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UBND THÀNH PHỐ UÔNG BÍ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP THÀNH PHỐ
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 7
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

PART A: LISTENING (3 points)

I. Listen to an interview with an Olympic swimming champion – Jackson Avery. Decide if the statements are
true (T) or false (F). Circle T or F. You will listen TWICE. (1 point)
Statements True False
1. Jackson won in the 500-metre competition.
2. Jackson went running every day before the event.
3. Jackson ate a normal diet.
4. Jackson didn’t have a trainer.
5. Jackson needed to balance between training and rest.
II. Listen to the interview with John Adams, a travel writer. Circle the best answer A, B, or C. You will listen
TWICE. (1 point)
6. How many countries has John been to?
A. 15 B. 50 C. 200
7. What does John say about Ha Noi?
A. It has everything. B. Its nightlife is exciting. C. Its food is best.
8. What is John’s favourite city?
A. New York B. Pagan C. Bangkok
9. John says Pagan is the best place to __________.
A. see historic temples B. meet people C. see the sun rise
10. What does John say about Angkor Wat?
A. It has more tourists than Pagan.
B. It is the most impressive.
C. It has more temples than Pagan.
III. You will hear two people talking about a concert. Listen and fill in the blanks. (1 point)
Carnegie Hall
A Special Concert For All
 The concert will help raise money for the (0) poor.
 Date (11) __________
 Cost of ticket: (12) $__________ for adults
(13) $__________ for children under 12
 Concert starts at (14) __________ and ends at (15) __________
 For further details visit the Box Office or call (212) 247-7800

PART B: PHONETICS: (1 point)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (0.6 points)
16 A. cooked B. clicked C. talked D. naked
.
17 A. invention B. depend C. resort D. defeat
.
18 A. say B. scared C. sugar D. surprise
.
II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others. (0.4 points)
19. A. symbol B. novel C. admire D. gather
20. A. natural B. national C. literature D. suggestion

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PART C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (6 points)

21. There isn’t __________ foreign news in the paper.
A. a lot B. lots C. many D. much
22. Traffic accidents can be prevented if people __________ the rules.
A. remember B. obey C. go after D. take care of
23. Dinner will be ready soon. Can you please __________ the table?
A. lay B. put C. make D. take
24. I __________ go to school on foot. Now my school is far from my house so I go by bike.
A. can B. used to C. have to D. must
25. It took an hour to get to school __________ the traffic jam.
A. however B. because of C. since D. although
26. I __________ playing board games interesting because I can play them with my friends.
A. think B. find C. say D. tell
27. This painting is prettier, but it costs __________ the other one.
A. so much as B. as many as C. twice as much as D. twice as many
28. This summer Lan __________ three volunteer activities.
A. has participated in B. participated in C. participates in D. participating in
29. __________ coffee without milk is yours.
A. An B. A C. The D. Ø
30. - “Would you like me to turn off your computer?” - “__________ . I’ll do it myself.”
A. No, thanks B. Yes, please C. Don’t do it D. Of course
II. Put the verbs given in the brackets into their appropriate tenses. (1 point)
31. I’m really busy now. I _______am studying_____________ (study) for the final exam.
32. Is he used to _____driving_______________ (drive) on the left?
33. So far, we ______have finished______________ (finish) half of our work.
34. The Viet Nam Red Cross Society _______was established_____________ (establish) in 1916.
35. Jane suggested ______donating______________ (donate) old books, and toys to needy children.
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (1 point)
36. Walking is fun, easy and __________ activity. (EXPENSIVE)
37. Community __________ have a lot of positive effects on students. (SERVE)
38. The organization is funded by __________ donations. (CHARITY)
39. Nhi always brings an English dictionary in her __________. (PACK)
40. In 1484, King Le Thanh Tong ordered the __________ of the first Doctors’ stone tablets. (ERECT)
IV. Identify the error in the following sentences and correct it. (2 points)
41. What (A) happens to the grass (B) when it is (C) sending to (D) the factory.
42. This kind of jacket is (A) considered (B) to be very (C) fashion (D) these days.
43. You (A) look tired. (B) You’d better (C) staying inside (D) at recess.
44. (A) If I (B) will have to make (C) a difficult decision, I always (D) discuss it with my friends.
45. She (A) told me (B) to shut the door (C) but (D) don’t lock it.
46. (A) There is (B) a (C) ten-floors building in front (D) of my house.
47. Thanksgiving is (A) traditional (B) celebrated with a feast (C) among (D) family and friends.
48. (A) Villagers voluntarily (B) contributing money and (C) other things to (D) celebrate the festival.
49. (A) The film is about (B) sinking of the (C) ship Titanic (D) on their first voyage.
50. Tom Hanks is (A) one of the most (B) famous and (C) rich actors (D) in Hollywood.

PART D: READING (5 points)

I. Read the passage below and then circle the correct answer A, B, C or D. (2 points)
British parents are always (51) __________ that their children spend too much time (52) __________ TV
and do not have enough time on other activities like sports and reading. A (53) __________ survey of people’s
free time activities (54) __________ that young people spend about 23 hours a week in (55) __________ of the
television set, that means over 3 hours (56) __________. (57) __________, the average adult watches even
more: 28 hours a week. Every household in the country has a TV set and over half have two or more. (58)

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__________ to the survey, people do not only sit in their living room watching TV but also watch it in the
kitchen and in bed as well.
We can not deny that television also (59) __________ some negative effects especially children, because
many films shown on TV contain violence, crime and other bad things. Excessive watching of TV by children
has lowered (60) __________ results in studying at school.
51. A. complain B. complaining C. complains D. complained
52. A. to watch B. watch C. watching D. watched
53. A. recent B. recently C. late D. lately
54. A. show B. to show C. showing D. shows
55. A. back B. front C. side D. behind
56. A. a day B. a week C. a month D. a year
57. A. surprise B. surprised C. surprisingly D. to surprise
58. A. Because B. Addition C. Besides D. According
59. A. have B. having C. has D. had
60. A. its B. their C. his D. her
II. Read the text and questions below. For each question, write the correct letter A, B, C or D in the
numbered box below. Write your answers in the answer box below. (1 point)
In Britain, the climate is not very good. There are very few hot days and it rains a lot. Because of this, people
spend a lot of time at home. Generally, British homes have a lot of furniture in them, carpets on the floors and
heavy curtains.
Many houses in Britain are old. Many of them are over one hundred years old. Often, they do not have
enough insulation and the heat goes out through the windows, the doors and up the chimney.
Because of the climate, people in Britain have to spend a lot of money on heating. Many houses have a
special system called “central heating”. This heats all the rooms and, at the same time, heats the hot water.
Houses without central heating often have gas, electric or coal fires. New houses are much better. They have
two layers of glass in the windows to stop the heat going out.
61. Why do British people spend a lot of time at home?
A. Because the climate is very good. B. Because they don’t know where to go.
C. Because the climate is not very good. D. Because they want to stay at home.
62. The heat goes out of the house through __________.
A. the windows and up the chimney B. the windows, the doors and up the chimney
C. the doors and up the chimney D. the walls and up the chimney
63. Because of __________, people in Britain have to spend a lot of money on heating.
A. cold weather B. cool weather C. hot weather D. bad weather
64. Houses without central heating often have __________.
A. only coal fires B. gas or coal fires
C. electric or coal fires D. gas, electric or coal fires
65. New houses usually have __________ in the windows to stop the heat going out.
A. one layer of glass B. two layers of glass
C. three layers of glass D. two layers of gas
III. Read the following passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2 points)
In the USA, students (66) __________ their secondary education at the age of 11. First, they (67)
__________ to Middle School for three years. Then they go for High School for four years, from the age 14 to
18. Some students (68) __________ school when they are 16 and (69) __________ jobs. But most students (70)
__________ at High School till they are 18. Then they (71) __________ exams and they get “High School
Diploma”. There aren’t any national exams.
All students at secondary school in the USA (72) __________ English, maths, science, and P.E., but students
(73) __________ other subjects, so they don’t all study the same subjects.
About 90% of (74) __________ in the USA go to state school. About 10% go to (75) __________ schools.
Most of the private schools are religious schools.

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PART E: WRITING (5 points)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence given
before it. (2 points)
76. I haven’t met her for a week.
 The last time I ________________________________________
77. The festival took place in a remote area. However, a lot of people attended it.
 Although ________________________________________
78. The exam was more difficult than we thought.
 The exam wasn’t ________________________________________
79. Her father cycles slowly.
 Her father is ________________________________________
80. It took us over seven months to revise for this exam.
 We ________________________________________
81. The distance from Uong Bi to Ha Long City is about 50 kilometers.
 It is about ________________________________________
82. You ought to go to school now.
 It’s time ________________________________________
83. We all find painting interesting because it’s a creative activity.
 We all think ________________________________________
84. His hobby is collecting toy cars.
 He collects ________________________________________
85. Laura is a more confident teacher of pronunciation than I am.
 Laura teaches ________________________________________
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. Use the word given in
brackets. Don’t change the form of the word given. (2 points)
86. It isn’t necessary for you to finish the work today. (HAVE)
 You ________________________________________ work today.
87. Most people find it easy to eat with chopsticks. (DIFFICULTY)
 Most people have no ________________________________________ chopsticks.
88. Ms Tham enjoys learning English. (IN)
 Ms Tham is ________________________________________ English.
89. We plan to visit our grandparents next Monday. (GOING)
 We ________________________________________ next Monday.
90. Peter keeps forgetting his homework. (ALWAYS)
 Peter ________________________________________ his homework.
91. Vietnamese noodle is different from Korean one. (SAME)
 Vietnamese noodle ________________________________________.
92. I was very disappointed not to get the job. (DISAPPOINTING)
 It ________________________________________.
93. Her behaviour annoyed her teachers. (FOUND)
 Her ________________________________________.
94. I feel very relaxed when I see a romantic comedy. (SEEING)
 I feel ________________________________________ a romantic comedy.
95. How long is it since you used the car? (USE)
 When ________________________________________.
III. Use the words given to write a paragraph about Tet (96-100) (1 point)
Although/ there/ many/ celebration/ throughout/ year. Tet/ Lunar New Year holiday/ the/ important
celebration/ Vietnamese people. Tet / festival/ which/ occur/ late January/ early February. It/ time/ family/ clean
and decorate/ home. Family member/ live apart try/ be/ together/ Tet.
---------- THE END ----------

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UBND THÀNH PHỐ UÔNG BÍ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP THÀNH PHỐ
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 7
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

PART A. LISTENING (3 points - 0.2 pts for each correct answer)

I.
1. F
2. T
3. F
4. F
5. T
II.
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. A
III.
11. March 25th
12. 15 (fifteen)
13. 7 (seven)
14. 8:00
15. 10:00

PART B. PHONETICS (1 point - 0.2 pts for each correct answer)

I.
16. D
17. A
18. C
II.
19. C
20. D

PART C. GRAMMAR - VOCABULARY (6 points)

I. (2 points - 0.2 pts for each correct answer)
21. D
22. B
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. B
27. C
28. A
29. C
30. A
II. (1 point - 0.2 pts for each correct answer)
31. am studying
32. driving
33. have finished
34. was established
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35. donating
III. (1 point - 0.2 pts for each correct answer)
36. inexpensive
37. services
38. charitable
39. backpack
40. erection
IV. (2 points - 0.2 pts for each correct answer)
41. C => sending - sent
42. C => fashion - fashionable
43. C => staying - stay
44. B => will have to - have to
45. D => don’t lock - not to lock
46. C => ten floors - ten floor
47. A => traditional - traditionally
48. B => contributing - contribute
49. D => their first voyage - its first voyage
50. C => rich - richest

PART D. READING
I. (2 points - 0.2 pts for each correct answer)
51. B
52. C
53. A
54. D
55. B
56. A
57. C
58. D
59. C
60. B
II. (1 point - 0.2 pts for each correct answer)
61. C
62. B
63. A
64. D
65. B
III. (2 points - 0.2 pts for each correct answer)
66. start/ begin
67. go
68. leave
69. find
70. stay
71. take
72. study
73. choose
74. students
75. private

PART E. WRITING (5 points)

I. (2 points - 0.2 pts for each correct answer)
76. The last time I met her was a week ago.
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77. Although the festival took place in a remote area, a lot of people attended it.
78. The exam wasn’t as easy as we thought.
79. Her father is a slow cyclist.
80. We spent over seven months revising for this exam.
81. It is about 50 kilometers from Uong Bi to Ha Long City.
82. It’s time for you to go to school.
83. We all think painting is interesting because it’s a creative activity.
84. He collects toy cars as a/ his hobby.
85. Laura teaches pronunciation more confidently than I do/me.
II. (2 points - 0.2 pts for each correct answer)
86. You don’t have to finish the work today.
87. Most people have no difficulty (in) eating with chopsticks.
88. Ms Tham is interested in learning English.
89. We are going to visit our grandparents next Monday.
90. Peter is always forgetting his homework.
91. Vietnamese noodle is not the same as Korean one.
92. It was very disappointing not to get the job.
93. Her teachers found her behaviour annoying.
94. Seeing a romantic comedy is very relaxing. / Seeing a romantic comedy makes me feel very relaxed.
95. When did you use this car?
III. (1 point - 0.2 pts for each correct sentence)
(96) Although there are many celebrations throughout the year, (97) Tet or the Lunar New Year holiday is the
most important celebration for Vietnamese people. (98) Tet is a festival which occurs in late January or early
February. (99) It is a time for families to clean and decorate their home. (100) Family members who live apart
try to be together at Tet.
Total: 20 points

TRANSCRIPTS
Part 1.
Hello. This is Jiang An 6. Unit 8. Listening Test. Task 1. Listen to an interview with an Olympic swimming
champion, Jackson Avery.
Decide if the statements are true, or false. Circle T or F. You will listen twice. Now, you have 15 seconds to
look through the questions.
Hi, Jackson. Congratulations. How are you feeling? Thanks.
I still can’t believe I won. It was the 1,500 meters, wasn’t it? How did you prepare for it? Yes, it was the 1,500
meters. I trained for months before the event.
Every day. I ran 10 kilometers in the morning. And swam at least 50 rounds in the pool.
Did you have to follow a special diet? Oh, yes, with lots of beef and salmon. And with that busy training
schedule, did you have any time to relax at all? Luckily, yes. My coach said it’s important that I had enough
rest.
So I slept a lot and often went to the cinema or had coffee with friends at weekends. Now listen again. Hi,
Jackson.
Congratulations. How are you feeling? Thanks. I still can’t believe I won.
It was the 1,500 meters, wasn’t it? How did you prepare for it? Yes, it was the 1,500 meters. I trained for
months before the event. Every day.
I ran 10 kilometers in the morning. And swam at least 50 rounds in the pool. Did you have to follow a special
diet? Oh, yes, with lots of beef and salmon.
And with that busy training schedule, did you have any time to relax at all? Luckily, yes. My coach said it’s
important that I had enough rest. So I slept a lot and often went to the cinema or had coffee with friends at
weekends.
That is the end of task 1.

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Part 2.
Listen to the interview with John Adams, a travel writer. Circle the best answer, A, B or C. You will listen
twice. Now, you have 15 seconds to look through the questions.
So John, how many countries have you been to? About 50, mostly in Europe and Asia. What about cities? Must
be more than 200. I often visit 4 to 5 cities in each country.
Which city has been most impressive to you so far? It’s hard to say. New York has everything you can think of.
Rio is exciting and full of life.
Hanoi’s food is best. What’s your favorite then? It must be Pagoda in Myanmar. It’s a historic site with
hundreds of temples.
People are really nice and it’s the best place to watch the sunrise. People say the same thing about Angkor Wat.
Yes, but Angkor Wat is a lot more touristy.

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