CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PREBOARD EXAMINATION

Day 1: Physical and Chemical Principles

Auxesis Review Center
Republic of the Philippines

INSTRUCTIONS:
a) Choose the best answer to each question by shading the circle corresponding
to the letter of the correct answer.
b) Use number 2 pencil for shading the answers. DO NOT USE ballpoint pen.
c) Only PERRY’S CHEMICAL ENGINEERS’HANDBOOK (any edition) and the PERIODIC TABLE
OF ELEMENTS are allowed for open reference during the examination.
d) CASIO fx-991ES PLUS and all other programmable calculators are NOT ALLOWED.
Only one (1) calculator is allowed during the examination.
e) Cellphones or any similar devices are STRICTLY PROHIBITED at any time during
the examination.
f) Any reference mentioned in(c)with any kind of side notes written on or
inserted to it as found by the watcher before and during the examination
shall be immediately CONFISCATED.
g) Failure to conform to (e) and (f) shall automatically result to
DISQUALIFICATION of the examinee to continue with the examination.

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1. Classify each of the following as homogeneous or heterogeneous:

I. a door IV. the water you drink
II. the air you breathe V. salsa
III. a cup of coffee (black) VI. your lab partner
a. hetero, homo, homo, homo, hetero, hetero
b. hetero, hetero, homo, homo, homo, hetero
c. homo, homo, homo, homo, hetero, homo
d. homo, homo, hetero, hetero, homo, hetero

2. Mercury poisoning is a debilitating disease that is often fatal. In the

human body, mercury reacts with essential enzymes leading to
irreversible inactivity of these enzymes. If the amount of mercury in a
polluted lake is 0.4 microgram Hg/mL, what is the total mass in kilograms
of mercury in the lake? (The lake has a surface area of 100 mi2 and an
average depth of 20 ft.)
a. 55.7x105 c. 27.1x104
b. 80.3x104 d. 64.5x105

3. In an experiment it was found that the total charge on an oil drop was
5.93x10-18 C. How many negative charges does the drop contain?
a. 18 c. 44
b. 23 d. 37

4. The isotope of an unknown element, X, has a mass number of 79. The most
stable ion of the isotope has 36 electrons and forms a binary compound
with sodium having a formula of Na2X. Which of the following statements
is(are) true?
I. The binary compound formed between X and fluorine will be a covalent
compound.
II. The isotope of X contains 38 protons.
III. The isotope of X contains 41 neutrons.
IV. The identity of X is strontium, Sr.
a. I and II c. I, II, III, IV
b. I only d. II and III

5. If you had a mole of U.S. dollar bills and equally distributed the money
to all of the people of the world, how rich would every person be? Assume
a world population of 7 billion.
a. 76 trillion dollars c. 42 trillion dollars
b. 90 trillion dollars d. 25 trillion dollars
6. Crystals of a material are suspended in the middle of a cup of water at
2°C. How might you enable the crystals to rise to the surface of the
water so that you can harvest them?
a. Add more crystals
b. Add more water
c. Decrease the temperature of water
d. Increase the temperature of water

7. Vitamin A has a molar mass of 286.4 g/mol and a general molecular formula
of CxHyE, where E is an unknown element. If vitamin A is 83.86% C and
10.56% H by mass, what is the molecular formula of vitamin A?
a. C18H38O2 c. C22H6O
b. C20H30O d. C20H15O2

8. Which would make more efficient cold compress, ethanol or methanol?

a. ethanol c. either (a) or (b)
b. methanol d. neither (a) nor (b)

9. How many metals, metalloids, and nonmetals are there in the third period
of the Periodic Table?
a. 2, 2, 4 c. 2, 1, 5
b. 3, 1, 4 d. 4, 0, 4

10. For each of the following, identify the radiation emitted.

I. Beryllium-10 changes to boron-10
II. Europium-151 changes to europium-151
III. Thallium-195 changes to mercury-195
IV. Plutonium-239 changes to uranium-235
a. beta, positron, gamma, beta c. alpha, neutron, beta, positron
b. alpha, gamma, neutron, beta d. beta, gamma, positron, alpha

11. Which of the following objects are chiral (assume that there is no label
or other identifying mark)?
I. Pair of scissors
II. Tennis ball
III. Paper clip
IV. Beaker
V. The swirl created in water as it drains out of a sink or bathtub
a. chiral, chiral, chiral, chiral, chiral
b. achiral, chiral, chiral, achiral, chiral
c. chiral, achiral, chiral, chiral, achiral
d. chiral, achiral, achiral, achiral, chiral

12. Suppose you have a phosphate buffer of pH 7.21. If you add more solid
NaH2PO4 to this buffer, what would you expect to the pH of the buffer?
a. increase c. either increase or decrease
b. decrease d. remain unchanged

13. Match the radioactive isotope with its proper use:

I. Cobalt-60 a. Heart scan in exercise
II. Thallium-201 b. Measure water content of body
III. Tritium c. Kidney scan
IV. Mercury-197 d. Cancer therapy
a. I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a c. I-a, II-b, III-c, Iv-d
b. I-b, II-d, III-a, Iv-c d. I-d, II-a, III-b, IV-c

14. The Bailey StoneWorks employs six people. Assuming that the density of
uncompacted waste is 480 kg-m−3, determine the annual volume of solid
waste produced by the stone works assuming a waste generation rate of 1
kg-capita−1-day.
a. 3.9 m3/day c. 5.1 m3/day
b. 4.6 m3/day d. 2.2 m3/day
15. In each case, tell whether the bond is ionic, polar covalent, or nonpolar
covalent: Br2, BrCl, HCl, SrF2, SiH4, CO, N2, CsCl
a. nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, nonpolar
covalent, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent, ionic
b. polar covalent, ionic, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent, nonpolar
covalent, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, polar covalent
c. nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, ionic, nonpolar covalent, polar
covalent, nonpolar covalent, ionic
d. nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent, nonpolar
covalent, polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, polar covalent

16. A landfill that is 12 ha in area has a liner of thickness 0.9 m. Each

year 1700 m3 of leachate is collected. The hydraulic conductivity of the
liner is 3.9 × 10−10 m/s. What is the head of water above the liner?
a. 1 m c. 3 m
b. 2 m d. 4 m

17. The only natural amino acid that has no chiral center is:
a. Cysteine b. Tryptophan
b. Proline d. Glycine

18. Tetrafluoroethylene is the starting material for the production of

poly(tetrafluoroethylene), a polymer that is widely used for the
preparation of nonstick coatings on kitchenware. The most widely known
trade name for this product is Teflon. Does tetrafluoroethylene have
polar bonds? Is it a polar molecule? Does it have a dipole?
a. yes, yes, yes c. yes, no, none
b. no, no, none d. no, yes, yes

19. Given the following temperature and elevation data, determine the
stability of the atmosphere.

Elevation (m) Temperature (0C)

2 14.35
324 11.13

a. neutral c. unstable
b. stable d. subadiabatic

20. When a foreign substance is injected in a rabbit, how long does it take
to find antibodies against the foreign substance in the rabbit serum?
a. less than 1 week c. more than 2 weeks
b. exactly 1 week d. 1 to 2 weeks

21. How to differentiate alkane alkene and alkyne?

a. combustion on an empty beaker
b. nature of carbon and its branching
c. reaction with Br2
d. all of these

22. What are chemokines?

a. Chemokines are a class of cytokines that send messages between cells.
b. Chemokines attract leukocytes to the site of injury and bind to
specific receptors on the leukocytes.
c. All chemokines are low molecular weight proteins that have four
cysteine residues that are linked in very specific disulfide bonds:
Cys1-Cys3 and Cys2-Cys1
d. All of these
23. Can a hydrogen bond form between
(1) Two molecules of methanol, CH3OH?
(2) Two molecules of formaldehyde, CH2O?
(3) One molecule of methanol, CH3OH, and one of formaldehyde, CH2O?
a. yes, yes, yes c. no, yes, no
b. yes, no, yes d. yes, no, no

24. Glucose is the only carbohydrate compound that the brain can use for
energy. Which pathway is mobilized to supply the need of the brain during
starvation?
a. gluconeogenesis c. glycogenesis
b. glycolysis d. none of these

25. Which amino acid has the highest percentage nitrogen (g N/100 g amino
acid)?
a. glutamic acid c. arginine
b. tyrosine d. phenylalanine

26. Predict the order of the melting points of triglycerides containing

fatty acids, as follows:
I. Palmitic, palmitic, stearic
II. Oleic, stearic, palmitic
III. Oleic, linoleic, oleic
a. III < II < I c. I < III < II
b. II < I < III d. II < III < I

27. Which of the following is true about sunscreen and sunblock between
sunblock and sunscreen?
a. A sunscreen prevents all ultraviolet radiation from reaching
protected screen by reflecting it away from the screen.
b. A sunscreen prevents a portion of ultraviolet radiation from reaching
protected screen.
c. Sunblock effectiveness is related to its skin protection factor (SPF)
while sunscreen is not.
d. Sunscreen and sunblock are the same.

28. Is it possible for an endothermic reaction to have zero activation

energy?
a. Yes c. either (a) or (b)
b. No d. cannot be determined

29. Given the following data:

(1) 2H2(g) + C(s) → CH4(g) deltaG0 = -51 kJ
(2) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O (l) deltaG0 = -474 kJ
(3) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) deltaG0 = - 394 kJ
Calculate deltaG0 for the reaction CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2 H2O (l)
a. -126 kJ c. -817 kJ
b. -335 kJ d. -405 kJ

30. Suppose that we have a stain on an oil painting that we want to remove
without damaging the painting. The stain is not water-insoluble. Knowing
the polarities of the following solvents, which one would we try first:
benzene, isopropyl alcohol, hexane
a. benzene c. isopropyl alcohol
b. hexane d. either benzene or hexane

31. The average osmolarity of sea water is 1.18. How much pure water would
have to be added to 1.0 mL of sea water for it to achieve the osmolarity
of blood (0.30 osmol)?
a. 3.3 c. 1.8
b. 0.5 d. 2.9
32. To a separatory funnel with two layers—the nonpolar diethyl ether and
the polar water—is added a small amount of solid. After shaking the
separatory funnel, in which layer will we find each of the following
solids? NaCl, Camphor and KOH
a. NaCl – water layer, camphor – water layer, KOH – water layer
b. NaCl – water layer, camphor – ether layer, KOH – water layer
c. NaCl – water layer, camphor – water layer, KOH – ether layer
d. NaCl – ether layer, camphor – ether layer, KOH – ether layer

33. Consider the Earth to be a blackbody with average temperature 150C and
surface area equal to 5.1x1014 m2. Find the rate at which energy is
radiated by the Earth and the wavelength at which maximum power is
radiated. Compare this peak wavelength with that for a 5800-K blackbody
(the sun.
a. 1x1019 W, 12.9x106 m (earth, 0.33x106 m (sun)
b. 2x1017 W, 10.1x106 m (earth, 0.48x106 m (sun)
c. 4x1016 W, 15.5x106 m (earth, 0.57x106 m (sun)
d. 3x1015 W, 13.6x106 m (earth, 0.20x106 m (sun)

34. Some domestic wastewater has 30 mg/L of nitrogen in the form of either
organic nitrogen or ammonia. Assuming that very few new cells of bacteria
are formed during the nitrification of the waste (that is, the oxygen
demand can be found from a simple stoichiometric analysis of the
nitrification reactions given above), find the ratio of the ultimate
NBOD to the concentration of nitrogen in the waste.
a. 5.3 c. 3.9
b. 4.6 d. 2.1

35. The density of acetylene gas, in a 4-L container at 0°C and 2 atm
pressure is 0.02 g/mL. What would be the density of the gas under
identical temperature and pressure if the container were partitioned
into two 2-L compartments?
a. 0.03 g/mL c. 0.01 g/mL
b. 0.04 g/mL d. 0.02 g/mL

36. Suppose that the pressure in an automobile tire is 2.30 atm at a

temperature of 20°C. What will the pressure in the tire be if, after 10
miles of driving, the temperature of the tire increases to 47°C?
a. 2.88 atm c. 3.01 atm
b. 3.26 atm d. 2.51 atm

37. When urea is acted on by the enzyme urease in the presence of water, how
many grams of CO2 are produced from 0.83 mol of urea?
a. 37 g c. 19 g
b. 25 g d. 74 g

38. How many molecules are in one drop of water?

a. 1.0x1021 c. 1.7x1024
b. 1.0x1024 d. 1.7x1021

39. A desalination plant treats sea water with a salt concentration of 30,000
mg-L−1 at a flow rate of 1.5 m3/s−1. The recovery is 70%. The salt
rejection is 99.5%. Determine the concentration of salt in the
concentrate stream.
a. 99650 mg/L c. 705410 mg/L
b. 86720 mg/L d. 653220 mg/L

40. A sample of municipal sewage is diluted to 1% by volume prior to running

a BOD5 analysis. After 5 days the oxygen consumption is determined to
be 2.00 mg · L−1. What is the BOD5 of the sewage?
a. 150 mg/L c. 250 mg/L
b. 300 mg/L d. 200 mg/L
41. Uranium-235 undergoes a series of alpha particle and beta particle
productions to end up as lead-207. How many alpha particles and beta
particles are produced in the complete decay series?
a. 6, 3 c. 5, 5
b. 8, 6 d. 7, 4

42. Naturally occurring uranium is composed mostly of 238U and 235U, with
relative abundances of 99.28% and 0.72%, respectively. The half-life for
238U is 4.5x109 years, and the half-life for 235U is 7.1x108 years. Assuming

that the earth was formed 4.5 billion years ago, calculate the relative
abundances of the 238U and 235U isotopes when the earth was formed.
a. 77% and 23% c. 48% and 52%
b. 64% and 36% d. 82% and 18%

43. A reported synthesis of the transuranium element bohrium (Bh) involved

the bombardment of berkelium-249 with neon-22 to produce bohrium-267.
The half-life of bohrium-267 is 15.0 seconds. If 199 atoms of bohrium-
267 could be synthesized, how much time would elapse before only 11
atoms of bohrium-267 remain?
a. 50 s c. 63 s
b. 79 s d. 44 s

44. The sun radiates 3.9x 1023 J of energy into space every second. What is
the rate at which mass is lost from the sun?
a. 1.9x106 kg/s c. 2.8x106 kg/s
b. 4.3x106 kg/s d. 3.5x106 kg/s

45. Chlorine gas was first prepared in 1774 by C. W. Scheele by oxidizing

sodium chloride with manganese(IV) oxide. The reaction is
NaCl (aq) + H2SO4 (aq) + MnO2 (s)  Na2SO4 (aq) + MnCl2 (aq) + H2O (l) + Cl2 (g)
a. 4, 2, 1, 2, 1, 1, 2 c. 1, 4, 2, 3, 2, 2, 1
b. 3, 3, 2, 1, 1, 2, 3 d. 2, 3, 4, 1, 1, 2, 2

46. Answer the following questions

Is H+ (aq) capable of oxidizing Cu(s) to Cu2+ (aq)?
Is Fe3+ (aq) capable of oxidizing I- (aq)?
Is H2 (g) capable of oxidizing Ag+ (aq)?
a. yes, yes, yes c. no, yes, yes
b. yes, no, no d. no, no, no

47. An aqueous solution of an unknown salt of ruthenium is electrolyzed by

a current of 2.50 A passing for 50.0 min. If 2.618 g Ru is produced at
the cathode, what is the charge on the ruthenium ions in solution?
a. +3 c. +5
b. +4 d. +6

48. Sodium chloride is added to water (at 250C) until it is saturated.

Calculate the Cl- concentration in such a solution. Delta G0 in kJ/mol
are: NaCl (s) = -384, Na+ (aq) = -262, Cl- (aq) = -131.
a. 4 M c. 2 M
b. 3 M d. 1 M

49. Consider the system

A (g)  B (g)
at 250C.
Assuming GA0 = 8996 J/mol and GB0 = 11718 J/mol, calculate the value of
equilibrium constant for this reaction.
a. 1.98 c. 2.56
b. 0.50 d. 0.33

50. Consider the reaction 2O(g)  O2 (g). Predict the signs of deltaH and
deltaS. Would the reaction more spontaneous at high or low temperatures?
a. deltaH = -, deltaS = +, high c. deltaH = -, delta S = -, low
b. deltaH = +, deltaS = +, high d. deltaH = +, deltaS = -, low
51. Using the data given below:
Calculate the DO concentration just mixing
Oz WWTP Effluent Babbling Run
Flow, m3/s 0.36 4.8
Ultimate BOD at 200C, mg/L 27 1.35
DO, mg/L 0.9 8.5

a. 6 mg/L c. 8 mg/L
b. 5 mg/L d. 7 mg/L

52. The initial ultimate BOD after mixing of the Bergelmir River is 12.0 mg-
L−1. The DO in the Bergelmir River after the wastewater and river have
mixed is at saturation. The river temperature is 10◦C. At 10◦C, the
deoxygenation rate constant (kd) is 0.30 day−1, and the reaeration rate
constant (kr) is 0.40 day−1. Determine the critical DO.
a. 7.5 mg/L c. 6.8 mg/L
b. 5.4 mg/L d. 4.1 mg/L

53. What is the pH of a water that contains 120.00 mg · L−1 of bicarbonate

ion and 15.00 mg · L−1 of carbonate ion?
a. 8.6 c. 8.1
b. 9.4 d. 9.7

54. A magnesium hydroxide solution is prepared by adding 10.00 g of magnesium

hydroxide to a volumetric flask and bringing the final volume to 1.00 L
by adding water buffered at a pH of 7.0. What is the concentration of
magnesium in this solution? (Assume that the temperature is 25◦C and the
ionic strength is negligible).
a. 0.17 M c. 0.22 M
b. 0.26 M d. 0.19 M

55. A landfill with a gas collection system is in operation and serves a

population of 200,000. MSW is generated at a rate of 1.95 kg · (capita)−1
· day−1. Gas is produced at an annual rate of 6.2 L · kg−1 of MSW
delivered to the landfill. The gas contains 55% methane. Gas recovery
is 15% of that generated. The heat content of the landfill gas is
approximately 17,000 kJ · m−3 (a value lower than the theoretical value
because of dilution of the methane with air during recovery). The
landfill company and a developer have proposed to build a subdivision
in the vicinity of the landfill and pipe the methane generated to the
homes to be used for heating. The homes are estimated to use an average
of 110 × 106 kJ of heat energy each year. Peak usage during winter is
1.5 times the average usage. How many homes can be built in the
subdivision?
a. 5 homes c. 7 homes
b. 6 homes d. 8 homes

56. How many carbon atoms in olvanil?

a. 40 c. 15
b. 38 d. 26

57. What happen to the pH of carbonated drinks if open in atmospheric

conditions?
a. increase c. the same
b. decrease d. either (a) or (b)

58. Choose the common methods in the removal of fine particle in hot
airstream in cement production.
a. buoyancy c. ESP
b. cyclone separator d. venture scrubber
 For numbers 59 to 60:
59. An ice cube at 0 °C weighing 100.0 g is dropped into 1 kg of water at
20 °C. Does all of the ice melt? If not, how much of it remains? The
latent heat of fusion of ice at 0 °C is 6.025 kJ/mol, and the molar heat
capacity of water, C is 75.3 J/mol-K.
P
a. 100 g c. 58 g
b. 75 g d. 12 g

60. Perform the same calculations with 10 ice cubes of the same size dropped
into the water.
a. 1000 g c. 580 g
b. 750 g d. 120 g

61. Number of double bonds in geraniol

a. 3 c. 0
b. 1 d. 2

62. Experiments during a recent summer on a number of fireflies (small

beetles, Lampyridaes photinus) showed that the average interval between
flashes of individual insects was 16.3 s at 21.00C and 13.0 s at 27.80C.
What would be the average interval between flashes of an individual
firefly at 30.00C?
a. 11 s c. 12 s
b. 13 s d. 10 s

63. The decomposition of iodoethane in the gas phase proceeds according to

the following reactions:
C2H5I (g)  C2H4 (g) + HI (g)
At 660 K, k = 7.2x10-4 /s and at 720 K, k = 1.70x10-2/s. If the initial
pressure of iodoethane is 894 torr at 2450C, what is the pressure of
iodoethane after three half-lives?
a. 429 torr c. 356 torr
b. 112 torr d. 508 torr

64. A 1.60-g sample of a mixture of naphthalene and anthracene is dissolved

in 20.0 g benzene. The freezing point of the solution is 2.810C. What is
the composition as mass percent of the sample mixture?
a. 44% naphthalene c. 36% naphthalene
b. 60% naphthalene d. 57% naphthalene

65. Patients undergoing an upper gastrointestinal tract laboratory test are

typically given an X-ray contrast agent that aids with the radiologic
imaging of the anatomy. One such contrast agent is sodium diatrizoate,
a nonvolatile water-soluble compound. A 0.378-m solution is prepared by
dissolving 38.4 g sodium diatrizoate (NaDTZ) in 1.60 x102 mL water at
31.20C (the density of water at 31.20C is 0.995 g/cm3. What is the molar
mass of sodium diatrizoate?
a. 715 g/mol c. 584 g/mol
b. 639 g/mol d. 450 g/mol

66. Balance the chemical equation given K4Fe(CN)6 + H2SO4 + H2O = K2SO4 + FeSO4
+ (NH4)2SO4 + CO
a. 1,6,6,2,1,3,6 c. 6,3,1,2,6,6,1
b. 2,6,6,2,1,3,6 d. 1,6,6,2,1,2,6

67. Glycerin is a nonvolatile liquid. What is the vapor pressure of a

solution made by adding 164 g glycerin to 338 mL H2O at 39.88C?
a. 40 Torr c. 60 Torr
b. 50 Torr d. 30 Torr

68. What volume of 0.25 M HCl solution must be diluted to prepare 1.00 L of
0.040 M HCl?
a. 160 mL c. 110 mL
b. 140 mL d. 190 mL
69. Carbon tetrachloride, CCl4, has a vapor pressure of 213 torr at 400C and
836 torr at 800C. What is the normal boiling point of CCl4?
a. 580C c. 770C
b. 49 C
0 d. 600C

70. The enthalpy of combustion of CH4(g) when H2O(l) is formed is 2891 kJ/mol
and the enthalpy of combustion of CH4(g) when H2O(g) is formed is 2803
kJ/mol. Use these data and Hess’s law to determine the enthalpy of
vaporization for water.
a. 48 kJ c. 46 kJ
b. 44 kJ d. 40 kJ

71. A sample of an ideal gas at 15.0 atm and 10.0 L is allowed to expand
against a constant external pressure of 2.00 atm at a constant
temperature. Calculate the work in units of kJ for the gas expansion.
a. -10 kJ c. -17 kJ
b. -19 kJ d. -13 kJ

72. The influence of mixing of s and p orbitals; the greater the fraction
of s character of the hybrid orbital, the more electronegative is the
atom
a. Hybridization c. Hybridization Effect
b. Hybrid Orbitals d. Hybrid

73. Name the Alkane

CH3
a. 2-ethyl-3,4-dimethylpentane
CH3 H2C
b. 3,4,5-trimethylhexane
c. 4-ethyl-2,3-dimethylpentane
CH CH d. 2,3,4-trimethylhexane
H3C CH CH3

CH3

74. Are the following processes exothermic or endothermic?

I. When solid KBr is dissolved in water, the solution gets colder.
II. Natural gas (CH4) is burned in a furnace.
III. When concentrated H2SO4 is added to water, the solution gets very
hot.
IV. Water is boiled in a teakettle.
a. exothermic, exothermic, endothermic, endothermic
b. endothermic, exothermic, endothermic, endothermic
c. exothermic, exothermic, exothermic, endothermic
d. endothermic, exothermic, exothermic, endothermic

75. A 150.0-g sample of a metal at 75.00C is added to 150.0 g H2O at 15.08C.

The temperature of the water rises to 18.38C. Calculate the specific
heat capacity of the metal, assuming that all the heat lost by the metal
is gained by the water.
a. 0.11 J/g-degC c. 0.25 J/g-degC
b. 0.46 J/g-degC d. 0.38 J/g-degC

76. The best solar panels currently available are about 19% efficient in
converting sunlight to electricity. A typical home will use about 40 kWh
of electricity per day. Assuming 8.0 hours of useful sunlight per day,
calculate the minimum solar panel surface area necessary to provide all
of a typical home’s electricity.
a.33 m2 c. 19 m2
b.25 m2 d. 40 m2
77. Arrange the following in order of increasing radius and increasing
ionization energy: N+, N, N-
a. Radius: N- < N < N+, Ionization Energy: N- < N < N+
b. Radius: N+ < N < N-, Ionization Energy: N+ < N < N-
c. Radius: N- < N < N+, Ionization Energy: N+ < N < N-
d. Radius: N+ < N < N-, Ionization Energy: N- < N < N+

78. Predict which bond will be the most polar.

COF, SiOF, GeOF
a. Si-F c. Ge-F
b. C-F d. Both (a) and (c)

79. What is the major product of the reaction?

⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ 1. 𝐹𝑒 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
1. 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ 1. 𝐻𝑁𝑂2 1. ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐶𝑢2 (𝐶𝑁)2
2. 𝐻2𝑆𝑂4 2. 𝐻𝐶𝑙 2. 𝑙𝑜𝑤 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑝 2. ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡

a. Aniline c. Benzene
b. Benzonitrile d. Iodobenzene

80. An environmental engineering student was very interested in the reaction

of the chemical 2,4,6-chickenwire. She went into the lab and found that
2,4,6-chickenwire degrades in water. During her experiments she
collected the data in the following table. Determine if the reaction is
zero-, first-, second-, third-order with respect to the concentration
of 2,4,6-chickenwire.

Time, min Concentration, mg/L Time, min Concentration, mg/L

0 10.0 10 5.46
1 8.56 20 4.23
2 8.14 40 1.26
4 6.96 880 0.218
8 6.77

a. zero c. second
b. first d. third

81. Alcohols, phenols, and carboxylic acids all contain an OH group. Which
are the strongest acids? Which are the weakest acids?
a. carboxylic acid – strongest, phenol – weaker, alcohol - weakest
b. carboxylic acid – weaker, phenol – weakest, alcohol - strongest
c. carboxylic acid – weakest, phenol – strongest, alcohol – weaker
d. carboxylic acid – strongest, phenol – weakest, alcohol - weaker

82. The difference between the actual property value of a solution and the
value it would have as an ideal solution at the same T and P and
composition is called
a. Residual c. Excess
b. Partial property d. Gibbs free energy

83. Propanoic acid and methyl acetate are constitutional isomers, and both
are liquids at room temperature. One of these compounds has a boiling
point of 141°C; the other has a boiling point of 57°C. Which compound
has a higher boiling point?
a. propanoic acid c. same
b. methyl acetate d. either (a) or (b)

84. Calculate the weight of primary standard Na2C2O4 (134 g/mol) necessary
to react with 25 mL of 0.2005 M KMnO4 in acidic medium.
a. 0.671 gram c. 1.343 grams
b. 1.679 grams d. 2.687 grams
85. A gas occupies 56.44 L at 2.00 atm and 310 K. If the gas is compressed
to 23.52 L and the temperature is lowered to 281 K, what is the new
pressure?
a. 3.8 atm c. 4.4 atm
b. 1.9 atm d. 2.2 atm

86. Hypochlorous acid decays in the presence of ultraviolet radiation.

Assume that degradation occurs according to first-order kinetics and the
rate of degradation was measured to be 0.12 day−1 (at a particular
sunlight intensity and temperature). Given this, how long does it take
for the concentration of hypochlorous acid to reach nondetectable levels
(0.05 mg/L) if the initial concentration were 3.65 mg/L?
a. 25 days c. 36 days
b. 14 days d. 47 days

87. The company you work for plans to release a waste stream containing 7.0
mg/L of benzaldehyde. calculate the theoretical carbonaceous oxygen
demand of this waste stream (in mg/L).
a. 17 mg/L c. 19 mg/L
b. 11 mg/L d. 14 mg/L

88. A 0.0722 M acid has pH of 3.11, what is the Ka of the acid?

a. 4.2 x 10-6 c. 8.35 x 10-6
b. 8.35 x 10 -7 d. 4.2 x 10-7

89. The Nairyosangha landfill located in Peshdadians serves a population of

562,400 people generating MSW at a rate of 1.89 kg · capita−1 · day. The
volume of the landfill is 11,240,000 m 3. At the present time, 63% of the
landfill is used. The ratio of cover to compacted fill is 1.9. Determine
projected life remaining for the landfill.
a. 3 years c. 5 years
b. 6 years d. 4 years

90. Assume the density of the compacted waste to be 490 kg · m−3. What is
the ratio of HPO42- /H2PO4- in a phosphate buffer of pH 7.9 (the pH of
human pancreatic fluid)?
a. 3:1 c. 1:1
b. 4:1 d. 5:1

91. The discharge from the Renenutet sugar beet plant causes the DO at the
critical point to fall to 4.0 mg/L. The Meskhenet Stream has a negligible
BOD and the initial deficit after the river and wastewater have mixed
is zero. What DO will result if the concentration of the waste (Lw) is
reduced by 50%? Assume that the flows remain the same and that the
saturation value of DO is 10.83 mg/L in both cases.
a. 6.1 mg/L c. 8.9 mg/L
b. 7.4 mg/L d. 9.3 mg/L

92. A popular chemical demonstration is the “magic genie” procedure, in

which hydrogen peroxide decomposes to water and oxygen gas with the aid
of a catalyst. The activation energy of this (uncatalyzed) reaction is
70.0 kJ/mol. When the catalyst is added, the activation energy (at 200C)
is 42.0 kJ/mol. Theoretically, to what temperature (0C) would one have
to heat the hydrogen peroxide solution so that the rate of the
uncatalyzed reaction is equal to the rate of the catalyzed reaction at
200C? Assume the frequency factor A is constant, and assume the initial
concentrations are the same.
a. 1860C c. 2150C
b. 409 C
0 d. 3670C
93. A water contains 100.0 mg/L CO2−3 and 75.0 mg/L HCO−3 at a pH of 10 (T =
25◦C). Calculate the exact alkalinity. Approximate the alkalinity by
ignoring the appropriate chemical
species.
a. 167 mg/L c. 459 mg/L
b. 233 mg/L d. 385 mg/L

94. One of the few industrial-scale processes that produce organic compounds
electrochemically is used by the Monsanto Company to produce 1,4-
dicyanobutane. The reduction reaction is
2 CH2 = CHCN + 2H+ + 2e-  NC-(CH2)4-CN
The NC-(CH2)4-CN is then chemically reducing using hydrogen gas to H2N-
(CH2)6-NH2, which is used in the production of nylon. what current must
be used to produce 150 kg NC-(CH2)4-CN per hour?
a. 90700 A c. 74400 A
b. 65400 A d. 48900 A

95. Consider a weak acid, HX. If a 0.10-M solution of HX has a pH of 5.83

at 258C, what is change in Gibbs energy for the acid’s dissociation
reaction at 250C?
a. 8 kJ/mol c. 6 kJ/mol
b. 2 kJ/mol d. 4 kJ/mol

96. Calculate the theoretical oxygen demand of glutamic acid. Assume the
concentration of glutamic acid is 0.1 mM.
a. 16 mg/L c. 27 mg/L
b. 21 mg/L d. 12 mg/L

97. Above the stratosphere, the concentration of ozone and other gases is
low, and the temperature decreases with increasing altitude
a. troposphere c. mesosphere
b. stratosphere d. ionosphere

98. A rock contains 0.688 mg 206Pb for every 1.000 mg 238U present. Assuming
that no lead was originally present, that all the 206Pb formed over the
years has remained in the rock, and that the number of nuclides in
intermediate stages of decay between 238U and 206Pb is negligible,
calculate the age of the rock.
a. 7.5x107 years c. 3.8x109 years
b. 1.9x10 years
8 d. 2.1x107 years

99. Predict whether each of the following nuclides is stable or unstable

(radioactive). If the nuclide is unstable, predict the type of
radioactivity you would expect it to exhibit. 45K, 56Fe, 11Na, 194Tl.
a. unstable-alpha production, unstable-positron production, stable,
unstable-electron capture
b. unstable-beta production, stable, unstable-positron production,
unstable-alpha production
c. stable, stable, stable, stable
d. stable, unstable-alpha production, unstable-electron capture,
unstable-alpha production

100. The mass percent of carbon in a typical human is 18%, and the mass
percent of 14C in natural carbon is 1.6x 10-10%. Assuming a 180-lb person,
how many decay events per second occur in this person due exclusively
to the beta particle decay of 14C.
a. 3800 decay per s c. 4500 decay/s
b. 1900 decay per s d. 2700 decay/s