1) Bulls eye maculopathy caused by which virus c) Fuchs uveitis syndrome (FUS)

a) CMV d) Ischemic syndrome

b) HSV e) 3

c) VZV 7) In modern cataract surgery, surgery should be

done when
d) Adenovirus
a) Pt age < 50 yrs.
2) Cardiac Pt on medication c/o haloes around light.
On exam, bilateral subepithelial fine radial lines b) Pt age > 50 yrs.
on cornea, which drug has caused this?
c) Pt need, when his daily activities are
a) Amiodarone disturbed

b) Ca channel blocker 8) Origin of rhabdomyosarcoma

c) Isosorbide a) Connective tissue

d) B-blocker b) Fatty tissue

3) Pt operated for Right Trab with MMC, least early c) EO muscles or Muller muscle
complication of surgery
9) Pt is planned for cataract surgery, corneal
a) Endophthalmitis incision should be given to ↓astigmatism

b) Bleb a) Superior
c) Choroidal Hg b) Temporal
d) Shallow AC c) 90O to the highest meridian

4) Pt operated for successful Phaco + IOL. After 10) Major virulence factor of gram +ve streptococcus
one year c/o ↓VA in operated eye
a) Anti C5 peptidase
a) PCO
b) C-carbohydrate
b) Bacterial infection
c) M-protein
c) CMO
d) Streptolysin-O ?
d) RD
e) Streptolysin-M
5) Incorrect statement about Humphrey VF.
11) Glaucoma pt. Using pilocarpine c/o D/V. Cause?
a) Gives 3 dimensional result of island of hill
a) Loss of accommodation
b) Monitoring purpose for previous results
b) Small pupil (which induces myopia)
c) Less teaching required to technician
operating c) Anterior displacement of lens

d) Easy for patient 12) Patient wearing RGP C/L for 2 wks. O/E Rt
cornea has Sattler Veil appearance, lens too loose
6) Patient with Rt iris neovessels at pupillary
margin but no vessels at periphery & PAS, a) Epithelial hypoxia
cause?
b) Epithelial oedema
a) CRVO
c) ↑sensitivity to protein
b) PDR
 d) Stromal oedema c) Salt and pepper appearance / bony spicule

13) 6 month old child with watering. R/E d) Metabolic error of phytanic acid
photophobia. O/E corneal haze, cornea looks
enlarged. What’s the next step? 19) To assess functional capacity of carotid artery at
its bifurcation, investigation of choice?
a) Measurement of corneal diameter
a) Carotid Doppler U/S
b) IOP
b) MRI
c) Fundus exam
c) B Scan
d) Trabeculotomy
d) Arteriography
14) Pt not opening BE properly because of BE ptosis.
Skin wrinkling with various episodes of 20) Causes of tractional RD, least correct
periorbital oedema
a) Penetrating trauma
a) Blepharochalasis
b) PHPV
b) Blepharospasm
c) Sickle cell retinopathy
c) Dermatochalasis
d) Diabetic retinopathy
d) Blepharoptosis
21) Least correct complication of retrobulbar
15) Common complication of strabismus surgery injection

a) Perforation of globe a) Globe perforation

b) Optic nerve cutting b) ↑ ICP, respiratory paralysis

c) Lost muscle syndrome c) ↑ IOP

d) Prolapse orbital fat d) CRVO

e) Misalignment of muscles e) CRAO

16) Regarding Rx of superior limbic 22) 35 yrs. Old ↓VA, ↑IOP, mild discomfort. O/E
keratoconjunctivitis difficult to control with Rx, pupil reaction fine, yellow-white KPs, no PAS
next option
a) Fuch’s uveitis
a) Superior limbic conjunctival dissection
b) Traumatic uveitis
b) Strong topical steroids
c) Possner Scholsman syndrome
c) Periocular steroids
d) Lens induced glaucoma
17) Mobius syndrome correct statement
23) Pt with diplopia in primary position with Lt
hypertropia, inc. With left gaze & Rt head tilt
a) Bilateral 7th nerve palsy

b) Horizontal and vertical gaze palsy a) Left superior oblique palsy

c) Autosomal recessive condition b) Left inferior oblique palsy

c) Right superior oblique palsy

18) Refsum disease, least correct
d) Right inferior oblique palsy
a) It is associated with loss of phytanic acid
24) Pt with gradual proptosis. CT scan shows osteo
b) Associated with RP erosions of orbital fissure. Most probable dx?
 a) Pseudotumor b) Betaxolol on B2 receptor

b) Neurofibromatosis c) Timolol

c) Cavernous haemangioma 31) Vitelliform dystrophy is

d) Capillary haemangioma a) Unilateral
e) Dermoid/mucocoele b) AD
25) Pt 60 yrs. Old, scalp tenderness. ESR – 102, c) Retinal
slight deterioration of vision previously
diagnosed. 32) Worth 4 dot test, wrong statement

a) GCA a) 2 red lights seen  Rt suppression

b) Uveitis b) 3 green lights seen Lt suppression
c) Post herpetic neuralgia c) 2 red and 3 green seen  excyclotropia

26) For GCA, temporal artery biopsy size should be? 33) Thyroid ophthalmopathy, which commonest
muscle is involved
a) 1.5 cm
a) Inferior rectus
b) 2.5 cm
b) Lateral
c) 3.5 cm, 4 cm
c) Medial
27) Patient with dysthyroid, CT scan shows
34) Which type of IOL can get bacterial precipitates
a) Nodular muscle thickness
a) PMMA
b) Diffuse muscle thickness
b) PMMA with heparin
c) Fusiform muscle enlargement with tendon
sparing c) PMMA without heparin
d) Fusiform enlargement d) Silicon

28) 65 yrs. Old patient with post cerebral infarction, 35) To check C/D ratio, optic disc best seen by
investigation of choice
a) +90 D
a) CT scan
b) With direct ophthalmoscope
b) MRI
c) With indirect ophthalmoscope
c) Carotid Doppler
d) With red free light
d) Arteriography
36) Pt of 35 yrs. Old c/o D/V RE with corneal
29) 35 yrs. Old lady with weakness of body ↑ in the oedema, haloes around light. IOP 34, cells in AC.
evening
a) Fuch’s uveitis
a) MG
b) Posner scholsman syndrome
b) Pseudotumor
c) Uveitis
c) Thyroid ophthalmopathy
d) PXF syndrome
30) Cardio-selective B-blocker
37) Brimonidine
a) Betaxolol on B1 receptor
 a) Α2 agonist c) Multiple lesion

b) Β1 selection d) Peripheral and multiple lesions

c) Β2 selection 44) Benign lid tumor/ mass which can lead to

malignancy
38) Pathological myopia percentage in Pakistan
a) Actinic keratosis (lead to Sq Cell Ca)
a) 5-6%
b) Pyogenic granuloma
b) 6-7%
45) Uveitis aggravated by least of following
c) 7-9% (10%)
a) Latanoprost
d) 10-15%
b) Diclofenac
39) Pt with h/o blunt trauma. On fundus exam, red
spots at peripheral which represent hole. What is c) Pilocarpine
the characteristic of this hole?
46) Least complication by Latanoprost
a) Pigmented cell
a) Macular edema
b) Red cells
b) Eye last thickening
c) Normal area
c) Periorbital pigmentation
40) 360O prophylactic laser is indicated least in
which condition? d) Heterochromia

a) Fellow eye with RD e) ↓uveoscleral outflow

b) Family history of RD 47) IOL calculation after PRK, which method?

c) High myopia a) Standard IOL calculation

d) Fellow eye with cataract b) Pre PRK with special calculation method

41) Which IOL material can cause less PCO? c) Post PRK with SRK formula

a) PMMA d) By senior technician

b) Acrylic 48) Prenatal diagnosis of Retinoblastoma

c) Silicon a) Chorionic villi

d) Hydrogel b) Amniotic villi

42) 25 yr old lady present with D/V. O/E cornea c) Ultrasound

shows dendritic lesions with ↓corneal sensation.
What is your diagnosis? 49) Pt with PXF in one eye otherwise normal. What
will be the next step?
a) HSV
a) Gonioscopy
b) HZV
b) IOP measurement
c) Keratitis
c) FFA
43) D/T between HZV and HSV on clinical ground
d) Visual fields
a) Central lesion
50) Pt present with F.B sensation and pain. O/E
b) Peripheral lesion conjunctival congestion in palpebral fissure
 a) Blepharitis a) Intravitreal

b) Conjunctivitis b) Sub conj

c) Meibominitis c) Posterior sub tenon

d) Cicatricial pemphigoid d) Topical

51) Pt diagnosed with POAG, prescribed pilocarpine. 57) After head injury, pt presents with BE dilated
After sometime he presents with D/V for pupil, which nerve is damaged?
distance, periocular pain. What is the cause of
this problem? a) Trigeminal

a) Cataract caused by pilocarpine b) Optic

b) Spasm of accommodation c) Oculomotor

c) Hypermetropia d) Abducent

d) Myopic shift 58) 60 yr old pt presents with severe pain on right

side of face spreading over cheeks, tearing, with
52) 18 yr old boy with lens subluxation causes chewing pain ↑. Most probable diagnosis

a) Marfan’s syndrome a) Post herpetic neuralgia

b) Mobius syndrome b) Trigeminal neuralgia

c) Peter’s syndrome c) Infraorbital nerve damage

53) Least common complication of YAG d) Giant cell arteritis

capsulotomy
59) Patients presents with D/V with pain, condition
a) Uveitis improved with medication but recurred. Dx?

b) ↑IOP a) Corneal abscess

c) Lens subluxation b) HZO

54) LPI laser setting c) Disciform keratitis

d) Fuch’s endothelial dystrophy

a) Spot size: 0.50, Energy: 800, duration 0.1
sec
60) For scleral fixation IOL, how far the sutures are
b) Spot size: 0.50, Energy: 1500, duration 0.2 placed from limbus?
sec
a) 0.5 mm
c) Spot size: 0.20, Energy: 1500, duration 0.2
sec b) 1.0 mm (0.75 mm)

d) Spot size: 0.20, Energy: 800, duration 0.1 sec c) 1.25 mm

d) 1.75 mm
55) Indication of LPI
61) 60 yr farmer develops lesion of Rt lower lid near
a) Pupil block with pseudophakia
medial canthus, diagnosis?
b) Plateau iris syndrome
a) Basal cell ca
c) PXF syndrome
b) Squamous cell ca
56) Pt with endophthalmitis, choice of route for drug
c) Sebaceous cell ca
delivery
62) Mortality rate in RB d) No Rx beneficial (enlarged FAZ means
ischemia)
a) 5%
68) Diabetic pt with hard exudates on posterior pole
b) 10% in circinate pattern. Part of hard exudates
involving macular. Next Rx option
c) 15%
a) Macular grid
d) 20%
b) PRP
63) Squint presentation in RB
c) Focal laser
a) 10%
d) Observation for 6 months
b) 20%
69) Most important step in phacoemulsification
c) 40%
a) CCC
d) 50%
b) Hydrodissection
64) Non-affected parents with RB. In child, how
much % of transmission to next child c) Drain

a) 10% d) Capsulotomy

b) 20% 70) Chronic conjunctivitis by definition

c) 40% a) 2 wks
d) 0.1% b) 4 wks
65) Leukocoria in RB c) 6 wks

a) 30% d) 8 wks

b) 40% 71) 20 yr old pt presents with pain, watering. O/E sub

conj Hg and superior tarsal follicular reaction
c) 50% with serous discharge, cause?
d) 60%
a) Adenovirus
66) Patient 55 yr old presents with D/V. Rt fundus b) H. Influenza
shows subretinal scar. Lt fundus shows drusen.
Preferable treatment? c) Chlamydia

a) FFA with amsler grid for near 72) Basal cell ca is best diagnosed by
b) PDT a) Biopsy
c) TTT b) Family history
d) PRP c) H/O sun exposure
67) Diabetic pt, mild background with macular 73) Child with RB, size about 10 mm, Rx option
edema and D/V. On FFA enlarged FAZ. Rx
option a) Brachytherapy
a) Macular grid better than focal b) Enucleation
b) PRP c) Wait and watch
c) Observation 74) Non heritable RB, %age of transmission
 a) 2% b) Two weeks

b) 1% c) When pt develops painful blind eye

c) 5% 81) Most diagnostic test for myasthenia

d) 7% a) Tensilon test
75) Parents having two children with RB. What % of b) Acetylcholine receptor antibody
risk in other ----- child
82) Commonest type of rhabdomyosarcoma
a) 30%
a) Embryonic type
b) 45%
b) Alveolar type
c) 60%
c) Pleomorphic type
d) 75%
83) Diabetic patient c/o sudden loss of vision, hazy
76) Patient presents with lymphoma, the commonest fundus. Common cause
finding in fundus
a) Tractional RD
a) Multifocal yellow choroidal infiltrates
b) Viterous Hg
b) Posterior uveitis
c) CSME
c) Retinal atrophy
84) Cause of hypotony after cataract surgery
77) Commonest organism causing orbital cellulitis
a) Wound leak
a) Staph epidermidis
b) Cyclodialysis
b) Pneumococcus (strep pneumonia)
c) Vitreous loss
c) Staph aureus
85) Common cause of ophthalmia neonatorum is
78) Patient presents with orbital abscess. Common
complication a) Gonococcus
a) Cellulitis b) Chlamydia
b) Meningitis c) Pneumococcus
c) Optic nerve compression d) H. Influenza

79) During playing of squash game, patient injured 86) In young man, commonest cause of bilateral
Rt orbit. Most commonly injured retinal periphlebitis

a) Medial wall a) Eales disease

b) Orbital floor b) Coat’s disease
c) Roof c) Leber’s optic neuritis
d) Maxillary 87) Least common finding in exudative RD
80) Pt came in ER, after Rt eye penetrating injury. To a) Tobacco dusting
prevent sympathetic ophthalmia, enucleation
should be done within 88) Macular hole stage 1 is confirmed by
a) One month a) OCT
 b) FFA b) Pseudodendritic ulcer

c) Watzke Allen test c) Radial keratoneuritis

89) Patient taking chloroquine since one year, least 97) Diagnostic finding of fungal keratitis
common finding
a) Stromal infiltrate
a) Vertex keratopathy
b) Satellite lesion
b) Cataract
c) Immobile hypopyon
c) Bulls eye maculopathy
98) Patient with corneal ulcer. His pain was out of
90) Bull’s eye maculopathy not caused by proportion to his clinical finding. Cause?

a) Tamoxifen a) Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

91) Best test to diagnose CSCR b) Fungal keratitis

c) Acanthamoeba keratitis
a) OCT

b) FFA 99) After cataract surgery, patient has +5 /-5

x 130
c) Fundus exam with +90 D
a) Wound compression at 130
d) ICG
b) Wound compression at 90
92) Patient with CSME. Laser Rx most effective on
c) Wound compression at 20
a) Retinal thickening / microaneurysms
100) Main sign of ACG is
b) Hard exudates
a) Shallow A/C
c) Ischemic maculopathy
b) Dilated pupil
93) Diabetic patient developed NVG. Choice of Rx
c) Ciliary flush
a) Medical therapy + PRP d) Corneal edema
b) PRP
101) Main cause of Neovascular glaucoma is
c) Trab + PRP
a) Retinal ischemia
94) Best test to detect ischemic CRVO
b) Rubeosis iridis
a) OCT c) PDR
b) Gonioscopy
102) Phacomorphic glaucoma is caused by
c) FFA
a) Mature cataract
d) B-Scan
b) Intumescent cataract
95) In retinitis pigmentosa, constant finding is
c) Lens protein
a) ERG decreased
103) Drug which ↑uveoscleral outflow
b) Defective colour vision
a) Betaxolol
96) Diagnostic finding of acanthamoeba keratitis is
b) CAH inhibitor
a) Limbitis
 c) Latanoprost b) Medical + Radiotherapy

104) Best test to detect complete squint c) Radiotherapy

d) Surgical decompression
a) Cover test

b) Prism cover test 111) Most common tumour in child with

orbital occurrence
c) Hirschberg’s test
a) Rhabdomyosarcoma
st
105) After cataract surgery, 1 postop day,
cortical matter in A/C & mild uveitis. VA 6/36, b) Choristoma
best Rx option c) Neuroblastoma
a) Topical steroids + cycloplegics d) Granulocytosarcoma
b) A/C wash at 1st POD 112) Most common finding in old RRD
c) Topical steroids + antibiotic
a) Hypotony
106) Child with congenital rubella, fundus b) ↑IOP
finding is
c) Rubeosis
a) Peripheral retinal phlebitis
113) Least common cause of
b) Salt and pepper appearance hyperfluorescence
c) Chorioretinal atrophy and Retinal
exudation a) Capillary dropout

b) Normal fundus
107) Pt c/o Right eye suddenly turned down
and outward, cause is
114) Bulls eye maculopathy caused by all
except
a) 4th nerve palsy

b) 3rd nerve palsy a) Chloroquine

c) 6th nerve palsy b) Stargadts’ disease

c) Cone dystrophy
108) NLD opens at
d) Tamoxifen retinopathy
a) Below Middle meatus
115) Pt with weakness of right arm and H/o
b) Below Inferior meatus amaurosis fugax of left eye is caused by
c) Common canaliculus
a) Left carotid stenosis
d) Lacrimal sac
b) Right carotid stenosis
109) Essential blepharospasm c) Right vertebral artery stenosis
a) Is secondary to disease d) Left vertebral artery stenosis
b) Is idiopathic 116) About cotton wool spots
c) Glaucoma is common in essential
blepharospasm a) Size more than one disc diameter

b) Found at equator/posterior to equator

110) Rx of pseudotumor moderate size is
117) About Rx of acute non-ischemic CRVO
a) Medical Rx
except
 a) Laser b) Shows endothelium

b) YAG laser 125) Most common cause of iris prolapse

c) Hemodilution a) Cough
d) TPA b) Poor wound construction
118) Pt with acute loss of vision with cherry c) Loose suture
red spot
d) Trauma
a) Tay Sachs disease
126) Pt having +10.0 aphakic glasses, BVD
b) CRAO 10mm , wants C/L
c) Ophthalmic artery occlusion a) +9 D
119) After retrobulbar neuritis, best test for b) +11 D
colour vision defect
c) +12 D
a) Anameloscope
127) Pt with constant exotropia, likely cause
b) Ishihara colour test
a) Decompensated exotropia
c) FM-100 hue test
b) Sensory exotropia
120) CT scan finding of carotid cavernous
fistula is c) Intermittent exotropia

a) Dilatation of superior ophthalmic vein 128) HSV over HZO keratitis, differentiating
clinical finding
b) Read track appearance
a) Central
121) Pt with central scotoma and no deviation
on 4prism test, likely diagnosis b) Geographic

a) Microtropia c) Peripheral

d) Peripheral and central

122) Pt with contact lens intolerance, papillae
on conjunctiva. Next critical step of Rx
129) Pt having basal cell ca at medial canthus
10mm size, Rx option
a) Discontinue contact lens

b) Change C/L brand a) Excision

c) Start antibiotics b) Excision and glabellar flap

c) Excision and radiation

123) Middle age pt with B/E painless
peripheral corneal ulcer with anterior stromal d) Radiation
infiltrates
130) Pt presents with RE irritation and
a) Mooren’s ulcer redness. O/E upper tarsal follicles, congestion of
conjunctiva, periocular lymph node palpable,
b) Terrian marginal degeneration superior limbitis, clear cornea
c) Staphylococcal hypersensitivity
a) Trachoma
124) Regarding pachymetry b) HSV
a) It is easy to do c) Adenoviral
 d) Superior limbic keratitis 137) Squint presentation in congenital
cataract
131) 12 yr old girl presents with red eyes and
sweaty face in summer season. Pain at medical a) 20%
canthus B/E
b) 10%
a) Canaliculitis
c) 30%
b) Allergic conjunctivitis
d) 40%
c) Viral keratitis
138) Risk of glaucoma in PEX with H/O
132) Successful effective PRP should not 10yrs PEX
effect on
a) 1%
a) Visual acuity
b) 10%
b) ERG
c) 20%
c) Peripheral visual fields
d) 5%
d) Peripheral retinal vessels
139) Recommended Tx of BCC on upper lid
133) Critical and constant changes in RP
a) Radiation
a) Rhodopsin gene mutation
b) Radiation + chemo
b) ERG
c) Reconstructive surgery with frozen
c) Retinal arteries narrowing section

d) Bony spicules 140) Acute dacryoadenitis caused by

134) Non ischemic CRVO does not cause a) Conjunctivitis

a) APD b) Blepharitis

b) Mild cotton wool spots c) Canaliculitis

c) VA-Moderate d) Dry eyes

135) Inheritance RB changes to next child 141) Histopathological features of RB

a) 40% a) Rosettes

b) 20% b) Hyperchromatic nuclei with little

cytoplasm
c) 80%
142) Cherry red spot with CNS problem
d) 60%
a) CRVO
136) Squint presentation in RB
b) CRAO
a) 20%
c) Tay Sachs disease
b) 10%
143) Toxic dose of chloroquine maculopathy
c) 15%
a) 2 gm
d) 40%
b) 500 gm
 c) 1000 gm 150) Young pt has one eye loss of vision,
with APD and pale disc. What next
144) Substance which increase IOP investigation?

a) Halothane a) MRI

b) Ketone b) ERG

c) Ketamine c) EOG

145) 4 yr old boy whose one eye lost due to d) FFA

glaucoma, other eye IOP 32, previously two
simple surgeries done. What next 151) CRVO (Non-ischemic) pt, you evaluate
the iris neovessels with
a) Dorzolamide
a) FFA
b) Trab with MMC
b) Gonio
c) Cyclophotocoagulation
c) Fundoscopy
d) Goniotomy
152) Pt who has done PRP now has acute
146) Pt who has family history of RB, how ACG, Rx option
will you confirm prenatally
a) Cycloplegic
a) Parents chromosomal analysis
b) LPI
b) Amniotic fluid analysis
c) Trab
c) Chorionic villi
d) None of above
147) Hutchison’s triad in congenital syphilis
153) Pt 20 yr old, has long bones,
a) Deafness, interstitial keratitis and nasal arachnodactyly, and osteoporosis. B/E inferior
bone hypoplasia nasal subluxation of lens. Cause

b) Deafness, interstitial keratitis and a) Marfan syndrome

teeth problem
b) Homocysteinuria
148) Conjunctival melanoma at medial
c) Well marchesani syndrome
canthus, treatment options
d) Oxalate deficiency
a) Excision + Cryo
154) Pt who has proptosis for last 3 yrs, now
b) Excision + MMC
has sudden decreased vision
c) Excision + Radio
a) CT scan
d) Simple excision
b) MRI
149) Pt with history of renal transplantation
c) MRA
associated with lid tumor
d) X-ray chest
a) Basal cell ca
155) Pt who has inferior orbital fracture,
b) Squamous cell ca
investigate
c) Melanoma
a) CT scan
d) Sebaceous gland ca
b) Xray lateral view
 c) MRI c) T.B

d) U/S 163) Common indication of laser

156) 18 yr old girl c/o loss of vision (NPL) a) White without pressure
since 2 hrs
b) Holes
a) Amaurosis Fugax
c) Lattice deg
b) Malingering
d) Horseshoe tear
c) Migraine
164) Second tumor in RB
157) Pt who has red-green colour defect
a) Pinealoma
a) Ishihara
b) Sarcoma
b) FM-100 hue test
165) Retinoblastoma c/o involuting optic
158) 5 yr old boy with crossed eyes BE vision nerve, which investigation indicated
6/9
a) CT Scan
a) Estotropia infantalia
b) MRI
b) 6th nerve palsy
c) U/S
c) Strabismus fixis
166) Pt with corneal ulcer, sensitive to
d) Duanes syndrome penicillin but not responding to tobra. Next
option
159) 20 yr old boy with blepharitis,
photophobia, now has corneal ulcer at 5 o clock, a) Chloramphenicol
limbus clear.
b) FF Tobramycin
a) Marginal keratitis
c) Ciprofloxacin
b) Phylactenosis
d) Vancomycin
c) Staphylococcal blepharitis
167) RB with secondary tumor, treatment
160) Absolute scotoma with suspicious RD option

a) Macular hole with RD a) Brachytherapy

b) Retinoschisis b) Radiotherapy

c) Peripheral RD c) Chemotherapy

161) Soft C/L wearer, after removal c/o 168) Bilateral subluxated lens + osteoporosis
decreased vision
a) Marfan syndrome
a) Corneal edema
b) Homocysteinuria
b) Corneal hypoxia
169) In idiopathic intracranial hypertension,
c) Tight fitting which Rx required early

162) Sudden shifting hypopyon occurs in a) Intraperitoneal shunt

a) Behcet’s disease b) Optic nerve fenestrations

b) Ankylosing spondylitis 170) To diagnose trachoma

 a) ELISA a) Iron/copper

b) PCR b) Aluminium

c) Antigen-antibody c) Lead

d) Culture d) Nickel

e) Giemsa 178) 12 yr old pt with decreased vision,

deafness, anterior lenticonus
171) Male myope with increased IOP after
playing squash a) Alport syndrome

a) ACG b) Rubella

b) POAG c) Syphilis

c) PXF d) Down syndrome

d) PDS 179) Diagnosis of sarcoidosis

172) Female with fever, red eye, a) Chest xray

pseudomembrane, maculopapular rash
b) Conjunctival Biopsy
a) Steven Johnson syndrome
c) Serum ACE
b) Ocular cicatricial pemphigoid
180) 55 yr male transient blurred vision for 5-
173) 6 month old baby with hyphema, likely 10 min after reading, then complete recovery
cause
a) Amaurosis fugax
a) Juvenile xanthogranuloma
b) Accommodative spasm
b) Retinoblastoma
c) Retinal migraine
174) Diagnostic finding of fungal keratitis
181) Cause of vision loss in cavernous sinus
a) Satellite lesions thrombosis

b) Hypopyon a) Exposure keratopathy (Corneal)

c) Epithelial defect b) Neovascular glaucoma
d) Radial keratitis c) Choroidal effusion

175) Radiosensitive structure of eye d) Vascular compression

a) Lens e) Optic nerve compression

b) Iris 182) Rx of steroid induced glaucoma

c) Retina a) Discontinue steroid

d) Optic nerve b) Decrease steroid dose

176) Punctuate epithelial erosion with c) Change powerful to less potent steroid
decreased corneal sensitivity
d) NSAID
a) Reiss Buckler dystrophy
e) All of the above
177) Least common metalosis by retained
intraocular foreign body
183) Sudden decreased vision. Subtotal RD, 189) Bilateral granulomatous uveitis with
RD at 1-10 o clock mutton fat KPs and H/O trauma in one eye few
weeks back
a) Giant retinal tear
a) Sympathetic ophthalmitis
b) Horse shoe tear
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Macular hole
c) Behcet’s disease
d) Dialysis retina
190) H/O floaters and heterochromia
e) Round hole
a) Fuch’s uveitis syndrome
184) ARMD criteria for laser
photocoagulation b) Iris melanoma

a) Evidence of classic CNV c) Siderosis

b) Well defined boundaries 191) Congenital ptosis, with good levator

function. After 2 months surgeon notice
185) Asthenopia, fatigue, binocular diplopia
a) Entropion
a) Convergence insufficiency
b) Lid lag
186) Transient loss/blurred vision in middle
aged man for 6-7 minutes clearing from inferior c) Proper lid crease
to superior region
192) Six months old child, having static
a) Amaurosis fugax painless swelling in superotemporal region
gradually enlarging but not increased in size on
b) AION crying

c) Carotid artery atheroma a) Capillary hemangioma

d) Retinal migraine b) Dermoid cyst

187) Beauty conscious girl with keratoconus, c) Dacryoadenitis

clear cornea. Intolerant to soft C/L, next option
193) Retinoblastoma enucleated eye for
a) Hard C/L histopathology. Good / bad prognostic features

b) Glasses a) Rosettes
c) Radial keratotomy b) Calcification
d) PRP c) Scleral involvement

188) Appropriate Rx for 3 months baby with d) Optic nerve involvement at cut end
BE cataract
194) 6th nerve palsy, botulinum toxin is
a) Patching injected in medial rectus. Side effect is

b) Glasses a) Ptosis
c) Observation b) Proliferation
d) Lensectomy + anterior vitrectomy of c) Retrobulbar haemorrhage
one eye followed by other
d) Diplopia
e) Operated one eye and observe
195) Constant finding in thyroid
ophthalmopathy
 a) Muscle involvement a) Primary HSV

b) Increased fat volume of orbit b) Vernal catarrh

196) Probing & syringing of child done with c) Adenovirus

watery eyes some resistance felt at the lower end
of LD followed by probing. Watering still 203) Least dangerous scleritis
persists
a) Diffuse anterior scleritis
a) Recurrent infection
b) Nodular anterior scleritis
b) Failure to open lower end of NLD
c) Necrotic anterior scleritis
c) False passage
d) Inflammatory ant scleritis
197) In basal and squamous cell carcinoma,
procedure with maximum reconstruction of tissue 204) 60 yr old male after one eye intraocular
surgery under GA c/o ↓VA in BE after surgery.
of lid
O/E anterior segment + papillary reaction +
fundus exam normal.
a) Mohs’ microsurgery

b) Tissue freezing section a) Functional disorder

c) Radiotherapy b) Pituitary apoplexy

d) CO2 laser 205) Commonest cause of ectopia lentis is

198) Evaluation of colour vision after optic a) Familial EL

neuropathy best method
b) Marfans syndrome (If trauma included,
a) FM-100 hue test then it is the commonest)

b) Ishihara c) Weil Marchesani

199) Commonest optic disc anomaly with d) Homocysteinuria

sensory elevation
206) Commonest cause of Bulls eye
maculopathy
a) Optic disc pit

b) Coloboma of disc a) Cone-Rod dystrophy

c) Morning glory b) Stargardt’s disease

200) Treatment of advanced PHPV 207) Best test to predict neovascularisation

a) Observation a) FFA

b) Parsplana lensectomy + anterior vity b) OCT

c) Gonio
201) Chemical injury with severe
symblepharon & corneal vasc. + Opacity. Best d) U/S
option
208) FFA finding of macular hole
a) Amniotic membrane graft

b) Stem cell grafting + conformer a) Pooling

b) Staining
c) Amniotic membrane + conformer
c) Leakage
202) 5 yr old boy with blepharo-
conjunctivitis, follicles and flu like illness d) Window defect
209) DCR is contraindicated in b) Angle recession glaucoma

a) Atrophic lacrimal cyst c) ICE syndrome

b) Chronic dacryocystitis d) Inflammatory glaucoma

c) DNS 216) Pt with Rt CRVO. Chance of CRVO in

fellow eye
d) Ca of Lacrimal gland
a) 10% (8-10% Wills-257)
210) 25 yr old with pupil difference in both
eyes and ipsilateral anhydrosis b) 20%

a) Horner syndrome c) 30%

b) 3rd nerve palsy d) 50%

c) Anisocoria 217) Use of MMC in glaucoma surgery

except
211) Causes of CMO, except
a) Apply after Trab
a) Retinitis pigmentosa
b) Apply during Trab
b) BGDR
c) It has antineoplastic preparation
c) BRVO
d) To prevent failure of surgery
d) Irvine Gass syndrome
218) Congenital cataract causes all except
e) Open angle glaucoma
a) Amblyopia
212) 65 yr old has ulcerated lesion of medial
inferior lid margin (BCC). Best Rx option b) Squint

a) Exenteration c) Nystagmus

b) Radiotherapy 219) Treatment of accommodative esotropia

except
c) Chemotherapy
a) Bifocal glasses
d) Combined excision of lesion + radio
b) Surgery
e) Moh’s micrographical technique
c) Phospholine has role?
213) Pt with chronic simple glaucoma.
Surgical Rx option 220) Child with bilateral cataract with P??

a) Laser trabeculoplasty a) Cortical cataract

b) Trabeculectomy b) Anterior polar cataract

214) LPI is indicated in ACAG because it c) Posterior polar cataract

a) Breaks papillary block d) Nuclear cataract

b) Prevent PAS formation 221) Sign of ↑ICP except

c) ↓chances of recurrent attack a) Vomiting

215) Laser trabeculoplasty most effective in b) B/E papilloedema

a) Pigmentary glaucoma c) Low BP

 d) Transient visual loss a) Cataract and glaucoma surgery at the
same time
222) Method to prevent PCO all except
b) Do LPI B/E
a) Anterior capsule manipulation
229) Patient having ↑IOP following trauma.
b) IOL in bag Least cause of ↑IOP

c) Square shaped IOL a) Hyphema

d) Smooth surface haptics b) Uveitis

223) Mildest form of PHPV c) Trabeculum damage

a) Mittendorf Dot d) Angle recession

b) Vitreous bands 230) On 1st post op day of trab, shallow AC

& flat bleb, low IOP
c) Bergmeister papilla
a) Malignant glaucoma
224) Diabetic patient with sudden ↓VA,
RAPD & disc edema. Rest fundus normal b) Over filtration

a) CRAO c) Bleb leak

b) CRVO d) Choroidal detachment

c) BRVO e) Scleral flap leak (bleb will be formed)

d) NA AION 231) Least correct statement regarding

Parinauds oculoglandular syndrome
225) Sign of malignant glaucoma all except
a) Synonymous with cat-scratch disease

a) High IOP b) Unilateral granulomatous conjunctivitis

b) Negative Siedel’s test c) Regional lymphadenopathy

c) Well formed bleb d) Always bilateral

226) Pigment dispersion glaucoma, not 232) In blebitis type one, best option
correct
a) FF antibiotics
a) Exercise
b) Repeat Trab
b) Hyperopes
c) Vitrectomy
c) Trabeculum blockage
d) Intravitreal antibiotics
d) Secondary OAG
233) In orbital trauma, common cause of
227) Drug not indicated for inflammatory diplopia
glaucoma
a) Orbital tissue swelling
a) Pilocarpine and Latanoprost
b) Muscle entrapment
b) Atropine
c) Orbital fat prolapse
c) Brimonidine
234) Most common cause of posterior uveitis
228) Both eye uncontrolled glaucoma + in children
cataract
 a) Toxoplasmosis a) Atropine

b) Toxocariasis b) Acetylcholine

c) Syphilis c) Carbachol

235) Regarding children, Least correct d) Sodium hyaluronate

statement
240) Pt with PDR and macular edema.
a) Capillary hemangioma is the most Treatment option
common benign tumor
a) Do macular grid first
b) Neuroblastoma is the most common
metastatic tumor b) PRP

c) Orbital cellulitis is most common cause c) Laser by senior

of unilateral exophthalmos
d) 100µ burns will produce reaction
d) Neurofibroma are early malignant or
slow growing tumor 241) History of Rt trab 2 yrs back. Now
developed endophthalmitis. Most common
e) Neurofibroma are usually malignant organism

236) Child of 6 month, swelling on medial a) Step pneumonia

canthus, which does not ↑on crying, non
pulsatile b) Staph epidermidis

c) P. Acne
a) Amniontocoele

b) Capillary hemangioma d) H. Influenza

c) Encephalocoele 242) Macular hole stage one, to differentiate

from early ARMD, best test for diagnosis
d) Ethmoidal mucocoele
a) OCT
e) Dermoid cyst
b) FFA
237) During trauma, commonly which cranial
nerve is damaged c) Watzke Allen test

a) 3rd CN 243) Least common complication after PRP

b) 4th CN a) Exudative RD
c) 5th CN b) Choroidal Hg
d) 6th CN c) Macular pucker

238) Follicular conjunctival reaction caused d) Peripheral visual loss

by which drug
e) CME
a) Timolol
244) Commonest cause of ectopia lentis
b) Brimonidine
a) Trauma
c) Apraclonidine
b) Homocysteinuria
d) Latanoprost
c) Marfan syndrome
239) Which drug is not used in AC during
cataract surgery
245) Pt with H/o cataract surgery and ↓VA b) Deep AC
slowly. You suspect P. Acne endophthalmitis.
Options incorrect? c) Corneal edema

d) Gush of fluid/water/aqueous humour

a) It is gram +ve bacteria (Anaerobic, gram
+ve, non-spore forming rod)
251) For cataract surgery, to minimise
b) Inflammation often ↓by steroids astigmatism

c) Typically occurs 2 months after a) Superior incision

surgery
b) Temporal incision
d) Plaque commonly found in capsular bag
c) At highest meridian of astigmatism
246) About Fuch’s uveitis , correct option
252) If corneal incision is extended more
a) Associated with granulomatous uveitis posterior, than best option

b) Serious complication can occur after a) Pt initially will have with-the-rule

cataract surgery astigmatism

c) Controlled by steroids b) Pt will have late with-the-rule

astigmatism
d) PAS commonly present
c) Pt will have late against-the-rule
247) 5 yr old boy having upper lid swelling, astigmatism
slow growing, not ↑ with crying
253) With MMC & without MMC, have
a) Lymphoma
a) Higher chances of late
b) Dermoid endophthalmitis
c) Capillary hemangioma b) Successful surgery result increase

248) Common complication after YAG PI c) Use on conjunctival flap after

completion of surgery
a) Cataract
254) 50 yr pt has orbital swelling, histology
b) Choroidal Hg shows sheath of lymphocyte but no inflamm cells
c) Hyphema a) Lymphoma
d) Corneal burn b) Pseudotumor
249) Patient diagnosed recently as NIDDM & c) Dermoid
having ... H/o trauma previously, present in OPD
with RT sudden loss of vision. O/E Rt vitreous 255) Patient comes to you with cataract. O/E
haemorrhage. Cause of Vit Hg? PEX material. What test will you do first

a) DM a) Disc exam
b) CRVO b) IOP
c) Trauma c) Gonioscopy
d) Eales’ d) VF
e) BRVO 256) Patient with kps, A/C cells, vitreous
bands, vascular sheathing. Inferior quadrant
250) Sign of successful YAG PI shows snows flakes. What is your diagnosis
a) Water bubble a) Pars planitis
 b) Sarcoidosis d) HSV

c) Posterior uveitis 263) Pt with infectious crystalline

keratopathy, which drug is not indicated
257) Common finding of old RD
a) Penicillin
a) Intraretinal cyst
b) Ceftriaxone
b) Subretinal demarcation line
c) Gentamicin
c) Hypotony
d) Chloramphenicol
d) Immobile retinal folds
264) Residual lens matter in AC after cataract
258) Hallmark of exudatives RD surgery. Pt has mild discomfort, VA 6/12. AC
cells ++, most appropriate Rx at this stage
a) Shifting fluid
a) A/C wash immediately to prevent severe
b) Weiss ring phacoanaphylactic reaction
c) Immobile retina b) Steroid + mydriatic drops
259) O/E patient has retinal change and needs c) Start oral antibiotics
prophylactic laser
265) Drug which increases IOP
a) Lattice changes
a) Ketamine
b) Snail track
b) Ketone
c) U – shaped tear
c) Halothane
d) Atrophic hole
266) Pt has B/E watering. Which reliable test
e) WWOP
to check physiologic patency of lacrimal drainage
system.
260) Topical anaesthesia v/s retrobulbar
anaesthesia
a) Lacrimal scintiligraphy
a) Decreased chances of astigmatism b) Dacryocystography
b) Increased chances of astigmatism c) Sec. Dye test
c) Rapid visual recovery of patient d) Syringing
d) IOL in PC bag
267) Six month old baby presented with
discharge and watering. Option of Rx
261) Disciform keratitis, best option
a) Antibiotic + massage
a) Caused by viral replication
b) Syringing
b) Caused by immune reaction
c) DCR
c) Only stromal involvement
268) 5 yr old boy H/O central vision problem.
262) Post PKP pt develops infectious
O/ E shows BE macular dystrophy + CNV.
crystalline keratopathy, mostly caused by
Which investigation will help diagnosis
a) Viral
a) FFA + Colour vision
b) Bacteria (strep viridians)
b) FFA + ERG
c) Fungi
c) Colour vision + dark adaptation
 d) FFA + VEP a) Tropia

269) Indirect fundus exam lens v/s 3 mirror b) Phoria

lens. Appropriate option
c) Tropia & phoria
a) Has good magnification
275) 20 D lens gives a magnifying power of
b) Less chances of Hg
a) 2 times
c) Good eye stability
b) 3 times
270) Farmer has lower lid medial side
c) 4 times
ulcerated lesion. Which investigation?
276) Phacomorphic glaucoma caused by
a) X-ray orbit
which cataract
b) Biopsy
a) Mature
c) CT Scan
b) Hypermature
d) U/S
c) Intumescent
271) Yong man with mild unilateral ptosis of
2mm, with levator function of 11mm. Which 277) Hess test, correct option
surgical procedure is best?
a) Plot function of EOM
a) Fasanella-Servat procedure
b) Exclude restriction of muscle
b) Frontalis sling
c) Assess paralytic muscle
c) Hess procedure
d) Assess inflammation of muscle
d) Levator resection
278) 25 yr old female with H/O BE
272) Acute dacryocystitis most commonly papilloedema VA RE 6/6, LE 6/24. She is on tab
caused by Diamox since 3 months. Her LE fundus shows
chronic progressive disc edema. VF shows
a) Dry eyes constriction of field. RE stable. Next option

b) Ethmoidal sinusitis a) Start steroid

c) Tear ectasis of any type b) ON sheath fenestration

273) Pt with recurrent pterygium, best c) Lumboperitoneal shunt

treatment option
d) Repeat LP
a) Proceed as total bare sclera with pre-op e) Weight reduction
β irradiation
279) On 2nd stage of ROP
b) Proceed as conjunctival flap with pre-op
β irradiation
a) Demarcation line
c) Only conjunctival flap
b) Stable and extended demarcation line
d) Conjunctival flap with topical MMC (Ridge)
0.2% for 2 weeks
c) Subtotal RD
e) Conjunctival flap with topical MMC
0.04% for more than 2 weeks d) Total RD

274) On uncover part of cover-uncover test,

we check
280) Pt with H/O uneventful phaco 3 wks 285) Classic sign of acanthamoeba keratitis
back with 5.5 mm of CCC. Now has reduced to
3.5 mm due to capsular phimosis. Rx option a) Radial perineuritis

a) Further observation b) Satellite lesions

b) Increase steroid to decrease contraction c) Infiltrates

c) Yag capsulotomy 286) Pt with h/o RE trab x 2 yrs. Now

developed endophthalmitis, organism
d) Mydriasis
a) Strep pneumonia
e) Cont shots on anterior capsule with
YAG b) Staph epidermidis

281) Female patient with thyroid eye disease. c) P. Acne

CT scan finding
d) H. Influenzae
a) Tubular thickening of muscle
287) HTN pt with ruptured aneurysm,
b) Fusiform thickening of muscle with common location of Hg
tendon sparing
a) Sub dural
c) Fusiform thickening
b) Sub arachnoid
d) Fatty tissue thickening
c) Ventricle
282) Macular hole stage 1, cannot
differentiate with early ARMD, best diagnostic d) Brain surface
test
288) Pt with left sided cerebral infarction.
a) FFA Diagnostic test

b) OCT a) CT scan
c) Watzke Allen test b) MRI
d) Laser aiming beam c) X-ray skull

283) Pt with A/C hypopyon, arthritis and 289) Best accurate test to detect arterial
mouth ulcers. bifurcation area

a) Atheroma a) Duplex US
b) SLE b) Arteriography
c) Behcets disease c) MRI
d) Wegeners granulomatosis d) Thallium scan
e) Reiters disease 290) Least common complication after heavy
PRP
284) Contact lens user c/o photophobia,
redness, itching and mucoid discharge. Upper a) Cataract
tarsal and upper limbal yellowish infiltrates
b) Macular pucker
a) Giant papillary reaction
c) Peripheral visual loss
b) Contact lens related allergy
d) CME
c) Adenoviral infection
e) RD
291) Pt with glaucoma, how will you b) Restricted upward movement
differentiate b/w narrow angle & closed angle
c) Forced duction –ve
a) Simple mirror goniolens
297) Pt 30 yr c/o RT central vision defect x 2
b) 4-mirror Zeiss lens months. RE 6/18. FFA done, what will be found?

c) Do PI then gonio a) Leakage

292) Glaucoma pt using Pilocarpine x 3 wks b) Pooling

c/o eye strain & decreased vision for distance
c) Hyperfluorescence
a) Accommodative spasm
298) 50 yr pt diagnosed as choroidal
b) Small pupil melanoma, correct option

c) Cataract formation a) Acoustic hollowness and excavation of

choroid on B-Scan
d) Post uveitis
b) Brachytherapy indicated on large
e) Myopic shift tumours
293) Pt with D/V, ptosis, pain, restricted c) Enucleation should be done in <5mm
movements in all gaze except Lt side, dilated non local tumor
reactive pupil. Caused by
d) It commonly presents in younger
a) DM females

b) Aneurysm compressing 3rd nerve 299) Pt has angioid streaks on fundus with
small yellowish skin papules of skin. Likely dx
c) Orbital myositis
a) Gronblad-Strandberg syndrome (Ang
294) Prevents the chance of endophthalmitis strks + Pseudoxanthoma elasticum)
before cataract surgery. All correct except
b) Polyarteritis nodosa
a) Apply 10% Povidone Iodine at the time
of surgery c) Neurofibromatosis

b) Apply 5% Povidone Iodine in 300) Pt with ipsilateral ptosis, miosis and

conjunctival sac tingling sensation in left two fingers of hand.
c) Apply 5% Povidone Iodine in conj sac a) Pancoast tumor
followed by irrigation by
b) Cervical disc tumor
d) Apply 100% alcohol
c) Hand shoulder syndrome
295) Common cause of vitreous haemorrhage
in adults 301) Child with lamellar cataract, which test
will reach to a diagnosis
a) Trauma
a) Urine for reducing substance
b) DM
b) Protein analysis
c) HTN
c) Chromosomal analysis
d) RD
d) TORCH
296) Pt with blow out fracture and muscle
entrapment. Common problem e) All of above

a) Endophthalmitis 302) Most common ocular feature of rubella

infection
 a) Cataract a) Congenital exo

b) Salt and pepper fundus b) Sensory exo

c) Microspherophakia c) 3rd nerve palsy

d) Glaucoma d) Decompensated exo

303) Patient with photophobia, redness, D/V, 309) 22 yr female c/o RT photophobia, ↓VA,
A/C cells, vitreous shows white fluffy material, recent H/O fever & flu. O/E cornea has epithelial
peripheral retinal vasculitis and sheathing and lesion fluorescein staining with dendritic pattern
snowball in inferior retinal quadrant.
a) Adenoviral infection
a) Pars planitis
b) HSV
b) Posterior uveitis
c) HZV
c) Sarcoidosis
d) C/L related problem
d) CME
310) 55 yr old male with RT sided facial pain,
304) Pt with ↑IOP, which clinical association H/o transient and altitudinal visual loss, disc
for diagnosis of glaucoma edema with few hgs. Which investigation should
1st be prescribed
a) B/E 0.7 cupping
a) MRI
b) Very deep cupping
b) ESR
c) 0.4 cup with notching of NRR
c) Echo
d) Hemorrhage around disc
d) RBS
e) Peripapillary atrophy
e) Carotid Doppler
305) About chronic conjunctivitis, most
appropriate correct option 311) Most common complication of Yag PI

a) Trachoma can be treated by 1gm a) Hyphema

azithromycin single dose
312) Least indication in Rx of
306) Aphakic pt with +10.0 lens + BVD keratoconjunctivitis sicca
10mm. What will be C/L power
a) Acetylcysteine
a) +9 D
b) Punctual occlusion
b) +10 D
c) Steroid
c) +11 D
d) Antibiotics
307) 15 yr old male c/o Right ocular pain and
e) Tear drops
↓VA, RAPD +ve, colour vision defect
313) Pt with h/o dental surgery 3 days back.
a) Thyroid ophthalmopathy
Now has suddenly developed Rt painful swelling
b) Optic neuritis with restricted EOM and proptosis

c) Syphilis a) Periorbital cellulitis

d) Lebers optic neuropathy b) Acute dacryoadenitis

308) Patient with constant exotropia, likely c) Orbital cellulitis

diagnosis
 d) Ethmoidal sinusitis 320) Which drug causes optic neuropathy

314) Most common complication of a) Ethambutol

strabismus surgery
b) Chloroquine
a) Muscle lost syndrome
321) Pt with cataract, deafness and cardiac
b) Muscle misalignment problem

c) Scleral perforation a) Rubella

d) Optic nerve cut b) CMV

315) 20 yr old developed mild axial proptosis c) Alport

causing optic neuropathy
322) Opening of NLD
a) Optic nerve glioma
a) Below middle turbinate
b) Optic n. Sheath meningioma
b) Below inferior turbinate
c) Cavernous hemangioma
323) Pt with h/o RT trauma one year back.
d) Lymphoma
Now has developed ↑IOP, probable cause
316) Pt having vit A since long time, most
a) Angle recession glaucoma
common complication with excessive use of vit
A
324) Infection occurs commonly with which
type of contact lens?
a) Xerophthalmia

b) Dry skin a) Hard C/L

c) RP b) Soft C/L

d) Papilloedema c) Disposable C/L

d) Extended wear C/L

317) Diabetic patient with PDR and Vit Hg.
Best laser for Rx of this patient e) Fixed C/L

a) Argon green 325) Which type of FFA pattern is seen in

APMPPE?
b) Krypton red

c) Diode laser a) Hypofluorescence

b) Hyperfluorescence
318) FFA laser light absorbs wavelength
c) Hypo and hyperfluorescence
a) 480 nm
326) How long the steroids are used in GCA
b) 490 nm

c) 530 nm a) 1 month

d) 810 nm b) 2 months

c) 1 year
319) In RP, type of cataract
d) Indefinite
a) Cortical
327) Hyperacute purulent discharge is seen in
b) PSCC
which infection
c) Anterior subcapsular
a) Viral
 b) Fungal c) Mooren ulcer

c) Gonococcal 334) About pachymetry

328) 4 yr old boy in OPD with RT esotropia a) Endothelium can be counted

and 30∆. On cycloplegic ref B/E +6.0DS. What
Rx? b) A/C depth can be measured

a) Full correction c) Used to see the thickness of cornea

b) Penalisation 335) Dendritic pattern opacity in cornea

having fluorescein stain negative
c) Atropine
a) HZO
d) Follow up
b) HSV
e) Occlusion
c) Pseudodendrite
329) Best results are seen in which option
given in keratoplasty 336) Lymphoma commonest ocular
presentation
a) Keratoconus
a) Multifocal yellow choroidal infiltrates
b) Bullous keratopathy

c) Corneal opacity 337) Pseudotumor.............?

330) Incorrect option related to a) Steroids

blepharospasm b) Surgical decompression
a) Contraction of muscles 338) Patient having choroidal melanoma.
b) Closure of eyes Which is the best method of investigation?

c) Unilateral a) FFA

331) Mostly which type of scotoma is seen in b) US

glaucoma c) CT Scan
a) Absolute d) MRI
b) Relative 339) Which method of investigation is the
c) Constricted field best for optic nerve involvement in RB

332) One eye has CRVO, how much a) MRI

chances/percentage of having CRVO in fellow b) CT Scan
eye
c) U/S
a) 10%
340) Patient having lid ptosis with restricted
b) 20% painful ocular movements in upward gaze and
c) 80% proptosis. CT scan shows echogenic shadow at
superior orbital fissure. Diagnosis?
333) 54 yr old pt with inferior peripheral
opacities with fluffs/slogs and corneal infiltrates a) Thyroid ophthalmopathy
BE b) Tolosa Hunt syndrome
a) Pellucid marginal keratitis 341) Patient having CSCR, where is the
b) Terrain marginal keratitis pathology?
 a) Improper functioning of RPE b) IgE in blood

b) Inner retinal nerve fibre c) PCR

c) At Bruch’s membrane 348) 5 yr old child having blisters on upper

lid with red congested eye. Diagnosis?
d) Choriocapillaris

e) Outer BRB a) HSV

b) Trachoma
342) Most confirmatory test for macular hole
is 349) Patient having pulsatile proptosis
a) OCT a) Carotid cavernous fistula
b) Ophthalmoscopy b) Encephalocoele
c) Laser aiming beam c) Neurofibromatosis
d) Watzke Allen test
350) 10 yr old child having loss of vision and
e) FFA proptosis. MRI/CT shows fusiform enlargement
of optic nerve. Diagnosis?
343) 30 yr young patient having eyelid
everted during sleep. What is your diagnosis? a) Optic nerve glioma

b) Meningioma
a) Floppy eyelid syndrome

b) Ectropion 351) Pt having axillary freckles and

black/brown ... Pigments on skin. Diagnosis?
344) Paget disease. Which is least common?
a) Neurofibromatosis
a) Blepharospasm
352) Pt having KCS. Which treatment is least
b) Sensory neural deafness effective

c) Calcium in urine a) Topical steroids

345) Regarding aniridia. What is incorrect b) Lubricants

a) Mostly bilateral c) Lubricant ointment

b) Having nystagmus always d) Cytotoxic drug

c) Having congenital glaucoma 353) Pt having purulent conjunctivitis. Which

is most common cause
d) Wilm’s tumor is reported
a) Pseudomonas
e) Cause open angle glaucoma
b) Gonococcus
346) Treatment of congenital NLD block
354) Neonate presented with conjunctivitis.
a) DCR Which is most common causative agent
b) Probing/syringing
a) Chlamydia trachomatis
c) Mostly 70-90% by massage b) Neisseria gonorrhoea
347) Patient having allergic conjunctivitis.
355) Pt with h/o trauma having upper lid
Which test will be helpful for diagnosis
laceration. Which is the sign of full thickness lid
laceration?
a) Eosinophils in blood
 a) Herniation of orbital fat from wound e) Sutural

b) Ptosis 363) In which type of cataract, vision is least

affected
c) Lid lag
a) Anterior polar
356) Pt with dendritic ulcer. Which sign
differentiate HZO from HSV b) Posterior polar

a) Stain with fluorescein but not with Rose c) Lamellar

Bengal
d) Coronary
b) Tapered ends
e) Membranous
357) Regarding disciform keratitis, which
statement is correct 364) During phaco surgery PC rent occurs
and lens fragments goes into vitreous. What to
a) Due to viral invasion do?

b) Due to hypersensitivity reaction to a) Close the eye

viral antigen
b) Do anterior vitrectomy, implant PC
358) Hutchison’s triad in case of congenital IOL and then close
syphilis c) Put saline in vitreous, when lens matter
float, you remove
a) Peg teeth, deafness and interstitial
keratitis d) Go back and remove it with forceps

359) Oral steroids given in HZO 365) Most effective route of drug
administration in endophthalmitis
a) To prevent post herpetic neuralgia
a) Intravitreal
b) For acceleration of skin wound
healing b) Subconjunctival

360) A young African presented with c) Oral

punctuate keratitis and pruritis
d) Intravenous
a) Onchocerca volvulus
366) Indication of pilocarpine during cataract
b) Loa Loa surgery

361) Pt having blepharitis and ulcer at margin a) PXE

of cornea separated from limbus by clear space.
What is the diagnosis? b) Dislocated microspherophakia into
AC
a) Marginal keratitis
c) Uveitis
b) Phylectenosis
d) NVG
362) In which type of cataract, vision is more e) Papillary block glaucoma
affected
367) Pt using pilocarpine for POAG for long
a) Lamellar time. Now he develops follicular reaction, bulbar,
forniceal and palpebral conjunctivitis. Cause
b) Blue dot

c) Anterior polar a) Toxic follicular conjunctivitis

d) Coronary b) Contact dermatitis

368) Which investigation you can do before b) Dallen Fuchs nodule
YAG laser PI
c) Granulomatous uveitis
a) Gonioscopy
377) In which of the following condition,
b) Fundoscopy silicon oil is least involved

c) FFA a) Macular hole surgery

369) Pt developed closed head injury. Which b) Giant retinal tear

nerve is most commonly involved
c) CMV induced RD
th
a) 4 CN d) Tractional RD
b) 3rd CN
378) Regarding Fuch’s uveitic syndrome
c) 5th CN
a) Steroids are least/not effective
370) Young patient with correctopia and
irregular pupil ... ... ... 379) Lacrimal gland is involved in which
condition
a) ICE syndrome
a) Sarcoidosis
371) Which of the following drug increases
uveoscleral outflow b) SLE

a) Latanoprost 380) Pt develops severe vitritis and foci on

choroid. Diagnosis
372) Patient after cataract surgery, developed
↓VA, IOP – 10mm Hg & 360O ring behind lens a) Toxoplasmosis

a) Choroidal detachment 381) Child by birth having hazy cornea with

normal corneal thickness and non progressive
b) RD
a) CHED
373) Patient with low backache and pain in
cervical region, developed uveitis. Your dx? b) Posterior polymorphous dystrophy

a) Ankylosing spondylitis 382) Female pt c/o grittiness with smoky

atmosphere. Diagnosis?
b) Reiter syndrome
a) KCS
c) Ulcerative colitis
383) 65 yr male with recurrent corneal
d) Crohn’s disease pain/erosion/sub-epithelial bullae. On specular
reflection having white endothelial deposits.
374) Middle aged person developed mouth What’s the diagnosis?
ulcers, hypopyon & uveitis. Common cause?
a) Fuch’ s endothelial dystrophy
a) Behcets disease
384) Pt with A/C IOL presented with
375) Pt having stellate diffuse non pigmented recurrent pain and Bullae and hazy cornea
kps, mild cellular reaction and flare. Dx?
a) Decompensated corneal endothelium
a) Fuch’s uveitis
385) 10 yr boy with 2 yr h/o mucopurulent
376) What is the pathognomic sign of discharge. His 2 siblings also have same history.
sympathetic ophthalmitis
a) Dacryocystitis
a) Antibodies produce against S. Antigen
 b) Dacryoadenitis 392) Most reliable diagnosis for RP

c) Conjunctivitis a) ERG
d) Trachoma b) Peripheral bony spicules
e) VKC c) Attenuated vessels

386) Pt having drug containing d) Pale waxy disc

Benzalkonium. He developed punctuate erosion
on nasal side of cornea. Cause? 393) Regarding Bull’s eye maculopathy
which is most common
a) Drug toxicity
a) Rod cone dystrophy
387) Pt having snail track degeneration.
Which statement is correct? b) Chloroquine maculopathy

a) Overlying vitreous is strongly attached c) Stargardt’s disease

with posterior margin of degeneration
394) Cherry red spot most commonly occur
b) Vitreous is thick and normal at site of in which disease completely
attachment
a) Tay Sachs disease
c) Larger than lattice degeneration
b) Neiman Pick disease
d) Always having white without pressure
c) Sandhoff disease
e) Contain holes
d) Gangliosidosis
388) Regarding Duane’s retraction syndrome,
incorrect statement 395) Sub-retinal fluid least likely is drained in
which of the following
a) Type 1 severe abduction deficit with
slightly esotropia a) Old RD

b) Type 1 is least common b) Multiple RD

389) Most common risk factor of CRVO c) GRT

d) Inferior RD
a) Advanced age

b) HTN 396) Regarding microtropia, which statement

is correct
c) High cholesterol level
a) Monofixation syndrome
390) Most common risk factor for CRAO
b) Central suppression
a) Atheromatous plaque
397) Regarding V pattern, which statement is
b) Thrombus correct

c) Embolus a) Difference of 10∆ b/w upward and

downward gaze
391) Which is least common cause of retinal
vessel occlusion b) B/E inferior oblique overaction

c) Occur in Brown syndrome

a) Vascular rupture

b) Thrombus d) Superior rectus overaction

c) Embolus 398) In case of abduction deficit, which

surgery is done
 a) Medial rectus recession b) CME

b) Medical rectus recession with c) ARMD

transposition
405) Regarding Myasthenia Gravis, which
c) Superior oblique surgery statement is least common
d) Inferior oblique surgery a) It is 5% associated with Grave’s
ophthalmopathy
399) Regarding migraine, which statement is
correct b) Orbicularis oculi is least commonly
involved
a) Homonymous hemianopia
c) Negative Tensilon test excludes MG
b) Visual amaurosis
406) Regarding RB
c) Headache
a) CT scan best for diagnosis
400) Regarding DVD, which statement is
correct b) Tumor at posterior pole does not require
indentation
a) It does not follow Hering’s law
407) Least common presentation of RB
b) On cover test, the other eye goes upward
a) Decreased vision
401) Regarding vision in preverbal children.
Which is least common b) On routine exam

a) Rotation test c) Leukocoria

b) Preferential looking d) Strabismus

c) Fixation behaviour e) Orbital cellulitis

d) Sheriden Gardener 408) D/D of Von Hipple Lindau syndrome

e) Snellen’s test a) Tuberous sclerosis
402) Common cause of retinal vasculitis b) Macroaneurysms

a) Eales’ disease 409) Pt presented with proptosis and ocular

inflammation. CT scan shows encapsulated mass
b) Sarcoidosis with irregular margin lesion and bony erosion
c) Behcet’s disease
a) Hydatid cyst
403) Regarding Roth spots, which is least b) Dermoid cyst
common
410) Regarding dermoid cyst
a) Hypertension retinal Hg

b) Leukemia a) It arises from epidermis

c) Anemia 411) Pt having upper side of eyebrow round

smooth growth
d) Hyperviscosity
a) Arise from suture side of
404) Pt on FFA having smoke stake pattern, eyebrow/skull
what is your diagnosis?
b) It is ... ... On super nasal area
a) CSCR
412) Pt presented with ↓VA & temporal 419) Welder day after welding developed lid
headache with disc swelling swelling, watering, pain and red eye. Cause?

a) Arteritic AION a) Phototoxicity

413) Pt presented with sudden loss of vision. 420) Pt of cardiac disease on Rx developed
He comes from far area and fundus shows pale ↓VA, due to?
disc with attenuated arteries. Diagnosis
a) Amiodarone
a) CRVO
421) Most common indication of cataract
b) Methanol toxicity surgery in modern days is

414) Optic nerve fenestration Rx is least a) When pt’s daily activity is restricted
likely indicated in
b) Mature cataract
a) Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
c) Age more than 70
b) Papilloedema
d) When DM is controlled
c) Traumatic blood around optic nerve
422) Least common cause of retinal
415) Regarding aneurysm in brain. Which is hyperfluorescence
correct?
a) Retinal ischemia
a) 85% arise from post part of circle of
Willis b) Normal retina

b) Arterial angiography is gold standard c) CSME

c) MRA 423) Most diagnostic test for Myasthenia

gravis
d) Doppler
a) Tensilon test
416) Child presented with nystagmus. When
sees RE gaze, nystagmus dampens. Cause? b) Antiacetylcholine receptor antibody

a) Nystagmus blockage syndrome 424) Drug least aggravate ... ...

417) Pt with orbital wall fracture, which test a) Aminoglycoside

is best
b) Chloroquine
a) CT scan orbit
c) Chloramphenicol
b) MRI
d) B-blocker
c) US
425) Duane’s retractor syndrome
d) Xray orbit
a) Does not restrict left rectus
418) A goldsmith presented with small piece
of gold goes inside eye. Which test is best? 426) Congenital esotropia

a) U/S a) At birth

b) CT scan b) Within 12 wks after birth

c) Fundoscopy c) Within 4-6 wks

d) MRI d) Within 6-8 wks

 e) Within 6-12 wks a) Cherry red spot

427) Pt looks medially Rt, Lt overshoot 437) Most early sign of POAG

a) Internuclear ophthalmoplegia a) Paracentral scotoma

428) Nystagmus, which is physiological b) Central scotoma

a) Vestibular nystagmus 438) Panuveitis ... ...

429) Amaurosis fugax. Loss of vision in this a) Sympathetic ophthalmitis

condition
439) Panuveitis ... ...
a) 1-2 min
a) ↓ses steroids
b) 15 min
440) CMO ... ... Least
c) Only 30 sec
a) CSCR
430) Pt looks upward he gets jerk movement.
Which investigation would you do 441) EOM ... ...

a) MRI a) Chloroquine
b) CT scan
442) Patient increased appetite, weight loss,
c) FDT narrow fissure

d) EEG a) Thyroid

431) Bilateral light near dissociation 443) 45 yr male with unilateral proptosis

a) Type 1 DM a) Thyroid

432) Baldness and ptosis b) MG

a) Myotonic dystrophy 444) Bruch’s membrane separate choroid

from retina
b) Myasthenia gravis
a) EMG
433) Cotton wool spots and pigmented
maculopapular skin spots. What is diagnosis? 445) Small joint with burning eye

a) AIDS a) RA

b) HZO b) SLE

c) Behcet 446) Early symptoms of dry eye

434) Pt having mild ptosis of 2mm. What’s a) Itching or burning

the treatment?
447) 75 yr old pt with sudden loss of vision
a) Fasanella-Servat procedure
a) ESR
435) B/L ptosis and vertical diplopia. What is
your diagnosis? b) CRP

a) Myasthenia gravis c) Pale swollen disc

d) TAB
436) Commotio retina can cause
448) Primary visual cortex lesion? d) PPV + amblyopia therapy

449) Pt with subluxated lens, hyperextended 458) Least common cause of Bulls eye
joint and thin elastic skin maculopathy?

a) Ehler Danlos a) Chloroquine

b) Marfan b) RPE atrophy
c) Stickler c) Hydrochloroquine

450) Pt with vitreous Hg in RE, and in LE 459) Finger nail trauma. Corneal abscess with
peri-arterial occlusion with sheathing white colour

a) Retinal vasculitis a) E.Coli

b) Sickle cell disease b) Pseudomonas

451) Sudden loss of vision with RAPD c) S. Epidermidis

a) RD d) S. Aureus

b) O.N 460) Female complains of photophobia in

early morning
452) On fundus exam, yellowish lesion with
neuroretinitis a) Recurrent corneal erosion

a) O.N. 461) Criss cross like opacity

453) After 6th day of trab, pt with flat bleb, a) Lattice

siedel +ve, choroidal detachment, AC grade II
shallow. Best Rx 462) Corneal stromal white opacities

a) A/C reform a) Macular dystrophy

b) Pressure bandage for 48 hrs 463) Pt with Type 1 DM after 20 yrs what %
develop retinopathy
c) Surgical Rx
a) 99-100%
454) Most likely associated with toxocariasis
b) 80-90%
a) Pica
c) 40-50%
b) Chronic endophthalmitis
464) On fundus exam, AV nipping and
455) Acute toxoplasomsis macular star

a) IgM a) Hypertensive retinopathy

456) Most common organism to cross 465) Young patient with recurrent attack of
placenta keratitis

a) Toxoplasma a) HSV

457) Severe PHPV b) HZV

a) Conservative Rx c) Fungal

b) PPV 466) Pt on exam having kps, endothelium

folds, oedema
c) PPV + cataract surgery
 a) Disciform keratitis b) Excision + Radio

467) Painful loss of vision with RAPD. Best 477) Fundus yellow deposit at 60 yr of age
investigation? with retinal lesion

a) MRI a) Melanoma

b) CT Scan 478) After squint correction surgery. What is

common complication?
c) LP
a) Diplopia
468) Leukocoria/Leukemia?, least associated
b) RD
a) ON glioma
c) Endophthlamitis
b) Solid RD
d) Granuloma
c) Exudative RD
479) Early sign of vitamin A deficiency
469) 70 yr old pt with Raspberry lesion of
orbit, biopsy shows sheet of lymphocytes a) Bight blindness

a) Lymphoma b) Bitot spots

470) Pt on exam having lifted edges of ulcer c) Xerophthalmia

a) Mooren ulcer 480) Facial anomaly with PAS, iris atrophy,

posterior embryotoxon
471) Association with Phylectenulosis
a) Axenfield
a) Staph aurus b) Peters
b) TB c) Reiger syndrome
472) Retinal tear with vitreous hemorrhage 481) Treatment options for BCC.----POOL
a) Krypton laser 482) Commonest signs and symptoms of orbital
invasion of BCC
473) Diode laser, least
a) Proptosis
a) It reduces choroidal necrosis
b) Decreased vision
474) Mature cataract, define
c) Optic nerve involvement
a) Cortical cataract
d) Diplopia
b) Likely of anterior capsule
483) A patient presents with B/L upper lid
475) Scleral buckling least effect on entropion and tarsal follicles in both eyes. What
is the most likely diagnosis
a) IOP
a) Trachoma
b) Distance from limbus
484) Normal Levator Function on excursion is
c) Buccal diameter
a) 15 (13-15)
d) Tightness of suture
b) 10
476) Pt with conjunctival melanoma. Best Rx
485) Commonest cause of viral conjunctivitis:
a) Excision + Cryo
 a) Adeno virus 3* (Jatoi) 492) A patient suffered trauma by a tree branch
and developed keratitis with white ulcer and
b) Adeno virus 8 base. What is the most likely cause:
c) Herpes
a) Fungal
486) A patients presents with conjunctival follicles b) Yeast
and palpable pre-auricular lymph nodes. What is
the most likely diagnosis c) Viral

a) Viral Conjunctivitis d) Bacterial

487) Least likely Immunological etiology of 493) Commonest cause of Endophthalmitis after
membranous and pseudomembranous Trabeculectomy is:
conjunctivitis?
a) Strep pneumonia
a) Ligneous conjunctivitis (related to
b) Pseudomonas
↓plasminogen)

b) Atopic conjunctivitis c) Strep pyogenes

c) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis 494) Least common cause of fungal keratitis is

488) Treatment options of Rhabdomyosarcoma a) Candida

b) Aspergillum
a) Radiotherapy
c) Cephalosporium
b) Chemotherapy
d) Blastomyces dermatides
c) Radio+Chemotherapy
495) A patient develops recurrent corneal
489) Commonest type of Rhabdomyosarcoma
cloudiness which recovers after treatment. This
time he has presented with visual acuity CF.
a) Embryonal
What is the most likely cause
b) Alveoloar
a) Herpetic
490) Chance of transmission of a Non-heritable
b) Interstitial
Retinoblastoma to an offspring is
496) 8 yr old child with Interstitial Keratitis. Most
a) 20%
likely cause is:
b) 40%
a) Congenital Syphilis
c) Zero%
497) Which of these is non-granulomatous
491) A patient suffered RT uveal prolapse which uveitis:
was repaired. He presented 2 weeks later with Lt
photophobia, pain and blurriness. Treatment a) Sarcoidosis
options are:
b) Tuberculosis
a) Evisceration
c) Juvenile Xanthogranuloma
b) Intravitreal antibiotics
d) Molluscum Contagiosum
c) Systemic Steroids
498) In a case of Giant cell arteritis what is the
d) Systemic antibiotics most dreaded complication:

a) Stroke

b) Blindness
 c) Myocardial Infarction 505) Ectopia Lentis occurs in:

d) Pulmonary embolism a) Marfan’s Syndrome

499) Anterior chamber reaction is positive in: 506) Least likely association of Aniridia is:

a) Iridocyclitis a) OAG
b) Keratitis b) CAG
c) Cataract c) Pannus on cornea
d) Wide angle Glaucoma
507) Increased IOP occurs in:
500) Regarding Injecting air in vitreous least
a) Axenfield*
important statement is:
b) Chandlar
a) For fish mouthing with U shaped tear
c) Cogan Reese
b) Intraoperatively to counter hypotony
508) To view Optic Disc the best option is:
c) Need for air travel

d) To clear choroidal folds a) 90 D

e) Patient position is unimportant 509) To distinguish b/w narrow and closed angle
best option is:
501) Least likely complication of YAG is:
a) Simple mirror gonio lens
a) Retinal detachment*
b) Zeiss mirror
b) Vitreous in A/C
510) A Contact lenses user presents to OPD with
c) CMO c/o decreased vision and pain. There is Sattler
veil appearance on slit lamp examination. The
d) Hypotony cause is:
502) Best factor to decrease PCO is: a) Epithelial hypoxia
a) Lens design b) Epithelial edema
b) Anterior capsule in close contact with c) Stromal edema
IOL*
d) Tight fitting lens
503) Prostaglandin’s least likely role is:
511) Young pt with amoebic keratitis. Most likely
a) Decreases uveoslecral outflow cause:

b) CMO a) Swimming in pool

c) Hypertrichosis b) Contact lens wear

504) Uveoscleral outflow is increased due to: c) Contaminated drops

a) Exercise d) Trauma

b) Pilocarpine 512) Commonest association with Steven Johnson

is
c) Increased IOP
a) It occurs more frequently in females than
d) Atropine males
e) Adrenaline
 b) It is caused by irritation of Lacrimal gland a) Glaucoma

c) Due to vasculitis of dermis b) Cataract

d) Topical retinoic acid may help in c) GBS*

keratinization
d) Myasthenia Gravis
513) Least likely association with coat's disease is
e) MG*
a) It is unilateral
520) 35 year old male suffers from darkness in
b) It mostly occurs in boys* visual field and decreased dark adaptation. Most
likely diagnosis is
c) Neovessels are found on retina
a) CSCR
514) Least likely association with VKH is
521) Least important factor for suprachoroidal
a) Retina is uninvolved* hemorrhage is

b) Deafness is associated a) Raised IOP

c) Is associated with DR4 b) Raised BP
d) Recurrences and remittance c) Raised intraoperative pulse

515) Least likely association with Duane’s d) Increased axial length

syndrome is
e) Traumatic cataract
a) Often bilateral
522) Axial proptosis of gradual onset with optic
b) Associated with perceptive deafness atrophy, most likely cause is

c) Downshoot on adduction a) Meningioma

d) Upshoot on abduction b) Glioma*
e) Amblyopia occurs due to anisometropia
523) Lt Hypertropia increases on Lt gaze and Rt
head tilt. Mostly likely involved muscle is
516) Least appropriate for accommodative
esotropia is
a) Lt Superior Rectus
a) Spectacles correction b) Lt Superior Oblique
b) Variable angle c) Lt Inferior Rectus
c) Originates from intermittent esotropia d) Rt superior Oblique

517) Sudden lateral canthal pain with swelling and 524) Rt Hypertropia increases on R gaze and L
redness, most likely cause is: OR head tilt. The most likely involved muscle is
518) Young pt with painful lateral gaze and 525) Child with AML. Commonest ocular finding
restriction, cause?
a) Retinal hemorrhages (in adults and in ALL)
a) Myositis
b) Choroidal lesions
b) Bleed in lateral rectus
c) Orbital infiltrates
c) Thyroid eye disease
526) Commonest finding in myeloid leukemia is
519) 15 year old girl suffers from blurred vision
in the evening. Most likely cause is a) Orbital infiltrate
 b) Choroidal lesions* b) Chalazion

527) Most important mechanism of energy c) Neurofibroma

production in lens is d) Blepharitis*
a) HMP Shunt 535) Treatment of extrafoveal CNV in ARMD
b) Aerobic glycosis (30)
a) PDT
c) Anerobic glycolysis (70%)
b) Argon laser
d) Sorbitol pathway + HMP Shunt (10%)
c) TTT
e) Sorbitol pathway (5%)
536) Treatment option for a 2 year old with
528) Foreign body got stuck in a patient's epiphora is
conjunctiva, what mechanism do cells infiltrating
it use after 48 hours of injury a) Massage

a) Super Oxide* b) Massage and follow-up

b) Hydroxyl ion c) Probing and Follow-up*

c) MPO-Halide system 537) The most important investigation for an

ulcerative lesion of lid is
529) A patient develops Rt eye painful proptosis
followed by sinusitis. CT scan shows a) Biopsy*
homogenous opacification in the orbit. What is
the probable diagnosis: b) CT Scan

c) X-ray
a) Pseudotumor

b) Orbital cellulitis 538) To decrease astigmatism

c) Tolosa Hunt Syndrome a) Temporal incision is given

530) What is the appropriate treatment for the 539) First sign of vitamin A deficiency is
above mentioned patient
a) Night blindness
a) Steroid therapy
b) Bitot spots
b) Systemic antibiotics
c) Corneal dryness
531) CT Scan of Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis
d) Xerostomia
shows
e) Poor dark adaptation
a) Superior Ophthalmic vein dilation
540) Treatment of BCC of about 1 cm at medial
532) Least likely complication of orbital abscess canthus is
is
a) Excision*
a) Meningits----???
b) Radiotherapy
533) Sign of acanthamoebic keratitis is
c) Radiotherapy and excision
a) Perineuritis
541) EOG is used to assess
534) Least likely associated granulomatous lesion
in eye is a) Bipolar cells

a) Hordeolum b) Muller cells

 c) Ganglion cells b) Reiger syndrome

d) RPE 551) Causative agent in stye

542) Treatment option for a Lesion of Lower lid a) Staph aureus

is
b) Staph epidermidis
a) Excision
c) Strep pyogenes
b) Excision and glabellar flap*
552) Which of the following is least likely
543) Color vision is a function of inflammatory condition of lid

a) Optic Nerve a) Hordeolum

b) Optic Disc b) Blepharitis

c) Macula c) Chalazion

d) Optic tract d) Phacomatosis

544) Most appropriate for Intracranial 553) Least likely causing dacryoadenitis
Hypertension is
a) Mumps
a) It is commonly found in thin hypertensive
ladies b) Infectious mononucleosis

c) T.B
545) Superior Limbic Keratitis
d) Influenza

e) Diphtheria
546) In a case of filamentary keratitis with joint
pain 554) Most common systemic disease with ocular
manifestation

a) Sarcoidosis
547) Commonest systemic cause of Optic neuritis
is 555) Optic nerve glioma with intracranial
extension. Best Rx option
a) Multiple Sclerosis
a) Surgery alone
b) GCA
b) Radiotherapy alone
548) Commonest hyeracute purulent
conjunctivitis is caused by c) Radio + chemo

d) Surgery + radiotherapy
a) Gonococcus

b) Pseudomonas 556) Least likely about giant papillary

conjunctivitis
549) Commonest infection to transfer from
mother to baby is a) Resolve upon removal of stimulus

b) Cause due to constant mechanical stimuli

a) Gonococcus
557) Most important step to prevent PCO
550) Female pt present in OPD with IOP 32
mmhg. Correctopia with posterior embryotoxon.
a) 360O capsulorhexis attached to optic
General examination reveals molar hypoplasia
b) Primary PC polishing
a) Axenfield anomaly
 c) Shape of IOL 564) Young pt with ipsilateral miosis and
anhydrosis. On adding weak dilating eye drops
d) Injectable IOL pupil dilates spontaneously. Diagnosis?

558) 2 yr old child has profound decreased vision a) Horner’s sign

due to cataract. Which type of cataract?
b) Addie’s pupil
a) Lamellar
c) Argyl-Robertson pupil
b) Nuclear
565) Pt with xerostomia, filamentary keratitis and
c) Anterior subcapsular arthritis. Diagnosis?
d) Posterior subcapsular
a) Sjogren syndrome
e) Coronary
b) Mickulicz syndrome
559) Least likely risk factor for NTG c) SLE

a) Parapapillary hemorrhage d) Reiter’s syndrome

b) Migraine 566) Pt with obstructive jaundice with vitamin K

deficiency. Which clotting factor is deficient
c) Small optic nerve

d) Nocturnal systemic hypotension a) Factor V

b) Factor VIII
560) Lens causing glaucoma, least likely
c) Protein C
a) Phacolytic
d) Protein S
b) Phacomorphic
e) Antithrombin
c) Phacoantigenic
567) Retinal hole in periphery. How would it
d) PXF present
561) Most important ocular feature of toxocariasis a) Pigment in vitreous
a) Children with pica have increased incidence b) Red cell in vitreous
b) Caused by a tapeworm c) Flashing of light
c) Chronic endophthalmitis 568) Drug causing cicatricial conjunctivitis. Least
d) Marked eosinophilia likely

562) Most common cause of cotton wool spots a) Isoniazid

b) Timolol
a) Diabetic retinopathy
c) Pilocarpine
b) HTN retinopathy
d) Ecothiophate iodide
563) Congenital stationary night blindness
associated with most likely 569) Jones II dye testing

a) Choroidemia a) To know the site of partial obstruction

b) RP 570) Pt with mature cataract. How to know
c) Oguchi’s disease macular function?

a) Color perception
 b) Two point discrimination 577) Behcet disease, least common

c) Maddox rod a) Oral ulcer

d) U/S b) Genital ulcer

571) Regarding 3rd nerve palsy c) Keratoderma blennorrhagica (found in

Reiters disease, reactive arthritis)
a) Compressive lesion causing painless
papillary dilation d) Erythema nodosum

b) Weber e) Arthritis

c) Benedict 578) Sarcoidosis for screening. Most common

d) Nonthgel?? …. Ipsilateral 3rd nerve palsy a) ACE level

+ ipsilateral cerebral ataxia
b) X-ray chest (abnormal in 90%)
572) Pt using glaucoma medication comes after 1
week with cells in AC. Most likely drug c) Biopsy

a) Pilocarpine 579) Best way to differentiate HSV from

HZV
b) Latanoprost
a) Branching pattern
c) B-blocker
b) Fluorescein staining
573) 40 yr old female with gradual proptosis. On
report, there is bony erosion of temporal fossa. c) Peripheral location
Most likely diagnosis?
580) Removal of lens indicated, least likely
a) Sphenoidal meningioma
a) Congenital cataract
b) Osteosarcoma
b) Phacolytic glaucoma
c) Lymphoma
c) Phacoantigenic glaucoma
574) Small sized retinoblastoma. Best method for
assessment d) Lens attached, dislocated into vitreous
(zonules intact)
a) A-Scan
581) Earliest skin change in HZV
b) B-Scan
a) Burning sensation
c) CT
b) Hyperemia and vesicle formation
575) Basal cell carcinoma, least likely
c) Pustule formation
a) Common in lower lid d) Hyperemia and tingling sensation
b) Arise from stratum germinatium
582) Non ischemic CRVO, most common
c) Mortality due to metastatic spread in late
stages a) Less common than ischemic

576) Sebaceous cell ca, least likely b) Poor prognosis

c) No cotton wool spots (Less)

a) Arise from meibomian gland
d) Marked APD
b) Common in upper lid
e) Poor VA
c) Metastatic with good prognosis (poor)
583) Trauma, most likely 592) Retinoblastoma incidence of 1 in live
births
a) Angle recession
a) 10-20,000
584) Retinitis pigmentosa
b) 20-30,000
a) Reduced ERG
c) 30-40,000
585) Retinitis pigmentosa
593) Regarding sebaceous gland ca, least
likely
a) Post subcapsular cataract
a) Metastasize to lymph node late in
586) If clear cornea incision
disease
a) Steepening 90O away from incision b) Morbidity is due to spread to regional
LN
587) Most common visual field defect in
glaucoma c) It arises from meibomian gland

a) Central d) It resembles chalazion

b) Paracentral (70%) 594) Allergic reaction that develops late

588) Iris neovascularisation, no PAS, no a) Toxic follicular conjunctivitis

secondary angle destrc
b) Toxic papillary conjunctivitis
a) Fuch’s heterochromia iridocyclitis
c) Anaphylactic reaction
b) CRVO
595) Vitrectomy is done by which needle
589) IOL sterilization by which method
a) 20 G
a) Ethylene oxide
b) 24 G
b) Steam heat at 100 C for 30 min
c) 27G
c) Gamma radiation
596) Old RD. On FFA, double circulation
590) Pt with increased appetite, wt loss and
narrow fissure, likely diagnosis a) Choroidal melanoma

a) Thyroid ophthalmopathy 597) Clear corneal incision (Corneal incision

causes flattening of surface curvature in the
b) Myasthenia gravis same meridian as the incision & steepening of
the meridian 90o away from it)
c) Multiple sclerosis
a) Flatten the cornea in the steeper
591) Pt having Rt dilated pupil, consensual meridian
light reflex +ve and Lt eye normal. Cause?
b) Flatten the cornea at 90o
a) Argyl pupil ( Pupil is small)
c) Steepen the cornea in the same meridian
b) Adie’s pupil ( consensual –ve)
598) Most important step in phaco?
c) Drug related
a) CCC
d) 3rd n. Palsy
b) Hydrodissection
e) Horner pupil ( pupil is small)
c) Hydrodelineation
 d) Sculpturing b) 10, 15, 20%

599) Chronic conjunctivitis by definition 605) Squint presentation in RB

a) 2 wks a) 10%

b) 4 wks b) Twenty %

c) 6, 8, 12 wks c) 40, 50%

600) 20 year old pt present with pain, watering. 606) Non-affected parents with RB – in child how
On exam: S/Conj Hg, follicular reaction on much % of transfer to next child?
superior tarsus and serous discharge, cause?

a) Adenovirus

b) H. Influenzae

c) Chlamydia
a) 10%
601) 55 yr old pt present with ↓vision. On exam:
Right fundus shows sub retinal scar. Left fundus b) 20%
shows druses. Most preferable treatment?
c) 40%
a) FFA with Amsler grid for near d) 60%
b) TTT
607) Pt presents with ↓vision, mild pain.
c) PDT Condition improved with medication. Then
condition recurs – what is probable diagnosis?
d) PRP
a) Corneal abscess
602) Diabetic pt (mild background) with macular
edema & ↓vision. On FFA: Enlarged FAZ, next b) HZO
treatment option
c) Disciform keratitis
a) Macular grid better than focal d) Fuchs endothelial dystrophy
b) PRP
608) For sclera fixation IOL, how much distance
c) Observation from limbus are the sutures placed?

d) No Rx beneficial a) 0.5 mm

603) Diabetic pt with hard exudates on post pole, b) 0.75 mm

circinate pattern, part of hart exudates involving
c) 1 mm
macular. Next Rx option
d) 1.25
a) Macular grid
e) 1.75 mm
b) PRP
f) 2.0 mm
c) Observation and F/up 6 months
609) Farmer of 60 yrs develops lesion on Right
d) Macular grid better than PRP
lower lid medial canthus. Diagnosis?
e) Focal laser
a) Basal Cell Ca
604) Morbidity rate in retinoblastoma (RB)
b) Squamous cell ca
a) Five % c) Sebaceous gland ca
610) 22 yr old nurse, ↓mild deterioration of Right 615) Pt of 60 yr old presented with severe pain on
vision. VAR 6/24. VAL 6/6. Few kps, no cells, right side of face especially over cheeks, tearing
no flare and mild changes of lens. Treatment like- with chewing pain ↑sed. Most probable
options? diagnosis

a) Observation a) Post herpetic neuralgia

b) Cataract extraction with IOL b) Trigeminal neuralgia

c) Topical steoroids c) Infraorbital nerve damage

d) Cycloplegia d) Giant cell arteritis

611) 6 month old child, swelling on medial 616) 18 year old boy with lens subluxation, cause
canthus with doesn’t ↑ size after crying, non
pulsatile. a) Marfan syndrome

a) Amniocoele b) Mobius syndrome

b) Capillary hemangioma c) Peters anomaly

c) Encephalocele 617) Least common complication with YAG

capsulotomy
d) Ethmoidal mucocoele
a) Macular oedema
e) Dermoid cyst
b) Uveitis
612) During trauma which cranial nerve damages
commonly? c) ↑IOP

a) 6th CN d) Lens subluxation

b) 4th CN 618) LPI laser setting

c) 3rd CN a) Spot size 0.50, energy 800, duration 0.1

sec
d) 5th CN
b) Spot size 0.50, energy 1500, duration 0.2 sec
613) Post op endophth, route of choice for drug
delivery? c) Spot size 200, energy 1500, duration 0.2 sec

a) Intravitreal d) Spot size 200, energy 800, duration 0.1 sec

b) Subconj 619) Indication of LPI

c) Post subtenon a) Pupil block with pseudophakia

d) Topical b) Plateau iris syndrome

614) After head injury pt presented with B/L c) Pseudoexfoliation syndrome

dilated pupil. Which nerve is commonly
damaged? d) Pigment dispersion syndrome

a) Trigeminal 620) Patient with PXM in one eye, otherwise

normal. What’s next step?
b) Optic nerve
a) Gonioscopy
c) Oculomotor
b) IOP measurement
d) Abducent
c) FFA
 d) Visual fields 627) Follicular conjunctival reaction caused by
which drug
621) Pt presented with FB sensation, pain. O/E;
Conjunctiva: Congestion in palpebral fissure. a) Timolol
Most probable diagnosis?
b) Brimonidine
a) Blepharitis
c) Latanoprost
b) Conjunctivitis
d) Apraclonidine
c) Cicatricial pemphigoid
628) 25 year old lady presented in your OPD with
622) Pt diagnosed with POAG. He was prescribed ↓ed vision. O/E: Cornea shows dendritic lesions
pilocarpine. After some time he presented with with ↓ed corneal sensation. What is diagnosis?
↓vision for distance and peri ocular pain. What is
the cause of this problem? a) HSV – Dendritic ulcer

b) HZV
a) Cataract caused by pilocarpine
c) Keratitis
b) Spasm of accommodation

c) Hypermetropia 629) Difference between HZV and HSV on

clinical grounds
d) Myopic shift
a) Central lesion
623) Uveitis aggravated least by following drugs
b) Multiple lesions
a) Latanoprost
c) Peripheral and multiple lesions
b) Pilocarpine
d) Peripheral lesions
c) Diclofenac
630) Benign lid tumor (Mass which can lead to
624) Least complication caused by Latanoprost malignant transformation)

a) Macular oedema a) Actinic keratosis, lead to squamous cell ca

b) Eye last lengthening b) Pyogenic granuloma, lead to neoplastic ca

c) Periorbital pigmentation c) Portwine stain with subepithelial vascular.....

d) Heterochromia 631) Myopia %age in Pakistan

e) ↓uveoscleral outflow a) 5-6%

625) Methods of IOL calculation after PRK b) 6-7%

a) Standard IOL calculation methods c) 7-9%

b) Pre PRK with special calculation methods d) 10-15%

c) Post PRK with SRK formula 632) Patient with history of blunt trauma. On
fundus exam, red spots at periphery which
d) By senior technician represent hole. What is the characteristic of this
hole?
626) Prenatal diagnosis of RB
a) Pigmented cells
a) Chorionic villi
b) Red cells
b) Amniotic fluid
633) Prophylactic laser is indicated least likely in
c) Ultrasound this condition
 a) Fellow eye with RD a) Betaxolol – on β1 receptor

b) High myopia b) Betaxolol – on β2 receptor

c) Family history of RD c) Timolol

d) Fellow eye with cataract 640) Vitiliform dystrophy

634) Which IOL material causes less PCO a) Unilateral

a) PMMA b) A.D

b) Acrylic c) Retinal (macular atrophy)

c) Silicon d) ERG abnormal

d) Hydrogel e) EOG normal

635) Which type of IOL can get bacterial 641) Worth four dot test: Least correct
precipitates
a) 3 Green lights seen – L suppression
a) PMMA
b) 2 Red lights seen – R suppression
b) PMMA without heparin
c) 2 Red + 3 Green light seen – excyclotropia
c) Silicon
d) Green 3 red alternate –
d) PMMA with heparin
642) Thyroid ophthalmopathy, which muscle is
636) To check CD ratio/ optic disc best seen by commonly affected

a) +90 D a) Inferior rectus

b) With indirect ophthalmoscope b) Medial rectus

c) With red free light c) Lateral rectus

d) Direct ophthalmoscope 643) Pt with dysthyroid. CT scan shows

637) 35 yr old pt present with ↓vision, RE corneal a) Nodule muscle thickening

edema, haloes around light. IOP 34, cells in AC.
What’s most probable diagnosis b) Diffuse muscle thickening

a) Fuchs uveitis c) Thickened muscles with tendon sparing

b) Posner schlosman syndrome d) Fusiform enlargement

c) Uveitis 644) 65 yr old pt with post cerebral infarction.

Investigation of choice
d) PXF syndrome
a) CT scan
638) Brimonidine is
b) MRI ... ... ... (For Hg, CT and for
a) Α2 - selective infarction, MRI is better)

b) Β1 - selective c) Carotid duplex

c) Β2 - selective d) Arteriography

d) Α1 – selective 645) 35 yr lady with weakness of body

639) Cardio selective β blocker 646) , ↑ during evening coupled with diplopia.
Most likely dx?
 a) Myasthenia gravis 652) Complication of retrobulbar injection. Least
correct?
b) Thyroid ophthalmopathy
a) CRAO
c) Pseudotumor
b) ↑IOP
647) Pt with diplopia in primary position with Left
hypertropia. Increased with left gaze & right head c) ↑ICP. Respiratory paralysis
tilt. Which muscle is involved?
d) Cardiac arrest
a) Left Superior oblique
653) 35 yr old pt with ↓VA, ↑IOP, mild
b) Left Inferior oblique discomfort. O/E: Pupil reactive. Fine, yellow-
white kps. On Gonio, PAS. Likely cause?
c) Right Superior oblique
a) Fuch’s uveitis
d) Right Inferior oblique
b) Traumatic uveitis
648) Pt with gradual proptosis. CT scan shows
erosions of orbital fissure. Most probable c) Possner schlosman syndrome
diagnosis
d) Lens induced glaucoma
a) Pseudotumor
654) Regarding Rx of superior limbic
b) Neurofibromatosis keratoconjunctivitis difficult to control with
treatment.
c) Cavernous hemangioma
a) Superior limbus conjunctival dissection
d) Capillary hemangioma
b) Strong steroids
e) Dermoid/ Mucocoele
c) Periocular injection
649) Pt of 60 yrs with scalp tenderness. ESR –
102, slight deterioration of VA. Probable d) Immunosuppressive agents
diagnosis?
655) Mobius syndrome. Correct statement
a) Giant cell arteritis
a) Bilateral 7th nerve palsy + Bilateral 6th
b) Uveitis nerve palsy
c) Post herpetic neuralgia b) Horizontal + vertical gaze palsy

650) For GCA, temporal artery biopsy and what c) Autosomal recessive condition
size sample is taken?
656) Refsum disease
a) 1.5 cm
a) Loss of phytanic acid from brain
b) 2 cm
b) ROP
c) 3.5 cm
c) Salt pepper appearance
d) 4 cm
d) Metabolic error of phytanic acid
651) Causes of tractional RD. Least correct?
657) To assess functional capacity of carotid
a) Penetrating trauma (posterior segment) artery at its bifurcation, which of following is the
investigation of choice?
b) PHPV
a) Carotid Doppler U/S
c) Sickle cell retinopathy
b) MRI
d) Diabetic retinopathy
 c) B-Scan 663) Glaucoma pt using pilocarpine, complains of
↓VA, pilocarpine causes
d) Arteriography
a) Loss of accommodation
658) ____ month child with watery, red eyes,
photophobia, corneal haze, cornea looks b) Anterior, forward displacement of lens
enlarged. What’s next?
c) Small pupil
a) Measurement of corneal diameter
d) Hypermetropia
b) IOP
664) In normotensive glaucoma, least common
c) Fundus examination associated feature

d) Trabeculotomy a) Parapapillary haemorrhages

659) Not opening eyes properly with bilateral b) Small cupping

ptosis, skin wrinkling with various episodes of
periorbital edema. c) Migraine

d) Nocturnal hypertension
a) Blepharochalasis

b) Blepharospasm 665) Pt wearing RGP C/L for 2 wks. On exam,

Right corneal has Sattler’s veil appearance
c) Dermatochalasis
a) Lens too close
d) Blepharoptosis
b) Epithelial hypoxia
660) Most common cause of constant exotropia.
c) ↑sensitivity to protein
a) Decompensated intermitted exo
d) Epithelial edema
b) Exo with cranial bone anamolies
e) Stromal edema
c) Sensory exotropia
666) 35 yr female with two children, taking
d) 3rd nerve palsy medication. C/o bilateral transient blurred vision
for 1-2 min 2 wks back. Now ↓VA since
661) Common complication of strabismus surgery morning. On exam, both eyes papilloedema with
↑sed blind spot. Next Rx option
a) Perforation of globe
a) If MRI –ve, arrange spinal tap
b) ON-Cut
b) If MRI –ve, start steroids
c) Lost muscle syndrome
c) If MRI –ve, start Diamox
d) Prolapsed orbital fat
d) Neuro referral with low salt diet and weight
e) Misalignment of muscles reduction

662) Major virulence factor of gram positive 667) In modern cataract surgery; surgery should
streptococcus? be done when

a) Anti C5a peptidase a) Pt age < 50 yrs

b) C-carbohydrate b) Pt age > 70 yrs
c) M-Protein c) Pt need, when his daily activity is
disturbed
d) Streptolysin-O

e) Streptolysin-N 668) Origin of rhabdomyosarcoma

 a) Connective tissue 674) Cardiac pt on medication. C/o haloes around
light. On exam, bilateral sub epithelial fine radial
b) Fatty tissue lines in cornea. Which drug causes?
c) Extraocular muscles
a) Ca-channel blocker
d) Muller muscle
b) Amiodarone
669) Pt is planned for cataract surgery. Corneal c) Iso-sorbide nitrate
incision should be given to minimise astigmatism
d) Β-blocker
a) Superior incision
675) The most likely complication after Nd:Yag
b) Temporal incision laser capsulotomy is:

670) Pt operated for Rt Trab with MMC. Least a) Anterior uveitis

early complication of surgery
b) Vitreous in AC
a) Endophthalmitis
c) Ocular hypotony
b) Bleb leakage
d) RD
c) Choroidal hemorrhage
e) CMO
d) Shallow AC
676) Left hypertropia- increases in right
671) Pt operated for successful Phaco+IOL 1 yr tilt and left gaze, which muscle is paretic:
ago. C/o ↓VA in operated eye
a) Left IR
a) PCO
b) Right IR
b) Bacterial infection
c) Left SO
c) CMO
d) Right SO
d) RD
677) Right hypertropia- increasing in right
672) Least correct statement about automated tilt and left gaze, name the muscle involved:
perimetry
a) Rt. SO
a) Gives 3-dimensional result of island of hill
b) Lt. SO
b) Less teaching required to
technician(Operator) c) Rt. SR

c) Monitoring purpose for previous results d) Lt. SR

d) Easy for patients 678) What is the first symptom of orbital

invasion of BCC?
673) Pt with Right iris neovessels at papillary
margin but no vessels & PAS at periphery. a) Diplopia
Cause?
b) Decrease in VA
a) CRVO
c) Proptosis
b) PDR
d) Decreased corneal reflex
c) Fuchs uveitis syndrome
e) Optic nerve compression
d) Ischemic syndrome
 679) A pt with 3.5 years history of BCC, b) Yeast
which of these is the most important
investigation? c) Microsporidia

d) Bacteria
a) Biopsy

b) CT scan 685) Most common cause of viral

keratitis?
c) B-scan
a) Herpes simplex
d) X-ray orbit
b) TB
680) The best treatment option for
recurrent pterygium is? c) AIDS

a) Conjunctival autograft with pre-op 686) Most common cause of viral

beta irradiation conjuncitivitis?

b) Simple excision a) Adenovirus 8

c) Excision with radiotherapy b) Adenovirus 3

681) BCC – 1 cm lesion on the medial c) Herpes simplex

canthus, what is the treatment option?
687) 30 years male, sudden presentation
a) Excision with glabellar flap with pain, proptosis and hetergenous infiltrates
on CT-scan, cause?
b) Simple excision
a) Orbital cellulitis
c) Radiotherapy
b) Pre-septal cellulitis
d) Chemotherapy
c) Optic nerve tumours
682) Organism most likely to cause
dacryoadenitis? 688) In the above patient, which of the
following is the most appropriate treatment?
a) Tuberculosis
a) Broad spectrum antibiotics
b) Mumps
b) Systemic steroids
c) Diphtheria
c) Excision
d) Infectious mononucleosis
d) Radiotherapy
e) Influenza
689) The most common manifestation of
683) Uncommon cause of fungal keratitis? Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia in adults:

a) Fusarium a) Retinal hemorrhages

b) Aspergillus b) Orbital infiltrates
c) Blastomyces c) Hypopyon
d) Cephalosporium d) Cellophane maculopathy

684) A patient hit by a branch of tree, e) Vitreous traction bands

develops corneal ulcer with a white base and
hypopyon in the anterior chamber: what is the 690) The most common manifestation of
commonest organism? acute myeloblastic leukemia in children:

a) Fungus a) Retinal hemorrhages

 b) Orbital infiltrates b) 6.5 cm

c) CMO c) 1.5

d) Retinal detachment d) 8.5

691) In obstructive jaundice, vitamin K 697) About conjunctival inflammations,

deficiency leads to the increased tendency to the following is correct:
bleed because of the deficiency of :
a) Ligneous is a rare, recurrent, bilateral
a) Prothrombin condition and is membranous

b) Factor VIII b) Conjunctival inflammations are

never recurrent
c) Factor V
c) Acute conjunctivitis is always
d) Protein C accompanied by inferior fornix follicles
e) Protein S 698) Regarding GPC, what is the most
unlikely?
692) Treatment of extrafoveal CNV is:
a) Superior tarsal papillae are
a) Argon laser associated with inferior fornix inflammation
b) PDT b) Giant papillae can be initially
confused with follicles
c) Intravitreal steroids
c) It recovers soon after removal of
d) TTT
inciting agent
693) Most common complication of d) It is associated with chronic use of
diabetic retinopathy is: contact lenses

a) Proliferative retinopathy 699) A 15 year old high myope, contact

lens wearer, comes with complaints of redness,
b) Retinal infarction
mucoid discharge, photophobia, and yellow
infiltrates on superior limbus and conjunctivitis,
694) Stevens Johnson’s syndrome: what is
what is the cause:
the most appropriate statement?
a) Atopic keratoconjunctivitis
a) Vasculitis is dermis
b) Adenoviral keratitis
b) Topical retinoic acid for
keratinization c) Contact lens associated keratitis
c) More common in females
700) The most likely cause of
granulomatous uveitis:
695) What is the most deadly
complication of GCA in a 60 yr old man with 2
a) Juvenile xanthogranuloma
weeks history of temporal headache, ESR = 106,
chest X-Ray clear, TAB taken and Intra-venous b) Molluscum contagiosum
treatment started:
c) Sarcoidosis
a) Acute stroke
d) Tuberculosis
b) Blindness
e) Sympathetic ophthalmia
c) Pulmonary embolism
701) Which of the following diseases is
696) GCA, what is the TAB size? associated with the highest incidence of ocular
involvement?
a) 2.5 cm
 a) Sarcoidosis Reports after 6 weeks with complaints of left
blurring of vision and redness. What is the
b) AIDS treatment?
c) Tuberculosis a) Enucleation of right eye
d) Leprosy b) Topical and systemic steroids
702) Most common systemic association c) Topical antibiotics only
of optic neuritis:
708) Infantile strabismus develops:
a) MS
a) Within 6 months of birth
b) DM
b) Within 4 months of birth
c) HTN
c) At birth
d) SLE
709) Kps are found in:
703) Least likely to be associated with
orbital abscess: a) Cataract
a) Optic neuritis b) Open Angle Glaucoma
b) CRVO c) Iridocyclitis
c) CRAO 710) The most unlikely manifestation of
d) Facial cellulitis Fuch’s Uveitis Syndrome is :

e) Cavernous thrombosis a) Posterior synechiae

704) The most suitable treatment of Optic b) Heterchromia

Nerve Glioma with intracranial extension: c) Unilateral involvement
a) Exenteration d) Vitritis
b) Surgical excision 711) A 20 yr old male has bilateral upper
c) Excision with chemotherapy lid entropion, what can be the cause?

d) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy a) Trachoma

e) Excision radiotherapy b) Adenoviral conjunctivitis

705) Treatment of rhabdomyosarcoma? c) Pterygium

d) Dermatochalasis
a) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy

b) Excision 712) Most common parasite causing

bilateral blindness in a young African male?
c) Chemotherapy + excision
a) Onchocerciasis
706) Most common manifestation of
b) Toxoplasmosis
rhabdomycosarcoma?
c) Tuberculosis
a) Embryonal
d) Sarcoidosis
b) Alveolar
713) Most common cause of uveitis in
707) A patient with a history of Rt. children?
Corneal tear with iris prolapsed, repaired.
 a) Toxocariasis c) Radial retinal folds are prevented

b) Toxoplasmosis d) CRAO is a known complication

c) Herpes 720) The most common manifestation of

acanthamoeba keratitis:
714) Most likely about aniridia;
a) Radial perineuritis
a) Angle closure glaucoma
b) Exposure keratitis
b) Open Angle Glaucoma
c) Filamentary keratitis
c) Corneal pannus
d) Endothelietis
d) Macular hypoplasia
721) In duane’s retraction syndrome, the
715) Supero-nasal subluxation of lens is a following is in-appropriate:
feature of ;
a) Upshot in abduction
a) Marfan’s syndrome
b) Downshoot in abduction
b) Weil marchessani
c) It’s often bilateral
c) Homocystienuria
d) Amblyopia is most likely due to
716) Which of the following is least likely anisometropia
to be the cause of lens induced glaucoma?
e) Perceptive deafness is associated
a) Phacoanaphylactic with congenital disease

b) Phacomorphic 722) Progressive axial proptosis with

gradual visual loss followed by secondary optic
c) Pseudoexfoliative atrophy:
d) Phacogenic a) Optic nerve glioma
e) Phacolytic b) Optic nerve sheath meningioma
717) Prevalence of glaucoma after 5 years c) Cavernous hemangioma
in PEX is?
d) Capillary hemangioma
a) 5 %
723) Female with painful papillary
b) 0 % dilation, eyeball down and out, what is the cause?
c) 25 % a) Aneurysmal 3rd nerve palsy
718) Non-heritable RB – chances of b) 3rd nerve palsy
transmission to offspring’s is?
c) 6th nerve palsy
a) 0 %
d) 3rd nerve misdirection syndrome
b) 40%
724) Vitamin “A” excess causes:
c) 10 %
a) Dry skin
719) Least likely about per-operative
intravitreal air injection during RD surgery; b) Xerosis

a) Fish mouthing of tear is prevented c) Xerophthalmia

b) Direction of patient is unimportant d) Papilloedema

 725) Peripheral corneal ulcer at 5 o’clock c) Lamellar
with peripheral clear margin and blepharitis?
d) Nuclear
a) Marginal keratitis
732) Commonest cause of interstitial
b) Bacterial keratitis keratitis in a 9 years old child?

c) Herpetic keratitis a) Congenital syphilis

d) Interstitial keratitis b) Rubella

726) Patient with blurring of vision with c) Herpes

black spot in the visual field and decreased dark
adaptation in the right eye, cause? d) Adenovirus

a) Nebular corneal opacity 733) A child presents with hyperacute

purulent discharge, cause?
b) Early cataract
a) Neisseria gonorrhea
c) Glaucoma
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Central serous retinopathy
c) Adenovirus
727) Color vision defect is prevalent in?
734) Maternally transmitted infective
a) Macular lesion agent causing neonatal conjunctivitis:

b) Glaucoma a) Neisseria gonorrhea

c) Optic nerve disease b) Propionobacterium acnes
d) Optic disc c) Chlamydia trachomatis

728) What is not an inflammatory ocular 735) Filamentary keratitis with xerostomia
condition? and joint pains:

a) Chalazion a) SJS
b) Stye b) Mikulikz syndrome
c) Phacomatoses c) Hensen’s disease

729) What is not a risk factor for NTG? 736) A 15 yr old boy, loss of sweating,
abnormal pupil size ( marked in dim light ) and
a) Nocturnal hypertension hypersensitivity to mild cholinergic drugs:
b) Systemic hypertension a) Horner’s syndrome
730) Best to visualize CDR? b) Adie’s tonic pupil

a) 90 D c) Argyl Robertson pupil

b) Indirect ophthalmoscopy 737) History of contact lens wear, blurring

of vision following removal and sattier’s veil,
c) Direct ophthalmoscopy cause?
731) A child with markedly decreased a) Epithelial hypoxia
vision, which type of cataract is it most likely?
b) Stromal vascularization
a) Ant. Polar
c) Corneal edema
b) Post. Polar
 d) Endothelial decompensation a) OCT

738) 8 years old girl, presents with b) FFA

blurring of vision in evening:
c) Clinical exam of fundus
a) Cataract
745) The following causes increase in
b) Myasthenia gravis uveoscleral outflow :

c) Glaucoma a) Atropine

d) Multiple sclerosis b) Adrenaline

739) Bilateral IOP = 32 mm of Hg, c) Physical exercise

female, correctopia, Post. Embryotoxon,
maxillary hypoplasia: 746) Cycloplegic effect of atropine stays
for:
a) Chandler’s syndrome
a) 72 hrs
b) Congan Rees
b) 1 week
c) Axenfield anomaly
c) 2 weeks
d) Reiger’s syndrome
d) 48 hrs
740) To prevent PCO (ideally) what is
most important? 747) Most unlikely complication of
latanoprost is?
a) IOL designs
a) Trichomegaly
b) Primary PC polishing
b) Iris hyperpigmentation
c) Optic of lens adherent to anterior
capsule c) Decreased uveo-scleral outflow

741) Pt. With discharge (purulent), 748) A patient who has been given
endophthalmitis after trabeculectomy, causative pilocarpine for glaucoma, now comes with the
organism? complaints of headache, blurring of vision for
distance, cause?
a) Strep. Pneumonia
a) Accommodative spasm
b) Staph. Epidermidis
749) Pt with complaints of pain on
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa attempted left gaze, redness in the lateral canthus,
fusiform enlargement of the muscle on CT,
742) Most serious complication in a girl cause?
with contact lens?
a) Left lateral rectus myositis
a) Corneal ulcer
b) Rhabdomyosarcoma
b) Corneal vascularization
c) Idiopathic orbital inflammatory
c) Giant papillary conjunctivitis disease

743) Most to be benefitted with Peripheral 750) Pre-operative astigmatism can be

iridectomy? corrected by:

a) Pupillary block with pseudophakia a) Incision at the steep axis

744) Diagnostic for macular hole stage – b) Incision at the horizontal axis
1?
c) Incision at the vertical axis
 d) Type of local anaesthesia b) Central retinal vein obstruction

751) Vitamin “A” deficiency, earliest c) Central retinal artery obstruction

manifestation:
758) Duration of treatment with steroids
a) Poor dark adaptation in GCA?

b) Bitot spots a) 6 months

c) Keratinization b) 12 months

752) EOG is for: c) Indefinite

a) RPE function 759) Least likely in VKH?

b) Photoreceptor function a) Retinal involvement

753) To differentiate between open and b) Granulomatous inflammation

closed angle glaucoma, the most important is?
760) Membranes and pseudomembranes
a) Single mirror lens are most likely to be seen in :

b) Zeis four mirror goniolens a) OCP

c) Panfundoscopic lens b) SJS

754) CSNB: c) Ligneous conjunctivitis

d) VKC
a) Oguchi’s disease
e) Atopic keratoconjunctivitis
b) RP

c) Fundus flavimaculatus 761) A patient with red eye, mucus

discharge. Photophobia and tender pre-auricular
d) Cone dystrophy lymphadenopathy… It can be:

755) In worth four dot test, if the patient a) HZO

sees only red dots, it means,
b) HSV
a) Diplopia c) Adenoviral conjuncitivitis
b) Left suppression
762) A patient comes with a history of
c) Right suppression foreign body entry into the conjunctiva, after 48
hrs cells will arrive at the sight of injury and will
756) An infant (2 months) with epiphora, act through the following mechanism?
advised:
a) Lactoferin
a) P & S
b) Superoxide
b) Intubation
c) Hydroxyl radicals
c) Massage and follow-up
d) H2O-MPO-Halide system
d) DCR
763) A patient comes with right corneal
757) A patient with pulsatile proptosis, opacification with recurrent manisfestation and
diagnosed as a case of CCF. What is most likely? responds to treatment?

a) Enlargement of the superior a) HSV

ophthalmic vein
b) HZV
 c) Acanthamoeba c) Glaucoma

764) A female with papilloedema: d) Retinal telangiectasia

a) Benign intracranial hypertension is 770) Levator function in normal person is:

associated with hydrocephalus
a) 13-15 mm
b) Is common in thin lean female
b) 11-12 mm
c) Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
is more common c) 5-6 mm

d) Spontaneous venous pulsations may 771) Mechanism of action of laser?

be absent in early papilloedema
a) Thermal
765) ROP ( retrolental fibroplasias) most
common risk factor: b) Cutting

c) Biochemical change in cells

a) Prolonged labour
d) Osmotic change inside cell
b) Increased oxygen supply after birth

c) Increased maternal age 772) IOL power calculations in post PRK

cataract extraction, Method?
766) Most likely about accommodative
esotropia: a) IOL master

b) Pre-PRK readings
a) Presents initially as intermittent
tropia c) Special formula with pre-PRK
readings
b) Presents at 2-5 yrs of age

c) Has variable angle 773) IVAs are best indicated in:

767) Most common cause of cotton-wool a) AMD

spots:
b) Diabetic retinopathy
a) DM
774) The purpose of Jones – II test is to:
b) HTN
a) Find the common canalicular blockage
c) CRVO
b) Find the site of obstruction
d) CRAO
775) The most important contraindication to DCR
e) Vasculitis is:

768) A patient with recurrent stye, the a) Sac atrophy

most common organism is:
b) Deflected nasal septum
a) Staph. Aureus
c) Lacrimal sac Ca
b) Strep. Epidermidis
776) The most appropriate management for 6
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa month old infant with epiphora + NLD block will
be:
769) Least likely in Coat’s disease:
a) Massage and probing
a) Retinal neovascularization
b) Massage and follow-up
b) Exudation
777) Most physiological test for assessment of 784) Regarding conjunctival hypersensitivity
NLD is: reactions, the most delayed reaction is:

a) Scintiligraphy a) Toxic folliculitis

778) Most unlikely for BCC is : b) Toxic papillary reaction

a) It arises from stratum basalis 785) The first symptom of HZO is:

b) It metastasizes at later stages a) Burning in the distribution of first branch

of trigeminal nerve
c) It most commonly arises from lower lid (then
medial canthus, then upper lid, then lateral b) Tingling + hyperemia
canthus)
786) A 20 years old women presents with fever
779) Most unlikely regarding sebaceous gland Ca and branching corneal ulcer, what is the most
is : probable diagnosis?

a) It can involve caruncle a) HSO

b) It is mostly on upper lid b) HZO

c) Prognosis is good as there is no metastasis 787) Muscle most commonly involved in TED is :

780) A farmer has an ulcerative growth on the a) IR

right upper lid for the last 3 ½ years. What is the
most likely diagnosis? b) SR

a) BCC c) MR

b) Squamous cell carcinoma 788) Regarding IOID, the most inappropriate

management is:
c) Sebaceous gland carcinoma
a) Steroids
781) A farmer has a 1 mm growth on the medial
canthus for the last one year, he was diagnosed b) Steroid + radiotherapy
with BCC, the most appropriate management will
be: c) Cyclophosphamide

a) Excision and glabellar flap d) Surgical decompression

b) Excision 789) A 25 year old male has pain on attempted left

gaze, injection over left lateral rectus, and on CT
782) A farmer has a growth on Lt. Upper lid for we see fusiform enlargement of the muscle, the
the last 3 years, most useful in diagnosis is: diagnosis is:

a) Biopsy a) LR myositis

b) CT b) TET

783) The most appropriate management of BCC 790) 2 ½ year old child has non-reducible, non-
is: pulsatile swelling in the right medial canthal area,
above and medial to the medial palpebral
a) Excision + Moh’s micrographic surgery ligament, the most likely diagnosis is:
and / or standard frozen section
a) Superficial dermoid cyst
b) Excision + graft
b) Amniotocele
c) Simple excision
c) Dacryocele
791) A 45 year old female has presented with Left c) Allergic reaction
Mild Proptosis with fullness in temporal fossa
and hyperostosis on CT. The most likely 798) The most likely cause of ophthalmia
diagnosis is: neonatorum is:

a) Sphenoid meningioma (kanski p.812) a) Chlamydia

b) Cavernous hemangioma b) Staphylococci

792) A 50 yr old female has presented with left c) Neisseria gonorrhoea

rubbery orbital tumour. Histopathology shows
sheets of lymphoid tissue. The diagnosis is: 799) Most unlikely cause of cicatrizing
conjunctivitis is:
a) Lymphoma
a) Chloramphenicol
b) IOID
b) Ecthiophate Iodide
793) The most likely ocular presentation in a child
c) Timolol
with AML is: (AML is unlikely in a child!)
d) Pilocarpine
a) Orbital infiltrates
800) A farmer was diagnosed to be having a
b) Choroidal infiltrates
fungal ulcer, the most diagnostic will be:
c) Retinal hemorrhages
a) Hypopyon
794) Most unlikely in the treatment of dry eye is:
b) Satellite lesion
a) Steroids 801) The most diagnostic of acanthamoeba
b) Lubricants keratitis is:

c) Punctual occlusion a) Radial keratoneuritis

795) A 15 yr old boy presents with red eyes, b) Hypopyon

serous discharge, sub-conjunctival hemorrhages
c) Ulcer
and tarsal papillae. The most likely diagnosis is:
802) A patient has bacterial keratitis which is
a) Adenoviral resistant to treatment with FF aminoglycoside
b) Pneumococcus and cephalosporin. On C/S report, it is MRSA.
The most appropriate treatment will be:
c) Streptococcus
a) FF vancomycin
d) Allergic reaction
803) The most important difference between HZO
796) An 18 years old boy presents with bilateral ulcer and HSO ulcer is:
watery eyes with follicular reaction and tender
lymphadenopathy. The diagnosis is: a) The peripheral location of the ulcer

a) Adenoviral 804) A 45 year old male has right peripheral

corneal ulcer with over hanging edges,
b) Bacterial vascularization and thinning. The most likely
diagnosis is:
797) A girl presents in summers with sweating,
bilateral red eyes and mucopurulent discharge. a) Mooren’s ulcer
The most likely diagnosis will be:
b) PUK
a) Conjunctivitis
c) IK
b) Blepharitis
805) Most important function of the RPE is to : 812) The type of lens with least chances of PCO
formation, is:
a) Store vit A
a) Acrylic
b) Maintains blood retinal barrier
b) PMMA
c) Provides energy
c) Silicon
806) PKP has best prognosis in:
d) Hydrogel
a) Trauma
813) Lens most likely to result in bacterial
b) Keratoconus adhesion is:

c) Lattice degeneration a) Silicon

d) Macular dystrophy 814) The anaesthetic agent resulting in raised IOP
is:
807) A 55 years old married labourer with 5 kids
has presented with decreases vision in left eye
a) Ketamine
(HM). On examination we see a dense corneal
scar in the lower half of the left cornea and left
815) The most important step in phaco is:
mature cataract. He has a history of trauma. What
is the most appropriate management:
a) Capsulorrhexis
a) Lt. ECCE + IOL + PI
816) The least important indication for vitrectomy
b) Triple procedure is:

c) PKP and ECCE at later stages a) Complete lens drop in vitreous

808) Main advantage of SICS over ECCE is: b) Lens matter in vitreous

c) Vitreous hemorrhage
a) Pre-op astigmatism can be corrected
817) The most important route for treatment of
809) To decrease pre-op corneal astigmatism, the
endophthalmitis is:
incision given should:
a) Intra – vitreal
a) Flatten cornea in same meridian
b) Intra – venous
b) Steepen cornea 90o to the incision
c) Topical
c) Flatten central cornea
d) Peri - bulbar
810) The major pathway for metabolism in lens is:
818) The most inappropriate regarding P. Acnes
a) Anaerobic glycolysis related endophthalmitis is:
b) Aerobic glycolysis
a) It is gram +ve bacteria
c) Sorbitol pathway
b) It typically presents 2 months after surgery
d) Sorbitol pathway + hexose monophosphate
c) Steroids suppress inflammation
pathway shunt
d) Culture taken with vitreous sample comes
811) The most important test for vision in mature after 72 hours
cataract is:
819) A patient presents one year after cataract
a) Two point discrimination test extraction with decreased vision, the most likely
cause is:
b) Pin hole
 a) PCO 827) A 16 year old boy with a history of
hyphaema following blunt trauma with a squash
b) RD ball. After one year, what is going to be the most
likely presentation?
820) The commonest cause of lens subluxation is:
a) Angle recession
a) Trauma
b) Macular hole
b) Marfan’s syndrome
c) Optic atrophy
c) Ectopia lentis et pupillae
828) A 1 yr old baby’s parents bring him with
821) Drug that cannot be used in AC during history of lacrimation, photophobia and corneal
surgery: haze. What will be the most diagnostic of PCG?

a) Atropine a) Corneal diameter

822) The least important risk for POAG: b) IOP

a) DM c) Gonioscopy

b) Age d) Disc cupping

c) Race 829) Regarding PCG most likely is:

823) Most diagnostic of glaucoma regarding a) Goniotomy is successful in 80 % of cases

visual fields is:
830) A patient diagnosed with glaucoma was
a) Paracentral scotoma prescribed anti-glaucoma medication. After one
month he came back with conjunctival
b) Central scotoma congestion and anterior uveitis. What is the most
likely cause?
c) Altitudinal field defect
a) Latanoprost
824) Most unlikely to cause lens related glaucoma
b) Brimonidine
a) PXF
831) Least likely to cause inflammation is:
b) Mature cataract

c) Phacogenic glaucoma a) Diclofenac

b) Latanoprost
825) The most unlikely cause of angle closure
glaucoma secondary to neovascularization is: c) Pilocarpine

a) CRVO 832) The most likely complication of laser

iridotomy is:
b) Pars planitis

c) Fuch’s heterochromic uveitis a) Hyphaema

b) IOP elevation
826) A 24 year old male presents with unilateral
eye discomfort, IOP 40 mm of Hg, corneal c) Lens opacities
edema, AC cells and flare… The most likely
diagnosis will be: 833) The most likely complication of TRAB with
MMC versus TRAB without MMC will be:
a) Posner schlossman syndrome
a) Increased likelihood of post-op
b) Acute angle closure glaucoma endophthalmitis
c) Fuch’s anterior uveitis
834) The least likely early complication after 842) The most consistent finding with RP is:
TRAB is:
a) Diminished ERG
a) Corneal neovascularization
b) Arteriolar attenuation
b) Overfiltration
c) Waxy disc pallor
c) Underfiltration
d) Bony spicules
835) Most diagnostic in a small retinoblastoma is:
843) The most common cataract associated with
a) A – Scan RP is:

b) B – Scan a) Post. Sub. Capsular

c) CT b) Post. Polar

d) MRI c) Nuclear sclerosis

836) The % age of cases of RB presenting with 844) The most likely indication for prophylactic
strabismus is: laser photocoagulation is:

a) 20 % a) U – shaped retinal tear with small amount

of SRF
b) 40 %
b) White without pressure
c) 60 % (Leukocoria)
c) Lattice
837) The most unlikely complication after PRP is:
d) Snail track degeneration
a) Choroidal hemorrhage
845) A young boy had trauma with squash ball,
b) Cataract the most indicative of a macular hole will be:

c) RD a) Pigments in vitreous

838) Most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage b) Red cells in vitreous

in elderly is:
846) In vitrectomy, the size of needle used to
a) DM make sclerotomy is:

b) Trauma a) 19 G

839) Most common in etiology of acute b) 20 G

dacryocystitis is:
c) 24 G
a) Stasis in lacrimal sac
d) 26 G
b) Blepharitis
847) The most useful test for measurement of
840) Least likely about non-ischemic BRVO is: deviation in strabismus is:

a) Less cotton wool spots a) Prism cover test

b) Its more common than ischemic b) Krimsky test

841) Stage – II of ROP is characterized by: 848) In cover-uncover test, the un-cover part is
for:
a) Demarcation line
a) Phoria
b) Demarcation line with height and width
b) Phoria + tropia
849) The Hess chart is used to: a) In benedict syndrome, there is 3rd nerve palsy
+ ipsilateral extrapyramidal signs
a) Plot function of extra-ocular muscles
b) In weber, there is 3rd nerve palsy + ipsilateral
b) Differentiate comitant from incomitant squint hemianaesthesia

850) Most common cause of constant XT is: c) Aneurysms of PCA will present with
painless, pupil involving 3rd nerve palsy
a) A decompensated intermittent XT
d) Nothnagel syndrome involves 3rd nerve
b) Sensory XT palsy + ipsilateral cerebellar ataxia

851) A 65 year old male, known hypertensive, has 856) The most likely fracture with squash ball is:
presented with history of sudden loss of vision in
the upper quadrant... On examination we see a) Orbital floor
altitudinal visual field defect, mild inferior optic
b) Roof
swelling, ESR = 20 mm, C-reactive proteins > 10
mmol. What is the most likely diagnosis? c) Medial wall
a) NAION d) Lateral wall
b) AION 857) The most diagnostic of inferior rectus
entrapment in orbital floor fracture is:
c) Glaucoma

d) Anterior segment ischemic syndrome a) Decreased elevation in upgaze

b) Anaesthesia in distribution of infra orbital

852) A 71 year old male presents with sudden loss
nerve
of vision in one eye, he has a history of visual
obscurations and jaw claudication. The next most
858) The most unlikely about behcet’s disease is:
important investigation will be:
a) Arthritis
a) ESR

b) Blood CP b) Keratoderma blenorrhagica (Reiter’s)

c) Hypopyon
c) C-reactive proteins
859) The most important screening investigation
853) A young obese woman has presented with
for ruling out sarcoidosis in a patient with
papilloedema with eyes in XT and dilated pupils.
The most important diagnosis will be, the granulomatous uveitis is:
involvement of:
a) Chest x ray
rd
a) 3 nerve b) Conj biopsy
b) Trochlear nerve c) Lacrimal biopsy
c) Abducent nerve
860) Most diagnostic of myasthenia gravis is:
854) The nerve most commonly involved in
closed head trauma is: a) Tensilon test

b) Ice pack test

a) Trochlear nerve
c) Sleep test
b) Abducent nerve

c) Occulomotor nerve 861) The most modern indication for cataract

surgery is:
855) Regarding 3rd nerve palsy, the most likely
statement is: a) Mature cataract
 b) VA below the level required for daily a) Bare sclera technique with pre-op beta
activities irradiation

862) Most important cause of phacomorphic b) Conj flap with pre-op beta irradiation
glaucoma:
c) Stem cell implantation after excision
a) Intumescent lens
871) RB overall mortality?
b) Dislocated lens
a) 5 %
863) Most likely cause for iris prolapse is:
b) 10 %
a) Less sutures c) 20 %
b) Inappropriate wound construction d) 25 %
c) Loose sutures
872) Prevalence of pathological myopia in
Pakistan?
864) Most common presentation of RP is:
a) 0.5-2 %
a) Salt and pepper retinopathy
b) 3-5 %
b) Decreased ERG
c) 7-9 %
865) Regarding accommodative ET, most unlikely
is: 873) Regarding indirect ophthalmoscopy, which is
least likely?
a) Refractive error correction is required
a) Increase image size in hypermetropia when
b) Presents between 2-7 years of age
lens is moved nearer
c) Initially presents as intermittent ET
b) Image formed between lens and observer
d) Angle is variable
c) No accommodation by observer
866) Electric sensation on cheek, worsened on d) Decreased field of illumination in myopia
shaving and chewing: then hypermetropia
a) Migranous neuralgia 874) In ALT, the settings should be:
b) Trigeminal neuralgia
a) 50 micrometres x 0.1 sec x 700 mw
867) Pathognomonic of TED on CT Scan is:
875) Cataract, deafness and cardiac problem:
a) Fusiform enlargement of muscles with
a) Rubella infection in 1st trimester
tendon sparing:
b) Rubella infection in 2nd trimester
868) In squint surgery, most common
complication is: c) Rubella infection in 3rd trimester

a) Over/under-correction 876) MRSA treatment?

869) The most likely (safe) indication for phaco is: a) Cephazoline + tobramycin

a) PXF b) FF vancomycin

b) Mature cataract 877) Clear corneal incision for cataract surgery

doesn’t cause:
c) Subluxated lens
a) Flattens the same meridian
870) The treatment of choice for pterygium is:
 b) Steepens the meridian 90o apart 885) Drug least likely to cause cicatrizing
conjunctivitis?
c) Central corneal flattening
a) Chloramphenicol
878) 35 years old female with diplopia, worse in
the evening + irritation and discomfort around b) Idoxuridine
the eyes…. Right lid at limbus, R hypotropia,
Left lid covering 2 mm of the cornea: c) Pilocarpine

d) Timolol
a) MG

b) TED 886) Loose lid skin, episodes of edema?

879) Correct statement? a) Blepharochalasis

b) Dermatochalasis
a) Betaxolol --- more selective for Beta 1
receptors
887) 2 years old baby, presents with swelling near
b) Betaxolol --- more selective for Beta 2 medial canthus, non-pulsatile, non-reducible,
receptors lacrimal sac is ok?

880) Virulence factor for group A streptococci? a) Amniontocele

b) Ch. Dacryocystitis
a) Anti C5 peptidase
c) Encephalocele
b) Streptolycin O
d) Ethmoid mucocele
c) Streptolycin S
e) Superficial dermoid cyst
881) Best test for visualizing carotid artery
bifurcation pathology? 888) Refsum syndrome: least likely?
a) Arteriography a) AD
b) Digital subtraction intra-venous angiography b) Deafness
c) MRI c) RP
882) GCA: TAB size? d) Increased serum phytanic acid

a) 2 cm 889) Virus causing bull’s eye maculopathy?

b) 2.5 cm a) HSV
c) 4 cm b) HIV
883) For scleral fixation PC IOL, needle passed c) CMV
how far back from the limbus?
d) Varicella
a) 1.25 mm
890) About vitelliform dystrophy, least likely is:
b) 0.2 mm
a) Age of onset – 6 years
c) 1.75 mm
b) Unilateral
d) 2 mm
c) Normal ERG
884) Which drug can cause uveitis?
d) Minimal color defect
a) Latanoprost
891) Diabetic with BGDR --- exudates in a circle b) Progressive cone dystrophy
reaching macular; the treatment should be?
c) Stargardt’s diseases
a) Macular grid
897) Recent cerebral infarct; what to do?
b) FFA
a) CT
c) PRP
b) MRI
892) Most unlikely complication after SRF
drainage? c) Angiography

a) Vitreous prolapse 898) Pathognomonic of TED on CT scan?

b) Retinal incarceration a) Fusiform enlargement of muscles with

tendon sparing
c) Lens subluxation
b) Nodular enlargement
d) Choroidal hemorrhage
c) Solitary muscle enlargement
893) Contact lens wearer, c/o blurring of vision
especially after removing contact lenses and d) Kinking of muscles
switching over to glasses; on examination ---
sattier’s veil? 899) Young myope, history of trauma and red
spots, now presents with sudden loss of vision.
a) Epithelial hypoxia What is the most diagnostic clue for retinal hole?

b) Stromal edema a) Pigment in anterior vitreous

c) Hypersensitivity to proteins on lens b) Red cells in vitreous

d) Hypersensitivity to preservatives c) Flashes

e) Loosely fit contact lens 900) POAG; least likely risk factor?

894) The least likely complication of peri-bulbar a) DM

anaesthesia?
b) Myopia
a) Globe perforation
c) Age
b) Cardiac arrest
d) Race
c) Increased IOP
e) IOP
d) Respiratory failure
901) Least likely to cause uveitis?
895) Which of the following anaesthetic agents
increases IOP? a) Latanoprost

a) Fluothane b) Diclofenac

b) Halothane 902) % age of heritable RB?

c) Ketamine a) 20 %
d) Nitrous oxide b) 60 %

896) 14 year old boy, normal ERG, normal visual c) 40 %

fields, minimal color vision defect… most likely?
d) 80 %
a) Fenestrated sheen macular dystrophy
903) A girl in summers, sweaty face, redness + b) Glaucomatocyclitic crisis (possner
mucopurulent discharge + conjunctival schlossman syndrome)
hyperemia more in fornices… likely diagnosis is?
910) Ideal treatment for extra-foveal CNV?
a) Blepharitis
a) PDT
b) Conjunctivitis
b) Sub-macular surgery
c) Canaliculitis
c) Photocoagulation
d) Dacrycystitis
911) Dendrites of HZO can be differentiated from
904) Serous discharge, conjunctival follicles + those of HSV on the basis of :
lymphadenopathy + subconjunctival hemorrhage:
a) Peripheral location
a) Adenovirus
b) Central location
b) Gonococcus
912) A private patient comes to you for phaco,
c) Strep. Pneumonae you will do the surgery under which anesthesia?
d) Trachoma
a) Topical
905) Most likely pathogen in bleb induced b) Peribulbar
endophthalmitis?
c) Retro + facial
a) Staph epidermidis
d) G/A
b) Strep pneumonae
913) Brachytherapy is indicated in RB if the
c) Strep pyogenes tumour size is more than:
d) Gonococcus
a) 10 mm
906) Early complication after trab; least likely? b) 8 mm
a) Corneal vascularization c) 14 mm

907) YAG capsulotomy; least likely d) 16 mm

complication?
e) 12 mm
a) RD
914) A pt with bilateral temporal disc pallor, the
b) Ocular hypotony next most convenient test you will do:

c) Vitreous in AC a) VA

908) Presentation with central corneal opacity b) MRI

with history of recurrent episodes that recovered
with treatment; most likely? c) CT Scan

d) IOP
a) Healed corneal abscess

b) Herpetic keratitis 915) Patient with angioid streak + wound on left

side of the fore-head; diagnosis?
c) Nummular keratitis
a) Ehler Danlos syndrome
909) 26 yr old male with blurring of vision, IOP =
30 mm of Hg, cells in AC, corneal edema, no b) Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
posterior synechiae, Kps, most likely:
c) Acromegaly
a) FUS
916) Patient with enlarged skull, mental b) S/C interferon
retardation + angioid streak; diagnosis?
c) Laser
a) Pseudoxanthoma elasticum d) Systemic steroids
b) Ehler Danlos syndrome
e) Radiotherapy
c) Acromegaly
923) Patient with conjunctivitis + papillary
917) Visual field defects in glaucoma: reaction + family history of atopy:

a) Paracentral a) VKC

b) Inferior altitudinal b) Atopic conjunctivitis

c) Central scotoma 924) Complication after Nd:Yag PI:

918) A child with bilateral cataract: a) Bleeding (50%)

a) Do surgery at 6 weeks b) Iritis common

b) Surgery within days of birth will have no c) Corneal burns

specific effect on the VA outcome
925) High risk factor of PDR include all except:
c) Surgery at 2 months
a) NVD
d) Surgery at 6 months
b) NVE
919) Non – refractive accommodative esotropia:
c) Vitreous hemorrhage
a) Bifocals can be advised
d) RD
b) Increased AC/A ratio
926) Treatment of conjunctival melanoma:
c) Pt with refractive error +4 ---- +7
a) Excision
d) Advised mitotic therapy
b) Radiotherapy
920) The disease with highest rate of ocular
manifestation: c) Excision + cryotherapy

a) TB 927) The disadvantage of doing anterior

capsulotomy by capsulorrhexis is:
b) Sarcoidosis
a) IOL can be implanted in sulcus
c) Herpes
b) IOL can be placed in bag
d) Syphilis
c) Danger of extension of rhexis margins
e) AIDS
928) Patient with ET and +4.00 D hypermetropia;
f) Leprosy what first step should be taken:
921) Single diagnostic test for AIDS: a) Full refractive error correction
a) Western blot + PCR b) Patching

922) Treatment of strawberry naevus include all of c) Squint surgery

the following except:
929) Patient with PEX, risk of having glaucoma:
a) Excision
a) 5 % at five years
930) Patient with aniridia; mechanism of b) 20 %
glaucoma is due to:
c) 45 %
a) Angle closure (synechial) d) 55 %
b) Open angle glaucoma
937) Percentage of RB presenting with
c) Papillary block glaucoma leukocoria?

931) Medial canthal lesion, 3 ½ years, best test to a) 60 %

diagnose:
938) Contact lens wearer, corneal ulcer, pain out
a) Biopsy of proportion to the signs, cause?

b) CT a) Acanthamoeba

932) Medial canthal, 1 cm BCC, treatment? b) Bacterial

a) Cryo c) Viral

b) Radio d) Fungal

c) Surgical excision 939) Common cause of neonatal conjunctivitis:

d) Excision with glabellar flap a) Staph aureus

933) NLD opens: b) Chlamydia trachomatis

a) Below inferior turbinate c) Viral

b) Superior turbinate 940) Uncontrolled POAG with bilateral cataracts,

the best treatment option is:
c) Maxillary sinus
a) Combined TRAB + cataract extraction
934) Bilateral red eyes, 2 years, 48 years male,
vascularized opacities, peripheral gutter, central b) TRAB followed by cataract extraction at a
steep, sloping periphery: later stage

a) Terrain marginal degeneration 941) A child with bilateral cataracts: treatment

option?
b) Arcus senilis
a) Lens aspiration + anterior vitrectomy
c) Marginal keratitis
b) ICCE
d) Mooren’s ulcer
c) Operate one eye, see response and then
935) Non-heritable RB, risk of transmission? operate the other eye

a) 0 % 942) Drug not to be given in inflammatory

glaucoma:
b) 40 %
a) Latanoprost
c) 20 %
b) Alphagan
d) 60%
c) Timolol
936) Unaffected parents, two children with
bilateral RB, risk of transmission to the next 943) Drug which increases uveoscleral outflow:
offspring?
a) Latanoprost
a) 2 %
b) Dorzolamide
 c) Aprachlonidine 950) Ocular toxocariasis:

d) Miotics a) Caused by taperworm

944) Aniridia: most unlikely? b) Marked eosinophilia

a) Open angle glaucoma c) Chronic endophthalmitis

b) Closed angle glaucoma d) Child with PICA

c) Stem cell deficiency 951) VKH: most unlikely?

d) Macular hypoplasia a) Ciliary flush

945) Cherry red spot, disc palor, bloodless b) Poliosis

arterioles, suddenly decreased vision:
c) Vitiligo
a) CRAO
d) Granulomatous anterior uveitis
b) AION
e) Vitritis
946) Treatment of CRVO, most unlikely:
952) 70 years patient with history of headache,
jaw claudication, fatigue, superior altitudinal
a) Anti-coagulants
field loss, disc oedema… immediate
b) Focal photocoagulation investigation?

c) YAG laser a) ESR

d) Streptokinase b) MRI

947) 2 years after TRAB, blebitis / anterior c) CT Brain

chamber reaction: most likely treatment?
953) To reduce the risk of sympathetic
a) FF topical antibiotics ophthalmia, enucleation should be done within:

b) Sub conj injections a) 2 wks of trauma

c) Vitrectomy b) 2 months of trauma

d) AC injections c) 5 days of trauma

948) Most unlikely about MMC? d) 2 wks of development of symptoms

a) An alkylating agent for DNA 954) Essential blepharospasm, most unlikely in a

70 years old man?
b) Inhibit mitosis and protein synthesis
a) Unknown eitiology
c) < 0.2 mg unlikely to be beneficial
b) Unilateral
d) Used in the treatment of bladder CA
c) Visual incapacitation
e) Applied to tenon/conjunctiva after TRAB
is completed d) Overaction of orbicularis

949) Young male with bilateral periphlebitis: 955) Patient with episodes of Lt. Amaurosis
fugax, Rt. Arm weakness, TIA?
a) Sarcoidosis
a) Rt. Carotid stenosis
b) Behcet’s disease
b) Lt. Carotid stenosis
c) Eales disease
 c) Vertebral artery spasm c) TRAB with antimetabolites

d) Carotid spasm 962) A regular contact lens wearer presents with

large papillae, intolerance to contact lens, what
956) Most unlikely for CRAO? step should be taken?

a) Vascular rupture a) Give time for the papillae to resolve

b) Thrombus b) Temporarily switch off contact lens use
c) Embolism c) Switch to large diameter contact lens
d) Vasculitis 963) Lens most commonly associated with
infection?
957) Unlikely for increased intracranial pressure?
a) Disposable soft contact lens
a) Decreased BP
b) Daily wear RGP
b) Headache
c) Daily wear soft contact lens
c) Nausea, vomiting
d) Extended wear soft contact lens
d) Papilloedema
964) 20 yr old lady with pain left eye. O/E:
958) Painful right ptosis, non-reacting dilated bilateral chronic blepharitis, left peripheral ulcer
pupil, eye in XT? at 5 o’clock, separated from limbus – heals with
antibiotics/steroids:
a) Aneurismal compression of 3rd nerve
a) Marginal keratitis
b) Diabetes
b) Phlyctenulosis
959) Patient after cataract surgery has astigmatism
of +5.00 x 150o c) Bacterial ulcer

a) Wound gape at 150o 965) The diagnostic feature of fungal ulcer is?
b) Wound compression at 150o a) Satellite lesions
o
c) Wound compression at 40 b) Hypopyon
d) Loose suture at 150o
966) Diagnostic point of acanthamoeba in contact
e) IOL tilt in horizontal direction lens wearer?

960) Known diabetic, bilateral moderate cataracts, a) Radial keratoneuritis

Rt. Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy, Lt.
Sudden decreased vision/hazy fundal view, 967) Most unlikely with chloroquine toxicity:
cause?
a) Vortex keratopathy
a) Macular edema
b) Brownish deposits in lens/cortex
b) Cataract
c) Bull’s eye
c) Vitreous hemorrhage
d) Altered foveal reflex
961) A diabetic patient with glaucoma, the most e) Decreased VA / color vision
important step after controlling IOP is?
968) Best test for dyschromatopsia after optic
a) PRP neuritis?
b) TRAB with shunts
a) FM – 100
 b) Ishihara color vision charts b) Age less than 5 years

c) Amblyoscope c) Common in girls than boys

969) In male patient, most common cause of uveal d) Staph aureus is an important cause
metastasis?
975) A child with 4 prism dioptre XT, + 1.50 D
a) Carcinoid hypermetropia, central suppression scotoma,
abnormal stereopsis?
b) Lungs
a) Microtropia
c) Prostate
b) Duanes
d) GI tract
c) Accommodative ET
970) Test for primary hyper-parathyroidism:
976) Cumulative risk of glaucoma in eyes with
a) Decreased serum phosphate levels PEX at 5 years is:

b) Increased serum calcium levels a) 5 %

c) Parathormone levels in serum b) 50 %
d) Parathyroid scan c) 20 %

971) D/D of Bull’s eye maculopathy, least likely? 977) Pigment dispersion, unlikely statement?

a) Chloroquine a) Common in whites

b) Hydroxychloroquine b) Bilateral
c) Cone dystrophy c) Common in hyperopes than myopes
d) Tamoxifen toxicity 978) Diagnosis of PACG depends on:
e) Macular sheen dystrophy
a) Shallow anterior chamber
972) Idiopathic macular holes: wrong statement? b) IOP
a) Common in females c) Gonioscopy
b) Stage I macular holes diagnosed by FFA d) Corneal edema
c) Stage 4 hole benefit from chemical 979) Blood in schlem’s canal; unlikely?
vitrectomy

d) Unlikely to be seen in patients with PVD a) Carotid cavernous fistula

b) Sturge weber syndrome

973) Orbital abscess, least likely to cause:
c) Ocular hypotony
a) CRVO
d) Superior vena caval obstruction
b) CRAO
e) Ocular cavernous hemangioma
c) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
980) Risk of supra-choroidal hemorrhage does not
d) Orbital cellulitis increase with:
e) Optic neuritis
a) Increased IOP
974) Orbital cellulitis in children; most unlikely? b) Hypertension
a) Associated with sinusitis c) Intra-operative increase in pulse rate
 d) Trauma d) Provides support for IOL implantation in the
event of PC Rent
e) Increased axial length
987) The most likely cause for iris prolapse is:
981) Least likely indication for lens extraction?
a) Poor wound construction
a) Phacomorphic glaucoma
b) Loose sutures
b) Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma
c) Increase IOP by cough/straining
c) Complete lens drop in vitreous
d) Less sutures applied than needed
d) Glaucoma with moderate cataract
988) Patient on 1st post-op day after ECCE + IOL
982) The least likely cause of glaucoma in a presents with mild pain, white eye, VA 6/36
patient one week after blunt trauma? uncorrected shows residual lens matter in AC, the
treatment is?
a) Pupil block
a) Topical steroids/mydriatics
b) Macrophages blocking TBM
b) AC wash
c) Steroid induced glaucoma
c) Systemic steroids
d) Red cell glaucoma
989) The least likely to inhibit PCO:
e) Traumatic changes to TBM
a) Square edge optic
983) Blunt trauma 3 years ago, IOP = 24 mm of
Hg, most useful exam? b) Hydrophobic acrylic
a) Visual field examination c) PMMA IOL
b) Topography d) Silicon IOL
c) Gonioscopy e) Folding anterior capsule over optic
d) Optic disc exam 990) Most common presentation of congenital
rubella:
984) In NVG, the correct statement is?
a) Salt and pepper retinopathy
a) Miotics decrease inflammation
b) Cataract
b) Steroids contraindicated
c) Glaucoma
c) Main event in all cases is intense retinal
ischemia d) Microphthalmia

985) Most predictable investigation for NVG 991) Regarding congenital cataract, most unlikely
development after CRVO is? is?

a) FFA a) Commonly associated with nystagmus

b) Electrophysiological tests b) Common cause of amblyopia

986) A large anterior capsular flap before lens c) Mostly sporadic with no known cause
implantation helps:
d) Surgery within first week of life has
a) Complete hydrodissection favourable outcomes

b) Facilitates nuclear delivery 992) Regarding congenital cataracts, bilateral, 2

years of age, grossly decreased visual acuity,
c) Confirms in the bag implantation of IOL type of cataract?
 a) Nuclear e) Intra-retinal cysts

b) Lamellar 999) Most unlikely cause of hyperfluorescense:

c) Posterior polar a) Normal retina
993) Regarding PHPV, correct statement is? b) Retinal ischemia

a) It is bilateral c) RPE atrophy

b) VA is guarded even if retina is normal d) Neovessels

c) Mittendorf dots are the earliest remnants of 1000) Most useful in the diagnosis of CSR:
this disease
a) FFA
994) Cotton wool spots, wrong statement?
b) Clinical examination
a) Nerve fiber layer edema
c)
b) Ischemic infarcts
1001) Most common presentation of acute
c) Usually larger than one disc area (less myeloblastic leukemia in children:
than ¼ the disc diameter)
a) Retinal hemorrhages
d) Found around optic disc/mid-periphery
b) Pseudohypopyon
995) Regarding fuch’s syndrome in phakic patient:
c) Orbital infiltrates
a) Posterior synechiae is unlikely
1002) Most common presentation of acute
b) Iris crystals present lymphoblastic leukemia in adults:
c) Iris cysts present a) Retinal hemorrhages
996) Increased IOP after trabeculectomy: b) Orbital infiltrates

a) Aqueous misdirection c) Iris invasion

b) Increased steroid intake 1003) Most likely to benefit from photocoagulation

in a patient with a lesion within 500 micrometer
c) Choroidal detachment of the macula?
d) Wound leak
a) Hard exudates
997) Most unlikely after tractional retinal b) Retinal edema
detachment:
c) Microaneurysms
a) Tobacco dust
1004) A 5 year old child with esotropia, most
b) Smooth surface reliable measurement of deviation?
c) SRF upto equator
a) Krimsky
998) Long standing RD unlikely sign: b) Cover/uncover
a) Increased IOP c) Prism cover
b) Retinal fibrosis d) Maddox rod
c) Demarcation lines e) Maddox wing
d) Fixed retinal folds 1005) Accommodative ET; unlikely?
 a) Refractive error correction 1011) You notice PEX in a case of cataract, what
will you do next?
b) Present at 2-7 years of age
a) Measure IOP
c) Angle is variable
b) Check pupil reaction
d) Initially presents as ET
c) Fundus exam
1006) 30 years old male, sudden onset proptosis, lid
oedema, diplopia, followed by a brief episode of 1012) Goniolens most helpful to diagnose angle
sinusitis; heterogenous mass on CT-Scan? closure:

a) TED a) Zeiss 4 mirror

b) IOID b) Goniolens
c) Orbital cellulitis c) Koeppe

1007) Rapidly progressive proptosis in IOID; 1013) 2mm ptosis with good levator function,
treatment? which surgical procedure?

a) Radiotherapy a) Fascenella serwat

b) Steroids b) Levator resection
c) Cyclophosphamide c) Sling
d) Radiotherapy + steroids
1014) Maximum absorption wavelength for
e) Surgical decompression fluoresceine:

1008) Carotid cavernous fistula: MRA will show? a) 490 nm

b) 530 nm
a) Dilated superior ophthalmic vein
c) 650 nm
b) Dilated ophthalmic artery

c) Bony erosion 1015) Choroidal melanoma:

1009) Most frequent presentation of a) B-scan shows acoustic hollowness and

rhabdomyosarcoma? choroidal excavation

a) Pleomorphic 1016) A person wearing aphakic glasses + 10 D

with BVD 10 mm. You will prescribe contact
b) Alveolar lenses:

c) Embryonal a) +11 D
d) Pleomorphic + alveolar b) +12 D

1010) 85 years old known hypertensive, sudden c) + 9 D

loss of vision one eye, RAPD +ve, disc oedema,
other eye normal…. Diagnosis? 1017) Stage 1 macular hole to be diagnosed by:

a) AAION a) OCT

b) Non-arteritic AION b) FFA

c) Retro-bulbar neuritis c) Ophthalmoscopy

d) Papilloedema 1018) ROP stage 2 characterized by:

 a) Demarcation line with elevation a) Prognosis good/non-malignant

b) Demarcation line b) Common in upper lid

c) Subtotal RD 1026) Most common cause of posterior uveitis in

children:
d) Total RD
a) Toxocara
1019) Recent occipital infarct; best investigation:
b) JIA
a) MRI
c) Toxoplasmosis
b) CT
1027) A child with a history of dental extraction,
c) Angiography
presents with fever and painful proptosis:
1020) Best investigation for diagnosing carotid
a) Orbital cellulitis
artery bifurcation pathology:
b) Meningioma
a) Arteriography
c) Rhabdomyosarcoma
b) MRI
1028) Which of these is not likely to be used in dry
c) Digital subtraction I/V angiography
eyes:
1021) Reason for dacryocystitis:
a) Steroids
a) Tear stasis in lacrimal sac b) Lubricants
b) Sinusitis c) Acetylcysteine

1022) Bleb induced endophthalmitis; cause: 1029) Most likely about trachoma:

a) Strep. Pneumonia a) A single dose of azithromycin 1 g is the

treatment
b) Staph. Epidermidis
b) Caused by serotypes D-K of chlamydia
c) Gonococcus
1030) A child with lamellar cataract; investigation?
1023) A 65 year old man with headache and sudden
loss of vision / jaw claudication/ disc oedema…
a) Urine for reducing sugars after drinking milk
what will be the immediate investigation?
b) TORCH serology
a) ESR
c) Urine chromatography for amino acids
b) MRI
1031) Laser of choice for PRP with mild vitreous
c) CT Scan
hemorrhage:
1024) A patient with pseudotumor cerebri,
a) Krypton red
perimetry shows severe constriction of fields, VA
is HM. What will be the treatment of choice? b) Argon

a) Optic nerve fenestration c) Nd:Yag

b) Oral steroids 1032) Treatment of choice for rhabdomyosarcoma

c) Diamox
a) Chemo + radiotherapy
d) Mannitol
b) Radiotherapy
1025) Unlikely about sebaceous gland carcinoma: c) Enucleation
1033) Least likely to be found in old RD? 1040) Which finding corresponds most to
glaucoma?
a) Decreased IOP
a) CDR 0.4 with rim notching
b) Demarcation lines
b) B/L CDR of 0.7
c) Intraretinal cysts
1041) Most unlikely about MMC?
d) Fixed folds
a) Applied to tenon / conjunctiva after trab is
1034) Aneurysms of posterior communication
completed
artery will cause:
b) An alkylating agent for DNA
a) Painful 3rd nerve palsy
c) Inhibits mitosis / DNA synthesis
b) 4th nerve palsy
d) Used in the treatment of CA bladder
1035) Trauma to the base of skull, which nerve is
most commonly effected: 1042) P.I. will give the most benefit to?

a) 4th a) Pupil block with IOL

b) 6th b) Iridoschisis

c) 8th c) POAG

d) 3rd 1043) Most common presentation of

rhabdomyosarcoma?
1036) Fracture of the floor of orbit, diagnosis of
muscle entrapment: a) Embryonal

a) Decreased elevation b) Pleomorphic

b) Subcutaneous emphysema c) Alveolar

1037) Most common cause of constant XT? 1044) Least likely complication of PRP?

a) Decompensated intermittent XT a) Cataract

b) Sensory XT b) Choroidal hemorrhage

c) Paralytic XT c) Exudative RD

1038) Aneurysms bleed into: d) Vitreous hemorrhage

a) Sub-arachnoid space 1045) Unlikely about pigmentary glaucoma:

b) Sub-dural space a) More common in hyperopes than myopes

c) Extra-dural space b) Bilateral condition

1039) A patient presents after one year of cataract c) More common in whites
surgery. Anterior capsule is found shrinked.
d) More common in men
Treatment?
1046) Most reliable successful penetration during
a) Radial cuts with Yag laser to anterior
YAG PI?
capsule

b) Post capsulotomy a) Pigment release

b) Deepening of AC
 c) Gush of aqueous 1053) Disciform keratitis is:

1047) A 35 year old man, 6/18 vision, fundus exam a) Hypersensitivity reaction to viral antigen
shows edema of macular area, FFA findings:
b) Infection of endothelium
a) Pooling
1054) Advantage of indirect lens over triple mirror
b) Leakage in PRP:

c) Hyperfluorescence a) Periphery can be viewed easily

d) CME b) Good stabilization of eye ball

1048) A patient prescribed with pilocarpine, later c) PRP can be done in one sitting
presents with decreased vision and headache;
cause? 1055) Which of the following is the most
physiological lacrimal function test?
a) Accommodative spasm
a) Dacryoscintillography
b) Miosis
b) Dacryocystography
c) RD
c) Probing and syringing
d) Cataract
d) Jones test
1049) Vitamin A deficiency results in:
1056) Jones type – 2 test is performed to evaluate
a) Xerophthalmia the:

b) Xerosis a) Punctual obstruction

1050) Most common site of intracranial aneurysms: b) Canalicular obstruction

a) Anterior cerebral + ant. Communicating c) NLD obstruction

artery
d) To see site of obstruction
b) Posterior communicating artery
1057) A pt with malignant conjunctival melanoma;
c) Middle cerebral artery what will be the pre-disposing condition?

1051) Least likely complication of excessive laser a) Pre-existing naevus

application:
b) Trauma
a) Choroidal detachment
1058) A patient with tingling sensation of left 3rd
b) CME and 4th fingers, drooping of left upper lid and
miosis of pupil; what will be the most probable
c) Choroidal hge cause?
d) Exudative RD
a) Pancoast tumor
e) Macular pucker b) 3rd nerve palsy
1052) Drug least likely used in the treatment of c) 4th nerve palsy
crystalline keratopathy:
1059) Pt with mild ptosis and levator function of
a) Chloramphenicol 11mm, what surgical procedure is the best
option?
b) Vancomycin

c) Gentacin a) Farsenella servet procedure

b) Levator resection
 c) Brow suspension b) Chemotherapy with vincristine, etoposide
and carboplatin
1060) Pt with recent history of blisters and papillae
on right side of face involving the scalp and peri- 1066) Fuch’s uveitis syndrome, most common
orbital area and also lateral side of tip of the complication:
nose… what is the diagnosis?
a) Posterior synechiae
a) HZO
b) Cataract
b) HSV
c) Glaucoma
1061) Which of the following regarding Duane’s
d) Anterior vitreous exudates
retraction syndrome is true?
1067) A female having the triad of genital
a) Type 1 is exotropic with reduced abduction ulceration, arthritis and mouth ulcers: what will
b) Type 2 is exotropic with reduced be the diagnosis?
adduction
a) Reiter’s syndrome
c) Globe retraction during abduction
b) Behcet’s disease
d) Type 3 is much more common
1068) Patient having non-axial proptosis with
1062) In squint surgery, the most common rubbery soft growth, on biopsy shows lymphoid
complication is? tissue only:

a) Over or under correction a) Lymphoma

b) Globe perforation b) Retinoblastoma

c) Loss of muscle 1069) Most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage

in young patient is:
d) 100 % cure rate possible
a) Trauma
1063) Regarding worth four dot test, the following
statement is true? b) DM

a) Three red dots show right suppression c) CRVO

b) Three green dots show left suppression 1070) Most common presentation of RB is;
c) 2 red and 3 green show ARC a) Squint
1064) In case of cataract extraction by b) Glaucoma
phacoemulsification, what is the best indication
for surgery? c) Orbital cellulitis

a) Subluxated lens d) Leucocoria

b) Mature cataract 1071) Patient having optic nerve tumour extending

intracranially, the best treatment will be:
c) PEX
a) Excision and radiotherapy
d) Shallow AC
b) Excision and chemotherapy
e) Corneal opacity
c) Radiotherapy only
1065) In treatment of RB, the following statement
is correct: d) Radio and chemo

a) Radiotherapy of more than 12 mm size of 1072) In graves’s disease, the most commonly
tumour involved muscle is:
 a) Inferior rectus 1079) Which of the following complications is least
likely in PRP?
b) Superior rectus
a) Cataract
c) Inferior oblique
b) Exudative RD
d) Superior oblique
c) CME
e) Medial rectus
d) Choroidal hemorrhage
1073) A patient with lamellar cataract; cause?
e) Vitreous hemorrhage
a) Down syndrome
1080) Regarding congenital glaucoma, which
b) Galactosemia statement is wrong?
c) Rubella
a) Increased CD Ratio
1074) Most common cause of choroiditis in b) Increased IOP
children is?
c) Increased corneal diameter
a) Toxoplasmosis
d) Corneal oedema
b) Toxocariasis
e) Haab’s striae in bowman’s layer
1075) Baby of 12 days having purulent discharge
from eye; the most common organism is: 1081) In congenital glaucoma which investigation
is the most important?
a) N. Gonorrhoeae
a) IOP check up
b) Ch. Trachomatis
b) Corneal diameter measurement
c) Staph. Aureus
c) CDR
1076) 20 D lens in indirect ophthalmoscopy has a
magnification of: 1082) What percentage of povidone iodine is used
for disinfection of the eye and ocular adnexa?
a) 5 times
a) 5 % (7.5 % for hands and 10 % for rest of
b) 3 times the body)

c) 10 times 1083) The commonest type of cataract in RP is:

d) 1 time
a) PSC
e) 8 times b) Post capsular
1077) Specular microscopy has a role in: c) Nuclear

a) Endothelial stability d) Anterior polar

b) Corneal curvature e) Anterior sub capsular

1078) What is true regarding pachymetry? 1084) Regarding foveola:

a) Thickness of the cornea a) It is 6 mm from the center of the disc

b) Purkinje image b) Contains ganglion cells

c) Also used for AC depth measurement c) Contains photoreceptors

d) Blood supply is from retina

1085) EOG is done for: a) Antiphospholipid antibody

a) RPE defect b) ANA

b) Photoreceptor function c) CRP

c) Bipolar cell function d) ESR

d) Whole retina function 1093) Risk factor for NTG, which statement is
wrong?
1086) Wavelength of fundus fluoresceine
angiogram? a) Nocturnal hypotension

a) 390 1094) Which statement is wrong about COAT’s

disease?
b) 490
a) Causes exudative RD
c) 590
b) Neo-vessel formation
d) 600
c) Idiopathic retinal telangiactesia
1087) Regarding function of atropine:
d) Intra-retinal exudation
a) It increases uveoscleral outflow
1095) Which of the following helps differentiating
1088) Patient with nuclear sclerosis: PDR from NPDR?

a) Can develop second sight of life a) Cotton wool spots

1089) Commonest involvement of nerve in b) Microaneurysms

traumatic palsy is that of:
c) IRMA
a) 6th nerve d) Macular oedema
b) 4th e) NVDS
rd
c) 3
1096) Patient having keratoplasty due to corneal
d) Facial nerve opacity secondary to Herpes Zoster keratitis, he
later develops crystalline keratopathy; cause?
1090) We differentiate angle closure from narrow
angle glaucoma with the help of: a) Steroid induced

b) Recurrent herpes zoster infection

a) Goldman triple mirror
c) Streptococcus viridans
b) Zeis goniolens

c) Indirect 1097) In case of recurrent CSR, treatment will be:

1091) Light near dissociation occurs in : a) Two rows of confluent laser around vessels

b) Only spot of laser on leaking vessel

a) Adie’s pupil

b) HZV 1098) Ideal treatment of pseudotumour cerebri?

c) Afferent conduction defect a) Optic nerve fenestration

d) Aberrant regeneration of 3rd nerve b) Oral steroids

e) All of the above c) Tab. AZM

1092) Diagnostic test for SLE: d) Inj. Mannitol

1099) Which of the following drugs reduces IOP? a) Methanol toxicity?

a) Halothane b) CRVO

b) Nitrous oxide c) CRAO

c) Ketamine 1106) Most common presentation of migraine:

1100) A patient having pain RE, IOP = 40 mm of a) Headache

Hg and flare in AC… what is your diagnosis?
b) Trigeminal neuralgia
a) Glaucomatocyclitic crisis
c) Transient visual loss
b) POAG
1107) VHL include:
c) Acute angle closure glaucoma
a) Capillary hemangioma
d) Chronic angle closure glaucoma
b) Retinoma
1101) Nerve most vulnerable to be injured in closed
head trauma: c) Hemangioblastoma

d) Retinal astrocytoma
a) 4th
e) Neurofibroma
b) 6th

c) 3rd 1108) Hutchinson’s triad for diagnosis of syphilis

include:
d) 5th
a) Keratitis + deafness + teeth abnormalities
1102) Most common pathogen in bacterial + saddle shaped nose
conjunctivitis:
1109) Post op patient with IOP < 10 mm of Hg +
a) H. Influenza annular ring of brown color on indirect with
scleral indentation:
b) Staph aureus
a) Choroidal detachment
c) Strep pneumonae
b) RD
d) Chlamydia
c) Parsplanitis
1103) Best investigation in VKC?
d) Suprachoroidal hge
a) IgE
1110) Most appropriate about snail track
b) PCR degeneration is:
c) Eosinophilia
a) Contains large round holes
d) Impression cytology
b) Has vitreous adhesions at its margins
1104) Most important investigation for visualizing
1111) Commonest cause of night blindness:
intra ocular foreign body:
a) RP
a) CT
b) Vit A deficiency
b) USG

c) X-Ray 1112) Roth spots are not present in :

1105) A 25 year old male with bilateral disc palor, a) Leukemias

arteriolar attenuation:
b) Anemia
 c) Infective endocarditis c) IOID

d) Sepsis d) Dermoid

e) HTN 1120) Most common ocular manifestation of

Reiter’s syndrome:
1113) Child with tumor which increases in size on
crying: a) Conjunctivitis

a) Capillary hemangioma b) Episcleritis

b) Orbital varices c) Uveitis

c) Lymphangioma d) Keratitis

d) Encephalocele 1121) Disciform keratitis is due to :

1114) Dermoid cyst: a) Hypersensitivity to viral antigen

a) Formed by epidermis entrapped along b) Active viral invasion

embryonic lines of closure
c) Viral replication
1115) Most common cause of V pattern strabismus: d) Viral infection of keratocytes
a) Bilateral IO overaction 1122) A patient with central corneal opacity,
b) Brown syndrome history of recurrent episodes of redness +
watering: most important cause?
1116) Most important cause of microtropia:
a) Herpetic eye disease
a) Anisometropia b) Healed corneal ulcer
b) ARC c) IK
c) Monofixation
1123) Diagnosis of Fuch’s heterochromia uveitis:
d) Eccentric fixation
a) Stellate shaped kps
1117) Least important indication for drainage of
SRF? b) Absent synechiae

c) Few cells
a) Bullous detachment
d) Iris nodules
b) Long standing RD
e) Vitritis
c) PVR
1124) Pulsations are positive in :
1118) Oral steroids help to:
a) CCF
a) Decrease skin scarring with blisters
b) Orbital varix
b) Decrease post herpetic neuralgia
c) Encephalocele
c) Decrease complications of keratitis
d) Lymphangioma
1119) Mass in the posterior part of the orbit +
difficulty in elevation: diagnosis? e) Capillary hemangioma

a) Optic nerve meningioma 1125) Patient with eye drops, thiomersal, now has
papillae: what to do?
b) Orbital myositis
 a) Stop medication d) VKH

1126) Hyperfluorescence on FFA, the least likely 1133) Bilateral light near dissociation:
cause is:
a) Diabetes
a) Window defect
b) Adie’s
b) Leaking choroidal vessel
c) Afferent conduction defect
c) Leaking retinal vessel
1134) A 30 year old female, AC cells +,
d) Pooling intracellular exudate, snow banking inferiorly,
peripheral vascular sheathing:
e) Staining
a) Sarcoidosis
1127) Obese man with red eyes, papillae and
incomplete closure of lids at night… b) Posterior uveitis

a) Floppy eyelid syndrome c) Pars planitis

1128) A child with NLD obstruction: 1135) Duration of steroids in GCA???????????

a) 96 % resolve spontaneously a) 2 weeks

1129) The most common cause of bilateral lacrimal b) 2 months

gland enlargement: c) 6 months
a) Sarcoidosis d) Indefinitely
b) HSV
1136) Excimer laser; most inappropriate:
c) HZV
a) Contact lens cannot be used
d) Sjogren syndrome
b) HCV can be transferred
e) Thyroid dysfunction
1137) Metastasis to uvea:
1130) Method for sterilization of IOL?
a) Lung CA
a) Ethylene oxide
b) Carcinoid
b) Gamma radiation
1138) Most common cause of posterior uveitis in
c) Formaldehyde children:

1131) Investigation for macular dystrophy: a) Toxoplasmosis

a) VEP 1139) Decreased VA in left eye and Rt. Arm

weakness:
b) ERG

c) FFA a) Left carotid artery stenosis

1132) Female with uveitis + hypopyon; least 1140) Most common muscle involvement in TED:
common cause?
a) Inferior rectus
a) Reiter’s syndrome
1141) A 45o angle corresponds to how much in
b) Ankylosing spondylitis prism diopters?

c) Behcet’s disease a) 100

 b) 90 a) Videokeratography

c) 75 b) Keratometry

d) 85 c) Clinical examination

e) 60 d) Retinoscopy

1142) Risely prism: 1148) Which of these is a test for binocular

function?
a) Used to measure phorias
a) Amsler’s grid
b) Temporary wear
b) Worth four dot
c) Permanent wear
c) Blue field entoptic phenomenon
1143) At retinoscopy:
d) Hess chart
a) Far point of subject and observer coincide
1149) Wave length of frequency doubled Nd:
b) Subject’s pupil is conjugate with the YAG?
peephole of the retinoscope
a) 1064 nm
c) Subject’s retina is conjugate with the
peephole of the retinoscope (AAO p.26 b) 532 nm
Optics & Ref)
c) 64 nm
1144) A patient with pre-op myopia of 21 D is now
6/6 for reading after cataract surgery, what is the 1150) Most powerful wavelength is:
axial length?
a) 200 nm
a) 21 mm
b) 1000 nm
b) 24 mm
c) 500 nm
c) 34 mm
1151) Most powerful light (high energy)?
d) 31 mm
a) IR A
1145) Refractive index of crown glass is?
b) IR B
a) 1.42
c) IR C
b) 1.52
d) UVA
c) 1.62
e) UVB
d) 1.92
f) UVC
1146) Emitting spectrum of orange fluorescence on
being excited with blue light? 1152) Surest way to prevent retinal damage from
solar eclipse?
a) 530 nm
a) See it on TV
b) 490 nm
b) UV filters
c) 480 nm
c) X – Ray
d) 510 nm
d) IR filters
1147) Earliest diagnosis of keratoconus can be done
with: 1153) Confocal microscopy is used for:
 a) Cornea 1161) What is the image formed on retina, if the
patient has a refractive error of -1.00/-1.00 DC x
b) Retina 900?

1154) OCT is used to measure: a) Horizontally oval

a) Retinal thickness b) Vertically oval

b) Conrneal thickness c) Vertical line

1155) How to see endothelium on slit-lamp? d) Horizontal line

e) Circular
a) Specular reflection

b) Sclera scatter 1162) A prism of 20 will displace the image of

an object placed at 100 cm by how much?
c) Optical section
a) 20 cm
d) Diffuse illumination
b) 10 cm
1156) Patient with confirmed CSR, what is most
appropriate? c) 5 cm

d) 1 cm
a) Wait for laser for a few months
e) 15 cm
b) Diode laser should not be applied

c) 2 layers of grid should be applied 1163) Which one of the following is a cross
cylinder?
1157) About Hruby lens, what is true?
a) -0.50 DS / +1.00 DC x 180o
a) It’s a contact lens
b) -0.50 DS / -0.50 DC x 90o
b) Its plano-concave
c) -0.50 DS / -0.50 DC x 180o
c) Used to see anterior segment
1164) Which of the following has spherical
d) Image is virtual, inverted equivalent equal to +1.75 D?

1158) An object within focal length of thin convex a) +2.50 DS / -1.50 DC x 90o
lens, the image is?
1165) This one was a simple transposition (don’t
a) Erect remember the exact question)

b) On the side of the object 1166) A prism in air, the amount of deviation it will
cause depends on?
1159) Regarding image construction in a concave
mirror, what is true about the principal ray? a) Refractive index of the prism

a) It is always drawn from top of the object b) Apical angle of the prism

b) It passes through the centre of curvature c) Angle of incident ray

d) Wavelength of the deviating light

1160) Regarding TIR, what is true?
1167) Regarding duochrome test, the true statement
a) 100 % light is reflected
is?
b) Angle of incidence = angle of refraction
a) Red will bend more than the green
c) Mirrors work on this principle
b) May be done in color blind
 c) Green will appear brighter to the myopes 1175) Aphakic (+10) glasses at 15 mm, what will
be the power of contact lens?
1168) Corrected curve lens is used for:
a) 11.7 D
a) Spherical aberration
b) 12.7 D
b) Chromatic aberration
c) 10.7 D
c) Marginal astigmatism
d) 9.7 D
1169) Spherical aberration is corrected by:
1176) Which of the following is false?
a) Peripheral flatter cornea than the central
a) Keratometry -- central 6 mm of the cornea
b) Refractive index of the eye is different is checked

1170) Spherical aberration is caused by: b) Keratometry – central 3 mm of the cornea is

checked
a) Dilated pupil
1177) Regarding tonometer?
b) Aqueous humor
a) It is the best method (accurate) method for
c) Constricted pupil measuring IOP
d) Corneal opacity b) It displaces 50 microliter of aqueous from
AC
1171) In astigmatism:
c) It indents 3.60 mm of cornea (3.06mm is
a) A spherical lens cannot form point image correct)
of a point object on the retina
1178) In applanation tonometry:
b) All the incoming rays are brought to a single
point focus a) 3.06 mm cornea is indented

1172) Which of the following is against the rule b) 3.60 mm of cornea is indented
astigmatism?
1179) Polarized light is used in:
a) 44D / 46 D at 180o
a) Pleoptics
b) 44 D / 44 D at 180o
b) Keratometer (Javal-Schiotz Keratometer
1173) Astigmatism is caused by: Wollaston prism uses polarized light)

a) Curvature ametropia = increased/ decreased c) Slit lamp

radius of curvature of cornea
d) Operating microscope
b) Axial ametropia
1180) In anti-reflective glasses, which of the
c) Index ametropia following principles is utilized?

d) None of the above a) Coherence

1174) A myope observes the image getting clearer b) Interference

on bringing the lens upwards, what should be
done? c) Polarization

a) Add more minus power 1181) True statement about prentice position is:

b) Give less minus power a) Light reflection occurs only at one surface

b) One surface is normal to the incident ray

1182) Regarding prismatic effect of lenses, it is due c) Badal’s principle
to?
1190) Most appropriate for detection of congenital
a) The non-axial part color vision defect?

1183) Examiner doing static retinoscopy at 50 cm a) FM-100 hue test

from subject, observes the reflex of a patient with
myopia of 1.75 D, what will be the reflex b) Ishihara charts
characteristics?
c) Pelie Robson chart
a) Rapid and with motion 1191) Two waves, in phase, moving in the same
b) Rapid and against motion direction, Result?

c) Slow and with motion a) A + B

d) Narrow and against motion b) ½ A + ½ B

1184) The retinal reflex depends upon: c) A + ½ B

a) Refractive state of the eye 1192) Most appropriate lens to see posterior pole
and mid-periphery?
b) Retinal pathology
a) 90 D
1185) Focal length of 20 D lens?
b) 20 D
a) 5 cm c) Hruby lens
b) 10 cm
1193) Linear magnification of 20 D lens in indirect
c) 15 cm ophthalmoscopy is?

1186) What is the vergence of an object placed at a) 3 x

the focal point of a lens…….????? (not sure
about the question) b) 2 x

c) 5 x
a) Infinity
d) 6 x
b) Cannot be determined
e) 10 x
c) Power of the lens in diopters
1194) Prism is not incorporated in?
1187) Distance between lenses of a Galilean
telescope?
a) Head loupe
a) Equal to the sum of focal length of the lenses b) Corneal loupe
used
c) Indirect ophthalmoscope
b) Equal to the difference in the focal lengths
of the lenses used 1195) Benefit of hand-held magnifier?

1188) When using operative microscope: a) Increased working distance

a) Eyepiece should be adjusted for b) Increased field of view

presbyopia
c) Increased range of field
1189) In gonioscopy, which principle is used?
1196) A patient with Age Related Macular
a) Imbert fick (Applanation Tonometry) Degeneration, the treatment should be?

b) Elimination of TIR a) LVA

1197) A patient with 7o of central vision due to RP, 1206) A patient with unilateral aphakia and pre-op
the best LVA device is : hypermetropia, should be corrected with?

a) CCTV a) Contact lens on aphakic eye and spects in

phakic eye
b) Hand held magnifier
1207) Reduced eye, most likely?
c) Telescope
a) Easier to construct images
1198) Presbyopia occurs early in :
1208) In simple magnifier, where is the image
a) Hypermetropia formed? (between F1 and infinity – image is
erect, enlarged and virtual)
b) Myopia

c) Astigmatism a) Infinity

b) At focal point
1199) Most unlikely for lensometer, to measure the
power of :
1209) In myopic eye?
a) Contact lenses
a) Far point is in front of the eye
b) Multifocal spectacles
b) Far point is at the back of the eye
c) (don’t remember rest of the stem)
c) Far point is in front of the retina
1200) An actor wants a correction for distance and
1210) The highest difference of refractive index is
near, what should be given?
between?
a) Bifocal contact lenses
a) Air and cornea
b) Bifocal spectacles
b) Aqueous and vitreous
c) Multifocal spectacles
c) Aqueous and lens
1201) A myope using contact lenses will
1211) Contrast sensitivity is decreased in?
experience problems with:

a) Increased convergence and a) Glaucoma

accommodation demands b) Cataract
1202) Aphakic : c) Myopia

a) Jack in the box phenomenon d) Hypermetropia

b) Roving scotoma 1212) Vision is effected more at near than far in:

1203) Aphakics commonly experience: a) PSC cataract

a) Image jump b) Nuclear sclerosis

b) Small visual fields 1213) Maddox Rod is least likely to be used for?
c) Spherical aberration a) Macular function
1204) To decrease image jump in bifocals: b) Phoria measurement

a) Place optical centre near the top of the 1214) In children, the most important method of
bifocal segment measuring tropias is?

1205) Same question repeated a) PCT

1215) What’s the constituent color spectrum of 1224) Most unlikely for BCC is :
Argon laser?
a) It arises from stratum basalis
a) Blue-Green
b) It metastasizes at later stages
1216) What is excimer laser?
c) It most commonly arises from lower lid (then
medial canthus, then upper lid, then lateral
a) Gas
canthus)
b) Liquid
1225) Most unlikely regarding sebaceous gland Ca
c) Solid is :

1217) Back vertex power is not effected by? a) It can involve caruncle

a) BVD b) It is mostly on upper lid

b) Form of the lens c) Prognosis is good as there is no metastasis

c) Size of the lens 1226) A farmer has an ulcerative growth on the

right upper lid for the last 3 ½ years. What is the
1218) The simplest way of measuring BVD? most likely diagnosis?

a) Spectacle frame with mm a) BCC

b) Stenopic slit with mm ruler b) Squmaous cell carcinoma

1219) Stereo acuity is measured by? c) Sebaceous gland carcinoma

a) Keratometer 1227) A farmer has a 1 mm growth on the medial

canthus for the last one year, he was diagnosed
b) Randot stereogram with BCC, the most appropriate management will
be:
1220) The purpose of Jones – II test is to:
a) Excision and glabellar flap
a) Find the common canalicular blockage
b) Excision
b) Find the site of obstruction
1228) A farmer has a growth on Lt. Upper lid for
1221) The most important contraindication to DCR the last 3 years, most useful in diagnosis is:
is:
a) Biopsy
a) Sac atrophy
b) CT
b) Deflected nasal septum
1229) The most appropriate management of BCC
c) Lacrimal sac Ca is:

1222) The most appropriate management for 6 a) Excision + Moh’s micrographic surgery
month old infant with epiphora + NLD block will and / or standard frozen section
be:
b) Excision + graft
a) Massage and probing
c) Simple excision
b) Massage and follow-up
1230) Regarding conjunctival hypersensitivity
1223) Most physiological test for assessment of reactions, the most delayed reaction is:
NLD is:
a) Toxic folliculitis
a) Scintillography
b) Toxic papillary reaction
1231) The first symptom of HZO is: b) Cavernous hemangioma

a) Burning in the distribution of first branch 1238) A 50 yr old female has presented with left
of trigeminal nerve rubbery orbital tumour. Histopathology shows
sheets of lymphoid tissue. The diagnosis is:
b) Tingling + hyperemia
a) Lymphoma
1232) A 20 years old women presents with fever
and branching corneal ulcer, what is the most b) IOID
probable diagnosis?
1239) The most likely ocular presentation in a child
a) HSO with AML is: (AML is unlikely in a child!)

b) HZO a) Orbital infiltrates

1233) Muscle most commonly involved in TED is : b) Choroidal infiltrates

a) IR c) Retinal hemorrhages

b) SR 1240) Most unlikely in the treatment of dry eye is:

c) MR a) Steroids

1234) Regarding IOID, the most inappropriate b) Lubricants

management is:
c) Punctual occlusion
a) Steroids
1241) A 15 yr old boy presents with red eyes,
b) Steroid + radiotherapy serous discharge, sub-conjunctival hemorrhages
and tarsal papillae. The most likely diagnosis is:
c) Cyclophosphamide
a) Adenoviral
d) Surgical decompression
b) Pneumococcus
1235) A 25 year old male has pain on attempted left
gaze, injection over left lateral rectus, and on CT c) Streptococcus
we see fusiform enlargement of the muscle, the
diagnosis is: d) Allergic reaction

a) LR myositis 1242) An 18 years old boy presents with bilateral

watery eyes with follicular reaction and tender
b) TET lymphadenopathy. The diagnosis is:

1236) 2 ½ year old child has non-reducible, non- a) Adenoviral

pulsatile swelling in the right medial canthal area,
above and medial to the medial palpebral b) Bacterial
ligament, the most likely diagnosis is:
1243) A girl presents in summers with sweating,
a) Superficial dermoid cyst bilateral red eyes and mucopurulent discharge.
The most likely diagnosis will be:
b) Amniotocele
a) Conjunctivitis
c) Dacryocele
b) Blepharitis
1237) A 45 year old female has presented with Left
Mild Proptosis with fullness in temporal fossa c) Allergic reaction
and hyperostosis on CT. The most likely
diagnosis is: 1244) The most likely cause of ophthalmia
neonatorum is:
a) Sphenoid meningioma (kanski p.812)
a) Chlamydia
 b) Staphylococci 1252) PKP has best prognosis in:

c) Neisseria gonorrhoea a) Trauma

1245) Most unlikely cause of cicatrizing b) Keratoconus

conjunctivitis is:
c) Lattice degeneration
a) Chloramphenicol
d) Macular dystrophy
b) Ecthiophate Iodide
1253) A 55 years old married labourer with 5 kids
c) Timolol has presented with decreases vision in left eye
(HM). On examination we see a dense corneal
d) Pilocarpine scar in the lower half of the left cornea and left
mature cataract. He has a history of trauma. What
1246) A farmer was diagnosed to be having a is the most appropriate management:
fungal ulcer, the most diagnostic will be:
a) Lt. ECCE + IOL + PI
a) Hypopyon
b) Triple procedure
b) Satellite lesion
c) PKP and ECCE at later stages
1247) The most diagnostic of acanthamoeba
keratitis is: 1254) Main advantage of SICS over ECCE is:

a) Radial keratoneuritis a) Pre-op astigmatism can be corrected

b) Hypopyon 1255) To decrease pre-op corneal astigmatism, the

incision given should:
c) Ulcer
a) Flatten cornea in same meridian
1248) A patient has bacterial keratitis which is
resistant to treatment with FF aminoglycoside b) Steepen cornea 90o to the incision
and cephalosporin. On C/S report, it is MRSA.
The most appropriate treatment will be: c) Flatten central cornea

a) FF vancomycin 1256) The major pathway for metabolism in lens is:

1249) The most important difference between HZO a) Anaerobic glycolysis

ulcer and HSO ulcer is:
b) Aerobic glycolysis
a) The peripheral location of the ulcer
c) Sorbitol pathway
1250) A 45 year old male has right peripheral d) Sorbitol pathway + hexose monophosphate
corneal ulcer with over hanging edges, pathway shunt
vascularization and thinning. The most likely
diagnosis is: 1257) The most important test for vision in mature
cataract is:
a) Mooren’s ulcer

b) PUK a) Two point discrimination test

b) Pin hole
c) IK
1258) The type of lens with least chances of PCO
1251) Most important function of the RPE is to :
formation, is:
a) Store vit A
a) Acrylic
b) Maintains blood retinal barrier
b) PMMA
c) Provides energy
c) Silicon
 d) Hydrogel c) Ectopia lentis et pupillae

1259) Lens most likely to result in bacterial 1267) Drug that cannot be used in AC during
adhesion is: surgery:

a) Silicon a) Atropine

1260) The anaesthetic agent resulting in raised IOP 1268) The least important risk for POAG:
is:
a) DM
a) Ketamine
b) Age
1261) The most important step in phaco is: c) Race
a) Capsulorrhexis 1269) Most diagnostic of glaucoma regarding
visual fields is:
1262) The least important indication for vitrectomy
is:
a) Paracentral scotoma
a) Complete lens drop in vitreous b) Central scotoma
b) Lens matter in vitreous c) Altitudinal field defect
c) Vitreous hemorrhage 1270) Most unlikely to cause lens related glaucoma
1263) The most important route for treatment of
a) PXF
endophthalmitis is:
b) Mature cataract
a) Intra – vitreal
c) Phacogenic glaucoma
b) Intra – venous
1271) The most unlikely cause of angle closure
c) Topical
glaucoma secondary to neovascularization is:
d) Peri - bulbar
a) CRVO
1264) The most inappropriate regarding P. Acnes b) Pars planitis
related endophthalmitis is:
c) Fuch’s heterochromic uveitis
a) It is gram +ve bacteria
1272) A 24 year old male presents with unilateral
b) It typically presents 2 months after surgery eye discomfort, IOP 40 mm of Hg, corneal
c) Steroids suppress inflammation edema, AC cells and flare… The most likely
diagnosis will be:
d) Culture taken with vitreous sample comes
after 72 hours a) Posner schlossman syndrome

1265) A patient presents one year after cataract b) Acute angle closure glaucoma
extraction with decreased vision, the most likely
c) Fuch’s anterior uveitis
cause is:
1273) A 16 year old boy with a history of
a) PCO hyphaema following blunt trauma with a squash
b) RD ball. After one year, what is going to be the most
likely presentation?
1266) The commonest cause of lens subluxation is:
a) Angle recession
a) Trauma b) Macular hole
b) Marfan’s syndrome
 c) Optic atrophy a) A – Scan

1274) A 1 yr old baby’s parents bring him with b) B – Scan

history of lacrimation, photophobia and corneal
c) CT
haze. What will be the most diagnostic of PCG?
d) MRI
a) Corneal diameter
1282) The % age of cases of RB presenting with
b) IOP
strabismus is:
c) Gonioscopy
a) 20 %
d) Disc cupping
b) 40 %
1275) Regarding PCG most likely is:
c) 60 % (Leucocoria)
a) Goniotomy is successful in 80 % of cases
1283) The most unlikely complication after PRP is:
1276) A patient diagnosed with glaucoma was
a) Choroidal hemorrhage
prescribed anti-glaucoma medication. After one
month he came back with conjunctival b) Cataract
congestion and anterior uveitis. What is the most
likely cause? c) RD

a) Latanoprost 1284) Most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage

in elderly is:
b) Brimonidine
a) DM
1277) Least likely to cause inflammation is:
b) Trauma
a) Diclofenac
1285) Most common in eitiology of acute
b) Latanoprost dacryocystitis is:
c) Pilocarpine
a) Stasis in lacrimal sac
1278) The most likely complication of laser b) Blepharitis
iridotomy is:
1286) Least likely about non-ischemic BRVO is:
a) Hyphaema

b) IOP elevation a) Less cotton wool spots

c) Lens opacities b) Its more common than ischemic

1279) The most likely complication of TRAB with 1287) Stage – II of ROP is characterized by:
MMC versus TRAB without MMC will be:
a) Demarcation line
a) Increased likelihood of post-op b) Demarcation line with height and width
endophthalmitis
1288) The most consistent finding with RP is:
1280) The least likely early complication after
TRAB is: a) Diminished ERG
a) Corneal neovascularization b) Arteriolar attenuation
b) Overfiltration c) Waxy disc palor
c) Underfiltration d) Bony spicules

1281) Most diagnostic in a small retinoblastoma is:

1289) The most common cataract associated with a) A decompensated intermittent XT
RP is:
b) Sensory XT
a) Post. Sub. Capsular
1297) A 65 year old male, known hypertensive, has
b) Post. Polar presented with history of sudden loss of vision in
the upper quadrant... On examination we see
c) Nuclear sclerosis altitudinal visual field defect, mild inferior optic
swelling, ESR = 20 mm, C-reactive proteins > 10
1290) The most likely indication for prophylactic mmol. What is the most likely diagnosis?
laser photocoagulation is:
a) NAION
a) U – shaped retinal tear with small amount
of SRF b) AION

b) White without pressure c) Glaucoma

c) Lattice d) Anterior segment ischemic syndrome

d) Snail track degeneration 1298) A 71 year old male presents with sudden loss
of vision in one eye, he has a history of visual
1291) A young boy had trauma with squash ball, obscurations and jaw claudication. The next most
the most indicative of a macular hole will be: important investigation will be:

a) Pigments in vitreous a) ESR

b) Red cells in vitreous b) Blood CP

1292) In vitrectomy, the size of needle used to c) C-reactive proteins

make sclerotomy is:
1299) A young obese woman has presented with
a) 19 G papilloedema with eyes in XT and dilated pupils.
The most important diagnosis will be, the
b) 20 G involvement of:
c) 24 G a) 3rd nerve
d) 26 G b) Trochlear nerve
1293) The most useful test for measurement of c) Abducent nerve
deviation in strabismus is:
1300) The nerve most commonly involved in
a) Prism cover test closed head trauma is:
b) Krimsky test a) Trochlear nerve
1294) In cover-uncover test, the un-cover part is b) Abducent nerve
for:
c) Occulomotor nerve
a) Phoria
1301) Regarding 3rd nerve palsy, the most likely
b) Phoria + tropia statement is:

1295) The Hess chart is used to: a) In benedict syndrome, there is 3rd nerve palsy
+ ipsilateral extrapyramidal signs
a) Plot function of extra-ocular muscles
b) In weber, there is 3rd nerve palsy + ipsilateral
b) Differentiate comitant from incomitant squint hemianaesthesia

1296) Most common cause of constant XT is: c) Aneurysms of PCA will present with
painless, pupil involving 3rd nerve palsy
 d) Nothnagel syndrome involves 3rd nerve 1309) Most likely cause for iris prolapse is:
palsy + ipsilateral cerebellar ataxia
a) Less sutures
1302) The most likely fracture with squash ball is:
b) Inappropriate wound construction
a) Orbital floor
c) Loose sutures
b) Roof
1310) Most common presentation of RP is:
c) Medial wall
a) Salt and pepper retinopathy
d) Lateral wall
b) Decreased ERG
1303) The most diagnostic of inferior rectus
entrapment in orbital floor fracture is: 1311) Regarding accommodative ET, most unlikely
is:
a) Decreased elevation in upgaze
a) Refractive error correction is required
b) Anaesthesia in distribution of infra orbital
nerve b) Presents between 2-7 years of age

1304) The most unlikely about behcet’s disease is: c) Initially presents as intermittent ET

a) Arthritis d) Angle is variable

b) Keratoderma blenorrhagica (Reiter’s) 1312) Electric sensation on cheek, worsened on

shaving and chewing:
c) Hypopyon
a) Migranous neuralgia
1305) The most important screening investigation
for ruling out sarcoidosis in a patient with b) Trigeminal neuraglia
granulomatous uveitis is:
1313) Pathognomonic of TED on CT Scan is:
a) Chest x ray
a) Fusiform enlargement of muscles with
b) Conj biopsy tendon sparing:

c) Lacrimal biopsy 1314) In squint surgery, most common

complication is:
1306) Most diagnostic of myasthenia gravis is:
a) Over/under-correction
a) Tensilon test
1315) The most likely (safe) indication for phaco is:
b) Ice pack test

c) Sleep test a) PXF

b) Mature cataract
1307) The most modern indication for cataract
surgery is: c) Subluxated lens

a) Mature cataract 1316) The treatment of choice for pterygium is:

b) VA below the level required for daily
a) Bare sclera technique with pre-op beta
activities
irradiation
1308) Most important cause of phacomorphic b) Conj flap with pre-op beta irradiation
glaucoma:
c) Stem cell implantation after excision
a) Intumescent lens
1317) 1st sign of HZO
b) Dislocated lens
 a) Rash a) Intravitreal

1318) 1st symptom of HZA 1329) Most important indicator of successful YAG
iridotomy is
a) Superficial itching
a) Gushing of pigment
1319) Recurrent acute attacks of secondary open
angle glaucoma with cells in AC, IOP 30 1330) Most common complication of YAG
iridotomy is
a) Possner scholsman syndrome
a) Hyphema 50%
1320) Thickness of lateral wall
1331) Least common complication of extensive
a) ? PRP

1321) Thinnest wall of orbit a) Cataract

a) Medial wall b) Field loss

c) Macular edema
1322) First muscle to be involved in Graves
d) Exudative RD
a) Inf. Rectus
1332) Better prognosis after PKP
1323) Most physiologic test in epiphoric eye
a) Keratoconus
a) Scintillograpgy with Tc 99
b) Localized scar
1324) 70 year old farmer with well localized medial
canthus swelling, most important test c) Post traumatic opacity

a) CT d) Macular and granular dystrophy

b) MRI 1333) 7 year boy with firm rubbery mass in

superotemporal quadrant
c) Biopsy
a) Dermoids
1325) Most important antigenic determinant of
Strepp virulence 1334) 20 year male with type 1 DM and vague h/o
trauma, presents with sudden loss of vision
a) O
a) Eales disease
b) S
b) DR
1326) Direct carotid cavernous fistula, MRI finding
include 1335) Duanes syndrome types and details

a) Dilated superior ophthalmic vein with diffuse 1336) 3RD nerve palsy
enlargement of EOM
a) Weber
1327) Fungal keratitis, most important sign is
b) Nothnangel
a) Satellite lesion c) Claude
b) Ulcer d) Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
c) Hypopyon
1337) Most common nerve to be involved in closed
1328) Most important route for drug delivery in head injury
endophthalmitis is
a) Abducens nerve
1338) 30 year obese female with OD 6/24 and OS d) Ischemic CRVO
6/12 on ACE inhibitors, and right optic atrophy,
diagnosis 1346) Cherry red spot

a) Benign intracranial hypertension a) CRAO

1339) 1st line treatment is b) BRAO

c) CRVO
a) Diuretics
d) BRVO
1340) MMC is
1347) Ectopia lentis
a) DNA alkalizing agent
a) Marfan’s syndrome
b) Stops growth of all type of cells

c) Used in treatment of Ca colon 1348) Break must be treated immediately in

1341) Which drug is least likely to cause optic a) Horse shoe tear
neuropathy
b) Atrophic hole in lattice degeneration
a) Ethambutol
1349) Hyperacute purulent conjunctivitis
b) Chloramphenicol
a) Gonococcus
c) Hydroxychloroquine
1350) Most common cause of conjunctivitis in
d) Methanol neonates/children
e) Amiodarone a) Chlamydia
1342) Ant. Uveitis in not caused by 1351) Most common cause of posterior uveitis in
children
a) Cidofovir

b) Rifabutin a) Toxoplasma

c) Latanoprost 1352) 6 month child with epiphora

d) Metipranolol a) Massage with follow up

e) Diclofenac b) Massage with probing

1343) Disease least common in female is c) Massage with syringing

a) Ankylosing spondylitis 1353) Most important finding in blowout floor of

orbit fracture is
b) VKH
a) Inability to elevate globe
1344) Disease Most common in female
1354) Hess test is used to differentiate b/w
a) SLE
a) Restrictive vs paralytic
1345) Disease not causing PAS and acute angle
closure 1355) Most accurate squint measurement

a) Fuch’s uveitis a) Prism cover test

b) Chronic RD 1356) Lacrimal drainage system drains beneath
c) Intraocular tumors
a) Inferior meatus
1357) You find PEX on slit lamp exam, most e) Tram track sign
important next step is
1363) Types of IOL which increase bacterial
a) IOP measurement adherence

b) Gonioscopy a) Silicone
c) Fundoscopy b) Acrylic

1358) Magnification with 20 D lens c) PMMA

a) 3 X d) Hydrogel

1359) 16 year old female comes to OPD in hot 1364) Most important pathway for lens
summers with inferior fornix follicles, discharge transparency is
and redness at medial canthus
a) Glutathione HMP shunt
a) Canaliculitis
1365) Most common metabolism for energy in lens
b) Conjunctivitis
a) Aerobic glycolysis (20%)
c) Bacterial conjunctivitis
b) Anaerobic glycolysis (70%)
d) Acute chlamydial conjunctivitis
c) HMP shunt
1360) Contraindication of DCR
d) Sorbitol pathway
a) Debilitated patient e) Glycolytic
b) Old age
1366) Progressive circumferential and central
c) Malignancy of lacrimal sac stromal thinning with an undermined and
infiltrating leading edge
d) Atrophic rhinitis
a) Mooren ulcer
e) DNS
1367) A condition in which there is NVI with no
1361) Which gauge vitrectomy needles are used PAS and angle closure
normally
a) Fuch’s uveitis
a) 19
b) CRVO
b) 20
c) RD
c) 21
d) Ocular ischemic syndrome
d) 24
1368) Old farmer with 7 children, decreased VA,
e) 29
inferior corneal opacity and cataract, best
treatment
1362) 45 year old female with mild proptosis,
temporal fossa swelling and hyperostosis of orbit
a) Cataract extraction with IOL and PKP
in Xray
b) Corneal tattooing
a) NF 1
1369) The drug least likely to cause conjunctivitis
b) Meningioma

c) Varices a) Chloramphenicol

d) Pseudotumor b) Betaxolol

c) Pilocarpine
1370) Corneal ulcer separated from limbus by a b) Contains ganglion cells
clear margin
c) Supplied by retinal circulation
a) Marginal keratitis
1379) The exam to be carried out first in congenital
1371) More aggressive tumor glaucoma is

a) SCC a) Optic nerve

b) Other choices??? b) IOP

c) Gonioscopy
1372) More uncommon site for SGC
d) Corneal diameters
a) Gland of Zeis
1380) Prominence of superior ophthalmic vein and
b) Mebomial gland engorgement of EOM is finding on scan for
c) Caruncle
a) Carotid cavernous fistula,,, direct
1373) US finding very typical for choroidal
melanoma 1381) Farmer with mass for 1 year in medial
canthal area???
a) Acoustic hollowness, choroidal excavation 1382) Investigation of choice for carotid stenosis is
and orbital shadowing
a) MRA
1374) Most important finding in orbital floor
fractures ( blowout) 1383) Visual field finding is paracentral scotoma:
which disc confirms to this
a) Enophthalmos

b) Limitation of elevation a) 0.4 CDR with notching

b) Full cupping
1375) Most physiologic test for lacrimal drainage
system is
1384) Angioid streaks with GIT hemorrhage
a) Dye test
a) Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
b) Scintillography b) Ehler Danlos
c) Probing c) Sickle cell disease
1376) Most important aggravating factor for acute 1385) OD +4.00 and OS +6.00 with esotropia, best
dacryocystitis measurement for angle is
a) Stasis of any type
a) Prism cover test
b) Chronic blepharitis b) Krimsky test
1377) EOG is the test for c) Hirschberg test

a) RPE d) Cover uncover test

b) EOM 1386) Recurrent pterygium , best operative choice

is
c) Rods

d) Cones a) Beta radiation + bare sclera with conjunctival

flap
1378) Foveola b) MMC + bare sclera with conjunctival flap
a) 6mm from disc c) Excision + conjunctival autograft or AMT
1387) Most common histological form of c) Vesicles
rhabdomyosarcoma
d) Scarring
a) Tennis racket/tadpole
1398) Enlarged orbit
1388) Treatment of rhabdomyosarcoma
a) Neurofibromatosis
a) Radio + chemo
1399) Bare orbit
1389) 20 year male with 11 mm levator function,
Rx of choice is a) Neurofibromatosis

a) Levator resection 1400) Enlarged optic canal

b) Frontalis sling a) Optic nerve glioma

1390) Lamellar cataract, investigation of choice 1401) Enlarged superior orbital fissure
is????
a) Neurofibromatosis
a) Chromosomal analysis
1402) Calcification
b) TORCH
a) Retinoblastoma
1391) CALCIFICATION + hyperostosis
1403) Sign of successful YAG capsulotomy
a) Meningioma
a) Bubble formation with lens centration
1392) Widened optic canal
1404) Complication of argon laser
a) Optic nerve glioma
a) Choroidal Hmg
1393) General anesthesia with resulting increased
IOP b) Retinal Hmg

a) Ketamine c) Cataract

b) Halothane 1405) Commonest cause of acute dacryocystitis in

neonate / children
c) Phenobarbital
a) Blepharitis
1394) Most common site of obstruction of NLD in
congenital cases b) Stagnation

a) Valve of Hasner c) Staph. Aureus

1395) Young contact lens wearer has superior 1406) Stromal haze in herpetic keratitis
limbic yellowish anterior stromal infiltrates
a) Immune complex
a) GPC
1407) Most important signs for RP
1396) Chlamydia serotype causing conjunctivitis is
a) ERG findings
a) D-K
1408) For persistent temporary internal temponade,
st
1397) 1 symptom of HZO most important is

a) Itching a) Hydrocarbons

b) Burning 1409) Hyphema 8 months after blunt trauma

 a) Angle recession 1418) Strabismus is presenting symptom in how
many RB cases
b) NVG
a) 20%
1410) Best test to differentiate between CSCR and
macular hole 1419) Brachytherapy is indicated in RB if tumor
size is more than
a) OCT
a) 10 (book say 12 mm)
b) FFA
b) 8
1411) Type of cataract in RP is
c) 14
a) PSCO
d) 15
1412) RB tumor size is 2 X 4 cm, most accurate
method to measure tumor size 1420) In case of recurrent CSCR, Rx will be

a) US a) 2 rows of confluent laser burns around lesion

1413) Dendrites of HZO can be differentiated from b) Laser spot only on leaking area
HSV by following
1421) Patient complaining of serous discharge,
redness of both eyes and follicles, most probable
a) Peripheral location
diagnosis:
b) Central location
a) Adenoviral conjunctivitis
c) Multiple and peripheral
b) Trachoma
d) Multiple
c) Bacterial conjunctivitis
1414) Ideal Rx option for BCC is
1422) A patient with acute angle closure glaucoma
a) Excision + frozen section
a) Pain is always there
b) Excision + MOH’s surgery
b) CD ratio is always raised
1415) 2cm superficial BCC near medial canthus,
ideal Rx is 1423) Patient of pseudotumor cerebri complaining
of severe visual loss, constricted fields on
a) Excision perimetry, Rx of choice is

b) Radiotherapy a) Optic nerve fenestration

c) Cryotherapy b) Mannitol

d) Chemotherapy c) Oral steroids

1416) Private patient comes to u for phaco, ideal d) AZM

anesthesia is
1424) Which of the following drugs reduce IOP
a) Topical
a) Halothane
b) Local
b) Ketamine
c) GA
c) Succinyl
1417) Leukocoria is presenting symptom in how
many RB cases 1425) Patient with pain in right eye, IOP 40, cells
and flare. Most probable diagnosis is
a) 60%
 a) Possner scholsman c) 6 months

b) PACG d) Surgery within days of birth will have no

significant effect on VA outcome
c) POAG
1432) Regarding Behcets disease, which of the
1426) Patient with B/L temporal disc pallor, next following is wrong
most convenient test to be done is
a) Erythema nodosum
a) VA
b) Keratoderma belanorrhgica
b) MRI
c) Mouth ulcer
c) IOP
d) Genital ulcer
d) CT
e) Arthiritis
1427) Patient with angioid streaks and wound on
left side of head 1433) Female with mouth, and genital ulcers.
Diagnosis is
a) Ehler Danlos
a) Behcets disease
b) Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
1434) The most common cause of hypopyon and
c) Acromegaly uveitis
1428) Patient with enlarged skull, mental a) Behcets disease
retardation and angioid streaks
b) HLA B 27 related
a) PE
1435) Patient having proptosis ( non axial) and
b) Ehler Danlos rubbery growth, histo shows lymphoid tissue
only
c) Paget’s

d) Acromegaly a) Lymphoma

b) RB
1429) VF defects in glaucoma
1436) Most common cause of Vit hemorrhage in
a) Paracentral scotoma
young patients is
b) Inferior altitudinal defect
a) Trauma
c) Homonymous hemianopia
b) CRVO
d) Central scotoma
c) DM (most common cause in adults
1430) Best test for diagnosis for MG
1437) Most important in diagnosis of RP is
a) Tensilon test
a) ERG
b) Edrophonium test
b) Bone spicule in periphery
c) Ach receptor Ab
c) Waxy disc pallor
d) Ice pack test
d) Arteriolar narrowing
1431) Child with B/L cataract, do surgery at
1438) Most common type of rhabdomyosarcoma is
a) 6 weeks
a) Embryonal
b) 2 months
1439) Patient with aniridia, mechanism for a) Intumescent cataract
glaucoma is
b) Hypermature cataract
a) Angle closure
c) Morgagnian cataract
b) Open angle
d) Traumatic cataract
c) Papillary block
1446) Most common cause of 3rd nerve palsy in
1440) The disadvantage of doing capsulotomy by children
CCC is
a) Inflammatory
a) Radial extension
b) Congenital
b) IOL can be implanted in bag
c) Trauma
c) IOL can be implanted in sulcus
d) Tumor
1441) Patient develops endophthalmitis after 6
1447) Most common cause of 3rd nerve palsy in
years of trab: most common causative organism
adults
a) H.flu
a) Idiopathic
b) Pseudomonas
b) Vascular
c) Propionobacterium
c) Aneurysm
d) S. Epidermidis
d) Trauma
1442) After YAG capsulotomy, patient can have all e) Tumor
of following except
1448) Fourth nerve palsy, diplopia increases on
a) RD
a) Vertical and horizontal gaze
b) Endophthalmitis
b) Ipsilateral head tilt
c) CMO
c) Contralateral gaze
d) Raised IOP
d) Excyclo torsion surgery in inf oblique muscle
1443) Patient with esotropia with +4.0 DS error,
first step you will do is 1449) Essential blepharospasm,,,, least appropriate
a) Correction of full refractive error a) Unilateral
b) Surgery b) Bilateral
c) Patching c) Female
1444) Patient with PEX. Risk of having glaucoma d) > 59 years
is (follow kanski guide lines)
1450) Blow out fracture 6 months ago. Superior
a) 20 % elevation restricted. X ray shows soft tissue mass
b) 50% a) Observe
c) 60 % b) Release entrapment
d) 90 %
1451) Ectopia lentis
1445) Pahcomorphic glaucoma is caused by
a) Hyperextensible joints >>>>> ehlar danlos
 b) Cardiac murmurs + valvular disease >>>>>> a) Re epithelization + suppression of fibrosis
Marfan syndrome
b) Giving a new surface
c) Short stature >>>>> weil marchesani
1459) Child with ectopia lentis , myopia, retinal
d) Inferonasal subluxation + up drawn pupil detachment, blond hair, malar flush, marfanoid
>>>>> homocystienuria features

1452) Most appreciate for SITA a) Homocystenuria

a) More user friendly and faster 1460) Least possible for NF1
b) Greater sensitivity than full threshold testing
a) Retinoblastoma
1453) After cataract surgery, patients complaints of b) Optic nerve glioma
decreased vision and FFA shows flower pattern
c) Lisch nodule
a) CME
1461) Retinoblastoma
1454) CME after cataract surgery in non-diabetic
patients, Rx options include a) Reese elsworth classification used for
prognosis
a) NSAIDS
b) <4 DD unfavourable prognosis
b) Steroids
c) 50 % vitreous involved,,, good prognosis
c) CAIS
d) Anteriorly near ora serrata,,, good prognosis
d) Topical NSAIDS
1462) Sturge weber, least possible
1455) Shortest tendon of the muscle
a) AD
a) Oblique
b) Rarely glaucoma
b) Inf rectus
1463) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia in children
c) Sup. Rectus
a) Retinal hemorrhage
d) Lateral rectus
b) Infilteration in orbit
1456) ARN, most appropriate
c) Optic nerve infilteration
a) Unilateral
1464) Eyelid, most appropriate
b) Immunocompromised
a) Coloboma is a congenital condition
c) Granulomatous, give steroids

d) Antiviral, first I/V then oral 1465) Aniridia, least appropriate

1457) Sarcoidosis, least appropriate a) Nystagmus

b) Foveal hypoplasia
a) Caseating granulomas
c) Open angle glaucoma
b) Lung and liver involvement
d) Closed angle glaucoma
c) Lupus pernio

d) High serum ACE levels 1466) SCC, least possible

1458) AMT in SJS a) More common than basal cell Ca

 b) Everted borders a) Cataract with proliferative retinopathy >>>>
do PRP
c) High risk in immumocompromised
1474) Sea fan on fundus
d) High risk in renal transplants
a) Sickle retinopathy
1467) Most prominent symptom in allergic
conjunctivitis
1475) Patient suffered from late stage post op
endophthalmitis with actenobactor. Most
a) Epiphora
appropriate
b) Burning
a) Capsulotomy with removal of white
c) Itching plaque

1468) Most common cause of early endophthalmitis b) Vitrectomy

post op
1476) A child with ectopia lentis. How will u do
a) Staph epidermidis visual rehab

b) Staph aureus a) ECCE

c) H. Flu (most common organism in blebitis) b) ICCE and AC IOL

1469) Patient with traumatic ptosis. How much will c) ICCE and sclera fixation
u wait before repair
1477) Ground glass appearance of cornea after
a) 2 months cataract surgery

b) 6 months a) Corneal touch

c) 9 months b) Iris touch

d) 12 months c) Endophthalmitis

1470) Entropion, least common 1478) Rb3 collagen, new modality for

a) Surgery ASAP a) Hyperopia

b) It causes pannus formation b) Myopia

c) It causes epiphora c) Astigmatism

d) Congenital d) Band keratopathy

1471) Treatment for recurrent entropion 1479) Force duction test, which drug effective in
GA
a) Jones procedure
a) Atropine
1472) For diagnosing angle recession glaucoma,
which type of gonio lens will you use b) Succinylcholine

c) Isoflourane
a) Zeiss

b) Koeppe 1480) 20 year old patient suffering from red eye,

follicles and tender preauricular
c) Goldman lymphadenopathy

d) Susac a) Viral

1473) After cataract surgery, DR becomes worse, b) Atopic

how to prevent it
 c) Allergic 1489) MRI superior from CT, least likely

d) Trachoma a) Ischemia

1481) Keratoconjuctivitis sicca b) Recent bleed

a) Associated with connective tissue disease c) Bone

d) Pituitary adenoma
1482) A patient with drusen in one eye and
hemorrhages in other eye. Most likely
1490) LASIK, least residual cornea left behind is
a) ARMD
a) 150 u
1483) OPTIC nerve drusen. Least likely b) 250 u
a) Bilateral c) 200 u
b) Low vision d) 350 u
c) VF loss 1491) Most common cause of corneal trauma after
cataract surgery
d) Preliminary area
a) Closed loop AC IOL
1484) Regarding macular hole
b) PC IOL
a) Stage 1 is full thickness
c) Mechanical trauma
b) Stage 1 is associated with PVD
d) Open loop AC IOL
c) Can lead to RD
e) Sclera fixation
d) Vision improves when hole form
1492) With regard to angle pigmentation , all of the
1485) A patient suffered from intraocular trauma. 3 following are true except
weeks later he develops granulomatous kps
a) Decreased pigmentation is common after
a) VKH trauma with hyphema
b) Sympathetic ophthalmitis
1493) Which of the following is true regarding
sympathetic innervations of iris muscle
1486) Vision better in night time than day time
a) Sympathetic fibers synapse at superior
a) Hemarelopia
cervical ganglion and travel with long ciliary
nerves
1487) Early symptom of cataract
1494) Least likely for retrobulbar hemorrhage
a) Glare

b) Low contrast a) Do cantholysis

c) Diplopia b) Low IOP at presentation

d) Decreased distance vision c) Canthotomy

d) Tarsoraphy
1488) Mooren ulcer, least likely
1495) Cotton wool spots, least likely is
a) Hepatitis C positive

b) Idiopathic a) Show retinal ischemia

c) Steroid used as treatment b) Disappear with time

 c) Are diagnostic of collagen vascular disease b) Photodisruption

d) Contain swollen nerve fiber layer 1504) Reiter syndrome, all except

1496) Phenylephrine, most likely a) Ankylosing spondylitis

a) Dilates pupil 1505) Which of the following occur in

immunocompromised host
b) Directly acting alpha agonist

c) Loss of accommodation a) CMV retinitis

d) Pilocarpine does not constrict that pupil 1506) Which muscle is first effected in thyroid eye
disease
1497) Pilocarpine is
a) Inferior rectus
a) Directly acting cholinergic agonist
1507) A patient complain of FB sensation, he is
1498) Least differentiating sign of ischemic CRVO working in a workshop and taking diarrhoea
from non ischemic CRVO is medicines, which test will you perform

a) RAPD a) Schirmer test

b) Low vision b) Tear BUT

c) Macular edema c) Conjunctival biopsy

d) Corneal sensitivity
1499) 6 year old child with rapidly progressive
proptosis with mass in superonasal quadrant of
1508) Retinoblastoma
orbit

a) Rhabdomyosarcoma a) Always bilateral

b) Can metastasize to brain via optic verve

1500) Carotid cavernous fistula,,, most/least likely
1509) 50 year old male patient with HTN suffered
a) Ophthalmic vein dilation on CT from acute loss of vision in right eye, RPAD +,
MILD DISC EDEMA. Most likely is
b) Blood becomes artelized

c) Conjunctival chemosis a) AION

d) Proptosis directed inferior and medial b) Non AION

c) Optic neuritis
1501) A child with corneal haze at birth and corneal
dia with IOP are normal but corneal thickness is
1510) The width of trabecular meshwork from
increased
scleral spur to swalbe line
a) Congenital glaucoma
a) 200 u
b) Mucopolysaccharidosis ( corneal thickness is
normal) b) 600 u

c) 400 u
c) CHED
d) 900 u
1502) Least likely about capillary hemangioma
1511) Topical steroid with greatest anti-
a) MTX in advanced cases inflammatory activity
1503) PRK is a) Pred. Acetate 1.0 %
a) Photoablation 1512) New vessels in angle with open angle
 a) Fuchs uveitis 1521) 2 mm ptosis with good levator function.
Which surgical procedure
1513) Most potent steroid in uveitis
a) Farsenella serwat
a) Dexamethasone
b) Sling
1514) Acute intracranial hemorrhage
c) Levator resection
a) CT is superior to MRI
1522) Maximum absorption wavelength for
fluorescein
1515) You notice PEX in a case of cataract. What
will you do nest
a) 490 nm
a) Measure IOP b) 539nm
b) Pupil reaction c) 650nm
c) Fundus exam
1523) Most common presentation of RB
1516) Gonio lens most helpful to diagnose angle
a) Leukocoria
closure
b) Strabismus
a) Zeiss four mirror
c) Glaucoma
b) Koeppe
1524) Magnification of 20 D lens
c) Goldman
a) 3 X
1517) EOG reflects the activity of
b) 5 X
a) RPE
1525) Stage 1 macular hole best diagnosed by
b) PRs

c) Ganglion cells a) OCT

b) FFA
1518) VF defects most commonly found in early
glaucoma c) Ophthalmoscopy
a) Paracentral 1526) ROP stage 2
b) Altitudinal
a) Demarcation line with elevation
c) Centrocecal
b) Demarcation line
1519) Lesion at medial canthus in 3 year old child. c) Subtotal RD
Best test
d) Total RD
a) Biopsy
1527) Most common cause of subluxated lens
b) CT scan

c) MRI a) Trauma

b) Marfans
1520) Uncover component of cover uncover reveals
c) Weil marchesani
a) Phoria
1528) Recent occipital infarct. Investigation of
b) Tropia choice
c) Both
a) MRI
1529) Best radiological test for aneurysms b) Decreased field of illumination in myopia
than hyperopia
a) CTA
c) No accommodation needed by observer
1530) Best test for diagnosing carotid artery
bifurcation pathology 1537) Cataract , deafness and cardiac problems

a) MRA a) Rubella in 1st trimester

b) Rubella after 1st trimester

1531) Overall mortality from RB
1538) Most important step of phaco is
a) 5 %

b) 10 % a) CCC

c) 20 % b) Delineation

d) 25 % c) Chopping

1532) Pathological myopia in Pakistan 1539) MRSA Rx of choice

a) 0.5 – 2% a) FF vancomycin

b) 3-5% b) Cefazolin + tobramycin

c) 7-9% 1540) Clear corneal incision for cataract surgery

1533) IOL that does not cause PCO, or very less a) Flattens the same meridian
PCO
b) Steepens the meridian 90 apart
a) Acrylic c) Central corneal flattening
b) PMMA
1541) 35 year old female with diplopia worse in the
c) Silicon evening with irritation and discomfort around the
eyes. Right lid at limbus with right hypotropia
1534) IOL causing maximal bacterial adherence and left lid covering 2mm of cornea

a) PMMA coated with heparin a) TED

b) PMMA without coating b) MG

c) Silicon 1542) Virulence factor for Group A strep

d) Poly HEMA a) Anti C5 peptidase
1535) Incision location to decrease astigmatism in b) Streptolysin O
phaco surgery
c) Streptolysin S
a) At steep meridian
1543) Temporal artery biopsy size for GCA is
b) Temporal approach
a) 2 cm
c) Neutral astigmatic zone
b) 2.5 cm
1536) Regarding indirect ophthalmoscopy, least
likely c) 3 cm

a) Image size increases when lens moves nearer 1544) For sclera fixation of PC IOL, needle passed
to patient how far back from limbus
 a) 0.75mm b) HIV

b) 1,25mm c) CMV

c) 1.75mm d) Varicella

d) 2mm 1551) Least likely about vitelliform maculopathy

1545) Drug least associated with cicatrizing a) Age on onset is 6 years

conjunctivitis
b) Unilateral
a) Chloramphenicol
c) Normal EOG
b) Idoxuridine
d) Minimal color defect
c) Pilocarpine
1552) BGDR with exudates in a ring reaching
d) Timolol macula. Treatment option

1546) Loose lid with episodes of lid edema a) Macular grid

a) Blepharochalasis b) FFA

b) Dermatochalasis c) PRP

1547) 2 year old baby presents with swelling near 1553) Most unlikely complication of SRF drainage
medial canthus, non pulsatile and non reducible.
Lacrimal sac is ok a) Vit prolapsed

a) Amniotocoele b) Retinal incarceration

b) Encephalocoele c) Lens subluxation

c) Superficial dermoid cyst d) Choroidal hemorrhage

d) Ethmoidocoele 1554) Contact lens wearer complains of blurring

(satiers veils) esp after removing and wearing
1548) Refsum disease, least likely glasses

a) AD a) Epithelial hypoxia

b) Deafness b) Stromal edema

c) RP c) Hypersensitivity to protein on the lens

d) High serum phytanic acid d) Hypersensitivity to preservatives

1549) Electrical sensation in cheek worsened by e) Loosely fitting lens

chewing and shaving
1555) Least likely complication of peribulbar
a) Migranous neuralgia anesthesia

b) Post herpetic neuralgia a) Globe perforation

c) Trigeminal neuralgia b) Cardiac arrest

d) Temporal arteritis c) High IOP

1550) Virus causing bulls eye maculopathy d) Respiratory failure

a) HSV 1556) Which anesthetic agent increases IOP

 a) Ketamine 1563) Least likely cause of uveitis

1557) 14 year old boy with decreased vision, a) Latanoprost

normal ERG, normal VF and minimal color
vision defect. Most likely b) Diclofenac

a) Fenestrated sheen macular dystrophy 1564) Little girl in summers, sweaty face, redness
and mucopurulent discharge and conjunctival
b) Progressive cone dystrophy hyperemia in fornices. Most likely

c) Stargadts disease a) Blepharitis

1558) Recent cerebral infarct. What to do b) Conjunctivitis

a) CT c) Canaliculitis

b) MRI d) Dacryocystitis

c) Angiography 1565) Serous discharge, follicular conjunctivitis +

lymphadenopathy and subconj hemorrhage. Most
1559) Pathognomic of TED on CT scan likely is

a) Fusiform Muscle enlargement with tendon a) Adenovirus

sparing
b) Gonococcus
b) Nodular enlargement
c) Strep
c) Solitary muscle enlargement
d) Trachoma
d) Kinking of muscles
1566) Most likely pathogen after bleb associated
1560) Young myope with h/o trauma and red spots endophthalmitis after 6 years of trabeculectomy
in vision now presenting with sudden vision loss.
Most likely clue for retinal hole a) S.pnumonae

a) Pigment in anterior vitreous b) S.epidermidis

b) Red cells in vitreous c) Gonococcus

c) Flashes d) Strep pyogenes

1561) Tractional RD. Least likely cause 1567) Least likely complication after YAG
capsulotomy
a) Fibrovasular traction
a) RD
b) Sickle cell retinopathy
b) Ocular hypotony
c) ROP
c) Vitreous in AC
d) Trauma
1568) 55 year old with uneventful phaco 1 year
1562) Least likely RF for POAG back. Now complaining of decreased vision.
Most likely
a) DM
a) RD
b) Myopia
b) PCO
c) Age
1569) C/o central corneal opacity with recurrent
d) Race episodes with treatment. Most likely
e) IOP
a) Healed corneal abscess
 b) Herpetic keratitis 1576) Most common cause of neonatal
conjunctivitis
c) Nummular keratitis
a) Staph
1570) 20 year old male with blurring of vision, IOP
>30 , no posterior synechie, cells in AC b) Chlamydia

a) Glaucomatocyclic crisis c) Viral

b) Fuchs uveitis 1577) Uncontrolled POAG with B/L cataracts. Best

treatment option
1571) 1 cm lesion at medial canthal area. Treatment
options include a) Combined procedure

a) Cryo b) Trab followed by cataract at later stage

b) Radio 1578) Child with B/L cataract. Best approach

c) Excision with glabellar flap a) SICS

d) Simple excision b) I/A with ant vitrectomy

1572) NLD opens below c) ICCE

a) Inferior turbinate d) Operate on one eye, see response and then

operate on the other eye
b) Superior turbinate
1579) Drug not given in inflammatory uveitis
c) Maxillary sinus glaucoma

1573) B/L red eyes for 2 years in 48 years old male a) Latanoprost
with vascularized opacities, peripheral gutter and
central sloping 1580) Aniridia , most unlikely

a) Terrain degeneration a) Open angle glaucoma

b) Moorens ulcer b) Angle closure glaucoma
c) Marginal keratitis c) Macular hypoplasia

1574) Unaffected parents. 2 children with RB. Risk d) Stem cell deficiency
for next kid is
1581) Most unlikely for CRVO
a) 5%
a) Anticoagulants
b) 20%
b) Yag laser
c) 45%
c) Streptokinase
d) 55%
d) Focal photocoagulation
1575) Contact lens wearer with central corneal
ulcer and pain out of proportion to signs 1582) After trab, there is blebitis with AC reaction

a) Acanthamoeba a) FF topical antibiotics

b) Viral b) Subconjunctival injection

c) Bacterial c) Vitrectomy

d) Fungal d) AC tap + AC antibiotics

1583) Unlikely about MMC c) All 4 walls

a) Alkylating agent for DNA 1589) Most unlikely about essential blephrospasm

b) Inhibits mitosis and protein synthesis a) Unilateral

c) <0.2 mg unlikely to be effective 1590) Most diagnostic for MG
d) Used in Rx of Ca bladder
a) Tensilon test
e) Applied to tenon and conj after trab is
completed b) Ice pack test

c) Ach R Ab
1584) Regarding toxocariasis
d) Sleep test
a) Caused by tapeworm
1591) Patient with episodes of left amaurosis fugax
b) Chronic endophthalmitis and right arm weakness
c) Marked eosinophils
a) R carotid stenosis
d) Child with pica
b) L carotid stenosis
1585) Most unlikely about VKH c) Carotid spasm
a) Ciliary flush 1592) Most unlikely for CRVO
b) Poliosis
a) Vascular rupture
c) Vitiligo
b) Thrombus
d) Granulomatous uveitis
c) Embolism
e) Vitritis
d) Vasculitis
1586) 70 year old patient with jaw claudication,
fatigue, field loss, disc edema. Immediate 1593) Unlikely for high ICP
investigation is
a) Low BP
a) ESR b) Headache
b) MRI c) Nausea
c) CT scan d) Papilloedema
1587) To decrease risk of SO, enucleation should 1594) Painful right ptosis, non reacting dilated
be done within how much time of trauma pupil and exotropia
a) 2weeks a) Aneurysmal compression of 3rd nerve
b) 2 months b) Vascular
c) 5 days
1595) Patient after cataract surgery has astigmatism
d) Within 2 weeks of developing symptoms of +5 at 150*

1588) Patient with injury with squash ball. Most a) Wound gape at 150*
likely to damage
b) Wound compression at 150*
a) Medial wall c) Wound compression at 40*
b) Floor d) Loose suture at 150*
1596) Diabetic patient with exotropia, non reacting a) Chloroquine
dilated pupil and ptosis. Most likely
1604) Most unlikely with chloroquine toxicity
rd
a) 3 nerve palsy
a) Vortex keratopathy
b) 4th nerve palsy
b) Bull eye
c) 6th nerve palsy
c) Low color vision
1597) Known diabetic with B/L moderate cataract.
Right eye had PPDR and left sudden vision loss. d) Brown deposits in lens cortex
Most likely
e) Altered foveal reflex
a) Vit hemorrhage
1605) Best test for dyschromatopsia after optic
b) Macular edema neuritis

1598) A diabetic patient with glaucoma. Most a) FM 100 hue test

important step after control of IOP is
b) Ichihara
a) PRP c) Handy rand rattler
b) Trab with shunts d) Amblyoscope
c) Trab with MMC
1606) Most common cause for uveal Mets
1599) Most important step in contact lens wearer
with GPC and CL intolerance is a) Carcinoid

b) Lungs
a) Temporarily stop CL wear
c) Prostate
b) Switch to larger dia CL
d) GIT
1600) Lens most commonly associated with
infection is 1607) Test for primary hyperparathyroidism

a) Extended wear soft CL a) Low phosphate levels

b) Disposable CL b) High Ca levels
c) Daily wear CL c) Parathormone level

1601) 20 year lady with pain in left eye with B/L d) Parathyroid scan
blepharitis, peripheral ulcer at 5 with clear zone
between limbus. Heals with antibiotics 1608) 3 year old hypermetropia child. Prescribe at

a) Marginal keratitis a) +2

b) Bacterial ulcer b) +3

c) Phylectenulosis c) +4

1602) Diagnostic clue for acanthamoeba in CL d) +6

wearer
1609) Least likely DD of bulls eye maculopathy
a) Radial keratoneuritis
a) Chloroquine
1603) Patient using epinephrine for 2 weeks. H/o
b) Cones dystrophy
medicine use for RA. Now presenting with grey
corneal lines c) Tamoxifen toxicity
 d) Hydroxychloroquine c) Common in whites

e) Central macular alveolar dystrophy 1616) Diagnosis of PACG depends on

1610) Wrong statement about idiopathic macular a) Gonioscopy

hole
b) Narrow anterior chamber
a) Stage 1 hole is diagnosed by FFA
c) Corneal edema
b) Common in females
d) High IOP
c) Stage 4 hole benefit from chemical
vitrectomy 1617) Most common cause of phacomorphic
glaucoma
d) Unlikely to occur in patients with PVD
a) Intumescent cataract
1611) Orbital abscess least likely to cause
b) Mature cataract
a) CRAO
1618) Unlikely statement about blood in schlem’s
b) CRVO canal
c) Orbital cellulitis a) Carotid cavernous fistula
d) Cavernous sinus thrombosis b) Capillary hemangioma
1612) Least likely statement about orbital cellulitis c) Ocular hypotony
in children
d) Sturge weber
a) Associated with sinusitis
1619) Risk of suprachoroidal hemorrhage does not
b) Age < 5 years increase by
c) Commoner in girls than boys a) High IOP
d) Staph aureus is an important cause b) Trauma
1613) Child with 4 prism diopters exotropia, central c) Age
suppression scotoma and decreased stereopsis
d) High axial length
a) Microtropia
e) Intraoperative increase in pulse rate
b) Duanes syndrome
1620) Least likely indication for lens extraction
c) Accommodative problem
a) Phacomorphic glaucoma
1614) Cumulative risk of glaucoma in PEX at 5
years b) Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma

a) 5% c) Glaucoma in moderate cataract

b) 50% d) Complete lens drop in vitreous

c) 20% 1621) Unlikely cause of glaucoma after trauma

1615) Unlikely statement about pigment dispersion a) Pupil block

syndrome
b) Steroid induced glaucoma
a) More common in hypermetropia than
c) Macrophages blocking TBM
myopes
d) Red cell glaucoma
b) Bilateral
 e) Traumatic damage to meshwork d) Less sutures applied than needed

1622) H/o blunt trauma 3 years ago. IOP 24. Most 1628) Least likely to inhibit PCO
useful exam is
a) PMMA IOL
a) Gonioscopy
b) Hydrophobic acrylic
b) Field examination
c) Square edge acrylic
c) Topography
d) Silicon IOL
d) Optic nerve exam
1629) Regarding congenital cataract in both eyes in
1623) Most likely to benefit from PKP 2 years old child with grossly decreased VA.
Most likely type of cataract
a) Keratoconus
a) Nuclear
b) Bullous keratopathy
b) Lamellar
c) Traumatic scar
c) Posterior polar
d) Granular dystrophy
1630) Most common presentation of congenital
e) Macular dystrophy rubella
1624) Regarding NVG. Correct statement is a) Cataract
a) Steroids are CI b) Salt and pepper retinopathy
b) Miotics decrease inflammation c) Glaucoma
c) In most cases, underlying mechanism is d) Microphthalmia
retinal ischemia
1631) Most unlikely about congenital cataract
1625) Most predictable investigation for NVG after
CRVO a) Commonly associated with nystagmus

a) FFA b) Common cause of amblyopia

b) Electrophysiology tests c) Mostly no known cause

c) Gonioscopy d) Surgery within 1st week of life has favourable

outcome
1626) A large anterior capsular flap before lens
implantation 1632) Regarding PHPV, correct statement is

a) Completes hydrodissection a) It is B/L

b) Facilitates nucleus delivery b) VA is guarded even If retina is normal

c) Provides support for IOL in case of PC c) Mittendorf dots are earliest remnants of this
rent disease

d) Confirms in the bag implantation of IOL 1633) Wrong statement about cotton wool spots

1627) Most likely cause for iris prolapsed a) Nerve fiber layer edema

a) Poor wound construction b) Usually larger than 1 DD

b) Loose sutures c) Ischemic infarct

c) Raised IOP by coughing d) Found around optic disc and mid periphery
1634) Fuchs syndrome in phakic patient b) Optic neuropathy

a) Posterior synechie is absent c) Orbital infiltrates

b) Iris crystals present d) Iris invasion

c) Iris cysts present 1642) Most likely to benefit from photocoagulation

in a patient with a lesion within 500 u of macula
1635) Fuchs uveitis
a) Hard exudates
a) Cataract is a common cause of bad vision
b) Retinal edema
1636) Most unlikely after TRD c) Macroaneurysms
a) Tobacco dusting 1643) 5 year old child with esotropia. Most reliable
b) Smooth surface measurement is

c) SRF upto equator a) Prism cover tests

1637) Unlikely sign of long standing RD b) Krimsky tests

c) Cover uncover test Maddox rod

a) High IOP
d) Maddox wing
b) Retinal fibrosis

c) Demarcation line 1644) Unlikely about accommodative esotropia

d) Fixed retina; folds a) Refractive error correction

e) Intraretinal cysts b) Presents within 2-7 years of life

1638) Most unlikely cause of hyperfluorescence c) Initially presents as intermittent ESO

d) Angle is variable
a) Normal retina

b) Retinal ischemia 1645) 30 year old male with sudden onset

proptosis, pain, lid edema , diplopia followed by
c) RPE atrophy episodes of sinusitis

d) Retinal neovessels a) Orbital cellulitis

1639) Most useful diagnostic test for CSCR b) TED

a) FFA c) IOID

b) Clinical exam 1646) Rapidly progressive proptosis in IOID

1640) Most common presentation of myeloblastic a) Radiotherapy

leukemia in children
b) Steroids
a) Retinal hemorrhage c) Cyclophosphamide
b) Pseudohypopyon d) Radio + steroids
c) Orbital infiltrates e) Surgical decompression
1641) Most common presentation of lymphoblastic 1647) MRI in carotid cavernous fistula will show
leukemia in adults
a) Dilated sup ophthalmic vein
a) Retinal hemorrhages
b) Dilated ophthalmic artery
 c) Bony erosion a) Difficult CCC

1648) Most common presenting type of b) Remnant nuclear material

Rhabdomyosarcoma
c) Difficult Phaco
a) Alveolar d) Corneal burn
b) Embryonal
1655) After hydrodissection, nucleus swell, what to
c) Pleomorphic do next

1649) 65 year olds hypertensive with sudden loss of a) Hydrodeleneation

vision in one eye. RAPD +, disc edema. Other
b) Nuclear groove
eye is normal
c) Cannula to the inside of the bag
a) AAION
1656) Least likely about craniophyrangioma
b) NAION

c) CRVO a) Calcification on CT scan

d) Retrobulbar neuritis 1657) Glaucoma field defects may appear in

1650) Least common indication for surgery of a) Occipital lobe infarct

blowout fracture
b) AION
a) Emphysema
c) CRVO
1651) Least likely about keratoacanthoma d) BRCO
a) Fast growing tumor 1658) RP + deafness
b) Resembles SCC
a) Refsum
c) Inability to differentiate from SCC
b) Usher
d) Spontaneous resolution
c) Fredreich ataxia
e) Excision is needed
1659) Regarding entropion, least likely is
1652) Most common vision threatening
complication after cataract surgery a) Lid laxity

a) Vitreous loss b) Overriding of pretarsal

b) Endophthalmitis c) Shortening

d) Lower lid retractors

1653) In case of RB hemorrhage with IOP of 40,
least likely to do is 1660) Iron deposition does not occur in
a) Cantholysis a) Old age
b) Systemic steroids b) Pterygium
c) I/V steroids c) Keratoconus
d) Topical aqueous suppressants d) Wilson disease
e) I/V mannitol e) Filtration bleb
1654) With a miosed pupil during surgery, least 1661) Two dyes staining anterior capsule
likely to happen is
 a) Tryptal blue + fluorescein a) Entrapment of inf rectus

b) Tryptal blue + ICG b) Myositis

1662) Regarding avastin c) Fibrosis

a) Given in 0.05 ml 1670) Most important route of drug administration

in endophthalmitis
b) Dose is 2,5 mg/ml
a) I/Vit
c) Role in CMO
b) Oral
d) Role in CRVO
c) Systemic
e) Role in Vit hemorrhage
1671) Child with esotropia having high hyperopia.
1663) Least likely about CRVO management Treatment

a) I/V streptokinase a) Full cycloplegic correction

b) Photocoagulation b) Under correction
c) YAG laser c) Penalization

1664) Main elevator of eye in primary position is d) Patching

a) Sup rectus 1672) Drug least likely to cause optic neuritis

b) Sup oblique a) Chloramphenicol

c) Inf oblique b) INH

1665) Least likely about PRE c) Ethambutol

a) Firmly adherent to retina 1673) Pilocarpine decrease vision because

b) Single layer of cells a) Accommodation spasm

c) Forms BM of bruchs membrane b) Pupil constriction

1666) 10 year old with axial proptosis and CT c) Hyperopia

shows optic nerve mass
1674) A patient with red eye and erosion of lid
a) Optic nerve glioma margins and cheeks. It is a reaction of which drug
( answer not confirmed
1667) Patient with cicatrisation, which option is
best a) Pilocarpine

a) AMT b) Artificial tears

b) Conjunctival autograft c) Dipivefrin

d) CAIS
1668) Sterilization used during cataract surgery
e) AGT
a) 10% povidone
1675) Most common association of heterochromic
b) Half strength povidone
iridis
1669) H/o blunt trauma with restricted elevation of
a) Glaucoma
globe
b) Difficult cataract surgery
 c) Steroids not effective a) Grid laser

d) Granulomatous kps b) Diode

1676) Most common manifestation of congenital 1684) 6 month old baby having persistent
rubella lacrimation. What to do

a) Cataract a) Massage

b) Salt and pepper retinopathy b) Probing

1677) Cataract and deafness. Most appropriate c) Observe

choice is
d) Closed intubation
st
a) Rubella in 1 trimester
1685) Most common manifestation of congenital
nd
b) Rubella in 2 trimester glaucoma

c) Lowe syndrome a) Corneal haze

1678) Fundus changes color in light and dark b) High CDR

adapted states in which disease
c) Lacrimation
a) Oguchi’s disease
1686) Sign of successful iridotomy
1679) Patient with tingling in left 4th and 5th finger
a) Gush of aqueous and pigment
along with miosis
b) Bleeding
a) Pancoast tumour
c) Deepening of AC
b) Small cell Ca lung
d) Whitening of iris
1680) Patient with anterior uveitis. Which drugs
will increase uveitis 1687) MMC causes

a) Latanoprost a) High chances of endophthalmitis

b) Pilocarpine b) High chances of choroidal hemorrhage
c) Atropine c) Bleb neovascularization

1681) Young type 1 diabetic presents with vague 1688) Keratoplasty is the best option for
h/o trauma and vitreous hemorrhage. Most likely
a) Keratoconus
a) DM
b) Granular dystrophy
b) Eales disease
c) Macular dystrophy
c) Blood disorder
1689) Least appropriate for capillary hemangioma
1682) FFA of CSCR shows
a) Intralesional steroids
a) Hyperflouresence
b) Systemic steroids
b) Pooling
c) MTX
c) Leakage
d) Interferon
1683) Patient with macular edema.
Photocoagulation to be done. Most likely 1690) Most appropriate management for IOID
 a) Steroids 1698) SJS. Most likely statement

b) Diuretics a) Basic disease is vasculitis

c) Weight loss b) Vit A can be given
d) MTX
1699) Reiter syndrome
1691) Least likely occurrence of papilloedema in
a) Traid of urethritis, conjunctivitis and arthritis
a) CRVO b) More common in girls
b) CRAO c) H/o previous Chlamydia trachomitis
infection
c) SOL
1700) Hess chart. True statement
1692) Bilateral light near dissociation is seen in
a) Used to plot function of EOM
a) Neuposhyphilis
b) Important in restrictive eye disease
b) Diabetes

c) APD 1701) A patient with conjunctivitis having

subconjunctival hemorrhage. Diagnosis
d) Adie’s pupil
a) Adenoviral
1693) Investigation of choice in macular edema and
macular dystrophy b) Herpes

c) Gonococcal
a) FFA + ERG

b) FFA + VF 1702) True statement regarding keratoacanthoma (

none of the following are true
1694) Most important investigation for sarcoidosis
is a) Slowly growing

b) May progress to SGC

a) X ray chest
c) Resemble Meibominitis
b) ACE

c) Biopsy 1703) Early brain infarction is seen more clearly on

1695) Most common cause of posterior uveitis in a) CT

children
b) MRI
a) Toxoplasma
1704) Which of the statement is incorrect in
b) Toxocara differentiating between AION and NAION

1696) Patient with snow banking, vascular a) AION respects horizontal midline whereas
sheathing and vitreous cells. Diagnosis is opposite is true for vertical midline

a) Pars planitis 1705) Most common cause of spontaneous

hyphema in children
b) Posterior uveitis
a) Juvenile xanthogranuloma
1697) Patient is having pain on eye movement and
lateral rectus is involved and tendon is indurated b) RB

c) Neovessel of iris
a) Myositis

b) TED 1706) Subretinal space is the vestige of the

 a) Remnant of embryonic optic vesicle a) In intumescent stage

1707) Patient with h/o of decreased vision in left b) Leaking state

eye and weakness in right hand and feet
c) Hypermature state
a) Embolus of left ventricle
1716) Most important test for measuring squint
b) Carotid stenosis
a) Hirschberg
1708) Most common cause of ophthalmia
b) Prism cover test
neonatorum
c) Cover uncover test
a) Gonococcus
1717) Most common complication of laser
b) Chlamydia
iridotomy
c) Viral
a) Hyphema
1709) Virulence factor for strep
b) Uveitis
a) M protein
1718) Ciliary body derived from
b) Streptolysin O
a) Neuroectoderm
c) Peptides
b) Mesoderm
1710) Patient with 2 mm ptosis and 11 mm levator
c) Ectoderm
function. Sx of choice is
1719) Which of the following is used to see the
a) Farsenella serwat
presence of amyloid
b) Levator resection
a) Congo red
1711) Contact lens most commonly associated with
b) Crystal violet
infection
c) Thioflavin T
a) Extended wear soft CL
d) Polarizing filter
b) Daily wear soft CL
1720) A patient with HZO. What is the initial
c) RGP lenses
symptom
1712) IOL causing least PC thickening
a) Burning in the distribution of V nerve
a) Silicone b) Pain
b) Acrylic c) Irritation and itching
c) PMMA d) Blisters
1713) IOL most susceptible to YAG laser 1721) 2 year old baby with localized swelling at
medial canthus not aggravated with cough or
a) Silicon sneezing
1714) Regarding amyloidosis? a) Superficial dermoid cyst
a) Eye lid is most common b) Amniotocoele

b) Secondary effect kidneys c) Dacryocystitis

1715) Pahcomorphic glaucoma lens in

1722) Diabetic retinopathy is the most common c) Chemo
cause of cotton wool spots
1732) True statement regarding Goldman
1723) After cataract surgery, to prevent IOL applanation tonometry
decentration
a) Gold standard for measuring IOP
a) Single piece PMMA IOL
b) Not effected by corneal or sclera rigidity
b) Larger lens
c) 50 ul of aqueous is drained during tonometry
c) Foldable lens
1733) In graves’ disease, the most common muscle
1724) To prevent sunset syndrome, use larger and involved id inferior rectus
more rigid lens
1734) Non heritable RB,
1725) In sclera fixation , we pass needle at
1735) In Rx of RB, true statement is
a) 0.75 mm from limbus
a) Radiotherapy for tumour larger than 12mm
b) 0.25 in diameter
c) 1.75 b) Chemotherapy with vincristine, etoposide,
carboplatin
d) 2.5
1736) In Fuchs uveitis most common complication
1726) The length of temporal artery biopsy in GCA is
is 2.5 mm
a) Posterior synechie
1727) IOL least likely to cause PCO is acrylic

1728) In case of phaco cataract surgery, which is b) Cataract

the best indication for surgery c) Glaucoma
a) Subluxated lens 1737) Regarding Fuchs uveitis, which route of
b) Mature lens steroids is not effective

c) PXF 1738) What disease cause lamellar cataract

d) AC shallow a) Down syndrome

e) Corneal opacity b) Galactosemia

1729) Most common presentation of RB is c) Rubella

leukocoria followed by strabismus
1739) Most common ocular complication of
1730) Patient having optic nerve tumour extending congenital rubella = cataract
to brain. Treatment option is
1740) Most common overall complication of
congenital rubella = sensory neural deafness
a) Excision + radio

b) Excision + chemo 1741) Most common cause of chrioretinitis in

children
c) Radio only
1742) Most common cause of RD = Peripheral tear
d) Excision only
1743) During cataract surgery, incision given at
1731) Conjunctival melanoma, best treatment is
a) Limbal incision at against the rule
astigmatism
a) Excision + cryo
b) Sclera incision at with the rule
b) Excision + radio
astigmatism
 c) Sclera incision at against the rule 1751) Patient is having internal carotid artery
astigmatism pathology. Most likely investigation is

1744) Which of the following statement is wrong a) Arteriography

regarding air in the vitreous
b) Venography
a) Causes CRAO
c) MRI
b) Causes temponade
d) CT
c) No need of having patient supine
e) Doppler U/S
1745) Organism that causes purulent conjunctivitis
1752) Patient is having acute brain infarct. Which
= gonococcus
investigation is most suitable
1746) Advantage of indirect ophthalmoscopy over
triple mirror a) MRI

a) Good hold of eye b) CT

b) PRP done in one sitting 1753) Regarding pigmentary glaucoma, myopic

males are at highest risk
c) Higher magnification
1754) During laser PI, sign of successful laser is
1747) Which of the following complication is least
important in PRP a) Pigment release

b) Gush of aqueous
a) Cataract

b) Exudative RD c) Deepening of AC

c) CME 1755) Regarding congenital glaucoma, which of the

following is wrong
d) Choroidal Hmg
a) CDR is high
e) Vitreous Hmg
b) IOP is high
1748) The most common type of cataract in RP is
c) Corneal diameter is increased
a) PSCO
d) Haab’s straia are in Bowman layer
1749) Regarding fovea e) Corneal is oedematous
a) It is 6 mm from the centre of the disc 1756) In case of congenital glaucoma, which
investigation is most important
b) It contains only PRs

c) It contains only ganglion cells a) IOP check up

d) Blood supply is from retina b) Corneal diameter

c) CD ratio
1750) EOG is done to detect the defect in
1757) What precaution do we apply before cataract
a) RPE cells
surgery to avoid endophthalmitis
b) PRs
a) 5% povidone
c) Bipolar cells
b) 10% povidone
d) Whole retina
c) Half strength povidone mixed with half of
N/S
1758) Patient with nuclear sclerosis b) Afferent pupil defect

a) Far vision is increased c) HZV

b) Near vision is improved – second sight d) Patient with dilated pupil and ptosis = 3rd
nerve palsy
c) No change in either vision
1765) Which statement is correct regarding 3rd
1759) Which of the following can least induce nerve
glaucoma
a) Weber syndrome: features??
a) PEX
b) Benedict syndrome: Features??
b) Phacomorphic
c) Nothnagel syndrome: Features??
c) Phacoanaphylactic
d) Claude syndrome: Features??
d) Phacolytic
1766) Patient having extensive CWS on whole
e) Subluxated lens retina. Most common cause is

1760) How do we differentiate between narrow a) DM

angle from angle closure
b) Radiation
a) Gold man triple mirror
c) Blood disorder
b) Zeiss 4 mirror
1767) Stage 2 ROP is indicated by?
c) Indirect gonio lens
1768) Coats disease, (all seem true options?)
1761) In case of CSCR, FFA shows
a) Unilateral condition
a) Pooling
b) Causes exudative RD
b) Leakage
c) New vessels form
c) Hyperflouresence
d) Idiopathic
d) Hypo
e) More common in males
1762) In refractive surgery f) Retinal telangiectasia
a) 100% cure is not possible 1769) Patient had keratoplasty due to corneal
b) Patient get rid of glasses for the whole life opacity secondary to HZO. Now develops
crystalline keratopathy. Cause is
c) Contact lens is not used after surgery
a) Recurrent HZO
d) Cataract surgery is not contraindicated
b) Bacterial infection (S. Viridans)
1763) Regarding pilocarpine
c) Steroid induced
a) Used in aniridia
1770) TX for recurrent CSCR is
b) ICE syndrome
a) 2 rows of laser around lesion
c) Iris Coloboma
b) Only laser spot on leaking area
1764) Light near dissociation occurs in
1771) Patient with pseudotumor cerebri, now
a) Adie pupil develops sudden decrease in vision (HM) and
 severe constriction in VF with disc edema. Rx of 1777) Disease with the highest rate of ocular
choice will be manifestation

a) Optic nerve fenestration a) TB

b) Oral steroids b) Sarcoidosis
c) Tab AZM c) Herpes
d) Inj mannitol d) Syphilis

1772) Which of the following drugs reduce IOP 1778) Single diagnostic test for AIDS

a) Halothane a) Western blot

b) Ketamine b) PCR
c) Succinylcholine c) CD 4 count

1773) Jones test 2 is performed for 1779) Child with a previous history of uveitis can
have all of the following except
a) Finding the site of obstruction
a) Previous signs of uveitis
b) Punctal obstruction
b) Fundal scar
c) Canalicular obstruction
c) Cataract
d) Lacrimal sac obstruction
d) Endophthalmitis
1774) Which of the following drug cannot be
injected into anterior chamber e) Candle wax dripping

a) Chymotrypsin 1780) Treatment of strawberry nevus includes all of

the following except
b) ACH
a) Excision
c) Atropine
b) Laser
d) Pilocarpine
c) Radio
e) Miochol
d) Interferon
1775) Patient with incidental fining. You will apply
laser in which of the following cases 1781) Mitomycin C , least likely

a) Lattice a) Alkylating agent

b) Snailtarck degeneration b) Acts equally on dividing and non dividing
cells
c) U tear with small SRF
1782) High risk factor for PDR include all of the
d) White without pressure
following except
1776) Ideal treatment for extrafoveal CNV
a) RD
a) Photocoagulation b) NVE
b) PDT c) NVD
c) Submacular surgery d) Vit Hmg

1783) IOP Goldman tonometry

 a) Best method 1806) Graves’ disease and B scan

b) Not suitable over 4D 1807) Pseudotumor cerebri (BICH)

c) Causes displacement of 0.5 ul of aqueous 1808) Cause of constant exodeviation in 7 year
child
1784) Rubella, most common presentation
1809) Diagnostic test for Myasthenia Gravis
1785) Which statement is true regarding Duanes
Syndrome,,,, all very easy statements 1810) Aneurysm of posterior cranial fossa will be
at???
1786) Aneurysm of posterior communicating artery
may cause = painful 3rd nerve palsy 1811) Horse shoe break at periphery, Rx will be
1787) SJS causes vasculitis of dermis 1812) Ca channel blocking effect >>>>> Betaxolol
1788) Diagnostic test for SLE = ANA, Anti Ds 1813) Tachyphylaxis >>>>>> Apraclonidine
DNA
1814) Bitter taste >>>>> Dorzolamide
1789) Night time hypoperfusion is an association
but not a risk factor for NTG 1815) Sturge weber syndrome may be associated
with glaucoma in children
1790) Rubella, most common finding
1816) Lens subluxation + angioid streaks = ehlar
1791) In hypermetropia, image size ________ as danlos
the lens is moved towards the patient.
1817) Non heritable RB. Risk of transmission is 1%
1792) Aphakic patient using 10 D glasses with
BVD of 10 mm, power of contact lens will be? 1818) Least likely early complication after
trabeculectomy
1793) Neuroprotective drug >>>>> Brimonidine
1819) Percentage of heritable RB is 40 %
1794) Ocular ischemic syndrome
1820) Betaxolol more selective for B1 receptors
1795) Difference between 1st, 2nd and 3rd order
Horner’s syndrome 1821) Settings of ALT
1796) Common cause of contact lens intolerance 1822) US findings for choroidal melanoma
with infectious corneal infiltrates???
1823) 3 step belchovisky test MCQ
1797) Snow banking???
1824) Enlargement of skull + kyphosis + angioid
1798) MRA is investigation of choice in carotid streaks = Paget’s disease
stenosis
1825) Skin changes + angioid streaks =
1799) Earliest visual field loss in glaucoma Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
1800) Signs of choroidal tumor for diagnosis 1826) Sea fan fundus + angioid streaks = sickle cell
retinopathy
1801) Single dose Aroma is curative
1827) Riddoch phenomenon
1802) Risk factor for PHT leading to glaucoma
1828) Urine analysis = lowe syndrome
1803) Stage 2 ROP is characterized by??? Rubella
has nuclear cataract 1829) Elongated ciliary processes + visible
retrolental mass = PHPV
1804) Fever with dendritic pattern ulcer???
1830) Yellow lesion + exudative RD = coats
1805) Recurrent Chalazion Rx of choice??? disease
1831) Pink or white retrolental membrane + 1855) 10 year old boy with axial, reducible in size
microphthalomic eye = retinal dysplasia and increases in size in dependent position?

1832) Vescicobullous rash on trunk and extremities 1856) Dose of I/Vit triamcinolone = 4 mg in 0.1 ml
+ white pupil = incontinentia pigmenti
1857) Least important property of fluorescein =
1833) White membrane + prominent retinal folds + antiviral properties
retinal detachments = posterior PHPV
1858) Investigation of choice for medial canthal
1834) Optociliary shunts = meningioma lesion is = biopsy

1835) IOID = painful 1859) 3rd nerve syndromes. Choose the best options

1836) Dermoids = needle biopsy should not be 1860) Nerve most likely to be effected by closed
done head trauma = 6th nerve

1837) CT finings of TED 1861) Most common cause of infectious retinitis in

immunocompetent = toxoplasma
1838) MRI can show = orbital apex
1862) Most common cause of infectious retinitis in
1839) Transient edema = Blepharochalasis immunocompromised = CMV

1840) Least likely for follicular conjunctivitis = 1863) Chronic anterior uveitis is the most common
VKC cause of complicated cataracts

1841) AGT that also acts as Ca channel blocker = 1864) Best lens for diagnosing angle recession
Betaxolol glaucoma = Koeppe

1842) Settings for ALT (50 u + 0.1 sec + 800 mw) 1865) Phacolytic glaucoma is least likely to
respond to medical therapy
1843) Adie pupil = large size with diminished
reflex 1866) Cause of angle closure glaucoma = pupil
block
1844) Syphilitic pupil = small distorted pupil
1867) Regarding congenital cataract, capsular
1845) Bilateral disc swelling + headache + forms are least common
vomiting + decreased vision = tumor
1868) Rubella is most common cause of congenital
1846) Decreased vision with arm weakness = stroke cataract, I think it is wrong, idiopathic?

1847) Before Sx is 15* exo; after Sx is 20* exo = 1869) NAION is the most common optic
over correction neuropathy

1848) CT scan is the option of choice for IOFB 1870) Organism with poorest prognosis in
endophthalmitis = B. Cereus
1849) In case of intraocular FB of Steel = observe
for VA 1871) Nedocromil Na is more effective than Na
cromoglycate, I think it is wrong.
1850) SO may happen within 2 weeks of trauma
1872) Type of endophthalmitis with worst
1851) Most common form of IOL implanted = prognosis = post traumatic
acrylic hydrophobic
1873) Preferred laser for photocoagulation in
1852) Horner syndrome = loss of iris pigmentation vitreous Hmg and cataract= krypton red

1853) Best option about Duane syndrome =? 1874) Peripheral cystoids degeneration is
associated with = degenerative Retinoschisis
1854) Extended matching for white pupil
1875) Key factor in deciding the prognosis of RRD 1897) Most common tumor of lacrimal gland =
surgery = presence and duration of macular pleomorphic adenoma
detachment
1898) Optociliary shunts are associated with =
1876) Most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage meningioma
in adults = DM vs trauma
1899) Plexiform neufibroma is the most common
1877) Intraocular gas = high surface tension tumor are nerve tissue

1878) Silicon oil = high viscosity 1900) ERG a wave from PRs

1879) Heavy liquids = high sp. gravity 1901) SRG b wave from Muller cells

1880) Oral steroids are contraindicated in CSCR 1902) Test that can differentiate between macular
and optic nerve disease = photo stress test
1881) Hering’s law not followed by Duanes
syndrome 1903) Sclera tunnel incision decreases with the rule
astigmatism in early post op period and decreases
1882) Most common cause of constant exotropia = against the rule astigmatism in late post op
decompensated intermittent exotropia period. Both are beneficial

1883) Most common cause of 3rd nerve palsy in 1904) Drug of choice for Behcets disease =
children = congenital cyclosporine

1884) Most common cause of 3rd nerve palsy in 1905) Doc for Wegener = cyclophosphamide
adults = microvascular
1906) Most common finding in acute leukemic
1885) Most common cause of acquired 4th nerve oculopathy = NFL hemorrhages
palsy in adults = trauma
1907) Most common cause of Bull eye
1886) Most important sign in TED = lid retraction maculopathy = cones dystrophy???

1887) Young diabetics = snow flake cataract 1908) Most common type of rhabdomyosarcoma =
Embryonal
1888) Old diabetics = nuclear cataract
1909) Best prognosis and least common form of
1889) In Myotonic dystrophy, 90% of patients have rhabdomyosarcoma = pleomorphic
PSCO
1910) Worst prognosis for rhabdomyosarcoma =
1890) Fundus autoflouresence is seen in = fundus alveolar
flamiculatous
1911) Most common presentation of congenital
1891) Most common cause of vitreous Hmg in old rubella = sensorineural deafness then cataract
patient = DM
1912) Most benign scleritis = diffuse anterior
1892) HZO corneal ulcers are multiple and scleritis
peripheral
1913) BCC having poorer prognosis = sclerosing
1893) Galactosemia also cause cataract + deafness tumor and medial canthal tumor

1894) Most common manifestation of RB = 1914) Most common corneal dystrophy = map dot
leukocoria than strabismus dystrophy

1895) Most common cystic lesion of lacrimal gland 1915) Meibominitis is associated with = rosacea
= dacryops
1916) Stargadts disease is the most common form
1896) Dermoid have adnexal tissue but epidermoids of juvenile onset macular dystrophy
don’t
1917) Incidence of pathological myopia = 0.5%
1918) Incidence of pathological myopia among 1939) Muscle of Riolan lies immediately posterior
myopes = 30 % to grey line

1919) High myopia defined as 6 D or more or axial 1940) Disease characterized by recurrent fleshy
length 26 mm or more papillary conjunctival growth and encapsulated
sporangia = rhinosporoditis
1920) FFA of CME shows = flower petal
appearance 1941) Papilloma of conjunctiva are mostly caused
by viruses
1921) Common cause of visual loss in angioid
streaks = CNV 1942) Difference between Ca and Ca in situ = intact
basement membrane
1922) FFA of choroidal folds
1943) Malignant melanoma of conjunctiva
1923) Ocular hypotony can cause macular edema or metastasize less than that of skin
optic disc edema
1944) Muscle of Riolan is a part of orbicularis oculi
1924) Toxic dose of chloroquine = 300 mg or and situated near lid margin
250mg for > 3 years
1945) Most common site for conjunctival squamous
1925) Toxic dose of Hydroxychloroquine = epithelial hyperplastic and neoplastic growth =
6.5mg/kg for > 5 years limbus

1926) Multifocal ERG is helpful in diagnosing in 1946) BCC is derived from primary epithelial germ
early maculopathy cells

1927) HLA-B51 = behcet’s disease 1947) SCC of skin and exposed area is much less
malignant than visceral SCC
1928) HLA-A29 = birdshot chorioretinopathy
1948) Most common association of unilateral
1929) In early maculopathy, scotoma appears congenital cataract id persistent anterior fetal
within4-90* with red target vasculature

1930) Chocolate cyst are seen in = Lymphangioma 1949) Bold supply to the disc is from posterior
ciliary arteries
1931) Calcification = RB
1950) Under normal circumstances tissue pressure
1932) Phlebolith on CT = varices posterior to lamina cribrosa is lower than IOP

1933) Definitive diagnosis of carotid cavernous = 1951) Meningioma arises from arachnoid cells
arterial angiography
1952) Glioma arises from astrocytes
1934) Pulsatile proptosis in carotid cavernous
fistula best detected by = applanation tonometry 1953) Oligodendrocytes found anterior to lamina
cribrosa in = modulated nerve fibers
1935) Most common cause of congenital cataract is
genetic mutation 1954) Corpora amlecea stains positive with PAS
stain
1936) Best investigation for color vision loss
secondary to optic neuritis = FM100 hue test 1955) Optic atrophy in one eye and pappioedema in
other eye = foster kennedy syndrome
1937) Muscurinic cholinergic receptor blocking
drugs are atropine, scopolamine, cyclopentolate, 1956) Cells of origin of melanocytoma are uveal
homatropine dendritic melanocytes or their processes

1938) Hyperkeratosis is defined as thickening of Sq 1957) Papilloedema may occur without disturbance
cell layer (STRATUM CORNUEM) of visual function in its early stages
1958) B/L papilloedema with normal CSF pressure 1977) Incontinentia pigmenti is characterised by
and CT scan = ICH disseminated pigmentation of skin

1959) Most common cause of foster kennedy 1978) Most common intraocular lesion of tuberous
syndrome= SOL sclerosis = astrocytic hamartoma

1960) Temporal artery biopsy can miss diagnosis in 1979) Most common lesion of Sturge weber
skipped areas syndrome = choroidal hemangioma

1961) Difference between pappilitis and 1980) Sturge weber syndrome is commonly
pappiloedema = functional symptoms are more associated with mental retardation
than disc changes in pappilitis
1981) Blessing cyst is located in outer Plexiform
1962) Tumor in which fossa produce more severe layer
pappiloedema = posterior fossa
1982) Which of the following aging process is
1963) Cells of origin on myelin in optic nerve = likely to be associated with decreased vision =
oligodendrocytes drusen

1964) 3 year old child with sudden decrease in 1983) Nerve fiber layer is affected with high IOP
vision 6/60 and headache with pain on eye
movements = optic neuritis 1984) Contributing factor for closed angle
glaucoma = occlusion of pupil, lens swelling
1965) Visual loss + optic atrophy + optociliary
shunts = optic nerve sheath meningioma 1985) Glaucoma with pappiloedema = acute
congestive glaucoma
1966) Segmental iris atrophy and necrosis suggests
ongoing iris ischemia 1986) Anterior termination of trabecular meshwork
= Schwalbe’s line
1967) Common finding in sickle cell disease and
Eales disease is midperipheral and peripheral 1987) Which is not associated with angle closure
distribution of neovessels glaucoma = steroids

1968) In CRAO, retinal neuronal destruction may 1988) Angle recession is not a feature of which of
occur in 90 mins the following = buphthalmos

1969) Common finding in toxoplasma and 1989) Major resistance or obstruction in POAG is
histoplasma = high incidence of peripappilary at trabecular meshwork bordering schlem’s canal
location of inflammation
1990) POAG = autosomal dominant
1970) Isolated RP is characterized by early changes
in peripheral retina 1991) Inflammatory in chronic non supurative and
non granulomatous uveitis is = lymphocytes
1971) Cherry red spot in Tay Sachs disease = lipid
accumulation in perifoveal ganglions 1992) Granulomatous uveitis is common in = SO
and VKH
1972) Cells considered 3rd order in visual pathway
= ganglion cells 1993) Dalen Fuchs nodules contain epitheloid cells
of modified pigment epithelial cells
1973) B/L retinoblastoma in familial cases
1994) 60 year old lady with 0.5 DD wide and 0.5
1974) Presences of multiple primary tumors in a mm raised pigmented lesion on optic nerve head
single eye does not worsen the prognosis of RB = melanoma

1975) Toxocara canis = presences of eosinophils 1995) Most frequent metastasizing tumor for
and plasma cells or vitreous abscess is sufficient choroid is = bronchogenic Ca
for diagnosis of nematode endophthalmitis
1996) Malignant melanoma arises from
1976) Ataxia telangiectasia = autosomal recessive melanocytes of neural crest origin
1997) Iris malignant melanoma may cured by 2017) Intrastromal corneal rings are used for
simple excision myopia

1998) Most common site for Mets in primary uveal 2018) Wound healing after RK occur after????? 5-7
melanoma = liver years

1999) Best way to avoid SO after penetrating ocular 2019) Common complication of PRK is under
injury = prompt enucleation of injured eye correction

2000) VKH syndrome presents with bilateral 2020) Treatment of choice in 10 year old with 10 D
uveitis myopia = spectacles

2001) Angiographic finding of double circulation = 2021) Treatment of choice for 30 year old with 10
malignant melanoma D myopia = LASIK

2002) Hessle Henle warts are normal aging 2022) Cover test detects tropia not phoria
phenomena
2023) Anesthesia drug which increases IOP =
2003) Interstitial keratitis if caused by congenital ketamine and succinylcholine?
syphilis occurs in late childhood and teen years
2024) Most typical of exudative RD = shifting fluid
2004) Krukenberg spindle depend upon anterior
chamber currents for its formation 2025) Lacrimal sac Ca is a CI to DCR

2005) KF can be caused by an intraocular Cu FB 2026) Hyperostosis on X ray = meningioma

2006) Stain for diagnosis of Siderosis = Prussian 2027) Main reason for corneal transparency is =
blue geometrical arrangement of collagen

2007) Mittendorf are the remnants of tunica 2028) Basement membrane includes all of the
vasculosa lentis following except = OLM of retina

2008) Cataracts of juvenile diabetes are snowflake 2029) Fixative used for electron microscopy =
variety gluteraldehyde

2009) Cataract is not associated with Hurler 2030) Muscle insertion at macula = inf oblique
syndrome
2031) Tumor differentiated by presence of
2010) Elschnig pearls = signify epithelial cell myofibrils and cross striation =
proliferation rhabdomyosarcoma

2011) Normal lens fibers in center of lens don’t 2032) Which muscle is neuroectoderm rather than
have nuclei mesoderm = iris sphincter

2012) Vossius ring = trauma 2033) Weakest point of sclera = insertion of recti
versus limbus
2013) Thinnest potion of posterior capsule =
posterior pole 2034) Closure of embryonic fissure occurs at 6
weeks
2014) Sampolesi line is present on gonio in = PEX
and PDS 2035) Iron FB is not best visualized with cross
polarizing filters
2015) Most important factor in preventing PCO =
extensive hydrodissection and cortical cleaning 2036) Langs fold represent an artefact at ora serrate
of eye
2016) In the presence of silicon oil he IOL of
choice is = IOL with hydrophilic surface ( 2037) During RD all the embryonic cavities are
hyrogel of heparin coated IOLs open??????? I don’t know what he means
2038) Haematoxylin is specific for nucleic acid in
nucleus

2039) Patient with morning glory syndrome

occasionally have good vision

2040) A congenital tilted disc is associated with

myopic astigmatism

2041) PHPV is sporadic. It has no inheritance

pattern

2042) Temporally located optic disc pits are

associated with serous RD

2043) PHPV is associated with leukocoria

2044) The most common and diagnostic finding of

trisomy 13 is intraocular cartilage with in
Coloboma of ciliary body

2045)

2046) MCQ on typical picture pictures and features

of Mooren ulcer, Terrian marginal degeneration,
marginal keratitis, peripheral ulcerative
keratitis………. Very important

2047) Patient using pilocarpine, latanoprost and

timolol and develops. Which drug will you stop =
latanoprost