FINANCE CURRENT AFFAIRS – RBI 247

April-May-June Marathon Session

Q.1) What is the recently decided amount of borrowings to be made by the Government
under WMA for H1 of FY23?

[a] 1,50,000 crore

[b] 8.8 lakh crore
[c] 2,30,000 crore
[d] 1.1 lakh crore
[e] 22,300 crore A
Q.2) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about Ways and means
advances?
1. There are 3 types of WMA available i.e short term, medium term and long term
2. Under special WMA, collateral is kept by RBI.
3. Normal WMA is charged at 2% more than repo rate.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only
[e] All of the above A
Q.3) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about WMA?
1. Under WMA an overdraft limit is not available.
2. In overdraft facility of WMA, a rate 2% more than repo is charged.
3. Under WMA, government can avail temporary loan of upto 90 days.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 1 only
[e] All of the above D
Q.4) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about ONDC?
1. It is an open network platform for e-commerce.
2. Under ONDC, the government is aiming to move from open model to a platform
centric model.
3. ONDC platform might make it difficult for small merchants and kirana store owners to
join due to its detachment from e-commerce platforms.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 1 only
[e] All of the above D
Q.5) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about urban cooperative bank’s
statutory norms.
1. The CRAR to be maintained by UCBs in Tier 1 is 9%.
2. Tier 3 include UCBs with deposits more than ₹100 crore and up to ₹1000 crore.
3. Tier 1 UCBs operating in a single district shall have minimum net worth of ₹2 crore.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 1 only
[e] All of the above A
Q.6) As per the recent financial Stability report- June 2023. Which of the following is/are
correct statement(s)?
1) CRAR for Schedule Commercial Banks was 17.1%
2) GNPA for banks have reduced to 3.9%.
3) Under Provisioning Coverage Ratio, banks must hold an amount of high-quality liquid
assets that's enough to fund cash outflows for 30 days.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 1 only
[e] All of the above C
Q.7) As per the recent financial Stability report- June 2023. Which of the following is/are
incorrect statement(s)?
1) Priority sector lending (PSL) by both SUCBs and NSUCBs stood at around 65% of their
outstanding credit on March 31, 2023.
2) The dates to achieve PSL targets of minimum 60, 65 and 75 % have been
extended upto March 31, 2024, March 31, 2026 and March 31, 2027
respectively.
3) The number of subscribers under NPS and the Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
increased by 12% (y-o-y) during FY23.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 1 only
E
[e] 2 and 3 only
Q.9) Recently RBI released its Monetary Policy Statement for the month of April 2023. The
repo rate and SDF after the MPS stands at ___ & ______ respectively.

[a] 6.35% and 6.15%

[b] 6.25% and 6.00%
[c] 6.5% and 6.25%
[d] 6.0 % and 5.75% C
[e] None of the above
Q.10) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about The recently released
Monetary policy Statement?
1. The standing deposit facility (SDF) rate remains unchanged at 6.25 %
2. The second advance estimates (SAE) released by the National Statistical Office (NSO)
on February 28, 2023 placed India’s real gross domestic product (GDP) growth at 7.0
per cent in 2022-23.
3. Core inflation (i.e., CPI excluding food and fuel) remained elevated and was above 6
per cent in January-February.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only E
[d] 3 only
[e] All of the above
Q.11) What does P stands for in the recently proposed central portal named PRAVAAH.

[a] Platform
[b] Perpetual
[c] Payment
[d] Performance
A
[e] Participation
Q.12) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect statements about Deposit
Education and Awareness Fund?
1. It is maintained by SEBI
2. Any deposits remaining unclaimed for 7 years in a bank are transferred to the DEAF
3. Deposits unclaimed under Fixed Deposits are not included under DEAF

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only
E
[e] All of the above
Q.13)With which of the following is the upcoming PRAVAAH portal of RBI related to?

[a] Non deliverable derivative contracts

[b] Approval for ICCs
[c] Integrated Ombudsman Grievance redressal
portal
[d] Authorised dealers services portal
[e] application submission and approval E
Q.14) Which of the following statements is/are correct about PUCB’s investment
guidelines as per RBI?

1. UCBs are allowed to undertake any transactions on behalf of Portfolio Management

Scheme (PMS) clients in their fiduciary capacity.
2. Investment proposals shall be subjected to the same degree of credit risk analysis as
any loan proposal.
3. UCBs shall make their own internal credit analysis and credit rating.

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only
[e] All of the above A
Q.15) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about classification of
investment of UCBs.
1. Securities acquired by the banks with the intention to hold them up to maturity shall
be classified under HTM category.
2. In general, Investments under HTM category shall not exceed 25 % of the bank's total
investments, however it can be done under certain circumstances.
3. UCBs cannot invest in Long-term bonds issued by companies engaged in
infrastructure activities.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only
C
[e] All of the above
Q.16) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about investment of UCBs.
1. In general, the investments classified under HFT shall be sold within 90 days.
2. Profit or loss on sale of investments in HFT and AFS categories shall be taken to the
Profit and Loss Account.
3. UCBs shall have the option to shift investments to/from HTM category with the
approval of the Board of Directors once a year.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only E
[e] All of the above
Q.17) Recently SEBI proposed new guidelines/reforms/ measures for Investment advisor.
Which of the following measures are mentioned by SEBI in the circular?
1. The registered entities have been directed not to engage in games, leagues,
competitions.
2. SEBI has directed the investment advisors and analysts to not extensively use
technical terminology.
3. Investment Advisors are voluntarily required to mention about risks involved in
investments and mention standard disclaimers.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only C
[e] All of the above
Q.18) Which of the following statements is/are correct about RBI’s framework for Green
Deposits?

1. The framework is not applicable to Small Finance Banks and RRBs.

2. Housing Finance Companies registered under NHB are not eligible under the
framework.
3. Green deposits will not receive any interest.

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only
E
[e] None of the above
Q. 19) Which of the following describes the concept of greenwashing recently seen in
news?

[a] Saving water

[b] Converting black money into white
[c] Not utilizing money raised through green bonds
towards the appropriate projects/activities
[d] Using sustainable measures for operations
C
[e] Removing pollutants
Q.20) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Green Deposit
Framework.

1. REs shall issue green deposits as cumulative/non-cumulative deposits.

2. On maturity, the green deposits should be withdrawn by the depositor.
3. The green deposits shall be denominated in INR only.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only
[e] All of the above A
Q.21) Which of the following statements is/are correct about Indices
1. Stock Market index is an index that measures a stock market, or a subset of the stock
market, that helps investors compare current stock price levels with past prices to
calculate market performance.
2. A market index is a hypothetical portfolio of investment holdings that represents a
segment of the financial market.
3. An index fund is a type of mutual fund or exchange-traded fund (ETF) with a portfolio
constructed to match or track the components of a financial market index.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only E

[e] All of the above

Q.22) Regulated Entities (REs) have been extensively leveraging Information
Technology (IT) and IT enabled Services (ITeS) to support their business
models, products and services offered to their customers. REs also outsource
substantial portion of their IT activities to third parties, which expose them to
various risks. To ensure that outsourcing arrangements neither diminish REs
ability to fulfil its obligations to customers nor impede effective supervision
by the RBI, RBI brought out a Master Direction for the same.

Based on the above paragraph, answer the following questions.

Q22). Which of the following is/are not allowed to be Third-Party Service
Provider for the purpose of this Master Direction ?

1. Vendors providing business services using IT.

2. Payment System Operators authorised by the RBI.
3. Cloud service provider

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only
[e] None of the above C
Vendors / Entities who are not considered as Third-Party Service Provider for the purpose of
this Master Direction (an indicative but not exhaustive list)
i. Vendors providing business services using IT. Example – BCs
ii. Payment System Operators authorised by the Reserve Bank of India under the Payment and
Settlement Systems Act, 2007 for setting up and operating Payment Systems in India
iii. Partnership based Fintech firms such as those providing co-branded applications, service, products
(would be considered under outsourcing of financial services)
iv. Services of Fintech firms for data retrieval, data validation and verification services such as (list is
not exhaustive):
a.Bank statement analysis
b.GST returns analysis
c.Fetching of vehicle information
d.Digital document execution
e.Data entry and Call centre services
v. Telecom Service Providers from whom leased lines or other similar kind of infrastructure are availed
and used for transmission of the data
vi. Security/ Audit Consultants appointed for certification/ audit/ VA-PT related to IT infra/ IT services/
Information Security services in their role as independent third-party auditor/ consultant/ lead
implementer.
C
Services / Activities not considered under “Outsourcing of IT Services” for the purpose of this
Master Direction (an indicative but not exhaustive list)
i.Corporate Internet Banking services obtained by regulated entities as corporate customers/ sub
members of another regulated entity
ii.External audit such as Vulnerability Assessment/ Penetration Testing (VA/PT), Information Systems
Audit, security review
iii.SMS gateways (Bulk SMS service providers)
iv.Procurement of IT hardware/ appliances
v.Acquisition of IT software/ product/ application (like CBS, database, security solutions, etc.,) on a
licence or subscription basis and any enhancements made to such licensed third-party application by its
vendor (as upgrades) or on specific change request made by the RE.

C
Any maintenance service (including security patches, bug fixes) for IT Infra or licensed products,
provided by the Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) themselves, in order to ensure continued usage
of the same by the RE.

Applications provided by financial sector regulators or institutions like CCIL, NSE, BSE, etc.
Platforms provided by entities like Reuters, Bloomberg, SWIFT, etc.

Any other off the shelf products (like anti-virus software, email solution, etc.,) subscribed to by the
regulated entity wherein only a license is procured with no/ minimal customization

Services obtained by a RE as a sub-member of a Centralised Payment Systems (CPS) from another RE

Business Correspondent (BC) services, payroll processing, statement printing

C
Q23). Which of the following is/are not considered under ‘Outsourcing of IT
services’

1. Information Systems Audit

2. Procurement of IT hardware/ appliances
3. SMS gateways

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only E
[e] All of the above
Q.24) Based on the above master directions, which of the following statements
is/are correct about due diligence process under these master directions?

1. Due diligence shall take into consideration qualitative, quantitative,

financial, operational, legal factors.
2. While considering aspects of due diligence, past experience and
demonstrated competence are taken into consideration.
3. Financial soundness and ability to service commitments are also to be taken
into account.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only E
[d] 3 only
[e] All of the above
Q25). Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about Core
Investment Companies ?

1. It holds not less than 75% of its net assets in the form of investment in
equity shares, preference shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in
group companies.

2. Its investments in the equity shares in group companies and units of

Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) only as sponsor, constitute not
less than 60% of its net assets.

3. Adjusted Net Worth of a CIC shall at no point of time be less than 30% of
its aggregate risk weighted assets on balance sheet and risk adjusted value
of off-balance sheet items.
[a] 2 and 3 only
[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 1 only
[e] None of the above

D
Q.26) A Core Investment company can make investment in which of the
following?

1. Bank deposits
2. Government securities
3. Bonds or debentures issued by group companies

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only
[e] All of the above
E
Q.27) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Core Investment
Companies?

1. CIC cannot undertake transactions in Government securities

2. No CIC can lend against its own shares
3. All CICs with asset size of more than ₹5,000 crore shall appoint a Chief Risk
Officer.

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only
[e] All of the above A
Q.28) Recently RBI released draft circular on Fair Lending Practice - Penal
Charges in Loan Accounts. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect
about the newly introduced rules?
1. Penal charges can be used as a revenue enhancement tool by banks
2. REs cannot alter credit risk premium charged on rate of interest.
3. The quantum of penal charges shall be proportional to the defaults/ non-
compliance of material terms and conditions of loan contract beyond a
threshold

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only
[e] All of the above C
Q.29) With which of the following study group is responsible for Lead Bank
scheme?

[a] D.R Gadgil study group

[b] Narsimham Study group
[c] Tarapore Committee
[d] Usha Thorat working group
[e] None of the above A
Q.30) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about lead Bank
scheme
1. It was introduced as commercial banks did not have adequate presence in
rural areas
2. Lead bank scheme is based on ‘area approach’.
3. Under the scheme block level bankers’ committee achieves coordination
between credit institutions and field level development agencies at the
block level.

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only
[e] All of the above E
Q.31) Which of the following is not an agenda of meeting of DCC?

1. Review of progress under Financial Inclusion Plan (FIP)

2. Specific issues inhibiting IT enabled financial inclusion
3. Flow of credit to priority sector and weaker sections of the society

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only
[e] None of the above E
Q.32) Which of the following is/are correct about EASE reform Index?
1. EASE Agenda was launched by government for reforms in private and public
banks in January 2018
2. EASE 1.0 focused significant improvement in performance of PSB, in
resolving Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in a transparent manner.
3. EASE 4.0 commits PSBs to tech-enabled, collaborative and simplified
banking to strengthen the agenda of customer-centric digital
transformation.

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 2 only
[d] 3 only
[e] All of the above
A
Q. 33) Which of the following will appropriately fill in the blank
The Internal Working Group of the RBI under the Chairmanship of _____ had
submitted the final Report on the implementation of Countercyclical Capital
Buffer (CCCB) in July, 2014

[a] D.R Gadgil

[b] Narsimham
[c] Bimal Jalan
[d] Usha Thorat
E
[e] B Mahapatra
Q.34) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Counter cyclical
capital buffer framework of India.
1. CCyB decision would normally be pre-announced with a lead time of 4
quarters
2. CCyB is maintained at 2.5% of total risk weighted assets (RWA) of banks.
3. The credit-to-GDP gap shall be the main indicator in the CCyB framework in
India.

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
C
[e] All of the above
Q.35) Recently SEBI banned brokers’ practice of bank guarantee. From which
date will this rule be applicable from?

[a] 1 May 2023

[b] 16 September 2023
[c] 1 January 2023
[d] 31 March 2023 A
[e] None of the above
Q.36) The new rule of Remittance scheme restrains investors from keeping
unused money beyond _____ in offshore bank accounts.

[a] 90 days
[b] 180 days
[c] 270 days
[d] 365 days
[e] 100 days B
Q.37) What is the ceiling amount on the loan for the purpose of non-farm
entrepreneurial activity and is eligible for classification as priority sector under
GCC- General Credit card.

[a] 50 crore
[b] 65 crore
[c] 75 crore
[d] 25 crore
E
[e] No limit
Q.38) Which of the following statement is/are correct about the new bad bank
structure?
1. NARCL has received license from RBI to function as ARC.
2. Public Sector Banks (PSBs) will maintain 51% ownership in NARCL
3. NARCL has received Rs 30,600 crore guarantee to back Security Receipts.

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
E
[e] All of the above
Q.39) Which of the following statement is/are correct about the new bad bank
structure?
1. NARCL will pay 15% of the agreed price in security receipt and the
remaining 85% will be in the form of cash.
2. The government guarantee is extended for a period of 25 years.
3. IDRCL will aim to sell the stressed assets in the market.

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
D
[e] All of the above
Q.40) Which of the following is included in weaker section under priority sector.
1. Small and Marginal Farmers
2. Artisans, village and cottage industries where individual credit limits do not
exceed Rs 5 lakh
3. Self Help Groups

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
C
[d] 3 only
[e] All of the above
Q.42) Which of the following statement is/are correct about the loan against
FD?
1. This makes it an excellent tool for mitigating frequent liquidity and cash
flow mismatches.
2. Under these loans the borrower has to close his/her FD account to avail
loan.
3. The loan must be repaid before the FD matures.

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
[e] All of the above C
Q. 43) Which of the following correctly describes the loan to value ratio?

[a]Ratio of risk weighted asset to value of loans

outstanding
[b]Capital to asset ratio
[c]Value of loan to the value of collateral
[d]Value of margin required to value of collateral
[e]Value of loan to value of margin required
C
Q.44) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
1. The Gross NPA ratio for the Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) was 4.41 %
at end December 2022
2. The CRAR at 16.1 % at end December 2022
3. Cyber risks form part of operational risks in banks

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
[e] None of the above E
Q.45) Which of the organisation has recently released the Global unicorn index
2023?

[a] World economic Forum

[b] UNCTAD
[c] Hurun Research Institute
[d] Startup Blink
[e] Worldline
C
Q.46) As per the Global Unicorn Index 2023, India with ____ new unicorns has
added 14 new unicorns since the pandemic began and stands behind USA (666)
and China (316)

[a] 72
[b] 62
[c] 82
[d] 68
[e] 70
d
Q. 47) Which of the following name is given to a startup company with $10
billion in valuation ?

[a]Unicorn
[b]Decacorn
[c]Hexacorn
[d]Gazelle
[e]Superunicorn B
Q.48) Which of the following is/are matched incorrectly with respect to UCB
regulatory framework?
Tier 2 UCBs with deposits more than ₹100 crore and up to ₹1000
1.
2. Tier 3 UCBs with deposits more than ₹1000 crore and up to ₹10,000
3. Tier 4 UCBs with deposits more than ₹10,000 crore

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
[e] None of the above E
Q.49) Recently RBI revised the provisioning norms of standard assets of UCBs.
Which of the following statements with regard to the same are correct about
new norms.
1. Direct advances to agriculture and SME sectors 0.25%
Advances to commercial real estate (CRE) sector 1%
2. Advances to commercial real estate residential housing 0.75%
3. (CRE-RH) sector

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
[e] All of the above E
Q.50) Which of the followings statement(s) is/are correct about categorization
of assets of banks.
1. Sub Standard Asset: An asset would be classified as sub-standard if it
remained NPA for a period more than 12 months.
2. Doubtful Assets: An asset is required to be classified as doubtful, if it has
remained NPA for less than 12 months.
3. Loss Asset: un-collectible asset

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
[e] 1 and 2 only D
Q.51) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about FATF.

1. Inter-governmental body established in 1989

2. FATF is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog
3. India joined with ‘observer’ status in 2008 and became a full member of
FATF in 2012

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
E
[e] 1 and 2 only
Q.52) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about PMLA 2002.
1. It is a criminal law enacted to prevent money laundering
2. To provide for confiscation of property derived from, or involved in, money-
laundering and related matters.
3. The provisions of this act are applicable to all financial institutions.

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
E
[e] None of the above
Q. 53) Under master direction -know your customer, 2016.
Beneficial Owner identification has been shared by RBI .
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about [a] 2 and 3 only
Beneficial owner? [b] 2 only
1. In case the customer is company- BO is someone who [c] 1 and 3 only
has Ownership of/entitlement to more than 10 % of [d] 3 only
the shares or capital or profits of the company. [e] 1 and 2 only
2. In case the customer is partnership firm –BO is
someone who has ownership of/entitlement of 15 %
of capital or profits of the partnership.
3. In case the customer is Trust- BO is someone who has
25 % or more interest in the trust.
E
Q.54) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about G20 Techsprint
2023.

1. The G20 TechSprint 2023 is open to developers from around the world.
2. The G20 TechSprint 2023 is the third edition
3. 2023 TechSprint will focus on eight problem statements

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
[e] 1 and 2 only
A
Q.55) The winners for each problem statement of G20 Techsprint will receive an
award of ______?

[a] INR 40,000

[b] INR 10,00,000
[c] USD 78000
[d] USD 70000
[e] INR 40,00,000
E
Q.56) What is the below statement talking about ?
It is a Russian card payment system for electronic fund transfers established by
the Central Bank of Russia under a law adopted on 1 May 2017.

[a] Paynow
[b] Mir Payment system
[c] Rupay payment system
[d] Visa payment system
[e] Faster Payments system B
Q.57) Under India’s G20 Presidency, the RBI and the BIS Innovation Hub (BISIH)
of the Bank for International Settlements have jointly launched the fourth
edition of the G20 TechSprint. Which of the following is not a problem
statement for the Techsprint?

[a] Solutions for Green and Sustainable finance including Sovereign

Green debt management
[b] AML/CFT/Sanctions technology solutions
[c] FX and liquidity technology solutions to enable settlement in
emerging market and developing economy (EMDE) currencies.
[d] Technology solutions for multilateral cross-border CBDC platforms.
[e] Both and b A
Q.58)Which of the following statement(s) is/are
incorrect about RBI’s rules about remittances by
residents to IFSC. [a] 2 and 3 only
[b] 2 only
1. Resident Individuals cannot open a non interest
bearing Foreign Currency Account (FCA) in IFSCs. [c] 1 and 3 only
2. The remittance to IFSC shall be made only for [d] 3 only
making investments in IFSCs in securities, other [e] 1 and 2 only
than those issued by entities/companies resident
(outside IFSC) in India.
3. Resident Individuals can settle any domestic
transactions with other residents through these
FCAs held in IFSC. C
Q.59) Recently 27th meeting of FSDC took place in New Delhi. Who chaired the
meeting?

[a] Nirmala Sidharaman

[b] Shri Shaktkanta Das
[c] B.P Kanungo
[d] Droupadi Murmu
[e] T. Rabi Shankar A
Q.60) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about FSDC- sub
committee
1. FSDC sub-committee is headed by the Finance Minister
2. It meets more often than the FSDC Council
3. All the members of the FSDC- sub committee are also the members of the
FSDC

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
[e] 1 and 2 only B
Q.61) On which of the following indicators is the IMF quota decided?

1. Size of GDP
2. Purchasing Power Parity
3. Economic Variability
4. International Reserves

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 1, 2 and 3 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 1, 3 and 4 only
[e] 2 and 4 only D
Q.62) Recently REC listed green bonds worth ___ on international exchange of
IFSC. REC is a ___ company?

[a] 600 mln $​, Maharatna

[b] 750 mln $, Miniratna
[c] 750 mln $, Navratna
[d] 600 mln $, Miniratna
[e] 750 mln $, Maharatna E
Q.63) Which of the following is not part of market infrastructure institutions?
1. Stock exchanges
2. SEBI
3. Depositories
4. Clearing houses
5. NPO

[a] 1, 2 and 3 only

[b] 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
[c] 1,3 and 4 only
[d] 3 and 4 only
[e] 2 and 5 only C
Q.64) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about legal entity
identifier?
1. RBI directions mandate non-individual borrowers having aggregate exposure
of above Rs. 5 crores have to obtain LEI.
2. Guidelines on LEI are not applicable to Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks
(UCBs) and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).
3. Borrowers who fail to obtain LEI codes from an authorized Local Operating
Unit (LOU) shall not be sanctioned any new exposure nor shall they be granted
renewal/enhancement of any existing exposure.

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only
C
[e] 1 and 2 only
Q.65) Transition bond has recently been in news. With which of the following do
these bonds relate to?

[a] Subordinated bonds issued by banks

[b] Funds raised for transitioning to a more sustainable form of
operations
[c] Bonds converted into equity after 10 years
[d] Bonds which can be changed from fixed rate to floating rate
[e] Temporary bonds-available for buyback anytime
B
Q.66) According to a panel set up in ___ under the chairmanship of former
_____ , the term ‘market infrastructure’ denotes such fundamental facilities and
systems serving the capital market.

[a] 2008, Bimal Jalan

[b] 2009, Nachiket Mor
[c] 2014, Madhabi Puri Buch
[d] 2010, Bimal jalan
[e] 2018, M. S Sahu D
Q.67) Which of the following organisations oversee the Depositors Education
and awareness Fund?

[a] SBI
[b] SEBI
[c] LIC
[d] PFRDA
[e] RBI E
Q.68) Recently RBI launched 100 days- 100 pays campaign. With which of the
following is the campaign related to?

[a] Solutions for Green and Sustainable finance

including Sovereign Green debt management
[b] Awareness about digital payment systems
[c] Awareness about Non bank payment service
providers who are now formalized under RBI
[d] Settlement of unclaimed deposits
[e] Both a and b D
Q.69) Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about CBS?
1. e-Kuber is the Core Banking Solution of the Reserve Bank of India which
was introduced in 2012.
2. All commercial banks, including the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), are
brought into the core-banking fold.
3. Non-bank Payment System Providers (PSPs) will participate in
Centralised Payment Systems (CPS - RTGS and NEFT), as direct members from
1st October 2023.

[a] 1 and 2 only

[b] 2 and 3 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 2 only A
[e] 1 only
Q.70) The RBI will be among 13 international regulators taking part in the Global
Financial Innovation Network (GFIN)’s first ever ______

[a] Greenwashing Techsprint

[b] G20 TechSprint
[c] Risk minimizing Awareness campaign
[d] Financial network Techsprint
[e] Sandbox TechSprint
A
Q.71) Which of the following is/are correct about recent guidelines of RBI for
forward rates or interbank market rate benchmark?
1. The Financial Benchmarks India Pvt. Ltd. (FBIL) will cease to publish MIFOR
2. The RBI has issued an advisory to banks and other RBI-regulated entities to
transition from MMFIR from 1st August 2023.
3. SONIA- overnight indexed rate is applicable in U.K

[a] 1 and 2 only

[b] 2 and 3 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 2 only
[e] 1 only C
Q.72) Recently RBI issued advisory to banks to ensure a complete transition away
from the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) from which of the following
dates?

[a] July 1, 2023

[b] June 1, 2023
[c] 1 August 2023
[d] 1october 2023
[e] 31st March 2023 A
Q.73) Which of the following benchmark rates are incorrectly matched with the
country/currency these are associated with?
1. Secured Overnight Funding Rate (SOFR)→ US Dollar
2. SONIA → UK Pound Sterling;
3. TONAR → Japanese Yen
4. MMIFOR→India (Rs.)

[a] 1,2 and 3 only

[b] 2 and 4 only
[c] 1 and 3only
[d] All are correct
D
[e] 2,3 and 4 only
Q.74) As per RBI’s recent Report on Currency & Finance FY23, India will need
additional annual investment of __% of Gross Domestic product (GDP) at least
for green financing till ___.

[a] 2.5%, 2030

[b] 2.8%, 2050
[c] 5.2%, 2070
[d] 2.8%, 2030
[e] 2%, 2025
A
Q.75) ____is an international body that monitors and makes recommendations
about the global financial system. It was established after the G20 London
summit in April 2009.

[a] ESMA
[b] Financial Stability Board
[c] Bank of International
Settlement
[d] LIBOR
[e] GFIN B
Q.76) _______is one of the governing bodies of ESMA, who guides the work of the
Authority and has the decision-making responsibility on a broad range of matters
including the adoption of: draft Technical Standards, Guidelines, Opinions, Reports
and Advice to EU Institutions

[a] Board of Supervisors

[b] Management Board
[c] Board of governors
[d] Governing Body
[e] Board of regulation
A
Q.77) IOSCO members are of three types. ____ members under IOSCO are
usually supranational governmental regulators, subnational governmental
regulators, intergovernmental international organizations

[a] Associate
[b] Affiliate
[c] Ordinary
[d] Observer
[e] Active A
Q.78) Which of the following could be reasons for demonetization in any
economy?
I. Counterfeit currency
II. Terror or tax fraud
III. BOP Deficit
IV. Hyperinflation situation
V. To control increasing Black Money
VI. Recession situation

[a] 1,2 and 4 only

[b] 2,4 and 5 only
[c] 1,2,3 and 6 only
[d] 1,2,4 and 5 only
[e] 3,4 and 5 only D
Q.79) During its 602nd meeting RBI Board approved the transfer of ______ as
surplus to the Central Government for the accounting year 2022-23.

[a] 87,416 crore

[b] 99,000 crore
[c] 88,000 crore
[d] 76,900 crore
[e] 86,745 crore A
Q.80) Section _____ of the RBI Act states that profits made by the RBI from its
operations must be given to the Centre in the form of Dividend. This transfer of
surplus is based on the economic capital framework introduced by _____?

[a] Section 47, Usha thorat

[b] Section 7, Y.M Malegam Committee
[c] Section 47, Bimal Jalan
[d] Section 45, Bimal Jalan
[e] Section 7, Usha Thorat C
Q.81) As per the recent decision made by the centre, a _____ Tax collected at
source (TCS) will be levied on overseas credit card expenses of Indians under LRS
over Rs. _____ as announced by the Budget ____ starting from___.

[a] 25%, 5 lakh, 2020-21, 1st July 2023

[b] 20%, 7 lakh, 2022-23, 1st July 2023
[c] 18%, 7 lakh, 2023-24, 1st September 2023
[d] 20%, 7 lakh, 2023-24, 1st July 2023 D

[e] 25%, 7 lakh, 2023-24, 1st September 2023

Q.82) Recently an organization has derecognised a few clearing corporations of
India, citing non signing of “cooperative agreements”. Which of the following
organisations have done that?

[a] FSB
[b] SEBI
[c] IOSCO
[d] ESMA
D
[e] Bank of International Settlement
Q.83) Due to EU carbon taxation levy, which of the following industries are said to
suffer the most?
1) Iron
2) Steel
3) Cement
4) Aluminium
5) Sugar
6) Electronics

[a] 1,2,3 and 4 only

[b] 2,3, 4 and 5 only
[c] 2,3,5 and 6 only
[d] None of the above
A
[e] Only clothing industry
Q.84) Which of the following are the reasons for recent U.S debt ceiling breach?

1) Over expenditure
2) Social Security Benefits
3) Excessive funding to Ukraine/NATO countries

[a] 1 and 2 only

[b] 1 only
[c] 2 and 3 only
[d] All of the above A
[e] 3 only
Q.85) Recently ESMA derecognizes 6 clearing corporations in India. Which of the
following is/are not such corporations.?

[a] NSE Clearing Ltd.

[b] ICCL
[c] CCIL
[d] Multi commodity Exchange clearing
E
[e] Nation Clearing corporation
Q.86) Recently in April which bank was the second largest bank failure of US
market.

[a] Silicon Valley Bank

[b] JP Morgan Chase
[c] Signature Bank
[d] First Republic Bank
[e] CitiBank D
Q.87) RBI has recently disclosed SBI, HDFC and ICICI Bank as Domestically
systemically important Banks of India. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
incorrect about DSIBs?

[a] These banks are allowed to maintain lower capital buffers

[b] Foreign banks with a branch presence in India that are GSIBs
do not have to maintain additional capital buffer.
[c] SBI must maintain an additional 0.60% CET1 as a percentage
of its risk-weighted assets
[d] The RBI had issued the framework for dealing with D-SIB in
2014.
[e] Both a & B
E
Q.88) Which of the following deposits are not insured by DICGC?

1) Deposits of foreign Governments.

2) Deposits of Central/State Governments.
3) Inter-bank deposits.
4) Deposits with Cooperative banks

[a] 1 and 2 only

[b] 1,2 and 4 only
[c] 2, 3 and 4 only
[d] All of the above E
[e] 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.89) Which of the following statement(s) about evergreening of loans is/are
correct?
1) Evergreening of loans will increase the provisions kept by bank
2) Evergreening of loans can lead to crowding out of lending capacity.
3) Evergreening of loans can include shady promoters who are known for fund
diversion.

[a] 1 and 2 only

[b] 1 only
[c] 2 and 3 only
[d] All of the above
C
[e] 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.90) Consider the following and identify how many statements is/are
correct:
1) Compromise Settlement means a negotiated arrangement with a
borrower to fully settle the claims in cash
2) Any arrangement involving part settlement with the borrower will
form a part of compromise settlement only
3) Writing off NPAs fully or partially by the Regulated Entity only for
accounting purposes will be known as technical write off.
4) Stressed Assets includes NPAs, restructured loans as well as written-off
assets
5) A loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remains
overdue for a period of up to 60 days will be known as SMA-2 account
[a] Only 1 statement
[b] 2 statements
[c] 3 statements
[d] 4 statements
[e] All are correct

C
Q.91) The comprehensive regulatory
framework governing compromise
settlements and technical write-offs issued by
RBI will be applicable to which of the [a] 1 and 2 only
following eligible entities? [b] 1,2 and 3 only
[c] 2,3 and 4 only
1) Small Finance Banks [d] All of the above
2) State Co-operative Banks [e] 1,2,3 and 4 only
3) Housing Finance Companies
4) Local Area Banks
5) Payment Banks
E
Q.92) In case of compromise settlements, if the time for payment of the agreed
settlement amount exceeds 3 months, such exposures should be treated as
___________.

[a] Wilful Default

[b] Technical write-off
[c] Compromise settlements
[d] Restructuring
[e] Strategic restructuring D
Q.93) In case of Default Loss Guarantee (DLG), a credit-risk sharing agreement is
entered, wherein the ____________ guarantees to compensate the
_____________, loss due to default up to a certain percentage of the loan
portfolio.

[a] DLG Provider; RE

[b] RE; DLG Provider
[c] FinTech; RE
[d] RE; PSP A

[e] Banks; NBFC

Q.94) As per the Guidelines on Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in Digital Lending,
the total amount of DLG cover should not exceed ______% of the amount of the
loan portfolio.

[a] 1%
[b] 2%
[c] 5%
[d] 10%
[e] 25% C
Q.95) As announced in the June 2023 MP Statement, in order to address
implementational challenges faced by the UCBs, Primary (Urban) Co-operative
Banks are now allowed to achieve the overall PSL target of ______ % of ANBC or
CEOBSE till March 31, __________.

[a] 12%; 2026

[b] 65%; 2024
[c] 60%; 2025
[d] 75%; 2025 E
[e] 75%; 2026
Q.96) Recently (June 2023), SEBI allowed Mutual Funds to invest in repo
transactions. With regards to this, consider the following and identify the correct
statement(s):
1) MFs will be allowed to participate only in "AAA" and above rated
corporate debt securities
2) Commercial papers and certificate of deposits are part of corporate debt
securities
3) In case of a repo transaction, the security acts as a collateral and mitigates
the credit risk that the seller has on the buyer.
[a] 1 and 2
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 2 only
[e] 3 only

D
Q.97) Recently, SEBI issued a Framework for upstreaming of all client funds
received by stock brokers to clearing corporations. With regards to this, identify
the incorrect statement(s):
1) This Framework will come into effect from July 1, 2023
2) The form in which the clients’ funds are to be up streamed are – cash, lien
on Fixed Deposit Receipt as well as pledge of units of Mutual Fund Overnight
Schemes (MFOS)
3) In case of up streaming via pledge on MFOS units, clients’ funds should be
deployed into overnight risk-free corporate bond securities
[a] 1 and 2
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 2 only
[e] 3 only

E
Q.98) Which of the following correctly defines takeout loans?
[a] A takeout loan refers to the purchase infrastructure loans given by commercial
banks from their book by specially created infrastructure lending institutions.
[b] A takeout loan is a way to finance one’s borrowings by taking loan from multiple
financiers
[c] It is a loan that is taken against one’s insurance policies
[d] It is a kind of loan that does not provide ownership control to the lender
[e] These are loans that are borrowed for covering the shortage of finance for
temporary or occasional requirements.

A
Q.99) Identify the correct statement(s):
1) P-Notes are instruments which are issued overseas by a foreign institutional
investor against securities held by it that are listed or proposed to be listed on
any recognized stock exchange in India
2) SEBI has no jurisdiction over participatory note trading
3) P-Notes eliminates the use of foreign funds for money laundering or other illegal
activity

[a] 1 and 2
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 2 only A
[e] 3 only
Q.100) Which of the following correctly outlines the features of GOI’s ‘Sovereign
Gold Bond Scheme’?
1) It was launched in November 2015
2) To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector
3) To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports

[a] 1 and 2
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 2 only
[e] 3 only C
Q.101) Recently (June 2023), the RBI released its publication ‘Deposits with
Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) – March 2023’ on its Database on Indian
Economy (DBIE) portal. According to this, which state topped in the total amount of
deposits during FY23?

[a] Maharashtra
[b] Andhra Pradesh
[c] Rajasthan
[d] Gujarat
[e] Kerala A
Q.102) According to the RBI’s ‘Quarterly Basic Statistical Returns (BSR)-1:
Outstanding Credit of Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs), March 2023’, which state
has the highest share in total bank credit?

[a] Andhra Pradesh

[b] Maharashtra
[c] Rajasthan
[d] Gujarat B
[e] Kerala
Q.103) Recently (June 2023), the Appointments Committee of Cabinet approved
the appointment of the new Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank. With
reference to this, consider and identify the incorrect answer:
1) The Appointments Committee of Cabinet is headed by the Prime Minister
2) J. Swaminathan will be the new Deputy Governor of RBI
3) Deputy Governors of RBI are appointed for a tenure of 7 years

[a] 1 and 2
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 2 only
[e] 3 only B
Q.104) Recently (June 2023), the RBI announced the issuance of the Sovereign
Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme 2023-24. With reference to this, identify the correct
answer:
1) SGB Scheme 2023-24 Series I will be issued at a price of ₹5,876 per gram of
gold for investors subscribing online and paying through digital mode.
2) Small Finance Banks cannot sell SGBs
3) Both issuance price and redemption price are based on the simple average
of closing gold price of 995 purity of previous 3 business days as published
by IBJA
[a] 1 and 2
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 2 only
[e] 3 only

A
Q.105) Identify the incorrect statement(s) related to the salient features of
Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme:

1) SGBs can be subscribed by individuals, NRIs, HUFs, Trusts, Universities as

well as Charitable Institutions
2) For an HUF, the maximum subscription limit under the SGB scheme is 4 kg
3) SGB Scheme offers a fixed rate of 2.5% payable annually on the nominal
value
4) Payment for subscribing to SGB can be done through cash to a maximum
amount of Rs 20,000

D
[a] 1 and 2
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1, 2 and 4
[d] 1 and 3
[e] 3 only

D
Q.106) Consider and identify the correct answer with regards to the Priority
Distribution Model (PDM):

1) PDM allows one class of investors share loss more than pro rata to their
holding in the AIF vis-à-vis other classes of investors
2) Under PDM, one class of investor can exit earlier than other by paying a
premium
3) In case of loss, investors in the junior tranche take higher losses than the
senior tranche investors
[a] 1 only
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 3 only
[d] 1 and 3
[e] 1 and 2

E
Q.107) Identify the correct statement with regards to the Alternative
Investment Fund (AIF):
1) AIFs are regulated by AMFI
2) Investment in those startups that are socially and economically viable will fall
under Category I of AIF
3) Investment with the objective of gaining short term returns by employing
complex trading strategies such as Hedge Funds will fall under Category III of
AIF

[a] 1 only
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 3 only B
[d] 1 and 3
[e] 1 and 2
Q.108) Recently (June 2023), SEBI revised the rules about investment in
mutual funds (MF) made in the name of a minor through a guardian. With
reference to this, consider the following and identify the correct answer:
1) The changes were made based on the recommendation of the Mutual Fund
Advisory Committee, headed by Usha Thorat
2) Under the new rule, payment for investment in mutual funds can be done
either through the minor account or a joint account of the minor with
parent or legal guardian
3) Redemption of the MF investment can happen through any bank account -
minor, parent or legal guardian of the minor, or a joint account of the minor
with parent or legal guardian
[a] 1 only
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 3 only
[d] 1 and 3
[e] 1 and 2

A
Q.109) Recently (June 2023), SEBI introduced a
stricter timeline for listed companies to fill up the
vacancies of their Key Managerial Personnels
(KMPs). With reference to this, consider and
identify the incorrect statement(s): [a] 1 only
1) All listed companies are now required to fill up [b] 2 and 3
the vacancies of KMPs within 2 months [c] 3 only
2) In order to incorporate this, changes will be [d] 1 and 3
made to the ICDR (Issue of Capital and Disclosure [e] 1 and 2
Requirements) Regulations
3) Unlisted companies still continue to comply with
the 6 months window provided under the
Companies Act 2013 for filling the vacancies of
E
KMPs
Q.110) Which of the following are the eligible instruments for trading by Online
Bond Platform Providers (OBPPs):
1) 91-day T-bills
2) Unlisted municipal debt securities
3) State Development Loans
4) Sovereign Gold Bonds issued under SGB Scheme of RBI

[a] 1 only
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1, 2 and 4
[d] 1, 3 and 4 D
[e] 3 and 4
Q.111) Recently (June 2023), the Swiss people voted for introducing Global
Minimum Tax (GMT) in their country in accordance with the norms laid down by
OECD. With reference to this, identify the correct answer:
1) Introducing GMT will ensure that Switzerland will have more tax revenue than it
had earlier
2) OECD has prescribed a minimum GMT of 15%
3) GMT will be applicable on those MNEs having annual global revenues of over 20
billion Euros

[a] 1 only
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 1 and 2 D

[e] 3 only
Q.112) Recently (June 2023), National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and
Development (NaBFID) raised ________ in its 1st bond issue. It will be an
__________ non-convertible debt security issued at an annualized coupon rate of
7.43% for a _____ year-tenure.
Fill in the blanks.

[a] ₹10,000 crore; secured; 10

[b] ₹5,000 crore; unsecured; 5
[c] ₹10,000 crore; unsecured; 10
[d] ₹5,000 crore; secured; 10 C
[e] ₹15,000 crore; secured; 15
Q.113) Which of the following correctly defines Combi products?

[a] These are those products that offers a combination of life and fire insurance.
[b] These are those products that offers a combination of insurance and
investment.
[c] These are those products that offers a combination of different insurance
coverages.
[d] These are those products that offers a combination of insurance and
pension products.
[e] These are those products that offers a combination of insurance, investment
and pension products.
C
Q.114) Identify the incorrect statement(s) with reference to the Liberalised
Remittance Scheme (LRS):
1) It was introduced by Ministry of Finance in 2004
2) The Scheme is available to resident individuals, corporates, partnership firms,
HUF, Trusts etc.
3) Under LRS, both resident individual and minor combined can freely remit up
to USD 2,50,000 per FY

[a] 3 only
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 1 and 2
[e] All of the above
E
Q.115) Consider the following and identify the correct
statement with regards to the recent (June 2023)
development in sending remittances to IFSC under the
Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS): [a] 3 only
1) Any resident individual can now send USD 1 Lakh [b] 2 and 3
over and above the USD 2,50,000 limit per FY [c] 1 and 3
under LRS for payment of fees to foreign [d] 1 and 2
universities located in IFSCs [e] 1 only
2) The courses offered by foreign universities in IFSC
include STEM subjects only
3) For making investment in securities under LRS,
resident individuals are allowed to open a non-
interest-bearing FCA Account in IFSCs
A
Q.116) Recently (June 2023), the RBI has issued the
final Master Direction on Minimum Capital
Requirements for Operational Risk. With regards to
this, identify the correct statement(s): [a] 1 only
1) Operational Risk includes legal, strategic and [b] 2 and 3
reputational risk [c] 2 and 4
2) This Master Direction will not be applicable to [d] 1 and 3
Small Finance Banks and Regional Rural Banks [e] 2, 3 and 4
3) The Master Direction has replaced the existing
norm for measuring minimum Operational Risk
Capital (ORC) with the new BI Approach
4) The new Standardised Approach will be based on 3
components
C
Q.117) Which of the following is a ‘significant
benchmark’ that will be administered by FBIL w.e.f. [a] 1 only
July 2023? [b] 1 and 2
1) Treasury Bill Rates [c] 2 and 4
2) Modified Mumbai Interbank Futures Outright Rate [d] 1 and 3
(MMIFOR) [e] 1, 2 and 3
3) Overnight Mumbai Interbank Outright Rate
(MIBOR)
4) Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR)

D
Q.118) Recently (June 2023), Dr. Michael Debabrata Patra, Deputy Governor, RBI
inaugurated the Sub-office of the Reserve Bank in _____________.

[a] Dimapur, Nagaland

[b] Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh
[c] Kohima, Nagaland
[d] Dispur, Assam
[e] Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh

C
Q.119) With which of the following department, will the Sub-office in Kohima begin
its functioning with?
1) Financial Inclusion and Development Department (FIDD)
2) Consumer Education and Protection Cell (CEPC)
3) Currency Management
4) Market Intelligence Cell (MIC)

[a] 1 and 2
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 3 and 4 D
[d] 1, 2 and 4
[e] 1, 2 and 3
Q.120) Recently, the RBI has released the data on India’s balance of payments (BoP)
during FY23. With reference to this, identify the correct statement(s):
1) In FY23, there was a Current Account Deficit (CAD) of 2% of GDP
2) Net FDI inflows in FY23 was higher than last year
3) In FY23, there was an accretion of US$ 9.1 billion in the FOREX Reserves

[a] 1 only
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
A
[d] 1 and 2
[e] 3 only
Q.121) Identify the incorrect statement:
1) Current Account Deficit (CAD) is an important signal of competitiveness of the
economy
2) A higher CAD means higher level of domestic consumption
3) CAD can be corrected with appreciation of the Rupee as well as improved
competitiveness over time

[a] 1 only
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 1 and 2
[e] 3 only E
Q.122) Recently, the Reserve Bank released data on the performance of the private
corporate sector during 2022-23. With reference to this, identify the incorrect
statement(s):
1) During FY23, manufacturing sector recorded 18% growth
2) There was an increase in manufacturing companies’ expenses on raw material
and employees due to deteriorating demand conditions
3) Interest Coverage Ratio is the ratio of Interest Expense to EBIT

[a] 1 only
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 1 and 2
[e] 3 only B
Q.123) Consider the following and identify the incorrect statement(s) with regards
to FOREX Reserves of India:
1) Gold Reserve has the highest component in India’s FOREX Reserves
2) Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) in mainly expressed in SDR
3) Chinese Renminbi is a part of the calculation of Special Drawing Rights (SDR) of
IMF

[a] 1 only
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 1 and 2
D
[e] 3 only
 Foreign Exchange (FOREX/ FX) Reserves
These are assets held on reserve by a central bank in the form of foreign currencies, bonds,
treasury bills and other government securities.
India’s Forex Reserve include:
1. Foreign Currency Assets (FCA): These are assets valued in currency other than the domestic
currency. FCA is the largest component of the Forex Reserve and is mainly expressed in
Dollar terms.
2. Gold reserves
3. Special Drawing Rights (SDR): SDR is an international reserve asset, created by IMF in 1969
to supplement its member countries’ official reserves. The value of SDR is calculated from a
weighted basket of 5 currencies – the US Dollar, British Pound, Euro, Japanese Yen and
Chinese Renminbi.
4. Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) with International Monetary Fund (IMF): RTP is basically an
emergency account that IMF members can access at any time without agreeing to
conditions or paying a service fee.
Q.124) Which of the following is correctly associated with the term ‘Taper
Tantrum’?
1) Taper Tantrum is an outcome of the US Fed Decision to reduce its asset purchase
programme, resulting in sudden sell-off in global bonds and stocks.
2) Due to Taper Tantrum, India’s currency will experience weakening against the US
Dollar
3) Due to Taper Tantrum, there are chances of lower imported inflation in India

[a] 3 only
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 1 and 2 D
[e] 1 only
Q.125) Recently (June 2023), the RBI imposed a monetary penalty of Rs
______________ on Standard Chartered Bank-India for non-compliance with RBI’s
directions on KYC.

[a] ₹10.00 lakh

[b] ₹15.00 lakh
[c] ₹20.00 lakh
[d] ₹30.00 lakh E
[e] ₹50.00 lakh
Q.128) ____________ is a bank which is recognized as a bank capable of providing
Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA) services to its customers.

[a] Scheduled Commercial Banks

[b] Self-Certified Syndicate Bank
[c] Syndicate Bank
[d] State Bank of India B
[e] Axis Bank
Q.129) Recently (June 2023), ________ unveiled a new identity/ logo for Gift Nifty
at IFSC Gift City, Gujarat.

[a] BSE International Exchange

[b] NSE International Exchange (NSE
IX)
[c] IICCL
[d] India International Exchange LTd. B
[e] Multi commodity Exchange Ltd.
Q.130) Recently, buyers of PSU shares were exempted from Gift Tax. With regards
to this, identify the correct statement(s):
1) The exemption was given by the Union Finance Ministry
2) Such exemption will be given if equity shares in PSUs are acquired through
strategic disinvestment
3) Gift tax is applicable when book value exceeds the fair market value

[a] Only 1
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 1 and 2 B

[e] 3 only
Q.131) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about monetary policy
stances of RBI.
1. An accommodative monetary policy creates an enabling environment for weak
banks to evergreen loans to zombies.
2. The RBI has been following an accommodative policy since March 2022 till now.
3. Accommodative monetary policy includes continuous increase in policy rates for
3 consecutive quarters.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 1 only
[c] 2 and 3 only C
[d] All of the above
[e] 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.132) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about debt recovery
tribunals?
1) The country currently has 39 Debts Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) and 5 Debt
Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs).
2) A standard haircut is given by banks to all borrowers in case of loan
reconstruction.
3) The Debts Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) and Debts Recovery Appellate
Tribunals (DRATs) were established under the SARFAESI Act 2002.

[a] 1 and 3 only

[b] 1 only
[c] 2 and 3 only
B
[d] All of the above
[e] 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.133) Which of the following statement is/are correct about the loan against
FD?
1. This makes it an excellent tool for mitigating frequent liquidity and cash
flow mismatches.
2. Under these loans the borrower has to close his/her FD account to avail
loan.
3. The loan must be repaid before the FD matures.

[a] 2 and 3 only

[b] 2 only
[c] 1 and 3 only
[d] 3 only C
[e] All of the above
Q.134) In order to deepen financial inclusion in the country, recently, the RBI
launched a financial inclusion dashboard named _____________

[a] VITIYE SAMAVESHAN

[b] ADHIKARITA
[c] SAMAVESHITA
[d] ANTARDRISHTI
[e] SARVABHOMIK
D
Q.135) अंतर्दृष्टि (ANTARDRISHTI) is a dashboard recently launched in India. Consider
and identify the correct statements with regards to ANTARDRISHTI:
1) It is meant to gauge the extent of financial exclusion at granular levels across the
country
2) It is intended for external use by all the stakeholders of an economy
3) It has been launched by RBI in collaboration with the GOI

[a] Only 1
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 3 only
[d] All 3 are correct
[e] All 3 are incorrect
A
Q.136) Identify the incorrect statement(s):
1) Instructions on Cyber Resilience and Digital Payment (DP) Security Controls
needs to be implemented by medium non-bank PSOs by April 2027.
2) Cross-border (in-bound) Money Transfer Operators are medium non-bank
PSOs
3) Card Payment Networks, TReDS operator, Non-bank ATM Networks, large PPI
issuers are all examples of PSOs operating in India

[a] Only 1
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 2 only
[e] All 3 are correct A
Q.137) Identify the correct statement(s) regarding G20 international conference
on Cyber Security Exercise for Banking sector:
1) Recently, an international conference on cyber security for banking sector
was conducted in Hyderabad
2) Under this, the keynote address was given by RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das
3) The event also had participation from IMF And BIS

[a] Only 1
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 2 only E
[e] 3 only
Q.138) Recently, the Committee for Review of Customer Service Standards in RBI
Regulated Entities (REs) submitted its report to the RBI. Who chaired the
Committee?

[a] Shri B.P. Kanungo

[b] Shri M.K. Jain
[c] Shri M.D. Patra
[d] Shri T. Rabi Sankar
[e] Shri M. Rajeshwar Rao
A
Q.139) Match the following:

Committees Formation Year

1. Talwar Committee on Customer Service i. 1990
2. Goiporia Committee ii. 2010
3. Tarapore Committee on Procedures and Performance Audit on iii. 1975
Public Services
4. Damodaran Committee on Customer Service iv. 2004

[a] 1(i), 2(ii), 3(iii), (iv)

[b] 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(iv), (i)
[c] 1(iii), 2(i), 3(iv), (ii)
[d] 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), (1)
[e] 1(i), 2(iv), 3(ii), (iii) C
Q.140) Which of the following is not a key recommendation of the Committee
for Review of Customer Service Standards in RBI Regulated Entities (REs)?
1) Progressively moving towards “prescriptive-based” regulation with
regard to customer service in the REs.
2) Developing and publishing “Regulated Entities Protection Index”
3) Extending DICGC to both bank and non-bank Prepaid Payment
Instruments (PPI) issuers

[a] Only 1
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 1 and 2 D
[e] 3 only
Q.141) Which of the following correctly defines Non-Deliverable Derivative
Contracts (NDDCs)?

[a] NDDC means a FOREX derivative contract involving the Rupee, entered
into with a non-resident person and settled without involving delivery of
the Rupee.
[b] NDDC means an Exchange trade derivate instrument wherein
commodity is transferred on the discretion of the put option holder
[c] NDDC is a currency swap agreement where notional amount is
transferred at the end of the exercise period
[d] NDDC means an OTC FOREX derivative contract in which there is no
delivery of the notional amount of the underlying currencies of the
contract and which is cash settled.
[e] None of the above D
Q.142) Recently, RBI issued an amended Master
Direction on Risk Management and Inter-Bank Dealings
related to Non-Deliverable Derivative Contracts [a] Only 1
(NDDCs). Identify the correct statement(s)
[b] 2 and 3
1) AD Cat-I banks operating IBU can now offer NDDCs to
[c] 1 and 3
both resident retail and non-retail users.
2) Transactions between AD Cat-I banks operating IBU [d] 1 and 2
and non-retail resident cannot be cash settled in INR. [e] 3 only
3) Cash settlement between two AD Cat-I banks can
happen in both INR or any foreign currency

E
Q.143) Which of the following is an institutional mechanism that was launched to
enable discounting of MSMEs trade receivables through multiple financiers?

[a] Receivables Factoring System

[b] Factor – Discounting Mechanism
[c] Trade Receivables Discounting System
[d] Receivables Exchange System
[e] Discounting Receivables Mechanism
C
Q.144) Consider and identify the correct statements with regards to the recent
enhancements made to TReDS?
1) Premium for insurance will be levied on the MSME seller
2) Settlement of TReDS transaction will be done through the NACH system
3) TReDS allows discounting of MSMEs receivables on recourse basis
4) Only banks that are permitted by RBI can participate as financiers in TReDS

[a] 1, 2 and 3
[b] 2, 3 and 4
[c] 1, 3 and 4
[d] 2 only D
[e] 1 only
Q.145) Recently, the securities market regulator came out with a proposal
mandating stricter and enhanced disclosures from high-risk category of Foreign
Portfolio Investors (FPIs). Which of the following correctly defines ‘high risk’ FPIs?
[a] FPIs with an exposure of more than 60% to a single group or with assets
of over Rs 50,000 crore will be tagged as ‘high risk’ FPIs.
[b] FPIs with an exposure of more than 50% to a single group or with assets
of over Rs 25,000 crore will be tagged as ‘high risk’ FPIs.
[c] FPIs with an exposure of more than 51% to a single group or with assets
of over Rs 25,000 crore will be tagged as ‘high risk’ FPIs.
[d] FPIs with an exposure of more than 75% to a single group or with assets
of over Rs 50,000 crore will be tagged as ‘high risk’ FPIs.
[e] FPIs with an exposure of more than 75% to a single group or with assets
of over Rs 75,000 crore will be tagged as ‘high risk’ FPIs.

B
Q. 146) Recently, IIT Madras Research Park (IIT MRP) and IIT Madras Incubation Cell
(IIT MIC) joined hands with _____________ to work on creating voice-driven
banking solutions.

[a] Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH)

[b] FinTech Department, RBI
[c] Axis Bank
[d] State Bank of India
[e] Kotak Mahindra Bank
A
Q.147) Consider and identify the correct statement(s):
1) Borrowing and lending in unsecured funds on overnight basis is called as
notice money
2) Trade executed on electronic trading platforms will form a part of the OTC
markets
3) Negotiated Dealing System-CALL is also an OTC market

[a] 1 and 2
[b] 2 and 3
[c] 1 and 3
[d] 2 only B
[e] 3 only
Q.148) Which of the following are eligible to participate as borrowers and lenders in
the Call, Notice and Term Money Markets?
1) Primary Dealers
2) Regional Rural Banks
3) Local Area Banks
4) Small Finance Banks
5) NBFI

[a] 1 and 2
[b] 2, 3 and 5
[c] 1, 2 and 4
[d] 2 and 4 only c
[e] 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.149) consider the following:
Assertion(A): Call, Notice and Term Money transactions are to be executed in Over-
the-Counter (OTC) markets
Reasoning(R): NDS-CALL platform or any other Electronic Trading Platform authorised
by the Reserve Bank are eligible OTC market for such trade execution

[a] Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
[b] Both A and R are correct and R is the incorrect explanation for A
[c] A is correct but R is incorrect
[d] A is incorrect but R is correct
[e] Both A and R are incorrect
A