q682 General Subjects

National Maritime Center
Keep ’em Safe, Keep ’em Sailing
U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam
OSV - Chief Engineer
Q682 General Subjects
(Sample Examination)
9/11/2023 Page 1 of 28
Illustrations: 10
Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice Questions:
1. In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the integral mode of control?
o (A) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the error.
o (B) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the rate at which the
error is changing.
o (C) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the gain.
• (D) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the accumulation of
error over time.
If choice D is selected set score to 1.
2. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the progressive reduction or
suppression of oscillation in a component?
• (A) Damping
o (B) Deadband
o (C) Hysteresis
o (D) Saturation
If choice A is selected set score to 1.
3. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump
operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.
o (A) bleed-in circuit

o (B) metered-out circuit
o (C) bleed-off circuit
• (D) metered-in circuit
4. A hydraulic system flow control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________.
Illustration GS-0106
• (A) metered-out circuit

o (B) metered-in circuit
o (C) bleed-off circuit
o (D) bleed-in circuit
9/11/2023 Page 2 of 28
Illustrations: 10
5. A hydraulic flow control circuit is shown in the illustration, and is known as a __________. Illustration
GS-0107
o (A) bleed-in circuit

o (B) metered-in circuit
o (C) metered-out circuit
• (D) bleed-off circuit
6. In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor
windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?
o (A) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the wildcat
clutches being disengaged.
• (B) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump
stroke control being in other than the neutral position.
o (C) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump
stroke control being in the neutral position.
o (D) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with handwheel
operated wildcat band brakes being set.
If choice B is selected set score to 1.
7. What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a winding drum or
traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship?
o (A) Door interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency
when elevators are required to be used.
o (B) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when
elevators are not to be used.
• (C) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still open and only
allow elevator operation if the doors are proved closed.
o (D) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still closed and only
allow elevator operation if the doors are proved open.
If choice C is selected set score to 1.
9/11/2023 Page 3 of 28
Illustrations: 10
8. While a vessel is underway in periodically unmanned engine room status, the oily-water separator is
undergoing extensive maintenance and repairs and will not be available for service for another 24
hours. With bilge holding tanks nearing capacity, as chief engineer you wish to be informed of when
the oily-water separator is available for service. How would you best ensure that you will be so
informed?
o (A) The request would be made of the duty engineer orally assuming that the word shall be
passed on to his or her relief.
o (B) The request would be written as a note posted in the vicinity of the engineering department
coffee mess.
• (C) The request would be written as a special instruction in the chief engineer's night order book.
o (D) The request would be written as a note inserted into the chief engineer's standing order book.
9. New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased by using
__________.
o (A) carbon tetrachloride

o (B) alcohol
o (C) a water-based detergent
• (D) a special petroleum solvent
10. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what special attention should be given to the
hydraulic system?
• (A) The filters and strainers should be checked frequently.

o (B) All system pressure should be readjusted.
o (C) The relief valves in the system should be readjusted.
o (D) The system should be drained and renewed with a fluid of different operating characteristics.
11. Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped with accumulators, you should __________.
o (A) completely charge the accumulators to prevent system energy loss

o (B) drain the accumulators and purge with oxygen
o (C) pump the hydraulic fluid into the accumulators to prevent fluid loss
• (D) bleed off all stored energy from the accumulators
9/11/2023 Page 4 of 28
Illustrations: 10
12. While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that hydraulic pressure does not develop in
spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor. Which of the following actions should you
take FIRST to restore pressure?
• (A) Make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level.
o (B) Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact.
o (C) Inspect the disc brake on the electric motor for proper operation.
o (D) Check for full voltage supply to the electric motor.
13. A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abruptly slows towards the end of
its stroke, then continues to creep to the completion of its stroke. Which of the following represents
the probable cause?
o (A) The exhaust oil is flowing freely through the cushion nose.
• (B) The cushion adjustment needle valve is not open sufficiently.
o (C) The cushion adjustment needle valve is open too far.
o (D) The rod wiper is jammed in the cushion spear.
14. Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by __________.
o (A) an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers

• (B) continuous leakage through the pressure relief valve
o (C) fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations
o (D) insufficient external pump slippage
15. The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______. Illustration
GS-0175
o (A) processed water outlet line

o (B) waste oil outlet line
• (C) oily bilge water inlet line
o (D) clean water inlet line
9/11/2023 Page 5 of 28
Illustrations: 10
16. Referring to the illustration, suppose while in the oil separation processing mode, the oil content
detector display screen shows 17.9 ppm and the oily-water separator is discharging back to the bilge
water holding tank for recirculation. What is most likely the cause? Illustration GS-0175
o (A) The bilge water holding tank level is excessively high resulting in a high level alarm.
o (B) The oily-water separator bilge suction strainer is excessively clogged.
o (C) The oily-water separator service pump is excessively worn.
• (D) The bilge water holding tank contents is excessively contaminated with oil.
17. If item "1" in the illustrated oily-water separator indicates an abnormally deep vacuum, which of the
following conditions is the most probable cause? Illustration GS-0153
o (A) Coalescer beds are severely fouled.

• (B) Suction line inlet strainer is obstructed.
o (C) Process water inlet valve, item "5", is open.
o (D) No problem exists as a high vacuum should be maintained in the chamber whose vacuum is
to be measured.
18. A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to __________.
• (A) reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump

o (B) increase water flow through the system
o (C) provide a higher pressure in the system than the pump can deliver
o (D) prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction
19. In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the distance from the bottom of the inlet to the bottom
end of the motor shaft? Illustration GS-0011
o (A) 45 1/4 inches

o (B) 45 5/16 inches
o (C) 53 5/8 inches
• (D) 57 5/8 inches
20. Of the views labeled "1", "2", "3", and "4", select the one that correctly represents the right side view
of the unnumbered object in the illustration. Illustration GS-0003
o (A) 1
o (B) 2
o (C) 3
• (D) 4
9/11/2023 Page 6 of 28
Illustrations: 10
21. A command signal input to the steering gear has initiated rudder movement for 20° right rudder. The
follow-up mechanism at the beginning of the rudder movement will __________. Illustration
GS-0123
• (A) be in motion with a null input

o (B) not be in motion, thus a null input
o (C) be in motion providing an input to place the variable stroke pump on maximum stroke
o (D) be in motion providing an input to place the variable stroke pump at null stroke
22. If oil under pressure is supplied to the area noted as "N" on the vane in the illustration __________.
Illustration GS-0116
o (A) "O" will rotate clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"
o (B) "O" will be hydraulically locked in place even though oil is returned to the main pump from the
area between "M" and "I"
• (C) "O" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"
o (D) "Q" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"
23. The operation of the device shown in the illustration is dependent upon __________. Illustration
GS-0116
o (A) all items, similar to "I" move as the rudder stock rotates
• (B) all items, similar to "N" move as the rudder stock rotates
o (C) both "I" and "N" move as the rudder stock rotates
o (D) neither "I" nor "N" move as the rudder stock rotates
24. A water line ruptures under pressure and floods the engine room causing $30,000(USD) damage to
the machinery. By law, this must be reported to the __________.
o (A) engine manufacturer

o (B) insurance underwriter
• (C) U.S. Coast Guard
o (D) owner or his agent
25. Where would you find a list of the firefighting equipment required on your vessel?
o (A) Official logbook

• (B) Certificate of Inspection
o (C) In the captain's desk
o (D) Muster List ("Station Bill")
9/11/2023 Page 7 of 28
Illustrations: 10
26. The minimum firefighting equipment to be maintained onboard a tank vessel, can be determined
from the __________.
o (A) U.S.C.G. Firefighting Manual for Tank Vessels

o (B) vessel's current articles
• (C) vessel's Certificate of Inspection
o (D) U.S.C.G. Equipment List
27. Control system diagrams use standard symbols to describe the component function required for the
system to achieve its intended control functions. Standard symbols are used to allow engineers to
describe the logic and component functions. Define the function of symbol "I" as shown in the
illustration. Illustration GS-0180
o (A) Difference Signal Processor.

o (B) Integral Processor.
• (C) Low Select Signal Processor.
o (D) High Select Signal Processor.
28. When tuning a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) controller/loop, one should know/understand the
influence of each action component on the loop. Which description of a component is correct?
o (A) Derivative - component in which the input is proportional to the rate of change of the output.
o (B) Integral - component in which the input is proportional to the output.
o (C) Proportional - component in which there is a linear relationship between setpoint and input.
• (D) Proportional - component in which there is a linear relationship between output and input.
29. Which of the fluids listed is suitable for use as a secondary refrigerant?
o (A) Carbon dioxide

• (B) Brine
o (C) Methyl alcohol
o (D) Cuprous chloride
30. What is the color coding for a storage container of R-134a refrigerant?
o (A) green
• (B) light blue
o (C) grey
o (D) purple
9/11/2023 Page 8 of 28
Illustrations: 10
31. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeration compressor, extreme care must be taken
to prevent what from happening?
• (A) dirt and foreign particles from coming in contact with the highly polished sealing surfaces
o (B) any lubricant from contacting the stationary seal face that would cause etching of the face
surface
o (C) any lubricant from contacting the carbon surface that would cause the expulsion of the
saturated Teflon film
o (D) the spring from being damaged by the corrosive effects of excessive handling
32. A refrigeration unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under what conditions?
o (A) under heavy loads

o (B) during starting conditions
• (C) lack of refrigerant
o (D) during hot gas defrost
33. Concerning the proper installation of the sensing bulb of a thermal expansion valve that is attached
to the evaporator tail coil on a horizontal run, which statement is true?
o (A) the bulb should be attached so that the pinched off tubing should be oriented to one side and
the capillary tube running to the valve diaphragm should be oriented to the opposite side
o (B) the bulb should be attached so that the pinched off tubing should be oriented up and the
capillary tube running to the valve diaphragm should be oriented down
• (C) the bulb should be attached so that the pinched off tubing should be oriented down and the
capillary tube running to the valve diaphragm should be oriented up
o (D) the bulb should be attached with no regard to the orientation of the pinched off tubing or the
capillary tube running to the valve diaphragm
34. What maintenance may be carried out on a thermostatic expansion valve?
o (A) The rate action may be increased.

• (B) The inlet screen may be cleaned.
o (C) The proportional action may be varied.
o (D) The thermal bulb may be recharged.
9/11/2023 Page 9 of 28
Illustrations: 10
35. If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too low, what would be the result,
assuming that the system has a single evaporator?
o (A) the receiver level will be abnormally high due to a reduced amount of refrigerant returning
back to the compressor
• (B) the suction line will be abnormally cold and liquid may flood back to the compressor
o (C) the box temperature will be pulled way down below the normal temperature range
o (D) the suction line will be abnormally warm due to a reduced amount of refrigerant returning
back to the compressor
36. If the needle and seat assembly is excessively eroded, the valve cage assembly can be replaced. In
replacing the original valve cage assembly rated at 1/2 tons, what would be the result if the
replacement valve cage was oversized at 5 tons? Illustration RA-0007
o (A) The expansion valve would function normally, with the presentation of no problems.
• (B) The expansion valve would hunt excessively, alternately starving and overfeeding the
evaporator coil.
o (C) The evaporator would be overfed producing consistently insufficient superheat.
o (D) The evaporator would be starved producing consistently excessive superheat.
37. High suction pressure accompanied by low suction temperature to a refrigeration system
compressor is caused by which of the following?
o (A) the expansion valve is insufficiently opened

o (B) the king valve is insufficiently open
o (C) a clogged liquid-line strainer
• (D) the expansion valve being open too wide
38. Technicians servicing small refrigeration appliances can employ what type of recovery equipment?
o (A) passive only

o (B) active only
• (C) either active or passive
o (D) do not need to recover the refrigerant
9/11/2023 Page 10 of 28
Illustrations: 10
39. You have completed repairs to a small galley refrigerator which uses a capillary tube and a hermetic
compressor. The repairs required complete evacuation of the refrigerant and you find that you do not
have a proper scale to weighing the amount of refrigerant you will recharge into the system. As the
unit is critical to galley operations you must try and restore it to service. The most prudent course of
action would be to do which of the following?
o (A) Add twice the recommended amount of oil to the compressor, to restrict refrigerant flow, then
slowly recharge until the compressor oil level returns to normal.
• (B) Add an undercharge of refrigerant to get the system started, in order to not flood the
compressor with liquid, then slowly add refrigerant as you monitor pressures and temperatures.
o (C) Add liquid refrigerant to the suction side of the compressor until you see liquid coming from
the evaporator suction.
o (D) Add a significant overcharge of refrigerant, to ensure the condenser is full, then slowly
remove refrigerant as you monitor pressures and temperatures.
40. For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be
exposed is what temperature?
o (A) 100°F
• (B) 125°F
o (C) 150°F
o (D) 175°F
41. A room humidistat initiates the lowering of the humidity of the conditioned supply air to a space,
while the actual process is accomplished by what means?
o (A) lowering both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature
• (B) lowering the cooling coil temperature and raising the reheater temperature
o (C) raising the cooling coil temperature and lowering the reheater temperature
o (D) raising both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature
42. In general, the thermal bulb for a thermal expansion valve used in a reciprocating air conditioning
system is usually charged with what substance?
• (A) the same refrigerant as the system

o (B) distilled water
o (C) bees wax
o (D) mercuric sulfate
9/11/2023 Page 11 of 28
Illustrations: 10
43. When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low-pressure cutout switch, assuming
that the compressor is running, what should be done to initiate the test?
• (A) close the "king" valve

o (B) stop the circulating pump
o (C) secure the condenser
o (D) stop the compressor
44. What form of communication provides the greatest information richness, which is the amount of
verbal and non-verbal information that a communication channel carries?
o (A) Large-group meeting

o (B) Telephone conversation
• (C) One-on-one, face-to-face
o (D) Small-group meeting
45. Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the
following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a delegating
leadership style?
o (A) Where the employees are able but unwilling or insecure.

• (B) Where the employees are able and willing or confident.
o (C) Where the employees are unable and unwilling or insecure.
o (D) Where the employees are unable but willing or confident.
46. During the "forming" stage of group development, members are trying to determine the task of the
group and their role expectations of one another. As a manager, what should be done to
help facilitate the "forming" process?
o (A) The group should not have a designated leader to promote equality.
o (B) The group members should be widely differing in background regardless of the degree of
complexity of the task.
• (C) The group should have a designated leader to provide structure and guidance.
o (D) The group members should be similar in background regardless of the degree of complexity
of the task.
9/11/2023 Page 12 of 28
Illustrations: 10
47. Of the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component when used with
stability charts would be particularly useful in decision-making as it applies to the effect of water
accumulated during firefighting efforts and the free surface effect?
o (A) General arrangement plan

• (B) Deadweight and capacity plan
o (C) Fire control plan
o (D) Pre-fire plan
48. When preparing/writing shipyard items for your vessel's upcoming dry-docking period, what would
you consider as an item regarding CuNi saltwater cooling systems/piping?
• (A) Identify in your item all steel waster piece pipe spools in the CuNi systems and require them
to be removed and replaced.
o (B) This item should be of no concern since you have not experienced system piping
degradation/leaks.
o (C) Remove certain designated CuNi piping sections for inspection.
o (D) Replace all bonding pieces/wires between all CuNi system flanges.
49. One is slated to be a senior officer of a new vessel and is to participate in the 'Builder's Sea Trials'.
What would you consider your responsibilities when asked to witness scheduled tests?
o (A) Observe, report any possible deficiencies to shipyard representatives and regulatory body
representatives.
• (B) Observe, note any deficiencies you may feel exist and convey them to your vessel owner's
representatives.
o (C) Observe and convey your comments of any possible deficiencies to the shipyard
representative conducting the test.
o (D) Observe, report any possible deficiencies to the representatives of the regulatory bodies
present.
50. A vessel you are sailing on as chief engineer had its last dry-docking survey 2 years prior and is not
enrolled in an underwater survey program in lieu of dry-docking. When is the next dry-docking due?
• (A) 1 year
o (B) 6 months
o (C) 2 years
o (D) 3 years
9/11/2023 Page 13 of 28
Illustrations: 10
51. If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided from ashore,
what statement is true as it relates to preparing a refrigeration system for lay-up?
o (A) The refrigeration system should be evacuated with a recovery unit so that the entire
refrigerant charge is transferred to a recovery cylinder.
o (B) The refrigeration system should be evacuated with a deep-vacuum pump so that the entire
refrigerant charge is transferred to the atmosphere.
o (C) The refrigeration system should be left in an idle condition with the refrigerant charge
dispersed throughout the system.
• (D) The refrigeration system should be pumped down so that the entire refrigerant charge is
stored and isolated in the receiver tank.
52. When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller should be applied to the bearing
__________.
o (A) outer race

o (B) raceway
o (C) retainer plate
• (D) inner race
53. As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning, generates
heat. This condition may be avoided by __________.
o (A) installing oil rings on the ball bearings

o (B) maintaining a continuous fluid film of oil on the bearings
• (C) reducing the quantity of lubricant until only a mist of oil is present on the ball bearings
o (D) adding more lubricant until the ball bearings are completely covered with a layer of oil
54. If there is any doubt that a newly employed engine department crew member is sufficiently familiar
with the engine room equipment, operating and maintenance procedures needed for the proper
performance of his or her duties, what should be done?
o (A) The employee should be immediately terminated and arrangements made for a relief to be
sent out whenever practical.
• (B) The employee should be provided a period of close supervision until there is no longer any
doubt that he or she is familiar enough to be competent.
o (C) The employee should be allowed to perform his or her duties without supervision in the hopes
that he or she will eventually become familiar enough to be competent.
o (D) The employee should be demoted and required to function at the lowest level for the entire
duration of his or her assignment.
9/11/2023 Page 14 of 28
Illustrations: 10
55. It has been demonstrated that delegation can enhance employee development. To avoid a fear of
failure, what must a manager avoid when delegating decision-making power to an employee?
o (A) Under-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
easy.
o (B) Over-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
easy.
• (C) Over-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
difficult.
o (D) Under-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
difficult.
56. When analyzing trend analysis data in reference to a critical value to avoid a catastrophic failure,
what statement is true?
o (A) The current data should be compared to the critical value without any concern for the
historical trend or for the rate of change over time.
o (B) The current data should be analyzed for the historical trend and for the rate of change over
time, but without any concern for the critical value.
• (C) The current data should be compared to the critical value and analyzed for the historical
trend and for the rate of change over time.
o (D) The current data should be compared to the critical value and the historical trend, but without
any concern for the rate of change over time.
57. As a management level engineering officer, you are apt to be the primary investigator investigating
the root cause of the failure of a piece of machinery. In collecting the necessary data for the root
cause analysis, what should be your FIRST priority?
o (A) Reviewing the historical watchkeeping and maintenance records.

• (B) Collecting and preserving the physical evidence of the failure.
o (C) Consulting with other technical experts, suppliers, and manufacturers.
o (D) Interviewing any directly involved watchstanding or maintenance personnel.
58. For planning purposes graphical charts can be a useful tool. What type of chart is good for a visual
progress report and identifies work stages or activities on the vertical axis and the scheduled
completion dates on the horizontal axis?
o (A) Pie chart

o (B) Scatter plot
o (C) PERT chart
• (D) Gantt chart
9/11/2023 Page 15 of 28
Illustrations: 10
59. As an engineering department manager in dealing with a grievance presented by an unlicensed

engine department crew and union member, what documentation spells out the grievance
procedure?
o (A) Shipping Articles of Agreement

o (B) Title 46 CFR U.S. Coast Guard (Shipping)
o (C) Title 29 CFR Department of Labor
• (D) Collective Bargaining Agreement between Company and Union
60. Which of the following third parties utilized in alternative dispute resolution proceedings has the
authority to make a binding decision?
o (A) Mediator
• (B) Arbitrator
o (C) Fact-finder
o (D) Facilitator
61. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following statements is true
concerning the signature of the Oil Record Book?
o (A) The officer in charge of the engineering watch signs each entry occurring on the watch, and
the chief engineer signs each page.
o (B) The person in charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the chief engineer signs each
page.
• (C) The person in charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the master signs each page.
o (D) The officer in charge of the navigational watch signs each entry occurring on the watch, and
the master signs each page.
62. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following electrical
repairs is permitted?
o (A) Splice a damaged conductor with twist-on connectors if the insulated cap is firmly secured to
prevent loosening due to vibration.
o (B) Splice a flexible cord or cable with twist-on connectors if smaller than 18 AWG.
• (C) Connect a flexible cord or cable to a fitting with so that tension is not transmitted to joints or
terminal screws.
o (D) Extend the length of a circuit with twist-on connectors if in an enclosure and wrapped securely
with insulating tape.
9/11/2023 Page 16 of 28
Illustrations: 10
63. Machinery spaces must be designed to minimize the exposure of personnel to noise in accordance
with U.S. regulations. Manned machinery space noise must not exceed which noise level?
o (A) 75 dB(A)
o (B) 85 dB(A)
• (C) 90 dB(A)
o (D) 110 dB(A)
64. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), what is the definition of a "Type I Marine
Sanitation Device"?
o (A) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
o (B) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
• (C) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100
milliliters and no visible floating solids.
o (D) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
65. In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific machinery space
operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that must be entered
into an Oil Record Book?
o (A) 33CFR Part 151.15

• (B) 33CFR Part 151.25
o (C) 33CFR Part 151.55
o (D) 33CFR Part 151.2070
66. While examining results of vibration analysis of a rotating piece of machinery, you find very high
amplitude/displacement readings at a very high frequency at one measuring point. What would that
indicate?
o (A) Imbalance between the prime mover and driven equipment.

o (B) Misalignment between the prime mover and driven equipment.
o (C) Looseness of equipment components at the measuring point.
• (D) Degradation of a ball or a roller bearing.
9/11/2023 Page 17 of 28
Illustrations: 10
67. Elevated metal levels present in a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil is
indicative of a condition. What would high iron levels indicate?
o (A) Main bearing or crank pin bearing wear.

o (B) Camshaft bearing wear.
o (C) Rocker arm or piston pin bushing wear.
• (D) Piston ring or cylinder liner wear.
68. Compatibility of fuel is easily checked onboard ship to ensure that serious problems do not result.
What statement concerning fuel incompatibility is true?
• (A) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to form sludge, and therefore must not
be blended.
o (B) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to form sludge, and therefore must be
vigorously blended.
o (C) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to separate out from one another, and
therefore must be vigorously blended.
o (D) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to separate out from one another, and
therefore must not be blended.
69. Which of the following condition-based maintenance data continuous monitoring techniques has the
greatest value in predicting wear?
• (A) Vibration analysis

o (B) Thermography
o (C) Lubricating oil analysis
o (D) Acoustic analysis
70. Which of the following types of maintenance would be considered a reactive approach to
maintenance as opposed to proactive?
o (A) Planned maintenance

o (B) Condition-based maintenance
• (C) Corrective maintenance
o (D) Predictive maintenance
9/11/2023 Page 18 of 28
GS-0003
Adapted for testing purposes only

9/21/2018 Further reproduction prohibited without permission. Page 19 of 28
GS-0011
MOTOR CHARACTERISTICS
Characteristic Specification
Motor (A. C.) Electro Dynamic
Rating H. P. 25
Speed R. P. M. (SYN.) 1200
Frame 365 VY
Type TN
Volts 440
Cycles 60
Phase 3
PUMP CHARACTERISTICS
Characteristic Specification
Capacity G. P. M. 400
Speed R. P. M. 1150
Suction Lift “HG 10
B, H, P. @ 1200
SSU-75° F 24.9
Oil viscosity
Range, SSU 74-7000
Viscosity Normal
SSU @ 140° F 155
Discharge Normal
PSIG 55
Fluid Handled,
Lube Oil 2190 TEP.
Navy Specification MIL-L-17331
Oil Temperature 40-180
Range ° F
Illustration scale: 1” = 1’
Adapted for testing purposes only

9/21/2018 Further reproduction prohibited without permission Page 20 of 28
GS-0106
Adapted for testing purposes only from STUTMAN, Applied Marine Hydraulics
Copyright © 1988 by Cornell Maritime Press, Inc.
GS-0107
GS-0116
Adapted for testing purposes only from HUNT, Modern Marine Engineer’s Manual, Volume II
GS-0123
GS-0153
Adapted for testing purposes only from Operator, Unit and Direct Support Maintenance Manual
Including Repair Parts and Special Tools List for Oil Water Separator
9/27/2018 TM 55-1925-285-13 & P
Page 25 of 28
Further reproduction prohibited without permission
GS-0175
Adapted for testing purposes only from Heli-Sep Model 550/OCD Technical Manual
Copyright © by Coffin World Water Systems
GS-0180
Adapted for testing purposes only from HUNT, Modern Marine Engineer’s Manual, Volume I
Copyright © 1999 by Cornell Maritime Press
RA-0007
Adapted for testing purposes only from ALTHOUSE, Modern

Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
Copyright © 1992 by The Goodheart-Willcox Company, Inc.

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National Maritime Center

Keep ’em Safe, Keep ’em Sailing

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam

OSV - Chief Engineer

Q682 General Subjects

Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice Questions:

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

o (A) bleed-in circuit

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

• (A) metered-out circuit

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

o (A) bleed-in circuit

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

o (A) carbon tetrachloride

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

• (A) The filters and strainers should be checked frequently.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

o (A) completely charge the accumulators to prevent system energy loss

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

14. Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by __________.

o (A) an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

o (A) processed water outlet line

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

o (A) Coalescer beds are severely fouled.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

18. A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to __________.

• (A) reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

o (A) 45 1/4 inches

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

• (A) be in motion with a null input

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

o (A) engine manufacturer

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

o (A) Official logbook

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

o (A) U.S.C.G. Firefighting Manual for Tank Vessels

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

o (A) Difference Signal Processor.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

o (A) Carbon dioxide

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

o (A) under heavy loads

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

34. What maintenance may be carried out on a thermostatic expansion valve?