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School of Thought
Classical School – People have free will to choose on how to act
Classical School – it ignores the possibility of irrationality and unconscious drives as motivational factors.
Classical School – came about at a time when major reform in penology occurred
Classical School – Deterrence is based upon the utilitarian ontological notion of the human being a hedonist who seeks
pleasure and avoids pain
Classical School – The swifter and more certain the punishment, the more effective it is in deterring criminal behavior.
Classical School – This time period saw many legal reforms, the French Revolution,
Positivist School – presumes that criminal behaviour is caused by internal and external factor outside of the individual
control.
Positivist School – The scientific method was introduced and applied to study human behavior.
Positivist School – Positivism can be broken up into three segments which include biological, psychological, and social
positivism.
Criminal Law – is defined as that branch of public law which defines crimes ,treats of their nature provides for their
punishment
Characteristics of Criminal Law
It is General in Application – the provision of the criminal or penal law must be applied equality to all person within the
territory irrespective of sex , race , nationality and other personal circumstances
It is territorial in character – As of the part of the right of a state self preservation , each independent country has the
right to promulgate law enforceable with in territorial jurisdiction
It is specific and definite – criminal law must give a strict definition of specific act which constitutes the crime
It must be in application –an act describe a crime is a crime no matter who committed it
It must be prospective –no person can be punished for his act at the time he did it is not punishable by law
Criminal – refers to any person who commit or omit crime and violates the law.
Classification of Criminals
Acute criminals – they commit crimes due to impulse of the moment, fit of passion, anger or spell of extreme jealousy.
Chronic criminals – they are those who acted in consonance with deliberate thinking.
Normal criminals – their psychic conditions resemble that of a normal individual, except that they identify themselves
with criminal prototypes.
Ordinary criminals – considered to be the lowest form in the criminal career and engage only in conventional crimes
that require limited skills.
Organized criminals – they have degree of organization to enable them to commit crimes without being detected, with
specialized criminal activities operated in large scale.
Professional criminals – they are highly skilled and able to obtain considerable amount of money without being
detected due to organization and contact with professional criminals.
Accidental criminals – they commit criminal acts as a result of unanticipated circumstances.
Situational criminals – they are not actually criminals but commit crimes due to a given situation.
Habitual criminals – they continue to commit criminal acts for diverse reasons due to deficiency of intelligence and lack
of self-control.
Active-aggressive criminals – they commit crimes in impulsive manner usually due to their aggressive behavior.
Passive-inadequate criminals – they commit crimes because they are pushed to do it, by inducement, reward, or
promise without considering the consequences.
Socialized criminals – they are normal in their behavior but mere inadequate and defective in their socialized process.
Pyknic Type – those who are stout and with around bodies , they tend to commit deception , fraud and violence
Athletic – those who muscular and strong . they usually connected with the crimes of violence
Asthenic type –those who are skinny and slender . their crimes are petty thieves and fraud
Dysplatic or mixed type – those are less clear evident having any predominant type . their offense are against decency
and morality
The Three Parts of Human Psyche (personality)
ID – it is the unconscious portion of personality dominated by the drive (cravings/desire) for pleasure and by inborn
sexual and aggressive impulses.
Ego – the rational part of the personality; it grows from Id.
Super ego –means the conscience of man .
Criminal Justice System – it is defined as a machinery of the state or government which enforces the rules of conduct
necessary to protect life and property and maintain peace and order
CRIMINAL JUSTICE –define as the system of law enforcement, adjudication and correction that is directly involved in the
apprehension
CRIME –Refers to an event that calls for the operation of criminal justice system
Crime –is a violation of societal rules of behavior as interpreted and expressed by a criminal legal code
CRIMINAL LAW –Defined as that branch of public law, which defines crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their
punishment.
1. LAW ENFORCEMENT
2. PROSECUTION
3. COURT
4. CORRECTIONS
5. COMMUNITY
Law enforcement – PNP under DILG; NBI under DOJ
Law enforcement – considered to be the “initiator” or the “prime-mover” of the Criminal Justice System
Law enforcement – It is considered as “the initiator of the action s” that other pillar must act upon to attain its goal or
objective.
PNP – It is the government agency that has the primary mandate to perform the police function under constitution
R.A 6975 – The PNP was establish by the enactment of ____
DILG ACT of 1990– RA 6975 otherwise known as the ___
R.A 8551 –The reorganization of PNP by virtue of the enactment of ___
“THE PHILIPPINE NATIONAL POLICE REFORM ACT OF 1998” –R.A 8551 on February 28, 1998 entitled _____
January of 1991– PNP established
ORDER MAINTENACE– involves managing minor offenses and neighborhood disorders in order to address community
problems.
POLICE – the first component of the justice system to deal with the commission of the crime.
BUY-BUST OPERATION – also known in legal and police parlance as a form of “entrapment”.
RATIONING – refers to when the police selectively enforces criminal law for various reasons.
BAIL – Is the security given for the release of the person in the custody of the law, furnished by him or the bondsman, to
guarantee his appearance before any court as required under the conditions as specified.
BAIL BONDS – essentially an extension of the principle that all suspects are innocent until proven guilty.
The following are the kinds of bail bond
1. Property
2. Cash
3. Corporate Surety
4. Recognizance
10-20% – percent does bail bond agent charge as fee in total bail
JUDGE – The person who authorized by the law to give the final judgement
TRIAL – is when all the facts of a case are heard, and a judge or jury makes the final decision about the court case.
JUDGEMENT – is the law final word pronounce by a competent authority in a controversy submitted to it.
APPEAL – statutory right granted to the accused or even the government in proper cases to seek remedy before an
appellate court
Mala en se - refers to those that are naturally criminal on the moral ground . ex. Murder
Mala probihita – crimes pertains to those act that have been criminalized by regulatory purposes
Mens Rea - refers to criminal intent. The literal translation from Latin is "guilty mind”
1987 Philippine Constitution – empowers the Legislative branch of the government or Congress
Our local legislative bodies– authorized to enact laws that are criminal or penal in nature
Substantive Criminal law - Defines the elements that are necessary for an act to constitute a crime and therefore
punishable
Procedural Criminal Law – refers to the statute that provides procedures appropriate for the enforcement of the
substantive criminal law.
Presumption of innocence- this means that those who are accused of crimes are considered innocence until proven
guilty
Burden of Proof – in criminal cases means that the government must prove beyond reasonable doubt
Suspect – during the investigation
Respondent – during preliminary investigation
Accused – when a case has been filed in court
Convict – the accused is guilty beyond reasonable doubt
Criminal – upon undergoing all the process, when the criminal has served the sentence
Bill of Rights – It is a litany of weapons, which a person may use in order to resist or defeat any abuse or misuse of
governmental power.
DUE PROCESS OF LAW –This concept means that those who are accused by the crimes and those who are processed
through the criminal justice system must be given the basic rights guaranteed by the constitution.
EQUAL PROTECTION OF LAW –It essence declares that the state may not attempt to create or enforce statutes against a
person solely because of specific characteristic such as race, age or sex
Adversarial system –assumes that the best way to get to the truth of a matter is through a competitive process to
determine the facts
Adversarial Approach – assumes the accused to be innocent
Adversarial Approach –places the burden on the public prosecutor to prove the guilt of the accused
Adversarial Approach – places emphasis on the process
Inquisitorial System –associated with civil law legal systems, and it has existed for many centuries.
Inquisitorial Approach –assumes the accused to be guilty
Inquisitorial Approach –places the burden to the accused in providing his innocence.
Inquisitorial Approach – places emphasis on the conviction of the accused
Crime Control Model – It is based on the idea that the most important function of the CJS is the repression of a criminal
conduct.
Crime Control Model – conservative approach to crime that focuses on protecting society from criminals by regulating
criminal conduct and justice.
Due Process Model – This generally requires fairness in government proceedings.
Due Process Model – considered to be a liberal approach to criminal justice that favors criminal rights
RA 9344 – Juvenile Justice System
Concept of Restorative Justice– It refers to the principle which requires a process of resolving conflicts with the
maximum involvement of the victim the offender and the community.
Children in conflict with law– refers to a child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudge as, having committed an offense
under Philippine laws.
Child at risk – refers to the child who is vulnerable to and the risk of committing criminal offense because of personal ,
family and social circumstances.
INTERVENTION – Refers to a series of activities which are designed to address issues that caused the child to commit an
offense.
DIVERSION PROGRAM – Refers to the program that the child in conflict with the law is required to undergo after he/she
is found responsible for an offense without resorting to formal court proceedings.
RA 9344 SEC. 5 –Rights of the Child in Conflict with the Law
RA 9344 SEC. 6 – Minimum Age of Criminal Responsibility
Criminal –refers to any person who commit or omit crime and violates the law.
Acute criminals – they commit crimes due to impulse of the moment, fit of passion, anger or spell of extreme jealousy.
Chronic criminals – they are those who acted in consonance with deliberate thinking.
Normal criminals – their psychic conditions resemble that of a normal individual, except that they identify themselves
with criminal prototypes.
Ordinary criminals – considered to be the lowest form in the criminal career and engage only in conventional crimes
that require limited skills.
Organized criminals – they have degree of organization to enable them to commit crimes without being detected, with
specialized criminal activities operated in large scale.
Professional criminals – they are highly skilled and able to obtain considerable amount of money without being
detected due to organization and contact with professional criminals.
Accidental criminals – they commit criminal acts as a result of unanticipated circumstances.
Situational criminals – they are not actually criminals but commit crimes due to a given situation.
Habitual criminals – they continue to commit criminal acts for diverse reasons due to deficiency of intelligence and lack
of self-control.
Active-aggressive criminals – they commit crimes in impulsive manner usually due to their aggressive behavior.
Passive-inadequate criminals – they commit crimes because they are pushed to do it, by inducement, reward, or
promise without considering the consequences.
Socialized criminals – they are normal in their behavior but mere inadequate and defective in their socialized process.
Classification of Criminals (The Revised Penal Code)
Recidivist – is the one who, at the time of trial for one crime, shall have been previously convicted by final judgement of
another crime embraced in the same title of RPC.
Quasi-recidivist – is one who commits another crime after having been convicted by final judgement of a crime falling
under either the RPC or Special Law, before beginning to serve such sentence or while serving the same.
Habitual delinquent – is one who, within a period of ten (10) years from the date of his release or last conviction of
crimes of serious or less serious physical injuries, robbery, estafa, or falsification is found guilty of any of the said crimes
for the third time or oftener.
PARRAFIN WAX – A white, translucent, odorless solids consisting of a mixture of solids hydrocarbons of high molecular
weight.
Burning (direct) – the principal damage due to flame and muzzle blast is more visible than to the penetration of bullet.
Singeing (1 to 2 inches) – slightly burning
Smudging – produced when the gun is held from about 2 inches to the maximum of 8 inches
Tattooing (8 to 18 inches) – (Black coarsely peppered pattern). Individual specks of tattooing around the hole are visible
by the naked eye
Harrison-Gilroy – test for the presence of lead, antimony and barium
Sodium Rhodizonate Griess Test – test for the presence of nitrates.
Lucas Test – a characteristic smell that decreases in intensity with lapse of time and is observable immediately after
firing.
Hydrogen sulfide – another product of combusting gunpowder and is present in the gaseous state that can be detected
by means of a lead acetate paper.
Rusting – as a rule does not commence for several days.
Presence of nitrates – diminishes after a lapse of time
Toxicology – the scientific study of the nature, properties and effects on living organism and detection of poisons and
the treatment of poisoning.
Paracelcus (16th century) – German-Swiss physician/ alchemist and Father of Modern Toxicology
Descriptive Toxicology – involves toxicity testing of chemicals providing information for safety evaluation and regulatory
requirements.
Mechanistic Toxicology – concerns with identifying and understanding mechanisms by which chemicals exert toxic
effects on living organism.
Regulatory Toxicology – involves in decisions, based on data provided by descriptive and mechanistic toxicology,
whether a chemical poses a sufficiency low risk capable for consumers for stated purposes.
Forensic Toxicology – concerns primarily with the medico-legal aspects of the harmful effects of chemicals on human
and animals.
Clinical Toxicology – concerns with disease caused by or uniquely associated with toxic substances.
Environmental Toxicology – focused on the impacts of the chemical pollutants in the environment on biological
organisms.
Occupational Toxicology – study of the adverse effects of agents that may be encountered by workers during the course
of their employment.
Risk – the potential likehood that injury will occur in a given situation
Exposure – is the amount of chemical that is available for absorption
Safety – the probability that harm will not occur under specified conditions
Poison – is a substance that when introduce into or absorbed by a living organism in sufficient amounts causes death or
injury
Volatile poisons – poisonous substance capable of converting from liquid to gas without the application of heat.
Gases – class of poisons usually not chemically detectable however some may be isolated from blood or lung tissue.
(e.g. carbon monoxide, chlorine etc)
Non-volatile poison – most of drugs is non-volatile. They can be extracted using acid and basic medium in a suitable
solvent.
Anions – usual examples are household chemicals. These range of poison are usually inorganic in nature.
Metallic – usually encountered in places near mining
Posology (dosage) –is a science which deals with the study of the dosage of medicine to be administered within a
certain period.
Medicine – is any substance administered to correct or alleviate the disease or disordered state of the system.
Dose – is the quantity of medicine to be administered at one time.
Safe dose – is one that do not cause harmful effects. Sometimes, however, it may be too small to produce the desired
effects.
Minimum dose – is the smallest amount of medicine that can produce the desired therapeutic effect without causing
harm.
Maximum dose – the largest amount of that will cause no injury but at the same time can produced the desired
therapeutic effect.
Toxic or poisonous dose – is one that is harmful both to the healthy and the sick
Lethal or fatal dose – dose that kills.
Antidotes – is any agent that neutralize a poison or otherwise counteracts or opposes its effects
Circumstantial or Moral Evidence – that evidence contributed by the circumstances or deduced from various
occurrences and facts.
Symptomatic Evidence - this include the symptoms observed during the poisoning.
Chemical evidence – that evidence obtained by chemical analysis of the suspected substance, or the decomposed or
changed or it have been placed after death.
Postmortem evidence – that obtained from an examination of the tissues and organs after death
Experimental evidence – (psychological test) obtained by administering the suspected substance to some living animal
and noting the effect or symptoms
Alcohol – is a class of organic compound containing hydroxyl groups includes ethanol.
Ethanol – is a specific kind of alcohol normally diluted with water and consumed as beverages.
Fermented – low alcoholic content
Wine – 8-14%
Distilled – high alcoholic content
Combination – (fortified; port & sherry wines)
Oxidation – alcohol oxidized to carbon dioxide and water via acetaldehyde to acetic acid using alcohol dehydrogenase in
the liver.
Excretion – breath, urine and perspiration.
TRACE EVIDENCE – These are any materials left by any suspects or victim which serves as a link to a crime.
HAIR – is an appendage of the skin that grows out of an organ known as the hair follicle.
CUTICLE – It is a protective coating made of overlapping scales (appearance of shingles on a roof) that always point
toward the hair tip
CORTEX – Made of spindled-shaped cells aligned in a regular array, parallel to the length of the hair.
MEDULLA – Collection of cells having the appearance of a central canal running through a hair.
Standard – considered samples from known source.
Questioned – sample from unknown source
tool mark – is defined as any impression, compression, cut, gouge, scratch, indentation, or any other making left in an
object by another harder object or instrument
Natural fibers – derived in whole from animal or plant resources
Serial number – a number of related or similar objects arranged in order or success
Light – is described as the combination of particles and waves.
Thickeners – used in water paints to increase the viscosity of paints
BLIND SEARCH – This method is used for searching trace evidence particularly hairs and fibers which is usually more
difficult to find
FORENSIC PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION (CPFRS2)
POLICE OPERATION - are defined as the job duties, responsibilities, and activities that law enforcement agents complete
in the field.
SOCIAL SERVICE - the police help people who need emergency assistance
ORDER MAINTENANCE - traffic control, crowd control, resolving domestic disputes, and moving prostitutes from the
streets.
CRIME CONTROL - such as patrol and criminal investigation, such as patrol and criminal investigation.
24 hour Availability - broadens police contacts with the public
authority to use force - stamps police work with a uniqueness that sets it apart from other lines of work.
DISCRETION - Police are often free to choose among alternative courses of action or inaction
Enforcing laws - Investigating crimes and apprehending offenders
Preventing crime - Responding to routine incidents
Responding to emergencies - many police officers showed up to help control crowds
Providing support services - In addition to all of their other duties, police officers need to provide support services for
their town.
Source/Encoding - person or organization who has information to share with another person or group.
Message - contains the information or meaning the source or sender hopes to convey.
Channel - method or medium by which the communication travels from source or sender to receiver.
Receiver/Decoding - person(s) with whom the sender shares thoughts or information
Noise - factors that can distort or interfere with adequate reception or comprehension.
Response/Feedback - reaction the receiver has after seeing, hearing and/or reading the message.
SEMANTICS - barriers which arise because of the different meanings that different words contexts.
Motivation and interest - our interest to send or to receive a message can determine the effectiveness of
communication
Perfunctory attention - difference between speaking and listening capabilities of the communicating parties
Internal Operational Communication - Communication that occurs for carrying out operations of the organization
BRIG. GEN. RAFAEL CRAME - First Filipino chief of the Philippine Constabulary in 1917.
RA 541 - passed by the Philippine Congress which seek to improve the police service and administration, this law was
called Police Pension Law.
PD 482 - was promulgated to bolster the entire police agency in the country.
PD 1184 - known as police professionalization law of 1977, which gives birth of the PNPA.
RA 6975 - known as act establishing the PNP under a reorganized Department of Interior and Local Government.
RA 8551 - known as “the PNP reform and reorganization act of 1998” was enacted to amend certain provisions of RA
6975.
KEMPETAI - The Japanese also during their invasion on December 8, 1941, introduced their police system called
Investigating Accidents - Patrol officers are expected to direct traffic, examine the scene, interview witnesses, provide
first aid for any injured victims
JANUARY 9, 1901 - Americans introduced their own version of policing system in the creation of the first police
department headed by Col. Mathew Harmon
Foot Patrol - is assigned to an area of crowded population such as downtown, heavy traffic congestion and other places.
Fixed foot patrol - is used for traffic, surveillance, parades and special events.
Moving foot patrol - is used when there is foot movement such as business, shopping center and family dwelling.
Line beat patrol - is used in securing certain portion of the road.
Random foot patrol - is used in checking residential building, business establishment, dark alley and parking lots.
Automobile Patrol - the most economical and effective patrol by means of transportation.
Mobile Data Terminal – refers to a computer that is installed inside a patrol car
Vehicle-mounted TV – refers to a video camera which is attached and installed in patrol car with a high resolution and
wide angle lens.
High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan – refers to a heavy duty light that can provide two million candle power of light
MOTORCYCLE PATROL - The two-wheeled motorcycle is adaptable to traffic enforcement, parades and escort duty.
BICYCLE PATROL - is a land vehicle used by police departments, most commonly in the form of a mountain bicycle.
CCTV - It is basically used for traffic control which originates in West Germany.
VIDEO SURVEILLANCE - use of video cameras to transmit a signal to a specific place, on a limited set of monitors.
TRAFFIC CONGESTION - Condition on transport that is characterised by slower speeds, longer trip times, and increased
vehicular queueing.
TRAFFIC JAM - the intersections along the road), extreme traffic congestion sets in. When vehicles are fully stopped for
periods of time
TRAFFIC DIRECTION AND CONTROL - It is the control of the movements of road users according to proportionate time
through traffic signal or hand gesture.
Prevention/Mitigation - reduce or eliminate to probability of a disaster and to reduce the vulnerability of people and
communities to the negative impacts of a disaster.
Preparedness - process of identifying the personnel, training, and equipment needed for a wide range of potential
incidents
Response - Follow an emergency or disaster and are generally designed to provide emergency assistance for casualties
Recovery - constitute a comprehensive approach to restore the environment by addressing the social, environmental,
political and economic aspects of the community
Natural disasters - disasters caused by natural forces
man made disasters - caused by activities of human beings
EMERGENCY RESPONSE - systematic response to an unexpected or dangerous occurrence.
LAW ENFORCEMENT - plays a critical role in emergency management in regard to response, search and rescue, and
recovery efforts.
CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION - undertaking that seeks, collects, and gathers evidence of a crime for a case or specific
purpose.
INVESTIGATION - involves establishing that a crime was committed and whether an arrest should be pursued
ARREST - The suspect is apprehended.
COURT PROCEEDINGS - All the evidence gathered during the investigation is presented to the court and a decision is
made in regards to punishment.
KIDNAPPING INVESTIGATION - not only involves uncovering and charging the guilty party but ensuring the safety of the
victim
ASSAULT INVESTIGATION - inquiring into violent crime particularly aggravated assault
HOMICIDE INVESTIGATION - who is responsible for a murder by looking at motive and surrounding circumstances
CRIME DEFENSE INVESTIGATION - verify the validity of evidence gathered against an individual
REACTIVE INVESTIGATION - start with the report from general public and referral by other agencies
PRO ACTIVE INVESTIGATION - can start from an intelligence package identifying groups
THEFT INVESTIGATION - penetrated by employees, criminal opportunities, customer, and competitors continues to
threaten the welfare of the company
CRIMINAL INVESTIGATOR - highly trained and have access to a wide variety of tools including networks of investigators,
surveillance equipment, and records checks.
CRIME - an intended action that is against the rules of law for a community.
BACKGROUND CHECK - shed light on a suspect part and may even reveal motive
DOCUMENT SEARCHES - utilize important documents as hard evidence for court cases
FRAUD INVESTIGATION - determines whether a scam has taken place
CRIME SCENE INVESTIGATION - analyzing the area in a crime has occurred
SEXUAL CRIME INVESTIGATION - establishes the occurrence and type of sexual misconduct
CRIME PREVENTION - process of trying to reduce the amount of crime in a given area.
POLICE - a group of persons established, maintained and organized for keeping order, safety, protection of lives and
property and for prevention and detection of crimes
COMMUNITY - body of people organized into political, municipal or social unity or a body of persons living in the same
locality
POLICE-COMMUNITY RELATIONS - the sum total of the dealings between the police and the people it serves, and whose
goodwill and cooperation it craves, for the greatest possible efficiency in the service
POLICE PUBLIC IMAGE - refers to how the people in the community perceive or regard the police
COMMUNITY SERVICE - activities that provide service to the community
COMMUNITY PARTICIPATION - involvement of the community in the various social particularly, in the area of crime
prevention
PUBLIC RELATIONS - activities directed at creating and maintaining favorable impressions to the public
YOUTH ORIENTED APPROACH - directed the majority of police efforts towards the youth of the community
PUBLIC INFORMATION PROGRAM - designed to bridge the communication gap between the police and the public
PUBLIC RELATION PROGRAM - designed to maintain harmony and mutual support between the police and the
community
PSYCHOLOGICAL PROGRAM - designed to condition both friendly and hostile public, ensuring the facilitation of the
attainment of police objectives
COMMUNITY RELATION - refers to the various methods companies use to establish and maintain a mutually beneficial
relationship with the communities in which they operate
COMMUNITY RELATIONS UNIT FUNCTION - to keep channels of communication open between the Police Department
and the public
CIVILINIZATON - policing has required more specialist skills. The development of ‘civilianization’ has been particularly
pronounced in England and Wales
RA 8551 - declared the policy of the State to establish a highly efficient and competent police force
PUBLIC PRIVATE PARTNERSHIP - When police work together with businesses and citizen groups
COMPARATIVE MODLES IN POLICING (CPLEA2)
Metropolitan Police Service (MPS) - Territorial police force responsible for policing Greater London
Australian Federal Police (AFP) - responsible for the investigation of crimes against Commonwealth law which occurs
throughout
INSPECTOR POLICE - highest rank in Germany
CONSTABLE - lowest rank in New Zealand
BAHN - It was (railway police) was made up of part time police officers who were also employees of the Reichbahn
(state railway).
VARIOUS STATE - The state police forces are responsible for enforcing state law within their own states (including cities
within the states).
FEDERAL MINISTRY OF INTERIOR - What agency is under the Federal Police of Germany?
TERTIARY - What is the educational requirement in New Zealand?
55 - What is the retirement age in New Zealand Police?
17 -What is the entrance age in national Police France?
GARDA - What is the minimum rank of Ireland police?
Wsserschutzpolizei - coast guard of the third reich. Tasked with the safety and security of Germany’s rivers, harbors, and
inland waterways
POLICE RANK 4 - What is the minimum rank of Switzerland police?
ABU DHABI POLICE - Is the primary law enforcement agency in the Emirate of Abu Dhabi, one of the United Arab
Emirates.
Sudan Police System - In 1901 the authorities decentralized the police to improve efficiency.
ICELAND - safest country in the world for the 12th year in a row.
AUSTRIA - Serious crimes are uncommon, although people should be aware of pickpockets and purse-snatchers.
DENMARK - a welfare state, meaning that everyone receives services and perks that help them live comfortable lives.
SINGAPORE - has one of the lowest crime rates in the world, which is due to severe penalties that are issued for even
small crimes.
JAPAN - Is known for having limited immigration and limited access to firearms
CZECH REPUBLIC - The country’s fall in rankings is due to its relatively high involvement in foreign conflicts
KENYA - most corrupt ones as they take bribes and also neglects the law and order of the country
IRAQ - They participate in kidnapping, bribery and other actions through which they earn good amount of money.
JAPAN - What country is known for having limited immigration and limited access to firearms and does not see carrying
a firearm to be an individual’s right?
ICELAND - What country does not have a military and the police do not carry firearms with them (only extendable
batons and pepper spray)?
NEW ZEALAND - What country where citizens open-minded and have laws in place to prevent abuse of anyone’s
freedom of speech or expression?
HAITI - What country, where the police force has negatively influenced society through their unethical practices and the
lawlessness of the country, and the brutality of the police, have developed a negative impression on the world.?
INTERNAL AFFAIRS - What country, where the police force has negatively influenced society through their unethical
practices and the lawlessness of the country, and the brutality of the police, have developed a negative impression on
the world.?
FIA - What is Pakistan National Police under of agency?
CANADA - It has some of the most notoriously friendly people in the world.
AFGHANISTAN - What country in which police forces are getting worse with every passing day as they are extorting
money and inflicting violence on civilians? They are releasing the criminals from the prison and they also tend to avoid
arrest of the criminals.
SOMALIA - What country which police force is ineffective and is underpaid because of which they indulge in steeling,
extortion and bribery?
RUSSIA - What country has one of the lowest crime rates in the world, which is due to severe penalties that are issued
for even small crimes?
DENMARK - What country has access to healthcare with no additional fees to them, tuition-free education, and the
elderly are provided at-home care helpers?
SUDAN - What country has proved its level of corruption so many times through extorting bribes from civilians and also
avoids ignoring the investigation of crimes and violence?
Physical Security sum total of all physical protection employed or installed to secure assets.
Document or Information Security sum total of all policies, regulations, practices, enforce to safeguard the
contents and integrity of any classified information
Industrial security involves industrial plants and business enterprises, to safeguard the personnel, properties and
operations.
Hotel security measures to safeguard hotel guest and their personnel effects, hotel properties
VIP security involves the protection of top-ranking officials of the government, private company and foreign
dignitaries.
Operational security involves the protection of processes, formulas, patents, industrial and manufacturing activities
from espionage
Communication security measures to prevent or delay the unauthorized person in gaining information
School Security is concern with the protection of students, faculty members and school properties
Mall Security are trained to detect shoplifter, robbery and bomb detection and customer relation.
Security is a state or quality, condition of being secured, freedom from fear, harm, danger, loss, destruction or
damages
PERIMETER BARRIER First line of defense
ENERGY BARRIER An electrical or electronic devices used to provide assistance to guard personnel like lighting and
alarm system.
PERIMETER BARRIER A medium or structures which define the physical limits of installation or area to restrict or
impede access thereto.
BARRIER Any structure capable of restricting, deterring, delaying illegal access to an installation.
PHYSICAL BARRIER Any physical means to impede, delay or prevent intrusion into a protected area.
SEE THRU FENCE Types of fence that constructed visualize access between two areas.
7 FEET The height measurement of the fence should be, excluding the top guard.
INSIDE PERIMETER A line protection adjacent to protected area and passing through points of possible entry into
the area such as doors, windows, tunnels, etc.
INTERIOR CONTROL Third line of defense
STATIONARY LUMINARY This type of protective lighting consisting of series of fixed luminaries to light given area
continuously.
SOLID FENCE A types of fence that constructed of opaque materials is called
PERIMTER barrier placed between the potential intruder and the matter to be protected.
STRUCTURAL BARRIER barrier that features constructed by man who tends to delay the intruder like fence, walls,
floors, ceiling, etc.
BARRIER is an structure or physical device capable of restricting, deterring, delaying illegal access to an
installation.
GUARD CONTROL STATIONS This is normally provided at main perimeter entrance to secure areas located out of
doors and manned by guard on a full time basis as known a
PHYSICAL BARRIER Any physical means to impede, delay or prevent intrusion into a protected area.
BARRIER Any structure capable of restricting, deterring, delaying illegal access to an installation.
7 FEET The standard height of the fence including the top guard is
PROTECTIVE LIGHTING is a sufficient illumination of area during hours of darkness to ensure visibility and act as a
deterrent to intruder.
ENERGY BARRIER An electrical or electronic devices used to provide assistance to guard personnel like lighting and
alarm system.
STANDBY LIGHTING is a system which is similar to continuous lighting, turn on manually or by special device or other
automatic means.
FENCE is an independent structure usually existing in a vertical plane, designated to control physical or visual access
between outside areas.
LOCK is a mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to prevent entry into a building.
VAULT is a heavily-constructed fire resistance container usually part of the building structure used to keep and protect
cash, documents and negotiable instruments.
MASTER KEY A special key capable of opening a series of locks.- is called
SPOT DETECTION A component of alarm system used to detect the activity of an intruder at a single location like
expensive cabinets is calle
AUXILIARY SYSTEM s system installed that led into local police or fire department by lease telephone lines.
CENTRAL SATION SYSTEM is a types of alarm detection system that operated and maintained by the offsite
security company or agency.
PADLOCK A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp which passes through a staple ring is called
SAFE cabinet metallic containers used for the safekeeping of document or small items in an office or installation.
BILL TRAPS is a device of the protected alarm usually place in the teller’s top cash drawer.
CHANGE KEY A key to a single lock within a master keyed system.
SPOT DETECTION A component of alarm system used to detect the activity of an intruder at a single location like
expensive cabinet is called
MASTER KEY A special key capable of opening a series of locks.- is called
FOOT RAIL ACTIVATOR It is type of protective alarm that place on the floor in such a position that the teller may
activate the alarm by placing in front of their foot.
LEVER LOCK Used in safe deposit boxes, in desk, lockers and cabinets.
LOCK is a mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to prevent entry into a building.
SAFE cabinet metallic containers used for the safekeeping of document or small items in an office or installation.
SPOT PROTECTION It is used to detect the activity or pressure of an intruder at a single location like filing cabinet.
PETERMAN A term used in England for lock picker, safecrackers and penetrators of restricted areas is called
PALOCK . A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp which passes through a staple ring is calle
PADLOCK 15. A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp which passes through a staple ring is called
AUXILIARY SYSTEM s system installed that led into local police or fire department by lease telephone lines.
DISC TUMBLER LOCK A type of lock designed for the use of the automobile industry and is used in car doors.
ELECTROMAGNETIC LOCK The device holding a door closed by magnetism.
BETRAL SATITION SYSTEM is a types of alarm detection system that operated and maintained by the offsite
security company or agency.
VAULT is a heavily-constructed fire resistance container usually part of the building structure used to keep and protect
cash, documents and negotiable instruments.
SECURITY EDUCATION is conducted to develop security awareness among employees of the company
POSITIVE VETTING It is the process of inspecting or examining with careful thoroughness
PROFILING It is the process whereby a subject’s reaction in a future critical situation is predicted by observing his
behavior or by interviewing him or analyzing his responses to a questionnaire such as honesty test
Deception Detection Techniques the process of using devices in detecting deception during the interview stage.
Uncover investigation the placement of an agent in a role in which the agent’s true identity and role remains unknown
in order to obtain information for criminal prosecution or for recovery of asset losses.
refresher conferences it is design to remind employees about their responsibilities, review the guidelines, policies and
regulations is being implemented.
security promotion the act of emphasizing the importance and role of security achieving the
company goals and objectives.
Exclusion Areas are used only for handling and storage of high value cargo and classified documents
Personnel Security Investigation It is an inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, integrity, morals and
loyalty of an individual in order to determine a person’s suitability for appointment.
security promotion the act of emphasizing the importance and role of security achieving the company goals and
objectives.
TELEPHONE A threat of sensitive information which intercept from two lines.
EAVESDROPPING A threat of sensitive information which have unauthorized listening.
PROPRIETORY The sensitive information which relates to the structure, product and method of operations of the
organization.
D A classification of document which has no value.
VITAL The type of document which is irreplaceable with have no the same value as the original.
C A classification of document which contain intelligence value.
CONFIDENTIAL The classified information which unauthorized disclosure to the interest of the nation.
B A classification of document which contain communication and cryptographic document.
ALL A systematic program for gathering and analyzing information about the competitor’s activities.
A A classification of document which contain reportable time, order and significant information.
Top Secret requires highest degree of protection with great reserve.
Secret Matters information and material, unauthorized disclosure of which would endanger national security causes
serious injury to the interest of the country.
Confidential Matters unauthorized disclosure would be prejudicial to the interest of the nation or unwarranted injury
to individual.
Document Security deals with measures to prevent unauthorized disclosure of classified information.
Competitive Intelligence is a systematic program for gathering and analyzing information about the competitor’s
activities. (industrial espionage).
Eavesdropping unauthorized listening
Wiretapping interception of a communication circuit.
Bugging interception of communication using an electronic device.
Telephone Eavesdropping interception from two lines.
Dialed number recorder (pen register) records and prints detailed information.
Proprietary information information related to the status, operations and activities.
Trade Secret refers to the formula, pattern device or compilation of information used in one’s business.
SECURITY HAZARD Any act or condition which may result in the compromise of information, loss of life and
destruction of property or disruption of the activity of the installation.
Relative criticality of operation is the importance of the firm with reference to the natural economy and security.
Relatively vulnerability is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to damage or disruption of operation due to
various hazards.
SABOTEUR He is the most dangerous for whom security will have to deal with while planning and implementing
security measures and techniques.
ESPIONAGE He is very dangerous adversary and his skills in deception.
Casual pilferer one who steals due to the inability to resist the unexpected opportunity and has fear of detection.
Systematic pilferer one who steals with preconceived plans and take away all types of items or supplies for
economic gain.
Location of items the systematic pilferer surveys shopping, store ares or contracts from the firms.
Access to the Items techniques can be from fake documents, bribing of guards, creating disturbances or other
methods to divert the attention
Removal of Items can be done by wearing a stolen items and using false documents.
VIP security aims to protect people from physical violence, whether from the state or external states, from violent
individuals
VIP Very Important Person
ESCORT one or more persons accompanying another to give guidance or protection or to pay honor.
BODYGUARD one or more persons accompanying another to give guidance or protection or to pay honor.
Area security covers the surrounding areas of engagement. It conducts prophylactic (neutralize the area), operations
in the area of engagement.
Perimeter security secures the immediate areas surrounding the place of engagement. It usually for the uniformed
personnel.
Advance security the advanced security at the place of engagement before the arrival of the VIP.
Close-in security accompanies the VIP wherever he goes. Maximum of four (4) persons.
Reserve security on standby for possible back-up/ re-enforcement.
Routine security neutralize the possible route of the VIP party.
CLOSE PROTECTION It is defined as the deployment of a number of security trained officers to provide a ring of
protection in close proximity to the recipient
Direct Protection where the protectee receives close protection on foot
BOX good all round defence and good visual impact, but leads to gapps between officers.
DIAMOND will filter around the protectee but can appear very aggressive
V FORMATION will filter crowd around the protectee but widen the individual arcs responsibility for officers.
Mobile Protection the aim is to eliminate or reduce the opportunity for attack during movement of vehicle
Static Protection the aim is to eliminate or reduce the opportunity for attack by placing defensive perimeter
between the protected asset and a potential attacker.
Crisis Management is the totality of action of handling or responding to a given crisis situation
Crisis management Plan is a complete and comprehensive plan of actions designed to protect life, freedom and
property, before , during and after any given situation.
COMMUNICATION is the transfer of thought from the mind of one person to another thought for s common
medium or channel
MEDIUM OF COMMUNICATION refers to the common language known for two or more individuals who want to
exchange thought or ideas with each other.
CHANNEL OF COMMUNICATION refers to the equipments being used to transfer thoughts or ideas.
Communications security is the discipline of preventing unauthorized interceptors from accessing
telecommunications
COMSEC is used to protect both classified and unclassified traffic on military communications networks, including
voice, video, and data.
COMSEC ensures the security of telecommunications confidentiality and integrity
Cryptosecurity This encrypts data, rendering it unreadable until the data is decrypted.
Emission Security (EMSEC) This prevents the release or capture of emanations from equipment, such as
cryptographic equipment, thereby preventing unauthorized interception.
Physical Security This ensures the safety of, and prevents unauthorized access to, cryptographic information
Traffic-Flow Security This hides messages and message characteristics flowing on a network.
Transmission Security (TRANSEC) This protects transmissions from unauthorized access, thereby preventing
interruption and harm.
Hand held radio or Walkie talkie communication on electromagnetic waves transmitted through the space.
Basic types of radio’s amateur and commercial; for emergency and business purposes, respectively
Alertness give the impression that you are alert and awake and interested as person calling.
Pleasantness build a pleasant office image with voice of smile.
Natural use simple language
Distinctness speak clearly and relax to avoid garbled transmission.
Expressiveness normal tone of voice in moderate manner
PROGRESS Controlling is the work of a manager to assess and regulate work in
OPERATION Agency manager is automatically the chief security director who shall be responsible for the entire
WATCHMAN AND/OR GUARD Security guard is the one posted as
ASSISTANT AGENCY MANAGER The security executive director who shall assist the agency director and take the
operational and administrative management is called.
POST-IN-CHARGE He is responsible for the entire detailed security office within a certain shift for a particular
period is called
STAFF DIRECTOR FOR OPERATION a position includes the responsibility to canvass clientele and the
implementation of contract and agreement.
SECURITY EDUCATION PROGRAM program given to employees of an installation by lecture and other means
pertaining to measure and safeguard to be taken to protect the interest of the installation.
SUBORDINATES Leading is the work of a manager to perform active participation from his STAFF DIRECTOR FOR
ADMINISTRATION is responsible for the professionalization of the personnel, procurement, recruitment, mobility and
issuances of firearms.
SIT The part of security plan that explain the historical background of the organization.
PLANNING The work of a manager to anticipate a course of action
SEC SURVEY The process of conducting a physical examination and thorough inspection of all operation system.
SEC GUARD He is responsible for the security officer who is scheduled in a certain shift for the particular period.
SEC ED An education, information and skill development process that bring about anticipated performance.
CHIEF He is responsible for inspecting the entire area covered by the detachment.
ORG The work of a manager performs by arranging the work and the worker so as produce an effective and efficient
performance.
SEC INSP The process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with establishment security
policies.
COMMAND This pertains to the channel of communication needed when implementing the project until in full
operation.
SEC INSP This pertains to the channel of communication needed when implementing the project until in full
operation.
6 He shall know the location of the alarm box near his post and sound alarm in case of fire or disorder.
GO 10 To salute all company officials, superior in the agency, government official and officers of the PNP.
GO 1 To take charge of the post and all companies properties in view.
CC3 He shall not engage in any unnecessary conversation with anybody except in the discharge of his duties or sit
down unless required by the nature of his work and shall at all times keep himself alert during his tour of duty.
GO 9 To call the superior in any case not covered by the instructions.
GO 5 To quit my post only when properly relieved.
CC10 He shall assist the police in the preservation and maintenance of peace and order and in the protection of life
and property.
CC4 He shall not read newspaper, magazines, books, etc., while performing his duties.
GO3 To report all the violations that I am instructed to enforce.
CC8 He shall know the location of the telephone and the telephone number of the police precincts as well as the fire
stations in the locality.
RA 5487 The act that regulates the organization and operation of private detective
RA 5487 the Private Security Agency Law has been amended by PD 100
RA 7641 An act amending Article 287 of PD 442 as amended, otherwise known as the labor code of the
Philippines
PROFESSIONAL SEC GUARD is any person who render personal service to guard residential or business premises or
both, government buildings and establishment.
SECURITY SUPERVISOR is charged in directing the work and observing the behavioral performance of the guard under
his unit.
Private Detective is any natural person who does detective work for hire, reward and compensation or
commission.
Security Guard Force a group of forces of men selected, trained or organized into functional group
Security Education Program - a program given to employees of an installation by lecture and other means pertaining to
measure and safeguards
MORALITY ________ agreed upon rules for what is “right” and “wron
TERRITORIALITY means that the law is only effective within the territorial confines of one's jurisdiction - be it
land, atmosphere, interior waters and maritime zone.
EX POST FACTO LAW is one passed after the commission of an act making the latter criminal when it was not at the
time it was executed.
BILL OF ATTAINDER is a legislative act which inflicts punishment without trial.
GENERALITY means that the law governs all persons within the territorial jurisdiction of the state irrespective of race,
belief, sex or creed.
CRIMINAL LAW is that branch of municipal law which defines crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their
punishment.
CRIME is a positive or negative act in violation of penal law.
CRIME s any act which the sovereign has deemed contrary to the public good.
PENAL LAW is a law enacted to preserve the public order by defining an offense against the public and imposing a
penalty for its violation.
PROSPECTIVITY Irretrospectivity or _____ means that the law only takes effect after its effectivity date and never
retrospective in its application.
HUMAN CONDUCT Criminal laws regulate ______ tell people what they cannot do and, in some instances, what
they must do under certain circumstances.
MISTAKE OF FACT It is a misapprehension of fact on the part of the person who caused injury to another.
CRIMINAL LAW It is the branch of municipal law which defines crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their
punishment.
TERRITORIALITY in that criminal law undertakes to punish crimes committee within Philippine territory.
ENGLISH RULE Crimes are triable in that country, unless they merely affect things within the vessel or they refer to the
internal management thereof.
FRENCH RULE such crimes are not triable in courts of that country, unless their commission affects the peace and
security of the territory or the safety of the state is endangered.
ACT any bodily movement tending to produce some effect in the external world.
CRIMINAL LAW regulate human conduct and tell people what they cannot do and, in some instances, what they
must do under certain circumstances.
FELONIES are acts and omissions punishable by the revised penal code.
INTENT It is the purpose to use a particular means to affect such result.
REALISTIC THEORY the basis of criminal liability is the sum of social and economic phenomena to which the actor
was exposed, hence the penalty imposed is for preventive or corrective purposes.
BILL OF ATTAINDER legislative act which inflicts punishment without trial.
GENERALITY in that criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn in Philippine territory.
WHEN IN DOUBT, YOU MUST AWUIT In dubiis reus est absolvendus
CLASSICAL THEORY the basis of criminal responsibility is the existence of the offender’s free will and the penalty for
his criminal act is by way of retribution.
CRIME a positive or negative act in violation of penal law.
MALA IN SE It is wrongful act from their nature.
OMMISION is meant inaction, the failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to do.
OMMISSION It is a failure to perform a positive duty required by law. It is a violation of a law commanding it.
FELONY The word does not cover a crime punished by special law.
MENS REA, ACTUS REUS For a crime to exist in our law, there must be both _____ (criminal intent or guilty
minds) and _______ (criminal or guilty act).
DECEIT They are committed not only by means of ____ – that is, when the acts performed with deliberate intent.
FELONIES are acts and omissions punishable by law.
FAULT but also by means of _____– i.e., when the wrongful act results from imprudence, negligence, lack of foresight,
or lack of skill.
SPECIAL LAW the term is one which is not amendatory of the provisions of the code but which defines and punishes
offenses not covered by the latter
CONSUMATED when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present.
INTENTIONAL FELONIES committed by means of deceit or malice (Ex. Murder and Estafa)
FRUSTRATED the offender performs all the acts of execution which would produce the felony as a consequence but
which nevertheless do not produce it by reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator.
CULPABLE FELONIES where the wrongful acts result from imprudence, negligence, lack of foresight or lack of skill (Ex.
Homicide thru reckless imprudence or reckless imprudence resulting in homicide).
SUBJECTIVE PHASE is that portion of the execution of the crime starting from the point where the offender begins
up to that point where he still has control of is acts.
CONSPIRACY it exists when two or more persons come to an agreement concerning the commission of a felony and
decide to commit it.
INTENTIONAL FELONY refer to malicious intent and that it must be proven beyond reasonable doubt.
OBJECTIVE PHASE is the result of the acts of the execution, that is, the accomplishment of the crime.
LESS GRAVE FELONIES those which the law punishes with penalties which in their maximum period are correctional
Praeter intentionem INJURIOUS RESULT
MALA PROHIBIT A wrong merely because they are prohibited by statutes, like illegal possession of
firearms or violation of the Omnibus Election Law.
ATTEMPTED when the offender commences the commission of a felony directly by overt acts of execution which
should produce the felony by reason of some cause or accident other than his own spontaneous desistance.
SPECIAL LAW is one which is not amendatory of the provisions of the code but which defines and punishes offenses
not covered by the latter.
MISTAKE IN THE BLOW Aberration ictus
MISTAKE IN THE IDENTITY Error in personae
LIGHT FELONIES those infractions of law for the commission of which the penalty of arresto menor or a fine not
exceeding two hundred (P200.00) pesos, or both, is provided
ROPOSAL when the person who decided to commit a felony proposes to some other person or persons.
GRAVE FELONIES those to which the law attached the capital punishment or penalties which in any of their
periods are afflictive in accordance with Art. 25 of the RPC
LIGHT OFFENSES punishable only when they have been consummated, with the exception of those committed
against persons or property.
MALA IN SE crimes which are wrong from their nature, such as murder, theft, rape, etc.
IMBECILE An ____ is a person marked by mental deficiency, while an insane is one who has an unsound mind or
suffers from a mental disorder.
PLEA OF GUILTY Is not considered mitigating if entered after the prosecution had begun presenting its
evidence.
70 The circumstances that the offender is over ____ years of age is only a generic mitigating circumstance.
CHILD below nine years old is absolutely free from criminal liability.
ENTRAPMENT In an ______ ways and means are resorted to for the purpose of trapping and capturing the
lawbreakers in the execution of their criminal plan.
ABSOLUTORY CAUSES Is “a circumstance which is present prior to or simultaneously with the offense by reason of
which the accused who acts with criminal intent, freedom and intelligence does not incur criminal liability for an act
constitutes a crime.”
INSTIGATION, INSTIGATOR In _____, the ____ practically induces the would-be defendant into the commission of
the offense, and himself becomes a co-principal.
DISCERNMENT a child above 15 years of age but below 19 years of age shall be exempt from criminal liability unless he
has acted with _____
DISCERNMENT must be proved by showing that the accused acted with knowledge or understanding of the
consequences of his act.
AN ACT DONE IN OBEDIENCE Which of the following is an exempted circumstance?
HE IS STILL CRIMINALLY LIABLE What will be the effect on the criminal liability of the accused who was sane when he
committed the crime, but becomes insane at the time of the trial?
NO H (husband) and W (wife) are legally married. H saw W having sex with P (paramour). H attacked P with a bolo. P
defended himself by inflicting knife wounds on H. H die due to knife wound. Is P liable for death of H?
THAT THE MEANS Which of these is NOT a requisite of “avoidance of greater evil or injury?”
YES A and B agreed to fight outside at around 5 pm. However, at 3:00 pm, A treacherously attacked B so b defended
himself and killed the former while A is attacking him. Can B still claim self defense even though he agreed to fight?
SELF DEFENSE Which of these justifying circumstances has civil liability?
ABSOLUTORY One where the act committed is a crime but for some reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no
penalty
ALL What is the basis of complete exempting circumstances?
AGGRAVATING How is accidental drunkenness appreciated as a circumstance in commission of offense?
ENTRAPMENT it is the ways and means are resorted to for the purpose of trapping and capturing the lawbreakers in
the execution of their criminal plan.
MITIGATING those which do not entirely free the actor from penal responsibility but serve only to lessen or reduce
the impossible penalty.
ALL Which of these may show the presence or non-presence of the killing being really a case of “self-defense” on the
part of the accused?
JUSTIFYING Those who must be taken into consideration as aggravating or mitigating according to the nature and
effects of the crime and other conditions attending its commission.
ABSO a circumstance which is present prior to or simultaneously with the offense by reason of which the accused who
acts with criminal intent, freedom and intelligence does not incur criminal liability for an act constitutes a crime.
CHILD A _____ below nine years old is absolutely free from criminal liability. But the parent or guardian of said child
may be held civilly liable.
THE CAUSE THAT BOUGHT Which of the following statement is NOT true?
ABSO One where the act committed is a crime but for some reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty:
AN ACT DONE IN OVE Which of the following is a mitigating circumstance?
IMBECILE It is a person marked by mental deficiency, while an insane is one who has an unsound mind or suffers
from a mental disorder.
INSTIGATION it induces the would-be defendant into the commission of the offense, and himself becomes a
coprincipal.
CONSPIRACY exist when two or more persons come to an agreement concerning the commission of a felony and
decide to commit it
CORPUS DELICTI is the fact of the commission of the crime that may be proved by the testimonies of
eyewitnesses.
PRINCIPALS, ACCOMPLICES For “light felonies,” the following are criminally liable:
PRINCIPALS, ACCOMPLICES, ACCESSORIES criminally liable for “grave and less grave felonies”
ACCESSORIES are those who, having knowledge of the commission of the crime, and without having participated
therein, either as principals or accomplices, take part subsequent to its commission
ACCOMPLICES it is merely instrument who perform acts not essential to the perpetration of the offense.
JURIDICIAL PERSON It is being the subject of legal existence, susceptible of rights and obligations, or of being the
subject of juridical relations.
CONSPIRACY it exist when two or more persons come to an agreement concerning the commission of a felony and
decide to commit it.
NATURAL PERSON Only __________ can be the active subject of crime because of the highly personal nature of the
criminal responsibility. However, under certain special laws, juridical persons are criminally liable.
CORPUS DELICTI means “the body or substance of the crime.”
THOSE WHO TAKE Under Art. 17 of the RPC, who are considered principals.
ALL Criminal law should be prospective. However, penal laws may have retroactive effect if the new law is:*
CORPUS DELICTI it is the fact of the commission of the crime that may be proved by the testimonies of
eyewitnesses.
PRINCIPAL BY INDUCTION a common-law wife who induced the killing of another common-law wife of her
husband by giving money to the killer is a
ALL To be liable as principals, the offender must*
CRIMINALLY LIABLE Under B.P. 22 (bouncing checks law), the person who signed the bouncing check in behalf of the
juridical person which is the drawer
ACCESSORIES those who, having knowledge of the commission of the crime, and without having participated therein.
INTENT Which one of the following does not belong to the group.
PRINCIPALS They are persons criminally liable due to their direct participation in the commission of the crime.
PRINCIPALS The penalty prescribed by law for the commission of a felony shall be imposed upon the _______ in the
commission of the felony.
ACCOMPLICES those persons who, not being a principal, cooperate in the execution of the offense by
previous or simultaneous acts.
OMMISION is meant inaction, the failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to do.
JURIDICAL PERSON testate or intestate is one of the example of.
PROPOSAL there is a proposal when the person who has decided to commit a felony proposes its execution to
some other person or persons.
COMSPIRACY The act of one is the act of all.
SUBSIDIARY It is the personal penalty prescribed by law in substitution of the payment of fine embodied in the
decision when the same can not be satisfied because of the culprit’s insolvency.
PENALTY It is the punishment imposed by lawful authority upon a person who commits a deliberate or negligent
act.
COMPLEX XRIMES When a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies, or when an offense is a
necessary means for committing the other.
PRISON MAYOR 6 years and 1 day to 12 years, except when the penalty of disqualification is imposed as an
accessory penalty, in which case, its duration shall be that of the principal penalty.
DELICTO COMPUESTO When a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies
CONTINUING It is a single crime consisting of a series of acts arising from one criminal resolution, it is continuous,
unlawful act or series of acts set on foot by a single impulse and operated by an unintermittent force however long a
time it may occupy.
AGE* In imposing fines, the court may fix any amount within the limits established by law; in fixing the amount in each
case attention shall be given, not only to the mitigating and aggravating circumstances, but more particularly to the
________ of the defendant.
PLURALITY It consists of the successive execution by the same individual of different criminal acts upon any of
which no conviction has yet been declared.
DESTIERRO It is “a punishment whereby the convict is vanished to a certain place and is prohibited from entering or
coming near the place designated in the sentence, not less 25 km. but cannot extend beyond 250 km. If the convict
should enter the prohibited place designated in the sentence, he commits the crime of evasion of sentence.”
ARESTO MAYOR* Any person sentenced to ___________ shall not be permitted to enter the place or places
designated in the sentenced, nor within the radius therein specified.
DEATH PENALTY It is the penalty which cannot be imposed when the guilty party is more than seventy years of
age.
DELITO COMPLEJO When an offense is a necessary means of committing the other
ACQUITTAL Articles which are forfeited, when the order of forfeiture is already final cannot be returned even in case
of an __________
HABITUAL DELIQUENT A person shall be deemed to be ________ if within a period of ten years from the date of his
release or last conviction of the crimes of serious or less serious physical injuries, estafa, or falsification, he is found
guilty of any of said crimes a third time or oftener.
PROBATION It is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released subject to
conditions imposed by the court.
PREVENTIVE It is the incarceration undergone by a person accused of a crime which is not bailable, or even if bailable,
can not afford to post bond.
INTERMEDIATE The purpose of this law is to uplift and valuable human material and prevent unnecessary and excessive
deprivation of personal liberty and economic usefulness.
PRISON CORRECTIONAL 6 months and 1 day to 6 years, except when suspension is imposed as an accessory
penalty, in which case, its duration shall be that of the principal penalty.
RECIDIVSM when the time of trial for one crime, shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of another
crime embraced in the same title of the revised penal code.
NOT LESS 25, MORE THAN 250 The radius specified in the penalty of destierro shall be _____________.
EXECUTIVE it refers to the commutation of sentence, conditional pardon and absolute pardon may be granted by
the president upon recommendation of the board.
COMMUTATION it is the reduction of the period of a prison sentence.
PROBATION is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions
imposed by the court.
PAROLE it is the release of a prisoner from prison after serving the minimum period of his indeterminate
sentence.
PAROLE It is an Executive clemency given to the convicted offender after the offender has served the minimum
penalty through the Board of Pardons and Parole.
15 DAYS During the eleventh and successive years of his imprisonment, the prisoner shall be allowed a deduction
of _____ for each month of good behavior.
CONDITIONAL It is considered a contract between the sovereign power of the executive and the convict that
the sovereign power will release convict upon compliance with the condition.
MINIMUM Whenever any prisoner shall have served the ________ penalty imposed on him, it shall appear to the
Board of Indeterminate Sentence that such prisoner is fitted for release, said Board may authorize the release of such
prisoner on parole, upon such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Board.
CONTINUE Amado was change with homicide during the pendency of the case Amado died what will happen to the
case filed against him.
COMMUTATION It is a change of the decision of the court made by the Chief Executive by reducing the degree of
the penalty inflicted upon the convict, or by decreasing the length of the imprisonment of the amount of the fine
DOJ There is hereby created under the __________ an agency to be known as the Probation Administration herein
referred to as the Administration, which shall exercise general supervision over all probationers.
FINAL No penalty shall be executed except by virtue of a _________ judgment.
STRICTLY Any person who has been granted conditional pardon shall incur the obligation of _____ otherwise, his
non compliance shall result in the revocation of the pardon.
SUSPENDED When a convict becomes insane or imbecile after final sentence has been pronounced, the execution of
said sentence is __________ only as regards the personal penalty.
COURT The probationer and his probation program shall be under the control of the ____ who placed him on probation
subject to actual supervision and visitation by a probation officer.
INSTITUTIONAL In determining whether an offender may be placed on probation, the court shall consider all information
relative, to the character, antecedents, environment, mental and physical condition of the offender, and available
__________.
PROBATION is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions
imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
PTOB OFFICER No person shall be placed on probation except upon prior investigation by the __________ and a
determination by the court that the ends of justice and the best interest of the public as well as that of the defendant
will be served thereby.
PROBATIONER means a person placed on probation.
SIXTY DAYS The probation officer shall submit to the court the investigation report on a defendant not later than
__________ from receipt of the order of said court to conduct the investigation.
PROB ADMIN The Administration shall be headed by the __________, hereinafter referred to as the Administrator,
who shall be appointed by the President of the Philippines. He shall hold office during good behavior and shall not be
removed except for cause.
CONDITIONAL PARDON It is the conditional exemption of a guilty offender for the punishment imposed by a court.
ABSOLUTE PARDON It is the total extinction of the criminal liability of the individual
PROBATION OFFICER one who investigates for the court a referral for probation or supervises a probationer or both.
PROBATIONER a person placed on probation
P.D. No. 968 LAW THAT TOOK EFFECT ON JULY 24 1976
ONCE TIMES CAN ONE BE GRANTED PROBATION
AMNESTY Which of the following is an executive clemency that requires the concurrence of congress?
MIN. AS MAX. In the preceding problem, impose the proper penalty on A taking into consideration the Indeterminate
Sentence Law.
QUASI It refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of penalty imposed for another previous
offense.
MINIMUM Whenever any prisoner shall have served the ________ penalty imposed on him, it shall appear to the
Board of Indeterminate Sentence that such prisoner is fitted for release, said Board may authorize the release of such
prisoner on parole, upon such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Board.
RESTITUTION Pedro was required to provide financial remuneration for the losses incurred by the victim.
What is the type of penalty described?
AMNESTY Which of the following is an executive clemency that requires the concurrence of congress?
COMMUNITY The parole and probation administration administers a _________ correctional program.
CORR ADMIN It is concerned with the management of adult and juvenile offenders after they are convicted by the
courts.
GO AND PLAY Which of the following should a probationer avoid?
NONE Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoner’s fitness and qualifications for the grant of pardon or parole?
INCARCERATION It include shock incarceration, placing offenders in confinement for a set period and then
releasing them to serve probation, confinement in jail and confinement in prison. The four basic types are:
indeterminate discretionary determinate presumptive, and mandatory
4103 What law is very supportive for the convicted prisoner after he completely served the minimum sentenced of his
indeterminate prison term of his incarceration can be eligibility for his early release.
ISL The RA 4103 known as:
INTERME A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is referred to as _______.
MIN AND MAX Why is the sentence in the Indeterminate Sentence Law called indeterminate?
CONDITIONAL It is considered a contract between the sovereign power of the executive and the convict that
the sovereign power will release convict upon compliance with the condition.
PROBATION OFFICER One who investigate for the court a referral for probation or supervises a probationer or both
AMNESTY It denotes the general pardon to rebels for their treasons and other high political offenses.
BY COMPEN It is one of the extinguishment of civil liability.
1 YR The crime of libel on other similar offenses shall prescribed in _____
COMMUTATION It is a remission of a part of the punishment. It is a substitution of a less penalty for the one
originally imposed.
6MOS The 0ffense of oral deformation and slander by deed shall prescribed in _____
PRESCRIPTION In computing the period of ______ the first day is to be excluded and the last day included.
15 YRS Crimes punishable by other affective penalties shall prescribe in _____
NONE It is an act of grace, proceeding from the power entrusted with the execution of the laws which exempt the
individual on whom it is bestowed from the punishment which the law inflicts for a crime he has committed.
STRICTLY Any person who has been granted conditional pardon shall incur the obligation of _____ otherwise, his
non compliance shall result in the revocation of the pardon.
ABSOLUTE It removes all the consequences of conviction because such kind of pardon blots out the crime
committed.
TRIAL Criminal liability is totally extinguished by
PROBATIONER A person placed on probation.
THE DEAt\TH The death of the convict, whether before or after final judgment, extinguishes only when the death
occurs before final judgment. But civil liability is extinguished only when __________.
20YRS Crimes punishable by reclusion perpetua or reclusion temporal shall prescribed in _____
PRESCRIPTION OF CRIME It is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender after the
lapse of a certain time.
COMMUTATOIN It is a change of the decision of the court made by the Chief Executive by reducing the degree of
the penalty inflicted upon the convict, or by decreasing the length of the imprisonment of the amount of the fine
10YRS Crimes punishable b correctional penalty shall prescribed in _____
SUSPENDED When a convict becomes insane or imbecile after final sentence has been pronounced, the execution of
said sentence is __________ only as regards the personal penalty.
CRIMINAL LAW Is that branch or division of law which defines crimes, treats of their nature, and provides for their
punishment.
ARREST A restraint on person, depriving one of his own will and liberty, binding him to become obedient to the will of
the law
PREMISES signifies distinct and definite locality. It may mean a room, shop, building or definite area, but in either
case, locality is fixed.
THEFT Is committed by any person who, with intent to gain but without violence against or intimidation of persons nor
force upon things, shall take personal property of another without the latter’s consent.
REPARATION In case of inability to return the property stolen, the culprit must pay the value of the property stolen.
INSTIGATION Public officer or private detective induces an innocent person to commit a crime and would arrest him
upon or after the commission of the crime by him
AGGRA Are those which, if attendant in the commission of the crime, serve to increase the penalty without, however,
exceeding the maximum of the penalty provided by law for the offense.
LIGHT Are those infractions of law for the commission of which the penalty of arresto menor or a fine not exceeding
200 pesos, is provided
LEWD Is designed as obscene, lustful, indecent, and lecherous. It signifies the form of immorality which has relation to
moral impurity; or that which is carried on a wanton manner.
BATTERY Application of force to another, resulting in harmful or offensive contact.
LESS GRAVE Are those which the law punishes with penalties which in their maximum period are correctional.
GRAVE Are those to which the law attaches the capital punishment or penalties which in any of their periods are
afflictive.
ACQUITTAL a jury verdict that a criminal defendant is not guilty or the finding of a judge that the evidence is
insufficient to support a conviction.
INFANTICIDE The killing of any child less than three days of age, whether the killer is the parent or grandparent, any
other relative of the child, or a stranger.
EXEMPTING Are those grounds for exemption from punishment because there is wanting in the agent of the crime
any of the conditions which make the act voluntary, or negligent.
LIBEL Is a defamation committed by means of writing, printing, lithography, radio, phonograph, painting or theatrical
or cinematographic exhibition, or any similar means.
JUSTI Are those where the act of a person is said to be in accordance with law, so that such person is deemed not to
have transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and civil liability.
OFFENSE Is an act or omission that is punishable by special laws such as Republic Acts, Presidential Decrees,
Executive Orders, Memorandum Circulars, Ordinances and Rules and Regulations.
MITI Those which, if present in the commission of the crime, do not entirely free the actor from criminal liability but
only serve to reduce the penalty.
SEIZE It means to place in the control of someone a thing or to give him the possession thereof.
FORTULOUS EVENT CASO FORTULIO
TORTIOUS ACT CULPA ACQUILANA
BREACH OF CONTRACT CULPA CONTRACTUAL
INTENT use a particular means to affect such result.
MOTIVE moving power which impels one to action for a definite result
SPECIFIC apply only to particular crime
QUALIFYING change the nature of the crime.
INHERENT necessity accompany the commission of the crime.
ACCIDENT any happening beyond control of persons, consequences of which are not foreseeable.
IGNOMINY moral suffering
CRUELTY moral suffering
ABERRATIO ICTUS mistake in the blow
ERROR IN PERSONAE mistake in the identity of the victim
Criminal liability is totally extinguished by:
1. Death of the convict;
2. Service of the sentence;
3. Amnesty;
4. Absolute pardon;
5. Prescription of the crime;
6. Prescription of the penalty; and
7. Marriage of the offended woman, as provide in Art. 344 of the RPC.
Under the New Civil Code, civil liability is extinguished by:
1) Payment or performance;
2) Loss of the thing due;
3) Condonation or remission of debt;
4) Confusion or merger;
5) Compensation; and
6) Novation.
FLAVIANNO GUERERO He is the only Filipino member of the United States Federal Bureau of Investigation.
USA The FBI introduced the beginning of Automated Fingerprint Identification System in:
FRANCIS GALTON He is an English man who published his study on classifying fingerprints and recognized the
uniqueness of the fingerprints to be used as evidence against a suspect.
ALFRED THE GREAT He established a system of “mutual pledge” (Social Control), which was organized for the
security of the country into several levels.
HOWARD VINCENT He headed the newly organized Criminal Investigation Department in Scotland Yard.
BERTILLION He was considered the founder of Criminal Investigation as well as the Father of Personal Identification.
CONAN DOYLE He is known as the creator of the character of master sleuth Sherlock Holmes.
KATE WAYNE She was the first woman detective in the history of criminal investigation.
MODUS OPERANDI someone’s habits of working particularly in the context of business or criminal investigation.
VIDOQ He was considered as the Father of Modern Criminology in the French Police Department.
ENDURANCE This is the ability of the investigator to last physically and mentally hence he/she must have the
extraordinary physical and mental energy, enduring sleepless nights and tiresome days.
TO INQUIRE ‘Investigat’ means:
MANWONG 2004 “Criminal investigations science because it involves the application of knowledge of forensic
science is in the process of identifying, locating, collecting, processing, and/or evaluating physical evidence.”
COURAGE It is the moral fortitude of the investigator to tell the truth irrespective of who gets hurt.
INVESTIGATION The act or process of investigating or the condition of being investigated.
ART AND SCIENCE Investigation is a mixture of ____________.
CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION A _________ is an official effort to uncover information about the crime.
DR. HANS GROSS He said that criminal investigation is 95% perspiration, 3% inspiration and 2% luck.
PERSEVERANCE It refers to steadfastness, persistence, and resolution to bring the desired conclusion in spite of
obstacles connected with criminal investigation.
INVESTIGAT Investigation came from the Latin term __________, which means “to inquire or to discover” during the
5th century.
KNOWLEDGE ON LAWS The investigator should have basic knowledge on legal matters concerning investigation.
MOTIVE It is the moving power or force which compels a person to commits acts towards a definite result.
INSTRUMENTALITY It involves the use of materials in other means which are essential in the commission of the
crime.
OPPORTUNITY It is the chance, or the time given to the offender in committing the crime.
LUCK Dr. Hans Gross said that criminal investigation is 95% perspiration, 5% inspiration and 2% _____.
MOTIVE Three elements of crime: Instrumentality, Opportunity, and ________.
5TH CENT Investigation came from the Latin term ‘investigat’, which means “to inquire or to discover” during the
_________.
TECHNICAL KNOWLEDGE This refers to the investigator’s capability of defense tactics, use of firearms and the like.
INVESTIGATION The act or process of investigating or the condition of being investigated.
TIPS ______are leads provided by the citizen that aid in the progress of an investigation.
PRESENTATION This element is primarily manifested in the courtroom.
INSTRUMENTATION process of applying instruments or tools of the police sciences in criminal investigation and
detection
GARCIA, 2004 The purpose of this rule is to avoid the mutilation, alteration, and contamination (MAC) of
the pieces of physical evidence found at the crime scene.
CRIMINAL INVES Discussed in the preceding section. It is a process that involves several steps.
COLLECTION This element refers to the gathering this identify data or facts, or physical things that are
significant to the case under investigation.
PRESERVATION It is a function that is almost simultaneously performed during the collection stage.
EVALUATION This element refers to the process of determining the probative value of the evidence.
PATTERNS _______ are serious of similarities that may link particular cases or indicate that the same
person is committing a series of crimes .
RECOGNITION This element involves the efforts of identifying data, including physical things that may
provide relevant information regarding the criminal case being investigated.
CULTIVATED Information are furnished by informants or informers.
GRAPEVINE SOURCES When the information is disclosed by the underworld characters such as prisoners or ex-
convicts.
RECOGNITION Involves the efforts of identifying data, including physical things that may provide relevant information
regarding the criminal case being investigated.
INFORMATION These are the knowledge or facts which the investigator had gathered or acquired from persons or
documents, which are pertinent or relevant concerning the commission of the crime or criminal activities
FRIENDLINESS A friendly approach coupled with a posture of sincerity may induce the suspect to confess.
HUMILITY He or she must be courteous, sympathetic, and humble, ready to ask apologies for the inconvenience of
the interview.
DECITFUL WITNESS This is a liar type of witness.
SACTING QUAL He or she must possess the quality of an actor, salesman and psychologist and know how to use
the power persuasion.
INTERVIEW It is the simple questioning of a person believed to possess information, which are relevant to the
investigation of a crime or on criminal activities.
RAPPORT It refers to the good relation between the interviewer and interviewee, which is conducive to a fruitful
result.
Q&A Visitor view as practiced by some investigators requires the interviewee to answer the question posed by the
investigator.
TIMID WITNESS This is a shy witness.
INTERROGATION It is the vigorous in confrontational questioning of a reluctant suspect about his/her
participation in the commission of crime.
TALKATIVE TYPE This is a witness who is prone to exaggerate, adding relevant or new matters to their narration.
HONEST WIT This is the truthful in cooperative witness where the investigator could rely upon, with little or no
problem in handling them.
RATIONALIZATION It is the use of reasons, which is acceptable to the subject that led to the commission of the
crime.
PROJECTION It is the process of putting the blame to other persons, not alone to the suspect.
CHANGE OF FACIAL COLOR Anger is indicated if the face is blushing.
APPROACH PHASE This is none through investigators careful selection of the kind of
approach to use, which may be a single kind, a combination of two or the application of all techniques.
MINIMIZATION It is the act of minimizing the culpability of the suspect.
DRUNKEN TYPE The style of questioning by the investigator should be adapted to the psychology of the subject.
KNOWLEDGDE ON PSYCHOLOGY will help the interviewer determine the personality and intelligence of the
subject.
12 hours ______ if the crime is punishable by Arresto Menor (prison term for 1 to 30 days), public censure, fine
below PHP 200.
Arrest _____ is the taking of a person into custody in order that he or she may be bound to answer for the
commission of an offense (Sec., 1, Rule 113, Rules of Court).
standard operationg procedure SOP stands for:
PROBABLE CAUSE Refers to the evidence that warrants a person of reasonable caution in the belief that a crime
was committed.
RULE 7 _______ of Police Operational Procedure (2010) provides that reasonable force can be used during an
armed confrontation.
ARRESTARE The term “arrest” came from the Latin word ______ which means “cause to stop” and “restare” which
means “stay behind”.
10 DAYS The head of office to whom the warrant of arrest was delivered for execution shall cause the warrant to
be executed within _____ from its receipt.
400 YEARS OLD The right of the law enforcement officers to use force to enter a building to make an arrest is
almost _______.
WARRANT OFFICER Is any authorized member from the law enforcement agency usually from the Philippine
National Police (PNP) or National Bureau of Investigation (NBI) who holds a warrant for execution within 10 days from
receipt subject to renewal in case of failure to execute the same.
14TH CENT The term “arrest” came from the Latin word “arrestare” which means “cause to stop” and “restare”
which means “stay behind”. This term was used as early as the __________.
10 DAYS The head of office to whom the warrant of arrest was delivered for execution shall cause the warrant to
be executed within _____ from its receipt.
ARREST It is the taking of a person into custody in order that he or she may be bound to answer for the
commission of an offense (Sec., 1, Rule 113, Rules of Court).
400 YRS OLD The right of the law enforcement officers to use force to enter a building to make an arrest is almost
_____________.
JOHN DOE WARRATN It is a warrant containing no specific person to be arrested but only descriptions based
on the testimonies of the victim/s or the witnesses.
ALIAS WARRANT Refers to the warrant of arrest issued by a judge to the peace officer after returning the original
warrant of arrest after the lapse of the 10-day validity period.
FRISK SEARCH This search was established by Terry vs. Ohio, that officers could conduct a pat down of an individual
the stopped if they believed the person is armed and dangerous. This is a protective search for weapons only.
SEARCH As used in criminal investigation, it is the act of examining persons, documents, papers, and effects.
EXCLUSIONARY RULE This rule was derived from the case of Weeks v. United States in 1914. It established a rule that
federal courts may not accept evidence by unreasonable search and seizure, regardless of the relevance of these to the
case.
CIRCARE The word “search” was derived from the Anglo-Norman word “searcher”, old French ________ which
means “to explore”, and Latin word “circare” which means “go around in circles.”
PRONE SEARCH The suspect in this search lies on his stomach with arms and legs outstretched.
HANDCUFFS Using these are the best method of restraint if it is applied properly; it is good preventive measure but if
improperly applied it could be dangerous.
SEARCH OF MOVING VEHICLES This search is popular called as “check points.” This instance of warrantless search
cannot be done anytime.
WALL SEARCH The initial purpose of this search is to put the suspect in an “off-balanced position”.
CONSENTED SEARCH This is if the person submitted himself/herself voluntarily to a search, it is valid because he
consented to the search.
PLAIN VIEW DOCTRINE Under this doctrine, police officers can seize articles or objects which inadvertently come to
their view without exerting any effort and which object is incriminatory to the accused.
SADILI AND PENA It is believed that as part of effecting arrest and search of enforcing the law we need to be
guided by legal established rules. Given below are situational questions and explanatory notes about “shoot to kill
order”
BULLET This can provide information about the make and type of ammunition and weapon from which the
bullet was fired.
CONCLUSIVE EVIDENCE This evidence is incontrovertible or one which the law does not allow to be
contradicted.
BLOOD This becomes important evidence in homicide, assaults, robberies or other cases where it may be spilled. It may
be categorized into major groups of A, B, AB, and O depending on the condition of the stain on receipt.
GLASS This can be important evidence in robberies and hit and run cases.
EVIDENCE It is the means, sanctioned by these rules, of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a
matter of fact.
DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE It refers to writing, including official records, or contents “could speak for themselves”
when read by the investigators and the court.
TESTIMONIAL EVIDENCE This is the product of interview and interrogation from which witness’ smell, hear, taste
and touch are being described through oral and written testimony.
PRIMA FACIE This evidence suffices for the proof of a particular fact until contradicted by other evidence.
HAIR This may be found anywhere in the crime scene. It often found on the clothing of the victim and suspect who has
come into physical contact with each other.
PHYSICAL EVIDENCE These are physical objects used as evidence which are obtained through searches at the scene
of the crime.
OBJECTEVIDENCE This evidence is either verbal or oral. It is an evidence which consists of the narration or
deposition by one who observed or has personal knowledge of that to which he/she is testifying.
MATERIAL EVIDENCE This evidence tends to prove the fact in issue and is determined by the rules of substantive law
or rule of court.
TESTIMONIAL EVIDENCE This is the product of interview and interrogation from which witness’ smell, hear, taste
and touch are being described through oral and written testimony.
TOOL MARK This potential piece of evidence is any mark that is created when an instrument has contact with another
surface. The mark left by the tool may indicate the type of tool, the size of tool and even the skill of the perpetrator.
FINGERPRINTS These consist of ridges, depression and separations. These remained unchanged and consistent
throughout lifetime.
DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE It refers to writing, including official records, or contents “could speak for themselves”
when read by the investigators and the court.
CORROBORAIVE EVISENCE This evidence is of different kind and character as that already given and tends to prove the
same proposition.
PHYSICAL EVIDENCE These are physical objects used as evidence which are obtained through searches at the scene
of the crime.
BROAD DAYLIGHT A person can hardly be recognized by another person at a distance further than 100 yards if the
person has never been seen before, but persons who are almost strangers may be recognized at a distance of 25 yards.
MANNERISM Stereotype movement or habit peculiar an individual.
COMPLEXION This may be determined when the whole body is exposed preferably to ordinary sunlight.
20TH YEAR The human skeleton is unchangeable after the ________.
IDENTIFICATION It is the process of determining the personality of a person or thing.
MENTAL MEMORY These are characteristics which may easily be changed, except:
SOLIS 1987 “There is no rigid rule to be observed in the procedure of identification of persons.”
GROWTH OF HAIR These are characteristics which may not easily change, except:
TATTOO MARK This is the introduction of coloring pigments in the layers of the skin by multiple punctures.
LAW OF MULTIPLICITY OF EVIDENCE The greater the number of points of similarities and the similarities of two
persons compared, the greater is the probability to be correct. This is known as the __________ in identification.
MENTAL MEMORY These are characteristics that may not easily change, except:
POSITIVE IDENTIFICATION This uses information that identify an individual beyond question and is legally acceptable as
pertaining to and originating from a particular individual
DEFORMITY This may be congenital or acquired. It may cause peculiar way of walking, body movement, facial
expression, mannerisms, etc.
CHANGES IN THE EYS A person is identified because he is nearsighted, farsighted, colorblind, astigmatic, presbyopic,
or cross-eyed.
WORKING AREA It is an area surrounding the inner scene, where other support police may enter, and
equipment is staged, and evidence is brought to.
THE MEANS OF REPORT This is either personal appearance, by phone or any other means.
PHOTOGRAPHER It is the one who takes photographs of all pieces of evidence that are relevant to the crime
committed.
TAKE-MID RANGE These are photos of the immediate CS and the location of objects of evidence within the area
or room which portrays the scene from approximately 10-20 feet from the subject matter.