PHILIPPINE SOCIETY OF AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERS

REGION IV
AE BOARD REVIEW CLASS 2010

BOARD OF AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING

AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING Pre-board Examination

Monday July 26, 2010
8-12 noon

RURAL ELECTRIFICATION, FARM PROCESSING, FARM STRUCTURES, WASTE

MANAGEMENT AND ALLIED SUBJECTS

1. The total resistance of four resistors (R1, R2, R3 and R4) in parallel is given by the following equation
a.(R1R2R3R4)/(R1 + R2 + R3 + R4)
b.(R1R2 + R2R3 + R3R4 + R4R1) / R1R2R3R4
c. (R1R2R3 + R2R3R4 + R1R3R4 + R1R2R4)/ R1R2R3R4
d.R1R2R3R4 /(R1R2R3 + R2R3R4 + R1R3R4 + R1R2R4)

2. When measuring an unknown voltage, always start with

a.the highest range of the meter
b.the lowest range of the meter
c. the mid-range of the meter
d.none of the above

3. An inductor and a resistor are connected in series to a 120 V, 50Hz source. The inductive reactance
and resistance was found to be 2.4 ohms and 5 ohms, respectively. The total impedance is
a. 2.2 ohms b. 5.5 ohms c. 7.4 ohms d. 62.0 ohms e. 754.0 ohms

Consider the figure below in answering numbers 12 to 15

R1 =1 Ω R2 =1 Ω

10V R3 =1 Ω 10V

4. What is the current in resistor R3?

a. 3.33 A b. 6.66 A c. 10.00 A d. 13.33 A e. 30.00 A

5. What is the current in resistor R2?

a. 3.33 A b. 6.66 A c. 10.00 A d. 13.33 A e. 30.00 A
6. What is the current in resistor R1?
a. 3.33 A b. 6.66 A c. 10.00 A d. 13.33 A e. 30.00 A

7. A wattmeter is usually a combination of the following instruments:

a. ammeter and ohmmeter
b. ohmmeter and voltmeter
c. ammeter and voltmeter
d. voltmeter and transformer
e. none of the above

8. Which of the following statements is not true about power factor?

a. it is the cosine of the phase shift
b. the ratio of the resistance to the impedance
c. the ratio of the real power to the apparent power
d. none of the above

For numbers 17 - 20:

Three inductors are connected in parallel to a 230V 60 Hz supply. If L 1 = L2 = L3 = 300 H,

9. What is the total inductance?

a. 100 H b. 900 H c. 37, 699 H d. 339, 292 H e. none of the above

10. What is the total inductive reactance (Ω)?

a. 100 b. 900 c. 37,699 d. 339, 292 e. none of the above

11. What is the total reactive power?

a. 0.2 VA b. 1.4 VA c. 58.8 VA d. 529.0 VA e. 0.4 VA

12. What is the total real power (W)?

a. 0 b. 1,380 c. 1.36 d. 4.2 e. 2.2

Consider the circuit below for numbers 13-15

IT = __ A

120V 20 μF 20 μF

50 Hz 30μF 30 μF

120 V

13. What is the total capacitance?

 a. 8.6 μF b. 45 μF c. 55 μF d. 58μF e. none of the above

14. What is the value of IT?

a. 13.95MA b. 324mA c. 2.2A d. 0.32 A e. 1.1A

15. What is the value of true power in watts?

a. 0 b. 1.7 c. 38.8 d. 252 e. 40
Consider the circuit below for numbers 16 – 17

60 Hz 15 H

230V 230 V
2 kΩ
2.5 kΩ

16. What is the total impedance of the circuit?

a. 1.12 kΩ b. 1.71 kΩ c. 4.54 kΩ d. 320.89 kΩ e. none of the above

17. What is the total current flowing through the circuit?

a. 1 mA b. 51 mA c. 134 mA d. 205 mA e. none of the above

18. The phase shift angle of the electrical circuit is

a. 21º lagging b. 15º lagging c. 15º leading d. 21º leading e. none of the above

19. Which of the following is the best known conductor?

a. copper b. aluminum c. gold d. silver e.bronze

20. A 120 V generator delivers 30 kilowatts to an electric furnace. The current supplied by the
generator is about
a. 4 mA b. 100 A c. 250 mA d. 250 A e.none of the above

21. What must be the value of the resistances for a 240 V, three-level heater if the desired output
wattages are 500 W, 1000 W and 1500 W?

SA SB

240 V

60Hz
RA RB
 a. 38.4 Ω and 57.6 Ω c. 57.6 Ω and 115.2Ω e. none of the above
b. 38.4 Ω and 115.2Ω d. 76.8Ω and 76.8Ω

22. When building a voltmeter, a resistance is placed in series with the movement coil. If the movement
coil of a DC voltmeter has a resistance of 500 ohms and gives a full scale reading with a current of 1mA
in the coil, what size resistor is needed in order to have the meter read full scale when measuring 10 V?
a. 5 kΩ b. 9.5kΩ c. 10 kΩ d. 100.5 kΩ e. none of the above

23. Which of the following statement is/are true?

a.One lumen is the quantity of light needed to illuminate one square foot of area at an intensity of
one lux
b. The intensity at a point is measured in lumens for SI system and footcandle for English system
c. The illumination at a point is directly proportional to the light towards the point but inversely
proportional to the square of the distance to the point
d. all of the above
24. Which of the following do not belong to recoverable light loss factors?
a.Lamp Lumen Depreciation Factor
b. Lamp Burnout Factor
c. Room Surface Depreciation Factor
d. Ballast Factor
e. all of the above

25. It is a recoverable factor that is controlled by lamp replacement program and is due to decreasing
light output over a period of time
a. Lamp Lumen Depreciation Factor
b. Lamp Burnout Factor
c. Room Surface Depreciation Factor
d. Ballast Factor
e. none of the above

26. The specific gas constant of air, in kJ/kg.K, is

a. 0.06877 b. 0.11023 c. 0.28704 d. 0.46151 e. 8.31451

27. Consider a piston-cylinder system containing a compressible fluid. Let the piston be moved at
constant speed a distance of ds into the fluid-filled region, the force required is F=PA. The work of
compressing an ideal gas isothermally is

a.

b.

c.

d.
 e.

28. The simultaneous production of power and heat in a single power plant is
a. Carnot heat recovery d. regeneration
b. Cogeneration e. waste heat recovery
c. Otto engine optimization

29. What is the thermal efficiency of an Otto cycle if the heat transferred to air during the heat addition
process is 800 kJ/kg and the heat rejected is 350 kJ/kg.
a. 35.0 % b. 43.8 % c. 45.0 % d. 56.2 % e. 77.8 %

30. It is often convenient to have the general heat conduction equation expressed in terms of cylindrical
or spherical coordinates instead of the Cartesian coordinate system. The equation for cylindrical
coordinate system is

a.

b.

c.

d.

e.
31. Calculate the energy transfer rate across 6 in wall of firebrick with a temperature difference across
the wall of 50°C. The thermal conductivity of the firebrick is 0.65 Btu/hr.ft.°F at the temperature of
interest.
a. 112 W/m2 b. 285 W/m2 c. 369 W/m2 d. 429 W/m2 e. 568 W/m2

32. The equation of continuity is an expression of the

a. conservation of mass
b. conservation of momentum
c. conservation of energy
d. conservation of species
e. conservation of velocity

33. At an average temperature of 100°C, hot air flows through a 2.5 m long tube with an inside diameter
of 50 mm. The temperature of the tube is 20°C along its length. Convective heat transfer coefficient
is 20.1 W/m2.K. Determine the heat transfer from air to the tube.
a. 624 W b. 632 W c. 745 W d. 900 W e. 909 W

34. Wavelength is the ratio of

a. emissivity/frequency
 b. emissivity/speed of light
c. frequency/speed of light
d. speed of light/emissivity
e. speed of light/frequency

35. The view factor, per unit length, of two parallel and directly opposed infinitely long plates 6 ft apart
with width of 3 ft is
a. 0.014 b. 0.07 c. 0.4 d. 0.63 e. 0.7

36. 100 kg of lean beef is to be cooled from 18 to 4 °C. Specific heat of beef before freezing is 3.23
kJ/kg.K, after freezing, 1.68 kJ/kg.K. The latent heat of fusion is 233 kJ/kg. Determine the product
load in kJ
a. 4,522 b. 5,814 c. 23,300 d. 29,114 e. 32,470

37. How much ice, in kg, is needed to cool a gallon of punch from 20 °C to 4 °C. Assume specific heat of
punch is 4.23 kJ/kg.C, heat of fusion of ice is 334 kJ/kg and ice initially at freezing temperature.
a. 0.4 b. 0.7 c. 1.0 d. 2.5 e. 3.5

38. Microorganisms are capable of growth over a wide range of temperatures. Temperature is used to
categorize microorganisms. Those capable of growth at 5°C, some are able to grow at temperatures
as low as -5°C and are the primary cause of spoilage of perishable foods are called
a. mesophiles b. osmophilic c. psychrotrophs d. thermophiles e. xerotropic

39. A compressor whose crackshaft extends though the compressor housing so that a motor can be
externally coupled to the shaft is called
a. closed-type compressor
b. external compressor
c. hermetic compressor
d. open-type compressor
e. semi-hermetic compressor

40. In one type of expansion device a feeler bulb is clamped to the outlet of the evaporator so that the
bulb and the power fluid closely assume the temperature of the suction gas. The pressure of the
power fluid bears on the top of the diaphragm, and the evaporator pressure pushes on the top of
the diaphragm. This expansion device is most popular for moderate-sized refrigeration system. The
expansion device described above is the
a. capillary tube
b. constant pressure expansion valve
c. electric expansion valve
d. float valve
e. superheat-controlled expansion valve

41. What is the most popular expansion device that regulates the rate of flow of liquid refrigerant in
proportion to the rate of evaporation in the evaporator?
a. automatic
b. capillary tube
c. constant pressure
 d. float valve
e. superheat control

42. The mass rate of flow controls the capacity and power requirement more directly than the volume
rate of flow. The mass rate of flow through a compressor is proportional to the displacement rate
and the volumetric efficiency and inversely proportional to the specific volume of gas entering the
compressor. All other things equal, if the evaporator temperature is increased, then the mass flow
rate
a. increases
b. decreases
c. does not change
d. can either increase or decrease
e. cannot be determined

43. From the standpoint of power and efficiency, a low condensing temperature is desirable, thus the
condenser should use the coldest air or water available, should operate with maximum airflow or
water flow that is economical, and should have its surfaces clean. As the condensing temperature is
decreased, the coefficient of performance
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. can either increase or decrease
e. cannot be determined

44. It is the ratio of mass of water vapor in moist air to mass of water vapor in saturated air at the same
temperature and pressure.
a. absolute humidity
b. humidity ratio
c. moisture content
d. relative humidity
e. specific humidity

45. What is the enthalpy of moist air at 65% relative humidity and 34°C at standard atmospheric
pressure. Given: Psat at 34°C = 5.318 kPa & hg at 34°C = 2,563.6 kJ/kg
a. 56.4 kJ/kg b. 86.7 kJ/kg c. 87.3 kJ/kg d. 90.4 kJ/kg e. 95.5 kJ/kg

46. Many of the procedures for the control of microorganisms are managed by HACCP system of food
safety. Developed in the food industry since the 1960s, HACCP is now accepted by food
manufacturers and regulators. It is a preventive system that builds safety control features into the
food products design and the process by which it is produced. HACCP stands for
a. Hazard Analysis and Chemical Corrective Point
b. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point
c. Hazard Advisory Committee on Chemical Program
d. Health Analysis for Critical Corrective Program
e. Health Awareness and Critical Criteria Program

47. The government regulating agency providing certification to HACCP and GMP/SSOP of poultry
processing plant is
 a. Agricultural Machinery Testing and Evaluation Center
b. Bureau of Agricultural and Fisheries Product Standards
c. Bureau of Products Standards
d. Certification Center of the Philippines
e. National Meat Inspection Service

48. It is a set of guidelines for food processors typically addressing plant design and construction

material, water supply, plumbing and toilet facilities, equipment and utensils, raw food handling and
testing practices, personal hygiene, pest control, and waste disposal.
a. Good Manufacturing Practices
b. HACCP
c. IS0 9000: Quality Management
d. Process Flow Analysis
e. Sanitation Standard Operating Procedure

Prepare and evaluate plans, designs, technical specifications and cost estimates of agricultural
processing system and facilities, to include primary and value adding processes [7%]

49. Which is the process of food irradiation that eliminates harmful bacteria without the use of heat?
a. pressure processing
b. steam pasteurization
c. cold pasteurization
d. ozonation
e. electron beam technology

50. It is the application of principles and methods of engineering and life sciences toward fundamental
understanding of structure-function relationships in normal and pathological mammalian tissues
and the development of biological substitutes to restore, maintain, or improve tissue function.
a. genetic engineering
b. tissue engineering
c. biological engineering
d. molecular engineering
e. biosystems engineering

51. There are various methods available of preserving crops or increasing their usable economic life.
The method in which food contained in a permanently sealed container is subjected to an elevated
temperatures for a definite period of time and then cooled is called
a. canning
b. chemical treatment
c. chilling
d. controlled atmosphere
e. dehydration

52. There are many different methods of drying solids, liquids and gases. Most of these methods are
used to some extent in the drying of agricultural products. The method which removes moisture
from materials using centrifuge or gravity is called
a. freeze drying
b. decomposition of water
 c. adsorption
d. mechanical separation
e. chemical dessicants

53. Generally, palay can be stored safely up to 2 to 3 months at moisture content of

a. 28% b. 24% c. 18% d. 14% e. 10%

54. Determine the quantity of corn in kilogram at 30% (d.b.) required to give 1 metric ton at 14% (w.b.)?
a. 260 b. 860 c. 1,000 d. 1,120 e. 1,230

55. How much liter of kerosene is needed to dry 1 ton of palay from 30% to14%? Assume latent heat of
vaporization is 2500 kJ/kg; heating value of kerosene is 43 MJ/kg; specific gravity is 0.8 and
efficiency of 80%.
a. 11 b.13 c. 17 d. 21 e. 46

56. It is the maximum unit stress considered desirable for design calculations, considering the
characteristics of the material, the type of structure, the degree of exposure to deterioration, etc.
a. Anisotropy b. Annealing c. Allowable stress d. Factor of safety e. Creep

57. It is the unit stress occurring when material is carrying its maximum load; the amount of stress which
produces failure by increasing the unit stress until breakage or rupture occurs.
a. Ultimate Strength b. Ultimate Stress c. Normal Stress d. Yielding e. Proof Stress

58. It is the ability of a material to return its original shape after the removal of stresses.
a. Ductility b. Elasticity c. Elastic limit d. Elasticity e. none of the above

59. Measure of the tendency of beam to bend due to forces acting on it

a. Vertical shear b. Horizontal Stress c. Bending Stress d. Torsion e. Normal Stress

60. Maximum moment occurs at beam section at which shear diagram passes thru
a. Zero b. Max positive value c. Max negative value d. both b and c e. None of the above

61. The unbraced length in inches divided by the dimension of the least side
a. Slenderness Ratio b. Compression ratio c. Stroke d. bore e. Poisson Ratio

62. Which of the following is not useful information provided by Shear and Moment Diagram?
a. It shows the most likely section where a beam may fail in shear or bending.
b. Provides data for proper reinforcements of concrete.
c. Provides information on bending moment at any point.
d. Gives an idea about the deflected shape of the beam (bending moment diagrams).
e. None of the above

63. It is the measure of the change in angle that occurs between two line segments that were originally
perpendicular to one another.
a. Normal stress d. Bending Stress
b. Shear stress e. Sesame stress
c. Bearing stress
64. A rigid beam with negligible mass pinned at one end supported by two rods. The beam was initially
horizontal before the load P was applied. Find the vertical movement of P if P = 120KN.

a. 2.92 mm b. 1.56mm c. 3.55mm d. 2.54mm e. none of the above

65. The bar shown is firmly attached to unyielding supports. Find the stress caused in each material by
applying an axial load P = 200kN

a. σa= 62.78 MPa, σs = 120 MPa d. σa =52.84 MPa, σs =120 MPa

b. σa =13.10 MPa, σs =120 MPa e. σa =63.24 MPa, σs =120 MPa
c. σa =33.91 MPa, σs =120 MPa

66. Determine the largest weight W which can be supported by the two wires. The stresses in wires AB
and AC are not to exceed 100MPa and 150MPa, respectively. The cross-sectional areas of the wires
are 400mm2 for wire AB and 200mm2 for wire AC.

B C

A
 a. 35.5 kN b. 33.5 kN c. 53.3kN d. 33.5kN d.34.4kN

67. Compute the midspan value of EIδ for the loaded as shown in figure

a. 848.23 Nm3 b. 1130.97Nm3 c. 1272.35Nm3 d. 706.86Nm3 e. 657 Nm3

68. Compute the value of EIδ midway between the support for the overhanging beam.

a.-4.66 kN m3 b. 8 kN m3 c. -10 kN m3 d. 4.66kNm3 d. -8.kNm3

69. A rod is composed of the three segments shown in figure. If the axial loads P1 and P2 are each zero,
compute the stress induced in each material by a temperature drop of 30°C if (a) the walls are rigid
and (b) the walls spring together by 0.3 mm. Assume α = 18.9 μm/m∙ °C for bronze, 23 μm/m∙ °C for
aluminum, and 11.7 μm/m∙ °C for steel.
a.σs =118 MPa, σa = 40MPa
800mm
b.σs = 90MPa, σa = 20 MPa 500mm 400mm
c. σs = 45MPa, σa = 10 MPa
d.σs = 60MPa, σa = 72 MPa P1
e.σs = 30 MPa, σa =81 MPa P2

Bronze Aluminum
A= 2400 mm2 A=1200mm2 Steel
E=83x109N/m2 E=70x109N/ A=600mm2
m2 E=200x109N/
m2

70. Estimate the solar radiation intensity outside if the amount of solar heat gain (ignoring the energy
used for photosynthesis and respiration) is 750 kW. The floor area is 2,000m 2 , floor use fraction is
 0.85 and assume transmissivity value of 0.75.
a. 500W/m2 b. 600W/m2 c. 625W/m2 d. 675W/m2 e. 700 W/m2

71. If the greenhouse has outside temperature of 30°C and inside temperature of 34°C, estimate its
overall heat transmission coefficient if condition heat loss = 55kW.
a. 6.875W/m2-K b. 5.678W/m2-K c. 6.875W/m2-K d.6.876 W/m2-K e. 5.698W/m2-K

72. Using the solar heat gain and floor use fraction in problem a. and conduction heat loss in problem
b. , estimate the ratio of evaporation to solar radiation if the ventilation rate necessary to keep the
inside temperature within 4°C above the outside temperature is equal to 55 m 3/s. Assume Cp =
1,006 J/kg-K and density of air, ρ, of 1.05 kg/ m 3 ).
a. 0.7874 b. 0.5682 c. 0.7267 d. 0.7257 e. 0.8704

73. If an evaporative cooler with 85% efficiency is used, compute the required pad area that will
maintain an indoor environment within 4°C above outside temperature. Assume wet bulb
temperature =29°C and v =0.75 m/s for a 100 mm Aspen pad (mounted vertically).
a. 60.91 b. 6.09 c. 62.52 d. 60.48 e. 65.45

74. Most commonly used building material due to its strength, light in weight, durability and ease of
fastening.
a. Glass b. Wood c. Steel d. Concrete e. Paper

75. When the gravel or coarse aggregate is omitted from concrete, the mixture is generally called:
a. Paste b. Mortar c. Plastic d. Solution e. NOTA

76. Recommended concrete proportions (mixture) for filling and massive work not exposed to severe
weather.
a. 1 : 3 : 5 b. 1 : 2 : 3 c. 1 : 2 : 3 ½ d. 1 : 2 ½ : 4 e. 1 : 3 : 4

77. The standard length and width of a concrete hollow block: Bonus 40 cm x 20cm
a. 30cm x 15cm b. 25cm x 20cm c. 50cm x 25cm d. 40cm x 25cm e. 35cm x 15cm

78. A structural member where siding or partition boards are fastened (also known as ribs of partition)
a. Divider b. Stud c. truss d. Glass e. NOTA

79. Design an economical square wood column that will support an axial load of 350 kN. The
unsupported length is 4m and c = 5 MPa. Use E = 2 GPa.
a. 0.26m x 0.26m b. 0.30m x 0.30m c. 0.32m x 0.32m d. 0.35m x 0.35m e. NOTA

80. A 4m long Apitong beam, 200mm x 300mm width and depth respectively, is supported on both ends
by 3m long Guijo posts (square cross section). Determine the maximum safe uniformly distributed
load that can be supported by the beam and the column structure. Allowable values for Apitong:
v = 1.10 MPa b = 16.3 MPa br = 2.59 MPa a = L/360 E = 20 GPa
Allowable values for Guijo: E = 12.4 GPa c = 12.4 MPa

a. w= 227.355 kN/m d. w = 24.45 kN/m

b. w= 51.8 kN/m e. w = 30 kN/m
c. w= 22 kN/m
81. A waste management hierarchy arranged from most desirable to least desirable options for
managing livestock wastes.
a. disposal-minimization-treatment-reuse
b. minimization-reuse-treatment-disposal
c. treatment-reuse-minimization-disposal
d. reuse-disposal-treatment-minimization
e. treatment- minimization-disposal-reuse

82. A low cost type of biogas system using polyethylene plastics as the digester chamber.
a. attached film d. tubular polyethylene
b. covered lagoon e. sequential batch
c. complete mix

83. It refers to management techniques applied to reduce the pollution load coming from animal farms.
a. treatment d. utilization
b. disposal e. storage
c. transport

84. The reduction of insoluble organic and complex soluble organic compounds to simple soluble
organic compounds
a. acidogenesis d. acetogenesis
b. methanogenesis e. volatilization
c. hydrolysis

85. An earthen basin in which wastewater containing settleable solids is retained to remove a part of
suspended matter by gravity.
a. sedimentation basin d. settling pond
b. clarifier e. both a and d
c. septic tank

86. Recommended carbon-nitrogen ratio for livestock waste composting.

a. 30:1 b. 1:30 c. 60:1 d. 10.1 e. 1:15

87. Bacteria which can carry out metabolic activities including reproduction in the presence or absence
of free elemental oxygen.
a. anaerobic d. mesophilic
b. aerobic e. facultative
c. thermophilic

88.The volume of the reactor divided by the volumetric flow rate.

a. organic loading rate d. solids retention time
b. stoichiometric demand e. settling period
c. hydraulic retention time

89. Manure having a total solids content not exceeding five percent.
a. solid d. slurry
b. semi-solid e. both b and d
 c. liquid
90. Production of compost in piles which are mechanically turned to achieve aeration.
a. windrow b. Compost bins c. In vessel d. static piles e. vermicomposting

91. A swine wastewater sample has a total solid concentration of 200 mg/L. Determine the sample size
used in the analysis if 0.05 g of residue was recorded after drying the sample at 105 °C.
a. 25.0 ml b. 2.50 ml c. 200 ml d. 50 ml e. 250 ml

92. In a laboratory measurement of BOD, 10 ml of wastewater is diluted to 300 ml. The initial DO level
after dilution is 10 mg/l. The test bottle is incubated at 20°C but after 3 days the incubator
malfunctions and the temperature changes to 25°C. After 5 days a DO level of 4 mg/l is measured. If
the 20°C rate constant (k) is 0.2 day -1 and θ = 1.05, what is the correct 5 day-BOD at 20°C of the
wastewater.
a. 270 mg/l b. 171 mg/l c. 6 mg/l d. 200 mg/l e. 50 mg/l

93. Average methane composition in biogas is:

a. 80 % b. 40 % c. 90 % d. 30 % e. 60 %

94. Amount of water needed to bring the moisture content of a 5 kg poultry-sawdust compost mixture
from 45 % wb to 65% wb.
a. 3.0 kg b. 2.0 kg c. 5.0 kg d. 1.0 kg e. 4.0 kg

95. Methane (CH4) production per kg manure (C9H14O5N) degraded. Methane density at 25°C is 0.654 kg
CH4/m3.
a. 0.4 m3 CH4 per kg manure d. 6.0 m3 CH4 per kg manure
b. 0.6 m3 CH4 per kg manure e. 1.0 m3 CH4 per kg manure
3
c. 4.0 m CH4 per kg manure

96. Daily manure inflow in the digester if loading rate is 200 kg total solids per day and total solid
concentration of influent is 5 %. Liquid manure density is assumed to be 1000 kg/m 3
a. 1.0 m3/day b. 2.0 m3/day c. 3. 0 m3/day d. 4.0 m3/day e. 5.0 m3/day

97. Effective volume of a batch-fed digester in problem no. 96 assuming hydraulic time of 25 days.
a. 100 m3 b. 25 m3 c. 75 m3 d. 125 m3 e. 50 m3

98. Air flow rate needed to supply oxygen during 30- day aerobic composting of organic waste
C10H19O3N. Ambient air temperature is 30°C (air density equals 1.20 kg per m 3).
a. 0.07 m3 per kg-day d. 7.0 m3 per kg-day
3
b. 0.42 m per kg-day e. 0.7 m3 per kg-day
c. 0.24 m3 per kg-day

99. An act providing for an ecological solid waste management program, creating the necessary
institutional mechanisms and incentives, declaring certain acts prohibited, providing penalties
appropriating funds therefore, and for other purposes.
a. RA 9004 b. RA 8749 c. RA 9275 d. RA 1019 e. RA 9003

100. Portion of the total solid that passes through the filter in a filtration procedure.
a. Volatile solids b. Suspended solids c. Dissolved solids d. Fixed Solid e. Ash