RELEASED EXAMINATION

ANATOMIC SCIENCES (11)

BIOCHEMISTRY-PHYSIOLOGY (12)

PART l
MONDAY - A.M.
DECEMBER 1998

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COPYRIGHT 1998
JOINT COMMISSION ON NATIONAL DENTAL EXAMINATIONS
AMERICAN DENTAL ASSOCIATION
211 EAST CHICAGO AVENUE, CHICAGO, ILLINOIS 60611

1.

Which of the following does a human normally

possess before birth but not after?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

7.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Fossa ovalis
Hepatic vein
Ligamentum teres
Ductus arteriosus
Crista terminalis

E.

8.

2.

The core of a microvillus consists of which of the

following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

3.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

4.

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Membrane bound vesicles
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondrion
Golgi complex

In adults, the thyroid gland's point of origin is

seen as the

E.

9.

5.

Which of the following triangles is formed by the

superior belly of the omohyoid muscle, the
anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid
muscle, and the posterior belly of the digastric
muscle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

6.

copula.
tuberculum impar.
sulcus terminalis.
palatine tonsil.
foramen cecum.

Superclavicular
Submandibular
Digastric
Muscular
Carotid

Sensations from the left face and teeth are

interpreted in which of the following lobes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Left frontal
Right frontal
Left parietal
Right parietal
Right temporal

occipital somites.
first pharyngeal (branchial) arch.
second pharyngeal (branchial) arch.
third pharyngeal (branchial) arch.
fourth pharyngeal (branchial) arch.

After a right side radical mastoid operation, a

patient has facial distortion and the mouth is
drawn upward to the left. He is unable to close
his right eye. Saliva tends to accumulate in his
right cheek and dribble out of the corner of his
mouth. Which of the following nerves MOST
likely was damaged during the operation?
A.
B.
C.
D.

E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

colon.
jejunum.
appendix.
duodenum.
fundus of the stomach.

The sensory innervation to the posterior third of

the tongue reflects the embryonic origin of its
covering epithelium from the
A.
B.
C.
D.

9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules
9 triplets of microtubules
Intermediate filaments
Vimentin filaments
Microfilaments

Which of the following organelles is the site of

protein synthesis?

Submucosal glands are usually located in the

Vagus
Facial
Trigeminal
Hypoglossal
Glossopharyngeal

10. The blood-testis barrier is maintained by

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

spermatogonia.
spermatocytes.
Sertoli cells.
Leydig cells.
myoepithelial cells.

11. A patient's pain from the temporomandibular

joint was referred to the skin over the parotid
region and to the side of the head. This referral
pattern is based on the distribution of which of
the following nerves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Auriculotemporal
Greater auricular
Temporal branch of the facial
Superior alveolar
Inferior alveolar

12. The temporomandibularjoint capsule is supplied

by several nerves. Two of these are the
auriculotemporal and the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

facial.
buccal.
maxillary.
masseteric.
inferior alveolar.

13. If the needle is advanced too far posteriorly

during an inferior alveolar block injection,
anesthesia of the mandibular teeth will NOT
occur, because the needle has entered the
A.
B.
C.
D,
E.

parotid gland.
pterygoid space.
inferior alveolar canal.
medial pterygoid muscle.
superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle.

17. Infections or neoplasms that spread by

lymphatics from the skin of the angle of the
mouth MOST likely pass to which of the
following lymph nodes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Lingual
Submental
Submandibular
Anterior cervical
Superficial cervical

18. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers to the head

have their cell bodies in the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

paravertebral ganglia.
cervicothoracic ganglia.
superior cervical ganglia.
gray rami communicantes of the thoracic
region.
intermediolateral horns of the thoracic
spinal cord.

14. Meiosis occurs in

A.

ductus epididymis.

8. uriniferous tubules.
C.
D.
E.

seminiferous tubules.
stratum germinativum.
germinal epithelium of ovary.

15. The cell bodies of proprioceptive nerves carrying

19. In the posterior mediastinum, the thoracic duct

usually lies
A.
B.
C.

anterior to the phrenic nerves.

posterior to the esophagus.
on the anterolateral surface of trachea.

information from the periodontal ligaments are

located in the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

nucleus ambiguus.
trigeminal ganglion.
spinal nucleus of V.
main sensory nucleus of V.
mesencephalic nucleus of V.

20. Which of the following veins is formed by the

union of the internal jugular and subclavian
veins?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Superior vena cava

Brachiocephalic
Pulmonary
Cephalic
Azygos

16. Which of the following are two muscles that

prevent food from entering the nasopharynx
during swallowing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Mylohyoid and the palatoglossus

Styloglossus and the palatoglossus
Tensor tympani and the stylopharyngeus
Tensor veli palatini and the levator veli
palatini
Musculus uvulae and the inferior
pharyngeal constrictor

21. Which of the following is the MOST numerous

cell type in the normal dental pulp?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Adipocyte
Mast cell
Fibroblast
Macrophage
Odontoblast

22. The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial

28. The hepatic triad consists of which of the

vault through the

following?

A.

A.
B.
C.
D.

3.

C.
D.
E.

foramen ovate.
foramen lacerum.
foramen rotundum.
foramen spinosum.
superior orbital fissure.

E.

Central vein, hepatic vein, and bile duct

Portal vein, bile duct, and hepatic artery
Portal vein, bile canaliculi, and hepatic vein
Central vein, bile canaliculi, and hepatic
artery
Hepatic artery, hepatic vein, and bile duct

23. Which of the following structures is

retroperitoneal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Spleen
Kidney
Stomach
Sigmoid colon
Transverse colon

24. The hamular process is an extension of the

29. Which of the following represents a popular

theory for the force that is considered to be the
MOST responsible for active tooth eruption?
A.
B.
C.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

ethmoid bone.
palatine bone.
maxillary tuberosity.
medial pterygoid plate.
lateral pterygoid plate.

D.
E.

Cells and fibers in the developing PDL pull

the tooth toward the oral cavity.
Dentin formation in the root pushes the
tooth into the oral cavity.
Vascular pressure within the pulp pushes
the tooth intraorally.
Apical fundal bone formation pushes the
tooth.
Crestal bone formation pulls the tooth.

25. The muscularis externa of the esophagus in the

lower one third consists of
A.
B.
C.
D.

mostly skeletal muscle, but some smooth

muscle.
equal amounts of smooth and skeletal
muscles.
smooth muscle only.
skeletal muscle only.

30. Which of the following ligaments helps resist

posterior movement of the mandibular
condyles?
A.
3.
C.
D.
E.

Pterygomandibular raphe
Temporomandibular
Anterior cruciate
Sphenomandibular
Stylomandibular

26. The dermis may be classifed as which of the

following types of connective tissue?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Adipose
Modified elastic
Reticular connective
Dense regular collagenous connective
Dense irregular collagenous connective

31. The MOST commonly accepted theory for pain

reception in the dental pulp suggests that
A.

B.

27. Which of the following structures travels just

posterior to the arch of the azygos vein?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Hemiazygos vein
Right vagus nerve
Right phrenic nerve
Right lymphatic duct
Greater splanchnic nerve

C.

D.
E.

nerves in the dentinal tubules have

receptors for pain.
odontoblastic processes serve as the only
receptors for pain.
there are numerous Meissner's corpuscles
in the pulp that respond to pain stimuli.
nerve endings in the periodontal ligament
enter the pulp through accessory canals to
provide pain reception.
hydrodynamic phenomena involving fluid
flux in the tubules result in stimuli that
activate pain receptors within the pulp.

32. In a healthy temporomandibularjoint the

articular surfaces are covered with which of the
following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Fat
Bone
Hyaline cartilage
Synovial membrane
Dense fibrous connective tissue

38. Oxyphil cells are present in which of the

following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Thymus
Spleen
Fundic stomach
Neurohypophysis
Parathyroid gland

39. Which of the following represents the MOST

33. The hyoid bone is attached by muscles or
ligaments to the

vascular portion of the articular disc of the

temporomandibular joint?

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

palatine bone and the soft palate.

epiglottis and the cricoid cartilage.
mandible, the first rib, and the clavicle.
mandible, the styloid process, and the
tongue.

Anterior thick zone (band)

Posterior thick zone (band)
Intermediate thin zone (band)
Bilaminar zone

40. The spleen, the thymus, and lymph nodes are

34. The pterygoid plexus is usually formed by veins

similar in that each

that are tributaries of which of the following?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Maxillary vein
Angular vein
Facial vein
Occipital vein
Anterior jugular vein

35. Which of the following represents the primary

supinator at the radioulnar joint?
A.

6.
C.
D.
E.

Supinator
Brachialis
Biceps brachii
Brachioradialis
Coracobrachialis

36. Which of the following veins are ldcated within

A.
6.
C.
D.
E.

filters blood.
contains lymphocytes.
has a medulla and a cortex.
serves as a filter for tissue fluid.
has afferent and efferent lymphatic
vessels.

41. Which of the following represents the MOST

common cartilage found in the embryo and in
the adult?
A.
6.
C.
D.

Fibrocartilage
Hyaline cartilage
Elastic cartilage
Calcified cartilage

42. The ossicles of the ear are located in the

the bones of the calvarium?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Carotid
Diploic
Meningeal
lnfrahyoid
Subarachnoid

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

utricle.
labyrinth.
inner ear.
middle ear.
external auditory meatus.

43. A terminal branch of the mandibular nerve

emerges through which of the following
foramina?

37. Loss of the gag reflex suggests damage to

which of the following cranial nerves?
A.
B.
C.
D.

V
VII
IX
XI1

A.

6.
C.
D.
E.

Supraorbital
lnfraorbital
Stylomastoid
Rotundum
Mental

44. Bilateral contraction of which of the following

50. The thinnest portion of the bony orbit is located

muscles acts to protrude the mandible?

in the

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

A.
6.
C.
D.
E.

Lateral pterygoid
Digastric
Buccinator
Temporalis
Mylohyoid

45. Which of the following organs is the NEAREST

roof.
floor.
medial wall.
lateral wall.
posterior wall.

51. The nerve of the pterygoid canal contains which

to the right kidney?

of the following fibers?

A.
B.
C.
D
E.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Colon
Spleen
Stomach
Pancreas
Duodenum

Taste and vision

Pressure and touch sensation
Pain and temperature sensation
Sympathetic and parasympathetic
Proprioception and touch sensation

46. Which of the following connective tissue types is

52. If there is an organ that needs to stretch and

primarily found in the fetus, but not in the adult?

return to its original shape, then which of the

following epithelia would MOST likely be
associated with it?

A.
6.
C.
D.
E.

Loose
Mesenchyme
Areolar
Dense regular
Dense irregular

47. Antidiuretic hormone is PRODUCED by cells

that reside in which of the following structures,
cells or areas?
A.
6.
C.
D.
E.

Pars nervosa
Pars intermedia
Basophils of the pars distalis
Acidophils of the pars distalis
Supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus

48. Which of the following structures directly

develops from the cells remaining in the
remnants of the preovulatory follicle after
ovulation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Theca interna
Corpus luteum
Corpus albicans
Atretic follicle
Interstitial gland

49. The heart is contained in which mediastinum?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Middle
Superior
Anterior
Posterior

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Transitional
Simple cuboidal
Simple columnar
Simple squamous
Pseudostratified columnar

53. Each of the following laminae help to form a

tooth EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.

Vestibular
Successional
Dental

54. Which of the following anterior primary rami form

the medial cord of the brachial plexus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

C-4 and C-5

C-6 and C-7
C-5, C-6, and C-7
C-8 and T-1
T-2 and T-3

55. The only purely serous minor salivary gland is

located in the lamina propria of the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

tongue.
hard palate.
soft palate.
buccal mucosa.
attached gingiva.

56. The maxillary artery is MOST often a branch of

61. Which of the following cells forms a Howship's

which of the following arteries?

lacuna?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Facial
External carotid
Internal carotid
Common carotid
Superficial temporal

57. Which of the following structures runs directly

adjacent to, and parallel with, the median nerve
in the arm?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Ulnar artery
Radial artery
Cephalic vein
Brachial artery
Medial brachial cutaneous nerve

Osteocyte
Osteoblast
Osteoclast
Chondrocyte
Chondroblast

62. Which portion of dentin is the MOST highly

mineralized?
A.
B.
C.
D.

lntratubular (peritubular)
Intertubular
lnterglobular
Mantle

63. Which of the following is the posterior limit of the

vestibular side of the cheek?

58. Postganglionic fibers from the superior cervical

ganglion innervate which of the following
muscles?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Ciliary
Inferior oblique
Dilator pupillae
Sphincter pupillae
Levator palpebre superioris

59. Connective tissue proper is characterized as

having
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

poor vascularization.
poor reparative ability.
sensitivity as its main function.
more intercellular material than cells.
mast cells as the predominant cell type.

Which of the following represents a segment of

the bronchial tree that is less than 1 mm in
diameter and lined by simple columnar ciliated
epithelium with no cartilage plates in the wall?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Bronchiole
Alveolus
Bronchus
Alveolar sac
Bronchial septum

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Retromolar pad
Sulcus terminalis
Pterygomandibular raphe
Stylomandibular ligament
Sphenomandibular ligament

64. When a developing carious lesion reaches the

dentinoenamel junction, this will often initiate the
formation of which of the following at the pulp
interface of the dentin?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Mantle dentin
Primary dentin
False pulp stones
lnterglobular dentin
Tertiary (reparative) dentin

65. Which nerve enters the pharynx in the gap

between the superior and middle constrictors?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Lingual
Hypoglossal
Glossopharyngeal
Inferior laryngeal
Superior laryngeal

66. Certain nerve trunks are composed of several

fascicles. Which of the following entirely
encloses these trunks?
A.
B.
C.

Epineurium
Endoneurium
Perineurium

67. Pain in the temporomandibular joint would be

perceived by endings of the
A.

B.
C.
D.
E.

auriculotemporal nerve in the capsule and

periphery of the disc.
lateral pterygoid nerve in the capsule, disc
and retrodiscal pad.
auriculotemporal nerve throughout the
meniscus.
maxillary branch of the trigeminal in the
retrodiscal pad and capsule.
inferior alveolar nerve.

68. Which of the following lymphoid aggregations is

(are) the MOST likely to be associated with
pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Palatine tonsil
Lingual tonsil
Pharyngeal tonsil
Peyer's patches

72. Which of the following represents the main

arterial supply to the brain?
A.
B.
C.
D.

73. Which of the following is the nerve that supplies

the mimetic muscles?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

associated with increasing age?

A.
B.
C.

E.

provides the GREATEST resistance to

substances attempting to move between cells?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Gap junction
Zonula occludens
Zonula adherens
Macula adherens
Fascia adherens

70. How is a large vein different from its companion

artery? The vein has
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

a smaller lumen.
a less extensive vasa vasorum.
a more prominent tunica media.
an indistinct endothelial lining.
a more prominent tunica adventitia.

A.
B.
C.
D.

E.

Corpus callosum
Internal capsule
Medial lemniscus
Lateral lemniscus
Anterior commissure

pain fibers.
sensor fibers.
upper motor neuron fibers only.
lower motor neuron fibers only.
upper and lower motor neuron fibers.

76. The prochordal plate consists of

B.

cortex are found in which of the following?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Increased cellularity
Increased collagenous components
Development of more extensive
subodontoblastic nerve plexus
Development of more extensive
subodontoblastic capillary plexus
Development of more extensive lymphatic
plexus

75. The pyramids contain

A.

71. Fiber tracts passing from the thalamus to the

Vagus
Facial
Trigeminal
Hypoglossal
Spinal accessory

74. Which of the following is a pulpal change

D.

69. Which of the following intercellular junctions

Internaljugular
lnternal carotid
External carotid
Middle meningeal

C.
D.
E.

embryonic endoderm, mesoderm, and

ectoderm.
a circular area anterior to the notochord in
which the endoderm is fused to the
embryonic mesoderm.
the cloaca1 membrane and the overlying
amnion.
endoderm of the roof of the yolk sac and
embryonic ectoderm.
the cardiogenic mesoderm and the
neurectoderm.

77. Which of the following structures are found in

82. Accessory root canals can be formed by

the infratemporalfossa?
A.
A.

B.
C.
D.

Temporalis muscle and parotid gland

Masseter and lateral pterygoid muscles
Superficial temporal artery and parotid
lymphatic nodes
Mandibular division of V and chorda
tympani branch of VII

78. Which of the following glands is purely mucous?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Parotid
Palatine
Sublingual
von Ebnet's
Submandibular

B.
C.
D.

a break in the epithelial diaphragm prior to

dentin formation.
a break in the epithelial root sheath
(Hertwig) prior to dentin formation.
adherence of the epithelial root sheath
(Hertwig) to the dentinal surface.
an epithelial rest that lies in contact with
the dentin of the root.

83. In the mid-palatal raphe region of the hard

palate, which of the following represents the
layer of the epithelium of the oral mucosa which
is deep to the stratum spinosum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Stratum lucidum
Stratum basale
Lamina propria
Stratum granulosum
Stratum corneum

79. A patient bites the tip of his tongue. The pain

that ensues is carried by way of which of the
following cranial nerves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Vagus, X
Facial, VII
Trigeminal, V
Hypoglossal, XI1
Glossopharyngeal, IX

84. Information from the hypothalamus is carried to

the anterior pituitary (pars distalis) by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

gamma efferent system.

hypothalamic radiation.
hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract.
hypothalamic association fibers.
hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.

80. To expose the submandibular duct by an

intraoral approach, one must cut through which
of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.

E.

Mucous membrane only

Mucous membrane and the genioglossus
muscle
Mucous membrane and the mylohyoid
muscle
Mucous membrane and the geniohyoid
muscle
Mucous membrane and the anterior
digastric muscle

85. On its way to the brain, the vertebral artery

passes through which of the following?
A.
B.
C.

D.

Foramen magnum
Foramen lacerum
Jugular foramen
Foramen spinosum

86. In addition to the common carotid arteries, which

81. The submandibular ganglion is associated with
which of the following nerves?

of the following blood vessels provides

circulation to the brain?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Inferior alveolar
Glossopharyngeal
Maxillary
Mylohyoid
Lingual

Vertebral artery
Thyrocervical trunk
Costacervical trunk
Superior thyroid artery
Internal thoracic artery

87. On a comparative basis, bone and cellular

cementum are similar in that both
A.

B.
C.

D.

are difficult to resorb, heal well, and

contain cement lines.
contain concentric patterns, have
Volkmann's canals, and can be cancellous.
are deposited throughout life, acquire
blood vessels during aging, and contain
similar collagenous fibers.
contain cells in lacunae with canaliculi that
extend primarily toward the nutritional
source.

88. Which of the following cranial nerves supplies

the muscles derived from the first pair of
branchial arches?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Vagus
Facial
Trigeminal
Hypoglossal
Glossopharyngeal

92. Which of the following bones is formed primarily

by intramembranous ossification?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

93. Gnarled enamel is MOSTfrequently found

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

of

B.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

pons.
midbrain.
diencephalon.
medulla oblongata.
cerebral peduncles.

90. Which of the following structures may be found

in cusps.
near the cervical line.
around pits and fissures.
adjacent to contact areas.
equally on all surfaces of the crown.

94. An oblique facial cleft follows the li

A.

89. Cranial nerve V emerges from the

Femur
Tibia
Stapes
Humerus
Mandible

C.
D
E.

ry processes.
lateral nasal an
medial nasal
axillary processes.
al nasal processes.
medial an
maxJfk?&nd
mandibular processes.
asal and mandibular processes.

&Y""-

11%

95. A patient bleeds from the anterior septa1 region

of his nose. A break in the vessel walls has
caused this bleeding. These vessels originate
from which of the following arteries?

within the posterior mediastinum?

A.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Heart
Phrenic nerve
Thoracic duct
Arch of the aorta
Recurrent laryngeal nerve

B.
C.

D.

Angular
Posterior superior alveolar
Sphenopalatine
Greater palatine

96. Maturation of enamel is characterized by a

91. Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament

offer the MOST resistance to movement of the
tooth in an apical direction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Alveolar crest
lnterradicular
Horizontal
Oblique
Apical

percentage increase in inorganic content and a

percentage
A.

B.
C.

D.
E.

increase in water.
increase in organic content.
decrease in water and decrease in organic
content.
decrease in water and increase in organic
content.
increase in water and decrease in organic
content.

97. Para-keratinized oral mucosa is often found on

which of the following?
A.

Oral surface of the soft palate

Ventral surface of the tongue
Skin surface of the lips
Floor of the mouth
Attached gingiva

100. In the photomicrograph below of a ground

section of a tooth viewed by transmitted light,
some dentinal tubules appear black because
they

98. Which of the following represents the major

fibrillar component of mature dentin?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Elastin
Reticulin
Type I collagen
Type II collagen
Type Ill collagen

99. Each of the following terms applies to a

discussion of enamel structure EXCEPT one.
Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Prisms
Perikymata
Striae of Retzius
Contour lines of Owen
lnterprismatic substance

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

are filled with blood.

are filled with minerals.
are filled with bacteria.
have become filled with air during
sectioning.
contain deeply stained odontoblastic
processes.

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATIONS

PART 1
TEST: ANATOMIC SCIENCES
FORM: 11 (All)
DATE: D98

Item

Key,

Item

Key

Item

Key

Item

Key

1
2
3
4
5

D
E

26
27
28
29
30

E
B
B
A
B

51
52
53
54
55

D
A
A
D
A

76
77
78
79
80

D
D
B
C
A

E
E
D
A

56
57
58
59
60

B
D

81
82
83
84
85

E
B

E
E

6
7
8
9
10

D
D
D
B
C

31
32
33
34
35

11
12
13
14
15

A
D
A
C
E

36
37
38
39
40

E
D
B

61
62
63
64
65

16
17
18
19
20

41
42
43
44
45

B
D
E
A
A

66
67
68
69
70

A
A
C
B

46
47
48
49
50

B
E
B
A
C

71
72
73
74
75

21
22
23
24
25

E
B
B
C

D
B
D
C

D
A

B
E
A

86
87
88
89
90

A
D

D
E
A

91
92
93
94
95

B
B
B
B
C

96
97
98
99
100

C
E
C
D
D

A
C
E
C

A
C

BIOCHEMISTRY-PHYSIOLOGY (12)

BEFORE PROCEEDING
1.

Turn your answer sheet over to the side numbered 101 - 200 (SIDE 2).

2.

Enter your name on the second side of the answer sheet.

3.

Enter the name of this test (BIOCHEMISTRY-PHYSIOLOGY) and the number of this
test (12) on the answer sheet. Blacken the circles that correspond to the test number.

4.

Check to be sure you have completed each step above.

5.

Proceed with the examination.

101.

Which of the following substances, under

physiologic conditions, is essential to the
transformation of G-actin to F-actin?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

102.

B.
C.
D.

103.

Cell walls of caries-related streptococci

decomposition end products of oral
lactobacilli
Byproducts of carbohydrate metabolism
by oral streptococci
Enzymes which break down grampositive cell walls
Components of extracellular matrix

107.

B.
C.
D.
E.

108.

109.
104.

Which of the following BEST explains the

primary action of antidiuretic hormone?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

105.

It decreases the activity of the Na-K

pump in the distal tubule.
It increases the Hz0 permeability of the
collecting ducts and the distal tubules.
It decreases the pore size of the distal
tubules and the collecting ducts.
It decreases the glomerular filtration rate.
It inhibits the action of glutaminase.

Which of the following takes place as

proinsulin is converted to insulin?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Disulfide bonds are formed.

Disulfide bonds are broken.
The polypeptide chain is lengthened.
A segment of the polypeptide chain is
removed.

Rectum
Internal anal sphincter
Antrum of the stomach
Upper esophagus
Gastro-esophageal sphincter

The movement of ~ a + across

+
a membrane is
characterized by which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.

110.

Preparing enzymes that synthesize

nucleic acids
Isolating the genome of an organism
Amplifying a specific DNA sequence
Separating polyclonal antibodies
Synthesizing RNA from DNA

Each of the following segments of the

gastrointestinaltract consists of smooth
muscle under autonomic nervous control
EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

0 mglmin
50 mglmin
100 mglmin
180 mglmin
350 mglmin

Sodium
Calcium
Chloride
Magnesium
Potassium

The polymerase chain reaction is MOST

useful for which of the following?
A.

Which of the following represents the normal

clearance of glucose?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

GABA increases the permeability of

postsynaptic membranes to which of the
following ions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

ATP
Chloride
Manganese
Pyrophosphate
Creatine phosphate

Chondroitin sulfate and hyaluronic acid are

characterized by which of the following?
A.

106.

A facilitated diffusion
An example of a cotransport system
In many cell membranes involves a
~ a + -+~ a countertransport
+
system
Maintains ~ a + concentration
+
very much
higher in the cell than in the extracellular
fluid

The enzyme catalyzing the rate-controlling

step in the de novo synthesis of fatty acids is
regulated allosterically by the positive
modulator
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

ATP.
NADPH.
citrate.
cyclic AMP.
oxaloacetate.

111.

Which of the following is required for

vitamin Dg synthesis?
A.
B.
C.
D.

2 .

Intensity of the stimulus

Diameter of the nerve fiber
Duration of the absolute refractory period
Duration of the relative refractory period

Fibrin
Thrombospondin
Prothrombin
Thromboplastin
Fibrinogen

B.
C.
D.
E.

119.

120.
115.

The anticaries effect of fluoride is LEAST

related to which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

116.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Oleic
Lactic
Sialic
Stearic
Linoleic

Amide
Anomeric
Epimeric
Hydrogen
Glycosidic

In skeletal muscle, excitation-contraction

coupling is mediated by which of the
following?
A.
B.

Binding of calcium and calmodulin

Efflux of potassium from transverse
tubules
C. A sudden rise in permeability to chloride
ions
D. Release of acetylcholinesterase from
nerve terminals
E. Release of calcium from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum

Ion exchange
Decreased solubility
Facilitation of remineralization
Its presence during enamel formation
Activation of plaque polysaccharide
hydrolysis

Which of the following represents a

polyunsaturated fatty acid that is commonly
found in animal cell membranes?

Shivering
ATP hydrolysis
Exothermic reactions
Peripheral vasodilation
Increased thyroxine release

Which of the following types of bonds link

amino acid residues to form proteins?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Ketoacidosis
Severe metabolic alkalosis
A deficiency in prostaglandinformation
An inability to synthesize ascorbic acid

Total G-C content of total DNA

increasing
UV light absorption increasing
Complementary strands becoming
random coils
Base stacking becoming disrupted
Hydrogen bonds breaking

Each of the following is a mechanism in

humans helping to raise body temperature
EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

A sustained, severe carbohydrate deficiency

in the diet will result in which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.

As DNA is denatured, each of the following

events takes place EXCEPT one. Which event
is this EXCEPTION?
A.

Which of the following represents the normal

substrate of thrombin?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

114.

Decarboxylation in the liver

UV activation of precursors in skin
Metabolism by gut bacteria
Deamination in the kidney

The maximal frequency of impulses that can

be carried by a nerve fiber is limited by which
of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.

113.

117.

121.

A mucin is which of the following types of

proteins?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Simple protein
Phosphoprotein
Chromoprotein
Nucleoprotein
Glycoprotein

122.

The tricarboxylic acid cycle is initiated by the

condensation of which of the following two
molecules?
A.
B.

Pyruvate and malate

NAD' and oxaloacetate

C.
D.
E.

NAD' and oxalosuccinate

Acetyl coenzyme A and oxaloacetate
Acetyl coenzyme A and oxalosuccinate

128.

A.
B.
C.
D.

129.
123.

Compared to skeletal muscle contraction,

smooth muscle contraction
A.
B.
C.
D.

requires more energy for a given tension.

occurs several times more rapidly.
can be maintained for a longer time.
is unaffected by the autonomic nervous
system.

Androgens are produced in the testis and

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

125.

131.

A number of catabolic pathways are

allosterically inhibited by an increase in the
concentration of which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

127.

Entropy
Enthalpy
Free energy
Potential energy
Activation energy

ADP
AMP
ATP
NAD+
Pyruvate

Both systemic and pulmonary circulations

have the same
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

pulse pressure.
total capacitance.
diastolic pressure.
resistance.
flow rate.

Nonpolar
Carbon-containing
Amphipathic
Hydrophilic

Renal blood flow

Total number of nephrons
Glomerular filtration rate
Length of the loop of Henle
Diameter of the distal tubule

Each of the following appears in the

glomerular filtrate in concentrations
approximately equal to those in plasma
EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

132.

4 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules.

2 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules.
4 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules.

The ability to concentrate urine varies among

animal species. The maximum urine
concentration that can be produced by an
animal is MOST closely related to which of the
following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

What thermodynamic parameter is a measure

of randomness or disorder in a system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

126.

adrenal cortex.
thyroid.
adrenal medulla.
pituitary.
hypothalamus.

2 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules.

Which of the following is LEAST descriptive of

lipids?
A.
B.
C.
D.

130.
124.

Under strict anaerobic conditions, the

catabolism of one glucose molecule would
yield a net of

Urea
Glucose
Amino acids
Steroid hormones
Plasma electrolytes

If an axonal membrane transiently becomes

very permeable to Na+ ions, then the
membrane potential of the cell will approach
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

-70 mV.
-60 mV.
-50 mV.
OmV.
+60 mV.

133.

The clinical symptoms of dermatitis, diarrhea,

and dementia suggest a deficiency in which of
the following vitamins?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

138.

Retinol
Riboflavin
Tocopherol
Ascorbic acid
Niacin

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

139.
134.

Streptomycin is an antibiotic which inhibits the

process of
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

translation in eukaryotes.
translation in prokaryotes.
transcription in eukaryotes.
transcription in prokaryotes.
DNA replication in prokaryotes.

136.

Glucose
Steroids
Cholic acid
Oxaloacetate
Ketone bodies

Insulin INCREASES the activity of which of

the following?

Which of the following could be beneficial in

reducing edema in the arms of women who
have had radical mastectomy with removal of
axial lymph nodes?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Enolase
Phosphorylase a
Phosphofructokinase
Glucose-6-phosphatase
Fructose 1-6 diphosphatase

lncreased parasympathetic activity results in

A.
B.
C.
D.

137.

carotid bodies.
carotid sinuses.
expiratory center.
inspiratory center.
alveolar nerve endings.

Most endogenous cholesterol in the liver is

usually converted into which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

140.
135.

The stimulating effect of low arterial 0 2

tension on respiration is usually produced
through an effect on the

decreased salivary secretion.

increased cardiac contractility.
decreased gastric motility and tone.
increased bronchiolar smooth muscle
contraction.

A patient who has emphysema is MOST likely

to exhibit which of the following changes in
functional residual capacity (FRC) and
compliance?
FRC
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

141.

Increased
Decreased
lncreased
Decreased
Decreased

Compliance
Increased
No change
No change
lncreased
Decreased

Which of the following substances is LEAST

polar?
A.
B.
C.
D.

142.

Hypertensiveagents
Avoidance of all diuretic agents
Increase interstitial oncotic pressure
Decrease interstitial hydrostatic pressure
Administration of a plasma volume
expander

Ethanol
Cholesterol
Palmitic acid
Glycocholic acid

Which of the following molecules would likely

form a micelle when mixed with water and
agitated?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Serine
Glycerol
Phospholipid
Triglyceride

143.

Which of the following is MOST likely to result

from increased vagal activity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

144.

D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

149.

Increases
Increases
Decreases
Decreases

Increases
Decreases
Increases
Decreases

Which of the following is the major protein

component of cementum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Elastin
Keratin
Collagen
Amelogenin
Osteonectin

a reducing agent.
an oxidizing agent.
both a reducing agent and an oxidizing
agent.
neither a reducing agent nor an oxidizing
agent.

150.

Which of the following do elastin and collagen

have in common?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Easily stretched
Absence of proline
Disulfide crosslinking
Triple helix structure
About one-third glycine

Coenzyme A participates in
A.
B.
C.
D.

147.

Laminin
Vimentin
Phosphophoryn
Osteonectin
Fibronectin

In respiratory acidosis, arterial C02 content

and pH become abnormal. Which of the
following BEST describes their respective
changes?

2+.
Some carbohydrates convert Cu Ions to CU+
ions. This property is related to their ability to
act as
A.
B.
C.

146.

lncreased heart rate

lncreased stroke volume
lncreased cardiac output
Decreased cardiac oxygen consumption
Decreased transit time through the AV
node

Which of the following noncollagenous protein

components BEST characterizes dentin
matrix?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

145.

148,

formylation.
protein synthesis.
methionine activation.
activation of carboxyl groups.

151.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Which of the following is the FIRST step in the

catabolism of many amino acids?
Formation of a dipeptide with glutamate
Conjugation of the alpha amino to
glucuronate
C.. Transamination of the alpha amino to a
keto acid
D. Conjugation of the alpha carboxyl group
to glucuronate
E. Decarboxylation of the alpha carboxyl
group to form a primary amine

A.
B.

The plasma osmolality decreases after

infusion of

152.

aldosterone.
vasopressin (ADH).
angiotensin II.
parathyroid hormone.
isotonic saline solution.

Which of the following features distinguishes

active transport from facilitated diffusion?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Specificity
Carrier-mediated
Requires metabolic energy
Presence of a transport maximum (Tm)

153.

Each of the following secretes H C a - into the

gastrointestinaltract EXCEPT one. Which
one is this EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.

154.

C.
D.

Excess H+ in the matrix

An H+ gradient across the inner
membrane
The formation of thioesters in the matrix
A conformational change in the inner
membrane

NA+
NADH
NADP+
NADPH
FADH2

The function of which of the following types of

nucleic acid is to activate and select specific
amino acids for protein synthesis?

Which of the following changes in lung

compliance and vital capacity would be
observed in the absence of pulmonary
surfactant?
Lung Compliance
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

159.

160.

E.

Which of the following is a pyrimidine base

that is present in RNA but is NOT present in
DNA?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Uracil
Guanine
Thymine
Adenine
Cytosine

162.

Refraction
Potentiation
Perception
Adaptation
Accommodation

Hematocrit of 45%
Venous blood with pH of 7.2
3
White blood cell count of 10,000/mm
Red blood cell count of 7,000,000/mm3
Pulse pressure equivalent to 80 mm Hg

Earaches may develop as a result of blockage

of the eustachian tube because
A.
B.
C.
D.

157.

Increase
Decrease
No change
Increase
Decrease

Which of the following is a typical finding for a

normal 23-year-old man?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

161.

Increase
Increase
Increase
Decrease
Decrease

Vital Capacity

Which of the following represents a decrease

in the frequency of action potentials in an
afferent neuron despite a constant stimulus
intensity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Which of the following is necessaryfor

de novo synthesis of cholesterol?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

156.

Chief cells
Colon mucosa
Salivary glands
Stomach mucosa

The chemical energy generated by

mitochondria1electron transport results from
which of the following?
A.
B.

155.

158.

of anvil misalignment.
the ossicle can no longer vibrate.
fluid in the middle ear cannot escape.
pressure on the round window distorts
the basement membrane.
pressure in the middle ear is not
equalized with atmospheric pressure.

The activities of each of

one contribute to calculus form
one is this EXCEPTION?

163.

Which of the following stimulates vagal nerve

endings in the lung parenchyma and inhibits
inspiration?
A.
B.
C.
D.

164.

B.

C.
D.

165.

B.

C.
D.

167.

169.

170.

Motor activity and pain and temperature

sensations on the same side
Motor activity on the same side and pain
and temperature sensations on the
opposite side
Motor activity and pain and temperature
sensations on the opposite side
Motor activity on the opposite side and
pain and temperature sensations on the
same side

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

A band
I band
Muscle sarcomeres
Two consecutive Z lines
Series elastic elements

Urea
Ammonia
Uric acid
Creatinine
Aspartic acid

Which of the following are the immediate

effects of calcitonin on serum levels of calcium
and phosphate?
Serum calcium

If the molar percentage of A (adenine) in a

native DNA specimen is 22%, then what is the
molar content of G (guanine)?

During an isotonic contraction, which of the

following bands or structures do NOT change
in width or length?

ketone-body formation.
cholesterol synthesis.
fatty-acid synthesis.
gluconeogenesis.
the Krebs cycle.

After prolonged acidosis, which of the

following represents the nitrogenous product
that is excreted in high amounts in the urine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

171.

vasoconstriction of coronary vessels.

vasodilation of coronary vessels.
stimulation of chemoreceptors.
inhibition of chemoreceptors.

In relative insulin insufficiency, acetyl CoA is

usually channeled into
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Right-sided lesions of the spinal cord result in

loss of which of the following (below the level
of the lesion)?
A.

166.

Must be able to replicate synchronously

with the host chromosome
Several unique recognition sequences
for one restriction enzyme
Two genes conferring resistance to
different antibiotics
Large size to facilitate plasmid's entry
into cells

A diminished oxygen tension in the

myocardium causes immediate

A,
B.
C.
D.

Decreased arterial pH
Expansion of the lungs
Decreased alveolar 0 2 tension
lncreased alveolar C02 tension

Plasmid vectors suitable for cloning have

which of the following characteristics?
A.

168.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

172.

Increased
Increased
Decreased
No change
Decreased

Serum phosphate
Increased
Decreased
Decreased
Increased
No change

Atoms are isotopes of each other only if

A.

B.
C.
D.

their nuclei contain the same number of

neutrons.
their atomic numbers are the same, but
their mass numbers differ.
their mass numbers are the same, but
their atomic numbers differ.
one is a beta emitter, but the other is an
alpha emitter.

173.

Sodium fluoride inhibits glycolysis by affecting

which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.

178.

Amylase
Enolase
Phosphatase
Phosphorylase

The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation shows

that
A.
B.
C.

D.

174.

Hyperventilation alters the acid-base balance

of arterial blood by
A.
B.
C.
D.

179.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

increasing C02 and decreasing pH.

decreasing C02 and decreasing pH.
decreasing C02 and increasing pH.

Which of the following collagen synthesis

post-translational events occurs
extracellularly?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Glycosylation
Hydroxylation
Intermolecular cross-linkage
Disulfide bond formation

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

177.

become denatured.
migrate to the negative pole.
migrate to the positive pole.
remain stationary and unchanged.
separate into its different monomeric
forms.

The level of nonprotein nitrogen in the blood is

due principally to the level of which of the
following?
A.

Ferritin

6. Myoglobin
C.
D.
E.

182.

Which of the following sweeteners is

non-nutritive as well as non-cariogenic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

183.

Hemoglobin
Transferrin
Cytochrome-c

D-fructose
Saccharin
Galactose
Sorbitol
Maltose

Epinephrine causes an elevation in CAMP

levels in muscle cells which in turn activate

Urea

6. Ammonia
C.
D.
E.

Prolactin
Oxytocin
ACTH
TSH

Which of the following represents the plasma

protein that transports ferrous iron?
A.

If the pH becomes lower than the isoelectric

point of a protein, then how will the protein
respond in an electrophoreticsystem? It will

Very low density lipoprotein

Low density lipoprotein
Chylomicrons
Liposomes
Micelles

Blocking the hypothalamic-hypophyseal

venous portal system increases the secretion
of which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.

181.

176.

Triglyceride absorbed into the lymphatic

system is transported to the liver as which of
the following?

increasing C02 and increasing pH.

180.
175.

dilution of a buffer increases its pH.

pH = pka when an acid is 0.1 N.
pH = pka when an acid is half
neutralized.
pH is independent of the dissociation
constant of the acid.

Creatine
Arginine
Uric acid

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

ATPase.
adenyl cyclase.
glycogen synthetase.
glycogen phosphorylase.
glycogen phosphorylase phosphatase.

184.

Acromegaly is due to an excessive production

of which of the following?
A.
B. .
C.
D.

185.

186.

Thyrotropin
Gonadotropin
Somatotropin
Adrenocorticotropin

Intravenous injections of KC1 solution would

increase the secretion of which of the
following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

189.

Pieces of dog parotid gland and pancreas are

transplanted under the skin of the donor
animal. After re-establishment of circulation,
ingestion of food will result in secretion from
which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.

190.

lnsulin
Cortisol
Calcitonin
Aldosterone
Parathyroid hormone

Which of the following conditions is indicated

during isovolumetric ventricular contraction of
the heart?
A.
B.
C.

Frank-Starling's law of the heart states that the

D.
A.
B.
C.
D.

187.

191.

B.
C.
D.

increase cardiac rate and strength of

contraction.
cause vasoconstriction throughout the
peripheral circulatory system.
excite sympathetic nerves and inhibit
parasympathetic nerves.
inhibit tonic activity of sympathetic
nerves and excite parasympathetic
nerves.

The rate of diffusion across the alveolar wall is

inversely proportional to which of the
following?
A.
B.
C.
D.

The surface area for gaseous exchange

The thickness of the alveolar wall
The difference in the partial pressures of
the gas
The solubility of the gas

192.

Load on the muscle

Gamma efferent system
Alpha efferent discharge
Length of the extrafusal fibers

In the denervated heart, adjustments to

increased workload are mediated by
mechanisms associated with
A.
B.
C.
D.

193.

All valves are open.

All valves are closed.
The aortic and pulmonary valves are
open and the mitral and tricuspid valves
are closed.
The aortic and pulmonary valves are
closed and the mitral and tricuspid
valves are open.

Which of the following controls the excitability

of the muscle spindle?
A.
B.
C.
D.

When arterial pressure increases,

pressoreceptors discharge and
A.

188.

initial length of cardiac muscle fibers

affects the strength of contraction.
strength of contraction depends on the
strength of the ventricular muscle.
heart rate depends directly on thickness
of the ventricle.
strength of contraction depends on the
strength of stimulus.

Parotid and pancreatic transplants

The fragment of the pancreas only
The fragment of the parotid only
Neither fragment

increased end systolic volume.

decreased end systolicvolume.
decreased end diastolic volume.
increased end diastolic volume.

Which of the following is secreted more during

the absorptive state than during the
postabsorptive state?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

lnsulin
Glucagon
Cortisol
Thyroxine
Epinephrine

194.

Bulging veins in the neck result from which of

the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

195.

Pulmonary edema
Hemolytic anemia
Systemic hypotension
Congestive heart failure
Intermittent claudication

A parathyroidectomized animal will exhibit

which levels of calcium and phosphate ion
concentration in the plasma?
Calcium

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

196.

Low
Normal
High
Normal
Low

Phosphate ion
concentration
High
Low
Low
Normal
Low

Which term of the Michaelis-Menten equation,

can be determined from the y intercept of a

Lineweaver-Burk plot?

197.

Absence of which of the following blood

enzymes drastically reduces blood CO2
carrying capacity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

198.

Carbonic anhydrase
Alkaline phosphatase
Pyruvate carboxykinase
Histidine decarboxylase
Serum glutamic-oxaloacetate
transaminase

Glucosuria with hyperglycemia usually occurs

in which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

199.

Pellagra
Addison's disease
Diabetes mellitus
Diabetes insipidus
Parkinson's disease

The largest amount of glomerular filtrate is

reabsorbed in the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

200.

proximal convoluted tubule.

descending loop of Henle.
ascending loop of Henle.
distal convoluted tubule.
collecting duct.

How many anomeric carbons are present in a

fructose molecule?

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATIONS

PART 1
TEST:
FORM:
DATE:

BIOCHEMISTRY-PHYSIOLOGY
12 (A12)
D98

Item

Key

Item

Key

Item

Key

Item

Key

101
102
103
104
105

126
127
128
129
130

E
A
D
D

151
152
153
154
155

A
B
D

176
177
178
179
180

B
A
C
C
A

131
132
133
134
135

D
E
E
B
C

156
157
158
159
160

D
A
E
D
A

181
182
183
184
185

D
B
D
D

D
A

161
162
163
164
165

186
187
188
189
190

A
D
B
B
B

191
192
193
194
195

B
D
A
D
A

196
197
198
199
200

B
A

106
107
108
109
110

D
A
B
D
C
C

D
C
C

111
112
113
114
115

E
A
E

136
137
138
139
140

116
117
118
119
120

E
A
D
A
E

141
142
143
144
145

121
122
123
124
125

E
D
C

146
147
148
149
150

A
A

A
C

D
C
A
D
C

B
C
E

166
167
168
169
170
171
172
173
174
175

B
C

B
B
A

B
A
B
C

B
B
D
C

C
A

DENTAL ANATOMY AND OCCLUSION (14)

BEFORE PROCEEDING

- 200 (SIDE2).

1.

Turn your answer sheet over to the side numbered 101

2.

Enter your name on the second side of the answer sheet.

3.

Enter the name of this test (DENTAL ANATOMY and OCCLUSION)and the number
of this test (14) on the answer sheet. Blacken the circles that correspond to the test
number.

4.

Check to be sure you have completed each step above.

5.

Proceed with the examination.

All test items refer to permanent teeth unless

"primary" is specified.

105.

All test items relating t o occlusion refer t o Class I

canine and molar relationship unless otherwise
specified. Tenns such as "normal" or "ideaIJ'are
synonymous with the above definition.

101.

Which of the following are the LASTprimaly

teeth to erupt?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

A.
B.
C.
D.

106.

Maxillary canines
Mandibular canines
Mandibular first molars
Maxillary second molars
Mandibular second molars

Which of the following is the correct sequence

of dental tissues from SOFTEST to
HARDEST?
A.
B.
C.
D.

103.

The crown of which premolar is wider

faciolingually than mesiodistally, and has two
cusps that are approximately equal in height?
A.
B.
C.
D.

104.

B.
C.
D.

E.

with the mesial marginal ridge of the

maxillary second premolar and the distal
marginal ridge of the first premolar.
in the lingual embrasure between
maxillary canine and first premolar.
with the lingual surface of the maxillary
first premolar.
in the lingual embrasure between
maxillary premolars.
with no maxillary tooth.

109.

condylar head and the disc.

inferior and superior retrodiscal lamina.
retrodiscal tissue and capsular ligament.
disc and the articular fossa and
eminence.

If a maxillary first molar has a fourth pulp

canal, it is located in which of the following
roots?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Maxillary first
Mandibular first
Maxillary second
Mandibular second

In the intercuspal position, the lingual cusp of

a mandibular first premolar usually occludes
A.

108.

Facio-occlusalline
Central fossa line
Linguo-occlusalline
Curve of Spee
Curve of Wilson

The upper compartment of the

temporomandibular joint is that space
between the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Dentin, cementum, enamel

Cementum, dentin, enamel
Dentin, enamel, cementum
Cementum, enamel, dentin

Facial
Lingual
Central
Distofacial

In an ideal occlusion, the facial cusps of the

posterior mandibular teeth oppose which
landmark of the maxillary dentition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

107.
102.

Through which of the following grooves of the

mandibular first molar does the maxillary
mesiolingual cusp pass in a lateral excursive
movement on the working side?

Mesiofacial
Distofacial
Palatal
Fourth

Which of the following representsthe general

crown form of canines, as viewed from the
labial aspect?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Hexagonal
Triangular
Rhomboidal
Pentagonal
Diamond-shaped

110.

On the crown of the maxillary canine, the

height of contour is normally located in the
cervical third of which of the following
surfaces?
A.
6.
C.
D.

111.

112.

A.
6.
C.
D.

116.

Distal
Facial
Palatal
Occlusal
Proximal

The protrusive pathway of the mandibular

cusps on the maxillary posterior teeth is
toward the

When compared to the maxillary central

incisor, the maxillary canine normally exhibits
which of the following?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Labial
Lingual
Both labial and lingual
Neither labial nor lingual

Which of the following surfaces of a tooth is

always next to an adjacent tooth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

115.

Which of the following teeth have proximal

contact areas at approximately the same
levels cervicoincisally,or cervico-occlusally,
on the mesial and the distal?
A.
B.
C.
D.

117.

mesial.
facial.
distal.
lingual.

The non-working pathway of the maxillary

cusps on the mandibular posterior teeth is
toward the

A.
6.
C.
D.

A.
6.
C.
D.

114.

118.

distofacial.
distolingual.
mesiofacial.
mesiolingual.

Maxillary central incisors

Mandibular central incisors
Maxillary canines
Mandibular canines

In the intercuspal position, the facial aspect of

the mesial cusp ridge of a mandibular canine
opposes which of the following maxillary
structures?

E.

113.

Shorter root
Wider crown mesiodistally
Thicker crown labiolingually
Longer crown incisogingivally
Shorter crown and shorter root length

DL of a canine
DF of a canine
ML of a lateral incisor
DL of a lateral incisor
DL of a central incisor

For an amalgam restoration, it will be MOST

difficult to obtain close matrix-band adaptation
on which of the following surfaces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Mesial of a maxillary first premolar

Distal of a maxillary first premolar
Mesial of a maxillary second premolar
Distal of a mandibular second premolar
Mesial of a mandibular first molar

Which of the following illustrations represents

the distal view of a maxillary first molar?

119.

From an occlusal view, the arrangement of

permanent teeth of the maxillary and
mandibular arches are parabolic in shape. In
one segment of the dentition, however, four
teeth are aligned in a straight line. In what
region is this segment located?
A.
6.
C.
D.

Maxillary anterior
Maxillary posterior
Mandibular anterior
Mandibular posterior

120.

A posterior tooth has a faciolingual crown

dimension greater than its mesiodistal crown
dimension. In addition, it has two roots. This
tooth is MOST likely a
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

121.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

123.

Anterior border
Posterior border
Bilaminar zone
Intermediate zone
Retrodiscal area

Palatal, mesiobuccal,distobuccal
Palatal, distobuccal, mesiobuccal
Mesiobuccal, palatal, distobuccal
Distobuccal, mesiobuccal, palatal

In an ideal intercuspal relation, which of the

following maxillary cusps will oppose the
mesiofacial groove of the mandibular first
molar?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Maxillary first
Maxillary second
Mandibular first
Mandibular second

129.

Facial cusp of the second premolar

Mesiofacial cusp of the first molar
Distofacial cusp of the first molar
Mesiolingual cusp of the first molar
Distolingual cusp of the first molar

Maxillary central incisor

Maxillary lateral incisor
Mandibular lateral incisor
Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine

Which of the following periodontal ligament

fibers provide the major support to the tooth
during function?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Apical
Oblique
Horizontal
Alveolar crest
lnterradicular

When proximal surfaces of adjacent teeth

diverge from an area of contact, an
embrasure is formed
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following anterior teeth exhibits

the MOST deviation in crown morphology?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

125.

Which of the following ranks the roots of the

maxillary first molar in order from LARGEST to
SMALLEST?
A.
B.
C.
D.

128.

Mandibular first
Mandibular second
Maxillary first
Maxillary second

Which of the following premolars usually has

two lingual cusps?
A.
B.
C.
D.

124.

127.

Maxillary first
Maxillary second
Mandibular first
Mandibular second

In the sagittal plane, which of the following

represents the thickest section of the articular
disc?

Which premolar poses the GREATEST

problem when root canal therapy or extraction
are being considered?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which primary molar typically has a

transverse ridge, an oblique ridge, and a
distolingual groove?
A.
B.
C.
D.

122.

maxillary first premolar.

mandibular first premolar.
mandibular second premolar.
mandibular first molar.
maxillary second molar.

126.

130.

lingually only.
lingually and facially only.
lingually and occlusally only.
lingually, facially, occlusally, and
cervically.

The pulp chamber of a mature tooth contains

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

cells that continue to form primary

dentin.
an enamel lining for thermal protection.
blood vessels and nerves.
cernentoblasts.
ameloblasts.

131.

Between which of the following teeth in the

primary dentition is the mandibular "primate"
space usually found?
A.

6.
C.
D.

E.

132.

134.

How many pulp horns would be expected on a

newly erupted Tooth #18?

138.

In which of the following areas of a healthy

mouth is the alveolar process the thinnest?

During a lateral movement of the mandible.

the articular disc is tightly attached to the head
of the condyle by which of the following
ligaments?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

133.

Central incisors
Central and lateral incisors
Lateral incisor and canine
Canine and first molar
First and second molars

137.

Superior retrodiscal
Inferior retrodiscal
Sphenomandibular
Stylomandibular
Collateral

A.

6.
C.
D.
E.

139.

On which of the following surfaces of

permanent teeth is pit and fissure caries
MOST likely to occur?

Which of the following teeth has its distal

proximal contact area located entirely in the
incisal or the occlusal one-third?

A.
6.
C.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

D.

Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
Maxillary lateral incisor
Mandibular lateral incisor
Mandibular second premolar

E.

140.

The occlusal outline of a mandibular first

molar is usually similar to a

6.
C.
D.

Which of the following teeth is the MOST likely

to have a bifurcated root?
A.
6.
C.
D.
E.

136.

C.
D.

mesially and lingually.

distally and lingually.

Assuming occlusion and alignment are

normal, the arrow on the illustration below
represents the path taken by which cusp of a
second molar?

Maxillary central incisor

Maxillary lateral incisor
Mandibular lateral incisor
Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine

The occlusal table of any posterior tooth

makes up what percent of the total
buccolingual dimension of the tooth?

Cusp

A.
A.
B.
C.
D.

distally and facially.

8. mesially and facially.

circle.
square.
rhomboid.
pentagon.

141.
135.

Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars

Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars
Facial surfaces of mandibular first
premolars
Lingual surfaces of mandibular first
molars
Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors

When in its proper position relative to the

plane of occlusion, the crown of a mandibular
second molar inclines
A.

A.

Lingual to the maxillary central incisors

Facial to the mandibular central incisors
Lingual to the maxillary canines
Lingual to the mandibular first molars
Facial to the maxillary second molars

25-35 percent
40-50 percent
55-65 percent
70-80 percent

6.
C.
D.
E.

Mesiofacial
Mesiolingual
Distofacial
Distolingual
Cusp of Carabelli

142.

In an ideal intercuspal relation, which of the

following maxillary teeth have single
antagonists?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

147.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Central incisors
Lateral incisors
First premolars
First molars
Third molars

148.
143.

Which of the following represents the structure

on the crown of a maxillary canine which is
located immediately to the mesial of the
mesiolingualfossa?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Lingual ridge
Mesial marginal ridge
Distal marginal ridge
Distolingual fossa
Mesial developmental groove

The epithelial attachment is always an actual

part of the tooth's
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

145.

The dentition of a normally developed

6 ID-year-old child usually consists of which
of the following teeth?
A.
B.
C.
D.

46.

8 primary and 8 permanent

10 primary and 10 permanent
18 primary and 6 permanent
20 primary

Which of the following represents the

movement of a tooth through the surrounding
tissue so that the clinical crown gradually
appears longer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

150.

Eruption
Attrition
Mastication
Exfoliation
Longitudinal development

Anterior guidance
Posterior guidance
Bennett side shift
Intercondylar distance

Which of the following represents the

EARLIEST age by which the roots of the
maxillary first premolar are completely
formed?
A.
B.
C.
D.

151.

Maxillary first
Maxillary second
Mandibular first
Mandibular second

Which of the following plays the greatest role

in disoccluding the posterior teeth in lateroprotrusive movements?
A.
B.
C.
D.

anatomical crown.
clinical crown.
gingival line.
cervical line.
periodontium.

#22 and #23

#23 and #24
#24 and #25
#25 and #26

Which primary molar has a crown somewhat

resembling a permanent premolar, but the
root form is typical of a permanent molar?
A.
B.
C.
D.

149.
144.

In a protrusive movement, the maxillary left

central incisor can potentially come in contact
with which of the following mandibular teeth?

8-9 years
10-11 years
12-13 years
14-15 years

Viewed from the occlusal, the basic coronal

outline of a mandibular second premolar is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

square.
circular.
rhomboidal.
pentagonal.
rectangular.

Which of the following BEST describes the

location of the cervical line on a mandibular
lateral incisor?
A.
B.
C.
D.

E.

156.

A.

On the distal, it is more apical than on

the mesial.
On the lingual, it is more incisal than on
the facial.
On the mesial, it is more apical than on
the distal.
On the facial, it is more apical than on
the lingual.
On the facial and the lingual, it is at the
same level.

B.
C.
D.

157.

153.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Tooth

Distal
Mesial
Central
Mesial

Second premolar
Second premolar
First molar
First molar

158.

E.

Maxillary central incisor

Mandibular central incisor
Maxillary lateral incisor
Mandibular lateral incisor
Maxillary canine

Ligaments associated with the TMJ serve to

D.
E.

155.

Maxillary first
Mandibular first
Maxillary second
Mandibular second

Which of the following teeth would MOST

likely be congenitally absent?
A.
B.
C.
D.

154.

from the dentinoenamel junction apically

in the cervical third of the crown.
from the dentinoenameljunction
occlusally in the cervical third of the
crown.
in the same direction as in a permanent
tooth in the cervical third, but not in the
incisal or occlusal thirds of the crown.
in a diffused and gnarled manner in the
cervical third of the crown.

Which of the following molars has the

LARGEST mesiodistal measurement of its
crown?
A.
B.
C.
D.

In a normal occlusion, the lingual cusp of the

maxillary second premolar occludes with
which fossa of which mandibular tooth?
Fossa

Enamel rods in a primary tooth extend

inhibit the normal masticatory cycle.

protect surrounding and supporting
tissues from damages.
assist musculature in producing
movement.
allow for retrusive movement to occur.
provide elastic potential to allow for
border movements.

From a facial view, where would the

cementoenamel junction be MOST apically
positioned on the crown of a primary
mandibular first molar?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Mesial one-third
Middle one-third
Distal one-third
Equally positioned in all thirds

159.

Which of the following posterior teeth normally

exhibit two root canal orifices?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

160.

Mandibular first premolars

Maxillary first premolars
Maxillary second premolars
Maxillary first molars
Mandibular first molars

Which of the following describes the proximal

contact relationship between a maxillary
central incisor and a maxillary lateral incisor?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Contact is offset to the lingual.

Contact is centered incisocervically.
Lingual embrasure is larger than the
facial embrasure.
lncisal embrasure is the largest of all the
embrasures.

161.

A crown concavity, which is confluent with a

longitudinal groove of the root, is a rather
common feature of which surface of which
premolar?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

162.

Mesial
Distal
Mesial
Distal
Mesial

Maxillary first
Maxillary first
Mandibular first
Mandibular first
Mandibular second

167.

Which of the following characteristics is

common to maxillary first and second
premolars?
The lingual cusp tip is offset to the
mesial.
B. The lingual cusp tip is offset to the distal.
C. The facial and lingual cusps are equal in
size and prominence.
D. The mesial root concavity extends
across the cervical line onto the cervical
third of the crown.
E. The lingual height of contour is in the
cervical third of the crown.

168.

In a molar, where do root canals usually join

the pulp chamber?
A.
B.

At the level of the furcation

At varying levels, dependent upon age
C. Within the middle third of the crown
D. Within the cervical third of the crown
E. Apical to the cementoenamel junction

169.

The lingual aspect of a mandibular first molar

presents with
A.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Number of roots
Number of lingual cusps
Presence of a lingual groove
Position of the lingual cusps
Number of developmental grooves

B.

C.
D.
E.

165.

When compared with the incisal embrasure

between the maxillary central and lateral
incisors, the incisal embrasure between the
maxillary central incisors is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

larger.
smaller.
the same size.
determined by the position of the
epithelial attachment.
determined by the height of curvature of
the cervical line.

Maxillary first
Maxillary second
Mandibular first
Mandibular second

A.

widermesiodistally.
narrower mesiodistally.
more symmetrical.
having a smoother lingual surface.

Which of the following characteristics of a

mandibular first molar distinguishes this tooth
from a mandibular second molar?

From the facial view, which premolar has a

mesial cusp ridge longer than its distal cusp
ridge?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Maxillary central
Maxillary lateral
Mandibular central
Mandibular lateral

The crown of a mandibular lateral incisor,

compared to the crown of a mandibular central
incisor in the same mouth, is BEST described
as
A.
B.
C.
D.

4 64.

Premolar

A peg-shaped crown form is an occasional

anomalous occurrence of which of the
following incisors?
A.
B.
C.
D.

163.

Surface

166.

170.

a lingual groove extending onto the

lingual surface and ending in the cervical
third of the crown.
a large mesiolingual cusp and much
smaller distolingual cusp.
the lingual surface of each cusp
possessing a slightly convex shape in
the occlusal third.
three lingual cusps.
two lingual grooves.

On the crown of a maxillary canine, which of

the following structures is located immediately
to the mesial of the mesiolingual fossa?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Lingual ridge
Distal marginal ridge
Mesial marginal ridge
Distolingual fossa
Mesial developmental groove

171.

The transseptal group of periodontal fibers

travel from one root to an adjacent root
surface.

176.

This pathway occurs via the facial aspect of

the alveolus.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Both statements are TRUE.

Both statements are FALSE.
The first statement is TRUE, the second
is FALSE.
The first statement is FALSE, the second
is TRUE.

When the posterior teeth are in a crossbite

relationship, which of the following cusps are
considered supporting cusps?
A.
B.
C.
D.

177.

The central pit of the maxillary first molar is

formed at the bases of the triangular ridges of
which cusps?
A.

When the mandible moves to the right side,

which of the following represents the
excursive tooth contacts which could occur on
the right molars?
A.
B.
C.
D.

173.

Non-working side contacts

Working side contacts
Lateral contacts
Occlusion

B.
C.
D.

178.

Which of the following representsthe eighth

tooth from the midline in each mandibular
quadrant at age 26?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

179.
174.

The usual order of eruption of primary teeth

following the central incisors is

B.
C.
D.

175.

first molars, lateral incisors, second

molars, canines.
lateral incisors, first molars, second
molars, canines.
lateral incisors, first molars, canines,
second molars.
lateral incisors, canines, first molars,
second molars.

During an endodontic procedure on

Tooth #21, clinical symptoms lead the dentist
to suspect the presence of a second pulp
canal. Which direction is the MOST likely
location for the suspected canal?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Facial
Distal
Lingual
Mesial

B.
C.
D.

180.

Mesiolingual developmental
Distolingual developmental
Mesial marginal
Linguogingival

The physiologic rest position of the mandible

is established when the
A.

A.

Mesiobuccal, mesiolingual,and
distobuccal
Mesiobuccal, mesiolingual, and
distolingual
Mesiobuccal, distobuccal, and
distolingual
Mesiolingual, distobuccal, and
distolingual

Which of the following grooves on a

mandibular first premolar originates in an
occlusal pit and extends onto a proximal
surface?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Second molar with incomplete root

Second molar with complete root
Third molar with incomplete root
Third molar with complete root
Not erupted

Maxillary facial and mandibular facial

Maxillary facial and mandibular lingual
Maxillary lingual and mandibular facial
Maxillary lingual and mandibular lingual

muscles of mastication are in tonic

equilibrium.
maxillary and mandibular teeth make the
greatest occlusal contact.
condyles are in their most retruded
position.
condyles are in their most protruded
position.

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the

mesiolingualcusps of maxillary molars
occlude with which of the following anatomic
structures of mandibular molars?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Mesial fossae
Distal fossae
Central fossae
Mesial marginal ridges

181.

Which of the following occurs in a right lateral

movement?

A.

B.
C.
D.

186.

The right condyle primarily rotates.

The right condyle moves down the
eminentia.
The facial cusps of the mandibular left
side pass under the maxillary left facial
cusps.
The facial cusps of the mandibular right
side pass under the maxillary right
lingual cusps.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

187.
182.

Some degree of protection for lips, cheeks,

and tongue is afforded by the

A.
B.
C.
D.

183.

188.

Cingulum
Cervical ridge
Marginal ridge
lncisal ridge
Root apex

190.
A.
B.
C.
D.

185.

larger distofacial cusp.

shorter distolingual groove.
greater mesiodistal crown width.
greater occlusocervical crown width.

Which of the following are the principal muscle

fibers that retrude the mandible?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Superficial rnasseter
Posterior belly of the digastric
Posterior fibers of the temporal
Posterior fibers of the internal pterygoid

Lateral
Lateral
Lateral
Central
Central

Concrescence
Enamel pearls
Hypercementosis
Cementa1 pearls

The distofacial of a maxillary

The mesiofacial of a maxillary
The lingual of a maxillary
The mesial of a mandibular
The distal of a mandibular

Maxillary first premolar

Maxillary first molar
Mandibular second premolar
Mandibular first molar
Mandibular second molar

Which of the following teeth normally exhibits

five major cusps?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

191.

Facio-incisal
Mesial and distal
Distal
Mesial
Distal

Which of the following teeth usually has the

steepest cusp inclines?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

When compared to a maxillary first molar, the

crown of a second molar normally exhibits a

Maxillary incisor

In the midroot cross-section, which root of a

first molar has the largest area?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

189.

Marginal ridge(s)

Excessive calcified tissue formation at the root

apices is known as which of the following?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following structures calcifies first

in an anterior tooth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

184.

contact of adjacent teeth.

deflecting function of triangular ridges.
facial and lingual heights of contour of
the teeth.
horizontal and vertical overlapping of the
teeth.

In the intercuspal position, the facio-incisal

aspect of a mandibular central incisor opposes
which of the following structure(s) of which
maxillary incisor?

Primary mandibular first molar

Primary maxillary second molar
Maxillary first molar
Mandibular first molar
Mandibular second molar

In the diagram of the envelope of motion, the

maximum opening position is the MOST

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

centrally-located.
anterior.
superior.
posterior.
inferior.

192.

The primary mandibular first molar normally

exhibits which of the following?
A.

196.

The third tooth from the midline normally

erupts prior to the fourth tooth from the midline
in

An oblique ridge

6. A facial pit

A.

C.
D.
E.

B.

Three roots
A distal groove
A distal triangular fossa

C.
D.

193.

Which of the following BEST characterizes a

of mandibular second molar?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

197.

Exhibits four cusps

Exhibits a DF groove
Exhibits a distal cusp
Exhibits one fused root
Similar to the five-cusp variety
mandibular third molar

194.

Assuming occlusion and alignment are

normal, the arrow in the illustration below
represents the path taken by a

195.

cusp of canine.
facial cusp of first premolar.
lingual cusp of first premolar.
facial cusp of second premolar.
lingual cusp of second premolar

When a patient moves from maximum

intercuspal position to place the anterior teeth
into an edge-to-edge relationship, the
condyles of the mandible have moved
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

backward.
forward.
downward.
forward and downward.
backward and downward.

Transverse of the oblique ridge

Distal oblique
Distolingual
Faciolingual
Central

The maxillary lateral incisor is usually equal to

or larger than the maxillary central incisor in
which dimensions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

200.

6 to 7 years
8 to 9 years
10 to IIyears
12tol3years
14 to I 5 years

Which of the following grooves on a maxillary

first molar runs from the mesial pit to the
central pit on the occlusal surface?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

199.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

At what age is a primary maxillary canine

usually exfoliated?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

198.

the mandibular arch of the primary

dentition.
the maxillary arch of the primary
dentition.
the mandibular arch of the permanent
dentition.
the maxillary arch of the permanent
dentition.

Root width (faciolingually)

Crown width (mesiodistally)
Crown width (faciolingually)
Root length (cervicoapically)
Crown length (cervicoincisally)

Which of the following canines is the last

anterior tooth to erupt and at what age does it
erupt?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Mandibular; 9-10 years

Maxillary; 9-10 years
Mandibular; 11-12 years
Maxillary; 11-12 years

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATIONS

PART 1
TEST:
FORM:
DATE:

DENTAL ANATOMY-OCCLUSION
14 (A14)
D98
h

Key

Item

Key

Item

Key

126
127
128
129
130

C
A
B
D
C

151
152
153
154
155

D
A
A
B
A

176
177
178
179
180

B
A
A
A
C

B
D
A
D
C

131
132
133
134
135

D
E
D
D
E

156
157
158
159
160

B
B
C
B
C

181
182
183
184
185

A
D
D
B
C

111
112
113
114
115

E
A
A
D
C

136
137
138
139
140

C
C
B
B
C

161
162
163
164
165

A
B
A
E

186
187
188
189
190

D
C
D
A
D

116
117
118
119
120

B
D
A
D
A

141
142
143
144
145

D
E
B
E
C

166
167
168
169
170

A
A
E
C
C

191
192
193
194
195

E
E
A
D
D

121
122
123
124
125

B
B
D
B
B

146
147
148
149
150

A
B
A
A
C

171
172
173
174
175

C
B
D
C
C

196
197
198
199
200

C
C
E
D
D

Item

Key

Item

101
102
103
104
105

D
B
C
E
B

106
107
108
109
110

MICROBIOLOGY-PATHOLOGY (13)
DENTAL ANATOMY AND OCCLUSION (14)

PART l
MONDAY - P.M.
DECEMBER 1998

TEST BOOKLET
DO NOT OPEN TEST BOOKLET UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO BEGIN.

1.

In addition to this test booklet, you should have an answer sheet.

2.

Use a No. 2 pencil on all test materials.

3.

Enter your name and reference number below.

Name
Last

First

Middle

Reference Number

4.

Enter your name and reference number on the side of the answer sheet numbered 1 to 100 (SIDE 1).
Blacken the circle that corresponds to each digit of your reference number.

5. Enter the name of this test (MICROBIOLOGY-PATHOLOGY) and the number of this test (13) on the
answer sheet. Blacken the circles that correspond to the test number.

6. Check to be sure you have completed each step above.

YOU ARE READY TO BEGIN. For each test item, decide which choice is correct and blacken the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet. Record only one answer for each test item; there is no penalty for selecting an
incorrect response. You may write in the test booklet; however, your score is based on the total number of
correct answers recorded on your answer sheet. You are allowed 3 112 hours to complete this test booklet.
All test materials must be returned before or immediately upon the request of the Test Administrator. Use of a
magnifying glass is permitted. Use of other study aids is not permitted. No test items are to be copied or notes
taken. Infraction of these rules will result in your scores being voided.

COPYRIGHT 1998
JOINT COMMISSION ON NATIONAL DENTAL EXAMINATIONS
AMERICAN DENTAL ASSOCIATION
211 EAST CHICAGO AVENUE, CHICAGO, ILLINOIS 60611

1.

A patient who has anemia, poorly localized

abdominal pain, and wrist and foot drop probably
is manifesting a toxic state induced by which of
the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

2.

3.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

4.

Protooncogenes
Viral oncogenes
Retroviral genes
Analogous chromosomes
Homologous chromosomes

Which of the following bacterial vaccines is given

routinely to children in the U.S.A.?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

7.

Measles
Roseola
Chickenpox
Viral meningitis
Infectious mononucleosis

Normal human cells contain gene sequences

homologous to virus genome sequences known to
induce cancer in animals. What term applies to
these gene sequences when found in human
cells?

BCG
Cholera
Polyvalent pneumococcus
Measles, mumps, rubella
Diptheria, pertussis, tetanus

Which of the following commonly produces a

positive heterophile antibody test?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Carbon tetrachloride
Carbon monoxide
Bismuth
Mercury
Lead

A patient with shingies (herpes zoster) is MOST

likely to have had a previous episode of which of
the following?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

6.

Which of the following inflammatory responses is

associated with an infection caused by pyogenic
pathogens?
A.
B.
C.
D.

8.

Catarrhal
Granulomatous
Pseudomembranous
Acute suppurative

Which of the following bacterial genera is LEAST

likely to be found among normal anaerobic flora of
the gingival sulcus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

9.

Adenovirus
Cytomegalovirus
Epstein-Barrvirus
Parainfluenza virus
Herpes simplex virus type 1

Mycobactenurn
Fusobactenum
Prevotella
Actinobacillus
Potphyrornonas

If Type A blood is accidentally transfused into a

Type B recipient, the immediate hemolytic
reaction would be the result of which of the
following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

IgM against the A antigen

IgA against the A antigen
IgG against the B antigen
T cytotoxic cell activation
Sensitization to antigens other than A or B

10. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate

5.

Which of the following organisms is commonly

located on the dorsum of the tongue?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Actinomyces israelii
Streptococcus salivanus
Lactobacillus acidophilus
Prevotella rnelaninogenica
Streptococcusmutans

alternative for treating a patient allergic to

penicillin who has an infection caused by bacteria
sensitive to penicillin?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Rifampin
Amoxicillin
Erythromycin
Tetracycline
Cephalosporin

11. In the past 30 years, the mortality rate of which of

16. A patient with rheumatic heart disease is MOST

the following forms of cancer in women has

shown a marked increase?

likely to develop congestive heart failure due to

which of the following?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Uterine cervix
Colorectal
Stomach
Breast
Lung

12. Normal clotting time and normal platelet count

accompanied by prolonged bleeding time
suggest which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Hemophilia
Steatorrhea
Polycythemia Vera
Thrombocytopenic purpura
Excessive aspirin ingestion

13. Dry heat sterilization of dental instruments

requires
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

3 minutes at 2 7 0 ' ~ (132'~).

20 minutes at 2 5 0 ' ~ (121'~).
30 minutes at 3 2 0 ' ~ (160'~).
60 minutes at 3 4 0 ' ~ (171'~).
6 hours at 1 0 0 ' ~(38'~).

14. Successful immunization with a hepatitis B

vaccine results in the development of serum
antibodies to which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.

HBsAg
HBcAg
HBeAg
HBV-DNA polymerase

17. Which of the following represents the phenotypic

expression of both alleles in a gene pair?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

autosomal dominant disorder?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Gardner syndrome
Cleft palate
Gout

Penetrance
Lyonization
Codominance
Hybridization
Heterozygosity

18. Hereditary angioedema is the result of which of

the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Lack of a thymus
Deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor
Developmental arrest of lymphocytes
Defective VH gene recombination to DJH
Bare lymphocytes (no Class llll antigens)

19. Legionella pneumophilia is commonly transmitted

by
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

15. Which of the following represents a simple

Heart murmur
Valvular insufficiency
Digitalis toxicity
Cor pulmonale
Aschoff bodies in coronary arteries

sexual contact.
water contaminated with human waste.
aerosolization of organisms in contaminated
soil.
direct contact with respiratory droplets from
a contaminated person.
aerosolization of organisms in air
conditioning cooling towers.

20. Which of the following BEST represents the

pathogenesis of jaundice in patientswith
hepatitis A?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Massive hemolysis
Portal hypertension
Damage to liver cells
Massive fibrosis of the liver
Obstruction of main bile ducts

21. Which of the following pathologic changes is

irreversible?

A.
B.
C.

D.

Fatty change in liver cells

Karyolysis in myocardial cells
Glycogen deposition in hepatocyte nuclei
Hydropic vacuolization of renal tubular
epithelial cells

22. Which of the following is the major VIRAL cause

of birth defects in infants in developed countries?
A.
B.
C.

D.
E.

Measles
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes simplex
Rubella
Varicella-zoster

23. Warts are caused by which of the following?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Papillomaviruses
Herpesviruses
Rhinoviruses
Adenoviruses
Rotaviruses

24. To which of the following molecules does HIV

bind?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

CD4
CD8
MHC Class I
MHC Class II
immunoglobulin

27. Uncomplicated healing of a wound by secondary

intention, observed microscopically at three days,
is MOST likely to show evidence of which ofthe
following?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Mature cicatrix
Keloid formation
Granulomatous inflammation
Lack of acute inflammation
Ulceration of the epithelial surface

28. Which of the following represents the MOST

common autopsy finding in instances of sudden
death as a result of myocardial infarction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Valvular prolapse
Coronary thrombosis
Fibrinous pericarditis
Aneurysm of the heart wall
Rupture of the coronary vessel

29. Which of the following represents the

characteristic cellular infiltrate in delayed type
hypersensitivity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

T cells and macrophages

Eosinophils
Neutrophils
B cells and plasma cells
Mast cells and basophils

30. Which type of oral candidiasis is likely to produce

a firmly adherent white plaque on the oral
mucosa?

25. Which of the following viral diseases has the

LONGEST incubation period?
A.
B.
C.
D.

E.

Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Common cold
Influenza
Measles
Rabies

A.
B.
C.
D.

Acute pseudomembranous
Chronic hyperplastic
Chronic atrophic
Acute atrophic

31. If a foreign antigen enters the body through the

26. Which of the following typically results in sudden
death?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Bronchiectasis
Pneumoconiosis
Pulmonary emphysema
Pulmonary saddle embolus
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

skin, which of the following portions of the

lymphoid system is the antigen MOST likely to
reach FIRST?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Liver
Spleen
Thymus
Lymph nodes
Mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue

32. Each of the following is commonly associated with

congestive heart failure EXCEPT one. Which
one is this EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Dyspnea
Cyanosis
Anasarca
Ankle edema
Passive congestion of the liver

38. Which of the following genera of bacteria is MOST

commonly found on the skin?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Candida
Brucella
Bacillus
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus

39. Which of the following is unique to gram-negative

33.

The appearance of new strains of human

immunodeficiency virus are primarily the result of
A.
B.
C,
D.

natural selection.
genomic recombination.
errors in translation.
errors in transcription.

34. Bleeding esophageal varices are a common

bacteria?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Flagella
Capsules
Ribosomes
Endotoxins
Endospores

40. Inadequate immobilization after a bone fracture is

complication of which of the following conditions?

MOST likely to result in which of the following?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Cirrhosis
Hiatal hernia
Pancreatic carcinoma
Chronic active hepatitis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

Osteornyelitis
Osteoarthritis
Pseudoarthrosis
Heberden's nodes
Rheumatoid arthritis

41. Phage conversion is responsible for which of the

following?

35. Which of the following is the primary site of origin

of neuroblastoma?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Brain
Kidney
Stomach
Mandible
Adrenal gland

36. In the process of cell death, lysosomal enzymes

function mainly to
A.
B.
C.
D.

autolyze necrotic cells.

mediate cell degeneration.
act as a major target for cell injury.
activate the complement sequence.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Transformation of bacteria
Production of beta-galactose
Production of pyrogenic toxin
Ability of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen

42. Which of the following represents the BESTway

to verify heat sterilization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Using a chemical monitor

Recording sterilizer pressure
Recording duration of exposure
Recording sterilizer temperature
Testing with biological indicator

43. Which of the following diseases is MOST often

characterized by hyphae growing in and around
vessels?

37. The antigen-binding site of antibody molecules is

localized in the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Fab fragment.
Fc receptor.
J-chain.
constant region.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Candidiasis
Mucormycosis
Blastomycosis
Histoplasmosis
Coccidioidomycosis

44. In either an allergic reaction or a parasitic

49. The process of gene transfer between bacterial

infection, which of the following cells increase in

number in the bloodstream?

cells that involves the uptake of naked DNA

molecules is classified as which of the following?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Basophils
Eosinophils
Plasma cells
Atypical lymphocytes
Nucleated erythrocytes

45. Which of the following viruses is characterized by

Conjugation
Transduction
Translocation
Transformation
Gene conversion

50. Obesity, striae, moon face, buffalo hump, and

latency and by the clinical symptoms that can

follow trauma, fever, or nerve damage?

osteoporosis are manifestations of which of the

following?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Variola
Influenza
Rubella
Herpes simplex
Coxsackievirus A

Myxedema
Acromegaly
Addison's disease
Cushing's syndrome
Diabetes insipidus

51. The capsule of Streptococcus rnutans is an

important virulence factor that

46. Which of the following is the MOST important

function of bacterial pili in causing human
infectious disease?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Making the bacteria motile

Allowing bacteria to adhere to human cells
Transfering DNA from one bacterium to
another
Destroying phagocytic macrophages and
neutrophils

47. Host responses against encapsulated

Streptococcuspneurnoniae are chiefly mediated
by which of the following?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

has proteolytic activity.

enhances oral accumulation.
causes circulatory collapse.
prevents phagocytic digestion.
is necessary to cause bacteremia.

52. Which of the following genera form endospores?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Proteus and Escherichia

Clostridiurn and Bacillus
Porphyromonas and Streptococcus
Mycobacteriurn and Actinornyces
Staphylococcus and Corynebactenurn

53. Which of the following chemical agents has the

broadest antimicrobial spectrum of activity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

IgE
IgD
Opsonins
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Delayed hypersensitivity

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Phenol
Ethanol
lsopropanol
Glutaraldehyde
Quaternary amine

54. Which of the following viruses does NOT establish

48. MOST rickettsia1 diseases can produce severe

a latent infection?

illness in humans because rickettsiae

A.
B.
C.
D.

produce potent exotoxins.

cause extensive CNS damage.
are destructive for epithelial cells.
are destructive for endothelial cells.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Poliovirus
Epstein-Barr
Herpes simplex
Varicellazoster
Cytomegalovirus

55. Cor pulmonale is usually the direct result of

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

viral pneumonia.
myocardial ischemia.
systemic hypertension.
resistance to blood flow through the lungs.
streptococcal hypersensitization.

60. A patient states that he immediately begins

wheezing and has difficulty breathing when
exposed to penicillin. Which ofthe following
classes of antibodies is responsible for the
difficulty in breathing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
IgD

56. Which of the following represents one function of

macrophages in immunity?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Produce IL-2
Produce antibody
Present antigen to antigen-specific T cells
Mediators of antibody dependent cellular
cytotoxicity

61. Multiple drug resistance is related MOST closely

to bacterial
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

plasmids.
chromosomes.
transduction.
transformation.
viruses in the bacterial wall.

57. What is the role of lactobacilli in coronal caries?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Primary pathogen in most cases

Highly pathogenic in animal models
Causes progression of existing lesions
Highly adherent colonizer of smooth
surfaces
Consumes lactic acid produced by
streptococci

62. An enterotoxin formed by Staphylococcus aureus

causes
A.
B.
C.
D.

food poisoning.
a rash on the skin.
neuromuscular paralysis.
spasms of voluntary muscles.

63. The basic chemical structure of endotoxins

includes which of the following?

58. Which of the following represents the formation of

an intravascular blood clot?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Thrombosis
Hemorrhage
Infarction
Embolization
Transudation

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Capsular polysaccharide
Acid stable peptidoglycan
H and L chain glycoproteins
Lipoteichoic acid, polysaccharide, protein
Somatic 0 polysaccharide, core
polysaccharide, lipid A

64. Which of the following causes whooping cough?

59. Which of the following statements is CORRECT

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Haemophilus intluenzae
Streptococcuspneumoniae
Bordetella pertussis
Brucella melitensis
Klebsiella pneumoniae

regarding glioblastoma multiforme?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

The tumor is most common before puberty.

It is classified as a type of meningioma.
It is the most common tvpe of astrocvtoma.
Its prognosis is generaliy more favorable
than Grade I astrocytoma.
It is derived from the epithelial lining of the
ventricles.

65. Which of the following disorders is LEAST likely to

be included in the differential diagnosis of a
patient with acute appendicitis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Crohn's disease
Duodenal peptic ulcer
Meckel's diverticulitis
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Gastroenteritis with mesenteric adenitis

66. Dimorphism in microorganisms is characterized

A.
B.
C.
D.

71. Penicillin is usually non-toxic to human cells

because human cells LACK which of the
following?

by the capability to produce

both sexual and asexual spores.
both a yeast phase and a mycelial phase.
two distinct types of clinical infections.
both by budding and by production of
spores.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Mitochondria
Peptidoglycans
Topoisomerases
Nuclear membranes

72. Anaerobic bacteria obtain their energy

67. During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction,
leukotrienes and prostaglandin
from which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

are generated

Thymus
Histamine
Arachidonic acid
Bradykinin and other kinins
Granules of mast cells and basophils

requirements from which of the following

reactions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Respiration
Fermentation
Atmospheric oxygen
Oxidative phosphorylation
Catalase and superoxide dismutase

73. In order for a virus to infect a host cell, it must first

a graft versus host reaction occur?

adsorb onto the cell surface. This process

necessitates

A.
B.

A.
B.

68. Under which of the following circumstances does

C.

D.
E.

When nonvital tissues are grafted

When viable lymphoid cells are present in
the graft
When the recipient and the donor are
syngeneic
When the graft is contaminated with gramnegative microorganisms
When the donor and the recipient are of
different races

69. Which of the following is associated with an

C.
D.

phagocytic activity by the cell.

an inhibition of the cellular secretion of
interferon.
an insertion of virally specified glycoproteins
into the host-cell membrane.
a specific binding of the virus to a
cell-membrane receptor.

74. Neisseria gonorrheae has affinity for which of the

increased risk of breast cancer?

following structures?

A.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

B.
C.
D.
E.

History of bearing multiple children

Estrogen deficiency
Silicone implants
Fibroadenoma
Obesity

Skin
Nerve cells
Plasma cells
Muscle fibers
Mucous membrane

75. Which of the following is MOST likely caused by

70. Which of the following are directly associated with
destruction of glomerular basement membranes
in a patient with glomerulonephritis?
A.

B.
C.
D.

Eosinophils
Lymphokines
IgE antibodies
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

chronic blood loss due to a long-standing peptic

ulcer?
A.
B.
C.

D.
E.

Aplastic anemia
Hemolytic anemia
Pernicious anemia
Myelophthisic anemia
Iron deficiency anemia

76. An afebrile patient with conjugated

hyperbilirubinemia and an absence of
urobilinogen MOST likely has which of the
following conditions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Cholelithiasis
Aplastic anemia
Hemolytic anemia
Acute hepatitis
Alcoholic cirrhosis

81. Individuals with severe, uncomplicated pulmonary

emphysema might be expected to show which of
the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Cough
Chest pain
Normal or increased total lung capacity
Difficulty when breathing in (inspiration)

82. Which of the following is an oncogenic RNA

virus?

77. Which of the following genera of fungi is MOST

frequently recovered from healthy mucous
membranes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Candida
Aspergillus
Histoplasma
Blastomyces
Coccidioides

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Rotavirus
Retrovirus
Herpesvirus
Paramyxovirus
Papillomavirus

83. Candidiasis in the adult oral cavity may signify a

change in the balance of oral microbiota. This
particular change is often seen in persons who
are taking which of the following drugs?

Which of the following disinfectants is effective

against herpes simplex viruses but NOT
rhinoviruses?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Phenolics
lodophores
Glutaraldehydes
Sodium hypochlorite
70% isopropyl alcohol

A.
B.
C.

Antiviral
Antifungal
Antibacterial

84. In addition to Kaposi's sarcoma, which other

malignant neoplasm is often observed in AIDS?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Mycosis fungoides
Testicular carcinoma
Neuroblastoma
Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma

79. The chemotactic accumulation of inflammatory

cells that occurs at the sites where immune
complexes are deposited is MOST probably due
to the presence of
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

C5a.
Factor B.
IL-2.
IgA.
IgE.

80. In which of the following organs or tissues are

ascending infections common?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Bone
Heart
Kidney
Peritoneum
Subcutaneous connective tissue

85. Which of the following represents a malignant

tumor arising from mesenchymal tissue?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Sarcoma
Adenoma
Carcinoma
Hamartoma
Choristoma

86. Certain enzymes are responsible for suppuration.

These enzymes derive chiefly from
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

serum.
tissue.
neutrophils.
lymphocytes.
plasma cells.

87. Which of the following represents the classic

92. Which of the following represents the epithelial

microscopic lesion of rheumatoid arthritis?

change MOST predictive of cancer?

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

E.

Tophus
Pannus
Aschoff body
Heberden node
Wire-loop lesion

88. A 43-year-old woman exhibits radiographic

evidence of an osteolytic lesion of the humerus.
Her serum calcium level is elevated.
Microscopically, the bone lesion shows numerous
giant cells. Which of the following represents the
MOST probable diagnosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Renal rickets
Fibrous dysplasia
Osteitis deformans
Hyperparathyroidism

Dysplasia
Metaplasia
Acanthosis
Parakeratosis
Hyperkeratosis

93. Acute leukemias are MOSToften seen in which of

the following age groups?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Under 20 years
20-40 years
40-60 years
60-80 years
Over 80 years

94. Which of the following is a major component of

nephrotic syndrome?

89. Adult respiratory distress syndrome might be

caused by each of the following EXCEPT one.
Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Shock
Heroin overdose
Viral pneumonia
Cigarette smoking
Breathing 100 percent 0 2

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

95. Which of the following is the MOST common skin

cancer in humans?
A.
B.

90. Which of the following is thought to be of MOST

significance in the
an uncontrolled diabetic?
A.

Genetics

endothelium

Anemia
Hematuria
Hypertension
Proteinuria
Red cell casts in the urine

C.
D.

E.

Malignant melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Sebaceous adenocarcinoma
Transitional cell carcinoma

96. Which of the following represents the MOST

probable cause for prolonged bleeding time in a
patient with leukemia?

A.
B.
C.
D.

E.

Decreased factor Vlll

lncreased factor IX
lncreased megakaryocytes
Decreased level of serum calcium
Decreased number of blood platelets

91. Rheumatic fever can be a sequelae to which of

the following streptococcal infections?
A.
B.
C.
D.

E.

Pyoderma
Diphtheria
Scarlet fever
Dental caries
Streptococcal gangrene

97. An abscess in the oral cavity with central necrosis

extruding pus containing sulfur granules would be
which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Furuncle
Tuberculosis
Actinomycosis
Vincent's infection

98. Patients with which of the following malignancies

have the poorest prognosis?
A.
6.
C.
D.
E.

Lung cancer
Malignant melanoma
Pancreatic carcinoma
Carcinoma of the colon
Squamous carcinoma of the tongue

99. Asymptomatic carriers are a major hazard of

which of the following?
A.
6.
C.
D.
E.

Plague
Shigellosis
Salmonellosis
Typhoid fever
Legionnaire's disease

100. Acid phosphatase is elevated in which ofthe

following malignancies?
A.
6.
C.
D.
E.

Multiple myeloma
Carcinoma of the breast
Squamous cell carcinoma
Carcinoma of the thyroid
Metastatic carcinoma of the prostate

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATIONS

PART 1
TEST:
FORM:
DATE:

MICROBIOLOGY-PATHOLOGY
13 (A13)
D98

Item

Key

Item

Key

Item

Key

Item

Key

1
2
3
4
5

E
C
A
E
B

26
27
28
29
30

D
E
B
A
B

51
52
53
54
55

B
B
D
A
D

76
77
78
79
80

A
A
E
A
C

6
7
8
9
10

C
D
A
A
C

31
32
33
34
35

D
C
D
A
E

56
57
58
59
60

C
C
A
C
B

81
82
83
84
85

C
B
C
D
A

11
12
13
14
15

E
E
D
A
C

36
37
38
39
40

A
A
E
D
C

61
62
63
64
65

A
A
E
C
B

86
87
88
89
90

C
B
D
D

16
17
18
19
20

B
C

B
E
C

41
42
43
44
45

C
E
B
B
D

66
67
68
69
70

B
C
B
E
D

91
92
93
94
95

C
A
A
D
B

21
22
23
24
25

B
B
A
A
E

46
47
48
49
50

B
C
D
D
D

71
72
73
74
75

B
B
D
E
E

96
97
98
99
100

E
C
C
D
E