AP Physics C 1993 With Answers
AP Physics C 1993 With Answers
AP Physics C 1993 With Answers
1. In the absence of air friction, an object dropped near the surface of the Earth experiences a constant acceleration
of about 9.8 m/s2. This means that the
(A) speed of the object increases 9.8 m/s during each second (B) speed of the object as it falls is 9.8 m/s
(C) object falls 9.8 meters during each second (D) object falls 9.8 meters during the first second only
(E) derivative of the distance with respect to time for the object equals 9.8 m/s2
2. A 500-kilogram sports car accelerates uniformly from rest, reaching a speed of 30 meters per second in 6
seconds. During the 6 seconds, the car has traveled a distance of
(A) 15 m (B) 30 m (C) 60 m (D) 90 m (E) 180 m
3. At a particular instant, a stationary observer on the ground sees a package falling with speed v1 at an angle to the
vertical. To a pilot flying horizontally at constant speed relative to the ground, the package appears to be falling
vertically with a speed v2 at that instant. What is the speed of the pilot relative to the ground?
2 2 2 2
(A) v1 + v2 (B) v1 - v2 (C) v2-v1 (D) v1 v 2 (E) v1 v 2
4. A ball initially moves horizontally with velocity vi, as shown above. It is then struck by a stick. After leaving the
stick, the ball moves vertically with a velocity vf, which is smaller in magnitude than vi. Which of the following
vectors best represents the direction of the average force that the stick exerts on the ball?
5. If F1 is the magnitude of the force exerted by the Earth on a satellite in orbit about the Earth and F2 is the
magnitude of the force exerted by the satellite on the Earth, then which of the following is true?
(A) F1 is much greater than F2. (B) F1 is slightly greater than F2.
(C) F1 is equal to F2. (D) F2 is slightly greater than F1 (E) F2 is much greater than F1
6. A ball is thrown upward. At a height of 10 meters above the ground, the ball has a potential energy of 50 joules
(with the potential energy equal to zero at ground level) and is moving upward with a kinetic energy of 50
joules. Air friction is negligible. The maximum height reached by the ball is most nearly
(A) 10 m (B) 20 m (C) 30 m (D) 40 m (E) 50 m
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A block on a horizontal frictionless plane is attached to a spring, as shown above. The block oscillates along the
x-axis with simple harmonic motion of amplitude A.
9 Two 0.60-kilogram objects are connected by a thread that passes over a light, frictionless pulley, as shown
above. The objects are initially held at rest. If a third object with a mass of 0.30 kilogram is added on top of one
of the 0.60-kilogram objects as shown and the objects are released, the magnitude of the acceleration of the
0.30-kilogram object is most nearly
(A) 10.0 m/s2 (B) 6.0 m/s2 (C) 3.0 m/s2 (D) 2.0 m/s2 (E) 1.0 m/s2
10. During a certain time interval, a constant force delivers an average power of 4 watts to an object. If the object
has an average speed of 2 meters per second and the force acts in the direction of motion of the object, the
magnitude of the force is (A) 16 N (B) 8 N (C) 6 N (D) 4N (E) 2N
11. Two balls are on a frictionless horizontal tabletop. Ball X initially moves at 10 meters per second, as shown in
Figure I above. It then collides elastically with identical ball Y. which is initially at rest. After the collision, ball
X moves at 6 meters per second along a path at 530 to its original direction, as shown in Figure II above. Which
of the following diagrams best represents the motion of ball Y after the collision?
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Questions 12-13
An ant of mass m clings to the rim of a flywheel of radius r, as shown above. The flywheel rotates clockwise on a
horizontal shaft S with constant angular velocity . As the wheel rotates, the ant revolves past the stationary points
I, II, III, and IV. The ant can adhere to the wheel with a force much greater than its own weight.
12. It will be most difficult for the ant to adhere to the wheel as it revolves past which of the four points?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
(E) It will be equally difficult for the ant to adhere to the wheel at all points.
13. What is the magnitude of the minimum adhesion force necessary for the ant to stay on the flywheel at point III?
(A) mg (B) m2r (C) m2r2 + mg (D) m2r - mg (E) m2r + mg
14. A weight lifter lifts a mass m at constant speed to a height h in time t How much work is done by the weight
lifter? (A) mg (B) mh (C) mgh (D) mght (E) mgh/t
15. A conservative force has the potential energy function U(x), shown by the graph above. A particle moving in
one dimension under the influence of this force has kinetic energy 1.0 joule when it is at position x1 Which of
the following is a correct statement about the motion of the particle?
(A) It oscillates with maximum position x2 and minimum position x0.
(B) It moves to the right of x3 and does not return.
(C) It moves to the left of x0 and does not return.
(D) It comes to rest at either x0 or x2.
(E) It cannot reach either x0 or x2.
16. A balloon of mass M is floating motionless in the air. A person of mass less than M is on a rope ladder hanging
from the balloon. The person begins to climb the ladder at a uniform speed v relative to the ground. How does
the balloon move relative to the ground?
(A) Up with speed v (B) Up with a speed less than v (C) Down with speed v
(D) Down with a speed less than v (E) The balloon does not move.
17. If one knows only the constant resultant force acting on an object and the time during which this force acts, one
can determine the
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(A) change in momentum of the object (B) change in velocity of the object
(C) change in kinetic energy of the object (D) mass of the object (E) acceleration of the object
18. When an object is moved from rest at point A to rest at point B in a gravitational field, the net work done by the
field depends on the mass of the object and
(A) the positions of A and B only (B) the path taken between A and B only
(C) both the positions of A and B and the path taken between them
(D) the velocity of the object as it moves between A and B
(E) the nature of the external force moving the object from A to B
19. An object is shot vertically upward into the air with a positive initial velocity. Which of the following correctly
describes the velocity and acceleration of the object at its maximum elevation?
Velocity Acceleration
(A) Positive Positive
(B) Zero Zero
(C) Negative Negative
(D) Zero Negative
(E) Positive Negative
20. A turntable that is initially at rest is set in motion with a constant angular acceleration . What is the angular
velocity of the turntable after it has made one complete revolution?
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 2 (E) 4
21. An object of mass m is moving with speed v0 to the right on a horizontal frictionless surface, as shown above,
when it explodes into two pieces. Subsequently, one piece of mass 2/5 m moves with a speed v0/2 to the left.
The speed of the other piece of the object is
(A) vo/2 (B) vo/3 (C) 7vo/5 (D) 3vo/2 (E) 2vo
22. A newly discovered planet has twice the mass of the Earth, but the acceleration due to gravity on the new
planet's surface is exactly the same as the acceleration due to gravity on the Earth's surface. The radius of the
new planet in terms of the radius R of Earth is
2
(A) ½R (B) R (C) 2R (D) 2R (E) 4R
2
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Questions 23-24
Two identical massless springs are hung from a horizontal support. A block of mass 1.2 kilograms is suspended from
the pair of springs, as shown above. When the block is in equilibrium, each spring is stretched an additional 0.15
meter.
24. When the block is set into oscillation with amplitude A, it passes through its equilibrium point with a speed v. In
which of the following cases will the block, when oscillating with amplitude A, also have speed v when it passes
through its equilibrium point?
I. The block is hung from only one of the two springs.
II. The block is hung from the same two springs, but the springs are connected in series rather than in parallel.
III. A 0.5 kilogram mass is attached to the block.
(A) None (B) III only (C) I and II only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III
25. A spring-loaded gun can fire a projectile to a height h if it is fired straight up. If the same gun is pointed at an
angle of 45° from the vertical, what maximum height can now be reached by the projectile?
h h
(A) h/4 (B) (C) h/2 (D) (E) h
2 2 2
26. The rigid body shown in the diagram above consists of a vertical support post and two horizontal crossbars with
spheres attached. The masses of the spheres and the lengths of the crossbars are indicated in the diagram. The
body rotates about a vertical axis along the support post with constant angular speed . If the masses of the
support post and the crossbars are negligible, what is the ratio of the angular momentum of the two upper
spheres to that of the two lower spheres?
(A) 2/1 (B) 1/1 (C) 1/2 (D) 1/4 (E) 1/8
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Questions 27-28
A ball is thrown and follows a parabolic path, as shown above. Air friction is negligible. Point Q is the highest point
on the path.
27. Which of the following best indicates the direction of the acceleration, if any, of the ball at point Q ?
28. Which of the following best indicates the direction of the net force on the ball at point P ?
Questions 29 - 30
A 5-kilogram sphere is connected to a 10-kilogram sphere by a rigid rod of negligible mass, as shown above.
29. Which of the five lettered points represents the center of mass of the sphere-rod combination?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E
30. The sphere-rod combination can be pivoted about an axis that is perpendicular to the plane of the page and that
passes through one of the five lettered points. Through which point should the axis pass for the moment of
inertia of the sphere-rod combination about this axis to be greatest?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E
31. A small mass is released from rest at a very great distance from a larger stationary mass. Which of the following
graphs best represents the gravitational potential energy U of the system of the two masses as a function of time
t?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
U U U U U
t t
t
t t
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32. A satellite S is in an elliptical orbit around a planet P, as shown above, with r1 and r2 being its closest and farthest
distances, respectively, from the center of the planet. If the satellite has a speed v1 at its closest distance, what is
its speed at its farthest distance?
r1 r2 r 1r 2 r 2 r 1
(A) v
r2 1
(B) v
r1 1
(C) r 2 r 2 v 1 (D)
2
v1 (E)
r 1r 2 1
v
33. A simple pendulum consists of a l.0-kilogram brass bob on a string about 1.0 meter long. It has a period of 2.0
seconds. The pendulum would have a period of 1.0 second if the
(A) string were replaced by one about 0.25 meter long (B) string were replaced by one about 2.0 meters long
(C) bob were replaced by a 0.25-kg brass sphere (D) bob were replaced by a 4.0-kg brass sphere
(E) amplitude of the motion were increased
34. A block of mass 5 kilograms lies on an inclined plane, as shown above. The horizontal and vertical supports
for the plane have lengths of 4 meters and 3 meters, respectively. The coefficient of friction between the plane
and the block is 0.3. The magnitude of the force F necessary to pull the block up the plane with constant speed is
most nearly (A) 30 N (B) 42 N (C) 49 N (D) 50 N (E) 58 N
35. A rod of negligible mass is pivoted at a point that is off-center, so that length l 1 is different from length l2. The
figures above show two cases in which masses are suspended from the ends of the rod. In each case the
unknown mass m is balanced by a known mass, M1 or M2, so that the rod remains horizontal. What is the value
of m in terms of the known masses?
(A) Ml + M2 (B) ½(Ml + M2) (C) Ml M2 (D) ½M1M2 (E) M 1M 2
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1993 C Electricity
36. From the electric field vector at a point, one can determine which of the following?
I. The direction of the electrostatic force on a test charge of known sign at that point
II. The magnitude of the electrostatic force exerted per unit charge on a test charge at that point
III. The electrostatic charge at that point
A) I only B) III only C) I and II only D) II and III only E) I, II, and III
Questions 39-40 refer to the system of six 2-microfarad capacitors shown below.
40. What potential difference must be applied between points X and Y so that the charge on each plate of
each capacitor will have magnitude 6 microcoulombs?
A) 1.5 V B) 3V C) 6 V D) 9 V E) 18 V
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41. Four positive charges of magnitude q are arranged at the corners of a square, as shown above. At the
center C of the square, the potential due to one charge alone is Vo and the electric field due to one
charge alone has magnitude Eo. Which of the following correctly gives the electric potential and the
magnitude of the electric field at the center of the square due to all four charges?
Electric Potential Electric Field
A) Zero Zero
B) Zero 2Eo
C) 2 Vo 4Eo
D) 4 Vo Zero
E) 4 Vo 2Eo
42. A large parallel-plate capacitor is being charged and the magnitude of the electric field between the
plates of the capacitor is increasing at the rate dE/dt. Which of the following statements is correct about
the magnetic field in the region between the plates of the charging capacitor?
A) It is parallel to the electric field.
B) Its magnitude is directly proportional to dE/dt.
C) Its magnitude is inversely proportional to dE/dt.
D) Nothing about the field can be determined unless the charging current is known.
E) Nothing about the field can be determined unless the instantaneous electric field is known.
43. A cross section of a long solenoid that carries current I is shown above. All of the following statements
about the magnetic field B inside the solenoid are correct EXCEPT:
A) B is directed to the left.
B) An approximate value for the magnitude of B may be determined by using Ampere's law.
C) The magnitude of B is proportional to the current I.
D) The magnitude of B is proportional to the number of turns of wire per unit length.
E) The magnitude of B is proportional to the distance from the axis of the solenoid.
44. The power dissipated in a wire carrying a constant electric current I may be written as a function of I,
the length l of the wire, the diameter d of the wire, and the resistivity of the material in the wire. In
this expression, the power dissipated is directly proportional to which of the following?
A) l only B) d only C) l and only D) d and only E) l, d, and
2
In the circuit above, the emf's and the resistances have the values shown. The current I in the circuit is 2
amperes.
48. A conducting sphere of radius R carries a charge Q. Another conducting sphere has a radius R/2, but
carries the same charge. The spheres are far apart. The ratio of the electric field near the surface of the
smaller sphere to the field near the surface of the larger sphere is most nearly
A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 1 D) 2 E) 4
49. Two charges, -2Q and +Q, are located on the x-axis, as shown abovE) Point P, at a distance of 3D
from the origin O, is one of two points on the positive x-axis at which the electric potential is zero.
How far from the origin O is the other point?
A) (2/3) D B) D C) 3/2 D D) 5/3 D E) 2D
50. What is the radial component of the electric field associated with the potential V = ar-2 where a is a
constant?
A) -2ar-3 B) -2ar-1 C) ar-1 D) 2ar-1 E) 2ar-3
Questions 51-52
Two concentric, spherical conducting shells have radii r1 and r2 and charges Q1 and Q2, as shown above. Let
r be the distance from the center of the spheres and consider the region r1 < r < r2.
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Questions 52-53
A battery or batteries connected to two parallel plates produce the equipotential lines between the plates
shown above.
53. Which of the following configurations is most likely to produce these equipotential lines?
55. Two metal spheres that are initially uncharged are mounted on insulating stands, as shown above. A
negatively charged rubber rod is brought close to, but does not make contact with, sphere X. Sphere Y
is then brought close to X on the side opposite to the rubber rod. Y is allowed to touch X and then is
removed some distance away. The rubber rod is then moved far away from X and Y. What are the
final charges on the spheres?
Sphere X Sphere Y
A) Zero Zero
B) Negative Negative
C) Negative Positive
D) Positive Negative
E) Positive Positive
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56. The potential of an isolated conducting sphere of radius R is given as a function of the charge q on the
sphere by the equation V = kq/R. If the sphere is initially uncharged, the work W required to gradually
increase the total charge on the sphere from zero to Q is given by which of the following expressions?
Q Q
A) W = kQ/R B) W = kQ2/R C) W =
0
( kq / R)dq D) W =
0
( kq 2 / R)dq
Q
E) W = 0
( kq / R 2 )dq
In the circuit shown above, the battery supplies a constant voltage V when the switch S is closed. The value
of the capacitance is C, and the value of the resistances are R1 and R2.
57. Immediately after the switch is closed, the current supplied by the battery is
A) V/(R1 + R2) B) V/R1 C) V/R2 D) V(R1 + R2)/R1R2 E) zero
58. A long time after the switch has been closed, the current supplied by the battery is
A) V/(R1 + R2) B) V/R1 C) V/R2 D) V(R1 + R2)/R1R2 E) zero
Questions 59-60 relate to the following circuit in which the switch S has been open for a long time.
59. What is the instantaneous current at point X imme diately after the switch is closed?
A) 0 B) /R C) /2R D) /RL E) L/2R
60. When the switch has been closed for a long time what is the energy stored in the inductor?
A) L/2R B) L2/2R2 C) L2 /4R2 D) LR2/22 E) 2R2/4L
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61. After the switch has been closed for a long time, it is opened at
time t = 0. Which of the following graphs best represents the
subsequent current i at point X as a function of time t ?
62. A 30-ohm resistor and a 60-ohm resistor are connected as shown above to a battery of emf 20 volts and
internal resistance r. The current in the circuit is 0.8 ampere. What is the value of r ?
A) 0.22 B) 4.5 C) 5 D) 16 E) 70
63. A square loop of wire 0.3 meter on a side carries a current of 2 amperes and is located in a uniform
0.05-tesla magnetic field. The left side of the loop is aligned along and attached to a fixed axis. When
the plane of the loop is parallel to the magnetic field in the position shown above, what is the
magnitude of the torque exerted on the loop about the axis?
A) 0.00225 Nm B) 0.0090 Nm C) 0.278 Nm D) 1.11 Nm E) 111 Nm
64. A solid nonconducting sphere of radius R has a charge Q uniformly distributed throughout its volume.
A Gaussian surface of radius r with r < R is used to calculate the magnitude of the electric field E at a
distance r from the center of the sphere. Which of the following equations results from a correct
application of Gauss's law for this situation?
A) E(4R2) = Q/o B) E(4r2) = Q/o C) E(4r2) = (Q3r3)/(o4R)
2 3 3 2
D) E(4r ) = (Qr )/(oR ) E) E(4r ) = 0
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65. Two long parallel wires are a distance 2a apart, as shown above. Point P is in the plane of the wires
and a distance a from wire X. When there is a current I in wire X and no current in wire Y, the
magnitude of the magnetic field at P is Bo. When there are equal currents I in the same direction in
both wires, the magnitude of the magnetic field at P is
A) 2Bo/3 B) Bo C) 10Bo/9 D) 4Bo/3 E) 2 Bo
66. In the figure above, the north pole of the magnet is first moved down toward the loop of wire, then
withdrawn upward. As viewed from above, the induced current in the loop is
A) always clockwise with increasing magnitude
B) always clockwise with decreasing magnitude
C) always counterclockwise with increasing magnitude
D) always counterclockwise with decreasing magnitude
E) first counterclockwise, then clockwise
67. A variable resistor is connected across a constant voltage source. Which of the following graphs
represents the power P dissipated by the resistor as a function of its resistance R ?
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68. The point charge Q shown above is at the center of a metal box that is isolated, ungrounded, and
uncharged. Which of the following is true?
A) The net charge on the outside surface of the box is Q.
B) The potential inside the box is zero.
C) The electric field inside the box is constant.
D) The electric field outside the box is zero everywhere.
E) The electric field outside the box is the same as if only the point charge (and not the box)
were there.
69. Which of the following capacitors, each of which has plates of area A, would store the most charge on
the top plate for a given potential difference V ?
70. If the ammeter in the circuit above reads zero, what is the resistance R ?
A) 1.5 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6