05/05/2022 RMPRE

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3Hours 20 Minutes

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NEET PREP TEST SERIES

for Regular Medical - 2022
Test - 01

Topics covered :
Physics : Mathematical tools, Physical World, Units & Measurement, Motion in a Straight Line

Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of atom

Botany : Cell Unit of Life, Cell Cycle, Cell Division

Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals–Animal Tissues

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A
1. Which of the following has four significant figures 2. If the length and breadth of a thin rectangular sheet

(1) 3.500 are measured, using a metre scale as 16.2 cm and

10.1 cm respectively. Then uncertainty or error in
(2) 0.06900
the estimation of area of rectangular sheet is
(3) 0.00470
(1) 2.6 cm2 (2) 2.8 cm2
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) 3.2 cm2 (4) 3 cm2
 NEET PREP Test Series-01
3. We measure the diameter of a thick wire. In 9. The incorrect statement among the following
successive measurements, the readings turn out to statements is
be 2.63 cm 2.56 cm, 2.42 cm, 2.80 cm and 2.71 (1) A change in velocity may involve either magnitude
cm. the percentage error in the measurement will or direction or both factors.
be nearly (2) Acceleration can be positive, negative or zero
(1) 4 % (2) 6 % (3) For constant acceleration, velocity versus
displacement graph will be a straight line
(3) 8 % (4) 1 % (4) For a body moving under gravity velocity cannot
4. Which among the following are correctly matched change its value abruptly at an instant
regarding dimensional formula? 10. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of
(1) Pressure gradient : Radiation pressure 20 m/s from the top of multi-storey building. The
height of point from where ball is thrown is 25 m.
(2) Frequency : Velocity gradient With what speed the ball will hit the ground
(3) Displacement : Angular displacement (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 20 m/s (2) 25 m/s
(4) Hubble constant : Planck constant (3) 30 m/s (4) 40 m/s
5. If orbital velocity v of a satellite revolving in an orbit of 11. Figure given below shows the graph of velocity v of
particle moving along x-axis as a function of time t.
radius r around a planet of density d is given as v = Average acceleration during t = 1 s to t = 7 s is
kRaGbdc (where G is universal gravitational constant v (m/s)
and k is a dimensionless constant). The value of b 30
must be
20
1
(1) 1 (2) 0 t (s)
2 2 6 8
(1) 1.5 m/s2 (2) 1 m/s2
1 (3) 2 m/s 2 (4) 2.5 m/s2
(3)  (4) –1
2 12. A car was moving at 25 m/s on road. A child suddenly
appears on road, the car driver applies brakes but
6. The volume of a spherical ball is measured to be took 0.3 second for implementation of brakes. If
(100.0 ± 0.6) m 3. The percentage error in the retardation of car was 5 metre per second square.
What was stopping distance of car (assume uniform
calculation of its radius is retardation)
(1) 0.4% (2) 0.2% (1) 60 m (2) 70 m
(3) 62.5 m (4) 74.5 m
(3) 0.6% (4) 2%
13. A rocket is taking vertical take off. The exhaust
7. Which among the following statements is incorrect velocity of gases with respect to rocket at any instant
(1) Average speed tells us how fast an object has was 600 m/s, When rocket’s speed was 900 m/s
been moving over a given time interval vertical upward, the speed of exhaust gases observed
(2) Instantaneous velocity is defined as limit of by observer on ground is
average velocity as the time interval becomes (1) 1500 m/s upwards
infinitesimally small (2) 600 m/s downwards
(3) If the motion of an object is along straight line (3) 300 m/s downwards
and in the same direction, magnitude of (4) 300 m/s upwards
displacement is equal to path length 14. Two railway tracks runs East-west. Train A moves
(4) Rate of change of velocity with distance is called towards east at 90 km/h and train B moves towards
acceleration west with speed 144 km/h. A monkey is running on
8. The position of an object moving along straight line train A against its motion with speed of 27 km/h with
(x-axis) is given as x = 9 + 3t2, where x in metre and respect to train A. What is speed of monkey observed
t in second. What is average velocity during first two by an observer sitting in train B.
second of motion. (1) 109 km/h (2) 81 km/h
(1) 12 metre per second (3) 107 km/h (4) 207 km/h
(2) 6 metre per second
(3) 4 metre per second
(4) 15 metre per second
Page 2
NEET PREP Test Series-01
15. Read the statements carefully and find the correct (1) 8 s (2) 12 s
statements among the following (3) 4 s (4) 10 s
(A) If particle is speeding up, acceleration or its 22. Area under the velocity time curve and the time axis
component is along the velocity gives
(B) If particle speed is decreasing acceleration must (1) Displacement (2) Acceleration
be negative (3) Jerk (4) Speed
(c) The zero velocity of a particle at any instant does 23. For motion with uniform acceleration, position (x)-
not necessary implies zero acceleration at that time(t) graph is
instant
(1) A straight line (2) An ellipse
(1) Only statement A is correct
(3) A parabola (4) A circle
(2) Statements A and B are correct
24. If the motion of an object is along a straight line and
(3) Statement A and C are correct
in the same direction, then
(4) All statements are correct
(1) The magnitude of the displacement is equal to
16. A ball is dropped from a height of 80 m. It collides
the total path length
with surface and looses 25% of its speed. The ball
after first bouncing rises to a height of ( g = 10 ms–2) (2) The magnitude of average velocity is equal to
(1) 45 m (2) 56 m average speed
(3) 70 m (4) 60 m (3) The acceleration of the object will always be zero
17. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with an initial (4) Both (1) & (2)
speed of 29.4 m/s. Its speed after 4 second will be 25. Kinematics is the study of
(g = 9.8 ms–2) (1) Motion without going in to the causes of motion
(1) 19.6 m/s (2) 9.8 m/s (2) Motion along with the causes of motion
(3) 4.9 m/s (4) 29.4 m/s (3) Objects which are in equilibrium
18. With a constant acceleration along x-axis, a car (4) Motion of celestial bodies
covers a distance of 20 m during fourth second of its
26. A body is projected vertically upwards with velocity
motion and 25 m during fifth second of its motion.
u at t = 0. If the body is at same height from ground
Distance covered by it during third second of motion
was at t = 4 s and at t = 14 s. The value of u must be (g
= 10 m/s2)
(1) 15 m (2) 18 m
(3) 30 m (4) 10 m (1) 45 m/s (2) 90 m/s
19. In uniform motion of a body (3) 135 m/s (4) 180 m/s
(1) Velocity is same as the average velocity at all 27. The acceleration time graph of a particle initially at
instants rest is shown in figure. Which of the following graph
(2) Velocity is greater than average velocity at all best represents displacement of the particle with time
instants
(3) Velocity is less than average velocity at all a
instants a0
(4) Velocity may be less or greater than average
velocity at all instants t0 t
20. If the speed of the particle is decreasing its –a0
acceleration is in the direction opposite to that of
the velocity. This statement
(1) Depends on the choice of the origin and the axis
(2) Is independent on the choice of the origin and s s
the axis
(3) Depends on the choice of the origin only (1) (2)
(4) Depends on the choice of the axis only O t O t

21. A car starts from rest, moves with an acceleration

6 m/s2 then decelerates with 2 m/s2 for some time
to come to rest. If the total time taken is 16 s, then s
s

the time in which car attains of maximum velocity

is
(3) (4)
O t
O t

Page 3
 NEET PREP Test Series-01

28. A train of length 200 m is moving with a uniform (1) [F0 v1 –1] (2) [F1 v1 1]
0 –1
(3) [F v  ] 1 (4) [F0 v1 –2]
velocity of 20 m/s. The time taken by the train to
cross a bridge of length 800 m will be 35. Two values are taken as A = 3.00 × 108 and B =
(1) 50 seconds (2) 40 seconds 4.00 × 105. The correct value of AB with regards to
(3) 60 seconds (4) 30 seconds significant figures is
29. The position y of the oscillating particle is given as (1) 12 × 1013 (2) 12.0 × 1013
(3) 12.0 × 10 14 (4) 12.00 × 1014
y = A sin[Bx + Ct + D], where A, B, C and D are
the constants. Then select the correct option
SECTION-B
(1) The dimension of AB is [L]
36. Two trains A and B are moving on two parallel tracks
C with uniform speed of 90 km/h each in opposite
(2) The dimension of is [T–1]
D directions. The length of train A is 500 m, it crosses
other train in 16 second. What is the length of second
DC train B.
(3) The dimension of is [L2T–3]
B (1) 300 m (2) 400 m
(4) A is a dimensionless quantity (3) 500 m (4) 600 m
30. A body is thrown vertically upward with speed 25 m/ 37. A man walks on straight road from his home to market
s. The distance covered by the body in 3rd second 3 km away with speed of 6 km/h. He finds market
is closed and instantly turns and walks back home
(1) 1.25 m (2) 2.5 m with constant speed of 4 km/h. What is his average
(3) Zero (4) 5 m speed during first one hour of motion
31. A person takes T 1 second on the stationary (1) 3.5 km/h (2) 4 km/h
escalator to cover some distance. The person takes (3) 4.5 km/h (4) 5 km/h
T2 second in the moving escalator to cover same 38. Two stones are thrown vertically up simultaneously
distance by same velocity. If person is at rest on from the top of a cliff 200 m high with initial speed of
the escalator then time taken by him to cover same 20 m/s and 30 m/s. Neglect air resistance, what is
distance is their separation 5 second later.
T12  T22 T2 T1 (1) 40 m (2) 50 m
(1) (2) (3) 60 m (4) 100 m
T2  T1 T2  T1
39. A boy is standing in a moving lift, moving up at
T2 T1 T2  T1
(3) (4) uniform speed of 5 m/s. From this open lift the boy
T1  T2 2 throws a ball straight up and finds that ball reaches
32. Initially car A is 21 m ahead of car B. Both start back his hands 4 second later. The initial speed of
moving at time t = 0 in same direction along the ball with respect to ground is
straight line. If A is moving with constant velocity 20 (g = 10 m/s2)
m/s and B starts from rest with an acceleration 2 (1) 20 m/s (2) 22 m/s
m/s2 towards A, then the time when car B will (3) 25 m/s (4) 12 m/s
catch the car A is 40. A police jeep is moving on highway with speed of 30
(1) 21 s (2) 22 s m/s fires a bullet at a thief’s car speeding away in
(3) 10 s (4) Can never catch A same direction with speed of 40 m/s. If muzzle speed
of bullet is 190 m/s, the bullet hits the thief’s car at
33. Select the wrong statement
a speed of
(1) Numerical constants cannot be deduced by the
(1) 250 m/s (2) 220 m/s
method of dimensions
(3) 180 m/s (4) 200 m/s
(2) Ratio of physical quantities having the same
dimensions are dimensionless 41. A car starts from rest along straight line with uniform
acceleration of 2 ms–2. What is ratio of distance
(3) A dimensionless quantity may have units but a
covered by it during first three second to that in
unitless quantity has to be dimensionless
during third second of its motion
(4) A dimensionless quantity cannot have units but
(1) 9/5 (2) 9/7
a unitless quantity has to be dimensionless
(3) 7/5 (4) 5/3
34. If force ‘F’, velocity ‘v’ and acceleration ‘’ taken as
fundamental quantities, then dimensional formula for
time period of simple pendulum is

Page 4
NEET PREP Test Series-01
42. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with initial velocity Displacement of the object in first four seconds is
of 20 m/s from edge of multi-storey building. The approximately
height of point from where ball is thrown is 25 m
from the ground. The difference of time taken by the 1
(1) 3 m (2) m
ball to reach ground and to reach maximum height 3
is
(g =10 ms–2) 4
(3) 4 3 (4) m
(1) 3 s (2) 2 s 3
(3) 4 s (4) 5 s 47. Velocity of an object as the function of time is given
43. Water droplets are falling from a tap at a certain as v = 2t + 3. Displacement of the object between
height after a regular interval of 0.2 s. When the first t = 0 to t = 4s if unit of velocity is m/s
drop reaches the ground, the fourth drop just leaves (1) 16 m (2) 12 m
the tap. The height of the tap from the ground is (3) 28 m (4) 4 m
(1) 1.80 m (2) 180 m 48. Two stones are thrown one vertically up and other
(3) 90 cm (4) 360 cm downward with the speed 15 m/s of each respectively
44. A particle starts from rest and moves with constant from a tower of height 200 m. Find out the time
acceleration of 4 m/s2. The displacement of the difference of them on reaching the ground
particle in 6th half second will be (1) 2 s (2) 3 s
(1) 5.5 m (2) 4.5 m (3) 4 s (4) 5 s
(3) 11 m (4) 2.75 m 49. Two cars A and B at rest at same point initially. If A
45. A particle is projected vertically up with a speed of starts with uniform velocity of 40 m/sec and B starts
40 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, total distance covered by the in the same direction with constant acceleration of 4
particle from t = 0 to t = 5 s is m/s2 the B will catch A after how much time
(1) 85 m (2) 80 m (1) 10 sec (2) 20 sec
(3) 75 m (4) 60 m (3) 30 sec (4) 35 sec
46. Displacement time graph of an object is given as 50. A three wheeler starts from rest, accelerated
follows uniformly with 1 m/s2 on straight road for 12 second,
then moves with uniform speed for next 6 seconds.
x (m) What is distance covered by three wheeler during
first 15 second of motion
(1) 108 m (2) 102 m
(3) 112.5 m (4) 144 m
30°
t (s)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A (2) Avogadro’s law

(3) Proust’s law of definite proportions
51. To illustrate the Law of definite proportions Joseph
Proust had taken two samples of (4) Faraday’s law of electrolysis
(1) Natural origin and synthetic one of copper Oxide 53. Molarity of solution depends on temperature since
with increase of temperature
(2) Natural origin and synthetic one of cupric
(1) Mole of solute increases
carbonate
(2) Mole of solvent increases
(3) Natural origin and synthetic one of cupric
sulphate (3) Volume of solution increases
(4) Natural origin and synthetic one of copper nitrite (4) No. of solute particles decreases
52. The Gay-Lussac’s Law was explained properly by 54. Room temperature, Human body temperature and
the work of boiling point of water respectively are
(1) Antoine Lavoisier’s law of conservation of (1) 68°F, 93°F, 212°F (2) 25°F, 37°F, 110°F
mass (3) 77°F, 98.6°F, 212°F (4) 77°F, 61°F, 190°F

Page 5
 NEET PREP Test Series-01
55. Consider the following statements, (3) C6H5OH and C6H5SH
(i) All non-zero digits are significant (4) CH4 and C6H6
(ii) Zeros preceding to first non-zero digit are 64. Weight of the smallest hydrocarbon having
significant empirical formula CH is
(iii) Zeros between two non-zero digits are significant (1) 26 (2) 39
(iv) Zeros at the right of a number are not significant (3) 78 (4) 65
provided they are on the right side of the decimal 65. On complete decomposition of 40 gm CaCO3,
point the volume of CO2 gas released at STP will be
Correct statement(s) is/are
(1) 8.96 litre (2) 0.896 litre
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (iii) only (3) 5.6 litre (4) 11.2 litre
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) only (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 66. Equal volume of 1 M Ba(OH)2 and 1 M Al(OH)3
56. An aqueous solution containing 8 g of NaOH in 800
are mixed. The concentration of hydroxyl ion
mL of water, is diluted by adding 200 mL of water.
Final moles of NaOH in the solution is will be
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (1) 2.5 M (2) 5 M
(3) 0.15 (4) 0.3 (3) 2 M (4) 3 M
57. The SI unit of length, mass, time and thermodynamic 67. In which of the following pair of compounds
temperature respectively are law of constant composition is not valid?
(1) Cent imetre, Kilogram, minutes, degree (1) CO2, 14CO2 (2) CH3OCH3, C2H5OH
Fahrenheit (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) H2O(solid), H2O(gas)
(2) Metre, Kilogram, Second, Kelvin 68. Select the correct statement among the following
(3) Centimetre, Gram, Second, Kelvin (1) All the isotopes of a given element show same
(4) Metre, Gram, Second, Degree Celcius chemical behaviour
58. 1 a.m.u. is not equal to (2) 90.985% of hydrogen atom contains only one
(1) One twelfth of the mass of carbon-12 atom. proton
(2) 1.66056 × 10–24 g (3) Species with 18 electrons, 19 protons and 20
(3) Mass of hydrogen atom neutrons is Ca2+
(4) One eighth of mass of oxygen-16 atom (4) Only for neutral species with Z protons and A
59. If 0.01 mol of P4O10 is removed from 0.1 mol, then nucleons, number of neutrons is equal to A-Z
the remaining molecules of P4O10 will be 69. Wavelength of photon emitted during transition form
(1) 2.7 × 1022 (2) 5.4 × 1023. n=5 state to the n=2 state in the H-atom is
(3) 5.4 × 1022 (4) 1.35 × 1023. (1) 100 nm (2) 433 nm
60. Which of the following has maximum number of (3) 4000 nm (4) 734 nm
atoms? 70. Electromagnetic theory unable to explain
(1) 8 g of H2 (1) Black body radiation
(2) 44.8 L of CO2 at STP (2) Photoelectric effect
(3) 1 mol of SO3 (3) Effect of temperature on heat capacity of solids
(4) 0.5 mol of H3PO4 (4) All
61. According to the reaction, 71. Uncertainty principle sets no meaning limit to the
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) precision of measurements for
Maximum moles of ammonia that can be formed (1) Electron (2) Proton
when 2 moles of N2(g) is heated with 3 moles of (3) Cricket ball (4) Neutron
H2(g) is
72. Consider the following statements
(1) 1 mole (2) 2 mole
(a) The characteristics of cathode rays depend upon
(3) 3 mole (4) 4 mole the material of electrodes used
62. Number of atoms in 16 u of He is (b) Canal rays are positively charged gaseous ions
(1) 4 (2) 16 (c) (e/m) of electron is greater than proton
(3) 4 NA (4) 2 NA The correct statement(s) is/are
63. Law of multiple proportion is not applicable for
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(1) N2O5 and NO2
(3) (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) H2O and H2O2

Page 6
NEET PREP Test Series-01
73. Number of angular nodes and total nodes present is 80. Circumference of a Bohr’s orbit having principal
5d orbital respectively are quantum number n is equal to
(1) 2 and 3 (2) 2 and 4
(3) 3 and 5 (4) 2 and 5 (1) n  (2)
74. Maximum number of electrons present in a f-orbital
is
(1) 2 (2) 14 (3) 2 n  (4)
(3) 10 (4) 7
75. Which quantum number gives information about the 81. ‘n + l’ rule is not followed by which of the given
spatial orientation of orbital in with respect to element?
standard set of co-ordinate axis? (1) Hydrogen (2) Helium
(1) Azimuthal quantum number (3) Lithium (4) Sodium
(2) Principal quantum number 82. When light is incident on metal, electrons come out
(3) Spin quantum number of the surface of metal. Which of the following given
(4) Magnetic orbital quantum number statement is correct regarding this photo electric
76. Angular momentum of electron in 4th orbit of hydrogen effect?
atom will be (1) Every value of energy can bring about photo
(1) h/2pi (2) 2h/pi electric effect
(3) h/4pi (4) 8h/pi (2) Every value of frequency can bring about photo
77. Which among the following set of quantum numbers electric effect
is incorrect? (3) Only energy equal to work function of metal can
n l m s bring about protoelectric effect
(1) 4 2 –2 +1/2 (4) Energy greater than or equal to work function of
metal brings about photoelectric effect
(2) 3 1 +1 –1/2
83. How many unpaired electrons are present in Fe and
(3) 5 3 –2 –1/2
Fe3+ respectively? (Z of Fe = 26)
(4) 2 1 –2 +1/2
(1) 4, 5 (2) 4, 3
78. Which of the following electronic configuration for
(3) 5, 4 (4) 3, 4
26 Fe is violating Hund’s rule? 84. Shape of p and d orbitals respectively is
(1) Spherical, dumbell
(1) (2) Dumbell, double dumbell
(3) Double dumbell, dumbell
(4) Spherical, double dumbbell
(2) 85. Velocity of de-Broglie wave is given by

(1) (2)
(3)

(3) (4)
(4)
SECTION-B
79. The brightness of any spectral line depends upons
86. In which of the following case carbon dioxide
(1) Energy associated with the transition produced will be maximum
(2) Wavelength associated with the transition (1) 1 mol carbon burns in excess of air
(3) Number of photons bringing the transition (2) 2 mol carbon burns with 48 g of dioxygen
(4) All of these (3) 2 moles of carbon burns with 16 g of dioxygen
(4) 1 mol carbon monoxide burns with 4 g of
dioxygen

Page 7
 NEET PREP Test Series-01
87. An organic compound with empirical formula A2B3, 94. Correct order of energy of 2s-orbitals among the
contains 52.94 % A. The atomic mass of B is (Atomic following is
mass of A is 27u)
(1) E2s(H)>E2s(Li)>E2s(Na)>E2s(K)
(1) 32 u (2) 16 u
(2) E2s(H)=E2s(Li)=E2s(Na)>E2s(K)
(3) 10 u (4) 21 u
(3) E2s(K)>E2s(Na)>E2s(Li)>E2s(H)
88. On thermal decomposition of 5g of CaCO3, 2.2 g of
CO2 is released, the number of oxygen atoms present (4) E2s(K)>E2s(H)>E2s(Na)>E2s(Li)
in the residue is 95. Radius of second orbit of Li2+ ion will be
(1) 3 × 1023 (2) 3 × 1022 (1) 52.9 pm (2) 26.5 pm
24
(3) 1.2 × 10 (4) 6 × 1023 (3) 211.6 pm (4) 70.53 pm
89. If the density of methanol is 0.8 g/mL, then volume 96. A particle of mass 10 mg is moving with a velocity
needed for making 1.5 L of its 0.2 M solution is of 400 m/s. The wavelength (in metre) associated
(1) 10 mL (2) 20 mL with the moving particle is
(3) 12 mL (4) 24 mL (1) 1.66 × 10–31 (2) 1.66 × 10–41
90. For the reaction, (3) 1.66 × 10–34 (4) 1.66 × 10–36
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq)  MnCl2(s) + Cl2(g)+H2O(l) 97. Number of electrons present in p-subshells of
Mass of CaCO3 required to react completely with chlorine atom is
100 mL of 0.5 M HCl is (1) 7 (2) 5
(1) 5 g (2) 2.5 g (3) 9 (4) 11
(3) 10 g (4) 12.5 g 98. Total energy of electron in first orbit of He+ ion is
91. In which solution maximum number of atoms of (1) –2.18 × 10–18 J (2) –4.36 × 10–18 J
oxygen are present? (3) –8.72 × 10–18 J (4) 5.45 × 10–19 J
(1) 1 litre, 2 NH2SO4 (2) 0.5 litre, 1 M HNO3 99. If a radiation of energy 4.25 eV falls on a metal
(3) 1 litre, 5 M H3PO4 (4) 2 litre, 0.4 M H3BO3 surface then the maximum kinetic energy of ejected
electrons will be (work function of the metal is 2.25
92. The molarity and molality of 40% NaOH solution (by
eV)
mass) respectively are (If density of solution is 1.2
(1) 4.5 × 10–18 J (2) 6.5 × 10–19 J
g/ml)
–19
(3) 3.2 × 10 J (4) 1.6 × 10–19 J
(1) 12, 12 (2) 12, 16.66
100. Ratio of wave number of last line of Lyman series of
(3) 16.66, 12 (4) 16.66, 16.66
He+ with Li2+ ion is
93. Which contains largest number of H+ ions?
(1) 1 : 1
(1) 49 gm H2SO4 in water
(2) 4 : 9
(2) 0.75 N, 1 litre HCl
(3) 9 : 4
(3) 2 M, 200 cc H2SO4
(4) 2 : 3
(4) 1 M, 300 cc H3PO4

BOTANY

SECTION-A 104. A polysome contains

101. The interphase nucleus has highly extended nucle- (1) Many ribosomes and a single m-RNA
oprotein fibres called (2) Single ribosome and many m-RNAs
(1) Chromatid (2) Chromosome (3) Single ribosome and single m-RNA
(3) Chromatin (4) Satellite (4) Many ribosomes and many m-RNAs
102. Prokaryotic cell cannot have 105. All of the following features are true for lipids of plasma
(1) Nuclear membrane (2) Chromosome membrane, except
(3) Cell wall (4) Plasma membrane (1) Tails are hydrophobic
103. Identify the incorrect match for prokaryotic cell (2) Polar heads are towards the inner sides
(1) Mesosome – Respiration (3) May consist of phosphoglycerides
(2) Plasmid – Genomic DNA (4) Major lipids are phospholipids
(3) Glycocalyx – Protects bacterial cell
(4) Chromatophore – Photosynthetic pigment

Page 8
NEET PREP Test Series-01
106. The structure which form living component of dead 114. The chromosome having p and q arm
cell wall, is (1) Appear V-shaped during anaphase
(1) Plasmodesmata (2) Pits (2) Is sub-metacentric chromosome
(3) Middle lamella (4) Plasma membrane (3) Is telocentric chromosome
(4) Has centromere at its one end
107. The component of endomembrane system which is
115. The structure which provides gummy or sticky char-
involved in protein synthesis is also related with
acter to bacterial cell, /is
(1) Formation of precursor of enzymes of lysosomes
(1) Made up of peptidoglycan
(2) Breakdown of cellulose (2) Responsible to determine the shape of the cell
(3) Breakdown of proteins with help of proteases (3) Comprises of polysaccharides
(4) Maintenance of osmotic concentration of cell (4) Found in all bacterial cells
108. Mark the following statements as true (T) or false 116. Identify single membrane bound cell organelle among
(F) and select the correct option these
A. Outer mitochondrial membrane is more permeable (1) Mitochondria (2) Centriole
than inner one. (3) Plastid (4) Lysosome
B. Inner membrane of mitochondria contains ATP
117. Gas vacuoles
synthase enzyme.
C. Mitochondrial matrix contains enzymes of Krebs (a) Are found in all aquatic eukaryotes.
cycle and 80S ribosomes. (b) Are membraneless.
A B C (c) Provide buoyancy to the cell.
(1) T T T (1) Only (a) is true
(2) T F F (2) (a) and (b) are true
(3) T T F (3) (b) and (c) are true
(4) F T F (4) (a) and (c) are true
109. The type of plastid which is not involved in storage of 118. The ___ face of golgi complex gives rise to the secre-
food, is tory vesicles.
(1) Chloroplast (2) Amyloplast (1) Convex (2) Cis
(3) Chromoplast (4) Elaioplast
(3) Maturing (4) Forming
110. The smallest cell organelle is not found in/on
119. Both matrix of mitochondria and stroma of chloro-
(1) Plastids (2) Mitochondria
plast contains
(3) RER (4) Nucleolus
111. Which of the given is true for cilia but false for (1) Linear dsDNA
prokaryotic flagella? (2) Enzymes of glucose synthesis
(1) Help in locomotion (3) Protein synthesis machinery
(2) Made up of tubulin proteins (4) Enzymes of TCA cycle
(3) Is extension of cell wall 120. Endomembrane system does not include
(4) Basal body is made up of proteinaceous rings (1) Endoplasmic reticulum
112. A. Centrioles form spindle fibres during cell division. (2) Golgi complex
B. Higher plant cells lack spindle fibres as they lack
(3) Lysosome
centrioles.
(1) Only A is true (4) Peroxisome
(2) Only B is true 121. Select the wrongly matched pair
(3) Both A and B are true (1) Plasma membrane – Selectively permeable
(4) Both A and B are false (2) Algal cell wall – Contain cellulose,
113. Nucleolus galactans and
(a) Is non membrane bound structure manans
(b) Is larger and more numerous in cells undergoing (3) Primary cell wall – Thin, elastic and
cell division. incapable of
(c) Is the site of 70S ribosome assembly. extension
(1) Only (a) is true (4) Middle lamella – Amorphous
(2) Only (b) is true cementing layer
(3) Both (a) and (b) are true 122. Who explained that “new cells are formed from pre-
(4) All (a), (b) and (c) are true existing cells”?
(1) Schleiden (2) Virchow
(3) Schwann (4) R. Brown

Page 9
 NEET PREP Test Series-01
123. Polytene chromosomes (4) Pachytene – Activity of recombinase
(1) Are diplotene bivalents enzyme
(2) Show somatic pairing 134. Choose the process which does not occur in G1 phase
(3) Are seen in all insects (1) Protein synthesis
(4) Contain one chromonemata per chromosome (2) Cell organelle duplication
124. Activity of all of the given cell organelles can be seen (3) DNA replication
in a germinating fatty or oil containing seed, except (4) ATP synthesis
(1) Mitochondria (2) Glyoxysome 135. If a cell has 14 chromosomes and 2C DNA in G1
(3) Chloroplast (4) Both (1) and (3) phase. What will be the number of chromosomes
125. The phase in which cells are only metabolically ac- and DNA amount respectively, after G2 phase?
tive but do not proliferate, is (1) 14, 2C (2) 7, 4C
(1) G2 phase (2) Interkinesis (3) 14, 4C (4) 7, 2C
(3) G0 phase (4) G1 phase SECTION-B
126. Separation of chromatids are seen during 136. The small disc shaped structure present on surface
(1) Prophase (2) Anaphase of centromere through which spindle fibre attaches
(3) Telophase (4) Metaphase is called
127. Daughter cells produced after meiosis I are similar to (1) Kinetochore (2) Centrosome
daughter cells produced after meiosis II, in (3) Centriole (4) Chromatid
(1) Chromosome number 137. Splitting of centromere occurs in
(2) DNA content (1) Anaphase I (2) Metaphase I
(3) Genetic compliment (3) Anaphase II (4) Metaphase II
(4) Chromatid number per chromosome 138. Mark the following statements as true (T) or false
128. A tetrad is related with all, except (F) and select the correct option
(1) Seen is pachytene A. Morphology of chromosomes is best studied
during metaphase.
(2) A bivalent appear as tetrad
B. Nucleolus reappear during prophase whereas dis-
(3) Contains 4 sister chromatids
appear during telophase.
(4) Not seen in meiosis II
C. All organisms form gametes through meiosis as
129. Most cell organelles duplicate in G1 phase but dupli- gametes are always haploid.
cation of centriole and mitochondria is seen during A B C
(1) S phase (1) T T T
(2) G2 phase (2) T F F
(3) S and G2 phase respectively (3) F F T
(4) G2 and S phase respectively (4) T F T
130. Terminalisation of chiasmata is seen during 139. Syncytium
(1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis (1) Is a single cell containing single nucleus
(3) Zygotene (4) Pachytene (2) Occurs when karyokinesis is not followed by
131. In plant cells, cytokinesis cytokinesis
(1) Occur by furrow formation (3) Is single cell containing multiple nuclei
(2) Occur by a cell plate (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) Occurs before karyokinesis 140. Match the columns and select the correct option
(4) Both (1) and (3) Column I Column II
132. In all of the given phases, each chromosomes have (i) Bivalent formation (a) Pachytene
two chromatids, except (ii) Chiasmata formation (b) Zygotene
(1) Metaphase I (2) Anaphase I (iii) Recombinase activity (c) Diplotene
(3) Metaphase II (4) Anaphase II (i) (ii) (iii)
133. Mark the wrongly matched pair (1) (a) (c) (b)
(1) Interkinesis – DNA replication (2) (b) (c) (a)
(2) G1 – Post mitotic gap phase (3) (a) (b) (c)
(3) Interphase – Covers > 95% of total (4) (c) (b) (a)
duration of cell cycle

Page 10
NEET PREP Test Series-01
141. Synaptonemal complex forms during A stage (1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
whereas it dissolves during B stage. (3) Only (c) (4) Both (b) and (c)
Complete the above statement by choosing correct 146. Bacterial cell structure which have respiratory en-
option for A and B. zymes is
A B (1) Mesosome (2) Pili
(1) Pachytene Diakinesis (3) Chromatophore (4) Mitochondria
(2) Diplotene Zygotene 147. The extrachromosomal DNA found in a prokaryotic
(3) Pachytene Zygotene cell is its
(4) Zygotene Diplotene (1) Linear DNA (2) Genome
142. The chromosome in which centromere is situated (3) Plasmid (4) Polysome
close to one end is
148. Identify the wrongly matched pair
(1) Telocentric (2) Acrocentric
(1) Pili – Help in motility of bacterial
(3) Metacentric (4) Submetacentric
cell
143. The movement of duplicated centrioles occurs to-
wards opposite poles of the cell in (2) Polyribosome – mRNA + many ribosomes
(1) Anaphase (3) Gas vacuole – Found in blue green algae
(2) Prophase (4) Mycoplasma – Smallest cell
(3) G1 phase 149. Plasma membrane is composed of
(4) S-phase (a) Phospholipid bilayer.
144. How many of the given structures are non membrane (b) Protein bilayer.
bound and can be seen in a higher plant cell? (c) Carbohydrate embeded in protein bilayer.
Centriole, Mitochondria, Ribosome, (d Phospholipids, cholesterol and phosphoglycerides.
Peroxisome, Nucleolus, Lysosome, (1) (a) and (b)
Golgi complex (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d)
(1) 3 (2) 1
(4) (a) and (c)
(3) 2 (4) 4
145. The layer of bacterial cell envelope which contains 150. Which of the following is true for a secretory cell?
peptidoglycan, helps (1) Only SER is present
(a) Bacterium to hide from host’s immune system. (2) RER is easily observed
(b) Bacterium to maintain its shape. (3) Golgi is absent
(c) In adhesion of the bacterial cell. (4) Secretory granules are formed in the nucleus

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A 154. Find out the incorrect statement

151. What is the major function of cuboidal epithelial (1) Squamous epithelial tissue is found in the wall
tissue? of blood vessels
(1) Secretion and absorption (2) Cuboidal epithelium is present in testis and
(2) Protection ovary
(3) Diffusion
(3) Ciliated epithelium is not present in fallopian
(4) Both (1) and (3)
tube
152. W hich junctions in the plasma membrane of
adjacent cells prevent the flow of materials between (4) Columnar epithelium has basal nucleus
the cells ? 155. Find out the incorrect statement with respect to
(1) Tight junctions (2) Gap junctions cardiac muscle tissue
(3) Adhering junctions (4) Desmosomes (1) Found in myocardium of heart
153. Which of the following tissues is ecto-, meso- or (2) Intercalated disc absent
endodermal in origin and have good power of
(3) Communication junctions allow the cells to
regeneration?
(1) Muscular (2) Nervous contract as a unit
(3) Epithelial (4) Connective (4) When one cell receives a signal to contract, its
neighbours are also stimulated to contract

Page 11
 NEET PREP Test Series-01
A B C D
156. Mark the correct option about the type and
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
location of tissue shown below in the figure
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
161. Consider the following statements about Adipose
tissue
a. It is a fat-storing tissue
b. This tissue acts as a shock-absorber
(1) Areolar tissue below skin c. It acts as an insulator
(2) Dense regular connective tissue in ligament Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(3) Dense irregular connective tissue in skin (1) Only a (2) Both b and c
(4) Adipose tissue below skin (3) Both a and b (4) All are correct
157. Read the following statements : 162. Hyaline cartilage is found in
(i) Tight junctions help to stop substances from (1) Ribs
leaking across a tissue (2) Epiglottis
(ii) Goblet cells are multicellular endocrine glands (3) Pinna of ear
(iii) Simple epithelium is made of a single layer of (4) Eustachian tube
cells 163. Which of the following tissues is present on the
(iv) Compound epithelium occurs in stomach, inner surface of organs like bronchioles and fallopian
intestine and trachea tubes?
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Two (2) Three (1) (2)
(3) Four (4) One
158. Match the Column A with Column B and choose the
correct option (3) (4)
Column - A Column - B
(A) Hyaline cartilage i. Intervertebral disc 164. Smooth muscle fibres are present in all of the
and pubic following except
symphysis (1) Biceps of upper arm
(B) White fibrous cartilage ii. Tip of nose (2) Wall of urinary bladder
(C) Elastic cartilage iii. Costal cartilage (3) Wall of gastrointestinal tract
(in ribs) (4) Wall of blood vessels
(1) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i) 165. Haematopoietic tissue is
(2) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (i) (1) Areolar tissue (2) Adipose tissue
(3) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii) (3) Bone (4) Cartilage
(4) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii) 166. Select incorrect statement with respect to cartilage
159. Fill in the blanks (1) The matrix is solid, pliable and resists
compression
Bones have a ___(i)___ and ___(ii)___ ground
(2) Chondrocytes are enclosed in the lacunae
substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres
(3) Calcium salts may or may not be present in
(1) (i) - soft ; (ii) - pliable the matrix
(2) (i) - soft ; (ii) - non-pliable (4) Has blood supply that runs deep into matrix
(3) (i) - hard ; (ii) - pliable 167. Which of the following cells do not occur in the
(4) (i) - hard, (ii) - non-pliable matrix of areolar connective tissue?
160. Match the following and choose the correct option (1) Fibroblasts (2) Chondrocytes
Column - A Column - B (3) Macrophages (4) Plasma cells
(A) Adipose tissue i. Nasal septum
(B) Stratified epithelium ii. Blood
(C) Hyaline cartilage iii. Skin
(D) Fluid connective tissue iv. Sub-
cutaneous fat
Page 12
NEET PREP Test Series-01
168. Identify figures a, b and c and then choose the 172. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below
correct option represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of these is correctly identified along
with its correct location and function ?

(a) (b) (c)

a b c (A) (B)
(1) Pseudostratified Multicellular gland Transitional
epithelium epithelium
(2) M u l t i c e l l u l a r Unicellular gland Simple cuboidal
gland epithelium
(C)
(3) T r a n s i t i o n a l Goblet cells Compound (D)
epithelium epithelium

(4) U n i c e l l u l a r Multicellular gland Compound Tissue Location Function

gland epithelium Simple
169. Mark the correct statements with respect to (1) A colum nar Tubular part Secretion
connective tissue epithelium of nephron
(a) It includes dense regular connective tissue as Simple
tendon and ligament (2) B squamous Transport of
(b) Matrix of bone has calcium salts epithelium Fallopian tube gamete
(c) Areolar connective tissue does not have mast
Walls of blood
cells Simple
vessels and Diffusion
(d) Dense connective tissue has both collagen and (3) C cuboidal
alveoli of boundary
elastin fibres epithelium
lungs
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (c) Compound
(4) D Skin Protection
170. Nucleus is peripheral in epithelium
(1) Adipocyte cell (2) Mast cell
(3) Macrophage (4) Lymphocyte 173. Read the following statements (A-D)
171. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F) A - Squamous epithelium is found in the alveoli
I. Simple epithelium covers only the dry surface B - Cuboidal epithelium is found in the lining of ali-
of the skin mentary canal
C - Compound epithelium is found in pharynx
II. In dense regular connective tissue, the collagen D - The epithelium of Proximal Convoluted Tubule has
fibres have similar orientation microvilli
III. Most of the cartilages are replaced by bones in How many of the above statements are true?
adults among vertebrates (1) 1 (2) 2
IV. Compound epithelium has little role in secretion (3) 3 (4) 4
174. Which of the following is not correctly matched
and absorption
(1) Areolar tissue - Loose connective
tissue
I II III IV (2) Adipose tissue - Loose connective
(1) T F F F tissue
(2) T T F F (3) Cartilage - Specialised
connective tissue
(3) F T T T
(4) Blood - Dense connective
(4) F T T F tissue

Page 13
 NEET PREP Test Series-01
175. Mark the correct option with respect to the diagrams (1) 1-BC,2-D, 3-AE (2) 1-BD,2-C, 3-AE
below (3) 1-CD,2-A, 3-BE (4) 1-B,2-D, 3-ACE
181. Nissl granules are large and irregular masses of
(1) Ribosomes only
(2) RER only
(3) Both ribosomes and RER
(4) RER and SER
182. Nerve cells can be differentiated from other cells in
possessing
(1) Vacuoles
(2) Nucleus
(3) Dendrites and perikaryon
(1) Fig a is multinucleated and Fig c is
uninucleated (4) Flagella and Axon
(2) Fig a possesses intercalated discs 183. Tendon and ligament differs in
(3) Fig b is voluntary in action (1) Orientation of fibres (2) Origin
(4) Fig c is unbranched (3) Insertion (4) AII of these
176. Cell junctions like adhering, tight and gap junctions 184. Match the column A with column B and choose the
are mainly present between the neighbouring cells of correct option
(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Muscular tissue Column A Column B
(3) Connective tissue (4) Neural tissue
1. Basal lamina A. Carries blood
177. Choose the correct options vessels and nerves
Statement A: Shaft of long bones in mammals has in compact bone
longitudinal canals containing vessels and nerves,
2. Yellow fibres B. Found in
called haversian canal.
myocardium
Statement B: Single osteocytes are present in the
spaces called lacunae. 3. Haversian canal C. Outer thin layer of
basement
(1) Only statement A is correct
membrane
(2) Only statement B is correct
4. Intercalated discs D. Branced fibres
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are wrong (1) 1-C,2-D,3-A,4-B (2) 1-C,2-D,3-B,4-A
178. Which of the following is true for sarcomere? (3) 1-D,2-C,3-A,4-B (4) 1-D,2-C,3-B,4-A
(1) It is unit of contraction 185. Bronchioles and fallopian tubes are lined internally
(2) It is situated between two z-lines by
(3) Has half light band, one dark band and half light (1) Ciliated columnar epithelium
band (2) Non-ciliated columnar epithelium
(4) All are correct (3) Ciliated epithelium with Microvilli
179. Heparin, histamine and serotonin are released by (4) Non-ciliate epithelium with microvilli
(1) Mast cells only
(2) Basophils only SECTION-B
(3) Mast cells and Macrophages 186. Linings of ducts of salivary glands and pancreatic
(4) Mast cells and Basophils ducts are
180. Match column A with column B and choose the cor- (1) Simple squamous epithelium
rect option (2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
Column A Column B (3) Compound epithelium
1. Skeletal muscle A. Wall of heart (4) Simple columnar epithelium
2. Smooth muscle B. Voluntary
3. Cardiac Muscle C. Biceps
D. Wall of intestine
E. Intercalated disc

Page 14
NEET PREP Test Series-01
187. Section of areolar tissue is shown in the diagram. 193. Which of the following is incorrect about tissue?
Select the correct match (1) Tissue is a group of similar cells along with
D intercellular substances that perform similar
function
C (2) Epithelial tissue always develops from ectoderm
B
(3) In epithelial tissues, cells are compactly
packed with little intercellular matrix
(4) Bronchus bears cilia on free surface
194. W hich of the following tissues is/are present
A
(1) A-mast cells: Secretes collagen beneath skin ?
(2) B-Collagen fibres: These fibres occur in bundles (1) Adipose tissue
and are inelastic (2) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) C-Fibroblasts: Produce and secrete antibodies (3) Dense irregular connective tissue
(4) D-Macrophages: Produce histamine (4) Both (1) and (3)
188. Find out the odd one with respect to tendon 195. Match the type of simple epithelium in Column I
(1) It is a dense regular connective tissue with its appropriate location in Column II
(2) Tendon connects bone to bone
Column I Column II
(3) It is inelastic in nature
(4) Produced by fibroblast a. Cuboidal epithelium i Lining of stomach
189. Which one is incorrect with respect to cartilage? and intestine
(1) Solid and pliable matrix b. Columnar epithelium ii Blood capillaries
(2) Resists compression c. Squamous epithelium iii Germinal
(3) Chondrocytes absent in lacunae epithelium
(4) Elastic, harder than dense connective tissue
but softer than bone d. Ciliated columnar iv Fallopian tube
190. Choose the correct option epithelium epithelium
Statement A : All cells of connective tissue (1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
secrete fibres (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
Statement B : Fibres provide strength, elasticity (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
and flexibility to the tissue (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(1) Only statement A is correct 196. Ligaments are (A) in nature, connect
(2) Only statement B is correct (B) and are abundantly comprised of
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect (C) fibres
(4) Both statements A and B are correct
191. Inflammatory substance which is produced by mast 1. A – Inelastic B – Muscle to bone C – Collagen
cells during allergic reactions to cause vasodilatation, 2. A – Elastic B – Muscle to bone C – Elastin
is 3. A – Inelastic B – Bone to bone C – Collagen
(1) Heparin (2) Histamine 4. A – Elastic B – Bone to bone C – Elastin
(3) Serotonin (4) Lymphocytes
192. Read the following statements 197. Connective tissue consists of (A) cells
(A) When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an embedded in (B) intercellular matrix
electrical disturbance is generated which
swiftly travels along its plasma membrane (1) A – Living, B – Non-living
(B) Neuroglia are present in the brain (2) A – Non-living, B – Living
(C) Mast cells of connective tissue secrete heparin (3) A – Living, B – Living
and histamine (4) A – Non-living, B – Non-living
(D) Striated muscles are cylindrical, unbranched
and syncytial
How many of the above statements are correct ?
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 5 (4) 4

Page 15
 NEET PREP Test Series-01
198. Find the incorrect statement (2) (i)-Chondrocytes,(ii)-In groups,(iii)-Unidirectional
(1) Epithelial cells usually lie on the cellular (3) (i)-Osteoblast,(ii)-Singly,(iii)-Unidirectional
basement membrane
(4) (i)-Chondroblast,(ii)-In groups,(iii)-Bidirectional
(2) Microvilli are found in locations where absorption
200. Choose the correct option
and secretion are the major activities of the
cells Statement A: Erythrocytes of mammals are circu-
lar, biconcave, lack nuclei.
(3) Simple squamous epithelium decreases
diffusion barrier Statement B: Blood platelets are non-nucleated,
round or oval and capable of diapedesis.
(4) Columnar epithelium of intestine is brush
bordered (1) Only statement A is correct
199. Fill in the blanks (2) Only statement B is correct
In cartilage, (i) lie in lacunae (ii) and growth of carti- (3) Both statements A & B are correct
lage is (iii)
(4) Both statements A & B are incorrect
(1) (i)-Osteocytes,(ii)-Singly,(iii)-Bidirectional

  

Page 16