MODULE-1

1. The term “Environment” has been derived from French word ___________ which means to encircle or
surround
a. Environ b. Oikos c. Geo d. Aqua

2. The objectives of environmental education is

a. Raise consciousness about environmental conditions
b. To teach environmentally appropriate behavior
c. Create an environmental ethic
d. All of the above
e.
3. Which of the following conceptual spheres of the environment is having the least storage capacity for
matter?
a. Atmosphere b. Lithosphere c. Hydrosphere d. Biosphere

4. Which of the following components of the environment are effective transporters of matter?
a. Atmosphere and Hydrosphere b. Atmosphere and Lithosphere
b. Hydrosphere and Lithosphere d. Biosphere and Lithosphere

5. Biosphere is
a. The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the earth
b. The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of earth comprising of all the living things
c. The sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all the spheres
d. All of the above

6. Atmosphere consists of 79% Nitrogen and 21% Oxygen by

a. Volume b. Weight c. Density d. All the three

7. Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?

a. Fungi b. Solar light c. Temperature d. Humidity

8. In an ecosystem, the flow of energy is

a. Bidirectional b. Cyclic c. Unidirectional d. Multidirectional

9. Which pyramid is always upright

a. Energy b. Biomass c. Numbers d. Food chain

10. In complex ecosystems the degree of species diversity is

a. Poor b. High c. Medium d. None

11. The organisms who directly feed on producers are called

a. Herbivores b. Carnivores c. Decomposers d. Saprophytes
12. The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is called
a. Food chain b. Carbon cycle c. Hydrological cycle d. Anthroposystem

13. Which of the following is a producer in an ecosystem

a. Plants and some bacteria capable of producing their own food
b. Animals c. Human beings d. Fish

14. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Inorganic nutrients are recycled in an ecosystem
b. Energy flows through the ecosystem in the form of carbon-carbon bonds
c. Energy is recycled in an ecosystem d. Respiration process releases energy

15. The largest reservoir of nitrogen in our planet is

a. Oceans b. Atmosphere c. Biosphere d. Fossil fuels

16. In aquatic ecosystem phytoplankton can be considered as a

a. Consumer b. Producer c. Saprotrophic organism‟s d. Macro-consumer

17. The basic requirement of human beings are provided by

a. Industrialization b. Agriculture c. Nature d. Urbanization

18. Environment is the life support system that includes

a. Air b. Water c. Land d. All of the above

19. In an ecosystem biological cycling of materials is maintained by

a. Producer b. Consumer c. Decomposer d. All of the above

20. Organisms which feed directly on producers are called

a. Prey b. Consumers c. Decomposers d. Detritus

21. The primary producers in a forest ecosystem are

a. Chlorophyll containing trees and plants b. Herbivores
c. Carnivores d. Bacteria and other micro-organisms

22. Abiotic components includes

a. Soil b. Temperature c. Water d. All of the above

23. Which of the following statement is true

a. Green plants are self nourishing b. Producers depends on consumers
c. Biotic components includes all non-living components d. Herbivores depend on carnivores

24. Primary consumer is

a. Herbivores b. Carnivores c. Macro-consumers d. Omnivores
25. A predator is
a. An animal that is feed upon b. An animal that feeds upon another animal
c. Animal that feeds upon both plants and animals d. A primary consumer

26. Access to food is mainly determined by

a. Household income b. Food assistance programmes
c. Human resources d. Society/ community

27. The word „Environment‟ is derived from

a. Greek b. French c. Spanish d. English

28. Which among the following is a climatic factor?

a. Pressure b. Humidity c. Temperature d. All of the above

29. The major atmospheric gas layer in stratosphere is

a. Hydrogen b. Carbon-di-oxide c. Ozone d. Helium

30. Which atmospheric sphere is closest to the earth surface?

a. Troposphere b. Stratosphere c. Mesosphere d. Exosphere

31. Which of the following is the terrestrial ecosystem?

a. Forest b. Grassland c. Desert d. All of the above

32. Ecological pyramids are studies of

a. Pyramid of numbers b. Pyramid of biomass c. Pyramid of energy d. All of the above

33. World Environment day is celebrated on

a. 5th May b. 5th June c. 18th July d. 16th August

34. Factors responsible for balanced ecosystem are

a. Balance between predator and prey b. Balance between vegetation, herbivores and carnivores
c. Balance between competing species and biotic factors d. All of the above

35. Which of the following is absorbed by green plants from the atmosphere?
a. Carbon-di-oxide b. Water c. Nutrients d. All of the above

36. Habitat refers to

a. Physical conditions of the place where organisms live
b. Chemical conditions of the place where organisms live
c. Both a & b d. None of the above

37. Essential component of social security are

 a. Meeting personal growth and development b. maintaining natural capital
c. Fairness and equity in distribution of costs of resources d. Community resilience

38. Socio-economic security in environmental aspects involves

a. Fairness & equity in distribution costs for complete existing generation
b. Welfare of the present generation c. Intra and inter generational equity of resources
d. All of the above

39. A food web consists of

a. A portion of a food chain b. An organism‟s position in a food chain
c. Interlocking food chains d. A set of similar consumers

40. Which of the following statements are true?

a. Man is not dependent on nature
b. Resources are unlimited, so one can use them as per one‟s wish
c. Energy can be converted from one form to another, but some percentage is lost into the
environment
d. Matter can be generated afresh. It need not be recycled or reused

41. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled to ensure food security?
a. Food must be available b. Each person must have access to it
c. Food utilized/consumed must fulfill nutritional requirements d. All of the above

42. Which of the following is not the environmental effect of industrialization, in general?
a. Solid waste b. Water pollution c. Air pollution d. Economic growth

43. Which of the following are major environmental issues involved in mining?
a. Air pollution from dust b. Water pollution c. Soil degradation d. All of the above

44. Sustainable development means

a. Meeting present needs without compromising on the future needs
b. Progress in human well beings
c. Balance between human needs and the ability of Earth to provide the resources
d. All the above

45. The most important remedy to avoid negative impact due to industrialization is
a. Industry should be closed b. Don‟t allow new industrial units
c. Industry should treat all the wastes generated by it before disposal
d. Industries should be shifted far away from human habitats.

46. Mining means

a. To conserve & preserve minerals b. To check pollution due to mineral resources
c. To extract minerals and ores d. None
47. EIA can be expanded as
a. Environment & Industries Act b. Environment & Impact Activities
c. Environment Impact Assessment d. Environmentally Important Activity

48. EIA is related to

a. Resource conservation b. Efficient equipment/ process
c. Waste minimization d. All of the above

49. In order to protect the health of people living along the adjoining areas of roads, one should.
a. Plant trees alongside of the roads b. Not allow diesel driven vehicles
c. Shift them (people) to other places d. None of the above

50. The pollution caused by transportation/ vehicular activities depends on

a. Type of the vehicle‟s engine b. Age of the vehicle
c. Traffic congestion d. All of the above

51. Sustainable development will not aim at

a. Social economic development which optimizes the economic and societal benefits available in the
present, without spoiling the likely potential for similar benefits in the future
b. Reasonable and equitably distributed level of economic well being that can be perpetuated continually
c. Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs
d. Maximizing the present day benefits through increased resource consumption

52. Which of the following is a key element of EIA?

a. Scoping b. Screening c. Identifying and evaluating alternatives d. All of the above

53. „Earth Day‟ is held every year on

a. June 5th b. November 23rd c. April 22nd d. January 26th

54. Eutrophication is
a. An improved quality of water in lakes b. A process in carbon cycle
c. The result to accumulation of plant nutrients in water bodies
d. A water purification technique

55. Major purpose of most of the Dams around the world is

a. Power generation b. Drinking water supply c. Flood control d. Irrigation

56. Which of the following is the most environmental friendly agriculture practice?
a. Using chemical fertilizers b. Using insecticides c. Organic farming d. None of the above

57. The adverse effect of modern agriculture is

a. Water pollution b. Soil degradation c. Water logging d. All of the above

58. Soil erosion removes surface soil which contains

 a. Organic matter b. Plant nutrients c. Both a and b d. None of the above

59. Water logging is a phenomena in which

a. Crop patterns are rotated b. Soil root zone becomes saturated due to over irrigation
c. Erosion of soil d. None of the above
60. The impact of construction of dams
a. Submerges forest b. Loss of wild life habitat c. Damages downstream ecosystem
d. All of the above

61. Which of the following statement is false

a. Soil erosion effects the productivity of agriculture fields
b. It takes 300 years for one inch of agricultural top soil to form
c. The amount of erosion depends on soil type, slope, drainage pattern and crop management practices
d. Soil erosion helps to retain water and nutrients in the root zone

62. Which of the following statement is true

a. Surface runoff do not carry pesticides into streams
b. Water percolating downward through agriculture lands carries with it dissolved chemicals and
contaminate groundwater
c. Present agricultural practice does not contaminate water d. None of the above

63. Farmers have a tendency to

a. Use optimum quantity of water b. To over irrigate their crops
c. To conserve water d. All of the above

64. Organic Farming is

a. Farming without using pesticides and chemical fertilizers b. Enhances biodiversity
c. Promotes soil biological activity d. All of the above

65. What would you do to prevent environmental damage

a. Plant trees b. Halt deforestation c. Control pollution d. All of the above

66. Environmental Impact Assessment

a. Is a study of feasibility of a project
b. Is a study of bio-physical characteristics of the environment that may result from a human action
c. Both a and b d. None of the above

67. EIA study will help

a. Maximizing the benefits without overloading the planets ecosystem
b. To estimate the future needs of the society c. To smooth implementation of the project
d. To cope up with rapid growth of population

68. Ecosystem is disturbed by housing activity because

 a. Large volume of raw materials like brick, stone, timber, cement, steel plastic etc are required to
be produced
b. Housing is required to provide shelter to growing population
c. Majority of housing projects are concentrated in cities only
d. Standard of living is increased by modern houses

69. Environmental impact of mining

a. Brings order into social setup b. Devastation of ecosystem
c. Present mining activity is a sustainable development
d. Mining has no adverse effect on ecosystem as it is located in remote areas

70. Effect of modern agriculture on soil is due to

a. Erosion b. Acidification c. Salinization d. All of the above

71. Bio-remediation means the removal of contaminants from

a. Soil b. Wastewater c. Groundwater d. Both soil and groundwater

MODULE-2

1. Plants use ___________ gas for photosynthesis

a. Oxygen b. Methane c. Nitrogen d. Carbon-di-oxide

2. Deforestation means
a. Preservation of forests b. Destruction of forests c. Monocrop cultivation
d. Agriculture

3. What percentage of its geographical area of a country should be under forest cover?
a. 23% b. 43% c. 13% d. 33%

4. About _____ % of the earth‟s surface is covered by water

a. 53% b. 19% c. 71% d. 90%

5. During photosynthesis, tree produce

a. Oxygen b. Carbon-di-oxide c. Nitrogen d. Carbon-Monoxide

6. Forests prevent soil erosion by binding soil particles in their

a. Stems b. Roots c. Leaves d. Buds

7. Major causes of deforestation are

a. Shifting cultivation b. Fuel requirements c. Raw materials for industries
d. All of the above

8. Blue baby syndrome (metheemoglobinemia) is caused by the contamination of water due to

 a. Phosphates b. Sulphur c. Arsenic d. Nitrates

9. Which of the following statements about forest is not correct?

a. Forests reduces soil erosion b. Provides recreational opportunities
c. Provides a source of economic development d. None of the above

10. India has the largest share of which of the following?

a. Manganese b. Mica c. Copper d. Diamond

11. Out of the following nutrients in fertilizer, which one causes minimum water pollution?
a. Nitrogen b. Phosphorous c. Potassium d. Organic matter

12. What is the permissible range of pH for drinking water as per the Indian Standards?
a. 6 to 9 b. 6.5 to 7.5 c. 6 to 8.5 d. 6.5 to 8.5

13. What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water?

a. 1.0 mg/l b. 1.25 mg/l c. 1.5 mg/l d. 1.75 mg/l

14. Excess fluorides in drinking water is likely to cause

a. Blue babies b. Fluorosis c. Taste and odor d. Instestinal irritation

15. Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution?

a. Factories b. Sewage treatment plants c. Urban and sub-urban lands
d. All of the above

16. The movement of carbon between _________ is called carbon cycle.

a. Atmosphere & biosphere b. Atmosphere & hydrosphere
c. Geosphere & atmosphere d. Biosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere & geosphere

17. The depletion of trees is causing accumulation of

a. NO2 b. SO2 c. CO2 d. O2

18. Earth‟s atmosphere contains ________ % nitrogen.

a. 98% b. 12% c. 21% d. 78%

19. Plants can take up nitrogen in two forms __________

a. NH4+ & NO3 b. NH3 & N2 c. NO3 d. NO2

20. Conversion of ammonium to NO3 by chemical oxidation is termed as

a. Mineralization b. Leaching c. Nitrification d. De-nitrification

21. Nitrogen fixing bacteria exists in ___________ of plants.

a. Leaf b. Roots c. Stem d. Flower
22. Sulphur occurs in soil and rocks in the form of ________
a. Oxides of Zn & Fe b. Sulphates of Zn & Fe c. Nitrates of Zn & Fe
d. Sulphides of Zn & Fe

23. Live stock wastes release large amount of _________ into environment.
a. NH4 b. NH3 c. NO3 d. NO4

24. Conversion of nitrates into gases of nitrogen is called __________

a. Nitrification b. Nitrogen fixing c. Reduction d. Denitrification
25. Forest rich area in Karnataka is found in __________
a. Western Ghats b. Bandipur c. Nagarhole d. Mangalore

26. _____________ are referred to as Earth‟s Image

a. Forests b. Carbon cycles c. Water sources d. Mines

27. Among the fresh water available in the Earth the percentage of surface water is about
a. 50% b. 10% c. 5% d. less than 1%

28. Important factor that causes water borne disease is

a. Using contaminated sewage for irrigation
b. Leaching of untreated fecal and urinary discharges into water bodies
c. Discharge of industrial waste water d. By eating contaminated food

29. Cholera & typhoid are caused by

a. Worms b. Virus c. Bacteria d. Fungus

30. Major sources of fluoride is

a. River water b. Tooth paste c. Groundwater d. Food products

31. Hepatitis is caused by

a. Protozoa b. Virus c. Bacteria d. Fungus

32. Excessive Nitrate in drinking water causes

a. Fever b. Cough & chill c. Blue babies d. Gastro Enteritis

33. Mineral resources are

a. Renewable b. Available in plenty c. Non-renewable d. Equally distributed

34. Control of water borne diseases can be achieved effective by

a. Treatment of disease b. By consuming mineral water
c. By proper treatment of waste water & protecting the source of water
d. By vaccination

35. Which of the following is not a natural mineral?

 a. Asbestos b. Feldspar c. Phosphate d. Nitrogen

36. Forests are extremely important because they

a. Provide clean water and clean air b. Provide habitat for wild life
c. Provide recreation and a change from the hectic urban life d. All of the above

37. Deforestation means

a. Creation of new forest land for the wild life b. Planting trees in the cities
c. Conversion of forest land for agriculture/ pasture/ homes etc
d. Not managing the forest properly

38. The oceans are the largest storage of water on earth containing
a. 95% of earth‟s water b. 85% of earth‟s water
c. 97% of earth’s water d. 75% of earth‟s water

39. Which of the following is not a part of the hydrological cycle?

a. Precipitation b. Infiltration c. Transpiration d. Perspiration

40. The groundwater depends on

a. Amount of rainfall b. Geological formations c. Run off d. All of the above

41. In India groundwater is rich in

a. Plains of rivers Cauvery and Krishna c. The plains of Netravati and Kapila
c. The Gangetic plains d. The Deccan plateau

42. The required Iron content in drinking water as specified by BIS is

a. 300 mg/L b. 30mg/L c. 3 mg/L d. 0.3 mg/L

43. Disfigurement in the teeth is caused by excessive amount of

a. Mercury b. Nitrate c. Fluoride d. Lead

44. Pick out which is not concerned to carbon cycle

a. Respiration b. Combustion of fossil fuels c. Photosynthesis d. Transpiration

45. Fixation of Nitrogen is done by

a. Lightening b. Fixing bacteria c. Fertilizer factory d. All of the above

46. Sulphur-di-oxide is used in

a. Paper manufacture b. Textile manufacture
c. Processing of fossil fuels d. Both (a) and (b)

47. Which of the following is considered as an alternate fuel?

a. CNG b. Kerosene c. Coal d. Petrol
48. Solar radiation consists of
a. UV b. Visible light c. Infrared d. All of the above

49. Reduction in usage of fuels cannot be brought about by

a. Using alternate fuels b. Changing lifestyles c. Reducing car taxes
d. Both (a) & (b)

50. Which of the following is a hazard of a nuclear power plant?

a. Accident risk when tankers containing fuel cause spill
b. Radioactive waste of the power plant remains highly toxic for centuries
c. Release of toxic gases during processing d. All of the above
51. The most important fuel used by nuclear power plant is
a. U-235 b. U-238 c. U-245 d. U-248

52. Biogas is produced by

a. Microbial activity b. Harvesting crop c. Both a & b d. None of the above

53. Oil and Gas are preferred because of

a. Easy transpiration b. Cheap c. Strong smell d. All of the above

54. Biogas power generation uses

a. Crops b. Animal dung c. Strong smell d. All of the above

55. Chernobyl nuclear disaster occurred in the year

a. 1984 b. 1952 c. 1986 d. 1987

56. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

a. Fossil fuels b. Solar energy c. Tidal wave energy d. Wind energy

57. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources
a. Highly polluting b. High waste disposal cost c. Unreliable supply d. High running cost

58. OTEC is an energy technology that converts

a. energy in large tides of ocean to generate electricity
b. energy in ocean waves to generate electricity
c. energy in ocean due to thermal gradient to generate electricity
d. energy in the fast moving ocean currents to generate electricity

59. Which of the following source of energy is less eco-friendly?

a. Biogas b. Wind c. Solar d. Nuclear

60. India‟s position in the Bio-gas plants globally

a. 5th b. 2nd c. 4th d. 7th
61. Solar energy is stored in
a. Carbon_Carbon bonds b. green leaves c. fossil fuels d. Biomass

62. Which resources are inexhaustible?

a. Renewable b. Fossil fuels c. Non-renewable d. Mineral

63. Identify the non-renewable source of energy from the following

a. Coal b. Fuel cells c. Wind power d. Wave power

64. Electromagnetic radiation can cause

a. Plague b. Malaria c. Cancer d. Dengue fever

65. Harnessing the wind energy is done by

a. Wind mill b. Ball mill c. Flour mill d. Pig mill

66. Wind Farms are located in

a. River basin b. Plain area c. Hilly area d. Valley area

67. Wind energy generation depends on

a. direction of wind b. velocity of wind c. humidity d. precipitation

68. With a minimum resources maximum energy can be created by

a. solar radiation b. wind c. nuclear fuels d. tidal waves

69. Direct conversion of solar energy is attained by

a. Solar photo voltaic system b. solar diesel hybrid system
c. solar thermal system d. solar air heater

70. In Hydropower plants, power is generated by

a. hotsprings b. wind c. sun d. water

71. Hydrogen energy can be trapped through

a. heat pumps b. fuel cells c. photovoltaic cells d. gasifiers

72. Problems of Hydrogen fuel cell is

a. storage and distribution b. availability of hydrogen c. creates pollution
d. none of the above

73. Nuclear power is being produced form

a. Carbon-14 b. Nuclear fission c. Petroleum combustion d. Natural gas

74. Nuclear fusion uses the following as a fuel

a. Carbon b. Helium c. Hydrogen d. Water
75. Which is the source of energy that can be replaced at the same rate at which it is used?
a. Coal b. Petroleum c. Oil d. Biomass

76. Biomass consists of

a. Lignin b. Hemi-cellulose c. Cellulose d. All of the above

77. Which of the following is used as moderator in the nuclear reactor?

a. Graphite b. Helium gas c. Heavy water d. All of the above

78. Nuclear wastes is active for

a. 5 years b. 10 years c. 50 years d. centuries

79. Nuclear power plant in Karnataka is located at

a. Bhadravathi b. Sandur c. Raichur d. Kaiga

80. Biomass energy in green plants is produced of

a. Carbon-di-oxide b. Water c. Sunlight d. All of the above

81. Fossil fuels are converted into energy by

a. burning b. cooling c. sublimation d. melting

82. Natural gas contains

a. carbon-di-oxide b. hydrogen c. methane d. nitrogen

83. Which place in India the tidal energy has been experimented
a. Goa b. Karnataka c. Kerala d. Tamil Nadu

84. Highest producer of Oil and petroleum is

a. Middle East countries b. America c. China d. India

85. Cow dung can be used

a. as manure b. for production of Bio-gas c. as fuel d. all of the above

86. The source of Electromagnetic radiation is

a. Sun b. Wind c. Tide d. Water

87. Biogas is gaseous fuel composed mainly of

a. Methane and Carbon-di-oxide b. Methane and Hydrogen sulphide
c. Methane and Carbon monoxide d. None of the above
z
88. Molasses from sugar industry is used to generate
a. Bio-diesel b. Hydrogen c. Bio-ethanol d. Bio-methanol
 MODULE-3

1. Environmental pollution is due to

a. Rapid urbanization b. Deforestation c. Afforestation d. a & b

2. Which of the following is air pollutant

a. CO b. O2 c. N2 d. All

3. Which of the following are natural sources of air pollution

a. Volcanic eruption b. Solar flair c. Earth quake d. All of the above

4. Which of the following are bio-degradable pollutants

a. Plastics b. Domestic sewage c. Detergent d. All of the above

5. Mining practices lead to

a. Population growth b. Rapid urbanization c. Loss of grazing and fertile land
d. None of the above

6. Which of the following is the source of fly ash

a. Vehicular exhaust b. Sewage c. Thermal power plant d. All of the above

7. The liquid waste from baths and kitchens is called

a. Sullage b. Domestic sewage c. Storm waste d. Run off

8. Noise pollution can be minimized by

a. Urbanization b. Maintaining silence c. Reducing noise at source
d. None of the above

9. BOD means
a. Biochemical Oxygen Demand b. Chemical Oxygen Demand
c. Bio-physical Oxygen Demand d. All of the above

10. Which of the following industry generates colored waste

a. Software industry b. Textile industry c. Biomedical industry
d. None of the above

11. Physical pollution of water is due to

a. Dissolved oxygen b. Turbidity c. pH d. None of the above

12. Which of the following source is surface water

a. Springs b. Streams c. Deep wells d. All of the above

13. Deforestation can

a. Increase the rainfall b. Increase soil fertility c. Introduce silt in the rivers
 d. None of the above
14. Which of the following is non point source of water pollution
a. Factories b. Sewage treatment plant
c. Urban and sub-urban land d. All of the above

15. Sound beyond which of the following level can be regarded as a pollutant
a. 40dB b. 80dB c. 120dB d. 150dB

16. Which of the following is a major source of thermal pollution of water bodies
a. Sewage treatment plants b. Thermal power plants c. Solid waste disposal
d. All of the above

17. Smog is
a. A natural phenomenon b. Combination of smoke and fog
c. Colorless d. All of the above

18. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting

a. Electrostatic precipitator b. Wet scrubber c. Catalytic converted
d. All of the above

19. Which of the following statements about Carbon monoxide is true

a. Forms complex with hemoglobin b. Forms complex with leg-hemoglobin
c. Form by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels d. a and c

20. Which of the following is a point source of water pollution

a. Factories b. Sewage treatment plants c. Urban and sub-urban lands
d. a and b

21. Definition of Noise is

a. Loud sound b. Unwanted sound c. Constant sound d. Sound of high frequency

22. Noise pollution is controlled by

a. Reducing the noise at the source b. Preventing its transmission
c. Protecting the receiver d. All of the above

23. Noise pollution limits at residential area

a. 45dB b. 80dB c. 55dB d. 90dB

24. Noise pollution limits in industrial area

a. 45dB b. 80dB c. 65dB d. 90dB

25. Which of the following are non-biodegradable

a. Plastics b. Domestic sewage c. Detergent d. both a & c
26. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant
a. Carbon monoxide b. Sulphur di-oxide c. Ozone d. Carbon-dioxide

27. Pesticide causes

a. Eye irritation b. Skin irritation c. Respiratory ailments d. All the above

28. Blarring sounds known to cause

a. Mental distress b. High cholesterol c. Neurological problems d. All the above

29. Which of the following is major cause of soil pollution?

a. Accident involving that are transporting waste materials
b. Pesticides and chemical fertilizers c. Improper solid waste disposal
d. All of the above

30. Minamata disease is caused due to

a. Lead b. Arsenic c. Mercury d. Cadmium

31. The major automobile pollutants include

a. CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM b. CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and CH4
c. CO2, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM d. CO, NOx, Freon‟s and SPM

32. Petroleum based vehicles emit traces of

a. CO & NOx b. SPM c. Aldehydes d. CH4

33. Heavy duty diesel vehicles contribute more

a. NOx b. Particular matter c. CO d. Both a and b

34. Major pollutants from light petrol vehicles are

a. CO and Hydrocarbons b. CO and NOx c. CH4 and CO2 d. All the above

35. The 4-stroke engines produce less of the following as compared to 2-stroke engines
a. CO and Hydrocarbons b. NOx and SO2 c. Both a and b d. None of the above

36. Alternate eco-friendly fuel for automobiles are

a. Petrol b. Diesel c. CNG d. Kerosene

37. Increase in asthma attacks has been linked to high levels of

a. Nitrogen b. Oxygen c. Air-borne dust particles d. All the above

38. Population explosion will cause

a. Biodiversity b. Stress on ecosystem c. More employment d. None of the above

39. Which of the following is having high population density

a. India b. China c. USA d. Western Europe
40. Which of the following is not the effect of urbanization
a. Air pollution b. Thermal pollution c. Solid waste production d. Noise pollution
41. Which of the following is the facility that the urban people enjoy?
a. Better communication access b. Better quality of air
c. Large land at cheap rates d. None of the above

42. Urbanization is
a. Local environmental issue b. National environmental issue
c. Both a & b d. Not at all an issue

43. Which of the following is the ill effect of urbanization

a. Decrease in agricultural land b. Loss of greenery c. Loss of water bodies
d. All the above

44. The major cause of global population growth in the 18 and 19 centuries was
a. Decreases in death rates b. Decrease in birth rates c. Industrial revolution
d. None of the above

45. The world population in 2000 was around

a. 8 billion b. 6.1 billion c. 4 billion d. 4.5 billion

46. The average life expectancy around the world is currently

a. Decreasing b. Increasing c. Not changing d. Stabilizing

47. Which of the following is the problem not associated with population growth
a. Increase resource consumption b. Environmental pollution
c. Food and energy shortages d. None of the above

48. The major objectives of family welfare programs in India is

a. Disease control b. Population growth rate control c. Employment generation
d. None of the above

49. Population ageing is

a. The increase in the average age of the population b. The result of decreased death and birth rates
c. The trend where more people live to reach old age while fewer children are born
d. All the above

50. Which of the following is not population characteristic

a. Doubling time b. Total fertility rate c. Gross domestic product growth rate
d. Infant mortality rate

51. Demography is the study of

a. Animals behavior b. Population growth c. River d. None of the above
52. Which of the following is not a solution for global warming?
a. Reducing fossil fuel consumption b. Planting more trees
c. De-forestation d. None of the above
53. The meaning of global warming is
a. Increase in the temperature of climate b. A planet hotter than earth
b. Solar radiation d. Cooling effect

54. Global warming may bring about the following change in the climate of the earth
a. Increase in the rainfall b. Desertification c. Drought d. All the above

55. Which green house gas is known as colorless, non-flammable, sweetish odor & laughing gas?
a. Methane b. CO2 c. Nitrous oxide d. Sulfur hexa fluoride

56. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was
a. Water act b. Air act c. Environmental act d. Noise pollution rules

57. Which of the following substantially reduces CO2 emission from automobiles?
a. Bio-fuels like Ethonal and bio-diesel b. Fossil fuels like coal and lignite
c. Nuclear element like Uranium d. Voltaic cells

58. The international protocol to protect the Ozone layer is

a. Vienna protocol b. Kyoto protocol c. Cartagena protocol d. Montreal protocol

59. The protocol that reduces green house gas emissions are
a. Kyoto protocol b. Cartagena protocol c. Montreal protocol d. Vienna protocol

60. Population explosion will cause

a. Socio-economical problems b. Food scarcity c. Energy crisis
d. All the above

61. Which of the following is not a green house gas?

a. Hydro-chloro-fluoro-carbons b. Methane c. CO2 d. SO2

62. Global warming could affect

a. Climate b. Increase in Sea level c. Melting of glaciers d. All the above

63. Primary cause of acid rain around the world is due to

a. Carbon-di-oxide b. Sulphur-di-oxide c. Carbon-monoxide d. Ozone

64. Which of the following is not a solution for global warming?

a. Reducing fossil fuel consumption b. Planting more trees c. Deforestation
d. None of the above
65. Which of the following is an air pollutant
a. Carbon-di-oxide b. Oxygen c. Nitrogen d. Particulate matter

MODULE-4
1. The pH value of the acid rain water is
a. 5.7 b. 7.0 c. 8.5 d. 7.5

2. The primary cause of the acid rain around the world is

a. CFC b. SO2 c. CO d. O3

3. Which of the following is the remedial measure for acid rain

a. reducing the release of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur into the atmosphere
b. use of coal free from sulphur c. use of electrostatic precipitator and catalytic converters
d. all of the above

4. Acid rain can be controlled by

a. reducing SO2 and NO2 emissions b. reducing oxygen emission
c. increasing number of lakes d. increasing the forest cover

5. Atmospheric oxidation of SO2 to SO3 is influenced by

a. Sunlight b. Humidity c. HC d. all the above

6. Reduction in brightness of the famous Taj Mahal is due to

a. Global warming b. Air pollution c. Ozone depletion d. Afforestation

7. The effect of acid rain

a. reduces soil fertility b. increases atmospheric temperature
c. causing respiratory problems d. skin cancer

8. The process of movement of nutrients from the soil by the acid rain is
a. Transpiration b. Evapo-transpiration c. Leaching d. Infiltration

9. Ozone layer is present in

a. Troposphere b. Stratosphere c. Mesosphere d. Thermosphere

10. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

a. Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog
b. Ozone protects us from the harmful UV radiation of sun c. Ozone is highly reactive
d. All the above

11. Major compound responsible for the destruction of stratospheric ozone layer is
a. Oxygen b. CFC c. Carbon-di-oxide d. Methane
12. Ozone layer thickness is measured in
a. PPM b. PPB c. Decibels d. Dobson units

13. Normal average thickness of stratospheric ozone layer across the globe
a. 200 DU b. 300 DU c. 400 DU d. 500 DU
14. Chloro Fluro Carbon‟s (CFC) are
a. Non-toxic b. Non-flammable c. Non carcinogenic d. All the above

15. Ozone layers absorbs

a. UV rays b. Infra red rays c. Cosmic rays d. CO

16. Which of the following is not an ill effect of acid rain?

a. Results in killing fish b. causes stone leprosy c. leaches nutrients from the soil
d. causes cataract

17. Formation of Ozone layer is explained by

a. Rosenmund reaction b. Henderson‟s reaction c. Chapman’s reaction
d. Perkin‟s reaction

18. Each chlorine free Radical can destroy the following number of ozone molecules
a. 1000 b. 10,000 c. 1,00,000 d. 100

19. Freons area

a. HFC b. CFC c. NFC d. Hydrocarbons

20. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

a. Ozone is a major constituents of photochemical smog b. Ozone is highly reactive
c. Ozone protects us from the harmful UV radiation of sun d. All of the above

21. Ozone depletion causes

a. Snow blindness b. Photochemical smog c. Acid rain d. Vomiting

22. Which of the following statements is not true about animal husbandry?
a. It is a part of agricultural activity b. It is breeding, feeding and management of animals
c. It is livestock production d. It is protective of wild life

23. Which of the following is the purpose of animal husbandry?

a. Conservation of animal husbandry b. Productive of meat
c. Conservation of wildlife d. Conservation of forests

24. Domesticated animals are used for

a. Dairy products b. Production of fiber c. Production of meat d. All the above
25. Acid rain has been increasing day by day due to
a. Urbanization b. Industrialization c. Increase in vehicle population
d. None of the above

26. Ozone hole was first discovered over

a. Arctic b. Antarctica c. Tropical region d. Africa

27. CFC‟s have been used as

a. Solvent b. Refrigerants c. Blowing agents for polymer forms
d. All the above

28. World Ozone day is being celebrated on

a. September 5th b. October 15th c. September 11th d. September 16th

29. Bhopal Gas Tragedy caused due to leakage of

a. Methyl Iso Cyanate b. Sulphur di-oxide c. Mustard gas d. Methane

30. Animal husbandry results in

a. Global warming b. Acid rain c. Ozone depletion d. None of the above

31. Temporary harness of water is due to

a. Chloride hardness b. Manganes hardness
c. Calcium hardness d. Carbonate hardness

32. The Red brownish color of water is due to the presence of

a. Iron and manganese b. Sulphates c. Arsenic d. Copper

33. Excess of iron in water is likely to cause

a. Hardness b. Taste c. Color d. All the above

34. In water treatment, alum is used for

a. Softening b. Coagulation c. Filtration d. Disinfection

35. The organ of a baby usually damaged from lead poisoning

a. Kidney b. Lungs c. Lever d. Heart

36. Petroleum based vehicles emit

a. Polynuclear hydrocarbons b. CO c. Aldehydes d. All

37. The green house gas is

a. N2O b. CH4 c. CO2 d. All

38. Plants grown by the roadside have higher content of

a. Pb b. Fe c. Cr d. Ca
39.

MODULE-5

1. Environmental (Protection) Act was enacted in the year

a. 1986 b. 1992 c. 1984 d. 1974

2. The Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year
a. 1981 b. 1996 c. 2000 d. 1974

3. The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year
a. 1986 b. 1974 c. 1994 d. 2004

4. The Wild Life Protection Act was enacted in the year

a. 1986 b. 1974 c. 1994 d. 1972

5. The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year

a. 1986 b. 1974 c. 1980 d. 1972

6. The first of the major Environmental Protection Act to be promulgated in India was:
a. The Wild Life Protection Act b. The Air Act
c. The Noise Pollution Act d. None of the above

7. The Central Pollution Control Board was established under the provision of:
a. Environmental (Protection) Act – 1986 b. Air (Prevention & Control) Act-1981
c. Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act-1974 d. None of the above

8. The Karnataka State Pollution Control Board (KSPCB) was established in the year
a. 1974 b. 1982 c. 1986 d. 1976

9. Environmental Protection is the responsibility of

a. Govt. of India b. NGO‟s c. Individual d. All

10. „Earth Day‟ is observed on:

a. 1st December b. 5th June c. 22nd April d. 1st January

11. Which of the following is NGO:-

a. Narmada Bachao Andolan b. CPCB c. KSPCB d. None

12. Which of the following is empowered to take measures to protect and improve environment as per the
Environment (Protection) Act
a. Central Govt. b. State Govt. c. Corporation d. None
13. Which of the following is the authority to monitor industrial effluents:-
a. Center for Science & Environment b. State Pollution Control Board
c. Indian Environmental Association d. None

14. The leader of Chipko movement is:-

a. Sunderlal Bahuguna b. Medha Patkar c. Vandana Shiva d. Suresh Heblikar

15. The Environmental (Protection) Act 1986 deals with:

a. Water b. Air c. Soil d. All

16. The objectives of the Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972 is:-
a. To preserve the biodiversity b. To maintain essential ecological and life supporting systems
c. Protection & conservation of wild life d. All

17. The Tiger Conservation Project was started in:-

a. 1973 b. 1984 c. 1999 d. 2004

18. The goal of National Parks & Wild Life Sanctuaries is

a. To promote international trading of animals & their products
b. To evacuate tribal people form forest
c. Conservation of Wild Life d. None of the above

19. Environmental education is targeted to:-

a. General public b. Professional social groups c. Technicians & Scientists
d. All the above

20. Which of the following animals are endangered species of India:-

a. Black buck b. Elephant c. Fox d. Giraffe

21. Which state is having highest women literacy rate in India:-

a. Karnataka b. Punjab c. Rajasthan d. Kerala

22. An International Conference on Environmental Education was held in December 1982 at:-
a. Kyoto b. Vienna c. New-Delhi d. London

23. Environmental Protection is the fundamental duties of the citizen of India under the Article:-
a. 51-A (g) b. 48-A c. 47 d.21

24. The objectives of Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) are:

a. Immunization b. Health check up & referral services
c. Pre-school and non-formal education d. All the above

25. ISO-14000 standards deal with:-

a. Pollution Management b. Risk management c. Environmental management
 d. None of the above

26. World summit on sustainable development was held at

a. Johannesburg in 2002 b. Rio de Janeiro in 1992 c. Kyoto in 1994
d. Stockholm in 2000

27. An important NGO involve in Global environmental protection is

a. UNICEF b. Green Peace c. WHO d. CPCB

28. The first International Earth summit was held at

a. Johannesburg b. Rio de Janeiro c. Kyoto c. Stockholm

29. Silent Valley movement succeeded in

a. Waste management in sea coast
b. Cancelling the state Govt. Hydel project and saving the Lion- Tailed Monkeys
c. Promoting marine fishery business in Kerala d. None of the above

30. The committee which submitted its report to Govt. of India on Environmental education is
a. Tiwari committee b. Mehta committee c. Banerjee committee
d. Agarwal committee
 GIS AND REMOTE SENSING
31. GIS stands for
a. Geostationary Interact Sensor b. Geographical Information System
c. Geotechnical Information Society d. Geothermal Investigation Site

32. Aerial Photography may be useful for:-

a. Groundwater investigation b. Dam site selection c. Mineral exploration d. All the above

33. TIN stands for

a. Traffic Internet Network b. Triangulated Irregular Network
c. Temporal Interest Network d. Temperature Interface Node

34. Colored photographic images are generated by assigning:-

a. Blue: Green and Red colors b. Green and Red colors
c. Red, Blue and Yellow colors d. Blue: Red and Violet colors

35. DBMS stands for

a. Database Management System b. Database Monitoring System
c. Database Manufacturing System d. Database Mixing Station

36. Sensors are devices used for:

a. Taking outputs b. Corrections c. Recording d. Observations

37. Which is NOT a commonly used coding scheme for images?

a. JPEG b. GIF c. MP3 d. TIFF

38. RADAR stands for

a. Radio and Distance Ranging b. Radio Detection and Ranging
c. Ranging and Detection Arrangement d. Radio-Detection Recorder

39. GIS is a
a. Computer based software b. Computer based Printer
 c. Computer based Scanner d. Computer based keyboard

40. Remote Sensing technique deals with the detection and recording of a selected portion of:
a. Emission spectrum b. Light spectrum c. Photospectrum d. Electromagnetic spectrum

41. _________ is the picture elements that defines the Resolution of an image
a. Pixel b. Tone c. Texture d. Shape

42. The range of visible light lies between:

a. 290 to 380 nm b. 380 to 700 nm c. 700 to 2300 nm d. 1000 to 3000 nm

43. Generally aerial photography are taken:-

a. Horizontally b. Vertically c. At an angle of 450 d. At an angle of 600

44. Which one has the shortest wavelength?

a. X-rays b. Ultraviolet rays c. Visible radiations d. Gamma rays