II YR APEX KCET Date: 18-11-2024

Time: 30 Mins Max. Marks: 30 M

MATHEMATICS

1. If 4x + i(3x - y) = 3 + i(- 6) where x and y are real numbers, then find the values of x and y respectively.
1) 1/4, 3/4 2) 3/4, 33/4 3) 33/4, - 3/4 4) - 3/4, - 33/4
2. If z1 = 2 - iy and z2 = x + 3i are equal, then find x and y.
1) x = 2, y = 5 2) x = 2, y = - 3 3) x = 3, y = - 2 4) x = - 3, y = - 2
3. If 3 + yi - 2i = x - i then find y.
1) 3 2) 0 3) 2 4) 1
1/3
4. If (x + iy) = 2 + 3i then 3x + 2y is equal to
1) -20 2) -60 3) – 120 4) 60
3 2
5. The value of x + 7x - x + 16 when x = 1 + 2i is
1) 17 - 24i 2) - 17 + 24i 3) - 17 - 24i 4) 17 + 24i
z
6. If z1 = 2 + 3i and z2 = 1 + 2i then 1 is equal to
z2
8 1 8 1 8 1 8 1
1)  i 2)  i 3)   i 4)   i
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
i 4 n1  i 4n 1
7. Find the value of
2
1) -1 2) -i 3) 1 4) i
2i
8. Find the modulus of
4i  (1  i )2
5 6 5
1) 5/6 2) 3) 4)
6 5 6
1  2i
9. If A + i B = value where, i = 1 then the value of AB is
1  2i
2 2 2 2 2 2
1) 2) 3) 0 4)
9 9 6
10. If (1 + i ) z = (1- i ) z , then z is equal to
1) - i z 2) -i z 3) i z 4) iz
z 1
11. If is a purely imaginary number ( z ≠ -1), then find the value of |z|
z 1
1) 2 2) 1 3) 0 4) 4
  3  4ix 
    i   ,   R  , if α + β =
2 2
12. A real value of x satisfies the equation 
 3  4ix 
1) 1 2) -1 3) 2 4) -2
13. If a + ib = c + id then
1) a2 + c2 = 0 2) b2 + c2 = 0 3) b2 + d2 = 0 4) a2 + b2 = c2 + d2
14. If z is a complex number, then
1) |z2| > |z|2 2) |z2| = |z|2 3) |z2| < |z|2 4) |z2| >= |z|2
7 z
15. If f(z) = where z = 1 + 2i then |f(z)| is
1 z2
z
1) 2) |z| 3) 2 |z| 4) 7 z
2
16. Find the multiplicative inverse of (4 - 3i)
4 3 4 3 3 4 3 4
1)  i 2)  i 3)  i 4)  i
25 25 25 25 25 25 25 25
1  i 
2

17. The conjugate of the complex number is

1 i
1) 1 – i 2) 1 + i 3) - 1 + i 4) - 1 – i
5 z2 2 z1  3z2
18. If is purely imaginary, then the value of is
11z1 2 z1  3z2
1) 37/33 2) 2 3) 1 4) 3

 
33
19. If 5  3i  2 49 z then modulus of the complex number equal to

1) 1 2) 2 3) 2 2 4) 4
20. If ( 3 + i ) (z + z ) - (2 + i )(z - z ) + 14i = 0 , then z z =
1) 5 2) 8 3) 10 4) 40
  a  ib  
21. If x  iy   2 2
 then x + y =
  c  id  
1) (a2+b2)/(c2+d2) 2) a 2
 b2  /  c2  d 2 

3) (a2-b2)/(c2-d2) 4) a 2
 b2  /  c2  d 2 
22. If iz3 + z2 - z + i = 0 then |z| is equal to
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 1
4
23. If z  , then z is (where z is complex conjugate of z)
1 i
2 4
1) 2(1 + i) 2) (1 + i) 3) 4)
1 i 1 i
24. If the conjugate of (x + iy)(1 - 2i) is 1 + i then
1 1 i 1 i
1) x   2) x  iy  3) x  iy  4) x = 1/5
5 1  2i 1  2i
25. If Re(1 + iy)3 = - 26 where y is a real number, then the value of |y| is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 6
26. If z = x + iy is a complex number such that |z| = Re(iz) + 1 then the locus of z is
1) x2 + y2 = 1 2) x2 = 1 - 2y 3) y2 = 2x – 1 4) y2 = 1 - 2x
z 5
27. If |z| = 5 and   then Re(  ) is equal to
z5
1) 0 2) 1/25 3) 25 4) 1
1  2i
28. The modulus of is
1  1  i 
2

1) 2 2) 2 3) 1 4) 3

29. In Argand's plane, the point corresponding to

1  i 3  1  i  lies in quadrant
 3  i
1) I 2) II 3) III 4) IV
2 2 2
 1  1   1
30. If z + z + 1 = 0 where z is a complex number, then the value of  z     z 2  2    z 3  3  
2
 z  z   z 
2
 1
......   z 6  6  is
 z 
1) 18 2) 54 3) 6 4) 12
31. If the cube roots of unity are 1, ω, ω then the roots of the equation (x - 1)3 + 8 = 0 are
2

1) -1,-1,-1 2) - 1, - 1 + 2 ω, - 1 - 2 ω2
3) - 1, 1 + 2 ω, 1 + 2 ω2 4) - 1, 1 - 2 ω, 1 - 2 ω2
3
 18  1  25 
32. The value of  i     is equal to
  i  

1 i
1) 2) 2 + 2i 3) 2 - 2i 4) 2  2i
2
3
x  iy
33.


1 
Let  2  i  
3  27
 
i  1 ,where x and y are real numbers, then y-x equals

1) -91 2) -85 3) 85 4) 91
 z
34. Let z ≠1 be a complex number and let ω = x + iy, y ≠ 0. If is purely real, then |z| is equal to
1 z
1
1) | ω | 2) | ω |2 3) 2 4) 1


35. If
1  i  2  3i  3  4i   a  ib , then a2 + b2 =
 2  3i 1  i  3  4i 
1) 132 2) 25 3) 144 4) 1
1 1 1
36. If |z1| = |z2| = |z3| =    1 and z1, z2, z3 are imaginary numbers, then |z1 + z2 + z3| is
z1 z2 z3
1) equal to 1 2) less than 1 3) greater than 1 4) equal to 3

  3 
2 3
37. If z  3 7  4i 7  4i then Re(z) =

1) 79 × 3 7 2) (79)2( 3 7 ) 3) -4(79)2 4) None of these

 1  i  is positive is
n

38. The least positive integer n, for which

1  i 
n2

1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
39. If w is a complex cube root of unity, then (1 - ω + ω ) (1 - ω + ω ) (1 - ω4 + ω8) (1 - ω8 + ω16) is equal
2 2 4

to
1) 12 2) 14 3) 16 4) 0
zz 
40. If z1 and z2 are 1 - i and - 2 + 4i respectively, then Im  1 2  is equal to
 z1 
1) 1 2) -1 3) 2 4) -2
z 2
41. If is purely imaginary, then z 
z 2
1
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4)
2
6 6
 1 i 3   1 i 3 
42. The value of      is
 1 i 3   1 i 3 
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) -2

43. The value of

3  i 5  3  i 5  
 3 i 2 3 i 2
7 7 7 2i
1)  i 2) 2 7i 3) i 4)
2 2 2
i148  i146  i144  i142  i140
44. The value of 138 136 134 132 130  1 
i i i i i
1) -1 2) -2 3) -3 4) -4
45. If 1, ω, ω are three cube roots of unity, then (1 - ω + ω ) (1 + ω - ω2) is ______.
2 2

1) 2 2) 4 3) 1 4) 3

   3i  4
3 2
3i
46. If z  then |z| is equal to
 8  6i 
2

1)1 2) 3 3) 0 4) 2
m
 1 i 
47. If    1 , then the least positive integral value of m is
 1 i 
1) 4 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
48. If 3x + i (4x - y) = 6 – i, where x and y are real numbers, the of x and y are respectively,
1) 3,9 2) 2,9 3) 2,4 4) 3,4
1  i  1  3i 
2

49. The modulus of the complex number is

 2  6i  2  2i 
1 4 2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 4 2
50. The minimum value of |z| + |z - 1| is
1) 0 2) 1 3)2 4) 3
Z  Z 
51. If Z1, Z2 and Z3, Z4 are two pairs of conjugate complex numbers, then arg  1   arg  2  equals
 Z4   Z3 
 3
1)0 2) 3) 4) π
2 2
52. For a < 0, arg (ia) is
 
1) 2)  3)  4) -π
2 2
200 50
53. If  i k   i p  x  iy then (x,y) is
k 0 p 1

1) (0,1) 2) (1,-1) 3) (2,3) 4) (4,8)

2 4 6
54. The value of i + i + i + - - - (2n + 1) terms =
1)-1 2)0 3)-i 4) i
3
55. If z = 3 + 5i then z + z + 198 =
1) - 3 - 15i 2) - 3 + 15i 3) 3 - 15i 4) 3 + 15i
56. If sin x + i cos 2x, cos x - i sin 2x are conjugate to each other then x =

1) nπ, n  I 2) (n + 1) , n  I 3) ϕ 4) (2n + 1)π, n  I
2
57. The mod - amp form of 1 + cos θ + i sin θ is
       
1) cos cis 2) 2cos cis 3) 3cos cis 4) 4 cos cis
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
 3
58. If <α< then the modulus argument form (1 + cos 2α) + i sin 2α is
2 2
1) - 2cos α [cos(α - π) + i sin(α - π)] 2) 2cos α [cos α + i sin α]
3) 2cos α [cos(- α) + i sin(- α)] 4) - 2cos α [cos(π - α) + i sin(π - α)]
z 1
59. The locus of the point z = x + iy satisfying the equation = 1 is given by
z 1
1) x = 0 2) y = 0 3) x = y 4) x + y = 0
 z 1  
60. If arg     then the locus of z is
 z 1 2
1) circle with radius 2 2) circle with radius 1
3) straight line 4) pair of lines
PHYSICS
61. To observe diffraction, the size of the obstacle
1) should be  / 2 , where  is the wavelength
2) should be of the order of wavelength
3) has relation to wavelength
4) should be much larger than the wavelength
62. Light travels in a straight line because
1) it is not absorbed by atmosphere 2) its velocity is very high
3) diffraction effect is negligible 4) due to interference
63. In a Fraunhoffer diffraction at a single slit, if yellow light illuminating the slit is replaced by blue light ,
then diffraction bonds
1) remain unchanged 2) become wider
3) disappear 4) become narrower
64. Waves that cannot be polarized are
1) Longitudinal 2) Transverse 3) Electromagnetic 4) Light
65. Polaroids are used
1) to eliminate head light glare in automobile2) in production of 3-D motion pictures
3) in sun glasses 4) all the above
66. The intensity of the polarized light transmitted through the analyzer is given by
1) Brewster's law 2) Malus Law
3) Fresnel's assumptions 4) law of superposition
67. Polaroid glass is used in sun glasses because
1) it reduces the light intensity to half on account of polarization
2) it is fashionable
3) it has good colour
4) it is cheaper
68. when an unpolarised light of intensity I 0 is incident on a polarizing sheet, the intensity of the light
which does not get transmitted is
1) I 0 / 2 2) I 0 / 4 3) zero 4) I 0
69. Unpolarized light of intensity 32Wm -2 passes through three polarizers such that the transmission axis of
the last polarizer is crossed with first. If the intensity of the emerging light is 3 W m -2 the angle between
the axes of the first two polarizers is
1) 450 2) 600 3) 300 4) zero
70. Two polaroids are kept crossed to each other. Now one of them is rotated through an angle of 45o . The
percentage of incident light now transmitted through the system is
1) 15% 2) 25% 3) 50% 4) 60%
71. When light falls on two polaroid sheets, one observes complete brightness then the two polaroids axes
are
1) Mutually perpendicular 2) Mutually parallel
3) Angle between their two axes is 45° 4) None of the above
72. The axes of the polarizer and analyzer are inclined to each other at 60°. If the amplitude of polarized
light emergent through analyzer is A. The amplitude of unpolarized light incident on polarizer is
1) A 2) A 3) 2A 4) 2 2 A
73. When the polarizer and analyser are in the crossed position the intensity of the outcoming light is
1) maximum 2) manimum
3) itdepends on the type of analyser 4) partially maximum
74. In the propagation of polarized light waves, the angle between the plane of vibration and the plane of
polarization is
1) 0° 2) 90° 3) 45° 4) 180°
o
75. Two linear polarizers are crossed at an angle of 60 . The fraction of intensity of light transmitted by the
pair is
1 3 3 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 8 8 2
76. To observe diffraction, the size of an obstacle
1) Should be of the same order as wave length
2) Should be much larger than the wave length
3) Has no relation to wave length
4) May be greater or smaller than the wave length
77. Sun light filtering through a tree leaves often makes circular patches on the ground because
1) The sun is round 2) The space through which light penetrates is round
3) Light is transverse in nature 4) Of diffraction effects
78. In studying diffraction pattern of different obstacles, the effect of
1) full wave front is studied
2) portion of a wave front is studied
3) waves from two coherent sources is studied
4) waves from one of the coherent source is studied.
79. Both light and sound waves produce diffraction. It is more difficult to observe the diffraction with light
waves because.
1) Light wave do not require medium 2) Wavelength of light waves is far smaller
3) Light waves are transverse 4) Speed of light is far greater
80. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of redlight. What happens if the red light is replaced by
blue light
1) no change
2) diffraction bands become narrower and crowded together
3) bands become broader and farther apart
4) bands disappear
81. The electromagnetic waves do not transport-
1) energy 2) charge 3) momentum 4) information
82. The nature of electromagnetic wave is-
1) longitudinal 2) longitudinal stationary
3) transverse 4) transverse stationary
83. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature is evident by
1) polarization 2) interference 3) reflection 4) diffraction
84. Energy stored in electromagnetic oscillations is in the form of
1) electrical energy 2) magnetic energy 3) both 1 and 2 4) neither of the above
85. Which wave is not electromagnetic in nature?
1) micro waves 2) radio waves 3) X-ray 4) audio waves
86. Which of the following waves have the maximum wavelength?
1) Ultraviolet rays 2) I.R. rays 3) UV rays 4) radio waves
87. In an apparatus the electric field was found to oscillate with an amplitude of 18V m -1. The rms of the
oscillating magnetic field is
1) 6×10-8 T 2) 4.23×10-8 T 3) 9×10-8 T 4) 7×10-8 T
88. The velocity of all radio waves in free space is 3×10 8m/s, the frequency of a wave of wavelength 150 m
is
1) 45 MHz 2) 2 MHz 3) 2 KHz 4) 20 KHz
89. The relative permeability of glass is 3/8 and the dielectric constant of glass is 8. The refractive index of
glass is
1) 1.732 2) 1.327 3) 1.682 4) 2.582
90. In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2×10 10 Hz
and amplitude 48V/m, the wavelength of the wave will be (in cm)
1) 1.5 2) 2.5 3) 3.5 4) 4.5
91. In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2×10 10 Hz
and amplitude 48V/m. The amplitude of oscillating magnetic field will be
1 1
1) ×10-8 Wb / m2 2) 16×10-8Wb / m2 3) 12×10-7 Wb /m2 4) ×10-7 Wb /m2
16 16
92. The amplitude of the sinusoidally oscillating electric field of a plane wave is 60V/m. Then the amplitude
of the magnetic field is
1) 12×107 T 2) 6×107 T 3) 6×10-7 T 4) 2×10-7 T
93. The maximum electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is 88 V/m. The average energy density is
1) 3.4×10-8Jm-3 2) 13.7×10-8Jm-3 3) 6.8×10-8Jm-3 4) 1.7×10-8Jm-3
94. The rms value of the electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is 314V/m. The average energy
density of electric field and the average energy density are
1) 4.3×10-7Jm-3 ; 2.15×10-7Jm-3 2) 4.3×10-7Jm-3; 8.6×10-7Jm-3
3) 2.15×10-7Jm-3; 4.3×10-7Jm-3 4) 8.6×10-7Jm-3; 4.3×10-7Jm-3
95. The intensity of electromagnetic wave at a distance of 1 Km from a source of power 12.56 kW. is
1) 10-3Wm-2 2) 4×10-2Wm-2 3) 12.56×10-3Wm-2 4) 1.256×10-3Wm-2
96. The sun delivers 103W/m2 of electromagnetic flux. The power incident on a roof of dimensions
8m×20m, will be
1) 6.4×103 W 2) 3.4×104 W 3) 1.6×105 W 4) 3.2×105 W
97. Light with energy flux of 18W/cm2 falls on a nonreflecting surface of area 20cm2 at normal incidence
the momentum delivered in 30 minutes is
1) 1.2×10-6 kgms-1 2) 2.16×10-3 kgms-1 3) 1.18×10-3 kgms-1 4) 3.2×10-3 kgms-1
98. Light with energy flux of 24Wm-2 is incident on a well-polished disc of radius 3.5cm for one hour. The
momentum transferred to the disc is
1) 1.1µ kg ms-1 2) 2.2µ kg ms-1 3) 3.3µ kg ms-1 4) 4.4µ kg ms-1
99. If a source of power 4 kW produces 1020 photons/second, the radiation belongs to a part of the spectrum
called
1) X – rays 2) Ultraviolet rays 3) Microwaves 4) γ rays
100. A parallel plate condenser consists of two circular plates each of radius 2cm separated by a distance of
0.1mm. A time varying potential difference of 5×1013V/s is applied across the plates of the condenser.
The displacement current is
1) 5.50A 2) 5.56×102A 3) 5.56×103A 4) 2.28×104A
101. A parallel plate condenser has conducting plates of radius 12cm separated by a distance of 5mm. It is
charged with a constant charging current of 0.16 A, the rate at which the potential difference between
the plate change is
1) 1×109Vs-1 2) 2×1010Vs-1 3) 3×1012Vs-1 4) 2×109Vs-1
102. A condenser has two conducting plates of radius 10cm separated by a distance of 5mm. It is charged
with a constant current of 0.15A. The magnetic field at a point 2cm from the axis in the gap is
1) 1.5×10-6 T 2) 3×10-8 T 3) 6×10-8T 4) 3×10-6 T
103. An AC rms voltage of 2V having a frequency of 50 KHz is applied to a condenser of capacity of 10muF.
The maximum value of the magnetic field between the plates of the condenser if the radius of plate is
10cm is (in micro tesla)
1) 5 2) 7 3) 2 4)9
104. Wavelength of the wave with 30 MHz frequency is
1) 1cm 2) 10 cm 3) 100 cm 4) 1000 cm
105. The magnetic field in travelling EM wave has a peak value of 20nT. The peak value of electric field
strength is (in V/m)
1) 6 2)4 3)9 4) 10
106. The wavelength of electromagnetic wave of frequency 5  10 Hz is (in Ao ) is
14

1) 5000 2) 3500 3) 6200 4) 6000

107. A laser beam can be focused on an area equal to the square of its wavelength. A He- Ne laser radiates
energy at the rate of 1mW and its wavelength is 600 nm. The intensity of focused beam will be
1) 3.2×109W/m2 2) 2.8×1013W/m2 3) 2.7×109W/m2 4) 3.2×1013W/m2
108. The intensity of solar radiation at the earths surface is 1KW m -2. The power entering the pupil of an eye
of diameter 0.5 cm (in mW) is
1) 19.6 2) 9.8 3) 14.2 4) 4.9
109. A point source of electromagnetic radiation has an average power output of 800W. The maximum value
of electric field at a distance 3.5 m from the source will be 62.6 V/m, the energy density at a distance 3.5
m from the source will be - (in joule/m³)
1) 1.73×10-5 2) 1.73×10-6 3) 1.73×10-7 4) 1.73×10-8
110. A plane electromagnetic wave of wave intensity 6W/m2 strikes a small mirror of area 40cm2, held
perpendicular to the approaching wave. The momentum transferred by the wave to the mirror each
second will be
1) 6.4×10-7kg m/s 2) 4.8×10-8 kg m/s 3) 3.2×10-9kg m/s 4) 1.6×10-10 kg m/s
111. A plane electromagnetic wave of wave intensity 6W/m2 strikes a small mirror of area 40cm2, held
perpendicular to the approaching wave. the radiation force on the mirror will be
1) 6.4×10-7N 2) 4.8×10-8N 3) 3.2×10-9 N 4) 1.6×10-10 N
112. An electromagnetic radiation has an energy 14.4 KeV. To which region of electromagnetic spectrum
does it belong?
1) Infrared region 2) Visible region 3) X-rays region 4) γ-ray region
113. A parallel plate condenser has two circular metal plates of radius 10cm separated by certain distance of
1m. The condenser is being charged with a visible electric field at the rate of 5×10 13V/sec. the
displacement current is
1) 0.139 A 2) 1.39 A 3) 13.9 A 4) 139 A
114. Το establish an instantaneous displacement current of 2A in the space between two parallel plates 1muF
capacitor, the potential difference across the capacitor plates will have to be changed at the rate of
1) 4×104V / s 2) 4×106V / s 3) 2×104 V / s 4) 2×106 V / s
115. The speed of light in vacuum is equal to
1
1) 0 0 2) 02 02 3) 0 0 4)
 0 0
116. The conduction current is the same as displacement current when the source is
1)A.C. only 2) D.C. only 3) both A.C and D.C. 4) neither for A.C. nor for D.C.
117. Displacement current is continuous-
1) when electric field is changing in the circuit
2) when magnetic field is changing in the circuit
3) in both types of fields.
4) through wire and resistance only
118. The displacement current flows in the dielectric of a capacitor when the potential difference across its
plates-
1) becomes zero 2) has assumed a constant value
3) is increasing with time 4) none of these
119. Maxwell's equations describe the fundamental laws of
1) electricity only 2) magnetism only 3) mechanics only 4) both 1 and 2
120. A Parallel plate condenser of capacity 100 Pf is connected to 230 V of AC supply of 300rad/sec
frequency. The rms value of displacement current.
1) 6.9  A 2) 2.3  A 3) 9.2  A 4) 4.6  A

CHEMISTRY
121. The number of s-electrons present in an ion with 55 protons in its unipositive state is
1) 8 2) 12 3) 9 4) 10
122. The IUPAC nomenclature of an element with electronic configuration [Rn] 5f 146d17s2 is
1) Unnilbium 2) Unnilunium 3) Unnilquadium 4) Unniltrium
123. It is observed that characteristic X-ray spectra of elements show regularity. When frequency to the
power "n" i.e. vn of X-rays emitted is plotted against atomic number ‘Z’ following graph is obtained.
The value of "n" is

1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) 1/2
124. In the long form of the periodic table, the valence shell electronic configuration of 5s 2 5 p4 corresponds
to the element present in
1) group 16 and period 6 2) group 17 and period 5
3) group 16 and period 5 4) group 17 and period 6.
125. Which of the following represents the correct order of metallic character of the given elements?
1) Be < Si < Mg < K 2) K < Mg < Be < Si
3) Be < Si < K < Mg 4) Si < Be < Mg < K
126. The correct order of first ionisation enthalpy is
1) Mg < Al < S < P 2) Mg < Al < P < S
3) Al < Mg < S < P 4) Mg < S < Al < P
127. The set in which compounds have different nature is
1) Be(OH)2 and Al(OH)3 2) B(OH)3 and Al(OH)3
3) B(OH)3 and H3PO3 4) NaOH and Ca(OH)2
128. Given below are the oxides:
Na2O As2O3 N2O NO and Cl2O7
Number of amphoteric oxides is
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
129. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
1) Mg2+ 2) Ti3+ 3) V3+ 4) Fe2+
130. Which has most stable +2 oxidation state?
1) Sn 2) Pb 3) Fe 4) Ag
131. The electronegativity of the following elements increase in the order
1) C < N < Si < P 2) N < Si < C < P 3) Si < P < C < N 4) P < Si < N < C
132. The formation of the oxide ion O2g requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown
below:
O  g   e   Og  ; H 0   142 kJmol 1 Og   e  O2g ∆H0= 844 kJmol-1
This is because
1) Oxygen is more electronegative
2) Oxygen has high electron affinity
3) O- ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron
4) O- ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom.
133. In general, the properties that decrease and increase down a group in the periodic table, respectively are
1) atomic radius and electronegativity 2) electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy
3) electronegativity and atomic radius 4) electron gain enthalpy and electronegativity
134. The increasing order of the ionic radii of the given isoelectronic species is
1) S2-, Cl-, Ca2+, K+ 2) Ca2+, K+, Cl-, S2- 3) K+, S2-, Ca2+, Cl- 4) Cl-, Ca2+, K+, S2-
135. In general, the property (magnitudes only) that shows an opposite trend in comparison to other
properties across a period is
1) ionization enthalpy 2) electronegativity
3) electron gain enthalpy 4) atomic radius
136. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy is
1) Te > Se > S > O 2) S > Se > Te > O 3) O > S > Se > Te 4) S > O > Se > Te
137. The set that contains atomic numbers of only transition elements, is
1) 37, 42, 50, 64 2) 21, 25, 42, 72 3) 9, 17, 34, 38 4) 21, 32, 53, 64
138. The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic number 119 would be
1) une 2) unh 3) uun 4) uue
139. The group number, number of valence electrons and valency of an element with atomic number 15,
respectively, are
1) 15, 5 and 3 2) 15, 6 and 2 3) 16, 5 and 2 4) 16, 6 and 3
140. The element with Z = 120 (not yet discovered) will be an/a
1) inner-transition metal 2) alkaline earth metal
3) alkali metal 4) transition metal
141. The actinoids exhibit more number of oxidation states in general than the lanthanoids. This is because
1) the 5f orbitals extend further from the nucleus than the 4f orbitals
2) the 5f orbitals are more buried than the 4f orbitals
3) there is a similarity between 4f and 5f orbitals in their angular part of the wave function
4) the actinoids are more reactive than the lanthanoids
142. Which of the following factors may be regarded as the main cause of lanthanide contraction?
1) Poor shielding of one of 4f-electron by another in the subshell.
2) Effective shielding of one of 4f-electrons by another in the subshell.
3) Poorer shielding of 5d electrons by 4f-electrons.
4) Greater shielding of 5d electrons by 4f-electrons.
143. The most common oxidation state of Lanthanoid elements is +3. Which of the following is likely to
deviate easily from +3 oxidation state?
1) Ce (At. No. 58) 2) La (At. No. 57) 3) Lu (At. No. 71) 4) Gd (At. No. 64)
144. The 'f orbitals are half and completely filled, respectively in lanthanide ions
[Given: Atomic number Eu: 63; Sm: 62; Tm : 69; Tb: 65; Yb: 70; Dy : 66]
1) E u2+ and Tm2+ 2) Sm2+ and Tm3+ 3) Tb4+ and Yb2+ 4) Dy3+ and Yb3+
145. The Eu2+ ion is strong reducing agent in spite of its ground state electronic configuration (outermost)
[Atomic number of Eu = 63 ]
1) 4 f 7 6s 2 2) 4 f 7 3) 4 f 6 6s 2 4) 4 f 6
146. The correct order of electronegativity for given elements is
1) P > Br > C > At 2) Br > C > At > P 3) Br > P > At > C 4) C > P > At > Br
147. The total number of acidic oxides from the following list is NO, N2O, B2O3 , N2O5 , CO, SO3 , P4O10
1) 3 2)4 3) 5 4) 6
148. The ionic radius of Na+ ion is 1.02 Å . The ionic radii (in Å ) of Mg2+ and Al3+ respectively are
1) 1.05 and 0.99 2) 0.68 and 0.72 3) 0.85 and 0.99 4) 0.72 and 0.54
149. The correct order of ionic radii for the ions, P3 , S 2 , Ca 2 , K  , Cl  is
1) P3- > S2- > Cl- > K+ > Ca2+ 2) P3- > S2- > Cl- > Ca2+ > K+
3) Cl- > S2- > P3- > Ca2+ > K+ 4) K+ > Ca2+ > P3- > S2- > Cl-
150. The first ionization enthalpy of Na, Mg and Si, respectively, are: 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol 1 . The first
ionization enthalpy (kJmol-1) of Al is
1) 487 2) 768 3) 577 4) 856
151. Strong reducing and oxidizing agents among the following, respectively, are
1) Ce4+ and Eu2+ 2) Eu2+ and Ce4+ 3) Ce3+ and Ce4+ 4) Ce4+ and Tb4+
152. Identify the element for which electronic configuration in +3 oxidation state is [ Ar ]3d 5
1) Ru 2) Mn 3) Co 4) Fe
153. The third ionization enthalpy is minimum for
1) Mn 2) Fe 3) Ni 4) Co
 
154. The product of oxidation of I with MnO4 in alkaline medium is
1) IO3- 2) I2 3) IO- 4) IO4-
155. The nature of oxides V2O3 and CrO is indexed as 'X' and 'Y' type respectively. The correct set of X and
Y is
1) X = acidic Y = acidic 2) X = basic Y = amphoteric
3) X = basic Y = basic 4) X = amphoteric Y = basic
156. Potassium permanganate on heating at 513 K gives a product which is
1) paramagnetic and colourless 2) diamagnetic and colourless
3) diamagnetic and green 4) paramagnetic and green.
157. In the structure of the dichromate ion, there is a
1) linear symmetrical Cr-O-Cr bond 2) non-linear unsymmetrical Cr - O - Cr bond
3) non-linear symmetrical Cr-O-Cr bond 4) linear unsymmetrical Cr-O-Cr bond.
158. The correct order of following 3d metal oxides, according to their oxidation numbers is
(A) CrO3 (B) Fe2O3 (C) MnO2 (D) V2O5 (E) Cu2O
1) A > C > D > B > E 2) D > A > B > C > E .
3) A > D > C > B > E 4) C > A > D > E > B
159. On treating a compound with warm dil. H2SO4 gas X is evolved which turns K2Cr2O7 paper acidified
with dil. H2SO4 to a green compound Y. X and Y respectively are
1) X = SO2 Y=Cr2 (SO4)3 2) X = SO2 Y = Cr2O3
3) X = SO3 Y=Cr2 (SO4)3 4) X= SO Y= CrO
160. The pair of lanthanides in which both elements have high third - ionization energy is
1) Eu, Yb 2) Lu, Yb 3) Dy, Gd 4) Eu, Gd
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+
161. Arrange Ce La Pm and Yb in increasing order of their ionic radii.
1) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+ 2) Ce3+ < Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+
3) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ 4) Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+
162. Most common oxidation states of Ce (cerium) are
1) +2, +3 2) +2, +4 3) +3, +4 4) +3, +5
163. Which is the correct order of atomic sizes? (At. Nos.: Ce = 58 Sn = 50 Yb = 70 and Lu = 71)
1) Ce > Sn > Yb > Lu 2) Sn > Ce > Lu > Yb
3) Lu > Yb > Sn > Ce 4) Sn > Yb > Ce > Lu
164. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that
1) Zr and Y have about the same radius 2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
3)Zr and Hf have about the same radius 4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
165. The highest possible oxidation states of uranium and plutonium, respectively, are
1) 6 and 7 2) 4 and 6 3) 6 and 4 4) 7 and 6
166. The correct electronic configuration and spin-only magnetic moment (BM) of Gd 3+ (Z = 64)
respectively, are
1)  Xe  4 f 7 and 8.9 2)  Xe  4 f 7 and 7.9 3)  Xe  5 f 7 and 8.9 4)  Xe 5 f 7 and 7.9
167. The lanthanide ion that would show colour is
1) Lu3+ 2) Sm3+ 3) La3+ 4) Gd3+
168. The total number of Mn = O bonds in Mn 2O7 is.
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 3
169. The reaction of H2O2 with potassium permanganate in acidic medium leads to the formation of mainly
1) Mn2+ 2) Mn4+ 3) Mn3+ 4) Mn6+
170. In neutral or alkaline solution, MnO4 oxidises thiosulphate to
1) S2O72- 2) S2O82- 3) SO32- 4) SO42-
171. In neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO 4 being a powerful oxidant can oxidize thiosulphate almost
quantitatively, to sulphate. In this reaction overall change in oxidation state of manganese will be
1) 5 2) 1 3) 0 4) 3
2+ 3+
172. In the given chemical reaction, colours of the Fe and Fe ions, are respectively
5 Fe 2  MnO4  8 H   Mn 2  4 H 2O  5 Fe3
1) Yellow, Green 2) Yellow, Orange 3) Green, Orange 4) Green, Yellow
173. The transition element that has lowest enthalpy of atomisation is
1) V 2)Zn 3) Fe 4) Cu
174. What is the correct order of the following elements with respect to their density?
1) Cr < Fe < Co < Cu < Zn 2)Zn < Cr < Fe < Co < Cu
3) Cr < Zn < Co < Cu < Fe 4) Zn < Cu < Co < Fe < Cr
175. The element that usually does not show variable oxidation states is
1) V 2) Ti 3) Cu 4) Sc
176. In the dichromate dianion,
1) 4 Cr-O bonds are equivalent 2) 6 Cr-O bonds are equivalent
3) all Cr-O bonds are equivalent 4) all Cr-O bonds are nonequivalent
st
177. The 71 electron of an element X with an atomic number of 71 enters into the orbital
1) 6p 2) 4f 3) 5d 4) 6s
178. The pair that has similar atomic radii is
1) Mn and Re 2) Ti and Hf 3) Sc and Ni 4) Mo and W.
179. The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the lanthonoid series of element by and large means
1) decrease in atomic radii and increase in ionic radii
2) increase in both atomic and ionic radii
3) increase in atomic radii and decrease in ionic radii
4) decrease in atomic and ionic radii
180. The outer electronic configuration of Gd (Atomic No: 64) is
1) 4 f 3 5d 5 6s 2 2) 4 f 8 5d 0 6s 2 3) 4 f 4 5d 4 6s 2 4) 4 f 7 5d 1 6s 2

MATHMATICS
1-10 3 1 3 2 2 4 3 4 3 2
11-20 3 2 2 2 2 4 1 3 1 4
21-30 4 1 3 3 2 2 2 3 2 1
31-40 1 4 2 2 2 4 4 2 3 3
41-50 1 3 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 2
51-60 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 2 3

PHYSICS
61-70 2 3 4 1 4 2 1 1 3 3
71-80 2 4 2 2 2 1 4 2 2 2
81-90 2 3 1 3 4 4 2 2 1 1
91-100 2 4 1 2 1 3 2 2 1 3
101-110 4 3 3 4 1 4 3 1 4 4
111-120 4 4 3 4 4 2 1 3 4 1

CHEMISTRY
121-130 4 4 4 3 4 3 2 2 4 2
131-140 3 3 3 2 4 2 2 4 1 2
141-150 1 1 1 3 2 2 2 4 1 3
151-160 2 4 2 1 3 4 3 3 1 1
161-170 1 3 1 3 1 2 2 3 1 4
171-180 4 4 2 2 4 2 3 4 4 4