Navigation consolidated test-03

1. The LMT and date at a longitude of 001°0W is 1330 on 6th January, what is the LMT and date at
longitude 159E
a. 0006 7th JAN
b. 0046 7th Jan
c. 0010 7 Jan

2. The angle between the true great circle track and true rhumb line track joining the following
points A(60S 165W) and B(60S 177E), at the place of departure A is
a. 7.8°
b. 9°
c. 15.6°

3. The time it takes for the earth to complete one orbit around the sun is:
a. 360 days, 5 hours, 45 min and 48 seconds
b. 365 days, 45 hours, 48 min and 5 seconds
c. 365 days, 5 hours, 48 min and 45 seconds

4. What is the advantage of remote indicating compass over direct reading magnetic compass
a. It is lighter
b. It is connected to the electrical power so more accurate
c. It senses the earth’s magnetic field rather than it seeks, so it is more sensitive

5. In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of apparent Sun and mean
Sun across Greenwich meridian is greatest:
a. February and November
b. June and December
c. April and august

6. True North is:

a. The direction along any meridian towards the true north pole
b. Any direction out from the true north pole
c. The direction along the meridian, towards the north pole when in the northern hemisphere
and toward south pole when in the southern hemisphere
7. The North and south magnetic poles are the only position on the earth surface where:
a. Isogonal converge
b. A freely suspended compass needle will stand vertical
c. The value of magnetic variation equals 90°

8. A small circle:
a. Will always cross equator
b. Will also be a rhumb line
c. Has a plane that does not passes through the center of the earth

9. A magnetic compass will show an apparent turn to the North in the southern hemisphere when:
a. Aircraft decelerates on 270°C
b. Accelerates on 090° C
c. Accelerates on 0180° C

10. A landing compass:

a. Is used to establish aircraft magnetic heading during a compass swing
b. Is the compass used as reference during landing
c. Is a compass on which compass direction for landing may be set

11. A compass swing should be carried out with:

a. Radio equipment off
b. Engine running
c. Engine shut down

12. What is the definition of EAT

a. Estimated on block arrival time
b. Estimated initial approach fix time
c. Estimated overhead destination time

13. How long time does it take for the mean sun to move from meridian 14515E to 02345W
a. 11 hrs 16 min
b. 9 hrs 41 min
c. 8 hrs 06 min
14. EFIS MODE and wind/velocity
 A. Plan Mode 129/20
B. Map Mode 129/20
C. Plan mode 309/20

15. A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :

A. decision height equal to at least 100 ft.

B. decision height equal to at least 50 ft
C. decision height equal to at least 200 ft

16. An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where
the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E. The aircraft is on
VOR radial:
(A) 255°
(B) 278°
(C) 262°

17. A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360
will obtain a DME range of approximately:
(A) 6NM
(B) 7NM
(C) 5.9NM

18. In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can expect
to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325 ft above MSL ?
(A) 158 NM
(B) 134 NM
(C) 107 NM
19. The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
(A) envelope matching
(B) phase comparison
(C) bearing by loop theory

20. The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are:

(A) Space ,control, user,
(B) Space ,control, ground
(C) Space ,control, air

21. The orbital height of geostationary satellites is It is not for GPS

(A) 19330)km
(B) 35800km
(C) 10898nm

22. A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:

a) The clearway does not equal the stopway.
b) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.
c) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.

23. The second segment begins

a) when flap retraction begins.
b) when flaps are selected up.
c) when landing gear is fully retracted.

24. . The great circle distance between position A (59°34.1'N 008°08.4'E) and B
(30°25.9'N 171°51.6'W) is:
a) 5 400 NM
b) 10 800 km
c) 2 700 NM
25 . Some inertial reference and navigation systems are known as ""strapdown"". This
means that:
a) the gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the unit's fixture to the
aircraft structure
b) only the gyros, and not the accelerometers, become part of the unit's fixture to the
aircraftstructure
c) gyros and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform in the aircraft

25. . In order to maintain an accurate vertical using a pendulous system, an aircraft

inertial platform incorporates a device:
a) without damping and a period of 84.4 MIN
b) with damping and a period of 84.4 MIN
c) with damping and a period of 84.4 SEC
26. . Which of the following correctly lists the order of available selections of the ModeSelector
switches of an inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel?
a) OFF - ON - ALIGN - NAV
b) OFF - STBY - ALIGN – NAV
c) OFF - ALIGN - NAV – ATT

27. On a lambert chart, with standard parallels at 37N and 65N, with respect to a straight line drawn
on the map between A (49N 030W) and B(48N 040W), the:
a. GC to the north and rhumb line to the south
b. GC and rhumb line to the north
c. GC and rhumb line to the south

28. True track 090°, TAS 460 kts, W/V 360°/100, variation 10°E, deviation -2°, calculate compass
heading and ground speed.
a. 069 – 448 kts
b. 068 – 460 kts
c. 078 – 450 kts

29. TAS 472 kts, true heading 005°, W/V 110/50, calculate drift angle and ground speed.
a. 6L-487 kts
b. 7R-491 kts
c. 7L-491 kts

30. Distance A to B, 120 nm, at 30 nm aircraft 3nm to the left of the course. What alteration of
heading shall be made in order to arrive at point B
a. 8L
b. 6R
c. 8R

31. A is N55° and B is 54°10E, the average true course of the great circle is 100. The true course of
RL at point A is:
a. 104
b. 100
c. 107
32. On a lamberts chart, the distance between parallels of latitude spaced the same number of degrees
apart:
a. Is constant throughout the chart
b. Reduces between and expands outside the standard parallels
c. Expands between and expands outside the standard parallel

33. On a polar stereographic chart, showing South pole, a straight line joining A-70S065E and B-
70S025W. the true course on departure from position A is
a. 250
b. 315
c. 225

34. VS0 is shown on ASI by:

a. White arc
b. Yellow arc
c. Green arc

35. The Mach no is function of the :

a. Absolute temperature of the air
b. Humidity of the air
c. Relative air temperature

36. Erection systems are provided for:

a. Erecting and maintain a gyro in its horizontal position
b. Erecting and maintain a gyro in its vertical position
c. Aligning a gyro in vertical position

37. The operational limits of a typical air driven DGI

a. Are 85° in pitch and roll
b. Are overcome by use of twin jets
c. Are not restrictive to heading

38. In S/H during a landing, in westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:
a. An apparent turn to North
b. An apparent turn to south
c. No apparent turn
39. Apparent drift in a direction indicator is:
a. 15°/hr at equator and zero at poles
b. 7.5°/hr at 30N/S and zero at poles
c. 7.5°/hr at 30N/S and zero at equator

40. The advantages of ADC with respect to indicate the altitude:

1. Position pressure error correction
2. Hysteresis error correction
3. Remote data transmission capability
4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in event of a failure.
The combination of correct statement is:
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,3,4
c) 1,2,3

41. Pressure error consists of which of the following:

a. Configuration change, manoeuvre induced error, turbulence
b. Configuration change, profile induced, turbulence
c. Configuration change, profile induced, slipstream

42. Air driven gyros are prevented from spinning too fast by the:
a. Electronic speed regulator mdules
b. Vacuum relief valves
c. Pressure reducing valve

43. When descending through on isothermal layer at constant CAS, the TAS will:
a. Increase at linear rate
b. Decrease
c. Remain constant

44. In a standard atmosphere and at the sea leve, CAS is:

a. Same as TAS
b. Lower than TAS
 c. Higher than TAS

45. What does actually VSI measures;

a. The rate of altitude change
b. The rate of pressure change
c. The rate of temperature change

46. Which of the following statements are correct:

a. DIP decreases with increase in altitude
b. Dip is inversely proportional to H
c. Dip is inversely proportional to Z

47. What is the main cause of precession:

a. Variation
b. Earth’s rotation
c. Bearing friction

48. A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the call sign.
Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds, the:
a. DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once
b. DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broascasted several times
c. DME call sign not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct
position

49. In the MF frequency band:

a. Skywaves are more common by day than by night
b. Skywaves are more common by night than by day
c. Reception is restricted to line of sight

50. An aircraft heading 140M bears 320T from a VOR, variation 10E. the bearing selected on the
OBS which would make the VOR/ILS deviation indicator show TO would be:
a. 120
b. 130
c. 320
51. An aircraft heading 100M has ADF reading of 210R. the alteration of heading required to
intercept the 340 track inbound to NDB at 60° is
a. 170 right
b. 170 left
c. 180 right or left

52. An aircraft is on heading of 270M has 093 set on OBS and TO indicated on the VOR CDI.
The needle shows two dots fly left. The aircraft is on
a. 277 radial
b. 089 radial
c. 097 radial
d. 269 radial

53. The reason why pre take off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when
ILS CAT2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is:
a. To increase aircraft separation in reduced visibility conditions
b. Aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb the guidance signal
c. To increase aircraft distance from the runway during offset approach operations

54. In an amplitude modulated signal, the amplitude of the carrier wave will:
a. Vary according to amplitude of the modulating signal
b. Vary according to the phase of the modulating signal
c. Vary according to frequency of the modulating signal

55. An aircraft heading 200M has an ADF reading of 160R to intercept 150M track outbound from
NDB at 30°. The relative bearing of NDB that confirms track interception is:
a. 210
b. 220
c. 230

56. An aircraft on a heading of 280°M is on a bearing of 090°M from a VOR. The bearing you
should select on the OBS to centralize the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle to indication is:
a. 100°
b. 090°
c. 270°
57. The indicator of the ground VDF equipment responds to:
a. The carrier wave received
b. The voice modulated signal received
c. The identification transmitted from the aircraft

58. An aircraft is on VOR radial 235°, heading 003°M and OBS set to 060. The correct indications
are
a. TO, ½ scale deflection to left
b. FROM, ½ scale deflection to right
c. TO, ½ scale deflection to right

59. A RADAR set with a wavelength of 10cm lies within the following frequency bands:
a. HF
b. VHF
c. SHF

60. At 5.25 nm from the threshold an aircraft on ILS approach has display showing 4 dots LOW on 3
degree glidepath. Using an angle of 0.15 per dot of glideslope deviation, calculate the aircraft true
height from the touchdown
a. 1280 feet
b. 1325 feet
c. 1375 feet

61. The operating mass:

a. Is DOM plus fuel load
b. Is the higher of the structural mass and performance limited mass
c. Is lower of the structural mass and performance limited mass

62. DOM: 34930kg, PLLM:55000 kg, FUEL at ramp: Taxi fule:350kg. trip fuel:9730 kg.
contingency fuel and final reserve fuel: 1200 kg. Alternate fuel: 1600 kg. Passengers onboard
130, standard mass of each passenger – 84 kg, baggage per passenger 14 kg. traffic load
maximum possible. From above data, determine the maximum cargo that cam be carried without
exceeding the limiting aeroplane landing mass:
a. 4530 kg
b. 5400 kg
c. 6350 kg
63. DOM 34900, PLTOM 66300, PLLM 55200, MZFW 53070, fuel at ramp: taxi fuel 400 kg, trip
fuel 8600, contingency fuel 430 kg, alternate fuel 970, holding fuel 900, traffic load 16600 kg.
fuel costs at departure airfields are such that it is decided to load the maximum fuel quantity
possible. The total fuel which may be loaded prior departure is:
a. 13230 kg
b. 12700 kg
c. 15200 kg

64. PLTOM 93500, expected landing mass at destination 81700, maximum certified landing mass
86300. Fuel onboard 16500 kg.
During flight a diversion is made to an en route alternate which is not performance limited. Fuel
remaining at time of landing is 10300 kg. the landing mass is:
a. 87300 kg which is acceptable in this case because this is a diversion field and not a
normal schedule landing.
b. 83200 which is in excess of regulated landing mass and could result in overrun
c. 87300 and excess structural stress could occur

65. Navigation plan reads, trip fuel 136 kg, flight time 2h45m, calculated reserve fuel 30% of trip
fuel. Fuel in tank is minimum, no extra fuel is carried. Taxi fuel 3 kg. the endurance in ICAO
ATC flight plan should read:
a. 03h34m
b. 02h45m
c. 02h49m

66. For a radio equipped aircraft, the identifier in the ATS flight plan item 7 must always
a. Be the RTF call sign to be used
b. Include the aircraft registration
c. Include aircraft type

67. In the appropriate box of flight plan form, the letter is to be used to indicate that aircraft is
equipped with a mode A 4096 codes transponder with an altitude reporting capability is
a. S
b. C
c. A

68. The purpose of decision point procedure is:

 a. To increase the safety of flight
b. To reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore increase the traffic load
c. To increase the amount of extra fuel

69. A machmeter measures the ratio of:

a. Pitot pressure to static pressure
b. (pitot-static) to static
c. Pitot times static

70. Preventive RA includes:

a. Turn right
b. Monitor vertical speed
c. Climb now

71. Purpose of latitude nut in DGI is:

a. To correct for earth rate wander
b. To correct for transport wander
c. To correct for LAT error

72. The principal of TCAS is based upon;

a. FMS
b. ATC controller and RADAR system
c. Transponder in aircraft

73. AWR colour CRT, heaviest precipitation is shown as:

a. Green echoes
b. Yellow echoes
c. Red echoes

74. Why do we normally overlook the descend phase when calculating point of equal time:
a. Because we never know what kind of descent clearance we will get from ATC
b. Because the descent will have an equal effect, whatever destination we decide to
proceed
c. Because wind velocity during descend is not known in academic situation
75. From the departure point, the distance to point of equal time is:
a. Inversely proportional to the total distance to go
b. Inversely proportional to sum of ground speed out and ground speed back
c. proportional to sum of ground speed out and ground speed back

76. ETA to cross a meridian is 2100 UTC, GS is 441 kts, TAS 491 kts. AT 2010 ATC requests a
speed reduction to cross the meridian at 2105 UTC. The reduction in TAS is approximately is:
a. 60 kt
b. 75 kt
c. 40 kt

77. An aircraft is flying over a warm air mass at constant indicated altitude, the altimeter reading will
be:
a. Less than real altitude
b. Greater than real altitude
c. Correct

78. An aircraft is flying at an indicated altitude of 16000 ft. the outside air temperature is -30°C.
What is the true altitude?
a. 14200
b. 15200
c. 18600

79. At constant weight, regardless of altitude, an aircraft always lifts off at constant
a. EAS
b. CAS
c. TAS

80. In a turn at constant angle of bank, ---- the rate of turn is:
a. Independent of weight and proportional to TAS
b. Dependent on weight and inversely proportional to TAS
c. Independent of weight and inversely proportional to TAS

81. At sea level ISA, TAS:

a. Equals CAS
b. Greater than CAS
 c. Less than CAS

82. Pressure altitude may be defined as;

a. Pressure measured in the standard atmosphere
b. Altitude indicated with the QFE set
c. Altitude indicated with the QNH set

83. What effect on altimeter reading if variations in static pressure occur near to the pressure sourcr:
a. A change in hysteresis error
b. A change in instrument error
c. A change in position error

84. An aircraft turns right through 90° onto North, using a DRMC. The aircraft is turning at rate 2.
What heading aircraft should roll out on?
a. 010
b. 030
c. 330

85. You commenced a rate 2 turn from south east to south west, in the northern hemisphere. On what
heading you should stop the turn?
a. 205
b. 255
c. 235

86. Which EHSI mode cannot show AWR information?

a. FULL VOR/ILS, NAV and MAP
b. CTR MAP and PLAN
c. PLAN, FULL VOR/ILS

87. Which of the following is independent of external input?

a. INS/IRS
 b. DRMC
c. VOR/DME

88. To provide 3D fixing with RAIM and allowing for loss of one satellite requires----SVs
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6

89. With AWR set to 100 nm range, a large cloud appears at 40 nm. If the range is reduced to 50 nm
a. The image will decrease in area and remain where it is
b. The image will increase in area and move to the top of the screen
c. The image will increase in area and move to the bottom of the screen

90. Best RADAR for measuring very short ranges:

a. A continuous wave primary radar
b. A pulsed secondary radar
c. A continuous wave secondary RADAR

91. The errors of an ILS LOC beam are due to:

a. Emission side lobes
b. Ground reflections
c. Interference from other systems operating on the same frequency

92. What are the DME frequemcies?

a. 1030 and 1090 Mhz
b. 960 and 1215 Mhz
c. 960-1215 Mhz

93. Distance 2000 nm, track 090, W/V 090/30 for first 1000 nm and for remaining 330/18. TAS 4
eng 380 kts, TAS 3 Eng, 260 kts, FOB 2500kg, reserve 350 kg, F/C 4 eng – 360 kg/hr, F/C 3
Eng, 280 kg/hr. find DPNR and TPNR. Assume engine failure at PNR
a. 1100/3 hr
b. 975/2hr 25 min
c. 1097/ 3 hr
94. Distance to PNR is greatest :
a. If there is tailwind component
b. In still air conditions
c. In headwind conditions

95. The departure between position 60N 060E and 60N and X is 1800nm east. What is the longitude
of X
a. 145E
b. 120E
c. 120W

96. What is the highest latitude on earth at which sun can be vertically overhead?
a. 66.2
b. 23.2
c. 45.0

97. How many degrees has the mean sun moved along the celestial equator in 8hrs and 8 min?
a. 122 deg
b. 56 deg
c. 148 deg

98. The first Law of kepler’s states that?

a. Planets moves in an elliptical orbit with Sun at on of the Foci
b. Planets moves around the Sun in an circular orbit
c. The angular speed of the planets in the orbit around the Sun is constant

99. On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45N, a certain length represents 98 NM. At latitude
30N, the same length represents
a. 128 nm
b. 120 nm
c. 99 nm

100. Where do the isogonal lines converge

a. At N and S geographic poles
b. At N and S magnetic poles
c. At magnetic equator