S4 Blank

● PROSTHODONTICS 1, 2, 3 ; DENTAL MATERIALS
1. Which is the most common reason for the failure of a casting to seat?
A. deficient margins B. overextended margins
C. proximal contacts D. buccal overcontouring
2. Final set amalgam should contain

A. 20–35% mercury B. 35–45% mercury.
C. 45–50% mercury. D. 55–65% mercury.
3. What is required in order for polymerization of resins to occur when desired?

A. Monomers. B. Free radicals.
C. Fillers. D. Polymers.
4. The typical polymerization shrinkage of resin composite is:

A. 2–3%. B. 4–5%. C. 6–7%. D. 8–9%.
5. The curing of resin composite is inhibited by:

A. Moisture. B. Filler. C. Calcium hydroxide. D. Oxygen.
6. Which of the following is not one of the setting reaction stages of glass ionomer cement?
A. Gelation stage. B. Dissolution stage.
C. Hardening stage. D. Polymerization stage.
7. Glass ionomers were first introduced in the:

A. 1950s. B. 1960s. C. 1970s. D. 1980s.
8. Which of the following is not a member of the polyalkenoic acid family? A.

Polyacrylic acid. B. Polyitaconic acid. C. Polymaleic acid.
D. Polyacetic acid.
9. The metal ion in glass ionomer which has raised concern over neurotoxicity is:
A. Magnesium. B. Aluminum. C. Tin. D. Zinc.
10. Hydrogen peroxide in dentistry ____.

A. has been in use for more than 100
years
B. has been found to promote bone healing
C. has no antimicrobial effects
D. cannot be used in conjunction with periodontal surgery
11. The carbamide peroxide reaction is defined as follows:

A. Carbamide peroxide degrades into hydrogen peroxide and water.
B. Carbamide peroxide degrades into oxygen and water.
C. Carbamide peroxide degrades into ammonia and carbon dioxide.
D. Carbamide peroxide degrades into hydrogen peroxide and urea.
12. The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla are the:
A. “s” sounds B. “t” and “th” sounds C. “f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds
13.Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but not
sweets occurs. The most likely cause is;
A. gingival recession D. unseating of the bridge
B. deflective occlusal contact E. torsional forces on one abutment tooth C.
incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth
14. The means by which one part of a partial denture framework opposes the action of the
retainer in function is called;
A. tripoding C. stress-breaking
B. reciprocation D. indirect retention
15. For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain the
remaining supporting tissues?
A. Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
B. Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth
16. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is:
A. increased rigidity C. increased durability
B. increased retention D. conservation of tooth surface
17. In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims and central bearing point are
in contact and the mandible is in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the:
A. interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest position
B. vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension
E. occlusal vertical dimension
18. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

A. limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
B. affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
C. limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space
D. determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the maxillary denture.
19. Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial
denture?
Plastic teeth are:
A. resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
B. resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin
20. A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from canine-to-canine needs an
immediate maxillary denture. There is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient is
best treated by: A. reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
B. reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
C. reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony undercut
D. leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.
21. Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial denture is the most esthetic?
A. A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attachment
B. A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-wire clasp
22. Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to mount a patient’s casts on the true
hinge axis?
A. When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation.
B. When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures. C. When the dentist plans to
change the vertical dimension through restorations.
D. When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with high-cusped teeth on a fully adjusted
articulator.
23. Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a condensation impression material as
soon as possible?
A. The degree of polymerization of condensation polymers is initially high and then decreases
with time. B. Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of the set material.
C. If left unpoured, condensation impression materials expands as they absorb water from air.
D. Condensation polymers will start to react with the polymer of the impression tray and cause
distortion.
24. Which of the following is a problem with the polyether impression materials?
A. Low modulus of elasticity
B. Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
C. dimensional instability when exposed to moisture
D. consistency very similar to the reversible hydrocolloid
25. The component common to most composite resins, sealants, bonding and glazing agents,
and resin cements for orthodontic bonds is;
A. inorganic filler C. poly (methyl methacrylate)
B. benzoyl methyl ether D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methacrylate
26. Dental amalgam will best withstand forces of;

A. Shear B. impact C. tension D. compression
27. The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the denture in a
horizontal direction is:
A. support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stability
28. Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid and, therefore, the most difficult to
remove from the mouth?
A. Polyether C. Addition silicone
B. Polysulfide D. Condensation silicone E. reversible hydrocolloid
29. Which of the following describes the properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol materials,
except: A. They provide an excellent marginal seal.
B. They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
C. They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to those of dentin D. They
are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.
30. Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to redness and plunging them
into an acid bath. This procedure can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the restoration
B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness of the restoration
31. A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal stops may result in:
A. holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
B. a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the tray is removed
C. an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during polymerization D. an
inaccurate final impression because of elastic distortion during removal from the mouth
32. When compared to other materials, which of the following is the main disadvantage of using
polyether elastomeric impression materials?
A. Tear easily C. are much stiffer
B. Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate
E. have longer working time
33. An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is that
polysulfide impression material;
A. will displace soft tissue C. requires less armamentarium
B. is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is present.
34. In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is:
A. silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. Chromium E. Tungsten
35. Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type IV) powder primarily in;
A. Density B. crystal structure
C. Chemical formula D. solubility in water
36. Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages over zinc phosphate
cement?
A. Longer working time C. increased compressive strength
B. Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compatibility
37. Elongated grains in the microstructure of a wrought wire indicates that it has been;
A. cold worked C. stress relief annealed
B. recrystallized D. hardened by heat treatment
38. Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates;

A. degree of translucency C. degree of saturation of the hue
B. combined effect of hue and value D. all of the above E. none of the above.
39. Which of the following materials will produce the most rigid restoration for frameworks of the
same dimension?
A. Wrought gold C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
B. Palladium alloys D. partial denture casting gold in the hardened condition
40. Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol
as a function of the ;
A. concentration of the fillers and plasticizers C. percent composition by weight of water B.
concentration of potassium sulfate D. temperature
41. The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by:
A. using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
B. increasing its height D. increasing the gap
42. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load C. improve embrasure contours
B. stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve mesiodistal spacing
43. A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a patient’s denture teeth to correct
the centric occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should this dentist
do?
A. Make a new centric relation record and remount
B. Make a new face bow and centric record
C. Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
D. Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients
44. Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following?
A. Lingually inclined maxillary molars
B. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
C. Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
D. Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces
45. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic.
Which of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion
of this pontic?
A. The length of the pontic.
B. The masticatory force of the patient. C. The position of the opposing
contact areas.
D. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.
46. The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration is;

A. moisture contamination C. excessive condensation of the porcelain
B. excessive firing D. inadequate condensation of the porcelain
47. On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;

A. horizontal guidance
B. mechanical equivalent of the curve of Spee
C. same as the condylar guidance D. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap.
48. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because;
A. it is stronger
B. better esthetics can be achieved
C. it can be treated as an independent abutment
D. less chair time is required in its fabrication
49. The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown preparation is that;
A. it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be supragingival
B. Its position be subgingivall D. its position be easily discernible
50. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth for a FPD?
A. Tooth with pulpal involvement
B. Tooth with minimal coronal structure
C. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
D. Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown
51. In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a lingual plate preferred over a
lingual bar connector?
A. When more rigidity is required.
B. When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
C. When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
D. When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.
52. Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not be placed over the
ascending area of the mandible?
A. The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
B. The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
C. The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
D. The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of the masseter muscle.
E. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular denture.
53. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:
A. unseating of the denture C. greater retention
B. a tingling sensation D. increased gagging
54. For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on
the non-working side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
A. The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
B. The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central fossae
55. The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent loss of the
vermillion border of the lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to correct the
situation? A. Moving the anterior teeth facially.
C. Increasing the interocclusal distance
B. Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
D. Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension
56. Which classes of mandibular RPDs require an altered cast impression?

A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. both A & B
57. Examples of suprabulge clasps are the following except:

A. Circumferential B. Embrasure C. RPI D. Ring E. Hairpin
58.The following are indications for a linguoplate as a major connector for a mandibular RPD,
except
A. High floor of the mouth (<7 mm of vertical height) D. High lingual frenum
B. Absence of lingual tori E. One or more missing incisors
C. Periodontially involved incisors with possible loss in the future
59. The guide surface preparation should be curved

A. mesio-distally B. bucco-lingually
C. occluso-gingivally D. none of the above
60. The WORST clasp assembly for a terminal abutment on a mandibular class I RPD is
A. Mesial rest and I-bar
B. Mesial and distal rest and a 1/2 and 1/2 clasp
C. Distal rest and cast circumferential clasp
D. Mesial rest and modified T-bar
61.During biting, a maxillary Class I RPD will rotate around a line determined by the rigid metal
above the survey line and closest to the extension areas. This line is called
A. Camper's line B. Frankfort line C. Dual path line D. Axis of rotation
62. Function of clasp: A. help stabilize the RPD by controlling

occlusal movement.
B. help stabilize the RPD by controlling gingival movement.
C. may also function as indirect retainers.
D. prevent excessive biting forces on the abutments.
63. When surveying to determine the height of contour of the abutments, the mark on the tooth
must be made by the:
A. side of the lead marker. C. side of the analyzing rod
B. tip of the carbon marker D. tip of the analyzing rod
64. If a metal base is to be used

A. an altered cast impression should be made after framework try-in
B. a stock tray should be used for the final impression
C. a custom tray should be used for the final impression
D. interocclusal records must be made after tooth selection
65. Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and can be used on
premolars for either extension or tooth-supported RPDs?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar
C. lingual modified T-bar D. ring clasp
66. Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and is only used on
molars? A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar C. lingual modified T-bar D. ring
clasp
67. Cleaning a removable partial denture in sodium hypochlorite may result in:
A. increased caries activity C. corrosion of the metal of the framework B.
increased periodontal problems D. A and B above
68. Cast retentive arms are usually selected when the RPD is tooth supported / or when the
retentive tips release during functional movements of extension RPDs.
A. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
B. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
C. First phrase is false, second phrase is false.
D. Both phrases are true.
69. Incisal rests:

A. are generally more positive vertical stops than cingulum rests.
B. may interfere with the opposing occlusion.
C. C. should not be used on maxillary incisors.
D. all of the above.
70. Which of the following steps is done LAST?

A. Rest preparation C. Centric relation records
B. Framework try-in D. Altered cast impression
71. In a circumferential clasp assembly, only one of the arms may extend into an undercut. The
other arm, the bracing or reciprocating arm, must be rigid and therefore, cannot extend into an
undercut.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. First statement is false, second statement is false. D. First statement is true, second
statement is true.
72. An anterior-posterior palatal strap major connector is less rigid than a horse-shoe major
connector because it (the A-P strap) has less width.
A. The first statement is true but the reason is false.
B. The first statement is false and the reason is also a false statement.
C. The first statement is true and the reason is true. D. The first statement is false but the
reason is a true statement.
73. Guide plates for anterior teeth

A. should be kept to the labial for best esthetics. C. be thinned on the labial aspect.
B. should be kept to the lingual for best esthetics. D. both B and C above.
74. Occlusal rest preparations should be

A. spoon shaped C. at least one millimeter deep
B. at least 1/3 the buccolingual width of the occlusal surface D. all of the above
75. In general, lingual plating should be supported

A. by the inclined surfaces of the mandibular incisors. C.with minor connectors.
B. with bracing arms. D. with rests.
76. The internal and external finish lines are A. normally superimposed
over each other. B. normally offset from each other to avoid weakness in
the framework.
C. normally designed and placed independently.
D. none of the above statements are true.
77. When placing the tripod marks on the diagnostic cast, the vertical arm of the surveyor
A. should have the analyzing rod in place.
B. should be moved up or down to touch the tissues at widely separated areas.
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 nor 2 are true
78. The partial denture design should be finalized prior to

A. any emergency treatment. C. preparation of rest seats.
B. any fixed prosthodontic treatment. D. both B and C above.
79. The open latticework on a maxillary class I RPD:

A. covers the hamular notch. C. does not cover the tuberosity.
B. covers the tuberosity. D. requires substantial interarch space
80. The external finish line on a maxillary Class I RPD originates from the lingual of the guide
plate of the terminal abutment and ends
A. at the hamular notch. C. opposite the buccal pouch
B. in the glenoid fossa. D. opposite Stenson's duct.
81. The following factor/s may be responsible for the failure to seat the bridge:
A. Cusps may be high.
B. Under contouring axial surfaces of retainer.
C. Abutment teeth may have moved and one or more contacts may be overbuilt.
D. Incorrect hinge axis.
E. None of the above.
82. Trauma to the pulp following tooth preparation for fixed bridges arises from the following
cause/s:
A. Use of spray water. B. Severing vital structures in dentin and an increase in temperature
from frictional heat.
C. Coolant evacuation.
D. Anesthesia.
83. Following cementation, the bridge should be examined :
A. after 3 days. C. after 7 to 10 days.
B. after 14 days D. after 30 days E. none of these.
84. Intraradicular retainers is/are used on:

A. vital teeth
B. any tooth where a complete crown is indicated. C. nonvital teeth when the
coronal tissues cannot be saved.
D. any tooth where a three-quarter crown is indicated.
E. none of the above.
85. The construction of a bridge is normally scheduled after the following is/are completed:
A. surgery
B. surgery, periodontal therapy and operative dentistry
C. periodontal therapy D. Operative dentistry
86. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or portural position, contact of teeth is:
A. maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight
87. Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in complete denture
fabrication for centric relation are true?
A. Ideally selective grinding should result in harmonious cusp-fossa contacts of all upper and
lower fossa (and marginal ridges of bicuspsids)
B. Only grind cusp tips if they are premature in centric, lateral and protrusive movements.
C. Neither of the above statements are true. D. Both of the above statements are true.
88. The shoulderless preparation: A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in
making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines D. requires
building up the short mesial end of the crown
89. The chamfer cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines D. requires building up the
short mesial end of the crown
90. The shoulder cervical finish:

C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines D. requires building up the
91. Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be distributed throughout
the mouth only when major and minor connectors are:
A. rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane E. none of these.
92. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:
A. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces
B. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion
93. A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

A. from the tissues only
B. mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment teeth
C. mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the tissues D. equally from the
abutment teeth and the tissues
94. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal extensions can best be avoided
by:
A. using stressbreakers
B. employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth
C. maintaining tissue support of the distal extensions
D. clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area
E. maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension
95. Which teeth on a maxillary complete denture are the most important when considering
esthetics?
A. Maxillary laterals C. Maxillary canines
B. Maxillary centrals D. Maxillary first premolars
96.A broken-stress or nonrigid FPD is indicated when

A. constructing a mandibular FPD only
B. two or three missing teeth are to be replaced
C. retainers cannot be prepared to draw together without excessive tooth reduction
D. fixed splinting involves tow or three abutment teeth
E. retainers can be designed to have equal retentive qualities.
97. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:
A. failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus
B. lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
C. lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts
D. lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci and sharp marginal ridges.
98. When preparing a partial veneer crown on a maxillary incisor, proximal grooves should be
parallel to the:
A. long axis of the tooth C. incisal two-thirds of the facial surface
B. gingival two-thirds of the facial surface
99. Termination of a free end clasp is referred to as:

A. finger B. stop C. tang D. arm
100. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the adult
patient the depth is:
A. less than 1.0mm C. more than 10mm
B. less than 0.75mm D. more than 1.0mm
PROSTHODONTICS AND DENTAL MATERIALS

Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete
denture with severe bilateral tuberosity undercuts is to:
remove both tuberosity undercuts
reduce the tissue bilaterally
reduce the tissue on one side , if possible
none of the above. No treatment is necessary.
A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed

partial denture in order to:
improve the distribution of the occlusal load C. improve
embrasure contours
stabilize the abutment teeth D.
improve mesiodistal spacing
A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a

patient’s denture teeth to correct the centric occlusion at
the wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should
this dentist do?
Make a new centric relation record and remount
Make a new face bow and centric record
Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation
patients
Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from
which of the following?
Lingually inclined maxillary molars
Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces
In constructing a fixed partial denture for a
patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic.
Which of the following will primarily determine the
faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of
this pontic?
The length of the pontic.
The masticatory force of the patient.
The position of the opposing contact areas.
The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.
Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results
in:
unseating of the denture C. greater retention a
tingling sensation D. increased gagging
For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps
of maxillary posterior teeth on the non-working side
contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual
inclines of the lingual cusps
The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central
fossae
The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and
there is an apparent loss of the vermillion border of the
lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to
correct the situation?
Moving the anterior teeth facially.
Increasing the interocclusal distance
Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
Increasing the occlusal vertical
dimension
The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm
at (in) the:
junction of the gingival and middle one third of the
clinical crown
junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the
clinical crown
level of the free gingival margin
occlusal one third of the clinical
crown
The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the
maxilla are the:
“s” sounds B. “t” and “th” sounds C. “f” and “v”
sounds D. vowel sounds
Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked

discomfort to heat and cold but not sweets occurs. The most
likely cause is;
gingival recession bridge D. unseating of the
deflective occlusal contact E. torsional forces on one

abutment tooth
incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment
teeth
The means by which one part of a partial denture framework
opposes the action of the retainer in function is called;
tripoding C. stress-breaking
reciprocation D. indirect retention
For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most

important to maintain the remaining supporting tissues?
Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric
occlusal contacts
Preserving denture base support D. using plastic
teeth
The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal
splint is:
increased rigidity C. increased durability
increased retention D. conservation of tooth
surface
In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims

and central bearing point are in contact and the mandible is
in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the:
interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest position
vertical dimension D. rest vertical
dimension E. occlusal vertical dimension
In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
affect the position and arrangement of the posterior
tooth limit the thickness of the denture flange in the
maxillary buccal space
determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of
the maxillary denture.
Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic

teeth in a removable partial denture? Plastic teeth are:
resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic
resin
A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from

canine-to-canine needs an immediate maxillary denture. There
is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient
is best treated by:
reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony
undercut
leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture
base.
Which of the following direct retainers for a removable

partial denture is the most esthetic?
A bar clasp ment C. an intracoronal attach-
A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-

wire clasp
Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to

mount a patient’s casts on the true hinge axis?
When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation.
When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures.
When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension
through restorations.
When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with
highcusped teeth on a fully adjusted articulator.
In complete denture fabrication, which of the following
regulate/s the paths of the condyles in mandibular
movements?
the height of the cusps of posterior teeth.
The amount of horizontal and vertical
overlap.
The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and
muscular influence.
The vertical occlusion, centric relation, and degree of
compensating curve.
A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an

abutment tooth because; it is stronger
better esthetics can be achieved it can be
treated as an independent abutment less
chair time is required in its fabrication
The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown
preparation is that;
it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be
supragingival
Its position be subgingivall D. its position be
easily discernible
Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as
an abutment tooth for a FPD?
Tooth with pulpal involvement
Tooth with minimal coronal structure
Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical
crown
The phenomenon where porcelain aapears
different under varying light conditions
is;
metamerism C. transmittance
translucency D. opacification E. refractive
optics
Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations

on short molars can be enhanced by; using zinc phosphate
cement C. placing several vertical groove
using a full shoulder finish line D. minimizing the
depth of occlusal carving
The posterior occlusal plane is determined on an occlusion

rim by paralleling the rim with the; ala-tragus plane C.
tragus-canthus plane ala-canthus plane D. ala-external
auditory meatus plane
Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if

occlusal vertical dimension is increased?
The closing muscles may become strained
The opening muscles may become strained The
closing muscles may become too relaxed
Soreness may occur at the corners of the
mouth.
A patient has a chronically tender, knife-edge mandibular
residual ridge. In fabricating a complete denture for this
patient, a dentist should consider which of the following?
Maximal extension of the denture- to distribute forces of
occlusion over a greater area.
Minimal extension of the denture- to limit tenderness to
a smaller area.
Decreased occlusal vertical dimension- to decrease biting
forces
A broad occlusal table- to provide a firmer contact in
eccentric jar relations.
Tripod marks are placed on the cast after surveying for which
of the following reasons?
To record the undercut areas on the abutment teeth.
To help mount the cast on the articulator
To record the orientation of the cast to the articulator
To record the orientation of the cast to the
surveyor.
In a complete maxillary denture, accurate adaptation of the
border of the maxillary facial flange affects which of the
following the most?
Speech B. support C. stability D. esthetics
The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should

receive special attention. Which of the following anatomical
structures might cause soreness if the denture is
overextended?
Masseter C. pterygmandibular raphe
Buccinator D. internal pterygoid E. lateral
tendon of the temporal
A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture

and mandibular distal-extension partial denture. The
recommended procedure is to make impression of both
simultaneously start first on the maxillary complete
denture start first with the least stable prosthesis
relate first the mandibular partial denture frame
Which of the following mechanical properties limits the amount
of adjustment of a base metal removable clasp arm?
Hardness B. stiffness C. elongation D. tensile strength
In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what

direction?
Out, back and up C. down, forward and medially
Up, back and down down, forward and laterally
none of the above.
The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a
complete denture that has been worn for a long time is:
epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia pyogenic
granuloma D. giant cell reparative granuloma
Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a

base-metal alloy in numerical value?
Hardness C. casting shrinkage
Specific gravity D. fusion temperature E. modulus
elasticity
Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a

condensation impression material as soon as possible?
The degree of polymerization of condensation polymers is
initially high and then decreases with time.
Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of
the set material.
If left unpoured, condensation impression materials
expands as they absorb water from air.
Condensation polymers will start to react with the
polymer of the impression tray and cause distortion.
Which of the following is a problem with the polyether

impression materials?
Low modulus of elasticity
Low coefficient of thermal conductivity dimensional
instability when exposed to moisture consistency very
similar to the reversible hydrocolloid
The component common to most composite resins, sealants,
bonding and glazing agents, and resin cements for
orthodontic bonds is;
inorganic filler C. poly (methyl methacrylate)
benzoyl methyl ether D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methac-
rylate
Dental amalgam will best withstand forces of;

Shear B. impact C. tension D. compression
The relationship of denture base to bone that resists

dislodgement of the denture in a horizontal direction is:
support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stability
Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be

best avoided by:
Using stressbreakers D. using intracoronal attachments
Using bar-type clasps E. altering tooth contours
clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and
normal bone support
Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration

is due primarily to:
occlusal trauma C. failure to use a metal conditioner
improper firing schedule D. an inadequately designed
framework
A patient who wears complete denture is having trouble

pronouncing the letter “t”. This is probably caused by:
too thick a palatal seal area too thick a
base in the mandibular denture incorrect
positioning of maxillary incisors
improper positioning of mandibular
incisors
The distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a
complete denture is limited by the action of the:
stylohyoid muscle C. lateral pterygoid muscle
medial pterygoid muscle D. superior constrictor
muscle
In RPD design. Guiding planes serve to:

aid in balancing occlusion D. assure
predictable clasp retention
from right angles to the occlusal plane E. eliminate
the necessity for precision attachments
eliminate the necessity for a back-action
clasp
When the path of dislodgement is not controlled and
rotational dislodgement of extension bases occurs, remotely
located vertical metal stops placed in prepared seats can be
used to enhance the effectiveness of retentive clasps. The
vertical metal stops are:
indirect claps C. indirect retainers
remote retainer D. forward retainers E. passive
retainers
Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in poor
denture retention D. increased interocclusal
distance
drooping of the corners of the mouth E. creases and
wrinkles around the lip
trauma to underlying supporting
tissues
An advantage of a wide, thin palatal bar compared with a
narrow bar is that the wide bar:
is more stable C. can be rigid with less bulk
is easier to polish D. is less irritating to the
soft tissue
When a cusp is in deflective occlusal contact in centric

relation, but does not contact in one or more of the
eccentric movements, grinding should be performed on: both
the cusp and the opposing area the opposing fossa or the
marginal ridge the cusp that is in deflective occlusal
contact the opposing areas in eccentric positions.
Proper lip support for a patient with complete dentures is

provided primarily by the; convex surface of the labial
flange rounded contours of interdental papillae proper
pronouncement of sibilant sounds thickness of the border in
the vestibule facial surfaces of teeth and stimulated
attached gingiva.
In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture
base, which of the following is on the posterior border?
Hamular notch C. fovea palatini
Hamular process D. vibrating line E. pterygomandibular
raphe
Which of the following will increase retention of a complete

denture?
Xerostomia D. Air chamber in midpalate
Foreshortened denture bases E. Increased salivary film
thickness
Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa
When the posterior maxillary buccal space is entirely filled

with the denture flange, interference may occur with
movement of the; masseter muscle C. condyloid process
coronoid process D. zygomatic process
A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal
extension RPD. This is probably caused by:
deflective occlusal contacts C. thin flanges on
acrylic bases
passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth D.
insufficient facial overlap on posterior teeth
When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position, the
distance between occluding surfaces of maxillary and
mandibular teeth or occlusion rim is; centric occlusion
C. interocclusal distance vertical dimension D.
vertical dimension of rest
Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs;
on closing from centric relation C. on initial opening
from centric relation
in the upper compartment of the TMJ D. in the lower
compartment of the TMJ
The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial

denture is best enhanced by:
using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
Which of the following design characteristics of a partial

denture is most important to oral health?
Bracing B. support C. stability D. retention
The principal factor in minimizing the firing shrinkage of

porcelain is the; fusion temperature C. uniformity
of particle size ratio of flux to feldspar D. thoroughness
of condensation
In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a
lingual plate preferred over a lingual bar connector?
When more rigidity is required.
When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.
Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should

not be placed over the ascending area of the mandible?
The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of
the masseter muscle.
The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would
dislodge the mandibular denture.
The Benneth movement exerts its greatest influence

in; lateral movements C. opening movements
protrusive movements D. closing movements
The face-bow is used to record;
centric relation C. relation of the
mandible to the maxilla
relation of the maxilla to the TMJ D. relation of the
mandible to the TMJ
The function of the compensating curve is; to help provide

a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the
mandible is protruded.
To aid in establishing an incisal guide plane
The same as the function of the curve of Spee
None of the above.
A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This

patient returned repeatedly for adjustments of the
erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the
following is the most likely cause?
An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for
relining. Presence of a pressure spot in the relined
impression
The loss of even centric relation contacts.
A decrease in the occlusal vertical
dimension.
The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure
hinging movements is possible is:
centric occlusion C. postural position of the
mandible (rest vertical dimension)
retruded contact position D. transverse horizontal axis
(terminal hinge position)
To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered

joint of a fixed bridge should be so formed that it;
extends to the buccal margin of the retainer fills the
entire interproximal space occlusogingivally is thin
occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually is circular in
form and occupies the region of the contact area
An abutment tooth exhibiting an unfavorable survey line
should;
be restored C. have unfavorable contours
improved
be by-passed in the framework design D. receive only a
rest and not be clasped
The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration

is;
moisture contamination C. excessive condensation of
the porcelain
excessive firing D. inadequate condensation of
the porcelain
On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;

horizontal guidance same as the condylar guidance
mechanical equivalent of the curve of Spee mechanical
equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap.
In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium

and other readily oxidized minor components of the alloy is
to; Improve bonding
Decrease porosity
React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask
the metal
Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and
the porcelain
Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when

air fired C. tempered after firing under
compression D. fired several times before
completion
Which of the following jaw-relation records should be used for

setting both the medial and superior condylar guides on an
arcon articulator?
Intercuspation C. lateral interocclusal records
Centric relation D. protrusive interocclusal
records
An incorrect occlusal vertical dimension causes a patient to
overclose and to have a poor facial profile. To correct this
problem, the dentist should do which of the following?
increase the rest vertical dimension and increase the
interocclusal distance
decrease the rest vertical dimension and diminish the
decrease the occlusal vertical dimension and increase
increase the occlusal vertical dimension and diminish the
The secondary peripheral seal area of a mandibular complete

denture is the;
labial border C. distolingual border buccal
border D. anterior lingual border
Which of the following describes a material with high
compressive strength but low tensile strength?
Tough B. brittle C. ductile D. malleable
E. resilient
Which of the following best explains why the dentist should

provide a postpalatal seal in a complete maxillary denture?
The seal will compensate for:
errors in fabrication C. polymerization and
cooling shrinkage
tissue displacement D. deformation of the
pression material im-
For complete dentures, which of the following three factors

affect the correct positioning of lips?
Face-bow transfer, position of teeth, and correct rest
vertical dimension.
Face-bow transfer, thickness of the anterior border, and
correct occlusal vertical dimension.
Correct rest vertical dimension, thickness of the
anterior border and position of teeth.
Correct occlusal vertical dimension, thickness of the
Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid

and, therefore, the most difficult to remove from the mouth?
Polyether C. Addition silicone
Polysulfide D. Condensation silicone E. reversible
hydrocolloid
Which of the following describes the properties of improved
zinc oxide-eugenol materials, except:
They provide an excellent marginal seal.
They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to
those of dentin
They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.
Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them

to redness and plunging them into an acid bath. This
procedure can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the
restoration
B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness of
the restoration
A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal

stops may result in:
holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth a more
prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the
tray is removed
an inaccurate final impression because of permanent
distortion during polymerization
an inaccurate final impression because of elastic
distortion during removal from the mouth
When compared to other materials, which of the following is
the main disadvantage of using polyether elastomeric
Tear easily C. are much stiffer
Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate
An advantage of polysulfide impression material over

reversible hydrocolloid material is that polysulfide
impression material; will displace soft tissue C.
requires less armamentarium
is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if
saliva, mucus or blood is present.
In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for

corrosion resistance is:
silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. Chromium E. Tungsten
Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone
(type
IV) powder primarily in;
Density B. crystal structure C. Chemical formula
D. solubility in water
Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages

over zinc phosphate cement?
Longer working time C. increased compressive
strength
Lower film thickness D. superior biologic
compati-
bility
Elongated grains in the microstructure of a wrought wire

indicates that it has been;
cold worked C. stress relief annealed
recrystallized D. hardened by heat treatment
Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates; degree of
translucency C. degree of saturation of the hue
combined effect of hue and value D. all of the
above E. none of the above.
Which of the following materials will produce the most rigid

restoration for frameworks of the same dimension?
Wrought gold C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
Palladium alloys D. partial denture casting gold in the
hardened condition
Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of

transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a function
of the ; concentration of the fillers and plasticizers C.
percent composition by weight of water
Inlay wax patterns should be inserted as soon as possible
after fabrication in order to minimize changes in shape
caused by;
Drying of the wax nents C. volatilization of wax compo-
Reduction in temperature D. continued expansion of

the wax
E. relaxation of internal
stresses
The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is
dependent upon the amount of;
silica B. carbon C. gypsum D.
alumina
The property that most closely describes the ability of a
cast gold inlay to be burnished is;
elastic limit C. percentage elongation
ultimate strength D. modulus of resilience E.
modulus
of
elasticity
Creep of a metal indicates that the metal; lacks edge

strength C. has insufficient retention has
excessive flexibility D. will deform under static load
E. has insufficient crushing
strength
Which of the following properties of dental materials is

timedependent?
Creep C. elastic limit
Resilience D. ultimate strength E. compressive
strength
The discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen

on the surface of a dental amalgam restoration is most
likely; mercury B. a sulfide C. gamma-2 D. copper
oxide
Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following?
The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm at (in) the:
junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clinical crown
junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clinical crown
occlusal one third of the clinical crown
The means by which one part of a partial denture framework opposes the action of the
retainer in function is called;
reciprocation D. indirect retention
For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain the
Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth
Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial
denture?
Plastic teeth are:
resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable resistant to
stains D. retained well in acrylic resin Which of the
following direct retainers for a removable partial denture is the
most esthetic?
A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attachment
A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-wire clasp
Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be best avoided by:
Using stressbreakers D. using intracoronal attachments
Using bar-type clasps E. altering tooth contours
clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and normal bone support

aid in balancing occlusion D. assure predictable clasp retention from right angles
to the occlusal plane E. eliminate the necessity for precision attachments
eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp
A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal extension RPD. This is
probably caused by:
deflective occlusal contacts
B. thin flanges on acrylic bases
C..passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth
D. insufficient facial overlap on posterior teeth
Which classes of mandibular RPDs require an altered cast impression?

A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. both A & B

A. Circumferential B. Embrasure C. RPI D. Ring E. Hairpin
3.The following are indications for a linguoplate as a major connector for a mandibular RPD,
except
A. High floor of the mouth (<7 mm of vertical height)
D. High lingual frenum
B. Absence of lingual tori
E. One or more missing incisors
C. Periodontially involved incisors with possible loss in the future
The WORST clasp assembly for a terminal abutment on a mandibular class I RPD is
C. Mesial and distal rest and a 1/2 and 1/2 clasp
B. Distal rest and cast circumferential clasp
D. Mesial rest and modified T-bar
During biting, a maxillary Class I RPD will rotate around a line determined by the rigid metal
above the survey line and closest to the extension areas. This line is called
A. Camper's line B. Frankfort line C. Dual path line D. Axis of rotation
Function of clasp: A. help stabilize the RPD by controlling

occlusal movement.
When surveying to determine the height of contour of the abutments, the mark on the tooth
must be made by the:
A. side of the lead marker. C. side of the analyzing rod
B. tip of the carbon marker D. tip of the analyzing rod
Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and can be used on
premolars for either extension or tooth-supported RPDs?
Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and is only used on
molars?
Cast retentive arms are usually selected when the RPD is tooth supported / or when the
retentive tips release during functional movements of extension RPDs. A. First phrase
is true, second phrase is false.
The nonrigid connector is:

A. used for long spans C. used when alveolus is extremely reduced
B. a broken-stress joint D. used when alveolus is actively receding
Trauma to the pulp following tooth preparation for fixed bridges arises from the following
cause/s: A. Use of spray water.
B. Severing vital structures in dentin and an increase in temperature from frictional heat.
D. Anesthesia.
Following cementation, the bridge should be examined :

Temporary protection for the porcelain jacket crown preparation should be accomplished by:
A. celluloid crown. D. gutta percha crown
B. a self-curing resin temporary crown E. none of these. C. zinc
oxide and eugenol
Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the adult
B. less than 0.75mm D. more than 1.0mm E. none of these.
Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the young
A. more than 1.0mm B. more than 5.0mm
C. shallow D. more than 2.0mm E. none
The complete seating of a FPD requires evaluation of the following:

contact areas 3. centric occlusion
marginal finish line 4. functional occlusion and stability
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. 1 only
FPD require the use of:

A. soft golds B. medium hard golds
C. hard golds D. Type A golds
Well-fired porcelain depends on good preliminary condensation. This is accomplished by the

following method/s: 1. Vibration 2. Pressure 3. Brushing 4. Capillary packing A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2,3 and 4 D. 1 only E. 4 only.
A disadvantage of the porcelain bonded to gold is:

A. porosity B.color stability
C. The casting of the restorative gold D. allergy E. none of these.
The first essential condition for physiologic tooth form for the FPD is:
A. hinge axis C. dentolabial relations
B. harmony of jaws D. functional occlusion E. none of these.
A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
improve the distribution of the occlusal load C. improve embrasure contours
stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve mesiodistal spacing
In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic.
Which of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal
portion of this pontic?
The masticatory force of the patient. The
position of the opposing contact areas.
Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but not
gingival recession D. unseating of the bridge
deflective occlusal contact E.torsional forces on one abutment tooth
incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth
In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and other readily oxidized
minor components of the alloy is to; Improve bonding
Decrease porosity
React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask the metal
Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and the porcelain

air fired C. tempered after firing
under compression D. fired several times before completion
To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed bridge should be

so formed that it; extends to the buccal margin of the retainer fills the entire interproximal
space occlusogingivally is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually is circular in
The shoulderless preparation:

C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines D. requires building
up the short mesial end of the crown
The chamfer cervical finish:

The shoulder cervical finish:
The gold—veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:

A. a three-quarter crown is indicated C. a buccal three quarter crown is indicated
B. a complete crown is indicated D .a mesial half crown is indicated
The primary stress bearing area of the lower arch:

slope of the residual ridge C. buccal shelf
crest of the residual ridge D. retromolar pad
Premature contacts in centric relation and any lateral slide as patient closes into centric
occlusion:
A. can be eliminated while bridge is under construction.
B. can be eliminated after bridge has been constructed.
C. need not be eliminated. D. should be eliminated by grinding before the bridge is
made.
The following amount of forward slide from centric relation to centric occlusion can be
regarded as normal in the absence of any periodontal pathology or mobile teeth:
A. 1mm. B. 4mm. C. Up to 2mm. D. 6mm.
Excessive vertical dimension may result in___? A.

poor denture retention C. wrinkles around the
lip
B. drooping of commisures D. trauma to the underlying supporting tissues E. all of
these
Following extraction, alveolar process of the maxilla will resorb:

A. upward and forward direction C. downward and forward
B. upward and backward D. downward and backward
The working side is the :

A. balancing side C. side toward which the mandible is moved
B. side opposite to which the mandible move D. eccentric occlusion
47. Which is the best pre-extraction guide for complete dentures:

A. size of face C. color of teeth E. photographs
B. size of teeth D. casts of natural teeth
48. Which of the following factors is necessary in the adhesion of denture bases to the tissue:
A. Rounded peripheries C. Atmospheric pressure E.
All of them B. Proper peripheral seal D. Thin film of saliva
49.. The distal palatal termination of the upper denture is best dictated by:
A. hamulus B. vibrating line
C. fovea palatine D. A and B only E. B and C only
50.. The oral structure which remains consistent through life:

A. residual ridge B. incisive papilla
C. mental foramen D. maxillary tuberosity E. all of them
51. The inter arch distance is located between:

A. the edentulous ridges
B.. masticatory surface of the teeth with mouth open fully
C. masticatory surface of the teeth at rest
D. all of the above E. none of the above
52.. The following are the most important aspect of complete denture construction:
A. accurate impression C. proper occlusion
B. correct jaw relations D. all of the above E. none of the above
Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete denture with severe bilateral
tuberosity undercuts is to:
none of the above. No treatment is necessary
Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:
unseating of the denture C. greater retention
a tingling sensation D. increased gagging
For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on
The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central fossae
The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent loss of the
situation?
Increasing the interocclusal distance Decreasing
the occlusal vertical dimension
Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension
In complete denture fabrication, which of the following regulate/s the paths of the
condyles in mandibular movements? the height of the cusps of posterior teeth.
The amount of horizontal and vertical overlap. The size and shape of the bony
fossae and the menisci and muscular influence. The vertical occlusion, centric
relation, and degree of compensating curve.
The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should receive special attention.
Which of the following anatomical structures might cause soreness if the denture is
overextended?
Buccinator D. internal pterygoid E. lateral tendon of the temporal
A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular

distal-extension partial denture. The recommended procedure is to make impression
of both simultaneously start first on the maxillary complete denture start first with the
least stable prosthesis
Which of the following will increase retention of a complete denture?

Xerostomia D. Air chamber in midpalate
Foreshortened denture bases E. Increased salivary film thickness
Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa
The Benneth movement exerts its greatest influence in;

lateral movements C. opening movements

centric relation C. relation of the mandible to the max-
illa
relation of the maxilla to the TMJ D. relation of the mandible to the TMJ
The function of the compensating curve is; to help provide a balanced occlusion in
complete dentures when the mandible is protruded.
The same as the function of the curve of
Spee None of the above.
A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This patient returned repeatedly for
adjustments of the erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the following is the
most likely cause?
impression The loss of even centric relation contacts.
A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension.
Which of the following describes the properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol materials,
except:
They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to those of dentin
Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to redness and plunging them
into an acid bath. This procedure can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the restoration
B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness of the restoration
A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal stops may result in:
holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the tray is removed an
inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during polymerization
an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distortion during removal from the
mouth
An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is

that polysulfide impression material; will displace soft tissue C. requires
less armamentarium
is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or
blood is present.
In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is:

Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type IV) powder primarily in;
Density B. crystal structure C. Chemical formula D. solubility in water
Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages over zinc phosphate
cement?
Longer working time C. increased compressive strength
Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compatibility
Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol
as a function of the ; concentration of the fillers and plasticizers C. percent
composition by weight of water
Inlay wax patterns should be inserted as soon as possible after fabrication in order to
minimize changes in shape caused by;
Drying of the wax C. volatilization of wax components
Reduction in temperature D. continued expansion of the wax
E. relaxation of internal stresses
The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount of;
silica B. carbon C. gypsum D. alumina
75. The process of changing the rubber base product to a rubberlike material is
A. setting B. gelation C. vulcanization D. polymerization
The vapor pressure of mercury increase with:

A. increasing temperature C. contamination by dust
B. decreasing size of mercury droplets D. both A & B E. Both B & C.
Which of the following cement bases has the highest elastic modulus to best support an
extensive amalgam restoration?
A. zinc phosphate C. zinc polyacrylate
B. polymer-reinforced zinc oxide-eugenol D. glass ionomer
The following are classified as rigid impression materials, except:

A.Zinc oxide-eugenol B. impression plaster C. silicone rubber D. dental impression
compound
The impression material that shows the least dimensional change as a result of disinfection
by immersion is:
A. alginate B. agar C. polysulfide D. addition silicones E. polyether.
The gold content of an 18-K alloy is:

A. 50% B. 75% C. 100% D. 30%
81. The first procedure in casting:

A. impression B. investing lation. C. preparation of wax pattern D. spatu-
82. The ff. are acidic dental cements except

A. silicate B. polycarboxylate C. zinc phosphate D. calcium hydroxide.
83. The ff. are causes of amalgam failure except

A. dimensional change B. fracture C. recurrent caries D. polished surface.
84. Rapid disintegration of the investment from the casting ring is

A. percolation B. investing C. quenching D. waxing.
85. The cleaning of the casted metal with an acid is

A. polymerization B. quenching C. soldering D. pickling.
86. The main ingredient of inlay wax is

A. carnauba B. paraffin C. gum dammar D. candillila wax.
87. The ff. are effects of wax pattern softened in a water bath except
A. thermal change B. spattering
C. easy to manipulate D. smearing of the surface of the wax.
88. The hottest portion of the flame in an air gas blowpipe

A. combustion B. reducing C. nozzle D. oxidizing zone.
89. Burnout is done in an electrical furnace for:

A. 30 min B.15 min C. 45 min. D.) one hour.
90. The passageway of the molten metal to reach the mold is

A. crucible B. sprue C. reservoir D. asbestos.
91. The size of the sprue depends upon

A. size of the wax pattern B. height of the casting ring
C. type of casting machine D. all of these
92. The following are classified as fillers except

A. borax C. diatomaceous earth E. zinc oxide
B. french chalk D. potassium sulfate.
93. The lag between liquefaction and gelation temperature is

A.. histeresis B. iceteresis C. syneresis D. hysteresis
94. The principal constituent by weight of reversible hydrocolloid

A. agar B. borax C. potassium sulfate D. zinc oxide E.water.
96. The ff. are ingredients of dental porcelain except

A. feldspar B. quartz C. silver D. glasses.
97. The area of the buccal frenum of a complete mandibular denture must be thinned to allow
for contraction of which of the following muscles?
Caninus B. masseter C. Zygomaticus D. Triangularis
98. Which of the following is not a member of the polyalkenoic acid family? A. Polyacrylic
acid. B. Polyitaconic acid. C. Polymaleic acid.
D. Polyacetic acid.
99. The metal ion in glass ionomer which has raised concern over neurotoxicity is:
A. Magnesium. B. Aluminum. C. Tin. D. Zinc.
100. When compared to other materials, which of the following is the main disadvantage of
using polyether elastomeric impression materials?
A. Tear easily C. are much stiffer
B. Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate
101. An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is

that polysulfide impression material;
A. will displace soft tissue C. requires less armamentarium
B. is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is
present.
PROSTHODONTICS 1, 2 & 3; DENTAL MATERIALS
1. Which classes of mandibular RPDs require an altered cast
impression?
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III
D. Class IV E. both A & B

A. Circumferential B. Embrasure C.
RPI D. Ring E. Hairpin
3.The following are indications for a linguoplate as a major

connector for a mandibular RPD, except
A. High floor of the mouth (<7 mm of vertical height) D. High
lingual frenum
B. Absence of lingual tori E. One or more
missing incisors
C. Periodontially involved incisors with possible loss in the
future
4.The guide surface preparation should be curved

A. mesio-distally B. bucco-lingually C.
occlusogingivally D. none of the above
5.The WORST clasp assembly for a terminal abutment on a

mandibular class I RPD is
C. Mesial and distal rest and a 1/2 and 1/2 clasp
B. Distal rest and cast circumferential clasp D. Mesial
rest and modified T-bar
6.During biting, a maxillary Class I RPD will rotate around a

line determined by the rigid metal above the survey line and
closest to the extension areas. This line is called
A. Camper's line B. Frankfort line C. Dual path
line D. Axis of rotation
7.Function of clasp:
A. help stabilize the RPD by controlling occlusal movement.
8. When surveying to determine the height of contour of the
abutments, the mark on the tooth must be made by the: A. side
of the lead marker. C. side of the analyzing
rod
B. tip of the carbon marker
D. tip of the analyzing rod
9. If a metal base is to be used

A. an altered cast impression should be made after framework
tryin
B. a stock tray should be used for the final impression
C. a custom tray should be used for the final impression
D. interocclusal records must be made after tooth selection
10.Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual

undercut and can be used on premolars for either extension or
toothsupported RPDs?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar C. lingual
modified T-bar D. ring clasp
11. Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual

undercut and is only used on molars?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar C.
lingual modified T-bar D. ring clasp
12. Cleaning a removable partial denture in sodium hypochlorite
may result in:
A. increased caries activity
C. corrosion of the metal of the framework
B. increased periodontal problems D. A
and B above
13. Cast retentive arms are usually selected when the RPD is
tooth supported / or when the retentive tips release during
functional movements of extension RPDs.
A. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
14.Incisal rests:
A. are generally more positive vertical stops than cingulum
rests.
B. may interfere with the opposing occlusion.
C. should not be used on maxillary incisors.
D. all of the above.
15.Which of the following steps is done LAST?
A. Rest preparation C.
Centric relation records
B. Framework try-in D.
Altered cast impression
16. In a circumferential clasp assembly, only one of the arms

may extend into an undercut. The other arm, the bracing or
reciprocating arm, must be rigid and therefore, cannot extend
into an undercut.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. First statement is false, second statement is false.
D. First statement is true, second statement is true.
17. An anterior-posterior palatal strap major connector is less

rigid than a horse-shoe major connector because it (the A-P
strap) has less width.
A. The first statement is true but the reason is false.
B. The first statement is false and the reason is also a false
statement.
C. The first statement is true and the reason is true.
D. The first statement is false but the reason is a true
statement.
18. Guide plates for anterior teeth
A. should be kept to the labial for best esthetics. C. be
thinned on the labial aspect.
B. should be kept to the lingual for best esthetics. D.
both B and C above.
19. Occlusal rest preparations should be

A. spoon shaped C. at least one
millimeter deep
B. at least 1/3 the buccolingual width of the occlusal surface
D. all of the above
20. In general, lingual plating should be supported

A. by the inclined surfaces of the mandibular incisors. C.
with minor connectors.
B. with bracing arms. D. with rests.
21. The internal and external finish lines are

A. normally superimposed over each other.
B. normally offset from each other to avoid weakness in the
framework.
C. normally designed and placed independently.
D. none of the above statements are true.
22. When placing the tripod marks on the diagnostic cast, the
vertical arm of the surveyor
A. should have the analyzing rod in place.
B. should be moved up or down to touch the tissues at widely
separated areas.
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 nor 2 are true
23. The partial denture design should be finalized prior to A.

any emergency treatment. C.
preparation of rest seats.
B. any fixed prosthodontic treatment. D.
both
B and C above.
24. The open latticework on a maxillary class I RPD:

A. covers the hamular notch. C.
does not cover the tuberosity.
B. covers the tuberosity.
D. requires substantial interarch space
25. The external finish line on a maxillary Class I RPD

originates from the lingual of the guide plate of the terminal
abutment and ends
A. at the hamular notch.
C. opposite the buccal pouch
B. in the glenoid fossa.
D. opposite Stenson's duct.
26. The following factor/s may be responsible for the failure to

seat the bridge:
A. Cusps may be high.
B. Under contouring axial surfaces of retainer.
C. Abutment teeth may have moved and one or more contacts may be
overbuilt.
D. Incorrect hinge axis.
27. Trauma to the pulp following tooth preparation for fixed
bridges arises from the following cause/s: A. Use of spray
water.
B. Severing vital structures in dentin and an increase in
temperature from frictional heat.
D. Anesthesia.
28. Following cementation, the bridge should be examined :
29. Intraradicular retainers is/are used on:

A. vital teeth
B. any tooth where a complete crown is indicated.
C. nonvital teeth when the coronal tissues cannot be saved.
D. any tooth where a three-quarter crown is indicated.
30. The construction of a bridge is normally scheduled after the

following is/are completed:
A. surgery
C. periodontal therapy
D. Operative dentistry
31. Premature contacts in centric relation and any lateral slide
as patient closes into centric occlusion:
C. need not be eliminated.
D. should be eliminated by grinding before the bridge is made.
32. The following amount of forward slide from centric relation

to centric occlusion can be regarded as normal in the absence of
any periodontal pathology or mobile teeth:
A. 1mm. B. 4mm. C. Up to 2mm. D. 6mm. E. None of tghese.
33. The incisal edge of the three-quarter crown retainer on the
cuspid tooth is:
A. about 45 degrees to long axis of tooth. C. 60 degrees to
long axis of tooth.
B. 30 degrees to long axis of tooth. D. 15 degrees to
long axis of tooth
34. The buccal three-quarter crown is a variation of the
standard three-quarter crown and is used on the:
A. maxillary molars C. maxillary cuspids
B. mandibular bicuspids D. mandibular molars E. None of
these.
35. The gold-veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:

A. a three-quarter crown is indicated D. a mesial half
crown is indicated.
B. a complete crown is indicated E. none of these.
C. a buccal three-quarter crown is indicated
36. A telescopic crown :
A. is a mesial half crown
B. is a distal half crown
C. is a modified complete crown made as the coping and the
crown.
D. Richmond crown
37. Telescopic crowns are indicated for:

A. nonvital teeth C. cases requiring shoulderless
preparations
B. cuspids only D. broken-down crown
38.Indications for three-quarter crown retainers include:
A. when caries have eroded proximal and lingual surfaces.
B. cannot be used on any tooth (anterior or posterior)
C. cannot be used on periodontally involved tooth.
D. cannot be used on short anterior teeth
39. Temporary protection for the porcelain jacket crown
preparation should be accomplished by:
A. celluloid crown. D. gutta percha crown
B. a self-curing resin temporary crown E. none of these.
C. zinc oxide and eugenol
40. The nonrigid connector is:
A. used for long spans duced C. used when alveolus is extremely
re-
B. a broken-stress joint D. used when alveolus is actively
ceding re-
41.A good solder joint must have:

A. a triangular peripheral attachment
B. a complete and concave peripheral attachment
C. a partial and convex peripheral attachment
D. a partial and concave peripheral attachment
42. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice
should be explored. In the adult patient the depth is:
B. less than 0.75mm D. more than 1.0mm E. none of
these.
43. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice
should be explored. In the young patient the depth is:
A. more than 1.0mm B. more than 5.0mm C. shallow D. more
than
2.0mm E. none
44. The complete seating of a FPD requires evaluation of the

following:
contact areas 3. centric occlusion
marginal finish line 4. functional occlusion and
stability
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. 1 only
45. A curve of spee that is too flat produces:
A. molar cusps that are too short too D. anterior teeth that are
short
B. molar cusps that are too long C. E. none of the above.
anterior teeth that are too long
46. When the plane of occlusion is too low, the posterior cusps:
A. will appear too long C. will appear of normal length
B. will appear too short D. will appear out of occlusion
E. none of these.
47. FPD require the use of:

A. soft golds B. medium hard golds C. hard golds
D. Type A golds
48.Well-fired porcelain depends on good preliminary

condensation.
This is accomplished by the following method/s: 1. Vibration
2. Pressure 3. Brushing 4. Capillary packing
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2,3 and 4 D. 1 only
E. 4 only.
49. A disadvantage of the porcelain bonded to gold is:

A. porosity B. color stability C. The casting of the restorative
gold D. allergy E. none of these.
50. The first essential condition for physiologic tooth form for
the FPD is:
A. hinge axis C. dentolabial relations
B. harmony of jaws D. functional occlusion E. none of
these.
51. Which is the best pre-extraction guide for complete

dentures:
A. size of face C.
color of teeth E. photographs
B. size of teeth D.
casts of natural teeth
52. Which of the following factors is necessary in the adhesion

of denture bases to the tissue:
A. Rounded peripheries C.
Atmospheric pressure E. All of them
B. Proper peripheral seal D. Thin
film of saliva
53-62. For these numbers, identify the impression materials with

its corresponding characteristics. Choose from the following:
A. zinc oxide eugenol paste C. reversible
hydrocolloid E. Tru plaster
B. irreversible hydrocolloid D. rubber
impression
53. used for high thin mandibular ridges D

58. lose moisture and is affected by saliva B
54. burning sensation can be felt A
59. requires separating medium before pouring E
55. weight of stone may distort border B
60. absorbs mucus secretion from the palate E
56. final impression material of choice for complete denture A
61.does not absorb mucus secretion B
57. used for preliminary impression C
62. change size rapidly B
63. Prior to centric relation registration, guidelines to

determine the width of the six anterior teeth:
A. low lip line B. cuspid line C. high lip line
D. midline
64-67. For these numbers, choose the right answer from the
following:
A. vertical dimension C.
centric relation E. occlusal contour rim
B. centric occlusion D.
trial record base
64. tentative blueprint for complete denture E

66. tooth to tooth relationship B
65. bone to bone relationship C
67. height of the face A
68-71. For these numbers, choose from the following:

A. overbite B. high lip line C. alar line
D. overjet
68. determines length of anterior teeth B

70. guide to set posterior teeth E
69. determines width of six anterior teeth C
71. horizontal overlap D
72. The distal palatal termination of the upper denture is best

dictated by:
A. hamulus B. vibrating line C. fovea palatine
D. A and B only E. B and C only
73. The oral structure which remains consistent through life:

A. residual ridge B. incisive papilla C. mental
foramen D. maxillary tuberosity E. all of them
74. The inter arch distance is located between:
A. the edentulous ridges C.
masticatory surface of the teeth with mouth open fully
B. masticatory surface of the teeth at rest D. all of the
above
E. none of the above
75. The following are the most important aspect of complete

denture construction:
A. accurate impression C.
proper occlusion
B. correct jaw relations D. all
of the above E. none of the above
76. The best pickling agent is: A. phosphoric acid B.

hydrochloric acid C. sulfuric acid D. nitric acid.
77. The clinical signs of expansion of amalgam are the ff.
except:
A. pain B. corrosion C.protrusion of amalgam D. smooth
and shiny.
78. The standard size of gold foil: A. 4 inches B. 4 meters

C. 4 mm. D. 4 inches sq.
79. U. S. P. labeled for a bottle of mercury is :

A. distilled B. redistilled C. pure mercury D.
contaminated.
80. The ff. are ingredients of dental porcelain except

A. feldspar B. quartz C. silver D. glasses.
81. The first procedure in casting:

A. impression B. investing C. preparation of wax pattern
D. spatulation.
82. The ff. are acidic dental cements except

A. silicate B. polycarboxylate C. zinc phosphate D. calcium
hydroxide.
83. The ff. are causes of amalgam failure except A.

dimensional change B. fracture C. recurrent caries
D. polished surface.
84. Rapid disintegration of the investment from the

casting ring is
A. percolation B. investing C. quenching D.
waxing.
85. The cleaning of the casted metal with an acid is A.

polymerization B. quenching C. soldering
D. pickling.
86. The main ingredient of inlay wax is

A. carnauba B. paraffin C. gum dammar
D. candillila wax.
87. The ff. are effects of wax pattern softened in a water bath
except
A. thermal change B. spattering C. easy to manipulate D.
smearing of the surface of the wax.
88. The hottest portion of the flame in an air gas blowpipe A.
combustion B. reducing C. nozzle D. oxidizing zone.
89. Burnout is done in an electrical furnace for: A. 30 min

B.15 min C. 45 min. D.) one hour.
90. The passageway of the molten metal to reach the mold is

A. crucible B. sprue C. reservoir D. asbestos.
91. The size of the sprue depends upon

A. size of the wax pattern B. height of the casting ring
C. type of casting machine D. all of these
92. The following are classified as fillers except a) borax b)

diatomaceous earth c) zinc oxide d) french chalk e)
potassium sulfate.
93. The lag between liquefaction and gelation temperature is A..

histeresis B. iceteresis C. syneresis D. hysteresis E.
none of the above.
94. The principal constituent by weight of reversible

hydrocolloid A. agar B. borax C. potassium
sulfate D. zinc oxide E.water.
95. The adhesive material for polysulfide rubber is

A. dimethyl siloxane B. glass ionomer C. butyl rubber cement
D. silicate cement E. none of these
96. The process of changing the rubber base product to a

rubberlike material is
A. setting B. gelation C. vulcanization D. polymerization
97. The ff are causes of chalky stone cast except:

A. inadequate cleaning of the impression D. excess water left
in the impression
B. premature removal of the impression E. premature
removal of the cast
C. improper mixing of the cast stone.
98. The commercial accelerators for zinc oxide eugenol are the
following except
A. zinc acetate B. petrolatum C. glacial acetic acid D.
calcium chloride E. primary alcohol.
99. One that facilitates easy removal of the impression plaster

and the cast is
A.borax B. tomato starch C. potato starch D. buttered
starch.
100. Gypsum is
A. calcium sulfate hemihydrate B. alpha hemihydrate C. beta
hemihydrate D. calcium sulfate dihydrate.

using a higher carat solder C. increasing its
width
increasing its height D. increasing the gap
A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a

fixed partial denture in order to: improve the
distribution of the occlusal load improve embrasure
contours stabilize the abutment teeth improve mesiodistal
spacing

this dentist do?
Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation
patients
In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the
dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Which of the following
will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the
occlusal portion of this pontic?

When there is no space in the floor of the
mouth.

in:
unseating of the denture C. greater retention a
tingling sensation D. increased gagging
The facial inclines of the lingual cusps
The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
The lingual inclines of the facial cusps
The central fossae
Decreasing the occlusal vertical
dimension Increasing the occlusal
vertical dimension
at (in) the:
clinical crown
clinical crown
crown
maxilla are the:
“s” sounds C. “t” and “th” sounds
“f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds

occlusal contacts
teeth
The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal
splint is:
surface

impression
dimension.
centric occlusion
retruded contact
position
postural position of the mandible (rest vertical
dimension) transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge
position)
vertical dimension D. rest vertical
dimension


resin

is best treated by:
undercut
leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture
base.

wire clasp

movements?
overlap.
muscular influence.
compensating curve.

cooling shrinkage

vertical dimension.

arcon articulator?
records

The opening muscles may become strained The
closing muscles may become too relaxed
Soreness may occur at the corners of the
mouth.
a smaller area.
forces
surveyor.
following the most?

overextended?

Hardness B. stiffness C. elongation D. tensile
strength

direction?
Up, back and down down, forward and laterally
none of the above.

epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia
pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell reparative
granuloma

best avoided by:
Using stressbreakers
using intracoronal attachments
Using bar-type clasps
altering tooth contours
clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and
normal bone support
framework

incisors
muscle

aid in balancing occlusion assure predictable
clasp retention from right angles to the
occlusal plane eliminate the necessity for
precision attachments eliminate the necessity
for a back-action clasp
retainers
Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result

in poor denture retention increased
interocclusal distance drooping of the corners of
the mouth creases and wrinkles around the lip
trauma to underlying supporting tissues
is more stable C. can be rigid with less bulk is
easier to polish D. is less irritating to the
soft tissue
eccentric movements, grinding should be performed on:
both the cusp and the opposing area the
opposing fossa or the marginal ridge the
cusp that is in deflective occlusal contact
the opposing areas in eccentric positions.

provided primarily by the; convex surface of the labial
flange rounded contours of interdental papillae proper
pronouncement of sibilant sounds thickness of the border in
the vestibule facial surfaces of teeth and stimulated
attached gingiva.
Hamular notch C. fovea palatini
Hamular process D. vibrating line E. pterygomandibular
raphe

denture?
Xerostomia
Air chamber in midpalate
Foreshortened denture bases
Increased salivary film thickness Accurate
adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa
none of the above. No treatment is
necessary.
Translation in a mandibular opening movement
occurs; on closing from centric relation on
initial opening from centric relation in the
upper compartment of the TMJ in the lower

movement of the; masseter muscle C. condyloid process
coronoid process D. zygomatic process
A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral
distal extension RPD. This is probably caused by:
deflective occlusal contacts thin flanges on
acrylic bases passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth
insufficient facial overlap on posterior teeth

Bracing B. support C. stability D. retention

of condensation
should; be restored
have unfavorable contours improved
be by-passed in the framework
design receive only a rest and not
be clasped

likely cause is; gingival recession unseating of the
bridge deflective occlusal contact torsional forces on one
abutment tooth
teeth
reciprocation D. indirect
retention
centric relation
relation of the mandible to the maxilla
relation of the maxilla to the TMJ
relation of the mandible to the TMJ
The function of the compensating curve is; to help provide

a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the
mandible is protruded.
None of the above.
The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain

restoration is; moisture contamination excessive
condensation of the porcelain excessive firing inadequate
condensation of the porcelain
On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;
horizontal guidance same as the condylar guidance
mechanical equivalent of the curve of Spee mechanical
equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap.
The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown
preparation is that;
it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be su-
pragingival
easily discernible

crown
to; Improve bonding
Decrease porosity
the metal
the porcelain

air fired C. tempered after firing
under compression D. fired several times before
completion
The phenomenon where porcelain aapears different under
varying light conditions is; metamerism C. transmittance
optics

on short molars can be enhanced by; using zinc phosphate
cement placing several vertical groove using a full
shoulder finish line minimizing the depth of occlusal
carving
The secondary peripheral seal area of a mandibular complete

denture is the;
labial border C. distolingual
border buccal border D. anterior lingual
border
E. resilient

hydrocolloid

those of dentin

restoration
the restoration

elasticity

the set material.
tray is removed


impression material; will displace soft tissue requires less
armamentarium is significantly more accurate is more
accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is present.

(type
Density C. crystal structure
Chemical formula D. solubility in water

Longer working time C. increased compressive strength
Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compatibility
indicates that it has been; cold worked C. stress
relief annealed recrystallized D. hardened by
heat treatment
Chroma is that aspect of color that
indicates; degree of translucency degree
of saturation of the hue combined effect
of hue and value all of the above none
of the above.

hardened condition

transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a
function of the ; concentration of the fillers and
plasticizers percent composition by weight of water
concentration of potassium sulfate temperature

caused by;

the wax
stresses

dependent upon the amount of; silica B. carbon C. gypsum
D. alumina
elastic limit C. percentage
elongation ultimate strength D. modulus of
resilience E. modulus of elasticity
Creep of a metal indicates that the metal;

lacks edge strength C. has insufficient retention has
excessive flexibility D. will deform under static load
E. has insufficient crushing
strength

timedependent?
strength
The discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen

on the surface of a dental amalgam restoration is most
likely; mercury B. a sulfide C. gamma-2 D. copper
oxide
orthodontic bonds is; inorganic filler C. poly (methyl
methacrylate) benzoyl methyl ether D. bisphenol A-glycidyl
methacrylate
“The LORD treats us according to our merits;

according to the cleanness of our hearts.”
Psalm 18:25
PROSTHODONTICS 1,2,3 AND DENTAL MATERIALS Shade

AE if the answer is not in the choices given.
A. is more stable C. can be rigid with less
bulk
B. is easier to polish to D. is less irritating
the soft tissue

eccentric movements, grinding should be performed on:
A. both the cusp and the opposing area C. the
opposing fossa or the marginal ridge
B. the cusp that is in deflective occlusal contact D. the
opposing areas in eccentric positions.

provided primarily by the;
A. convex surface of the labial flange D..
rounded contours of interdental papillae
B. proper pronouncement of sibilant sounds E.
thickness of the border in the vestibule
C .facial surfaces of teeth and stimulated attached
gingiva.

A. Hamular notch C. fovea palatini
B. Hamular process D. vibrating line E.
pterygomandibular raphe

denture?
A. Xerostomia D. Air chamber in
midpalate
B. Foreshortened denture bases E. Increased
salivary film thickness
Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the
mucosa
A. Bracing B. support C. stability D. retention

of condensation
should; be restored C. have unfavorable
contours improved
be by-passed in the framework design D. receive only a
rest and not be clasped


likely cause is;
gingival recession D. unseating of the
bridge
deflective occlusal contact E. torsional forces
on one abutment tooth
teeth

A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed

partial denture in order to:
improve the distribution of the occlusal load C. improve
embrasure contours
stabilize the abutment teeth D.

this dentist do?
Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients

In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the
dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Which of the following
will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the
occlusal portion of this pontic?
The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration
is;
moisture contamination C. excessive condensation of
the porcelain
excessive firing D. inadequate condensation of
the porcelain
On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the; horizontal

guidance C. mechanical equivalent of the curve of
Spee
same as the condylar guidance D. mechanical equivalent
of horizontal and vertical overlap.
A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment

tooth because;
it is stronger C. better
esthetics can be achieved
it can be treated as an independent abutment D.
less chair time is required in its fabrication
The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a
crown preparation is that; it is a dul knife edge.
C. its position be supragingival
easily discernible

crown
When there is no space in the floor of the
mouth.
in:

The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual
inclines of the lingual cusps
The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central
fossae
Moving the anterior teeth facially. C. Increasing
the interocclusal distance
Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension D.

following the most?

overextended?

Hardness B. stiffness C. elongation D. tensile strength
at (in) the:
clinical crown
clinical crown
crown
maxilla are the:
“f” and “v” sounds D. vowel
sounds
occlusal contacts
teeth The primary advantage of an external splint
over an internal splint is:
surface


impression
dimension.
centric occlusion C. postural position of the mandible
(rest vertical dimension) retruded contact position
D. transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge
position)

vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension

resin

is best treated by:
undercut leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the
denture base.

wire clasp
movements?
overlap.
muscular influence.
compensating curve.

cooling shrinkage

vertical dimension.

to; Improve bonding
Decrease porosity
the metal
the porcelain

air fired C. tempered after firing under
compression D. fired several times before
completion
The phenomenon where porcelain aapears different under

varying light conditions is; metamerism C. transmittance
optics

on short molars can be enhanced by;
using zinc phosphate cement C. placing several
vertical groove
using a full shoulder finish line D. minimizing
the depth of occlusal carving


arcon articulator?
records

The opening muscles may become strained
The closing muscles may become too
relaxed
Soreness may occur at the corners of the mouth.
a smaller area.
forces
surveyor.
direction?
Up, back and down D. down, forward and
laterally E. none of the above.

epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia pyogenic
granuloma D. giant cell reparative granuloma


best avoided by:
Using stressbreakers D. using intracoronal
attachments
Using bar-type clasps E. altering tooth
contours clasping only those teeth with fairly long
crowns and normal bone support

framework

incisors
muscle

aid in balancing occlusion assure predictable
clasp retention from right angles to the
occlusal plane eliminate the necessity for
precision attachments eliminate the necessity
for a back-action clasp
retainers
Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in
poor denture retention C. increased
drooping of the corners of the mouth E. creases and
wrinkles around the lip
trauma to underlying supporting
tissues
remove both tuberosity undercuts C. reduce the
tissue bilaterally
reduce the tissue on one side , if possible D.
none of the above. No treatment is
necessary.
Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs; on
closing from centric relation C. on initial opening
from centric relation
in the upper compartment of the TMJ D. in the lower

movement of the; masseter muscle B. coronoid process C.
condyloid process D. zygomatic process
A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal

extension RPD. This is probably caused by:
deflective occlusal contacts on C. thin flanges
acrylic bases
passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth D. insufficient
facial overlap on posterior teeth

dependent upon the amount of; silica B. carbon C. gypsum
D. alumina
elastic limit C. percentage elongation
ultimate strength D. modulus of resilience E.
modulus of elasticity
Creep of a metal indicates that the metal; lacks edge

strength D. has insufficient retention
has excessive flexibility E. will deform under
static load
has insufficient crushing strength

tripoding B. reciprocation C. stress-breaking D. indirect
retention

centric relation C. relation of the
mandible to the maxilla
relation of the maxilla to the TMJ D. relation of the
mandible to the TMJ
The function of the compensating curve is;

to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures
when the mandible is protruded.
None of the above.
The secondary peripheral seal area of a mandibular

complete denture is the; labial border B. buccal
border C. distolingual
border D. anterior lingual
border
E. resilient

hydrocolloid

those of dentin

restoration
the restoration

elasticity

the set material.
tray is removed
The discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen on

the surface of a dental amalgam restoration is most likely;
mercury B. a sulfide C. gamma-2 D. copper
oxide

orthodontic bonds is;
inorganic filler C. poly (methyl methacrylate)
benzoyl methyl ether D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methac-
rylate



impression material; will displace soft tissue C.
requires less armamentarium
is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if
saliva, mucus or blood is present.
(type
Density C. crystal structure
Chemical formula D. solubility in water

Longer working time C. increased compressive
strength
Lower film thickness D. superior biologic
compati-
bility

indicates that it has been; cold worked C. stress
relief annealed recrystallized D. hardened by
heat treatment
Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates; degree of
translucency C. degree of saturation of the hue
combined effect of hue and value D. all of the above

hardened condition

transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a function
of the ; concentration of the fillers and plasticizers
C. percent composition by weight of water

caused by;

the wax
stresses

timedependent?
strength
In selecting anterior teeth for complete denture patients, one considers the
patient’s facial size II. age
III. sex
IV. physical features
I, II, III B. I, II, IV C. I, IV D. all of the above
Freeway space is synonymous with:

physiologic rest position
interdental arch space
intermaxillary space
both A and B
After extractions and healing, the maxillary denture-bearing area discloses bony
undercuts in both tuberosity areas. Usually, the best treatment for this condition is
to: surgically reduce the undercuts just enough to allow a path of insertion do no
surgical trimming on the ridge, but reduce the denture base in the undercut area
use soft liner inserts in tuberosity areas of maxillary denture
reduce both bony undercuts tuberosities so that no bony undercut exists
anywhere on the ridge
Dental plaster powder differs from dental stone powder primarily in:
chemical formula crystal
structure solubility in water
physical nature of the
particle
In arranging prosthetic teeth for balanced occlusion, increasing the incisal

guidance:
increases the condylar guidance
decreases the height of the cusps
increases the compensating curve
increases the plane of orientation
A patient in excellent health and wearing complete dentures complains of a burning

sensation in the anterior palate. This is most likely caused by:
a nicotinamide deficiency
deflective occlusal contact
failure to relieve the incisive papillae area excessive
thickness of the denture in the rugae area
To locate a hinge axis on a patient, one should use:

a simple facebow a
kinematic facebow
eccentric records
centric relation registrations
A patient has a complete maxillary denture against natural teeth. He complains of

pain in the area of the left TMJ. Examination of the posterior teeth indicates that
these teeth contact first on the right side. Patient then slides forward and to the
left to effect good cusp interdigitation. What treatment procedure should be
instituted to relieve this patient’s symptoms?
markedly reduce the cusp height of the mandibular posterior teeth on the right
side
grind the right posterior teeth to a flat plane re
evaluate and correct the posterior occlusion
reduce the occlusal vertical dimension
Why would a clear surgical template be used for an immediate

denture? To aid the dentist in placing sutures To prevent
bleeding for the first 24 hours.
As an aid in trimming bone to fit the immediate denture
To facilitate shortening the borders so the denture will fit securely.
Where should grinding be accomplished if the following conditions exist? The

distobuccal cusp of the mandibular right first molar strikes prematurely in centric
occlusion in the central fossa of the maxillary first molar, the distobuccal cusp of
the mandibular right first molar is not premature in working or balancing
occlusion.
Grind the central fossa of the maxillary molar
Grind the distobuccal cusp of the mandibular molar
Adjust the cusp tip and the fossa
Either A or B is acceptable
The mesiobuccal cusp of the mandibular left first molar is in deflective occlusal
contact in centric occlusion but not in lateral excursions. What might be spot
ground to effect a balanced occlusion? The:
mesiobuccal cusp of the mandibular right first molar
marginal ridges of the maxillary first molar and second premolar
mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary left first molar
distolingual cusp of the mandibular left first molar
Selective grinding is a procedure used routinely:

to reduce the vertical dimension of occlusion
to reduce the inclination of condylar
guidance
for final correction of any existing occlusal disharmony in dentures to
improve the esthetics of the final arrangement of the anterior teeth
The most important copnsideration in checking custom trays for accurate muscle
molding is:
stability
a tight posterior seal
stability and lack of displacement a tight
peripheral seal disregarding displacement
When a patient wearing complete dentures makes a whistling sound while

enunciating the S sound, it is caused by: the anterior teeth being placed too far
labially the anterior teeth being placed too far lingually too great a vertical overlap
the palatal vault being too high and narrow
The shape and amount of the distobuccal extension of a complete mandibular

edentulous impression is determined during border molding by the:
ramus of the mandible lateral pterygoid
muscle tone of the buccinator muscle size
and location of the buccal frena position
and action of the masseter muscle
In recording centric relation, the mandible can be retruded by having the patient:
relax the jaw muscle while the dentist manually manipulates the chin up and
down
protrude and retrude the mandible repeatedly
turn the tongue backward toward the posterior border of the
palate make repeated swallowing movements all of the above.
The path of the condyle during free mandibular movements is governed primarily by
the:
height of the cusps of the posterior teeth amount of horizontal and
vertical overlap vertical dimension, centric relation, and degree of the
compensating curve shape of the fossa and meniscus and the
muscular influence.
The physiologic rest position has practical significance during the evaluation of
maxillomandibular relations, especially as related to:
centric relation
centric occlusion
vertical dimension
protrusive
occlusion
The setting time of a zinc oxide eugenol impression paste may best be accelerated
by:
adding a drop of oleic acid to the mix
chilling the mixing slab and the spatula
adding a drop of water to the mix
increasing the amount of eugenol
increasing the amount of zinc oxide
Heating a gypsum cast at a temperature of 110°C for one hour will:

drive off its excess gauging water only
have minimal effect on its cushing
strength
weaken it because its water of crystallization is driven off
strengthen it because it is a recorded fact that the dry crushing strength of
gypsum is high when compared with the wet crushing strength
none of the above.
In processing methyl methcrylate, the resin may show porosity if the flask is
placed in boiling water. Where in the denture is this type of porosity most likely
to occur? Throughtout In the thickest part Near the borders
Close to the surface
On the tissue surface
In patients with complete dentures, fissures found at the corners of the mouth are
most frequently caused by:
avitaminosis
II. insufficient vertical
III. blood dyscrasias
IV. general hyperactivity
A. I, II B. I, II, III C. I, III D. II, III E. II, III, IV
The posterior palatal seal for a maxillary denture: is
placed immediately posterior to the vibrating
line
II. helps to compensate for the lack of adaptation caused by shrinkage of
acrylic
III. is not necessary if a metal base is made
IV. will vary in outline and depth according to the palatal form
encountered. I, II B. I, III C. II, III D. II, IV E. III, IV
For achieving a natural appearance in complete denture, the anterior teeth must
appear separate and distinct from one another. This may be accomplished by
employing:
diastema
II. the shadow effect
III. different shades of teeth
IV. wedge shaped spaces at the incisal thirds
I, II B. I, II, III C. I, III D. II, III, IV E. all of these
At the trial in of maxillary and mandibular complete dentures, the “f” sound
disclosed the upper incisal edges of the teeth just making contact with the wet
line of the lower lip. Production of the sibilant sound suggests that the mandibular
anterior teeth are in a protrusive relation with no vertical overlap. It may be
concluded that: maxillary anterior teeth are correctly set for length
II. maxillary anterior teeth are set with insufficient facial fullness
III. vertical dimension of occlusion is too great
IV. mandibular anterior teeth are set too far facially
V. mandibular anterior teeth are too long
I, II B. I, IV C. II, III D. II, V E. III, V
All of the components listed below may be involved in the 180 degree encirclement
rule, except:
I-bar C. minor connector
B. guide plate D. open latticework E. none of these
What is the correct relationship of the foot of an I-bar to the survey line (height of
contour) on a terminal abutment for an extension RPD?
The foot should be entirely above the survey line
The foot should be partially above and partially below the survey line
The foot should be totally below the survey line
The relationship of the foot of the I-bar and the survey line is of no
consequence. E. none of these.
Reason(s) for selecting a mandibular lingual plate major connector is/are?

the presence of lingual tori
anticipated loss of one or more of the remaining
teeth a high lingual frenum all of the above
E. both A & C are correct
Which of the following clasps commonly utilize lingual undercuts?

ring clasp C. half and half clasp
B. extended arm clasp D. both A & B E. Both A & C
A cingulum rest should be placed?

between the occlusal and middle thirds of the incisor teeth
above the middle third of the incisor teeth
at the junction of the gingival and middle thirds of the incisor teeth on
the disto-incisal edges of the incisor teeth
The external finish line is?

the external junction of framework metal and denture base plastic the
external junction of framework metal and supporting tissues the
external junction of the framework metal and the natural teeth D. the
external junction of the natural teeth and the denture base plastic.
A “bead line” is used only on mandibular major connectors

is a seal at the interface of framework metal and
tissues
should taper off as it approaches the marginal gingiva of the abutment
teeth both A and B Both B & C
The superior border of a mandibular lingual bar major connector should be?
at least 3mm from the tooth/tissue junction at
least 2mm from the tooth/tissue junction
located at the tooth/tissue junction
at least 3mm above the tooth/tissue junction
The internal finish line is?

the butt joint between the metal and plastic on the tissue side of the
edentulous area
the butt joint between the metal and plastic on the outer surface of the
RPD a type of posterior palatal seal
a special type of bead line
A class 1 modification 0 RPD normally has how many clasps?

1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
If a mandibular RPD abutment must be covered, the FPR impression should

include:
all the abutment teeth for the
RPD a full arch impression the
retromolar pads both A and B
all of the above
A tissue undercut may preclude the selection of?

a suprabulge calsp C. a half and half clasp
B. an infrabulge clasp D. a combination of clasp
A combination clasp assembly generally has:

a cast bracing arm C. a wrought wire retentive arm
B. a distal rest D. both A & B E. all
of these
Which of the following should be considered in diagnosis for an RPD patient?

interarch space C. occlusal contacts
B. tissue undercuts D. both A & C E. all
of these
A lingual plate mandibular major connector may be selected because:

the mandibular incisors are tilted lingually D. both B & C
there are mandibular tori present E. all of these
C. there is a high lingual frenum
A master cast for a RPD should be blocked out and duplicated before:
overlapped incisors are recontoured D. both A & B
rest preparations are prepared E. all of
these the framework is waxed up
Rest placement on a terminal abutment of a Class 1 RPD depends on:

the opposing occlusion D. both A & C
the tilt of the abutment E. all of these
C. tissue undercuts
A general rule for rest placement on an abutment adjacent to an extension area is?
Place the rest on the occlusal surface on the opposite side of the tooth from
the extension area.
Place the rest on the occlusal surface adjacent to the extension
area Place rests on both the mesial and distal occlusal surfaces
D. Do not place a rest on this tooth.
Low fusing metal is associated with which of the following procedures?

the altered cast impression D. making records for RPDs
physiological adjustment of the framework E. all of these
the RPD remount cast
Physiologic adjustment of the framework:

is usually done at delivery of the RPD
should be done at the framework try-in appointment is
usually done at the records appointment
D. may be omitted in the presence of strong abutments and good residual
ridges
Physiologic adjustment is related to:

the aixs of rotation D. both A & B
adjustment of the framework to the teeth E. all of these
functional movement of the framework
The external finish line on a maxillary Class 1 RPD originates from the lingual of
the guide plate of the terminal abutment and ends___?
at the hamular notch C. opposite the buccal pouch B. in the
glenoid fossa D. opposite Stensen’s duct
The open latticework on a maxillary Class 1 RPD covers the hamular notch
C. does not cover the tuberosity B. covers the tuberosity D.
does not require substantial interarch space
The partial denture design should be finalized prior to:

any emergency treatment C. preparation of rest seats any fixed
prosthodontic treatment D. both B & C E. all of
these
When placing the tripod marks on the diagnostic cast, the vertical arm of the
surveyor:
should have the analyzing rod in place
should be moved up or down to touch the tissues at widely separated
areas both A and B are true D. Neither A nor B are true.
The internal and external finish lines are:

normally superimposed over each other
normally offset from each other to avoid weakness in the framework
normally designed and placed independently none of the avove
statements are true.
In general, lingual plating should be supported:

by the inclined surfaces of the mandibular incisors C. with bracing arms
with minor connectors D. with rests
Occlusal rest preparations should be:

spoon shaped
at least 1/3 the buccolingual width of the occlusal
surface at least one millimeter deep both A & B all of
the above.
Guide plates for anterior teeth:

should be kept to the labial for best esthetics D. both A & B
should be kept to the lingual for best esthetics be E. both B & C
thinned on the labial aspect
An anterior-posterior palatal strap major connector is less rigid than a horse-shoe

major connector because it (the A-P strap) has less width.
The first statement is true but the reason is false
The first statement is false and the reason is also a false
statement The first statement is true and the reason is true The
first statement is false but the reason is a true statement.
What is the required clearance if the occlusal surface of a metal restoration is

porcelain?
.05mm B. 1.0mm C. 1.5mm D. 2.0mm E. none of these
Finish line often used for tilted abutments:

shoulder B. knife edge C. chamfer D. beveled shoulder
Preferred finish line for veneer metal restorations:

chamfer B. knife edge C. shoulder D.. acute edge
The occlusogingival thickness of a hygienic pontic should be:

no less than 2.0mm C. more than 2.0mm
no less than 3.0mm D. more than 3.0mm
Amount of facial reduction for metal ceramic system:

0.5-1.0mm B. 1.2-1.5mm C. 1.5-2.0mm D. 1.0-2.0mm
Crown preparation margins for FPD are best placed:

subgingival C. supragingival
B. equi-gingival D. 0.5mm below the gingival crest
Tooth preparation for FPD must terminate ____ to avoid violating the biologic width:
1.0mm from the alveolar crest C. 1.0mm from the gingival crest
B. 2.0mm from the alveolar crest D. 2.0mm from the gingival crest
Minimum acceptable crown:root ratio for FPD is:
1:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:3 D. 2:3 E. none of these
The proximal grooves for a partial crown preparation on a maxillary incisor should
be parallel to the:
Incisal 2/3 of the labial surface C. gingival 2/3 of the labial
surface middle third of the labial surface D. long axis of the tooth
Primary pontic design for non-appearance zone:

spheroid B. hygienic C. modified ridge lap D. ridge lap
Secondary retention and resistance factors in the preparation of FPD restorations:

I. pins II. Opposing walls III. boxes IV. grooves
A. I, II, III B. I, III, IV C. II, III, IV D. II only
Partial veneer restorations:

¾ crowns IV. 7/8 crown
mesial half corwn V. laminates
telescopic crowns
A. I,II,III,IV B. II, III, IV, V C. I, II, IV, V D. I and II only
Resistance to displacement for a short walled preparation for a FPD crown on a

large tooth can be improved by:
placing axial grooves
lengthening the crown
preparing parallel walls
A. I and II B. I and II C. II and III D. I, II, III
Dentogingival attachment between the base of the gingival sulcus and the
alveolar crest composed of approximately of 1mm of juinctional epithelium and
connective tissue.
biologic width C. alveolar gingiva
attachment epithelium D. gingival epithelium E. none of these
Which of the calsp assemblies utilize a primary rest and an auxialiary rest?
RPA clasp C. infrabuldge clasp
ring clasp D. extended clasp arm
Which of the following steps is done LAST?

rest preparation C. centric relation records framework try-in
D. altered cast impression
Cleaning a RPD in sodium hypochlorite may result in:

increased caries activity C. corrosion of the metal of the
framework
increased periodontal problems D. both A & B.
Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and can be used
on premolars for either extension or tooth-supported RPDs?
half and half clasp C. lingual modified T-bar
B. lingual I-bar D. ring clasp
If a metal base is to be used:

an altered cast impression should be made after framework
try-in a stock tray should be used for the final impression a
custom tray should be used for the final impression
interocclusal records must be made after tooth selection
What is the absolute maximum number of posterior teeth which can be safely
replaced with a fixed bridge?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. none
The following are major components of the high noble metal alloys used in
fabricating metal-ceramic restorations?
I. Gold II. Platinum III. Palladium
A. I and II B. II and III C. II only D. all of them
Soldering flux is composed of what materials?

I. Sodium pyroborate II. Boric acid III. Silica
A. I and II B. II and III C. II only D. all of them
Which of the following types of porcelain is usually used when manufacturing

porcelain teeth?
high fusing B. medium fusing C. low fusing D. any
of them
When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or postural position, contact of teeth is:
maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight
Balancing side (non-working side) interferences generally occur on the inner

aspects of which teeth?
facial cusps of mandibular molars C. lingual cusps of mand molars B. facial
cusps of maxillary premolars D. facial cusps of maxillary molars
The following are situations in which a RPD is specifically indicated rather

than a FPD, except: distal extension long span edentulous area
periodontally involved abutment teeth
anterior esthetics
following recent extractions
economics
A. I, II, III, IV, V B. II, III, IV, V, VI C. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
The following are advantages of polysuilfide impression materials, except:

not affected by water transfer like
alginate viscosity displaces soft tissues
more stable than alginate do not affect
hardness of cast pouring can be
delayed up to one hour.
A reverse three-quarter crown is most frequently done on which tooth below?

maxillary molar C. maxillary premolar
B. mandibular molar D. mandibular premolar
In the intercuspal position, the DB cusp of a permanent mandibular first molar

occludes where?
the interproximal marginal ridge area between max second premolar and first
molar
central fossa of the maxillary first molar central
fossa of the maxillary second molar
the interproximal marginal ridge area between maxillary first molar and
second molar
Which position is one in which there is a relative muscular equilibrium?

retruded contact position C. protruded contact position
B. postural position D. none of these
The liquid (monomer) used in heat-cured or self-cured resins is usually what?

poly-methylmethacrylate C. benzoyl peroxide
B. hydroquinone D. methyl-methacrylate
The powder (polymer) used in heat-cured or self-cured resins is what?

poly-methylmethacrylate C. benzoyl peroxide
This is added to the monomer to aid in the inhibition of polymerization during

storage. poly-methylmethacrylate C. benzoyl peroxide
This is the constituent of a dental gypsum-bonded investment that functions as the

refractory material and provides the thermal expansion for the investment?
Cristobalite C. calcium sulfate hemihydrate
Graphite D. potassium sulfate
What is the primary component of gypsum before it is processed into dental plaster
or stone?
potassium sulfate hemihydrate C. calcium nitrate hemihydrate
B. calcium sulfate hemihydrate D. potassium nitrate hemihydrate
Which of the following cements is indicated when maximum retention is required or

when the pulp is of no concern?
Polycarboxylate B. glass ionomer C. zinc phosphate D. ZOE
This pontic looks lost like a tooth, replacing all the contours of the missing tooth, fills
the embrassures and overlaps the ridge with a large concave contact. This type
of pontic should never be used.
ridge lap B. hygienic C. saddle D. conical E. none of
these
Used to describe a pontics which do not have any contact with the tissue.
these
This design gives the illusion of being a tooth, but possesses all convex surfaces for
ease of cleaning.
these
The shape of this pontic is cleanable, but the triangular shaped spaces around the
tissue contact have a tendency to collect debris.
these
In casting the metal substructure for a metal-ceramic crown, it is necessary to use

which type of investment?
gypsum bonded C. sulfate bonded
B. phosphate bonded D. any of these E. all of these
Which of the folliwng medicaments are commonly used for cord impregnation?
Epinephrine C. alum (aluminum potassium sulfate)
B. sodium sulfate D. calcium chloride E. both A and
C
Which of the following metals is most ductile?

Silver B. gold C. platinum D. copper
In metal-ceramic restorations, where does failure or fracture usually occur?
in the porcelain C. in the metal
B at the porcelain-metal interface
Which of the following alloys are used for casting large prosthetic appliances
(partials)?
Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV
/dent
11-25-2008
PROSTHODONTICS 1, 2, 3 ; DENTAL MATERIALS Shade

AE if the answer is not in the given choices.
When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or portural position,
contact of teeth is:
Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in

complete denture fabrication for centric relation are true?
Ideally selective grinding should result in harmonious
cusp-fossa contacts of all upper and lower fossa (and
marginal ridges of bicuspsids)
Only grind cusp tips if they are premature in centric,
lateral and protrusive movements.
Neither of the above statements are true.
Both of the above statements are
true.
The shoulderless preparation:
A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in
cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical
finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown
The chamfer cervical finish:
A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making
compound impressions.
cervical region
finish lines
The shoulder cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in
cervical region
finish lines
The gold—veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:
A. a three-quarter crown is indicated C. a buccal three
quarter crown is indicated
B. a complete crown is indicated D .a mesial half crown is
indicated
Indications for three-quarter crown retainers includes:

A. when caries have eroded proximal and lingual surfaces
B. cannot be used on any tooth (anterior or posterior)
C. cannot be used on periodontally involved tooth
D. cannot be used on short anterior teeth
Contraindications to the use of the three-quarter crown are:
A. anterior teeth with short clinical crown and incisor tapered
crowns B. periodontally involved tooth C. teeth with eroded
proximal surfaces D. teeth with eroded lingual surfaces E.
none of the choices.
Which of the following presents as a painless, firm, pink or red
nodular proliferation of the mucosa?
inflammatory papillary hyperplasia C. denture stomatitis
fibrous hyperplasia D. Moniliasis
If you are fabricating both mandibular and maxillary immediate

dentures for a patient, the ideal treatment is which of the
following?
Fabricate the maxillary immediate first.
Fabricate the mandibular first.
Fabricate both the maxillary and mandibular immediate at the
same time.
Makes no difference which one you fabricate first.
All new dentures should be evaluated within how many hours?

A. 3 hours b. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours
Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture

can be distributed throughout the mouth only when major and
minor connectors are:
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane
E. none of these.
Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:
protect occlusal surfaces forces C. resist lateral chewing
stabilize the partial D. resist vertical

dentures forces of occlusion
A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

from the tissues only
mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the
abutment teeth
mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the
tissues
equally from the abutment teeth and the
tissues
Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal
extensions can best be avoided by: using stressbreakers
employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth
maintaining tissue support of the distal extensions
clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area
maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the
ideal degree of tension
Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture

can be distributed throughout the mouth only when major and
minor connectors are:
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane
Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:

protect occlusal surfaces forces C. resist lateral chewing
stabilize the partial D. resist vertical

dentures forces of occlusion
A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the
abutment teeth
mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the
tissues
equally from the abutment teeth and the
tissues
Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal
extensions can best be avoided by: using stressbreakers
employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth maintaining
tissue support of the distal extensions clasping at least
two teeth for each edentulous area maintaining the clasp
arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension
Balancing side (non-working side) interferences generally occur on

the inner aspects of which teeth?
facial cusps of mandibular molars
facial cusps of maxillary premolars
lingual cusps of mandibular molars
facial cusps of maxillary molars
Which of the following concerning centric relation is/are TRUE?

The mandible cannot forced into centric relation from the rest
position because the patient’s reflex neuromascular defense
would resist the applied force
The mandible should be relaxed and gently guided into centric
relation.
In fixed and removable prosthodontics, centric relation should
be established prior to designing the frameworks.
When a centric relation record is taken in the natural
dentition, imprints of the teeth should be confined to cusp
tips and the registration material should not be perforated.
A. 1 & 2 B. 1,2 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1,2,3 & 4 E. 3 only.
A semi-rigid connector is used:

A. because of difficulty in soldering
B. if a rigid connector interferes with the physiologic
movement of
abutment teeth and does not transmit torsional stresses
C. where parallelism exists in the abutment teeth
D. where long spans are present
A semi-rigid connector:
A. is always located in the distal surface of the anterior
retainer
B. in the mesial surface of the anterior retainer
C. in the strongest abutment tooth
D. in long spans
Porcelain should be the material of choice :

when a facing is demanded for cosmetic reasons
when the material is to be used without the support of metal
for other than for veneer purposes
since extensive inflammatory changes occur in adjacent soft
tissue
The retentive clasp, as it flexes over the highest convexity of
abutment exerts some horizontal force, which can be neutralized
with this attribute of the RPD:
A. passivity B. encirclement C. neutral zone D.
reciprocation E. retention.
The retruded contact position is what type of position?

A. “tooth-guided” B. “ligament-guided” C.
“muscle-guided”
An edentulous patient has slight undercuts in both tuberosities
and also in the facial of the anterior maxilla. To construct a
satisfactory maxillary complete denture, you should reduce
All undercuts C. Both tuberosity
undercuts The anterior undercut only D. None of
them.
Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be made on a
patient, which of the following must be determined?
Location of the hinge axis point. C. Vertical dimension of
occlusion.
The inclination of each condyle. D. Centric relation.
Delineates the height of contour:
A. undercut gauge B. analyzing rod C. mandrel D. wax trimmer

E.
carbon marker and sheath.
In circumferential clasps, these should be on the same level to

dissipate stress as flexible tip passes over tooth’s greatest
convexity: A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive
arm D. reciprocal arm
Prevents vertical dislodgement of RPD:

A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D.
reciprocal arm
The terminal third of the retentive arm is:

A. rigid B. semi-rigid C.
flexible
Posterior border of denture clearance from the fovea palatina /
vibrating line:
A. 2mm B. 4mm C. 6mm D. 8mm E. 10mm.
Low survey line that allows placement of the retentive terminus of
a clasp arm on the gingival one-third of the abutment tooth
indicates that:
the angle of cervical convergence is
small. the angle of cervical
convergence is large the abutment tooth
must be recontoured a bar clasp is the
clasp design of choice
A refitting procedure consisting of resurfacing the tissue side

of the denture with new base material is referred to as:
reline B. rebase C. reconstruction D. all of the choices
Which of the following is not a function of occlusal rests?

maintenance of the correct occlusal relation of the
artificial teeth
guiding of prosthesis along planned path of
insertion stabilization of clasp arms in their
planned position resistance of cervical movement
of prosthesis
Aesthetic is an important consideration when deciding between a
fixed or a removable partial denture for which of the following
Kennedy classification?
Kennedy Class I C. Kennedy Class III
Kennedy Class II D. Kennedy Class IV
In protrusive movement, the condyles of the mandible have moved in

which direction?
backward and upward B.downward and forward C.
neither of the two.
Which of the following is the superior attachment for the

pterygomandibular raphe?
Hamular notch B. Fovea palatine C.Pterygoid
hamulus
The ease and accuracy of border molding depends on which of the

following?
1. An accurately fitting custom tray.
Control of bulk and temperature of the modeling compound.
The tray being thoroughly dried.
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 `C. 1,2 and 3 D. 1 only
Which teeth on a maxillary complete denture are the most important
when considering esthetics?
Maxillary laterals C. Maxillary canines
Maxillary centrals D. Maxillary first premolars
A broken-stress or nonrigid FPD is indicated

when: constructing a mandibular FPD only
two or three missing teeth are to be
replaced
retainers cannot be prepared to draw together without
excessive tooth reduction
fixed splinting involves tow or three abutment teeth
retainers can be designed to have equal retentive
qualities.
The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration
is:
failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the
gingival sulcus
lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts
lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci and sharp marginal
ridges. .
When preparing a partial veneer crown on a maxillary incisor,

proximal grooves should be parallel to the:
long axis of the tooth C. incisal two-thirds of
the facial surface
gingival two-thirds of the facial surface
Termination of a free end clasp is referred to as:

Main purpose of tilting the cast in surveying:

To locate the undercut.
To locate the height of contour.
To provide the most desirable path of placement.
To aid in designing.
The location of the clasps is determined by:

Clinical examination C. Surveying the cast
Radiograph D. Position of the remaining natural teeth
The scriber of a surveyor:

Marks the clasp outline. C. Dictates the RPD design.
Guarantee undercut retention. D, Mark the greatest convexity
of the tooth.
Achieves >180 degrees encirclement of abutment:

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. ex-
tracoronal
Maintains three point contact on abutment :
A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D.
extracoronal
Achieves retention by the use of key and keyway system :

extracoronal
Direct retention is achieved by clasps:

extracoronal
Counteracts the force exerted on the undercut area on one side of

the abutment:
A. major connector C. lingual plate
B. minor connector D. retentive arm E. reciprocal
arm.
A porcelain jacket crown will fracture when:

used in an end-to-end occlusion
fabricated for a mandibular incisor
allowed to contact the opposing teeth in centric
occlusion subjected to tensile forces by the opposing
teeth subjected to compressive forces by the opposing
teeth
The nonrigid connector maybe used in the construction of a FPD
only when the span is:
short and the supporting alveolus is extensively reduced.
Short and the supporting alveolus is not extensively reduced.
Long and the supporting alveolus is extensively reduced.
Long and the supporting alveolus is not extensively reduced.
None of the above.
A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment

tooth because:
it is stronger C. it can be treated as an
independent abutment
better esthetics can be achieved D. less chair time is re-
quired in its fabrication
The limiting structure of the upper denture are as follows,

except:
A. vestibular spaces C. pterygomandibular raphe
B. hamular notches D. posterior palatal seal area in the
region of the vibrating line
Also known as the emergency retentive force:

A. atmospheric pressure C. interfacial surface tension
B. capillary attraction D. cohesion
E. adhesion.
The primary stress bearing area of the lower arch:

The construction of a bridge is normally scheduled after the
following is/are completed:
A. surgery
C. periodontal therapy
D. Operative dentistry
Premature contacts in centric relation and any lateral slide as

patient closes into centric occlusion:
C. need not be eliminated.
D. should be eliminated by grinding before the bridge is made.
The following amount of forward slide from centric relation to
centric occlusion can be regarded as normal in the absence
of any periodontal pathology or mobile teeth:
A. 1mm. B. 4mm. C. Up to 2mm. D. 6mm.
The incisal edge of the three-quarter crown retainer on the cuspid

tooth is:
A. about 45 degrees to long axis of tooth. C. 60 degrees to
long axis of tooth.
B. 30 degrees to long axis of tooth. D. 15 degrees to
long axis of tooth
Of what importance is tongue size and position to the prognosis of

a complete denture?
A. of little or no importance
B. large tongue helps stabilize lower dentures
C. patients with large tongues often experience poor lower
denture stability.
Factors affecting the stability of dentures, are as follows,

except:
A. location and arrangement of artificial teeth C. quality of
final impression
B. size and form of basal seat D. all of the choices
E. none of these.
This is a resistance of a denture to the vertical component of

mastication.
A. retention B. stability C. support D. lip
esthetic E. health of basal seat.
The nonrigid connector is:

A. used for long spans C. used when alveolus is extremely
reduced
B. a broken-stress joint D. used when alveolus is actively
receding
A good solder joint must have:

A. a triangular peripheral attachment
B. a complete and concave peripheral attachment
C. a partial and convex peripheral attachment
D. a partial and concave peripheral attachment
Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should
be explored. In the adult patient the depth is:
B. less than 0.75mm D. more than 1.0mm
Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be
explored. In the young patient the depth is:
A. more than 1.0mm C. more than 5.0mm
B. shallow D. more than 2.0mm
Excessive vertical dimension may result in___?

A. poor denture retention C. wrinkles around the lip
B. drooping of commisures D. trauma to the underlying
supporting tissues E. all of these
Following extraction, alveolar process of the maxilla will resorb:

A. upward and forward direction C. downward and forward
B. upward and backward D. downward and backward
The working side is the :

A. balancing side C. side toward which the man-
dible is moved
B. side opposite to which the mandible move D. eccentric
occlusion
Qualities of shade that refers to the amount of color per unit
area:
A. brilliance B. saturation C. translucency D. hue
A direct restorative materials used frequently to restore a
portion of a posterior tooth that is subject to large biting
forces has the following properties:
A. esthetics B. high strength C. ease of casting D. thermal
insulation
Rank the following dental materials in order of increasing values

of their coefficient of thermal expansion: 1. dental amalgam
2. human teeth 3. porcelain 4. unfilled acrylic plastics: \
A. 2,3,1,4 B. 3,2,4,1 C. 3,2,1,4 D.
2,3,4,1.
The following statements describe percolation, except:

A. Percolation usually decreases with time after insertion of
dental amalgam
B. Percolation is caused by differences in the coefficient of
thermal expansion between tooth and the restorative material
when heated or cooled.
C. Percolation is thought to be undesirable because of
possible irritation to the dental pulp and recurrent decay.
D. Percolation is not likely to occur with unfilled acrylic
restorations.
A curve of spee that is too flat produces:

A. molar cusps that are too short C. anterior teeth that
are too short
B. molar cusps that are too D. anterior teeth that are
long long too
When the plane of occlusion is too low, the posterior cusps:

A. will appear too long C. will appear of normal
length
B. will appear too short D. will appear out of occlu-
sion
FPD require the use of:

A. soft golds B. medium hard golds C. hard golds
D. Type A golds
Well-fired porcelain depends on good preliminary condensation.

This is accomplished by the following method/s:
1. Vibration 2. Pressure 3. Brushing 4. Capillary pack-
ing
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2,3 and 4 D. 1 only E. 4
only.
The vapor pressure of mercury increase with:
A. increasing temperature C. contamination by dust
B. decreasing size of mercury droplets D. both A & B E.
Both B & C.
Which of the following cement bases has the highest elastic

modulus to best support an extensive amalgam restoration?
A. zinc phosphate C. zinc polyacrylate
B. polymer-reinforced zinc oxide-eugenol D. glass
ionomer
The following are classified as rigid impression materials,

except:
A.Zinc oxide-eugenol B. impression plaster C. silicone rubber
D.
dental impression compound
The impression material that shows the least dimensional change as

a result of disinfection by immersion is:
A. alginate B. agar C. polysulfide D. addition silicones E.
polyether.
The gold content of an 18-K alloy is:

A. 50% B. 75% C. 100% D. 30%
The following statements about heat curing resin are true ,

except:
A. the method of activation is by heat or boiling
B. the peak temperature is as high as that of self-curing resin
C. the initial strength properties is higher than self-curing
resin
D. color is more stable
\
Aids in inhibition of polymerization during storage:
A. benzoyl peroxide C. hydroquinone
B. dibutyl phthalate D. methyl methacrylate E.
gelatin talc.
The widely used method for fabrication of metallic appliance

outside the mouth:
A. firing B. casting C. pickling D. quenching
D. fluxing.
The monomer is principally:

A./ benzoyl peroxide C. dibutyl phthalate
B. polymethyl methacrylate D. methyl methacrylate E.
hydroquinone.
Dental porcelain used as a veneer over cast metal crowns:
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. any of these.
Also known as “inlay golds” :

A. Type 1 and Type 2 B. Type II & Type III C. Type III &
IV D. Type I & IV
Increases the toughness of wax and resistance to cracking and

flaking: A. paraffin B. gum dammar C. carnauba wax D.
candelilla wax E. any of these.
dental porcelain used as a veneer over cast metal
crowns:
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. any of
these.
Even correctly mixed zinc phosphate cement is irritating to the
pulp.
How can this irritation be minimized?
Place 2 coats of cavity varnish over the preparations
Add 1 drop of eugenol to the cement after mixing.
Apply eugenol with a cotton pellet to the
preparation. decrease the liquid powder ratio
ratio of the cement
Two of the most common causes of clicking in complete dentures
are:
reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced
occlusion excessive vertical dimension and poor denture
retention use of too large a posterior tooth and too
little horizontal overlap
improper relation of teeth to the residual ridge and
excessive anterior vertical overlap
The area of the buccal frenum of a complete mandibular denture

must be thinned to allow for contraction of which of the
following muscles?
Caninus B. masseter C. Zygomaticus D. Triangularis
The incisal guidance on the articulator is the:

horizontal guidance same
as the condylar guidance
mechanical equivalent of the compensating curve
mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical
overlaps. None of the above.
The side shift (Bennet) movement exerts its greatest influence

in:
lateral movements C. protrusive movements
retrusive movements D. opening and closing
movements
The hinge axis face-bow transfer is of value because it:
assures an accurate centric relation record
enables alteration in vertical dimension on the articulator
facilitates mounting the mandibular cast in the center of the
articulator
maintains the condyles in their most retruded positions in
the glenoid fossae
PROSTHODONTICS 1, 2, 3 ; DENTAL MATERIALS
1. A FPD is indicated to replace maxillary first and second premolars. The abutment teeth, which
are in normal alignment, are the canine and the first molar. The connectors of choices are: A.
precision attachment on both the canine and the molars
B. a soldered joint on the canine and a nonprecision dovetail keyway on the molar
C. a soldered joint on the molar with a subocclusal rest on the canine D. soldered
joints on both canine and the molar.
2. When a nonrigid connector is used in a FPD, the path of insertion of the key into the keyway
should be parallel to: A. the path of insertion of the retainer carrying the keyway
B. the path of insertion of the retainer not involved with the keyway C.
the paths of insertion of both retainers
D. none of the above.
3. Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations on short molars can be achieved
by: A. using a zinc phosphate cement D. placing several vertical grooves B. using a full
shoulder finish line E. minimizing the depth of occlusal carving.
4. Which of the following are important when evaluating abutments for FPD?
I. crown-root ratio II. Root configuration III. Periodontal surface area
A. I & II B. I & III C. II & III D. I only E. I, II & III
5. A low sag factor in a metal-ceramic FPD can cause:

I. flow of metal under functional leads II. high abrasion resistance
III. less deformation of bridge spans when fired IV. poor metal-ceramic bond strength
V. contamination of porcelain
A. I & II B. II & III C. III only D. IV & V E. all of the choices
6. Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but not
A. gingival recession B. unseating of the bridge C. deflective occlusal contact
D. torsional forces on one abutment tooth
E. incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth
7. To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed bridge should be so
formed that it;
A.extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
B. fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
C. is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
D. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area E. none of the above
8. Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration is due primarily to:

A. occlusal trauma C. failure to use a metal conditioner
B. improper firing schedule D. an inadequately designed framework
Which of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal
portion of this pontic? A. The length of the pontic. . B. The position of the opposing
contact areas.
C. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.
D. The masticatory force of the patient
A. using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
11. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load B. improve embrasure contours C.
stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve mesiodistal spacing
12. Arrange the following steps for clinical trial insertion and adjustment of a FPD.
I. Check margins II. Check centric contacts
III. Adjust functional contacts IV. Adjust proximal contacts and pontic tips.
A. I, II, III, IV B. I, IV, II, III C. II, I, III, IV D. IV, I, II, III
13. When a rigid connector is used in a FPD, the path of insertion of the key to the keyway
should be parallel to:
A. the path of insertion of the retainer carrying the keyway
B. the path of insertion of the retainer not involved with the keyway
C. the paths of insertion of both retainers D. none of the above.
14. Which of the following are important when evaluating abutments for fixed
prostheses? I. crown-root ration II. Root configuration III. Periodontal surface
area
A. I & II B. I & III C. II & III D. I, II & III
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane E. none of these.
A. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces
B. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion
17. A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment teeth
mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the tissues D. equally from the
abutment teeth and the tissues
18. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal extensions can best be avoided
A. using stressbreakers
employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth
maintaining tissue support of the distal extensions
clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area
maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension
rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy
flexible D. positioned in the same plane
protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces
stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion
21. Balancing side (non-working side) interferences generally occur on the inner aspects of
which teeth?
A. facial cusps of mandibular molars B. facial cusps of maxillary premolars C.
lingual cusps of mandibular molars D. facial cusps of maxillary molars
22. A semi-rigid connector is used:

A. because of difficulty in soldering
if a rigid connector interferes with the physiologic movement of abutment teeth and does not
transmit torsional stresses
where parallelism exists in the abutment teeth
where long spans are present
23. A semi-rigid connector:

is always located in the distal surface of the anterior retainer
in the mesial surface of the anterior retainer
in the strongest abutment tooth D. in long spans
24. Porcelain should be the material of choice :

when a facing is demanded for cosmetic reasons
when the material is to be used without the support of metal
for other than for veneer purposes
since extensive inflammatory changes occur in adjacent soft tissue
25. The retentive clasp, as it flexes over the highest convexity of abutment exerts some
horizontal force, which can be neutralized with this attribute of the RPD:
A. passivity B. encirclement C. neutral zone D. reciprocation E. retention.
26. The retruded contact position is what type of position?

A. “tooth-guided” B. “ligament-guided” C. “muscle-guided”
27. An edentulous patient has slight undercuts in both tuberosities and also in the facial of the
anterior maxilla. To construct a satisfactory maxillary complete denture, you should reduce
All undercuts C. Both tuberosity undercuts
The anterior undercut only D. None of them.
Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be made on a patient, which of the following
must be determined?
A. Location of the hinge axis point. C. Vertical dimension of occlusion.
B. The inclination of each condyle. D. Centric relation.
Delineates the height of contour:

A. undercut gauge B. analyzing rod C. mandrel D.
wax trimmer E. carbon marker and sheath.
30. In circumferential clasps, these should be on the same level to dissipate stress as flexible tip
passes over tooth’s greatest convexity:
A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D. reciprocal arm
31. Prevents vertical dislodgement of RPD:

32 The terminal third of the retentive arm is:

A. rigid B. semi-rigid C. flexible
33. Posterior border of denture clearance from the fovea palatina / vibrating line:
A. 2mm B. 4mm C. 6mm D. 8mm E. 10mm.
34. Low survey line that allows placement of the retentive terminus of a clasp arm on
the A. gingival one-third of the abutment tooth indicates that: B. the angle of cervical
convergence is small.
C. the angle of cervical convergence is
large D. the abutment tooth must be
recontoured a bar clasp is the clasp
design of choice
35. A refitting procedure consisting of resurfacing the tissue side of the denture with new base
material is referred to as:
A. reline B. rebase C. reconstruction D. all of the choices
36. The flexibility of a retentive arm of clasp depends on which of the following?
length of the clasp 4. cross-sectional form
thickness of the clasp 5. taper of the clasp
width of the clasp 6. clasp material
A. 1,2,3,5,6 B. 1,2,3,5 C. 1,2,3,6 D. all of the above
37. Which of the following describes the major connector?

The connecting tang between the denture and other units of the prosthesis.
The part of the denture base which extends from the necks of the teeth to the border of the
denture.
The units of a partial denture that connects parts located on one side of the arch with those on
the opposite side.
Both B & C are correct
none of the above.
38. Speech difficulties (clicking) related to complete denture can be caused by:
excessive vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO)
lack of retention of mandibular or maxillary denture
porcelain teeth hitting termination of speech during swallowing
A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. all of the above.
What is the absolute maximum number of posterior teeth which can be safely replaced with a
fixed bridge? A. one B. two C. three D. four
The following are major components of the high noble metal alloys used in fabricating
metalceramic restorations? 1. Gold 2. Platinum 3. Palladium A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D.
all of these
Soldering flux is composed of what materials? 1. sodium pyroborate 2. boric acid 3. silica
A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. all of these
42. Which of the following presents as a painless, firm, pink or red nodular proliferation of the
mucosa?
inflammatory papillary hyperplasia C. denture stomatitis
fibrous hyperplasia D. moniliasis
43. If you are fabricating both mandibular and maxillary immediate dentures for a patient, the
ideal treatment is which of the following? A. Fabricate the maxillary immediate first
Fabricate the mandibular immediate first
Fabricate both the maxillary and mandibular immediate at the same time
Makes no difference which one you fabricate first.
Ideally, selective grinding should result in harmonious cusp-fossa contacts of all upper and
lower fossa ( and marginal ridges of bicuspids).
Only grind cusp tips if they are premature in centric, lateral and protrusive movements.
Neither of the above statements are true. D. Both of the above statements are true.
45. Which of the following are functions of the posterior palatal seal?
completes the border seal of the maxillary canine
prevents impaction of food beneath the tissue surface of the denture
improves the physiologic retention of the denture
46. compensates for shrinkage of the denture resin during the processing
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. all of these
46. Which of the following types of porcelain is usually used when manufacturing porcelain
teeth?
A. high fusing B. medium fusing C. low fusing
47. When the mandible is in the physiologic rest or postural position, contact of teeth is?
48. All new dentures should be evaluated within how many hours?
A. 3 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours.
49. What muscle moves the disk of the TMJ forward?

A. Digastric B. lateral pterygoid C. mylohyoid D. geniohyoid
50. All things being ideal, which restoration is usually the treatment of choice?
A. removable partial denture B. fixed partial denture C. both RPD & FPD
51. Balancing side (non-working) interferences generally occur on the inner aspects of which
teeth?
A. facial cusps of mandibular molars C. lingual cusps of mandibular
molars B. facial cusps of maxillary premolars D. facial cusps of maxillary
molars
52. The following are situations in which a RPD is specifically indicated rather than a FPD:
distal extensions
short span edentulous area
periodontally involved abutment teeth
4following recent extractions
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. all of the above.
54. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
improve the distribution of the occlusal load
improve embrasure contours
stabilize the abutment teeth
55. A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a patient’s denture teeth to correct
the centric occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should this dentist
do?
Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients
56. Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following?
Which of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion
of this pontic?
The masticatory force of the patient. C. The position of the opposing
contact areas.
D. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.
58. In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a lingual plate preferred over a
lingual bar connector?
When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.
59. Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not be placed over the
ascending area of the mandible?
The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of the masseter muscle.
The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular denture.
60. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:
61. For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on
The facial inclines of the lingual cusps
The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
The lingual inclines of the facial cusps
The central fossae
62. The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent loss of the
situation? A. Moving the anterior teeth facially.
Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
63. The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm at (in) the:
junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clinical crown
junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clinical crown
occlusal one third of the clinical crown
64. The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla are the:
“f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds
65. For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain the
Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth
66. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is:
increased retention D. conservation of tooth surface
67. A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This patient returned repeatedly for
adjustments of the erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the following is the most
likely cause?
An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining.
Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression C. The loss of even
centric relation contacts.
D. A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension.
68. The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure hinging movements is
possible is: A. centric occlusion
retruded contact position
postural position of the mandible (rest vertical dimension)
transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge position)
69. In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims and central bearing point are
in contact and the mandible is in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the:
vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension
70. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

A. limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space
determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the maxillary denture.
71. Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial
denture?
Plastic teeth are:
resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin
72. A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from canine-to-canine needs an
immediate maxillary denture. There is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient is
best treated by: A. reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony undercut
leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.
73. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or portural position, contact of teeth is:
Ideally selective grinding should result in harmonious cusp-fossa contacts of all upper and lower
fossa (and marginal ridges of bicuspsids)
Only grind cusp tips if they are premature in centric, lateral and protrusive movements.
Neither of the above statements are true. D. Both of the above statements are true.
75. The shoulderless preparation: A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in
provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines D. requires
building up the short mesial end of the crown
76. The chamfer cervical finish:

greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines D. requires building up the
77. The shoulder cervical finish:

greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines D. requires building up the
78. The gold—veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:

A. a three-quarter crown is indicated C. a buccal three quarter crown is indicated
B. a complete crown is indicated D .a mesial half crown is indicated
79. Indications for three-quarter crown retainers includes:

when caries have eroded proximal and lingual surfaces
cannot be used on any tooth (anterior or posterior)
cannot be used on periodontally involved tooth
cannot be used on short anterior teeth
80. Contraindications to the use of the three-quarter crown are:

anterior teeth with short clinical crown and incisor tapered crowns
periodontally involved tooth C. teeth with eroded proximal surfaces
D. teeth with eroded lingual surfaces E. none of the choices.
81. In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what direction?

A.Out, back and up C. down, forward and medially
B. Up, back and down D. down, forward and laterally
82. The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a complete denture that has been
worn for a long time is:
epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia
pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell reparative granuloma
83. The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the denture in a
horizontal direction is:
A. support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stability
84 Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be made on a patient, which of the
following must be determined?
A. Location of the hinge axis point. C. Vertical dimension of occlusion.
B. The inclination of each condyle. D. Centric relation.
85. Delineates the height of contour:

A. undercut gauge B. analyzing rod C. mandrel
D. wax trimmer E. carbon marker and sheath.
86. In circumferential clasps, these should be on the same level to dissipate stress as flexible tip
passes over tooth’s greatest convexity:
87. Aesthetic is an important consideration when deciding between a fixed or a removable
partial denture for which of the following Kennedy classification?
Kennedy Class I C. Kennedy Class III
Kennedy Class II D. Kennedy Class IV
88. In protrusive movement, the condyles of the mandible have moved in which direction?
A. backward and upward B.downward and forward C. neither of the two.
89. Which of the following is the superior attachment for the pterygomandibular raphe?
A. Hamular notch B. Fovea palatine C.Pterygoidhamulus
90. Termination of a free end clasp is referred to as:

91. Main purpose of tilting the cast in surveying:

A. To locate the undercut.
B. To locate the height of contour. C. To provide the
most desirable path of placement.
D. To aid in designing.
92. The location of the clasps is determined by:

Clinical examination C. Surveying the cast
Radiograph D. Position of the remaining natural teeth
93. The scriber of a surveyor:

A. Marks the clasp outline. C. Dictates the RPD design. B. Guarantee
undercut retention. D, Mark the greatest convexity of the tooth.
94. Achieves >180 degrees encirclement of abutment:

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoronal
95. Maintains three point contact on abutment :

96. Achieves retention by the use of key and keyway system :

97. Direct retention is achieved by clasps:

98. The limiting structure of the upper denture are as follows, except:
vestibular spaces C. pterygomandibular raphe
hamular notches D. posterior palatal seal area in the region of the vibrating line
99. Also known as the emergency retentive force:

atmospheric pressure C. interfacial surface tension
capillary attraction D. cohesion E. adhesion.
100. The primary stress bearing area of the lower arch:

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● PROSTHODONTICS 1, 2, 3 ; DENTAL MATERIALS

2. Final set amalgam should contain

3. What is required in order for polymerization of resins to occur when desired?

4. The typical polymerization shrinkage of resin composite is:

5. The curing of resin composite is inhibited by:

7. Glass ionomers were first introduced in the:

8. Which of the following is not a member of the polyalkenoic acid family? A.

10. Hydrogen peroxide in dentistry ____.

11. The carbamide peroxide reaction is defined as follows:

18. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

26. Dental amalgam will best withstand forces of;

38. Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates;

46. The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration is;

47. On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;

56. Which classes of mandibular RPDs require an altered cast impression?

57. Examples of suprabulge clasps are the following except:

59. The guide surface preparation should be curved

62. Function of clasp: A. help stabilize the RPD by controlling

64. If a metal base is to be used

69. Incisal rests:

70. Which of the following steps is done LAST?

73. Guide plates for anterior teeth

74. Occlusal rest preparations should be

75. In general, lingual plating should be supported

78. The partial denture design should be finalized prior to

79. The open latticework on a maxillary class I RPD:

84. Intraradicular retainers is/are used on:

89. The chamfer cervical finish:

90. The shoulder cervical finish:

93. A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

96.A broken-stress or nonrigid FPD is indicated when

99. Termination of a free end clasp is referred to as:

PROSTHODONTICS AND DENTAL MATERIALS

A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed

A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a

Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked

deflective occlusal contact E. torsional forces on one

For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most

In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims

In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic

A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from

Which of the following direct retainers for a removable

A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-

Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to

A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an

Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations

The posterior occlusal plane is determined on an occlusion

Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if

The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should

A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture

In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what

Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a

Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a

Which of the following is a problem with the polyether

Dental amalgam will best withstand forces of;

The relationship of denture base to bone that resists

Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be

Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration

A patient who wears complete denture is having trouble