Aiims Question Paper 2017

AIIMS-28-May-2017
Physics
1. A bus starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration
8 ms −2 . At the same time, a car travelling with the constant
velocity 16 m s and passes the bus. After how much time and
at what distance, the bus overtakes the car?
(a)=t 4=
s, d 64 m
(b)=t 5=
s, d 72 m
(c)=t 8=
s, d 58 m
(d) None of the above
2. Consider a planet in solar system which has the mass double

mass of the earth and density equal to the average density of
the earth. An object weighing W on the earth will weight
(a) W
(b) 2W
W
(c)
2
(d) 21/3 W at the planet
3. An interference pattern is observed by Young’s double slit
experiment. If now the separation between the coherent sources
is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent
source is double, the now fringe width
(a) Become double
(b) Become one-fourth
(c) Remains same
(d) Becomes four times
4. A lift is moving in upward direction. The total mass of the lift

and the passenger is 1600 kg . The variation of the velocity of
the lift is as shown in the figure. The tension in the rope at
t = 8 s will be
(a) 11200 N
(b) 16000 N
(c) 48000 N
(d) 12000 N
5. A series R-C circuit is connected to AC voltage source.

Consider two cases; (A) when C is without a dielectric medium
and (B) when C is filled with dielectric of constant 4. The
current I R through the resistance and voltage VC across the
capacitor are compared in two cases. Which of the following is
true?
(a) I RA > I RB
(b) I RA < I RB
(c) VCA < VCB
(d) None of these
6. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

followed by a corresponding statement of reason.
Assertion:(A) Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron
but its emission spectrum has many lines.
Reason:Only Lyman series is found in the absorption spectrum
of hydrogen atom whereas in the emission spectrum, all the
series are found.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct
explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not
correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
7. ( )
− k yî + xˆj , where k is a positive constant, acts on
A force F =
a particle moving in the xy-plane. Starting from the origin, the

particle is taken along the positive x-axis to the point ( a, 0 ) and
then parallel to the y-axis to the point ( a, a ) . The total work
done by the force on the particles is

(a) −2ka 2
(b) 2ka 2
(c) − ka 2
(d) ka 2
8. The escape velocity from the earth is about 11 kms -1 . The
escape velocity from a planet having twice he radius and the
same mean density as the earth is
(a) 22 kms -1
(b) 22 kms -1
(c) 22 kms -1
(d) 22 kms -1
9. Four blocks of same mass connected by a string are pulled by a

force F on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in the figure.
The tension T1 , T2 , T3 will be,
1 3 1
(a)
= T1 =F , T2 = F , T3 F
4 2 4
1 1 1
(b)
= T1 =F , T2 = F , T3 F
4 2 2
3 1 1
(c)
= T1 =F , T2 = F , T3 F
4 2 4
3 1 1
(d)
= T1 =F , T2 = F , T3 F
4 2 2
10. What is the maximum height attained by a body projected with

a velocity equal to one-third of the escape velocity from the
surface of the earth? (Radius of the Earth=R)
R
(a)
2
R
(b)
3
R
(c)
5
R
(d)
8
11. A particle having a charge 10 mC is held fixed on a horizontal

surface. A block of mass 80 g and having charge stays in
equilibrium on the surface at the distance of 3 cm from the first
charge. The coefficient of friction between the surface and the
block is 0.5. Find the range within the charge on the block may
lie
(a) −4 × 10−9 C to 4 × 10−9 C
(b) −2 × 10−9 C to 2 × 10−9 C
(c) −4 × 10−19 C to 4 × 10−19 C
(d) −2 × 10−19 C to 2 × 10−19 C
12. A tube of sugar solution is 20 cm long is placed between

crossed nicols and illuminated with light of wavelength
6 × 10−5 cm . If the optical rotation produced is 13° and the
specific rotation is 65° , determine the strength of the solution
(a) 0.1 g cc
(b) 0.2 g cc
(c) 0.9 g cc
(d) 1.0 g cc
13. A stone is moved in a horizontal circle of radius 4m by means

of a string at the height of 20m above the ground. The string
breaks and the particles fliesoff horizontally, striking the
ground 10m away. The centripetal acceleration during circular
motion is given by
(a) 6.25 ms −2
(b) 12.5 ms −2
(c) 18.75 ms −2
(d) 25 ms −2
14. Two satellites S1 and S2 are revolving around a planet in

coplanar circular orbits of radius r1 and r2 in the same
direction, respectively. Their respective periods of revolution
are 1h and 8h. The radius of orbit of satellite S1 is equal to
104 km . What will be their relative speed (in km/h) when they
are closest?
(a) π 2 × 104
(b) π × 104
(c) 2π × 104
(d) 4π × 104
15. A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible

fluid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is then
rotated in horizontal plane about one of its end with a uniform
angular velocity ω . The force exerted by the liquid at the other
end
1
(a) M ω 2 L2
2
(b) M ω 2 L
1
(c) Mω2L
4
1
(d) Mω2L
2
16. The coefficient of cubical expansion of mercury is

0.00018 / °C and that of brass is 0.00006 / °C . If a barometer
having a brass scale were to read 74.5 cm at 30°C , find the
true barometric height at 0°C . The scale is supposed to be
correct at 15°C
(a) 74.122 cm
(b) 79.152 cm
(c) 42.161 cm
(d) 142.39 cm
17. The particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant
radius r such that its centripetal acceleration ac is varying with
time t as ac = k 2 rt 2 , where k is a constant. The power
delivered to particle by the force acting on it is
(a) 2π mk 2 r 2t
(b) mk 2 r 2t
1 4 25
(c) mk r t
3
(d) Zero
18. Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using three

different metal plates p, q and r having work functions
Qs = 20eV , Qq = 2.5eV and Qr = 3.0eV are respectively. A
light beam containing wavelength of 550 nm, 450 nm and 350
nm with equal intensities illuminates each of the plates. The
correct I-V graph of the experiment is ( take hc = 1240 eV nm )
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
19. A boy is pushing a ring of mass 3 kg and radius 0.6 m with a

stick as shown in figure. The stick applies a force of 3N on the
ring and rolls it without slipping with an acceleration of
0.4 m s 2 . The coefficient of friction between the ground and
the ring is large enough that rolling always occur and the
F
coefficient of friction between the stick and the ring is . The
10
value of F is
(a) 2 N
(b) 4 N
(c) 6 N
(d) 3 N
20. A long mass m is fall from the height h on the scale pan hung
from the spring as shown. If the spring constant is k and the
mass of pan is zero and the mass m does not bounce relative to
the pan, the amplitude of the vibration is
(a) mg
mg 2hk
(b) 1+
k mg
mg mg 1 + 2hk
(c) +
k k mg
21. A simple pendulum is setup in a trolley which moves to the

right with an acceleration a on a horizontal plane. Then, the
thread of the pendulum in the mean position makes an angle
with the vertical
a
(a) tan −1 in the forward direction
g
a
(b) tan −1 in the backward direction
g
g
(c) tan −1 in the backward direction
a
g
(d) tan −1 in the forward direction
a
22. A conductor lies along the x-axis at −1.5 ≤ Z ≤ 1.5 m carries a

fixed current of 10.0 A in − az direction as shown in the figure
for the field B= 3 × 10−4 e −0.2 x a yT , the total power required to
the move the conductor at constant speed to x = 2.0 m , y = 0 m

in 5 × 10−3 s is (Assume parallel motion along the x-axis)
(a) 1.57 W
(b) 2.97 W
(c) 4.45 W
(d) 9.87 W
23. A rod of length 10 cm lies along principle axis of a concave
mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that the end closer
to the pole is 20 cm away from it. Find the length of the image
(a) 2 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) 6 cm
24. A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of 105 Vm −1

between the plates. If the charge on the capacitor plates is 1μC ,
the force on each capacitor plate is
(a) 0.5 N
(b) 0.05 N
(c) 0.005 N
(d) None of these
25. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a

battery and charge to the potential difference V another
capacitance of 2C is connected to the another battery is
charged to potential difference 2V. the charging batteries are
now disconnected and the capacitors are connected in parallel
to each other in such a way that the positive terminal of the one
is connected to the negative terminal of other. The final energy
of the configuration is
(a) Zero
25CV 2
(b)
6
3CV 2
(c)
2
9CV 2
(d)
2
26. Assume that the nuclear binding energy per nuclear (BA)
versus mass number (A) as shown in the figure. Use this plot to
choose the correct choice (s) given below
(a) Fusion of two nuclei with the mass number lies in the range
of 51. The change in internal energy of the gas during the
transition is
(a) 20 kJ
(b) 12 kJ
(c) −20 kJ
(d) 20 J
27. A nuclear explosive is designed to deliver 1 MW power in the

form of heat energy. If the explosion if designed with nuclear
fuel consisting of U 235 to run a reactor at this power level for
one year, then the amount of fuel needed is (Given energy per
fission is 200 MeV)
(a) 1 kg
(b) 0.01 kg
(c) 3.84 kg
(d) 0.384 kg
28. If the intensities of two interfering beams in Young’s double
slit experiment are I1 and I 2 then the contrast between the
maximum and minimum intensities are good when
(a) I1 − I 2 is large
(b) I1 − I 2 is small
(c) Either I1 or I 2 is zero

(d) I1 = I 2
29. The effective resistance between p and q is the given figure is
(a) 2Ω
(b) 3Ω
(c) 5Ω
(d) 6Ω
30. The charges +q and –q are places at the points A and B
respectively which are a distance 2L apart, C is the mid-point
between A and B. the work done in moving a change +Q along
the semicircle CRD is
qQ
(a)
4πε 0 L
qQ
(b)
2πε 0 L
qQ
(c)
6πε 0 L
− qQ
(d)
6πε 0 L
31. In the given Figure, C is the middle point of line S1S 2 . A

monochromatic light of wavelength a is incident of slits. The
ratio of intensities of S3 and S4
(a) 0
(b) ∞
(c) 4 :1
(d) 1: 4
32. A simple telescope, consisting of an objective of focal length

60 cm and a single eye lensof focal length 5 cm is focused on a
distant object in such a way that parallel rays emergefrom the
eye lens. If the object subtends an angle of at the objective, the
angular width ofthe image is
(a) 10°
(b) 24°
(c) 50°
1
(d) °
6
33. A specimen of silicon is to be made P-type semi-conductor for
this one atom of indium, on an average, 5 × 107 silicon atoms.
If the number density of silicon is 5 × 1022 atom m3 . Then the
number of acceptor atom per cm3 will be

(a) 2.5 × 1030
(b) 1.0 × 1030
(c) 1.0 × 1013
(d) 2.5 × 1036
34. The angle of dip if dip needle oscillating in vertical plane

makes 40 oscillations per minute in a magnetic meridian and
30 oscillations per minute in vertical plane at right angle to the
magnetic meridian is
(a) θ = sin −1 ( 0.5625 )
(b) θ = sin −1 ( 0.325 )
(c) θ = sin −1 ( 0.425 )
(d) θ = sin −1 ( 0.235 )

35. A semi conductor has an electron concentration of
8 × 1013 per cm3 and a hole concentration of 5 × 1012 per cm3 .
The electron mobility is 25000 cm 2 V -1s -1 and the hole mobility

is 100 cm 2 V -1s -1 . Then,
(a) The semiconductor is n-type.
(b) the conductivity is 320 m mho cm −1
(c) both (a) and (b)
36. The young’s double slit experiment is performed with blue and
green lights of wavelength 4360 Å and 5460 Å respectively. If
x is the distance of 4th maxima from the central one, then
(a) xblue = xgreen
(b) xblue > xgreen
(c) xblue < xgreen

(d) xblue / xgreen
37. The proper combination of 3 NOT gate and 1 NAND gate is
A 0,=
shown. If= B 1,=
C 1 then the output of the combination
is,
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) Not predictable
(d) None of these

Assertion: For looping a vertical loop of radius, r the
minimum velocity at point should be 5gr .
Reason: In this even the velocity at the highest point will be
zero.

Assertion: A beam of charged particles is employed in the
treatment of cancer.
Reason: Charge particle on passing through a material medium
lose their energy by causing ionization of the atom along their
path
40. The logic circuit as shown below has the input waveform A
and B as shown pick out the correct output waveform.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Assertion: The total kinetic energy of a rolling solid sphere is
the sum of rotational and translational kinetic energy.
Reason: For all solid bodies, total kinetic energy is always
twice of translational kinetic energy

Assertion: In He-Ne laser, population inversion takes place
between energy level of neon atoms.
Reason: Helium atom has a metastable energy level.

Assertion: The positive charged nucleus of an atom has a
radius of 10−15 m .
Reason: In α -particle scattering experiment, the distance of
closest approach for α particle is 10−15 m .
44. Assertion: The total kinetic energy of a rolling solid sphere is

the sum of translational and rotational kinetic energies.
Reason: For all solid bodies, total kinetic energy is always
twice of translational kinetic energy
45. Assertion: In He-Ne laser, population inversion takes place

between energy levels of neon atoms.
Reason: Helium atoms have metastable energy level.
46. Assertion: The positively charged nucleus of an atom has a

radius of almost 10−15 m .
Reason: In α particle scattering experimenting, the distance of
closest approach for α − particles is = 10−15 m .

Assertion: The average value of alternating emf is 63.39% of
the peak value.
Reason:The rms value of alternating emf is 70.72% of peak
value.

Assertion: Photoelectric effect can take place only with an
electron bound in the atom.
Reason: Electron is a fermion whereas proton is a boson.

Assertion: In an adiabatic process change in the internal
energy of the gas is equal to work done on or by the gas in the
process.
Reason: Temperature of a gas remains constant in adiabatic
process.

Assertion: In an adiabatic expansion process, work is done by
the gas at the cost of internal energy of the gas.
Reason: Temperature of a gas remains constant in adiabatic
process.

Assertion: Cyclotron does not accelerate electron.
Reason: Mass of the electron is very small.
Assertion: The phenomenon of X-ray production is basically
inverse of photoelectric effect.
Reason: X-rays are electromagnetic waves.

Assertion: The magnetic field at the end of very long current
carrying solenoid is half of that at the center.
Reason: The focal length of lens does not depends on color of
light used.

Assertion: The magnetism of the magnet is due to the spin
motion of electron.
Reason: The dipole moment of electron is smaller than that
due to orbit motion around nucleus.

Assertion: Electric conduction in gases is possible at normal
temperature.
Reason: The electric conduction in gases is dependent only on
the potential difference between the electrodes.

Assertion: Molecules of monoatomic gas has three degrees of
freedom.
Reason: Molecules of diatomic gas has five degrees of
freedom.

Assertion: Corpuscular theory fails in explaining the velocity
of light in air and water.
Reason: According to Corpuscular theory is that light should
travel faster in denser medium than rarer medium.

Assertion: In a decay atom number of daughter nucleus
reduces by 2 from the parent nucleus.
Reason:An Q-particle carries four units of mass.

Assertion: The focal length of lens does not change when red
light is replaced by blue light.
Reason: The focal length of lens does not depends upon colour
of the light used.
Assertion: Molar heat capacity cannot be defined for
isothermal process.
Reason: In isothermal process P-V versus T graph is a dot.
AIIMS-28-May-2017
Chemistry
61. A primary alcohol with a vapour density of 29 contained

=C 62.1%,
= H 10.3% and reacted with bromine to give a
derivative which =
contains C 16.5%,
= H 2.7%
and Ba = 73.4% . The structural formula of the compound is
(a) CH 3CH 2CH 2OH
(b) CH 3CH = CHOH
(c) CH
= 2 CH − CH 2OH
(d)
62. Total number of optically active forms in molecules with 'n'

number of asymmetric C-atoms and which are not divisible
into two equal halves is
(a) 2n
(b) 2n-1
( n-1)
(c) 2 2
n 
 −1
(d) 2 2 
63. In which of the following sets the order of boiling points are
incorrect?
(a) Xe > Ar > Ne
(b) HF > HCl > HBr
(c) H 2O > H 2Se > H 2S
(d) C3H 6 > C2 H 6 > CH 4
64. on ozonolysis gives
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
65. An allylide on hydrolysis gives allylene. The alkaline the earth
metal cation of allyhide dissolves in dry ether in the presence
of alkyl halide to form Grignard reagent. The allylide is
(a) Mg 2C2
(b) Ca 2C3
(c) MnC2
(d) MgB2
66. For the reaction

H 2 ( g ) + CO 2 ( g )  CO ( g ) + H 2O ( g ) , If the initial
concentration of [ H 2 ] = [ CO 2 ] and x mol/L of hydrogen is
consumed at equilibrium, the correct expression of kp is
x2
(a)
(1 − x )
2
x2
(b)
(2 + x)
2
x2
(c)
1 − x3
(1 + x )
2
(d)
(1 − x )
2
67. In the following reaction,
(A) and (B) are respectively, are
(a) Both are
(b) Both are
(c)
(d)
68. Arrange the following in the order of increasing value of the

equilibrium constant for hydration, K byd (smallest value first)
(a) 2 < 1 < 3
(b) 3 < 1 < 2
(c) 1 < 2 < 3
(d) 2 < 3 < 1
69. For the reaction,

2− pH x=2− pH y
=
Cr O 
2 7 4 → Cr2O72−
→ CrO 
(a) 4 and 5
(b) 4 and 8
(c) 8 and 4
(d) 8 and 9
70. The mass of potassium dichromate crystals required to oxidise

750 cm3 of 0.6 M Mohr's salt solution is
( Given, molar mass, potassium

= dichromate 294,
= Mohr's salt 392 )
(a) 0.39 g
(b) 0.37 g
(c) 22.05 g
(d) 2.2 g
71. Which of the following curve best explains the Freundlich

adsorption isotherm?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
72. In a gas lighter, mechanical energy is converted into electrical
energy by using crystals of barium titanate. Barium titanate is
(a) piezoelectric but not ferroelectric
(b) both piezoelectric as well as ferroelectric
(c) ferroelectric
(d) neither ferroelectric nor piezoelectric
73. Consider the following reactions
Here, X, Y and Z respectively, are

(a) XeF2 ,XeF6 ,XeF4
(b) XeF2 ,XeF4 ,XeF6
(c) XeF4 ,XeF2 ,XeF6
(d) XeF6 ,XeF4 ,XeF2
74. In the equation,

−
4M + 8CN − + 2H 2O + O 2 → 4  M ( CN )2  + 4OH −
Identify the metal (M)

(a) Au
(b) Fe
(c) Zn
(d) Cu
75. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other, they unite to
form one cube. Which of the following forces is responsible to
hold them together?
(a) van der Waals' forces
(b) Hydrogen bond formation
(c) Covalent attraction
(d) lonic interaction
76. Consider the following equation
The end product for the given sequence of reaction is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
77. For the reaction,

2NO + Br2 → 2NOBr
the following mechanism has been given
Fast
NO + Br2 → NOBr2
Slow
NOBr2 + NO  → 2NOBr
Hence, rate law is
(a) k [ NO ] [ Br2 ]
2
(b) k [ NO ][ Br2 ]
(c) k [ NOBr2 ][ NO ]
(d) k [ NO ][ Br2 ]
2
78. Consider the below given figure.
The correct option for the above presentation is

(a) activation energy of forward reaction is E1 + E2 and
product is less stable than reactant
(b) activation energy of forward reaction is E1 + E2 and
product is more stable than reactant
(c) activation energy for both forward and backward reaction
is reactant and reactant is more stable than product
(d) activation energy for the backward direction is E1 and
product is more stable than reactant
79. Arrange the elements Se, Cl and S in the increasing order of

ionisation energy
(a) Se > S > Cl
(b) SeCl
80. The nitrogen base which is present in RNA and absent in DNA
is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
81. The polymer used as packaging material in orthopaedic devices

and for controlled dry release is
(a) Kevlar
(b) PHBV
(c) Glyptal
(d) Bakelite
82. 3.5g of a mixture of NaOH and KOH were dissolved and made
up to 250 mL. 25 mL of this solution were completely
neutralised by 17 mL of (N/2) HCl solution. Then, the
percentage of KOH in mixture is
(a) 80
(b) 10
(c) 34
(d) 56
83. Which of the following does not represent the correct order of
the properties indicated?
(a) O −2 > Ne > Mg 2+ > Al3+ ( Size )
(b) N 3− > O 2− > F− > Na + ( Nuclear charge )
(c) Li > Be > B > C ( Electron gain enthalpy )
(d) Li < Na > K > Cs ( E )1

84. In van der Waals' equation of state for non-ideal gas, the term
that accounts for intermolecular force is
(a) (V = b)
( RT )
−1
(b)
 a 
(c)  p + 2 
 V 
(d) RT
85. Calculate the number of a and particles in the following

change.
235
92 U →a207
2 Pb
αβ
(a) 4 3
(b) 2 3
(c) 5 3
(d) 7 4
86. In the following reaction,

(a) Nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene
(b) Phenol and benzene
(c) Benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene
(d) Nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
87. The basic strength of
will be in order
(a) I < II < III
(b) II < III < I
(c) III < II < I
(d) III < I < II
88. Calculate the degree of hydrolysis and pH of 0.02M

ammonium cyanide ( NH 4CN ) at 298 K.
4.99 × 10−9 , K b NH 4OH =

K a of HCN = 1.77 × 10−5 J
(a) 8.2
(b) 3.2
(c) 9.3
(d) 3.9
89. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired d-

electrons?
(a) Fe 2+
(b) Cu +
(c) Zn
(d) Ni3+
90. Determine ∆G ο for the following reaction

1
CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g )
2
∆H ο =
−282.84 kJ given, Sο CO 2 =
213.8
Sο O 2 = 205.8 JK/mol
(a) −157.33 kJ
(b) +201.033 kJ
(c) −257.033 kJ
(d) +257.033 kJ
91. We have three aqueous solutions of NaCllabelled as (A), (B)

and (C) with concentration of 0.1 M, 0.01 M and 0.001 M,
respectively. The value of van't Hoff factor of these solutions
will be in order
(a) iA < iB < iC
(b) iA > iB > iC
(c) iA= iB= iC
(d) iA < iB > iC
92. Which transition in the hydrogen atomic spectrum will have

the same wavelength as the Balmer transition
(=
i.e. n to n 2 ) of He + spectrum
4=
(a)=n 4=
to n 3
(b)=n 3=
to n 2
(c)=n 4=
to n 2
(d)=n 2=
to n 1
93. A sample of a mixture of CaCl2 and Na 2CO3 and weighing
4.22 g was treated to precipitate all the Ca as CaCO3 .This
CaCO3 is heated and quantitatively converted into 0.959 g of
CaO. Calculate the percentage of CaCl2 in the mixture.
( Atomic mass of=

Ca 40,
= O 16,
= Cl 35.5 )
C 12 and=
(a) 55.28%
(b) 37.3%
(c) 45.00%
(d) 49.01%
94. Among the following, the true statements are

I. PH 5 and BiCl5 do not exist
II. pπ − dπ is present in SO 2 .
III. electrons travel with speed of light.
IV. SF4 and CH 4 has same shape.
V. I3+ has bent shape.
(a) I, III
(b) I, II, V
(c) I, III, V
(d) I, II, IV
95. In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A)
followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the
correct answer out of the following choice.
Assertion (A) At the end of electrolysis using platinum
electrodes, an aqueous solution of CuSO 4 turns colourless.
Reason (R) During the electrolysis CuSO 4 changes to
Cu ( OH )2 during electrolysis.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the
correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
96. pH of solution of a strong acid is 5.0. What will be the pH of

solution obtained after diluting the given solution to 100 times?
(a) 5.8
(b) 6.7
(c) 9.3
(d) 13
97. If at 298 K, the bond energies of C − H,C − C,C

= C and H − H
bonds are respectively 414, 347, 615 and 435 kJ mol−1 , the
value of enthalpy change for the reaction;
H 2C = CH 2 + H 2 ( g ) → H 3C − CH 3 ( g ) at 298 K. will be
(a) +250 kJ
(b) −250 kJ
(c) +125 kJ
(d) −125 kJ
98. The number of coulombs required to reduce 12.3 g of

nitrobenzene to aniline is
(a) 96500 C
(b) 5790 C
(c) 95700 C
(d) 57900 C
99. If 0.5 moles of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 moles of Na 3PO 4 , the
maximum number of moles of Ba 3 ( PO 4 )2 that can be formed
is
(a) 0.7
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.03
(d) 0.10
100.For the reaction,

A 2 ( g ) + 4B2 ( g )  2AB4 ( g ) , ∆H < 0 , the formation of AB,
will be favoured at
(a) low temperature, high pressure
(b) high temperature, low pressure
(c) low temperature, low pressure
(d) high temperature, high pressure
101.In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A)

Assertion (A) Ecell increases with increase in concentration of
Ag + ions.
Reason (R) Ecell has positive value.
102.In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A)

Assertion (A) Adding inert gas to dissociation equilibrium of
N 2O 4 at constant temperature and pressure increases the
dissociation.
Reason (R) Due to the addition of inert gas molar
concentration of reactants and products decreases.

Assertion (A) Buffer solution are composed of strong acids
and strong bases.
Reason (R) It maintain the pH to a constant value of 7.4.

Assertion (A) Generally alkali and alkaline earth metals form
superoxides.
Reason (R) There is a single bond between O and 0 in
superoxides.

Assertion (A) Superoxides of alkali metals are paramagnetic in
nature.
Reason (R) Superoxide contain the ion which has one
unpaired electron.

Assertion (A) Theionisation of hydrogen sulphide in water is
low in the presence of HCl.
Reason (R) H 2S is a weak acid.

Assertion (A) Nitration of salicylic acid gives picric acid by
elimination of CO 2 H group.
Reason (R) OH group is strongly activating group hence, SE
reaction takes place at o- and p-positions

Assertion (A) Presence of nitro group facilitates nucleophilic
substitution reactions in aryl halides.
Reason (R) The intermediate carbocation is stable due to
presence of nitro group.

Assertion (A) Glucose gives reddish brown precipitate with
Fehling solution.
Reason (R) Reaction of glucose with Fehling solution gives
CuO and gluconic acid.
Assertion (A) Proteins, starch and rubber are lyophilic
colloids.
Reason (R) They have strong interaction with the dispersion
medium.

Assertion (A) Pb 4+ compounds are stronger oxidising agents
than Sn 4+ compounds.
Reason (R) The higher oxidation state for group-14 elements
are more stable for the heavier members of the group due to
inert pair effect.

Assertion (A) Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution
with ease.
Reason (R) Hybridisation of C-atom attached to halide is
sp 3 − hybrid.

Assertion (A) Both vapour pressure and boiling point depends
on surface area of the liquid.
Reason (R) Higher the surface area, lower be the boiling point
whereas higher will be the vapour pressure.
Assertion (A) Black body is an ideal body that emits and
absorb radiations of all frequencies.
Reason (R) The frequency of radiations emitted by a body
goes from lower frequency to higher frequency with an
increase in temperature.

Assertion (A) Acyl halide are more reactive than acid
substance amide toward nucleophilic substitution.
Reason (R) X − are better leaving group than NH 2 .

Assertion (A) ∆H mixing and ∆Vmixing for non-ideal solution with
+ ve deviation is zero.
Reason (R) A-B interaction is more than that between A-A
and B-B.

Assertion (A) It is impossible to determine the exact position
and exact momentum of an electron, simultaneously.
Reason (R) The path of an electron is clearly defined.

Assertion (A) Benzaldehyde is more reactive than ethanol
towards nucleophilic attack.
Reason (R) The overall effect of –1 and + R effect of phenyl
group decreases the electron density on the carbon atom of
group in benzaldehyde.

Assertion (A) Complexes of MX 6 and MX 3L type (X and L
are unidentate) do not show geometrical isomerism.
Reason (R) Geometrical isomerism is not shown by complexes
of coordinate number -6.

Assertion (A) Whenacetamide reacts with NaOH and Br₂,
methyl amine is formed.
Reason (R) The reaction occurs through intermediate
formation of isocyanate.
AIIMS-28-May-2017
Biology
121. In which among the following animals, retrogressive

metamorphosis is found?
(a) Vertebrata
(b) Urochordata
(c) Invertebrates
(d) Chordates
122. Read the following statement regarding bacteria.

I. Bacteria exchange their genetic matter through
conjugation which involve cell to cell contact.
II. Transduction in 'Salmonella is reported by Tatum and
Lederberg in 1952.
III. Citrus canker disease is caused by bacteria
Xanthomonascitri.
IV. Hans Christian gram's staining method is based on cell
wall composition of bacteria.
Choose the correct option with true statements
(a) I and III
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and IV
123. Reproductive isolation in sympatric speciation develops

without a
(a) geographic barrier
(b) barrier to gene flow
(c) change in chromosome number
(d) barrier to mating
124. An example of gene therapy is

(a) production of injectable hepatitis-B vaccine
(b) production of vaccines in food crops like potatoes which
can be eaten
(c) introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in persons
suffering from Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
(SCID)
(d) production of test tube babies by artificial insemination
and implantation of fertilised eggs
125. In pea plants, green pod colour is dominant over yellow pods.
1000 seeds taken from a pea plant on germination produces
760 green pod and 240 yellow pod plants. The parental
genotype and phenotype of the seed plant are
(a) heterozygous and yellow
(b) heterozygous and green
(c) homozygous and yellow
(d) homozygous and green
126. Read the following statements regarding bryophytes and

choose the incorrect option.
(a) Gametophytic phase is dominant in life cycle
(b) Fertilisation takes place in presence of water
(c) Zygote undergoes meiosis to produce sporophyte
(d) Sporophyte is physiologically dependent on gametophyte
127. Classical Taxonomy is based on

(a) morphological traits
(b) habitat of organisms
(c) similarities and dissimilarities of behavior
(d) phylogeny
128. Dikaryotisation (n + n) in Agaricus is brought about by

(a) clamp connections
(b) somatogamay between two hyphae of different strains
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) basidiospores
129. Heterocyst present in Nostoc is specialised for

(a) fragmentation
(b) nitrogen-fixation
(c) symbiotic relation
(d) food storage
130. Which of the following plant growth hormone increases the

yield of sugar by increasing the length of stem in sugarcane?
(a) Cytokinin
(b) Ethylene
(c) Gibberellic acid
(d) Auxin
131. Match the following columns
Column I Column II
I. Multigenes (i) transposons
II. Inducible genes (ii) insulin
III. Overlapping (iii) B, E, and K in

genes φ ×174
IV. Structural genes (iv) snRNA
(v) globin gene
(vi) nitrate reductase
(a) I - (i), II - (iii), III - (v), IV - (ii)

(b) I - (v), II - (vi), III - (iii), IV - (ii)
(c) I - (iv), II - (v), III - (vi), IV - (i)
(d) I - (i), II - (ii), III - (v), IV - (vi)
132. Identify the correct matched pair.

(a) Segregation-Metaphase II
(b) Significance of meiosis–Production of genetically similar
cells
(c) Exchange of genetic material-Diakinesis
(d) Anaphase II of meiosis–Centromeric division
133. Which one of the following is the correct matching of a

vitamin, its nature and its deficiency disease?
(a) Vitamin-A - Fat soluble - Night blindness
(b) Vitamin K - Fat soluble - beri-beri
(c) Vitamin-A - Fat soluble-beri-beri
(d) Vitamin-K - Water soluble - Pellagra
134. Suppose, evolution on earth had occurred in such a way that

there are 96 amino acids instead of 20. DNA has 12 different
types of bases and DNA synthesis occurs in the same way as
today. The minimum number of bases per DNA codon would
be
(a) 12
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 3
135. Which one of the following option is correct regarding
digestion of food substrates?
Substrate Enzyme Site of Product
action
(a) Starch Amylase Stomach Maltose
(b) Protein Pepsin Duodenum Peptones
(c) Lipid Lipase Pancreas Fat globules
(d) Sucrose Invertase Duodenum Glucose and
Fructose
(a) Substrate - Starch, Enzyme - Amylase, Site Of Action -

Stomach, Product – Maltose
(b) Substrate - Protein, Enzyme - Pepsin, Site Of Action -
Duodenum, Product – Peptones
(c) Substrate - Lipid, Enzyme - Lipase, Site Of Action -
Pancreas, Product - Fat globules
(d) Substrate - Sucrose, Enzyme - Invertase, Site Of Action -
Duodenum, Product – Glucose and fructose
136. The preparation and flowering of leaves of tea and tobacco is
due to the activities of
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Bacillus megatherium
(c) Streptococcus lactis
(d) Acetobacteraceti
137. Gemmule formation is a common mode of asexual

reproduction in
(a) Paramecium
(b) Hydra
(c) Sponges
(d) Yeast
138. Inflorescence of which one of the following sets completely

develop into composite fruits?
(a) Spike, corymb, hypanthodium
(b) Spike, female catkin, hypanthodium
(c) Umbel, catkin, spadix
(d) Female catkin, corymb, spike
139. Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide?
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Xanthomonascampestris
(c) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV)
(d) Trichodermaharzianum
140. Which one of the following option is not correctly matched?

(a) Cymose Acacia
(b) Hypanthodium Banyan
(c) Cyanthium Euphorbia
(d) Verticillaster Calotropis
(a) Cymose – Acacia

(b) Hypanthodium – Banyan
(c) Cyathium – Euphorbia
(d) Verticillaster - Calotropis
141. Which one option is incorrectly matched regarding biological

magniècation of DDT in aquatic ecosystem.
(a) Small Fish - 0.5 ppm
(b) Large Fish - 2 ppm
(c) Fish-eating birds - 25 ppm
(d) Zooplankton - 0.003 ppm
142. The sequence of development during the formation of

endosperm is
(a) Archesporium -> Megaspore mother cell -- Megaspore —
Embryo sac
(b) Archesporium - Megaspore — Megaspore mother cell —
→ Embryo sac
(c) Megaspore →→ Archesporium — Megaspore Mother cell
— Embryo sac
(d) Megaspore mother cell —→ spore mother cell
Embryo spore mother cell Embryo sac
143. Identify the correct matches for crops and their improved
varieties
(a) Crops - Wheat, Varieties - Karan rai, Disease - White rust
(b) Crops - Cauliflower, Varieties - PusaShubhna, Disease -
Leaf and stipe rust
(c) Crops - Cowpea, Varieties - PusaKomal, Disease - Hill
bunt
(d) Crops - Chili, Varieties - PusaSadabahar, Disease -
Tobacco Mosaic virus and leaf curl
144. Refer to the following figures.
Match the following columns and choose the correct option

from the codes given below.
Column I Column II Column III
A. I. Paramecium I. kinetoplast
B. II. Euglena II. Trichocysts
C. III. Trypanosoma III. Astaxanthin
(a) A - 3-II, B - 1-III, C - 2-I

(b) A - 1-II, B - 3-I, C - 2-I
(c) A - 2-III, B - 1-II, C - 3-I
(d) A - 3-I, B - 2-II, C - 1-III
145. In Cycas
(a) ovule and microsporangia are present in same sporophyll
(b) micro and megasporophyllus are present in same cone
(c) male cone and megasporophylls are borne on the same
plant
(d) male cone and megasporophylls are borne on separate
individual plants
146. From the statements given below, which one most likely
represents an example of disruptive selection.
I. Industrial melanism in peppered moth.
II. Population of butteréiesthat are either all yellow or all
blue.
III. Population of rabbits that evolves more body fat in
response to a cold climate.
IV. Population of wrens that evolves to be smaller at sexual
maturity in response to predation pressure.
V. Very tall and very short pine trees being removed from
a population by herbivore.
(a) Only II
(b) II and III
(c) Only IV
(d) III and IV
147. Which of the following is the action of insulin?

(a) Blood glucose level increases by hydrolysing logistic
glycogen in liver
(b) Decreases blood sugar level by forming glycogen
(c) Increases blood glucose level by stimulating glucagon
production
(d) Increases blood glucose level by promoting cellular
uptake of glucose
148. In which of the following reactions of glycolysis, a molecule

of water is removed from the substrate?
(a) Glucose → Glucose-6-phosphate
(b) Fructose-6-phosphate Fructose-1,6 bisphosphate
(c) 2-phosphoglycerate → Phosphoenol pyruvate
(d) Phosphoenol pyruvate → Pyruvate
149. Which one is correct sequence occurring in glycolysis?

(a) G-6-P → PEP → 3-PGAL → 3-PGA
(b) G-6-P → 3-PGAL → 3-PGA → PEP
(c) G-6-P → PEP → 3-PGA → 3-PGAL
(d) G-6-P→ 3-PGA →3-PGAL → PEP
150. Match the larval stages (in column I) with their

corresponding animals (in column II) and select the correct
option.
Column I Column II
I. Planula (i) Holothuria (Sea
cucumber)
II. Trocophore (ii) Hermit crab
III. Glochideum (iii) Obelia I
IV. Glaucothoe (iv) NeresisII
(v) Unio
(a) I - (i), II - (iii), III - (v), IV - (iv)
(b) I - (iii), II - (iv), III - (v), IV - (ii)
(c) I - (i), II - (ii), III - (iii), IV - (iv)
(d) I - (iii), II - (i), III - (ii), IV - (v)
151. Identify the incorrect match from those given below

(a) Jelly Fish, Aurelia Aurita, Scyphozoa
(b) Paddle Worm, Chaetopterus, Polychaeta
(c) Cray Fish, Oniscus, Crustacea
(d) Acorn worm, Balanoglossus, Enteropneusta
152. A man whose father was colourblind marries a woman, who

had a colourblind mother and normal father. What
percentage of male children of this couple will be
colourblind?
(a) 25%
(b) 0%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%
153. The contraction of the muscle continues in sliding filament
theory
(a) till ATP binds to myosin head
(b) till ADP binds to myosin head
(c) till is present in sarcoplasm
(d) till polymerisation of myosin head is going on
154. The following are found in Taeniasolium, which one is the

correct sequence?
(a) Onchosphere, hexacanth, cysticercus, matured proglottid,
gravid
(b) Matured proglottid, cysticercus, gravid, onchosphere,
hexacauth
(c) Hexacanth, cysticercus, gravid, onchosphere, mature
proglottid
(d) Gravid, onchosphere, cysticercus, hexacanth, mature
proglottid
155. Which of the following process of urine formation takes

place all along the renal tubule and collecting duct?
(a) Ultrafiltration and tubular reabsorption
(b) Ultrafiltration and tubular secretion
(c) Tubular reabsorption and secretion
(d) Anti-current mechanism and reabsorption
156. Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates into oxygen and

deoxyhaemoglobin at
(a) low pressure in tissue
(b) high pressure in tissue
(c) equal pressure inside and outside tissue
(d) all times irrespective of pressure
157. Which one of the following pairs is the matching pair of the
part and the hormone it secretes?
(a) Anterior pituitary – Thyroxine
(b) Alpha cells of pancreas – Glucagon
(c) Thyroid – Epinephrine
(d) Stomach epithelium - Secretin
158. The best description of natural selection is

(a) the survival of the èttest
(b) the struggle for existence
(c) the reproductive of the members of a population best
adapted to the environment
(d) a change in the proportion of variations within a
population
159. The given below figure shows a generalized life cycle of a

fungus. Identify A, B, and C from the given option.
(a) A - Meiosis, B - Fertilisation, C – Mitosis

(b) A - Meiosis, B - Mitosis, C – Fertilisation
(c) A - Mitosis, B - Meiosis, C – Fertilisation
(d) A - Mitosis, B - Fertilisation, C - Meiosis
160. In man, in which part of the uriniferous tubule reabsorption

of glucose occurs?
(a) Collecting tube
(b) Henle's loop
(c) Distal convoluted tubule
(d) Proximal convoluted tubule
161. Read the Assertion and Reason carefully to mark the correct
option from those given below
Assertion The structure given is the most important animal
steroid which is insoluble in water and chemically
unreactive.
Reason It is important because it is a structural components

of cells.
correct explanation of Assertion
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
162. Tyloses are ballon-like outgrowths in the lumen of secondary

xylem tracheids and vessel of duramen region. These are
actually
(a) outgrowth of vessels of xylem
(b) ingrowth of vessels
(c) ingrowth of xylem parenchyma
(d) swelling of xylem fibres for no function
Assertion Endosperm is formed by the fusion of one male
gamete and two polar nuclei.
Reason In pea, the endosperm remains the part of seed as it
is not completely used up during embryo development.
164. The fluid which is rich in calcium èbrinolysin and acid

phosphatase and contributes about 30% of the total volume
of semen, is released by
(a) Cowper's glands
(b) prostate gland
(c) seminal vesicles
(d) epididymis
Assertion Gross primary productivity is always more than net
primary productivity.
Reason Consumers exhibit secondary productivity in a
ecosystem.
Assertion Gene bank is a type of ex-situ conservation of
biodiversity.
Reason It involves maintaining stocks of viable seeds, living
growing plants, tissue culture, etc.
167. In each of the following questions statement of Assertion

is given followed by corresponding statement of Reason.
Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) Maize is an albuminous seed.
Reason (R) It's endosperm is completely absorb by its
growing embryo.
Assertion Claspers of cartilaginous fishes are analogous to
human penis.
Reason Both acts as a copulatory organ and transfer the
sperms into female.
Assertion The technique shown in the given figure is
frequently used in prenatal disease treatment.
Reason This technique cannot be used for sex-determination

of child.
170. In each of the following questions statement of Assertion is
given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of
the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) The rate of decomposition of detritus is
reduced in the regions of high altitude.
Reason (R) It happen due to immobilisation of nutrients.
Assertion The structure given below contains 1 - 4α -
glycosidic bonds.
Reason This is a polysaccharide and have right end as
reducing end and its left end is called the non-reducing end.

Assertion (A) A chemical substance fertilizin is founded in
the egg of animals.
Reason (R) It helps in the maturation of embryo after
fertilisation.
Assertion Besides curdling of milk, LAB also improve its
nutritional quality, by increasing vitamin – B12
Reason LAB check disease causing microbes when it is
present in human stomach.
Assertion Urinary bladder is lined by transitional epithelium.
Reason Transitional epithelium keeps the size of the urinary
bladder constant at all time.

Assertion (A) Theimmunoglobuline, which cannot pass
through placenta and such foetus is IgM.
Reason (R) IgM is a pentamerimmunoglobuline joined by J-
chain.
Assertion Arteries pump blood away from the heart at very
low pressure. Reason Arteries have thin wall with large
lumen.
Assertion Arrival of an impulse at the axon terminal
stimulates the release of
neurotransmitters in synaptic cleft.
Reason These neurotransmitters are responsible for the
opening of ion channels.

Assertion (A) In ECG graph of heart pulse 'R' is the peak
point.
Reason (R) It shows the atrial depolarisation which takes
0.3 seconds.
Assertion Hexokinase require divalent cation Mg2+
Reason Mg2+ or Mn2+ combines with ATP to form
MgATP2+.

given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of the
statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) In TCA cycle isomerisation of citric acid into
isocitric acid is done by change in CO2 (C00⁻) position.
Reason (R) Isocitric acid is more stable than citric Acid.
AIIMS-28-May-2017
General knowledge
181. Which of the following is a river flowing from central India

and joining Yamuna/Ganga?
(a) Ganga
(b) Gomti
(c) Kosi
(d) Betwa
182. Which of the following is essential for blood clooting?

(a) RBC
(b) WBC
(c) Blood platelets
(d) Lymphs
183. A Viceroy upon whom a bomb was thrown. But he did not
change his attitude towards the Indians, was
(a) Lord Hardinge
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Chelmsford
184. What is the middle name of the world class batsman Sachin
Tendulkar?
(a) Rohan
(b) Ramesh
(c) Rahul
(d) Ravi
185. Who among the following was awarded the first Tagore Award
for Cultural Harmony for the year 2012?
(a) Jasraj
(b) Ravi Shankar
(c) Nikhil Bannerjee
(d) Bhimsen Joshi
186. Miss Universe 1995, Ms Sushmita Sen hails from which of the
following cities?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Bengaluru
(d) New Delhi
187. The country recently announced by WHO as a ‘malaria-free

country’ is
(a) India
(b) Australia
(c) China
(d) Sri Lanka
188. The constitution names our country as

(a) Bharat
(b) India, that is Bharat
(c) Hindustan
(d) Aryavarta
189. When did Amitav Ghosh awarded with Padma Shri?

(a) 2007
(b) 2009
(c) 2005
(d) 2006
190. Who presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) President
(b) Vice president
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker
191. ‘Emotionally Yours’ is the punch line of

(a) Raymond
(b) Orange
(c) Sahara
(d) Sansui
192. Who is Taniya Sachdev?

(a) Dancer
(b) Chess player
(c) Cricketer
(d) Actress
193. Sanjay Dutt, a noted film actor was held under

(a) Act 302
(b) Anti Defection Act
(c) TADA
(d) None of these
194. The number of DNA molecules per chromatid is/are

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
195. Who has won the greatest number of of Oscars in his life time?
(a) Ingrid Bergman
(b) David Leon
(c) Charlie Chaplin
(d) Wall Disney
196. Private sector lender IDFC Bank has appointed whom on its
board as independent director?
(a) Anand Sinha
(b) Rahul Gandhi
(c) Umesh Chnadra Sarangi
(d) Vinod Rai
197. Leander Paes is associated with

(a) Football
(b) Cricket
(c) Badminton
(d) Tennis
198. Who has been appointed as Chief Product and Technology

officer for Reality startup Housing.com on 17th August, 2016?
(a) Vivek Singh
(b) Vivek Sharma
(c) Vivek Mehta
(d) Vivek Jain
199. The famous novel “Pride and Prejudice” is written by

(a) RL Stevenson
(b) George Eliot
(c) Charles Dickens
(d) Jane Austen
200. Who wrote the book ‘A passage to India’?
(a) Minoo Masani
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Victor Banerjee
(d) EM Forster
AIIMS-2017
Answer key
1 a 31 b 61 c 91 b 121 c 151 a 181 d

2 d 32 b 62 a 92 c 122 b 152 c 182 c
3 d 33 c 63 a 93 b 123 c 153 a 183 a
4 a 34 a 64 d 94 d 124 a 154 b 184 b
5 b 35 c 65 d 95 d 125 c 155 c 185 b
6 b 36 c 66 c 96 d 126 b 156 b 186 d
7 c 37 a 67 c 97 a 127 c 157 d 187 d
8 a 38 c 68 d 98 b 128 b 158 a 188 b
9 c 39 a 69 b 99 a 129 d 159 c 189 a
10 d 40 a 70 b 100 d 130 a 160 c 190 b
11 a 41 c 71 a 101 d 131 c 161 b 191 c
12 a 42 b 72 b 102 a 132 d 162 b 192 b
13 a 43 a 73 b 103 b 133 b 163 a 193 c
14 b 44 c 74 a 104 a 134 c 164 c 194 a
15 d 45 b 75 a 105 a 135 b 165 a 195 b
16 a 46 a 76 b 106 c 136 b 166 d 196 a
17 b 47 b 77 d 107 a 137 d 167 a 197 d
18 a 48 a 78 b 108 c 138 d 168 b 198 d
19 a 49 b 79 b 109 c 139 a 169 c 199 d
20 b 50 b 80 d 110 d 140 d 170 b 200 d
21 b 51 c 81 c 111 b 141 c 171 c
22 b 52 d 82 d 112 b 142 d 172 a
23 c 53 b 83 c 113 d 143 a 173 d
24 b 54 a 84 a 114 c 144 b 174 b
25 c 55 a 85 c 115 a 145 c 175 c
26 c 56 d 86 a 116 c 146 b 176 a
27 d 57 b 87 c 117 a 147 b 177 d
28 d 58 c 88 c 118 b 148 c 178
29 b 59 a 89 d 119 b 149 a 179
30 d 60 b 90 c 120 a 150 c 180
AIIMS-28-May-2017
Solutions – Physics
1. The expression for distance covered bus to overtake car is

given by,
1
d= ut + at 2
2
Substitute 0 for u and 8 for a in above expression.
1
=d u (0) + (8) t 2
2
= 4t 2
The distance covered by uniform motion of the car is given by,
d = vt
= 16t …… (I)
When bus overtake both the distances will be same so,
4t 2 = 16t
t =4s
Substitute 4 for t in equation (I).
d = 16 ( 4 )
= 64 m
Therefore, the correct option is (a).
2. The density of the planet is same to the average density of the
earth so,
MP M
=
( RP ) ( R)
3 3
1
RP = R 3
The weight of the object at the planet will by the force of

gravitation at the planet given by,
GMm
W= …… (I)
R2
The mass at the planet is twice the mass of the earth.
Consider equation (I), the weight is inversely proportional to
square of the radius. So,
WP R 2
= 2
W RP
R2
= 2
R 3
2
W=
P 1
⋅W
4 3
1
= 2 ⋅W 2
Therefore, the correct option is (d).

3. The fringe width in young’s double slit experiment is given by,
λD
β=
d
d
Substitute 2D for D and for d in above expression.
2
λ 2D
β′ =
d
2
4λ D
=
d
= 4β
4. Consider the diagram,
The curve is decelerating at t = 8 s so, the acceleration will be

negative thus tension is,
T m( g − a)
= …… (I)
The acceleration is the slope of above curve given by,

12 − 0
= 3 m s2
10 − 6
Substitute 3for a , 10 for g and 1600 for m in equation (I).
=T 1600 (10 − 3)
= 11200 N
5. The impedance for first case is given by,

2
2 1 
ZA
= R + 
 ωC 
The impedance for second case is given by,
2
 1 
ZB
= R2 +  
 kω C 
This implies Z A > Z B which is equivalent to I RB > I RA because
impedance is inversely proportional to current.
6. It is true that hydrogen atom has only one electron but its
emission spectrum has many line but the reason mentioned is
also true but it is not the correct explanation for the assertion.
Therefore, the correct option is (b).
7. The given expression is,

− k yî + xˆj
F= ( )
Since the particle is moving in x-y plane so, the displacement
is,
= dxî + dyˆj
dr
The work done is given by,
W
= ∫ F ⋅ dr
This implies,
( )( )
a
W =∫ − k yî + xˆj ⋅ dxî + dyˆj
0
a
∫ k ( yd + xy )
=−
0
a
= ∫ − kd ( xy )
0
= −k ( a 2 )
Therefore, the correct option is (c).
8. The escape velocity is given by,

8π
Ve = Gρ R2
3
The escape velocity of planet with radius twice of the earth is
given by,
Vp RP
=
Ve Re
2 Re
=
Re
=2
Substitute 11 for Ve in above expression,
VP
=2
11
VP = 22kms −1
The total force is,

F = ( 4m ) a
The tension T1 pulls only three masses out of four so,

3
T1 = F
4
The tension T2 pulls only one mass out of four so,
2
T2 = F
4
1
= F
4
The tension T3 pulls only two masses out of four so,
1
T3 = F
4
10. From the conservation of momentum,

2
1  2 gR  mghR
m  =

2  3  R+h
1
( R + h) = h
9
R+h= 9h
R
h=
8
11. The maximum force that can get due to friction is,
mg µ = 0.08 kg (10 )( 0.5 )
= 0.4
The force between the two is given by,
Kq1q2
F=
r2
The force must be less than 0.4 N So,
9 × 109 × 0.01q1
0.4 >
0.032
q= 4 × 10−12 C
12. The expression for the strength of the solution is given by,
θ
C=
lα
Substitute 65° for α , 13° for θ and 2 dm for l in above
expression.
13°
C=
( 2 ) 65°
1
=
10
= 0.1 g cc
13. The time of flight of stone is given by,
2h
t=
a
2 ( 20 )
=
10
= 2 sec
The speed is given by,
R
v=
t
10
=
2
=5m s
The centripetal force is given by,
v2
F=
r
52
=
4
25
=
4
= 6.25 m s 2
14. According to the Kepler’s second law,

T 2α r 3
2
rα T 3
Consider above relation,

2
r1  1  3
= 
r2  8 
1
=
4
The relative velocity is given by,
Vrel
= V2 − V1
= r2ω2 − r1ω1
 2π  4  2π 
4 × 104 
=  − 10  
 8   1 
= π × 104 kmh −1
15. Let the length of the element of tube be dx .

The mass of the element is given by,
M
dm = dx
L
The force on the element is given by,
= dm × xω 2
dF
F L
M 2
∫0 dF =
L
ω ∫ xdx
0
MLω 2
=
2
16. Consider the expression,

H= H 0 (1 − ( r − α )(T2 − T1 ) )
Substitute 74.5 cm for H , 0.00018for r , 0.00006 for α , 0 for

T2 and 30 for T2 in above expression.
H 0 (1 − ( 0.00018 − 0.00006 )( 0 − 30 ) )
74.5 =
H 0  74.2 cm
≈ 74.1 cm
17. The centripetal acceleration is given y,

ac = k 2 rt 2
This implies,
v2
= k r rt 2
r
v = krt
The force is given by,
dv
F =m
dt
= mkr
The power is given by,
P= F ⋅ v
= ( mkr )( krt )
= m 2 r 2t
18. Consider the expression,

 1  hc 
=VB   − f
 e  l 
For P,
 1  1240 
=VP   − 2
 e  550 
= 0.2545 V
For q,
 1  1240 
=Vq   − 2.5 
 e  450 
= 0.255 V
For r,
 1  1240 
=Vq   − 3
 e  350 
= 0.5428 V
The work function is least for p and it can emit photoelectron
of all three wavelengths. Therefore, for this magnitude of
stopping potential and saturation current will be maximum.
19. The net horizontal force that cause acceleration is 0.4 m s 2 so,
3 − f1 =3 × 0.4
f1 = 1.8N
The angular acceleration is given by,
a
α=
r
0.4
=
0.6
The torque equation is,
τ = Iα
= mr 2α
0.4
( f1 − f 2 ) 0.6 =
3 ( 0.6 )
2
0.6
(1.8 − f 2 ) 0.6 =
0.72
f 2 = 0.6N
The coefficient of friction is given by,
0.6
µ=
3
= 0.2
F
= 0.2
10
F =2
20. From the conservation of energy,

1 2
mgh
= kx1 − mgx1
2
1 2
kx1 − mgx1 − mgh = 0
2
2mg 2mg
x12 − x1 − ⋅h =0
k k
2
2mg  2mg  2mg
±   + 4 × h
k  k  k
x1 =
2
The amplitude of vibration is given by,
A= x1 − x0
mg  2hk 
=  1+
k  mg 
ma
tan θ =
mg
a
=
g
a
θ = tan −1  
 g 
The net movement is in backward direction.
22. The work done is given by,

2
W = ∫ Fdx
0
2
= ∫ BIldx
0
2
∫
−4 −0.2 x
= 3.0 × 10 e × 10 × 3dx
0
2
= 9.0 × 10−3 ∫ e −0.2 x dx
0
Further simplify the above,

2
−3  e 
−0.2 x
= 9.0 × 10 
W 
 − 0.2 0
 e −0.2( 2) − 1 
−3
= 9.0 × 10  
 − 0.2 
2.97 × 10−3
= J
0.2
The power is given by,
2.97 × 10−3
P=
0.2 ( 5 × 10−3 )
= 2.97 W
23. The image position of end A is given by,

1 1 1
+ =
vA u A f
1 1 1
+ =
v A ( −20 ) ( −10 )
1 1
= −
vA 20
v A = −20 cm
The image position of end B is given by,
1 1 1
+ =
vb ub f
1 1 1
+ =
vB ( −30 ) ( −10 )
1 2
= −
vB 30
vB = −15 cm
The Length of image is given by,
L vA − vB
=
= 20 − 15
= 5 cm
24. The force of attraction between plates is given by,

1
F = QE
2
Substitute 10−6 for Q and 105 for E in above expression.
1
F=
2
(10−6 )(105 )
= 0.05 N
25. The energy stored in the capacitor is given by,

1
U = CeqVnet2
2
The equivalent capacitance of capacitance in parallel is,
Ceq= C + 2C
= 3C
Thus the energy stored is given by,
1
U= ( 3C )V
2
3
= CV 2
2
26. The change in internal energy is given by,

∆B= Bfinal − Binitial
Consider the figure,
The net change in the internal energy is,
∆B =−20 kJ
27. The energy per fission is given by,

ε = 200 MeV
= 200 × 1.6 × 10−13 J
= 3.2 × 1011 J
The total energy required for one year is given by,
E = Pt
= (1MW ) ( 3.15 × 107 s )
= 106 J s −1 ( 3.15 × 107 s )
= 3.15 × 1013 J
So, the number of fission required are given by,
E 3.15 × 1013 J
=
ε 3.2 × 1011 s
= 9.85 × 1023
Thus, the mass of uranium required is given by.
235
9.85 × 1023 × 23
g= 384.5 g
6.02 × 10
= 0.384 kg
28. The contrast between maximum and minimum intensity is

good when intensities of both the beams are same.
29. The resistance is added directly when connected in series and

they are added inversely when connected in parallel.
Consider the diagram,
The net resistance between p and q is 3Ω .

Therefore, the correct option is (b).
30. Consider the figure,
The potential at C is given by,
=VC
1  q
+
( −q ) 
 
4πε 0  AC BC 
1 q q
= −
4πε 0  L L 
=0
The potential at D is given by,
=VD
1  q
+
( −q ) 
 
4πε 0  AD BD 
1  q q
=  − 
4πε 0  3L L 
−q
=
6πε 0 L
The work done is given by,
W =[VD − VC ] ( +Q )
 −q 
=  − 0 ( Q )
 6πε 0 L 
− qQ
=
6πε 0 L
31. The ratio intensities is given by,

I 3 a32
=
I 4 a42
a2
= 2
0
= ∞
32. Consider the expression

f0 α
=
fe β
f0
α= (β )
fe
60 ( 2 )
=
5
= 24°
33. The number density of atom in silicon specimen is given by,
5 × 1028 atoms m3 =
5 × 1022 cm3
The one atom of indium is doppedin 5 × 107 Si atom . So the
number of indium atoms dopped per cm3 of silicon is given by,

5 × 1022
n=
5 × 107
= 1× 1015 atom cm3
34. The ratio of time periods in both planes is given by,

TH BV
=
TV BH
60
40 = BV
60 BH
30
1.5 BV
=
2 BH
2 2
 1.5   BV 
  = 
 2   BH 
Further simplify the above,

BV
0.5625 =
BH
The angle of dip for very small angle is given by,
BV
sin θ =
BH
= 0.5625
θ = sin −1 ( 0.5625 )
35. The conductivity of semiconductor is given by,

=σ ne µee + nhe µee
= ( 8 × 1013 × 25000 + 5 × 1012 × 100 ) × 1.6 × 10−19
= 320 × 10−3 mmoh cm
Here, ne < nh so, it is a n-type semiconductor.
36. Consider the equation,

xblue λ1
=
xgreen λ2
4360
=
5460
The above expression implies,
xblue < xgreen
A 0,=
The values are= B 1,=
C 1
Then the output will be 1. Therefore, the correct option is (a).
38. The assertion is true but the reason is false because the velocity
for vertical loop at highest point is not zero. So, the correct
option is (c).
39. It is true that the beam of charged particles is used in the

treatment of cancer because they lose their energy by ionization
of the atom when passed through a material medium. Thus, the
both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct
explanation of assertion. So, the correct option is (a).
40. By de Morgan’s theorem,

( A + B ) =A ⋅ B
The operational table is given as,
A B A B A+B A+B A⋅ B
1 1 0 0 0 1 1
0 0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 0 1 0 0
1 0 1 1 1 0 0
This is equivalent to AND Gate of A and B. Thus, option (a) is
correct.
41. It is true that the total kinetic energy of a rolling sphere is the
sum of transitional kinetic energy and rotational kinetic energy.
It is not compulsory for all solid bodies to have total kinetic
energy as twice of the transitional kinetic energy. So, the
correct option is (c).
42. Both assertion and reason are true but reason does not explain
assertion. So, the correct option is (b).
43. The approximate radius of the atom is 10−15 m so, the assertion
is true as In case of α -scattering closest approach can be
10−15 m . Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion. So, the correct option is (a).
44. The total KE of rolling solid sphere is sun of translational and

rotational KE. But it is not twice of the translational kinetic energy.
Therefore, assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
45. In He-Ne laser, population inversion takes place between

energy levels of neon atoms. But it is not because, the helium atoms
have metastable energy level. Therefore, assertion and reason both
are correct but it is not a correct explanation.
46. The positively charge nucleolus does have radius of order

10−15 m . The α − particle experiment the approach distance is
similar. Therefore, the both assertion and reason are correct and it is
a correct explanation.
47. The average value of alternating emf is 0.63 times the peak
value so, the assertion is true. The average rms value of
alternating emf is 0.707 times of the peak value so, reason is
also true but not correct explanation for assertion. Thus, the
correct option is (b).
48. For the photoelectric effect to occur it is required to have

electron bound in the atom. The electrons are bosons and
protons are fermions. So, the assertion is true but reason is
false. The correct option is (c).
49. It is true that for an adiabatic process the change is internal

energy is equal to work done on or by the gas. In an adiabatic
gas temperature of the gas do not remains constant. So, the
assertion is true but reason is false. The correct option is (c).
50. The work done in an adiabatic process is the result of change is

the energy. The product of p and V decreases in an adiabatic
process. So, both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
correct explanation for assertion. The correct option is (b).
51. The cyclotron do not accelerates the electron because the mass
of the electrons is very small. Thus, both assertion and reason
are true and reason is correct explanation for assertion. The
correct option is (a).
52. In case of X-ray the high energy electrons strikes surface of the
metal but in case of photoelectric effect they emit from the
surface so, the assertion is true. It is true that X-ray are
electromagnetic waves but it is not correct explanation for
assertion. The correct option is (b).
53. In case of X-ray the high energy electrons strikes surface of the
metal but in case of photoelectric effect they emit from the
surface so, the assertion is true. It is true that X-ray
areelectromagnetic waves but it is not correct explanation for
assertion. The correct option is (b).
54. The spin of the electrons is responsible for the magnetic

property of magnet. This is not true that dipole moment is
smaller than that due to orbit motion around nucleus. So, the
correct option is (c).
55. Both assertion and reason are false. Therefore, the correct
option is (d).
56. It is true that molecules of a mono-atomic gas has three degree

of freedom whereas the degree of freedom for diatomic gas is
five but reason is not correct explanation for assertion. so, the
correct option is (b).
57. The velocity of light in air and water is not explained by

Corpuscular theory because as per this theory light should
travel faster in denser medium than rarer medium. So, the
correct option is (a).
58. In a-decay, the atomic number of the daughter nucleus gets

reduced by 2 units from the parent nucleus. The correct option
is (a).
59. The focal length is a function of wavelength thus, when red

light is replaced by blue light focal length will get change. So,
the correct option is (d).
60. It is true that for an isothermal process molar heat capacity
cannot be defined. The graph of P-V vs T for an isothermal
process is a dot but it is not correct explanation for the
assertion. So, the correct option is (b).
AIIMS-28-May-2017
Solutions – Chemistry
61. The empirical formula is calculated as:

Element Percentage Atomic Relative Simplest
Composition weight number of atomic
ratio ratio
C 62.1 12 62.1 5.175
= 5.175 =3
12 1.725
H 10.3 1 10.3 10.3
= 10.3 =6
1 1.725
O 27.6 16 27.6 1.725
= 1.725 =1
16 1.725
Emprical formula is C3H 6O

The empirical formula weight can be calculated as:
Empirical formula weight = 12 × 3 + 6 + 16
= 58
We know that,
Molecular weight= n × Emprircal formula weight
2 × VD =×n 58
2 × 29 =n × 58
n =1
Moelcular formula = ( C3H 6O )n
= ( C3H 6O )1
= C3 H 6 O
Therefore, the structural formula is CH
= 2 CH − CH 2OH
62. Total number of optically active forms in molecules with 'n'

number of asymmetric carbon atoms and which are not
divisible into two equal halves is 2n . It is the general formula
for determining the stereoisomerism of any organic compound.
63. The boiling point of HF is highest due to the formation of H-

bonding. Therefore, the correct order of boiling point is as
follows:
HF > HBr > HCl
64. When methylenecyclopentane undergoes ozonolysis in the
presence of ozone, it forms cyclopentanone. The structure of
product is shown below:
65. The allylide is Mg 2C2 and magnesium is the alkaline earth

metal. They both combine and in the presence of dry ether, a
Grignard reagent ( R − MgX ) . is formed.
66. The given reaction is,

H 2 + CO 2 → CO + H 2O
Initial x x 0 0
Equilibrium 1 − x 1− x x x
KP =
( CO )( H 2O )
( H 2 )( CO2 )
x2
=
(1 − x )(1 − x )
x2
=
(1 − x )
2
67. When methylenecyclohexane undergoes hydrolysis, 1-
methylcyclohexanol (A) is formed.
When methylenecyclohexane reacts with reagents such as
B2 H 6 /THF , a product is formed which further undergoes
reaction with hydrogen peroxide to form cyclohexylmethanol
(B).
The products are shown below:
68. In structure (2), the hydration minimizes strain to a larger

extent and then in structure (3) followed by (1). Hence, the
correct order will be:
2 < 3 <1
69.= pH 8 =
Cr2O72−  pH 4
→ CrO 24−  → Cr2O72−
Cr2O72− + OH − ( basic ) → CrO 42−

CrO 24− + H + ( acidic ) → Cr2O72−
70. From Mohr’s salt
Cr2O72− + 14H + + 6e − → 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2O
6Fe 2+ + Cr2O72− + 14H + → 6Fe3+ + 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2O
750 × 0.6
Moles of Fe 2+ =
1000
= 0.450 mol
Therefore,
0.450 mol
6 moles of Fe 2+ =
6
= 0.075 mol of Cr2O72−
The mass required can be calculated as:
Mass
= 0.075 × 294 g
= 22.05 g
x
71. For Freundilich isotherm a graph of log is plotted against
m
x
log P.A graph of log versus P is shown below.
m
72. Barium titanate is used to light the stove. It acts as both
piezoelectric as well as ferroelectric. By using its crystals,
mechanical energy is transformed into electrical energy in a
gas lighter.
73. When Xe and F2 are present in excess, XeF2 is formed.

When Xe and F2 are present in 1:5 ratio, XeF4 is formed.
When Xe and F2 are present in 1:20 ratio, XeF6 is formed.
74. ‘M’ is gold (Au). The reaction is shown below.

−
4Au + CN + 2H 2O + O 2 → 4  Au ( CN )2  + 4OH −
−
75. One ice cube is formed due to the formation of hydrogen
bonding. The hydrogen bonding occurs when two ice cubes
approach each other.
76. When cyclohexene reacts with a reagent that is N-

BromoSuccinamide (NBS), Br gets attached at the allylic
position (para-position). Then, the formed product reacts with
Mg and form a Grignard reagent.
When Grignard reagent reacts with CH 3CN and undergoes
hydrolysis, 1-(cyclohex-2-enyl)ethanone (ketone) is formed as
shown below:
77. 2NO + Br2 → 2NOBr ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ( I )

Fast
NO + Br2 → NOBr2 ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ( II )
Slow
NOBr2 + NO  → 2NOBr ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ( III )
The slowest step determines the rate law of a reaction.
Slow
NOBr2 + NO  → 2NOBr
The rate law for the above reaction can be written as:
Rate = k [ NOBr2 ][ NO ]
The concentration of NOBr2 is an intermediate, hence, it will

not come in the equation.
The concentration of NOBr2 can be calculated from first
reaction as shown below:
K eq =
[ NOBr2 ]
[ NO][ Br2 ]
[ NOBr2 ] = K eq [ NO][ Br2 ]
By substituting, rate law can be calculated as:
Rate= k ⋅ K eq [ NO ][ Br2 ][ NO ]
= k ′[ NO ] [ Br2 ]
2
78. The graph is shown below:
The above graph shows that the activation energy of forward

reaction is equal to E1 + E 2 . The reactant is highly stable than
the product. Therefore, the correct statement is (a).
79. The ionization energy goes on increasing as we move from left
to right in a periodic table and decreases as we move top to
bottom. Therefore, the ionization energy of chlorine (Cl) is
greater than sulphur (S) and ionization energy of selenium (Se)
is less than sulphur.
Therefore, the correct order is:
Se < S < Cl
80. In RNA, the nitrogenous bases present are adenine, guanine,

uracil and cytosine. Cytosine is a nitrogenous base which is not
present in DNA. The structure of uracil is shown below:
81. PHBV polymer stands for Poly(3-hydroxybutyrate-co-3-

hydroxyvalerate) which is used as packaging material in
orthopaedic devices and for controlling drug release. The
structure of PHBV is shown below:
Base Acid
82. N1V1 = N 2 V2
1
N1 × 25 = × 17
2
0.5 × 17
Normality of mixture N1 =
25
= 0.39 N
Volume of mixture is 250 mL.
Milimoles of OH − ions in mixture
= 250 × 0.34
= 85 mmol
= 0.085 moles
Now, let’s assume there is ‘x’ gm of KOH and remaining is
NaOH.
x ( 3.5 − x )
Total moles
= +
56 40
x ( 3.5 − x )
0.085
= +
56 40
x = 0.35 gm
Therefore, the percentage of KOH in mixture is:
0.35
Percentage
= × 100
3.5
= 10%
83. The statement (D) is incorrect as Li has high ionization energy

as it has smallest size. It becomes difficult to remove electron
from its shell.
84. The Vander Waal’s equation is as follows:

 an 2 
 P + 2  (V ) =
nRT
 V 
a
2 (
In the above equation, the term P + 1 mole ) accounts for
V
intermolecular force.
85. The number of α and β particles are calculated as:

235
92
235
U →82 Pb + 7α + 4β
( 4
2 He )( 1−1 e )
α 7,=
Therefore,= β 4.
86. When aniline reacts with NaNO 2 in the presence of
hydrochloric acid at 278 K, benzene diazonium chloride
(diazonium salt) is formed.
When diazonium salt further reacts with HBF2 , fluorobenzene
is formed a shown below.
87. The conjugate bases are converted to acids by adding H ⊕ ion

for finding the acidic character.
CH 3 − CH 3 is more acidic than CH 2 = CH 2 followed by
CH ≡ CH which is least acidic.
The acidic order is I > II > III
So the basic order will be the reverse as acidity is inversely
proportional to basicity.
I < II < III
88. The hydrolysis constant can be calculated as:

10−14
Kh =
4.99 × 10−9 × 177 × 10−5
= 11.32
The ‘h’ can be calculated as:
Kh
h=
1 + Kh
1.132
=
1 + 1.132
= 0.51
The pH can be calculated as:
pH = pK a − log h + log (1 − h )
− log ( 4.99 × 10−10 ) − log ( 0.51) + log (1 − 0.51)
=
− ( −9.30 ) − ( −0.29 ) + ( −0.309 )
=
≈ 9.3
89. (a) The electronic configuration of Fe 2+ is 3d 6 4s 0 .
Therefore, the number of unpaired electrons is 4.

(b) The electronic configuration of Cu + is 3d10 4s 0 .
Therefore, the number of unpaired electrons is zero.
(c) The electronic configuration of Zn is 3d10 4s 2 .
Therefore, the number of unpaired electrons is zero.

(d) The electronic configuration of Ni 2+ is 3d8 4s 0 .
Therefore, the number of unpaired electrons is two.
90. The change in entropy can be calculated as:

=∆S ∑ S ( products ) + ∑ S ( reactants )
1
=  S ( CO ( g ) )  −  S ( CO ( g ) ) + ⋅ S ( O ( g ) ) 
ο ο ο
 2
   2
2

 1 
= 213.8 − 197.9 + × 205
 2 
= −86.6 J/K
By using Gibbs-Helmholtz equation,
∆G ο =∆H ο − T ∆S ο
=−282.84 × 103 − 298 × ( −86.6 )
= −257.03 kJ
91. The value of Van’t Hoff factor does not depend upon the
concentration of the solution. Therefore, the Van’t Hoff factor
will remain same for all the solutions.
iA= iB= iC
92. In Balmer series, for He + ion, the transition is from 4 → 2 .

Therefore, wavelength can be calculated as:
1 2 1 1 
= RH ( 2 )  2 − 2 
λ 2 4 
1 1 1 
= 4R  − 
λ  4 16 
4
λ=
3R
It is given that the transition for hydrogen is equal to the
wavelength as that of He + ion.
Therefore,
3R 2 1 1 
= RH (1)  2 − 2 
4  n1 n2 
=
By simplifying, the equation is true only when n1 1=
and n2 2
93. The first reaction is shown below:

CaCl2 + CO32− → CaCO3 + 2Cl−
111 g 100g
The second reaction is shown below:
CaCO3 
∆
→ CaO + CO 2
100 g 56g
56 g of CaO is produced by the decomposition of 100 g CaCO3
as shown below:
100 × 0.959
Mass of CaCO3 =
56
= 1.71 g
If 100 g CaCO3is equal to111 g of CaCl2 , therefore,
111× 1.71
1.71 g CaCO3 =
100
189 g CaCl2
The percentage of CaCl2 can be calculated as:
1.89
% of CaCl
= 2 × 100
4.22
≈ 45%
94. (I) PH 5 and BiCl5 do not exist due to inert pair effect.
(II) There are two pπ − dπ bonds present in SO 2 .
(III) The electrons do not travel with speed of light.
(IV) SF4 and CH 4 have different shapes. SF4 hassee-saw shape
and CH 4 has tetrahedral shape.
(V) I3+ has bent shape or V-shape.

Therefore, (I), (II) and (V) statements are correct.
95. CuSO 4 converts into Cu at cathode electrode and as a result,

thecolour of the solution changes from blue to colourless. So,
the assertion is true but the reason is false.
96. pH of solution is 5. Therefore,

 H +  = 10−5
The solution is diluted to 100 times, therefore,

10−5
 H  =
+
100
= 10−7
Total  H=
+
 10−7 + 10−7
= 2 × 10−7
Now,
pH= 2 × 10−7
= 7 − log 2
= 7 − 0.301
= 6.7
97. The value of enthalpy change can be calculated as:

ο
∆H reaction
= B.E of reactants broken − B.E of products formed
= ( 2 ( H − H ) + ( C = C ) ) − ( 2 ( C-H ) + ( C − C ) ) 
=( ( 435 ) + ( 615 ) ) kJ/mol  − ( 2 ( 414 ) + ( 347 ) ) kJ/mol 

= [1050 kJ/mol] − [1175 kJ/mol]
Simplify the above equation;

ο
∆H reaction −125 kJ
=
98. The molar mass of nitrobenzene is 123.

This means 123 gm of nitrobenzene needs 6 × 96500 charge
Therefore, the charge required for 12.3 gm of nitrobenzene can
be calculated as:
6 × 96500 × 12.3
Charge needed =
123
= 57900 C
99. The reaction between BaCl2 and Na 3PO 4 is shown below:

3BaCl2 + 2Na 3PO 4 → Ba 3 ( PO 4 )2 + 6NaCl
1 mole of Ba 3 ( PO 4 )2 is produced when 3 moles of BaCl2 and
2 moles Na 3PO 4 react.

Therefore,
2
Moles of Na 3PO 4= × 0.5
3
= 0.33 moles of Na 3PO 4
But it is given that 0.2 moles of Na 3PO 4 is present.
Hence, Na 3PO 4 acts as the limiting reagent.
2 moles of Na 3PO 4 forms 1 mole of Ba 3 ( PO 4 )2
Hence,
1
0.2 mole Na 3PO 4 produce= × 0.2
2
= 0.1 mole of Ba 3 ( PO 4 )2
100.When the change in enthalpy for the reaction is less than zero,
then the formation of AB will be favoured at low temperature
and high pressure.
101.As the concentration of silver ions increases, the cell potential

also increases. The potential cell will be having positive value.
Therefore, both the statements are correct but the Reason is not
the correct explanation of Assertion.
102.If inert gas is added to the reaction which is at constant

pressure and temperature, this will cause an increase in
volume. As a result, equilibrium will move towards to the side
where number of moles are increasing.
Therefore, both the statements are correct and the Reason is the
103. Buffer solutions are composed of mixture of a weak acid and
its conjugate base or strong base and its conjugate acid.
It resists the change in pH.
Therefore, both the statements are false.
104. The alkali metals such as potassium (K), rubidium (Rb) and
cesium (Cs) form superoxides. There is a double bond present
between O and O in a superoxide.
Therefore, both the statements are false.
105. Superoxide contains the ion which has one unpaired electron,
hence, it is paramagnetic in nature.
Therefore, both the statements are true and Reason is the
106. Both the statements, the ionisation of hydrogen sulphide in

water is low in the presence of HCl and H 2S is a weak acid are
true, but reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
107. When salicylic acid undergoes nitration, picric acid is
produced by the elimination of −COOH group. The hydroxyl
group of salicylic acid is a strongly activating group.
Therefore, electrophilic substitution ( SE ) reaction takes place
ortho- and para-positions.

108. Presence of nitro group facilitates nucleophilic substitution

reactions in aryl halides because intermediate carbocation
becomes stable due to the availability of nitro group.
109. Glucose gives reddish brown precipitate with Fehling

solution. The product consists of Cu 2O . The reaction does not
give gluconic acid. So, the assertion is true but the reason is
false.
110. Proteins, starch and rubber have strong interaction with the
dispersion medium and hence they are termed as lyophilic
colloids.
111. Pb 4+ are stronger oxidizing agents than Sn 4+ compounds.

Due to the inert pair effect, the heavier members of the group
13 having lowest oxidation states are highly stable.
Therefore, the reason is false.
112. Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution

reactions because they have partial double character which
makes C-X bond shorter and stronger.
Hybridization of carbon atom attached to halide is sp 2 -hybrid.
So, both statements are false.

113. The boiling point depends upon the surface area. Branching
of an organic compound decreases the boiling point and
increase in surface area, increases the boiling point.
On the other hand, vapour pressure remains independent of the
surface area. It remains constant on increasing or decreasing
the surface area. So, both statements are false.
114. A black body is a cavity with only a tiny hole. There is no

other opening. If any ray enters into the hole of black body, it
will get reflected by the cavity walls present there and as a
result, the walls will absorb them. Therefore, reason is not the
115. The halide attached to the acyl group is a better leaving group
than the amide group ( −CONH 2 ) . Hence, acyl halides are
more reactive than acid substance amide towards SN reactions.

Therefore, reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(
116. For a non-ideal solution, the enthalpy of mixing ∆H mixing )
remains less than zero or greater than zero and same case for
(
the volume of mixing ∆Vmixing )
This is due to the fact that the A-A and B-B interaction is more
from that of A-B interaction. So, both statements are false.
117. According to Heisenberg’s uncertanity principle, It is

impossible to determine the exact position and exact
momentum of an electron, simultaneously.
h
( ∆x )( ∆p ) ≥
4π
The path of the electron is not clearly defined. So, the assertion
is true but the reason is false.
118. Benzaldehyde is highly reactive than ethanol towards

nucleophilic attack. This is due to − I and + R effect of phenyl
group present in benzaldehyde which decreases the electron
density on carbon atom of carbonyl group ( > C = O ) .

119. Complexes of MX 6 and MX 3L type (X and L are unidentate)
do not show geometrical isomerism. Geometrical isomerism is
shown by those complexes which are having coordination
number 4 as well as 6. The ligands must occupy positions
adjacent or opposite to one another in geometrical isomerism.
So, the assertion is true but the reason is false.
120. When acetamide reacts with Br2 and NaOH, methyl amine is
formed. The reaction is shown below:
The reaction takes place via intermediate formation of alkyl
isocyanante which undergoes hydrolysis to produce CH 3 NH 2
and Na 2CO3 . Therefore, both the statements are true and
reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
AIIMS-28-May-2017
Solutions – Biology
121. Urochordata possesses a unique feature called retrogressive

metamorphosis. In this type of metamorphosis, an active larva
metamorphoses into a sedentary adult.
122. Transduction in Salmonella was discovered by Norton Zinder

and Joshua Lederberg.
123. Geographical isolation is not essentially required for the

sympatric association to occur.
124. The introduction of foreign genes into the cells in an effort to

treat disease is described as gene therapy. The introduction of
the adenosine deaminase gene in patients with severe
combined immunodeficiency is one of the examples of gene
therapy.
125. The given example indicates that the phenotypic ratio of
offspring is nearly 3:1. Thus, the parental seed plant is
heterozygous with green pod colour.
126. In bryophytes, haploid eggs and sperm fuse to produce

diploid zygotes that develop into sporophytes.
127. Classical taxonomy is also referred to as systematic or old

taxonomy. In classical taxonomy, the classification is
based on morphological characteristics only.
128. The mature Agaricus contains vegetative mycelium. The

vegetative part of mycelium is composed of two hyphae.
Two hyphae of different strains (one nucleated and one
without nucleus) come into contact, and one passes the
nucleus to other. This process is called somatogamy. The
dikaryotic cells then divide by clamp connections to
produce dikaryotic mycelium.
129. Heterocysts are the special nitrogen-fixing cells that are

developed by some cyanobacteria such as Nostoc.
130. Gibberellic acid is a plant growth hormone. It causes cell
elongation in sugarcane and increases the sugar yield.
131. The correct option is (b). This is because the globin genes
are multigene, the nitrate reductase is a type of inducible
genes, B, E, and K in φ ×174 are related to the overlapping
genes, and insulin is a type of structural gene.
132. In anaphase II of meiotic division, the centromeres divide.

This division results in the movement of two separated
chromatids of chromosomes towards opposite poles.
133. Fat-soluble vitamins are vitamin A, vitamin D, vitamin E,

and vitamin K. The deficiency of vitamin A can cause night
blindness
134. If one base codes for single amino acid, the total amino
acids will be 12 as (121) is equal to 12. Similarly, if two
bases code for one amino acid, the total amino acids will ve
144 as (122) is equal to 144. Thus, 2 bases can be used to
code 96 amino acids.
135. Invertase enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of

sucrose into glucose and fructose. This breakdown mainly
occurs in the duodenum part of small intestine.
136. The activities of Bacillus megatherium are mainly

responsible for the preparation as well as the flowering of
tobacco and tea leaves.
137. Gemmule formation is one of the main forms of asexual

reproduction. Sponges can go through internal budding and
external budding. The internal bud formed by asexual
reproduction is referred to as gemmule.
138. Simple, aggregate, and composite are three kinds of fruits.

Composite fruits develop from the spike, female catkin or
hypanthodium inflorescence.
139. Xanthomonascampestris can cause plant diseases such as
black rot of cabbage. Thus, this bacterium is not utilized as
a biopesticide.
140. Verticillaster is one of the types of inflorescence and is

found in calotropis genus.
141. The concentration of DDT in zooplankton is approximately

0.05 ppm (parts per million).
142. The first stage of development of endosperm is

archesporium. Archesporium develops megaspore mother
cells. These cells divide to form megaspore. Megaspore
produces an embryo sac.
143. PusaSadabahar and PusaJwala are the improved varieties

of chili. Chili leaf curl virus is the causative agent of leaf
curl disease in chili.
144. The correct option is (c).

145. Cycas plants are dioecious. These plants have male and
female reproductive structures on different plants.
146. The disruptive selection allows the development of those

organisms that have extreme values of characteristics and
cause the organisms with intermediate characteristics to
reproduce less. Industrial melanism in Bistonbetularia
(peppered moth) is an example of disruptive selection.
147. Insulin regulates the blood sugar level by signaling liver

cells to take in glucose and store it in the form of
glycogen.
148. In the second step of glycolysis, enolase enzyme catalyzes

the conversion of 2-phosphoglycerate into
phosphoenolpyruvate. This enzyme removes water from 2-
phosphoglycerate and results in the production of
phosphoenolpyruvate.
149. Glycolysis is described as a ten-step process. In second

step of glycolysis, glucose 6-phosphate gets converted into
fructose 6-phosphate. In sixth step, glyceraldehydes 3-
phosphate (3-PGAL) gets converted into 1,3-
bisphospoglycerate. The conversion of
phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) into pyruvate is the last step
of glycolysis.
150. The correct option is (b). This is because Planula is the

larval stage of Obelia I,Trocophore is the larval stage of
Neresis II, Glochideum is the larval stage of Unio, and
Glaucothoe is the larval stage of Hermit crab.
151. Crayfish are crustaceans that resemble small lobsters.

Oniscus belongs to order Isopoda.
152. Colour blindness is a X-linked recessive trait. As the

woman’s mother is colourblind, woman may be the carrier
of colour blindness. Thus, there is 25% chance of colour
blind male children.
153. Sliding filament theory explains the way muscles contract

to generate force. The muscle contractions are initiated by
the release of calcium ions (Ca2+). The contraction
continues until the calcium ions are present in muscle
cells.
154. Taeniasolium is a tapeworm. The life cycle stages of

tapeworm are onchosphere (larva), heaxacant, cysticercus,
matured proglottid, and gravid.
155. In the renal tubule and collecting duct, the nutrients and
water get reabsorbed into the capillaries.
156. Oxyhaemoglobin forms at high concentrations of oxygen.

However, low oxygen pressure results in the dissociation
of oxyhaemoglobin into haemoglobin and oxygen.
157. The peptide hormone formed by alpha cell of the pancreas

is known as glucagon.
158. Natural selection is the adjustment of the genes throughout

generation on the basis of factors that help it survive.
159. In the life cycle of fungus, spores undergo mitosis division
to produce hyphae. The dikaryotic phase produces zygote
through fertilisation.
160. The part of nephron that lies between the Bowman’s

capsule and loop of Henle is known as proximal
convoluted tubule. It mainly functions in the reabsorption
of glucose, sodium, and chloride ions.
161. The structure of cholesterol is represented by the given

figure. It is one of the major components of cell and plays
a key role in reducing the cell membrane’s permeability. It
also functions in cell membrane fluidity.
162. Tyloses are the outgrowths from xylem parenchyma cells

that develop into lumen of the tracheary cells.
163. Endosperm develops by fertilisation of single male gamete

and two polar nuclei. In the pea plant, the endosperm gets
completely used up during embryo development.
164. The prostate gland is the male reproductive organ. Its main
role is to secrete prostate fluid. Prostate fluid contributes to
the total volume of semen.
165. The total rate of energy capture is represented by gross

primary productivity. Net primary productivity is lesser
than gross primary productivity because net primary
productivity describes only that amount of energy which is
used by organisms in metabolism.
166. Ex-situ conservation occurs within or outside the natural

geographic range of species. One of the examples of ex-
situ management is the gene bank.
167. Maize seed is an albuminous seed. In these seeds,

endosperms do not get completely used up during
embryonic growth.
168. The function of claspers of cartilaginous fishes is similar

to the function of human penis. Both claspers and human
penis play a role in transferring sperms into the female.
169. The given figure represents amniocentesis process, which
can be used to detect chromosome abnormalities.
However, this test is not commonly used. Also,
amniocentesis can be used for sex-determination.
170. Temperature is one of the factors that affect the process of

decomposition. Due to the low temperature at high
altitudes, the rate of decomposition of detritus decreases.
The low decomposition rate also represents immobilisation
of nutrients.
171. 1-4α-glycosidic bonds are shown in the given figure. This

bond is produced between C-1 (carbon 1) of one
monosaccharide and C-4 (carbon 4) of other
monosaccharides.
172. Fertilizin is a chemical produced by an egg. This chemical

functions in preliminaries of fertilisation.
173. Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) produce acids to coagulate milk
proteins. It also improves the nutritional quality of milk.
174. Transitional epithelium lines the urinary bladder and

provides the bladder ability to stretch to accommodate
large urine volumes.
175. IgM antibodies cannot cross the placenta because IgM is

the pentamerimmunoglobin and is liked by J-chain.
176. Arteries push the blood away from the heart at high
pressure.
177. Neurons have a cell body, which contains a nucleus,

organelles, and numerous extensions. The dendrites, along
with the cell body, receive signals from other neurons. The
single axon transmits the signals to other cells. These
signals originate from a region of a cell body known as
axon hillock. At branching ends of axons are synaptic
terminals, which generally release neurotransmitters.
Neurotransmitter regulates the opening of ion channels.
178. The duration of atrial depolarisation is between 0.12 and
0.20 seconds. In the electrocardiogram graph, R represents
the peak point.
179. Hexokinase catalyzes hexose sugar phosphorylation. ATP

provides phosphate groups, and magnesium ion combines
with ATP to form MgATP2+.
180. The isomerization of citric acid into isocitric acid is done

by dehydration and rehydration.
AIIMS-28-May-2017
Solutions – General knowledge
181. Betwa is the river which is flowing from central India and join
the Yamuna and Ganag.
182. Blood platelets are essential for blood clotting.
183. Lord Hardinge is the Viceroy upon whom the bomb was
thrown.
184. Option (b) is the correct answer.
185. Ravi Shankar is the first recipient of the Tagore award.
186. Sumita sen hail from New Delhi.
187. Sri Lanka is announced as malaria free country.
188. The name of our country in the constitution is India.

189. Amitav Ghos is awarded with Pdam Shri in 2007.
190. Vice president is the chairman of Rajya Sabha.
191. “Emtionally yours” is the punch line of sahara.
192. Taniya Sachdev is the Chess Player.
193. Sanjay Dutt was held under TADA.
194. The number of DNA molecules per Chromatid is one.
195. David Leon has won the greatest number of Oscar.
196. The independent director of HDFC bank is Anand Sinha.
197. Leander Paes is associated with tennis.
198. Vivek Jain is the chief product and Technology office of

Reality startup group.
199. Novel “Pride and Prejudice” is written by Jane Austen.
200. The book ‘A passage to India’ is written by EM Forster.

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AIIMS-28-May-2017

2. Consider a planet in solar system which has the mass double

4. A lift is moving in upward direction. The total mass of the lift

5. A series R-C circuit is connected to AC voltage source.

6. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

a particle moving in the xy-plane. Starting from the origin, the

then parallel to the y-axis to the point ( a, a ) . The total work

done by the force on the particles is

9. Four blocks of same mass connected by a string are pulled by a

10. What is the maximum height attained by a body projected with

11. A particle having a charge 10 mC is held fixed on a horizontal

12. A tube of sugar solution is 20 cm long is placed between

13. A stone is moved in a horizontal circle of radius 4m by means

14. Two satellites S1 and S2 are revolving around a planet in

15. A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible

16. The coefficient of cubical expansion of mercury is

18. Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using three

19. A boy is pushing a ring of mass 3 kg and radius 0.6 m with a

21. A simple pendulum is setup in a trolley which moves to the

22. A conductor lies along the x-axis at −1.5 ≤ Z ≤ 1.5 m carries a

for the field B= 3 × 10−4 e −0.2 x a yT , the total power required to

the move the conductor at constant speed to x = 2.0 m , y = 0 m

24. A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of 105 Vm −1

25. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a

27. A nuclear explosive is designed to deliver 1 MW power in the

(c) Either I1 or I 2 is zero

29. The effective resistance between p and q is the given figure is

31. In the given Figure, C is the middle point of line S1S 2 . A

32. A simple telescope, consisting of an objective of focal length

number of acceptor atom per cm3 will be

34. The angle of dip if dip needle oscillating in vertical plane

(b) θ = sin −1 ( 0.325 )

(c) θ = sin −1 ( 0.425 )

(d) θ = sin −1 ( 0.235 )

The electron mobility is 25000 cm 2 V -1s -1 and the hole mobility

(c) xblue < xgreen

38. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

39. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

41. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

42. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

43. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

44. Assertion: The total kinetic energy of a rolling solid sphere is

45. Assertion: In He-Ne laser, population inversion takes place

46. Assertion: The positively charged nucleus of an atom has a

47. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

48. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

49. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

50. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

51. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

53. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

54. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

55. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

56. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

57. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

58. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

59. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is given

61. A primary alcohol with a vapour density of 29 contained

62. Total number of optically active forms in molecules with 'n'

64. on ozonolysis gives