50 BÀI TẬP TÌM CÂU ĐỒNG NGHĨA VỚI CÂU ĐÃ CHO

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 1: It’s no use trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
A. It’s a waste of time trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
B. There’s no point to try to persuade Tom to change his mind.
C. It’s worth trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
D. It's useful trying to persuade Tom change his mind.
Question 2: His story was so funny that it made us all laugh.
A. His story couldn't make us laugh.
B. His story was very funny and we couldn’t help laughing.
C. We all laughed at him for his story.
D. His story was too funny to laugh.
Question 3: “ I’m sorry I gave you the wrong number”, said Paul to Susan.
A. Paul denied giving Susan the wrong number.
B. Paul apologized to Susan for giving the wrong number.
C. Paul thanked to Susan for giving the wrong number.
D. Paul accused Susan of giving him the wrong number.
Question 4: She has known how to play the piano for 5 years.
A. She didn’t play the piano 5 years ago. B. She started playing the piano 5 years ago.
C. She played the piano 5 years ago. D. The last time she played the piano was 5
years ago.
Question 5: People believe that Chinese people invented paper.
A. Paper is believed to have been invented by Chinese people.
B. Paper is believed to be invented by Chinese people.
C. It was believed that Chinese people invent paper.
D. Chinese people are believed to invent paper.
Question 6: It is English pronunciation that puzzles me most.
A. Pronouncing English is not complicated.
B. I was not quick at English pronunciation at school.
C. Puzzling me most is how to pronounce English.
D. English pronunciation is difficult for me.
Question 7: “Would you like some more beer?” he asked.
 A. He asked me if I liked some more beer. B. He wanted to invite me for a glass of
beer.
C. He offered me some more beer. D. He asked me would I like some more
beer.
Question 8: “Could you wait me a second while I get dressed, Tom?” he asked.
A. Jane said to Tom to wait a second while she got dressed.
B. Jane asked Tom to get her dressed for a while waiting.
C. Jane asked Tom to wait a second while she got dressed.
D. Jane said to Tom he should wait a second while she got dressed.
Question 9: The last time I saw Rose was three years ago.
A. I haven’t seen Rose since three years. B. I haven’t seen Rose three years ago.
C. I didn’t see Rose for three years. D. I haven’t seen Rose for three years.
Question 10: " If I were you, I wouldn't make a fuss. " he said.
A. He accused me of making a fuss. B. He advised me not to make a fuss.
C. He refused to make a fuss. D. He denied making a fuss.
Question 11: It is reported that the prisoners escaped by means of a helicopter.
A. The prisoners is reported to have escaped by means of a helicopter.
B. The prisoners are reported to have escaped by means of a helicopter.
C. The prisoners are reported to escape by means of a helicopter.
D. The prisoners are reported to have been escaped by means of a helicopter.
Question 12: This is the first time I attend such an enjoyable wedding party.
A. I had the first enjoyable wedding party.
B. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
C. My attendance at the first wedding party was enjoyable.
D. The first wedding party I attended was enjoyable.
Question 13: "Why don't you ask the teacher for help?" Peter asked me.
A. Peter told me the reason why I did not ask the teacher for help.
B. Peter suggested that he should ask the teacher for help.
C. Peter recommended me not to ask the teacher for help.
D. Peter advised me to ask the teacher for help.
Question 14: No one has seen Linda since the day of the party.
A. The party is going on without Linda. B. No one has seen Linda for ages.
C. Linda has not been seen since the day of the party. D. Linda is nowhere to be
seen at the party.
Question 15: The roads were slippery because it snowed heavily.
A. The heavy snow made the roads slippery.
B. It snowed too heavily to make the roads slippery.
C. The heavy snow prevented the roads from being slippery.
D. Thanks to the slip of the roads,it snowed heavily.
Question 16: They arrived late,so they didn’t have good seats.
A. However late they arrived, they had very good seats.
B. The late arrivers still had good seats.
C. Unless they arrived early, they wouldn’t have good seats.
D. If they had arrived earlier, they might have got good seats.
Question 17: He couldn’t come to the conference because he was seriously ill.
A. His illness was very serious that he couldn’t come to the conference.
B. Although he was ill, he came to the conference.
C. He couldn’t come to the conference, so he became seriously ill.
D. Because of his serious illness, he couldn’t come to the conference.
Question 18: “ Are you waiting for your exam result?” she said.
A. She asked me if I was waiting for my exam result.
B. She asked me whether was I waiting for the exam result.
C. She asked me whether I was waiting for your exam.
D. She asked me was I waiting for my exam result.
Question 19: Mr. Smith first knew his partner in 2011.
A. Mr. Smith has known his partner since 2011.
B. Mr. Smith hasn’t known his partner before.
C. Mr. Smith hasn’t known his partner for 6 years.
D. Mr. Smith has known his partner since 6 years.
Question 20: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Question 21: We bought two bicycles. Neither of them worked well.
A. We bought two bicycles, of which neither worked well.
B. We bought two bicycles which neither of worked well.
C. We bought two bicycles neither of which worked well.
 D. We bought two bicycles, neither of which worked well.
Question 22: She was so busy that she couldn’t answer the phone.
A. She was very busy that she couldn’t answer the phone.
B. She was too busy to answer the phone.
C. She was too busy not to answer the phone.
D. She was very busy so that she couldn’t answer the phone.
Question 23: It’s no use reading that book.
A. You should read that book. B. That book has not been used.
C. That book is not worth reading. D. I have used the book for a long
time.
Question 24: He asked me: “Why didn’t you come to class yesterday?”
A. He asked me didn’t you come to class the day before.
B. He asked me why I hadn’t come to class yesterday.
C. He asked me why I didn’t come to class the day before.
D. He asked me why I hadn’t come to class the day before.
Question 25: They say that the visitors were killed by terrorists.
A.The visitors are said that they were killed by terrorists.
B. It is said to have been killed by terrorists.
C The visitors are said to have killed by terrorists.
D. The visitors are said to have been killed by terrorists.
Question 26: I haven’t gone to the cinema for ten years.
A. It's ten years I haven't gone to the cinema. B. I last went to the cinema ten years
ago.
C. It was ten years ago I went to the cinema. D. The last time I went to the cinema
was ten years.
Question 27: “Why don’t you participate in the volunteer work in summer?” said Sophie
A. Sophie suggested my participating in the volunteer work in summer.
B. Sophie made me participating in the volunteer work in summer.
C. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.
D. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.
Question 28: Smoking is not permitted in this office.
A. You couldn’t smoke in this office. B. You mustn’t smoke in this office.
C. You needn’t smoke in this office. D. You mightn’t smoke in this office.
Question 29: “It was nice of you to call me lastnight, Tom”, said Benz.
 A. Benz promised to call Tom the night before.
B. Benz wanted Tom against calling him the night before.
C. Benz admitted having called Tom the night before.
D. Benz thanked Tom for calling him the night before.
Question 30: “Why don't you have your room repainted?” said Nick to Joey.
A. Nick suggested having Joey's room repainted.
B. Nick suggested that Joey should have his room repainted.
C. Nick asked Joey why you didn't have your room repainted.
D. Nick wanted to know why Joey doesn't have his room repainted.
Question 31: It started to rain at 2 o’clock and it is still raining.
A. It has been raining at 2 o’clock. B. It has been raining since 2 o’clock.
C. It has been raining for 2 o’clock. D. It has been raining in 2 o’clock.
Question 32: “I will pay back the money, Gloria.” said Ivan.
A. Ivan apologized to Gloria for borrowing her money.
B. Ivan offered to pay Gloria the money back.
C. Ivan promised to pay back Gloria’s money.
D. Ivan suggested paying back the money to Gloria.
Question 33: He started studying physics five years ago.
A. He has not studied physics for five years.
B. He has studied physics for five years.
C. It was five years ago did he start studying physics.
D. It is five years since he has studied physics.
Question 34: My sister is often sick because she doesn’t do physical exercise.
A. If my sister isn’t physical exercise, she does sick.
B. If my sister wasn’t physical exercise, she would do sick.
C. If my sister does physical exercise, she won’t often be sick.
D. If my sister did physical exercise, she wouldn’t often be sick.
Question 35: Jack has won a jackpot prize. 10% of it was donated to flooded areas.
A. Jack has won a jackpot prize, 10% which half was donated to flooded areas.
B. Jack has won a jackpot prize, 10% of which was donated to flooded areas.
C. Jack has won a jackpot prize, 10% of that was donated to flooded areas.
D. Jack has won a jackpot prize, which was donated to flooded areas.
Question 36: People say that he gets a high salary.
A. It is said that he gets a high salary. B. It is said for him to get high salary.
 C. He is said that he gets a high salary. D. That he gets a high salary is said.
Question 37: It’s high time you started revising for the coming exam.
A. I think you should start revising for the coming exam right now.
B. Revising for the coming exam takes your time.
C. It’s time to come to the exam after revising.
D. The time is high because you started revising for the coming exam.
Question 38: This film is interesting but the film we saw last week was more interesting.
A. The film we saw last week was as interesting as this one.
B. The film we saw last week was less interesting than this one.
C. The film we saw last week was more interesting as this one.
D. The film we saw last week was more interesting than this one.
Question 39: “It’s nice of you to put me up for the night. Thank you,” Jane said to Mrs. Brown.
A. Jane thanks Mrs. Brown for put her up for the night.
B. Jane thanked Mrs. Brown for put her up for the night.
C. Jane thanks Mrs. Brown for putting her up for the night.
D. Jane thanked Mrs. Brown for putting her up for the night.
Question 40: Somebody will call Mr. Watson tonight.
A. Mr. Watson will be called tonight. B. Mr. Watson will be call tonight.
C. Mr. Watson tonight will call somebody. D. Mr. Watson will call somebody
tonight.
Question 41: David last visited Paris five years ago.
A. David has been in Paris for five years. B. David hasn't visited Paris for five
years.
C. David didn't visit Paris five years ago. D. David was in Paris for five years.
Question 42: Sarah doesn’t like the new neighbor. Peter doesn’t like the new neighbor, either.
A. Either Sarah or Peter don’t like the new neighbor.
B. Both Sarah and Peter don’t like the new neighbor.
C. Neither Sarah nor Peter likes the new neighbor.
D. Either Sarah or Peter likes the new neighbor.
Question 43: “I will give you the answer by the end of the lesson.”, Tom said to Janet.
A. Tom offered to give Janet the answer by the end of the lesson.
B. Tom suggested giving Janet the answer by the end of the lesson.
C. Tom insisted on giving Janet the answer by the end of the lesson.
D. Tom promised to give Janet the answer by the end of the lesson.
Question 44: Is it necessary to meet the manager at the airport?
A. Did the manager have to be met at the airport?
B. Does the manager have to be met at the airport?
C. Is the manager had to be met at the airport?
D. Does the manager have to meet at the airport?
Question 45: Eight years ago, we started writing to each other.
A. We have rarely written to each other for eight years.
B. Eight years is a long time for us to write to each other.
C. We have been writing to each other for eight years.
D. We wrote to each other eight years ago.
Question 46: Keeping calm is the secret of passing the driving test.
A. Keep calm or you will pass the driving test.
B. As long as you keep calm, you will pass the driving test.
C. Unless you keep calm, you will pass the driving test.
D. Pass the driving test is without keeping calm.
Question 47: “Why don’t you complain to the company, John?” said Peter.
A. Peter suggested John to complain to the company.
B. Peter advised John complaining to the company.
C. Peter suggested that John should complain to the company.
D. Peter asked John why he doesn’t complain to the company.
Question 48: I haven’t met my grandparents for five years.
A. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I have met my grandparents for five years.
C. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
D. I didn’t meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 49: I could not get the job because I did not speak English well.
A. I failed to get the job because of my poor English.
B. Despite my poor English, I was successfull in the job.
C. I wish I had got the job so that I could speak English well.
D. I would have spoken English well if I could get the job.
Question 50: “Yes, I stole your purse”, the boy said to the young woman.
A. The boy denied stealing the young man’s purse.
B. The young woman thanked the boy for stealing her purse.
C. The boy admitted stealing the woman’s purse.
 D. The young woman accused the boy of stealing her purse.

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ĐỀ MINH HỌA ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG NĂM 2022

THEO HƯỚNG TINH GIẢN BÁM SÁT CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC CỦA BỘ GIÁO DỤC

ĐỀ MINH HỌA 2022 MÔN THI :TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1 (NB): A. processed B. infested C. balanced D. reached

Question 2 (NB): A. nice B. rise C. light D. gift

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3 (NB): A. visit B. destroy C. threaten D. happen

Question 4 (NB): A. interviewer B. concentrate C. comfortable D. technology

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

Question 5 (NB): I don't mind ________ much homework.

A. did B. to do C. do D. doing

Question 6 (NB): If I were you, I_______________that English course.

A. will take B. would take C. take D. took

Question 7 (NB): Tuan, along with his friends, _______on a picnic in Pu Mat National Park at the end of
this month.

A. have to go B. will go C. are going D. is going

Question 8 (TH): They were 30 minutes late because their car down.

A. got B. put C. cut D. broke

Question 9 (TH): The sky was grey and cloudy.___________, we went to the beach.

A. However B. In spite of C. Even though D. Consequently

Question 10 (TH): A lot of skills and knowledge fields .

A. be prepared and practiced B. have to be prepared and practiced

C. prepared and practiced D. have to be being prepared and practiced
Question 11 (TH): The Prime Minister congratulated the team___ _______ winning the match.

A. for B. in C. on D. into

Question 12 (TH): Tommy is on the way to his friend's birthday party, carrying a gift box _____ colourful
paper.

A. were nicely wrapped B. having wrapped nicely

C. nicely wrapped D. nicely wrapping

Question 13 (NB): It can be an amazing experience for those who have the_______ to leave their
family and friend and live in a new place.

A. courage B. courageous C. encourage D. encouragement

Question 14 (VD): We arranged to meet at the station, but she didn’t .

A. get through B. turn up C. walk out D. wait on

Question 15 (VD): We all believe that a happy marriage should be mutual love.
A. based on B. concerned with C. confided in D. obliged to

Question 16 (TH): A few years ago, a fire much of an overcrowded part of the
city.
A. battled B. devastated C. mopped D. developed

Question 17 (VD): Students can a lot of information just by taking an active part in
class.
A. concern B. install C. appear D. memorize

Question 18 (VDC) Stop about the bush, John! Just tell me exactly what the problem
is.
A. rushing B. hiding C. beating D. moving

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19 (TH): English as we know today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many
elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1030.

A. started B. appeared C. developed D. vanished

Question 20 (TH): People are busy buying gifts, cleaning and decorating the house and cooking
traditional foods to welcome Tet holiday now.

A. favorite B. important C. customary D. national

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21 (TH): His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal

Question 22 (VDC): You have to be on your toes if you want to beat her.

A. pay all your attention to what you are doing B. upset her in what she is doing
 C. get involved in what she is doing D. make her comply with your order

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.

Question 23 (NB): Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah
accepted.
Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight?” – Sarah: “ __________ .”
A. That’s a great idea B. That’s acceptable
C. You are very welcome D. It’s kind of you to invite

Question 24 (NB): David invited her friend, Lisa, to go to the movie and Lisa accepted.

- David: “Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?”

- Lisa: “ ___________ ”

A. I’m sorry. I don’t know that. B. Not at all. Go ahead.

C. Not so bad. And you? D. That would be nice.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

The warming ot the Earth is caused by exhaust gas from automobile engines, factories and power (25)
________. Carbon dioxide goes up into the atmosphere, and it forms a kind of screen that keeps or
allows the sunshine in but stops the Earth heat (26) _______ getting out. It works like a greenhouse,
that’s why we call (27) ________ the Green House effect.

Because of this effect, the Earth is getting warmer all the time. This (28) ________ in temperature will
cause big changes to the world’s climate. The sea level will increase as the ice (29) _______ the poles
will melt.

Question 25 (VD): A. companies B. factories C. sites D. stations

Question 26 (TH): A. from B. up C. against D. away

Question 27 (NB) : A. is B. be C. it D. them

Question 28 ( VD): A. raise B. rise C. drop D. fall

Question 29 (TH) : A. covering B. covers C. covered D. cover

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

Books which give instructions on how to do things are very popular in the United States today.
Thousands of these How-to books are useful. In fact, there are about four thousand books with titles
that begin with the words "How to". One book may tell you how to earn more money. Another may tell
you how to save or spend it and another may explain how to give your money away.

Many How-to books give advice on careers. They tell you how to choose a career and 'now to
succeed in it. If you fail, however, you can buy the book " How to Turn Failure into Success". If you
would like to become very rich, you can buy the book "How to Make a Millionaire". If you never make
any money at all, you may need a book called "How to Live on Nothing".

One of the most popular types of books is one that helps you with personal problems. If you want to
have a better love of life, you can read "How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life". If you are
tired of books on happiness, you may prefer books which give step-by-step instructions on how to
redecorate or enlarge a house.

Why have How-to books become so popular? Probably because life has become so complex. Today
people have far more free time to use, more choices to make, and more problems to solve. How-to
books help people deal with modern life.

Question 30 (VD): What is the passage mainly about?

A. How to succeed in love every minute of your life. B. How to turn failure into success.

C. How to make a millionaire. D. How-to books.

Question 31 ( NB): The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to _________

A. advice B. instruction C. how-to books D. career

Question 32 (TH ): Which of the following is NOT the type of books giving information on careers?

A. "How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life".

B. "How to Live on Nothing"

C. "How to Make a Millionaire".

D. "How to Turn Failure into Success"

Question 33 ( TH) The word "step-by-step" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____________

A. little by little B. gradually C. slower and slower D. less and less

Question 34 (VD) : It can be inferred from the passage that______________

A. Today people are more bored with the modern life.

B. Modern life is more difficult to deal with.

C. Today people have fewer choices to make.

D. Today people are more interested in modern life.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Swine influenza (also called swine flu, hog flu and pig flu) is an infection of a host animal by any
one of several specific types of microscopic organisms called "swine influenza virus". A swine influenza
virus (SIV) is any strain of the influenza family of viruses that is usually hosted by (is endemic in) pigs. As
of 2009, the known SIV strains are the influenza c virus and the subtypes of the influenza A virus known
as HI N1, H1N2, H3N1, H3N2 and H2N3. Swine influenza is common in pigs in the mid-western United
States (and occasionally in other states), Mexico, Canada, South America, Europe (including the UK,
Sweden and Italy) Kenya Mainland China, Taiwan Japan and other parts of eastern Asia.

Transmission of swine influenza vims from pigs to humans is not common and does not always
cause human influenza, often only resulting in the production of antibodies in the blood. The meat of
the animal poses no risk of transmitting the virus when properly cooked. If transmission does cause
human influenza, it is called zoonotic swine flu. People who work with pigs, especially people with
intense exposures, are at increased risk of catching swine flu. In the mid-20th century, identification of
influenza subtypes became possible. This allows accurate diagnosis of transmission to humans. Since
then, fifty confirmed transmissions have been recorded. Rarely, these strains of swine flu can pass from
human to human. In humans, the symptoms of swine flu are similar to those of influenza and of
influenza-like illness in general namely chills fever sore throat, muscle pains severe headache, coughing,
weakness and general discomfort.

The 2009 flu outbreak in humans known as "swine flu" is due to a new strain of influenza A virus
subtype H1N1 that contains genes closely related to swine influenza. The origin of this new strain is
unknown. However, the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) reports that this strain has not been
isolated in pigs. This strain can be transmitted from human to human, and causes the normal symptoms
of influenza.

Question 35 (VDC): What is the main topic of the passage?

A. How swine influenza vims is transmitted to humans

B. Areas of the world which are affected by swine flu

C. The 2009 flu outbreak

D. The characteristics of swine flu

Question 36 (TH): A swine influenza virus is _________

A. of influenza A virus only B. always hosted by pigs

C. a strain of the fl u family of viruses D. hosted by a microscopic organism

Question 37 (TH): Where is the swine influenza not common?

A. France B. Mexico C. South America D. Eastern Asia

Question 38 (TH): Which statement is NOT supported by the passage?

A. Swine influenza is not commonly transmitted from pigs to humans.

B. When properly cooked, pork cannot transmit the swine influenza virus

C. Any person who works with pigs can catch swine influenza

D. Transmission of swine influenza virus can produce antibodies in the blood.

Question 39 ( VD) : What does the word "poses" mean?

A. transmits B. causes C. prevents D. takes

Question 40 ( TH) : What can be concluded from the passage?

A. Now we can have more accurate diagnosis of flu transmission to humans.

B. Zoonotic swine flu is transmitted from pigs to pigs.

C. Swine flu symptoms are different from other kinds of influenzas.

D. Those who have swine flu have only fever, sore throat and coughing.

Question 41 ( TH) : What is NOT true about the 2009 flu outbreak?

A. It is definitely caused by pigs B. It is caused by influenza A virus type A

C. It is often known as "swine flu" D. It can be transmitted from humans to humans

Question 42 ( VD): The word "strain" can be replaced by _____________

A. type B. variant C. characteristic D. breed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43 (NB): Next week, when there (A) will be an English Club (B) held here. I (C) will give you
more information (D) about it.

A. will be B. held here C. will give D. about it

Question 44 (TH): No longer (A) satisfied with the (B) emphasis ot the Denishawn school, Martha (C) has
moved to (D) the staff of the Eastman school in 1925

A. satisfied B. emphasis C. has D. the staff of

Question 45 (VD): It is the(A) high time John (B) understands (C) how to behave properly (D)
towards the old men.
A. high B. understands C. how to D. towards

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.

Question 46 (TH) It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb.

A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship

B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb

C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb

D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb

Question 47 (VD): "Leave my house now or I'll call the police!" shouted the lady to the man.

A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn't leave her house.
B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house.
D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house.
Question 48 (TH): If you practise harder, you will have better results.

A. The harder you practise, the best results vou will have.

B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you will have.

C. The hardest you practise, the most results vou will have.

D. The harder you practise, the better results vou will have.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49 (VDC): The girl is talking to a man with a ponytail. She is my friend.

A. The girl who is talking to a man with a ponytail is my friend.

B. The girl, whom a man with a ponytail is talking to, is my friend.
C. My friend is the girl, who is talking to a man with a ponytail.
 D. The girl, who is talking to a man with a ponytail, is my friend

Question 50 (VDC): I think my hair looks fine. My mother believes it needs a little more brushing.

A. Not only do I think my hair looks fine, but my mother also believes it needs a
little more brushing.
B. Either my mother believes it needs a little more brushing or I think my hair looks fine.
C. I think my hair looks so fine that my mother believes it needs a little more brushing.
D. I think my hair looks fine, but my mother believes it needs a little more brushing.

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI PHÂN BAN LẦN IV, NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 
Trường THPT Chuyên Thái Bình  Môn thi: Tiếng Anh lớp 12
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát
đề 
Mã đề: 234
Họ tên thí sinh:.......................................... Số báo danh:................... 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. aches B. flowers  C. hopes  D. coughs
Question 2: A. ancient B . animal  C. applicant D. annual
Mark the letter A B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following 
questions.
Question 3:_________ , he could not lift the trap door.
A. As he was strong B. Strong as was he C. As strong he was  D. Strong as he
was
Question 4: She has bought a _________
A. round big wooden yellow table  B. big round yellow wooden table
C. big round wooden yellow table  D. big yellow round wooden table
Question 5: Governments all over the world are _________measures to tackle the coronavirus
pandemic
A. stepping up  B. accounting for  C. getting on  D. taking in
Question 6: These potatoes are sold _________
A. by kilo  B. by the kilo  C. for the kilo  D. for kilo
Question 7: Due to ever more spreading poaching, there_________ a dramatic decline in the
number of elephants over the last decade.
A. has been B. is  C. was  D. had been
Question 8: _________make a good impression on her.
A. Only by doing so can I  B. Only so doing can I
C. Only by so doing I can  D. Only by doing so I can
Question 9: It is estimated that more than 371,000 people all over the world have died
_________Covid-19 so far.
A. for  B. by  C. from  D. in
Question 10: My mother had to work 12 hours a day in a factory just to_________
A. make ends meet  B. call it a day  C. tighten the belt  D. break the ice
Question 11: As a(n) _________girl, she found it difficult to socialise with other students in the
class.
A. reserved  B. industrious  C. ashamed D. Dynamic
Question 12: The bad weather caused serious damage to the crop. If only it _________warmer.
A. has been  B. had been  C. was  D. were
Question 13: As the number of coronavirus cases continues to increase around the globe,
celebrities are using their platforms to encourage people to_________ social distancing in an
effort to curb the spread of the disease.
A. practise  B. compete  C. conform  D. comply
Question 14: The restaurants on the island are expensive, so it's worth _________a packed
lunch.
A. taken  B. taking  C. to take  D. take
Question 15: It is the recommendation of many psychologists to_________ associate words
and remember names. 
A. mental images are used  B. that a learner use mental images
C. that a learner uses mental images  D. that a learner must use mental images
Question 16: Chicken eggs will not hatch ________ they are kept at the proper temperature.
A. because  B. unless  C. even though  D. only if
Question 17: When my aunt _________into the airport tomorrow, I'll be at work, so I can't pick
her up.
A. will get  B. got  C. will have gotten  D. gets
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose main stress is
placed differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. Honest B. mature  C. happy  D. careful
Question 19: A. activate B. establish  C. remember  D. contribute
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Some people fear racism will never completely disappear from the face of the
earth.
A. competition  B. immigration  C. witchcraft 17.0 D. prejudice
Question 21: Coronavirus disease (Covid-19) is an infectious disease caused by a newly
discovered 
coronavirus.
A. fatal  B. contagious  C. severe  D. deadly
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 22: Mary: "Thanks a lot for your help."
John: “_________________”
A. My happiness  B. My pleasure  C. My excitement  D. My delight
Question 23: Tom: "When are we leaving for the concert?"
Kyle: “ _________________”
A. Straight away  B. That's right  C. No problem  D. Certainly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
A pioneering set of experiments has been important in the revolution in our understanding
of animal behavior - a revolution that eroded the behaviorist dogma that only humans have
minds. These experiments were designed to detect consciousness - that is signs of self-
awareness or self- recognition - in animals other than humans. 
The scientific investigation of an experience as private as consciousness is frustratingly
beyond the usual tools of the experimental psychologist. This may be one reason that many
researchers have shied away from the notion of mind and consciousness in nonhuman animals.
In the late 1960's, however, psychologist Gordon Gallup devised a test of the sense of self: the
mirror test. If an animal were able to recognize its reflection in a mirror as "self", then it could
be said to possess an awareness of self, or consciousness. It is known that a cat or a dog reacts
to its own image in a mirror, but often it treats it as that of another individual whose behavior
very soon becomes puzzling and boring. 
The experiment called for familiarizing the animal with the mirror and then marking the
animal's forehead with a red spot. If the animal saw the reflection as just another individual, it
might wonder about the curious red spot and might even touch the mirror. But if the animal
realized that the reflection was of itself, it would probably touch the spot on its own body. The
first time Gallup tried the experiment with a chimpanzee, the animal acted as if it knew that the
reflection was its own; it touched the red spot on its forehead. Gallup' report of the
experiment, published in a 1970 articles, was a milestone in our understanding of animal minds,
and psychologists wondered how widespread self-recognition would prove to be.
Question 24: The word "dogma" in line 2 is closest in meaning to __________
A. evaluation  B. proof  C. intention  D. belief
Question 25: Which of the following statements best describes the behaviorists' position with
regard to consciousness in nonhuman animals?
A. Most nonhuman animals show signs of self-consciousness.
B. Most nonhuman animals can be taught self-consciousness.
C. Chimpanzees are the only nonhuman animals that have a human level of self-
consciousness.
D. Nonhuman animals do not possess self-consciousness. 
Question 26: The phrase "shied away from” in line 7 is closest in meaning to__________
A. approached  B. avoided  C. respected  D. allowed
Question 27: What does the author mean when stating in line 13 that "The experiment called
for familiarizing the animal with the mirror"?
A. The experiment required the use of a chimpanzee that had not participated in previous
mirror tests.
B. Gallup had to allow the chimpanzee to become accustomed to the mirror before he began
the experiment. C. Gallup had to teach the chimpanzee to recognize its reflection in the
mirror.
 D. The chimpanzee had to first watch the experiment being conducted with another
chimpanzee.
Question 28: The chimpanzee in Gallup's first experiment responded to the mirror test by
touching ________
A. its own forehead  B. the researcher's forehead
C. the red spot on the mirror  D. the red spot on another chimpanzee
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: The (A) Oxford English Dictionary is well-known for (B) including many different
meanings (C) of words and to give (D) real examples.
A. The  B. for  C. meanings  D. to give
Question 30: There (A) has been an appreciative (B) drop in (C) the number of unemployed
people since the new government came to power (D).
A. There  B. appreciative  C. in  D. came to
power
Question 31: It was disappointing (A) that almost of (B) the guests left (C) the wedding too (D)
early.
A. disappointing  B. almost of  C. left  D. too
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word that best fits each of the following blanks. 
Beauty is in the eye of the beholder
People have been debating the principles of beauty for thousands of years, but it still seems
impossible to consider it objectively. German philosopher Immanuel Kant questioned whether
something can possess an objective property that makes it beautiful. He concluded that
although everyone accepts that beauty exists, no one has ever (32) _______on the precise
criteria by which beauty may be judged
The ancient Greek philosopher Plato wrote of a scale called the "golden proportion", (33)
_______ which the width of the face should be two-thirds of its length, preferably accompanied
by a nose no longer than the distance between the eyes. 
Symmetry has been (34) _______ to be attractive to the human (35) _______ , so a face may
seem beautiful because of the similarity between its two sides. Babies spend more time looking
at symmetrical faces than asymmetrical ones and symmetry is also rated as more attractive by
adults looking at photos. So although there seems to be no universal agreement or even
national consensus on what constitutes beauty, there is at least some agreement that facial
symmetry is an important (36) _______
Question 32: A. thought  B. agreed  C. fixed  D. written
Question 33: A. corresponding B. according C. connecting  D. relating
Question 34: A. made  B. seemed  C. proved  D. allowed
Question 35: A. eye  B. sight  C. vision  D. appearance
Question 36: A. Detail  B. factor  C. reason  D. cause
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
The Native Americans of northern California were highly skilled at basketry, using the reeds,
grasses, barks, and roots they found around them to fashion articles of all sorts and sizes - not
only trays, containers, and cooking pots, but hats, boats, fish traps, baby carriers, and
ceremonial objects. 
Of all these experts, none excelled the Pomo - a group who lived on or near the coast during
the 1800's, and whose descendants continue to live in parts of the same region to this day.
They made baskets three feet in diameter and others no bigger than a thimble. The Pomo
people were masters of decoration. Some of their baskets were completely covered with shell
pendants; others with feathers that made the baskets' surfaces as soft as the breasts of birds.
Moreover, the Pomo people made use of more weaving techniques than did their neighbors.
Most groups made all their basketwork by twining - the twisting of a flexible horizontal
material, called a weft, around stiffer vertical strands of material, the warp. Others depended
primarily on coiling - a process in which a continuous coil of stiff material is held in the desired
shaped by a tight wrapping of flexible strands. Only the Pomo people used both processes with
equal case and frequency. In addition, they made use of four distinct variations on the basic
twining process, often employing more than one of them in a single article. 
Although a wide variety of materials was available, the Pomo people used only a few. The
warp was always made of willow, and the most commonly used welt was sedge root, a woody
fiber that could easily be separated into strands no thicker than a thread. For color, the Pomo
people used the bark of redbud for their twined work and dyed bulrush root for black in coiled
work. Though other materials were sometimes used, these four were the staples in their finest
basketry. 
If the basketry materials used by the Pomo people were limited, the designs were amazingly
varied. Every Pomo basketmaker knew how to produce from fifteen to twenty distinct patterns
that could be combined in a number of different ways.
Question 37: What best distinguished Pomo baskets from baskets of other groups?
A. The range of sizes, shapes, and designs  B. The unusual geometric
C. The absence of decoration  D. The rare materials used
Question 38: The word "fashion" in line 2 is closest in meaning to
A. maintain  B. organize  C. trade  D. create
Question 39: The Pomo people used each of the following materials to decorate baskets
EXCEPT
A. shells  B. Feathers  C. leaves  D. barks
Question 40: What is the author's main point in the second paragraph?
A. The neighbors of the Pomo people tried to improve on the Pomo basket weaving
techniques.
B. The Pomo people were the most skilled basket weavers in their region.
C. The Pomo people learned their basket weaving techniques from other Native Americans.
D. The Pomo baskets have been handed down for generations,
Question 41: According to the passage, the relationship between redbud and twining is most
similar to the relationship between 
A. bulrush and coiling  B. weft and warp C. willow and feathers  D. sedge and
weaving
Question 42: The word "staples" in line 20 is closest in meaning to inha
A. combinations B. limitations  C. basic elements  D. accessories
Question 43: Which of the following statements about Pomo baskets can be best inferred from
the passage?
A. Baskets produced by other Native Americans were less varied in design than those of the
Pomo people.
B. Baskets produced by Pomo weavers were primarily for ceremonial purposes.
C. There was a very limited number of basketmaking materials available to the Pomo people.
D. The basketmaking production of the Pomo people has increased over the years.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: I was astonished that he knew a lot about Vietnamese food
A. It surprised me that Vietnamese food was what he liked most.
B. I was astonished at his poor knowledge of Vietnamese food
C. That he knew a lot about Vietnamese food amazed me.
D. I knew very little about Vietnamese food, which astonished him.
Question 45: "If I were you, I would not choose to write about such a sensitive topic", the
teacher said
A. I was blamed for writing about such a sensitive topic by the teacher.
B. I was ordered by the teacher not to write about such a sensitive topic
C. The teacher advised me on writing about such a sensitive topic
D. The teacher advised me against writing about such a sensitive topic
Question 46: Martin missed his flight because he had not been informed of the change in flight
schedule.
A. Martin missed his flight, though he had been informed of the change in the flight
schedule.
B. Martin had been informed of his flight delay, which was due to the change in flight
schedule.
C. Not having been informed of the change of the flight schedule, Martin missed his flight.
D. Not having missed his flight, Martin was informed of the change in flight schedule.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
Question 47: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.
Question 48: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.
D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 49: His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A. elicited  B. irregular  C. secret  D. legal
Question 50: In American football, the coach may shout to the captain to call time out.
A. yelp  B. growl  C. whisper  D. flounder 
------------------ THE END ---------------

ĐỀ MINH HỌA ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG NĂM 2022

THEO HƯỚNG TINH GIẢN BÁM CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC CỦA BỘ GIÁO DỤC
SÁT MÔN THI :TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ MINH HỌA 2022 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian
phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………..

Số báo danh:………………………………

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. repeats B. amuses C. attacks D. coughs

Question 2: A. academic B. grade C. behave D.

examination

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. contain B. conquer C. conserve D. conceal

Question 4: A. conical B. sacrifice C. approval D. counterpart

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: One moment you say you love me, the next moment you are dating another
girl,_________?

A.don't you B. aren't you C. won't you D. do you

Question 6: The conductor asked _________in the bus.

A. them to please not to smoke B. that they should not smoke

C. them not to smoke D. them not to smoke

Question 7: "If I __________ and my life depended on the solution, I would spend the first 55
minutes determining the proper question to ask, for once I know the proper question, I could
solve the problem in less than five minutes." Albert Einstein

A. have an hour to solve a problem B. had an hour solving a problem

 C. had had an hour to solve a problem D. had an hour to solve a problem
Question 8: The number of unemployed people__________recently.
A. is increasing B. has increased C. have increased D. increase
Question 9: Children are encouraged to read books__________ they are a wonderful source of
knowledge.
A. in spite of B. although C. because of D. because
Question 10:________ ______________________, we had already put out the fire.
A. Until the firemen arrived to help B. No sooner the firemen arrived to help
C. By the time the firemen arrived to help D. After the firemen arrived to help
Question 11: I'm sorry but I assure you that I had no intention__________offending you.
A. in B. of C. to D. for
Question 12: More than a mile of roadway has been blocked with trees, stones and other debris,
the explosion.
A. causing B. caused by C. which caused by D. which caused
Question 13: I think mobile phones are__________for people of all ages.
A. usage B. usefully C. useful D. use

Question 14: I__________an old friend of mine in the street this morning. We haven't seen each
other for ages.
A. ran into B. ran out C. came over D. came round
Question 15: In spite of their disabilities, the children at Spring School manage to an active
social life.
A. save B. lead C. gather D. take
Question 16: Many people and organizations have been making every possible effort in order to
save __________species.
A. endangered B. dangerous C. fearful D. threatening
Question 17: Whistling or clapping hands to get someone's attention is considered and even rude
in some circumstances.
A. suitable B. unnecessary C. appropriate D. impolite
Question 18: Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the__________ o f anyone walking
down the street. That may help to sell more products.
A. eye B. peek C. flash D. glimpse
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO),
was established in 1946.
A. set up B. found out C. run through D. put away
Question 20: Veronica broke the school rules so many times that the headmistress finally had no
alternative but to expel her.
A. force her to leave a school B. make her meet the headmaster
C. punish her severely D. beat her violently
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: These days, many people only read printed newspapers once in a while as they
tend to access information online.
A. regularly B. attentively C. occasionally D. selectively
Question 22: For many couples, money is the source of arguments, frustration. When it comes to
finances and relationships, sharing the financial burden is important.
A. benefit B. responsibility C. aid D. difficulty
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges
Question 23: - "I like to work part-time for a non-profit organization this summer."
A. Me too. I'm thinking of applying for 'Hope'.
B. I do, but I don't have enough time for studying
C. That's great. You have been coming of age.
D. Is that all? How about using time wisely?
Question 24: Laura: "What a lovely house you have!"
A. Of course not, it's not costly. B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. I think so. D. No problem.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The first thing that is included in the "living together" (25)________ is the expected good
relations with your family. This also involves sharing equally the housework. (26) ________of
people think that everyone should share the housework equally, but in many homes parents do
most of it. To certain minds, many families can't share the housework whereas they should try it.
In fact, sharing the housework equally is not very possible because of the families' timetable. So,
it is somehow believed that children and parents must do things together. For this they can
establish a housework planning,
(27) ________ , housework's contributions of the teenager make him more responsible. He will
think that he has an important role in his family. According to researchers, teenagers should
share the housework because (28) ________ will help them when they have to establish their
own family in the future. Too many teenagers and young adults leave home without knowing
how to cook or clean, but if parents delegate basic housework to teens as they are old enough to
do it, they won't be destabilized by doing the housework in their new grown-up life. It can be
(29) ________concluded that many parents don't really prepare their children for future, because
they don't stimulate them to learn how to run a house. If parents get them responsible, teens will
be more responsible and that will improve family's life.
(Source: https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2013)
Question 25: A. custom B. tradition C. notion D. trend
Question 26: A. lots B. few C. little D. a lot of
Question 27: A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. In case
Question 28: A. which B. what C. that D. who
Question 29: A. likely B. probably C. auspiciously D. possibly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D, on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
People commonly complain that they never have enough time to accomplish tasks. The
hours and minutes seem to slip away before many planned chores get done. According to time
management experts, the main reason for this is that most people fail to set priorities about what
to do first. They get tied down by trivial, time-consuming matters and never complete the
important ones.
One simple solution often used by those at the top is to keep lists of tasks to be
accomplished daily. These lists order jobs from most essential to least essential and are checked
regularly through the day to access progress. Not only is this an effective way to manage time,
but also it serves to give individuals a much-deserved sense of satisfaction over their
achievements. People who do not keep lists often face the end of the work day with uncertainty
over the significance of their accomplishments, which over time can contribute to serious
problems in mental and physical health
Question 30: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Common Complaints About Work B. Accomplishing Trivial Matters
C. Achieving Job Satisfaction D. Learning to Manage Time
Question 31: According to the passage, why do many people never seem to have enough time to
accomplish things?
A. They do not prioritize tasks.
B. They get tied down by one difficult problem
C. They fail to deal with trivial matters
D. They do not seek the advice of time management experts
Question 32: In paragraph 2, the word those refers to
A. daily lists B. trivial matters C. priorities D.
people
Question 33: The passage states that one solution to time management problems is to
A. consult a time management expert
B. accomplish time-consuming matters first
C. keep daily lists of priorities and check them regularly
D. spend only a short time on each task
Question 34: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses_
A. mental and physical health problems
B. another solution to time management problems
C. ways to achieve a sense of fulfilment
D. different types of lists
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D, on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42
There are many mistakes that people make when writing their resume (CV) or
completing a job application. Here are some of the most common and most serious.
The biggest problem is perhaps listing the duties for which you were responsible in a past
position: all this tells your potential employers is what you were supposed to do. They do not
necessarily know the specific skills you used in executing them, nor do they know what results
you achieved - both of which are essential. In short, they won't know if you were the best, the
worst or just average in your position.
The more concrete information you can include, the better. As far as possible, provide
measurements of what you accomplished. If any innovations you introduced saved the
organization money, how much did they save? If you found a way of increasing productivity, by
what percentage did you increase it?
Writing what you are trying to achieve in life - your objective - is a waste of space. It tells
the employer what you are interested in. Do you really think that employers care what you want?
No, they are interested in what they want! Instead, use that space for a career summary. A good
one is brief - three to four sentences long. A good one will make the person reviewing your
application want to read further.
Many resumes list 'hard job-specific skills, almost to the exclusion of transferable, or
soft", skills. However, your ability to negotiate effectively, for example, can be just as important
as your technical skills.
 All information you give should be relevant, so carefully consider the job for which you
are applying. If you are applying for a job that is somewhat different than your current job, it is
up to you to draw a connection for the resume reviewer, so that they will understand how your
skills will fit in their organization. The person who reviews your paperwork will not be a mind
reader.
If you are modest about the skills you can offer, or the results you have achieved, a
resume reader may take what you write literally, and be left with a low opinion of your ability:
you need to say exactly how good you are. On the other hand, of course, never stretch the truth
or lie.
(Source: www.ielts-mentor.com)
Question 35: What topic does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The way how to write the resume for job application.
B. The mistakes people make when applying for a job.
C. The common way to make impression in a job interview.
D. The necessary skills for job application.
Question 36: The word "executing" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. enumerating B. determining C. completing D. implementing
Question 37: The word "concrete” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by__________ .
A. indeterminate B. specific C. substantial D. important
Question 38: What does the word "it" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. organization money B. information
C. productivity D. percentage
Question 39: According to the passage, what information should candidates include in their
resume?
A. specific skills for previous jobs B. the past achievements
C. previous positions D. future objective
Question 40: Why did the author mention that applicants should write a good brief career
summary?
A. To make the employers interested in what they want.
B. To make the interviewers more curious about you.
C. Because the employers do not care for what you want to achieve.
D. Because it can provide their specific skills in their positions,
Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. The ability to negotiate effectively is as significant as technical skills.
B. Candidates must study the job they are applying carefully before writing the CV.
C. Applicants should not apply for a distinct job from what they are doing.
D. The information interviewees present should be related to the job they are applying.
Question 42: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that____________________.
A. you should write accurately about your ability for the vacant position.
B. you should be modest about what you can do.
C. a resume reader is good enough to understand what you imply about your ability in the
CV.
D. you are allowed to exaggerate the truth of your competence if possible.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needscorrection in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Measles are an infectious disease that causes fever and small red spots.
А B C D
Question 44: The basic elements of public-opinion research are interviewers, questionnaires,
A B
tabulating equipment, and to sample population.
C D
Question 45: The villagers are highly appreciable of the volunteers' efforts in reconstructing
A B C
their houses after the devastating storm.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
inmeaning to each of the following questions
Question 46: In Vietnam, football is more popular than basketball.
A. In Vietnam, basketball is not as popular as football.
B. In Vietnam, basketball is more popular than football.
C. In Vietnam, football is not as popular as basketball.
D. In Vietnam, football is as popular as basketball
Question 47: "Let's go on a walking today?" said Trang.
A. Jane suggested going on a walking,
B. Jane wanted us to going on a walking.
C. Jane suggested to go on a walking
D. Jane allowed us to go on a walking.
Question 48: You can take some photos at the park,
A. You are allowed to take some photos at the park.
B. You musn't take some photos at the park.
C. You may have taken some photos at the park.
D. You need to take some photos at the park.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: She has much money, so she can buy a big house in the city.
A. If she had much money, she could buy a big house in the city.
B. If she had had much money, she could buy a big house in the city.
C. Without money, she couldn't buy a big house in the city.
D. unless she has much money, she can't buy a big house in the city
Question 50: Mike became a father. He felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
A. Were Mike to become a father himself, he would feel a strong sense of responsibility
towards his parents.
B. Only after Mike had become a father himself did he feel a strong sense of
responsibility towards his parents.
C. Had Mike become a father himself, he would have felt a strong sense of responsibility
towards his parents.
D. Not until he felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents did Mike become
a father himse

-----------THE END----------
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm
ĐỀ MINH HỌA ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG NĂM 2022
 THEO HƯỚNG TINH GIẢN BÁM SÁT CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC CỦA BỘ GIÁO DỤC
ĐỀ MINH HỌA 2022 MÔN THI :TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian
phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………..

Số báo danh:………………………………

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. invites B. comes C. arrives D. loves
Question 2: A. interaction B. initiative C. hospitality D. activity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. cartoon B. answer C. open D. paper
Question 4: A. certificate B. knowledgeable C. prosperity D. development
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Her parents are really strict. They rarely let her stay out late, __________>
A. do they B. don't they C. does she D. doesn't she
Question 6: When you get involved in a volunteer project, you are able to __________your
knowledge into practice.
A. putting B. put C. have put D. putted
Question 7: If my time-management skills had been better. I__________from serious stress
when I was in university.
A. wouldn't suffer B. hadn't suffered C. will not suffer D. wouldn't have
suffered
Question 8: Last year, my father __________, but now after a bad cough, he has given it up.
A. was always smoking B. always smokes
C. always smoked D. had always smoked
Question 9: __________ his poor English, he managed to communicate his problem very
clearly.
A. Because B. Even though C. Because of D. In spite of
Question 10: __________Peter came to see me.
A. While having dinner B. While I was having dinner
C. When having dinner D. When lam having dinner
Question 11: Global warming will result__________crop failurcs and famines.
A.with B. from C. for D. in
Question 12: The archaeological excavation___________to the discovery of the ancient city
lasted several years.
A. led B. leading C. to lead D. being led
Question 13: If you don't have anything__________to say, it's better to say nothing.
A. construct B. construction C. constructive D. constructor
Question 14: The lottery winner was willing to spend a considerable sum of money
to____________to charity to help those in need.
A. give away B. take off C. bring about D. come across
Question 15: When I agreed to help. I didn't know what I was__________myself in for.
A. laying B. putting C. letting D. bringing
Question 16: There are both advantages and disadvantages of living in families with three or
four generations, also known as__________ families.
A. single-parent B. extended C. nuclear D. crowded
Question 17: There are usually a lot of job seekers applying for one position. Only a few of them
are__________for an interview
A. shortlisted B. listed C. screened D. tested
Question 18: Crops are often completely destroyed by__________of locusts.
A. bands B. troupes C. swarms D. flocks
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: To keep up with new developments and technology, modern people need to
implement lifelong learning all the time.
A. come up with B. get on with C. face up with D. catch up with
Question 20: I only applied for this business with a view to accumulating first-hand experience.
A. attaining B. gaining C. penetrating D.
accomplishing
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: From my point of View, parental divorce can cause lasting negative consequences
for children.
A. beginning of a marriage B. the situation of not marrying
C. single person D. ending of a marriage
Question 22: Urbanization has resulted in massive problems besides the benefits.
A. major B. serious C. few D. minor
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
completes each of the following exchanges
Question 23: Nam: "Do you think that there are any jobs which only men or only women can or
should do?"
Lan: “________________”
A. Men are better at certain jobs than women.
B. I agree. This really depends on their physical strengths and preferences.
C. Women and men should cooperate with each other.
D. Men are often favoured in certain jobs.
Question 24: "Your hairstyle is terrific. Mary?"." __________”
A. Yes, all right B. Thanks, Cindy, I had it done last night
C. Never mention it D. Thanks, but I'm afraid
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25-29
I was an MBA student in the USA and I lived in the university's coed dormitory. In my
culture, usually, if a woman talks to a man, it is a sign of romantic interest. (25) __________ in
the first few days of school. I found it strange that so many women were talking to me and I
was under the impression that some women on my dormitory floor were interested in me. To
(26) __________ their politeness, I would buy them flowers or offer small gifts, as is done in my
country. However, I was quite surprised to see that these same women now seemed (27)
__________ around me. One was even quite offended and told me to leave her alone.
Eventually I talked to the residence adviser on my floor to see what I was doing wrong, and he
explained to me the way men and women usually interact in the USA. I was quite relieved to
hear that (28) __________ was wrong with me, but rather with the way I was interpreting my
conversations with women. Even though I did not find the love of my life while I was in the USA,
I still made many good female friends afterwards (29) __________ I still maintain contact
(Source: https://books.google.com.vn)
Question 25: A. However B. Therefore C. Moreover D. Otherwise
Question 26: A. pay B. show C. return D. give
Question 27: A. uncomfortable B. amazing C. exciting D. surprising
Question 28: A. nothing B. something C. anything D. everything
Question 29: A. whom B. to whom C. who D. with whom
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 30-34
Vietnam's population is ageing quickly. In 2017, more than 10 per cent of the population
will be 60 and older, and in 15-20 years the elderly will account for one third of the total
population. This raises concerns about healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly at a
time when Vietnam is focusing on economic integration and requires a large labor force. So far
two solutions have been proposed: to loosen the two-child policy and to increase the
retirement age to 58 for women and 62 for men. By ending the two child policy the government
expects to make up for the ageing population within the next 20 years. But its effect could be
creating an uncontrollable boom in the Victnamesc population. When the government
loosened the two-child policy in 2015 in a trial period, in the first 6 months of 2016 the third
child birth rate increased remarkably by 7.5 per cent
Raising the retirement age has been proposed by the Ministry of Labor pending
parliamentary evaluation in May 2017. While the policy is beneficial in utilizing the work
experience of the elderly while creating savings in the pension budget, it also means fewer job
prospects and promotion opportunities for younger generations. It is also not in the interest of
all the elderly, especially the 70 per cent of Vietnam's labor force working in manual labor-
intensive sectors such as agriculture, manufacturing and construction where working above the
age of 50 can be dangerous and unproductive. Despite these drawbacks, raising the retirement
age is still considered by policymakers as one of the key solutions to the ageing population
problem in Vietnam. However, these are only temporary solutions. Question 30: The best title
for this passage could be___________.
A. Vietnam struggling with ageing population
B. Stopping the two child policy in Vietnam
C. Raising the retirement age in Vietnam
D. How to solve the aging population in Vietnam
Question 31: Which statement is probably TRUE according to the information in the paragraph
1?
A. In 2017, the elderly take up for one third of the total population, this leads to more
concerns about healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly.
 B. In 2015, the two child policy has been officially tightened and succeeded.
C. The government would promote families to have two children to compensate for the
ageing population within the next 20 years.
D. In the next 15-17 years, Vietnam's economy will need a large labor force to integrate
with global economy.
Question 32: The word "its" in paragraph 1 refers to ___________?
A. two-Child policy B. aging population
C. retirement age D. economic integration
Question 33: In the 2rd paragraph, the writer suggests that___________.
A. The Ministry of Labor has applied raising the retirement age in May 2017
B. Raising the retirement age can reduce job opportunities for younger generations.
C. The elderly whose age is 50 would be dangerous if they continued to work
D. Raising the retirement age and stopping two-child policy can be considered as long-
term and cffective solutions.
Question 34: The word "temporary" in paragraph 2 means__________.
A. constant B. permanent C. short-term D. long-term
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of
the question from 35-42
Have you ever entered a tropical rainforest? It's a special, dark place completely
different from anywhere else. A rainforest is a place where the trees grow very tall. Millions of
kinds of animals. insects, and plants live in the rainforest. It is hot and humid in a rainforest. It
rains a lot in the rainforest, but sometimes you don't know it's raining. The trees grow so closely
together that rain doesn't always reach the ground.
Rainforests make up only a small part of the Earth's surface, about six percent. They are
found in tropical parts of the world. The largest rainforest in the world is the Amazon in South
America. The Amazon covers 1.2 billion acres, or almost five million square kilometers. The
second largest rainforest is in Western Africa. There are also rainforests in Central America,
Southeast Asia, Northeastern Australia, and the Pacific Islands,
Rainforests provide us with many things. In fact, the Amazon Rainforest is called the
"lungs of our planet" because it produces twenty percent of the world's oxygen. One fifth of the
world's fresh water is also found in the Amazon Rainforest. Furthermore, one half of the world's
species of animals, plants, and insects live in the Earth's rainforests. Eighty percent of the food
we cat first grew in the rainforest. For example, pincapples, bananas, tomatocs, corn. potatoes,
chocolate, coffee, and sugar all came from rainforests. Twenty-five percent of the drugs we
take when we are sick are made of plants that grow only in rainforests. Some of these drugs are
even used to fight and cure cancer. With all the good things we get from rainforests, it's
surprising to find that we are destroying our rainforests. In fact, 1.5 acres, or 6,000 square
meters, of rainforest disappear every second. The forests are being cut down to make fields for
cows, to harvest the plants, and to clear land for farms. Along with losing countless valuable
species, the destruction of rainforests creates many problems worldwide. Destruction of
rainforests results in more pollution, less rain, and less oxygen for the world.
Question 35: What is the author's purpose in the passage?
A. To provide factual information about tropical rainforests for readers.
B. To prove that rainforests are indispensable in our lives.
 C. To explain why people have destroyed a large area of tropical rainforests.
D. To prevent people from damaging tropical rainforests.
Question 36: The word "humid" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to__________
A. dry B. moist C. cloudy D. overwhelmed
Question 37: Why don't people know it's raining in the rainforests?
A. Because the trees grow very tall there.
B. Because they are the habitats of millions of flora and fauna.
C. Because the branches are too dense for the rain to touch the ground.
D. Because it hardly rains in the rainforests.
Question 38: The following are the facts about rainforests, EXCEPT__________
A. The only places to see rainforests are in tropical zones.
B. The rainforest in Western Africa ranks second after the Amazon in South America in
the covered arca.
C. Rainforests account for about one sixth of the Earth's surface.
D. There's a considerable variety of plants and animals in the rainforests.
Question 39: According to the third passage, which don't rainforests provide us?
A. fresh air and water B. medicine C. seedlings D. clothes
Question 40: The word "that" in paragraph 3 refer to__________
A. plants B. the drugs C. rainforests D. pincapples
Question 41: The word "countless" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by__________
A. trivial B. meaningless C. numberless D. derisive
Question 42: What can be inferred from the last passage?
A. People are not aware of the significance of the rainforests.
B. The consequences of deforestation are greater than what people can imagine,
C. The more rainforests are destroyed, the harder people's life will become.
D. People's economic benefits are more important than environmental problems.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: What I told her a few days ago were not the solution to most of her problems.
А B C D
Question 44: Lam decides to buy a new house, open a bookshop, and upgrading the
A B C
garage next month
D
Question 45: Modern office buildings have false floors under which computer and phone wires
A B C
can be lain.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions
Question 46: Nothing is more precious than happiness and health
A. Happiness and health are the most precious things.
B. Happiness is more precious than health.
C. Health is more precious than happiness.
 D. Happiness and health are more and more precious.
Question 47: She said, "John, I'll show you round my city when you're here."
A. She made a trip round her city with John.
B. She planned to show John round her city.
C. She promised to show John round her city.
D. She organized a trip round her city for John.
Question 48: It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
A. You needn't finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B. You have to finish the report unitl tomorrow afternoon.
C. You may finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D. You should finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: We had a good goalkeeper. We didn't lose the final match.
A. We had a good goalkeeper, so we lost the final match.
B. If it hadn't been for the good goalkeeper, we would have lost the final match.
C. We didn't lose the final match unless we had a good goalkeeper.
D. We lost the match even if we had a good goalkeeper.
Question 50: She had only just put the telephone down when the boss rang.
A. She put the telephone down and the boss rang.
B. Hardly had she put the telephone down when the boss rang.
C. The boss rang back, but she put the telephone down.
D. She had put the telephone down, so she let it ring when the boss rang,

------------------ THE END ---------------

Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm

45 BÀI TẬP ĐỌC HIỂU

Exercise 1. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
We get great pleasure from reading. The more advanced a man is, the greater delight he
will find in reading. The ordinary man may think that subjects like philosophy or science are
very difficult and that if philosophers and scientists read these subjects, it is not for pleasure.

But this is not true. The mathematician finds the same pleasure in his mathematics as
the school boy in an adventure story. For both, it is a play of the imagination, a mental
recreation and exercise. The pleasure derived from this activity is common to all kinds of
reading. But different types of books give us different types of pleasure. First in order of
popularity is novel-reading. Novels contain pictures of imaginary people in imaginary situations,
and give us an opportunity of escaping into a new world very much like our world and yet
different from it. Here we seem to live a new life, and the experience of this new life gives us a
thrill of pleasure. Next in order of popularity are travel books, biographies and memoirs. These
tell us tales of places we have not seen and of great men in whom we are interested.

Some of these books are as wonderful as novels, and they have an added value that
they are true. Such books give us knowledge, and we also find immense pleasure in knowing
details of lands we have not seen and of great men we have only heard of. Reading is one of the
greatest enjoyments of life. To book-lovers, nothing is more fascinating than a favorite book.
And, the ordinary educated man who is interested and absorbed in his daily occupation wants
to occasionally escape from his drudgery into the wonderland of books for recreation and
refreshment.
(Source: http://www.importantindia.com)
Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different types of books B. Different kinds of reading
C. Reading as an exercise for the brain D. Reading as a pleasurable activity

Question 2: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT true?

A. Ordinary people may think that philosophy and science are difficult.
B. Reading about mathematics is mentally entertaining for a mathematician.
C. Philosophers and scientists do not read for pleasure.
D. A more advanced person takes greater pleasure in reading.
Question 3: The word “derived” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. differed B. established C. bought D. obtained
Question 4: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. a new life B. our world C. an opportunity D. a thrill of
pleasure
Question 5: The word “immense” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. great B. limited C. personal D. controlled
Question 6: According to the passage, travel books, biographies and memoirs ______.
A. are wonderful novels B. tell stories of well-known places
C. are less popular than novels D. are more valuable than novels
Question 7: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the most fascinating to
booklovers?
A. A daily occupation B. An ordinary educated man C. The wonderland D. A favorite
book
Exercise 2. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Successful students often do the followings while studying. First, they have an overview
before reading. Next, they look for important information and pay greater attention to it (which
often needs jumping forward or backward to process information). They also relate important
points to one another. Also, they activate and use their prior knowledge. When they realize
that their understanding is not good, they do not wait to change strategies. Last, they can
monitor understanding and take action to correct or “fix up” mistakes in comprehension.

Conversely, students with low academic achievement often demonstrate ineffective

study skills. They tend to assume a passive role, in learning and rely on others (e.g., teachers,
parents) to monitor their studying, for example, low-achieving students often do not monitor
their understanding of content; they may not be aware of the purpose of studying; and they
show little evidence of looking back, or employing “fix-up” strategies to fix understanding
problems. Students who struggle with learning new information seem to be unaware that they
must extent effort beyond simply reading the content to understand and remember it.

Children with learning disabilities do not plan and judge the quality of their studying.
Their studying may be disorganized. Students with learning problems face challenges with
personal organization as well. They often have difficulty keeping track of materials and
assignments, following directions, and completing work on time. Unlike good studiers who
employ a variety of study skills in a flexible yet purposeful manner, low-achieving students use a
restricted range of study skills. They cannot explain why good study strategies are important for
learning; and they tend to use the same, often ineffective study approach for all learning tasks,
ignoring task content, structure or difficulty.
(Source: Adapted from Study Skills: Managing Your Learning — NUI Galway)
Question 8: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Successful and low-academic achieving students
B. Successful learners and their learning strategies
C. Study skills for high school students
D. Effective and ineffective ways of learning
Question 9: The word “prior” in the first paragraph is closest meaning to______?
A. Important B. earlier C. forward D. good
Question 10: According to the passage, what can be learnt about passive students?
A. They depend on other people to organize their learning
B. They are slow in their studying
C. They monitor their understanding
D. They know the purpose of studying
Question 11: Which of the followings is NOT an evidence of monitoring studying?
A. Being aware of the purpose of studying B. Monitoring their understanding of
content
C. Fixing up mistakes in understanding D. Looking at their backs
Question 12: According to the passage, to learn new information, low-achieving students do
NOT______.
A. just understand it B. relate it to what they have known
C. simply remember it D. read it
Question 13: In compared with low-achieving students, successful students use______.
 A. aimless study techniques B. various study skills
C. restricted strategies D. inflexible study ways
Question 14: The underlined pronoun “They” in the last sentence refers to______.
A. study strategies B. study skills
C. low-achieving students D. good studiers
Exercise 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Living things include both the visible world of animals, plants, and fungi as well as the
invisible world of bacteria and viruses. On a basic level, we can say that life is ordered.
Organisms have an enormously complex organization. We're all familiar with the intricate
systems of the basic unit of life, the cell. Life can also "work." Living creatures can take in
energy from the environment. This energy, in the form of food, is transformed to maintain
metabolic processes and for survival. Life grows and develops. This means more than just
replicating or getting larger in size. Living organisms also have the ability to rebuild and repair
themselves when injured. Life can reproduce. Think about the last time you accidentally
stubbed your toe. Almost instantly, you moved back in pain. Finally, life can adapt and respond
to the demands placed on it by the environment. There are three basic types of adaptations
that can occur in higher organisms.

Reversible changes occur as a response to changes in the environment. Let's say you
live near sea level and you travel to a mountainous area. You may begin to experience difficulty
breathing and an increase in heart rate as a result of the change in altitude. These symptoms go
away when you go back down to sea level.

Body-related changes occur as a result of prolonged changes in the environment. Using

ther previous example, if you were to stay in the mountainous area for a long time, you would
notice that your heart rate would begin to slow down and you would begin to breath normally.
These changes are also reversible. Genotypic changes (caused by genetic mutation) take place
within the genetic makeup of the organism and are not reversible. An example would be the
development of resistance to pesticides by insects and spiders.
( Source: Adapted from http://biology.about.com/od/apforstudents/a/aa082105a.htm)
Question 15: In what way is life organized?
A. Hard B. Difficult C. Complicated D.
Problematic
Question 16: Which of the following is NOT a feature of life?
A. Getting a job B. Giving birth
C. Getting larger and left- repairing D. Reacting to the environment
Question 17: What is the energy for living things called?
A. Food B. Metabolic process C. Green energy D.
Environment
Question 18: You see life respond most clearly when you _____.
 A. intentionally hurt yourself B. move part of your body due to threat
C. look at your toe D. feel hurt
Question 19: Which tyoe of living creatures can adapt to the changes in the environment?
A. More visible B. Lower C. Higher D. More
human
Question 20: What does the word “reversible” in the passage mean?
A. Changeble B. Visible C. Fitful D. Irregular
Question 21: Which type of adaption is permanent?
A. Body-related B. Reversible C. Genotypic D.
Environmental
Exercise 4. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In the American colonies there was little money. England did not supply the colonies
with coins and did not allow the colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts
Bay Colony, which received permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver
coins. England wanted to keep money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America
was forced to trade only with England if it did not have the money to buy products from other
countries. The result during this pre-revolutionary period was that the colonists used various
goods in place of money: beaver pelts, Indian wampum, and tobacco leaves were all commonly
used substitutes for money. The colonists also made use of any foreign coins they could obtain.
Dutch, Spanish, French, and English coins were all in use in the American colonies.

During the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to finance the world, so each of the
individual states and the Continental Congress issued paper money. So much of this paper
money was printed that by the end of the war, almost no one would accept it. As a result, trade
in goods and the use of foreign coins still flourished during this period.

By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American colonists, the
monetary system was in a state of total disarray. To remedy this situation, the new Constitution
of the United States, approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money. The individual states
could no longer have their own money supply. A few years later, the Coinage Act of 1792 made
the dollar the official currency of the United States and put the country on a bimetallic
standard. In this bimetallic system, both gold and silver were legal money, and the rate of
exchange of silver to gold was fixed by the government at sixteen to one.
Question 22: The passage mainly discusses_____.
A. the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries.
B. American money from past to present.
C. the English monetary policies in colonial America.
D. The effect of the Revolution on American money.
Question 23: The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was
A. scarce freely by the colonists B. coined freely by the colonists
 C. used extensively for trade D. supplied by England
Question 24: The Massachusetts Bay Colony was allowed to make coins
A. continuously from the inception of the colony B. for a short time during one year
C. from 1652 until the Revolutionary War D. throughout the seventeenth
century
Question 25: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a substitute for money
during the colonial period?
A. Tobacco B. Cotton C. Wampum D. Beaver furs
Question 26: According to the passage, what happened to the American monetary system
during the Revolutionary War?
A. The Continental Congress issued gold and silver coins.
B. American money replaced trade in goods and foreign coins.
C. Individual states were not allowed to issue money.
D. So much paper money was circulated that it lost its value.
Question 27: How was the monetary system arranged in the Constitution?
A. Various state governments, including Massachusetts, could issue money.
B. The dollar was made the official currency of the U.S.
C. The U.S. officially went on a bimetallic monetary system.
D. Only the U.S. Congress could issue money.
Question 28: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the bimetallic
monetary system?
A. Gold could be exchanged for silver at a rate of 16 to 1.
B. It was established in 1792.
C. The monetary system was based on two metals.
D. Either gold or silver could be used as official money.
Exercise 5. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Just two months after the flight of Apollo 10, the Apollo 11 astronauts made their
historic landing on the surface of the Moon. This momentous trip for humanity also provided
scientists with an abundance of material for study; from rock and soil samples brought back
from the Moon, scientists have been able to determine much about the composition of the
Moon (as well as to draw) inferences about the development of the Moon from its
composition.

The Moon soil that came back on Apollo 11 contains small bits of rock and glass which
were probably ground from larger rocks when meteors impacted with the surface of the Moon.
The bits of glass are spherical in shape and constitute approximately half of the Moon soil.
Scientists found no trace of animal or plant life in this soil.

In addition to the Moon soil, astronauts gathered two basic types of rocks from the
surface of the Moon: Basalt and breccia. Basalt is a cooled and hardened volcanic lava common
to the Earth. Since basalt is formed under extremely high temperatures, the presence of this
type of rock is an indication that the temperature of the Moon was once extremely hot. Breccia,
the other kind of rock brought back by the astronauts, was formed during the impact of falling
objects on the surface of the Moon. It consists of small pieces of rock compressed together by
the force of impact. Gases such as hydrogen and helium were found in some of the rocks, and
scientists believe that these gases were carried to the Moon by the solar wind, the streams of
gases that are constantly emitted by the Sun.
Question 29: It is implied in the passage that scientists believe that the gases found in the
Moon rocks
A. were not originally from the Moon
B. caused the Moon's temperature to rise
C. traveled from the Moon to the Sun
D. were created inside the rocks
Question 30: What does the word “It” refers to?
A. the impact B. the surface C. breccia D. the Moon
Question 31: The author's purpose in this passage is to
A. demonstrate the difference between basalt and breccia
B. explain some of the things learned from space flights
C. describe some rock and soil samples
D. propose a new theory about the creation of the Moon
Question 32: According to the passage, what does Moon soil consist of?
A. Large chunks of volcanic lava. B. Streams of gases.
C. Tiny pieces of stones and glass. D. Hydrogen and helium.
Question 33: The word 'emitted' in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. vaporized B. sent out C. separated D. set off
Question 34: According to the passage, breccia was formed
A. from volcanic lava B. when objects struck the
Moon
C. when streams of gases hit the surface of the Moon D. from the interaction of
helium and hydrogen
Question 35: What is the subject of this passage?
A. The Apollo astronauts B. Basalt and breccia
C. What the Moon is made of D. Soil on the Moon
Question 36: Which of the following was NOT brought back to the Earth by the astronauts?
A. Soil B. Breccia C. Plant life D. Basalt
Exercise 6. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Marianne Moore (1887-1972) once said that her writing could be called poetry only
because there was no other name for it. Indeed her poems appear to be extremely compressed
essays that happen to be printed in jagged lines on the page. Her subjects were varied: animals,
laborers, artists, and the craft of poetry. From her general reading came quotations that she
found striking or insightful. She included these in her poems, scrupulously enclosed in quotation
marks, and sometimes identified in footnotes. Of this practice, she wrote, "Why many
quotation marks?" I am asked ... When a thing has been so well that it could not be said better,
why paraphrase it? Hence, my writing is, if not a cabinet of fossils, a kind of collection of flies in
amber." Close observation and concentration on detail and the methods of her poetry.

Marianne Moore grew up in Kirkwood, Missouri, near St. Lois. After graduation from
Bryn Mawr College in 1909, she taught commercial subjects at the Indian School in Carlisle,
Pennsylvania. Later she became a librarian in New York City. During the 1920’s she was editor
of The Dial, an important literary magazine of the period. She lived quietly all her life, mostly in
Brooklyn, New York. She spent a lot of time at the Bronx Zoo, fascinated by animals. Her
admiration of the Brooklyn Dodgers-before the team moved to Los Angeles-was widely known.

Her first book of poems was published in London in 1921 by a group of friends
associated with the Imagist movement. From that time on her poetry has been read with
interest by succeeding generations of poets and readers. In 1952 she was awarded the Pulitzer
Prize for her Collected Poems. She wrote that she did not write poetry for money or fame. To
earn a living is needful, but it can be done in routine ways. One writes because one has a
burning desire to objectify what it is indispensable to one's happiness to express.
Question 37: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Essayists and poets of the 1920's. B. The use of quotations in poetry.
C. Marianne Moore's life and work. D. The influence of the Imagists on Marianne
Moore.
Question 38: Which of the following can be inferred about Moore's poems?
A. They were all published in The Dial.
B. They tend to be abstract.
C. They are better known in Europe than the United States.
D. They do not use traditional verse forms.
Question 39: According to the passage, Moore wrote about all of the following EXCEPT
A. artists B. workers C. animals D. fossils
Question 40: What does Moore refer to as "flies in amber" (paragraph 1)?
A. Concentration on detail. B. Poetry in the twentieth-century.
C. A common image in her poetry. D. Quotations within her poetry.
Question 41: The author mentions all of the following as jobs held by Moore EXCEPT
A. librarian B. commercial artist C. teacher D. magazine
editor
Question 42: Where did Moore spend most of her adult life?
A. In Carlisle B. In Kirkwood C. In Los Angeles D. In Brooklyn
Question 43: The word “it” in the third paragraph refers to
A. writing poetry B. earning a living C. becoming famous D. attracting
readers
Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that Moore wrote because she
A. was dissatisfied with what others wrote B. wanted to win awards
C. wanted to raise money for the Bronx Zoo D. felt a need to express herself
Exercise 7. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
For a century before the Erie Canal was built, there was much discussion among the
general population of the Northeast as to the need for connecting the waterways of the Great
Lakes with the Atlantic Ocean. A project of such monumental proportions was not going to be
undertaken and completed without a supreme amount of effort.

The man who was instrumental in accomplishing the feat that was the Erie Canal was
Dewitt Clinton. As early as 1812, he was in the nation's capital petitioning the federal
government for financial assistance on the project, emphasizing what a boon to the economy of
the country the canal would be; his efforts with the federal government, however, were not
successful.

In 1816, Clinton asked the New York State Legislature for the funding for the canal, and
this time he did succeed. A canal commission was instituted, and Clinton himself was made
head of it. One year later, Clinton was elected governor of the state, and soon after,
construction of the canal was started.

The canal took eight years to complete, and Clinton was on the first barge to travel the
length of the canal, the Seneca Chief, which departed from Buffalo on October 26, 1825, and
arrived in New York City on November 4. Because of the success of the Erie Canal, numerous
other canals were built in other parts of the country.

Question 45: The pronoun “it” in the 3rd paragraph refers to which of the following?
A. The canal B. The New York State Legislation
C. The state governor D. The commission
Question 46: When did Clinton ask the U.S. government for funds for the canal?
On hundred years before the canal was built.
A. In 1812 B. In 1825
C. In 1816 D. On hundred years before the canal was
built.
Question 47: The Seneca Chief was
A. the nickname of Buffalo B. the name of the canal
C. Clinton’s nickname D. the name of a boat
Question 48: The information in the passage
A. is in chronological order B. is organized spatially
C. gives a cause followed by an effect D. lists opposing viewpoints of a problem
Question 49: The word “boon” in the 2nd paragraph is closest in meaning to
 A. Disadvantage B. Benefit C. Cost D. Detriment
Question 50: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses
A. the effect of the Erie Canal on the Buffalo area
B. Clinton's career as governor of New York
C. the century before the building of the Erie Canal
D. canals in different U.S locations
Question 51: Where in the passage does the author mention a committee that worked to
develop the canal?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph
C. The fourth paragraph D. The third paragraph

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