18CIV59 –

ENVIRONMENTAL
STUDIES:
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS
Compiled by:
Mrs. Vyshnavi D R & Dr. Shivanna S
Dept of Civil Engineering
Sir MVIT
Bangalore – 562 157

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 ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES (18CIV59)
[As per Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) Scheme]
SEMESTER -V (All Branches)

18CIV5
Subject Code IA Marks 40
9

60 (But Exam will be

Number of Lecture Exam
01 conducted for 100 Marks – 100
Hours/ Week Marks
questions)

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 MODULE-1
(Part A)
1. The term ‘Environment’ has been derived from the French word which means
to encircle or surround
a) Environ b) Oikos c) geo d) Aqua

2. The term ecosystem was proposed by,

a) Jacob Van Verkul b) A.G.Transley c) Costanza d) Marrie Gibbs

3. World Environment day is on,

a) 5th May b) 5th June c) 18th July d) 16th August

4. The objective of environmental education is

a) Raise consciousness about environmental conditions
b) To teach environmentally appropriate behavior
c) Create an environmental ethic
d) All of the above

5. Which of the following conceptual spheres of the environment is having the

least storage capacity for matter?
a) Atmosphere b) Lithosphere c) Hydrosphere d) Biosphere

6. Which of the following components of the environment are effective

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transporters of matter?
a) Atmosphere and Hydrosphere b) Atmosphere and Lithosphere
c) Hydrosphere and Lithosphere d) Biosphere and Lithosphere
6. Atmosphere consists of 79 per cent Nitrogen and 21 per cent Oxygen by
a) Volume
b) Weight
c) Density
d) All the three

7. Biosphere is
a) The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the earth
b) The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of earth comprising of
all the living things
c) The sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all of the spheres
d) all of the above

8. Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?

a) Fungi b) solar light c) temperature d) humidity

9. In an ecosystem, the flow of energy is

a) Bidirectional b) Cyclic c) Unidirectional d) Multidirectional

10. Which Pyramid is always upright

a) Energy b) biomass c) numbers d) food chain

11. In complex ecosystems the degree of species diversity is

a) Poor b) high c) medium d)none
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12. The organisms who directly feed on producers are called
a) Herbivores b) Carnivores c) Decomposers d) Saprophytes
13. The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is called
a) Food Chain
b) carbon cycle
c) hydrological cycle
d) anthroposystem

14. Which of the following is a producer in an ecosystem

a) Plants and some bacteria capable of producing their own food
b) Animals
c) Human beings
d) Fish

15. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Inorganic nutrients are recycled in an ecosystem
b) Energy ‘flows’ through the ecosystem in the form of carbon-carbon
bonds
c) Energy is recycled in an ecosystem
d) Respiration process releases energy

16. The largest reservoir of nitrogen in our planet is

a) Oceans b) Atmosphere c) biosphere d) Fossil fuels

17. In aquatic ecosystem phytoplankton can be considered as a

a) Consumer b) producer c) Saprotrophic organisms d) Macroconsumer

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18. The basic requirements of human beings are provided by
a) Industrializationb) Agriculture c) Nature d) Urbanization
19. Environment is the life support system that includes
a) Air
b) Water
c) Land
d) All of the above

20. In an ecosystem biological cycling of materials is maintained by

a) Producer
b) Consumer
c) Decomposer
d) All of the above

21. Organisms which feed directly or indirectly on producers are called

a) Prey
b) Consumers
c) Decomposers
d) Detritus

22. The primary producers in a forest ecosystem are

a) Chlorophyll containing trees and plants
b) Herbivores
c) Carnivores
d) Bacteria and other microorganisms

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23. Abiotic component includes
a) Soil
b) Temperature
c) Water
d) All of the above

24. Which of the following statement is true

a) Green plants are self-nourishing
b) Producers depends on consumers
c) Biotic components includes all non-living components
d) Herbivores depend on Carnivores

25. Primary consumer is

a) Herbivores
b) Carnivores
c) Macro consumers
d) Omnivores

26. A predator is
a) An animal that is fed upon
b) An animal that feeds upon another animal
c) Animal that feeds upon both plants and animals
d) A primary consumer

27. Access to food is mainly determined by

a) Household income
b) Food assistance programmes
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c) Human resources
d) Society/Community
28. The word ‘Environment’ is derived from
a) Greek b) French c) Spanish d) English

29. Which among the following is a climatic factor?

a) Pressure b) humidity c) Temperature d) all of the above

30. The major atmospheric gas layer in stratosphere is

a) Hydrogen b) Carbon dioxide c) Ozone d) Helium

31. Which atmospheric sphere is closest to the earth surface?

a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) Exosphere

32. Which of the following is the terrestrial ecosystem?

a) Forest b) Grass land c) Desert d) All of the above

33. Ecological pyramids are studies of

a) Pyramid of numbers b) Pyramid of biomass c) Pyramid of energy
d) All of the above

34. World Environment day is on

a) 5th May b) 5th June c) 18th July d) 16th August

35. Factors responsible for balanced ecosystem are

a) Balance between predator and prey
b) Balance between vegetation, herbivorous and carnivorous

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c) Balance between competing species and biotic factors
d) All of the above
36. Which of the following is absorbed by green plants from the atmosphere?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Water
c) Nutrients
d) All of above

37. Habitat refers to

a) Physical conditions of the place where organisms live
b) Chemical conditions of the place where organisms live
c) Both a & b
d) None of a or b

38) Essential component of social security are

a) Meeting personal growth and development
b) Maintaining natural capital
c) Fairness and equity in distribution of costs of resources.
d) Community resilience

39. Socio – economic security in environmental aspects involves

a) Fairness & equity in distribution costs for complete existing generation
b) Welfare of the present generation c) Intra and inter-generational equity of
resources d) All of the above

40. A food web consists of

a) a portion of a food chain b) an organism’s position in a food chain
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c) Interlocking food chains d) a set of similar consumers

41. Which of the following statements are true?

a) Man is not dependent on nature
b) Resources are unlimited, so one can use them as per one’s wish.
c) Energy can be converted from one form to another, but some
percentage is lost into the environment
d) Matter can be generated afresh. It need not be recycled or reused.

42. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled to ensure food security?
a) Food must be available
b) Each person must have access to it
c) Food utilized/consumed must fulfill nutritional requirements
d) all of the above

43. Maximum deposition of DDT will occur in

a) Crab b) Phytoplankton c) Eel d) Sea gull

44. A community that starts the process of succession in a habitat is called

a) Abiotic community b) Biotic community c) Pioneer community
d) Artificial community

45. Most stable ecosystem is

a) Forest b) Desert c) Mountain d) Ocean

46. Increase in Fauna and decrease in Flora would be harmful due to increase in
a) CO2 b) Diseases c) O2 d) Radioactive pollution

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47. A primary succession on bare rock starts with
a) Herbs b) Lichens c) Trees d) Animals

48. Tropical forests occur in India in

a) Rajasthan b) Jammu and Kashmir c) Kerala and Assam d) No where

49. The Food chain in which microorganisms’ breakdown dead producers is called
a) Predator food chain b) Consumer food chain c) Parasitic food chain
d) Detritus food chain

50. An ecosystem consists of

a) Green plants and animals b) Producer and consumers c) Green plants and
decomposers d) Green plants, animals, decomposers and abiotic environment

51. In a food chain animal constitute the

a) First trophic level b) Second trophic level c) Ultimate trophic level
d) Intermediate level

52. The short-term properties of the atmosphere at a given place and time is
referred as
a) Climate b) Microclimate c) Weather d) Season

53. The Environment which has been modified by human activities is called
a) Natural environment b) Anthropogenic environment c) Modern environment
d) Urban environment
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54. Major purpose of most of the dams around the world is:
a) Power generation b) Irrigation c) Flood control d) Drinking water supply

55. Biosphere is a term used to represent the

a) Entire atmosphere consisting of troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and
thermosphere
b) Entire hydrosphere- representing the entire collection of water over the Earth as
well as inside the Earth
c) A small Zone of Earth, where the lithosphere, hydrosphere, and
atmosphere come in contact with one another
d) Entire lithosphere-representing the solid Earth and its interior

56. The organisms which feed on dead organisms and excreta of living organisms
are known as
a) decomposers b) consumers c) producers d) carnivores

57. A food web are

a) one kind of food b) not related to food chains at all c) inter connected
arrangement of food chains d) linear arrangement of food chains

58. In a food chain human are

a) Secondary consumers b) Primary consumer c) producers d) primary and
secondary consumers both

59. Green plants are also called the

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a) Autotrophs b) Producers c) Converters d) all of the above

60. Ecological pyramid refers to the

a) Pyramid of energy b) pyramid of number c) pyramid of Biomass d) all of the
above.

61. Fraction of sunlight used by plants in photosynthesis is about

a) 0.2% b) 2.0% c) 0.02% d) 20.0%

62. Driving Force in an ecosystem is

a) Plants b) Producers c) Solar energy d) Biomass energy

63. The desert among the following which is not a cold desert is
a) Golbi desert b) Patagonian Desert c) Atacama Desert d) Majava desert

64. The darker zone in lakes where light penetration is negligible is called the
a) Euphotic zone b) littoral zone c) limnetic zone d) benthic zone

65. The zone of a sea lying over the continental shelf is known as the
a) bathyal zone b) neritic zone c) abyssal zone d) littoral zone

66. An ecosystem may not undergo changes because

a) It is in a state of homeostasis b) It has plants and animals both
c) It gets solar energy continuously d) the decomposers are present in it

67. The conversion of a small lake into a forest represents

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a) A primary succession b) An allogenic succession c) An autogenic succession
d) none of the above
68. Climax stage in hydroseed is
a) woodland b) swamp c) forest d) meadow

69. The human activity, among the following, which causes maximum
environmental pollution having regional and global impacts, is
a) Urbanization b) Industrialization c) Agriculture d) mining

70. A distinct unit of life in nature is:

a) Population b) Ecosystem c) Organisms d) Landscape

71. Name of the Scientist who gave the difference between Niche and Habitat, is:
a) Odum b) Ernest Haeckel c) Grinnell d) Both a and c

72. Construction of dams has

a) Only merits b) Only demerits c) Neither merits and demerits d) Merits as well
as demerits

73. The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is called

a) Food chain b) Hydrological cycle c) Carbon cycle d) Anthropogenic

74. The part of the earth in which life exists is known as

a) Lithosphere b) Biosphere c) Atmosphere d) Ionosphere

75. Environment means

a) A beautiful landscape b) Industrial Production c) Sum total of all condition
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d) Air and water

76. Troposphere has an altitude range of

a) 11-50 km b) 0-11 km c) 20-80 km d) 80-200 km

77. Taungya system is

a) Agro Forestry b) Inexhaustible c) Exhaustible d) Mining

78. Lithosphere means

a) Air b) Water c) Micro-organism d) Rocks and soil

79. The forest is

a) Abiotic b) Biotic c) Both a and b d) None of these

80. Most biotic resources are

a) Non-renewable b) Renewable c) Jhum d) None of these

81. Abiotic components include the

a) Climate and edaphic factors b) Climate factor c) Edaphic factor d) None of
these

82. Natural ecosystem is called

a) Anthropogenic b) Human activity c) Both a and b d) None of these

83. Environment education is targeted to

a) General public b) Technicians and Scientists c) Professional social groups
d) All of these
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84. ISO 14000 standards deal with
a) Pollution management b) Risk management c) Environmental management
d) None of these

85.The first International Earth summit was held at

a) Johannesburg b) Rio de Janeiro c) Kyoto d) Stockholm

86. Biosphere is
a) The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the earth
b) The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of earth, comprising of all
the living things.
c) The sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all of the spheres
d) All of these.

87. The objective of environmental education is to

a) Raise consciousness about environmental conditions
b) Teach environmentally by appropriate behavior
c) Create an environmental ethic
d) All of these

88. Habitat refers to

a) Physical conditions of the place where the organisms live
b) Chemical conditions of the place where the organisms live
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d) None of these

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89. Concentration of pollutants in successive trophic levels is known as
a) Bio-magnification b) Bio-remediation c) Bio-accumulation d) All of these

90. The major chemical species in Stratosphere are

a) O3 b) O2 c) N2 d) All of these

91. Ionosphere consists of electrically charged particles of

a) NO2+ b) O+ c) O2+ d) All of these

92. Economic and Social security is required against

a) Unemployment b) Illness c) Old age d) All of these

93. Employment security is diminishing due to the

a) Out-source b) Informalization of economic activity c) Regulatory reforms
d) All of these

94. Socio-economic hardships are caused due to

a) Lack of labor law coverage b) Seasonal & temporary nature of occupation
d) High labor mobility & casualization of labor d) All of these

95. Which one of the following is not a type of wetland

a) Bogs b) marshes c) swamps d) none of these

96. Which one of the following is not a fresh water Biome

a) Lotic b) Lentic c) Springs d) deep sea

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97. The committee which submitted its report to government of India on
environmental education is
a) Tiwari Committee b) Mehta Committee c) Banerjee Committee
d) Agarwal Committee

98. The term environment was introduced by

a) Jacob Van Verkul b) Tyler Miller c) Gilbertson d) Charles Darwin

99. An ecosystem is a region in which

a) Dead organism interacts with their environment
b) Living organism do not interact with their environment
c) Living organism interact with their environment
d) Al of the above

100. The two major components of ecosystem are

a) Adiabatic and isotropic b) Ecologic and climatologic c) Cyclic and biologic
d) Abiotic and biotic

101.Food chain is divided into ……..basic categories

a) Four b) Three c) Five d) Seven

102. The transfer of energy and nutrients from one feeding group of organisms to
another in a series is called
a) Energy chain b) Food chain c) Balanced ecosystem d) Food web

103.The thickness of the earth’s crust is

a) Between 5 to 70 km b) 200 km c) 500 km d) 1000 km
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104. In an aquatic ecosystem phytoplankton can be considered as a
a) consumer b) producer c) Macro consumer d) None of these
105. Anthropogenic activities means:
a) Natural activities b) Bacteriological activities c) Wild animals activities
d) Human activities

106. Which of the following age structure pyramid indicates stable population?
a) Pyramid shaped b) Bell shaped c) An urn shaped d) none of these

107. A food web consists of

a) A portion of a food chain
b) Interlocking food chain
c) Producers, consumers and decomposers
d) a set of similar consumers

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 (Part B)
1. Which of the following is not the environmental effect of industrialization,
in
general?
a) Solid waste b) Water Pollution c) Air pollution d) Economic growth

2. which of the following are major environmental issues involved in mining?

a) Air pollution from dust b) Water pollution c) Soil degradation d) All of the
above

3. Sustainable development means

a) Meeting present needs without compromising on the future needs
b) Progress in human well beings
c) Balance between human needs and the ability of Earth to provide the resources
d) All the above

4. The most important remedy to avoid negative impact due to industrialization

is
a. Industry should be closed
b. Don’t allow new industrial units
c. Industry should treat all the wastes generated by it before disposal
d. Industries should be shifted far away from human habit tats.

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5. Mining means
a. to conserve & preserve mineralsb. to check pollution due to mineral resources
c. to extract minerals and oresd. None
6. E.I.A. can be expanded as
a. Environment & Industiral Act
b. Environment & Impact Activities
c. Environmental Impact Assessment
d. Environmentally Important Activity

7. E.I.A. is related to
a. Resource conservation
b. Efficient equipment/process
c. Waste minimization
d. All of the above

8. In order to protect the health of people living along the adjoining areas of
roads, one should.
a. Plant trees alongside of the roads
b. Not allow diesel driven vehicles
c. Shift them (people) to other places
d. None of the above

9. The pollution caused by transportation/vehicular activities depends on

a. Type of the vehicle’s engine
b. Age of the vehicle
c. Traffic congestion
d. All of the above

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10. Sustainable development will not aim at
a) Social economic development which optimizes the economic and societal
benefits available in the present, without spoiling the likely potential for similar
benefits in the future
b) Reasonable and equitably distributed level of economic wellbeing that can be
perpetuated continually
c) Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the
ability of future generations to meet their own needs
d) Maximizing the present day benefits through increased resource consumption

11. Which of the following is a key element of EIA?

a) Scoping b) Screening c) Identifying and evaluating alternatives d) all of the
above

12. ‘Earth Day’ is held every year on

a) June 5th b) November 23rd c) April 22nd d) January 26th

13. Eutrophication is
a) An improved quality of water in lakes
b) A process in carbon cycle
c) The result to accumulation of plant nutrients in water bodies
d) A water purification technique

14. Major purpose of most of the Dams around the world is

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a) Power generation b) Drinking water supply c) Flood control d) Irrigation

15. Which of the following is the most environmental friendly agriculturepractice?

a) Using chemical fertilizers
b) Using insecticides
c) Organic farming
d) None of the above

16. The adverse effect of modern agriculture is

a) Water pollution
b) Soil degradation
c) Water logging
d) All of the above

17. Soil erosion removes surface soil which contains

a) Organic matter
b) Plant nutrients
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

18. Water logging is a phenomenon in which

a) Crop patterns are rotated
b) Soil root zone becomes saturated due to over irrigation
c) Erosion of soil
d) None of the above

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19. The impact of construction of dams
a) Submerges forest
b) Loss of wild life habitat
c) Damages downstream ecosystem
d) All of the above

20. Which of the following statement is False?

a) Soil erosion affects the productivity of agriculture fields
b) It takes 300 years for one inch of agricultural top soil to form
c) The amount of erosion depends on soil type, slope, drainage pattern and crop
management practices
d) Soil erosion helps to retain water and nutrients in the root zone

21. Which of the following statement is true?

a) Surface runoff do not carry pesticides into streams
b) Water percolating downward through agriculture lands carries with it dissolved
chemicals and contaminates ground water
c) Present agricultural practice does not contaminate water
d) None of the above

22. Farmers have a tendency

a) use optimum quantity of water b) to over irrigate their crops
c) to conserve water d) All of the above

23. Organic Farming is

a) Farming without using pesticides and chemical fertilizers
b) Enhances biodiversity
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c) Promotes soil biological activity
d) All of the above

24. What would you do to prevent environmental damage?

a) Plant trees
b) Halt deforestation
c) Control pollution
d) All of the above

25. Environmental impact assessment

a) Is a study of feasibility of a project
b) Is a study of bio-physical characteristics of the environment that may result from
a human action
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d) None of the above

26. EIA study will help

a) Maximizing the benefits without overloading the planets ecosystem
b) To estimate the future needs of the society
c) To smooth implementation of the project
d) To cope up with rapid growth of population

27. Ecosystem is disturbed by housing activity because

a) Large volume of raw materials like brick, stone, timber, cement, steel
plastic
etc are required to be produced
b) Housing is required to provide shelter to growing population
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c) Majority of housing projects are concentrated in cities only
d) Standard of living is increased by modern houses

28. Environmental impact of mining

a) Brings order into social setup
b) Devastation of ecosystem
c) Present mining activity is a sustainable development
d) Mining has no adverse effect on ecosystem as it is located in remote areas

29. Effect of modern agriculture on soil is due to

a) Erosion b) Acidification c) Salinization d) All

30. Bio-remediation means the removal of contaminants from

a) Soil b) Wastewater c) Groundwater d) Both Soil and Groundwater

31. Terrace farming is practiced in

a) Deserts b) Coastal areas c) Hills d) Plains

32. Soil conservation is a process in which

a) Soil erosion is allowed b) Soil is aerated c) Sterile soil is made fertile
d) Soil is protected against loss

33. Soil erosion can be prevented by

a) Removal of Vegetation b) Over grazing c) Deforestation d) Afforestation

34. Extensive planting of trees to increase cover is called

a) Afforestation b) Agro forestation c) Social forestry d) Deforestation
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35. The best soil for healthy and vigorous growth of most plants is
a) Sandy b) Clayey c) Loam d) Clayey loam
36. Which of the following groups of plants can be used as indicators of SO 2
pollution of air?
a) Epiphytic lichens b) Ferns c) Liver worts d) Horn worts

37. Which of the following is responsible for desertification?

a) Deforestation b) Mining c) Overgrazing d) All of the above

38. Overgrazing results in

a) Soil erosion b) Retention of useful species c) Productive soils d) All of the
above

39. Major purpose of the dams around the world is:

a) Power generation
b) Irrigation
c) Flood control
d) Drinking water supply

40. Which of the following statements in relation to sustainable development is

untrue?
a) Sustainable development is defined as the development that meets the needs of
present without compromising the ability of our future generations to meet their
own needs
b) Sustainability has the main objective of purely focusing on the natural
environment
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c) Sustainable development of various countries and the entire world is the only
solution left with mankind to survive for a longer period on Earth
d) Sustainable development not only considers the protection of the environment
but also the maintenance of economic viability as well as the social and ethical
considerations

41. The major cause for land degradation in our country is

a) Soil erosion b) pollution of soil c) water-logging d) none of the above

42. Wastelands are not generated due to

a) Un-sustained agricultural practices
b) Over-grazing by domesticated animals and increasing number of herbivores due
to large scale killing of carnivores like tigers, lions, etc.
c) Natural causes like poor rainfall or high winds etc
d) None of the above

43.Which among the following is not an adverse environmental impact of tidal

power generation?
a) Interference with spawing and migration of fish
b) Pollution and health hazard in the estuary due to blockage of flow of polluted
water into the sea
c) navigational hazard
d) none of the above

44. Secondary sector of Industries consumes large amount of

a) Fertilizers b) raw materials c) land d) none of these

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45. Hydro-electric energy generation causes environmental problem such as
a) earthquake b) habitat loss c) deforestation d) all of these
46. The major environmental impact of agriculture is
a) Conversion of forest land to crop land b) Conversion of grass-land to crop land
c) Planting trees in crop land d) both a) and b)

47. Organic farming is farming without

a) Synthetic fertilizers b) Pesticides c) green manures d) both a) and b)

48. Secondary sector of industries consumes large amount of

a) Fertilizers b) Raw materials c) Land c) None of these

49. Service industry includes

a) Insurance b) Education c) Health care d) all of these

50. Indirect environmental effects of widespread use of automobiles are

a) Urban sprawlb) Paving of vast areas of watershed
c) Alteration of runoff patterns d) all of these

51. EIA is used to

a) Establishing the environmental base line data
b) Impact identification
c) (a) & (b)
d) To identify alternate industries

52. Sustainability requires

a) Conservation of resources
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b) Minimizing depletion of non-renewable resources
c) Using sustainable practices for managing renewable resources
d) all of these

53. Molasses from sugar industry is used to generate

a) Biodiesel b) Hydrogen c) Bioethanol d) bio methanol

54. Expand EIS

a) Environmental Impact statement b) Environmental industrial statement
c) Environmental Impact solution d) Environmental industrial solution

55. Cholera and Typhoid are caused by

a) Housefly b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus

56. EIA study will help

a) Maximizing the benefits without overloading the planets ecosystem
b) To estimate the future needs of the society
c) To smooth implementation of the project
d) To cope up with rapid growth of population

57. Which of the following is most environmental friendly agriculture practice?

a) Using chemical fertilizers b) Use of Bio-compost materials
c) Using alluvial soil d) without pesticides and chemical fertilizers

58. Facultative Bacteria existing in which type of environmental condition?

a) Presence of oxygen b) Absence of oxygen c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
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59. Which of the following are major environmental issues in mining activities?
a) Air pollution and Dust b) Water pollution c) Soil Degradation d) Al of these

60. Decreased soil fertility through rapid leaching of the essential mineral
nutrients is due to
a) Reforestation b) Deforestation c) Over exploitation d) Recycling of forest
products.

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 MODULE 2
(Part – A)

1. Plants use ………..gas for photosynthesis

a) Oxygen b) methane c) Nitrogen d) Carbon dioxide

2. Deforestation means
a) Preservation of forests b) destruction of forests c) Monocrop cultivation
d) Agriculture

3. What percentage of its geographical area of a country should be under forest

cover?
a) 23% b) 43% c) 13% d) 33%

4. About …………% of the earth’s surface is covered by water

a) 53% b) 19% c) 71% d) 90%

5. During photosynthesis, trees produce

a) Oxygen b) Carbon Dioxide c) Nitrogen d) Carbon Monoxide

6. Forests prevent soil erosion by binding soil particles in their

a) Stems b) roots c) leaves d)buds

7. Major causes of deforestation are

a) Shifting cultivation b) Fuel requirements c) Raw materials for industries
d) All of these

8. Blue baby syndrome (methaemoglobinemia) is caused by the contamination of

water due to
a) Phosphates b) Sulphur c) Arsenic d) Nitrates

32
9. Which of the following statements about forest is not correct?
a) Forests reduces soil erosion b) Provides recreational opportunities
c) Provides a source of economic development d) None of the above

10. India has the largest share of which of the following?

a) Manganese b) Mica c) Copper d) Diamond

11. Out of the following nutrients in fertilizer, which one causes minimum water
pollution?
a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorous c) Potassium d) Organic matter

12. What is the permissible range of PH for drinking water as per the Indian
Standards?
a) 6 to 9 b) 6.5 to 7.5 c) 6 to 8.5 d) 6.5 to 8.5

13. What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water?

a) 1.0 milligram per liter b) 1.25 milligram per literc) 1.50 milligram per liter
d) 1.75 milligram per liter

14. Excess fluorides in drinking water is likely to cause

a) Blue babies b) fluorosis c) taste and odor d) intestinal irritation

15. Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution?

a) Factories b) Sewage treatment plants c) urban and suburban lands
d) All of the above

16. The movement of carbon between _________ is called carbon cycle.

a) Atmosphere & biosphere
b) Atmosphere & hydrosphere
c) Geosphere & atmosphere
d) Biosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere & geosphere

17. The depletion of trees is causing accumulation of

a) NO2b) SO2c) CO2d) O2

18. Earth’s atmosphere contains ______ % nitrogen.

a) 98% b) 12% c) 21% d) 78%

19. Plants can take up nitrogen in two forms _________

a) NH4+& NO3b) NH3& N2c) NO3d) NO2
33
20. Conversion of ammonium to NO3 by chemical oxidation is termed as
a) Mineralisation
b) Leaching
c) Nitrification
d) Denitrification

21. Nitrogen fixing bacteria exists in ______ of plants.

a) Leaf
b) Roots
c) Stem
d) Flower

22. Sulphur occurs in soil and rocks in the form of ______

a) Oxides of Zn & Fe
b) Sulphates of Zn & Fe
c) Nitrates of Zn & Fe
d) Sulphides of Zn & Fe

23. Livestock wastes release large amount of .................in to environment.

a) NH4b) NH3c) NO3d) NO4

24. Conversion of nitrates into gases of nitrogen is called_________

a) Nitrification
b) Nitrogen fixing
c) Reduction
d) Denitrification

25. Forest rich area in Karnataka is found in ______

a) Western Ghats
b) Bandipur
c) Nagarhole
d) Mangalore

26. ________ are referred to as Earth’s lungs.

a) Forests
b) Carbon cycles
c) Water sources
d) Mines
34
27. Among the fresh water available in the Earth the percentage of surface water
is about
a) 50% b) 10% c) 5% d) less than 1%

28. Important factor that causes water borne disease is

a) Using contaminated sewage for Irrigation
b) Leaching of untreated fecal and urinary discharges into water bodies
c) Discharge of industrial waste water
d) By eating contaminated food.

29. Cholera & typhoid are caused by

a) Worms b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus

30. Major sources of fluoride is

a) River water b) Tooth paste c) Ground water d) Food products

31. Hepatitis is caused by

a) Protozoa b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus

32. Excessive Nitrate in drinking water causes

a) Fever b) Cough & chill c) Blue babies d) Gastro Enteritis

32. Disfigurement in the teeth is caused by excessive amount of

a) Mercury b) Nitrate c) Fluoride d) Lead

33. Mineral resources are

a) Renewable b) Available in plenty c) Nonrenewable d) Equally distributed

34. Control of water borne diseases can be achieved effectively by

a) Treatment of disease
b) By consuming mineral water
c) By proper treatment of waste water & protecting the source of water
d) By vaccination

35. Which of the following is not a natural mineral?

a) Asbestos b) feldspar c) Phosphate d) Nitrogen

36. Forests are extremely important because they

a) Provide clean water and clean air
35
b) Provide habitat for wild life
c) Provide recreation and a change from the hectic urban
d) all of the above

37. Deforestation means

a) Creation of new forest land for the wild life
b) Planting trees in the cities
c) Conversion of forest land for agriculture/ pasture/ homes etc.
d) Not managing the forest properly

38. The oceans are the largest storage of water on earth containing:
a) 95% of earth’s water
b) 85% of earth’s water
c) 97% of earth’s water
d) 75% of earth’s water

39. Which of the following is not a part of the hydrological cycle?

a) Precipitation b) Infiltration c) Transpiration d) Perspiration

40. The ground water depends on

a) Amount of rain fall
b) Geological formations
c) Run off
d)All of the above

41. In India ground water is rich in

a) Plains of rivers Kaveri and Krishna
b) The plains of Netravati and Kapila
c) The Gangetic plains
d) The Deccan plateau

42. The required Iron content in drinking water as specified by BIS is

a) 300 mg/l b) 30 mg/l c) 3 mg/l d) 0.3 mg/l

43. Pick out which is not concerned to carbon cycle

a) Respiration b) Combustion of fossil fuels c) Photo synthesis d) Transpiration

44. Fixation of Nitrogen is done by

a) Lightening b) Fixing bacteria c) Fertilizer factory d) All of the above

36
45. Sulphur-di-oxide is used in
a) Paper manufacture b) Textile manufacture c) Processing of fossil fuels
d) Both (a) and (b)

46. BOD is
a) Biochemical oxygen demand b) a measure of the organic matter present in
wastewater c) usually less than COD d) all of the above

47. Which of the following is a waterborne disease?

a) Anthrax b) Tuberculosis c) Cholera d) Small pox

48. Hydrological cycle mainly involves

a) Air and water b) Sun and water c) Animal and water d) Mountain and water

49. The basic requirements of human beings are provided by

a) Industrialization b) Agriculture c) Development d) Urbanization

50. B.O.D. measures

a) Industrial pollution b) Air pollution c) Polluting capacity of effluents
d) D.O. needed by microbes for decomposition

51. Minamata disease is caused due to

a) Lead b) Arsenic c) Mercury d) Cadmium

52. Physical pollution of water is due to,

a) Dissolved oxygen b) Turbidity c) pH d) None of the above

53. Disfigurement in the teeth is caused by excessive amount of,

a) Mercury b) Nitrate c) Fluoride d) Lead

54. Which of the following is not a method for water conservation?

a) Rain water harvesting b) Ground water extraction c) Improving Irrigation
efficiency d) Avoiding water wastage

55. Water plays key role in evaluation of

a) Earth’s ecosystems b) moderate climate c) none of these d) (a) & (b)

37
56. What is the percentage of fresh water available in lakes and streams?
a) 0.04 b) 0.01 c) 0.25 d) 0.1

57. Water quality is depending on

a) Biological characteristics b) aesthetic characteristics c) Physical d) all of these

58. Malaria is a
a) Water borne disease b) water induced disease c) (a) & (b) d) none of these

59. Fluoride concentration of more than 1.5 mg/L in drinking water causes
a) Dental fluorosis b) dental caries c) blue baby disease d) none of these

60. Which of the following is not a method for water conservation?

a) Rain water harvesting b) reducing water usage c) ground water extraction
d) Water recycling

61. Major source of Fluoride is

a) River water b) Tooth paste c) Ground water d) Food products

62. Water plays key role in the evaluation of

a) Earth’s ecosystems b) moderate climate c) none of these d) d) (a) & (b)

63. Nitrogen fixation from the atmosphere is high in which type of plants?
a) Manocoteliden b) Liguminus c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above

64. Largest reservoir of Nitrogen is existing in:

a) Hydrosphere b) Lithosphere c) Atmosphere d) Stratosphere

65. Conversion of nitrates into gases of nitrogen is called

a) Nitrification b) Nitrogen fixing c) Reduction d) Denitrification

66. A major carbon storage reservoir in the carbon cycle is

a) Rivers b) Atmosphere c) Treesd) Ocean

67. Water used for irrigation of Food crops, Fodder crops and medical herbs is
known as
a) Consumptive use b) Commercial use c) Productive use d) Auxiliary use
38
68. Water quality involves measuring the number of colonies of
a) Coliform bacteria b) Protozoa c) Cells d) Chromosomes

69. Typhoid, Cholera are examples of

a) Viral infection b) Bacterial infection c) Protozoan infection
d) None of the above.

70. The earth’s land surface covered by forest is about

a) 1/4 b) 2/3 c) 1/3 d) 1/5

71. Good example of sedimentary cycle is

a) Carbon cycle b) Oxygen cycle c) Nitrogen cycle d) Sulphur cycle

72. PVC stands for

a) Poly Vinyl carbon b) Poly Vinyl Chloride c) Poly Vanadium Chloride
d) None of these

73. Nitrogen fixing bacteria exists in ……of plants

a) Leaf b) steam c) Flower d) Roots

39
 (Part – B)

1. Which of the following is considered as an alternate fuel?

a) CNG b) Kerosene c) Coal d) Petrol

2. Solar radiation consists of

a) UV b) Visible light c) Infrared d) All of these

3. Reduction in usage of fuels cannot be brought about by

a) Using alternate fuels b) Changing lifestyles c) Reducing car taxes
d) Both a) & b)

4. Which of the following is a hazard of a nuclear power plant?

a) Accident risk when tankers containing fuel cause spill
b) Radioactive waste of the power plant remains highly toxic for centuries
c) Release of toxic gases during processing
d) All of these

5. The most important fuel used by nuclear power plant is

a) U – 235 b) U- 238 c) U – 245 d) U – 248

6. Biogas is produced by
a) Microbial activity b) Harvesting cropc) Both a) & b) d) None of the above

7. Oil and Gas are preferred because of

a) Easy transportation b) Cheap c) Strong smell d) All of these

8. Biomass power generation uses

a) Crops b) Animal dung c) Wood d) All of these

9. Chernobyl nuclear disaster occurred in the year

a) 1984 b) 1952 c) 1986 d) 1987

10. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

a) Fossil fuels b) Solar energy c) Tidal wave energy d) Wind energy
40
11. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy
sources?
a) Highly polluting b) High waste disposal cost c) Unreliable supply d) High
running cost

12. ‘OTEC’ is an energy technology that converts

a) energy in large tides of ocean to generate electricity
b) energy in ocean waves to generate electricity
c) energy in ocean due to thermal gradient to generate electricity
d) energy in the fast moving ocean currents to generate electricity

13. Which of the following source of energy is less ecofriendly?

a) Biogas b) Wind c) Solar d) Nuclear

14. India’s position in the Bio-gas plants globally

a) 5th b) 2nd c) 4thd) 7th

15. Solar energy is stored in

a) carboncarbon bonds b) green leaves c) fossil fuels d) biomass

16. Which resources are inexhaustible?

a) renewable b) fossil fuel c) non renewable d) mineral

17. Identify the non-renewable source of energy from the following

a) Coal b) Fuel cells c) Wind Power d) Wave power

18. Electromagnetic radiation can cause

a) Plague b) Malaria c) Cancer d) Dengue Fever

19. Harnessing the wind energy is done by

a) Wind Mill b) Ball mill c) Flour Mill d) Pig mill

20. Wind Farms are located in

a) River basin b) Plain area c) Hilly area d) Valley area

21. Wind energy generation depends on

a) direction of wind b) velocity of wind c) humidity d) precipitation

41
22. With a minimum resource maximum energy can be created by
a) solar radiation b) wind c) Nuclear fuels d) tidal waves

23. Direct conversion of solar energy is attained by

a) solar photo voltaic system b) solar diesel hybrid system c) solar thermal system
d) solar air heater

24. In Hydropower plants power is generated by

a) hotsprings b) wind c) Sun d) water

25. Hydrogen energy can be tapped through

a) heat pumps b)fuel cells c) photovoltaic cells d) gasifiers

26. Problems of Hydrogen fuel cell is

a) storage and distribution b) availability of hydrogen c) creates pollution d)
None of the above

27. Nuclear power is being produced from

a) Carbon-14 b) nuclear fission c) petroleum combustion d) natural gas

28. Nuclear fusion uses the following as a fuel

a) Carbon b) Helium c) Hydrogen d) water

29. Which is the source of energy that can be replaced at the same rate at
Which it is used?
a) coal b) petroleum c) Oil d) Biomass

30. Biomass consists of

a) Lignin b) Hemi cellulose c) Cellulose d) All of the above

31. Which of the following is used as moderator in the nuclear reactor ?

a) Graphite b) Helium gas c) Heavy water d) All of the above

32. Nuclear wastes is active for

a) 5 years b) 10 years c )50 years d) centuries

33. Nuclear power plant in Karnataka is located at

a) Bhadravathi b) Sandur c) Raichur d) Kaiga

34. Biomass energy in green plants is produced in presence of

42
a) Carbon dioxide b) Water c) Sunlight d) All of the above

35. Fossil fuels are converted into energy by

a) burning b) cooling c) sublimation d) melting

36. Natural gas contains

a) carbon dioxide b) hydrogen c) Methane d) nitrogen

37. Which place in India the tidal energy has been experimented
a) Goa b) Karnataka c) Kerala d) Tamil Nadu

38. Highest producer of Oil and petroleum is

a) Middle East countries b) America c) China d) India

39. Cow Dung can be used

a) as Manure b) for production of Bio gas c) as fuel d) all of the above

40. The source of Electromagnetic radiation is

a) Sun b) Wind c) Tide d) Water

41. Biogas is gaseous fuel composed mainly of

a) Methane and Carbon dioxide b) methane and hydrogen sulphide
c) Methane and carbon monoxide d) None of the above

42. Molasses from sugar industry is used to generate

a) Biodiesel b) Hydrogen c) Bioethanol d) Biomethanol

43. LPG is a mixture of

a) N2and H2S b) CO2 and N2 c) Propane and butane d) Methane and ethane

44. Nuclear fusion reaction occurs in

a) The Sun b) Stars c) Hydrogen Bomb d) All of these

45. Choose the sequence of production of electricity from hydrogen

i) Electrolysis of water ii) Performing a fuel cell reaction iii) Storage of hydrogen
a) (i), (ii), (iii) b) (i), (iii) and (ii) c) (ii), (iii) and (i) d) (ii), (i) and (iii)

46. Solar energy is called ……….. source of energy

43
a) renewable b) continuous c) non-renewable d) none of these

47. Which of the following statement about forest is in-correct?

a) Provides recreational oppurtunities
b) Provides a source of economic development
c) reduces soil erosion
d) none of these

48.Which of the following is not a Natural mineral?

a) Asbestos b) Fluorospar c) Lime stone d) Nitrogen

49. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

a) Solar Energy b) Fossil fuel c) Tidal energy d) Wind Energy

50. Fossil Fuels are converted into Energy by

a) Cooling process b) Melting process c) Burning process d) Condensation
process

51. Ore deposits enclosed in a rock is called

a) host rock b) deposit rock c) secondary deposit rock d) None

52.Thorium oxide is available in

a) Kerala b) Orissa c) Tamil Nadu d) All of these

53. One joule of energy is equal to

a) 0.2389 calories b) 23.89 calories c) 238.9 calories d) 2.389 calories

54. Radiated energy can be transferred in

a) medium of air b) Free space c) Solid medium d) (a) & (b)

55. Hydro-electric energy generation causes environmental problem such as

a) earthquake b) habitat loss c) deforestation d) all of these

56. Hydrogen can be produced commercially by

a) cracking of ammonia b) electrolysis of water c) (a) & (b) d) gasification

57. Gold occurs in

a) Sedimentary deposits b) placer deposits c) hydrothermal deposits
44
d) none of these

58. Mineral is a
a) Organic matter b) naturally occurring inorganic substance c) synthetic
compound d) none of these

59. Along term atmospheric impact of burning fossil fuel is

a) Global warming b) oxygen consumption c) Reduction in photosynthesis
d) All of these

60. Good example of renewable energy resource is

a) Hydropower b) Coal c) Oil D) All of the above

61. Energy is measured in

a) Blu b) Bhu c) Btu d) Ntu

62. Renewable energy is

a) Primary source b) Secondary source c) Tertiary source d) None of these

63. The energy consumption for global transportation is

a) 42% b) 24%c) 4% d) 34%

64. Annual oil consumption in India is about

a) 3.25 million tons b) 325 million tons c) 32.5 million tons d) 32.5 billion tons

75. Electromagnetic radiation energy is an energy in the form of

a) Light b) Wave c) Heat d) All of the above

65. Cancer and related diseases are caused due to

a) Primary radiation b) Non-ionizing radiation c) Ionizing radiation d) Secondary
radiation

66. Fossil fuels largely consist of

a) Hydrocarbons b) Hydrogen Sulphide c) Hydrochloric acid d) Carbon dioxide
67. Existing oil reserves of the earth could last for about
a) 5000 years b) 500 years c) 5 years d) 50 years

68. Fermentation in the biogas plant is carried out between

45
a) 350-500ᵒC b) 30-50ᵒC c)85-150ᵒC d) None of the above

69. Percentage methane content if biogas is

a) 5.5 b) 85 c) 55 d) 0.55

70. Hydrogen is found on earth in combination with

a) Sulphur b) Helium c) Copper d) Oxygen

71. Store house of minerals and nutrients is:

a) Soil b) Water c) Forest d) All of these

72. Natural resource that occur at specific places are termed as………resources
a) Ubiquitous b) localized c) non renewable d) exhaustive

73. Forest rich land in Karnataka is found in

a) Western ghatsb) Bandipur c) Nagar hole d) Mangalore

74. Which of the following wouldnotbe considered part of the direct input of
energy from the sun?
a) Solar energy b) hydropower c) biomass d) geothermal

75. The maximum reserves of natural gas is in

a) Russia b) UK c) Iran d) USA

76. The world’s largest wind farm is located in

a) California b) Scotland c) India d) UK

46
 MODULE – 3
(Part – A)

1. Environmental pollution is due to

a) Rapid Urbanization b) deforestation c) Afforestation d) a & b

2. Which of the following is air pollutant?

a) CO b) O2 c) N2 d) all

3. Which of the following are natural sources of air pollution

a) Volcanic eruption b) solar flare c) earth quake d) all

4. Which of the following are biodegradable pollutants?

a) Plastics b) Domestic sewage c) detergent d) all

5. Mining practices lead to

a) Population growth b) Rapid urbanization c) Loss of grazing and fertile land
d) None of these

6. Which of the following is the source of fly ash?

a) Vehicular exhaust b) sewage c) Thermal power plant d) all

7. The liquid waste from baths and kitchens is called

a) Sullage b) Domestic sewage c) Storm waste d) Run off

8. Noise pollution can be minimized by

a) Urbanization b) Maintaining silence c) Reducing noise at source d) none

9. BOD Means
a) Biochemical oxygen demand b) chemical oxygen demand c) biophysical
oxygen demand d) all

10. Which of the following industry generates colored waste?

a) Software industry b) Textile industry c) Biomedical industry d) none

11. Physical pollution of water is due to

47
a) Dissolved oxygen b) Turbidity c) pH d) none of these

12. Which of the following source is surface water?

Springs b) streams c) deep wells d) all

13. Deforestation can

a) Increase the rain fall b) Increase soil fertility c) Introduce silt in the rivers
d) None of these

14. Which of the following is non-point source of water pollution?

a) Factories b) Sewage treatment plant c) Urban and Sub-urban land d) all of the
above

15. Sound beyond which of the following level can be regarded as a pollutant
a) 40dB b) 80dB c)120dB d) 150dB

16. Which of the following is a major source of thermal pollution of water bodies?
Sewage treatment plants b) Thermal power plants c) Solid waste disposal d) all

17. Smog is
A natural phenomenon b) combination of smoke and fog c) Colorless d) all of the
above

18. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting

a) Electrostatic precipitator b) wet scrubber c) Catalytic converter d) all of the
above

19. Which of the following statements about carbon monoxide is true?

a) Forms complex with haemoglobin
b) Forms complex with leg-hemoglobin
c) Form by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels
d) a and c

20. Which of the following is a point source of water pollution?

a) Factories b) Sewage treatment plants c) Urban and Sub-Urban lands d) a and b

21. Definition of Noise is

a) Loud sound b) Unwanted sound c) Constant sound d) Sound of high frequency

22. Noise pollution is controlled by

48
a) Reducing the noise at the source b) Preventing its transmission
c) Protecting the receiver d) All
23. Noise pollution limits at residential area
a) 45dB b) 80 dB c) 55 dB d) 90 dB

24. Noise pollution limits in industrial area

a) 45dB b) 80 dB c) 65 dB d) 90 dB

25. Which of the following are non-biodegradable?

a) Plastics b) Domestic sewage c) detergent d) a and c

26. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?

a) Carbon monoxide b) Sulphur dioxide c) Ozone d) Carbon dioxide

27. Pesticide causes

a) Eye irritation b) Skin irritation c) Respiratory ailments d) All the above

28. Blarring sounds known to cause

a) mental distress b) High cholesterol c) neurological problems d) all of the above

29. Which of the following is major cause of soil pollution?

a) Accident involving vehicles that are transporting waste materials
b) Pesticides and chemical fertilizers
c) Improper solid waste disposal
d) all of the above

30. “Minamata Disease” is caused due to

a) Lead b) Arsenic c) Mercury d) Cadmium

31. The required iron content in drinking water as specified by BIS is

a) 300 mg/lt b) 30 mg/lt c) 3 mg/lt d) 0.3 mg/lt

32.what is the pH range of drinking water

a) 6 to 9 b) 6.5 to 8.5 c) 6 to 8.5 d) 6.5 to 7.5

33. Temporary hardness of water is due to

a) Chloride hardness b) Manganese hardness c) calcium hardness
d) carbonate hardness

49
34.Water without Fluoride causes
a) Corrosion b) Dental cavities c) scale formation d) Tooth decay

35. The organ of baby usually damaged from lead poisoning

a) Kidney b) Lungs c) Lever d) Heart

36. Pesticide causes

a) Eye irritation b) Skin irritation c) Respiratory ailments d) All of the above

37.Excess Fluoride in drinking water is likely to cause

a) Blue babies b) Fluorosis c) Taste and odour d) Irritation

38. In the primary treatment, aeration of water is done to

a) decrease the oxygen content b) remove solids c) remove iron and manganese
d) none of these

39. Water quality is depending on

a) biological characteristics b) aesthetic characteristics c) Physical d) all of these

40. Disinfection of water is done to destroy

a) Pathogens & bacteria b) organic matter c) chloro-organics d) none of these

41.Malaria is a
a) Water borne disease b) water induced disease c) (a) & (b) d) none of these

42.Fluoride concentration of more than 1.5 mg/L in drinking water causes

a) dental fluorosis b) dental caries c) blue baby disease d) none of these

43. Neem is a
a) Biopesticide b) Biofertilizer c) Herbicide d) Fungicide

44. Which of the following is the authority to monitor industrial effluents

a) Center for science and environment b) State pollution control Board
c) Indian Environmental Association d) None of these

45.The required iron content in drinking water as specified by BIS is

a) 300 mg/lt b) 30 mg/lt c) 3 mg/lt d) 0.3 mg/lt

46. Disharge of Industrial waste cause

a) Depletion of dissolved oxygen b) Destroy aquatic life
50
c) Impair biological activity d) All of the above

47. Important factor that causes water borne disease is

a) Using contaminated sewage for irrigation
b) Leaching of untreated fecal and urinary discharges into water bodies
c) Discharge of industrial wastewater
d) By eating contaminated food

48. What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water?

a) 1.0 mg/lt b) 1.25 mg/lt c) 1.50 mg/lt d) 1.75 mg/lt

49. Non-point source of water pollution is caused by

a) Pipes b) Sewers c) Ditches d) Mining wastes

50. Physical- pollution of water is due to

a) Dissolved oxygen b) pH c) Turbidity d) None of these

51. Noise pollution means

a) High Frequency sound b) Loud sound c) Unwanted sound d) Environmental
pollution

52. In water treatment, alum is used for

a) aeration b) coagulation c) filtration d) disinfection

53. Sanitary sewage/domestic sewage is

a) Wastewater generated from kitchens and bathrooms
b) Wastewater generated from residential areas
c) Water entering a sewer as a result of rainfall
d) Wastewater from industries

54. The process of killing infective micro-organisms is called as

a) Disinfection b) Sedimentation c) Sterilization d) Coagulation

55. Which of the following statement is not true about animal husbandry?
a) it is a part of agricultural activity.
b) it is breeding, feeding and management of animals.
c) it is livestock production.
d) it is protection of wild life

51
56. Which of the following is the purpose of animal husbandry?
a) conservation of animal husbandry b) production of meat
c) conservation of wildlife d) conservation of forests.

57. Domesticated animals are used for

a) Dairy products b) production of fiber
c) production of meat d) all of these

58. Animal husbandry results in

a) Global warming b) Acid rain c) Ozone depletion d) none of these

59. Undernourished population is more in

a) Asia & Pacific b) Europe c) Australia d) South America

52
 (Part - B)

1. Population explosion will cause

a) Biodiversity b) Stress on ecosystemc) More employment c) None of these

2. Which of the following is having high population density?

a) India b) China c) USA d) Western Europe

3. Which of the following is not the effect of urbanization?

a) air pollution b) Thermal pollutionc) Solid waste production d) Noise pollution

4. Which of the following is the facility that the urban people enjoy?
a) Better communication accessb) Better quality of air
c) Large land at cheap rates d) none of these

5. Urbanization is
a) Local environmental issue b) National environmental issue c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Not at all an issue

6. Which of the following is the ill effect of urbanization?

a) Decrease in agricultural land b) Loss of greenery c) Loss of water bodies
d) All of the above

7. The major cause of global population growth in the 18 and 19 centuries was
a) Decreases in death rates b) decrease in birth rates c) Industrial revolution
d) None of these

8. The world population in 2000 was around

a) 8 billion b) 6.1 billionc) 4 billion d) 4.5 billion

9. The average life expectancy around the world is currently

a) Decreasing b) Increasingc) Not changing d) Stabilizing

53
10. Which of the following is the problem not associated with population growth?
a) Increase resource consumption b) Environmental pollution
c) Food and energy shortages d) None of these

11. The major objectives of family welfare programs in India is

a) Disease control b) population growth rate control c) Employment generation
d) None of these

12. Population ageing is

a) the increase in the average age of the population
b) The result of decreased death and birth rates
c) The trend where more people live to reach old age while fewer children
are born
d) All of the above

13. Which of the following is not population characteristic

a) Doubling time b) Total fertility rate c) Gross domestic product growth rate
d) Infant mortality rate

14. Demography is the study of

a) Animals behavior b) Population growth c) River d) None of these

15. Population explosion will cause

a) Socio economic problems b) Food scarcity c) Energy crisis d) All of these

16. Population explosion has occurred in the last

a) 500 years b) 300 years c) 700 years d) 150 years

17. The zero-population growth due to equal birth and death rates is called
a) Natural increase b) Demographic transition c) Replacement level d) Fertility
rate

18. If the rate of addition of new members increases with respect to the individual
loss of the same population, then the graph obtained has
a) Exponential growth b) Declined growth c) Zero growth d) None

19.Today, the world’s number one problem is

a) Population explosion b) Pollution c) Natural calamities c) Nuclear proliferation
54
20. The force which acts against the achievement of the highest possible level of
population growth is known as
a) Saturation level b) Population pressure c) Carrying capacity d) Environmental
resistance

21. The maximum number of individuals that can be supported by a given

environment is called
a) Biotic potential b) Carrying capacity c) Environmental resistance d) Population
size

22. The number of babies produced per thousand individuals is called

a) Natality b) Mortality c) Immigration d) Emigration

23. Study of trends in human population growth and prediction of future growth is
called
a) Biography b) Demography c) Psychology d) Kalography

55
 Module 4
(Part A)

1. The major automobile pollutants include

a) CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM
b) CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and CH4
c) CO2, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM
d) CO, NOx, Freon’s and SPM

2. Petroleum based vehicles emit traces of

a) CO & NOx b) SPM c) Aldehydes d) CH4

3. Heavy duty diesel vehicles contribute more

a) NOx b) Particulate matter c) CO d) Both (a) and (b)

4. Major pollutants from light petrol vehicles are

a) CO and Hydrocarbons b) CO and NOx c) CH4 and CO2
d) All the above

5. The 4-stroke engines produce less of the following as compared to 2-stroke

Engines.
a) CO and Hydrocarbons b) NOx and SO2 c)Both a and b d) None of the above

6. Alternative eco-friendly fuel for automobiles is

a) Petrol b) Diesel c) CNG d) Kerosene

7. Increase in asthma attacks has been linked to high levels of

a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Air-borne dust particlesd) All the above

8. Which of the following is not a solution for global warming?

a) Reducing fossil fuel consumption b) Planting more trees c) De-forestation
d) None of the above

9. The meaning of global warming is

a) Increase in the temp. Of climateb) A planet hotter than earth

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c) Solar radiation d) Cooling effect

10. Global warming may bring about the following change in the climate of the
earth
a) Increase in the rain fall b) Desertification c) Drought d) All of the above

11. Which green house gas is known as colourless, non-flammable, sweetish

Odour & laughing gas?
a) Methane b) CO2 c) Nitrous Oxide d) Sulfur hexa fluoride

12. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India
was
a) Water act b) Air act c) Environmental act d) Noise pollution rules

13. Which of the following substantially reduces CO2 emission from automobiles?
a) Bio fuels like Ethanol and bio diesel
b) Fossil fuels like coal and lignite
c) Nuclear element like Uranium
d) Voltaic cells

14. The international protocol to protect the Ozone layer is

a) Vienna protocol b) Kyoto protocol c) Cartagena protocol d) Montreal protocol

15. The protocol that reduces greenhouse gas emissions are

a) Kyoto protocol b) Cartagena protocol c) Montreal protocol d) Vienna protocol

16. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

a) Hydro chlorofluorocarbons b) Methane c) CO2 d) SO2

17. Global Warming could affect

a) Climate b) Increase in Sea level c) Melting of glaciers d) All the above

18. Primary cause of acid rain around the world is due to

a) Carbon dioxide b) Sulphur dioxide c) Carbon Monoxide d) Ozone

19. Which of the following is not a solution for global warming?

a) reducing fossil fuel consumption b) Planting more trees c) deforestation d)
None of the above
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20. Which of the following is an air pollutant
a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Particulate matter

21. Inverse condition is the

a) Increase in temperature with latitude
b) Decrease in temperature with altitude
c) Increase in temperature with altitude
d) Decrease in temperature with latitude

22. The pH value of the acid rain water is less than

a) 5.7 b) 7.0 c) 8.5 d) 7.5

23. The primary cause of the acid rain around the world is
a) CFC b) SO2 c) CO d) O3

24. Which of the following is the remedial measure for acid rain
a) reducing the release of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur in to the
atmosphere.
b) use of coal, free from sulphur
c) use of electrostatic precipitator & catalytic converters
d) all of the above

25. Acid rain can be controlled by

a) reducing SO2 and NO2 emission b) Reducing oxygen emission.
c) Increasing number of lakes. d)increasing the forest cover.

26. Atmospheric oxidation of SO2 to SO3 is influenced by

a) sunlight. b) Humidity c) presence of hydrocarbons d) all of these

27. Reduction in brightness of the famous Taj Mahal is due to

a) global warming. b) Air pollution c) ozone depletion d) Afforestation.

28. The Effect of Acid rain

a) reduces soil fertility b) increases atmospheric temperature
c) causing respiratory problems d) skin cancer

29. The process of movement of nutrients from the soil by the Acid rain is
called as
a) Transpiration b) evapo-transpiration c) Leaching d) Infiltration.
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30. Ozone layer is present in
a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) Thermosphere

31. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

a) Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog
b) Ozone protects us from the harmful UV radiation of sun
c) Ozone is highly reactive
d) All of the above

32. Bhopal Gas Tragedy caused due to leakage of

a) Methyl Isocyanate (MIC) b) Sulphur dioxide c) Mustard gas d) methane

33. Ozone depletion causes

a) snow blindness b) Photochemical smog. c) acid rain d) vomiting

34. Domesticated animals are used for

a) Dairy products b) production of fiber c) production of meat d) all of these

35. Acid rain has been increasing day by day due to

a) Urbanization b) industrialization c) increase in vehicle population d) none of the
above

36. Ozone hole was first discovered over

a) Arctic b) Antarcticac) tropical region d) Africa

37. CFCs have been used as

a) Solvent b) refrigerants c) blowing agents for polymer forms d) all of these

38. World Ozone day is being celebrated on

a) September 5th b) October 15thc) September 16th d) September 11th

39. Bhopal Gas Tragedy happened in the year

a) Dec 1984 b) Dec 1983 c) Dec 1994 d) Dec 1987

40. Ozone hole is said to occur when the ozone level decreases below
a) 200 DV b) 2000 DV c) 20 DV d) 2DV

41. The major contributors to the acid rain are known as

a) Precursors b) Processors c) Protons d) Pollutants

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42. The greenhouse effect is due to
a) Penetrability of low wavelength radiations O3 layer
b) Impermeability of long wavelength radiations through CO2 of the
atmosphere
c) Penetrability of low wave-length radiations through C02
d) Impermeability of long wavelength radiations through O3 layer

43. Ozone day is observed on

a) January 3 b) March 26 c) September 16 d) November 10

44. Chlorofluorocarbon releases a chemical harmful to ozone is

a) Chlorine b) Fluorine c) Sulphur dioxide d) Nitrogen peroxide

45. Which of the following gases contributes maximum to the ‘greenhouse effect’
on earth?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Methane c) Freon d) Chlorofluorocarbon

46. Greenhouse effect is related to

a) Global warming b) Green trees on house c) Grasslands d) Greenery in country

47. Peeling of Ozone umbrella, which protects us from UV rays, is caused by

a) CO2 b) PAN c) CFCs d) Coal burning

48. Which one of the following gases can deplete the ozone layer in the upper
atmosphere?
a) Methane b) Ammonia c) Sulphur dioxide d) Carbon dioxide

49. Formation of hole in Ozone is maximum over

a) Europe b) Antarctica c) Brazil d) India

50. Which important greenhouse gas other than methane is being provided from
the agricultural fields?
a) SO2 b) Nitrous oxide c) Ammonia d) SO3

51.The best soil for healthy and vigorous growth of most plants is
a) Sandy b) Clayey c) Loam d) Clayey loam

52. Ozone depletion in the stratosphere will cause

a) Forest fires
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b) Increased incidence of skin cancer
c) Global warming
d) None of these

53. The ultraviolet radiations in the stratosphere are absorbed by

a) Oxygen b) Ozone c) Sulphur dioxide d) Argon

54. Ozone layer of upper atmosphere is being destroyed by

a) Sulphur dioxide b) Photochemical oxidants c) Smog d) Chlorofluorocarbon

55. Which of the following groups of plants can be used as indicators of SO2
pollution of air?
a) Epiphytic lichens b) Ferns c) Liver worts d) Horn worts

56. A major disaster, known as ‘London smog’, occurred in the British city of
London in the Year;
a) 1942 b) 1952 c) 1962 d) 1972

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 (Part – B)

SWM, E WASTE, BMW AND DISPOSAL METHODS

1. The anaerobic method of mechanical composting, as practiced in India, is

called the
a) Indore method b) Mangalore method c) Bangalore method d) none of
these

2. The method of refuse disposal, involving burial inn trenches, is called:

a) Incineration b) pulverization c) composting d) none of these.

3. The aerobic method of mechanical composting, as practical in India, is

called the:
a) Bangalore method b) Nagpur method c) Bhopal method d) Indore
method

4. Sanitary landfills may cause troubles during:

a) Peak summers b) peak winters c) peak monsoons d) none of these.

5. Leachate is a colored liquid, that comes out of:

a) Septic tanks b) sanitary landfills c) compost plants d) aerated lagoons

6. Biomedical wastes consist of:

a) Solid wastes b) liquid wastes c) both a) and b) d) none of these

7. Biomedical waste (Management and Handling Rules) were enacted in India

under Environment Protection Act, 1986, in the year:
a) 1986 b) 1989 c) 1998 d) 2000

8. Which of the methods is generally not adopted for safe disposal of

biomedical wastes?
a) Shredding after disinfection b) Hydro-claving c) Incineration
d) Landfilling

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9. Incineration can be adopted for disposal of biomedical wastes of the type.
a) Solid wastes b) liquid wastes c) both (a) and (b) d) none of them

10. Liquid biomedical wastes should be disposed of:

a) By disinfection and discharge into sewers b) by incineration into liquid
waste incinerators c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above

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 Module 5
(Part – A)
GIS AND REMOTE SENSING

1. GIS can be expanded as

a) Geological Information System) Geodynamic Intimation System
c) Geographic Information System d) Geographic Internet System

2. GPS system consists of

a) Satellite Consultation b) Operational control system c) equipment segment
d) All of the above

3. GIS receives data from

a) Existing Maps b) Remote sensing data c) GPS d) All of the above

4. In a remotely sensed data of a planet, the presence of hydrous species can be

inferred using which region of the Electromagnetic system?
a) Radio wave b) Gamma rays c) Infrared d) Visible

5. Which of the following cannot be achieved by remote sensing?

a) Land use pattern b) Detection of forest fires c) prevention of earthquakes
d) None of the above

6. GPS system works in consultation of

a) 24 satellites revolving the planet Earth
b) 20 Satellites revolving the planet Earth
c) 10 Satellites revolving the planet Earth
d) None of the above

7. GPS stands for

a) Geographic positioning system
b) Geological positioning system
c) Geographical positioning system

64
d) None of the above

8. Collection of interrelated data in order to handle and maintain a large

amount
Of data is called as
a) Data collection b) Database c) Data Assemble d) All of the above

9. DEM stands for

a) Digital Elevation Model
b) Direct Elevation Model
c) Digital Electronic Model
d) None of the above

10. DBMS stands for

a) Distinct Banking and Management system
b) Database Management system
c) Database monitoring system
d) None of the above

11. Digital Terrain Model (DTM) extracts Topographic information from

a) DEM b) DBMS c) LAN d) GPS

12. The process of transforming location on the curved surface of the earth to
the planar map co-ordinates is called as
a) Map projection b) Map interpretation c) Image processing d) None of the
above

13 . The instrument used in the interpretation of aerial photography is

a) Microscope b) Clinometer c) Stereoscope d) Goniometer

14. The thermal Remote sensing the source of energy taken from
a) Sun b) Nuclear energy c) Thermal energy d) None of the above

15. LANDSAT is a
a) Satellite b) Aircraft c) Satellite Launching station d) None of the above

16. LANDSAT is a
a) Japan Satellite b) German Satellite c) Indian Satellite
d) American Satellite

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 17. SPOT is a
a) Indian Satellite b) American Satellite c) French Satellite
d) China Satellite.

(Part -B)

1. Environmental (Protection) Act was enacted in the year

a) 1986 b) 1992 c) 1984 d) 1974

2. The Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year
a) 1981 b) 1996 c) 2000 d) 1974

3. The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year
a) 1986 b) 1974 c) 1994 d) 2004

4. The Wild Life Protection Act was enacted in the year

a) 1986 b) 1974 c) 1994 d) 1972

5. The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year

a) 1986 b) 1974 c) 1980 d) 1972

6. The first of the major environmental protection Act to be promulgated in India

was:
a) The Wild Life Protection Act
b) The Air Act
c) The Noise Pollution Act
d) None of the above.

7. The Central Pollution Control Board was established under the provision of:
a) Environmental (Protection) Act 1986
b) Air (Prevention & Control) Act 1981
c) Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act 1974
d) None of the above.

8. The Karnataka State Pollution Control Board (KSPCB) was established in the
year
a) 1974 b) 1982 c) 1986 d) 1976

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9. Environmental protection is the responsibility of
a) Govt. of India b) NGOs c) Individual d) All

10. ‘Earth Day’ is observed on:

a) 1st December b) 5th June c) April 22nd d) 1st January.

11. Which of the followings is NGO:

a) Narmada Bachao Andolan b) CPCB c) KSPCB d) None

12. Which of the following is empowered to take measures to protect &improve

the environment as per the Environment (Protection) Act?
a) Central Govt. b) State Government c) Corporation d) None

13. Which of the following is the authority to monitor industrial effluent?

a) Center for Science & Environment
b) State Pollution Control Board
c) Indian Environmental Association
d) None

14. The leader of Chipko movement is:

a) Sunderlal Bahuguna b) Medha Patkar c) Vandana Shiva d) Suresh Heblikar

15. The Environmental (Protection) Act 1986 deals with:

a) Water b) Air c) Soil d) All.

16. The objectives of the Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972 is:
a) To preserve the biodiversity
b) to maintain essential ecological and life supporting systems
c) protection & conservation of wild life
d) All

17. The Tiger Conservation Project was started in:

a) 1972b) 1984 c) 1999 d) 2004

18. The goal of National Parks & Wild life Sanctuaries is

a) To promote international trading of animals & their products.
b) To evacuate tribal people from forest
c) Conservation of Wild Life.
d) None of the above.
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19. Environmental education is targeted to:
a) General public b) professional social groups c) Technicians & Scientists d) All

20. Which of the following animals is endangered species of India:

a) Black buck b) Elephant c) Fox d) Giraffe

21. Which State is having highest women literacy rate in India:

a) Karnataka b) Punjab c) Rajasthan d) Kerala

22. An International Conference on Environmental Education was held in

December 1982 at:
a) Kyoto b) Vienna c) New-Delhi d) London

23. Environmental Protection is the fundamental duties of the citizen of India

under the Article:
a) 51-A (g) b) 48-A c) 47 d) 21

24. The objectives of Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) are:

a) Immunization
b) Health check-up & referral services
c) Pre-school and non-formal education
d) All the above.

25. ISO 14000 standards deal with:

a) Pollution Management b) Risk management
c) Environmental Management) None of the above.

26. World summit on sustainable development was held at

a) Johannesburg in 2002
b) Rio de Janeiro in 1992
c) Kyoto in 1994
d) Stockholm in 2000

27. An important NGO involved in Global environmental protection is

a) UNICEF b) Green Peace c) WHO d) CPCB

28. The first International Earth Summit was held at

a) Johannesburg b) Rio de Janeiro c) Kyoto d) Stockholm

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29. Silent Valley movement succeeded in
a) waste management in sea coast
b) canceling the state government hydel project and saving the Lion- Tailed
Monkeys
c) Promoting marine fishery business in Kerala
d) None of the above

30. The committee which submitted its report to Government of India on

Environmental education is
a) Tiwari Committee b) Mehta committee c) Banerjee Committee d) Agarwal
Committee

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