Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions 2023

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Maharashtra Board Class 12

Physics Solutions 2023
SECTION A
Question 1. Select and write the correct answers for the following
multiple choice type of questions:
i. If ‘n’ is the number of molecules per unit volume and ‘d’ is the
diameter of the molecules, the mean free path ‘λ’ of molecules is
(A) √(2/𝜋 nd)
(B) 1 / 2 𝜋nd2
(C) 1 / √2 𝜋nd2
(D) 1 / √(2𝜋nd)
Answer. (D) 1 / √(2𝜋nd)
Solution. The correct answer is (D) 1 / √(2𝜋nd).
The mean free path is the average distance traveled by a molecule

between collisions. It is inversely proportional to the number density of
molecules and the square of the molecular diameter. This can be
expressed mathematically as:
λ = 1 / √(2𝜋nd^2)
where:
● λ is the mean free path

● n is the number of molecules per unit volume
● d is the diameter of the molecules
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The other answer choices are incorrect because they do not take into
account the correct relationship between the mean free path, the number
density of molecules, and the molecular diameter.
ii. The first law of thermodynamics is consistent with the law of

conservation of _______.
(A) momentum
(B) energy
(C) mass
(D) velocity
Answer. The correct answer is: (B) energy
iii. Y = A+ B is the Boolean expression for _______.

(A) OR - gate
(B) AND - gate
(C) NOR - gate
(D) NAND - gate
Answer. The correct answer is: (A) OR - gate
iv. The property of light which remains unchanged when it travels

from one medium to another is ________.
(A) velocity
(B) wavelength
(C) amplitude
(D) frequency
Answer. (D) frequency
Solution. The correct answer is (D) frequency.
The frequency of light is determined by the source of the light and does not
change when the light travels from one medium to another. The other
properties of light, such as velocity, wavelength, and amplitude, can change
when light travels from one medium to another.
For example, when light travels from air to water, its velocity slows down,
its wavelength decreases, and its amplitude may change. However, the
frequency of the light remains the same. This is because the frequency of
light is related to the energy of the light, and the energy of light does not
change when it travels from one medium to another.
So, the answer is (D) frequency.
v. If a circular coil of 100 turns with a cross-sectional area of 1 m2 is

kept with its plane perpendicular to the magnetic field of 1 T, the
magnetic flux linked with the coil will be ________.
(A) 1 Wb
(B) 50 Wb
(C) 100 Wb
(D) 200 Wb
Answer. The correct answer is: (C) 100 Wb
vi. If ‘θ’ represents the angle of contact made by a liquid which

completely wets the surface of the container then ________.
(A) θ = 0
(B) 0 < θ < 𝜋/2
(C) θ = 𝜋/2
(D) 𝜋/2 < θ < 𝜋
Answer. (A) θ = 0
Solution. The correct answer is (A) θ = 0.
When a liquid completely wets a surface, it spreads out to form a thin film
on the surface. The angle of contact between the liquid and the surface is
zero degrees. This is because the adhesive forces between the liquid and
the surface are greater than the cohesive forces within the liquid.
The other answer choices are incorrect because they represent angles of
contact for non-wetting liquids. A non-wetting liquid will bead up on a
surface, forming a droplet with a contact angle that is greater than zero
degrees.
vii. The LED emits visible light when its ________.

(A) junction is reverse biased
(B) depletion region widens
(C) holes and electrons recombine
(D) junction becomes hot
Answer. The correct answer is: (C) holes and electrons recombine
Solution. A LED radiates visible light when its holes and electrons
recombine. Because of the recombining of electrons and holes, current
progression occurs in the PN junction diode and therefore LED emits light.
viii. Soft iron is used to make the core of transformer because of its
_______.
(A) low coercivity and low retentivity
(B) low coercivity and high retentivity
(C) high coercivity and high retentivity
(D) high coercivity and low retentivity
Answer. The correct answer is Option (D) high coercivity and low
retentivity
ix. If the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons in photoelectric

effect is 2eV, the stopping potential will be _______.
(A) 0.5 V
(B) 1.0 V
(C) 1.5 V
(D) 2.0 V
Answer. (D) 2.0 V

Solution. The stopping potential in the photoelectric effect is equal to the

maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons. Therefore, the correct
answer is:
(D) 2.0 V
x. The radius of eighth orbit of electron in H-atom will be more than

that of fourth orbit by a factor of _______.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
Answer. (B) 4
Solution. The radius of the eighth orbit of an electron in a hydrogen atom

is four times greater than the radius of the fourth orbit. This is because the
radius of the nth orbit of an electron in a hydrogen atom is given by the
Bohr model as:
rn = n^2 * a0
where:
● rn is the radius of the nth orbit

● n is the principal quantum number
● a0 is the Bohr radius, which is approximately 0.0529 nm
Therefore, the radius of the eighth orbit is:
r8 = 8^2 * a0 = 64 * a0
and the radius of the fourth orbit is:
r4 = 4^2 * a0 = 16 * a0
Therefore, the radius of the eighth orbit is four times greater than the radius
of the fourth orbit.
So the answer is (B) 4.
Question 2. Answer the following questions:
i. What is the value of resistance for an ideal voltmeter?
Answer. An ideal voltmeter has an infinite resistance. This means that it

draws no current from the circuit it is measuring and therefore does not
affect the voltage being measured.
In practice, all real voltmeters have some finite resistance, but it is always
very high. This is because a voltmeter is essentially a very high resistance
ammeter (a device that measures current), and the resistance of an
ammeter is always low.
The high resistance of an ideal voltmeter is necessary to ensure that it

does not affect the circuit being measured. If a voltmeter had a low
resistance, it would draw a significant amount of current from the circuit,
and this would alter the voltage that the voltmeter is trying to measure.
Therefore, the correct answer is that an ideal voltmeter has an infinite

resistance.
ii. What is the value of force on a closed circuit in a magnetic field?
Answer. The force on a closed circuit in a magnetic field depends on the

geometry of the circuit, the strength of the magnetic field, and the current
flowing through the circuit. However, in general, the force on a closed
circuit in a magnetic field is proportional to the product of the current
flowing through the circuit, the strength of the magnetic field, and the area
enclosed by the circuit.
This can be expressed mathematically as:
F = IBL sinθ
where:
● F is the force on the circuit (in Newtons)

● I is the current flowing through the circuit (in Amperes)
● B is the strength of the magnetic field (in Tesla)
● L is the length of the segment of the circuit that is in the magnetic
field (in meters)
● θ is the angle between the segment of the circuit and the magnetic
field (in radians)
If the circuit is completely enclosed by the magnetic field, then the angle θ
is zero, and the force on the circuit is zero. This is because the forces on
each segment of the circuit cancel each other out.
However, if the circuit is not completely enclosed by the magnetic field,

then the angle θ is not zero, and the force on the circuit is not zero. In this
case, the force on the circuit will tend to move the circuit in a direction that
will minimize the angle between the circuit and the magnetic field.
Therefore, the force on a closed circuit in a magnetic field can be zero or

non-zero, depending on the geometry of the circuit, the strength of the
magnetic field, and the current flowing through the circuit.
iii. What is the average value of alternating current over a complete

cycle?
Answer. The average value of alternating current (AC) over a complete

cycle is zero. This is because AC is a periodic waveform that oscillates
back and forth between positive and negative values. The positive and
negative half-cycles of the waveform cancel each other out, so the average
value is zero.
To see this mathematically, let's consider the sine wave, which is a

common type of AC waveform:
I(t) = I_max sin(2πft)
where:
● I(t) is the current at time t

● I_max is the maximum amplitude of the current
● f is the frequency of the AC
● t is time
The average value of I(t) over a complete cycle is given by:
I_avg = ∫T0 I(t) dt / T
where:
● T is the period of the AC waveform (i.e., the time it takes for one
complete cycle)
Substituting the sine wave expression for I(t), we get:
I_avg = ∫T0 I_max sin(2πft) dt / T
Using the trigonometric identity sin(-θ) = -sin(θ), we can simplify this

expression to:
I_avg = 2∫T0 I_max sin^2(πft) dt / T
Using the trigonometric identity sin^2(θ) = (1 - cos(2θ))/2, we can further

simplify this expression to:
I_avg = I_max / π ∫T0 (1 - cos(2πft)) dt / T
Evaluating this integral, we get:
I_avg = I_max (1 - 0) / π = I_max / π
Therefore, the average value of AC over a complete cycle is zero.

iv. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 100

volt. Calculate de-Broglie wavelength in nm.
Answer. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through a

potential difference of 100 volts is approximately 0.123 nanometers.
To calculate this, we can use the following equation:
λ = h / (p * √(2m * e * V))
where:
● λ is the de-Broglie wavelength in meters

● h is Planck's constant, equal to 6.626 × 10^-34 joule-seconds
● p is the momentum of the electron in kilograms meters per second
● m is the mass of the electron, equal to 9.109 × 10^-31 kilograms
● e is the charge of the electron, equal to 1.602 × 10^-19 coulombs
● V is the potential difference in volts
First, we need to calculate the momentum of the electron. We can do this

using the following equation:
p = √(2m * e * V)
Plugging in the values for m, e, and V, we get:
p = √(2 * 9.109 × 10^-31 kilograms * 1.602 × 10^-19 coulombs * 100 volts)
p ≈ 2.22 × 10^-24 kilograms meters per second
Now we can calculate the de-Broglie wavelength using the first equation:
λ = 6.626 × 10^-34 joule-seconds / (2.22 × 10^-24 kilograms meters per

second * √(2 * 9.109 × 10^-31 kilograms * 1.602 × 10^-19 coulombs * 100
volts))
λ ≈ 1.226 × 10^-10 meters
Converting this to nanometers, we get:

λ ≈ 0.1226 nanometers
Therefore, the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through a

potential difference of 100 volts is approximately 0.123 nanometers.
v. If friction is made zero for a road, can a vehicle move safely on this
road?
Answer. No, a vehicle cannot move safely on a road with zero friction.
Friction is necessary for several reasons, including:
● Grip: Friction provides the grip between the tires of the vehicle and
the road, which is essential for accelerating, braking, and turning.
Without friction, the tires would simply spin and the vehicle would not
be able to move.
● Stopping: Friction is also necessary for stopping a vehicle. When the
brakes are applied, the brake pads rub against the wheels and create
friction, which slows the vehicle down. Without friction, the vehicle
would not be able to stop.
● Cornering: When a vehicle turns, the tires must generate friction
against the road in order to change direction. Without friction, the
vehicle would simply slide straight ahead.
In addition to these practical considerations, friction is also important for the

safety of the vehicle's occupants. In the event of a collision, friction helps to
absorb some of the impact and reduce the risk of injury.
Therefore, while friction can make driving more challenging in some

conditions, it is an essential safety feature that cannot be eliminated.
vi. State the formula giving relation between electric field intensity
and potential gradient.
Answer. The electric field intensity and the potential gradient are related by
the following formula:
E = -∇V
where:
● E is the electric field intensity in volts per meter (V/m)

● ∇V is the gradient of the electric potential in volts per meter (V/m)
The gradient of a scalar field is a vector that points in the direction of the
greatest rate of change of the scalar field and has a magnitude equal to the
rate of change. In the case of the electric potential, the gradient points in
the direction of the greatest rate of decrease of the electric potential.
The negative sign in the formula above indicates that the electric field
intensity is always directed in the direction of the greatest decrease of the
electric potential. This is because the electric field is a force field, and a
force always acts to move an object from an area of high potential to an
area of low potential.
Therefore, the formula E = -∇V states that the electric field intensity is
always directed towards the negative gradient of the electric potential.
vii. Calculate the velocity of a particle performing S.H.M. after 1

second, if its displacement is given by x = 5 sin (𝜋t/3) m.
Answer. The velocity of a particle performing simple harmonic motion

(SHM) is given by the following equation:
v = ω√(A^2 - x^2)
where:
● v is the velocity of the particle in meters per second (m/s)

● ω is the angular frequency of the SHM in radians per second (rad/s)
● A is the amplitude of the SHM in meters (m)
● x is the displacement of the particle from its equilibrium position in
meters (m)
In this case, we are given that the displacement of the particle is x = 5

sin(πt/3) m. The amplitude of the SHM is A = 5 m. To find the angular
frequency ω, we can use the following equation:
ω = √(k/m)
where:
● k is the spring constant of the system in Newtons per meter (N/m)

● m is the mass of the particle in kilograms (kg)
In this case, we are not given the values of k or m, so we cannot calculate

the angular frequency ω directly. However, we can still calculate the
velocity of the particle at a specific time t.
For example, if we want to calculate the velocity of the particle after 1

second (i.e., t = 1 s), we can substitute the values of A and x into the
equation for v:
v = ω√(A^2 - x^2) = ω√(5^2 - (5 sin(π/3))^2)
Since we do not know the value of ω, we cannot calculate the exact value
of v. However, we can express v in terms of ω:
v = ω√(25 - 25/4) = ω√(100/4) = ω√(25) = 5ω m/s
Therefore, the velocity of the particle after 1 second is 5ω m/s, where ω is

the angular frequency of the SHM in radians per second.
viii. Write the mathematical formula for Bohr magneton for an electron
revolving in nth orbit.
Answer. The mathematical formula for the Bohr magneton for an electron
revolving in the nth orbit is:
μ_B = eħ/4πm
where:
● μ_B is the Bohr magneton in joules per tesla (J/T)

● e is the elementary charge in coulombs (C)

● ħ is the reduced Planck constant in joule-seconds (J·s)
● m is the mass of the electron in kilograms (kg)
The Bohr magneton is a fundamental constant of nature that defines the

magnetic moment of an electron in a hydrogen atom. The magnetic
moment of an electron is a measure of its ability to generate a magnetic
field. The Bohr magneton is a very small quantity, with a value of
approximately 9.274 × 10^-24 J/T.
The formula for the Bohr magneton shows that the magnetic moment of an
electron is proportional to its charge and angular momentum. The angular
momentum of an electron in a hydrogen atom is quantized, meaning that it
can only take on certain discrete values. The nth orbit of an electron in a
hydrogen atom corresponds to a particular value of angular momentum.
Therefore, the magnetic moment of an electron in the nth orbit is also
quantized.
The Bohr magneton is an important concept in physics because it is used

to explain the magnetic properties of materials. The magnetic properties of
materials are determined by the magnetic moments of the individual atoms
in the material. The Bohr magneton provides a way to calculate the
magnetic moment of an individual atom, which can then be used to
calculate the magnetic properties of the material as a whole.
SECTION B
Attempt any EIGHT questions of the following:
Question 3. Define coefficient of viscosity. State its formula and S.I.

units.
Answer. The coefficient of viscosity is a measure of a fluid's resistance to

flow. It is defined as the tangential force per unit area required to maintain a
constant unit velocity gradient between two parallel layers of fluid. The SI
unit of viscosity is the pascal-second (Pa·s), which is equivalent to the
newton-second per square meter (N·s/m^2).
The formula for the coefficient of viscosity is:
η = F/Av
where:
● η is the coefficient of viscosity in pascal-seconds (Pa·s)

● F is the tangential force in newtons (N)
● A is the area of the fluid layer in square meters (m^2)
● v is the velocity gradient in seconds per meter (s/m)
The velocity gradient is defined as the rate of change of velocity with

respect to distance. In other words, it is the difference in velocity between
two points separated by a small distance.
The coefficient of viscosity is a property of the fluid and depends on a

number of factors, including the temperature, pressure, and composition of
the fluid. In general, the viscosity of a fluid decreases with increasing
temperature and increases with increasing pressure. The viscosity of a fluid
is also affected by the presence of dissolved substances. For example, the
viscosity of water is increased by the presence of salt.
The coefficient of viscosity is an important concept in fluid mechanics and is

used in a wide variety of applications, including:
● The design of pumps and pipes

● The study of blood flow
● The development of lubricants
● The prediction of the behavior of fluids in various processes
Question 4. Obtain an expression for magnetic induction of a toroid of

‘N’ turns about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular
to its plane.
Answer. To calculate the magnetic induction inside a toroid of 'N' turns, we

can apply Ampere's law, which states that the circulation of the magnetic
field around a closed loop is equal to the permeability of the medium
multiplied by the total electric current passing through the loop.
Consider a toroid with a mean radius 'r' and 'N' turns of wire carrying a
current 'I'. Ampere's law for a closed loop can be written as:
∮ B · dl = μ₀I
where:
B is the magnetic field strength at a point on the loop dl is an infinitesimal

segment of the loop μ₀ is the permeability of free space (4π × 10^(-7) H/m)
I is the total electric current passing through the loop
In the case of a toroid, the magnetic field lines inside the toroid are circular
and concentric with the toroid. Therefore, the loop for Ampere's law can be
chosen as a circle of radius 'r' inside the toroid. The magnetic field strength
at all points on this circle is the same and is tangential to the circle.
For a toroid, the total electric current passing through the loop is 'NI', where
N is the number of turns of wire.
Substituting these values into Ampere's law, we get:
∮ B · dl = μ₀NI
The integral on the left-hand side represents the circulation of the magnetic
field around the circle. Since the magnetic field is tangential to the circle,
the integral can be simplified to:
2πrB = μ₀NI
Solving for B, the magnetic induction inside the toroid, we get:
B = μ₀NI/(2πr)
Question 5. State and prove principle of conservation of angular

momentum.
Answer. The principle of conservation of angular momentum states that

the total angular momentum of an isolated system remains constant unless
acted upon by an external torque. Angular momentum is a measure of an
object's rotational motion, and it is defined as the product of an object's
moment of inertia and its angular velocity.
Proof of the principle of conservation of angular momentum
The angular momentum of an object can be expressed as:
L = Iω
where:
● L is the angular momentum of the object

● I is the object's moment of inertia
● ω is the object's angular velocity
The time rate of change of angular momentum is equal to the torque acting
on the object:
τ = dL/dt
where:
● τ is the torque acting on the object

Combining these two equations, we get:
τ = I dω/dt
This equation states that the torque acting on an object is equal to the rate
of change of its angular momentum.
If no external torque acts on an object, then the rate of change of its

angular momentum is zero, and therefore its angular momentum is
constant. This is the principle of conservation of angular momentum.
Examples of the principle of conservation of angular momentum
The principle of conservation of angular momentum has many applications

in physics and engineering. Here are a few examples:
● Ice skaters spinning with their arms outstretched
If an ice skater spins with their arms outstretched and then pulls their arms
in, they will spin faster. This is because the moment of inertia of the skater
decreases when their arms are pulled in, and therefore their angular
momentum must remain constant. As a result, their angular velocity must
increase.
● A planet orbiting the sun
The angular momentum of a planet orbiting the sun remains constant as it

orbits. This is because the gravitational force between the planet and the
sun does not exert a torque on the planet.
● A spinning top
A spinning top will continue to spin for a long time if there is no friction. This
is because the principle of conservation of angular momentum prevents the
top from slowing down. However, if there is friction between the top and the
ground, the torque from friction will eventually cause the top to slow down
and stop spinning.
Question 6. Obtain an expression for equivalent capacitance of two

capacitors C1 and C2 connected in series.
Answer. When two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in series, the

equivalent capacitance (Ceq) is given by the following formula:
Ceq = C1 * C2 / (C1 + C2)
This formula is derived from the fact that the total charge stored in the
series combination of capacitors is equal to the charge stored in each
capacitor individually. The total charge stored in a capacitor is given by:
Q = CV
where:
● Q is the charge stored in the capacitor

● C is the capacitance of the capacitor
● V is the voltage across the capacitor
In a series circuit, the voltage across each capacitor is the same.

Therefore, we can write the following equations:
Q1 = C1V
Q2 = C2V
where:
● Q1 is the charge stored in capacitor C1

● Q2 is the charge stored in capacitor C2
Since the total charge is the same in each capacitor, we can equate these
two equations:
C1V = C2V
This simplifies to:
C1 = C2
Since the voltage across each capacitor is the same, the equivalent
capacitance is simply the sum of the individual capacitances:
Ceq = C1 + C2
Therefore, the equivalent capacitance of two capacitors C1 and C2

connected in series is given by the formula:
Ceq = C1 * C2 / (C1 + C2)
Question 7. Explain, why the equivalent inductance of two coils

connected in parallel is less than the inductance of either of the coils.
Answer. The equivalent inductance of two coils connected in parallel is

less than the inductance of either of the coils because the parallel
connection provides multiple paths for the current to flow through,
effectively reducing the overall inductance of the circuit.
Inductance is a property of an electrical conductor that opposes changes in

current flow. It is caused by the magnetic field generated by the current
flowing through the conductor. The larger the inductance, the greater the
opposition to changes in current.
When two coils are connected in parallel, the current has two paths to
follow, one through each coil. This means that the overall magnetic field
generated by the current is reduced, and therefore the inductance of the
circuit is also reduced.
The exact amount by which the equivalent inductance is reduced depends

on the values of the individual inductances of the coils. However, in
general, the equivalent inductance will always be less than the inductance
of either of the coils.
Here's a more intuitive explanation:
Imagine two water pipes connected in parallel. Water flowing through the
pipes encounters resistance due to the friction between the water and the
pipe walls. The larger the pipe, the less resistance the water encounters.
Similarly, in an electrical circuit, current flowing through a coil encounters

resistance due to the inductance of the coil. The larger the inductance, the
greater the resistance to changes in current.
When two coils are connected in parallel, the current has two paths to
follow, each with its own resistance. This effectively reduces the overall
resistance of the circuit, similar to how two water pipes connected in
parallel reduce the overall resistance to water flow.
As a result, the equivalent inductance of two coils connected in parallel is

less than the inductance of either of the coils.
Question 8. How will you convert a moving coil galvanometer into an

ammeter?
Answer. A moving coil galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by

connecting a shunt resistor in parallel with the galvanometer coil. The shunt
resistor is a low-resistance resistor that diverts most of the current around
the galvanometer coil, allowing only a small portion of the current to flow
through it. This protects the galvanometer coil from damage and allows it to
measure larger currents.
The value of the shunt resistor is chosen according to the desired range of
the ammeter. For example, if you want to convert a galvanometer with a
full-scale deflection of 10 mA into an ammeter with a full-scale deflection of
1 A, you would need to use a shunt resistor with a resistance of 0.01 Ω.
Here is a step-by-step guide on how to convert a moving coil galvanometer

into an ammeter:
1. Identify the terminals of the galvanometer coil. These are usually

labeled with the letters "G" and "P".
2. Connect the shunt resistor in parallel with the galvanometer coil.
Make sure that the shunt resistor is connected to the correct
terminals (G and P).
3. Calibrate the ammeter. To do this, you will need to connect the

ammeter to a known current source and adjust the shunt resistor until
the galvanometer needle deflects to the full-scale deflection.
Once you have calibrated the ammeter, you can use it to measure currents
up to its full-scale range.
Question 9. A 100 Ω resistor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz supply.

Calculate:
i. r.m.s. value of current and
ii. net power consumed over the full cycle
Answer. Given:
● Voltage (V) = 220 V

● Frequency (f) = 50 Hz
● Resistance (R) = 100 Ω
i. Calculate the rms value of current (Irms)
The rms value of current is given by the formula:
Irms = V / (sqrt(2) * R)
Substituting the given values:
Irms = 220 V / (sqrt(2) * 100 Ω) ≈ 1.555 A
ii. Calculate the net power consumed over the full cycle (Pavg)
The net power consumed over the full cycle is given by the formula:
Pavg = (V^2) / (2 * R)
Pavg = (220 V)^2 / (2 * 100 Ω) ≈ 242 W
Therefore:
● The rms value of current is 1.555 A.

● The net power consumed over the full cycle is 242 W.
Question 10. A bar magnet of mass 120 g in the form of a rectangular

parallelepiped, has dimensions l = 40 mm, b = 100 mm and h = 80 mm,
with its dimension ‘h’ vertical, the magnet performs angular
oscillations in the plane of the magnetic field with period π seconds.
If the magnetic moment is 3.4 Am2 , determine the influencing
magnetic field.
Answer. Given:
● Mass (m) = 120 g = 0.12 kg

● Length (l) = 40 mm = 0.04 m
● Breadth (b) = 100 mm = 0.1 m
● Height (h) = 80 mm = 0.08 m
● Period (T) = π seconds
● Magnetic moment (M) = 3.4 Am²
Solution:
1. Calculate the moment of inertia (I) of the bar magnet.
For a rectangular parallelepiped, the moment of inertia about an axis

passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane is given by:
I = (1/12) * m * (b² + h²)

I = (1/12) * 0.12 kg * ((0.1 m)² + (0.08 m)²) ≈ 8.333 × 10^(-4) kg·m²
2. Calculate the angular frequency (ω) of the oscillations.
The angular frequency is related to the period by the formula:
ω = 2π/T
Substituting the given value of T:
ω = 2π/π ≈ 2 rad/s
3. Calculate the influencing magnetic field (B).
The influencing magnetic field is the magnetic field that causes the bar
magnet to oscillate. It is given by the formula:
B = (2π * I * ω) / (M * sin(ωT/2))
Substituting the values of I, ω, and M:
B = (2π * 8.333 × 10^(-4) kg·m² * 2 rad/s) / (3.4 Am² * sin(π/2)) ≈ 2.4 ×

10^(-2) T
Therefore, the influencing magnetic field is 2.4 × 10^(-2) T.
Question 11. Distinguish between free vibrations and forced

vibrations (Two points).
Answer. Free vibrations and forced vibrations are two types of mechanical
vibrations.
Free vibrations are vibrations that occur in a system after an initial

disturbance, and then die out over time due to damping. For example, if
you pluck a guitar string, the string will vibrate freely until the energy of the
vibration is dissipated by damping.
Forced vibrations are vibrations that are maintained by an external periodic

force. For example, if you pluck a guitar string and then hold your finger on
the string, the string will vibrate with a frequency that is determined by the
frequency of your finger plucking the string.
Here is a table that summarizes the key differences between free vibrations
and forced vibrations:
Feature Free vibrations Forced vibrations
Cause Initial disturbance External periodic force
Damping Damping is present Damping may or may not be present
Frequency Frequency is determined by the Frequency is determined by the

natural frequency of the system frequency of the external periodic
force
Amplitude Amplitude decays over time Amplitude can be maintained by the

external periodic force
In addition to the key differences listed in the table, there are a few other
important points to note about free vibrations and forced vibrations:
● Free vibrations can occur in any system that has a natural frequency,
while forced vibrations can only occur in systems that are subjected
to an external periodic force.
● The amplitude of free vibrations decays over time, while the

amplitude of forced vibrations can be maintained by the external
periodic force.
● The frequency of free vibrations is determined by the natural
frequency of the system, while the frequency of forced vibrations is
determined by the frequency of the external periodic force.
Question 12. Compare the rate of loss of heat from a metal sphere at
827°C with rate of loss of heat from the same at 427°C, if the
temperature of surrounding is 27°C.
Answer. The rate of heat loss from a body is directly proportional to the
temperature difference between the body and its surroundings. Therefore,
the rate of heat loss from a metal sphere at 827°C will be much greater
than the rate of heat loss from the same sphere at 427°C, if the
temperature of the surrounding is 27°C.
This is because the temperature difference between the sphere at 827°C

and the surroundings is 800°C, while the temperature difference between
the sphere at 427°C and the surroundings is 400°C.
The exact ratio of the rates of heat loss can be calculated using Newton's
law of cooling, which states that:
Q = kAΔT
where:
● Q is the rate of heat loss

● k is the constant of proportionality (also known as the heat transfer
coefficient)
● A is the surface area of the sphere
● ΔT is the temperature difference between the sphere and the
surroundings
Since the sphere is the same in both cases, the surface area (A) will be the
same. Additionally, the constant of proportionality (k) will also be the same
for both cases. Therefore, the only variable that will affect the rate of heat
loss is the temperature difference (ΔT).
As mentioned earlier, the temperature difference between the sphere at

827°C and the surroundings is 800°C, while the temperature difference
between the sphere at 427°C and the surroundings is 400°C. Therefore,
the rate of heat loss from the sphere at 827°C will be twice the rate of heat
loss from the sphere at 427°C.
In other words, the ratio of the rates of heat loss is 2:1.
Question 13. An ideal mono-atomic gas is adiabatically compressed

so that its final temperature is twice its initial temperature. Calculate
the ratio of final pressure to its initial pressure.
Answer. For an ideal monatomic gas undergoing adiabatic compression,

the relationship between the initial pressure (P1), initial temperature (T1),
final pressure (P2), and final temperature (T2) is given by:
(P2/P1) = (T2/T1)^γ
where γ is the specific heat capacity ratio, which is 5/3 for monatomic
gases.
Since the final temperature is twice the initial temperature (T2 = 2T1), we
can substitute this into the equation to get:
(P2/P1) = (2T1/T1)^5/3
Simplifying the expression:
(P2/P1) = 2^(5/3)
Plugging in the value of 2^(5/3) ≈ 3.1498:
(P2/P1) ≈ 3.1498
Therefore, the ratio of final pressure to initial pressure is approximately

3.1498.
Question 14. Disintegration rate of a radio-active sample is 1010 per

hour at 20 hours from the start. It reduces to 5 *109 per hour after 30
hours. Calculate the decay constant.
Answer. Given:
● Initial disintegration rate (R1) = 10^10 per hour

● Final disintegration rate (R2) = 5 × 10^9 per hour
● Time difference (t) = 30 hours - 20 hours = 10 hours
Solution:
The decay constant (λ) is a measure of the rate at which a radioactive

sample decays. It is defined as the fraction of the original number of nuclei
that decay per unit time.
The decay constant can be calculated using the formula:
λ = ln(R1/R2) / t
λ = ln(10^10 / 5 × 10^9) / 10 hours ≈ 0.0693 hours^(-1)
Therefore, the decay constant is approximately 0.0693 hours^(-1).

SECTION C
Attempt any EIGHT questions of the following:
Question 15. Derive laws of reflection of light using Huygens’

principle.
Answer. Huygens' principle is a fundamental concept in wave optics that

states that every point on a wavefront acts as a secondary source of
waves. These secondary waves spread out in all directions, and the new
wavefront is the envelope of these secondary waves.
Huygens' principle can be used to derive the laws of reflection of light. The
laws of reflection state that:
1. The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal to the reflecting
surface at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.
2. The angle of incidence (i) is equal to the angle of reflection (r).
To derive these laws, consider a plane wave incident on a reflecting

surface. Let A be a point on the wavefront, and let B be the point of
incidence on the reflecting surface. According to Huygens' principle, every
point on the wavefront, including A, acts as a secondary source of waves.
These secondary waves spread out in all directions, and the new wavefront
is the envelope of these secondary waves.
Let C be a point on the reflected wavefront, and let D be the point of

intersection of the normal to the reflecting surface at B with the reflected
wavefront. Since the secondary waves from all points on the wavefront are
in phase, the envelope of these waves will be a straight line. Therefore, the
incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal to the reflecting surface at the
point of incidence all lie in the same plane.
To prove that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection,

consider the triangles ABC and BCD. These triangles are congruent, since
they are both right triangles with the same hypotenuse (AB) and the same
angle at C (a right angle). Therefore, the corresponding angles in these

triangles are equal. This means that the angle of incidence (i) is equal to
the angle of reflection (r).
Huygens' principle provides a powerful tool for understanding the behavior

of waves, including light waves. By applying Huygens' principle, we can
derive the laws of reflection of light, which are essential for understanding
how light behaves in optical systems.
Question 16. State postulates of Bohr’s atomic model.
Answer. Here are the postulates of Bohr's atomic model:
1. Electrons in an atom revolve around the nucleus in fixed circular

paths called orbits or shells.
2. Each orbit is associated with a specific energy level, and electrons
can only move between orbits by absorbing or emitting energy in the
form of photons.
3. The angular momentum of an electron in an orbit is quantized,
meaning that it can only have certain discrete values.
4. Electrons in the lowest energy level (ground state) are stable and do
not emit radiation.
5. When an electron absorbs energy, it moves to a higher energy level
(excited state). When an electron returns to a lower energy level, it
emits energy in the form of a photon, with the frequency of the photon
being equal to the energy difference between the two levels.
These postulates provided a significant improvement over the earlier

Rutherford model, which did not explain the stability of atoms or the
emission of spectral lines. Bohr's model was able to explain these
phenomena, and it laid the foundation for the development of quantum
mechanics.
Here is a table summarizing the postulates of Bohr's atomic model:

Postulate Description
1 Electrons revolve in fixed circular orbits.
2 Each orbit has a specific energy level.
3 Angular momentum is quantized.
4 Electrons in the ground state are stable.
5 Energy absorption leads to higher energy levels.
Question 17. Define and state unit and dimensions of :
i. Magnetization
Answer. Here is the definition, unit, and dimensions of magnetization:
Magnetization (M) is a measure of the strength and direction of the

magnetic field within a material. It is defined as the net magnetic moment
per unit volume of the material.
The SI unit of magnetization is the ampere per meter (A/m).
The dimensions of magnetization are [L^(-1)I].
Here is a table summarizing the definition, unit, and dimensions of

magnetization:
Property Definition Unit Dimension

s
Magnetization Net magnetic moment per unit A/m L^(-1)I

(M) volume
ii. Magnetic susceptibility
Answer. Magnetic susceptibility is a measure of the extent to which a

material can be magnetized. It is a dimensionless quantity that is defined
as the ratio of the magnetization (M) of a material to the applied magnetic
field (H). In other words, magnetic susceptibility is a measure of how easily
a material can be magnetized.
The magnetic susceptibility of a material is typically denoted by the Greek

letter χ (chi). In SI units, the magnetic susceptibility is measured in amperes
per meter (A/m). However, it is often more convenient to use the
dimensionless form of χ, which is simply a number.
The magnetic susceptibility of a material can be positive, negative, or zero.

A material with a positive magnetic susceptibility is said to be
paramagnetic, while a material with a negative magnetic susceptibility is
said to be diamagnetic. A material with a magnetic susceptibility of zero is
said to be non-magnetic.
Paramagnetic materials have a tendency to be magnetized in the same

direction as the applied magnetic field. This is because the atoms in
paramagnetic materials have unpaired electrons, which are small magnets.
When an external magnetic field is applied, the unpaired electrons align
themselves with the field, creating a net magnetic moment in the same
direction as the field.
Diamagnetic materials have a tendency to be magnetized in the opposite

direction as the applied magnetic field. This is because the atoms in
diamagnetic materials have all of their electrons paired. When an external
magnetic field is applied, the paired electrons create a small magnetic field
that opposes the applied field.
Non-magnetic materials have no net magnetic moment, regardless of the

applied magnetic field. This is because the atoms in non-magnetic
materials have all of their electrons paired, and the paired electrons create
a magnetic field that cancels out the magnetic field of the nucleus.
The magnetic susceptibility of a material is a temperature-dependent

property. In general, the magnetic susceptibility of a material decreases as
the temperature increases. This is because the thermal energy of the
atoms increases with temperature, and this can cause the atoms to vibrate
more freely. The increased vibration can disrupt the alignment of the atoms,
which can reduce the magnetic susceptibility of the material.
Magnetic susceptibility is an important property in many applications. For

example, it is used in the design of magnetic sensors, which are used to
measure the strength of magnetic fields. It is also used in the development
of magnetic materials, such as superconductors, which have a very high
magnetic susceptibility.
Question 18. With neat labelled circuit diagram, describe an

experiment to study the characteristics of photoelectric effect.
Question 19. Explain the use of potentiometer to determine internal

resistance of a cell.
Answer. A potentiometer is a device that can be used to measure the

internal resistance of a cell. It works by comparing the voltage drop across
a known resistance to the voltage drop across the cell.
Principle of Operation
The principle of operation of a potentiometer is based on the fact that the

voltage drop across a resistor is directly proportional to the current flowing
through it. This can be expressed by Ohm's law:
V = IR
where:
● V is the voltage drop across the resistor (in volts)

● I is the current flowing through the resistor (in amps)
● R is the resistance of the resistor (in ohms)
When a potentiometer is used to measure the internal resistance of a cell,

the known resistance is called the "rheostat." The rheostat is a variable
resistor that can be adjusted to change the current flowing through the
circuit.
Steps to Measure Internal Resistance
1. Connect the cell and the rheostat in a series circuit.

2. Connect the potentiometer in parallel with the cell and the rheostat.
3. Adjust the rheostat until the galvanometer needle in the potentiometer
deflects to zero.
4. Measure the current flowing through the circuit.
5. Measure the voltage drop across the cell.
6. Calculate the internal resistance of the cell using the following
formula:
r=V/I
where:
● r is the internal resistance of the cell (in ohms)

● V is the voltage drop across the cell (in volts)
● I is the current flowing through the circuit (in amps)
Advantages of Using a Potentiometer

There are several advantages to using a potentiometer to measure the

internal resistance of a cell:
● It is a very accurate method of measurement.

● It is a non-destructive method of measurement, meaning that it does
not damage the cell.
● It is a relatively simple method of measurement.
Applications of Measuring Internal Resistance
Measuring the internal resistance of a cell is important for a number of

applications, including:
● Determining the efficiency of a cell

● Predicting the performance of a cell under load
● Monitoring the health of a cell
Question 20. Explain the working of n-p-n transistor in common base

configuration.
Answer. Here is an explanation of the working of an n-p-n transistor in

common base configuration:
Common Base Configuration
In the common base configuration of an n-p-n transistor, the base terminal

is common to both the input and output signals. The emitter is forward
biased, and the collector is reverse biased. This configuration is
characterized by high input impedance and low output impedance.
Working Principle
When a small signal is applied to the emitter, it causes a large change in

the collector current. This is because the emitter-base junction is forward
biased, which allows electrons to flow easily from the emitter to the base.
The base is very thin, so most of these electrons are able to drift across the
base region and into the collector. This results in a large increase in the
collector current.
Current Amplification
The current amplification factor of a transistor in common base

configuration is denoted by the Greek letter alpha (α). Alpha is defined as
the ratio of the collector current (IC) to the emitter current (IE). In other
words, alpha tells us how much the transistor amplifies the current. For
n-p-n transistors in common base configuration, alpha is typically between
0.9 and 0.99. This means that the transistor can amplify the current by a
factor of 10 to 100.
Applications
Common base configuration is not as common as other transistor

configurations, such as common emitter and common collector. However, it
is still used in some applications where high input impedance and low
output impedance are required. For example, common base transistors are
sometimes used in voltage amplifiers and radio frequency amplifiers.
Summary
The common base configuration of an n-p-n transistor is characterized by

high input impedance and low output impedance. The transistor amplifies
the current by a factor of 10 to 100, and it is used in some applications
where these characteristics are required.
Question 21. State the differential equation of linear S.H.M. Hence,

obtain expression for :
i. Acceleration
Answer. Here is the differential equation of linear S.H.M. and the

expressions for acceleration, velocity, and displacement:
Differential Equation of Linear S.H.M.

The differential equation of linear simple harmonic motion (S.H.M.) is given

by:
d^2x/dt^2 + (k/m)x = 0
where:
● x is the displacement from equilibrium (in meters)

● t is time (in seconds)
● m is the mass of the object (in kilograms)
● k is the force constant (in Newtons per meter)
The force constant (k) is a measure of the stiffness of the spring or

restoring force. The larger the force constant, the stiffer the spring and the
faster the object will oscillate.
Expression for Acceleration
The acceleration of an object in S.H.M. is given by the second derivative of

its displacement with respect to time:
a = d^2x/dt^2
Substituting the differential equation of S.H.M. into this expression, we get:
a = -(k/m)x
This means that the acceleration of an object in S.H.M. is always directed

towards the equilibrium position and is proportional to the displacement
from equilibrium.
Expression for Velocity
The velocity of an object in S.H.M. is given by the first derivative of its

displacement with respect to time:
v = dx/dt

v = ±√(k/m)(x^2 - A^2)
where:
● A is the amplitude of the oscillation (in meters)
The ± sign in front of the square root indicates that the velocity can be
positive or negative, depending on the direction of motion.
Expression for Displacement
The displacement of an object in S.H.M. is given by:
x = Acos(ωt + φ)
where:
● ω is the angular frequency of the oscillation (in radians per second)

● φ is the phase angle (in radians)
The angular frequency (ω) is related to the force constant (k) and the mass
(m) of the object by the following equation:
ω = √(k/m)
The phase angle (φ) is a measure of the initial displacement of the object
from equilibrium.
ii. Velocity
Answer. Here is the expression for velocity in linear simple harmonic

motion (S.H.M.):
The velocity of an object in S.H.M. is given by the first derivative of its

displacement with respect to time:
v = dx/dt
where:
● x is the displacement from equilibrium (in meters)

● t is time (in seconds)
v = ±√(k/m)(x^2 - A^2)
where:
● k is the force constant (in Newtons per meter)

● m is the mass of the object (in kilograms)
● A is the amplitude of the oscillation (in meters)
The ± sign in front of the square root indicates that the velocity can be
positive or negative, depending on the direction of motion.
Additional Notes
● The velocity of an object in S.H.M. is maximum at its equilibrium

position (x = 0) and zero at its extreme positions (x = ±A).
● The velocity of an object in S.H.M. is directly proportional to the
square root of its amplitude (A) and inversely proportional to the
square root of its mass (m).
Question 22. Two tuning forks of frequencies 320 Hz and 340 Hz are
sounded together to produce sound wave. The velocity of sound in air
is 326.4 m/s. Calculate the difference in wavelengths of these waves.
Answer. Here is the solution to the problem:
Given:
● Frequency of first tuning fork (f1) = 320 Hz

● Frequency of second tuning fork (f2) = 340 Hz
● Velocity of sound in air (v) = 326.4 m/s
Solution:
The wavelength of a sound wave is given by the formula:
λ=v/f
where:
● λ is the wavelength (in meters)

● v is the velocity (in meters per second)
● f is the frequency (in Hertz)
Substituting the given values for f1 and v, we get the wavelength of the first
sound wave:
λ1 = 326.4 m/s / 320 Hz ≈ 1.016875 meters
Substituting the given values for f2 and v, we get the wavelength of the
second sound wave:
λ2 = 326.4 m/s / 340 Hz ≈ 0.96 m
Finally, we can calculate the difference in wavelengths:
difference = λ1 - λ2 ≈ 0.056875 meters ≈ 5.6875 cm
Therefore, the difference in wavelengths of the two sound waves is

approximately 5.6875 cm.
Question 23. In a biprism experiment, the fringes are observed in the

focal plane of the eye-piece at a distance of 1.2 m from the slit. The
distance between the central bright band and the 20th bright band is
0.4 cm. When a convex lens is placed between the biprism and the
eye-piece, 90 cm from the eye-piece, the distance between the two
virtual magnified images is found to be 0.9 cm. Determine the
wavelength of light used.
Answer. here is the solution to the problem:
Given:
● Distance between slit and eye-piece (d1) = 1.2 m

● Distance between central bright band and 20th bright band (y) = 0.4
cm
● Distance between convex lens and eye-piece (D) = 0.9 m
● Distance between two virtual magnified images (d2) = 0.9 cm
Solution:
1. Calculate the distance between two bright bands (x)
The distance between the central bright band and the 20th bright band is
given by:
x = 20y = 20 * 0.4 cm = 8 cm
2. Calculate the focal length of the convex lens (f)
The focal length of the convex lens can be calculated using the formula:
f = (d1 * d2) / (d1 + d2 - D)
Substituting the given values, we get:
f = (1.2 m * 0.9 m) / (1.2 m + 0.9 m - 0.9 m) = 1.08 m
3. Calculate the wavelength of light (λ)
The wavelength of light can be calculated using the formula:
λ = (x * f) / (d1 * d2)
λ = (8 cm * 1.08 m) / (1.2 m * 0.9 m) = 0.00072 m = 720 nm

Therefore, the wavelength of light used is approximately 720 nm.
Question 24. Calculate the current flowing through two long parallel
wires carrying equal currents and separated by a distance of 1.35 cm
experiencing a force per unit length of 4.76 *10–2 N/m.
Given:
● Force per unit length (f) = 4.76 × 10^(-2) N/m

● Distance between wires (d) = 1.35 cm = 0.135 m
● Current in each wire (I) = unknown
The force per unit length between two long parallel wires carrying equal
currents is given by the formula:
f = μ₀/4π(I^2/d)
where:
● μ₀ is the permeability of free space (4π × 10^(-7) H/m)
4.76 × 10^(-2) N/m = μ₀/4π(I^2/0.135 m)
Solving for I, we get:
I = √(4πf * d * μ₀) = √(4π * 4.76 × 10^(-2) N/m * 0.135 m * 4π × 10^(-7)

H/m)
Simplifying the expression:
I ≈ 56.68 A
Therefore, the current flowing through each wire is approximately 56.68 A.

Question 25. An alternating voltage given by e = 140 sin (314.2 t) is

connected across a pure resistor of 50Ω . Calculate :
i. the frequency of the source
Given:
● Alternating voltage (e) = 140 sin (314.2t)

● Resistance (R) = 50 Ω
Solution:
1. Calculate the angular frequency (ω)
The angular frequency of a sinusoidal wave is given by the formula:
ω = 2πf
where:
● f is the frequency (in Hz)
Substituting the given value of f, we get:
ω = 2π * 314.2 Hz ≈ 986.6 rad/s
2. Calculate the peak current (I0)
The peak current through a resistor connected to an AC source is given by

the formula:
I0 = E0/R
where:
● E0 is the peak voltage (in volts)

I0 = 140 V / 50 Ω = 2.8 A
3. Calculate the root mean square (rms) current (Irms)
The root mean square (rms) current of a sinusoidal wave is given by the
formula:
Irms = I0/√2
Substituting the given value of I0, we get:
Irms = 2.8 A / √2 ≈ 1.98 A
Therefore, the rms current through the resistor is approximately 1.98 A.
ii. the r.m.s current through the resistor
Answer. The root-mean-square (rms) current through a resistor connected

to an AC source can be calculated using the formula:
Irms = E0 / √2R
where:
● Irms is the rms current (in amperes)

● E0 is the peak voltage (in volts)
● R is the resistance (in ohms)
Given that the peak voltage is 140 V and the resistance is 50 Ω, the rms
current can be calculated as follows:
Irms = 140 V / √2 * 50 Ω ≈ 1.98 A
Therefore, the rms current through the resistor is approximately 1.98 A.
Question 26. An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges each

of magnitude 1 μC, separated by 2 cm. The dipole is placed in an
external electric field of 105 N/C.

Calculate the :
i. maximum torque experienced by the dipole and
Given:
● Charge of each dipole (q) = 1 μC = 1 × 10^(-6) C

● Separation between charges (d) = 2 cm = 0.02 m
● Electric field strength (E) = 105 N/C
Solution:
1. Calculate the dipole moment (p)
The dipole moment of an electric dipole is defined as the product of the

magnitude of the charge on each dipole and the separation between the
charges. It is a vector quantity that points from the negative charge to the
positive charge.
The formula for the dipole moment is:
p = qd
p = (1 × 10^(-6) C)(0.02 m) = 2 × 10^(-8) C·m
2. Calculate the maximum torque (τmax)
The maximum torque experienced by an electric dipole in an external

electric field is given by the formula:
τmax = pE sinθ
where:
● θ is the angle between the dipole moment and the electric field
The maximum torque occurs when the dipole moment is perpendicular to

the electric field, i.e., θ = 90°.
τmax = (2 × 10^(-8) C·m)(105 N/C)sin(90°) ≈ 2.10 × 10^(-6) N·m
Therefore, the maximum torque experienced by the dipole is approximately

2.10 × 10^(-6) N·m.
ii. work done by the external field to turn the dipole through 180°.
Answer. Here is the solution to part ii of the problem:
The work done by an external field to turn an electric dipole through an

angle θ is given by the formula:
W = pE(cosθ1 - cosθ2)
where:
● p is the dipole moment (in C·m)

● E is the electric field strength (in N/C)
● θ1 is the initial angle between the dipole moment and the electric field
● θ2 is the final angle between the dipole moment and the electric field
Given that the dipole is initially aligned with the electric field (θ1 = 0°) and is
rotated through 180° (θ2 = 180°), we can calculate the work done as
follows:
W = (2 × 10^(-8) C·m)(105 N/C)(cos(0°) - cos(180°)) ≈ 4.20 × 10^(-6) J
Therefore, the work done by the external field to turn the dipole through
180° is approximately 4.20 × 10^(-6) J.
SECTION D
Attempt any THREE questions of the following:
Question 27. On the basis of kinetic theory of gases obtain an

expression for pressure exerted by gas molecules enclosed in a
container on its walls.
Answer. Here is an expression for the pressure exerted by gas molecules

enclosed in a container on its walls, based on the kinetic theory of gases:
The kinetic theory of gases is a model that describes the behavior of gases
based on the motion of the individual gas molecules. According to this
theory, gas molecules are constantly moving in random directions at high
speeds. They collide with each other and with the walls of the container. It
is these collisions that create the pressure exerted by the gas on the walls.
To derive an expression for the pressure, consider a cube-shaped

container with sides of length L. The volume of the container is V = L^3.
There are N gas molecules in the container, each with mass m. The
average speed of the gas molecules is v.
The momentum of a single gas molecule is p = mv. When a gas molecule

collides with a wall, it transfers its momentum to the wall. The rate at which
gas molecules collide with a wall is given by:
R = Nv/4L
This is because the molecules are moving in random directions, and half of
them will be moving towards any given wall. The force exerted by a gas
molecule on a wall is equal to the change in its momentum per unit time.
Since the molecule's momentum is completely transferred to the wall, the
change in momentum is equal to the original momentum. Therefore, the
force exerted by a single gas molecule on a wall is:
F = mv
The total force exerted on the wall by all of the gas molecules is:
F = Nmv/4L
The pressure is defined as the force per unit area. Since the area of the
wall is L^2, the pressure exerted by the gas on the walls is:
P = F/L^2 = Nmv/4L^3
Substituting the expression for V = L^3, we get:
P = Nmv/4V
This is the expression for the pressure exerted by gas molecules enclosed
in a container on its walls. It is known as the kinetic theory of gases ideal
gas law.
Question 28.
i. Derive an expression for energy stored in the magnetic field in
terms of induced current.
Answer. Here is the derivation of an expression for the energy stored in the
magnetic field in terms of induced current:
Consider a solenoid with N turns and a self-inductance of L. When a

current I flows through the solenoid, it creates a magnetic field inside the
solenoid. The energy stored in this magnetic field is given by:
U = 1/2 * L * I^2
where:
● U is the energy stored in the magnetic field (in joules)

● L is the self-inductance of the solenoid (in henries)
● I is the current flowing through the solenoid (in amperes)
The self-inductance of a solenoid is a measure of its ability to store energy

in the magnetic field. It is defined as the ratio of the magnetic flux (Φ) linked
with the solenoid to the current flowing through it:
L = Φ/I
where:
● Φ is the magnetic flux linked with the solenoid (in webers)
The magnetic flux is a measure of the strength of the magnetic field inside
the solenoid. It is given by:
Φ=B*A
where:
● B is the magnetic field strength (in teslas)

● A is the area of the cross-section of the solenoid (in square meters)
Substituting the expressions for L and Φ into the expression for U, we get:
U = 1/2 * (B * A * I^2)/I
Simplifying the expression, we get:
U = 1/2 * B * A * I
This is an expression for the energy stored in the magnetic field in terms of
the magnetic field strength, the area of the cross-section of the solenoid,
and the current flowing through the solenoid.
Note that this expression is only valid for a solenoid with a uniform
magnetic field. For more complex geometries, the expression for the
energy stored in the magnetic field will be more complicated.
ii. A wire 5 m long is supported horizontally at a height of 15 m along

east-west direction. When it is about to hit the ground, calculate the

average e.m.f. induced in it. (g = 10 m/s2)
Answer. Here is the calculation of the average emf induced in the wire:
Given:
● Length of wire (L) = 5 m

● Height of wire above ground (h) = 15 m
● Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 m/s²
Solution:
1. Calculate the velocity of the wire (v)
The velocity of the wire can be calculated using the formula:
v = √(2gh)
v = √(2 * 10 m/s² * 15 m) ≈ 17.32 m/s
2. Calculate the magnetic field strength (B)
The magnetic field strength of the Earth is approximately 50 µT

(microteslas) at the surface. Since the wire is moving perpendicular to the
magnetic field, the magnetic field strength experienced by the wire is also
50 µT.
B = 50 µT = 50 × 10^(-6) T
3. Calculate the average emf induced in the wire (Eavg)
The average emf induced in the wire can be calculated using the formula:
Eavg = Bvl
Eavg = (50 × 10^(-6) T)(5 m)(17.32 m/s) ≈ 0.0433 V

Therefore, the average emf induced in the wire is approximately 0.0433 V.
Question 29.
i. Derive an expression for the work done during an isothermal
process.
Answer. Derivation of the expression for work done during an isothermal

process
An isothermal process is a thermodynamic process in which the

temperature of the system remains constant throughout the process. This
means that the internal energy of the system also remains constant. The
only way to change the internal energy of a system during an isothermal
process is through work or heat transfer.
The work done during an isothermal process can be calculated using the
following formula:
W = -nRTln(V2/V1)
where:
● W is the work done (in joules)

● n is the number of moles of gas
● R is the gas constant (8.314 J/mol·K)
● T is the temperature (in kelvin)
● V1 is the initial volume of the gas (in cubic meters)
● V2 is the final volume of the gas (in cubic meters)
The negative sign in the formula indicates that the work done is negative if
the gas expands and positive if the gas contracts. This is because the gas
does work on the surroundings when it expands, and the surroundings do
work on the gas when it contracts.
The formula for work done during an isothermal process can be derived
from the first law of thermodynamics, which states that the change in
internal energy of a system is equal to the heat added to the system plus
the work done on the system.
ΔU = Q + W
For an isothermal process, ΔU = 0, so we have:
W = -Q
The heat added to the system during an isothermal process can be

calculated using the following formula:
Q = nRTln(V2/V1)
Substituting this expression into the expression for W, we get the formula
for work done during an isothermal process:
W = -nRTln(V2/V1)
ii. 104 J of work is done on certain volume of a gas. If the gas releases
125 kJ of heat, calculate the change in internal energy of the gas.
Answer. Here is the calculation of the change in internal energy of the gas:
Given:
● Work done on the gas (W) = 104 J

● Heat released by the gas (Q) = 125 kJ = 125,000 J
Solution:
The change in internal energy of a system is given by the first law of

thermodynamics:
ΔU = Q + W
ΔU = 125,000 J + 104 J ≈ 125,104 J

Therefore, the change in internal energy of the gas is approximately

125,104 J.
Question 30.
i. Obtain the relation between surface energy and surface tension.
Answer. Here's the relation between surface energy and surface tension:
Surface Energy
Surface energy is the energy required to create a new unit of surface area.
It is measured in joules per square meter (J/m^2). Surface energy is a
property of materials and is related to the intermolecular forces between
molecules at the surface.
Surface Tension
Surface tension is the force per unit length that acts along the surface of a
liquid. It is measured in newtons per meter (N/m). Surface tension is
caused by the cohesive forces between molecules at the surface of a
liquid. These forces pull the molecules inward, minimizing the surface area
of the liquid.
Relation between Surface Energy and Surface Tension
Surface energy and surface tension are related by the following equation:
Es = γA
where:
● Es is the surface energy (in J/m^2)

● γ is the surface tension (in N/m)
● A is the surface area (in m^2)
This equation states that the surface energy of a liquid is equal to the
product of its surface tension and its surface area.
Example
The surface tension of water is approximately 72 × 10^(-3) N/m. This

means that it takes 72 × 10^(-3) J of energy to create one square meter of
new surface area of water.
ii. Calculate the work done in blowing a soap bubble to a radius of 1

cm. The surface tension of soap solution is 2.5 × 10–2 N/m.
Answer. Here is the calculation of the work done in blowing a soap bubble
to a radius of 1 cm:
Given:
● Radius of soap bubble (r) = 1 cm = 0.01 m

● Surface tension of soap solution (γ) = 2.5 × 10^(-2) N/m
Solution:
The work done in blowing a soap bubble is equal to the surface energy
required to create the surface of the bubble. The surface area of a sphere
is given by the formula:
A = 4πr²
where:
● A is the surface area (in m²)

● r is the radius (in m)
A = 4π(0.01 m)² ≈ 0.001257 m²
The work done in blowing the soap bubble is:
W = γA = (2.5 × 10^(-2) N/m)(0.001257 m²) ≈ 3.14 × 10^(-5) J

Therefore, the work done in blowing the soap bubble to a radius of 1 cm is

approximately 3.14 × 10^(-5) J.
Question 31. Derive expressions for linear velocity at lowest position,

mid-way position and the top-most position for a particle revolving in
a vertical circle, if it has to just complete circular motion without
string slackening at top.
Answer. Here is the derivation of expressions for linear velocity at the

lowest position, mid-way position, and the top-most position for a particle
revolving in a vertical circle, if it has to just complete circular motion without
the string slackening at the top:
Lowest Position
At the lowest position, the particle is moving towards the center of the
circle. The force of gravity is acting directly down on the particle, providing
the centripetal force that keeps it moving in a circle. The tension in the
string is at its maximum at this point, providing the additional force needed
to keep the particle from falling straight down.
The linear velocity of the particle at the lowest position can be calculated
using the following formula:
v = √(gr)
where:
● v is the linear velocity (in meters per second)

● g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.81 m/s²)
● r is the radius of the circle (in meters)
Midway Position
At the midway position, the particle is moving horizontally. The force of

gravity is still acting down on the particle, but it is now perpendicular to the
direction of motion. The tension in the string is still providing some force,
but it is now less than at the lowest position.
The linear velocity of the particle at the midway position can be calculated
v = √(gr/2)
Top-Most Position
At the top-most position, the particle is moving away from the center of the
circle. The force of gravity is now acting directly up on the particle,
opposing the centripetal force that keeps it moving in a circle. The tension
in the string is at its minimum at this point, providing the additional force
needed to keep the particle from flying off in a straight line.
The linear velocity of the particle at the top-most position can be calculated
v = √(gr)
This is the same formula as for the lowest position, but this time the particle
is moving away from the center of the circle, so the direction of the velocity
is reversed.
String Slackening at the Top
If the particle is to just complete circular motion without the string

slackening at the top, then the linear velocity at the top-most position must
be equal to the critical velocity at that point. The critical velocity is the
minimum velocity required for the particle to just make it around the circle
without the string slackening. It is given by the formula:
v_c = √(gR)
where:
● v_c is the critical velocity (in meters per second)

● R is the distance from the particle to the center of the circle (in
meters)
Substituting this formula into the expression for linear velocity at the
top-most position, we get:
√(gr) = √(gR)
Solving for r, we get:
r=R
This means that the particle must be at a distance of R from the center of
the circle in order to have a velocity of √(gr) at the top-most position. This is
the maximum height that the particle can reach without the string
slackening.
In conclusion, the expressions for linear velocity at the lowest position,

mid-way position, and the top-most position for a particle revolving in a
vertical circle, if it has to just complete circular motion without the string
slackening at the top, are as follows:
● Lowest position: v = √(gr)

● Midway position: v = √(gr/2)
● Top-most position: v = √(gr)

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Maharashtra Board Class 12

Answer. (D) 1 / √(2𝜋nd)

Solution. The correct answer is (D) 1 / √(2𝜋nd).

The mean free path is the average distance traveled by a molecule

● λ is the mean free path

ii. The first law of thermodynamics is consistent with the law of

Answer. The correct answer is: (B) energy

iii. Y = A+ B is the Boolean expression for _______.

Answer. The correct answer is: (A) OR - gate

iv. The property of light which remains unchanged when it travels

Answer. (D) frequency

Solution. The correct answer is (D) frequency.

So, the answer is (D) frequency.

v. If a circular coil of 100 turns with a cross-sectional area of 1 m2 is

Answer. The correct answer is: (C) 100 Wb

vi. If ‘θ’ represents the angle of contact made by a liquid which

Solution. The correct answer is (A) θ = 0.

vii. The LED emits visible light when its ________.

ix. If the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons in photoelectric

Answer. (D) 2.0 V

Solution. The stopping potential in the photoelectric effect is equal to the

x. The radius of eighth orbit of electron in H-atom will be more than

Solution. The radius of the eighth orbit of an electron in a hydrogen atom

● rn is the radius of the nth orbit

Therefore, the radius of the eighth orbit is:

and the radius of the fourth orbit is:

So the answer is (B) 4.

Question 2. Answer the following questions:

i. What is the value of resistance for an ideal voltmeter?

Answer. An ideal voltmeter has an infinite resistance. This means that it

The high resistance of an ideal voltmeter is necessary to ensure that it

Therefore, the correct answer is that an ideal voltmeter has an infinite

ii. What is the value of force on a closed circuit in a magnetic field?

Answer. The force on a closed circuit in a magnetic field depends on the

This can be expressed mathematically as:

● F is the force on the circuit (in Newtons)

However, if the circuit is not completely enclosed by the magnetic field,

Therefore, the force on a closed circuit in a magnetic field can be zero or

iii. What is the average value of alternating current over a complete

Answer. The average value of alternating current (AC) over a complete

To see this mathematically, let's consider the sine wave, which is a

I(t) = I_max sin(2πft)

● I(t) is the current at time t

The average value of I(t) over a complete cycle is given by:

I_avg = ∫T0 I(t) dt / T

Substituting the sine wave expression for I(t), we get:

I_avg = ∫T0 I_max sin(2πft) dt / T

Using the trigonometric identity sin(-θ) = -sin(θ), we can simplify this

I_avg = 2∫T0 I_max sin^2(πft) dt / T

Using the trigonometric identity sin^2(θ) = (1 - cos(2θ))/2, we can further

I_avg = I_max / π ∫T0 (1 - cos(2πft)) dt / T

Evaluating this integral, we get:

I_avg = I_max (1 - 0) / π = I_max / π

Therefore, the average value of AC over a complete cycle is zero.

iv. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 100

Answer. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through a

To calculate this, we can use the following equation: