ATA 26 - FIRE PROTECTION

1. The fire detection loops on PW1100G engines are

a. Dual loops
b. Singe loops
c. Single loops on pylon area, the other areas are dual loops

2. The fire detectors of each fire detection loop onPW1100G engine are
a. Parallel connected
b. Serial connected
c. Not connected together

3. Where are the Engine fire components located?

a. On the Fan and the Turbine and Pylon
b. On the left and right side of engine core, along the main gearbox and low-pressure
turbine
c. On the left and right side of engine core, along the main gearbox

4. How many fire/overheat detectors does the Engine fire/overheat detection system comprise
of?
a. 2
b. 3 or 4
c. 6

5. What does the Engine fire/overheat detector assembly have?

a. An alarm switches
b. An integrity switches
c. An alarm switch that reacts to temperature and pressure, and an integrity switch that
responds to pressure

6. How is the Alarm switch of Engine fire/overheat detector operate?

a. Operating on the principle that pressure decrease with a rise in temperature. If
ambient temperature around the sensor element increase, or a short section of the sensor
element is exposed to intense heat, internal pressure in the sensor element and the
responder housing will decrease
b. Operating on the principle that pressure increase with a rise in temperature. If
ambient temperature around the sensor element increase, or a short section of the sensor
element is exposed to intense heat, internal pressure in the sensor element and the
responder housing will increase in proportion
c. Operating on the principle that pressure increase with a rise in temperature. If
ambient temperature around the sensor element increase, or a short section of the sensor
element is exposed to intense heat, internal pressure in the sensor element and the
responder housing will decrease

7. When is the Engine fire/overheat detector issue an Alarm signal to the flight deck?
a. The temperature condition is present
b. The pressure condition is present
c. Either A or B
 8. In the normal condition, the status of Alarm switch and Integrity switch is:
a. Alarm switch is in opened position, Integrity switch is in closed position
b. Alarm switch is in opened position, Integrity switch is in opened position
c. Alarm switch is in closed position, Integrity switch is in closed position

9. In case of fire:
a. Causing the fast release of a large amount of gas from the special core material. This
gas release very quickly increases the internal pressure to a set value, makes the
pressure-sensitive alarm switch insde the responder closes
b. Causing the fast release of a large amount of gas from the special core material. This
gas release very quickly decreases the internal pressure to a set value, makes the
pressure- sensitive alarm switch insde the responder closes
c. Causing the fast release of a large amount of gas from the special core material. This
gas release very quickly increases the internal pressure to a set value, makes the
pressure-sensitive alarm switch insde the responder open

10. How is the Integrity switch in the responder housing kept closed position?
a. By normal gas pressure in the sensor element
b. By airflow pressure from LPC
c. By electrical relay

11. In case of the gas leakage:

a. The subsequent pressure increase, will cause the integrity switch to close, signaling a
fault malfunction to the flight deck
b. The subsequent pressure decrease, will cause the integrity switch to close, signaling a
fault malfunction to the flight deck
c. The subsequent pressure decrease, will cause the integrity switch to open, signaling a
fault malfunction to the flight deck

12. What is the design principle of the engine fire loop?

a. Resistance.
b. Pressure.
c. Capacitor

ATA 28 – FUEL SYSTEM

1. How is Fuel return valve (FRV) control?
a. By a signal from FQIs
b. By FADEC system
c. By wing pump operationmodes

2. When does the FADEC close the fuel return valve? Check again
a. With a signal from the RTDs
b. With a signal from the FQIs
c. If the IDG oil is too hot
3. What is the purpose of the Recirculation check valve 122QM (123QM)?
a. When the recirculation system is not in operation, it closes to prevent fuel flow from
the wing tank to the engine
b. When the recirculation system is in operation, it closes to prevent fuel flow from the
wing tank to the engine
c. Neither A nor B

4. What is the purpose of the Recirculation check valves 222QM (223QM) & 224QM
(225QM)?
a. When the related pump is not in operation, they close to prevent fuel flow from the
recirculation system to the main fuel pump
b. When the related pump is in operation, they close to prevent fuel flow from the
recirculation system to the main fuel pump
c. Neither A nor B

5. What is the purpose of the Pressure holding valve 218QM (219QM)?

a. Keep a pressure of 1.07 bar (15.5 psi) in the recirculation pipe to make sure that the
warm fuel in the recirculation pipe does not boil
b. Keep a pressure of 1.07 bar (15.5 psi) in the fuel supply pipe to make sure that the
warm fuel in the pipe does not boil
c. To make sure that the warm fuel in the fuel supply pipe does not boil

6. Are wing pumps running while center tank is supplying?

a. Yes, wing tank pumps run continuously
b. No, only when center tank is empty
c. No, because of center tank pump priority

7. When the center tank is empty, in auto mode, center tank pumps?
a. Must be manually switched OFF
b. Stop and wing tank pumps start running
c. Stop automatically

8. In normal operation, each engine is supplied by?

a. One wing tank pump and/ or one center tank pump
b. Two wing tanks pumps and/ or one center tank pump
c. Two wing tanks pumps and/ or two center tank pumps

9. The maximum refuel pressure is?

a. 11 psi
b. 45 psi
c. 50 psi

10. To which tank does the re-circulated fuel returns?

a. Wing tanks and Center tanks
b. Wing tanks
c. Center tanks
ATA 30 – ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION
1. Each of Nacelle Anti-Ice Pressure Regulating Shutoff Valves (NAI PRSOV) can be deactivated
in
position according to MEL:
a. Closed
b. Open
c. either open or closed

2. Which statement below is correct?

a. Upper and lower NAI PRSOVs are not interchangeable
b. Upper and lower NAI PRSOVs are interchangeable
c. Upper and lower NAI PRSOVs are interchangeable with certain condition

3. How can you operate the Nacelle anti-ice system?

a. By ENG ANTI-ICE push button, on ground
b. By ENG ANTI-ICE push button, on ground and in flight
c. By ENG ANTI-ICE push button, in flight only

4. Nacelle anti-ice system components include:

a. Nacelle anti-ice pressure regulating NAI PRSOV Shutoff Valve, Nacelle anti-ice remote
solenoid and manifold, Nacelle anti-ice pressure transducer
b. Fan compartment thermocouple, Nacelle Anti-ice ducts, swirl nozzle
c. Both A and B

5. How is the Engine anti-ice work?

a. Electrically controlled and operated by 3th stage high pressure compressor air
b. Electrically controlled and operated by 6th stage high pressure compressor air
c. Electrically controlled and operated by 9th stage high pressure compressor air

6. What is the Nacelle anti-ice pressure regulating shutoff valves (NAI PRSOVs) for?
a. Upper and lower NAI PRSOVs operate in tandem to control pressure and airflow of
LPC 3th stage air used for inlet anti-ice
b. Upper and lower NAI PRSOVs operate in tandem to control pressure and airflow of HPC
6th stage air used for inlet anti-ice
c. Upper and lower NAI PRSOVs operate in tandem to control pressure and airflow of HPC
9th stage air used for inlet anti-ice

7. Are Upper and Lower NAI PRSOVs interchangeable?

a. Yes, a valve clocking feature distinguishes the ducts on the upper and lower valve types
to help correct installation
b. No, a valve clocking feature distinguishes the ducts on the upper and lower valve
types to prevent incorrect installation
c. Neither A nor B
 8. What is the Nacelle anti-ice remote solenoids and manifold for?
a. To control the opening and closing of the NAI upper and lower PRSOVs
b. To control the opening of the NAI upper and lower PRSOVs
c. To control the closing of the NAI upper and lower PRSOVs

9. Where is Nacelle anti-ice pressure transducers located?

a. The downstream pressure transducer is located downstream of the two NAI PRSOVs, as
the primary role is to monitor NAI PRSOVs position
b. The upstream pressure transducer is located between of the two NAI PRSOVs, as the
secondary role is to figure out which NAI PRSOVs fail
c. The downstream pressure transducer is located downstream of the two NAI PRSOVs, as
the primary role is to monitor NAI PRSOVs position. The upstream pressure transducer is
located between of the two NAI PRSOVs, as the secondary role is to figure out which NAI
PRSOVs fail

10. How many Fan compartment thermocouples are there in the system?
a. One type K thermocouples, one for both EEC channel. To provide the EEC with
temperature measurement in the fan compartment
b. Two type K thermocouples, one for each EEC channel. To provide the EEC with
temperature measurement in the fan compartment
c. Two type K thermocouples, one for each EEC channel. To provide the EEC with
temperature and pressure measurement in the fan compartment

11. Nacelle anti-ice ducts is segment into:

a. Two sections
b. Three sections
c. Four sections

12. Hot air for nacelle anti-ice system on PW1100G engines supplied from
a. A/C bleed air system
b. Dedicated bleed air from LPC stage 3
c. Dedicated bleed air from HPC stage 6

13. Where is Swirl nozzle attached?

a. Attached to the rear of the inlet cowl at 5:00
b. Attached to upper of inlet cowl at 1:00
c. Attached to the rear of the inlet cowl at 7:00

ATA 36 – PNEUMATIC SYSTEM

1. The Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS) uses:
a. Hydro-pneumatic valves
b. Electro-pneumatic valves
c. Electrical valves
2. Which area has the single detection loop?
a. APU aft supply duct
b. Pylon
c. Wing

3. The aircraft systems are supplied the HP compressor air from

a. Stage 3 and stage 8
b. Stage 3 and stage 7
c. Stage 3 and stage 6

4. How are the position of valves of engine PW1100G bleed system monitored?
a. By micro switches
b. By pressure transducers
c. By control signal from BMCs

5. The conditioned bleed air supplied by engine PW1100G bleed system is :

a. 150 deg.C, 44 PSI
b. 200 deg.C, 51 PSI
c. 250 deg.C, 75 PSI

6. How does FAV (Fan Air Valve) operate?

a. BMC controlled by torque motor based on bleed air temperature
b. Autonomously pneumatic operative based on the controlled temperature thermostat
c. BMC controlled based on the precooler outlet temperature thermostat

7. Which statement below is true?

a. The BMC controls the HPV and PRV in independent mode
b. The BMC controls the HPV and PRV in order to make sure that the HPV will close when
PRV is controlled closed
c. The HPV & PRV are pneumatically operated and their operation are independent from each
other

8. The crossbleed valve is:

a. Controlled and operated electrically by 1 motor
b. Controlled and operated electrically by 2 motors
c. Controlled electrically, and operated pneumatically

9. How is the crossbleed valve controlled and operated?

a. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated
b. Pneumatically controlled and operated
c. Electrically controlled and operate

10. What condition causes the engine PRV to close pneumatically?

a. Respective fire pushbutton guarded
b. Cross bleed valve in manual mode and engine PRV in auto-mode
c. In case of impending reserve flow to the engine
11. What is the Differential pressure sensor (DPS) for?
a. BMC uses the signal of DPS to control IP/HP switching
b. DPS monitors the pressure, control the OPV position
c. DPS monitors the pressure, control the PRV position and make sure that no reverse flow
occurs

12. When an APU duct leak is detected during engine start from APU bleed:
a. APU bleed and crossfeed valves remain open
b. APU bleed and cross feed valves close
c. APU bleed valve closes and cross feed opens

13. Bleed monitoring control (BMC) embedding:

a. Digital control channel is a full digital channel embedding all the control and
monitoring function to meet system requirements
b. Hardware safety part is a fully hardware part able to detect the system over-
temperature
c. Two channels: Digital control channel (CHA) is a full digital channel embedding all the
control and monitoring function to meet system requirements; Hardware safety part
(CHB) is a fully hardware part able to detect the system over-temperature and is fully
independent from software part

14. What is the design principle of the bleed leak detection loop?
a. Resistance.
b. Pressure.
c. Capacitor.

15. What is the purpose of IP/HP switching?

a. To regulate the output pressure depending on the Fan Air Valve position.
b. To keep sufficient bleed pressure at low engine speed.
c. To regulate the output temperature depending on the configuration of users.

16. BMC has:

a. 01 Channel
b. 02 Channels A and B which the same function
c. Channel A Main control, Channel A Backup control, Chanel B

17. BMC was finding about reverser flow by:

a. DPS: DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE SENSOR
b. BMPS: BLEED MONITORINC PRESSURE SENSOR
c. BPS: BLEED PRESSURE SENSOR

18. System pressure monitoring by BMC base on:

a. BPS: BLEED PRESSURE SENSOR
b. BTS: BLEED TEMPERATURE SENSOR
c. DPS: DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE SENSOR
19. BMC used Temperature to position FAV from:
a. BMPS: BLEED MONITORINC PRESSURE SENSOR
b. BTS: BLEED TEMPERATURE SENSOR
c. BPS: BLEED PRESSURE SENSOR

20. PRV is closed when:

a. HPV failed open
b. Dual BTS channels failed
c. Either Associated Starer Air Valve (SAV) not Closed, HPV failed open or Dual BTS channels
failed

21. Which Pneumatic leak detection is NOT double loop:

a. Wing loop
b. Pylon loop
c. APU loop

22. When APU bleed P/B is selected ON with Cross Bleed Valve rotary selector in AUTO
position, lower ECAM BLEED page indicates:
a. APU bleed valve open then the cross-bleed valve open
b. APU bleed valve open but the cross-bleed valve not open
c. Cross bleed valve open then APU bleed valve open

23. IP Check Valve connect to:

a. HPC Stage HP3
b. HPC Stage HP6
c. LPC Stage LP2

24. HP Valve connect to

a. HPC Stage HP4
b. LPC Stage LP2
c. HPC Stage HP8

25. In NEO configure 1 BMC can control and monitor:

a. 1 side that relation to
b. The both sides in sequent
c. The both sides when the other BMC fails

26. What the main functions of the bleed transferred pressure sensor 7HA1(2)?
a. To give the HP VALVE FAULT ECAM warning if the transferred pressure is less than 23
psi during more than 15 sec, and if the HP bleed valve is fully closed
b. To give the AIR ENG ABNORMAL PRESS ECAM warning
c. Both A and B

27. The leak detection system is organized into:

a. Three loops: Pylon – dual loop, Wing – dual loop and APU – single loop
b. Three loops: Pylon – single loop, Wing – dual loop and APU – single loop
c. Three loops: Pylon – single loop, Wing – dual loop and APU – dual loop
ATA 71:
1. Features of PW1100G-JM engine is:
a. Axial flow, twin spool turbofan with an ultra-high bypass ratio, low speed gear-driven fan
b. Axial flow, twin spool turbofan with an ultra-high bypass ratio, high speed gear-driven fan
c. Axial flow, twin spool turbofan with a low bypass ratio, low speed gear-driven fan

2. “PW1130G-JM” means:
a. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25300 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C
b. Engine is rated at max thrust of 30000 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C
c. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25000 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C

3. Nacelle system components provide the engine with the capabilities:

a. An aerodynamic for engine mounted components
b. An aerodynamic and protective enclosure for engine mounted components; Collection and
discharge of oil, fuel and hydraulic fluid from the engine and its components
c. An aerodynamic and protective enclosure for engine mounted components; Collection and
discharge of oil, fuel from the engine and its components

4. Fan cowls:
a. Each of the 3 fan cowl door latches has a fan cowl door proximity sensor which is able
to detect
weather the relative latch is locked to alert the ground crew to the fan cowl’s position
b. Fan cowl door has two fan cowl door proximity sensors which are able to detect
weather the
relative latch is locked to alert the ground crew to the fan cowl’s position
c. Fan cowl door has a fan cowl door proximity sensor which is able to detect weather the
relative
latch is locked to alert the ground crew to the fan cowl’s position

5. Engine mounts have:

a. The FWD mount assy is attached to the CIC, supports side and vertical loads and the AFT
mount assy is attached to the TEC, reacts to engine force-aft, side, vertical, roll loads
b. The FWD mountassy is attached to the TEC, supports side and vertical loads and the
AFT mountassy is attached to the CIC, reacts to engine force-aft, side, vertical, roll
loads
c. The FWD mountassy is attached to the CICF, supports side and vertical loads and
the AFT mountassy is attached to the TECF, reacts to engine force-aft, side, vertical,
roll loads

6. How many percent of fuel saving between A321Neo and A321Ceo? =

a. 10-12%
b. 17-18%
c. 20-22%

7. What is the Significant improvement on Engine PW1100G? =

a. LOW NOISE, FAN DRIVE GEAR SYSTEM, THERMAL EFFICIENCY
b. LOW NOISE, FAN DRIVE GEAR SYSTEM
c. FAN DRIVE GEAR SYSTEM, THERMAL EFFICIENCY
 8. What technology used to make compressor blades on Engine PW1100G? =
a. Ingrate bladed rotor
b. welding blade and shaft
c. Casting

9. What is the ratio of the bypass Ratio on PW1100G =

a. 12:1
b. 5:1
c. 7:1

10. How many latches on fan cowl door lock system? =

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3

11. How many are Hold open rod on fan cowl door? =
a. Forward telescopic type hold-open rod and the aft fixed-length type rod
b. 02 telescopic type hold-open rod
c. 01 Forward telescopic type hold-open rod

12. How many fan cowl strakes in one engine? =

a. 01 on outboard engine
b. 02 on bothside engine
c. 01 on inboard engine

13. How many proximities sensor on fan cowl door? =

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3

14. Which port of Drain Mast has “no leak” permit? =

a. IDG
b. FDGS
c. 2.5 Bleed valve

ATA 72:
1. How many types of Engine main bearings?
a. Three types of bearing: Roller bearing with alignment and load: axial; Ball bearing and
Tapered roller bearing with alignment and load: axial and radial
b. Three types of bearing: Roller bearing with alignment and load: radial; Ball bearing
and Tapered roller bearing with alignment and load: axial and radial
c. Three types of bearing: Roller bearing with alignment and load radial; Ball bearing and
Tapered roller bearing with alignment and load axial
2. Identify the number of blades in one engine fan set?
a. Thirty-six (36)
b. Twenty (20)
c. Twenty-two (22)

3. The Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) is made up of:

a. A central gear surrounded by three-star gears which are supported by journal bearings
b. A central sun gear surrounded by five-star gears which are supported by journal bearings
and an outer ring gear
c. A central sun gear surrounded by five-star gears which are supported by an outer ring
gear

4. What is the purpose of Compressor Intermediate Case (CIC)?

a. Providing a flow path for engine core airflow coming from the LPC to the HPC
b. Providing a flow path for engine core airflow coming from the Fan Intermediate Case (FIC)
to the LPC
c. Neither A nor B

5. The LPCompressor has how many stages?

a. Only one stage
b. Two stages
c. Three stages

6. The ring of vanes of Turbine Nozzle Assembly makes?

a. Changing the direction of the hot gases to provide optimal flow, and pressure to the
1st stage turbine blades
b. Changing the direction of the hot gases to provide optimal angle, and flow to the
combustion champer
c. Changing the direction of the hot gases to provide optimal angle, pressure, and flow
to the 1st stage turbine blades

7. What is No. 4 Roller Bearing assembly support?

a. The rear of HPT rotor and contains the No. 4 Bearing support, attached to the inner case
b. The rear of LPT rotor and contains the No. 4 Bearing support, attached to the outer case
c. The rear of LPT rotor and contains the No. 4 Bearing support, attached to the inner case

8. How the Engine main gearbox (MGB) are driven by?

a. N1 rotor.
b. N2 rotor via the transfer gear box
c. The Angle gearbox (AGB) extracts power from HPC and provides it to the MGB through a
series of gear shafts

9. What is the rotation of each shaft in PW1100G when look backward =?

a. Fan - Counter CW, N1 - CW, N2 -CW
b. Fan - CW, N1 - counter CW, N2 – CW
c. Fan - Counter CW, N1 - CW, N2 - counter CW
10. What is the Ratio of Fan speed and N1 speed? =
a. 1:1
b. 1:3
c. 2:1

11. How many stages on compressor and turbine on PW1100G? =

a. 5LPC- 10HPC– 2HPT – 5LPT
b. 3LPC- 8HPC– 2HPT – 3LPT
c. 4LPC- 12HPC– 3HPT – 5LPT

12. PW1100G highest Thrust could be set up to:

a. 33.000lb
b. 23.000lb
c. 43.000lb

13. Proximity sensors are installed on each latch of fan cowl doors which sends its position
signal to
a. the Engine lnterface Unit (EIU) & the EEC
b. the EEC
c. the Engine lnterface Unit (EIU)

14. How many types of bearing on PW1100G (exclude FDGS)? =

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3

15. How many bearings on PW1100G? =

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7

16. How many bearing compartments on PW1100G? =

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7

17. The Fan rotor contributes to approximately

a. 70% of the thrust
b. 80% of the thrust
c. 90% of the thrust

18. Which bearing without oil damping function? =

a. 1, 6
b. 1,5 and 5
c. 2,5 and 6
19. How many fan blades on fan rotor of PW1100G? =
a. 20
b. 22
c. 24

20. Is fuel flow used to cool down IDG oil and engine oil through?
a. Integrated Fuel Pump and Control
b. Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger
c. Return-To-Tank valve

21. The collected fuel remains in ecology collector tank is drawn back into fuel system
when?
a. Next engine start up
b. Last engine shut down
c. Aircraft is energized

22. Which component divides the fuel to primary and secondary manifold?
a. Fuel Metering Valve
b. Fuel Divider Valve
c. Pressure Regulating Valve

23. Data Storage Unit connect to:

a. EEC Chanel A
b. EEC Chanel B
c. PHMU

24. EEC and PHMU are cooled by:

a. Natural Convection
b. Individual Air Tube
c. Air Conditioning

25. The PW110G Engine rating adjusted by:

a. MCDU
b. DSU
c. Cannot be adjusted

26. The Air Starter is mounted on

a. the right side aft of the MGB
b. the left side aft of the MGB
c. the fan cowl area

27. 2.5 Stage Bleed Valve locates at:

a. Low Pressure Compressor
b. Compressor Intermediate Case
c. High Pressure Compressor
28. The engine inlet cone is anti-iced with
a. Continuous airflow from the 2.5 compressor stage
b. Continuous airflow from the 3-compressor stage
c. Continuous airflow from the 6-compressor stage

29. A single stage Variable Inlet Guide Vanes (VIGVs) which direct the air to the LP Compressor
at the correct angle and
a. are controlled by the PHMU
b. are controlled by the EEC
c. are not controlled by the EEC

30. The fan speed (Nf) speed sensors send signals direct to
a. The PHMU &EEC
b. The PHMU
c. The EEC

31. The engine EGT is sensed and averaged by

a. five thermocouple probes (T5 probes)
b. four thermocouple probes (T5 probes)
c. six thermocouple probes (T5 probes)

32. Each half of C ducts includes one translating sleeves, two actuators,
a. ten blockers doors and cascades
b. five blockers doors and cascades
c. five blockers doors and pivoting doors

33. When an automatic start is manually aborted

a. EEC does dry motor the engine
b. EEC does not dry motor the engine
c. EEC does wet motor the engine

34. The Air Starter is mounted on

a. the right side aft of the MGB
b. the left side aft of the MGB
c. the fan cowl area

35. Which mechanical device keeps a continuous supply of oil to the fan drive journal bearings
from the auxiliary oil supply in windmill
a. JOSV
b. AODV
c. VORV

36. Deactivation of the Hydraulic Control Unit (HCU) is provided by:

a. an inhibit lever and inhibit pin
b. inhibit pin
c. an inhibit handle to provide to lock out the DCV (Directional Control Valve)
37. What is function of the Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger Bypass Valve (FOHEBV)?
a. To control and distribute oil flow between two pathways based on fuel temperature
b. To direct the oil to journal bearings, ensuring their lubrication at low power setting
c. To controls oil flow to the No. 3 Bearing damper

38. What is the purpose of the Auxiliary Lubrication System?

a. To protects the FDGS journal bearings from low oil pressure conditions in windmilling
operation
b. To provide correct oil flow to the Fan Drive Gear System and the No. 3 Bearing
c. To controls oil flow to the No. 3 Bearing damper

39. What is the purpose of Compressor Intermediate Case (CIC)?

a. Providing a flow path for engine core airflow coming from the LPC to the HPC
b. Providing a flow path for engine core airflow coming from the Fan Intermediate Case (FIC)
to the LPC
c. Neither A nor B

40. The normal duty cycle of starter of the engine PW1100G is:
a. Three attempts with 35 seconds cooling period between two attempts and total
cumulative time is less than 15 min
b. Three attempts, each attempt last less than 3 minutes with 35 seconds cooling period
between two attempts
c. Three attempts, each attempt last less than 5 minutes with 35 seconds cooling period
between two attempts

41. What is the fail-safe position of 2.5 Bleed Valve ?

a. Full closed
b. Full open
c. Preseted partially open

42. How to improve engine startup performance by the HPC Air System?
a. By 2.5 bleed air valve
b. By two HPC bleed valves
c. By three HPC bleed valve

43. What is the function of HPC bleed valves?

a. Allow HPC 6th Stage air to bleed directly into the core compartment during engine
start
b. Allow HPC 6th Stage air to bleed directly into fan flow during engine start
c. Allow HPC 3rd Stage air to bleed directly into the core compartment during engine
start

44. How does EEC monitor the position of HPC bleed valves?
a. By thermocouple sensors
b. By pressure sensors
c. There is no position feedback to EEC
 45. The ACC (Active Clearance Control) System uses fan air to :
a. Cool turbine’s blades and vanes
b. Cool turbine cases to improve the fuel efficiency
c. Cool bearing compartments

46. Which stage has air used to anti-ice Inlet cone? =

a. 1.5
b. 2.5
c. 3

47. What is the fan blade made from? =

a. Composite and LE by Titanium
b. Titanium
c. Aluminum and LE by Titanium

ATA 73 – ENGINE FUEL AND CONTROL.

1. What is Integrated fuel pump and control (IFPC) for?
a. IFPC supplies metered fuel flow to the engine as scheduled by the EEC
b. IFPC supplies pressurized fuel to engine component actuators
c. Both A and B

2. In case of the event of Thrust control malfunction (TCM) on ground:

a. There is no protection, the Thrust lever must be moved forward manually
b. The torque motor shuts down
c. The Engine master switch switches off immediately

3. Identify the number of fuel nozzles?

a. Twelve (12)
b. Eighteen (18)
c. Twenty-two (22)

4. How is Return to tank (RTT) valve controlled?

a. The RTT valve is controlled by EEC (12)
b. The RTT valve is controlled by EEC, and is actuated based on aircraft altitude,
ambient temperature and fuel flow
c. The RTT valve is controlled by FQIC and EEC, and is actuated based on aircraft altitude,
ambient temperature and fuel flow

5. Power supplies to EEC:

a. From the Permanent magnet alternator (PMA) only
b. From the aircraft or from the Permanent magnet alternator (PMA) as a backup supply
c. From the Permanent magnet alternator (PMA) or from the aircraft as a backup supply
6. Where is P2.5/T2.5 probe locate?
a. On Compressor Intermediate Case at 1:00
b. On Compressor Intermediate Case at 6:00
c. On Highpressor Intermediate Case at 1:00

7. What is fail safe position of Starter Valve?

a. Fully closed
b. Do not have fail safe position
c. Partition open

8. What is the new computer installed on Engine PW1100G? =

a. ECU - Engine Control Unit
b. PHMU - Prognostics and Health Management Unit
c. IFPC - Intergated Fuel Pump and Control

9. Which component storage the thrust rating of Engine? =

a. EEC
b. PHMU
c. DSU

10. Which side fuel system components install on PW1100G? =

a. RH SIDE
b. LH SIDE
c. BOTH SIDE

11. How many fuel nozzles on PW1100G? =

a. 12
b. 18
c. 22

12. How many fuel nozzles with duplex design? =

a. 12
b. 18
c. 22

13. When fuel drain to Ecology tank =

a. During Start Engine
b. After Shutdown Engine
c. During Wet Cranking Engine

14. How can the fuel system use fuel from Ecology tank? =
a. By Gravity
b. By fuel return pump
c. Can not use fuel from ecology tank
 15. Where is the Ambient pressure sensor located on PW1100G? =
a. On fan case right hand side
b. On EEC housing
c. On fan cowl door

16. Where is P2/T2 Sensor in install on PW1100G? =

a. On Inlet cowl at 12h postion
b. On fan case at 12h postion
c. Do not install on Engine

ATA 74 – Ignition system.

1. Of which type is the ignition system?
a. Low voltage, high energy
b. High voltage, low energy
c. High voltage, high energy

2. What provide the selection of ignition A/B?

a. The EEC
b. The engine control panel
c. The ECAM control panel

3. What happen in case of a surge is detected in flight or during takeoff?

a. Igniters will be powered until 30 seconds after the surge recovers
b. Only one igniter will be powered, the other will be hot standby
c. Igniters will be powered and cut-off immediately after the surge recovers

4. When using the Manual start ignition selection:

a. EEC energizes one of igniters based on logic and aircraft inputs of flap position
b. EEC energizes both igniters based on logic and aircraft inputs of flap position, cowl
anti-ice status, and/or continuous ignition commands
c. EEC energizes both igniters based on logic and aircraft inputs of thrust lever position, cowl
anti- ice status, and/or continuous ignition commands

5. Each engine equipped with?

a. One ignition system with two igniters
b. Two ignition systems, each has two igniters
c. Two ignition systems with two igniters

6. Ignition system power supply is?

a. 115 V from the aircraft
b. 115 V from engine generator
c. 28 V from the FADEC PMA
 7. What does Continuous Relight mean?
a. An active ignition system will work continuously.
b. Both ignition systems are selected during engine start.
c. Both ignition systems are demanded to work continuously

8. Where is the Exciter installed in? =

a. Core Area
b. Fan Area
c. Do not install Exciter on PW1100G

9. Exciter is cooling by... =

a. Outside Air
b. Bleed Air from stage 2.5
c. Discharge air from stage 2.5

ATA 75 – AIR
1. How many starts bleed valve on PW1100G? =
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4

2. Which stage the start bleed valve install on? =

a. 6th
b. 7th
c. 8th

3. The Tertiary Lock system is controlled by:

a. EEC
b. EIU
c. SECs

4. How do the EEC’s both channels operate at normal mode?

a. They are in active/passive mode
b. They are in active/active mode
c. They are in active/standby mode

5. The operating LP compressor stator vane actuator (LPC SVA), if there is a loss of electrical
power?
a. The actuator positions vanes in the full close position for inhibited airflow through the
LPC
b. The actuator positions vanes in the full open fail-safe position for maximum airflow
through the LPC
c. Neither A nor B
6. What is the purpose of the 2.5 Bleed valve actuator?
a. Control the LPC bleed valve through the 2.5 bleed valve linkage when commanded by ECC
b. Control the HPC bleed valve through the 2.5 bleed valve linkage when commanded by
ECC
c. Control the LPT bleed valve through the 2.5 bleed valve linkage when commanded by ECC

7. Which is bleed air system used to improve engine startup performance?

a. The HPC Bleed air system bleeds 6th stage HPC air
b. The HPC Bleed air system bleeds 8th stage HPC air
c. The LPC Bleed air system bleeds 8th stage HPC air

8. At start, how are the HPC active and passive bleed valve operate?
a. Mechanically spring loaded (fail safe) open
b. Electrically control to close
c. Electrically control to open

9. How is Active clearance control valve operate?

a. During normal engine operation, the valve is closed at start and idle
b. Partially open at takeoff and climb, and fully open at cruise
c. Both A and B

10. Is the purpose of the Active Clearance Control (ACC) system?

a. To improve compressor efficiency
b. To improve and maintain engine performance
c. To reduce overall engine thermal growth

11. What is 5 major function of air system on PW1100G?

1. increase engine operability and stability
2. reduce noise from engine
3. cool engine parts
4. improve fuel effiency
5. remove ingested debris from the airstream
6. supply bleed air for ESC
7. pressurize and seal bearing
compartments a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 3, 4, 5, 7
c. 1, 3, 4, 6, 7

12. What is the fail safe postion of 2.5 Bleed valve actuator?
a. Fully Close
b. Fully open
c. 30% open

13. The HPC Stator Vane Actuator can control how many stages of HPC? =
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
 14. What is the purpose of Buffer air heat exchanger?
a. Provides discrete (on/off) control of HPC 3rd Stage bleed air supply to the Bearing
Ventilation System
b. Use station 2.5 bleed air to cool HPC 3rd Stage Air before its delivery to the No4
Bearing housing
c. Provide cooling buffer air to the engine main bearing compartment and prevent oil
leakage

15. What is the purpose of LPBSOV - Low pressure buffer shutoff valve?
a. Provides discrete (on/off) control of HPC 3rd Stage servo pressure sent to the
LPBSOV
b. Direct buffer air to the Bearing Ventilation System)
c. Provides discrete (on/off) control of HPC 3rd Stage bleed air supply to the Bearing
Ventilation System

ATA 76 – ENGINE CONTROLS.

1. Which computer controls the engine thrust?
a. EEC in both manual and automatic thrust modes
b. FMGC in automatic thrust mode and ECU in manual mode
c. FCU in both manual and automatic thrust modes

2. When the throttle is between two detent points, what position corresponds to the thrust
limit?
a. The upper detent points
b. The lower detent points
c. The actual throttle lever position

3. What does the FMGC compute?

a. N1 limit
b. N1 target
c. N1 command

4. What is the normal engine throttle cruise detent point?

a. CL
b. FLX/MCT
c. TOGA

5. Throttle control system consists of?

a. Throttle control lever, throttle control artificial feel unit, throttle control unit, electrical
harness
b. Throttle control lever, throttle control artificial feel unit, throttle control unit, electrical
harness, EGT thermolcouple
c. Throttle control lever, throttle control artificial feel unit, electrical harness
ATA 77 - ENGINE MONITORING AND INDICATION
1. How many speed sensors on PW1100G?
a. 1 N1, 1 N2
b. 2 N1 (one active/one spare), 1 N2
c. 1 N1, 1 N2, 1 Nfan

2. What is the N2 speed sensor located on? =

a. Main Gearbox
b. N2
c. Angle Gearbox

3. How many EGT thermocouple on PW1100G? =

a. 4
b. 6
c. 2

4. PHMU is monitoring…?
a. Oil Debris monitoring, Vibration monitoring, Auxiliary Oil pressure Monitoring
b. Oil Debris monitoring, Auxiliary Oil pressure Monitoring
c. Oil Debris monitoring, Vibration monitoring

5. Where is the PHMU located?

a. Fan Case forward the EEC
b. On FWD Avionic Bay
c. Inside the EEC

6. How many vibration sensors on PW1100G?

a. 02 - at aft and forward
b. 01 - at core
c. 02 - at core and fan case

7. What is the N1 vibration signal on Engine System Page?

a. N1
b. Nf
c. Do not have N1 vibration signal on Engine System Page

8. What is the Cold Junction Compensation to compute EGT?

a. Main Oil temp Sensor
b. T3 temp sensor
c. Fuel temp sensor

9. The engine primary parameters are displayed on?

a. The lower ECAM engine page
b. The upper ECAM
c. Both The lower ECAM engine page and the upper ECAM
 10. The engine page is selected?
a. Manually or automatically depend on flight phases
b. Manually only
c. Automatically only depend on flight phases

11. The engine “N2 SPEED” parameter is displayed on?

a. The Upper ECAM
b. The Lower ECAM engine page
c. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page

12. The engine oil quantity parameters are displayed on?

a. The Upper ECAM
b. The Lower ECAM engine page
c. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page

13. The IGN indication is displayed on?

a. The Upper ECAM during engine start
b. The Lower ECAM engine page during engine start
c. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page

14. The fuel used indication is reset to Zero:

a. Five minutes after engine shut down
b. After a new take-off
c. At each engine start

15. The engine thrust indicated on ECAM via what parameter?

a. N1 speed
b. N2 speed
c. EGT

ATA 78 – REVERSER
1. What is the type of Reversere? =
a. Translating Sleeve
b. Blocker door

2. How many Hold Open Rod on each Reverser half?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3

3. How many blocker doors on each reverser half?

a. 5
b. 6
c. 4
 4. How many latches are used to fully closed reversers?
a. 7
b. 5
c. 6

5. Where is HCU Inhibit Lever located in?

a. On HCU
b. On RH fancase
c. On LH Fancase

6. How many locking actuators installed in 1 engine?

a. 1 on LH Reverser only
b. 2
c. 1 on RH Reverser only

7. How many locking feedback actuators install in 1 engine?

a. 1 on RH side only
b. 2
c. 1 on LH side only

8. The PW1100G-JM engine’s stage counting is as follow:

a. 1-4-9-1-5
b. 1-G-4-10-2-5
c. 1-G-3-8-2-3

9. How to identify the Fan blade No.1?

a. The number is vibro-peened on fan hub platform
b. The number is vibro-peened on fan blade
c. The number is vibro-peened on retaining lock ring

ATA79: OIL SYSTEM

1. What is the type of bearing in FDGS?
a. Journal Bearing
b. Tapered roller bearing
c. Oil firm Bearing

2. How many warning levels can main oil filter triggered? =

a. None
b. Clogged
c. Degraged and Cloggged

3. Which computer control JOSV?

a. EEC
b. EIU
c. No computer, only mechanical
 4. Which computer control VORV?
a. No computer, only mechanical
b. EEC
c. EIU

5. What is the Fail Safe postion of VORV?

a. Fully Open
b. Fully Close
c. 30% open

6. How many pumps inside the Journal Bearing?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2

7. What is the new component on Oil Monitoring system compare to V2500?

a. Master Magnetic Chip Detector
b. Oil Debris Monitoring
c. Last Chance Strainer

8. What is the pressure maintain on oil tank assembly by Deaerator? =

a. 8 psi
b. 12 psi
c. 20 psi

9. Which side of engine where most of oil system component installed in?
a. LH side
b. RH side
c. Both side

10. How many pump stages on LSOP?

a. 1 supply pump and 6 scavenge pumps
b. 2 supply pumps and 5 scavenge pumps
c. 1 supply pump and 5 scavenge pumps

ATA 80: START

1. What is the different in starting sequence of PW1100G with V2500?
a. Cooling time (auto drycranking)
b. Ignition sequence
c. High pressure bleed air

2. How can we manual open Start valve?

a. By an access door in RH fan cowl
b. By an access door in LH Reverser
c. By an access door in RH Reverser
3. Start valve control by
a. Torque motor
b. Solenoid
c. LVDT

4. Air Starter used oil for cooling and lubricating from…?

a. Starter lubricating system
b. Engine Lubricating system
c. IDG lubricating system

5. What is fail safe postion of Starter Valve?

a. Fully closed
b. Do not have fail safe position
c. Partition open