Aakash Advance AIATS Paper
Aakash Advance AIATS Paper
Aakash Advance AIATS Paper
C
Test
Booklet
Code
JEE (Advanced)-2024
TEST No. 1A (Paper-1)
(XII Studying Students)
1. Read each question carefully. (iii) Section-2: This section contains 5 multiple choice questions
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ball point pen to darken the which have one or more correct answer(s). Each question
appropriate circle in the answer sheet. carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for wrong
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
answer.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
(iv) Section-3: This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer
each paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions have to be
sheet.
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other answered. Each question has only one correct answer and
carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for wrong
material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure answer.
(v) Section-4: This section contains 2 questions. Each question
that the test paper contains all pages and no page is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, has two Columns. Column-I has four entries (A), (B), (C) and
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and Date of (D), Column-II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Each
entry in Column-I may match with one or more entries in
Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Column-II. Each entry in Column-I carries +2 marks for
answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator. correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
10. Pattern of the questions are as under: (vi) Section-5: This section contains 3 questions. The answer to
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, each of the questions is a double digit integer, ranging from
Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 5 sections. 00 to 99 (both inclusive). If the correct answer to question
(ii) Section-1: This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then
which have only one correct answer. Each question carries mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively. Each question
+4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for wrong carries +4 marks for correct answer and no negative mark
answer. for wrong answer.
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
1. A charged system (with uniform linear charge density ) is a 3-dimensional long wire as shown. One straight
section is in xy plane and two sections (semi-circular and straight) together lie in yz plane. The electric field
at origin is:
(A) −iˆ − 2kˆ (B) −iˆ − 2kˆ
20 R 40 R
(C) −iˆ − ˆj − 2kˆ (D) −iˆ + jˆ − 2kˆ
40 R 40 R
2. If electric field inside a charged non-conducting sphere (radius R) at a distance r (<R) from centre is
E = cr 2 rˆ, then find the volume-charge density at r (< R).
(A) 4c 0 r (B) 4c 0 r 2
(C) 2c 0 r (D) 2c 0 r 2
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024 Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C)
3. A hollow cone (with open base and radius R) is kept in a uniform electric field E as shown below:
The height of the cone is 3R. The magnitude of flux through the cone is:
(A) Zero
(B) ER 2
ER 2
(C)
4
ER 2
(D)
2
4. A ring of radius R has a non-uniformly distributed charge. Find the potential at the centre. It is given that C is
the centre of the ring and linear charge density at A is = 0|sin|.
20 20
(A) (B)
0 0
0 0
(C) (D)
0 20
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Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024
5. A dielectric slab is taken out from the plates of one of the two identical capacitors, joined in series across a
constant voltage supply. Then the quantity which increases is
+
–
6. A current i flows uniformly in a long straight conductor whose cross section is a semi-ring of radius R. The
magnetic field at centre C is
20 i
(A)
R
0 i
(B)
R
0 i
(C)
2 R
20 i
(D)
2 R
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024 Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C)
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
7. Consider the following circuit in steady state. Charge on the capacitor is 6 C.
Then
(A) Emf of battery is 18 V (B) Emf of battery is 21 V
(C) Current in branch JK is 2 A (D) Current in branch ON is 2 A
8. A semi-ring (mass M, radius R) carries charge Q uniformly distributed. It is rotating about its diameter at
constant angular velocity .
Then:
0Q
(A) Magnetic field at the centre is
8R
0Q
(B) Magnetic field at the centre is
16R
QR 2
(C) Magnetic moment of the system is
4
QR 2
(D) Magnetic moment of the system is
8
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Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024
9. Six identical conducting rods each of resistance R are connected to form a regular triangular pyramid as
shown. A battery is connected across A and C.
Then:
(A) VA – VD = VB – VC (B) VB – VD = VD – VC
V0
(C) VA – VC = VB – VD (D) VD – VC =
3
10. An infinitely large plate carries current i0 per unit width of plate, distributed uniformly over its width as shown.
Considering the magnetic field point P (0, 0, a), choose the correct statement(s).
(A) It points along negative z direction (B) It points along negative y direction
0 i 0 0 i 0
(C) It has magnitude of (D) It has magnitude of
3 2
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024 Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C)
11. A cylindrical conductor of radius R carries a current along its length. The current density J varies according
r
to the distance r from axis as: J = J0 1 − , where J0 is a constant. Then
2R
(A) Maximum magnetic field is at r = R
(B) Maximum magnetic field is at r = 2R/3
0 J0 R
(C) Maximum magnetic field is
6
0 J0 R
(D) Maximum magnetic field is
3
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to two
paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer
among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
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Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024
R
14. For the region 0 – , volume-charge density is:
2
3 0 E0 3 0 E0
(A) 2
(B)
r r
20 E0 20 E0
(C) 2
(D)
r r
R
15. For the region – R, volume-charge density is:
2
20 E0 r 6 0 E0
(A) 2
(B)
R R
3 0 E0 6 0 E0
(C) (D) r
R R2
SECTION - 4
Matching Column Type
This section contains two questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column I with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column II.
The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below:
For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column I
matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B), (C)
and (D).
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024 Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C)
16. A charged particle (mass m, charge q) is released/projected from origin in a region that has uniform electric
and/or magnetic fields as given in Column-I. Choose the corresponding trajectories from Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
E =0
B = B0 ˆj
E = E0 iˆ
B = B0 iˆ
E = E0 kˆ
B = B0 kˆ
E =0
B = B0 (iˆ + kˆ )
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Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024
17. Four infinite straight wires 1, 2, 3 & 4 carry current 2i0, i0, i0 & 2i0 respectively. Wires are parallel to the z-axis.
Direction of currents is mentioned in Column-I while Column-II describes about magnetic field at point P.
Match Column I with Column II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) All currents are pointing outwards (P) 0 i 0
10a
(B) Currents in wires 1 & 2 are outwards while (Q) Along +x
in wires 3 & 4 are inwards
(C) Currents in wire 1 & 4 are inwards while in (R) 90 i0
2 & 3 are outwards 10a
(D) All currents are inwards (S) 130 i 0
10a
(T) Along –x
SECTION - 5
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a double-digit integer, ranging from
00 to 99. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark
76, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024 Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C)
18. Two large non-conducting sheets having surface charge densities + and – are fixed d distance apart. A
small test charge q having mass m is attached to two non-conducting springs with spring constant k and 2k.
The charge q is released from rest with both springs undeformed. Neglecting gravity, the amplitude of small
q
oscillations of the charge is . Find ‘a’.
a0 k
x
19. The equivalent resistance between A and B is . Find x.
5
20. An infinitely long wire of radius R carries a current i0. A point mass (with charge q and mass m) is projected
from the surface of wire with velocity v0 perpendicular to the surface of wire. The maximum distance of the
x mv 0
particle from the axis of the wire is Re. Where = , then x is
0 i 0 q
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Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024
PART – II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
21. For the given electrochemical cell
Pt | Q, QH2, H+(0.02 M) || CI–(0.005 M)|Hg2CI2(s)| Hg(I) at 25ºC
[Q = Quinone; QH2 = Hydroquinone]
E(Q | QH2 ) = 0.7 V ; E(Cl– | Hg2CI2 | Hg) = 0.3 V . Identify the correct value of emf of the cell.
Given, [Q] = [QH2]
(A) + 0.164 V (B) – 0.164 V
(C) + 0.072 V (D) – 0.072 V
22. The mean lives of a radioactive substance (A) are 1620 yr and 405 yr for -emission and -emission,
respectively. Find out the time (in yr) during which 87.5% of the sample will decay both by - and -emission
simultaneously. [Use In 2 = 0.693]
(A) 673.8 yr (B) 449.1 yr
(C) 336.8 yr (D) 561.3 yr
23. The optical rotation of cane sugar in an aqueous solution containing small amount of H + ions as catalyst is
given at different time. Find out the rate constant for the inversion of cane sugar into glucose and fructose
which follows first order kinetics.
Time (min) 0 25 100
Angle of optical rotation (degree) +34.50 +25.50 +07.50 –10.50
(A) 3.23 × 10–3 min–1 (B) 6.46 × 10–3 min–1
–3
(C) 9.212 × 10 min –1 (D) 1.112 × 10–2 min–1
24. Oxidising power of perhalate ions follows the order
(A) BrO−4 IO−4 CIO−4 (B) IO−4 BrO−4 CIO−4
(C) IO−4 CIO−4 BrO−4 (D) CIO−4 BrO−4 IO−4
25. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Physical adsorption is multilayer, non-directional and non-specific
(B) Chemical adsorption first increases and then decreases with increase in temperature
x
(C) If (x/m) is the extent of adsorption and P is the pressure of adsorbate gas then plot of log vs
m
(log P) is linear with negative slope
(D) Adsorption of NH3, CO2, N2 and H2 on the surface of activated charcoal under identical conditions follow
the order NH3 CO2 N2 H2
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024 Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C)
26. Mixture of 1 mole of A (PAº = 320 torr) and 3 mole of B (PBº = 212 torr) is obtained at 27ºC. Total vapour
pressure of the solution is found to be 229 torr. Then the solution shows
(A) Positive deviation
(B) Negative deviation
(C) Ideal behaviour
(D) Initially positive deviation and then negative deviation
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
29. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about sodium thiosulphate?
(A) It can be synthesised when a mixture of Na 2S and Na2SO3 is treated with calculated amount of iodine
(B) Anhydrous sodium thiosulphate is called hypo
(C) With AgNO3, it gives white ppt. which gradually turns black
(D) When FeCI3 is added to excess of Na2S2O3, violet colour appears initially and then disappears
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Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024
30. During electrolysis of aq. CuSO4 using inert electrodes, oxygen releases at anode and released O 2 is used to
carry out combustion of 16 gm of CH4(g). Select the correct statement(s).
(A) Total charge passed during electrolysis is 8 F (B) Number of moles of copper deposited is 2
(C) Number of moles of copper deposited is 4 (D) Total charge passed during electrolysis is 4 F
31. Consider the following electrochemical cell
Pt | CI2(P1 atm) | CI–(C1 M) || CI–(C2 M) | CI2(P2 atm) | Pt
Identify the working conditions for the cell to be spontaneous at a specified temperature.
(A) C1 < C2 and P1 = P2 (B) P2 > P1 and C1 = C2
(C) P2 < P1 and C1 = C2 (D) C1 > C2 and P1 = P2
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate to two
paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer
among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024 Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C)
35. What will be the radius of largest coin, that can be placed on the vacant surface in arrangement B without
disturbing other coins?
(A) 0.774 mm (B) 1.61 mm
(C) 2.415 mm (D) 3.62 mm
SECTION - 4
Matching Column Type
This section contains two questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column I with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column II.
The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below:
For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column I
matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B), (C)
and (D).
36. Match the reactions given in column-I with the characteristics of the products, formed in these reactions,
given in column-II
Column-I Column-II
(A) NO2 + H2O ⎯⎯→ (P) One of the products can act as a reducing
agent
(B) PCI3 + H2O ⎯⎯→ (Q) One of the product has +6 oxidation state of
central atom
(C) HNO3 + P4O10 ⎯⎯→ (R) Disproportionation reaction
(D) H3PO3 ⎯⎯→ (S) Oxidation state of central atom is +5 in one of
the products
(T) Oxidation state of central atom is +3 in one of
the products
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Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024
37. Match some of the colloids given in column-I with their characteristics given in column-II
Column-I Column-II
(A) Gelatine (P) Positive colloid
(B) Stannic oxide (Q) Negative colloid
(C) Silver sol (R) Hydrophilic colloid
(D) Gum (S) Hydrophobic colloid
(T) Protective colloid
SECTION - 5
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a double-digit integer, ranging from
00 to 99. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark
76, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
38. The rate constant for the decomposition of N2O5 as shown below
1
N2O5 ⎯⎯
→ N2O4 + O2
2
are 3.50 × 10–5 min–1 and 5.60 × 10–3 min–1 at 27ºC and 67ºC respectively. Find the energy of activation in
kcal mol–1 [Use R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1] (Round off to the nearest integer)
39. Dry air was successively passed through a solution of 5.0 gm solute in 80.0 gm water and then through pure
water. The loss in weight of solution was 2.50 gm and that of pure water was 0.04 gm. What is the molecular
weight of solute in gm mol–1? (Nearest integer)
40. A saturated solution of AgBr is taken. If 10–7 mol of AgNO3 is added to 1 L of this solution, find conductivity of
this solution in terms of 10–7 S m–1. Given m (Ag+) = 6 × 10–3 S m2 mol–1, m (Br–) = 8 × 10–3 S m2
mol–1, m (NO3− ) = 7 10 −3 S m2 mol−1 . (Ksp of AgBr = 12 × 10–14)
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024 Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C)
1 1 1
aa(a + d ) (a + d )(a + 2d )
1 1 1
41. If a > 0, d > 0, then the value of is equal to
a+d (a + d )(a + 2d ) (a + 2d )(a + 3d )
1 1 1
a + 2d (a + 2d )(a + 3d ) (a + 3d )(a + 4d )
4d 4 2d 4
(A) (B)
a(a + d )2 (a + 2d )3 (a + 3d )2 (a + 4d ) a(a + d )(a + 2d )(a + 3d )(a + 4d )
4d 4 2d 4
(C) (D)
a(a + d ) (a + 2d )(a + 3d ) (a + 4d )
2 2
a(a + d )(a + 2d )2 (a + 3d )(a + 4d )
2 1
(A) (B)
5 5
2 1
(C) (D)
3 3
1 2 cos sin
43. If A = , P= T 2014 T
, Q = P AP, then PQ P equals
0 1 − sin cos
1 22014 1 4028
(A) (B) 0 1
0 1
1 2 cos sin
(D)
(C)
0 1 – sin cos
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Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024
1 1 2
44. If tan−1 + tan−1 = tan−1 2 and x 0, then x equals
2x + 1 4x + 1 x
−2
(A) 3 (B)
3
2
(C) –3 (D)
3
45. Let [x] and {x} denote the integral part and the fractional part of x, respectively. Then the number of solutions
of the equation 4{x} = x + [x] is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) Infinitely many
46. Let n be a positive integer, Z is set of integers and R = {(a, b ) Z Z | a − b = nm for some m Z, m 0}.
Then R is
(A) Reflexive on Z (B) Symmetric
(C) Transitive (D) Equivalence relation on Z
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
3 – 3 4
47. If A = 2 – 3 4 , then
0 – 1 1
3 x+y
(C) tan−1(3) + tan−1(4) = (D) tan−1 x + tan−1 y = tan−1 if xy > 1
4 1 − xy
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024 Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C)
1
(C) cosec −1 (D) − sin−1 x
1− x2 2
51. Let f(x) and g(x) are functions such that f ( x ) = sin x + sin−1 x and g ( x ) = cos x + cos−1 x. Then,
C1 : sin−1(ax ) + cos−1(bxy ) − =0
2
Answer the following questions.
52. If a = 1 and b = 1, then the area bounded by the curve C1 and y = x, is (in sq. units)
1 1
(A) (B)
4 2
(C) 1 (D) 2
53. If a = 1, b = 1, then the number of intersection points of the curve C1 and |y| = ||x|–1| is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
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Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024
x − 1
f (x) + f =x
x
1 1 x − 1 1 1 x − 1
(C) x− − (D) x+ +
2 1− x x 2 1− x x
SECTION - 4
Matching Column Type
This section contains two questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column I with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column II.
The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below:
For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column I
matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B), (C)
and (D).
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024 Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C)
Column-I Column-II
(A) If A is an idempotent matrix and l is an (P) 9
identity matrix of the same order, then the
value of n, such that (A + I)n = I + 127A
is/are
(B) If (I – A)–1 = I + A + A2 + ….A7, then An = (Q) 10
O then possible value(s) of n is/are
(C) If A is matrix such that aij = (i + j) (i – j), (R) 7
then A is singular if order of matrix is/are
(D) If a non-singular matrix A is symmetric, (S) 8
such that A–1 is also symmetric, then order
of A can be
(T) 6
57. Match the items of Column I with those of Column II.
Column I Column II
12 5
(B) sin−1 + tan−1 = (Q)
13 12 2
x − 1 x + 1
(C) sin−1 + sec −1 = (R)
x + 1 x − 1 6
3x + 2 −1 2 x + 3
(D) cos−1 + cosec 3 x + 2 = (S)
2 x + 3
(T)
3
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Test -1A (Paper-1) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2024
SECTION - 5
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a double-digit integer, ranging from
00 to 99. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark
76, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
58. The set of natural numbers is divided into array of rows and columns in the form of matrices as
6 7 8
2 3
A1 = [1], A2 = , A3 = 9 10 11 and so on. Let the trace of A10 be . Then the unit digit of is equal to
4 5 12 13 14
1 2x −1
59. If x > 1, then the value of − sin tan−1 − tan x is _______
2 1− x
2
60. Let f : → be a function such that f ( x + y ) = f ( x ) + f ( y ) for all x, y and f(1) = 1. Then the number of
integers n such that |f(n)| = 2 is _______.
❑ ❑ ❑
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