Complete Test 1
Complete Test 1
Complete Test 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
lime—approximately 35 minutes
(including the reading of the directions for each part)
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section, with special directions for each
part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. Do
not take notes or write in your test book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so.
Part A
Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation,
you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen.
In your test book, you will read: (A) The exam was really awful.
(B) It was the worst exam she had ever seen.
(C) It couldn’t have been more difficult.
(D) It wasn’t that hard.
You learn from the conversation that the man thought the exam was very difficult and that the woman
disagreed with the man. The best answer to the question, “What does the woman mean?” is (D), “It
wasn’t that hard.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).
1. (A) Her trip will last only a few days. 5. (A) A rainstorm is coming.
(B) She departs in several days. (B) He’d like to tell the woman about the
(C) She’s leaving in a few hours. storm.
(D) Her trip began a few days ago. (C) He agrees with the woman.
(D) The storm damage was minimal.
2. (A) A salesclerk.
(B) A lawyer. 6. (A) He said he was sorry
(C) A painter. (B) He was temporarily lost.
(D) An apartment manager. (C) He finally polished the silver.
(D) He was the last to appear.
3. (A) His paper was on the top of the pile.
(B) He received the highest mark. 7. (A) Marking the pages in red.
(C) He’s a graduate student in math. (B) Buying some bread.
(D) He had a tough math exam. (C) Reading more often.
(D) Jogging to the market.
4. (A) He’s upset.
(B) He’s not present.
(C) He’s seated in his chair.
(D) He’s where he should be.
13. (A) Helping him solve a personal problem. 22. (A) She also thinks they should not leave
(B) Only working on the harder now
problems. (B) They will both live until tomorrow.
(C) Getting some assistance. (C) The leaves will be falling tomorrow.
(D) Solving the problems herself. (D) She thinks they should leave today.
14. (A) The apartment has a nice closet. 23. (A) The teacher assigned the work
(B) It’s not far to the school from his carefully.
apartment. (B) The grade was not really low.
(C) He was able to find the university (C) She didn’t do her homework.
from his apartment. (D) Her homework contained a lot of
(D) The university apartments are closed. errors.
15. (A) She was certain about the time of the 24. (A) His weekend was relaxing.
party. (B) He spent the weekend on the beach.
(B) She traveled several miles to the party. (C) He needed a piece of paper.
(C) She planned the surprise party. (D) He preferred a more relaxing
(D) She looked happy. weekend.
25. (A) In the dining room.
16. (A) The rain is really heavy (B) At school.
(B) She shares the man’s opinion. (C) In a hospital.
(C) The heavy traffic was expected. (D) At a concert.
(D) The man should repeat what he said.
Part B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you
will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
Directions: In Part C of this section, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear some
questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, you will read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Here is an example.
In your test book, you will read: (A) Art from Americas inner cities.
(B) Art from the central region of the
United States.
(C) Art from various urban areas in
the United States.
(D) Art from rural sections of America.
The best answer to the question, “What style of painting is known as American regionalist?” is (D).
, “Art from rural sections of America.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).
The best answer to the question, “What is the name of Wood’s most successful painting?” is (C),
American Gothic. Therefore, the correct choice is (C).
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard
written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.
Structure
Directions: These questions are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words
or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the
sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
The sentence should read, “The president won the election by a landslide.” Therefore, you should
choose answer (A).
The sentence should read, “When did the doctor attend the conference?” Therefore, you should choose
answer (B).
2. Earth’s gravity pulls everything toward 4. Since the eighteenth century, _________
_____________ the Earth. the major genre of literature in most
(A) it centers literate societies.
(B) the center of (A) becoming the novel
(C) centered it (B) has the novel become
(D) the center (C) a becoming novel
(D) the novel has become
6. Dinosaurs became extinct 64 million years 12. Agriculture requires a steady supply of
______ first people ever appeared water to keep the plants live, so _______
on Earth. in areas with a lot of rainfall.
(A) prior to the (A) naturally started
(B) the preceding time (B) starting nature
(C) before the (C) it naturally started
(D) the (D) its natural start
7. Venus is almost the same size as the Earth, 13. Even though _________________ about
_____________ mountain ranges are $4,000 to fully train a hearing dog, these
much higher. dogs are generally given without charge to
(A) they qualified candidates.
(B) but they (A) it costs
(C) its (B) the cost of it
(D) but its (C) the cost
(D) costs
8. In concrete poetry the primary
consideration is the way that _______ in 14. The reactor core of a nuclear reactor is
the poem. housed in a steel vessel __________ by
(A) words are arranged a thick layer of concrete.
(B) the arrangement of words (A) is surrounded
(C) arranging the words (B) it surrounds
(D) words in an arrangement (C) surrounds
(D) surrounded
9. Scientists are now only beginning to
understand the factors ________ cigarette 15. The properties of every protein depend on
addiction. how ________________ are arranged in
(A) cause the molecular chain.
(B) causing (A) all the amino acids
(C) they cause (B) all of the amino acid
(D) causes (C) all of the aminos acidify
(D) of all the amino acids
10. Agricultural ________________ largely
responsible for the unfolding of nutritional
knowledge of vitamins and minerals early
in the last century.
(A) was
(B) chemists
(C) with chemists
(D) chemists were
Directions: In these questions, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or
phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find
the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen.
The sentence should read, “The four strings on a violin are tuned in fifths.” Therefore, you should
choose answer (B).
The sentence should read, “The research for the book Roots took Alex Haley twelve years.” Therefore,
you should choose answer (C).
16. Polar winters are length dark, and cold enough to kill most plants.
A B C D
17. The remains of very ancient wood have turn into coal.
A B C D
18. In 1893, Henry Ford built his first car engine in he home workshop in Detroit.
A B C D
19. Armies of laborers toiled for eight year to build the Erie Canal.
A B C D
20. Some of the stars in the closing stages of their lives becomes white dwarfs.
A B C D
21. The normally force of gravity at the Earth’s surface is called 1g.
A B C D
22. Edward McDowell is remember as the composer of such perennial favorites as “To a Wild Rose.”
A B C D
23. Because he is gravitationally bound to the Milky Way, the Andromeda galaxy is currently
A B C
approaching Earth.
D
25. The chain of rider stations along the way were crucial to the success of the Pony Express.
A B C D
26. The functional relationship between the brain`s two hemispheres has been a major focus of much
A B C D
studies in neuropsychology.
27. The Great Salt Lake is the remnant of a vast inland seas.
A B C D
28. A desire to eradicate irregular spellings in English can being traced back to the sixteenth century
A B C D
29. Jade can actually refer to either the less common and more valuable jadeite and the more
A B C
common and less valuable nephrite.
D
30. The number of electrons in an atom match the number of charged particles, or protons.
A B C D
31. The neocortex becomes progressive more developed in the more advanced mammals.
A B C D
32. During their first attempts as a songwriter, George Gershwin diligently continued to study the
A B C
piano, harmony, theory and orchestration.
D
33. Alexander Graham Bell was twenty-nine when him was granted a telephone patent in 1876.
A B C D
34. Early television sets such as the RCA Victor model had small screens but containing a mass of
A B C
additional components.
D
35. A huge amount of immigrants passed through the Great Hall on Ellis Island between 1892 and1954.
A B C D
36. The cliff dwellings in Mesa Verde were build in the thirteenth century by Native Americans who
A B C
farmed the green plateau.
D
37. The poet Walt Whitman was an easy recognized figure with his long, white beard and wide
A B C D
brimmed hat.
39. Someone who personifies the “American Dream” are Andrew Carnegie, who immigrated to the
A B
United States from Scotland without money and made millions in the steel industry.
C D
40. The Nez Perce lived peacefully with the trappers and traders who traveled theirs lands until the
A B C
discovery of gold in 1860 brought miners and settlers into the region.
D
This Section 15 designed to measure your ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic
and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American universities and colleges.
This section contains reading passages and questions about the passages.
Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of
questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or
implied in that passage.
John Quincy Adams, who served as the sixth president of the United States from 1825 to
1829, is today recognized for his masterful statesmanship and diplomacy. He dedicated his life
to public service, both in the presidency and in the various other political offices that he held.
Line Throughout his political career he demonstrated his unswerving belief in freedom of speech, the
(5) antislavery cause, and the right of Americans to be free from European and Asian domination.
According to the passage, John Quincy Adams “dedicated his life to public service.” Therefore, you
should choose answer (B).
(A) moveable
(B) insignificant
(C) unchanging
(D) diplomatic
The passage states that John Quincy Adams demonstrated his unswerving belief “throughout his
career.” This implies that the belief did not change. Therefore, you should choose answer (C) .
Romantic music of the nineteenth century differed greatly from the classical music of the
eighteenth century Classical music was primarily concerned with strict form and style. Romantic
composers, however, wanted to express their feelings and thoughts through music. Their music was
Line less structured than the music of the classicists; its goal was to fill the listener with emotion, with
(5) thoughts of beauty, wonder, and nature, and with poetry.
1. What is the topic of this passage? 6. The word “goal” in line 4 is NOT close in
(A) The characteristics of romantic music meaning to which of the following?
(B) Various types of music (A) Aim
(C) Popular music in the eighteenth century (B) Objective
(D) A comparison of romantic and (C) Result
classical music (D) Purpose
2. The word “greatly” in line 1 could best be 7. The word “emotion” in line 4 is closest in
replaced by which of the following? meaning to
(A) Famously (A) feeling
(B) Tremendously (B) logic
(C) Structurally (C) sound
(D) Slightly (D) movement
3. According to the passage, classical music 8. According to the passage, romantic music
(A) expresses feelings and thoughts filled the listener with all of the following
(B) was popular in the nineteenth century EXCEPT
(C) has rigid forms (A) thoughts of poetry
(D) is le structured than romantic music (B) thoughts of wonder
(C) thoughts of loveliness
4. The word “form” in line 2 is closest in (D) thoughts of strictness
meaning to
(A) structure 9. Where in the passage does the author
(B) meter mention when the different types of music
(C) meaning were popular?
(D) use (A) Lines 1—2
(B) Line 3
5. It can be inferred from the passage that (C) Line 4
romantic music (D) Line 5
(A) developed prior to the eighteenth
century
(B) did not have a strict form
(C) came before classical music
(D) was more concerned with form than
feeling
In the American colonies, Benjamin Franklin worked as a printer; from his work, he clearly
understood how difficult and costly it was to make books. However, he and his friends really enjoyed
reading and wanted to get hold of as many books as they could.
Line One of Franklin’s good ideas, and he had many good ideas, was to set up a club where people
(5) could share their books. The 50 members who joined the club when it was started in 1732 donated
books and also pooled their money to buy additional books. Anyone who wanted to could stop in
and read the books; club members were also allowed to take the books home with them, provided
they returned them on time. This “club” became America’s first circulating library.
10. The passage mainly discusses 16. It can be inferred from the passage that
(A) the American colonies nonmembers of Franklin’s club could NOT
(B) Benjamin Franklin’s work as a printer (A) enter the club
(C) Franklin’s many good ideas (B) look at the club’s books
(D) America’s first circulating library (C) read
(D) take books out of the club
11. A “printer” in line I is a person who
(A) works in a library 17. The word “provided” in line 7 could best
(B) runs a book club be replaced by which of the following?
(C) reads a lot of books (A) If
(D) produces books and pamphlets (B) Before
(C) Where
12. The passage indicates that Franklin had (D) Although
(A) no good ideas
(B) one good idea 18. In line 8, the books in a “circulating”
(C) few good ideas library are probably
(D) numerous good ideas (A) spun in circles
(B) moved up and down on the library
13. According to the passage, how many shelves
people were in the original club? (C) checked in and out of the library
(A) 5 (D) turned upside-down
(B) 15
(C) 50 19. Where in the passage does the author
(D) 500 explain why Franklin started the book
club?
14. The word “pooled” in line 6 could best be (A) Lines 1—2
replaced by (B) Lines 4—5
(A) watered (C) Lines 6—7
(B) swam (D) Line 8
(C) earned
(D) shared
The Hopi are part of the Pueblo Indian culture.Today they live mostly in northeastern Arizona,
at the edge of the Painted Desert. Something that sets the Hopi culture off from other cultures is
that it is in some senses a maternal rather than a paternal culture.
Line The Hopi are divided into clans, or families, along maternal hues, and as a result a child
(5) becomes a member of the mother’s clan rather than the father’s. In addition, ownership of property,
such as land and houses, passes from mother to daughter instead of from father to son, as it does in
other Native American cultures. However, women do not have all the power in this culture. Societal
authority still rests in the hands of men, but that authority does pass to men from their mothers.
20. The main idea of the passage is that 25. Which of the following is true about Hopi
(A) the Hopi are one type of Pueblo property ownership, according to the
Indian passage?
(B) the Hopi have a maternal culture (A) Hopi do not own property.
(C) most Indian cultures are paternal (B) Hopi property passes from father to
cultures son.
(D) today the Hopi live in northeastern (C) Property ownership in the Hopi
Arizona culture is similar to property
ownership in most other cultures.
21. The passage states that the Hopi (D) A Hopi daughter will probably inherit
(A) are enemies of the Pueblo Indians property from her mother.
(B) all live in northeastern Arizona
(C) live inside the Painted Desert 26. The expression “such as” in line 6 is
(D) may be found on the borders of the closest in meaning to
Painted Desert (A) then
(B) for example
22. In line 3, something that is “maternal” is (C) as a result
related to (D) also
(A) the culture
(B) the mother 27. Which of the following is NOT true about
(C) the Hopi power in Hopi society?
(D) the clan (A) Women do not have all the power in
Hopi society.
23. It is implied in the passage that most (B) Men have power in Hopi society.
Native American cultures (C) A man will probably inherit power
(A) live in the Painted Desert from his mother.
(B) are part of the Hopi tribe (D) A man inherits power from his father.
(C) are paternal cultures
(D) do not have strong families 28. The word “rests” in line 8 could best be
replaced by
24. A ”clan” in line5 is a (A) sleeps
(A) moth (B) remains
(B) father (C) naps
(C) family (D) tires
(D) child
29. Where in the passage does the author
describe where the Hopi live today?
(A) Lines 1—2
(B) Lines 4—5
(C) Lines 5—7
(D) Lines 7—8
Some kinds of animals that are still around today were in existence millions of years ago
during the time of the dinosaur.
One of these survivors is the crocodile, which has been around for about 100 million years.
Line Today’s crocodiles can grow to a length of 20 feet and weigh about a ton. Their prehistoric ancestors
(5) were about two-and-a-half times the size of today’s animals.
Another survivor from the past is the Galapagos tortoise, whose history goes back around 200
million years. The tortoise of today has not evolved much over the last 200 million years; it looks
about the same now as it did way back then.
The oldest survivor from prehistoric times is, can you believe it, the cockroach. Cockroaches
(10) have been able to stick around for more than 250 million years. The main reason for their
incredible endurance is their ability to live in all kinds of conditions and survive on all kinds of food.
30. This passage is mainly about 35. The passage indicates that the Galapagos
(A) the dinosaur replaced by tortoise
(B) how the crocodile has survived (A) has changed considerably
(C) animals that live to be very old (B) has been around for 250 million years
(D) types of animals that have existed for of the dinosaur
a long time (C) is about the same as it was in the era
(D) is much larger than prehistoric
31. The word “time” in line 2 could best be
(A) hour 36. Which of the following is NOT
(B) era mentioned about the cockroach?
(C) clock (A) It has evolved considerably over the
(D) moment years.
(B) It has been around for a quarter of a
32. According to the passage, the crocodile billion years.
tortoises (C) It lived at the time of the dinosaur.
(A) survived an attack by dinosaurs (D) It eats many kinds of food.
(B) first appeared 100,000 years ago
(C) has increased in size over time 37. The expression “stick around” in line 10
(D) has existed for millions of years is closest in meaning to
(A) endure
33. It can be inferred from the passage that (B) attack
prehistoric crocodiles could reach a (C) travel around
maximum length of (D) look around
(A) 10 feet
(B) 20 feet 38. Which of the animals mentioned in the
(C) 50 feet passage has been around for the longest
(D) 100 feet time?
(A) The dinosaur
34. The word “ancestors” in line 4 is closest in (B) The crocodile
meaning to which of the following? (C) The Galapagos tortoise
(A) Predecessors (D) The cockroach
(B) Descendants
(C) Monsters 39. Where in the passage does the author
(D) Enemies explain why the cockroach has been able
to endure?
(A) Lines 1—2
(B) Lines 7—8
(C) Line 9
(D) Lines 10—12
The three phases of the human memory are sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-
term memory. This division of memory into phases is based on the length of time of the memory.
Sensory memory is instantaneous memory It is an image or a memory that enters your mind
Line only for a short period of time; it comes and goes in under a second. The memory will not last
(5) longer than that unless the information enters short-term memory.
Information can be held in short-term memory for about 20 seconds or as long as you are
actively using it. If you repeat a fact to yourself, that fact will stay in your short-term memory as
long as you keep repeating it. Once you stop repeating it, either it is forgotten or it moves into long-
term memory.
(10) Long-term memory is the huge memory tank that can hold ideas and images for years and
years. Information can be added to your long-term memory when you actively try to put it there
through memorization or when an idea or image enters your mind on its own.
40. The best title for this passage would be 44. According to the passage, when will
(A) The Difference Between Sensory and information stay in your short-term
Short-Term Memory memory?
(B) How Long It Takes to Memorize (A) For as long as 20 minutes
(C) The Stages of Human Memory (B) As long as it is being used
(D) Human Phases (C) After you have repeated it many times
(D) When it has moved into long-term
41. The three phases of memory discussed in memory
this passage are differentiated according to
(A) location in the brain 45. The word “keep” in line 8 could best be
(B) the period of time it takes to replaced by
remember something (A) hold
(C) how the senses are involved in the (B) continue
memory (C) retain
(D) how long the memory lasts (D) save
42. The expression “is based on” in line 2 46. The word “Once” in line 8 could best be
could best be replaced by replaced by which of the following?
(A) is on top of (A) Just after
(B) is at the foot of (B) Although
(C) depends on (C) Just before
(D) is below (D) Because
43. According to the passage, which type of 47. All of the following are true about long-
memory is the shortest? term memory EXCEPT that
(A) Sensory memory (A) it has a very large capacity
(B) Active memory (B) it can hold information for a long time
(C) Short-term memory (C) it is possible to put information into it
(D) Long-term memory through memorization
(D) memorization is the only way that
information can get there