PHYSICS

0625/22
PAST YEARS
COMPILATION
(2018 - 2022)
 EDITORS

NORHAYATI MAADOM
MOHAMMAD RAHIMY FITRY BIN ISMAIL
RAUDHAH NUR EVANA BINTI EDWIN
ANIS ZAFIRAH BINTI ABDUL RAHMAN
FAKHRUL RIFDI BIN OMAR
MOHD ZAKI BIN BAADDUL
UMAR FAROUQ BIN WISAM
AMI ADEELA BT. A RAHMAN
NUR ANIS SYAZWANI BINTI MOHD DIN
HAFIZUDDIN BIN IDRIS
MOHAMAD SYAFIQ BIN MOHAMAD SULAIMAN
NURUL FADHILAH BINTI ALIAS
SITI NUR SHAFIQA BINTI ABDUL RAHIM
YUSRAN BIN ABDUL AZIZ
JASLI AYU HUMAIRA BT SALIM
AZNAM BIN REMILI
 MOTION,
FORCES AND
ENERGY
MOTION FORCES AND ENERGY

SPECIMEN PAPER 2023

1. A length of string is measured between two points on a ruler.

When the length of string is wound closely around a pen, it goes round six
times.
pen six turns of string

What is the distance once round the pen?

A 2.2 cm B 2.6 cm C 13.2 cm D 15.6 cm A

2. When does an object falling vertically through the air reach terminal velocity?
A when the acceleration of the object becomes negative
B when the acceleration of the object is equal to g
C when the air resistance equals the weight of the object
D when the air resistance is greater than the weight of the object C

3. An athlete runs a 100 m race in a straight line. The table shows how his speed
changes with time for the first 5.0 s of the race.

speed m / s 0 1.7 4.1 5.7 6.5 6.8

time / s 0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0

What is the average acceleration of the athlete between time 2.0 s and time
3.0 s?

A 1.6 m / s2
B 1.9 m / s2
C 4.9 m / s2
D 5.7 m / s2 A
4. The gravitational field strength on the Moon is 1.6 N / kg.
An astronaut has a mass of 75 kg.
What is the weight of the astronaut on the Moon?
A 47 N B 75 N C 120 N D 740 N C

5. Two objects P and Q are placed in a beaker containing a liquid.

Object P floats in the liquid and object Q sinks.
Which row for the densities of object P, object Q and the liquid is possible?

density of object P density of object Q density of liquid

g / cm 3 g / cm 3 g / cm 3

A 1.2 0.6 0.8

B 1.2 1.4 1.0
C 11.3 8.9 13.6
D 11.3 19.3 13.6
D

6. A ball of mass 0.12 kg is hit by a tennis player.

The velocity of the ball changes from 0 m / s to 5.0 m / s in 0.60 s.
What is the average resultant force acting on the ball while it is being hit?
A 1.0 N B 2.5 N C 3.6 N D 8.3 N A

7. A balloon and a mass are attached to a rod that is pivoted at a fixed point P.

The balloon is filled with helium, which is a gas that is less dense than air.
The balloon filled with helium applies an upward force on the rod.
 The rod is horizontal and in equilibrium.
Which action causes the rod to rotate clockwise?
A moving the balloon to the 40 cm mark and the mass to the 30 cm mark
B moving the balloon to the 20 cm mark and the mass to the 10 cm mark
C moving the balloon to the 25 cm mark and the mass to the 25 cm mark
D moving the balloon to the 20 cm mark and the mass to the 30 cm mark B

8. A hole is made in a square tile of uniform thickness. The diagram shows the
tile hanging loosely on a nail.
Where is the centre of gravity of the tile?

A
nail through hole

tile
D

9. An object of mass 0.16 kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s.

A second object of mass 0.10 kg is at rest.
The first object strikes the second object.
After the collision, the second object moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m /s.
What is the speed of the first object after the collision?
A 0.0 m/s B 0.19 m/s C 0.31 m/s D 0.50 m/s B

10. A ball is at rest at the top of a hill.

The ball rolls down the hill.
At the bottom of the hill the ball hits a wall and stops.
Which energy changes occur?
A gravitational potential energy → internal energy → kinetic energy
B gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → internal energy
C kinetic energy → gravitational potential energy → internal energy
D kinetic energy → internal energy → gravitational potential energy B
11. A man climbs a ladder.
Which quantities can be used to calculate the useful power of the man?
A the weight of the man and the time taken only
B the weight of the man and the vertical distance moved only
C the work done by the man and the time taken only
D the work done by the man and the vertical distance moved only C

12. A student uses her thumb to push a drawing pin (thumb tack) into a notice
board.
The pin goes into the board but does not penetrate her thumb.
Which statement explains this?
A The force exerted by the pin on her thumb is greater than the force
exerted by the pin on the notice board.
B The force exerted by the pin on the notice board is greater than the
force exerted by the pin on her thumb.
C The pressure of the pin on her thumb is greater than the pressure of
the pin on the notice board.
D The pressure of the pin on the notice board is greater than the D
pressure of the pin on her thumb.

13 A submarine is a boat that can travel below the surface of the sea.
A submarine is 20 m below the surface of the sea. The pressure due to the
sea water at this depth is P.
On another day, the submarine is 26 m below the surface of fresh water.
The density of sea water is 1.3 times the density of fresh water.
What is the pressure due to the fresh water at a depth of 26 m?
A P / 1.3 B P C 1.3 P D 1.7 P B
W2022/0625/22

1 Which measuring devices are most suitable to determine the volume of about
200 ml of liquid and the diameter of a thin wire?

volume of about
200 ml of liquid diameter of a thin wire

A measuring cylinder micrometer screw

gauge
B measuring cylinder ruler

C ruler measuring cylinder

D ruler micrometer screw

gauge

2 The diagrams show speed–time graphs for four different bodies moving for
6.0 s.

Which body travelled the least distance?

A B
8.0 8.0
speed speed
m/s m/s
6.0 6.0

4.0 4.0

2.0 2.0

0 0
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 0 2.0 4.0 6.0
time / s time / s

C D
8.0 8.0
speed speed
m/s m/s
6.0 6.0

4.0 4.0

2.0 2.0

0 0
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 0 2.0 4.0 6.0
time / s time / s
3 Which statement describes the relationship between mass and weight?

A Mass is the effect of a gravitational field on a weight.

B Mass is the effect of a magnetic field on a weight.
C Weight is the effect of a gravitational field on a mass.
D Weight is the effect of a magnetic field on a mass.

4 The diagram shows four pieces of laboratory apparatus.

Which pieces of apparatus are used to find the density of a liquid?

A balance and stop-watch
B balance and measuring cylinder
C measuring cylinder and ruler
D stop-watch and ruler

5 The diagram shows a metre rule MN on two supports, P and Q.

Two loads are placed on the rule, as shown.

The rule rests steadily on the supports.

 Which row is correct?

total moment about M total moment about N

A is clockwise is anticlockwise

B is clockwise is zero
C is zero is clockwise
D is zero is zero

6 The diagram shows an object moving at a constant speed in a circular path

in the direction shown.

A force acts on the object to keep it in the circular path.

In which labelled direction does this force act, when the object is in the
position shown?

A
object

B D

C path of
object

7 A trolley of mass 4.0 kg travelling with a velocity of 4.0 m / s collides with a

trolley of mass 2.0 kg travelling with a velocity of 2.0 m / s in the same
direction. After the collision, the velocity of the 4.0 kg trolley is reduced to 3.0
m / s.

4.0 m / s 2.0 m / s 3.0 m / s v

4.0 kg 2.0 kg 4.0 kg 2.0 kg

before collision after collision

 What is the velocity v of the 2.0 kg trolley after the collision?

A 0.25 m / s
B 4.0 m / s
C 5.0 m / s
D 16 m / s

8 An object falls towards the Earth’s surface.

What happens to the gravitational potential energy and to the kinetic energy
of the object?

gravitational potential energy

kinetic energy

A decreases decreases

B decreases increases

C increases decreases

D increases increases

9 A boy takes 0.60 s to lift a book of mass 0.60 kg from the top of a desk and
place it on a shelf. The top of the desk is 0.80 m above the floor, and the
shelf is 1.7 m above the floor. The gravitational field strength is 10 N / kg.

shelf

top of desk
1.7 m

0.8 m

Which power does the boy develop?

A 0.9 W
B 1.7 W
C 9.0 W
D 17 W
10 A mass is lifted from rest on the ground to Y. There is no air resistance.

P is the increase in gravitational energy of the mass.

Q is the kinetic energy of the mass at Y.
Which expression is equal to the mechanical work done on the mass?

AP+Q
BP–Q
CQ–P
DP×Q
11 The diagram shows a tank containing sea water.

sea water

tank 8.0
NOT TO SCALE
P
60

The density of the sea water is 1020 kg / m3.

What is the pressure at point P relative to atmospheric pressure?

A 7400 Pa above atmospheric pressure

B 7500 Pa above atmospheric pressure
C 75 000 Pa above atmospheric pressure
D 82 000 Pa above atmospheric pressure

W2021/0625/22
1. A student is taking some measurements.
Which measurement is taken directly using a micrometer screw gauge?
A 0.52 g / mm2
B 0.52 g / mm3
C 0.52 mm C
D 0.52 mm2
2. Which graph represents an object that is moving at constant speed?
A B D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

3. In which situation does object X have a greater mass than object Y?

A Object X is in a larger gravitational field than object Y and both have
the same weight.
B Object X shows a greater resistance to change in motion than object Y B
and both experience the same resultant force.
C Object X has a lower density than object Y and both occupy the same
volume.
D Object X moves at a greater speed than object Y and both possess the
same kinetic energy.
4. Which substance in the table has the lowest density?

substance mass / g volume / cm3

A nylon 1.2 1.0

B cotton 1.5 1.0

C olive oil 1.8 2.0

C
D water 2.0 2.0

5. Three simple machines are shown.

screwing a screw
moving soil with cutting string
with a
a wheelbarrow with scissors
screwdriver
Which machines are an application of the moment of a force?
A 1, 2 and 3 A
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only

6. A spring, which obeys Hooke’s law, has an unstretched length of 10 cm.

A load of 20 N is suspended from the spring.
The new length of the spring is 36 cm.
What is the spring constant k of the spring?

A 0.56 N / cm B 0.77 N / cm C 1.3 N / cm D 1.8 N / cm B

7. A rocket is launched upwards from the surface of the Moon.
Hot gases are ejected downwards over a very short period of time.
Which statement is not correct?
A The rocket experiences a downward force.
B The rocket experiences an upward force.
C The total momentum of the hot gases is equal to the momentum of the C
rocket.
D The total momentum of the hot gases and rocket when the hot gases
have been ejected is zero.

8. Electrical energy may be obtained from nuclear fission.

In which order is the energy transferred in this process?
A nuclear fuel  generator  reactor and boiler  turbines
B nuclear fuel  generator  turbines  reactor and boiler
C nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  generator  turbines
D nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  turbines  generator D

9. A box of mass m slides down a slope of length l against a frictional force

F. It descends a vertical height d.
direction
of motion
F
A
l
mass m
d

stop

As the box slides down the slope, it loses gravitational potential energy and
it does work against the friction.
Which row gives the loss in gravitational potential energy and the work
done against friction?

loss in gravitational potential energy work done against friction

A mgd Fl
B mgd Fd
C mgl Fl
D mgl Fd
10 A rope, connected to a pulley system and motor, is used to lift different A
objects through different distances. The time taken to lift each object is the
same. The diagrams are not to scale.
Which motor requires the greatest power?

A B

platform motor platform

motor

2m
3m

10 kg
5 kg

C D

platform motor platform

motor

1m 3m

2 kg
10 kg

11 Which equation can be used to calculate the pressure at a depth h beneath C

the surface of a liquid?
W2020/0625/22
1. The diagram shows a measuring device.

For which measurement is this device suitable?

A diameter of a cylinder of aluminium of about 20 cm

B distance between two molecules of zinc
C length of a rod of iron of about 1 m
D thickness of a sheet of copper of about 1.5 mm D

2. The graph shows how the speed of an object varies with time.

speed

0
P Q time
Which row describes the motion of the object at times P and Q?
P Q

A at rest accelerating

B at rest decelerating

C moving with constant speed accelerating C

D moving with constant speed decelerating

3. A concrete block falls vertically from an aeroplane.
The concrete block falls into the sea and sinks.
Which graph shows the vertical motion of the concrete block?

4. Which quantity is weight an example of?

A acceleration B
B Force
C Mass
D Pressure

5. Which statement about the mass of an object is correct?

A It changes when the object is lifted further from the ground.

B It is the gravitational force on the object.
C It is zero if the object is in orbit around the Earth.
D It resists any change in motion of the object. D
6. A rectangular metal block is 20 cm long.
The cross-sectional area of the block is 25 cm2.
The mass of the block is 4000 g.
What is the density of the metal?

A 0.13 g / cm3
B 0.32 g / cm3
C 8.0 g / cm3
D 2000 g / cm3 C

7. The diagram shows a beam lying on the ground. End Q is lifted from the
ground by the force F.

End P of the beam remains on the ground.

3.0 m

1.0 m F

P Q
G
ground
beam
The length of the beam is 3.0 m and its weight is 600 N.

The centre of mass of the beam at G is 1.0 m from end P.

What is the size of the force F when it just raises end Q from the ground?

A 200 N B 300 N C 400 N D 600 N

A

8. The diagram shows a stand. The stand holds a heavy mass above the
bench.

heavy mass

stand

bench
base
 Which two changes would definitely make the stand more stable?

A Lower the mass and make the base narrower.

B Lower the mass and make the base wider. B
C Raise the mass and make the base narrower.
D Raise the mass and make the base wider.

9. A footballer kicks a stationary football.

His foot is in contact with the ball for 0.050 s.
The mass of the ball is 0.40 kg.
The speed of projection of the ball is 25 m / s.

What is the average force exerted on the ball by his foot?

A 0.32 N B 0.50 N C 200 N D 1300 N

10. A woman of mass 50 kg has 81 J of kinetic energy.

What is her speed?

A 1.3 m / s B 1.6 m / s C 1.8 m / s D 3.2 m / s

C

11. What is the source of the Sun’s energy?

A chemical reactions in the Sun’s core

B -emissions in the Sun’s core
C nuclear fission in the Sun’s core
D nuclear fusion in the Sun’s core
D
12 To calculate the power produced by a force, the size of the force must be
known.
A
What else needs to be known to calculate the power?
13. A research submarine is at a depth of 10 000 m below the surface of the
sea.

The average density of the water above the submarine is 1030 kg / m3.

The atmospheric pressure at the surface of the sea is 103 000 Pa.

How many times greater is the pressure due to the sea water than the
atmospheric pressure?

A 10 B 100 C 1000 D 100 000 C

W2019/0625/22
1 A student measures the dimensions of a cylindrical glass beaker.

For which measurement should she use a micrometer screw gauge?

A circumference of the beaker

B diameter of the beaker
C height of the beaker
D thickness of the glass wall of the beaker D

2 The graph shows how the speed of a car varies during part of a journey.

What is the acceleration of the car between 6.0 s and 10.0 s?

A 0.50 m / s2 B 0.80 m / s2 C 1.25 m / s2 D 1.50 m / s2 C

3 A car travels at an average speed of 60 km / h for 15 minutes.
How far does the car travel in 15 minutes?

A 4.0 km B 15 km C 240 km D900 km B

4 A box is placed on the ground. An upward force of 15 N is needed to lift the

box at constant speed.

Which row correctly describes the box?

mass of the box weight of the box

A 1.5 kg 15 N
A
B 15 N 1.5 kg
C 15 N 150 kg
D 150 kg 15 N

5 The table gives the mass and the volume of three objects P, Q and R.

object mass / g volume /

cm3
P 23 36
Q 170 720
R 240 340

Which objects can float in a liquid of density 0.85 g / cm3?

A P and Q only D
B P and R only
C Q and R only
D P, Q and R
6 A hook is used to lift a metal plate, as shown
 An upward force of 100 N is needed to lift the metal plate about the
pivot, as shown. What is the weight W of the metal plate?

A 80 N B 100 N C 180 N D 225 N C

7 What is the unit of the moment of a force?

D
A N B N / kg C N/m D Nm

8 A ship travels due North through still water at a speed of 20 m / s.

It enters a channel where there is a current in the water from West to East.
The speed of the current is 20 m / s.

Which diagram shows the resultant velocity v of the ship?

C
9 A ball is at rest on the ground. A boy kicks the ball. The boy’s boot is in
contact with the ball for 0.040 s.
The average force on the ball is 200 N. The ball leaves the boy’s boot with a

speed of 20 m / s. Which row gives the impulse of the boot on the ball and the

average acceleration of the ball?

10 An object P of mass 80 g collides with another object Q of mass 40 g.

After the collision, P and Q stick together and then travel

on together. Before the collision, P is travelling at a
speed of 6.0 m / s and Q is at rest. What is the speed of P
and Q after the collision?

A 2.0 m / s B 3.0 m / s C 4.0 m / s D 6.0 m / s C

11 Brakes are used to slow down a moving car.

Into which form of energy is most of the kinetic energy converted as the car
slows down?

A chemical
B elastic
C thermal
C
D sound
12 A box of mass 8.0 kg is lifted from the ground and placed on a shelf. The box
gains 100 J of potential energy.

The box falls off the shelf. Air resistance can be ignored. At what speed does
the box hit the ground?

A 3.5 m / s B 5.0 m / s C 25 m / s D 28 m / s B

13 A car is moving along a straight horizontal road. The car has 1.6 MJ of kinetic
energy. The car accelerates for 20 s until the kinetic energy of the car
increases to 2.5 MJ.

What is the minimum average power developed by the car engine for this
acceleration?

A 45 W B 205 W C 45 kW D 205 kW C

W2018/0625/22

1 The diagram shows part of a micrometer screw gauge.

What is the smallest reading that can be achieved using this micrometer
screw gauge?

B
A 0.0001 mm B 0.01 mm C 0.1 mm D 1 mm

2 The speed-time graph shows the motion of a car.

At which time is its acceleration greatest?

B
3 An athlete runs at a speed of 8 m / s for 10 s, and then at a speed of 6 m / s for 12 s.
Which calculation gives the average speed of the athlete in m / s?

4 A helium balloon is tied to a top-pan balance. A metal block of mass 100 g is

placed on the balance. The reading on the balance is 91 g.

Which statement can be deduced from this experiment?

A The balloon exerts a downward force of 0.09 N on the top-pan balance.
B The helium has a mass of –9 g.
C The helium has a mass of +9 g.
D The resultant downward force on the top-pan balance is 0.91 N.
5 The diagram shows four blocks of different metals. Each block has a mass of 12 g.
Which metal has the largest density?

6 The graph shows how the length of a spring changes when the stretching force
is increased.

In the Hooke’s law region, what is the spring constant for this spring?

A 0.20 N / cm B 0.22 N / cm C 0.28 N / cm D 0.33 N / cm

D
7 Point X is the centre of mass of a lamina in the shape of a triangle with sides of
equal length. The top of the triangle is cut off along the dotted line shown.

What happens to the centre of mass, X?

A moves towards the bottom of the page A

B moves to the left
C moves to the right
D moves towards the top of the page

8 An object of mass 3.0 kg, travelling at a speed of 6.0 m / s, collides with an

object of mass 2.0 kg, travelling in the opposite direction at a speed of 2.0 m / s.

The objects stick together during the collision. `What is the speed and direction
of the combined mass after the collision?

9 Which device is designed to convert chemical energy into kinetic energy?

A an a.c. generator
B a battery-powered torch
C a car engine
D a wind-up mechanical clock
C
10 The diagram shows a pendulum.

The pendulum swings from P to Q to R and back to P.

P is 10cm higher than Q. At which speed does the pendulum bob pass through
Q?

A 0.44 m / s B 1.0 m / s C 1.4 m / s D 2.0 m / s C

11 A crane on a building site lifts bricks of total mass 200 kg, initially at rest
on the ground, with uniform acceleration.
When the bricks are 5.0 m from the ground, they
have a speed of 5.0 m / s. How much work is done
during this process?

A 2.5 kJ B 10.0 kJ C 12.5 kJ D 35 kJ C

THERMAL
PHYSICS
THERMAL PHYSICS

SPECIMEN PAPER 2023

1. When particles of a gas collide with a wall of a container, the wall experiences a
pressure.

What is the cause of this pressure?

A the change in energy of the particles

B the change in momentum of the particles
C the change in power of the particles
D the change in speed of the particles B

2. A substance can exist in three different states: solid, liquid or gas.

Each of the two statements below describes a change of state.

change 1: Particles move much closer together but continue to travel throughout the
substance.

change 2: Particles stop travelling throughout the substance and just vibrate about
fixed positions.

Which changes of state do these statements describe?

change 1 change 2
A condensation melting
B condensation solidification
C solidification condensation
D solidification melting B

3. Copper is a type of metal.

A block of copper has a mass of 2.0 kg.

The block of copper absorbs 12 000 J of thermal energy.
The specific heat capacity of copper is 385 J / (kg °C).

What is the temperature rise of the copper?

A 15.6 °C
B 31.2 °C
C 46.8 °C
D 62.4 °C A
4. The diagram shows the gap between a hot surface and a cold surface. The gap can
contain air (gas), iron (solid), a vacuum or water (liquid).

cold

gap

hot
 Which material in the gap allows the quickest transfer of thermal energy between the
surfaces by conduction?

A air (gas)
B iron (solid)
C vacuum
D water (liquid) B

5. Which row about boiling and about evaporation is correct?

boiling evaporation
A takes place only at the surface takes place only at the surface
B takes place only at the surface takes place throughout the liquid
C takes place throughout the liquid takes place only at the surface
D takes place throughout the liquid takes place throughout the liquid C

W2022/0625/22
1 Wet clothes are hanging outside to dry.

wind speed temperature

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low A

2 Which change in the design of a liquid-in-glass thermometer makes it more sensitive?

A a larger liquid reservoir

B a longer tube
C a smaller liquid reservoir
D a wider tube A

3 A scientist is determining the specific latent heat of vaporisation of a liquid.

He puts the liquid in a vacuum flask and heats it with a 100 W heater. The mass of liquid
in the vacuum flask when it starts to boil is 300 g. He continues to heat the liquid for a
further 12 minutes after which the mass of the remaining liquid is 100 g.

What is the specific latent heat of vaporisation of the liquid?

(Assume that all the thermal energy from the heater is used to vaporise the liquid.)

A 6000 J / kg
B 240 000 J / kg
C 360 000 J / g
D 360 000 J / kg D
W2021/0625/22
1 A liquid is evaporating. The liquid is not boiling. Which statement about the liquid is
correct at an instant in time?
A Any molecule can escape, and from any part of the liquid.
B Any molecule can escape, but only from the liquid’s surface.
C Only molecules with enough energy can escape, and only from the liquid’s
surface.
D Only molecules with enough energy can escape, but from any part of the C
liquid.

2 A gas is contained in a sealed container in a laboratory. The temperature of the gas

increases. What happens to the average speed and what happens to the total kinetic
energy of the gas molecules?
average speed total kine c energy

A does not change does not change

B does not change increases

C increases does not change

D increases increases

3 An aluminium block has a mass of 200 g. The specific heat capacity of aluminium is
900 J /(kg C). How much energy is needed to increase the temperature of the block
from 20 C to 110 C?

A 2.0 J
B 2000 J
C 16 200 J
D 16 200 000 J C
4 The diagram shows the apparatus used to measure the specific latent heat of
vaporisation of water.

2 kW heater
water

After the water begins to boil, 110 g of water is converted to steam in 120 s. Using
these results, what is the value of the specific latent heat of vaporisation of water?
A 1.8 J / kg
B 1800 J / kg
C 2200 J / g
D 2 200 000 J / kg D
5 The diagram shows a pan used for cooking food.
handle of pan

base of pan
Which row is correct for the materials used to make the base and the handle of the
pan?

base of pan handle of pan

A good thermal conductor good thermal conductor

B good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

C poor thermal conductor good thermal conductor

D poor thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

B

W2020/0625/22
1 A student splashes water on to her face. Here are three statements about the effects.

P The water uses energy to evaporate.

Q The water gains energy from the student.

R R The face of the student cools.

Which statements are correct?

A P and Q only
B P and R only
C Q and R only
D P, Q and R
D
2 A bimetallic strip is used to control the temperature of electrical appliances. It is made
of two different metals fixed together.

The diagram shows the shape of the bimetallic strip before and after heating.

Which statement is correct?

A Metal P contracts more than metal Q on heating.
B Metal Q contracts more than metal P on heating
C Metal P expands more than metal Q on heating.
D Metal Q expands more than metal P on heating.
C

3 A student writes three statements about thermocouples.

1 They have a small thermal capacity.

2 They respond very slowly to temperature changes.
3 They can m Which statements are correct?

Measure temperatures above 500 C. Which statements are correct?

A 1 only
B 2 only
C 1 and 3
D 2 and 3
C
4 Four blocks are made from different metals. Each block is heated for five minutes
with an identical heater.

Assume there is no energy loss from the blocks.

The table gives the masses of the blocks and the temperature rises.

Which metal has the highest specific heat capacity?

mass of block / kg temperature rise /

C
A 2.0 5.0
B 2.0 9.0
C 4.0 5.0
D 4.0 9.0
A
5 A scientist measures the air temperature at different heights from the floor in a cave.
The results are recorded in the table.

Why does altering the height affect the temperature of the air?

A The molecules in warm air have less energy than the molecules in cool air.
B The molecules in cool air are further apart than the molecules in warm air.
C Warm air is less dense than cool air.
D Cool air rises above warm air.
C
6 Four solid spheres made of the same metal are heated to the same temperature.
Which sphere initially loses thermal energy by radiation at the greatest rate?
A diameter of 10 cm with a dull surface
B diameter of 10 cm with a shiny surface
C diameter of 5 cm with a dull surface
D diameter of 5 cm with a shiny surface
A
W2019/0625/22
1 Which row describes the arrangement and the motion of the molecules in a gas?
arrangement motion

A far apart move freely

B far apart vibrate only

C tightly packed move freely

D tightly packed vibrate only

A
2 A bubble of air of volume 3.0 mm3 is under water. The bubble is at a depth where the
pressure of the air inside the bubble is four times atmospheric pressure. The
temperature of the air in the bubble stays the same as it rises to the surface. What is
the volume of the air in the bubble as it reaches the surface?
A 3.0 mm3
B 9.0 mm3
C 12 mm3
D 15 mm3 C
3 The same quantity of thermal energy is supplied to each of four blocks. Each block is
made from a different material. Which block has the greatest thermal capacity?
A

Temperature increase is 1 °C
B

Temperature increase is 4 °C
C

Temperature increase is 2 °C
D A

Temperature increase is 3 °C
4 A liquid turn into a gas. This occurs only at one particular temperature, and the change
happens throughout the liquid. What is this process called?

A boiling
B condensation
C evaporation
D fusion A
5 In a cold country, a bicycle has been left outside all night. The cyclist finds the plastic
hand grips feel less cold to the touch than the steel handlebars.
Which row correctly describes the temperature and the property of the two materials?

the temperature of the two the property of the two materials

materials
A the temperature of the steel the plastic is a better thermal
is conductor than the steel
much lower than that of the
plastic
B the temperature of the steel the steel is a better thermal
is conductor than the plastic
much lower than that of the
plastic
C the steel and the plastic are the plastic is a better thermal
both at the same conductor than the steel
temperature
D the steel and the plastic are the steel is a better thermal
both at the same conductor than the plastic
temperature
D

6 The diagram shows a tent made from a new material.

new material

What type of material should the tent be made of to reflect the radiant energy from the
Sun?
material material
texture surface colour

A dull black

B dull white

C shiny black

D shiny white
D
W2018/0625/22
1 Diagram 1 shows apparatus being used to observe smoke particles.
Diagram 2 shows how a smoke particle moves randomly.

Why do the smoke particles move randomly?

A They are hit by air molecules.
B They are less dense than air.
C They are moved by convection currents.
D They gain energy from the light.
2 A closed container of gas is heated. The pressure of the gas increases.

Which statement explains this increase in pressure?

The changes in the momentum of the gas molecules striking the walls of
A
the container increase.
The forces of attraction between the gas molecules and the walls of the
B
container increase.
C The gas molecules collide with each other more frequently.
The gas molecules lose more energy when they strike the walls of the
D
container.
A
3 The metal lid on a glass jar is difficult to unscrew.

The jar is placed in a warm oven until the jar and the lid reach the same temperature.
The lid is now easily unscrewed.

Which property accounts for this?

A thermal capacity of the jar

B thermal capacity of the lid
C thermal conduction
D thermal expansion
D
4 A block of iron of mass M is heated and gains 10 kJ of internal energy. The
temperature of the block rises by θ oC.

A second block of iron of mass 2M is heated and gains 5.0 kJ of internal energy.

What is the temperature rise of the second block in oC?

θ
A
4
θ
B
2
C 2θ
D 4θ
A
5 Which factors affect the sensitivity of a thermometer?

1 the diameter of the bore of the tube

2 the length of the capillary tube
3 the thickness of the bulb wall

A 1 only
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1,2 and 3 only
A
6 Which statement about convection is not correct?

A It occurs because the density of a fluid decreases when it is heated.

B It enables water in a pan on a cooker to get evenly heated.
C It happens in liquids and gases.
D It means that heat rises.
C
7 A lamp has a metal filament that glows when heated by an electric current.

The middle of the filament is at a very high temperature. The ends of the filament,
which are connected to the base of the lamp, are cooler.

Which statement is correct?

A Some thermal energy is conducted to the base of the lamp.

B The filament radiates energy equally at all points along its length.
C The lamp transfers all of the electrical energy it receives into light energy.
D When the voltage across the filament is halved, the power output is halved.
 WAVES
(INCLUDING
LIGHT)
3.0 WAVES

SPECIMEN PAPER 2023

19 Light travels at a speed of 2.0 × 108 m / s in a glass block.
In the glass, the wavelength of the light is 4.0 × 10–7 m.
What is the frequency of the light?
A 2.0 × 10–15 Hz
B 1.3 × 10–2 Hz
C 80 Hz
D 5.0 × 1014 Hz
20 In a shallow tank, a water wave moves through a barrier with a narrow gap.
The diagram shows the waves on the left-hand side and the right-hand side of the
barrier.

water
wave

Which term describes the effect shown?

A reflection
B dispersion
C refraction
D diffraction

21 Which statement describes monochromatic light?

A light that never diffracts
B light that has a single frequency
C light that spreads out when shone through a glass prism
D light that travels at the same speed in all materials

22 An object is placed 8.0 cm from a thin converging lens of focal length 5.0 cm.

converging lens
object
F

5.0 cm
8.0 cm

Which statement about the image formed by the lens is correct?

A The image is real and inverted.
B The image is real and upright.
C The image is virtual and inverted.
D The image is virtual and upright.
23 A ray of light travels through transparent plastic to air.

transparent plastic air NOT TO

SCALE

The ray of light enters the air travelling parallel to the surface of the plastic.
The refractive index of the plastic is 1.25.
What is angle θ ?

A 37°
B 39°
C 51°
D 53°

24 What is the speed of electromagnetic waves in a vacuum?

A 3.0 × 104 cm / s
B 3.0 × 105 km / s
C 3.0 × 106 cm / s
D 3.0 × 1011 km / s

25 A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the
water and is reflected from the sea bed. The sound reaches the boat again after 1.3
s.
The sea bed is 1000 m below the boat.
Using this information, what is the speed of sound in the water?

1000 m
sea bed

A 770 m / s
B 1300 m / s
C 1500 m / s
D 2600 m / s
26 A sheet of ice floats on water. A source of sound S is positioned at the edge of the
ice sheet.
Four microphones are placed equal distances from S.

Which microphone detects the sound from S first?

A
air

B
D S

ice
water

A 3.0 × 104 cm / s
B 3.0 × 105 km / s
C 3.0 × 106 cm / s
D 3.0 × 1011 km / s

W2022/0625/22
16 Which piece of equipment is designed to produce a type of electromagnetic wave?
A electric fire
B electric generator
C electric motor
D electromagnet
17 A sound wave travels from air into water.
Which row describes what happens to the frequency and the wavelength of the
wave?

frequency wavelength

A decreases increases

B decreases stays the same

C stays the same decreases

D stays the same increases

18 The diagram shows plane water waves in a ripple tank passing through a gap
between two barriers and spreading out.

barrier

plane
water
waves

barrier

Which name is given to this effect?

A diffraction
B reflection
C refraction
D total internal reflection

19 A ray of light travels from air into a material, as shown.

40 air
material

27

What is the refractive index of the material?

A 1.4
B 1.5
C 1.7
D 1.9
20 The diagram shows an object in front of a plane mirror.
At which labelled position is the image of the object formed?

21 The angle between an incident ray and the surface of a plane mirror reflecting the ray
is 70°. What is the angle of incidence?

A 20°
B 40°
C 70°
D 140°

22 The diagram shows the air molecules in part of a sound wave at a particular
moment in time.

Which statement is not correct?

A Earlier, there was compression at X.

B Later, there will be a rarefaction at X.
C This part of the wave is travelling horizontally across the page.
D This part of the wave is travelling towards the top of the page.

23 An object is reflected in a plane mirror.

Which description of the image is correct?
A diminished and real
B enlarged and virtual
C same size and real
D same size and virtual
W2021/0625/22
17 The diagram shows the pattern of water waves as they pass through a narrow gap.

narrow gap
between two barriers

Which row names the process shown and describes the effect of using a wider
gap?

name of process wider gap

A refraction waves spread out less

B refraction waves spread out more

C diffraction waves spread out less

D diffraction waves spread out more

18 Which row is not correct for a wave on the surface of water?

quantity usual unit

A amplitude m

B frequency Hz

C wavelength λ

D speed m/s

19 The diagram shows how a ray of light refracts when going from air to Perspex.

air w
Perspex y
z
 The critical angle of Perspex is c.

Which expression is correct?

A sin 𝑥
sin 𝑐
sin 𝑧

B sin 𝑧
sin 𝑐
sin 𝑥

C sin 𝑤
sin 𝑐
sin 𝑦

D sin 𝑦
sin 𝑐
sin 𝑤

20 The diagram shows a ray of light in air incident on a glass block. Some of the light is
refracted and some of the light is reflected. Two angles, p and q, are marked on the
diagram.

ray of
light
q
air p

glass

Which row gives the angle of incidence and states whether total internal reflection
occurs?

angle of total internal

incidence reflection

A p no
B p yes

C q no

D q yes
21 The letter F is reflected in a mirror.

Mirror

What does the optical image look like?

A B C D

22 The Sun emits infrared radiation and light.

Light from the Sun reaches the Earth in 8 minutes

Which row gives correct information about the infrared radiation?

wavelength of time taken for infrared

infrared radiation radiation to reach the Earth

A longer than wavelength of light 8 minutes

B longer than wavelength of light much less than 8 minutes

C shorter than wavelength of light 8 minutes

D shorter than wavelength of light much more than 8 minutes

23 Which statement about electromagnetic waves is not correct?

A They travel at 3 x 108 m / s in a vacuum.

B They transfer energy.
C They travel at 340 m / s in air.
D They are transverse waves.

24 What is ultrasound?
A sound waves that are so loud that they damage human hearing
B sound waves that are too high-pitched for humans to hear
C sound waves that are too low-pitched for humans to hear
D sound waves that are too quiet for humans to hear
W2020/0625/22
21 Which row correctly describes light waves?

wave type direction of vibrations

A longitudinal parallel to direction of wave travel

B longitudinal perpendicular to direction of wave travel

C transverse parallel to direction of wave travel

D transverse perpendicular to direction of wave travel

22 A radio transmitter broadcasts at a frequency of 200 kHz.

What is the wavelength of these radio waves?

A 6.7 × 10–4 m
B 1.5 m
C 1.5 × 103 m
D 1.5 × 106 m

23 An optical lever is a very sensitive device for detecting small rotations. A lamp sends
a narrow beam of light on to a small plane mirror attached to a shaft whose rotation
is to be measured. The operation of the device is shown in plan view.

The beam from the lamp reflects from the mirror to give a small spot of light on a
scale placed just above the lamp. The shaft and mirror rotate through 1o. The spot
of light moves along the scale.
The table shows the angle θ through which the reflected beam rotates and the
conditions required for high sensitivity.

Which row is correct?

angle θ to achieve high sensitivity

o
A 1 the lamp and scale need to be as close to
the mirror as possible
B 1o the lamp and scale need to be
as far from the mirror as possible
C 2o the lamp and scale need to be as close to
the mirror as possible
D 2o the lamp and scale need to be as far from
the mirror as possible
24 A student draws a diagram to illustrate the different sections of a longitudinal wave.

Which labelled section is a rarefaction?

A B D

25 The diagram shows white light passing through a prism.

red
violet
white
light

Which description of what happens as the light passes into the prism is correct?

A The speed of the red light is less than the speed of the violet light and
the red light is the least refracted.
B The speed of the red light is greater than the speed of the violet light
and the red light is the least refracted.
C The speed of the violet light is less than the speed of the red light and
the violet light is the least refracted.
D The speed of the violet light is greater than the speed of the red light
and the violet light is the least refracted.

26 A police car with its siren sounding is stationary in heavy traffic. A pedestrian notice
that, although the loudness of the sound produced does not change, the pitch varies.

Which row describes the amplitude and the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A constant constant

B constant varying

C varying constant

D varying varying
W2019/0625/22
22 A large hill blocks the direct path between a transmitter of radio waves and a
receiver, as shown.

transmitter

hill receiver

The receiver picks up the signal from the transmitter even though the radio waves
do not travel through the hill.

Which row is correct?

A possible way for A stronger signal is

this to happen is received using

A diffraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.

B diffraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.

C refraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.

D refraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.

23 A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror. A student measures the angle of

incidence i and the angle of reflection r.

i r
incident reflected
ray ray

The student varies the angle of incidence and then plots a graph of r against i.

What does the graph look like?

24 What is monochromatic light?
A light of a single amplitude
B light of a single frequency
C light of more than one colour
D light which travels with constant velocity

25 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum.

visible radio
γ-rays X-rays ultraviolet infrared microwaves
light waves

Increasing……………….

A word is missing from the label below the spectrum.

Which word is missing?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

26 Which row gives a possible set of values for the speed of sound in ice, in water and
in steam?

speed of sound speed of sound speed of sound

in ice in water in steam
m/s m/s m/s
A 500 1500 4000

B 1500 4000 500

C 4000 500 1500

D 4000 1500 500

W2018/0625/22
21 Plane water waves travel from a shallow region into a deeper region. They travel
more quickly in the deeper water.

shallow water

boundary
wave
direction
deep water

Which diagram shows the wave pattern in the deeper water?

A B C D

22 A thin converging lens has a focal length of 6.0 cm. An observer looks through the
lens at an object which is placed 4.0 cm from the lens.

Which description of the image that is observed is correct?

A diminished and inverted
B diminished and virtual
C enlarged and inverted
D enlarged and virtual

23 A transmitter produces radio waves of wavelength 1500 m. It takes the waves

0.025s to travel from the transmitter to a radio receiver.

What is the distance between the radio transmitter and the receiver?
A 5.0 x 103 m
B 2.0 x 105 m
C 7.5 x 106 m
D 1.1 x 1010 m
24 Different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are used for different purposes.
Below are four statements about parts of the spectrum.

statement 1: Infra-red waves are used in television remote controllers.

statement 2: Radio waves are used to transmit television pictures from satellites
to Earth.
statement 3: Ultraviolet waves are used for intruder alarms.
statement 4: X-rays are used for security checks.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 3 and 4

25 A sheet of ice floats on water. A source of sound S is positioned at the edge of the
ice sheet.
Four microphones are placed equal distances from S.

Which microphone detects the sound from S first?

air

B
D S

ice
water

C
 ELECTRICITY
AND
ELECTROMAGNETISM
4.0 ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM

SPECIMEN PAPER 2 2023

27 The diagram shows a bar magnet and four plotting compasses.
Which compass correctly shows the direction of the magnetic field due to the
magnet?

D S N B

28 A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.
What happens to the plastic rod and what is the charge on the cloth?

plastic rod charge on cloth

A gains electrons negative
B gains electrons positive
C loses electrons negative
D loses electrons positive
29 The electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a mobile phone battery is 3.7 V.
What does this mean?

A 3.7 J is the maximum energy the battery can provide in 1.0 s.

B 3.7 J is the total energy the battery can provide before it has to be recharged.
C 3.7 J of energy is provided by the battery to drive a charge of 1.0 C around a
complete circuit.
D 3.7 J of energy is provided by the battery to drive a current of 1.0 A around a
complete circuit. 30 A computer engineer wants the speed of a fan to increase
when the temperature inside a computer increases. The engineer knows that a
larger current causes the fan to turn more quickly.
30 A computer engineer wants the speed of a fan to increase when the temperature inside
a computer increases. The engineer knows that a larger current causes the fan to turn
more quickly.

fan motor
power M
supply

X computer
 Which component should be placed at X to make this happen?

A a relay
B a thermistor
C a transformer
D a variable resistor
31 A water heater is connected to a 230 V supply and there is a current of 26 A in the
heater.
It takes 20 minutes to heat the water to the required temperature.
How much energy is supplied by the heater?

A 6.0 × 103 J
B 1.0 × 104 J
C 1.2 × 105 J
D 7.2 × 106 J
32 An electric kettle has a metal casing. The cable for the kettle contains a wire that is
connected to the earth pin of the plug.
Which danger does this guard against?

A the cable to the kettle becoming too hot

B the casing of the kettle becoming live
C the casing of the kettle becoming wet on the outside
D the casing of the kettle overheating

33 An electric current can produce a heating effect and a magnetic effect.

Which row shows the effect that a relay uses and one application of a relay?
effect used by a relay one application of a relay
A allowing a small current to switch
heating effect
on a large current
B changing the voltage of an a.c.
heating effect
supply
C allowing a small current to switch
magnetic effect
on a large current
D changing the voltage of an a.c.
magnetic effect
supply
34 The diagram shows a bar magnet and a coil of wire. The bar magnet is moved at the
same speed in each experiment.
In which situation is the largest electromotive force (e.m.f.) induced?
35 Increasing the transmission voltage in transmission cables reduces power losses.
What is the explanation for this reduction?

A The current decreases, reducing thermal energy losses.

B The current increases, increasing the flow of charge.
C The resistance of the cable increases, reducing the current.
D The resistance of the cable decreases.
36 There is an electric current in a straight wire in the direction into the page. This
produces a magnetic field around the wire.
All the field lines are circles but only one field line is shown.

Which row describes the magnetic field?

direction of the field lines spacing of the field lines

A anti-clockwise equally spaced over the whole field
B anti-clockwise more widely spaced further from the wire
C clockwise equally spaced over the whole field
D clockwise more widely spaced further from the wire
W2022/0625/22
25 Two magnets X and Y are placed end to end on a bench. The diagram shows the
magnetic field pattern between the poles of the magnets.

X Y

Which row shows the direction of the forces exerted on X

and Y by the magnetic field?

force on force on
X Y

A
B
C
D
26 The diagram shows a circuit used to control the potential difference (p.d.) across a
lamp.
The variable resistor is adjusted until the p.d. across the lamp is 6.0 V.
The current in the lamp is 0.5 A.

V
What is the resistance of the lamp?

A 0.083 Ω
B 3.0 Ω
C 6.5 Ω
D 12.0 Ω

27 A charge Q flows for time t through a resistor of resistance R.

Which equation gives the current I in the resistor?

A I = Qt
B I = Rt
C I = Q/t
D I = R/t

28 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry woollen cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Which statement is correct?

A Electrons move from the cloth to the rod

B Electrons move from the rod to the cloth.
C Protons move from the cloth to the rod.
D Protons move from the rod to the cloth.

29 Which diagram shows a graph of current against voltage for a filament lamp?
30 Each potential divider is placed in a circuit with a power supply.

Which potential divider makes the potential difference (p.d.) across component Y
increase when the light intensity increases?

31 Diagram 1 is a circuit diagram showing an a.c. power supply connected to four diodes
and a resistor.

Diagram 2 shows the output voltage from the power supply.

diagram 1 diagram 2

voltage

0
R 0 time

Which graph correctly shows the voltage–time curve across resistor R?

voltage

0
0 time

B
 C

32 Which diagram shows the circuit symbol for a fuse?

A

33 Four small compasses are placed around a solenoid.

solenoid

A current is now switched on in the solenoid.

Which diagram shows possible new directions of the compass needles?

A B
 C D

34 Transformers are used in the transmission of electrical power to houses.

Which type of transformer is used at the power station prior to connection to the
power lines and which type is used prior to delivery to the houses?

power before
station houses
A step-down step-down

B step-down step-up

C step-up step-down

D step-up step-up

35 The diagram shows an a.c. generator rotating in a clockwise direction.

magnets

N I S

What are the names of parts 1 and 2?

1 2
A brush slip-ring
B brush split-ring commutator
C slip-ring brush
D slip-ring split-ring commutator
S2020/0625/22
26 Four nails A, B, C and D are tested to find which makes the strongest permanent
magnet. One of the nails is placed against a bar magnet and the number of paper
clips which the nail can support is recorded

The bar magnet is then removed and the number of paper clips remaining attached
to the nail is recorded. Each nail is tested individually.

Which nail becomes the strongest permanent magnet?

number of paper clips attached to the nail
bar magnet present bar magnet removed
A 2 0
B 2 1
C 4 3
D 5 2

27 A student wants to demagnetise a steel bar. He uses the apparatus shown. He switches on
the
circuit for a few seconds and then switches off. He finds that the steel bar is still
magnetised.
steel bar coil

a.c.
supply
What should he do to improve his method?
A change the supply from an alternating to a direct voltage
B use a lower alternating voltage
C remove the steel bar from the coil whilst the circuit is switched on
D use a coil that has fewer turns on it
28 A cloth is used to rub an uncharged plastic rod.
Both the rod and the cloth become charged.

Why does the plastic rod become negatively charged and the cloth become positively
charged?

A The rod gains electrons and the cloth gains positive charges
B The rod gains electrons and the cloth loses electrons
C The rod loses electrons and the cloth gains electrons.

D The rod loses electrons and the cloth loses positive charges.

29 A student uses the circuit shown to determine the resistance of two identical resistors.

V
The voltmeter reading is 2.2 V and the ammeter reading is 0.25 A.

What is the resistance of each resistor?

A 0.275 Ω B 0.55 Ω C 4.4 Ω D 8.8 Ω

30 A cell passes a current of 2.0 A in a circuit for 30 s. In this time the cell transfers 120 J of
energy.

What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cell?

A 0.50 V B 1.5 V C 2.0 V D 8.0 V

31 The circuit shown contains five lamps J, K, L, M and N. All the lamps are glowing
lamp L

lamp K

lamp J

lamp N

lamp M
 One lamp is removed and two other lamps go out.

Which lamp is removed?

A lamp J

B lamp K
C lamp L

D lamp M

32 What is the effective resistance of the following combination of resistors?

4.0 Ω

A 1.8 Ω B 7.4 Ω C 11 Ω D 18 Ω

0625_w20_qp_22

27 A piece of steel is slightly magnetised. It is hit several times with a hammer.

What effect will this have on the steel?

the steel is parallel to a the steel is at right-angles

strong magnetic field to a weak magnetic field
A it becomes magnetised more strongly it becomes magnetised more strongly

B it becomes magnetised more strongly it loses its magnetism

C it loses its magnetism it becomes magnetised more strongly
D it loses its magnetism it loses its magnetism

28 A student sets up four experiments using bar magnets and other metal objects. The N and
S poles of the bar magnets are labelled N and S.

Which pairs attract each other?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

29 Which diagram represents the strength and direction of the magnetic field around a current-
carrying conductor? (The direction of the current is into the page
A B C D

30 Which quantity is defined as the energy transferred by a cell in driving unit charge around a
complete circuit?

In which situation is the current increased?

A Current
B electromotive force (e.m.f.)
C power
D resistance

31 there is a current in a variable resistor when a potential difference (p.d.) is applied across it.

In which situation is the current increased?

A Decrease the p.d. and keep the resistance the same

B Decrease the p.d. and increase the resistance.
C Keep the p.d. the same and decrease the resistance
D Keep the p.d. the same and increase the resistance

32 A student uses four ammeters P, Q, R and S to measure the current in different parts of the
circuit shown.
P Q
A A

R
A

S
A
Which two ammeters read the largest current?

A P and Q B P and R C R and Q D R and S

34 The diagram shows an a.c. generator used to power a lamp. The coil rotates in a clockwise
direction.
rotation
of coil
coil

X Y

Which magnetic poles are X and Y?

X Y

A N pole N pole

B N pole S pole

C S pole N pole

D S pole S pole

35 A transformer is needed to convert a supply of 240 V a.c. into 4800 V a.c..

Which pair of coils would be suitable for this transformer?

number of turns number of turns on
on primary coil NP secondary coil NS

A 50 1 000

B 240 48 000

C 480 24

D 2000 100
36 The diagram shows a coil of wire wrapped around a soft-iron rod.
The wire is connected to a d.c. power supply as indicated.
The apparatus is in a region which is totally shielded from the Earth’s magnetic field

A small compass needle is placed at point P.

In which direction does the N pole of the compass needle point?
A towards the bottom of the page
B towards the left of the page
C towards the right of the page
D towards the top of the page

W2021/0625/22
25 Which diagram shows the electric field pattern between two oppositely charged parallel
metal plates?

26 Which circuit symbol represents a component used to measure electric current?

27 The graph shows the current–voltage characteristic for a conductor.

current R
Q

P
0
0 voltage
Where on the graph can Ohm’s law be applied to the conductor?
A at Q only
B between P and Q
C between P and R
D between Q and R
28 The diagram shows a circuit containing two resistors of resistance 1.0  and 2.0 .
A voltmeter is connected across the 1.0 resistor by connecting P to X.
The reading on the voltmeter is 6.0 V.

1.0 Ω X 2.0 Ω Y

P
V

P is moved to point Y in the circuit.

What is the new reading on the voltmeter?
A 3.0 V B 6.0 V C 12 V D 18 V

29 There is a current I in a resistor. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V.

Which other physical quantity is needed to be able to determine the energy transferred W by
the resistor?

A the electromotive force (e.m.f.) E of the source

B the power P dissipated
C the resistance R of the resistor
D the time t for which there is a current in the resistor

31 Several cells are connected in series, as shown.

What is the combined electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cells?

A the average of the e.m.f.s of the separate cells

B the e.m.f. of one of the cells
C the product of the e.m.f.s of the cells
D the sum of the e.m.f.s of the cells

32 Two resistors, with resistances R1 and R2, are connected in parallel.

The resistance R1 is greater than the resistance R2.

R2

What is the resistance of the parallel combination?

A less than either R1 or R2

B equal to R1
C equal to R2
D the average of R1 and R2
33 The diagram shows a motor connected to an a.c. supply. The circuit is incomplete.

X Y
M
Which device needs to be connected between point X and point Y to prevent the wires from
overheating if a fault in the motor causes the current to get too high?

A an ammeter

B a fuse
C a transformer
D a length of thick copper wire

34 The diagram shows a wire between two magnets. An electromotive force (e.m.f.) is induced
in the wire when it is moved up between the two magnets

N S

Four tests are done.

1 The direction of movement of the wire is reversed.

2 The direction of the magnetic field is reversed.

3 The wire is moved more quickly.

4 The magnetic field strength is decreased.

Which tests will induce a smaller e.m.f. in the wire?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 3 and 4 D 4 only

35 Four positions of a current-carrying coil in a magnetic field, as in a d.c. motor, are shown. In
diagrams 2 and 4, the coil is at an angle of 45 to the field lines.

N S N S N S N S
 Which row is correct?

turning effect of the forces in turning effect of the forces in

positions 1 and 3 positions 2 and 4

A different different

B different same

C same different

D same same

36 The diagram shows the magnetic field due to a current in a solenoid.

direction of current

The direction of the current is reversed.

Which row describes the effect that this has on the magnitude and on the direction of the
magnetic field?

magnitude of direction of
magnetic field magnetic field
A increases changes
B increases unchanged
C unchanged changes
D unchanged unchanged
S2022/0625/22
25 A permanent magnet is placed close to a bar of soft iron.

permanent
soft iron S N P Q
bar magnet

What are the polarities of end P and of end Q?

end P end Q
A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

26 Which method is used to demagnetise a bar magnet?

A lower it into water

B heat it with a Bunsen burner
C place it in a metal box
D suspend it in a sling

27 What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a cell?

A the amount of charge that passes through the cell per unit time
B the energy gained per unit charge as charge passes through the cell
C the total amount of charge flowing through the cell
D the total energy stored in the cell

28 A student measures the potential difference across a device and the current in the device.

Which calculation gives the resistance of the device?

A current + potential difference

B current potential difference
C potential difference current
D potential difference current

29 A piece of wire is 40 cm long and has a diameter of 2.0 mm.

Its resistance is 0.30 Ω.
Which wire of the same material has a resistance of 0.15 Ω?
length / cm diameter / mm
A 20 1.0
B 20 4.0
C 80 1.0
D 80 4.0
34 In an a.c. generator, a coil is rotated in a magnetic field and an electromotive force (e.m.f.) is
induced in the coil.

In which position of the coil does the e.m.f. have the largest value?

35 Wire P carries a current directed perpendicularly into the page. A compass is placed at point
Q which is close to wire P.

The magnetic field at Q due to the current is very much larger than the magnetic field of the
Earth.

In which direction does the North pole of the compass point?

36 A transformer has Np turns in the primary coil and Ns turns in the secondary coil.
Which row gives the values of Np and Ns for a transformer that steps up a voltage of 1200 V
to 36 000 V?

Np Ns
A 2 000 60 000
B 2 000 600 000
C 60 000 2 000
D 600 000 2 000
0625/22/O/N/18
26 The diagram shows a bar magnet at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. A length of soft-
iron wire is held parallel to the magnet

The wire is released. What happens?

A The wire moves away from the magnet.

B The wire moves towards the magnet.
C The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in a
clockwise direction.
D The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in an
anticlockwise direction.

27 The diagram shows point X between two charged plates.

Which diagram shows the electric field pattern near point X?

28 A bar magnet is placed inside a current-carrying coil. The diagram shows four different
experiments.

In which experiments is the magnet demagnetised?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

29 Copper wire is available in fixed lengths but in various diameters d. Each diameter has a
different resistance R.
Which relationship between R and d is correct?

A R is directly proportional to d.
B R is directly proportional to d 2.
C R is inversely proportional to d.
D R is inversely proportional to d 2.

30 A student investigates the resistance of a lamp.

Which row states how the meters must be connected?

ammeter voltmeter

A in parallel with the lamp in parallel with the lamp

B in parallel with the lamp in series with the lamp

C in series with the lamp in parallel with the lamp

D in series with the lamp in series with the lamp

34 Either a fuse or a circuit-breaker can be used to protect electrical cables from large currents
that could cause overheating.

X cable
live

electrical Y appliance
supply

neutral
When a fuse is used, where should it be connected, and when a circuit-breaker is used,
where should it be connected?

position position of
of fuse circuit-breaker

A X X

B X Y

C Y X

D Y Y

35 Electrical power is transmitted at 400 kV and transformed down to 240 V before being
delivered to consumers.
Which statement is correct?

A A 400 kV cable requires less insulation than a 240 V cable.

B Birds are subject to a high-voltage shock when resting on a high-voltage cable.
C The current in the transmission wires is equal to the current delivered to the consumers.
D With a 400 kV transmission system, a smaller proportion of the energy is used to heat
the atmosphere than with a 240 V system.

36 The diagram shows a coil of wire between the poles of a magnet.

The coil consists of 20 turns of insulated wire. The coil is connected to a variable resistor
and a power supply. How can the turning effect on the coil be increased?
 A by moving the poles of the magnet closer to the coil

B by reducing the number of turns on the coil while keeping the current constant

C by increasing the resistance of the variable resistor

D by reversing the terminals of the power supply

0625/22/M/J/19

26 A soft iron bar is a long way from any magnetic field. How can the material of the bar be
described?

A It is magnetic and strongly magnetised.

B It is magnetic and unmagnetised.
C It is non-magnetic and strongly magnetised.
D It is non-magnetic and unmagnetised.

27 Diagram 1 shows two thin, uncharged strips of plastic.

Diagram 2 shows the same strips after they have been rubbed with a dry cloth.

Strips of Strips of
plastic plastic

Diagram 1 Diagram 2

Which row describes the charge on the strips after rubbing, and the force between the strips
after rubbing?

charge on strips force between strips

A opposite attraction

B opposite repulsion

C the same attraction

D the same repulsion

28 A cell has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 1.5 V.
What does this statement mean?

A The cell converts 1.0 J of energy when driving 1.5 C of charge round a complete circuit.
B The cell converts 1.5 J of energy when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.
C The cell converts 1.5 J of energy per second when driving 1.0 C of charge round a
complete circuit.
D The cell converts 1.5 W of power when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.

29 A metal wire of length 100 cm and cross-sectional area 0.20 mm2 has a resistance of 8.0 Ω.
What is the resistance of a wire of the same metal of length 50 cm and cross-sectional area
of 0.40 mm2?

A 2.0 Ω B 8.0 Ω C 16 Ω D 32 Ω

36 The diagram shows a current-carrying wire placed between two magnetic poles. The current
is in the direction shown.

What is the direction of the force on the wire?

A towards the bottom of the page
B towards the top of the page
C towards the left-hand side of the page
D towards the right-hand side of the page

37 Diagram 1 shows an a.c. generator. The coil is turning as shown.

diagram 1

coil
 Diagram 2 shows the output voltage produced by the generator as the coil turns.

Which point on diagram 2 shows the voltage induced when the coil is moving through the
position shown in diagram 1?

0625/22/O/N/19

27 A steel bar is placed in an East-West direction for it to be demagnetised. No other magnet is

nearby.
Which method is not suitable?

A Hammering the bar

B Heating the bar to a very high temperature.
C Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries an alternating current.
D Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries a direct current.

28 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.
Why has the rod become positively charged?

A It has gained electrons.

B It has gained neutrons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost neutrons.

29 There is a current of 2.0 A in a resistor for 30 s. The potential difference (p.d.) across the
resistor is 12 V.
How much energy is transferred in the resistor?

A 1.25 J B 5.0 J C 180 J D 720 J

30 Identical resistors are connected together to form arrangements X, Y and Z.

 What is the correct order of the resistances of the arrangements from the largest to the
smallest?

A X→Y→Z
B Y→X→Z
C Z→X→Y
D Z→Y→X

31 Resistors of 1.0 Ω, 2.0 Ω and 3.0 Ω are connected in parallel with a cell.
Which statement is correct?

A The current in each resistor is different but the potential difference (p.d.) across each
resistor is the same.
B The current in each resistor is the same but the potential difference across each
resistor is different.
C The potential difference across the 3.0 Ω is greater than the potential difference across
the 1.0 Ω resistor.
D The sum of the potential differences across each resistor is equal to the electromotive
force (e.m.f.) of the cell.

34 Where must a fuse be connected in a mains electric circuit?

A the earth wire only

B the live wire only
C the neutral wire only
D the live wire and the earth wire

35 The N-pole of a magnet is moved into a coil of wire connected to a galvanometer.

The needle of the galvanometer moves.

Which situation must give a smaller galvanometer reading?

A Use a coil with fewer turns and a stronger magnet

B Use a coil with fewer turns and a weaker magnet.
C Use a coil with more turns and a stronger magnet.
D Use a coil with more turns and a weaker magnet.

36 A step-down transformer is 100% efficient. It has an input voltage of 240 V a.c. and an
output voltage of 60 V a.c.
The current in the primary coil is 0.50 A.
What is the current in the secondary coil?

A 0.13 A B 0.50 A C 2.0 A D 8.0 A

NUCLEAR
PHYSICS
5.0 NUCLEAR PHYSICS

SPECIMEN 2023
1 The diagram shows emissions from a source passing into the electric field between
two charged plates.

+ + + + + + + + + +
source

– – – – – – – – – –

What is emitted by this source?

A neutrons and γ-rays only

B α-particles and β-particles only
C α-particles and γ-rays only
D β-particles and γ-rays only

2 Which row in the table describes the process of nuclear fusion and identifies the change
in total mass of the particles involved?
change in total mass of
process
the particles
A a large nucleus splits into two smaller nuclei decreases
B a large nucleus splits into two smaller nuclei increases
C two small nuclei combine to form a larger nucleus decreases
D two small nuclei combine to form a larger nucleus increases

MAY JUNE 2022

3 A scientist was asked to separate the following equations into two categories: nuclear
fission and nuclear fusion.
1 Pu → Pd Cd 3 n
2 He He → He H H
3 N H→ O
4 U → Kr Ba 2 n
Which equations show nuclear fission?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 and 4 D 2 and 4

4 Which radioactive source is used in a smoke alarm system and what is the reason for
this?
source reason
A α causes least ionisation of air
B α causes most ionisation of air
C γ causes least ionisation of air
D γ causes most ionisation of air
5 A beam of α-particles and β-particles is incident at right angles to an electric field.
Which statement about the deflection of the particles in the field is correct?

A α-particles deflect, but β-particles do not deflect.

B α-particles deflect in the opposite direction to β-particles.
C β-particles deflect, but α-particles do not deflect.
D Both α-particles and β-particles deflect in the same direction.

OCTOBER NOVEMBER 2022

6 A thin metal foil is placed in a vacuum. α-particles are fired at the foil and most go
straight through. A very small proportion of the α-particles are deflected through large
angles.
What does this provide evidence for?

A α-particles are very small.

B There are negative electrons in each atom.
C There is a tiny nucleus in each atom.
D There are neutrons in each atom.

7 Thorium-230 is represented by the symbol Th. This isotope is radioactive and

decays to radium by emitting α-particles.

Which nuclide is produced by this decay?

A Ra B Ra C Ra D Ra

8 The diagram shows a piece of apparatus used to determine the nature of the emissions
from a radioactive source. The absorbers can be raised out of or lowered into the path
of the radiation from the source to the detector. The apparatus is evacuated.
different
absorbers

detector radioactive
source

vacuum

The table gives a set of results for a particular radioactive source.

count rate on detector
absorber in use (counts per second)

none 350

thin paper 350

1.0 mm aluminium 180

1.0 cm lead 23
 Which types of radiation are being emitted by the radioactive source?

A α-particles and β-particles

B α-particles only
C β-particles and γ-rays
D β-particles only

9 The graph shows the measured count rate of radiation from a source containing a
radioactive isotope. The detector is in a laboratory, with no shielding from background
radiation.

X
count rate

0
0 time

What is the measured count rate after a time of one half-life?

A B C D

MAY JUNE 2021

10 Which row correctly states how nuclei behave during nuclear fission and during
nuclear fusion?

fission fusion

A nuclei join together nuclei join together

B nuclei join together nuclei split apart

C nuclei split apart nuclei join together

D nuclei split apart nuclei split apart

11 The charge on a proton is e.

What is the charge on an electron and what is the charge on a neutron?

electron neutron

e e
A
B e 0

C –e –e

D –e 0
12 Some radioactive nuclei decay to give new nuclei which are also radioactive. Part of a
series of decays is shown.
U→ Th → Pa → U→ Th → Ra
How many decays involve the emission of a -particle?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 5

13 The graph shows the activity of a radioactive source over a period of time.

120
activity
counts / s 90

60

30

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes

What is the half-life of the source?

A 1.0 minute B 2.0 minutes C 2.5 minutes D 4.0 minutes

OCTOBER NOVEMBER 2021

14 The nucleus of an americium atom contains 146 neutrons and 95 protons. It decays by
emitting an -particle.

How many neutrons and how many protons remain in the nucleus when this form of
americium decays?

number of neutrons number of protons

remaining remaining

A 142 93

B 142 95

C 144 93

D 144 95

15 A sample of americium decays and changes into neptunium. The half-life of

americium is 432 years.

Which fraction of the americium will remain after 1728 years?

A 0 B C D
16 The graph shows the decay curves of four different radioactive isotopes.
Which isotope has the largest half-life?

A
count rate
B

D
0
0 time

17 The diagrams show -particles and -particles passing through an electric field.
Which diagram shows the correct paths of the -particles and -particles?

W2018/0625
18 Which diagram represents the structure of a neutral atom?
19 A radioactive nucleus 𝑅𝑛 decays in two stages to produce 𝑃𝑏 .

Which two particles are emitted in this process?

A an α-particle and a β-particle
B an α-particle and a proton
C two α-particles
D two β-particles

20 The diagram shows the paths of three different types of radiation X, Y

and Z.

Z
2 mm of 10 mm of 50 mm
plastic aluminium of lead

Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A α-particles β-particles γ-rays

B β-particles α-particles γ-rays

C β-particles γ-rays α-particles

D γ-rays α-particles β-particles

21 The count rate measured when near a radioactive source drops from
542 counts per minute to 94 counts per minute in 12 hours. The
background count remains constant at 30 counts per minute.

What is the half-life of the source?

A 2 hours B 3 hours C 4 hours D 8 hours

W2019/0625
22 The diagrams show the simple atomic structure for two neutral atoms X
and Y of different elements.

X Y

Which row is correct?

atom with atom with a more

more electrons positively charged nucleus
A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

23 Plutonium-238 decays by the emission of an α-particle.

Which equation represents the decay of a plutonium-238 nucleus?
A 𝑃𝑢 𝑈+ 𝛼
B 𝑃𝑢 𝑈+ 𝛼
C 𝑃𝑢 𝑈+ 𝛼
D 𝑃𝑢 𝑈+ 𝛼

24 A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 8 days.

A detector close to a sample of this isotope gives a count rate of 200
counts per minute. Without the source, the background count is 20
counts per minute.

What is the count rate due to the source after 8 days?

A 80 counts per minute
B 90 counts per minute
C 100 counts per minute
D 110 counts per minute

25 Why are some radioactive sources stored in boxes made from lead?
A Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources.
B Lead decreases the half-life of radioactive sources.
C Lead increases the half-life of radioactive sources
D Lead repels emissions from the radioactive sources.

W2020/0625
26 Which statement is correct for the nucleus of any atom?

A The nucleus contains electrons, neutrons, and protons.

B The nucleus contains the same number of protons as neutrons.
C The nucleus has a total charge of zero.
D The nucleus is very small compared with the size of the atom.
27 The symbol represents a nucleus of zinc.

𝑍𝑛

Which row gives the numbers of protons and neutrons in this nucleus?

number of protons number of neutrons

A 30 38
B 30 68
C 38 30
D 38 68
28 The diagram shows a beam of β-particles passing through a strong
electric field.

β-particles
–

In which direction will the β-particles be deflected?

A upwards towards the top of the page

B downwards towards the bottom of the page
C into the plane of the page
D out of the plane of the page

29 Which equation represents the β-decay of lead-209?

A 𝑃𝑏 + 𝑒 𝐵𝑖

B 𝑃𝑏 + 𝑒 𝑇𝑙

C 𝑃𝑏 𝐵𝑖 + 𝑒

D 𝑃𝑏 𝑇𝑙 + 𝑒
 SPACE
PHYSICS
6.0 SPACE PHYSICS

SPECIMEN PAPER 2023

1 The orbit of the Moon around the Earth is modelled as a circular path of radius 3.8 ×
105 km.
The orbital period is 29.5 days (710 hours).
What is the orbital speed of the Moon?
A 5.4 × 102 km / h
B 1.1 × 103 km / h
C 1.7 × 103 km / h
D 3.4 × 103 km / h
2 Which statement does not describe redshift?
A All the light emitted from all distant galaxies is at the red end of the spectrum.
B The light arriving at the Earth from a receding star is always redshifted.
C During redshift, the wavelength of the observed light is longer than it is if the
redshift had not occurred.
D The light from stars in all distant galaxies is moved towards the red end of the
spectrum.

0625/12/F/M/23
3 The Sun has a mass of 2.0 × 1030 kg. Which element accounts for most of this mass?
A carbon
B hydrogen
C oxygen
D uranium

4 Approximately how long does it take for the Moon to make one complete orbit of the
Earth?

A 24 hours
B 1 month
C 1 season
D 1 year

5 The nearest star to the Sun is Proxima Centauri at a distance of 4.2 light years. Which
statements are correct? 1 Telescope images of Proxima Centauri show it as it was
4.2 years ago. 2 If a spacecraft near Proxima Centauri sent a radio message to the
Earth, it would take 4.2 years to arrive. 3 Proxima Centauri is outside the Milky Way
galaxy.
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only
0625/22/F/M/23
37 Which data is needed to calculate the average orbital speed of a satellite around a
planet?
the distance of the the radius the period the time for the
satellite from the of the planet of rotation of satellite to orbit
centre of the planet the planet the planet once
A
B
C
D

key
= needed
= not needed

39 The energy generated in stable stars comes from nuclear reactions.

Which type of reaction occurs in the Sun?

A Helium nuclei break up to give hydrogen nuclei.

B Helium nuclei join together to form hydrogen nuclei.
C Hydrogen nuclei break up to give helium nuclei.
D Hydrogen nuclei join to form helium nuclei.

40 Two quantities define the Hubble constant H0.

● the speed at which the galaxy is moving away from the Earth v
● the distance of the galaxy from the Earth d

What is the relationship between v and d and what is the current estimate for H0?

relationship current estimate for H0

A v is proportional to d 2.2 x 10-18 s-1
B v is proportional to 1/d 2.2 x 10-18 s-1
C v is proportional to d 3.0 x 10-18 s-1
D v is proportional to 1/d 3.0 x 10-18 s-1