Combinepdf 2

In networking world, "Rack unit" is the term used to express the thickness or height of a
switch.
Select one:
True
False
Which network design solution below in the current technology today will extend access
layer connectivity to user devices?
Select one:
a. Redundancy implementation
b. Routing protocol implementation
c. Wireless connectivity implementation
d. Implementing etherChannel implementation
A newly hired certified network engineer of RMS Industries is troubleshooting a switch and
wants to verify if it is a root bridge. Which of the following listed below is the right
command to display the correct information?
Select one:
a. show running-config
b. show startup-config
c. show spanning-tree
d. show vlan
In network troubleshooting, which command is used to display the bandwidth of an

interface on an EIGRP-enabled router?
Select one:
a. show ip route
b. show ip interface brief
c. show ip protocols
d. show interfaces
In this chapter, which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause sub-optimal traffic
flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network?
Select one:
a. Rapid PVST+ & RSTP
b. STP & MSTP
c. PVST+ & VRRP
d. STP & RSTP
A network administrator of Genesis Airlines issue a command of show cdp neigbors on a
router, what do you think is the reason?
Select one:
a. To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
b. To display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
c. To display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
d. To display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
In this chapter, what is the function of PoE pass-through?
Select one:
a. Allows a multilayer switch to forward IP packets at a rate close to that of Layer 2 switching
by bypassing the CPU
b. Allows multiple physical switch ports to be aggregated together and act as a single
logical link to increase bandwidth on trunk links
c. Allows a switch to disable redundant Layer 2 paths in the topology to prevent Layer 2
loops
d. Allows switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power over existing
Ethernet cables from an upstream switch
The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is used to enable Rapid
PVST+.
Select one:
True
False
A network administrator is overseeing the implementation of first hop redundancy

protocols. Which two protocols will not be able to function with multivendor devices?
Select one:
a. HSRP & PVST
b. VRRP & GLBP
c. IRDP & HSRP
d. GLBP & HSRP
Rack Unit is the networking term used to express the thickness or height of a switch.
Select one:
True
False
Observe the given output below. A certified network engineer is troubleshooting host
connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway
address should be configured on the host?
Select one:
a. 192.168.2.100
b. 192.168.2.2
c. 192.168.2.1
d. 192.168.2.0
You want to run the new 802.1w on your switches. Which of the following command syntax
would enable this protocol?
Select one:
a. Switch(config)Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
b. Switch(config)# mode span rapid-pvst
c. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
d. Switch# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
In network troubleshooting, which command can be issued on a router to verify that

automatic summarization is enabled?
Select one:
a. show ip eigrp neighbors
b. show ip protocols
c. show ip eigrp interfaces
d. show ip interface brief
As discussed in this chapter, what is an advantage of PVST+?
Select one:
a. PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
b. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.
c. PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP
that use CST.
d. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.
In this chapter, which is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?
Select one:
a. Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
b. The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
c. A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
d. Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.
An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. What

command can be used to do this?
Select one:
a. show cdp neigh
b. show running-config
c. show spanning-tree
d. show startup-config
What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol in a switched LAN as discussed in this
chapter?
Select one:
a. To provide a mechanism for network monitoring in switched environments
b. To manage the VLAN database across multiple switches
c. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths
d. To prevent routing loops in networks with redundant paths
As discussed in LAN Redundancy chapter, What is the purpose of HSRP?
Select one:
a. It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
b. It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
c. It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.
d. It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
Among the listed below, what are the distinct functions of layer 2 switching that increase
available bandwidth on the network?
1. Address learning
2. Routing
3. Forwarding and filtering
4. Creating network loops
5. Loop avoidance
6. IP addressing
Select one:
a. 2, 4 and 6
b. 2 and 6
c. 1, 3 and 5
d. 3 and 5
Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco Catalyst switches?
Select one:
a. MST
b. MSTP
c. PVST+
d. RSTP
Among the listed below, how can an enterprise network be designed to optimize
bandwidth?
Select one:
a. by limiting the size of failure domains
b. by installing devices with failover capabilities
c. by deploying a collapsed core model
d. by organizing the network to control traffic patterns
What protocol defined by IEEE standard 802.1D. Allows switches and bridges to create a
redundant LAN, with the protocol dynamically causing some ports to block traffic so that
the bridge/ switch forwarding logic will not cause frames to loop indefinitely around the
LAN. SSID See service set identifier?
Select one:
a. Etherchannel
b. PAgP
c. STP
d. LACP
ou want to run the new 802.1w on your switches. Which of the following would enable this
protocol?
Select one:
a. Switch# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
b. Switch# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
c. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
d. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator of Gilas
Telecoms wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of
the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose?
Select one:
a. show flash &show startup-config
b. show NVRAM &show running-config
c. show version &show running-config
d. show startup-config & show running-config
Which of the following is a layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free network?

Select one:
a. STP
b. CDP
c. VTP
d. PORTFAST
A certified network expert is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better
use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer implement?
Select one:
a. HSRP
b. VRRP
c. FHRP
d. GLBP
During the wireless implementation planning what type of wireless antenna is best suited
for providing coverage in large open spaces, such as hallways or large conference rooms?
Select one:
a. Yagi
b. omnidirectional
c. parabolic dish
d. directional
In wireless LAN technology and standards what classification do Bluetooth belongs?
Select one:
a. Wi-Fi
b. WWAN
c. WLAN
d. WPAN
Referring to the diagram below of Chooks-to-Go office. Which switching technology would
allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between
each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?
Select one:
a. EtherChannel
b. PortFast
c. HSRP
d. trunking
Using 2 switches, which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?
Select one:
a. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.
b. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
c. switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.
d. switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
As describe in wireless lan technology standard which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the
2.4GHz range of frequencies?
Select one:
a. 802.11b, 812.11g & 802.11n
b. 802.11b, 802.11ac & 802.11a
c. 802.11n, 802.11g & 802.11ac
d. 802.11ac, 802.11a & 802.11d
When a home wireless AP is being configured, _____ is used to identify the wireless network
name?
Select one:
a. BESS
b. ESS
c. SSID
d. ad hoc
Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless router is configured. It
is also the first security mode used for wireless?
Select one:
a. WPA
b. WEP
c. TKIP
d. WPA2-Personal
n deploying wireless LAN which parameter is commonly used to identify a wireless network
name when a home wireless AP is being configured?
Select one:
a. AP hostname
b. ESS
c. SSID
d. BESS
Referring to the diagram below. Which switching technology would allow each access layer
switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and
the Layer 3 switch?
Select one:
a. EtherChannel
b. trunking
c. PortFast
d. HSRP
In specific 802.11 wireless lan standard what maximum speed can 802.11n reached?
Select one:
a. 1Gps
b. 600Mbps
c. 54Mbps
d. 128Mbps
In troubleshooting EtherChannels as shown in the diagram below. An EtherChannel was

configured between switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel.
What is the problem?
Select one:
a. The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.
b. The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN
assigned.
c. The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.
d. The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each
interface.
In the understanding of wireless LAN technology and standards, what is the frequency
range of the IEEE 802.11a standard?
Select one:
a. 5Gbps
b. 5GHz
c. 2.4Gbps
d. 2.4GHz
In understanding wireless security which type of security threat best describes this situation?
An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone. The employee
then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new
employees to connect to the company network.
Select one:
a. cracking
b. rogue access point
c. denial of service
d. spoofing
Understanding scaling networks, which feature supports higher throughput in switched

networks by combining multiple switch ports?
Select one:
a. Redundant links
b. Link aggregation
c. Network diameter
d. Convergence
ferring to the lab diagram shown below. The senior network administrator of ABC
merchandize tried to create an EtherChannel between S1 and the other two switches via the
commands that are shown, but was unsuccessful. What is the problem?
Select one:
a. Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like an
EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.
b. Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Layer
3 switches.
c. Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on
Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
d. Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel link.
s discussed in wireless LAN security, an employee connects wirelessly to the company
network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a
wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network.
Which type of security threat best describes this situation?
Select one:
a. rogue access point
b. Man in the middle
c. cracking
d. denial of service
Using PagP as range of ports to be configured as etherchannel, which mode will form the
bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?
Select one:
a. auto
b. desirable
c. pasive
d. active
In wireless topologies, Yagi is a type of directional antenna that can be used in long distance
Wi-Fi networking.
Select one:
True
False
The trunk link between two 2960 switches has reached its capacity. How can solve this
problem in the most economical way?
Select one:
a. Increase the speed of the ports.
b. Decrease the size of the inter-switch collision domain by configuring additional VLANs.
c. Replace the two 2960 switches with highier port capacity switches.
d. Combine physical ports into a high-speed logical link by configuring EtherChannel.
An airline company has recently implemented an 802.11n wireless network. Some users are
complaining that the wireless network is too slow. Which solution is the best method to
enhance the performance of the wireless network?
Select one:
a. Upgrade the firmware on the wireless access point.
b. Split the traffic between the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands
c. Replace the wireless NICs on the computers that are experiencing slow connections.
d. Disable DHCP on the access point and assign static addresses to the wireless clients.
Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a home or small
business?
Select one:
a. RADIUS authentication server & access point
b. Ethernet switch & access point
c. Repeater & switch
d. Access point & firewall
During etherchannel range of port configuration, which mode will configure LACP so that it
initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?
Select one:
a. passive
b. desirable
c. auto
d. active
A certified network engineer of a new startup company is configuring an EtherChannel link

between switches SW1 and SW2 by using the command SW2(config-if-range)# channel-
group 1 mode passive. Which command must be used on SW1 to enable this EtherChannel?
Select one:
a. SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive
b. SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
c. SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode active
d. SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode auto
An architect needs wireless access in the construction office during the construction of a
new building. The construction office is in the new building and directly across the road
from headquarters. What could be used to satisfy this requirement of needing a narrow area
of coverage?
Select one:
a. satellite
b. omnidirectional
c. Yagi
d. multiple MIMO antennas
What is the maximum data rate specified for IEEE 802.11b WLANs as described in wireless
standards?
Select one:
a. 10 Mbps
b. 11 Mbps
c. 100 Mbps
d. 54 Mbps
In the course of Scaling Networks among the listed below which two protocols are link
aggregation protocols?
Select one:
a. STP & rstp
b. PAgP & 802.3ad
c. EtherChannel & stp
d. 802.3ad & stp
Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?
Select one:
a. EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.
b. PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
c. EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.
d. A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.
It is known as WiGig and operates using a tri-band solution in the 2.4, 5, and 60 GHz ranges
in IEEE wireless standard?
Select one:
a. 802.11ac
b. 802.11g
c. 802.11ad
d. 802.11n
In wireless LAN standards what wireless LAN technology that is an IEEE 802.15 WPAN
standard; uses a device pairing process to communicate over distance up to .05 mile
(100m)?
Select one:
a. Wi-Fi
b. None of the choices
c. Bluetooth
d. WLAN
In wireless LAN technologies what wireless LAN technology that operates in the range of a
few hundred feet?
Select one:
a. Wi-Fi
b. WIMAX
c. Bluetooth
d. WLAN
Which statement is correct as discussed in this chapter regarding the use of PAgP to create
EtherChannels?
Select one:
a. It requires more physical links than LACP does.
b. It is Cisco proprietary.
c. It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
d. It requires full duplex.
If a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will
form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?
Select one:
a. passive
b. auto
c. desirable
A network engineer connected 2 switches together with two crossover cables for
redundancy, and STP is disabled. Which of the following will happen between the switches?
Select one:
a. The routing tables on the switches will not update.
b. The MAC forward/filter table will not update on the switch.
c. The switches will automatically load-balance between the two links.
d. Broadcast storms will occur on the switched network.
d. onIn implementing EtherChannel technology, which PAgP mode combination will

establish an EtherChannel?
Understanding EtherChannel technology, what is an advantage of using LACP?
Select one:
a. allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links
b. decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop
c. provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
d. increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
Among the 802.11 standards what is the frequency assigned for 802.11g?
Select one:
a. 900Mhz
b. 2.4Ghz
c. 3Ghz
d. 5Ghz
In implementing EtherChannel technology, which PAgP mode combination will establish an

EtherChannel?
Select one:
a. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.
c. switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
d. switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.
Based on the discussion in this chapter, which command syntax will initiate EtherChannel
interface configuration mode?
Select one:
a. interface port-channel interface-identifier
b. interface range interface-identifier
c. interface interface-identifier
d. channel-group group-identifier
Whichamong the listed below describes an EtherChannel implementation as mentioned in

Link Aggregation chapter?
Select one:
a. PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
b. EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.
c. A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.
d. EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which
mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another
device?
Select one:
a. active
b. passive
c. desirable
d. auto
A newly hired network engineer has been instructed to implement EtherChannel in a

corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
Select one:
a. providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
b. providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
c. grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
d. grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
As discussed in wireless LAN technologies and standards, what wireless LAN technology that
is an IEEE 802.16 WWAN standard that provides wireless broadband access of up to 30mi
(50km)?
Select one:
a. Cellular broadband
b. WIMAX
c. WLAN
d. Satellite broadband
Clear my choice
Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?
Select one:
a. Access and distribution
b. Distribution and core
c. Network layer
d. Access, distribution, and core
Divides the network into functional components while still maintaining the core,
distribution, and access layers of the three-layer model as discussed in chapter 2 LAN
Redundancy?
Select one:
a. Cisco Enterprise Architecture
b. Enterprise edge
c. Hierarchical network
d. Collapsed Core
In managing Cisco devices, what are two ways to access a Cisco switch for out-of-band
management?
Select one:
a. A connection that uses the AUX and and Telnet
b. A connection that uses HTTP and HTTPs
c. A connection that uses the console and AUX port
d. A connection that uses Telnet and SSH
How much traffic for a 24port Gbit switch at hand capable of generating when operating at
full wire speed?
Select one:
a. 48 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
b. 12 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
c. 48 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches
d. 24 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
As per our discussion in this module LAN Redundancy, what is the outcome of a Layer 2
broadcast storm?
Select one:
a. ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.
b. Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
c. New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.
d. CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
How many switches in a network must be running STP or RSTP in order to avoid broadcast
storms?
Select one:
a. All of them.
b. At least one in each loop.
c. At least the switch that is chosen as the root bridge.
d. At least one.
Among the choices listed below, which port state will switch ports immediately transition to
when configured for PortFast?
Select one:
a. Blocking
b. Learning
c. Forwarding
d. Listening
If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the
root bridge?
Select one:
a. highest IP address
b. highest MAC address
c. lowest IP address
d. lowest MAC address
As discussed in initial stages of Scaling Networks, which two features of enterprise class
equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time?
Select one:
a. failure domains & failover capabilities
b. redundant power supplies & collapsed core
c. redundant power supplies & failover capabilities
d. services module & failover capabilities
A network problem occurs suddenly, what is the initial approach that should be used to
troubleshoot a broadcast storm in a switched network?
Select one:
a. Replace the cables on failed STP links.
b. Manually remove redundant links in the switched network.
c. Insert redundant links to replace the failed STP links.
d. Replace all instances of STP with RSTP.
Access Layer is a design model layer that provides connectivity for the users.
Select one:
True
False
During the implementation of Spanning Tree Protocol, all switches are rebooted by the
network administrator. What is the first step of the spanning-tree election process?
Select one:
a. Each switch determines the best path to forward traffic.
b. Each switch determines what port to block to prevent a loop from occurring.
c. All the switches send out BPDUs advertising themselves as the root bridge.
d. Each switch with a lower root ID than its neighbor will not send BPDUs.
As per our current module discussion, which non-proprietary protocol provides router
redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?
Select one:
a. VRRPv2
b. GLBP
c. SLB
d. HSRP
As discussed in this chapter, which of the following listed below is a layer 2 protocol used to
maintain a loop-free network and this refers to the IEEE 802.1D standard?
Select one:
a. VTP
b. CDP
c. STP
d. RIP
In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single ______ router.
Select one:
a. Core
b. Perimeter
c. Virtual
d. Switch
As shown in the exhibit below, which protocol information is being displayed in the output?
Select one:
a. FHRP
b. HSRP
c. GLBP
d. VRRP
In Genesis Research Lab, a network administrator is reviewing a network design that uses a
fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections.
However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support
growth and network expansion. Which type of device should be used as a replacement?
Select one:
a. a PoE device
b. another fixed configuration router
c. a modular router
d. a Layer 3 switch
In managing cisco devices, which two requirements must always be met to use in-band
management to configure a network device?
Select one:
a. a direct connection to the console port & at least one network interface that is connected
and operational
b. a direct connection to the auxiliary port & Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device
c. at least one network interface that is connected and operational & Telnet, SSH, or HTTP
access to the device
d. a terminal emulation client & a direct connection to the console port
If you are a network design engineer, which type of router would an enterprise use to allow
customers to access content anytime and anyplace, regardless of whether they are at home
or work?
Select one:
a. Branch routers
b. Modular routers
c. Network edge routers
d. Service provider routers
Which among the listed below are the 2 functional parts of the network that can be
combined to form a collapsed core design in Cisco Enterprise Architecture?
Select one:
a. Enterprise edge and access layer
b. Distribution and core layer
c. Access and distribution layer
d. Provider edge and access layer
What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless
medium?
Select one:
a. increased bandwidth availability & increased flexibility
b. increased network management options & reduced costs
c. reduced costs & increased flexibility
d. reduced costs & decreased number of critical points of failure
Why would a network administrator of RMS Defence Contractor company issue the show
cdp neigbors command on a router especially if a network problem occurs?
Select one:
a. To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
b. To display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
c. To display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
d. To display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
Clear my choice
As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the
corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
Select one:
a. providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic.
b. grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address.
c. grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches.
d. providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure.
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP,
which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from
another device?
Select one:
a. active
b. auto
c. desirable
d. passive
As discussed in link aggregation chapter, what are two advantages of using LACP?
Select one:
a. decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel &
increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
b. eliminates the need for the spanning-tree protocol & allows automatic formation of
EtherChannel links
c. allows use of multivendor devices & allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links
d. provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation & increases redundancy to
Layer 3 devices
The senior network administrator discovers a rogue AP in the network. The rogue AP is
capturing traffic and then forwarding it on to the legitimate AP. What type of attack is this?
Select one:
a. WEP/WPA attacks
b. Jamming
c. Ninja moves
d. Man in the middle
Based on the discussion in this chapter, which command syntax will initiate EtherChannel
interface configuration mode?
Select one:
a. interface interface-identifier
b. channel-group group-identifier
c. interface port-channel interface-identifier
d. interface range interface-identifier
Among the types of wireless attacks, which one captures wireless traffic that can be read,
stole passwords or leaks sensitive informations?
Select one:
a. Bluetooth Attacks
b.
c. War Driving
d. Jamming
In wireless LAN standards what wireless LAN technology that is an IEEE 802.15 WPAN
standard; uses a device pairing process to communicate over distance up to .05 mile
(100m)?
Select one:
a. None of the choices
b. Bluetooth
c. WLAN
d. Wi-Fi
In implementing EtherChannel technology, which PAgP mode combination will establish an

EtherChannel?
Select one:
a. switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
c. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.
d. switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.
In configuring Etherchannels which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an

EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?
Select one:
a. SW1: auto
SW2: auto
PortFast enabled on both switches
b. SW1: desirable
SW2: desirable
c. SW1: auto
SW2: auto
trunking enabled on both switches
d. SW1: on
SW2: on
Which certificating body certifies vendors for adherence to the 802.11 standards to improve
interoperability of 802.11 products?
Select one:
a. IEEE
b. EE
c. Wi-Fi Alliance
d. FCC
Among the 802.11 standards what is the maximum speed of 802.11a?
Select one:
a. 600Mb/s
b. 2Mb/s
c. 54Mb/s
d. 64Mb/s
As discussed in link aggregation what are two requirements to be able to configure an

EtherChannel between two switches?
Select one:
a. All the interfaces need to work at the same speed & need to be working in the same
duplex mode.
b. All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs & need to be working in the same
duplex mode.
c. Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end & need to be working in the
same duplex mode.
d. The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch & All interfaces
need to be assigned to different VLANs
This wireless attack comes from an old term called war dialing, where people would dial
random phone numbers in search of modems. It is basically people driving around looking
for vulnerable APs to attack. What wireless attack is this?
Select one:
a. Jamming
b. Password theft
c. Bluetooth
d. War driving
Which statement is correct as discussed in this chapter regarding the use of PAgP to create
EtherChannels?
Select one:
a. It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
b. It requires more physical links than LACP does.
c. It is Cisco proprietary.
d. It requires full duplex.
In deploying wireless LAN, you have finished physically installing an access point on the
ceiling at your office. At a minimum, which parameter must be configured on the access
point in order to allow a wireless client to operate on it?
Select one:
a. PSK
b. WEP
c. SSID
d. AES
What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11b standard as discussed in wireless LAN
standards?
Select one:
a. 5Gbps
b. 2.4GHz
c. 5GHz
d. 2.4Gbps
Which command listed below will initiate etherchannel interface configuration mode?
Select one:
a. interface range interface-identifier
b. interface interface-identifier
c. interface port-channel interface-identifier
d. channel-group group-identifier
Among the 802.11 standards what is the maximum speed of 802.11g?
Select one:
a. 11Mb/s
b. 64Mb/s
c. 600Mb/s
d. 54Mb/s
Among the listed below what organization that set or influence WLAN standards?
Select one:
a. APEC
b. IEEE
c. FBI
d. AWG
A student uses a laptop to upload an assignment to a file server. Which wireless frame type
did the laptop send to locate and associate with the campus access point?
Select one:
a. data frame
b. ssid frame
c. management frame
d. beacon frame
Among the listed below what organization that set or influence WLAN standards?
Select one:
a. AWG
b. APEC
c. FBI
d. IEEE
Which IEEE wireless standard is known as WiGig and operates using a tri-band solution in
the 2, 4, 5, and 60 GHz ranges?
Select one:
a. 802.11ac
b. 802.11n
c. 802.11ad
d. 802.11g
In understanding wireless LAN technology and standards, what is the maximum data rate
specified for IEEE 802.11g WLANs?
Select one:
a. 100Mbps
b. 2Mbps
c. 600Mbps
d. 54Mbps
Whichamong the listed below describes an EtherChannel implementation as mentioned in

Link Aggregation chapter?
Select one:
a. A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.
b. EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.
c. PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
d. EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.
What type of wireless attack that uses the method by flooding an AP with deauthentication
frames?
Select one:
a. War Driving
b. Packet Sniffing
c. Jamming
d. Man in the middle
In wireless LAN technologies what wireless LAN technology that operates in the range of a
few hundred feet?
Select one:
a. Wi-Fi
b. WLAN
c. Bluetooth
d. WIMAX
In AP technology which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an AP?
Select one:
a. beacon
b. probe response
c. authentication
d. probe request
What Cisco switch feature supports higher capacity throughput in switched networks by
combining multiple switch ports in 1 switch?
Select one:
a. Network diameter
b. Redundant links
c. Port upgrade
d. Link aggregation
In Scaling Networks course, link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the
hierarchical network?
Select one:
a. Core only
b. Access, distribution, and core
c. Distribution and core
d. Access and distribution
In specific 802.11 wireless lan standard what frequency band is assigned for 802.11a?
Select one:
a. 2.4Ghz
b. 2.4Mhz
c. 5Ghz
d. 5Mhz
Which wireless network topology is being configured by a IT technician who is installing a

keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?
Select one:
a. hotspot
b. ad hoc mode
c. infrastructure mode
d. Bluetooth mode
A remote class room can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures via wired
computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and used with 25
wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced.
Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops?
Select one:
a. Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible with
802.11n.
b. Add another access point.
c. Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.
d. Upgrade the access point to one that can route.
In specific 802.11 wireless lan standard what maximum speed can 802.11ac reach?
Select one:
a. 11Mbps
b. 54Mbps
c. 600Mbps
d. 1300Mbps
During which stage of establishing connectivity between a WLAN client and an AP does the
client learn the MAC address of the AP?
Select one:
a. encryption
b. association
c. discovery
d. authentication
Which type of wireless antenna is best suited for providing coverage in large open spaces,
such as hallways or large conference rooms?
Select one:
a. VHF antenna
b. Yagi
c. Omnidirectional
d. Space satellite
Among the types of wireless attacks, which one basically driving around looking for
vulnerable APs to attack. Sometimes unauthorized person will even use drones to try and
hack APs on higher floors of a building?
Select one:
a. Jamming
b. Packet Sniffing
c. War Driving
d. Man in the Middle
As explain in wireless lan security what is an advantage of SSID cloaking?
Select one:
a. It is the best way to secure a wireless network.
b. It provides free Internet access in public locations where knowing the SSID is of no
concern.
c. Clients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the network.
d. SSIDs are very difficult to discover because APs do not broadcast them.
During a Cisco certification exam, a network engineer is configuring a small network as

shown below, an etherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but the
interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?
Select one:
a. The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN
assigned.
b. The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each
interface.
c. The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.
d. The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.
The use of PAgP to create EtherChannels is discussed in link aggregation chapter as part of
Scaling Network. Which statement below as discussed in this course is true about PagP?
Select one:
a. It is a Cisco Proprietary
b. It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used
c. It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
d. It requires more physical links than LACP does.
9/7/2020 Pre-Final Exam: Attempt review
Home / My courses / UGRD-IT6224B-2016S / Week 16: Pre-Final Exam / Pre-Final Exam
Started on Monday, 7 September 2020, 10:58 AM

State Finished
Completed on Monday, 7 September 2020, 12:29 PM
Time taken 1 hour 30 mins
Marks 39.00/50.00
Grade 7.80 out of 10.00 (78%)
Question 1 As discussed in most OSPF topics what does an O E1 or E2 routing table entry mean?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of Select one:

1.00
a. internal route
b. External route 
c. Inter-area route
d. Intra-area route
The correct answer is: External route
Question 2 As discussed in link state advertisement which two statements correctly describe OSPF type 3
Correct LSAs?
Mark 1.00 out of 1. Type 3 LSAs are used to update routes between OSPF areas.
1.00
2. Type 3 LSAs are known as router link entries.
3. Type 3 LSAs are used for routes to networks outside the OSPF autonomous system.
4. Type 3 LSAs are known as autonomous system external LSA entries.
5. Type 3 LSAs are generated without requiring a full SPF calculation.
Select one:
a. 1 & 3
b. 2 & 4
c. 2 & 5
d. 1 & 5 
The correct answer is: 1 & 5
https://semestral.amaesonline.com/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=57426&cmid=18277&showall=1 1/14
Question 3
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of

1.00
Refer to the network topology diagram above. A certified network expert has configured the OSPF
timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those manually
configured timers?
Select one:
a. The neighbor adjacency has formed.
b. The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2. 
c. The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.
d. R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.
The correct answer is: The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.
Question 4 In link state advertisement the type 1 LSAs are also refered to as:
Correct

1.00
a. Summary link entries
b. IP link entries
c. Router link entries 
d. Network link entries
The correct answer is: Router link entries
Question 5 What does an O routing table entry mean?

Incorrect

1.00
a. Inter-area route 
b. Intra-area route
c. External route
d. internal route
The correct answer is: Intra-area route
Question 6 If you planning to built a large network composed of datacenters, nationwide branches office, stores,
Incorrect remote overseas offices which of these works better for larger network such as this?
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Rip v2
b. Rip v1
c. Single-area OSPF 
d. Multi-area OSPF
The correct answer is: Multi-area OSPF
Question 7 An ASBR generates type 5 LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into the area that it is
Correct connected to.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True 
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 8
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of

1.00
Refer to the exhibit shown. What command statement must be issued to complete the configuration at
R1 for multiarea OSPF.
Select one:
a. network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 0
b. network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1 
c. network 192.168.0 .0 0.0.127.255 area
d. network 192.168.1.128 255.255.255.128 area 1
The correct answer is: network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1
Question 9 In OSPF configuration understanding which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static
Correct route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. administrative distance 
b. link bandwidth
c. link delay
d. hop count
The correct answer is: administrative distance
Question 10 A network specialist of Avengers Corporation is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and discovers that
Correct two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not establishing an adjacency. The OSPF
Mark 1.00 out of routing process, network commands and area ID are all confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not
1.00 passive. Testing shows that the cabling is correct, that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces
are successful. What is most likely the problem?
Select one:
a. Ip addresses of the 2 serials are the same or conflict
b. The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.
c. The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match. 
d. A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.
The correct answer is: The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.
Question 11 In RMS University, the network admin is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network.
Correct The network attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers.
Mark 1.00 out of Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this
1.00 problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
Select one:
a. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
b. The process id is configured improperly.
c. The network number is configured improperly.
d. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly. 
The correct answer is: The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
Question 12 OSPF type 2 LSA messages are only generated by the DR router to advertise routes in multiaccess
Correct networks.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True 
False
Question 13 The backbone area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.
Correct

1.00
True 
False
Question 14 In implementation of OSPF network what command pertains to propagating a default route?
Incorrect

1.00
a. Ip route 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 Serial0
b. Ip route 192.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 
c. Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.200.1.2
d. Ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
The correct answer is: Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.200.1.2
Question 15 Observe the exhibit shown above. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but they are not
Correct forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. The routers have both been elected as the DR.
b. The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0 interfaces.
c. The routers are configured with the same router ID. 
d. The routers have the same priority.
The correct answer is: The routers are configured with the same router ID.
Question 16 Which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5 algorithm to generate a signature?
Correct

1.00
a. Secret key & OSPF message 
b. OSPF router ID & loopback interface
c. Router hostname & mac-address
d. Interface ip address & secret key
The correct answer is: Secret key & OSPF message
Question 17 What happens when a router has two network statements in different areas?
Incorrect

1.00
a. It becomes BDR
b. It becomes ASBR 
c. It becomes ABR
d. It becomes DR
The correct answer is: It becomes ABR
Question 18 In OSPF networks discussion what router that has at least one interface that is attached to a non-OSPF
Correct network?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. ASBR 
b. ABR
c. Backbone Router
d. Internal Router
The correct answer is: ASBR
Question 19
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of

1.00
Refer to the show command test result shown above. What is indicated by the O IA in the router
output?
Select one:
a. The route was learned from within the area. 
b. The route was learned from outside the internetwork.
c. The route was manually configured.
d. The route was learned from another area.
The correct answer is: The route was learned from another area.
Question 20 Why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth configuration?
Correct

1.00
a. OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table. 
b. Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.
c. Bandwidth value affects the actual speed of the link.
d. All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.
The correct answer is: OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table.
Question 21 In troubleshooting OSPF issues why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth
Correct configuration?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute the router IDs
b. OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table. 
c. All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.
d. Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.

Question 22 If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router
Correct use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. the highest IP address among its active interfaces 
b. the lowest IP address among its active interfaces
c. the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface
d. the IP address of the console management interface
The correct answer is: the highest IP address among its active interfaces
Question 23 A network administrator is implementing OSPF in a portion of the network and must ensure that only
Correct specific routes are advertised via OSPF. Which network statement would configure the OSPF process
Mark 1.00 out of for networks 192.168.4.0, 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0, now located in the backbone area,
1.00 and inject them into the OSPF domain?
Select one:
a. c 
b. w
c. w
d. w
The correct answer is: c
Question 24 The ABC Mining company network administrator has been asked to summarize the routes for a new
Incorrect OSPF area. The networks to be summarized are 172.16.8.0, 172.16.10.0, and 172.16.12.0 with subnet
Mark 0.00 out of masks of 255.255.255.0 for each network. Which command should the administrator use to forward the
1.00 summary route for area 15 into area 0?
Select one:
a. network 172.16.8.0 0.0.0.7 area 15 
b. network 172.16.8.0 0.0.7.255 area 0
c. network 172.16.8.0 0.0.7.255 area 15
d. network 172.16.8.0 0.0.0.7 area 0
The correct answer is: network 172.16.8.0 0.0.7.255 area 15
Question 25 In understanding of multiarea OSPF where do inter-area route summarization be performed in an OSPF
Incorrect network?
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. any router
b. ASBR 
c. ABR
d. DR
The correct answer is: ABR
Question 26 Which show command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
Correct

1.00
a. show ip ospf lsa database
b. show ip ospf link-state
c. show ip ospf database 
d. show ip ospf neighbors
The correct answer is: show ip ospf database
Question 27 A network administrator of an international herbal company is verifying a multi-area OSPF

Correct configuration by checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a
Mark 1.00 out of network that is connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing
1.00 table within area 1?
Select one:
a. O E2
b. C
c. O IA 
d. O
The correct answer is: O IA
Question 28 In understanding in OSPF networks what does an O E1 or E2 routing table entry mean?
Correct

1.00
a. Inter-area route
b. External route 
c. Intra-area route
d. Static route
Question 29 Which command statement below will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead
Correct timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0
b. show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0 
c. show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1
d. show ip ospf neighbor
The correct answer is: show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0
Question 30 As discussed in Scaling Network course when OSPFv2 neighbors are establishing adjacencies, in which
Correct state do they elect a DR and BDR router?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Two-Way state 
b. Exchange state
c. Init state
d. Loading state
The correct answer is: Two-Way state
Question 31 During router configuration what OSPF LSA type is used to inform routers of the router ID of the DR in
Correct each multiaccess network in an OSPF area?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. type 2 
b. type 0
c. type 1
d. type 3
The correct answer is: type 2
Question 32 In understanding OSPF concepts which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in
Correct Cisco routers?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Bandwidth 
b. Bandwidth, Delay and MTU
c. Bandwidth and MTU
d. Hello
The correct answer is: Bandwidth
Question 33 Which describes a multiarea OSPF network?

Correct

1.00
a. It has multiple routers that run multiple routing protocols simultaneously, and each protocol
consists of an area
b. It requires a three-layer hierarchical network design approach.
c. It has a core backbone area with other areas connected to the backbone area. 
d. It consists of multiple network areas that are daisy-chained together.
The correct answer is: It has a core backbone area with other areas connected to the backbone area.
Question 34
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of

1.00
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the company ABC Industries a subsidiary of the
biggest beverage company in the Philippines is trying to configure R1 to run OSPFv3 but the neighbor
adjacency is not forming with the router connected to Fa0/0. What is the cause of the problem?
Select one:
a. No router ID has been configured. 
b. The OSPF process ID and area values are backwards in the interface configuration
c. FastEthernet0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.
d. A link-local address has not been configured on interface FastEthernet0/0.
The correct answer is: No router ID has been configured.
Question 35 An ASBR generates what type of LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into the area that
Correct it is connected to.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Type 5 
b. Type 3
c. Type 2
d. Type 1
The correct answer is: Type 5
Question 36
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of

1.00
Refer to the exhibit shown above. A certified network administrator is troubleshooting the four routers
that are connected to an Ethernet LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. However, none of
the routers are receiving routing updates. What is the cause of the problem?
Select one:
a. The network type has been set to BROADCAST instead of NBMA.
b. All of the routers have an OSPFv3 interface priority of 0. 
c. The routers are using IPv6 link local addresses to communicate.
d. The routers are using IPv4 addresses for router IDs.
The correct answer is: All of the routers have an OSPFv3 interface priority of 0.
Question 37 6.
Incorrect

1.00
a. 2 & 5
b. 1 & 5
c. 2 & 4 
d. 1 & 3
Question 38 What is one advantage of using multiarea OSPF?

Correct

1.00
a. It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate smaller ones.
b. It improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state update overhead.

c. It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.
d. It enables multiple routing protocols to be running in a large network.
The correct answer is: It improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state
update overhead.
Question 39 10. Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are considered
Incorrect planning steps? (Choose a letter)
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. 2, 3 & 4
b. 2, 4 & 6 
c. 1 , 2 & 4
d. 2, 4 & 5
The correct answer is: 2, 4 & 5
Question 40 During checking of routing table, a network engineer notices the following entry:
Correct
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 What information can be gathered from this output?
Select one:
a. The route is located two hops away.
b. This route is a propagated default route. 
c. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.
d. The metric for this route is 110.
The correct answer is: This route is a propagated default route.
Question 41 A certified network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The
Correct networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers.
Mark 1.00 out of Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this
1.00 problem?

Select one:
a. The network number is configured improperly.
b. The process id is configured improperly.
c. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
d. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly. 
Question 42 The network engineer of company XYZ has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an
Correct OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new
Mark 1.00 out of router ID?
1.00
Select one:
a. Shutdown interfaces
b. Configure the network statements.
c. Issue the clear ipospf process privileged mode command. 
d. Change the OSPFv2 process ID.
The correct answer is: Issue the clear ipospf process privileged mode command.
Question 43 As discussed in OSPF chapters what happens when a router has two network statements in different
Incorrect areas?
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. It becomes BDR
b. It becomes DR
c. It becomes ASBR 
d. It becomes ABR
Question 44 In understanding concepts of OSPF which three statements describe the routing protocol OSPF?
Correct
1. It supports VLSM.
Mark 1.00 out of
2. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
1.00
3. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
4. It increases routing overhead on the network.
5. It allows extensive control of routing updates
6. It is simpler to configure than RIPv2.
Select one:
a. 4, 5, 6
b. 2, 3, 6
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 1, 3, 5 
The correct answer is: 1, 3, 5
Question 45 As mentioned in chapter 6 type 3 LSA is required for every ________.

Incorrect

1.00
a. Area
b. Backbone 
c. Router
d. Subnet
The correct answer is: Subnet
Question 46 What does an O IA routing table entry mean?

Correct

1.00
a. Internal route
b. Intra-area route
c. Inter-area route 
d. External route
The correct answer is: Inter-area route
Question 47 As discussed in this chapter multiarea OSPF what OSPF LSA type is used to inform routers of the router
Correct ID of the DR in each multiaccess network in an OSPF area?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. type 4
b. type 1
c. type 2 
d. type 3
Question 48 During the checking a routing table, a network specialist notices the following entry:
Correct
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
Mark 1.00 out of
Select one:
b. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.
c. The metric for this route is 110
d. This route is a propagated default route. 
Question 49 In verifying multiarea OSPF which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF
Correct area?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. show ip ospf database 
b. show ip route ospf
c. show ip ospf neighbor
d. show running-config
Question 50 In understanding of this chapter which characteristic describes both ABRs and ASBRs that are
Correct implemented in a multiarea OSPF network?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. They usually have many local networks attached.
b. They are required to reload frequently and quickly in order to update the LSDB.
c. They both run multiple routing protocols simultaneously.
d. They are required to perform any summarization or redistribution tasks. 
The correct answer is: They are required to perform any summarization or redistribution tasks.
◄ Lesson 8: EIGRP Advance

Jump to... Lesson 9: IOS Images and Licensing ►
Configuration and Troubleshooting
Started on Monday, 7 September 2020, 12:47 PM

State Finished
Time taken 2 mins 34 secs
Marks 2.00/50.00
Grade 0.40 out of 10.00 (4%)
Question 1 Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead timer intervals
Incorrect on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
b. show ipospf interface serial 0/0/0
c. show ipospf interface fastethernet 0/1 
d. show ipospf neighbor
The correct answer is: show ipospf interface serial 0/0/0
Question 2 A network engineer of Genesis Industries is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and discovers that two
Incorrect routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not establishing an adjacency. The OSPF
Mark 0.00 out of routing process, network commands and area ID are all confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not
Select one:
a. The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.
c. Ip addresses of the 2 serials are the same or conflict
d. A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link. 
Question 3 What routerhas all of its interfaces in the same area and have identical LSDBs.
Correct

1.00
a. Internal Router 
b. ABR
c. ASBR
d. Backbone Router
The correct answer is: Internal Router
Question 4 In implementing OSPF authentication why is MD5 authentication more secure than simple
Correct authentication for OSPF updates?
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. MD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor.
b. MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router. 
c. MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.
d. MD5 requires passwords that are at least 8 characters long.
The correct answer is: MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router.
Question 5 7. Which two networks are part of the summary route 192.168.32.0/22? (Choose a letter)
Incorrect

1.00
a. 5 & 6
b. 2 & 6 
c. 2 & 3
d. 1 & 3
Question 6 In single-area OSPF concepts which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route
Not answered as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. administrative distance
b. hop count
c. link delay
d. link bandwidth
Question 7 During the investigation of routing table, the network administrator notices the following entry:
Not answered
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.10.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
Marked out of
Select one:
a. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.10.3.
b. This route is a propagated default route.
c. The route is located two hops away.
d. The metric for this route is 110.
Question 8 Which of these works better for larger networks?

Not answered
Marked out of Select one:

1.00
a. Rip v1
b. Rip v2
c. Multi-area OSPF
d. Single-area OSPF
Question 9 What routing table descriptor is used to identify OSPF summary networks that originate from an ABR?
Not answered

1.00
a. O
b. O IA
c. O E1
d. O E2
Question 10 Which area is referred to as the "backbone area"?

Not answered

1.00
a. Area 999
b. Area 10
c. Area 0
d. Area 1
The correct answer is: Area 0
Question 11 A router that has at least one interface that is attached to a non-OSPF network is called ASBR.
Not answered

1.00
True
False
Question 12 Understanding multiarea OSPF what is one advantage of using multiarea OSPF?
Not answered

1.00
a. It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.
b. It enables multiple routing protocols to be running in a large network.
c. It does improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state update
overhead.
d. It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate smaller ones.
The correct answer is: It does improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-
state update overhead.
Not answered
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
Marked out of
Select one:
a. The metric for this route is 110.
b. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.
c. This route is a propagated default route.
d. The route is located two hops away.
Question 14 The network specialist has manually configured the hello interval to 15 seconds on an interface of a
Not answered router that is running OSPFv2. By default, how will the dead interval on the interface be affected?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. The dead interval will not change from the default value.
b. The dead interval will now be 30 seconds.
c. The dead interval will now be 15 seconds.
d. The dead interval will now be 60 seconds.
The correct answer is: The dead interval will now be 60 seconds.
Question 15 In configuring OSPF authentication which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5
Not answered algorithm to generate a signature?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. router hostname & mac-address
b. OSPF router ID & loopback interface
c. interface IP address & secret key
d. secret key & OSPF message
The correct answer is: secret key & OSPF message
Question 16 What are the building blocks of OSPF?

Not answered

1.00
a. Hello
b. LSA (Link State Advertisements)
c. Backbone area
d. Bandwidth
The correct answer is: LSA (Link State Advertisements)
Question 17 In troubleshooting OSPF issues which command is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also
Not answered provides a list of the networks that are being advertised by the network?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. show ip mac-address
b. show ipospf interface
c. show ip route ospf
d. show ip protocols
The correct answer is: show ip protocols
Question 18 This always appear in certification exams so remember this, which parameter or parameters are used to
Not answered calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay and Load
b. Bandwidth
c. Bandwidth,& hops
d. Hello
Question 19 A router with its interfaces attached to multiple areas is called ABR.
Not answered

1.00
True
False
Question 20 A certified network administrator of Gilas Medical Hospital has just changed the router ID on a router
Not answered that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies
Marked out of and use the new router ID?
1.00
Select one:
a. Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.
b. Change the OSPFv2 process ID.
c. Configure the network statements.
d. Change the interface priority.
The correct answer is: Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.
Question 21 A certified network administrator of RMS Company has just changed the router ID on a router that is
Not answered working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use
Marked out of the new router ID?
1.00
Select one:
a. Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.
c. Shutdown interfaces
d. Configure the network statements.
Question 22 Which three statements describe the routing protocol OSPF?

Not answered
Marked out of
2. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
1.00
Select one:
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 5
c. 4, 5, 6
d. 2, 3, 6
Question 23 A CCIE network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the routing table
Not answered on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is connected to a router in
Marked out of area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing table within area 1?
1.00
Select one:
a. O
b. C
c. O IA
d. O E2
Question 24 As discussed in scaling networks what type of OSPF LSA is originated by ASBR routers to advertise
Not answered external routes?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. type 5
b. type 1
c. type 2
d. type 3
Question 25 In understanding multiarea OSPF network which statement describes a multiarea OSPF network?
Not answered

1.00
a. It has a core backbone area with other areas connected to the backbone area.
b. It consists of multiple network areas that are daisy-chained together.
c. It has multiple routers that run multiple routing protocols simultaneously, and each protocol
consists of an area.
d. It requires a three-layer hierarchical network design approach.
Question 26 Refer to the test result taken from our test labs. R1 and R2 are connected to the same LAN segment
Not answered and are configured to run OSPFv3. They are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the
Marked out of problem?
1.00
Select one:
a. The OSPFv3 process IDs of R1 and R2 are different.
b. The timer intervals of R1 and R2 do not match.
c. The priority value of both R1 and R2 is 1.
d. The IPv6 addresses of R1 and R2 are not in the same subnet.
The correct answer is: The timer intervals of R1 and R2 do not match.
Question 27 Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states. This is one of the show command
Not answered tools use to troubleshoot OSPF networks?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. show ipospflsa database
b. show ipospf neighbors
c. show ipospf link-state
d. show ipospf database
The correct answer is: show ipospf database
Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of
1.00
Referring to the exhibit, the command “show ipv6 route can be issued on router R2 to verify the
propagation of a static default router from R1 to R2"
As discussed in this chapter why is MD5 authentication is more secure than simple authentication of
OSPF updates?a
Select one:
a. MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.
b. MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router.
c. MD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor.
Question 29 As discussed in this chapter which statement is true regarding OSPF multi-area adjacencies?
Not answered

1.00
a. Configuring a multi-area adjacency allows the corresponding link to be considered an interarea
link, so it will be less preferred over an intra-area link.
b. A type 3 (stub) link is advertised for a multi-area adjacency.
c. One logical interface will be a primary link, and the other configured as a secondary link; the
secondary link will be established as an unnumbered point-to-point interface.
d. A DR and a BDR will be elected over the secondary interface, because it is not pointto- point.
The correct answer is: One logical interface will be a primary link, and the other configured as a
secondary link; the secondary link will be established as an unnumbered point-to-point interface.
Question 30 In scaling networks what command pertains to propagating a default route?

Not answered

1.00
a. Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.200.1.2
b. Ip route 192.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
c. Ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
d. Ip route 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 Serial0

Not answered

1.00
a. It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.
c. It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate smaller ones.
d. It does improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state update
overhead.
The correct answer is: It does improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-
state update overhead.
Question 32
Not answered
Marked out of
1.00
Observe the above exhibit carefully. The ADS MusicStudio network administrator is trying to configure
R1 to run OSPFv3 but the neighbor adjacency is not forming with the router connected to Fa0/0. What
is the cause of the problem?
Select one:
a. A link-local address has not been configured on interface FastEthernet0/0.
b. FastEthernet0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.
c. No router ID has been configured.
d. Interfaces are not enabled
Question 33 When OSPFv2 neighbors are establishing adjacencies, in which state do they elect a DR and BDR
Not answered router?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Two-Way state
b. Loading state
c. Init state
d. One-Way state
The correct answer is: Two-Way state
Question 34 ASBRs are capable of summarizing which type of routes?

Not answered

1.00
a. Default
b. internet
c. External
d. Internal
The correct answer is: External
Question 35 As discussed in our topic Scaling Networks chapter 6,which area is referred to as the "backbone area"?
Not answered

1.00
a. Area 2
b. Area 1
c. Area 10
d. Area 0
Question 36 Which 3 features are OSPF routing protocol?

Not answered

1.00
a. Allows authentication, uses concept of area which helps for route summarization and dependent
to hop counts.
b. Converge quickly, Identify the best router by the use of hops & OSPF routers identify directly
connected devices
c. Use highiest ip address, OSPF is a classful routing protocol & OSPF does not allow
authentication
d. Converge quickly, Identify the best route by the use of cost & before exchanging routing
information, OSPF routers find out neighbors.
The correct answer is: Converge quickly, Identify the best route by the use of cost & before exchanging
routing information, OSPF routers find out neighbors.

Not answered

1.00
a. Use highiest ip address, OSPF is a classful routing protocol & OSPF does not allow
authentication
b. Converge quickly, Identify the best route by the use of cost & before exchanging routing
c. Converge quickly, Identify the best router by the use of hops & OSPF routers identify directly
connected devices
d. Allows authentication, uses concept of area which helps for route summarization and dependent
to hop counts.
Question 38 This will appear on the certification exam. As discussed in multiarea OSPF which command can be used
Not answered to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF area?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. show ip route ospf
b. show ip ospf database
c. show ip ospf interface

Question 39
Not answered
Marked out of
1.00
Referring to the test result shown above. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not
been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this RouterD?
Select one:
a. 10.154.154.1
b. 192.168.5.316
c. 172.16.5.1
d. 10.1.1.2
The correct answer is: 172.16.5.1
Not answered

1.00
a. It becomes ABR
b. It becomes DR
c. It becomes BDR
d. It becomes ASBR
Question 41
Not answered
Marked out of
1.00
Refer to the test result above. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but they are not forming
a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?
Select one:
a. The routers have the same priority.
b. The routers have both been elected as the DR.
c. The routers are configured with the same router ID.
d. The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0 interfaces.
Question 42 In link state advertisement a type 3 LSA is required for every ________.
Not answered

1.00
a. Area
b. Subnet
c. Router
d. Backbone
The correct answer is: Subnet
Question 43
Not answered
Marked out of
1.00
As shown from the network diagram above, the command “show ipv6 route can be issued on router R2
to verify the propagation of static default router from R1 to R2"
Why is MD5 authentication is more secure than simple authentication of OSPF updates?
Select one:
b. MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.
c. MD5 requires passwords that are at least 13 characters long.
d. MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router.
Question 44 During the testing and troubleshooting, the senior network administrator investigates and notices the
Not answered following entry:
Marked out of
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
1.00
What information can be gathered from this output?
Select one:
a. This route is a propagated default route.
b. The metric for this route is 110
d. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3
Question 45 8. In OSPF discussions what is used to facilitate hierarchical routing in OSPF?

Not answered

1.00
a. frequent SPF calculations
b. the election of designated routers
c. the use of multiple areas
d. Autosummarization
The correct answer is: the use of multiple areas
Question 46 In Single-area OSPF discussion which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. hop count
b. link delay
c. administrative distance
d. link bandwidth
Question 47 Among the commands listed below which is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also provides a list
Not answered of the networks that are being advertised by the network?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. show ip mac-address
b. show ip ospf interface
d. show ip protocols
Question 48 In understanding of OSPF networks what is used to facilitate hierarchical routing in OSPF?
Not answered

1.00
a. the use of router ids
b. the use of multiple areas
c. the election of designated routers
d. frequent SPF calculations
Question 49 Refer to the series of ip addresses below. A network specialist has been asked to summarize the
Not answered networks shown in the exhibit as part of a multiarea OSPF implementation. All addresses are using a
Marked out of subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. What is the correct summarization for these eight networks?
1.00
10.0.4.0 10.0.8.0 10.0.5.0 10.0.9.0
10.0.6.0 10.0.10.0 10.0.7.0 10.0.11.0
Select one:
a. 10.0.4.0 255.255.0.0
b. 10.0. 8.0 255.255.248.0
c. 10.0.0.0 255.255.240.0
d. 10.0.4.0 255.255.248.0
The correct answer is: 10.0.0.0 255.255.240.0
Question 50 The network engineer of Stark Industries has manually configured the hello interval to 15 seconds on
Not answered an interface of a router that is running OSPFv2. By default, how will the dead interval on the interface
Marked out of be affected?
1.00
Select one:
a. The dead interval will not change from the default value.
c. The dead interval will now be 15 seconds.

Started on Monday, 7 September 2020, 12:51 PM

State Finished
Time taken 10 secs
Marks 0.00/50.00
Grade 0.00 out of 10.00 (0%)
Question 1 The network engineer of company XYZ has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an
Not answered OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new
Marked out of router ID?
1.00
Select one:
a. Configure the network statements.
c. Shutdown interfaces
d. Issue the clear ipospf process privileged mode command.
The correct answer is: Issue the clear ipospf process privileged mode command.
Question 2 In RMS University, the network admin is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network.
Not answered The network attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers.
Marked out of Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this
1.00 problem?
Select one:
a. The network number is configured improperly.
b. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
c. The process id is configured improperly.
d. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
Question 3 Refer to the test result taken from our test labs. R1 and R2 are connected to the same LAN segment
Not answered and are configured to run OSPFv3. They are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the
Marked out of problem?
1.00
Select one:
a. The priority value of both R1 and R2 is 1.
b. The IPv6 addresses of R1 and R2 are not in the same subnet.
c. The timer intervals of R1 and R2 do not match.
d. The OSPFv3 process IDs of R1 and R2 are different.
Question 4 A network administrator is implementing OSPF in a portion of the network and must ensure that only
Not answered specific routes are advertised via OSPF. Which network statement would configure the OSPF process
Marked out of for networks 192.168.4.0, 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0, now located in the backbone area,
1.00 and inject them into the OSPF domain?
Select one:
a. w
b. c
c. w
d. w
The correct answer is: c
Question 5 Which describes a multiarea OSPF network?

Not answered

1.00
a. It consists of multiple network areas that are daisy-chained together.
b. It requires a three-layer hierarchical network design approach.
c. It has a core backbone area with other areas connected to the backbone area.
d. It has multiple routers that run multiple routing protocols simultaneously, and each protocol
consists of an area
Question 6 In troubleshooting OSPF issues which command is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also
Not answered provides a list of the networks that are being advertised by the network?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. show ip protocols
b. show ipospf interface
d. show ip mac-address
Question 7 In scaling networks what command pertains to propagating a default route?

Not answered

1.00
a. Ip route 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 Serial0
b. Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.200.1.2
c. Ip route 192.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
d. Ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
Question 8 If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router
Not answered use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. the IP address of the console management interface
b. the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface
c. the lowest IP address among its active interfaces
d. the highest IP address among its active interfaces
The correct answer is: the highest IP address among its active interfaces
Question 9 As discussed in our topic Scaling Networks chapter 6,which area is referred to as the "backbone area"?
Not answered

1.00
a. Area 2
b. Area 1
c. Area 10
d. Area 0
Question 10 During the testing and troubleshooting, the senior network administrator investigates and notices the
Not answered following entry:
Marked out of
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
1.00
What information can be gathered from this output?
Select one:
b. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3
c. This route is a propagated default route.
d. The metric for this route is 110
Not answered

1.00
a. It becomes DR
b. It becomes ABR
c. It becomes ASBR
d. It becomes BDR
Question 12 What are the building blocks of OSPF?

Not answered

1.00
a. LSA (Link State Advertisements)
b. Bandwidth
c. Backbone area
d. Hello
The correct answer is: LSA (Link State Advertisements)
Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of
1.00
Referring to the exhibit, the command “show ipv6 route can be issued on router R2 to verify the
propagation of a static default router from R1 to R2"
As discussed in this chapter why is MD5 authentication is more secure than simple authentication of
OSPF updates?a
Select one:
c. MD5 requires passwords that are at least 8 characters long.
d. MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of
1.00
Refer to the exhibit shown above. A certified network administrator is troubleshooting the four routers
that are connected to an Ethernet LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. However, none of
the routers are receiving routing updates. What is the cause of the problem?
Select one:
a. The network type has been set to BROADCAST instead of NBMA.
b. The routers are using IPv4 addresses for router IDs.
c. The routers are using IPv6 link local addresses to communicate.
d. All of the routers have an OSPFv3 interface priority of 0.
The correct answer is: All of the routers have an OSPFv3 interface priority of 0.
Question 15 8. In OSPF discussions what is used to facilitate hierarchical routing in OSPF?

Not answered

1.00
a. frequent SPF calculations
b. the use of multiple areas
c. Autosummarization
d. the election of designated routers
Question 16 7. Which two networks are part of the summary route 192.168.32.0/22? (Choose a letter)
Not answered

1.00
a. 2 & 3
b. 1 & 3
c. 5 & 6
d. 2 & 6
Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of
1.00
Refer to the network topology diagram above. A certified network expert has configured the OSPF
timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those manually
configured timers?
Select one:
a. The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.
b. The neighbor adjacency has formed.
c. The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.
d. R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.
The correct answer is: The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.
Question 18 In troubleshooting OSPF issues why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth
Not answered configuration?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute the router IDs
b. OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table.
c. Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.
d. All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.
Question 19 As discussed in this chapter which statement is true regarding OSPF multi-area adjacencies?
Not answered

1.00
a. A DR and a BDR will be elected over the secondary interface, because it is not pointto- point.
b. A type 3 (stub) link is advertised for a multi-area adjacency.
c. Configuring a multi-area adjacency allows the corresponding link to be considered an interarea

link, so it will be less preferred over an intra-area link.
d. One logical interface will be a primary link, and the other configured as a secondary link; the
secondary link will be established as an unnumbered point-to-point interface.
The correct answer is: One logical interface will be a primary link, and the other configured as a
secondary link; the secondary link will be established as an unnumbered point-to-point interface.
Question 20 In understanding OSPF concepts which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in
Not answered Cisco routers?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Hello
b. Bandwidth
c. Bandwidth, Delay and MTU
d. Bandwidth and MTU

Question 21 As discussed in OSPF chapters what happens when a router has two network statements in different
Not answered areas?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. It becomes BDR
b. It becomes DR
c. It becomes ABR
d. It becomes ASBR
Question 22 In OSPF networks discussion what router that has at least one interface that is attached to a non-OSPF
Not answered network?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. ABR
b. Internal Router
c. ASBR
d. Backbone Router
The correct answer is: ASBR
Question 23 As discussed in most OSPF topics what does an O E1 or E2 routing table entry mean?
Not answered

1.00
a. internal route
b. External route
c. Inter-area route
d. Intra-area route
Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of
1.00
Refer to the test result above. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but they are not forming
a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?
Select one:
a. The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0 interfaces.
b. The routers are configured with the same router ID.
c. The routers have the same priority.
d. The routers have both been elected as the DR.

Not answered

1.00
a. Converge quickly, Identify the best router by the use of hops & OSPF routers identify directly
connected devices
b. Allows authentication, uses concept of area which helps for route summarization and dependent
to hop counts.
c. Use highiest ip address, OSPF is a classful routing protocol & OSPF does not allow
authentication
d. Converge quickly, Identify the best route by the use of cost & before exchanging routing
Question 26 During the investigation of routing table, the network administrator notices the following entry:
Not answered
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.10.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
Marked out of
Select one:
a. This route is a propagated default route.
b. The metric for this route is 110.
d. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.10.3.

Not answered

1.00
a. Use highiest ip address, OSPF is a classful routing protocol & OSPF does not allow
authentication
b. Converge quickly, Identify the best route by the use of cost & before exchanging routing
c. Allows authentication, uses concept of area which helps for route summarization and dependent
to hop counts.
d. Converge quickly, Identify the best router by the use of hops & OSPF routers identify directly
connected devices
Question 28 OSPF type 2 LSA messages are only generated by the DR router to advertise routes in multiaccess
Not answered networks.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 29 In configuring OSPF authentication which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5
Not answered algorithm to generate a signature?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. router hostname & mac-address
b. secret key & OSPF message
c. OSPF router ID & loopback interface
d. interface IP address & secret key
The correct answer is: secret key & OSPF message
Question 30 6.
Not answered

1.00
a. 1 & 5
b. 1 & 3
c. 2 & 5
d. 2 & 4
Question 31 The network specialist has manually configured the hello interval to 15 seconds on an interface of a
Not answered router that is running OSPFv2. By default, how will the dead interval on the interface be affected?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. The dead interval will now be 30 seconds.
c. The dead interval will not change from the default value.
Question 32 This always appear in certification exams so remember this, which parameter or parameters are used to
Not answered calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Hello
b. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay and Load
c. Bandwidth,& hops
d. Bandwidth
Question 33 The backbone area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.
Not answered

1.00
True
False
Not answered
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
Marked out of
Select one:
b. The metric for this route is 110.
c. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.
d. This route is a propagated default route.
Question 35
Not answered
Marked out of
1.00
As shown from the network diagram above, the command “show ipv6 route can be issued on router R2
to verify the propagation of static default router from R1 to R2"
Why is MD5 authentication is more secure than simple authentication of OSPF updates?
Select one:
c. MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.
Question 36 Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead timer intervals
Not answered on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
b. show ipospf interface fastethernet 0/1
c. show ipospf interface serial 0/0/0
d. show ipospf neighbor
The correct answer is: show ipospf interface serial 0/0/0
Question 37 Which three statements describe the routing protocol OSPF?

Not answered
Marked out of 2. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
1.00
Select one:
a. 2, 3, 6
b. 1, 3, 5
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 4, 5, 6
Question 38 A network engineer of Genesis Industries is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and discovers that two
Not answered routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not establishing an adjacency. The OSPF
Marked out of routing process, network commands and area ID are all confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not
Select one:
a. Ip addresses of the 2 serials are the same or conflict
c. A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.
d. The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.
Not answered
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
Marked out of
Select one:
a. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.
b. This route is a propagated default route.
c. The metric for this route is 110.
d. The route is located two hops away.
Question 40 A certified network administrator of Gilas Medical Hospital has just changed the router ID on a router
Not answered that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies
Marked out of and use the new router ID?
1.00
Select one:
a. Change the OSPFv2 process ID.
b. Change the interface priority.
c. Configure the network statements.
d. Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.
Question 41
Not answered
Marked out of
1.00
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the company ABC Industries a subsidiary of the
biggest beverage company in the Philippines is trying to configure R1 to run OSPFv3 but the neighbor
adjacency is not forming with the router connected to Fa0/0. What is the cause of the problem?
Select one:
a. The OSPF process ID and area values are backwards in the interface configuration
b. FastEthernet0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.
c. No router ID has been configured.
d. A link-local address has not been configured on interface FastEthernet0/0.
Question 42 Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states. This is one of the show command
Not answered tools use to troubleshoot OSPF networks?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. show ipospf neighbors
b. show ipospflsa database
c. show ipospf link-state
d. show ipospf database
The correct answer is: show ipospf database
Question 43 The network engineer of Stark Industries has manually configured the hello interval to 15 seconds on
Not answered an interface of a router that is running OSPFv2. By default, how will the dead interval on the interface
Marked out of be affected?
1.00
Select one:
a. The dead interval will now be 60 seconds.
c. The dead interval will not change from the default value.
Question 44 If you planning to built a large network composed of datacenters, nationwide branches office, stores,
Not answered remote overseas offices which of these works better for larger network such as this?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Single-area OSPF
b. Multi-area OSPF
c. Rip v2
d. Rip v1
Question 45
Not answered
Marked out of
1.00
Referring to the test result shown above. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not
been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this RouterD?
Select one:
a. 10.154.154.1
b. 192.168.5.316
c. 10.1.1.2
d. 172.16.5.1
The correct answer is: 172.16.5.1

Not answered

1.00
a. It improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state update overhead.
c. It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate smaller ones.
d. It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.
The correct answer is: It improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state
update overhead.
Question 47 A CCIE network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the routing table
Not answered on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is connected to a router in
Marked out of area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing table within area 1?
1.00
Select one:
a. O E2
b. O IA
c. C
d. O
Question 48 10. Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are considered
Not answered planning steps? (Choose a letter)
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. 2, 4 & 6
b. 2, 4 & 5
c. 2, 3 & 4
d. 1 , 2 & 4
The correct answer is: 2, 4 & 5
Question 49 In Single-area OSPF discussion which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. administrative distance
b. link delay
c. link bandwidth
d. hop count
Question 50 In verifying multiarea OSPF which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF
Not answered area?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. show ip ospf neighbor
b. show ip route ospf
c. show ip ospf database

9/5/2020 Prelims
Home / My courses / UGRD-IT6224B-2016S / Week 6: Prelims / Prelims
Question 1 Which among the listed below is a characteristic of in-band device management as discussed in this
Not yet chapter?
answered

1.00
a. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
b. It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network
connection.
c. It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
d. It uses a terminal emulation client.
Clear my choice
Question 2 What is the most likely effect on the topology if Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled?
Not yet
answered
Select one:
Marked out of
a. The router will reply to the ARP request
1.00
b. All hosts will reply to the ARP request
c. Excessive collisions
d. Broadcast storm
Clear my choice
Question 3 Access Layer is the layer of which the hierarchical enterprise LAN design model would PoE for VoIP
Not yet phones and access points be considered.
answered

1.00
True
False
Question 4 As discussed in chapter 2, what states does a port go through from the time when a switch first start up
Not yet to the time when the port is fully operational?
answered

1.00
a. Disabled, listening, learning, forwarding
b. Listening, learning, blocking, forwarding
c. Blocking, listening, learning, forwarding
d. Blocking, learning, listening, forwarding
Clear my choice
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9/5/2020 Prelims
Question 5 In which situation would a network expert install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series
Not yet switch to promote infrastructure scalability?
answered

1.00
a. on a campus LAN network as access layer switches
b. on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified management
c. to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access
d. on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility
Clear my choice
Question 6 In terms of network reliability, the ability of a network to be up most of the time. Sometimes referred to
Not yet as 99.999, or "five nines".
answered

1.00
a. Reliability
b. Integrity
c. Flexibility
d. Scalability
Clear my choice
Question 7 As discussed in chapter 2 , what will exist when the spanning tree protocol has worked and the network
Not yet has converged?
answered

1.00
a. One root bridge per network, one root port on each switch, one non-designated port on each
segment, other ports are blocked.
b. One root bridge per network, one root port on each bridge, one designated port on each
bridge, all non-designated ports are blocked.
c. One root bridge per network, one root port per non root bridge, one designated port per
segment, non-designated ports.
d. One root bridge per segment, one root port per non root bridge, one designated port per
segment, non-designated ports.
Clear my choice
Question 8 In the above network diagram of DFA Headquarters core switches , which switch will be chosen as root
Not yet bridge and why?
answered

1.00
a. Sw-C, because it has the lowest priority
b. Sw-A, because it has the lowest MAC address
c. Sw-D, because it has the highest priority
d. Sw-B, because it has the highest MAC address
Clear my choice
9/5/2020 Prelims
Question 9 A network link connected to a switch went down. How long can it take for a network using spanning
Not yet tree topology to converge again after a topology change?
answered

1.00
a. up to 20 seconds
b. up to 10 seconds
c. up to 50 seconds
d. up to 15 seconds
Clear my choice
Question 10 Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?

Not yet
answered
Select one:
Marked out of
a. Root ports
1.00
b. Trunk ports
c. Edge ports
d. Designated ports
Clear my choice
Question 11 During the discussion in this chapter, what is a characteristic of in-band device management?
Not yet
answered
Select one:
Marked out of
a. It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
1.00
b. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
c. It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network
connection.
d. It uses a terminal emulation client.
Clear my choice
Question 12 In today's current switch technology, Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki
Not yet switches?
answered

1.00
a. They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches.
b. They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960 switches.
c. They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network.
d. They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility.
Clear my choice
Question 13 Which three port states are used by Rapid PVST+?

Not yet
answered
Select one:
Marked out of
a. listening , blocking & trunking
1.00
b. trunking , blocking & forwarding
c. Discarding, learning & forwarding
d. Blocking, learning & forwarding
Clear my choice

9/5/2020 Prelims
Question 14 Which switch among the listed below would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection
Not yet process?
answered

1.00
a. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-65
b. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
c. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78
d. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
Clear my choice
Question 15 A protocol that allows multiple vlans to run in a single spanning-tree instance is called Rapid PVST.
Not yet
answered
Select one:
Marked out of
True
1.00
False
Question 16 What today's network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network should a failure
Not yet occur?
answered

1.00
a. The reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the network core
b. The installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the network
c. The deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of access layer switch
connections between them
d. The configuration of all access layer devices to share a single gateway
Clear my choice
Question 17 How much traffic for a 12port gigabit switch capable of generating when operating at full wire speed?
Not yet
answered Select one:
Marked out of
a. 24 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches
1.00
b. 12 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
c. 26 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
d. 1 Gb/s, because data can only be forwarded from one port at a time
Clear my choice
Question 18 During connectivity issues, why would a network admin issue the show cdp neigbors command on a
Not yet router?
answered

1.00
a. to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
b. to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
c. to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
d. to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
Clear my choice
9/5/2020 Prelims
Question 19 In managing Cisco devices, what is a characteristic of out-of-band device management?

Not yet
answered
Select one:
Marked out of
a. It requires Telnet, SSH, or HTTP to access a Cisco device.
1.00
b. It requires a terminal emulation client.
c. It requires at least one network interface on the device to be connected and operational.
d. Out-of-band device management requires a direct connection to a network interface.
Clear my choice
Question 20 As discussed in Chapter 2, what do you called a design methodology for building networks in three
Not yet layers including access, distribution, and core.
answered

1.00
a. Etherchannel technology
b. Collapsed Core
c. hierarchical network
d. STP
Clear my choice
Question 21 Which of the following statement is true?

Not yet
answered
Select one:
Marked out of
a. A switch creates a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain. A router creates a
1.00
single collision domain.
b. A switch creates separate collision domains and separate broadcast domains. A router provides
separate collision domains.
c. A switch creates a single collision domain and separate broadcast domains. A router provides a
separate broadcast domain as well.
d. A switch creates separate collision domains but one broadcast domain. A router provides a
separate broadcast domain.
Clear my choice
Question 22 If the network administrator of Genesis Mobile Telecommunications wanted to disable STP on a port
Not yet connected to a server, which command would you use?
answered

1.00
a. disable spanning-tree
b. spanning-tree security
c. spanning-tree portfast
d. spanning-tree off
Clear my choice
9/5/2020 Prelims
Question 23 Which feature ensures that configured switch edge ports do not cause Layer 2 loops if a port is
Not yet mistakenly connected to another switch?
answered

1.00
a. PortFast
b. extended system ID
c. PVST+
d. BPDU guard
Clear my choice
Question 24 When first hop redundancy protocols are used, which two items will be shared by a set of routers that
Not yet are presenting the illusion of being a single router?
answered

1.00
a. IP address & BID
b. BID & static route
c. hostname & MAC address
d. MAC address & IP address
Clear my choice
Question 25 In MRT Construction head office, a network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid
Not yet PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch
answered interfaces?
Marked out of
1.00
Select one:
a. Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.
b. Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN
c. Link types are determined automatically.
d. Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.
Clear my choice
Question 26 What is the useof in-band device management and how it is done?
Not yet
answered
Select one:
Marked out of
a. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
1.00
b. It uses a terminal emulation client.
c. It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
d. It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network
connection.
Clear my choice
Question 27 Which non-proprietary protocol among the listed below provides router redundancy for a group of
Not yet routers which support IPv4 LANs?
answered

1.00
a. GLBP
b. HSRP
c. VRRPv2

d. SLB
9/5/2020 Prelims
Clear my choice
Question 28 Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is no other port with a lower cost to the root
Not yet bridge?
answered

1.00
a. alternate
b. designated port
c. disabled port
d. root port
Clear my choice
Question 29 Which among the listed below as discussed in Cisco Enterprise Architecture which two functional parts
Not yet of the network are combined to form a collapsed core design?
answered

1.00
a. Core and distribution layer
b. Access and distribution layer
c. Enterprise edge and access layer
d. Provider edge and access layer
Clear my choice
Question 30 Among the choices below, which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP
Not yet networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in
answered network edge devices or access circuits?
Marked out of
1.00
Select one:
a. HSRP
b. ICMP
c. STP
d. IRDP
Clear my choice
◄ Quiz 002 Jump to... Lesson 3: Link Aggregation ►
9/29/2020 Prelim Exam: Attempt review
Home / My courses / UGRD-IT6206-2016S / Prelim Exam / Prelim Exam
Started on Tuesday, 8 September 2020, 1:37 PM

State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 8 September 2020, 1:47 PM
Grade Not yet graded
Question 1 Instruction: Attached file .doc format only

Complete
List the Jobs in Information Security
Marked out of
1.00
Information Security Analyst

Software Developer
Computer Network Architects
Computer and Information Systems Managers
Jobs In Information Security.docx
Question 2 Instruction: Attached file format .doc only

Complete
The Importance of Information Security (20 points)
Marked out of
1.00
Feeling confident about their organization’s security level
The need for skilled workers and allocation of funds for security within their budget
Disruptions in their day-to-day business
The Importance of Information Security.docx
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◄ Prelim Quiz 2 Jump to... Lesson 3 ►
9/29/2020 Prelim Quiz 2: Attempt review
Home / My courses / UGRD-IT6206-2016S / Week 3 and 4 A global roadmap security / Prelim Quiz 2
Started on Monday, 31 August 2020, 10:08 AM

State Finished
Completed on Monday, 31 August 2020, 10:12 AM
Marks 18.00/18.00
Grade 20.00 out of 20.00 (100%)
Question 1 Fourth Reason why investing in information security is significant

Complete
Mark 1.00 out of

1.00 Answer: Founded hackers and wide availability of hacking tools
Question 2 First Reason why investing in information security is significant

Complete
Mark 1.00 out of

1.00 Answer: Rising cost of breaches
Question 3 Feeling confident about their organization's security level: When information security community
Complete members participated in the Cybersecurity Trends Report, they were asked how positive they felt about
Mark 1.00 out of their security stance.
1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 4 Second Reason why investing in information security is significant

Complete
Mark 1.00 out of

1.00 Answer: Increasing sophisticated attackers
Question 5 What jobs in information security is this?

Complete
Salary: $104,000
Mark 1.00 out of Responsibilities: Create an in-office network for a small business or a cloud infrastructure for a business
1.00
with corporate locations in cities on opposite coasts.
Answer: Computer Network Architects
Question 6 20 different risk markers grouped under five main categories

Complete

5.00
a. Security, Medical, Political, Environmental and Infrastructural Risks
b. Security, Government, Political, Environmental and Infrastructural Risks
c. System , Medical, Political, Environmental and Infrastructural Risks
d. Security, Medical, Political, Island and Infrastructural Risks
Question 7 Fifth Reason why investing in information security is significant

Complete
Mark 1.00 out of

1.00 Answer: Regulatory compliances

Complete
Salary: $139,000
Mark 1.00 out of Responsibilities: Information systems managers work toward ensuring a company's tech is capable of
1.00
meeting their IT goals.
Answer: Computer and Information Systems Managers
Question 9 Information is one of the most significant

Complete
non-substantial
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 resources.

Complete
Salary: $103,560
Mark 1.00 out of
Responsibilities: Software developers can be tasked with a wide range of responsibilities that may
1.00
include designing parts of computer programs and applications and designing how those pieces work
together.
Answer: Software Developer
Question 11
Confidential Information
Complete
was stored in servers in multiple areas, leaving us open to risk.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00
Question 12 Third Reason why investing in information security is significant

Complete
Mark 1.00 out of

1.00 Answer: Proliferation of IoT devices

Complete
Salary: $95,510
Mark 1.00 out of
Responsibilities: Information security analysts monitor their companies' computer networks to combat
1.00
hackers and compile reports of security breaches.
Answer: Information Security Analyst
Question 14 Fifth Reason why investing in information security is significant

Complete
Mark 1.00 out of

1.00 Answer: Regulatory compliances
◄ Information Security Strategic

Jump to... Prelim Exam ►
Roadmap
Home / My courses / UGRD-IT6206-2016S / Prelim Exam / Prelim Exam

State Finished
Grade Not yet graded
Question 1 Instruction: Attached file .doc format only

Complete
List the Jobs in Information Security
Marked out of
1.00
Information Security Analyst

Software Developer
Computer Network Architects
Computer and Information Systems Managers
Jobs In Information Security.docx
Question 2 Instruction: Attached file format .doc only

Complete
The Importance of Information Security (20 points)
Marked out of
1.00
Feeling confident about their organization’s security level
The need for skilled workers and allocation of funds for security within their budget
Disruptions in their day-to-day business
The Importance of Information Security.docx
◄ Prelim Quiz 2 Jump to... Lesson 3 ►
State Finished
Grade 46.00 out of 50.00 (92%)
Question 1
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
Is to model the procedural flow of actions that are part of a larger activity
Select one:
a. Activity Diagram
b. Scenario Diagram
c. Constraints
d. Sequence Diagram
Feedback
Your answer is correct.
Question 2
Complete
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Is an interaction diagram that emphasizes the time ordering of messages

Select one:
a. Sequence Diagram
b. Scenarios Diagram
c. Style
d. Use Case Model
Feedback
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Complete
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An architectural style represents a family of related systems
Select one:
a. Style
b. System
c. Connectors
d. Properties
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Complete
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An operational concept is a shared vision from the perspective of the system’s stakeholders
of how the system will be:
Select one:
a. System, Produced, Deployed, Trained, Used and maintained, Refined, Retired
b. Developed, Produced, Style, Trained, Used and maintained, Refined, Retired
c. Developed, Produced, Deployed, Trained, Used and maintained, Refined, Retired
Feedback
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Complete
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Conditions that must be true once the use case is run e.g. <order is modified and
consistent>;
Select one:
a. System
b. Style
c. Post
d. Constraints
Feedback
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Complete
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Measures of performance (MOP) and measures of effectiveness (MOE) are obtained
Select one:
a. Evaluation Phase
b. Contraints
c. Requirements
d. Use Case Model
Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
Question 7
Complete
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Question text
Sequence diagram to depict the workflow – as above but graphically portrayed
Select one:
a. Use Case Model
b. Style
c. Scenarios Diagram
d. Sequence Diagram
Feedback

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Complete
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Question text
These are the formal rules an limitations that a use case operates under, and includes pre-
post and invariant conditions.
Select one:
a. Post
b. Activity Diagram
c. Sequence Diagram
d. Contraints
Feedback
Question 9
Complete
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Question text
The static constructs are used, together with descriptions of the dynamic behavior of the
architecture to obtain the executable operational X-architecture (X = executable property)
Select one:
a. Analysis Phase
b. Synthesis Phase
c. Evaluation Phase
Feedback
Question 10
Complete
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Question text
The fundamental and unifying system structure defined in terms of system elements,
interfaces, processes, constraints, and behaviors
Select one:
a. Components
b. Architecture
c. System
d. System
Feedback
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Complete
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The fundamental organization of a system embodied in its components, their relationships

to each other and to the environment and the principles guiding its design and evolution
Select one:
a. System Architecture
b. Components
c. Architecture
d. Connectors
Feedback
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Complete
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A variety of segments intended to achieve a specific goal as indicated by plan.
Select one:
a. System Thingking
b. System
c. System Integration
d. System Architecture
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Complete
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The organizational structure of a system of CSCIs, identifying its components, their

interfaces and a concept of execution among them
Select one:
a. Connectors
b. Architecture
c. Systems
d. Properties
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Complete
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Represent the non-structural information about the parts of an architecture description
Select one:
a. Connectors
b. Components
c. Properties
d. System
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Complete
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Is a method for understanding an element as far as its motivation, as three stages

Select one:
a. System Architecture
b. System Thinking
c. System
d. System Integration
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Question 16
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Model interactions among components
Select one:
a. System
b. Connectors
c. Properties
d. Components
Feedback
Question 17
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Are the people involved in or affected by project activities

Select one:
a. Stakeholders
b. Web Designer
c. Analysis
d. Programmer
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Complete
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The architecture of a framework characterizes its elevated level structure, uncovering its
gross association as an accumulation of cooperating parts.
Select one:
a. System Thinking
b. System Integration
c. System
d. System Architecture
Feedback
Question 19
Complete
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The static representatives of the functional and physical
Select one:
a. System
b. Evaluation Phase
c. Analysis Phase
d. Synthesis Phase
Feedback
Question 20
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Is it true or false: Processes exist that need to take place in order that the system accomplish
its intended functions
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
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Is it true or false that distinguish a containing entire (framework), of which the thing to be
clarified is a section.
Select one:
True
False
Question 22
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Is it true or false that clarify the conduct or properties of the thing to be clarified as far as its
role(s)or function(s) inside its containing entirety
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Complete
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What is the Three Basic Organizational Structures
Select one:
a. Efficient, Project and Matrix
b. Functional, Accurate and Matrix
c. Functional, Project and Matrix
d. Flexible, Project and Matrix
Feedback
Question 24
Complete
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Team members are given more autonomy and expected to take more responsibility for their
work.
Select one:
a. Functional Structure
b. Project Organization Structure
c. Matrix Structure
d. Divisional Structure
Feedback
Question 25
Complete
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Advantages of Object-Oriented approach: Allows flexibility in the design as it evolves over

time
Select one:
True
False
Question 26
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Acronym: SDLC
Software Development Life Cycle
Answer:
Question 27
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Is it true or false: The individual processes transform either data or materials that “flow”
between them
Select one:
True
False
Question 28
Complete
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The advantages of this kind of structure include quick decision making because the group
members are able to communicate easily with each other.
Select one:
b. Divisional Structure
c. Project Organization Structure
d. Matrix Structure
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Question 29
Complete
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People who do similar tasks, have similar skills and/or jobs in an organization
Select one:
a. Functional Stucture
c. Matrix Structure
d. Project Organization Structure
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Question 30
Complete
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This kind of structure will ensure greater output of varieties of similar products.
Select one:
a. Matrix Structure
b. Project Organization Structure
c. Functional Structure
d. Divisional Structure
Feedback
Question 31
Complete
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Disadvantages of Object-Oriented approach: Requires some early elimination of technology

alternatives in the absence of reliable information
Select one:
True
False
Question 32
Complete
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The teams are put together based on the number of members needed to produce the
product or complete the project.
Select one:
a. Divisional Structure
b. Matrix Structure
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Question 33
Complete
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Repetitions of iterative development are referred to as sprints, which normally last thirty
days.
Select one:
a. SDLC
b. Extreme Programming
c. SLDC
d. Scrum
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Question 34
Complete
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In a divisional structure, the company will coordinate inter-group relationships to create a

work team that can readily meet the needs of a certain customer or group of customers
Select one:
b. Matrix Structure
d. Functional Structure
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Question 35
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Is it true or false that clarify the conduct or properties of the containing entirety.
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True
False
Question 36
Complete
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Developers program in pairs and must write the tests for their own code.
Select one:
a. Scrum
b. SDLC
c. Extreme Programming
d. SLDC
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Question 37
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Are more complex in that they group people in two different ways: by the function they
perform and by the product team they are working with.
Select one:
b. Matrix Structure
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The computational elements and data stores of the system
Select one:
a. System
b. Style
c. Connectors
d. Components
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Description of the steps taken to carry out the use case
Select one:
a. Scenarios Diagram
b. Constraint
c. Activity Diagram
d. Scenarios
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Components expected to demonstrate a product engineering include
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a. Segments, Connectors, Systems, Properties, Styles
b. Segments, Connectors, Systems, Properties, Structure
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Architecture
The wordAnswer is derived from the Greek word “architecton”, which means
master mason or master builder
Question 42
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Graphs of components and connectors
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a. Connectors
b. System
c. Components
d. Properties
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Question 43
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Things that the use case must allow the user to do, such as
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a. Requirements
b. Style
c. Activity Diagram
d. System
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Is the mix of between related components to accomplish a typical goal.
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a. System Integration
b. System Architecture
c. System Thinking
d. System
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Describes the proposed functionality of the new system
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a. Properties
b. System
c. Use Case
d. Style
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Question 46
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Is a framework for describing the phases involved in developing and maintaining

information systems
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a. SDLC
b. SLDC
c. Scrum
d. Extreme Programming
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Question 47
Complete
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The teams are put together based on the number of members needed to produce the
product or complete the project.
Select one:
d. Matrix Structure
Feedback
Question 48
Complete
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Repetitions of iterative development are referred to as sprints, which normally last thirty
days
Select one:
a. SDLC
b. System
c. Program
d. SCRUM
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Home / My courses / UGRD-FILI6201-2016S

/ Week 3: Pagbasa at Pagsusuri ng mga Kritikal na Pagaaral sa Displinang Filipino (Ikalawang Bahagi) / Prelim Quiz 2
Started on Sunday, 30 August 2020, 11:25 AM

State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 30 August 2020, 11:49 AM
Marks 43.00/60.00
Grade 71.67 out of 100.00
Question 1 Panatiko 1: Mas mahusay ang kandidatong iboboto ko sa eleksyon. Panatiko 2: Paano masasabing
Complete mahusay ang kandidato mo samantalang hindi naman makaabante sa mga survey? Mabuti pa ang
Mark 1.00 out of ihahalal kong kandidato, sikat na sikat! Mahihinuha sa binasang diyalogo na magkaibigan ang nag-
1.00 uusap at ito ay nagpapakita ng kontekstong _______.
Select one:
a. pisikal
b. emosyonal
c. linggwistik
d. sosyal
Question 2 Ayon sa aklat na Teaching Reading ang lahat ay teorya sa proseso ng pagbasa MALIBAN sa_________.
Complete

1.00
a. upside-down
b. top-down
c. bottom-up
d. interactive
Question 3 Ayon kina Arrogante, ang pagbasa ay hindi awtomatikong nagagawa ng tao sapagkat kinakailangan
Complete ang mahusay na pagkilala, pagkuha at pang-unawa sa mga ideya at kaisipan mula sa mga simbolong
Mark 1.00 out of nakalimbag, saka ito bibigyan ng ________.
1.00
Select one:
a. paglalarawan
b. interpretasyon
c. panghihikayat
d. pagsasalin
Question 4 Pinabasa ng gurong isang sanaysay ang klase, pagkatapos ang mga mag-aaral ay nagbigay ng kanilang
Complete reaksyon sa kanilang binasa. Ang gawaing ito ng pagbasa ay nagpapakita ng antas __________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. pagsusuri
b. pagbibigay puna
c. pagbuo
d. pagbabalik tanaw
Question 5 Pinakamahusay magbasa sa klase si Ron dahil inilalagay niya ang sarili sa nilalaman ng teksto. Ipanakita
Complete ng sitwasyon ni Ron ang antas na __________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. pagbasa sa salita
b. pagbasa higit sa mga salita
c. pagbasa sa pagitan ng mga salita
d. pagbasa sa karakter at pagpapahalaga
Question 6 Matapos basahin ni Josh ang maikling kuwento ang kaya lamang niyang sagutin sa kanyang binasa ay
Complete sino-sino ang mga tauhan, saang lugar nangyari at bahaging pinaka kapana-panabik. Ang antas ng
Mark 1.00 out of kanyang pag-iisip sa pagbasa ay_________.
1.00
Select one:
a. pagbuo
b. pagmamarka
c. pag-aalala
d. pagsusuri
Question 7 Napansin ni Carla na isa ang basura sa palaging problema ng bansa. Nagbasa at nagsaliksik siya
Complete tungkol dito upang makabuo ng mungkahing solusyon sa kanyang papel na isusulat. Ang antas ng
Mark 0.00 out of pagsusuri niya ng teksto ay pagbasa sa________.
1.00
Select one:
a. higit sa salita
b. pagitan ng mga salita
c. salita
d. karakter at pagpapahalaga
Question 8 Napili si Juan para magsulat sa pahayagan ng kanilang paaralan. Dahil dito mga babasahin may
Complete kinalaman sa pamamahayag ang kanyang binabasa araw-araw. Kung pagbabatayan ang pangyayari,
Mark 1.00 out of isinaalang-alang ni Juan ang kontekstong__________.
1.00
Select one:
a. linggwistiko
b. sosyal
c. pisikal
d. mental
Question 9 Inihahanda ni Grace ang sarili bago basahin ang anumang teksto. Kinikilala niyang mabuti ang paksa at
Complete kinikilala kung sino ang awtor nito. Sa pagbabasa ay nilalagyan niya ng marka ang mahahalagang
Mark 0.00 out of impormasyon. Pagkatapos magbasa, pinoproseso niya ang sarili sa bagong ideyang nabuo. Ang
1.00 sitwasyon ay nagpapatunay na ang pagbasa ay_________.
Select one:
a. produkto
b. paglaya
c. paglalakbay
d. proseso
Question 10 Magbabakasyon si Ben sa Amerika kaya tiningnan niya sa internet ang mga lugar ditto na maaari
Complete niyang pasyalan. Ang angkop na paraan ng pagbabasa sa sitwasyon ni Ben ay________.
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. skimming
b. malaks na pagbasa
c. scanning
d. mahinang pagbasa
Question 11 Bago pa magbasa si Harold ay may dati na siyang kaalaman sa paksang napiling basahin. Ang teorya sa
Complete pagbasa na ipinakikita ng pangyayari ay_________
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. top-down
b. top-up
c. bottom-up
d. interactive
Question 12 Ang sumusunod ay iba’t ibang paniniwala o teorya sa proseso ng pagbasa na inilahad sa aklat na
Complete Teaching Reading MALIBAN sa_______.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. top-up
b. top-down
c. interactive
d. bottom-up
Question 13 Ang mag-aaral na si Emily ay bihasa na sa pagpapakahulugan at kritikal na pagbasa. Ang yugto ng
Complete pagbasa ni Emily ay_________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. yugto ng malawak na pagbasa
b. yugto ng panimulang pagbabasa
c. yugto ng mabilis na paglaki
d. yugto ng kahandaan
Question 14 Nagsasaliksik sa internet si Joshua sa maaaring maging sagot sa takdang-aralin niya. Ang uri ng
Complete pagbasa sa ganitong pangyayari ay____________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. malakas na pagbasa
b. tahimik na pagbasa
c. pahapyaw o skimming
d. masusi o scanning
Question 15 Pinaghahandaan ni Joana ang nalalapit niyang pag-uulat sa pamamagitan ng pagbabasa ng mga
Complete impormasyon kung saan gumagamit siya ng higit na konsentrasyon. Ang uri ng pagbasa na ginagamit
Mark 0.00 out of ni Joana ay____________.
1.00
Select one:
a. tahimik na pagbasa
b. masusi o scanning
c. malakas na pagbasa
d. pahapyaw o skimming
Question 16 Kapag nagbabasa si Gerald ay hindi lamang pagganap ng mata, at bibig ang kanyang ginagamit kundi
Complete ang isip. Ang gawaing ito ng pagbasa ni Gerald ay tinatawag na __________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. pangkaisipan/cognitive
b. kaalamang metacognitive
c. kaalamang affective
d. gawaing psychomotor
Question 17 Tuwing nagbabasa si Athena ay isinasagawa niya ang pagbuo ng bagong sariling kaisipan o ideya mula
Complete sa binasa.Ang antas ng pag-iisip na ipinakita ng pangyayari ay__________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. antas-pagmamarka
b. antas-pagbuo
c. antas pagbibigay-puna
d. antas-pagsusuri
Question 18 Sa pagbabasa ni Chat ay nagagawa niya ang pagbuo ng prediksyon at pagkilala sa pangunahing ideya
Complete ng akda. Ang kasanayan sa pag-unawa sa binasa na ipinakita ni Chat ay____________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. paghihinuha
b. kritikal na pag-iisip
c. literal na pag-unawa
d. malikhaing pag-iisip
Question 19 Sa apat na kategorya ng mga kasanayan sa pag-unawa ng binasa masasabing ang pinakamalalim
Complete ay___________.
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. kritikal na pag-iisip
b. malikhaing pag-iisip
c. literal na pag-unawa
d. paghihinuha
Question 20 Nabibigyang kahulugan at iniuugnay ni Marie ang mga bahagi ng teksto sa isa’t isa upang
Complete makapaglahad ng hinuha at interpretasyon. Ang antas ng pagsusuri na ipinakita ni Marie ay
Mark 1.00 out of _____________.
1.00
Select one:
a. pagbasa sa salita/reading the lines
b. pagbasa sa karakter at pagpapahalaga/ reading with the character
c. pagbasa sa pagitan ng mga salita/reading between the lines
d. pagbasa higit sa mga salita/reading beyond the lines
Question 21 Ang sumusunod ay mga kahulugan ng pagbasa MALIBAN sa____________.

Complete

1.00
a. Pangunahing kasangkapan sa pansariling lakbayin tungo sa paghanap ng kaalaman at
katotohanan.
b. Masusing pagsisiyasat at pagsusuri sa mga ideya, konsepto, bagay, tao, isyu at iba pang ibig
bigyang linaw.
c. Pagbibigay ng kahulugan sa halip na pagkuha ng kahulugan sa nasusulat na teksto.
d. Aktibong proseso ng pagbibigay-kahulugan sa mga nasusulat na simbolo/titik o teksto sa

tulong ng kabatirang taglay ng mambabasa
Question 22 Binibigyang diin sa prosesong ito ang yugto-yugtong pag-unawa sa titik patungong salita , salita
Complete patungong pangungusap at hanggang sa matunton ng mambabasa ang ganap na pag-unawa sa
Mark 1.00 out of kahulugan ng buong teksto
1.00
Select one:
a. bottom-up
b. interactive
c. top-down
d. left-down
Question 23 Kinuha ni Marimar ang komprehensibong detalye sa kanyang paksang sinasaliksik. Ang pagbasa ni
Complete Marimar ay nasa uring___________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
Question 24 Ang gawain ng mga mag-aaral ay pagtatalumpati sa harapan ng klase. Ang pagbasa na kanilang
Complete gagamitin ay nasa uring__________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
Question 25 May kakayahan si Aurora na magbigay ng pangkalahatang puna at reaksyon sa mga mahahalagang
Complete detalye ng kanyang binasa. Ang pagbasa ni Aurora ay nasa antas__________.
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. pagsusuri
b. pagbuo
c. pagbibigay puna
d. pagsipat
Question 26 Kapag nagbabasa ang nagagawa ni Arnold ay ang pag-alala sa pagkakasunod-sunod ng mga
Complete pangyayari at mga mahahalagang detalye. Ang kasanayan sa pagunawa sa binasa na ipinakita ni
Mark 1.00 out of Arnold ay__________.
1.00
Select one:
a. literal na pag-unawa
c. paghihinuha
d. kritikal na pag-iisip
Question 27 Naalala ni Mary ang pangunahing ideyang nais ihatid ng may-akda – ang mga detalye, element at
Complete bahagi ng material na nabasa. Ang antas ng pagsusuri na ipinakita ni Mary ay__________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. pagbasa sa salita/reading the lines
b. pagbasa higit sa mga salita/ reading beyond the lines
c. pagbasa sa karakter at pagpapahalaga/reading with the character
d. pagbasa sa pagitan ng mga salita/reading between the lines
Question 28 Nakikilala ni Beth ang opinion at katotohanan, sa pananaw at panig ng sumulat at pagtataya sa
Complete kabuoan ng teksto batay sa binuong rubrics o panukatan. Ang kasanayan ni Beth sa pag-unawa sa
Mark 1.00 out of binasa ay___________.
1.00
Select one:
a. paghihinuha
c. kritikal na pag-iisip
d. literal na pag-unawa
Question 29 Sa kasanayang pagbasa gamit ang SQ3R, ang 3R ay nanganguhulugang Read, Recall at____________.
Complete

1.00
a. Review
b. Recite
c. Reread
d. Repeat
Question 30 Naging pokus ni Allan sa kanyang pagbabasa ang tanungin ang sarili kung patungkol saan ang
Complete tekstong babasahin. Sa tulong ng SQ3R ang ginamit ni Allan ay____________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Survey
b. Recite
c. Review
d. Question
Question 31 Binalik-aralan ni Elmer ang teksto sa pamamagitan ng muling pagbasa, at pagpapalawak ng mga
Complete isinulat na tala. Ang kasanayan sa pagbasa gamit ang SQ3R sa sitwasyong ito ay__________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Survey
b. Question
c. Recite
d. Review
Question 32 Sa pagbabasa ni Zayra ay ini-isa-isa at iniiskan niya ang kabuuan ng aklat upang malaman kung ito ay
Complete maaari niyang gamitin. Gamit ang SQ3R ang ginagawa ni Zayra ay ____________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Survey
b. Read
c. Question
d. Review
Question 33 Ang sumusunod ay mga katangian ng kasanayang pagbasa SQ3R MALIBAN sa_____________.
Complete

1.00
a. Nakatutulong sa pagtatalaga ng layunin sa pagbasa ayon sa hinihingi ng pananaliksik.
b. Nakapagpapalawak ng talasalitaan ng mambabasa.
c. Kagamit-gamit sa pagkuha ng impormasyon sa loob ng teksto.
d. Nakatutulong sa paglikha ng balangkas sa kaisipan ng mambabasa.
Question 34 Pinag-aaralan ni Norma ang mga iskalang ginamit na makikita sa linyang vertical at horizontal gayon
Complete din ang kinakatawan ng bawat bar, linya o larawan. Ang ipinakita ni Norma ay kasanayan sa __________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. pagbasa ng sulating pananaliksik
b. pagbasa ng grap
c. pagbasa ng talahanayan
d. pagpapakahulugan
Question 35 Nauunawaan ni Chris ang pagkakasunod-sunod ng daloy o patunguhan ng mga isinasaad na

Complete impormasyon. Ang ipinakita ni Chris ay kasanayang pagbasa ng____________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. pagpapakahulugan
b. grap
c. talahanayan
d. flow chart
Question 36 Sa pagbabasa ni Ador ng mga tisis at disertasyon ay gumagamit siya ng haylayter para sa mga
Complete importanteng mga detalye at ideya. Ang ipinakita ni Ador ay kasanayan sa pagbasa ng ___________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. flow chart
b. sulating pananaliksik
c. pagpapakahulugan
d. talahanayan
Question 37 Nalalaman ni Ariel ang tamang paggamit ng mga salitang denotatibo at konotatibo gayon din ang
Complete tamang gamit ng mga salita. Ang ipinakita ni Ariel ay kasanayan sa ____________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. pagpapakahulugan
b. pagbasa ng grap
c. pagbasa ng flow chart
d. pagbasa ng talahanayan
Question 38 Mahusay na naisasalin ni Prince sa wikang Filipino ang mga impormasyong mula sa Ingles. Ang
Complete ipinakita ni Prince ay kasanayan sa____________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. pagsasalin
b. pagbasa ng grap
c. pagbasa ng talahanayan
d. pagbasa ng flow chart
Question 39 Napakalinaw na inilahad ni Mateo sa paraaang payak ang orihinal na materyales na kanyang nabasa.
Complete Ang ipinamalas ni Mateo ay kasanayan sa ___________.
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. pagpili ng paksa ng pananaliksik
b. paglalagom at pagpaparapreys
c. pagpapakahulugan
d. pagbasa ng grap
Question 40 Dahil palabasa at palaaral si Gardo ay madali siyang nakahanap ng paksang gagamitin sa pag-aaral.
Complete Ang ipinakita ni Gardo ay kasanayan sa____________.
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. pagbasa ng talahanayan
b. pagpili ng paksa ng pananaliksik
c. pagbasa ng flow chart
d. pagsasalin
Question 41 Kapag ang layon ng mambabasa ay kumuha ng pangkalahatang impresyon sa teksto gayundin ang
Complete lawak at sakop na ideya niyon , ang pagbasa ay nasa uring pahapyaw o skimming.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 42 Kapag ang layon ng mambabasa ay kumalap ng komprehensibong detalye sa sinasaliksik, ang pagbasa
Complete ay nasa uring masusi o scanning.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 43 Kung ang layunin naman ng mambabasa ay makapagbahagi ng impormasyon o di kaya ay

Complete makapagbigay-aliw sa harap ng tagapakinig, ito ay tinatawag na malakas na pagbasa.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 44 Kung ang pakay ay maunawaang ganap ang teksto para sa pansariling kapakinabangan sa
Complete pamamagitan ng higit na konsentrasyon, ito ay tahimik na pagbasa.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 45 Ang metacognitive na estratehiya ay higit pa sa kasanayang pampag-iisip. Ito ay nagbibigay-daan sa

Complete bawat indibidwal na alamin, tingnan at pag-aaralan ang sariling proseso ng pag-iisip.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 46 Ang kritikal na pagbasa ay naipakikita kung nasasagot ng nagbasa ang mga tanong na ano, sino, saan,
Complete at kalian.
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 47 Antas pagmamarka ang pagbuo ng salaysay, pagbibigay ng mungkahing solusyon, paglalahad ng
Complete suhestyon sa pag-unlad ng nilalamang paksa.
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 48 Ang yugto ng malawak na pagbasa ay para lanag sa mga mag-aaral sa sekondarya at tersarya.
Complete

1.00
True
False
Question 49 Ang nararapat lamang bigyang pansin sa mahusay na pagbabasa ay masagot ang tanong pagkatapos
Complete magbasa.
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 50 Kapag ang mambabasa ay nakauunawa ng literal sa kanyang binasa ito ay palatandaan na siya ay
Complete mahusay na sa pagbasa.
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 51 Ang SQ3R ay nangangahulugang Survey, Question, Read,Recall at Review.

Complete

1.00
True
False
Question 52 Kapag napipili at nababasa ang mga bahaging kagamit-gamit sa pananaliksik ang mambabasa ay may
Complete kasanayang READ gamit ang SQ3R.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 53 Kasanayan sa pagsasalin ang tinataglay ng isang mambabasang mahusay na nakapagsasaling wika sa
Complete kanyang pananaliksik.
Mark 0.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 54 Kapag nailalahad nang payak ang orihinal na materyales na nabasa ang isang tao ay may kasanayan sa
Complete paglalagom at pagpaparapreys.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 55 Ang isang taong palabasa at palaaral ay madaling magkakaroon ng kasanayan sa pagpili ng paksa ng
Complete pananaliksik.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 56 Ang mahusay na pagkilala sa iskala, linyang vertical at horizontal, sukat o bilang na kinatawan ng bawat
Complete bar, linya o larawan ay kasanayan sa pagbasa ng flow chart.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 57 Ang 3R sa SQ3R ay nangangahulugang Read, Recall, Rewrite.

Complete

1.00
True
False
Question 58 Ang Survey ay tumutukoy sa pagtatanong sa sarili at sa kapakinabangan ng isinasagawang

Complete pananaliksik.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 59 Sa kasanayan sa pagpapakahulugan ang konotasyon/ konotatibo ay literal na pagpapakahulugan.

Complete

1.00
True
False
Question 60 Ang S sa SQ3R ay nangangahulugang Sequence.

Complete

1.00
True
False
◄ Pagbasa at Pagsusuri ng mga Kritikal

na Pagaaral sa Displinang Filipino Jump to... Ugnayan ng Pananaliksik at Pagsulat ►
(Ikalawang Bahagi)
Home / My courses / CS-6206-2016S / Week 6: Prelim Examination / Prelim Exam
Started on Sunday, 30 August 2020, 12:28 PM

State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 30 August 2020, 12:40 PM
Marks 30.00/30.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00
Question 1 It is the most common form of computer network.

Complete

1.00
a. Wide Area Network
b. Metropolitan Area Network
c. Campus Area Network
d. Local Area Network
Question 2 It reduces the complexity and amount of administrative work by using automatic TCP/IP configuration.
Complete

1.00
a. None of the Choices
b. DHCP Server
c. DNS Server
d. Remote Access Server
Question 3 It is one of the Considerations on why using the option of Upgrade rather than Migrate.
Complete

1.00
a. Typically, requires more storage space
b. Does not require the reinstallation of applications
c. None of the choices
d. Typically, requires replacing existing computer hardware
Question 4 It enables you to manage network traffic, group physically dispersed nodes into logical area networks
Complete and isolate network traffic.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Visual Local Area Network
c. Virtual Local Area Network
d. Wireless Local Area Network
Question 5 What is the IEEE 802 Standards for Local Wireless Networks?
Complete

1.00
a. IEEE 802.5
b. IEEE 802.16
c. IEEE 802.3
d. IEEE 802.11
Question 6 Which of the following is not the common network architecture types?
Complete

1.00
a. FDDI (Fiber Distributed Data Interface)
b. Ethernet
c. WiMax
d. Token Ring
Question 7 It provides storage for the users' files and share folders that contain users' files.
Complete

1.00
a. File Server
b. Application Server
c. Web Server
d. Domain Controller
Question 8 It is one of the Options for Installing Windows 7 where in you replace an existing version of Windows
Complete with Windows 7 but all user applications, files and settings are retained.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Clean Installation
b. Upgrade Installation
c. Migration
d. None of the Choices
Question 9 It is a downloadable application that helps windows user identify which edition of Windows 7 meets
Complete their needs.
Mark 2.00 out of
2.00 Select one:
a. Windows Upgrade Advisor
b. User State Migration Tool
c. Windows Easy Transfer
d. None of the choices
Question 10 It a server that is used to access the corporate resources from outside the corporate network.
Complete

1.00
a. DNS Server
b. Remote Access Server
c. None of the Choices
d. DHCP Server
Question 11 It is a device that provides wiring concentrator functionality like a hub but it also enables network traffic
Complete management, performs firewall functions and makes routing decisions based upon traffic priority.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Router
b. Firewall
c. Switch
d. Hub
Question 12 It holds a copy of AD DS and responds to request for active directory information.
Complete

1.00
a. File Server
c. Domain Controller
d. Web Server
Question 13 It is one of the Key Features of Windows 7 that simplify a user's ability to organize, search for, and view
Complete information.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Deployment
b. Reliability and Performance
c. Usability
d. Security
Question 14 It is a computer that is dedicated to running network-aware application software.

Complete

1.00
a. File Server
b. Domain Controller
c. Web Server
d. Application Server
Question 15 It is a tool used to remove system-specific data from the Windows operating system, configure
Complete windows to start in audit mode, configure the windows operating system to start the Windows
Mark 1.00 out of Welcome phase and reset Windows Product activation.
1.00
Select one:
a. Loadstate
b. Imagex
c. Scanstate
d. Sysprep
Question 16 It allows you to control which role functionality is installed and enabled.
Complete

2.00
a. Role
b. Server Features
c. Role Services
Question 17 It is the foundation of the Internet naming scheme and it supports accessing resources by using
Complete alphanumeric names.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
b. DNS Server
c. DHCP Server
Question 18 Which of the following is not an advantage of installing a 64-bit edition of Windows 7?
Complete

1.00
a. More Memory
b. Improved Performance
c. Improved Security
d. It supports 16-bit Windows on Windows (WOW) environment
Question 19 Which of the following version of Windows are allowed for Upgrade?
Complete

1.00
a. Windows XP
c. Windows Vista SP1
d. Windows 95
Question 20 Which of the following is not a Wireless LAN Standards?

Complete

1.00
a. 802.11 a
b. 802.11 b
c. 802.11 h
d. 802.11 n
Question 21 It is a group of services hosted on a network which is a private structure and has the internet-like
Complete service provision.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Extranet
b. Internet
c. Cloud
d. Intranet
Question 22 Which of the following is not a Server Role of Windows Server 2008 R2?
Complete

1.00
a. Remote Desktop Services
b. Windows Power Shell
c. DHCP Server
d. Active Directory Domain Services
Question 23 It is one of the Options for Installing Windows 7 where in you install Windows 7 on a new partition and
Complete replace an existing operating system on a partition.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
b. Migration
c. Clean Installation
d. Upgrade Installation
Question 24 Which of the following is not a Specialized version of Windows 7?

Complete

1.00
a. Windows 7 Professional
b. Windows 7 Enterprise
c. Windows 7 Home Basic
d. Windows 7 Ultimate
Question 25 It is a device that converts instructions from the network protocol stack into electric signals.
Complete

1.00
a. Switch
b. Router
c. Network Adapter
d. Firewall
Question 26 Which of the following is not a LAN Physical Topology?

Complete

1.00
a. Bus
b. Mesh
c. Crown
d. Hybrid
Question 27 It is one of the Key Features of Windows 7 that takes advantage of modern computing hardware,
Complete running more reliably and providing more consistent performance than previous versions of Windows.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Deployment
b. Usability
c. Reliability and Performance
d. Security
Question 28 Which of the following is not a Physical WAN Components?

Complete

1.00
a. Network Adapter
b. Bridge
c. Backbone
d. Leased Lines
Lesson 4: Implementing User Accounts

◄ Prelim Quiz 2 Jump to...
and Groups ►
Home / My courses / CS-6206-2016S / Week 6: Prelim Examination / Prelim Exam

State Finished
Marks 30.00/30.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00

Complete

1.00
c. Campus Area Network
Question 2 It reduces the complexity and amount of administrative work by using automatic TCP/IP configuration.
Complete

1.00
b. DHCP Server
c. DNS Server
Complete

1.00
b. Does not require the reinstallation of applications
d. Typically, requires replacing existing computer hardware
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
c. Virtual Local Area Network
d. Wireless Local Area Network
Complete

1.00
a. IEEE 802.5
b. IEEE 802.16
c. IEEE 802.3
d. IEEE 802.11
Complete

1.00
b. Ethernet
c. WiMax
d. Token Ring
Question 7 It provides storage for the users' files and share folders that contain users' files.
Complete

1.00
a. File Server
c. Web Server
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
c. Migration
d. None of the Choices
Mark 2.00 out of
2.00 Select one:
a. Windows Upgrade Advisor
b. User State Migration Tool
c. Windows Easy Transfer
Question 10 It a server that is used to access the corporate resources from outside the corporate network.
Complete

1.00
a. DNS Server
b. Remote Access Server
d. DHCP Server
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Router
b. Firewall
c. Switch
d. Hub
Question 12 It holds a copy of AD DS and responds to request for active directory information.
Complete

1.00
a. File Server
d. Web Server
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Deployment
c. Usability
d. Security
Question 14 It is a computer that is dedicated to running network-aware application software.

Complete

1.00
a. File Server
c. Web Server
d. Application Server
Mark 1.00 out of Welcome phase and reset Windows Product activation.
1.00
Select one:
a. Loadstate
b. Imagex
c. Scanstate
d. Sysprep
Question 16 It allows you to control which role functionality is installed and enabled.
Complete

2.00
a. Role
b. Server Features
c. Role Services
Question 17 It is the foundation of the Internet naming scheme and it supports accessing resources by using
Complete alphanumeric names.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
b. DNS Server
c. DHCP Server
Complete

1.00
a. More Memory
b. Improved Performance
c. Improved Security
d. It supports 16-bit Windows on Windows (WOW) environment
Complete

1.00
a. Windows XP
c. Windows Vista SP1
d. Windows 95

Complete

1.00
a. 802.11 a
b. 802.11 b
c. 802.11 h
d. 802.11 n
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Extranet
b. Internet
c. Cloud
d. Intranet
Question 22 Which of the following is not a Server Role of Windows Server 2008 R2?
Complete

1.00
a. Remote Desktop Services
b. Windows Power Shell
c. DHCP Server
d. Active Directory Domain Services
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
b. Migration

Complete

1.00
a. Windows 7 Professional
b. Windows 7 Enterprise
c. Windows 7 Home Basic
d. Windows 7 Ultimate
Complete

1.00
a. Switch
b. Router
c. Network Adapter
d. Firewall

Complete

1.00
a. Bus
b. Mesh
c. Crown
d. Hybrid
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Deployment
b. Usability
c. Reliability and Performance
d. Security

Complete

1.00
a. Network Adapter
b. Bridge
c. Backbone
d. Leased Lines
Lesson 4: Implementing User Accounts

◄ Prelim Quiz 2 Jump to...
and Groups ►
9/7/2020 Prelim Exam
Home / My courses / UGRD-FILI6201-2016S / Week 4: Prelim Exam / Prelim Exam
Question 1 Kapag nagbabasa ng akda ay madaling nasasagot ni Jane ang pangunahing ideya ng akda gayundin
Answer saved agad siyang nakapagbibigay ng prediksyon kaugnay sa binasa. Ang kasanayan sa pag-unawa sa binasa
Marked out of na ipinamalas ni Jane ay________.
1.00
Select one:
a. kritikal na pag-iisip
b. literal na pag-unawa
c. paghihinuha
d. malikhaing pag-iisip
Clear my choice
Question 2 Ang yugto ng malawak na pagbasa ay sa mga mag-aaral sa una at ikalawang baiting sa elementarya.
Answer saved Inaasahan na ang mga mag-aaral sa bahaging ito ay bihasa na sa pagpapakahulugan at kritikal na
Marked out of pagbasa
1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 3 Kasangkapan ng tao ang wika sa kanyang kapwa upang magamit sa ___.
Answer saved

1.00
a. pagbibigay ng bagong interpretasyon sa lumang ideya
b. pagtuklas ng bagong datos at impormasyon
c. masusing pagsisiyasat at pagsusuri ng ideya
d. pakikipagtalastasan at pagkakaunawaan
Clear my choice
Question 4 Pinasulat ka ng talata sa isang napapanahong isyu kaya naman sinunod mo ang proseso ng pagsulat
Answer saved upang ang kalabasan ay maging_______.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. epektibo at makabuluhan ang gawaing pang-komunikatibo at pang-akademiko
b. aral ang nilalaman sa mambabasa
c. saklaw ng pananaliksik sa hinaharap
d. puno ng pala-palagay o opinion
Clear my choice
https://semestral.amaesonline.com/mod/quiz/attempt.php 1/7
Question 5 Matapos basahin ni Cora ang maikling kuwento sa klase ay nagpaliwanag siya ng kanyang pananaw na
Answer saved salungat sa paniniwala ng tauhan sa binasa. Ang antas ng pagbasa na kanyang ipinakita ay________.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. pagbasa sa pagitan ng mga salita
b. pagbasa sa salita
c. pagbasa higit sa mga salita
Clear my choice
Question 6 Ang paghahambing ng mga ideya (iskema ng mambabasa at pananaw ng manunulat), pagtukoy sa
Answer saved sanhi at bunga, pagpapaliwanag sa motibo ng mga aksyon ay halimbawa ng antas-pagsusuri
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 7 Kung ang gawaing ibinigay ng guro ay pagsulat ng sanaysay, pamanahunang papel, at tesis nararapat
Answer saved gamitin ang uri ng pagsulat na _________.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Kumbinasyon
b. Tradisyunal
c. Pormal
d. Di Pormal
Clear my choice
Question 8 Ang isang mananaliksik na hindi kumilala sa awtor ng sangguniang kanyang pinagkunan ay maaaring
Answer saved makasuhan ng plagiarism. Ang etika ng pananaliksik na tinutukoy nito ay_________.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Iwasan ang makasisirang puri sa taong iniinterbyu
b. Kilalanin mo ang ginamit mong ideya.
c. Iwasan ang negatibong personal na obserbasyon
d. Huwag mag short cut
Clear my choice
Question 9 “Dumating ang may-ari ng litsunan, sa ayos niya’y mukhang siya pa ang dapat tuhugin ng kawayan at
Answer saved ihawin sa nagbabagang uling.Bilog na bilog ang kanyang katawan. Wala na siyang leeg. Ang bahaging
Marked out of ito ay halimbawa ng pangangatwiran.
1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 10 Ang metacognitive na estratehiya ay higit pa sa kasanayang pampag-iisip. Ito ay nagbibigay-daan sa

Answer saved bawat indibidwal na alamin, tingnan at pag-aaralan ang sariling proseso ng pag-iisip.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 11 Masasabing mataas ang antas ng pagsusuri sa binabasa kung inilalagay ng mambabasa ang sarili sa
Answer saved nilalaman ng teksto. Tinitiyak ang kaugnayan ng teksto sa sarili, pamilya at komunidad, bansa at
Marked out of daigdig. Ang antas na ito ay_________.
1.00
Select one:
a. pagbasa higit sa mga salita
b. pagbasa sa salita
c. pagbasa sa pagitan ng mga salita
Clear my choice
Question 12 Ang kritikal na pag-iisip ay pagkilala sa opinion at katotohanan, sa pananaw at panig ng sumulat at
Answer saved pagtataya sa kabuoan ng teksto batay sa binuong rubrics o panukatan.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 13 Kung nagbabasa ka sa silid-aklatan, maaari mong gamitin ang lahat ng sumusunod na uri ng
Answer saved pagbabasa: pahapyaw o skimming, masusi o scanning, malakas na pagbasa, tahimik na pagbasa
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 14 Nagbasa si Diane ng diyalogo, nalaman niya na matalik na magkaibigan ang dalawang nag-uusap dahil
Answer saved sa mga salitang ginamit nila sa usapan. Ang ipinakitang konteksto ng binasang diyalogo ay _______.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. linggwistik
b. sosyal
c. moral
d. pisikal
Clear my choice
Question 15 Mahusay bumigkas ng tula si Marco kaya siya ang napili ng guro para basahin sa harap ng klase ang
Answer saved akda. Ang angkop na paraan ng pagbasang dapat gamitin ni Marco ay_________.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. masusi o scanning
d. malakas na pagbasa
Clear my choice
Question 16 Kapag ang layon ng mambabasa ay kumalap ng komprehensibong detalye sa sinasaliksik, ang pagbasa
Answer saved ay nasa uring pahapyaw o skimming.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 17 Ang teksto ay ang wika o ideyang itinatawid o pinagpapalitan sa diskurso samantalang ang kahulugang
Answer saved (berbal o di- berbal) kargado ng mga iyon ay ang tinatawag na konteksto.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 18 Alin sa sumusunod ang tumutukoy sa kahalagahan ng wika?

Answer saved

1.00
a. napasusunod ang mga mamamayang naghihirap
b. nangangailangan ng pagsisiyasat
c. iba-iba ang ginagamit na datos
d. instrumento sa pakikipagtalastasan o komunikasyon
Clear my choice
Question 19 Nagsagawa nang pananaliksik si JM, sinigurado niya na hindi siya kumiling sa paksang kanyang
Answer saved tinalakay. Ang katangian ng pananaliksik na ipinakita niya ay________.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. subhektibo
b. kritikal
c. obhektibo
d. dokumentado
Clear my choice
Question 20 Piniling basahin ni JC ang editorial na may nauna/nakaimbak na siyang kaalaman para madaling
Answer saved masagutan ang kanyang takdang-aralin. Ang teorya sa proseso sa pagbasang ginamit ni JC ay________.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. top-left
b. top-down
c. bottom-up
d. interactive
Clear my choice
Question 21 Nasa baitang 8 nang Junior High School si Kara ngunit ang nakikila lamang niya ay mga simbolo, salita,
Answer saved parirala at pangungusap kaya inilagay siya sa Reading Program ng paaralan. Kung si Kara ay nasa
Marked out of baitang 8 na ang nararapat na yugto ng kanyang pagbasa ay_________.
1.00
Select one:
a. yugto ng mabilis na paglaki
b. yugto ng kahandaan
c. yugto ng malawak na pagbasa
d. yugto ng panimulang pagbabasa
Clear my choice
Question 22 Para masunod ang tamang pagbibigay halaga sa aklat o anumang sangguniang ginamit sa pananaliksik
Answer saved nararapat na__________.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. sundin ang etika at responsibilidad sa pananaliksik
b. hayaang walang nakalagay na sanggunian
c. palitan ng pangalan ng ibang awtor na mas kilala
d. ilagay ang sariling pangalan
Clear my choice
Question 23 May 20 minuto na lang at klase na biglang naalala ni Megan na mayroon pala silang takdang-aralin
Answer saved kaya dali-dali siyang pumunta sa silid-aklatan para makakuha ng sagot. Ang paraan ng pagbasang
Marked out of gagamitin ni Megan ayon sa pangyayari ay_________.
1.00
Select one:
a. masusi o scanning
d. malakas na pagbasa
Clear my choice
Question 24 Pagsasalaysay ay tumutukoy sa pagpapaliwanag na nakasentro sapagbibigay-linaw sa mga pangyayari,

Answer saved sanhi at bunga, at magkakaugnay na mga ideya at pagbibigay ng mga halimbawa.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 25 Alin sa sumusunod ang tumutukoy sa kahalagahan ng wika?

Answer saved

1.00
a. gumagamit ng sukat at tugma
b. instrumento sa pakikipagtalastasan o komunikasyon
c. nagpapahayag ng personal na opinyon
d. nagsasalaysay nang mga pangyayari
Clear my choice
Question 26 Nasa baitang 8 nang Junior High School si Kara ngunit ang nakikila lamang niya ay mga simbolo, salita,
Answer saved parirala at pangungusap kaya inilagay siya sa Reading Program ng paaralan. Ang yugto ng pagbasang
Marked out of ipinakita ni Kara ay __________.
1.00
Select one:
a. yugto ng malawak na pagbasa
b. yugto ng mabilis na paglaki
c. yugto ng panimulang pagbabasa
d. yugto ng kahandaan
Clear my choice
Question 27 Ang sumusunod ay katangian ng pananaliksik MALIBAN sa________.

Answer saved

1.00
a. dokumentado
b. kritikal
c. subhektibo
d. obhektibo
Clear my choice
Question 28 Literal na pag-unawa, paghihinuha, kritikal na pag-iisip, at malikhaing pag-iisip ang apat na kategoya
Answer saved ng mga kasanayan sa pag-unawa ng binasa ayon kay Frank May.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
Question 29 Ito ay mga sulating may malinaw na daloy at ugnayan ng pangunahing paksa at detalyadong
Answer saved pagtalakay ng balangkas ng paksa.
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Malaya
b. Pormal
c. Di Pormal
d. Di Malaya
Clear my choice
Question 30 Nagbasa ka ng isang sulatin at napansin mong malaya ang pagtalakay sa paksa,magaan ang
Answer saved pananalita, masaya at may pagkapersonal na parang nakikipag-usap lamang. Ang ganitong sulatin ay
Marked out of nasa uring ________
1.00
Select one:
a. Di Pormal
b. Pormal
c. Kumbinasyon
d. Tradisyunal
Clear my choice
◄ Prelim Quiz 2 Jump to... Ugnayan ng Pananaliksik at Pagsulat ►
Home / My courses / CS-6206-2016S / Week 5: Short Quiz / Prelim Quiz 2

State Finished
Time taken 1 min 14 secs
Marks 10/10
Grade 100 out of 100
Mark 1 out of 1
Select one:
a. Reliability and Performance
b. Deployment
c. Security
d. Usability
Mark 1 out of 1 Welcome phase and reset Windows Product activation.
Select one:
a. Scanstate
b. Imagex
c. Loadstate
d. Sysprep
Mark 1 out of 1
Select one:
d. Migration
Mark 1 out of 1
Select one:
a. Deployment
c. Security
d. Usability
Complete
Mark 1 out of 1 Select one:

a. Improved Performance
b. More Memory
c. It supports 16-bit Windows on Windows (WOW) environment
d. Improved Security

Complete

a. Windows 7 Ultimate
b. Windows 7 Home Basic
c. Windows 7 Professional
d. Windows 7 Enterprise
Mark 1 out of 1
Select one:
a. Migration
b. None of the Choices
Complete

c. Typically, requires replacing existing computer hardware
d. Does not require the reinstallation of applications
Mark 1 out of 1
Select one:
a. Windows Easy Transfer
c. User State Migration Tool
d. Windows Upgrade Advisor
Complete

a. Windows Vista SP1
b. Windows 95
d. Windows XP
◄ Lesson 3: Installing, Upgrading and

Jump to... Prelim Exam ►
Migrating to Windows 7
Home / My courses / CS-6206-2016S / Week 2: Short Quiz / Prelim Quiz 1

State Finished
Marks 10/10
Complete

a. IEEE 802.16
b. IEEE 802.3
c. IEEE 802.11
d. IEEE 802.5
Complete

a. Router
b. Switch
c. Firewall
d. Network Adapter

Complete

a. 802.11 a
b. 802.11 n
c. 802.11 b
d. 802.11 h
Complete

b. WiMax
c. Token Ring
d. Ethernet

Complete

a. Backbone
b. Bridge
c. Network Adapter
d. Leased Lines
Mark 1 out of 1
Select one:
a. Hub
b. Firewall
c. Router
d. Switch

Complete

a. Bus
b. Hybrid
c. Mesh
d. Crown
Mark 1 out of 1
Select one:
a. Cloud
b. Intranet
c. Internet
d. Extranet

Complete

b. Campus Area Network
c. Metropolitan Area Network
Mark 1 out of 1
Select one:
b. Wireless Local Area Network
c. Metropolitan Area Network
d. Virtual Local Area Network
◄ Lesson 1: Understanding Network

Jump to... Lesson 2: Server Roles ►
Infrastructure and Components
Home / My courses / UGRD-FILI6201-2016S

/ Week 1: Mga Batayang Kaalaman sa Wika, Pananaliksik, Pagsulat at Pagsasalita / Prelim Quiz 1
Started on Sunday, 30 August 2020, 10:27 AM

State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 30 August 2020, 10:28 AM
Time taken 1 min 20 secs
Marks 10.00/10.00
Grade 100.00 out of 100.00
Question 1 Ang antas ng wika na karaniwang naririnig sa labas ng bahay, tabing kalye, o sa mga tambay.
Complete

1.00
a. Teknikal
b. Kolokyal
c. Dayalek
d. Domain
Question 2 Uri ng wika na natutuhan ng bata mula pagkabata, naririnig sa loob ng tahanan, o kaya naman ay
Complete kinamulatan sa mga magulang
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. likas
b. artipisyal
c. repertwa
d. collage
Question 3 Taguri sa wikang ginagamit ng mga etnolinggwistikong grupo ng bawat bansa.

Complete

1.00
a. lalawiganin
b. dayalekto
c. register
d. idyolek
Question 4 Uri ng wika na natutunan sa pangangailangan dahil sa likha ng iba’t ibang larangan gaya ng sa
Complete matematika at siyensya.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. saywika
b. likas
c. artipisyal
d. metalinggwal
Question 5 Ang mga Bulakeño, Caviteño, Davaoueño, at Pampangeño ay ginagamit ang kani-kanilang wikang
Complete ____________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. pambansa
b. nangangteknikal
c. pabalbal
d. lalawiganin
Question 6 Anong bahagi ng papel pananaliksik ang naglalaman ng kompirmasyon sa pagkakapasa ng

Complete mananaliksik
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. dahong pagpapatibay
b. fly leaf 1
c. dahoon ng kompirmasyon
d. pasasalamat
Question 7 Ito ang kabanata ng pananaliksik na tumutukoy sa mga babasahin na may kaugnayan sa paksa ng pag-
Complete aaral
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Wala sa mga pagpipilian
b. Mga Kaugnay na Sangay at Pananaliksik
c. Mga Kahalintulad na Babasahin
d. Mga Kaugnay na Pag-aaral at Literatura
Question 8 Ito ang naglalarawan sa mga kagamitan at pamamaraan ng pananaliksik

Complete

1.00
a. Tritment ng mga Datos
b. Instrumento ng Pananaliksik
c. Respondente
d. Sarbey
Question 9 Sa kabanatang ito ng pananaliksik makikita ang buod ng isinagawang pag-aaral

Complete

1.00
a. Buod na Pahina
b. Abstrak
c. Presentasyon at Interpretasyon ng mga Datos
d. Lagom, Konklusyon at Rekomendasyon
Question 10 Alin ang hindi nababasa sa mga panghuling pahina

Complete

1.00
a. Listahan ng Sanggunian
b. Pasasalamat
c. Apendiks
d. Lahat ng nabanggit
Pagbasa at Pagsusuri ng mga Kritikal na

◄ Mga Batayang Kaalaman sa Wika,
Jump to... Pag-aaral sa Displinang Filipino (Unang
Pananaliksik, Pagsulat at Pagsasalita
Bahagi) ►
9/6/2020 Midterm Quiz 1: Attempt review
Home / My courses / CS-6206-2016S / Week 7: Implementing User Accounts and Groups / Midterm Quiz 1
Started on Sunday, 6 September 2020, 8:31 PM

State Finished
Completed on Sunday, 6 September 2020, 8:35 PM
Marks 10/10
Question 1 It provides authenticaltion, host operations of master roles, hosting the global catalog and support
Complete group policies and sysvol.
Mark 2 out of 2
Select one:
a. Domain User
b. User Accounts
d. Groups
Question 2 It is an object that contains all of the information that defines a user in Windows Server 2008 R2.
Complete

a. Groups
c. Domain User
d. User Account
Question 3 Which of the following is a main type of group?

Complete

a. Domain Local
b. Global
c. Distribution
d. Universal
9/6/2020 Midterm Quiz 1: Attempt review
Question 4 It is a collection of user accounts, computer accounts, contacts and other groups that you can manage
Complete as a single unit.
Mark 2 out of 2
Select one:
a. Domain User
b. Groups
c. User Account
Question 5 It enables users to log on to the domain to gain access to the network resources and it is reside in
Complete Active Directory.
Mark 2 out of 2
Select one:
a. Domain User Accounts
b. Local User Accounts
d. Built-in User Accounts
◄ Lesson 4: Implementing User Lesson 5: Configuring Disks and Device

Jump to...
Accounts and Groups Drivers ►

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In networking world, "Rack unit" is the term used to express the thickness or height of a

In network troubleshooting, which command is used to display the bandwidth of an

In this chapter, what is the function of PoE pass-through?

A network administrator is overseeing the implementation of first hop redundancy

In network troubleshooting, which command can be issued on a router to verify that

As discussed in this chapter, what is an advantage of PVST+?

In this chapter, which is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?

An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. What

As discussed in LAN Redundancy chapter, What is the purpose of HSRP?

Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco Catalyst switches?

Which of the following is a layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free network?

In wireless LAN technology and standards what classification do Bluetooth belongs?

In troubleshooting EtherChannels as shown in the diagram below. An EtherChannel was

Understanding scaling networks, which feature supports higher throughput in switched

A certified network engineer of a new startup company is configuring an EtherChannel link

d. onIn implementing EtherChannel technology, which PAgP mode combination will

Understanding EtherChannel technology, what is an advantage of using LACP?

In implementing EtherChannel technology, which PAgP mode combination will establish an

Whichamong the listed below describes an EtherChannel implementation as mentioned in

A newly hired network engineer has been instructed to implement EtherChannel in a

Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?

a. 48 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements

b. 12 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements

c. 48 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches

d. 24 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port

a. To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors

In implementing EtherChannel technology, which PAgP mode combination will establish an

In configuring Etherchannels which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an

As discussed in link aggregation what are two requirements to be able to configure an

Among the 802.11 standards what is the maximum speed of 802.11g?

Whichamong the listed below describes an EtherChannel implementation as mentioned in

Which wireless network topology is being configured by a IT technician who is installing a

As explain in wireless lan security what is an advantage of SSID cloaking?

During a Cisco certification exam, a network engineer is configuring a small network as

Home / My courses / UGRD-IT6224B-2016S / Week 16: Pre-Final Exam / Pre-Final Exam

Started on Monday, 7 September 2020, 10:58 AM

Mark 1.00 out of Select one:

The correct answer is: External route

The correct answer is: 1 & 5

Mark 1.00 out of

b. The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2. 

c. The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.

d. R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.

Mark 1.00 out of Select one:

c. Router link entries 

d. Network link entries

The correct answer is: Router link entries

Question 5 What does an O routing table entry mean?

Mark 0.00 out of Select one:

The correct answer is: Intra-area route

The correct answer is: Multi-area OSPF

The correct answer is 'True'.

Mark 1.00 out of

b. network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1 

c. network 192.168.0 .0 0.0.127.255 area

d. network 192.168.1.128 255.255.255.128 area 1

The correct answer is: network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1

The correct answer is: administrative distance

b. The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.