Section 1 / MATHEMATICS

Oral Questions

1. Describe the result of adding a large positive number and smaller negative number.
Answer: The result is smaller positive number, and is the same as ignoring the signs and subtracting
the smaller number from the larger.

2. How do convert a fraction into a decimal?

Answer: Divide the top number (numerator) by the bottom number (denominator).

3. What is the key step that must be performed in order to add or subtract unlike fractions?
Answer: You must find the lowest (least) common denominator.

4. How do you divide one fraction by another?

Answer: You invert the divisor and multiply the numerators together and the denominators
together.

5. How can you convert a decimal into a percent?

Answer: (1) Multiply the decimal by f100 and add the percent sign. (2) Move the decimal point two
places to the right and add the percent sign.

6. How do you convert a fraction into a percent?

Answer: Convert it to a decimal, move the decimal point two places to the right and add the
percent sign.

7. How do you change a decimal into the nearest equivalent fraction?

Answer: Multiply the decimal by the desired denominator. The result becomes the numerator in
the fraction.

8. What are two different ways that a ratio may be expressed?

Answer: (1) As a fraction. 92) by placing a colon (:)between the two numbers. (3) By using the work
“to” between the two numbers.

9. What is the proportion?

Answer: A statement of equality between two or more ratios.

10. What is meant by the root of a number?

Answer: A root is two or more equal smaller numbers that, when multiplied together, equal the
specified number.
 Section 1 / MATHEMATICS

Oral Questions

11. How do you find the square of a number? Give an example.

Answer: Multiply the number by itself. Examples: 4 x 4 = 16, 7 x 7 = 49.

12. What is the common method of making computations involving very large or very small number
more manageable?
Answer: Convert the numbers into scientific notation by using powers of 10.

13. How is 100,000 expressed as a power of 10?

Answer: 105 (10 to the 5th power)

14. What formula is used to find the area of a rectangle and a of triangle?
Answer: For a rectangle, A= L x W, for a triangle, A= ½ (B x H)

15. Define Pi ()
Answer: Pi is a constant that expresses the relationship between the circumference of a circle and
its diameter and is approximately equal to 3.1416.

16. Describe a trapezoid

Answer : A trapezoid is a closed, four-sided figure having two parallel sides and two sides that are
not parallel.

17. What is the formula for computing the area of a circle?

Answer: A=
 Section 2 / PHYSICS

Oral Questions

1. Define Matter.
Answer: Any substance that occupies space and has mass.

2. Matter may exist in what three states?

Answer: Solid, liquid and gas.

3. Define kinetic energy.

Answer: Kinetic energy is the energy of motion.

4. Work is the product of what two factors?

Answer: Force and the distance moved.

5. What are the parts of a lever?

Answer: A rigid bar and a pivot point called the fulcrum.

6. A wheelbarrow is an example of what class of lever?

Answer: A second-class lever.

7. Are all three states of matter affected by thermal expansion and if so, which state is affected most?
Answer: All three states are affected, with gases being affected the most.

8. What is a British Thermal Unit?

Answer: The amount of heat energy required to change the temperature of 1 pound of water 1
degree Fahrenheit.

9. Name the three methods of heat transfer?

Answer: Conduction, convection and radiation.

10. What term defines the temperature at which all molecular motion ceases?
Answer: Absolute zero.

11. Can liquids be compressed?

Answer: No, liquids are generally considered incompressible.
 Section 2 / PHYSICS
Oral Questions

12. What are the customary units used to express hydraulic or pneumatic pressure in the United
States?
Answer: Pounds per square inch.

13. Describe how pressure is transmitted when a force is applied to a confined liquid.
Answer: Pressure is transmitted equally in all directions.

14. What formula expresses the relationship between force, pressure and area.
Answer: Force equals area times pressure.

15. What is the approximate speed of sound at sea levels on a standard day?
Answer: 661 knots or 340 meters per second.

16. What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level on a standard day?

Answer: 29.92 inches of Mercury or 1013.2 millibars.

17. On a standard day at sea level, what is the value for temperature?
Answer: 59°F or 15°C.

18. What are the factors that determine density altitude?

Answer: Temperature and atmospheric pressure.

19. What is the term used to describe the ratio between the amounts of moisture actually present in
the atmosphere as compared to the amount the air could hold if it were completely saturated?
Answer: Relative humidity

20. What are the four principle forces acting on an airplane in flight?
Answer: Lift, drag, thrust and gravity.

21. What is the term that describes the angle between the relative wind and the chord line of an
airfoil?
Answer: The Angle of Attack

22. What are the factors that cause an airplane wing to stall?
Answer: Stall is caused when the angle of attack exceeds a critical value and the airflow separates
from the upper surface and becomes turbulent.
 Section 2 / PHYSICS
Oral Questions

23. What are the principle effects that result from lowering the flaps while in flight?
Answer: Lift increases, drag increases and stall speed decreases.

24. What is the function of a wing mounted vortex generator?

Answer: Vortex generators delay or keep the airflow from separating from the upper surface of a
wing during high speed flight.

25. How does blade-flapping help to compensate for dissymmetry of lift in helicopter main rotor
systems?
Answer: Flapping increases the angle of attack and lift on the retreating blade and decreases the
angle of attack and lift on the advancing blade.

26. How does the airflow through the main rotor of helicopter change during the transition from
normal flight to autorotation?
Answer: During normal flight the air moves downward and during autorotation the air upward.

27. What is friction?

Answer: The opposition to relative motion between two objects in contact with each other.
 Section 3 / BASIC ELECTRICITY

Oral Questions

1. One kilowatt is equal to how many watts?

Answer: 1,000 watts.

2. What law describes the most fundamental or basic relationships in an electrical circuit?
Answer: Ohm’s law.

3. What are the three elements of Ohm’s law?

Answer: Voltage, current and resistance.

4. How would you write Ohm’s law as an equation?

Answer: E = I x R, R = E ÷ I, I = E ÷ R.

5. If the resistance in a DC circuit remains the same but the voltage doubles, what happens to the
amount of current flowing in the circuit?
Answer: It also doubles.

6. In DC circuits, what unit measures power?

Answer: Watts.

7. What three elements are required to form an electrical circuit?

Answer: A source of electrical energy, a load or resistance to use the electricity, and wires or
conductors to connect the source to the load.

8. DC circuits can take one of three forms or types. What are they?
Answer: Series, parallel and complex (or series-parallel)

9. A 24-volt lead-acid battery has how many cells?

Answer: Twelve.

10. A fully charged lead-acid battery has a specific gravity that varies between what two values?
Answer: 1.275 and 1.300.

11. You must apply a correction to the specific gravity reading of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery
when the temperature is outside of what two values?
Answer: Whenever the temperature is less than 70°F or more than 90°F.
 Section 3 / BASIC ELECTRICITY
Oral Questions

12. What is the reason for having separate facilities for storing and servicing nickel-cadmium and lead-
acid batteries?
Answer: The electrolyte in the two types of batteries is chemically opposite and the fumes from
one type can contaminate the electrolyte of the other type.

13. The state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery cannot be determined by measuring the specific
gravity of the electrolyte for what reason?
Answer: There is no significant change in the specific gravity of the electrolyte as the battery is
charged or discharged.

14. What is the principal advantage of AC current over DC current?

Answer: Power can be transmitted over long distances more efficiently and with smaller wires
because the voltage can be easily increased by transformer.

15. What are the tree causes of opposition to current flow in an AC circuit?
Answer: Resistance, inductive reactance and capacitive reactance.

16. Define inductance.

Answer: An induced voltage which is opposite in direction to the applied voltage.

17. What component creates capacitance in AC circuits?

Answer: A capacitor.

18. How does a capacitor store electricity?

Answer: The energy is stored in the form of an electrostatic charge or field that exists between two
conductors separated by an insulator.

19. What property of an AC circuit is defined by the term “impedance”?

Answer: The total opposition to current flow.

20. What are two reasons that might cause a nickel-cadmium battery to fail to deliver its rated
capacity?
Answer: Faulty cells or cell imbalance.

21. What electrical values are measured by a typical multimeter?

Answer: Voltage, current and resistance.
 Section 4 / ELECTRICAL GENERATORS AND MOTORS

There are no FAA Oral and Practical test questions regarding Electrical Motor and
Generator questions in the General mechanic Exam. These subjects are included in the
Airframe and Powerplant O&Ps.
 Section 5 / AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS

Oral Questions

1. How many views are required to represent the important details of most aircraft parts?
Answer: One, two or three views are usually enough.

2. What kinds of parts can be represented by one-view drawings?

Answer: Parts with uniform thickens such as shims, plates and gaskets.

3. What is the name for a part of a drawing used to bring out important details and how is it drawn?
Answer: A detailed view, which is usually drawn to a larger scale than the main drawing.

4. What is the purpose of schematic diagrams?

Answer: They are primarily used for troubleshooting systems.

5. Describe an orthographic projection.

Answer: It is a way of drawing an object using different views at right angles to each other, such as
a top, front, and side view.

6. Why do manufacturers use symbols on aircraft drawings?

Answer: Symbols are a form of shorthand and are used to convey the characteristics of a
component with a minimum of drawing.

7. Describe the appearance of lines used to show hidden views, alternate positions and the middle of
symmetrical objects, and give their proper name.
Answer: Hidden views are shown with hidden lines, which are short, evenly spaced dashes.
Alternate positions are shown with phantom lines made up of light, alternating long dashes and
two short dashes. Center lines, consisting of alternating long and short dashes, snow the middle of
symmetrical objects.

8. How can you determine if a drawing has been changed?

Answer: A record of the changes is listed either in a revision block or in ruled columns, which may
be in a corner of the drawing or next to the title block.

9. How are dimension shown on aircraft drawing, and what is their purpose?
Answer: Dimension lines are usually solid and generally broken at the midpoint for insertion of the
measurement. They prove a means to accurately represent the size of an object.
 Section 5 / AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS
Oral Questions

10. What is the difference between an “allowance” and “tolerance”?

Answer: An allowance is the difference between the nominal dimension and the maximum and
minimum permissible sizes. The tolerance is the difference between the extreme permissible
dimensions, which may be found by adding the plus and minus allowances.

11. What is meant by “clearance” when used on aircraft drawings?

Answer: An allowable dimension between two parts.

12. What kinds of information about an aircraft drawing can be found in the title block?
Answer: The part of assembly name, drawing size, scale, date, company name, name or initials of
the people responsible for creating or approving the drawing.

13. What information is contained in a “bill of materials”?

Answer: A list of materials and parts needed to fabricate or assemble the component or system
shown in the drawing.
 Section 6 / WEIGHT AND BALANCE

Oral Questions

1. If an aircraft is loaded so that the aft C.G limit is exceeded, what undesirable flight characteristic is
likely to result?
Answer: The aircraft will be tail-heavy and may be unable to recover from a stall or spin.

2. If all the records for an aircraft are missing, how would you determine the empty weight and empty
weight C.G>?
Answer: The aircraft would have to be weighed, and balance records would have to be prepared.

3. Define “tare weight” and describe how it is handled when weighing an aircraft.
Answer: Tare weight is the weight of anything on the scales that is not part of the aircraft. It must
be subtracted from the scale weight reading to determine the net weight of the airplane.

4. If a piece of equipment such as a radio is added to an aircraft, how can you determine the effect on
weight and balance without re-weighting the aircraft?
Answer: If the weight and balance records are up to date, a new weight and C.G. location can be
determined by computation.

5. Why is control of the weight and balance of an aircraft important?

Answer: To provide maximum safety and performance.

6. What is the datum of an aircraft and what is its function?

Answer: The datum is an imaginary vertical plane at right angles to the longitudinal axis of the
airplane. It is the reference point from which all horizontal measurements are taken.

7. How do you determine the moment of an item of equipment?

Answer: The weight of the item is multiplied by its arm, which is the distance between the item and
the datum.

8. What are two ways of determining the arm of an item of equipment?

Answer: Measure the distance between the item and the datum, or use data supplied by the
manufacturer.

9. What should be done to obtain a positive (plus) moment aft of the datum?
Answer: Add weight.
 Section 6 / WEIGHT AND BALANCE
Oral Questions

10. What should be done to obtain a negative (minus) moment aft of the datum?
Answer: Remove weight.

11. What should be done to obtain a positive (plus) moment forward of the datum?
Answer: Remove Weight

12. What should be done to obtain a negative (minus) moment forward of the datum?
Answer: Add weight.

13. How does the category of an aircraft affect its loaded weight?
Answer: Aircraft certificated in more than one category, such as Normal and Aerobatic, may have
two different maximum gross weights and different useful loads.

14. As you prepare an aircraft for weighing, you determine that there is equipment aboard that is not
permanently installed and recorded on the equipment list. What should you do with this
equipment?
Answer: All equipment not permanently installed in the aircraft or included on the equipment list
should be removed from the aircraft.

15. Define the term “residual fuel”.

Answer: Any fuel that remains in the tanks, lines, and engines, after the system has been drained.

16. Define the term “residual oil”

Answer: Any oil that remains in the tanks, lines, and engines, after the system has been drained.

17. How should you account for fuel when weighing an aircraft to determine weight and balance?
Answer: Either drain the fuel system until only unusable fuel remains, or fill the tanks full and
subtract out the weight of the useable fuel.

18. Where are leveling instructions found, and describe one method of leveling an aircraft?
Answer: Leveling instructions are found in the Type Certificate Date Sheets. An aircraft may be
leveled by using a spirit level at specified points, or an aircraft may be leveled by using a plumb bob
from a designated point along with a leveling scale or protractor.
 Section 6 / WEIGHT AND BALANCE
Oral Questions

19. Define the term “Mean Aerodynamic Chord” or MAC.

Answer: Mean Aerodynamic Chord is the chord drawn through the center of the wing plan area.

20. Describe the two most common ways of showing the C.G. location and /or C.G. range.
Answer: In inches from the datum or in percent or MAC.

21. What is the purpose of an aircraft loading graph?

Answer: It is a method for determining how to distribute the load so as to keep the C.G. within
allowable limits.

22. What is ballast, and why would you use it in an airplane?

Answer: Ballast is weight added to an airplane to bring its C.G. into the allowable or desired range.

23. Installation of several new radios in the nose of an aircraft causes the forward C.G. limit to be
exceeded. How can you correct this problem without removing the new equipment?
Answer: Ballast may be installed in the tail to move the C.G. aft.

24. How does the C.G. range of a helicopter compare to that of a fixed-wing airplane?
Answer: Helicopters typically have a much smaller C.G. range.
 Section 7 / AIRCRAFT STRUCTURAL MATERIALS

Oral Questions

1. How do you work harden a piece of metal?

Answer: By cold working the metal.

2. Describe the primary difference between a thermosetting and a thermoplastic resin.

Answer: A thermosetting resin doesn’t soften when heated and chars or burns rather than melting.
Thermoplastic resins become soft and pliable when heated, and harden when cooled.

3. Explain how thermoplastic and thermosetting resins are commonly used in modern aircraft.
Answer: Plexiglas is a thermoplastic resin commonly used for windshields and windows.
Thermosetting resins are most often used as the matrix material in composite structures.

4. Name one of the types of resin commonly used as a matrix material for aircraft composite
laminates.
Answer: Polyester resin or Epoxy resin.

5. What are some of the materials that are commonly used as the reinforcing component in a
composite structure?
Answer: Fiberglass, Aramid (Kevlar), Graphite (Carbon) fiber, linen and paper.

6. What are the reasons that alloy steel that is responsive to heat treatment is usually less suitable for
welding?
Answer: It may become brittle and lose its ductility in the area of the weld.

7. Give one advantage of prep-preg (pre-impregnated) materials, other than saving time in the
construction or repair of composite components.
Answer: (1) Pre-preg fabrics contain the correct amount of matrix. (2) The matrix material evenly
and completely permeates the reinforcing fibers. (3) The matrix has the resin and hardener in the
correct proportions.
 Section 8 / HAND TOOLS AND MEASURING DEVICES
Oral Questions

1. What is indicated by the markings on the heads of solid shank rivets?

Answer: The material that they are made of, and indirectly, their strength.

2. How can you keep heat treated aluminum alloy rivets soft enough to install after the quenching
process?
Answer: If the rivets are stored in a freezer they will remain soft for several days.

3. What is the grip length of a bolt?

Answer: The length of the unthreaded portion.

4. In what way are AN standard steel bolts identified?

Answer: By the code markings on the bolts head.

5. What is the difference between a close tolerance bolt and a general purpose bolt?
Answer: Close tolerance bolts are machined to more accurate dimensions.

6. For what type of applications are self-locking nuts not allowed?

Answer: Self-locking nuts may not be used when either the bolt or the nut is subject to rotation.

7. If the maintenance procedures do not specify a torque value for a bolt or nut, how can you
determine the proper values?
Answer: Consult a standard torque table such as found in AC 43.13-1B.

8. What is the most commonly used type of aircraft control cable?

Answer: Extra flexible 7 x 19 stainless steel cable.
 Section 9 / HAND TOOLS AND MEASURING DEVICES

Oral Questions

1. What type of precision measuring instruments can be used to measure the outside dimensions of
aircraft parts?
Answer: Outside micrometers and vernier calipers.

2. For what reasons should a micrometer be periodically calibrated?

Answer: If dropped, its accuracy may be affected, OR if the spindle is over-tightened, the frame
may be sprung, OR Continually sliding objects between the anvil and the spindle may wear the
surfaces.
 Section 10 / FLUID LINES AND FITTINGS

Oral Questions

1. What are the two types of fluid lines commonly found in aircraft?
Answer: Rigid metal lines and flexible hoses.

2. Describe the method of classifying metal tube according to size.

Answer: Metal tubing is sized according to wall thickness and outside diameter. Outside diameter
is measured in 1/16th inch increments.

3. When installing stainless steel tubing, what type of fittings should be used?
Answer: Stainless steel fittings.

4. What is the function of the sleeve on a flared-tube fitting?

Answer: the nut fits over the sleeve and draws the sleeve and the tubing flare tightly against the
male fitting to form the seal.

5. Describe the two types of flares commonly used on aircraft tubing.

Answer: The single flare and the double flare.

6. How can you determine if a fitting is an AN type rather than AC type?

Answer: AN fittings have a shoulder between the flare cone and the end of the thread, AC fitting do
not.

7. What are the most significant differences between AN and AC fittings?

Answer: Sleeve length, thread pitch, and the shoulder between the threads and the flare con on AN
fitting.
8. What are the names of the parts of a flareless tube fitting?
Answer: The nut and the ferrule or sleeve.

9. How do you tell a flareless fitting forma flare-type fitting?

Answer: Flareless fittings don’t have a flare cone and there is no space between the threads and
the end of the fitting.

10. What is the effect of over-tightening a flare type fitting?

Answer: The sealing surface may be damaged or the flare cut off.
 Section 10 / FLUID LINES AND FITTINGS
Oral Questions

11. In addition to being securely clamped, what is an additional requirement for installing metal fuel,
oil and hydraulic lines?
Answer: The lines must be electrically bonded to the structure.

12. What are some of the important advantages of Teflon tubing?

Answer: It is compatible with nearly every liquid, has a broad operating temperature range, low
resistance to fluid flow and has a very long shelf and service life.

13. Describe the identification marking commonly found on flexible hoses.

Answer: A lay line, identification such as Mil Specs number, the manufacturer’s name or symbol,
the hose size and a date code.

14. How can you determine if a flexible hose has been correctly or incorrectly installed?
Answer: The lay line will be straight if the hose is properly installed. A twisted lay line indicates an
incorrect installation.

15. How are flexible hose sizes designated?

Answer: By the inside diameter, measured in 1/16th inch increments.

16. What precautions must be observed when deburring the end of a tube after it is cut?
Answer: The wall thickness must not be reduced in size or fractured.

17. Describe the operation of quick disconnect couplings.

Answer: Each half has a valve that is held open when coupled and is spring –loaded closed when
disconnected.

18. If you fabricate a replacement for a flexible hose, what percentage of the total length must be
added to allow for movement under pressure?
Answer: 5 to 8 percent.

19. What happens to the tube when a flareless fitting is overtightened?

Answer: The tube is weakened when the nut drives the cutting edge of the sleeve too deeply into
the tube.
 Section 10 / FLUID LINES AND FITTINGS

Oral Questions

20. Why are quick disconnect fittings used?

Answer: To provide a quick means to connect or disconnect a fluid line without loss of fluid or
entrance of air into the system.
 Section 11 / NONDESTRUCTIVE TESTING

Oral Questions

1. Describe the steps involved in a dye penetrant inspection.

Answer: The surface is cleaned, and then penetrant is applied and allowed to dwell for a specified
time. The penetrant is then removed with an emulsifier or cleaner. Once removed, the part is
dried and then developer is applied. The results are then inspected and interpreted.

2. Name some tools that are commonly used to assist in making visual inspections of welds.
Answer: A magnifying glass, flashlight, mirror and, possibly, a borescope.

3. What are some of the non-destructive testing methods that may be used on aluminum parts?
Answer: Visual, dye penetrant, eddy current, ultrasonic testing and radiography.

4. What process occurs during the preparation stage of a dye penetrant inspection when the
penetrating liquid is applied, and then removed from a cracked part?
Answer: The penetrant enters the crack by capillary action and remains there until made visible by
the developer.

5. A correctly made butt weld will have what bead width and how much penetration?
Answer: The bead width should be 3 to 5 times the thickness of the base metal and there must be
100% penetration.

6. What telltale characteristics are evidence of a cold weld?

Answer: A cold weld has rough, irregular edges that are not feathered into the base metal and has
variations in penetration amounts.

7. The penetration of a fillet weld should be what percentage of the thickness of the base metal?
Answer: 25 to 50 percent.

8. Describe the basic steps for conducting a magnetic particle inspections.

Answer: Magnetize the part, then coat the surface with ferromagnetic particles. If a defect or
discontinuity is present, the particles align with the discontinuity forming a demagnetize visible
pattern.
 Section 12 / CLEANING AND CORROSION

Oral Questions

1. Is there any requirement for cleaning an aircraft prior to an annual or 100 hour inspection?
Answer: It is not only good, common sense, but it is a legal requirement as specified in FAR Par 43,
Appendix D.

2. Discuss the general precautions that should be observed when washing an airplane.
Answer: Avoid or protect areas, which may be damaged or contaminated, such as: Pitot and static
ports, hinges, sealed areas, and bearings.

3. What are some of the more common light-duty cleaning agents?

Answer: Soap or detergents and water.

4. What materials are commonly used as heavy duty cleaners?

Answer: Solvents and emulsions.

5. What are the preferred cleaners for plastic surfaces such as windshields?
Answer: Mild soap and water or manufacturer approved cleaner.

6. What type of cleaning agents should be used to remove grease, oil or fuel from aircraft tires?
Answer: Soap and water

7. Give at least three examples of the factors that cause or influence corrosion.
Answer: (1) The environmental conditions (2) The presence of dissimilar metals. (3) The type of
metal. (4) The presence of electrolytes and/ or contaminants. (5) The condition of protective
coatings.

8. Name at least three forms of corrosion.

Answer: (1) Surface. (2) Intergranular. (3) Filliform. (4) Dissimilar metal (or galvanic). (5) Oxidation.
(6) Stress. (8) Fretting.

9. Name at least one cause of filliform corrosion.

Answer: (1) Improper or incomplete curing of a wash primer prior to painting. (2) Failure to
completely wash off acidic surface contamination.

10. What are the visible signs of filliform corrosion?

Answer: Blistered paint surfaces or worm or thread-like tracks or patterns under the paint.
 Section 12 / CLEANING AND CORROSION
Oral Questions

11. What are the two primary factors that may cause development of stress corrosion cracks?
Answer: A corrosive environment and sustained tensile stress.

12. What are the visible signs of fretting corrosion?

Answer: The corrosion residue has a dark, smoky appearance and often appears around and
streaming back from rivet heads.

13. Why are piano-type hinges prime spots for corrosion?

Answer: The steel pin and aluminum hinge material are dissimilar metals and he hinge design tends
to trap moisture and contaminants.

14. What is the best way to protect piano hinges from corrosion?
Answer- Keep them clean and properly lubricated.

15. Provide at least four examples of procedures used to prevent corrosion.

Answer: (1) Cleaning (2) Lubrication (3) Treatment (4) Sealing (5) Inspection (6) Installing
protective covers (7) Keeping drain holes free and clear.

16. Describe the tools that should be used to remove corrosion from anodized aluminum surfaces.
Answer: Nylon scrubber pads such as Scotch-Brite TM, bristle brushes, aluminum wool or
aluminum wire brushes.

17. Describe the effects of using steel brushes or steel wool to remove corrosion from aluminum
surfaces.
Answer: Steel brushes or steel wool must not be used to clean aluminum because steel particles
can become embedded in the aluminum and cause corrosion.

18. What is the purpose of Alodine?

Answer: Alodine is a chemical process that deposits a protective film on aluminum alloys. This film
improve corrosion resistance and paint adhesion.

19. For what reason should you avoid cleaning anodized aluminum surfaces with aluminum metal
polish?
Answer: Aluminum metal polish should not be used on anodized aluminum surfaces because it will
remove the anodize.
 Section 12 / CLEANING AND CORROSION
Oral Questions

20. Why should aircraft fabrics and plastics be cleaned only with recommended cleaners?
Answer: Recommended cleaners cause the least amount of deterioration or damage.

21. List at least five examples of areas in an aircraft that are prone to corrosion.
Answer: (1) Battery compartments (2) Exhaust trail areas (3) Bilge areas (4) Vent areas (5) Landing
gear and wells (6) Fuel Tanks (7) Wing flap recesses (8) Around and below galleys and lavatories (9)
Piano Hinges (10) Any area that can trap water.
 Section 13 / GROUND HANDLING AND SERVICING

Oral Questions

1. Name at least three possible hazards that may be encountered during typical ground operations,
such as during engine run-up or taxiing?
Answer: The possibility of fire, especially during engine starting. Turning props, rotors, prop or jet
blast and inlet areas. Other aircraft, vehicles, people and obstacles. Foreign objects such as rocks,
gravel, rags, or loose hardware. High noise levels that might cause hearing damage. Hydraulic lock
in radial engines. Weathervaning of tailwheel aircraft.

2. What is the most generally used knot for tying down small aircraft?
Answer: The bowling (although other anti-slip knots may be used).

3. Describe the precautions that should be taken to protect life and property while starting and
running an aircraft engine.
Answer: Study the procedures in the Airplane Fight Manual. Be sure the propeller or inlet area is
clear and check for loose stones, gravel, etc. that could be sucked into the prop or engine. Also
ensure that the prop or jet blast doesn’t blow into hangars or other airplanes, and have a fire guard
nearby.

4. If an engine induction fire occurs while starting a reciprocating engine, what procedure should be
followed to extinguish the fire?
Answer: Continue cranking the engine to start it and suck the fire into the engine. If the engine
doesn’t start and the fire continues to burn, discontinue the start attempt and extinguish the fire
with a suitable fire extinguisher.

5. What safety procedures must be observed when had-propping a small aircraft engine?
Answer: Become thoroughly trained. Have a qualified person in the cockpit, check the brakes, call
“SWITCH OFF” before moving the prop, and make sure you have solid footing. When ready to start,
call “CONTACT” and listen for the reply. Swing the prop with the flat of your hand and move back
from the prop arc.

6. What procedure should be followed prior to starting a large radial engine to detect and/or prevent
a hydraulic lock in the cylinders?
Answer: Pull the propeller through by hand for three or four complete revolutions. Resistance to
the prop turning indicates a possible hydraulic lock in at least on o the cylinders.
 Section 13 / GROUND HANDLING AND SERVICING

Oral Questions

7. What is the cause of hydraulic lock in large radial engines?

Answer: Oils seeps by the piston rings and accumulates in the combustion chamber of lower
cylinders. When a piston comes up on its compression stroke, the incompressible liquid seizes it.

8. What is meant by the term “Hot Start” when starting a jet engine?
Answer: Ignition occurs with an excessively rich mixture, leading to a rapid temperature rise that
can exceed the exhaust gas temperature limit.

9. When towing an aircraft, should you use the tow vehicle or aircraft brakes to stop the aircraft?
Answer: The tow vehicle brakes should be used except in an emergency – then the aircraft brakes
may be used.

10. Why should an aircraft technician become familiar with standard light signals?
Answer: Light signals may be used when taxiing an airplane without a radio or when a radio
becomes inoperative on a tower controlled airport.

11. If a mixture of aviation gasoline and jet fuel is used in a reciprocating aircraft engine, what are the
possible results?
Answer: Avgas contaminated by jet fuel must not be used in piston engines- the engine may be
damaged or destroyed.

12. What does the number 100 signify in 100LL aviation gasoline?
Answer: It refers to the lean mixture performance number (or octane rating) of the fuel.

13. Is it permissible to use avgas in a turbine engine?

Answer: Limited operation may be allowed by the manufacturer. Continued use may reduce
efficiency due to lead deposits on the turbine blades.

14. What are some of the possible outcomes of using a lower grade of avgas than the specified grade?
Answer: An increased chance of engine damage due to detonation, loss of engine power, and an
increased probability of overheating.

15. Part 23.973 of the FAA regulations specifies that certain markings must be placed adjacent to fuel
filler openings. What markings are used for reciprocating engine-powered airplanes?
Answer: The filler openings must be marked with the fuel grade and word “AVGAS”.
 Section 13 / GROUND HANDLING AND SERVICING

Oral Questions

16. Describe the important precautions that should be observed when fueling an aircraft.
Answer: Be certain you are using the correct fuel, properly ground the aircraft and refueling unit,
and protect the aircraft surfaces from hose and nozzle damage.

17. The marking requirements for oil tank filler openings are specified by FAR 23.1157. What marking
are required for a piston engine powered airplane?
Answer: The word “OIL” and the permissible grades and/or types or a reference to the appropriate
Airplane Flight Manual for permissible grades and/or types.

18. Where can the standard aircraft taxi hand signals be found?
Answer: In the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).

19. Under what conditions should a reciprocating engine be pre-oiled?

Answer: Prior to starting a new engine or one that has been preserved for storage. This ensures
adequate lubrication on initial startup.

20. Under what conditions may automobile gasoline be used in an aircraft engine?
Answer: Only if approved by the FAA, usually by the issuance of a Supplemental Type Certificate
(STC).

21. What are the indications of water in aircraft fuel after draining a sample from the fuel sumps?
Answer: The sample may have a cloudy or hazy appearance or a solid slug of water.
 Section 14 / MAINTENANCE PUBLICATIONS, FORMS, AND RECORDS

Oral Questions

1. What federal aviation regulation prescribes the requirements for issuance of a type certificate?
Answer: FAR 14 CFR Part 21.

2. What part of the FARs describes the airworthiness standards for Transport Category airplanes?
Answer: FAR part 25

3. What part of the F AARs describes the performance characteristics that a small aircraft must
demonstrate in order to be airworthy?
Answer: FAR Part 23.

4. Who is responsible for ensuring that only the most current information is used when performing
maintenance on an aircraft?
Answer: The person performing the maintenance.

5. Why are airworthiness directives issued?

Answer: To correct unsafe conditions found in aircraft, engines, propeller, or appliances.
6. How does the FAA notify Aircraft owners of unsafe conditions that must be corrected?
Answer: By issuing airworthiness directives.

7. How do you determine the timeframe within each AD compliance is required?

Answer: The A.D. contains the compliance time or period for completing the correction action.

8. If a mechanic wishes to develop a checklist for an annual or 100 hour inspection, what publication
contains a guidelines for the required inspection items?
Answer: FAR Part 43, Appendix D contains the scope and detail of an inspection checklist.

9. How can you determine if the repair of damage is a major or minor repair?
Answer: FAR Part 43, Appendix A defines major and minor repairs as well as preventive
maintenance.

10. What publication might you consult for guidance when maintaining an old Aircraft for which no
maintenance manual exists?
Answer: AC 43.13-1B or its latest revision.

11. What are advisory circulars?

Answer: Non-regulatory information of interest to the Aviation public.
 Section 14 / MAINTENANCE PUBLICATIONS, FORMS, AND RECORDS

Oral Questions

12. What publication would you consult to determine an aircraft (or engine’s or propeller’s) type design
and its limitations?
Answer: The Type Certificate Data Sheet and /or Aircraft Specifications.

13. In what FAA publication could you find a list of engines approved for use in a specific make and
model airplane?
Answer: In the Type Certificate Data Sheet and / or Aircraft Specifications.

14. What reference material can be used to determine if an aircraft is certificated in more than one
category?
Answer: The type certificate data sheet and/or Aircrafts specification.

15. What is the name of the manual that the manufacturer provides to technicians who normally
perform work on the systems and components of an aircraft?
Answer: The aircraft maintenance manual.

16. Under what circumstances is compliance with a manufacturer service bulletin mandatory?
Answer: When the service bulletin is incorporated into an AD (or other approved data).

17. What kind of publications are used by aircraft manufacturers to notify owners of design defect and
product improvements?
Answer: Service bulletins, service letters, and service instructions.

18. If you need to determine the serviceable dimensional limits for an engine part, what publication
would you consult?
Answer: The current engine manufacturer’s overhaul manual.

19. How often is the summary of AD’s published?

Answer: Every two years.

20. As a certificated mechanic, you will automatically receive all A.D.’s?

Answer: No. AD’s are automatically sent only to registered aircraft owners.

21. How are AD updates issued to the subscribers to the summary of airworthiness directives?
Answer: Through biweekly supplements.
 Section 14 / MAINTENANCE PUBLICATIONS, FORMS, AND RECORDS

Oral Questions

22. Where do you find the minimum scope and detail requirements that a 100 hour inspection
checklist must contain?
Answer: FAR part 43, appendix D.

23. Records of a major alteration must be made in what two places?

Answer: The aircraft maintenance records and FAA form 337.

24. When completion of FAA form 337 is required, how many copies are normally prepared and what is
their distribution?
Answer: Two signed copies. One is given to the aircraft owner and one is sent to the local FAA
flight standards district office within 48 hours of the approval or return to service.

25. When an aircraft is sold, what do the regulations require regarding the disposition of records that
contain the current status of airworthiness directives?
Answer: The seller must transfer the records to the buyer at the time of sale.

26. For what period of time must an aircraft owner maintain the records of a 100 hour inspection?
Answer: Until the work is superseded or for one year after the inspection.

27. In what publication may a mechanic find an example of a maintenance record entry for a 100 hour
inspection?
Answer: FAR part 43.11.

28. Where should a 100 hour inspection be recorded?

Answer: In the appropriate maintenance record for the airframe, power plants, propeller or
appliance.

29. What item must be entered into the aircraft records after maintenance is performed?
Answer: (1) a description of the work performed and/or reference to acceptable data. (2) The date
the work was completed. (3) The signature, certificate number and type of certificate of the person
approving the aircraft are returned to service.

30. What person makes a final maintenance record entry after the 100 hour inspection is completed?
Answer - The person approving the aircraft for return to service.
 Section 14 / MAINTENANCE PUBLICATIONS, FORMS, AND RECORDS

Oral Questions

31. What documents must be prepared when a required inspection is performed and defects are found
which render the aircraft or engine on airworthy?
Answer: The required maintenance entries must be made and a list of discrepancies and un-
airworthy items must be furnished to the owner.

32. What maintenance record entries are required to contain the aircraft total time and service?
Answer: Only records of inspections require the total time.

33. What regulation authorizes a certificated mechanic who holds an inspection authorization to
approve or disapprove a major repair or alteration?
Answer: FAR 65.95.

34. Who has the authority to rebuild an aircraft engine and return the operating time to zero?
Answer: Only the engine manufacturer or an overhaul facility approved by the manufacturer.

35. Are there any circumstances when more than two copies of form 337 are required, and if so, when?
Answer: Yes. Three copies are required when a fuel tank is installed in the passenger or baggage
compartment. The third copy must be kept a board the aircraft.

36. How do the regulations defind “time-in service” in regard to maintenance record entries?
Answer: With respect to maintenance entries, “time-in service” begins when the aircraft leaves the
surface of the earth until it touches it at the next point of landing.

37. What are the penalties for making fraudulent or intentionally false entries in any required record or
report?
Answer: The applicable airman certificate(s) can be suspended or revoked.

38. What persons are authorized to make the required maintenance entry approving the return to
service after a progressive inspection is performed at a location other than the aircraft’s home
base?
Answer: An applicable certificated mechanic. And appropriately rated repair station. The aircraft
manufacturer.
 Section 14 / MAINTENANCE PUBLICATIONS, FORMS, AND RECORDS

Oral Questions

39. What is the difference between the terms “overhaul” and “rebuilding” as they pertain to aircraft
engine maintenance records?
Answer: “overhauled” engines must be tested or to approved or acceptable current standards and
technical data. “Rebuilt” engines must be tested to the same tolerance and limits as a new engine.

40. When performing in inspection required by FAR Part 91, what rotorcraft systems must be inspected
in accordance with manufacturer’s maintenance manual or instructions for continued
airworthiness?
Answer: the drive shafts or similar systems. The main rotor transmission gearbox for obvious
defects. The main rotor and center section. The auxiliary rotor on helicopters.

41. How can you determine that an aircraft part or appliance you receive is serviceable?
Answer: By and approval for return to service in the maintenance record for the part or appliance.
With a completed form 337.
 Section 15 / MECHANIC PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

Oral Questions

1. What publication should a mechanic consult to determine if a repair is considered major or minor?
Answer: FAR 43, appendix A.

2. Where in the FAR is will you find the certification requirements for mechanics?
Answer: FAR 65.

3. What are the ratings issued under a mechanics certificate?

Answer: Airframe and Power plant.

4. What type of work may a certificated mechanic perform?

Answer: A mechanic may perform or supervise maintenance, preventive maintenance, or
alterations.

5. Is a certificated airframe mechanic allowed to perform maintenance on engines?

Answer: Not unless they are supervised by a certificated powerplant mechanic.

6. What are the limitations to a mechanic’s privilege with regard to propellers?

Answer: A mechanic may not perform or supervise major repairs to, or major alterations of,
propellers.

7. Is a mechanic allowed to repair or alter an aircraft instrument?

Answer: No. Mechanics may not perform any repairs or alterations on instruments.

8. What are the requirements for recent experience in order to exercise the privileges of your
mechanic’s certificate or rating?
Answer: You must have worked as a mechanic or technically supervised other mechanics for at
least six months out of the past 24 months.

9. What authority does a mechanic have regarding approval for return to service?
Answer: A mechanic may approve an aircraft, Airframe, engine, propeller, or appliance for return
to service in accordance with the provisions of FAR Part 65.

10. What are the privileges of an A&P mechanic regarding inspections?

Answer: A mechanic may perform and approve for return to service an airframe or engine
following a 100-hour inspection.
 Section 15 / MECHANIC PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

Oral Questions

11. What is the duration of a mechanic certificate?

Answer: That certificate is valid until surrendered, suspended or revoked.

12. What are the privileges and limitations of an A&P mechanic regarding major repairs and alterations
to airframes and engines and their approval for return to service?
Answer: A&P mechanics may perform major repairs and alterations but may not approve them for
return to service unless they hold an inspection authorization.

13. In addition to performing maintenance, what other privileges are granted to a power plant
mechanic?
Answer: A power of a mechanic may perform a 100 hour inspection on an engine and approve the
engine for return to service.

14. When may a mechanic perform an annual inspection and return the aircraft to service?
Answer: When the mechanic holds an inspection authorization.

15. May a mechanic supervisor an inspection (or a portion of an inspection) and then approve the
aircraft for return to service?
Answer: No. The mechanic approving the aircraft for return to service must actually perform the
inspection.

16. What is the duration of a temporary airman’s certificate?

Answer: 120 days.

17. If a mechanic certificate is revoked, how long must he/she wait before applying for a new
certificate?
Answer: One year unless the revocation order states otherwise.

18. What should a mechanic do if his or her temporary certificate is about to expire?
Answer: Contact the FAA.
 Section 15 / MECHANIC PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

Oral Questions

19. Is a person with a private pilot’s certificate allowed to perform maintenance and, if so, what are
his/her limitations?
Answer: A pilot may perform preventative maintenance in accordance with FAA Part 43.3, 43.7 and
appendix A on the airplane owned by the pilot. He or she can also prove the aircraft for return to
service following the maintenance.

20. What are your requirements as an aircraft mechanic when you have a change of address?
Answer: Notify the FAA in writing within 30 days.