AWP

1. What does a Markup tag tell the web browser?

A. How to organize the page
B. How to display message box on page
C. How to display the page
D. None of these

2. How will you define a homepage?

A. It is an index of encyclopedia articles
B. It is the first page of a website
C. It is a place where all the data of internet is stored
D. It is required for the access of internet

3. Which one among these connects web pages?

A. Link
B. Connector
C. Hyperlink
D. None of these

4. Full form of PHP ________________.

A. PreHypertextProcessor
B. HypertextPreprocessor
C. Hypertext Postprocessor
D. PostHypertextProcessor

5. When images are used as links they get a blue border ____________.
A. Always
B. Never
C. Unless border is set to zero
D. Unless border is set to one

6. XML parsers are kind of ____________?

A. Well-formed
B. Well documented
C. validating and non-validating
D. only validating

7. Which XML is valid XML?

A. which contains root element
B. whose every tag has end
C. which satisfies DTD
D. None of the above

8. XML uses features of ____________ .

A. HTML
B. XHTML
C. VML
D. SGML
9. Banners, buttons, dividers, clipart and other simple images usually work best as _______.
9. Banners, buttons, dividers, clipart and other simple images usually work best as _______.
A. fonts
B. gif
C. jpg
D. size

10. xslt stand for _________________ .

A. extensible stylesheet
B. markup stylesheet
C. xml stylesheet
D. None of the above

11. REFRESH Meta tag used for __________.

A. Refresh your keywords
B. Allow search engines to relist your page
C. Redirect to a new domain
D. to be on same page with new features

12. What should be used to change the size of an image in HTML?

A. pliers
B. height and width
C. bigger and smaller
D. spacing

13. What is the correct syntax for referring to an external script called "xxx.js"?
A. <script type="text/javascript" name="xxx.js">
B. <script type="text/javascript” href="xxx.js">
C. <script type="text/javascript” src="xxx.js">
D. <link type=”text/javascript” src="xxx.js">

14. Is it true that Meta tags seriously improve search engine rankings?
A. no
B. it depends language to language
C. Yes.
D. It depends on Operating system

15. HTML defines colors using hexadecimal values, while graphics programs most often use
_____________.
A. Names
B. Normal numbers
C. RGB Code
D. ash code

16. Which of the following is correct syntax to create array in PHP?

A. $arr=new Array(100,200,300);
B. $arr=array("AMOL","SACHIN","RAM")
C. $arr=["AMOL","RAM","SACHIN"];
D. $arr=new Array(3);
17. What is the correct way to include the file "time.php”?
A. <?php include file="time.php"; ?>
B. <?php include "time.php"; ?>
C. <?php include("time.php"); ?>
D. <!-- include file="time.php" -->

18. Choose the correct HTML to left-align the content inside a table cell?
A. <td valign="left">
B. <tdleft>
C. <td align="left">
D. <td leftalign>

19. Which tag we should use to create a bulleted list?

A. <il>
B. <ul>
C. <ol>
D. <bl>

20. One of the greatest strength of XML Schema is, it supports for ____________ .
A. images
B. graphics
C. datatypes
D. graphics

21. Which of these are not the valid XML DOM relationships?
A. parentNode
B. previousSibling
C. lastChild
D. nextNode

22. XSLT uses ________ to navigate XML documents.

A. XPath
B. function
C. XPointer
D. None of the above

23. XML and XSLT is supported by __________ browser.

A. Google Chrome
B. Mozilla
C. Internet Explorer
D. All mentioned browser.

24. Which element can be used to compute generated text, within a template?
A. <xsl:value-of>
B. <xsl:template>
C. <xsl:select >
D. None of the above
25. How many characters can be written with 1 Kilobyte?
A. 1024
B. 1
C. Depends on the font used
D. 255

26. In the code <frameset cols="120,*"> the following would be true.

A. Top frame would be 120 pixels high
B. Left frame would be 120 inches wide
C. Left frame would be 120 pixels wide
D. None of the above

27. <ol> tags will create what kind of list ?

A. Numbered List
B. Bulleted List
C. Grocery List
D. Normal list

28. Which tag is used to maintain the order of elements in XML Schema?
A. <xsd:list>
B. <xsd:choice>
C. <xsd:all>
D. <xsd:sequence>

29. In JavaScript, What does isNaN function do?

A. Return true if the argument is not a number.
B. Return false if the argument is not a number.
C. Return true if the argument is a number.
D. None of the above

30. Output of XML document can be viewed in___________________ .

A. Web browser
B. Word pad
C. Word processor
D. None of the above

31. Which is the code that asks for the set of all div elements in a document?
A. var divs = $(div);
B. var divs = jQuery("div");
C. var divs = $("div");
D. var divs = #("div");

32. Which of the following is the correct HTML for making a checkbox?
A. <check>
B. <input type="check">
C. <checkbox>
D. <input type="checkbox">
33. Which of the following is the correct HTML for creating a hyperlink?
A. <a name="">A</a>
B. <a>B</a>
C. <a href="http://www.example.com">example</a>
D. <a url="http://www.example.com">example</a>

34. Which of these tags are all <table> tags?

A. <table><head><tfoot>
B. <table><tr><td>
C. <table><tr><tt>
D. <thead><body><tr>

35. Which of this CSS property controls the text size?

A. text-style
B. text-size
C. font-size
D. font-style

36. Which of the following is not true about JavaScript?

A. It is a scripting language.
B. It was designed to add interactivity to HTML pages.
C. It is a lightweight programming language.
D. It execute with preliminary

37. Consider the following code snippet.

<script src="jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script>
What does the min mean?
A. Minimized version
B. Miniature
C. Minimized parameters
D. Minimum value

38. A JavaScript program can traverse and manipulate document content through _______.
A. Element Object
B. Document Object
C. Both a and b
D. None of the mentioned

39. The behavior of the document elements can be defined by _____________.

A. Using document object
B. Registering appropriate event handlers
C. Using element object
D. All of the mentioned

40. Code between a pair of “script” tags in java script are called ________
A. Non-inline
B. External
C. Referenced
D. Inline
SADTT

1. In case of Bank, what will be the relationship between "Withdrawal" use case and "Check Balance" Use
case?
A) Uses
B) Includes
C) Extends
D) None of the above

2. Which SDLC Model is best suited for Application Development when requirements are clear and
Relationship with customer is mature?
A) Waterfall Model
B) Incremental Model
C) Prototype Model
D) Spiral Model

3. For Critical documents like estimation and proposal for any software, which of the following review is
best?
A) Peer review
B) Senior review
C) Group review
D) Brainstorming

4. System Testing is done at ___________.

A) Customer Site
B) Development Site
C) Depends on the project
D) None of the Above

5. The process of Correcting Production problem after analyzing any defect is known as _____________.
A) Quality Control
B) Inspection
C) Quality Assurance
D) TQM

6. Quality of Software Product is defined by,

A) Correctness
B) Usability
C) Reusability
D) All of the above

7. ________________ is a software testing process in which the objective is to measure the reliability of the
software rather than to discover software faults.
A) Defensive programming
B) Damage assessment
C) Statistical testing
D) None of the above

8. Which of the following statements best describe comparison between CMM levels?
A) Quality and productivity increases with level
B) Time to market and risk increases with level
C) Quality and productivity decreases with level
D) Time to market and risk decreases with level

9. Software Release should include __________________________.

A) Configuration file
B) Data files
C) Installation Program
D) All of the above

10. Please select the statements which are true for Project Planning.
I. Project Planning starts before the contract is signed.
II. Project Planning starts once the contract is signed
III. Project Initiation is the first step in Project Planning
IV. Writing Project Report is a part of Project Planning
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) III and IV
D) All statements are true

11. An effective risk management plan will need to address which of the following issues?
A) risk avoidance
B) risk monitoring
C) contingency planning
D) All of the above

12. Problem analysis is done during ____________ phase.

A) system design
B) system analysis
C) testing
D) All of the above

13. Which diagram shows the change of an object through time?

A) Activity
B) Collaboration
C) State
D) Use Case

14. Which of these are standards for assessing software processes?

A) SEI
B) SPICE
C) ISO 9001
D) Both B and C
15. During project inception the intent of the tasks are to determine _____________.
A) basic problem understanding
B) nature of the solution needed
C) people who want a solution
D) All of the above

16. An operations manager is not likely to be involved in

A) the design of products and services to satisfy customers' wants and needs
B) the quality of products and services to satisfy customers' wants and needs
C) the identification of customers' wants and needs
D) work scheduling to meet the due dates

17. Equivalence partitioning is:

A) A black box testing technique used only by developers
B) A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
C) A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing
D) A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing

18. Defect Management process does not include _____________.

A) Defect prevention
B) Deliverable base-lining
C) Management reporting
D) None of the above

19. Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as:
A) Regression Testing
B) Ad hoc Testing
C) Re-Testing
D) Sanity Testing

20. If an expected result is not specified then:

A) We cannot run the test
B) It may be difficult to repeat the test
C) We cannot automate the user inputs
D) It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed

21. Function/Test matrix is a type of _________________.

A) Interim Test report
B) Final test report
C) Project status report
D) Management report

22. Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process model for software
development?
A) Inception phase
B) Elaboration phase
C) Construction phase
D) Validation phase
23. Which of the following is not a part of Design Model?
A) Interface Design
B) Architectural Design
C) Schema Design
D) Data Design

24. Product quality is defined as:

A) Delivering a product with correct requirements
B) Delivering a product using correct development procedures
C) Delivering a product which is developed iteratively
D) Delivering a product using high quality procedures

25. Performance reviews are held to:

A) Correct the project manager's mistakes.
B) Provide for answers for upper levels of management
C) To assess project status or progress
D) To apprise the project costs and cost trends of the project

26. Which action does TDD NOT do?

A) TDD shortens the programming feedback loop
B) TDD promotes the development of low-quality code
C) TDD provides concrete evidence that your software works
D) TDD provides detailed tests

27. The work product produced during the requirement elicitation will vary depending on the
___________________.
A) size of the product
B) size of the budget
C) Software process being used
D) Stake holder needs

28. What is a valid boundary (Boundary value Analysis)?

A) The maximum or minimum value a program can accept
B) Value just greater than maximum acceptable value.
C) Any value identified by boundary value analysis.
D) The Value zero

29. The spiral model is divided in to how many regions?

A) 4
B) 3
C) 5
D) 6
30. _________ Modifies source code and / or data in an effort to make it amendable to future changes
A) Reverse engineering
B) Software restructuring
C) Forward engineering
D) Software maintenance

31. The most desirable form of cohesion is

A) Logical Cohesion
B) Procedure Cohesion
C) Functional Cohesion
D) Temporal Cohesion

32. Coupling is ________________.

A) Qualitative indication of the degree to which a module focuses on just one thing
B) Qualitative indication of the degree to which a module is connected to other modules & to outside
world
C) Both A & B
D) None of the above

33. Smoke testing is an ----- testing approach, which is used when software is being developed
A) Unit testing
B) Regression testing
C) Integration testing
D) Acceptance testing

34. ___________________ provides the maximum number of test cases that will be required to guarantee that
every statement in program has been executed at least once.
A) Independent Program paths
B) Cyclomatic complexity
C) Graph Matrices
D) None of the above

35. The purpose of project management is _____________.

A) Prediction and prevention
B) Prediction and reaction
C) Recognition and reaction
D) None of the above

36. A method of estimating the amount of functionality required for a project is ________________.
A) WBS Estimation
B) UCP Estimation
C) FP Estimation
D) COCOMO estimation
37. Which of the following traits needs to exist among the members of an agile software team?
A. Competence
B. Decision-making ability
C. Mutual trust and respect
D. All of the above

38. Which of the following activities is not one of the four things that need to be accomplished by the
generic planning task set?
A. Develop overall project strategy
B. Identify the functionality to deliver in each software increment
C. Create a detailed schedule for the complete software project
D. Devise a means of tracking progress on a regular basis

39. The use of traceability tables helps to _________________.

A. debugs programs following the detection of run-time errors
B. determine the performance of algorithm implementations
C. identify, control, and track requirements changes
D. None of the above

40. Which of the following is a graphical tool for software design?

A. Data Flow Diagram
B. Structure Chart
C. Decision Tree
D. All of the above
C++DS

1. What is the output of following C++ code?

void fun(int *ptr)
{
*ptr=30;
}
int main()
{
const int num=10;
fun(&num);
cout<<num<<endl;
return 0;
}
A. 10
B. 30
C. syntax error
D. garbage value

2. Which of the following statements are correct about the program below as per C99 standard?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int size, i;
scanf("%d", &size);
int arr[size];
for(i=1; i<=size; i++)
{
scanf("%d", &arr[i]);
printf("%d", arr[i]);
}
return 0;
}
A. Syntax error, since the subscript for array used in for loop is in the range 1 to size.
B. Syntax error, since the values of array is getting scanned through the loop.
C. Syntax error, since the statement declaring array is invalid.
D. No syntax error, but output is unpredictable due to accessing array beyond limits.

3. Which data type equals in size with enum variable?

A. int
B. float
C. string
D. Cannot be determined

4. Which of the following data structure can't store the non-homogeneous data elements?
A. structure
B. union
C. class
D. None of the above
5. What is the output of the following code?

Int main()
{
int x=87;
delete &x;
cout << x << endl;
return 0;
}
A. Garbage Value
B. Compilation Error
C. 87
D. Run Time Error

6. Which of the following statements is false about inline functions in C++?

A. Inline function minimizes function overheads.
B. Inline function increases execution speed.
C. Inline function increases executable file size.
D. Inline function is preferred over macros.

7. Constructors are used to____________ .

A. Initialize the data members of objects
B. Allocate memory for data members
C. Allocate memory for object
D. All the above

8. Function templates can accept

A. Any type of parameters.
B. Only one parameter.
C. Only parameters of the basic type
D. Only parameters of the derived type

9. Destructor has the same name as the constructor and it is preceded by ______ .
A. !
B. ?
C. ~
D. $

10. Which of the following operator is overloaded for the object cout?
A. >>
B. <<
C. +
D. =
11. Which one of the following is the correct way to declare a pure virtual function?
A. virtual void Display(void){0};
B. virtual void Display = 0;
C. virtual void Display(void) = 0;
D. void Display(void) = 0;
12. Overloaded functions can differ by _______________ .
A. type of arguments
B. number of arguments
C. sequence of argument types
D. All of the above

13. Which error will be thrown when we create object of a class that needs a zero-argument constructor, but
the class contains all parameterized constructor and no default constructor?
A. Compile-time error.
B. Preprocessing error
C. Runtime error
D. Linker error

14. If a class C is derived from class B, which is derived from class A, all through public inheritance, then a class
C member function cannot access
A. Public data in A and B.
B. Protected and public data in C.
C. Private data in A and B.
D. Protected data in A and B.

15. Calling an overridden non virtual function through base class pointer binds to
A. Base or Derived version depends on address of object in pointer
B. Always Base version of the function
C. Always Derived version of the function
D. Causes run time error

16. What is the most common practice used while designing classes?
A. Member functions and member variables are both private.
B. Member functions are private, and member variables are public.
C. Member functions are public, and member variables are private.
D. Member functions and member variables are both public.

17. When allocating an array of objects, what constructor is used to initialize all of the objects in the array?
A. The automatic copy constructor.
B. The paramerized constructor.
C. The default constructor.
D. None of the above

18. Which of the following is most appropriate about Abstract base class?
A. A class with all pure virtual functions
B. A class with at least one pure virtual function
C. Functions prefixed with abstract keyword
D. A class with all virtual functions
19. Which of the following is correct about class and structure?
A. class can have member functions while structure cannot.
B. class data members are public by default while that of structure are private.
C. Pointer to structure or classes cannot be declared.
D. class data members are private by default while that of structure are public by default.

20. Which of the following mechanism support static polymorphism?

A. Operator overloading
B. Function overloading
C. Templates
D. All of the above

21. Which of the C++ casting operators requires run time type identification (RTTI) support?
A. static_cast
B. const_cast
C. dynamic_cast
D. reinterpret_cast

22. Which of the following statement is valid while overloading operators?

A. We can overload nonexistent C++ operators.
B. We can change the precedence of the C++ operators.
C. We can change the associativity of the C++ operators.
D. None of the above

23. Copy constructor must receive its arguments by?

A. only pass-by-value
B. only pass-by-reference
C. only pass by address
D. Any of the above

24. Which of the given STL containers can be used to store unique values?
A. map
B. set
C. vector
D. list
25. If the characters 'D', 'C', 'B', 'A' are placed in a queue (in that order), and then removed one at a time, in
what order will they be removed?
A. ABCD
B. ABDC
C. DCAB
D. DCBA

26. The operation of processing each element in the list is known as

A. Sorting
B. Merging
C. Inserting
D. Traversal
27. A _____ is a linear list in which additions and deletions always take place at the same end
A. stack
B. queue
C. linkedlist
D. none

28. The inorder traversal of a binary tree are D B E A F C G and preorder traveral is A B D E C F G,The postorder
traversal of the binary tree is:
A. D E B G G C A
B. E D B G F C A
C. E D B F G C A
D. D E F G B C A

29. The operation for removing an entry from a stack is traditionally called:
A. delete
B. peek
C. pop
D. remove

30. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is

A. O(n)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n2)
D. O(n log n)

31. Adjacency matrix and Adjacency list can be used to represent which type of graphs?
A. Weighted graphs
B. Directed graphs
C. Undirected graphs
D. All the above

32. Which of the following algorithms is a graph traversal algorithm that internally uses stack for performing
the traversal?
A. Depth-First Search
B. Breadth-First Search
C. Height-First Search
D. Both A and B.

33. Assuming that the hash function for a table works well, and the size of the hash table is reasonably large
compared to the number of items in the table, the expected (average) time needed to find an item in a hash
table containing n items is
A. O(1)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n log n)
D. O(n2)
34. Stack data structure can be used for ?
A. Converting an infix expression to a postfix expression
B. Evaluating a postfix expression
C. In function calls in an application that is executing.
D. All the above.

35. Which of the following problem causes an exception?

A. Missing semicolon in any of statement in main ().
B. Mismatch in function arguments
C. Usage of undeclared variable
D. Division by zero

36. Which design pattern deals with the problem of creating objects without specifying the exact class of
object that will be created?
A. Factory Pattern
B. Builder pattern
C. Composite pattern
D. Singleton pattern

37. Which of the following concepts support reuse mechanism?

A. Abstraction
B. Inheritance
C. Dynamic binding
D. Encapsulation
38. Choose the most appropriate option that fits in the blank below.

A class diagram in the Unified Modeling Language (UML) is a type of ______________ .

A. Static structure diagram.
B. Composite structure diagram.
C. Static behavior diagram.
D. Composite interaction diagram. .

39. Which design pattern provides a mechanism for building complex objects that is independent from the
ones that make up the object?
A. Factory Pattern
B. Adapter pattern
C. Builder pattern
D. Singleton pattern

40. _____________ operator is used to access members of a namespace.

A. scope resolution operator(::)
B. dot operator(.)
C. arrow operator(->)
D. None of the above
1. Which is NOT the advantage of relational database model?
A. Substantial hardware and system software overhead
B. Improved conceptual simplicity
C. Easier database design, implementation, management
D. Ad hoc query capability with SQL

2. __________ is a set of program that interacts with the database at some point in its execution.
A. A database system
B. A database application
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

3. Which is the central component of the DBMS software that can also be termed as the database control
system?
A. Data consistency
B. Data integration
C. Data sharing
D. Data manager

4. VDL stand for _________________.

A. View Data Languages
B. View Design Languages
C. View Definition Language
D. View Done Languages

5. __________ operator merges the result sets of two component queries.

A. UNION
B. UNION ALL
C. INTERSECT
D. MINUS

6. In which ways two tables may be related?

A. One-One
B. One-Many
C. Many-Many
D. All of these

7. In an E-R diagram, an oval represents what?

A. Attribute
B. Entity
C. Optional One
D. Relationship

8. _________ normal form says that every non-prime attribute should be fully functionally dependent on
prime key attribute.
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. BCNF
9. You want to delete a record from the table by prompting the user for an id number of the record. Which
of the following will serve your purpose?
A. DELETE FROM RecordX WHERE id_number = *id_number;
B. DELETE FROM RecordX WHERE id_number := &id_number;
C. DELETE FROM RecordX WHERE id_number = &id_number;
D. None of the above.

10. Unnamed block is also known as ________________.

A. Anonymous-block
B. Packages
C. Functions
D. Procedures

11. Mutating error occurs only on __________ trigger.

A. statement-level
B. row-level
C. system-level
D. database-level

12. _________ is a general term meaning that the database is not an RDBMS which supports SQL as its
primary access language.
A. Flat File Database
B. Mysql
C. Nosql
D. Softbase

13. To find information about trigger status, which of the following views are appropriate?
A. ALL_TRIGGERS
B. ALL_OBJECTS
C. ALL_TRIGGER_COLS
D. ALL_SOURCE

14. Which of the following is NOT VALID in PL/SQL?

A. Bool boolean;
B. deptname dept.dname%type;.
C. date1 date: = sysdate.
D. NUM1, NUM2 number;

15. Views are also called as _______________.

A. Complex tables
B. Simple tables
C. Virtual tables
D. Actual tables

16. The Cartesian product is _______________ .

A. A group function
B. The result of fuzzy logic
C. A special feature of oracle server
D. Produced as a result of a join select statement with no where clause
17. What is true regarding NULL value requirements confirming to Codd’s rule?
A. Null value should be zero.
B. Null value should be space.
C. Null value should represent missing information.
D. Both A & B

18. The SQL ALTER statement can be used to:

A. change the table structure
B. change the table data
C. add rows to the table
D. delete rows from the table

19. What are the benefits of clustering the database?

A. Clustered database deployments support high availability
B. Supports Scale out and scale up on-demand
C. Runs all database workloads
D. All the above

20. Which is true about No-SQL?

A. It follow ACID properties
B. It follow CAP properties
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

21. How we perform delete operation in MongoDB?

A. db.collection.remove( <query>, <justOne> )
B. db.collection.delete( <query>, <justOne> )
C. db.collection.clear( <query>, <justOne> )
D. db.collection.truncate( <query>, <justOne> )

22. The _____ operator takes the documents returned by the aggregation pipeline and writes them to a
specified collection.
A. $output
B. $out
C. $redirect
D. None of the above.

23. ‘put’ command in HBase is used to ___________.

A. adds new rows to a table (if the key is new)
B. can update existing rows (if the key already exists)
C. Both A & B
D. Invalid command.
24. Which is true about stored procedures?
A. A stored procedure uses the DELCLARE keyword in the procedure specification to declare formal
parameters.
B. A stored procedure is named PL/SQL block with at least one parameter declaration in the procedure
specification.
C. A stored procedure uses the DECLARE keyword in the procedure body to declare formal parameters.
D. A stored procedure must have at least one executable statement in the procedure body.

25. _________ will encounter when you try to assign a variable into another variable that is too small to hold
it.
A. value_error exception
B. invalid_number exception
C. invalid_value_error exception
D. None of the above.

26. Which line in the following SELECT statement will produce an error?
A. select dept, avg(salary) from emp;
B. select dept, avg(salary) from emp where dept=20;
C. select dept, avg(salary) from emp group by empid;
D. There are no errors in the above statements

27. A table can have maximum _________ number of Long Raw data type columns.
A. One
B. No limit
C. 255
D. depends on tables pace

28. The transaction control that prevents more than one user from updating data in a table is called
___________.
A. Locks
B. Commits
C. Rollbacks
D. Savepoints

29. The @ command in SQL*Plus will do which of the following with a named PL/SQL block stored in a
flat file?
A. Load the PL/SQL code into its processing buffer only.
B. Load PL/SQL code into its processing buffer and compile the code against the database only.
C. Load PL/SQL code into its processing buffer and compile the code on the client side only.
D. Load, compile, and run PL/SQL code against the Oracle database.

30. Which of the following options is used in the CREATE VIEW command that will prevent the updating
of data in the base table that is not accessible to the view?
A. WITH SELECT ONLY
B. WITH CHECK OPTION
C. WITH READ ONLY
D. WITH FORCE OPTION
31. If you delete a row in a table, and Oracle deletes the related entries in all other tables. This is known as
_______.
A. Referential Integrity
B. Deleting rows
C. Data Integrity
D. Cascading delete

32. Dropping a table has which of the following effects, on a non-unique index created for the table?
A. No effect
B. The index will be dropped
C. The index will be rendered invalid
D. The index will contain NULL values

33. Consider the following where clause

WHERE A.no=B.no(+)
The above outer join lists ____________.
A. All matching & non-matching rows of table B
B. All non-matching rows of table B
C. All matching & non-matching rows of table A
D. All non-matching rows of table A

34. The CREATE VIEW command is used to __________.

A. To recompile View
B. To define a View of one or more Tables or Views
C. To recompile a Table
D. All of the above

35. A user can use the procedure of another user if he is having _________.
A. Read privilege
B. Write privilege
C. Execute privilege
D. Read & Write privileges

36. Which of the following choice is a valid parameter for sequence creation?
A. identified by
B. using the temporary tablespace
C. on delete cascade
D. maxvalue

37. Which line in the following statement will produce an error?

A. cursor action_cursor is
B. select name, rate, action
C. into action_record
D. from action_table;
38. The value of INSTR(‘CALIFORNIA’,’A’,1,2) is __________.
A. 2
B. 1
C. 9
D. 10

39. TRUNCATE TABLE statement ______________.

A. Drops a table temporarily
B. Removes all rows of a table
C. Removes specified number of rows from a table
D. Removes all constraints from a table

40. De-normalization is needed:

A. to utilize disk space efficiently
B. to optimize update operation
C. to speed up data access
D. All of the above
J2EE

1. What is the output of below code?

class JDBCDemo
{
public static void main(String []args)
{
Class.forName("oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver");
Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:oracle:thin:@localhost:1521:orcl","scott","tiger");
System.out.println(con);
}
}
A. will show the connection details
B. null
C. no output
D. compile error

2. In web.xml init param is set in ___________________.

A. <servlet>
B. <servlet-mapping>
C. <web-app>
D. <servlet-class>

3. In JSP out is an object of?

A. PrintStream
B. PrintWriter
C. JSPWriter
D. FileWriter

4. What output will be generated in below code?

<%int i=9;%>
<%i++;%>
<%out.println(i++);%>
A. 11
B. 12
C. 10
D. 9

5. <@include file = "demo.jsp"> includes the data at?

A. Runtime
B. translation time
C. compile time
D. none of the above

6. Struts framework is based on following pattern

A. MVC 1 Pattern
B. MVC 2 Pattern
C. Bridge Pattern
D. Service Locator Pattern
7. UserBean is created as java bean , with email property , suitable getter & setter.

Consider one.jsp
<jsp:useBean id=”user” class=”UserBean” scope=”request”/>
<jsp:setProperty name=”user” property=”email” value=”rama@gmail”/>
<a href=”two.jsp”>Next</a>
Consider two.jsp
Hello, ${user.email}
If Client clicks on Next link, what will be output on client browser?
A. Hello
B. Hello, rama@gmail
C. Blank page will be displayed
D. Run time error.

8. How to declare a page as an error page in JSP?

A. <%@ page isErrorPage="true"%>
B. <%@page isErrorPage="error.jsp"%>
C. <%@page errorPage="error.jsp"%>
D. <%@page errorPage="true"%>

9. Which form of the JSP element is used to insert the content generated by other dynamic resources at the
request processing time?
A. JSP Scripting elements
B. JSP Page Directive
C. JSP Include Directive
D. JSP Include Action

10. Which of the following is an approach for state maintenance in Web applications?
A. Hidden Form Field
B. URL Rewriting
C. Cookies
D. All of the above.

11. How is a servlet declared to use the single thread model?

A. The servlet declares the service method as synchronized.
B. The servlet implements the interface SingleThreadModel. .
C. In the deployment descriptor. .
D. Nothing is required, by default a servlet uses the single thread model

12. The ________ listeners are notified when session objects are created, invalidated, or timed out.
A. Servlet context listeners
B. Session Listeners
C. Servlet context attribute
D. Session Attribute

13. Which of the following are most common configuration methods of Hibernate Configuation
A. Mapping files
B. http.conf
C. XML Configuration hibernate.cfg.xml
D. web.config
14. What is return type of execute () method?
A. void
B. String
C. int
D. ActionForward

15. What is\are hibernate object state?

A. Persistant
B. Transient
C. detached
D. All the Above

16. What should be done in struts for using freemarker?

A. result type="freemarker"
B. result="freemarker"
C. action="freemarker"
D. none of the above

17. What is return by default, if validation fails?

A. Error
B. input
C. null
D. none

18. Your application supports multiple client types including HTTP clients. Your business layer is implemented
using Enterprise Java Beans. Which of the following is best suited for maintaining client state?
A. Stateful session beans
B. Entity Beans
C. HttpSession attributes
D. Cookies

19. Which of the following is FALSE about Session in hibernate?

A. Session is a light weight non-threadsafe object
B. You can share the session between threads
C. Session represents a single unit-of-work with the database
D. Session is the primary interface for the persistence service

20. The method which sets the query parameter of the prepared statement?
A. putString().
B. insertString().
C. setString().
D. setToString().
21. What is correct sequence of Servlet life cycle?
A. Init(), doGet() , service() ,doPost(), Destroy()
B. Init(), Service(), doGet()/doPost(), Destroy()
C. Init(), doGet()/doPost(), Service(), Destroy()
D. Service(), Init(), doGet()/doPost(), Destroy()

22. Which of the following is correct jsp element type and their syntax?
A. Directives <%= %>
B. Comment <% %>
C. Declarations <%!... %>
D. Expression <%@ %>

23. In Model-view-controller concept, which component has business logic?

A. Business Component
B. View
C. Controller
D. Model

24. Select the right statement about referring a Spring configuration file inside the package
com.example.myapp in the below example?

ApplicationContext context = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext(

"classpath:/com.example.myapp.config.xml");
A. The classpath: prefix could be omit
B. Package name with dot is not well formatted using the dot character
C. The slash character preceding com.example could be omit
D. All of the above
25. How to get a session object with reference to hibernate?
A. SessionFactory.getSession();
B. SessionFactory.openSession();
C. SessionFactory.get();
D. (session)SessionFactory.getObject();

26. Is it possible to declare mappings for multiple classes in one mapping file?
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Say
D. None of the above

27. Which of the following servlet lifecycle method is guaranteed to run before a servlet can process any
request?
A. doGet( )
B. service( )
C. init()
D. detroy( )
28. The method getWriter returns an object of type PrintWriter. This class has println methods to generate
output. Which of these classes define the getWriter method? Select the one correct answer.
A. HttpServletRequest
B. HttpServletResponse
C. ServletConfig
D. ServletContext

29. Given below which is not the type of autowiring in spring?

A. byClass
B. byName
C. byType
D. no

30. What is the difference in between the HTTPServlet and GenericServlet?

A. GenericServlet is the super for HTTPServlet
B. GenericServlet can take on any request, but HTTPServlet can take only HTTP request
C. GenericServlet is an interface but HTTPServlet is a class
D. Both A and B

31. Which method by default is used by http protocol?

A. Put
B. Post
C. Delete
D. Get

32. How can you execute a stored procedure in jdbc?

A. call method on Callable Statement object
B. call method on Statement object
C. call method on Prepared Statement object
D. Can’t execute stored procedure

33. URL encoding is the method of replacing all the spaces and other extra characters into their corresponding
_______ characters.
A. Hex
B. Binary
C. Octal
D. Decimal

34. Which classes we have to use for getting connected with database in spring?
A. java.lang.Class and DriverManager
B. JdbcTemplate and DriverManagerDataSource
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
35. Which API allows spring for dependency injection?
A. IOC
B. ORM
C. OXM
D. None

36. A Java program cannot directly communicate with an ODBC driver because
A. ODBC written in C language
B. ODBC written in C# language
C. ODBC written in C++ language
D. ODBC written in Basic language

37. The................................ method executes a simple query and returns a single Result Set object.
A. executeUpdate()
B. executeQuery()
C. execute()
D. noexecute()

38. Which of the following allows substitution of code to occur at the translation time in a JSP page?
A. <jsp:include> Tag
B. <@ include> directive
C. <@ page > directive
D. Declaration block

39. Which of the following statements are true?

A. A GET request is supposed to change the state of the server.
B. A POST request can be bookmarked
C. POST is the default HTTP method
D. A GET request can handle limited data size.

40. What is false about ServletContext?

A. It can provide interaction between two servlets
B. using it we can share data among multiple Servlet
C. Allows to provide data to only one servlet
D. none of the above
J2SE Course

1. Which of these is an incorrect Statement?

A. It is necessary to use new operator to initialize an array.
B. Array can be initialized using comma separated expressions surrounded by curly braces.
C. Array can be initialized when they are declared.
D. None of the mentioned

2. Which of these is necessary to specify at time of array initialization?

A. Row
B. Column
C. Both Row and Column
D. None of the mentioned

3. The ______________ describe the behavior of converting the named class into the bits responsible for
implementing that class?
A. Loader class
B. class loader
C. bit class
D. Object class

4. Which of the following below is false for Abstract class?

A. An abstract class can have only abstract methods
B. An abstract class can have both abstract and concrete methods
C. An abstract class is to be extended by another class
D. A class can extend only one abstract class

5. Which of the following is true for serialization in java?

A. Process of converting classes’ instance into stream of bytes
B. Doesn’t help in persisting data
C. Both A and D
D. An operation in which an object’s internal state is converted into a stream of bytes

6. ________ method of java is invoked by JVM to reclaim the inaccessible memory location?
A. reclaim
B. final
C. finalize
D. Both B and C

7. Which of the following is true for StringBuffer ?

A. StringBuffer is thread safe
B. StringBuffer class is not synchronized
C. Both A and B
D. When an application is to run a single thread using some changes for strings, it is advisable to use
StringBuffer

8. Which of the following is true regarding correct overriding form of methods?

A. Overriding form of the method can return super type of the overridden form.
B. Overriding form of the method cannot assign weaker access specifier than overridden form.
C. Overriding form of the method can add in its throws clause, any new checked exception.
D. Overriding form of the method can add in its throws clause, any super type of checked exception.
9. What will be output?
class Base
{
public Object getValue(){ return new Object(); } //1
}
class Base2 extends Base
{
public String getValue(){ return "hello"; } //2
}
public class TestClass
{
public static void main(String[] args)
{
Base b = new Base2();
System.out.println(b.getValue()); //3
}
}
A. Compiler error at line 2
B. Compiler error at line 3
C. hello
D. Prints hash code of object

10. If you want to sort HashMap as per non key based criteria, what is possible solution?
A. Use TreeMap with Natural Ordering
B. Use TreeMap with Custom Ordering
C. Use TreeMap with anonymous inner class
D. Convert map into collection view & then sort.

11. What is the difference between hashtable and hashmap?

A. Hashtable is ordered, hashmap is not.
B. Hashtable allows null key,hashmap not
C. Hashmap allows one null key,Hashtable not.
D. No difference

12. Which of the following statement is true about static inner class?
A. They can access everything from outer class
B. They cannot access anything from outer class
C. Outer class can access anything from static inner class
D. To create object of static inner class we do not need outer Class object.

13. JPanel class is declared in which package?

A. java.awt
B. java.lang
C. javax.swing
D. java.awt.event
14. By default TreeSet and TreeMap are using which method to sort the objects?
A. int compareTo(Object,Object)
B. int compare(Object,Object);
C. int compareTo(Object)
D. None of the above

15. FlowLayout is the default layout of?

A. Panel
B. Frame
C. Dialog
D. FileDialog
16. Which is true statement about private and final method?
A. final method can't be overridden, private can be
B. Private can't be overridden, final can be.
C. final method can be inherited, private not
D. None of the above

17. What is the output of below code?

class SuperDemo
{
void method()
{
try
{
\\some code
}
catch(IOException e)
{
}
catch(FileNotFoundException f)
{
}
public static void main(String []args)
{
SuperDemo s = new SuperDemo();
s.method();
}
}
A. No output
B. Runtime error
C. compile time error
D. Exception

18. Which of the following is the lifecycle method of Thread?

A. Wait method
B. getClass method
C. currentThread method
D. Run method
19. Which interface does java.util.Hashtable implement?
A. Java.util.Map
B. Java.util.List
C. Java.util.HashTable
D. Java.util.Collection

20. What is the output of this program?

i. class multithreaded_programing {
ii. public static void main(String args[]) {
iii. Thread t = Thread.currentThread();
iv. System.out.println(t);
v. }
vi. }
A. Thread[v,main]
B. Thread[main,v]
C. Thread[main,0]
D. Thread[main,v,main]

21. Which of these is a process of writing the state of an object to a byte stream?
A. Serialization
B. Externalization
C. File Filtering
D. All of the mentioned

22. Which of these classes is used to read characters in a file?

A. FileReader
B. FileWriter
C. FileInputStream
D. InputStreamReader

23. Which method executes only once

A. start method
B. init method
C. stop method
D. destroy method

24. Package of drawstring method is _________ .

A. java.applet
B. java.io
C. javax.swing
D. java.awt

25. Which method of the Applet class displays the result of applet code on screen
A. run() method
B. paint() method
C. drawString() method
D. main() method
26. Which of these is returned by operators &?
A. Integer
B. Boolean
C. Character
D. Float

27. Which of these can be used to fully abstract a class from its implementation?
A. Objects
B. Packages
C. Interfaces
D. None of the Mentioned.

28. How many object are available in below code?

String s1 = "xyz";
String s2 = "abc";
s1.concat("hello");
String s3 = new String("xyz");
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1

29. What is the output of below code?

Class Demo
{
int i;
Demo()
{
i=9;
}
public static void main(String [] args)
{
Demo d = new Demo();
System.out.println(d);
}
}
A. 9
B. garbage value
C. hashcode
D. no output

30. Is it possible to call paint() method explicitly?

A. Yes if you have graphics object
B. No
C. using repaint
D. using update
31. Which of the following is false is about static methods?
A. Static method can access static data only
B. Static method is required when not able to create an object.
C. Static method is property of class
D. Static method is used to access instance variables

32. Which of this method of HashSet class is used to add elements to its object?
A. add(E)
B. Add(E)
C. addFirst()
D. insert()

33. Which exception is generated if server is already in use?

A. ClassCastException
B. NullPointerException
C. IllegalStateException
D. JVMBindException

34. Which of these methods is used to begin the execution of a thread?

A. run()
B. start()
C. runThread()
D. startThread()

35. Which of these method of InputStream is used to read integer representation of next available byte
input?
A. read()
B. scanf()
C. get()
D. getInteger()

36. Which of these is a method of ObjectInput interface used to deserialize an object from a stream?
A. int read()
B. void close()
C. Object readObject()
D. Object WriteObject()

37. Output of below code?

Class A
{
public static void main()
{
System.out.println("Hello");
}
}
A. Hello
B. No output
C. Runtime error
D. Compile time error
38. What will be the output?

class A
{
public int method()
{
return 1;
}
}
class B extends A
{
int method()
{
return 2;
}
}
public static void main(String []args)
{
B b1 = new B();
System.out.println(b1.method());
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. no output
D. compile error

39. Package of class ‘Class’ is _____________.

A. java.lang
B. java.util
C. java.math
D. java.awt

40. Which method must be overriden to print any class object using System.out.println?
A. String toString
B. int hashcode
C. Object clone
D. not required
MS.NET

1. What is the name of data type system in Intermediate Language?

A. CLS
B. CTS
C. MEF
D. CL

2. Common language specification (CLS) __________ .

A. is an execution engine for all .NET applications.
B. is similar to JVM as in Java.
C. defines standard rules for defining .NET compliant languages.
D. is a compiler.

3. While creating a C# Class Library project, what is the name of the supplementary file that Visual
Studio.NET creates that contains General Information about the assembly?
A. AssemblyInfo.xml
B. AssemblyInfo.cs
C. AssemblyInformation.xsd
D. AssemblyAttributes.cs

4. Which of the following is/are not the content of the assembly manifest?
A. Assembly name
B. Assembly source code
C. Version number
D. All of the above

5. Which of the following is not a value types?

A. String
B. Integer
C. Single
D. Long

6. Which of the following statements are correct about the Bitwise & operator used in C#.NET?
1. The ‘&’ operator can be used to put ON a bit.
2. The ‘&’ operator can be used to put OFF a bit.
3. The ‘&’ operator can be used to check whether a bit is ON.
4. The ‘&’ operator can be used to check whether a bit is OFF.
A. Only 1
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 3
D. 2, 3, 4

7. What is advantage of using 2D jagged array over 2D rectangular array?

A. Easy initialization of elements
B. Allow unlimited elements as well as also rows which had ’0′ or are empty in nature
C. Jagged arrays are faster in performance.
D. Both B and C
8. What is the correct difference between HashTable and SortedList?
A. HashTable does sort all the keys, placed in it, by default, but SortedList does not do that
B. HashTable does not sort all the keys, placed in it, by default, but SortedList does
C. Both the collection classes do sort the keys, placed in them, by default
D. Both the collection classes do not sort the keys, placed in them, by default
9. What kind of object does the generic Dictionary enumerator return?
A. Dictionary Object
B. Generic KeyValuePair objects
C. Key
D. Value

10. Which of the following option is the correct way to define and initialize an array of 3 integers?
1. int[] p = {10, 20, 30};
2. int[] p;
p = new int{10, 20, 30};
3. int[] p;
p = new int[3]{10, 20, 30};
4. int[] p;
p = new int[2];
p[0] = 10;
p[1] = 20;
p[2] = 30;
5. int[] p;
p = new int[3];
p[0] = 25;
p[1] = 30;
p[2] = 40;
A. All
B. 1 only
C. 1,3,5
D. 1,2,4

11. Match the following ArrayList methods and properties:

Methods Properties
A. Capacity 1. Gets the number of elements currently in the list
B. Count 2. Removes the element at the specified place
C. RemoveAt() 3. Gets or sets the number of elements in the list
A. A3, B1, C2
B. A1, B2, C3
C. A2, B3, C1
D. A1, B3, C2

12. Which of the following is NOT a .NET Exception class?

A. Exception
B. StackMemoryException
C. DivideByZeroException
D. OutOfMemoryException
13. Which of the following statement will be output of C#.NET program given below?

using System;
namespaceIndiabixConsoleApplication
{
classMyProgram
{
static void Main(string[] args)
{
int index = 6;
int val = 15;
int[] a = new int[5];
try
{
a[index] = val ;
}
catch(IndexOutOfRangeException e)
{
Console.Write("Index out of bounds ");
}
Console.Write("C-DAC Remaining program will execute");
}
}
}
A. Value 15 will get assigned to a[6].
B. Index out of bounds
C. C-DAC Remaining program will execute
D. Index out of bounds C-DAC Remaining program will execute

14. When using aOledbParameter, OledbCommand and OledbConnection the parameter symbol would
be________.
A. Parameter Name
B. @
C. ?
D. None of the above

15. Out of the Brushes lot which does not exist.

A. SolidColorBrush.
B. LinearGradientBrush.
C. RadialGradientBrush.
D. PaintBrush.

16. What is a connection object?

A. Specifies whether to use a DSN or DSN-less connection
B. Specifies which type of database is being used
C. Specifies the type of driver to use, database format and filename
D. First opens the initial connection to a database before giving any database information

17. Which method do you invoke on the DataAdapter object to generate Insert, Update, Delete
commands?
A. Load()
B. Fill()
C. Update()
D. Execute()

18. Which one is the correct way to create a new row for a DataTable? (ds is DataSet variable and dt is a
DataTable variable)?
A. DataRow drow= new DataRow();
B. DataRow drow = ds.NewRow();
C. DataRow drow = dt.NewRow();
D. DataRow drow =dt.Rows.CreateRow();

19. WCF services can communicate with __________ .

A. All Programming languages

B. XML

C. Only languages included in Visual studio.net

D. Multiple platforms and multiple languages

20. Which of the following is an ordered collection class?

A. Map
B. Stack
C. Queue
D. Both B & C

21. How ASP.Net Different from ASP?

A. Scripting is separated from the HTML, Code is interpreted separately.
B. Scripting is separated from the HTML, Code is compiled as a DLL, the DLLs can be executed on server.
C. Code is separated from the HTML and interpreted Code is interpreted separately.
D. None of the above.

22. How do you get information from a form that is submitted using the "post" method?
A. Request.QueryString
B. Request.Form
C. Response.write
D. Response.WriteIn

23. Where do we include the user lists for Form authentication?

A. Credential
B. Authorization
C. Impersonation
D. Authentication
24. When using the SiteMapPath one does not want to show the menus with the secured folders, then the
___________ attribute has to be set in the web.config for the sitemap.
A. sercurityEnabled = “true”
B. hiddendFolderEnabled = “true”
C. securityTrimmingEnabled = “true”
D. foldeViewEnabled = “true”

25. Go through the following LINQ code and pick up the correct answer from the following options?

A. Output: 2 4
B. Output: 1 3 5
C. Output: 1 3
D. Output: 1 2 4

26. What is used to fetch values from the data source to the DataSet and also update the data source with
the values in the DataSet?
A. DataReader
B. DataAdapter
C. DataManager
D. None of the above.

27. In ASP.NET if one uses Windows authentication the current request attaches an object called as
________________ .
A. Serialization
B. WindowsPrincipal
C. WindowDataset
D. None of the Above.

28. Which value from InstanceContextMode enumeration should be chosen for a WCF service class, to
decide that a single service class object should serve all the requests from the same proxy class object?
A. PerCall
B. PerSession
C. Single
D. None of the above
29. Which of the following is/are way to host WCF services?
A. WAS (Windows Activation Service)
B. IIS
C. Self Hosting
D. All of the above.

30. The different implementations of LINQ are:

1. LINQ to SQL - Refers to a component of.NET Framework version 3.5 that provides a run-time
infrastructure to manage relational data as objects.
2. LINQ to DataSet - Refers to a component that makes it easier and faster to query over data cached in a
DataSet object.
3. LINQ to XML - Provides an in-memory XML programming interface.
4. LINQ to Objects - Refers to the use of LINQ queries with any IEnumerable or IEnumerable(T) collection
directly, without the use of an intermediate LINQ provider or API, such as LINQ to SQL or LINQ to XML.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. All of these.

31. You develop a Web control. The Web control consists of labels and associated text boxes. You need to
ensure that the Web control has both toolbox and visual designer support. What should you do?
A. Add a Web Control Library project to your solution. Define a class that inherits from CompositeControl.
B. Add a Windows Control Library project to your solution. Define a class that inherits from UserControl.
C. Add a Web User Control to your project. Define a class that inherits from UserControl.
D. Add a Mobile Web User Control to your project. Define a class that inherits from MobileUserControl.

32. What is attribute used to define a relationship between two entites?

A. [RelationShip(…)]
B. [Association(…)]
C. [OneToMany(…)]
D. [Relate(…)]

33. When using a User Defined Class in WCF one has to mark the class with __________ attribute.
A. [DataMember]
B. [DataContract]
C. [ServiceContract]
D. [OperationContract]

34. Which method of the DataSet object is used to return the DataSet's contents in XML form as a string.
A. GetXml()
B. ReadXml()
C. WriteXml()
D. SetXml()
35. What Solution does .NET provide for the DLL HELL problem?
A. Garbage Collection.
B. Cyclical Reference.
C. Assembly Versioning.
D. None Above

36. What’s the difference between Response.Write() and Response.Output.Write()?

A. Response.Output.Write() allows you to flush output.
B. Response.Output.Write() allows you to buffer output.
C. Response.Output.Write() allows you to write formatted output.
D. Response.Output.Write() allows you to stream output.

37. Which of the following technologies is a lightweight protocol for exchange of information in a
decentralized, distributed environment?
A. XML
B. WSDL
C. XSD
D. SOAP

38. ADO.NET provides the ability to create and process in-memory databases called
A. Views
B. Relations
C. Datasets
D. Tables

39. Consider you are developing a web page to collect an Employee's data and one TextBox control in
particular is used to accept Indian Postal Code of employee's area which will contain six digits without
any special character between the digits. You have used a RegularExpressionValidator control to validate
the TextBox value. What will be the custom expression for ValidationExpression property of the validator
control?
A. The custom expression should \d{3}+\d{3}
B. The custom expression should be \d{6}
C. The custom expression should be /d{6}
D. The custom expression should be d{6}

40. Which type of data bound control a TreeView control is?

A. Simple Data Bound control
B. Composite Data Bound Control
C. Hierarchical Data Bound Control
D. Single Data Bound Control
OSC

1. _________ format specifier can be supplied as argument to date command to display current date in
DD/MM/YY format.
A. +%S
B. +%D
C. +%d/%m/%y
D. +%d/%m/%Y

2. Files starting with .(dot) are known as

A. Executables
B. Write-protected
C. Hidden files
D. Temporary

3. ___________ Protocol is used to login to a remote computer.

A. ftp
B. ssh
C. finger
D. tftp

4. Which command is used in the vi editor to save file and remain in the editing mode?
A. :x
B. q!
C. :w
D. :q

5. __________ command can be used to create an empty file

A. mkdir
B. touch
C. mkfile
D. mknod

6. Which command is used to print the name of current shell for logged in user?
A. echo $SHELL
B. echo $SH
C. echo $LSHELL
D. None of the Above

7. _________ symbol represents comment in shell programming

A. $
B. #
C. %
D. *

8. ________ control structure is used to run the loop as long as condition is false and stops when condition
becomes true
A. For
B. While
C. until
D. None of the above
9. Which of the following variable return the exit status of last command?
A. $!
B. $?
C. $$
D. $#

10. Which command is used to assign read-write permission to the owner of a file?
A. chmod a+r file
B. chmod o+r file
C. chmod u=rw file
D. chmod og-r file

11. _______________ acts as interface between user space and kernel space.
A. Interrupt
B. Threading
C. IPC
D. System call

12. ____________ System call is used to create a new process in linux OS.
A. create
B. fork
C. execl
D. yield

13. Number of processes that complete their execution per unit of time is called as _______
A. Throughput
B. Turnaround time
C. Response time
D. None of the above

14. ___________ threading model is used in modern operating systems like linux.
A. One to one
B. Many to One
C. Many to man
D. All of the above

15. ______________ IPC mechanism lacks of internal synchronization support.

A. Message Queues
B. Shared memory
C. Pipes
D. None of the above

16. A situation where two or more processes blocked for infinite time due to circular dependency is known as
_______________ .
A. Starvation
B. Deadlock
C. Livelock
D. Preemption
17. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s anomaly?
A. FIFO
B. LRU
C. Optimal
D. Random

18. Page Fault occurs when

A. Requested page is corrupted
B. Requested page is not in physical memory
C. Requested page is available in memory
D. Requested page is not in swap area

19. Compaction is a technique used for ____________

A. To recover from external fragmentation
B. To avoid internal fragmentation
C. To recover from page faults
D. To optimize memory access.

20. ___________ is used to provide uniform access to different file systems

A. NFS
B. UFS
C. VFS
D. None of the above

21. _________ disk scheduling algorithm has least seek time for a given data set
A. SCAN
B. SSTF
C. FCFS
D. LOOK

22. __________ links can be created for regular files

A. Hard links
B. Soft links
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

23. __________ is the pid of init process.

A. 2
B. 0
C. 4
D. 1

24. ____________ command can be used to terminate a target process abnormally

A. quit
B. exit
C. kill
D. All of the above
25. Fork returns __________ value to newly created child process.
A. same as parent process id
B. 1
C. 0
D. 1

26. A process which never gets scheduled for an infinite time ,where other processes are getting scheduled is
known as
A. Starvation
B. Deadlock
C. Livelock
D. None of the above.

27. _________ system call is used to retrieve data from a pipe

A. recv
B. precv
C. read
D. pread

28. Two or more file names pointing to same inode number are known as
A. Hard links
B. Soft links
C. Symbolic links
D. None of the above

29. pthread_exit is used for _____________

A. Termination of current thread
B. Termination of other thread
C. Termination of all threads
D. All of the above

30. _________ system call will be used to create a POSIX thread

A. pthread_run
B. pthread_start
C. pthread_create
D. fork

31. _______________ Principle ensures that shared resources are accessed by only one thread at a time.
A. Synchronization
B. Mutual Exclusion
C. Dead lock
D. Starvation

32. The time taken to move the disk arm from one cylinder to the desired cylinder is called
A. positioning time
B. random access time
C. seek time
D. rotational latency
33. ___________ is not part of inode.
A. File size
B. File Name
C. Permissions
D. None of the above

34. ____________ Scheduling algorithm can guarantee fairness among all processes.
A. FCFS
B. Priority Based
C. Round Robin
D. None of the above

35. Piece of code that only one thread can execute at a time is called as
A. Entry section
B. Critical Section
C. Exit Section
D. None of the above

36. Bring a page into physical memory only when it is referenced is called as
A. Copy on write
B. Demand Paging
C. Page Fault
D. Thrashing

37. In linux newly created process is kept in ________ state

A. Blocked
B. Running
C. Ready
D. Zombie

38. BASH stands for _____________ .

A. Bourne Again Shell
B. Basic Access Shell
C. Bourne Advanced Shell
D. Bourne Access Shell

39. output of above code is ___________

a=27
b=10
expr $a / $b
A. 2.7
B. 2
C. 7
D. 3

40. Which of the following is a preferred scheduling algorithm for Real time systems?
A. FCFS
B. Round Robin
C. Priority Based
D. None of the above