-old man underwent kidney

transplantation. Two months after
transplantation, he developed fever and feature
suggestive of bilateral diffuse interstitial
pneumonitis. Which of the following is most
likely etiologic agent:
a. Herpes simplex virus
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Varicella Zoster virus

99. Human Papilloma Virus is associated with all

of the following cancers EXCEPT:
a. Carcinoma base of tongue
b. Tonsillar carcinoma
c. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma