Final NSEP PYQs 2018 To 2023 All Chaper Questions
Final NSEP PYQs 2018 To 2023 All Chaper Questions
Final NSEP PYQs 2018 To 2023 All Chaper Questions
1. An observer stands on the platform at the front edge of the first bogie of a stationary train. The
train starts moving with uniform acceleration and the first bogie takes 5 seconds to cross the
observer. If all the bogies of the train are of equal length and the gap between them is negligible,
the time taken by the tenth bogie to cross the observer is
(A) 1.07s (B) 0.98s (C) 0.91s (D) 0.81s
Ans. (D)
2. In the following figures the velocity-time graphs for three particles 1, 2 and 3 are shown.
The magnitude of average acceleration of the three particles, over 10 s, bear the relationship.
(A) a1 > a2 >a3 (B) a2 > a1 > a3 (C) a3 > a2 > a1 ((D)) a1 = a2 = a3
Ans. (D)
3. A particle of mass m is thrown vertically up with velocity u. Air exerts an opposing force of a
constant magnitude F. The particle returns back to the point of projection with velocity v after
attaining maximum height h, then
F F
2 2 g − g +
u v m m
(A) h = (B) h = (C) v = u (D) v = u
F F F F
2 g + 2 g − g + g −
m m m m
Ans. (ABC)
4. A particle moves along a straight line. Its displacement S varies with time t according to the
law S2 = at2 + 2bt + c (a, b and c are constants). The acceleration of this particle varies as
(A) S0 (B) S–1 (C) S–2 (D) S–3
Ans. (D)
5. Two equal blocks, each of mass 𝑀, hang on either side of a frictionless light pulley with a light
string. 𝐴 rider of mass 𝑚 is placed on one of the blocks (as shown). When the system is
released, the block with rider descends a distance H till the rider is caught by a ring that allows
the block to pass through. The system moves a further distance D taking time 𝑡. In such a
situation, the acceleration due to gravity is
1
m
M
H
M
( 2M + m ) D 2
(M + m ) D 2
( 2M + m ) D (M + 2m ) D 2
(A) g = 2
(B) g = 2
(C) g = 2
(D) g = 2
2m Ht 2m Ht m Ht m Ht
Ans. (A)
6. A projectile is fired from ground with velocity u at an angle with the horizontal. It would be
moving perpendicular to its initial direction of projection after a time t equal to
u sin 2u sin u u
(A) (B) (C) (D)
g g g sin 2g sin
Ans. (C)
7. The position vector of a point mass is expressed as r = atˆi + bt 2 j The trajectory of the particle is
(A) a straight line (B) a parabola (C) a hyperbola (D) none of the above
Ans. (B)
8. A particle is projected from the ground with a velocity v = (3 î + 10 ˆj ) ms–1. The maximum height
attained and the range of the particle are respectively given by (use g = 10 m/s 2)
(A) 5m and 6 m (B) 3m and 10 m (C) 6m and 5 m (D) 3m and 5 m
Ans. (A)
9. A shot is fired at an angle to the horizontal up hill (Considered to be a long straight incline
plane) of inclination to the horizontal. It will strike the hill horizontally if
(A) tan = 2 tan (B) sin = sin2 (C) sin = 2 sin (D) tan = 4 tan
Ans. (A)
10. Two balls are projected from the top of a cliff with equal initial speed 𝑢. One starts at angle 𝜃
above the horizontal while the other starts at angle 𝜃 below. Difference in their ranges on
ground is
2 2 2 2
u tan u sin2 u sin2 u cos2
(A) 2 (B) (C) (D)
g 2g g g
Ans. (C)
2
Chapter: Relative Motion NSEP-2018
11. An aircraft flies at a speed v from city A to city B and back in time t0. City B is to the east of
city A at a distance d. The aircraft takes time t1 for the round trip if wind blows with speed w
along AB and time t2 if the wind blows with the same speed perpendicular to AB. Then,
(A) t1 = t2 = t0 (B) t1 > t2 > t0 (C) t1 < t2 < t0 (D) t1 > t0 > t2
Ans. (B)
12. A simplification of a kind of interlock is shown in figure. All surfaces are smooth and frictionless.
The body m has a mass m = 1 kg and the block M = 15 kg. The time 'm' takes to reach the base
if it is released at height h = 4 meter above the base of M, is: [use g = 10–2 ms]
13. A solid block of mass 3kg is suspended from the bottom of a 5kg block
with the help of a rope 𝐴𝐵 of mass 2kg as shown in the figure. When F
pulled by an upward force F, the whole system experiences an upward
acceleration 𝑎 = 2.19ms −2 . Choose the correct option. 5 kg
(A) Net force on the rope 𝐴𝐵 is 24N A
2 kg
(B) Tension at the midpoint of the rope 𝐴𝐵 is 48N
B
(C) Force F is 20N
3 kg
(D) Force F is 60N
Ans. (B)
14. A constant force F applied to the lower block of mass 15 kg makes it slide between the upper
block of mass 5 kg and the table below, as shown. The coefficients of static and kinetic (k)
friction between the lower block and the table are 0.5 and 0.4 respectively and those between
the two blocks are 0.3 and 0.1. The accelerations of the upper and the lower blocks are
respectively.
(A) 1.96 m/s2 and 1.96 m/s2 (B) 1.96 m/s2 and 3.92 m/s2
(C) 0.98 m/s2 and 0.49 m/s2 (D) 0.98 m/s2 and 1.96 m/s2
Ans. (D)
3
Chapter: Friction NSEP-2022
15. As shown in figure, a block of mass m is projected from wall A with velocity 2v0 on the rough
surface with constant sliding friction to hit the wall B with velocity v 0. With what velocity same
mass m should be projected to hit the wall B with same velocity v0 if the surface is now moving
upward with an acceleration of a = 4g?
16. The strings AB and AC each of length 40 cm, connect a ball of mass 200 g to a vertical shaft as
shown. When the shaft rotates at a constant angular speed ω, the ball travels in a horizontal
circle with the strings inclined at γ = 30° to the shaft. If the tension in the string AC is 4 N, that
in the string AB and the angular speed ω respectively, are
(A) 6.26 N and 11.32 rad/s (B) 7.92 N and 14.32 rad/s
(C) 7.92 N and 11.32 rad/s (D) 6.26 N and 14.32 rad/s
Ans. (A)
17. A block 𝑃 of mass 0.4kg is attached to a vertical rotating spindle by two strings AP and BP of
equal length 1.0m as shown in the figure. The period of rotation is 1.2s. Tensions T1 and T2 in
string AP and BP are
A
1m
T1
1.6 m P
T2
1m
B
18. The resistive force on an airplane flying in a horizontal plane is given by Ff = kv2, where k is
constant and v is the speed of the airplane. When the power output from the engine is P 0, the
plane flies at a speed v0. If the power output of the engine is doubled the airplane will fly at a
speed of
(A) 1.12 v0 (B) 1.26 v0 (C) 1.41 v0 (D) 2.82 v0
Ans. (B)
19. The potential energy (U) of a particle moving in a potential field varies with its displacement (x)
as shown below.
The variation of force F(x) acting on the particle as a function of x can be represented by
(A) Fig (i) (B) Fig (ii) (C) Fig (iii) (D) Fig (iv)
Ans. (D)
20. If the force acting on a body is inversely proportional to its speed, the kinetic energy of the
body varies with time t as
(A) t0 (B) t1 (C) t2 (D) t–1
Ans. (B)
5
21. Position-time graph of a particle moving in a potential field is shown beside. If the mass of the
particle is 1 kg its total energy is approximately
22. A block of mass m = 10 kg is hanging over a frictionless light fixed pulley by an inextensible light
rope. Initially the block is held at rest. The other end of the rope is now pulled by a constant
force F in the vertically downward direction. The linear momentum of the block is seen to
increase by 2 kgm/s in 1 s (in the first second). Therefore,
23. The kinetic energy of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends upon the distance
covered 's' as KE = as2 where a is a constant. The magnitude of the force acting on the particle
as a function of 's' is
2 2 2
2as 2as s
(A) (B) (C) 2as (D) 2as 1 +
R m R
Ans. (D)
24. A motor pump is used to deliver water at a certain rate r from a given pipe. To obtain thrice as
much water from the same pipe in the same time, the power of the motor has to be increased
to
(A) 3 times (B) 9 times (C) 27 times (D) 81 times
Ans. (C)
6
Chapter: Work, Power and Energy NSEP-2023
25. A particle of mass 𝑚 moves in a straight line under the influence of a certain force such that
the power (P) delivered to it remains constant. Starting from rest, the straight-line distance
traveled by the moving particle in time 𝑡 is
1 1 1 1
26. The force F(𝑥) acting on a body of mass m changes with position 𝑥 (in meter) as shown. It is
given that the potential energy U(𝑥) = 0 at 𝑥 = 0 Choose correct option(s).
F(N)
6
4
2
–2 1 2 3 4 5 6 x(m)
–4
–6
27. Two bodies of equal masses moving with equal speeds make a perfectly inelastic collision. If
the speed after the collision is reduced to half, the angle between their velocities of approach
is:
(A) 30° (B) 60° (C) 90° (D) 120°
Ans. (D)
28. Rocket fuel is capable of giving an exhaust velocity of vrel = 2.4 km/s in the absence of any
external forces. The fuel required per kg of the payload to provide an exhaust velocity of
12 km/s to the rocket is:
(A) 3670 kg (B) 8000 kg (C) 147.4 kg (D) 478.4 kg
Ans. (C)
29. A wedge of mass M rests on a horizontal frictionless surface. A block of mass m starts sliding
down the rough inclined surface of the wedge to its bottom. During the course of motion, the
centre of mass of the block and the wedge system
(A) does not move at all
(B) moves horizontally with constant speed
(C) moves horizontally with increasing speed
(D) moves vertically with increasing speed
Ans. (D)
7
30. A ball of mass m travels horizontally along the x-axis in the positive direction with an initial
speed 1 of v0. It collides with another ball of mass m2 that is originally at rest. After the collision,
( ) (
the ball of mass m1 has velocity v 1 x ˆi + v 1 y ˆj and the ball of mass m2 has velocity v 2 xˆi + v 2 y ˆj . )
Identify the correct relationship(s)
(A) 0 = m1v1x + m2v2x (B) m1v0 = m1v1y + m2v2y
(C) 0 = m1v1y + m2v2y (D) m1v0 = m1v1x + m2v2x
Ans. (CD)
31. A body of mass 10 kg at a rest explodes into two fragments of masses 3 kg and 7 kg. If the total
kinetic energy of two pieces after explosion is 1680 J, the magnitude of their relative velocity in
m/s after explosion is:
(A) 40 (B) 50 (C) 70 (D) 80
Ans. (A)
32. A freely falling spherical rain drop gathers moisture (maintaining its spherical shape all the way)
dm 2
from the atmosphere at a rate = kt where t is the time and m is the instantaneous mass
dt
of the drop, the constant k = 12 gm/s3. If the drop, of initial mass m0 = 2 gm, starts falling from
rest, the instantaneous velocity of the drop exactly after 5 second shall be (ignore air friction
and air buoyancy)
(A) 12.4 ms–1 (B) 49.0 ms–1 (C) 122.5 ms–1 (D) data insufficient
Ans. (A)
33. Two masses move on a collision path as shown. Before the collision the object with mass 2M
3
moves with a speed v making an angle = sin–1 to the x-axis while the object with mass M
5
3 4
moves with a speed v making an angle = sin–1 with the x-axis. After the collision the
2 5
4
object of mass 2M is observed to be moving to the right along the x-axis with a speed of v.
5
There are no external forces acting during the collision. The correct option is:
8
34. Two small masses m and M lie on a large horizontal frictionless circular track of radius R. The
two masses are free to slide on the track but constrained to move along a circle. Initially the
two masses are tied by a thread with a compressed spring between them (spring of negligible
length being attached with none of the two masses). The compressed spring stores a potential
energy U0. At a certain time t = 0 the thread is burnt and the two masses are released to run
opposite to each other leaving the spring behind. The total mechanical energy remaining
conserved. On the circular track the two masses make a head on perfectly elastic collision.
Take M = 2m for all calculations. Which of the following option(s) is / are correct?
(A) a) The angle turned by mass m before the collision is = 4
3
4u 0
(B) The velocity of mass m on the track is u =
3m
m
(C) The time taken to collide for the first time is t1 = 2 R
3U 0
2m
(D) The time taken for the second collision is t2 = 2R
3U 0
Ans. (ABC)
35. A ball A (mass m1) moving with velocity v experiences an elastic collision with another stationary
ball B (mass m2). Each ball flies apart symmetrically relative to the initial direction of motion of
m1
ball A, at an angle . Ratio of the masses of balls is
m2
36. A ball is projected from horizontal ground. It attains a maximum height H on its projectile path
and there after strikes a stationary smooth vertical wall and falls on ground vertically below
the point of maximum height. Assume the collision with wall to be perfectly elastic, the height
of the point on the wall where the ball strikes is:
3H 2H H 4H
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 2 5
Ans. (A)
37. A number n of identical balls, each of mass m and radius r, are stringed like beads at random
and at rest along a smooth, rigid horizontal rod of length L mounted between immovable
r
supports; is small but not negligible. Collision between balls, or between balls and supports,
L
are perfectly elastic. One of the balls is struck horizontally so as to acquire a speed v. Resulting
outward force felt by supports, averaged over a long time, is:
2 2 2 2
mv mv 2m v mv
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2(L − 2nr) (L − 2nr) (L − 2nr) L
Ans. (B)
9
Chapter: Center of Mass and Collision NSEP-2023
38. A deuteron of mass M moving at speed 𝑣 collides elastically with an 𝛼 - particle of mass 2M,
initially at rest. The deuteron is scattered through 90∘ from initial direction of its motion with
speed 𝑉𝑑 while the 𝛼-particle is scattered with speed 𝑉𝛼 at an angle 𝜃 from the initial direction
of motion of deuteron. Then
(A) = 30
v
(B) Va =
3
v
(C) Vd =
3
2
(D) a fraction of energy of deuteron is transferred to particle
3
39. A string of length l, tied to the top of a pole, carries a ball at its other end as shown. On giving
the ball a single hand blow perpendicular to the string, it acquires an initial velocity v 0 in the
horizontal plane and moves in a spiral of decreasing radius by curling itself around the pole.
Therefore,
(A) the instantaneous centre of revolution of the ball is the point of contact of the string with
the pole at that instant.
(B) the instantaneous centre of revolution of the ball will be fixed at the point where the string
was initially fixed.
(C) the angular momentum of the system will not be conserved.
(D) the angular momentum of the system will be conserved.
Ans. (AC)
40. A uniform circular disc rotating at a fixed angular velocity about an axis normal to its plane
and passing through its centre has kinetic energy E. If the same disc rotates with an angular
velocity 2 about a parallel axis passing through the edge, its kinetic energy will be:
(A) 2 E (B) 4 E (C) 10 E (D) 12 E
Ans. (D)
41. A large horizontal uniform disc can rotate freely about a rigid vertical axis passing through its
centre O. A man stands at rest at the edge of the disc at a point A. The mass of the disc is
22 times the mass of the man. The man starts moving along the edge of the disc. When he
reaches A, after completing one rotation relative to the disc, the disc has turned through.
(A) 30° (B) 90° (C) 60° (D) 45°
Ans. (A)
10
42. A star undergoes a supernova explosion. Just after the explosion, the material left behind forms
a uniform sphere of radius 8000 km with a rotation period of 15 hours. This remaining material
eventually collapses into a neutron star of radius 4 km with a period of rotation.
(A) 14 s (B) 3.8 h (C) 0.021 s (D) 0.0135 s
Ans. (D)
43. A sold hemisphere is cemented on the flat surface of a solid cylinder of same radius R and
same material. The composite body is rotating about the axis pf the cylinder of length with
angular speed . The radius of gyration K is.
2 15R + 8 1 15 + 8R
(A) R (B) R
5 3R + 2 10 3 + 2R
3 15R + 8 1 3 + 2R
(C) R (D) R
10 3R + 2 10 15 + 8R
Ans. (B)
44. A circular disc of radius R = 10 cm is uniformly rolling on a horizontal surface with a velocity
v = 4 ms–1 of centre of mass without slipping, the time taken by the disc to have the speed of
point A (which lies on the circumference) equal to the present speed of point B (point B lies
midway between centre and the point A) is
45. A solid cylinder of mass m is rolling without slipping on a rough horizontal surface, under the
action of a horizontal force F such that the line of action of F passes through centre C of the
cylinder. Choose the correct alternative.
F
(A) Acceleration of centre of cylinder is
m
(B) Frictional force on cylinder acts forward
F
(C) Magnitude of friction force is
3
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
11
46. A cylindrical tumbler of diameter d has smooth sides and smooth edge. A thin rod of length L
is balanced on the edge of the tumbler as shown in figure. The angle α that the rod makes with
horizontal for this trick to work is:
1 1
d 2
−1 2d 3
−1
(A) sin (B) cos
L L
1 1
d 3
−1 2d 3
−1
(C) cos (D) sin
L L
Ans. (B)
47. A thin uniform rod of mass M is bent in to four adjacent semicircles of radius of curvature R
lying in same plane. Moment of inertia of the bent rod about an axis through one end A and
perpendicular to plane of the rod is
17
(A) MR2 (B) 44 MR2
2
43
(C) 22 MR2 (D) MR2
2
Ans. (C)
48. In a certain machine two steel plates are separated by a hardened steel cylindrical roller
(see fig). In operation, the plates move back and forth horizontally, perpendicular to the axis of
roller, and the roller rolls freely between plates without slipping on either one. At a particular
instant plate A is moving with a speed of 18 cm sec –1 to the right and an acceleration of
30 cm sec–2 to the left, and the plate B is moving with a speed of 6 cm sec –1 to the right and
an acceleration of 8 cm sec–2 to the left. At that instant, for the roller
3g
(A) Its angular speed is
L
3g
(B) Magnitude of its angular acceleration is
2L
3g ˆ ˆ
(C) Acceleration of its centre of mass a CM = − j ( j unit vector in Y direction)
4
Mg ˆ
(D) Reaction force at pivot = j (Take X, Y axis as shown)
4
Ans. (AB)
50. A particle of mass 𝑚 is revolving in a horizontal circle on a frictionless horizontal table with the
help of a string tied to it and passing through a hole at the center of the table. Two equal
masses M are attached to the other end of the string as shown. If one of the hanging masses
M is removed gently, the radius of the circular motion of 𝑚
M
(A) decreases by a factor 1.414
(B) increases by a factor 1.260
(C) increases by a factor 1.414
(D) does not change because of the conservation of angular momentum.
Ans. (B)
51. A lawn roller is a solid cylinder of mass 𝑀 and radius 𝑅. As shown in the figure, it is pulled at
its center by a horizontal force F and rolls without slipping on a horizontal surface. Then the
2𝐹
(A) acceleration of the cylinder is
𝑀
2𝐹
(B) force of friction acting on the cylinder is
3𝑀 R F
𝐹
(C) coefficient of friction needed to prevent slipping is at least M
3𝑀𝑔
2𝐹
(D) minimum coefficient of friction to prevent slipping is
3𝑀𝑔
Ans. (C)
13
52. A can is a hollow cylinder of radius 𝑅 and height ℎ. Its ends are sealed with circular sheets of
the same material. The can is made of thin sheet metal of areal mass density 𝜎(kg/m2 ). Moment
of inertia of this closed can about its vertical axis of symmetry is
R
h
53. A vertical spring of length l0 and force constant K is stretched by l when a mass m is suspended
from its lower end. By pulling the mass down a little the system is left off to oscillate. The time
period of oscillation is:
l l0 1 m 1 + l0
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) (D) 2
g g 2 k g
Ans. (A)
54. A pendulum is made by using a thread of length 300 cm and a small spherical bob of mass
100 g. It is suspended from a point S. The bob is pulled from its position of rest at O to the
point A so that the linear amplitude is 25 cm. The angular amplitude in radian and the potential
energy of the bob in joule at A are respectively.
(A) 0.10 and 0.10 (B) 0.083 and 0.01 (C) 0.251 and 2.94 (D) 0.083 and 0.24
Ans. (B)
55. Two simple pendulums of lengths 1.44 m and 1.0 m start swinging together in the same phase.
The two will be in phase again after a time of
(A) 6 second (B) 9 second (C) 12 second (D) 25 second
Ans. (C)
56. As shown in the figure, a block of mass m is hung from the ceiling by the system of springs
consisting of two layers. The force constant of each of the springs is k. The frequency of the
vertical oscillations of the block is:
1 k 1 4k 1 5k 1 6k
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 5m 2 5m 2 6m 2 5m
Ans. (D)
14
57. Two simple harmonic motions are given by
a
x1 = a sint + a cos t and x2 = a sin t + cos t.
3
The ratio of the amplitudes of the first to the second and the phase difference between them
respectively are:
3 3 2 3
(A) and (B) and (C) and (D) an d
2 12 2 12 3 12 2 6
Ans. (A)
58. A particle is executing Simple Harmonic Motion of time period T = 42 in a straight line. Starting
from rest, it travels a distance 'a' in the first second and distance 'b' in the next second travelling
in the same direction. The amplitude of SHM is:
2 2 2
2a 3a 2a
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
3a − b 3a − 2b 2a − b
Ans. (A)
59. A particle of mass m is located in a one dimensional potential field U (x) = U 0 (1 - cos ax); U0
and a are constants. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
(A) The particle will execute Simple Harmonic Motion for small displacements.
(B) The stable equilibrium condition is x = 0
(C) The time period of small oscillations is ( e qV /kT − 1 )
U0
(D) The angular frequency for small oscillations is =
m
Ans. (ABCD)
60. A simple pendulum consisting of a small bob of mass m attached to a massless inextensible
string of length = 2m, hanging vertically from the ceiling, is oscillating in a vertical plane with
an angular amplitude m such that the maximum tension in its string is three times the minimum
tension in the string i.e., Tmax = 3Tmin. The correct option(s) is/are
(A) The maximum tension in the string is Tmax = mg (3 – 2cos θm)
9
(B) The maximum tension in the string is Tmax = mg
5
(C) The maximum velocity of the bob on its way is vmax = 3.96 ms-1
(D) The angular amplitude θm lies in the range m
4 3
Ans. (ABCD)
15
Chapter: Simple Harmonic Motion NSEP-2022
61. A small block A of mass 2 kg is attached to a spring of force constant 1200 Nm –1, and rests on
a smooth horizontal surface at x = 0 as shown in figure. A second block B of mass 1 kg slides
along the surface towards A at 6 ms–1 and sticks to it. Assuming that the collision occurs at
t = 0, position x (in meter) of block A as a function of time t is expressed as
62. A block B of mass 0.5kg moving, on a horizontal frictionless table at 2.0ms −1 , collides with a
massless pan P (at origin O) and sticks to it. The pan is connected at the end of a horizontal
un-stretched (relaxed) spring of force constant K = 32Nm−1 as
P
x
o
shown in figure. After the block collides, the displacement 𝑥(𝑡) of the block as a function of
time 𝑡 is given by
t
(A) 0 .25 cos 8t m (B) 0.25 sin 8tm (C) 2.50 sin m (D) 0.50 sin tm
8 4
63. A satellite is launched from a point close to the surface of the earth (radius R) with a velocity
v = v0 1.5 , where v0 is the velocity in a circular orbit. If the initial velocity imparted to the
satellite is horizontal, the maximum distance from the surface of the earth during its revolution
is:
(A) R (B) 2R (C) 3R (D) 4R
Ans. (B)
64. The shortest period of rotation of a planet (considered to be a sphere of uniform density )
about its own axis, such that any mass m kept on its equator is just to fly off the surface, is
5 3 5
(A) T = (B) T = (C) T = (D) T =
G 3 G G 3 G
Ans. (C)
16
65. The magnitudes of the gravitational field at distances r1 and r2 from the centre of a uniform
solid sphere of radius R and mass M are F (r1) and F (r2) respectively. Such that
2
F(r1 ) r1 F(r1 ) r2
(A) = if r1 R and r2 R (B) = 2
if r1 R and r2 R
F(r2 ) r2 F(r2 ) r1
2
F(r1 ) r1 F(r1 ) r1
(C) = if r1 R and r2 R (D) = 2
if r1 R and r2 R
F(r2 ) r2 R(r2 ) r2
Ans. (AB)
66. Two planets, each of mass M and radius R are positioned (at rest) in space, with their centres
a distance 4R apart. You wish to fire a projectile from the surface of one planet to the other.
The minimum initial speed for which this may be possible is:
2G M 2G M 4G M 3G M
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5R 3R 3R 2R
Ans. (B)
67. Two stars of masses M and m (M = 2 m) separated by a distance d = 3 astronomical unit, revolve
in circular orbit about their centre of mass with a period of 2 years. If M s is mass of Sun then
(A) m = 2.25 Ms (B) n = 1.25 Ms (C) m = 2.50 Ms (D) m =4.50 Ms
Ans. (A)
68. At the Earth's surface, a projectile is launched straight up at a speed of 10.0 km/s. Height to
which it will rise is [g at surface of Earth = 9.8 ms–2 and radius of earth R = 6400 km]
(A) 1.63 × 103 km (B) 1.56 × 104cm (C) 2.52 × 104 km (D) 5.1 × 103 km
Ans. (C)
69. In an isolated asteroid of radius R and uniform density ρ, a spherical cavity of diameter AC = R
is excavated, where C is centre of asteroid. Choose correct alternative (s)
G
(A) A ball just dropped from A will strike C with speed v = 2R
3
3
(B) A ball dropped from A will reach C after time t =
G
(C) Acceleration of ball dropped from A varies as its distance from O (centre of cavity)
(D) Weight of a body placed at B (diametrically opposite to A) on surface of asteroid decreases
7
by a factor due to excavation of cavity.
8
Ans. (AB)
17
Chapter: Gravitation NSEP-2023
70. Three stars of equal mass 𝑀 rotate in a circular path of radius 𝑟 about their center of mass
such that the stars always remain equidistant from each other. The common angular speed (𝜔)
of rotation of the stars can be expressed as
1 1 1 1
GM 3 2 GM 2 GM 2 2 GM 2
(A) (B) 3 (C) 3 (D)
r3 r 3
r 3 r 3
Ans. (D)
71. The figure shows a smooth tunnel AB( length = 2ℓ) in a uniform density planet (say Earth) of
mass 𝑀 and radius 𝑅. A small ball of mass 𝑚 is released from rest at the end 𝐴 of the tunnel.
Acceleration due to gravity at surface of the planet is g. Time taken by the ball to reach the end
𝐵 is
A
R
B
𝑅 ℓ 𝜋 2𝑅 𝑅
(A) 𝜋√ (B) 2√ (C) √𝑔 (D) 2𝜋√
𝑔 𝑔 2 𝑔
Ans. (A)
72. A 3.0 cm thick layer of oil (density oil = 800 kg/m3) floats on water (density w = 1000 kg/m3) in
1
a transparent glass beaker. A solid cylinder is observed floating vertically with of it in water
3
1
and in the oil. Oil is gently poured into the beaker until the cylinder floats in oil only. The
3
fraction of the solid cylinder in oil now is:
3 2 2 8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 3 3 9
Ans. (C)
73. A 20 cm long capillary tube stands vertically with lower end just in water. Water rises up to
5 cm. If the entire system is now kept on a freely falling platform, the length of the water
column in the capillary tube will be:
(A) 5 cm (B) 10 cm (C) Zero (D) 20 cm
Ans. (D)
74. A jet of water from 15 cm diameter nozzle of a fire hose can reach the maximum height of
25 m. The force exerted by the water jet on the hose is:
(A) 4.24 kN (B) 17.32 kN (C) 2.17 kN (D) 8.66 kN
Ans. (D)
18
Chapter: Fluid Mechanics NSEP-2020
75. The flow of water in a horizontal pipe is stream line flow. Along the pipe, at a point, where
cross-sectional area is 10 cm2, the velocity of water flow is 1.00 ms –1 and the pressure are
2000 Pa. The pressure of water at another point where cross-sectional area is 5 cm2 is:
(A) 2000 Pa. (B) 1500 Pa (C) 350 Pa (D) 500 Pa
Ans. (D)
77. Two small solid balls of masses m and 8 m made up of same material are tied at the two ends
of a thin weightless thread. They are dropped from a balloon in air. The tension T of thread
during fall, after the motion of balls has reached steady state is
(A) 2 mg (B) 3.5 mg (C) 4.5 mg (D) zero
Ans. (A)
78. A small sphere of mass 2.00 g is released from rest in a large cylindrical vessel filled with oil.
The resistive force due to viscosity of oil acting on sphere is proportional to its velocity. Sphere
approaches a terminal speed of 5.00 cm/s. The time it takes the sphere to reach 90.0% of its
terminal speed is approximately.
(A) 3.22 ms (B) 5.10 ms (C) 10.2 ms (D) 11.7 ms
Ans. (D)
79. Two plane glass testing slides each of surface area A are stuck with each other by a small water
drop squeezed between them as an extremely thin film of thickness d. If the surface tension
of water be T and the angle of contact be zero, then the force required to pull apart the two
glass plates will be:
8TA 4TA 2TA TA
(A) (B) (C) (D)
d d d d
Ans. (C)
80. The rate of flow of a certain liquid of viscocity through a horizontal capillary of length l and
radius r is Q when the pressure head at the inlet is just twice the atmospheric pressure. The
rate of flow of the same liquid through another capillary of length 2l and radius 2r when the
inlet pressure head is 4 times the atmospheric pressure will be (The outlet being open to
atmosphere in each case)
(A) 24Q (B) 16 Q (C) 8Q (D) 4Q
Ans. (A)
19
Chapter: Fluid Mechanics NSEP-2023
81. The density of a liquid is 𝜌 at the surface. The bulk modulus of the liquid is B. The increase 𝛥𝜌
in the density of the liquid at a depth ℎ from the surface is (with 𝛥𝜌 << 𝜌 )
2 2 2
gh gh gh 2 gh
(A) = (B) = (C) = (D) =
B B 2B B
Ans. (A)
82. Water flows at 1.2m / s through a hose of diameter 1.59cm . The time required to fill a cylindrical
container of radius 2m to a height of h = 1.25m will be nearly.
(A) 18.3 hour (B) 2.7 hour (C) 550min (D) 220min
Ans. (A)
83. An air bubble of radius 2mm at a depth 12m below the surface of water at temperature of 8∘ C,
rises to the surface where the temperature is 16∘ C. Neglecting the effect of Surface Tension,
the radius of the bubble at the surface is estimated to be
(A) 2.56m m (B) 2.6 1m m (C) 2.86m m (D) 4.45m m
Ans. (B)
84. Two soap bubbles of radii a and b coalesce to form a single bubble of radius c under
isothermal conditions. If the external pressure is p A , then the Surface Tension (T) of the soap
solution is
(A)
( 3
PA c − a − b
3 3
) (B)
( 3
PA a + b − c
3 3
) (C)
( 2
PA a + b − c
2 2
) (D)
( 2
PA c − a − b
2 2
)
4 (a 2 2
+b −c
2
) 2 (c 2 2
−a −b
2
) 2 (c 3
−a −b
3 3
) 4 (a + b − c )
Ans. (A)
85. A steel cable hanging vertically can support a maximum load W. The cable is cut to exactly half
of its original length, the maximum load that it can support now is
W
(A) W (B)
2
W
(C) 2W (D) More than but less than to a than W
2
Ans. (A)
86. A thin uniform metallic rod of length L and radius R rotates with an angular
velocity in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis passing through one of its
ends. The density and the Young’s modulus of the material of the rod are and
Y respectively.
2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3
L L RL L
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6Y 3Y 2Y 2Y
Ans. (B)
20
Chapter: Elasticity and Thermal Expansion NSEP-2022
87. A uniform rod of the material of Young's modulus Y is pushed over a smooth horizontal surface
by a constant horizontal force F. The area of cross - section of the rod is A. The compressional
strain in the rod is
F F 3F 2F
(A) (B) (C) (D)
AY 2AY 2AY AY
Ans. (B)
88. Three containers A, B and C are filled with water at different temperatures. When 1 litre of
water from A is mixed with 2 litre of water from B, the resulting temperature of mixture is 52°
C. When 1 litre of water from B is mixed with 2 litre of water from C, the resulting temperature
of mixture is 40°C. Similarly, when 1 liter of water from C is mixed with 2 litre of water from A,
the resulting temperature of mixture is 34°C. Temperature of mixture when one liter of water
from each container is mixed (negligible the water equivalent of container) is
(A) 40°C (B) 42°C (C) 38°C (D) 45°C
Ans. (B)
89. Consider the process of the melting of a spherical ball of ice originally at 0°. Assuming that the
heat is being absorbed uniformly through the surface and the rate of absorption is proportional
to the instantaneous surface area. Which of the following is true for the radius (r) of the ice
ball at any instant of time? Assume that the initial radius of the ice ball at t = 0 is r = R0 and
that the shape of the ball always remains spherical during melting. Also assume that L and
are respectively the latent heat and density of ice at 0-.
kt
−
L
(A) radius decreases exponentially with time as r = R0 e . Here k is constant
kt
−
(B) radius decrease exponentially with time as r = R0 e 2L
k
(C) radius of the ice ball decreases with time linearly with a slope − .
L
k
(D) radius of the ice ball decreases with time linearly with a slope −
2L
Ans. (C)
90. Which of the following curves represents spectral distribution of energy of black body radiation?
Ans. (A)
21
91. A sphere and a cube having equal surface area are made of the same material. The two are
heated to the same temperature and kept in identical surroundings. The ratio of their initial
rates of cooling is:
(A) 1 : 1 (B) :1 (C) :1 (D) :1
2 3 6
Ans. (D)
92. The Sun having radius R and surface temperature T, emits radiation as a perfect emitter. The
distance of the earth from the sun is r and the radius of the earth is Re. The total radiant power
incident on the earth is:
2 2 4 2 2 4 2 2 4 2 2 4
R eR T R eR T 4 R eR T R eR T
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C) 2
(D) 2
4 r r r r
Ans. (D)
93. A steel cooking pan has copper coating at its bottom. The thickness of copper coating is half
the thickness of steel bottom. The conductivity of copper is three times that of steel. If the
temperature of blue flame is 119°C and that of the interior of the cooking pan is 91°C, then the
temperature at the interface between the steel bottom and the copper coating in the steady
state is:
(A) 98°C (B) 103°C (C) 115°C (D) 108°C
Ans. (C)
94. Plots of intensity (I) of radiation emitted by a black body versus wavelength () at three different
temperatures T1, T2 and T3 respectively are shown in figure. Choose the correct statement.
95. Consider a composite slab consisting of two different materials having equal thickness and
equal area of cross-section. The thermal conductivities are K and 2K respectively. The
equivalent thermal conductivity of the composite slab is:
2K 4K
(A) (B) 2K (C) 3K (D)
3 3
Ans. (D)
22
96. The temperature of an isolated black body falls from T1 to T2 in time t. Then, t = C x where x is
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) − (B) − 2 (C) − 3 (D) − 4
T2 T1 T
2
2
T1 T
2
3
T1 T
2
4
T1
Ans. (C)
97. A certain rod of uniform area of cross section A (A = 1.0 cm2) with its length = 2 m is thermally
insulated on its lateral surface. The thermal conductivity (K) of the material of the rod varies
with temperature T as K = where α is a constant. The two ends of the rod are maintained at
T
temperature of T1 = 90°and T2 = 10° The correct option(s) is/are.
(A) The temperature at 50 cm from the colder end is 17.32°
(B) The temperature at 50 cm from the hotter end is 51.96°
(C) The rate of heat flow per unit area of cross section of the rod is 1.1 in SI units.
(D) The temperature gradient is numerically higher near the hot end compare to that near the
cold end.
Ans. (ABCD)
98. Solar constant for Earth is 2.0 cal per cm2 per minute. [1 cal = 4.2 J]. Angular diameter of the
1
Sun (as seen from the Earth) is (= half a degree). Treating Sun as a black body, its surface
2
temperature is estimated to be nearly.
(A) 6000 K (B) 5800 K (C) 6200 K (D) 5500 K
Ans. (A)
99. End A of a uniform thin rod of length 2L is in boiling water (100°C) and end B is in melting ice
L
(0°C). P and Q are two points at distance from A and B respectively A. similar bent rod of
2
3L
length of same material and equal cross section is joined to rod AB between points P and
2
Q as shown in figure. Then
23
Chapter: Heat Transfer NSEP-2023
100. The figure shows a lagged bar XY of non-uniform cross section. One end X of the bar is
maintained at 100∘ C and the other end Y at 0∘ C. The variation of temperature along its length
from X to Y in steady state is best represented by the curve.
X(100°C) Y(0°C)
100°C
100°C
(A) (B)
0 0
X x Y X x Y
100°C 100°C
(C) (D)
0 0
X x Y X x Y
Ans. (B)
101. Assuming the Sun to be a spherical body (radius 𝑅𝑆 ) of surface temperature 𝑇, the total
radiation power received by Earth (radius 𝑅𝐸 ) at a distance 𝑟 from Sun is
2 2 4 2 2 4 2 2 4 2 2 4
R ER s T 4 R ER S T R ER S T R ER s T
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C) 2
(D) 2
r r 4r 4 r
Ans. (A)
102. The average translational kinetic energy of oxygen (M = 32) molecules at a certain temperature
is 0.048 eV. The translational kinetic energy of nitrogen (M = 28) molecules at the same
temperature is (consider the two gases to be ideal)
(A) 0.0015 eV (B) 0.042 eV (C) 0.048 eV (D) 0.768 eV
Ans. (C)
103. If the average mass of a smoke particle in an Indian kitchen 3 × 10–17 kg, is the rms speed of the
smoke particles at 27° is approximately
(A) 2 cm/sec (B) 2 m/sec (C) 2 km/sec (D) none of these
Ans. (A)
24
Chapter: Thermodynamics NSEP-2018
105. Under standard conditions of temperature and pressure a piece of ice melts completely on
heating it. Obviously, the increase in internal energy of the system (ice and water) is:
(A) equal to the heat given. (B) more than the heat given.
(C) less than the heat given. (D) zero.
Ans. (B)
106. A horizontal insulated cylinder of volume V is divided into four identical compartments by
stationary semi-permeable thin partitions as shown. The four compartments from left are
initially filled with 28 g helium, 160 g oxygen, 28 g nitrogen and 20 g hydrogen respectively. The
left partition lets through hydrogen, nitrogen and helium while the right partition lets through
hydrogen only. The middle partition lets through hydrogen and nitrogen both. The temperature
T inside the entire cylinder is maintained constant. After the system is set in equilibrium,
14R T
(A) pressure of helium is
V
20RT
(B) pressure of oxygen is
V
(C) pressure of nitrogen is k̂
10R T
(D) pressure of hydrogen is
V
Ans. (ABCD)
5
107. One mole of a gas with = is mixed with two moles of another non-interacting gas with
3
7 Cp
= . The ratio of specific heats = of mixture is approximately
5 Cv
108. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT3 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of the
gas is:
1 2 3 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
T T T T
Ans. (D)
25
109. An ideal monatomic gas is confined within a cylinder by a spring loaded piston of cross-sectional
area 4 10–3 m2. Initially the gas is at 400 K and occupies a volume 2 10–3 m3 and the spring is
in its relaxed position. The gas is heated by an electric heater for some time. During this time
the gas expands and the piston moves out by a distance of 0.1 m. The spring connected to the
rigid wall is massless and frictionless. The force constant of the spring is 2000 Nm –1 and
atmospheric pressure is 105 Nm–2 then
110. The work done by the three moles of an ideal gas in the cycle process ABCD shown in the
diagram is approximately. Given that
T1 = 100 K, T2 = 200 K and
T3 = 600 K, T4 300 K
P
111. The molar specific heat capacity of a certain gas is expressed as C = C V + . The equation of
T
state for the process can be written as ( & A are constant)
V
26
Chapter: Thermodynamics NSEP-2022
112. A cyclic process 1–2–3–4–1 consisting of two isobars 2 – 3 and 4 – 1, an isochor 1 – 2 and a
process 3 – 4 represented by straight line on a P – V diagram, as shown in figure, involves n
moles of an ideal gas. The gas temperatures at states 1, 2, 3 & 4 are T 1, T2, T3 and T4 respectively.
Also points 3 and 4 lie on the same isotherm. The work done by gas during the cycle is
1 T T 1 T T
(A) nR ( T2 − T1 ) 2 + 3 − 2 (B) nR ( T3 − T2 ) 3 + 4 − 2
2 T T 2 T T
1 4 2 1
1 T T
(C) nR ( T2 − T1 ) 3 + 3 − 2 (D) Zero
2
T1 T2
Ans. (C)
113. Two identical Carnot (cycles) engines operate between maximum and minimum temperatures
Ve 3
T1
T1 and T2 and volume limits, Va, Vb, Vc & Vd as shown in figure. Given that =e and = e
Va T2
(e is the base of natural logarithm). Engine 1 operates on mono atomic gas while engine 2 on
diatomic gas. Choose correct alternatives.
Vb,1
(A) Ratio of volumes =e
Vb,2
W1
(B) Ratio of work done per cycle for the two is = 3
W2
W1
(C) Ratio of work per cycle for the two is = 1
W2
1
(D) Ratio of efficiencies (h) of two engines =1
2
Ans. (ABD)
27
Chapter: Thermodynamics NSEP-2023
114. Two Carnot heat engines are connected in series such that the sink of the first engine is heat
source of the second. Efficiency of the engines are 𝜂1 and 𝜂2 respectively. Net efficiency 𝜂 of
the combination is given by
12
(A) = 1 + 2 (B) =
1 + 2
(C) = 1 + 2 ( 1 − 1 ) (D) = 1 − 2 ( 1 − 1 )
Ans. (C)
115. An ideal gas ( n moles) is initially at pressure P and temperature T. It is cooled isochorically to
P
a pressure . The gas is then expanded at a constant pressure so as to attain back its initial
4
temperature T . Work done by gas during the entire process is
5 3 1
(A) nRT (B) nRT (C) nRT (D) Zero
4 4 4
Ans. (B)
116. Two moles of nitrogen in a container, of negligible thermal capacity, are initially at 17∘ C. The gas
is compressed adiabatically from an initial volume of 120 liter to 80 liter. The correct option(s)
is/are
(A) Initial pressure of the gas is nearly 40.2kPa
(B) Final temperature of the gas is nearly 68∘ C
(C) Work done by the gas is 2.12kJ
(D) The internal energy of the gas increases by 2.12kJ
Ans. (ABD)
117. The aperture diameter of a plano-convex lens is 6 cm and its thickness is 3 mm. If the speed
of light through its material is v = 2 ×108 m/s, the focal length of the lens is
(A) 40 cm (B) 35 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 20 cm
Ans. (C)
118. The critical angle for light passing from glass to air is minimum for the light of wavelength
(A) 0.7 m (B) 0.6 m (C) 0.5 m (D) 0.4 m
Ans. (D)
119. A thin hollow equiconvex lens, silvered at the back, converges a beam of light parallel to the
4
principal axis at a distance 0.2 m. When filled with water = , the same beam will be
3
converged at a distance of
(A) 0.40 m (B) 0.20 m (C) 0.12 m (D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
28
120. An air bubble is situated at a distance 2.0 cm from the centre of a spherical glass paperweight
of radius 5.0 cm and refractive index 1.5. The bubble is seen through the nearest surface. It
appears at a distance v from the centre. Therefore, v is
(A) 3.75 cm (B) 3.25 cm (C) 2.50 cm (D) 3.80 cm
Ans. (C)
121. A concave lens of focal length f produces an image (1/n) times the size of the object. The
distance of the object from the lens is
4R T (n + 1)
(A) (n + 1) f (B) (C) f (D) (d – 1)f
V n
Ans. (D)
122. A cylinder containing water (refractive index 4/3) is covered by an equiconvex glass (refractive
index 3/2) lens of focal length 25 cm. At the mid-day when the sun is just overhead, the image
of the sun will be seen at a distance of
(A) 100 cm. (B) 50 cm. (C) 37.5 cm. (D) 25 cm.
Ans. (B)
123. A transparent cylindrical rod of length l = 50 cm, radius R = 10 cm and refractive index = 3
lies onto a horizontal plane surface. A ray of light moving perpendicular to its length is incident
on the rod horizontally at a height h above the plane surface such that this ray emerges out of
the rod at a height 10 cm above the plane surface. Therefore, h is:
(A) 1.34 cm. (B) 1.73 cm. (C) 10.0 cm (D) 18.66 cm.
Ans. (ACD)
124. A converging lens of focal length 40 cm is fixed at 40 cm in front of a screen. An object placed
120 cm from the fixed lens is required to be focused on the screen by introducing another
identical lens in between. The second lens should be placed at a distance x from the object
where x is
(A) 40 cm. (B) 50 cm. (C) 140 cm. (D) 150 cm.
Ans. (AC)
125. A concave mirror has a radius of curvature R and forms the image of an object placed at a
distance 1.5R from the pole of the mirror. An opaque disc of diameter half the aperture of the
mirror is placed with the pole at the centre. As a result
(A) the position of the image will be the same but its central half will disappear
(B) the position of the image will be the same but its outer half will disappear
(C) the complete image will be seen at the same position and it will be exactly identical with
the initial image
(D) the complete image will be seen at the same position but it will not be identical in all
respect with the initial image.
Ans. (D)
29
126. A ray of white light is made incident on the refracting surface of a prism such that after
refraction at this surface, the green component falls on the second surface at its critical angle.
The colours present in the emergent beam will be
(A) violet, indigo and blue. (B) violet, indigo, blue, yellow, orange and red.
(C) yellow, orange and red. (D) all colours
Ans. (C)
127. In a compound microscope, having tube-length 30 cm, the power of the objective and the
eye-piece are 100D and 10D respectively. Then the magnification produced by the microscope
when the final image is at the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm) will be
(A) 55 (B) 64 (C) 77 (D) 90
Ans. (C)
128. Parallel rays are incident on a glass sphere of diameter 10 cm and having refractive index 1.5.
The sphere converges these rays at a certain point. The distance of this point from the centre
of the sphere will be
(A) 2.5 cm (B) 5 cm (C) 7.5 cm (D) 12.5 cm
Ans. (C)
129. A rectangular slab of glass of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33
such that the top surface of the slab remains parallel to water level. Light from a point source
in air is incident on the surface of water at an angle such that the light reflected from the
glass slab is plane polarised, the angle is
(A) 84.4° (B) 48.4° (C) 56.3° (D) 53.1°
Ans. (A)
130. A converging beam of light is pointing to P. Two observations are made with (i) a convex lens of
focal length 20 cm and, (ii) a concave lens of focal length 16 cm placed in the path of the
convergent beam at a distance 12 cm before the point P. It is observed that
(A) in both cases the images are real.
(B) in both cases the images are virtual.
(C) for (i) the image is real and for (ii) the image is virtual.
(D) for (i) the image is virtual and for (ii) the image is real.
Ans. (A)
131. A pin of small length 'a' is placed along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f, at the
distance u (> f) from its pole. The length of its image is 'b'. If the same object is placed
perpendicular to its axis at the same distance u and the length of its image is now 'c', then.
2 2 3
f u−f a f
(A) b = a 2
(B) c = ab (C) c = b (D) bc = 3
(u − f) f (u − f)
Ans. (ABCD)
132. A thin rod of length 10 cm. is placed along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm in
such a way that one end of the image coincides with one end of the object. The length of the
image may be:
(A) 7.5 cm (B) 12 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 10 cm
Ans. (ACD)
30
Chapter: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments NSEP-2020
4
133. A cylinder of length > 1 m filled with water ( = ) up to the brim, kept on a horizontal table
3
is covered at its top by an equiconvex glass ( = 1.5) lens of focal length 25 cm when in air. At
mid day, 12.00 noon, Sun is just overhead and light rays comes parallel to the principal axis of
the lens. The sun rays will be focused
(A) 25 cm behind the lens in the water
(B) 37.5 cm behind the lens in the water
(C) 50 cm behind the lens in the water
(D) 100 cm behind the lens in the water
Ans. (C)
134. A ray of light is an incident on an equilateral prism made of flint glass (refractive index 1.6)
placed in air.
(A) The ray suffers a minimum deviation if it is incident at angle 53°.
(B) The minimum angle of deviation suffered by the ray is 46°.
4
(C) If prism is immersed in water = the minimum deviation produced by the prism is 14°.
3
(D) The minimum deviation produced by the prism is 23.6° if it is immersed in a liquid of
refractive index = 1 2.
Ans. (ABCD)
135. The optical powers of the objective and the eyepiece of a compound microscope are 100 D and
20 D respectively. The microscope magnification being equal to 50 when the final image is
formed at d = 25 cm i.e., the least distance of distinct. If the separation between the objective
and the eyepiece is increased by 2 cm, the magnification of the microscope will be.
(A) 62 (B) 50 (C) 38 (D) 25
Ans. (A)
136. On a right angled transparent triangular prism ABC, when a ray of light is incident on face AB,
parallel to the hypotenuse BC, it emerges out of the prism grazing along the surface AC. If
instead the ray is made incident on face AC, parallel to the hypotenuse CB it gets totally
reflected on face AB. The refractive index µ of the material of the prism is
3
(A) 2 (B) 2
2
3
(C) 3 2 (D)
2
Ans. (B)
31
137. A parallel beam of light is made incident (as shown) on the flat diametric plane of a transparent
semi-circular thin sheet of thickness t (t << R) of refractive index = 2 at an angle of 45°. As
a result of refraction, the light enters the semi-circular sheet and comes out at its curved
surface.
(A) Light rays come out at the curved surface for values of θ in the range 75° ≤ θ ≤ 165°.
(B) The range of angle θ is independent of the angle of incidence.
(C) The range of angle θ depends on the refractive index of the material
(D) All the emergent rays of light shall cross the line OP which is a refracted ray at 0 = 120°
Here θ is the angle between the vertical diameter AB and the concerned radius of the
semicircular sheet of radius R.
Ans. (ACD)
32
Chapter: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments NSEP-2022
139. A concave mirror when placed in air has a focal length f = 20 cm. The mirror is now placed
4
horizontally and filled with a thin layer of water having refractive index . The object is placed
3
horizontally near the principal axis at a distance d from the mirror such that a real, inverted
image is formed at the same plane as the object, as shown in the figure. What is the value
of d?
140. An insect of negligible mass is sitting on a block of mass M, tied with a spring of force constant
K. The block performs simple harmonic motion vertically with amplitude A in front of a mirror
which 0 is inclined at 60 with the vertical as shown. The maximum speed of insect relative to
its image will be:
K 3K K
(A) 2A (B) A (C) A (D) zero
M M M
Ans. (B)
141. A concave lens of focal length 10 cm is placed between two convex lenses of focal length 10cm
and 20 cm at a separation of 5 cm between the first and second lens and 10 cm between the
second and third lens. An object is placed at 30 cm in front of the first convex lens. The final
image is formed beyond the third lens at a distance v from it. Then
(A) v = 15 cm (B) v =
(C) v = 45 cm (D) v = 20 cm
Ans. (D)
33
142. A point source S of light is placed at a depth d below the surface of water in a large and deep
lake. Fraction of light that escapes in space above directly from water (refractive index = )
surface is given by
1 1 1
(A) 1− 2
(B) 1− 2
2
1
1
(C) 1 − 1− 2
(D) depends on d and increases with increasing d
2
Ans. (C)
143. A convex lens is held 45 cm above the bottom of an empty tank. The image of a point object at
bottom of tank is formed 36 cm above the lens. Now a liquid is poured into the tank upto a
height of 40 cm above the bottom. It is found that distance of image of same point object at
the bottom of the tank is 60 cm above the lens. Refractive index of liquid is:
(A) 1.33 (B) 1.37 (C) 1.40 (D) 1.60
Ans. (D)
144. Given that the critical angle of incidence for total internal reflection within a transparent
material when placed in air is 45°. The Brewster's angle of incidence for light propagating from
air to the transparent material will be:
(A) 54.74° (B) 35.26° (C) 25.26° (D) 44.74°
Ans. (A)
145. There are four layers of glass plates, placed on top of each other such that bottom one has
thickness a1 and refractive index n1 = 2.7. Next one has thickness a 2 and refractive index
n2 = 2.43. The third one and the top one have thickness a 3 and a4 and refractive indices n3 and
n4 respectively. Three rays starting at the same moment from A 1, A2 and A3 reach points B2, B2,
B3 at the same time, with their angles of incidence being critical angle. You are given
A1B1 = A2 B2 = A3B3 = A4B4 = b = 10 mm. Choose correct statement (s).
34
Chapter: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments NSEP-2023
147. An equi-concave lens of radii of curvature of the two surfaces numerically equal to 7cm and
refractive index 𝜇 = 1.5 has a small silver dot on the rear surface. As a result of this, a ray of
light incident parallel to the principal axis gets reflected from its rear surface and then reflected
also from the inner front surface. The ray after the second reflection emerges out of the thin
lens and appears to focus at a point P on the principal axis. The point P lies
(A) 1cm before the lens (B) 2cm before the lens
(C) 1cm beyond the lens (D) at none of these
Ans. (A)
148. An equi-convex lens of focal length ’ 𝑓 ’ is cut along a diameter, in two halves (pieces). The two
identical pieces of the lens are now arranged as shown in the figure on a common axis at a
separation 𝑓 between the two. The image of an object AB placed at 𝑥 = 0 cannot be formed at
the distance 𝑥 = 𝜉 from the object along the axis, for the value of 𝜉 as
B 2f
A f 3f 4f
0
x
149. The convex surface of a concavo-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radii of curvature
R1 = 20cm and R 2 = 40cm has been silvered so as to make it reflecting. The distance of a
luminous object from the reflecting system when placed in front of it on its principal axis, so
that the image coincides with the object is
(A) 40cm (B) 32cm (C) 16cm (D) 8cm
Ans. (C)
150. A bullet is fired vertically up with half the escape speed from the surface of the Earth. The
maximum altitude reached by it (ignore the effect of rotation of the Earth) in terms of radius
of Earth 𝑅 is
R R 2R
(A) (B) (C) R (D)
3 2 3
Ans. (A)
35
151. A direct vision spectroscope has been designed to obtain dispersion without deviation by
arranging alternate inverted thin prisms of crown glass (refractive index 𝜇1 = √2 ) and flint glass
(𝜇2 = √3) dwith refracting angle 𝜃flint = 3∘ . The refracting angle 𝜃𝑐𝑟𝑜𝑤𝑛 of the crown glass prism is
(A) 3.0∘ (B) 4.5∘ (C) 5.3∘ (D) 6.0∘
Ans. (C)
152. While performing an experiment for determining the focal length of a concave mirror by 𝑢 − 𝑣
method, a student recorded the given sets of the positions (in cm ) of the object and the
corresponding image on the bench as (12,51), (18,54), (30,50), (48,34), (42,42) and (78,98) . She
used an optical bench of length 1.5m and the mirror is fixed at the 90cm mark on the bench.
The maximum acceptable error in the location of the image is 0.2cm. The reading (observation)
that cannot be obtained from experimental measurement and has been incorrectly recorded,
for a mirror of focal length = 24cm, is
(A) (18,54) (B) (30,50) (C) (48,34) (D) (78,98)
Ans. (D)
153. Two identical transparent solid cylinders, each of radius 10cm and refractive index 𝜇 = √3, lie
horizontally parallel to each other on a horizontal plane mirror with a separation 𝑥 between
their horizontal axes. A ray of light is incident horizontally on the cylinder A at a height ℎ above
the plane mirror so as to emerge from this cylinder at a height ℎ1 = 0.1m above the plane mirror.
The ray emerging out from the first cylinder A is reflected from the horizontal plane mirror to
enter the second parallel cylinder B at a height ℎ2 and then this ray emerges out of the second
cylinder, parallel and in-line with the original incident ray. The correct statement(s) is/are:
(A) the height h above the plane mirror is h = 18.7cm
(B) the ray enters the second cylinder B at a height h2 = 0.1m
(C) the separation between the axes of the two cylinders A and B is x = 31.54cm
(D) the angle of incidence on the plane mirror midway between the two cylinders is = 30
Ans. (ABCD)
154. A hollow conducting sphere of radius 15 cm has a uniform surface charge density +3.2 C/m2.
When a point charge q is placed at the centre of the sphere, the electric field at 25 cm from
the centre just reverses its direction keeping the magnitude the same. Therefore, q is:
(A) + 0.91 C (B) –0.91 C (C) + 1.81 C (D) –1.81 C
Ans. (D)
155. An electron (e) and a proton (p) are situated on the straight line as shown below. The directions
of the electric field at the points 1, 2 and 3 respectively, are shown as
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans. (B)
36
156. Two point charges + 1C and –1C are placed at points (0, –0.1 m) and (0, +0.1 m) respectively
in XY plane. Then, choose the correct statement/s from the following.
(A) The electric field at all points on the Y axis has the same direction.
(B) The dipole moment is 0.2C-m along +X axis direction.
(C) No work has to be done in bringing a test charge from infinity to the origin.
(D) Electric field at all points on the X axis is along + Y axis.
Ans. (CD)
157. Two charges – q and – q are placed at points (0, d) and (0, – d). A charge +q, free to move along
X axis, will oscillate with a force proportional to
1 1 x 1
(A) 2 2
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D)
x +d x 2 2
2
x +d
2
(d + x ) 2
Ans. (C)
158. In an ink-jet printer, an ink droplet of mass m is given a negative charge q by a computer-
controlled charging unit. The charged droplet then enters the region between two deflecting
parallel plates of length L separated by distance d (see figure below) with a speed v. All over
this region there exists a uniform downward electric field E (in the plane of paper). Neglecting
the gravitational force on the droplet, the maximum charge that can be given to this droplet,
so that it does not hit any of the plates, is:
2 2 2 2
mv L mv d md mv L
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C) 2 2
(D)
Ed EL Ev L Ed
Ans. (B)
160. Point charge q is kept at each corner of a cube of edge length . The resultant force of repulsion
on any one of the charges due to all others is expressed as
1 1 2 1 1 2
1+ + q − 1+ q
2 2 3 3 2 2 3 3 ( 1 − 0.1775 ) q 2
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C) 2
(D) None of these
0 0 0
Ans. (C)
37
161. A thin semi-circular metal ring of radius R has a positive charge q distributed uniformly over its
curved length. The resultant electric field E at the centre O is.
q q q q
(A) −ˆj 2 2
(B) + ˆj 2 2
(C) + ˆj 2 2
(D) −ˆj 2 2
2 0R 2 0R 4 0R 4 0R
Ans. (A)
162. A charge +q is placed at each of the points x = x 0, x = 3x0, x = 5x0, x = 7x0……… on the axis
and a charge -q is placed at each of the points x = 2x0, x = 4x0, x = 6x0, x = 8x0 = here x0 is a
positive constant. Take the electric potential at a point due to a charge q at a distance r from
1 q
it to be V = . The electric potential at the origin due to the above system of charge is
4 0 r
1 q 1 q
(A) zero (B) ln 2 (C) (D) infinite
4 0 x 0 4 0 x 0 2ln2
Ans. (B)
163. A charged oil (density 880 kg m–3) drop is held stationary between two parallel horizontal metal
plates 6.0 mm apart when a potential difference of V = 103 volt is applied between the two
plates. When the electric field is switched off, the drop falls. At a certain time the drop is seen
to fall a distance of 2.0 mm in 35.7 s and next 1.2 mm in 21.4 s. (The upper plate in the
experiment is at higher potential).
Given that the viscosity of air = 1.80 × 10–5 Nsm–2 and density of air = 1.29 kg m–3
(A) The radius of the drop is a = 7.25 × 10–7 m
(B) The charge on the drop is q = 8.0 × 10–19 C
(C) The terminal velocity of the oil drop, under its free fall, is 5.6 × 10 –5 ms–1
(D) The oil drop carries 5 excess electrons
Ans. (ACD)
164. Two points charges +Q each are located at (0,0) and (L,0) at a distance L apart on the X-axis.
The electric field (E) in the region 0 < x < L is best represented by
38
165. A hollow non-conducting cone of base radius R = 50 cm and semi vertical angle of 150 has been
uniformly charged on its curved surface up to three-fourth of its slant length from base with a
surface charge density = 2.5C/m2. The electric field produced at the location of the vertex
of the cone is
ln 2 ln 2 ln 2 ln 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20 40 80 16 0
Ans. (B)
166. Consider a particle of mass m with a total energy E moving in a one-dimensional potential field.
The potential V(x) is plotted against x in the figure beside. The plot of momentum-position
graph of this particle is qualitatively best represented by
167. Statement I: Work done in bringing a charge q from infinity to the center of a uniformly charged
non – conducting solid sphere of radius R (with a total charge Q) is zero.
Statement II: The potential difference between the Centre and the surface of the uniformly
1 Q
charged non – conducting solid sphere of radius R (with a total charge Q) is
4 0 2R
Ans. (D)
39
Chapter: Electrostatics NSEP-2022
168. A sphere of radius R, is charged with volume charge density ρ such that ρ r ∝ (r is distance from
centre). Variation of electric field E with r (For all values of r : r R and r R) is best
represented by
Ans. (D)
3
(A) a = 3, n = 3 (B) a = 6, n = 4 (C) a = 3, n = 4 (D) a = ,n = 4
2
Ans. (C)
170. The frequency of the transverse oscillations of a proton (mass M) trapped in a cylindrical
relativistic electron beam of circular cross section of radius R and current I is given by [assume
that speed v of relativistic electrons c (the speed of light in vacuum) and ignore magnetic
effect]
1 eL 1 2 0I 1 2 0M c 1 2 0M c
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 R 2 0M c 2 R Mc R eI 2 0 eI
Ans. (A)
171. A static point charge Q is located just above the centre C ( → 0) of a horizontal circle of radius
R on its geometric axis, as shown in figure. The magnitude of electric flux through this circle is
Q Q Q
(A) zero (B) (C) (D)
40 2 0 0
Ans. (C)
172. Three small identical neutral metal balls are at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. The balls
are in turn touched to an isolated large charged conducting sphere whose centre is on a line
perpendicular to the plane of triangle and passing through its centre. As a result the first and
second balls have acquired charges q1 and q2 respectively. The charge acquired by the third ball
is [Assume that charge and potential of large spherical conductor change insignificantly in
charging of the balls and that charges on balls are spherically symmetric]
2 2
q1 q2
(A) (B) (C) 2q2 – q1 (D) q3 = q2 = q1
q2 q1
Ans. (B)
40
173. A small positively charged ball of mass m is suspended by a long insulating thread of negligible
mass. Other positively charged small balls are moved very slowly from a large distance (along
horizontal direction) until it is at original position A of first ball. As a result the first ball rises
by h to position B such that h << . Choose the correct statement (s)
174. The figure shows five point-charges on a straight line. Separation between successive charges
is 10cm. For what values of 𝑞1 and 𝑞2 would the net force on each of the other three charges be
zero?
2C q1 1C 1C
10 cm
27 27
(A) 𝑞1 = 𝑞2 = − 𝜇𝐶 (B) 𝑞1 = 𝑞2 = 𝜇𝐶
80 40
27 27 27
(C) 𝑞1 = 𝜇𝐶 𝑞2 = − 𝜇𝐶 (D) 𝑞1 = 𝑞2 = − 𝜇C, 1𝜇C q2 2𝜇C
80 80 40
Ans. (A)
175. A very small electric dipole of dipole moment 𝑝⃗ lies along the 𝑥 axis ( i.e 𝑝⃗ = 𝑝𝑖̂) in a non-
𝑐
uniform electric field 𝐸⃗⃗ = 𝑖̂ (where c is a constant). The force on the dipole is
𝑥
cp cp ˆ cp
(A) 2
î (B) − 2
i (C) î (D) zero
x x x
Ans. (B)
176. A conducting thick spherical shell of radii 𝑎 and 𝑏(𝑏 > 𝑎) has been charged with uniform surface
charge density −𝜎 𝐶/m2 on the inner and +𝜎 𝐶/m2 on the outer surfaces. Then
(A) the net charge on the spherical shell is zero.
𝜎𝑏 2
(B) the radial electric field outside the shell is 𝐸 =
𝜀0 𝑟 2
𝜎(𝑏 2 −𝑎2 )
(C) a radial electric field 𝐸 = exists outside the shell.
𝜀0 𝑟 2
(D) there is a net electric charge in the cavity (i.e. in region 𝑟 < 𝑎) equal to 4𝜋𝜎(𝑏 2 − 𝑎2 )
Ans. (B)
41
177. A spherical conductor is charged up to a potential of 450V. The potential outside, at a distance
15cm from the surface, is 300V. Then
(A) the potential at 15cm from the center is 900V
(B) the charge on the conductor is 1.5nC
(C) the electric field just outside the surface is 150N/C
(D) the total electrical energy of the conductor is 𝑈 = 3.375𝜇𝐽
Ans. (D)
178. A small dipole is placed at the origin with its dipole moment 𝑃⃗⃗ = 𝑝𝑖̂ oriented along 𝑥 axis. E and
V, are respectively, the Electric field and potential at point A(𝑥, 𝑦). The observations at the Point
A(𝑥, 𝑦) which is at a large distance r from the origin, show that
(A) E x =
1 (
p 2x − y
2 2
) (B) E x =
1 (
p x − 2y
2 2
)
4 0 r
5
4 0 r
5
1 3pxy 1 Pr
(C) E y = (D) V =
4 0 r
5
4 0 r 3
Ans. (ACD)
179. Two equal positive charges +Q each lie on y axis at (0, 𝑎) and (0, −𝑎). The electric field strength
E at a point (𝑥, 0) satisfies:
1 2Qa
(A) E =
(
4 0 x 2 + a 2
)
3/2
1
(B) for large values of x (i.e x a ), the electric field E
2
x
a
(C) for x 0 , E is maximum at x =
2
1 2Q
(D) for x 0 , E is maximum at x = 0 and is equal to
4 0 a 2
Ans. (BC)
180. In the circuit shown R1 R2. The reading in the galvanometer is the same with switch S open or
closed. Then,
42
181. The effective resistance between points A and B in the circuit arrangement shown below is
(A) 14 Ω. (B) 15 Ω.
(C) 30 Ω. (D) none of the above.
Ans. (A)
182. If a cell of constant emf produces the same amount of heat during the same time in two
independent resistors R1 and R2 when they are separately connected across the terminals of
the cell, one after the other. The internal resistance of the cell is:
2 2
R1 + R2 R1 R2 R1 + R2
(A) (B) (C) (D) R 1R 2
2 2 2
Ans. (D)
183. Heat is absorbed or evolved when current flows in a conductor having a temperature gradient.
This phenomenon is known as
(A) Joule effect (B) Peltier effect
(C) Seeback effect (D) Thomson effect
Ans. (D)
184. Identify the rank in order from the dimmest to the brightest when all the identical bulbs are
connected in the circuit as shown below.
185. In the circuit shown if an ideal ammeter is connected between A and B then the direction of
current and the current reading would be (assume I remains unchanged)
(A) B to A and Is/2 (B) A to B and Is/4 (C) B to A and Is/9 (D) B to A and Is/3
Ans. (C)
43
Chapter: Current Electricity NSEP-2020
186. In an experiment with potentiometer, the balancing length is 250 cm for a cell. When the cell
is shunted by a resistance of 7.5, balancing point is shifted by 25 cm. If the cell is shunted by
a resistance of 20, the balancing length will be nearly.
(A) 240 cm (B) 236 cm (C) 232 cm (D) 230 cm
Ans. (A)
187. What amount of heat will be generated in a coil of resistance R (ohm) due to a total charge Q
(coulomb) passing through it if the current in the coil decreases down to zero halving its value
every t seconds?
2 2 2 2
1Q R Q R 1Q R 1 Q R
(A) (B) ln 2 (C) ln 2 (D)
2 t t 2 t 4 t
Ans. (C)
188. A simple circuit consists of a known resistance RA = 2 M and an unknown resistance RB both
in series with a battery of 9 volt and negligible internal resistance. When the voltmeter is
connected across the resistance RA, it measures 3 volt but when the same voltmeter is
connected across RB it reads 4.5 volt. The voltmeter measures 9 V across the battery.
Considering that the voltmeter has finite resistance r, the correct option is.
(A) RB = 3 M and r = 6.0 M (B) RB = 2.5 M and r = 6.0 M
(C) RB = 4. M and r = 12 M (D) RB = 4.5 M and r = 6.0 M
Ans. (A)
189. A potential of 5 V is applied across the faces of a pure germanium plate of area 2 x 10 –4 m2 and
of thickness 1.2 x 10–3 m. Concentration of carriers in germanium at room temperature is
1.6 x 106 m, Mobility of electrons and holes are 0.42 m V–1 s–1 and 0.2 m2 V–1 s–1 respectively. The
current produced in germanium plate at room temperature, is
(A) 1.28 × 10–13A (B) 1.28 × 10–9A (C) 1.536 × 10–13A (D) 6.4 × 10–10A
Ans. (A)
190. Voltage across the load L is controlled by using circuit as shown in figure. P is a potentiometer.
Resistance RL of the load and RP of the potentiometer are equal to R. Load L is connected to
the middle of potentiometer. Input voltage V is constant. If now RL is doubled, the voltage across
load will change by a factor.
5 7 8 10
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 5 9 9
Ans. (D)
44
191. Each of 9 sides of frame A C D E F B has resistance R (Nine in all) A current I enters at A and
leaves at B. Choose the correct alternatives.
192. In the circuit shown, the current in the 8𝛺 resistance across 𝐺 and 𝐻 is 𝑖 = 0.5 ampere. The
ammeter is ideal. The internal resistance of the cell is 0.8𝛺. Choose correct option(s).
A 2 C 2 E 2 G
cell
12 6 8
Ammeter
B 2 D 2F 2 H
193. The capacitor in the circuit shown below carries a charge of 30 C at a certain time instant. The
rate at which energy is being dissipated in the 3kΩ resistor at that instant is
45
194. The total capacitance between points A and B in the arrangement shown below is
34 34
(A) 28 F (B) F (C) 23 F (D) F
7 3
Ans. (D)
195. A fiber sheet of thickness 1 mm and a mica sheet of thickness 2 mm are introduced between
two metallic parallel plates to form a capacitor. Given that the dielectric strength of fiber is
6400 kV/m and the dielectric constants of fiber and mica are 2.5 and 8 respectively, the electric
field inside the mica sheet just at the breakdown of fiber will be
(A) 2000 kV/m (C) 2048 kV/m (C) 3200 kV/m (D) 6400 kV/m
Ans. (A)
C 1C 2
(A) (C1 + C2) (E1 – E2) (B) (E 1 + E 2 )
C1 + C2
C 1C 2
(C) (E 1 − E 2 ) (D) (C1 – C2) (E1 + E2)
C1 + C2
Ans. (C)
197. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plate separation d is charged to potential V. Then
the battery is disconnected. A slab of dielectric constant k is then inserted between the plates
of the capacitor so as to fill the space between the plates completely. If Q, E and W denote
respectively, the magnitude of charge on each plate, the electric field between the plates (after
the slab is inserted) and work done on the system, in question, in the process of inserting the
slab, then
2
0 kA V V 0 AV 1
(A) Q = k0AE (B) Q = (C) E = (D) W = 1−
d kd 2d k
Ans. (AC)
46
Chapter: Capacitor NSEP-2022
198. Three uncharged capacitors of capacitances C1 = 2F, C2 = 3F and C3 = 5F are connected as
shown in figure to one another at O and to points A, B and D at potentials V A = 300 V, VB = 200V
and VD = 400 V respectively the potential VO at O is
200. Capacitors 𝐶1 = 3𝜇𝐹, 𝐶2 = 6𝜇𝐹, 𝐶3 = 4𝜇𝐹 and 𝐶4 = 1𝜇𝐹 are connected in a circuit as shown to a
battery of 60V. Now if key K is closed, the charge that will flow through K is
C1 C2
a
K
C3 C4
b
+ –
60 V
(A) 90C from b to a (B) 60C from b to a
(C) 30C from a to b (D) 150C from b to a
Ans. (A)
201. A rectangular loop carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. The net force acting
on the loop
(A) depends on the direction and magnitude of the current.
(B) depends on the direction and magnitude of the magnetic field.
(C) depends on the area of the loop.
(D) is zero.
Ans. (D)
47
202. A conducting wire is bent in the form of a n sided regular polygon enclosed by a circle of radius
R. The magnetic field produced at its centre by a current i flowing through the wire is
0 i sin n 0 i cos n 0 i tan n 0 i cot n
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2R 2R 2R 2R
n n n n
Ans. (C)
203. The magnetic dipole moment of an electron in the S state of hydrogen atom revolving in a
circular orbit of radius 0.0527 nm with a speed 2.2 × 10 6 m/s is
(A) 4.64 × 10-24 Am2 (B) 9.28 × 10-24 Am2
(C) 18.56 × 10-24 Am2 (D) 2.32 × 10-24 Am2
Ans. (B)
204. A tightly wound long solenoid carries a current 5 A. An electron shot perpendicular to the
solenoid axis inside it revolves at a frequency 10 8 rev/s. The number of turns per meter length
of the solenoid is:
(A) 57 (B) 176 (C) 569 (D) 352
Ans. (C)
205. Mysteriously a charged particle moving with velocity v = v 0ˆi entered the tube of Thomson’s
apparatus where the parallel metallic plates of length 5 cm along X axis are separated by 2 cm.
Under the influence of a magnetic field B (4.57 × 10-2 k̂ )T, the particle is found to deflect by an
angle of 5.7°. When a potential of 2000 volt is applied between the two plates, the particle is
found to move straight to the screen without any deflection. Then,
(A) the velocity v0 = 2.19 × 106 m/s.
(B) the charge to mass ratio of the particle is 9.58 × 107 C/kg.
(C) radius of the circular path in the magnetic field is 50 cm.
(D) the particle is identified as a proton.
Ans. (ABC or ABCD)
207. Two long parallel wires carry currents of equal magnitude (I) but in opposite directions. These
wires are suspended from fixed rod PQ by four chords of equal length L as shown. The mass
per unit length of each wire is , the value of angle substended by two chords OA and OB,
assuming it to be small, is:
0 0 1 0 g 0 g
(A) = I (B) = I (C) = I (D) = I
4 gL gL 4 L L
Ans. (B)
48
Chapter: Magnetic Effects of Current NSEP-2020
208. What is the magnetic induction B at the centre O of the semicircular arc if a current carrying
wire has shape of an hair pin as shown in figure? The radius of the curved part of the wire is R,
the linear parts are assumed to be very long.
0I 0I 3 0I 0 2 I
(A) B = (2 + ) (B) B = (2 + ) (C) B = (2 + ) (D) B =
4 R 4R 4R 4R R
Ans. (A)
209. Knowing that the parallel currents attract, the inward pressure on the curved surface of a thin
walled, long hollow metallic cylinder of radius R = 50 cm carrying a current of i = 2 amp parallel
to its axis distributed uniformly over the entire circumference, is
(A) 2.05 × 10–1 Nm–2 (B) 2.55 × 10–3 Nm–2
(C) 2.05 × 10–5 Nm–2 (D) 2.55 × 10–7 Nm–2
Ans. (D)
210. Current I flows through a long thin walled metallic cylinder of radius R with a thin longitudinal
slit of width (<< R) running parallel to the axis of the cylinder. The magnetic induction B
produced at any point on the axis of the cylinder is approximately.
0I 0I 0 I
(A) B = zero (B) B = (C) B = (D) B =
2R
2
4 R
2 2
2 R 2
Ans. (C)
211. An insulating rod of length carries a charge q distributed uniformly all over its length. The rod
is pivoted at its midpoint and is rotated at a frequency f (in Hz) about an axis perpendicular to
the rod passing through the point at the pivot. The magnetic moment of the system is:
1 1 1
(A) qf
2
(B) qf
2
(C) qf
2
(D) qf 2
12 6 3
Ans. (A)
212. A long solenoid having 1000 turns per meter carries a current of 1 A. It has a soft iron core of
r = 1000. The core is heated beyond the Curie temperature (T C). Then
(A) The H field in the solenoid is nearly unchanged but the B field decreases drastically.
(B) The H and B fields in the solenoid are nearly unchanged.
(C) The magnetization in the core reverses direction.
(D) The magnetization in the core diminishes by a factor of about10 8
Ans. (AD)
49
213. A thin and infinitely long metal sheet of appreciable finite width b carrying current I (distributed
uniformly through out of its cross section) parallel to its length is placed in an external magnetic
field Be parallel to its plane and perpendicular to the direction of current
IB e
(A) The thin metal sheet experiences a mechanical pressure P = perpendicular to its face.
2b
(B) The direction of the pressure does not change if the direction of current is reversed.
0I
(C) In case the external magnetic field Be is switched off, a magnetic field B = is observed
2b
parallel to the plane of the sheet but perpendicular to the direction current.
2 0I
(D) The magnetic field produced in part (c) is B =
b
Ans. (AC)
214. A U-shaped conducting wire of mass 𝑚 = 10g, having length of its horizontal section as ℓ = 20cm,
is free to move vertically up and down. The two ends of the wire are immersed in mercury for
proper electrical contact. The wire is in a homogeneous field of magnetic induction 𝐵 = 0.1𝑇 as
shown. The wire jumps up to a height ℎ = 3𝑚 when a charge q, in the form of a current pulse,
is sent through the wire. Considering that the duration of the current pulse is very small
compared to the time of flight, the charge q passed through the wire is estimated to be nearly
× × × × × × ×
× × × B× × × ×
× × × × × × ×
Hg
+ –
215. A thin wire of length 1 m is placed perpendicular to the XY plane. If it is moved with velocity
ˆ m/s in the region of magnetic induction B = ˆI + 4J
v = 4Iˆ − J ˆ Wb/m2. The potential difference
developed between the ends of the wire is:
(A) Zero (B) 3V (C) 15 V (D) 17 V
Ans. (D)
216. After charging a capacitor C to a potential V, it is connected across an ideal inductor L. The
capacitor starts discharging simple harmonically at time t = 0. The charge on the capacitor at a
later time instant is q and the periodic time of simple harmonic oscillations is T. Therefore,
1
(A) q = CV sin (t) (B) q = CV cos (t) (C) T = 2 (D) T = 2 LC
LC
Ans. (BD)
50
217. An inductance L, a resistance R and a battery B are connected in series with a switch S. The
voltages across L and R are VL and VR respectively. Just after closing the switch S,
(A) VL will be greater than VR.
(B) VL will be less than VR.
(C) VL will be the same as VR.
(D) VL will decrease while VR will increase as time progresses.
Ans. (AD)
218. A circular loop of conducting wire of radius 1 cm is cut at a point A on its circumference. It is
then folded along a diameter through A such that the two semicircular loops lie in two mutually
perpendicular planes. In this region a uniform magnetic field B of magnitude 100 mT is directed
perpendicular to the diameter through A and makes angles of 30° and 60° with the planes of
the two semicircles. The magnetic field reduces at a uniform rate from 100 mT to zero in a time
interval of 4.28 ms. Therefore,
(A) instantaneous emf in the two loops are in the ratio 2 : 1.
219. In an electromagnetic wave the phase difference between electric vector and magnetic vector is
3
(A) Zero (B) (C) (D)
2 2
Ans. (A)
220. A spherical capacitor is formed by two concentric metallic spherical shells. The capacitor is
then charged so that the outer shell carries a positive charge and the inner shell carries an
equal but negative charge. Even if the capacitor is not connected to any circuit, the charge will
eventually leak away due to a small electrical conductivity of the material between the shells.
What is the character of the magnetic field produced by this leakage current?
(A) Radially outwards from the inner shell to the outer shell.
(B) Radially inwards from the outer shell to the inner shell.
(C) Circular field lines between the shells and perpendicular to the radial direction.
(D) No magnetic field will be produced.
Ans. (D)
221. In the LR circuit shown in figure, switch S is closed at time t = 0, the charge that passes through
the battery of emf E in one time constant is (e being the base of natural logarithm)
2
EL EL eER EL
(A) 2
(B) (C) (D)
eR eR L R
Ans. (A)
51
Chapter: Electro Magnetic Induction NSEP-2021
222. A metal bar of length moves with a velocity v parallel to an infinitely long straight wire carrying
a current I as shown in the figure. If the nearest end of the perpendicular bar always remains
at a distance 2 from the current carrying wire, the potential difference (in volt) between two
ends of the moving bar is
223. A long straight wire AB of length L(L >> a, L >> b) and resistor R is connected to a time varying
source of emf V(t). The variation of applied emf V(t) with time is shown in Fig. B. A circular
metallic loop of radius r = b is placed coplanar with the current carrying wire with its centre at
a distance 'a' from the axis of the wire as shown. The induced current in the loop is:
224. A thick hollow cylinder of height h and inner and outer radii a and b (b > a) made up of a poorly
conducting material of resistivity lies coaxially inside a long solenoid at its middle. The radius
of the solenoid is larger than b. Throughout the interior of the solenoid, a uniform time varying
magnetic field B = t is produced parallel to solenoid axis. Here β is a constant. In this time
varying magnetic field
(A) The emf induced at a certain radius r (a < r < b) in the hollow cylinder is r2.
(B) The induced current circulating in the thick hollow cylinder between radii a and b is
h
i=
4
(b 2
−a
2
)
2
(C) the resistance offered to the circulation of current by the thick hollow cylinder is R =
b
h ln
(D) no electric field is detectable outside the solenoid.
Ans. (ABC)
52
225. The electric field component of an electromagnetic wave is expressed as
sin 10 (x + 2y + 3z − t) in SI units. Taking c = 3 × 108 ms–1 as the speed of
−3 7
E = (3 j + bk) 10
electromagnetic wave in vacuum, choose the correct option(s)
(A) The value of constant beta is = 3 × 108 × 14
(B) The value of constant b is b = 2.
(C) The average energy density of the em wave is 6 U = 6.5 ×10 –6 0 in SI units.
(D) The amplitude of magnetic field is B = 1.20 × 10 –11 Tesla
Ans. (ACD)
226. The reading of the ammeter, used in the electrical network shown below, is 20 mA, a long time
after the key K is closed
The reading of the same ammeter, immediately after the key was closed was
(A) zero (B) 16 mA (C) 25 mA (D) 32 mA
Ans. (C)
227. A total charge Q is uniformly distributed over a non – conducting ring of radius r. There is a
dB
time varying magnetic field perpendicular to its plane and changing at the uniform rate of .
dt
The magnitude of induced tangential electric field E on ring is:
dB dB 1 dB 1 2 dB
(A) r (B) r 2 (C) r (D) r
dt dt 2 dt 2 dt
Ans. (C)
Ans. (C)
229. A circular loop of radius r is placed inside another circular loop of radius R (R >> r). The loops
are coplanar and concentric. The mutual inductance (M) of the system is proportional to
2 2 2
r r R r
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2
R R r R
Ans. (B)
53
Chapter: Electro Magnetic Induction NSEP-2023
230. A long straight wire carrying a current 𝑖 = 10A and a rectangular metallic loop of dimensions
𝑏 × 𝑐 lie in the same plane as shown in the figure. The parameters are 𝑎 = 10cm, 𝑏 = 30cm and
𝑐 = 50cm. The mutual inductance of the system is nearly.
i
c
a
b
231. A metal rod of mass 𝑚 and length ℓ slides on frictionless parallel metal rails of negligible
resistance, A resistance 𝑅 is connected between the rails at their ends as shown in the figure.
A uniform magnetic field B is directed into the plane of paper perpendicular to the plane of rails
throughout the space. The rod is given an initial velocity 𝑣0 (towards right). No other force acts
on the rod. Then
R
v0
−𝐵ℓ𝑡
(A) 𝑣(𝑡) = 𝑣0 𝑒 𝑚𝑅
𝑚𝑣0 𝑅
(B) the rod stops after traveling a distance 𝑥 =
𝐵2 ℓ2
1
(C) the total energy dissipated in resistance is 𝑚𝑣02 i.e. half of the initial kinetic energy
4
𝑚𝑣0
(D) the total charge that flows in the circuit is 𝑞 =
𝐵ℓ
Ans. (BD)
232. The same alternating voltage v = V0 sin(ωt) is applied in both the LCR circuits shown below. The
current through the resistance R at resonance is
54
Chapter: Alternating Induction NSEP-2020
233. An alternating Current is expressed as i = i1 cos t + i2 sint. The RMS value of current is
(i ) (i − i2 )
2 2 2
(i1 + i2 )
2
i1i2 1
+ i2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 2
Ans. (C)
234. Impedance of a given series LCR circuit, fed with alternating current, is the same for two
frequencies 𝑓1 and 𝑓2 . The resonance frequency 𝑓𝑅 of the circuit is
f1 + f2 2f1 f2
(A) (B) (C) f1 f2 (D) 2
f1 + f2
2
2 f1 + f2
Ans. (C)
236. Two wires, made of same material, one thick and the other thin are joined to form one
composite wire. The composite wire is subjected to the same tension throughout. A wave travels
along the wire and passes the point where the two wires are joined. The quantity which changes
at the joint are
(A) frequency only. (B) propagation speed only.
(C) wavelength only. (D) both propagation speed and wavelength.
Ans. (D)
237. A rope of mass m and length L is suspended vertically. A mas M is suspended from bottom of
the rope. A transverse wave is produced on the rope, which travels the length of rope in time t
choose the correct statement (s)
L
(A) t = 2 ( M+m − M)
mg
mL
(B) For m << M the time t =
Mg
L
(C) For M = 0 (i.e. no mass hanging) the time t =
g
(D) Time to travel the lower half of the rope by the wave is less than that to travel the upper
half.
Ans. (AB)
55
Chapter: Wave on String NSEP-2023
238. A rope of mass 𝑀 and length 𝐿 hangs vertically. Time needed for a transverse pulse to travel
from its bottom end to the support is
(A) 2𝐿𝑔 (B) 2𝐿𝑔
(C) 𝐿𝑔 (D) 𝐿2𝑔
Ans. (B)
239. Which of the following functions does not represent a traveling wave
𝑥
(A) 𝑦 = 𝐴sin2 [𝜋 (𝑡 − )] (B) 𝑦 = 𝐴𝑒 −𝛼𝑡 cos(𝑘𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡)
𝑣
(C) 𝑦 = 𝐴sin[(𝑘𝑥)2 − (𝜔𝑡)2 ] (D) 𝑦 = 𝐴cos[(𝑘𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡)2 ]
Ans. (C)
241. The combination of a steel wire (length 80 cm, area of cross section 1 mm 2) and an aluminum
wire (length 60 cm, area of cross section 3 mm2) joined end to end is stretched by a tension of
160 N. If the densities of steel and aluminum are 7.8 g/cc and 2.6 g/cc respectively then, the
minimum frequency of a tuning fork which can produce standing waves in the composite wire,
with the joint as a node, is
(A) 179 Hz (B) 358 Hz (C) 88 Hz (D) 118 Hz
Ans. (B)
242. A student while performing an experiment with a sonometer with bridges separated by a
distance of 80 cm, missed out some of the observations. However, he claimed that the three
resonant frequencies for a given tuning fork were 84, 140 and 224 Hz. The speed of transverse
waves on the wire is
(A) 33.30 m/s (B) 330.0 m/s (C) 44.80 m/s (D) 448.0 m/s
Ans. (C)
243. A sound source of constant frequency travels with a constant velocity past an observer. When
it crosses the observer the sound frequency sensed by the observer changes from 449 Hz to
422 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 340 m/s, the velocity of the source of sound is
(A) 8.5 m/s (B) 10.5 m/s (C) 12.5 m/s (D) 14.5 m/s
Ans. (B)
56
244. Two factories are sounding their sirens at 400 Hz each. A man walks from one factory towards
the other at a speed of 2 m/s. The velocity of sound is 320 m/s. The number of beats heard by
the person in one second will be:
(Aa) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 2.5
Ans. (B)
245. The frequency of the third overtone of a closed end organ pipe equals the frequency of the fifth
harmonic of an open end organ pipe. Ignoring end correction, the ratio of their lengths l open : lclose
is
(A) 10 : 7 (B) 10 : 9 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 7 : 10
Ans. (A)
246. The intensity of sound at a point P is I0, when the sounds reach this point directly and in same
phase from two identical sources S1 and S2. The power of S1 is now reduced by 64% and the
phase difference () between S1 and S2 is varied continuously. The maximum and minimum
intensities recorded at P are now Imax and Imin such that
(A) Im ax = 0.64I0 (B) Imin = 0.36I0
Im ax Im ax 16
(C) = 16 (D) =
Im in Im in 9
Ans. (AC)
247. A cycle wheel of mass M and radius R fitted with a siren at a point on its circumference, is
mounted with its plane vertical on a horizontal axle at about 3 feet above the ground. An
observer stands in the vertical plane of the wheel at 100 m away from the axle of the wheel on
a horizontal platform. The siren emits a sound of frequency 1000 Hz and the wheel rotates
clockwise with a uniform angular speed = rad/sec. Initially at t = 0 sec the siren is nearest
to the observer and moves downwards. The observer records the highest pitch of sound for the
first time after (speed of sound in air is 330 ms-1)
(A) 0.30 s (B) 1.8 s (C) 2.3 s (D) 9.8 s
Ans. (B)
248. A sound source of fix frequency is in unison with an open end organ pipe of length 30.0 cm and
a close end organ pipe of length 23.0 cm (both of same diameter). Both pipes are sounding their
first overtone. If velocity of sound is 340 ms–1, frequency of sound source is nearly.
(A) 1000 Hz (B) 1062 Hz (C) 1100 Hz (D) 1018 Hz
Ans. (B)
57
Chapter: Sound Wave NSEP-2023
249. A police car, moving at speed of 108km/ hour, approaches a truck moving at 72km/ hour in
opposite direction. The natural frequency of the siren of the car is 800Hz and the surrounding
temperature is 27∘ C. The frequency heard by the truck driver as the car passes him
(A) remains unchanged (B) decreases nearly by 232Hz
(C) increases nearly by 231Hz (D) decreases nearly by 260Hz
Ans. (B)
250. When the speaker 𝑆1 is switched 𝑂𝑁, the sound intensity at a point 𝑃 in a room is 80dB. But
when the speaker 𝑆2 is switched ON ( 𝑆1 is switched OFF), the sound intensity at the same point
𝑃 in the room is 85dB. The sound intensity level (in dB ) at the same point 𝑃 in the room, if the
two speakers 𝑆1 and 𝑆2 are simultaneously switched 𝑂𝑁 , is (consider the speakers to be
incoherent)
(A) 165dB (B) 86.2dB (C) 87.8dB (D) 88.6dB
Ans. (B)
251. An open-end organ pipe 30cm in length and a closed-end organ pipe 23cm in length, both of
equal diameter, are each sounding their first overtone and both are in unison at 1100Hz. The
speed of sound in air, is estimated to be nearly
(A) 324 ms–1 (B) 332 ms–1 (C) 340 ms–1 (D) 352 ms–1
Ans. (D)
252. The Hubble telescope in orbit above the earth has a 2.4 m circular aperture. The telescope has
equipment for detecting ultraviolet light. The minimum angular separation between two objects
that the telescope can resolve in ultraviolet light of wavelength 95 nm is
(A) 4.83 × 10-8 rad (B) 4.03 × 10-8 rad
(C) 2.41 × 10-8 rad (D) 2.00 × 10-8 rad
Ans. (A)
253. Consider the diffraction pattern due to a single slit. The first maximum for a certain
monochromatic light coincides with the first minimum for red light of wavelength 660 nm. The
wavelength of the monochromatic light is
(A) 660 nm (B) 550 nm (C) 440 nm (D) 330 nm
Ans. (C)
254. Light of wavelength 640 nm falls on a plane diffraction grating with 12000 lines per inch. In the
diffraction pattern on a screen kept at a distance of 12 cm from the grating, the distance of the
second order maximum from the central maximum is
(A) 1.81 cm (B) 2.41 cm (C) 3.62 cm (D) 7.25 cm
Ans. (D)
58
255. In many situations the point source emitting a wave starts moving, through the medium, with
velocity V greater than the wave velocity in that medium. In such a case when source velocity
(V) > wave velocity (v), the wave front changes
(A) from spherical to plane (B) from spherical to conical
(C) from plane to spherical (D) from cylindrical to spherical
Ans. (B)
256. White light is used to illuminate two slits in Young's double sit experiment. Separation between
the two slits is b and the screen is at a distance D (>>b) from the plane of slits. The wavelength
missing at a point on the screen directly in front of one of the slits is
2 2 2 2
2b 2b b b
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3D D 3D 2D
Ans. (C)
257. Select the correct statement(s), out of the following, about diffraction at N parallel slits.
(A) There are (N-1) minima between each pair of principal maxima.
(B) There are (N-2) secondary maxima between each pair of principal maxima.
(C) Width of principal maximum is proportional to 1/N.
(D) The intensity at the principal maxima varies as N2.
Ans. (ABCD)
258. The distance between two slits in Young’s double slits experiment is d = 2.5 mm and the
distance of the screen from the plane of slits is D = 120 cm. The slits are illuminated with
coherent beam of light of wavelength = 600 nm. The minimum distance (from the central
maximum) of a point where the intensity reduces to 25% of maximum intensity is
(A) 24m (B) 48m (C) 96m (D) 120m
Ans. (C)
259. In a young's double slit experiment distance between slits is d = 1 mm, Wavelength of light used
is 600 nm and distance of screen from the plane of slits is D = 1 m. The minimum distance
between two points on the screen where intensity falls to 75 % of maximum intensity will be
(Assume both sources of equal power).
(A) 0.1 mm (B) 0.2 mm (C) 0.45 mm (D) 0.9 mm
Ans. (A)
260. Light emerges out uniformly from a point source placed at the focus of a concave mirror to give
out a spherical wave front. As a result of reflection of the paraxial rays from the concave mirror,
according to Huygen’s theory the reflected light is in the form of a
(A) spherical wave front with centre at the focus, and radius equal to the radius of curvature of
the mirror
(B) spherical wave front with centre at the focus, and radius equal to the focal length of the
mirror
(C) cylindrical wave front with its axis coinciding with the principal axis of the mirror.
(D) plane wave front perpendicular to the reflected beam
Ans. (D)
59
261. A parallel beam, of 6.0mW radiation of wavelength 200nm and of area of cross-section
1.0 mm2 , falls normally on a plane metallic surface. If the radiations are completely reflected,
the pressure exerted by the radiations on the metallic surface is estimated to be
(A) 1 × 105 Pa (B) 2 × 105 Pa (C) 2 × 10−5 Pa (D) 4 × 10−5 Pa
Ans. (D)
262. In an experiment with Lummer Gehrecke plate, the two coherent beams of light, caused by
multiple reflections inside the transparent plate of refractive index 𝜇 = 1.54, reach the points P
and 𝑄 on the screen. The net path difference between the two beams reaching either at P or Q
is 𝛥𝑥 = 5000nm. Which of the wavelengths in the visible range (𝜆 = 390nm to 𝜆 = 780nm) is / are
most likely to produce a constructive interference (a maximum) at the point P as well as at Q
on the screen?
Transparent
plate Q
263. The amplitude of the electric and magnetic fields associated with a beam of light of intensity 2
477.9 W/m are, respectively,
(A) 6 × 102 V/m and 2 × 10–6T (B) 3 × 102V/m and 1 × 10–6T
(C) 12 × 10 V/m and 4 × 10 T
2 –6
(D) 9 × 102V/m and 3 × 10–6T
Ans. (A)
264.
The magnetic field B = 2 10 −5 sin ( 0.5 10 3 x + 1.5 10 11 t ) ˆjT represents a plane electromagnetic
wave travelling in space with 𝑥 in meter and t in second. The correct statement(s) are
(A) The wave length of the wave is 4.0mm and its frequency is 75GHz
(B) The energy density associated with the wave is nearly = 316𝜇J/m3
(C) The electric field vector is 𝐸⃗⃗ = −6000sin[𝜋(0.5 × 103 𝑥 − 1.5 × 1011 𝑡)]𝑘̂ 𝑉𝑚−1
(D) The electric field vector is 𝐸⃗⃗ = 6000sin[𝜋(0.5 × 103 𝑥 + 1.5 × 1011 𝑡)]𝑘̂ 𝑉𝑚−1
Ans. (AD)
265. The energy of the characteristic X-ray photon in a Coolidge tube comes from
(A) the kinetic energy of striking electron.
(B) the kinetic energy of the free electrons of the target.
(C) the kinetic energy of the ions of the target.
(D) the electronic transition of the target atom.
Ans. (D)
60
266. The maximum wavelength that can ionize a hydrogen atom initially in the ground state is
(A) 660.0 nm. (B) 364.5 nm. (C) 121.9 nm. (D) 91.4 nm.
Ans. (D)
267. The wavelength of the waves associated with a proton and a photon are the same. Therefore,
the two have equal.
(A) mass. (B) velocity. (C) momentum. (D) kinetic energy.
Ans. (C)
268. An alpha particle with kinetic energy K approaches a stationary nucleus having atomic number
Z. The distance of closest approach is b. Therefore, the distance of closest approach for a
nucleus of atomic number 2Z is
(A) b/2. (B) 2 b. (C) 2 b. (D) 4 b.
Ans. (C)
269. An electron in hydrogen atom jumps from a level n = 4 to n = 1. The momentum of the recoiled
atom is
(A) 6.8 × 10-27 kg-m/s (B) 12.75 × 10-19 kg-m/s
(C) 13.6 × 10-19 kg-m/s (D) zero.
Ans. (A)
270. A stationary hydrogen atom emits photon corresponding to the first line (highest wave length)
of Lyman series. If R is the Rydberg constant and M is the mass of the atom, the recoil velocity
of the atom is:
Rh 3R h 3R h Rh
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4M M 4M M
Ans. (C)
271. A number of identical absorbing plates are arranged in between a source of light and a photo
cell. When there is no plate in between, the photo current is maximum. Under the
circumstances let us focus on the two statements –
(1) The photo current decreases with the increase in number of absorbing plates.
(2) The stopping potential increases with the increase in number of absorbing plates.
(A) Statements (1) and (2) are both true and (1) is the cause of (2).
(B) Statements (1) and (2) are both true but (1) and (2) are independent.
(C) Statement (1) is true while (2) is not true and (1) and (2) are independent.
(D) Statement (1) is true while (2) is not true and (2) is the effect of (1).
Ans. (C)
272. A source emits photons of energy 5 eV which are incident on a metallic sphere of work function
3.0 eV. The radius of the sphere is r = 8 x 10 –3 m. It is observed that after some time emission
of photoelectrons from the metallic sphere is stopped. Charge on the sphere when the
photoemission stops is.
(A) 1.77 10–16 C (B) 1.77 10–12 C
(C) 1.11 10 C
–12
(D) 1.11 10–10 C
Ans. (B)
61
273. In an experiment on photoelectric effect, the slope of straight line graph between the stopping
potential and the frequency of incident radiation gives
(A) Electron charge (e) (B) Planck constant (h)
h
(C) (D) Work function (W)
e
Ans. (C)
274. According to Bohr's theory the ionization energy of H atom is 13.6 eV. The energy needed to
remove an electron from Helium ion (He+) is:
(A) 13.6 eV (B) 16.8 eV (C) 27.2 eV (D) 54.4 eV
Ans. (D)
276. A stationary hydrogen atom emits a photon of wavelength 1025 Å. Its angular momentum
changes by
h 2h h 3h
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2
Ans. (A)
277. Even the radiation of highest wave length in the ultraviolet region of hydrogen spectrum is just
able to eject photoelectrons from a metal. The value of threshold frequency for the given metal
is:
(A) 3.83 × 1015Hz (B) 4.33 × 1014Hz
(C) 2.46 × 10 Hz
15
(D) 7.83 × 1014Hz
Ans. (C)
278. As shown in the figure, a particle of mass m = 10 –10 kg, moving with velocity v0 = 105 m/s
approaches a stationary fixed target with impact parameter b from a large distance. If the fixed
K
rigid target has a core with repulsive central force F(r) = where constant K > 0 and the
3
particle scatters elastically. The closest distance of approach (if numerically K = b 2) is
62
279. Positronium is a short-lived ( 10−9 s) bound state of an electron and a positron (a positively
charged particle with mass and charge equal (in magnitude) to an electron) revolving round
their common centre of mass. If E0, v0 and a0 are respectively the ground state energy, the
orbital speed of electron in first orbit and the radius of the first (n = 1) Bohr orbit for Hydrogen
atom, the corresponding quantities E, v and a for the positronium are
E0
(A) E = (B) = 0
2
(C) = 20 (D) E = E0, v = v0, = 0
Ans. (AC)
2
e
280. Obtain the value of
2 0 h c
281. A hydrogen atom is in ground state (n = 1). The magnetic field produced by revolving electron,
at centre of atom is B0. Atom is excited to state n = 4. According to Bohr model, the correct
alternative(s) is/are
B0
(A) Magnetic field at centre of atom for (n = 4) becomes B4 =
64
(B) Energy absorbed by atom in going from (n = 1) to (n = 4) is 12.75 eV
3d
(C) Change in magnitude of angular momentum of electron is
2
(D) Assume that this excited atom (n = 4) is at rest and it makes transition to ground state
(n = 1) in a single quantum jump of an electron, (Take mass of atom M H = 1.67 × 10–27 Kg) the
recoil speed of atom will be nearly v = 4.1 ms–1.
Ans. (BCD)
282. In an experimental set up to study the photoelectric effect a point source of light of power 3.2
mW is used. The source emits mono energetic photons of energy 5 eV and is located at a
distance d = 0.8 m from centre of a stationary metallic sphere of work function W = 3.0 eV. The
radius of the sphere is R = 8 mm. Assume that the sphere is isolated and photo electrons are
instantly swept away after emission. Also assume that the efficiency of photoelectric emission
is one for every 106 photons. In the present set up
(A) The de Broglie wave length of fastest moving photoelectron is nearly 8.7A°.
(B) It is observed that after some time emission of photoelectrons from the surface of metal
sphere is stopped, the charge on sphere just when the electron emission stops is
−3
64 0 10 C
(C) Time after which photo electric emission stops is nearly 111 s
(D) The light source emits 4 × 1015 photons per sec
Ans. (ABCD)
63
Chapter: Photoelectric effect and Atomic Physics NSEP-2023
283. A target of 7 Li is bombarded with a proton beam of current 10−4 ampere for 1 hour to produce
7
Be of activity 1.8 × 108 disintegrations per second. Assuming that bombarding of 1000 protons
produces one 7 Be radioactive nucleus, the half-life of 7 Be is estimated to be approximately
(A) 6887 hour (B) 4332 hour
(C) 2407 hour (D) 2195 hour
Ans. (C)
284. Two nuclides A and B are isotopes. The nuclides B and C are isobars. All the three nuclides A,
B and 𝐶 are radioactive. You may then conclude that
(A) the nuclides A, B and C must belong to the same element
(B) the nuclides A, B and C may belong to the same element
(C) it is possible that A may change to 𝐵 through a radioactive decay process
(D) it is possible that B may change to C through a radioactive decay process
Ans. (D)
285. Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than protons. This is because of the fact that
(A) neutrons are heavier than protons
(B) the electrostatic forces between protons are repulsive
(C) neutrons decay into protons through beta decay
(D) the nuclear forces between neutrons are weaker than those between protons
Ans. (B)
286. During the processes of annihilation of a stationary electron of mass 𝑚0 with a stationary
positron of equal mass, a radiation is emitted. The wavelength of the resulting radiation is
h 2h
(A) (B)
m0c m0c
m0 m0c
(C) (D)
hc h
Ans. (A)
287. In a nuclear reaction, two photons each of energy 0.51 MeV are produced by electron-positron
annihilation. The wavelength associated with each photon is:
(A) 2.44 10–12 m (B) 2.44 10–8 m
(C) 1.46 10–12 m (D) 3.44 10–10 m
Ans. (A)
64
Chapter: Nuclear Physics NSEP-2020
Na = 22.989770u, = 0.000549 u. The maximum kinetic that the emitted electron can ever
23 0
11 −1
have is
(A) 4.374 MeV (B) 3.862 MeV (C) 2.187 MeV (D) 1.931 MeV
Ans. (A)
3
291. If the specific activity of C14 nuclide in a certain ancient wooden toy is known to be of that in
5
a recently fallen tree of the same class, the age of the ancient wooden toy is (The half life of
C14 is 5570 years)
(A) 5570 years (B) 4105 years (C) 3242 years (D) 2785 years
Ans. (B)
292. When a sample of atoms is irradiated by neutrons, radioactive atoms are produced at a constant
rate R, which decay with decay constant . The number of radioactive atoms accumulated after
an irradiation time t is given by
R R
(A) N(t) = Rte–t (B) N(t) = e
− t
(C) N(t) = (1 − e
–t
) (D) N(t) = Rt(1 − e–t )
Ans. (C)
293. Fission of one nucleus of 235U releases 200 MeV energy in average. Minimum amount of 235U
required to run 1000 MW reactor per year of continuous operation (assuming 30% efficiency) is
(A) 1280 ton (B) 1.28 ton (C) 1.1 ton (D) 1.1 × 105 ton
Ans. (B)
294. A hydrogen atom (𝑀𝐻 = 1.67 × 10−27 kg), initially at rest, emits a photon and goes from the excited
state 𝑛 = 5 to the ground state. The recoil speed of the atom is nearly
(A) 4.2ms −1 (B) 4 × 10−4 ms −1
(C) 2 × 10 ms
−2 −1
(D) 8 × 102 ms −1
Ans. (A)
65
295. Continuous and Characteristic 𝑋 - rays are produced when electron beam accelerated by a high
potential difference of V volt (say) is made to hit the metallic target such as Molybdenum in a
modern Coolidge tube. Let 𝜆min be the smallest possible wavelength of continuous 𝑋 - rays and
𝜆𝐿𝛼 be the maximum wavelength of the characteristic 𝑋 - rays. Then
(A) 𝜆𝐿𝛼 increases with increase in V (B) 𝜆𝑙,𝛼 decreases with increase in V
(C) 𝜆min increases with increase in V (D) 𝜆min decreases with increase in V
Ans. (D)
297. Which of the following sources emits light having highest degree of coherence?
(A) Light Emitting Diode. (B) LASER diode.
(C) Neon lamp. (D) Incandescent lamp.
Ans. (B)
298. In a photodiode the reverse current increases when exposed to light of wavelength 620 nm or
less. The band gap of the semiconductor used is
(A) 0.67 eV. (B) 1.12 eV.
(C) 2.00 eV. (D) 2.42 eV
Ans. (C)
299. For the Boolean equation Y = AB + A(B + C) + B(B + C) + B , which of the following statements
is correct?
(A) Y does not depend on A but depends on B.
(B) Y does not depend on B but depends on A.
(C) Y does not depend on B.
(D) Y depends only on C.
Ans. (C)
300. Refer to the common emitter amplifier circuit shown below, using a transistor with = 80 and
VBE = 0.7 volt. The value of resistance RB is
(A) 330 Ω. (B) 330 kΩ. (C) 220 Ω. (D) 220 kΩ.
Ans. (D)
66
Chapter: Semiconductor NSEP-2019
302. The dc component of current in the output of a half-wave rectifier with peak value I0 is:
I0
(A) zero (B)
I0 2 I0
(C) (D)
2
Ans. (B)
303. In a p-n junction diode, the current (i) varies with applied biasing voltage (V) and can be
expressed as i = i0 ( e qV /kT − 1 ) where i0 = 5 × 10–12 A is reverse saturation current, k is Boltzmann
constant and q is the charge on the electron At Absolute Temperature T = 300K
(A) The forward current is approximately 59.5 mA for a forward bias of 0.6 volt
(B) The current increases approximately by 2.75A if the biasing voltage changes from 0.6 V to
0.7 V
(C) The dynamic resistance of p-n junction is approximately 435 m at the biasing voltage of
0.6 V
(D) The change in reverse bias current when biasing voltage change from -1 volt to -2 volt
happens to be practically zero.
Ans. (ABCD)
304. Statement I: The current flowing through a p-n junction is more in forward bias than that in the
reverse bias.
Statement II: The diffusion current, dominant in forward bias, is more than the drift current,
dominant in the reverse bias.
Ans. (A)
67
Chapter: Semiconductor NSEP-2023
305. The electrical conductivity of a sample of semiconductor is found to increase when the
electromagnetic radiation of wave length just shorter than 2480nm is incident normally on its
surface. The band gap of the semiconductor is
(A) 1.96eV (B) 1.12eV (C) 0.50eV (D) 0.29eV
Ans. (C)
308. If sped of light c, Planck’s constant h and gravitational constant G are chosen as fundamental
quantities, dimensions of time in this system of units is:
(A) ch3/2G–3/2 (B) c–2G1/2h (C) c2G1/2h5/2 (d) C–5/2G1/2h1/2
Ans. (D)
309. If Pascal (Pa), the unit of pressure volt (V), the unit of potential and meter (L), the unit of length
are taken as fundamental units, the dimensional formula for the permittivity 0 of free space is
expressed as
(A) Pa–1V2L–2 (B) Pa1V–2L2 (C) Pa1V2L–2 (D) Pa–1V–2L2
Ans. (B)
68
Chapter: Errors NSEP-2018
310. A student performs an experiment with a simple pendulum and records the time for 20
oscillations. If he would have recorded time for 100 oscillations, the error in the measurement
of time period would have reduced by a factor of
(A) 80 (B) 20 (C) 10 (D) 5
Ans. (D)
1
311. In a spectrometer the smallest main scale division is of a degree. The total number of
3
divisions on the vernier scale attached to the main scale is 60 which coincide with the 59
divisions of the main circular scale. The least count of the spectrometer is:
(A) 20' (B) 20'' (C) 30'' (D) 30'
Ans. (B)
69