ZfWAgY61wXm35IdCstIy PDF
ZfWAgY61wXm35IdCstIy PDF
ZfWAgY61wXm35IdCstIy PDF
▪ Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You ar e allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
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A. General Instructions
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. This question paper contains Three Parts.
6. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
7. Each Part has only one section: Section - A.
8. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
9. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any
form, are not allowed.
10. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
11. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.
12. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
(i) Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (21 – 25, 46 – 50, 71 – 75) contains 15 Numerical based questions, the answer of which
maybe positive or negative numbers or decimals and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer. There is no negative marking.
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A spherical shell of inner radius a and outer radius b is made of a material of resistivity ρ
and negligible dielectric activity. A single point charge q0is located at the center of the shell.
At time t = 0 all of the material of the shell is electrically neutral, including both the inner
and outer surfaces. What is the total charge on the outer surface of the shell as a function
of time for t > 0? Ignore any effects due to magnetism or radiation; do not assume that
b − a is small.
−
(b − a) t
−
bt
(A) Q = q 1 − e 4ab0 (B) Q = q 1 − e a0
−
(b − a) t
−
t
(C) Q = q 1 − e ab0 (D) Q = q 1 − e 0
2. A particle executing SHM in a straight line with amplitude A and time period T. What is the
maximum average speed of the particle during a time interval T/6?
9A 6A 3A 3A
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2T T T 2T
4. Three capacitors having capacitance 4,12,6 micro farad and break down voltage of 10V,
6V and 8V respectively are connected in series. What will be the break down voltage of the
combined system
(A) 12V (B) 20V (C) 22V (D) 4V
5. Point I (-6cm,-3cm) is the true image of a point source of light
S (-18cm,9cm) in a spherical mirror whose optical axis is
N1N2 as shown in figure.. Find the radius of curvature of the
mirror (in cm.).
normal direction given by . The electric field in the reflected light ray will be
polarized along
7. An inextensible string connects two masses m and 4m and the system rests on
a smooth horizontal floor. An impulse J is imparted to B as shown in figure. The
tension in the string in the subsequent motion is
(A) J2/mℓ (B) J2/5mℓ
(C) 4J /5mℓ
2
(D) J2/20mℓ
9. Figure shows two concentric shells. The capacitance of the system when
switch K is open is , capacitance on closing the switch is . The ratio
is
(A) (B)
(C) (D) none
10. A train is moving with constant acceleration along the x axis. A particle is
projected inside the train in a vertical plane containing the motion of train
as shown. Which of the following cannot be the trajectory of the particle
as observed from inside the train?
11. 8 identical spherical conducting droplets are charged to the same potential such that
energy stored in the electric field of each is E0. When they are mixed to form a large drop,
the new energy stored in electric field is:
(A) 8 E0 (B) 16 E0 (C) 32 E0 (D) 64 E0
13. In the given circuit, the Zener- diode has breakdown voltage
Vz = 3 Volt and the maximum power limit Pmax = 18 mW.
Choose the correct option.
(A) If VB= 12 Volt, the power dissipated in Zener diode will
exceed the minimum power limit, specified for it.
(B) If VB = 12 volt, the power dissipated in Zener diode will not exceed the maximum
power limit, specified for it.
(C) If VB = 15 volt, the power dissipated in zener diode will exceed the maximum power
limit, specified for it.
(D) If VB = 20 volt, the power dissipated in zener diode will not exceed the maximum power
limit, specified it.
14. Two physical pendulums perform small oscillations about the same horiiontal axis with
angular frequencies and . Their moments of inertia relative to the given axis are
equal to and respectively. In a state of stable equilibrium the pendulums were fastened
rigidly together. What will be the angular frequency of small oscillations of the compound
pendulum?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
18. A thin concavo-convex lens of glass ( = 3/2) is silvered from concave side.
The radii of curvature of the two surfaces are 40 cm and 20 cm. This
combination will behave as =1
(A) a convex mirror (B) a concave mirror
(C) a plane mirror (D) can not be determined
19. Two identical capacitors have the same capacitance C. One of them is charged to
potential V1 and the other to V2. The negative ends of the capacitors are connected
together. When the positive ends are also connected, the decrease in energy of the
system is:
1
(
(A) C V12 − V22
4
) 1
(
(B) C V12 + V22
4
) 1
(C) C ( V1 − V2 )
4
2 1
(D) C ( V1 + V2 )
4
2
20. The time taken by a particle to move down a straight tunnel from the surface of earth to
its centre is _____________ [R is radius of earth]
R R R 2 R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 g g 4 g 3 g
Section – A
Numerical based questions
21. When the temperature of a black body increases, it is observed that the wavelength
corresponding to maximum energy changes from 0.26 m to 0.13 m. The ratio of
emissive powers of the body at the respective temperature is
Space for rough work
22. Two balls A and B, each of mass m, are attached rigidly to the ends of a light rod of
length d. The structure rotates about the perpendicular bisector of the rod at an angular
speed . The angular momentum of the system about the axis of rotation is x times of
md2, where ‘x’ is
23. A uniform rod of mass m and length hinged at its end is released from rest when it is in
horizontal position. The normal reaction at the hinge when the rod becomes vertical is x
times of mg.
24. The wavelength of K line from an element of atomic number 51 is . For another
element the wavelength of K line is 4. If the atomic number of the second element is ‘y’
y+4
then is
10
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
26 For the real gases reaction 2CO ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → 2CO2 ( g ) ; H = −560kJ . In 10 litre rigid
vessel at 500 K the initial pressure is 70 bar and after the reaction it becomes 40 bar. The
change in internal energy is :
(A)–557 kJ (B) –530 kJ (C) –563 kJ (D) –550 kJ
27 A3 B2 is a sparingly soluble salt of molar mass M ( g mol −1 ) and solubility x g litre–1. The ratio
of the molar concentration of B3− to the solubility product of the salt is:
108 x5 1 M4 1 M4 108 M 4
(A) (B) (C) (D) 108
1 M5 108 x 4 54 x 4 1 x4
28 A crystal is made of particle X , Y and Z . X forms fcc packing. Y occupies all the octahedral
voids of X & Z occupies all the tetrahedral voids of X . If all the particle along one body
diagonal are removed then the formula of the crystal would be:
(A) XYZ 2 (B) X 2YZ2 (C) X 8Y4 Z5 (D) X 5Y4 Z8
29 Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol X ( PX = 150 torr ) and 2 mol Y ( PY = 300torr ) is 240
torr. In this case:
(A) There is a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(B) There is a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(C) There is no deviation from Raoult’s law
(D) Cannot be decided
30 A 250.0 mL sample of a 0.20 M Cr3+ is electrolysed with a current of 96.5 A. If the remaining
[Cr 3+ ] is 0.1 M , the duration of process is:
(A) 25 sec (B) 225 sec (C) 150sec (D) 75 sec
31 When ethyl acetate was hydrolysed in presence of 0.1 M HCl, the rate constant was found to
be 5.4 10 s . But in pressure of 0.1 M H 2 SO4 the rate constant was found to
–5 –1
35 What is the magnetic moment (spin only) and hybridization of the brown ring
complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4.?
(A) 3BM , sp3d 2 (B) 3BM , d 2 sp3 (C) 15BM , sp3d 2 (D) 15BM , d 2 sp3
36 Salt (A) gives brick red fumes (B) with conc. H2SO4 and K2Cr2O7 which gives yellow
solution (C)with NaOH and it gives yellow ppt. (D) with acetic acid and lead acetate.
What is(C)?
(A) Na2CrO4 (B)CrO2Cl2 (C)PbCrO4 (D)NaCl
37. The method of zone refining of metals is based on the principle of:
(A)Greater mobility of the pure metal than that of impurity
(B) Higher melting point of the impurity than that of the pure metal
(C)Greater noble character of the solid metal than that of the impurity
(D)Greater solubility of the impurity in the molten state than in the solid.
40
S will be:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
41 Which of the following is most reactive amine towards dilute aqueous hydrochloric acid?
(C) (D)
Section – A
Numerical based questions
46 100 mL of H2SO4 solution having molarity 1M and density 1.5 g/mL is mixed with 400 mL of
water. Calculate final molarity of H2SO4 solution, If final density is 1.25 g/mL:
CH3
Ph
If the sum of the total number of ortho and para substituted product formed in the above
X
reaction is given by X, then is: (Consider stereoisomers)
2
space for rough work
PART – III: MATHEMATICS
Section – A: Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1
− sin 2 x
51. If the derivative of a everywhere continuous function f(x) w.r.t. x is 2 , then the
f (x )
period of f(x), if f(x) is a periodic function, is
(A) (B) 2 (C) /2 (D) none of these.
52. The total number of terms in the expansion of (x + y)100 + (x – y)100 after simplification is
(A) 50 (B) 51 (C) 202 (D) none of these
53. The equation of the circle having its centre on the line x + 2y –3 = 0 and passing through
the point of intersection of the circles x2 + y2 –2x –4y + 1= 0 and x2 + y2 –4x –2y + 1 = 0 is
(A) x2 + y2 –6x + 1 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 –3x + 4 = 0
(C) x + y –4x – 2y + 1= 0
2 2
(D) x2 + y2 + 2x –4y + 4 = 0
y
55. If a and b are two unit vectors and is the angle between them, then a unit vector
along the angular bisector of a and b will be given by
a −b
(A) a − b (B) a + b (C) a + b (D)
2 cos 2 cos 2 sin 2sin
2 2 2 2
56. If t1 and t2 be the parameters of extremities of a focal chord of the parabola y 2 = 4ax ,
a > 0, then the equation t1 x 2 + ax + t2 = 0 has
(A) imaginary roots, (B) both roots positive
(C) one positive and one negative roots (D) both roots negative
57. Let 'E' and 'F' be two independent events. The probability that both 'E’ and 'F’ happen is
1/12 and the probability that neither 'E' nor 'F' happens is 1/2, then ,
(A) P ( E ) = 1/ 3, P ( F ) = 1/ 4 (B) P ( E ) = 1/ 2, P ( F ) = 1/ 6
(C) P ( E ) = 1 / 6, P ( F ) = 1 / 2 (D) P ( E ) = 1 / 4, P ( F ) = 1 / 3
3 6
n −1
(C) ( −1)n+1 + n (D) ( −1) + n ( n I )
6 3
6i −3i 1
59. If 4 3i −1 = x + iy, then
20 3 i
(A) x = 3, y = 1 (B) x = 1, y = 3 (C) x = 0, y = 3 (D) x = 0, y = 0
/4
dx
60. The value of
− / 4
2
sec x(1 + sin x )
is
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2
4 2
61. The equation 2cos−1 x = sin−1 2x 1 − x 2( ) is valid for all values of x satisfying
1
(A) –1 x 1 (B) 0 x 1 (C) 0 x 1 (D) x 1
2 2
2 + x; x 0
63. If f ( x) = ; then f(f(x)) is given by
2 − x; x 0
2 + x, x 0 4 + x, x 0 4 − x, x 0 2 − x, x0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 − x, x 0 4 − x, x 0 4 + x, x 0 2 + x, x0
1
64. The minimum value of is equal to
− 2 sin x − 2 3 cos x + 6
(A) - 1 (B) - 1 (C) 1 (D) 1
10 3 10 6
65. If z1, z2 , z3 be the vertices of ABC such that AB = 2 and A = , then which of the
AC 3
following is always true.
z − z1 z − z1 z −z
(A) 2 = 1+ i 3 (B) 2 = 1 − 3 i (C) 2 1 = 2 (D) None of these
z3 − z1 z3 − z1 z3 − z1
67. If Sn = nP + n(n − 1) Q , where Sn denotes the sum of the first ‘n’ terms of an A.P. then the
2
common difference is
(A) P + Q (B) 2P + 3Q (C) 2Q (D) Q
1 2n
r
68. lim equals
n→ n
r =1 n + r
2 2
69. A ellipse has OB as semi−minor axis, F and F are its foci and FBF is a right angle then
eccentricity of the ellipse is
1 1 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 3 3
70. 10 IIT and 2 NIT students sit at random in a row, and then number of ways in which
exactly 3 IIT students sit between 2 NIT students is
(A) 16 10! (B) 15 10! (C) 10 16! (D) none of these
Section – A
Numerical based questions
1 0 2 1
71. The value of x such that 1 1 x 0 2 1 1 = 0
2 1 0 1
72. Let f be a one−one function with domain {−2, 1, 0} and range {1, 2, 3} such that exactly
one of the following statements is true. f (−2) = 1, f (1) 1, f (0) 2 and the remaining two
are false. The distance between points A(−2, 1, 0) and B( f (−2), f (1), f (0) ) is
73. If in a triangle ABC, C = 1350, then value of tan A + tan B + tan A tan B equals
P
74. If number of digits in 530 is P then is (log102 = 0.3010)
7
75. The mean and variance of n observations x1 , x2 , x3 ,........, xn are 5 and 0 respectively. If
n
n
x
i =1
2
i = 400 , then
4
is
SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
PART-A
26. B 27. C 28. D 29. A
30. D 31. A 32. C 33. D
34. A 35. C 36. A 37. D
38. B 39. D 40. C 41. B
42. A 43. C 44. B 45. C
PART-C
46. 0.227 47. 5 48. 2.66 49. 2
50. 5