Namma Kalvi 10th Social Science Special Guide Way To Success EM 221333

HISTORY
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16  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10th Social Science
1. OUTBREAK OF WORLD WAR I AND ITS

AFTERMATH
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

I. Choose the correct answer
1. What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
a) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and the Ottomans
b) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Russia
c) Spain, Portugal and Italy
d) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy
2. Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth century?
a) China b) Japan c) Korea d) Mongolia
3. Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”? (PTA – 6)
a) Lenin b) Marx c) Sun Yat-sen d) Mao Tsetung
4. What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
a) air warfare b) trench warfare
c) submarine warfare d) ship warfare
5. To which country did the first Secretary General of League of Nations belong?
a) Britain b) France c) Dutch d) USA
6. Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland? (SEP – 2021)
a) Germany b) Russia c) Italy d) France
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
7. Where did the Ethiopian army defeat the Italian army? (SEP – 2020)
a) Delville b) Orange State c) Adowa d) Algiers
II. Fill in the blanks
1. Japan forced a war on China in the year 1894.
2. The new state of Albania was created according to the Treaty of London signed in May 1913.
3. Japan entered into an alliance with England in the year 1902.
4. In the Balkans Macedonia had mixed population.
5. In the battle of Tannenberg Russia suffered heavy losses.
6. Clemenceau as Prime Minister represented France in Paris Peace Conference.
7. Locarno Treaty was signed in the year 1925 (PTA – 1)
III. Choose the correct statement.
1. i) The Turkish Empire contained many non-Turkish people in the Balkans.
ii) Turkey fought on the side of the central powers.
iii) Britain attacked Turkey and captured Constantinople.
iv) Turkey’s attempt to attack Suez Canal but were repulsed.
a) i) and ii) are correct b) i) and iii) are correct
c) iv) is correct d) i), ii) and iv) are correct
2. Assertion: Germany and the United States were producing cheaper manufactured goods and
capturing England’s markets.
Reason: Both the countries produced required raw material for their industries.
a) Both A and R are correct b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong. d) R is right but A is wrong.
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HISTORY: UNIT 1  17
3. Assertion: The first European attempts to carve out colonies in Africa resulted in
bloody battles.
Reason: There was stiff resistance from the native population.
a) Both A and R are correct. b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong. d) R is right but A wrong.
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
4. (i) Italy remained a neutral country when the world war broke out. (PTA – 4)
(ii) Italy was much disappointed over the peace settlement at Versailles.
(iii) The Treaty of Sevres was signed with Italy.
(iv) Italy was denied even small places such as Trieste, Istria and South Tyrol.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii) is correct
c) (iv) is correct d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
IV. Match the following
1. Treaty of Brest - Litovsk - a) Versailles
2. Jingoism - b) Turkey
3. Kemal Pasha - c) Russia with Germany
4. Emden - d) England
5. Hall of Mirrors - e) Madras
Answer : 1 – c 2 – d 3 – b 4 – e 5–a
V. Answer briefly
1. How do you assess the importance of Sino-Japanese War?
 In 1894 China was defeated by little Japan in the Sino-Japanese War.
 Despite the warning of the three great powers Russia, Germany and France – Japan
annexed the Liaotung peninsula with Port Arthur.
 By this action Japan proved that it was the strongest nation of the East Asia.
2. Name the countries in the Triple Entente.
 Britain  France  Russia
3. What were the three militant forms of nationalism in Europe?
 England’s jingoism  France’s chauvinism  Germany’s kultur
4. What do you know of trench warfare? (SEP - 2021, PTA - 3)
 Trenches or ditches dug by troops enabled soldiers to safely stand and protect themselves
from enemy fire.
 The main lines of trenches were connected to each other and to the rear by a series of
linking trenches.
 Through which food, ammunition, fresh troops, mail, and orders were delivered.
5. What was the role of Mustafa Kemal Pasha?
 Turkey’s rebirth as a nation thanks to the role played by Mustafa Kemal Pasha was remarkable.
 Kemal Pasha modernised Turkey and changed it out of all recognition.
6. List out any two causes for the failure of the League of Nations. (PTA - 5)
 The League appeared to be an organisation of those who were victorious in the First
World War.
 It lacked the military power of its own, it could not enforce its decisions.
 The founders of this peace organisation underestimated the power of nationalism.
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
7. Highlight the global influence of Russian Revolution? (SEP – 2020)
* This question is removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 – 2022 *
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18  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10 Social Science th
8. Write any two provisions of the Treaty of Versailles. (PTA - 6)

 Germany was found guilty of starting the War and therefore was to pay reparations for the
losses suffered.
 All Central Powers were directed to pay war indemnity.
 The German army was to be limited to 100,000 men. A small navy was allowed.
VI. Answer the following in detail
1. Discuss the main causes of the First World War. (SEP – 2021, 2020, PTA – 1)
a) European Alliances and Counter-Alliances
 In 1900 five of the European Great Powers were divided into two armed camps.
 One was consisted of the Central Powers, other was Allied powers.
 Central powers formed the Triple Alliance in 1882 of Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy.
 Under the guidance of Bismarck, they had formed the Triple Alliance in 1882.
b) Violent Forms of Nationalism
 With the growth of nationalism, the attitude of “my country right or wrong I support it” developed.
 The love for one country demanded hatred for another country.
 England’s jingoism, France’s chauvinism and Germany’s Kultur were militant forms
of nationalism.
c) Aggressive Attitude of German Emperor
 Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II proclaimed that Germany would be the leader of the world.
 The German navy was expanded against Britain.
 Therefore, Britain embarked on a naval race. So it arose the tension between the two powers.
d) Hostility of France towards Germany
 France and Germany were old rivals of the defeat of 1871 and loss.
 France interference in Morocco was opposed by Germany.
 British agreement with France over Morocco was not consented by Germany.
e) Imperial Power Politics in the Balkans
 The Young Turk Revolution of 1908, an attempt at creating a strong and modern
government in Turkey.
 It provided both Austria and Russia with the opportunity to resume their activities in
the Balkans. Austria announced the annexation of Bosnia and Herzegovina.
 Germany gave Austria firm support Russia went to the Germany went to the extent of
promising that if Austria invaded Serbia and in consequence Russia helped Serbia,
Germany would come to Austria’s assistance.
 The enmity between Austria and Serbia led to the outbreak of war in 1914.
f) The Balkan Wars
 Both the Turks and their subjects of different nationalities in the Balkans indulged in
the most frightful massacres and atrocities.
 So Greece, Serbia, Bulgaria and later Montenegro formed the Balkan League and
defeated Turkish forces in the first Balkan War.
 The division of Macedonia, Bulgaria attacked Serbia and Greece. This war called the
Second Balkan War.
g) Immediate Cause - Assassination of Prince Ferdinand
 On 28 June 1914 the Archduke Franz Ferdinand , nephew and heir to Franz Joseph,
Emperor of Austria-Hungary, was assassinated by Princip, a Bosnian Serb.
 Austria saw in this an opportunity to eliminate Serbia as an independent state.
 Germany thought that it should strike first.
 It declared war on Russia on 1 August.
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2. Highlight the provisions of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany. (PTA - 2)
a) Pay reparations
 Germany was found guilty of starting the War and therefore was to pay reparations for
the losses suffered.
 All Central Powers were directed to pay war indemnity.
b) Permission to keep army
 The German army was to be limited to 100, 000 men.
 A small navy was allowed.
c) Forbidden unity
 The union of Austria and Germany was forbidden.
d) Mandatory territories under League of nations
 All German colonies became mandated territories under the League of Nations.
e) Forced to revoke the Treaties
 Germany was forced to revoke the Treaty of Brest -Litovsk (with Russia) and
Bucharest (Bulgaria).
 Alsace–Lorraine was returned to France.
 The former Russian territories of Finland, Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania were to be
independent.
 Poland was recreated.
 The Rhineland was to be occupied by the Allies. The area on the east bank of the Rhine
was to be demilitarized.
3. Explain the course of the Russian Revolution under the leadership of Lenin.
4. Estimate the work done by the League of Nations.
 League of Nations
 The two-fold objective of the League of Nations was to avoid war and maintain peace
in the world and to promote international cooperation in economic and social affairs.
 The League was called in to settle a number of disputes between 1920 and 1925.
The League was successful in three issues.
 Activities of the League
a) Dispute of Aaland Islands
 In 1920 a dispute arose between Sweden and Finland over the sovereignty of the
Aaland Islands.
 The League ruled that the islands should go to Finland.
b) Settlement of frontier Silesia issue
 In the following year the League was asked to settle the frontier between Poland and
Germany in Upper Silesia, which was successfully resolved by the League.
c) Greece pay reparations
 The third dispute was between Greece and Bulgaria in 1925. Greece invaded
Bulgaria, and the League ordered a ceasefire.
 After investigation it blamed Greece and decided that Greece was to pay reparations.
VIII. Map Work (Refer page no :152 in the guide)
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2. THE WORLD BETWEEN TWO WORLD WARS
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy? (MDL - 19)
a) Germany b) Russia c) Pope d) Spain
2. With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?
a) Hernan Cortes b) Francisco Pizarro
c) Toussaint Louverture d) Pedro I
3. Who made Peru as part of their dominions?
a) English b) Spaniards c) Russians d) French
4. Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America?
a) Roosevelt b) Truman c) Woodrow Wilson d) Eisenhower
5. Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism? (PTA – 2)
a) Europe b) Latin America c) India d) China
* (1 to 5) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
6. In America, the first huge Stock Market Crash occurd on : (SEP – 2021)
a) 24 October 1929 b) 14 October 1929
c) 24 November 1925 d) 24 November 1928
7. Which quickened the process of liberation in South America? (PTA – 3)
a) Support of US b) Napoleonic Invasions
c) Simon Boliver’s involvement d) French Revolution
1. The founder of Social Democratic Party was Ferdinand Lassalle.
2. The Nazi Party’s propaganda was led by Josef Goebbels.
3. The Vietnam Nationalist Party was formed in 1927.
4. The Secret State Police in Nazi Germany was known as Gestapo.
5. The Union of South Africa came into being in May 1910.
6. The ANC leader Nelson Mandela was put behind the bars for 27 years.
7. Boers were also known as Afrikaners.
* (1, 2, 4 to 7) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
8. Latin America protested the Intervion of U.S.A. (SEP - 2020)
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III. Choose the correct statement
1. i) During World War I the primary task of Italy was to keep the Austrians occupied on the
Southern Front (PTA – 1)
ii) Germany took to Fascism much later than Italy.
iii) The first huge market crash in the US occurred on 24 October 1929.
iv) The ban on African National Congress was lifted in 1966.
a) i) and ii) are correct b) iii) is correct
c) iii) and iv) are correct d) i), ii) and iii) are correct
2. Assertion: A new wave of economic nationalism which expressed itself in protectionism
affected the world trade. (PTA – 5)
Reason: This was because the USA was not willing to provide economic aid to the debtor countries.
a) Both A and R are correct b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
3. Assertion: The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884–85 had resolved that Africa should be
divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
Reason: The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance
of this resolution.
a) Both A and R are right b) A is right but R is not the right reason
c) Both A and R are wrong d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
* (1, 3) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
1. Transvaal - a) Germany
2. Tongking - b) Hitler
3. Hindenburg (MDL-19) - c) Italy
4. Third Reich - d) gold
5. Matteotti (PTA – 2) - e) guerilla activities
Answer : 1- d 2 – e 3 – a 4 – b 5–c
V. Answer the questions briefly
1. What do you know of the White Terror in Indo-China? (PTA - 6)
 In 1929 the Vietnamese soldiers mutinied.
 There was a failed attempt to assassinate the French Governor-General.
 This was followed by a large scale peasant revolt led by the Communists.
 The revolt was crushed followed by what is called “White Terror.”
 Thousands of rebels were killed.
2. Discuss the importance of Ottawa Economic Summit.
 Britain transmitted the effects of Depression to its colonies. So it conduct the Ottawa
Economic Summit.
 Britain and the member states of the British Empire were signed at an economic summit
in Ottawa in 1932.
 In which the participants (including India) agreed to give preference to imperial (British)
over non-imperial goods.
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3. What was the result of Mussolini’s march on Rome?

4. Point out the essence of the Berlin Colonial Conference, 1884-85.
5. How did Great Depression impact on the Indian Agriculture? (SEP - 2021)
 The value of farm produce, declined by half while the land rent to be paid by the peasant
remained unchanged.
 In terms of prices of agricultural commodities, the obligation of the farmers to the state doubled.
 Farmers and Indian manufacturers therefore had to sell their gold and silver reserves
to subsist.
6. Define “Dollar Imperialism.” (PTA - 2)
* (3, 4, 6) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
7. What were the provisions incorporated in the Lateran Treaty? (PTA - 5)
8. Explain the Monroe Doctrine. (MDL - 19)
* (7,8) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
VI. Answer in detail
1. Trace the circumstances that led to the rise of Hitler in Germany.
2. Attempt a narrative account of how the process of decolonization happened in India
during the inter-war period (1919-39).
a) Dyarchy in Provinces
 The decolonization process started in India from the beginning of the twentieth century.
 In 1919, the Government of India Act introduced Dyarchy.
 The Indian National Congress rejected Dyarchy and decided to boycott the legislature.
b) India in the days of Great Depression -1929
 The ‘Great Depression’ of 1929 had a disastrous impact on British trade and business.
 Bilateral trade treaties between Britain and the member states of the British Empire were
signed at an economic summit in Ottawa in 1932, in which the participants (including
India) agreed to give preference to imperial (British) over non-imperial goods.
 India was forced to adhere to the policy of balancing the budget.
 Britain’s need for gold in the crisis years was met from the export of gold from India.
c) Foreign currency exchanging policy
 By overvaluing Indian currency, the British made imports cheaper.
 The currency exchange policy fuelled tensions between the colonial government and
its subjects
d) Impact of Depression on Indian Agriculture
 The value of farm produce, declined by half while the land rent to be paid by the peasant
remained unchanged. In terms of prices of agricultural commodities, the obligation of
the farmers to the state doubled.
 Farmers and Indian manufacturers therefore had to sell their gold and silver
reserves to subsist.
e) Government of India Act, 1935
 The Government of India Act, 1935. This provided for greater power to the local
governments and the introduction of direct elections. In the 1937 elections the Congress
won a resounding victory in most of the provinces.
 The decision of Britain to involve India in the Second World War, without consulting
the popular Congress ministries, forced the latter to resign from office.
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3. Describe the rise and growth of nationalist politics in South Africa. (PTA - 1)
4. Write short notes on Ho Chi Minh and the emergence of Viet Minh. (SEP – 2020)
Ho Chi Minh
 Ho Chi Minh (1890-1969) was born in Tongking. When he was twenty one, he went
to Europe.
 In the Paris peace conference, he lobbied for the independence for Vietnam.
 His articles in newspapers and especially the pamphlet, French Colonialism on Trial,
made him well known as a Vietnam nationalist.
 In 1921 he became a founder-member of the French Communist party.
 In 1925, he founded the Revolutionary Youth Movement.
The Emergence of Viet Minh
 The mainstream political party in Indo-China was the Vietnam Nationalist Party.
Formed in 1927, it was composed of the wealthy and middle class sections of the
population. In 1929 the Vietnamese soldiers mutinied, and there was a failed attempt
to assassinate the French Governor-General.
 The revolt was crushed followed by what is called “White Terror.” Thousands of
rebels were killed. After the White Terror, Ho Chi Minh left Moscow.
 When France was defeated by Germany in 1940, Ho Chi Minh and his lieutenants
used this turn of events to advance the Vietnamese cause. Crossing over the border
into Vietnam in January 1941, they organized the League for the Independence of
Vietnam, or Viet Minh.
5. Write about the rise of Mussolini in Italy. (PTA – 1)
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3. WORLD WAR II
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
1. When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?
a) 2 September, 1945 b) 2 October, 1945 c) 15 August, 1945 d) 12 October, 1945
2. Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?
a) Roosevelt b) Chamberlain c) Woodrow Wilson d) Baldwin
3. Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?
a) Battle of Guadalcanal b) Battle of Midway
c) Battle of Leningrad d) Battle of El Alamein
4. Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?
a) Kavashaki b) Innoshima c) Hiroshima d) Nagasaki
5. Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?
a) Russians b) Arabs c) Turks d) Jews
6. Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany?
a) Chamberlain b) Winston Churchill c) Lloyd George d) Stanley Baldwin
7. When was the Charter of the UN signed? (SEP – 2020)
a) June 26, 1942 b) June 26, 1945 c) January 1, 1942 d) January 1, 1945
* Question 7 is removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
8. The two wars fought from 1914 to 1918 and 1939 to 1945 are referred to as World Wars
because of the (PTA - 5)
a) extended areas of the conflict
b) very high death toll of civilians and armed combatants
c) fought on several fronts across Europe, Asia and Africa
d) All these
1. Hitler attacked Rhineland, which was a demilitarised zone.
2. The alliance between Italy, Germany and Japan is known as Rome Berlin-Tokyo Axis powers.
3. Roosevelt started the Lend Lease programme.
4. Britain Prime Minister Chamberlain resigned in 1940.
5. Radar is a device used to find out the enemy aircraft from a distance.
1. Assertion: President Roosevelt realised that the United States had to change its policy of isolation.
Reason: He started a programme of Lend Lease in 1941.
a) Both A and R are correct b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
IV. Match the Following
1. Blitzkrieg -
a) Roosevelt
2. Royal Navy -
b) Stalingrad
3. Lend Lease -
c) Solomon Island
4. Volga -
d) Britain
5. Guadalcanal -
e) lightning strike
Answers: 1 – e 2 – d 3 – a 4 – b 5 – c
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1. Who were the three prominent dictators of the post World War I ? (PTA - 1)
 Italy – Mussolini  Germany – Hitler  Spain – Franco
2. How did Hitler get the support from the people of Germany?
 Adolf Hitler was able to exploit the general discontent among the Germans.
 Gifted with great oratorical skills, he was able to sway the people by his impassioned
speeches, promising a return to the glorious military past of Germany.
 The fundamental platform on which Hitler built his support was the notion of the racial
superiority of the Germans as a pure, ‘Aryan’ race and a deep-seated hatred of the Jews.
 Hitler came to power in 1933 and ruled Germany till 1945.
3. Describe the Pearl Harbour incident. (SEP – 2020, PTA – 3)
 On December 1941, Japan attacked American naval installations in Pearl Harbour, Hawaii,
without warning.
 Many battleships and numerous fighter planes were destroyed.
 The United States declared war on Japan, with Britain and China also joining in.
4. What do you know of Beveridge Report?
5. Name the Bretton Woods Twins.
6. What are the objectives of IMF?
*(4,5,6) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
7. What Millitary equipments were used in the Second World War. (PTA – 4)
 Tanks  Submarines  Battery ships  Aircraft carriers  Fighter & Bomber planes
1. Analyse the effects of the World War II. (SEP – 2021, PTA - 2)
a) New geo-political power alignment:
 World War II changed the world in fundamental ways.
 The world was polarized into two main blocs led by superpowers, one led by the United
States with a pronounced anti-Communist ideology, and the other by Soviet Russia.
 Europe was divided into two: Communist and non-Communist.
b) Nuclear proliferation:
 The United States and the Soviet Union entered into a race to have more nuclear
powered weapons.
 They built a large stockpile of such weapons.
 Defence spending sky-rocketed in many countries.
c) International agencies:
 Many international agencies, in particular the United Nations, the World Bank and the
International Monetary Fund came into existence providing a forum for countries large
and small.
d) Decolonization
 Colonial powers were forced to give independence to former colonies in a process of
decolonization.
 India was the first to achieve independence.
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2. Assess the structure and the activities of the UN. (SEP – 2020, PTA - 6, MDL - 19)
* This question is removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
3. Specify the reasons for the failure of the League of Nations. (PTA - 4)
 League of Nations was formed initiative of President Woodrow Wilson of the United States.
 The League was expected to mediate between countries and take action against countries
which indulged in military aggression.
 However, the United States was not interested in playing a global role or any role in
European politics.
 The popular mood favoured the traditional isolationist approach, and therefore the United
States did not become a member of the League.
 The other Allied nations were also determined to maintain a non-interventionist attitude
and, in consequence, the League remained an ineffectual international body.
4. Attempt an essay on the rise and fall of Adolf Hitler. (PTA - 5)
 The Rise of Adolf Hitler
 Adolf Hitler was able to exploit the general discontent among the Germans.
 Gifted with great oratorical skills, he was able to sway the people by his impassioned
speeches, promising a return to the glorious military past of Germany.
 He founded the National Socialist party, generally known as “the Nazis”.
 The fundamental platform on which Hitler built his support was the notion of the racial
superiority of the Germans as a pure, ‘Aryan’ race and a deep-seated hatred of the Jews.
 Hitler came to power in 1933 and ruled Germany till 1945.
 In direct contravention of the clauses of the Treaty of Versailles, Hitler began to re-arm
Germany.
 In 1936, before Germany invaded the Rhineland.
 Rome-Berlin-Tokyo Axis alliance was developed by Italy, Germany and Japan.
 Fall of Adolf Hitler
 In 1941, Soviet army, and the fierce Russian winter defeated the German army.
 The Allied forces under the command of General Eisenhower invaded Normandy in
France.
 Slowly, the German army was forced back.
 But the Germans fought back and the War continued for nearly another year, and finally
ended in May 1945.
 Hitler committed suicide in April 1945.
VIII. Map Work (Refer page no : 153, 154 in the guide)
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4. THE WORLD AFTER WORLD WAR II
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?.
a) Woodrow Wilson b) Truman
c) Theodore Roosevelt d) Franklin roosevelt
2. When was People’s Political Consultative Conference held in China? (PTA – 6)
a) September 1959 b) September 1948 c) September 1954 d) September 1949
3. The United States and European allies formed _______________ to resist any Soviet
aggression in Europe.
a) SEATO b) NATO c) SENTO d) Warsaw Pact
4. Who became the Chairman of the PLO’s Executive Committee in 1969?
a) Hafez al-Assad b) Yasser Arafat c) Nasser d) Saddam Hussein
5. When was North and South Vietnam united? (PTA – 3)
a) 1975 b) 1976 c) 1973 d) 1974
6. When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?
a) 1979 b) 1989 c) 1990 d) 1991
*(1 to 6) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
7. In the Non-Aligned Movement Conference _______ participated as the Indian representative.
a) Lal Bahadur Shastri b) Motilal Nehru (SEP – 2021)
c) Jawaharlal Nehru d) Vallabhbhai Patel
1. Dr. Sun Yat-sen was known as the “Father of modern China”.
2. In 1918, the society for the study of Marxism was formed in Peking University.
3. After the death of Dr. Sun Yat Sen, the leader of the Kuomintang party was Chiang Kai-shek.
4. CENTO (or) Baghdad Pact treaty is open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in
the region.
5. The treaty of Versailles provided for mandates in Turkish -Arab Empire.
6. Germany joined the NATO in 1955.
7. Strasbourg was the Headquarters of the Council of Europe. (MDL - 19)
8. The Maastricht treaty signed on February 7, 1992 created the European Union.
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III. Choose the correct statement/statements
1. i) In China (1898) the young emperor, under the influence of the educated minority, initiated
a series of reforms known as the 100 days of reforms.
ii) The Kuomintang Party represented the interests of the workers and peasants.
iii) Yuan Shih-Kai had lost prestige in the eyes of Nationalists, when he agreed to the demand
of Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
iv) Soviet Union refused to recognize the People’s Republic of China for more than two decades.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (i) and (iii) are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct
2. i) In 1948, the Soviets had established left wing government in the countries of Eastern Europe
that had been liberated by the Soviet Army.
ii) The chief objective of NATO was to preserve peace and security in the North Atlantic region.
iii) The member countries of SEATO were committed to prevent democracy from gaining
ground in the region.
iv) Britain used the atomic bomb against Japan to convey its destructive capability to the USSR.
a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct b) (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
3. Assertion (A): America’s Marshall Plan was for reconstruction of the war-ravaged Europe.
Reason (R): The US conceived the Marshal Plan to bring the countries in the Western Europe
under its influence. (PTA – 2)
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
1. Dr. Sun Yat-Sen - a) South Vietnam
2. Syngman Rhee (MDL-19) - b) Kuomintung
3. Anwar Sadat (PTA – 2) - c) South Korea
4. Ho-Chi Minh - d) Egypt
5. Ngo Dinh Diem - e) North Vietnam
Answers: 1 – b 2 – c 3 – d 4 – e 5 – a
V. Answer briefly
1. Write any three causes for the Chinese Revolution of 1911.
2. Write a note on Mao’s Long March. (PTA - 3)
3. What do you know of Baghdad Pact?
4. What was Marshall Plan? (MDL - 19)
5. Write a note on Third World Countries. (PTA - 2)
6. How was the Cuban missile crisis defused?
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ADDITIONAL QUESTION
7. Write a note on 'Berlin wall'. (PTA – 1)
1. Estimate the role of Mao Tse tung in making China a communist country. (PTA - 5)
2. Narrate the history of transformation of Council of Europe into an European Union. (PTA - 4)
*(1, 2) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
3. Write a detailed note on NAM. (PTA - 3)
a) Emergence of NAM
The Non-Alignment Movement (NAM) emerged in the wake of decolonization that
followed World War II. It’s first conference held at Belgrade in 1961.
b) Prominent personalities of NAM
 Tito – Yugoslavia  Nasser – Egypt  Nehru – India
 Nkrumah - Ghana  Sukarno - Indonesia
c) Objectives of NAM
 The newly independent countries of Asia and Africa gave a call for abstaining from
allying with any of the two Super Powers.
 It also pledged to fight all forms of colonialism and imperialism.
d) Basic principles of NAM
 Peaceful coexistence
 Commitment to peace and security,
 No military alliance with any super power,
 No permission for any super power to build its military base in its territories.
4. What do you know about the Suez Canal Crisis? (PTA - 6)
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5. SOCIAL AND RELIGIOUS REFORM

MOVEMENTS IN THE 19TH CENTURY
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. In which year was Sati abolished? (SEP – 2021)
a) 1827 b) 1829 c) 1826 d) 1927
2. What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
a) Arya Samaj b) Brahmo Samaj c) Prarthana Samaj d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
3. Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
a) Iswar Chandra Vidyasagar b) Raja Rammohan Roy
c) Annie Besant d) Jyotiba Phule
4. Whose voice was Rast Goftar? (PTA – 4)
a) Parsi Movement b) Aligarh Movement
c) Ramakrishna Mission d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
5. Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
a) Baba Dayal Das b) Baba Ramsingh c) Gurunanak d) Jyotiba Phule
6. Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association? (PTA – 3)
a) M.G. Ranade b) Devendranath Tagore
c) Jyotiba Phule d) Ayyankali
7. Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash? (SEP – 2020, PTA – 2)
a) Dayananda Saraswathi b) Vaikunda Swamy
c) Annie Besant d) Swami Shradanatha
1. Ramalinga Swamigal founded the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam.
2. The founder of Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was M.G. Ranade.
3. Gulumgir was written by Jyotiba Phule.
4. Ramakrishna Mission was established by Swami Vivekananda.
5. Singh Sabha was the forerunner of Akali Movement.
6. Oru paisa Tamilan was started by Iyothee Thassar .
1. i) Raja Rammohan Roy preached monotheism
ii) He encouraged idolatry
iii) He published tracts condemning social evils
iv) Raja Rammohan Roy was supported by Governor General William Bentinck
a) i) is correct b) i) and ii) are correct
c) i), ii) and iii) are correct d) i), iii) and iv) are correct
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2. i) Prarthana Samaj was founded by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang (PTA – 6)
ii) Prarthana Samaj encouraged inter-dining and inter-caste marriage
iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of men.
iv) Prarthana Samaj had it’s origin in the Punjab.
a) i) is correct b) ii) is correct
c) i) and ii) are correct d) iii) and iv) are correct
3. i) Ramakrishna Mission was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care,
relief in time of calamities.
ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices.
iii) Ramakrishna established the Ramakrishna Mission
iv) Ramakrishna opposed the Partition of Bengal
a) i) is correct b) i) and ii) are correct
c) iii) is correct d) i), iii) or iv) correct
4. Assertion: Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows
Reason: Jyotiba Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage
a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion
b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion
c) Both are wrong
d) Reason is correct but assertion is irrelevant
1. Oru paisa Tamilan - a) Widows Remarriage Reform Act
2. Thiruvarutpa (PTA – 4) - b) Nirankari
3. Baba Dayal Das - c) Adi Bramo Samaj
4. Iswarchandra Vidyasagar - d) Journal
5. Debendranath - e) Songs of Grace
Answer : 1 – d 2–e 3–b 4–a 5–c
V. Answer briefly
1. Mention the four articles of faith laid down by Maharishi Debendranath Tagore?
 In the beginning there was nothing. The one Supreme Being alone existed who created
the Universe. (PTA - 4)
 He alone is the God of Truth, Infinite Wisdom, Goodness, and Power, eternal,
omnipresent, the one without second.
 Our salvation depends on belief in him and in his worship in this world and the next.
 Belief consists in loving him and doing his will.
2. Discuss Mahadev Govind Ranade’s contribution to social reforms.
 Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade devoted himself to activities such as inter-caste dining,
inter-caste marriage, widow remarriage and improvement of women and depressed
classes.
 M.G. Ranade was the founder of the Widow Marriage Association, the Poona Sarvajanik
Sabha and the Deccan Education Society.
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3. Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.

 Ramalinga emphasised the bonds of responsibility and compassion between living beings.
 He expressed the view that ‘those who lack compassion for suffering beings are
hardhearted, their wisdom clouded’.
 Ramalinga Adigal showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants
is called ‘jeevakarunya’
 Ramalinga also established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at
Vadalur in the wake of a terrible famine in south India in 1866.
4. List the social evils eradicated by Brahmo Samaj. (PTA - 6)
 prevailing customs of sati  child marriage
 polygamy  subjugation of women
5. Highlight the work done by Jyotiba Phule for the welfare of the poor and the
marginalized.
 Jyotiba Govindrao Phule opened the first school for “untouchables” in 1852 in Poona.
 He launched the Satyashodak Samaj in 1870 to stir the non-Brahman masses to self-
respect and ambition.
 Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage.
 Jyotiba and his wife Savitribai Phule devoted their lives for the uplift of the depressed
classes and women.
 Jotiba opened orphanages and homes for widows.
 His work, Gulamgiri menas Slavery is an important text that summarized many of his
radical ideas.
6. What was the contribution of Anni Besant to India’s freedom struggle ? (SEP - 2021)
 In India the movement became further popular with the election of Annie Besant as its
president after the death of Olcott.
 She played a role in Indian nationalist politics, and formed the Home Rule League
demanding home rule to India on the lines of Ireland.
 Annie Besant spread Theosophical ideas through her newspapers called New India and
Commonweal.
7. What was the impact of Swami Vivekananda’s activist ideology? (SEP – 2020)
 He emphasized a cultural nationalism and made a call to Indian youth to regenerate Hindu society.
 His ideas bred a sense of self-confidence among Indians who felt inferior in relation to the
materialist achievements of the West.
 Vivekananda’s activist ideology rekindled the desire for political change among many
western-education young Bengalis.
 Many of the youths who were involved in the militant nationalist struggle during the
Swadeshi movement following the Partition of Bengal were inspired by Vivekananda.
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1. Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of 19th century. (PTA - 5)
a) Introduction of English Education
 English education, introduced with the object of producing clerks, also produced a new
English-educated middle class.
 This class came under the influence of western ideas and thoughts.
b) Cultural harmony
 Though small in number, the educated middle class began to take a lead in political as
well as in reform movements.
 The Indian reformers were, however, quite hesitant to subject their old notions and habits
to critical scrutiny.
 Instead they attempted to harmonize both Indian and Western cultures.
c) Impact of higher education
The impact of higher education began to take root in India by the reformers who worked
under the British rule.
d) Controlling superstitious beliefs
Their ideas and their actions helped to mitigate social evils such as sati, female
infanticide, and child marriage and various superstitious beliefs.
2. Evaluate the contributions of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and Swami Vivekananda to
regenerate Indian society. (PTA - 3)
a) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
 Jiva is Siva
 In Ramakrishna’s view, all religions contain the universal elements which, if
practised, would lead to salvation.
 He said, “Jiva is Siva” (all living beings are God).
 Also he said Why then talk of showing mercy to them? Not mercy, but service,
service for man, must be regarded as God.’
 Disciples’ religious community
 Ramakrishna’s primary achievement was his ability to attract educated youth who
were dissatisfied with the rational orientation of religious reform organizations.
 After his death in 1886, his disciples organised themselves as a religious community
and undertook the task of making his life and teaching known in India and abroad.
b) Contribution of Swami Vivekananda
 Establishment of Ramakrishna Mission
 The chief spirit behind this task was Vivekananda. Following the organizational
structure of Christian missionaries, Vivekananda established the Ramakrishna Mission.
 It did not restrict itself to religious activities but was actively involved in social causes
such as education, health care and relief in times of calamities.
 Made a call to Indian youth
 He emphasized a cultural nationalism and made a call to Indian youth to regenerate
Hindu society.
 His ideas bred a sense of self-confidence among Indians who felt inferior in relation
to the materialist achievements of the West.
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34  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10 Social Scienceth
 World Congress Religions in Chicago

 He became famous for his addresses on Hinduism at the 1893 World Congress of
Religions in Chicago.
 Rekindled the political changes to Youth
 Despite his fame, he was condemned by orthodox Hindus for suggesting that the
lower castes should be allowed to engage in the Hindu rituals from which they were
traditionally excluded.
 Vivekananda’s activist ideology rekindled the desire for political change among
many western-education young Bengalis.
3. Write an essay on the role played by the 19th century reformers towards the cause
of Women. (SEP - 2021, PTA - 2)
a) Rammohan Roy – Abolition of Sati
 His campaign played a key role in forcing the Governor-General William Bentinck’s
legislation abolishing sati in 1829.
 He advocated the rights of widows to remarry.
 He wanted polygamy to end.
 He strongly advocated education for women.
 Rammohan Roy deeply concerned with the prevailing customs of sati, child
marriage, and polygamy.
b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar - Schools for Women
 He played a leading role in promoting education of girls and helped them in setting
up a number of schools.
 He dedicated his whole life for the betterment of the child widows of the Hindu society.
 The movement led by Vidyasagar, resulted in the Widows’ Remarriage Reform Act of 1856.
 This Act was intended to improve the lot of child widows and save them from
perpetual widowhood.
c) Mahadev Govind Ranade – Widow Marriage Association
 He devoted themselves to activities such as inter-caste dining, inter-caste marriage,
widow remarriage and improvement of women and depressed classes.
 Ranade was the founder of the Widow Marriage Association in 1861.
d) Swami Dayanand Saraswathi – Prohibition of child marriage
 He declared the practices such as child marriage, the prohibition of widow remarriage,
and the alleged polluting effects of foreign travel had no scriptural sanction.
e) Jyotiba Phule and Savitri Bai – Homes for widows
 Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage, which was
prohibited particularly among high-caste Hindus.
 Jyotiba and his wife Savitribai Phule devoted their lives for the uplift of the depressed
classes and women. Jyotiba opened orphanages and homes for widows.
f) Baba Ram Singh - Prohibited the dowry system
 Baba Ram Singh considered both men and women equal and accepted widow remarriage.
 He prohibited the dowry system and child marriage.
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4. Comment on the life and teachings of Ramalinga Swamigal. (SEP – 2020)
Ramalinga Adigal (1823–1874)
 Ramalinga adigal was Popularly known as Vallalar, was born in Marudhur, a village
near Chidambaram.
 After his father’s death, his family moved to his brother’s house at Chennai. Despite
having no formal education he gained immense scholarship.
 Ramalinga emphasised the bonds of responsibility and compassion between living
beings. He expressed the view that ‘those who lack compassion for suffering beings
are hard-hearted, their wisdom clouded’.
 He showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants called it as
jeevakarunya.
 He established the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam in 1865 and it was renamed
“Samarasa Suddha Sanmarga Satya Sanga” which means “Society for Pure Truth in
Universal self-hood”.
5. Mention the contributions of Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar to the social reforms.(PTA- 1)
a) Hindu scriptures were progressive
 Another outstanding reformer in Bengal was Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
 Vidyasagar argued that the Hindu scriptures were progressive.
 He provided evidence from scriptures that there was no sanction for burning of
widows or for the prohibition on the remarriage of widows.
b) Pioneer of modern Bengali prose
He wrote a number of polemical tracts, and was the pioneer of modern Bengali prose.
c) Schools for Women
 He played a leading role in promoting education of girls and helped them in setting
up a number of schools.
 He dedicated his whole life for the betterment of the child widows of the Hindu society.
d) Widows’ Remarriage Reform Act of 1856
 The movement led by Vidyasagar, resulted in the widows’ Remarriage Reform Act of 1856.
 This Act was intended to improve the lot of child widows and save them from
perpetual widowhood.
e) First age of consent Act – 1860
 It was also to the credit of Vidyasagar that the first age of consent Act was
enacted in 1860.
 The age for marriage was fixed as ten years. It was raised to twelve and thirteen years
in 1891 and 1925 respectively.
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6. EARLY REVOLTS AGAINST BRITISH

RULE IN TAMIL NADU
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial
aggrandizement?
a) Marudhu brothers b) Puli Thevar
c) Velunachiyar d) Veerapandya Kattabomman
2. Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
a) Velunachiyar b) Kattabomman c) Puli Thevar d) Oomai thurai
3. Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
a) Kayathar b) Nagalapuram c) Virupachi d) Panchalamkurichi
4. Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?
a) Marudhu brothers b) Puli Thevar
c) Veerapandya Kattabomman d) Gopala Nayak
5. When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?
a) 24 May 1805 b) 10 July 1805 c) 10 July 1806 d) 10 September 1806
6. Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore fort?
a) Col. Fancourt b) Major Armstrong c) Sir John Cradock d) Colonel Agnew
7. Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt? (PTA – 4)
a) Calcutta b) Mumbai c) Delhi d) Mysore
1. The Palayakkarars system was put in place in Tamil Nadu by Viswanatha Nayaka.
2. Velunachiyar and her daughter were under the protection of Gopala Nayakar for eight years.
3. Bennerman deputed Ramalinganar to convey his message, asking Kattabomman to
surrender.
4. Kattabomman was hanged to death at Kayathar.
5. The Rebellion of Marudhu Brothers was categorized in the British records as the Second
Palayakarar War.
6. Fateh Hyder was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort. (PTA - 3)
1. i) The Palayakkarars system was in practice in the Kakatiya Kingdom. (PTA – 2)
ii) Puli Thevar recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764 after the death of Khan Sahib.
iii) Yusuf Khan who was negotiating with the Palayakkarars, without informing the Company
administration was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764.
iv) Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Kattabomman.
a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct
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2. i) Under Colonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mahfuzkhan’s army.
ii) After Muthu Vadugar’s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted
Velunachiyar in restoring the throne to her.
iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League. (PTA – 5)
iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv ) are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct
3. Assertion (A): Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious conflict
with the Marathas.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
1. Theerthagiri (PTA – 2) - a) Vellore Revolt
2. Gopala Nayak - b) Ramalinganar
3. Bannerman - c) Dindigul
4. Subedar Sheik Adam - d) Vellore Fort
5. Col. Fancourt - e) Odanilai
Answer : 1 – e 2–c 3–b 4–a 5–d
V. Answer briefly
1. What were the duties of the Palayakkarars? (SEP - 2021)
 The Palayakkarars were free to collect revenue
 Administer the territory
 Settle disputes and maintain law and order
 Their police duties were known as Padikaval or Arasu Kaval.
2. Identify the Palayams based on the division of east and west. (PTA - 5)
 Eastern Palayams : Sattur, Nagalapuram, Ettayapuram, and Panchalamkurichi
 Western palayams : Uthumalai, Thalavankottai, Naduvakurichi, Singampatti, Seithur.
3. What was the significance of the Battle of Kalakadu? (PTA - 4)
 The Battle of Kalakadu took place between Puli Thevar and Mahfuzkhan.
 Besides the1000 sepoys of the Company, Mahfuzkhan received 600 more sent by the
Nawab.
 Before Mahfuzkhan could station his troops near Kalakadu, 2000 soldiers from
Travancore joined the forces of Puli Thevar.
 In the battle at Kalakadu, Mahfuzkhan's troops were routed.
4. What was the bone of contention between the Company and Kattabomman?
 The Company had thus gained the right to collect taxes from Panchalamkurichi.
 The Company appointed its Collectors to collect taxes from all the palayams.
 The Collectors humiliated the palayakkarars and adopted force to collect the taxes.
 This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.
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38  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10 Social Science

th
5. Highlight the essence of the Tiruchirappalli Procalamation of 1801.

 In June 1801 Marudhu Pandyars issued a proclamation of Independence which is
called Tiruchirappalli Proclamation.
 The Proclamation of 1801 was an early call to the Indians to unite against the British,
cutting across region, caste, creed and religion.
 Many palayakkars of Tamil country rallied together to fight against the English.
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
6. Point out the importance of the Treaty of 1801. (PTA - 2)
 Under the terms of the Carnatic Treaty of 31 July 1801, the British assumed direct
control over Tamilagam.
 The Palayakarar system came to an end with the demolition of all forts and disbandment
of their army.
VI. Answer the following in detail

1. Attempt an essay of the heroic fight Veerapandya Kattabomman conducted against the
East India Company. (PTA - 6)
a) Veerapandya Kattabomman became the Palayakkarar
Veerapandya Kattabomman became the Palayakkarar of Panchalamkurichi at the age of thirty.
b) Conflicts between Veerapandya Kattabomman and British
 The Company had thus gained the right to collect taxes from Panchalamkurichi.
 The Company appointed its Collectors to collect taxes from all the palayams.
 The Collectors humiliated the palayakkarars and adopted force to collect the taxes.
 This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.
c) Confrontation with Jackson
 The land revenue arrear from Kattabomman was 3310 pagodas in 1798.
 At the gate of the Ramanathapuram fort, there was a clash, in which some people
including Lieutenant Clarke were killed.
d) Appearance before Madras Council
 Kattabomman appeared before the Committee that sat on 15 December 1798 and
reported on what transpired in Ramanathapuram.
 The Committee found Kattabomman was not guilty.
 Jackson was dismissed from service.
e) Kattabomman and the Confederacy of Palayakkarars
 Marudhu Pandiyar of Sivagangai formed the South Indian Confederacy of rebels
against the British, with the neighbouring palayakkars.
 Kattabomman was interested in this confederacy.
 Collector Lushington prevented Kattabomman from meeting the Marudhu Brothers.
 Marudhu Brothers and Kattabomman jointly decided on a confrontation with the English.
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f) The Siege of Panchalamkurichi
 On 1 September 1799, an ultimatum was served on Kattabomman to surrender.
 Kattabomman’s “evasive reply” prompted Bannerman to attack his fort.
 Bannerman moved his entire army to Panchalamkurichi on 5 September.
 Bannerman deputed Ramalinganar to convey a message asking Kattabomman to
surrender. But Kattabomman refused.
g) Execution of Kattabomman
 Kattabomman escaped to Pudukottai.
 Betrayed by the rajas of Ettayapuram and Pudukottai Kattabomman was finally captured.
 During the trial Kattabomman bravely admitted all the charges levelled against him.
 Kattabomman was hanged from a tamarind tree in the old fort of Kayathar.
2. Highlight the tragic fall of Sivagangai and its outcome. (PTA - 3)
 Fail of Palayakarar’s confederacy
 In April 1800 they meet at Virupachi and decided to organise an uprising against the
Company.
 The uprising, which broke out in Coimbatore in June 1800, soon spread to
Ramanathapuram and Madurai.
 The Company got wind of it and the Palayakars of Coimbatore, Sathyamangalam and
Tarapuram were caught and hanged.
 Divide and rule policy British
 The Proclamation of 1801 was an early call to the Indians to unite against the British,
cutting across region, caste, creed and religion.
 Many palayakkars of Tamil country rallied together to fight against the English.
 Divide and rule policy followed by the English spilt the forces of the palayakkarars soon.
 Superior military strength of British
 The rebels went to Piranmalai and Kalayarkoil.
 They were again defeated by the forces of the English.
 In the end the superior military strength and the able commanders of the English
Company prevailed.
 outcomes
 Annexation of Sivagangai
The rebellion failed and Sivagangai was annexed in 1801.
 Execution of Marudhu Brothers
The Marudhu brothers were executed in the Fort of Tirupathur near Ramanathapuram
on 24 October 1801.
 Oomathurai and Sevathaiah beheaded
Oomathurai and Sevathaiah were captured and beheaded at Panchalamkurichi on 16
November 1801.
 Rebels were exiled
 Seventy-three rebels were exiled to Penang in Malaya.
 Though the palayakkarars fell to the English, their exploits and sacrifices inspired
later generations.
 South Indian Rebellion
Thus the rebellion of Marudhu brothers, which is called South Indian Rebellion, is
a landmark event in the history of Tamil Nadu.
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3. Account for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806. (SEP – 2021)

Cause of Vellore revolt:
The dispossessed little kings and feudal chieftains continued to deliberate on the future course
of action against the Company Government. The outcome was the Vellore Revolt of 1806.
a) Low salary for Indian sepoys
The sepoys in the British Indian army nursed a strong sense of resentment over low salary
and poor prospects of promotion and poor prospects of promotion.
b) Scant respect for the social and religious sentiments
 The English army officers’ scant respect for the social and religious sentiments of the
Indian sepoys also angered them.
c) Land tenures causing unsettled conditions
With new experiments in land tenures causing unsettled conditions and famine breaking
out in 1805 many of the sepoys’ families were in dire economic straits.
d) Opposition to caste identities
 According to the new regulations, the Indian soldiers were asked not to wear caste
marks or earrings when in uniform.
e) Introduction of new turban
 The most objectionable addition was the leather cockade made of animal skin.
 The sepoys gave enough forewarning by refusing to wear the new turban.
 Yet the Company administration did not take heed.
 Colonel Fancourt, Colonel MeKerras were killed by Indian sepoys.
4. What were the causes and consequences of Vellore revolt? (PTA - 1)
 Causes of Vellore revolt
 The sepoys in the British Indian army nursed a strong sense of resentment over low
salary and poor prospects of promotion
 The trigger for the revolt came in the form of a new military regulation notified by the
Commander-in-Chief Sir John Cradock.
 According to the new regulations, the Indian soldiers were asked not to wear caste
marks or ear rings when in uniform.
 They were to be cleanly shaven on the chin and maintain uniformity about how their
moustache looked.
 The most objectionable addition was the leather cockade made of animal skin. The
sepoys gave enough forewarning by refusing to wear the new turban.
 Yet the Company administration did not take heed.
 Consequences of Revolt
 Six of the rebels convicted by the Court of Enquiry were blown from the guns; five
were shot dead; eight hanged.
 Tipu’s sons were ordered to be sent to Calcutta.
 The officers and men engaged in the suppression of revolt were rewarded with prize money.
 and promotion. Col. Gillespie was given 7,000 pagodas.
 However, the commander–in- chief Sir John Cradock, the Adjutant General Agnew
and Governor William Bentinck were held responsible for the revolt, removed from
their office, and recalled to England.
 The military regulations were treated as withdrawn.
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5. Write about first female queen to resist the British colonial power in India. / Elaborate
about Velunachiar. (SEP – 2020)
 Velunachiyar
 Born in 1730 to the Raja Sellamuthu Sethupathy of Ramanathapuram, Velunachiyar
was the only daughter of this royal family.
 The king had no male heir. The royal family brought up the princess Velunachiyar,
training her in martial arts like valari, stick fighting and to wield weapons.
 She was also adept in horse riding and archery, apart from her proficiency in English,
French and Urdu.
 Muthu Vadugar
 At the age of 16, Velunachiyar was married to Muthu Vadugar, the Raja of Sivagangai.
 In the ensuing battle, Muthu Vadugar was killed.
 Velunachiyar escaped with her daughter and lived under the protection of Gopala Nayakar.
 Velunachiyar army
 During her period in hiding, Velunachiyar organised an army and succeeded in
securing an alliance with not only Gopala Nayakar but Hyder Ali as well.
 Velunachiyar asking Sultan Hyder Ali for 5000 infantry and 5000 cavalry to defeat the
English.
 Impressed by her courage, Hyder Ali ordered his Commandant Syed in Dindigul fort
to provide the required military assistance.
 Sivagangai recaptured by Velunachiyar
 Velunachiyar employed agents for gathering intelligence to find where the British had
stored their ammunition.
 With military assistance from Gopala Nayakar and Hyder Ali she recaptured Sivagangai.
 She was crowned as Queen with the help of Marudhu brothers.
 She was the first female ruler or queen to resist the British colonial power in India.
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7. ANTI-COLONIAL MOVEMENTS AND THE

BIRTH OF NATIONALISM
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
a) Wahhabi Rebellion b) Farazi Movement
c) Tribal uprising d) Kol Revolt
2. Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
a) Titu Mir b) Sidhu c) Dudu Mian d) Shariatullah
3. Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under
Permanent Settlement?
a) Santhals b) Titu Mir c) Munda d) Kol
4. Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
a) Dadabhai Naoroji b) Justice Govind Ranade
c) Bipin Chandra pal d) Romesh Chandra
5. When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
a) 19 June 1905 b) 18 July 1906 c) 19 August 1907 d) 16 October 1905
6. What was the context in which the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was passed? (SEP – 2020)
a) Kol Revolt b) Indigo Revolt c) Munda Rebellion d) Deccan Riots
7. Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
a) Annie Basant b) Bipin Chandra Pal
c) Lala Lajpat Rai d) Tilak
8. Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation through his play
Nil darpan?
a) Dina Bandhu Mitra b) Romesh Chandra Dutt
c) Dadabhai Naoroji d) Birsa Munda
1. Wahhabi rebellion was an anti–imperial and anti-landlord movement which originated in
and around 1827.
2. The major tribal revolt which took place in Chotanagpur region was Kol revolt. (PTA – 6)
3. The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, restricted the entry of non-tribal people into the tribal land.
4. Chota Nagpur Act was passed in the year 1908.
5. W.C. Bannerjee was elected the president of Indian National Congress in the year 1885.
1. (i) The Company received E 22.5 million from Mir Jafar and invested it to propel the
industrial revolution in Britain.
(ii) Kols organized an insurrection in 1831-1832, which was directed against government
officers and moneylenders.
(iii) In 1855, two Santhal brothers, Sidhu and Kanu, led the Santhal Rebellion.
(iv) In 1879, an Act was passed to regulate the territories occupied by the Santhals.
a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct
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2. (i) One of the most significant contributions of the early Indian Nationalists was the
formulation of an economic critique of colonialism.
(ii) The early Congress leaders stated that the religious exploitation in India was the primary
reason for the growing poverty.
(iii) One of the goals of the moderate Congress leaders was to achieve Swaraj or self-rule.
(iv) The objective of Partition of Bengal was to curtail the Bengali influence and weaken the
nationalist movement.
a) (i) and (iii) are correct b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
3. Assersion (A): Under colonial rule, for the first time in Indian history, government claimed a
direct proprietary right over forests. (PTA – 3)
Reason (R) : Planters used intimidation and violence to compel farmers to grow indigo.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
4. Assersion (A) : The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R) : The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong (SEP- 2021, MDL - 19, PTA – 1)
b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
1. Wahhabi Rebellion (MDL-19) - a) Lucknow
2. Munda Rebellion - b) Peshwa Baji Rao II
3. Begum Hazarat Mahal - c) Titu Mir
4. Kunwar Singh - d) Ranchi
5. Nana Sahib - e) Bihar
Answer : 1 – c 2–d 3–a 4–e 5–b
V. Answer the following questions briefly
1. How are the peasant uprisings in British India classified? (SEP – 2020, PTA – 6)
 Restorative rebellions – to attempts to restore old order and old social relations.
 Religious Movements – religious leaders to liberation of the local populace
 Social Banditry – the people as heroes of their cause.
 Mass Insurrection – usually leaderless and spontaneous uprising.
2. Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse. (SEP - 2021)
 Satara  Sambalpur  Parts of the Punjab  Jhansi  Nagpur
3. What do you mean by drain of wealth? (PTA - 3)
 One of the most significant contributions of early Indian nationalists was the formulation
of an economic critique of colonialism.
 So the colonial economy was a continuous transfer of resources from India to Britain
without any favourable returns back to India. This is called "the drain of wealth".
4. Highlight the objectives of Home Rule Movement. (MDL - 19)
 To attain self-government within the British Empire by using constitutional means.
 To obtain the status of dominion, a political position accorded later to Australia, Canada,
South Africa, and New Zealand.
 To use non-violent constitutional methods to achieve their goals.
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5. Summarise the essence of Lucknow Pact.

 The Lucknow Pact was signed in 1916.
 The subsequent reunion of moderate and the militant nationalists opened the possibility of
fresh talks with the Muslims.
 Under the Lucknow Pact, the Congress and the Muslim League agreed that there should
be self-government in India.
 In return, the Congress leadership accepted the concept of separate electorate for Muslims.
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
6. Discuss the causes and consequences of the Revolt of 1857. (PTA - 4)
 The British Parliament adopted the Indian Government Act, in November 1858.
 India was pronounced as one of the many crown colonies to be directly governed by the Parliament.
 The responsibility was given to a member of the cabinet, designated as the Secretary of
State for India.
 The transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown also meant that
there was a regular parliamentary review of Indian affairs.
1. Discuss the causes of the Revolt of 1857. (PTA - 4)
a) Annexation Policy of British India
In the 1840s and 1850s, more territories were annexed through two major policies:
 The Doctrine of Paramountcy
 British claimed themselves as paramount, exercising supreme authority.
 New territories were annexed on the grounds that the native rulers were corrupt and inept.
 The Doctrine of Lapse
 If a native ruler failed to produce a biological male heir to the throne, the territory
was to ‘lapse’ into British India upon the death of the ruler.
 Satara, Sambalpur, parts of the Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur were annexed by the
British through the Doctrine of Lapse.
b) Insensitivity to Indian Cultural Sentiments
 Prohibition of religious identities
 In 1806 the sepoys at Vellore mutinied against the new dress code, which prohibited Indians
from wearing religious marks on their foreheads and having whiskers on their chin.
 New turbans
 They are proposing to replace their turbans with a round hat. It was feared that the
dress code was part of their effort to convert soldiers to Christianity.
 Sea Voyage
 In 1824, the sepoys at Barrackpur near Calcutta refused to go to Burma by sea, since
crossing the sea meant the loss of their caste.
 Salary and promotion
 The sepoys were also upset with discrimination in salary and promotion.
 Indian sepoys were paid much less than their European counterparts.
 They felt humiliated and racially abused by their seniors.
c) Immediate cause (new Enfield rifle)
 The precursor to the revolt was the circulation of rumors about the cartridges of the
new Enfield rifle.
 There was strong suspicion that the new cartridges had been greased with cow and pig fat.
 On 29 March a sepoy named Mangal Pandey assaulted his European officer.
 Mangal Pandey along with others were court-martialled and hanged.
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2. How did the people of Bengal respond to the Partition of Bengal (1905)?
a) Objectives of the Partition of Bengal
 In 1905, Lord Curzon divided Bengal into two parts.
 The partition led to widespread protests all across India, starting a new phase of the
Indian national movement.
 The idea of partition was devised to suppress the political activities against the British
rule in Bengal by creating a Hindu-Muslim divide.
b) Response of Bengal people
 Instead of dividing the Bengali people along the religious line partition united them.
 The growth of regional language newspapers played a role in building a sense of proud
Bengali identity.
 The boycott of British goods was one such method.
 Bengal was officially partitioned on 16th October 1905, and the day was declared as a
day of mourning.
 Thousands of people took bath in the Ganga and marched on the streets of Calcutta
singing Vande Mataram.
c) Boycott and Swadeshi Movement in Bengal
Boycott and swadeshi were always interlinked to each other and part of the wider plan to
make India self-sufficient.
d) Four major trends during the Swadeshi Movement
 The Moderate Trend  Constructive Swadeshi
 Militant Nationalism  Revolutionary terrorism
3. What are the causes of failure 1857 revolt? (SEP – 2020, PTA – 5)
 There is hardly any evidence to prove that the rebellion of 1857 was organised and
planned. It was spontaneous.
 Few Indian states, there was a general lack of enthusiasm among the Indian princes to
participate in the rebellion.
 The Indian princes and zamindars either remained loyal or were fearful of British power.
 Many a time they acted as a fifth column.
 Those involved in the rebellion were left with either little or no sources of arms and ammunition.
 The emerging English-educated middle class too did not support the rebellion.
 One important reason for the failure of the rebellion was the absence of a central authority.
 There was no common agenda that united the individuals and the aspirations of the Indian
princes and the various other feudal elements fighting against the British.
 In the end, the rebellion was brutally suppressed by the British army.
 The rebel leaders were defeated due to the lack of weapons, organisation, discipline, and
betrayal by their aides.
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th
4. Attempt a narrative account of how Tilak and Annie Besant by launching Home Rule
Movement sustained the Indian freedom struggle after 1916? (PTA - 1)
a) Leaders of Home rule movement
 Home rule movement started in 1916.
 The Indian national movement was revived and also radicalised during the Home Rule
Movement led by Lokamanya Tilak and Annie Besant.
b) Background of Home Rule League
 World War I and Indian’s participation in it was the background for the Home Rule League.
 When Britain declared war against Germany in 1914, the moderate and liberal leadership
extended their support to the British cause.
 But the British administration remained non-committal to such goals.
 What was seen as a British betrayal to the Indian cause of self-government led to a fresh
call for a mass movement to pressurise the British government.
c) Objectives of the Home Rule Movement
 To attain self-government within the British Empire by using constitutional means.
 To obtain the status of dominion, a political position accorded later to Australia,
 Canada, South Africa, and New Zealand.
 To use non-violent constitutional methods to achieve their goals.
d) Lucknow Pact (1916)
 Lucknow pact came into force in 1916.
 The Home Rule Movement and the subsequent reunion of moderate and the militant
nationalists opened the possibility of fresh talks with the Muslims.
 Under the Lucknow Pact, the Congress and the Muslim League agreed that there should
be self-government in India as soon as possible.
 In return, the Congress leadership accepted the concept of separate electorate for Muslims.
5. Write about the early demands of the Indian National Congress. (PTA - 2)
 Formation of the Indian National Congress
 The formation of the Indian National Congress in 1885 was intended to establish an all
India organisation.
 A.O. Hume lent his services to facilitate the formation of the Congress.
 Womash Chandra Banarjee was the first President (1885) Indian National Congress.
 Main objective of Indian National Congress
The early objectives were to develop and consolidate sentiments of national unity; but
also professed loyalty to Britain.
 Demands of Indian National Congress
 Creation of legislative councils at provincial and central level
 Increasing the number of elected members in the legislative council.
 Separating judicial and executive functions
 Reducing military expenditure and reduction of Home Charges
 Extension of trial by jury
 Holding civil services exams in India as well as in England. Police reforms
 Reconsideration of forest laws
 Promotion of Indian industries and an end to unfair tariffs and excise duties.
VII. Map Work (Refer page no : 155 in the guide)
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8. NATIONALISM: GANDHIAN PHASE
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. Who was arrested during the anti-Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?
a) Motilal Nehru b) Saifuddin Kitchlew
c) Mohamed Ali d) Raj Kumar Shukla
2. In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
a) Bombay b) Madras c) Calcutta d) Nagpur
3. Which among the following was declared as ‘Independence Day’?
a) 26th January 1930 b) 26th December 1929
c) 16th June 1946 d) 15th January 1947
4. When was the first Forest Act enacted? (PTA – 1)
a) 1858 b) 1911 c) 1865 d) 1936
5. On 8 January 1933 which day was observed?
a) Temple Entry Day b) Day of Deliverance
c) Direct Action Day d) Independence Day
6. Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy? (PTA – 5)
a) 1858 Act b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
c) Government of India Act, 1919 d) Government of India Act, 1935
7. The Phoenix Settlement was established by…………. (PTA – 2)
a) Gandhiji b) John Ruskin c) Tolstoy d) Thoreau
8. The Congress boycotted the Simon Commission because (PTA – 6)
(1) it was an all-white commission (2) it had no single Indian member
(3) it was a statutory commission (4) it was constituted to review the Act of 1919
a) 1 and 2 b) 3 and 4 c) I and 3 d) 2 and 4
1. Gandhi regarded Gopala Krishna Gokhale as his political guru.
2. Khilafat Movement was led by Ali brothers.
3. Government of India Act 1919 introduced Dyarchy in the provinces.
4. The Civil Disobedience Movement in North West Frontier Province was led by Khan Abdul
Ghaffar Khan.
5. Ramsay Macdonald announced Communal Award which provided separate electorates to
the minorities and the depressed classes.
6. Usha Mehta established Congress Radio underground during the Quit India Movement.
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1. (i) The Communist Party of India was founded in Tashkent in 1920.
(ii) M. Singaravelar was tried in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case.
(iii) The Congress Socialist Party was formed by Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra
Dev and Mino Masani.
(iv) The Socialists did not participate in the Quit India Movement.
c) (iv) is correct d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
2. Assertion : The Congress attended the First Round Table Conference.
Reason : Gandhi-Irwin Pact enabled the Congress to attend the Second Round Table Conference.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) A is wrong but R is correct
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
3. Assertion : The Congress Ministries resigned in 1939. (SEP – 2020, PTA – 4)
Reason : The Colonial government of India entered the war without consulting the elected
Congress ministries.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation.
b) A is correct but R is wrong.
c) Both A and R are wrong.
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation.
1. Rowlatt Act - a) Surrender of titles
2. Non Cooperation Movement - b) Dyarchy
3. Government of India Act, 1919 - c) M.N. Roy
4. Communist Party of India - d) Direct Action Day
5. 16th August 1946 - e) Black Act
Answer : 1 – e 2–a 3–b 4–c 5–d
V. Answer the following briefly
1. Describe the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. (PTA - 4)
 On 13 April 1919 a public meeting was arranged at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. The
villagers had assembled there in thousands.
 General Reginald Dyer, on hearing of the assemblage, surrounded the place with his troops
and an armoured vehicle.
 The only entrance to the park that was surrounded on all sides by high walls was blocked,
and firing took place without any warning.
 According to official report 379 were killed and more than thousand injured. This incident
was called ‘Jallianwala Bagh Massacre’
2. Write a note on the Khilafat Movement.
 After First World War Caliph of Turkey, who was considered the head of Muslims of the
world, was given a harsh treatment.
 A movement was started his support called the Khilafat Movement.
 Led by the Ali brothers, Maulana Mohamed Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali.
 Gandhi supported the movement and saw in it an opportunity to unite Hindus and
Muslims.
 He presided over the All India Khilafat Conference held at Delhi in November 1919.
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3. Why did Gandhi withdraw the Non Cooperation Movement?
 On 5 February 1922 a procession of the nationalists in Chauri Chaura, a village near
Gorakhpur in present-day Uttar Pradesh provoked by the police turned violent.
 The police finding themselves outnumbered shut themselves inside the police station.
 The mob burnt the police station 22 policemen lost their lives.
 So, Gandhi immediately withdrew the Non Cooperation movement.
4. Why was Simon Commission boycotted?
 Simon Commission was an all-white commission with no Indian member.
 Indians were angered that they had been denied the right to decide their own constitution.
 All sections of India including the Congress and the Muslim League decided to boycott
the commission.
 Wherever the Commission went there were protests, and black flag marches with the
slogan ‘Go Back Simon’.
5. What is Poorna Swaraj? (PTA - 1)
 Poorna Swaraj means complete independence.
 Some congress men were not satisfied with dominion status and wanted to demand
complete independence.
 In the Congress session held in Lahore in December 1929 with Jawaharlal Nehru as the
President, Poorna Swaraj was declared as the goal.
6. Write a note on Bhagat Singh.
 Influenced by socialist ideas Bhagat Singh renamed it as Hindustan Socialist Republican
Association in 1928.
 Bhagat Singh along with B.K. Dutt threw a smoke bomb inside the Central Legislative
Assembly in 1929.
 They threw pamphlets and shouted ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ and ‘Long Live the Proletariat’.
 He along with Rajguru was arrested and sentenced to death.
 Bhagat Singh’s daring and courage fired the imagination of the youth across India, and he
became popular across India.
7. What are the terms of the Poona Pact?
 The principle of separate electorates was abandoned.
 Instead, the principle of joint electorate was accepted with reservation of seats for the
depressed classes.
 Reserved seats for the depressed classes were increased from 71 to 148.
 In the Central Legislature 18 percent of the seats were reserved.
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
8. What do you know about the Champaran Satyagraha? (PTA - 2)
 In Champaran in Bihar the tinkathia system was practiced.
 Under this exploitative system the peasants were forced by the European planters to
cultivate indigo on three-twentieths of their land holdings.
 Rajkumar Shukla, an agriculturist from Champaran who suffered hardships of the system,
prevailed on Gandhi to visit Champaran.
 The abolition of the tinkathia system, thereby ending the oppression of the peasants by
the Indigo Planters.
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VI. Answer in detail.
1. Examine the factors that led to the transformation of Gandhi into a mass leader. (PTA - 6)
a) Racial discrimination in South Africa
 Mahatma Gandhi arrived in India in 1915 from South Africa after fighting for the civil
rights of the Indians there for about twenty years.
 Gandhi faced racial discrimination in South Africa Durban railway incident.
 Inspired by Ruskin, Gandhi established the Phoenix Settlement and the Tolstoy Farm.
b) Chambaran Satyagraha
 Champaran satyagraha, Ahmedabad mill strike and the Kheda Satyagraha helped
Gandhi establish himself as a leader of mass struggle.
c) Non-cooperation movement
 Gandhiji launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in September, 1920 in protest of
the Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
d) No-Tax campaign
 Gandhi announced a no-tax campaign in Bardoli in February 1922. These movements
greatly enhanced Gandhi’s reputation as a national leader, especially the peasants.
e) Constructive Programme of Gandhi
 Non-cooperation movement, no-tax campaigns, Civil Disobedience Movement, Quit
India Movement was the biggest mass movement India.
 Communal Award, untouchability, Hindu-Muslim unity Gandhi’s popular unification.
f) Civil disobedience movement
 Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement. The inclusion of abolition of salt
tax was a brilliant tactical decision.
g) Do or Die Call by Gandhi
 The All India Congress Committee that met at Bombay on 8 August 1942 passed the
famous Quit India Resolution demanding an immediate end to British rule in India.
 Gandhi gave a call to do or die. Gandhi said, ‘We shall either free India or die in the
attempt; we shall not live to see the perpetuation of our slavery.”
 Above factors that led to the transformation of Gandhi into a mass leader.
h) Gandhiji – Father of nation
 Gandhi said, ‘We shall either free India or die in the attempt; we shall not live to see
the perpetuation of our slavery.’
 A non-violent mass struggle under Gandhi was to be launched.
 These factors are led to the transformation of Gandhji into a mass leader.
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2. Critically examine the Civil Disobedience Movement as the typical example of Gandhian
movement. (SEP - 2021, PTA - 3)
 Introduction of Civil Disobedience Movement
 In the Congress session held in Lahore in December 1929 with Jawaharlal Nehru as
the President, Poorna Swaraj was declared as the goal.
 26 January 1930 was declared as Independence Day and a pledge was taken all over
the country to attain Poorna Swaraj non-violently through civil disobedience
including non-payment of taxes.
 Gandhiji presented demands to Lord Irwin
 Reduction of expenditure on army and civil services by 50%
 Introduction of total prohibition of liquor
 Release of all political prisoners
 Reduction of land revenue by 50%
 Abolition of salt tax
 Establishment of Civil Disobedience Movement
 When the Viceroy did not respond to the charter of demands, Gandhi launched the
Civil Disobedience Movement.
 The procession became larger and larger when hundreds joined them along the march.
 At the age of 61, Gandhi covered a distance of 241 miles in 24 days to reach Dandi at
sunset on 5 April 1930. The next morning, he took a lump of salt breaking the salt law.
 Effects of Civil Disobedience Movement
 Gandhi was arrested at midnight and sent to Yeravada Jail.
 Jawaharlal Nehru, Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan and other leaders were swiftly arrested.
 Soon other forms of protests such as boycott of foreign cloth, picketing of liquor
shops, non-payment of taxes, breaking of forest laws etc. were adopted.
 It was the biggest mass movement India had ever witnessed.
 Renewal of Civil Disobedience Movement
 On returning to India, Gandhi revived the Civil Disobedience Movement.
 Martial law was enforced and Gandhi was arrested on 4 January 1932.
 Soon all the Congress leaders were arrested too.
 The Congress did not participate in the conference as it had revived the Civil
Disobedience Movement.
3. Discuss the reasons behind the partition of India.
a) Simla Conference
 The Wavell Plan was announced on 14 June 1945. It provided for an interim
government, with an equal number of Hindus and Muslims in the Viceroy’s Executive
Council.
 Jinnah demanded that all the Muslim members should be from the Muslim League and
they should have a veto on all important matters.
b) Cabinet Mission
 In Britain, the Labour Party had won a landslide victory and Clement Atlee became
the Prime Minister.
 He sent a Cabinet Mission comprising Pethick Lawrence, Sir Strafford Cripps and
A.V. Alexander.
 It rejecting the demand for Pakistan, it provided for a Federal government with control
over defence, communications and foreign affairs.
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c) Muslim League
 Difference arose between Congress and Muslim League when the former nominated a
Muslim member.
 Jinnah declared 16 August 1946 as the ‘Direct Action Day’.
 Hartals and demonstrations took place which soon turned into Hindu-Muslim conflict.
d) Mountbatten Plan
 The interim government headed by Jawaharlal Nehru was formed in September 1946.
 In February 1947, Clement Atlee declared that power would be transferred by June 1948.
 Lord Mountbatten was sent as Viceroy to India with the specific task of transfer of power.
 On 3 June 1947 the Mountbatten Plan was announced.
e) Independence and Partition
 The Mountbatten Plan was given effect by the enactment of the Indian Independence
Act on 18 July 1947 by the British Parliament.
 The Act abolished the sovereignty of the British Parliament over India.
 India was partitioned into two dominions – India and Pakistan.
 On 15 August 1947 India won independence.
 The Mountbatten plan India was portioned into two dominions – India and Pakistan.
4. Role played by Subhas Chandra Bose in freedom struggle. (PTA - 5)
 Establishment of Forward Bloc
 In 1939 Subhas Chandra Bose became the President of the Congress by defeating
Pattabhi Sitaramayya, the candidate of Gandhi.
 When Gandhi refused to cooperate, Subhas Chandra Bose resigned his post and
started the Forward Bloc.
 Indian National Army
 In February 1943, he made his way to Japan on a submarine and took control of the
Indian National Army.
 The Indian National Army Captain Lakshmi Sahgal headed it (Azad Hindu Faug)
had earlier been organized by Gen. Mohan Singh with Indian prisoners of war with
the support of Japanese in Malaya and Burma.
 Bose reorganised it into three brigades: Gandhi Brigade, Nehru Brigade and a
women’s brigade named after Rani of Jhansi.
 Dilli Chalo
 He gave the slogan ‘Dilli Chalo’.
 INA was deployed as part of the Japanese forces.
 However, the defeat of Japan stopped the advance of INA.
 The INA exploits and the subsequent trials inspired the Indians.
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5. Describe Gandhiji's early Satyagrahas in India and their outcome. (SEP – 2020)
Gandhiji's early Satyagrahas :
 Gandhi regarded Gopala Krishna Gokhale as his political guru. On his advice Gandhi
travelled the length and breadth of the country to understand the conditions of people.
 Champaran Satyagraha
 In Bihar, ‘tinkathia system’ was practised, where peasants were forced by European
planters to cultivate Indigo on three-twentieths of their land holdings.
 Due to demand of synthetic dyes, indigo became out of market.So the European planters
enhanced the rents and collected illegal dues as a price for the release of cultivators.
 Rajkumar Shukla, an agriculturist from Champaran suffered hardships and
approached Gandhi.
 As Gandhi reached Champaran he was summoned for trail. The Lieutenant
Governor formed the committee with Gandhi which recommended the abolition of
‘tinkathia system’
 The Success of Champaran satyagraha helped Gandhi to establish himself as a
mass leader.
 Jallian Wala Bagh Massacre and General Dyer’s Brutality
 The Rowlatt Act was enacted which provided for excessive police powers, arrest without
warrant and detention without trial. Gandhi called it a ‘Black Act’ .
 The anti-Rowlatt protest was intense in Punjab, especially in Amritsar and Lahore.
Gandhi was arrested and prevented from visiting Punjab.
 On 13 April 1919 a public meeting was arranged at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. The
villagers assembled there in thousands.
 General Reginald Dyer, on hearing of the assemblage, surrounded the place with his
troops and an armoured vehicle. The only entrance to the park was blocked, and firing
took place without any warning which lasted for ten minutes.
 According to official report 379 were killed and more than thousand injured. After the
incident martial law was declared.
 Khilafat Movement
 After the end of First World War, a movement called Khilafat Movement was started and
led by Ali brothers.
 Gandhi supported the movement and presided the All India Khilafat Conference held
at Delhi.
 The Khilafat Committee meeting in Allahabad on June 1920 adopted Gandhi’s non-
violent non- cooperation programme.
VII. Map Work (Refer page no :156, 157 in the guide)
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9. FREEDOM STRUGGLE IN TAMIL NADU
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
a) T.M. Nair b) P. Rangaiah c) G. Subramaniam d) G.A. Natesan
2. Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held? (MDL - 19)
a) Marina b) Mylapore c) Fort St. George d) Thousand Lights
3. Who said “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train de luxe with subjection”?
a) Annie Besant b) M. Veeraraghavachari
c) B.P. Wadia d) G.S. Arundale
4. Who among the following were Swarajists?
a) S. Satyamurti b) Kasturirangar c) P. Subbarayan d) Periyar EVR
5. Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras? (PTA – 4)
a) Kamaraj b) Rajaji c) K. Santhanam d) T. Prakasam
6. Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
a) Erode b) Madras c) Salem d) Madurai
1. T. Muthuswami was appointed the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court. (MDL - 19)
2. Nilakanta Brahmachari started the secret society named Bharata Matha Society.
3. The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students was established by C. Natesanar.
4. Rajaji, formed the first Congress Ministry in Madras.
5. Yakub Hasan was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.
6. Bhashyam hoisted the national flag atop Fort St. George on 26 January 1932.
1. (i) Madras Native Association was founded in 1852.
(ii) Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran was started in 1891.
(iii) The Madras Mahajana Sabha demanded conduct of civil services examinations only in India
(iv) V.S. Srinivasanar was an extremist.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (iii) is correct
c) (iv) is correct d) All are correct
2. (i) EVR did not participate in the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(ii) Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan of the Muslim League.
(iii) Workers did not participate in the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Toddy shops were not picketed in Tamil Nadu.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (i) and (iii) are correct
c) (ii) is correct d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
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1. MNA (PTA – 4) - a) Anti-Hindi agitation
2. EVR Periyar - b) Removal of Neill Statue
3. S.N. Somayajulu - c) Salt Satyagraha
4. Vedaranyam - d) Torture Commission
5. Thalamuthu - e) Vaikom Hero
Answer : 1 – d 2–e 3–b 4–c 5–a

1. List out the contribution of the moderates. (PTA - 4)
 The early nationalists believed in constitutional methods.
 Their activities consisted of conducting hall meetings and deliberating the problems of
the country in English.
 These views were communicated to the government in a language couched in a liberal
discourse in the form of petitions, prayers, memoranda.
 The distinguished Tamil Moderates from Madras: V.S. Srinivasa Sastri, P.S. Sivasamy, V.
Krishnasamy, T.R. Venkatramanar, G.A. Natesan, T.M. Madhava Rao, and S. Subramaniar.
2. Write a note on the Tirunelveli Uprising. (PTA - 5)
 V.O.C joined with Subramania Siva in organising the mill workers in Thoothukudi and
Tirunelveli.
 The two leaders were charged with sedition and sentenced to rigorous imprisonment.
 Initially V.O.C. was given a draconian sentence of two life imprisonments.
 The news of the arrest sparked riots in Tirunelveli leading to the burning down of the
police station, court building and municipal office.
 V.O.C. was treated harshly in prison and was made to pull the heavy oil press.
3. What is the contribution of Annie Besant to India's freedom struggle?
 Annie Besant started Home Rule Movement in 1916.
 She started the newspapers New India and Commonweal to carry forward her agenda.
 Under the Press Act of 1910 Annie Besant was asked to pay hefty amount as security.
 She remarked, “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train deluxe with subjection”.
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
4. Write short note on the martyrdom of Tirupur Kumaran (SEP – 2020)
 On 11 January 1932 a procession carrying national flags and singing patriotic songs was
brutally beaten by the police in Tirupur.
 O.K.S.R. Kumaraswamy, popularly Tirupur Kumaran, fell dead holding the national flag
aloft. He is hailed as ‘Kodikatha Kumaran’.
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1. Discuss the response to Swadeshi Movement in Tamil Nadu. (SEP - 2021)
a) Swadeshi Movement
 The partition of Bengal (1905) led to the Swadeshi Movement and changed the course
of the struggle for freedom.
 The Swadeshi movement made a deep impact in Tamil Nadu. The Congress carried
on a vigorous campaign for boycott of foreign goods.
b) Response in Tamil Nadu
 V.O. Chidambaranar, V. Chakkaraiyar, Subramania Bharati and Surendranathm, Arya
were some of the prominent leaders in Tamilnadu.
 Subaramania Bharati’s patriotic songs were especially important in stirring patriotic emotions.
 The extremist leader Bipin Chandra Pal toured Madras and delivered lectures which
inspired the youth.
 Students and youth participated widely in the Swadeshi Movement.
c) Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company
 One of the most enterprising acts in pursuance of swadeshi was the launching of the
Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company at Thoothukudi by V.O. Chidambaranar.
 He purchased two ships Gallia and Lavo and plied them between Thoothukudi and Colombo.
d) Tirunelveli Uprising
 V.O.C joined with Subramania Siva in organising the mill workers in Thoothukudi
and Tirunelveli.
 The two leaders were charged with sedition and sentenced to rigorous imprisonment.
 The news of the arrest sparked riots in Tirunelveli leading to the burning down of the
police station, court building and municipal office.
e) Revolutionary Activities in Tamil Nadu
 Pondicherry provided a safe haven for the revolutionaries.
 Many of these revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu were introduced and trained in
revolutionary activities at India House in London and in Paris.
 Radical papers such as India, Vijaya and Suryodayam came out of Pondicherry.
f) Annie Besant’s Contribution
 Annie Besant started Home Rule Movement in 1916.
 She started the newspapers New India and Commonweal to carry forward her agenda.
 Under the Press Act of 1910 Annie Besant was asked to pay hefty amount as security.
 She remarked, “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train deluxe with subjection”.
2. Examine the origin and growth of Non-Brahmin Movement in Tamil Nadu.
a) The Madras Dravidian Association
 The non-Brahmins organised themselves into political organisations to protect their interests.
 In 1912 the Madras Dravidian Association was founded.
 C. Natesanar played an active role as its secretary.
 In June 1916 he established the Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students.
b) The South Indian Liberal Federation
 On 20 November 1916 a meeting of about thirty non-Brahmins was held under the leadership
of P. Thyagarayar, Dr. T.M. Nair and C. Natesanar at Victoria Public Hall in Chennai.
 The South Indian Liberal Federation (SILF) was founded to promote the interests of
the non-Brahmins.
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c) Justice Ministry
 The Congress boycotted the elections of 1920.
 The Justice Party won 63 of 98 elected seats in the Legislative Council.
 Subburayalu of the Justice Party became the first chief minister.
 After the 1923 elections, Raja of Panagal of the Justice Party formed the ministry.
3. Describe the role of Tamil Nadu in the Civil Disobedience Movement. (PTA – 6)
a) Salt march to Vedaranyam
 Tamilnadu was in the forefront of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
 The Civil Disobedience Movement was a mass movement with the participation of
students shopkeepers, workers, women, etc.
 In the city of Madras, shops were picked and foreign goods boycotted.
 Rajaji organised and led a salt satyagraha march to Vedaranyam.
 The march started from Tiruchirappalli on 13 April 1930 and reached Vedaranyam in
 Thanjavur district on 28 April.
 A special song was composed for the march by Namakkal V. Ramalinganar with the
lines, “A War is ahead sans sword, sans bloodshed…Join this march.”
 T.S.S. Rajan, Rukmani Lakshmipathi, Sardar Vedarathnam, C. Swaminathar and K.
Santhanam were among the prominent leaders who participated in the Vedaranyam
Salt Satyagraha.
b) Widespread Agitations in Tamil Districts
 The satyagrahis under the leadership of T. Prakasam and K. Nageswara Rao set up a
camp at Udayavanam near Madras.
 However, the police arrested them. It led to a hartal in Madras.
 Volunteers who attempted to offer salt Satyagraha in Rameswaram were arrested.
 Mill workers struck work across the province. Woman participated enthusiastically.
 Rukmani Lakshmipathi was the first woman to pay penalty for violation of salt laws.
 Satyamurti actively picketed shops selling foreign clothes, organised processions and
distributed pamphlets.
 N.R.Subbaraman and K.Kamaraj also played an important role.
c) Martyrdom of Tirupur Kumaran
 On 11 January 1932 a procession carrying national flags and singing patriotic songs
was brutally beaten by the police in Tirupur.
 O.K.S.R. Kumaraswamy, popularly Tirupur Kumaran, fell dead holding the national
flag aloft. He is hailed as ‘Kodikatha Kumaran’.
4. Compile the Rowlatt salt satyagraha events in Tamil Nadu. (PTA - 2)
 On 18 March 1919 Gandhi addressed a meeting on Marina Beach.
 On 6 April 1919 hartal was organised to protest against the “Black Act”.
 Protest demonstrations were held at several parts of Tamil Nadu.
 Processions from many areas of the city converged in the Marina beach where there was
a large gathering.
 They devoted the whole day to fasting and prayer in the Marina beach.
 Madras Satyagraha Sabha was formed.
 Rajaji, Kasturirangar, S. Satyamurty and George Joseph addressed the meeting.
 A separate meeting of workers was addressed by V. Kalyanasundaram (Thiru. V. Ka)
 B.P. Wadia and V.O.C. An important aspect of the movement was that the working
classes, students and women took part in large numbers.
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th
5. What do you know about ‘salt’ march to Vedaranyam? (MDL - 19)

a) The reason for starting the Civil Disobedience Movement
When the Viceroy did not accept the demands put forward by Gandhi, he launched the
Civil Disobedience Movement by setting out on a Salt Satyagraha with a march to Dandi
on 12 March 1930.
b) Impact of the movement
 The Civil Disobedience Movement was a mass movement with the participation of
students, shopkeepers, workers, women, etc.
 Demonstrations, hartals, staging of swadeshi dramas and songs were the order the
day in both rural and urban areas.
c) Contribution of Tamilnadu
 Tamil Nadu was in the forefront of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
 In the city of Madras, shops were picketed and foreign goods boycotted.
d) Vedharanyam salt march - Rajaji
 Rajaji organised and led a salt satyagraha march to Vedaranyam.
 The march started from Tiruchirappalli on 13 April 1930 and reached Vedaranyam in
Thanjavur district on 28 April.
 A special song was composed for the march by Namakkal V. Ramalinganar with the
lines, “A War is ahead sans sword, sans bloodshed…Join this march.” Despite a
brutal crackdown by the police, the marching satyagrahis were provided a warm
reception along the route.
 On reaching Vedaranyam 12 volunteers under the leadership of Rajaji broke the salt
law by picking up salt. Rajaji was arrested.
e) Leaders’ participation
T.S.S. Rajan, Rukmani Lakshmipathi, Sardar Vedarathnam, C. Swaminathar and K. Santhanam
were among the prominent leaders who participated in the Vedaranyam Salt Satyagraha.
6. Write about the role played by VOC during Swadeshi movement. (PTA - 3)
 Contribution of VOC
 The Swadeshi movement made a deep impact in Tamil Nadu.
 The Congress carried on a vigorous campaign for boycott of foreign goods.
 V.O. Chidambaranar, V. Chakkaraiyar, Subramania Bharati and Surendranath Arya
were some of the prominent leaders in Tamilnadu.
 Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company
 One of the most enterprising acts in pursuance of swadeshi was the launching of the
Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company at Thoothukudi by V.O. Chidambaranar.
 He purchased two ships Gallia and Lavo and plied them between Thoothukudi and Colombo.
 However, due to cutthroat competition from the European company and the blatantly
partisan role played by the government, V.O.C’s efforts ended in failure.
 Tirunelveli Uprising
 V.O.C joined with Subramania Siva in organising the mill workers in Thoothukudi
and Tirunelveli. In 1908, he led a strike in the European-owned Coral Mills.
 It coincided with the release of Bipin Chandra Pal. V.O.C and Subramania Siva,
who organised a public meeting to celebrate the release of Bipin, were arrested.
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10. SOCIAL TRANSFORMATION IN

TAMIL NADU
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. __________ established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.
a) Caldwell b) F.W. Ellis c) Ziegenbalg d) Meenakshisundaram
2. __________ founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan b) B. R. Ambedkar
c) Rajaji d) M. C. Rajah
3. India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in___. (MDL - 19)
a) 1918 b) 1917 c) 1916 d) 1914
4. _______was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of Government
officials. (PTA – 5)
a) Staff Selection Board b) Public Service Commission
c) Provincial Staff Recruitment Board d) Staff Selection Commission
5. __________ was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed class in
Madras Province.
a) M. C. Rajah b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
c) T.M. Nair d) P. Varadarajulu
6. Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in ______ (PTA – 1)
a) 1810 b) 1812 c) 1814 d) 1817
7. A book on the history of Tamil music was published by______ (PTA – 3)
a) Abraham Pandithar b) Swaminathar
c) Maraimalai Adigal d) Subramania Bharathi
1. Tamil was the first non-European language that went into print.
2. The College of Fort St. George was founded by F.W. Ellis.
3. Maraimalai Adigal is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.
4. Justice Party Government was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral
politics.
5. The name Suriyanarayana Sastri changed in Tamil as Parithimar Kalignar.
6. Abraham Pandithar gave prominence to Tamil music.
7. The first Woman Legislator in India was Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar.
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1. (i) Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812.
(ii) Maraimalai Adigal collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil
grammars and literature.
(iii) Robert Caldwell established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in
contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
(iv) Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram was an early pioneer in Trade union movement.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (i) and (iii) are correct
c) (iv) is correct d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
2. Assertion (A) : The Justice Party continued to remain in government from 1920-1937 in
Madras Presidency.
Reason (R) : The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period of
Dyarchy.
a) Both A and R are correct b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A
1. Dravidian Home (PTA – 4) - a) Maraimalai Adigal
2. Thozhilalan - b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
3. Tani Tamil Iyakkam (MDL-19) - c) Singaravelar
4. Jeeviya Saritha Surukkam - d) Natesanar
Answer : 1 – d 2 – c 3–a 4–b
V. Answer briefly
1. Write a note on Tamil Renaissance.
 Tamil was the first non-European language that went into print.
 The publication of these ancient literary texts created an awareness among the Tamil
people about their historical tradition, language, literature and religion.
 Modern Tamils founded their social and cultural identity on the ancient Tamil classics,
collectively called the Sangam literature.
2. Highlight the contribution of Caldwell for the cause of South Indian languages.
 Robert Caldwell expanded this argument in a book titled, A Comparative Grammar of the
Dravidian or South Indian Family of Languages, in 1856.
 He established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit
and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
3. List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their
writings.
 C.W. Damotharanar  U.V. Swaminathar  Thiru Vi. Kaliyanasundaram
 Parithimar Kalaignar  Maraimalai Adigal  Subramania Bharathi
 S. Vaiyapuri  Poet Bharatidasan  Abraham Pandithar
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4. Discuss the importance of Hindu Religious Endowment Act passed by the Justicite
ministry?
 The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment (HRE) Act in 1926
 Enabled any individual, irrespective of their caste affiliation, to become a member of the
temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.
5. Name the newspapers published by the South Indian Liberal Foundation. (PTA - 1)
 Dravidian - Tamil
 Justice - English
 Andhra Prakasika - Telugu
6. Estimate Periyar as a feminist.
 Periyar was critical of patriarchy.
 He condemned child-marriage and the devadasi system.
 The plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property.
 Periyar’s most important work on this subject is ‘Why the Woman is Enslaved?’
 Periyar believed that property rights for women would provide them a social status and
protection.
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
7. Why was Periyar known as 'Vaikom hero'? (PTA - 3)
 In the name of “caste dharma” the “lower caste” people were denied access to the temples
and the streets surrounding the temple.
 In Vaikom (a town in the then Princely State of Travancore and in present day Kerala),
people protested against this practice.
 After the local leaders were arrested Periyar led the movement and was imprisoned.
 People hailed him as Vaikom Virar (Hero of Vaikom).
1. Attempt an essay on the foundation and development of Tamil Renaissance in the 19th
Century. (PTA - 6)
a) Foundation of Tamil Renaissance
 The cultural hegemony of colonialism and the rise of humanism brought several
changes in the socio-cultural life of the Indian subcontinent.
 Modern Tamil Nadu too experienced such a historical transition.
 Tamil Learning language and culture played a significant role in their identity
construction.
 The introduction of printing press, linguistic research on Dravidian languages, etc.,
underpinned the process of Tamil renaissance.
b) Advent of the Printing Technology
 Tamil was the first non-European language that went into print.
 Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812.
 The publication of these ancient literary texts created an awareness among the Tamil
people about their historical tradition, language, literature and religion.
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62  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10 th
Social Science
c) Contributions of Caldwell for south Indian languages
 Robert Caldwell expanded this argument in a book titled, ‘A Comparative Grammar
of the Dravidian or South Indian Family of Languages’
 He established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with
Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
d) Personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature
 C.W. Damotharanar  U.V. Swaminathar  Thiru Vi. Kaliyanasundaram
 Parithimar Kalaignar  Maraimalai Adigal  Subramania Bharathi
 S. Vaiyapuri  Poet Bharatidasan  Abraham Pandithar
2. Describe the background for the formation of the Justice Party and point out its
contribution to the cause of social justice. (PTA - 2)
 The formation of the Justice Party
 On 20 November 1916 around 30 prominent non-Brahmin leaders including Dr. C.
Natesanar, Sir Pitti Theyagarayar, T.M. Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal came
together to form the South Indian Liberation Federation (SILF).
 The association started publishing three newspapers to propagate the ideals of the Party
 Dravidian in Tamil
 Justice in English
 Andhra Prakasika in Telugu
 Contribution to social justice
 The Justice Party is the fountainhead of the non-Brahmin Movement in the country.
 The Justice Party government widened education and employment opportunities for the
majority of the population and created space for them in the political sphere.
 The Justicites removed the legal hindrances restricting inter-caste marriages and broke
the barriers that prevented Depressed Classes from the use of public wells and tanks.
 The Madras legislature under the Justice Party government was the first to approve
participation of women in the electoral politics in 1921.
 The Justice Party worked towards legislating provisions for communal representation
and reservations for various communities.
 The Justice Party rule established the Staff Selection Board in 1924 for the selection of
government officials and encouraged all the communities to share the administrative powers.
 The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment (HRE) Act in 1926 and
enabled any individual, irrespective of their caste affiliation, to become a member of
the temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.
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3. Estimate Periyar E.V.R’s decisive contribution to the social transformation of
Tamil Nadu. (SEP – 2021, PTA - 5)
a) Periyar E.V.R’s biography
 Periyar E.V. Ramasamy was the son of a wealthy businessman in Erode.
 His parents are Venkatappa and Chinna Thayammal.
 He was the founder of the Self-Respect Movement.
b) Self-Respect Movement
 It advocated a casteless society devoid of rituals and differences based on birth.
 The movement declared rationality and self-respect as the birthright of all human beings
and held these as more important than self-rule.
 The movement demanded women’s emancipation, deplored superstitions, and
emphasised rationality.
c) Vaikom Virar (Hero of Vaikom)
 As president of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee, Periyar proposed a resolution
regarding the rights of “Untouchables” to temple entry.
 In the name of “caste dharma” the “lower caste” people were denied access to the
temples and the streets surrounding the temple.
 In Vaikom (present day Kerala), people protested against this practice.
 After the local leaders were arrested Periyar led the movement and was imprisoned.
d) Cheranmahadevi Gurukulam incident
 EVR was disturbed by the caste based discrimination in the dining hall at the
Cheranmadevi Gurukulam (school)
 It was run by V.V.Subramaniam (a Congress leader) with the financial support of the
Tamil Nadu Congress Committee.
 Periyar was disappointed when, despite his objections and protests against this
discrimination.
 The Congress continued to support the iniquitous practice in the Gurukulam.
e) Role Mass communication
 He started a number of newspapers and journals such as Kudi Arasu (Democracy),
Revolt, Puratchi (Revolution), Paguththarivu (Rationalism), and Viduthalai (Liberation)
 Kudi Arasu was the official newspaper of the Self- Respect Movement.
 He frequently wrote columns under the pseudonym of Chitraputtiran.
f) Periyar’s anti-Hindi agitation
 In 1937, in opposition to the Rajaji’s government’s move to introduce compulsory Hindi
in schools, he launched a popular movement to oppose it.
 The anti-Hindi agitation had a big impact on Tamilnadu’s politics.
g) Periyar, a Feminist
 Periyar was critical of patriarchy.
 He condemned child-marriage and the devadasi system (institution of temple girls).
 Right from 1929, when the Self-respect Conferences began to voice its concern over the
plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property.
 Peiyar’s most important work on this subject is ‘Why the Woman is Enslaved?’
 Periyar believed that property rights for women would provide them a social status and
protection.
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ADDITIONAL QUESTION
4. Explain the role of Maraimalai Adigal to the Tamil Renaissance. (PTA - 4)
 Maraimalai Adigal is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.
 He is founder of Tani Tamil Iyakkam (Pure Tamil Movement)
 He wrote commentaries on the Sangam texts, Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu.
 As a young man, he worked in a journal, Siddhanta Deepika.
 Later he served as a Tamil teacher in the Madras Christian College for many years.
 He was inclined towards non-Brahmin movement.
 Tani Tamil Iyakkam (Pure Tamil Movement)
 Maraimalai Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the
Sanskrit influence from the Tamil language.
 His daughter Neelambikai, played an important role in its foundation. He changed
his own name Vedachalam and took on the pure Tamil name of Maraimalai Adigal.
 His journal Jnanasagaram was renamed Arivukkadal and his institution, Samarasa
Sanmarga Sangam, was re-christened as Potu Nilaik Kalakam.
 Neelambikai compiled a dictionary that provided pure Tamil equivalents to Sanskrit
words that had crept into Tamil vocabulary.
 This movement paved the way for later social movements that countered Brahminical
and the Sanskrit tradition in Tamil society.
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GEOGRAPHY
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1. INDIA – LOCATION, RELIEF AND

DRAINAGE
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
1. The north-south extent of India is …………
a) 2,500 km b) 2,933 km c) 3,214 km d) 2814 km
2. ……… River is known as ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
a) Narmada b) Godavari c) Kosi d) Damodar
3. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as ……….. (PTA – 3)
a) Coast b) Island c) Peninsula d) Strait
4. The Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates India from …….. (PTA – 4)
a) Goa b) West Bengal c) Sri Lanka d) Maldives
5. The highest peak in South India is ……….. (MDL - 19) (PTA – 2)
a) Ooty b) Kodaikanal c) Anaimudi d) Jindhagada
6. ……… Plains are formed by the older alluviums.
a) Bhabar b) Tarai c) Bhangar d) Khadar
7. Pulicat Lake is located between the states of ………. (PTA – 1)
a) West Bengal and Odisha b) Karnataka and Kerala
c) Odisha and Andhra Pradesh d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
8. Pick the odd one out. (SEP – 2020)
a) Kolleru Lake b) Vembanad Lake c) Chika Lake d) Pulicat Lake
9. River ……. is called Vridha Ganga. (PTA - 6)
a) Kaveri b) Godavari c) Narmadha d) Tapti
10. Two island groups belong to India are….. (PTA - 6)
a) Andaman and Nicobar b) Andaman Nicobar and Lakshadweeps
c) Maldives and Nicobar d) Srilanka and Andaman
ADDITIONAL FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. Ganga is the largest drainage system of India. (PTA - 3)
II. Match the following
1. Tsangpo (MDL-19) - a) Tributary of River Ganga
2. Yamuna - b) Highest peak in India
3. New alluvium - c) River Brahmaputra in Tibet
4. Mt. Godwin Southern part of East Austin (K2) - d) Southern part of East Coastal Plain
5. Coromandel Coast (PTA-5) - e) Khadhar
Answer : 1 – c 2 – a 3 – e 4–b 5–d
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GEOGRAPHY: UNIT 1  67
III. Give Reasons for the following
1. Himalayas are called young fold moutains.
 The Himalayan Mountains have been formed few millions years ago.
 And also they were formed because of the folding of the earth crust due to tectonic activity.
2. North Indian Rivers are perennial (PTA – 2)
3. South Indian rivers are east flowing
4. West flowing rivers do not form deltas
IV. Distinguish between the following.
1. Himalayan Rivers and Peninsular River (PTA - 5)
2. Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats (PTA - 1)
WESTERN GHATS EASTERN GHATS
The Western Ghats forms the western Eastern Ghats run from southwest to northeast
a)
edge of the Peninsular Plateau. form the eastern edge of this Plateau.
b) It runs parallel to the Arabian Sea coast. It runs parallel to the Bay of Bengal coast.
The northern part of this range is
c) This range is also called as Poorvadri.
called as Sahyadris.
d) The Western Ghats are continuous The Eastern Ghats are not continuous
Kodaikanal is a beautiful hill resort Yercaud and Yelagiri hill stations are
e)
situated on the Palani Hills. situated in Eastern Ghats.
3. Western coastal plains and Eastern Coastal Plains (SEP – 2021, 2020)
WESTERN COASTAL PLAINS EASTERN COASTAL PLAINS
It lies between the Western Ghats It lies between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay
a)
and the Arabian Sea. of Bengal
It extends from Rann of Kutch in the It stretches from the delta region of West
b)
north to Kanyakumari. Bengal to Kanyakumari.
It is mainly characterised by sandy
The coastal plain consists mainly of the
c) beaches, coastal sand dunes, mud
recent alluvial deposits.
flats, lagoons, estuary.
The northern part of the West Coastal Coastal plain between Mahanadi and Krishna
d)
Plain is known as Konkan Plain. river is known as the Northern Circars.
Vembanad is a famous back water Chilka is a famous back water lake found in
e)
lake found in this region. this region.
The southern part of the plain is The southern part lies between Krishna and
f)
known as Malabar coast. Kaveri rivers is called Coromandal coast
g) Its narrow except in Gujarat. They are more extensive and wider.
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V. Answer in brief.
1. Name the neighboring countries of India.
 North west - Pakistan and Afghanistan
Shortcut: PANC MBBS
 North - China, Nepal and Bhutan
 East - Bangladesh and Myanmar
 South - Srilanka
2. Give the importance of IST. (PTA – 2)
 In India, Arunachal Pradesh is towards east, it will have sunrise about two hours earlier
than the sunrise at Gujarat which is in the west.
 In order to avoid these differences, Indian standard time is calculated.
 The local time of the central meridian of India is the standard time of India.
 India’s central meridian is 82°30' E longitude. It passes through Mirzapur (Allahabd).
 The IST is 5.30 hrs ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).
3. Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.
 Deccan plateau is the largest part of the plateau region of India.
 The shape of this plateau is roughly triangular.
 Three triangular arms:
1. Eastern Ghats
2. Satpura range
3. Western Ghats
4. State the west flowing rivers of India. (PTA – 3)
5. Write a brief note on the island group of Lakshadweep. (PTA – 4)
 Lakshadweep islands are located off the west coast of India.
 It developed small group of coral islands. It covers an area of 32 sq. km.
 Kavaratti is its administrative capital.
 Lakshadweep islands are separated from the Maldive Islands by the 8 0 channel.
 The uninhabited “Pitt Island” of this group has a bird sanctuary.
 Earlier, it had three divisions namely Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi. It was named as
Lakshadweep in 1973.
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
6. Write the latitudinal and longitudinal extend of India. (PTA - 5)
 Latitudinal extension : 8°4 'N to 37°6 'N
 Longitudinal extension : 68°7 'E to 97°25 'E
 India’s location : India is located of the North Eastern hemisphere.
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VI. Answer in a paragraph
1. Explain the divisions of Northern Mountains and its importance to India.
a) Divisions of Northern Mountains (or) Himalayas (SEP - 2021, PTA – 1)
The Northern Mountains that function as a great wall is grouped into three divisions.
 The Trans-Himalayas  Himalayas  Eastern or Purvanchal hills
b) Northern Mountains (or) Himalayas:
The main divisions of the Himalayas:
i) The Himadri - The Greater Himalayas
ii) The Himachal - The Lesser Himalayas
iii) The Siwaliks - The outer Himalayas
c) Importance of Himalayas
 Himalayas blocks southwest monsoon winds and causes heavy rainfall to north India.
 It forms a natural barrier to the sub-continent.
 It is the source for many perennial rivers like Indus, Ganges, Brahmaputra etc.
 The Northern Mountains are described as the paradise of tourists due to its natural beauty.
 Amarnath, Kedarnath, Badrinath and Vaishnavidevi temples are situated here.
 It prevents the cold winds blowing from the central Asia and protects India from severe cold.
 Himalayas are renowned for the rich biodiversity.
2. Give an account on the major peninsular rivers of India.
3. Give a detailed account on the basin of the Ganga. (PTA – 4)
VII. Map exercises (Refer page no : 158 to 161 in the Guide)
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2. CLIMATE AND NATURAL VEGETATION

OF INDIA
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
1. Western disturbances cause rainfall in ______. (SEP - 2021)
a) Tamilnadu b) Kerala c) Punjab d) Madhya Pradesh
2. ______ helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
a) Loo b) Norwester c) Mango showers d) Jet stream
3. ______ is a line joining the places of equal rainfall. (PTA – 1, MDL - 19)
a) Isohyets b) Isobar c) Isotherm d) Latitudes
4. Climate of India is labelld as ______.
a) Tropical humid b) Equatorial Climate
c) Tropical monsoon Climate d) Temperate Climate
5. The monsoon forests are otherwise called as ______ (PTA – 4)
a) Tropical evergreen forest b) Deciduous forest
c) Mangrove forest d) Mountain forest
6. Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve which situated in _______.
a) Tamil Nadu b) Andhra Pradesh c) Madhya Pradesh d) Karnataka
7. ______ is a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO
a) Nilgiri b) Agasthiyamalai c) Great Nicobar d) Kachch
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
8. Mawsynram a place which receives highest rainfall in the world is in ______ (PTA - 6)
a) India b) Nepal c) Bhutan d) Bangladesh
ADDITIONAL FILL IN THE BLANK
1. The trees of the Alpine forests are called Coniferous trees. (SEP - 2020)
1. Sundarbans - a) Desert and semi desert vegetation
2. Biodiversity hotspot - b) October-December
3. North east monsoon - c) Littoral forest
4. Tropical thorn forests - d) West Bengal
5. Coastal forests - e) The Himalayas
Answer : 1 – d 2 – e 3 – b 4 – a 5 – c
* (4, 5) these question are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
III. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below
1. Assertion(A) : The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier. (PTA – 1)
Reason(R) : The Himalayas prevents cold winds from Central Asia and keep the Indian
Sub-continent warm. (Give option for this questions)
a) Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
b) Both (A) and (R) are true: R does not explain A
c) (A) is true (R) is false
d) (A) is false (R) is true
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IV. Choose the inappropriate answer
1. Tidal forests are found in and around____.
a) Desert b) The deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra
c) The delta of Godavari d) The delta of Mahanadhi
2. Climate of India is affected by____________. (PTA – 3)
a) Latitudinal extent b) Altitude
c) Distance from the sea d) Soil
V. Answer briefly
1. List the factors affecting climate of India. (SEP - 2021)
 Latitude  Altitude  Distance from the sea
 Monsoon wind  Relief  Jet stream
2. What is meant by ‘normal lapse rate’?
 When the altitude increases, the temperatures decreases.
 Temperature decreases at the rate of 6.50C for every 1000 metres of ascent. It is called
normal lapse rate.
3. What are ‘jet streams’? (PTA - 1)
 Jet streams are the fast moving winds blowing in a narrow zone in the upper atmosphere.
 According to the Jet stream theory, the onset of southwest monsoon is driven by the shift
of the sub tropical westerly jet from the plains of India towards the Tibetan plateau.
 The easterly jet streams cause tropical depressions both during southwest monsoon and
retreating monsoon.
4. Write a short note on ‘Monsoon wind’.
 The most dominant factor which affects the climate of India is the monsoon winds.
 These are seasonal reversal winds.
 It blows from the south-west to north-east during summer and from the north-east to
south-west during winter.
 South West Monsoon and North East Monsoon are the two types of Monsoon winds.
5. Name the four distinct seasons of India. (PTA – 3)
 Winter season - January - February
 Summer season - March - May
 Southwest monsoon or rainy season - June - September
 Northeast monsoon season - October - December
6. What is ‘burst of monsoon’? (SEP – 2020, PTA – 4)
 The onset of the southwest monsoon with thunder and lightning is called ‘burst of monsoon’
 Prior to the onset of the southwest monsoon, the temperature in north India reaches upto 46°C.
 The monsoon wind strikes against the southern tip of Indian land mass and gets divided
into two branches.
 One branch starts from Arabian sea and the other from Bay of Bengal.
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72  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10 Social th

Science
7. Name the areas which receive heavy rainfall.
 Western coast  Assam  South Meghalaya
 Tripura  Nagaland  Arunachal Pradesh
(more than 200 cm rainfall)
8. State places of mangrove forests in India.
9. Write any five biosphere reserves in India. (PTA - 6)
VI. Distinguish between
1. Weather and Climate (MDL - 19)
WEATHER CLIMATE
Weather is a day to day condition of Climate is the average state of weather
a)
atmosphere at any place. for a longer period of time at any place.
To calculate weather condition we need To calculate average climate of a place,
b)
day to day record. 35 years of weather record is necessary.
c) It is changeable. It is long lasting.
2. Tropical Evergreen Forest and Deciduous Forest (PTA - 4)
3. North East Monsoon and South West Monsoon (PTA - 6)
NORTH EAST MONSOON SOUTH WEST MONSOON
a) It begins by the end of September It starts in the first week of June.
India receives 35% rainfall of their Over all about 75% of Indian rainfall
b)
annual total is received from this monsoon.
It is also known as Rainy season
c) It is also known as retreating monsoon
monsoon.
d) It blows from land to the sea. It blows from sea towards the land
VII. Give reasons for the following topics
1. Western Coastal plain is narrow.
 The rivers flowing through Western Coastal plain do not form any delta.
 The ridge is narrow due to the presence of hills, estuaries, lakes, mounds, backwaters and tributaries.
2. India has a tropical monsoon climate.
 India has a tropical monsoon climate because most of India lies in the tropical belt and its
climate is influenced by the Monsoon winds which mainly blow in the tropics ie. 20°N
and 20°South.
 High temperatures during summers and dry winters are some of the characteristics of the
Monsoon types of climate.
3. Mountains are cooler than the plains. (PTA – 5)
 As per the normal Lapse rate, temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5 C for every 1000
0
metres ascent. Hence, places in the mountains are cooler than the places on the plains.
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VIII. Write in detail
1. Write about South West Monsoon. (MDL - 19) (PTA – 2)
a) The beginning of the southwest monsoon
 The onset of the southwest monsoon takes place normally over the southern tip of the
country by the first week of June.
 It advances along the Konkan coast in early June and covers the whole country by
15th July.
b) El Nino phenomenon
 The monsoon is influenced by global phenomenon like El Nino.
c) Burst of monsoon
 Prior to the onset of the southwest monsoon, the temperature in north India reaches
upto 46°C.
 The sudden approach of monsoon wind over south India with lightning and thunder is
termed as the ‘break’ or ‘burst of monsoon’.
d) South West Monsoon’s two branches
 The monsoon wind strikes against the southern tip of Indian land mass and gets divided
into two branches.
 One branch starts from Arabian sea and the other from Bay of Bengal.
 The Arabian sea branch
 The Arabian sea branch of southwest monsoon gives heavy rainfall to the west
coast of India as it is located in the windward side of the Western Ghats.
 The other part which advances towards north is obstructed by Himalayan
Mountains and results in heavy rainfall in north.
 As Aravalli Mountain is located parallel to the wind direction, Rajasthan and
western part do not get much rainfall from this branch.
 The Bay of Bengal branch
 The Bay of Bengal branch moves towards northeast India and Myanmar.
 This wind is trapped by a chain of mountains namely Garo, Khasi and Jaintia
are mainly responsible for the heaviest rainfall caused at Mawsynram located
in Meghalaya.
e) Amount of rainfall in southwest monsoon
 Later on, this wind travel towards west which results in decrease in rainfall from east
to west.
 Over all about 75% of Indian rainfall is received from this monsoon.
2. Describe the forests of India. (PTA – 2, 6)

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ADDITIONAL QUESTION
3. What are the factors affecting the climate of India and explain any two in detail. (PTA - 5)
a) Latitude
 Latitudinally, India lies between 8°4'N and 37°6'N latitudes.
 The Tropic of cancer divides the country into two equal halves.
 Here, summer temperature may rise above 40°C and it is close to freezing point during winter.
b) Altitude
 When the altitude increases, The temperatures decreases.
 Temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5 0C for every 1000 metres of ascent. It is called
normal lapse rate.
 Hence, places in the mountains are cooler than the places on the plains.
 That is why the places located at higher altitudes even in south India have cool climate.
 Example: Ooty, Mussourie, Shimla
c) Distance from the sea
 Distance from the sea does not cause only temperature and pressure variations but also
affects the amount of rainfall.
 A large area of India, especially the peninsular region, is not very far from the sea and
this entire area has a clear maritime influence on climate.
d) Monsoon wind
 The most dominant factor which affects the climate of India is the monsoon winds.
 These are seasonal reversal winds and India remains in the influence of these winds for
a considerable part of a year.
e) Relief
 Relief of India has a great bearing on major elements of climate such as temperature,
atmospheric pressure, direction of winds and the amount of rainfall.
 During southwest monsoon, areas on the western slope of the Western Ghats receive
heavy rainfall.
f) Jet streams
 Jet streams are the fast moving winds blowing in a narrow zone in the upper atmosphere.
 According to the Jet stream theory, the onset of southwest monsoon is driven by the
shift of the sub tropical westerly jet from the plains of India towards the Tibetan plateau.
IX. Map work (Refer page no : 162, 163 in the guide)
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..
3. INDIA - AGRICULTURE
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. The soil which is rich in iron oxides is __________
a) Alluvial b) Black c) Red d) Alkaline
2. Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research b) Indian Meteorological Department
c) Soil Survey of India d) Indian Institute of Soil Science
3. The soils formed by the rivers are:
a) Red soils b) Black soils c) Desert soils d) Alluvial soils
4. _________ dam is the highest gravity in India.
a) Hirakud dam b) Bhakra Nangal dam
c) Mettur dam d) Nagarjuna Sagar dam
5. __________ is a cash crop.
a) Cotton b) Wheat c) Rice d) Maize
6. Black soils are also called as: (PTA – 6)
a) Arid soils b) Saline soils c) Regur soils d) Mountain soils
7. The longest dam in the world is _____________ (PTA – 1)
a) Mettur dam b) Kosi dam c) Hirakud dam d) Bhakra-Nangal dam
8. Which crop is called as “Golden Fibre” in India? (PTA – 6)
a) Cotton b) Wheat c) Jute d) Tobacco
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
9. Golden Revolution is related to the production of this: (SEP – 2020)
a) Potato b) Oil seed c) Honey d) Jute
II. Consider the given statement and choose the right option given below.
1. Assertion (A) : Horticulture involves cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and flowers. (PTA – 5)
Reason (R): India ranks first in the world in the production of mango, banana, and citrus fruits.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
2. Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of eroded and decayed materials
brought by the rivers.
Reason (R) : Paddy and wheat are grown well in the soil.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
III. Pick the odd one out.
1. a) Wheat b) Rice c) Millets d) Coffee
2. a) Khadar b) Bhangar c) Alluvial soil d) Black soil (MDL - 19)
3. a) Inundational canals b) Perennial canals c) Tanks d) Canals (PTA – 1)
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IV. Match the following.
1. Sugar bowl of India - a) Mahanadi
2. Coffee - b) Golden revolution
3. Tehri - c) Karnataka
4. Hirakud (MDL-19) - d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
5. Horticulture - e) Highest dam in the India
Answer: 1 – d 2 – c 3 – e 4 – a 5 – b
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
1. Grey Revolution - a) Egg (SEP – 2021)
2. Silver Revolution - b) Meat
3. Red Revolution - c) Leather
4. Brown Revolution - d) Fertilizers
Answer: 1 – d 2 – a 3 – b 4 – c
V. Answer in brief.
1. Define soil. (PTA – 1)
 Soil is the uppermost layer of the land surface, usually composed of minerals, organic
matter, living organisms, air and water.
 Soils are generally formed by the weathering of rocks under different conditions.
2. Name the types of soil found in India.
 Alluvial soil  Black soils  Red soils
 Laterite soils  Forest and mountain soils  Arid and desert soils
 Saline and alkaline soils  Peaty and marshy soils
3. State any two characteristics of black cotton soil.
 Black cotton soil black colour, due to presence of titanium, iron.
 Sticky when wet High degree of moisture retentivity.
 Consist of calcium and magnesium arbonates, high quantities of iron, aluminium, lime and magnesia.
4. Define Agriculture.
Agriculture is the process of producing food for people, fodder for cattle, fiber and many other
desired products by the cultivation of certain plants and the raising of domesticated animals.
5. State the types of agriculture practices in India. (MDL - 19)
 Subsistence Farming  Shifting Agriculture  Intensive Farming
 Dry Farming  Mixed Farming Agriculture  Terrace Cultivation
6. Name the seasons of agriculture in India. (PTA – 2)
7. Mention the plantation crops of India. (PTA – 6)
8. What do you mean by livestock? (PTA – 5)
9. Write a brief note on the categories of fisheries in India.
* (6 to 9) these questios are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
10. Write a short note on ‘Terrace Farming’. (SEP – 2021)
 This is practiced specially in hilly areas, where lands are of sloping nature.
 The hill and mountain slopes are cut to form terraces and the land is used in the same way
as in permanent agriculture.
 Soil erosion is also checked due to terrace formation on hill slopes.
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11. What are the methods of conservation and management of soil? (PTA - 3)
a) Soil conservation b) Soil management
 Afforestation  Contour method  Rotation of crops
 Constructing Dams and Barrages  Contour bunding  Strip cropping
 Prevention of Overgrazing  Planting of shelter belts
 Improved methods of Agricultural  Adopting the techniques of sustainable
practices agriculture
12. Explain any two geographical factors that determine agriculture. (PTA - 3)
 Physical factors: relief, climate and soil.
 Institutional factors: Size of farm holdings, land tenure, and land reforms.
 Infrastructural factors: Irrigation, power, transport, credit, market, insurance and
storage facilities.
 Technological factors : High yielding varieties of seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides
and machinery.
VI. Give reasons.
1. Agriculture is the backbone of India. (PTA – 1)
 Indian economy is mainly based on agriculture.
 Still the agriculture in India employs more than 50% of the population of the country.
 And also it accounts for about 25% of the national income.
2. Rain water harvesting is necessary. (MDL - 19)
 Indian rainfall is erratic in nature.
 To meet the ever growing demand for water in the agriculture, domestic and industrial
sector, rain water harvesting is necessary.
 Rainwater harvesting is essential to protect the groundwater level.
VII. Distinguish between the following.
1. Rabi crop seasons and Kharif crop seasons. (PTA - 6)
2. Inundational canal and Perennial canal
INUNDATIONAL CANAL PERENNIAL CANAL
These canal are spill channels. Flood These canal draw their water from the perennial
a)
water are diverted into these canals. rivers or from reservoirs behind dams.
These canals do not useful for irrigation
b) These canals are useful for irrigation.
all the time.
3. Marine fishing and Inland fishing (PTA - 5)
4. Alluvial soils and Black soils
ALLUVIAL SOILS BLACK SOILS
These soils are derived from the sediments These soils are formed due to the spread
a)
deposited by the rivers and streams. of weathered lava over the Decan trap.
It consist of rich in potash, phosphoric It consist of calcium and magnesium
b) acid, lime and carbon compounds but arbonates, high quantities of iron,
poor in nitrogen aluminium, lime and magnesia.
Nature of the soil is Sandy, loamy silt It is Sticky when wet
c)
and clay
This soil mostly found in Ganga and This soil mostly found in Maharashtra and
d)
Brahmaputra river valleys Malwa plateaus, Kathiawar peninsula
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ADDITIONAL QUESTION
5. Food crops and Cash crops. (PTA - 2)
VIII. Answer in a paragraph.
1. State any five types of soils in India and explain the characteristics and distribution of soil.
The Indian Council of Agriculture Research divides the soils of India into eight major
groups. (SEP - 2021)
a) Alluvial soil
light, sandy, thin and found with the pieces of rock. Their character changes
Characteristics with the parent rocks. Very rich in humus. slow decomposition makes it acidic
Coniferous forest belts of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh,
Distribution Uttarakhand and Sikkim. Eastern and Western Ghats
b) Black soils
Characteristics Sticky when wet. High degree of moisture retentivity
Maharashtra and Malwa plateaus, Kathiawar peninsula, Telangana and
Distribution Rayalaseema region of Andhra Pradesh and northern part of Karnataka
c) Red soils
Light texture, porous friable presence of limited soluble salts Clay
Characteristics fraction of the red soils generally consists of Kaolinitic minerals.
Eastern parts of Deccan plateau, southern states of Kerala, Tamil Nadu,
Distribution Karnataka and Chota Nagpur plateau (Jharkhand)
d) Laterite soils
More acidic on higher areas poor in high level, cannot retain moisture
Characteristics
while plains they consist of heavy loam and clay and easily retain moisture
Assam hills, hill summits of Kerala and Karnataka and eastern Ghats and
Distribution region of Odisha
e) Forest and mountain soils
light, sandy, thin and found with the pieces of rock. Their character
Characteristics changes with the parent rocks. Very rich in humus. slow decomposition
makes it acidic.
Coniferous forest belts of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh,
Distribution Uttarakhand and Sikkim. Eastern and Western Ghats
f) Arid and desert soils
Characteristics light in colour, low humus, friable structure, low in moisture
Distribution Rajasthan, Northern Gujarat and southern Punjab
g) Saline and alkaline soils
Characteristics Consists of un decomposed rock and mineral fragments which on weathering
Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka. In the drier parts of Bihar, Uttar Pradesh,
Distribution Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan and Maharashtra
h) Peaty and marshy soils
Contain considerable amount of Soluble salts and 10-40 per cent of
Characteristics organic matter; and high proportion of vegetable matter.
Kottayam and Alappuzha districts of Kerala; and coastal areas of Odisha
Distribution and Tamil Nadu, Sundarbans of West Bengal, in Bihar and Almora district
of Uttarakhand
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2. What is multipurpose projects? Write about any two Multipurpose projects of
India. (PTA – 1)
a) Multipurpose project:
 Construction of dam across rivers it is termed as multi-purpose river valley projects.
 The various purposes of a dam serves are irrigation, hydro power generation, water
supply for drinking and industrial purpose, controlling floods, development of
fisheries, navigation etc.
b) Multipurpose projects of India
 Damodar Valley project
 Bhakra-Nangal Project
 Hirakud Project
 Kosi Project
 Tungabhadra Project
 Tehri Dam
 Chambal Valley Project
 Nagarjuna Sagar Project
 Sardar Sarover Project
 Indira Gandhi Canal Project
 Mettur Dam
 Bhakra-Nangal Project
 It is the highest gravity dam in the world.
 It is constructed across Sutlej river.
 Benefit States: Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan
 Hirakud Project
 It is the longest dam in the world.
 It is constructed across Mahanadi river.
 Benefit State: Orissa
3. Bring out the characteristics of Intensive and Plantation farming.
I. Intensive farming
Intensive farming is an agricultural intensification and mechanization system that aims to
maximize yields from available land through various means, such as heavy use of
pesticides and chemical fertilizers.
II. Plantation farming
 Plantation crops are cultivated for the purpose of exports.
 These are cultivated in large estates on hilly slopes.
 Tea, coffee, rubber and spices are the major plantation crops of India.
4. Examine the geographical conditions favourable for the cultivation of rice and wheat. (PTA – 3)
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ADDITIONAL QUESTION
5. Write any five major issues faced by the farmers in India. (PTA - 4)
a) Small and fragmented land-holdings:
The problem of small and fragmented holdings is more serious in densely populated and
intensively cultivated states in India. About 67 percent of operational land holdings in
India are marginal holdings (< 1 hectare).
b) High Costs of Inputs:
Seed is a critical and basic input for attaining higher crop yields and sustained growth in
agricultural production. Unfortunately, good quality seeds are out of reach for many small
and marginal farmers due to their high price.
c) Infertile Soil:
Indian soils have been used for growing crops over thousands of years without caring much
for replenishing. This has led to depletion and exhaustion of soils resulting low productivity.
d) Lack of Irrigation:
Only one-third of the cropped area falls under irrigated area. To make agriculture reliable,
irrigation facility has to be developed.
e) Lack of mechanization:
In spite of the large scale mechanization of agriculture in some parts of the country, most
of the agricultural operations in larger parts are carried on by human hand using simple
and conventional tools.
f) Soil erosion:
Large tracts of fertile land suffer from soil erosion by wind and water. Such kind of areas
must be properly treated and restored to its original fertility.
g) Agricultural marketing:
In rural India, agricultural marketing continues in a bad shape. Due to the absence of
sound marketing facility, the farmers have to depend on local traders and middlemen for
the disposal of their farm products which is sold at low price.
IX. Hot questions.
1. Can you imagine a world without agriculture?
 No, it is impossible to imagine the world without agriculture.
 One of the basic needs of human being is food and it is satisfied by agriculture.
 waste products of agriculture are used as manure for cultivable lands.
 By exporting agricultural products we can develop our country’s economic level.
2. Can you give solutions for the prevailling water disputes in south India?
 Constructing dams to store rain water is the major solution.
 We can also save the water by rain water harvesting.
 All rivers should be connceted for proper supply of water to all places.
 Recycling of water and reusing it will also help to overcome this problem.
X. Map exercises (Refer page no : 164 , 165 in the guide)
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4. INDIA - RESOURCES AND INDUSTRIES
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

I. Choose the Correct Answer
1. Manganese is used in……….. (SEP - 2021)
a) Storage batteries b) Steel Making c) Copper smelting d) Petroleum Refining
2. The Anthracite coal has ………
a) 80 to 95 % Carbon b) Above 70% Carbon
c) 60 to 7% Carbon d) Below 50% Carbon
3. The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and ………… (PTA – 3)
a) Oxygen b) Water c) Carbon d) Nitrogen
4. The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is……….
a) Chennai b) Salem c) Madurai d) Coimbatore
5. The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in………. (PTA - 2)
a) Gujarat b) Rajasthan c) Maharashtra d) Tamil Nadu
6. The most abundant source of energy is ……….
a) Bio mass b) Sun c) Coal d) Oil
7. The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in……..
a) Jharkhand b) Bihar c) Rajasthan d) Assam
8. The nucleus for the development of the chotanagpur plateau region is ……….
a) Transport b) Mineral Deposits c) Large demand d) Power Availability
9. The National Institute of Wind Energy is at: (SEP – 2020)
a) Faridabad b) Chennai c) Kanyakumari d) Vizhinjam
10. The first Jute mill of India was established at ………. (PTA - 1)
a) Kolkata b) Mumbai c) Ahmedabad d) Baroda
11. One of the shore based steel plants of India is located at………. (PTA – 4)
a) Kolkata b) Tuticorin c) Goa d) Visakhapatnam
* (10 ,11) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
12. The first paper Industry was started in (MDL - 19)
a) Raniganj b) Durgapur c) Hoogly d) Baliganj
13. Find the odd one (PTA - 5)
a) Mica b) Lime stone c) Gypsum d) Copper
1. Bauxite - a) Cement
2. Gypsum - b) Aircraft
3. Black Gold (MDL-19) - c) Electrical goods
4. Iron ore - d) Coal
5. Mica - e) Magnetite
Answer : 1 – b 2 – a 3 – d 4 – e 5–c
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i) 1. Detroit of India - a) Gujarat
2. Thermal power plant (PTA – 5) - b) Thiruvananthapuram
3. Wind farm - c) Andhra Pradesh
4. Tidal energy - d) 1975
5. Solar power - e) Chennai
Answer : 1 – e 2 – d 3 – a 4 – b 5– c
* (2) this question is removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
III. Answer the following Questions briefly
1. Define the resource and state its types.
 Any matter or energy derived from the environment that is used by living things including
humans is called a natural resource.
 Based on continued availability, the resources are categorised into two types.
1. Renewable Resources 2. Non- Renewable resources
2. What are the minerals and its types?
 On the basis of chemical and physical properties, minerals are broadly grouped under two
categories.
 Types: i) metallic minerals ii) non-metallic minerals
3. State the uses of Manganese. (PTA – 3)
 Manganese is an important mineral used for making iron and steel and serves as basic raw
material for alloying.
 It is the most important mineral for making iron and steel.
 It is also used in the manufacturing of bleaching powder, insecticides, paints and batteries.
4. What is natural gas?
 It is naturally occurring hydro carbon gas mixture consisting primarily of methane, but
commonly includes varying amounts of other higher alkanes.
 Sometimes a small percentage of carbon dioxide, nitrogen and hydrogen sulphides.
5. Name the different types of coal with their carbon content. (PTA - 1)
 Anthracite: contains 80 to 90% carbon  Bituminous: contains 60 to 80% carbon
 Lignite: contains 40 to 60% carbon  Peat: contains less than 40% carbon
6. Mention the major areas of jute production in India.
7. Name the important oil producing regions of India. (PTA – 2)
 Mumbai high oil fields  Brahmaputra valley  Gujarat coast  Digboi oil fields
8. What do you know about Renewable resources? (MDL - 19)
 Renewable Resources are those which have natural regeneration after their utilisation.
 Water, sun light, wind, bio gas, tides etc., are the sources of renewable energy.
9. Why Coimbatore is often referred as the "Manchester of South India"? (PTA - 3)
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IV. Distinguish Between the following.
1. Renewable resources and Non-renewable resources
RENEWABLE RESOURCES NON-RENEWABLE RESOURCES
Renewable resources are those which Non-renewable resources are the
a) have natural regeneration after their resources that cannot be replaced again
utilization. after utilization.
b) Do not pollute the environment Pollute the environment
c) Ex : Water, sun light, wind, bio gas Ex : Coal, petroleum, natural gas
2. Metallic minerals and Non-metallic minerals (PTA - 3)
METALLIC MINERALS NON-METALLIC MINERALS
Metallic minerals contain one or more Non-metallic minerals do not contain
a)
metallic elements in them. metal in them.
It is occur in naturally formed as mineral It is occur in limestone, sandstone and
b)
deposits. shale.
c) Ex : iron, manganese, copper, bauxite, gold Ex : Mica, limestone, gypsum, petroleum
d) Metals are Malleable Non-metals are brittle.
e) They are ductile They are Non ductile
f) Good conductors of heat and electricity Bad conductor of heat and electricity
3. Agro based industry and Mineral based industry (SEP – 2020, PTA – 2, MDL – 19)
4. Jute industry and Sugar industry
5. Conventional energy and Non- conventional energy
CONVENTIONAL ENERGY NON- CONVENTIONAL ENERGY
These are non-renewable source of These are renewable source of energy.
a)
energy.
b) They pollute the environment They do not pollute the environment.
c) Ex : Coal and petroleum Ex : Solar energy, wind energy
V. Answer the following in a paragraph
1. Write about the distribution of cotton textile industries in India.
2. Describe the major challenges of Indian industries.
3. Write an account on the major iron and steel industries of India. (PTA – 2)
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th
4. Write an essay on Renewable Energy Resources in India. (PTA - 6)

a) Hydro power
 Power generated from water is termed as hydroelectricity.
 Hydro power is the energy harnessed from running water.
 Hydro power is considered as one of the most economic and non-polluting sources of
energy.
 India is fortunate to have a large potential of hydro- power potential.
b) Solar Energy
 Solar Power is the conversion of sunlight into electricity, either directly using
photovoltaics (PV) or indirectly using concentrated solar power (CSP).
 Concentrated solar power systems use lenses or mirrors and tracking system to focus a
large area of sunlight into a small beam.
 Photovoltaics convert light into an electric current using the photovoltaic effect.
c) Wind Energy
 Wind energy is extracted from air flow using wind turbines.
 It is a cheap and pollution free source of energy. Power from wind mills are used for
pumping water and to sail propel ships.
d) Biomass Energy
 Bio energy may be obtained through bio-degradable materials like animal dung, kitchen
wastes, water hyacinth, agricultural residues and city wastes etc.
 It is clean and cheap source of energy.
 India has a potential of about 18 GW of energy from Biomass.
e) Tidal and wave Energy
 There are two main sources of ocean energy.
 They are Ocean tides and Ocean waves.
 It is estimated that India possesses 8,000-9,000 MW of tidal energy potential.
 An wave energy power plant of 150 KW (maximum) has been installed at Vizhinjam
near Thiruvananthapuram.
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5. INDIA - POPULATION, TRANSPORT,

COMMUNICATION AND TRADE
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
1. The scientific study of different aspects of population is called ……. (MDL - 19)(PTA – 6)
a) cartography b) Demography c) Anthropology d) Epigraphy
2. ______________ transport provides door to door services.
a) Railways b) Roadways c) Airways d) Waterways
3. The length of Golden Quadrilateral superhighways in India is ________
a) 5846 km b) 5847 km c) 5849 km d) 5800 km
4. The National Remote sensing Centre (NRSC) is located at ____________.
a) Bangalure b) Chennai c) Delhi d) Hyderabad
5. The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is _____ (PTA – 5)
a) Roadways b) Railways c) Airways d) Waterways
6. Which of the following is associated with helicopter service? (PTA – 2)
a) Air India b) Indian Airlines c) Vayudoot d) Pavan Hans
7. The major import item of India is ___________
a) Cement b) Jewells c) Tea d) Petroleum
* (2,3,5,6,7) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
8. The state which has highest population in India : (SEP – 2021)
a) Gujarat b) Sikkim c) Uttar Pradesh d) Tamilnadu
9. The longest National Highway in Tamil Nadu is…………. (PTA - 3)
a) NH 44 b) NH 7 c) NH 45 d) NH 66
II. Match the following:
1. Border Road Organisation - a) Satellite communication
2. INSAT - b) Impact of Urbanization
3. Mazagaon Dock (PTA – 5, MDL-19) - c) 1990
4. Urban sprawl - d) Mumbai
5. Konkan Railways - e) 1960
- f) Hyderabad
Answer : 1 – e 2 – a 3 – d 4 – b 5 – c
III. Answer the following in Brief
1. What is migration? State its types.
2. Write any four advantages of railways.
3. Write a note on Pipeline network transport in India. (PTA – 6)
4. State the major Inland waterways of India.
5. What is communication? What are its types? (SEP – 2020)
6. Define “International trade”. (MDL -19) (PTA – 3)
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7. State the merits of Roadways. (PTA – 5)

ADDITIONAL QUESTION
8. What are the socio-economic factors for uneven distribution of population? (PTA - 1)
 Sociological factors : religion, culture, political issues,
 Economic factors : economy, human settlements, transport network, industrialization,
urbanization, employment opportunity
IV. Distinguish between:
1. Density of population and Growth of population
DENSITY OF POPULATION GROWTH OF POPULATION
It refers to the change in the number of
It is expressed as number of persons per
a) inhabitants of a country/territory during
unit area usually per sq km.
a specified period of time.
India is one of the most thickly populated India is the second most populous
b)
ten countries of the world. country in the world.
The most densely populated state of India Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state
c)
is Bihar. in India.
d) Arunachal Pradesh has least population density. Sikkim is the least populous state of India
2. Personal communication and Mass communication
3. Print media and Electronic media (PTA – 4)
4. Roadways and Railways (SEP – 2020)
5. Waterways and Airways (PTA - 1)
6. Internal Trade and International Trade
V. Answer in a paragraph:
1. What is urbanization? Explain its impacts. (SEP – 2020, PTA – 5)
 Urbanization :
 The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization.
 The level of urbanization of a place is assessed based on the size of population of the
towns and cities and the proportion of population engaged in non-agricultural sectors.
 Impacts of urbanization
 It creates urban sprawl.
 It makes overcrowding in urban centres.
 It leads to shortage of houses in urban areas.
 It leads to the formation of slums.
 It increases traffic congestion in cities.
 It creates water scarcity in cities.
 It creates drainage problem.
 It increases the rate of crime.
 It poses the problem of solid waste management.
2. Explain the importances of satellite communication in India.
3. Classify and explain the roadways in India. (PTA - 3)
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6. PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY OF TAMIL NADU
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is __________ (MDL - 19)
a) 8°4′N to 13°35′N* b) 8°5′S to 13°35′S c) 8°0′N to 13°5′N d) 8°0′S to 13°05′S
(*Given Textbook option is inappropriate)
2. The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is _______
a) 76°18′ E to 80°20′E b) 76°18′ W to 80°20′W
c) 86°18′ E to 10°20′E d) 86°18′ W to 10°20′W
3. The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is __________
a) Anaimudi b) Doddabetta c) Mahendragiri d) Servarayan
4. Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
a) Palghat b) Shencottah c) Bhorghat d) Achankoil
5. Which one of the following rivers is flow into the Arabian Sea? (PTA – 3)
a) Periyar b) Cauvery c) Chittar d) Bhavani
6. The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is __________
a) Ramanathapuram b) Nagapattinam c) Cuddalore d) Theni
7. Retreating monsoon wind picks up moisture from________ (SEP – 2020)
a) Arabian sea b) Bay of Bengal c) Indian Ocean d) Timor sea
8. Which of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent? (PTA – 6)
a) Theni b) Madurai c) Thanjavur d) Ramanathapuram
9. The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is______ (PTA – 5)
a) Dharmapuri b) Vellore c) Dindigul d) Erode
10. The wettest place in Tamil Nadu (PTA - 1)
a) Kalakadu b) Hogenakkal c) Chinnkallar d) Kiliyur
11. Mangroves protects (PTA - 4)
a) Coastal area from erosion b) coral reefs
c) sea grass meadows d) all these
1. The plateau which lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts is Coimbatore.
2. Solaikaradu is the highest peak in the southern most part of the Eastern Ghats.
3. The riverine Island of Srirangam is located between Kaveri and Kollidam branches of cauvery.
4. Nilgiri tahr is the Tamil Nadu state animal which is found in Nilgiri Hills.
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
5. Laterite soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants. (MDL - 19)(PTA – 3)
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III. Match the following
1. Winter season - a) Pre-monsoon
2. Summer season - b) June to September
3. Southwest monsoon - c) March to May
4. North east monsoon - d) January and February
5. Mango Shower - e) October to December
Answers : 1 – d 2 – c 3 – b 4 – e 5–a
IV. Assertion type Questions
1. Assertion (A) : Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall from southwest monsoon.
Reason (R) : It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
V. Answer the following in brief
1. State the boundaries of Tamil Nadu. (PTA – 4)
 East - Bay of Bengal  West - Kerala  North - Andhra Pradesh
 South - Indian Ocean  Northwest - Karnataka
2. What is ‘Teri’?
 The sand dunes formed along the coast of Ramanathapuram and Thoothukudi districts are
called Teri.
 It is a mound, hill or ridge of sand that lies behind the part of the beach affected by tides.
3. How is coastal plain formed? (PTA – 1)
 Coastal plain is formed by the rivers that flow towards east drain in the Bay of Bengal.
 Though it is an emerged coast, some parts are submerged into the sea.
4. Name the major islands of Tamil Nadu. (PTA – 5)
 Pamban  Hare  Krusadai  Nallathanni Theevu
 Pullivasal  Srirangam  Upputanni  Island Grounds
 Kattupalli Island  Quibble Island  Vivekananda Rock Memorial
5. Name the tributaries of river Thamirabarani.
 Karaiyar  Servalar  Manimuthar  Gadananathi
 Pachaiyar  Chittar  Ramanathi
6. Define : Disaster Risk Reduction.
 According to the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR) is the
concept and practice of reducing disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyse and
reduce the causal factors of disasters.
 This includes reducing exposure to hazards, lessening the vulnerability of people and
property, wise management of land and environment, and improving preparedness and
early warning for adverse events.
7. During cyclone, how does the meteorological department warn the fishermen?(SEP – 2021)
 The Fishermen are advised not to reach the deep sea for next 12 hours along coasts.
 Fishermen should keep a radio set with extra batteries handy keep boats and rafts tied up
safely and don’t venture out in the sea
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8. Mention the role of Mangroves in coastal zone management. (SEP -2020, PTA -6)
9. Write a short note on Mangrove forest in Tamil Nadu? (MDL -19)
VI. Distinguish between the following
1. Thamiraparani and Cauvery
THAMIRAPARANI CAUVERY
a) It originates from a peak in Pothigai hills. It originates in the Brahmagiri hills.
b) Karaiyar, Servalar, Manimuthar,
Bhavani, Noyyal and Amaravathi are its
Gadananathi, Pachaiyar, Chittar and
main tributaries.
Ramanathi are its main tributaries.
c) It is the only perennial river in South India. It is not perennial river.
d) Papanasam Dam was built across the river Mettur Dam and Kallanai was built
Thamiraparani across the river Cauvery.
e) It forms Agathiyarwaterfalls. It forms Hogenakkal waterfalls
VII. Give reasons for the following
1. Eastern Ghats are not a continuous range. (SEP – 2020, PTA – 6)
It is dissected at many places by the rivers, which drain into the Bay of Bengal.
2. Tamil Nadu receives low rainfall during southwest monsoon. (PTA – 3)
3. Cuddalore is a multiprone disaster zone.
Cuddalore is the most severely affected area of flood, cyclone, earthquakes, tremors and
tidal wave.
VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph
1. Describe the nature of the plateau region of Tamil Nadu.
 Location
 Plateaus of Tamil Nadu are located between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
 It is roughly triangular in shape and covers an area of about 60,000 sq.km.
 PLATEAUS
 Bharamahal plateau
 Bharamahal plateau is a part of the Mysore plateau situated in the northwestern
part of Tamil Nadu.
 Its height ranges from 350 to 710 metres. Dharmapuri and Krishnagiri districts are
located in this region.
 Coimbatore plateau
 Coimbatore plateau lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts.
 Its height varies from 150 to 450 metres. This region includes Salem, Coimbatore
and Erode districts.
 Moyar river separates this plateau from the Mysore plateau.
 Many intermontane plateaus are found in the region of the Nilgiris.
 Sigur plateau is one such plateau.
 Madurai plateau
 Madurai plateau found in Madurai district extends up to the foothills of the Western Ghats.
 Vaigai and Thamirabarani basins are located in this zone.
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2. Write an account on river Cauvery. (PTA – 5)
Cauvery river - Outline
a) Rise of Cauvery
b) Agandra Cauvery
c) Cauvery delta
d) Garden of Southern India
a) Rise of Cauvery
 The river Cauvery originates at Talacauvery in the Brahmagiri hills of Kodagu (Coorg)
district of Karnataka in the Western Ghats.
 About 416 km of its course falls in Tamil Nadu.
 It serves as the boundary between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu for a distance of 64 km.
 It forms Hogenakkal waterfalls in Dharmapuri district.
 Mettur Dam also called Stanley Reservoir, is located across this river in Salem district.
b) Agandra Cauvery
 Two more tributaries, Noyyal and Amaravathi, confluence the river on the right bank
at Thirumukkudal 10 km from Karur.
 The river is wider in this region, where it is called as ‘Agandra Cauvery’.
 In Tiruchirappalli district, the river branches into two parts.
 The northern branch is called Coleroon or Kollidam and the southern branch remains
Cauvery.
c) Cauvery delta
 After flowing for about 16 km, the two branches join again to form ‘Srirangam Island’.
 The Grand Anaicut, also called as Kallanai was built across the river Cauvery.
 After Kallanai, the river breaks into a large number of distributaries and forms a
network all over the delta.
d) Garden of Southern India
 The network of distributaries within the delta of Cauvery in the coast is called as the
‘Garden of Southern India’.
 It merges into Bay of Bengal to the south of Cuddalore.
3. Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu.
4. Bring out the types and distribution of soils in Tamil Nadu.
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5. What are the Risk reduction measures taken before and after cyclone?
 Cyclone
 The coastal regions of Tamil Nadu are often hit by the tropical cyclones formed in Bay
of Bengal during northeast monsoon.
 RISK REDUCTION MEASURES
 Before the Cyclone:
 Ignore rumors, stay calm, don’t be panic;
 Keep your mobile phones charged to ensure connectivity;
 Use SMS; listen to radio; watch TV; read newspapers for weather updates.
 Keep your documents and valuables in water proof containers;
 Prepare an emergency kits with essential items for survival;
 Secure your house; carry out repairs;
 Don’t leave sharp objects loose; untie cattle/animals for their safety.
 Fishermen should keep a radio set with extra batteries handy;
 Keep boats and rafts tied up safely and don’t venture out in the sea.
 After the Cyclone:
 Those who shifted to the cyclone centre must remain there till instructions are
received; Strictly avoid loose electrical wires after the cyclone;
 Beware of snakes and other animals immediately after the cyclone;
 Clear debris and carcasses from/near the premise after the cyclone and report
losses truthfully and accurately to the authorities.
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
6. Write about the types of forest found in Tamil Nadu. (PTA - 2)
IX. Map study (Refer page no : 166 to 169 in the guide )
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7. HUMAN GEOGRAPHY OF TAMIL NADU
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. The delta which is known as Granary of South India is _________ (PTA – 5)
a) Cauvery delta b) Mahanadi delta c) Godavari delta d) Krishna delta
2. Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is _________
a) Pulses b) Millets c) Oilseeds d) Rice
3. A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is _________
a) Mettur b) Papansam c) Sathanur d) Thungabahdra
4. Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are _________
a) 3 and15 b) 4 and15 c) 3 and16 d) 4 and15
5. In India, Tamilnadu ranks second in _______ production. (SEP – 2021)
a) Coffee b) Tea c) Suagrcane d) Cotton
6. Disaster emergency contact number: (QR) (SEP - 2020)
a) 1095 b) 1944 c) 1098 d) 1077
1. Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes 21 % of its economy.
2. Sathanur dam is constructed across the river Thenpennai.
3. Chennai is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
4. The difference between the value of exports and imports is called balance of trade.(SEP-2020)
1. Bauxite – a) Salem
2. Gypsum – b) Servaroy hills
3. Iron – c) Coimbatore
4. Limestone – d) Tiruchirapalli
Answers : 1- b 2 – d 3 – a 4–c
IV. Questions 1-2 are assertion and reasoning type
1. Assertion (A) : Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of
Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R) : They contribute a major share to the states economy through textiles.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
2. Assertion (A) : The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu (PTA – 4)
Reason (R) : It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false
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V. Answer the following in brief
1. Explain the cropping seasons of Tamil Nadu. (PTA – 6)
Name Sowing Harvesting Major crops
Sornavari (Chittirai pattam) April - May August- September Millets and cotton
Samba (Adipattam) July - August January- February Paddy and sugarcane
November - Fruits, vegetables,
Navarai February -March
December cucumber, watermelon
2. Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu? (PTA - 3)
 The textile mills are more concentrated in Coimbatore.
 Tamil Nadu has about 3,50,000 power looms manufacturing cotton fabrics.
 30% of India's exports of textiles products.
 Cotton is predominantly cultivated in Coimbatore plateau and Vaigai-Vaippar river basins.
 Coimbatore is also known as the ‘Manchester of Tamil Nadu’.
 Coimbatore, Tirupur and Erode contribute a major share to the state’s economy through textiles.
3. Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu. (SEP – 2021, PTA – 5)
 Mettur Dam  Amaravathi Dam
 Mullaiperiyar Dam  Parampikulam Aliyar Project
4. What is MRTS? (PTA – 4)
5. List out the airports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
6. What is mixed farming agriculture. (SEP – 2020)
It is a type of farming which involves both the growing of crops and the raising of
livestock simultaneously in a land holding.
7. Write a note on GI Tag. (PTA - 2)
 GI (Geographical Indication)is a name or sign used on products which corresponds to a
specific geographical location.
 It provides rights and protection of holders.
 Some important GI Tags of Tamil Nadu are: Arani, Kancheepuram- Silk; Madurai- Sungudi.
VI. Distinguish between the following
1. Marine fishing and Inland fishing
MARINE FISHING INLAND FISHING
In ocean or seawaters, fishing within Inland fishing is carried out in lakes,
a) few kilometres from the shoreline rivers, ponds, estuaries, backwaters and
inshore fishing. swamps.
Chennai, Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli,
Vellore, Cuddalore, Sivagangai and
Nagapattinam, Thanjavur and
b) Virudhunagar districts production of
Ramanathapuram districts major
inland fish production in the state.
marine fish production in the state.
More districts contribute about 40% to Fishing sector contributes 1.25% of
c)
marine fish production in the state. state’s economy.
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2. Food crops and Non- food crops
FOOD CROPS NON- FOOD CROPS
Sugarcane, cotton, sunflower, coconut,
Paddy, millets and pulses are the
a) cashew, tea, coffee, cardamom and
principal food crops of the state.
rubber are the major Non-food crops
Its grown on Thanjavur, Coimbatore,
b) Its grown on Madurai, Vellore, Nilgiris
Dharmapuri, Kanyakumari
Millets - Mild cool climate and a low to
Sugarcane - requires high temperature
c) moderate rainfall are best suited for
and heavy rainfall.
these crops.
It is mostly cultivated hilly region
d) It is mostly cultivated in plain area.
except sugarcane
Food crops are grown to feed the Non-food crops are grown for earning
e)
farmers own family . money
3. Surface water and Ground water (PTA - 3)
SURFACE WATER GROUND WATER
Its water found in a river, lake or Groundwater is water contained in or
a)
other surface cavity. by a subsurface layer of soil or rock.
The total surface water potential of the The utilizable groundwater resource of
b)
state is about 24,864 mcm the state is 22,423 mcm
Most of the surface water has already
The current level of utilization of water
c) been tapped, primarily for irrigation,
is about 13,558 mcm
where water use is largest.
VII. Give reasons for the following
1. Farmers switch over from inorganic to organic farming.
 The use of organic farming methods can reduce these emissions to considerable scale.
 In natural farming, the nutrients in the soil that are drawn for agriculture will be restored
back in the soil in one form or the other.
 The food it yields will be rich in proteins and nutrients.
2. Cities are densely populated than the villages. (PTA – 4)
 Unemployment and under employment in the rural areas are the push factors and the
employment opportunity and higher wages in the urban areas caused by the industrial
development are the pull factors of migration in the country.
3. Karur is called the Textile Capital of Tamil Nadu.
 Karur is a major centre of exports of home furnishings like table cloth, curtains, bed covers
and towels. This city also famous for cottage and handloom textiles.
 Karur have domestic and the global markets.
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VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph
1. Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu. (SEP - 2021)
a) Tea
 Tamil Nadu ranks second in area and production of tea in India next to Assam.
 Tea plantations are found in the hills of the Nilgiris and Coimbatore.
 The Nilgiris is the notable regions for tea plantations.
b) Coffee
 Coffee plants are grown in the hills of Western Ghats as well as Eastern Ghats.
 It is also found in the hilly slopes of Dindigul, Madurai, Theni and Salem districts.
 Yercaud, Kolli Hills and Kodaikanal are notable for coffee plantations.
 Tamil Nadu stands second in area and production of coffee next to Karnataka.
c) Rubber
 Rubber plantations are significant in Kanyakumari.
d) Pepper
 Pepper is confined to the warm and wet slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats of Tamil
Nadu.
e) Cashew
 Cashew is extensively cultivated in Cuddalore district.
2. Give an account on water resources of Tamil Nadu. (PTA – 6) (MDL - 19)
 Water is the precious gift of nature to humankind and millions of other species on Earth.
 Tamil Nadu constitutes 4% of India’s land area and is inhabited by 6% of India’s
population, but has only 2.5% percent of India’s water resources.
 More than 95% of surface water and 80% of ground water have already been put into use.
 Water resources: River Basins - 17
Reservoirs - 81
Tanks - 41,127
Tube wells and other wells - 4,98,644
Open wells - 15,06,919
 Dams
 Mettur Dam  Bhavani Sagar Dam  Amaravathi Dam
 Krishnagiri Dam  Sathanur Dam  Mullaiperiyar Dam
 Vaigai Dam  Manimuthar Dam  The Papanasam Dam
 Parampikulam Aliyar Project are main water resources of Tamil Nadu.
3. Bring out the mineral distribution in Tamil Nadu.
 Mineral distribution
 Tamil Nadu is the leading holder of country's resources of vermiculite, magnetite,
dunite, rutile, garnet, molybdenum and ilmenite.
 The state accounts for the country's 55.3% of lignite, 75% of vermiculite, 69% of
dunite, 59% of garnet, 52% of molybdenum and 30% of titanium mineral resources.
 Important minerals are found in the states:
a) Lignite
Neyveli has large lignite resources. Coal is also available in Ramanathapuram.
b) Oil and gas
Oil and gas are found in the Cauvery basin.
c) Iron deposits
 They are found in Kanjamalai region in Salem district and Kalrayan Malai region
of Tiruvannamalai district.
 Magnesite ores are available near Salem. Bauxite is found in Servarayan Hills,
Kotagiri, Udagamandalam, Palani and Kollimalai areas.
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d) Limestone
Limestone is available in Coimbatore, Cuddalore, Dindigul, Kancheepuram, Karur,
Madurai, Nagapattinam, Namakkal, Perambalur, Ramanathapuram, Salem and
Tiruvallur districts.
e) Other minerals
 They are obtained in Tiruchirappalli, Tirunelveli, Thoothukudi, Virudhunagar districts.
 Ilmenite and rutile are found in the sands of Kanyakumari beach.
 Limestone is available in Coimbatore, Cuddalore, Dindigul, Kancheepuram,
Karur, Madurai, Nagapattinam, Namakkal, Perambalur, Ramanathapuram,
Salem and Tiruvallur districts.
 Magnesite is obtained in Coimbatore, Dharmapuri, Karur, Namakkal, the
Nilgiris, Salem, Tiruchirapalli, Tirunelveli and Vellore districts.
 Feldspar, quartz, copper and lead are also found in some parts of the state.
4. State the densely populated regions of Tamil Nadu and account for its high density.
5. Explain the different modes of transport available in Tamil Nadu.
6. Write about Road safety rules.
7. What are the causes for manmade disasters and mention the measures to reduce the
disaster. (PTA - 2)
8. Explain any two geographical factors that determine agriculture. (PTA - 3)
 Landform
 Tamil Nadu is a land of diverse landscape comprising of hills, plateaus and plains.
 Among them the plains are most suitable for agriculture.
 The plains with alluvial soil enhances agricultural productivity.
 Example: Plains of cauvery. Agriculture in the plateau is moderate and is poor on the hills.
 Climate
 Tamil Nadu is situated in the tropical zone, which is nearer to the equator.
 The state experiences a tropical climate.
 Hence, the temperature in Tamil Nadu is relatively high almost throughout the year.
 So, only the tropical crops are cultivated.
 Water is another limiting factor of agriculture.
 Soil
 Soil is one of the most essential elements of agriculture.
 It provides essential minerals or nutrients for the growth of crops and vegetation.
 The regions of river valleys and the coastal plains are the most agriculturally
productive regions of the state as they are covered with fertile alluvial soil.
 Irrigation
 Monsoon rainfall in the state is highly irregular. Further it is seasonal.
 Hence, irrigation becomes necessary for successful cultivation of crops in the state.
 In the dry regions, rain-fed crops are cultivated.
IX. Map exercise (Refer page no : 170 to 173 in the guide )
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CIVICS
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1. INDIAN CONSTITUTION
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
I. Choose the Correct Answer

1. Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign
(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular, socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
2. How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once (b) Twice (c) Thrice (d) Never
3. A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through ______
(a) Descent (b) Registration (c) Naturalisation (d) All of the above
4. Find the odd one out. (PTA – 2)
(a) Right to Equality (b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property (d) Cultural and Educational Rights
5. One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right? (PTA – 6)
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary.
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
6. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul
of the Constitution? (SEP – 2020)
(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to equality
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies (d) Right to property
7. How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
8. We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the ________
(a) American Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution (d) Irish Constitution
9. Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368
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CIVICS : UNIT 1  99
10. Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-
State Relations?
1. Sarkaria Commission
2. Rajamannar Committee
3.M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 (c) 1 & 3 (d) 2 & 3
11. Article 14 of Indian Constitution ensures (PTA – 5)
(a) Equality before law (b) Prohibition of discrimination
(c) Equality of opportunity (d) abolition of tiles
II. Fill in the Blanks
1. The concept of constitution first originated in USA.
2. Dr. Sahchidananda Sinha was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent
Assembly.
3. The Constitution of India was adopted on November 26, 1949.
4. Five kinds of writs are mentioned in Article 32.
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article 51A.
III. Match the Following
1. Citizenship Act - a) Jawaharlal Nehru
2. The Preamble - b) 42nd Amendment
3. The mini Constitution - c) 1955
4. Classical language - d) 1962
5. National Emergency (PTA – 4) - e) Tamil
Answer : 1 – c 2–a 3–b 4–e 5–d
IV. Give short Answers
1. What is a Constitution?
 The Constitution is the fundamental law of a country which reflects the fundamental
principles on which the government of that country is based.
 It is the vehicle of a Nation’s progress.
 The concept of constitution was first originated in U.S.A.
2. What is meant by citizenship? (PTA – 5)
 The word ‘Citizen’ is derived from the Latin term ‘Civis’. It means resident of a City.
 Articles 5 to 11 under part II of the Constitution deals with the citizenship.
 The Constitution of India provides for a single and uniform citizenship for the whole
of India.
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3. List out the fundamental rights guranteed by the Indian Constitution?

At present, there are only six Fundamental Rights.
 Right to Equality  Right to Freedom
 Right to Against Exploitation  Right to Religion
 Cultural and Educational Rights  Right to Constitutional Remedies
4. What is a Writ?
 A writ is an order or command issued by a court in writing under its seal.
 It is in the nature of a command or prohibition from performing certain acts that are
specified in the orders of the court.
 Both the Supreme Court and the High Courts are empowered to issue five kinds of writs.
5. What are the classical languages in India?
 In 2004, the Government of India decided to create new category of languages called as
“classical languages”.
 They are, Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Telugu (2008), Kannada (2008), Malayalam
(2013) and Odia (2014).
6. What is national emergency? (PTA – 6)
 The President under Article 352 can declare emergency if he is satisfied that India’s
security is threatened due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion, or if there is an
imminent danger or threat.
 When a national emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression it is
known as ‘external emergency’.
 On the other hand, when it is declared on the ground of armed rebellion it is known as
‘internal emergency’.
7. List out the three heads of the relations between the Centre and the States.
 Legislative relations : The Union Parliament has the power to legislate for the whole or
any part of the territory of India.
 Administrative relations : The Administrative power of a State extends only to its own
territory and with respect to which it has legislative competence.
 Financial relations: The Centre and States are empowered by the Constitution to impose
various kinds of taxes.
8. Write a note on writ of Mandamus (PTA - 1)
Writ of Mandamus protects the petitioner who requires legal help to get his work done by
respective public authorities.
9. Write any two Fundamental Rights. (PTA - 3)
a) Right to Equality
 Art. 14 - Equality before law.
 Art. 17 - Abolition of Untouchability
b) Right to Freedom
 Art. 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty.
 Art. 21A - Right to elementary education.
10. What is Universal Adult Franchise? (PTA - 6)
Universal Adult Franchise gives the right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age
without any discrimination.
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V. Answer in Detail
1. Explain the salient features of the Constitution of India. (SEP – 2021, PTA – 1)
 It is the lengthiest of all the written constitutions of the world.
 It has borrowed most of its provisions from the constitutions of various countries.
 It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
 It establishes a federal system of government.
 It makes India as a secular state. It provides an independent judiciary.
 It introduces Universal Adult Franchise and accords the right to vote to all citizens above
18 years of age without any discrimination.
 It provides single citizenship.
 It makes special provisions for minorities, Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, etc.
2. Point out the Fundamental Rights. (MDL – 19)
a) Right to Equality
 Art. 14 - Equality before law.
 Art. 15 - Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
 Art. 16 - Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
 Art. 17 - Abolition of Untouchability.
 Art. 18 - Abolition of titles except military and academic.
b) Right to Freedom
 Art. 19 - Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement,
residence and profession.
 Art. 20 - Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
 Art. 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty.
 Art. 21A - Right to elementary education.
 Art. 22 - Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
c) Right to Against Exploitation
 Art. 23 - Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
 Art. 24 - Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.
d) Right to Religion
 Art. 25 - Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of
religion.
 Art. 26 - Freedom to manage religious affairs.
 Art. 27 - Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.
 Art. 28 - Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational
institutions.
e) Cultural and Educational Rights
 Art. 29 - Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
 Art. 30 - Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
f) Right to Constitutional Remedies
 Art. 32 - It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their fundamental
rights.
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102  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10 Social th

Science
3. Write briefly on the Right to Constitutional Remedies. / Write about Writs. (PTA - 6)
 Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article – 32)
 A writ is an order or command issued by a court in writing under its seal.
 It is in the nature of a command or prohibition from performing certain acts that are
specified in the orders of the court.
 Both the Supreme Court and the High Courts are empowered to issue five kinds
of writs.
 That is why the Supreme Court is called the “Guardian of the Constitution”.
(a) Habeas Corpus:
Safeguards people from illegal arrests.
(b) Mandamus:
It protects the petitioner who requires legal help to get his work done by
respective public authorities.
(c) Prohibition:
It prohibits a subordinate court from acting beyond its jurisdiction.
(d) Certiorari:
It quashes an order issued by a subordinate court b y overstepping its
jurisdiction.
(e) Quo Warranto:
It prevents usurpation of public office through illegal manner.
4. Mention the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of

State Policy.
S.No Fundamental Rights Directive Principlesof State Policy
It was derived from the It was drawn on the model of the
1
Constitution of the USA. Constitution of Ireland.
Even the Government cannot take These are mere instructions to the
2
away or abridge these rights. Government.
These are enforceable by a court of
3 These are not enforceable in any court.
law.
4 These have legal sanctions. These have moral and political sanctions.
These rights strengthen political The implementation of these principles
5
democracy in the country. ensures social and economic democracy.
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ADDITIONAL QUESTION
5. Print out the list of Fundamental Duties. (PTA – 4)
 Fundamental Duties
 The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of
former USSR.
 In 1976, the Congress party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make
recommendations on fundamental duties.
 Article 51A which for the first time specified a code of ten fundamental duties of the citizens.
 List of Fundamental Duties
 To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag
and the National Anthem.
 To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the national struggle for freedom
 To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
 To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
 To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of
India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to
renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
 To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
 To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and
wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
 To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
 To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
 To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that
the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
 To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of 6 and
14 years.
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2. CENTRAL GOVERNMENT
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. The Constitutional Head of the Union is
a) The President b) The Chief Justice
c) The Prime Minister d) Council of Ministers
2. Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
a) The President b) Attorney General
c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
3. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the: (PTA – 1)
a) The President b) Lok Sabha c) The Prime Minister d) Rajya Sabha
4. What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
a) 18 years b) 21 years c) 25 years d) 30 years
5. The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with? (PTA – 4)
a) The President b) The Prime Minister
c) State Government d) Parliament
6. Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
a) Article 352 b) Article 360 c) Article 356 d) Article 365
7. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:
a) The President b) The Attorney General
c) The Governor d) The Prime Minister
8. One representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative Assembly is
nominated by _______. (SEP - 2021)
a) The President b) The Governor
c) The Chief Minister d) The Speaker of State Legislature
9. How many members are elected to the Rajya Sabha from Tamil Nadu? (PTA - 3)
a) 16 b) 17 c) 18 d) 19
1. Vice President is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. (PTA – 6)
2. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of
65 years. (MDL – 19)
1. i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst persons
experience in the field of literature, science, art, or social service
iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
a) ii & iv are correct b) iii & iv are correct
c) i & iv are correct d) i, ii & iii are correct
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2. i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.
ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court.
iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
a) ii & iv are correct b) iii & iv are correct
c) i & iv are correct d) i & ii are correct
1. Article 53 - a) State Emergency
2. Article 63 - b) Internal Emergency
3. Article 356 - c) Executive power of President
4. Article 76 - d) Office of the Vice President
5. Article 352 - e) Office of the Attorney General
Answers : 1 – c 2 – d 3 – a 4 – e 5 – b
V. Answer the brief questions
1. How is President of India elected? (SEP – 2020, PTA – 1)
 The President is elected by an electoral college in accordance with the system of
proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
 The Electoral College consists of the elected members of both houses of Parliament and
the elected members of the states and elected members of National Capital Territory of
Delhi and Puducherry.
2. What are the different categories of Ministers at the Union level?
The ministers are classified under three ranks. They are,
 Cabinet Ministers
 Ministers of State
 Deputy Ministers
3. What is the qualification of Judges of the Supreme Court?
 Must be a citizen of India.
 Should have worked as a Judge of a High Court for at least 5 years.
 Should have worked as an advocate of High Court for at least 10 years.
 The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of
65 years.
4. Write short note: Money Bill (MDL – 19)
 Rajya Sabha does not have any power to amend or reject the Money bill.
 Lok Sabha can only introduce Money bill and once it is approved by the Lok Sabha, it is
passed to Rajya Sabha for its approval.
 If Rajya Sabha fails to pass it within 14 days then the bill gets passed without the approval
of Rajya Sabha.
 Lok Sabha can reject all the proposals and pass it.
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5. List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India.
 To give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters which are referred to
him by the President.
 Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
 Further he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the
Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be
named a member, but without a right to vote.
 He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament
6. Write a short note on Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (PTA – 3)
 The Lok Sabha is presided over by the ‘speaker’ who is elected by its members.
 The office of the Speaker occupies an essential position in our Parliamentary democracy.
 The Speaker continues to be in the office even in the houses dissolved, till a new Speaker
is elected by the new Lok Sabha.
 The Speaker presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
 He has the power to decide whether a Bill is Money Bill or an ordinary one.
7. What is the Appellate Jurisdiction? (PTA – 4)
 The Supreme Court is the final appellate court in the country.
 As regard the Appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme Court hears appeals against the decisions
of High Court in “civil, criminal and Constitutional” cases with a certificate from the High
Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.
 Such a case can be brought before the Supreme Court only if the High Court certifies that
the case invites a substantial of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
1. Describe the executive and Judicial powers of the President of India. (SEP -2021)
a) Executive Powers
 He appoints the Prime Minister and the other members of the Council of Ministers,
distributing portfolios to them on the advice of the Prime Minister.
 He is responsible for making a wide variety of appointments.
 These include the appointment of Governors of States, the Chief Justice and other
Judges of the Supreme Court and high Courts, the Attorney General, the Comptroller
and Auditor General, the Chief Election Commissioner.
b) Legislative Powers
 The President is inaugurates the session of the Parliament by addressing it after the
general election and also at the beginning of the first session each year.
 All bills passed by the Parliament become “Laws of Acts” only after getting assent of
the President. Money bills cannot be introduced in the Parliament without his approval.
 President terminates the sessions of both or any of the Houses of Parliament.
 He nominates 12 persons who are eminent in literature, science, sports, art and social
service to the Rajya Sabha.
c) Financial Power
 Annual Budget of the Central Government is presented before the Lok Sabha by the
Union Finance Minister only with the permission of the President.
 The Constitution of India places the Contingency Fund of India is at the disposal of the
President. No demand for a grant can be made except on his recommendation.
 He constitutes a finance commission after every five years.
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d) Judicial Powers
 Article 72 confers on the President power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions
of punishment, or to commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence.
e) Military Powers
 Article 53(2) lays down that “the supreme command of the Defence Force of the Union
shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law”.
f) Diplomatic Powers
 The President appoints Indian diplomats to other countries and receives foreign
diplomats posted to India.
 The ambassador designate becomes ambassador after calling on the President and
presenting his credentials.
g) Emergency Powers
 The President has been empowered by the Constitution to proclaim National
Emergency under Article 352, state Emergency under Article 356, Financial Emergency
under Article 360.
2. Explain any three Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India? (PTA – 5)
a) Original Jurisdiction
 The cases which are brought directly in the first instance to the Supreme Court come
under original jurisdiction. These may be,
(i) Dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
(ii) Dispute between two or more states
(iii) The writs are issued by the Supreme Court for the enforcement of the
fundamental rights.
b) Appellate Jurisdiction
 The Supreme Court is the final appellate court in the country.
 As regard the Appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme Court hears appeals against the
decisions of High Court in “civil, criminal and Constitutional” cases with a certificate
from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.
 Such a case can be brought before the Supreme Court only if the High Court certifies
that the case invites a substantial of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
c) Advisory Jurisdiction
 The Constitution confers on the President the power to refer to the Supreme Court any
question of law or fact which in his opinion is of public importance.
d) Miscellaneous Jurisdiction
 The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
 The Supreme Court is authorized to make rules for regulating, generally the practice
and procedure of the court with the approval of the President.
e) Judicial Review
 The power of the judiciary to declare a law as unconstitutional is known as “Judicial
Review”. The Supreme Court of India has Individual Review Power with regard to,
 Dispute between the Centre and the States
 To interpret and clarify a provision of the constitution about which there are
some doubts and differences of opinion.
 Protecting the fundamental rights
Those laws passed by the legislatures which are not in accordance with the Constitution.
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Social Science
3. What are the Duties and functions of Prime Minister of India? (PTA – 2)
Article 78 mentioned the duties of the Prime Minister.
 The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments.
 The Prime Minister is the Head of the Cabinet and the other ministers are his colleagues.
 The Prime Minister informally consults two or three of his senior colleagues when he
does not convene a Cabinet meeting.
 The Prime Minister supervises the work of various ministers.
 To converse to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers connecting to the
government of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.
 The Prime Minister act as the link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
 The Prime Minister is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
 As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all international
conferences like the commonwealth, summit of the non aligned nations and SAARC nations.
4. Critically examine the Powers and Functions of the Parliament.
 The Parliament of India has the functions of Legislation, overseeing of administration,
passing of Budget, ventilation of public grievances, discussion of various subjects like
development plans, international relations and internal policies.
 Parliament is also vested with powers to impeach the President and to remove Judges of
the Supreme Court and High Courts, Chief Election Commissioner and Comptroller and
Auditor-General of India in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution.
 The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the States.
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3. STATE GOVERNMENT
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
1. The Governor of the State is appointed by the ______
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Minister (c) President (d) Chief Justice
2. The Speaker of a State is a _______
(a) Head of State (b) Head of government (c) President’s agent (d) None of these
3. Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative (b) Executive (c) Judicial (d) Diplomatic
4. Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State
Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President (b) The Governor
(c) The Chief Minister (d) The Speaker of State legislature
5. The Governor does not appoint _______
(a) Chief Minister (b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State (d) Judges of the High Court
6. The State Council of Ministers is headed by ____
(a) The Chief Minster (b) The Governor (c) The Speaker (d) The Prime Minister
7. The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is ________
(a) 25 years (b) 21 years (c) 30 years (d) 35 years
8. Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Telangana (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh
9. The High Courts in India were first started at ___________
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras (b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras (d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
10. Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala and Telangana
(c) Punjab and Haryana (d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
11. Who acts as the chancellor of universities in the state? (PTA – 2)
(a) The President (b) The Governor (c) The Prime Minister (d) The Chief Minister
12. The Legislative Council __________ (PTA – 5)
(a) Has a term of five years (b) Has a term of six years
(c) Is a permanent house (d) Has a term of four years
1. Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to President.
2. Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the People.
3. Governor acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.
4. The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission were can be removed
only by the President.
5. Fathima Beevi is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu. (PTA-1, MDL – 19)
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1. Governor - a) Head of the Government
2. Chief Minister - b) Head of the State
3. Council of Ministers - c) Tribunals
4. MLC - d) Responsible for the Assembly
5. Armed forces (PTA – 2) - e) cannot vote for grants
Answer : 1 – b 2 – a 3 – d 4 – e 5 – c
IV. Choose the correct statement
1. Assertion (A) : There are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.
Reason (R) : Certain bills on the State list can be introduced in the State Legislature
only with the President’s approval.
a) (A) is false but R is true
b) (A) is true but (R) is false
c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
V. Answer the brief questions
1. What is the importance of the Governor of a state? (PTA – 4)
 The Governor is the head of the state executive.
 In the exercise of functions and powers, the Governor, except in certain cases, is to
be guided by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief
Minister (under Article 163).
2. What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor? (PTA – 2)
Article 157 and Article 158 of the Constitution of India specify eligibility requirements for
the post of governor. They are as follows:
 He should be a citizen of India.
 He must have completed 35 years of age.
 He should not be a member of Parliament or of any State Legislature.
 If he is a member of any of Legislature, he automatically vacates his seat on assuming
the office.
 He should not hold any other profitable occupation.
3. What is the original jurisdiction of the High Court? (SEP – 2021, PTA – 5)
 In their judicial capacity, the High Courts of the Presidency towns (Bombay, Calcutta and
Madras) have both original and appellate jurisdictions, while other High Courts have
mostly appellate jurisdiction.
 Only in matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of Court, they have
original jurisdiction.
 The Presidency High Courts have original jurisdiction in which the amount involved is
more than S2000 and in criminal cases which are committed to them by the Presidency
Magistrates.
4. What do you understand by the “Appellate Jurisdiction” of the High Court?
 As Courts of appeal, all High Courts entertain appeals in civil and criminal cases from
their subordinate Courts as well as on their own.
 They have, however, no jurisdiction over tribunals established under the laws relating to
the Armed Forces of the Country.
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1. What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?
a) Relating to the Council of Ministers
 The Chief Minister recommends the persons who can be appointed as ministers by
Governor.
 He allocates the portfolios among the ministers.
 He shuffles and reshuffles his ministry.
 He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers and influences its decisions.
 He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of all the ministers.
b) Relating to the Governor
He advises the Governor in relation to the appointment of the following officials:
 Advocate General of the State.
 State Election Commissioner.
 Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission.
 Chairman and Members of the State Planning Commission.
 Chairman and Members of the State Finance Commission.
c) Relating to State Legislature
 The Chief Minister advises the Governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing
the sessions of the state legislature.
 He announces the government policies on the floor of the house.
 He can introduce the bills in the Legislative Assembly.
 He can recommend for the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly to the Governor anytime.
2. Describe the legislative powers of the Governor. (SEP – 2020)
a) Executive Powers
 He appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the
Chief Minister of the State.
 He appoints other members of the Council of Ministers on the recommendation of the
Chief Minister.
 He appoints the Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission.
b) Legislative Powers
 He has the right to summon, prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the State
Legislative Assembly.
 He can address the state legislature at the commencement of the first session after each
general election and the first session of each year.
 He can appoint any member of the Legislative Assembly to preside over its proceedings
when the offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant.
c) Financial Powers
 The Constitution confers on the Governor, the duty to get prepared and introduced to the
State Legislature, the annual budget and also the supplementary budgets, if necessary.
 Money Bills can be introduced in the State Legislature only with his the prior
recommendation.
 He can make advances out of the state Contingency Fund to meet any unforeseen expenditure.
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d) Judicial Powers
 He appoints the Attorney-General of the State.
 He makes appointment, postings and promotions of the District Judges in consultation
with the State High Court.
 The Chief Justice of the High Court in the State is appointed by the President in
consultation with him.
e) Discretionary Powers
 The Governor can reserve a bill for the consideration of the president.
 He can call the leader of any party to form ministry in the state when there is no clear-
cut majority to any party in the Legislative Assembly after the general elections.
f) Emergency Powers
 If the Governor is satisfied that the government of the state is not carried on in accordance
with the provisions of the Constitution, he may, under Article 356, recommend to the
President to impose President Rule in that State.
 As soon as the President Rule is imposed, the administration of the State is carried on by
the Governor as the representative of the President.
3. Critically examine the functions and powers of the Council of Ministers. (PTA – 3)
 It formulates and decides the policies of the state and implements them effectively.
 It decides the legislative programmes of the Legislative Assembly and sponsors all
important bills.
 It controls the financial policy and decides the tax structure for the public welfare of
the state.
 It makes the important appointments of the Heads of Departments.
 It discusses and takes efforts on the dispute with other states
 It frames the proposal for incurring expenditure out of state reserves.
 It decides all the bills whether ordinary bills or money bills to be introduced in the
Legislative Assembly.
 Each minister of the Council of Ministers supervises, controls and coordinates the
department concerned.
 Annual Financial Statement called as the Budget is finalised by the Council of Ministers.
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4. INDIA’S FOREIGN POLICY

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
1. Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
a) Defense Minister b) Prime Minister
c) External Affairs Minister d) Home Minister
2. The Panchaseel treaty has been signed between ……………
a) India and Nepal b) India and Pakistan c) India and China d) India and Sri Lanka
3. Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
a) Article 50 b) Article 51 c) Article 52 d) Article 53
4. Apartheid is …………..
a) An international association b) Energy diplomacy
c) A policy of racial discrimination d) None of these
5. The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to ………….
a) Trade and Commerce b) Restoration of normal relations
c) Cultural exchange programmes d) The Five Principles of Co existence
6. Which is not related to our foreign policy?
a) World co operation b) World peace
c) Racial equality d) Colonialism
7. Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
a) Yugoslavia b) Indonesia c) Egypt d) Pakistan
8. Find the odd one.
a) Social welfare b) Health care c) Diplomacy d) Domestic affairs
9. Non-Alliance means ……………..
a) being neutral b) freedom to decide on issues independently
c) demilitarisation d) none of the above
10. Non – military issues are ……………….
a) Energy security b) Water security c) Pandemics d) All the above
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
11. The Panchsheel treaty has been signed between (PTA – 1)
a) Nehru and Chou-En-Lai b) Nehru and Nasser
c) Nehru and Sukarno d) Nehru and Nkrumah
1. India conducted its first nuclear test at Pokhran (Rajasthan). (SEP – 2020)
2. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate inward investment or domestic
growth and development.
3. Diplomacy is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
4. Non-Aligned Movement was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war. (PTA – 3)
5. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice disarmament.
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III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer.
1. Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from
the code given below. (MDL – 19)
(i) Panchsheel (ii) China’s Nuclear test (iii) Twenty-year Treaty (iv) First Nuclear test of India
a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
2. Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement
a) (i) and (ii) b) (iii) and (iv) c) (ii) only d) (iv) only
3. Write true or false against each of the statement.
a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs. True
b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign
relations. False
c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done under Subterranean Nuclear Explosions Project. True
4. Assertion(A) : India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason(R) : This began with a disastrous Indo –China war of 1962
a) A is correct and R explains A b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is correct and R is Wrong d) Both A and R are wrong.
5. Assertion(A) : India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations. (PTA – 3)
Reason(R) : India is the World’s second most populous country.
a) A is correct and R explains A b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is wrong and R is correct d) Both are wrong
6. Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had
to redeemed from …………….
a) acute poverty b) illiteracy
c) chaotic socio-economic conditions d) all the above
1. Indian Ocean island - a) 1955
2. Land bridge to ASEAN - b) 1954
3. Panchsheel - c) Maldives
4. Afro Asian Conference - d) Foreign Policy
5. World Peace - e) Myanmar
Answers : 1–c 2–e 3–b 4–a 5–d
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V. Give short answers
1. What is foreign policy? (PTA – 1)
 Foreign policy can be defined as a country’s policy that is conceived, designed and
formulated to safeguard and promote her national interests in her external affairs, in the
conduct of relationships with other countries, both bilaterally and multilaterally.
 It seeks to secure the best interests of the people, territory and economy of the country.
 Foreign policy is the nation’s plan for dealing with other nations.
2. Explain India’s nuclear policy. (PTA – 5)
 The two themes of India’s nuclear doctrine are,
 No first use
 Credible minimum deterrence
 It has decided not to use nuclear power for ‘offensive purposes’ and would never use
against any non-nuclear state.
 Indo-US civilian nuclear deal marks a significant progress in India’s foreign policy.
3. Differentiate: Domestic policy and Foreign policy (PTA – 3)
Domestic policy Foreign policy
1. Domestic policy is the nation’s plan for Foreign policy is the nation’s plan for
dealing issues within its own nation. dealing with other nations.
2. It includes laws focusing on domestic Trade, diplomacy, sanctions, defence,
affairs, social welfare, health care, intelligence and global environments are
education, civil rights, economic issues. the types of foreign policy.
4. List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel. (SEP – 2021, MDL – 19)
 Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and soverignity
 Mutual non-agression
 Mutual non-interference
 Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
 Peaceful co-existence
5. What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
 Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers
(America and Russia) who were trying to extend their influence over the newly emerged
nations of Asia and Africa.
 So, he chose the path of Non-Alignment (i.e., not aligning with any bloc) in the face of the
bipolar order of the Cold War and tried to form a third bloc of nations in international affairs.
6. List out the member countries of SAARC.
 Pakistan  Afghanistan  India  Nepal
 Maldives  Bangladesh  Bhutan  Sri Lanka (PAIN MBBS)
7. Name the architects of the Non-Aligned movement.
 India - Jawaharlal Nehru  Yugoslavia - Tito  Egypt - Nasser
 Indonesia - Sukarno  Ghana - Kwame Nkrumah
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Social Science
8. Mention the main tools of foreign policy. (PTA – 6)
 Treaties and executive agreements  Appointing ambassadors  Foreign aid
 International trade  Armed forces
9. What are the main objectives of India’s Foreign Policy? (SEP - 2020)
 National security.  National prosperity.
 Increasing the number of friendly nations.
 Achieving world peace and enable every nation to peacefully co-exist.
 Economic development.
10. In what ways are India’s global security concerns reflected? (PTA – 2)
 Military modernization  Maritime security  Nuclear policies

1. Write a detailed note on Non-alignment.
a) Path of Non-Alignment
 The new nations that got independence after the long period of colonial struggle found
themselves in a very difficult situation with respect to economic development.
 So it was necessary to align with either of the blocs – United States of America (USA)
or Union Soviet Socialist Republic (USSR).
b) India’s foreign policy
 Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers
(America and Russia) who were trying to extend their influence over the newly
emerged nations of Asia and Africa.
 So he chose the path of Non-Alignment (i.e., not aligning with any bloc) in the face of
the bipolar order of the Cold War and tried to form a third bloc of nations in
international affairs.
c) Term - Non-Alignment
 The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was coined by V. Krishna Menon in his speech at the
United Nations in 1953.
 Non-alignment has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign
policy.
 It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not joining any
military alliance.
d) Membership of NAM
 The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of 120 countries
and 17 states as observers and 10 international organisations.
 It has transformed from a political movement to an economical movement.
e) The founding fathers of Non-Aligned Movement :
 Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia,
and Kwame Nkrumah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.
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2. Discuss the core determinants of India’s foreign policy. (PTA – 4)
 Geographical position and size of territory
 Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis
 Natural resources
 The compulsion of economic development
 Political stability and structure of government
 The necessity of peace, disarmament and non-proliferation of nuclear weapons
 Military strength
 International milieu
3. Make any two basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
 Preservation of national interest. (SEP – 2020)
 Achievement of world peace.
 Disarmament.
 Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
 Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
 Independence of thought and action as per the principle of NAM.
 Equality in conducting international relations
 Anti-colonialism, anti-imperialism, anti-racism.
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
4. Write about the policy of Disarmament. (PTA – 2)
Since independence, global nonproliferation has been a dominant theme of India’s nuclear
policy. So India supported UN disarmament programme. Indian nuclear programme in 1974
and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes. The two themes of India’s nuclear doctrine are,
♦ No first use ♦ Credible minimum deterrence
It has decided not to use nuclear power for ‘offensive purposes’ and would neveruse against
any non-nuclear state. Indo-US civilian nuclear deal marks a significant progress in India’s
foreign policy.
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5. INDIA’S INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. Mc Mahon Line is a border between …………… (SEP – 2021)
a) Burma and India b) India and Nepal c) India and China d) India and Bhutan
2. India is not a member of which of the following
1) G20 2) ASEAN 3) SAARC 4) BRICS
Select the correct option
a) 2 only b) 2 and 4 c) 2, 4 and 1 d) 1, 2 and 3
3. OPEC is ………….
a) An international insurance Co. b) An international sports club
c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries d) An international company
4. With which country does India share its longest land border?
a) Bangladesh b) Myanmar c) Afghanistan d) China
5. Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.
i) Salma Dam - 1. Bangladesh
ii) Farakka accord - 2. Nepal
iii) Chukha hydroelectric project - 3. Afghanistan
iv) Sharda River project - 4. Bhutan
a) 3 1 4 2 b) 3 1 2 4 c) 3 4 1 2 d) 4 3 2 1
6. How many countries share its border with India?
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
7. Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island b) Maldieves and Lakshadweep island
c) Maldieves and Nicobar island d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves
8. Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Meghalaya c) Mizoram d) Sikkim
9. How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
a) Five b) Four c) Three d) Two
10. Who drew up the borders for independent Pakistan? (SEP - 2020)
a) Lord Mountbatten b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe c) Clement Atlee d) None of the above
11. The BRICS Organisation’s headquarters is in (PTA – 4)
a) China b) Russia c) Brazil d) India
12. Chabahar agreement was signed between (PTA – 6)
a) India, Pakistan and Afghanistan b) India, Afghanistan and Iran
c) Pakistan, Afghanistan and Iran d) India, Iran and Pakistan
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1. Bhutan is a small Himalayan kingdom.
2. India’s gateway to South East Asia is Myanmar.
3. Nepal is a buffer country between India and China.
4. A strip of land Teen Bigha Corridor, belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.
5. Bhutan is known as the Land of thunderbolt.
6. India and Sri Lanka are separated by Palk Strait.
III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer
1. The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following modes
of transport? 1. Roads 2. Railways 3. Shipping 4. Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Assertion (A) : India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R) : It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic
of Capricorn for co-operation of solar energy.
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both are wrong
3. Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1. ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2. Mayanmar is India’s gateway to western countries.
Statement 3. Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.
Statement 4. Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 4
4. Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
Reason (R) : Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture and
industrial production.
a) A is correct and R explains A b) A is wrong and R is correct
c) Both are correct d) Both are wrong
1. Brandix - a) Vienna
2. COMCASA (PTA – 2) - b) Japan
3. Shinkansen system (PTA – 4) - c) Shanghai
4. BRICS - d) USA
5. OPEC - e) Garment city in Vishakapatnam
Answers : 1–e 2–d 3–b 4–c 5–a
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V. Give short answers
1. Name the neighbouring countries of India. (MDL – 19)
 North-West - Pakistan and Afghanistan
 North - China, Nepal, Bhutan
 East - Bangladesh and Myanmar
 South-East - Srilanka
 South-West - Maldives
2. Write a short note on Strategic partnership Agreement (SPA).
 Indo-Afghan relation was strengthened by the Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA).
 SPA provides assistance to re-build Afghan’s infrastructure, institutions, agriculture,
water, education, health and providing duty-free access to the Indian market.
3. Mention the member countries of BRICS. (MDL – 19)
4. What do you know about Kaladan Multi – Model Transit Transport? (PTA – 2)
 India is building the Kaladan Multi-Model Transit Transport, a road-river-port cargo
transport project to link Kolkata to Sittwe in Myanmar.
 A project aiming to connect Kolkata with Ho Chi Minh City on the South Sea for the formation
of an economic zone will have a road pass through Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam.
5. How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement? (PTA – 4)
 A trilateral agreement called the Chabahar Agreement was signed between India,
Afghanistan and Iran,
 It has led to the establishment of transit and transport corridor among three countries using
Chabahar port.
 This port is seen as golden gateway for India to access landlocked markets of Afghanistan
and Central Asia bypassing Pakistan.
6. List out any five global groupings in which India is a member.
7. What is the role of Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM)?
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
8. State reasons for the formation of BRICS. (SEP – 2020)
1. Highlight India and International organisation with special reference to any three
India’s global groupings.
2. Trace the reason for the formation of BRICS and write its objectives. (PTA – 5)
3. Mention OPEC missions and how does it help other countries? (PTA – 6)
* (1, 2, 3) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 -2022 *
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
4. West Asia stands as a region considerable significance for India – Justify. (PTA - 1)
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ECONOMICS
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1. GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT AND ITS
GROWTH: AN INTRODUCTION
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

I. Choose the correct Answer
1. GNP equals _______
a) NNP adjusted for inflation b) GDP adjusted for inflation
c) GDP plus net property income from abroad d) NNP plus net property income or abroad
2. National Income is a measure of ________
a) Total value of money b) Total value of producer goods
c) Total value of consumption goods d) Total value of goods and services
3. Primary sector consist of _______
a) Agriculture b) Automobiles c) Trade d) Banking
4. ______ approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the
value of the final good.
a) Expenditure approach b) Value added approach
c) income approach d) National Income
5. Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP. (PTA – 5)
a) Agricultural sector b) Industrial sector c) Service sector d) None of the above
6. Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at ____lakh crore in 2018-19.
a) 91.06 b) 92.26 c) 80.07 d) 98.29
7. India is ______ larger producer in agricultural product.
a) 1st b) 3rd c) 4th d) 2nd
8. India’s life expectancy at birth is ______ years.
a) 65 b) 60 c) 70 d) 55
9. Which one is a trade policy?
a) irrigation policy b) import and export policy
c) land-reform policy d) wage policy
10. Indian economy is _______
a) Developing Economy b) Emerging Economy
c) Dual Economy d) All the above
* (8, 9, 10) these quaestions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 – 2022 *
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
11. Net Domestic Product (PTA - 2)
a) GDP – Depreciation b) GNP – Depreciation
c) PI – Direct Taxes d) None of these
1. Agricultural sector is the primary sector in India.
2. GDP is the indicator of health of a country’s economy.
3. Secondary sector otherwise called as Industrial sector.
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
4. Service sector is the growth engine of Indian economy. (PTA – 6)
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ECONOMICS : UNIT 1  123

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS: SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER
1. Find the incorrect statement. (SEP - 2021)
Importance of GDP.
(a) Used to study the Economic Growth.
(b) Used to solve problems of inflation and deflation.
(c) Used to measure the quality of goods.
(d) Used to estimate the purchase power.
2. The rate of savings is low in India for the following reason (PTA - 6)
(i) Low per capita income
(ii) Poor performance and less contribution of public sector
(iii) Poor contribution of house hold sector.
(iv) Savings potential of the rural sector not tapped fully.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
1. Electricity/ Gas and Water – a) National Income / Population
2. Price policy – b) Gross Domestic Product
3. GST – c) Industry Sector
4. Per capita income – d) Agriculture
5. C + I + G + (X-M) – e) Tax on goods and service
Answer : 1 – c 2 – d 3 – e 4–a 5–b
IV. Give short answer:
1. Define National income.
 ‘National Income is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced by an
economy over a period of time, normally a year’.
 Commonly National Income is called as Gross National Product (GNP) or National Dividend.
2. What is meant by Gross domestic product? (PTA – 6)
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total value of output of goods and services produced
by the factors of production within the geographical boundaries of the country.
3. Write the importance of Gross domestic product.
 Study of Economic Growth.  Problems of inflation and deflation.
 Comparison with developed countries of the world
 Estimate the purchasing power.  Public Sector  Guide to economic planning.
4. What is per capita income? (PTA – 3, MDL - 19)
 Per capita Income or output per person is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a
country.
 It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.
Per capita Income = National Income
Population
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th
5. Define the value added approach with example.

 The sum of the value added by all the intermediate goods used in production gives us the
total value of the final goods produced in the economy.
 Example: Value added approach = Tea powder + Milk + Sugar = Tea
(Value of intermediate goods = Value of final goods)
6. Write the name of ecnomic policies in India.
7. Write a short note:
1) Gross National Happiness (GNH)
2) Human Development Index (HDI)
* (6, 7) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 – 2022 *
8. Name the sectors contribute to the GDP with examples. (SEP – 2020)
Agriculture Sector Industry Sector Service Sector
Government, scientific
Iron and Steel industry, cotton research, transport
cattle farm, fishing,
textile, Jute, Sugar, Cement, communication, trade, postal
mining, forestry,
Paper, Petrochemical, automobile and telegraph, Banking,
corn, coal etc.
and other small scale industries. Education, Healthcare and
Information Technology etc.,
9. Give a short note on Secondary sector. (PTA - 2)
 Industrial sector is called as secondary sectors.
 Important industries are Iron and Steel industry, cotton textile, Jute, Sugar, Cement,
Paper, Petrochemical, automobile and other small scale industries.
10. What are the factors supporting to develop the Indian economy? (PTA - 5)
 Improvement in technology  Labour reforms
 Rising living standards  Broader institutional changes in an economy.
V. Write in detail answer
1. Briefly explain various terms associated with measuring of national income.
a) Gross National Product (GNP) (SEP - 2021, PTA – 1)
 Gross National Product is the total value of (goods and services) produced and income
received in a year by domestic residents of a country.
 It includes profits earned from capital invested abroad.
GNP = C + I + G + (X–M) + NFIA
C = Consumption I = Investment G = Government Expenditure
X-M = Export – Import NFIA = Net Factor Income from Abroad
b) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
 Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total value of output of goods and services
produced by the factors of production within the geographical boundaries of the country.
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c) Net National Product (NNP)
 Net National Product(NNP) is arrived by making some adjustment with regard to
depreciation that is we arrive the Net National Product (NNP) by deducting the value of
depreciation from Gross National Product.
NNP = GNP − Depreciation
d) Net Domestic Product (NDP)
Net Domestic Product (NDP) is a part of Gross Domestic Product, Net Domestic Product
is obtained from the Gross Domestic Product by deducting the Quantum of tear and wear
expenses (depreciation)
NDP = GDP − Depreciation
e) Per Capita Income (PCI) or Output per person
Per capita Income or output per person is an indicator to show the living standard of people
in a country. It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.
Per capita Income = National Income
Population
f) Personal Income (PI)
Personal income is the total money income received by individuals and households of a
country from all possible sources before direct taxes.
g) Disposable Income (DI)
Disposable income means actual income which can be spent on consumption by
individuals and families. It can be expressed as DPI = PI − Direct Taxes
(From consumption approach DI = Consumption Expenditures + Savings)
2. What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product? and explain its.
a) Expenditure Approach: (PTA – 4, MDL - 19)
 In this method, the GDP is measured by adding the expenditure on all the final goods
and services produced in the country during a specified period.
 The different types of expenditure are shown in this equation: Y = C + I + G + (X − M)
b) The Income Approach:
 This method looks at GDP from the perspective of the earnings of the men and women
who are involved in producing the goods and services.
 The income approach to measuring GDP (Y) is Y = wages + rent + interest + profit
c) Value-Added Approach:
 In value added approach, add the value produced by each intermediate good used produce it.
 The sum of the value added by all the intermediate goods used in production gives us
the total value of the final goods produced in the economy.
Value of intermediate goods = Value of final goods
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3. Write about the composition of GDP in India.
a) Primary Sector: (Agricultural Sector)
 Agricultural sector is known as primary sector, in which agricultural operations are undertake.
 Agriculture based allied activities, production of raw materials such as cattle farm,
fishing, mining, forestry, corn, coal etc. are also undertaken.
 India is the second largest producer of agricultural products.
 Agriculture and allied sector shares 15.87%.
b) Secondary Sector: (Industrial Sector)
 Industrial sector is secondary sectors in which the goods and commodities are produced
by transforming the raw materials.
 Important industries are Iron and Steel industry, cotton textile, Jute, Sugar, Cement,
Paper, Petrochemical, automobile and other small scale industries.
 In Industrial sector, India’s world rank is 6 .
c) Tertiary: (Service Sector)
 Tertiary sector is known as service sector it includes Government, scientific research,
transport communication, trade, postal and telegraph, Banking, Education,
Entertainment, Healthcare and Information Technology etc.
 In Service sector, India’s world rank is 8.
th
 In the 20 century, economists began to suggest that, traditional tertiary services could
be further distinguished from “quaternary” and “quinary” service sectors.
4. Write any five differences between the growth and development.
5. Explain the following the economic policies. (SEP - 2020)
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2. GLOBALIZATION AND TRADE
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. Who is the head of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) (PTA – 1)
a) Ministerial conference b) Director General
c) Deputy Director General d) None of these
2. Colonial advent in India (PTA – 3)
a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French
b) Dutch, English, Danish , French
c) Portuguese, Danish, Dutch, French, English
d) Danish, Portuguese, French, English, Dutch
3. GATT’s first round held in _________
a) Tokyo b) Uruguay c) Torquay d) Geneva
4. India signed the Dunket proposal in _____
a) 1984 b) 1976 c) 1950 d) 1994
5. Who granted the English “golden Fireman” in 1632 _______.
a) Jahangir b) Sultan of Golconda
c) Akbar d) Aurangzeb
6. Foreign Investment policy (FIP) announced in ________
a) June 1991 b) July 1991 c) July- Aug-1991 d) Aug 1991
7. Indian government was introduced _______ in 1991
a) Globalization b) World Trade Organisation
c) New Economic Policy d) none
* (1 to 3, 5, 6) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 – 2022 *
8. Foreign Exchange Management Act was passed in the year : (SEP - 2021)
a) 1999 b) 2019 c) 1992 d) 2005
9. Which of the following does not come under fair trade food products? (PTA – 5)
a) coffee b) cocoa c) honey d) crafts
* (8,9) these question are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 – 2022 *
II. Fill in the Blanks
1. A better economy introduce rapid development of the Capital market. (SEP – 2020)
2. WTO agreement came into force from January 1, 1995.
3. The term globalization invented by Pro.Theodore Levitt. (PTA – 3, MDL – 19)
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1. Multination corporation in India - a) 1947
2. MNC - b) enforce international trade
3. GATT - c) Minimize cost of production
4. 8th Uruguay Round - d) Infosis
5. WTO - e) 1986
Answer: 1 - d 2 - c 3 - a 4 - e 5 - b
* (1) this question is removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 – 2022 *
IV. Give Short Answers
1. What is globalization?
 Globalization is the integration of a country with the world economy.
 Basically, globalization signifies a process of internationalization plus liberalization.
2. Write the types of globalization. (PTA – 1, 4)
The historical globalization can be divided into three stages.
 Archaic Globalization  Proto Globalization  Modern Globalization
3. Write short note on Multinational corporation.
4. What are the reforms made to adopt globalization?
 Abolition of Industrial licensing, except for a few industries.
 Reduction in the number of industries reserved for public sector.
 Fixation of a realistic exchange rate of rupee to exchange exports of Indian goods.
 Foreign private sector by making rupee convertible on trade, on current account and by
reducing import duties.
 Foreign exchanges regulations were suitably amended.
 The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) was reduced to increase lending by RBI.
5. What is Fair trade?
6. Write any two principles of Fair Trade Practices.
7. Write short note on TRIPs and TRIMs.
* (5, 6, 7) these questions are removed based on the reduced syllabus 2021 – 2022 *
8. Write any two positive impact of Globalization.
 A better economy introduces rapid development of the capital market.
 Standard of living has increased.
 Globalization rapidly increase better trade so that more people are employed.
 Introduced new technologies and new scientific research patterns.
 Globalization increasing the GDP of a country.
 It helps to increase in free flow of goods and also to increase Foreign Direct Investment.
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V. Brief Answer
1. Briefly explain the advantages and disadvantages of MNC. (PTA – 6)
2. Write about the World Trade Organisation.
3. Write the challenges of Globalization. (SEP – 2020, PTA – 2)
 The benefits of globalization extend to all countries that will not happen automatically.
 The fear that globalization leads to instability in the developing world.
 The industrial world that increased global competition will lead in race to the bottom in
wages, labour right, and employment practice.
 It leads to global inbalance.
 Globalization has led to an increase in activities such as child labor and slavery.
 People started consuming more junk food. This caused, the degradation of health and
spread of diseases.
 Globalization has led to environmental degradation.
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3. FOOD SECURITY AND NUTRITION
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. __________ of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which is a
function of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.
a) Availability of food b) Access to food
c) Absorption of food d) none
2. Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government
through the __________.
a) FCI b) Consumer Cooperatives
c) ICICI d) IFCI
3. Which is correct?
i) HYV–High Yielding Varieties ii) MSP–Minimum Support Price
iii) PDS–Public Distribution System iv) FCI–Food Corporation of India
a) i and ii are correct b) iii and iv are correct
c) ii and iii are correct d) all are correct
4. __________ extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
a) United States of America b) India
c) Singapore d) UK
5. _______revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain production.
a) Blue Revolution b) White Revolution
c) Green Revolution d) Grey Revolution
6. __________ is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
a) Kerala b) Andhra Pradesh c) Tamil Nadu d) Karnataka
7. _________is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth.
a) Health b) Nutrition c) Sanitation d) Security
8. Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in __________. (PTA – 6)
a) 1980 b) 1975 c) 1955 d) 1985
9. Basic Component(s) of food and nutrition security is/are (MDL – 19)
a) availability b) access c) absorption d) all
1. Underweight (anaemic) is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency.
2. In the year 2013 National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament.
3. Consumer cooperatives play an important role in the supply of quality goods at responsible
rates to common people.
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
4. Ford foundation from USA introduced HYV in India. (SEP – 2020)
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1. Consumer cooperatives – a) subsidized rates
2. Public Distribution System – b) 2013
3. UNDP – c) least poor region
4. National Food Security Act – d) supply of quality goods
5. Kerala – e) United Nations Development Programme
Answers: 1–d 2–a 3–e 4–b 5–c
IV. Assertion and Reason questions
1. Assertion (A) : Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R) : The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then the
purchasing power is affected.
a) A is correct, R is false
b) Both A and R are false statements
c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation
d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
V. Answer in short
1. Define food security according to FAO. (MDL – 19)
Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social and economic access
to sufficient, safe and nutritious food which meets their dietary needs and food preferences
for an active and healthy life. (FAO, 2009)
2. What are the basic components of food and nutrition security?
Three basic components of food and nutrition security :
1. Availability of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which
is a function of domestic production n changes in stocks and imports;
2. Access to food is primarily a matter of purchasing power and is therefore closely linked
with the capabilities and employment opportunities to earn.
3. Absorption of food is the ability to biologically utilise the food consumed.
3. What is the role of FCI in Green Revolution?
 The season and the state procured the harvested grains through the Food Corporation of
India (FCI).
 The FCI had built huge storage godowns and built buffer stocks of food grain during the
harvest season to be distributed all through the year.
4. What are the effects of Green Revolution?
 Green Revolution was born in the country paving way for self-sufficiency in food grain production.
 Increased food grain production was made possible by an increase area cultivated with
HYV of rice and wheat as also an increase in the yield of these major cereal crops.
 Yield of food grains has increased four-fold between the time of independence and at present.
5. Write some name of the nutrition programmes in Tamil Nadu. (SEP – 2021)
 Puratchi Thalaivar MGR Nutrition Meal Programme
 National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education
 General ICDS Project and world Bank Assisted Integrated Child Development Services
 Pradhan Manthri Gramodaya Yojana Scheme (PMGYS)
 Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme
 Mid-day Meal Programme
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ADDITIONAL QUESTION
6. Explain ‘ship to mouth’ phenomenon. (PTA – 2)
 India had to plead for food grains from richer countries at concessional rates.
 United States of America extended assistance through its Public Law 480 (PL 480) scheme
to India during early 1960s.
1. Elucidate why the Green Revolution was born. (PTA – 3)
 The American administration and philanthropic organisations like Ford Foundation
formulated a plan to increase food production in the country by introducing High Yielding
Varieties (HYV) of wheat and rice.
 This programme was implemented in select districts where irrigation was assured.
 The results were promising and the programme was extended to cover a larger number of districts.
 Green Revolution was born in the country paving way for self-sufficiency in food grain production.
 Increased food grain production was made possible by an increase area cultivated with
HYV of rice and wheat as also an increase in the yield of these major cereal crops.
 Area under food grains was a little more than 98 million hectares during early 1950s.
 The country was producing just 54 million tons of food grains then with an average yield
of food grains of 547 kg per hectare.
 The food situation has steadily improved over a period of 65 years.
 Area under food grain cultivation has grown to 122 million hectares, with an increase of
five-fold increase in food grain production.
 Yield of food grains has increased four-fold between the time of independence and at present.
2. Explain Minimum Support Price. (PTA – 5)
 Minimum Support Price is a price fixed by an expert group for a particular crop by
considering various costs involved in the cultivation of that crop.
 After announcing the MSP, the State will open procurement centres in places where these
crops are widely grown.
 The farmers are free to sell in the open market if they get a better price for their
crop produce.
 On the other hand, if the open market price is lower than the MSP, the farmers would get
an assured price (the MSP) by selling their produce to the FCI.
3. Elaborate the Public Distribution System.
 Universal PDS
 Tamil Nadu has adopted ‘Universal’ PDS, the rest of the states in India had ‘Targeted’ PDS.
 Under universal PDS all ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS.
 Targeted PDS
 In the targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria and given
their entitlements, leaving out the rest.
 Both the Union and the State governments subsidised the supplies distributed through
PDS. The level and quantum of subsidy also varied across states.
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 National Food Security Act
 The National Food Security Act (NFSA) was passed by the Indian parliament in 2013.
 The NFSA covers 50% of urban households and 75% of the rural households.
 These households are known as priority households identified based on a set of criteria.
 Priority households of this country now have the right to food supplied through PDS.
 The Union government supplies rice at the rate of 3 per kg, wheat at the rate of 2 per
kg, and millets at the rate of 1 per kg under NFSA.
 Tamil Nadu continues to have the universal system of PDS and supplies rice at free of
cost to all card holders.
4. What are the factors affecting the purchasing power and explain them.
a) Over population
 The population growth rate in India is high as 1.7 per 1000.
 Large population leads to increasing demand, but supply was not equal to the
demand.
 So, the normal price level will be going higher.
b) Increasing prices of essential goods
 Even though there has been a constant growth in the GDP and growth opportunities in
the Indian economy, there have been steady increase in the prices of essential goods.
 Continuous rise in prices erodes the purchasing power and adversely affect poor people.
 During 2015–16, for an average rate of 2% flood inflation, the prices of pulses rose
by about 40%.
c) Demand for goods
When demand for goods increases, the price of goods increases then the purchasing
power is affected.
d) Price of goods affect the value of currency
When the price increases the purchasing power decreases and finally the value of
currency decreases.
e) Production and supply of goods
The production and supply of goods decline, the price of goods increases, then the
purchasing power is affected.
f) Poverty and inequality
 There exists a huge economic disparity in the Indian economy.
 The proportion of income and assets owned by top 10% of Indian goes on increasing.
 This has led to an increase in the poverty level in the society.
 Generally, purchasing power is affected by poverty and unequal distribution of
wealth also.
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5. What are the main objectives of the new Agricultural Policy?

a) Raising the productivity of inputs
One of the important objectives of India’s agricultural policy is to improve the productivity
of inputs so purchased like, HYV seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, irrigation projects etc.,
b) Raising value-added per hectare
Agricultural policy is to increase per hectare value-added rather than raising physical
output by raising the productivity of agriculture in general and productivity of small and
marginal holding in particular.
c) Protecting the interests of poor farmers
Agricultural policy is proposed to protect the interests of poor and marginal farmers by
abolishing intermediaries through land reforms, expanding institutional credit support
to poor farmers etc.
d) Modernising agricultural sector
The policy support includes the introduction of modern technology in agricultural
operations and application of improved agricultural inputs like HYV seeds, fertilizers etc.
e) Environmental degradation
Agricultural policy of India has set another objective to check environmental
degradation of natural base of Indian agriculture.
f) Removing bureaucratic obstacles
The policy has set another objective to remove bureaucratic obstacles on the farmers’
co-operative societies and self-help institutions so that they can work independently.
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4. GOVERNMENT AND TAXES
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. The three levels of governments in India are _______
a) Union, state and local b) Central, state and village
c) Union, municipality and panchayat d) None of the above
2. In India, taxes are including ________
a) Direct taxes b) Indirect taxes c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
3. Which is the role of government and development policies?
a) Defence b) Foreign policy
c) Regulate the economy d) all of above
4. The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is________.
a) Service tax b) Excise duty c) Income tax d) Central sales tax
5. Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured___________.
a) Value added tax (VAT) b) Income tax
c) Goods and service tax d) Sales tax
6. Income tax was introduced in India for the first time in the year __________.
a) 1860 b) 1870 c) 1880 d) 1850
7. __________ tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.
a) Income tax b) Wealth tax c) Corporate tax d) Excise duty
8. What are identified as causes of black money?
a) Shortage of goods b) High tax rate
c) Smuggling d) All of above
9. Choose the incorrect statement(s). (SEP – 2020, PTA – 2, MDL - 19)
(i) Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money.
(ii) Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money.
(iii) Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money.
(iv) When the tax rate is low, more black money is generated.
a) (i) and (ii) b) (iv) c) (i) d) (ii) and (iii)
10. Find the odd one (PTA – 1)
a) Income tax b) Wealth tax
c) Corporate tax d) Goods and Services tax
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1. Tax is levied by government for the development of the state’s economy.
2. The origin of the word ‘tax’ is from the word taxation.
3. The burden of the direct tax cannot be shifted to others.
4. The Goods and Service Tax act came into effect on 1 July 2017. (PTA – 1)
5. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called black money.
1. Which of the following statement is correct about GST?
(i) GST is the ‘one point tax’.
(ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and State
governments.
(iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout the country.
(iv) It will unified the tax structure in India.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct d) All are correct
1. Income Tax - a) Value added tax
2. Excise duty (PTA – 5) - b) 1 July 2017
3. VAT - c) Smuggling
4. GST - d) Direct tax
5. Black money - e) Indirect tax
Answers: 1–d 2–e 3–a 4–b 5–c
V. Give Short Answers
1. Define tax. (MDL – 19)
 Taxation is a means by which governments finance their expenditure by imposing charges
on citizens and corporate entities.
 The main purpose of taxation is to accumulate funds for the functioning of the
government machinery.
 Tax has come into forefront on account of the new concept of “welfare state”
2. Why we pay tax to the government?
 Taxes are compulsory payments to government without expectation of direct return (or)
benefit to the taxpayer.
 Prof. Seligman also defined a tax as “a compulsory contribution from a person to the
government to defray the expenses incurred in the common interest of all, without
reference to special benefits conferred.”
 Governments also use taxes to fund welfare and public services.
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3. What are the types of tax? Give examples. (PTA – 6)
 Direct Taxes : Income tax, wealth tax and corporation tax.
 Indirect Taxes : Stamp duty, entertainment tax, excise duty and goods and service tax.
4. Write short note on Goods and Service Tax.
 The Goods and Service Tax (GST) is one of the indirect taxes.
 The GST was passed in Parliament on 29 March 2017.
 The act came into effect on 1 July 2017. The motto is one nation, one market, one tax.
5. What is progressive tax? (SEP – 2020)
 Progressive tax rate is one in which the rate of taxation increases (multiplier) as the tax
base increases (multiplicand). Ex : Income tax
 In the case of a progressive tax, the multiplicand (income) increases.
 When income increases, the tax rate also increases. This is known as a progressive tax.
6. What is meant by black money?
 Black money is funds earned on the black market on which income and other taxes have
not been paid.
 The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called
black money.
7. What is tax evasion?
Tax evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by individuals, corporations and trusts.
8. Write any two difference between tax and payments.
S.No Tax Payments
Tax is compulsory to the government
1. Fee is the payment for getting any service
without getting any direct benefits
While a fee is a payment for a specific
If the element of revenue for general
benefit privilege although the special to
2. purpose of the state predominates, the
the primary purpose of regulation in
levy becomes a tax.
public interest.
3. Tax is a compulsory payment Fee is a voluntary payment.
If tax is imposed on a person, he has to
On the other hand fee is not paid if the
4. pay it; otherwise he has to be
person do not want to get the service.
penalized.
In this case, tax payer does not expect Fee payer can get direct benefit for paying
5. any direct benefit. Example: Income fee. Examples: stamp fee, driving license
tax, gift box, wealth tax, VAT etc. fee, government registration fee
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VI. Brief Answer
1. Explain some direct and indirect taxes. (SEP – 2021)
 Direct Taxes
a) Income tax
 Income tax is the most common and most important tax levied on an individual
in India.
 It is charged directly based on the income of a person.
 The rate at which it is charged varies, depending on the level of income.
b) Corporate tax
 This tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities from their
shareholders.
 It is charged on royalties, interest gains from sale of capital assets located in India
and fees for a technical services and dividends.
 Foreign companies are taxed on income that arises or is deemed to arise in India.
c) Wealth tax
 Wealth tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.
 The same property will be taxed every year on its current market value.
 The tax is levied on the individuals and companies alike.
 Indirect Taxes
a) Stamp duty
 Stamp duty is a tax that is paid on official documents like marriage registration
 Documents related to a property and in some contractual agreements.
b) Entertainment tax
 Entertainment tax is a duty that is charged by the government on any source of
entertainment provided.
 This tax can be charged on movie tickets, tickets to amusement parks, exhibitions
and even sports events.
c) Excise duty
 An excise tax is any duty on manufactured goods levied at the movement of
manufacture, rather than at sale.
 Excise is typically imposed in addition to an indirect tax such as a sales tax.
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2. Write the structure of GST.
 Goods and Service Tax (GST):
 The Goods and Service Tax (GST) is one of the indirect taxes.
 The GST was passed in Parliament on 29 March 2017.
 The act came into effect on 1 July 2017. The motto is one nation, one market, one tax.
 Structure of GST
a) State Goods and Service Tax (SGST): Intra state (within the state)
VAT/sales tax, purchase tax, entertainment tax, luxury tax, lottery tax and state
surcharge and cesses.
b) Central Goods and Service Tax (CGST): Intra state (within the state)
Central Excise Duty, service tax, countervailing duty, additional duty of customs,
surcharge, education and secondary/higher secondary cess
c) Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST): Inter state (integrated GST)
 There are four major GST rates: 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%.
 Almost all the necessities of life like vegetables and food grains are exempted
from this tax.
3. What is black money? Write the causes of black money. (PTA – 3)

a) Black Money
 Black money is funds earned on the black market on which income and other taxes
have not been paid.
 The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called black
money.
b) Causes of Black Money

a) Shortage of goods
b) Licensing proceeding
c) Contribution of the industrial sector
d) Smuggling
e) Tax structure
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ADDITIONAL QUESTION
4. Explain the role of taxation in economic development. (PTA – 4)
a) Resource mobilisation:
 Taxation enables the government to mobilise a substantial amount of revenue.
 The tax revenue is generated by imposing direct taxes such as personal income tax
and corporate tax and indirect taxes such as customs duty, excise duty, etc.
b) Reduction in equalities of income:
 Taxation follows the principle of equity.
 The direct taxes are progressive in nature.
 Also certain indirect taxes, such as taxes on luxury goods, is also progressive in
nature.
c) Social welfare:
Taxation generates social welfare. Social welfare is generated due to higher taxes on
certain undesirable products like alcoholic products.
d) Foreign exchange:
Taxation encourages exports and restricts imports, Generally developing countries
and even the developed countries do not impose taxes on export items.
e) Regional development:
Taxation plays an important role in regional development, Tax incentives such as tax
holidays for setting up industries in backward regions, which induces business firms
to set up industries in such regions.
f) Control of inflation:
 Taxation can be used as an instrument for controlling inflation.
 Through taxation the government can control inflation by reducing the tax on the
commodities.
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5. INDUSTRIAL CLUSTERS IN TAMIL NADU
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. ‘The Detroit of Asia’ is ………..
a) Tuticorin b) Coimbatore c) Chennai d) Madurai
2. Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in……….
a) Salem b) Coimbatore c) Chennai d) Dharampuri
3. ……… are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
a) agriculture b) industry c) railway d) none of these
4. Tiruppur is known for …………
a) Leather tanning b) Lock making c) Knitwear d) Agro-processing
5. A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is………..
a) Hosur b) Dindigul c) Kovilpatti d) Tirunelveli
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
6. TANSI was formed to look after (PTA – 3)
a) Small Scale - industries b) Heavy industries
c) Cottage industries d) Light industries
1. Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around Vellore District in Tamil Nadu.
2. Special Economic Zones policy was introduced on in 2000.
3. Entrepreneur is an innovator of new ideas and business processes.
III. Pick out odd one
1. Which one of the following is not having leather factories? (PTA – 4)
a) Ranipet b) Dharmapuri c) Ambur d) Vaniyambadi
2. Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency?
a) TIDCO b) SIDCO c) MEPZ d) SIPCOT
1. Entrepreneur - a) Export Processing Zone
2. MEPZ - b) Coimbatore
3. Indian Ordance Factory - c) Organizer
4. TNPL - d) Aravankadu
5. Machester of South India - e) Karur
Answers: 1–c 2–a 3–d 4–e 5–b
V. Write Short Answer
1. Why are wages low in the agricultural sector?
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2. What is meant by an industrial cluster?

Industrial clusters are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common
markets, technologies and skill requirements.
3. What are the routes for cluster formation?
 Clusters may arise due to many factors. Certain clusters evolve over a long time in history
when artisans settle in one locality and evolve over centuries.
 Handloom weaving clusters are one examples of this development.
 Or else, in some sectors, when a large firm is established, a cluster of firms may emerge
to take care of its input and service requirements.
 At times, governments may decide to encourage manufacturing using raw materials from
a region, which may also lead to emergence of clusters.
4. Mention any three industrial development agencies in Tamil Nadu and their role.
 SIPCOT - State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu
 TANSIDCO - Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development Corporation
 TIDCO - Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation
 TIIC - Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Corporation Ltd
 TANSI - Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Ltd
5. What are the problems of industrialization currently in Tamil Nadu? (SEP – 2021)
 Chemicals, textiles and leather clusters, tend to generate a lot of polluting effluents that affect health.
 Pollute water bodies into which effluents are let into and also adjoining agricultural lands.
 Employment generation potential has declined because of use of frontier technologies
because of the need to compete globally.
 Quality of employment also has suffered in recent years as most workers are employed
only temporarily.
6. What is meant by Entrepreneur?
7. What is Entrepreneurship? (PTA – 4)
8. Why Chennai is nicknamed as ‘The Detroit of Asia’? (PTA – 1)
 Chennai is nicknamed as "The Detroit of Asia" because of its large auto industry base.
 Chennai is home to large number of auto assembly and component making firms.
9. Write a note on SIPCOT. (PTA – 5)
 SIPCOT - State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu.
 SIPCOT was formed in the year 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state by setting
up industrial estates.
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VI. Write Brief Answer
1. What are the important characteristics of successful industrial clusters? (PTA – 1, MDL – 19)
The following are the chief characteristics of a successful cluster.
 Geographical proximity of small and medium enterprises (smes)
 Sectoral specialisation
 Close inter-firm collaboration
 Inter-firm competition based on innovation
 A socio-cultural identity, which facilitates trust
 Multi-skilled workforce
 Active self-help organisations
 Supportive regional and municipal governments.
By collaborating, they can expand their capacity and also learn from one another. Through
competition, they are forced to become more efficient.
2. Write about the Textile industry cluster in Tamil Nadu. (PTA – 2)
a) Cotton textile industry
 Tamil Nadu is home to the largest textiles sector in the country.
 Because of the development of cotton textile industry since the colonial period,
Coimbatore often referred as the "Manchester of South India".
 At present, most of the spinning mills have moved to around the Coimbatore city.
b) Powerloom
Powerloom is however more widespread with Erode and Salem region too having a
large number of power loom units.
c) Knitwear
 Tiruppur is famous for clustering of a large number of firms producing cotton knitwear.
 It accounts for nearly 80% of the country's cotton knitwear exports and generates
employment in the range of over three lakh people since the late 1980s.
d) Garment exporters
 Because of its success in the global market, it is seen as one of the most dynamic
clusters in the Global South.
 While initially most firms were run by local entrepreneurs, at present, some of the
leading garment exporters in India have set up factories here.
e) Exports global markets
 Karur is a major centre of exports of home furnishings like table cloth, curtains, bed
covers and towels.
 Bhavani and Kumrapalayam are again major centres of production of carpets, both
for the domestic and the global markets.
f) Silk and cotton handloom sarees
Apart from such modern clusters, there are also traditional artisanal clusters such as
Madurai and Kanchipuram that are famous for silk and cotton handloom sarees.
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th
3. Write in detail about the types of policies adopted by the Tamil Nadu government to
industrialise. (PTA – 5)
The Policy Factors that helped the industrialisation Process in Tamil Nadu Policy factors can
be divided into three aspects:
a) Education
 Industries require skilled human resources.
 Apart from a lot of attention to primary education to promote literacy and basic
arithmetic skills, the state is known for its vast supply of technical human resources.
 It is home to one of the largest number of engineering colleges, polytechnics and
Industrial Training Centres in the country.
b) Infrastructure
 The widespread diffusion of electrification has contributed to the spread of
industrialisation to smaller towns and villages in the state.
 Along with electrification, Tamil Nadu is known for its excellent transport
infrastructure, especially minor roads that connect rural parts of the state to nearby
towns and cities.
 A combination of public and private transport has also facilitated rural to urban
connectivity and therefore connect small producers to markets better.
c) Industrial Promotion
 Apart from investments in education and transport and energy infrastructure, active
policy efforts were made to promote specific sectors and also industrialisation in
specific regions.
 Policies to promote specific sectors like automobile, auto components, bio technology
and Information and communication Technology sectors have been formulated in the
post reform period.
4. Explain the role of Entrepreneur. (PTA – 6)
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TIMELINE
AND
MAPS
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Time line
Government Exam Questions
Write any five important events between
i) 1920 - 1940 (MDL - 19) (PTA - 2) (SEP – 2020) ii) 1900 - 1920 (PTA - 1, 5)
iii) 1930 - 1950 (PTA - 3, 6) iv) 1910 - 1930 (PTA-4)
v) 1910 – 1940 (SEP – 2021)
Example for Time line
1. Write any five important events between 1850 – 1870.
Time line (1850 – 1870)
MAJOR EVENTS HELD WORLDWIDE (1900 – 1992)

Year Events Year Events
1900 - 1920 1920 - 1940
Young Turkish Revolution, Manchu 1921 French Communist Party
1908
rule declined 1922 Mussolini’s March to Rome
1910 Japan annexation of Korea 1925 Treaty of Locarno, Young Revolution Movement
1911 Chinese Revolution 1927 Formation of Vietnam Nationalist Party
1912 First Balkan war The Great Depression, Treaty of Lateran, Vietnam
1929
1913 Treaty of London, Treaty of Bucharest Military Revolution
Outbreak of World War I, Marne 1931 Hitler became the Chancellor of Germany
1914
war, Sarajevo incident 1932 Ottawa conference
1915 Treaty of London 1933 Hitler became Chancellor
Battle or Verdun, Battle of Jutland, 1934 Long March, Hitler became President
1916
Rasputin murdered 1935 Mussolini invaded Ethiopia
1917 Russian Revolution 1936 Mussolini invaded Rhineland
End of the World War I, Treaty of 1937 Mao became leader, Japan invaded to China
1918
Brest-Litovsk 1938 Munich Pact, Hitler attack to Austria, Czechoslovakia
Treaty of Versailles, Fasis Party Outbreak of World War II, Italy invaded Albania,
1919 formed, Nazi party formed, 1939 Hitler invaded Czechoslovakia, Smuts-Herzog
Dyarchy Act alliance lasted
Battle of Britain, Japan joined to Axis power,
1920 Establishment of League of Nation 1940
Battle of Dunkirk
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HISTORY – TIME LINE  147

1940 -1960 1961-1992
Pearl Harbour incident, Vietnam Liberation Party, Belgrade Conference, Non
1941 Germany invasion to Russia, Atlantic conference, Land 1961 Aligned Movement, Cuban
Lease, Chamberlain resigned Missile Crisis
Battle of Stalingrad, Declaration of UNO, Battle PLOPalestine Liberation
1964 Organisation formed
1942 of Stalingrad, Battle of Midway, Battle of El
Alamein 1967 Arab-Israel War
1943 Italy surrender 1969 Yaasar Arafat Chairman
1944 Bretton Woods Conference 1973 Arab-Israel War
End of World War II, Formation of UNO, Japan 1976 Unification of Vietnam
Surrendered, Hiroshima - Nagasaki Atomic 1979 SENTO, Bagdad Treaty dissolved
1945 bomb dropped, Hitler Suicide, Mussolini 1980 Iran-Iraq War
murdered 1982 Israel-Lebanon War
1946 League of Nations dissolved 1987 Single European Act
1948 International Human Right Day, Israel formation 1988 Sernobel incident
1949 NATO, Council of Europe 1989 Demolition of Berlin wall
1950 Korean War Germany Union, Mandela
1990
1951 End of Marshall Plan released
SEATO formed, Manila pact, Vietnam independence, USSR dissolved, Gorbachev
1954 Geneva conference resign, End of Cold War, USA
1955 Warsaw Pact, Bagdad Treaty, Bandung Conference 1991 invade to Iraq, End of Warsaw
1956 Suez Canal Crisis pact
1960 End of Colonialism 1992 The Maastricht Treaty
MAJOR EVENTS HELD IN INDIA (1800 – 1947)
Year Events Year Events
1800 -1910 1910 - 1947
1801 Tiruchirappalli Proclamation and Carnatic Treaty 1918 Madras Labour Union, Kheda Satyagraha
1806 Vellore Revolt Rowlatt Act, Jalianwalah Bagh
Farazi movement
1919 Massacre
1818
1827 Wahhabi rebellion Khilafat movement, Non-Cooperation
Brahmo Samaj establishment
1920 movement
1828
1831 Kol Revolt 1922 Churi Chura incident
Madras Native Association, First school for 1923 The formation of Swaraj Party
1852 untouchables 1924 Hindustan Republican Army
1855 Santhal brothers Revolt 1925 All India Communist Conference
1856 Widows’ Remarriage Reform Act The appointment of the Simon Commission,
Great Rebellion, Aligarh movement
1927 All India Women’s Conference
1857
1859 Indigo Revolt 1928 Motilal Nehru Report
1860 The first age of consent Act 1929 The Lahore Congress session
1865 First Forest Act Salt Satyagraha, First Round Table
East India Association
1930 Conference
1866
1870 Poona Sarvajanik Sabha Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Second Round Table
Madras Mahajana Sabha
1931 Conference
1884
Indian National Congress, The Bombay Communal Award, Poona Pact, Third
1885 Presidency Association 1932 Round Table Conference
1893 Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha 1935 The Government of India Act
1905 Partition of Bengal, Swadeshi movement 1937 First Congress Ministry in Provinces
1906 Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was started 1940 August Offer, Individual Satyagraha
1907 The Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangam 1942 Cripps Mission, Quit India Movement
1908 The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act 1943 First Tamil Isai Conference
1912 Madras Dravidian Association 1944 Dravidar Kazhagam
1916 Home rule league, Lucknow Pact 1945 Wavell Plan, Simla Conference
1917 Champaran Satyagraha RIN Revolt, Cabinet Mission, Interim
1946 Government
The Kheda Satyagraha, Jallianwala Bagh
1918 Massacre, Peace Conference in Paris, The Treaty of Mountbatten Plan, India won
Versailles 1947 Independence
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148  Way to Success - 10 th

Social Science
LIST OF PLACES FOR MAPS
WORLD MAP
1. The World War I [H-1]
1. Great Britain 2. Germany 3. France 4. Morocco 5. Italy 6. Turkey
7. Serbia 8. Bosnia 9.Greece 10. Austria-Hungary 11. Bulgaria 12. Rumania
2. The World War II [H-3]
1. Axis Power Countries
 Germany  Hungary  Rumania  Bulgaria  Italy  Japan
2. Allied Power Countries
 United States  Canada  Brazil  Norway  England  Netherlands
 Belgium  France  Greece  Poland  Denmark  Moscow
 Russia  China  Australia  New Zealand
3. Hiroshima, Nagasaki, Hawaii Island, San Francisco, South Korea, Tokyo, Cuba
3. Oceans & Seas
1. Pacific Ocean 2. Arctic Ocean 3. Indian Ocean 4. Atlantic Ocean 5. Arabian Sea
6. Strait of Magellan 7. Caribbean Sea 8. Mediterranean Sea 9. Black Sea
INDIA MAP
1.Centers of Great Rebellion (1857) [H-7]
1.Ambala 2. Meerut 3. Delhi 4. Bareilly 5. Agra 6. Lucknow
7. Kanpur 8. Jhansi 9. Gwalior 10. Allahabad 11. Banaras 12. Barrackpore
2.Indian National Movement [H-8]
1. Jallianwalabagh (Amritsar) 2. Meerut 3. Calcutta 4. Gorakhpur 5. Champaran 6. Vedaranyam
7. Sabarmati Ashram(Ahmedabad) 8. Dandi 9. Poona 10. Madras 11. Orissa 12. Nagpur
13. Lahore 14. Chauri Chaura 15. Wardha 16. Bardoli 17. Kheda 18. Bombay
INDIA & TAMILNADU MAP
1.Physical Features [G-1,6]
Extremes of India
1.Cape Comorin 2. Indira Col 3. Indira point
Mountain Ranges
1. Kailash Range 2. Eastern Ghats 3. Aravali 4. Western Ghats 5. Satpura Range
6. Karakoram Range 7. Vindhya Range 8. Pirpanjal Range 9. Ladakh 10. Shiwalik
Desert : 1. Great Indian Desert
Peaks
India: 1. Mt. Everest 2. Kanchenjunga 3. Mt.Abu 4. Nanda Devi 5. K2 (Godwin Austin)
6. Daulagiri 7. Guru Shikhar
Tamil Nadu: 1. Doddabetta 2. Mahendragiri
Plains
India: 1. Ganga Plains 2. Brahmaputra Plains 3. NorthernCircars
Tamil Nadu: 1.Thamirabarani Plains 2. Nanguneri 3. Sankaranayinar Plains
4. Dindugal Plains 5. Musiri Plains 6. Cauvery Delta Plains
Plateaus
1. Deccan Plateau 2. Chota Nagpur Plateau 3.Malwa Plateau
Peninsulas
1. Kutch Peninsula 2. Kathiawar Peninsula
Coastal region
India: 1. Konkan Coast 2. Malabar Coast Tamil Nadu: 1. Coromandel Coast
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List of Places for Map  149

Gulfs
India: 1. Gulf of Cambay 2. Gulf of Kutch 3. Rann of Kutch
Tamil Nadu: 1. Gulf of Mannar 2. Palk Strait 3. Palk Bay 4. Bay of Bengal
Islands
1.Lakshadweep 2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Lakes
India: 1.Vembanad Lake 2.Pulicat Lake 3.Kolleru Lake 4.Chilka Lake 5.Sambar Salt Lake
6.WularLake 7.Manas Sarovar 8.DalLake 9.Moyar
Tamil Nadu: 1.Chembarambakkam 2.Mukurthi 3.Viranam 4.Poondi(Satyamoorthy Sagar)
5.Kaliveli 6.Kothayar 7.AzhiyarParambikulam
Hills
India: 1.Anaimudi Hills 2.Rajmahal Hills 3.Agasthiyamalai
4.Khasi-Jaintia-Garo Hills 5.Dafla Hills 6.Mahadeo Hills
Tamil Nadu: 1.Palani Hills 2.Elagiri Hill 3.Nilgiris 4.Anaimalai Hills
5.Javadi Hills 6.Andipatti Hills 7.Melagiri Hills 8.Servarayan Hills
9.Senji Hills 10.Pachai Hills 11.Kolli Hills 12.Sirumalai
2.Climate & Vegetation [G-2,6]
Monsoon winds, High and low Rainfall Regions
1. Direction of South - West, North - East Winds
2. High Rainfall Regions- Assam, Meghalaya
3. Low Rainfall Regions- Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh
3.Agriculture [G-3,7]
Major Soil Groups
Jammu and Kashmir,
1.Alluvial Soil Uttar Pradesh, Punjab 5.Forest &Mountain
Himachal Pradesh
Rajasthan, Northern
2.Red Soil Jharkhand, Kerala 6.Arid & Desert
Gujarat
3.Black Soil Maharashtra, Telangana 7.Saline&Alkaline Andhra, Karnataka
Assam hills, hills of Kerala, Coastal region
4.Laterite Soil 8.Peaty& Marshy
Karnataka Odisha
Dams
India: 1.Krishnaraja Sagar 2.Nagarjuna Sagar 3.Rana Pratap Sagar
4.Gandhi Sagar 5.Kosi 6.Govind Sagar
7.Hirakud 8.Damodar 9.Chambal
10.Idukki (Periyar) 11.Tungabadra 12.Srisailam
13.Sardar Sarovar 14.Malakand Project 15.Tehri
16.Indira Sagar 17.Bhakra Nangal 18.Narmada
Tamil Nadu:
1.Krishnagiri 2.Sattanur 3.Bavani Sagar 4.Mettur 5.Parampikulam
6.Vaigai 7.Amaravathi 8.Papanasam 9.Mullai Periyar 10.Kothaiyar
11.Manimutharu 12.Gomukhi 13.Wellington
Waterfalls: 1.Hogenakal Falls
Crop Growing areas
India:
1.Rice 2.Wheat 3.Pulses 4.Barley 5.Bajra 6.Sugarcane - Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
7.Cotton - Gujarat, Maharashtra 8.Spices- Kerala 9.Jute - West Bengal, Bihar 10.Oil Seeds -Gujarat
11.Tea - Assam, Kerala 12.Coffee- Karnataka 13.Rubber - Kerala, Tamil Nadu
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150  Way to Success - 10 th

Social Science
Tamil Nadu:
1.Rice- Thanjavur, Thiruvarur 6.Pulses-Triuvarur, Nagapattinam
2.Sugarcane-Tiruvallur, Tiruchirappalli 7.Millet-Coimbatore, Tirunelveli
3.Ragi- Coimbatore, Dharmapuri 8.Tea-Niligiri Hills, Coimbatore
4.Cotton-Madurai, Ramanathapuram 9.Coffee-Kodaikanal, Yercaud
5.Oil Seeds-Vellore, Tiruvannamalai 10.Rubber-Kanyakumari
Fishing grounds
1.Thoothukudi 2.Chennai 3.Kochin 4.Masulipattinam
4.Resources & Industries [G-4,7]
Minerals
1.Iron - Karnataka, Jharkhand 5.Limestone - Andhra Pradesh, Telangana
2.Manganese - Odisha, Karnataka 6.Gypsum - Rajasthan, Jammu and Kashmir
3.Copper - Rajasthan, Jharkhand 7.Mica - Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan
4.Bauxite - Odisha, Gujarat 8.Gold- Karnataka
Coal Fields : 1. Jarkahand 2. Brown Coal – Neyveli
Oil Fields : 1. Mumbai High 2. Bassiem
Nuclear Power Station:
1. Kaiga(Karnataka) 2. Kudankulam (Tamil Nadu) 3. Nararo(Uttar Pradesh)
4. Kalpakkam(Tamil Nadu) 5. Tarapur(Maharashtra)
Renewable Energy Sources
1. Hydroelectric Station -Bhakra Nangal, Hirakud
2. Wind Power Station - Ratnagiri, Thoothukudi
3. Solar power station- Gujarat, Rajasthan
4. Tidal and Wave Energy- Gulf of Kuchch, Gulf of Cambay, Vizhinjam (Thiruvananthapuram),
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Resources and Industry
India
1. Cotton - Maharashtra, Gujarat 5. Paper - West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh
2. Silk - Karnataka, West Bengal 6. Software - Chennai, Hyderabad
3. Iron and steel - Jharkhand, Odisha 7. Automobile - Chennai (Detroit of Asia), Greater Noida
4. Sugar - Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu 8. Electrical and Electronic - Bangalore(Electronic Capital
of India), Delhi
Tamil Nadu:
1. Textile Industry - Coimbatore(Manchester 4. Paper Industry - Kancheepuram, Coimbatore
of Tamil Nadu), Erode 5. Silk - Arani, Kumbakonam
2. Leather Industry - Vellore, Ambur 6. Cement - Ariyalur, Viruthachalam
7. Information Technology - Tidel Park-Chennai,
3. Sugar Industry - Perambalur, Madurai
Coimbatore
5.Population, Transport, Trade, Communication [G-5,7]

Most Densely Populated State- Bihar
Least Population Density State- Arunachal Pradesh
State with Highest Literacy Rate- Kerala
State with Lowest Literacy Rate- Bihar
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List of Places for Map  151

IMPORTANT PLACES – HISTORY (World / India Maps)
WORLD MAP
1. i) Great Britain ii) Germany iii) Russia iv) Hiroshima v) Hawai Island (MDL-19)
2. i) Sanfrancisco ii) France iii) Great Britain iv) Morocco v) Italy (PTA-1)
3. i) Hiroshima ii) Germany iii) Mosco iv) Turkey v) Greece (PTA-3)
4. i) Serbia ii) Pacific Ocean iii) Japan iv) Hawai Island v) Nagasahi (PTA-5)
INDIA MAP
5. i) Vedaranyam ii) Jhansi iii) Madras iv) Jallianwalabagh v) Bombay (SEP- 21)
6. i) Meerut ii) Barrackpore iii) Dandi iv) Chauri Chaure v) Vedaranyam (SEP- 20)
7. i) Delhi ii) Meerut iii) Lucknow iv) Barrackpore v) Jhansi (PTA-2)
8. i) Jallianwala bagh ii) Kheda iii) Bardoli iv) Wardha v) Chauri Chaura (PTA-4)
9. i) Kanpur ii) Champaran iii) Vedharanyam iv) Madras v) Dandi (PTA-6)
IMPORTANT PLACES – GEOGRAPHY (India / Tamilnadu Maps)
INDIA MAP
1. i) Aravalli Range ii) Alluvial soil region one iii) Malabar Coast iv) Direction of South West Monsoon
v) Heavy rainfall region vi) Any one coal mining place vii) Most densely populated state in India
viii) Deccan plateau (SEP-2021)
2. i) Mount K2 ii) Black Soil Region iii) Mumbai High iv) Palk Strait v) Gulf of Kutch vi) Neyveli
vii) Coromandal Coast viii) Rail route from Chennai to Calcutta (SEP-2020)
3. i) Karakoram Range ii) River Indus iii) Malwa Plateau iv) Direction of South-West monsoon winds
v) Kosi Multipurpose River valley project vi) Coffee growing area vii) Masulipatnam
viii) Andaman Nicobar Islands (PTA-1)
4. i) Mumbai High ii) River Ganga iii) Chotanagpur Plateau iv) Direction of North-East monsoon wind
v) A region of black soil vi) Chilika lake vii) Cauvery delta viii) Eastern ghats (PTA-2)
5. i) Electronic Capital ii) River Brahmaputra iii) Deccan Plateau iv) Area of heavy rainfall
v) Hirakud dam vi) Tuticorin vii) Godavari delta viii) Kolleru lake (PTA-3)
6. i) Aravalli Range ii) River Narmada iii) Area of heavy rainfall iv) Damodar dam v) Chennai
vi) Area of cotton cultivation vii) Desert Forests viii) Manchester of India (PTA-4)
7. i) Western Ghats ii) River Tapti iii) Panna bio-sphere reserve iv) Area of Jute cultivation v) Cochin
vi) Jamshedpur vii) Mt. Everest viii) Head quarters of Southern railway (PTA-5)
8. i) Vindhya Range ii) River Mahanadi iii) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve iv) Tea growing area
v) Mumbai vi) Detroit of Asia vii) Area of high density population
viii) a nuclear power station in Tamil Nadu (PTA-6)
9. i) Aravalli range ii) River Cauvery iii) Direction of South-West monsoon winds
iv) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve v) The main region of black soil vi) one International Airport
vii) Atomic power station in Tamil Nadu viii) Railway route from Mumbai to Kolkata (MDL-19)
TAMILNADU MAP
10. i) River Vaigai ii) Sugarcane growing area iii) Kanchipuram iv) Mettur dam v) Nagapattinam
vi) Anai Malai vii) Manchester of Tamil Nadu viii) Coromandel Coast (SEP-2021)
11. i) Chennai ii) Doddabetta iii) Kanyakumari iv) Salem v) River Cauvery vi) Gulf of Mannar
vii) Agathiyarmalai viii) Bay of Bengal (SEP-2020)
12. i) Area of Alluvial soil ii) Cape Comorin iii) Doddabetta iv) Coromandel Coast v) Gulf of Mannar
vi) River Vaigai vii) Tea growing area viii) Papanasam dam (PTA-1)
13. i) Palk Strait ii) Pulicat lake iii) Palani hills iv) River Cauvery v) Poondi Sathyamoorthy Reservior
vi) Thoothukudi Port vii) Ooty viii) Road route connecting Chennai to Bengaluru (PTA-2)
14. i) Elagiri hills ii) Cauvery delta region iii) Makurti lake iv) Area of laterite soil
v) Major Paddy growing area vi) Chembarambakkam vii) Chennai Port
viii) Sea route from Nagappattinan to Chennai (PTA-3)
15. i) Nilgiri hills ii) River Palar iii) Mettur dam iv) Area of mountain soil v) Major Cotton growing area
vi) Sathnur dam vii) Air route from Chennai to Madurai viii) Arabian sea (PTA-4)
16. i) NH 7 ii) Viranam lake iii) Coffee growing area iv) Bavanisagar dam
v) Rail route from Chennai to Trichy vi) Indian Ocean vii) Kudankalam viii) Point Calimere (PTA-5)
17. i) An international airport ii) Tamirabarani iii) Rubber growing area iv) Vaigai dam v) Rameshwaram
vi) Chennai vii) Bay of Bengal viii) Road route connecting Madurai to Kanyakumari (PTA-6)
18. i) Nilgiri hills ii) Coromandel Coast iii) A paddy growing area iv) Bavani Sagar Dam
v) Thoothukudi Port vi) one International Airport vii) Pulicat lake viii) Kanyakumari (MDL-19)
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HISTORY MAPS
UNIT 1, 2: WORLD WAR I
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HISTORY - MAPS  153

UNIT - 3: WORLD WAR – II
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UNIT - 7: 1857 REVOLUTION
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UNIT – 8 : INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT – MAP 1
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UNIT – 8 : INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT – MAP 2
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GEOGRAPHY MAPS
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GEOGRAPHY - MAPS  159
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Public Exam Question Pattern
Qns & Question Serial

Question Type Marks Minutes Time
Marks number
Part – I
(1 marks) Qn. No: 1 - 14 Choose the correct answer 14 20 10:15 – 10:35
Q.No: 1 - 14
Part – II
(2 marks) Qn. No: 15 - 28
Short Questions 20 40 10:35 – 11:15
Q.No: 15 - 28 (28 is Compulsory)
(10 out of 14)
Fill in the blanks /
Qn. No: 29
History - Detail question
History – 2
Qn. No: 30 & 31
Detail questions
a. Distinguish – 2,
Qn. No: 32 b. Give reason - 1 /
Part – III History - Detail question
(5 marks) Qn. No: 33 History - Detail question
11:15 – 12:25
Q.No.: 29 - 42 Detail questions 50 70
(10 out of 14) Geography – 3 questions
Qn. No: 34 - 40
Civics – 2 questions
Economics – 2 questions
Qn. No: 41 History – Time line
Map questions
Qn. No: 42 History – World Map
(42 is Compulsory) (or)
India Map
History – questions
Qn. No: 43 8 15 12:25 – 12:40
In 43rd question, a (or) b
Map questions
Part – IV
a) Geography –
(8 marks)
Qn. No: 44 India Maps
Q.No.: 43, 44 8 20 12:40 – 1:00
(or)
b) Geography –
Tamil Nadu Maps
Revision, verify and underline the important words 15 1:00 – 1:15
Total 100 180 10:15 - 1:15
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Tips for public examination  5
General Tips For Public Exam
jkpo; ehL muR ntspapl;L s;s Nkk;g Lj;j g;gl;l ghlj;j pl;lj;j pd; mbg;g ilapy;
cs; s tpdhj;j his vt;topapy; gphpj;Jg; gbj;jhy; mjpf kjpg;ngz;fs; ngwyhk;
vd; g ij xt;nthU gbepiyahf fhzyhk;!
PART- I (1 mark questions)
 ,g;gFjpapy; nkhj;jk; 14 tpdhf;fs; nfhLf;fg;gLfpd;wd.
 Kjypy; cs;s 1-5 Nfs;tpfs; tuyhW (History) gFjpapypUe;J Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ.
 mLj;j 6-10 Nfs;tpfs; Gtpapay; (Geography)gFjpapypUe;J Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ.
 11 kw;Wk; 12 Mk; vz; Nfs;tpfs; (2 tpdhf;fs;) Fbikapay; (Civics) gFjpapy;
,Ue;J Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ.
 13 kw;Wk; 14 Mk; vz; Nfs;tpfs; (2 tpdhf;fs;) nghUspay; (Economics) gFjpapy;
,Ue;J Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ.
 Method of study
 xt;nthU ghlk; Kbe;jJk; nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s gapw;rp tpdhf;fis (Book back
questions) KOikahf gbj;Jf;nfhs;s Ntz;Lk;. xt;nthU ghlj;jpw;F
,ilapYk; ePy tz;zj;jpy; (blue colour) nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s ngl;b nra;jpfis
(Do you know?) $He;J gbj;Jf;nfhs;s Ntz;Lk;. ,tw;Ws; rupahd tpil
kw;Wk; $w;W> fhuzk; rup/jtW tpdhf;fSk; tUfpd;wd.
PART- II (2 mark questions)
 tpdh vz; 15 Kjy; 19 tiu cs;s 5 Nfs;tpfs; tuyhW gFjpapypUe;J
Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ.
 tpdh vz; 20 Kjy; 23 tiu cs;s 4 Nfs;tpfs; Gtpapay; gFjpapypUe;J
Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ.
 tpdh vz; 24 kw;Wk; 25 tiu cs;s 2 Nfs;tpfs; Fbikapay; gFjpapypUe;J
Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ.
 tpdh vz; 26 kw;Wk; 27 tiu cs;s 2 Nfs;tpfs; nghUspay; gFjpapypUe;J
Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ.
 ,tw;wpy; 28-tJ tpdh fl;lha tpdh (compulsory question). vdNt fz;bg;ghf
,t;tpdhtpw;F gjpyspf;f Ntz;Lk;.
 Method of study
 xt;nthU ghlk; Kbe;jJk; nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s gapw;rp tpdhf;fis KOikahf
gbj;Jf;nfhs;s Ntz;Lk;. ngUk;ghYk; kdg;ghlk; (Rote memory) nra;tij
jtph;j;J njspthf Ghpe;J gbf;f Kaw;rp nra;aTk;.
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PART- III (5 mark questions)
 tpdh vz; 29 Nfhbl;l ,lq;fis epug;Gf (Fill in the blanks) my;yJ tuyhW
gFjpapypUe;J xU tpupthd tpdh Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ. Nfhbl;l ,lq;fis epug;Gk;
tpdhf;fs; ngUk;ghYk; Gj;jf gpd; tpdhf;fshfNt (Book back questions) tuyhk;.
Mjyhy; ghl Gj;jfj;jpd; Nfhbl;l ,lq;fis KOikahfg; gbj;jhNy NghJkhdJ.
 tpdh vz; 30 kw;Wk; 31 -,y; 2 Nfs;tpfs; tuyhW gFjpapypUe;J tphpthf
tpilaspf;FkhW (Detail questions) Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ.
 tpdh vz; 32 NtWgLj;Jf (Distinguish) kw;Wk; fhuzk; $Wf (Give reason) vd;w
tbtpy; 3 Nfs;tpfs; Gtpapay; gFjpapypUe;J Nfl;fg;glyhk; my;yJ tuyhW
gFjpapypUe;J xU tpupthf tpilaspf;FkhW (Detail questions) Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ.
 tpdh vz; 33 kw;Wk; 34 -,y; 2 Nfs;tpfs; tuyhW gFjpapypUe;J tphpthf
 tpdh vz; 35 kw;Wk; 36 -,y; 2 Nfs;tpfs; Gtpapay; gFjpapypUe;J tphpthf
 tpdh vz; 37 kw;Wk; 38 -,y; 2 Nfs;tpfs; Fbikapay; gFjpapypUe;J tphpthf
 tpdh vz; 39 kw;Wk; 40 -,y; 2 Nfs;tpfs; nghUspay; gFjpapypUe;J tphpthf
 Time line : 41tJ tpdh tuyhw;wpy; ele;j 5 Kf;fpa epfo;Tfs; (important events)
eilg;ngw;w tUlq;fisf; fhyf;Nfhl;by; Fwpf;FkhW tpdh tuyhw;W gFjpapypUe;J
Nfl;fg;gLfpd;wd. ,q;F 1800 Kjy; 1950 tiuapyhd tuyhw;W epfo;Tfs; cyfk;
- ,e;jpah vd;w tifapy; KOikahf jpUg;Gjy; (revision) nra;a Ntz;Lk;. ek;
Gj;jfj;jpy; Kf;fpa tuyhw;W epfo;Tfs; Mz;L thupahf (year wise) gphpj;Jf;
nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;sd.
1. 1885 – 1919 2. 1900 – 1920 3. 1920 – 1940 4. 1930 – 1950
5. 1910 – 1930 6. 1920 – 1950 7. 1935 – 1950
 fhyf;NfhL tpdhg;gFjpapy; Nkw;fz;l Mz;LfNs (above years) ngUk;ghYk;
tpdhf;fspy; Nfl;f tha;g;gpUf;fpwJ. vdNt ,tw;wpw;F Kf;fpaj;Jtk; nfhLj;J
gbf;f Ntz;Lk;.
 World map : 42MtJ tpdh cyf tiuglj;jpy; nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s ,lq;fis
Fwpf;FkhW Nfl;fg;gl;bUf;Fk;. ,g;gFjpapy; cyfk; kl;Lkpd;wp ,e;jpah tuTk;
tha;g;G ,Uf;fpwJ. cyf tiuglk; vd;W ghHf;Fk; NghJ Kjy; ,uz;L cyfg;NghH
epfo;Tfis (First two world wars) Kf;fpakhf gbj;Jf;nfhs;s Ntz;Lk;. ,e;jpah
vd ghHf;Fk; NghJ 1857 Gul;rp Kjy; 1950 ,e;jpa FbauR jpdk; tiu (From
1857 Great Rebillion to 1950 Indian Republic day) cs;s epfo;Tfisj; (events)
KOikahf gbf;f Ntz;Lk;. 42MtJ tpdhtpw;F fl;lhakhf (compulsory question)
tpilaspf;f Ntz;Lk;.
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PART- IV (8 mark questions)
 ,g;gFjpapy; nkhj;jk; 4 tpdhf;fs; ‘my;yJ’ tifapy; nfhLf;fg;gLfpwJ.
 43tJ tpdh tuyhW gFjpapypUe;J tphpthf tpilaspf;FkhW (Detail questions)
8 kjpg;ngz; tpdhf;fs; Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ.
,q;F 43-y;…. m. tpdh - Kjy; 5 ghlq;fspy; ,Ue;Jk;>

(my;yJ)
M. tpdh - mLj;j 5 ghlq;fspy; ,Ue;Jk; Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ.
 44tJ tpdh Gtpapay; gFjp tiuglj;jpypUe;J (Geography map) 8 kjpg;ngz;fs;
fpilf;Fk; tifapy; ,e;jpah my;yJ jkpo;ehl;by; 8 ,lq;fis Fwpf;FkhW
tpdhf;fs; Nfl;fg;gLfpwJ.
m) India map : ,t;tpdhtpy; ,e;jpahtpd; Kf;fpa Physical divisions, mountain
ranges, plateaus, plains, islands, deserts, monsoons, soil types, software industries,
atomic powerstations, Nghd;wtw;iw gw;wpAk; Nfl;fg;gl tha;g;G ,Uf;fpwJ.
(or)
M) Tamil Nadu map : ,t;tpdhtpy; jkpofj;jpd; important places and Physical

divisions, peaks, Plateaus, Plains, dams, harbours, rivers, lakes, International and
domestic airports Nghd;wtw;iw gw;wpAk; Nfl;fg;gl tha;g;G ,Uf;fpwJ.
 vspikahd gFjpfis kl;Lk; ngd;rpypy; Fwpj;Jk;> mk;G Fwpapl;Lk; (put arrows)>
epoypl;Lk; (make shade) Ngdhtpy; vOjTk;.
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IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER
HISTORY
Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century
Name of the Movement Founder Year Place of origin

1. Brahmo Samaj Raja Rammohan Roy 1828 Calcutta
2. Adi Brahmo Samaj Debranath Tagore 1886 Calcutta
3. Prarthana samaj Atma Ram Pandurang 1867 Mumbai
4. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha M.G. Ranade 1870 Poona
5. Arya Samaj Swami Dayanand
1875 Mumbai
Saraswati
6. Ramakrishna mission Vivekanandha 1886 Calcutta
7. Theosophical movement H.P. Blavatsky, H.S.
1875 America
Olcott
8. Satyashodak Samaj Jyothiba Phule 1852 Poona
9. Dharma Paripalana Yogam Narayana Guru 1903 Kerala
10. Sadhu Jana Paripalana
Ayyankali 1907 Thiruvananthapuram
sangam
11. Aligarh movement Sir Sayid Ahmed Khan 1875 Uttar Pradesh
Muhammad Qasim
12. Deoband movement Wanotavi, Rashid Ahmad 1867 Uttar Pradesh
Gangotri
13. Rahnumai Mazdayasnan
Furdunji Naoroji 1851 Mumbai
Sabha
14. Nirankari movement Baba Dayal Dass 1840 Punjab
15. Namdhari movement Baba Ramsingh 1857 Punjab
16. Samarasa Suddha
Vallalar 1856 Vadaloor
Sanmarga Satya Sanga
17. Samathuva Samajam Vaikunda Swamikal 1839 Kerala
18. Advaidananda Sabha 1876 Nilgiris
19. Dravida Mahajana Sabha Iyothee Thassar 1891 Nilgiris
20. Sakya Buddist Society 1898 Chennai
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GEOGRAPHY
1. Large producing states with respect to resources
MINERALS
Metallic Non-Metallic
1. Iron Ore Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, 1. Mica
Rajasthan, Odisha,
Maximum: Odisha, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Maximum:
Jharkhand
Karnataka Goa, Kerala, Tamil Nadu Andhra Pradesh
2. Manganese Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Rajasthan,
Maximum: Goa, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, 2. Lime stone Madhya Pradesh, Tamil
Odisha Gujarat, Telangana, West Bengal Maximum: Nadu, Karnataka,
Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Andhra Pradesh Gujarat, Meghalaya,
Chhattisgarh
3. Copper Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka,
Maximum: Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Jammu and Kashmir,
Rajasthan Odisha, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, 3. Gypsum Tamil Nadu, Gujarat,
Uttarakhand, West Bengal Himachal Pradesh,
Maximum: Karnataka, Uttarakhand,
4. Bauxite Gujarat, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Rajasthan Andhra Pradesh,
Maximum: Odisha Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu Madhya Pradesh
ENERGY RESOURCES
Non-Renewable Energy Renewable/Non-Conventional resources
Odisha, West Bengal, Madhya
Assam, Arunachal
1. Coal Pradesh, Assam, Jammu and
1. Hydro Power Pradesh, Manipur,
Maximum: Kashmir, Chhattisgarh, West
Nagaland, Tripura,
Jharkhand Bengal, Andhra Pradesh,
Western Ghats
Maharashtra
Western coast offshore: Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat,
2. Solar Energy
Mumbai (Max), Gujarat coast, Rajasthan, Maharashtra,
2. Petroleum Ahmedabad Madhya Pradesh
(or) Eastern coast offshore: Upper
Crude oil Assam, Andaman and Nicobar, 3. Wind Energy Gujarat, Maharashtra,
Gulf of Mannar, Punjab, Maximum: Tamil Nadu Tamil Nadu
Haryana, Uttar Pradesh
Gujarat, Assam, Tamil Nadu,
3. Natural Gas 4. Tidal & wave Gulf of Cambay,
Tripura, Rajasthan, Arunachal
Maximum: Energy Gulf of Kutch,
Pradesh, Punjab, Jammu &
Mumbai Thiruvananthapuram
Kashmir, West Bengal
Conventional Energy Sources
Assam, Bihar, Jharkhand, Mumbai, Rajasthan, Tamil
1. Thermal
Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, West 2. Nuclear power Nadu, Uttar Pradesh,
Power
Bengal, Tamil Nadu Karnataka, Gujarat
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2. Important Physiographic Divisions of Tamil Nadu
Major Hills of the Western Ghats Major Hills of the Eastern Ghats
Nilgiri Hills Anaimalai
Javadhu Hills
Palani Hills Cardamom Hills Kalvarayan Hills
Servarayan Hills
Varusanadu Hills Andipatti Hills Kolli Hills
Pachaimalai
Pothigai Hills Mahendragiri Hills
Peaks in Western Ghats Peaks in Eastern Ghats
Doddabetta Mukkuruthi Shervarayan temple Mazhamalai
Vembadisolai Perumalmalai Urgamalai Kuttirayan
Kottaimtalai Pagasura Muganur Valsamalai
Major hills in Tamil Nadu Plateaus

Districts Hills
Coimbatore Maruthamalai, Velliangiri and Anaimalai Bharamahal plateau
Coimbatore plateau
Dharmapuri Theertha malai, Chitteri and Vathalmalai
Sigur plateau
Dindigul Pazhamalai and Kodaikanal Madurai plateau
Erode Chenni hills and Sivan hills
Vellore Javadhu, Yelagiri and Rathinamalai hills Drainage
Namakkal Kolli hills
Salem Servarayan, Kanjamalai and Chalk hills Cauvery
Villupuram Kalvarayan and Gingee hills Palar
Perambalur Pachaimalai Ponnaiyar
Kanyakumari Marunthuvazhmalai Vaigai
Tirunelveli Mahendragiri and Agasthiyarmalai Thamirabarani
The Nilgiris Nilgiri hills
Plains major islands

Inland plains Coastal plains
Pamban, Hare, Krusadai,
Salem, Erode, Karur, Chennai, Thiruvallur, Kanchipuram,
Nallathanni Theevu, Pullivasal,
Tiruchirapalli, Villupuram, Cuddalore, Thiruvarur,
Srirangam, Upputanni, Island
Pudukottai, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur, Pudukottai,
Grounds, Kattupalli Island,
Thanjavur, Tiruvarur Ramanathapuram,
Quibble Island, Vivekananda
and Thoothukudi, Tirunelveli,
Rock Memorial
Nagapattinam Kanyakumari
Major waterfalls in Tamil Nadu
District Waterfalls
Dharmapuri Hogenakkal
Thirunelveli Kalyanatheertham, Courtallam
Theni Kumbakkarai and Suruli
Namakkal Agayagangai
The Nilgiri Catherine and Pykara
Salem Kiliyur
Virudhunagar Ayyanar
Coimbatore Vaideki, Sengupathi, Siruvani and Kovaikutralam
Tiruppur Tirumurthy
Madurai Kutladampatti
Kanyakumari Tirparappu, Kaalikesam, Ulakkai and Vattaparai
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Wildlife Sanctuaries Birds Sanctuaries
Sanctuary District Sanctuary District
Mudumalai The Nilgiris Vettangudi Sivaganga
Mundanthurai Tirunelveli Pulicat Lake Tiruvallur
Point Calimere Nagapattinam Karikili Kancheepuram
Indira Gandhi Coimbatore Kanjirankulam Ramanathapuram
Kalakad Tirunelveli Chitrangudi Ramanathapuram
Koonthankulam
Vallanadu Thoothukudi Tirunelveli
Kadankulam
Grizzled Giant Virudhunagar Vellode Erode
Kanyakumari
Kanyakumari Vedanthangal Kancheepuram
Wildlife
Sathyamangalam Erode Udayamarthandapuram Tiruvarur
Melaselvanur
Megamalai Theni and Madura Ramanathapuram
Keelselvanur
Kodaikanal Dindigul and Theni Vaduvoor Tiruvarur
Gangaikondan Tirunelveli Karaivetti Ariyalur
Cauvery North Dharmapuri and
Theerthangal Ramanathapuram
Wildlife Krishnagiri
Sakkarakottai Tank Ramanathapuram
Nellai Wildlife Tirunelveli
Oussudu Lake Villupuram
Biosphere Reserves in Tamil Nadu Natural Disasters in Tamil Nadu
Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
Landslide, Flood, Cyclone, Drought, Forest Fire,
Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
Tsunami, Earthquakes
Agasthiyarmalai Biosphere Reserve
Distribution of major crops in Tamil Nadu
Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Tiruvallur, Kancheepuram, Villupuram,
Paddy
Cuddalore and Tirunelveli
Coimbatore, Dharmapuri, Vellore, Cuddalore, Ramanathapuram,
Millets
Tirunelveli, Karur, Perambalur and Salem
Coimbatore, Vellore and Kanyakumari, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam and
Pulses
Thoothukudi, Dharmapuri and Krishnagiri
Vellore, Tiruvannamalai, Villupuram, Salem, Pudukottai, Dharmapuri,
Oil Seeds Cuddalore, Perambalur, Madurai, Erode, Ramanathapuram, Sivagangai
Virudhunagar, Coimbatore, Thanjavur and Kanyakumari
Tiruvallur, Kancheepuram, Vellore, Cuddalore, Tiruchirapalli, Coimbatore,
Sugarcane
Erode and Tirunelveli.
Coimbatore, Madurai, Ramanathapuram, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli,
Cotton
Thoothukudi, Salem and Dharmapuri districts.
Plantation crops Tea, Coffee, Cashew, Rubber, Cinchona, Cardamom, Pepper
www.nammakalvi.com

3. Multi purpose River valley Projects in Tamilnadu
Name of the Dam District River
1. Mettur dam Salem Cauveri
2. Bavani Sagar dam Erode Bavani
3. Amaravathi dam Tiruppur Amaravathi
4. Krishnagiri dam Krishangiri Thenpennai
5. Sathanur dam Tiruvannamalai Thenpennai
6. Mullai Periyar dam Kerala State Periyar
7. Vaigai dam Madurai Vaigai
8. Manimuthar dam Thirunelveli Thamirabarani
9. Papanasam dam Thirunelveli Thamirabarani
10. Parambikulam Aliyar Project Palani Aliyar, Parambikulam
4. Important Agricultural revolutions in India
Revolutions Products
Yellow Revolution Oil seed Production (Especially Mustard and Sunflower)
Blue Revolution Fish Production
Brown Revolution Leather / Cocoa / Non-Conventional Products
Golden Fibre Revolution Jute Production
Golden Revolution Fruits / Honey Production / Horticulture Development
Grey Revolution Fertilizers
Pink Revolution Onion Production / Pharmaceuticals / Prawn Production
Evergreen Revolution Overall Production of Agriculture
Silver Revolution Egg Production / Poultry Production
Silver Fibre Revolution Cotton
Red Revolution Meat Production / Tomato Production
Round Revolution Potato
Green Revolution Food Grains
White Revolution Milk Production
Most least
Population
State : Bihar State : Arunachal Pradesh
Density
U. Territory : Delhi U. Territory : Andaman & Nicobar
State : Kerala U. Territory : Diu Daman
Sex ratio
U. Territory : Puducherry
State : Kerala State : Bihar
Literacy rate
U. Territory : Lakshadweep
States : Tamil Nadu, Kerala, State: Himachal Pradesh
Urbanisation Maharashtra, Chandigarh
U. Territory : Goa, Delhi
The Important Years - Geography
1895 - Mullaiperiyar dam
1897 - The first hydro-electric power station
1940 - Nuclear power programme in India
1967 - The Vainu Bappu Observatory
1902 - First Rubber plantation established in Kerala
1992 - United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity
2015 - Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS)
2018 - National year of millets
www.nammakalvi.com

CIVICS;
I. RIGHT TO EQUALITY II. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
Art. 14 - Equality before law. Art. 19 - Freedom of speech and expression,
Art. 15 - Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of assembly, association, movement,
religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. residence and profession.
Art. 16 - Equality of opportunity in matters of public Art. 20 - Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
employment. Art. 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty.
Art. 17 - Abolition of Untouchability. Art. 21A - Right to elementary education.
Art. 18 - Abolition of titles except military and Art. 22 - Protection against arrest and detention in
academic. certain cases.
IV. RIGHT TO RELIGION
III. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION Art. 25 - Freedom of conscience and free profession,
practice and propagation of religion.
Art. 23 - Prohibition of traffic in human beings and Art. 26 - Freedom to manage religious affairs.
forced labour. Art. 27 - Freedom from payment of taxes for
Art. 24 - Prohibition of employment of children in promotion of any religion.
factories, etc., Art. 28 - Freedom from attending religious instruction or
worship in certain educational institutions.
V. CULTURAL & EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS
Art. 29 - Protection of language, script and culture of VI. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
minorities. Art. 32 - It allows individuals to seek redressal for
Art. 30 - Right of minorities to establish and the violation of their fundamental rights.
administer educational institutions.
www.nammakalvi.com

ECONOMICS;;
1. Important Formulae 2. Important Taxes
GDP: Gross Domestic Product Direct Taxes:
It is the total value of output of goods & services Income Tax: It is the most common and most
produced by factors of production within important tax levied on an individual in India. It is
geographical boundaries of India. charged directly based on the income of a person.
GNP: Gross National Product Corporate tax: This tax is levied on companies that
GNP = C + I + G + (X–M) + NFIA exist as separate entities from their shareholders.
Where, C = Consumption I = Investment Wealth tax: It is charged on the benefits derived
G = Government Expenditure from property ownership. The same property will be
X − M = Export – Import taxed every year on its current market value.
NFIA = Net Factor Income from Abroad Indirect Taxes:
NNP: Net National Product Stamp duty: It is a tax that is paid on official
NNP = GNP – Depreciation documents like marriage registration, some
NDP: Net Domestic Product contractual agreements, etc.,
NDP = GDP – Depreciation Entertainment tax: It is a duty that is charged by
PCI: Per Capita Income / output per person the government on any source of the entertainment
National Income
Per capita Income = provided.
Population of a country
PI: Personal Income An excise tax: It is any duty on manufactured goods
PI = NI corporate Income Taxes − Undistributed levied at the movement of manufacture.
corporate profits − social security contribution + Goods and service tax: It is defined as the tax levied
Transfer payment when a consumer buys a good or service.
DI/DPI: Disposable Income  State Goods and Service Tax (SGST)
DPI = PI − Direct Taxes (OR)  Central Goods and Service Tax (CGST)
DI = Consumption Expenditures + Savings  Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST)
The Important Years

Civics Economics
1950 - The Indian Constitution 1600 - The East India Company establishment
1950 - The Supreme Court of India 1616 - Formation of East India company
inauguration 1947 - General Agreement of Trade and Tariff(GATT)
1954 - Panchsheel 1949 - Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment Corporation Ltd
1955 - The First language committee 1965 - Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation
1963 - The Official Language Act 1970 - Tamil Nadu Small industries Development Corporation
1971 - Indo – Soviet treaty 1971 - State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu
1974 - Subterranean Nuclear 1974 - Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
Explosions Project 1990 - New Economic Policy
1977 - Farakka accord 2013 - National Food Security Act
1992 - The Look East Policy 2016 - Enactment of the Benami Transactions Amendment Act
1998 - The second nuclear test at 2016 - Standup India Scheme
Pokhran 2016 - Startup India Scheme
2015 - BRICS Summit 2016 - The Real Estate Act
2019 - New Andhra Pradesh High 2017 - The goods and service tax
Court 2018 - The new agricultural policy
*******

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HISTORY

16  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10th Social Science

1. OUTBREAK OF WORLD WAR I AND ITS

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

18  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10 Social Science th

8. Write any two provisions of the Treaty of Versailles. (PTA - 6)

20  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10th Social Science

2. THE WORLD BETWEEN TWO WORLD WARS

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

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3. What was the result of Mussolini’s march on Rome?

24  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10th Social Science

26  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10 Social Science th

4. THE WORLD AFTER WORLD WAR II

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

28  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10th Social Science

30  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10th Social Science

5. SOCIAL AND RELIGIOUS REFORM

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

I. Choose the correct answer

32  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10 Social Science th

3. Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.

34  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10 Social Scienceth

 World Congress Religions in Chicago

36  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10th Social Science

6. EARLY REVOLTS AGAINST BRITISH

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

38  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10 Social Science

5. Highlight the essence of the Tiruchirappalli Procalamation of 1801.

VI. Answer the following in detail

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3. Account for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806. (SEP – 2021)

42  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10th Social Science

7. ANTI-COLONIAL MOVEMENTS AND THE

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

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5. Summarise the essence of Lucknow Pact.

46  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10 Social Science

8. NATIONALISM: GANDHIAN PHASE

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

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54  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10th Social Science

9. FREEDOM STRUGGLE IN TAMIL NADU

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

Answer : 1 – d 2–e 3–b 4–c 5–a

56  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10th Social Science

58  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10 Social Science

5. What do you know about ‘salt’ march to Vedaranyam? (MDL - 19)

10. SOCIAL TRANSFORMATION IN

I. Choose the correct answer.

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1. INDIA – LOCATION, RELIEF AND

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VII. Map exercises (Refer page no : 158 to 161 in the Guide)

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