22-11-2023

MM : 360 PC Test Series for Long Term NEET - 2024 Time : 1:40

PC Test - 12
Physics : Electric Charges & Field, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Current Electricity
(Introduction, Electric current, Electric currents in conductors. Ohm's law, Drift of electrons
and the origin of resistivity, Limitations of Ohm's law, Resistivity of various material,
Temperature dependence of resistivity, Electrical energy power, Combination of resistors,
series and parallel)
Chemistry : Solutions, Electrochemistry-01(Electrochemical cells, Galvanic cells: S.H.E and
measurement of electrode potential, Nernst equation, Equilibrium constant from Nernst
equation, Gibbs free energy and electrochemical cell and Gibb's energy of the reaction,
Conductance of electrolytic solutions, measurement of the conductivity of ionic solutions,
Variation of conductivity and molar conductivity with dilution in case of strong electrolyte and
weak electrolyte. Kohlrausch law), Electrochemistry-02(Electrolytic cells and electrolysis:
Faraday laws of electrolysis. Products of electrolysis, Batteries: Primary and secondary
batteries fuel cells. Corrosion) & Chemical Kinetics

Instructions:
(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Darken only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Darken the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
SECTION - A (2) F

1. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q 9F

(3)
and –Q respectively, are places at certain distance 16
apart and force acting between them is F. If 25% 16F
change of A is transferred to B, then force between (4)
9
the charges becomes
2. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are
4F separately by a distance d. If F is the force of
(1)
3 repulsion between the ions, the number of

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PC Test Series for Long Term NEET - 2024 PC-12

electrons missing from each ion will be (e being

the charge on an electron)

4 0Fd2
(1)
e2

40Fe2
(2)
d2 (1) q1 is positive but q2 is negative

40Fd2 (2) q1 is negative but q2 is positive

(3)
e2 (3) both are negative
(4) both are positive
4 0Fd2
(4) 7. An electric dipole is places at an angle of 300 with
q2
an electric field intensity 2  105 NC−1 . It
3. When air is replaces by a dielectric medium of
constant K, the maximum force of attraction experience a torque equal to 4 N m. The charge
between two charges separated by a distance on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm, is

(1) increase K times (1) 8 mC

(2) remains unchanged (2) 2 mC

(3) decrease K times (3) 5 mC

(4) increase K–1 times (4) 7C

4. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining 8. A dipole of dipole moment p is placed in uniform
two equal charge Q. The system of the three
electric field E , then torque acting on it is given by
changes will be in equilibrium if q is equal to
(1) – Q/4 (1)  = p. E

(2) Q/4 (2)  = p  E

(3) – Q/2
(3)  = p + E
(4) Q/2
5. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest (4)  = p − E
in a uniform electric field E and then released. The 9. A point charge +q is placed at the centre of a cube
kinetic energy attained by the particle after moving of side l. The electric flux emerging from the cube
a distance y is is
(1) qEy
6ql2
(1)
(2) qE2y 0
(3) qEy2
q
(4) q2Ey (2)
6l 0
2

6. The given figure electric lines of force due to two

(3) zero
charges q1 and q2. What are the sings of the two
charge? q
(4)
0

3R
10. The electric field at a distance from the centre
2
of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius

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R 14. A point Q lies on the perpendicular bisector of an

R is E. The electric field at a distance from the
2 electrical dipole of dipole moment p. If the distance
centre of the sphere is of Q from the dipole is r (much larger than the size
of the dipole), then the electric field at Q is
(1) zero
proportional to
(2) E
(1) p2 and r–3
E
(3) (2) p and r–2
2
(3) p–1 and r–2
E
(4) (4) p and r–3
3
15. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3,
11. Electric field at centre O of semicircle of radius a
the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout.
having linear charge density  given as
The magnitude of electric field in this region is
(1) zero
(2) 0.5 N/C
(3) 1 N/C
(4) 5 N/C

2 16. A bullet of mass 2 g is having a charge of 2C .

(1)
0a Through what potential difference must it be
accelerated, starting from rest, to acquire a speed
 of 10 m/s ?
(2)
0a
(1) 5 kV
 (2) 50 kV
(3)
20a
(3) 5 V
 (4) 50V
(4)
0 a
17. The electric potential at a point in free space due
12. A hollow insulated conduction sphere is given a to charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011 volts. The electric
positive charge of 10C . What will be the electric field at that point is
field at the centre of the sphere if its radius is 2 (1) 40Q  1020 volt / m
metres?
(2) 120Q  1022 volt / m
(1) 20Cm−2
(3) 40Q  1022 volt / m
(2) 5Cm−2

(3) zero (4) 120Q  1020 volt / m

18. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge

(4) 8mCm−2
Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the
13. Point charges +4q, –q and +4q are kept on the X– centre of the sphere respectively are
axis at point x=0, x=a and x=2a respectively. Then
Q
(1) only –q is in stable equilibrium (1) zero and
4 0R 2
(2) all the charges are in stable equilibrium
Q
(3) all of the charges are in unstable equilibrium (2) and zero
40R
(4) none of the charges is in equilibrium.

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Q Q (2) increases
(3) and
40R 40R2 (3) decreases

(4) both are zero (4) remains same

19. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed, 24. An electric dipole of dipole moment p is aligned
one at each corner of the square. The relation parallel to a uniform electric field E. The energy
between Q and q for which the potential at the required to rotate the dipole by 90° is
centre of the square is zero is (1) p2E
(1) Q = –q (2) pE
1 (3) infinity
(2) Q = −
q (4) pE2
(3) Q = q 25. A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric
1 field. The electric potential is
(4) Q =
q
20. A hollow metallic sphere of radius 10 cm is
charged such that potential of its surface is 80 V.
(1) maximum at C
The potential at the centre of the sphere would be
(2) same at all the three points A, B and C
(1) 80 V
(3) maximum at A
(2) 800 V
(4) maximum at B
(3) zero
26. The electrostatic force between the metal plates of
(4) 8 V
an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a
21. If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed as charge Q and area A, is
V(x, y, z) = 6xy – y + 2yz, the electric field (in N/C)
(1) independent of the distance between the
at point (1,1,0) is
plates
(1) −(2iˆ + 3ˆj + k)
ˆ
(2) linearly proportional to the distance between
(2) −(6iˆ + 9ˆj + k)
ˆ the plates
(3) proportional to the square root of the distance
(3) −(3iˆ + 5ˆj + 3k)
ˆ
between the plates

(4) −(6iˆ + 5ˆj + 2k)

ˆ (4) inversely proportional to the distance between
the plates.
22. Charge q2 is at the centre of a circular path with
27. A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity C,
radius r. Work done in carrying charge q1 , once
distance of separation between plates is d and
around this equipotential path, would be potential difference V is applied between the
1 qq plates. Force of attraction between the plates of
(1)  12 2
40 r the parallel plate air capacitor is

1 qq CV 2
(2)  1 2 (1)
40 r d

(3) zero C2 V 2
(2)
(4) infinite. 2d2
23. In bringing an electron towards another electron, C2 V 2
(3)
the electrostatic potential energy of the system 2d
(1) becomes zero
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PC Test Series for Long Term NEET - 2024 PC-12

CV 2 32. Energy per unit volume for a capacitor having area

(4) A and separation d kept at potential difference V
2d
is given by
28. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with
air as medium is 6F . With the introduction of a 1 V2
(1) 0
dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 2 d2
30F . The permittivity of the medium is 1 V2
(2)
(0 = 8.85  10−12 C2 N−1 m−2 ) 20 d2

1
(1) 0.44  10−13 C2 N−1 m−2 (3) CV 2
2
(2) 1.77  10−12 C2 N−1 m−2 Q2
(4)
(3) 0.44  10−10 C2 N−1 m−2
2C
33. A capacitor is charged with a battery and energy
(4) 5.00 C2 N−1 m−2 stored is U. After disconnecting battery another
29. Two parallel metal plates having charges +Q and capacitor of same capacity is connected in parallel
–Q face each other at a certain distance between to the first capacitor. Then energy stored in each
them. If the plates are now dipped in kerosene oil capacitor is
tank, the electric field between the plates will (1) U/2
(1) become zero (2) U/4
(2) increase (3) 4U
(3) decrease (4) 2U
(4) remain same 34. A flow of 107 electrons per second in a conducting
30. Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of wire constitutes a current of
breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
(1) 1.6  10−12 A
capacitance and breakdown voltage of the
combination will be (2) 1.6  1026 A

(1) 3C,
V (3) 1.6  10−26 A
3
(4) 1.6  1012 A
C
(2) ,3 V 35. The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is melted
3
and stretched to 'n' times its original length, its new
(3) 3C,3 V resistance will be
C V R
(4) , (1)
3 3 n
31. Three capacitors each of capacity 4F are to be (2) n2R
connected in such a way that the effective
R
capacitance is 6F . This can be done by (3)
n2
(1) connecting all of them in series
(4) nR
(2) connecting them in parallel
(3) connecting two in series and one in parallel
SECTION - B
(4) connecting two in parallel and one in series.

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36. A charged particle having drift velocity of (3) AB

7.5  10−4 m s−1 in an electric field of (4) BC
−10 −1 −1 −1
3  10 2
V m , has a mobility in m V s of 41. The charge flowing through a resistance R varies
with time t as Q = at–bt2, where a and b are
(1) 2.25  1015 positive constants. The total heat produced in R is
(2) 2.5  106 a3R
(1)
2b
(3) 2.5  10−6
a3R
(4) 2.25  10−15 (2)
b
37. The masses of the wires of copper is in the ratio of
1: 3: 5 and their lengths are in the ratio of 5: 3: 1. a3R
(3)
The ratio of their electrical resistance is 6b

(1) 1: 3: 5 a3R
(4)
(2) 5: 3: 1 3b
(3) 1: 25: 125 42. In the circuits shown below, the readings of the
voltmeters and the ammeters will be
(4) 125: 15: 1
38. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by
ten percent. Its new resistance and specific
resistance become respectively
(1) both remain the same
(2) 1.1 times, 1.1 times
(1) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2
(3) 1.2 times, 1.1 times
(2) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2
(4) 1.21 times, same
(3) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2
39. Resistances n, each, of r ohm, when connected in
parallel give an equivalent resistance of R ohm. If (4) V1 = V2 and i1= i2
these resistances were connected in series, the 43. Two bulbs are of (40W, 200V), and (100W, 200V).
combination would have a resistance in ohms, Then correct relation for their resistances is
equal to: (1) R40 < R100
2
(1) n R (2) R40 > R100
2
(2) R / n (3) R40 = R100
(3) R / n (4) no relation can be predicted.
(4) nR 44. In the circuit shown, the current through the 4
40. From the graph between current (I) and voltage resistor is 1 amp when the points P and M are
(V) is shown. Identify the portion corresponding to connected to a d.c. voltage source. The potential
negative resistance difference between the points M and N is

(1) CD (1) 0.5 volt

(2) DE (2) 3.2 volt
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(3) 1.5 volt also in the plane of the paper is limited only to the
(4) 1.0 volt lower half of the square surface (see figure). The
electric flux in SI units associated with the surface
45. A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5 R
is
and 3R respectively as shown in the figure. When
some potential difference is applied between X
and Y, the voltmeter readings are V A, VB and VC
respectively. Then

(1) EL2

(2) EL2 / 20

(1) VA = VB  VC (3) EL2 / 2

(2) VA  VB  VC (4) zero
49. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge
(3) VA = VB = VC
densities +C / m and −C / m are placed at a
(4) VA  VB = VC distance of 2R in free space. What is the electric
46. A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to field midway between the two line charges?
form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The 
(1) N/ C
resistance between its two diametrically opposite 20R
points, A and B as shown in the figure is
(2) zero
2
(3) N/ C
0R

(1) 3 
(4) N/ C
0R
(2) 6
50. Three charges, each +q, are placed at the corners
(3) 6
of an isosceles triangle ABC of sides BC and AC,
(4) 0.6 2a. D and E are the mid points of BC and CA. The
work done in taking a charge Q from D to E is
47. The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the
figure is 30 watts. The value of R is

3qQ
(1)
40a
(1) 20
3qQ
(2)
(2) 15 80a
(3) 10 qQ
(3)
(4) 30 40a
48. A square surface of side L metres is in the plane (4) zero
of the paper. A uniform electric field E (volt/m),

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CHEMISTRY
(1) 1.56 V
SECTION - A
(2) 0.036 V
51. The best conductor of electricity is
(3) –1.562 V
(1) 1M CH3COOH solution
(4) 0.799 V
(2) 1M H2SO4 solution
57. Which one among the following is the strongest
(3) 1M HCl solution
reducing agent
(4) 1M H3BO3 solution
Fe2+ + 2e− → Fe(−0.44 V)
52. The conductance of solution of an electrolyte is
equal to that of its specific conductance. The cell Ni2+ + 2e− → Ni(0.025 V)
constant of the conductivity cell is equal to
(1) Resistance Sn2+ + 2e− → Sn(−0.14 V)

(2) Faraday Fe3+ + e− → Fe2+ (+0.77 V)

(3) Zero
(1) Fe
(4) Unity
(2) Fe2+
53. The molar conductivity is maximum for the solution
(3) Ni
of concentration
(4) Sn
(1) 0.001 M
58. Which of the following is concentration cell
(2) 0.005 M
2+ 2+
(3) 0.002 M (a) Cu(s) / Cu(aq.1M) / /Cu(aq.1M) / Cu(s)

(4) 0.004 M 2+ 2+
(2) Cu(s) / Cu(aq. 0.5M) / /Cu(aq. 0.5M) / Cu(s)
54. Which of the following statement is true for the
2+ 2+
electrochemical Daniel cell (3) Zn(s) / Zn(aq0.5M) / /Cu(aq1M) / Cu(s)

)
(1) Electrons flow from copper electrode to zinc
electrode (4) Pt / H2 / HCl(aq.002M / /
(g1bar)

(2) Current flow from zinc electrode to copper HCl(aq. 0.005M) / H2 (g.1bar) / Pt
electrode
(3) Cations move towards copper electrode which 59. In electrolysis of aqueous copper sulphate, the
is cathode gas at anode and cathode is

(4) Cations move toward zinc electrode (1) O2 and Cu

55. What is the cell reaction occurring in Daniel cell (2) SO2 and H2
(Galvanic cell) (3) H2 and O2
(1) Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq) → CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) (4) SO3 and O2
60. In electrolysis of dilute H2SO4 using platinum
(2) Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq)
electrodes
(3) Ni(s) + ZnSO4(aq) → NiSO4(aq) + Zn(s) (1) H2 is evolved at cathode

(4) 2Na(s) + CdSO4(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + Cd(s) (2) NH3 is produced at anode

(3) Cl2 is obtained at cathode
56. The standard electrode potentials of Zn2+ / Zn and
(4) O2 is produced
Ag+ / Ag are –0.763 V and +0.799 V respectively.
The standard potential of the cell is
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61. Which of the following reaction is used to make a E = 1.51V

fuel cell MnO−
4 /Mn
2+

(1) Cd(s) + 2Ni(OH)3(s) → CdO(s) E = −0.74 V

Cr 3 + /Cr
+2Ni(OH) + H2O(l)
(1) Cl–
(2) Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2H2SO2(aq) → (2) Cr
2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l) (3) (3) Cr3+
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) (4) Mn2+
1
(4) 2Fe(s) + O2(g) + 4H+ (aq) → 66. For a reaction A → 2B , rate of disappearance of
2
2Fe2+ (aq) + 2H2O(l) 'A' is related to the rate of appearance of 'B' by the
expression
62. During charging of lead storage battery, the
d[A] 1 d[B]
reaction occurring at the cathode is (1) − =
dt 4 dt
(1) Pb2+ + 2e → Pb
d[A] d[B]
(2) − =
2+ dt dt
(2) Pb → Pb + 2e

(3) PbSO4 + 2H2O → PbO2 + (3) −

d[A]
=4
d[B]
dt dt
4H+ + SO24− + 2e−
d[A] 1 d[B]
(4) − =
2+
(4) Pb + SO24− → PbSO4 dt 2 dt
67. The rate of a chemical reaction
63. m
0
NH is equal to
4OH (1) Increases as the reaction proceeds

(1) m
0
NH4OH + m
0
NH4Cl − [HCl]
0 (2) Decreases as the reaction proceeds
(3) May increase or decrease during the reaction
(2) m
0
NH4Cl + m[NaOH] − [NaCl]
0 0
(4) Remains constant as the reaction proceeds
68. If doubling the concentration of a reactant 'A'
(3) m
0
NH4Cl + m[NaCl] − [NaOH]
0 0
increases the rate 4 times and tripling the
concentration of 'A' increases the rate 9 times, the
(4) m[NaOH]
0
+ m[NaCl]
0
− m
0
NH 4Cl rate is proportional to
64. The quantity of charge required to obtain one mole (1) Concentration of 'A'
of aluminium from Al2O3 is ______.
(2) Square of concentration of 'A'
(1) 1F
(3) Under root of the concentration of 'A'
(2) 6F
(4) Cube of concentration of 'A'
(3) 3F
1
(4) 2F 69. If we plot a graph between log K and by
T
65. Using the data given below find out the strongest Arrhenius equation, the slope is
reducing agent. Ea
(1) −
E 2− /Cr 3+ = 1.33 V R
Cr2O7
Ea
(2) +
E = 1.36 V R
Cl2 /Cl−

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Ea (1) 1
(3) −
2.303R (2) 2
Ea (3) 3
(4) +
2.303R (4) 0
70. For the reaction H2 ( g) + Br2 ( g) → 2HBr(g) , the 74. A first order reaction is half completed in 45
experimental data suggest, rate = K H2 Br2 
1/2 minutes. How long does it need 99.9 % of the
.
reaction to be completed
The molecularity and order of the reaction are
(1) 5 hours
respectively
(2) 7.5 hours
3
(1) 2, (3) 10 hours
2
3 3 (4) 20 hours
(2) ,
2 2 75. The half-life of a first order reaction having rate
constant K = 1.7 × 10–5 s–1 is
(3) 1,1
(1) 12.1 h
1
(4) 1, (2) 9.7 h
2
71. For the reaction A + B → C + 2D , experimental (3) 11.3 h
results were collected for three trials and the data (4) 1.8 h
obtained are given below 76. Which is correct about zero order reaction
Trial [A], M [B], M Initial Rate, Ms–1 (1) Rate of reaction depends on rate constant
(2) Rate of reaction is independent of
1 0.40 0.20 5.5×10–4
concentration
2 0.80 0.20 5.5×10–4 (3) Unit of rate constant is concentration–1
remove -
3 0.40 0.40 2.2×10–4 (4) Unit of rate constant is concentration–1 time–1
77. Which equation is correct for first order reaction

The correct rate law of the reaction is (1) t1/2  C−1

(1) Rate = k[A]0 [B]2 (2) t1/2  C

(2) Rate = k[A][B]2 (3) t1/2  C0

(3) Rate = k[A][B] (4) t1/2  C1/2

(4) Rate = k[A][B]0

72. When a reaction proceeds in a sequence of steps,

the overall order of reaction is determined by
(1) Slowest step
(2) Fastest step 78.
(3) Sum of rate of all steps Is a graph for
(4) Molecularity of all steps (1) Zero order reaction
Sunught (2) 1st order reaction
73. For the reaction H2 + Cl2 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ 2HCl taking
place on water, the order of reaction is (3) 1/2 order reaction

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(4) 2nd order reaction 85. Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M solution of NaCl and
79. The rate of reaction increases with temperature Na2SO4 will be
due to (1) Same
(1) Decrease in activation energy (2) Osmotic pressure of NaCl solution will be
(2) Increase in activation energy more than Na2SO4 solution

(3) Increase in collision frequency (3) Osmotic pressure of Na2SO4 solution will be
more than NaCl
(4) Increase in concentration
(4) Osmotic pressure of Na2SO4 will be less than
80. The minimum energy required for molecules to
that of NaCl solution
enter into the reaction is called
(1) Potential energy
SECTION - B
(2) Kinetic energy
86. Which has maximum osmotic pressure
(3) Nuclear energy Threshold energy
(1) 200 mL of 2 M NaCl solution
(4) Activation energy
(2) 200 mL of 1 M glucose solution
81. For 0.1 M solution, the colligative property will
follow the order (3) 200 mL of 2 M urea solution

(1) NaCl  Na2SO4  Na3PO4 (4) All have same osmotic pressure
87. If 0.5 g of solute (molar mass 100 g mol–1) in 25 g
(2) NaCl  Na2SO4  Na3PO4
of solvent elevates the boiling point by 1 K, the
(3) NaCl  Na2SO4 = Na3PO4 molar boiling point constant of the solvent is
(1) 2
(4) NaCl  Na2SO4 = Na3PO4
(2) 8
82. Which one of the following mixtures can be
separated into pure components by fractional (3) 5
distillation (4) 0.5
(1) Benzene - toluene 88. By dissolving 5g substance in 50g of water, the
(2) Water - ethyl alcohol decrease in freezing point is 1.2°C. The gram
molal depression is 1.85°C. The molecular weight
(3) Water - nitric acid
of substance is
(4) water - hydrochloric
(1) 105.4
83. Identify the mixture that shows positive deviation
(2) 118.2
from Raoult's law
(3) 137.2
(1) CHCl3 + ( CH3 )2 CO
(4) 154.2
(2) (CH3 )2 CO + C6H5NH2 89. For an ideal solution, the correct option is

(3) CHCl3 + C6H6 (1) mix G = 0 at constant T and P

(4) (CH3 )2 CO + CS2 (2) mix S = 0 at constant T and P

84. Which one of the following is non-ideal solution (3) mix V  0 at constant T and P

(1) Benzene + toluene (4) mix H = 0 at constant T and P

(2) n-hexane + n-heptane 90. The mixture that forms maximum boiling
(3) Ethyl bromide + ethyl iodide azeotrope is
(4) CCl4 + CHCl3 (1) Heptane + octane

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PC Test Series for Long Term NEET - 2024 PC-12

(2) Water + nitric acid (4) greater than one and greater than one
(3) Ethanol + water 96. A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is 30
(4) Acetone + carbon disulphide % ionized. If Kf for water is 1.86°C / m, the freezing
point of the solution will be
91. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the
value of modal depression constant (Kf) will be (1) – 0.18°C

(1) Halved (2) – 0.51°C

(2) Tripled (3) – 0.36°C

(3) Unchanged (4) – 0.24°C

(4) Doubled 97. An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Which

change will cause the vapour pressure of the
92. The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous
solution to increase?
solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide
is (1) Addition of NaCl

(1) 0 (2) Addition of Na2SO4

(2) 1 (3) Addition of 1.00 molal KI

(3) 2 (4) Addition of water

(4) 3 98. During osmosis, flow of water through a

semipermeable membrane is
93. Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal
solution? (1) From solution having lower concentration
(2) From solution having higher concentration
(1) Hmix = 0
only
(2) Umix = 0 (3) From both sides of semipermeable membrane
(3) P = Pobs − Pcalculated by Raoult slaw = 0 with equal flow rates
(4) From both sides of semipermeable membrane
(4) Gmix = 0 with unequal flow rates
94. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which 99. A solution of acetone in ethanol
one will exhibit the largest freezing point
(1) Obeys Raoult's law
depression?
(2) Shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law
(1) KCl
(3) Shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law
(2) C6H12O6
(4) Behaves like a near ideal solution
(3) Al2(SO4)3
100. 2.5 litre of 1 M NaOH solution is mixed with
(4) K2SO4
another 3 litre of 0.5 M NaOH solution. Then find
95. The van't Hoff factor i for a compound which out molarity of resultant solution
undergoes dissociation in one solvent and
(1) 0.80M
association in other solvent is respectively
(2) 1.0 M
(1) Less than one and greater than one
(3) 0.73 M
(2) Less than one and less than one
(4) 0.50 M
(3) Greater than one and less than one

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