Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________ ID: A

CROP AND SOIL SCIENCE

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 1. Yield can either be biologic or economic.

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 2. Classification of plant is based on the following:

a. natural or morphological c. agricultural
b. environmental d. all of the above

____ 3. The word cereal is derived from the name of the most important grain deity.
a. The Roman Goddess Venus c. The Roman God of Soul
b. The Roman Goddess Ceres d. The Xeres God of Israel

____ 4. An example of pulse crop is

a. cowpea b. squash c. tomato d. eggplant

____ 5. The commercial fiber crops in the Philippines are;

a. ramie b. cotton c. kenaf d. all of the above

____ 6. Which is not under the family Leguminosae?

a. Phaseolus lunatus c. Lagenaria sicerarea
b. Vigna Unguiculata d. Phaseolus vulgaris

____ 7. Which of the following do not belong to the group?

a. centro b. siratro c. stylo d. paragrass

____ 8. Which is not an example of root crops?

a. sweet potato b. arrow root c. potato d. cassava

____ 9. Select crops which can be classified as an agronomic crops and horticultural crops based on their uses under
the Philippine condition
a. rice b. mungbean c. sorghum d. peanu

____ 10. These are annual herbaceous plants that are grown on the farm under a system of extensive or large scale
culture
a. agronomic or field crop c. banana
b. orchid d. pomological plants

____ 11. These are annual and perennial species which are grown under a system of intensive culture
a. horticultural crops c. catch crop
b. agronomical crops d. all of the above

____ 12. The crops used for industrial processing are

a. sugarcane b. tobacco c. castor bean d. all of the above

1
Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 13. Example of special classification of field crops.

a. Pulses c. Tuber crop
b. Cover crop d. none of the above

____ 14. Wheat’s scientific name

a. Triticum aestivum c. Oryza sativa
b. Zea Mays d. Saccharum offinarum

____ 15. Apical dominance is a phenomenon wherein lateral buds are dormant in the presence of terminal buds is
effected by
a. ethylene b. gibberellins c. auxins d. cytokinins

____ 16. Stomatal closure is not only due to the deficiency of turgor pressure but also due to the action hormones. It is
effected by
a. ethylene b. gibberellins c. cytokinins d. abscissic acid

____ 17. Senescence is yellowing of leaves due to the maturity and it is due to a hormone called
a. ethylene b. gibberellins c. cytokinins d. auxins

____ 18. short day plants are plants that bear flowers during the period of the year when nights are longer than day
time. The flowering of these kinds of plants is due to the action of the hormone
a. auxin b. abscissic acid c. ethylene d. cytokinins

____ 19. The production of ethylene is due to the action of growth hormone known as
a. gibberellins b. cytokinins c. auxins d. abscissin

____ 20. Geotropism is response of the plants to gravity. This response is an effect of growth hormone called
a. auxin b. gibberellins c. cytokinins d. ethylene

____ 21. Senescence is effected by ethylene but prevented by

a. auxin b. cytokinins c. gibberellins d. abscissic acid

____ 22. Abscission, the falling off of leaves, flowers, or fruits, is due to abscissic acid and ethylene but prevented by
a. gibberellins b. cytokinins c. auxins d. none of these

____ 23. Is an irreversible increase in the size of the organism

a. Development b. Growth c. Catabolism d. Anabolism

____ 24. The appearance of a plant with respect a particular character.

a. Phenotype b. genotype c. ideotype d. prototype

____ 25. The genetic constitution of an individual

a. Genotype b. phenotype c. gametophyte d. ideotype

____ 26. The differential performance of genotypes in different environmental is termed as

a. adaptation b. GE interaction c. plant reaction d. adaptability

____ 27. A material of plants capable of generative or vegetative propagation with current or potential value for food,
agriculture and forestry.
a. Plant genetic resources c. Genetic Diversity
b. Genetic resources d. All of the choices

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 28. A plant in which a genes has been transformed through genetic engineering is called
a. transgenic plant c. engineered plant
b. modified plant d. biotech plant

____ 29. The capacity of a cell cultured in vitro to regenerate into a plant
a. potency b. totipotency c. sustainability d. cultur-ability

____ 30. Cultivation of plant cells and tissue in vitro on an artificial media
a. plant culture b. tissue culture c. cell culture d. horticulture

____ 31. A substance whether natural or synthetic that can modify growth
a. growth regulator b. fertilizer c. nutrient media d. enhancer

____ 32. Group of plant hormone that induces cell elongationand cell division
a. gibberellins b. growth regulator c. vitamins d. trace elements

____ 33. Any organic substance which at low concentrations, promotes inhibits or modifies growth
a. Hormone b. fertilizer c. enhancer d. modifier

____ 34. Organic compounds serving as a source of energy, including sugars, starches, and cellulose.
a. Fertilizer b. carbohydrates c. CO2 d. hormone

____ 35. The development of cells or tissues with a specific function and/or the regeneration of organs or organ-like
structure (roots, shoots, etc.) or embryo
a. differentiation b. development c. rejuvenation d. organogenesis

____ 36. Term used to describe seeds of plants that could be kept viable for a long time. It cannot withstand drying
and should not permit to dry out before planting
a. Recalcitrant b. registered c. Foundation d. Orthodox

____ 37. Another term for propagating material

a. vegetative b. separation c. division d. propagules

____ 38. Sexual propagation is also known as

a. vegetative propagation c. Embryo culture
b. Tissue culture d. Seed propagation

____ 39. Propagation which preserve the characters of the parent plant
a. Sexual c. Asexual
b. Thinning d. Etiolation

____ 40. Is not an example of classes of seed recognized by the Philippine Seed Certification Scheme
a. Foundation Seeds c. Good Seed
b. Registered Seed d. Certified Seed

____ 41. Cabbage, onion, carrots require

a. vernalization
b. rainfall
c. high temperature
d. adequate amount of fertilizer for flower induction

3
Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 42. An example of biennial vegetable crop is

a. tomato b. onion c. eggplant d. squash

____ 43. Which is not included as rogues in seed production?

a. weeds
b. plants that are genetically pure and conform with the standard of the variety intended for
reproduction
c. plants of another cultivars of the same species
d. diseased plant of the same crop species

____ 44. Theoretically, crops intended for seed production shall be harvested at the point of
a. Physiological maturity
b. When the fruits are very dry
c. when there is no rain
d. when the sunlight is very intense so that the seed quality are good.

____ 45. The inability of a viable seeds to germinate under a favorable conditions
a. Seed dormancy b. Vernalization c. Fermentation d. Quiscence

____ 46. An example of monoecious plant.

a. Corn b. Beans c. Eggplant d. Tomato

____ 47. A white tag shall be attached to the bag of

a. Breeder seed c. Registered Seed
b. Foundation Seed d. Certified seed of rice

____ 48. A component in crop production system can not be controlled by human being.
a. Technological Factor c. Socio-economic factor
b. Environmental factor d. None of the above

____ 49. The class of seed which is considered the purest in terms of varietal purity is
a. breeder seed b. foundation seed c. registered seed d. certified seed

____ 50. The soil tilled when it is saturated with water.

a. wet land or low land preparation c. Dry land or upland preparation
b. Primary tillage preparation d. Zero tillage preparation

____ 51. It refers to the traditional system, which begins with a primary tillage operation followed by several
secondary tillage operations
a. Zero tillage c. Maximum or conventional tillage
b. Minimum tillage d. Secondary tillage

____ 52. It is a process by which the soil clods are broken and the soil is puddle by means of a comb harrow or rake or
spike toothed harrow. Usually the operation is done by alternate direction with two lengthwise and one
crosswise.
a. Plowing b. harrowing c. Rotavating d. furrowing

____ 53. It is a usual method employed by farmers in planting the seeds evenly into the field.
a. Broadcast method c. Hill method
b. Transplant method d. Drill method

4
Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 54. Method of planting where the seeds are sown first on specially prepared seedbed or seed boxes. the seedlings
are nursed for sometime before they are transplanted to the final site.
a. Broadcast method c. Drill method
b. Ridge method d. Transplanting method

____ 55. Planting the seeds by distributing them individually in the row is called:
a. Hill planting c. Ridge planting
b. Drill Planting d. List planting

____ 56. A method of planting the seed at specified depth on top of the furrows and with the expectation of abundant
rain.
a. Surface or flat-bed planting c. List planting
b. Ridge planting d. Hill planting

____ 57. Method of raising rice seedling where pre-germinated seeds are sown on cement or puddle soil covered with
banana leaves or polyethylene plastic sheet. The raised seedlings are ready for transplanting in 10-14 days.
a. wet bed method c. Dry bed method
b. Dapog method d. Seedbed method

____ 58. It is the process of preparing the soil for planting, thereby providing good physical, chemical and biological
conditions that would permit optimum plant growth.
a. Land preparation c. Secondary tillage
b. Primary tillage d. tillage

____ 59. The mechanical manipulation of the soil from a known condition to a different desired condition
a. Primary tillage b. soil tilth c. Tillage d. Secondary tillage

____ 60. Tillage operation that does the initial cutting or breaking of the soil at its state here either a crop has been
grown or harvested or simply a barren soil.
a. Secondary tillage c. Zero tillage
b. Primary tillage d. Maximum tillage

____ 61. Tillage operation on the soil after the primary tillage. It includes breaking of the soil clods or granulation as
in dry land operation or puddling as in wetland.
a. Zero tillage c. Secondary tillage
b. Minimum tillage d. Maximum tillage

____ 62. Land preparation is performed at relatively low moisture content, well below the saturation moisture level.
a. Wet land or low land preparation c. Dry land or upland preparation
b. Secondary tillage preparation d. Maximum tillage preparation

____ 63. The process by which seeds with inhibitory substances are subjected to cold temperature treatment prior to
germination to trigger the process of flowering later is called:
a. Hardening b. Vernalization c. Acclimatization d. Scarification

____ 64. A system of cropping in which as many crops are grown as possible on the same land within a pear is known
as:
a. monocropping c. integrated farming
b. multiple cropping d. sustainable farming

5
Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 65. The growing of different crops in a definite order of succession on the same land is known as:
a. crop rotation c. integrated farming
b. farming system d. sustainable farming

____ 66. In crop rotation, the most critical factor to consider is:
a. Proper combinations of crop c. proper inter-cropping of crops
b. right sequencing of growing the crop d. proper mixing of crops

____ 67. The multiple cropping technology is quite difficult for farmers to adopt because of:
a. the need to grow new and unfamiliar crops
b. the need for timely implementation of required practices
c. the need for additional resources
d. all of the above

____ 68. Refers to the growing of 2 or more crops on the same field within a year with the succeeding crop planted
only after the preceding crop has been harvested:
a. sequential cropping c. relay cropping
b. inter-cropping d. mono-cropping

____ 69. Farmers inter-cropped peanut in between corn plants because:

a. it reduces cornborer infestation c. it serve as animal feeds
b. it serves as sources of seeds d. all of the above

____ 70. Students who are oriented in the farming system concepts becomes:
a. specialist b. expert c. scientist d. generalist

____ 71. A farming system practiced by a farmer is the result of complex interaction of:
a. independent variables c. independent variables and component
b. interdependent components d. a & b

____ 72. In farming system, the production resources needed for the attainment of family goals include
a. land b. labor c. capital d. all of the above

____ 73. Many desert plants fix carbon using

a. C3 photosynthesis c. Calvin cycle
b. C4 photosynthesis d. CAm pathway

____ 74. Photosynthesis is an enzyme catalyzed reaction and the first enzyme involved in the process
a. phosphororylase b. isomerase c. dehydrogenase d. carboxylase

____ 75. The require compounds for CO2 fixation, NADPH and ATP, are produced via
a. cyclic photophosphorylation c. dark reaction
b. non-cyclic photophosphorylation d. light reaction

____ 76. The destruction of the chlorophyll molecules due to the strong light intensity is called
a. photolysis b. photo-oxidation c. etiolation d. decoleration

____ 77. From the electromagnetic spectrum, the light quality best absorbed for photosynthesis is
a. green b. red c. blue d. yellow

6
Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 78. The initial step in the respiration process is

a. Krebs cycle c. glycolysis
b. electron transport system d. fermentation

____ 79. The end of product of fermentation process is

a. pyruvic acid b. citric acid c. malic acid d. alcohol

____ 80. The final stage in an aerobic respiration is

a. fermentation c. Krebs cycle
b. electron transport system d. citric acod cycle

____ 81. The chief end product of respiration is

a. ADP b. glucose c. water d. ATP

____ 82. Which is not a factor affecting respiration?

a. temperature c. chloropyll contentt
b. substrate concentration d. enzyme concentration

____ 83. Which is not a product of respiration process?

a. glucose b. energy c. water d. carbon dioxide

____ 84. This is a CAM plant

a. rice b. corn c. wheat d. pineapple

____ 85. The sequence, arrangement, pattern, process of growing crops is known as
a. system analysis c. soil management
b. cropping system d. farm management

____ 86. The resumption growth of the embryo and the process which result in the production of seedlings.
a. absorption b. germination c. inhibition d. multiplication

____ 87. The practice of covering bare soil around the stem of growing plant with dried grass or plant residue is called
a. green manuring b. mulching c. liming d. topping

____ 88. Is the amount of organic matter in a given area a given point in time.
a. Yield c. Harvest index
b. Biomass d. all of the choicdes

____ 89. The commercially cultivated legumes in the Philippines

a. soybean b. mungbean c. peanut d. all of the choices

____ 90. This is the amount of dry matter produced per unit area
a. biological yield c. harvest index
b. economic yield d. all of the choices

____ 91. Is the light intensity at which energy stored by photosynthesis equals the energy released by respiration at a
given CO2 concentration in an environment.
a. Irradiance c. light duration
b. light saturation point d. light compensation point

7
Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 92. Translocation of food materials from the site of production to the different plant part is via
a. xylem vessel c. blood vessel
b. pholem vessel d. none of the choices

____ 93. Respiration occurs in

a. mitochondria c. chloroplast
b. ribosomes d. none of the choices

____ 94. Farming system which consist of planting crops and trees

a. Agrisilviculture c. agrosilvopastoral
b. silvopastoral d. sericulture

____ 95. The original source of most organic matter in soil is

a. plant residues c. soil inhabiting microorganism
b. bodies of dead animals and insects d. rocks

____ 96. The most abundant gas in the soil atmosphere is:
a. CO2 b. O2 c. N2 d. A

____ 97. A soil horizon is defined as:

a. the depth of finely divided soil mineral matter over bed rock
b. soil layer that differs in recognizable properties from other layers immediately above or
below
c. thee slope of the soil surface relative to the horizontal
d. any of the above

____ 98. An example of physical weathering process is

a. exfoliation b. solution c. hydration d. oxidation

____ 99. A civil engineer is a :

a. edaphologists c. none of the above
b. pedologists d. anthropologist

____ 100. The study of rock is:

a. minerology b. rockology c. petrology d. hydrology

____ 101. The molten mass from where igneous rocks solidify from is:
a. core b. magma c. mantle d. soil

____ 102. Metamorphism is caused by:

a. high pressure and temperature c. erosion
b. floods d. earthquake

____ 103. The parent material correspond to horizon:

a. AB b. C c. D d. ABCD

____ 104. The true soil correspond to horizon:

a. C b. AB c. ABC d. ABCD

8
Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 105. A lowland paddy soil possesses

a. ABC horizons c. horizon
b. oxidized and reduced layers d. OABC

____ 106. An organic soil is most likely having % OM of

a. 1 b. 5 c. 25 d. 0

____ 107. The mineral supplying P is:

a. feldspar b. apatite c. talc d. pyrite

____ 108. Toumline supplies the element

a. Mn b. B c. Ca d. N

____ 109. The resistance of a mineral to abrasion is a

a. luster b. specific gravity c. hardness d. cleavage

____ 110. The softest mineral is

a. diamond b. talc c. quartz d. apatite

____ 111. The hardest mineral is

a. diamond b. talc c. quartz d. apatite

____ 112. This mineral is hardly soluble in water as

a. Talc b. quartz c. gypsum d. fluorite

____ 113. This is not an element of climate

a. relief b. precipitation c. temperature d. sunshine

____ 114. An edaphologist studies the soil in relation to

a. its genesis
b. to plant growth
c. its capacity to support buildings and structure
d. all of the above

____ 115. Parent material deposited in lakes in a

a. alluvium b. lacustrine c. marine d. tuff

____ 116. The most abundant elements in the earth’s crust are
a. Fe, Al, Mn, N, P c. N, P, K, Ca, Mg
b. O, Si, Al, Fe, Ca d. C, H, O, N, P

____ 117. The soil profile is found in the

a. core b. mantle c. crust d. none of the
above

____ 118. Secondary mineral include

a. Mont b. quartz c. feldspar d. diamond

____ 119. This is not a soil forming factor

a. climate b. organism c. soil color d. time

9
Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 120. The basic elements lost in weathering are

a. Fe, Al b. Ca, Mg c. Zn, Mn d. C, H

____ 121. The main objective of physical weathering is:

a. increase total surface area for chemical weathering
b. weaken rock by removal of bases
c. produce clay
d. leach bases

____ 122. The soil forming factors that normally show the greatest variation from one geographic region to another are:
a. topography and parent material c. climate and vegetation
b. topography d. time and relief

____ 123. Parent material that has formed by weathering of bedrock in place is
a. transported b. residual c. colluvial d. alluvial

____ 124. One of the most variable soil components is:

a. mineral matter b. organic matter c. soil water d. sand

____ 125. Structurally, feldspars are:

a. layered minerals c. chain minerals
b. framework minerals d. none of the above

____ 126. Of the following minerals, the one that expands on wetting is:
a. muscovite b. illite c. montmorillonite d. kaolinite

____ 127. Feldspar minerals that are more easily weathered,by chemical means tend to be high in the element:
a. K b. Na c. Ca d. P

____ 128. The dark color of igneous rocks usually caused by:
a. quartz c. calcite
b. feldspar d. ferrogmagnesian minerals

____ 129. The chemical element in dolomite that is not an important constituent of calcite is
a. Mg b. Ca c. P d. O

____ 130. Basalt weathers more easily than granite, this difference being explain most readily by difference in:
a. mineralogy b. texture c. both a & b d. color

____ 131. The dark color of igneous rocks is usually cause by:
a. quarts b. feldspar c. calcite d. feronagnesian
minerals

____ 132. Soil textural classes are define in terms of ranges in variation in:
a. structure c. texture
b. weathering d. drainage

____ 133. The mass per unit volume of whole soil is:
a. particle density c. bulk density
b. true density d. all of the above

10
Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 134. The physical state of the soil as relates to plant growth is known as soil
a. texture b. consistency c. tilt d. structure

____ 135. the sedimentary rock that contains clay mineral;s as one of its more important constituents is:
a. shale b. limestone c. sandstone d. slate

____ 136. The percent moisture of a moist soil sample that weights 12.5g originally and 10g after oven drying is:
a. 12.5 b. 10 c. 25 d. 22.5

____ 137. The force that determines the height to which water will rise in a vertical capillary tube:
a. surface tension c. infiltration
b. capillarity d. capillary fringe

____ 138. The entry of surface applied water into soil is known as:
a. infiltration c. seepage
b. percolation d. erosion

____ 139. The zone of saturated soil where water is held under suction immediately above the water table is known as:
a. water table c. capillary fringe
b. spring d. capillarity

____ 140. If the oxygen content of the soil air is 155 carbon dioxide will be:
a. 6 c. 0.5
b. .03 d. none of the above

____ 141. The principal mechanism of a gas transfer in soil is;

a. diffusion c. adsorption
b. inhibition d. none of the above

____ 142. The mechanism responsible for most of the heat transfer in soils:
a. convection c. adsorption
b. conduction d. none of the above

____ 143. The acidity of rain water is largely due to the gas:
a. CO2 c. SO3
b. NO3 d. H

____ 144. Which does not relate to CEC?

a. amount of clay c. kind of clay
b. amount of OM d. bulk density

____ 145. This ion is adsorbed with the least force to soil particles:
a. Na c. H
b. Ca d. Al

____ 146. The soil depth from which plants obtain the major part of the water absorbed is turned:
a. effective-rooting depth of plant c. profile
b. solumn d. rizhophere

11
Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 147. The consumptive use of water is defined as that quantity of water in the production of a crop by thee process
of:
a. transpiration c. evapotranspiration
b. evaporation d. WUE

____ 148. The term clay:

a. identifies as a soil separate c. identifies both a soil separate and a soil
textural class
b. identifies a soil textural class d. all of the above

____ 149. Porosity, which is the total pore-space volume of soils:

a. is highest in fine textured soils c. varies little with differences in texture
b. is highest in coarse-textured soils d. is same for all the soil

____ 150. Single-grained is a term that identifies:

a. non structural state in soils c. soil in puddled condition
b. a granular-structural state in soils d. all of the above

____ 151. On the average, the bulk density of soils:

a. varies directly with porosity c. bears no relationship with porosity
b. varies inversely with porosity d. all of the above

____ 152. In a soil plastic state:

a. adhesive forces are more strongly c. adhesive and cohesive forces are about
expressed than are cohesive forces equally expressed
b. cohesive forces are more strongly d. all of the above
expressed than are adhesive forces

____ 153. The hydraulic pressure of water held in the soil by capillary forces of attraction is
a. zero c. negative
b. positive d. 10,000

____ 154. Soil suction in a saturated zone beneath a water table is

a. greater than zero c. less than zero
b. zero d. 10,000

____ 155. In magnitude in algebraic sign, the matric potential of soil water is equal to:
a. negative hydrulic pressure c. soil water tension
b. soilsuction d. positive hydraulic pressure

____ 156. If plant roots where to remove water from the soil water films without absorbing any of the ions of this water,
the osmotic potential of the soil water would:
a. become more negative c. not change
b. become more positive d. soil is at fluid capacity

____ 157. Plant wilting commences when:

a. water flow into roots stops c. water starts flowing from roots back into
the soil
b. water flow into roots drops below d. soil is at field capacity
transperational loss

12
Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 158. More open than not, poor aeration in soils is associated with:
a. excessive biological consumption of c. partial pressure gradient for oxygen
oxygen from soil air
b. low conductivity of soil pores for gases d. all of the above

____ 159. On the average, in the interchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen between the soil and outer atmosphere
a. the volume rate of flow for oxygen is c. the volume rate of flow both gases is
greater than for carbon dioxide essentially the same
b. the volume rate of flow for carbon d. none of the above
dioxide is greater than for oxygen

____ 160. Where a complete cloud cover is present, the component of solar radiation that is of maximum intensity at
ground level is:
a. light b. infrared c. ultraviolet d. far red

____ 161. The exchange of energy is radiant from between the soil and the atmosphere goes on:
a. only during day light hours c. continuously
b. only during night d. only during cloudy day

____ 162. Maximum daily variation in temperature at the surface of the ground normally occurs where;
a. both the soil and sir above are dry c. the soil is dry but that air above is most
b. both the soil and air above are moist d. soil is wet

____ 163. In addition to hydrogen, the caution that normally tends to increase in exchangeable form with increasing
form with increasing soil acidity is
a. aluminum b. calcium c. ammonium d. Mg

____ 164. The caution exchange capacity of a soil is a measure of;

a. the force of bonding between the soil and exchangeable cautions
b. negative charge of the soil neutralized by easily replaceable cautions
c. the speed with which ions added to the soil solution become absorbed on soil particles
surfaces
d. acidity

____ 165. Of the following, the material with the highest caution-exchange capacity is:
a. vermiculite c. organic matter
b. montmorillonite d. kaolinite

____ 166. A soil has a caution exchange capacity of 10me per 100g, and the following complement of exchangeable
cautions, the amounts being expressed in mill equivalents per 100g of soil: H, 3.0 Ca, 2.0 Al, 3.0 Mg, 1.0 Na,
0.25 and K, 0.75. The percent base saturation of this soil is
a. 10 b. 40 c. 70 d. 50

____ 167. In slightly acids soil, such as in those with pH between 6.0 and 7.0 the two most abundant cautions will
probably be:
a. calcium and magnesium c. potassium and sodium
b. hydrogen and aluminum d. iron and manganese

____ 168. An illuvial horizon in a soil is designated by the symbol:

a. Al b. A2 c. B2 d. O2

13
Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 169. A parent material that often has the same origin as losses but is separated from the losses by the action of
wind is:
a. colluvium b. volcanic ash c. dune sand d. lahar

____ 170. Of the three groups below, thee one in which all symbols are for horizons that can have the presence of
organic matter as an identifying feature is:
a. O2, Al, B2 b. Al, A2, B2 c. Al, A3, C d. none of the
above

____ 171. If an improvement in environmental conditions increases the productivity of a crop, the water-use efficiency
of the crop probably will
a. increase c. remain relatively unchanged
b. decrease d. none of the above

____ 172. An improvement in soil drainage is usually achieved by

a. reducing the distance of saturated flow through the soil
b. improving the structural conditions of the subsoil
c. growing crops that develop deep root systems
d. all of the above

____ 173. The removal of the excess water from the waterlogged soil depends on
a. a difference in soil suction c. atmospheric pressure
b. the force of gravity d. temperature

____ 174. CEC is 20 m.e./100g. If it has 8 m.e. H and thee remaining cautions are bases, what is the % BS?
a. 80 b. 40 c. 60 d. 50

____ 175. During the dry season plant roots are naturally supplied with water through
a. infiltration b. capillarity c. percolation d. leaching

____ 176. Which soil property is not influenced by OM?

a. bulk density b. texture c. structure d. color

____ 177. Which is the seat of chemical activities in the soil?

a. sand b. silt c. colloid d. clay

____ 178. Which has the highest pH dependent negative charges?

a. OM b. illite c. montmorillonite d. kaolinite

____ 179. Ten m.e. of Ca (40) can replace how many m.e. of H in the change complex?
a. 0.2 b. 1 c. 20 d. 10

____ 180. The soil contains 10 m.e. Ca/100 g. This is equivalent to how many tons Ca per HFS?
a. 4 b. 10 c. 10 d. 200

____ 181. One m.e. ca/100g soil is equivalent to how many ppm Ca? At.Wt. Ca = 40
a. 400 b. 40 c. 200 d. 80

____ 182. The predominant charge of the soil is

a. negative b. positive c. neutral d. none of the
above

14
Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 183. A loam soil has

a. macropores>micropores c. micropores=macropores
b. macropores<micropores d. zero pore spaces

____ 184. The dominant basic caution in agricultural soil is

a. Na b. K c. Mg d. Ca

____ 185. A submerged soil has

a. all pores filled with water c. macropores filled with air
b. macropores filled with water d. micropores filled with air

____ 186. Under conditions of high rainfall and humidity the least leached caution is
a. Al b. Ca c. Mg d. Na

____ 187. Which is not related to CEC?

a. kind of clay c. amount of OM
b. amount of clay d. none of the above

____ 188. At the same level of OM which will have the highest water holding capacity?
a. loamy sand b. clay loam c. clay d. sandy loam

____ 189. The capability of the soil being molded by hands

a. stickness b. plasticity c. tilth d. cracking

____ 190. If a ring without crack is formed in the roll method of determining texture thee texture is most likely:
a. loamy sand b. clay loam c. clay d. sandy loam

____ 191. The hydrometer and pipette method of mechanical analysis obey the
a. Dick’s Law b. Freundlick’s Law c. Ohm’s Law d. Stokes Law

____ 192. This is used in determining the soil color:

a. color wheel c. Munsell color chart
b. LCC d. none of the above

____ 193. The hardest mineral is

a. quartz b. diamond c. talc d. topaz

____ 194. Which among these minerals does not contributes any soil nutrient:
a. quartz b. talc c. apatite d. clacite

15
 ID: A

CROP AND SOIL SCIENCE

Answer Section

TRUE/FALSE

1. ANS: T PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

2. ANS: D PTS: 1
3. ANS: B PTS: 1
4. ANS: A PTS: 1
5. ANS: D PTS: 1
6. ANS: C PTS: 1
7. ANS: D PTS: 1
8. ANS: C PTS: 1
9. ANS: A PTS: 1
10. ANS: A PTS: 1
11. ANS: A PTS: 1
12. ANS: D PTS: 1
13. ANS: B PTS: 1
14. ANS: A PTS: 1
15. ANS: C PTS: 1
16. ANS: D PTS: 1
17. ANS: A PTS: 1
18. ANS: B PTS: 1
19. ANS: C PTS: 1
20. ANS: D PTS: 1
21. ANS: B PTS: 1
22. ANS: C PTS: 1
23. ANS: B PTS: 1
24. ANS: A PTS: 1
25. ANS: A PTS: 1
26. ANS: B PTS: 1
27. ANS: A PTS: 1
28. ANS: A PTS: 1
29. ANS: B PTS: 1
30. ANS: B PTS: 1
31. ANS: A PTS: 1
32. ANS: A PTS: 1
33. ANS: A PTS: 1
34. ANS: B PTS: 1
35. ANS: A PTS: 1
36. ANS: A PTS: 1

1
 ID: A

37. ANS: D PTS: 1

38. ANS: D PTS: 1
39. ANS: C PTS: 1
40. ANS: C PTS: 1
41. ANS: A PTS: 1
42. ANS: B PTS: 1
43. ANS: B PTS: 1
44. ANS: A PTS: 1
45. ANS: A PTS: 1
46. ANS: A PTS: 1
47. ANS: A PTS: 1
48. ANS: D PTS: 1
49. ANS: A PTS: 1
50. ANS: A PTS: 1
51. ANS: C PTS: 1
52. ANS: B PTS: 1
53. ANS: A PTS: 1
54. ANS: D PTS: 1
55. ANS: B PTS: 1
56. ANS: B PTS: 1
57. ANS: B PTS: 1
58. ANS: A PTS: 1
59. ANS: C PTS: 1
60. ANS: B PTS: 1
61. ANS: B PTS: 1
62. ANS: C PTS: 1
63. ANS: B PTS: 1
64. ANS: B PTS: 1
65. ANS: A PTS: 1
66. ANS: B PTS: 1
67. ANS: D PTS: 1
68. ANS: A PTS: 1
69. ANS: A PTS: 1
70. ANS: D PTS: 1
71. ANS: D PTS: 1
72. ANS: D PTS: 1
73. ANS: D PTS: 1
74. ANS: D PTS: 1
75. ANS: D PTS: 1
76. ANS: B PTS: 1
77. ANS: B PTS: 1
78. ANS: C PTS: 1
79. ANS: D PTS: 1
80. ANS: B PTS: 1
81. ANS: D PTS: 1

2
 ID: A

82. ANS: C PTS: 1

83. ANS: A PTS: 1
84. ANS: D PTS: 1
85. ANS: B PTS: 1
86. ANS: B PTS: 1
87. ANS: B PTS: 1
88. ANS: B PTS: 1
89. ANS: D PTS: 1
90. ANS: A PTS: 1
91. ANS: D PTS: 1
92. ANS: B PTS: 1
93. ANS: A PTS: 1
94. ANS: B PTS: 1
95. ANS: A PTS: 1
96. ANS: C PTS: 1
97. ANS: B PTS: 1
98. ANS: A PTS: 1
99. ANS: B PTS: 1
100. ANS: C PTS: 1
101. ANS: B PTS: 1
102. ANS: A PTS: 1
103. ANS: C PTS: 1
104. ANS: B PTS: 1
105. ANS: B PTS: 1
106. ANS: C PTS: 1
107. ANS: B PTS: 1
108. ANS: B PTS: 1
109. ANS: C PTS: 1
110. ANS: B PTS: 1
111. ANS: A PTS: 1
112. ANS: B PTS: 1
113. ANS: A PTS: 1
114. ANS: B PTS: 1
115. ANS: B PTS: 1
116. ANS: B PTS: 1
117. ANS: C PTS: 1
118. ANS: A PTS: 1
119. ANS: C PTS: 1
120. ANS: B PTS: 1
121. ANS: A PTS: 1
122. ANS: B PTS: 1
123. ANS: B PTS: 1
124. ANS: C PTS: 1
125. ANS: C PTS: 1
126. ANS: C PTS: 1

3
 ID: A

127. ANS: C PTS: 1

128. ANS: D PTS: 1
129. ANS: A PTS: 1
130. ANS: C PTS: 1
131. ANS: D PTS: 1
132. ANS: C PTS: 1
133. ANS: C PTS: 1
134. ANS: C PTS: 1
135. ANS: A PTS: 1
136. ANS: A PTS: 1
137. ANS: A PTS: 1
138. ANS: A PTS: 1
139. ANS: C PTS: 1
140. ANS: A PTS: 1
141. ANS: A PTS: 1
142. ANS: B PTS: 1
143. ANS: A PTS: 1
144. ANS: D PTS: 1
145. ANS: A PTS: 1
146. ANS: A PTS: 1
147. ANS: C PTS: 1
148. ANS: C PTS: 1
149. ANS: A PTS: 1
150. ANS: A PTS: 1
151. ANS: B PTS: 1
152. ANS: B PTS: 1
153. ANS: C PTS: 1
154. ANS: B PTS: 1
155. ANS: A PTS: 1
156. ANS: A PTS: 1
157. ANS: B PTS: 1
158. ANS: B PTS: 1
159. ANS: C PTS: 1
160. ANS: C PTS: 1
161. ANS: C PTS: 1
162. ANS: A PTS: 1
163. ANS: A PTS: 1
164. ANS: B PTS: 1
165. ANS: C PTS: 1
166. ANS: B PTS: 1
167. ANS: A PTS: 1
168. ANS: C PTS: 1
169. ANS: C PTS: 1
170. ANS: A PTS: 1
171. ANS: A PTS: 1

4
 ID: A

172. ANS: A PTS: 1

173. ANS: B PTS: 1
174. ANS: C PTS: 1
175. ANS: B PTS: 1
176. ANS: B PTS: 1
177. ANS: C PTS: 1
178. ANS: A PTS: 1
179. ANS: D PTS: 1
180. ANS: A PTS: 1
181. ANS: C PTS: 1
182. ANS: A PTS: 1
183. ANS: C PTS: 1
184. ANS: D PTS: 1
185. ANS: A PTS: 1
186. ANS: A PTS: 1
187. ANS: D PTS: 1
188. ANS: C PTS: 1
189. ANS: B PTS: 1
190. ANS: C PTS: 1
191. ANS: D PTS: 1
192. ANS: C PTS: 1
193. ANS: B PTS: 1
194. ANS: A PTS: 1

5
CROP AND SOIL SCIENCE [Answer Strip] ID: A

B 13.
_____ A 28.
_____ B 42.
_____ D 54.
_____

B 43.
_____
A 14.
_____ B 29.
_____
B 55.
_____
T
_____ 1.
B 30.
_____
C 15.
_____
B 56.
_____
A 31.
_____ A 44.
_____

D
_____ 2. D 16.
_____
A 32.
_____
B 57.
_____

B
_____ 3. A 17.
_____ A 33.
_____
A 45.
_____

B 18.
_____ B 34.
_____
A 46.
_____ A 58.
_____
A
_____ 4.
A 35.
_____
A 47.
_____
D
_____ 5. C 19.
_____
C 59.
_____
C
_____ 6. D 20.
_____ A 36.
_____
D 48.
_____
B 60.
_____
B 21.
_____
D
_____ 7. D 37.
_____
A 49.
_____
C 22.
_____
D 38.
_____ B 61.
_____
C
_____ 8. A 50.
_____
B 23.
_____
A
_____ 9.
C 39.
_____
C 51.
_____ C 62.
_____
A 24.
_____

A 10.
_____
A 25.
_____ C 40.
_____
B 63.
_____
B 52.
_____
B 26.
_____
A 11.
_____ A 41.
_____
B 64.
_____
A 27.
_____
A 53.
_____
D 12.
_____
CROP AND SOIL SCIENCE [Answer Strip] ID: A

A 65.
_____ C 78.
_____ B 92.
_____ B
_____105. B
_____120.

A
_____121.
B 66.
_____ D 79.
_____ A 93.
_____ C
_____106.

B 80.
_____ B
_____107.
D 67.
_____ B 94.
_____
B
_____122.
B
_____108.
D 81.
_____

A 95.
_____ C
_____109. B
_____123.
A 68.
_____ C 82.
_____

B
_____110. C
_____124.
C 96.
_____
A 83.
_____
A
_____111. C
_____125.
A 69.
_____
B 97.
_____
D 84.
_____
B
_____112.
D 70.
_____ C
_____126.
B 85.
_____
A
_____113.
D 71.
_____ C
_____127.
A 98.
_____ B
_____114.
B 86.
_____
D
_____128.
D 72.
_____ B 99.
_____
B 87.
_____

D 73.
_____ A
_____129.
B 88.
_____ B
_____115.
C
_____100.
C
_____130.
B
_____116.
D 74.
_____ B
_____101.
D 89.
_____
D
_____131.
D 75.
_____ A
_____102.
A 90.
_____ C
_____117.

C
_____132.
B 76.
_____ C
_____103.
D 91.
_____ A
_____118.

B
_____104. C
_____133.
B 77.
_____ C
_____119.
CROP AND SOIL SCIENCE [Answer Strip] ID: A

C
_____134. C
_____147. B
_____158. C
_____169. C
_____183.

A
_____135.
A
_____170. D
_____184.
C
_____148. C
_____159.
A
_____136.
A
_____185.

A
_____137. A
_____171.
A
_____149.
C
_____160. A
_____186.

A
_____138.
A
_____150. A
_____172. D
_____187.
C
_____161.
C
_____139.
B
_____151. C
_____188.
A
_____162.
B
_____173.
A
_____140. B
_____189.
B
_____152.
A
_____163.
C
_____190.
C
_____174.
A
_____141.

D
_____191.
B
_____164. B
_____175.
C
_____153.
B
_____142.
C
_____192.
B
_____176.

B
_____154.
A
_____143. C
_____177.
B
_____193.
C
_____165.

A
_____155. A
_____178.
D
_____144. A
_____194.

B
_____166.
D
_____179.
A
_____156.
A
_____145.
A
_____180.
A
_____167.
A
_____146. C
_____181.
B
_____157.

A
_____182.
C
_____168.