10Th Social Science English Medium 2023-24

10th Standard Social Science 2020-2021
BOOK BACK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

HISTORY
Unit -1. Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath.
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans b) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Russia
c) Spain, Portugal and Italy d) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy
2. Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth century?
a) China b) Japan c) Korea d) Mongolia
3. What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
a) air warfare b) Trench warfare c) submarine warfare d) ship warfare
4. To which country did the first Secretary General of League of Nations belongs?
a) Britain b) France c) Dutch d) USA
5. Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
a) Germany b) Russia c) Italy d) France
II. Fill in the blanks:
1. Japan forced a war on China in the year _____________. 1894
2. The new state of Albania was created according to the Treaty of _____ signed in May 1913. LONDON
3. Japan entered into an alliance with England in the year _____________. 1902
4. In the Balkans _____________ had mixed population. MACEDONIA
5. In the battle of Tannenberg _____________ suffered heavy losses. RUSSIA
6. _____________ as Prime Minister represented France in Paris Peace Conference. CLEMENCEAU
7. Locarno Treaty was signed in the year _____________. 1925
III. Choose the correct statement:
1. i) The Turkish Empire contained many non-Turkish people in the Balkans.
ii) Turkey fought on the side of the central powers iii) Britain attacked Turkey and captured Constantinople
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iv) Turkey‗s attempt to attack Suez Canal but were repulsed.
a) i) and ii) are correct b) i) and iii) are correct c) iv) is correct d) i), ii) and iv) are correct
2. Assertion: Germany and the United States were producing cheaper manufactured goods and capturing
England‗s markets.
Reason: Both the countries produced required raw material for their industries.
a) Both A and R are correct b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
3. Assertion: The first European attempts to carve out colonies in Africa resulted in bloody battles.
Reason: There was stiff resistance from the native population.
c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
IV. Match the following: ANSWERS :-
1. Treaty of Brest – Litovsk - Versailles 1. Russia with Germany
2. Jingoism - Turkey 2. England
3. Kemal Pasha - Russia with Germany 3. Turkey
4. Emden - England 4. Madras
5. Hall of Mirrors - Madras 5. Versailles
V. Answer briefly:
1. How do you assess the importance of Sino-Japanese War?
Japan annexed the Liaotung peninsula with Port Arthur.
By this action Japan proved that it was the strongest nation of the East Asia.
2. Name the countries in the Triple Entente.
Britain France Russia
3. What were the three militant forms of nationalism in Europe?
England‘s Jingoism France‘s Chauvinism Germany‘s Kultarr were militant forms of nationalism
4. What do you know of trench warfare?
Trenches dug by troops enabled soldiers to safely stand and protect themselves form enemy fire.
The typical trench system in world war considered of two to four trench lines running parallel to each other.
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The battle of Marne is memorable for trench warfare.
5. What was the role of Mustafa Kemal Pasha?
Turkey‘s rebirth as a nation thanks to the role played by Mustafa Kemal Pasha was remarkable.
Kemal pasha modernized turkey and changed it out of all recognition.
The support of the Soviet Union was of great help to him
6. List out any two causes for the failure of the League of Nations.
It lacked the military power of its own, it could not enforce its decisions.
The founders of this peace organization underestimated the power of nationalism.
.VI. Answer the following in detail:
1. Discuss the main causes of the First World War.
i). European Alliances and Counter alliances:
In 1990 the European Great Powers were divided into two armed camps. It was consisted of the Central
powers, and Allied Powers. Central Powers formed the Triple Alliances.
Allied power formed Triple entente.
ii). Violent Forms of Nationalism:
With the growth of nationalism the attitude of ―my country right or wrong I supported it‖ developed.
iii). Aggressive attitude of German Emperor:
Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II Germany was ruthlessly assertive and aggressive. He proclaimed that Germany
would be the leader of the world. The German navy was expanded against Britain.
iv). Hostility of France towards Germany:
France and Germany were old rivals of the defeat of 1871 and loss.
Germany interference in Morocco added to the bitterness.
v). The Balkan Wars:
It was formed to free from Turkish power. Albania was created. Balkan states divided up Macedonia. Turkey
was reduced. Bulgaria attacked Serbia and Greece. Bulgaria was easily defeated.
vi)Immediate Cause:
The climax to these events in the Balkans occurred in Sarajevo in Bosnia . On 28 June 1914 the Archduke
Franz Ferdinand, nephew and heir to Franz joseph, emperor of Austria- Hungary, was assassinated by princip, a
Bosnian Serb Austria saw in this an opportunity to eliminate Serbia as an independent state The German army
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which was planning a war against both France and Russia wanted to use the Occasion to its advantage .
2. Highlight the provisions of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany.
All central powers were directed to pay war indemnity. The German army was to limited.
as forbidden and Germany was to acknowledge and respect the
independence of Austria. to revoke the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk and Bucharest.
Alsace – Lorraine was returned to France.
Lithuania were to be independent.
3. Estimate the work done by the League of Nations, pointing out the reasons for its failure?
i). Activities of the League:
The league was called in to settle a number of disputes between 1920 and 1925.
The League was successful in three issues.
In 1920 a dispute arose between Sweden and Finland over the sovereignty of the Aaland Islands.
The third dispute was between Greece and Bulgaria in 1925. Greece invaded Bulgaria and the League ordered a
ceasefire. By this treaty, Germany, France, Belgium, Great Britain, and Italy, mutually guaranteed peace in
Western Europe.
ii). Causes of Failure:
The League appeared to be an organization of those who were victorious in the First World War.
Though it had a world-wide membership it became very much the centre of European diplomacy.
The unanimity of members was required for all its decisions on political issues. Since it lacked the
military power The founders of this peace organization underestimated the power of nationalism. The
principle of ―collective security‖ of its own, it could not enforce its decisions. could not be applied in actual
practice.
VII. Mark the following countries on the world map:
1. Great Britain 2. Germany 3. France 4. Italy 5. Morocco 6. Turkey
7. Serbia 8. Bosnia 9. Greece 10. Austria-Hungary 11. Bulgaria 12. Rumania
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Unit : 2.THE WORLD BETWEEN TWO WORLD WARS
I. Fill in the blanks:
1. The Vietnam Nationalist Party was formed in _____________. 1927
II. Choose the correct statement:
1. i) During World War I the primary task of Italy was to keep the Austrians occupied on the Southern Front
ii) Germany took to Fascism much later than Italy. iii) The first huge market crash in the US occurred on 24
October 1929. iv) The ban on African National Congress was lifted in 1966.
a) i) and ii) are correct b) iii) is correct c) iii) and iv) are correct d) i), ii) and iii) are correct
2. Assertion: A new wave of economic nationalism which expressed itself in protectionism affected the world trade.
Reason: This was because the USA was not willing to provide economic aid to the debtor countries.
a) Both A and R are correct b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
III. Answer briefly:
1. What do you know of the White Terror in Indo-China?
In 1929 the Vietnamese soldiers mutinied, and there was a failed attempt to assainate the French Governor –
General.
This was followed by a large scale peasant revolt led by the communists. Thousands of rebels were killed.
2. Discuss the importance of Ottawa Economic Summit.
Britain and the member states of the British Empire were signed at an economic summit Ottawa in 1932.
In which the participants agreed to give preference to imperial over non-imperial goods.
3.How did Great Depression impact on the Indian agriculture?
The value of farm produce declined by half while the land rent to be paid by the peasant remained unchanged.
In terms of prices of agricultural commodities the obligation of the farmers to the state doubled.
IV. . Answer in detail:
1. Attempt a narrative account of how the process of decolonization happened in India during the
inter-war period(1919-39).
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i). Dyarchy in Provinces:
The decolonization process started in India from the beginning of the 21th century.
In 1919, the Government of India Act introduced Dyarchy. The Montague declaration of the British
government was ―to buy the political peace needed to expand the tax base.‖
ii). Lack of Measures to Industrialize India:
Despite the discriminating protection given to certain select industries such as sugar, cement, and chemicals.
This policy was soon abandoned as many British enterprises were opposed to this.
iii). India in the days of Great Depression:
The ‗Great Depression‘ of 1929 had a disastrous impact on British trade.
Foreign investment declined.
For the colonial government the expansion of trade was the only ideal mode of economy.
By overvaluing Indian currency, the British made imports cheaper.
iv). Impact of Depression on Indian Agriculture:
In terms of prices of agricultural commodities, the obligation of the farmers to the state doubled.
d to sell their gold and silver reserves to subsist.
v). Government of India Act, 1935:

ppease the Indian nationalists. Government of
India Act, 1935. rnments and the introduction of direct
elections.
Unit : 3 .WORLD WAR II

1. When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?
a) 2 September, 1945 b) 2 October, 1945 c) 15 August, 1945 d) 12 October, 1945
2. Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?
a) Roosevelt b) Chamberlain c) Woodrow Wilson d) Baldwin
3. Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?
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a) Battle of Guadalcanal b) Battle of Midway c) Battle of Leningrad d) Battle of El Alamein
4. Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?
a) Kavashaki b) Innoshima c) Hiroshima d) Nagasaki
5. Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?
a) Russians b) Arabs c) Turks d) Jews
6. Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany ?
a) Chamberlain b) Winston Churchill c) Lloyd George d) Stanley Baldwin
7. When was the Charter of the UN signed?
a) June 26, 1942 b) June 26, 1945 c) January 1, 1942 d) January 1, 1945
II Fill in the blanks:
1. Hitler attacked---------------- which was a demilitarized zone. RHINELAND
2. The alliance between Italy, Germany and Japan is known as -----------. ROME – BERLIN –TOKYO AXIS
3. --------- started the Lend Lease programme. ROOSEVELT
4. Britain Prime Minister --------------- resigned in 1940. CHAMBERLAIN
5. ------------- is a device used to find out the enemy aircraft from a distance. RADAR
1. Assertion: President Roosevelt realized that the United States had to change its policy of isolation.
Reason: He started a programme of Lend Lease in 1941.
c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
IV. Match the Following: ANSWERS
1. Blitzkrieg - Roosevelt 1. lightning strike
2. Royal Navy - Stalingrad 2. Britain
3. Lend Lease - Solomon Island 3. Roosevelt
4. Volga - Britain 4. Stalingrad
5. Guadalcanal - lightning strike 5. Solomon Island
V Answer the questions briefly:
1.Who were the three prominent dictators of the post World War I?
Italy – Mussolini Germany – Hitler Spain - Franco
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2. How did Hitler get the support from the people of Germany?
He able to exploit the general discontent among the Germans.
He was able to say the people by his impassioned speeches.
He founded the national Socialist Party. Hitler came to power in 1933 and ruled Germany till 1945.
3. Describe the Pearl Harbour incident.
On December 1941 Japan attacked American naval installations in pearl harbor, Hawaii, without warning.
The idea was to cripple America‘s Pacific fleet so that Japan would not face any opposition.
Many battleships and numerous fighter planes were destroyed.
VI. . Answer in detail:
1. Analyze the effects of the World War II.
i). New geo-political power alignment:
World War II changed the world in fundamental ways. The world was polarized into two main blocs led by
superpowers. One led by the United States and the other by Soviet Russia. Europe was divided into two:
Communist and non-Communist.
ii). Nuclear proliferation:
The United States and the Soviet Union entered into a race to have more nuclear powered weapons.
They built a large stockpile of such weapons. Britain and France also developed their own nuclear weapons.
Countries began to devote large amount of resources in developing more and more powerful weapons of great
iii). International agencies:
The mistakes of a weak and ineffectual League of Nations were not repeated.
Many international agencies, in particular the United Nations, the World Bank and the International Monetary
Fund came into existence providing a forum for countries large and small.
VII Students Activity
1.Marking the Allies and Axis countries, as well as important battlefields of World War II in aWorld Map.
VIIIMark the following world map
1.Axis power countries 2.Allied power countries 3.Hiroshima,Nagasaki,HawaiiIsland,Moscow,San fransico
Unit L: 4. THE WORLD AFTER WORLD WAR II
I. Answer briefly:
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1. Write a note on Third World Countries.
The capitalist countries led by the U.S. were politically designated as the first world.
The communist states led by the Soviet Union came to be known as the Second world.
State outside these two was called third world countiers.
Unit : 5. SOCIAL AND RELIGIOUS REFORM MOVEMENTS IN THE 19TH CENTURY
I. Choose the correct answer:-
1. In which year was Sati abolished?
a) 1827 b) 1829 c) 1826 d) 1927
2. What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
a) Arya Samaj b) Brahmo Samaj c) Prarthana Samaj d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
3. Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar b) Raja Rammohan Roy c) Annie Besant d) Jyotiba Phule
4. Whose voice was Rast Goftar?
a) Parsi Movement b) Aligarh Movement c) Ramakrishna Mission d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
5. Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
a) Baba Dayal Das b) Baba Ramsingh c) Gurunanak d) Jyotiba Phule
6. Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?
a) M.G. Ranade b) Devendranath Tagore c ) Jyotiba Phule d) Ayyankali
7. Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash ?
a) Dayananda Saraswathi b) Vaikunda Swamy c) Annie Besant d) Swami Shradanatha
II. Fill in the blanks:-
1. ____________ founded the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam. RAMA LINGA ADIGAL
2. The founder of Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was_______________ . MAHADEV GOVIND RANADE
3. Gulumgir was written by__________________________ . JYOTIBA PHULE
4. Ramakrishna Mission was established by ______________________. SWAMI VIVEKANANDA
5. ___________was the forerunner of Akali Movement. SINGH SABHA
6. Oru paisa Tamilan was started by ____________________. IYOTHEE THASSAR
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1. i) Raja Rammohan Roy preached monotheism
ii) He encouraged idolatry iii) He published tracts condemning social evils
iv) Raja Rammohan Roy was supported by Governor General William Bentinck
a) i) is correct b) i) and ii) are correct c) i), ii) and iii) are correct d) i), iii) and iv) are correct
2. i) Prarthana Samaj was founded by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
ii) Prarthana Samaj encouraged interdining and inter-caste marriage
iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of men. iv) Prarthana Samaj had it‗s origin in the Punjab.
a) i) is correct b) ii) is correct c) i) and ii) are correct d) iii) and iv) are correct
3. i) Ramakrishna Mission was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care, relief in time of
calamities. ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices.
iii) Ramakrishna established the Ramakrishna Mission iv) Ramakrishna opposed the Partition of Bengal
a) i) is correct b) i) and ii) are correct c) iii) is correct d) iv) alone correct
4. Assertion: Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows
Reason: Jyotiba Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage
a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion d) Reason is correct but assertion is irrelevant
b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion c) Both are wrong
IV. Match the following:- Answers
1. oru paisa tamilan - Widows Remarriage Reform Act 1. journal
2. Thiruvarutpa - Nirankari 2. Songs of Grace
3. Baba Dayal Das - Adi Bramo Samaj 3. Nirankari
4. Iswarchandra Vidyasagar - journal 4. Widows Remarriage Reform Act
5. Debendranath - Songs of Grace 5. Adi Bramo Samaj
V) Answer briefly:
1. Mention the four articles of faith laid down by Maharishi Debendranath Tagore?
In the beginning there was nothing. The one Supreme Being alone existed who created the Universe.
He alone is the God of Truth, Infinite Wisdom, Goodness, and Power, eternal.
Our salvation depends on belief in Him and in His worship in this world and the next.
Belief consists in loving Him and doing His will.
2. Discuss Mahadev Govind Ranade‟s contribution to social reforms.
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Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade devoted himself to activities such as inter-caste dining, inter caste marriage,
widow remarriage and improvement of women and depressed classes.
Ranade was the founder of the Widow Marriage Association, the Poona Saravajanik Sabha and the Deccan
Education Society.
3. Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.

Ramalinga adigal showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants is called jeevakarunya.
He established the Samarasa Sudha Sanmarga Satya sanga for ―Society for pure Truth in Universal self hood.
Ramalinga also established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste of Vadalur.
4. List the social evils eradicated by Brahmo Samaj.
The government to legislate against them to Sati, Child Marriage, and Polygamy. He advocated the rights of
Widow to remarry. He wanted polygamyto end His key role in abolishing sati in 1829.
5. Highlight the work done by Jyotiba Phule for the welfare of the poor and the marginalized.
Jyotiba Govindrao Phule opened the first school for untouchables in 1852 in Poona.
He launched Truth-Seekers-Society in 1870. Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage.
Jyotiba opened orphanage and homes for widows.
VI. Answer in detail:
1. Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of 19th century
English education, introduced with the object of producing clerks also produced a new English educated
middle class.
This class came under the influence of western ideas and thoughts.
Christianity also had its effect on the newly emerging middle class.
Though small in number the educated middle class began to take a lead in political as well as in
reform movements.
Instead they attempted to harmonize both Indian and western cultures.
Their ideas and their actions helped to mitigate social evil such as sati, female infanticide and child marriage.
The revivalist movements such as the Arya samaj, the Ramakrishna Mission and the Deoband movement.
2. Evaluate the contributions of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and Swami Vivekananda to regenerate Indian
society.
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i). Ramakrishna
He is a simple priest of Dakshineswar near Kolkata, gained in the latter half of the 19th was a response to this.
He emphasized the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices such as singing bhajans.
An ardent worshipper of goddess Kali, the sacred mother. All religions contain the universal elements which,
if practiced, would lead to salvation. He said, ―Jiva is Siva‖ (all living beings are God).
The chief spirit behind this task was Vivekananda.
ii) Swami Vivekananda
Narendra Nath Datta (l863–1902), later known as Swami Vivekananda, was the prime follower of
Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
He emphasized a cultural nationalism and made a call to Indian youth to regenerate Hindu society.
He became famous for his addresses on Hinduism at the 1893 World Congress of Religions in Chicago.
3. Write an essay on the role played by the 19th century reformers towards the cause of Women.
i). Ram Mohan Roy:
He advocated the rights of widows to remarry. He wanted polygamy to end.
He strongly advocated education for women. It concerned with the prevailing customs of sati, child marriage,
and polygamy. Ram Mohan Roy Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Swami Dayananda Saraswathi
Jyotiba Phule Parsi reform Movement
ii). Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar:
He played a leading role in promoting education of girls and helped them in setting up a number of schools.
He dedicated his whole life for the betterment of the child widows of the Hindu society.
iii). Swami Dayananda Saraswathi:
He declared the practice such as child marriage, the prohibition of widow remarriage.
The alleged polluting effects of foreign travel had no scriptural sanction.
iv). Jyotiba Phule:
Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage, which was prohibited particularly among high-
caste Hindus.
Jyotiba and his wife Savitribai Phule devoted their lives for the uplift of the depressed classes and women.
v). Parsi reform Movement:
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Behrramiji Malabari organized a campaign for legislation against the practice of child marriage.
Baba Ram Singh considered both men and women equal and accepted widow remarriage.
He prohibited the dowry system and child marriage.
Unit .6 EARLY REVOLTS AGAINST BRITISH RULE IN TAMIL NADU

1. Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company‘s policy of territorial aggrandizement?
a) Marudhu brothers b) Puli Thevar c) Velunachiyar d) Veerapandya Kattabomman
2. Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
a) Velunachiyar b) Kattabomman c) Puli Thevar d) Oomai thurai
3. Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
a) Kayathar b) Nagalapuram c) Virupachi d) Panchalamkurichi
4. Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?
a) Marudhu brothers b) Puli Thevar c) Veerapandya Kattabomman d) Gopala Nayak
5. When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?
a) 24 May 1805 b) 10 July 1805 c) 10 July 1806 d) 10 September 1806
6. Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore fort?
a)Col. Fancourt b) Major Armstrong c)Sir John Cradock d) Colonel Agnew
7. Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?
a) Calcutta b) Mumbai c) Delhi d) Mysore
1. The Palayakkarars system was put in place in Tamil Nadu by ____________.VISWANATHA NAYAKA
2. Velunachiyar and her daughter were under the protection of __________ for eight years.
GOPALA NAYAKAR
3. Bennerman deputed __________ to convey his message, asking Kattabomman to surrender.
RAMALINGANAR
4. Kattabomman was hanged to death at _________.KAYATHAR
5. The Rebellion of Marudhu Brothers was categorized in the British records as the _______.
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SECOND PALAYAKKARAR WAR
6. ___________ was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort. FATEH HYDER
1. i.) The Palayakkarars system was in practice in the Kakatiya Kingdom.
ii). Puli Thevar recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764 after the death of Khan Sahib.
iii). Yusuf Khan who was negotiating with the Palayakkarars, without informing the Company administration was
charged with treachery and hanged in 1764.iv). Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Kattabomman.
a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct c) (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct
2. i) Under Colonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mahfuzkhan‘s army.
ii) After Muthu Vadugar‘s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted Velunachiyar in restoring the
throne to her. iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League.
iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct c) (ii), (iii) and (iv )are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct
3. Assertion (A): Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious conflict with The Marathas.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
IV. Match the following: ANSWERS
1. Theerthagiri - Vellore Revolt 1. Odanilai
2. Gopala Nayak - Ramalinganar 2. Dindigul
3. Bannerman - Dindigul 3. Ramalinganar
4. Subedar Sheik Adam - Vellore Fort 4. Vellore Revolt
5. Col. Fancourt - Odanilai 5. Vellore Fort
V. Answer the questions briefly:
1. What were the duties of the Palayakkarars?
kkarars free to collect
2. Identify the Palayams based on the division of east and west.
Eastern Palayams: Sattur, Nagalapuram, Ettayapuram and panchalamkuruchi
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Uthumalai, Thalavankottai, Naduvankurichi, Singampatti
3.What was the significance of the Battle of Kalakadu?
1000 sepoys of the Company, Mahfuzkhan received 600 more sent by the Nawab.
4. What was the bone of contention between the Company and Kottabomman?
t the taxes.
5. Highlight the essence of the Tiruchirappalli Procalamation of 1801.
The English demanded that the Marudhu pandiyars hand over the fugitives.
But they refused so Colonel Agnew and Colonel Inns marched on Sivagangai.
In June 1801 Marudhu Pandiyars issued a proclamation of Independence which is called
Trichirappalli Proclamation.
1. Attempt an essay of the heroic fight Veerapandya Kattabomman conducted against the East India
Company.
es the Palayakkarars of Panchalamkurichi at the age of thirty.
attabomman jointly decided on a confrontation with the English.
ged from a tamarind tree in the old fort of Kayathar.

2. Highlight the tragic fall of Sivagangai and its outcome.
But they refused.

ish attacked the rebels in Thanjavur and Trichirapalli.
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to Piranmalai and kalayarkoil.
prevailed.
3. Account for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806.

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Thirunelveli to the company. The English army officer‘s scant respect for the social and religious sentiments
of the Indian sepoys also angered them.
The state of peasantry from which class the sepoys had been recruited also bothered them much.
Famine breaking out in 1805 many of the sepoys‘ families was in dire economic straits.
The Indian soldiers were asked not to wear caste marks or ear rings when in uniform.
On 10 July 1806, in the early hours, guns were booming and the Indian sepoys of the 1st and 23rd regiments
raised their standard of revolt. Colonel Fancourt, Colonel Me Kerras killed Indian sepoys.
Unit .7.ANTI-COLONIAL MOVEMENTS AND THE BIRTH OF NATIONALISM

I. Choose the correct answer
1. Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
a) Wahhabi Rebellion b) Farazi Movement c) Tribal uprising d) Kol Revolt
2. Who declared that Land belongs to God and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
a) Titu Mir b) Sidhu c) Dudu Mian d) Shariatullah
3. Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under Permanent Settlement?
a) Santhals b) Titu Mir c) Munda d) Kol
4. Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
a) Dadabhai Naoroji b) Justice Govind Ranade c) Bipin Chandra pal d) Romesh Chandra
5. When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
a) 19 June 1905 b) 18 July 1906 c) 19 August 1907 d) 16 October 1905
6. What was the context in which the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was passed?
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a) Kol Revolt b) Indigo Revolt c) Munda Rebellion d) Deccan Riots
7. Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
a) Annie Basant b) Bipin Chandra Pal c) Lala Lajpat Rai d) Tilak
8. Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation through his play Nil darpan?
a) Dina Bandhu Mitra b) Romesh Chandra Dutt c) Dadabhai Naoroji d) Birsa Munda
II. Fill in the blanks
1. ____ was an anti-imperial and anti-landlord movement which originated in and around 1827.WAHHABI
REBELLION
2. The major tribal revolt which took place in Chotanagpur region was ____________.KOL REVOLT
3. The ____________ Act, restricted the entry of non-tribal people into the tribal land.
CHOTANAGPUR TENANCY
4. Chota Nagpur Act was passed in the year ____________.1908
5. W.C. Bannerjee was elected the president of Indian National Congress in the year _________.1885
1. (i) The Company received ₹ 22.5 million from Mir Jafar and invested it to propel the industrial revolution in
Britain.
(ii) Kols organized an insurrection in 1831-1832, which was directed against government officers and
moneylenders.
(iii) In 1855, two Santhal brothers, Sidhu and Kanu, led the Santhal Rebellion.
(iv) In 1879, an Act was passed to regulate the territories occupied by the Santhals.
a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct c) (iii) and (iv) are correct d) (i) and (iv) are correct
2. (i) One of the most significant contributions of the early Indian Nationalists was the formulation of an economic
critique of colonialism.
(ii) The early Congress leaders stated that the religious exploitation in India was the primary reason for the growing
poverty.
(iii) One of the goals of the moderate Congress leaders was to achieve Swaraj or self-rule.
(iv) The objective of Partition of Bengal was to curtail the Bengali influence and weaken the nationalist movement.
a) (i) and (iv) are correct b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correctc) (ii) and (iii) are correct d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
3. Assersion (A): Under colonial rule, for the first time in Indian history, government claimed a direct proprietary
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right over forests.
Reason (R): Planters used intimidation and violence to compel farmers to grow indigo.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
4.Assersion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
IV. Match the following ANSWERS
1. Wahhabi Rebellion - Luck now 1. Titu Mir
2. Munda Rebellion - Peshwa Baji Rao II 2. Ranchi
3. Begum Hazarat Mahal - Titu Mir 3. Luck now
4. Kunwar Singh - Ranchi 4. Bihar
5. Nana Sahib - Bihar 5. Peshwa Baji Rao II
V. Answer the following questions briefly
1. How are the peasant uprisings in British India classified?
Restorative Rebellions Religious Movements Social banditry Mass insurrection
2. Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse
Satara Sambalpur Punjap Jhansi Nagpur
3. What do you mean by drain of wealth?
The colonial economy was a continuous transfer of resources from India to Britain without any favorable returns
back to India. This is called the drain of wealth.
4. Highlight the objectives of Home Rule Movement.
To attain self government within the British empire by using constitutional means. To obtain the status of
dominion, a political position accorded later to Australia Canada South Africa, and New Zealand.
To use non-violent constitutional methods to achieve their goals.
5. Summarise the essence of Luck now Pact.
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The home rule movement and the subsequent reunion of moderates and the militant nationalists opened the
possibility of fresh talks with the Muslims. Under the Lucknow pact the congress and the Muslim league agreed
that there should be self-government in India as soon as possible.
1. Discuss the causes and consequences of the Revolt of 1857?
a). Annexation Policy of British India
i). The Doctrine of Lapse.
If a native ruler failed to produce a biological male heir to the throne, the territory was to ‗lapse‘ into British India
upon the death of the ruler. Satara, Sambalpur, parts of the Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur were annexed by the
British through the Doctrine of Lapse.
ii). Insensitivity to Indian Cultural Sentiments
The dress code was part of their efforts to convert soldiers to Christianity. The sepoys were also upset with
discrimination in salary and promotion. Indian sepoys were paid much less than their European counterparts.
They felt humiliated and racially abused by their seniors.
b). Consequences of the Revolt:
The British would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters. The number of Indians
restrained from holding important ranks and position. The British took control of the artillery and shifted their
recruiting effort to regions and communities.
2. How did the people of Bengal respond to the Partition of Bengal (1905)?
In 1899, Lord Curzon was appointed the Viceroy of India. The idea of partition was devised to suppress the
political activities against the British rule in Bengal by creating a Hindu-Muslim divide.
Curzon assured Muslims that in the new provinces of East Bengal Muslims would enjoy a unity.
Instead of dividing the Bengali people along the religious line partition united them.
They protected through prayers, press campaigns, petitions, and public meeting.
The boycott of British goods was one such method.
Unit 8. NATIONALISM: GANDHIAN PHASE

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1. Who was arrested during the anti-Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?
a) Motilal Nehru b) Saifuddin Kitchlew c) Mohamed Ali
2. In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
a) Bombay b) Madras C) CALCUTTA
d) Raj Kumar Shukla
d) Lucknow
3. Which among the following was declared as ‗Independence Day‘?
a) 26th January 1930 b) 26th December 1929 c) 16th June 1946 d) 15th January 1947
4. When was the first Forest Act enacted?
a) 1858 b) 1911 c) 1865 d) 1936
5. On 8 January 1933 which day was observed ____________.
a) Temple Entry Day b) Day of Deliverance c) Direct Action Day d) Independence Day
6. Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy?
a) 1858 Act b) Indian Councils Act, 1909 c) Government of India Act, 1919 d) Government of India Act, 1935
II. Fill in the blanks
1. Gandhi regarded __________ as his political guru.GOPAL KRISHA GOKHALE
2. Khilafat Movement was led by _________.ALI BROTHERS
3. Government of India Act 1919 introduced __________ in the provinces.DYARCHY
4. The Civil Disobedience Movement in North West Frontier Province was led by _________
KHAN ABDUL GHAFFAR KHAN
5. Ramsay Macdonald announced __________ which provided separate electorates to the minorities and the
depressed classes.THE COMMUNAL AWARD
6. __________ established Congress Radio underground during the Quit India Movement.USHA METHA
1. (i) The Communist Party of India was founded in Tashkent in 1920.
(ii) M. Singaravelar was tried in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case.
(iii) The Congress Socialist Party was formed by Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev and Mino Masani.
(iv) The Socialists did not participate in the Quit India Movement.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct c) (iv) is correct d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
2. Assertion: The Congress attended the First Round Table Conference.
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Reason: Gandhi-Irwin Pact enabled the Congress to attend the Second Round Table Conference.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) A is wrong but R is correct d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
3. Assertion: The Congress Ministries resigned in 1939.
Reason: The Colonial government of India entered the war without consulting the elected
Congress ministries.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
IV. Match the Following:- ANSWERS
1. Rowlatt Act - Surrender of titles 1. Black Act
2. Non Cooperation Movement - Dyarchy 2. Surrender of titles
3. Government of India Act, 1919 - M.N. Roy 3. Dyarchy
4. Communist Party of India - Direct Action Day 4. M.N. Roy
5. 16th August 1946 - Black Act 5. Direct Action Day
V. Answer the following briefly:
1. Describe the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
On 13 April 1919 a public meeting was arranged at jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. The only entrance to the
park that was surrounded on all sides by high walls was blocked. The firing lasted for ten minutes till the troops
ran out ammunition. Official estimates 379 were killed and more than ten thousand injured.
2. Write a note on the Khilafat Movement.
After First World War Caliph of Turkey, who was considered the head of Muslims of the world was given a
harsh treatment. A movement was started his support called the Khilafat Movement.
Gandhi supported the movement and saw in it an opportunity to unite Hindus and Muslims.
He presided over the All India Khilafat Conference held at Delhi in November 1919
3. Why did Gandhi withdraw the Non Cooperation Movement?
On 5th February 1922 a procession of the nationalists in Chauri Chaura, Gorakhpur in present day Uttarpradesh
provoked by the police turned violent. The police finding themselves outnumbered shut themselves inside the
police stationThe mob burnt the police station 22 policemen lost their lives.
4. Why was Simon Commission boycotted?
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Simon Commission was an all white commission with no Indian member.
Indians were angered that they had been denied the right to decide their own constitution.
All sections of India including the congress and Muslim League decided to boycott the commission.
5. What is Poorna Swaraj?
December 1929 Jawaharlal Nehru as the president, Poorna Swaraj was declared as the goal.
26 January 1930 was declared as Independence Day and a pledge was taken all over the country to attain Poorna
Swaraj non-violently.
6. Write a note on Bhagat Singh.
Bhagat Singh along with B.K. Dutt threw a smoke bomb inside the Central Legislative Assembly in 1929.
They threw pamphlets and shouted ‗Inquilab Zindabad‘ and long Live the Proletariat.
He along with Rajguru was arrested and sentenced to death.
7. What are the terms of the Poona Pact?
The principle of separate electrorates was abandoned.
Instead, the principle of joint electrote was accepted with reservation of seats for the depressed classes.
Reserved seats for the deprerssed classes were increased from 71 to 148.
VI. Answer in detail.
1. Examine the factors that led to the transformation of Gandhi into a mass leader.
Mahatma Gandhi arrived in India in 1915 from South Africa after fighting the civil rights of the Indians.
He introduced Satyagraha which he had perfected in South Africa. The militants confronted the repression of
the colonial state violently. His studying time experience in London. Gandhi faced racial discrimination in
South Africa Durban railway incident. Inspired by Ruskin, Gandhi established the Phoenix settlement.
Gandhi developed Satyagraha devotion to the truth, truth force a strategy. Communal Award, Untouchability,
Hindu –Muslims Unity Gandhi popular unification.
2. Critically examine the Civil Disobedience Movement as the typical example of Gandhian movement.
Gandhi launch a Civil Disobedience Movement on 26th January 1930 was declared as Independence Day.
A pledge was taken all over the country to attain Poorna Swaraj non – violently.
The Indian national Congress authorized Gandhi to launch the movement. When the Viceroy did not respond
to the character of demands Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement.
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At the break of dawn 12 March 1930 Gandhi set out from Sabarmati Ashram with 78 of its inmates.
At the age of 61 Gandhi recovered a distance of 241 miles in 24 days to reach Dandi at sunset on 5 April 1930.
The next morning, he took a lump of salt law. Gandhi was arrested at midnight and sent to Yervada Jail.
3. Discuss the reasons behind the partition of India.
The British rule in Bengal by creating a Hindu- Muslim divide.
In Lucknow Pact the Congress leadership accepted the concept of separate electorate for Muslims.
Jinnah demanded that one-third of the sets be reserved for Muslims. Jinnah demanding separate state for
Muslims revived the Muslims League. Muslim majority provinces in the Northwest and the Muslim Majority
provinces in the North east. The Mountbatten plan India was portioned into two dominions – India and Pakistan.
Unit 9. FREEDOM STUGGLE IN TAMILNADU

1. Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
a) T.M. Nair b) P. Rangaiah c) G. Subramaniam d) G.A. Natesan
2. Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
a) Marina b) Mylapore c) Fort St. George d) Thousand Lights
3. Who said ―Better bullock carts and freedom than a train deluxe with subjection‖?
a) Annie Besant b) M. Veeraraghavachari c) B.P. Wadia d) G.S. Arundale
4. Who among the following were Swarajists?
a) S. Satyamurti b) Kasturirangar c) P. Subbarayan d) Periyar EVR
5. Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?
a) Kamaraj b) Rajaji c) K. Santhanam d) T. Prakasam
6. Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
a) Erode b) Madras c) Salem d) Madurai
1. ____________ was appointed the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court. T.MUTHU SWAMI
2. Nilakanta Brahmachari started the secret society named ____________.BHARATA MATHA SOCITY
3. The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students was established by________. C.NATESANAR
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4. ____________ formed the first Congress Ministry in Madras. C.RAJAJI
5. ____________ was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League. YAKUB HASAN
6. ____________ hoisted the national flag atop Fort St. George on 26 January 1932. BHASHAM
1. (i) Madras Native Association was founded in 1852.
(ii) Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran was started in 1891.
(iii) The Madras Mahajana Sabha demanded conduct of civil services examinations only in India
(iv) V.S. Srinivasanar was an extremist.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (iii) is correct c) (iv) is correct d) All are correct
2. (i) EVR did not participate in the Non - Cooperation Movement.
(ii) Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan of the Muslim League.
(iii) Workers did not participate in the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Toddy shops were not picketed in Tamil Nadu.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (i) and (iii) are correct c) (ii) is correct d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
IV. Match the Following: ANSWERS
1. MNA - Anti-Hindi agitation 1. Torture Commission
2. EVR Periyar - Removal of Neill Statue 2. Vaikom Hero
3. S.N. Somayajulu - Salt Satyagraha 3. Removal of Neill Statue
4. Vedaranyam - Torture Commission 4. Salt Satyagraha
5. Thalamuthu - Vaikom Hero 5. Anti-Hindi agitation
V. Answer the questions briefly:
1. List out the contribution of the moderates.
Believed in constitutional methods Conducting hall meetings
Deliberating the problems of the country in English
2. Write a note on the Tirunelveli Uprising.
V.O.C joined with Subramania Siva in organizing the mill workers in Thoothukudi and Tirunelveli
The two leaders were charged with sedition and sentenced to rigorous imprisonment.
Initially V.O.C was given a draconian sentence of two life imprisonments.
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3. What is the contribution of Annie Besant to India's freedom struggle?
Annie Besant started Home Rule Movement in 1916.
She started the newspaper New India and Commonweal to carry forward her agenda.
Under the Press Act of 1910 Annie Besant was asked to pay hefty amount as security.
She was elected the President of the Congress session of 1917.
1. Discuss the response to Swadeshi Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Discuss the response to Swadeshi Movement in Tamil Nadu. The Swadeshi movement made a deep impact in
Tamilnadu. Public meeting attended by thousands of people were organized in various parts of Tamilnadu.
Tamil was used on the public platform for the time to mobilize the people. Bharathi‘s patriotic songs were
especially important. Many journals were started to propagate Swadeshi ideals. Students and youth participated
widely in the Swadeshi Movement. Swadesamitran and India were prominent journals.
2. Examine the origin and growth of Non-Brahmin Movement in Tamil Nadu.
There was rapid growth in education in the Madras Presidency. There was an increase in the number of
educated non-Brahmins. Intense political and social activity discussed above politicized the educated non-
Brahmins. Congress was also overwhelmingly composed of Brahmins. In 1912 the Madras Dravidian
Association was founded. The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students. SILF began to be
popularly known as Justice party after its English daily.
3. Describe the role of Tamil Nadu in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Tamilnadu was in the forefront of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
The Civil Disobedience Movement was a mass movement with the participation of student s shopkeepers,
workers, women, etc. In the city of Madras, shops were picked and foreign goods boycotted.
Rajaji organized and led a salt Satyagraha march to vedaranyam. A special songs was composed for the march
by Namakkal. Mill workers struck work across the province. Women participated enthusiastically.
N.R.Subbaraman and K.Kamaraj also played an important role.
Unit 10.SOCIAL TRANSFORMATION IN TAMIL NADU

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1. _________________ established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.
a) Caldwell b) F.W. Ellis c) Ziegenbalg
2. ________________ founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893
a) Rettamalai Srinivasan b) B.R. Ambedkar c) Rajaji d) M.C. Rajah
d) Meenakshisundaram
3. India‘s first organized trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in__________.
a) 1918 b) 1917 c) 1916 d) 1914
4. __was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of Government officials.
a) Staff Selection Board b) Public Service Commission
c) Provincial Staff Recruitment Borad d) Staff Selection Commission
5. _____was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed class in Madras Province.
a) M. C. Rajah b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan c) T.M. Nair d) P. Varadarajulu
1. __________ was the first non-European language that went into print. TAMIL
2. The College of Fort St. George was founded by __________.F.W.ELLIS
3. __________ is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.MARAIMALAI ADIGAL
4. __________ was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics.JUSTICE PARTY
5. The name Suriyanarayana Sastri changed in Tamil as __________PARITHIMAR KALAIGNAR
6. __________ gave prominence to Tamil music.ABRAHAM PANDITHAR
7. The first Woman Legislator in India was __________.MUTHU LAKSHMI AMMAIYAR
III Choose the correct statement:
1. (i) Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812.
(ii) Maraimalai Adigal collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature
literature.
(iii) Robert Caldwell established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and
also established the antiquity of Tamil.
(iv) Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram was an early pioneer in Trade union movement.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (i) and (iii) are correct c) (iv) is correct d) (ii) and (iii) are
correct
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2. Assertion (A): The Justice Party continued to remain in government from 1920-1937 in Madras Presidency.
Reason (R): The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period of Dyarchy.
a) Both A and R are correct b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A
1. Dravidian Home - Maraimalai Adigal 1. Natesanar
2. Thozhilalan – Rettaimalai Srinivasan 2. Singaravelar
3. Tani Tamil Iyakkam - Singaravelar 3. Maraimalai Adigal
4. Jeeviya Saritha Surukkam - Natesanar 4. Rettaimalai Srinivasan
V. Answer briefly:
1. Write a note on Tamil Renaissance.
Tamil was the first non-European language that went into print. This provided the Tamil people with a
revelation about their heritage. Modern Tamils founded their social and cultural identify on the ancient Tamil
classics.
2. Highlight the contribution of Caldwell for the cause of South Indian languages.
Robert Caldwell expanded this argument in a book titled, A comparative Grammar of the Dravidian or south
Indian family of Languages in 1856. He established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in
contrast with Sanskrit.
3. List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their writings.
C.W. Damotharanar U.V. Swaminathar S.Vaiyapuri Poet Bharatidasan
4. Discuss the importance of Hindu Religious Endowment Act passed by the Just cite ministry?
The justice party introduced the Hindu religious endowment act in 1926. Enabled any individual irrespective of
their caste affiliation. To become a member of the temple committee.
5. Name the newspapers published by the South Indian Liberal Foundation.
Dravidian – Tamil Justice – English Andhra Prakasika - Telugu
6. Estimate Periyar as a feminist.
Periyar was critical of patriarchy He condemned child marriage and he devadasi system.
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1. Attempt an essay on the foundation and development of Tamil Renaissance in the 19th Century.
The cultural hegemony of colonialism and the rise of humanism brought several changes in the socio cultural
life. Modern Tamilnadu too experienced such a historical transition. Tamil learning language and culture
played a significant role in their identity construction. Tamil was the first non-European language that went into
print. Works that can be described as secular were taken up for publishing. Thirukural was one of the earliest
Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812. Manonmaniam written by P. Sundaranar.
Ramalinga Adigal and Abraham pandithar are 19th century most famous poets.
2. Describe the background for the formation of the Justice Party and point out its contribution to the cause
of social justice.
i). Formation of the Justice Party:
On 20 November around 30 prominent non-Bramin leaders. Including Dr.C.Natesanar, Sir PittiTheyagarayar,
T.M. Nair and Alamleu Manigai Thayarammal came together to form the south Indian Liberation Federation.
The association started publishing three newspapers Dravidian in Tamil, Justice
in English, Andhra Prakasika in Telugu. Subbarayalu became the chief minister of the Madras Presidency. ii).
Contribution to social justice: The Justice Party is the fountainhead of the non-Brahmin movement in the
country. The justice party legacy of social justice owes its existence to the formative years. The justicites
removed the legal hindrances restricting inter-caste marriages. Its rule established the Staff Selection Board in
1924 for the selection of government officials. Its introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment (HRE) Act in
1926.
3. Estimate Periyar E.V.R‟s decisive contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu.
Periyar E.V.R. promoted khadi and sold it on streets of Tamilnadu. He cut down 500 coconut trees in his farm
to support the campaign for prohibition. Periyar proposed a resolution regarding the rights of untouchables to
temple entry. In vaikom people protested against this practice so, Periyar led the movement and was
imprisoned. Periyar started the Self Respect movement in 1925. Periyar understood the relevance of mass
communication in spreading rationalist thought. Periyar objected to terms like ―giving in marriage‖.
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GEOGRAPHY
Unit : 1. INDIA - LOCATION, RELIEF AND DRAINAGE
1. The north-south extent of India is
a. 2,500 km b. 2,933 km c. 3,214 km d. 2,814 km
2. _________ River is known as ―Sorrow of Bihar‗.
a. Narmada b. Godavari c. Kosi d. Damodar
3. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _________.
a. Coast b. Island c. Peninsula d. Strait
4. The Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates India from _______
a. Goa b. West Bengal c. Sri Lanka d. Maldives
5. The highest peak in South India is
a. Ooty b. Kodaikanal c. Anaimudi d. Jindhagada
6. _____________ Plains are formed by the older alluviums.
a. Bhabar b. Tarai c. Bhangar d. Khadar
7. Pulicat Lake is located between the states of
a. West Bengal and Odisha b. Karnataka and Kerala
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c. Odisha and Andhra Pradesh d. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
II. Match the following:-
1. New alluvium
2. Mt. Godwin Austen (K2 — Khadhar
— Southern part of East Coastal Plain
ANSWERS
1. Khadhar
2. Highest peak in India
3. Coromandel Coast — Highest peak in India 3. Southern part of East Coastal Plain
III. Give Reasons:
1. Himalayas are called young fold mountains:
The Himalayan Mountains consists of the youngest and the loftiest mountain chains in the world.
They have been formed only few millions years ago.
It stretches for a distance of 2500 km from the Indus George in the west to Brahmaputra George in the east
.
IV. Distinguish between the following:
1. Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
S.No: WESTERN GHATS EASTERN GHATS
1 It forms the western edge of the peninsular It run from south west to north east from
plateau the eastern edge.
2 It runs parallel to the Arabian sea coast It runs parallel to the Bay of Bengal Coast
3 The northern part of this range is called as This range is also called as poorvadri
Sahyadris
4 It western Ghats are continuous It eastern Ghats are not continuous
2. Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains.
S.No: WESTERN COASTAL PLAINS EASTERN COASTAL PLAINS
1 It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian It lies between the Eastern Ghats and
Sea. Bay of Bengal
2 It extends from Rann of Kutch in the north to It stretches from the delta region of West Bengal to
Kanyakumari. Kanyakumari.
3 The southern part of the plains is known as The Southern part is called Coromandal coast.
Malabar Coast.
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4 It‘s narrow except in Gujarat It‘s are more extensive and wider.
V. Answer in brief:
1. Name the neighboring countries of India.
Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Srilanka.
2. Give the importance of IST.
In order to avoid the difference between the places in the country in local time.
The local time of the central meridian of India is the standard time of India
3. Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.
The shape of this plateau is roughly triangular. The area of this plateau is about 7 lakh square km.
Height ranges from 500 to 1000 m above sea level.
4. Write a brief note on the island group of Lakshadweep.
This is small group of coral islands located off west coast of India. It covers an area of 32 sq.km.
Three divisions namely Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi. It was named as Lakshadweep in 1973.
VI. Answer in a paragraph:
1. Explain the divisions of Northern Mountains and its importance to India.
The Trans – Himalayas Himalayas Eastern Hills Importance of Himalayas
i). The Trans – Himalayas:
It is also known as western Himalayas. It lies to the north of the great Himalayan range.
It lies in Jammu and Kashmir and Tibetian plateau. They contain the Tethys sediments.
ii). Himalayas
It constitutes the core part of Northern Mountains. It is an young fold mountains.
Greater Himalayas, Lesser Himalayas and Siwaliks are the main divisions of Himalayas.
iii)Eastern Hills:
These are the eastern off shoot of Himalayas. It extended in the north eastern states of India.
Most of these hills are located along the border of India and Myanmar while others are inside of India.
iv). Importance‟s of Himalayas:
It causes heavy rainfall to north India. It is the sources for many perennial rivers like Indus, Ganges,
Brahmaputra etc. It provides raw material for many forest based industries.
Amaranth, Kedarnath, Badrinath and Vaishnavidevi temples are situated here.
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VII. Mark the following in the outline map of India:
1. Major mountain ranges – Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar, Aravalli, Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats.
2. Major plateaus – Malwa, Chotanagpur, Deccan.
Unit : 2. CLIMATE AND NATURAL VEGETATION OF INDIA

1. Western disturbances cause rainfall in _________.
a) Tamilnadu b) Kerala c) Punjab d) Madhya Pradesh
2. _________ helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
a) Loo b) Norwester c) Mango showers d) Jet stream
3. _________ is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
a) Isohyets b) Isobar c) Isotherm d) Latitudes
4. Climate of India is labelled as _________.
a) Tropical humid b) Equatorial Climate c) Tropical Monsoon Climate d) Temperate Climate
II. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given below ones.
1.Assertion(A): The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier.
Reason(R): The Himalayas prevents cold winds from central Asia and keep the Indian Sub-continent warm.
(Give option for this questions)
a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A
c) (A) is correct (R) is false d) (A) is false (R) is true
III. Choose the inappropriate answer.
1. Climate of India is affected by__________.
(a) Latitudinal extent (b) Altitude (c) Distance from the sea (d) Soil
V. Answer briefly.
1. List the factors affecting Climate of India.
Climate of India is affected by the factors of latitude, altitude,distance from sea,monsoon wind,relief features and
jet stream.
2. What is meant by „normal lapse rate‟?
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The altitude increases, the temperatures decreases.
Temperature decreases at the rate of 6.50C for every 1000 meters of ascent. It is called normal lapse rate.
3. What are „jet streams‟?
The fast moving winds blowing in a narrow zone in the upper atmosphere.
The onset of southwest monsoon is driven by westerly jet.
4. Write a short note on „Monsoon wind‟.
The word ‗monsoon‘ has been derived from the Arabic word ‗Mausim‘ which means ‗season‘.
The most dominant factor which affects the climate of India is the monsoon winds.
South west monsoon and North east monsoon are the two types of monsoon winds.
5. Name the four distinct seasons of India.
Cold Weather Season Summer Season Rainy Season Northeast monsoon
6. What is „burst of monsoon‟?

Prior to the onset of the southwest monsoon, the temperature in north India reaches upto 460 c.
The sudden approach of monsoon wind over south India with lightening.
It lowers the temperature of India to a large extent.
7. Name the areas which receive heavy rainfall.
Western Coast Meghalaya Tripura Nagaland Arunachala Pradesh
VI. Distinguish between the following:-
1. Weather and Climate
S.No: WEATHER CLIMATE
1 The state of the atmosphere at a particular The weather conditions prevailing in an area in
place and time. general.
2 It is changeable It is long lasting.
3 It is day to day condition of atmosphere at It is the average state of weather for a long period .
any place.
4 We need day to day record. 35 years of weather record is necessary.
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2.North East Monsoon and South West Monsoon.
S.No NORTH EAST MONSOON SOUTH WEST MONSOON
1 It is also known as retreating monsoon. It is also known as advancing monsoon.
2 It blows from October to November It blows from June to September.
3 They are moisture laden wind. . They are cold dry wind.
4 It blows from ocean towards the land. It blows from land to the sea.
5 It receive good amount of rainfall accounted for Over all about 75% of Indian rainfall is
35% of their annual total received from this monsoon.
VII. Give reasons for the following topics.
1. Western Coastal plain is narrow.
The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.
2. India has a tropical monsoon climate.
Latitudinally most of India lies in the tropical delta.
The climate of India is also influenced by the monsoon winds.
3. Mountains are cooler than the plains.
The normal lapse rate temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5oc for every mts ascent
Hence, places in the mountains are cooler than the places on the plains.
VIII. Write in detail.
1. Write about South West Monsoon.
The southwest monsoon is the most significant feature of the Indian climate. The monsoon is influenced by
global phenomenon like ElNino. Prior to the onset of the southwest monsoon, the temperature in north India
reaches upto 46°C. The sudden approach of monsoon wind over south India with lightning and thunder is termed
as the ‗burst of monsoon‘. It lowers the temperature of India to a large extent. The wind from Bay of Bengal
branch moves towards northeast India and Myanmar. Over all about 75% of Indian rainfall is received from this
monsoon.
IX. Mark the following on the outline map of India.
1. Direction of South West Monsoon wind. 2. Direction of North East Monsoon wind. 3. Areas of heavy rainfall.
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Unit: 3. INDIA - AGRICULTURE
1. The soil which is rich in iron oxides is __________.
a) Alluvial b) Black c) Red d) Alkaline
2. Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research b) Indian Meteorological Department
c) Soil Survey of India d) Indian Institute of Soil Science
3. The soils formed by the rivers are:
a) Red soils b) Black soils c) Desert soils d) Alluvial soils
4. _________ dam is the highest gravity in India.
a) Hirakud dam b) Bhakra Nangal dam c) Mettur dam d) Nagarjuna Sagar dam
5. Black soils are also called as:
a) Arid soils b) Saline soils c) Regur soils d) Mountain soils
7. The longest dam in the world is ___________.
a) Mettur dam b) Kosi dam c) Hirakud dam d) Bhakra-Nangal dam
II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below:
1. Assertion (A): Horticulture involves cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and flowers.
Reason (R): India ranks first in the world in the production of mango, banana, and citrus fruits.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false (d) (A) is false (R) is true
2. Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of eroded and decayed materials brought by the rivers.
Reason (R): Paddy and wheat are grown well in the soil.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (b) Both (A) and (R)are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false (d) (A) is false (R) is true
III. Pick the odd one out:
1. a) Khadar b) Bhangar c) Alluvial soil d) Black soil
2. a) Inundational canals b) Perennial canals c) Tanks d) Canals
1. Tehri -a)Mahanadi 1. Highest dam in the India
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2. . Hirakud - b) ) Highest dam in the India
V. Answer in brief:
1. Define soil.
2. Mahanadi
Soil is the uppermost layer of the land surface usually composed of minerals, organic matter, living organisms,
air and water.
2. Name the types of soil found in India.
Alluvial soil Black soil Red soil Laterite soil Desert soil
3. State any two characteristics of black cotton soil.
Black cotton soil black color, due to presence of titanium, iron.
Sticky when wet High degree of moisture retentivity.
4. Define Agriculture.
Agriculture is the process of producing food for people, fodder for cattle, fiber an d many other desired
products by the cultivation of certain plants and the raising of domesticated animals.
5. State the types of agriculture practices in India?
Subsistence Farming Shifting Agriculture Intensive Farming Dry farming.
VI. Give reasons:
1. Agriculture is the backbone of India.
Indian economy is mainly based on agriculture.
Still the agriculture in India employs more than 50% of the population of the country.
2. Rain water harvesting is necessary.
It is necessary. Indian rainfall is erratic in nature.
To meet the ever growing demand for water in the agriculture, domestic and industrial sector.
VII Distinguish between the following:
1. Inundational canal and perennial canal.
S.No: INUNDATIONAL CANAL PERENNIAL CANAL
1 It‘s are spill channels. It draws their water from the perennial rivers.
2 These canals do not useful for irrigation all the time. These channels are useful for irrigation.
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3 River Sutlej has many such seasonal canals. Lower and upper Chenab canal.
2. Alluvial soils and Black soils.
S.No; ALLUVIAL SOIL BLACK SOIL
1 Its derived from the sediments deposited by It‘s formed due to the spread of weathered lava over
therivers and streams thedecan trap.
2 It consist of rich in potash , phosphoric acid, lime It consist of calcium and magnesium arbonates,
and carbon compounds but poor in nitrogen. high quantities of iron, aluminum, lime and magnesia.
3 Nature of the soil is Sandy, loamy silt and clay . It is Sticky when wet.
4 Rice, wheat, sugarcane and oilseeds can be Cotton, millets, tobacco and sugarcane can be
cultivated in this soil. cultivated in this soil.
VIII. Answer in a paragraph:
1. State the types of soil in India and explain the characteristics and distribution of soil.
Types of Soil:
Alluvial soil Black soil Red soil Laterite soil Desert soil
i). Alluvial Soils:
Characteristics:
Colour – It is dark in colour.
Formation - sediments deposited by streams and rivers when they slowly loose
Nature –Sandy-loam-silt-clay profile shows no marked differentiation
Distribution: Ganga and Bamaputra river valleys, Plains of Uttar Pradesh, Uttranchal, Punjab, Haryana.
ii). Black Soils:
Characteristics:
Formation - Derived from basalts of Deccan trap.
Colour - black colour, due to presence of titanium, iron.
Nature - Sticky when wet High degree of moisture retentivity
Distribution: Maharashtra, Malwa plateau, Telangana, and north part of Karnataka.
iii). Red Soils:
Characteristics:
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Formation - decomposition of ancient crystalline rocks like granites and gneisses and from rock type
Chemical properties - rich in minerals such as iron and magnesium.
Nature - Light texture, porous friable presence of limited soluble salts Clay fraction of the red soils.
Distribution: Eastern part of Deccan plateau, Tamilnadu, Karnataka.
iv). Laterite Soils :
Characteristics:
Formation - It is formed by the process of leaching
Chemical properties - Composed mainly of hydrated oxides of iron and aluminum.
Nature - More acidic on higher areas poor in high level, cannot retain moisture while plains they consist
of heavy loam and clay and easily retain moisture.
Distribution: Assam Hills, hill summits of Kerala and Karnataka, Eastern Ghats.
v). Desert Soil:
Characteristics:
Formation - Due to prevalence of the dry climate, high temperature and accelerated evaporation, the
soil is dry, it also lacks humus content due to the absence of vegetative cover Chemical properties - Contain high
percentages of soluble salts, alkaline with varying degree of calcium carbonate and are poor in organic matter; rich
enough in phosphate though poor in nitrogen Nature - light in colour, low humus, friable structure, low in moisture
Distribution: Rajasthan, Northern Gujarat and Sothern Punjab.
2. What is Multipurpose project? Write about any two multipurpose projects of India.
Construction of dam across rivers it is termed as multi-purpose river valley projects.
The various purposes of a dam serves are irrigation, hydropower generation, water supply for drinking
and industrial purpose etc…
1. Name of Project: Bhakra – Nangal Project
River Sutlej
Benefit states Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan
Irrigation (sq.km) 52,609
Hydropower (megawatts) 1500
2. Name of Project: Hirakud Project
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River Mahanadi
Benefit states Odissa , Chattisgarh
Irrigation (sq.km) 141600 Hydropower (megawatts) 347.5
3. Bring out the characteristics of Intensive and Plantation farming.
i). Intensive Farming
It is an agricultural intensification and mechanization system that aims to maximize yields from
available land through various means, such as heavy use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers.
This intensification and mechanization has also been applied to the raising of livestock with billions
of animals, such as cows, pigs and chickens, being held indoors.
They have become known as factory farms. Intensive farming is practiced in Punjab, parts of Rajasthan, Uttar
Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh inIndia.
ii). Plantation Farming:
It‘s are cultivated for the purpose of exports. These are cultivated in large estates on hilly slopes.
Cultivation near the coast is preferable as it facilitates exports. Tea, coffee, rubber and species are the major
plantation crops of India.
HOT QUESTIONS
1.Can you imagine a world without agriculture ?
2.Can you give solutions for the prevailing water disputes in south India ?
Map Exercise
1. Demarcate the major tracts of alluvial soils. 2.Delineate the main regions of blacks. 3. Locate the Hirakud
dam, Metturdam and Damodar dam. 4. Demarcate thee regions of desert soil
2.
Unit : 4.INDIA - RESOURCES AND INDUSTRIES

1. Manganese is used in______.
a) Storage batteries b) Steel Making c) Copper smelting d) Petroleum Refining
2. The Anthracite coal has ___________.
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a) 80 to 90% Carbon
a) Oxygen
b) Above 70% Carbon c) 60 to 70% Carbon
3. The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and
b) Water c) Carbon
4. The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in
d) Below 50% Carbon
d) Nitrogen
a) Gujarat b) Rajasthan c) Maharashtra d) Tamil nadu

5. The most abundant source of energy is
a) Bio mass b) Sun c) Coal d) Oil
6. The nucleus for the development of the chotanagpur plateau region is
a) Transport b) Mineral Deposits c) Large demand d) Power Availability
II. Match the following: ANSWERS
a. Bauxite - 1) Cement 1. Aircraft
b. Gypsum - 2) Aircraft 2. Cement
c. Black Gold - 3) Electrical goods 3. Coal
d. Iron ore - 4) Coal 4. Magnetite
e. Mica - 5) Magnetite 5. Electrical goods
III. Answer the following Questions briefly:
1. Define the resource and state its types.
Any energy derived from the environment that is used by living things including humans is called natural
resources. Two types of resources is i). Renewable and ii). Non-Renewable Resources
2. What are the minerals and its types?
On the basis of chemical and physical properties, minerals are broadly grouped under two categories.
They are i). Metallic ii). Non-Metallic
3. State the uses of Magnesium.
It is an important used for making iron and steel and serves as basic raw material for alloying.
It is the most important mineral for making iron and steel.
4. What is natural gas?
It is naturally occurring hydro carbon gas mixture consisting primarily of methane, but commonly includes
varying of other higher alkanes.
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5. Name the different types of coal with their carbon content.
Anthracite : contains 80 to 90% carbon Bituminous : contains 60 to 80% carbon
Lignite : contains 40 to 60% carbon Peat : contains less than 40% carbon
6. Name the important oil producing regions of India.
Mumbai Brahmaputra Gujarat Digboi
IV. Distinguish between:
1. Renewable and non-renewable resources.
S.NO RENEWABLE RESOURCES NON-RENEWABLE RESOURCES
1 Those which have natural regeneration after The resources that cannot be replaced again
their utilization. after utilization.
2 Do not pollute the environment. Pollute the environment.
3 Water, sun, light, wind, bio gas, tides are Coal, petroleum, natural gas is examples.
examples
4 Low cost High cost
2. Metallic and non-metallic minerals.

S.No: METALLIC MINERALS NON-METALLIC MINERALS
1 It is occur in naturally formed as mineral It is occur in limestone, sandstone and shale
deposits
2 Ex: Iron, manganese, copper, bauxite nickel, Ex: Mica, limestone, gypsum, nitrate, potash,
zinc,etc. Coal and etc..
3 Metals are malleable Non-metals are brittle.
4 They are ductile They are non ductile.
5 Good conductors of heat and electricity. Bad conductor of heat and electricity.
3. Conventional energy and non- conventional energy.
1
2
3
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S.No: CONVENTIONAL ENERGY
These are non-renewable source of energy.
These are going to last just for 100-200 years
They pollute the environment.
NON - CONVENTIONAL ENERGY
These are renewable source of energy.
These are going to last forever.
They non-pollute the environment
4 Ex: Coal and Petroleum Ex: Solar energy, Wind energy
VI. On the outline map of India mark the following:
1. Iron ore production centers. 2. Centers of Petroleum and Natural Gas production.
3. Coal mining centers. 4. Areas of cultivation of cotton. 5. Iron and Steel industries.
Unit : 5. INDIA - POPULATION, TRANSPORT, COMMUNICATION AND TRADE

I. . Distinguish between
1. Density of population and Growth of population.
S.No: DENSITY OF POPULATION GROWTH OF POPULATION
1 It is a better measure of understanding the It helps in predicting the future demographic
variation in distribution of population. characteristic of an area.
2 It is expressed as number of persons per unit It refers to the change in the number of
areausually per sq km. inhabitants of a country during a specified period.
3 In 2011 the density population is 382 persons In 2011 Population of India increased from 685
per sq.km. million in 1981 to 1210 .
4 India is one of the most thickly populated ten Growth of population in India has gone through the
countries of the world. different phases
V. Answer the following in a paragraph:

1. What is urbanization? Explain its Problems .
Meaning:
A rapid rate of urbanization in a society is taken as an indicator of its economic development.
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Urbanization is increasing rapidly in the developing countries including India. Impacts: It creates urban
sprawl. It makes overcrowding in urban centers. It leads to the formation of slums.
It increases traffic congestion in cities. It creates water scarcity in cities. It creates drainage problem. It
increases the rate of crime.
VI. On the outline map of India mark the following:
1. Densely populated state of India. 2. State of highest literacy inIndia.
Unit .6 .PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY OF TAMILNADU

1. The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
a) 8°4′N to 13°35′N b) 8°5′S to 13°35′S c) 8°0′N to 13°5′N d) 8°0′S to 13°05′S
2. The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
a) 76°18′ E to 80°20′E b) 76°18′ W to 80°20′W c) 86°18′ E to 10°20′E d) 86°18′ W to 10°20′W
3. The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is
a) Anaimudi b) Doddabetta c) Mahendragiri d) Servarayan
4. Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
a) Palghat b) Shencottah c) Bhorghat d) Achankoil
5. Which one of the following rivers is flow into the Arabian Sea?
a) Periyar b) Cauvery c) Chittar d) Bhavani
1. The plateau which lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts is ________.COIMBATORE PLATEAU.
2. __________ is the highest peak in the southern most part of the Eastern Ghats.SOLAI KARADU
3. The riverine Island of Srirangam is located between ______ and ____ branches of
cauvery.KOLLIDAM,CAUVERY
4. __________is the Tamil Nadu state animal NILGIRI TAHR
IV. Assertion type Question:
1. Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall from southwest monsoon.
Reason (R): It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
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a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A). b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
V. Answer the following in brief
d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
1. State the boundaries of Tamil Nadu.

East – Bay of Bengal West –Kerala North – Andhra Pradesh South – Indian Ocean Northwest -
Karnataka
2. What is „Teri‟?
The Sand dunes formed along the coast of Ramanadhapuram and Thoothukudi districts are called Teri.
3. How is coastal plain formed?
It is formed by the rivers that flow towards east drain in the Bay of Bengal.
It is more than 80 kilometers wide at some places.
4. Name the major islands of Tamil Nadu.
Pamban Hare Krusadai, Nallathani Theevu, Pullivasal Srirangam Upputani
5. Name the tributaries of river Thamirabarani.
Karaiyar Servalar Manimuthar Gadananathi Pachaiyar Chittar Ramanathi
6. Define: Disaster Risk Reduction.
It is the concept and practice of reducing disaster risks through systematic effortsto analyze and reduce the causal
factors of disasters.- UNDRR
7. During cyclone, how does the Meteorological department warn the fishermen?
The Fishermen are advised not to reach the deep sea for next 12 hours along coasts.
The fisherman is wanted to stay away from the sea storm in parts of coastal till normal.
VI. Distinguish between the following
1. Thamiraparani and Cauvery
S.No Thamiraparani Cauvery
1 It orginates and drains in Tamilnadu . It orginates in Karnataka and drains in Tamilnadu.
2 It is perennial river. It is non- perennial river.
3 It runs threw inter districts It runs threw inter states
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4 It does not make delta It makes delta.
VII. Give reasons for the following
1. Eastern Ghats are not a continuous range.
It is dissected at many places by the rivers, which drain into the drain into bay of Bengal.
2. Tamil Nadu receives low rainfall during southwest monsoon.
Tamilnadu is located in the rain shadow region for the wind which blows from the Arabian Sea.
3. Cuddalore is a multiprone disaster zone.
Cuddalore is affected byFlood, Cyclone, Earthquakes, Tremors and Tidal Wave region.So it is called multiprone
disaster zone. Cuddalore.
VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph
1. Describe the nature of the plateau region of Tamil Nadu.
i). Location:
Plateaus of Tamilnadu are located between the Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
It is roughly triangular in shape and covers an area of about 60000 sq.km.
ii). Height:
Its height increases from east to west. Its height ranges between 150 and 600 meters.
It has many subdivisions.
iii). Plateaus:
Bharatmahal plateau Coimbatore plateau Madurai plateau
2. Write an account on river Cauvery.
The river Cauvery originates at Talacauvery in the Brahmagiri hills of Kodagu district of Karnataka.
It serves as the boundary between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu for a distance of64 km. Mettur Dam is located
across this river in Salem district. Thereafter, it takes easterly course to enter into the plains of Tamil Nadu.
The river is wider in this region, where it is called as ‗Agandra Cauvery‘. In Trichirapalli district, the river
branches into two parts. The northern branch is Kollidam and the southern branch is Cauvery.
3.What are the Risk reduction measures taken before and after Cyclone.
Risk Reduction Measures:-
Before: Ignore rumours, stay calm, don‘t be panic; keep your mobile phones charged to ensure connectivity; use
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sns; listen to radio; watch TV; read newspaper for weather updates. Keep your documents and valuables in
waterproof containers; prepare an emergency kits with essential items for survival; secure your house; carry out
repairs; don‘t leave sharp objects loose; untie cattle/animals for their safety. Fishermen keep a radio set with extra
batteries handy; keep boats and rafts tied up safely and don‘t venture out in the sea.
During: Take care of the old and young, keep all family members inside the house; switch off al electrical
appliance, stay in an empty room, movables items should be securely tied; try to help your neighbours but, don‘t go
out during cyclone.
After: Those who shifted to the cyclone centre must remain there till instructions are received; strictly avoid loose
electrical wires after the cyclone; beware of snakes and other animals immediately after the cyclone; clear debris
and carcasses from/near the premise after the cyclone and report losses truthfully and accurately to the authorities.
MAP STUDY
Mark the important rivers, distribution of soil inTamil nadu map.
Unit 7.HUMAN GEOGRAPHY OF TAMILNADU

1. The delta which is known as Granary of South India is
a) Cauvery delta b) Mahanadi delta c) Godavari delta d) Krishna delta
2. Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is
a) Pulses b) Millets c) Oilseeds d) Rice
3. A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is
a) Mettur b) Papansam c) Sathanur d) Thungabahdra
4.
1. Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes ____________ % of its economy.21
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2. Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ____________.THEN PENNAI
III. Match the following: ANSWERS
1. Bauxite – Salem 1. Servaroy hills
2. Gypsum – Servaroy hills 2. Tiruchirapalli
3. Iron – Coimbatore 3. Salem
4. Limestone – Tiruchirapalli 4. Coimbatore
IV. Questions 1-2 are assertion and reasoning type
1. Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): They contribute a major share to the state‘s economy through textiles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
V. Answer the following in brief:
1. Explain the cropping seasons of Tamil Nadu:
No: Name Sowing Harvesting Major crops
1 Somavari April – May August – September Millets, Cotton
2 Samba July – August January – February Paddy, Sugarcane
3 Navarai November – December February – March Fruits, Vegetables
2. Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
The textile mills are more concentrated in Coimbatore. 30% of India exports of textiles products.
Cotton is cultivated is Coimbatore plateau. So the region is called Manchester.
3. Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Mettur dam Amaravathi Dam Mullaiperiyar Dam Aliyar Dam
VI. Distinguish between the following:

1. Marine Fishing and inland fishing
S.No Marine Fishing Inland fishing
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In ocean or seawaters, fishing within few kilometers
from the shorelinein shore fishing.
2 Chennai, Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli,
Nagapattinam, Ramanathapuram
Inland fishing is carried out in lakes, Rivers, ponds,
estuaries, backwaters and swamps.
Vellore, Cuddalore, Sivagangai and
Virudhunagar are inland fish production.
Thanjavur and are fish production areas.
3 The fish varities caught are sharks, flying, fish, Ornamental fish culture and the
counch, catfish, silverbellies and crabs. establishment of Inland Fishing.
4 The export of marine products from the Inland fishing sector contributes 1.25%
state 72,644 metric tons. of state economy.
2. Food crops and non- food crops
S.No Food crops Non- food crops
1 Paddy, Millets and pulses are the food crops. Sugarcane, Cotton, Sunflower, Coconut, tea,
coffee and rubber are non-food crops.
2 Its grown on Thanjavur, Coimbatore, It grown on Madurai, Vellore, Nilgiris
Darmapuri, Kanyakumari.
3 Millets – Mild cool climate and a low to Sugarcane – requires high temperature and
moderate rainfall. heavy rainfall.
4 It is mostly cultivated in plain area. It is mostly cultivated hilly region.
3. Surface water and ground water
S.No Surface water Ground water
1 The total surface water potential is 24,864 mcm The utilizable groundwater resource is 22423 mcm
2 Most of the surface water has already been tappe The current level of utilization water is 13558 mcm.
3 An area of 24 lakh hectares of the land is irrigated. It is about 60 % of the available recharge.
4 It is found in river, lake and cavity It‘s contained in subsurface layer of rock.
VII. Give reasons for the following:
1. Farmers switch over from inorganic to organic farming.
It can reduce these emissions to considerable scale. The nutrients in the soil that are drawn for agriculture will
be resorted back. The food it yields will be rich in proteins and nutrients.
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2. Cities are densely populated than the Villages
Electricity supply Transportation and Communication facilities Health and Educational infrastructure
3. Karur is called the Textile Capital of Tamil Nadu.
Karur is a major centre of exports of home furnishing. The city also famous for cottage and handloom
textiles. It has domestic and the global markets.
VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph:
1. Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu.
Tea, coffee, cashew, rubber, pepper, cinchona and cardamom, are the major plantation crops. Tamilnadu ranks
second in area and production of tea in India next to Assam. Tea plantation is found in the hills of the Nilgiris and
Coimbatore. The Nilgiris is the notable regions for tea plantations.
Coffee plants are grown in the hills of Western Ghats as well as Eastern Ghats.
Rubber plantation is significant in Kanyakumari. Pepper is confined to the warm and wet slopes Eastern and
Western Ghats of Tamilnadu. Cashew is extensively cultivated in cuddalore districts.
2. Give an account on water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Water is the precious gift of nature to humankind and millions of other species.
Tamilnadu constitutes 4% of India‘s land area. More than 95% of the surface water and 80% of the ground
water have already been put into use. Major uses of water include human animal consumption irrigation and
industrial use. The state is heavily dependent on monsoon rains.
Water Resources:
River Basins 17 Reservoirs 81 Tanks 41,124 Tube wells 4,98,644 Open wells 15,06,919
3. Bring out the mineral distribution in Tamil Nadu.
i). Meaning:
Tamil Nadu is the leading holder of country's resources of vermiculite, magnetite, dunite, rutile, garnet,
molybdenum and ilmenite.
The state accounts for the country's 55.3% of lignite, 75% of vermiculite, 69% of dunite, 59% of garnet, 52% of
molybdenum and 30% of titanium mineral resources.
ii). Important minerals are found in the state are as follows:
Neyveli has large lignite resources. Coal is also available in Ramanathapuram.
Oil and gas are found in the Cauvery basin. Iron deposits are found in Kanjamalai region in Salem district
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and Kalrayan Malai region of Tiruvannamalai district.
Magnesite ores are available near Salem.
and Virudhunagar districts.
Gypsum is obtained in Tiruchirappalli, Tirunelveli, Thoothukudi
Feldspar, quartz, copper and lead are also found in some parts of the state.
Map study:
1. Mark the areas of major crops, minerals and dams.
CIVICS
Unit : 1 . INDIAN CONSTITUTION
I Choose the Correct Answer:
1. Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign (b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular, socialist, democratic (d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
2. How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once (b) Twice (c) Thrice (d) Never
3. A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through
(a) Descent (b) Registration (c) Naturalization (d) All of the above
4. Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality (b) Right against Exploitation (c) Right to Property (d) Cultural and Educational Rights
5. One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary.
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
6. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to equality (c) Right to Constitutional remedies (d) Right to property
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7. How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires (b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency (d) All of the above
8. We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the
(a) American Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution (c) Russian Constitution (d) Irish Constitution
9. Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368
10. The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368
14. Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State Relations?
1. Sarkaria Commission 2. Rajamannar Committee 3. M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 (c) 1 & 3 (d) 2 & 3
II Fill in the Blanks:
1. The concept of constitution first originated in ________. USA
2. ________was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
DR. SACHCHIDANANDA SINHA
3. The Constitution of India was adopted on________.NOVEMBER 26,1949
4. ________ writs are mentioned in Article 32. FIVE
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article________.51 A
III Match the Following: ANSWERS
1. Citizenship Act - Jawaharlal Nehru 1. 1955
2. The Preamble - 42nd Amendment 2. Jawaharlal Nehru
3. The mini Constitution - 1955 3. 42nd Amendment
4. Classical language - 1962 4. Tamil
5 National Emergency - Tamil 5. 1962
IV Give short Answers:

1. What is a Constitution?
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It is the fundamental law of the country which reflects the fundamental principles on which the government of
that country is based.
2. What is meant by citizenship?
It is the vehicle of a nation‘s progress.
The word ―Citizen‘ is derived from the Latin term ‗Civis‖. It means resident of a city.
The constitution of India provides for a single and uniform citizenship for the whole of India.
3. How many types of fundamental rights are listed by the Indian Constitution?
Right to Equality Right to freedom Right to be against Exploitation
Right to Religion Cultural and Educational Rights. Right to Constitutional Remedies
4. What is a Writ?
A writ is an order issued by a court in writing under its seal. It is in the nature of a command from performing
certain acts that are specified in orders of the court. According to Dr. Ambedkar, Article 32 is ― the heart and
soul of the constitution‖.
5. What are the classical languages in India?
1. Tamil (2004) 2. Sanskrit (2005) 3. Telugu (2008) 4.Kannada (2008) 5. Malayalam (2013) 6. Odia(2014)
6. What is national emergency?
It is declared on the ground of war is known as external emergency.
When it is declared on the ground of armed rebellion it is known as internal emergency.
7. List out the three heads of the relations between the Centre and the States.
Legislative relations Administrative relations Financial relations
V Answer in Detail:
1. Explain the salient features of the Constitution of India.
It is the lengthiest of all the written constitutions of the world. It has borrowed most of its provisions from the
constitutions of various countries. It is partly rigid and partly flexible. It establishes a federal system of
government. It establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.
It makes India as a secular state. It provides an independent judiciary.
2. Point out the Fundamental Rights.
I. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
1.Art. 14 - Equality before law. 2. Art. 16 - Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
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3.Art. 17 - Abolition of Untouchability. 4.Art. 18 - Abolition of titles except military and academic.
II. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
Art. 19 - Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
Art. 20 - Protection in respect of conviction for offences. Art. 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty.
Art. 21 A - Right to elementary education.
III. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
Art. 23 - Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
Art. 24 - Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.
IV. RIGHT TO RELIGION
Art. 25 - Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Art. 26 - Freedom to manage religious affairs. Art. 27 - Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any
religion. Art. 28 - Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.
V. CULTURAL & EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS
Art. 29 - Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
Art. 30 - Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
3. Write briefly on the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
A writ is an order or command issued by a court in writing under its seal.
It is in the nature of a command from performing certain acts that are specified in the orders of the court.
That is why the Supreme Court is called the ―Guardian of the Constitution‖.
According to Dr. Ambedkar, Article 32 is ―the heart and soul of the Constitution‖.
(a) Habeas Corpus: Safeguards people from illegal arrests.
(b) Mandamus: It protects the petitioner who requires legal help to get his work done by respective public
authorities.(c) Prohibition: It prohibits a subordinate court from acting beyond its jurisdiction.
(d) Certiorari: It quashes an order issued by a subordinate court by overstepping its jurisdiction.
(e) Quo Warranto: It prevents usurpation of public office through illegal manner.
4. Mention the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
S.no Fundamental Rights Directive Principles of State Policy
1 It was derived from the constitution of the USA It was drawn on the model of the constitution of Ireland
2 These are enforceable by a court of law These are not enforceable in any court
3
4
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These have legal sanctions.
It cannot take away or abridge these rights
These are natural rights
These have moral and political sanctions
These are mere instructions to the government
These lead to protect human rights
Unit : 2.CENTRAL GOVERNMENT

1. The Constitutional Head of the Union is
a) The President b) The Chief Justice c) The Prime Minister d) Council of Ministers
2. Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
a) The President b) Attorney General c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
3. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
a) The President b) Lok Sabha c) The Prime Minister d) Rajya Sabha
4. What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
a) 18 years b) 21 years c) 25 years d) 30 years
5. The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
a) The President b) The Prime Minister c) State Government d) Parliament
6. Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
a) Article 352 b) Article 360 c) Article 356 d) Article 365
7. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:
a) The President b) The Attorney General c) The Governor d) The Prime Minister
1. _________ Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President‗s approval. MONEY
2. __________ is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country. THE PRIME MINISTER
3. __________ is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. THE VICE PRESIDENT
4. ________ has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament.
ATTORNEY GENETAL
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5. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of ________years. 65
6. ____________ is the Guardian of the Constitution. THE SUPREME COURT
7. At present, the Supreme Court consists of _______ judges including the Chief Justice. 28
1. i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst persons experience in the field of
literature, science, art, or social service iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of
age. iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
a) ii & iv are correct b) iii & iv are correct c) i & iv are correct d) i, ii & iii are correct
2. i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.
ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
a) ii & iv are correct b) iii & iv are correct c) i & iv are correct d) i & ii are correct
1. Article 53 - State Emergency 1. Executive power of President
2. Article 63 - Internal Emergency 2. Office of the Vice President
3. Article 356 - Executive power of President 3. State Emergency
4. Article 76 - Office of the Vice President 4. Office of the Attorney GeneraL
5. Article 352 - Office of the Attorney General 5. Internal Emergency
V. Answer the brief questions:
1. How is President of India elected?
The president is elected by an electoral college in accordance with the system of proportional representation by
means of single transferable vote.
Once elected as the president has to take an oath of office before the chief justice of India.
The president is elected for a term of five years and can be re-elected.
2. What are the different categories of Ministers at the Union level?
Cabinet Ministers Ministers of State Deputy ministers
3. What is the qualification of Judges of the Supreme Court?
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He must be a citizen of India. He should have worked as a Judge of a High Court for at least 5 years.
He should have worked as an advocate of High Court for at least 10 years.
He is in the opinion of the president, a distinguished jurist.
4. Write a short note: Money Bill?
Rajya Sabha does not have any power to amend or reject the money bill. Lok Sabha can only introduce money
bill and once it is approved by the Lok Sabha, it is passed to Rajya Sabha forits approval. Lok Sabha does not
need to consider the amendments proposed by the Rajya Sabha. It can reject all the proposals and pass it.
5. List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India?
To give advice to the government of India upon such legal matters which are referred to him by the president.
He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of parliament.
1. Describe the powers and functions of the President of India.
i). Executive Powers
The constitution vests in the President of India all the executive powers of the Central Government.
Article 77 requires that every in the name of the President. So he has to make many appointments to key-
offices to run the administration. He is responsible for making a wide variety of appointments.
ii). Legislative Powers
The President is an integral part of the Union Parliament. He inaugurates the session of the Parliament by
addressing it after the general election. This address is essentially identical in nature to a Speech from the Throne.
The President summons Parliament at least twice in a year.
iii). Financial Power
Money bill can be introduced in the Parliament only with his prior recommendation.
Annual Budget of the Central Government is presented before the Lok Sabha by the Union Finance Minister
only with the permission of the President. He causes to be laid before the Parliament the annual financial
statement.
iv). Judicial Powers
Article 72 confers on the President power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or to commute the sentence of
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any person convicted of an offence. In all cases where the punishment or sentence is for and offence against a
Union law; and in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.
v). Diplomatic Powers
The President appoints Indian diplomats to other countries and receives foreign diplomats posted to India.
The ambassador designate becomes ambassador after calling on the President and presenting his credentials.
All treaties and agreements with foreign States are entered into, in the name of the President.
2. Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Judicial Functions
The ―Supreme Court is the Guardian of the Constitution‖.
The followings are the functions of the Supreme Court.
(b) Original Jurisdiction
Dispute between the Government of India and one or more States of Dispute between two or more states
The cases involving fundamental rights come under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
(c) Appellate Jurisdiction
The Supreme Court is the final appellate court in the country.
The Supreme Court hears appeals against the decisions of High Court in ―civil, criminal and Constitutional‖
cases with a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.
(d) Advisory Jurisdiction
The Constitution confers on the President the power to refer to the Supreme Court any question of law or fact
which in his opinion is of public importance.
(e) Miscellaneous Jurisdiction
The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
The Supreme Court is authorized to make rules for regulating, generally the practice and procedure of
the court with the approval of the President. The Supreme Court has complete control over its own
establishment.
3. What are the Duties and functions of Prime Minister of India?
The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments. The Prime Minister
decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the Cabinet which he presides. The Prime Minister is the Head
of the Cabinet and the other ministers are his colleagues. The Prime Minister informally consults two or three of
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his senior colleagues when he does not convene a Cabinetmeeting. The Prime Minister supervises the work of
various ministers. The Prime Minister act as the link between the President and the Council of Ministers. The
Prime Minister is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
4. Critically examine the Powers and Functions of the Parliament.
The Parliament of India has the functions of Legislation, overseeing of administration, assign of Budget,
ventilation of public grievances, discussion of development plans, international relations and internal policies.
Parliament is also vested with powers to impeach the President and to remove Judges of the Supreme Court and
High Courts, Chief Election Commissioner. The Parliament exercises control over the executive through asking
questions and supplementary questions, moving motions of adjournment, discussing and passing resolutions,
discussing. The Parliament has the power to change the boundaries of the States.
Unit :3. STATE GOVERNMENT

I. Choose the Correct Answer:
1. The Governor of the State is appointed by the
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Minister (c) President (d) Chief Justice
2. The Speaker of a State is a…………………….
(a) Head of State (b) Head of government (c) President‗s agent (d) None of these
3. Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative (b) Executive (c) Judicial (d) Diplomatic
4. Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President (b) The Governor (c) The Chief Minister (d) The Speaker of State legislature
5. The Governor does not appoint
(a) Chief Minister (b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State (d) Judges of the High Court
6. The State Council of Ministers is headed by……………………
(a) The Chief Minster (b) The Governor (c) The Speaker (d) The Prime Minister
7. The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is
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(a) 25 years (b) 21 years (c) 30 years (d) 35 years
8. Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Telangana (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh
9. The High Courts in India were first started at
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras (b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras (d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
10. Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala and Telangana
(c) Punjab and Haryana (d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
1. Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to _______. THE PRESIDENT
2. Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the _______.PEOPLE
3. _______ acts as the chancellor of universities in the state. THE GOVERNOR
4. The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only by the
_______PRESIDENT
III. Match the following:- ANSWERS
1. Governor - Head of the Government 1. Head of the State
2. Chief Minister - Head of the State 2. Head of the Government
3. Council of Ministers - Tribunals 3. Responsible for the Assembly
4. MLC - Responsible for the Assembly 4. cannot vote for grants
5. Armed forces - cannot vote for grants 5. Tribunals
IV. Choose the correct statement:-
1. Assertion (A): There are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.
Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the President‗s
approval.
a) (A) is false but R is true b) (A) is true but (R) is false
c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
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V. Answer the brief questions:
1. What is the importance of the Governor of a state?
The governor is the head of the state executive and he has enormous powers.
As the executive head in the state level, the governor has following functions and powers.
2. What are the qualifications for the appointment of Governor?
He should be a citizen of India. He must have completed 35 years of age.
He should be a member of parliament or any state legislature.
He should not hold any other profitable occupations.
3. What is the original jurisdiction of the High Court?
In their judicial capacity, the High Courts of the Presidency towns have both original and appellate jurisdictions,
while other High Courts have mostly appellate jurisdiction.
Only in matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of Court, they have original jurisdiction.
The Presidency High Courts have original jurisdiction in which the amount involved is more than 2000 and in
criminal cases which are committed to them by the presidency magistrates.
4. What do you understand by the “Appellate Jurisdiction” of the High Court?
As Courts of appeal, all High Courts entertain appeals in civil and criminal cases from their subordinate Courts
as well as on their own. They have, however, no jurisdiction over tribunals established under the laws relating to
the Armed Forces of the Country.
1. What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?
Relating to the council of ministers Relating to the Governor
Relating to the State Legislature Other functions and powers.
i). Relating to the Council of Ministers:
The Chief Minister recommends the persons who can be appointed as ministers by Governor.
He allocates the portfolios among the ministers. He shuffles and reshuffles his ministry.
ii). Relating to the Governor:
Advocate General of the State. State Election Commissioner. Chairman and Members of the State Public
Service Commission. Chairman and Members of the State Planning Commission.
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Chairman and Members of the State Finance Commission.
iii). Relating to State Legislature
The Chief Minister advises the Governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing the sessions of the state
legislature. He announces the government policies on the floor of the house. He can introduce the bills in the
Legislative Assembly.
iv). Other function and powers
As the leader of the ruling party, the Chief Minister has to control the party and develop the disciplines.
As the leader of the state, he has to keenly consider the demands of the different sections of the people.
As the political head of the various services, he has to supervise, control and co-ordinate the secretaries of
various departments in the state level.
2. Describe the various powers and functions of the Governor.
i). Executive Powers
He appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister of the State.
He appoints other members of the Council of Ministers on the recommendation of the Chief Minister.
He appoints the Advocate - General of the state and determines his remuneration.
The Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
ii). Legislative Powers:
He has the right to summon, prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.
He can send messages to the houses of the state legislature relating to a bill pending in the legislature.
He can nominate one member to the state legislature assembly from the Anglo- Indian Community.
iii). Financial Powers:
He causes the Annual Financial Statement of the State to be presented in the Legislative Assembly.
Money Bills can be introduced in the State Legislature only with his the prior recommendation.
No demand for any grant can be made except on his recommendation.
He can make advances out of the state Contingency Fund to meet any unforeseen expenditure.
iv). Judicial Powers:
He appoints the Attorney-General of the State. He appoints Judges to the Subordinate Courts in the State.
The Chief Justice of the High Court in the State is appointed by the President in consultation with him.
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v). Discretionary Powers:
The Governor can reserve a bill for the consideration of the president. He recommends for the imposition of
the President‘s rule in the state. He can dissolve the Legislative Assembly if the Council of Ministers has lost its
majority.
3. Critically examine the functions and powers of the Council of Ministers
It formulates and decides the policies of the state and implements them effectively. It decides the legislative
programmes of the Legislative Assembly and sponsors all important bills. It controls the financial policy and
decides the tax structure for the public welfare of the state. It makes the important appointments of the Heads of
Departments. It discusses and takes efforts on the dispute with other states It advises the Governor on the
appointment of Judges of the subordinate courts. It frames the proposal for incurring expenditure out of state
reserves.
Unit 4.INDIA‟S FOREIGN POLICY

1. Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
a) Defense Minister b) Prime Minister c) External Affairs Minister d) Home Minister
2. The Panchaseel treaty has been signed between
a) India and Nepal b) India and Pakistan c) India and China d) India and Sri Lanka
3. Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
a) Article 50 b) Article 51 c) Article 52 d) Article 53
4. Apartheid is…………..
a) An international association b) Energy diplomacy c) A policy of racial discrimination d) None of these
5. The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to
a) Trade and Commerce b) Restoration of normal relations
c) Cultural exchange programmes d) The Five Principles of Co existence
6. Which is not related to our foreign policy
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a) World co operation b) World peace c) Racial equality d) Colonialism
7. Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
a) Yugoslavia b) Indonesia c) Egypt d) Pakistan
8. Find the odd one
a) Social welfare b) Health care c) Diplomacy d) Domestic affairs
9. Non-Alliance means
a) being neutral b) freedom to decide on issues independently c) demilitarization d) none of the above
10. Non – military issues are
a) Energy security b) Water security c) Pandemics d) All the above.
1. India conducted its first nuclear test at ___________.POKHRAN
2. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate ____for domestic growth and development.
INWARD INVESTMENT , BUSINESS AND TECHNOLOGY
3. ____________is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state. DIPLOMACY
4. _____________ was India‘s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.NON- ALIGNMENT
5. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice____________.DISARMAMENT
III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer:
1. Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from
the code given below.
(i) Panchsheel (ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran (iii) Twenty-year Treaty (iv) First Nuclear test
a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
2. Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon.
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance.
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries. (iv) It has transformed to an economical movement.
a) (i) and (ii) b) (iii) and (iv) c) (ii) only d) (iv) only
3. Write true or false against each of the statement.
a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs. TRUE
b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country‘s foreign relations. FALSE
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c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done under Subterranean Nuclear Explosions Project. TRUE
4. Assertion(A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason(B): This began with a disastrous Indo –China war of 1962
a) A is correct and R explains A b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is correct and R is Wrong d) Both A and R are wrong
5. Assertion(A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations.
Reason(R): India is the World‘s second most populous country.
a) A is correct and R explains A b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is wrong and R is correct d) Both are wrong
6. Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to redeemed
from
a) acute poverty b) illiteracy c) chaotic socio-economic conditions d) all the above
IV Match the following: ANSWERS
1. Indian Ocean Island - 1955 1. Maldives
2. Land bridge to ASEAN - 1954 2. Myanmar
3. Panchsheel - Maldives 3. 1954
4. Afro Asian Conference - Foreign Policy 4. 1955
5. World Peace - Myanmar 5. Foreign Policy
V Give short answers:
1. What is foreign policy?
It is a country policy that is conceived designed and formulated to safeguard and promote her national interests in
her external affairs in the conduct of relationship with other countries.
2. Explain India‟s nuclear policy.
No first use Credible minimum deterrence
It has decided not to use nuclear power for ‗offensive purposes‘ and would never use against any non-nuclear
state. Indo- US civilian nuclear deal marks a significant progress in India‘s foreign policy.
3. Differentiate: Domestic policy and Foreign policy
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Domestic policy Foreign policy
It is the nation‘s plan for dealing issueswithin its own nation.It is the nation‘s plan for dealing with
other nations. It includes laws focusing on domestic affairs social welfare, health care,
education, civil rights, economic issues. Trade, diplomacy, sanctions, defense, intelligence and global
environments.
4 List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel?
Mutual respect for each other‘ territorial integrity and sovereignty. Mutual non-aggression
Mutual non-interference Equality and Co-operation for mutual benefit Peaceful co-existence
5. What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
Nehru, India‘s Prime Minister, was opened to the rivalry of the two super powers who were trying to extend
their influence over the newly emerged nations of Asia and Africa.
So, he chose the path of Non-Alignment in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
6. List out the member countries of SAARC. (PAINMBBS)
Pakistan Afghanistan India Nepal Maldives Bangladesh Bhutan Sri Lanka
7. Name the architects of the Non-Aligned movement.
India – Jawaharlal Nehru Yugoslavia – Tito Egypt – Nasser Indonesia – Sukarno Ghana – Kwame
Nkurmarah
8. Mention the main tools of foreign policy.
Treaties and executive agreements Appointing ambassadors Foreign aid International trade
Armed force
1. Write a detailed note on Non-alignment.
i). Path of Non – Alignment
The new nations that got independence after the long period of colonial struggle found themselves in a very
difficult situation with respect to economic development. So it was necessary to align with either of the blocs –
USA and USSR.
ii). India‟s Foreign Policy:
The aim of India‘s foreign policy of that time was ―world co-operation‖, world +2peace, end of colonial
imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment.
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iii). Term -Non-Alignment:
The term ―Non-Alignment was coined by V.Krishna Menon in his speech at the United nations in 1953.
It has been regarded as the most important feature of India‘s foreign policy.
e in foreign affairs by not military alliances.
iv). Membership of NAM:
onomic cooperation among underdeveloped

countries.
v). The founding fathers of Non-Aligned Movement:
– – – Nasser
– – Kwame Nkurmarah
2. Discuss the core determinants of India‟s foreign policy?
i). Basic Determinants of a Foreign Policy:
national milieu
ii). The foreign policy stance of India:
iii). The shifts in India policy manifested in various ways:

etter relations with China – at Pokhran (1998) in
Rajasthan
iv). Basic Concepts of India‟s Foreign Policy:
3. Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
dia‘s foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighborhood as one of
widening concentric circles around the central axis of historical and cultural commodities.
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dian Ocean Island states such
peaceful periphery is essential for India to achieve her multifarious developmental goals.
hbors with support as needed in the form of resources
people, energy, capital and information.
Unit 5.INDIA‟S INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

I. Choose the Correct answer:
1. Mc Mahon Line is a border between
a) Burma and India b) India and Nepal c) India and China d) India and Bhutan
2. How many countries share its border with India?
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
3. Which two island countries are India‘s neighbors?
a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island b) Maldives and Lakshadweep island
c) Maldives and Nicobar island d) Sri Lanka and Maldives
4. Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Meghalaya c) Mizoram d) Sikkim
5. How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
a) Five b) Four c) Three d) Two
6. Who drew up the borders for newly independent Pakistan?
a) Lord Mountbatten b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe c) Clement Atlee d) None of the above.
1. ____________ is a small Himalayan kingdom.BHUTAN
2. India‘s gateway to South East Asia is ____________.MYANMAR
3. ____________ is a buffer country between India and China. NEPAL
4. A strip of land ____________, belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.
TEEN BIGHA CORRIDOR
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5. ____________ is known as the Land of Thunderbolt. BHUTAN
6. India and Sri Lanka are separated by___________ PALK STRAIT
III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer
1. The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following modes of transport?
1. Roads 2. Railways 3. Shipping 4. Inland water transport Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1. ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2. Myanmar is India‘s gateway to western countries.
Statement 3. Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.
Statement 4. Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 4
IV. Match the following:- ANSWERS
1. Brandix - Vienna 1. Garment city in Vishakapatnam
2. COMCASA - Japan 2. USA
3. Shinkansen system - Shanghai 3. Japan
4. BRICS - USA 4. Shanghai
5. OPEC - Garment city in Vishakapatnam 5. Vienna
V. Give short answers:
1. Name the neighboring countries of India.
Pakistan and Afghanistan - North West China, Nepal, Bhutan - North
Bangladesh and Myanmar – East Srilanka – South East Maldives – South West
2. Write a short note on Strategic partnership Agreement (SPA).
Indo-Afghan relation was strengthened by the Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA).
SPA provides assistance to re-build Afghan‘s infrastructure, institutions, agriculture, water, education, health and
providing duty-free access to the Indian market.
India helped Afghans in the construction of Salma Dam in the Heart Province.
India is also supporting Afghanistan to improve its public health and small-scale industries.
34
3.What do you know about Kaladan Multi – Model Transit Transport?
India is building the Kaladan Multi –Model transit transport, a road –river port cargo transport project to link
Kolkata to Sittwe in Myanmar.
A project aiming to connect Kolkata with Ho Chi Minh City on the South sea for the formation of an economic
zone will have a road pass through Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam
4. How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement?
A trilateral agreement called the Chabahar Agreement was signed between India, Afganishthan, and Iran.
It has led to the establishment of transit and transport corridor among three countries using Chabahar port.
ECONOMICS
Unit : 1.GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT AND ITS GROWTH: AN INTRODUCTION
I Choose the correct answer:-
1. GNP equals…………………..
a) NNP adjusted for inflation b) GDP adjusted for inflation
c) GDP plus net property income from abroad d) NNP plus net property income or abroad
2. National Income is a measure of……………………….
a) Total value of money b) Total value of producer goods
c) Total value of consumption goods d) Total value of goods and services
3. Primary sector consist of
a) Agriculture b) Automobiles c) Trade d) Banking
4. _____ approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the final good.
a) Expenditure approach b) Value added approach c) Income approach d) National Income
5. Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP.
a) Agricultural sector b) Industrial sector c) Service sector d) Banking
6. Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at ______ lakh crore in 2018-19.
a) 91.06 b) 92.26 c) 80.07 d) 98.29
7. India is ______ larger producer in agricultural product.
a) 1 st b) 3 rd c) 4 th d) 2nd
a) 65
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8. India‗s life expectancy at birth is ______ years.
b) 60
9. Which one is a trade policy?
a) irrigation policy
c) 70 d) 55
b) import and export policy c) land-reform policy d) wage policy

10. Indian economy is
a) Develping Economy b) Emerging Economy c) Dual Economy d) All the above
II. Fill in the Blanks:-
1. _____ is the primary sector in India. Agricutural sector
2. GDP is the indicator of _____ economy. HEALTH OF A COUNTRY‟ S
3. Secondary sector otherwise called as _____. INDUSTRIAL SECTOR
III Match the following:- ANSWERS
1. Electricity/ Gas and Water – National Income / Population 1. Industry Sector
2. Price policy – Gross National Product 2. Agriculture
3. GST – Industry Sector 3. Tax on goods and Service
4. Per capita income – Agriculture 4. National Income / Population
5. C + I + G + (X-M) – Tax on goods and Service 5. Gross National Product
V Give short answer:
1. Define National income.
‗National Income is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced by an economy over a period of
time, normally a year‘. It is called as Gross National Product (GNP) or National Dividend.
2. What is meant by Gross domestic product?
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total value of output of goods and services produced by the factors of
production within the geographical boundaries of the country.
3. Write the importance of Gross domestic product.
Study of Economic Growth. Unequal distribution of wealth. Estimate the purchasing power.
Public Sector.
4. What is per capita income?
Per capita Income or output per person is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country.
35
It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country. Per capita Income = National
Income / Population
5. Defi6ne the value added approach with example.
In the value-added approach the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the
final good. The sum of the value added by all the intermediate goods used in production gives us the total value
of the final goods produced in the economy.
Each intermediate good, the tea powder, milk and sugar, adds value to the final output, the cup of tea.
VI Write in detail answer:
1. Briefly explain various terms associated with measuring of national income.
i). Gross National Product (GNP):
Gross National Product is the total value of produced and income received in a year by domestic residents of a
country. It includes profits earned from capital invested abroad.
ii). Gross Domestic Product (GDP):
GDP is the total value of output of goods and services produced by the factors of production within the
geographical boundaries of the country.
iii). Net National Product (NNP):
NNP is arrived by making some adjustment with regard to depreciation that is we arrive the NNP by deducting
thevalue of depreciation from Gross National Product. NNP = GNP − Depreciation
iv). Net Domestic Product (NDP):
NDP is a part of Gross Domestic Product, Net Domestic Product is obtained from the Gross Domestic Product
by deducting the Quantum of tear and wear expenses (depreciation) NDP = GDP − Depreciation
v). Per Capita Income (PCI):
Per capita Income or output per person is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country.
It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.
Per capita Income = National Income / Population
2. What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product? and explain its.
i). Expenditure Approach:
The GDP is measured by adding the expenditure on all the final goods and services produced in the country
during a specified period.
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The different types of expenditure are shown in this equation: Y = C + I + G + (X − M)
ii). The Income Approach:
This method looks at GDP from the perspective of the earnings of the men and women who are involved in
producing the goods and services.
The income approach to measuring GDP (Y) is Y = wages + rent + interest + profit
iii). Value Added Approach:
In the value-added approach the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the
final good. The sum of the value added by all the intermediate goods used in production gives us the total value
of the final goods produced in the economy.
Each intermediate good, the tea powder, milk and sugar, adds value to the final output, the cup of tea.
3. Write about the composition of GDP in India.
i). Primary Sector (Agricultural Sector):
Agricultural sector is known as primary sector, in which agricultural operationsare undertake .
Example: Cattle farm, fishing, mining, forestry, corn, coal etc.
2) Secondary Sector (Indu.strial Sector):
Industrial sector is secondary sectors in which the goods and commodities are produced by transforming the raw
materials.Example: Iron and Steel industry, cotton textile, Jute, Sugar, Cement, Paper.
3) Tertiary (Service Sector):
It includes Government, scientific research, transport communication, trade, postal and telegraph, Banking,
Education, Entertainment, etc..
4. Write the differences between the growth and development.
S.No Economic Growth Economic Development
1 concept It is the Narrower It is the Broader concept
2 Nature Quantitative in Nature Qualitative in Nature
3 Term Short term Long term
4 Frequency In a certain period of time Continuous process
5 Measurement Increase in national income Increase in percapita income
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6 Applicability Developed Nation Developing Economics
7 Scope Rise in parameters like Rise in life expectancy rate,infant,improvement in
GDP,GNP,FDI,FII etc. literacy rate,infant mortality rate and poverty rate etc.
8 Frequency of In a certain period of time Continuous process
Occurence
Unit : 2. GLOBALIZATION AND TRADE

1. India signed the Dunket proposal in
a) 1984 b) 1976 c) 1950 d) 1994
II. Fill in the Blanks:-
1. A better economy introduce rapid development of the ___________. CAPITAL MARKET
III. Give Short Answers:
1. What is globalization?
It is the process of integrating various economics of the world without creating any barriers in the free flow of
goods and services, technology, capital and even labour.
2. What are the reforms made to adopt globalization?
Abolition of Industrial licensing, except for a few industries.
Reduction in the number of industries reserved for public sector.
Foreign exchanges regulations were suitably amended
The Statutory Liquidity Ratio was reduced to increase lending by RBI.
3. Write the positive impact of Globalization.
A better economy introduces rapid development of the capital market. Standard of living has increased.
Introduced new technologies and new scientific research patterns. Globalization increasing the GDP of a
country.
VI. Detailed Answer:
1. Write the challenges of Globalization.
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The benefits of globalization extend to all countries that will not happen automatically.
The fear that globalization leads to instability in the developing world. It leads to global in balance.
Globalization has led to an increase in activities such as child labor and slavery. People started consuming
more junk food. This caused the degradation of health and spread of diseases.
Globalization has led to environmental degradation
Unit .3.FOOD SECURITY AND NUTRITION

1. __________ of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which is a function of domestic
production, changes in stocks and imports.
a) Availability of food b) Access to food c) Absorption of food d) none
2. Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through the _____
a) FCI b) Consumer Cooperatives c) ICICI d) IFCI
3. Which is correct?
i) HYV–High Yielding Varieties ii) MSP–Minimum Support Price
iii) PDS–Public Distribution System iv) FCI–Food Corporation of India
a) i and ii are correct b) iii and iv are correct c) ii and iii are correct d) all are correct
4. __________ extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
a) United States of America b) India c) Singapore d) UK
5. __________ revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain production.
a) Blue Revolution b) White Revolution c) Green Revolution d) Grey Revolution
6. __________ is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
a) Kerala b) Andhra Pradesh c) Tamil Nadu d) Karnataka
7. __________ is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth.
a) Health b) Nutrition c) Sanitation d) Security
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1. __________ foundation from USA introduced HYV in India. FORD
2. In the year ___________ National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament . 2013
3. ___________ play an important role in the supply of quality goods at responsible rates to common people.
CONSUMER COOPERATIVES
III. Match the following:- ANSWERS
1. Consumer cooperatives – subsidized rates 1.Supply of Quality of goods
2. Public Distribution System – 2013 2. Subsidized rates
3. UNDP – least poor region 3. United Nations Development Programme
4. National Food Security Act – Supply of Quality of goods 4. 2013
5. Kerala - United Nations 5. least poor region
Development Programme
IV. Assertion and Reason
1. Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then the purchasing power is
affected.
a) A is correct, R is false b) Both A and R are false statements
c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
V. Answer in short
1. Define food security according to FAO.
―Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social and economic access to sufficient, safe and
nutritious food which meets their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.‖ - (FAO, 2009)
2. What are the basic components of food and nutrition security?
Availability of food. Access to food. Absorption of food.
3. What is the role of FCI in Green Revolution?
The season and the state procured he harvested grains through the FCI.
The FCI had built huge storage godowns and built buffer stocks of foods grain during the harvest season.
4. What are the effects of Green Revolution?
It was born in the country paving way for self-sufficiency in food grain production.
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Increased food grain production was made possible by an increase areacultivated with HYV of rice and wheat.
Yield of food grains has increased four-fold between the time of independence and at present.
5. Write some name of the nutrition programmes in Tamil Nadu.
- nwadi
VI. Answer in detail

1. Elucidate why the Green Revolution was born.
was implemented in select districts where irrigation was assured.

a little more than 98 million hectares during early 1950s. oved over a period
of 65 years. sed four-fold between the time of independence and at present.
was implemented as a
package. -operative banks and societies.
2. Explain Minimum Support Price.
e cultivation
of that crop.
d get an assured price by selling their produce to

the FCI. at the end of the crop
season. .
3. Elaborate the Public Distribution System.
i). Public Depositary System:
38
distribution of income and the level of poverty that persists in Indian economy, the government took steps to
distribute food grains at subsidized rates.
ii). Universal PDS:
to the supplies form PDS.

iii). National Food Security Act:
based on a set of criteria.

4. What are the factors affecting the purchasing power and explain them.
i). Over population:
ii). Increasing prices of essential goods

Even though there has been a constant growth in the GDP and growth opportunities in the Indian economy, there
has been steady increase in the prices of essential goods.
During 2015–16 an average rate of 2% flood inflation, the prices of pulses rose by about 40%.
iii). Demand for goods
iv). Price of goods affect the value of currency
vice versa.
v). Production and supply of goods
, then the purchasing power is affected.
5. What are the important objectives of New Agricultural policy.
i). Raising the productivity of inputs
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o purchased like, HYV seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation projects etc.
ii). Raising value-added per hectare
productivity of agriculture.
-added rather than raising physical output by raising the
iii). Protecting the interests of poor farmers
iv). Modernizing agricultural sector

e introduction of modern technology in agricultural operations and application
of improved agricultural inputs like HYV seeds, fertilizers etc.
v). Environmental degradation
ural base of
Indian agriculture.
vi) Removing bureaucratic obstacles
The policy has set another objective to remove bureaucratic obstavles on the farmers‘ co-operative societies and
self-helf institutions so that they can work independently.
4.GOVERNMENT AND TAXES

1. The three levels of governments in India are
a) Union, state and local b) Central, state and village
c) Union, municipality and Panchayat d) None of the above
2. In India, taxes are including
a) Direct taxes b) Indirect taxes. c) both a &b d) None of these
3. Which is the role of government and development policies?.
a) Defence b) Foreign policy c) Regulate the economy d) all of above
4. The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is
39
a) Service tax b) Excise duty. c) Income tax d) Central sales tax
5. Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured
a) VAT b) Income tax c) Goods and service tax d) Sales tax
6. Income tax was introduced in India for the first time in the year __________ .
a) 1860 b) 1870 c) 1880 d) 1850
7. __________ tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.
a) Income tax b) Wealth tax c) Corporate tax d) Excise duty
8. What are identified as causes of black money?
a) Shortage of goods b) High tax rate c) Smuggling d) All of above
1. __________ is levied by government for the development of the state‘s economy. TAX
2. The origin of the word ‗tax‘ is from the word __________. TAXATION
3. The burden of the __________ tax cannot be shifted to others. DIRECT
4. The Goods and Service Tax act came into effect on __________.1 JULY 2017
5 The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called__________. BLACK MONEY
1. Which of the following statement is correct about GST?
(i) GST is the ‗one point tax‘.
(ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and State governments.
(iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout the country.
(iv) It will unified the tax structure in India.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct d) All are correct
IV. Match the following:- ANSWERS
1. Income Tax - Value added tax 1.Direct tax
2. Excise duty - 1 July 2017 2.Indirect tax
3. VAT - Smuggling 3.Value added tax
4. GST - Direct tax 4.1July 2017
5. Black money - Indirect tax 5.Smuggling
V. Give Short Answers
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1. Define tax.
Tax is levied by government for the development of the state‘s economy.
The revenue of the government depends upon direct and indirect taxes.
2. Why we pay tax to the government?
Taxes are compulsory payments to government without expectation of direct benefit.
3. What are the types of tax? Give examples.
Direct Tax: Income tax, Wealth tax, Corporation tax Indirect tax: Stamp duty, Entertainment tax, Excise duty
and GST
4. Write short note on Goods and Service Tax.
The GST is one of the indirect taxes. The GST was passed in Parliament on 29 March 2017.
The act came into effect on 1 July 2017. The motto is one nation, one market, one tax.
The tax levied when a consumer buys a good or service.
5. What is progressive tax?
It is one in which the rate of taxation increases as the tax base increases.
The amount of tax payable is calculated by multiplying the tax base with the tax rate.
When income increases, the tax rate also increases. This is known as a progressive tax.
6. What is meant by black money?
ich income and other taxes have not been paid.
7. What is tax evasion?
evasion often entails taxpayers deliberately misrepresenting the true state

of their affairs to the tax authorities to reduce their tax liability.
8. What is the difference between tax and payments?
S. No TAX PAYMENTS
1 It is compulsory payment. It is voluntary payment.
2 Example: Income tax, Wealth Tax ,Vat tax. Example: Stamp fee, Driving license.
VI. Detailed Answer:
40
1. Explain some direct and indirect taxes.
a). Direct Taxes:
i). Income tax:
individual in India.
ii). Corporate tax:
assets located in India.

iii). Wealth tax:
b). Indirect Taxes:

i). Stamp duty:
property and in some contractual agreements.

ii). Entertainment tax
by the government on any source of entertainment provided.
iii). Excise duty:

, rather than at sale.
2. Write the structure of GST.

i). State Goods and Service Tax (SGST):
Intra state (within the state) VAT/sales tax, purchase tax, entertainment tax, luxury tax, lottery tax and state
surcharge and cesses.
ii). Central Goods and Service Tax (CGST):
surcharge, education and secondary/higher secondary cess.
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iii). Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST):
3. What is black money? Write the causes of black money.

Black Money:
Causes of Black Money:

i). Shortage of goods:
ii). Licensing proceeding:

It is firmly believed that the system of controls permits, quotes and licenses are associated with mal distribution of
commodities in short supply, which results in the generation of black money.
iii). Contribution of the industrial sector:
jor contributor to black money. e, the Controller of Public Limited
Companies tries to buy commodities at low prices and get them billed at high amounts and pockets the difference
personally.
iv). Smuggling:
ystem of exchange controls, precious metals like gold and silver, textiles and electronics
goods were levied a heavy excise duty.
v). Tax structure:
ey is generated.
Unit 5.INDUSTRIAL CLUSTERS IN TAMIL NADU

41
1. ‗The Detroit of Asia‘ is ___________.
a) Tuticorin b) Coimbatore c) Chennai d) Madurai
2. Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in
a) Salem b) Coimbatore c) Chennai d) Dharampuri
3. ___________ are an essential aspect of a nation‘s development.
a) agriculture b) industry c) railway d) none of these
4. Tiruppur is known for
a) Leather tanning b) Lock making c) Knitwear d) Agro-processing
5. A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is
a) Hosur b) Dindigul c) Kovilpatti d) Tirunelveli
1. Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around ________District in Tamil Nadu. VELLORE
2. Special Economic Zones policy was introduced on in ___________. APRIL 2000
III Pick out odd one:
1. Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
a) Ranipet b) Dharmapuri c) Ambur d) Vaniyambadi
2. Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency?
a) TIDCO b) SIDCO c)MEPG d) SIPCOT
IV Match the following:- ANSWERS
1. Entrepreneur - Export Processing Zone 1.ORGANIZER
2. MEPZ - Coimbatore 2. EXPORT PROCESSING ZONE
3. Indian Ordance Factory - Organizer 3. ARAVANKADU
4. TNPL - Aravankadu 4. KARUR
5. Manchester of south India - Karur 5. COIMBATORE
V .Write Short Answer:
1. What is meant by an industrial cluster?
Industrial clusters are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common markets, technologies and
skill requirements. An important aspect of clusters is the nature of inter-firm networks and interactions.
2. What are the routes for cluster formation?
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Clusters may arise due to many factors. Certain clusters evolve over a long time in history when artisans settle
in one locality and evolve over centuries. Handloom weaving clusters are one examples of this development.
3. Mention any three industrial development agencies in Tamil Nadu and their role?
SIPCOT (State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu), 1971 TANSIDCO (Tamil Nadu Small
Industries Development Corporation), 1970
TIDCO (Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation), 1965 TIIC (Tamil Nadu Industrial Investment
Corporation Ltd.), 1949 TANSI (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Ltd.), 1965
4. What are the problems of industrialization currently in Tamil Nadu?
Chemicals, textiles and leather clusters, tend to generate a lot of polluting that affect health.
Pollute water bodies into which effluents are let into and also adjoining agricultural lands.
VII Write Detailed Answer:
1. What are the important characteristics of successful industrial clusters?
Geographical proximity of small and medium enterprises (SMEs) Sectoral specialization close inter-firm
collaboration Inter-firm competition based on innovation A socio-cultural identity, which facilitates trust
Multi-skilled workforce Active self-help organizations, and Supportive regional and municipal
governments.
2. Write about the Textile industry cluster in Tamil Nadu?
i). Cotton textile industry:
Tamilnadu is home to the largest textiles sector in the country. Because of the development of cotton textile
industry since the colonial period, Coimbatore often referred as the ―Manchester of South India‖.
It is the biggest producer in the country.
ii). Power loom:
Palladam and Somanur, small towns near Coimbatore and the villages near these towns are home to dynamic
power loom weaving cluster as well. It is however more widespread with Erode and Salem region too having a
large number of power loom units.
iii). Knitwear:
Tiruppur is famous for clustering of a large number of firms producing cotton knitwear.
It is also a major producer for the domestic market.
42
iv). Garment Exporters:
Because of its success in the global market it is seen as one of the most dynamic clusters in the Global South.
v). Exports Global Markets:
Apart from body building Karur is a major centre of exports of home furnishing like table cloth curtains bed covers
and towels.
3. Write in detail about the types of policies adopted by the Tamil Nadu government to Industrialise.
i). Education:
Industries require skilled human resources. Apart from a lot of attention to primary education to promote
literacy. Basic arithmetic skills, the state is known for its vast supply of technical human resources It is home
to one of the largest number of engineering colleges, polytechnics and Industrial Training Centers in the country.
ii). Infrastructure:
The widespread diffusion of electrification has contributed to the spread of industrialization to smaller towns and
villages in the state. Its excellent transport infrastructure, especially minor roads that connect rural parts of the
state to nearby towns and cities. A combination of public and private transport has also facilitated rural to urban
connectivity.
iii). Industrial Promotion:
Apart from investments in education and transport and energy infrastructure, active policy efforts.
To promote specific sectors and also industrialization in specific regions.
Policies to promote specific sectors like automobile, auto components, bio-technology.
This Guide is prepared with the help of Mr. P.VAHEESWARAN SIR, KODAI KANNAL ,
Mr. M.MUNISWARAN SIR, Sivagangai. and ME .Our school students also help with me
Mr .J.A .IMMANUEL PARAMANESAN , M.A ; M.A, B. Ed ,
B.T. ASSISTANT,
P.KN.HR.SEC .SCHOOL, TIRUMANGALAM.
MADURAI DISTRICT.Pincode: 625706
CELL.NO: 9843517144
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10th Standard Social Science 2020-2021

BOOK BACK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

v). Government of India Act, 1935:

Unit : 3 .WORLD WAR II

3. Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.

Unit .6 EARLY REVOLTS AGAINST BRITISH RULE IN TAMIL NADU

attabomman jointly decided on a confrontation with the English.

ged from a tamarind tree in the old fort of Kayathar.

But they refused.

3. Account for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806.

Unit .7.ANTI-COLONIAL MOVEMENTS AND THE BIRTH OF NATIONALISM

Unit 8. NATIONALISM: GANDHIAN PHASE

Unit 9. FREEDOM STUGGLE IN TAMILNADU

Unit 10.SOCIAL TRANSFORMATION IN TAMIL NADU

Unit : 2. CLIMATE AND NATURAL VEGETATION OF INDIA

6. What is „burst of monsoon‟?

Unit : 4.INDIA - RESOURCES AND INDUSTRIES

a) Gujarat b) Rajasthan c) Maharashtra d) Tamil nadu

2. Metallic and non-metallic minerals.

Unit : 5. INDIA - POPULATION, TRANSPORT, COMMUNICATION AND TRADE

V. Answer the following in a paragraph:

Unit .6 .PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY OF TAMILNADU

1. State the boundaries of Tamil Nadu.

Unit 7.HUMAN GEOGRAPHY OF TAMILNADU

VI. Distinguish between the following:

IV Give short Answers:

Unit : 2.CENTRAL GOVERNMENT

Unit :3. STATE GOVERNMENT

Unit 4.INDIA‟S FOREIGN POLICY

onomic cooperation among underdeveloped

iii). The shifts in India policy manifested in various ways:

people, energy, capital and information.

Unit 5.INDIA‟S INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

b) import and export policy c) land-reform policy d) wage policy

Unit : 2. GLOBALIZATION AND TRADE

Unit .3.FOOD SECURITY AND NUTRITION

VI. Answer in detail

was implemented in select districts where irrigation was assured.

d get an assured price by selling their produce to

to the supplies form PDS.

based on a set of criteria.

ii). Increasing prices of essential goods

iv). Price of goods affect the value of currency

iii). Protecting the interests of poor farmers

iv). Modernizing agricultural sector

4.GOVERNMENT AND TAXES

7. What is tax evasion?

evasion often entails taxpayers deliberately misrepresenting the true state

ii). Corporate tax:

assets located in India.

b). Indirect Taxes:

property and in some contractual agreements.

iii). Excise duty:

2. Write the structure of GST.

surcharge, education and secondary/higher secondary cess.

3. What is black money? Write the causes of black money.

Causes of Black Money:

ii). Licensing proceeding:

Unit 5.INDUSTRIAL CLUSTERS IN TAMIL NADU