Nuclear Applications
Nuclear Applications
Nuclear Applications
Nuclear applications
Class: ________________________
Date: ________________________
Comments:
Page 1 of 58
Q1.
(a) Suggest, with a reason, which type of radiation is likely to be the most appropriate
for the sterilisation of metallic surgical instruments.
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(1)
(b) Explain why the public need not worry that irradiated surgical instruments become
radioactive once sterilised.
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(1)
(c) A student detects the counts from a radioactive source using a G-M radiation
detector as shown in the diagram.
The student measures the count rate for three different distances d. The table
shows the count rate, in counts per minute, corrected for background for each of
these distances.
Corrected
count rate /
d/m counts per
minute
0.20 9013
0.50 1395
1.00 242
Explain, with the aid of suitable calculations, why the data in the table are not
consistent with an inverse-square law. You may use the blank columns for your
working.
Page 2 of 58
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(2)
(d) State two possible reasons why the results do not follow the expected
inverse-square law.
Reason 1 __________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
Reason 2 __________________________________________________________
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(2)
(Total 6 marks)
Q2.
Figure 1 shows how radioactive decay of one nuclide can be modelled by draining water
through a tap from a cylindrical tube.
Figure 1
The water flow-rate is proportional to the pressure of the water. The pressure of the water
is proportional to the depth of the water. Therefore the rate at which the depth decreases
is proportional to the depth of the water.
The tap is opened and the depth is measured at regular intervals. These data are plotted
on the graph in Figure 2.
Figure 2
Page 3 of 58
(a) Determine the predicted depth of water when the time is 57 s
depth = ____________________ cm
(1)
(b) Suggest how the apparatus in Figure 1 may be changed to represent a radioactive
sample of the same nuclide with a greater number of nuclei.
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(1)
(c) Suggest how the apparatus in Figure 1 may be changed to represent a radioactive
sample of a nuclide with a smaller decay constant.
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(1)
(d) The age of the Moon has been estimated from rock samples containing rubidium
(Rb) and strontium (Sr), brought back from Moon landings.
Page 4 of 58
(e) A sample of Moon rock contains 1.23 mg of .
mass = ____________________ g
(3)
Q3.
Which graph shows how intensity I varies with angle θ when electrons are diffracted by a
nucleus?
Page 5 of 58
B
(Total 1 mark)
Q4.
The radius of a uranium nucleus is 7.75 × 10–15 m
A 1.10 × 10–18 m
B 3.91 × 10–16 m
C 2.86 × 10–15 m
D 3.12 × 10–15 m
(Total 1 mark)
Page 6 of 58
Q5.
The core of a thermal nuclear reactor contains a number of components that are exposed
to moving neutrons.
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(1)
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(1)
(c) A slow-moving neutron is in collision with a nucleus of an atom of the fuel which
causes fission.
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(3)
State the source of this waste and discuss some of the problems faced in dealing
with the waste at various stages of its treatment.
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Page 7 of 58
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(6)
(Total 11 marks)
Q6.
A Geiger counter is placed near a radioactive source and different materials are placed
between the source and the Geiger counter.
None 1000
Paper 1000
Thick steel 50
A α only
B α and γ
C α and β
D β and γ
(Total 1 mark)
Q7.
Nobelium-259 has a half-life of 3500 s.
Page 8 of 58
A 8.7 × 10–5 s–1
Q8.
The radius of a nucleus of the iron nuclide is 4.35 × 10–15 m.
A 2.69 × 10–15 m
B 2.89 × 10–15 m
C 6.55 × 10–15 m
D 7.05 × 10–15 m
(Total 1 mark)
Q9.
Uranium-236 undergoes nuclear fission to produce barium-144, krypton-89 and three free
neutrons.
7.5
8.3
8.6
A 84 MeV
B 106 MeV
C 191 MeV
D 3730 MeV
(Total 1 mark)
Q10.
Page 9 of 58
An α particle with an initial kinetic energy of 4.9 MeV is directed towards the centre of a
gold nucleus of radius R which contains 79 protons. The α particle is brought to rest at
point S, a distance r from the centre of the nucleus as shown in the diagram below.
(b) Calculate r, the distance of closest approach of the α particle to the nucleus.
r = ___________________ m
(3)
Page 10 of 58
number of nucleons = ________________
(3)
(d) The target nucleus is changed to one that has fewer protons. The α particle is given
the same initial kinetic energy.
Explain, without further calculation, any changes that occur to the distance r. Ignore
any recoil effects.
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(2)
(Total 10 marks)
Q11.
In the Rutherford scattering experiment most α particles passed through the foil
undeflected.
Q12.
β particles are emitted from a radioactive source in a school laboratory.
Q13.
Page 11 of 58
A radioactive source contains a nuclide which has a half-life of 12 hours. A detector
placed near the source records an average count rate of 180 counts per minute. The
average background count rate is 20 counts per minute.
Q14.
Which graph best shows how the radius R of an atomic nucleus varies with the nucleon
number A?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q15.
The power output of a nuclear reactor is provided by nuclear fuel which decreases in
mass at a rate of 4.0 × 10−6 kg hour−1.
A 28 kW
B 50 MW
C 100 MW
Page 12 of 58
D 200 MW
(Total 1 mark)
Q16.
The moderator of some nuclear reactors is made from graphite.
Q22.
Helium is the second most abundant element in the universe. The most common isotope
of helium is and a nucleus of this isotope has a rest energy of 3728 MeV.
In 2011, at the Relativistic Heavy Ion Collider, anti-helium nuclei were produced. Nuclei of
anti-helium are made up of antiprotons and antineutrons.
It is suggested that an antineutron can decay to form an antiproton in a process similar to
β− decay.
In one particular collision between an anti-helium nucleus and a helium nucleus, the nuclei
are annihilated and two photons are formed.
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(2)
(b) Explain why two photons are formed instead of a single photon when a helium
nucleus annihilates with the anti-helium nucleus.
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Page 13 of 58
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(2)
(c) Calculate, using data from the passage, the maximum frequency of the photons
produced in this annihilation of a nucleus.
frequency = ____________________ Hz
(4)
(2)
(e) What interaction would be responsible for the decay in part (d)?
Tick (✔) the correct answer in the right-hand column.
✔ if correct
electromagnetic
gravitational
strong nuclear
weak nuclear
(1)
(Total 11 marks)
Q23.
A Radioisotope Thermonuclear Generator (RTG) is a device that uses some of the energy
from radioactive decay to generate electricity. The Mars rover Curiosity includes an RTG
that contains plutonium-238. The plutonium undergoes alpha decay and some of the
energy is used to generate about 100 W of electrical power.
Page 14 of 58
(2)
(b) Only 6% of the energy from the decay is used to generate electricity.
Calculate the rate at which energy is transferred from the decay of plutonium-238 on
Curiosity.
current = ____________________ A
(1)
(d) Calculate the maximum number of components, each of resistance 45 Ω, that can
be connected in parallel across the RTG before the maximum output power is
reached.
Page 15 of 58
average power output = ____________________ W
(2)
(f) The maximum intensity of the sunlight on the surface of Mars at its equator is similar
to that in the UK.
Estimate, using your answer to part (e), the area of the solar panel needed to
provide an average power output of 100 W on Mars. Give your answer to an
appropriate order of magnitude.
Q24.
(a) The radius of a nucleus may be determined by electron diffraction. In an electron
diffraction experiment a beam of electrons is fired at oxygen-16 nuclei. Each
electron has an energy of 5.94 × 10 −11 J.
(i) Show that the de Broglie wavelength λ of each electron in the beam is about
3.3 × 10−15 m.
(2)
(ii) The graph shows how the relative intensity of the scattered electrons varies
with angle due to diffraction by the oxygen-16 nuclei. The angle is measured
from the original direction of the beam.
Page 16 of 58
The angle θ of the first minimum in the electron-diffraction pattern is given by
radius = ____________________ m
(1)
(b) Rutherford used the scattering of α particles to provide evidence for the structure of
the atom.
(2)
Page 17 of 58
• the main observations
• the significance of each observation
• how the observtions placed an upper limit on the nuclear radius.
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(6)
(Total 11 marks)
Q25.
(a) The exposure of the general public to background radiation has changed
substantially over the past 100 years.
State one source of radiation that has contributed to this change.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(1)
(b) A student measures background radiation using a detector and determines that
background radiation has a mean count-rate of 40 counts per minute. She then
places a γ ray source 0.15 m from the detector as shown below.
Page 18 of 58
With this separation the average count per minute was 2050.
The student then moves the detector further from the γ ray source and records the
count-rate again.
(i) Calculate the average count-rate she would expect to record when the source
is placed 0.90 m from the detector.
(ii) The average count per minute of 2050 was determined from a measurement
over a period of 5 minutes. Explain why the student might choose to record for
longer than 5 minutes when the separation is 0.90 m.
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(1)
(iii) When the detector was moved to 0.90 m the count-rate was lower than that
calculated in part (b)(i). It is suggested that the source may also emit β
particles.
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Page 19 of 58
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(2)
(Total 7 marks)
Q26.
The diagram shows how the binding energy per nucleon varies with nucleon number.
(a) (i) Fission and fusion are two nuclear processes in which energy can be
released. Explain why nuclei that undergo fission are restricted to a different
part of the graph than those that undergo fusion.
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(2)
(ii) Explain, with reference to the diagram, why the energy released per nucleon
from fusion is greater than that from fission.
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Page 20 of 58
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(2)
(ii) Using your answer to part (b)(i), calculate the binding energy, in MeV, of an
oxygen nucleus.
(iii) Explain how the binding energy of an oxygen nucleus can be calculated
with information obtained from the diagram.
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 8 marks)
Q27.
(a) Scattering experiments are used to investigate the nuclei of gold atoms.
In one experiment, alpha particles, all of the same energy (monoenergetic), are
incident on a foil made from a single isotope of gold.
(i) State the main interaction when an alpha particle is scattered by a gold
nucleus.
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(1)
Page 21 of 58
(ii) The gold foil is replaced with another foil of the same size made from a mixture
of isotopes of gold. Nothing else in the experiment is changed.
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(1)
(b) Data from alpha−particle scattering experiments using elements other than gold
allow scientists to relate the radius R, of a nucleus, to its nucleon number, A.
The graph shows the relationship obtained from the data in a graphical form, which
obeys
the relationship R = r0
(i) Use information from the graph to show that r0 is about 1.4 × 10–15 m.
(1)
Page 22 of 58
(2)
Q28.
A rod made from uranium−238 ( U) is placed in the core of a nuclear reactor where it
absorbs free neutrons.
When a nucleus of uranium−238 absorbs a neutron it becomes unstable and decays to
(2)
(b) A sample of the rod is removed from the core and its radiation is monitored from
time t = 0 s.
The variation of the activity with time is shown in the graph.
Page 23 of 58
(i) Show that the decay constant of the sample is about 3.4 × 10 –6 s–1.
(2)
(ii) Assume that the activity shown in the graph comes only from the decay of
neptunium.
Page 24 of 58
number of nuclei ____________________
(1)
(c) (i) A chain reaction is maintained in the core of a thermal nuclear reactor that is
operating normally.
Explain what is meant by a chain reaction, naming the materials and particles
involved.
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(2)
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(2)
(iii) Substantial shielding around the core protects nearby workers from the most
hazardous radiations. Radiation from the core includes α and β particles, γ
rays, X−rays, neutrons and neutrinos.
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(2)
(Total 11 marks)
Q29.
(a) Explain what is meant by a thermal neutron.
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Page 25 of 58
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(2)
(b) A student sets up the arrangement, shown in the diagram below, to demonstrate
the principle of moderation in a nuclear reactor.
A golf ball of mass 50 g is initially hanging vertically and just touching a hockey ball
of mass 150 g. The golf ball is pulled up to the side and released. It has a speed of
1.3 m s−1 when it collides head-on with the hockey ball. After the collision the balls
move in opposite directions with equal speeds of 0.65 m s −1.
(i) Calculate the height above its initial position from which the golf ball is
released. Assume that there is no air resistance.
height ____________________ m
(2)
(ii) Show that momentum is conserved in the collision and that the collision is
perfectly elastic.
Page 26 of 58
(4)
(iii) Calculate the percentage of the kinetic energy of the golf ball transferred to the
hockey ball during the collision.
(iv) Explain how this demonstration relates to the moderation process in a reactor
and state one way in which the collisions in a reactor differ from the collision in
the demonstration.
______________________________________________________________
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______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(2)
(v) Name the substance used as the moderator in a pressurised water reactor
(PWR).
______________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 13 marks)
Q30.
In stars, helium-3 and helium-4 are formed by the fusion of hydrogen nuclei. As the
temperature rises, a helium-3 nucleus and a helium-4 nucleus can fuse to produce
beryllium-7 with the release of energy in the form of gamma radiation.
Nucleus Mass / u
Helium-3 3.01493
Helium-4 4.00151
Beryllium-7 7.01473
(a) (i) Calculate the energy released, in J, when a helium-3 nucleus fuses with a
helium-4 nucleus.
Page 27 of 58
energy released ____________________ J
(4)
(ii) Assume that in each interaction the energy is released as a single gamma-ray
photon.
wavelength ____________________ m
(3)
(b) For a helium-3 nucleus and a helium-4 nucleus to fuse they need to be separated
by no more than 3.5 × 10–15 m.
(i) Calculate the minimum total kinetic energy of the nuclei required for them to
reach a separation of 3.5 × 10 –15 m.
(ii) Calculate the temperature at which two nuclei with the average kinetic energy
for that temperature would be able to fuse.
Page 28 of 58
Assume that the two nuclei have equal kinetic energy.
temperature ____________________ K
(3)
(c) Scientists continue to try to produce a viable fusion reactor to generate energy on
Earth using reactors like the Joint European Torus (JET). The method requires a
plasma that has to be raised to a suitable temperature for fusion to take place.
(i) State two nuclei that are most likely to be used to form the plasma of a fusion
reactor.
1. ____________________________________________________________
2. ____________________________________________________________
(2)
(ii) State one method which can be used to raise the temperature of the plasma to
a suitable temperature.
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 16 marks)
Page 29 of 58
Mark schemes
Q1.
(a) γ radiation because it is very / the most penetrating
OR
OR
✔ OWTTE
The quoted radiation must be gamma only and not a mixture
It is not sufficient to just state ‘gamma’. The mark is based
on the reason for the choice
1
OR
(Ionising) radiation only affects the outer electrons and not the nucleus
OR
The energy of the radiation is insufficient to induce radioactivity. (For this mark
high energy is not the same as highly ionizing)
OR
Make the point that I × d2 should be constant if the inverse square law is
operating ✔ owtte
Page 30 of 58
the second column shown here.
The mark is mainly based on the technique used.
The written answer must be enough to indicate a conclusion.
This mark can be gained even if there is a slip in the table.
The conclusion mark can be gained even if the second mark
is lost because only two data points are taken.
Look out for different approaches. E.g. use the CCR at one
distance to predict the CCR at other distances if the inverse
function is followed. E.g. CCR might be in order 9013,1440
and 360.
2
The random nature of the radiation count (although small in this case)
d is not the real distance between source and detector OR source is not a
point source
(Gamma and beta is acceptable but not gamma and alpha together)
Q2.
(a) 2.0 cm ✔ (allow 1.96 to 2.00 cm)
(b) Use more water/greater depth/greater volume (in the existing cylinder)
Page 31 of 58
1
OR
OR
OR
m = moe–λt
mo = m e+λt )
mo = 1.31 × 10–3 (g) ✔(allow and look out for unit being modified to mg)
Mark for 3 sig figs but must be attached to a final answer for mass with some
attempt at a relevant exponential calculation ✔
May calculate N = 8.51(2) × 10 18 and N0 9.07 × 1018 but
marks will be the same.
3
N = 8.5(1) × 1018 ✔
Page 32 of 58
Bq, B/becquerel, counts s–1 or s–1 ✔
In first mark is obtainable from calculating number of moles
and then multiplying by Avogadro’s number.
{n = 1.23 × 10–6/87 = 1.41 × 10–5
N = 1.41 × 10–5 × 6.02 × 1023}
A power of 10 error will count as an AE and will allow an
error carried forward.
Answer must follow working showing correct process as
correct answer can come from incorrect working.
3
[10]
Q3.
A
[1]
Q4.
C
[1]
Q5.
(a) (moderator) - the neutron undergoes an elastic collision /
bounces off with less speed / kinetic energy ✔ (Any
reference to absorption loses the mark)
Must have the idea that the neutron slow because of
collisions
1
(d)
Page 33 of 58
All three bullet points must be made coming from all three of
addressed. The source must be the bullet point headings.
identified and two stages in the (note some written points may
treatment sequence must be given. count as answers to bullet
Finally three problems encountered point headings 2 and 3)
in the treatment of waste and how
the problems are overcome should 5 marks = 5 points made
be stated. (Note discussion of a coming from all three of the
problem will often cover a stage of bullet point headings.
the treatment).
To be in this top band
The information presented as a communication skills must be
whole should be well organised good and the ideas easy to
using appropriate specialist follow.
vocabulary. There should only be
one or two spelling or grammatical
errors for this mark.
Page 34 of 58
dangerous) waste are the fission
fragments from the fission of
uranium-235 or from (spent) fuel
rods.
2nd bullet point
The waste is initially placed in
cooling ponds/water (close to the
reactor for a number of years)
plutonium/uranium is separated to
be recycled
high level waste is vitrified/made
solid into (pyrex) glass
then placed in (stainless)
steel/lead/concrete
cylinders/containers/bunkers
to be stored deep underground
(simply stating buried/underground
is not enough)
3rd bullet point
(the problem and its solution must
both be given, some examples are
given below)
the waste is (initially) is very
hot/generates heat so has to be
placed in water/cooling ponds (to
remove the heat)
the waste (initially) is highly
radioactive and needs to be
screened in water/cooling ponds (to
absorb the radiation)
the waste (initially) is highly
radioactive and needs to be
remotely handled (to avoid human
contact with the waste).
In liquid form the (high level) waste
may leak hence the need to vitrify
(and barrel in steel)
The waste will be radioactive for
hundreds/thousands of years so
storage needs to be stable in a
container hence the need to vitrify
(and barrel in stainless steel)
The waste will be radioactive for
hundreds/thousands of years so
long term storage needs to be in
geologically stable areas (deep
underground).
Page 35 of 58
Transporting waste presents a
potential danger to the public so
waste is transported enclosed in
impact/crash resistant/extra thick
and strong casings Or processed
onsite or nearby.
[11]
Q6.
D
[1]
Q7.
B
[1]
Q8.
D
[1]
Q9.
C
[1]
Q10.
(a) 1eV = 1.6 × 10−19 J
r = qQ/4πεoEp✔
r = 4.67(4.64) × 10−14 m ✔
3
(c) A = (R/R0)3 ✔
Page 36 of 58
less force so needs to travel further to lose same initial ke ✔
Fewer protons means that r will be smaller when alpha
particle has the same electrostatic potential energy (as initial
kinetic energy)
2
[10]
Q11.
B
[1]
Q12.
B
[1]
Q13.
D
[1]
Q14.
C
[1]
Q15.
C
[1]
Q16.
B
[1]
Q22.
(a) atoms/nuclei with same number of protons/atomic number ✔
atom/nuclei seen at least once
1
but different numbers of neutrons/mass number ✔
1
Page 37 of 58
1
(d)
Can use e+ OR β in place of e
1
Allow slight loop in bottom of neutrino but must not look like
gamma
1
(e)
electromagnetic
gravitational
strong nuclear
weak nuclear ✔
1
[11]
Q23.
(a) Top line: 234 4✔
bottom line: 2✔
the first mark is for the nucleon numbers correct
the second mark is for the correct proton number of the
alpha particle
2
Page 38 of 58
number of components = = 4.4; thus n = 4 ✔
✔
2
✔ = 114 W ✔
2
(f) (as Sun’s intensity is similar) area needed = (similar to that of UK domestic solar
power installation =) 10m2 (to an order of magnitude) ✔
Q24.
(a) (i) momentum (= E/c)
= 5.94 × 10-11 / 3.00 × 108 = 2.0 × 10-19 (kg m s-1)
(= 1.98 × 10-19 kg m s-1)
Or evidence of use of E = hc / λ ✔
λ = (h / mv = 6.63 × 10-34 / 1.98 × 10-19) = 3.35 × 10-15 (m) ✔
(allowable range 3.32 × 10 -15 - 3.37 × 10-15 m)
3.348 × 10-15 m alone may score 1 mark
A completed calculation to at least 3 sf must be seen for 2nd
mark
2
(ii) nuclear radius = 0.61 λ / sin θ = 0.61 × 3.35 × 10-15 / sin 42°
= 3.1 × 10-15 (m) ✔ (allow 2.95 – 3.1 × 10-15 m which is a range
incorporating 3.32 × 10-15 - 3.37 × 10-15 m and 42° – 43°)
Page 39 of 58
(The answer must be to 2 sf or better
note 3.3 × 10-15 , 42° gives 3.008 x 10-15 m i.e. 3.0 × 10-15)
1
(b) (i) diagram to show a labelled α source, foil target and detector (which is not
simply a forward facing screen so there must be some indication it can move
around the target e.g. a curved arrow / positioned at an angle / or screen
curved round target or detectors shown in at least two positions) ✔
(ii) The mark scheme for this part of the question includes an overall assessment
for the Quality of Written Communication (QWC).
Descriptor
High Level – Good to Excellent
Both observations should be given ie most α particles pass straight through
the foil and that some α’s are backscattered. Again both of these must be
explained. Additionally one approach to finding the upper limit to the radius
must be given and interpreted.
The information presented as a whole should be well organised using
appropriate specialist vocabulary. There should only be one or two spelling or
grammatical errors for this mark.
6 marks = all 3 bullet points covered in full.
5 marks = Same as 6 marks but one explanation is omitted
or poorly expressed
5-6
Page 40 of 58
its interpretation.
1 mark = Any observation..
1-2
Q25.
(a) nuclear fallout / testing / weapons / nuclear accidents / Chernobyl / nuclear waste /
Page 41 of 58
nuclear medicine / X-rays / specific uses of radioactive sources eg medical tracers
CT scan etc. / cosmic rays as a result of air travel ✔
(Any source of radiation that an individual may encounter which would not have
existed 100 years ago)
No mark for general answers such as ‘medical’ or Nuclear
Power / nuclear plant.
If a list is given all must be correct but ignore generalisations
such as medical or nuclear power.
1
I90CR = 55.8 + 40
(ii) (reduce impact of) random error / decrease the (percentage) uncertainty /
improve the statistics (because the percentage error is proportional to the
inverse square-root of the count) ✔ (owtte)
The answer must be an uncertainty related statement and
not increases reliability / accuracy or increased chance of a
reading (although these ideas can accompany a correct
answer) Ignore comparisons with the background count.
1
(iii) use (sensible) absorber between source and detector ✔ (sensible absorber
means it must have a noticeable effect e.g. 1mm of metal / aluminium sheet /
5mm perspex but do not allow metal foil / paper sheets. Also its effect must
not be so great that it reduces the gamma rays noticeably)
Page 42 of 58
(The value of the range of beta is not a marking point so
accept 15 – 80 cm if a number is given)
2
[7]
Q26.
(a) (i) Fission occurs at A values above the peak / above A of about 56 and fusion
occurs at A values below the peak / below A of about 56 ✔
Fission is the splitting of a nucleus (into two smaller ones) and fusion is the
joining of two nuclei ✔
First mark uses the graph so ‘fission occurs in very large
nuclei’ does not gain a mark. (allow other interpretations that
use the graph eg gradients)
2nd Mark splitting into 2 is not required for fission but if the
answer implies something different like the separating of all
the nucleons the mark may not be given.
2
(ii) Energy is released when the binding energy (per nucleon) is increased ✔
fusion energy is greater as the increase in BE(/A) for fusion > increase in
BE(/A) for fission (owtte) ✔
The last point can be given for a reference to the larger
gradient at small values of A (fusion region) compared to the
gradient at large values of A (fission region)
2
= 8(1.00867+1.00728) − 15.991 ✔
(∆m = 0.1366 u
Page 43 of 58
answer only is acceptable for one mark.
(factor may be 931 or 931.5)
1
(iii) read from the graph the BE/A for and multiply by the number of nucleons
(or 16) ✔
Or show the calculation
BE = 8(Mev) × 16(nucleons) = 130 (MeV) ✔ (128 MeV)✔
There must be a reference to position on the graph.
with the calculation allow BE = 8.1(Mev) × 16(nucleons) =
130 (MeV)
A calculation may lead to an answer in joule
1
[8]
Q27.
(a) (i) electromagnetic / electrostatic / Coulomb (repulsion between the alpha
particles and the nuclei) ✓
The interaction must be named not just described.
1
(ii) the scattering distribution remains the same (because the alpha particles
interact with a nucleus) whose charge / proton number / atomic number
remains the same or the (repulsive) force remains the same
The mark requires a described distribution and the reason
for it.
Or
the scattering distribution changes / becomes less distinct because there
is a mixture of nuclear masses (which gives a mixture of nuclear recoils)
✓
(owtte)
A reference must be made to mass and not density or size.
1
(using R = r0 A )
R = 1.43 × 10 × 511/3 ✓
-15
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First mark for working.
Second mark for evaluation which must be 2 or more sig figs
allow CE from (i) R = 3.71 × (i).
Possible escalation.
2
(c) Escalate if clip shows in the question and / or the use of 27 in the
working.
Or
density = A × u / 4/3π (r0 A1/3)3
= u /4/3π (r0 )3
51 × 1.67 × 10-27 would gain a mark on its own but 1.66 ×
10-27 would need u / 4/3 π(r0)3 as well to gain the mark.
Q28.
(a) Np → Pu + β- + ✓✓
Page 45 of 58
be given separately for the mark.
2
Or
(substitute two points from the graph into A = Aoe-λt)
e.g. 0.77 × 1012 = 4.25 × 1012 exp(-λ×5×105) ✓
then make λ the subject and calculate ✓
(the rearrangement looks like
λ = [ln (Ao / A)] / t
or λ = ‒ [ln (A / Ao )] / t )
Allow the rare alternative of using the time constant of the
decay
A = Ao exp (-t / ttc)
from graph ttc = 2.9 3.1 × 105 s✓
λ = 1 / ttc = 3.4 × 10-6 s-1 ✓
No CE is allowed within this question.
(ii) (using A = Nλ
N = 0.77 × 1012 / 3.4 × 10-6 = 2.2(6) × 1017 )
allow 2.2 2.4 × 1017 nuclei ✓
A possible route is find No = Ao / λ
then use N = Noe-λt.
Condone lone answer.
1
(c) (i) uranium (‒ 235 captures) a neutron (and splits into 2 smaller nuclei /
fission fragments) releasing more neutrons ✓
First mark for uranium + neutron gives more neutrons.
Ignore which isotope of uranium is used.
(at least one of) these neutrons go on to cause further / more splitting /
fissioning (of uranium‒ 235) ✓
Second mark for released neutron causes more fission.
The word ‘reactionߣ may replace ‘fissionߣ here provided
‘fission / splitting of uraniumߣ is given somewhere in the
answer.
2
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(ii) Escalate if clip shows critical mass in the question.
the moderator slows down / reduces the kinetic energy of neutrons ✓
so neutrons are absorbed / react / fission (efficiently) by the uranium /
fuel ✓
owtte
Possible escalation.
2
(iii) neutrons are absorbed / collide with (by the nuclei in the shielding) ✓
Second mark is only given if neutrons appear somewhere in
the answer.
converting the nuclei / atoms (of the shielding) into unstable isotopes
(owtte)
No neutrons = no marks.
Making it neutron rich implies making them unstable.
2
[11]
Q29.
(a) ANY 2 from
B1
B1
C1
A1
2
B1
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(Correct clear Manipulation =) 0.065 (+ 0) = − 0.0325 +
0.0975
or −0.065 (+ 0) = 0.0325 − 0.0975 must see signs
Condone non−SI here:
65 (+0) = − 32.5 + 97.5
B1
B1
B1
4
C1
OR
% remaining = 100 × ½ m(1.32 − 0.652)/ ½ m1.32
or hockey ball = 0.0317 and initial ke = 0.04225
or their KE hb / 0.04225 or their KEhb / their KET
75(%) range 75 to 76
A1
2
(iv) Demonstrates:
Slowing down / loss of KE of golf ball is like neutrons
slowed down / Neutrons can lose KE by elastic
collisions also
B1
Differs:
Collisions in a reactor are not always / rarely head-on
or
KE loss is variable
or
Collisions are not always elastic
or
Ratio of mass of neutron to mass of nucleus is usually
much smaller in a reactor
B1
2
Page 48 of 58
(v) Water
B1
1
[13]
Q30.
(a) (i) (Mass change in u=) 1.71× 10−3 (u)
or (mass Be−7) ‒ (mass He−3) ‒ (mass He−4) seen with numbers
C1
C1
C1
A1
4
C1
C1
A1
3
C1
C1
Page 49 of 58
2.6(3) × 10−13 J
A1
3
C1
C1
A1
3
B1
B1
2
B1
1
[16]
Page 50 of 58
Examiner reports
Q1.
(a) About half of the students knew that gamma radiation was to be used. However,
only 19.6% actually gained a mark because they did not know why gamma radiation
was to be used. They either left out the reason or simply wrote something they knew
about gamma radiation, whether it was relevant or not. “It is least ionising” or “it kills
germs” are examples of statements that did not gain marks.
(b) It was clear that over 90% of students were not aware of how materials can become
radioactive. There were extremely few references to nuclei. Students mainly wrote
that the induced radioactivity was “too small to be of harm” or “has a short half-life”
or “is only ionised a bit, so can be ignored”.
(c) More than half of the students (56.1%) gained full marks and they established that
the constant of proportionality was not constant when an inverse square of distance
relationship was used. Other students put the square on the count rate rather than
the distance and did not gain any marks. Others only compared two rows of data
rather than three, but these could score one of the marks.
(d) A great number of weak answers simply stated that the measurements were taken
wrongly in some way because of human error. Examples included “the readings
were copied wrongly” and “the GM tube was old and faulty”. The most common
answer was to state that the background reading was changing or not accurate. It
was also obvious that some students did not know how the inverse square law
comes about, since they wrote “the detector captures fewer radiations as it moves
away from the source”. Approximately one third of students could give one
acceptable answer; 59.5% failed to score.
Q2.
(a) Nearly half of the students (44.6%) could produce the answer without too much
trouble because they spotted that the half-life was 19 s. Other students either made
a small error in reading off the graph and got close to the correct answer, or they did
not spot the half-life approach and made a difficult question for themselves by trying
to fit the exponential decay equation to the graph. Most of these students made
mistakes.
(b) 62.4% of students found this to be an accessible question and gained the mark. The
‘near-miss’ answer put forward by many others was to write about increasing the
volume of the cylindrical tube. The problem here is that it was not made clear that
the height and not the diameter occupied by the water needs to be altered.
(c) Most students did realise that the water should take longer to empty if the decay
constant represented was smaller. Some of these students suggested changing the
geometry of one of the tubes but they did not make it clear which one they were
referencing. The students who focussed on the tap scored the mark more often than
not. A final error point seen frequently was to treat ‘density’ as having the same
meaning as ‘viscosity’. 34.7% of students wrote a sufficiently detailed answer to gain
the mark.
(d) This calculation was performed well by nearly 90% of the students. Most knew the
relevant physics and errors only occurred in arithmetic items such as getting the
wrong power of 10.
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(e) This was another reasonably difficult question that about half of the students could
do very well (45.3% scored all three marks). The most common approach was to
use the exponential decay in the mass, but others successfully used the exponential
decay in the number of molecules. A very small proportion of students calculated the
number of half-lives that must have occurred and deduced the mass in this way.
Most of these, unfortunately, did not retain three significant figures and so failed to
gain one of the marks available. As expected in this type of question, a significant
number of students made powers of ten errors and a similar number did not give
their answer to three significant figures. 25% of students failed to score.
(f) This calculation caused far more problems for students than the previous
calculation. Many attempted to work the activity out in counts per year, which was
not accepted. So, the calculation was marked in essentially three independent parts:
the number of molecules involved, the calculation giving an answer in becquerel,
and finally the unit. Of the 68% of students who scored at least one mark, about one
third, but not always the same one third, scored each mark.
Q3.
63.1% correct
Q4.
53.2% correct
Q5.
(a) A significant number of students were too brief in their answers to score a mark. To
state “it slows” was not a sufficient answer. It was necessary to add the idea of a
collision occurring. The least able students referred to absorption and in some cases
fission.
(b) This was a very straightforward question done well by all but the least able
students.
(c) Good students had knowledge of the physical process of fission and could express
their ideas coherently. The middle to low ability students often did not express their
ideas in a concise manner. The main failing was in not appreciating that the incident
neutron was absorbed. Many thought it simply jogged the uranium nucleus in
fission. The process of the nucleus splitting was often confused with other
radioactive decays, and the ejected neutrons were not always mentioned. This
group of students also wasted time trying to explain a chain reaction.
(d) It was clear that the vast majority of students did not have knowledge about nuclear
waste management. Many just expanded on their reasonably sensible thoughts of
‘keep clear from it, and get rid of it’. For weaker students, this simply meant wearing
protective clothing and sending the waste into space. The middle-ability students
gave a better solution by suggesting handling the waste remotely, encasing the
waste in a named and effective radiation shield, and placing it in a deep mine or
trench away from people. It was only about 20% of students who seemed to write
with knowledgeable authority. These students knew it was the spent fuel rods that
posed the main problem, unlike others who could answer with any item that had to
do with the reactor. It was also only these students that knew about waste producing
heat or about vitrification. It was rare for any student to refer to reprocessing. In
terms of the quality of the writing, it was clear that most students do not give
themselves even a brief plan. Often the ideas presented did not follow a logical
sequence.
Page 52 of 58
Q22.
In this question students were required to extract information from an introductory
passage. Part (a) was a straightforward starter but a significant proportion of answers
were spoilt by a lack of precision. Students were required to mention atoms or nuclei in
their responses and a significant proportion did not do this. Part (b) required an
explanation as to why two photons were produced. A number of students seemed to think
this was necessary due to energy conservation. Of those who realised this was due to
momentum conservation, a significant proportion then failed to appreciate the importance
of the photons travelling in different directions. Part (c) was an extended calculation and
students were told to calculate the maximum frequency of the photons produced in the
annihilation of the two nuclei. Maximum was necessary to indicate that the whole rest
energy of the nuclei should be used and excluded the possibility of calculating the
frequency of photons produced due to annihilation of individual nucleons within the helium
and anti-helium nuclei. It is true that higher frequency photons would be produced if the
nuclei had significant kinetic energy but students were told to use information from the
passage in which there was no mention of kinetic energy. For full marks students needed
to explain how they dealt with two nuclei annihilating and two photons being produced.
Parts (d) and (e) were well answered and the only common error was a failure to identify
the positron correctly in the equation.
Q23.
This question linked several parts of the AS specification together, including radioactivity,
electricity and energy. It also allowed for the testing of some parts of the first chapter of
the specification: “measurements and their errors”.
(a) This question caused few students any difficulty. The few errors seen tended to be
linked to using 2 for the nucleon number of the alpha particle.
(b) The equation needed for this question is on the data sheet, and it was therefore
disappointing to see how many students were unable to perform the calculation
correctly. Most commonly students confused output and input powers, obtaining an
answer of 6W. A moment’s reflection should have shown that this could not be
sensible. Due to the use of 100 W in the stem, answers were accepted regardless of
the number of significant figures but any rounding down had to be correct and
recurring notation was rejected.
(c) This was much more accessible with only a few students being unable to get the
correct answer. The few errors seen included answers that used 1700 W (i.e. the
answer to (b)), perhaps carrying on the problem with input and output power in this
context.
(d) There were several routes through this question and all were given credit. A popular
solution was to calculate the total circuit resistance (10.24 Ω) for an output power of
100 W, then reverse-working using the parallel resistor formula (or perhaps just
dividing 45 by 10.24) to find the (non-integer) result for number of resistors.
Rounding down gave the required result but a few rounded up and forfeited a mark.
Those using their result from 04.2 rather than 100 W were able to get some credit.
(e) There was evidence to suggest that many students were unfamiliar with this
conversion and that some centres may have overlooked this part of the
specification. The most popular approach was to find the equivalent J value of the
kW h and divide by the number of seconds in a year but the same idea using energy
in W h was also successful. Many near misses involved mixing units, dividing W h
by 3600. Disappointingly many students did not attempt this question.
(f) Answers to this question suggested very few students were familiar with the idea of
Page 53 of 58
an ‘order of magnitude’ calculation. Many students who produced an answer for (e)
did not then realise that the solar panel on Mars produced the same average power
output as that on Earth. Given that the intensity of solar radiation was about the
same in both situations they were looking for a solar panel with a surface area about
the same as that in a typical domestic setup on Earth. Having grappled with this very
few then appreciated that the answer required was to be given to the nearest power
of ten (10 m2 was the expected result). Again, many did not attempt the question.
Q24.
(a) (i) Most students could manipulate the equations to obtain the de Broglie
wavelength, usually by calculating the momentum first in a two stage process.
The most common error was to fail to show a completed evaluation to 3
significant figures. In many cases the equations and substitutions would be
shown but followed by a jump to the answer given in the question. It is
important for students to give answers to a ‘show that’ question to at least one
more significant figure than the quoted answer as evidence of the correct
calculation being carried out.
(ii) The use and rearrangement of the equation was done well by almost all
students. It was choosing the correct angle from figure 1 which caused
difficulties for some. Many chose to use 24 degrees, which is where the graph
data began. Others were unable to correctly establish the 1st interference
minimum to a reasonable precision.
(b) (i) Many of the diagrams were very rough and sketchy but were clear enough to
show the main features. Most showed the basic purpose of the apparatus and
included a source of a beam of alpha particles colliding with a gold film. Some
students failed to score marks because of their lack of labels and many did not
have a detector that surrounded or could move round the target area. A
significant majority of all students did not indicate that the experiment should
take place in a vacuum or the alpha particles need to be collimated.
(ii) In the extended response question many students showed the ability to give a
good account of the main observations made by Rutherford and his team
during the scattering experiment. Many students went on to explain the
significance of each observation and how it refined the model of the atom,
therefore securing an intermediate level mark. Fewer students were able to
produce a high level response and explain, in sufficient detail, a method by
which the scattering experiment results can be used to place an upper limit
upon the nuclear radius. Those that had difficulty with the question fell into
different groups. Some seemed to make a simple slip by discussing the
scattering of electrons but gave descriptions that fit with alpha particles.
Others went on to discuss electron diffraction and threw a little of everything
into the mix. Another group of students had difficulty in knowing what the
observations were. Many of these discussed the experiment by considering
how close to the nucleus an alpha particle passed by and what path it would
follow which they took as the observation, so they did not approach the task
by considering the results of an experiment first. Another group failed to relate
interpretations to observations and these students simply made a list of
observations and a separate list of unrelated facts about atoms. Many of the
moderate ability students were side tracked into discussing what Rutherford
expected to see that was consistent with the 'plum pudding model'. There was
nothing wrong with this as an introduction to an answer but in many cases it
took up more than half the answer space even though it was not asked for in
the question. The main issue in the interpretations was how the idea that
atoms consisted of mainly open space was stated. 'There is lots of space
Page 54 of 58
between atom', the nucleus is mainly open space' and 'an atom is mainly
made from air' and similar statements were seen. A minority of students
showed how the results lead to an upper limit to the nuclear radius. The most
successful were those that considered the least distance of approach with a
head on collision. In the analysis however, it was common for the expression
for the force between the nucleus and the alpha particle to be mistaken for the
expression for potential energy. Most students that attempted to place an
upper limit to the radius by considering how alpha particles are obstructed by
the area of the nuclei failed to consider the thickness of the foil. It was a
common misconception that a gold foil is one atom thick.
Q25.
(a) Acceptable answers were seen regularly and showed that many students
understood the nature of the question about how modern military, industrial and
medical practices and also the increased use of air travel by the public have led to
an average increase in exposure to background radiation. A significant number of
students failed to gain the mark by being too brief. They gave answers like,
'medicine' or 'flying'. With a few more words these could have been converted into
scoring answers. There were also some students that simply quoted a source of
background radiation such as 'cosmic rays' and 'radon gas'.
(b) (i) A majority of students could use the inverse relationship correctly. The main
problem came in dealing with the background. About half subtracted the
background from the 2050 but following the calculation very few of those
added the background to obtain the expected reading.
(ii) A large number of students failed to refer to the randomness of the count-rate
in any respect. They instead focused on the number of counts being reduced
because of the distance from the source. Alternatively some tried to express
the idea that the background had more effect at larger distances. The idea that
a larger count helps reduce the statistical percentage uncertainty inherent in
smaller readings proved too much for the vast majority of students.
(iii) A range of approaches were accounted for within the mark scheme and a
range of responses were seen. The most direct, common and successful
approach was the use of a sensible absorber placed between the source and
detector. There were a number of students who did not know the approximate
thickness of a material that would absorb most of the beta particles. The most
common alternative approach was to consider the count- rate fall with
distance. Using this approach a majority did not compare the count-rate with
the expected inverse square function in and out of the range of beta particles.
Most simply thought the count-rate would suddenly fall as the detector moved
out of range of the beta particles. While some non-standard approaches could
gain full marks, such as the use of magnetic/electric fields and cloud
chambers, students were expected to say exactly how the nature of the
suspected beta radiation would be revealed which proved too much for the
majority who took these routes.
Q26.
(a) (i) At the higher ability range, students had no trouble in conveying the idea of
splitting or joining of nuclei in different regions of the graph, which
corresponded to fission and fusion. Weaker responses often did not make any
reference to the graph. They simply referred to large and small nuclei taking
part. Other students who struggled only tackled one aspect of the question
and concentrated on fission or fusion alone. There was also a great deal of
Page 55 of 58
confusion about binding energy being given out in this question and in the
following question.
(ii) Students were expected to explain that only an increase in B.E./A, based
upon the diagram, from a nuclear reaction releases energy. It was clear that
most students did not understand this relationship. Instead they discussed the
process of fission or fusion in an attempt to explain a release of energy. Some
students understood the relationship and gave succinct answers, however a
few of these failed to gain full marks by choosing to use words like 'changed’
binding energy per nucleon rather than 'increased’ binding energy per
nucleon. Although referred to in the question many scripts were seen that
avoided any reference to the diagram.
(b) (i) Many students knew how to approach this question and appreciated the
precision of the raw data required to obtain an answer. These students used
the data sheet to obtain the mass of a neutron and proton separately. The
weaker responses lumped the 16 nucleons together and used an average
value for their mass in kg. Some even thought that the average value was 16
u. Some weaker responses also included electrons in their calculations even
though the question was specific in terms of mass difference calculation for
the nucleus.
(ii) When an error carried forward was taken into account most students could
perform this calculation, which was essentially a unit conversion problem. The
main errors involved computational mistakes.
(iii) The calculation was shown in full by many and most found the question very
straightforward. Those that failed to achieve the mark usually did not refer to
oxygen. They gave very general answers such as 'multiply the y-axis by the
x-axis. Some students clutched at other ideas like finding an area under the
graph or reading directly from the y-axis.
Q27.
The calculations involving the nuclear radius were done well but the question parts on
alpha particle scattering were not answered as well as expected. In part (a)(i) a majority
did refer to electrostatic or electromagnetic repulsion. There were however a significant
number who chose to give the strong nuclear force or to simply refer to like changes repel.
Interestingly there seemed to be a number of students, judging from their answers’, who
did not really understand the word ‘interaction’. The response to (a)(i) was very polarised.
Around half of the students understood that the charge of the nucleus did not change and
neither did the scattering. The other half regarded the alpha particle as bouncing
physically from the nucleus and therefore the radius or the change in nuclear size would
have consequences. If contact had been made between the alpha particle and the
nucleus the SNF would have put a stop to the scattering. In (b)(i) a majority of students
had no problem in using the graph. There were a handful who only showed the equation
without any working data. A few others incorrectly thought that the gradient of the graph
could give the value of the constant. This last group should be distinguished from a
number of students who linearised the data before they found a gradient ie the gradient of
R against A1/3. The main stumbling block for some in (b)(ii) was to not actually perform the
calculation which they set up. They simply quoted the radius given in the question.
Students found the calculation required very easy. The calculation of the last part (c) was
done well by a majority. A very small number quoted the wrong units and a few made
errors in the volume calculation by either quoting the wrong formula for the volume of a
sphere or getting the powers of 10 wrong in the calculation.
Page 56 of 58
Q28.
This question was quite discriminating overall because of its synoptic nature and other
mixed components. A majority of students got part (a) correct without too much difficulty.
Those that did not, either missed off the antineutrino or they thought this stage of the
decay was initiated by a neutron. Most students could perform the calculations required in
part (b)(i). Most found the half-life and progressed from there. A significant number of
successful students substituted data from the graph into a decay equation. Most of the
students who succeeded in (b)(i) also succeeded in (b)(ii). The most common mistake
was to leave out the power of 10 from the activity reading from the graph. Part (c)(i)
caused students a number of problems. Many spent too much time saying what a chain
reaction was in very general terms without reference to the specific situation. Many scripts
started, ‘A chain reaction is when a process does something that creates an item that is
needed for another process to take place...’ Usually this was given in a much more
verbose fashion. When it did come down to the specifics students were not very careful
about using the correct terms. Although not penalised here a majority who mentioned
uranium used the 238 rather than the 235 isotope. It was also common to see words like
react or decay being used where fission should have been used. Also when a single stage
of the process had been written down the next stage was not explained in sufficient detail.
The words, ‘and so on’ came far too early. In (c)(i) it was only the stronger students who
knew the part played by the critical mass. These students tended to gain both marks
available for this part question because they knew how it had an effect on the chain
reaction. The majority of the other students thought the mass had something to do with
the mass of individual nuclei and its effect on an individual fission process. The final part
(c)(iii) was done poorly by all but the most able students. Most thought that the ionisation
caused by radiation made atoms radioactively unstable. Very few were aware of the
problems caused by exposure to a flux of neutrons.
Q29.
(a) The majority of candidates were able to score at least 1 mark in this explanation.
Only the best candidates were producing quality answers that gained full credit.
Many candidates were unfamiliar with the term and offered answers suggesting that
these were neutrons that were produced due to heat.
(b) (i) Surprisingly, only 50% of candidates gained full marks here. A significant
proportion of candidates attempted to use the equations of motion and
consequently were awarded no marks. Candidates must be aware that these
equations only apply to situations were acceleration is constant. Some
candidates lost marks by rounding the final answer to 1 significant figure.
(ii) This was another “Show that...” style question and again it posed problems for
many candidates with just over 20% of candidates gaining 3 or 4 marks. A
very large proportion of candidates did not attempt the elastic collision part of
the question and limited themselves to 2 marks. Many of these candidates had
difficulty with the vector nature of momentum and their signs were often
inconsistent or incorrect. Grade A candidates typically presented well laid out
workings that were easy-to-follow, convincing.
(iii) Most candidates achieved both marks here. However, some had casual use of
powers of 10 errors on their KE calculations due to keeping the mass in
grams. This of course cancelled due to the ratio aspect of the question. A
number of candidates thought that 25% was the answer; this was due to not
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reading the question carefully enough.
(iv) Most candidates gained 1 mark for stating how the demonstration related to
the moderation process. Only a small number of candidates were able to
develop their answer by providing information that was more than the
converse of the information provided, thus demonstrating a sound knowledge
of the moderation process.
(v) Just under 80% of candidates knew that water was the moderator in a PWR. A
few candidates incorrectly thought that the moderator was heavy water.
Q30.
(a) (i) These calculations were well known and competently completed by the vast
majority of candidates. Where mistakes occurred these were more common in
part (i) with significant number of candidates failing to convert their mass to kg
or forgetting to square the speed of light in E = m c2.
(ii) As above.
(b) (i) These calculations proved to be good discriminators with only the better
candidates able to achieve all 6 marks. There were a significant number of
non-attempts, 10% for this part.
(ii) There were a significant number of non-attempts, 23% for this part. There
were lots of mistakes in the formula for potential energy with r2 instead of r.
Candidates were unsure about how to proceed in this part with many
neglecting to divide the total kinetic energy by 2.
(c) (i) Just over 30% of candidates could recall that H-2 and H-3 were most likely.
The most common answer seen was hydrogen and helium.
(ii) Candidates enjoyed more success in this part with over 50% able to state a
method used to heat the plasma in the JET reactor.
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