Assessment 1

Questions: 40 Time: 1 hour

1. Which is an example of structured data?

A. Image

B. PDF document

C. Database **

D. Web page

2. Which is true about big data?

A. Includes only unstructured data

B. Includes data from a single source

C. Captured efficiently using traditional software tools

D. Data size is beyond the capability of traditional software to process **

3. Which is a feature of information-centric architecture?

A. Storage is internal to the servers

B. Prevents sharing of storage among servers

C. Consists of server, network, and storage in a single system

D. Storage is managed centrally and independent of servers **

4. What accurately describes virtualization?

A. Provides on-demand, metered services

B. Abstracts physical resources into logical resources **

C. Pools logical resources to provide data integrity

D. Enables decentralized management across data centers

A. Availability

B. Manageability

C. Integrity

D. Scalability **

6. Which is a benefit of compute virtualization?

A. Enables compute memory swapping

B. Improves compute utilization **

C. Isolates compute memory from the applications

D. Isolates compute OS from the applications

7. What best describes virtual machines (VMs)?

A. All VMs on a physical server must run same OS

B. VM files are deleted when VM is powered off

C. VMs are discrete sets of files **

D. All VMs share available resources equally

8. What is concatenation?

A. Grouping multiple physical drives into a logical drive **

B. Dividing a physical drive into multiple logical drives

C. Process of writing disk metadata on a logical drive

D. Adding more capacity to a physical drive through de-fragmentation

A. Disk buffer time, full stroke, and rotation latency

B. Internal transfer rate, external transfer rate, and buffer time

C. Full stroke, average seek time, and track-to-track seek time

D. Average seek time, rotational latency, and data transfer rate **

10. Which is a challenge of DAS environment?

A. Low performance

B. Limited scalability **

C. Deployment complexity

D. High initial investment

11. Which statement is true about software RAID implementation?

A. Upgrades to operating system do not require compatibility validation with

B. It is expensive than hardware RAID implementation

C. Supports all RAID levels

D. Uses host CPU cycles to perform RAID calculations **

12. An application generates 400 small random IOPS with a read/write ratio of 3:1. What
is the RAID-corrected IOPS on the disk for RAID 5?

A. 400

B. 500

C. 700 **

D. 900
13. What is write penalty in a RAID 6 configuration for small random I/Os?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6 **

14. Which application is most benefited by using RAID 3?

A. Backup **

B. OLTP

C. e-commerce

D. email

15. What is the stripe size of a five disk parity RAID 5 set that has a strip size of 64 KB?

A. 64 KB

B. 128 KB

C. 256 KB **

D. 320 KB

16. Which component of an intelligent storage system isolates host from the mechanical
delays associated with rotating disks?

A. Front-end controller

B. Back-end controller

C. Cache **

D. Storage network
17. Which mode of flushing is activated when the cache reaches 100% of its capacity?

A. Idle

B. High watermark

C. Forced **

D. Low watermark

18. In traditional storage provisioning, which LUN expansion technique provides

A. Concatenated metaLUN

B. Striped metaLUN **

C. Base LUN

D. Component LUN

19. Which process provides data access control by restricting host access to specific
LUN(s)?

A. LUN masking **

B. Zoning

C. Trespassing

D. VSAN

20. Which mechanism provides protection to ‘uncommitted data in cache’ against power
failure?

A. Mirroring

B. Vaulting **

C. Watermarking

D. Tiering
21. Which cable type provides minimum signal attenuation over long distance?

A. Twisted-pair copper

B. Coaxial copper

C. Single-mode optical **

D. Multimode optical

22. What is an F_Port in FC SAN?

A. Switch port that connects an E_Port

B. Switch port that connects an N_Port **

C. Node port that connects an N_Port

D. Node port that connects an E_Port

23. Which type of fabric login enables the exchange of upper layer protocol-related
parameters between N_Ports?

A. Fabric login

B. Port login

C. Process login **

D. ULP login

24. Which is a benefit of zoning in FC SAN?

A. Isolates fabric services

B. Restricts RSCN traffic **

C. Enables online volume expansion

D. Provides non-disruptive data migration

A. Eliminates need for fabric login process

B. Provides higher network bandwidth

C. Improves security by isolating traffic between VSANs **

D. Enables VSANs to share fabric zoning service

26. Which iSCSI host connectivity option offloads both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing from
the host CPU?

A. Standard NIC with iSCSI initiator software

B. TOE NIC

C. iSCSI HBA **

D. CNA

27. Which type of iSCSI name requires a registered domain name to generate unique
iSCSI identifier?

A. eui

B. iqn **

C. WWN

D. MAC

28. Which protocol encapsulates FC frames onto IP packet?

A. FCoE

B. iSCSI

C. FCIP **

D. CIFS
29. Which is a feature of priority-based flow control?

A. A virtual link can be paused independently **

B. All virtual links are paused together

C. Enables pausing virtual links based on their bandwidth

D. Enables pausing individual physical links based on their priority

30. Which functionality enables allocation of bandwidth to different traffic classes in an

A. Priority-based flow control

B. Enhanced transmission selection **

C. Congestion notification

D. Data center bridging exchange

31. Which component of a NAS head translates file-level requests into block-storage
requests?

A. Front-end ports

B. Optimized operating system **

C. CIFS and NFS

D. Network Interface Card

32. Which is a feature of scale-out NAS?

A. Uses general purpose operating system for file serving

B. Creates multiple file systems on each node in the cluster

C. Uses external and independently-managed nodes

D. Enables pooling of nodes that work as a single NAS device **

A. Uses dedicated storage for each NAS head

B. NAS head and storage are managed independently **

C. Creates a single file system that runs on all NAS heads

D. Provides connectivity to iSCSI and FC hosts

34. Which NAS implementation consolidates file-based and block-based access on a

A. Scale-out

B. Gateway

C. Unified **

D. Both gateway and scale-out

35. Which is a benefit of file-level virtualization?

A. Enables users to use physical path, rather than logical path, to access files

B. Translates file-level request into block-storage request non disruptively

C. Consolidates NAS-based and SAN-based access on a single storage platform

D. Eliminates dependency between data accessed at file level and file location
**

36. What is an advantage of a flat address space over a hierarchical address space?

A. Highly scalable with minimal impact on performance **

B. Provides access to data, based on retention policies

C. Provides access to block, file, and object with same interface

D. Consumes less bandwidth on network while accessing data

A. Responsible for storing data in the form of objects

B. Stores unique IDs generated for objects **

C. Stores both objects and object IDs

D. Controls functioning of storage devices

38. What is used to generate an object ID in a CAS system?

A. File metadata

B. Source and destination address

C. Binary representation of data **

D. File system type and ownership

39. What accurately describes block I/O access in a unified storage?

A. I/O traverse NAS head and storage controller to disk

B. I/O traverse OSD node and storage controller to disk

C. I/O traverse storage controller to disk **

D. I/O is directly sent to the disk

40. What accurately describes unified storage?

A. Provides block, file, and object-based access within one platform **

B. Provides block and file storage access using objects

C. Supports block and file access using flat address space

D. Specialized storage device purposely built for archiving