DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

CC
ACHLA

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2018
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
5. The CODE for this Booklet is CC.
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on
the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the
Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
8. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her
seat.
9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.
11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet
in the Attendance Sheet.

1
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

1. Niche is 5. What type of ecological pyramid would be

(1) the functional role played by the organism obtained with the following data?
where it lives Secondary consumer : 120 g
(2) the range of temperature that the Primary consumer : 60 g
organism needs to live Primary producer : 10 g
(3) the physical space where an organism
(1) Upright pyramid of biomass
lives
(2) Upright pyramid of numbers
(4) all the biological factors in the organism's
environment (3) Pyramid of energy
Answer ( 1 ) (4) Inverted pyramid of biomass
S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It Answer ( 4 )
refers the functional role played by the Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
organism where it lives. pyramid of biomass, usually found in
2. Which of the following is a secondary aquatic ecosystem.
pollutant? • Pyramid of energy is always upright
(1) O3 • Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
(2) SO2 are not possible, as the data depicts
(3) CO2 primary producer is less than primary
consumer and this is less than secondary
(4) CO
consumers.
Answer ( 1 )
6. Natality refers to
S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are
(1) Number of individuals entering a habitat
formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
CO – Quantitative pollutant (2) Number of individuals leaving the habitat

CO2 – Primary pollutant (3) Birth rate

SO2 – Primary pollutant (4) Death rate

3. In stratosphere, which of the following Answer ( 3 )
elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of S o l . Natality refers to birth rate.
ozone and release of molecular oxygen? • Death rate – Mortality
(1) Oxygen (2) Fe
• Number of individual – Immigration
(3) Cl (4) Carbon entering a habitat is
Answer ( 3 ) • Number of individual – Emigration
S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms, leaving the habital
chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential 7. Offsets are produced by
method converting into oxygen
(1) Parthenogenesis
Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
(2) Parthenocarpy
ozone layer depletion
4. World Ozone Day is celebrated on (3) Mitotic divisions

(1) 22nd April (4) Meiotic divisions

(2) 16th September Answer ( 3 )
(3) 21st April S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed
by mitosis.
(4) 5th June
– Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic
Answer ( 2 )
cells.
S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th
– Parthenogenesis is the formation of
September.
embryo from ovum or egg without
5th June - World Environment Day fertilisation.
21st April - National Yellow Bat Day – Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without
22nd April - National Earth Day fertilisation, (generally seedless)

2
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

8. The experimental proof for semiconservative 11. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
replication of DNA was first shown in a matched?
(1) Virus (1) T.H. Morgan : Linkage

(2) Plant (2) XO type sex : Grasshopper

determination
(3) Bacterium
(3) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(4) Fungus
(4) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first
S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by
pleiotropic gene.
Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
Other options (1, 2 & 3) are correctly
9. Select the correct match matched.
(1) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon 12. Which of the following flowers only once in its
Jacques Monod life-time?

(2) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum (1) Papaya (2) Mango

(3) Jackfruit (4) Bamboo species
and F. Stahl
Answer ( 4 )
(3) Alfred Hershey and - TMV
S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower
Martha Chase generally only once in its life-time after 50-
(4) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus 100 years.
pneumoniae Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic
i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in
Answer ( 1 ) their life-time.
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed 13. Select the correct statement
model of gene regulation known as operon
(1) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
model/lac operon.
(2) Spliceosomes take part in translation
– Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting
technique. (3) Punnett square was developed by a British
scientist
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi-
(4) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’
conservative DNA replication in E. coli.
Answer ( 3 )
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase –
S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British
Proved DNA as genetic material not
geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.
protein
– Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative
10. Which of the following has proved helpful in
mode of replication.
preserving pollen as fossils?
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Oil content and Laderberg.
(3) Cellulosic intine (4) Pollenkitt – Spliceosome formation is part of post-
Answer ( 1 ) transcriptional change in Eukaryotes

S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by 14. The Golgi complex participates in

enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is (1) Activation of amino acid
helpful in preserving pollen as fossil. (2) Respiration in bacteria
Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination. (3) Formation of secretory vesicles
Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of (4) Fatty acid breakdown
pollen grain known as intine made up Answer ( 3 )
cellulose & pectin.
S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases
Oil content – No role is pollen preservation. secretory vesicles from their trans-face.

3
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

15. The stage during which separation of the S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light
paired homologous chromosomes begins is reaction, while NADH is a product of
respiration process.
(1) Zygotene
19. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
(2) Diakinesis
(1) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
(3) Diplotene synthesis
(4) Pachytene (2) It takes part in spindle formation

Answer ( 3 ) (3) It is a membrane-bound structure

S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates. (4) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing

Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e. cells
chiasmata start to shift towards end.
Answer ( 1 )
16. Stomatal movement is not affected by
S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure
(1) CO2 concentration and is a site of r-RNA synthesis.

(2) O2 concentration 20. Which among the following is not a

prokaryote?
(3) Light
(1) Oscillatoria
(4) Temperature
(2) Nostoc
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Mycobacterium
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2
affect opening and closing of stomata while (4) Saccharomyces
they are not affected by O2 concentration.
Answer ( 4 )
17. Stomata in grass leaf are
S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote
(1) Barrel shaped (unicellular fungi)

(2) Rectangular Mycobacterium – a bacterium

(3) Kidney shaped Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria.

(4) Dumb-bell shaped 21. The two functional groups characteristic of

sugars are
Answer ( 4 )
(1) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell
(2) Carbonyl and phosphate
shaped stomata in their leaves.
(3) Carbonyl and methyl
18. Which of the following is not a product of light
reaction of photosynthesis? (4) Hydroxyl and methyl

(1) Oxygen Answer ( 1 )

(2) NADPH S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote

carbohydrate.
(3) NADH
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde,
(4) ATP
ketone or their derivatives, which means they
Answer ( 3 ) have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.

4
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

22. Match the items given in Column I with those 24. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
in Column II and select the correct option are produced exogenously in
given below:
(1) Saccharomyces
Column I Column II
(2) Agaricus
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a
collection of preserved (3) Alternaria
plants and animals (4) Neurospora
b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates Answer ( 2 )
methodically all the
species found in an area Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
with brief description basidiospores or meiospores are
aiding identification produced exogenously.
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried  Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes)
and pressed plant produces ascospores as meiospores but
specimens mounted on endogenously inside the ascus.)
sheets are kept
 Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes)
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a does not produce sexual spores.
list of characters and
 Saccharomyces (Unicellular
their alternates which
are helpful in ascomycetes) produces ascospores,
identification of various endogenously.
taxa. 25. Winged pollen grains are present in
a b c d (1) Pinus
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) Mango
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) Cycas
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) Mustard
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It
Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant
is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to
specimen
form the wings of pollen. It is the
• Key – Identification of various characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
taxa
Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are
• Museum – Plant and animal
not winged shaped.
specimen are preserved
• Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of 26. Which of the following is commonly used as a
species vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
human lymphocytes?
23. Which one is wrongly matched?
(1) pBR 322 (2)  phage
(1) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
(2) Gemma cups – Marchantia (3) Ti plasmid (4) Retrovirus

(3) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae Answer ( 4 )

(4) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
Answer ( 4 ) introducing a DNA fragment in human
lymphocyte.
Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae,
where asexual spores and gametes are Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of
non-motile or non-flagellated. patient are grown in culture outside the body,
• Other options (1, 2 & 3) are correctly a functional gene is introduced by using a
matched retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte.

5
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

27. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a (3) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
foreign company, though such varieties have (4) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
been present in India for a long time. This is
related to Answer ( 1 )
(1) Basmati (2) Lerma Rojo S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
(3) Sharbati Sonora (4) Co-667
Answer ( 1 ) Each cycle has three steps

S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent (i) Denaturation

rights on Basmati rice through the US patent (ii) Primer annealing
and trademark office that was actually been
(iii) Extension of primer
derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
The diversity of rice in India is one of the 31. In India, the organisation responsible for
richest in the world, 27 documented varieties assessing the safety of introducing
of Basmati are grown in India. genetically modified organisms for public use
is
Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf
varieties and claimed as an invention or a (1) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
novelty. (GEAC)
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties (2) Research Committee on Genetic
of wheat. Manipulation (RCGM)
28. Use of bioresources by multinational (3) Council for Scientific and Industrial
companies and organisations without Research (CSIR)
authorisation from the concerned country and
(4) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
its people is called
(1) Bioexploitation Answer ( 1 )

(2) Biodegradation S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation

such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
(3) Biopiracy
Committee) which will make decisions
(4) Bio-infringement regarding the validity of GM research and
Answer ( 3 ) safety of introducing GM-organism for public
services. (Direct from NCERT).
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use
of bioresources by multinational companies 32. What is the role of NAD + in cellular
and other organisation without proper respiration?
authorisation from the countries and people
(1) It is the final electron acceptor for
concerned with compensatory payment
anaerobic respiration.
(definition of biopiracy given in NCERT).
(2) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
29. Select the correct match
(1) G. Mendel - Transformation (3) It functions as an electron carrier.

(2) T.H. Morgan - Transduction (4) It functions as an enzyme.

(3) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross Answer ( 3 )

(4) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron
carrier.
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic 33. Which one of the following plants shows a
acid. very close relationship with a species of moth,
where none of the two can complete its life
30. The correct order of steps in Polymerase
cycle without the other?
Chain Reaction (PCR) is
(1) Viola (2) Banana
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (3) Yucca (4) Hydrilla

6
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of
cells.
species of moth i.e. Pronuba.
39. Pneumatophores occur in
34. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of (1) Submerged hydrophytes
(1) –160°C (2) –196°C (2) Carnivorous plants
(3) –80°C (4) –120°C (3) Free-floating hydrophytes
Answer ( 2 ) (4) Halophytes
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years Answer ( 4 )
in liquid nitrogen at –196°C Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have
(Cryopreservation) pneumatophores.
35. In which of the following forms is iron  Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots
absorbed by plants? having lenticels called pneumathodes to
uptake O2.
(1) Both ferric and ferrous
40. Select the wrong statement :
(2) Free element
(1) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
(3) Ferrous
cell in all kingdoms except Monera
(4) Ferric (2) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
Answer ( 4 * ) structures in Sporozoans
S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric (3) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
ions. (According to NCERT) (4) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
*Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and and Plantae
Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++) Answer ( 2 )
36. Double fertilization is S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in
(1) Syngamy and triple fusion sarcodines (Amoeboid)
(2) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg 41. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
are produced by
(3) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
nuclei (1) Axillary meristems
(4) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen (2) Phellogen
tube with two different eggs (3) Vascular cambium
Answer ( 1 ) (4) Apical meristems
S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon Answer ( 3 )
that occur in angiosperms only. Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization • Form secondary xylem towards its inside
37. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis and secondary phloem towards outsides.
by • 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is
(1) Chara produced than secondary phloem.
(2) Cycas 42. Sweet potato is a modified
(3) Nostoc (1) Rhizome
(4) Green sulphur bacteria (2) Tap root
Answer ( 4 ) (3) Adventitious root

S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as (4) Stem

source of proton, therefore they do not evolve Answer ( 3 )
O2. S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
38. Which of the following elements is responsible for storage of food
for maintaining turgor in cells? • Rhizomes are underground modified stem
(1) Calcium (2) Potassium • Tap root is primary root directly elongated
(3) Sodium (4) Magnesium from the redicle
7
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

43. Which of the following statements is correct? (3) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(1) Stems are usually unbranched in both (4) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
Cycas and Cedrus mitochondrial matrix
(2) Horsetails are gymnosperms
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner
Salvinia is homosporous
mitochondrial membrane.
(4) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
gymnosperms 48. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
Answer ( 4 )
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule. termed as
• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary
(1) Nucleosome (2) Plastidome
44. Casparian strips occur in
(3) Polyhedral bodies (4) Polysome
(1) Endodermis (2) Cortex
Answer ( 4 )
(3) Pericycle (4) Epidermis
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial
formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
and inner tangential wall.
ergasomes.
• It is suberin rich.
49. Which of the following terms describe human
45. Plants having little or no secondary growth
dentition?
are
(1) Cycads (1) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

(2) Conifers (2) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont

(3) Deciduous angiosperms (3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(4) Grasses (4) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually
S o l . In humans, dentition is
do not have secondary growth.
Palm like monocots have anomalous  Thecodont : Teeth are present in the
secondary growth. sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
46. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of  Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
(1) Free ribosomes and RER temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
replaced by a set of permanent or adult
(2) Nucleic acids and SER
teeth.
(3) DNA and RNA
 Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists
(4) Proteins and lipids of different types of teeth namely incisors,
Answer ( 1 ) canine, premolars and molars.
S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and 50. Which of the following events does not occur
even extend into the dendrite but absent in in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
axon and rest of the neuron.
(1) Phospholipid synthesis
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for (2) Cleavage of signal peptide
protein synthesis.
(3) Protein glycosylation
47. Which of these statements is incorrect?
(4) Protein folding
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
outer mitochondrial membrane Answer ( 1 )
(2) Glycolysis operates as long as it is S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in
supplied with NAD that can pick up RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are
hydrogen atoms involved in lipid synthesis.
8
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

51. Select the incorrect match : 54. Which of the following hormones can play a
(1) Polytene – Oocytes of significant role in osteoporosis?
chromosomes amphibians (1) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(2) Submetacentric – L-shaped
(2) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
chromosomes chromosomes
(3) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes (3) Progesterone and Aldosterone

(4) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents (4) Aldosterone and Prolactin

chromosomes Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female
glands of insects of order Diptera. osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of
52. Which of the following is an amino acid estrogen. Parathormone promotes
derived hormone? mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood.
Excessive activity of parathormone causes
(1) Estriol
demineralisation leading to osteoporosis.
(2) Estradiol
55. The transparent lens in the human eye is held
(3) Ecdysone
in its place by
(4) Epinephrine
(1) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary
Answer ( 4 ) body
S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino
(2) smooth muscles attached to the iris
acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a
catecholamine. (3) ligaments attached to the iris
53. Which of the following structures or regions is (4) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
incorrectly paired with its functions?
Answer ( 4 )
(1) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
connecting left and S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by
right cerebral suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary
hemispheres. body.
(2) Hypothalamus : production of
56. In a growing population of a country,
releasing hormones
and regulation of (1) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
temperature, the reproductive individuals.
hunger and thirst.
(2) reproductive and pre-reproductive
(3) Limbic system : consists of fibre individuals are equal in number.
tracts that
interconnect (3) reproductive individuals are less than the
different regions of post-reproductive individuals.
brain; controls
movement. (4) pre-reproductive individuals are more
than the reproductive individuals.
(4) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
and cardiovascular Answer ( 4 )
reflexes.
S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or
Answer ( 3 ) the younger population size is larger than the
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls reproductive group, the population will be an
all emotions in our body but not movements. increasing population.

9
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

57. Match the items given in Column I with those (3) Sacred groves
in Column II and select the correct option (4) Wildlife safari parks
given below :
Answer ( 3 )
Column-I Column-II
Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation  Represent pristine forest patch as
protected by Tribal groups.
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
enrichment 61. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
help in erythropoiesis?
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
a b c d (1) Parietal cells
(1) i ii iv iii (2) Goblet cells
(2) iii iv i ii (3) Mucous cells
(3) i iii iv ii (4) Chief cells
(4) ii i iii iv Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in
enrichment diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal be absorbed easily and used during
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation erythropoiesis.

d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption
of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes
58. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain
pernicious anaemia.
the drug “Smack”?
62. Match the items given in Column I with those
(1) Leaves (2) Roots
in Column II and select the correct option
(3) Latex (4) Flowers given below :
Answer ( 3 )
Column I Column II
S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
formed by acetylation of morphine. It is
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
Poppy plant. c. Albumin (iii) Defence
59. Which one of the following population mechanism
interactions is widely used in medical science a b c
for the production of antibiotics?
(1) (ii) (iii) (i)
(1) Amensalism (2) Parasitism
(2) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) Mutualism (4) Commensalism
(3) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer ( 1 )
(4) (iii) (ii) (i)
S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –)
 Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one Answer ( 1 )
microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during
harm other microbes (eg : coagulation. These strands forms a network
Staphylococcus) and the meshes of which are occupied by
 It has no effect on Penicillium or the blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
organism which produces it. Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
60. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ of plasma proteins which means globulins are
conservation’ except involved in defence mechanisms.
(1) Seed banks Albumin is a plasma protein mainly
(2) Botanical gardens responsible for BCOP.

10
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

63. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle (3) UGGTUTCGCAT

contraction because it (4) AGGUAUCGCAU
(1) Prevents the formation of bonds between Answer ( 4 )
the myosin cross bridges and the actin
filament. S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by
(2) Detaches the myosin head from the actin
‘U’–Uracil in mRNA.
filament.
66. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
(3) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
it.
inherited by
(4) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
(1) Both sons and daughters
of active sites on actin for myosin.
(2) Only grandchildren
Answer ( 4 )
Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level (3) Only sons
many folds in the sarcoplasm. (4) Only daughters
 Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin Answer ( 1 )
(troponin "C") which is masking the active
Sol. • Woman is a carrier
site on actin filament and displaces the
sub-unit of troponin. • Both son & daughter inherit
X–chromosome
 Once the active site is exposed, head of
the myosin attaches and initiate • Although only son be the diseased
contraction by sliding the actin over 67. Match the items given in Column I with those
myosin. in Column II and select the correct option
64. Which of the following is an occupational given below :
respiratory disorder? Column I Column II
(1) Emphysema (2) Botulism a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
(3) Silicosis (4) Anthracis endometrial
Answer ( 3 ) lining
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
dust in the workers involved grinding or stone
breaking industries. c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase

Long exposure can give rise to inflammation a b c

leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious (1) iii i ii
lung damage.
(2) ii iii i
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused
(3) i iii ii
by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects
domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a (4) iii ii i
chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are Answer ( 2 )
damaged due to which respiratory surface is
S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start
decreased.
developing, hence, called follicular phase.
Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused
by Clostridium botulinum. Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
65. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
strand of a gene. What will be the
the endometrium maintained by
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
progesterone.
mRNA?
Menstruation occurs due to decline in
(1) UCCAUAGCGUA
progesterone level and involves breakdown of
(2) ACCUAUGCGAU overgrown endometrial lining.

11
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

68. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism 71. Match the items given in Column I with those
of evolution is in Column II and select the correct option
given below :
(1) Minor mutations Column I Column II
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
(2) Phenotypic variations
and left ventricle
(3) Saltation b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
ventricle and
(4) Multiple step mutations pulmonary artery
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
Answer ( 3 )
atrium and right
S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de ventricle
Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous a b c
phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/ (1) ii i iii
saltation. (2) i ii iii
(3) i iii ii
69. All of the following are part of an operon
(4) iii i ii
except
Answer ( 4 )
(1) a promoter S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present
between right atrium and right ventricle.
(2) an enhancer Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between
left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves
(3) structural genes are present at the openings of aortic and
pulmonary aorta.
(4) an operator
72. Match the items given in Column I with those
Answer ( 2 ) in Column II and select the correct option
given below:
Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in Column I Column II
eukaryotes. a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes. b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
volume
70. Which of the following options correctly c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
represents the lung conditions in asthma and
volume
emphysema, respectively?
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
(1) Decreased respiratory surface; a b c d
Inflammation of bronchioles (1) iv iii ii i
(2) i iv ii iii
(2) Increased respiratory surface;
(3) iii i iv ii
Inflammation of bronchioles
(4) iii ii i iv
(3) Increased number of bronchioles; Answer ( 3 )
Increased respiratory surface S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
expired during normal respiration. It is
(4) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve
respiratory surface volume is additional volume of air a person
can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is
Answer ( 4 ) around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve
volume is additional volume of air a person
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and averages 1000 – 1100 mL.
bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder Residual volume is volume of air remaining in
in which alveolar walls are damaged due to lungs even after forceful expiration. This
which respiratory surface is decreased. averages 1100 – 1200 mL.

12
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

73. Hormones secreted by the placenta to Answer ( 1 )

maintain pregnancy are S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of
(1) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, spermatids into spermatozoa whereas
glucocorticoids spermiation is the release of the sperms from
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous
(2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
tubule.
(3) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
76. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
(4) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin from
Answer ( 2 ) (1) ectoderm and endoderm
S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic (2) mesoderm and trophoblast
gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which (3) endoderm and mesoderm
stimulates the Corpus luteum during
pregnancy to release estrogen and (4) ectoderm and mesoderm
progesterone and also rescues corpus Answer ( 3 )
luteum from regression. Human placental S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are
lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
mother and breast. Progesterone maintains
Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer
pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by
side and ectoderm on inner side.
increasing uterine threshold to contractile
stimuli. Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
74. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
(1) is a post-coital contraceptive. endoderm in inner side.
(2) is an IUD. 77. Which of the following animals does not
(3) increases the concentration of estrogen undergo metamorphosis?
and prevents ovulation in females. (1) Starfish (2) Moth
(4) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, (3) Tunicate (4) Earthworm
preventing eggs from getting implanted. Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week larva into adult.
pill. It contains centchroman and its Animal that perform metamorphosis are said
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen to have indirect development.
Receptor modulation. In earthworm development is direct which
75. The difference between spermiogenesis and means no larval stage and hence no
spermiation is metamorphosis.
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are 78. Which one of these animals is not a
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa homeotherm?
are released from sertoli cells into the (1) Psittacula
cavity of seminiferous tubules.
(2) Camelus
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
(3) Chelone
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation (4) Macropus
spermatozoa are formed. Answer ( 3 )
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain
formed, while in spermiation spermatids constant body temperature, irrespective of
are formed. surrounding temperature.
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
while in spermiation spermatozoa are Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
formed. which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
13
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

79. Which of the following features is used to Column I Column II

identify a male cockroach from a female a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
cockroach? uric acid in joints
(1) Presence of anal cerci b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
(2) Forewings with darker tegmina salts within the
kidney
(3) Presence of caudal styles
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
(4) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the glomeruli
9th abdominal segment
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of
Answer ( 3 ) nephritis glucose in urine
S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal a b c d
styles which are absent in females. (1) iv i ii iii
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal (2) ii iii i iv
segment in male cockroach. (3) i ii iii iv
80. Which of the following organisms are known (4) iii ii iv i
as chief producers in the oceans?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Euglenoids (2) Cyanobacteria
S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the
(3) Diatoms (4) Dinoflagellates urine. This is observed when blood glucose
Answer ( 3 ) level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
is called renal threshold value for glucose.
S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean. Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals
81. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in in the joint.
(1) having two types of nuclei Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium
phosphate produced in the pelvis of the
(2) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
kidney.
(3) having a contractile vacuole for removing Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory
excess water condition of glomerulus characterised by
(4) using flagella for locomotion proteinuria and haematuria.
Answer ( 1 ) 84. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
given below:
having two types of nuclei.
Column I Column II
eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e.
(Function) (Part of Excretory
macronucleus & micronucleus.
system)
82. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
characterized by crop and gizzard in its
digestive system b. Concentration ii. Ureter
of urine
(1) Osteichthyes (2) Aves
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
(3) Reptilia (4) Amphibia
urine
Answer ( 2 )
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian
S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional
urine corpuscle
chambers in their digestive system as crop
and Gizzard. v. Proximal
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains. convoluted tubule

Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to a b c d

crush food grain. (1) v iv i iii
83. Match the items given in Column I with those (2) v iv i ii
in Column II and select the correct option (3) iv i ii iii
given below : (4) iv v ii iii
14
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
particles having molecular weight less than relationship
68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle.  IAIB - Codominance
Concentration of urine refers to water  IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result forms of a gene
of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by (multiple allelism)
counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop. 88. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
Urine is carried from kidney to bladder disease?
through ureter. (1) Vitiligo
Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of (2) Alzheimer's disease
urine.
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis
85. Among the following sets of examples for (4) Psoriasis
divergent evolution, select the incorrect
option : Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune
(1) Eye of octopus, bat and man
disorder in which antibodies are produced
(2) Brain of bat, man and cheetah against the synovial membrane and cartilage.
(3) Heart of bat, man and cheetah Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also
(4) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah characterised as autoimmune disorder.

Answer ( 1 ) Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy

or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is
structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of due to deficiency of neurotransmitter
vertebrates which have developed along acetylcholine.
different directions due to adaptation to
89. The similarity of bone structure in the
different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example
and man are examples of analogous organs
of
showing convergent evolution.
(1) Adaptive radiation
86. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
nutritional value by increasing the amount of (2) Convergent evolution

(1) Vitamin E (2) Vitamin B12 (3) Analogy

(4) Homology
(3) Vitamin A (4) Vitamin D
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs
Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk.
are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in
 It has enriched presence of vitamins different way as per their adaptation, hence
specially Vit-B12. example of homology.
87. Which of the following characteristics 90. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
humans? lymphatic vessels?
a. Dominance (1) Amoebiasis
b. Co-dominance (2) Ringworm disease
c. Multiple allele (3) Ascariasis

d. Incomplete dominance (4) Elephantiasis

e. Polygenic inheritance Answer ( 4 )

S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm,
(1) a, c and e (2) b, d and e
Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by
(3) a, b and c (4) b, c and e Culex mosquito.

15
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

91. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be Answer ( 4 )

marked with rings of different colours for its n 
identification. The colour code sequence will Sol. I  
nr r
be
So, I is independent of n and I is constant.
(1) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold  I
(2) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
(3) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
(4) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10% O
n
 Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver 94. The power radiated by a black body is P and
92. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' If the temperature of the black body is now
and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn changed so that it radiates maximum energy
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in 3
parallel to the same battery. Then the current at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
4
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of becomes nP. The value of n is
'n' is
(1) 9 (2) 20 81 256
(1) (2)
256 81
(3) 11 (4) 10
Answer ( 4 ) 4 3
(3) (4)
E 3 4
Sol. I  ...(i)
nR  R Answer ( 2 )
E
10 I  ...(ii) S o l . We know,
R
R
n max T  constant (Wien's law)
Dividing (ii) by (i),
(n  1)R So, max1 T1  max2 T2
10 
1 
 n  1 R
  3 0
 0 T  T
After solving the equation, n = 10 4
93. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of 4
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r'  T  T
3
each) which are connected in series. The
4 4
terminals of the battery are short-circuited P2  T   4 256
So,     
and the current I is measured. Which of the P1  T  3 81
graphs shows the correct relationship
between I and n? 95. Two wires are made of the same material and
have the same volume. The first wire has
cross-sectional area A and the second wire
I I has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of
the first wire is increased by l on applying a
(1) (2) force F, how much force is needed to stretch
the socond wire by the same amount?
O O
n n (1) F (2) 4 F
(3) 6 F (4) 9 F
I I Answer ( 4 )

(3) (4) S o l . Wire 1 :

F
O O A, 3l
n n

16
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

Wire 2 : 98. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
F
3A, l by

For wire 1, (1) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ

 F  (2) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ

l    3l …(i)
 AY 
(3) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ
For wire 2,
(4) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ
F l
Y
3A l Answer ( 1 )
Sol. Y
 F 
 l   l …(ii)
 3AY 
F
From equation (i) & (ii),
A r  r0
P
 F   F 
l    3l   l
 AY   3AY  r0
r
 F  9F
O X
96. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and    
normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires   (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at   ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k)
100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the  0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
sample, is
ˆi ˆj kˆ
(1) 84.5 J (2) 42.2 J 
  0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
(3) 208.7 J (4) 104.3 J 4 5 6
Answer ( 3 ) 99. A student measured the diameter of a small
S o l . Q = U + W steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
 54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0)
zero of circular scale division coincides with
 U = 208.7 J 25 divisions above the reference level. If
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
97. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a
the correct diameter of the ball is
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
due to viscous force. The rate of production of (1) 0.529 cm
heat when the sphere attains its terminal (2) 0.053 cm
velocity, is proportional to
(3) 0.525 cm
(1) r4 (2) r5
(4) 0.521 cm
(3) r2 (4) r3 Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . Diameter of the ball
2
S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT = MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error
= 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)
VT  r 2
= 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004
5
 Power  r = 0.529 cm

17
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

100. A toy car with charge q moves on a A

frictionless horizontal plane surface under m

the influence of a uniform
 electric field E .
Due to the force q E , its velocity increases a
from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At 
that instant the direction of the field is C B
reversed. The car continues to move for two (1) a = g tan  (2) a = g cos 
more seconds under the influence of this field.
The average velocity and the average speed g g
(3) a  (4) a 
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are sin  cosec 
respectively
Answer ( 1 )
(1) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
Sol. N cos
(2) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
N
(3) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
(4) 2 m/s, 4 m/s 
Answer ( 3 ) ma N sin
(pseudo) 
Sol. t = 0 a t=1 –a
t=2
A –1 B
v=0 v = 6 ms v=0
mg a
C –a

t=3
–1 In non-inertial frame,
v = –6 ms
N sin  = ma ...(i)
60
Acceleration a   6 ms2 N cos  = mg ...(ii)
1
For t = 0 to t = 1 s, a
tan  
g
1
S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
2 a = g tan 
For t = 1 s to t = 2 s, 102. An em wave is propagating in a medium with

1 a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii)
2 oscillating electric field of this em wave is
For t = 2 s to t = 3 s, along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
magnetic field of the em wave will be along
1
S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii) (1) –x direction
2
(2) –y direction
Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m
(3) +z direction
3
Average velocity   1 ms 1 (4) –z direction
3
Total distance travelled = 9 m
Answer ( 3 )
9
Average speed   3 ms 1
3   
Sol. E  B  V
101. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth

inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej)
in the figure. The wedge is given an
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The 

relation between a and  for the block to So, B  Bkˆ

remain stationary on the wedge is Direction of propagation is along +z direction.

18
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

103. The refractive index of the material of a 25  2  106  10–3

L
prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. 3600
One of the two refracting surfaces of the 500
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver 
36
coating. A beam of monochromatic light
= 13.89 H
entering the prism from the other face will
retrace its path (after reflection from the 105. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
the prism is If the object is displaced through a distance
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the
(1) Zero (2) 30°
displacement of the image will be
(3) 45° (4) 60°
(1) 36 cm towards the mirror
Answer ( 3 )
(2) 30 cm towards the mirror
S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be
(3) 36 cm away from the mirror
normally incident on silvered face.
(4) 30 cm away from the mirror

30° Answer ( 3 )

60° Sol.
M f = 15 cm
i 30°
O 40 cm

 2

1 1 1
 
Applying Snell's law at M, f v1 u

sin i 2 1 1 1
 –  –
sin30 1 15 v1 40
1 1 1
1   
 sin i  2  v1 –15 40
2
v1 = –24 cm
1
sin i  i.e. i = 45° When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
2
mirror.
104. The magnetic potential energy stored in a Now,
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of u2 = –20
inductance 1 1 1
 
(1) 13.89 H (2) 1.389 H f v2 u2
(3) 138.88 H (4) 0.138 H 1 1 1
 –
Answer ( 1 ) –15 v2 20

S o l . Energy stored in inductor 1 1 1

 –
v2 20 15
1 2
U Ll
2 v2 = –60 cm
1 So, image shifts away from mirror by
25  10 –3   L  (60  10 –3 )2
2 = 60 – 24 = 36 cm.

19
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

106. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy Divide (ii) by (i),
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
0
atom, is 
 eE0 
(1) 1 : –2 (2) 2 : –1 1  t
 mV 0 
(3) 1 : –1 (4) 1 : 1 108. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is
Answer ( 3 ) threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
S o l . KE = –(total energy)
emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1 incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the
107. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is

V  V0 ˆi (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field (1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 2

E  –E0 ˆi (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its Answer ( 4 )
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de- 1
S o l . E  W0  mv2
Broglie wavelength at time t is 2
(1) 0 1
h(20 )  h0  mv12
(2) 0t 2
1
 eE0  h 0  mv12 …(i)
(3) 0  1  t 2
 mV0 
1
h(50 )  h0  mv22
0 2
(4)
 eE0  1
1 t 4h0  mv22 …(ii)
 mV0  2
Divide (i) by (ii),
1 v12
Answer ( 4 ) 
4 v22
S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength
v1 1
h 
0  ...(i) v2 2
mV0
109. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10
E0 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
V0
F disintegration of 450 nuclei is
(1) 15 (2) 30
Acceleration of electron
(3) 10 (4) 20
eE0
a Answer ( 4 )
m
S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
Velocity after time ‘t’
n
N  1
 eE0  
V   V0  t N0  2 
 m 
t
h h 150  1  t 1/2
So,    
mV  eE  600  2 
m  V0  0 t
 m  2
t
 1  1  t 1/2
h 0 2  2
  …(ii)    
 eE0   eE0 
mV0 1  t 1  t t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10
 mV0   mV0  = 20 minute

20
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

110. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies 4l 2l

with its temperature (T), as shown in the  l  
32 3
graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to
2  20
the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a   13.33 cm
change from state A to state B, is 3
112. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
between the freezing point and boiling point of
water, is
(1) 12.5%
(2) 6.25%
(3) 20%
2 1 (4) 26.8%
(1) (2)
7 3
Answer ( 4 )
2 2  T 
(3)
3
(4)
5 S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,    1 2 
 T1 
Answer ( 4 ) T2 : Sink temperature
S o l . Given process is isobaric T1 : Source temperature

dQ  n Cp dT  T 
%   1  2   100
 T1 
5 
dQ  n  R  dT
2   273 
  1   100
 373 
dW  P dV = n RdT
 100 
dW nRdT 2    100  26.8%
Required ratio     373 
dQ 5  5
n  R  dT 113. At what temperature will the rms speed of
2 
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
111. The fundamental frequency in an open organ escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed (Given :
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
pipe is Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
(1) 16 cm (2) 12.5 cm (1) 1.254 × 104 K
(3) 8 cm (4) 13.2 cm (2) 5.016 × 104 K
Answer ( 4 ) (3) 8.360 × 104 K
S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic (4) 2.508 × 104 K
Answer ( 3 )
3v

4l S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency Say at temperature T it attains Vescape

v 3kB T
 So,  11200 m/s
2l  mO2
Given,
On solving,
3v v
 T = 8.360 × 104 K
4 l 2l 

21
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

114. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a


plane surface of a material of refractive index 0.21  …(ii)
d
''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
found that the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other. Which of the 0.20 d
Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm
following options is correct for this situation?

 1  d = 1.9 mm
(1) i  tan1  
 116. An astronomical refracting telescope will
have large angular magnification and high
 1
(2) i  sin1   angular resolution, when it has an objective
 lens of
(3) Reflected light is polarised with its
(1) Small focal length and small diameter
electric vector perpendicular to the plane
of incidence (2) Large focal length and large diameter
(4) Reflected light is polarised with its (3) Large focal length and small diameter
electric vector parallel to the plane of
(4) Small focal length and large diameter
incidence
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 2 )

S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays f0

are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised S o l . For telescope, angular magnification =
fE
with electric field vector perpendicular to the
plane of incidence.
So, focal length of objective lens should be
large.

D
i Angular resolution = should be large.
1.22

So, objective should have large focal length

 (f0) and large diameter D.
117. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle)
values of IB, IC and  are given by
115. In Young's double slit experiment the
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the 20 V
wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and
distance D between the screen and slits is RC 4 k
100 cm. It is found that the angular width of C
the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe RB
Vi
angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the 500 k B
separation between the slits needs to be E
changed to
(1) 1.7 mm (2) 2.1 mm
(3) 1.9 mm (4) 1.8 mm (1) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125
Answer ( 3 ) (2) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250

S o l . Angular width  (3) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
d
(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250

0.20  …(i)
2 mm Answer ( 1 )

22
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

S o l . VBE = 0 A
Sol. A AB
VCE = 0
Vb = 0 B
B Y
20 V A

IC AB
RC = 4 k B
RB Y  (A  B  A  B)
Vi Vb
Ib 500 k
120. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30°
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to
(20  0) slide down by flowing a current through it
IC 
4  103 when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA acting on it in the vertical direction. The
current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary
Vi = VBE + IBRB
is
Vi = 0 + IBRB
(1) 11.32 A
20 = IB × 500 × 103
(2) 14.76 A
20
IB   40 A (3) 5.98 A
500  103
(4) 7.14 A
I 25  103
 C   125 Answer ( 1 )
Ib 40  106
S o l . For equilibrium,
118. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature °
B 30
due to heating mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s
co
(1) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
mg llB
p-n junction I tan30 0° 30° llB
lB 3
n
(2) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction si
0.5  9.8 g
(3) Affects only forward resistance   11.32 A m 30°
0.25  3
(4) Affects only reverse resistance
121. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
Answer ( 1 ) resistor 50  are connected in series across
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power
will increase, so overall resistance of diode loss in the circuit is
will change. (1) 1.13 W
Due to which forward biasing and reversed
(2) 2.74 W
biasing both are changed.
(3) 0.43 W
119. In the combination of the following gates the
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A (4) 0.79 W
and B as Answer ( 4 )
A 2
V 
S o l . Pav   RMS  R
B  Z 
Y
2
 1 
Z  R2   L   56 
 C 
(1) A  B (2) A  B  A  B 2
 
10
(3) A  B  A  B (4) A  B  Pav    50  0.79 W
Answer ( 3 )

  
2 56 

23
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

122. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically 125. The electrostatic force between the metal
between the poles of an electromagnet. When plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor
the current in the electromagnet is switched C having a charge Q and area A, is
on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out (1) Inversely proportional to the distance
of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the between the plates
rod gains gravitational potential energy. The
work required to do this comes from (2) Proportional to the square root of the
distance between the plates
(1) The induced electric field due to the
changing magnetic field (3) Linearly proportional to the distance
between the plates
(2) The lattice structure of the material of the
rod (4) Independent of the distance between the
plates
(3) The magnetic field
Answer ( 4 )
(4) The current source
S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Energy of current source will be converted Q2
Fplate 
into potential energy of the rod. 2A0
123. Current sensitivity of a moving coil F is Independent of the distance between
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage plates.
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
126. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
sufficiently high building and is moving freely
galvanometer is
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator.
(1) 500  (2) 250  The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
(3) 25  (4) 40  is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean
Answer ( 2 ) position. The time period of oscillation is
S o l . Current sensitivity (1) 1 s
NBA (2) 2 s
IS 
C (3)  s
Voltage sensitivity (4) 2 s
NBA
VS  Answer ( 3 )
CRG
S o l . |a| = 2y
So, resistance of galvanometer
 20 = 2(5)
I 51 5000
RG  S    250    = 2 rad/s
VS 20  103 20
124. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in 2 2
T  s
a glass tube. The length of the air column in  2
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. 127. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm directed electric field E. The direction of
of column length. If the frequency of the electric field is now reversed, keeping its
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
air at 27ºC is fall from rest in it through the same vertical
(1) 300 m/s (2) 350 m/s distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in
(3) 339 m/s (4) 330 m/s comparison to the time of fall of the proton is

Answer ( 3 ) (1) Equal

S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1] (2) 10 times greater
= 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2 (3) 5 times greater
= 339.2 ms–1 (4) Smaller
= 339 m/s Answer ( 4 )

24
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

1 eE 2 130. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller

Sol. h  t
2 m and the universal gravitational constant were
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
2hm
 t following is not correct?
eE
(1) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
 t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and
proton. (2) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
Earth would decrease
∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
smaller time. (3) Walking on the ground would become
more difficult
128. The kinetic energies of a planet in an
elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B (4) Raindrops will fall faster
and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is Answer ( 1 )
the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
at the position of the Sun S as shown in the S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes
figure. Then ten times, then G = 10 G
So, acceleration due to gravity increases.
B
i.e. (1) is wrong option.
A C 131. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
S
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
Which of the following physical quantities
(1) KB > KA > KC (2) KB < KA < KC
would remain constant for the sphere?
(3) KA > KB > KC (4) KA < KB < KC
(1) Angular momentum
Answer ( 3 )
(2) Rotational kinetic energy
Sol. B
VC (3) Moment of inertia
perihelion
A C (4) Angular velocity
S
aphelion
VA Answer ( 1 )
Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion. S o l . ex = 0
So, VA > VB > VC dL
So, 0
So, KA > KB > KC dt
129. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling i.e. L = constant
motion a body possesses translational kinetic
So angular momentum remains constant.
energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic
energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio 132. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 10 : 7
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
(3) 5 : 7 (4) 7 : 10
Answer ( 3 )

1 h
S o l . Kt  mv 2 B
2
2 A
1 1 1 1 2  v 
Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2   mr 2  
2 2 2 25  r  5 7
(1) D (2) D
7 4 5
 mv2
10
Kt 5 3
So,  (3) D (4) D
Kt  Kr 7 2

25
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

Answer ( 1 ) 134. Which one of the following statements is

incorrect?
Sol.
(1) Coefficient of sliding friction has
h dimensions of length.
B
(2) Frictional force opposes the relative
vL motion.
A
As track is frictionless, so total mechanical (3) Limiting value of static friction is directly
energy will remain constant proportional to normal reaction.
T.M.EI =T.M.EF
(4) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
1 friction.
0  mgh  mvL2  0
2
Answer ( 1 )
v2
h L
2g S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no
dimension.
For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR
f = sN
5gR 5 5
h  R D
2g 2 4 f
 s 
133. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin N
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each
have the same mass M and radius R. They all 135. A moving block having mass m, collides with
spin with the same angular speed  about another stationary block having mass 4m. The
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of lighter block comes to rest after collision.
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
satisfy the relation v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
(e) will be
(1) WA > WC > WB
(1) 0.4
(2) WB > WA > WC
(3) WA > WB > WC (2) 0.8

(4) WC > WB > WA (3) 0.25

Answer ( 4 )
(4) 0.5
S o l . Work done required to bring them rest
Answer ( 3 )
W = KE
S o l . According to law of conservation of linear
1 momentum,
W  I2
2
mv  4m  0  4mv  0
W  I for same 
v
2 1 v 
WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2 4
5 2
v
2 1
= : :1 Relative velocity of separation 4
5 2 e 
Relative velocity of approach v
= 4 : 5 : 10
 WC > WB > WA 1
e  0.25
4
26
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

136. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is 138. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
transition and paramagnetism as well?
(1) Dinuclear (2) Trinuclear
(3) Mononuclear (4) Tetranuclear (1) MnO42–

Answer ( 3 ) (2) MnO4–

S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms (3) Cr2O72–

present in a complex, they are classified (4) CrO42–
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and
so on. Answer ( 1 )

eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar]

Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic

Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar]

Hence, option (3) should be the right Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
answer. MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1
137. Match the metal ions given in Column I with Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given
in Column II and assign the correct code : MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar]

Column I Column II Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic

a. Co3+ 139. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the

i. 8 BM
complex [Ni(CO)4] are
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM (1) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

c. Fe3+ (2) Square planar geometry and

iii. 3 BM
paramagnetic
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM (3) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

v. 15 BM (4) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic

a b c d Answer ( 3 )

(1) iii v i ii S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2

(2) iv i ii iii ∵ CO is a strong field ligand

(3) i ii iii iv Configuration would be :

(4) iv v ii i 3
sp -hybridisation
Answer ( 4 )
×× ×× ×× ××
S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4
CO CO CO CO
Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM
For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be
Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3 sp 3 and thus the complex would be
diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry.
Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM
CO
Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5

Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM Ni

Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2 CO
OC
Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM CO

27
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

140. The type of isomerism shown by the complex Now,

[CoCl2(en)2] is CH3
(1) Linkage isomerism
CH – CH3
(2) Ionization isomerism
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2
(3) Coordination isomerism
(4) Geometrical isomerism
(P)
Answer ( 4 )
CH3
S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co
is 6 and this compound has octahedral OH HC
3 –C –O– O –H
geometry. O
+
H /H2O
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
Rearrangement
(R) (Q)
142. Which of the following compounds can form a
zwitterion?
(1) Glycine (2) Benzoic acid
• As per given option, type of isomerism is (3) Acetanilide (4) Aniline
geometrical isomerism.
Answer ( 1 )
141. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
 
following sequence of reactions: Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
–

Anhydrous (Zwitterion form)

AlCl3 pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl
H2N – CH2 – COO–
(i) O2
P Q+R 143. For the redox reaction
(ii) H3O+/
P Q R MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O
OH
CH(CH3)2 The correct coefficients of the reactants for
(1) , , CH3 – CO – CH3 the balanced equation are

CH(CH3)2 OH MnO4 C2 O24 H+

(2) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
(1) 5 16 2
CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH (2) 2 16 5
(3) 2 5 16
(3) , ,
(4) 16 5 2
CH2CH2CH3 CHO Answer ( 3 )
Reduction
(4) , , CH3CH2 – OH +7 +3 +4
S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O
Answer ( 1 )
Oxidation
Cl
n-factor of MnO4 5
S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + Al
3 2 2
n-factor of C2 O24  2
Cl Cl

1, 2–H
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2
+ + –
Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3 So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5
(Incipient carbocation)
 The balanced equation is
Cl
2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O
–
AlCl3
28
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

144. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY)
equation corresponds to
1 1
(1) Forces of attraction between the gas X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g)
2 2
molecules
X
(2) Electric field present between the gas Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
molecules 2
respectively
(3) Volume of the gas molecules
X X
(4) Density of the gas molecules  H      X  200
2 4
Answer ( 1 )
On solving, we get
 2 
S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT 
X X
  200
 V2  2 4

 X = 800 kJ/mole
van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies
intermolecular forces of attraction. 147. When initial concentration of the reactant is
145. Which one of the following conditions will doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
favour maximum formation of the product in reaction
the reaction, (1) Remains unchanged

 X2 (g) r H   X kJ? (2) Is tripled

A2 (g)  B2 (g) 
(3) Is doubled
(1) High temperature and low pressure
(4) Is halved
(2) High temperature and high pressure
Answer ( 3 )
(3) Low temperature and low pressure
S o l . Half life of zero order
(4) Low temperature and high pressure
[A0 ]
Answer ( 4 ) t 1/2 
2K
 X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g) 
t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a concentration.
direction where pressure decreases i.e. 148 Which of the following molecules represents
forward direction.
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts left to right atoms?
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.
(1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
So, high pressure and low temperature
favours maximum formation of product. (2) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

146. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and (3) CH2 = CH – C  CH

XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the
(4) HC  C – C  CH
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
dissociation energy of X2 will be Answer ( 3 )
(1) 400 kJ mol–1
sp2 sp2 sp sp
(2) 800 kJ mol–1 S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH

(3) 100 kJ mol–1 Number of orbital require in hybridization

(4) 200 kJ mol–1 = Number of -bonds around each carbon
Answer ( 2 ) atom.

29
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA
149. Which of the following carbocations is
0.693
expected to be most stable? Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k
NO2 NO2
which is independent of initial
H  concentration of reactant.
(1) Y (2) H
1
Y  For second order reaction, t 1/2  ,
 k[A0 ]
NO2 NO2 which depends on initial concentration of
reactant.

152. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
(3) (4) character is

(1) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
Y H Y H
(2) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
Answer ( 2 )
(3) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases
(4) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
with increase in distance. In option (2)
positive charge present on C-atom at Answer ( 4 )
maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
is minimum and stability is maximum. group metallic character of metals increases
150. Which of the following is correct with respect so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl) Hence the option (4) should be correct option.
(1) – NR2 > – OR > – F (2) – NH2 > – OR > – F 153. Consider the change in oxidation state of
(3) – NR2 < – OR < – F (4) – NH2 < – OR < – F Bromine corresponding to different emf values
as shown in the diagram below :
Answer ( 4 * )
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V
S o l . –I effect increases on increasing BrO4 BrO3 HBrO
electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of
–I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F. –
Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
*Most appropriate Answer is option (4),
however option (3) may also be correct answer. Then the species undergoing
disproportionation is
151. The correct difference between first and
second order reactions is that (1) HBrO
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does (2) Br2
depend on reactant concentrations; the
(3) BrO4
rate of a second-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations (4) BrO3
(2) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a Answer ( 1 )
second-order reaction cannot be
1 0
catalyzed o
S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V
2
(3) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
1 5
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a
 BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V
second-order reaction does depend on BrO3 /HBrO
[A]0
o
Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO,
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does not
o o
depend on reactant concentrations; the Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo
2 BrO3 /HBrO
rate of a second-order reaction does
depend on reactant concentrations = 1.595 – 1.5
= 0.095 V = + ve
Answer ( 3 )
Hence, option (1) is correct answer.
30
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

154. In which case is number of molecules of (1) CH4 (2) CH3 – CH3
water maximum? (3) CH2  CH2 (4) CH  CH
(1) 10–3 mol of water
Answer ( 1 )
(2) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
Br2/h
273 K S o l . CH4 CH3Br
(3) 0.18 g of water (A) Na/dry ether
(4) 18 mL of water Wurtz reaction

Answer ( 4 ) CH3 — CH3

S o l . (1) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA Hence the correct option is (1)

0.00224 157. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following

(2) Moles of water = = 10–4 reactions:
22.4
3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl
Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C

The product 'C' is

0.18 (1) p-bromotoluene

(3) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18 (2) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene

= 10–2 NA (3) o-bromotoluene

(4) m-bromotoluene
(4) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g
Answer ( 4 )
18
Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA CH3
18 CCl3 CCl3
= NA 3Cl 2 Br2
Sol.  Fe
155. The compound A on treatment with Na gives Br
B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react (C7H8) (A) (B)
together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
Zn HCl
in the order
(1) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl CH3
(2) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
(3) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa Br
(C)
(4) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
So, the correct option is (4)
Answer ( 1 )
158. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
C2H5O Na+
Na
S o l . C2H5OH pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
(A) (B) due to natural and human activity?

PCl5 (1) NO (2) N2O

(3) NO2 (4) N2O5
C2H5Cl
Answer ( 4 )
(C)
S o l . Fact
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
C2H5OC2 H5
159. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
(B) (C)
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
So the correct option is (1) gaseous mixture is passed through KOH
156. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by at STP will be
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous (1) 4.4 (2) 2.8
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
(3) 3.0 (4) 1.4
atoms. (A) is

31
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

Answer ( 2 ) 162. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium

Conc.H2 SO4
also gives m-nitroaniline because
S o l . HCOOH   CO(g)  H2 O(l)
 1  1 (1) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is
2.3 g or  mol  mol
 20  20 present as anilinium ion.
Conc.H2SO4 (2) In absence of substituents nitro group
COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
1 1 always goes to m-position.
mol mol
COOH 20 20

 1  (3) In electrophilic substitution reactions

4.5 g or  mol 
 20  amino group is meta directive.
Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when (4) Inspite of substituents nitro group always
it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is goes to only m-position.
absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO.
Answer ( 1 )
So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO
is NH2 NH3

2 H
 28  2.8 g Sol.
20
Anilinium ion
So, the correct option is (2)
–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is
160. The difference between amylose and
also formed in significant yield.
amylopectin is
163. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
(1) Amylose is made up of glucose and
which of the following statements is
galactose
incorrect?
(2) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
(1) They contain strong covalents bonds in
1  6 -linkage
their polymer chains.
(3) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6 (2) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
-linkage
(3) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
(4) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and monomers.
1 6 -linkage
(4) They contain covalent bonds between
Answer ( 4 ) various linear polymer chains.
S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of - Answer ( 1 )
D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed
linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers
Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4
and contain strong covalent bonds between
and 1  6 -linkages.
various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite,
So option (4) should be the correct option. melamine etc. Option (1) is not related to
161. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in cross-linking.
nature? So option (1) should be the correct option.
(1) CaO (2) BaO 164. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
(3) BeO (4) MgO different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
different concentrations :
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO M M
 a. 60 mL
10
HCl + 40 mL
10
NaOH
Basic character increases.
So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact, M M
BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10
oxides are basic.
32
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

Answer ( 4 )
M M
c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5 2.42  103
S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
233
M M
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH = 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1)
10 10

pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?  Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)

BaSO 4 (s) 
s s
(1) c (2) d
Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2
(3) a (4) b
= (1.04 × 10–5)2
Answer ( 1 )
= 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2
1
Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15 167. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2
5
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and
1 3.59, which one of the following gases is most
• Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5
5 easily liquefied?

• Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10 (1) CO2 (2) O2

• Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture (3) H2 (4) NH3
10 1 Answer ( 4 )
= 
100 10 Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies
 1 intermolecular forces of attraction.
pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0
 10  • Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be
165. On which of the following properties does the the liquefaction of gas.
coagulating power of an ion depend? 168. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form
(1) The sign of charge on the ion alone an ionic compound. If the ground state
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3,
(2) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
the simplest formula for this compound is
the ion
(3) Size of the ion alone (1) Mg3X2 (2) Mg2X

(4) The magnitude of the charge on the ion (3) MgX2 (4) Mg2X3
alone Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration
Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using 1s2 2s2 2p3
an electrolyte depends on the charge So, valency of X will be 3.
present (positive or negative) on colloidal Valency of Mg is 2.
particles as well as on its size. Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
• Coagulating power of an electrolyte be Mg3X2.
depends on the magnitude of charge 169. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room
present on effective ion of electrolyte. temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to
166. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming
(Ksp) will be molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains
constant with temperature) is
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)
(1) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2 1 3 3
(1) (2)
2 4 2
(2) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2
(3) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2
4 3 3
(4) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2 (3) (4)
3 2 2

33
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z) 2 ,
4r (2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0
S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a 
3 10  5
BO =  2.5
2
For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
= (2py)2,(2pz)2
 ZM 
 N a3  10  4
d25C  A  BCC BO = 3
  2
d900C  ZM  CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
 N a3 
 A  FCC = (2py)2,(2pz)1
3 9 4
2  2 2 r 3 3 BO =  2.5
   2
4 4r   4 2  CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
 
 3  = (2py)2
170. Which one is a wrong statement? 8 4
(1) The value of m for dz2 is zero BO = 2
2
(2) The electronic configuration of N atom is Hence, option(3) should be the right answer.
1 1 1
1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz 172. Which of the following statements is not true
for halogens?
(1) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
(3) An orbital is designated by three quantum enthalpy
numbers while an electron in an atom is
designated by four quantum numbers (2) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
states
(4) Total orbital angular momentum of
electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero (3) All are oxidizing agents
Answer ( 2 ) (4) All form monobasic oxyacids
S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum Answer ( 2 )
multiplicity, the correct electronic
configuration of N-atom is S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as
Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in
HOF.
1s2 2s2 2p3 173. Which one of the following elements is unable
to form MF63– ion?
OR
(1) In (2) B

(3) Al (4) Ga
2 2 3
1s 2s 2p Answer ( 2 )

S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence

 Option (2) violates Hund's Rule. shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond
171. Consider the following species : 4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.
CN+, CN–, NO and CN BF63(–).
Which one of these will have the highest bond Hence, the correct option is (2).
order?
174. In the structure of ClF 3, the number of lone
(1) CN
pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
(2) CN+
(3) CN– (1) Three (2) Four

(4) NO (3) Two (4) One

34
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

Answer ( 3 ) 5 2 0 –3
S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl
3 4
S o l . The structure of ClF3 is
  Hence, the correct option is (4).

 

 
F
178. In the reaction
 
 

F Cl OH
–
O Na
+

 

CHO
 

 
F + CHCl3 + NaOH
 

The number of lone pair of electrons on

central Cl is 2. The electrophile involved is
175. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
(1) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 
following metals can be used to reduce
alumina?

(1) Cu (2) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  


(2) Mg

(3) Zn
(3) Formyl cation CHO  

(4) Fe
(4) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  

Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al'
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile
correct option. formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to
the following reaction
176. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
elements is .–.
CHCl3  OH– 
 CCl3  H2 O
(1) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
.–.
(2) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In  : CCl2  Cl–
CCl3 
Electrophile
(3) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
179. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points
(4) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
Sol.
(2) More extensive association of carboxylic
Elements B Ga Al In Tl acid via van der Waals force of attraction
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170
(3) Formation of carboxylate ion
177. The correct order of N-compounds in its
(4) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
decreasing order of oxidation states is
Answer ( 1 )
(1) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(2) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence
(3) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 boiling point increases and become more
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
(4) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl and alcohols of comparable molecular
Answer ( 4 ) masses.

35
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-CC) ACHLA

180. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with Answer ( 2 )

NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
S o l . Option (2) is secondary alcohol which on
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
smell. oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and
A and Y are respectively
NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate.
CH3
2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O
(1) CH3 OH and I2
CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3
OH O
Acetophenone
CH – CH3 and I2 (A)
(2)
OH I2
COONa + CHI3 NaOH
Iodoform
CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2 Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt)
(3)

(4) H3C CH2 – OH and I2

‰ ‰ ‰

36